Abnormal Psychology, 15E James N Butcher Test Bank

Test Bank for Butcher, Mineka, and Hooley

Abnormal Psychology Fifteenth Edition

Contents CHAPTER 1 CHAPTER 2 CHAPTER 3 CHAPTER 4 CHAPTER 5 CHAPTER 6 CHAPTER 7 CHAPTER 8 CHAPTER 9 CHAPTER 10 CHAPTER 11 CHAPTER 12 CHAPTER 13 CHAPTER 14 CHAPTER 15 CHAPTER 16 CHAPTER 17

Abnormal Psychology: An Overview Historical and Contemporary Views of Abnormal Behavior Causal Factors and Viewpoints Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis Stress and Physical and Mental Health Panic, Anxiety, and Their Disorders Mood Disorders and Suicide Somatoform and Dissociative Disorders Eating Disorders and Obesity Personality Disorders Substance-Related Disorders Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders Neurocognitive Disorders Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence Therapy Contemporary and Legal Issues in Abnormal Psychology

1 38 77 120 153 186 226 266 297 329 371 409 443 477 507 546 587

TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 1 Abnormal Psychology: An Overview

Topic

What Do We Mean by Abnormality?

The World Around Us: Extreme Generosity or Pathological Behavior?

How Common Are Mental Disorders?

Research Approaches in Abnormal Psychology Sources of Information

Forming and Testing Hypotheses

Research Designs

Multiple Choice (1.1-) Blank (1.2-) Short Answer (1.3-) Essay (1.4-) Multiple Choice (1.1-)

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

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2, 3, 6, 12, 15, 16, 17, 20, 24, 25

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27, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 37, 38, 39, 40, 42, 43, 44, 46, 47, 48, 49, 50

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34, 35, 36, 45

Blank (1.2-) Short Answer (1.3-) Essay (1.4-) Multiple Choice (1.1-)

Blank (1.2-) Short Answer (1.3-) Essay (1.4-) Multiple Choice (1.1-) Blank (1.2-) Short Answer (1.3-) Essay (1.4-) Multiple Choice (1.1-) Blank (1.2-) Short Answer (1.3-) Essay (1.4-) Multiple Choice (1.1-) Blank (1.2-) Short Answer (1.3-) Essay (1.4-) Multiple Choice (1.1-) Blank (1.2-) Short Answer (1.3-) Essay (1.4-)

Short Answer Essay

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52

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53, 55

54, 56

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57, 58 9

59, 61, 62, 63

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69, 73, 79, 84, 87, 90, 96,

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72, 74, 77, 80, 81, 82, 83, 85, 88, 93, 95, 98, 100 5

75, 76, 78, 86, 89, 91, 92, 94, 97, 99,

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Chapter 1: Abnormal Psychology: An Overview Multiple-Choice Questions 1.1-1. Which of the following is an example of family aggregation? a. Both Jane and her husband are alcoholic. b. Jim and John, 21-year-old twins, are both schizophrenic. c. Karen, her mother, and her grandmother all have been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder. d. Kim's suicide was apparently a reaction to her mother's abuse.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-1 Page Ref: 2 Topic: Abnormal Psychology/An Overview Skill: Applied Answer: c. Karen, her mother, and her grandmother all have been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder.

1.1-2. What does Monique’s case best illustrate? a. Most individuals with mental disorders are violent. b. Women are more likely to commit suicide than men. c. Most individuals who experience a mental breakdown are clearly unwell long before treatment is sought. d. Mental illness can have a significant impact on one's life.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1- 2 Page Ref: 2 Topic: Abnormal Psychology/An Overview Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Mental illness can have a significant impact on one's life.

1.1-3. What does Monique’s case best illustrate? a. Abnormal behavior usually produces more distress in others than the person who engages in the abnormal behavior. b. Abnormal behavior covers a wide range of behavioral disturbances. c. Most people who suffer from abnormal behavior are quickly identified as deviant by other people. d. When people suffer from mental disorders, they are unable to work or live independently.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-3 Page Ref: 2 Topic: Abnormal Psychology/An Overview Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Abnormal behavior covers a wide range of behavioral disturbances. ..

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1.1-4. What makes defining abnormality difficult? a. There are so many types of abnormal behavior that they can't be accurately described. b. There is no one behavior that serves to make someone abnormal. c. Most of us are abnormal much of the time so that we cannot tell what is normal. d. Criteria for abnormality have yet to be developed.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-4 Page Ref: 3 Topic: What Do We Mean by Abnormality?

Skill: Factual Answer: b. There is no one behavior that serves to make someone abnormal.

1.1-5. Which of the following is a sufficient element to determine abnormality? a. Suffering b. Maladaptiveness c. Deviancy d. There is no sufficient element.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-5 Page Ref: 3 Topic: What Do We Mean by Abnormality?

Skill: Factual Answer: d. There is no sufficient element.

1.1-6. The fact that body piercings are commonplace today while they would once have been viewed as abnormal illustrates that a. modern society is always open to change. b. what is acceptable for men and women is no longer different. c. American culture values independence. d. the values of a society may change over time.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-6 Page Ref: 5 Topic: What Do We Mean by Abnormality?

Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. the values of a society may change over time.

1.1-7. Brett persistently injects himself with pain killers. This has greatly increased his chance of overdosing and dying. His behavior harms no one else. According to the DSM, is Brett's behavior consistent with the definition of a mental disorder? a. Yes, because very few people in society engage in this behavior. b. Yes, because he is persistently acting in a way that harms him. c. No, because his behavior must also harm the well-being of others in the community. ..

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d. No, because there is no evidence that his actions are out of his own control.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 1.1-7 Page Ref: 4 Topic: What Do We Mean by Abnormality?

Skill: Applied Answer: b. Yes, because he is persistently acting in a way that harms him.

1.1-8. According to the DSM, when is deviant behavior viewed as indicative of a mental disorder? a. Always b. Only when the behavior is inconsistent with cultural norms c. When it is a symptom of a dysfunction in the individual d. Never Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-8 Page Ref: 3 Topic: What Do We Mean by Abnormality?

Skill: Factual Answer: c. When it is a symptom of a dysfunction in the individual 1.1-9. In the field of abnormal psychology, what does DSM stand for? a. Disorders, Science, and the Mind b. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual c. Descriptors for the Science of the Mind d. Diagnostic Science of the Mind Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-9 Page Ref: 5 Topic: The DSM-5 and the Definition of Mental Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual 1.1-10. Which of the following is included in the DSM? a. A discussion of the various causes of mental disorders b. A means of identifying different mental disorders c. A description of the necessary and sufficient conditions for mental illness d. A description of all of the possible treatments for each disorder Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-10 Page Ref: 5 Topic: The DSM-5 and the Definition of Mental Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. A means of identifying different mental disorders 1.1-11. In the United States, the standard for defining types of mental disorders is ..

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contained in the a. American Psychological Association's bylaws. b. American Psychiatric Association's bylaws. c. World Health Organization's classification code. d. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-11 Page Ref: 5 Topic: The DSM-5 and the Definition of Mental Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.

1.1-12. Which of the following best describes the DSM? a. A complete guide to the origin, diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders b. A work in progress that classifies mental disorders based on what is currently known c. A fundamentally flawed collection of unfounded assumptions about mental disorders d. An objective guide to diagnosing mental disorders Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-12 Page Ref: 6 Topic: The DSM-5 and the Definition of Mental Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. A work in progress that classifies mental disorders based on what is currently known 1.1-13. According to the textbook, Zell Kravinsky the burden to _______ was almost unbearable. a. hoard personal possessions b. wash his hands compulsively c. help others d. write and rewrite letters to his family Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-13 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Extreme Generosity or Pathological Behavior?

Skill: Factual Answer: c. help others.

1.1-14. What is a reason for classifying mental disorders? a. A classification system allows information to be organized. b. Then professionals won't need to look at as much information about a person. c. Then professionals can make assumptions about people based on their diagnosis. d. The diagnosis then often has an effect on peoples' behaviors. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-14 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Why Do We Need to Classify Mental Disorders?

Skill: Factual Answer: a. A classification system allows information to be organized.

1.1-15. ________ is a necessary first step toward introducing order to any discussion of the cause or treatment of abnormal behavior. a. Epidemiology b. Classification c. Brain research d. Labeling Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-15 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Why Do We Need to Classify Mental Disorders?

Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Classification 1.1-16. Which of the following is a disadvantage of having a classification system for mental disorders? a. A classification system establishes the types of problems that mental professionals can treat. b. When a label is used to describe an individual's behavior, information about the person is lost. c. A classification system allows for research to advance. d. Identifying the disorder that an individual has guides treatment.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-16 Page Ref: 8 Topic: What are the Disadvantages of Classification?

Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. When a label is used to describe an individual's behavior, information about the person is lost.

1.1-17. Which of the following statements is true concerning classification systems for mental disorders? a. It is far more important that they be reliable than it is for them to be valid. b. Classification systems make it more difficult to gather statistics on the incidence and prevalence of disorders. c. Classification systems meet the needs of medical insurance companies who need diagnoses in order to authorize payment of claims. d. Although they assist scientists who are researching disorders, they inhibit our ability to communicate about abnormal behavior in a consistent way.

Difficulty: 2 ..

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Question ID: 1.1-17 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Why Do We Need to Classify Mental Disorders?

Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Classification systems meet the needs of medical insurance companies who need diagnoses in order to authorize payment of claims.

1.1-18. All of the following are disadvantages of classifying and diagnosing mental disorders EXCEPT a. stereotyping. b. labeling. c. the potential stigma. d. providing structure.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-18 Page Ref: 8 Topic: What are the Disadvantages of Classification?

Skill: Factual Answer: d. providing structure.

1.1-19. Stereotyping is an example of the stigma of mental illness. It means a. people are reluctant to discuss their psychological problems because they are afraid others won't like them. b. people feel very sad and upset when they find out they have a mental illness. c. the automatic and often incorrect beliefs people have about people with mental illness. d. the problem of removing the diagnosis, even if people make a full recovery from mental illness.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-19 Page Ref: 7 Topic: What Are the Disadvantages of Classification?

Skill: Factual Answer: c. the automatic and often incorrect beliefs people have about people with mental illness.

1.1-20. What is wrong with describing someone as being "schizophrenic"? a. Nothing. b. Such a definitive diagnosis is rare. c. The behavior of the schizophrenic changes so rapidly that this is only true a small percentage of the time. d. Labels should be applied to disorders, not to people.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-20 Page Ref: 8 Topic: What Are the Disadvantages of Classification? ..

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Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Labels should be applied to disorders, not to people.

1.1-21. Which of the following has been shown to reduce stigma of the mentally ill? a. Educating people that a mental illness is a “real” brain disorder b. Referring to a mental illness as a “mental disease” c. Increasing contact with individuals who have a mental illness d. Applying labels to individuals, such as “schizophrenic” or “bipolar” Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-21 Page Ref: 9 Topic: How Can We Reduce Prejudicial Attitudes Toward the Mentally Ill? Skill: Factual Answer: c. Increasing contact with individuals who have a mental illness.

1.1-22. What does the case of JGH, a Native American elder, illustrate? a. Alcoholism has long lasting effects on mood and behavior, even when drinking has ceased. b. A person may focus on somatic symptoms, rather than mood, when depressed. c. Depression is not universal. d. The symptoms of some illnesses are not apparent until after lengthy psychological evaluation.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-22 Page Ref: 9 Topic: How Does Culture Affect What Is Considered Abnormal?

Skill: Applied Answer: b. A person may focus on somatic symptoms, rather than mood, when depressed.

1.1-23. What is a culture-specific disorder? a. A disorder seen in all cultures b. A disorder that is seen universally, but presents itself differently depending on cultural factors c. A disorder that is a product of cultural stressors d. A disorder seen only in certain cultures Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-23 Page Ref: 10 Topic: Culture-Specific Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. A disorder seen only in certain cultures 1.1-24. Practically speaking, “abnormal” behavior means a. any behavior that is "away from the normal" and causes any distress. b. any behavior that causes the person distress. ..

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c. any behavior that causes us to consider our values. d. any behavior that deviates from the norms of the society in which the person lives.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-24 Page Ref: 10 Topic: Culture-Specific Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. any behavior that deviates from the norms of the society in which the person lives.

1.1-25. Maria believes that her dead grandmother occasionally speaks to her. In deciding if Maria has a mental illness or not, which of the following is important? a. How old is Maria? b. Is Maria's belief consistent with the beliefs of her culture? c. Do people in general consider Maria's belief abnormal? d. Does her belief match any of the symptoms in the disorders in the DSM? Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-25 Page Ref: 10 Topic: Culture-Specific Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Is Maria's belief consistent with the beliefs of her culture?

1.1-26. Members of which culture are likely to make the distinction between mental illness (a term used to denote less severe conditions) and madness (a term used to describe more severe problems)? a. Iranians b. Jamaicans c. Americans d. Japanese Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-26 Page Ref: 11 Topic: Mad, Sick, Head Nuh Good: Mental Illness and Stigma in Jamaica Skill: Factual Answer: b. Jamaicans 1.1-27. Why is it important to know how many people have diagnosable mental illnesses? a. Such information is needed to plan for the provision of adequate services. b. The number of people with mental illness and the level of crime are highly correlated. c. If the incidence of mental illness is rising, there needs to be a corresponding increase in the level of funding for medical research. d. Pharmaceutical companies need such information to ensure the appropriate ..

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level of drug production.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-27 Page Ref: 11 Topic: How Common Are Mental Disorders?

Skill: Factual Answer: a. Such information is needed to plan for the provision of adequate services.

1.1-28. ___________ refers to the estimated proportion of actual, active cases of the disorder in a given population at a given point of time. a. Point prevalence b. Absolute prevalence c. 1-year prevalence d. Lifetime prevalence Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-28 Page Ref: 12 Topic: Prevalence and Incidence Skill: Factual Answer: a. Point prevalence.

1.1-29. What is epidemiology? a. The exploration of what forms of treatment are most effective b. A form of psychotherapy c. The study of the role of genes in mental illness d. The study of the distribution of a disorder in a population Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-29 Page Ref: 12 Topic: Prevalence and Incidence Skill: Factual Answer: d. The study of the distribution of a disorder in a population 1.1-30. Mental health epidemiology is a. the study of epidemics in mental disorders among the general population. b. the study of organic brain diseases among different ethnic populations of a defined geographic region. c. the study of the distribution of mental disorders in a given population. d. a sociological study of psychological disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-30 Page Ref: 12 Topic: Prevalence and Incidence Skill: Factual Answer: c. the study of the distribution of mental disorders in a given population.

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1.1-31. What does it mean if a disorder is said to be highly prevalent? a. It is common. b. It is not curable. c. It is treatable. d. It is contagious.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-31 Page Ref: 12 Topic: Prevalence and Incidence Skill: Factual Answer: a. It is common.

1.1-32. What type of prevalence estimate tends to be lowest? a. Point prevalence b. One-year prevalence c. Lifetime prevalence d. Virtual prevalence Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-32 Page Ref: 12 Topic: Prevalence and Incidence Skill: Factual Answer: a. Point prevalence 1.1-33. ________ rates may be reported in terms of the lifetime risk of contracting a particular disorder. a. Prevalence b. Point prevalence c. Point incidence d. Incidence Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-33 Page Ref: 12 Topic: Prevalence and Incidence Skill: Factual Answer: a. Prevalence 1.1-34. Which of the following is an example of point prevalence? a. Forty people had a panic attack in the last year. b. Seventy people in her graduating class had been diagnosed with anorexia at some time during the past four years. c. 1% of the population is currently experiencing depressive symptoms. d. 15% of women will suffer from an anxiety disorder before the age of 30.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-34 Page Ref: 12 ..

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Topic: Prevalence and Incidence Skill: Applied Answer: c. 1% of the population is currently experiencing depressive symptoms.

1.1-35. What type of prevalence data only counts active cases of a disorder? a. Point prevalence b. One-year prevalence c. Lifetime prevalence d. All prevalence data count both those who have the disorder and those who have recovered.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-35 Page Ref: 12 Topic: Prevalence and Incidence Skill: Applied Answer: a. Point prevalence 1.1-36. The mayor of a city wants to know the number of new cases of a disorder over the past year. The mayor should ask an epidemiologist for the ________ of the disorder. a. prevalence rate b. incidence rate c. point prevalence d. acute occurrence Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-36 Page Ref: 12 Topic: Prevalence and Incidence Skill: Applied Answer: b. incidence rate 1.1-37. What type of prevalence estimate tends to be highest? a. Point prevalence b. One-year prevalence c. Lifetime prevalence d. Virtual prevalence Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-37 Page Ref: 12 Topic: Prevalence and Incidence Skill: Factual Answer: c. Lifetime prevalence 1.1-38. What term refers to the number of new cases of a disorder that occur over a given time period? a. Point prevalence ..

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b. One-year prevalence c. Incidence d. Valence Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-38 Page Ref: 12 Topic: Prevalence and Incidence Skill: Factual Answer: c. Incidence 1.1-39. Why is it believed that the NCS survey used to estimate the prevalence of mental illness underestimated that prevalence? a. Most problems are acute. b. Few people report symptoms of mental illness when completing surveys. c. The incidence of comorbidity is too high. d. Measures of several types of disorders were not included.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-39 Page Ref: 12 Topic: Prevalence Estimates for Mental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. Measures of several types of disorders were not included.

1.1-40. What is the most prevalent grouping of psychological disorder? a. Anxiety disorders b. Depressive disorders c. Substance abuse disorders d. Dissociative disorders Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-40 Page Ref: 12 Topic: Prevalence Estimates for Mental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. Anxiety disorders 1.1-41. What is important to remember about the apparent high lifetime rate of mental disorders? a. Many people were probably misdiagnosed. b. So many people have disorders and have them seriously that this has become a major health issue. c. Many people with disorders are not seriously affected by them or may have them for only a short time. d. A large majority of people with disorders seek treatment, so the problem is not as bad as it seems.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-41 ..

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Page Ref: 12 Topic: Prevalence Estimates for Mental Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Many people with disorders are not seriously affected by them or may have them for only a short time.

1.1-42. What can be said about individuals who have a history of at least one serious psychological disorder? a. Most are effectively treated and never experience mental illness again. b. Over 50% have at least two or more other disorders. c. Few have a comorbid disorder. d. Individuals who have sought treatment for one illness are unlikely to ever experience another.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-42 Page Ref: 13 Topic: Prevalence Estimates for Mental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: b. Over 50% have at least two or more other disorders.

1.1-43. Comorbidity means a. that a disorder is often fatal. b. that a person has two or more disorders. c. that a person has a more severe form of a disorder. d. that a person is unlikely to recover from the disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-43 Page Ref: 13 Topic: Prevalence Estimates for Mental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: b. that a person has two or more disorders.

1.1-44. A major finding from the National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) was that a. those people who have three or more comorbid disorders have one or more mild and transitory disorders. b. over half of the people with a history of one serious disorder had two or more comorbid disorders. c. people who have one mental disorder are unlikely to have a second comorbid disorder. d. as people grow older they are more likely to have multiple severe disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-44 Page Ref: 13 Topic: Prevalence Estimates for Mental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: b. over half of the people with a history of one serious disorder had two or more ..

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comorbid disorders.

1.1-45 Most mental health treatment a. occurs in an outpatient setting. b. requires an overnight stay. c. does not involve professionals. d. occurs in psychiatric hospitals.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-45 Page Ref: 14 Topic: Treatment Skill: Applied Answer: a. occurs in an outpatient setting.

1.1-46. Most people with psychological disorders a. seek treatment as soon as they realize there is a problem. b. recover only if they seek treatment. c. delay seeking treatment, sometimes for many years. d. exaggerate their symptoms so it takes longer for them to recover.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-46 Page Ref: 14 Topic: Treatment Skill: Factual Answer: c. delay seeking treatment, sometimes for many years.

1.1-47. The trend toward deinstitutionalization in recent years means that a. inpatient hospitalization in public institutions has increased. b. people with psychological problems more often receive inpatient treatment than outpatient treatment. c. people are hospitalized more briefly and then treated on an outpatient basis. d. the number of community services has skyrocketed.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-47 Page Ref: 14 Topic: Treatment Skill: Factual Answer: c. people are hospitalized more briefly and then treated on an outpatient basis.

1.1-48. Which of the following mental health professionals has a doctoral degree in psychology with both research and clinical skill specialization? a. the clinical psychologist b. the occupational therapist c. the psychoanalyst d. the psychiatrist Difficulty: 1 ..

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Question ID: 1.1-48 Page Ref: 14 Topic: Mental Health Professionals Skill: Factual Answer: a. the clinical psychologist 1.1-49. Which of the following mental health professionals has a medical degree? a. The clinical psychologist b. The psychiatrist c. The counseling psychologist d. The occupational therapist Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-49 Page Ref: 14 Topic: Mental Health Professionals Skill: Factual Answer: b. The psychiatrist 1.1-50. A clinical psychologist is a. a Ph.D. in psychology with experience in mental health. b. a person with doctoral training and experience in academic and learning problems. c. an M.D. or Ph.D. with intensive experience in psychoanalysis. d. a Ph.D. in social work.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1-1.50 Page Ref: 14 Topic: Mental Health Professionals Skill: Factual Answer: a. a Ph.D. in psychology with experience in mental health.

1.1-51. Describing a disorder as acute means that a. it causes very severe distress and impairment. b. it causes very mild distress and impairment. c. it is a very long-lasting disorder. d. it is a disorder that is short in duration.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-51 Page Ref: 15 Topic: Research Approaches In Abnormal Psychology Skill: Factual Answer: d. it is a disorder that is short in duration.

1.1-52. Why is it important to have some understanding of what causes a psychological disorder? a. A disorder cannot be identified unless there is an understanding of where it ..

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came from. b. All recognized disorders have known causes. c. Biological treatments only work when a disorder has a biological cause. d. The selection of a treatment approach is largely determined by assumptions about causality.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-52 Page Ref: 15 Topic: Research Approaches In Abnormal Psychology Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. The selection of a treatment approach is largely determined by assumptions about causality.

1.1-53. One strength of case studies is a. they can help prove causal relationships between variables. b. they can generate new ideas to explore. c. they do not involve bias. d. they are usually highly accurate.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-53 Page Ref: 16 Topic: Sources of Information/Case Studies Skill: Factual Answer: b. they can generate new ideas to explore.

1.1-54. Why is it dangerous to make conclusions based on case studies? a. Case studies can provide little information about a disorder. b. Few patients are willing to be used as case studies. c. It is unethical. d. Conclusions based on so little data are likely to be flawed.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-54 Page Ref: 16 Topic: Sources of Information/Case Studies Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Conclusions based on so little data are likely to be flawed.

1.1-55. Which of the following typically involves having a patient or research participant fill out questionnaires? a. Case study method b. Direct observation c. Self-report data collection d. Psychophysiological data collection Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-55 Page Ref: 16 ..

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Topic: Sources of Information/Self-Report Data Skill: Factual Answer: c. Self-report data collection 1.1-56. Which of the following typically involves the use of trained observers? a. Case study method b. Direct observation c. Self-report data collection d. Psychophysiological data collection Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-56 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Sources of Information/Observational Approaches Skill: Factual Answer: b. Direct observation 1.1-57. A psychologist reports a single case of a disorder, detailing the person's feelings and responses. This research strategy is a. very strong and widely used in abnormal psychology. b. rarely used in abnormal psychology because few people are willing to examine their own lives closely. c. weak because it rarely provides information we can generalize to others with the disorder. d. weak because it confuses correlational data with experimental data.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 1.1-57 Page Ref: 16 Topic: Sources of Information/Case Studies Skill: Applied Answer: c. weak because it rarely provides information we can generalize to others with the disorder.

1.1-58. Carl is asked to provide information about his drinking. Despite the fact that he has had several arrests for driving while intoxicated, Carl reports that he has no problems with drinking. This is an example of a. the problems with self-report data. b. the problems with case studies. c. the problems of diagnosis. d. the problems of forming hypotheses.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-58 Page Ref: 16 Topic: Sources of Information/Self-Report Data Skill: Applied Answer: a. the problems with self-report data.

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1.1-59. ________ are more or less plausible ideas used to explain something (e.g., a behavior) and can be tested using research methods. a. Observations b. Hypotheses c. Variables d. Correlations Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-59 Page Ref: 18 Topic: Forming and Testing Hypotheses Skill: Factual Answer: b. Hypotheses 1.1-60. An important FIRST step in studying a particular disorder is a. selecting the best case study for analysis. b. determining the criteria for identifying people who have the disorder. c. deciding upon the appropriate statistical analyses to use on the data to be collected. d. selecting the appropriate subjects for study.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-60 Page Ref: 19 Topic: Forming and Testing Hypotheses/Sampling and Generalization Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. determining the criteria for identifying people who have the disorder.

1.1-61. Upon deciding to study individuals with a given disorder, what is the next step that should be taken? a. Select criteria for identifying individuals with the disorder. b. Determine what treatment approach will be tested. c. Establish which subjects will be the control group and which will be in the experimental group. d. Gather survey data to determine where your subjects are most likely to reside.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-61 Page Ref: 19 Topic: Forming and Testing Hypotheses/Sampling and Generalization Skill: Factual Answer: a. Select criteria for identifying individuals with the disorder.

1.1-62. Ideally, a sample is described as what? a. Random b. Representative c. Generalizable d. Demographically pure Difficulty: 1 ..

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Question ID: 1.1-62 Page Ref: 19 Topic: Forming and Testing Hypotheses/Sampling and Generalization Skill: Factual Answer: b. Representative 1.1-63. Why is a representative sample desirable? a. Such samples are random. b. Hypotheses can only be tested on representative samples. c. Only representative samples yield meaningful results. d. The more representative a sample is, the more generalizable the data.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-63 Page Ref: 19 Topic: Forming and Testing Hypotheses/Internal and External Validity Skill: Factual Answer: d. The more representative a sample is, the more generalizable the data.

1.1-64. Dr. Katz is researching the causes of phobias. He puts an ad in a newspaper asking for people who have an intense, distressing fear of snakes to come and participate in his study. The major problem with this is a. the people who come may not have a phobia. b. his sample will be too small. c. he is not getting a representative sample. d. he doesn't know if people are telling the truth about their fears or not.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-64 Page Ref: 19 Topic: Forming and Testing Hypotheses/Sampling and Generalization Skill: Applied Answer: c. he is not getting a representative sample.

1.1-65. Why would a researcher want to ensure that every person in the larger group of study has an equal chance of being included in the sample? a. This helps eliminate a correlational relationship. b. It increases the chances of finding a causal relationship. c. It provides important epidemiological information such as the prevalence and incidence of the disorder. d. It increases the researcher's ability to generalize findings to the larger group.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-65 Page Ref: 19 Topic: Forming and Testing Hypotheses/Sampling and Generalization Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. It increases the researcher's ability to generalize findings to the larger group.

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1.1-66. A researcher interested in the health problems of people with schizophrenia interviews only those people diagnosed with the disorder who are in an inpatient facility. The most glaring weakness in this study is a. the absence of correlational statistics. b. the failure to use DSM-IV criteria for health problems. c. having an inappropriate control group. d. nonrepresentative sampling.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 1.1-66 Page Ref: 19 Topic: Forming and Testing Hypotheses/Sampling and Generalization Skill: Applied Answer: d. nonrepresentative sampling.

1.1-67. In Dr. Lu's study of eating disorders, she looked at the academic histories of girls with an eating disorder and girls who did not have such problems. In this example, the girls with eating disorders are the ________ group. a. comparison b. control c. criterion d. treatment Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-67 Page Ref: 19 Topic: Forming and Testing Hypotheses/Criterion and Comparison Groups Skill: Applied Answer: c. criterion 1.1-68. In Dr. Lu's study of eating disorders, she looked at the academic histories of girls with an eating disorder and girls who did not have such problems. In this example, the girls without eating disorders are the ________ group. a. conforming b. control c. criterion d. treatment Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-68 Page Ref: 19 Topic: Forming and Testing Hypotheses/Criterion and Comparison Groups Skill: Applied Answer: b. control 1.1-69. In what significant ways do correlational research designs differ from experimental research designs? a. Observational research does not require the selection of a sample to study. b. Observational research does not generate hypotheses. ..

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c. There is no comparison group in observational research. d. There is no manipulation of variables in observational research.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-69 Page Ref: 20 Topic: Research Designs/Studying the World as It Is: Correlational Research Designs Skill: Factual Answer: d. There is no manipulation of variables in observational research.

1.1-70. To determine whether certain characteristics are true of people in general, and not just of people with mental disorders, it is important to use a. an experimental design. b. a representative sample of individuals with the disorder. c. a control group. d. a criterion group.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-70 Page Ref: 20 Topic: Forming and Testing Hypotheses/Sampling and Generalization Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. a control group.

1.1-71. What is a good control group for a research study on people with eating disorders? a. People who have an eating disorder and a wide range of educational backgrounds. b. A group that is comparable to those with eating disorders except that they eat normally. c. A group that is drawn from the sample of people with eating disorders. d. People who used to have eating disorders but no longer say they do.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-71 Page Ref: 20 Topic: Forming and Testing Hypotheses/Criterion and Comparison Groups Skill: Applied Answer: b. A group that is comparable to those with eating disorders except that they eat normally.

1.1-72. Why are correlational research designs often used in abnormal psychology? a. They are best at determining cause and effect. b. They are the most useful for comparing groups. c. They give in-depth descriptions of the disorder being studied. d. It is often unethical or impossible to directly manipulate the variables involved in abnormal psychology.

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Question ID: 1.1-72 Page Ref: 20 Topic: Research Designs/Studying the World as It Is: Correlational Research Designs Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. It is often unethical or impossible to directly manipulate the variables involved in abnormal psychology.

1.1-73. What is the most important limitation of correlational studies? a. They cannot determine cause and effect. b. They are very subject to bias. c. They rarely have representative samples. d. They are very difficult to do.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-73 Page Ref: 20 Topic: Research Designs/Studying the World as It Is: Observational Research Designs Skill: Factual Answer: a. They cannot determine cause and effect.

1.1-74. Researchers have observed that women who wear bras for more than 16 hours a day are more likely to develop breast cancer than those who spend less time in a bra. In other words, there is a correlation between wearing a bra and breast cancer. Based on this finding, which of the following statements is true? a. Wearing a bra causes cancer. b. All women should avoid wearing a bra for more than 16 hours a day. c. There is no relationship between wearing a bra and breast cancer; these data are clearly flawed. d. Some additional variable may serve to explain the relationship observed between wearing a bra and developing cancer.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-74 Page Ref: 20 Topic: Research Designs/Measuring Correlation Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Some additional variable may serve to explain the relationship observed between wearing a bra and developing cancer.

1.1-75. Which of the following may be safely inferred when a significant negative correlation is found between variables x and y? a. x causes y b. y causes x c. as x increases, y increases d. as x increases, y decreases Difficulty: 2 ..

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Question ID: 1.1-75 Page Ref: 20 Topic: Research Designs/Measuring Correlation Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. as x increases, y decreases 1.1-76. Dr. Gordon finds that heroin-addicted adults almost always smoked cigarettes and drank alcohol when they were young adolescents. Knowing this strong association we can conclude that a. cigarette smoking causes drinking, which causes heroin addiction. b. if cigarette smoking and drinking could be stopped in adolescence, heroin addiction would be stopped too. c. heroin addiction is caused by the same factors that cause early smoking and drinking. d. there is an association among the variables, but no causal inferences should be drawn.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-76 Page Ref: 20 Topic: Research Designs/Measuring Correlation Skill: Applied Answer: d. there is an association among the variables, but no causal inferences should be drawn.

1.1-77. Individuals who have alcohol problems tend to come from families with other individuals who have alcohol problems. This would suggest that a. genetic factors cause an individual to have alcohol problems. b. environmental factors cause an individual to have alcohol problems. c. both genetic and environmental factors cause an individual to have problems. d. although there is an association, no cause-effect relationship can be concluded.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 1.1-77 Page Ref: 20-21 Topic: Research Designs/Measuring Correlation Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. although there is an association, no cause-effect relationship can be concluded.

1.1-78. Dr. Francis has discovered that the more spaghetti people eat, the less likely they are to be diagnosed with depression. Based on this finding, what statement can be made about the relationship between spaghetti and depression? a. There is a positive correlation between spaghetti eating and depression. b. There is a negative correlation between spaghetti eating and depression. c. Spaghetti prevents depression. d. There is no relationship between spaghetti eating and depression.

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Question ID: 1.1-78 Page Ref: 20 Topic: Research Designs/Measuring Correlation Skill: Applied Answer: b. There is a negative correlation between spaghetti eating and depression.

1.1-79. It has been demonstrated that those who were prenatally exposed to the influenza virus are more likely to develop schizophrenia. In other words, prenatal exposure to the influenza virus is ________ correlated with developing schizophrenia. a. not b. randomly c. negatively d. positively Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-79 Page Ref: 20 Topic: Research Designs/Measuring Correlation Skill: Factual Answer: d. positively 1.1-80. A significant positive correlation is found between variables x and y. Which of the following may be safely inferred? a. x causes y b. y causes x c. as x increases, y increases d. as x increases, y decreases Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-80 Page Ref: 20 Topic: Research Designs/Measuring Correlation Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. as x increases, y increases 1.1-81. What does the notation p < .05 next to a correlation mean? a. The probability that a correlation would occur purely by chance is less than 95 out of 100 b. The probability that a correlation would occur purely by chance is less than 5 out of 100 c. The probability that a positive correlation will be found purely by chance d. The probability that a negative correlation will be found purely by chance Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-81 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Research Designs/Statistical Significance Skill: Conceptual ..

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Answer: b. The probability that a correlation would occur purely by chance is less than 5 out of 100 1.1-82. Which of the following terms is defined as the size of the association between two variables independent of the sample size? a. Statistical significance b. Clinical significance c. Effect size d. Association size Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-82 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Research Designs/Effect Size Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Clinical significance 1.1-83. What is the term for the statistical approach that calculates and then combines the effect sizes from multiple studies? a. Meta-analysis b. Effect analysis c. Multiple-effect analysis d. Correlational analysis Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-83 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Research Designs/Meta-analysis Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. Meta-analysis 1.1-84. Which research approach requires subjects to recall the past? a. Reconstructive b. Repressed c. Retroactive d. Retrospective Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-84 Page Ref: 22 Topic: Research Designs/Retrospective Versus Prospective Strategies Skill: Factual Answer: d. Retrospective 1.1-85. A researcher says, "These studies make it too easy for investigators to find the background factors they expect to find. However, they are more valid if we find documents like school reports that show the background factor before the disorder emerges." What kind of research strategy is the researcher referring to? a. Prospective strategies ..

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b. N=1 strategies c. Retrospective strategies d. Analogue studies Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-85 Page Ref: 22 Topic: Retrospective Versus Prospective Strategies Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Retrospective strategies 1.1-86. What type of research design begins with the identification of individuals who are likely to develop a particular disorder? a. Correlational b. Experimental c. Prospective d. Retrospective Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-86 Page Ref: 22 Topic: Research Designs/Retrospective Versus Prospective Strategies Skill: Applied Answer: c. Prospective 1.1-87. In most prospective studies, a. large samples of individuals are interviewed to see if there are any risk factors that differentiate those with the disorder of interest. b. children who share a risk factor for a disorder are studied before signs of the disorder show up. c. analogue research is used because of the ethical problems with other experimental research. d. a representative sample of a general population of adults is used.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-87 Page Ref: 22 Topic: Research Designs/Retrospective Versus Prospective Strategies Skill: Factual Answer: b. children who share a risk factor for a disorder are studied before signs of the disorder show up.

1.1-88. A researcher who provides a certain treatment for one group and withholds treatment from a completely comparable group is using the ________ research method. a. correlational b. epidemiological c. case study d. experimental ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-88 Page Ref: 23 Topic: Research Designs/Manipulating Variables: The Experimental Method in Abnormal Psychology Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. experimental 1.1-89. A researcher who studies children who are home-schooled and compares them to children who attend school is using the ________ research method. a. correlational b. epidemiological c. case study d. experimental Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 1.1-89 Page Ref: 23 Topic: Research Designs/Manipulating Variables: The Experimental Method in Abnormal Psychology Skill: Applied Answer: a. correlational 1.1-90. Which variable is manipulated in an experiment? a. Comparison b. Criterion c. Dependent d. Independent Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-90 Page Ref: 23 Topic: Research Designs/Manipulating Variables: The Experimental Method in Abnormal Psychology Skill: Factual Answer: d. Independent 1.1-91. In a study of the effects of ice cream on mood, the ice cream can be described as what? a. The dependent variable b. The independent variable c. A correlational variable d. A confounding variable Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-91 Page Ref: 23 Topic: Research Designs/Manipulating Variables: The Experimental Method in Abnormal Psychology ..

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Skill: Applied Answer: b. The independent variable 1.1-92. In a study of the effects of ice cream on mood, the mood after ice cream exposure can be described as what? a. The dependent variable b. The independent variable c. A correlational variable d. A confounding variable Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.1-92 Page Ref: 23 Topic: Research Designs/Manipulating Variables: The Experimental Method in Abnormal Psychology Skill: Applied Answer: a. The dependent variable 1.1-93. Which of the following is an example of an ABAB design? a. Half of the subjects receive one treatment and the other half are not treated. b. All subjects received one of two treatments. c. A subject is observed and treated. d. A subject is observed both before and after two exposures to the treatment.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-93 Page Ref: 25 Topic: Research Designs/Single-Case Experimental Designs Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. A subject is observed both before and after two exposures to the treatment.

1.1-94. Fred refuses to speak at school, although he speaks normally at home. His therapist plans out a treatment where Fred is given a gold star every time he answers his teacher, and he can then trade in his stars for prizes. Fred begins speaking in class. The therapist then tells the teacher to stop the program for a couple of weeks. Fred stopped talking during that time. The teacher then starting giving Fred stars again, and Fred again began to talk. This is an example of a. a case study. b. a correlational study. c. an ABAB experimental design study. d. a self-report study.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-94 Page Ref: 25 Topic: Research Designs/Single-Case Experimental Designs Skill: Applied Answer: c. an ABAB experimental design study.

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1.1-95. What is the value of using an ABAB design? a. It permits the study of the effects of multiple forms of treatment on a single subject. b. Subjects can be selected randomly. c. The effects of a single form of treatment are studied twice in the same subject. d. Generalizability is ensured.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-95 Page Ref: 25 Topic: Research Designs/Single-Case Experimental Designs Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. The effects of a single form of treatment are studied twice in the same subject.

1.1-96. A psychologist wishes to test the hypothesis that the experience of chronic physical pain can cause clinical depression, but the Ethics Committee of his university won't allow him to conduct a study in which he inflicts pain on the subjects. What kind of research design might best allow the psychologist to test this hypothesis while circumventing the committee's objection? a. Experimental b. Prospective c. Analogue d. Longitudinal Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 1.1-96 Page Ref: 26 Topic: Research Designs/Animal Research Skill: Factual Answer: c. Analogue 1.1-97. Which of the following is an example of an analogue study? a. Families with a history of schizophrenia are compared to families with no family history of mental illness. b. Rats prenatally exposed to alcohol are studied to further our understanding of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome. c. Blood is taken from a group of individuals with panic disorder both before and after viewing a disturbing film. d. Survey data is examined to determine the prevalence of mental illness.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-97 Page Ref: 26 Topic: Research Designs/Animal Research Skill: Applied Answer: b. Rats prenatally exposed to alcohol are studied to further our understanding of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome.

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1.1-98. Dr. Brown wants to study social phobia. She induces temporary anxiety by having normal subjects believe they will be negatively evaluated by another person.

This is an example of a. a path analysis. b. an analogue study. c. an experimental epidemiological study. d. a correlational study.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-98 Page Ref: 26 Topic: Research Designs/Manipulating Variables: The Experimental Method in Abnormal Psychology Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. an analogue study.

1.1-99. What did Seligman find by studying dogs exposed to uncontrollable shock? a. Seligman demonstrated that dogs can get depressed. b. Seligman found that the dogs became aggressive. c. Seligman found that uncontrollable shock led the dogs to behave much like depressed humans. d. Seligman found that the exposure to the shock altered the level of brain chemicals known to be involved in depression.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.1-99 Page Ref: 27 Topic: Research Designs/Animal Research Skill: Applied Answer: c. Seligman found that uncontrollable shock led the dogs to behave much like depressed humans.

1.1-100. A major scientific problem with analogue studies is a. the difficulty of disentangling intercorrelated factors. b. the difficulty of manipulating variables in a laboratory. c. the inability to draw causal inferences from such studies. d. the difficulty of generalizing to the naturally occurring phenomenon.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 1.1-100 Page Ref: 27 Topic: Research Design/Animal Research Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. the difficulty of generalizing to the naturally occurring phenomenon.

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 1.2-1. _______________are automatic beliefs concerning other people based on little information. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.2-1 Page Ref: 7 Topic: What Are the Disadvantages of Classification?

Skill: Factual Answer: Stereotypes 1.2-2. The number of people who have suffered from a particular disorder at any time in their lives is __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.2-2 Page Ref: 12 Topic: How Common Are Mental Disorders?/Prevalence and Incidence Skill: Conceptual Answer: lifetime prevalence 1.2-3. When mental disorders are short in duration, they are known as acute. When they are long in duration, they are __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.2-3 Page Ref: 15 Topic: Research Approaches in Abnormal Psychology Skill: Conceptual Answer: chronic 1.2-4. If the score on one variable is high and the score on another variable is low, this is known as a __________ correlation.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.2-4 Page Ref: 20 Topic: Research Designs/Measuring Correlation Skill: Factual Answer: negative 1.2-5. ______________is used to study questions that would not be possible to study with human subjects.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.2-5 Page Ref: 26 Topic: Research Designs/Animal Research Skill: Factual Answer: Analogue research Short Answer Questions 1.3-1. Why is it difficult to agree on a definition of abnormal behavior? ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.3-1 Page Ref: 3-5 Topic: What Do We Mean by Abnormality?

Skill: Conceptual Answer: There are no sufficient or necessary conditions. Also, what is abnormal at one point in time may no longer be considered abnormal at another time.

1.3-2. What are the benefits of classifying mental disorders?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.3-2 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Why Do We Need to Classify Mental Disorders?

Skill: Factual Answer: Allows information to be organized, needed for research, most sciences do it, establishes the range of problems mental health professionals can address.

1.3-3. Discuss one disadvantage of developing a classification system for mental disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.3-3 Page Ref: 7 Topic: What Are the Disadvantages of Classification?

Skill: Applied Answer: Multiple possible answers: 1. There is a loss of information when a classification scheme is applied to behavior, as will happen when any single word is used to convey something as complex as a mental disorder. 2. In addition, there may be some stigma attached to receiving a psychiatric diagnosis. 3. Stereotyping may occur, leading to incorrect assumptions about and expectations of an individual who has received a psychiatric diagnosis.

1.3-4. Explain what a culture-specific syndrome is and provide an example of one.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.3-4 Page Ref: 10 Topic: What Do We Mean By Abnormality?/Culture-Specific Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: A culture-specific syndrome is a disorder that occurs most commonly in or exclusively in a specific culture. While many disorders may present themselves differently in different cultures, these are disorders that are unique to a particular culture.

Koro, a disorder seen most commonly in young Asian males, is one example. This anxiety disorder is characterized by an extreme fear that a body part is shrinking.

1.3-5. What is mental health epidemiology? How is it studied?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.3-5 ..

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Page Ref: 12 Topic: How Common Are Mental Disorders?/Prevalence and Incidence Skill: Factual Answer: Epidemiology is the study of the distribution of a health-related problem within a population. Mental health epidemiology is the distribution and frequency of mental disorders. A key element in studying this is the frequency of mental disorder, which includes prevalence rates.

1.3-6. Discuss the difference between prevalence and incidence.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.3-6 Page Ref: 12 Topic: How Common Are Mental Disorders?/Prevalence and Incidence Skill: Conceptual Answer: Prevalence is the number of active cases of a disorder in a given population during a given period of time. Incidence is the number of new cases that occur over a given period of time.

1.3-7. What is comorbidity?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.3-7 Page Ref: 13 Topic: How Common Are Mental Disorders?/Prevalence Estimates for Mental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: The presence of two of more disorders in the same person. This is common in serious mental disorders, rarer for mild disorders.

1.3-8. Briefly discuss why research in abnormal psychology is important.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.3-8 Page Ref: 15 Topic: Research Approaches in Abnormal Psychology Skill: Conceptual Answer: Through the use of research, the characteristics of disorders can be studied and our understanding of the etiology of disorders is furthered. In addition, research must be used to determine the effectiveness of treatment.

1.3-9. What is a case study and what are its benefits and drawbacks?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.3-9 Page Ref: 16 Topic: Sources of Information/Case Studies Skill: Applied Answer: An in-depth, detailed account of a single case. They are good sources of research ideas and hypotheses. However, information from them does not generalize. ..

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They are uncontrolled and often impressionistic, so any conclusions drawn may be incorrect.

1.3-10. What is sampling and why is it important?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.3-10 Page Ref: 18-19 Topic: Forming and Testing Hypotheses/Sampling and Generalization Skill: Applied Answer: Sampling is the procedure used to select subjects to study. As it is not possible to study all of the population of interest, a subset of the population is selected. The sample studied needs to resemble the larger population on all relevant variables so that findings made when studying the sample can be generalized to the population. In other words, results obtained with a sample should provide accurate information about the larger population.

1.3-11. Discuss the limitations of self-report data.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.3-11 Page Ref: 16 Topic: Sources of Information/Self-Report Data Skill: Factual Answer: Can be misleading, sometimes deliberately lie, misinterpret questions or try to present themselves more favorably or less favorably than is true.

1.3-12. What is an analogue study?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.3-12 Page Ref: 26-27 Topic: Research Designs/Animal Research Skill: Factual Answer: A study of an approximation of the real thing in which the researcher is interested. Often done if studying the real thing is difficult or it would be unethical to manipulate the variables of interest.

Essay Questions 1.4-1. Discuss some of the difficulties involved in attempting to define abnormal behavior.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.4-1 Page Ref: -5 Topic: What Do We Mean by Abnormality?

Skill: Conceptual Answer: "Abnormal" presupposes some norm from which behavior deviates, but there is no definition of "normal" about which people can all agree. Abnormal is also related to ..

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behavior that is deemed undesirable by society. Value issues therefore always complicate the objective definition of disorders. What, exactly, comprises distress, disability, or dysfunction is also difficult to define. In addition, definitions of abnormality vary not only with culture, but over time. GRADING RUBRIC: 6 points total, 2 points for each difficulty discussed.

1.4-2. What is the DSM and what is the proposed definition of a mental disorder for the DSM-5?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 1.4-2 Page Ref: 5 Topic: What Do We Mean By Abnormality?

Skill: Factual Answer: The DSM is the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. The DSM is published by the American Psychiatric Association and provides information to be used in identifying mental disorders. The DSM does not provide information as to the cause of mental disorders. A mental disorder, according to the DSM, is a behavioral or psychological syndrome or pattern that occurs in an individual. It reflects an underlying psychobiological dysfunction. The consequences of which are clinically significant distress (e.g., a painful symptom) or disability (impairment in one or more important areas of functioning). It must not be a merely expected response to common stressors and losses (for example the loss of a loved one) or a culturally sanctioned response to a particular event (for example, trance states in religious rituals). It is not primarily a result of social deviance or conflicts with society. GRADING RUBRIC: 8 points total, 2 points for what DSM stands for, 2 points for explaining what it is, 4 points for correct definition of "mental disorder."

1.4-3. Describe the retrospective and prospective research designs. What are the benefits and problems of these designs?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.4-3 Page Ref: 22 Topic: Research Designs/Retrospective Versus Prospective Strategies Skill: Applied Answer: Retrospective: Study people with a disorder by collecting information about their lives before they became sick. Problem is faulty and selective memory, bias on the part of the person and the researcher. Prospective: Find people with high risk of developing a disorder before they have it, measure variables ahead of time and track the person to see who develops the disorder. Problem: Can't know how many will develop the disorder; small sample size. GRADING RUBRIC: 10 points, 5 points each.

1.4-4. What is an observational research design and how can such an approach further our understanding of abnormal behavior. What limitations are there of such designs and how can these be overcome?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 1.4-4 ..

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Page Ref: 21-22 Topic: Research Designs/Correlations and Causality Skill: Applied Answer: When an observational research design is employed, no manipulation is made, and data is merely gathered on the subject or subjects of interest. A group that is at risk for some disorder or one that has a particular disorder may be studied in order to gather information as to the factors that might influence the development of the disorder or the progression of the disorder. Just as a control group is used in an experiment, a control group must be used when conducting observational research. It is important, however, to recognize that no conclusions can be made about cause and effect. Correlational data, observing that two factors are related, does not permit such conclusions to be made as other factors may be the true cause for the observed relationship. For example, if a researcher observes a correlation between obesity and depression, it can't be concluded that depression causes obesity or that obesity causes depression. While either may be true, it cannot be determined from such data. In addition to these obvious causal connections, there could be additional factors that are causing both problems. Thus, while observational research designs provide information as to how things are related, no conclusions can be made as to cause and effect. GRADING RUBRIC: 10 points total, 2 points for explaining observational research design, 2 points for how it can be used, 3 points for limitations, 3 points for how limitations can be overcome.

1.4-5. Describe the ABAB research design and give an example.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 1.4-5 Page Ref: 25 Topic: Research Designs/Single-Case Experimental Designs Skill: Factual Answer: A type of single case research design. A way of using case study to develop and test therapy techniques within a scientific framework. The same subject is studied over time. Phase A - collect information about the subject but don't intervene. Phase B intervention. Repeating the phases tells whether it is what was done in the B phase that produced any changes. Many possible examples. GRADING RUBRIC: 10 points - 5 for description, 5 for example.

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TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 2: Historical and Contemporary Views of Abnormal Behavior

Topic

Historical Views of Abnormal Behavior

Toward Humanitarian Approaches

The Emergence of Contemporary Views of Abnormal Behavior

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

7, 17, 18, 19, 20, 22, 25, 27

9, 11, 13, 26, 31

36, 48, 53, 57, 61, 66, 67

38, 60, 63, 65, 71, 72

Blank (2.2-)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 15, 16, 21, 23, 24, 28, 29, 30, 32 1 1, 2 1 33, 34, 35, 37, 39, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 49, 50, 51, 52, 54, 55, 56, 58, 59, 62, 64, 68, 69, 70, 73, 74, 75, 76, 77 2, 3

Short Answer (2.3-)

4, 5, 6, 8,

9

7

Essay (2.4-) Multiple Choice (2.1-)

2 78, 81, 83, 84, 85, 86, 87, 88, 89, 91, 93, 94, 95, 97, 98, 102, 105 4 11, 13 5

82, 103, 104, 106

79, 80, 90, 92, 96, 99, 100, 101

10, 14 4

12 3

Multiple Choice (2.1-)

Blank (2.2-) Short Answer (2.3-) Essay (2.4-) Multiple Choice (2.1-)

Blank (2.2-) Short Answer (2.3-) Essay (2.4-)

3

Copyright © 2013 by Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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Chapter 2: Historical and Contemporary Views of Abnormal Behavior Multiple-Choice Questions 2.1-1. Archaeology and early writing indicate that the first people to think that the brain was the site of mental functions were the a. ancient Egyptians. b. ancient Greeks. c. Chinese. d. Hebrews.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-1 Page Ref: 30 Topic: Historical Views of Abnormal Behavior Skill: Factual Answer: a. ancient Egyptians.

2.1-2. Early writings show that the Chinese, Egyptians, Hebrews, and Greeks often attributed abnormal behavior to a. poor parenting. b. physical disease. c. demonic possession. d. chemical imbalance in the brain.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-2 Page Ref: 31 Topic: Demonology, Gods, and Magic Skill: Factual Answer: c. demonic possession.

2.1-3. In ancient societies, if a person's abnormal conduct consisted of speech that appeared to have a religious or mystical significance, then the person was a. assumed to have willingly entered into a pact with the devil. b. thought to be a witch. c. thought to be possessed by a good spirit or god. d. assumed to have something physically wrong with the heart.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-3 Page Ref: 31 Topic: Demonology, Gods, and Magic Skill: Factual Answer: c. thought to be possessed by a good spirit or god.

2.1-4. Prayer, incantations, and noise-making were all techniques for a. altering a person's brain functioning. ..

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b. improving a person's dreams. c. helping a person become possessed by good spirits. d. exorcising demons.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-4 Page Ref: 31 Topic: Demonology, Gods, and Magic Skill: Factual Answer: d. exorcising demons.

2.1-5. According to Hippocrates, mental disorders were part of which three general categories? a. Schizophrenia, mania, and melancholia. b. Schizophrenia, mania, and phrenitis. c. Melancholia, mania, and phrenitis. d. Melancholia, mania, and anxiety.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-5 Page Ref: 31 Topic: Hippocrates’ Early Medical Concepts Skill: Factual Answer: c. Melancholia, mania, and phrenitis.

2.1-6. Each of the following is one of the "four humors" EXCEPT a. blood. b. phlegm. c. phrenitis. d. bile.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-6 Page Ref: 31 Topic: Hippocrates' Early Medical Concepts Skill: Factual Answer: c. phrenitis.

2.1-7. The belief in the four humors as a means of explaining temperament a. is inconsistent with a biological explanation for mental illness. b. has yet to be disproven. c. proposed that mental disorders were the result of an imbalance. d. provides that first indication that ancient people recognized the significance of the brain in determining behavior.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-7 Page Ref: 31 Topic: Hippocrates' Early Medical Concepts Skill: Conceptual ..

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Answer: c. proposed that mental disorders were the result of an imbalance.

2.1-8. The doctrine of the four humors a. was an attempt to support moral management. b. was an explanation for personality traits. c. was an early suggested treatment for melancholy. d. was the first psychological explanation of mental disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-8 Page Ref: 31 Topic: Hippocrates' Early Medical Concepts Skill: Factual Answer: b. was an explanation for personality traits.

2.1-9. According to early beliefs, what would characterize an individual with an excess of blood? a. Depression b. Schizophrenia c. Irritability d. Cheerfulness Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-9 Page Ref: 31 Topic: Hippocrates' Early Medical Concepts Skill: Applied Answer: d. Cheerfulness 2.1-10. Hippocrates suggested marriage as a cure for a. impotence. b. hysteria in women. c. phrenitis (brain fever) in men. d. melancholia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-10 Page Ref: 31 Topic: Hippocrates' Early Medical Concepts Skill: Factual Answer: b. hysteria in women.

2.1-11. Cicero was feeling depressed. He sought help from Hippocrates. Hippocrates would probably have a. prescribed the roots of certain plants and unusual elixirs. b. utilized a talking cure. c. prescribed exercise, tranquility, and celibacy. d. performed an exorcism.

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Question ID: 2.1-11 Page Ref: 32 Topic: Hippocrates' Early Medical Concepts Skill: Applied Answer: c. prescribed exercise, tranquility, and celibacy.

2.1-12. According to your textbook, which mental disorder received the most attention from early scholars? a. Phobias b. Depression c. Schizophrenia d. Multiple personality disorder Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-12 Page Ref: 32 Topic: Melancholia Through the Ages Skill: Factual Answer: b. Depression 2.1-13. Plato was one of the first to argue for a. medical treatment of mental illness. b. demonic possession in mental illness. c. different punishments for mentally disturbed individuals. d. the use of bleeding as a treatment for mental illness.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-13 Page Ref: 33 Topic: Early Philosophical Conceptions of Consciousness Skill: Applied Answer: c. different punishments for mentally disturbed individuals.

2.1-14. Aristotle believed that a. mental disorders could be caused by psychological factors. b. mental disorders could not be caused by psychological factors. c. bodily fluids had nothing to do with mental illness. d. mental illness was due to demonic possession.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-14 Page Ref: 33 Topic: Early Philosophical Conceptions of Consciousness Skill: Factual Answer: b. mental disorders could not be caused by psychological factors.

2.1-15. One of Aristotle's major contributions to psychology was a. his belief that dreams explained most mental disorders. b. his theory that psychological disorders were due to psychological rather than ..

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physical factors. c. his description of personality traits. d. his description of consciousness.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-15 Page Ref: 33 Topic: Early Philosophical Conceptions of Consciousness Skill: Factual Answer: d. his description of consciousness.

2.1-16. The physicians of Alexandria, Egypt, in the era after Alexander the Great were most likely to treat mental patients by a. putting them in prisons. b. using brutal forms of exorcism. c. having them make sacrifices to gods. d. providing activities, massage, and education.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-16 Page Ref: 33 Topic: Later Greek and Roman Thought Skill: Factual Answer: d. providing activities, massage, and education.

2.1-17. What is Galen credited with? a. Providing the first biological explanation for mental disorders b. Performing the first human autopsies c. Demonstrating that the doctrine of the four humors was flawed d. Recognizing that psychological disorders could have both biological and psychological causes Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-17 Page Ref: 33 Topic: Later Greek and Roman Thought Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Recognizing that psychological disorders could have both biological and psychological causes 2.1-18. Chung Ching wrote two well-known medical works around A.D. 200 and has been referred to as the ____________ of China. a. Aristotle b. Galen c. Plato d. Hippocrates Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-18 Page Ref: 34 ..

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Topic: Early Views of Mental Disorders in China Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Hippocrates.

2.1-19. Compared to the West, in the Chinese "Dark Ages," views of mental illness a. began at a more sophisticated level but regressed, like the West, to belief in the supernatural forces, although not for as long or with as negative a reaction to patients. b. began at a less sophisticated level but regressed, like the West, to belief in the supernatural forces, although they regressed earlier and with a more negative reaction to patients. c. always believed that mental illness was due to supernatural forces. This belief is still prevalent in China. d. were always more sophisticated than the West; the focus was always on medical causes and humane treatment.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-19 Page Ref: 34 Topic: Early Views of Mental Disorders in China Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. began at a more sophisticated level but regressed, like the West, to belief in the supernatural forces, although not for as long or with as negative a reaction to patients.

2.1-20. Which statement about treatment of abnormal behavior in the Middle Ages is accurate? a. Although the Hippocratic tradition was continued in most of Europe, Islamic countries emphasized demonology. b. Scientific reasoning and humane treatments were valued in both European and Islamic societies. c. Islamic forms of treatment were more humane than European approaches. d. The Chinese emphasized prayer, the Europeans emphasized exercise, and the Islamic peoples emphasized balancing the four bodily humors.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-20 Page Ref: 34 Topic: Views of Abnormality During the Middle Ages Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Islamic forms of treatment were more humane than European approaches.

2.1-21. The approaches to treatment of the mentally ill during the Middle Ages in Europe are best characterized as a. superstitious. b. humane. c. medical. d. scientific.

Difficulty: 1 ..

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Question ID: 2.1-21 Page Ref: 34 Topic: Views of Abnormality During the Middle Ages Skill: Factual Answer: a. superstitious.

2.1-22. What trend was observed during the Middle Ages in Europe? a. Belief in theology was declining. b. Approaches to mental disorders were becoming increasingly scientific. c. Supernatural explanations for mental disorders grew in popularity. d. Humane treatments were developed.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-22 Page Ref: 34 Topic: Views of Abnormality During the Middle Ages Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Supernatural explanations for mental disorders grew in popularity.

2.1-23. What is "mass madness"? a. An exhibition of disordered behavior by a group of people that appears to be caused by hysteria b. A reaction to the harsh and inhumane treatment of the mentally ill during the Middle Ages c. A reference to the increased incidence of schizophrenia seen 16 years after a flu epidemic d. A reaction to hallucinogenic compounds taken as part of religious rituals in ancient Egypt Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-23 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Views of Abnormality During the Middle Ages Skill: Factual Answer: a. An exhibition of disordered behavior by a group of people that appears to be caused by hysteria 2.1-24. What is lycanthropy? a. A form of mass hysteria characterized by wild dance-like movements b. A condition in which people believe themselves to be possessed by wolves c. A form of mass madness seen only in men d. A form of mass hysteria now known to have been drug-induced Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-24 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Views of Abnormality During the Middle Ages Skill: Factual Answer: b. A condition in which people believe themselves to be possessed by wolves ..

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2.1-25. The fact that episodes of mass madness peaked at the time of the Black Death illustrates that a. mass hysteria usually has a biological basis. b. mental and physical illnesses commonly occur together. c. phenomena that impact the society and its structure may also affect mental health. d. mental illnesses really are caused by imbalances in the four bodily humors.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-25 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Views of Abnormality During the Middle Ages Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. phenomena that impact the society and its structure may also affect mental health.

2.1-26. In 1983, a large group of West Bank Palestinian girls showed signs of illness.

Some thought they were poisoned, but later it was discovered that psychological factors played a key role in most cases. This incident best illustrates a. St. Vitus's dance. b. exorcism. c. lycanthropy. d. mass madness.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-26 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Views of Abnormality During the Middle Ages Skill: Applied Answer: d. mass madness.

2.1-27. The disorder Koro, where males fear that their genitals have retracted into their body, possibly leading to death, is similar to the episodes of mass madness during the Black Death because a. both demonstrated that mass madness is primarily a physiological disorder. b. both demonstrated the effect that sociocultural stressors can have on mental functioning of large groups of people. c. both demonstrated that the responses of other people to the person with mass madness determines whether the person will recover. d. both demonstrated that it is extremely difficult, if not impossible, to discover the cause of mass madness.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 2.1-27 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Views of Abnormality During the Middle Ages Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. both demonstrated the effect that sociocultural stressors can have on mental ..

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functioning of large groups of people.

2.1-28. A common treatment for mental illness during the Middle Ages in Europe was a. exorcism. b. fresh air and supportive surroundings. c. banishment. d. an early form of psychoanalytic dream interpretation.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-28 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Views of Abnormality During the Middle Ages Skill: Factual Answer: a. exorcism.

2.1-29. Recent historical reviews of the literature indicate that the typical accused witch in the Middle Ages in Europe was a. a person we would now consider to have a mental illness. b. a priest who was a rival of a more powerful priest. c. an ill-tempered, impoverished woman. d. a person we would now consider to have mental retardation.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-29 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Views of Abnormality During the Middle Ages Skill: Factual Answer: c. an ill-tempered, impoverished woman.

2.1-30. People in the Middle Ages a. believed that mentally ill people were witches. b. believed that witches were mentally ill. c. believed that mentally ill witches should be treated differently than other types of witches. d. believed that most witches and mentally ill people were possessed by demons, but in different ways.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-30 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Views of Abnormality During the Middle Ages Skill: Factual Answer: d. believed that most witches and mentally ill people were possessed by demons, but in different ways.

2.1-31. During the Middle Ages in Europe, which of the following was most likely to treat mental illness? a. a priest ..

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b. a physician c. a scientist d. a surgeon Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-31 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Views of Abnormality During the Middle Ages Skill: Applied Answer: a. a priest 2.1-32. Exorcism is a. still occasionally practiced today for the treatment of psychological problems, sometimes with fatal results. b. a religious rite that is no longer used for the treatment of psychological problems. c. a symbolic act that can still be useful in changing psychological functioning. d. a treatment that, throughout history, was never a very popular method of treating psychological problems.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-32 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Views of Abnormality During the Middle Ages Skill: Factual Answer: a. still occasionally practiced today for the treatment of psychological problems, sometimes with fatal results.

2.1-33. The emergence of humanism brought about changes in all of the following EXCEPT a. an increase in the belief in supernatural causes of behavior. b. scientific questioning. c. more humane treatment. d. fewer superstitious beliefs about demonic possession.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-33 Page Ref: 36 Topic: Resurgence of Scientific Questioning in Europe Skill: Factual Answer: a. an increase in the belief in supernatural causes of behavior.

2.1-34. Johann Weyer, in the early 1500s, a. was a popularly accepted writer who argued that mental illness was due to demon possession. b. was a popularly accepted writer who argued that mental illness was due to imbalances in the four humors. c. wrote a book that was condemned by many, arguing that many witches were actually mentally ill. ..

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d. wrote a book that was scorned by many, arguing that mental illness was due to bodily magnetism.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-34 Page Ref: 36 Topic: Resurgence of Scientific Questioning in Europe Skill: Factual Answer: c. wrote a book that was condemned by many, arguing that many witches were actually mentally ill.

2.1-35. Who was one of the first physicians in the early 1500s to criticize the idea that mental illness was due to demon possession (although he did believe the moon influenced the brain)? a. Paracelsus b. Galen c. Pinel d. Hippocrates Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-35 Page Ref: 36 Topic: Resurgence of Scientific Questioning in Europe Skill: Factual Answer: a. Paracelsus 2.1-36. What was the purpose of the early asylums? a. To remove those who could not care for themselves from society b. To provide exorcisms c. To offer humanitarian treatment to those afflicted with mental illnesses d. To offer biological approaches to the treatment of mental disorders Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-36 Page Ref: 36 Topic: Establishment of Early Asylums Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. To remove those who could not care for themselves from society 2.1-37. How did early treatment of mental patients in the United States compare to that offered in Europe? a. Treatment in the United States was more humanitarian. b. It was comparable to that offered in Europe. c. The techniques employed were more scientifically based than those used in Europe. d. The treatment approaches used in the United States were more effective than those used in Europe.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-37 ..

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Page Ref: 37 Topic: Establishment of Early Asylums Skill: Factual Answer: b. It was comparable to that offered in Europe.

2.1-38. If you visited an asylum in the 16th Century in Europe you would likely find a. a place which mixed together the mentally ill, the poor, criminals, and the physically ill. b. exorcisms being done by priests. c. a place where people were given good food, work, and rest so they could recover. d. mentally ill people living in conditions of filth and cruelty.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-38 Page Ref: 37 Topic: Establishment of Early Asylums Skill: Applied Answer: d. mentally ill people living in conditions of filth and cruelty.

2.1-39. The early asylums a. were primarily warehouses for the mentally ill. b. were designed to be places of refuge for the mentally ill. c. were designed to treat the mentally ill with physiological treatments, such as bloodletting. d. were similar to the places the early Greeks used for people with mental illness.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-39 Page Ref: 37 Topic: Establishment of Early Asylums Skill: Factual Answer: a. were primarily warehouses for the mentally ill.

2.1-40. Shackling a patient to a wall with little food or heat would be most typical of a. the hospitals run by Philippe Pinel. b. the sanatoriums of Alexandria, Egypt. c. the early asylums in Europe. d. the treatment advocated by Hippocrates.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-40 Page Ref: 37 Topic: Establishment of Early Asylums Skill: Factual Answer: c. the early asylums in Europe.

2.1-41. "Bedlam" in London was one of several hospitals for the mentally ill in different countries that ..

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a. treated the mentally ill with physiological treatments. b. exhibited their patients for profit. c. viewed themselves as religious houses for the demonically possessed. d. allowed patients a lot of freedom.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-41 Page Ref: 37 Topic: Establishment of Early Asylums Skill: Factual Answer: b. exhibited their patients for profit.

2.1-42. In the United States, an early treatment involved the belief that a. patients needed to choose rationality over insanity and treatments were designed to intimidate patients into choosing correctly. b. patients were demonically possessed and needed to be made uncomfortable to get the demons to leave. c. patients were medically ill and needed physiological treatments. d. patients were basically animals and were treated as such.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-42 Page Ref: 37 Topic: Establishment of Early Asylums Skill: Factual Answer: a. patients needed to choose rationality over insanity and treatments were designed to intimidate patients into choosing correctly.

2.1-43. Humanitarian treatment would be most typical of a. the hospitals run by Philippe Pinel. b. Bedlam. c. the early asylums in Europe. d. the early asylums in the United States.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-43 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: a. the hospitals run by Philippe Pinel.

2.1-44. There is some debate about whether Philippe Pinel a. was the first person to remove chains from mental patients in a French mental hospital. b. was the first person to refute the idea of witchcraft as an explanation for abnormal behavior. c. supported Mesmer's ideas of animal magnetism and hypnosis. d. approved of the use of bleeding, beatings, and imprisonment for mental patients. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-44 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: a. was the first person to remove chains from mental patients in a French mental hospital.

2.1-45. Philippe Pinel a. believed that mental illness was due to possession by demons and exorcism was the only useful treatment. b. believed that mental patients needed to choose rationality over insanity, so treatment was aimed at making their lives as patients uncomfortable. c. believed that mental patients were ill and needed to be treated as such – with kindness and caring. d. believed that mental illness was purely a physiological phenomena, and could only be treated by physical means such as bloodletting.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-45 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: c. believed that mental patients were ill and needed to be treated as such with kindness and caring.

2.1-46. A contemporary of Pinel's in England who started a Quaker religious retreat for the mentally ill was a. John Wesley. b. Benjamin Rush. c. Dorothea Dix. d. William Tuke.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-46 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: d. William Tuke.

2.1-47. Which of the following is credited with continuing the work of Pinel in the United States? a. John Wesley b. Benjamin Rush c. John Connolly d. Samuel Hitch Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-47 ..

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Page Ref: 39 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: b. Benjamin Rush 2.1-48. Benjamin Rush is credited with all of the following EXCEPT a. signing the Declaration of Independence. b. encouraging more humane treatment of the mentally ill. c. taking a scientific approach to the study and treatment of mental disorders. d. being the first American to organize a course in psychiatry.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-48 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. taking a scientific approach to the study and treatment of mental disorders.

2.1-49. Benjamin Rush, who encouraged more humane treatment of the mentally ill in the United States, used as his principal remedies a. rest and talk. b. bloodletting and the tranquilizer chair. c. exorcism and purging. d. the tranquilizer chair and relaxation.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-49 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: b. bloodletting and the tranquilizer chair.

2.1-50. Who is considered the founder of American psychiatry? a. William Tuke b. Dorothea Dix c. Benjamin Rush d. Clifford Beers Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-50 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: c. Benjamin Rush 2.1-51. The moral management treatment a. focused on the physiological problems that mental patients supposedly had rather than their mental state. b. focused on the symptoms that mental patients had rather than on their moral ..

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character. c. focused on warehousing and punishing mental patients, so that they would choose to become well. d. focused on the moral and spiritual development of mental patients rather than their disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-51 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: d. focused on the moral and spiritual development of mental patients rather than their disorder.

2.1-52. All of the following were likely to be part of moral treatment in the 1800s EXCEPT a. manual labor. b. spiritual discussions. c. character development. d. antipsychotic medication.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-52 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: d. antipsychotic medication.

2.1-53. The level of success achieved with the use of moral management is surprising because a. most mental illnesses are not treatable. b. the drugs used were usually inappropriate. c. the majority of those hospitalized for mental illness were schizophrenic. d. many patients suffered from syphilis that was, at the time, incurable.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-53 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. many patients suffered from syphilis that was, at the time, incurable.

2.1-54. Which of the following was a form of treatment that addressed a patient's social, individual, and occupational needs? a. Moral management b. The treatments provided at the Geel Shrine c. Anton Mesmer's approach to treating the mentally ill d. The treatment started by the Nancy School Difficulty: 1 ..

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Question ID: 2.1-54 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: a. Moral management 2.1-55. Which of the following contributed to the virtual absence of moral management by the nineteenth century? a. The fact that it was rarely effective in treating the mentally ill b. The shrinking of the size of most mental hospitals c. Society's displeasure with the idea that mentally ill people were morally inferior d. Advances in biomedical science Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-55 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: d. Advances in biomedical science 2.1-56. Which of the following approaches to treatment focuses almost exclusively on physical well-being? a. Moral management b. Mental hygiene c. Humanitarian d. Deinstitutionalization Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-56 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: b. Mental hygiene 2.1-57. Which of the following was a consequence of the rise of the mental hygiene movement and the occurrence of biomedical advances? a. The social and psychological environments of mental patients were ignored. b. Biological causes for most mental disorders were identified. c. Physical comfort was neglected. d. Most humanitarian gains were lost.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-57 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. The social and psychological environments of mental patients were ignored.

2.1-58. The demise of moral management occurred for all of the following reasons ..

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EXCEPT a. research showed that it had never been effective. b. the rise of the moral hygiene movement put a focus on patient well-being. c. the rise of biological explanations diminished the importance of the social environment. d. hospital facilities got so large that it was difficult to maintain the staff-patient relationships necessary for moral management.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-58 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: a. research showed that it had never been effective.

2.1-59. Dorothea Dix a. urged that religious conversion was a primary means of treatment for the mentally disturbed. b. was a major impediment to the mental hygiene movement in this country. c. was a leading force in the emphasis on finding biological cures for mental disorders. d. is credited with establishing numerous humane mental hospitals in many countries.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-59 Page Ref: 40 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: d. is credited with establishing numerous humane mental hospitals in many countries.

2.1-60. Which one of the following increased the availability of treatment for the mentally ill in the United States? a. Dorothea Dix b. Benjamin Rush c. Emil Kraepelin d. Philippe Pinel Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-60 Page Ref: 40 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Applied Answer: a. Dorothea Dix 2.1-61. The work of Dorothea Dix has been criticized for a. interfering with the provision of moral therapy. b. increasing the use of unproven treatment approaches. ..

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c. popularizing humanitarian approaches. d. preventing the development of biomedical approaches to mental illness.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-61 Page Ref: 40 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. interfering with the provision of moral therapy.

2.1-62. In the early nineteenth century, psychiatrists were referred to as a. alienists. b. lunatics. c. soothsayers. d. purgatists.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-62 Page Ref: 41 Topic: Nineteenth Century Views of the Causes and Treatment of Mental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. alienists.

2.1-63. Imagine that it is 1885. A man complains of "shattered nerves." He is lacking in energy and shows low mood. Physicians specializing in mental conditions (alienists) would likely consider this person a. a morally deficient individual. b. as suffering from neurasthenia. c. as suffering from hysteria. d. as untreatable because the condition was biological.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-63 Page Ref: 41 Topic: Nineteenth Century Views of the Causes and Treatment of Mental Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: b. as suffering from neurasthenia.

2.1-64. During the late nineteenth century, alienists a. focused on removing evil demons from the psyche. b. employed techniques such as drugging, restraint, and bleeding. c. did not view mental illnesses as treatable. d. incorporated moral management therapy into treatments.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 2.1-64 Page Ref: 41 Topic: Nineteenth Century Views of the Causes and Treatment of Mental ..

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Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. incorporated moral management therapy into treatments.

2.1-65. The "neurasthenia" recognized in the 1800s resembles today’s diagnosis of a. anxiety. b. schizophrenia. c. bipolar disorder. d. depression.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-65 Page Ref: 41 Topic: Nineteenth Century Views of the Causes and Treatment of Mental Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: d. depression.

2.1-66. By the end of the nineteenth century a. effective treatments had been developed for many forms of mental illness. b. little was known about most mental illnesses. c. asylums were recognized as humanitarian institutions that served an important function. d. most mental hospitals effectively addressed the physical needs of patients, but ignored other needs.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-66 Page Ref: 41 Topic: Changing Attitudes Toward Mental Health in the Early 20th Century Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. little was known about most mental illnesses.

2.1-67. At the start of the twentieth century in America, public attitudes toward the mentally ill a. had become enlightened and humane. b. associated mental disorder with "tainted genes" and divine retribution. c. had become a conviction that the mentally ill were incurable and should be executed or jailed for the rest of their lives. d. were characterized by fear, horror, and ignorance.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-67 Page Ref: 41 Topic: Changing Attitudes Toward Mental Health in the Early 20th Century Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. were characterized by fear, horror, and ignorance.

2.1-68. What is Clifford Beers known for? ..

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a. He developed the first effective antidepressant. b. His efforts lead to the establishment of over thirty mental hospitals. c. He vigorously rejected the Victorian idea that sexual fantasies caused mental disorders. d. He publicized the brutal treatment that many mental patients received.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-68 Page Ref: 41 Topic: Changing Attitudes Toward Mental Health in the Early 20th Century Skill: Factual Answer: d. He publicized the brutal treatment that many mental patients received.

2.1-69. During the early twentieth century, a. more asylums and mental hospitals were established. b. most of the institutionalized mentally ill received moral therapy. c. hospital stays tended to be brief. d. housed very few people.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-69 Page Ref: 42 Topic: Mental Hospital Care in the 20th Century Skill: Factual Answer: a. more asylums and mental hospitals were established.

2.1-70. During the first half of the twentieth century, mental hospital care would best be characterized as a. effective. b. humane. c. moral. d. punitive.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-70 Page Ref: 42 Topic: Mental Hospital Care in the 20th Century Skill: Factual Answer: d. punitive.

2.1-71. Which of the following served to publicize the plight of the mentally ill in the mid 1940s? a. The publication of "A Mind That Found Itself" b. The publication of "The Snake Pit" c. The research funded by the National Institutes of Mental Health d. The passage of the Community Health Services act Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-71 Page Ref: 43 ..

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Topic: Mental Hospital Care in the 20th Century Skill: Applied Answer: b. The publication of "The Snake Pit" 2.1-72. The Hill-Burton Act a. ended the moral hygiene movement. b. contributed to the practice of warehousing the mentally ill. c. provided funding for mental health treatment in the community. d. legislated the creation of 50% more inpatient facilities for the mentally ill.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-72 Page Ref: 43 Topic: Mental Hospital Care in the 20th Century Skill: Applied Answer: c. provided funding for mental health treatment in the community.

2.1-73. Which of the following occurred in the late twentieth century? a. The establishment of large inpatient facilities for the mentally ill b. A movement of the mentally ill from institutions to the community c. Dramatic increases in the cost of caring for the mentally ill d. The inpatient mentally ill population doubled Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-73 Page Ref: 43 Topic: Mental Hospital Care in the 20th Century Skill: Factual Answer: b. a movement of the mentally ill from institutions to the community 2.1-74. Medications for psychological disorders a. were first used centuries ago. b. were first used only recently. c. still currently use some ancient ingredients, such as "mummy powder." d. made the search for the causes of disorders more difficult.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-74 Page Ref: 46 Topic: Mental Hospital Care in the 20th Century Skill: Factual Answer: a. were first used centuries ago.

2.1-75. The rationale behind deinstitutionalization was a. a belief that physicians could better medicate and give physical treatment to patients in their own homes. b. a concern that prolonged hospitalization could keep patients from being able to adjust to and function in the outside world. c. a belief that most mental patients were faking and would cease to do so if they ..

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were not "rewarded" by allowing them to stay in the hospital. d. a concern that mental hospitals were such unpleasant places that for mental patients, living on their own could only be better.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-75 Page Ref: 43 Topic: Mental Hospital Care in the 20th Century Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. a concern that prolonged hospitalization could keep patients from being able to adjust to and function in the outside world.

2.1-76. Which of the following was a reason for the growth of the deinstitutionalization movement? a. A desire to involve the family in the care of the mentally ill. b. It was thought to be more humane. c. New medications were not successful. d. It was less cost effective than institutionalization.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-76 Page Ref: 43 Topic: Mental Hospital Care in the 20th Century Skill: Applied Answer: b. it was thought to be more humane.

2.1-77. Which of the following was an effect of the deinstitutionalization movement? a. A large number of psychiatric hospitals remained open. b. Mental hospital populations were re-institutionalized in medical hospitals. c. Most of the services once offered on an inpatient basis were available at community health centers. d. Some of those released would have been better off remaining hospitalized.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 2.1-77 Page Ref: 43 Topic: Mental Hospital Care in the 20th Century Skill: Applied Answer: d. Some of those released would have been better off remaining hospitalized.

2.1-78. Which of the following individuals is credited with emphasizing the link between brain pathology and mental illness? a. Dix. b. Skinner. c. Bandura. d. Kraepelin.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-78 Page Ref:44 ..

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Topic: Biological Discoveries: Establishing the Link Between the Brain and Mental Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. Kraepelin.

2.1-79. The insanity associated with general paresis a. has no known physical cause. b. is caused by excessive alcohol consumption. c. is seen only in the aging who have compromised health. d. results from an infection of the brain.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-79 Page Ref: 44 Topic Biological Discoveries: Establishing the Link Between the Brain and Mental Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: d. results from an infection of the brain.

2.1-80. Why was malarial therapy effective in treating general paresis? a. The fever that was induced killed off the cause of the observed symptoms. b. General paresis was caused by malaria, and malarial therapy triggered an immune response that destroyed the existing infection. c. Malarial therapy prevented the syphilis spirochetes from entering the brain. d. There is no known treatment for general paresis.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-80 Page Ref: 44 Topic: Biological Discoveries: Establishing the Link Between the Brain and Mental Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: a. The fever that was induced killed off the cause of the observed symptoms.

2.1-81. Which of the following is recognized as a major biomedical breakthrough in psychopathology because it established the link between mental and physical illnesses? a. the discovery of the cause and later a cure for general paresis (syphilitic insanity) b. the discovery of penicillin as a cure for syphilis c. the development of electroshock therapy for general paresis (syphilitic insanity) d. the discovery that brain injuries could be associated with mental disorders Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-81 Page Ref: 45 Topic: Biological Discoveries: Establishing the Link Between the Brain and Mental Disorder Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: a. the discovery of the cause and later a cure for general paresis (syphilitic insanity) 2.1-82. The use of malarial fever to treat paresis a. is an example of the barbaric treatment that mental patients received at the beginning of the twentieth century. b. proved to be so ineffectual that many professionals abandoned the biological explanation of mental disorders. c. represented the first clear-cut defeat of a mental disorder by medicine. d. was the first time scientists used knowledge of brain chemistry to develop specific drugs for treating mental disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-82 Page Ref: 44 Topic: Biological Discoveries: Establishing the Link Between the Brain and Mental Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. represented the first clear-cut defeat of a mental disorder by medicine.

2.1-83. Which one of the following is credited with developing a classification system for mental disorders? a. Dix b. Pinel c. Alzheimer d. Kraepelin Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-83 Page Ref: 45 Topic: The Development of a Classification System Skill: Factual Answer: d. Kraepelin 2.1-84. Kraepelin is credited with a. discovering that penicillin was an effective treatment for malaria. b. determining the cause of senile dementia. c. identifying different types of mental disorders. d. writing the first edition of the DSM. Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-84 Page Ref: 46 Topic: The Development of a Classification System Skill: Factual Answer: c. identifying different types of mental disorders.

2.1-85. The first classification of mental disorders involved a. identifying the biological causes of the disorders, so a person could be tested ..

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for them. b. understanding the theoretical descriptions of different disorders. c. recognizing symptoms that occurred together often enough to be regarded as a type of mental disorder. d. identifying the types of thoughts that people with different mental illnesses tended to have.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-85 Page Ref: 45 Topic: The Development of a Classification System Skill: Factual Answer: c. recognizing symptoms that occurred together often enough to be regarded as a type of mental disorder.

2.1-86. The ancestral roots of what we now know as psychoanalysis can be traced back to a. the study of hypnosis. b. early beliefs in demonology and possession. c. the discovery of the cause of general paresis. d. Dorothea Dix. Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-86 Page Ref: 46 Topic: Development of the Psychological Basis of Mental Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. the study of hypnosis.

2.1-87. Mesmer was a proponent of a. humanitarianism. b. community mental health clinics. c. the mental hygiene movement. d. the power of animal magnetism.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-87 Page Ref: 47 Topic: Development of the Psychological Basis of Mental Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. the power of animal magnetism.

2.1-88. Who is credited with making the first major steps toward understanding the psychological factors involved in mental illness? a. Alois Alzheimer b. Wilhelm Griesinger c. Clifford Beers d. Sigmund Freud Difficulty: 1 ..

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Question ID: 2.1-88 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Development of the Psychological Basis of Mental Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. Sigmund Freud 2.1-89. The study of hypnosis and its relationship to hysteria was the starting point for a. the medical model. b. the biological classification of mental disorders. c. psychoanalysis. d. the mental hygiene movement.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-89 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Development of the Psychological Basis of Mental Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. psychoanalysis.

2.1-90. The physicians of the Nancy School a. opposed the use of hypnotism. b. demonstrated the power of suggestion. c. found that hypnotism was not effective in the treatment of any mental illnesses. d. believed that hysteria was the result of brain degeneration.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-90 Page Ref: 46 Topic: Development of the Psychological Basis of Mental Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. demonstrated the power of suggestion.

2.1-91. The Nancy School a. advanced the recognition that psychological factors were involved in the development of mental disorders. b. furthered our understanding of the role of biological factors in the development of mental illness. c. fell out of favor when the evidence supporting the views of Charcot accumulated. d. failed to recognize that most forms of psychopathology are incurable.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-91 Page Ref: 46 Topic: Development of the Psychological Basis of Mental Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. advanced the recognition that psychological factors were involved in the development of mental disorders. ..

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2.1-92. The Nancy School/Charcot debate is best described as one that focuses on a. biology vs. genes. b. learning vs. nurture. c. drugs vs. surgery. d. psychology vs. biology.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-92 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Development of the Psychological Basis of Mental Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: d. psychology vs. biology.

2.1-93. In 1893, Breuer and Freud published a paper on hysteria. In it they announced that a. unconscious factors can determine behavior and produce mental disorders. b. hysteria was caused by hypnosis. c. hysteria and hypnosis were both the result of neurological abnormalities. d. many forms of mental disorder are the conscious result of seeking attention from others.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-93 Page Ref: 48 Topic: The Beginnings of Psychoanalysis Skill: Factual Answer: a. unconscious factors can determine behavior and produce mental disorders.

2.1-94. Freud is the first to describe the ________: that the mind could contain information of which it is unaware, but by which it is still affected. a. catharsis b. unconscious c. hysteria d. operant conditioning Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-94 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Development of the Psychological Basis of Mental Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. unconscious 2.1-95. A catharsis is a. a type of hypnosis. b. an emotional release. c. the part of the brain where the unconscious exists. d. a type of hysteria.

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Question ID: 2.1-95 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Development of the Psychological Basis of Mental Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. an emotional release.

2.1-96. Free association and dream analysis a. are techniques typically used in hypnotized subjects. b. provide insight into the workings of the unconscious. c. were developed in the early 1800s. d. have been used extensively in behavioral therapy.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-96 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Development of the Psychological Basis of Mental Disorder/The Beginnings of Psychoanalysis Skill: Applied Answer: b. provide insight into the workings of the unconscious.

2.1-97. Who established the first experimental psychology laboratory? a. Wundt b. Watson c. Freud d. Kraepelin Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-97 Page Ref: 49 Topic: The Evolution of the Psychological Research Tradition: Experimental Psychology Skill: Factual Answer: a. Wundt 2.1-98. Witmer is credited with a. establishing psychology as a field in the United States. b. bringing psychoanalysis to the United States. c. writing the first psychology text. d. being the founder of clinical psychology.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-98 Page Ref: 49 Topic: The Evolution of the Psychological Research Tradition: Experimental Psychology Skill: Factual Answer: d. being the founder of clinical psychology.

2.1-99. Behaviorism was ..

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a. a reaction to what the behaviorists perceived as a lack of scientific rigor in psychoanalysis. b. a reaction to the lack of moral and spiritual factors in most theories at the time. c. an attempt to focus on the thinking styles of people with mental illness. d. a spin-off theory that elaborated on the psychoanalytic viewpoint.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-99 Page Ref: 49 Topic: The Evolution of the Psychological Research Tradition: Experimental Psychology Skill: Applied Answer: a. a reaction to what the behaviorists perceived as a lack of scientific rigor in psychoanalysis.

2.1-100. A behavioral psychologist would be most likely to use a. hypnotism. b. observational techniques. c. free association. d. dream analysis.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-100 Page Ref: 50 Topic: The Evolution of the Psychological Research Tradition: Experimental Psychology Skill: Applied Answer: b. observational techniques.

2.1-101. A psychologist who takes a behavioral perspective would focus on a. learning. b. early experiences. c. unconscious conflicts. d. the role of behavioral factors.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-101 Page Ref: 50 Topic: The Evolution of the Psychological Research Tradition: Experimental Psychology Skill: Applied Answer: a. learning.

2.1-102. Who is considered to be the "father" of behaviorism? a. Pavlov b. Freud c. Wundt d. Watson Difficulty: 2 ..

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Question ID: 2.1-102 Page Ref: 49 Topic: The Evolution of the Psychological Research Tradition: Experimental Psychology Skill: Factual Answer: d. Watson 2.1-103. The central principle of classical conditioning is that a. after repeated pairings with a stimulus that naturally causes a response, a neutral stimulus will cause a similar response. b. we repeat those actions that we see others engage in. c. the consequences of behavior influence its likelihood of being repeated. d. the interaction of genetics and social factors best explains human behavior.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-103 Page Ref: 49 Topic: The Evolution of the Psychological Research Tradition: Experimental Psychology Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. after repeated pairings with a stimulus that naturally causes a response, a neutral stimulus will cause a similar response.

2.1-104. The role of learning is the central theme in a. Breuer's approach to treating people with mental disorders. b. Wundt's approach to psychological research. c. the psychoanalytic approach. d. the behavioral perspective.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-104 Page Ref: 49 Topic: The Evolutions of the Psychological Research Tradition: Experimental Psychology Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. the behavioral perspective.

2.1-105. Both ________ and ________ studied the effects of consequences on the occurrence of behaviors. a. Skinner; Pavlov b. Pavlov; Thorndike c. Thorndike; Skinner d. Pavlov; Freud Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.1-105 Page Ref: 50 Topic: The Evolution of the Psychological Research Tradition: Experimental Psychology ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: c. Thorndike; Skinner 2.1-106. The central principle of operant conditioning is that a. certain reflexes cause us to engage in habitual behavior. b. we repeat those actions that we see others engage in. c. the consequences of behavior influence its likelihood of being repeated. d. the interaction of genetics and social factors best explains human behavior.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.1-106 Page Ref: 50 Topic: The Evolution of the Psychological Research Tradition: Experimental Psychology Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. the consequences of behavior influence its likelihood of being repeated.

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 2.2-1. ____________was the affliction in the Middle Ages in which people believed themselves to be possessed by wolves.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.2-1 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Views of Abnormality During the Middle Ages Skill: Factual Answer: Lycanthropy 2.2-2. ______________ was the person who revolutionized moral management in the treatment of mental patients in the late 1700s.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.2-2 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Toward Humanitarian Reform/Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: Benjamin Rush 2.2-3. __________________is the process of moving mental patients from the hospital to the community.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.2-3 Page Ref: 43 Topic: Mental Hospital Care in the 21st Century Skill: Factual Answer: Deinstitutionalization 2.2-4. The surgical procedure used by physicians that initially used an ice pick to ..

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treat severe mental disorder is a __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.2-4 Page Ref: 45 Topic: Biological Discoveries: Establishing the Link Between the Brain and Mental Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: lobotomy Short Answer Questions 2.3-1. What was the most common explanation for abnormal behavior among many ancient peoples including the Chinese, Egyptians, Hebrews, and Greeks?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.3-1 Page Ref: 31 Topic: Historical Views of Abnormal Behavior Skill: Factual Answer: The most common explanation was possession by a demon or a god.

2.3-2. What is tarantism?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.3-2 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Views of Abnormality During the Middle Ages Skill: Factual Answer: Tarantism is a form of "mass madness" characterized by wild dancing. The behavior seen was similar to early orgiastic rites, but came to be viewed as a consequence of having been bitten by a tarantula.

2.3-3. How did people in the Middle Ages think that possession and mental illness were related?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.3-3 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Views of Abnormality During the Middle Ages Skill: Conceptual Answer: People who experienced physical possession were mentally ill, those who experienced spiritual possession were witches.

2.3-4. What was Bedlam?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.3-4 Page Ref: 37 Topic: The Establishment of Early Asylums Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: Bedlam was an asylum in London that became well known for its deplorable conditions and practices. It was typical of many asylums of the sixteenth century that served primarily as storage facilities for the mentally ill.

2.3-5. Who was Benjamin Rush?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.3-5 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: Benjamin Rush is credited with encouraging the use of more humane treatment of the mentally ill in the United States. He was the first American to organize a course in psychiatry, and, although some of his practices may have been less than humane, he is recognized as a transitional figure between the poor treatment of the old era and the humane approaches of the new.

2.3-6. What was moral management?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.3-6 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: Moral management was an approach to the care of the mentally ill that emerged in the early part of the period of humanitarian reform. It focused on addressing the patient's social, individual, and occupational needs.

2.3-7. What contributions did Dorothea Dix make to the treatment of the mentally ill?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.3-7 Page Ref: 40 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Applied Answer: Between 1841 and 1881 Dorothea Dix brought to light the inhuman treatment the mentally ill usually received and persuaded legislatures to fund the building of many mental hospitals. She is credited with improving conditions in American hospitals, establishing 32 mental hospitals, and fostering the growth of the mental hygiene movement in the United States.

2.3-8. Who was Clifford Beers?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.3-8 Page Ref: 42 Topic: Changing Attitudes Toward Mental Health in the Early 20th Century Skill: Factual Answer: A former mental patient who wrote about his experiences in the institutions of ..

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his time. He helped change the attitude about the mentally ill and their treatment.

2.3-9. What is the current attitude about hospitalization of the mentally ill?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.3-9 Page Ref: 41 Topic: Mental Hospital Care in the 20th Century Skill: Conceptual Answer: It is preferable to treat people in the community, and treatment should be deinstitutionalized, although it is not the perfect solution it was once thought to be.

2.3-10. Why was the discovery of the malarial treatment for general paresis important?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.3-10 Page Ref: 44 Topic: Biological Discoveries: Establishing the Link Skill: Conceptual Answer: It was the first scientifically demonstrated connection between a mental illness and brain pathology.

2.3-11. Who was Emil Kraepelin?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.3-11 Page Ref: 45 Topic: The Development of a Classification System Skill: Factual Answer: The first to recognize that certain symptoms occurred regularly together and to begin the classification of mental disorders.

2.3-12. What contribution to our thinking about abnormal behavior did Freud and Breuer make?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.3-12 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Development of the Psychological Basis of Mental Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: They made the discovery of the unconscious and argued that processes outside the person's awareness could help determine behavior. They showed that emotional tensions that patients were not aware of could cause hysteria.

2.3-13. Who was Wilhelm Wundt?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 2.3-13 Page Ref: 49 Topic: The Evolution of the Psychological Research Tradition: Experimental ..

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Psychology Skill: Factual Answer: The man who established the first experimental psychology laboratory.

2.3-14. What is the central theme of the behavioral perspective?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.3-14 Page Ref: 49 Topic: The Evolution of the Psychological Research Tradition: Experimental Psychology Skill: Conceptual Answer: The role of learning in human behavior.

Essay Questions 2.4-1. Abnormal behavior often has been attributed to the influence of supernatural forces. Describe how these forces were used to explain abnormal behavior during various time periods and the treatments that resulted.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.4-1 Page Ref: 30 Topic: Historical Views of Abnormal Behavior Skill: Factual Answer: Early writings of the Egyptians, Chinese, Hebrews, and Greeks show they attributed such behavior to possession by a demon or god. This was treated by exorcism.

In the Middle Ages, the clergy were largely responsible for treatment because possession was considered causal. In fifteenth- and sixteenth-century Europe, witchcraft became another related explanation for which torture, burning, and other such methods were used. Recent historical analyses, however, suggest that the mentally ill may not have been taken to be witches, as was often once thought. Even in contemporary culture, one can find those who believe that supernatural forces cause psychological problems.

Exorcisms are still occasionally practiced. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points total, 5 points each for a discussion of the use of supernatural explanations during two different time periods.

2.4-2. What was moral management? What caused its near abandonment in the second part of the nineteenth century?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.4-2 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Humanitarian Reform Skill: Factual Answer: Moral management was a broad treatment that included a patient's social, individual, and occupational needs. The moral and spiritual development of patients was a focus. More emphasis was placed on patients’ character than on their disorder. Typical treatments were spiritual discussion and manual labor. It was surprisingly effective. It ..

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was abandoned because of changing attitudes toward the mentally ill and the increasing size of hospitals. The mental hygiene movement and advances in biomedical science also contributed to its decrease in popularity. The focus on physical and biological explanations and care meant that other factors in a patient's life were considered irrelevant. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points total, 5 for each part of the question.

2.4-3. Explain how the link between the brain and mental disorders was first established.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.4-3 Page Ref: 44 Topic: Biological Discoveries: Establishing the Link Between the Brain and Mental Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: While Hippocrates and others had long proposed that mental disorders had some physical cause, it was not until the 1800s that a clear link between a physical disease process and mental illness was established. This finding then paved the way for further exploration of how brain malfunctions could result in mental illness. General paresis was an illness that produced paralysis, insanity, and, typically, death within two to five years. This mental illness was recognized as a specific type of mental disorder in 1825. Thus, it was recognized as a unique disorder, and attempts could then be made to treat it. It was eventually recognized that this illness was caused by syphilis. This is the first documented link between an identifiable brain infection and mental illness. With this finding, and the rising influence of modern experimental science, the investigation of brain pathology as the cause of mental illness began in earnest. GRADING RUBRIC – 10 points total.

2.4-4. What was the dispute between Charcot and the Nancy School? Why is this significant?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.4-4 Page Ref: 46-48 Topic: Development of the Psychological Basis of Mental Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: The Nancy School, named for the town of Nancy in France, refers to a group of physicians who believed that hysteria was a form of self-hypnosis. In other words, they believed that hysteria had a psychological cause. They came to this conclusion as it was observed that the symptoms of hysteria could be both produced and removed by means of hypnosis. Charcot, a neurologist, had not been able to replicate the findings of the Nancy School and argued that degenerative brain changes led to hysteria. The dispute between Charcot and the Nancy School was a debate about what the nature of the cause of hysteria was biological or psychological. In the end, the view of the Nancy School was accepted. This is said to represent the first recognition of a psychologically caused mental disorder. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points total, 4 points for stating the dispute, 2 points for explaining why it developed, 4 points for explaining its significance. ..

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2.4-5. Describe classical conditioning.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 2.4-5 Page Ref: 49 Topic: The Evolution of the Psychological Research Tradition: Experimental Psychology/Behavioral Perspective Skill: Factual Answer: Classical conditioning is a form of learning in which a neutral stimulus is paired repeatedly with an unconditioned stimulus. After repeated pairings, the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus that elicits a conditioned response. GRADING RUBRIC – 10 points total.

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TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 3 Causal Factors and Viewpoints

Topic

Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior

The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors

Multiple Choice (3.1-) Blank (3.2-) Short Answer (3.3-) Essay (3.4-) Multiple Choice (3.1-)

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2, 3, 12, 13, 14, 16, 17, 18, 24, 25 1, 2, 3 1 1, 2 27, 28, 29, 30, 31, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40, 41, 42, 43, 47, 48, 50, 51, 52, 57, 60, 62 4, 5

1, 7, 8, 11, 15, 21, 22

4, 5, 6, 9, 10, 19, 20, 23

32, 33, 55, 59, 61, 71

26, 44, 45, 46, 49, 53, 54, 56, 58

65, 66, 68, 69, 70, 72, 73, 76, 77, 78, 79, 80, 81, 82, 86, 88, 89, 90, 92, 93, 94, 95, 97, 99 6 3, 6

63, 64, 91, 98,

100, 101, 102, 103, 104, 106, 107, 108, 109, 111

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Short Answer (3.3-) The Psychological Viewpoints

Psychological Causal Factors

The Sociocultural Viewpoint

Sociocultural Causal Factors

Essay (3.4-) Multiple Choice (3.1-)

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3 67, 71, 74, 75, 83, 84, 85, 87, 96,

2, 4 4, 5 105, 112

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Short Answer (3.3-) Copyright © 2013 by Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

Essay (3.4-) 77 Multiple Choice True/False Short Answer Essay

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Chapter 3: Causal Factors and Viewpoints Multiple-Choice Questions 3.1-1. Understanding the causes of mental disorders is important because a. effective treatment is not possible without such an understanding. b. classification of disorders cannot be done without such information. c. such knowledge might make both the prevention and cure of mental disorders possible. d. disagreements about the causes of psychopathology have long limited the advancements made in the study of abnormal psychology.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-1 Page Ref: 56 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. such knowledge might make both the prevention and cure of mental disorders possible.

3.1-2. Dr. Fox studies the causes of depression. In other words, she looks at factors that play a role in the ________ of depression. a. etiology b. epidemiology c. prevalence d. resiliency Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-2 Page Ref: 56 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior Skill: Factual Answer: a. etiology 3.1-3. Etiology is a. a condition that tends to maintain maladaptive behavior. b. the causal pattern of a disorder. c. a predisposition toward developing a disorder. d. a condition that makes it less likely a person will experience the negative consequences of stress.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-3 Page Ref: 56 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Necessary, Sufficient, and Contributory Causes Skill: Factual Answer: b. the causal pattern of a disorder. ..

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3.1-4. In order to develop chicken pox, one must be exposed to the virus that causes chicken pox. Note, however, that not everyone who is exposed to the virus is affected. In other words, the virus is a a. risk factor. b. necessary cause. c. sufficient cause. d. contributory cause.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 3.1-4 Page Ref: 56 Topic: Causal Factors and Viewpoints in Abnormal Behavior/Necessary, Sufficient, and Contributory Causes Skill: Applied Answer: b. necessary cause.

3.1-5. While having a gene for Parkinson's disease guarantees that Parkinson's disease will develop, this is not the only factor that can lead to Parkinson's disease.

In other words, the presence of the gene is a ________, but not a ________. a. risk factor; sufficient cause b. sufficient cause; necessary cause c. necessary cause; risk factor d. contributory cause; sufficient cause Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 3.1-5 Page Ref: 56 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors in Abnormal Behavior/Necessary, Sufficient, and Contributory Causes Skill: Applied Answer: b. sufficient cause; necessary cause 3.1-6. If having a gene for Parkinson's disease guarantees that Parkinson's disease will develop, the presence of the gene can be described as a a. risk factor. b. necessary cause. c. sufficient cause. d. contributory cause.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-6 Page Ref: 56 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Necessary, Sufficient, and Contributory Causes Skill: Applied Answer: c. sufficient cause.

3.1-7. Suppose that the presence of a particular gene is a necessary cause for the ..

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occurrence of schizophrenia. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. The gene is also a sufficient cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia. b. There are other things besides this gene that can cause schizophrenia. c. Most people with schizophrenia will have that gene. d. A person with that gene may or may not become schizophrenic.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 3.1-7 Page Ref: 56 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Necessary, Sufficient, and Contributory Causes Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. A person with that gene may or may not become schizophrenic.

3.1-8. Childhood abuse is commonly seen in those who develop dissociative disorders later in life. Childhood abuse would best be described as a a. necessary contributory cause. b. proximal contributory cause. c. reinforcing contributory cause. d. distal contributory cause.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-8 Page Ref: 57 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Necessary, Sufficient, and Contributory Causes Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. distal contributory cause.

3.1-9. Karen was sexually abused by her father at the age of 5. She developed a severe separation anxiety reaction whenever her mother tried to leave. As an adult, Karen developed a dissociative disorder. This is an example of how the same factor, in this case abuse, can be a. both a sufficient and a necessary cause. b. both a reinforcing contributory cause and a punishing contributory cause. c. both a primary and a secondary process. d. both a proximal and a distal causal factor.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-9 Page Ref: 57 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Necessary, Sufficient, and Contributory Causes Skill: Applied Answer: d. both a proximal and a distal causal factor.

3.1-10. A couple is in counseling. She states that she drinks because he rejects her.

He states that he rejects her because she drinks. It appears that a. the drinking is probably the actual predisposing cause for the problems in this ..

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marriage. b. the rejection is probably the actual predisposing cause for the problems in this marriage. c. the drinking and rejection influence and maintain each other. d. the drinking and rejection are caused by another third variable unknown to the couple.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-10 Page Ref: 57 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Feedback and Bidirectionality in Abnormal Behavior Skill: Applied Answer: c. the drinking and rejection influence and maintain each other.

3.1-11. A diathesis can best be described as a a. proximal necessary cause. b. sufficient cause. c. contributory cause. d. proximal causal factor.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 3.1-11 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. contributory cause.

3.1-12. A predisposition toward developing a disorder a. necessarily is biological. b. is called a diathesis. c. increases the likelihood of developing any given disorder by 50%. d. necessarily is a psycho-social stressor.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-12 Page Ref: 57 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Factual Answer: b. is called a diathesis.

3.1-13. In the diathesis-stress model, a stressor is a. a distal, sufficient cause of a mental disorder. b. a necessary or contributory cause that is distal from the onset of symptoms. c. a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms. d. a biological vulnerability.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-13 Page Ref: 58 ..

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Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Factual Answer: c. a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms.

3.1-14. In the diathesis-stress model, a diathesis is a. a distal necessary or contributory cause of a mental disorder. b. a sufficient cause that is distal from the onset of symptoms. c. a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms. d. a biological vulnerability that virtually guarantees the development of the disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-14 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Factual Answer: a. a distal necessary or contributory cause of a mental disorder.

3.1-15. Suppose that low self-esteem is a diathesis for developing depression later in life. This means that a. people who currently are depressed will have low self-esteem. b. low self-esteem is a proximal trigger for depression. c. people with low self-esteem have a predisposition for developing depression. d. the psychological processes associated with low self-esteem are the trigger for depression.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-15 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. people with low self-esteem have a predisposition for developing depression.

3.1-16. The loss of a parent may be a. a stressor. b. a diathesis. c. a diathesis and/or a stressor. d. Neither a diathesis nor a stressor.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-16 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Factual Answer: c. a diathesis and/or a stressor.

3.1-17. The additive model of the diathesis stress theory proposes that a. people with a very high level of a diathesis may need a very large amount of ..

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stress to develop the disorder. b. people with a very high level of a diathesis may need only a small amount of stress to develop the disorder. c. someone with no diathesis will never develop the disorder. d. someone with no genes for the disorder will never develop the disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-17 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Factual Answer: b. people with a very high level of a diathesis may need only a small amount of stress to develop the disorder.

3.1-18. A protective factor is a. an influence that modifies a person’s response to environmental stressors. b. an influence that modifies a person’s response to genetic problems. c. a distal causal factor for a mental disorder. d. a biological makeup that makes people more resistant to stress.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-18 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Factual Answer: a. an influence that modifies a person’s response to environmental stressors.

3.1-19. Ryan, age 8, was cut from the school soccer team. After the initial disappointment, he became a boy scout, which he really enjoyed. Now as an adult, when he did not get into graduate school, rather than become depressed, Ryan found a job in his field that he enjoys, and plans to try again later. This is an example of a. a necessary and sufficient cause. b. the diathesis - stress theory. c. the interactive model of the diathesis - stress theory. d. the steeling or inoculation effect of some stressful experiences.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-19 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Applied Answer: d. the steeling or inoculation effect of some stressful experiences.

3.1-20. According to the text, which of the following has not been identified as a potential protective factor? a. Exposure to moderate stressors b. High intelligence ..

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c. An introverted personality d. A warm and supportive parent Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-20 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Applied Answer: c. An introverted personality 3.1-21. When psychologists say that a person shows resilience, it means a. the person has not been faced with significant stressors. b. that regardless of the stresses the person faces, he or she will feel no emotional distress. c. the person can successfully adapt and survive in threatening circumstances. d. recovering from traumatic events without the need for psychological protective factors.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-21 Page Ref: 59 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. the person can successfully adapt and survive in threatening circumstances.

3.1-22. Which of the following is an example of the three phenomena that the term resilience has been used to describe? a. Julie dreams of becoming a successful banker but never finished. b. After failing French the first time, Carl did not earn a passing grade when he took the course for a second time. c. After his father died, Julio had a hard time maintaining responsibilities at work. d. Following the events of September 11th, the children of PS100 in New York City were able to resume their studies and finish the school year without incident.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-22 Page Ref: 59 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. After failing French the first time, Carl did not earn a passing grade when he took the course for a second time.

3.1-23. Resilient children a. show resilience in all domains. b. may still experience emotional distress. c. usually have survived chronic maltreatment. d. are increasingly rare. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-23 Page Ref: 59 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Applied Answer: b. may still experience emotional distress.

3.1-24. What is the focus of the field of developmental psychopathology? a. Understanding how critical incidents in childhood affect people as adults. b. To understand what is within the range of normal development so as to have a better understanding of what is abnormal. c. To discover and improve the environmental factors that can contribute to a child later developing a mental illness. d. Understanding how disorders develop over time.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-24 Page Ref: 60 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Factual Answer: b. To understand what is within the range of normal development so as to have a better understanding of what is abnormal.

3.1-25. Which of the following most accurately describes the notion of different viewpoints of abnormal behavior? a. Each viewpoint accurately describes the causes and symptoms of 2-3 different disorders. b. Each viewpoint offers its own explanation of abnormal behavior. c. All viewpoints are equally valid. d. Only the biological viewpoint has been studied experimentally.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-25 Page Ref: 60 Topic: Viewpoints for Understanding the Causes of Abnormal Behavior Skill: Factual Answer: b. Each viewpoint offers its own explanation of abnormal behavior.

3.1-26. Dr. Simon, a psychiatrist, takes a biopsychosocial viewpoint of psychopathology. Which of the following treatments is he most likely to suggest for Julia's current state of depression? a. Intense psychotherapy b. A prolonged vacation c. A combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs d. Family therapy and a change in her work environment Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-26 ..

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Page Ref: 60 Topic: Viewpoints for Understanding the Causes of Abnormal Behavior Skill: Applied Answer: c. A combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs 3.1-27. The disorders first recognized as having biological bases are best characterized as disorders that a. involved significant damage to brain tissue. b. were characterized by neurochemical imbalances. c. did not cause neurological damage. d. resulted from contact with other animal species.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-27 Page Ref: 61 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: a. involved significant damage to brain tissue.

3.1-28. Which of the following is true? a. Most mental disorders are caused by psychological factors. b. Most mental disorders have a simple biological explanation. c. Most mental disorders are caused by neurological damage. d. Most mental disorders are not caused by neurological damage.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-28 Page Ref: 63 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. Most mental disorders are not caused by neurological damage.

3.1-29. The site of communication between two neurons is the a. synapse. b. neurotransmitter. c. nucleus. d. vesicle.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-29 Page Ref: 61 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Neurotransmitter and Hormonal Abnormalities Skill: Factual Answer: a. synapse.

3.1-30. Which statement about neural communication is accurate? a. All neurotransmitters increase the likelihood that the postsynaptic neuron will transmit a message. ..

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b. The reason neural messages are transmitted from cell to cell is because they physically touch each other. c. The part of the neuron that receives messages is called the synapse. d. Neurotransmitters released into the synapse determine whether messages are sent from one neuron to another.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-30 Page Ref: 62 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Neurotransmission and Abnormal Behavior Skill: Factual Answer: d. Neurotransmitters released into the synapse determine whether messages are sent from one neuron to another.

3.1-31. Normally, the enzyme monoamine oxidase is involved in the breaking down of some neurotransmitters. This process is called a. re-uptake. b. deactivation. c. recapture. d. inhibitory transmission.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-31 Page Ref: 62 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Neurotransmitter and Hormonal Abnormalities Skill: Factual Answer: b. deactivation.

3.1-32. Suppose the reuptake of a specific neurotransmitter were deficient and the deactivation enzymes associated with the neurotransmitter were also deficient.

What effect would this have? a. There would be more of the neurotransmitter in the synapse. b. There would be less of the neurotransmitter in the synapse. c. Since the two deficiencies would balance each other out, there would be no change in the levels of the neurotransmitter. d. The neurons would become especially sensitive to the neurotransmitter.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-32 Page Ref: 63 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Neurotransmission and Abnormal Behavior Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. There would be more of the neurotransmitter in the synapse.

3.1-33. Reuptake of neurotransmitters is a. the process by which neurotransmitters are repeatedly released into the synapse. ..

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b. the process by which neurotransmitters are reabsorbed by the axon. c. the process by which neurotransmitters stimulate the post-synaptic neuron to fire. d. the process by which neurotransmitters are connected to hormones.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-33 Page Ref: 63 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Neurotransmitter and Hormonal Abnormalities Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. the process by which neurotransmitters are reabsorbed by the axon.

3.1-34. Norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin, and GABA are all a. hormones that affect behavior. b. catecholamines that inhibit nerve impulses. c. neurotransmitters that are involved in psychopathology. d. forms of neurotransmitters called amino acids that can cause brain damage.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-34 Page Ref: 63 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/ Neurotransmitter and Hormonal Abnormalities Skill: Factual Answer: c. neurotransmitters that are involved in psychopathology.

3.1-35. Cortisol is a hormone that a. is released by the hypothalamus and travels to the pituitary gland, causing it to respond. b. the pituitary gland releases to stimulate the adrenal gland. c. the adrenal gland produces that mobilizes the body to deal with stress. d. reduces the reuptake of the monamine neurotransmitters.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-35 Page Ref: 64 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Imbalances of Neurotransmitters and Hormones Skill: Factual Answer: c. the adrenal gland produces that mobilizes the body to deal with stress.

3.1-36. Which of the following statements is true? a. Most behavioral disorders are determined exclusively by genes. b. Genes play a role in most mental disorders. c. Genes do not affect biochemical processes. d. The genes that will be expressed in an individual are not affected by experience.

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Question ID: 3.1-36 Page Ref: 64 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Factual Answer: b. Genes play a role in most mental disorders.

3.1-37. What do genes consist of? a. Trisomes b. Chromosomes c. DNA d. Proteins Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-37 Page Ref: 64 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Factual Answer: c. DNA 3.1-38. Down syndrome has been linked to a. a chemical imbalance. b. a gene on the X chromosome. c. possessing an extra X chromosome. d. possessing an extra chromosome in chromosome 21.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-38 Page Ref: 64 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Factual Answer: d. possessing an extra chromosome in chromosome 21.

3.1-39. Normal human cells have a. twenty-two chromosome pairs and one pair of sex chromosomes. b. twenty-one trisomy chromosome pairs, one autosomal pair and one pair of sex chromosomes. c. twenty-one chromosome pairs and two trisomy chromosome pairs. d. twenty-three chromosome pairs.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-39 Page Ref: 64 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Factual Answer: a. twenty-two chromosome pairs and one pair of sex chromosomes.

3.1-40. When examining heredity, mental disorders are almost always a. influenced by one particular gene. b. influenced by multiple genes. ..

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c. influenced by recessive genes. d. not influenced by genes.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-40 Page Ref: 65 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Factual Answer: b. influenced by multiple genes.

3.1-41. Mental disorders are almost always influenced by multiple genes. This means they are a. easy to discover. b. chemical circuits. c. polygenic. d. probands.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-41 Page Ref: 65 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Factual Answer: c. polygenic.

3.1-42. The genetic influences that determine behavior may never be fully understood due to a. the ease of research to differentiate between the effects of the environment and the effects of genes. b. the likelihood that most behaviors are determined by the interaction of many genes and the environment. c. the tendency to rely upon twin studies in genetic research. d. our limited understanding of how genes impact brain chemistry.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-42 Page Ref: 65 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Factual Answer: b. the likelihood that most behaviors are determined by the interaction of many genes and the environment.

3.1-43. Genes a. determine how a person will behave. b. cause people to develop mental disorders. c. determine what characteristics a person will have. d. determine the range of characteristics a person has.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-43 Page Ref: 65 ..

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Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Factual Answer: d. determine the range of characteristics a person has.

3.1-44. Ian was predisposed to being very aggressive with his peers in school, who responded by rejecting him. Later in life Ian began to associate with other aggressive youth and to participate in a variety of delinquent behaviors. This is an example of a. phenotypic vulnerability to aggression. b. a phenotypic diathesis. c. polygenic expression. d. the way the genotype may shape the phenotype.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 3.1-44 Page Ref: 65 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Applied Answer: d. the way the genotype may shape the phenotype.

3.1-45. Attractive children and unattractive babies tend to be treated differently. In other words, an infant's physical phenotype may alter how others respond to him or her. What type of genotype-environment correlation is this an example of? a. Active b. Evocative c. Passive d. Persuasive Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-45 Page Ref: 65 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Applied Answer: b. Evocative 3.1-46. Andrea and her parents are shy and quiet. Her parents never take Andrea to any activities where there are many people. They buy her books and crafts that she can do by herself. This shows a. an evocative effect of genotype on environment. b. a passive effect of genotype on environment. c. an active effect of genotype on environment. d. a lack of genotype-environment correlation.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-46 Page Ref: 65 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Applied ..

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Answer: a. an evocative effect of genotype on environment.

3.1-47. Highly coordinated children are picked out at an early age by coaches and given special opportunities to excel at sports. Extraverted children seek out social situations and become unusually comfortable with strangers. Both of these phenomena illustrate a. the power of the phenotype over the genotype. b. genotype-environment correlations. c. the polygenic effect of chromosomes on behavior. d. how the environment shapes one's genetic endowment.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-47 Page Ref: 65 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Factual Answer: b. genotype-environment correlations.

3.1-48. Which method for studying genetic influences fails to control for the possible effect of sharing a common environment? a. Family history or pedigree method b. Adoption method c. Association studies d. Linkage analysis Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-48 Page Ref: 66 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Factual Answer: a. Family history or pedigree method 3.1-49. If trait is highly heritable, it would be expected that a. the concordance rate for dizygotic twins and monozygotic twins would be comparable. b. the concordance rate for dizygotic twins would be greater than the concordance rate for monozygotic twins. c. the concordance rate for monozygotic twins would be greater than the concordance rate for dizygotic twins. d. the concordance rate for dizygotic twins would be close to 100%.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-49 Page Ref: 66 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Applied Answer: c. the concordance rate for monozygotic twins would be greater than the concordance rate for dizygotic twins. ..

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3.1-50. If fraternal (or dizygotic) twins are more likely to be concordant for a trait than other siblings, can it be concluded that the higher concordance rate is due to the greater degree of genetic relatedness? a. Yes. b. Yes, but only if the siblings studied are of the same sex and age. c. No, because the greater similarity can be attributed to environmental influence. d. No, because fraternal twins are no more genetically alike than other siblings.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-50 Page Ref: 66 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Factual Answer: d. No, because fraternal twins are no more genetically alike than other siblings.

3.1-51. Which of the following is NOT a common method for studying genetic influences? a. The study of specific gene defects b. Twin studies c. Adoption studies d. Family history (pedigree) studies Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-51 Page Ref: 67 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Factual Answer: a. The study of specific gene defects 3.1-52. Why is it particularly useful to study identical twins who were raised in different environments? a. Differences in brain function can easily be identified. b. Concordance rates tend to be higher. c. It is possible that the genetics of twins who have been separated have changed in ways to explain any differences found. d. It is possible that high concordance rates between identical twins reared together is due to their being treated more similarly than nonidentical twins.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-52 Page Ref: 67 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Factual Answer: d. It is possible that high concordance rates between identical twins reared together is due to there being treated more similarly than nonidentical twins.

3.1-53. George and Logan are brothers. They live in a small apartment in the city with some other relatives. Their family is extremely poor. Their father is hardest on George, the eldest, and sometimes physically abuses him. Which environmental ..

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factor is likely to be more important in the later adjustment of George and Logan? a. Their poverty. b. The overcrowding of their living situation. c. The physical abuse. d. The fact that they live with other family members.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 3.1-53 Page Ref: 68 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Applied Answer: c. The physical abuse.

3.1-54. Which of the following is an example of a nonshared environmental influence? a. Family economic status b. Divorce c. Death of a parent d. Sibling rivalry Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-54 Page Ref: 68 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Applied Answer: d. Sibling rivalry 3.1-55. Which of the following is a misconception about genetics and behavior? a. The influence of genetics on behavior disappears as we get older. b. Just because a disorder runs in families does not mean genetics are the reason. c. Genetic research strategies provide useful tests of the influence of the environment on behavior. d. Genetics influence behavior by making the person more or less susceptible to environmental influences.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-67 Page Ref: 68 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. The influence of genetics on behavior disappears as we get older.

3.1-56. Todd and his siblings have parents who are physically abusive to each other.

When they fight, they expect Todd to stay quiet and keep the other children under control. They allow the other children to cry and hide, but Todd must stay in the room with them and referee. This is an example of a. a genotype-environment correlation. b. a shared environmental influence. c. a nonshared environmental influence. ..

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d. a protective factor.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-56 Page Ref: 68 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Applied Answer: c. a nonshared environmental influence.

3.1-57. Which of the following strives to describe the location of genes responsible for mental disorders? a. Association studies b. Family histories c. Twin studies d. Adoption studies Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-57 Page Ref: 68 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Factual Answer: a. Association studies 3.1-58. Suppose that, using linkage analysis, a researcher finds that family members with a high likelihood of developing depression also are very likely to be of below average height. This would mean a. being short is a contributory factor for depression. b. the gene for depression is probably located near the gene for height. c. height and depression are probably caused by the same gene. d. having depression causes people not to grow as tall as they would if they didn't have depression.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-58 Page Ref: 68 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Applied Answer: b. the gene for depression is probably located near the gene for height.

3.1-59. Tracy and Shahid are both 3 months old. Tracy is highly active, easily irritated, and cries easily. Shahid is quiet, adapts easily to change, and seems fearless. These differences illustrate a. the impact of shared environmental influences. b. how physical handicaps can have a genetic origin. c. differences in temperament. d. the fact that personality is more influenced by the environment than by genetics.

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Page Ref: 68 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Temperament Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. differences in temperament.

3.1-60. A child consistently identified as behaviorally inhibited is most likely to a. be an outgoing adult. b. develop conduct disorder. c. be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder in adulthood. d. have been born prematurely.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-60 Page Ref: 69 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Temperament Skill: Factual Answer: c. be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder in adulthood.

3.1-61. Which of the following statements about brain dysfunction and psychiatric disorders is correct? a. Identifiable brain damage is often the cause of psychiatric disorders. b. Brain damage may decrease the risk of developing a psychiatric condition. c. Changes in brain function appear to play a role in many psychiatric disorders. d. Brain development can be altered by experience, potentially leading to changes in the brain that decrease the risk of developing a psychiatric condition.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-61 Page Ref: 69 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Brain Dysfunction and Neural Plasticity Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Changes in brain function appear to play a role in many psychiatric disorders.

3.1-62. Neural plasticity is a. the process by which neurotransmitters are broken down in the brain. b. the flexibility of the brain - existing neural circuits can change or new ones can be made. c. strong evidence of brain damage, leading to the development of a mental disorder. d. the best indicator of temperament and its effect on the personality development of a child.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-62 Page Ref: 70 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Brain Dysfunction and Neural Plasticity Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: b. the flexibility of the brain - existing neural circuits can change or new ones can be made.

3.1-63. Biological discoveries a. have lessened the subjectivity of definitions of abnormal. b. demonstrate that the environment plays only a minimal role in the development of psychopathology. c. make it clear that mental disorders are diseases and should be dealt with by the medical profession. d. have led to a recognition of the role that genetic factors and other biological influences play in the development of many disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-63 Page Ref: 71 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Impact of the Biological Viewpoint Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. have led to a recognition of the role that genetic factors and other biological influences play in the development of many disorders.

3.1-64. According to Freud, a person who does not appropriately resolve each psychosexual stage would be ___________ at that stage. a. defended b. fixated c. repressed d. displaced Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-64 Page Ref: 73 Topic: The Psychological Perspectives/The Psychodynamic Perspective Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. fixated 3.1-65. In psychoanalytic theory, which psychosexual stage centers on castration anxiety? a. Genital b. Oral c. Anal d. Phallic Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-65 Page Ref: 73 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychoanalytic Perspectives Skill: Factual Answer: d. Phallic ..

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3.1-66. Which period of psychosexual development occurs when a child becomes preoccupied with the development of skills and activities? a. Genital b. Phallic c. Latency d. Pubertal Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-66 Page Ref: 73 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Factual Answer: c. Latency 3.1-67. One important contribution of Freud's theory was that a. he truly understood the role of women in society. b. he heavily utilized experimental evidence to support his theories. c. he applied the same principles to normal and abnormal behavior. d. he increased the focus on positive growth for individuals.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-67 Page Ref: 76 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Applied Answer: c. he applied the same principles to normal and abnormal behavior.

3.1-68. John Bowlby's attachment theory emphasized a. the social environment in forming attachments. b. the quality of parental care in forming attachments. c. the quality of early reinforcers and stimulation in forming attachments. d. the necessity of independence from parental figures in forming attachments.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-68 Page Ref: 75 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Factual Answer: b. the quality of parental care in forming attachments.

3.1-69. Which of the following perspectives focused upon social determinants of behavior? a. The attachment perspective b. The interpersonal perspective c. The humanistic perspective d. The existential perspective Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-69 Page Ref: 75 ..

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Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Factual Answer: b. The interpersonal perspective 3.1-70. Which perspective or viewpoint focuses on intrapsychic conflicts as the cause of psychopathology? a. Biological b. Behavioral c. Psychodynamic d. Sociocultural Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-70 Page Ref: 74 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Factual Answer: c. Psychodynamic 3.1-71. Which of the following psychodynamic elements of the personality can be described as impulsive and selfish? a. Ego b. Id c. Superego d. Ideal self Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-71 Page Ref: 72 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Applied Answer: b. Id 3.1-72. Freud's view of mental disorders was that they were a result of a. unresolved conflicts between the id, the ego, and the superego. b. genetic abnormalities that influence people's ability to cope with their environment. c. problematic tendencies we develop while dealing with our early interpersonal environments. d. learned maladaptive behaviors that were rewarded with attention.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-72 Page Ref: 72 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Factual Answer: a. unresolved conflicts between the id, the ego, and the superego.

3.1-73. Which of the following did Freud believe played a causal role in the development of most forms of psychopathology? ..

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a. Anxiety b. Depression c. Unresolved conflicts between the ego and the superego d. Fixation in the oral stage Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-73 Page Ref: 72 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Factual Answer: a. Anxiety 3.1-74. Defense mechanisms a. make a person feel more anxious and have more problems, because they begin to act defensively. b. are strategies the id uses to try to achieve what it desires. c. are conscious, intentional attempts to cope in an effective way with an anxiety producing event. d. help a person feel less anxious, but because they usually work by distorting reality, they are not always adaptive.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-74 Page Ref: 73 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Applied Answer: d. help a person feel less anxious, but because they usually work by distorting reality, they are not always adaptive.

3.1-75. After cheating on her husband, Julia accused her husband of cheating on her. Such behavior is explained by which of the following defense mechanism? a. Sublimation b. Displacement c. Projection d. Rationalization Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-75 Page Ref: 73 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Applied Answer: c. Projection 3.1-76. Newer psychodynamic perspectives a. disregard most elements of Freud's theories. b. emphasize the role of the id. c. do not view the libido as a primary determinant of behavior. d. recognize intrapsychic conflicts as a primary determinant of behavior.

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Question ID: 3.1-76 Page Ref: 74 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Factual Answer: c. do not view the libido as a primary determinant of behavior.

3.1-77. The interpersonal perspective a. arose as a reaction against the unscientific methods of psychoanalysis. b. was introduced by Erik Erikson. c. emphasizes social rather than inner determinants of behavior. d. is the most influential humanistic perspective today.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-77 Page Ref: 75 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Factual Answer: c. emphasizes social rather than inner determinants of behavior.

3.1-78. Finding meaning in life and dealing with death form core values in which of the following perspectives? a. Existential b. Humanistic c. Behavioral d. Object-relations Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-78 Page Ref: 78 Topic: The Psychological Perspectives/The Humanistic and Existential Perspectives Skill: Factual Answer: a. Existential 3.1-79. The humanistic perspective focuses primarily upon the capacity of the individual to a. confront the dilemma of our deaths. b. be driven by unconscious motives. c. rationally explain our behavior. d. engage in positive self-growth.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-79 Page Ref: 78 Topic: The Psychological Perspectives/The Humanistic and Existential Perspectives Skill: Factual Answer: d. engage in positive self-growth.

3.1-80. One of Freud's major contributions to current perspectives of mental disorders is ..

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a. the concept of the Oedipal complex. b. the concept of the unconscious and how it can affect behavior. c. the concept of the Electra complex. d. the understanding of the three structures of personality.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-80 Page Ref: 75 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Factual Answer: b. the concept of the unconscious and how it can affect behavior.

3.1-81. Which of the following is a criticism of traditional psychoanalytic theory? a. Underemphasis on the sex drive b. Overly positive view of women c. Lack of scientific evidence d. Too much focus on symptoms and not enough on underlying causes Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-81 Page Ref: 76 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Factual Answer: c. Lack of scientific evidence 3.1-82. Which psychosocial perspective was initially developed through laboratory research? a. Behavioral b. Biological c. Humanistic d. Psychodynamic Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-82 Page Ref: 76 Topic: The Psychosocial Viewpoints/The Behavioral Perspective Skill: Factual Answer: a. Behavioral 3.1-83. After being bitten by a dog, Jose finds that he feels afraid whenever he sees a dog. In classical conditioning terms, the dog can be described as a(n) a. conditioned response. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned stimulus.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-83 Page Ref: 77 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Behavioral Perspective ..

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Skill: Applied Answer: c. conditioned stimulus.

3.1-84. After being bitten by a dog, Jose finds that he feels afraid whenever he sees a dog. He goes for treatment, where he is gradually exposed to dogs, until he can be in the same room with a dog without feeling any fear. Three weeks later, while walking in his neighborhood, Jose hears a dog barking viciously. For a few weeks after this, his fear returns. This shows a. the treatment had no effect. b. extinction. c. stimulus-stimulus expectancy. d. spontaneous recovery.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-84 Page Ref: 77 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Behavioral Perspective Skill: Applied Answer: d. spontaneous recovery.

3.1-85. If a response has been learned through conditioning, it would be appropriate to treat it using the process of a. displacement. b. extinction. c. spontaneous recovery. d. stimulus-stimulus expectancy.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-85 Page Ref: 77 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Behavioral Perspective Skill: Applied Answer: b. extinction.

3.1-86. Learning not to do something because you are punished when you do it is an example of a. classical conditioning. b. generalization. c. instrumental conditioning. d. observational learning.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-86 Page Ref: 77 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Behavioral Perspective Skill: Factual Answer: c. instrumental conditioning.

3.1-87. Alicia developed a fear of spiders after being bitten by one. However, she has ..

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no problems looking at pictures of spiders. This is an example of a. discrimination. b. generalization. c. instrumental conditioning. d. intrapsychic conflict.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-87 Page Ref: 79 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Behavioral Perspective Skill: Applied Answer: a. discrimination.

3.1-88. Due to ________, we can learn from the experiences of others. a. classical conditioning b. generalization c. instrumental conditioning d. observational learning Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-88 Page Ref: 79 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Behavioral Perspective Skill: Factual Answer: d. observational learning 3.1-89. The behavioral perspective has been criticized for a. focusing on symptoms. b. not providing an explanation for how abnormal behavioral responses are acquired. c. viewing basic human nature as good. d. its overemphasis on the use of punishment.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-89 Page Ref: 80 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Behavioral Perspective Skill: Factual Answer: a. focusing on symptoms.

3.1-90. Behaviorists suggest maladaptive behavior can be a result of a. extinction. b. lack of generalization of behaviors. c. a poor response-outcome expectancy. d. failure to learn adaptive behaviors.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-90 Page Ref: 79 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Behavioral Perspective ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: d. failure to learn adaptive behaviors.

3.1-91. From the cognitive-behavioral perspective, an important limitation with the behavioral perspective is the fact that a. behaviorists went too far in attacking the psychoanalytic perspective. b. behaviorists failed to attend to the importance of mental processes. c. behaviorists held an overly stringent view of what constitutes scientific inquiry. d. behaviorists overemphasized the importance of subjective experience.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-91 Page Ref: 80 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Cognitive-Behavioral Perspective Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. behaviorists failed to attend to the importance of mental processes.

3.1-92. Cognitive-behavioral psychologists believe that abnormal behavior a. consists of learned maladaptive response patterns. b. results from distorted thinking and information processing. c. results from neurotic thought processes. d. results from impaired patterns of interpersonal relationships.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-92 Page Ref: 80 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Cognitive-Behavioral Perspective Skill: Factual Answer: b. results from distorted thinking and information processing.

3.1-93. A(n) ________ serves to guide our processing of information and may serve to distort memories. a. attribution. b. conditioned stimulus c. schema d. unconditioned stimulus Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-93 Page Ref: 80 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Cognitive-Behavioral Perspective Skill: Factual Answer: c. schema 3.1-94. Schemas a. do not really influence how we interpret the world. b. may be a source of psychological vulnerability. c. are always types of biases that color our interpretation of the world. d. are attempts to change other people's behavior. ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-94 Page Ref: 80 Topic: The Psychological Perspectives/The Cognitive-Behavioral Perspective Skill: Factual Answer: b. may be a source of psychological vulnerability.

3.1-95. The process of assigning causes to things that happen is called a. attribution. b. internal reinforcement. c. schema therapy. d. cognition.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-95 Page Ref: 81 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Cognitive-Behavioral Perspective Skill: Factual Answer: a. attribution.

3.1-96. It is a hot day and a child sprays you with a garden hose. You might react with amusement (and even thanks!) or considerable anger. The fact that one event can be interpreted in different ways is central to the ________ approach to therapy. a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. cognitive d. sociocultural Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-96 Page Ref: 82 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Cognitive-Behavioral Perspective Skill: Applied Answer: c. cognitive 3.1-97. New perceptions and experiences tend to be worked into our existing schemas, even if the new information must be distorted to fit them. This process is called a. accommodation. b. assimilation. c. appropriation. d. attribution.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-97 Page Ref: 81 Topic: The Psychological Perspectives/The Cognitive-Behavioral Perspective Skill: Factual Answer: b. assimilation. ..

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3.1-98. Making a new experience fit existing frameworks is associated with ________; changing our existing frameworks to incorporate a new experience is associated with ________. a. positive attributions; negative attributions b. accommodation; assimilation c. self-efficacy; self-identity d. assimilation; accommodation Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-98 Page Ref: 81 Topic: The Psychological Perspectives/The Cognitive-Behavioral Perspective Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. assimilation; accommodation 3.1-99. According to cognitive theorists, a lot of information that contributes to a person's psychopathology a. is processed at a conscious, intentional level. b. is processed at a nonconscious level. c. is not processed at all. d. is processed only when in interpersonal relationships.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-99 Page Ref: 81 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Cognitive-Behavioral Perspective Skill: Factual Answer: b. is processed at a nonconscious level.

3.1-100. The effects of early social deprivation a. are explained differently by the various psychosocial perspectives. b. have not been well-established. c. can't be explained by psychosocial theories. d. are not seen when physical needs are adequately met.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-100 Page Ref: 85 Topic: Psychological Causal Factors/Early Deprivation or Trauma Skill: Factual Answer: a. are explained differently by the various psychosocial perspectives.

3.1-101. Lasting negative effects of abuse on psychological functioning are most likely when the abuse occurs in a. early childhood. b. adolescence. c. early adulthood. d. old age. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-101 Page Ref: 84 Topic: Psychological Causal Factors/Early Deprivation or Trauma Skill: Factual Answer: a. early childhood.

3.1-102. Abused infants and toddlers a. tend to develop into resilient adults. b. have a tendency to be passive and to avoid conflict with both peers and authorities. c. are likely to show inconsistent attachment behavior. d. are likely to develop close bonds with same-sex peers.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-102 Page Ref: 86 Topic: Psychological Causal Factors/Early Deprivation or Trauma Skill: Factual Answer: c. are likely to show inconsistent attachment behavior.

3.1-103. According to Bowlby, a. despair is a normal response to separation. b. the display of despair in response to separation is indicative of an insecure attachment. c. frequent parental separation in infancy contributes to the development of resiliency. d. the failure to experience normal parental separations in infancy contributes to an inability to tolerate relationship-related stressors in adulthood.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-103 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Psychological Causal Factors/Early Deprivation or Trauma Skill: Factual Answer: a. despair is a normal response to separation.

3.1-104. Infant characteristics a. do not affect parental behavior. b. only affect parental behavior when psychopathology is present. c. are not influenced by biological factors. d. can influence the quality of attachment relationships.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-104 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Psychological Causal Factors/Inadequate Parenting Styles Skill: Factual Answer: d. can influence the quality of attachment relationships. ..

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3.1-105. Dana's mother suffers from serious depressive episodes. Dana is likely to a. be at risk for depression herself. b. become a happy-go-lucky child because she had to cope with so much. c. act in an aggressive, criminal manner. d. have intense attachments to her mother.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-105 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Psychological Causal Factors/Inadequate Parenting Styles Skill: Applied Answer: a. be at risk for depression herself.

3.1-106. Which parental style is characterized by warmth, control, and communication? a. Authoritarian b. Permissive/indulgent c. Authoritative d. Neglectful-uninvolved Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-106 Page Ref: 88 Topic: Psychological Causal Factors/Inadequate Parenting Styles Skill: Factual Answer: c. Authoritative 3.1-107. The four parenting styles described in the text differ along two dimensions, warmth and control. The style associated with the most positive developmental outcome is best described as ________ in warmth and ________ in control. a. high; low b. low; low c. high; moderately high d. low; moderately high Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-107 Page Ref: 88 Topic: Psychological Causal Factors/Inadequate Parenting Styles Skill: Factual Answer: c. high; moderately high 3.1-108. A lack of social skills, poor school performance, and moodiness have all been associated with which of the following parenting styles? a. Authoritarian b. Permissive/indulgent c. Authoritative d. Neglectful-uninvolved ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-108 Page Ref: 89 Topic: Psychological Causal Factors/Inadequate Parenting Styles Skill: Factual Answer: d. Neglectful-uninvolved 3.1-109. Which of the following statements regarding divorce and psychopathology is true? a. A causal relationship has been established between psychopathology and a parental divorce. b. There is a positive correlation between psychopathology and divorce. c. The adverse effects of parental divorce are always temporary. d. While a relationship between parental divorce and psychopathology has been established, there are no data to suggest that divorced persons experience an increased rate of psychopathology.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-109 Page Ref: 89 Topic: Psychological Causal Factors/Marital Discord and Divorce Skill: Factual Answer: b. There is a positive correlation between psychopathology and divorce.

3.1-110. Why is it difficult to determine the nature of the relationship between divorce and the psychological functioning of family members? a. Cause and effect cannot be determined as preexisting behavioral abnormalities in either the parents or the children may make divorce more likely. b. The findings have been too inconsistent for any conclusions to be drawn. c. While the effects of divorce are negative on children, the effects on the spouses are generally positive. d. Due to modern acceptance of divorce, there has been an ongoing decrease in the negative effects of divorce. As the impact of divorce has been decreasing, the effect of divorce on family functioning has become impossible to detect.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-110 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Psychological Causal Factors/Marital Discord and Divorce Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. Cause and effect cannot be determined as preexisting behavioral abnormalities in either the parents or the children may make divorce more likely.

3.1-111. A major factor associated with a child's rejection by peers is a. overly aggressive behavior. b. being too intelligent. c. socioeconomic background. d. a lack of empathy. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-111 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Psychological Causal Factors/Maladaptive Peer Relationships Skill: Factual Answer: a. overly aggressive behavior.

3.1-112. An elementary school principal wants to know the best predictors of juvenile delinquency and dropping out of school in high school so she can provide preventive interventions. Your best advice is: a. "Look for kids who are very popular because they are class clowns." b. "Silent, depressed, loners tend to be dropouts because they are often depressed." c. "There is no way to predict juvenile delinquency as early as elementary school." d. "The best predictor is aggression toward peers, which leads to peer rejection."

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-112 Page Ref: 92 Topic: Psychological Causal Factors/Maladaptive Peer Relationships Skill: Applied Answer: d. "The best predictor is aggression toward peers, which leads to peer rejection."

3.1-113. Studies on the cultural differences in parental tolerance of under- or overcontrolled behavior suggest that a. these different styles can produce different rates of problem behaviors in different cultures. b. parental styles make no difference in rates of different behavior problems – they seem to be primarily genetic. c. parental styles make no difference in rates of different behavior problems – they seem to be independent of culture. d. all cultures feel the same about bringing their children for treatment, regardless of the type of behavior problem.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-113 Page Ref: 94 Topic: The Sociocultural Viewpoint/Uncovering Sociocultural Factors Skill: Applied Answer: a. these different styles can produce different rates of problem behaviors in different cultures.

3.1-114. Which of the following is NOT a culture-bound syndrome? a. amok b. latah c. hoopa ..

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d. zar Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-114 Page Ref: 94 Topic: The Sociocultural Viewpoint/Uncovering Sociocultural Factors Skill: Factual Answer: c. hoopa 3.1-115. A psychologist who studied the relationship between sociocultural factors and mental disorders would be most likely to study a. parenting style and self-schemas. b. poverty and racial discrimination. c. peer rejection and attributional style. d. assimilation and accommodation.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-115 Page Ref: 93 Topic: The Sociocultural Viewpoint Skill: Factual Answer: b. poverty and racial discrimination.

3.1-116. Cross-cultural research on stress demonstrates that a. depression is a common response to life challenges in all countries studied. b. stress rarely leads to any evidence of illness in non-Western cultures. c. responses to stress vary cross-culturally. d. culture-specific reactions are not seen to alterations in the environment.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-116 Page Ref: 93 Topic: The Sociocultural Viewpoint/Uncovering Sociocultural Factors Skill: Factual Answer: c. responses to stress vary cross-culturally.

3.1-117. Which of the following explanations for the relationship between SES and abnormal behavior is supported by the existing data? a. Low SES may cause abnormal behavior. b. Abnormal behavior is more likely to go untreated in those of low SES. c. Recovery from loss of a job may be more difficult for those exhibiting signs of mental illness. d. All of the above.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.1-117 Page Ref: 96 Topic: The Sociocultural Causal Factors/Low Socioeconomic Status and Unemployment Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: d. All of the above.

3.1-118. Children from lower-SES families a. are more likely to be resilient adults that those from higher-SES families. b. show no signs of ill effects if there is an increase in SES before age 5. c. are not affected by SES status unless persistent employment is the reason for the economic hardships of the family. d. are less likely to show ill effects of SES status if they possess a high IQ and develop healthy attachments to adults and peers.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.1-118 Page Ref: 96 Topic: The Sociocultural Causal Factors/Low Socioeconomic Status and Unemployment Skill: Factual Answer: d. are less likely to show ill effects of SES status if they possess a high IQ and develop healthy attachments to adults and peers.

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 3.2-1. _____________ are the conditions that guarantee the occurrence of a disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.2-1 Page Ref: 56 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior Skill: Factual Answer: Sufficient causes 3.2-2. ______________ are conditions that increase the probability of a disorder but are neither necessary nor sufficient to cause it.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.2-2 Page Ref: 56 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior Skill: Factual Answer: Contributory causes 3.2-3. A predisposition toward developing a disorder is termed a __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.2-3 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Factual Answer: diathesis 3.2-4. The site of chemical communication in the brain is the __________ . ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.2-4 Page Ref: 61 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Imbalances of Neurotransmitters and Hormones Skill: Factual Answer: synapse 3.2-5. A __________ is a person's total genetic endowment.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.2-5 Page Ref: 65 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Factual Answer: genotype 3.2-6. Freud's psychosexual stage that occurs between the ages of 3 and 5 and includes the Oedipal period is the __________ stage.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.2-6 Page Ref: 73 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Factual Answer: phallic Short Answer Questions 3.3-1. What is the diathesis-stress model of psychopathology?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.3-1 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Factual Answer: A person must have both a vulnerability for a disorder and exposure to some type of stressors in order to develop the disorder.

3.3-2. How do defense mechanisms contribute to psychopathology?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.3-2 Page Ref: 73 Topic: The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Applied Answer: They reduce anxiety by distorting reality rather than dealing directly with a problem. ..

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3.3-3. What is object-relations theory?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.3-3 Page Ref: 74 Topic: The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Factual Answer: Object-relations theory reflects a newer psychodynamic perspective. Object relations theorists focus on how an individual interacts with others (objects) and on the relationships that are experienced. Interactions with others may be both real and imagined, thus we possess internalized objects that may be contradictory and give rise to internal conflicts, as when something is both feared and desired.

3.3-4. What is extinction and how might it be used in treating a disorder?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.3-4 Page Ref: 78 Topic: The Behavioral Perspective Skill: Applied Answer: Extinction is the process of lessening the strength of a conditioned response by presenting the conditioned stimulus in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus. If, for example, one had developed a fear of a snakes (a phobia) after having been bitten by a snake, the extinction process might consist of exposing the fearful person to a snake (the conditioned stimulus) without any negative event occurring (such as being bitten; the unconditioned stimulus). Such a procedure should, hopefully, serve to extinguish the fear response to the snake.

3.3-5. How can attributional style influence the likelihood of developing depression?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.3-5 Page Ref: 82 Topic: The Cognitive-Behavioral Perspective Skill: Conceptual Answer: We all seek to explain the world, we seek to find reasons for events that happen to us and around us. In other words, we look to attribute occurrences to some cause. If we attribute all of our failures to internal, stable, and global causes, the stage is set for the development of depression. If all that is negative in your life is your fault and it can't be changed, what is there to be happy about? Addressing such irrational thinking is a likely task for a cognitive therapist.

3.3-6. Distinguish between assimilation and accommodation.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.3-6 Page Ref: 81 Topic: The Cognitive-Behavioral Perspective Skill: Factual Answer: We all possess schemas, views of ourselves and of the world that filter and ..

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organize our experiences. Sometimes we experience events that fit well into our existing schemas or expectations of the world. In such an instance, when we can fit something new into an existing cognitive framework, assimilation has occurred. Sometimes, however, we have to alter our existing schemas. When we are forced to make changes in existing schemas, accommodation has occurred.

3.3-7. Why does the selection of a theoretical perspective of mental disorders matter?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.3-7 Page Ref: 83 Topic: What the Adoption of a Perspective Does and Does Not Do Skill: Conceptual Answer: The perspective one selects will alter how one views mental disorders.

Theoretical perspectives influence how we perceive abnormal behavior, the questions we ask about abnormal behavior, and, most important, how we interpret available data. One set of data may be interpreted very differently by individuals of different theoretical perspectives.

3.3-8. How does abuse and maltreatment tend to affect a child's ability to relate to others?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.3-8 Page Ref: 84-85 Topic: Early Deprivation or Trauma Skill: Applied Answer: They develop a disorganized and disoriented attachment style, which can generalize to new relationships.

3.3-9. Distinguish between authoritative and authoritarian parenting.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.3-9 Page Ref: 88 Topic: Inadequate Parenting Styles Skill: Factual Answer: Authoritative and authoritarian parents both exert control over the lives of their children, but they do so in significantly different ways. The authoritative parent is warm and communicative, discussing disciplinarian actions with their children. The authoritarian parent, on the other hand, is less warm and feels no need to explain or justify his or her actions. While authoritative parenting has been found to be associated with positive outcomes, research on authoritarian parenting has linked such an approach to child-rearing with children who are irritable and moody.

3.3-10. What is a culture-bound disorder?

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Page Ref: 94 Topic: Uncovering Sociocultural Factors Through Cross-Cultural Studies Skill: Factual Answer: While many disorders are seen in all cultures, such as depression and schizophrenia, some disorders are culture-bound. Culture-bound syndromes, culture specific disorders, are disorders that not seen universally. Koro, for example, is a fear reaction seen in men in some Asian countries. It consists of an extreme fear that the penis will withdraw into the abdomen.

3.3-11. What is the relationship between socioeconomic status and the prevalence of abnormal behavior?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.3-11 Page Ref: 95-96 Topic: Low Socioeconomic Status and Unemployment Skill: Applied Answer: There is a negative correlation between socioeconomic status (SES) and abnormal behavior. This means that the lower one's SES, the more likely the presence of a mental disorder. It may be that being of low SES makes mental illness more likely or that mental illness leads to a lower SES. At the same time, this could be a consequence of differential treatment of abnormality according to SES. The homeless individual who is odd may be seen as mentally ill, while a comparable wealthy individual is seen as eccentric.

Essay Questions 3.4-1. Distinguish between necessary, sufficient, and contributory causes of abnormal behavior.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.4-1 Page Ref: 56-57 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Necessary, Sufficient, and Contributory Causes Skill: Factual Answer: When discussing the factors that lead to any type of disorder, numerous relationships can be described between factors that lead to the disorder and the disorder itself. A necessary cause is something that is necessary for the development of a disorder; the disorder will not develop unless the necessary cause is present. In the case of necessary causes, exposure is required for the disorder to develop, but exposure does not guarantee the condition will develop. For example, without medical intervention, sex is necessary for conception to occur, but sex does not always lead to pregnancy. In some cases, if a factor is present, the disorder will always develop. Such factors are referred to as sufficient causes. If exposure to a virus, for example, guarantees the development of an illness, that virus is a sufficient cause. Note, however, that a sufficient cause is often not a necessary cause; there may be other factors that may lead to the disorder. Contributory causes are best described as risk factors, those things that make the development of a ..

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disorder more likely. Environmental factors, for example, may serve as contributory causes for many types of psychopathology. In summary, necessary causes are required for a disorder to develop but do not guarantee the disorder will develop, sufficient causes guarantee a disorder will develop, and contributory causes increase the chances of a disorder developing. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points total, 2 points for definition of each factor (6 points) and 4 points for clearly distinguishing between the different types of causes.

3.4-2. What are protective factors? Give an example. How can protective factors impact a person's later functioning?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.4-2 Page Ref: 59 Topic: Causes and Risk Factors for Abnormal Behavior/Diathesis-Stress Models Skill: Factual Answer: They are influences that modify a person's response to environmental stressors.

They make it less likely the person will experience the adverse consequences of the stressors. An example of a protective factor is having a warm and caring parent.

Protective factors usually, but not always, lead to resilience. The person has the ability to adapt successfully to even stressful circumstances. This can help prevent the development of psychopathology. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points - 4 for the explanation of protective factors, 1 for the example, 5 for the explanation of how they impact a person's later functioning.

3.4-3. Describe two of the methods for studying genetic influences. What can they tell us and what are their limitations?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.4-3 Page Ref: 64-65 Topic: The Biological Viewpoint and Biological Causal Factors/Genetic Vulnerabilities Skill: Applied Answer: The family history method observes relatives of a person with a disorder to see if the likelihood of having the disorder increases in proportion to the closeness of the biological relationship. This is compared to the likelihood of developing the disorder without any relative with the disorder. This method doesn't control for the effects of the environment. The twin method compares identical and fraternal twins. If identical twins have a higher concordance rate than fraternal, there is evidence that the disorder has a genetic component. However, this may be misleading because it is possible that identical twins are treated more similarly than fraternal twins. The adoption method follows people with a disorder who give their babies up for adoption or examines the biological and adoptive parents of adoptees with disorders. If there is a genetic component, the rates should be higher in the biological parent-child pair than the adoptive parent-adoptive child pair. These are difficult to do unless adoption is open and the biological parents are known. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points. 5 points for each part. ..

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3.4-4. Compare and contrast the humanistic and existential perspectives.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 3.4-4 Page Ref: 77 Topic: The Humanistic and Existential Perspectives Skill: Applied Answer: While the humanistic and existential perspectives do share some common elements, there are also ways in which they differ significantly. The humanistic perspective view humans as basically good and focuses on the present. Humanistic therapy focuses on aiding a person in finding his or her means of achieving selfactualization, of being the best that he or she can be. The existential perspective is comparable in recognizing that we are all unique individuals who desire self-fulfillment, but it does not have such a positive view of human nature. Existentialists place more emphasis on irrational tendencies and the external obstacles to self-fulfillment.

GRADING RUBRIC - 6 points total - 3 for how they are alike, 3 for how they differ.

3.4-5. Charlotte suffers from intense anxiety. How would Freud explain this anxiety? In your answer, describe the different parts of the personality from a Freudian perspective, and how these parts of personality interact to produce anxiety.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 3.4-5 Page Ref: 72-73 Topic: The Psychological Viewpoints/The Psychodynamic Perspectives Skill: Applied Answer: Freud suggests that behavior results from interaction of three subsystems in personality: id, ego, and superego. Inner (intrapsychic) conflicts arise when these three make incompatible demands on the individual. Freud suggests three types of anxiety: reality, neurotic, and moral anxiety. Reality anxiety arises from external threats, neurotic anxiety from the threat of the id's unconscious impulses breaking through ego controls, and moral anxiety from action in conflict with the superego. The ego handles anxiety either rationally or with ego-defense mechanisms. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points total 2 points each for explanation of id, ego, and superego. 4 points for explanation of how these interact to produce anxiety.

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TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 4 Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis

Topic

The Basic Elements in Assessment

Assessment of the Physical Organ (108)

Multiple Choice (4.1-) Blank (4.2-) Short Answer (4.3-) Essay (4.4-) Multiple Choice (4.1-) Blank (4.2-)

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Short Answer (4.3-) Psychosocial Assessment (111)

The Integration of Assessment Data (124)

Classifying Abnormal Behavior (125)

Essay (4.4-) Multiple Choice (4.1-)

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72, 73, 76, 78, 80, 81, 83

Chapter 4: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis Multiple-Choice Questions 4.1-1. Psychological assessment refers to the a. procedures used to summarize a client's problem. b. process used to arrive at a diagnosis. c. development of a treatment plan. d. determination of how environmental factors impact the course of a disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-1 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis Skill: Factual Answer: a. procedures used to summarize a client's problem.

4.1-2. A person comes to a mental health professional with a certain complaint. The professional attempts to understand the nature and extent of the problem. This process is called a. diagnosis. b. assessment. c. clinical treatment. d. screening.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-2 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. assessment.

4.1-3. Why is it important to have an appropriate classification of the presenting problem? a. A formal diagnosis may be needed for insurance purposes. b. A determination of the range of presenting symptoms is needed to ensure proper placement in a treatment facility. c. A recognition of what type of disorder is present will aid in the development of an effective treatment plan. d. All of the above.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-3 Page Ref: 104-105 Topic: The Basic Elements in Assessment Skill: Factual Answer: d. All of the above. ..

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4.1-4. Dr. Vera says, "It may only provide a limited view of a person's problems, but it is important for planning appropriate treatment. Administratively, it is essential so that a facility can know what kinds of problems clients need help with. Even if we don't want to do it, insurance claims require it." What is Dr. Vera is referring to? a. Formal diagnosis b. Screening activities c. Taking a personal history d. Assessment Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-4 Page Ref: 105 Topic: The Basic Elements in Assessment Skill: Applied Answer: a. formal diagnosis 4.1-5. Which of the following statements regarding assessment is true? a. Assessment should focus only on the client's current level of functioning. b. An adequate assessment includes a determination of the amount of danger the client poses to himself and others. c. An adequate assessment should include as much information as possible. d. Assessment necessarily involves the gathering of data about the client from multiple sources.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-5 Page Ref: 104-105 Topic: The Basic Elements in Assessment Skill: Applied Answer: c. An adequate assessment should include as much information as possible.

4.1-6. What role does the social context play in assessment? a. Social context is not considered during assessment, only during diagnosis. b. An evaluation of the environment in which the client lives is necessary in order to understand the demands she faces, as well as the supports that are present. c. Environmental factors are usually the proximal cause of mental disorders and frequently need to be addressed before any form of treatment commences. d. The social context need only be considered when a course of treatment is being selected; significant others in the client's life should be the primary decision makers.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-6 Page Ref: 105 Topic: The Basic Elements in Assessment Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. An evaluation of the environment in which the client lives is necessary in order to understand the demands she faces, as well as the supports that are present. ..

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4.1-7. Which of the following is a true statement about assessment and professional orientation? a. Regardless of whether a therapist is behaviorally or psychodynamically oriented, the same basic assessment procedures are employed. b. The focus of the assessment will be largely determined by the professional orientation of the clinician. c. While some assessment procedures will vary, a biological screening and administration of a personality test are components of all assessments. d. The assessment techniques employed will serve to reveal the causal factors that are most consistent with the clinician's orientation.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-7 Page Ref: 106 Topic: The Basic Elements in Assessment Skill: Applied Answer: b. The focus of the assessment will be largely determined by the professional orientation of the clinician.

4.1-8. The need for rapport between a clinician and a client means a. that the clinician and the client must feel friendly toward each other. b. that someone who is court ordered will be an easy client. c. clients don't need to be given any feedback about their test performance. d. the client must feel comfortable with the clinician and the assessment.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-8 Page Ref: 107 Topic: The Basic Elements in Assessment Skill: Factual Answer: d. the client must feel comfortable with the clinician and the assessment.

4.1-9. Which of the following demonstrates reliability? a. An IQ test is effective in predicting the academic performance of both males and females. b. Scores on an IQ test are not affected by mood. c. Scores on two different intelligence tests are highly correlated. d. When an IQ test is administered to the same person repeatedly, the results do not differ.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-9 Page Ref: 107 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Reliability and Validity Skill: Applied Answer: d. When an IQ test is administered to the same person repeatedly, the results do not differ.

4.1-10. A valid test ..

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a. measures what it is designed to measure. b. yields consistent results. c. is standardized. d. rarely is reliable.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-10 Page Ref: 107 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Reliability and Validity Skill: Factual Answer: a. measures what it is designed to measure.

4.1-11. Which of the following statements about reliability and validity is true? a. Reliable tests are usually valid. b. Valid tests are usually reliable. c. There is no relationship between reliability and validity. d. In order for a test to be reliable, it must be valid.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-11 Page Ref: 107 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Reliability and Validity Skill: Factual Answer: b. Valid tests are usually reliable.

4.1-12. Unlike the medical practitioner, the mental health professional's assessment process a. must be completed prior to beginning treatment. b. rarely has "lab work" that can confirm an initial impression. c. rarely includes a complex process where many contributing factors must be investigated. d. usually involves a rapid conclusion about how to explain and treat the client's complaint.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-12 Page Ref: 108 Topic: Assessment of the Physical Organism Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. rarely has "lab work" that can confirm an initial impression.

4.1-13. Which of the following would be used to reveal a dysrhythmia in brain activity? a. CAT scan b. EEG c. MRI d. PET scan Difficulty: 2 ..

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Question ID: 4.1-13 Page Ref: 109 Topic: Assessment of the Physical Organism/The Neurological Exam Skill: Factual Answer: b. EEG 4.1-14. Which of the following makes it possible to see all but the most minute abnormalities of brain structure? a. CAT scan b. EEG c. MRI d. PET scan Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-14 Page Ref: 109 Topic: Assessment of the Physical Organism/The Neurological Exam Skill: Factual Answer: c. MRI 4.1-15. Dr. Smith believes that a decrease in frontal lobe function underlies the cognitive deficits seen in schizophrenia. He has hypothesized that effective drug therapy serves to selectively increase metabolic activity in this part of the brain.

Which of the following is Dr. Smith most likely to use to test his hypothesis? a. Computerized axial tomography (CAT) scans b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) c. Positron emission tomography (PET) scans d. An electroencephalogram (EEG) Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-15 Page Ref: 109 Topic: Assessment of the Physical Organism/The Neurological Exam Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. positron emission tomography (PET) scans 4.1-16. One advantage of nuclear magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) over the CAT scan is that the MRI a. is not an invasive procedure. b. provides better differentiation and clarity. c. measures the metabolic processes of the brain. d. does not require a claustrophobic cylinder-shaped machine.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-16 Page Ref: 109 Topic: Assessment of the Physical Organism/The Neurological Exam Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. provides better differentiation and clarity. ..

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4.1-17. Dr. Bruce says "Its beneficial features are the ability to map ongoing psychological activities of the brain without injecting radioactive substances into the patient's body. In addition, they are much more widely available procedures than what was used before." What is Dr. Bruce describing? a. Positron emission tomography (PET) scans b. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) c. Electroencephalograms (EEGs) d. Computerized axial tomography (CAT) scans Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-17 Page Ref: 109 Topic: Assessment of the Physical Organism/The Neurological Exam Skill: Applied Answer: b. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) 4.1-18. The fMRI technique cannot currently be used as a diagnostic tool. This is because a. the images it produces aren't sharp enough. b. the devices needed for the technique aren't readily available. c. it is very difficult to interpret the results. d. it has been shown to have very low reliability.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-18 Page Ref: 109 Topic: Assessment of the Physical Organism/The Neurological Exam Skill: Factual Answer: c. it is very difficult to interpret the results.

4.1-19. Dr. Kim is a psychologist who uses a number of tests to measure a person's cognitive, perceptual, and motor performance to detect brain damage. Dr. Kim is probably a specialist in using a. neuropsychological assessment. b. functional magnetic resonance imaging. c. computerized axial tomography. d. functional electroencephalograms.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-19 Page Ref: 110-111 Topic: Assessment of the Physical Organism/The Neuropsychological Exam Skill: Applied Answer: a. neuropsychological assessment.

4.1-20. While neurological assessment procedures evaluate the brain's physical properties, neuropsychological assessment focuses on a. brain activity. ..

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b. brain functioning. c. client performance. d. self-reported changes in cognitive and perceptual functioning.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-20 Page Ref: 112-113 Topic: Assessment of the Physical Organism/The Neuropsychological Exam Skill: Factual Answer: c. client performance.

4.1-21. Because his psychologist suspects he might have substantial brain damage, Tony was given a five-hour battery of tests that included listening to rhythmic beats presented by tape recorder and putting different shaped blocks into grooves while blindfolded. The procedure Tony experienced is called the a. Rorschach. b. MMPI-2. c. Halstead-Reitan battery. d. functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI) test.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-21 Page Ref: 111 Topic: Assessment of the Physical Organism/The Neuropsychological Exam Skill: Applied Answer: c. Halstead-Reitan battery.

4.1-22. Ed has suffered a head injury in a car accident. He is referred to a psychologist to see what types of impairment now exist and to get some suggestions for treatment. The best assessment strategy would be a. a CAT scan. b. neuropsychological tests. c. a PET scan. d. an fMRI. Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-22 Page Ref: 111 Topic: Assessment of the Physical Organism/The Neurological Exam Skill: Applied Answer: b. neuropsychological tests.

4.1-23. In which of the following circumstances would a psychosocial assessment clearly need to be used? a. Mr. Harvey has been having problems with his memory since his stroke. b. After a change in her hormone treatment regimen, Hillary began to show severe mood swings. c. Ever since the divorce, James has been sleeping less and less. d. Since the car accident, Jill has had nightmares. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-23 Page Ref: 111 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment Skill: Applied Answer: c. Ever since the divorce, James has been sleeping less and less.

4.1-24. A psychosocial assessment typically begins with a. a physical examination. b. an assessment of global level of functioning. c. administration of the MMPI. d. an interview.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-24 Page Ref: 111 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Assessment Interviews Skill: Factual Answer: d. an interview.

4.1-25. Under what circumstances is a structured interview most likely to be used? a. When consistent information is needed for research purposes b. When an accurate diagnosis is needed to ensure appropriate treatment c. When the behavior of the client is erratic d. When the information provided in an unstructured interview is found to lack reliability Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-25 Page Ref: 112 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Assessment Interviews Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. When consistent information is needed for research purposes 4.1-26. Which of the following is a drawback of a structured interview? a. Important information is asked about in the same way. b. Information from one is hard to compare to information from another. c. Interviews may include questions about areas that are of no concern to the patient. d. Each person who uses interviews, uses them in different ways.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-26 Page Ref: 112 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Assessment Interviews Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Interviews may include questions about areas that are of no concern to the patient. ..

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4.1-27. Which of the following best illustrates high reliability? a. An interviewer modifies the way she asks questions to fit the style of the client. b. Two interviewers diagnose the same disorder after talking to the same client. c. A clinician accurately predicts that a client will become violent when reunited with this family. d. A clinician uses both medical (e.g., MRI) and psychological (e.g., MMPI-2) information to decide a diagnosis.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-27 Page Ref: 112 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Assessment Interviews Skill: Applied Answer: b. Two interviewers diagnose the same disorder after talking to the same client.

4.1-28. Dr. White is doing research in which she must diagnose clients at a mental health clinic. Because diagnostic reliability is of great concern in research, she will most likely establish diagnoses by using a. open-ended interviews. b. standardized structured interviews. c. the mental status exam. d. time-limited interviews that last the same length of time for each client, although the questions may differ.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-28 Page Ref: 112 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Assessment Interviews Skill: Applied Answer: b. standardized structured interviews.

4.1-29. The reliability of the assessment interview may be enhanced by the use of a. a flexible, open-ended interview rather than a structured interview. b. the TAT. c. the Rorschach test. d. rating scales.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-29 Page Ref: 112 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Assessment Interviews Skill: Factual Answer: d. rating scales.

4.1-30. Shanna goes to Dr. Henderson for a first interview. He diagnoses her with a depressive disorder. She then goes to Dr. Smithson, because her friend recommended her. Dr. Smithson diagnoses Shanna with an anxiety disorder. This demonstrates a problem with a. structured interviews. ..

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b. multiaxial diagnosis. c. reliability. d. flexibility.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-30 Page Ref: 112 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Assessment Interviews Skill: Applied Answer: c. reliability.

4.1-31. A clinical psychologist notes that a client wears his clothes inside out, that his hair is matted, and there is dirt under his fingernails. This information is known as a. clinical observation. b. self-monitoring. c. a dynamic formulation. d. an observational decision tree.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-31 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/The Clinical Observation of Behavior Skill: Applied Answer: a. clinical observation.

4.1-32. Dr. Lo asks Julie to pretend that he is her father as part of his psychosocial assessment of Julie. Which of the following would this be an example of? a. an unstructured interview b. an analogue situation c. projective assessment d. self-monitoring Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-32 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/The Clinical Observation of Behavior Skill: Applied Answer: b. an analogue situation 4.1-33. In which of the following circumstances would a clinician be most likely to use self-monitoring? a. When other forms of clinical observation have yielded no evidence of abnormal behavior b. To find out what situations are likely to illicit problematic behavior c. To evaluate the quality of the social environment d. When analogue situations have not served to provoke the provoke a demonstration of the presenting problem Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-33 ..

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Page Ref: 113 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/The Clinical Observation of Behavior Skill: Applied Answer: b. To find out what situations are likely to illicit problematic behavior 4.1-34. A behaviorally oriented clinician tells her alcohol dependent client: "Here is a checklist I want you to fill out each day. Whenever you feel you need a drink, you should indicate what you were thinking, where you were, who you were with, and whether you went ahead and drank." What procedure is the clinician using? a. Self-monitoring b. Rating scales c. Self-analysis d. Mental status exam Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-34 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/The Clinical Observation of Behavior Skill: Applied Answer: a. Self-monitoring 4.1-35. Which of the following is NOT a reason for using rating scales in clinical observation and self reports? a. To increase reliability b. To provide structure c. To decrease objectivity d. To allow standardized comparisons to be made Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-35 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/The Clinical Observation of Behavior Skill: Factual Answer: c. to decrease objectivity 4.1-36. Danielle is having problems with drinking. She goes to a psychologist who gives her a form to fill out. It has a list of statements about drinking and problems associated with drinking. She is to rate each item between 1 and 3 - 1 meaning it is not a problem for her, 3 meaning it is a very big problem for her and 2 is in between. This is an example of a. a rating scale. b. a structured interview. c. an analogue situation. d. self-monitoring.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-36 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/The Clinical Observation of Behavior ..

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Skill: Applied Answer: a. a rating scale.

4.1-37. Joanne says that she cannot say "no" to her intrusive mother. Her therapist has her pretend to engage in such an interaction to assess how weak Joanne's assertiveness skills really are. This illustrates the use of a. a rating scale. b. role-playing. c. "thought reports." d. structured interviewing.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-37 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/The Clinical Observation of Behavior Skill: Applied Answer: b. role-playing.

4.1-38. The use of standardized psychological tests a. has made clinical observation a rarely used method of assessment. b. permits the clinician to determine how a client's behavior compares to some reference group. c. enables anyone to make accurate psychiatric diagnoses, provided they are trained in the interpretation of such tests. d. has made the diagnosis of mental illness an objective process.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-38 Page Ref: 113-114 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: b. permits the clinician to determine how a client's behavior compares to some reference group.

4.1-39. Psychological tests a. are extremely reliable and valid. b. are dependent on the competence of the clinician who interprets them. c. are far superior to clinical observation for making diagnoses. d. can arrive at a person's diagnosis without the need for an interview.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-39 Page Ref: 114 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: b. are dependent on the competence of the clinician who interprets them.

4.1-40. Intelligence and personality tests can best be described as a. indirect means of assessing psychological characteristics. ..

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b. unstructured means of assessing behavior. c. direct means of assessing behavior. d. observational means of assessing behavior.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-40 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. indirect means of assessing psychological characteristics.

4.1-41. What would determine whether the WISC-III or the WAIS-III is used to test intelligence? a. The suspected level of impairment b. The amount of time available for test administration c. The age of the client d. Whether organic brain damage is present Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-41 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: c. The age of the client 4.1-42. There are two general categories of psychological tests used in clinical practice. They are a. intelligence tests and personality tests. b. projective tests and sentence completion tests. c. neuropsychological tests and standardized tests. d. intelligence tests and rating scales.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-42 Page Ref: 114 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: a. intelligence tests and personality tests.

4.1-43. Which of the following statements about individually administered IQ tests is correct? a. They typically take less than an hour to give and interpret. b. They have low reliability. c. Many settings and cases don't require the kind of detailed knowledge they give. d. They are expensive.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-43 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: d. They are expensive.

4.1-44. Which of the following is an unstructured approach to studying personality? a. WISC-III b. the BPRS c. the Stanford-Binet d. the TAT Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-44 Page Ref: 116 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: d. the TAT 4.1-45. Which of the following would be an example of a projective technique? a. A troubled teen is asked to select statements that she feels describe her. b. An alcoholic is told to record the times at which she feels the greatest desire for a drink. c. An elderly woman is asked to recall the day her father died. d. A child is asked to draw her family.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-45 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Applied Answer: d. A child is asked to draw her family.

4.1-46. "Projective" and "objective" are two types of ________ tests. a. neuropsychological b. intelligence c. personality d. psychodynamically oriented Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-46 Page Ref: 115, 117 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: c. personality 4.1-47. The aim of a projective test is to a. predict a person's future behavior. b. assess the way a patient perceives ambiguous stimuli. c. compare a patient's responses to those of persons who are known to have mental disorders. d. assess the role of organic factors in a patient's thinking. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-47 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: b. assess the way a patient perceives ambiguous stimuli.

4.1-48. Which of the following is a type of test that tries to find ways in which a person's personality and past experiences cause them to understand and perceive their world? a. Structured interviews b. Objective tests c. Neuropsychological tests d. Projective tests Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-48 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Applied Answer: d. Projective tests 4.1-49. Which of the following is a projective testing method that has been adapted for computer interpretation? a. The Rorschach Test b. The MMPI c. The Thematic Apperception Test d. The sentence completion test Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-49 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: a. the Rorschach Test 4.1-50. Which of the following best explains why the Rorschach is less likely to be used today? a. Other projective approaches have been found to be more reliable. b. Treatment facilities often require other types of information than the Rorschach provides and insurance companies do not pay for it. c. It is inexpensive and time efficient in comparison to other projective techniques. d. The Rorschach is only useful as a means of aiding clients in self-discovery; it has no true clinical utility.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-50 Page Ref: 116 ..

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Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Treatment facilities often require other types of information than the Rorschach provides and insurance companies do not pay for it.

4.1-51. Which statement about the Rorschach is accurate? a. The ambiguous stimuli it employs are pictures of people interacting in an unclear way. b. A considerable amount of training is required to administer and score it accurately. c. It assesses the kind of specific behavioral deficits that most mental health facilities require today. d. It is the quickest projective tests to administer and score.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-51 Page Ref: 116 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: b. A considerable amount of training is required to administer and score it accurately.

4.1-52. Research by Exner and others has shown that the Rorschach a. is a test with weak reliability and absolutely no validity. b. is just as effective at identifying areas of brain damage as MRIs and PET scans. c. can be scored by computer, thereby increasing its reliability. d. is one of the least frequently researched clinical instruments despite its widespread use.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-52 Page Ref: 116 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: c. can be scored by computer, thereby increasing its reliability.

4.1-53. The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) has been used to assess all of the following EXCEPT a. needs. b. intelligence. c. perception of reality. d. fantasies.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-53 Page Ref: 116 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: b. intelligence. ..

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4.1-54. Several clinicians look at the TAT results of a hospitalized patient. The patient described the characters on the card as not speaking to each other. One clinician says this means the patient has a lot of unresolved anger. Another says it means the patient has a lot of social anxiety. The third says he thinks it means the patient is uninterested in people and prefers to be alone. This demonstrates the following problem with the TAT: a. Scoring and interpretation is very subjective. b. The pictures on the cards are new and updated. c. The amount of time it takes to score and interpret it. d. The lack of training of clinicians on using it.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-54 Page Ref: 117 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Applied Answer: a. Scoring and interpretation is very subjective.

4.1-55. Which of the following would best address recent criticisms of the TAT? a. Make the images less ambiguous b. Allow more time for the client to respond c. Use more modern pictures d. Rely only on manuals for interpretation Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-55 Page Ref: 117 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Applied Answer: c. Use more modern pictures 4.1-56. Which of the following statements about projective tests is correct? a. Interpretation is based on standardized criteria b. Client responses are limited to closed-ended responses c. They require respondents to be able to read and write in English d. They are time-consuming Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-56 Page Ref: 117 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: d. They are time-consuming 4.1-57. The MMPI is a. a structured approach to personality assessment. b. the most commonly used test of intelligence. c. a rating scale used to determine how comparable one is to individuals with ..

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various psychiatric diagnoses. d. a recently developed objective approach to personality assessment.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-57 Page Ref: 118 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. a structured approach to personality assessment.

4.1-58. Which of the following is an objective test? a. Rorschach Test b. Thematic Apperception Test c. Sentence-Completion Test d. MMPI-2 Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-58 Page Ref: 118 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: d. MMPI-2 4.1-59. The empirical keying approach to making a test like the MMPI involves a. subjective scoring of test items to assign items to different groups. b. the creation of ambiguous stimuli where there are many possible responses. c. picking items that differentiate between different groups, no subjective judgment is needed. d. using theoretically based concepts to develop questions for different groups.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-59 Page Ref: 118 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: c. picking items that differentiate between different groups, no subjective judgment is needed.

4.1-60. What does it mean if Carol scores high on the Schizophrenia scale of the MMPI? a. Carol has schizophrenia. b. Carol's responses on this scale were similar to those of the Minnesota normals. c. Carol is 30% more likely to develop schizophrenia than those who scored lower. d. Carol's answers were comparable to those given by a group of schizophrenics.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-60 Page Ref: 121 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests ..

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Skill: Applied Answer: d. Carol's answers were comparable to those given by a group of schizophrenics.

4.1-61. Mike decides he is going to try to look mentally ill when he goes for his disability evaluation. He takes the MMPI-2. He most likely a. will be able to fake mental illness convincingly. b. will still come out normal on the test. c. will be caught by specialized scales on the test. d. will come out seeming very insightful.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-61 Page Ref: 120 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Applied Answer: c. will be caught by specialized scales on the test.

4.1-62. The text presented the case study of Andrea C, a twenty-one-year-old student from Colombia. The MMPI-2 computer-based report was typical of such reports because a. there was a large discrepancy between the report based on the MMPI and that based on the MMPI-2. b. the report was invalid because Esteban is a member of an ethnic minority. c. the report provided diagnostic and treatment considerations. d. the report was not used appropriately in Esteban's treatment.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-62 Page Ref: 120 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/A Psychological Case Study: Andrea C Skill: Applied Answer: c. the report provided diagnostic and treatment considerations.

4.1-63. Why was the MMPI-2 needed? a. The original MMPI did not offer age-adjusted sub-scales. b. The original MMPI did not permit subjects to select "other." c. The original MMPI was not able to detect problems such as substance abuse and marital discord. d. The original MMPI was created over 50 years ago.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-63 Page Ref:120 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: d. The original MMPI was created over 50 years ago.

4.1-64. A key feature of the MMPI-2 is that ..

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a. the clinical scales measure the same properties of personality organization as they always have. b. the validity scales have been discarded. c. it has merged the adult and adolescent forms into one. d. it now includes open-ended questions to examine cognitive distortions.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-64 Page Ref: 120 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: a. the clinical scales measure the same properties of personality organization as they always have.

4.1-65. One limitation of the MMPI-2 is that it a. cannot detect whether an individual is attempting to distort his or her responses. b. requires a clinical interview as a supplement to the test itself. c. is based on factor analysis, which often leads to measures that sacrifice validity for the sake of reliability without intending to do so. d. requires an individual to be literate.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-65 Page Ref: 120 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. requires an individual to be literate.

4.1-66. Computers are excellent devices for storing information on large numbers of people's characteristics and test score patterns. Whenever a person turns up with a specific test score pattern, the computer can print out an appropriate description.

This illustrates a. actuarial procedures. b. content interpretation. c. rational analysis. d. factor analysis.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-66 Page Ref: 120 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: a. actuarial procedures.

4.1-67. One of the problems with actuarial data for an instrument like the MMPI is that a. it too frequently suggests that a client is "comorbid" for as many as three or more different disorders. b. there are only as many profiles as there are clinical scales. ..

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c. the profiles of many subjects do not "fit" the profile types for which actuarial data are available. d. while the profiles that are generated have high reliability they often have very low validity.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-67 Page Ref: 120 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. the profiles of many subjects do not "fit" the profile types for which actuarial data are available.

4.1-68. Which of the following is NOT a factor to keep in mind when evaluating test results? a. A focus on potentially important environmental factors b. Cultural biases of the test c. Not enough data about a person d. The theoretical orientation of the clinician Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-68 Page Ref: 124 Topic: The Integration of Assessment Data/Ethical Issues in Assessment Skill: Factual Answer: d. The theoretical orientation of the clinician 4.1-69. Why is classification a necessary first step in developing an understanding about abnormal behavior? a. Abnormal behavior is not abnormal until it has been classified as such. b. Communication about abnormal behavior cannot be effective unless what is being discussed is clear. c. Only through development of a classification system can abnormal and normal behavior be differentiated. d. Unless an adequate classification system exists, all descriptions of abnormality will necessarily be subjective.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-69 Page Ref: 125 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Differing Models of Classification Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Communication about abnormal behavior cannot be effective unless what is being discussed is clear.

4.1-70. Which of the following is an assumption of a categorical approach to abnormal behavior? a. Both normal and abnormal behavior lie on a continuum. b. Each disorder has unique symptoms. ..

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c. Disorders that share common symptoms have a common etiology. d. All behavior is the product of numerous interacting influences.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-70 Page Ref: 125 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Differing Models of Classification Skill: Factual Answer: b. Each disorder has unique symptoms.

4.1-71. Which approach to the classification of abnormal behavior uses statistical criteria to differentiate between normal and abnormal? a. Categorical b. Dimensional c. Prototypical d. Situational Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-71 Page Ref: 125 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Differing Models of Classification Skill: Factual Answer: b. Dimensional 4.1-72. If a diagnosis is made by comparing subjects to a "model" of an illness, which type of classification scheme is being used? a. Categorical b. Dimensional c. Prototypical d. Evolutionary Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-72 Page Ref: 126 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Differing Models of Classification Skill: Applied Answer: c. Prototypical 4.1-73. Dr. Hunter is studying depression. He decides that he will divide his subjects into depressed and nondepressed groups using information about their response to a loss. He has found that 96% of people feel hopeless and sad for about 3 weeks after a loss. So he decides that any subject who has continued to feel this way for more than 3 weeks will be considered depressed. He is using a a. categorical approach. b. dimensional approach. c. prototypal approach. d. discrimination approach.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-73 ..

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Page Ref: 125-126 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Differing Models of Classification Skill: Applied Answer: b. dimensional approach.

4.1-74. While the DSM is designed to be a categorical classification scheme, a. in practice diagnoses are made on a dimensional basis. b. the high rate of comorbidity makes categorization impossible. c. the lack of objective criteria make accurate diagnosis impossible. d. the existing criteria tend to lead to a prototypal approach.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-74 Page Ref: 126 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. the existing criteria tend to lead to a prototypal approach.

4.1-75. Symptoms are to signs as ________ is to ________. a. subjective; objective b. complaints; treatment c. assessment; diagnosis d. projective; objective Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-75 Page Ref: 126 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. subjective; objective 4.1-76. Which of the following is an example of a symptom? a. The client's hands would not stop shaking. b. The client reported hearing voices. c. A large lesion was visible on the CAT scan. d. Her children reported that she had not been sleeping well.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-76 Page Ref: 126 Topic: Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: b. The client reported hearing voices.

4.1-77. Since it was first published, the DSM has a. become more objective. b. decreased in size. ..

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c. abandoned attempts to operationalize diagnosis. d. removed procedures originally employed to differentiate between psychological and biological causal factors.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-77 Page Ref: 126 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. become more objective.

4.1-78. During an assessment interview, Dr. Poole noted that Jane's boss at work was harassing her. On which of the five axes of the DSM would this information be noted? a. Axis II b. Axis III c. Axis IV d. Axis V Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-78 Page Ref: 127-128 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: c. Axis IV 4.1-79. Disorders that begin by adolescence or early adulthood, persist for long periods of time, and affect many areas of a person's life are listed on a. Axis II. b. Axis III. c. Axis IV. d. Axis V. Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-79 Page Ref: 127-128 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. Axis II. 4.1-80. Despite his condition, Jim went to work every day. On which of the five axes of the DSM would this information be found? a. Axis II b. Axis III c. Axis IV d. Axis V ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-80 Page Ref: 127-128 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: d. Axis V 4.1-81. If you are generally a satisfied and happy person, but you suffer from some test anxiety and you don't like speaking in front of groups, how would your level of functioning be described using the GAF scale? a. 0 b. 10 c. 90 d. 100 Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.1-81 Page Ref: 128 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: c. 90 4.1-82. Which axes are rarely used in most clinical settings? a. Axes I and II b. Axes III and IV c. Axes I and IV d. Axes IV and V Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-82 Page Ref: 128 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. Axes IV and V 4.1-83. Jane has been diagnosed with schizotypal personality disorder. Jane's distorted view of the world, however, does not prevent her from working and living a relatively normal life. Which of the following terms best describes Jane's condition? a. acute b. chronic c. episodic d. recurrent Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-83 ..

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Page Ref: 129 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: b. chronic 4.1-84. One criticism of diagnostic labels is that a. they can influence both other people's and the diagnosed person's perception of themselves in negative ways. b. there are so many different systems of diagnosis that it is hard to understand what an individual diagnosis means. c. the multiaxial system is so complicated to use that few people are able to use it well. d. they make other information unnecessary, so restrict the type of services that insurance will cover.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-84 Page Ref: 129 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. they can influence both other people's and the diagnosed person's perception of themselves in negative ways.

4.1-85. The DSM acknowledges that a. the classification system has low reliability. b. medical insurance dictates how most clinicians make a diagnosis. c. most clinicians do not agree with the DSM system. d. a DSM diagnosis is only the first step, much more is needed to determine treatment.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-85 Page Ref: 130 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. a DSM diagnosis is only the first step, much more is needed to determine treatment.

4.1-86. As in assessment, diagnostic interviews can be a. structured or unstructured. b. projective or objective. c. difficult or easy. d. empirical or conceptual.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.1-86 ..

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Page Ref: 130 Topic: Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. structured or unstructured.

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 4.2-1. When a psychologist is informed of the issues involved in multicultural assessment, this is known as __________ .

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.2-1 Page Ref: 106 Topic: Ensuring Culturally Sensitive Assessment Procedures Skill: Conceptual Answer: cultural competence 4.2-2. The term MRI in assessment of the brain means __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.2-2 Page Ref: 109 Topic: Assessment of the Physical Organism/The Neurological Examination Skill: Factual Answer: magnetic resonance imaging 4.2-3. The projective test called the __________ is the inkblot test used in personality assessments.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.2-3 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment/Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: Rorschach 4.2-4. In DSM-IV-TR, __________ is the axis upon which a clinician diagnoses personality disorders.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.2-4 Page Ref: 127 Topic: Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: Axis II Short Answer Questions 4.3-1. Why is the establishment of trust important when conducting a psychological assessment? ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.3-1 Page Ref: 107 Topic: Trust and Rapport Between the Clinician and the Client Skill: Applied Answer: When conducting an assessment, a clinician wants to develop as clear of a picture of the client's situation as possible. The client needs to understand that the information gained in the assessment process will aid the clinician in determining how best to address his or her problem. Providing feedback to the client during the assessment process may even lead to some improvement as the client's self understanding increases.

By establishing a trusting relationship with the client, the clinician increases the likelihood of eliciting useful information.

4.3-2. What are the purposes of the initial clinical assessment of a person?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.3-2 Page Ref: 107 Topic: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis Skill: Factual Answer: To make a diagnosis, predict the course of the disorder, to decide on treatment, and for use in research.

4.3-3. What is validity?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.3-3 Page Ref: 129-130 Topic: Reliability and Validity Skill: Factual Answer: In the context of diagnosis, validity refers to the extent with which a diagnosis, a classification, provides useful information. If a label provides no meaningful information, if it offers no information with clinical utility, it is not valid.

4.3-4. What is the goal of psychosocial assessment?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.3-4 Page Ref: 111-112 Topic: Psychosocial Assessment Skill: Conceptual Answer: The goal of psychosocial assessment is to develop an understanding of how the client functions in his or her social environment. The focus is on how the client interacts with his or her social environment, as well as the elements that are present in that environment that might need to be addressed as part of treatment.

4.3-5. What is an analogue situation?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.3-5 ..

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Page Ref: 113 Topic: The Clinical Observation of Behavior Skill: Factual Answer: An analogue situation is a controlled environmental setting in which a clinical observation is conducted. By creating such situations, the client's ability to function in specific types of interactions can be assessed. Examples of analogue situations include role playing, event re-enactment, and think-aloud procedures.

4.3-6. What is a projective test?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.3-6 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Psychological Tests Skill: Factual Answer: A projective test is a test designed to measure personal characteristics.

Projective tests are intended to be an unstructured means of revealing what is on someone's mind. Examples of projective tests include the TAT and the Rorschach Test.

Both ask the client to provide an interpretation of an ambiguous stimulus. It is assumed that the explanation provided will involve some "projection" of the client's own issues.

4.3-7. What are the pros and cons of projective and objective personality tests?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.3-7 Page Ref: 115-120 Topic: Psychological Tests Skill: Applied Answer: Projective tests have great strengths -- they focus on unique aspects of personality and allow for exploration of many issues. They are often hard to interpret and can be subjective and unreliable. Objective tests are very reliable and do not require subjective interpretation. But they are limited in what they cover, require the cooperation of the test-taker, and may require above average reading levels.

4.3-8. What is comorbidity?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.3-8 Page Ref: 125-126 Topic: Differing Models of Classification Skill: Factual Answer: Comorbidity refers to the occurrence of two or more disorders in an individual simultaneously. Comorbid diagnoses are quite common.

4.3-9. What does a diagnostic label describe?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.3-9 Page Ref: 126-132 Topic: Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: When a diagnosis is given, an attempt is being made to classify the current behavioral pattern and level of functioning that is observed. Diagnosis of a psychiatric condition is made based on the information that is obtained during the assessment process, thus a label serves to summarize what has been observed. Diagnostic labels do not describe people or underlying pathological conditions, as is often presumed.

4.3-10. What are two problems with diagnostic labeling?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.3-10 Page Ref: 129 Topic: Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: People, including professionals, may just accept the label as a complete description of a person and not inquire further. They can keep people from evaluating the person with the label in an objective manner. They can unfairly influence clinical expectations and treatment choices. They may cause the labeled person to lose morale and self-esteem.

4.3-11. What is the difference between an unstructured and a structured diagnostic interview? Which is preferable?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.3-11 Page Ref: 130 Topic: Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: Just as assessment interviews may be either unstructured or structured, so may diagnostic interviews. When an interview is unstructured, the clinician does not ask any standard set of questions, thus the information obtained with each client is likely to be very different. The clinician is free to take the questioning in whatever direction the responses lead. In a structured interview, the questions that are asked and the nature of the information obtained are predetermined. A structured diagnostic interview is preferable as its use is likely to improve diagnostic reliability.

Essay Questions 4.4-1. Discuss some of the ethical issues that must be kept in mind when evaluating assessment findings.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.4-1 Page Ref: 124 Topic: The Integration of Assessment Data/Ethical Issues in Assessment Skill: Factual Answer: In the assessment process, information is gathered about the client. A variety of testing procedures may be employed, addressing both the physical and psychosocial status of the client. Assessment data are then used to plan or alter treatment plans. Such ..

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data, however, must be interpreted and the limitations of both the test instruments and the clinician need to be considered during this process. Cultural bias, for example, may be introduced by either a testing instrument or the clinician. In addition, the clinician may tend to interpret information in a manner that is consistent with his or her theoretical orientation, as opposed to striving to take a more objective view of the information presented. There may also be a tendency to focus on the client, as opposed to recognizing that the presenting symptoms may be more of a reflection of environmental circumstances, as opposed to some internal process. It also must be recognized that not all assessment procedures have been validated and that, in the end, more data may be needed to truly understand the client and his or her condition. The evaluation of assessment data is ultimately a subjective process, requiring caution to limit potential errors. GRADING RUBRIC - 6 points total, 2 for each of 3 issues.

4.4-2. Compare and contrast the following: MRIs, PET scans, and fMRI. Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.4-2 Page Ref: 109 Topic: Assessment of the Physical Organism/The Neurological Examination Skill: Factual Answer: The MRI measures variations in magnetic fields. It then computes and depicts cross sections of organs such as the brain with great clarity. It is noninvasive and allows for visualization of all but the tiniest brain structures. Its major problem is the claustrophobic reaction some people have to the procedure. PET scans track substances as they are metabolized by the brain. They can show how the brain is functioning. They can help identify areas that aren't functioning normally that might not be obvious anatomically. Their major problem is low-fidelity pictures that have so far limited their value. The fMRI measures changes in blood flow in the brain. It is possible to map ongoing psychological activity and show which areas of the brain are involved in different activities. However, like MRIs, these are very sensitive to movement, which can cause false results. Also fMRIs are often very hard to interpret. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points 4.4-3. Describe the dimensional and the prototypical approaches to classification.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 4.4-3 Page Ref: 125-126 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Differing Models of Classification Skill: Factual Answer: The dimensional approach assumes that a person's typical behavior is produced by a combination of differing strengths of behaviors along several definable dimensions.

These include emotional stability, anxiousness, and social introversion, among many others. The dimensions are the same for everyone. People differ in terms of how much they have of each trait, not because of an underlying dysfunction that causes disordered behavior. Abnormality is determined through statistical criteria by comparison to people in general. The prototypal approach classifies types by describing the idealized combination of personality characteristics that occur regularly together, based on ..

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observation. It is likely that no member of a defined group will have all of the characteristics of the defined prototype. There also is often much overlap between categories. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points, 5 points for each approach.

4.4-4. Discuss and describe the five axes of the DSM. Why are five axes necessary?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 4.4-4 Page Ref: 127-128 Topic: Classifying Abnormal Behavior/Formal Diagnostic Classification of Mental Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: Axis I includes the disorders for which treatment is usually sought, conditions such as depression and panic disorder. But describing a client with this diagnostic label alone is not sufficient, other disorders may be present, and an Axis I designation does not provide any information about how the client is currently functioning. Thus, while an Axis I condition may be the presenting condition, it is important to also determine whether a personality disorder or other lasting condition is present (Axis II), as well as any medical conditions (Axis III). While Axes I, II, and III describe psychological and physical status, they do not address the nature of the environment in which the client must function (Axis IV), nor do they address how the client is currently functioning (Axis V). Thus, in order to develop an effective treatment plan, all 5 axes are needed.

GRADING RUBRIC - 12 points total, 2 for each axis + 2 for explaining why all are needed.

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TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 5 Stress and Physical and Mental Health

Topic

What Is Stress?

Stress and the Stress Response

Cardiovascular Disease

Treatment of StressRelated Physical Disorders Adjustment Disorder

Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

Prevention and Treatment of Stress Disorders

Multiple Choice (5.1-) Blank (5.2-) Short Answer (5.3-) Essay (5.4-) Multiple Choice (5.1-)

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4, 10, 11, 12, 14, 17, 23, 25, 26, 27, 28

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48, 50, 51, 52, 54, 55, 56, 57 2, 3 3 58, 59

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Chapter 5: Stress and Physical and Mental Health Multiple-Choice Questions 5.1-1. According to the text, the term "stress" will be used to refer to a. only those external events in our lives that challenge us. b. any positive demand made on an organism. c. the effects of external stressors. d. anything that makes us unhappy.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-1 Page Ref: 135 Topic: What is Stress?

Skill: Factual Answer: c. the effects of external stressors.

5.1-2. Selye a. recognized that both happy and sad life events can be sources of stress. b. conducted extensive research on the effects of stress on the immune system. c. failed to acknowledge the role of the environment in adapting to stress. d. focused on the cognitive component of the stress response.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-2 Page Ref: 136 Topic: What Is Stress?

Skill: Factual Answer: a. recognized that both happy and sad life events can be sources of stress.

5.1-3. Distress is a. seen when a situation is ambiguous. b. a response to a happy life event. c. the same thing as eustress. d. a response to a negative event.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-3 Page Ref: 136 Topic: What Is Stress?/Stress and the DSM Skill: Factual Answer: d. a response to a negative event.

5.1-4. Which of the following terms refers to efforts to deal with stress? a. Coping strategies b. Compensatory strategies c. Sublimation d. Projection Difficulty: 1 ..

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Question ID: 5.1-4 Page Ref: 136 Topic: What Is Stress?/Stress and the DSM Skill: Applied Answer: a. Coping strategies 5.1-5. What do positive and negative stressors have in common? a. They usually last indefinitely. b. Both occur without warning. c. They have an equivalent potential for causing lasting damage. d. Both tax one's resources and coping skills.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-5 Page Ref: 136 Topic: What Is Stress?/Stress and the DSM Skill: Factual Answer: d. Both tax one's resources and coping skills.

5.1-6. In DSM-IV-TR, psychosocial stressors a. are not specified. b. are specified on Axis II. c. are specified on Axis III. d. are specified on Axis IV. Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-6 Page Ref: 136 Topic: What Is Stress?/Stress and the DSM Skill: Factual Answer: d. are specified on Axis IV. 5.1-7. Which of the following psychological disturbances does not occur in response to an identifiable experience? a. adjustment disorder. b. acute stress disorder. c. depression. d. post-traumatic stress disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-7 Page Ref: 136 Topic: What Is Stress?/Stress and the DSM Skill: Factual Answer: c. depression.

5.1-8. According to your textbook, which of the following is most stressful to people and animals? a. Constant stressors ..

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b. Predictable stressors c. Uncontrollable stressors d. Physical stressors Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-8 Page Ref: 137 Topic: What Is Stress?/Stress and the DSM Skill: Factual Answer: c. Uncontrollable stressors 5.1-9. Coping strategies are a. efforts to deal with stress. b. efforts to avoid conflict. c. the same thing as eustress. d. the dynamic interaction between the types of stressors and the person.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-9 Page Ref: 135 Topic: What Is Stress?

Skill: Factual Answer: a. efforts to deal with stress.

5.1-10. Which of the following factors is linked to a person's ability to cope better? a. Intelligence. b. Social support. c. Absence of the 5HT-TLPR gene. d. Early life stress.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-10 Page Ref: 136 Topic: What Is Stress?/Factors Predisposing a Person to Stress Skill: Applied Answer: b. Social support.

5.1-11. Stress tolerance is a. a biological attribute. b. a pressure. c. a person's ability to withstand stress without becoming seriously impaired. d. a crisis for most people.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-11 Page Ref: 137 Topic: What Is Stress?/Factors Predisposing a Person to Stress Skill: Applied Answer: c. a person's ability to withstand stress without becoming seriously impaired. ..

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5.1-12. Crisis is a. a double avoidance conflict. b. when the individual cannot make a decision. c. an internal pressure. d. when a stressful situation overwhelms the individual.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-12 Page Ref: 137-138 Topic: What Is Stress?/Characteristics of Stressors Skill: Applied Answer: d. when a stressful situation overwhelms the individual.

5.1-13. Which of the following is not considered a life change? a. Being promoted b. Being diabetic c. Getting pregnant d. A death in the family Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-13 Page Ref: 138 Topic: What Is Stress?/Characteristics of Stressors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Being diabetic.

5.1-14. What is a not key factor in making a stressor more serious? a. How long it lasts b. How severe it is c. Its type or category d. How expected it is Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-14 Page Ref: 137 Topic: What Is Stress?/Characteristics of Stressors Skill: Applied Answer: c. Its type or category 5.1-15. In order to be considered a severe stressor, the stressor must a. be considered severe by most people in the population. b. involve death or serious injury. c. cause significant disruption to a person's functioning. d. continue on for a long time.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-15 Page Ref: 137 Topic: What Is Stress?/Characteristics of Stressors Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: c. cause significant disruption to a person's functioning.

5.1-16. The term "crisis" refers to: a. any time when a stressful situation exceeds one's ability to cope. b. encountering a number of stressors simultaneously. c. a period of especially acute stress. d. any encounter that requires a readjustment of self concept.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-16 Page Ref: 137-138 Topic: What Is Stress?/Characteristics of Stressors Skill: Factual Answer: a. any time when a stressful situation exceeds one's ability to cope.

5.1-17. Who is likely to have the most severe stress? a. Anne, who is planning her wedding b. Bill, who has a deadline the next day for an important project c. Lauren, who sees the aftermath of an accident and finds out later it involved one of her friends d. Josh, who has just been told he has cancer and whose wife announces she is leaving him when he tells her the news Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 5.1-17 Page Ref: 137 Topic: What Is Stress?/Characteristics of Stressors Skill: Applied Answer: d. Josh, who has just been told he has cancer and whose wife announces she is leaving him when he tells her the news.

5.1-18. What is the difference between a stressor and a crisis? a. There is no difference, these are just two words for the same thing. b. While all crises are stressors, not all stressors are crises. c. There is a biological response to stress, but not to crisis. d. A stressor is an unexpected crisis.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-18 Page Ref: 137-138 Topic: What Is Stress?/Characteristics of Stressors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. While all crises are stressors, not all stressors are crises.

5.1-19. The development of new methods of coping a. may be an outcome of a crisis. b. always occurs when adaptive capabilities are exceeded. c. increases the expectation of future failures. d. is continuously needed as we face new stressors on a daily basis. ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-19 Page Ref: 138 Topic: What Is Stress?/Characteristics of Stressors Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. may be an outcome of a crisis.

5.1-20. The Social Readjustment Rating Scale a. examines the role that coping plays in dealing with life changes. b. did not acknowledge that happy events create life changes and, as a consequence, stress. c. is an imperfect means of quantifying the level of stress experience over a period of time. d. has been used to demonstrate that life events and health are not related.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-20 Page Ref: 138 Topic: What Is Stress?/Characteristics of Stressors Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. is an imperfect means of quantifying the level of stress experience over a period of time.

5.1-21. According to research on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale, a. individuals with lower life change unit scores are more likely to develop a serious illness. b. death of a spouse is equally stressful for men and women. c. stress does not accumulate over time. d. there is a positive correlation between life change unit scores and the likelihood of developing a serious illness.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-21 Page Ref: 138 Topic: What Is Stress?/Characteristics of Stressors Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. there is a positive correlation between life change unit scores and the likelihood of developing a serious illness.

5.1-22. The Life Events and Difficulty Schedule a. is another name for the Social Readjustment Rating Scale. b. allows the rater to consider the person's unique circumstances. c. was developed prior to the Social Readjustment Rating Scale. d. does not provide any more information than the Social Readjustment Rating Scale.

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Topic: What Is Stress?/Characteristics of Stressors Skill: Factual Answer: b. allows the rater to consider the person's unique circumstances.

5.1-23. Which of the following is a criticism of the life event scales? a. They do not recognize that joyful events can be stressful. b. They limit the kind of events that can be reported. c. They do not recognize that multiple life changes will produce greater stress. d. No relationship has been found between illness and scores on these scales.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-23 Page Ref: 138 Topic: What Is Stress?/Characteristics of Stressors Skill: Applied Answer: b. They limit the kind of events that can be reported.

5.1-24. The Life Event and Difficulty Schedule a. provides a quick way to assess stress responses and coping skills. b. includes cognitive factors in its examination of the impact of life events. c. focuses on how difficult life events are handled. d. provides a timeline for describing the stress response.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 5.1-24 Page Ref: 138 Topic: What Is Stress?/Characteristics of Stressors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. includes cognitive factors in its examination of the impact of life events.

5.1-25. Which of the following will lessen the impact of a stressful situation? a. Holding unrealistic expectations about the stressor b. Minimizing the use of social support c. Preparing for the stressor d. Being uncertain as to how long the stressor will persist Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-25 Page Ref: 137 Topic: What Is Stress?/Factors Predisposing a Person to Stress Skill: Applied Answer: c. Preparing for the stressor 5.1-26. An individual with a high stress tolerance a. can function well in the face of a high level of stress. b. is likely to be particularly vulnerable to slight frustration. c. may feel threatened more readily than those with low stress tolerance. d. is particularly vulnerable to acute stress disorder.

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Question ID: 5.1-26 Page Ref: 137 Topic: What Is Stress?/Factors Predisposing a Person to Stress Skill: Applied Answer: a. can function well in the face of a high level of stress.

5.1-27. Healthy psychological and physical functioning after a potentially traumatic event is called: a. coping b. resilience c. compensation d. adaptation Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-27 Page Ref: 138 Topic: What Is Stress?/Resilience Skill: Applied Answer: b. resilience.

5.1-28. According to your textbook, which of the following is a factor that increases resilience? a. Being female b. Being older c. Being African American d. Being Latino Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-28 Page Ref: 138 Topic: What Is Stress?/Resilience Skill: Applied Answer: b. Being older.

5.1-29. Which of the following parts has not been linked to the stress response? a. the hypothalamus b. the cerebellum c. the adrenal medulla d. the pituitary Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-35 Page Ref: 139 Topic: Stress and the Stress Response Skill: Factual Answer: b. the cerebellum 5.1-30. The stress glucocorticoid that is produced in humans is called a. adrenalin ..

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b. estrogen c. cortisol d. repression Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-30 Page Ref: 139 Topic: Stress and the Stress Response Skill: Factual Answer: c. cortisol 5.1-31. Cortisol a. is always stable in humans. b. does not respond to stress. c. prepares the body for fight or flight. d. prepares the body for sleep.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-31 Page Ref: 139 Topic: Stress and the Stress Response Skill: Applied Answer: c. prepares the body for fight or flight.

5.1-32. Which of the following statements about stress is correct? a. the response an individual will have to a stressor can be readily predicted. b. cognitive factors do not play a role in determining the severity of stress. c. some people are predisposed to respond poorly to demands. d. changes in the level of external supports one has are unrelated to stress reactions.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-32 Page Ref: 138 Topic: What Is Stress?/Factors Predisposing a Person to Stress Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. some people are predisposed to respond poorly to demands.

5.1-33. What is the name of the system that is designed to mobilize resources and prepare a fight-or-flight response? a. The hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal system b. The cortex-thalamus cortisol system c. The sympathetic-adrenomedullary system d. The parasympathetic prefrontal cortex system Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-23 Page Ref: 139 Topic: What Is Stress?/Resilience Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: c. The sympathetic-adrenomedullary system 5.1-34. What is the term for the biological cost of adapting to stress? a. Allostatic load b. Homeostatic load c. Sympathetic load d. Parasympathetic load Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-34 Page Ref: 140 Topic: What Is Stress?/Biological Costs of Stress Skill: Factual Answer: a. Allostatic load 5.1-35. I often find that when I am ill, I am not able to cope effectively with the normal hassles of life. I find myself becoming irritated by things that I would usually be able to ignore. Which of the following would explain this phenomenon? a. When using resources to deal with one stressor, the ability to tolerate additional stressors may be compromised. b. Major life changes may impair the ability to cope effectively with daily hassles. c. During the exhaustion phase of the general adaptation syndrome illness becomes likely. d. Allostatic load leads to psychological and biological vulnerability.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-35 Page Ref: 140 Topic: Stress and The Stress Response/The Mind-Body Connection Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. When using resources to deal with one stressor, the ability to tolerate additional stressors may be compromised.

5.1-36. Psychoneuroimmunology is the study of the interaction between the __________________. a. nervous system and the immune system b. psychological system and the nervous system c. psychological system and the immune system d. nervous system and the hypothalamic system Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-36 Page Ref: 140 Topic: What Is Stress?/The Mind-Body Connection Skill: Factual Answer: a. nervous system and the immune system 5.1-37. Which of the following can cause stress-induced immunosuppression? ..

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a. Serotonin b. Adrenaline c. GABA d. Glucocorticoids Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-37 Page Ref: 140 Topic: What Is Stress?/The Mind-Body Connection Skill: Factual Answer: d. Glucocorticoids 5.1-38. Which of the following is the biological cascade that is activated with prolonged stress? a. The adrenal-hypothalamic-prefrontal axis b. The cortical-thalamic-neural axis c. The psycho-neuro-biological axis d. The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-38 Page Ref: 139 Topic: Stress and the Stress Response Skill: Factual Answer: d. The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis 5.1-39. B-cells are a. cells that engulf antigens. b. cells that produce antibodies. c. cells that harm the immune system. d. cells that are antigens.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-39 Page Ref: 141 Topic: Stress and The Stress Response/Understanding the Immune System Skill: Factual Answer: b. cells that produce antibodies.

5.1-40. Which type of cells release interleukin? a. B-cells b. Macrophages c. Red blood cells d. Neurons Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-40 Page Ref: 141 Topic: Stress and The Stress Response/Understanding the Immune System Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: b. Macrophages 5.1-41. Which is not a stressor linked to immunosuppression, according to the text? a. Vacation b. Sleep deprivation c. Spaceflight d. Death of a spouse Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-41 Page Ref: 141 Topic: Stress and the Stress Response/Understanding the Immune System Skill: Factual Answer: a. Vacation 5.1-42. Which cytokine has been associated with depression and caring for family members with Alzheimer's disease? a. HIV b. Adrenaline c. GABA d. Interleukin-6 Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 5.1-42 Page Ref: 143 Topic: Stress and the Stress Response/Understanding the Immune System Skill: Factual Answer: d. Interleukin-6 5.1-43. Who is most likely to get a cold? a. Those who had negative events and a small social network b. Those who had positive events and a small social network c. Those with negative events and a highly diverse social network d. Events and social networks were not related to colds Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-43 Page Ref: 141 Topic: Stress and The Stress Response/World Around Us Skill: Factual Answer: c. Those with negative events and a highly diverse social network 5.1-44. The pituitary gland a. controls the release of hormones by the hypothalamus. b. is part of the immune system. c. produces adrenalin. d. releases hormones that regulate many bodily functions.

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Page Ref: 139 Topic: Stress and the Stress Response Skill: Factual Answer: d. releases hormones that regulate many bodily functions.

5.1-45. The field of psychoneuroimmunology a. focuses on the relationship between stress and mental illness. b. explores the neurological basis of autoimmune conditions. c. seeks to establish a link between psychological functioning and vulnerability to illness. d. examines the effects of stressors on the immune system.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-45 Page Ref: 140 Topic: Stress and The Stress Response/The Mind-Body Connection Skill: Factual Answer: d. examines the effects of stressors on the immune system.

5.1-46. Prolonged stress leads to suppression of the immune system. What might explain the evolution of such a seemingly flawed reaction? a. There is no reasonable explanation for this. b. Susceptibility to disease would increase the likelihood of an early death. c. Immune suppression has no lasting effects on overall health. d. Such immune suppression might prevent the development of autoimmune illnesses.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-46 Page Ref: 140 Topic: Stress and the Stress Response/The Mind-Body Connection Skill: Factual Answer: d. Such immune suppression might prevent the development of autoimmune illnesses.

5.1-47. Stress slows the healing of wounds by as much as ___ to ___ percent. a. 5; 10. b. 12; 15. c. 24; 40. d. 55; 70.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-47 Page Ref: 142 Topic: What Is Stress?/Stress, Depression, and the Immune System Skill: Factual Answer: c. 24; 40.

5.1-48. Which of the following represents normal blood pressure? ..

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a. 140/100 b. 140/80 c. 120/80 d. 120/100 Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-51 Page Ref: 145 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease/Hypertension Skill: Factual Answer: c. 120/80 5.1-49. What is a symptom of hypertension? a. A person is always light-headed. b. A person may show no symptoms of it. c. A person's skin feels unusually warm. d. A person has persistent indigestion.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 5.1-49 Page Ref: 145 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease/Hypertension Skill: Applied Answer: b. A person may show no symptoms of it.

5.1-50. Work-related stress can elevate risk of coronary heart disease by which key factors? a. A highly demanding job and little opportunity for advancement b. A highly demanding job and little decision-making control c. A highly demanding job and Type B personality d. A highly demanding job and introversion Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-50 Page Ref: 146 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease/Coronary Heart Disease Skill: Factual Answer: b. A highly demanding job and little decision-making control 5.1-51. What is Type D personality type? a. The "depressed" type b. The "dysfunctional" type c. The "distressed" type d. The "detached" type Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-51 Page Ref: 147 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease/Risk and Causal Factors in Cardiovascular Disease ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: c. The "distressed" type 5.1-52. What seems to be the most important component for coronary heart disease in the Type A behavior pattern? a. Hostility b. Time urgency c. Competitiveness d. Work commitment Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-52 Page Ref: 147 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease/Risk and Causal Factors in Cardiovascular Disease Skill: Factual Answer: a. Hostility 5.1-53. Clyde is unmarried and has few friends. Why is he at greater risk for developing coronary heart disease than the general population? a. He is unlikely to seek help if he notices problems. b. Social isolation has been associated with increased risk of the disease. c. He has no knowledge of his problems. d. He is socially awkward and thus has increased risks for disease.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-53 Page Ref: 147 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease/Risk and Causal Factors in Cardiovascular Disease Skill: Applied Answer: b. Social isolation has been associated with increased risk of the disease.

5.1-54. What is risk factor? a. A variable that can occur within 6 months of a stressor b. A variable that increases the risk of a specific negative outcome c. A biological factor that increases resistance to disease d. A reaction to a normal event Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-54 Page Ref: 149 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease/Risk and Causal Factors in Cardiovascular Disease Skill: Factual Answer: b. A variable that increases the risk of a specific negative outcome.

5.1-55. A risk factor is a. something about the nature of a stressor that makes it worse for most people. ..

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b. something in a person's history that makes that person more vulnerable to stress. c. something in a person's learning experiences that makes that person a thrill seeker. d. something in a person's genetic makeup that makes that person respond well to stress.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-55 Page Ref: 147 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease/Risk and Causal Factors in Cardiovascular Disease Skill: Factual Answer: b. something in a person's history that makes that person more vulnerable to stress.

5.1-56. People with heart disease are ____ times more likely than healthy people to be depressed. a. two b. three c. four d. five Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-56 Page Ref: 147 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease/Risk and Causal Factors in Cardiovascular Disease Skill: Factual Answer: b. three.

5.1-57. Sudden cardiac death is ______ times higher in men with high levels of anxiety. a. two b. four c. six d. eight Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-57 Page Ref: 148 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease/Risk and Causal Factors in Cardiovascular Disease Skill: Factual Answer: b. four.

5.1-58. Which was not an effective treatment for stress-related disorders, according to your text? a. Psychoanalysis b. Emotional Disclosure ..

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c. Meditation d. Biofeedback Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-58 Page Ref: 150 Topic: Treatment of Stress-Related Physical Disorders/Psychological Interventions Skill: Factual Answer: a. Psychoanalysis 5.1-59. What is the term for the procedure that aims to make a patient more aware of such things as their heart rate, level of muscle tension, or blood pressure? a. Relaxation b. Meditation c. Hypnosis d. Biofeedback Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-59 Page Ref: 151 Topic: Treatment of Stress-Related Physical Disorders/Psychological Interventions Skill: Factual Answer: d. Biofeedback 5.1-60. For an adjustment disorder, the symptoms must appear within __________ months of the stressor? a. two b. nine c. three d. six Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-60 Page Ref: 152 Topic: Psychological Reactions to Stress/Adjustment Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. three 5.1-61. Although divorce is now far more acceptable than it was in previous years, why do those going through a divorce still find it extremely stressful? a. Few friends find it easy to accept. b. The person is likely to make more money than previously. c. Religious leaders support it. d. Economic uncertainties are difficult to predict.

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Topic: Psychological Reactions to Stress/Adjustment Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: d. Economic uncertainties are difficult to predict.

5.1-62. Estimates of the prevalence of PTSD a. have not been made. b. indicate that most people who experience a traumatic event develop PTSD. c. demonstrate that it is more commonly seen in women. d. find that it rarely exists as a comorbid condition.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-62 Page Ref: 153 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Prevalence of PTSD in the General Population Skill: Factual Answer: c. demonstrate that it is more commonly seen in women.

5.1-63. PTSD a. rarely occurs with other disorders. b. develops in about 20% of those who report having experienced a traumatic event. c. symptoms vary considerably depending on the characteristics of the trauma and the victim. d. must develop within four weeks of the precipitating event in order for a diagnosis to be made.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-63 Page Ref: 153 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Rates of PTSD After Exposure to Specific Stressors Skill: Factual Answer: c. symptoms vary considerably depending on the characteristics of the trauma and the victim.

5.1-64. A main symptom of PTSD is a. development of stress-related diseases. b. re-experiencing of the traumatic event. c. panic attacks when remembering the trauma. d. depression.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-64 Page Ref: 153 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Clinical Description Skill: Factual Answer: b. re-experiencing of the traumatic event. ..

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5.1-65. In the DSM-5, PTSD will become a part of a new diagnostic category called ________. a. Anxiety Disorders b. Trauma- and Stressor-Related Disorders c. Depressive Disorders d. Transient- and Chronic Distress Disorders Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-65 Page Ref: 153 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. Trauma- and Stressor-Related Disorders 5.1-66. Acute stress disorder becomes PTSD when a. the trauma is an event out of the realm of normal life experience. b. the symptoms last for more than 2 weeks. c. the symptoms last for more than 4 weeks. d. the symptoms begin within 6 months of the trauma.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-66 Page Ref: 155 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. the symptoms last for more than 4 weeks.

5.1-67. PTSD a. is rarely seen in the victims of disasters. b. usually develops in the shock stage of what has been called the "disaster syndrome." c. symptoms characterize the suggestible stage of the "disaster syndrome." d. may develop in the recovery stage of the "disaster syndrome."

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-67 Page Ref: 153 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. may develop in the recovery stage of the "disaster syndrome."

5.1-68. Approximately ____ percent of women develop PTSD over the course of their lives. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-68 ..

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Page Ref: 156 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Prevalence of PTSD in the General Population Skill: Factual Answer: b. 10 5.1-69. According to your textbook, what percentage of Army soldiers and Marines in Iraq report that they have been attacked or ambushed? a. 56% b. 63% c. 77% d. 92% Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-69 Page Ref: 157 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. 92% 5.1-70. What was not a result of the psychological stress following being a prisoner of war? a. Higher death rate b. More diabetes c. Overwhelming anger at minor events d. Frequent alcohol or drug dependence Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-70 Page Ref: 158 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Rates of PTSD After Traumatic Experiences Skill: Factual Answer: b. More diabetes 5.1-71. During WWII, the descriptors of the traumatic reactions seen to combat conditions a. emphasized that these were a product of organic processes. b. placed too much emphasis on physical exhaustion. c. did not differentiate these reactions from other psychological problems, such as drug abuse. d. were comparable to what is now called acute stress disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-71 Page Ref: 158 Topic: Rates of PTSD After Exposure to Specific Stressors Skill: Applied Answer: b. placed too much emphasis on physical exhaustion.

5.1-72. It is believed that the incidence of combat exhaustion during WWII has been ..

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underestimated because a. there was a debate as to how to differentiate between combat exhaustion and PTSD. b. many men were treated in the field and never formally diagnosed. c. those who were discharged for medical reasons were not counted when estimates were made. d. many men who were diagnosed with the brain disorder "shell shock" were probably suffering from combat exhaustion.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-72 Page Ref: 157 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Rates of PTSD After Exposure to Specific Stressors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. many men were treated in the field and never formally diagnosed.

5.1-73. "Combat exhaustion" is known as ________ today. a. acute stress disorder b. shell shock c. PTSD d. war neurosis Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-73 Page Ref: 154 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Rates of PTSD After Exposure to Specific Stressors Skill: Factual Answer: a. acute stress disorder 5.1-74. Why should we study the causal factors in PTSD, since we already know traumatic events cause it? a. Because if we do not study it, we will not diagnose it. b. Political lobbying requires the study of it. c. Victims often feel guilt about their reaction to the trauma. d. Because not everyone who is exposed to a trauma develops PTSD. Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-74 Page Ref: 159-160 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Causal Factors in Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. Because not everyone who is exposed to a trauma develops PTSD. 5.1-75. Why is there such a high likelihood of long-lasting psychological problems resulting from active combat experiences? a. Research has revealed that those who enlist are more likely to be emotionally ..

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unstable. b. When task-oriented coping strategies are ineffective, emotional breakdown is inevitable. c. Combat situations present highly stressful situations for which there may be no truly effective coping mechanisms. d. Basic training is ineffective at preparing new recruits for any of the challenges they will likely face.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 5.1-75 Page Ref: 156 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Rates of PTSD After Traumatic Experiences Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Combat situations present highly stressful situations for which there may be no truly effective coping mechanisms.

5.1-76. Feelings of control over stressors a. do not make a difference when it comes to extremely severe stressors like torture. b. can make a difference even for victims of torture - if the person feels he or she has some control, he or she tends to be less affected by the stressor over the long term. c. can make people feel worse because they believe they should have been able to change what happened. d. can make a difference even for victims of torture - if the person feels he or she has some control, he or she tends to be more affected by the stressor over the long term.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-76 Page Ref: 159 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Rates of PTSD After Exposure to Specific Stressors Skill: Applied Answer: b. can make a difference even for victims of torture - if the person feels he or she has some control, he or she tends to be less affected by the stressor over the long term.

5.1-77. When POWs first return, a. their PTSD symptoms are at their worst. b. their PTSD symptoms are mild and gradually get worse over time. c. their relief and joy at being released often masks the trauma's effects. d. they show little symptoms from stress, then or later.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-77 Page Ref: 158 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Rates of PTSD After Exposure to Specific Stressors ..

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Skill: Applied Answer: c. their relief and joy at being released often masks the trauma's effects.

5.1-78. Which is an individual risk factor for developing PTSD? a. Higher levels of social support b. Having no family history of depression c. Believing that their symptoms are a sign of personal strength d. Being neurotic Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 5.1-78 Page Ref: 160 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Individual Risk Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. Being neurotic 5.1-79. The impact of torture a. is always a severe level of PTSD. b. can vary depending on the type of torture used. c. can vary depending on if the torture was perceived as uncontrollable or not. d. depends on whether the person previously had another psychological disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-79 Page Ref: 159 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Rates of PTSD After Exposure to Specific Stressors Skill: Factual Answer: c. can vary depending on if the torture was perceived as uncontrollable or not.

5.1-80. Having a history of psychological problems before going into combat a. will make a soldier much more likely to develop PTSD. b. will make a soldier much more likely to develop PTSD only if the combat situation is extreme. c. sometimes increases risk of PTSD, but may lower it because the person is used to anxiety and copes automatically with it. d. doesn't have an impact on developing PTSD. Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-80 Page Ref: 160 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Individual Risk Factors Skill: Factual Answer: c. sometimes increases risk of PTSD, but may lower it because the person is used to anxiety and copes automatically with it.

5.1-81. Which of the following will lower a soldier’s risk of developing PTSD? a. No prior experience in combat b. Believing strongly in the goals of the combat ..

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c. Whether he or she is in combat in a familiar country or not d. Whether he or she talks about experiences Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-81 Page Ref: 161 Topic: PTSD/Sociocultural Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. Believing strongly in the goals of the combat 5.1-82. Stress-inoculation training a. involves learning new ways to think about an anticipated threat and then applying these techniques to several different types of threats. b. prepares one to deal with a stressor by considering solutions to the problems that are likely to arise. c. is a form of cognitive preparation that can be used to minimize the impact of any life challenge. d. can be used to prepare for almost any disaster.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-82 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Prevention and Treatment of Stress Disorders/Prevention Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. involves learning new ways to think about an anticipated threat and then applying these techniques to several different types of threats.

5.1-83. For which of the following would the use of stress-inoculation training be most effective? a. Preparing for chemotherapy b. Dealing with the aftermath of a rape c. Coping with the loss of a loved one d. Minimizing the impact of losing one's home Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-83 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Prevention and Treatment of Stress Disorders/Prevention Skill: Applied Answer: a. Preparing for chemotherapy 5.1-84. Stress-inoculation training a. has been employed in the military and been found to be ineffective. b. prepares one to deal with a stressor by considering solutions to the problems that are likely. c. is a form of cognitive preparation that can be used to minimize the impact of an anticipated threat. d. can be used to prepare for most any disaster.

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Question ID: 5.1-84 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Prevention and Treatment of Stress Disorders/Prevention Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. is a form of cognitive preparation that can be used to minimize the impact of an anticipated threat.

5.1-85. In the final phase of stress-inoculation training a. self-statements designed to promote effective adaptation are learned. b. newly acquired coping skills are applied. c. information about the stressful situation is provided. d. physical consequences of stress are examined.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-85 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Prevention and Treatment of Stress Disorders/Prevention Skill: Factual Answer: b. newly acquired coping skills are applied.

5.1-86. Short-term crisis therapy a. typically consists of six to ten sessions. b. rarely involves family members or other medical personnel. c. begins with the assumption that the affected individual was functioning well before the current crisis. d. is usually provided by a trained lay person.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-86 Page Ref: 163-164 Topic: Treatment for Stress Disorders/Treatment for Stress Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: c. begins with the assumption that the affected individual was functioning well before the current crisis.

5.1-87. Arielle was in a terrible car accident in which several people were killed. A few weeks later, she began to talk about what happened. She told the story to anyone who would listen. This seems to be a. a way to reduce anxiety and desensitize herself to the experience. b. a maladaptive coping response that will heighten her distress. c. a sign that she is beginning to develop PTSD. d. a sign that she is in the shock stage of disaster syndrome.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-87 Page Ref: 164 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Psychological Debriefing Skill: Applied Answer: a. a way to reduce anxiety and desensitize herself to the experience. ..

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5.1-88. Following a disaster, debriefing sessions a. provide those involved with a chance to share their feelings and concerns. b. are not necessary for experienced disaster workers. c. tend to increase the anxiety felt by many victims. d. should be conducted by professionals.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.1-88 Page Ref: 164 Topic: Prevention and Treatment of Stress Disorders/Psychological Debriefing Skill: Applied Answer: a. provide those involved with a chance to share their feelings and concerns.

5.1-89. Which of the following would be an example of direct therapeutic exposure? a. Mandy visited the accident site. b. Carol considered ways in which she could make her apartment safer. c. John planned a new route to work. d. Chris learned judo.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-89 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Prevention and Treatment of Stress Disorders/Psychological Debriefing Skill: Applied Answer: a. Mandy visited the accident site.

5.1-90. The psychotropic medications used in the treatment of PTSD a. are used to alter the stressful situation. b. act to minimize the cognitive response to the stressor. c. provide the client with a temporary escape from the trauma. d. treat the symptoms the client is experiencing.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-90 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Prevention and Treatment of Stress Disorders/Psychological Debriefing Skill: Applied Answer: d. treat the symptoms the client is experiencing.

5.1-91. Despite the many barriers to effectively researching the effectiveness of disaster responses, it has been found that a. treatment benefits everyone. b. a single debriefing session is always an effective "quick fix." c. cognitive therapy reduces the PTSD symptoms of the majority of those who are treated. d. more study in this area is not needed as it is too expensive, too time consuming, and too subjective.

Difficulty: 2 ..

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Question ID: 5.1-91 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Prevention and Treatment of Stress Disorders/Psychological Debriefing Skill: Factual Answer: c. cognitive therapy reduces the PTSD symptoms of the majority of those who are treated.

5.1-92. A significant drawback of the use of medication for PTSD is a. it can work well during the day; however, the person often continues to have nightmares and sleep disturbances. b. there is still some doubt about the extent of its effectiveness. c. it can make people overly sensitized to the "warning signs" of distress. d. there are no significant drawbacks.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.1-92 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Prevention and Treatment of Stress Disorders/Psychological Debriefing Skill: Factual Answer: b. there is still some doubt about the extent of its effectiveness.

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 5.2-1. The biological cost of adapting to stress is called the __________ .

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.2-1 Page Ref: 140 Topic: Stress and the Stress Response/Biological Costs of Stress Skill: Factual Answer: allostatic load 5.2-2. ____________is having a persisting systolic blood pressure of 140 or more and a diastolic blood pressure of 90 or more.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.2-2 Page Ref: 145 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease/Hypertension Skill: Factual Answer: Hypertension 5.2-3. A recent development in looking at personality in cardiovascular disease is the __________ personality, which includes insecurity and anxiety.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.2-3 Page Ref: 147 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease/Risk and Causal Factors in Cardiovascular Disease ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: Type D 5.2-4. The DSM-IV-TR disorder that has symptoms of post-traumatic stress but lasts less than 4 weeks is __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.2-4 Page Ref: 155 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: acute stress disorder 5.2-5. The outdated term "shell shock" is renamed __________ today.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.2-5 Page Ref: 156 Topic: PTSD/Rates of PTSD After Exposure to Specific Stressors Skill: Factual Answer: post-traumatic stress disorder 5.2-6. The treatment that arranges for survivors to discuss their experiences with others is known as __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.2-6 Page Ref: 164 Topic: Prevention and Treatment of Stress Disorders/Psychological Debriefing Skill: Factual Answer: psychological debriefing Short Answer Questions 5.3-1. What are two factors that predispose a person to have difficulty with stress?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.3-1 Page Ref: 141 Topic: What Is Stress?/Factors Predisposing a Person to Stress Skill: Applied Answer: Factors predisposing a person to have difficulty dealing with stress include coping skills and the possession or lack of particular resources. Also including family members with depression, lower levels of optimism and psychological control, and the 5HT-TLPR gene, as well as early stress in life.

5.3-2. How is the severity of stress measured?

Difficulty: 1 ..

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Question ID: 5.3-2 Page Ref: 136 Topic: What Is Stress?/Factors Predisposing a Person to Stress Skill: Factual Answer: The severity of stress is measured by the degree to which it disrupts functioning.

5.3-3. Discuss two of the aspects of the nature of stressors that can cause them to be highly stressful.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 5.3-3 Page Ref: 137-138 Topic: What Is Stress?/Characteristics of Stressors Skill: Conceptual Answer: Two of: If they involve important aspect's of one's life. The length of time a stressor exists, the longer, the worse the effects. The cumulative effect of multiple small stressors. Multiple stressors at one time. How closely involved someone is to a traumatic situation.

5.3-4. What are two factors that can lessen the impact of a stressful situation?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.3-4 Page Ref: 141-142 Topic: What Is Stress?/Factors Predisposing a Person to Stress Skill: Applied Answer: Many possible choices - understanding the nature of the situation, preparing for the stressful situation, perceiving that there may be some benefit, perceiving that one has control, feeling able to handle the event, having adequate social support, etc.

5.3-5. What is a risk factor?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.3-5 Page Ref: 136-137 Topic: Stress and Physical Health Skill: Factual Answer: Anything that increases the likelihood of a specific and usually negative outcome occurring at a later point in time.

5.3-6. What is the allostatic load?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.3-6 Page Ref: 140 Topic: Stress and the Stress Response/Biological Costs of Stress Skill: Factual Answer: The biological cost of adapting to stress. ..

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5.3-7. List four symptoms of PTSD. Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.3-7 Page Ref: 153 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Clinical Description Skill: Factual Answer: The symptoms of PTSD are numerous and varied. They include nightmares, intrusive thoughts, irritability, insomnia, depression, and anxiety.

5.3-8. What limits the use of research into the effects of torture?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.3-8 Page Ref: 156 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Rates of PTSD After Traumatic Experiences Skill: Applied Answer: Studies of the effects of torture are typically conducted on small or nonrepresentative samples. Such results may only have limited generalizability.

5.3-9. Why are uncontrollable stressors especially difficult to deal with?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.3-9 Page Ref: 156 Topic: What Is Stress?/Characteristics of Stressors Skill: Conceptual Answer: If a stressor is not controllable, there is no way to minimize its impact.

5.3-10. What is stress-inoculation training?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.3-10 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Prevention and Treatment of Stress Disorders/Prevention Skill: Factual Answer: This is a means of preparing one to deal with an anticipated event. It involved learning and practicing new ways of coping with the event. It might be used, for example, prior to some form of painful medical treatment.

5.3-11. What is the goal of post-disaster debriefing?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 5.3-11 Page Ref: 164 Topic: Prevention and Treatment of Stress Disorders/Psychological Debriefing Skill: Conceptual Answer: Debriefing provides those who are affected by a traumatic situation with a chance to share their experiences, feelings, and concerns.

Essay Questions ..

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5.4-1. Define the terms stress and stressor. Discuss three factors that influence stress and complicate its study.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 5.4-1 Page Ref: 135-136 Topic: What Is Stress?

Skill: Conceptual Answer: Stress is the response to any demand placed on an organism. Those events that create stress are called stressors. An individual's response to a given stressor is influenced by both internal and external factors, making it such that no two people will respond in the same way to the same event and a given person's response may not always be the same. The impact of a stressor is largely determined by coping skills, an individual’s perception of the stressor, the number of other stressors the individual is facing, and any existing predisposition to stress vulnerability.

GRADING RUBRIC - Define stress - 2, Define stress - 2, Each factor - 2 (3 @ 2 = 6) Total: 10 5.4-2. Discuss the immune system’s response to an attack.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.4-2 Page Ref: 141-142 Topic: Stress and the Stress Response/Understanding the Immune System Skill: Applied Answer: The front line of defense is the white blood cells or leukocytes. Two types—Bcells and T-cells. They respond to attack, multiplying rapidly to form a counterattack. Bcells respond to specific antigens, while T-cells (or microphages) engulf the antigens.

This is an intricate process which involves multiple systems. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points.

5.4-3. Describe two personality patterns associated with coronary heart disease.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 5.4-3 Page Ref: 147 Topic: Cardiovascular Disease/Risk and Causal Factors in Cardiovascular Disease Skill: Factual Answer: Type A behavior pattern, characterized by excessive competitiveness, extreme commitment to work, impatience or time urgency, and hostility. Appears that hostility is most critical factor. Type D personality, characterized by distress. People with Type D experience negative emotions and feel insecure or anxious. GRADING RUBRIC: Definition of Type A - 5 pts Definition of Type D - 5 pts 10 points total 5.4-4. Describe four factors that can influence response to the trauma of combat and their impact.

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Question ID: 5.4-4 Page Ref: 156-157 Topic: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder/Rates of PTSD After Traumatic Experiences Skill: Factual Answer: Three of: constant fear, unpredictability, many uncontrollable circumstances, the necessity of killing, and prolonged harsh conditions. GRADING RUBRIC - 8 points, 4 points for each factor. 2 points to say that their impact increases the trauma and/or being wounded may decrease it.

..

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TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 6 Panic, Anxiety, and their Disorders

Topic

The Fear and Anxiety Response Patterns

Overview of the Anxiety Disorders and Their Commonalities

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice (6.1-)

1, 5

2, 3

4, 6

Blank (6.2-) Short Answer (6.3-) Essay (6.4-) Multiple Choice (6.1-)

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Specific Phobias

Essay (6.4-) Multiple Choice (6.1-)

Social Phobias

Blank (6.2-) Short Answer (6.3-) Essay (6.4-) Multiple Choice (6.1-)

Panic Disorder with and without Agoraphobia

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

Sociocultural Causal Factors for All Anxiety Disorders

1 7, 8, 9, 10

Blank (6.2-) Short Answer (6.3-) Essay (6.4-) Multiple Choice (6.1-) Blank (6.2-) Short Answer (6.3-) Essay (6.4-) Multiple Choice (6.1-) Blank (6.2-) Short Answer (6.3-) Essay (6.4-) Multiple Choice (6.1-) Blank (6.2-) Short Answer (6.3-) Essay (6.4-) Multiple Choice (6.1-) Blank (6.2-) Short Answer (6.3-) Essay (6.4-)

2 11, 14, 21, 26, 27, 29, 33 2, 3 3, 5 35, 36, 37, 41

42, 43, 46, 47, 48, 50, 51, 55, 56, 57, 59, 63, 64, 65, 67, 68 5 6 73, 76, 77, 78 6 8

13, 15, 24, 28, 32

4 3 38, 39, 40

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90, 97, 101, 103, 105

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Copyright © 2013 by Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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Chapter 6: Panic, Anxiety, and Their Disorders Multiple-Choice Questions 6.1-1. Neurotic behavior a. is maladaptive and means that a person is out of touch with reality. b. is a current term, used to describe many disorders in the DSM-IV-TR. c. is what we now refer to as "hysteria." d. is maladaptive but means that a person is not out of touch with reality.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-1 Page Ref: 171 Topic: Panic, Anxiety, and Their Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. is maladaptive but means that a person is not out of touch with reality.

6.1-2. The new DSM classification, which omits the concept of neurosis, is an improvement because a. each category now has a specific effective treatment. b. now anxiety disorders are identified regardless of whether anxiety symptoms are expressed. c. diagnostic criteria are now based on shared, observable symptoms and are more clearly defined. d. each category is made up of symptoms that have one causal origin.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-2 Page Ref: 171 Topic: Panic, Anxiety, and Their Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. diagnostic criteria are now based on shared, observable symptoms and are more clearly defined.

6.1-3. Fear is a basic emotion that involves a. concern about the future. b. the activation of the "fight or flight" response. c. negative thoughts, but not a change in physiological arousal. d. a complex blend of negative mood and self-preoccupation.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-3 Page Ref: 172 Topic: The Fear and Anxiety Response Patterns Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. the activation of the "fight or flight" response.

6.1-4. Which of the following would be an example of anxiety? a. Julie jumped when she saw the snake. ..

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b. Hilda dreaded walking home alone. c. Carl was certain that the food was poisoned. d. The voices in Paul's head told him he should be afraid.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-4 Page Ref: 172 Topic: The Fear and Anxiety Response Patterns Skill: Applied Answer: b. Hilda dreaded walking home alone.

6.1-5. The main way to tell someone is having an uncued panic attack rather than is in a state of fear is a. whether he or she thinks about what is happening. b. whether he or she shows physiological changes such as increased heart rate. c. if he or she has a subjective belief that something awful is about to happen. d. if he or she feels a strong urge to flee.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-5 Page Ref: 172 Topic: The Fear and Anxiety Response Patterns Skill: Factual Answer: c. if he or she has a subjective belief that something awful is about to happen.

6.1-6. Which of the following is a typical symptom of panic attacks? a. Hallucinations b. Delusions c. Fear of dying d. Paranoia Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-6 Page Ref: 172 Topic: The Fear and Anxiety Response Patterns Skill: Applied Answer: c. Fear of dying 6.1-7. Which of the following is one of the seven primary types of anxiety disorders recognized in the DSM-IV-TR? a. Hypochondriasis b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder c. Dissociative fugue d. Bipolar disorder Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-7 Page Ref: 173 Topic: Overview of the Anxiety Disorders and Their Commonalities Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder 6.1-8. What is one of the major ways the anxiety disorders differ from each other? a. Whether they have a genetic component. b. Whether they are treatable. c. Whether there are more fear/panic symptoms or anxiety symptoms involved. d. Whether the disorder is associated with other anxiety disorders.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-8 Page Ref: 173 Topic: Overview of the Anxiety Disorders and Their Commonalities Skill: Factual Answer: c. Whether there are more fear/panic symptoms or anxiety symptoms involved.

6.1-9. Neuroticism a. is a tendency to experience negative mood states. b. is simply another term for anxiety. c. is a tendency to believe negative things about oneself. d. is a tendency to feel anxious.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-9 Page Ref: 173 Topic: Overview of the Anxiety Disorders and Their Commonalities Skill: Factual Answer: a. is a tendency to experience negative mood states.

6.1-10. Gradual exposure to feared cues is a. an old treatment for anxiety disorders that is no longer used. b. a common component of treatment for all anxiety disorders. c. likely to make someone with an anxiety disorder worse in the long term. d. a useful treatment for phobias but not other anxiety disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-10 Page Ref: 173 Topic: Overview of the Anxiety Disorders and Their Commonalities Skill: Factual Answer: b. a common component of treatment for all anxiety disorders.

6.1-11. Individuals who suffer from phobias a. are likely to believe that their fear is justified. b. suffer from uncued panic attacks. c. are unlikely to have other psychological diagnoses. d. avoid the feared stimulus.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-11 Page Ref: 174 ..

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Topic: Specific Phobias Skill: Factual Answer: d. avoid the feared stimulus.

6.1-12. Martin is afraid to fly. He knows his boss wants him to take a trip for the business. Martin feels miserable, because he wants to keep his job but cannot even imagine getting on a plane. The most likely diagnosis for Martin is a. agoraphobia without history of panic disorder. b. social phobia. c. specific phobia, situation type. d. panic disorder with agoraphobia.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-12 Page Ref: 174-175 Topic: Specific Phobias Skill: Applied Answer: c. specific phobia, situation type.

6.1-13. Why do people with phobias continue to avoid the thing they fear? a. Avoidance is reinforced by anxiety reduction. b. There is something wrong with their fight or flight system. c. They are cognitively unable to make any other decision due to their disorder. d. Their low self-esteem causes them to choose not to fight their fear.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-13 Page Ref: 175 Topic: Specific Phobias Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. Avoidance is reinforced by anxiety reduction.

6.1-14. Which of the following is associated with a unique physiological response pattern? a. Agoraphobia b. Blood-injection-injury phobia c. Obsessive-compulsive disorder d. Generalized anxiety disorder Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-14 Page Ref: 175 Topic: Specific Phobias Skill: Factual Answer: b. Blood-injection-injury phobia 6.1-15. An evolutionary psychologist might say, "The unique physiological response in this disorder, involving fainting at the sight of the feared object, may have evolved because fainting might inhibit further attack from a predator." What ..

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disorder is being discussed? a. Blood-injection-injury phobia b. Agoraphobia with panic attacks c. Social phobia d. Animal phobia Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-15 Page Ref: 175 Topic: Specific Phobias Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. Blood-injection-injury phobia 6.1-16. Which of the following phobias is a 10-year-old boy most likely to suffer from? a. Animal phobia b. Blood-injury phobia c. Claustrophobia d. Agoraphobia Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-16 Page Ref: 176 Topic: Prevalence, Age of Onset, and Gender Differences Skill: Applied Answer: b. Blood-injury phobia 6.1-17. Which of the following explanations for Diana's scissors phobia would Freud be most likely to offer? a. Constant warnings about the importance of not running with scissors have generalized to an overall fear of scissors. b. Diana suffers from womb envy, creating an unconscious desire to harm her pregnant mother. c. Diana's mother is a seamstress and Diana unconsciously wants to kill her. d. Diana once saw her brother seriously injured by a sharp object.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-17 Page Ref: 176 Topic: Specific Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: c. Diana's mother is a seamstress and Diana unconsciously wants to kill her.

6.1-18. When Charissa was a young child, she stepped on a bee and was stung. Since that time, she has been terrified of flying insects and runs away if she sees any.

According to the classical conditioning model, the bee was a. an unconditioned stimulus. b. an unconditioned response. c. a conditioned response. ..

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d. a conditioned stimulus.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-18 Page Ref: 176 Topic: Specific Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: d. a conditioned stimulus.

6.1-19. When Kenneth was a young boy he went to a dentist who treated him uncaringly and inflicted a good deal of pain. Even years later, he has an uncontrollable and intense fear of not only dentists but physicians, too. This best illustrates how phobias might be the result of a. generalization in classical conditioning. b. observational conditioning. c. secondary gain. d. the inflation effect.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-19 Page Ref: 176 Topic: Specific Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: a. generalization in classical conditioning.

6.1-20. Nicole's mother is terribly afraid of snakes. Although Nicole has never actually seen a snake, her mother has told her time and again to be careful to look for them when she is walking. Now Nicole has an intense fear of snakes and refuses to walk in the grass. This is an example of a. vicarious conditioning of a phobia. b. classical conditioning of a phobia. c. operant conditioning of a phobia. d. unconscious displacement of anxiety onto a phobic object.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-20 Page Ref: 176 Topic: Specific Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: a. vicarious conditioning of a phobia.

6.1-21. When do phobias like claustrophobia and driving phobia begin? a. Adolescence b. Childhood c. Middle adulthood d. Late adulthood Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-21 Page Ref: 176 ..

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Topic: Specific Phobias/Prevalence, Age of Onset, and Gender Differences Skill: Factual Answer: a. Adolescence 6.1-22. Casey and Josh have both been bitten by strange dogs. Casey has a dog of his own at home that he loves. Josh has little experience with dogs. Which is likely to develop a phobia? a. Both boys are likely to develop a phobia because of the traumatic nature of the event. b. Casey is more likely to develop a phobia because his schema of dogs has been violated. c. Casey is less likely to develop a phobia because he has had lots of earlier positive experiences with dogs. d. It will depend on which boy is more sensitive to pain.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-22 Page Ref: 177 Topic: Specific Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: c. Casey is less likely to develop a phobia because he has had lots of earlier positive experiences with dogs.

6.1-23. Wendy went swimming in the ocean last week and became mildly fearful when she swallowed a lot of water and felt as though she would drown. Just yesterday someone told her that a shark was seen in the water at the same time she was swimming. Now she is petrified of going into the ocean. This best illustrates a. the observational learning explanation for phobias. b. the inability of the phobic person to direct his or her attention away from a feared object. c. the "inflation effect." d. classically conditioned generalization based on direct experience.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-23 Page Ref: 177 Topic: Specific Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: c. the "inflation effect."

6.1-24. Which of the following is likely to maintain or strengthen conditioned fears over time? a. A genetic vulnerability to phobias b. Overestimating the likelihood that the event will reoccur c. Having previously experienced a less traumatic event d. Viewing the trauma as uncontrollable and inescapable Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-24 ..

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Page Ref: 178 Topic: Specific Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Overestimating the likelihood that the event will reoccur 6.1-25. Which of the following illustrates how cognitive variables may act to maintain acquired fears? a. Jane no longer went to the park due to her fear of dogs. b. Karen would think happy thoughts whenever she drove over a bridge. c. Ryan's fear of heights caused him to always wonder just how high up he was in a building. d. Melvin knew that his heart was racing because he was afraid.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-25 Page Ref: 178 Topic: Specific Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: c. Ryan's fear of heights caused him to always wonder just how high up he was in a building.

6.1-26. Evolutionary preparedness explains a. why phobic people are likely to maintain their avoidance behavior. b. how the inflation effect works. c. why cognitive variables are so important in phobias. d. why some types of phobias are much more common than others.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-26 Page Ref: 178 Topic: Specific Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. why some types of phobias are much more common than others.

6.1-27. What has research on the preparedness theory of phobias found? a. Fear responses cannot be conditioned to fear-irrelevant stimuli. b. Acquired fear responses can be elicited with subliminal exposure to fearrelevant stimuli. c. Prepared fears are innate. d. There are cross-cultural differences in the stimuli people are "prepared" to fear.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-27 Page Ref: 178 Topic: Specific Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. Acquired fear responses can be elicited with subliminal exposure to fearrelevant stimuli. ..

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6.1-28. It is fairly easy to condition monkeys and humans to fear snakes but almost impossible to condition either to fear a flower. This supports the ________ theory of phobias. a. classical conditioning b. vicarious conditioning c. preparedness d. psychoanalytic Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-28 Page Ref: 178 Topic: Specific Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. preparedness 6.1-29. Which of the following statements about Mineka, Cook, and colleagues' animal studies is correct? a. Laboratory-reared monkeys develop a phobic-like fear of snakes only after actually being bitten by snakes. b. Observationally conditioned fear responses were acquired quickly but did not last more than a day or two. c. Observationally acquired fear responses were undiminished after three months. d. Observationally acquired fear responses cannot be acquired simply by watching videotapes of fearful monkeys.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-29 Page Ref: 178 Topic: Specific Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: c. Observationally acquired fear responses were undiminished after three months.

6.1-30. Which of the following provides evidence against a role for inherited factors in the development of phobias? a. The high concordance rate seen in fraternal twins b. The impact of nonshared environmental factors c. The preparedness hypothesis d. The early onset of many phobic reactions Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-30 Page Ref: 178 Topic: Specific Phobias/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: b. The impact of nonshared environmental factors 6.1-31. Lauren is phobic of birds. Her therapist shows her how to approach a bird in a cage. The therapist then takes the bird out, pets it and feeds it. She then ..

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encourages Lauren to do the same behaviors. This type of procedure is called a. exposure therapy. b. classical conditioning. c. participant modeling. d. virtual reality therapy.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-31 Page Ref: 179 Topic: Specific Phobias/Treatments Skill: Applied Answer: c. participant modeling.

6.1-32. Which of the following seems to be the best treatment for phobias? a. Exposure therapy b. Psychoanalysis c. Cognitive restructuring d. Family therapy Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 6.1-32 Page Ref: 179 Topic: Treatments Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. Exposure therapy 6.1-33. Virtual reality environments a. permit the use of a combination of exposure therapy, participant modeling, and stress inoculation. b. have been shown to be effective in treating agoraphobia. c. appear to be more effective in treating phobias than live exposure to the feared stimulus. d. allow exposure therapy to be conducted in a simulated setting.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-33 Page Ref: 180 Topic: Specific Phobias/Treatments Skill: Factual Answer: d. allow exposure therapy to be conducted in a simulated setting.

6.1-34. Kayla has just started college and wants to make friends. She refuses to go to large parties because she is afraid that she will blush and sweat, and that other people will laugh at her. She is fine when talking to people in one-on-one settings.

Kayla's most likely diagnosis is a. social phobia. b. specific phobia, situational type. c. agoraphobia without history of panic disorder. d. generalized social phobia. ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-34 Page Ref: 181 Topic: Social Phobias Skill: Applied Answer: a. social phobia.

6.1-35. Social phobia a. is characterized by significant fear of most social situations. b. and antisocial personality commonly are comorbid disorders. c. involves a fear of one or more specific social situations. d. typically develops in childhood.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-35 Page Ref: 181 Topic: Social Phobias Skill: Factual Answer: c. involves a fear of one or more specific social situations.

6.1-36. The individual with generalized social phobia a. has a specific phobia for all social situations. b. exhibits a fear of most social situations. c. typically has a fear of public speaking, using a public restroom, and restaurants. d. is likely to receive a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-36 Page Ref: 181 Topic: Social Phobias Skill: Factual Answer: b. exhibits a fear of most social situations.

6.1-37. Most social phobics a. can identify the origin of their social phobia. b. have no other anxiety or mood disorders. c. are men. d. abuse alcohol.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-37 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Social Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: a. can identify the origin of their social phobia.

6.1-38. Studies of preparedness and social phobia a. find that angry faces act as fear-relevant stimuli. b. reveal that an explicit perception of threat is necessary to evoke a sympathetic ..

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response. c. do not provide justification for the seemingly irrational nature of social phobia. d. provide an explanation for why such a maladaptive behavioral response persists.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-38 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Social Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. find that angry faces act as fear-relevant stimuli.

6.1-39. Behaviorally inhibited young children are more likely to develop specific phobias. This is an example of a ________ causal factor. a. conditioning b. preparedness c. cognitive d. biological Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-39 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Social Phobias/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. biological 6.1-40. Social phobics are likely to a. be aggressive. b. attribute events in their lives to external factors. c. have been raised in a permissive environment. d. attribute negative life events to internal, global, and stable factors.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-40 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Social Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. attribute events in their lives to external factors.

6.1-41. Cognitive approaches to social phobia focus on a. extinguishing problematic behavioral responses. b. challenging automatic thoughts. c. identifying the underlying cause of the phobia. d. minimizing symptoms.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-41 Page Ref: 184 Topic: Social Phobias/Treatments Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: b. challenging automatic thoughts.

6.1-42. Panic attacks, by definition, a. are seen in individuals with panic disorder. b. are unexpected ("uncued"). c. require the presence of at least 4 of 13 characteristic symptoms. d. are 30-60 minutes in duration.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-42 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Panic Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. require the presence of at least 4 of 13 characteristic symptoms.

6.1-43. Which of the following is necessary for a diagnosis of panic disorder? a. Uncued panic attacks b. Depersonalization c. Panic attacks, cued and uncued, consisting of at least 6 of the 13 symptoms of a panic attack d. Derealization Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-43 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Panic Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. Uncued panic attacks 6.1-44. When Jill experienced her first panic attack, she felt as if she were outside of herself, watching herself struggle to catch her breath. Jill's sense of not being part of herself is one of the symptoms of a panic attack known as a. derealization. b. depersonalization. c. dissociative fugue. d. personality disintegration.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-44 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Panic Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. depersonalization.

6.1-45. Compared to anxiety, panic is a. less focused. b. longer lasting. c. slower to develop. d. more intense. ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-45 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Panic Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. more intense.

6.1-46. Panic disorders are often misdiagnosed because a. the symptoms overlap so much with major depression. b. the symptoms are so chronic and mild, they do not seem like serious forms of psychopathology. c. patients are so embarrassed by their problems, they do not make them known to professionals. d. symptoms are so somatic they are treated by physicians for medical problems.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-46 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Panic Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. symptoms are so somatic they are treated by physicians for medical problems.

6.1-47. Agoraphobia is best described as a fear of a. going to the dentist. b. being alone. c. being judged by people. d. experiencing a panic attack.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-47 Page Ref: 186 Topic: Panic Disorder With and Without Agoraphobia/Agoraphobia Skill: Factual Answer: d. experiencing a panic attack.

6.1-48. ________ was once thought to be a fear of crowded places, but now is seen as a complication of having panic attacks in public. a. Agoraphobia b. Claustrophobia c. Generalized anxiety disorder d. General social phobia Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-48 Page Ref: 186 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Agoraphobia Skill: Factual Answer: a. Agoraphobia ..

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6.1-49. Mrs. B. tells her psychologist, "I cannot leave a certain region around my home without having terrible fears. I am terribly worried when I am in a car or bus.

I am afraid I will have another one of those terrifying experiences." What disorder does Mrs. B probably have and what experience is she talking about? a. The disorder is specific phobia, the experience is a panic attack. b. The disorder is agoraphobia, the experience is a panic attack. c. The disorder is obsessive-compulsive disorder, the experience is an obsession. d. The disorder is generalized anxiety disorder, the experience is anxiety.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-49 Page Ref: 187 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Agoraphobia Skill: Applied Answer: b. The disorder is agoraphobia, the experience is a panic attack.

6.1-50. Limited symptom attacks are a. a characteristic of panic disorder. b. panic attacks consisting of fewer than four symptoms. c. unpredictable somatic ailments. d. typically seen in individuals with agoraphobia with panic.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-50 Page Ref: 187 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Agoraphobia Skill: Factual Answer: b. panic attacks consisting of fewer than four symptoms.

6.1-51. Panic disorder is best described as a(n) ________ condition. a. chronic b. acute c. dissociative d. inherited Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-51 Page Ref: 187 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Prevalence, Age of Onset, and Gender Differences Skill: Factual Answer: a. chronic 6.1-52. James began having panic attacks immediately after his mother died suddenly. As they became more frequent, he began to fear going into public situations where they might occur. Now he is unable to leave his apartment and has others go out to shop for him. What is unusual about this case? a. It is unusual for a person with severe agoraphobia to be a man. ..

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b. It is unusual for panic attacks to begin after a stressful life event. c. It is unusual for fear of panic attacks to lead to agoraphobia. d. There is nothing unusual about this case.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-52 Page Ref: 187 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Prevalence, Age of Onset, and Gender Differences Skill: Applied Answer: a. It is unusual for a person with severe agoraphobia to be a man.

6.1-53. Which of the following is a sociocultural explanation for the higher incidence of anxiety disorders in women? a. Historically, women have had to stay and care for young. Thus, a hypervigilant state was adaptive. b. Women have a natural tendency to be more cautious than men. c. High levels of male hormones lead to aggression and fearlessness. d. It is more acceptable for women to exhibit fear.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-53 Page Ref: 188 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Prevalence, Age of Onset, and Gender Differences Skill: Applied Answer: d. It is more acceptable for women to exhibit fear.

6.1-54. Approximately ___ to ___ of people with severe agoraphobia are women. a. 10; 20 b. 30; 40 c. 60; 70 d. 80; 90 Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-54 Page Ref: 188 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Prevalence, Age of Onset, and Gender Differences Skill: Applied Answer: d. 80; 90 6.1-55. Agoraphobics are highly likely to have all of the following EXCEPT a. avoidant personality disorder. b. alcohol abuse. c. depression. d. neurotic personality disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-55 ..

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Page Ref: 188 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Comorbidity with Other Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. neurotic personality disorder.

6.1-56. Most first panic attacks a. follow some distressing event. b. are uncued. c. are followed by the development of panic disorder. d. last more than an hour.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-56 Page Ref: 188 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/The Timing of a First Panic Attack Skill: Factual Answer: a. follow some distressing event.

6.1-57. Research using panic provocation agents has revealed a. the neurobiological basis for panic disorder. b. that there is no biological explanation for panic disorder. c. flaws in the studies using sodium lactate infusion. d. that there are probably multiple biological explanations for panic disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-57 Page Ref: 189 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. that there are probably multiple biological explanations for panic disorder.

6.1-58. What is thought to explain the effectiveness of the SSRIs in treating panic disorder? a. They increase serotonergic activity. b. They increase noradrenergic activity. c. They decrease serotonergic activity. d. They decrease noradrenergic activity.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-58 Page Ref: 191 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. They decrease noradrenergic activity. ..

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6.1-59. Which brain structure is recognized as playing a central role in panic attacks? a. Amygdala b. Cerebellum c. Hippocampus d. Locus coeruleus Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-59 Page Ref: 189 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: a. Amygdala 6.1-60. "Repeated stimulation of the limbic system by discharges from the locus coeruleus may lower the threshold for later experiences of anxiety. Then, through learning, controlled by the prefrontal cortex, the person actively avoids fearful situations." This quotation most clearly refers to the biological processes involved in a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. panic disorder with agoraphobia. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. social phobia.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-60 Page Ref: 189 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. panic disorder with agoraphobia.

6.1-61. Betty is hyper-aware of such bodily sensations as heart rate and respiration rate. When she perceives heart or breathing as getting faster she becomes afraid that she is having a heart attack. These thoughts make her symptoms worse and she has a panic attack. Betty's pattern of thinking best illustrates a. cognitive theory of panic. b. the psychoanalytic theory of panic. c. the importance of perceived control in panic disorder. d. the role of the locus coeruleus in panic.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-61 Page Ref: 191 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: a. cognitive theory of panic. ..

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6.1-62. Anxiety sensitivity is a. a fear of open spaces. b. a belief that anxiety will kill. c. a trait-like belief that certain bodily symptoms may have harmful consequences. d. a fear that situations in which panic attacks occur will be devastating.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-62 Page Ref: 192 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. a trait-like belief that certain bodily symptoms may have harmful consequences.

6.1-63. "Fear of fear," fear of anger and depression, and fear of internal bodily sensations are all cognitive causal explanations for a. social phobia. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. agoraphobia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-63 Page Ref: 192 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. agoraphobia.

6.1-64. Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the role of cognitions in panic? a. Explaining what will happen during a panic attack is insufficient to Panic can be prevented in a panic provocation study by explaining what will happen. b. Panic clients are more likely to interpret bodily sensations as catastrophic events. c. Only individuals who tend to catastrophize develop panic disorder. d. Cognitive therapy is less effective than emotive therapy for panic disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-64 Page Ref: 192 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. Panic clients are more likely to interpret bodily sensations as catastrophic events. ..

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6.1-65. The cognitive model does not account for a. nocturnal panic attacks. b. the effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral therapies. c. findings from panic provocation studies. d. evidence of a role for genes in anxiety disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-65 Page Ref: 192 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: a. nocturnal panic attacks.

6.1-66. High levels of anxiety sensitivity a. increase the risk of all types of anxiety disorder. b. are seen in all who develop agoraphobia. c. are a diathesis for panic attacks. d. can be effectively treated with drugs that minimize noradrenergic function.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-66 Page Ref: 192 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. are a diathesis for panic attacks.

6.1-67. Why do many people with panic disorder continue to believe they are having a heart attack despite the fact that they never have had one? a. They continue to go through classical conditioned learning experiences each time they have a panic attack. b. They tend to engage in "safety behaviors" that they believe are the reason the catastrophe didn't happen. c. They tell themselves that physicians may have missed earlier heart attacks. d. They have such a high level of fear that learning is not possible.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-67 Page Ref: 193 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. They tend to engage in "safety behaviors" that they believe are the reason the catastrophe didn't happen.

6.1-68. Which of the following are the antidepressants most widely prescribed today for the treatment of panic disorder? a. SSRIs ..

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b. Tricyclics c. Anxiolytics d. Benzodiazepines Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-68 Page Ref: 194 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Treatments Skill: Factual Answer: a. SSRIs 6.1-69. Harold's panic attacks have become so severe that he has finally sought treatment. He sees a psychiatrist who writes Harold a prescription that should offer him some immediate relief. Which of the following drugs is Harold most likely to have been prescribed? a. SSRIs b. Tricyclics c. Monamine oxidase inhibitors d. Benzodiazepines Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-69 Page Ref: 194 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Treatments Skill: Applied Answer: d. Benzodiazepines 6.1-70. Quentin is seeking medication to treat his panic disorder. Due to Quentin's history of substance abuse, his doctor hesitates. After some consideration, the doctor is most likely to write Quentin a prescription for a ________, confident that abuse won't be an issue. a. SSRI b. tricyclic c. monamine oxidase inhibitor d. benzodiazepine Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-70 Page Ref: 194 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Treatments Skill: Applied Answer: a. SSRI 6.1-71. While in treatment for panic disorder, Leroy is asked to engage in behaviors that activate the sympathetic nervous system. In other words, Leroy is engaging in behaviors that produce the physical sensation of fear. What type of treatment does this appear to be? a. Exteroceptive exposure b. Interoceptive exposure ..

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c. Anxiety sensitivity training d. Cognitive reconditioning Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-71 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Treatments Skill: Applied Answer: b. Interoceptive exposure 6.1-72. Amber feels anxious almost all the time. She finds herself worrying that her husband will leave her (although he has never shown any indication that he would), that she chose the wrong job, that her children might not be safe at their school, and that she might get sick and leave her family in financial ruin. She calls her husband almost everyday to find out when he will be home. She complains to her physician that she is always tired but cannot sleep or relax. Amber's most likely diagnosis is a. generalized anxiety disorder. b. generalized social phobia. c. panic disorder with agoraphobia. d. obsessive compulsive disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-72 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Generalized Anxiety Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: a. generalized anxiety disorder.

6.1-73. According to the psychoanalytic view, what makes generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) different from specific phobias? a. Defense mechanisms are not functional in GAD. b. Different defense mechanisms are employed by those with GAD and those with specific phobias. c. The underlying conflict in GAD is between the ego and the superego, while it is between the id and ego in specific phobias. d. Individuals with specific phobias suffer from self-hate and project this emotion on the feared stimulus.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-73 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Generalized Anxiety Disorder/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: a. Defense mechanisms are not functional in GAD. 6.1-74. Derek's moods have always seemed to be unpredictable and irrational.

Nancy, who has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder, never knows when he is going to come home and yell at her and the kids. In family therapy it is revealed that Derek's moods are really not irrational, but a reflection of the day's ..

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sales at his store. Which of the following would be most likely to decrease Nancy's anxiety? a. Derek can commit more money to advertising so as to increase sales. b. Derek and Nancy should separate. c. Derek could call home each day and let Nancy know how the day went. d. Derek should sell the business.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-74 Page Ref: 198 Topic: Generalized Anxiety Disorder/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: c. Derek could call home each day and let Nancy know how the day went.

6.1-75. Which of the following have studies of control in humans and monkeys provided support for? a. Genes play only a minimal role in the development of generalized anxiety disorder. b. Early experiences with mastery and control may serve as protective factors, decreasing the likelihood of developing generalized anxiety disorder. c. Exposure to uncontrollable events does not increase the chances of developing generalized anxiety disorder. d. The comorbidity of specific phobias and generalized anxiety disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-75 Page Ref: 199 Topic: Generalized Anxiety Disorder/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Early experiences with mastery and control may serve as protective factors, decreasing the likelihood of developing generalized anxiety disorder.

6.1-76. Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits that those with GAD commonly believe they derive from worrying? a. If I worry about it now, I won't be as upset when it happens. b. If I worry about it, it is less likely to happen. c. If I worry about it, I won't have to think about other things that are even worse. d. If I worry about it, I'll be more prepared when it does happen.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 6.1-76 Page Ref: 199 Topic: Generalized Anxiety Disorder/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: a. If I worry about it now, I won't be as upset when it happens.

6.1-77. One of the main functions that worry seems to serve in generalized anxiety disorder is a. it keeps people distracted from what is really bothering them. ..

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b. it keeps people with the disorder feeling happier than if they didn't worry. c. it prevents people with the disorder from developing depression. d. it keeps people from feeling the emotional and physiological consequences of anxiety.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 6.1-77 Page Ref: 199 Topic: Generalized Anxiety Disorder/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. it keeps people from feeling the emotional and physiological consequences of anxiety.

6.1-78. One of the main problems with the worry in generalized anxiety disorders is a. it keeps people distracted from what is really bothering them. b. it is a form of avoidance and prevents extinction. c. it increases the effects of operant conditioning on their fears. d. it keeps people with the disorder feeling happier than if they don't worry.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 6.1-78 Page Ref: 199 Topic: Generalized Anxiety Disorder/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. it is a form of avoidance and prevents extinction.

6.1-79. Neurobiological factors involved in panic disorder and generalized anxiety disorder provide evidence for the hypothesis that a. both disorders are caused by an excess of the GABA neurotransmitter. b. fear and anxiety are fundamentally distinct. c. the two disorders are genetically identical. d. panic may be an acute version of generalized anxiety disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-79 Page Ref: 201 Topic: Generalized Anxiety Disorder/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. fear and anxiety are fundamentally distinct.

6.1-80. What disorder does GAD appear to be most related to? a. PTSD b. Panic disorder c. Specific phobia d. Major depression Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-80 Page Ref: 200 Topic: Generalized Anxiety Disorder/Biological Causal Factors ..

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Skill: Applied Answer: d. Major depression 6.1-81. The effectiveness of Valium (or benzodiazepines) in treating GAD supports the hypothesis that a. a serotonin deficiency underlies GAD. b. heightened autonomic arousal causes the anxiety of those with GAD. c. a GABA deficiency underlies GAD. d. anxiety increases noradrenergic activity.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-81 Page Ref: 201 Topic: Generalized Anxiety Disorder/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: c. a GABA deficiency underlies GAD. 6.1-82. If a pharmaceutical company were looking for a drug that would maximally treat generalized anxiety disorder they would want one that a. suppressed the activity of the locus coeruleus in the brain stem and the central gray in the midbrain. b. decreased GABA levels while increasing norepinephrine. c. increased GABA levels while regulating serotonin. d. decreased serotonin levels and suppressed activity in the locus coeruleus.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-82 Page Ref: 201 Topic: Generalized Anxiety Disorder/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. increased GABA levels while regulating serotonin.

6.1-83. Which of the following is a disadvantage of treating GAD with a benzodiazepine? a. A therapeutic response is not seen for several weeks. b. There is a high risk of overdose. c. Such drugs are frequently misused. d. The somatic symptoms are not treated.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-83 Page Ref: 201 Topic: Generalized Anxiety Disorder/Treatments Skill: Applied Answer: c. Such drugs are frequently misused.

6.1-84. Persistent and recurrent thoughts are a. compulsions. b. delusions. ..

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c. hallucinations. d. obsessions.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-84 Page Ref: 202 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. obsessions.

6.1-85. Most people with obsessive-compulsive disorder a. experience obsessions, but compulsions are relatively rare. b. experience compulsions, but obsessions are relatively rare. c. experience both obsessions and compulsions. d. develop compulsions in childhood, and obsessions in adolescence or adulthood.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-85 Page Ref: 202 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. experience both obsessions and compulsions.

6.1-86. Which of the following is characteristic of the obsessions seen in OCD? a. The obsessions serve to alleviate the anxiety created by the compulsions. b. The obsessions are clearly related to a traumatic life event. c. The obsessions are rarely related to the compulsions exhibited. d. Individuals with OCD know that their obsessions are irrational.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-86 Page Ref: 202 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: d. Individuals with OCD know that their obsessions are irrational.

6.1-87. Tara believes that it is extremely important to be clean. She cleans her kitchen and bathroom daily and the rest of the house at least once every few days.

She uses antibacterial soap and sterile water to clean. She says she wants people to be able to eat off her floors. Tara is very proud of her house and the way she keeps it. She a. has obsessive compulsive disorder. b. has specific phobia, situational type. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. has no disorder.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 6.1-87 Page Ref: 202 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder ..

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Skill: Applied Answer: d. has no disorder.

6.1-88. Jessica spends much of her day counting or saying certain words to herself.

When she is not doing this, she is checking whether she left her doors unlocked.

These symptoms illustrate a. compulsions. b. obsessions. c. both obsessions (the counting and saying words) and compulsions (the checking). d. neither obsessions nor compulsions.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-88 Page Ref: 202 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: a. compulsions.

6.1-89. Mark feels the need to tap everything within his arms reach twice. He doesn't have any particular thoughts associated with this, he just becomes anxious if he doesn't do it, because "something bad might happen." Mark a. does not have obsessive compulsive disorder. b. has obsessive compulsive disorder. c. has an unusual type of specific phobia. d. has no disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-89 Page Ref: 202 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. has obsessive compulsive disorder.

6.1-90. Which of the following is necessary for a diagnosis of OCD? a. The presence of compulsive behaviors b. A persistent awareness of the irrational nature of the obsessions experienced c. Evidence of psychosis d. The symptomatic behavior causes distress Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-90 Page Ref: 202 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. the symptomatic behavior causes distress 6.1-91. Dagmar is a musician and she loves the fact that she constantly hears new melodies in her head. In fact, she cannot remember a time when she did not hear ..

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music. Why is this NOT an example of an obsession? a. Obsessions must be accompanied by ritualistic actions. b. Obsessions must come on suddenly in response to a stressful life event. c. Obsessions must be voluntary thoughts that a person knows are irrational. d. Obsessions must be intrusive thoughts the person finds disturbing.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 6.1-91 Page Ref: 203 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: d. Obsessions must be intrusive thoughts the person finds disturbing.

6.1-92. Which of the following is unique about OCD, as compared to other anxiety disorders? a. It afflicts more men than women. b. The incidence is about equal for men and women. c. It usually begins in childhood. d. It is a culture-bound disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-92 Page Ref: 204 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder/Prevalence, Age of Onset, and Gender Differences Skill: Factual Answer: b. The incidence is about equal for men and women.

6.1-93. Which of the following is true of obsessive-compulsive disorder? a. Nearly six times more women than men suffer from OCD. b. This disorder tends to begin in adolescence or early adulthood, but is not uncommon in children. c. Once thought to be a fairly common disorder, with new diagnostic criteria, it is seen as quite rare. d. Although most people have both obsessive thoughts and compulsive rituals, rarely are the two issues related.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-93 Page Ref: 204 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder/Prevalence, Age of Onset, and Gender Differences Skill: Factual Answer: b. This disorder tends to begin in adolescence or early adulthood, but is not uncommon in children.

6.1-94. Which of the following is a common type of obsession seen in OCD? a. Fear of contamination b. Counting over and over ..

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c. Hand washing d. Double checking locked doors Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-94 Page Ref: 203 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. Fear of contamination 6.1-95. What of the following are among the most common obsessive thoughts in people with OCD? a. Worry about humiliating oneself in public b. Fear of contamination and fear of harming others c. Being the victim of crime and having a panic attack in public d. Desire to get intoxicated on drugs and alcohol Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-95 Page Ref: 203 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. Fear of contamination and fear of harming others 6.1-96. Which of the following is one of the five primary types of compulsive acts seen in individuals with OCD? a. Cleaning b. Fear of contamination c. Fear of danger d. Scanning Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-96 Page Ref: 203 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. Cleaning 6.1-97. What do all of the compulsions seen in OCD have in common? a. They all take 15-20 minutes to perform. b. All involve counting. c. They are engaged in as means of alleviating tension. d. There is little desire to engage in the compulsion.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-97 Page Ref: 203 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. They are engaged in as means of alleviating tension. ..

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6.1-98. Some things seem to be consistent across all the different forms that obsessive-compulsive disorder takes. These include a. a tendency to have an aggressive, impulsive personality. b. an overwhelming fear that something terrible will happen to the person or to others for which they are responsible. c. a strong resistance to depressive and other mood disorders. d. an inability to see that the compulsive actions they engage in are unnecessary and ridiculous.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 6.1-98 Page Ref: 203 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. an overwhelming fear that something terrible will happen to the person or to others for which they are responsible.

6.1-99. According to the behavioral viewpoint, compulsions are repeated because a. they act of engaging in the behavior is pleasurable. b. they serve to reduce anxiety. c. they are reflexive responses that can't be controlled. d. they permit the expression of repressed urges.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-99 Page Ref: 203 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. they serve to reduce anxiety.

6.1-100. Which of the following is a true statement about Mowrer's two-process theory of avoidance learning? a. It provides an explanation for the development of all anxiety disorders. b. While it suggests mechanisms for the development of GAD, it does not account for the development of panic disorder and OCD. c. It does not account for the effectiveness of extinction procedures in the treatment of OCD. d. The two processes that it refers to are classical and operant conditioning.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-100 Page Ref: 205 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: d. The two processes that it refers to are classical and operant conditioning.

6.1-101. Mowrer's two-process theory of avoidance learning provides a theoretical rationale for an effective treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder. What is this ..

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treatment? a. Response activation therapy b. Exposure prevention therapy c. Response provocation therapy d. Exposure therapy with response prevention Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-101 Page Ref: 205 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Exposure therapy with response prevention 6.1-102. The fact that dirt and contamination were threats to our ancestors suggests a. that preparedness theory may help explain obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. that fear of these things is rational. c. that obsessive-compulsive disorder probably exists in many species, not just humans. d. that obsessive-compulsive disorder is one of the oldest disorders in existence.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-102 Page Ref: 205 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: a. that preparedness theory may help explain obsessive-compulsive disorder.

6.1-103. Which of the following provides a unique challenge when trying to eliminate the obsessions seen in OCD? a. The client is likely to feel that his or her concerns are justified. b. Attempting to not think about something may lead to thinking about it more. c. Obsessions are likely to only be experienced under certain environmental conditions. d. Medications are ineffective in suppressing obsessions.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-103 Page Ref: 205 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Attempting to not think about something may lead to thinking about it more.

6.1-104. Thought-action fusion is a. a psychotic symptom that helps distinguish between anxiety disorders and psychotic disorders. b. support for the preparedness theory of obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. the belief that thinking about something is as bad as actually doing it. d. the reason why trying to suppress unwanted thoughts often causes an increase in those thoughts. ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-104 Page Ref: 206 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: c. the belief that thinking about something is as bad as actually doing it.

6.1-105. Research on the role of genetics in the development of OCD suggests that a. there may be "neurotic" personality factors that increase susceptibility to OCD. b. altered serotonergic functioning is inherited. c. genes do not play a role in OCD. d. an abnormality on the X chromosome underlies OCD. Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.1-105 Page Ref: 206 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. there may be "neurotic" personality factors that increase susceptibility to OCD. 6.1-106. As discussed in your text, much evidence now suggests a number of biological causal factors in obsessive-compulsive disorder including a. a minimal or absent genetic contribution. b. abnormalities in the functioning of the basal ganglia. c. abnormalities in dopamine systems. d. decreased activity in the orbital frontal cortex.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-106 Page Ref: 206 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. abnormalities in the functioning of the basal ganglia.

6.1-107. Anxiety disorders a. exist only in technologically advanced cultures. b. probably exist in all societies, but take different forms in different cultures. c. are especially prevalent in Japan, where strong pressures exist to compete and succeed. d. involve different causal factors in different cultures.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.1-107 Page Ref: 209 Topic: Sociocultural Causal Factors for All Anxiety Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. probably exist in all societies, but take different forms in different cultures. ..

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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 6.2-1. The basic emotion that involves activation of the "fight or flight" response is __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.2-1 Page Ref: 172 Topic: The Fear and Anxiety Response Patterns Skill: Factual Answer: fear 6.2-2. _____________ are persistent and strong fears triggered by specific objects or situations that are unreasonable.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.2-2 Page Ref: 174 Topic: Specific Phobias Skill: Factual Answer: Specific phobias 6.2-3. That humans have evolved to fear certain objects or situations because they pose real threats is called __________ learning.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.2-3 Page Ref: 178 Topic: Specific Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: prepared 6.2-4. One of the best behavioral treatments for specific phobias is __________ therapy.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.2-4 Page Ref: 179 Topic: Specific Phobia/Treatments Skill: Applied Answer: exposure 6.2-5. The __________ is the part of the brain that plays a central role in panic attacks.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.2-5 Page Ref: 194 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: amygdala ..

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6.2-6. The role of worry is now central to our understanding of __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.2-6 Page Ref: 197 Topic: Generalized Anxiety Disorder/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: generalized anxiety disorder Short Answer Questions 6.3-1. What are the three components of fear?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.3-1 Page Ref: 172 Topic: The Fear and Anxiety Response Patterns Skill: Factual Answer: Modern definitions of fear define fear as a basic emotion, characterized by physiological, cognitive, and behavioral components. The sympathetic nervous system is activated by a fear-producing stimulus, a feeling of fear is experienced, and there is some appropriate behavioral response, such as running away.

6.3-2. What differences in life experiences can lessen the likelihood that someone will develop a phobia?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.3-2 Page Ref: 173-174 Topic: Overview of the Anxiety Disorders and Their Commonalities Skill: Applied Answer: Previous positive or nontraumatic experiences with the conditioned stimulus (e.g., if lots of good experiences with dogs, less likely to develop a phobia after being bitten), observing a nonfearful other approaching the situation or object, and having a feeling of control or ability to escape from a traumatic event will lessen the likelihood.

6.3-3. How do cognitions help maintain phobias?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.3-3 Page Ref: 176 Topic: Specific Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: Phobic people are constantly on the alert for their phobic object or situation, or for relevant stimuli. Nonphobic people tend to focus their attention away from these things. Phobic people overestimate the probability that the feared object will be followed by something bad, which may strengthen the fear over time.

6.3-4. Describe how a phobia could be learned through vicarious conditioning.

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Question ID: 6.3-4 Page Ref: 176 Topic: Specific Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: Phobias can be learned by watching another person who has a phobia. Watching that person behave with fear around the feared object or situation can cause distress in the observer and lead to learning of the phobia.

6.3-5. Describe the purpose of exposure therapy for specific phobia.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.3-5 Page Ref: 179 Topic: Specific Phobias/Treatments Skill: Factual Answer: To place people in the situation they fear for long enough that extinction occurs and their fear subsides.

6.3-6. What do the results of panic provocation agents tell us about panic disorder?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.4-6 Page Ref: 189 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: That no one neurobiological mechanism could explain the results, so there may be multiple different biological causes of panic.

6.3-7. How do "safety behaviors" contribute to the persistence of panic disorder?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.3-7 Page Ref: 192-193 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: Panic disorder often persists despite infrequent panic attacks and no occurrence of dire consequences as a result of a panic attack. This may be explained by the use of "safety behaviors," behaviors that the individual engages in before or during an attack.

When nothing catastrophic occurs, it is attributed to the use of the safety behaviors, as opposed to the lack of any real danger.

6.3-8. What is necessary for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.3-8 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Generalized Anxiety Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: In order to be diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), an ..

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individual must exhibit worry on the majority of days over at least a 6-month period. The worry must not be associated with another disorder and it must be perceived as difficult to control. In addition to the experience of worry, at least three of the following six symptoms must be present: (1) restlessness or edginess, (2) a feeling of being easily tired, (3) problems concentrating, (4) irritability, (5) muscle tension, and (6) sleep disturbance.

6.3-9. What role might a lack of safety signals play in the development and maintenance of generalized anxiety disorder?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.3-9 Page Ref: 198 Topic: Generalized Anxiety Disorder/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: It is well-established that a lack of predictability and control creates stress.

Safety signals are environment cues that signal when it is appropriate to relax. For example, if you knew your boss was always in a good mood on Friday, it might be safe to relax and not worry about a mistake you made. The fact that it is Friday would serve as a safety signal. The rest of the week, however, you should feel anxious about having made a mistake. When safety signals are present, it signals that one can relax. In the absence of such signals, anxiety prevails, providing a possible explanation for generalized anxiety disorder.

6.3-10. What benefit do those with GAD derive from worrying?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.3-10 Page Ref: 199 Topic: Generalized Anxiety Disorder/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: Research has revealed that worrying does have a positive effect on those with GAD. While it does not prevent catastrophe, when those with GAD worry, emotional and physiological responses to negative stimuli are suppressed. In other words, the act of worrying about an event lessens the impact of that event if and when it does occur.

6.3-11. What are obsessions? Compulsions? Give an example of each.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.3-11 Page Ref: 202-2-3 Topic: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: Obsessions are persistent, recurrent, intrusive thoughts. Examples include contamination and fear of harming self or others. Compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts the person feels driven to perform in a ritualistic way. They are usually in response to an obsession and done to reduce anxiety. Examples include washing and checking.

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Essay Questions 6.4-1. Discuss the difference between fear and anxiety.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 6.4-1 Page Ref: 171-173 Topic: The Fear and Anxiety Response Patterns Skill: Conceptual Answer: Fear is a basic emotion that involves activation of the sympathetic nervous system, preparing the body for action. Fear is a response to a threat that we are faced with; fear is a reaction to a stimulus that is before us. Anxiety is not a basic emotion, but a combination of emotions and thoughts that are directed toward some anticipated event.

Thus, fear is a reaction to a stimulus and anxiety is a more cognitive reaction to some dreaded event. Fear is a reaction to something in front of us, while anxiety is a dread of some future event. GRADING RUBRIC - 9 points total, 3 for each definition and 3 for explaining how the two differ.

6.4-2. How do cognitive factors affect the onset and maintenance of social phobia?

Explain and provide 3 specific examples to illustrate your understanding.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.4-2 Page Ref: 182-183 Topic: Social Phobias/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: Cognitive factors play a role in both the onset and maintenance of social phobia. It has been suggested that those who develop social phobias may tend to expect that others will reject them or view them negatively, setting the stage for a fear of any situation in which one will be evaluated. An expectation that one will behave in a socially unacceptable fashion can also contribute to the development of social phobia, as well as increase the chance that one's behavior will be unacceptable. Thus, both negative expectations of how one will be perceived and how one will act can contribute to social phobia. These cognitive distortions may then maintain social phobia by increasing social awkwardness and a belief in negative evaluations. There is also some evidence to suggest that perceptions of uncontrollability and unpredictability, possibly resulting from social defeat, may also play a role in the development of social phobia. GRADING RUBRIC - 6 points total, 2 for each of 3 cognitive factors identified.

6.4-3. Discuss the theory of evolutionary preparedness and how it may apply to specific phobia, social phobia and obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.4-3 Page Ref: 178 Topic: Specific Phobias/Social Phobias/OCD/ Preparedness Skill: Conceptual Answer: Our evolutionary history has affected the stimuli we are most likely to fear.

People and primates seem genetically prepared to quickly associate certain objects with ..

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fear rather than other objects. While there are many types of specific phobias, most involve animals and situations that were a threat to our ancestors. Those primates and humans who had this rapid acquisition of fear were more likely to survive and pass on their genes. The fear itself is not inherited, the tendency to make certain connections quickly is. It was also advantageous to acquire fears of social stimuli that signaled danger - angry or contemptuous faces. So social phobias may have an evolutionary basis. The most common obsession in OCD - contamination and dirt - was also a threat to our ancestors and may have the same type of preparedness component. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points.

6.4-4. Compare the comprehensive learning theory and the cognitive theory of panic disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.4-4 Page Ref: 190-191 Topic: Panic Disorder with and Without Agoraphobia/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: The comprehensive learning theory suggests that initial panic attacks cause conditioning of anxiety to internal and external cues. Anxiety then is created in the presence of these cues, leading to more panic attacks. Because anxiety is conditioned to internal cues, panic attacks can seem to come out of nowhere. The internal cues that resemble panic attacks can cause an attack, regardless of how the person is actually feeling at the time. The cognitive theory suggests that people with panic disorder are highly sensitive to body sensations and tend to catastrophize in response to unusual sensations. This causes a vicious circle ending in a panic attack. The difference here is that it is the meaning people attribute to their symptoms that cause the panic. It is not necessary for people to make any attributions in the learning theory. So the learning theory is a better explanation for panic attacks that occur without any negative thoughts, such as during sleep. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points, 5 for each theory.

6.4-5. Discuss the findings of cross-cultural research on the anxiety disorders.

Provide at least two examples of disorders that illustrate the role of culture.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 6.4-5 Page Ref: 209-210 Topic: Sociocultural Causal Factors for All Anxiety Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: As with most disorders, cultural influences are seen in the anxiety disorders.

While most emotional responses are universal, the stimuli that elicit emotional reactions will vary and how emotions are expressed varies. In the case of anxiety disorders, the prevalence of the different types of disorders varies with culture. Differences in sources of anxiety are easily found. Nigerians, for example, are likely to be concerned about fertility and maintaining a large family. In some Asian cultures Koro, a fear of the penis shrinking and disappearing, may be seen,. Both of these sources of anxiety are clearly related to the value the culture places on procreating, a concern not seen in most Western ..

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societies. Social phobia takes different forms across cultures, being characterized by a fear of embarrassing one's self in some and a fear of embarrassing others in some. Thus, the anxiety disorders are very much impacted by culture in numerous ways. GRADING RUBRIC - 8 total, 4 for general discussion and 2 each for 2 specific examples.

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TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 7 Mood Disorders and Suicide

Topic Unipolar Mood Disorders

Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders (223)

Multiple Choice (7.1-) Blank (7.2-) Short Answer (7.3-) Essay (7.4-) Multiple Choice (7.1-) Blank (7.2-) Short Answer (7.3-)

Bipolar Disorders (240)

Causal Factors in Bipolar Disorder (245)

Sociocultural Factors Affecting Unipolar and Bipolar Disorders (247) Treatments and Outcomes (250)

The Clinical Picture and the Causal Pattern (256) Suicidal Ambivalence (260)

Suicide Prevention and Intervention (261)

Essay (7.4-) Multiple Choice (7.1-) Blank (7.2-) Short Answer (7.3-) Essay (7.4-) Multiple Choice (7.1-) Blank (7.2-) Short Answer (7.3-) Essay (7.4-) Multiple Choice (7.1-) Blank (7.2-) Short Answer (7.3-) Essay (7.4-) Multiple Choice (7.1-) Blank (7.2-) Short Answer (7.3-) Essay (7.4-) Multiple Choice (7.1-) Blank (7.2-) Short Answer (7.3-) Essay (7.4-) Multiple Choice (7.1-) Blank (7.2-) Short Answer (7.3-) Essay (7.4-) Multiple Choice (7.1-) Blank (7.2-) Short Answer (7.3-) Essay (7.4-)

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 15, 16, 18, 20, 21, 22, 24, 25, 26, 28 1, 2, 3 1, 2 1 31, 34, 36, 37, 41, 46, 48, 49, 52, 60, 63, 66

1, 5, 9, 10, 27

6, 11, 12, 13, 14, 17, 19, 23, 29 3

30, 33, 39, 42, 51, 54, 56, 61, 64, 65

32, 35, 38, 40, 43, 44, 45, 47, 50, 53, 55, 57, 58, 59, 62

6

4

67, 68

2 71, 72, 76, 79

7 3 85, 89, 90, 91, 92

83, 84

86

93

94

4, 5 5 69, 70, 73, 74, 75, 77, 78, 80, 81, 82

8 95, 97, 99, 103

88, 101

87, 96, 98, 100, 102

104, 106, 108

105, 107, 109

10

9

110, 111

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Chapter 7: Mood Disorders and Suicide Multiple-Choice Questions 7.1-1. What do all mood disorders have in common? a. The presence of a negative mood state. b. They are at least 6 months in duration. c. The presence of irrational thoughts. d. They are characterized by emotional extremes.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-1 Page Ref: 215 Topic: Mood Disorders and Suicide Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. They are characterized by emotional extremes.

7.1-2. What are the two key moods involved in mood disorders? a. Anger and depression b. Sadness and anxiety c. Mania and depression d. Anger and mania Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-2 Page Ref: 215 Topic: Mood Disorders: An Overview Skill: Factual Answer: c. Mania and depression 7.1-3. Which of the following is true of unipolar major depression? a. It does not begin until adolescence. b. It is equally common in men and women. c. It occurs five times as often in elderly people as in middle-aged adults. d. It is the most prevalent mood disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-3 Page Ref: 215 Topic: Mood Disorders: An Overview Skill: Factual Answer: d. It is the most prevalent mood disorder.

7.1-4. In order to meet the criteria for a major depressive episode, a person MUST have a. a depressed mood most of the day for at least 2 weeks. b. significant weight loss. c. significant distress or impairment. d. insomnia. ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-4 Page Ref: 215 Topic: Mood Disorders: An Overview Skill: Factual Answer: c. significant distress or impairment.

7.1-5. "Normal" depression becomes a mood disorder when a. there is no identifiable cause for it. b. the degree of impairment is judged severe enough to warrant a diagnosis. c. it lasts for more than a month. d. it ceases to be justified and adaptive.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-5 Page Ref: 218 Topic: What Are Mood Disorders?

Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. the degree of impairment is judged severe enough to warrant a diagnosis.

7.1-6. Two months after her husband's death, Connie was still not herself. She often forgot to feed the dog, was late for work on a regular basis, and had not yet thrown out his clothes. Which of the following diagnoses would apply to Connie? a. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood b. Dysthymia c. Postpartum depression d. Connie does not have a disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-6 Page Ref: 217 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Depressions That Are Not Mood Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: d. Connie does not have a disorder.

7.1-7. "Postpartum blues" are a. a serious disorder. b. common, usually brief, and not a disorder. c. a subtype of Major Depressive Disorder. d. serious, brief, and a type of unipolar depression.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-7 Page Ref: 218 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Depressions That Are Not Mood Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: b. common, usually brief, and not a disorder.

7.1-8. In which of the following disorders must symptoms be present for at least 2 ..

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years in order for a diagnosis to be made? a. Dysthymia b. Bipolar I disorder c. Major depressive disorder d. Bipolar II disorder Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-8 Page Ref: 218 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorder/Dysthymic Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. Dysthymia 7.1-9. How does dysthymia compare to major depressive disorder? a. Symptoms are much more severe than in major depressive disorder. b. Symptoms change from day to day, with lots of days with normal functioning in between dysthymic episodes. c. There are many more symptoms required to meet dysthymia than to meet major depressive disorder. d. Symptoms are mild to moderate but last for much longer than in major depressive disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-9 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorder/Dysthymic Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Symptoms are mild to moderate but last for much longer than in major depressive disorder.

7.1-10. What is the most important characteristic used to distinguish dysthymia from major depression? a. The length of time the person has had the symptoms. b. How severe the symptoms are. c. Whether there are occasional brief periods of normal moods during the disorder. d. The types of symptoms the person has.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-10 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Whether there are occasional brief periods of normal moods during the disorder.

7.1-11. Sean describes himself as having hardly ever being happy. He occasionally feels okay, but it never lasts more than a day or so. He has trouble sleeping, doesn't eat much, and feels like nothing will ever change in his life. He says this has been ..

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going on for as long as he can remember. The best diagnosis for Sean is a. cyclothymia. b. dysthymia. c. major depressive disorder. d. bipolar II. Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-11 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Dysthymic Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. dysthymia.

7.1-12. Which of the following is a symptom of major depressive disorder? a. Checking and rechecking things b. Considerable appetite and weight gain c. Running thoughts d. Impulsive spending Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 7.1-12 Page Ref: 220 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. Considerable appetite and weight gain 7.1-13. George, a 22-year-old mechanic, always seems to have a cloud over his head.

For the past three years, he has had problems sleeping and he seems to always overeat. While he may sometimes seem to be relatively content for short periods of time, this happens very rarely and it never lasts for more than a week. If George were to seek help for his negative mood state, which of the following diagnoses would he most likely receive? a. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood b. Chronic adjustment disorder with depressed mood c. Dysthymia d. Major depressive disorder Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-13 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: d. Major depressive disorder 7.1-14. Brittany came to a therapist complaining that she just doesn't enjoy life lately. She says that for the past couple of months, she finds she just doesn't feel like doing the things that she used to love to do. She has also lost a lot of weight and sleeps much more than usual but still feels tired all the time. She says she just can't concentrate on anything. However, she denies feeling sad. Brittany's most likely ..

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diagnosis is a. dysthymic disorder. b. bipolar II disorder. c. major depressive disorder. d. She has no disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-14 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: c. major depressive disorder.

7.1-15. Depression a. can occur even in infants and very young children. b. is extremely rare in childhood. c. cannot occur in childhood. d. can occur in childhood in females but not in males.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-15 Page Ref: 221 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. can occur even in infants and very young children.

7.1-16. Depression during adolescence a. is much rarer than during childhood. b. has little effect on adult functioning. c. can affect a person into young adulthood. d. is decreasing in prevalence.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-16 Page Ref: 221 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. can affect a person into young adulthood.

7.1-17. Herbert awakens early in the morning and feels more depressed in the morning than the evening. He has lost all interest in activities and derives no pleasure from things that used to please him. If he is suffering from major depression, Herbert's symptoms suggest the subtype called a. mood-congruent. b. melancholic. c. dysthymic. d. postpartum.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-17 ..

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Page Ref: 222 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. melancholic.

7.1-18. A person who shows psychotic depression that involves mood-incongruent or mood-congruent thinking a. is diagnosed as having "double depression." b. usually responds rapidly to anti-depressant medications. c. rarely shows the symptoms of melancholia. d. has a poorer prognosis than others with major depression.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-18 Page Ref: 222 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. has a poorer prognosis than others with major depression.

7.1-19. Sam has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. He tells you that he is certain the world will end next Tuesday because everyone in it is so wicked. He refuses to consider that he might be wrong. Sam has a. mood congruent delusions. b. mood incongruent delusions. c. atypical features. d. melancholic features.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-19 Page Ref: 222 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: a. mood congruent delusions.

7.1-20. What is meant by the phrase "double depression"? a. Symptoms are consistent with two different subtypes of major depression. b. The individual has been diagnosed with an anxiety disorder and a mood disorder. c. Symptoms of both typical and atypical depression are exhibited. d. An individual with dysthymia later develops major depressive disorder as well.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-20 Page Ref: 223 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. An individual with dysthymia later develops major depressive disorder as well. ..

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7.1-21. Kerry suffers from depression. He is experiencing delusions that his brain is deteriorating and that he is aging quickly. These delusions a. are uncommon in depression and suggest a diagnosis of schizophrenia. b. are typical of depressive delusions because they are mood-congruent. c. suggest that he is suffering from a bipolar rather than a unipolar disorder. d. are most likely to persist after the depression remits.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-21 Page Ref: 222 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. are typical of depressive delusions because they are mood-congruent.

7.1-22. Margaret has been suffering with dysthymia for several years and has sought treatment on several occasions. About one month ago she developed more severe symptoms of depression, which have been maintained almost daily. The condition she is experiencing is best described as a. double depression. b. chronic melancholia. c. adjustment disorder with bipolar features. d. recurring melancholic depression.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-22 Page Ref: 223 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. double depression.

7.1-23. Deena has major depressive disorder. Most days she feels very sad, but when her sister came and told Deena she was going to be an aunt, Deena felt happy for a little while. She has been gaining weight and sleeping much of the day. Deena most likely has a. melancholic features. b. double depression. c. atypical features. d. psychotic features.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-23 Page Ref: 222 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: c. atypical features.

7.1-24. A recurrent depressive episode a. is preceded by one or more previous episodes. b. suggests that chronic major depression has developed. ..

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c. typically lasts 2-3 weeks. d. is characteristic of all forms of bipolar disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-24 Page Ref: 223 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. is preceded by one or more previous episodes.

7.1-25. The average duration of an untreated episode of depression is a. 6-9 months. b. 1 year. c. 2 years. d. unknown as individuals not seeking treatment haven't been studied.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-25 Page Ref: 221 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. 6-9 months.

7.1-26. Which of the following is a true statement about the recurrence of depressive symptoms? a. If a recurrence is not experienced within 1 year after an initial depressive episode, recurrence is highly unlikely. b. Most individuals diagnosed with major depression will exhibit a recurrence. c. Those with depression with psychotic features are less likely to experience a recurrence. d. Clients are usually asymptomatic between depressive episodes.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-26 Page Ref: 221 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. Most individuals diagnosed with major depression will exhibit a recurrence.

7.1-27. A rapid return of symptoms immediately after drug treatment is terminated is a common example of ________; a return to depressive symptoms after a period of spontaneous remission of symptoms is called a ________. a. melancholia; recurrence b. recurrence; relapse c. relapse; recurrence d. mood-congruent depression; mood-incongruent depression Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-27 Page Ref: 221 ..

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Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. relapse; recurrence 7.1-28. Seasonal affective disorder is best described as a ________ depressive disorder. a. mood-congruent b. minor c. psychotic d. recurrent Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-28 Page Ref: 223 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. recurrent 7.1-29. Over the past two years, Kelly has experienced depressive episodes three different times. Two of the three episodes occurred in the winter and the third occurred last spring. It is now winter and Kelly's depressive symptoms once again are consistent with major depressive disorder. Which of the following diagnoses should she be given? a. Dysthymic disorder b. Chronic major depressive disorder c. Recurrent major depressive disorder d. Recurrent major depressive disorder with a seasonal pattern Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-29 Page Ref: 223 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: c. Recurrent major depressive disorder 7.1-30. Which of the following statements is supported by research on the role of genetic influences in unipolar disorder? a. The more severe the depressive disorder, the greater the genetic contribution. b. Twin studies do not consistently find evidence of an inherited susceptibility to depression. c. Genes play a more significant causal role in bipolar disorders than they do in unipolar disorders. d. Bipolar and unipolar disorders are equally heritable.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-30 Page Ref: 224 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual ..

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Answer: a. The more severe the depressive disorder, the greater the genetic contribution.

7.1-31. The finding that people with one type of serotonin transporter gene and childhood maltreatment had higher rates of depression than either those without the gene or those with the gene without the maltreatment suggests that a. childhood maltreatment causes depression. b. only one type of gene causes depression. c. either or a gene or certain environmental factors need to be present to cause depression. d. both a gene and certain environmental factors need to be present to cause depression.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-31 Page Ref: 224 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. both a gene and certain environmental factors need to be present to cause depression.

7.1-32. Which of the following is a research finding that is inconsistent with the monoamine hypothesis of depression? a. Drugs that increase serotonergic activity are effective in treating depression. b. Increases in noradrenergic activity have been seen in the brains of depressed patients. c. Heightened sensitivity to drugs that increase GABA activity is commonly seen in individuals with bipolar disorder. d. Tricyclic antidepressants work by blocking monoamine reuptake.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-32 Page Ref: 225 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: b. Increases in noradrenergic activity have been seen in the brains of depressed patients.

7.1-33. Drugs that alter the availability of norepinephrine and serotonin are not clinically effective in the treatment of depression for several weeks. Which of the following does this finding suggest? a. These neurotransmitters are not involved in depression. b. It is overactivity of these neurotransmitters that underlies depression, not underactivity. c. That the effectiveness of antidepressants is a placebo effect, as opposed to a result of a biochemical manipulation. d. Changes in neurotransmitter function, as opposed to neurotransmitter level, cause depression.

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Question ID: 7.1-33 Page Ref: 225 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Changes in neurotransmitter function, as opposed to neurotransmitter level, cause depression.

7.1-34. Individuals who do not show a decrease in cortisol levels in response to an injection of dexamethasone a. have a severe form of depression. b. are likely to be suffering from both major depression and a personality disorder. c. will not respond well to pharmacological treatment. d. have an HPA axis that is not functioning normally.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-34 Page Ref: 225-226 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. have an HPA axis that is not functioning normally.

7.1-35. Which of the following is most likely to be seen in children who are at risk for depression? a. Decreased left hemisphere activity b. Decreased right hemisphere activity c. Increased serotonin levels d. Increased GABA levels Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-35 Page Ref: 227 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: a. Decreased left hemisphere activity 7.1-36. Which of the following is a brain area that has been found to exhibit abnormalities in depressed patients? a. Amygdala b. Basal ganglia c. Posterior cingulate cortex d. Medulla oblangata Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 7.1-36 Page Ref: 227 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: a. Amygdala ..

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7.1-37. Many people who are depressed a. show very little REM sleep, instead they spend large amounts of time in the deeper stages (3 and 4) of sleep. b. do not enter REM sleep until much later in the night than normal and have smaller amounts of REM sleep throughout the night than normal. c. enter REM sleep earlier than normal and have larger amounts of REM sleep early in the night. d. enter REM sleep at a normal time, but have very slow and mild rapid eye movements and have less overall time in REM sleep than normal.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-37 Page Ref: 228 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: c. enter REM sleep earlier than normal and have larger amounts of REM sleep early in the night.

7.1-38. The fact that bright light may be an effective treatment for seasonal affective disorder suggests that a. this is a not a real form of depression as any response to light is merely a placebo effect. b. this form of depression is produced by a malfunctioning biological clock that needs resetting. c. changes in circadian rhythms underlie most forms of depression. d. seasonal affective disorder is a unique entity that should not be categorized with other forms of unipolar depression.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-38 Page Ref: 229 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: b. this form of depression is produced by a malfunctioning biological clock that needs resetting.

7.1-39. Independent life events are those that a. only affect one area of a client's functioning. b. are out of the client's control. c. are linked causally to the behavior or personality of the client. d. affect the client and not those around him or her.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-39 Page Ref: 229 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. are out of the client's control. ..

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7.1-40. John's erratic behavior finally ruined his marriage. What kind of life event would this be described as? a. Acute b. Chronic c. Dependent d. Independent Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-40 Page Ref: 229 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: c. Dependent 7.1-41. Which of the following is true? a. Most first time episodes of depression are preceded by a very stressful life event. b. Both first time and recurrent episodes of depression are usually preceded by a very stressful life event. c. Even mildly stressful events are associated with the onset of episodes of depression. d. Mildly stressful events are only associated with the onset of first time depression, not with recurrent episodes.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-41 Page Ref: 230 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: a. Most first time episodes of depression are preceded by a very stressful life event.

7.1-42. A review of several studies found that ________ increased the likelihood of developing a more severe depression. a. experiencing a stressful life event b. being in an intimate relationship c. working outside of the home d. having religious faith Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-42 Page Ref: 230 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. experiencing a stressful life event 7.1-43. Which of the following is an example of a COGNITIVE diathesis for depression? ..

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a. Neuroticism b. Optimism c. Attributing negative events to internal causes d. Attributing negative events to external causes Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-43 Page Ref: 231 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: c. Attributing negative events to internal causes 7.1-44. Which of the following reactions to poor test performance suggests a cognitive diathesis for depression? a. I'll do better next time. b. I'll never understand this. c. Why didn't I study more? d. That test was way too hard.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-44 Page Ref: 231 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: b. I'll never understand this.

7.1-45. Joanne tends to blow up at people and then feel guilty. She worries a lot. She complains that she just doesn't really find anything exciting and life is boring.

Joanne a. shows evidence of neuroticism and low positive affectivity, and has a high risk of developing depression. b. shows evidence of neuroticism and has a moderate risk of developing depression. c. shows evidence of introversion, and has a mild risk of developing depression. d. shows no evidence of any kind that would increase her risk for developing depression.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-45 Page Ref: 231 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: a. shows evidence of neuroticism and low positive affectivity, and has a high risk of developing depression.

7.1-46. Parental loss only results in a vulnerability to depression when a. the loss is due to death. b. poor parental care is a consequence of the loss. c. the loss is not explained adequately to the child. ..

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d. both parents are lost at an early age.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-46 Page Ref: 231 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. poor parental care is a consequence of the loss.

7.1-47. According to Freud, depression a. and grief are the same thing. b. must be treated with introjection. c. is a consequence of loss. d. reflects fixation in the anal stage.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-47 Page Ref: 232 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: c. is a consequence of loss.

7.1-48. Freud suggested that depression a. was actually a healthy adaptation to stress. b. was a result of overly high self-esteem. c. involved the anal stage of development. d. was anger turned inward.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-48 Page Ref: 232 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. was anger turned inward.

7.1-49. Which of the following is a behavioral explanation for depression? a. Lack of environmental reinforcers b. Insecure attachment c. Pessimistic tendencies d. Reliance on depressogenic schemas Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-49 Page Ref: 232 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: a. lack of environmental reinforcers 7.1-50. Depressogenic schemas a. are inherited. ..

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b. predispose a person to develop depression. c. serve a protective function and are readily modified by positive life experiences. d. ensure that a low rate of reinforcement will be experienced.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-50 Page Ref: 233 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: b. predispose a person to develop depression.

7.1-51. A therapist with a ________ orientation would emphasize the depressed person's need to improve his or her social skills. a. behavioral b. psychodynamic c. cognitive d. sociocultural Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-51 Page Ref: 232 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. behavioral 7.1-52. Beck's negative cognitive triad involves feeling negatively about a. helplessness, hopelessness, and sorrow. b. one's self, one's experiences, and one's future. c. one's past, one's present, and one's future. d. one's family, one's self, and one's friends.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-52 Page Ref: 232-233 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. one's self, one's experiences, and one's future.

7.1-53. Debbie receives her paper back from her instructor. It is marked with an A grade and has several positive comments. The instructor also suggested Debbie reword one small section. Debbie becomes extremely upset and tells her friends her instructor hated the paper and wants her to redo it. This is an example of a. selective abstraction. b. dichotomous thinking. c. arbitrary inference. d. learned helplessness.

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Page Ref: 233 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: a. selective abstraction.

7.1-54. Selective abstraction a. is a tendency to think in extremes. b. is a tendency to jump to conclusions based on little or no evidence. c. is part of Beck's cognitive triad. d. is a tendency to focus on one negative detail of a situation while ignoring other aspects.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-54 Page Ref: 233 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. is a tendency to focus on one negative detail of a situation while ignoring other aspects.

7.1-55. Which of the following is an example of arbitrary inference? a. Life is so unfair. b. If she won't go out with me, I'll die. c. She looked at me funny. She hates me. d. Why should I even try? She'll definitely reject me.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-55 Page Ref: 233 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: c. She looked at me funny. She hates me.

7.1-56. While there is much support for some elements of Beck's cognitive theory, a. treatments based on his view of depression are not effective. b. findings supporting it as a causal hypothesis are limited. c. it does not account for the known biological aspects of depression. d. is does not account for sex differences in depression.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-56 Page Ref: 234 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. findings supporting it as a causal hypothesis are limited.

7.1-57. No matter what prisoners try to do, they cannot escape. Eventually, they become passive and depressed. This illustrates the central idea in the ________ theory of depression. ..

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a. attribution b. depressogenic schema c. learned helplessness d. behavioral Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-57 Page Ref: 234 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: c. learned helplessness 7.1-58. Jacob and Matt both flunk their math test. Jacob says to his friends that there is no point in his continuing in the course because the teacher just doesn't like him. Matt says he is going to drop the course because he is just stupid in math.

According to the reformulated learned helplessness theory, a. Matt is more likely to become depressed than Jacob. b. Matt is more likely to feel helpless than Jacob. c. Jacob is more likely to become depressed than Matt. d. Jacob is more likely to feel helpless than Matt.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-58 Page Ref: 235 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: a. Matt is more likely to become depressed than Jacob.

7.1-59. Which of the following is the type of attribution that is most likely to cause depression? a. I am never going to make it through this course because it is too early in the morning and I'm having trouble getting up. b. I am never going to make it through this course because I'm stupid and I just can't learn the material. c. I am never going to make it through this course because the professor is unfair. d. I am never going to make it through this course because I just don't feel like studying lately.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-59 Page Ref: 235 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: b. I am never going to make it through this course because I'm stupid and I just can't learn the material.

7.1-60. Abramson revised the learned helplessness theory to suggest that a. the worldview dimension of attributions is the most important to depression. b. hopelessness is needed to produce depression, helplessness is not important. ..

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c. the number of negative life events someone experiences is more important than his or her attributions for those events. d. the pessimistic attributional style people have about negative events produces depression.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-60 Page Ref: 235 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. the pessimistic attributional style people have about negative events produces depression.

7.1-61. Which of the following statements about rumination is true, according to the ruminative response styles theory? a. Rumination is a protective factor against depression. b. People who ruminate a great deal tend to have more lengthy periods of depressive symptoms. c. Gender differences in depression are explained by ruminative styles. d. Biological factors have been most clearly linked to the development of rumination in those who do not have a family history of mood disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-61 Page Ref: 236 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. People who ruminate a great deal tend to have more lengthy periods of depressive symptoms.

7.1-62. When a nondepressed student lives with a depressed roommate, which of the following often results? a. Frequent verbal fights, which may even become physical b. Increased depression and hostility in the roommate who was not originally depressed c. A decrease in depression in the depressed roommate d. Increased caretaking by the nondepressed roommate, but only after the nondepressed roommate becomes depressed Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-62 Page Ref: 239 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: b. increased depression and hostility in the roommate who was not originally depressed 7.1-63. According to Hammen's stress-generation model of depression, a. marital distress can lead to depression and depression can lead to marital ..

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distress. b. the source of most marital distress in the depression of one or both partners. c. the stress and depression caused by marital discord explains the higher suicide rate seen in those who are married. d. stress causes depression.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-63 Page Ref: 239 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: a. marital distress can lead to depression and depression can lead to marital distress.

7.1-64. A relationship between depression and marital dissatisfaction a. has yet to be established. b. only exists due to the submissive behavior of depressed wives. c. is only seen when depression leads to substance abuse. d. is well-established.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-64 Page Ref: 239 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. is well-established.

7.1-65. Which statement best describes the relationship between mood disorders and domestic distress? a. Critical comments trigger negative affect in the spouse. b. Women who are depressed avoid their partners. c. Whenever there is a problem, it is caused by a man who, in a manic episode, is unaware of the nature of his behavior or even who he is attacking. d. Men become violent as a way of protecting themselves when their wives, who suffer from depressive episodes, become impulsively aggressive.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-65 Page Ref: 239 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. Critical comments trigger negative affect in the spouse.

7.1-66. Childhood depression a. has been clearly linked to genetic factors. b. is more likely in children with a depressed parent. c. has not been associated with parental depression. d. can usually be causally related to marital discord.

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Question ID: 7.1-66 Page Ref: 239-240 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. is more likely in children with a depressed parent.

7.1-67. A hypomanic episode is best described as a a. mild manic episode. b. short manic episode. c. manic episode characterized by inactivity. d. manic episode followed by symptoms of a mild depression.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-67 Page Ref: 240 Topic: Bipolar Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. mild manic episode.

7.1-68. The main difference between a manic episode and a hypomanic episode is a. whether the person also experiences depression. b. the number of symptoms the person has. c. whether the person has irritable mood. d. the amount of social and occupational impairment.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-68 Page Ref: 240 Topic: Bipolar Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. the amount of social and occupational impairment.

7.1-69. Bipolar disorder is to major depression as ________ is to ________. a. dysthymia; cyclothymia b. cyclothymia; dysthymia c. mania; hypomania d. hypomania; mania Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-69 Page Ref: 241 Topic: Bipolar Disorders/Cyclothymic Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. cyclothymia; dysthymia 7.1-70. Which of the following is necessary for a diagnosis of cyclothymia? a. The occurrence of two or more episodes of major depression b. Unremitting symptoms for a period of at least two years c. Clinically significant distress or impairment ..

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d. The occurrence of at least one episode of anxiety Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-70 Page Ref: 241 Topic: Bipolar Disorders/Cyclothymic Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. clinically significant distress or impairment 7.1-71. Which of the following would eliminate a potential diagnosis of cyclothymia? a. Gil had been showing both hypomanic and depressed symptoms for over three years. b. Carol was absolutely convinced that her mother wanted to kill her, although there was no evidence for this. c. Bob's most recent hypomanic episode lasted 3 days. d. Between her more recent episodes, Carla functioned quite well for 3 weeks.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-71 Page Ref: 241 Topic: Bipolar Disorders/Cyclothymic Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. Carol was absolutely convinced that her mother wanted to kill her, although there was no evidence for this.

7.1-72. Lori has periods of dejection and apathy that are not as severe as are seen in major depression. She also has periods when she abruptly becomes elated and has little need for sleep. Her symptoms never reach the level of psychosis, but the mood swings have been recurrent for over four years. The best diagnosis for Lori is a. schizoaffective disorder. b. bipolar I disorder. c. recurrent dysthymia. d. cyclothymia.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-72 Page Ref: 241 Topic: Bipolar Disorders/Cyclothymic Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: d. cyclothymia.

7.1-73. Which of the following is necessary for a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder? a. The occurrence of two or more episodes of major depression b. Unremitting symptoms for a period of at least two years c. Symptoms of psychosis d. The occurrence of at least one manic episode Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-73 Page Ref: 241-242 ..

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Topic: Bipolar Disorders/Bipolar Disorders (I and II) Skill: Factual Answer: d. the occurrence of at least one manic episode 7.1-74. Although bipolar I disorder is described as "bipolar," a. a depressed episode is not necessary for a diagnosis. b. few patients show both manic and depressed symptoms. c. both depressed and manic symptoms typically occur simultaneously. d. a year or two commonly passes between manic and depressed episodes.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-74 Page Ref: 242 Topic: Bipolar Disorders/Bipolar Disorders (I and II) Skill: Factual Answer: a. a depressed episode is not necessary for a diagnosis.

7.1-75. A diagnosis of bipolar I disorder indicates that the person has met DSM IVTR criteria for a. an episode of mania. b. an episode of mania or major depression. c. an episode of hypomania and a major depression. d. an episode of mania and a major depression.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-75 Page Ref: 242 Topic: Bipolar Disorders/Bipolar Disorders (I and II) Skill: Factual Answer: a. an episode of mania.

7.1-76. Angela has had several periods of extremely "up" moods. They last for a couple of weeks and she has gotten into trouble several times. During those times she doesn't sleep, spends way too much money, gets involved in bad business decisions, talks quickly and thinks even more quickly and believes she can do anything. The best diagnosis for Angela is a. manic disorder. b. bipolar II disorder. c. bipolar I disorder. d. cyclothymic disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-76 Page Ref: 242 Topic: Bipolar Disorders/Bipolar Disorders (I and II) Skill: Applied Answer: c. bipolar I disorder.

7.1-77. Which statement about bipolar I disorder is accurate? ..

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a. The depressive phase is more likely to involve psychotic features than in major depressive disorder. b. The onset of bipolar symptoms are never associated with seasons of the year as they are in unipolar depression. c. Single episodes of the disorder are extremely rare. d. Manic and depressive phases are always separated by lengthy intervals of normal mood.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-77 Page Ref: 242 Topic: Bipolar Disorders/Bipolar Disorders (I and II) Skill: Factual Answer: c. Single episodes of the disorder are extremely rare.

7.1-78. A diagnosis of bipolar II disorder indicates that the person has experienced a. an episode of mania. b. an episode of mania or major depression. c. an episode of hypomania and an episode of major depression. d. an episode of mania and an episode of major depression.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-78 Page Ref: 242 Topic: Bipolar Disorders/Bipolar Disorders (I and II) Skill: Factual Answer: c. an episode of hypomania and an episode of major depression.

7.1-79. Carleen comes to therapy because she is feeling sad. Carleen says her she has often had periods of extreme sadness in the past and they typically last between 6 and 8 months. During those times she overeats, has trouble sleeping, feels exhausted all the time, and thinks a lot about dying. At other times, however, Carleen says she feels wonderful. During those times, which last about a week, she gets a lot done, feels as if she could do anything, talks a lot and quickly, doesn't sleep, but doesn't feel tired. Carleen says her "up" times are great and have never caused her any trouble. Carleen's most likely diagnosis is a. major depressive disorder. b. dysthymia. c. bipolar I. d. bipolar II. Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-79 Page Ref: 242 Topic: Bipolar Disorders/Bipolar Disorders (I and II) Skill: Applied Answer: d. bipolar II. 7.1-80. Which of the following is a true statement about rapid cycling in bipolar ..

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disorders? a. It is seen in men more than women. b. It occurs in only those with Bipolar II disorder. c. Lithium may trigger a cycling episode. d. It is seen in 5-10 percent of those with bipolar disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-80 Page Ref: 244 Topic: Bipolar Disorders/Bipolar Disorders (I and II) Skill: Factual Answer: d. It is seen in 5-10 percent of those with bipolar disorder.

7.1-81. Why is it not wise to treat an individual who has a bipolar disorder with an antidepressant? a. The drug may trigger a manic episode. b. Individuals with bipolar disorder may or may not exhibit symptoms of depression. c. The drugs used to treat unipolar disorders do not alter the activity of the neurotransmitters that are affected in bipolar disorder. d. The combination of antidepressants and lithium is likely to be lethal.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-81 Page Ref: 244 Topic: Bipolar Disorders/Bipolar Disorders (I and II) Skill: Factual Answer: a. The drug may trigger a manic episode.

7.1-82. The prognosis for bipolar disorder is a. excellent, most people recover fully. b. guarded, most people continue to have some symptoms. c. unpredictable, all possible outcomes are seen frequently. d. uncertain, although most people have only one episode.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-82 Page Ref: 250 Topic: Bipolar Disorders/Bipolar Disorders (I and II) Skill: Factual Answer: b. guarded, most people continue to have some symptoms.

7.1-83. Which of the following is true? a. Neither unipolar nor bipolar disorder have a strong genetic contribution. b. Both unipolar and bipolar disorders have a strong genetic contribution. c. Unipolar disorder is more strongly inherited than bipolar disorder. d. Bipolar disorder is more strongly inherited than unipolar disorder.

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Page Ref: 245 Topic: Causal Factors in Bipolar Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Bipolar disorder is more strongly inherited than unipolar disorder.

7.1-84. Efforts to find the gene or genes that underlie bipolar disorder suggest that a. multiple genes are involved. b. the underlying gene is on the Y chromosome. c. the underlying gene is on the X chromosome. d. there is a genetic basis for bipolar disorder, but not for cyclothymia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-84 Page Ref: 245 Topic: Causal Factors in Bipolar Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. multiple genes are involved.

7.1-85. Which of the following neurochemical profiles has been associated with manic episodes? a. High serotonin, high norepinephrine, high dopamine b. Low serotonin, high norepinephrine, high dopamine c. Low serotonin, low norepinephrine, high dopamine d. Low serotonin, high norepinephrine, low dopamine Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-85 Page Ref: 245 Topic: Causal Factors in Bipolar Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. Low serotonin, high norepinephrine, high dopamine 7.1-86. Knowing what we know about the neurotransmitter imbalances in bipolar disorder, a physician should give which of the following pieces of advice? a. "Eat lots of foods that are rich in norepinephrine." b. "Don't take drugs that increase dopamine levels because they can produce manic-like behavior." c. "Stay away from drugs that include lithium because bipolar is associated with excessive lithium activity." d. "If you can keep your serotonin levels normal, you do not have to worry about having a manic episode."

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-86 Page Ref: 245 Topic: Causal Factors in Bipolar Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: b. "Don't take drugs that increase dopamine levels because they can produce manic-like behavior." ..

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7.1-87. Reynaldo has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The most effective drug for him is a. one that will increase his dopamine levels. b. one that will counteract the effect of sodium in his nerve cells. c. lithium. d. dexamethasone.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-87 Page Ref: 250 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Pharmacotherapy Skill: Applied Answer: c. lithium.

7.1-88. The effectiveness of lithium in the treatment of bipolar disorder a. supports the hypothesized role of serotonin in this disorder. b. is inconsistent with the established effects of dopamine on mood states. c. supports the role of dopamine in mania. d. suggests that it is not neurotransmitter function that is disrupted in bipolar disorder, but neurotransmitter levels.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-88 Page Ref: 250 Topic: Causal Factors in Bipolar Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. supports the role of dopamine in mania.

7.1-89. Which of the following is a hormonal abnormality associated with both bipolar disorder and unipolar depression? a. Decreased thyroid hormone levels b. Increased thyroid hormone levels c. Decreased cortisol levels d. Increased cortisol levels Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-89 Page Ref: 245 Topic: Causal Factors in Bipolar Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. Increased cortisol levels 7.1-90. Stressful life events a. do not trigger manic episodes. b. appear to increase the time to recovery from a manic episode. c. do not generally precipitate an initial manic episode, but tend to play more of a role over time. d. play no role in the development or progression of bipolar II disorder. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-90 Page Ref: 246 Topic: Causal Factors in Bipolar Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. appear to increase the time to recovery from a manic episode.

7.1-91. A sophisticated prospective study of the role of stressful life events in bipolar disorder by Ellicott, Hammen, and colleagues found that a. low levels of stress protected an individual against manic episodes. b. stress did not play a lesser role with the occurrence of more episodes. c. high levels of stress were not associated with the occurrence of manic or depressive episodes. d. low levels of stress protected an individual against depressive episodes.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-91 Page Ref: 246-247 Topic: Causal Factors in Bipolar Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. stress did not play a lesser role with the occurrence of more episodes.

7.1-92. Recent research on relapse among bipolar patients suggests that a. stressful life events have very little influence. b. personality styles interact with stress to increase the likelihood of relapse. c. relapse is most likely among those with unrealistically positive attributional styles. d. the more frequently a person has bipolar episodes, the less likely stressful events are able to induce a relapse.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-92 Page Ref: 247 Topic: Causal Factors in Bipolar Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. personality styles interact with stress to increase the likelihood of relapse.

7.1-93. Cross-cultural studies of mood disorders are made difficult due to a. the variability in the prevalence of bipolar disorders. b. the variability in the prevalence of unipolar disorders. c. the lack of clear-cut distinctions between bipolar and unipolar disorders. d. differences in diagnostic practices.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-93 Page Ref: 247 Topic: Sociocultural Factors Affecting Unipolar and Bipolar Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. differences in diagnostic practices. ..

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7.1-94. Which of the following might explain why rates of depression are low in China and Japan? a. Mental illnesses are not stigmatized, thus those who are depressed receive much social support and do not seek treatment. b. The heavy emphasis on the individual decreases the likelihood of blaming the self for failure. c. Symptoms of depression tend to be discussed as somatic. d. Blunted emotions characterize Asian peoples, so both positive and negative emotional extremes are rare.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-94 Page Ref: 248 Topic: Sociocultural Factors Affecting Unipolar and Bipolar Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Symptoms of depression tend to be discussed as somatic.

7.1-95. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors a. were the first antidepressants to be developed. b. are more effective than the tricyclic antidepressants. c. may lead to sexual problems. d. act to stabilize the mood swings of those with bipolar disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-95 Page Ref: 250 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Pharmacotherapy Skill: Factual Answer: c. may lead to sexual problems.

7.1-96. Jill's marriage has suffered ever since the birth of her second child. Since the birth, she has been depressed and has had little interest in intimacy with her husband. Jill feels unattractive with the additional weight she carries since the birth and has been rejecting her husband's advances. After discussing her feelings with Dr. Tora, Dr. Tora has decided to prescribe her an antidepressant. Considering the problems she has been having in her marriage, which of the following is Dr. Tora most likely to prescribe? a. Imipramine b. Prozac c. Bupropion d. Vanlafaxine Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 7.1-96 Page Ref: 250 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Pharmacotherapy Skill: Applied Answer: c. Bupropion ..

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7.1-97. Lithium a. is more effective than antidepressants at treating bipolar depression. b. has both antimanic and antidepressant effects. c. is an anticonvulsant. d. is well-tolerated by most bipolar patients.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-97 Page Ref: 251 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Pharmacotherapy Skill: Factual Answer: b. has both antimanic and antidepressant effects.

7.1-98. Quentin is severely depressed and presents an immediate and serious suicidal risk. In the past he has not responded to tricyclics. A wise course of action is to treat him with a. Prozac because it can reduce symptoms in 12-24 hours. b. electroconvulsive therapy because it can rapidly reduce symptoms. c. lithium because suicide is almost always accompanied by manic episodes. d. anticonvulsants such as carbamazepine and valproate because they can prevent future depressions.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-98 Page Ref: 251-252 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Alternative Biological Treatments Skill: Applied Answer: b. electroconvulsive therapy because it can rapidly reduce symptoms.

7.1-99. Transcranial magnetic stimulation a. is a biological test for altered brain waves in bipolar disorder. b. is a noninvasive biological test for changes in brain function in depression. c. is a noninvasive biological treatment for manic episodes. d. is a noninvasive biological treatment for depression.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-99 Page Ref: 252 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Alternative Biological Treatments Skill: Factual Answer: d. is a noninvasive biological treatment for depression.

7.1-100. Nadia has been depressed for several months. She is considering cognitive therapy. What advice would you give her? a. "Cognitive therapy is much less effective than interpersonal therapy and takes much longer, too." b. "Many studies have shown the usefulness of cognitive therapy and it seems to prevent relapse." ..

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c. "Drug treatment is much more effective than cognitive therapy and has less likelihood of relapse." d. "The only way that cognitive therapy is of any value is if it is coupled with family therapy."

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-100 Page Ref: 252 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Psychotherapy Skill: Applied Answer: b. "Many studies have shown the usefulness of cognitive therapy and it seems to prevent relapse."

7.1-101. Behavior activation treatment a. focuses on implementing cognitive changes. b. combines pharmacotherapy and behavioral therapy. c. combines interpersonal therapy and behavioral methodology. d. emphasizes activity and involvement in interpersonal relationships.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-101 Page Ref: 253 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Psychotherapy Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. emphasizes activity and involvement in interpersonal relationships.

7.1-102. Diane's treatment for depression included training in meditation techniques that helped her become aware of her unwanted negative thoughts and to accept them as just thoughts. She was undergoing a. mindfulness-based cognitive therapy. b. psychodynamic therapy. c. behavioral activation therapy. d. transcranial magnetic stimulation.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-102 Page Ref: 253 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Psychotherapy Skill: Applied Answer: a. mindfulness-based cognitive therapy.

7.1-103. One factor that is especially likely to produce depression relapse is a. family members ignoring the depressed behavior expressed by the depressed individual. b. excessive attention from family members. c. family members discussing the depressed individual's negative thoughts and feelings with him or her. d. behavior by a spouse that can be interpreted as criticism.

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Question ID: 7.1-103 Page Ref: 255 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Psychotherapy Skill: Factual Answer: d. behavior by a spouse that can be interpreted as criticism.

7.1-104. Which statement about the risk of suicide is true? a. Depressed people are no more likely to commit suicide than nondepressed people. b. The risk of suicide is greatest at the lowest point in a depression. c. About half of people who complete suicide do so during or in the recovery phase of a depressive episode. d. Suicide is most likely when a person in a manic episode is getting "high."

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-104 Page Ref: 255 Topic: Suicide Skill: Factual Answer: c. About half of people who complete suicide do so during or in the recovery phase of a depressive episode.

7.1-105. Which of the following is most likely to attempt suicide? a. A 25-year-old single man b. A 25-year-old single woman c. A 25-year-old divorced man d. A 25-year-old divorced woman Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-105 Page Ref: 256 Topic: The Clinical Picture and the Causal Pattern/Who Attempts and Who Commits Suicide?

Skill: Applied Answer: d. a 25-year-old divorced woman 7.1-106. The majority of individuals who ATTEMPT suicide are ________ and the majority of those who COMPLETE suicide are ________. a. women and people between age 18 and 24; men and people over age 65 b. men and people over age 65; women and people between age 18 and 24 c. adolescents; the elderly d. the elderly; adolescents Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-106 Page Ref: 256 Topic: The Clinical Picture and the Causal Pattern/Who Attempts and Who Commits Suicide?

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Answer: a. women and people between age 18 and 24; men and people over age 65 7.1-107. The director of a city health department wants to know who is most likely to complete suicide in her city. The group with the highest risk is a. teenagers, especially depressed girls. b. elderly men with chronic physical illnesses. c. young women who were recently separated or divorced. d. college-educated people.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-107 Page Ref: 256 Topic: The Clinical Picture and the Causal Pattern/Who Attempts and Who Commits Suicide?

Skill: Applied Answer: b. elderly men with chronic physical illnesses.

7.1-108. Childhood suicide a. is common. b. has been declining since the early 1980s. c. is one of the top ten causes of death for children in the United States. d. most commonly is seen in victims of early onset schizophrenia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-108 Page Ref: 256 Topic: The Clinical Picture and the Causal Pattern/Suicide in Children Skill: Factual Answer: c. is one of the top ten causes of death for children in the United States.

7.1-109. Which of the following is most likely is most likely to attempt, but not complete, suicide? a. 14-year-old Joan who has been depressed since her parent's divorce b. Charlie, a 16-year-old with a history of petty crimes c. 12-year-old Paul who receives constant rejection from the girls at school and has an overprotective mother d. Crystal, a 14-year-old substance abusing teen who has been diagnosed with attention deficit disorder Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.1-109 Page Ref: 257 Topic: The Clinical Picture and the Causal Pattern/Suicide in Adolescents and Young Adults Skill: Applied Answer: a. 14-year-old Joan who has been depressed since her parent's divorce 7.1-110. Melissa is severely depressed and wants to commit suicide. If she is typical of most individuals who commit suicide, ..

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a. she is determined to kill herself and will choose a lethal means such as a gun to ensure that she is successful. b. she is ambivalent about committing suicide. c. she will change her mind at the last minute and reexamine her problems in a more objective fashion. d. she will show no outward signs of her distress.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-110 Page Ref: 260 Topic: Suicidal Ambivalence Skill: Applied Answer: b. she is ambivalent about committing suicide.

7.1-111. According to your textbook, which of the following statements about the relationship between religion and rate of suicide? a. Suicide rates in Catholic countries are high but are low in Islamic countries. b. Suicide rates in Catholic countries are low but are high in Islamic countries. c. Suicide rates in both Catholic and Islamic countries are low. d. Suicide rates in both Catholic and Islamic countries are high.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.1-110 Page Ref: 259 Topic: Suicidal Ambivalence Skill: Applied Answer: c. Suicide rates in both Catholic and Islamic countries are low.

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 7.2-1. Two types of mood disorders are __________ and bipolar depressive disorders Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.2-1 Page Ref: 215 Topic: Mood Disorders: An Overview Skill: Factual Answer: unipolar 7.2-2. The diagnosis of __________ occurs when symptoms are similar to a manic episode but are milder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.2-2 Page Ref: 216 Topic: Mood Disorders: An Overview Skill: Factual Answer: hypomanic episode 7.2-3. A major depressive episode is considered to be __________ when the ..

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symptoms do not remit for over 2 years.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.2-3 Page Ref: 221 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: chronic 7.2-4. The hormone __________ has been found to be elevated in most patients hospitalized with major depressive disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.2-4 Page Ref: 225 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: cortisol 7.2-5. A different kind of depression related to the total amount of light a person receives is often called __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.2-5 Page Ref: 229 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: seasonal affective disorder Short Answer Questions 7.3-1. What are the four phases of the grieving process?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.3-1 Page Ref: 217-218 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Depressions That Are Not Mood Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: The normal response to the loss of spouse or close family member begins with a numbing and disbelief. This is followed by a yearning for the person that may possibly last for months. Eventually, despair is seen and then, finally, some adaptation and reorganization such that life can continue without the departed loved one.

7.3-2. What is anaclitic depression?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.3-2 Page Ref: 221 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: Anaclitic depression or despair is a form of depression seen in infants separated ..

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from their attachment figure for a prolonged period of time. There is some debate, however, as to whether the behavior displayed is merely a normal reaction to loss.

7.3-3. What type of psychotic symptoms might be seen in someone suffering from major depression?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.3-3 Page Ref: 222 Topic: Unipolar Mood Disorders/Major Depressive Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: The presence of psychotic symptoms indicate that a break with reality has occurred and involves the presence of hallucinations and/or delusions. The psychotic symptoms seen in depression are mood-congruent, they are symptoms that are consistent with being depressed. The depressed individual, for example, might believe that their friends and family want them dead.

7.3-4. What changes in sleep are seen in depression?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.3-4 Page Ref: 228 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Biological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: Over half of depressed patients experience some form of insomnia. In addition to having problems getting to sleep or staying asleep, the sleep of the depressed is not normal. More time is spent in REM sleep and REM sleep is entered more quickly, leading to a reduction in the amount of time spent in other forms of deep sleep. The observed alterations in sleep suggest a general disturbance in biological rhythms.

7.3-5. What are independent and dependent life events? What is their importance?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.3-5 Page Ref: 229 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: Independent - stressful events that are not a result of a person's behavior or character, dependent - are a result of those things, at least partly. Dependent events are especially important in the onset of major depression.

7.3-6. Describe the hopelessness theory of depression.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.3-6 Page Ref: 236 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual ..

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Answer: Having a pessimistic attributional style along with negative life events is not enough to produce depression. A state of hopelessness is needed as well. Hopelessness expectancy is the perception that one has no control over a situation that is about to occur as well as an absolute belief that what is going to happen is going to be bad.

7.3-7. What is the difference between bipolar I and bipolar II disorder?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.3-7 Page Ref: 241-242 Topic: Bipolar Disorders/Bipolar Disorders (I and II) Skill: Factual Answer: A diagnosis of bipolar I is made when there has been manic episode. This diagnosis is made with or without the occurrence of a bout of major depression. In bipolar II, there is at least one episode of major depression and a hypomanic episode. If the individual with bipolar II exhibits a manic episode, a diagnosis of bipolar I is warranted.

7.3-8. In what way do the symptoms of depression in Western and non-Western societies differ?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.3-8 Page Ref: 247 Topic: Sociocultural Factors Affecting Unipolar and Bipolar Disorders/Symptoms Skill: Conceptual Answer: While the Western constellation of depressive symptoms is primarily psychological, in many cultures the symptoms tend to be more somatic. In those cultures in which there is great stigma associated with mental illness and/or a lack of emotional expressiveness, depression may manifest itself in symptoms such as weight loss, sleep disturbances, and sexual dysfunction. In addition, the feelings of guilt and worthlessness that characterize depression in individualistic cultures may not be seen in more communal cultures.

7.3-9. Discuss the risk factors for adolescent suicide.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.3-9 Page Ref: 257 Topic: The Clinical Picture and Causal Pattern/Suicide in Adolescents and Young Adults Skill: Applied Answer: Mood disorders, conduct disorder and substance abuse all increase the risk of both nonfatal and fatal suicide attempts. If the adolescent has 2 or more of these, the risk for completion of suicide is extremely high. Antidepressant medications slightly increase the risk as well.

7.3-10. What are the warning signs of student suicide in college or university? ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.3-10 Page Ref: 257 Topic: Suicide/7.3 Warning Signs for Student Suicide Skill: Factual Answer: Marked change in mood and behavior, especially withdrawal, decline in selfesteem, not taking care of personal hygiene, uncharacteristically impulsive behaviors, not attending classes. Many students communicate their impulses. Often the behavior is a reaction to the break-up of a romance.

Essay Questions 7.4-1. What are the two main forms of mood disorder? How are these disorders further characterized?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 7.4-1 Page Ref: 220-221 Topic: Mood Disorders: An Overview Skill: Factual Answer: The two main forms of mood disorder are unipolar, in which a person only experiences depression, and bipolar, in which a person has mood swings that range from hypomania or mania to depression. A person with bipolar disorder, however, may not exhibit any depression. The mood disorders are differentiated in terms of severity --- the number of areas of life that are impaired and the degree of impairment, and duration --whether the disorder is acute, chronic, or intermittent. In addition, each type of mood disorder is further divided into multiple subtypes. GRADING RUBRIC - 8 points total 4 points for correct identification, 2 points each for 2 aspects of how they are classified.

7.4-2. Discuss Beck's cognitive theory of depression.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.4-3 Page Ref: 232 Topic: Causal Factors in Unipolar Mood Disorders/Psychological Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: Beck's theory is that thinking preceded and caused depression. First, people hold dysfunctional beliefs that predispose them to depression. These are rigid, extreme, and unhelpful beliefs about the world. They create automatic, negative thoughts that center around the cognitive triad - the self, the world, and the future. Negative beliefs and feelings about the triad are maintained by cognitive errors such as all or none reasoning and arbitrary inference. This theory has been well supported as an explanation for many aspects of depression, but evidence confirming it as a cause of depression is mixed.

GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points.

7.4-3. Distinguish between cyclothymic disorder, bipolar I disorder and bipolar II disorder. How are these disorders alike and how are they different? ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 7.4-3 Page Ref: 241-242 Topic: Bipolar Disorders/Cyclothymic Disorder/Bipolar Disorders (I & II) Skill: Factual Answer: Cyclothymia is best described as a less severe, yet chronic, version of bipolar disorder. While the individual with bipolar I disorder exhibits a full manic state, the individual with cyclothymia exhibits hypomania. People with bipolar II have full major depressive episodes, people with cyclothymia have depressive symptoms but not full episodes. In cyclothymia the lows and the highs do not rise to the level that is needed for a diagnosis of major depressive episode or manic episode, respectively. The disorders differ in that there need not be any depressive symptoms in bipolar I disorder, although this is usually the case as pure mania is rare. Only bipolar I involves manic episodes.

GRADING RUBRIC: 10 points - Descriptions of each disorder 2 points each, note the difference in severity 2, note the major differences 2.

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TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 8 Somatoform and Dissociative Disorders

Topic

What Are Somatoform Disorders?

What Are Dissociative Disorders?

Multiple Choice (8.1-)

Blank (8.2-) Short Answer (8.3-) Essay (8.4-) Multiple Choice (8.1-)

Blank (8.2-)

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

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9, 13, 16, 17, 26, 31, 33, 37

5, 6, 7, 8, 18, 20, 32, 34, 35, 36

1, 5, 7 1 53, 55, 64, 66, 68, 71, 73, 74, 75

2, 6

Short Answer (8.3-) Essay (8.4-)

11 3

4

Copyright © 2013 by Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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42, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 57, 61, 62, 69

Chapter 8: Somatoform and Dissociative Disorders Multiple-Choice Questions 8.1-1. Conditions involving physical complaints or disabilities occurring in the absence of any physical pathology that could account for them are a. hypochondriacal disorders. b. anxiety disorders. c. dissociative disorders. d. somatoform disorders.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-1 Page Ref: 266 Topic: Somatoform and Dissociative Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. somatoform disorders.

8.1-2. Individuals with somatoform disorders a. intentionally fake their illnesses in order to obtain some special treatment. b. generally have a physical cause for their illness. c. believe that their symptoms are real and serious. d. usually have little concern over their state of health.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-2 Page Ref: 267 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?

Skill: Factual Answer: c. believe that their symptoms are real and serious.

8.1-3. Consciously faking symptoms is characteristic of a. malingering. b. hypochondriasis. c. somatization disorder. d. somatoform disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-3 Page Ref: 267 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?

Skill: Factual Answer: a. malingering.

8.1-4. All of the following are somatoform disorders EXCEPT a. hypochondriasis. b. somatization disorder. c. conversion disorder. d. fugue disorder. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-4 Page Ref: 267 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?

Skill: Factual Answer: d. fugue disorder.

8.1-5. Evan is terrified because he is convinced that he has a terminal heart condition. He has consulted with several physicians about it who have found no evidence of any heart disease. Interestingly, Evan continues to feel terrified even when the doctors find no physical problem. His diagnosis is probably a. somatization disorder. b. pain disorder. c. hypochondriasis. d. conversion disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-5 Page Ref: 267 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Hypochondriasis Skill: Applied Answer: c. hypochondriasis.

8.1-6. John and Ira eat dinner together after work. Several hours later, each starts to feel nausea and stomach pains. John is a hypochondriac, Ira is not. Most likely: a. both men will think that the food they ate made them sick. b. John will think that he has stomach cancer and Ira will think the food he ate made him sick. c. John will think the food he ate made him sick and Ira will not think anything at all. d. Ira will think he has stomach cancer and John will think the food he ate made him sick.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-6 Page Ref: 267 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Hypochondriasis Skill: Applied Answer: b. John will think that he has stomach cancer and Ira will think the food he ate made him sick.

8.1-7. If Ronald is typical of people with hypochondriasis, he will a. avoid accepting a psychological explanation for his problems. b. avoid visiting a physician. c. have bizarre delusions about his body rotting out. d. feel relieved when his doctor tells him he is healthy.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-7 ..

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Page Ref: 267 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Hypochondriasis Skill: Applied Answer: a. avoid accepting a psychological explanation for his problems.

8.1-8. Sara notices a lump on her side. She goes to her physician because she is worried that it is cancer. The physician sends her for a biopsy. During the three weeks between first noticing the lump and getting her results that it is not cancer, Sara was almost unable to function. She felt constant anxiety and thought constantly about having cancer. After she found out that she did not have cancer, Sara felt much better. Sara a. has hypochondriasis. b. has conversion disorder. c. has somatization disorder. d. has no mental disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-8 Page Ref: 267 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders/Hypochondriasis Skill: Applied Answer: d. has no mental disorder.

8.1-9. People with hypochondriasis, like people with obsessive-compulsive disorder, have intrusive thoughts that cause them anxiety. The major difference is a. in hypochondriasis, the thoughts are about one disease only, in obsessivecompulsive disorder the thoughts are about multiple diseases. b. in hypochondriasis, the thoughts are seen as inappropriate and alien, in obsessive-compulsive disorder the intrusive thoughts are seen as appropriate and reasonable. c. in hypochondriasis, the thoughts are seen as appropriate and reasonable, in obsessive-compulsive disorder the intrusive thoughts are seen as inappropriate and alien. d. in hypochondriasis, the person knows the thoughts are coming from his or her own head and in obsessive-compulsive disorder, the person believes the thoughts are coming from someone else.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-9 Page Ref: 268 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders/Hypochondriasis Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. in hypochondriasis, the thoughts are seen as appropriate and reasonable, in obsessive-compulsive disorder the intrusive thoughts are seen as inappropriate and alien.

8.1-10. According to the proposed revisions for the DSM-5, most people previously diagnosed with ______________ will be diagnosed with complex somatic symptom disorder. ..

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a. hypochondriasis b. factitious disorder c. somatization disorder d. body dysmorphic disorder Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-10 Page Ref: 271 Topic: Somatoform Disorders: DSM-5 Proposed Revisions Skill: Factual Answer: a. hypochondriasis.

8.1-11. Dysfunctional assumptions about symptoms and diseases are a component of a cognitive-behavioral explanation of a. hypochondriasis. b. dissociative fugue. c. somatization disorder. d. depersonalization disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-11 Page Ref: 269 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders/Hypochondriasis Skill: Factual Answer: a. hypochondriasis.

8.1-12. Research on hypochondriasis has shown that people with the disorder tend to a. ignore information about illness. b. overestimate the dangerousness of diseases. c. underestimate the dangerousness of diseases. d. overestimate their ability to handle being ill.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-12 Page Ref: 268 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders/Hypochondriasis Skill: Factual Answer: b. overestimate the dangerousness of diseases.

8.1-13. Response prevention has been used in the treatment of both a. dissociative identity disorder and PTSD. b. dissociative identity disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. hypochondriasis and PTSD. d. hypochondriasis and obsessive compulsive disorder.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 8.1-13 Page Ref: 269 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders/Hypochondriasis ..

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Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. hypochondriasis and obsessive compulsive disorder.

8.1-14. Catastrophizing about minor bodily sensations is characteristic of individuals with both a. hypochondriasis and somatization disorder. b. hypochondriasis and conversion disorder. c. dissociative fugue and somatization disorder. d. dissociative fugue and conversion disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-14 Page Ref: 270 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Somatization Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. hypochondriasis and somatization disorder.

8.1-15. Somatization disorder a. involves multiple symptoms of at least four different types. b. involves multiple symptoms involving one body part or function. c. involves the fear of having multiple different diseases. d. involves having pain in at least four different areas of the body.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-15 Page Ref: 269 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Somatization Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. involves multiple symptoms of at least four different types.

8.1-16. Somatization disorder and hypochondriasis are similar in that a. both think they have a physical disease. b. both think that they can easily cope with their symptoms. c. both pay more attention to bodily sensations and see them as symptoms. d. both react to physical symptoms by becoming more physically active.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-16 Page Ref: 270 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Somatization Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. both pay more attention to bodily sensations and see them as symptoms.

8.1-17. Somatization disorder and hypochondriasis differ because a. in somatization disorder, people have physical symptoms involving one body part or function, in hypochondriasis, people are concerned about having an organic disease. b. in somatization disorder, people are concerned about having an organic disease, in hypochondriasis, people have physical symptoms involving one body part or ..

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function. c. in somatization disorder, people are concerned about having an organic disease, in hypochondriasis, people are concerned about multiple different physical symptoms. d. in somatization disorder, people are concerned about multiple different physical symptoms, in hypochondriasis, people are concerned about having an organic disease.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-17 Page Ref: 270 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Somatization Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. in somatization disorder, people are concerned about multiple different physical symptoms, in hypochondriasis, people are concerned about having an organic disease.

8.1-18. Dan's various medical complaints and hospital stays finally led him to psychiatrist. After a thorough medical and psychological evaluation, the twentyeight-year-old teacher and father of two was diagnosed with both depression and somatization disorder. What is atypical about this case summary? a. Such diagnoses are usually made in adolescence. b. Somatization disorder is seen much more commonly in women. c. Somatization disorder and depression are rarely comorbid disorders. d. It is rare for an individual with somatization disorder to marry and have children.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-18 Page Ref: 270 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Somatization Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. Somatization disorder is seen much more commonly in women.

8.1-19. The most effective treatment to date for somatization disorder a. increases psychological distress. b. results in only temporary changes in psychological symptoms. c. decreases healthcare expenditures. d. has not been shown to effect physical functioning.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-19 Page Ref: 271 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Somatization Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. decreases healthcare expenditures.

8.1-20. Ryan has diabetes but has no trouble functioning. One day, his wife informs him that she is leaving him. Ryan suddenly develops terrible pain in his back, to the ..

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point he is unable to get out of bed. His wife agrees to stay for "a while" to take care of him. Ryan probably has a. somatization disorder. b. pain disorder associated with psychological factors. c. pain disorder associated with both psychological factors and a general medical condition. d. body dysmorphic disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-20 Page Ref: 272 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Pain Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. pain disorder associated with psychological factors.

8.1-21. Why is the timeframe of 6 months important in diagnosing pain disorder? a. It determines whether the symptoms are acute or chronic b. It determines whether the pain is real or imagined c. It determines whether the pain is localized or generalized d. It determines whether there is a psychological condition present that plays a causal role Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-21 Page Ref: 272 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Pain Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. It determines whether the symptoms are acute or chronic 8.1-22. What would be most helpful to a person with pain disorder? a. Staying physically active despite the pain. b. Restricting physical activity as much as possible. c. Getting a great deal of sympathy and attention. d. Being allowed to avoid unpleasant tasks while he or she is in pain.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-22 Page Ref: 272 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Pain Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. Staying physically active despite the pain.

8.1-23. People with predominantly psychogenic (psychologically caused) pain tend to a. seem indifferent to their symptoms. b. adopt an invalid lifestyle, visiting many doctors in search of relief. c. report less pain than people whose somatoform pain disorder is related to a medical condition. d. be consistent in their report of pain, regardless of the stress they feel.

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Question ID: 8.1-23 Page Ref: 272 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Pain Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. adopt an invalid lifestyle, visiting many doctors in search of relief.

8.1-24. A lack of concern about a physical disability is characteristic of individuals with a. conversion disorder. b. hypochondriasis. c. somatoform pain disorder. d. somatization disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-24 Page Ref: 273 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Conversion Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. conversion disorder.

8.1-25. Which of the following was once viewed as form of "hysteria"? a. Conversion disorder b. Dissociative identity disorder c. Dissociative fugue d. Hypochondriasis Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-25 Page Ref: 273 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Conversion Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. Conversion disorder 8.1-26. In what way was Freud's view of conversion disorder consistent with behavioral theories? a. Freud proposed that faulty thinking underlies the symptoms of conversion disorder. b. He advocated treating conversion disorder by punishing the problem behaviors. c. He believed that the symptoms of conversion disorder were maintained by the relief from anxiety they provided. d. Freud believed that those with conversion disorder were suffering bodily symptoms due to a conflict between their inner desires and the demands placed on them by society (the environment).

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-26 Page Ref: 273 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Conversion Disorder Skill: Conceptual ..

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Answer: c. He believed that the symptoms of conversion disorder were maintained by the relief from anxiety they provided.

8.1-27. The current prevalence of conversion disorder is a. decreasing as sophistication about disorders decreases. b. increasing as sophistication about disorders increases. c. decreasing as sophistication about disorders increases. d. not changing.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-27 Page Ref: 274 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Conversion Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. decreasing as sophistication about disorders increases.

8.1-28. The most common kind of speech-related conversion reaction is a. alexia b. aphonia c. apraxia d. alogia Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-28 Page Ref: 275 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Conversion Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. aphonia 8.1-29. What is a pseudoseizure? a. A seizure that looks exactly like a seizure on EEG but cannot be explained. b. A seizure that resembles an epileptic seizure but is different. c. A faking seizure with little thrashing. d. Any seizure that cannot be explained.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-29 Page Ref: 275 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Conversion Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. A seizure that resembles an epileptic seizure but is different.

8.1-30. Which of the following disorders was once the most frequently diagnosed disorder among soldiers in World War I? a. Acute anxiety disorder b. Conversion disorder c. Dissociative identity disorder d. Hypochondriasis Difficulty: 2 ..

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Question ID: 8.1-30 Page Ref: 275 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Conversion Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. Conversion disorder 8.1-31. Which of the following best explains why conversion disorder is a less common diagnosis today than it was historically? a. Advances in the psychiatric profession have decreased the prevalence of all disorders linked to traumatic events. b. Those once diagnosed with conversion disorder are now more likely to be diagnosed with PTSD. c. Today's psychiatrists tend to view this diagnosis as one that lacks reliability and validity, thus they are hesitant to even consider it as a diagnostic option. d. Advances in the medical field have made patients more sophisticated about medical and psychological disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-31 Page Ref: 275 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Conversion Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Advances in the medical field have made patients more sophisticated about medical and psychological disorders.

8.1-32. Following the rejection of his latest novel, Jim experienced an inability to make some movements with his right hand. While he was unable to write, he could scratch and make other simple motions with his affected hand. Two weeks later he was able to write again. What is unique about Jim's case of conversion disorder? a. Jim had some ability to move his hand. b. Jim is male, and most people with this disorder are women. c. Jim's symptoms subsided after only two weeks. d. Jim only lost the ability to move his right hand.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-32 Page Ref: 275 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders/Conversion Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. Jim is male, and most people with this disorder are women.

8.1-33. Which of the following is a way to distinguish between someone with conversion disorder and someone who is malingering? a. People with conversion disorder are very willing to talk about their symptoms, malingerers will be more cautious. b. People with conversion disorder will be very cautious about talking about their symptoms, malingerers are very willing to talk about them. c. People with conversion disorder are usually very defensive, malingerers will try ..

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to seem very open and trusting. d. If their symptoms are shown to be inconsistent, people with conversion disorder become very defensive while malingerers do not.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-33 Page Ref: 276 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Distinguishing Somatization, Pain, and Conversion Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. People with conversion disorder are very willing to talk about their symptoms, malingerers will be more cautious.

8.1-34. Earl falls at work. The initial medical tests showed no major physical problems. However, Earl calls the next day and tells his boss that he is unable to use his right leg because it is paralyzed. He also informs his boss that he plans to sue the company. Earl most likely a. has conversion disorder. b. has somatization disorder. c. has factitious disorder. d. is malingering.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-34 Page Ref: 276 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Distinguishing Somatization, Pain, and Conversion Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: d. is malingering.

8.1-35. Kristie is talking to a career counselor at college. She suddenly announces that it is pointless to discuss jobs, when she knows that her face is incredibly hideous due to her huge number of acne scars. The counselor is surprised, because, while she can barely see a couple of scars at Kristie's hairline, they were not noticeable until Kristie pointed them out. It is probable that Kristie suffers from a. conversion disorder. b. depersonalization disorder. c. body dysmorphic disorder. d. hypochondriasis.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-35 Page Ref: 278Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Body Dysmorphic Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: c. body dysmorphic disorder.

8.1-36. Munchausen’s syndrome by proxy is a variant of which of the following disorder? a. conversion disorder ..

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b. body dysmorphic disorder c. hypochondriasis d. factitious disorder Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-36 Page Ref: 277 Topic: Factitious Disorder by Proxy (Munchausen’s Syndrome by Proxy) Skill: Applied Answer: d. factitious disorder.

8.1-37. People with body dysmorphic disorder are similar to people with hypochondriasis in that a. both ask for reassurance about their symptoms but don't feel relief when they get it. b. both believe that a disease is causing their symptoms. c. both know that they are faking their symptoms for attention. d. both focus only on symptoms involving the face.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-37 Page Ref: 278 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Body Dysmorphic Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. both ask for reassurance about their symptoms but don't feel relief when they get it.

8.1-38. Body dysmorphic disorder is thought to be related to a. depression and bipolar disorders. b. dissociative disorders. c. panic disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder and eating disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-38 Page Ref: 280 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Body Dysmorphic Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. obsessive-compulsive disorder and eating disorders.

8.1-39. Compulsive checking behaviors are characteristic of individuals with a. body dysmorphic disorder. b. conversion disorder. c. dissociative identity disorder. d. somatization disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-39 Page Ref 289 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Body Dysmorphic Disorder ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: a. body dysmorphic disorder.

8.1-40. What do the somatoform and dissociative disorders have in common? a. Both are characterized by physical complaints. b. Both are more common in men. c. Both appear to be ways of alleviating anxiety. d. Both have onset during early childhood.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-40 Page Ref: 282 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?

Skill: Factual Answer: c. Both appear to be ways of alleviating anxiety.

8.1-41. Dissociation a. only occurs in people with a dissociative disorder. b. is a sign that something is seriously wrong. c. is extremely common and not necessarily pathological. d. is extremely rare and not necessarily pathological.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-41 Page Ref: 282 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?

Skill: Factual Answer: c. is extremely common and not necessarily pathological.

8.1-42. After learning of her father's death, Sophia felt dazed and confused but still retained her sense of self. When speaking of her response to the news, she said she felt like she was in a movie watching the events happening to her. Despite this strange feeling, she understood what was happening and did the things that she needed to do. What can be said of Sophia's response to her father's death? a. Her response is not typical and suggests that she is suffering from acute stress disorder. b. She experienced an instance of derealization. c. She had a psychotic break. d. She experienced an instance of depersonalization.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-42 Page Ref: 282 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Depersonalization Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. She experienced an instance of derealization.

8.1-43. The disorder involving the experience of sudden loss of the sense of self is a. depersonalization disorder. ..

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b. psychogenic amnesia. c. disidentity disorder. d. derealization disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-43 Page Ref: 282 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Depersonalization Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. depersonalization disorder.

8.1-44. The inability to learn new information is known as a. anterograde amnesia. b. retrograde amnesia. c. continuous amnesia. d. generalized amnesia.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-44 Page Ref: 283 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Amnesia and Dissociative Fugue Skill: Factual Answer: a. anterograde amnesia.

8.1-45. In soap operas, characters often forget their past experience following some trauma. They don't merely forget the traumatic event, they forget who they are, where they came from - they lose almost all memory of their lives. They then move to a new place and start a new identity. This would best be described as an instance of a. anterograde amnesia. b. dissociative fugue. c. continuous amnesia. d. generalized amnesia.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-45 Page Ref: 284 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Amnesia and Dissociative Fugue Skill: Applied Answer: b. dissociative fugue.

8.1-46. Although Charlie remembered most of the main issues of the meeting, he had no recollection of the decision to eliminate the department that he headed. Which form of psychogenic amnesia would this be characteristic of? a. Localized amnesia b. Selective amnesia c. Continuous amnesia d. Generalized amnesia Difficulty: 2 ..

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Question ID: 8.1-46 Page Ref: 283 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Amnesia and Dissociative Fugue Skill: Applied Answer: b. Selective amnesia 8.1-47. Jeremy suffers from psychogenic amnesia. He probably a. remembers only events from the past and does not remember skills he learned more recently. b. can perform only simple tasks, regardless of the complex work that he was able to do previously. c. is able to recognize close friends and relatives but not acquaintances. d. seems quite normal other than his amnesia.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-45 Page Ref: 283 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Amnesia and Dissociative Fugue Skill: Applied Answer: d. seems quite normal other than his amnesia.

8.1-48. Jill did not remember the accident happening or the following two days.

What form of amnesia is this memory loss characteristic of? a. Localized b. Generalized c. Continuous d. Selective Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-48 Page Ref: 283 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Amnesia and Dissociative Fugue Skill: Applied Answer: a. Localized 8.1-49. Gerard became amnesic, wandered away from home and assumed a completely new identity as a shoe salesman. He suffers from a. dissociative fugue. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. malingering identity disorder. d. depersonalization.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-49 Page Ref: 284 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Amnesia and Dissociative Fugue Skill: Applied Answer: a. dissociative fugue. ..

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8.1-50. Assuming a new identity in a new place is characteristic of a. depersonalization disorder. b. all forms of dissociative amnesia. c. dissociative fugue. d. dissociative identity disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-50 Page Ref: 284 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Amnesia and Dissociative Fugue Skill: Factual Answer: c. dissociative fugue.

8.1-51. Once a dissociative fugue ends, people a. can remember everything that has happened to them. b. remembers who they are but cannot remember their past. c. can remember their past but cannot remember what happened during the fugue. d. can remember their past but keep their new identity.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-51 Page Ref: 284 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Amnesia and Dissociative Fugue Skill: Factual Answer: c. can remember their past but cannot remember what happened during the fugue.

8.1-52. When a person experiences psychogenic amnesia, only one portion of memory is usually affected. Which? a. Semantic memory (pertaining to language and concepts) b. Procedural memory (how to do things) c. Perceptual memory (the representation of things in images) d. Episodic memory (the events we have experienced) Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-52 Page Ref: 283 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Amnesia and Dissociative Fugue Skill: Factual Answer: d. Episodic memory (the events we have experienced) 8.1-53. In the study mentioned in the text, the German man who had dissociative fugue denied that he could speak German. However, he learned German-English word pairs much faster than control words. This supports that a. mainly episodic memory is lost, implicit memory stays intact. b. mainly implicit memory is lost, episodic memory stays intact. c. both episodic and implicit memory are affected. d. most people with dissociative fugue are faking.

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Question ID: 8.1-53 Page Ref: 285 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Amnesia and Dissociative Fugue Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. mainly episodic memory is lost, implicit memory stays intact.

8.1-54. Which of the following has been demonstrated about the effects of psychogenic amnesias on memory? a. Implicit memory is generally intact. b. Explicit memory is rarely affected. c. Episodic memory is not compromised. d. Semantic memory is most dramatically affected.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-54 Page Ref: 285 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Amnesia and Dissociative Fugue Skill: Factual Answer: a. Implicit memory is generally intact.

8.1-55. Why has there been little systematic research conducted on dissociative amnesia and fugue? a. Case studies provide more useful information. b. Both disorders are relatively brief, preventing researchers from having ample time to systematically conduct full evaluations. c. The diagnosis of both disorders is too controversial; until a consensus is reached as to whether there is a true "psychogenic" amnesia, further study is virtually impossible. d. These conditions are too rare to permit more extensive study.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 8.1-55 Page Ref: 289 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Amnesia and Dissociative Fugue Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. These conditions are too rare to permit more extensive study.

8.1-56. Dissociative identity disorder was formerly known as a. psychogenic amnesia. b. multiple personality disorder. c. conversion hysteria. d. neurasthenia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-56 Page Ref: 285 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. multiple personality disorder. ..

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8.1-57. Which of the following is most suggestive of dissociative identity disorder? a. Grace's feelings about James switch from positive to negative instantly. b. Peter could not explain why he didn't complete the project. c. Delilah was never able to make up her mind. d. Kyla could not recall where she had been or what she had done all day.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-57 Page Ref: 286-287 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: d. Kyla could not recall where she had been or what she had done all day.

8.1-58. A person with two or more well-developed identities has the disorder called a. fugue state. b. depersonalization disorder. c. dissociative identity disorder. d. localized psychogenic amnesia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-58 Page Ref: 286 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. dissociative identity disorder.

8.1-59. Which of the following is most commonly true of the host identity in DID? a. It does not answer to the person's actual name. b. It is always the most well-adjusted of the identities. c. It is the second or third alter to develop. d. It is not the original identity.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-59 Page Ref: 286 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. It is not the original identity.

8.1-60. Which of the following is true of opposite sex alters in DID? a. They are rare. b. They are quite common. c. When they do occur, they usually assume the role of host. d. They occur most commonly when sexual abuse has occurred.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-60 Page Ref: 286 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: b. They are quite common.

8.1-61. Brigid has been diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder. Brigid is the host personality. We can expect that the alter identities a. are very much like Brigid. b. are strikingly different from Brigid. c. only "come out" when there is no stress in the environment. d. are very much like one another.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-61 Page Ref: 286-287 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. are strikingly different from Brigid.

8.1-62 Octavia has been diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder (DID). She has seventeen different "alters," which are strikingly different from her host personality. Some of her alters are not full personalities, but fragments and memories. Some of the alters are children. What aspect of this case is unusual? a. It is unusual for a person with DID to have seventeen alters. b. It is unusual for a person with DID to have alters that are very different from the host personality. c. It is unusual for a person with DID to have fragmentary alters. d. No aspect of this case is unusual.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-62 Page Ref: 286-287 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: d. No aspect of this case is unusual.

8.1-63. In the individual with DID, "switches" between identities a. usually take several days. b. produce gaps in memory. c. occur symmetrically, such that all identities share equal control. d. are controlled by the host identity.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-63 Page Ref: 287 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. produce gaps in memory.

8.1-64. The text presented the case of Mary Kendall, who suffered from dissociative identity disorder. She is typical of individuals with this disorder in that ..

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a. she has periods of "lost time." b. she was socially inept as a child. c. she was aware of her separate personalities prior to beginning treatment. d. she tended to express her emotional distress in complaints about her body.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-64 Page Ref: 287 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. she has periods of "lost time."

8.1-65. All of the following are associated with DID except a. depression. b. hallucinations. c. psychosis. d. substance abuse.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-65 Page Ref: 287 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. psychosis.

8.1-66. Why has the term "multiple personality disorder" been replaced with "dissociative identity disorder"? a. The old term was often used to refer to both schizophrenia and DID, thus a new term was needed to end this confusion. b. The word "multiple" suggested the presence of more identities than were commonly observed. c. Fully developed personalities are not present in DID, just varying expressions of different aspects of the patient's personality. d. A new diagnostic term was wanted to remove some of the stigma associated with the old term and its presentation in the media.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-66 Page Ref: 288 Topic: Dissociative Disorders/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Fully developed personalities are not present in DID, just varying expressions of different aspects of the patient's personality.

8.1-67. Recent estimates suggest that about 50 percent of those with DID have a. only two identities. b. two alters, in addition to the host identity. c. over ten identities. d. as many as two hundred identities. ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-67 Page Ref: 288 Topic: Dissociative Disorders/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. over ten identities.

8.1-68. What is one reason why the prevalence of DID has been increasing? a. Children in today's society are far more likely to experience severe trauma than they were in the past. b. DID has only recently received full acceptance from the psychiatric community and thus professionals are now using this diagnosis. c. As of 1980 most insurance companies had to accept DID as a billable diagnosis. d. It may be that the prevalence of DID has not changed at all, but that clinicians may unknowingly encourage the emergence of new identities.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-68 Page Ref: 288 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. It may be that the prevalence of DID has not changed at all, but that clinicians may unknowingly encourage the emergence of new identities.

8.1-69. Which of the following is an explanation for the increased prevalence of DID? a. Increased public awareness of DID. b. The increased incidence of verbal abuse. c. Changes in the diagnostic criteria for PTSD. d. Therapists can seek greater insurance reimbursement for DID patients.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-69 Page Ref: 289 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: a. Increased public awareness of DID. 8.1-70. Experimental studies of DID find that interpersonality amnesia exists for a. all types of memories. b. explicit memories. c. implicit memories. d. conditioned responses.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-70 Page Ref: 289 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: b. explicit memories.

8.1-71. Studies of the brains of individuals with DID a. find no differences in brain activity associated with different identities. b. support the assertion that DID is a real disorder. c. do not indicate any explanation for interpersonal amnesia. d. have provided no consistent findings.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-71 Page Ref: 290 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. support the assertion that DID is a real disorder.

8.1-72. There is debate as to the relationship between DID and abuse because a. few of those who develop DID have a history of abuse. b. there is little evidence of a link between trauma and psychopathology. c. other factors correlated with abuse may be the true causal factors in DID. d. most reports of abuse are faked.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-72 Page Ref: 289 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. other factors correlated with abuse may be the true causal factors in DID. 8.1-73. According to sociocognitive theory, a. the mind separates due to some traumatic experience and is never fully integrated, resulting in the multiple identities observed in DID. b. the alters in DID develop as a means of escaping from some form of trauma. c. DID has a factitious origin. d. DID may develop when a suggestive patient is treated by an overzealous clinician.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-73 Page Ref: 290 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. DID may develop when a suggestive patient is treated by an overzealous clinician.

8.1-74. Which of the following summarizes the post-traumatic theory for the origin of DID? a. Therapists unwittingly reinforce role-playing of alter identities. b. Genetically programmed tendencies to dissociate are triggered by stress. ..

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c. Children deal with severe abuse by creating alters who provide an "escape." d. The rewards of avoiding punishment from the legal system induces people to fake symptoms.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-74 Page Ref: 290 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Children deal with severe abuse by creating alters who provide an "escape."

8.1-75. Sociocognitive theory a. explains why symptoms of DID are often not seen until after treatment is initiated. b. explains why the number of alters is usually constant. c. can't account for the role that trauma appears to play in DID. d. does not explain the phenomenon of "lost time."

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-75 Page Ref: 290 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. explains why symptoms of DID are often not seen until after treatment is initiated.

8.1-76. A recent in-depth study by Lewis and colleagues of 12 convicted murderers diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder looked into their backgrounds. The study found strong evidence that a. each was a pathological liar long before showing signs of dissociative disorder. b. disordered thinking was associated with abnormal brain functioning. c. each was severely abused, both physically and sexually. d.each had vivid memories of being tortured and neglected by strangers.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-76 Page Ref: 292 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. each was severely abused, both physically and sexually.

8.1-77. An example of dissociative trance disorder is a. a person who enters into a trance state more than once. b. a person who believes that he or she can voluntarily be possessed by a spirit and enjoy allowing this to happen. c. a person who often feels as though the world around him or her isn't real, although he or she knows it is. d. a person who believes he or she is at times possessed by a spirit and is extremely upset because of this. ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.1-77 Page Ref: 293 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Sociocultural Factors in Dissociative Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. a person who believes he or she is at times possessed by a spirit and is extremely upset because of this.

8.1-78. When it comes to the effectiveness of treatment for dissociative disorders, we know a. very little. b. that medications are worthless, but that psychotherapy is quite effective. c. that depersonalization is much more effectively treated than amnesia. d. that antidepressant medications are most effective in treating dissociative identity disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-78 Page Ref: 295 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Treatment and Outcomes Skill: Factual Answer: a. very little.

8.1-79. The treatment goal for most therapists who treat dissociative identity disorder is a. acceptance of the alter personalities. b. reduction in the impact of distress and impairment. c. integration of the alter personalities. d.self-understanding of the causes for the alter personalities.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-79 Page Ref: 294 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Treatment and Outcomes Skill: Factual Answer: c. integration of the alter personalities.

8.1-80. Your textbook authors report that rigorously designed and controlled studies on the treatment of dissociative identity disorder a. have only examined psychodynamic forms of treatment. b. are widespread. c. demonstrate the effectiveness of cognitive-behavior therapy. d. are nonexistent.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.1-80 Page Ref: 294 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Treatment and Outcomes ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: d. are nonexistent.

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 8.2-1. When a person intentionally produces symptoms and is motivated by incentives, this is known as __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.2-1 Page Ref: 266 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?

Skill: Factual Answer: malingering 8.2-2. ______________is the term currently preferred by many researchers for the old term hypochondriasis.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.2-2 Page Ref: 268 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Hypochondriasis Skill: Factual Answer: Health anxiety disorder 8.2-3. _____________ is the disorder in which a person has many different physical symptoms from different areas of the body and the symptoms cannot be explained by medical findings.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.2-3 Page Ref: 269 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Somatization Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: Somatization disorder 8.2-4. ____________is the diagnosis given when a person has persistent and severe pain in one or more areas of the body, and it is not feigned or does not have medical causes.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.2-4 Page Ref: 272 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders/Pain Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: Pain disorder 8.2-5. When a person is preoccupied with certain aspects of his or her body and seems to be obsessed by some flaw, this is diagnosed as __________ in the DSM-IV..

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TR. Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.2-5 Page Ref: 277 Topic: What are Somatoform Disorders?/Body Dysmorphic Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: body dysmorphic disorder 8.2-6. The disorder that was formerly called multiple personality disorder is now called __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.2-6 Page Ref: 284 Topic: What are Dissociative Disorders?/DID Skill: Factual Answer: Dissociative identity disorder Short Answer Questions 8.3-1. Explain the difference between somatoform and dissociative disorders. Why are these disorders commonly considered at the same time?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.3-1 Page Ref: 266 Topic: Somatoform and Dissociative Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical complaints, thought to be manifestations of some psychological problem. In contrast, dissociative disorders involve some separation of the functioning of consciousness, memory, identity, or perception.

Again, the underlying cause for the observed distortions is some psychological abnormality. Both were once classified as neuroses and are thought to have anxiety as their underlying cause.

8.3-2. How do people with hypochondriasis typically relate to physicians?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.3-2 Page Ref: 266-268 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Hypochondriasis Skill: Applied Answer: They repeatedly visit physicians seeking medical advice, but their concerns that they have a dread illness are not reduced when the doctors find nothing wrong. In fact, they often are disappointed that no physical problem has been found.

8.3-3. Discuss two of the causal factors of hypochondriasis.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.3-3 Page Ref: 268 ..

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Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Hypochondriasis Skill: Factual Answer: 1. Misinterpretations of bodily sensations - overfocus on symptoms, perceiving them as more dangerous than they are, look for confirming evidence and discount disconfirming evidence. 2. Dysfunctional beliefs about themselves - believe will be unable to cope with illness, see self as weak and unable to tolerate exercise. 3. Secondary reinforcements - current and past history - special comfort, relieved of responsibilities.

8.3-4. Briefly describe somatization disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.3-4 Page Ref: 269 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Somatization Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: Somatization characterized by multiple complaints of physical ailments over a long period of time, with onset before the age of thirty. These physical symptoms cannot be adequately explained by organic causes and result in either medical treatment or significant life impairment. The patient must report pain symptoms at four different sites or involving different functions, two gastrointestinal symptoms, one sexual symptom, and one pseudoneurological symptom such as memory problems or loss of sensation.

8.3-5. Explain the difference between somatization disorder and hypochondriasis.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.3-5 Page Ref: 269-271 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Somatization Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: Only people with hypochondria believe they have an organic disease. People with hypochondria usually have only a few symptoms, people with somatization disorder have multiple symptoms.

8.3-6. Can a person who has an actual medical condition be diagnosed with pain disorder? Why or why not?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.3-6 Page Ref: 272-274 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Pain Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: In pain disorders, pain reports that are out of proportion to an established medical condition that might cause some pain. Another type is when there is no medical condition or its existence is of minimal causal significance in the pain complaint. But psychological factors must be important.

8.3-7. Distinguish between the primary and secondary gains experienced by those with conversion disorder.

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Question ID: 8.3-7 Page Ref: 273 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Conversion Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: Primary gains refer to the alleviation of anxiety or avoidance of stressful situations that results from the conversion symptoms. External "rewards" for the physical complaints experienced are those external factors that maintain the behaviors, such as sympathy and extra attention.

8.3-8. What factors tend to be associated with the onset of conversion disorder?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.3-8 Page Ref: 275 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Conversion Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: An individual typically experiences an intolerable stressor, has the fleeting thought that it would be desirable to be sick in order to escape dealing with the stressor, but immediately suppresses this thought as unacceptable. Conversion symptoms then develop and provide an escape from the unwanted situation, although the individual sees no connection between the situation and the symptoms. Guilt, self-punishment, and the opportunity for financial compensation following injury are also associated with the origin of conversion disorder.

8.3-9. What are some ways to distinguish between conversion disorder and a true physical problem?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.3-9 Page Ref: 276-277 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Conversion Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: Symptoms don't conform to the normal symptoms of the disorder, the selective nature of the dysfunction and symptoms can be changed under hypnosis or narcosis.

8.3-10. What is the difference between malingering and factitious disorder?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.3-10 Page Ref: 277-278 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Conversion Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: Both disorders involve the conscious faking of physical symptoms. The malingerer, however, has a clear reason for the faked symptoms, while the individual with factitious disorder apparently is making complaints for no apparent external cause.

The child who feigns illness to miss school is malingering, while the teen who adopts the "sick role" for the attention he gains may meet the diagnostic criteria for factitious disorder. ..

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8.3-11. What is the main goal of treatment for DID? Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.3-11 Page Ref: 294 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: The goal of treatment in DID is usually the reintegration of the alters. As DID develops due to a dissociation of aspects of the self, a true remission would involve a complete integration of the various identities into a cohesive whole.

Hypnosis is commonly used in an attempt to achieve this goal.

Essay Questions 8.4-1. Explain the similarities and the difference between conversion disorder, factitious disorder, and malingering.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.4-1 Page Ref: 266-267, 277-278 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?

Skill: Conceptual Answer: Similarities - all involve physical symptoms with no physical cause. All involve some gain. Differences - only in conversion disorder are the symptoms involuntary, in factitious and malingering the person is consciously faking. While all can involve gain, the main type of gain is different. In conversion disorder the main gain is avoiding or escaping a stressful situation without taking responsibility for doing so. In factitious disorder, the person enjoys the sick role. In malingering, the gain is typically monetary, e.g. a law suit. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points - 4 for similarities, 6 for differences.

8.4-2. Describe the biopsychosocial approach to body dysmorphic disorder.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 8.4-2 Page Ref: 280 Topic: What Are Somatoform Disorders?/Body Dysmorphic Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: Partially genetically based personality predisposition. Sociocultural context that places great value on attractiveness Acceptance of importance of attractiveness to self esteem, history of reinforcement or negative attention for appearance. Attentional and interpretive biases - more attention to emotional words relating to appearance and tendency to interpret ambiguous facial expressions as negative. GRADING RUBRIC – 10 points 8.4-3. What is dissociative fugue? Under what circumstances is this disorder likely to develop?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 8.4-3 ..

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Page Ref: 283-285 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Amnesia and Dissociative Fugue Skill: Factual Answer: Dissociative fugue has been described as a walking amnesia. In this form of amnesia, an individual not only forgets his or her history, but he or she also leaves. The individual with dissociative fugue may actually leave his or her home and begin a new life elsewhere with a new identity. Such an extreme means of dealing with anxiety is most commonly seen when faced with a situation that both intolerable and inescapable.

GRADING RUBRIC - 4 points for explaining disorder, 2 points for identifying when it occurs.

8.4-4. Discuss the various controversies surrounding the role of abuse in the development of DID. What evidence is there to suggest that abuse does play a causal role in DID? Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 8.4-4 Page Ref: 288-291 Topic: What Are Dissociative Disorders?/Dissociative Identity Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: While a history of abuse is often reported by those diagnosed with DID, it can only be said that abuse may play a nonspecific causal role on the development of DID. While abuse is common in those with DID, there are many other environmental factors that may accompany an abusive situation that may play a more significant role in DID. Furthermore, if abuse were the true "cause" of DID, it would be expected that DID would be even more common than it is. There is also the possibility that many of the reported cases of abuse by those with DID may not have actually occurred. Thus, while abuse is often frequently reported by those with DID, the conclusion that abuse plays a causal role is not warranted. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points - 2 for stating that abuse can't be said to play a causal role, 4 points each for two explanations of this conclusion.

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TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 9 Eating Disorders and Obesity

Topic

Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders

Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders

Multiple Choice (9.1) Blank (9.2-) Short Answer (9.3-) Essay (9.4-) Multiple Choice (9.1) Blank (9.2-)

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Short Answer (9.3-) Treatment of Eating Disorders

The Problem of Obesity

Risk and Causal Factors in Obesity

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Copyright © 2013 by Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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Chapter 9: Eating Disorders and Obesity Multiple-Choice Questions 9.1-1. Which of the following accounts for more morbidity and mortality than all eating disorders combined? a. anorexia nervosa b. bulimia nervosa c. binge-eating disorder d. obesity Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-1 Page Ref: 300 Topic: Eating Disorders and Obesity Skill: Factual Answer: d. obesity 9.1-2. Which of the following is not a condition found in the DSM? a. Anorexia nervosa b. Bulimia nervosa c. Binge-eating disorder d. Obesity Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-2 Page Ref: 300 Topic: Eating Disorders and Obesity Skill: Factual Answer: d. obesity 9.1-3. Which of the following is a controversial aspect of the diagnostic criteria for anorexia nervosa? a. Refusal to maintain normal body weight b. Distorted perception of body size and shape c. Amenorrhea d. Denial Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-3 Page Ref: 301 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Anorexia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: c. Amenorrhea 9.1-4. Which of the following is characteristic of the binge-eating/purging type of anorexia? a. The use of laxatives b. 30 to 50 percent of those who begin by binge-eating and purging become ..

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restricting type anorexics c. Body weight is within normal range d. Efforts to restrict food intake Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-4 Page Ref: 302 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Anorexia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: a. The use of laxatives 9.1-5. Andrea has anorexia nervosa, restricting type. Which of the following behaviors would you expect her to have? a. Self-induced vomiting b. Cutting up her food into little pieces when she eats c. Normal menstrual periods d. Occasional bouts of overeating Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-5 Page Ref: 302 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Anorexia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: b. Cutting up her food into little pieces when she eats 9.1-6. Cindy is 5 ' 6" tall and weighs 92 pounds. She is very concerned about her weight. However, at times she finds herself eating large amounts of food - several boxes of cookies, gallons of ice cream, entire cakes - all in an evening. Afterwards, she makes herself throw up. Cindy's most likely diagnosis is a. bulimia nervosa, purging type. b. anorexia nervosa, binge-eating/purging type. c. anorexia nervosa, restricting type. d. no disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-6 Page Ref: 302 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Anorexia Nervosa Skill: Applied Answer: b. anorexia nervosa, binge-eating/purging type.

9.1-7. Which of the following is a potential consequence of anorexia nervosa? a. Memory loss b. Excessive hair growth c. Hearing and vision impairment d. Death Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-7 Page Ref: 302 ..

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Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Anorexia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: d. Death 9.1-8. How do you distinguish between the binge-eating/purging type of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa, purging type? a. The bulimic type involves throwing up, and the anorexic type involves fasting. b. Altered eating and exercise habits result in missed periods in the bulimic type only. c. The bulimic type results in more severe health consequences than the anorexic type. d. People with the bulimic type are normal weight, people with the anorexic type are underweight.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-8 Page Ref: 303 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Bulimia Nervosa Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. People with the bulimic type are normal weight, people with the anorexic type are underweight.

9.1-9. Which of the following do those with anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa have in common? a. Fear of being or becoming fat b. A sense of control c. Below normal weight d. Restricted eating Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-9 Page Ref: 303 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Bulimia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: a. Fear of being or becoming fat 9.1-10. In order to make a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, the client must a. have a distorted body image. b. not meet the criteria for anorexia nervosa. c. have missed three consecutive menstrual periods. d. admit that she has a problem.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-10 Page Ref: 304 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Bulimia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: b. not meet the criteria for anorexia nervosa. ..

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9.1-11. Someone who binges and purges and is severely underweight is diagnosed as anorexic, not bulimic. Treating physicians must be precise with this diagnosis because a. the patient will eventually stop bingeing and purging and start fasting. b. anorexia is considered the more reliable diagnosis. c. anorexia has a much higher death rate than bulimia. d. bingeing and purging are not considered very important symptoms.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-11 Page Ref: 304 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Bulimia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: c. anorexia has a much higher death rate than bulimia.

9.1-12. Elena binges on high calorie foods and then makes herself throw up. She feels terribly ashamed and horrified by what she does. You would predict a. she will stop making herself throw up because she is ashamed and distressed. b. she will not stop because her vomiting is reinforced by reducing her fear of gaining weight. c. she will stop because her vomiting is being punished by the feelings of disgust and shame. d. she will not stop because she has become physiologically addicted to vomiting.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-12 Page Ref: 304 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Bulimia Nervosa Skill: Applied Answer: b. she will not stop because her vomiting is reinforced by reducing her fear of gaining weight.

9.1-13. The mindset of people with bulimia and people with anorexia a. is basically the same. b. is very different - people with anorexia eventually become satisfied with their weight loss and people with bulimia never do. c. is very different - people with bulimia don't seem bothered by other people's opinion (usually distress) about them and people with anorexia are very concerned and will do their best to hide their disorder. d. is very different - people with anorexia don't seem bothered by other people's opinion (usually distress) about them and people with bulimia are very concerned and will do their best to hide their disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-13 Page Ref: 304 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Bulimia Nervosa Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. is very different - people with anorexia don't seem bothered by other people's ..

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opinion (usually distress) about them and people with bulimia are very concerned and will do their best to hide their disorder.

9.1-14. The text presented the case of Nicole, a college student with bulimia nervosa.

She is typical of such individuals because she a. had suffered few health problems. b. had few thoughts of food except when she was eating. c. experienced shame, guilt, and self-deprecation. d. did not realize that her eating habits were abnormal.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-14 Page Ref: 304 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Bulimia Nervosa Skill: Applied Answer: c. experienced shame, guilt, and self-deprecation.

9.1-15. Raquel has occasions when she eats enormous amounts of food in a short time. Afterwards, she will refuse to eat anything solid for a couple of days. Her weight fluctuates but is normal. Her most likely diagnosis is a. anorexia nervosa, binge-purging type. b. anorexia nervosa, restricting type. c. bulimia nervosa, purging type. d. bulimia nervosa, nonpurging type.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-15 Page Ref: 304 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Bulimia Nervosa Skill: Applied Answer: d. bulimia nervosa, nonpurging type.

9.1-16. In her mid-thirties, Cheryl became preoccupied with her weight and began dieting and exercising. After losing a substantial amount of weight, she was still not happy with how she looked and continued to restrict her food intake. After several fainting spells resulting from her low calorie intake, her employer referred her to a clinician who recognized the signs of anorexia nervosa. Which of the following is unique about Cheryl's case? a. Eating disorders rarely start during the mid-thirties. b. The likelihood of anorexia being so readily recognized and diagnosed is slim. c. Few women with anorexia exercise. d. A diagnosis of anorexia is rarely made before the condition becomes lifethreatening.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-16 Page Ref: 307 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Age of Onset and Gender Differences Skill: Applied ..

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Answer: a. Eating disorders rarely start during the mid-thirties.

9.1-17. Which of the following has been identified as a risk factor for eating disorders in men? a. Heterosexuality b. Bicycling c. Wrestling d. Painting Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-17 Page Ref: 308 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/World Around Us Skill: Factual Answer: c. Wrestling 9.1-18. Felicia has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa, purging type. We should expect that she a. strongly denies that she has a serious disorder. b. is unconcerned about becoming fat. c. experiences electrolyte imbalances and mineral deficiencies. d. is less than 85 percent of normal body weight but still considers herself "fat."

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-18 Page Ref: 309 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Medical Complications of Eating Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: c. experiences electrolyte imbalances and mineral deficiencies.

9.1-19. Lanugo a. is a soft hair that grows on the body of people with anorexia. b. is another name for an eating binge. c. is the term for the stopping of a woman's menstrual periods. d. is the lack of concern people with anorexia show about their condition.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-19 Page Ref: 309 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Medical Complications of Eating Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. is a soft hair that grows on the body of people with anorexia.

9.1-20. A common sign of bulimia nervosa, purging type is a. lanugo. b. intolerance to cold. c. kidney failure. d. damaged teeth and mouth ulcers.

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Question ID: 9.1-20 Page Ref: 310 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Medical Complications of Eating Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. damaged teeth and mouth ulcers.

9.1-21. Ellen is underweight but not less than 85 percent of normal body weight. She often restricts her eating because she is intensely fearful of becoming fat. She binges and purges at least twice a week. According to the DSM-IV-TR she should be diagnosed a. with anorexia nervosa, binge/purge subtype. b. with Eating Disorder Not Otherwise Specified. c. with Binge Eating Disorder. d. with no form of eating disorder since her symptoms do not fit anorexia or bulimia.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-21 Page Ref: 305 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Other Forms of Eating Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: b. with Eating Disorder Not Otherwise Specified.

9.1-22. Delilah is less than 85 percent of normal body weight. She restricts her eating and is intensely fearful of becoming fat. Despite her emaciated appearance, she appears to have lots of energy, has normal menstrual cycles, and dates regularly.

According to the DSM-IV-TR she should be diagnosed a. with anorexia nervosa, restricting subtype. b. with anorexia nervosa, undifferentiated subtype. c. with Eating Disorder Not Otherwise Specified. d. with no form of eating disorder since her symptoms do not fit anorexia or bulimia.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-22 Page Ref: 305 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Other Forms of Eating Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: c. with Eating Disorder Not Otherwise Specified.

9.1-23. Binge-eating disorder a. is an extremely rare variant of bulimia nervosa. b. is diagnosed when a person binges and then purges by using laxatives or selfinduced vomiting. c. cannot be diagnosed if a person is overweight. d. involves binges comparable to those in bulimia but without any inappropriate "compensatory" behavior to limit weight gain.

Difficulty: 1 ..

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Question ID: 9.1-23 Page Ref: 305 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Other Forms of Eating Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. involves binges comparable to those in bulimia but without any inappropriate "compensatory" behavior to limit weight gain.

9.1-24. Binge-eating disorder a. is the eating disorder diagnosis most recently added to the DSM. b. has not yet been formally recognized as a distinct clinical syndrome. c. usually develops into anorexia, binge-eating/purging subtype. d. is more common in males than in females.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-24 Page Ref: 305 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Other Forms of Eating Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. has not yet been formally recognized as a distinct clinical syndrome.

9.1-25. What is unique about binge-eating disorder (BED) as compared to the eating disorders currently found in the DSM? a. Those with BED are commonly of normal body weight. b. The gender difference in its prevalence is minimal. c. It develops earlier in life than other eating disorders. d. Few of those with BED develop weight-related health problems.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-25 Page Ref: 305 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Other Forms of Eating Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. The gender difference in its prevalence is minimal.

9.1-26. Which statement about the diagnosis of eating disorders is accurate? a. A person meeting the criteria for bulimia rarely, if ever, has been diagnosed with anorexia. b. There is quite a lot of diagnostic crossover in eating disorders. c. Although the symptoms of anorexia and bulimia do not overlap, women with eating disorders often have other diagnosable psychiatric conditions. d. Although anorexia and bulimia are quite similar, women with eating disorders rarely have a comorbid psychological condition.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-26 Page Ref: 311 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Diagnostic Crossover Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. There is quite a lot of diagnostic crossover in eating disorders. ..

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9.1-27. What disorders are often comorbid with eating disorders? a. post-traumatic stress disorder and depression b. panic disorder and personality disorders c. generalized anxiety disorder and substance abuse d. depression and personality disorders Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-27 Page Ref: 311 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Association with Other Forms of Psychopathology Skill: Factual Answer: d. depression and personality disorders 9.1-28. Which of the following complicates the study of personality traits and eating disorders? a. Personality disorders are always seen in those with eating disorders. b. Personality may be altered by malnourishment. c. Eating disorders may merely be a symptom of a personality disorder. d. Both personality disorders and eating disorders are highly subjective diagnostic categories, thus the collection of empirical data is tainted by the nature of these conditions.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-28 Page Ref: 312 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Association with Other Forms of Psychopathology Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Personality may be altered by malnourishment.

9.1-29. Ginger suffers from anorexia. She is often angry and irritable. These feelings a. may be the result of her starving herself. b. were probably modeled by her father and mother. c. suggest that she does not suffer from "neuroticism." d. must have predated the onset of the anorexia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-29 Page Ref: 312 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Association with Other Forms of Psychopathology Skill: Applied Answer: a. may be the result of her starving herself.

9.1-30. Which of the following statements about the prevalence of eating disorders in the 20th century is true? a. While the incidence of anorexia has been increasing, the incidence of bulimia ..

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seems to be declining. b. While there is no evidence to indicate that the incidence of anorexia has been changing, the incidence of bulimia has been declining. c. While the incidence of anorexia has been increasing, there is no evidence to suggest a change in the incidence of bulimia. d. While there is no evidence to indicate that the incidence of anorexia has been changing, bulimia appears to be increasing in frequency.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-30 Page Ref: 307 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Prevalence of Eating Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. While the incidence of anorexia has been increasing, the incidence of bulimia seems to be declining.

9.1-31. Which of the following is likely to put whites at higher risk of developing an eating disorder than non-whites? a. Body dissatisfaction b. Living in an industrialized society c. Fear of stomach bloating d. Desire to please the family Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-31 Page Ref: 312 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Eating Disorders Across Cultures Skill: Factual Answer: a. Body dissatisfaction 9.1-32. Rates of eating disorders tend to be much lower in black women than in white women. However, one factor that can increase risk in black women is a. their age - younger black women have higher rates of eating disorders than older. b. assimilation into white culture and middle class values. c. their weight - very overweight black women have the same rates of eating disorders as whites do. d. whether they were recent immigrants.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-32 Page Ref: 312 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Eating Disorders Across Cultures Skill: Factual Answer: b. assimilation into white culture and middle class values.

9.1-33. Which of the following characterizes most anorexia nervosa patients in Asia? a. Previously diagnosed with bulimia nervosa b. Excessive fear of being fat ..

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c. Fear of stomach bloating d. Severe depression and anxiety Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-33 Page Ref: 312 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Eating Disorders Across Cultures Skill: Factual Answer: c. Fear of stomach bloating 9.1-34. What is the prognosis for anorexia nervosa? a. Relapse rates are high, but recovery can often happen in the long run. b. Most people improve fairly quickly and don't relapse. c. Anorexia has an excellent recovery rate, but the other disorders don't. d. The prognosis is extremely poor, with few recovering from it.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-34 Page Ref: 310 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Course and Outcome Skill: Factual Answer: a. Relapse rates are high but recovery can often happen in the long run.

9.1-35. In studies of the long-term outcomes of women treated for eating disorders, which of the following predicted poor outcomes for those diagnosed with anorexia or bulimia? a. Depression b. Presence of a personality disorder c. Substance abuse d. OCD Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-35 Page Ref: 310 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Course and Outcome Skill: Factual Answer: c. Substance abuse 9.1-36. Which of the following statements about the role of genetics as a risk factor for eating disorders is true? a. While the gene underlying the restrictive type of anorexia nervosa has been identified, the role of genes in the development of other forms of eating disorders is not clear. b. The lack of adoption studies has made it impossible to determine the heritability of eating disorders. c. Due to the complex nature of eating disorders and the probability that multiple genes contribute to their development, a role for genes in such disorders has yet to be established. d. Although the findings to date are mixed, the evidence does indicate that a ..

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susceptibility to eating disorders may be inherited along with a diathesis for other psychological conditions.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 9.1-36 Page Ref: 314 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Biological Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Although the findings to date are mixed, the evidence does indicate that a susceptibility to eating disorders may be inherited along with a diathesis for other psychological conditions.

9.1-37. What neurotransmitter seems to be involved in both eating disorders and depression? a. Dopamine b. Serotonin c. GABA d. Norepinephrine Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-37 Page Ref: 314 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Biological Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. Serotonin 9.1-38. According to set-point theory a. anorexics have successfully adjusted their bodies to a new lower set-point. b. hunger serves to maintain the body at its established set-point. c. behavioral means of altering body weight can never overcome the body's ability to compensate physiologically. d. the body weight that is maintained in the absence of dieting is the one at which health is maximized.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-38 Page Ref: 315 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Biological Factors Skill: Applied Answer: b. hunger serves to maintain the body at its established set-point.

9.1-39. Set-point theory explains why a. losing those last few pounds is easier than losing the first few. b. the desire for fatty high calorie foods decreases over time when deprived of food. c. binge eating is likely after a period of caloric restriction. d. serotonin levels change with fasting.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-39 ..

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Page Ref: 315 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Biological Factors Skill: Applied Answer: c. binge eating is likely after a period of caloric restriction.

9.1-40. Set-point theory about weight suggests that a. dieting can establish a new set-point that stabilizes the near-starvation seen in people with anorexia. b. people with anorexia are biologically programmed to be underweight. c. the hunger that occurs by being well below one's set-point can trigger binges. d. sociocultural factors play very little role in the development of unrealistic body image goals.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-40 Page Ref: 315 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Biological Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. the hunger that occurs by being well below one's set-point can trigger binges.

9.1-41. A dysfunction in which of the following neurotransmitters has been observed in both anorexics and bulimics? a. Dopamine b. Epinephrine c. GABA d. Serotonin Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-41 Page Ref: 315 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Biological Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. Serotonin 9.1-42. One of the reasons it is difficult to know if a disruption in the serotonin system causes eating disorders is a. research has not supported the theory. b. people with eating disorders often have depression as well. c. serotonin doesn't seem to have anything to do with appetite or eating behaviors. d. after recovery from eating disorders, serotonin levels don't change.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 9.1-42 Page Ref: 315 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Biological Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. people with eating disorders often have depression as well.

9.1-43. The influence of television on the attitudes toward eating in Fiji demonstrate ..

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that a. biological factors play a minimal role in the etiology of eating disorders. b. environmental factors can alter societal attitudes such that the risk of developing eating disorders is increased. c. definitions of beauty are not changed over time. d. there is no relationship between physical standards of beauty and desirable personality traits.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-43 Page Ref: 315 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Sociocultural Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. environmental factors can alter societal attitudes such that the risk of developing eating disorders is increased.

9.1-44. Families of people with anorexia a. do not have any characteristic features. b. tend to provide few rules and limits. c. exhibit tendencies towards perfectionism. d. emphasize individuality.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-44 Page Ref: 316 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Family Influences Skill: Factual Answer: c. exhibit tendencies towards perfectionism.

9.1-45. Which of the following is most commonly found in families of girls with anorexia? a. Parents who are unconventional, dramatic, and antisocial. b. Parents who emphasize rules, control, and good physical appearance. c. Sibling rivalry that breaks out into physical and verbal aggression. d. Children who reduce psychological tension in the family by dominating their parents.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-45 Page Ref: 316 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Family Influences Skill: Applied Answer: b. Parents who emphasize rules, control, and good physical appearance.

9.1-46. Which of the following is the strongest predictor of a person developing bulimic symptoms? a. The amount of control families tried to have over the person b. The degree of overprotectiveness parents displayed c. The amount of marital conflict between the parents ..

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d. The amount of critical comments family members made about the person's appearance Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-46 Page Ref: 315-316 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Sociocultural Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. The amount of critical comments family members made about the person's appearance 9.1-47. The most common quality of parents' interactions with their daughters who have eating disorders is a. unconditional love and acceptance. b. neglect. c. control. d. lack of direction and rules.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-47 Page Ref: 316 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Family Influences Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. control.

9.1-48. Internalizing the "thin ideal" is strongly associated with a. body satisfaction. b. negative affect. c. recovery from eating disorders. d. attitudes about interpersonal relationships.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-48 Page Ref: 317 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Individual Risk Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. negative affect.

9.1-49. A lack of body distortions among the Amish a. provides evidence against a role for sociocultural factors in the development of eating disorders. b. indicates that the Amish do not value physical beauty. c. suggests that the influence of the Western media is not as great as commonly perceived. d. suggests that there should be a low prevalence of eating disorders among these peoples.

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Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Individual Risk Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. suggests that there should be a low prevalence of eating disorders among these peoples.

9.1-50. When it comes to comparing one's actual body image with the ideal body, a. young men are just as likely to see themselves as too fat as young women. b. most young women want a body that is more "curved" than the mediaencouraged ideal. c. young women often falsely believe that men prefer larger women than they actually do. d. young women are more likely to be dissatisfied than young men.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-50 Page Ref: 317 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Individual Risk Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. young women are more likely to be dissatisfied than young men.

9.1-51. Which statement best describes trends in actual and ideal weight in American young women? a. While the weight of the average woman is decreasing, the average weight of the ideal woman is decreasing even faster. b. While the weight of the average woman is increasing, the average weight of the ideal woman is decreasing. c. While the weight of the average woman is increasing, the average weight of the ideal woman is increasing even faster. d. Weight of the average woman doesn't seem to be affected by the average weight of the ideal woman.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-51 Page Ref: 317-318 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Individual Risk Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. While the weight of the average woman is increasing, the average weight of the ideal woman is decreasing.

9.1-52. What is the link between dieting and eating disorders? a. Dieting is a risk factor for both anorexia and bulimia. b. Dieting is a risk factor for bulimia. c. Dieting is not a risk factor for the development of eating disorder. d. When done properly, dieting seems to decrease eating disorder symptoms for a while and then leads to a sharp increase in symptoms.

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Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Individual Risk Factors Skill: Factual Answer: a. Dieting is a risk factor for both anorexia and bulimia.

9.1-53. Which of the following appears to be an enduring personality trait of people who are susceptible to developing an eating disorder? a. Neuroticism b. Perfectionism c. Pessimism d. Individualism Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-53 Page Ref: 317 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Individual Risk Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. Perfectionism 9.1-54. Which of the following statements best summarizes the relationship between sexual abuse and the development of eating disorders? a. There appears to be a relationship, but it appears to be indirect, involving an array of intervening variables. b. There is no relationship between early sexual abuse and the development of eating disorders later in life. c. Early sexual abuse may lead to a denial of one's sexuality and a desire to maintain a child-like appearance, resulting in attempts to prevent the development of a more mature figure through dieting. d. While sexual abuse has been found to increase the risk of developing anorexia, no relationship has been observed between abuse and other eating disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-54 Page Ref: 319-320 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Individual Risk Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. There appears to be a relationship, but it appears to be indirect, involving an array of intervening variables.

9.1-55. What is the most serious challenge in treating eating disorders? a. Making a diagnosis before the disorder becomes life threatening b. Engaging the family in the treatment process c. Finding an effective pharmacological treatment d. Overcoming the patient's ambivalence toward treatment Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-55 Page Ref: 320 Topic: Treatment of Eating Disorders Skill: Conceptual ..

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Answer: d. Overcoming the patient's ambivalence toward treatment 9.1-56. After her dentist commented on the damage her practice of vomiting had caused to her teeth, Hilda realized that she had a problem. After seeing a psychiatrist, Hilda was diagnosed with anorexia, binge-eating/purging sub-type. Due to the severity of her condition, her doctor suggested that she be hospitalized. Hilda immediately entered an inpatient treatment program and embraced all aspects of the treatment regimen. What is unique about Hilda's case? a. Dental problems are not seen in those with anorexia. b. Psychiatrists rarely suggest hospitalization for this type of anorexia. c. Hilda's lack of ambivalence about treatment. d. The failure to use outpatient treatment before hospitalization.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-56 Page Ref: 321 Topic: Treatment of Eating Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: c. Hilda's lack of ambivalence about treatment.

9.1-57. Which of the following best explains the lack of well-controlled studies on the effectiveness of treatment for anorexia nervosa? a. Few people with anorexia who are in treatment are willing to participate with bulimics. b. Few people with anorexia achieve full remission. c. The high mortality rate with anorexia results in sample sizes too small to yield valid conclusions. d. Few people with anorexia are willing to seek treatment, and they are likely to drop out prematurely from treatment.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-57 Page Ref: 321 Topic: Treatment of Eating Disorders/Treatment of Anorexia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: d. Few people with anorexia are willing to seek treatment, and they are likely to drop out prematurely from treatment.

9.1-58. Which statement about the treatment of eating disorders is most accurate? a. There are very few options available in the treatment of eating disorders. b. Family support and the patient's commitment to change are important to lasting recovery. c. There are virtually no situations in which hospitalization is necessary to treat eating disorders. d. Family involvement in treatment tends to undercut the chances of lasting recovery in the patient.

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Page Ref: 322 Topic: Treatment of Eating Disorders/Treatment of Anorexia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: b. Family support and the patient's commitment to change are important to lasting recovery.

9.1-59. In the treatment of eating disorders, medications a. have proven to be especially helpful in treating patients with anorexia. b. may be useful in treating depressive and psychotic symptoms, but are not a primary treatment. c. are commonly used to stimulate appetite. d. have been found to be more effective than most psychological interventions.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-59 Page Ref: 321 Topic: Treatment of Eating Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: b. may be useful in treating depressive and psychotic symptoms, but are not a primary treatment.

9.1-60. Why is family therapy currently being investigated as a treatment for anorexia? a. Family therapy has been found to be the most effective form of therapy for bulimia. b. Healthier family relationships have been found to affect treatment outcome. c. The well-established role of the family in the development of eating disorders necessitates the involvement of the family in their treatment. d. CBT and other forms of individual psychotherapy have been found to be ineffective.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-60 Page Ref: 321 Topic: Treatment of Eating Disorders/Treatment of Anorexia Nervosa Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Healthier family relationships have been found to affect treatment outcome.

9.1-61. Which of the following best explains why cognitive-behavioral therapy is a logical approach to the treatment of eating disorders? a. It is the therapy of choice for most disorders. b. The role of learning in the development of eating disorders is well-established. c. Medical interventions have proven ineffective. d. Both thoughts and behaviors need to be altered to achieve a lasting outcome.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-61 Page Ref: 322 Topic: Treatment of Eating Disorders/Treatment of Anorexia Nervosa and ..

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Bulimia Nervosa Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Both thoughts and behaviors need to be altered to achieve a lasting outcome.

9.1-62. Research suggests that ________ provides the best immediate and long-term outcomes in the treatment of bulimia nervosa. a. Systematic desensitization b. Family therapy c. Antidepressant medication d. Cognitive-behavioral therapy Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-62 Page Ref: 322 Topic: Treatment of Eating Disorders/Treatment of Bulimia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: d. Cognitive-behavioral therapy 9.1-63. Family therapy for anorexia appears to be most effective when it is used to treat a. adolescents. b. adults. c. men. d. those with comorbid depressive and/or anxiety symptoms.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-63 Page Ref: 322 Topic: Treatment of Eating Disorders/Treatment of Anorexia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: a. adolescents.

9.1-64. Which of the following is an effect of antidepressants on symptoms of bulimia nervosa ? a. Decreased mood. b. Decreased appetite. c. Lessened preoccupation with physical appearance. d. Increased frequency of binges.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-64 Page Ref: 323 Topic: Treatment of Eating Disorders/Treatment of Bulimia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: c. Lessened preoccupation with physical appearance.

9.1-65. Our current knowledge of the efficacy of treating eating disorders a. is quite thorough because there are many controlled studies comparing longterm outcomes. ..

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b. is much more detailed for anorexia nervosa than for bulimia nervosa. c. suggests that hospitalization is most effective for long-term maintenance of treatment gains. d. suggests that cognitive-behavioral therapy is the treatment of choice.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-65 Page Ref: 323 Topic: Treatment of Eating Disorders/Treatment of Bulimia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: d. suggests that cognitive-behavioral therapy is the treatment of choice.

9.1-66. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be addressed in the treatment of binge eating disorder? a. Body dissatisfaction b. Illogical food rules c. Misconceptions about overweight people d. Idealization of low body weight Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-66 Page Ref: 324 Topic: Treatment of Eating Disorders/Treatment of Binge-Eating Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: d. Idealization of low body weight 9.1-67. In addition to altering the eating patterns of clients with Binge Eating Disorder, therapists using cognitive-behavioral therapy will also a. teach the clients to be greater risk-takers. b. educate the clients that fat people have certain character flaws. c. provide factual information about eating and dieting. d. help the client to emotionally separate from her family.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-67 Page Ref: 324 Topic: Treatment of Eating Disorders/Treatment of Binge-Eating Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. provide factual information about eating and dieting.

9.1-68. Obesity a. is more common in men than in women. b. rates vary little across Western cultures. c. is culturally defined. d. has been increasing in many countries, including the United States.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-68 Page Ref: 326 Topic: Obesity ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: d. has been increasing in many countries, including the United States.

9.1-69. In which of the following countries are at least one-third of adults obese? a. China b. Japan c. United Kingdom d. United States Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-69 Page Ref: 325 Topic: Obesity Skill: Factual Answer: d. United States 9.1-70. What is the relationship between obesity and social class? a. There is none. b. Obesity occurs much more frequently in lower SES adults and children. c. Obesity occurs much more frequently in lower SES adults but higher SES children. d. Obesity occurs much more frequently in higher SES adults and children.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-70 Page Ref: 328 Topic: Obesity Skill: Factual Answer: b. Obesity occurs much more frequently in lower SES adults and children.

9.1-71. Which of the following is a danger associated with obesity? a. Asthma. b. Cancer. c. Low blood pressure. d. Joint disease.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-71 Page Ref: 325 Topic: Obesity Skill: Factual Answer: a. asthma.

9.1-72. Which of the following statements about obesity and health is true? a. The heavier the person, the greater the health risks. b. Only when obesity has a behavioral cause is it dangerous. c. Individuals who are obese, but active, are not at a higher risk of cardiovascular disease. d. Obesity is only a threat to health in cultures where the obesity is due to the ..

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consumption of fatty foods and relative inactivity.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-72 Page Ref: 326 Topic: Obesity Skill: Factual Answer: a. The heavier the person, the greater the health risks.

9.1-73. Which of the following factors is associated with an increased risk for obesity? a. High socioeconomic status b. Living in an Asian culture c. Being well-cared-for as a child d. Low parental education Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-73 Page Ref: 333 Topic: Obesity Skill: Factual Answer: d. Low parental education 9.1-74. Which of the following best explains the current trend in the prevalence of obesity? a. Obesity is no longer a factor that decreases survival, thus genes for obesity are becoming more prevalent in the general population b. The tendency to underfeed children who then overeat as adults c. The adoption of unhealthy life styles d. The popularity of dieting Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-74 Page Ref: 328 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Obesity/Sociocultural Influences Skill: Factual Answer: c. The adoption of unhealthy life styles 9.1-75. Leptin a. is a hormone that usually leads to decreased food intake. b. is a hormone that is a promising new treatment for obesity. c. is a hormone that helps the body regain its set-point. d. is a hormone that is an appetite stimulator.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-75 Page Ref: 327 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Obesity/Hormones Involved in Appetite and Weight Regulation Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: a. is a hormone that usually leads to decreased food intake.

9.1-76. Grehlin a. is a hormone that usually leads to decreased food intake. b. is a hormone that is a promising new treatment for obesity. c. is a hormone that helps the body regain its set-point. d. is a hormone that is an appetite stimulator.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-76 Page Ref: 328 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Obesity/Hormones Involved in Appetite and Weight Regulation Skill: Factual Answer: d. is a hormone that is an appetite stimulator.

9.1-77. Why are family attitudes about obesity important? a. Because they reflect the genetic influences on obesity b. Because they will cause people to be happier when obese c. Because the consequences are likely to remain with us d. They aren't - peer influence is more important Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-77 Page Ref: 329 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Obesity/Family Influences Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Because the consequences are likely to remain with us 9.1-78. Comfort food a. does nothing physiologically, any effects are due to expectation. b. may help reduce activation in the stress response system. c. changes the hormonal balance of the body and makes people want to eat more. d. affects the brain in such a way as to make it unable to tell when the body is full.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-78 Page Ref: 330 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Obesity/Stress and "Comfort Food" Skill: Factual Answer: b. may help reduce activation in the stress response system.

9.1-79. What cyclical pathway can develop that eventually leads to obesity? a. A child stops eating because of low self-esteem, becomes anorexic and then is successfully treated but still has negative feelings about her- or himself. b. A thin child eats normally but is teased about his or her weight and begins to diet further. c. A child eats because of feelings of depression and low self-esteem, gains weight, is rejected by peers, binges, and continues to gain weight. ..

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d. A thin child binges because of depression and low self-esteem, purges and feels better, then feels safe to binge again, eating more later.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.1-79 Page Ref: 330 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Obesity/Pathways to Obesity Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. A child eats because of feelings of depression and low self-esteem, gains weight, is rejected by peers, binges, and continues to gain weight.

9.1-80. Which of the following is a medication currently approved by the FDA for use in the treatment of obesity? a. Amphetamine b. Phentermine c. Fenfluramine d. Sibutramine Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-80 Page Ref: 332 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Obesity/Treatment of Obesity Skill: Factual Answer: d. Sibutramine 9.1-81. Orlistat, which works by interfering with the absorption of fat, a. works very well for obesity. b. works very well for extreme obesity but not regular obesity. c. works modestly well for obesity. d. results have been uncertain.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-81 Page Ref: 332 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Obesity/Treatment of Obesity Skill: Factual Answer: c. works modestly well for obesity.

9.1-82. Sibutramine acts to reduce appetite by a. increasing the activity of serotonin and norepinephrine. b. decreasing the activity of serotonin and norepinephrine. c. blocking receptors for serotonin and norepinephrine. d. interfering with digestion.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-82 Page Ref: 332 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Obesity/Treatment of Obesity Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. increasing the activity of serotonin and norepinephrine. ..

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9.1-83. After bariatric surgery, a. patients stay normal weight the rest of their lives. b. some patients do not lose any weight. c. most patients do not survive. d. some patients regain their weight, but most lose a great deal of weight.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-83 Page Ref: 332 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Obesity/Treatment of Obesity Skill: Factual Answer: d. some patients regain their weight, but most lose a great deal of weight.

9.1-84. Gastric bypass surgery makes it a. possible to binge and not gain weight. b. slightly more likely that people will lose weight. c. impossible to regain weight once it is lost. d. impossible to binge eat but still possible to regain weight.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.1-84 Page Ref: 332 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Obesity/Treatment of Obesity Skill: Factual Answer: d. impossible to binge eat, but still possible to regain weight.

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 9.2-1. Three types of purging behavior that people with bulimia may engage in are __________ , laxative abuse, or excessive exercise.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.2-1 Page Ref: 301 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorder/Anorexia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: vomiting 9.2-2. ____________is the most common form of eating disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.2-2 Page Ref: 305 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Prevalence of Eating Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: Binge-eating disorder 9.2-3. The neurotransmitter called __________ is implicated in obesity. ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.2-3 Page Ref: 315 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Biological Factors Skill: Factual Answer: serotonin 9.2-4. For adolescents with anorexia nervosa, the best studied family therapy approach is known as the __________ model.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.2-4 Page Ref: 321 Topic: Treatment of Eating Disorders/Treatment of Anorexia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: Maudsley 9.2-5. The hormone __________ is the hormone produced by the stomach that stimulates appetite.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.2-5 Page Ref: 328 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Obesity/Hormones Involved in Appetite and Weight Regulation Skill: Factual Answer: grehlin 9.2-6. The hormone __________ reduces our intake of food.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.2-6 Page Ref: 327 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Obesity/Hormones Involved in Appetite and Weight Regulation Skill: Factual Answer: leptin Short Answer Questions 9.3-1. Why is the term "anorexia nervosa" a misnomer?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.3-1 Page Ref: 300 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Anorexia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: The term "anorexia nervosa" literally means a lack of appetite. The individual with anorexia nervosa does not lack an appetite. The true problem with the anorexic is a fear of gaining weight, which leads to not eating, as opposed to a true lack of desire for food. ..

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9.3-2. What most clearly separates the anorexic from the bulimic?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 9.3-2 Page Ref: 303 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Bulimia Nervosa Skill: Applied Answer: While the binge-eating/purging anorexic and the bulimic may share many features, the clear factor that distinguishes the two is the below normal weight that is a defining feature of anorexia.

9.3-3. What are the differences between binge-eating disorder and bulimia nervosa?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.3-3 Page Ref: 305 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Other Forms of Eating Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: People with binge-eating disorder have food binges like people with bulimia but don't do any compensatory behaviors. They don't restrict their diet between binges as much as people with bulimia. People with binge-eating disorder tend to be older than people with bulimia and are more likely to be overweight or obese.

9.3-4. What puts whites at higher risk for eating disorders as compared to nonwhites?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.3-4 Page Ref: 310 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Course and Outcome Skill: Factual Answer: Research finds that whites show much more body dissatisfaction, dietary restraint, and a drive for thinness than their non-white counterparts. Clearly, these are all factors that set the stage for the development of abnormal eating patterns and, possibly, diagnosable eating disorders.

9.3-5. There is evidence of serotonergic abnormalities in anorexics and bulimics.

Can it be concluded that a dysfunction in the serotonin system underlies these eating disorders? Why or why not?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.3-5 Page Ref: 314 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Biological Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: Although altered serotonergic levels have been observed in individuals with eating disorders, causal conclusions cannot be made. Changes in neurochemical function may be a cause and/or consequence of the psychological disorder. In order to conclude that altered serotonin function plays a causal role in eating disorders, changes in ..

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serotonergic function would need to be observed prior to the development of the eating disorder.

9.3-6. How does the set-point impact eating disorders?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.3-6 Page Ref: 315 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Biological Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: This is the tendency of the body to resist variation from a biologically determined set-point. As someone loses weight, hunger rises and can trigger strong impulses to binge eat.

9.3-7. Why is dieting a risk factor for the development of eating disorders?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.3-7 Page Ref: 317 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Eating Disorders/Individual Risk Factors Skill: Applied Answer: The desire to diet suggests that there is some body dissatisfaction, a clear risk factor for the development of an eating disorder. In addition, the practice of dieting increases the likelihood of overeating, as caloric restriction leads to hunger. When the dieter gives in to temptation, this is likely to lead to negative affect. Resumed dieting then continues this pattern, which may then evolve into any one of the recognized eating disorders. As research has demonstrated, going on a diet may actually make us eat more and, as a consequence, feel worse about ourselves and evolve into even more problematic eating patterns.

9.3-8. What medications are commonly used in the treatment of bulimia nervosa?

What evidence is there that medications are beneficial in treating this condition?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.3-8 Page Ref: 323 Topic: Treatment of Eating Disorders/Treatment of Bulimia Nervosa Skill: Factual Answer: Antidepressants are commonly used, alone or, ideally, in addition to CBT. Many patients with bulimia also suffer from mood disorders. In addition to the potential beneficial effects of antidepressants on mood, they have also been shown to decrease both the frequency of binges and the typical preoccupation with shape and weight that is characteristic of those with bulimia.

9.3-9. What are leptin and grehlin and how do they influence appetite and weight?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.3-9 Page Ref: 327-328 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Obesity/Hormones Involved in Appetite and ..

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Weight Regulation Skill: Factual Answer: Leptin is a hormone that is produced by fat cells. It acts to reduce intake of food. An increase in body fat leads to an increase in leptin, which leads in turn to a decrease in food intake. However, overweight people are resistant to the effects of leptin.

Grehlin is a hormone produced by the stomach. It is a powerful appetite stimulator. It rises before meals and decreases after eating. If there is a disturbance in its normal process, this can lead to overeating.

Essay Questions 9.4-1. Discuss the factors that complicate diagnosing anorexia and bulimia.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.4-1 Page Ref: 305 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/Other Forms of Eating Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: While it may be simple to determine that there is a disordered pattern to an individual's eating habits, the symptoms evident may not fit any of the established diagnostic categories. Thus, the DSM-IV-TR provides a catch-all category of "Eating Disorder Not Otherwise Specified," a diagnosis given to as many as one-third of those who seek treatment for an eating disorder. Further complicating the diagnosis of eating disorders is the fact that the eating patterns of an individual with an eating disorder may change over time, such that the individual who once clearly had anorexia may now appear to have bulimia. The clinical features exhibited change over time, a facet of the eating disorders not accounted for by the current classification system. GRADING RUBRIC - 8 points total, 4 points for each of two factors discussed.

9.4-2. What factors put males at risk for developing eating disorders?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.4-2 Page Ref: 308 Topic: Clinical Aspects of Eating Disorders/World Around Us Skill: Factual Answer: Homosexual males and those who were fat as children are at a higher risk for developing eating disorders. It is thought that homosexuality may be a risk factor as thinness may be perceived as attractive by this community. Children who are fat as children, especially those who are teased, are likely to be more self-conscious about their appearance and, as a result, more likely to engage in efforts to control their weight. This, both homosexuality and early obesity may, in effect, make males more like females with respect to the level of concern they feel about their physical appearance. Other groups that are at risk for developing eating disorders are those males who restrict their food intake for some other purpose, such as to improve their performance in a sport or to avoid developing some weight-related illness that they may be at risk for. GRADING RUBRIC: 2 points introduction, 4 points factor 1, 4 points factor 2 = 10 total ..

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9.4-3. Discuss the studies on rats and "comfort food."

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 9.4-3 Page Ref: 330 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors in Obesity/Stress and "Comfort Food" Skill: Factual Answer: Like many humans, rats under chronic stress selected high fat and sugar diets.

They gained weight in their bellies and became calmer in the face of new, acute stress.

People may also eat in response to aversive emotional states as well, and experience the same calming effect. This shows that learning is involved, as well as biochemical effects.

Eating in response to emotional cues is reinforced because tension is reduced, leading to an increased likelihood of eating in response to those cues later on.

..

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TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 10 Personality Disorders

Topic

Clinical Features of Personality Disorders

Difficulties Doing Research on Personality Disorders

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

Multiple Choice (10.1-)

1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 8

4, 7

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Blank (10.2-) Short Answer (10.3-) Essay (10.4-) Multiple Choice

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Cluster B Personality Disorders

Cluster C Personality Disorders

Treatments and Outcomes for Personality Disorders Antisocial Personality Disorder and Psychopathy

10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 17

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2

3

18, 19, 23, 26, 27, 28, 29, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35 2

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Blank (10.2-) Short Answer (10.3-)

Cluster A Personality Disorders

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Essay (10.4-) Multiple Choice (10.1-) Blank (10.2-) Short Answer (10.3-) Essay (10.4-) Multiple Choice (10.1-) Blank (10.2-) Short Answer (10.3-) Essay (10.4-) Multiple Choice (10.1-) Blank (10.2-) Short Answer (10.3-) Essay (10.4-) Multiple Choice (10.1-) Blank (10.2-) Short Answer (10.3-) Essay (10.4-) Multiple Choice (10.1-) Blank (10.2-) Short Answer (10.3-) Essay (10.4-)

5, 6 40, 44, 49, 52, 58, 59, 62, 64, 65, 66, 68, 69, 70, 71, 72 4 7, 8, 9 2 74, 76, 79, 82, 86, 87, 89, 92 5

1 39, 41, 42, 43, 47, 48, 50, 51, 60, 67

36, 37, 38, 45, 46, 61, 63 10

3 73, 77, 80, 84, 85, 91, 93

75, 78, 81, 83, 88, 90

11 96, 98

94, 95

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53, 55, 56, 101, 102, 104, 105, 109, 110, 111, 112 3

54, 99, 100

57, 103, 106, 107, 108

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Copyright © 2013 by Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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Chapter 10: Personality Disorders Multiple-Choice Questions 10.1-1. There is a general agreement among researchers that personality a. is mainly learned. b. can be characterized by five basic trait dimensions. c. has an infinite number of possible trait dimensions. d. is mainly genetic.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-1 Page Ref: 337 Topic: Clinical Features of Personality Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: b. can be characterized by five basic trait dimensions.

10.1-2. Individuals with personality disorders a. comply with societal expectations. b. reject societal expectations. c. are unable to perform some roles expected by society. d. have a strong sense of self.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-2 Page Ref: 337 Topic: Clinical Features of Personality Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: c. are unable to perform some roles expected by society.

10.1-3. Personality disorders were once known as a. character disorders. b. identity disorders. c. conduct disorders. d. maladaptive behavioral patterns.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-3 Page Ref: 337 Topic: Clinical Features of Personality Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. character disorders.

10.1-4. Unlike disorders like depression and PTSD, a. personality disorders develop gradually. b. multiple causal events can be identified when a personality disorder has developed. c. those with personality disorders experience considerable subjective distress. d. personality disorders are found on Axis III. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-4 Page Ref: 338 Topic: Clinical Features of Personality Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. personality disorders develop gradually.

10.1-5. Which statement about personality disorders is accurate? a. The category is broad and encompasses behavioral problems that vary widely in form and severity. b. The personality disorders are considered situation-specific problems in behaving. c. Most of the personality disorders are extreme reactions to stressful life events. d. Even the milder cases of personality disorders produce severe impairments in social and occupational functioning.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-5 Page Ref: 338 Topic: Clinical Features of Personality Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. The category is broad and encompasses behavioral problems that vary widely in form and severity.

10.1-6. Because they are regarded as being different from standard psychiatric syndromes, the personality disorders are a. not listed in the DSM-IV. b. coded on Axis I. c. coded on Axis II. d. given what is called a "provisional" category.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-6 Page Ref: 338 Topic: Clinical Features of Personality Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: c. coded on Axis II. 10.1-7. The behavioral patterns of individuals with personality disorders a. tend to fluctuate over time. b. tend to normalize with experience as an individual matures. c. are thought to be relatively consistent over time, with little adaptation to new kinds of experiences. d. are remarkable in their tendency to shift dramatically from one kind of disorder to another.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-7 Page Ref: 338 ..

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Topic: Clinical Features of Personality Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. are thought to be relatively consistent over time, with little adaptation to new kinds of experiences.

10.1-8. According to the DSM-IV-TR, which of the following must be true for a personality disorder diagnosis? a. The patient's behavior must reflect a lack of impulse control. b. The patient must experience clinically significant distress. c. Signs of psychosis must be present. d. The person's behavior problems must cause them distress or impairment.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-8 Page Ref: 337 Topic: Clinical Features of Personality Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. The person's behavior problems must cause them distress or impairment.

10.1-9. People find Adam difficult to be around. His behavior is unpredictable and erratic but most often is annoying to others. He doesn't seem to learn from his bad experiences, instead he keeps repeating the same mistakes over and over. His family says Adam has been like this since at least junior high school. Adam most likely has a. a mood disorder. b. an anxiety disorder. c. a dissociative disorder. d. a personality disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-9 Page Ref: 337 Topic: Clinical Features of Personality Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: d. a personality disorder.

10.1-10. Misdiagnoses are common when looking at potential personality disorders because a. the diagnostic criteria are objective. b. many of the personality disorders share common features. c. most of those in treatment for personality disorders are heavily medicated. d. it is usually not possible to determine when the problematic behavior began.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-10 Page Ref: 339 Topic: Difficulties Doing Research on Personality Disorders/Difficulties in Diagnosing Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. many of the personality disorders share common features. ..

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10.1-11. Since there are substantial problems with reliability and validity of the diagnoses of personality disorders, a. they are rarely used in clinical practice. b. it is less likely that research on a disorder will be able to be replicated by other researchers. c. they are considered by clinicians only as suggestions and do not have an impact on treatment decisions. d. very little research or search for treatments is done.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-11 Page Ref: 339 Topic: Difficulties Doing Research on Personality Disorders/Difficulties in Diagnosing Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. it is less likely that research on a disorder will be able to be replicated by other researchers.

10.1-12. The five- factor model a. is a model of normal personality that includes an expanded description of the five basic personality dimensions. b. is a model that attempts to explain personality disorders by dividing them into five main categories. c. is a model that explains the causes of personality disorders by describing the five most important factors that lead to their development. d. is a five-step model for the treatment of personality disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-12 Page Ref: 339 Topic: Difficulties Doing Research on Personality Disorders/Difficulties in Diagnosing Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. is a model of normal personality that includes an expanded description of the five basic personality dimensions.

10.1-13. Which of the following is a factor that complicates determining the causes of personality disorders? a. The high likelihood that an individual with one personality disorder may also have another b. The availability of only prospective data c. The wealth of biological data available d. The inability to gather information from the patients themselves, due to the prevalence of memory disorders among those with personality disorders Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-13 Page Ref: 340 ..

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Topic: Difficulties Doing Research on Personality Disorders/Difficulties in Studying the Causes Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. The high likelihood that an individual with one personality disorder may also have another 10.1-14. The finding that temperament may play a role in the etiology of personality disorders suggests that a. all personality disorders have a biological basis. b. learning plays a significant role in the development of personality disorders. c. the environment does not play a causal role in the development of Axis II disorders. d. a susceptibility to the development of a personality disorder may be inherited.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-14 Page Ref: 340 Topic: Difficulties Doing Research on Personality Disorders/Difficulties in Studying the Causes Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. a susceptibility to the development of a personality disorder may be inherited.

10.1-15. The best description of the biological component of personality disorders is a. they are directly inherited disorders. b. they have no biological component, they are learned. c. personality traits are inherited that predispose a person to developing a personality disorder. d. people inherit the trait of anxiety, which underlies all of the personality disorders and predisposes people to developing a personality disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-15 Page Ref: 340 Topic: Difficulties Doing Research on Personality Disorders/Difficulties in Studying the Causes Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. personality traits are inherited that predispose a person to developing a personality disorder.

10.1-16. The "clusters" of personality disorders found in the DSM-IV-TR are grouped based on a. similar etiologies. b. level of dysfunction. c. symptom or feature similarities. d. expected prognosis.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-16 ..

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Page Ref: 341 Topic: Categories of Personality Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: c. symptom or feature similarities.

10.1-17. What do all of the Cluster A disorders have in common? a. Lack of emotional expression b. Oddness or eccentricity c. Clear link to schizophrenia d. Trust in other people Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-17 Page Ref: 341 Topic: Clinical Features of Personality Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Oddness or eccentricity 10.1-18. Which of the following is a Cluster B personality disorder? a. Depressive b. Schizoid c. Paranoid d. Borderline Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-18 Page Ref: 344 Topic: Clinical Features of Personality Disorders/Summary of Personality Disorders/10.1 Skill: Factual Answer: d. Borderline 10.1-19. Individuals who seem odd and eccentric to others may have personality disorders from a. Cluster A. b. Cluster B. c. Cluster C. d. proposed diagnostic categories needing further study.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-19 Page Ref: 341 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. Cluster A. 10.1-20. Helen is suspicious and doubts the loyalty of even her friends. She is unwilling to forgive perceived insults and never forgets a grudge. She is most likely to be diagnosed with ________ personality disorder. a. paranoid ..

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b. histrionic c. schizoid d. schizotypal Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-20 Page Ref: 341 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Paranoid Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: a. paranoid 10.1-21. The best single-word description for the person with paranoid personality disorder is a. delusional. b. impulsive. c. unemotional. d. mistrustful.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-21 Page Ref: 342 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Paranoid Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. mistrustful.

10.1-22. Unlike the person with paranoid schizophrenia, the person with paranoid personality disorder a. becomes delusional in response to an actual betrayal or hurtful incident with another person. b. has persistent loss of reality contact. c. tends to confide in others and assume the loyalty of his or her friends. d. is in contact with reality, although he or she may have transient psychotic symptoms.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-22 Page Ref: 342 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Paranoid Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. is in contact with reality, although he or she may have transient psychotic symptoms.

10.1-23. Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of paranoid personality disorder? a. Introversion and openness to feelings b. Excitement seeking and neuroticism c. Antagonism and neuroticism d. Fantasy proneness and tough mindedness Difficulty: 2 ..

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Question ID: 10.1-23 Page Ref: 342 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Paranoid Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. Antagonism and neuroticism 10.1-24. Sam shows little emotion and is loner. He has no social relationships, other than his family, and he seems to experience little pleasure, if any. What personality disorder might Sam have? a. Paranoid b. Schizoid c. Borderline d. Narcissistic Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-24 Page Ref: 342 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Schizoid Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. Schizoid 10.1-25. Greg has been diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder. Knowing this, which of the following jobs would he be most likely to enjoy? a. Night-time security guard who works alone b. Receptionist at a busy dentist's office c. Insurance inspector who uncovers clues that criminal behavior has occurred d. Elementary school teacher who works with children who have emotional problems Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-25 Page Ref: 343 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Schizoid Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: a. Night-time security guard who works alone 10.1-26. The central problem of schizoid personality disorder is a. recurrent depression. b. a marked disregard for the feelings of others. c. cognitive and perceptual distortions. d. an inability to form attachments to other people.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-26 Page Ref: 343 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Schizoid Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. an inability to form attachments to other people. ..

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10.1-27. Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of schizoid personality disorder? a. Low agreeableness and high antagonism b. High introversion and low openness to feelings c. High introversion and low agreeableness d. Low excitement seeking and high fantasy proneness Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-27 Page Ref: 343 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Schizoid Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. High introversion and low openness to feelings 10.1-28. Individuals with schizoid and paranoid personality disorders differ significantly in their a. ability to function. b. display of psychotic symptoms. c. level of emotionality. d. likelihood of recovery.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-28 Page Ref: 343 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Schizoid Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. level of emotionality.

10.1-29. A cognitive explanation for schizoid personality disorder proposes that the individual with this disorder believes that a. he is basically alone. b. few people can be trusted. c. no one can live up to his or her expectations. d. he is misunderstood.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-29 Page Ref: 343 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Schizoid Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. he is basically alone.

10.1-30. Tom tells you that he can make his roommate take out the trash by simply thinking about his roommate doing it. He agrees with you that this could sometimes just be a coincidence, but he seems to truly believe he can sometimes get people to do things just by thinking about it. You find him understandable when he talks, but sometimes hard to follow. His clothes are messy and don't match. Tom tells you not to tell anyone about his power, because he knows that other people don't like him because they are jealous and they would hurt him if they could. The best diagnosis ..

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for Tom is a. borderline personality disorder. b. paranoid personality disorder. c. schizotypal personality disorder. d. schizoid personality disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-30 Page Ref: 343-344 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Schizotypal Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: c. schizotypal personality disorder.

10.1-31. Which of the following personality disorders is most likely to be mistaken for schizophrenia? a. Avoidant b. Borderline c. Schizoid d. Schizotypal Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-31 Page Ref: 344 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Schizotypal Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. Schizotypal 10.1-32. While the individual with ________ personality disorder appears cool and aloof, the individual with ________ personality disorder is best described as odd. a. avoidant; schizotypal b. schizoid; schizotypal c. schizoid; avoidant d. schizotypal; avoidant Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-32 Page Ref: 343-344 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Schizotypal Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. schizoid; schizotypal 10.1-33. Visual, attentional, and memory deficits comparable to those seen in schizophrenia have been documented in ________ personality disorder. a. paranoid b. schizoid c. schizotypal d. borderline Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-33 ..

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Page Ref: 344 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Schizotypal Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. schizotypal 10.1-34. Schizophrenic disorders seem to be most strongly linked genetically to ________ personality disorder. a. schizoid b. schizotypal c. avoidant d. Both A and B. Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-34 Page Ref: 344-345 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Schizotypal Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. schizotypal 10.1-35. Transient psychotic symptoms are seen in which of the following personality disorders? a. Paranoid and schizoid b. Schizotypal and schizoid c. Schizoid and antisocial d. Paranoid and schizotypal Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-35 Page Ref: 344 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Schizotypal Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. Paranoid and schizotypal 10.1-36. Lori is vain and self-centered. When she goes out, it is not at all uncommon for her to do things that ensure she is the center of attention. Her close friends describe her as a "drama queen.” Assuming that her behavior is sufficient to warrant an Axis II diagnosis, which of the following personality disorders is she most likely to be diagnosed with? a. Antisocial b. Borderline c. Histrionic d. Narcissistic Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-36 Page Ref: 345 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Histrionic Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: c. Histrionic ..

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10.1-37. Luisa is a lively and emotional graduate student. She dresses provocatively and behaves in a very seductive manner with her male professors. She has had a long string of short-lived, stormy romances. Luisa is most likely to have a diagnosis of a. histrionic personality disorder. b. narcissistic personality disorder. c. dependent personality disorder. d. passive-aggressive personality disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-37 Page Ref: 346 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Histrionic Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: a. histrionic personality disorder.

10.1-38. Like many individuals with personality disorders, individuals with histrionic personality disorder are rarely able to maintain relationships over time.

Why? a. Their extreme distrust makes lasting relationships impossible. b. Their self-reliance leads them to feel that they do not need anyone else. c. Their exaggerated sense of self-importance is generally off-putting. d. Their need for attention and manipulation is likely to drive others away.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-38 Page Ref: 345-346 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Histrionic Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: d. Their need for attention and manipulation is likely to drive others away.

10.1-39. Histrionic personality disorder is most likely to be diagnosed in people who a. are emotionally unexpressive and prefer living alone. b. later develop schizophrenic symptoms. c. are attention-seeking and overly emotional. d. depend on others because they do not feel competent.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-39 Page Ref: 345-346 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Histrionic Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. are attention-seeking and overly emotional.

10.1-40. Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of histrionic personality disorder? a. Low openness to feelings and high fantasy proneness b. High extraversion and high neuroticism ..

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c. High neuroticism and low agreeableness d. High conscientiousness and low assertiveness Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-40 Page Ref: 346 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Histrionic Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. High extraversion and high neuroticism 10.1-41. Which of the following best accounts for why women are more likely to be diagnosed with histrionic personality disorder than men? a. Women are more likely to develop this disorder. b. The symptoms tend to be maladaptive exaggerations of traits normally seen in women. c. Women are naturally more likely than men to engage in attention-seeking behaviors. d. The primary feature of this disorder is emotionality and women are more emotional than men.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-41 Page Ref: 346 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Histrionic Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. The symptoms tend to be maladaptive exaggerations of traits normally seen in women.

10.1-42. Which of the following is most typical of the interpersonal attitudes and behaviors of someone with histrionic personality disorder? a. Vacillation between overidealization and bitter disappointment b. Excessive trust and dependence on others' opinions c. Cruel and callous exploitation of others for personal gain d. Repeated manipulation of others to gain attention Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-42 Page Ref: 346 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Histrionic Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Repeated manipulation of others to gain attention 10.1-43. Which of the following core dysfunctional beliefs might explain the development of histrionic personality disorder? a. "I need a man to define me." b. "I am the only one I can trust." c. "I am completely helpless." d. "If I am not fun, they will abandon me."

Difficulty: 2 ..

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Question ID: 10.1-43 Page Ref: 346-347 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Histrionic Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. "If I am not fun, they will abandon me."

10.1-44. Which of the following personality disorders might be the female equivalent of antisocial personality disorder? a. Avoidant b. Borderline c. Histrionic d. Narcissistic Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-44 Page Ref: 347 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Histrionic Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. Histrionic 10.1-45. Hope believes that she is the "star" of her graduate class and that the other students dislike her because they are jealous of her superior intelligence. She believes that she is entitled to be exempted from an important exam because of her outstanding performance in class. Hope probably suffers from a. histrionic personality disorder. b. narcissistic personality disorder. c. dependent personality disorder. d. schizoid personality disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-45 Page Ref: 347 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Narcissistic Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. narcissistic personality disorder.

10.1-46. Which of the following distinguishes narcissistic personality disorder from the other Cluster B disorders? a. Emotionality b. Grandiosity c. Impulsivity d. Vanity Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-46 Page Ref: 347 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Narcissistic Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. Grandiosity ..

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10.1-47. Some people always think that everyone is looking at them and talking about them, wishing to be like them. This self-focused view of the world would be expected in someone with ________ personality disorder. a. borderline b. histrionic c. narcissistic d. paranoid Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-47 Page Ref: 347 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Narcissistic Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. narcissistic 10.1-48. Why is it that people with narcissistic personality disorder are unlikely to seek treatment? a. They are suspicious that therapists will steal their ideas. b. They afraid they will become dependent on the therapist. c. They are hypersensitive to criticism. d. They think they are nearly perfect and in no need of change.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-48 Page Ref: 348 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Narcissistic Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. They think they are nearly perfect and in no need of change.

10.1-49. The histrionic seeks ________, while the narcissist needs ________. a. attention; admiration b. acceptance; admiration c. admiration; attention d. acceptance; approval Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-49 Page Ref: 348-349 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Narcissistic Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. attention; admiration 10.1-50. A lack of parental indulgence of a child's overconfidence might play a causal role in ________ personality disorder. a. Antisocial b. Borderline c. Histrionic d. Narcissistic ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-50 Page Ref: 348 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Narcissistic Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Narcissistic 10.1-51. At a young age, children are not able to understand that the world that others experience is different from their own. Children also tend to overestimate their own abilities. A failure to outgrow these youthful characteristics might explain the development of ________ personality disorder. a. antisocial b. borderline c. histrionic d. narcissistic Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-51 Page Ref: 348 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Narcissistic Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. narcissistic 10.1-52. Early criminal behavior is most characteristic of a. antisocial personality disorder. b. borderline personality disorder. c. schizoid personality disorder. d. schizotypal personality disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-52 Page Ref: 349 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Antisocial Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. antisocial personality disorder.

10.1-53. ________ personality disorder is much more common in men than women and involves the exploitation of others without remorse. a. Antisocial b. Histrionic c. Borderline d. Paranoid Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-53 Page Ref: 361 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Antisocial Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. Antisocial ..

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10.1-54. Which of the following is most typical of the interpersonal attitudes and behaviors of someone with antisocial personality disorder? a. Vacillation between overidealization and bitter disappointment b. Excessive trust and dependence on others' opinions c. Cruel and callous exploitation of others for personal gain d. Repeated manipulation of others to gain attention Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-54 Page Ref: 360 Topic: Antisocial Personality Disorder and Psychopathy Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Cruel and callous exploitation of others for personal gain 10.1-55. Symptoms of what Axis I diagnosis are present in individuals who later develop antisocial personality disorder? a. Attention-deficit disorder b. Attachment disorder c. Conduct disorder or oppositional defiant disorder d. Depression Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-55 Page Ref: 365-368 Topic: Antisocial Personality Disorder and Psychopathy/Developmental Perspective Skill: Factual Answer: c. Conduct disorder or oppositional defiant disorder 10.1-56. Antisocial personality disorder differs from the other Cluster B disorders in that a. a lack of concern for the feelings of others is not displayed. b. a need for approval or attention is not displayed. c. symptoms are only present after age 15. d. it is seen equally on men and women.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-56 Page Ref: 361 Topic: Antisocial Personality Disorder and Psychopathy Skill: Factual Answer: b. a need for approval or attention is not displayed.

10.1-57. Henry was a charming middle-aged man who came to the attention of authorities on bigamy charges. He had a long history of courting and supposedly marrying elderly widows, then absconding with their money. His diagnosis is most likely a. narcissistic personality disorder. b. borderline personality disorder. ..

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c. histrionic personality disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-57 Page Ref: 360 Topic: Antisocial Personality Disorder and Psychopathy Skill: Applied Answer: d. antisocial personality disorder.

10.1-58. What "border" did the term "borderline" in borderline personality refer to? a. The border between Axis I and Axis II disorders b. People with borderline personality disorder were thought to be on the brink of psychosis, on the border between sanity and insanity. c. Because people with borderline personality disorder behave normally much of the time, they were thought to only be on the edge of mental illness. d. The behaviors exhibited by people with borderline personality disorder lie on continuum between neurotic and psychotic disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-58 Page Ref: 349 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. The behaviors exhibited by people with borderline personality disorder lie on continuum between neurotic and psychotic disorders.

10.1-59. Impulsivity and extreme instability in interpersonal relationships, selfimage, and mood best characterize a. histrionic personality disorder. b. antisocial personality disorder. c. avoidant personality disorder. d. borderline personality disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-59 Page Ref: 349 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. borderline personality disorder.

10.1-60. Which of the following is most typical of the interpersonal attitudes and behaviors of someone with borderline personality disorder? a. Vacillation between overidealization and bitter disappointment b. Excessive trust and dependence on others' opinions c. Cruel and callous exploitation of others for personal gain d. Repeated manipulation of others to gain attention Difficulty: 1 ..

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Question ID: 10.1-60 Page Ref: 349 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. Vacillation between overidealization and bitter disappointment 10.1-61. Loretta has a long history of first idealizing men and then feeling they have abandoned her. Feelings of emptiness change into reckless acts of sexual promiscuity, gambling, and suicide attempts. She feels that she has never had a sense of self. Loretta probably has ________ personality disorder. a. narcissistic b. histrionic c. dependent d. borderline Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-61 Page Ref: 349-350 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: d. borderline 10.1-62. Self-mutilation, such as is seen in borderline personality disorder, is a. a form of suicidal behavior. b. a form of self-punishment. c. done to reduce anxiety and depression. d. associated with an increase in anxiety and depression.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-62 Page Ref: 350 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. done to reduce anxiety and depression.

10.1-63. Glenna believed that Sam loved her and that she could not live without him.

When he told her he did not want to see her again, she became violently angry and manipulated him into staying with her by threatening suicide. Which of the following personality disorder does Glenna's behavior suggest she might have? a. Narcissistic b. Histrionic c. Dependent d. Borderline Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-63 Page Ref: 351 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Applied ..

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Answer: d. Borderline 10.1-64. Transient psychotic and dissociative experiences can occur in ________ personality disorder. a. borderline b. antisocial c. narcissistic d. obsessive-compulsive Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-64 Page Ref: 351 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. borderline 10.1-65. Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of borderline personality disorder? a. High extraversion and low fantasy proneness b. High impulsivity and affective instability c. High antagonism and low neuroticism d. High agreeableness and low excitement seeking Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-65 Page Ref: 352 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. High impulsivity and affective instability 10.1-66. The borderline personality differs from histrionic disorder in that a. impulsive behavior is rare. b. a need for others is not exhibited. c. comorbid diagnoses are rare. d. the central role of sexuality is not present.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-66 Page Ref: 352 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. the central role of sexuality is not present.

10.1-67. The main difference between borderline personality disorder and antisocial personality disorder is that a. while both have impulsive sex, the person with borderline personality disorder uses others and the person with antisocial personality disorder really cares about others. b. both avoid abandonment, the person with borderline personality disorder ..

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because they love others and the person with antisocial personality disorder because they need others to love them. c. both exploit others but the person with borderline personality disorder does it due to an angry reaction to disappointments and the person with antisocial personality disorder does it for gain and without guilt. d. both show suicidal behavior, the person with borderline personality disorder because he or she wants to die and the person with antisocial personality disorder to get attention.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-67 Page Ref: 352 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. both exploit others but the person with borderline personality disorder does it due to an angry reaction to disappointments and the person with antisocial personality disorder does it for gain and without guilt.

10.1-68. According to Paris (1999, 2007), a key causal factor in borderline personality disorder seems to be a. inconsistent or highly punitive discipline in childhood. b. impulsivity and affective instability interacting with such factors as trauma or loss. c. a negative attributional style. d. an inability to empathize with other people.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-68 Page Ref: 352 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. impulsivity and affective instability interacting with such factors as trauma or loss.

10.1-69. About half of the individuals with borderline personality disorder also qualify for a diagnosis of ________ at some time. a. antisocial personality disorder b. schizophrenia c. a mood disorder d. histrionic personality disorder Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-69 Page Ref: 352 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. a mood disorder 10.1-70. In which of the following disorders is a comorbid diagnosis of depression ..

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most commonly seen? a. Antisocial personality disorder b. Borderline personality disorder c. Dependent personality disorder d. Histrionic personality disorder Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-70 Page Ref: 352 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. Borderline personality disorder 10.1-71. According to Paris' multidimensional theory of borderline personality disorder (BPD), people with high levels of impulsivity and affective instability a. are likely to develop BPD in response to even minor stressors. b. are likely to develop BPD if they are exposed to trauma. c. come mainly from intact homes and are unlikely to develop BPD. d. come to enjoy acting out.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-71 Page Ref: 352 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. are likely to develop BPD if they are exposed to trauma.

10.1-72. The research on the association between borderline personality disorder and childhood sexual abuse a. proves child sexual abuse is the leading cause of borderline personality disorder. b. are problematic - the abuse most likely is occurring with other factors that might be more important. c. has shown that the reports of sexual abuse were mostly false reports. d. suggests that some genetic component underlies both the disorder in the child and the parents' tendency to abuse.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-72 Page Ref: 353 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. are problematic - the abuse most likely is occurring with other factors that might be more important.

10.1-73. The individual with avoidant personality disorder behaves most similarly to someone with ________ personality disorder. a. antisocial b. borderline ..

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c. schizoid d. schizotypal Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-73 Page Ref: 354 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Avoidant Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. schizoid 10.1-74. The individual with avoidant personality disorder is unlikely to develop lasting relationships as a result of his or her a. callousness. b. fear of rejection. c. desire to control others. d. lack of interest.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-74 Page Ref: 354 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Avoidant Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. fear of rejection.

10.1-75. Stu has no friends except his brother. He would desperately love to date women but is certain no woman would be interested in him. He tried a dating service but was convinced that the secretary was trying to get rid of him because he was such a poor candidate. The most likely diagnosis for Stu is a. avoidant personality disorder. b. schizoid personality disorder. c. paranoid personality disorder. d. schizotypal personality disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-75 Page Ref: 354 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Avoidant Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: a. avoidant personality disorder.

10.1-76. Helena has avoidant personality disorder. She is likely to a. engage in a series of intense, unstable relationships. b. have no interest in social relationships. c. avoid achievement situations where she might fail. d. be hypersensitive to any sign of criticism or rejection.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-76 Page Ref: 354 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Avoidant Personality Disorder ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: d. be hypersensitive to any sign of criticism or rejection.

10.1-77. In contrast to schizoid individuals, those with avoidant personality disorder a. are emotional and dramatic. b. are impulsive and self-destructive. c. are extremely upset by their lack of social relationships. d. are exploitive rather than compliant.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-77 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Avoidant Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. are extremely upset by their lack of social relationships.

10.1-78. Sharon says, "I would love to be in an intimate relationship. My life is terribly boring and lonely. But I am extremely shy and I would fall apart if any man criticized me in the slightest." This description best matches the symptoms of ________ personality disorder. a. antisocial b. dependent c. avoidant d. borderline Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-78 Page Ref: 354 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Avoidant Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: c. avoidant 10.1-79. Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of avoidant personality disorder? a. High extraversion and low openness to feelings b. High introversion and high neuroticism c. High antagonism and low neuroticism d. High agreeableness and high angry hostility Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-79 Page Ref: 355 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Avoidant Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. High introversion and high neuroticism 10.1-80. Avoidant personality disorder is extremely similar to and hard to distinguish from a. generalized social phobia. ..

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b. schizoid personality disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. paranoid personality disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-80 Page Ref: 354 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Avoidant Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. generalized social phobia.

10.1-81. Emily calls her husband every day at work to ask him what she should make for dinner. She spends her days at her mother’s, because Emily worries that something will go wrong in her own home that she won't be able to handle. Even though she paints and draws well, Emily has never tried to take a class or use her talent, because she says she knows she really isn't good enough. Emily's most likely diagnosis is a. borderline personality disorder. b. dependent personality disorder. c. schizoid personality disorder. d. paranoid personality disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-81 Page Ref: 355 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Dependent Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. dependent personality disorder.

10.1-82. Involvement in an abusive relationship (as the one who is abused) would be most expected of the individual with ________ personality disorder. a. antisocial b. borderline c. dependent d. schizotypal Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-82 Page Ref: 355 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Dependent Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. dependent 10.1-83. Hattie has a dependent personality disorder. This means that she a. experiences little distress in her life. b. has difficulty in initiating relationships. c. has acute discomfort when she is alone. d. prefers being alone rather than being with people who might criticize her.

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Question ID: 10.1-83 Page Ref: 355 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Dependent Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: c. has acute discomfort when she is alone.

10.1-84. People who lack self-confidence despite good skills, who panic at the possibility of being separated from their spouse, and remain in abusive relationships have many of the symptoms of ________ personality disorder. a. histrionic b. dependent c. avoidant d. narcissistic Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-84 Page Ref: 355 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Dependent Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. dependent 10.1-85. The fear of abandonment is seen in both borderline and dependent personality disorder. A key difference is their reaction to it: a. The person with borderline personality disorder gets depressed, and the person with dependent personality disorder gets angry. b. The person with borderline personality disorder gets angry, and the person with dependent personality disorder becomes submissive. c. The person with borderline personality disorder goes to other people for a replacement, and the person with dependent personality disorder stays alone and sad. d. The person with borderline personality disorder gets into new relationships, and the person with dependent personality disorder is afraid to seek out new relationships.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-85 Page Ref: 355 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Dependent Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. The person with borderline personality disorder gets angry, and the person with dependent personality disorder becomes submissive.

10.1-86. Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of dependent personality disorder? a. High neuroticism and high agreeableness b. High introversion and low conscientiousness c. High fantasy proneness and low neuroticism d. High excitement seeking and low openness to feelings ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-86 Page Ref: 355 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Dependent Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. High neuroticism and high agreeableness 10.1-87. What core belief might explain the behavior of the individual with dependent personality disorder? a. "I am helpless." b. "I don't know who I am without you." c. "Unless I make people laugh, they will not like me." d. "Others exist to benefit me."

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-87 Page Ref: 355 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Dependent Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. "I am helpless."

10.1-88. John has a great need for order and perfectionism. He can't leave the house until every hair is in place, and he has been known to iron the same shirt over and over to ensure that he is wrinkle-free. What personality disorder does John's behavior suggest? a. Avoidant b. Dependent c. Obsessive-compulsive d. Narcissistic Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-88 Page Ref: 356 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: c. Obsessive-compulsive 10.1-89. The individual with ________ personality disorder is likely to be described as rigid and cold. a. borderline b. histrionic c. obsessive-compulsive d. dependent Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-89 Page Ref: 356 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Obsessive-Compulsive Personality ..

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Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c obsessive-compulsive 10.1-90. Harold is perfectionistic and extremely concerned with maintaining a set routine. He probably suffers from ________ personality disorder. a. schizoid b. obsessive-compulsive c. dependent d. avoidant Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-90 Page Ref: 356 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. obsessive-compulsive 10.1-91. What is the main difference between Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) and Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD)? a. People with OCD are more perfectionistic than people with OCPD. b. People with OCPD are less conscientious about their rituals than people with OCD. c. People with OCPD do not have true obsessions or compulsions like people with OCD have. d. People with OCD can do a compulsion once and feel better, people with OCPD never feel better no matter how many times they do them.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-91 Page Ref: 356 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. People with OCPD do not have true obsessions or compulsions like people with OCD have.

10.1-92. Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of obsessive compulsive personality disorder? a. High conscientiousness and low compliance b. High extraversion and high openness to feelings c. High excitement seeking and low openness to feelings d. High fantasy proneness and high agreeableness Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-92 Page Ref: 357 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Obsessive-Compulsive Personality ..

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Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. High conscientiousness and low compliance 10.1-93. Why does the person with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder have problems in interpersonal relationships? a. They have no interest in having relationships. b. They have no time for relationships due to excessive devotion to work. c. They are too emotionally expressive. d. Their manipulative behavior tends to destroy relationships.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-93 Page Ref: 357 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. They have no time for relationships due to excessive devotion to work.

10.1-94. Which of the following best explains why it is such a challenge to treat personality disorders? a. They develop early in life. b. The diagnostic criteria for these disorders suffers from subjectivity. c. Comorbid diagnoses are the norm, not the exception. d. By definition, they are enduring patterns of thought and behavior.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-94 Page Ref: 358 Topic: Treatments Other Personality Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. By definition, they are enduring patterns of thought and behavior.

10.1-95. Which of the following statements is NOT true of treating personality disorders? a. Individuals with personality disorders from Clusters A and B are more difficult to treat because of their interpersonal difficulties and reluctance to enter therapy. b. Treatment for individuals with dependent personality disorder ought to be altered so that excessive dependency is not fostered. c. People with personality disorders have trouble establishing good therapeutic relationships with their therapist. d. People with both an Axis I and an Axis II diagnosis are easier to treat than people with just an Axis II disorder because they have more distress.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-95 Page Ref: 358 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes for Personality Disorders Skill: Conceptual ..

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Answer: d. People with both an Axis I and an Axis II diagnosis are easier to treat than people with just an Axis II disorder because they have more distress.

10.1-96. Why is the use of medication for borderline personality disorder controversial? a. Because it is unethical to alter someone's personality through chemical means b. Because research shows it clearly doesn't help c. Because it is frequently associated with suicidal behavior d. Because of the possibility of severe side effects Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-96 Page Ref: 359 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes for Personality Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: c. Because it is frequently associated with suicidal behavior 10.1-97. Donna has borderline personality disorder. She is in therapy, but progress is slow. One problem is that some days she thinks her therapist is the most wonderful person in the world. On other days, she thinks he is worthless and untrustworthy. This type of thinking is called a. dialectical. b. splitting. c. entitlement. d. psychopathological.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-97 Page Ref: 359 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes for Personality Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: b. splitting.

10.1-98. Dialectical behavior therapy is a. a promising, problem-focused treatment for borderline personality disorder. b. a long-term therapy for borderline personality disorder that focuses on personality change. c. an old, long-term therapy for borderline personality disorder that has been found to be ineffective. d. is a short-term therapy for borderline personality disorder that involves medication and brief hospitalization.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-98 Page Ref: 359 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes for Personality Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. a promising, problem-focused treatment for borderline personality disorder. ..

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10.1-99. Which of the following is a part of the clinical picture in antisocial personality and psychopathy? a. Careful planning of future activities that will help their families. b. Using charm to make a strong first impression. c. Strong feelings of remorse after wronging others. d. A total lack of desire to maintain friendships with others.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-99 Page Ref: 360 Topic: Antisocial Personality Disorder and Psychopathy/The Clinical Picture Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Using charm to make a strong first impression.

10.1-100. Which of the following is true about the connection between psychopathy and antisocial personality disorder? a. Psychopathy is another name for antisocial personality disorder. b. Many people who have antisocial personality disorder do not have psychopathy. c. Psychopathy is a less severe form of antisocial personality disorder. d. Psychopathy is a more easily treated form of antisocial personality disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-100 Page Ref: 361 Topic: Antisocial Personality Disorder and Psychopathy/Psychopathy and ASPD Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Many people who have antisocial personality disorder do not have psychopathy.

10.1-101. Antisocial personality disorder differs from psychopathy in that antisocial personality disorder a. is an older diagnosis. b. focuses more on personality characteristics. c. focuses more on observable behaviors. d. is a less severe and more treatable form of the disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-101 Page Ref: 361 Topic: Antisocial Personality Disorder and Psychopathy/Psychopathy and ASPD Skill: Factual Answer: c. focuses more on observable behaviors.

10.1-102. The presence of psychopathy a. is the single best predictor of future violence and crime recidivism. b. means that a person also has antisocial personality disorder. ..

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c. means a person is less likely to be violent and to repeat crimes. d. is the single best predictor that treatment will be successful.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-102 Page Ref: 361 Topic: Antisocial Personality Disorder and Psychopathy/Psychopathy and ASPD Skill: Factual Answer: a. is the single best predictor of future violence and crime recidivism.

10.1-103. An employee evaluation: "He takes what he wants rather than earns it. He hates routine and boredom more than anything else. Thrill-seeking and impulsive actions have gotten him fired from this job. It will get him fired at many others."

What kind of disorder does the employee illustrate? a. Histrionic personality disorder b. Psychopathy c. Borderline personality disorder d. Substance abuse Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-103 Page Ref: 361 Topic: Antisocial Personality Disorder and Psychopathy/Psychopathy and ASPD Skill: Applied Answer: b. Psychopathy 10.1-104. The best current research shows that children of parents with antisocial personality disorder who were adopted into other families a. did not develop antisocial personality disorder. b. developed antisocial personality disorder at higher rates regardless of the quality of their adoptive family. c. developed antisocial personality disorder at higher rates only if their adoptive family had problems, such as marital conflict. d. developed antisocial personality disorder at a later age than if they had been raised by their biological parents.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-104 Page Ref: 365 Topic: Antisocial Personality and Psychopathy/Causal Factors in Psychopathy and Antisocial Personality Skill: Factual Answer: c. developed antisocial personality disorder at higher rates only if their adoptive family had problems, such as marital conflict.

10.1-105. In research studies, in addition to failing to learn to avoid punishment, psychopaths ..

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a. did not cognitively understand the connection between a behavior and its consequence. b. felt a great deal of anticipatory anxiety about punishment, leading to impulsive behaviors. c. did not show normal fear potential startle responses. d. showed larger than normal fear potential startle responses.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-105 Page Ref: 366 Topic: Antisocial Personality and Psychopathy/Causal Factors in Psychopathy and Antisocial Personality Skill: Factual Answer: c. did not show normal fear potential startle responses.

10.1-106. Carl has psychopathy. You would expect him to a. be very concerned about possible punishment and to try to avoid it as much as possible. b. be very interested in rewards and to continue his behavior even when the rewards don't come as often as they did. c. be very interested in rewards and to change his behavior quickly if rewards don't come as often as they did. d. be equally interested in rewards and punishments and do his best to get the first and avoid the second.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-112 Page Ref: 367 Topic: Antisocial Personality and Psychopathy/Sociocultural Causal Factors and Psychopathy Skill: Applied Answer: b. be very interested in rewards and to continue his behavior even when the rewards don't come as often as they did.

10.1-107. Who is most likely to develop antisocial personality disorder? a. A child with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder b. A child with oppositional defiant disorder c. A child with conduct disorder d. A child with conduct disorder and A or B Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.1-107 Page Ref: 368 Topic: Antisocial Personality Disorder and Psychopathy/A Developmental Perspective on Psychopathy and Antisocial Personality Skill: Applied Answer: d. a child with conduct disorder and A or B 10.1-108. Which type of child is most likely to show the personality traits of a ..

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psychopath as an adult? a. One who has fearlessness, low anxiety, and high callousness b. One who has high fear and high callousness c. One who has trouble regulating emotions and high levels of emotional reactivity, including aggression d. One who has high depression, high anxiety, and is quick to anger Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-108 Page Ref: 370 Topic: Antisocial Personality and Psychopathy/ A Developmental Perspective on Psychopathy and Antisocial Personality Skill: Applied Answer: a. One who has fearlessness, low anxiety, and high callousness 10.1-109. Which of the following seems to have the most impact in decreasing the amount of criminal activities of people with psychopathy and antisocial personality disorder? a. Cognitive behavioral treatment b. Medication c. Growing older d. Nothing has any impact Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-109 Page Ref: 371 Topic: Antisocial Personality Disorder and Psychopathy/A Developmental Perspective on Psychopathy and Antisocial Personality Skill: Factual Answer: c. Growing older 10.1-110. Which of the following is a common component of cognitive behavioral treatments for antisocial personality? a. Punishment b. Relaxation c. Self-critical thinking d. Response-prevention training Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-110 Page Ref: 371 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes in Psychopathic and Antisocial Personality Skill: Factual Answer: a. Punishment 10.1-111. According to your textbook, each very high-risk antisocial youth may cost society between ____ and ____ in rehabilitation, incarceration, and costs to victims. a. $12,000; $20,000 b. $120,000; $200,000 ..

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c. $1.2 million; $2 million d. $12 million; $20 million Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-111 Page Ref: 372 Topic: Developments in Practice: Prevention of Psychopathy and Antisocial Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. $1.2 million; $2 million 10.1-112. Proposed revisions for the DSM-5 will change the diagnosis of personality disorders in what way? a. All existing personality disorders will be split into two sub-categories (chronic and intermittent) b. All existing personality disorders will be removed and only Axis I disorders will remain c. A categorical approach will be used to achieve diagnosis d. A dimensional approach will be used to achieve diagnosis Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.1-112 Page Ref: 373 Topic: Unresolved Issues: DSM-5: Moving Toward a Dimensional System of Classification Skill: Factual Answer: d. A dimensional approach will be used to achieve diagnosis Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 10.2-1. Cluster __________ Personality Disorders include Schizoid and Schizotypal Personality Disorders.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.2-1 Page Ref: 338 Topic: Clinical Features of Personality Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: A 10.2-2. People with __________ are usually unable to form social relationships and have little interest in them.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.2-2 Page Ref: 343 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Schizoid Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: Schizoid Personality Disorder ..

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10.2-3. People with __________ have more criminal activities than those with antisocial personality disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.2-3 Page Ref: 361 Topic: Antisocial Personality Disorder and Psychopathology/Psychopathy and ASPD Skill: Factual Answer: psychopathy 10.2-4. Cluster __________ personality disorders include Histrionic and Borderline Personality Disorders.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.2-4 Page Ref: 345-346 Topic: Clinical Features of Personality Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: B 10.2-5. Cluster __________ Personality disorders include avoidant and dependent personality disorders.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.2-5 Page Ref: 353-354 Topic: Clinical Features of Personality Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: C Short Answer Questions 10.3-1. Briefly describe the general characteristics of a personality disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.3-1 Page Ref: 337 Topic: Clinical Features of Personality Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: This is a disorder in which personality traits and behavior patterns are maladaptive, inflexible, and not readily adaptive to new situations. The behavior patterns are stable and of long duration. They do not stem from reactions to stress, but involve the gradual development of behavior patterns. They usually significantly impair social or occupational functioning and in some cases cause a good deal of subjective emotional distress.

10.3-2. What complicates the diagnosis of personality disorders?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.3-2 Page Ref: 339 Topic: Difficulties Doing Research on Personality Disorders/Difficulties in ..

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Diagnosing Skill: Conceptual Answer: Personality disorders are often not diagnosed or may be misdiagnosed.

Personality disorders may never be diagnosed or treated due to their basic nature personality disorders define the personality of the individual with the disorder, and it is difficult to determine when a problematic personality becomes a disordered personality.

Misdiagnosis is common as the diagnostic criteria are not precise and lack objective behavioral standards. Diagnosis is vulnerable to subjective interpretation of traits and behaviors as being maladaptive or not. The criteria for the disorders is not exclusive of other diagnoses. While clinicians are likely to agree that an individual has a personality disorder, there may not be agreement as to which disorder the individual has.

10.3-3. How does temperament relate to personality disorders?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.3-3 Page Ref: 340 Topic: Difficulties Doing Research on Personality Disorders/Difficulties in Diagnosing Skill: Applied Answer: Temperament is inherited and may predispose people to develop particular personality traits and disorders. This can make personality disorders seem inherited, but it is the traits that predispose people to the disorders that are inherited.

10.3-4. What does the five-factor model tell us about personality disorders?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.3-4 Page Ref: 340 Topic: Difficulties Doing Research on Personality Disorders/Difficulties in Diagnosing Skill: Factual Answer: The five-factor model assesses how people score on five basic personality traits and the six facets of each. People with personality disorders show extremes on different patterns of these traits.

10.3-5. Compare and contrast paranoid personality disorder and schizophrenia.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.3-5 Page Ref: 341-342 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Paranoid Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: While both disorders are characterized by paranoid delusions, the individual with paranoid personality disorder does not exhibit the overall cognitive impairment that is seen in schizophrenia. The paranoid personality is characterized by paranoia in the absence of the hallucinations and break with reality that is characteristic of schizophrenia.

10.3-6. Which of the personality disorders appears to be most related to ..

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schizophrenia? What evidence is there of this relationship?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.3-6 Page Ref: 343-344 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders/Schizotypal Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: While all of the cluster A personality disorders are characterized by different features of schizophrenia, schizotypal personality appears to be the most strongly related to schizophrenia. This disorder is characterized by abnormalities in behavior that are often seen in those with schizophrenia, and there is evidence that those with schizotypal personality disorder are at greater risk of developing schizophrenia.

10.3-7. Why is histrionic personality disorder more prevalent in women?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.3-7 Page Ref: 345-346 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Histrionic Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: While histrionic personality disorder is more commonly diagnosed in women, it may or may not be more prevalent in this gender. Many of the behaviors that characterize this disorder can be described as "gender-related traits" that are more commonly seen in women, thus the diagnosis is more likely to be given to women. This includes traits such as vanity, overdramatization, and concern with physical appearance.

10.3-8. Why does the person with a narcissistic personality disorder have many "friends" but few intimate relationships?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.3-8 Page Ref: 347 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Narcissistic Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: People with narcissistic personality disorder overestimate their own accomplishments and underestimate others'. They need friends to gain admiration and seem important, but they eventually see others as stupid or unworthy and reject them.

Relationships do not last long because others become tired of the narcissistic person's lack of consideration.

10.3-9. What are examples of dangerous behavior seen in borderline personality disorder?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.3-9 Page Ref: 349-350 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: Borderline personality disorder includes erratic and impulsive behaviors that can be self-destructive. These include reckless driving, binges of gambling, drinking, and ..

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sex, as well as self-mutilation and suicidal behavior. Self-mutilation is one of the most discriminating signs of borderline and is sometimes associated with relief from anxiety and other negative emotions. Suicidal behavior is also common and, while suicide attempts may be motivated a desire to manipulate, it is estimated that as many as 8 percent may complete a suicide.

10.3-10. What is the main distinguishing factor between borderline and histrionic personality disorders?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 10.3-10 Page Ref: 352 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Borderline Personality Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: Sexuality is central to histrionic personality disorder but not to borderline personality disorder.

10.3-11. Compare and contrast avoidant and schizoid personality disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.3-11 Page Ref: 353-354 Topic: Cluster C Personality Disorders/Avoidant Personality Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: While both disorders are characterized by a lack of social contact, the motivation behind the exhibited social isolation differs. Avoidant individuals are too frightened to initiate relationships. Although alone, the avoidant personality very much wants to be with others but is afraid of rejection. Schizoid individuals are alone because they have no desire to be with others and are emotionally uninvolved.

10.3-12. What are the two dimensions of psychopathy and the relationship to antisocial personality disorder?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.3-12 Page Ref: 361 Topic: Antisocial Personality Disorder and Psychopathy/Psychopathy and ASPD Skill: Conceptual Answer: Dimension 1: Affective and interpersonal traits - lack of remorse, empathy, superficial charm, exaggerated self-worth, and pathological lying. Dimension 2: Behavior - deviant lifestyle, impulsivity, and irresponsibility. The second dimension is more related to antisocial personality disorder.

Essay Questions 10.4-1. Describe and differentiate between the Cluster A personality disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.4-1 ..

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Page Ref: 341-343 Topic: Cluster A Personality Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: The Cluster A personality disorders are all alike in that they are characterized by odd behavior. This cluster includes the paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal personality disorders. All disorders share some common features with schizophrenia, but it is only thought that schizotypal personality disorder is related to schizophrenia. The paranoid personality is characterized by extreme suspicion and distrust. This is the individual who can't forgive even the smallest perceived slight. The paranoid personality is always looking for someone to do him or her wrong, but he or she is not psychotic. Despite the prevalent paranoia, the paranoid personality is firmly in touch with reality. The schizoid personality shows some of the negative symptoms of schizophrenia, social withdrawal and flat affect. This is the loner, who prefers to be alone and seems to take pleasure in nothing. The schizotypal personality is best described as odd and eccentric. They may show some bizarre thinking, but are generally in touch with reality. GRADING RUBRIC - 12 points total, 3 for general description of cluster A disorders and 3 for each of the 3 disorders.

10.4-2. Discuss the two theories discussed in the text about the possible causes of narcissistic personality disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.4-2 Page Ref: 347-348 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders/Narcissistic Personality Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: 1. Kohut--Children go through a phase of grandiosity and lack of empathy. If parents mirror some of this grandiosity, children develop normal self-confidence and selfworth. Narcissistic personality disorder develops if parents are neglectful, devaluing, or unempathic to the child. The child then keeps searching for affirmation of an idealized and grandiose sense of self. 2. Millon--Narcissistic personality disorder comes from unrealistic parental overevaluation. Parents overindulge their child and teach the child that he/she can get whatever he/she wants without effort or caring about others.

GRADING RUBRIC: 10 points, 5 points for each theory.

10.4-3. Compare and contrast histrionic and narcissistic personality disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.4-3 Page Ref: 349-354 Topic: Cluster B Personality Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: Both disorders are characterized by a need for attention, but the motivation underlying this need differ. The histrionic personality desires attention in order to feel valued and may use manipulative means to get the attention he or she craves. The narcissistic personality appears to believe that he or she has great value, but seeks admiration to confer this belief. While the histrionic desires any attention and will do whatever is needed to get it, the narcissist desires admiration and praise. Both disorders ..

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are characterized by vanity and a lack of concern for the emotions of others. These are personality types that are needy, but in different ways. Histrionic personality disorder is a more common diagnosis for women, while narcissism is more commonly seen in men.

GRADING RUBRIC - 8 points, 2 points for each of 2 similarities and 2 points for each of 2 differences.

10.4-4. What are the research findings on psychopathy and learning?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.4-4 Page Ref: 361-362 Topic: Antisocial Personality and Psychopathy/Causal Factors in Psychopathy and Antisocial Personality Skill: Factual Answer: Psychopaths show deficient avoidance learning. They have a lower than normal fear potential startle response. They do not condition easily to fear. They have a deficient behavior inhibition system - the neural system underlying anxiety. This causes them to show the above-mentioned differences. Their behavioral activation system is normal or overreactive, so they tend to focus on rewards. If caught, they focus on avoiding punishment. Their dominant response set for rewards seems to interfere with their ability to use punishment as a cue to change behavior.

10.4-5. What are the two dimensions of childhood temperament related to antisocial personality disorder and psychopathy, and what is the relationship?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 10.4-5 Page Ref: 361-362 Topic: Antisocial Personality Disorder and Psychopathy/A Developmental Perspective Skill: Conceptual Answer: 1. Difficulty regulating emotions plus high levels of emotional reactivity, including aggressive behaviors when responding to stress and negative emotions like anger. This increases the risk of ASPD and the antisocial dimension of psychopathy. 2.

Few problems with regulating emotions, fearlessness, low anxiety and callousunemotional traits. These children show poor development of conscience, and their aggressive behavior is more premeditated than reactive. This is correlated with the interpersonal dimension of psychopathy. GRADING RUBRIC: 10 points, 4 for each dimension and 2 for their relationship with the disorders.

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TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 11 Substance-Related Disorders

Topic

Alcohol Abuse and Dependence

Drug Abuse and Dependence

Multiple Choice (11.1-)

Blank (11.2-) Short Answer (11.3-) Essay (11.4-) Multiple Choice (11.1-)

Blank (11.2-)

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

2, 5, 7, 8, 9, 10, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 21, 22, 23, 25, 26, 27, 28, 31, 33, 34, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 50, 51, 53, 54, 57, 58, 59, 61, 62, 67, 69, 70, 71, 72 1, 2, 3 1, 2, 4, 6, 9 1, 2, 3, 4 74, 75, 77, 78, 79, 80, 81, 82, 84, 85, 88, 89, 90, 91, 92, 93, 94, 95, 96, 98, 99, 101 4, 5

1, 4, 11, 32, 35, 37, 39, 48, 49, 52, 60, 66

3, 6, 12, 20, 24, 29, 30, 36, 38, 47, 55, 56, 63, 64, 65, 68, 73

5, 8, 10

3, 7

76, 83, 86, 100

87, 97, 102, 103

Short Answer (11.3-)

11

Essay (11.4-)

Copyright © 2013 by Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders Multiple-Choice Questions 11.1-1. Why does it make sense to view addiction as a mental disorder? a. The symptoms reflect behaviors that involve the pathological need for a substance. b. The most effective treatments are psychological. c. Neurochemical imbalances underlie the problematic behaviors observed. d. Substance abuse frequently develops in an attempt to self-medicate negative mood states.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-1 Page Ref: 377 Topic: Substance-Related Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. The symptoms reflect behaviors that involve the pathological need for a substance.

11.1-2. Unlike psychoactive substance abuse, psychoactive substance dependence usually involves a. physiological symptoms such as tolerance and withdrawal. b. continued use despite social and occupational problems. c. pathological use of the substance. d. the use of substances that laws prohibit one from buying or using.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-2 Page Ref: 378 Topic: Substance-Related Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. physiological symptoms such as tolerance and withdrawal.

11.1-3. Henry used to become intoxicated after six drinks. Now he needs ten or twelve to get the same effect. This is an example of a. a psychoactive substance abuse disorder. b. tolerance. c. withdrawal symptoms. d. an organic impairment.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-3 Page Ref: 378 Topic: Substance-Related Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: b. tolerance.

11.1-4. The occurrence of withdrawal symptoms ..

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a. indicates that substance abuse has developed. b. is necessary for a diagnosis of substance abuse. c. is seen when use of any psychoactive substance is terminated. d. signals that the body has adjusted to the presence of the drug.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-4 Page Ref: 378 Topic: Substance-Related Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. signals that the body has adjusted to the presence of the drug.

11.1-5. Which of the following is a consequence of organic impairment resulting from long-term substance use, as opposed to being a consequence of drug toxicity? a. Alcohol amnestic disorder b. Alcoholic intoxication c. Amphetamine delusional disorder d. Cannabis delirium Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-5 Page Ref: 384 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture of Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Skill: Factual Answer: a. Alcohol amnestic disorder 11.1-6. Judd has been drinking heavily for a number of years. When he is not drinking, he experiences profuse sweating and shakes. This indicates that Judd a. has an organic impairment. b. has withdrawal symptoms when he abstains from alcohol. c. cannot be diagnosed with substance dependence. d. has developed a tolerance for alcohol.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-6 Page Ref: 378 Topic: Substance-Related Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: b. has withdrawal symptoms when he abstains from alcohol.

11.1-7. Which of the following is a diagnosis found in the DSM-IV-TR? a. Alcoholism b. Alcoholic Syndrome Disorder c. Substance-Interdependence Disorder d. Substance-Dependence Disorder Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-7 Page Ref: 378 ..

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Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Skill: Factual Answer: d. Substance-Dependence Disorder 11.1-8. Which of the following statements about alcohol problems is accurate? a. The lifetime prevalence for alcoholism in the United States is about 30 percent. b. The average life span of an alcoholic is twelve years shorter than the average citizen. c. Although alcohol impairs motor behavior, it does not lower performance on complex cognitive tasks. d. Alcohol abuse is a "pure" disorder, with less than 5 percent of alcohol abusers having a coexisting mental disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 112.1-8 Page Ref: 379 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Prevalence, Comorbidity, and Demographics Skill: Factual Answer: b. The average life span of an alcoholic is twelve years shorter than the average citizen.

11.1-9. Which of the following statements is true about alcohol use? a. Alcoholism is extremely serious but rarely fatal. b. Alcoholism is more common in women that in men. c. Alcoholism increases the risk of suicide. d. Alcoholism is strongly associated with accidental death, but not with violent acts.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-9 Page Ref: 380 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Prevalence, Comorbidity, and Demographics Skill: Factual Answer: c. Alcoholism increases the risk of suicide.

11.1-10. Which mental disorder is most commonly comorbid with alcoholism? a. Panic disorder b. Obsessive compulsive disorder c. Dissociative amnesia d. Depression Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-10 Page Ref: 380 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Prevalence, Comorbidity, and Demographics Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: d. Depression 11.1-11. Observed changes in drinking patterns suggest that in the future a. the ratio of male to female problem drinkers will increase. b. the ratio of male to female problem drinkers will decrease. c. the proportion of blacks that are problem drinkers will increase. d. the proportion of blacks that are problem drinkers will decrease.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-11 Page Ref: 380 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Prevalence, Comorbidity, and Demographics Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. the ratio of male to female problem drinkers will decrease.

11.1-12. Of the following, who is most likely to be an alcoholic? a. A woman with no criminal history b. A woman with multiple children c. A male with a personality disorder d. A male with multiple children Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-12 Page Ref: 380 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Prevalence, Comorbidity, and Demographics Skill: Applied Answer: c. A male with a personality disorder 11.1-13. Alcohol's effects on ________ explain its ability to impair judgment. a. dopamine b. epinephrine c. glutamate d. endogenous opioids Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-13 Page Ref: 381 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture of Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Skill: Factual Answer: c. glutamate 11.1-14. At low levels, alcohol's effect on the brain is ________; at higher levels, alcohol's effect is ________. a. to inhibit glutamate (an excitatory neurotransmitter); release opium-like endorphins b. too minimal to have an impact; massive and excitatory ..

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c. depressive; excitatory d. to activate the brain's “pleasure centers”; depress brain functioning Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-14 Page Ref: 381 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture of Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Skill: Factual Answer: d. to activate the brain's "pleasure centers"; depress brain functioning 11.1-15. Alcoholic blackouts a. cause hangovers. b. are seen only with heavy drinking. c. can occur with just moderate drinking. d. only happen when alcohol dependence has developed.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-15 Page Ref: 380 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture of Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Skill: Factual Answer: c. can occur with just moderate drinking.

11.1-16. What evidence is there that the legal definition of alcohol intoxication (a blood alcohol content of 0.08) should be changed? a. Most alcohol-related accidents occur at much lower blood alcohol levels. b. Most alcohol-related accidents occur at much higher blood alcohol levels. c. Few people show any impairment at this blood alcohol level. d. Judgment becomes impaired long before this blood alcohol level is reached.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-16 Page Ref: 381 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture of Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Skill: Factual Answer: d. Judgment becomes impaired long before this blood alcohol level is reached.

11.1-17. The typical course of alcohol-related disorder a. is always a continuous and gradual decline. b. is a rapid decline followed by abstinence. c. is a gradual decline followed by increasing physical problems. d. is varied but often progresses from early to late stage disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-17 Page Ref: 382 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture of Alcohol Abuse and ..

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Dependence Skill: Factual Answer: d. is varied but often progresses from early to late stage disorder.

11.1-18. Passing out from a high blood level of alcohol a. may actually be a safety device. b. means a person has not yet developed tolerance. c. means that a person’s blackouts have worsened and increased over time. d. may be the result of an allergic reaction to alcohol.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-18 Page Ref: 380 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture of Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Skill: Factual Answer: a. may actually be a safety device.

11.1-19. Which of the following is a misconception about alcohol? a. A person with a strong will cannot become an alcoholic. b. Alcohol can interfere with sleep. c. Mixing different types of alcohol does not make people more drunk than the same amount of a single type. d. Drinking coffee does not counteract the effects of alcohol.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-19 Page Ref: 381 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Table 11.1 Skill: Factual Answer: a. A person with a strong will cannot become an alcoholic.

11.1-20. Which of the following best explains why women tend to not "hold their booze" as well as men? a. Women tend to eat less. b. Women metabolize alcohol less quickly than men. c. Women usually drink more quickly than men. d. Women tend to drink mixed drinks, while men prefer beer.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-20 Page Ref: 382 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture Skill: Applied Answer: b. Women metabolize alcohol less quickly than men.

11.1-21. Cirrhosis of the liver a. is a rare complication of alcoholism. b. is due to an allergic-type reaction of the body to alcohol. ..

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c. is caused by overworking the liver trying to assimilate large amounts of alcohol. d. is debilitating but rarely fatal.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-21 Page Ref: 383 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: c. is caused by overworking the liver trying to assimilate large amounts of alcohol.

11.1-22. Heavy drinking during pregnancy, especially the early part, often causes a. Down syndrome in the child. b. incomplete fusion of the spinal canal in the child. c. aggressiveness and withdrawal in the child. d. premature birth and higher rates of still-births.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-22 Page Ref: 382 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Fetal Alcohol Syndrome Skill: Factual Answer: c. aggressiveness and withdrawal in the child.

11.1-23. Malnutrition a. does not occur in alcoholics since alcohol provides both calories and nutrients. b. only occurs when alcoholics are destitute and not able to afford to purchase food. c. may occur in alcoholics since alcohol interferes with the body's ability to use nutrients. d. is rare among alcoholics because alcohol is most commonly consumed with food.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-23 Page Ref: 383 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: c. may occur in alcoholics because alcohol interferes with the body's ability to use nutrients.

11.1-24. Bertha has been drinking to excess for many years. She is malnourished.

This is because a. alcohol has few calories. b. alcohol impairs the body's ability to utilize nutrients. c. alcoholism impairs her ability to choose healthy foods. d. alcoholism causes people to lose their appetites.

Difficulty: 2 ..

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Question ID: 11.1-24 Page Ref: 383 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture Skill: Applied Answer: b. alcohol impairs the body's ability to utilize nutrients.

11.1-25. Alcoholic psychosis may occur due to a. low thiamine levels. b. decreased GABA levels. c. high opioid levels. d. impaired serotonergic functioning.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-25 Page Ref: 384 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: a. low thiamine levels.

11.1-26. Alcohol withdrawal delirium a. occurs when alcohol and other drugs are used simultaneously. b. most commonly occurs in alcoholics who suffer from a mood or personality disorder. c. typically lasts from three to six days. d. is characterized by dissociative and amnesic symptoms.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-26 Page Ref: 383 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: c. typically lasts from three to six days.

11.1-27. Your text describes two commonly recognized psychotic reactions to alcohol. They are a. alcoholic tolerance and alcoholic withdrawal. b. what used to be called "alcohol dependence" and "alcohol withdrawal." c. what used to be called "delirium tremens" and "Korsakoff's psychosis." d. alcohol intoxication and alcohol amnestic disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-27 Page Ref: 384 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: c. what used to be called "delirium tremens" and "Korsakoff's psychosis."

11.1-28. Korsakoff's psychosis is now known as a. alcoholic withdrawal. ..

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b. alcohol withdrawal delirium. c. delirium tremens. d. alcohol amnestic disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-28 Page Ref: 384 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: d. alcohol amnestic disorder.

11.1-29. When John stopped drinking after his last week-long binge, he became very ill. He was disoriented, hallucinating, and paranoid. John seems to be experiencing a. a severe hangover. b. alcohol withdrawal delirium. c. alcohol amnestic disorder. d. alcohol-induced psychosis.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-29 Page Ref: 383 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture Skill: Applied Answer: b. alcohol withdrawal delirium.

11.1-30. Betty was admitted to the hospital in a state of withdrawal from alcohol.

She was diagnosed with alcohol withdrawal delirium (formerly known as delirium tremens). She most likely showed which of the following behaviors? a. Delusions of grandeur and an inability to get to sleep b. Disorientation for time and place and vivid hallucinations c. Severe memory deficit and the tendency to falsify reporting events (confabulation) d. Prolonged sleep followed by convulsions and heart failure Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-30 Page Ref: 384 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture Skill: Applied Answer: b. Disorientation for time and place and vivid hallucinations 11.1-31. The central feature of alcohol amnestic disorder is a. the presence of hallucinations. b. a deep sleep, following which the individual has no memory of past events. c. acute fear and extreme suggestibility. d. a memory defect for recent events.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-31 Page Ref: 384 ..

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Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: d. a memory defect for recent events.

11.1-32. Concerning the causes of alcoholism, a. there are probably several different patterns of causes associated with several different types of alcohol dependence. b. there is strong evidence that individuals at risk for alcohol dependence inherit a faulty metabolism. c. most research evidence points to genetic liability as the primary cause of alcohol dependence in men, but not in women. d. the causes of alcohol dependence are primarily psychosocial rather than biological in nature.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-32 Page Ref: 384 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Biological Causal Factors in the Abuse of and Dependence on Alcohol Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. there are probably several different patterns of causes associated with several different types of alcohol dependence.

11.1-33. All drugs that people become dependent upon a. are socially acceptable. b. act on pleasure pathways in the brain. c. provide the user with renewed energy. d. produce withdrawal symptoms when use is ceased.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-33 Page Ref: 385 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Biological Causal Factors in the Abuse of and Dependence on Alcohol Skill: Factual Answer: b. act on pleasure pathways in the brain.

11.1-34. What is the role of the mesocorticolimbic dopamine pathway (MCLP)? a. It is the area of the brain that is activated by drugs and that produces euphoria. b. It is the area of the brain that is destroyed by alcohol and leads to amnestic disorder. c. It metabolizes all psychoactive drugs. d. It explains why genetically vulnerable individuals have altered brain wave patterns.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-34 Page Ref: 385 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Biological Causal Factors in the Abuse of and ..

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Dependence on Alcohol Skill: Factual Answer: a. It is the area of the brain that is activated by drugs and that produces euphoria.

11.1-35. Studies of the genetics of alcoholism a. have not provided support for the notion that a susceptibility to alcoholism can be inherited. b. are not able to determine if the tendency of alcoholism to "run in families" is a result of environmental or biological factors. c. suggest that an inherited altered sensitivity to alcohol might create a vulnerability to alcohol abuse. d. have identified the gene that causes alcoholism.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-35 Page Ref: 385 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Biological Causal Factors in the Abuse of and Dependence on Alcohol Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. suggest that an inherited altered sensitivity to alcohol might create a vulnerability to alcohol abuse.

11.1-36. James has two alcoholic parents. Research suggests that his risk for alcoholism is a. nearly 100 percent. b. greater than if he had one alcoholic parent. c. no greater than if he had one alcoholic parent. d. about 10 percent higher than if he had no alcoholic parents.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-36 Page Ref: 385 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Biological Causal Factors in the Abuse of and Dependence on Alcohol Skill: Applied Answer: b. greater than if he had one alcoholic parent.

11.1-37. Men who are at high risk for becoming alcoholics a. experience more pleasure when they ingest alcohol than nonalcoholic men. b. experience greater lessening of feelings of stress after alcohol consumption than nonalcoholic men. c. tend to be more impulsive than the general population. d. respond less dramatically to alcohol related-cues than nonalcoholic men.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-37 Page Ref: 386 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Biological Causal Factors in the Abuse of and ..

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Dependence on Alcohol Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. experience greater lessening of feelings of stress after alcohol consumption than nonalcoholic men.

11.1-38. Which of the following men has an alcohol-risk personality? a. Tim, who is shy, anxious, and withdrawn. b. Brian, who is organized, detail-oriented, and ambitious. c. Sean, who is impulsive, risk-taking, and poor at planning. d. Art, who is frequently depressed and has a low level of self-esteem.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-38 Page Ref: 386 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Biological Causal Factors in the Abuse of and Dependence on Alcohol Skill: Applied Answer: c. Sean, who is impulsive, risk-taking, and poor at planning.

11.1-39. Rates of alcoholism among Asian populations are ________ than among European peoples. This fact may be related to ________. a. higher; genetic differences in the sensitivity of the MCLP b. higher; genetic differences in the ability to metabolize alcohol c. lower; religious differences in the acceptability of alcohol d. lower; a mutant enzyme that leads to hypersensitive reactions to alcohol Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-39 Page Ref: 386 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Biological Causal Factors in the Abuse of and Dependence on Alcohol Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. lower; a mutant enzyme that leads to hypersensitive reactions to alcohol 11.1-40. The "alcohol flush reaction" a. is seen during alcohol withdrawal. b. produces a spike in blood pressure and body temperature. c. results from an inability to metabolize alcohol. d. might explain the reduced rate of alcoholism seen among Native American peoples.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-40 Page Ref: 386 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Biological Causal Factors in the Abuse of and Dependence on Alcohol Skill: Factual Answer: c. results from an inability to metabolize alcohol. ..

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11.1-41. One limitation on the findings of genetic influences on alcoholism is that a. not enough research has been done using twins. b. there are so many cultural differences in the use of alcohol that it blurs the genetic differences. c. there have not been enough studies of the majority of children of alcoholics (those who do not become alcoholics). d. there has been too much of a focus on the study of the nonalcoholic children of alcoholics.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-41 Page Ref: 386 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Biological Causal Factors in the Abuse of and Dependence on Alcohol Skill: Factual Answer: c. there have not been enough studies of the majority of children of alcoholics (those who do not become alcoholics).

11.1-42. Which of the following is a common personality characteristic of those who later abuse alcohol? a. overly sensitive to the feelings of others b. high tolerance for frustration c. strong need for praise and admiration d. over-certainty of ability to fulfill expected gender roles Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-42 Page Ref: 387 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: c. strong need for praise and admiration 11.1-43. Which parenting skill or parental behavior is most associated with adolescent substance use? a. Overindulging children by giving them too many gifts and privileges b. Restricting children from any form of experimentation with alcohol and other drugs c. Restricting the expression of positive emotions d. Lack of monitoring the adolescent's activities Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-43 Page Ref: 387 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. Lack of monitoring the adolescent's activities 11.1-44. Persons at high risk for developing alcohol-related problems tend to be more ________ than those at low risk. ..

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a. impulsive b. vain c. dependent d. submissive Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-44 Page Ref: 387 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: a. impulsive 11.1-45. Which statement about alcohol abuse disorders and other psychological disorders is accurate? a. Since alcohol has a negative effect on neurotransmitters, it is extremely rare for people with schizophrenia to become alcohol or drug dependent. b. Since alcohol has an anti-anxiety effect, most of the people who are alcohol dependent and have another disorder suffer from generalized anxiety disorder. c. The personality disorder most often associated with alcohol abuse is antisocial personality disorder. d. The personality disorder most often associated with alcohol abuse is obsessive compulsive personality disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-45 Page Ref: 387 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: c. The personality disorder most often associated with alcohol abuse is antisocial personality disorder.

11.1-46. The individual with which of the following Axis I diagnoses is most likely to also abuse alcohol? a. Borderline personality disorder b. Depression c. Dissociative identity disorder d. Somatization disorder Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-46 Page Ref: 387 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. Depression 11.1-47. Rosa comes to you for treatment of her alcohol abuse. You suspect that she might have some other Axis I disorder as well. Why is it important for you to evaluate her Axis I status? a. Treating another Axis I disorder, when present along with alcohol abuse, ..

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usually clears up the excessive drinking as well. b. Her genetic liability may be much stronger if the alcohol abuse is the only Axis I disorder. c. The other disorder should be treated first. d. The co-occurrence of another mental disorder has a very significant effect on treatment outcome.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-47 Page Ref: 387 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: d. The co-occurrence of another mental disorder has a very significant effect on treatment outcome.

11.1-48. According to the tension-reduction explanation for alcoholism, a. alcoholics drink more because they are under greater stress. b. all those who experience stress-reduction following alcohol consumption are at an increased risk for alcoholism. c. alcoholics do not get "high" when they drink, they merely experience a decrease in negative mood states. d. alcohol's ability to alleviate tension should be enhanced in those with a genetic susceptibility to alcoholism.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-48 Page Ref: 388 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. all those who experience stress-reduction following alcohol consumption are at an increased risk for alcoholism.

11.1-49. The tension-reduction model of alcoholism a. does not explain why some excessive drinkers are able to maintain control over their drinking while others are not. b. suggests that alcoholism is environmentally determined. c. proposes that alcoholism is an incurable disease. d. provides an explanation for the role that personality traits play in the development of alcohol abuse.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-49 Page Ref: 388 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. does not explain why some excessive drinkers are able to maintain control over their drinking while others are not.

11.1-50. The reciprocal influence model of alcohol use suggests that ..

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a. expectancies of social benefit can influence adolescents to begin or to continue drinking. b. the final common pathway of alcohol use is motivation. c. alcoholics are especially intolerant of stress, and thus susceptible to the tensionreducing properties of alcohol. d. marital partners may enable one another to continue drinking.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-50 Page Ref: 388 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: a. expectancies of social benefit can influence adolescents to begin or to continue drinking.

11.1-51. The reciprocal influence model is best described as a ________ explanation for teen drinking. a. behavioral b. cognitive c. psychodynamic d. sociocultural Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-51 Page Ref: 388 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. cognitive 11.1-52. The reciprocal influence model suggests that a. teens will start drinking early no matter what. b. it may be possible to interrupt the cycle by changing expectancies about drinking. c. it would be hard to interrupt the cycle because most teens’ expectancies about drinking are accurate. d. even with different expectancies, teens still drink.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-52 Page Ref: 388 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. it may be possible to interrupt the cycle by changing expectancies about drinking.

11.1-53. Problematic drinking behavior commonly develops during a. a period of great success in an individual's life. b. old age. c. crisis periods in a marriage or other intimate personal relationship. ..

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d. the transition to middle age.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-53 Page Ref: 388 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: c. crisis periods in a marriage or other intimate personal relationship.

11.1-54. A moderating variable is a. something that makes a person more or less likely to inherit a disorder such as alcoholism. b. something that influences the connection between two other variables. c. something that causes alcoholics not to have as strong a reaction to alcohol as earlier. d. something that causes some alcoholics not to have as much impairment as others.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-54 Page Ref: 388 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. something that influences the connection between two other variables.

11.1-55. An example of a moderating influence would be a. the effect of time on outcome expectancy about alcohol. b. a wife enabling her husband to continue drinking by making excuses for him. c. a gene that reduces the chances of a person becoming an alcoholic. d. the impact of therapy on the divorce and suicide rates of alcoholics.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-55 Page Ref: 388 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: a. the effect of time on outcome expectancy about alcohol.

11.1-56. Bill is an alcoholic. His wife, Marge, has a lot of ready excuses she uses to explain to his boss, their friends, and their children to explain his frequent absences.

This is an example of a. how marriages of alcoholics often last a long time. b. why treatment needs to include identifying factors that may encourage drinking. c. how marriage can increase the risk of alcoholism. d. why most alcoholics rate their marriages as successful.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-56 Page Ref: 388 ..

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Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: b. why treatment needs to include identifying factors that may encourage drinking.

11.1-57. Binge drinking in college a. is not as common as most people think. b. leads to alcoholism later in life. c. can lead to many alcohol-related health and life problems. d. leads to more problems for men than women.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-57 Page Ref: 389 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: c. can lead to many alcohol-related health and life problems.

11.1-58. The incidence of alcoholism among Muslims and Mormons is low because a. individuals who practice these religions are likely to live in areas where alcohol is not readily available. b. these religions prohibit alcohol consumption. c. members of both groups are likely to have inherited an inability to metabolize alcohol properly. d. strong family and community bonds protect these populations from all psychological disorders.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-58 Page Ref: 390 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Sociocultural Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. these religions prohibit alcohol consumption.

11.1-59. Which of the following countries has the highest per capita rate of alcohol consumption? a. Argentina b. France c. Germany d. United States Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-59 Page Ref: 390 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Sociocultural Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. France 11.1-60. Which of the following is the most significant barrier to getting an alcoholic ..

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into treatment? a. The availability of alcohol b. The detoxification process c. Overcoming denial d. Finding a suitable treatment program Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-60 Page Ref: 391 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Treatment of Alcohol-Related Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Overcoming denial 11.1-61. Why might opiate antagonists be used in the treatment of alcoholism? a. To minimize withdrawal b. To minimize cravings c. To make alcohol aversive d. To prevent alcohol from acting on the brain's reward system Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-61 Page Ref: 391 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Treatment of Alcohol-Related Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: b. To minimize cravings 11.1-62. What complicates the use of Antabuse in the treatment of alcoholism? a. While it lessens cravings, it does nothing to improve negative mood states. b. There is a risk of dependence. c. It has to be administered intravenously. d. Exposure to all alcohol must be avoided.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-62 Page Ref: 391 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Treatment of Alcohol-Related Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. Exposure to all alcohol must be avoided.

11.1-63. Randy has been dependent on alcohol for at least ten years. Drinking has ruined his marriage, his occupational standing, and his health. If a friend told Randy that he needed to enter treatment, and Randy responded the way most alcohol dependent people do, he would probably say a. "Alcohol is my enemy but I don't think I am strong enough to combat it." b. "I have an addictive personality and without help, I will never overcome my addiction." c. "You have a very good point; I need to do some serious thinking about getting treatment." d. "Who do you think you are attacking me? You are the one with the problem." ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-63 Page Ref: 391 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Treatment of Alcohol-Related Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: d. "Who do you think you are attacking me? You are the one with the problem."

11.1-64. Adam and Beth are both being treated for alcohol dependence by being given medications. Adam's medication makes him vomit if he drinks after taking it.

Beth's medication reduces her craving for alcohol. Most likely Adam is taking ________; Beth is taking ________. a. methadone; Naltrexone b. Naltrexone; methadone c. methadone; Antabuse d. Antabuse; Naltrexone Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-64 Page Ref: 391 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Treatment of Alcohol-Related Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: d. Antabuse; Naltrexone 11.1-65. The first stage in the treatment of any form of substance dependence is a. group psychotherapy. b. treating physical withdrawal symptoms. c. the use of Antabuse. d. the administration of antidepressants.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-65 Page Ref: 391 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Treatment of Alcohol-Related Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: b. treating physical withdrawal symptoms.

11.1-66. Aversive conditioning for alcoholics a. punishes the alcoholic for drinking by making him or her sick after drinking. b. uses educational and life skills training to help the alcoholic understand the negative aspects of drinking. c. includes family members to try to help the alcoholic understand the harm his or her behaviors have done. d. involves pairing alcohol with something unpleasant like electric shock.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-66 Page Ref: 392 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Treatment of Alcohol-Related Disorders Skill: Conceptual ..

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Answer: d. involves pairing alcohol with something unpleasant like electric shock.

11.1-67. Controlled drinking - teaching alcoholics to drink in moderation a. has been generally accepted as a useful treatment. b. seems to work for some people with less severe alcoholism. c. works better than complete abstinence. d. seems to work well for all types of alcoholics.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-67 Page Ref: 393 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Treatment of Alcohol-Related Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: b. seems to work for some people with less severe alcoholism.

11.1-68. "I am a person who has an affliction-I cannot drink like social drinkers.

Spiritual change may help me in recovering from my addiction, but I will be an alcoholic for life." The person who said this would feel most comfortable in ________. a. relapse prevention b. Alcoholics Anonymous c. aversive conditioning treatment d. a replacement program Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-68 Page Ref: 393 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Treatment of Alcohol-Related Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: b. Alcoholics Anonymous 11.1-69. In contrast to other treatment programs, Alcoholics Anonymous a. offers both group and one-on-one support. b. is successful, but only with severe alcoholics who have "hit bottom." c. uses primarily psychodynamic interventions, although advocates of AA would disagree. d. has a low dropout rate.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-69 Page Ref: 393 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Treatment of Alcohol-Related Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. offers both group and one-on-one support.

11.1-70. Which statement about Project MATCH is accurate? a. It showed that matching a client's personality to a form of treatment makes no ..

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difference. b. It proved that treatment based on Alcoholics Anonymous is superior to other forms of treatment. c. It showed that treatments only work when they are carefully matched with the personality profiles of the clients in them. d. It proved that therapists must establish warm relationships with their clients in order for therapy to be effective.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-70 Page Ref: 394 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Treatment of Alcohol-Related Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. It showed that matching a client's personality to a form of treatment makes no difference.

11.1-71. Which type of treatment for alcoholism has been found to be most effective? a. Inpatient treatment b. Outpatient treatment c. Twelve-step programs d. All were about equal Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-71 Page Ref: 394 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Treatment of Alcohol-Related Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. All were about equal 11.1-72. The abstinence violation effect is a. the relapse rate percentage used in treatment outcome studies of addicts. b. the effect that physiologically addicting drugs have in making continued abstinence difficult. c. the tendency of an abstainer to relapse completely after a minor transgression. d. the Alcoholics Anonymous phrase for relapsing.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-72 Page Ref: 395 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Treatment of Alcohol-Related Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: c. the tendency of an abstainer to relapse completely after a minor transgression.

11.1-73. In what type of treatment are clients taught to recognize situations that are ..

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likely to trigger drinking? a. Alcoholics Anonymous b. Motivational Enhancement Therapy c. Relapse Prevention Treatment d. Abstinence Violation Prevention Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-73 Page Ref: 395 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Treatment of Alcohol-Related Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: c. Relapse Prevention Treatment 11.1-74. Which of the following is a narcotic? a. Alcohol b. Codeine c. Marijuana d. Tobacco Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-74 Page Ref: 397 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Opium and Its Derivatives Skill: Factual Answer: b. Codeine 11.1-75. Who has the highest self-reported quit rate among smokers? a. Young adults who have just started smoking b. People who used nicotine replacement such as gum c. People who were hospitalized for cancer or lung problems d. People who underwent cognitive behavior treatment Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-75 Page Ref: 408 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Stimulants: Caffeine and Nicotine Skill: Factual Answer: c. People who were hospitalized for cancer or lung problems 11.1-76. Why are estimates of the prevalence of drug dependence likely to be inaccurate? a. Many people who think they have a problem don't. b. Twelve-step programs have become the treatment of choice. c. Treatment is often not available when it is sought. d. Many people do not seek help.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-76 Page Ref: 395 ..

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Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Many people do not seek help.

11.1-77. Which of the following is both a stimulant and a hallucinogen? a. Amphetamine b. Cocaine c. Ecstasy d. Mescaline Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-77 Page Ref: 404-405 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Ecstasy Skill: Factual Answer: c. Ecstasy 11.1-78. Which of the following drugs is MDMA structurally similar to? a. Methamphetamine and LSD b. Cocaine and mescaline c. Methamphetamine and mescaline d. Cocaine and LSD Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-78 Page Ref: 404-405 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Ecstasy Skill: Factual Answer: c. Methamphetamine and mescaline 11.1-79. Drug abuse and dependence are most common in what age group and in what type of community? a. Childhood; rural communities b. Adolescence and young adulthood; economically depressed communities c. Middle age; affluent suburban communities d. Adolescence and young adulthood; affluent suburban communities Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-79 Page Ref: 396 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence Skill: Factual Answer: b. adolescence and young adulthood; economically depressed communities 11.1-80. Opium and heroin a. were originally used by physicians as pain relievers. b. have always been two of the most abused illegal drugs. c. induce euphoria but do not reduce pain. d. control pain only if they are used to cause unconsciousness. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-80 Page Ref: 401 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Opium and Its Derivatives (Narcotics) Skill: Factual Answer: a. were originally used by physicians as pain relievers.

11.1-81. In 2005, which of the following accounted for 10 percent of all drug-related emergency room admissions? a. Cocaine b. Ecstasy c. Barbiturates d. Heroin Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-81 Page Ref: 397 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Opium and Its Derivatives (Narcotics) Skill: Factual Answer: d. Heroin 11.1-82. Opium and its derivatives a. typically take several months to produce physiological cravings. b. cause withdrawal symptoms within approximately 8 hours of the last dose. c. always cause near fatal withdrawal symptoms. d. cause amnesia with long-term use.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-82 Page Ref: 397 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Opium and Its Derivatives (Narcotics) Skill: Factual Answer: b. cause withdrawal symptoms within approximately 8 hours of the last dose.

11.1-83. Which of the following makes treatment of dependence on heroin especially challenging? a. The severity of the withdrawal b. The likely involvement of the user in a drug-using subculture c. The lack of a means of minimizing cravings d. The high probability that the user is also dependent on other drugs Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-83 Page Ref: 398 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Opium and Its Derivatives (Narcotics) Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. The likely involvement of the user in a drug-using subculture 11.1-84. The main reason addicts gave for using heroin was ..

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a. pleasure. b. pain reduction. c. depression. d. mental illness.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-84 Page Ref: 398 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Opium and Its Derivatives (Narcotics) Skill: Factual Answer: a. pleasure.

11.1-85. Endorphins a. have been found to play a role in ending drug use. b. are opium-like substances produced by the body. c. are opium-like substances created synthetically to replace heroin. d. are overproduced in the brains of addicts.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-85 Page Ref: 399 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Opium and Its Derivatives (Narcotics) Skill: Factual Answer: b. are opium-like substances produced by the body.

11.1-86. The use of methadone in the treatment of heroin dependence is comparable to a. using naltrexone to treat alcoholism. b. using Antabuse to treat alcoholism. c. using a nicotine patch to aid in smoking cessation. d. using antidepressants as an aid to smoking cessation.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-86 Page Ref: 399 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Opium and Its Derivatives (Narcotics) Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. using a nicotine patch to aid in smoking cessation.

11.1-87. Tina has been using cocaine for many months. She decides to stop. She can expect a. to have no withdrawal symptoms. b. to have a strong psychological need for the drug but no withdrawal symptoms. c. to have increased heart rate, memory problems, and possibly death. d. to have depression, fatigue, disturbed sleep, and increased dreaming.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-87 Page Ref: 400 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Cocaine and Amphetamines (Stimulants) ..

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Skill: Applied Answer: d. to have depression, fatigue, disturbed sleep, and increased dreaming.

11.1-88. "Crack" is a form of a. amphetamine. b. cocaine. c. ecstasy. d. methamphetamine.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-88 Page Ref: 400 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Cocaine and Amphetamines (Stimulants) Skill: Factual Answer: b. cocaine.

11.1-89. Which statement about crack cocaine use is accurate? a. Because crack cocaine is inexpensive, users do not have the life problems seen in other addicted populations. b. Chronic users develop sexual dysfunctions and a disinterest in sex. c. Fetal crack syndrome is as distinct and damaging as fetal alcohol syndrome. d. Because crack cocaine is associated with passivity and depression, chronic users are less likely to die a violent death than other addicted populations.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-89 Page Ref: 400 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Cocaine and Amphetamines (Stimulants) Skill: Factual Answer: b. Chronic users develop sexual dysfunctions and a disinterest in sex.

11.1-90. Children of mothers who use crack a. are likely to have fetal crack syndrome. b. usually have no physical or mental problems. c. are at risk for being mistreated by their mothers. d. are at higher risk for anxiety disorders and ADHD. Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-90 Page Ref: 401 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Cocaine and Amphetamines (Stimulants) Skill: Factual Answer: c. are at risk for being mistreated by their mothers.

11.1-91. Benzedrine is a(n) a. amphetamine. b. appetite stimulant. c. narcotic. d. cough suppressant. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-91 Page Ref: 401 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Cocaine and Amphetamines (Stimulants) Skill: Factual Answer: a. amphetamine.

11.1-92. Today physicians occasionally prescribe amphetamines for which of the following reasons? a. Weight gain. b. Staying awake, such as to drive or study. c. Treating narcolepsy. d. Treating depression in children.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-92 Page Ref: 401 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Cocaine and Amphetamines (Stimulants) Skill: Factual Answer: c. Treating narcolepsy.

11.1-93. Amphetamine psychosis resembles a. acute hypertension. b. Korsakoff's syndrome. c. paranoid schizophrenia. d. borderline personality disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-93 Page Ref: 402 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Cocaine and Amphetamines (Stimulants) Skill: Factual Answer: c. paranoid schizophrenia.

11.1-94. Which of the following has legitimate medical uses, but is associated with both physiological and psychological dependence and lethal overdoses? a. Amphetamine b. Barbiturates c. Heroin d. LSD Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-94 Page Ref: 403 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Barbiturates (Sedatives) Skill: Factual Answer: b. Barbiturates 11.1-95. Which of the following is most likely to be used to produce sleep? ..

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a. Barbiturates b. Mescaline c. Morphine d. Codeine Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-95 Page Ref: 403 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Barbiturates (Sedatives) Skill: Factual Answer: a. Barbiturates 11.1-96. Impaired memory and concentration, sluggishness, lack of motor coordination, and brain damage are side effects associated with excessive use of a. stimulants. b. antihistamines. c. sedatives. d. antidepressants.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-96 Page Ref: 403 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Barbiturates (Sedatives) Skill: Factual Answer: c. sedatives.

11.1-97. Which of the following people is most likely to be dependent on barbiturates? a. A teenaged boy who is often impulsive and aggressive b. An undereducated member of a minority group who has antisocial personality disorder c. An anxious young adult who takes the drugs to feel more confident d. Middle-aged and older persons who cannot get to sleep without them Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-97 Page Ref: 403 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Barbiturates (Sedatives) Skill: Applied Answer: d. Middle-aged and older persons who cannot get to sleep without them 11.1-98. Barbiturate withdrawal a. is similar to withdrawal from cocaine and opium. b. is more dangerous and long-lasting than most drugs. c. causes psychological distress but no withdrawal symptoms. d. lasts for a short time but is very painful.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-98 Page Ref: 403 ..

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Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Barbiturates (Sedatives) Skill: Factual Answer: b. is more dangerous and long-lasting than most drugs.

11.1-99. Both alcohol and barbiturate withdrawal a. usually last several months. b. are purely psychological. c. are far less serious than opiate withdrawal. d. can be minimized by administering another drug.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-99 Page Ref: 404 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Barbiturates (Sedatives) Skill: Factual Answer: d. can be minimized by administering another drug.

11.1-100. The drug that can create a state most like psychosis is a. amphetamine. b. LSD. c. heroin. d. marijuana.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.1-100 Page Ref: 404 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/ Hallucinogens: LSD and Related Drugs Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. LSD. 11.1-101. An involuntary reoccurrence of perceptual distortions can occur weeks or months after taking a particular drug. The phenomenon is called ________; the drug is called ________. a. amphetamine psychosis; amphetamine b. a flashback; LSD c. a rush; LSD d. a blackout; alcohol Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-101 Page Ref: 404 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Hallucinogens: LSD and Related Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: b. a flashback; LSD 11.1-102. Brendan has been using marijuana daily for more than six years. If he stops using the drug, we may expect a. withdrawal-like symptoms such as nervousness and changes in sleeping and eating. ..

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b. a period of extreme depression and lethargy, but no physiological symptoms. c. a potentially lethal withdrawal phase. d. slowed reaction times, increased heart rate, and memory dysfunction.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-102 Page Ref: 406 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Marijuana Skill: Applied Answer: a. withdrawal-like symptoms such as nervousness and changes in sleeping and eating.

11.1-103. “Spice,” “K2,” and “Blaze” are names for ________________. a. MDMA b. LSD c. Synthetic marijuana d. Cannabis Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.1-103 Page Ref: 408 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Marijuana Skill: Applied Answer: c. Synthetic marijuana Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 11.2-1. Substance abuse usually involves an excessive use of a substance, while __________ usually involves a marked physiological need for the substance.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.2-1 Page Ref: 378 Topic: Substance-Related Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: substance dependence 11.2-2. An alcohol-related psychosis that was previously called Korsakoff's syndrome is __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.2-2 Page Ref: 384 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture of Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Skill: Factual Answer: alcohol amnestic disorder 11.2-3. The __________ is the center of psychoactive drug activation in the brain.

Difficulty: 1 ..

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Question ID: 11.2-3 Page Ref: 385 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture of Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Skill: Factual Answer: mesocorticolimbic dopamine pathway (MCLP) 11.2-4. A processed derivative of cocaine is __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.2-4 Page Ref: 400 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Cocaine and Amphetamines (Stimulants) Skill: Factual Answer: crack 11.2-5. _______________are an opium-like substance that the body produces.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.2-5 Page Ref: 399 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Opium and Its Derivatives (Narcotics) Skill: Factual Answer: Endorphins Short Answer Questions 11.3-1. Name and describe the two factors that are seen when a person has a physiological need for a psychoactive substance.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.3-1 Page Ref: 378 Topic: Substance-Related Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: Tolerance: the need for increased amounts of the substance to gain the desired effect. Withdrawal: physical symptoms such as sweating or tremors that occur when a person abstains from the substance.

11.3-2. What is alcohol's effect on the brain at low doses? What is its effect at high doses?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.3-2 Page Ref: 381 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Skill: Factual Answer: At low doses, alcohol activates the brain's "pleasure center," which releases endorphins and produces a sense of well-being. At higher doses, alcohol depresses the ..

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excitatory neurotransmitter, glutamate, which slows brain activity. The effect is that it impairs learning, judgment, and self-control. At higher levels coordination, speech, and vision are impaired.

Eventually, a person passes out. If he or she does not, at concentrations above 0.55 percent, alcohol poisoning is fatal.

11.3-3. Nutritional deficiencies are common in alcoholics. Provide two different reasons for this.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.3-3 Page Ref: 383 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture of Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Skill: Applied Answer: Alcohol is high in calories, but has no real nutritional value. Thus, the alcoholic may not eat properly. Alcohol also compromises the body's ability to use ingested nutrients, so even if food high in nutritional value is ingested, the nutrients will not be fully available to the body.

11.3-4. What causes alcohol amnestic disorder?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.3-4 Page Ref: 384 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/The Clinical Picture of Alcohol Abuse and Dependence Skill: Factual Answer: Alcohol amnestic disorder, also known as Korsakoff's syndrome, is a result of a lack of vitamin B (thiamine).

11.3-5. How do substances such as alcohol and cocaine have an overpowering hold on people, sometimes after only a few uses?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.3-5 Page Ref: 385 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Biological Causal Factors in the Abuse of and Dependence on Alcohol Skill: Conceptual Answer: 1. Ability to activate areas of pleasure in the brain. 2. People's biological makeup, such as genes, and their environmental influences make them more susceptible.

11.3-6. What factors might be inherited that put one at greater risk for developing alcoholism?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.3-6 Page Ref: 385 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Biological Causal Factors in the ..

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Abuse of and Dependence on Alcohol Skill: Factual Answer: It has been demonstrated that personality variables such as impulsiveness and emotional instability might be associated with a greater likelihood of developing alcoholism. Physiological differences in responses to alcohol have also been seen in prealcoholic men with a family history of alcoholism. It may be that those who are vulnerable to alcoholism derive more pleasure from alcohol use and/or may have a larger conditioned response to alcohol-related cues.

11.3-7. Why does the tension reduction hypothesis fail to explain the development of alcohol dependence?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.3-7 Page Ref: 388 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Applied Answer: If the sole explanation for the development of alcoholism could be accounted for by the ability of alcohol to alleviate stress, the incidence of alcoholism would be much higher than it is.

11.3-8. What evidence is there that cultural attitudes play a role in the development of alcohol abuse?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.3-8 Page Ref: 390 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Sociocultural Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: Cultural factors can either decrease or increase the likelihood of alcohol abuse.

Muslims and Mormons prohibit alcohol use, and Orthodox Jews limit its use to religious rituals. All three groups have very low rates of alcoholism. In Europe, where half the alcohol in the world is consumed, alcohol abuse is a big problem. France has the highest per capita alcohol consumption and death rate from cirrhosis.

11.3-9. Name and describe the effects of two medications used in the treatment of alcohol dependence.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.3-9 Page Ref: 391 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Treatment of Alcohol-Related Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: Disulfiram (Antabuse): This drug deters drinking because it causes violent vomiting if a person drinks after having it in the system. Naltrexone: This opiate antagonist helps reduce the craving for alcohol and lowers the incentive to drink.

11.3-10. What is the abstinence violation effect? ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.3-10 Page Ref: 395 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Treatment of Alcohol-Related Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: Just as when one cheats on a diet there may be a tendency to engage in a binge, the same is often seen when the abstinent alcoholic slips. A single drink, a violation of abstinence, is likely to result in a binge, and a loss of many gains achieved in treatment as the violation of abstinence is viewed as a sign of failure.

11.3-11. Briefly characterize the personality of the typical compulsive gambler.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.3-11 Page Ref: 410 Topic: Drug Abuse and Dependence/Stimulants: Pathological Gambling Skill: Applied Answer: He or she is immature, rebellious, unconventional, perhaps somewhat psychopathic, unrealistic, sensation seeking, and makes extensive use of rationalizations.

He or she is probably experiencing difficulty at home and at work. This person has a strong need for adulation and recognition. Certain ethnic groups, including Southeast Asians, are at higher risk.

Essay Questions 11.4-1. Identify and describe the disorders that an "addict" might be diagnosed with according to the DSM-IV-TR. Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 11.4-1 Page Ref: 379 Topic: Substance-Related Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: While the DSM-IV-TR does not include diagnoses of addict or alcoholic, there are two types of disorders that an "addict" might be diagnosed with based on his or her substance use. Substance abuse involves pathological use of a substance resulting in potentially hazardous behavior, or in continued use despite a persistent social, psychological, occupational, or health problem. Substance dependence is a more serious problem with substance use and may be characterized by evidence of physiological dependence. When physiological dependence has developed, tolerance and/or withdrawal are seen. Other features of substance dependence include taking larger amounts of the substance than intended, having an inability to cut down use, spending more time on drug-related activities and less on important social and occupational activities, and continued use despite knowledge of physical of psychological problems caused by the drug. GRADING RUBRIC - 2 points for identifying the disorders, 2 points for noting that dependence is more serious, 2 points for identifying that physiological dependence is seen in substance dependence, 2 points for indicating that addict is not in the DSM = 8 ..

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total.

11.4-2. What do all abused substances have in common? What are some inherited factors that might lead to an increased vulnerability to substance abuse?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.4-2 Page Ref: 384-385 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Biological Causal Factors in the Abuse of and Dependence on Alcohol Skill: Factual Answer: It would be expected that abused substances would share some common effects on the brain, and there is evidence of this. It appears that drugs such as alcohol, cocaine, and opium all act on a system in the brain that is involved in pleasure. Thus, these drugs act on a system in the brain that normally serves to reward behaviors that are beneficial.

While psychoactive drugs may have similar effects in the brain of everyone, there is evidence that those with a genetic predisposition for substance abuse may show an altered response to drugs. Males who are genetically predisposed to develop alcoholism, for example, appear to feel greater stress reduction than others when they drink alcohol and show other physiological differences in how they respond to alcohol. It is believed that these differences can explain the observed role of genes in the development of substance use disorders. Altered drug responsiveness, as well as personality traits, may be inherited and result in a greater risk of substance abuse and dependence. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points total - 4 points for explanation of reward system involvement, 3 points for each of two inherited factors that increase vulnerability.

11.4-3. What is the evidence for and against genetics in alcoholism?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.4-3 Page Ref: 385-386 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Biological Causal Factors in the Abuse of and Dependence on Alcohol Skill: Factual Answer: Having one or two parents with alcoholism increases the risk of a child also having it. Adopted children whose biological parent had alcoholism had higher risk than if their biological parent did not have alcoholism, even if their adoptive parent did.

Differences have been found in pre-alcoholic men - men with alcoholic parents who are not yet alcoholic - such as different physiological reactions to alcohol and greater conditioned response to alcohol cues. Certain ethnic groups have abnormal physiological reactions to alcohol that seem to make them more or less likely to develop alcoholism.

However, genetics cannot fully explain the patterns and changes in alcoholism. Most children of alcoholics do not become alcoholic, regardless of whether they were raised by their parents. Some studies have found no differences in the children of alcoholics and the children of non-alcoholics. GRADING RUBRIC: 10 points, 5 for evidence for and 5 against.

11.4-4. Describe two psychosocial causal factors in the development of alcohol abuse ..

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and dependence.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 11.4-4 Page Ref: 387-390 Topic: Alcohol Abuse and Dependence/Psychosocial Causal Factors Skill: Factual Answer: Two of: 1. Failures in parental guidance - alcoholic parents model the behavior, provide limited guidance and training. 2. Psychological vulnerability – emotionally immature, expecting a lot of the world, needing lots of praise, low frustration tolerance, impulsivity, and feeling inadequate to fulfill expected gender roles seem to describe an alcoholic personality. These people have higher risk of developing alcoholism. Also the presence of antisocial personality disorder increases risk. 3. Stress and tension reduction can reinforce drinking behavior. 4. Expectations of social success - the reciprocal influence model - can increase risk. 5. Relationship problems can increase drinking.

GRADING RUBRIC: 10 points, 5 for each causal factor.

..

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TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 12 Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions

Topic

Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards Sexual and Gender Variants (419)

Sexual Abuse (431)

Sexual Dysfunctions (441)

Multiple Choice (12.1-) Blank (12.2-) Short Answer (12.3-) Essay (12.4-) Multiple Choice (12.1-)

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

3, 4, 6, 7, 9, 11, 12, 14, 16, 18, 19, 20 1 2

1, 2, 5, 13, 15, 17

8, 10

1 1 27

23, 26, 37, 39, 42, 45

Blank (12.2-)

21, 22, 24, 25, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 38, 40, 41, 43, 44, 46, 47, 48 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

Short Answer (12.3-)

3

Essay (12.4-) Multiple Choice (12.1-)

Blank (12.2-) Short Answer (12.3-) Essay (12.4-) Multiple Choice (12.1-) Blank (12.2-) Short Answer (12.3-) Essay (12.4-)

4

49, 50, 51, 55, 56, 57, 58, 59, 61, 63, 64, 65, 66, 67, 71, 72, 73, 74, 76, 79, 80, 82, 84, 85, 86

53, 54, 68, 69, 70, 75, 77, 83

6, 7 4

52, 60, 62, 78, 81

5, 8 2, 3

87, 88, 89, 90, 91, 92, 93, 94, 95 9

10

Copyright © 2013 by Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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Chapter 12: Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions Multiple-Choice Questions 12.1-1. Sexual variants illustrate a theme in abnormal psychology better than any other category of disorder. Which theme? a. The importance of stressors as the cause of disorder b. The impact of disorder on one's occupational and social adjustment c. The difficulty in defining the boundaries of normal and abnormal d. The role of neurotransmitters in controlling thought and behavior Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-1 Page Ref: 415 Topic: Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. The difficulty in defining the boundaries of normal and abnormal 12.1-2. What is unique about some of the disorders described as sexual variants? a. They cause discomfort to the individual with the disorder. b. They usually make others uncomfortable. c. They do not cause harm. d. Comorbid diagnoses are rare.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-2 Page Ref: 415 Topic: Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. They do not cause harm.

12.1-3. Research about sexuality is a. one of the earliest areas of research in psychology. b. limited because there are relatively few forms of abnormal sexual behavior. c. surprisingly limited due to taboos and political controversies surrounding sexual topics. d. abundant, although it is plagued by methodological problems.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-3 Page Ref: 415 Topic: Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions Skill: Factual Answer: c. surprisingly limited due to taboos and political controversies surrounding sexual topics.

12.1-4. Which of the following is cross-culturally universal? a. Acceptance of homosexuality as an alternative lifestyle b. Attitudes toward premarital sex ..

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c. a distaste for extramarital sex between consenting adults d. Males value physical appearance in partners more than females Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-4 Page Ref: 416 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards Skill: Factual Answer: d. Males value physical appearance in partners more than females 12.1-5. Which of the following statements is true? a. Sexual practices and standards are constantly evolving. b. Over time, all cultures develop more liberal attitudes toward sex. c. There is little that is considered "taboo" in modern society. d. Monogamy is a dated concept.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-5 Page Ref: 416 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. Sexual practices and standards are constantly evolving.

12.1-6. Which of the following is true? a. People tend to be envious of sexual nonconformists. b. Attitudes about what is sexually "normal" have stayed surprisingly the same over time. c. People tend to believe their current sexual standards are correct and to be intolerant of nonconformists. d. Attitudes about what is sexually "normal" are extremely consistent across cultures.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-6 Page Ref: 416 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards Skill: Factual Answer: c. People tend to believe their current sexual standards are correct and to be intolerant of nonconformists.

12.1-7. When it comes to cross-cultural similarities and differences concerning sexual behavior, which of the following statements is accurate? a. Taboos on sex between close relatives are found in all known cultures. b. Only in Western societies do men place greater emphasis on a partner's attractiveness. c. In a specific culture, sexual attitudes and practices tend to be quite stable over hundreds of years. d. In most cultures, people are highly tolerant of sexual nonconformity.

Difficulty: 1 ..

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Question ID: 12.1-7 Page Ref: 416 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards Skill: Factual Answer: a. Taboos on sex between close relatives are found in all known cultures.

12.1-8. "Semen is responsible for masculine characteristics such as beard growth and for general physical and sexual vigor. Therefore, wasting semen through masturbation and patronizing prostitutes is damaging to the nervous system" This statement best illustrates the ________ theory of sexual behavior. a. degeneracy b. psychoanalytic c. abstinence d. disease Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-8 Page Ref: 416 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards/Case 1: Degeneracy and Abstinence Theory Skill: Applied Answer: a. degeneracy 12.1-9. According to abstinence theory, which of the following is necessary for health? a. Healthy food. b. Intellectual stimulation. c. Exercising 7 days a week. d. Sexual intercourse 3 to 5 times per week.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-9 Page Ref: 416 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards/Case 1: Degeneracy and Abstinence Theory Skill: Factual Answer: a. Healthy food.

12.1-10. According to Dr. Kellogg, what treatment should be used as a last resort when a boy persistently exhibits weakness, signs of consumption, and mock piety? a. A diet of mainly cereal and nuts b. Vigorous exercise c. Circumcision without anesthesia d. Carbolic acid application Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-10 Page Ref: 416 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards/Case 1: ..

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Degeneracy and Abstinence Theory Skill: Applied Answer: c. Circumcision without anesthesia 12.1-11. Kellogg's cornflakes were designed to be anti-masturbation food because it was believed that a. eating meat increased sexual desire. b. the amount of time it took to eat them would help distract people from sexual interests. c. the effort it took to eat them would make people too tired to be interested in sex. d. cereals and grains caused impotence.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-11 Page Ref: 416 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards/Case 1: Degeneracy and Abstinence Theory Skill: Factual Answer: a. eating meat increased sexual desire.

12.1-12. It was once believed that masturbation caused a. infertility. b. insanity. c. narcissism. d. schizophrenia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-12 Page Ref: 416 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards/Case 1: Degeneracy and Abstinence Theory Skill: Factual Answer: b. insanity.

12.1-13. Which of the following is a true statement about attitudes in the United States about masturbation? a. Masturbation is a universally accepted way of satisfying sexual desire. b. Masturbation is no longer viewed as a disordered behavior, but public discussion of it may be actively discouraged. c. A discussion of masturbation is a recommended element of all sex education courses. d. Masturbation is openly discussed in most community settings.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-13 Page Ref: 416 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards/Case 1: Degeneracy and Abstinence Theory ..

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Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Masturbation is no longer viewed as a disordered behavior, but public discussion of it may be actively discouraged.

12.1-14. Why is ritualized homosexuality practiced in Sambia? a. Women are viewed as dirty. b. Heterosexual intercourse is only acceptable between married partners. c. Few adults are exclusively heterosexual. d. It permits semen conservation.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-14 Page Ref: 417 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards/Case 2: Ritualized Homosexuality Melanesia Skill: Factual Answer: d. It permits semen conservation.

12.1-15. The beliefs about homosexuality among the Sambi tribe illustrate a. that such behavior is considered abnormal in all cultures. b. that cultures in developing nations are more accepting of sexual nonconformists than other cultures. c. that classification of sexual practices as abnormal is strongly influenced by culture. d. that there really is no such thing as abnormal sexual behavior.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-15 Page Ref: 417 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards/Case 2: Ritualized Homosexuality Melanesia Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. that classification of sexual practices as abnormal is strongly influenced by culture.

12.1-16. Freud a. viewed homosexuality as a disease that could be easily treated. b. was much more accepting of homosexuality than his contemporaries. c. believed that homosexuals were really heterosexuals who were traumatized by their own sexual desires. d. thought homosexuality developed as a result of early sexual trauma.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-16 Page Ref: 417 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards/Homosexuality and American Psychiatry Skill: Factual Answer: b. was much more accepting of homosexuality than his contemporaries. ..

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12.1-17. Among psychoanalysts in the 1930s and 1940s, homosexuality was first seen as ________ but later was seen as ________. a. a form of criminal behavior; defense against heterosexual urges b. a severe form of psychological disability; a normal variant of sexual behavior c. a result of highly pathological parent-child relationships; a conscious effort to gain attention d. a variation of sexual function; a pathological escape from heterosexuality Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-17 Page Ref: 418 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards/Homosexuality and American Psychiatry Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. a variation of sexual function; a pathological escape from heterosexuality 12.1-18. One of the reasons the Kinsey report is noteworthy is that it a. revealed that homosexuality was much more common than expected. b. established that homosexuals were psychologically normal. c. redefined sexuality. d. lead to the immediate removal of homosexuality from the DSM. Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-18 Page Ref: 418 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards/Homosexuality and American Psychiatry Skill: Factual Answer: a. revealed that homosexuality was much more common than expected.

12.1-19. The decision by APA to remove homosexuality from the DSM a. was later challenged and overturned. b. was based on research and science. c. was based on a vote by mental health professionals. d.was based on research about the lack of treatment.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-19 Page Ref: 418 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards/Homosexuality and American Psychiatry Skill: Factual Answer: c. was based on a vote by mental health professionals.

12.1-20. The current most influential model of the cause of sexual orientation is a. that homosexual people had domineering mothers and absent or withdrawn fathers. b. that homosexual people learned their behaviors through classical conditioning. ..

415

c. that homosexual people were exposed to early hormonal influences that were more typical of the opposite gender. d. that homosexual people were reinforced for cross-gender behaviors.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-20 Page Ref: 418 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards/Developments in Thinking Skill: Factual Answer: c. that homosexual people were exposed to early hormonal influences that were more typical of the opposite gender.

12.1-21. What is a paraphilia? a. An abnormal level of sexual desire and behavior, whether homosexual or heterosexual. b. An impairment in either the desire for sexual gratification or a dysfunction in achieving it. c. A recurrent and distressing pattern of excluding all sexual behaviors except for masturbation. d. Persistent sexual behavior patterns in which unusual objects or situations are required for sexual satisfaction.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-21 Page Ref: 419 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias Skill: Factual Answer: d. Persistent sexual behavior patterns in which unusual objects or situations are required for sexual satisfaction.

12.1-22. To be diagnosed with a paraphilia, a person a. must have acted on the sexual fantasies. b. must cause harm to another person. c. must have distress or impairment. d. may not have to have distress or impairment.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-22 Page Ref: 419 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias Skill: Factual Answer: a. must have acted on the sexual fantasies.

12.1-23. Julia has a shoe fetish - she is not able to enjoy sex unless her partner is wearing her shoes. She needs to be touching the shoes in order to achieve sexual gratification. She becomes aroused by the sight of her own shoes. What is unique about Julia's case of shoe fetishism? a. Most fetishes involve animate objects. ..

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b. Sexual dysfunction usually is seen in the fetishist. c. Partners are usually not involved. d. Female fetishists are rare.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-23 Page Ref: 419 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias Skill: Applied Answer: d. Female fetishists are rare.

12.1-24. Frotteurism is a. sexual arousal by rubbing one's genital area against a nonconsenting person. b. sexual arousal in a male exclusively through masturbation. c. inability for males to be aroused by anything except inanimate objects. d. sexual arousal in males by the thought of having their sex organs removed.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-24 Page Ref: 419 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias Skill: Factual Answer: a. sexual arousal by rubbing one's genital area against a nonconsenting person.

12.1-25. People with transvestic fetishism a. include males and females, although more males than females. b. are usually heterosexual. c. frequently cause harm to others. d. wish to be the opposite gender.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-25 Page Ref: 420 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias Skill: Factual Answer: b. are usually heterosexual.

12.1-26. Gary finds himself sexually aroused by dressing in women's clothing. He sometimes steals the clothes from women and from stores. He has a wife and is happy in his marriage. Gary's most likely diagnosis is a. fetishism. b. gender identity disorder. c. exhibitionism. d. transvestic fetishism.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-26 Page Ref: 420 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias Skill: Applied ..

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Answer: d. transvestic fetishism.

12.1-27. The most common theory about voyeurs is a. they become classically conditioned to respond in a stronger way to the female body than most males. b. they have difficulty relating to women and find peeping satisfies needs in a way that feels safe and powerful. c. they were exposed to excess male hormones during prenatal development. d. with the advent of more sexually explicit movies and magazines, voyeurism is quickly becoming extinct.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-27 Page Ref: 422 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. they have difficulty relating to women and find peeping satisfies needs in a way that feels safe and powerful.

12.1-28. What is the most common sexual offense reported to the police? a. exhibitionism b. voyeurism c. frotteurism d. pedophilia Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-28 Page Ref: 423 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias Skill: Factual Answer: a. exhibitionism 12.1-29. The ________ enjoys inflicting pain, while the ________ desires pain and degradation. a. masochist; sadist b. voyeur; sadist c. sadist; masochist d. sadist; voyeur Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-29 Page Ref: 424 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias Skill: Factual Answer: c. sadist; masochist 12.1-30. Serial killers tend to be a. pedophiles. b. masochists. ..

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c. voyeurs. d. sexual sadists.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-30 Page Ref: 424 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias Skill: Factual Answer: d. sexual sadists.

12.1-31. Most sadists are a. heterosexual men. b. homosexual men. c. heterosexual women. d. homosexual women.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-31 Page Ref: 424 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias Skill: Factual Answer: a. heterosexual men.

12.1-32. Which of the following disorders is associated with engaging in autoerotic asphyxia? a. transvestic fetishism b. scatologia c. frotteurism d. masochism Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-32 Page Ref: 425 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias Skill: Factual Answer: d. masochism 12.1-33. Which of the following statements is true about paraphilias? a. Almost all people with paraphilias are women. b. Almost all people with paraphilias wish to change their sexual preferences. c. Paraphilias typically begin around the time of middle adulthood. d. Many people with paraphilias have more than one.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-33 Page Ref: 426 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Causal Factors and Treatments for Paraphilias Skill: Factual Answer: d. Many people with paraphilias have more than one. ..

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12.1-34. Money and others have suggested that men are more vulnerable to paraphilias because a. men are more easily aroused than women. b. developing an attachment to an inanimate object is just a reflection of the male tendency to objectify women. c. lasting maternal conflicts leave men unable to develop healthy sexual relationships with women. d. sexual arousal in men is more visually based than the sexual arousal of women.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-34 Page Ref: 426 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Causal Factors and Treatments for Paraphilias Skill: Factual Answer: d. sexual arousal in men is more visually based than the sexual arousal of women.

12.1-35. Cross-gender identification is characteristic of a. transvestic fetishism. b. exhibitionism. c. frotteurism. d. gender identity disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-35 Page Ref: 427 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Gender Identity Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. gender identity disorder.

12.1-36. One's sense of maleness or femaleness is called a. gender identity. b. gender role. c. gender orientation. d. gender preference.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-36 Page Ref: 427 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Gender Identity Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. gender identity.

12.1-37. Martin has always felt he was really a girl. He dressed in girl's clothing as a child and still wants to be a girl. He is sure a mistake was made and that he is inhabiting the wrong sexed body. Martin's symptoms suggest a diagnosis of a. gender identity disorder. b. gender dysphoria. c. transvestic fetishism. ..

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d. homosexuality.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-37 Page Ref: 427 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Gender Identity Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: a. gender identity disorder.

12.1-38. According to DSM-IV-TR, the two components of gender identity disorder are cross-gender identification and ________. a. transvestic fetishism b. a history of childhood gender identity disorder c. gender role disorder d. gender dysphoria Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-38 Page Ref: 427 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Gender Identity Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. gender dysphoria 12.1-39. Patricia, age 10, refuses to wear dresses and insists on being called Pat. She knows she is a girl, but she says boys have it better. She prefers playing with boys and only plays the games they play. She says she wants to be a football player and a mother when she grows up. Pat has a. transsexualism. b. transvestism. c. gender identity disorder. d. no disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-39 Page Ref: 427 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Gender Identity Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: d. no disorder.

12.1-40. Most boys with gender identity disorder a. become transvestites in adulthood. b. become transsexual adults. c. are readily accepted by their peers. d. become homosexual adults who no longer wish to change their gender.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-40 Page Ref: 428 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Gender Identity Disorders Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: d. become homosexual adults who no longer wish to change their gender.

12.1-41. Most transsexuals a. are autogynephilic. b. had gender identity disorder as children. c. are exclusively heterosexual. d. derive their sexual gratification from cross-dressing in public.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-41 Page Ref: 429 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Gender Identity Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: b. had gender identity disorder as children.

12.1-42. Sam was a child with gender identity disorder. Now he is 26 and, feeling trapped in a man's body, he wants to become a woman. Adults with gender identity disorder are often referred to as a a. transvestite. b. transsexual. c. lesbian. d. person with autogynephilia.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-42 Page Ref: 429 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Gender Identity Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: b. transsexual.

12.1-43. Most female transsexuals a. have always felt that they should be male. b. did not have gender identity disorder as children. c. want to be homosexual men. d. have a paraphilia in which they are attracted to themselves as a man.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-43 Page Ref: 430 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Gender Identity Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. have always felt that they should be male.

12.1-44. A man who is aroused by the thought of himself as a woman has the paraphilia known as a. transvestism. b. transsexualism. c. protophilia. d.autogynephilia. ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-44 Page Ref: 430 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Gender Identity Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. autogynephilia.

12.1-45. Autogynephilic transsexuals differ from homosexual transsexuals in that a. they are likely to be homosexual. b. they are not especially feminine. c. they are usually female-to-male transsexuals. d. rarely do they have a history of tranvestic fetishism.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-45 Page Ref: 430 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Gender Identity Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: b. they are not especially feminine.

12.1-46. The only treatment that has been shown to be effective in treating gender dysphoria is a. long-term psychodynamic therapy. b. aversion therapy. c. surgical sex reassignment. d. medication to alter hormone production.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-46 Page Ref: 431 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Gender Identity Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: c. surgical sex reassignment.

12.1-47. The most recent studies of satisfactory outcome from sex reassignment surgery find a. most individuals are satisfied b. few individuals are satisfied c. satisfaction depends upon whether the operation involves a male-to-female or a female-to-male change. d. satisfaction depends on the length of time that individuals live as the gender they wish to become prior to the surgery.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-47 Page Ref: 431 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Gender Identity Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. most individuals are satisfied ..

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12.1-48. Which of the following is an argument against the use of surgical sex reassignment surgery for gender identity disorder? a. Cognitive-behavioral therapy has been found to be effective for most in alleviating gender dysphoria. b. Most of those who have such surgeries are not happy with the outcome. c. Surgery should not be used to treat a psychological disorder. d. Gender identity disorder is not a lifelong disorder and later regret is likely.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-48 Page Ref: 431 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Gender Identity Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: c. Surgery should not be used to treat a psychological disorder.

12.1-49. Which statement below about the prevalence of childhood sexual abuse is accurate? a. The prevalence of sexual abuse is probably lower than is commonly thought. b. Estimated prevalence rates range from 25 percent to 75 percent. c. Because of increased media attention, the prevalence has dropped dramatically in recent years. d. Because definitions vary widely, estimates of prevalence vary widely, too.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-49 Page Ref: 432 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Childhood Sexual Abuse Skill: Factual Answer: d. Because definitions vary widely, estimates of prevalence vary widely, too.

12.1-50. Concern about childhood sexual abuse has increased in the past decade due to a. evidence that it is increasing in frequency. b. changes in laws requiring that any suspicion of abuse must be reported to the authorities. c. the recognition that such abuse may lead to other problems later in life. d. improved techniques for determining the accuracy of recovered memories.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-50 Page Ref: 432 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Childhood Sexual Abuse Skill: Factual Answer: c. the recognition that such abuse may lead to other problems later in life.

12.1-51. Which of the following statements about sexual abuse is TRUE? a. About one-third of children show no symptoms. b. It usually does not have lasting consequences. ..

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c. Most children dissociate during the actual sex act. d. The most common short-term consequences are aggression and other acting-out behaviors.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-51 Page Ref: 432 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Childhood Sexual Abuse Skill: Factual Answer: a. About one-third of children show no symptoms.

12.1-52. Angela is 10 and has been a victim of sexual abuse. The short-term effects a. will include dissociative symptoms. b. will almost certainly produce severe changes in thought, feeling, and behavior. c. generally involve a compensatory sense of control. d. may include fears and sexual inappropriateness, but there is no single response syndrome.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-52 Page Ref: 432 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Childhood Sexual Abuse Skill: Applied Answer: d. may include fears and sexual inappropriateness, but there is no single response syndrome.

12.1-53. The McMartin Preschool case demonstrates how a. interviewing style can alter the nature of a child's testimony. b. psychotherapy can reveal repressed memories of abuse. c. the public prefers to deny the reality of childhood sexual abuse. d. children will not misreport experiences of sexual abuse because they are such traumatic events.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-53 Page Ref: 432 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Childhood Sexual Abuse Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. interviewing style can alter the nature of a child's testimony.

12.1-54. One of the most controversial issues in psychology today concerns a. whether there are any serious consequences of childhood sexual abuse. b. whether there are any serious long-term consequences of rape and molestation in adult women. c. the validity of recovered (formerly repressed) memories of abuse. d.the validity of women's reports of rape.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-54 Page Ref: 433 ..

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Topic: Sexual Abuse/Childhood Sexual Abuse Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. the validity of recovered (formerly repressed) memories of abuse.

12.1-55. Research on memory finds that a. memory is highly accurate. b. false memories can be experimentally induced. c. false "recovered memories" only develop under hypnosis. d. children are no more likely than adults to provide inaccurate testimony.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-55 Page Ref: 433 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Childhood Sexual Abuse Skill: Factual Answer: b. false memories can be experimentally induced.

12.1-56. Very young children a. are capable of correctly recalling events but are vulnerable to more types of post-event distortions than adults. b. are capable of correctly recalling events and are less vulnerable to more types of post-event distortions than adults. c. are not very capable of correctly recalling events and are vulnerable to more types of post-event distortions than adults. d. are basically the same as older children and adults when it comes to correctly recalling events and resisting post-event distortions.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-56 Page Ref: 433 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Childhood Sexual Abuse Skill: Factual Answer: a. are capable of correctly recalling events but are vulnerable to more types of post-event distortions than adults.

12.1-57. Pedophilia is defined by a. the age of the preferred partner. b. the behaviors exhibited. c. the bodily maturity of the preferred partner. d. the legal system; pedophilia is not a diagnostic category on the DSM-IV-TR. Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-57 Page Ref: 433 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Pedophilia Skill: Factual Answer: c. the bodily maturity of the preferred partner.

12.1-58. Pedophilia frequently involves ..

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a. adolescents. b. fondling. c. sadistic acts. d. masochism.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-58 Page Ref: 434 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Pedophilia Skill: Factual Answer: b. fondling.

12.1-59. It is quite rare for pedophilia to a. involve a female pedophile. b. involve sexual penetration or violence. c. occur in children between 8 and 11. d. include manipulation of the child's genitals.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-59 Page Ref: 434 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Pedophilia Skill: Factual Answer: a. involve a female pedophile.

12.1-60. Terrance is a pedophile. If his sexual responsiveness is similar to that found in studies of pedophiles, he will respond to erotic pictures of a. female children, but not female adults. b. male and female children, but not female adults. c. children as well as adults. d. male children, but not female adults.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-60 Page Ref: 434 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Pedophilia Skill: Applied Answer: c. children as well as adults.

12.1-61. ________ often desire mastery or dominance over their partners, believe that their partners will benefit from sexual contact, and some tend to idealize their partners for their simplicity and innocence. a. Masochists b. Pedophiles c. Fetishists d. Voyeurs Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-61 Page Ref: 434 ..

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Topic: Sexual Abuse/Pedophilia Skill: Factual Answer: b. Pedophiles 12.1-62. Which of the following people best illustrates the most common type of pedophile? a. Werner, who is sadistic and enjoys causing pain. b. Frank, who is interpersonally unskilled and feels in control when dominating a child. c. Norman, who is bisexual and but who cannot respond sexually to adult men or women. d. Ben, who has low self-esteem and fantasizes about being dominated by others in sexual relationships.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-62 Page Ref: 434 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Pedophilia Skill: Applied Answer: b. Frank, who is interpersonally unskilled and feels in control when dominating a child.

12.1-63. Incest a. is an accepted practice in many cultures. b. commonly occurs in most animal species. c. has only occurred when the parties involved are blood relatives. d.was once used to protect the royal blood in Egypt.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-63 Page Ref: 435 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Incest Skill: Factual Answer: d. was once used to protect the royal blood in Egypt.

12.1-64. The most common form of incest is between a. brother and sister. b. father and daughter. c. mother and son. d. brother and brother.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-64 Page Ref: 435 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Incest Skill: Factual Answer: a. brother and sister.

12.1-65. Which of the following is most likely to be a victim of incest? ..

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a. A son b. A stepdaughter c. A daughter d. A stepson Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-65 Page Ref: 435 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Incest Skill: Factual Answer: b. A stepdaughter 12.1-66. Incest offenders differ from extrafamilial child molesters in that the incest offenders a. don't show arousal to pictures of children. b. typically have more victims. c. typically choose girls as victims. d. are more introverted.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-66 Page Ref: 435 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Incest Skill: Factual Answer: c. typically choose girls as victims.

12.1-67. Statutory rape a. describes sexual activity that occurs under actual or threatened forcible coercion. b. is sexual activity with a person who is under the age of 18. c. is sexual activity with a person who is legally defined to be under the age of consent. d. has only occurred when the rape victim has said "no."

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-67 Page Ref: 435 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Rape Skill: Factual Answer: c. is sexual activity with a person who is legally defined to be under the age of consent.

12.1-68. What do rape and incest have in common? a. Both involve sex with an unwilling partner. b. The accuracy of prevalence estimates is questioned. c. Both are motivated primarily by aggression. d. There is much debate as to how they are defined.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-68 ..

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Page Ref: 436 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Rape Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. The accuracy of prevalence estimates is questioned.

12.1-69. Which of the following suggests that rape is motivated by sex, not just aggression? a. The age distribution of rape victims b. Women who are more physically attractive are more likely to be rape victims c. The high incidence of rape within the context of a committed relationship d. Reports of victims.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-69 Page Ref: 436 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Rape Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. The age distribution of rape victims 12.1-70. Studies of sex offenders a. support the feminist view of rape. b. find that few rapists are violent. c. suggest that all rapists have both aggressive and sexual motives. d. find that rapists tend to have both Axis I and Axis II disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-70 Page Ref: 436 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Rape Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. suggest that all rapists have both aggressive and sexual motives.

12.1-71. The newest classification system for types of rapists (McCabe & Wauchope) varies in terms of a. amount of violence. b. amount of sexual and aggressive motives. c. whether the rapists know their victims. d. whether they target children or adults.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-71 Page Ref: 436-437 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Rape Skill: Factual Answer: b. amount of sexual and aggressive motives.

12.1-72. Most rapes a. involve more than one offender. b. occur during the day. ..

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c. occur near where the rapist lives. d. occur on impulse.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-72 Page Ref: 436 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Rape Skill: Factual Answer: c. occur near where the rapist lives.

12.1-73. Post-traumatic stress disorder, when caused by a rape, a. is now called acute stress syndrome. b. only occurs when the rapist is unknown to the victim. c. is often associated with severe sexual symptoms. d. is more severe when a woman knows her attacker.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-73 Page Ref: 437 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Rape Skill: Factual Answer: c. is often associated with severe sexual symptoms.

12.1-74. Males who have been raped a. show similar long-term psychological distress as women do. b. show less long-term psychological distress than women. c. show different long-term psychological symptoms than women. d. never report it.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-74 Page Ref: 437 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Rape Skill: Factual Answer: a. show similar long-term psychological distress as women do.

12.1-75. "Victim-precipitated rape" a. is what we commonly refer to as "date rape." b. is a concept consistent with the view of rape as a sexually motivated act. c. involves no true victim. d. does not have any lasting psychological impact.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 12.1-75 Page Ref: 437 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Rape Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. is a concept consistent with the view of rape as a sexually motivated act.

12.1-76. Rape shield laws ..

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a. limit the amount of information about the defendant's past crimes that can be used in court. b. limit the amount of information that can be used in court about the mental health status of the defendant. c. limit the amount of information about a victim's past sexual history that can be used in court. d. are no longer used.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-76 Page Ref: 437 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Rape Skill: Factual Answer: c. limit the amount of information about a victim's past sexual history that can be used in court.

12.1-77. “Victim-precipitated rape” is a. more common today than in previous decades. b. less common today than in previous decades. c. a concept often used in the past by defense attorneys. d.an experimentally established phenomenon.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-77 Page Ref: 437 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Rape Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. a concept often used in the past by defense attorneys.

12.1-78. Ted is a rapist. If he is typical of most convicted rapists, he a. has never committed a crime before. b. is under 25 and has a prior criminal record. c. is well-educated, charming, and middle-class. d. was a close friend or lover of the rape victim.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-78 Page Ref: 437 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Rape Skill: Applied Answer: b. is under 25 and has a prior criminal record.

12.1-79. The most common personality characteristic of rapists is a. sexual sadism. b. impulsivity. c. empathy. d. extraversion.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-79 ..

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Page Ref: 438 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Rape Skill: Factual Answer: b. impulsivity.

12.1-80. The recidivism rate for rapists a. suggests that neither incarceration nor treatment is an effective approach to dealing with this type of crime. b. is much higher than is suggested by the media. c. has been declining since the introduction of mandatory chemical castration. d. decreases steadily with age.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-80 Page Ref: 439 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Treatment and Recidivism of Sex Offenders Skill: Factual Answer: d. decreases steadily with age.

12.1-81. Which of the following sex offenders is most likely to reoffend? a. A twenty-five-year-old pedophile b. A thirty-year-old rapist c. A twenty-year-old convicted of statutory rape d. An eighty-year-old sadist Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-81 Page Ref: 439 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Treatment and Recidivism of Sex Offenders Skill: Applied Answer: a. A twenty-five-year-old pedophile 12.1-82. Aversion therapy may involve a. exposure to a foul odor when becoming sexually aroused to a deviant stimulus. b. rewarding appropriate sexual responses. c. continuous masturbation to a paraphilic fantasy. d. repeated expression of aggressive feelings to the point of exhaustion.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-82 Page Ref: 440 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Treatment and Recidivism of Sex Offenders Skill: Factual Answer: a. exposure to a foul odor when becoming sexually aroused to a deviant stimulus.

12.1-83. Social-skills training is most likely to be used in the treatment of a. pedophiles. b. rapists. ..

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c. sadists. d. exhibitionists.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-83 Page Ref: 440 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Treatment and Recidivism of Sex Offenders Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. rapists.

12.1-84. Both surgical and chemical castration a. lower testosterone levels. b. eliminate inappropriate impulses. c. involve the administration of antiandrogen steroid hormones. d. make recidivism impossible.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-84 Page Ref: 440 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Treatment and Recidivism of Sex Offenders Skill: Factual Answer: a. lower testosterone levels.

12.1-85. What do the drugs lupron and Depo-Provera have in common? a. They are medications used for men with erectile dysfunction. b. They are the only drugs proven to increase sexual desire. c. They are drugs used to modify the feelings and thoughts of transsexuals. d. They are drugs used to chemically castrate sex offenders.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-85 Page Ref: 440 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Treatment and Recidivism of Sex Offenders Skill: Factual Answer: d. They are drugs used to chemically castrate sex offenders.

12.1-86. What is the single greatest flaw in the studies designed to find effective treatments for sex offenders? a. The lack of female subjects b. The variability of the offenses committed c. The inability to conduct follow-up assessments d. The lack of randomly assigned controls Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-86 Page Ref: 441 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Treatment and Recidivism of Sex Offenders Skill: Factual Answer: d. The lack of randomly assigned controls ..

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12.1-87. Sexual dysfunctions a. are only diagnosed when the cause is psychological maladjustment. b. only occur in heterosexual couples. c. rarely affect the enjoyment of sex for the two parties in the relationship. d. involve the impairment of either the desire for sexual gratification or the ability to achieve it.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-87 Page Ref: 441 Topic: Sexual Dysfunctions Skill: Factual Answer: d. involve the impairment of either the desire for sexual gratification or the ability to achieve it.

12.1-88. During which phase of the sexual response is there a characteristic sense of wellbeing and relaxation? a. Desire b. Orgasm c. Excitement d. Resolution Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-88 Page Ref: 442 Topic: Sexual Dysfunctions Skill: Factual Answer: d. resolution 12.1-89. Research suggesting sexual dysfunctions are common has been shown to be a. most likely accurate. b. most likely an underestimate because many people were too embarrassed to admit problems. c. most likely an overestimate because researchers didn't ask about distress or impairment. d. most likely an overestimate because most people exaggerated their problems due to discomfort.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 12.1-89 Page Ref: 442 Topic: Sexual Dysfunctions Skill: Factual Answer: a. most likely accurate.

12.1-90. Which of the following statements about hypoactive sexual desire disorder is true? a. Men with hypoactive sexual desire disorder are impotent. b. Only women develop hypoactive sexual desire disorder. ..

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c. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder usually has no identifiable biological basis and appears to be psychological. d. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder has been studied more than most other sexual dysfunctions.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-90 Page Ref: 444 Topic: Sexual Dysfunctions/Sexual Desire Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: c. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder usually has no identifiable biological basis and appears to be psychological.

12.1-91. Newer research suggests that desire leading to sexual activity ending in orgasm a. doesn't apply to most people. b. often doesn't apply to women. c. often doesn't apply to men. d. applies to most people.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-91 Page Ref: 445 Topic: Sexual Dysfunctions/Sexual Desire Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: b. often doesn't apply to women.

12.1-92. The role of anxiety in erectile dysfunction according to Barlow and colleagues a. has been shown not to exist. b. actually enhances performance. c. is not necessarily the problem - it is the cognitions associated with anxiety. d. is the main problem.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-92 Page Ref: 445 Topic: Sexual Dysfunctions/Sexual Arousal Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: c. is not necessarily the problem - it is the cognitions associated with anxiety.

12.1-93. Which of the following is a possible cause of female sexual arousal disorder? a. Frigidity b. Sexual experiences late in life c. Excessive early learning experiences about sex as an "evil" d. Higher tactile sensitivity Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-93 ..

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Page Ref: 446 Topic: Sexual Dysfunctions/Sexual Arousal Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: c. Excessive early learning experiences about sex as an "evil" 12.1-94. Premature ejaculation is a. extremely rare. b. very difficult to define because many things affect time to ejaculation. c. very easy to define because most men ejaculate at about the same stage of sexual relations. d. caused mainly by biological factors.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-94 Page Ref: 447 Topic: Sexual Dysfunctions/Orgasmic Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: b. very difficult to define because many things affect time to ejaculation.

12.1-95. Dyspareunia a. is a disorder of inhibited sexual desire. b. is a disorder that involves involuntary spasms of the muscles of the vagina, preventing intercourse. c. is a disorder of inability to achieve orgasm. d. is a disorder involving genital pain associated with intercourse.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-95 Page Ref: 449 Topic: Sexual Dysfunctions/Sexual Pain Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. is a disorder involving genital pain associated with intercourse.

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 12.2-1. The theory developed in the 1750s that centered on the idea that semen is necessary for physical and sexual vigor in men is the __________ theory.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.2-1 Page Ref: 416 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices & Standards/Case 1:Degeneracy & Abstinence Theory Skill: Factual Answer: degeneracy 12.2-2. The DSM-IV term used to describe a person who has recurrent intense sexual fantasies involving inanimate objects is __________ .

Difficulty: 1 ..

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Question ID: 12.2-2 Page Ref: 419 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias Skill: Factual Answer: fetishism 12.2-3. ____________is the paraphilia in which the person has recurrent urges to observe an unsuspecting person who is naked.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.2-3 Page Ref: 422 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias Skill: Factual Answer: Voyeurism 12.2-4. ________________is the paraphilia in which the person has urges involving the real act of inflicting physical suffering on someone for sexual excitement.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.2-4 Page Ref: 424 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias Skill: Factual Answer: Sexual sadism 12.2-5. _____________is the person's sense of maleness or femaleness and is distinguished from gender role.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.2-5 Page Ref: 427 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/Gender Identity Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: Gender identity 12.2-6. The type of rape legally defined as sexual activity with a minor is called __________ rape.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.2-6 Page Ref: 435 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Rape Skill: Factual Answer: statutory Short Answer Questions 12.3-1. How was masturbation viewed during the times when degeneracy theory and ..

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abstinence theory were popular?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.3-1 Page Ref: 416-417 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices & Standards/Case 1: Degeneracy and Abstinence Theory Skill: Conceptual Answer: In degeneracy theory, semen was seen as necessary for physical vigor so masturbation was viewed as a waste of energy and a practice that could exhaust the nervous system. Adherents of abstinence theory, notably Dr. John Harvey Kellogg saw masturbation and all sexual behavior as harmful. He favored brutal punishment of children who masturbated. Many at the time believed masturbation caused insanity.

12.3-2. What was unique about Freud's view of homosexuality?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.3-2 Page Ref: 417-418 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices & Standards/Case 3: Homosexuality & American Psychiatry Skill: Factual Answer: Freud was ahead of his time in believing that homosexuality was not an illness, despite the fact that this was the position taken by many psychoanalysts. While Freud exhibited this accepting view in a letter written in 1935, it was not until the early 1970s that homosexuality was removed from the DSM. 12.3-3. Why are almost all people with paraphilias male?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.3-3 Page Ref: 419 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias Skill: Factual Answer: It may be linked to their greater dependence on visual imagery. This makes them more vulnerable to forming sexual associations to nonsexual stimuli through classical and operant conditioning.

12.3-4. How are gender identity disorder and transvestic fetishism similar and different?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.3-4 Page Ref: 427-428 Topic: Sexual and Gender Variants/The Paraphilias/Gender Identity Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: Both involve cross-dressing, but the transvestite does it for sexual pleasure. The transvestite feels he is male and doesn't want to change genders. People with gender identity disorder believe they are the opposite gender and cross-dress to feel more appropriate. They typically wish to change genders. ..

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12.3-5. Why is it difficult to estimate the prevalence of incest?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.3-5 Page Ref: 435 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Incest Skill: Applied Answer: Incest is only identified when some agency becomes aware of its occurrence, such as elements of the legal or welfare systems. Due to the high possibility that incest may go undetected, it is believed that it is much more common than available statistics would suggest.

12.3-6. How do incest offenders differ from extrafamilial offenders?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.3-6 Page Ref: 435-436 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Incest Skill: Factual Answer: They tend to offend against girls, while extrafamilial offenders have an equal distribution between the genders. They are more likely to offend with one or a few children in a family and extrafamilial offenders typically have more victims.

12.3-7. What are some personality characteristics of rapists?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.3-7 Page Ref: 436 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Rape Skill: Factual Answer: Impulsivity, quick tempers, and insensitivity to social cues. They also often show a lack of social and communication skills and don't have intimate relationships.

They have trouble understanding cues from women, especially negative ones.

12.3-8. Charles is a chronic sex offender in treatment. After being given electric shocks whenever he became sexually aroused to deviant stimuli, his arousal to those stimuli diminished. What additional forms of treatment is he likely to need in order to be effectively treated?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.3-8 Page Ref: 439-440 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Treatment and Recidivism of Sex Offenders Skill: Applied Answer: He will need to develop sexual arousal to acceptable stimuli. Treatment involves imagining appropriate stimuli when he masturbates. Cognitive restructuring is also useful in challenging the distorted thinking in most sex offenders. Social skill training in reading the women's nonverbal cues is also important, especially in the treatment of rapists. ..

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12.3-9. Name and describe the four phases of the human sexual response.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.3-9 Page Ref: 442 Topic: Sexual Dysfunctions Skill: Factual Answer: The first phase is the desire phase where one experiences interest in engaging in sexual activity. When sexual activity has begun and both sexual pleasure and physiological changes occur, one is in the excitement phase. During this stage tension builds, which is finally released during the peak of sexual pleasure, the orgasm.

Following orgasm, there is the resolution phase in which one experience a sense of calm and well-being. Disorders can occur in any one of the first three phases.

12.3-10. What appears to be the most important psychological factor in causing male erectile disorder?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.3-10 Page Ref: 445 Topic: Sexual Dysfunctions/Sexual Arousal Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: The cognitive distractions that come with anxiety. Men get distracted by negative thoughts about their performance, which inhibits sexual arousal.

Essay Questions 12.4-1. Describe the Sambian people's beliefs about sex. How does this illustrate the impact of culture on sexual attitudes and practices?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.4-1 Page Ref: 417 Topic: Sociocultural Influences on Sexual Practices and Standards/Case 2: Ritualized Homosexuality Melanesia Skill: Conceptual Answer: The Sambia believe that semen is important for physical strength and spirituality, and that many inseminations are needed to impregnate a woman. They also believe that semen cannot be replenished by the body. Further, they believe that menstrual fluids are unhealthy to men. To conserve semen, young boys practice oral sex in order to ingest semen. This ritualized homosexuality lasts while they begin having sex with women but stops completely after a first child is born. These beliefs show that, in one culture, homosexual actions are required (heterosexuality in a youth would be abnormal) and that a transition to heterosexuality is normal. GRADING RUBRIC – 8 points total, 4 for explaining the beliefs of the people of Sambia and 4 for explaining how this illustrates the impact of culture. ..

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12.4-2. Discuss the two main controversies concerning childhood sexual abuse.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.4-2 Page Ref: 432-433 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Childhood Sexual Abuse Skill: Applied Answer: 1. Children's testimony. Several high profile cases suggested that children's testimony about abuse is not always accurate. 2. Recovered memories of abuse. Some believe repressed memories are not valid, others believe they typically are. It does seem that some recovered memories are suspect, as are sometimes non-repressed memories.

12.4-3. Discuss two ways in which sex offenses are treated. How effective is treatment for these offenses?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.4-3 Page Ref: 439-440 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Treatment and Recidivism of Sex Offenders Skill: Applied Answer: One approach is surgical or chemical castration as a means of reducing the urge for sex and making impulses more manageable. Recidivism rates are much lower for those who have been castrated. In addition the extreme approach of castration, there are numerous other approached. Aversion therapy is one key component of cognitivebehavioral treatment. Aversive consequences are linked to deviant sexual arousal. In early forms of the treatment electric shocks were used. Now therapists rely on imagined consequences (covert sensitization) or foul odors paired with the images (assisted covert sensitization). Other aspects of treatment include social skills training and the restructuring of cognitive distortions. Maletzky reports that of nearly 1,500 offenders treated with this form of therapy, at least 79 percent reported no covert or overt deviant sexual behavior or repeat charges at one year follow-up. GRADING RUBRIC - 8 points total, 2 for each of two treatments, and 2 for explaining how effective each is.

12.4-4. Is rape motivated by sex or aggression? Explain and provide support for your answer.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.4-4 Page Ref: 436 Topic: Sexual Abuse/Rape Skill: Conceptual Answer: The determination of whether rape is motivated by sex or aggression has not been definitively made. While rape is an aggressive act, sexual motivation is also often involved. The fact that rape victims are rarely old and that rapists report sexual motivation as a reason for their actions leads me to conclude that rape is a violent act that is motivated by sex. (sample response -many correct answers possible) GRADING RUBRIC - 6 points - 2 for taking a position, 4 for supporting it.

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TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 13: Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders

Topic

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

3, 6, 9

4, 10

Schizophrenia

Multiple Choice (13.1-)

1, 2, 5, 7, 8 1

Clinical Picture

Blank (13.2-) Short Answer (13.3-) Essay (13.4-) Multiple Choice (13.1-)

Risk and Causal Factors

Treatments and Outcomes

1 18, 22, 37, 38, 40

Blank (13.2-)

11, 14, 15, 17, 23, 24, 25, 27, 31, 34, 41 2, 3, 6

12, 13, 16, 19, 20, 21, 26, 28, 29, 30, 32, 33, 35, 36, 39 4, 5

Short Answer (13.3-)

2, 3

5

4

Essay (13.4-) Multiple Choice (13.1-)

2 43, 44, 46, 47, 51, 52, 53, 57, 60, 61, 62, 63, 65, 68, 69, 71, 73, 74, 75, 76, 77, 79, 80 7, 8

Blank (13.2-) Short Answer (13.3-) Essay (13.4-) Multiple Choice (13.1-) Blank (13.2-) Short Answer (13.3-) Essay (13.4-)

81, 82, 83, 84, 85, 87, 88, 89, 90

42, 49, 50, 54, 55, 56, 58, 59, 64, 67, 70

7, 9 4, 5 86

10

Copyright © 2013 by Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

443

1 45, 48, 66, 72, 78

6, 8 3

Chapter 13: Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders Multiple-Choice Questions 13.1-1. Psychosis is a striking and essential feature of schizophrenia. Psychosis means a. a tendency to be unpredictably violent. b. a significant loss of contact with reality. c. an inability to know right from wrong. d. an abrupt shift in personality from one pattern to another.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-1 Page Ref: 453 Topic: Schizophrenia Skill: Factual Answer: b. a significant loss of contact with reality.

13.1-2. Schizophrenia occurs in about ________ of the general population. a. 1 out of 1,000 b. 1 out of 100 c. 1 out of 10 d. 1 out of 10,000 Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-2 Page Ref: 454 Topic: Schizophrenia/Epidemiology Skill: Factual Answer: b. 1 out of 100 13.1-3. Which of the following accounts for the belief that schizophrenia is becoming more common in males than females? a. Males are more likely to hallucinate than females so may be overdiagnosed. b. Men are more likely to seek treatment. c. Females with schizophrenia have less severe symptoms so may be misdiagnosed. d. Women respond better to treatment than men.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-3 Page Ref: 454 Topic: Schizophrenia/Epidemiology Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Females with schizophrenia have less severe symptoms so may be misdiagnosed.

13.1-4. Which of the following people has the highest risk of developing schizophrenia? ..

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a. A person who came from New Guinea b. Someone who was physically abused as a child c. A person whose father was over 50 when he/she was born d. Someone who has a history of depression Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-4 Page Ref: 454 Topic: Schizophrenia/Epidemiology Skill: Applied Answer: c. A person whose father was over 50 when he/she was born 13.1-5. The majority of cases of schizophrenia begin in a. late adulthood or old age. b. late adolescence or early adulthood. c. late childhood or early adolescence. d. there is no age where the majority of cases begin.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-5 Page Ref: 454 Topic: Schizophrenia/Epidemiology Skill: Factual Answer: b. late adolescence or early adulthood.

13.1-6. The term "demence precoce" was used by Benedict Morel to describe schizophrenia and to also explain the a. lack of brain damage that characterizes the brain of most schizophrenics. b. effectiveness of psychological treatments for schizophrenia. c. transient nature of most schizophrenias. d. difference between schizophrenia and dementias of old age.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 13.1-6 Page Ref: 453 Topic: Schizophrenia/Origins of the Schizophrenia Construct Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. difference between schizophrenia and dementias of old age.

13.1-7. One problem with Kraepelin's use of the term "dementia praecox" is that a. it assumed that what we call schizophrenia only occurred in elderly patients. b. it was actually describing Alzheimer's dementia, not schizophrenia. c. it assumed that progressive deterioration of the brain is a universal feature of the disorder. d. it assumed the intellectual functioning of patients remained constant even as their bodies aged.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-7 Page Ref: 453 ..

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Topic: Schizophrenia/Origins of the Schizophrenia Construct Skill: Factual Answer: c. it assumed that progressive deterioration of the brain is a universal feature of the disorder.

13.1-8. When Bleuler coined the term "schizophrenia," the kind of split he believed was central to the disorder was a. a division of personality within the person. b. a divergence between the person's chronological age and his or her intellectual performance. c. an inability to make an intimate connection with other people. d. a break with reality.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-8 Page Ref: 453 Topic: Schizophrenia/Origins of the Schizophrenia Construct Skill: Factual Answer: d. a break with reality.

13.1-9. Kraepelin used the term "praecox" to convey that schizophrenia typically develops early in life. The actual age of onset of the condition a. typically is during the early teenage years. b. typically is during the mid-twenties. c. typically is during the mid-thirties. d. typically is during the mid-forties.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-9 Page Ref: 453 Topic: Schizophrenia/Epidemiology Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. typically is during the mid-twenties.

13.1-10. Joe has a delusional belief. When people argue with him, a. he admits he could be wrong. b. he only admits he is wrong after being shown more proof than most people would need. c. he doesn't admit he is wrong to other people, but he admits it to himself. d. he doesn't admit he could be wrong, no matter what proof he is shown.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-10 Page Ref: 456 Topic: Clinical Picture/Delusions Skill: Applied Answer: d. he doesn't admit he could be wrong, no matter what proof he is shown.

13.1-11. Delusions are ..

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a. perceptions with no basis in reality. b. only seen in schizophrenia. c. necessary for a diagnosis of schizophrenia. d. disturbances in the content of thought.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-11 Page Ref: 456 Topic: Clinical Picture/Delusions Skill: Factual Answer: d. disturbances in the content of thought.

13.1-12. Which of the following is an example of a delusion? a. Bob thought the CIA was controlling his thoughts. b. The voices in Jaimie's head told him not to trust the priest. c. Tracy did not think she could get pregnant the first time she had sex. d. Carla saw and felt bugs crawling up her arm.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-12 Page Ref: 456 Topic: Clinical Picture/Delusions Skill: Applied Answer: a. Bob thought the CIA was controlling his thoughts.

13.1-13. Sterling believes that the TV special that was on last night was shown to tell her that she should break up with her boyfriend. She is absolutely certain this is true and plans to do it. This type of belief is an example of a a. thought broadcasting delusion. b. delusion of reference. c. made feelings delusion. d.thought insertion delusion.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-13 Page Ref: 456 Topic: Clinical Picture/Delusions Skill: Applied Answer: b. delusion of reference.

13.1-14. How common are delusions in schizophrenia? a. They are experienced by approximately 50 percent of schizophrenics. b. Delusions are an essential feature of schizophrenia; the presence of delusions is required for a diagnosis of schizophrenia. c. Over 90 percent of those with schizophrenia experience delusions. d. While hallucinations are a common occurrence in schizophrenia, delusions are rare.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-14 ..

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Page Ref: 456 Topic: Clinical Picture/Delusions Skill: Factual Answer: c. Over 90 percent of those with schizophrenia experience delusions.

13.1-15. Hallucinations are a. sensory experiences with no basis in reality. b. only seen in schizophrenia. c. necessary for a diagnosis of schizophrenia. d. disturbances in the content of thought.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-15 Page Ref: 456 Topic: Clinical Picture/Hallucinations Skill: Factual Answer: a. sensory experiences with no basis in reality.

13.1-16. Which of the following is an example of the most common type of hallucination seen in schizophrenia? a. Bill was convinced that his mother was inserting evil thoughts into his mind. b. Sondra tried to ignore the voices in her head. c. Ned believed he was Elvis. d. Rachel would frequently see her husband, even though he had been dead for several years.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-16 Page Ref: 456 Topic: Clinical Picture/Hallucinations Skill: Applied Answer: b. Sondra tried to ignore the voices in her head.

13.1-17. What type of hallucinations are the most common? a. Auditory b. Tactile c. Visual d. Gustatory Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-17 Page Ref: 456 Topic: Clinical Picture/Hallucinations Skill: Factual Answer: a. Auditory 13.1-18. Neuroimaging studies of hallucinating patients suggest that auditory hallucinations a. are actually heard. ..

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b. are usually drug induced. c. may reflect a cognitive error. d. activate the brain areas involved in speech comprehension.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-18 Page Ref: 456 Topic: Clinical Picture/Hallucinations Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. may reflect a cognitive error.

13.1-19. People with schizophrenia may have difficulty with the form of thought - in other words, their thoughts do not make sense. The observable sign of this is a. a delusion. b. a hallucination. c. disorganized speech. d.disorganized behavior.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-19 Page Ref: 458 Topic: Clinical Picture/Disorganized Speech Skill: Applied Answer: c. disorganized speech.

13.1-20. "My father and I swiggered to the beach yesterday." This is an example of a a. delusion. b. auditory hallucination. c. negative symptom. d. neologism.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-20 Page Ref: 458 Topic: Clinical Picture/Disorganized Speech Skill: Applied Answer: d. neologism.

13.1-21. Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom of schizophrenia? a. Julia heard voices that told her she was evil. b. Karen no longer socialized with her friends. c. Ellen suspected that her husband had poisoned her food. d. Georgia's speech sounded normal, but made no sense.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-21 Page Ref: 459 Topic: Clinical Picture/Positive and Negative Symptoms ..

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Skill: Applied Answer: b. Karen no longer socialized with her friends.

13.1-22. Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom? a. Hallucinations b. Emotional unresponsiveness c. Emotional turmoil d. Delusions Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-22 Page Ref: 459 Topic: Clinical Picture/Positive and Negative Symptoms Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Emotional unresponsiveness 13.1-23. Negative symptoms a. are those that are harmful. b. are more disturbing to the patient than positive symptoms. c. are a common side effect of antipsychotic medications. d. are characterized as an absence or deficit of normal behaviors.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-23 Page Ref: 459 Topic: Clinical Picture/Positive and Negative Symptoms Skill: Factual Answer: d. are characterized as an absence or deficit of normal behaviors.

13.1-24. Over the course of the disorder, most individuals with schizophrenia a. show either positive-syndrome or negative-syndrome types. b. show the Type II form exclusively. c. develop the "disorganized" form of the disorder. d. display a mix of positive and negative symptoms.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-24 Page Ref: 459 Topic: Clinical Picture/Positive and Negative Symptoms Skill: Factual Answer: d. display a mix of positive and negative symptoms.

13.1-25. Which of the following is most likely seen in an individual with paranoid schizophrenia? a. Have delusions of grandeur b. Exhibit primarily negative symptoms c. Show more significant cognitive impairments than are seen in the other subtypes d. Respond poorly to treatment ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-25 Page Ref: 460 Topic: Schizophrenia/Subtypes of Schizophrenia Skill: Factual Answer: a. Have delusions of grandeur 13.1-26. Which of the following people with schizophrenia is likely to have the best prognosis? a. The teen who has been in a catatonic state for several days b. The woman who believes she is being persecuted because she is Helen of Troy c. The man who shows little emotion, thinks the CIA is controlling his thoughts, and who makes no sense when he speaks d. The mother of three who first showed signs of schizophrenia in her teens and now is unable to care for herself or her children.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-26 Page Ref: 460 Topic: Schizophrenia/Subtypes of Schizophrenia Skill: Applied Answer: b. The woman who believes she is being persecuted because she is Helen of Troy 13.1-27. Disorganized schizophrenia a. is most commonly seen in women. b. was once called hebephrenic schizophrenia. c. usually develops in late adulthood. d. responds well to treatment.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-27 Page Ref: 460 Topic: Schizophrenia/Subtypes of Schizophrenia Skill: Factual Answer: b. was once called hebephrenic schizophrenia.

13.1-28. Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of disorganized schizophrenia? a. Dillon believes he is God, but will respond to any direction he is given. b. Peter appears to feel no emotion and tends to make odd facial expressions and movements. c. Kyle constantly is asking for a doctor as he is convinced that his stomach is going to explode. d. Trista fears for her life because the pictures on the wall have told her that she is not safe.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-28 Page Ref: 460 ..

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Topic: Schizophrenia/Subtypes of Schizophrenia Skill: Applied Answer: b. Peter appears to feel no emotion and tends to make odd facial expressions and movements.

13.1-29. Which of the following statements is correct about proposed changes for the diagnosis of schizophrenia in the DSM-5? a. Schizophrenia will not be included in the DSM-5 b. Subtypes of schizophrenia will be removed but the diagnosis of schizophrenia will remain c. Only the paranoid subtype will remain d. Only the catatonic subtype will remain Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-29 Page Ref: 460 Topic: Schizophrenia/Subtypes of Schizophrenia Skill: Applied Answer: b. Subtypes of schizophrenia will be removed but the diagnosis of schizophrenia will remain 13.1-30. Moira is schizophrenic. She giggles a lot, acts silly, and talks "baby talk."

She experiences frequent auditory hallucinations and bizarre delusions. Moira most likely belongs to the ________ subtype of schizophrenia. a. disorganized b. undifferentiated c. residual d. catatonic Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-30 Page Ref: 460 Topic: Schizophrenia/Subtypes of Schizophrenia Skill: Applied Answer: a. disorganized 13.1-31. Patients in a catatonic stupor a. are highly suggestible. b. experience overwhelming hallucinations. c. exhibit both echopraxia and echolalia. d.resist efforts to change their position.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-31 Page Ref: 460 Topic: Schizophrenia/Subtypes of Schizophrenia Skill: Factual Answer: d. resist efforts to change their position. ..

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13.1-32. DeJuan is highly suggestible and automatically obeys the commands of his brother. He sometimes stands in the same strange posture for hours despite his hands and feet becoming swollen due to immobility. Which subtype of schizophrenia does this best illustrate? a. Catatonic b. Disorganized c. Undifferentiated d. Positive-symptom Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-32 Page Ref: 460 Topic: Schizophrenia/Subtypes of Schizophrenia Skill: Applied Answer: a. Catatonic 13.1-33. Which of the following best describes the person with undifferentiated schizophrenia? a. Jake, who shows bizarre behavior, delusions, and disordered speech but has normal emotions. b. Lincoln, whose schizophrenia involves a chronic pattern of wild excitement followed by muteness and immobility. c. Constance, whose speech is incoherent and filled with invented words but whose emotions are inconsistent and inappropriate for the situation. d. Pauline, who is convinced that her husband is poisoning her food and can hear voices (that others cannot hear) calling her a liar and a thief.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 13.1-33 Page Ref: 460 Topic: Schizophrenia/Subtypes of Schizophrenia Skill: Applied Answer: a. Jake, who shows bizarre behavior, delusions, and disordered speech but has normal emotions.

13.1-34. There is some debate as to whether ________ is a variant of schizophrenia or a form of mood disorder. a. residual type b. schizoaffective disorder c. schizophreniform disorder d. undifferentiated type Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-34 Page Ref: 459 Topic: Clinical Picture/Other Psychotic Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: b. schizoaffective disorder ..

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13.1-35. Julia clearly had psychotic symptoms. As she also showed symptoms of bipolar disorder, she was ultimately diagnosed with a. residual type. b. schizoaffective disorder. c. schizophreniform disorder. d. undifferentiated type.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-35 Page Ref: 459 Topic: Clinical Picture/Other Psychotic Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: b. schizoaffective disorder.

13.1-36. Virginia exhibits a variety of schizophrenic symptoms including delusions, auditory hallucinations, and formal thought disorder. She has been symptomatic for a little more than a month. Virginia qualifies for a diagnosis of a. paranoid schizophrenia. b. schizoaffective disorder, manic type. c. undifferentiated schizophrenia. d. schizophreniform disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-36 Page Ref: 460 Topic: Clinical Picture/Other Psychotic Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: d. schizophreniform disorder.

13.1-37. Which of the following could be described as "short-term" schizophrenia? a. Undifferentiated schizophrenia b. Schizoaffective disorder c. Delusional disorder d. Schizophreniform disorder Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-37 Page Ref: 460 Topic: Clinical Picture/Other Psychotic Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Schizophreniform disorder 13.1-38. The individual diagnosed with schizophreniform disorder a. has a mild case of schizophrenia combined with signs of a mood disorder. b. usually exhibits symptoms of schizophrenia that would fit only undifferentiated type. c. is likely to take actions based on their delusions. d. experiences a schizophrenia-like psychosis that lasts for less than a month.

Difficulty: 2 ..

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Question ID: 13.1-38 Page Ref: 460 Topic: Clinical Picture/Other Psychotic Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. usually exhibits symptoms of schizophrenia that would fit only undifferentiated type.

13.1-39. Harold and Tanya both have a wide range of schizophrenic symptoms that came on rather suddenly. Harold's symptoms have lasted for eight months; Tanya's have lasted only eight weeks. According to the DSM-IV, their diagnoses should be a. undifferentiated schizophrenia for Harold; schizophreniform disorder for Tanya. b. disorganized schizophrenia for Harold; undifferentiated schizophrenia for Tanya. c. schizoaffective disorder for Harold; schizophreniform disorder for Tanya. d. schizophreniform disorder for Harold; brief psychotic disorder for Tanya.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-39 Page Ref: 460-461 Topic: Clinical Picture/Other Psychotic Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: a. undifferentiated schizophrenia for Harold; schizophreniform disorder for Tanya.

13.1-40. What is the major difference between a diagnosis of undifferentiated schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder? a. The presence of delusions and hallucinations b. The age of the person when they develop the disorder c. The degree of emotional instability and disconnection from other people d. The duration of symptoms Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-40 Page Ref: 460-461 Topic: Clinical Picture/Other Psychotic Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. The duration of symptoms 13.1-41. Individuals with delusional disorder differ from those with schizophrenia in that a. they behave relatively normally. b. their delusions are not well-formed. c. they know their delusions are delusions. d. they rarely act on their delusions.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-41 Page Ref: 461 ..

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Topic: Clinical Picture/Other Psychotic Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. they behave relatively normally.

13.1-42. Which of the following statements most clearly summarizes our understanding of schizophrenia? a. The relative influence of nature and nurture has been established. b. While much is known about the causes of schizophrenia, there are many questions still to be answered. c. The role of genes in schizophrenia is negligible. d. Schizophrenia is primarily caused by expressed emotion in families.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-42 Page Ref: 462 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. While much is known about the causes of schizophrenia, there are many questions still to be answered.

13.1-43. Most of the evidence suggests that, if schizophrenia is inherited, it a. is due to an abnormality on Chromosome 21. b. involves one or two genes. c. is a sex-linked, recessive condition. d. involves a multitude of genes that work in concert.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-43 Page Ref: 462 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. involves a multitude of genes that work in concert.

13.1-44. In genetic studies, a "proband" or "index case" is someone who a. is related to someone with the disorder of interest. b. shows signs of the disorder of interest. c. shares at least 25 percent of his or her genes with an affected subject. d. has the disorder of interest.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-44 Page Ref: 462 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. has the disorder of interest.

13.1-45. Both of Mary's parents have been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Bob has an identical twin who has schizophrenia. Who is more likely to develop schizophrenia and why? ..

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a. Bob, because he is male and has a family history of schizophrenia. b. Mary, because all of her genes come from her parents and they both have the disease. c. Bob, because he has inherited the same susceptibility that his twin is expressing. d. Mary, because females are more susceptible than males to the genetic forms of schizophrenia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-45 Page Ref: 463 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Applied Answer: c. Bob, because he has inherited the same susceptibility that his twin is expressing.

13.1-46. "Familial" does not mean the same thing as "genetic" because a. families don't always share genes. b. families share both genes and the environment. c. genes are not expressed in every generation. d. the strength of the correlations seen in familial concordance patterns does not allow any conclusions to be made.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-46 Page Ref: 462 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. families share both genes and the environment.

13.1-47. Studies of family concordance patterns for schizophrenia have found a. little evidence of increased concordance with increased gene-sharing. b. such strong correspondence between gene-sharing and diagnosis that environmental factors have been ruled out. c. strong correspondence between gene-sharing and diagnosis but only for males. d. that the more genetically related you are to someone with schizophrenia, the greater your risk of the disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-47 Page Ref: 463 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Factual Answer: d. that the more genetically related you are to someone with schizophrenia, the greater your risk of the disorder.

13.1-48. Lori just found out that she is pregnant. Her husband has schizophrenia.

What is her unborn child's risk of developing schizophrenia? a. 1 percent ..

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b. 10 percent c. 50 percent d. 90 percent Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-48 Page Ref: 463 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Applied Answer: b. 10 percent 13.1-49. If schizophrenia were exclusively a genetic disorder, a. anyone with schizophrenia in his or her family history would develop schizophrenia. b. the concordance rate for monozygotic twins would be 100 percent. c. marrying a schizophrenic would not increase the likelihood of developing schizophrenia. d. numerous cures would now be available.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-49 Page Ref: 463 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. the concordance rate for monozygotic twins would be 100 percent.

13.1-50. Studies of the offspring of nonschizophrenic co-twins from discordant twin pairs suggest that a. environmental factors play a more important role than genetic factors in the origin of schizophrenia. b. genetic factors cause schizophrenia, while environmental factors are essentially unimportant. c. a genetic predisposition to schizophrenia may remain unexpressed in some individuals unless it is released by some unknown environmental factors. d. the heritability of schizophrenia involves the transmission of a single dominant gene.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-50 Page Ref: 463 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. a genetic predisposition to schizophrenia may remain unexpressed in some individuals unless it is released by some unknown environmental factors.

13.1-51. Adoption studies are typically used a. to establish the primary role that the environment plays in most disorders. b. to separate the effects of nature and nurture. c. to assess the effectiveness of long-term treatment protocols. ..

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d. in order to isolate the environmental factors that "trigger" a disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-51 Page Ref: 464 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. to separate the effects of nature and nurture.

13.1-52. The Danish adoption studies have been criticized for a. not treating the subjects found to have schizophrenia. b. not assessing the child-rearing environments of the index and control groups. c. only studying males. d.not confirming the family history of the subjects.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-52 Page Ref: 466 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. not assessing the child-rearing environments of the index and control groups.

13.1-53. When adoption studies of schizophrenia contain all the necessary controls and measurements, a. the role of genes is found to be negligible. b. index subjects are more likely to develop schizophrenia than the control subjects. c. the environment is found to be a more important determinant of psychological health than family history. d. no significant effects are seen.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-53 Page Ref: 466 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. index subjects are more likely to develop schizophrenia than the control subjects.

13.1-54. Communication deviance a. may be an environmental risk factor for the development of schizophrenia. b. is an early indication of schizophrenia. c. is not seen in control adoptees. d. and disordered speech are the same thing.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-54 Page Ref: 466 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Conceptual ..

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Answer: a. may be an environmental risk factor for the development of schizophrenia.

13.1-55. Studies of adopted children who were at high-risk for developing schizophrenia found that which of the following appeared to increase the likelihood that these children would show high levels of thought disorders? a. Vague, confusing, and unclear communication b. Physical abuse c. Permissive parenting d. Divorce Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-55 Page Ref: 466 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. Vague, confusing, and unclear communication 13.1-56. Adopted children who were high risk for schizophrenia, who were raised in healthy families, a. showed the same risk for schizophrenia as those adopted into dysfunctional families - genes were the most important factor. b. showed higher risk for schizophrenia than those adopted into dysfunctional families - they had trouble fitting in with the family. c. showed lower risk for schizophrenia than those adopted into dysfunctional families - a good environment may protect people with genetic vulnerabilities from developing schizophrenia. d. showed lower risk for schizophrenia than those adopted into dysfunctional families - the environment causes people to develop schizophrenia, not genes.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-56 Page Ref: 466 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. showed lower risk for schizophrenia than those adopted into dysfunctional families - a good environment may protect people with genetic vulnerabilities from developing schizophrenia.

13.1-57. Linkage analysis a. is being used to help locate genes associated with schizophrenia. b. is being used to identify family risk factors. c. is being used to find the connections between stress and schizophrenia. d.is being used to show problems in connections between neurons.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-57 Page Ref: 467 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: a. is being used to help locate genes associated with schizophrenia.

13.1-58. Which of the following is a plausible explanation for how maternal influenza might lead to schizophrenia later in life? a. The flu virus may lie dormant in the brain until adolescence when it becomes active and initiates the degeneration that results in the symptoms of schizophrenia. b. The flu exposure may alter the fetal genes such that a susceptibility to schizophrenia is now part of the child's genetic makeup. c. Maternal antibodies could cross the placenta and interfere with brain development such that the risk of developing schizophrenia is enhanced later in life. d. The flu virus frequently has long-term effects on the behavior of affected individuals; maternal infection with influenza may result in an environment that is likely to trigger schizophrenia in the susceptible individual.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-58 Page Ref: 469 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Prenatal Exposures Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Maternal antibodies could cross the placenta and interfere with brain development such that the risk of developing schizophrenia is enhanced later in life.

13.1-59. The finding that prenatal viral exposure, rhesus incompatibility, and early nutritional deficiency are associated with an increased risk of developing schizophrenia indicates that a. genes do not play a role in vulnerability to schizophrenia. b. anything that interferes with normal brain development might lead to a greater risk of schizophrenia. c. environmental factors are more important than genetic factors when it comes to determining who is likely to develop schizophrenia. d. the results of twin studies reflect the impact of a shared prenatal environment, not shared genes.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-59 Page Ref: 469 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Prenatal Exposures Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. anything that interferes with normal brain development might lead to a greater risk of schizophrenia.

13.1-60. Which of the following has been found to lead to an increased risk of developing schizophrenia? a. Prenatal alcohol exposure. b. Prenatal influenza exposure. c. Alcohol use during middle adulthood. d. Influenza exposure between ages 5 and 10. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-60 Page Ref: 469 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Prenatal Exposures Skill: Factual Answer: b. Prenatal influenza exposure.

13.1-61. Schizophrenia is best described as a a. genetically influenced monogenic disorder. b. genetically influenced polygenic disorder. c. genetically determined monogenic disorder. d. genetically determined polygenic disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-61 Page Ref: 469 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genes and Environment in Schizophrenia: A Synthesis Skill: Factual Answer: b. genetically influenced polygenic disorder.

13.1-62. Studies of monochorionic and dichorionic twins a. offer further evidence of the role of the prenatal environment in schizophrenia. b. suggest that schizophrenia is more heritable than previously thought. c. indicate that the risk of developing schizophrenia is not altered by the prenatal environment. d. establish that genetic relatedness to an affected individual has nothing to do with one's risk of developing schizophrenia.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-62 Page Ref: 469 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genes and Environment in Schizophrenia: A Synthesis Skill: Factual Answer: a. offer further evidence of the role of the prenatal environment in schizophrenia.

13.1-63. The fact that a significant number of monozygotic twins share the same placenta, while no dizygotic twins do, suggests that a. we may have overestimated the influence of genetics in schizophrenia. b. being a monozygotic twin is a risk factor for schizophrenia. c. genetic influences are even more important than previously thought. d. monozygotic twins have a form of genetic schizophrenia while dizygotic twins have an environmentally caused form.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-63 Page Ref: 469 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genes and Environment in Schizophrenia: A Synthesis Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: a. we may have overestimated the influence of genetics in schizophrenia.

13.1-64. Based on current research, which statement is most justified? a. Genetics play such a strong role, they are a sufficient condition for schizophrenia. b. Genetics increase a person's vulnerability to develop schizophrenia. c. Genetics may not be sufficient for schizophrenia, but everyone who develops schizophrenia must have some number of "schizophrenia genes." d. Genetics cannot play a significant role in the cause of schizophrenia because most people with the disorder have no close relatives who have it.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-64 Page Ref: 470 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genes and Environment in Schizophrenia: A Synthesis Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Genetics increase a person's vulnerability to develop schizophrenia.

13.1-65. Enlarged brain ventricles a. are seen in all schizophrenics. b. suggest that there has been a loss of brain tissue. c. are more commonly seen in the brains of paranoid schizophrenics. d. can be used to confirm a diagnosis of schizophreniform disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-65 Page Ref: 470 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Other Biological Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. suggest that there has been a loss of brain tissue.

13.1-66. Compared to his nonschizophrenic identical twin, Matthew (who is schizophrenic) is more likely to a. have been born with physical birth defects. b. have been considered "different" or "odd" in childhood. c. have a higher intelligence level on IQ tests. d. be artistically or musically talented.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-66 Page Ref: 470 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/A Neurodevelopmental Perspective Skill: Applied Answer: b. have been considered "different" or "odd" in childhood.

13.1-67. What is the value of research that monitors children at high risk for schizophrenia for a long time? a. It can identify the specific genes responsible for the disorder. ..

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b. It can identify factors that precede breakdown and aid in intervention efforts. c. It can separate the impact of genetics from that of subtle neurological impairment. d. It can identify the factors that improve treatment outcome.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-67 Page Ref: 471 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/A Neurodevelopmental Perspective Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. It can identify factors that precede breakdown and aid in intervention efforts.

13.1-68. Based on developmental studies of children who later developed schizophrenia, a. it is usually impossible to detect early signs of the disorder. b. the first signs are usually delusions or hallucinations. c. the first signs are usually seen in the way children move. d. the first signs are usually seen in speech problems.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-68 Page Ref: 471 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/A Neurodevelopmental Perspective Skill: Factual Answer: c. the first signs are usually seen in the way children move.

13.1-69. What are endophenotypes? a. Abnormally shaped cells in the brain b. Neurotransmitters that are slightly different in chemical composition than normal c. Measurable traits that are thought to be linked to specific genes that might be important in schizophrenia d. Specific chromosomes that are thought to be important in the genetic transmission of schizophrenia Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-69 Page Ref: 468 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Factual Answer: c. Measurable traits that are thought to be linked to specific genes that might be important in schizophrenia 13.1-70. Why might Kraepelin's idea that schizophrenia was similar to dementia not be as far from the truth as previously thought? a. Evidence suggests that there sometimes are progressive changes in brain volume over time in people with schizophrenia. b. The symptoms of the two disorders overlap tremendously. c. On autopsy, people with schizophrenia show the same smoothing of the brain ..

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as is seen in people with dementia. d. The same biological treatments work for both disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-70 Page Ref: 468 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Other Biological Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. Evidence suggests that there sometimes are progressive changes in brain volume over time in people with schizophrenia.

13.1-71. Which of the following is a brain area that has been shown to be involved in schizophrenia? a. Parietal lobe b. Occipital lobe c. Hippocampus d. Hypothalamus Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-71 Page Ref: 475 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Other Biological Factors Skill: Factual Answer: c. Hippocampus 13.1-72. Ursula has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. If PET scans were done to measure her brain's activity, which area would probably be underactive? a. The visual cortex b. The deepest portions of the brain, the medulla and reticular activating system c. The frontal lobes d. The hypothalamus and pituitary Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 13.1-72 Page Ref: 475 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Other Biological Factors Skill: Applied Answer: c. The frontal lobes 13.1-73. People with schizophrenia often show poor performance on tasks like the Wisconsin Card Sorting Task, which is thought to indicate a dysfunction of the a. parietal lobe. b. occipital lobe. c. temporal lobe. d. frontal lobe.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-73 Page Ref: 475 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Other Biological Factors ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: d. frontal lobe.

13.1-74. Aberrant salience means that a. enlarged brain ventricles cause people with schizophrenia to be unable to concentrate. b. a large amount of communication deviance in the family can cause a person with schizophrenia to relapse. c. dysregulated dopamine can cause people with schizophrenia to pay too much attention to stimuli that are not actually important. d. people with schizophrenia often show unusual motor behaviors.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 131-74 Page Ref: 478 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Other Biological Factors Skill: Factual Answer: c. dysregulated dopamine can cause people with schizophrenia to pay too much attention to stimuli that are not actually important.

13.1-75. There is a new trend to focus on dopamine receptor sensitivity rather than on dopamine itself because a. there is strong evidence that people with schizophrenia have too much dopamine. b. there is no strong evidence that people with schizophrenia have too much dopamine. c. the is strong evidence that people with schizophrenia have used too many drugs. d. there is only one type of dopamine receptor.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-75 Page Ref: 477-478 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Other Biological Factors Skill: Factual Answer: b. there is no strong evidence that people with schizophrenia have too much dopamine.

13.1-76. Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter that researchers suspect might be involved in schizophrenia because a. it makes dopamine. b. it causes the ventricles to enlarge. c. it is missing in the brains of people with schizophrenia. d. it can produce schizophrenic-like symptoms in normal subjects.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-76 Page Ref: 479 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Other Biological Factors ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: d. it can produce schizophrenic-like symptoms in normal subjects.

13.1-77. Studies on neurocognition have found that people with schizophrenia a. are unable to pay attention on demand and don't habituate to stimuli. b. can't control their thoughts from jumping from topic to topic. c. have abnormal neurochemical changes in response to negative thoughts. d. get too focused on one thing and tune out the rest of the real world.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-77 Page Ref: 472 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Neurocognition Skill: Factual Answer: a. are unable to pay attention on demand and don't habituate to stimuli.

13.1-78. A mother constantly demands that her son show her how much she is loved, but when he tries to hug her she yells at him to be more discreet. No matter what the child does, he is wrong. Further, the mother prohibits him from commenting on this paradox. What does this interaction pattern best illustrate? a. Double-bind communication b. Loosening of associations c. Fragmented thinking d. Expressed emotion Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-78 Page Ref: 480 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Psychosocial and Cultural Factors Skill: Applied Answer: a. Double-bind communication 13.1-79. One aspect of family environment that has been found to be important in schizophrenia is a. the level of expressed emotion. b. the level of parental grief over their child's illness. c. if the mother is cold and aloof. d. if lots of double-bind communications are used.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-79 Page Ref: 480 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Psychosocial and Cultural Factors Skill: Factual Answer: a. the level of expressed emotion.

13.1-80. What is a stressor that has been found to increase the risk of developing schizophrenia? a. Being an identical twin ..

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b. Being raised in an isolated rural area c. Being a recent immigrant d. Living alone Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-80 Page Ref: 482 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Psychosocial and Cultural Factors Skill: Factual Answer: c. Being a recent immigrant 13.1-81. Most people with schizophrenia a. are cured. b. remain hospitalized for the rest of their lives. c. continue to show signs of illness. d. develop other disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-81 Page Ref: 485 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes Skill: Factual Answer: c. continue to show signs of illness.

13.1-82. The best predictor of overall functioning over time for someone with schizophrenia is a. how much impairment the person suffers. b. how severe the person’s positive symptoms are. c. how severe the person’s negative symptoms are. d. how much therapy the person gets.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-82 Page Ref: 485 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes Skill: Factual Answer: c. how severe the person’s negative symptoms are.

13.1-83. First-generation antipsychotics a. work by blocking dopamine receptors. b. are not effective. c. produce few side effects. d. include Risperdal and Zyprexa.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-83 Page Ref: 486 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Pharmacological Approaches Skill: Factual Answer: a. work by blocking dopamine receptors. ..

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13.1-84. The first-generation antipsychotics seem to work because they block dopamine. This is supported by the new research findings that a. patients report they feel better right away, although there isn't any actual clinical changes occurring. b. changes in symptoms occur without any side effects. c. changes in symptoms begin to occur weeks after starting to take the medications, rather than immediately. d. changes in symptoms begin to occur very quickly after starting the medications, not weeks later as previously thought.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-84 Page Ref: 486 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Pharmacological Approaches Skill: Factual Answer: d. changes in symptoms begin to occur very quickly after starting the medications, not weeks later as previously thought.

13.1-85. Extrapyramidal side effects a. are involuntary movements that result mainly from taking first-generation antipsychotic drugs. b. are often fatal side-effects from second-generation antipsychotic drugs. c. are an increase in mood (reduction in depression) that occurs in people with schizoaffective disorder. d. are voluntary, unusual movements that result mainly from taking secondgeneration antipsychotic drugs.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-85 Page Ref: 486 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Pharmacological Approaches Skill: Factual Answer: a. are involuntary movements that result mainly from taking first-generation antipsychotic drugs.

13.1-86. Which of the following is suggested by the effectiveness of second generation antipsychotics in the treatment of schizophrenia? a. There is no biological explanation for the symptoms of schizophrenia. b. Decreased frontal lobe activity underlies the positive symptoms seen in schizophrenia. c. Prenatal brain damage causes schizophrenia. d. More than one brain area or neurotransmitter is involved in producing the symptoms of schizophrenia.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-86 Page Ref: 486 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Pharmacological Approaches ..

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Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. More than one brain area or neurotransmitter is involved in producing the symptoms of schizophrenia.

13.1-87. Social-skills training for people with schizophrenia a. has been very successful in reducing symptoms. b. tries to help people learn a trade so they can earn a living. c. tries to help people gain the skills they need for daily living outside the hospital. d. tries to help cure people of schizophrenia.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-87 Page Ref: 488 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Psychosocial Approaches Skill: Factual Answer: c. tries to help people gain the skills they need for daily living outside the hospital.

13.1-88. Which type of training has an emphasis on helping patients deal with their neurocognitive deficits? a. Cognitive remediation training b. Social skills training c. Case management d. Family therapy Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-88 Page Ref: 489 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Psychosocial Approaches Skill: Factual Answer: a. Cognitive remediation training 13.1-89. Cognitive-behavioral treatment for people with schizophrenia a. tries to help people learn a trade so they can earn a living. b. tries to help people gain the skills they need for daily living. c. tries to help people find the services they need in the community. d. tries to help people question their delusions to help reduce their intensity.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.1-89 Page Ref: 489 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Psychosocial Approaches Skill: Factual Answer: d. tries to help people question their delusions to help reduce their intensity.

13.1-90. One-on-one psychotherapy for people with schizophrenia a. shows very little promise. b. seems to be very effective when combined with medication. ..

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c. is an effective replacement for medication. d. has many side effects.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.1-90 Page Ref:489 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes/Psychosocial Approaches Skill: Factual Answer: b. seems to be very effective when combined with medication.

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 13.2-1. The lifetime prevalence for schizophrenia is __________ percent.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.2-1 Page Ref: 454 Topic: Schizophrenia/Epidemiology Skill: Factual Answer: one 13.2-2. ______________are false beliefs that are firmly held despite clear evidence to the contrary.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.2-2 Page Ref: 456 Topic: Clinical Picture/Delusions Skill: Factual Answer: Delusions 13.2-3. ______________are sensory experiences that seem true to the individual, but are not in the external world.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.2-3 Page Ref: 456 Topic: Clinical Picture/Hallucinations Skill: Factual Answer: Hallucinations 13.2-4. The subtype of schizophrenia that generally has most positive outcome is the __________ type.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.2-4 Page Ref: 460 Topic: Clinical Picture/Anticipating DSM-5: Subtypes of Schizophrenia Skill: Applied Answer: paranoid ..

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13.2-5. The subtype of schizophrenia that has the poorest prognosis is the _________ type.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.2-5 Page Ref: 460 Topic: Clinical Picture/Subtypes of Schizophrenia Skill: Applied Answer: disorganized 13.2-6. The DSM-IV diagnosis for someone who has features of schizophrenia and a severe mood disorder is __________ disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.2-6 Page Ref: 459 Topic: Clinical Picture/Other Psychotic Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: schizoaffective 13.2-7. _____________are discrete, stable, and measurable traits that are thought to be genetic.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.2-7 Page Ref: 468 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Factual Answer: Endophenotypes 13.2-8. The most important neurotransmitter implicated in schizophrenia is __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.2-8 Page Ref: 477 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Factual Answer: dopamine Short Answer Questions 13.3-1. What is thought to explain the delayed onset of schizophrenia in women?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.3-1 Page Ref: 454-455 Topic: Schizophrenia/Epidemiology Skill: Conceptual Answer: While the average age of onset of schizophrenia for males is 25, for women it is 29. There is some reason to believe that estrogen may serve to protect the female brain. It ..

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has been observed that women with schizophrenia experience more psychotic symptoms when estrogen levels are low or dropping, consistent with this hypothesis.

13.3-2. What is a delusion? What type of delusions are most common in schizophrenia?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.3-2 Page Ref: 456 Topic: Clinical Picture/Delusions Skill: Factual Answer: A delusion is a thought, a cognition, with no basis in reality. Common delusions involve believing that one's actions or thoughts are being controlled by some external force, that one's thoughts are being broadcasted, and that thoughts are being inserted into one's mind. These delusions are all consistent with the disorganized thoughts commonly seen in schizophrenia.

13.3-3. What is catatonia? Is catatonia a positive or negative symptom? Explain your answer.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.3-3 Page Ref: 458 Topic: Clinical Picture/Disorganized and Catatonic Behavior/Positive and Negative Symptoms Skill: Factual Answer: Catatonia is a negative symptom of schizophrenia as it is characterized by an absence of normal behavior. The patient with catatonia may have virtually no movement or speech, or he or she may freeze and hold an awkward position for an extended period of time.

13.3-4. Explain and give examples of positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.3-4 Page Ref: 459 Topic: Clinical Picture/Positive and Negative Symptoms Skill: Applied Answer: Positive symptoms involve the presence of abnormal behavior. Hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and bizarre behavior are all examples of positive symptoms.

13.3-5. What is schizoaffective disorder?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.3-5 Page Ref: 459-460 Topic: Clinical Picture/Other Psychotic Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: The individual diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder exhibits symptoms of ..

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both schizophrenia and an affective disorder; he or she experiences both psychosis and extremes of mood. It is not clear whether this disorder is best thought of as a form of mood disorder or a form of schizophrenia.

13.3-6. What are two types of prenatal experience associated with increased risk of schizophrenia?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.3-6 Page Ref: 468-469 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Prenatal Exposures Skill: Applied Answer: Two of: 1. flu virus - elevated risk in children whose mothers had the flu during the second trimester. 2. Rh incompatibility - elevated risk in children. 3. Early prenatal nutritional deficiency. All compromise fetal development, especially brain development.

13.3-7. How is dopamine theorized to impact schizophrenia?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.3-7 Page Ref: 467 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Other Biological Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: Dopamine may play a role in how much attention people pay to stimuli. Too much may make people pay too much attention to irrelevant stimuli (aberrant salience) and contribute to thought disorder.

13.3-8. Esther lives with her parents. She frequently has relapses into schizophrenia.

If her family is characterized by expressed emotion, what behaviors can we expect of her parents that induce relapse?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.3-8 Page Ref: 480 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Psychosocial and Cultural Factors Skill: Applied Answer: They are emotionally overinvolved in Esther's life and at the same time excessively critical of her. Expressed emotion would be especially intense if Esther's parents believe that Esther can control her schizophrenic symptoms and chooses not to.

Conflict is likely to be two-way between Esther and her parents. In addition, hostility in the family is the third factor that increases relapse.

13.3-9. Why is immigration associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.3-9 Page Ref: 481-482 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Psychosocial and Cultural Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: Probably because of the increased stressors, especially that of facing ..

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discrimination and social disadvantage.

13.3-10. What factors help predict prognosis for schizophrenia?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.3-10 Page Ref: 485 Topic: Treatments and Outcomes Skill: Factual Answer: The severity of negative symptoms - the worse they are, the worse the prognosis. And where someone lives - people in less industrialized nations have better prognoses.

Essay Questions 13.4-1. Define positive and negative symptoms for schizophrenia. Give examples of each.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.4-1 Page Ref: 459 Topic: Clinical Picture/Positive and Negative Symptoms Skill: Applied Answer: A common way of describing schizophrenia is by categorizing its symptoms as either positive or negative. Positive symptoms are abnormal behaviors, unusual perceptions, or thoughts that are present, while negative symptoms involve the absence of something normal. Thus, inappropriate emotion would be a positive symptom and a lack of emotion would be a negative symptom. It should be noted, however, that a single individual is likely to exhibit both types of symptoms. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points total, 5 for each categorization.

13.4-2. What are schizoaffective disorder and schizophreniform disorder?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.4-2 Page Ref: 459-460 Topic: Clinical Picture/Other Psychotic Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: These are not considered formal subtypes of schizophrenia in DSM-IV. Schizoaffective disorder is a category for individuals who have characteristics of both schizophrenia and bipolar or major depressive disorder, such that a differential diagnosis cannot be made. Schizophreniform disorder is diagnosed when schizophrenic symptoms are present but have not lasted for six months. An individual may be rediagnosed as schizophrenic after six months. GRADING RUBRIC - 6 points, 3 for each explanation.

13.4-3. What important aspect of the adoptive family was missing from early studies? What did later studies find when they did include it?

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Question ID: 13.4-3 Page Ref: 462-463 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Genetic Factors Skill: Applied Answer: Early studies did not examine child rearing adequacy of the adoptive family.

Newer studies found that communication deviance - how understandable and easy to follow the speech of family members was - was related to risk of schizophrenia. Children with a biological risk for schizophrenia who were adopted into families with high communication deviance had an increased risk of the disease. If the child had no genetic predisposition for schizophrenia, communication deviance did not make a difference in risk. Most interestingly, if a genetic risk existed and the child was adopted into a family with low communication deviance, that child's risk for schizophrenia was actually lower than the other groups! GRADING RUBRIC – 10 points.

13.4-4. What is the evidence for and against the dopamine hypothesis?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 13.4-4 Page Ref: 477 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Other Biological Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: Early antipsychotic drugs that blocked dopamine receptors reduced psychotic symptoms. Amphetamine psychosis - due to increased dopamine. Drugs that raise dopamine, for example, Parkinson's drugs, caused psychotic-like side effects. However, no strong evidence that people with schizophrenia have increased levels of dopamine has been found. GRADING RUBRIC: 5 points 13.4-5. What role does the family play in schizophrenia?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 13.4-5 Page Ref: 479-480 Topic: Risk and Causal Factors/Psychosocial and Cultural Factors Skill: Conceptual Answer: While it was once thought that features of the home environment "caused" schizophrenia, such simplistic explanations have been discarded. At one time it was believed that inconsistent emotional signals from a parent led to schizophrenia; this "double-bind" hypothesis has not been supported. While there is little or no evidence to support a role for the family environment in the development of the disorder, it has been shown that communication patterns can predict relapse. In other words, familial interactions that are stressful can contribute to relapse. A recurrence of symptoms is more likely in a home that is high in expressed emotion. The elements of expressed emotion are criticism, hostility, and emotional overinvolvement. GRADING RUBRIC - 8 points 2 points for noting that family not implicated as a causal factor, 2 points role of family in relapse, 2 points for explanation of/reference to double-bind, 2 points for expressed emotion.

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TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 14 Neurocognitive Disorders

Topic

Brain Impairment in Adults

Delirium

Multiple Choice (14.1-) Blank (14.2-) Short Answer (14.3-) Essay (14.4-) Multiple Choice (14.1-)

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

1, 4, 5, 7, 9, 12, 15, 20 1, 2

2, 3, 6, 11, 14, 19

8, 10, 13, 16, 17, 18

1, 2 1 23,

2 21, 22, 24, 25

Blank (14.2-) Short Answer (14.3-) Dementia

Essay (14.4-) Multiple Choice (14.1-)

Amnestic Disorder

Blank (14.2-) Short Answer (14.3-) Essay (14.4-) Multiple Choice (14.1-)

Disorders Involving Head Injury

Blank (14.2-) Short Answer (14.3-) Essay (14.4-) Multiple Choice (14.1-) Blank (14.2-) Short Answer (14.3-) Essay (14.4-)

3 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 35, 40, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 48, 50, 52, 53, 56, 57, 58, 59, 60, 61, 64, 65 3, 4, 5 4, 5

3 26, 27, 47, 49, 51, 54, 55, 62, 63,

34, 36, 37, 38, 39,

66

68

4 67

69, 70, 72, 73, 74, 75, 76, 78, 80, 84

71, 77, 79, 82

81, 83, 85

6

7

8

Copyright © 2013 by Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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Chapter 14: Neurocognitive Disorders Multiple-Choice Questions 14.1-1. Which of the following statements about the brain is true? a. The skull is designed to support as much as 3 tons of weight. b. The brain is protected only by the skull. c. The human brain typically weights about 5 pounds. d. Brain damage rarely results in cognitive changes.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-1 Page Ref: 495 Topic: Neurocognitive Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. The skull is designed to support as much as 3 tons of weight.

14.1-2. It is important that mental health professionals have an understanding of the effects of brain damage because a. most of their patients will have brain damage. b. brain damage can result in symptoms that look like psychological conditions. c. many of the medications used to treat psychopathology cause brain damage. d. the effects of most forms of brain damage are reversible.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-2 Page Ref: 495 Topic: Neurocognitive Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. brain damage can result in symptoms that look like psychological conditions.

14.1-3. All of the following are reasons why cognitive disorders are addressed in an abnormal text EXCEPT a. these disorders are considered to be psychopathological conditions. b. some brain disorders cause symptoms that look like mood and anxiety disorders. c. psychological conditions can signal the onset of brain damage. d. brain damage can lead to psychological symptoms.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-3 Page Ref: 495 Topic: Neurocognitive Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. psychological conditions can signal the onset of brain damage.

14.1-4. Anosognosia is an inability to a. understand language. ..

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b. see, although physically the eyes are fine. c. move parts of the body. d. make realistic self-appraisals.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 14.1-4 Page Ref: 496 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Clinical Signs of Brain Damage Skill: Factual Answer: d. make realistic self-appraisals.

14.1-5. In the DSM-5, the disorders now known as “Delirium, Dementia, and Amnestic and Other Cognitive Disorders” will be part of a newly proposed category called ________________. a. Delirium and Dementia Disorders b. Cognitive Disorders c. Neurological Disorders d. Neurocognitive Disorders Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-5 Page Ref: 496 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Anticipating DSM-5: New Category, New Diagnoses Skill: Factual Answer: d. Neurocognitive Disorders 14.1-6. The extent of the deficits seen after brain damage are determined in part by a. genetic factors. b. how one is functioning before the damage occurs. c. chemical imbalances in the brain. d. the drugs a person was on.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-6 Page Ref: 496 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Clinical Signs of Brain Damage Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. how one is functioning before the damage occurs.

14.1-7. Major brain damage a. causes major changes. b. causes minor changes. c. causes changes to personality only. d. sometimes causes minor changes and sometimes major ones.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-7 Page Ref: 496 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Clinical Signs of Brain Damage Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: d. sometimes causes minor changes and sometimes major ones.

14.1-8. A person who has experienced destruction of brain tissue may have widespread or limited behavioral deficits. The outcome depends upon which of the following? a. Gender b. Ethnicity c. Predisorder intellectual competence d. Income Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-8 Page Ref: 496 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Clinical Signs of Brain Damage Skill: Applied Answer: c. Predisorder intellectual competence 14.1-9. Which of the following is tested in a Mini-Mental State Examination? a. Sexual orientation. b. Mood. c. IQ. d. Attention.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-9 Page Ref: 497 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Screening for Cognitive Impairment Skill: Factual Answer: d. Attention.

14.1-10. When Mrs. Thomason experienced a stroke, a small area of her brain was deprived of oxygenated blood. This resulted in a a. diffuse brain injury. b. focal brain lesion. c. psychopathological dementia. d. diffuse lesion.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-10 Page Ref: 498 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Diffuse Versus Focal Damage Skill: Applied Answer: b. focal brain lesion.

14.1-11. Mild to moderate diffuse brain damage is most likely to result in a. mood disturbance. b. attention deficits. c. visual distortions. d. altered sleep patterns. ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-11 Page Ref: 496-497 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Diffuse Versus Focal Damage Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. attention deficits.

14.1-12. Focal brain damage is most likely to be a consequence of a. stroke. b. oxygen deprivation. c. poison ingestion. d. malnutrition.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-12 Page Ref: 498 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Diffuse Versus Focal Damage Skill: Factual Answer: a. stroke.

14.1-13. Someone with focal brain damage in his or her left hemisphere a. will have anterograde amnesia. b. will have problems with processing language. c. will have problems with nonverbal reasoning. d. will have problems with understanding new situations.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-13 Page Ref: 498 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Diffuse Versus Focal Damage Skill: Applied Answer: b. will have problems with processing language.

14.1-14. Damage to the temporal lobes of the brain is most likely to result in a. passivity. b. impulsivity. c. blindness. d. forgetfulness.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-14 Page Ref: 498 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Diffuse Versus Focal Damage Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. forgetfulness.

14.1-15. Damage to the ________ lobes of the brain is most associated with memory loss; damage to the ________ lobes of the brain is most associated with passivity or impulsiveness. ..

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a. temporal; frontal b. parietal; occipital c. frontal; temporal d. parietal; temporal Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-15 Page Ref: 498 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Diffuse Versus Focal Damage Skill: Factual Answer: a. temporal; frontal 14.1-16. Ruth experienced a stroke that severely damaged her occipital lobe. We can expect that she has an impairment in her ability to a. think and talk using good judgment. b. walk in a coordinated fashion. c. understand what she sees. d. do mathematical and word problems.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-16 Page Ref: 498 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Diffuse Versus Focal Damage Skill: Applied Answer: c. understand what she sees.

14.1-17. Which of the following is a good example of a person with an impairment of orientation? a. Joe, who once thought he was a homosexual but now thinks he is heterosexual. b. Karla, who cannot accurately draw objects or copy designs on a piece of paper. c. Lois, who must constantly be reminded of what to do next when she is getting dressed. d. Marlon, who is not sure where he is or what month or year it is.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-17 Page Ref: 497 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Screening for Cognitive Impairment Skill: Applied Answer: d. Marlon, who is not sure where he is or what month or year it is.

14.1-18. Jerry had a stroke several months ago. Among the changes his family has noticed is that he now blows up over little things, cries over minor problems, and laughs at anything, no matter how silly. Jerry is showing a. focal brain damage. b. impairment of receptive and expressive communication. c. impairment of emotional modulation. d. affective blunting.

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Question ID: 14.1-18 Page Ref: 500 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/The Neuropsychology/Psychopathology Interaction Skill: Applied Answer: c. impairment of emotional modulation.

14.1-19. An individual with neuropsychological damage a. will almost always evidence moderate to severe psychopathology, including hallucinations and delusions. b. may or may not have psychopathological symptoms. c. usually manifests symptoms of psychopathology that are the opposite of the person's predisorder personality. d. will develop psychopathological symptoms only when areas of the frontal cortex have been damaged.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-19 Page Ref: 498 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/The Neuropsychology/Psychopathology Interaction Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. may or may not have psychopathological symptoms.

14.1-20. Which of the following psychopathological symptoms is commonly seen in neuropsychological disorders? a. Cognitive deficits b. Delusions c. Dissociative episodes d. Panic attacks Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-20 Page Ref: 498 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/The Neuropsychology/Psychopathology Interaction Skill: Factual Answer: a. Cognitive deficits 14.1-21. Delirium a. develops slowly. b. affects perception. c. can occur in a person of any age. d. reflects severe brain damage.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-21 Page Ref: 500 Topic: Delirium/Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: b. affects perception. ..

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14.1-22. Delirium is thought to be more common in the elderly due to a. their weakened immune systems. b. their relative lack of physical and mental activity. c. chemical imbalances. d. normal age-related changes in the brain.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-22 Page Ref: 501 Topic: Delirium/Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: d. normal age-related changes in the brain.

14.1-23. Suddenly, Lavinia is unable to remember what she was doing. She screams that bugs are crawling all over the walls. She begins to wildly swing her arms around. She can't fall asleep at night, but finally falls asleep at daylight. Lavinia most likely has a. dementia. b. focal brain damage. c. schizophrenia. d. delirium.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-23 Page Ref: 500 Topic: Delirium/Clinical Picture Skill: Applied Answer: d. delirium.

14.1-24. The most common cause of delirium is a. disease. b. drugs. c. electrolytic imbalance. d. stroke.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-24 Page Ref: 502 Topic: Delirium/Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: b. drugs.

14.1-25. Delirium a. is usually permanent. b. is usually reversible. c. rarely is a medical emergency. d. is characterized by a decline from a previously attained level of functioning.

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Page Ref: 502 Topic: Delirium/Treatments and Outcomes Skill: Factual Answer: b. is usually reversible.

14.1-26. Delirium is to dementia as ________ is to ________. a. acute; chronic b. diffuse; focal c. biological; psychological d. old; young Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-26 Page Ref: 502 Topic: Dementia Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. acute; chronic 14.1-27. Delirium has a ________ onset and dementia has a ________ onset. a. rapid; gradual b. extensive brain damage; localized brain damage c. slow recovery; rapid recovery d. interference with complex processing; interference with simple processing Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-27 Page Ref: 502 Topic: Dementia Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. rapid; gradual 14.1-28. The first sign of dementia is typically a. lack of alertness. b. lack of attention to the environment. c. motor control problems. d. memory problems.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-28 Page Ref: 507 Topic: Dementia Skill: Factual Answer: d. memory problems.

14.1-29. The most common cause of dementia is a. intracranial tumors. b. severe or repeated head injury. c. degenerative brain disease. d. drug toxicity. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-29 Page Ref: 502 Topic: Dementia Skill: Factual Answer: c. degenerative brain disease.

14.1-30. Which of the following disorders is characterized by motor symptoms such as resting tremors or rigid movements? a. AIDS b. Alzheimer’s disease c. Huntington’s disease d. Parkinson’s disease Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-30 Page Ref: 503 Topic: Parkinson’s Disease Skill: Factual Answer: d. Parkinson’s disease.

14.1-31. Which of the following disorders affects men and women in equal numbers and is characterized by a chronic, progressive chorea? a. AIDS b. Alzheimer’s disease c. Huntington’s disease d. Parkinson’s disease Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-30 Page Ref: 503 Topic: Huntington’s Disease Skill: Factual Answer: c. Huntington’s disease 14.1-32. The particular disease that most commonly causes dementia is a. AIDS b. Alzheimer's disease. c. Huntington's disease. d. Parkinson's disease.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-32 Page Ref: 503 Topic: Dementia Skill: Factual Answer: b. Alzheimer's disease.

14.1-33. In order for a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease to be definitively made ..

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a. brain tissue must be examined. b. symptoms must be present for over two years. c. the afflicted individual must exhibit delirium at least 50 percent of the time. d. plaques and tangles must be visible on an MRI. Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-33 Page Ref: 504 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: a. brain tissue must be examined.

14.1-34. You are convinced that your grandmother has Alzheimer's. How can you doctor confirm your diagnosis? a. By conducting a blood test b. By determining if she has enlarged ventricles that indicate brain atrophy c. By looking to see if she has a decrease in frontal lobe function d. By ruling out all other potential causes of dementia Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-34 Page Ref: 504 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Applied Answer: d. By ruling out all other potential causes of dementia 14.1-35. Which of the following statements about Alzheimer's disease is true? a. The specific symptoms vary considerably from patient to patient and from day to day for the same patient. b. Changes in mood are rarely seen. c. Deterioration into a vegetative state occurs in two years or less. d. The first symptoms involve delusions and assaultive behavior.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-35 Page Ref: 505 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: a. The specific symptoms vary considerably from patient to patient and from day to day for the same patient.

14.1-36. It is suspected that June is in the early stages of Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following symptoms would suggest this? a. Persistent delusions b. Loss of contact with reality c. Social withdrawal d. Excessive neatness and an intrusive interest in others' affairs Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-36 ..

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Page Ref: 505 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Applied Answer: c. Social withdrawal 14.1-37. Which of the following is the most typical example of the onset of Alzheimer's disease? a. After Bill's death, Carol was never the same again. b. When Yula's dementia became obvious, her family looked back on her behavior and realized that she had been exhibiting memory deficits. c. Rachel have always suffered from mood disorders. When she descended into a state of dementia after her last manic episode, no one was surprised. d. Christa began showing signs of forgetfulness after her last surgery.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-37 Page Ref: 505 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Applied Answer: b. When Yula's dementia became obvious, her family looked back on her behavior and realized that she had been exhibiting memory deficits.

14.1-38. The text presented a case study of a retired man who was hospitalized by his wife and son. He was typical of many patients with Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type (DAT) in that a. he had become violent toward family members. b. he never lost his orientation for time and person. c. he had good memory for remote events but no memory for events that just occurred. d. he became hypochondriacal and performed repetitive, meaningless rituals.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-39 Page Ref: 505 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Applied Answer: c. he had good memory for remote events but no memory for events that just occurred.

14.1-39. What types of delusions are most commonly seen in Alzheimer's disease? a. Delusions of grandeur b. Delusions of persecution c. Delusions of reference d. Delusions of bodily changes Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-39 Page Ref: 505 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease ..

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Skill: Applied Answer: b. Delusions of persecution 14.1-40. Which of the following is most likely to be characteristic of a physically aggressive Alzheimer's disease patient? a. History of violent behavior b. Multiple psychotic breaks c. Delusions of reference d. Delusions of persecution Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-40 Page Ref: 505 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: d. Delusions of persecution 14.1-41. The brain begins to decrease in size at age a. 18. b. 35. c. 55. d. 65.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-41 Page Ref: 512 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: a. 18.

14.1-42. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing Alzheimer's disease? a. Being a woman b. Having a family history of Parkinson's disease c. Living in a non-Western developed nation d. Being highly educated Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-42 Page Ref: 506 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: a. Being a woman 14.1-43. Early-onset Alzheimer's disease differs from late-onset in that a. the progression of the disease is more rapid. b. symptoms invariably involve delusions and assaultive behavior. c. genetics play little or no causal role. d. environmental factors have no impact on the onset or the progression of the disorder. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-43 Page Ref: 506-507 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: a. the progression of the disease is more rapid.

14.1-44. Early-onset Alzheimer's disease affects people in their a. teens. b. 20s. c. 30s. d. 40s.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-44 Page Ref: 506 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: d. 40s.

14.1-45. Most cases of early-onset Alzheimer's disease appear to be caused by a. environmental exposure to toxins. b. one of several rare genetic mutations. c. HIV or some other autoimmune disease. d. a combination of psychoactive drug abuse and poor nutrition.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-45 Page Ref: 506-507 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: b. one of several rare genetic mutations.

14.1-46. Which of the following is associated with an increased risk of developing Alzheimer's disease? a. Having a family history of vascular dementia b. Giving birth to a child with Down syndrome before age 35 c. Living in a non-Western developed nation d. Excessive use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-46 Page Ref: 507 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: b. Giving birth to a child with Down syndrome before age 35 14.1-47. It has been observed that if a women gives birth to a child with Down syndrome before the age of 35, she has an increased risk of developing Alzheimer's ..

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disease. Which of the following best explains this observation? a. The same gene underlies both Down syndrome and Alzheimer's disease. b. Women under 35 are not emotionally mature enough to manage a child with mental retardation. c. Multiple copies of the APOE-4 allele increase the likelihood of both conditions. d. A genetic mutation that increases susceptibility to Alzheimer's disease also increases the likelihood of passing on chromosomal abnormalities.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 14.1-47 Page Ref: 507 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. A genetic mutation that increases susceptibility to Alzheimer's disease also increases the likelihood of passing on chromosomal abnormalities.

14.1-48. Late-onset Alzheimer's disease has been linked to a gene on chromosome a. 7. b. 14. c. 19. d. 21.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-48 Page Ref: 507 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: c. 19.

14.1-49. Research suggests that the use of ________ may decrease the risk of developing Alzheimer's disease. a. aspirin b. codeine c. ibuprofen d. valium Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-49 Page Ref: 508 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. ibuprofen 14.1-50. The protein called tau a. is a sticky substance at the core of a plaque. b. is a neurotoxic substance that occurs in the brains of people with Alzheimer's disease. c. is caused by amyloid in the brain and is a sign that Alzheimer's disease is progressing. ..

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d. is a neurotransmitter important in the mediation of memory.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 14.1-50 Page Ref: 509 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: c. is caused by amyloid in the brain and is a sign that Alzheimer's disease is progressing.

14.1-51. What type of drugs are most likely to be used to inhibit the progression of Alzheimer's disease? a. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories b. Antidepressants c. Antipsychotics d. Cholinesterase inhibitors Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-51 Page Ref: 511 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Cholinesterase inhibitors 14.1-52. Consistent with its established role in memory, neurons in the ________ suffer much damage in Alzheimer's disease. a. hippocampus b. hypothalamus c. thalamus d. amygdala Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-52 Page Ref: 512 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: a. hippocampus 14.1-53. The first neurons to be affected in Alzheimer's disease are cells that release a. serotonin. b. dopamine. c. beta amyloid. d. acetylcholine.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-53 Page Ref: 509 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: d. acetylcholine. ..

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14.1-54. A hypothetical drug that might improve the cognitive functioning of Alzheimer's patients would probably a. decrease levels of acetylcholine. b. increase levels of acetylcholine. c. increase levels of beta amyloid. d. decrease the activity of all genes that produce ApoE. Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-54 Page Ref: 509 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. increase levels of acetylcholine.

14.1-55. The most promising development in the treatment of Alzheimer's involves a. finding drugs that counteract the processes associated with inheriting high-risk ApoE allele patterns. b. preventing the degeneration of dopamine-producing cells. c. increasing the intake of vitamins and minerals known to enhance memory function. d. vaccines that might clear away any accumulated plaques.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-55 Page Ref: 511 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. vaccines that might clear away any accumulated plaques.

14.1-56. The best avenue of research for effective treatment of Alzheimer's disease involves a. medications to remove plaques, because they cause the symptoms in Alzheimer's disease. b. prevention or treatment at the first sign of illness because lost neurons cannot be regained. c. regenerating neurons in the brain to replace those lost or damaged by the disorder. d. behavioral therapy to help improve memory and living skills.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-56 Page Ref: 511 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: b. prevention or treatment at the first sign of illness because lost neurons cannot be regained.

14.1-57. Caregivers of patients with Alzheimer's disease ..

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a. experience "social death." b. are at extraordinarily high risk for depression. c. show high levels of ApoE, even if they do not show any outward anxiety symptoms. d. are likely to show signs of cognitive deterioration.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-57 Page Ref: 513 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: b. are at extraordinarily high risk for depression.

14.1-58. What is the relationship between the HIV-1 virus and brain damage? a. The virus itself never causes brain damage, only peripheral damage to the skin. b. The virus may work indirectly: It allows infections to occur that cause brain damage. c. The virus does not lead to brain damage, but the disease so affects patients that their psychotic reactions mimic those of brain damage. d. The virus is more likely to multiple in a brain that has already been damaged by brain trauma or some other cause of tissue loss.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-58 Page Ref: 513 Topic: Dementia/Dementia from HIV-1 Infection Skill: Factual Answer: b. The virus may work indirectly: It allows infections to occur that cause brain damage.

14.1-59. Dementia in HIV a. is always due to secondary infections that attack the brain. b. is a common side effect of antiviral therapy. c. results from acute damage to temporal lobe structures. d. may be due to the HIV virus directly attacking brain cells.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-59 Page Ref: 513 Topic: Dementia/Dementia from HIV-1 Infection Skill: Factual Answer: d. may be due to the HIV virus directly attacking brain cells.

14.1-60. The neuropathology in AIDS-related dementia a. involves the formation of plaques and tangles in the brain. b. tends to result in focal damage in the brain. c. includes generalized atrophy in the brain. d. preferentially affects the frontal and temporal lobes in the brain.

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Question ID: 14.1-60 Page Ref: 513 Topic: Dementia/Dementia from HIV-1 Infection Skill: Factual Answer: c. includes generalized atrophy in the brain.

14.1-61. The only neuropsychological syndrome for which antiviral therapy is likely to be helpful is a. AIDS-related dementia. b. multi-infarct dementia. c. vascular dementia. d. amnestic disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-61 Page Ref: 513 Topic: Dementia/Dementia from HIV-1 Infection Skill: Factual Answer: a. AIDS-related dementia.

14.1-62. Vascular dementia a. is a result of many small strokes. b. is what was once called amnestic infarct dementia. c. responds to the same treatments as Alzheimer's disease. d. affects more women than men.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-62 Page Ref: 514 Topic: Dementia/Vascular Dementia Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. is a result of many small strokes.

14.1-63. How does vascular dementia differs from Alzheimer's disease? a. It is not progressive. b. It occurs at an earlier age. c. The early clinical picture is more homogeneous than that seen in Alzheimer's disease. d. Accompanying mood disorders are more common.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 12.1-63 Page Ref: 514 Topic: Dementia/Vascular Dementia Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Accompanying mood disorders are more common.

14.1-64. Vascular dementia is less common than Alzheimer's disease because a. it develops later in life. ..

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b. the patient is vulnerable to sudden death from stroke or cardiovascular disease. c. it can be cured. d. spontaneous remission is common.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-64 Page Ref: 514 Topic: Dementia/Vascular Dementia Skill: Factual Answer: b. the patient is vulnerable to sudden death from stroke or cardiovascular disease.

14.1-65. Which of the following best explains why mood disorders are more characteristic of vascular dementia (VAD) than of Alzheimer's disease? a. VAD preferentially affects serotonergic cells. b. Medical treatments are less effective in the treatment of VAD. c. VAD is more prevalent in women. d. Subcortical areas are more affected in VAD. Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-65 Page Ref: 514 Topic: Dementia/Vascular Dementia Skill: Factual Answer: d. Subcortical areas are more affected in VAD. 14.1-66. What is affected in amnestic disorder? a. The ability to recall something that happened seconds ago b. The ability to recall something that happened minutes ago c. The ability to recall something that happened hours ago d. The ability to recall something that happened years ago Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-66 Page Ref: 514 Topic: Amnestic Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. The ability to recall something that happened minutes ago 14.1-67. An individuals with amnestic disorder is likely to be unable to ____________. a. tell you whom he or she met 5 minutes ago. b. describe the house he or she grew up in c. repeat an address he or she was just told d. demonstrate how to ride a bike Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-67 Page Ref: 514 Topic: Amnestic Disorder Skill: Applied ..

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Answer: a. tell you whom he or she met 5 minutes ago 14.1-68. Procedural memory often is intact in patients with amnestic disorder. This means a. they will eventually recover their short-term memory. b. they will eventually recover their memory for the most important personal events in their lives, but will still have problems with short-term memory. c. they can still learn routines and skills and may be able to be taught tasks that will enable them to work. d. the memory pathways in the brain are still intact, so patients can be retaught how to remember things.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-68 Page Ref: 514 Topic: Amnestic Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. they can still learn routines and skills and may be able to be taught tasks that will enable them to work.

14.1-69. The most common cause of traumatic brain injury is a. stroke. b. motor vehicle accidents. c. drug abuse. d. Alzheimer's disease.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-69 Page Ref: 515 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury Skill: Factual Answer: b. motor vehicle accidents.

14.1-70. Which of the following is not a cause of traumatic brain injury? a. Car accidents b. Assaults c. Sports d. Vitamin deficiency Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-70 Page Ref: 515 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury Skill: Factual Answer: d. Vitamin deficiency 14.1-71. When a closed-head injury occurs, a. the damage is localized. b. the damage is a result of the brain colliding with the skull. ..

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c. post-trauma epilepsy is common. d. the skull is bruised.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-71 Page Ref: 516 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury/Clinical Picture Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. the damage is a result of the brain colliding with the skull.

14.1-72. A bullet is most likely to cause a. a closed-head injury. b. a penetrating head injury. c. amnestic disorder. d. multi-infarct dementia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-72 Page Ref: 516 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury/Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: b. a penetrating head injury.

14.1-73. The damage that might be caused to the brain by riding a violently fast roller coaster is similar to that seen with a. a closed-head injury. b. a penetrating head injury. c. vascular dementia. d. a series of circumscribed cerebral infarcts.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-73 Page Ref: 517 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury/Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: a. a closed-head injury.

14.1-74. Mild brain injuries a. usually produce no problems. b. usually produce short-lived, major problems. c. usually produce long-term, minor problems, particularly in older people. d. usually produce long-term, major problems, particularly in older people.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-74 Page Ref: 519 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury/Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: c. usually produce long-term, minor problems, particularly in older people. ..

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14.1-75. The occurrence of which of the following after a head injury suggests a poor prognosis? a. Concussion b. Retrograde amnesia c. Contusion d. Anterograde amnesia Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-75 Page Ref: 516 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury/Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: d. Anterograde amnesia 14.1-76. After being hit on the head, Bob experienced some retrograde amnesia.

Those who were there knew this because he a. was unconscious. b. had a concussion. c. could not remember his name. d. did not know what happened.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-76 Page Ref: 516 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury/Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: d. did not know what happened.

14.1-77. The effects of head trauma on memory suggest that a. short-term memory is not affected by physical trauma. b. the process of memory consolidation can be interrupted. c. semantic memory is usually affected when an injury is severe enough to produce a loss of consciousness. d. rarely are episodic memories affected by head trauma.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-77 Page Ref: 516 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury/Clinical Picture Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. the process of memory consolidation can be interrupted.

14.1-78. After the car accident, Sherry was unable to remember what happened from the time of the crash until the following morning. Sherry appears to have experienced a. amnestic disorder. b. anterograde amnesia. c. retrograde amnesia. d. dissociative fugue. ..

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Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-78 Page Ref: 516 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury/Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: b. anterograde amnesia.

14.1-79. The case of Phineas Gage demonstrates a. the role of the brain in determining personality. b. that even the most serious brain injuries need not lead to permanent alteration in behavior. c. the role of the temporal lobe in controlling behavioral impulses. d. the importance of a healthy cerebrovascular system.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-79 Page Ref: 519 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury/Clinical Picture Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. the role of the brain in determining personality.

14.1-80. Emotional dyscontrol and personality alterations are expected with a. amnestic syndrome. b. vascular dementia. c. frontal lobe damage. d. prolonged oxygen deprivation.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-80 Page Ref: 519 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury/Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: c. frontal lobe damage.

14.1-81. Phineas Gage had a a. penetrating head injury. b. closed-head injury. c. skull fracture. d. contusion.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-81 Page Ref: 519 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury/Clinical Picture Skill: Applied Answer: a. penetrating head injury.

14.1-82. Which of the following is probably the most important factor in determining the functioning of a child who undergoes significant traumatic brain ..

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injury? a. Age b. Gender c. Competencies acquired before the injury d. Family environment Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-82 Page Ref: 519 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury/Treatments and Outcomes Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Competencies acquired before the injury 14.1-83. Before the accident, Bob was unemployed and had few friends. Lionel, who suffered comparable head trauma, was a successful businessman and had just married. Which of these men should have the more favorable outcome and why? a. Bob, because his lack of responsibilities will permit him to focus on getting well. b. Bob, because he will benefit from relearning basic social skills. c. Lionel, because he is more likely to be motivated to recover. d. There is no reason to expect that these men will have different outcomes.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.1-83 Page Ref: 519 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury Treatments and Outcomes Skill: Applied Answer: c. Lionel, because he is more likely to be motivated to recover.

14.1-84. Positive outcomes following a traumatic brain injury are associated with: a. being young. b. having a favorable life situation to return to. c. experiencing severe cognitive impairment. d. later intervention.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.1-84 Page Ref: 519-520 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury Treatments and Outcomes Skill: Factual Answer: b. having a favorable life situation to return to.

14.1-85. Which person is least likely to have a good recovery from moderate brain injury? a. Paul, who was severely depressed. b. Wendy, who was a Ph.D. student. c. Danielle, who had a short period of unconsciousness following the injury. d. Art, who received treatment interventions shortly after the injury.

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Question ID: 14.1-85 Page Ref: 520 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury Treatments and Outcomes Skill: Applied Answer: a. Paul, who was severely depressed.

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 14.2-1. The type of brain damage that occurs after the brain is jarred in the skull is called __________ brain damage.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.2-1 Page Ref: 496 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Diffuse Versus. Focal Damage Skill: Factual Answer: diffuse 14.2-2. Many people with brain damage resulting in neuropsychological disorders have problems with __________ and self-regulation.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.2-2 Page Ref: 500 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/The Neuropsychology/Psychopathology Interaction Skill: Factual Answer: cognitive processing 14.2-3. ___________is the second most common neurodegenerative disease after Alzheimer's disease.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.2-3 Page Ref: 503 Topic: Dementia/Parkinson's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: Parkinson's disease 14.2-4. Huntington's disease is rare and caused by an autosomal dominant gene on __________.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.2-4 Page Ref: 504 Topic: Dementia/Huntington's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: chromosome 14.2-5. In Alzheimer's disease, __________ are deposits of sticky protein.

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Question ID: 14.2-5 Page Ref: 508 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual Answer: amyloid plaques Short Answer Questions 14.3-1. What factors determine the amount of impairment from brain damage?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.3-1 Page Ref: 496-497 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Diffuse Versus Focal Damage Skill: Applied Answer: The nature, location, and extent of the damage, premorbid competence and personality, an individual's life situation and the amount of time since the first appearance of the condition.

14.3-2. What effects is damage to the frontal areas of the brain likely to have?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.3-2 Page Ref: 498 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/Diffuse Versus Focal Damage Skill: Applied Answer: Damage to the frontal parts of the brain that are largely involved in the control and planning of movement may result in a passive apathy or impulsiveness and distractibility. Where the damage is and the extent of the damage will determine the ultimate effect on behavior.

14.3-3. What is delirium?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.3-3 Page Ref: 500-501 Topic: Delirium/Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: Delirium is a state of confusion that reflects some major change in how the brain is working. The elderly are at high risk for experiencing delirium. The most common cause of delirium is drug intoxication or withdrawal.

14.3-4. How can a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease be definitively made?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.3-4 Page Ref: 504 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: A diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease can only be confirmed at autopsy with an examination of brain tissue. The presence of amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the brain are the hallmarks of the disease.

14.3-5. What is vascular dementia?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.3-5 Page Ref: 513-514 Topic: Dementia/ Vascular Dementia Skill: Factual Answer: Vascular dementia (VAD) was once known as multi-infarct dementia and results in symptoms that look a lot like Alzheimer's disease. In VAD, however, the problems observed are a consequence of a series of small strokes that kill more and more of the brain.

14.3-6. What is anterograde amnesia?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.3-6 Page Ref: 516 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury/Clinical Picture Skill: Factual Answer: Anterograde amnesia is an inability to form new memories. It is after the traumatic event.

14.3-7. What does the case of Phineas Gage suggest about traumatic brain injury?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.3-7 Page Ref: 519 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury/Clinical Picture Skill: Conceptual Answer: Gage survived a blasting accident in which an iron bar went through his brain.

He had a severe frontal lobe wound that altered his personality. Where once he was efficient and capable he became impulsive and profane. This illustrates a neuropsychological personality syndrome and is characteristic of frontal lobe damage.

Further, Gage was no longer able to return to his former occupation, a common outcome of this kind of brain injury.

14.3-8. What are the factors that have an impact on the outcome for children with traumatic brain injury?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.3-8 Page Ref: 519 Topic: Disorders Involving Head Injury Treatments and Outcomes Skill: Applied Answer: The younger they are, the more adversely affected. The severity of the damage and the degree to which their environment is accommodating also has an impact. If the ..

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injury is mild, most have no lasting effect.

Essay Questions 14.4-1. Why are cognitive disorders included in abnormal psychology?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.4-1 Page Ref: 495 Topic: Cognitive Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: 1. They are considered psychopathological conditions. 2. They can cause symptoms very similar to other mental disorders. 3. Brain damage can change behavior, personality, mood, etc. and can help in understanding of biological bases of many problems. 4. Many people with brain disorders react with depression or anxiety and depression may be related to onset. 5. These disorders can have heavy impact on family members, often including anxiety and depression. GRADING RUBRIC: 10 points, 2 points each.

14.4-2. Your text lists nine types of impairment that are commonly found in neuropsychological disorders. List and describe five of them.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.4-2 Page Ref: 500 Topic: Brain Impairment in Adults/The Neuropsychology/Psychopathology Interaction Skill: Factual Answer: 1. Impairment of memory: Typically recent events are forgotten rather than remote events; there is a tendency to fill in gaps (confabulate). 2. Impairment of orientation: the person cannot accurately locate himself/herself in time or place or in relation to the personality identities of self or others. 3. Impairment of learning, comprehension, and judgment: the person has trouble understanding abstract ideas or is unable to plan actions. 4. Impairment of emotional control: the person overreacts with extreme emotions such as laughter, tears, or rage. 5. Apathy or emotional blunting: This lack of emotionality usually occurs when deterioration is advanced. 6. Impairment of initiating behavior: The person needs to be repeatedly reminded what to do next. 7.

Impaired control over ethical conduct: The person shows lowered standards of appearance, language, sexuality, hygiene, and so on. 8. Impaired communication: inability to comprehend or express oral or written language. 9. Impaired visuospatial ability: poor handwriting or ability to assemble things. GRADING RUBRIC: 10 points, 2 for each correct answer.

14.4-3. Describe delirium and dementia. What are the main differences?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.4-3 Page Ref: 500-503 Topic: Delirium/Dementia ..

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Skill: Conceptual Answer: Delirium has a relatively rapid onset and is caused by a generalized disturbance in brain metabolism. Causal factors include head trauma, oxygen deprivation, drug withdrawal, and toxic and metabolic disturbances. Attention, perception, and memory are affected. Frequently, the person becomes agitated and has disturbed sleep. Delirium rarely lasts more than one week. Dementia involves a progressive deterioration of brain function that begins with episodic, short-term memory loss and spreads to include impaired emotional control, motor control, learning, abstract thinking, and other functions. It typically affects older individuals and may be caused by strokes, infections, tumors, head injury, and degenerative diseases, particularly Alzheimer's disease.

GRADING RUBRIC: 10 points, 4 for each description and 2 for the differences.

14.4-4. What evidence is there that genes are involved in Alzheimer's disease (AD)?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 14.4-4 Page Ref: 504-509 Topic: Dementia/Alzheimer's Disease Skill: Applied Answer: While the incidence of AD increases with age, there are those who develop AD in their 40s or 50s. This "early-onset" AD appears to have a genetic basis. This form of the disease is usually of rapid onset and course. While early-onset AD appears to run in families, numerous genes have been implicated. Mutations on many different chromosomes have been identified as playing a potential causal role. Genes that code for products that play a role in the development plaques and tangles have been identified.

While much has been discovered about this disease, there are many questions that remain unanswered. GRADING RUBRIC - 8 points total, 4 points each for discussing two different pieces of evidence.

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TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 15 Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence

Topic Maladaptive Behavior in Different Life Periods

Common Disorders of Childhood

Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents

Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics

Pervasive Developmental Disorders

Learning Disabilities

Mental Retardation

Planning Better Programs to Help Children and Adolescents

Multiple Choice (15.1-) Blank (15.2-) Short Answer (15.3-) Essay (15.4-) Multiple Choice (15.1-)

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

3, 6, 8

1, 4, 5, 7

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1 1 12, 22, 31

15, 23, 27, 28, 32, 36, 37

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3 38, 45, 50

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56, 57, 58, 60, 62, 63, 64, 65, 67. 68, 70, 71 4 5, 6

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54, 55, 59, 66, 69

72, 73, 74, 78, 80, 81, 84, 85, 86, 87, 88, 89

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97, 102, 106

Chapter 15: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence Multiple-Choice Questions 15.1-1. Historically, why has little attention been paid to childhood psychopathology? a. Mental illness was not recognized in children. b. Childhood disorders were viewed as childhood versions of adult disorders. c. All signs of mental illness in children were assumed to reflect some developmental stage that would be outgrown. d. Society viewed children as inherently good and accepted all behavior unconditionally.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-1 Page Ref: 523 Topic: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Childhood disorders were viewed as childhood versions of adult disorders.

15.1-2. Suppose you were the director of a mental health center that provided treatment for children. Based on research, you would expect that a. more girls would be diagnosed with disorders than boys. b. the most common disorders diagnosed would be eating disorders and posttraumatic stress disorder. c. the average age of your child clients would be around 5 or 6. d. more boys would be diagnosed with disorders than girls.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-2 Page Ref: 523 Topic: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence Skill: Applied Answer: d. more boys would be diagnosed with disorders than girls.

15.1-3. Among children, the most commonly diagnosed disorders are a. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder and separation anxiety disorders. b. psychotic conditions such as schizophrenia. c. depression and phobic conditions. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder and conduct disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-3 Page Ref: 523 Topic: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence Skill: Factual Answer: a. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder and separation anxiety disorders.

15.1-4. What complicates the diagnosis of maladaptive behavior in childhood? ..

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a. Behavior that is problematic for a child of one age is normal behavior for a child of a different age. b. The dividing line between childhood and adolescence has been arbitrarily drawn. c. Most psychological disorders in the young have an identifiable environmental cause. d. Drugs are not effective in treating the disorders that are most commonly seen in children.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-4 Page Ref: 524 Topic: Maladaptive Behavior in Different Life Periods Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. Behavior that is problematic for a child of one age is normal behavior for a child of a different age.

15.1-5. A crucial aspect of developmental psychopathology is understanding individual maladaptation a. as a phenomenon no different in children than in adults. b. as a disease process. c. in the context of normal developmental changes. d. in a cultural context that determines what is acceptable behavior.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-5 Page Ref: 524 Topic: Maladaptive Behavior in Different Life Periods Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. in the context of normal developmental changes.

15.1-6. Which of the following protects children from environmental influences, but also makes them more vulnerable? a. A lack of self-understanding b. Dependence on adults c. Unrealistic expectations d. A limited understanding of death Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-6 Page Ref: 524 Topic: Maladaptive Behavior/Special Vulnerabilities of Young Children Skill: Factual Answer: b. Dependence on adults 15.1-7. A young child who tries to kill him/herself a. is doing it to try to manipulate adults, not because he/she really wants to die. b. is depressed and really wants to die. c. may have unrealistic beliefs about death and not really understand what it ..

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means to die. d. is probably more mature and aware than most children their age.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-7 Page Ref: 524 Topic: Maladaptive Behavior/Special Psychological Vulnerabilities of Young Children Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. may have unrealistic beliefs about death and not really understand what it means to die.

15.1-8. What was the greatest problem that emerged as a classification system for childhood disorders was being developed? a. The same classification system that had been developed for adults was used for children. b. Few childhood disorders had been identified. c. The role of parents in the development of disordered behavior was overemphasized. d. There was a hesitancy to identify childhood disorders as parents were likely to be blamed for any diagnosis given.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-8 Page Ref: 525 Topic: Maladaptive Behavior/The Classification of Childhood and Adolescent Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. The same classification system that had been developed for adults was used for children.

15.1-9. Children with ADHD that have symptoms of hyperactivity a. are usually well liked by their peers because they are always active. b. are usually well liked by their peers because they become "class clowns." c. are usually viewed negatively by their peers because of their behaviors. d. are usually viewed negatively by their peers because they are socially withdrawn.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-9 Page Ref: 525 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Skill: Factual Answer: c. are usually viewed negatively by their peers because of their behaviors.

15.1-10. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) a. is commonly diagnosed after age of 15. b. is the most frequent psychological referral to mental health facilities. c. is seen equally in boys and girls. d. is thought to occur in about 10 percent of school-aged children.

Difficulty: 1 ..

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Question ID: 15.1-10 Page Ref: 525 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Skill: Factual Answer: b. is the most frequent psychological referral to mental health facilities.

15.1-11. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder is characterized by a. an increasing frequency from age 6 to age 16. b. a greater frequency in girls than in boys. c. mild to moderate mental retardation. d. difficulties that interfere with effective task-oriented behavior.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-11 Page Ref: 525 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Skill: Factual Answer: d. difficulties that interfere with effective task-oriented behavior.

15.1-12. George is in second grade and is having trouble. He frequently is out of his seat, looking at the work of other students and annoying them by making comments.

He interrupts the teacher, blurts out answers before she finishes the question, and usually needs directions repeated multiple times. At home, his mother says he is always "on the go." The most likely diagnosis for George is a. conduct disorder. b. oppositional defiant disorder. c. separation anxiety disorder. d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-12 Page Ref: 525 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Skill: Applied Answer: d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

15.1-13. Which of the following is a subtype of ADHD found in the DSM-IV TR? a. Combined Type b. Inattentive/ Impulsive Type c. Uncontrolled/Impulsive Type d. Hyperactive/Inattentive Type Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-13 Page Ref: 526 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Skill: Factual Answer: a. Combined Type ..

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15.1-14. Currently, the cause of ADHD is believed to be a. a combination of family pathology and poor peer modeling. b. excessive sugar in the diet. c. an allergic reaction to certain foods and food additives. d. both biological and psychological factors.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-14 Page Ref: 526 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Skill: Factual Answer: d. both biological and psychological factors.

15.1-15. Treatment of ADHD with drugs such as Ritalin is thought to be effective as it a. quiets the voices. b. increases the ability to concentrate. c. interferes with glutamate activity. d. acts as a sedative.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-15 Page Ref: 527 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. increases the ability to concentrate.

15.1-16. What is the advantage of using Pemoline to treat attentiondeficit/hyperactivity disorder instead of Ritalin? a. Pemoline increases the child's intelligence. b. Pemoline works faster. c. Pemoline has fewer side effects. d. Pemoline reduces anxiety attacks.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-16 Page Ref: 528 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Skill: Factual Answer: c. Pemoline has fewer side effects.

15.1-17. The evidence suggests that medications for ADHD a. work well for the short-term but show little long-term effect. b. work well for both the short- and long-term. c. really don't work at all - what is seen is due to the placebo effect. d. only work for children who have had the diagnosis at least two years.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-17 Page Ref: 528 ..

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Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Skill: Factual Answer: a. work well for the short-term but show little long-term effect.

15.1-18. In studies looking at the effectiveness of treatment for ADHD, what was found? a. While good results are achieved when medication is combined with therapy, the medication appears to be the more effective element of the treatment. b. While good results are achieved when medication is combined with therapy, the therapy appears to be the more effective element of the treatment. c. The use of medications interferes with the effectiveness of behavioral approaches. d. Cognitive-behavioral therapy is more effective than behavioral modification.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-18 Page Ref: 528 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Skill: Factual Answer: a. While good results are achieved when medication is combined with therapy, the medication appears to be the more effective element of the treatment.

15.1-19. As children with ADHD become adolescents and adults, a. they outgrow their ADHD symptoms. b. many continue to experience symptoms. c. most get worse. d. those with hyperactivity tend to get worse, the rest get better.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-19 Page Ref: 528 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Skill: Factual Answer: b. many continue to experience symptoms.

15.1-20. What two childhood disorders are characterized by aggressive or antisocial behavior? a. Oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder b. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder and oppositional defiant disorder c. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder and childhood depression d. Conduct disorder and childhood depression Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-20 Page Ref: 529 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. Oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder ..

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15.1-21. The term "juvenile delinquent" is a. used when a diagnosis of early-onset antisocial personality disorder has been made. b. defined by the legal system. c. inconsistent with the diagnostic criteria for conduct disorder. d. rarely used in modern times.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-21 Page Ref: 529 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. defined by the legal system.

15.1-22. Brad has been diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder (ODD). The disorder began around age 12 and is characterized by disobedient and hostile behavior toward authority figures. What aspect of this case is unusual? a. It is unusual for children with ODD to be boys. b. It is unusual for the onset of ODD to occur at age 12. c. It is unusual for children with ODD to be hostile toward authority figures. d. Nothing about this case is unusual.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-22 Page Ref: 529 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. It is unusual for the onset of ODD to occur at age 12.

15.1-23. In order of diagnosis, ________ occurs before antisocial personality disorder just as ________ occurs before conduct disorder. a. ODD; conduct disorder b. conduct disorder; ODD c. ADHD; conduct disorder d. conduct disorder; ADHD Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-23 Page Ref: 529 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. conduct disorder; ODD 15.1-24. What is the relationship between oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder? a. Virtually all children who develop conduct disorder have oppositional defiant disorder first. b. Almost every case of oppositional defiant disorder develops into conduct disorder. ..

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c. Before children develop oppositional defiant disorder, they have conduct disorder. d. Children who develop conduct disorder almost never had oppositional defiant disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-24 Page Ref: 529 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. Virtually all children who develop conduct disorder have oppositional defiant disorder first.

15.1-25. Which behavior pattern is extremely unlikely to be found in a child with conduct disorder? a. Firesetting and vandalism b. Substance abuse c. Constant worry about minor issues d. Depression Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-25 Page Ref: 529 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. Constant worry about minor issues 15.1-26. Girls with conduct disorder a. seek security from a father figure. b. are at risk for teen pregnancy. c. usually have a comorbid diagnosis of ADHD and/or a mood disorder. d. do not show the same social deficits seen in boys.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-26 Page Ref: 529 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. are at risk for teen pregnancy.

15.1-27. What is the self-perpetuating cycle in conduct disorder? a. A genetic predisposition leads to a low IQ and difficult temperament, which leads to poor parenting and an insecure attachment, which leads to conduct disorder. b. A genetic predisposition leads to a difficult temperament, which leads to behavior problems, which lead to parental overindulgence and lack of discipline, which leads to conduct disorder. c. A genetic predisposition leads to an easy temperament but because of abusive parents, this leads to depression which in turn leads to conduct disorder. ..

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d. A genetic predisposition leads to an easy temperament, which leads to parental neglect, which leads to anxiety, which leads to conduct disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-27 Page Ref: 530 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. A genetic predisposition leads to a low IQ and difficult temperament, which leads to poor parenting and an insecure attachment, which leads to conduct disorder.

15.1-28. Which of the following is a risk factors for ODD and conduct disorder? a. Parental psychopathology. b. Methamphetamine abuse. c. Middle socioeconomic status. d. Childhood obesity.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-28 Page Ref: 530 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. Parental psychopathology.

15.1-29. The development of conduct disorder in adolescence a. predicts the development of other psychopathology in adulthood. b. rarely occurs. c. commonly occurs in teens who suffer from ADHD. d. is not associated with lasting behavioral problems.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-29 Page Ref: 530 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. is not associated with lasting behavioral problems.

15.1-30. Which of the following statements about early-onset conduct disorder is true? a. Later problems are not likely. b. Most will develop antisocial personality disorder. c. The majority will continue to have, at minimum, social dysfunction as adults. d. Environmental factors predict whether or not the disorder persists.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-30 Page Ref: 530 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. The majority will continue to have, at minimum, social dysfunction as adults. ..

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15.1-31. Artiss developed conduct disorder early. Bertram developed conduct disorder late. This suggests that a. Artiss will have a higher level of intelligence. b. Artiss will have a higher likelihood of adult antisocial personality disorder. c. Bertram will have a higher likelihood of social dysfunctions. d. Bertram will show more severe neuropsychological deficits and attentional problems.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-31 Page Ref: 530 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: b. Artiss will have a higher likelihood of adult antisocial personality disorder.

15.1-32. Research on the families of children with conduct disorder suggests that a. antisocial behavioral patterns may be learned. b. environmental factors are rarely involved in disorders of childhood onset. c. genetics do not play a role in the development of antisocial tendencies. d. parental substance abuse is the greatest risk factor for early-onset conduct disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-32 Page Ref: 530 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. antisocial behavioral patterns may be learned.

15.1-33. The parenting in families of children with conduct disorders typically involves a. accepting the child's behavior as "normal." b. providing the child with harsh but consistent discipline. c. rejection and neglect. d. overprotecting the child.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-33 Page Ref: 531 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: c. rejection and neglect.

15.1-34. Divorce, hostility, and lack of monitoring are family characteristics most closely associated with a. separation anxiety disorder. b. conduct disorder. c. autism. ..

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d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-34 Page Ref: 531 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. conduct disorder.

15.1-35. Punitive approaches to antisocial youth are a. likely to make problems worse. b. effective when intervention occurs before adolescence. c. not the norm. d. effective at "teaching the child a lesson."

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-35 Page Ref: 531 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. likely to make problems worse.

15.1-36. The cohesive family model is a treatment strategy for the child with conduct disorder that a. focuses on how the child's behavior elicits negative responses from other family members. b. proposes that dysfunctional interactions have served to maintain the child's problematic behavior. c. teaches the child basic moral lessons. d. combines punitive and therapeutic interventions.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-36 Page Ref: 531 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. proposes that dysfunctional interactions have served to maintain the child's problematic behavior.

15.1-37. Effective treatments for conduct disorder usually involve a. removing the child from the environment that has fostered the maladaptive behavior. b. legal intervention. c. teaching the child basic moral lessons. d. parental participation.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-37 Page Ref: 531 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder ..

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Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. parental participation.

15.1-38. Separation anxiety disorder is best illustrated by which of the following people? a. Thomas, who is fiercely independent of other children and his parents. b. Harriet, who refuses to talk to her teachers or adults other than her parents. c. Isabella, who worries that her father will die if she is not near him. d. Chuck, who is afraid he will be beaten by bullies at school.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-38 Page Ref: 532 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Anxiety Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: c. Isabella, who worries that her father will die if she is not near him.

15.1-39. The most common childhood anxiety disorder is ________. a. selective mutism b. depression c. generalized anxiety disorder d. separation anxiety disorder Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-39 Page Ref: 533 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Anxiety Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: d. separation anxiety disorder 15.1-40. Which statement about separation anxiety disorder is accurate? a. Children who have the disorder commonly develop antisocial personality disorder as adults. b. The child with separation anxiety is likely to be immature and lack selfconfidence. c. The disorder is equally common in boys and girls. d. It is a severe but extremely rare form of childhood anxiety disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-40 Page Ref: 533 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Anxiety Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: b. The child with separation anxiety is likely to be immature and lack selfconfidence.

15.1-41. Children with separation anxiety disorder a. have a school phobia. b. fear impending separation but are fine once it actually happens. ..

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c. fear separation from major attachment figures and worry they will die once separation occurs. d. frequently develop conduct disorder as a result.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-41 Page Ref: 533 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Anxiety Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: c. fear separation from major attachment figures and worry they will die once separation occurs.

15.1-42. Childhood anxiety disorders are associated with which of the following factors? a. A deficit in conditionability to aversive stimuli. b. Maladaptive learning from an underprotective parent. c. Moving to a new school. d. Parental substance abuse.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-42 Page Ref: 533 - 534 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Anxiety Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: c. Moving to a new school.

15.1-43. Evidence that culture plays a role in the development of childhood anxiety disorders comes from the fact that a. African American children rarely show symptoms of PTSD. b. children from cultures that favor inhibition and compliance report more fears. c. children from cultures that favor independence report more fears. d. overanxious children rarely have overanxious parents.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-43 Page Ref: 534 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Anxiety Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: b. children from cultures that favor inhibition and compliance report more fears.

15.1-44. Anxiety disorders of childhood a. tend to persist into adulthood. b. show few cross-cultural differences. c. are usually effectively treated with drugs. d. typically do not lead to problems later in life.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-44 Page Ref: 534 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Anxiety Disorders ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: d. typically do not lead to problems later in life.

15.1-45. What type of behavioral therapy is most likely to be used in the treatment of child with an anxiety disorder? a. Behavior therapy that includes assertiveness training and desensitization using graded real-life situations. b. Behavior therapy that includes a generalized desensitization to fearful situations using Ruthanne's imagination to picture these situations. c. A combination of Ritalin and family therapy. d. A group therapy in which anxious children are taught to ignore their anxious feelings.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-45 Page Ref: 534 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Anxiety Disorders Skill: Applied Answer: a. Behavior therapy that includes assertiveness training and desensitization using graded real-life situations.

15.1-46. Childhood and adult depression differ in what way? a. Irritability is often seen as a major symptom in childhood depression. b. Altered eating habits are not seen in childhood depression. c. Adult depression does not remit without pharmacological intervention. d. Altered hormone levels are not seen in children.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-46 Page Ref: 535 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Childhood Depression and Bipolar Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: a. Irritability is often seen as a major symptom in childhood depression.

15.1-47. Research on the effects of parental depression a. confirms that genes play a role in the etiology of childhood depression. b. suggests that parental psychopathology leads to changes in parenting behavior that has lasting effects on children. c. does not indicate that environmental factors play a role in the development of childhood depression. d. indicates that the influence of peers is greater than that of parents.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-47 Page Ref: 535 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Childhood Depression and Bipolar Disorder Skill: Conceptual ..

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Answer: b. suggests that parental psychopathology leads to changes in parenting behavior that has lasting effects on children.

15.1-48. It is believed that depressed mothers negatively affect their infants because they a. are overly intrusive with their children, depending upon the child rather than allowing the child to depend upon them. b. respond less sensitively to their children and show more irritable behavior. c. tend to blame themselves when, in fact, the children have made mistakes. d. engage in impulsive, antisocial behaviors which the children mimic.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-48 Page Ref: 537 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Childhood Depression and Bipolar Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. respond less sensitively to their children and show more irritable behavior.

15.1-49. Childhood depression is likely to persist because a. lasting changes occur in the brain. b. positive events are unlikely to occur. c. most treatments are not effective. d. an attributional style is adopted that maintains a negative mood state.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-49 Page Ref: 537 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Childhood Depression and Bipolar Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. an attributional style is adopted that maintains a negative mood state.

15.1-50. Juliet is a depressed child. When she wins a prize at school for her art project, how is she likely to explain it? a. I was the best. b. My teacher likes me. c. I got lucky. d. I worked hard.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-50 Page Ref: 535-536 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Childhood Depression and Bipolar Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: c. I got lucky.

15.1-51. Research on the effectiveness of antidepressants for the treatment of ..

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childhood depression a. demonstrates that drugs are just as effective as therapy. b. suggests that children experience more side effects from these medications than adults. c. indicates that there is not a biological basis for childhood depression. d. has been inconclusive.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-51 Page Ref: 537 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Childhood Depression and Bipolar Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. has been inconclusive.

15.1-52. Studies of the effectiveness of antidepressant medication with children have a. shown that Prozac is extremely effective in producing long-term symptom relief. b. produced inconsistent results. c. indicated that while these drugs have few side effects, neither do they have any benefits. d. a major drawback: children develop tolerance to the drugs and become psychologically dependent on them.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-52 Page Ref: 537 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Childhood Depression and Bipolar Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: b. produced inconsistent results.

15.1-53. Suicidal behavior in children and adolescents a. is extremely rare. b. should be ignored as manipulative behavior. c. is usually not related to depression. d. may be increased by taking SSRIs. Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-53 Page Ref: 537 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Childhood Depression and Bipolar Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: d. may be increased by taking SSRIs. 15.1-54. After her parents’ divorce, Julia began wetting the bed. She wets the bed almost nightly and is embarrassed about it in the morning. What disorder would this 7-year-old be diagnosed with? ..

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a. Primary functional enuresis b. Secondary functional enuresis c. Primary functional encopresis d. Secondary organic enuresis Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-54 Page Ref: 538 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Applied Answer: b. Secondary functional enuresis 15.1-55. Throughout his young life, Quincy, age 7, rarely wakes up in the morning to a dry bed. Quincy would be diagnosed as having a. primary functional encopresis. b. secondary functional encopresis. c. primary functional enuresis. d. secondary functional enuresis.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-55 Page Ref: 538 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Applied Answer: c. primary functional enuresis.

15.1-56. Functional enuresis a. always has an organic cause. b. usually develops following some traumatic event. c. is seen in boys more commonly than girls. d. exists in primary, secondary, and tertiary forms.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-56 Page Ref: 538 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Factual Answer: c. is seen in boys more commonly than girls.

15.1-57. Drugs used to treat enuresis are thought to a. alleviate the anxiety that is leading to poor bladder control. b. increase water retention. c. inhibit reflexive bladder emptying. d. decrease the deepest stage of sleep.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-57 Page Ref: 539 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: d. decrease the deepest stage of sleep.

15.1-58. What has been found to be the most effective approach to the treatment of enuresis? a. Cognitive-behavioral therapy b. Conditioning procedures c. Behavioral modification d. Family therapy Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-58 Page Ref: 539 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Factual Answer: b. Conditioning procedures 15.1-59. As a camp counselor, you are surprised when you hear that one of your young campers takes a hormone replacement drug intranasally to treat a psychological disorder. The disorder is most likely a. enuresis. b. autism. c. somnambulism. d. encopresis.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-59 Page Ref: 539 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Applied Answer: a. enuresis.

15.1-60. Compared to enuresis, encopresis is a. diagnosed at an earlier age. b. more common. c. less likely to be treated with drugs. d. more likely be effectively treated with conditioning procedures.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-60 Page Ref: 539 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Factual Answer: a. diagnosed at an earlier age.

15.1-61. Which child below best illustrates the typical child with functional encopresis? a. A 12-year-old girl who soils herself at school. b. A 14-year-old boy who suffers from chronic diarrhea. c. A 7-year-old boy who soils himself when under stress. ..

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d. A 10-year-old girl who also has attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-61 Page Ref: 539 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. A 7-year-old boy who soils himself when under stress.

15.1-62. It is important to do a thorough physical examination, to rule out medical problems, before diagnosing encopresis because these children often a. have sleep and metabolic disorders, as well. b. engage in hypochondriacal behaviors. c. suffer from diabetes and other serious, chronic conditions. d. suffer from constipation.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-62 Page Ref: 539 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Factual Answer: d. suffer from constipation.

15.1-63. Which of the following is not listed in the DSM-IV-TR under disorders of infancy, childhood, and adolescence? a. Autism b. Encopresis c. Enuresis d. Sleepwalking disorder Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-63 Page Ref: 539 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Factual Answer: d. Sleepwalking disorder 15.1-64. Which of the following is TRUE concerning sleepwalking disorder? a. If a child has one episode of sleepwalking, he or she is likely to have repeated episodes. b. Takes place during non-REM sleep. c. Awakening an individual who is sleepwalking will result in severe physiological stress for the person. d. While moving about, sleepwalkers' eyes are closed so they are in constant danger of injuring themselves.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-64 Page Ref: 539 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: b. Takes place during non-REM sleep.

15.1-65. Tics a. are usually not noticed by the individual performing the act. b. are often related to enuresis. c. occur most frequently in adults, but occasionally they also occur in children. d. almost always have an organic basis.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-65 Page Ref: 540 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Factual Answer: a. are usually not noticed by the individual performing the act.

15.1-66. Cross-cultural studies of tics find that a. the types of tics seen most commonly vary with culture. b. the average age of tic onset appears to be universal. c. tics occur less frequently in cultures that are less expressive. d. tics are always seen more frequently in females.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 165.1-66 Page Ref: 540 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Applied Answer: b. the average age of tic onset appears to be universal.

15.1-67. Coprolalia a. is a vocal tic involving yelling obscenities. b. frequently accompanies encopresis. c. is a common side effect of medications used in the treatment of childhood depression. d. is a rare pervasive developmental disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-67 Page Ref: 540 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Factual Answer: a. is a vocal tic involving yelling obscenities.

15.1-68. Which of the following is a symptom of Tourette's syndrome? a. Coprolalia. b. Enuresis. c. Encopresis. d. Pica.

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Question ID: 15.1-68 Page Ref: 540 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Factual Answer: a. Coprolalia.

15.1-69. Orlando, 14, frequently twists his head uncontrollably and yelps or grunts.

If he has not done this for several hours, he has a sensation that can only be relieved by engaging in these movements and sounds. Orlando has had this problem since he was 8. The most likely diagnosis is a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. tic disorder. c. coprolalia. d. Tourette's syndrome.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-72 Page Ref: 540 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Applied Answer: d. Tourette's syndrome.

15.1-70. Tics a. are only seen in Tourette's syndrome. b. usually have an organic basis. c. are usually associated with severe behavioral problems. d. rarely are effectively controlled with medication.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-70 Page Ref: 540 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Factual Answer: c. are usually associated with severe behavioral problems.

15.1-71. The most effective medical treatment for Tourette's syndrome is a. biofeedback training. b. central nervous stimulants such as Ritalin. c. neuroleptics such as haloperidol. d. the hormone replacement drug DDVAP. Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-71 Page Ref: 540 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Factual Answer: c. neuroleptics such as haloperidol.

15.1-72. ________ are a group of severely disabling conditions in children that are ..

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considered to be the result of structural differences in the brain and usually apparent at birth or as the child begins to develop. a. Pervasive developmental disorders b. Symptom disorders c. Conduct disorders d. Tic disorders Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-72 Page Ref: 541 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. Pervasive developmental disorders 15.1-73. Asperger's disorder is a. similar to but less severe than autism. b. what was once called "autism." c. a severe form of conduct disorder. d. an extreme tic disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-73 Page Ref: 541, 546 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: a. similar to but less severe than autism.

15.1-74. The hallmark symptom of autism is a. lack of language. b. lack of interest in other people. c. mental retardation. d. strange behaviors.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-74 Page Ref: 541 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Factual Answer: b. lack of interest in other people.

15.1-75. Autism is similar to schizophrenia in its a. age of onset. b. biological basis. c. impact on multiple functions. d. responsiveness to treatment.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-75 Page Ref: 541 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism ..

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Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. impact on multiple functions.

15.1-76. We are likely to find that most of the children with autistic disorder a. are girls. b. also suffer from depression, tic disorders, and other forms of psychopathology. c. come from poverty-stricken environments. d. were identified as having the disorder before they were 3 years old.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-76 Page Ref: 541 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. were identified as having the disorder before they were 3 years old.

15.1-77. William is an autistic child. He is probably a. severely lacking in emotional expression. b. unable to utter any meaningful sounding words. c. relatively withdrawn and uncommunicative. d. aggressive and frequently attacks others.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-77 Page Ref: 542 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Applied Answer: c. relatively withdrawn and uncommunicative.

15.1-78. Children with ________ are believed to be "mind blind," that is, they cannot take the attitude of or "see" things as others do. They are also deficient at locating and orienting to sounds in their environment. a. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder b. Childhood disorder c. Separation anxiety disorder d. Autistic disorder Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-78 Page Ref: 542 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Factual Answer: d. Autistic disorder 15.1-79. Which of the following is a possible explanation for the seeming lack of emotion in autistic children? a. They have no emotions b. They lack of social understanding c. Neurological impairment - they can feel but not show emotions ..

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d. Immaturity - they will show more as they get older Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-79 Page Ref: 542 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. They lack of social understanding 15.1-80. Children with autism often have additional problems such as a. encopresis and sleep problems. b. obsessive compulsive disorder and Tourette's syndrome. c. conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder. d. social anxiety disorder and elective mutism.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-80 Page Ref: 542 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Factual Answer: a. encopresis and sleep problems.

15.1-81. In autistic children, head banging, spinning in circles, and rocking are behaviors that a. are exceedingly rare. b. are common forms of self-stimulation. c. are believed to be ways of communicating without language. d. are used because these children find repetitive routines very aversive.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-81 Page Ref: 543 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Factual Answer: b. are common forms of self-stimulation.

15.1-82. Despite what is shown in movies like Rain Man, most autistic children would not cope well being brought to a Las Vegas casino for the first time, because a. they are afraid of large groups of people. b. they would want to touch things they weren't allowed to touch. c. they would be so excited by all the sights and sounds they would become overagitated. d. they often show aversion to auditory stimulation and prefer a limited and solitary routine.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-82 Page Ref: 543 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Applied ..

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Answer: d. they often show aversion to auditory stimulation and prefer a limited and solitary routine.

15.1-83. Which of the following would be most distressing to a child with autism? a. Soft, monotonous sounds b. An everyday routine that stays the same c. Altering a familiar environment d. Not having a normal sleep pattern Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-83 Page Ref: 543 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Applied Answer: c. Altering a familiar environment 15.1-84. Autism a. is due to environmental factors like family environment. b. has both genetic and environmental causes. c. is caused by exposure to chemical toxins during early development. d. is one of the most strongly genetic disorders in the DSM-IV. Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-84 Page Ref: 544 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Factual Answer: d. is one of the most strongly genetic disorders in the DSM-IV. 15.1-85. It has been suggested that the symptoms seen in autism might reflect a problem with the function of the a. glutamate neurotransmitter system. b. hippocampus. c. hypothalamus. d. cerebellum.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 15.1-85 Page Ref: 544 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Factual Answer: a. glutamate neurotransmitter system.

15.1-86. Which of the following has been associated with autism? a. Down syndrome b. Mutations of chromosome 23 c. Defective genes or radiation damage d. Huntington's disease Difficulty: 2 ..

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Question ID: 15.1-86 Page Ref: 543 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Factual Answer: c. Defective genes or radiation damage 15.1-87. Drug treatment for autistic disorder has been found to be a. of some value in reducing aggressive behaviors. b. extremely beneficial when neuroleptics like haloperidol are used. c. contraindicated since they tend to make the children withdraw even further. d. extremely beneficial when a hormone replacement drug is used.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-87 Page Ref: 544 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Factual Answer: a. of some value in reducing aggressive behaviors.

15.1-88. The extremely intensive experimental behavior program designed by Ivar Lovaas for children with autism a. has not proven successful. b. has shown promise, but not as much as medications. c. helped almost half of the children in the treatment program achieve normal intellectual functioning. d. helped most of the parents of autistic children learn to cope better with their children.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-88 Page Ref: 544 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Factual Answer: c. helped almost half of the children in the treatment program achieve normal intellectual functioning.

15.1-89. Despite studies such as by Ivar Lovaas, the overall prognosis for children with autism is a. extremely positive. b. poor. c. most will be able to live on their own and work at low-level jobs. d. most will steadily improve as they age and become independent.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-92 Page Ref: 544 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Factual Answer: b. poor. ..

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15.1-90. Jenny has an IQ in the average range. However, at school she is doing very poorly. She has consistently scored at two or more grade levels below the grade she is actually in. From this, a diagnostician would hypothesize that Jenny a. most likely has an anxiety disorder. b. most likely does not have a learning disability because her IQ is only average. c. most likely has a learning disability. d. most likely has mental retardation.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-90 Page Ref: 546 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Learning Disabilities Skill: Applied Answer: c. most likely has a learning disability.

15.1-91. By definition, learning disorders a. are not due to a physical defect. b. reflect a developmental delay. c. are present before the age of 5. d. cannot be treated medically.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-91 Page Ref: 546 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Learning Disabilities Skill: Factual Answer: a. are not due to a physical defect.

15.1-92. The most widely known and studied learning disorder is a. mental retardation. b. autism. c. conduct disorder. d. dyslexia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-92 Page Ref: 546 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Learning Disabilities Skill: Factual Answer: d. dyslexia.

15.1-93. A learning disability usually is identified a. because teachers and school administrators are on the watch for the signs. b. because a child shows a disparity between his or her actual academic achievement and expected academic achievement. c. because a child begins to show significant emotional problems, fails, and begins to hate school. d. because the child has been doing very well in school for several years and then ..

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suddenly starts failing.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-93 Page Ref: 547 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Learning Disabilities Skill: Factual Answer: b. because a child shows a disparity between his or her actual academic achievement and expected academic achievement.

15.1-94. An asymmetry in brain development has been hypothesized to be a cause of a. ADHD. b. autism. c. learning disabilities. d. selective mutism.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-94 Page Ref: 547 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Causal Factors in Learning Disabilities Skill: Factual Answer: c. learning disabilities.

15.1-95. When symptoms of mental retardation are not apparent until after age 17, a. the treatment for retardation is more successful. b. the level of retardation is typically mild. c. the retardation is almost always at least moderate and often severe. d. the diagnosis would be dementia, not mental retardation.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-95 Page Ref: 548 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Mental Retardation Skill: Factual Answer: d. the diagnosis would be dementia, not mental retardation.

15.1-96. With respect to how he or she functions in relationships, an individual with mild mental retardation is most comparable to a. an intelligent 10-year-old. b. an adolescent. c. an average 7-year-old. d. an average 11-year-old.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-96 Page Ref: 548 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Mental Retardation Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. an adolescent. ..

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15.1-97. Ron works as a custodian's helper at a school, under supervision of the custodian. Ron can read and write his name, and can read first-grade books. He moves slowly and sometimes with difficulty. Ron most likely has a. mild mental retardation. b. moderate mental retardation. c. severe mental retardation. d. profound mental retardation.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-97 Page Ref: 549 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Mental Retardation Skill: Applied Answer: b. moderate mental retardation.

15.1-98. Genetic factors a. are very common in most levels of retardation. b. are clearly involved in the more severe forms of retardation. c. are involved only in cases of profound retardation. d. are involved only in Down syndrome.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-98 Page Ref: 549 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Causal Factors in Mental Retardation Skill: Factual Answer: b. are clearly involved in the more severe forms of retardation.

15.1-99. Individuals with Down syndrome typically show which of the following characteristics? a. They have extremely small heads and brains. b. Their eyes, skin, and hair are very pale. c. They have large tongues and short fingers. d. Their cranium fills with an abnormal amount of cerebrospinal fluid.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-99 Page Ref: 550-551 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Organic Retardation Syndromes Skill: Factual Answer: c. They have large tongues and short fingers.

15.1-100. The long held belief that children with Down syndrome are especially placid and loving a. has been supported by research. b. is only true for those with higher IQs. ..

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c. is only true for those with lower IQs. d. has been shown to be invalid by research.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-100 Page Ref: 551 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Organic Retardation Syndromes Skill: Factual Answer: d. has been shown to be invalid by research.

15.1-101. The incidence of Down syndrome increases a. when the mother drinks heavily during pregnancy. b. if the father is extremely young. c. as the age of the parents increases. d. when the mother is exposed to lead during pregnancy.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-101 Page Ref: 552 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Organic Retardation Syndromes Skill: Factual Answer: c. as the age of the parents increases.

15.1-102. Children born with phenylketonuria, a. are destined to develop severe or profound retardation. b. appear normal at first. c. exhibit abnormal movements and vocalizations. d. have characteristic facial features.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-102 Page Ref: 552 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Organic Retardation Syndromes Skill: Applied Answer: b. appear normal at first.

15.1-103. Phenylketonuria can be used to illustrate a. the dramatic effects of prenatal malnutrition. b. the importance of early detection of chromosomal anomalies. c. why women should give birth at an early age. d. how nature and nurture interact.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-103 Page Ref: 552 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Organic Retardation Syndromes ..

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Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. how nature and nurture interact.

15.1-104. Urine testing allows for the early detection of ________ and its treatment, which consists of ________. a. Down syndrome; behavior therapy b. phenylketonuria; a low-phenylalanine diet c. macrocephaly; surgery to remove excess fluid d. Down syndrome; the drug tacrine Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-104 Page Ref: 553 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Organic Retardation Syndromes Skill: Factual Answer: b. phenylketonuria; a low-phenylalanine diet 15.1-105. Microcephaly and macrocephaly have what in common? a. They involve alterations in head size and shape. b. They are due to recessive genes. c. They are caused by an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the cranium. d. They are associated with older parental age.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-105 Page Ref: 553 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Organic Retardation Syndromes Skill: Factual Answer: a. They involve alterations in head size and shape.

15.1-106. Shortly after birth, Darren's head began to grow. At age 5, a shunt was placed in his skull to drain fluid. He has seizures, trouble seeing, and is mildly mentally retarded. Darren's most likely diagnosis is a. microcephaly. b. phenylketonuria. c. Turner's syndrome. d. hydrocephaly.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-106 Page Ref: 553 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Organic Retardation Syndromes Skill: Applied Answer: d. hydrocephaly. ..

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15.1-107. The current trend for treatment of the mentally retarded is a. to place them in institutions. b. to place all but the mildly mentally retarded in institutions. c. to place all but the mildly and moderately retarded in institutions. d. to keep even the most severely retarded in the community rather than institutions.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-110 Page Ref: 553-554 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Organic Retardation Syndromes Skill: Factual Answer: d. to keep even the most severely retarded in the community rather than institutions.

15.1-108. One of the most important factors in the treatment of children and adolescents is a. the type of disorder they have. b. their intellectual level. c. parental willingness to be involved in treatment. d. their response to medications.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.1-108 Page Ref: 554 Topic: Planning Better Programs to Help Children and Adolescents/Special Factors Associated with Treatment Skill: Factual Answer: c. parental willingness to be involved in treatment.

15.1-109. Which of the following statements about factors associated with treatment of children and adolescents is correct? a. Psychotherapy is more effective with children and adolescents compared to adults. b. Behavior therapy is more effective with children and adolescents compared to adults. c. Psychotherapy and behavior therapy are both less effective in children and adolescents compared to adults. d. Psychotherapy and behavior therapy are equally effective in children and adolescents and with adults.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-109 Page Ref: 555 Topic: Planning Better Programs to Help Children and Adolescents/Special Factors Associated with Treatment Skill: Factual Answer: d. Psychotherapy and behavior therapy are equally effective in children and ..

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adolescents and with adults.

15.1-110. Which of the following is a legal term used to describe individuals between the ages of 8 and 18 who commit illegal acts? a. Conduct Disorder b. Oppositional Defiant Disorder c. Juvenile Delinquency d. Psychopathy Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.1-110 Page Ref: 558 Topic: Unresolved Issues: Can Society Deal with Delinquent Behavior?

Skill: Factual Answer: c. Juvenile Delinquency Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 15.2-1. _______________are the most common types of medications used in the treatment of ADHD. Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 14.2-1 Page Ref: 528 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ADHD Skill: Factual Answer: Stimulants 15.2-2. __________________is the most common of the childhood anxiety disorders.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.2-2 Page Ref: 532 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Anxiety Disorders Skill: Factual Answer: Separation anxiety disorder 15.2-3. The diagnoses of Depression and Bipolar Disorder in children and adolescents have __________ in number of the past few years, although diagnosing them has become controversial.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.2-3 Page Ref: 535 Topic: Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents/Childhood Depression and Bipolar Disorder Skill: Applied Answer: increased 15.2-4. The parrot-like repetition of speech seen in some children with autism is also ..

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called __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.2-4 Page Ref: 543 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Factual Answer: echolalia 15.2-5. _________________________is often referred to as an "autistic spectrum disorder."

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.2-5 Page Ref: 550 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Asperger's Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: Asperger's disorder 15.2-6. The most common chromosomal abnormality seen in Down syndrome is the __________ of chromosome 21.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.2-6 Page Ref: 551 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Organic Retardation Syndromes Skill: Factual Answer: trisomy Short Answer Questions 15.3-1. How do early views of child psychopathology differ from those of today?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.3-1 Page Ref: 524-525 Topic: Maladaptive Behavior/The Classification of Childhood and Adolescent Disorders Skill: Conceptual Answer: Childhood disorders were once given little attention as they were viewed as simply being manifestations of adult disorders in children. It was not recognized that there are disorders that are only seen in childhood and that definitions of what is viewed as normal behavior change with age.

15.3-2. What is the clinical picture of oppositional defiant disorder? How is this disorder related to conduct disorder?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.3-2 Page Ref: 529-530 ..

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Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Factual Answer: The key characteristics of oppositional defiant disorder are persistent negativism, disobedience, and hostile behavior toward authority figures. This pattern must last at least six months and usually begins by age 6. Conduct disorder involves many of the same behaviors but usually has its onset at age 9 or later. While about one quarter of children who have oppositional defiant disorder go on to develop conduct disorder, virtually every child with conduct disorder had oppositional defiant disorder earlier in life.

15.3-3. What relationship is there between conduct disorder and antisocial personality disorder?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.3-3 Page Ref: 530 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: Early-onset conduct disorder is associated with later development of antisocial personality disorder or other social dysfunction. It appears that the earlier that antisocial behavior becomes apparent, the more likely that it will continue and become a lifelong behavioral pattern.

15.3-4. How does depression in a mother impact her child?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.3-4 Page Ref: 535 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents Skill: Applied Answer: Depressed mothers tend not to respond effectively to children and to be less attuned to them. They also tend to respond in a more negative manner. The mothers' behavior and modeling of affect may produce similar responses in infants.

15.3-5. What types of treatments are most effective for treating enuresis?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.3-5 Page Ref: 539 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Factual Answer: While medications may be used to decrease bedwetting, these medications do not fix the problem. Learning-based procedures are clearly more effective, for example, the bell and pad method.

15.3-6. What is coprolalia?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.3-6 ..

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Page Ref: 540 Topic: Symptom Disorders: Enuresis, Encopresis, Sleepwalking, and Tics Skill: Factual Answer: Coprolalia is a vocal tic that involves the uttering of obscenities. It is seen in about one-third of those with Tourette's syndrome.

15.3-7. What are the major symptoms of autism?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.3-7 Page Ref: 541-542 Topic: Pervasive Developmental Disorders/Autism Skill: Factual Answer: Lack of interest in social relationships, social deficits, absence of speech, selfstimulation, lowered IQ, and maintaining sameness.

15.3-8. What are three factors that can cause mental retardation?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.3-8 Page Ref: 549-550 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Causal Factors in Mental Retardation Skill: Factual Answer: Three of: Genetic-chromosomal factors, infections and toxic agents, trauma and physical injury, ionizing radiation and malnutrition.

15.3-9. What is unique about the mental retardation caused by PKU? Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.3-9 Page Ref: 552 Topic: Learning Disabilities and Mental Retardation/Organic Retardation Syndromes Skill: Conceptual Answer: While many conditions inevitably result in brain damage and mental retardation, early detection of PKU can prevent any adverse consequences. Children with PKU are unable to metabolize phenylalanine. If they ingest food with this amino acid, it accumulates and causes brain damage that leads to retardation. The mental retardation seen in PKU only occurs if foods with phenylalanine are ingested, therefore it is preventable.

15.3-10. What are three of the special factors associated with treatment for children and adolescents?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.3-10 Page Ref: 555-556 Topic: Planning Better Programs to Help Children and Adolescents/Special Factors Associated with Treatment ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: Three of: child's inability to seek assistance on his or her own, child's unique vulnerabilities that put him or her at risk, the need to treat parents as well as children, the problems of placing children outside of the family, and the value of intervening before problems become acute.

Essay Questions 15.4-1. What are the special vulnerabilities in young children that contribute to the development of psychological problems?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 15.4-1 Page Ref: 524 Topic: Maladaptive Behavior/Special Psychological Vulnerabilities of Young Children Skill: Applied Answer: Children have a more simplistic view of life than adults. They have less selfunderstanding and cannot grasp as adults can what situations require of them nor what resources they have to cope with those situations. Therefore, immediate threats are more likely to seem overwhelming to children. Given this limited perspective, children use unrealistic ideas to explain events. Children are also more dependent on other people than adults, and while this may provide support, it also makes them vulnerable to rejection and inadequate or inappropriate modeling of behavior. GRADING RUBRIC - 6 points, 2 for each of 3 special vulnerabilities.

15.4-2. Discuss the relationship between oppositional defiant disorder, conduct disorder, juvenile delinquency, and antisocial personality disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.4-2 Page Ref: 529-531 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/ODD and Conduct Disorder Skill: Conceptual Answer: While oppositional defiant disorder (ODD), conduct disorder (CD), and antisocial personality disorder (APD) are all psychological disorders found in the DSMIV-TR, juvenile delinquency is a term used to law breaking by minors. Thus, many children with ODD and CD are juvenile delinquents. The behavioral features of ODD, CD, and APD are all similar. In essence, ODD and CD involve age-appropriate antisocial acts. ODD is usually apparent by age 8 and is characterized by negativity, defiance, and hostility that persists for at least 6 months. The child with ODD does not respect authority. Not all children with ODD develop CD, but virtually all children with CD had ODD. CD tends to be seen by about age 9. While the child with ODD is hostile to authority, the child with CD violates the rights of others and repeatedly violates rules. In CD we see an escalation of the antisocial behaviors evident in the child with ODD. Just as not all children with ODD develop CD, those children who develop CD are not destined to develop APD. Those who develop CD at a young age, however, are more likely to develop APD. Thus, it appears that early and persistent antisocial behavior in childhood is a precursor for APD. GRADING RUBRIC - 12 points, 2 points each for ..

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distinguishing between the 4 disorders (8 points), 2 for stating relationship between ODD and CD, 2 for stating the relationship between CD and APD. 15.4-3. Describe the ways parents can cause anxiety disorders in their children.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 15.4-3 Page Ref: 532-534 Topic: Common Disorders of Childhood/Anxiety and Depression in Children and Adolescents Skill: Applied Answer: 1. Modeling by overanxious and protective parents can sensitive children to the dangers of the outside world, communicates to them a lack of confidence in the child's ability to cope and reinforces the child's feelings of inadequacy. 2. Indifferent or detached parents or rejecting parents cause the child to not feel adequately supported in mastering essential competencies and gaining a positive self concept. Either repeated failures from poor learning skills leads to anxiety or withdrawal in the face of a threat or the child performs adequately but is overly self-critical and feels anxious and devalued because of self-perception of failure and loss of parental love. GRADING RUBRIC: 10 points, 5 for each way.

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TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 16 Therapy

Topic

An Overview of Treatment

Measuring Success in Psychotherapy

Multiple Choice (16.1-) Blank (16.2-) Short Answer (16.3-) Essay (16.4-) Multiple Choice (16.1-)

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

2, 4, 8, 9, 11

1, 3, 10, 12, 13

5, 6, 7, 14

1 19, 20

15, 16, 17, 18

Blank (16.2-) Short Answer (16.3-)

What Therapeutic Approaches Should Be Used?

Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment

Sociocultural Perspectives

Biological Approaches to Treatment

Essay (16.4-) Multiple Choice (16.1-) Blank (16.2-) Short Answer (16.3-) Essay (16.4-) Multiple Choice (16.1-)

Blank (16.2-) Short Answer (16.3-) Essay (16.4-) Multiple Choice (16.1-) Blank (16.2-) Short Answer (16.3-) Essay (16.4-) Multiple Choice (16.1-)

Blank (16.2-) Short Answer (16.3-) Essay (16.4-)

21, 22, 24, 25, 26, 27, 30 1

1 23, 28, 29

2 66, 68, 69, 71, 76, 89, 91, 98, 102, 103, 104, 106, 109, 110 2, 3, 4 4, 5, 7

64, 73, 78, 79, 83, 84, 85, 86, 90, 92, 95, 97, 101, 105, 107

65, 67, 70, 72, 74, 75, 77, 80, 81, 82, 87, 88, 93, 94, 96, 99, 100, 108

9 2, 3

6, 8, 10

40, 62

39, 41, 46, 47, 55, 59, 60

111, 112, 113

31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 42, 43, 44, 45, 48, 49, 50, 51, 52, 53, 54, 56, 57, 58, 61, 63 5 3

Copyright © 2013 by Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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Chapter 16: Therapy Multiple-Choice Questions 16.1-1. In what way does therapy differ from simply talking to a friend or family member about a problem? a. Therapy takes time, while a friend's guidance is more likely to lead to a "quick fix" of the problem. b. Friends provide empathy, while a professional therapist does not. c. A therapist's interaction with a client is guided by theory. d. Therapists will seek to determine the underlying issues that have created the problem.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-1 Page Ref: 562 Topic: Therapy Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. A therapist's interaction with a client is guided by theory.

16.1-2. Which of the following is a disadvantage of psychotherapy? a. It is ineffective in treating severe mental disorders. b. It takes time. c. It is significantly more expensive than all other forms of treatment. d. It is generally less effective than talking out your problems with a friend or family member.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-2 Page Ref: 562 Topic: An Overview of Treatment Skill: Factual Answer: b. It takes time.

16.1-3. What recent changes have altered the types of therapy that are available? a. There is an increased need to prove that therapy is effective. b. Psychiatrists are hesitant to write prescriptions for many drugs. c. The increased use of nurses as therapy providers has increased the use of drugs in many community health settings. d. Many popular therapies have been found to do more harm than good.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-3 Page Ref: 562 Topic: An Overview of Treatment Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. There is an increased need to prove that therapy is effective.

16.1-4. Which of the following statements about therapy is TRUE? ..

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a. Even people who are happy and successful can benefit from therapy. b. Few therapies have been found to be effective. c. Therapy is usually the most expensive approach to a problem. d. Each therapist has his or her own approach to therapy and does not alter this approach for different clients.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-4 Page Ref: 564 Topic: An Overview of Treatment/Why Do People Seek Therapy?

Skill: Factual Answer: a. Even people who are happy and successful can benefit from therapy.

16.1-5. Individuals vary tremendously in their degree of motivation for psychological treatment. Which of the following is likely to be the most motivated? a. Harvey, who is going through a job layoff and feels overwhelmed by the crisis. b. Jennifer, who was referred by the court to undergo therapy because of a drunk driving charge. c. Marvin, whose wife has said she will divorce him unless he gets treatment for his compulsive gambling. d. Barry, who is sure he has a heart condition but whose cardiologist suggests he needs psychotherapy to cope with stress better.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-5 Page Ref: 562 Topic: An Overview of Treatment/Why Do People Seek Therapy?

Skill: Applied Answer: a. Harvey, who is going through a job layoff and feels overwhelmed by the crisis.

16.1-6. Which person described below is the "typical" client in psychotherapy? a. A middle-aged woman with a long history of psychotic behavior b. An attractive and verbal college student c. A man who has been coerced into treatment by the legal system d. There is no "typical" client Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-6 Page Ref: 564 Topic: An Overview of Treatment/Why Do People Seek Therapy?

Skill: Applied Answer: d. There is no "typical" client 16.1-7. Which of the following is the best example of a "model" therapy session? a. A child with ADHD is taught ways to filter out distractions. b. A woman with an anxiety disorder is taught relaxation techniques. c. An alcoholic sees a therapist, attends AA meetings, and is taking an antidepressant medication. ..

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d. There is no "model" therapy.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-7 Page Ref: 564 Topic: An Overview of Treatment/Why Do People Seek Therapy?

Skill: Applied Answer: d. There is no "model" therapy.

16.1-8. What two professional groups deal extensively with emotional problems but typically do not have specific training in counseling? a. Physicians and the clergy b. Physicians and psychiatrists c. The clergy and psychiatric social workers d. Psychiatrists and the clergy Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-8 Page Ref: 564 Topic: An Overview of Treatment/Who Provides Psychotherapeutic Services?

Skill: Factual Answer: a. Physicians and the clergy 16.1-9. In general, psychiatrists tend to treat mental disorders by ________ and psychologists by ________. a. examining and changing behavior and thought patterns; prescribing medications b. prescribing medications; examining and changing behavior and thought patterns c. supportive therapy; behavior therapy d. hospitalization; supportive therapy Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-9 Page Ref: 564 Topic: An Overview of Treatment/Who Provides Psychotherapeutic Services?

Skill: Factual Answer: b. prescribing medications; examining and changing behavior and thought patterns 16.1-10. The current practice of providing treatment stresses a. the value of confining a patient to a mental hospital. b. the individual's responsibility for finding a personal solution to his or her problems. c. the coordination of services in the community. d. turning over to the patient's family the responsibility for behavior change.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-10 Page Ref: 564 ..

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Topic: An Overview of Treatment/Who Provides Psychotherapeutic Services?

Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. the coordination of services in the community.

16.1-11. Which of the following is believed to be essential for effective treatment? a. A warm and loving relationship between the therapist and client b. Family involvement c. Client reliance on the therapist for direction and guidance d. Agreement between the client and therapist about the goals of treatment Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-11 Page Ref: 565 Topic: An Overview of Treatment/The Therapeutic Relationship Skill: Factual Answer: d. Agreement between the client and therapist about the goals of treatment 16.1-12. The outcome of psychotherapy is usually dependent on whether the therapist and client achieve a. a certain similarity of personal style. b. mutual self-disclosure. c. an explicit therapeutic contract. d. a productive working alliance.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-12 Page Ref: 565 Topic: An Overview of Treatment/The Therapeutic Relationship Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. a productive working alliance.

16.1-13. Which of the following is NOT an element of a therapeutic alliance? a. A sense of working together to solve a problem b. Client acceptance of the therapist's theoretical orientation c. Agreement between client and therapist about the goals of therapy d. An affective bond between the client and therapist Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-13 Page Ref: 565 Topic: An Overview of Treatment/The Therapeutic Relationship Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Client acceptance of the therapist's theoretical orientation 16.1-14. Andrea begins therapy and expects that the therapy will help her. This expectancy a. is necessary to produce positive change. b. may be enough by itself to produce positive change. c. is helpful in psychodynamic therapy, but irrelevant to cognitive and behavioral ..

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interventions. d. is irrelevant to the change process.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-14 Page Ref: 565 Topic: An Overview of Treatment/The Therapeutic Relationship Skill: Applied Answer: b. may be enough by itself to produce positive change.

16.1-15. Which of the following would be the most objective way of evaluating treatment success? a. Gathering information about the therapist's impression of the changes that have occurred b. Looking at the client's reports of change c. Asking the client's family and friends to report on the progress they have observed d. Measuring the change in through personality tests and other instruments Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-15 Page Ref: 565 Topic: Measuring Success in Psychotherapy Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Measuring the change in through personality tests and other instruments 16.1-16. Therapy outcome studies depend on ratings of the changes seen in clients.

One reason that therapists' ratings may be unreliable is because a. they cannot see the client's behavior in a range of settings. b. they have a limited range of clients on whom to compare an individual client's improvement. c. they usually base their judgments on superficial personality tests. d. they are not in a good position to compare behavior before and after treatment.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-16 Page Ref: 565 Topic: Measuring Success in Psychotherapy Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. they cannot see the client's behavior in a range of settings.

16.1-17. The advantage of using outside independent observers or pre/post test comparisons to evaluate a client's progress is that a. they take less time and are less costly. b. they increase the objectivity of ratings over those given by the people involved in treatment. c. they ensure that there is no "regression to the mean" phenomenon. d. they provide a valid prediction of how the client will behave in real life.

Difficulty: 1 ..

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Question ID: 16.1-17 Page Ref: 566 Topic: Measuring Success in Psychotherapy Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. they increase the objectivity of ratings over those given by the people involved in treatment.

16.1-18. Which of the following is the most significant challenge to establishing that therapy is effective? a. Placebo effects commonly occur. b. It is impossible to determine what component of a treatment plan is responsible for a positive outcome. c. Many people improve without formal treatment. d. Few psychotherapies are more effective than medical treatments.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-18 Page Ref: 567 Topic: Measuring Success in Psychotherapy/Would Change Occur Anyway?

Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Many people improve without formal treatment.

16.1-19. To summarize what is known about psychotherapy effectiveness, we can say that a. the chances of an average client benefiting significantly are impressive. b. for disorders that have a brief duration, treatment provides no obvious benefit. c. degree of improvement and number of therapy sessions are unrelated. d. all therapy outcomes are positive or neutral, none are negative.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-19 Page Ref: 567 Topic: Measuring Success in Psychotherapy/Would Change Occur Anyway?

Skill: Factual Answer: a. the chances of an average client benefiting significantly are impressive.

16.1-20. Which statement about negative outcomes in psychotherapy is accurate? a. Nearly one-half of all therapeutic encounters are rated by clients as "negative" or "harmful." b. The primary reason for negative outcomes is a lack of training and therapeutic skill on the part of the therapist. c. When a sexual relationship occurs between therapist and patient, it is harmful to the patient. d. The vast majority of negative outcomes turn out to be reported in fraudulent or frivolous lawsuits brought by clients.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-20 Page Ref: 568 ..

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Topic: Measuring Success in Psychotherapy/Can Therapy Be Harmful?

Skill: Factual Answer: c. When a sexual relationship occurs between therapist and patient, it is harmful to the patient.

16.1-21. A randomized clinical trial a. is a study where all subjects are treated the same to see what percentage of the total gets better, stays the same, or gets worse. b. is a study where people are assigned to different types of treatment by the flip of a coin to see which treatment is best. c. is a study where people go through different treatments in random order to see which one works best. d. is a study where people are assigned to different groups by a flip of a coin, onehalf to a treatment group and one-half to a seemingly identical placebo group.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-21 Page Ref: 569 Topic: What Therapeutic Approaches Should Be Used?/Evidence-Based Treatment Skill: Factual Answer: d. is a study where people are assigned to different groups by a flip of a coin, one-half to a treatment group and one-half to a seemingly identical placebo group.

16.1-22. What does it meant to say that a study is "double-blind"? a. Each patient receives both the drug being tested and a placebo, so that the effects of the drug can be compared to the effects of the patient's expectations. b. While the patient is aware to what treatment he or she is receiving, his or her family, friends, and therapist are not. c. Both the patient being given the drug and whoever will evaluate the drug's effects do not know whether the patient was given the treatment or the placebo. d. Two conditions are used, a treatment and a placebo.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-22 Page Ref: 569 Topic: What Therapeutic Approaches Should Be Used?/Evidence-Based Treatment Skill: Factual Answer: c. Both the patient being given the drug and whoever will evaluate the drug's effects do not know whether the patient was given the treatment or the placebo.

16.1-23. Which of the following is a challenge of conducting randomized clinical trials of the effectiveness of therapy? a. The client will never find out whether or not he or she was treated. b. Most clients will never improve on their own without treatment. c. There is little variation between different types of therapy. d. Even therapists who use the same techniques will differ in their delivery.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-23 ..

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Page Ref: 569 Topic: What Therapeutic Approaches Should Be Used?/Evidence-Based Treatment Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Even therapists who use the same techniques will differ in their delivery.

16.1-24. What is usually used as a placebo in a study of psychosocial treatments? a. A sugar pill b. A wait list c. Self-help meetings d. Group therapy Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-24 Page Ref: 569 Topic: What Therapeutic Approaches Should Be Used?/Evidence-Based Treatment Skill: Factual Answer: b. A wait list 16.1-25. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the use of drugs to treat psychological disorders? a. Relapse is likely when drugs use is terminated. b. Drugs are rarely effective in controlling psychotic symptoms. c. They decrease the need for hospitalization. d. They alter brain chemistry.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-25 Page Ref: 570 Topic: What Therapeutic Approaches Should Be Used?/Medication or Psychotherapy?

Skill: Factual Answer: a. Relapse is likely when drugs use is terminated.

16.1-26. It was once commonly believed that a. drugs only treat symptoms. b. drugs and therapy cannot work together. c. therapy was the quickest solution to most problems. d. self-help groups are the best approach to most problems.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-26 Page Ref: 570 Topic: What Therapeutic Approaches Should Be Used?/Combined Treatments Skill: Factual Answer: b. drugs and therapy cannot work together.

16.1-27. How commonly are medications and therapy combined today? a. Combined treatments tend to only be used in an inpatient setting. b. Approximately 75 percent of those with a mental illness are treated with therapy alone, 10 percent use medications only, and just 15 percent are treated ..

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with both. c. While the combined approach is commonly used in the treatment of children, the same is not true in the adult population where the "quick fix" of a medication is the norm. d. Research suggests that over half of those in treatment receive both psychotherapy and medication.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-27 Page Ref: 570 Topic: What Therapeutic Approaches Should Be Used?/Combined Treatments Skill: Factual Answer: d. Research suggests that over half of those in treatment receive both psychotherapy and medication.

16.1-28. What do the medications used to treat mental illnesses do? a. Cure the illness b. Restore brain chemistry to normal functioning c. Replace depleted neurotransmitters d. Treat the symptoms of the illness with biochemical changes Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 16.1-28 Page Ref: 570 Topic: What Therapeutic Approaches Should Be Used?/Medication or Psychotherapy?

Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Treat the symptoms of the illness with biochemical changes 16.1-29. Under what circumstances might the use of medications prior to psychotherapy be essential? a. When the patient is suicidal b. When the patient won't admit that they have a problem c. When the patient's symptoms are so severe that they make psychotherapy impossible d. When a quick cure is needed Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-29 Page Ref: 570 Topic: What Therapeutic Approaches Should Be Used?/Medication or Psychotherapy?

Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. When the patient's symptoms are so severe that they make psychotherapy impossible 16.1-30. What has research on the use of a combined approach to the treatment of depression demonstrated? a. Medication alone yields the best results. b. Psychotherapy alone yields the best results. c. Psychotherapy in combination with a placebo or medication yields the best ..

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results. d. Medication in combination with therapy yields the best results.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-30 Page Ref: 571 Topic: What Therapeutic Approaches Should Be Used?/Combined Treatments Skill: Factual Answer: d. Medication in combination with therapy yields the best results.

16.1-31. Drugs that block dopamine receptors are most likely to be used to a. distort perception. b. alleviate depression. c. stabilize mood. d. treat psychotic disorders.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-31 Page Ref: 585 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Antipsychotic Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: d. treat psychotic disorders.

16.1-32. Why is a drug that is long-acting desirable? a. It will work quickly. b. It will need to be taken less frequently. c. The likelihood of side effects is decreased. d. It will be quickly metabolized or excreted.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-32 Page Ref: 585 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Antipsychotic Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: b. It will need to be taken less frequently.

16.1-33. The conventional antipsychotic drugs have a problematic side effect involving abnormal movement. This side effect is called a. agranulocytosis. b. monoamine oxidase. c. tardive dyskinesia. d. atypical neuroleptics.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-33 Page Ref: 586 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Antipsychotic Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: c. tardive dyskinesia. ..

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16.1-34. A major advantage of the atypical antipsychotic drugs is that a. they work better than the conventional ones. b. they work for more people than the conventional ones. c. they have a low risk of movement-related side effects. d. they last longer than the conventional ones.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-34 Page Ref: 586 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Antipsychotic Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: c. they have a low risk of movement-related side effects.

16.1-35. Atypical antipsychotics are more commonly used today than ever before because they a. are not addictive. b. work more quickly than the typical antipsychotics. c. produce no side effects. d. may effectively treat both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-35 Page Ref: 586 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Antipsychotic Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: d. may effectively treat both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

16.1-36. Which of the following is a type of "classical antidepressant"? a. GABA agonists b. monoamine oxidase inhibitors c. neuroleptics d. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-36 Page Ref: 586 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Antidepressant Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: b. monoamine oxidase inhibitors 16.1-37. Prozac is a a. GABA agonist. b. monoamine oxidase inhibitor. c. neuroleptic. d. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-37 Page Ref: 586 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Antidepressant Drugs ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: d. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor.

16.1-38. Why are the SSRIs the most commonly used antidepressants today? a. Because they only have minimal effects on dopamine, they are less likely to produce side effects. b. They are more effective than the classic tricyclic antidepressants. c. Their side effects are more tolerable than those of the first-generation antidepressants. d. They are not addictive.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-38 Page Ref: 586 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Antidepressant Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: c. Their side effects are more tolerable than those of the first-generation antidepressants.

16.1-39. Julia has just been prescribed a monoamine oxidase inhibitor to treat her depression. What warning should her doctor give her? a. Stay out of the sun. b. Be careful what you eat. c. Don't try to drive a car. d. You may find that you can't achieve orgasm.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-39 Page Ref: 589 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Antidepressant Drugs Skill: Applied Answer: b. Be careful what you eat.

16.1-40. The time course of the effects of antidepressant medications suggests that a. low dopamine levels are the underlying problem in depression. b. the effectiveness of the TCAs and SSRIs is largely a placebo effect. c. altered synaptic activity is not the source of a depressed mood state. d. changes in cellular functioning are necessary to alleviate the symptoms of depression.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-40 Page Ref: 589 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Antidepressant Drugs Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. changes in cellular functioning are necessary to alleviate the symptoms of depression.

16.1-41. Because much of Donald's depression is a result of his lack of a healthy ..

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sexual relationship with his wife, Dr. Jones figured that the best drug to treat him with would be a. Chlorpromazine. b. Prozac. c. Wellbutrin. d. Zoloft.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-41 Page Ref: 589 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Antidepressant Drugs Skill: Applied Answer: c. Wellbutrin.

16.1-42. Antidepressants are used to treat all of the following EXCEPT a. panic disorder. b. bulimia. c. borderline personality disorder. d. schizophrenia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-42 Page Ref: 589 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Antidepressant Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: d. schizophrenia.

16.1-43. Psychological and physiological dependence is a well-documented danger of using a. anxiolytics. b. neuroleptics. c. antipsychotics. d. lithium.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-43 Page Ref: 590 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Anti-Anxiety Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: a. anxiolytics.

16.1-44. ____________________ is not a problem associated with the benzodiazepines. a. Risk of withdrawal symptoms if the patient stops them suddenly b. High relapse rates when stopped c. Tardive dyskinesia d. Psychological dependence Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-44 ..

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Page Ref: 590 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Anti-Anxiety Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: c. Tardive dyskinesia 16.1-45. Valium exerts its anxiolytic effects by increasing the activity of a. acetylcholine. b. dopamine. c. epinephrine. d. GABA. Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-45 Page Ref: 590 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Anti-Anxiety Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: d. GABA. 16.1-46. Oscar has been prescribed the following drugs over the years: Valium, Serax, Xanax, and Ativan. We can guess that Oscar has had problems with a. positive symptom schizophrenia. b. mood swings. c. depression and anger control. d. anxiety and insomnia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-46 Page Ref: 590 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Anti-Anxiety Drugs Skill: Applied Answer: d. anxiety and insomnia.

16.1-47. Suzanne is taking a benzodiazepine to treat her anxiety. She should be concerned that a. mania is a relatively common side effect. b. she may become physically dependent on the drug. c. while her anxiety is likely to be diminished, her adaptive behaviors also are likely to become increasingly impaired. d. when taken in high dosages, the drugs have potentially serious effects on a woman's reproductive ability.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-47 Page Ref: 590 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Anti-Anxiety Drugs Skill: Applied Answer: b. she may become physically dependent on the drug.

16.1-48. While most antianxiety drugs act on ________, Buspar acts primarily on ..

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________. a. serotonin; GABA b. serotonin; epinephrine c. GABA; serotonin d. GABA; epinephrine Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-48 Page Ref: 590 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Anti-Anxiety Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: c. GABA; serotonin 16.1-49. The newer anti-anxiety drug Buspar has the advantage that a. it has a low potential for abuse. b. it works better than other anti-anxiety drugs. c. it works on more anxiety disorders than the other drugs. d. it works faster than the other drugs.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-49 Page Ref: 590 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Anti-Anxiety Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: a. it has a low potential for abuse.

16.1-50. The use of lithium in the United States was delayed due to a. the stigma associated with mental illness. b. its addiction potential. c. a lack of evidence to demonstrate that it was effective. d. the fact that it could not be patented.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-50 Page Ref: 591 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Lithium and Other Mood-Stabilizing Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: d. the fact that it could not be patented.

16.1-51. Lithium was once used a. to treat anxiety. b. as a salt substitute. c. to alleviate constipation. d. as an appetite suppressant.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-51 Page Ref: 591 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Lithium and Other Mood-Stabilizing Drugs Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: b. as a salt substitute.

16.1-52. The main use of lithium is for a. anxiety disorders. b. personality disorders. c. major depressive disorder. d. bipolar disorder.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-52 Page Ref: 591 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Lithium and Other Mood-Stabilizing Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: d. bipolar disorder.

16.1-53. For bipolar patients, the risk of relapse after discontinuing lithium is a. roughly 50 percent within six months. b. not much higher than when people remain on the medication. c. extremely unlikely. d. about 15 percent, but only for people who have experienced repeated bouts with mania.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-53 Page Ref: 591 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Lithium and Other Mood-Stabilizing Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: a. roughly 50 percent within six months.

16.1-54. The process by which lithium reduces the likelihood of mood swings a. involves changes in stress hormones including cortisol. b. alters GABA levels, although exactly how it does this is unknown. c. is a combination of reuptake inhibition and receptor site blockades among serotonin and dopamine tracts. d. is unknown at this time.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-54 Page Ref: 591 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Lithium and Other Mood-Stabilizing Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: d. is unknown at this time.

16.1-55. A doctor prescribing lithium should NEVER say a. "This drug has a narrow range of effectiveness, so you need to have your blood levels monitored often." b. "In order for this drug to work, you need to take quantities that are within the range of potentially dangerous side effects." c. "We are going to 'target dose' your lithium: When you feel symptoms coming ..

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on, take your medication." d. "Along with the benefits of mood stabilization, you may experience increased thirst and weight gain along with a sense of lethargy."

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-55 Page Ref: 591 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Lithium and Other Mood-Stabilizing Drugs Skill: Applied Answer: c. "We are going to 'target dose' your lithium: When you feel symptoms coming on, take your medication."

16.1-56. What do lithium carbonate, carbamazepine (Tegretol), and valproate (Depakote) have in common? a. They are benzodiazepines. b. They are used in the treatment of anxiety disorders. c. They are atypical antipsychotic drugs. d. They are all mood-stabilizing drugs.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-56 Page Ref: 592 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Lithium and Other Mood-Stabilizing Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: d. They are all mood-stabilizing drugs.

16.1-57. The use of electroconvulsive therapy can be traced to a. the observation that people were rarely depressed after being struck by lightning. b. the belief that schizophrenia and epilepsy are rarely comorbid disorders. c. the recognition that electricity could be used to alter brain chemistry. d. the use of electrical shock as an instrument of torture.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-57 Page Ref: 592 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Electroconvulsive Therapy Skill: Factual Answer: b. the belief that schizophrenia and epilepsy are rarely comorbid disorders.

16.1-58. ECT has been found to be an effective treatment for a. anxiety disorders. b. depression. c. epilepsy. d. schizophrenia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-58 Page Ref: 592 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Electroconvulsive Therapy ..

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Skill: Factual Answer: b. depression.

16.1-59. Sarah has just received her first treatment of electroconvulsive therapy. She is most likely to a. experience auditory hallucinations for a brief time afterward. b. suffer tonic and clonic seizures over the next week. c. feel more clearheaded and less depressed following the first two to three sessions. d. experience amnesia and confusion for an hour after the treatment.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-59 Page Ref: 593 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Electroconvulsive Therapy Skill: Applied Answer: d. experience amnesia and confusion for an hour after the treatment.

16.1-60. Which of the following would be the most likely candidate for ECT? a. A 22-year-old schizophrenic b. A middle-aged depressed woman who has just begun taking antidepressants c. A pregnant and depressed 25 year-old d. A 30-year-old man who has generalized anxiety disorder Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-60 Page Ref: 593 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Electroconvulsive Therapy Skill: Applied Answer: c. A pregnant and depressed 25 year-old 16.1-61. A Nobel Prize winning treatment for schizophrenia was a. the SSRIs. b. prefrontal lobotomies. c. ECT. d. token economies.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-61 Page Ref: 594 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Neurosurgery Skill: Factual Answer: b. prefrontal lobotomies.

16.1-62. In the mid-1900s, prefrontal lobotomies were popular as a treatment because a. there were not many other available treatments. b. they worked so well. c. they worked faster than any other treatment. ..

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d. they worked for so many disorders.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 16.1-62 Page Ref: 594 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Neurosurgery Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. there were not many other available treatments.

16.1-63. Today, neurosurgery a. is still used, including prefrontal lobotomies, on patients who have not responded to any other treatment. b. is used as a last resort and involves the destruction of only tiny areas of the brain. c. is done frequently for certain types of psychological illnesses, such as obsessive compulsive disorder. d. is no longer done for any psychological disorder.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-63 Page Ref: 594 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Neurosurgery Skill: Factual Answer: b. is used as a last resort and involves the destruction of only tiny areas of the brain.

16.1-64. Behavior therapy is based on the belief that a. medications cause more harm than good. b. internal states, such as thoughts and feelings, are not as important as overt behavior. c. abnormal behavior is learned the same ways as normal behavior and can be unlearned. d. thoughts influence behavior and thoughts can be changed.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-64 Page Ref: 571 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. abnormal behavior is learned the same ways as normal behavior and can be unlearned.

16.1-65. Dr. Hart says, "For me, the goal of treatment is not to uncover inner conflicts, but to help the client achieve adaptive responses that he or she can control and maintain through self-monitoring." Dr. Hart probably considers herself a ________ therapist. a. behavior b. psychodynamically oriented c. humanistic ..

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d. family systems Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-65 Page Ref: 578 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Applied Answer: a. behavior 16.1-66. Which of the following is a form of behavior therapy that is commonly used in the treatment of anxiety disorders? a. Rational emotive behavior therapy b. Stress-inoculation therapy c. Gestalt therapy d. Systematic desensitization Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-66 Page Ref: 571 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Factual Answer: d. Systematic desensitization 16.1-67. Chrissy and her therapist together wrote a list of ten scenes involving Chrissy's fear of flying. After teaching her a relaxation technique, Chrissy's therapist told her to imagine herself in the least frightening scene while she made herself feel relaxed. Chrissy was undergoing a. exposure in vivo. b. systematic desensitization. c. modeling therapy. d. rational emotive therapy.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-67 Page Ref: 571 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Applied Answer: b. systematic desensitization.

16.1-68. Punishment is a component of a. EMDR therapy. b. modeling. c. aversion therapy. d. systematic desensitization.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-68 Page Ref: 572 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: c. aversion therapy.

16.1-69. The use of drugs that have noxious effects and viewing movies that elicit disgust are both techniques associated with a. token economies. b. aversion therapy. c. guided exposure therapy. d. EMDR therapy.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-69 Page Ref: 572 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Factual Answer: b. aversion therapy.

16.1-70. Yuko is painfully shy. Her therapist first shows her appropriate social skills so she can interact competently with others. Then Yuko attempts the same behavior while getting feedback. This illustrates the behavior therapy technique called a. guided exposure. b. covert sensitization. c. modeling. d. contingency management.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-70 Page Ref: 572 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Applied Answer: c. modeling.

16.1-71. A token economy is a. a form of imaginal exposure therapy. b. a type of in vivo exposure therapy. c. a type of contingency management. d. a form of modeling therapy.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-71 Page Ref: 573 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Factual Answer: c. a type of contingency management.

16.1-72. Dennis has disorganized type of schizophrenia. He has lived in an institution for years. He rarely shows any attempt at socializing. A new program is started - every time Dennis speaks to another person he is given a piece of red paper. At the end of each week, he can use the red papers to get cigarettes or extra privileges. This new program is ..

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a. an in vivo exposure program. b. a token economy. c. guided exposure. d. modeling.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-72 Page Ref: 573 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Applied Answer: b. a token economy.

16.1-73. While ________ can be used in treatment, it also a means by which problematic behaviors are acquired when others' behavior is problematic. a. imaginal exposure b. systematic desensitization c. modeling d. contingency management Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-73 Page Ref: 572 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. modeling 16.1-74. Lawrence, a hypochondriac, gains a great deal of attention from his family when he complains about health problems; they tend to ignore him when he talks about other topics. A behavior therapist has instructed the family to reverse these responses: ignore the complaints and reinforce other topics. What kind of treatment does this best illustrate? a. Aversion therapy b. Contingency management c. Guided exposure d. Systematic desensitization Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-74 Page Ref: 573 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Applied Answer: b. Contingency management 16.1-75. The text reported the case of a 6-year-old boy who hated school and showed off in class. His parents and teacher were instructed to ignore the showing-off behavior while reinforcing appropriate behavior. This is an example of a. systematic use of reinforcement. b. modeling. c. aversion therapy. ..

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d. systematic desensitization.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-75 Page Ref: 573 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Applied Answer: a. systematic use of reinforcement.

16.1-76. Which of the following is an advantage of behavior therapy? a. It targets specific emotions and thoughts. b. It works well if a problem is vague and ill-defined. c. It works even though there is no scientific support for it. d. It usually achieves results in a relatively short period of time.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-76 Page Ref: 573-574 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Factual Answer: d. It usually achieves results in a relatively short period of time.

16.1-77. For which client is behavior therapy most likely to be effective? a. Wilson, whose complaint is premature ejaculation. b. Angela, who has a variety of personality disorders. c. Colin, who is struggling with vague concerns about his career and marital prospects. d. Tamara, who is trying to understand the origins of her personality.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-77 Page Ref: 573 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Applied Answer: a. Wilson, whose complaint is premature ejaculation.

16.1-78. Cognitive-behavioral therapy a. denies the importance of reinforcement and punishment. b. assumes that thinking influences emotion, motivation, and behavior. c. assumes that behavior must change before cognitive changes can occur. d. suggests that the therapist should take a less active role than is typically the case in behavior therapies.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 574 Page Ref: 16.1-78 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Cognitive and Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. assumes that thinking influences emotion, motivation, and behavior. ..

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16.1-79. The basic assumption of cognitive-behavior therapy is a. problems develop because people view themselves and their world in biased ways. b. abnormal behavior is learned like normal behavior and can be unlearned. c. people have the freedom and responsibility to control their own lives. d. only observable behaviors can really be changed.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-79 Page Ref: 574 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Cognitive and Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. problems develop because people view themselves and their world in biased ways.

16.1-80. Abby is participating in cognitive-behavioral therapy to treat her depression. Her therapist a. will help her conduct "experiments" to test a variety of hypotheses about the accuracy of her cognitions. b. will use empathy and accurate reflection so that Abby will come to accept the ways she interprets her experience. c. will be nondirective in helping her change. d. will demonstrate ways of acting and then ask her to imitate these.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-80 Page Ref: 574 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Cognitive & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy Skill: Applied Answer: a. will help her conduct "experiments" to test a variety of hypotheses about the accuracy of her cognitions.

16.1-81. Dr. Lucas says to a client with anxiety disorders, "It is your unrealistic beliefs and perfectionistic values that cause you to be so anxious, not the events of your life." Dr. Lucas probably supports the assumptions of ________ therapy. a. humanistic b. psychodynamic c. rational emotive behavior d. systematic desensitization Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-81 Page Ref: 574 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Cognitive and Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy Skill: Applied ..

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Answer: c. rational emotive behavior 16.1-82. According to rational-emotive behavior therapy, which of the following is one of the irrational beliefs at the core of psychological maladjustment? a. Moderation in all activities leads to greater long-term satisfaction. b. One should be thoroughly competent and intelligent in all respects. c. It is undesirable when things are not the way we would like them to be. d. One should do everything possible, within one's means, to live a fulfilling life.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-82 Page Ref: 574 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Cognitive and Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy Skill: Applied Answer: b. One should be thoroughly competent and intelligent in all respects.

16.1-83. In Beck's cognitive therapy, an early "homework" assignment would be a. learning to relax. b. listing one's beliefs about one's competencies. c. recording one's automatic thoughts and any associated emotional reactions. d. intentionally facing situations that one believes are emotionally overwhelming.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-83 Page Ref: 574-575 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Cognitive and CognitiveBehavioral Therapy Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. recording one's automatic thoughts and any associated emotional reactions.

16.1-84. Which of the following is an advantage of using Beck's cognitive treatment for depression, as compared to drugs? a. The likelihood of relapse is decreased. b. It is clearly more effective. c. It works quickly. d. The changes it produces in the brain are permanent, while the effects of drugs are only temporary.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-84 Page Ref: 574-575 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Cognitive and CognitiveBehavioral Therapy Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. The likelihood of relapse is decreased.

16.1-85. ________ therapies developed in reaction to problems of alienation, loneliness, and failure to find meaning in life. ..

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a. Humanistic-existential b. Cognitive c. Object relations d. Family Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-85 Page Ref: 576 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Humanistic-Experiential Therapies Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. Humanistic-existential 16.1-86. Humanistic-existential therapies are based in the belief that psychopathology is a result of a. faulty learning. b. self-defeating thinking. c. early parental interactions. d. lack of fulfillment.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-86 Page Ref: 576 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Humanistic-Experiential Therapies Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. lack of fulfillment.

16.1-87. Joan was surprised that, when she went to therapy, her therapist didn't ask her questions, but just listened to her talk. She said she felt very comfortable with the therapist and felt she could say anything at all and be accepted, unlike with her critical parents. She said she could try out new ideas and the therapist was always warm and nonjudgmental. Joan was probably in a. rational emotive therapy. b. psychodynamic therapy. c. systematic desensitization. d. client-centered therapy.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-87 Page Ref: 576 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Humanistic-Experiential Therapies Skill: Applied Answer: d. client-centered therapy.

16.1-88. According to the views of Carl Rogers, how should children be raised? a. With strict rules and much guidance b. They should be permitted to blossom into the people they are destined to be. ..

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c. Parents are responsible for shaping their children into responsible adults. d. Children should be raised in groups and permitted to develop their own unique society.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-88 Page Ref: 576 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Humanistic-Experiential Therapies Skill: Applied Answer: b. They should be permitted to blossom into the people they are destined to be.

16.1-89. In contrast to most other forms of therapy, the client-centered therapist a. focuses on present concerns rather than past problems. b. does not give answers or interpretations nor even steer the client onto certain topics. c. teaches a new set of beliefs and values so the client can cope more effectively. d. helps make the client's unconscious concerns conscious.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-89 Page Ref: 577 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Humanistic-Experiential Therapies Skill: Factual Answer: b. does not give answers or interpretations nor even steer the client onto certain topics.

16.1-90. Key ideas in Gestalt therapy are a. irrational beliefs, interpersonal conflicts, and unconscious impulses. b. empathy, genuineness, and unconditional positive regard. c. integration of mind and body, dream interpretation, and emotional impasse. d. genetics, early childhood training, and social stressors.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-90 Page Ref: 578 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Humanistic-Experiential Therapies Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. integration of mind and body, dream interpretation, and emotional impasse.

16.1-91. Process-experiential therapy is a combination of a. behavior therapy and client-centered therapy. b. cognitive behavioral therapy and Gestalt therapy. c. cognitive behavioral therapy and psychodynamic therapy. d. client-centered therapy and Gestalt therapy.

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Page Ref: 583 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Humanistic-Experiential Therapies Skill: Factual Answer: d. client-centered therapy and Gestalt therapy.

16.1-92. Which of the following is a criticism of humanistic-experiential therapies? a. Too focused on behavior b. Impersonal approach c. Too much emphasis on early experiences d. Goals are not clear Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-92 Page Ref: 578 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Humanistic-Experiential Therapies Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Goals are not clear 16.1-93. Dr. Patel says this about his goals in therapy: "I want my patients to become aware of their repressed memories from childhood and come to terms with them in the light of adult realities." Dr. Patel most likely prefers ________ therapy. a. flooding b. gestalt c. psychodynamic d. cognitive Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-93 Page Ref: 578 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Psychodynamic Therapies Skill: Applied Answer: c. psychodynamic 16.1-94. A psychotherapist says to her client, "Say whatever comes to your mind, no matter how strange or painful it may seem." The psychotherapist is encouraging a. transference. b. resistance. c. free association. d. counter-transference.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-94 Page Ref: 579 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Psychodynamic Therapies Skill: Applied Answer: c. free association. ..

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16.1-95. The technique of free association is designed to a. help the client feel understood and not judged. b. help the client fully experience his or her emotions during therapy. c. explore unconscious and preconscious material. d. keep the client in the present.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-95 Page Ref: 579 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Psychodynamic Therapies Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. explore unconscious and preconscious material.

16.1-96. Jack tells his therapist about a dream in which he struggles to drive a car that takes him in directions he does not want to go. The therapist interprets the dream to mean that Jack is trying to get control of his career future but feels he is being controlled by others. This suggests that the a. manifest content of the dream is the issue of Jack's career future. b. latent content of the dream is the story of trying to drive the car. c. manifest content of the dream is the story of trying to drive the car. d. the therapist is trying to get Jack to argue with him or her.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-96 Page Ref: 580 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Psychodynamic Therapies Skill: Applied Answer: c. manifest content of the dream is the story of trying to drive the car.

16.1-97. Freud called dreams "the royal road to the unconscious" because a. he believed they kept people from uncovering their true feelings. b. he believed people intentionally dreamed about material they wanted to discuss in therapy but were afraid to. c. he believed defenses were lowered during sleep and repressed material would start to come out in dreams. d. he believed people would only tell him about unimportant dreams, so he could dismiss the topics they brought up.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-97 Page Ref: 580 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Psychodynamic Therapies Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. he believed defenses were lowered during sleep and repressed material would start to come out in dreams.

16.1-98. According to psychoanalysts, what is the therapist's task when doing dream analysis? a. Overcome the client's natural tendency to resist change. ..

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b. Uncover the disguised meanings of the manifest content. c. Explain that the latent and manifest content have little to do with one another. d. Reduce the client's tendency to use transference when he/she remembers a dream.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-98 Page Ref: 580 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Psychodynamic Therapies Skill: Factual Answer: b. Uncover the disguised meanings of the manifest content.

16.1-99. Which of the following best illustrates the analysis of resistance? a. Noting that the client is able to talk freely about his mother but not report anything about his father b. Asking the client to say whatever comes into his/her head, regardless of how silly it sounds c. Explaining that a dream about riding a wild horse in a tunnel suggests strong sexual urges d. Reminding a client who has become insulting toward a female therapist that she is, after all, a helping professional and not the client's abusive mother Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-99 Page Ref: 580 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Psychodynamic Therapies Skill: Applied Answer: a. Noting that the client is able to talk freely about his mother but not report anything about his father 16.1-100. A son of a critical father comes to therapy one day and with no provocation is extremely hostile in his remarks to the therapist. The therapist might consider that ________ is occurring. a. free association b. countertransference c. transference d. resistance Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-100 Page Ref: 580 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Psychodynamic Therapies Skill: Applied Answer: c. transference 16.1-101. How has psychodynamic therapy changed over time? a. It focuses on all relationships, not just early experiences. b. Many elements of behavior therapy have been incorporated. c. Transference is no longer used. d. It differs little from client-centered therapy. ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-101 Page Ref: 581 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Psychodynamic Therapies Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. It focuses on all relationships, not just early experiences.

16.1-102. Psychodynamic interpersonally oriented therapies agree with classical psychoanalysis in the importance of a. focusing on the transference neurosis. b. the transformation of sexual energy into neurotic behaviors. c. understanding the present in terms of the past. d. the therapist being passive and impersonal.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-102 Page Ref: 581 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Psychodynamic Therapies Skill: Factual Answer: c. understanding the present in terms of the past.

16.1-103. An analysis of brief psychodynamic psychotherapy found that a. there is great promise in it for borderline personality disorder. b. results of this therapy are largely unsuccessful. c. those that stress traditional psychoanalytic principles have the highest degree of success. d. the interpersonal forms of treatment are among the least useful.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-103 Page Ref: 581 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Psychodynamic Therapies Skill: Factual Answer: a. there is great promise in it for borderline personality disorder.

16.1-104. Traditional behavioral couples therapy a. uses training in communication skills and problems solving to increase caring behaviors in couples. b. tries to involve spouses in the treatment of people with severe mental disorders to prevent relapse after they are released from the hospital. c. treats the couple together for any problems that only one of them has, because the couple is seen as a "system" that influences each other. d. uses training in relaxation skills and imagery to reduce anxiety in couples.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-104 Page Ref: 582 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Couple and Family Therapy Skill: Factual ..

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Answer: a. uses training in communication skills and problems solving to increase caring behaviors in couples.

16.1-105. A clinical psychologist who said that maladaptive behaviors are shared between members of a relationship and not just the responsibility of an individual would be in harmony with therapists who take the ________ approach. a. humanistic b. classical psychoanalytic c. cognitive-behavioral d. family therapy Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-105 Page Ref: 582 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Couple and Family Therapy Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. family therapy 16.1-106. One criticism of traditional behavioral couple therapy has been a. its focus on faulty role expectations. b. the assumption that a good marriage requires an underlying friendship. c. the belief that keeping channels of communication open will help solve problems. d. the emphasis on change.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 16.1-106 Page Ref: 582 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Couple and Family Therapy Skill: Factual Answer: d. the emphasis on change.

16.1-107. What led to the development of family systems therapy? a. The observation that signs of mental illness often were seen in more than one family member b. The recognition that most psychological disorders can be attributed to and cause dysfunctional relationships c. The realization that the family environment played a role in whether relapse occurred d. The established importance of the interaction of nature and nurture in the development if all forms of psychopathology Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-107 Page Ref: 581 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Couple and Family Therapy Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. the realization that the family environment played a role in whether relapse occurred ..

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16.1-108. The Brady family is attending family therapy sessions. The therapist has told them, "If the whole family context changes, Marcia's problem behavior will change as well." The family therapist probably agrees with the ________ therapy approach. a. structural family b. behavioral family c. cognitive d. conjoint family Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-108 Page Ref: 582 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Couple and Family Therapy Skill: Applied Answer: a. structural family 16.1-109. In structural family therapy, a. the therapist is very directive in order to break up the existing power structure in the family. b. the focus is on past interactions as they have given rise to present problems. c. the therapist initially acts like one of the family and participates in family interactions. d. the therapist adopts a Rogerian approach, focusing on good listening skills and clarification.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-109 Page Ref: 582 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Couple and Family Therapy Skill: Factual Answer: c. the therapist initially acts like one of the family and participates in family interactions.

16.1-110. When asked what their orientation is, what do most of today's psychotherapists say? a. Behavioral b. Cognitive-behavioral c. Eclectic d. Interpersonal Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-110 Page Ref: 582 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Eclecticism and Integration Skill: Factual Answer: c. Eclectic 16.1-111. A good example of psychotherapy being used as a guardian of the status ..

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quo a. occurs when psychotherapy is viewed as a set of tools rather than a system of ethics. b. is when a Rogerian therapist takes a nondirective approach with a client. c. occurred when psychiatry was used as a means of political control in the former Soviet Union. d. happens when therapists disregard their therapeutic approach and use whatever technique works for the client.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-111 Page Ref: 583 Topic: Sociocultural Perspectives Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. occurred when psychiatry was used as a means of political control in the former Soviet Union.

16.1-112. Psychotherapy is best viewed as a. a set of tools. b. a system of ethics. c. a means of keeping society "sick." d. a form of mind control.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.1-112 Page Ref: 583 Topic: Sociocultural Perspectives/Social Values and Psychotherapy Skill: Factual Answer: a. a set of tools.

16.1-113. Research on the impact of matching the client's race and ethnicity with the therapist's indicates that a. racial matching is crucial to success, but ethnic matching is less conclusive. b. there is no solid evidence that outcomes are diminished when client and therapist are not matched. c. while clients do not care whether there is a match, outcomes are influenced by a lack of matching. d. racial matching is crucial to success, but matching on the client's primary language is not.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.1-113 Page Ref: 584 Topic: Sociocultural Perspectives/Psychotherapy and Cultural Diversity Skill: Factual Answer: b. There is no solid evidence that outcomes are diminished when client and therapist are not matched.

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions ..

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16.2-1. The term used to see if a treatment does what it is supposed to do is called its __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.2-1 Page Ref: 562 Topic: What Therapeutic Approaches Should Be Used?/Evidence-Based Treatment Skill: Factual Answer: efficacy 16.2-2. The type of exposure in exposure therapy that occurs in the actual environment is called __________ exposure.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.2-2 Page Ref: 571 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Factual Answer: in vivo 16.2-3. In the psychoanalytic analysis of dreams, the type of content that is disguised in the dream is the __________ content, as the motives are too painful to express directly.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.2-3 Page Ref: 580 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Psychodynamic Therapies Skill: Factual Answer: latent 16.2-4. The feelings a therapist may have for a client based upon his or her unconscious motives is known as __________ in psychodynamic terms.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.2-4 Page Ref: 580 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Psychodynamic Therapies Skill: Factual Answer: countertransference 16.2-5. Neuroleptics are also called __________ .

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.2-5 Page Ref: 585 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Antipsychotic Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: antipsychotics ..

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16.2-6. The major problem with benzodiazepines is that people can become __________ and physiologically dependent upon them.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.2-6 Page Ref: 590 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Anti-Anxiety Drugs Skill: Applied Answer: psychologically Short Answer Questions 16.3-1. What are the key elements of the therapeutic alliance?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.3-1 Page Ref: 565 Topic: An Overview of Treatment/The Therapeutic Relationship Skill: Factual Answer: A sense of working collaboratively on the problem, agreement between client and therapist about goals, affective bond between client and therapist, and clear communication.

16.3-2. What is a randomized clinical trial?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.3-2 Page Ref: 569 Topic: What Therapeutic Approaches Should Be Used?/Evidence-Based Treatment Skill: Applied Answer: Randomized clinical trials are commonly used to determine whether a treatment is effective. One group of subjects is given a treatment, while another is given a placebo.

Ideally, the study is double-blind, meaning that neither the subjects nor whoever is assessing whether the treatment has had an effect knows what condition the subject is in.

Such procedures are designed to control for potential bias.

16.3-3. What is tardive dyskinesia?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.3-3 Page Ref: 586 Topic: Biological Approaches to Treatment/Antipsychotic Drugs Skill: Factual Answer: Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder that can develop with use of conventional antipsychotic medications.

16.3-4. What is systematic desensitization and its purpose?

Difficulty: 2 ..

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Question ID: 16.3-4 Page Ref: 571 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Factual Answer: If anxiety is learned, it can be unlearned. This is guided exposure to anxiety provoking stimuli, either in real life or imagination. The client is confronted with his or her fear in a gradual way. The client and therapist together make a hierarchy of the clients fear. The client is taught a relaxation technique. Then the client imagines him- or herself or actually gets into the lowest fear level situation, while relaxing. Once the client can stay at that level and be relaxed, he or she moves to the next level. This pairs an incompatible behavior with anxiety - counter conditioning.

16.3-5. When discussing psychological treatments, what is flooding?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.3-5 Page Ref: 571 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Factual Answer: Flooding is a type of exposure therapy where the patient directly faces what he or she fears. Unlike systematic desensitization, where the patients works up to facing what they fear gradually, the patient is immediately "flooded" with a direct presentation of the feared stimulus.

16.3-6. What is aversion therapy? Explain and provide an example of how it might be used.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.3-6 Page Ref: 572 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Applied Answer: Aversion therapy is a form of therapy that is used to reduce a behavior through associating it with punishment. In other words, operant conditioning is used to decrease the frequency of an undesirable behavior by following it with unpleasant consequences.

Aversion therapy can be used in the treatment of alcoholism. The alcoholic is treated with a drug that causes him or her to get sick if he or she drinks, thus drinking will come to be associated with the nausea and vomiting that occurs.

16.3-7. What is token economy?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.3-7 Page Ref: 573 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Behavior Therapy Skill: Factual Answer: Token economies are one of the many applications of behavioral theory to treatment. Token economies employ the principles of operant conditioning and are used to increase the frequency of desirable behaviors. When a desired behavior occurs, some ..

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"token" is given that may then be exchanged for something of value to the patient.

16.3-8. What is rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT)? What kind of therapy is REBT? Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 16.3-8 Page Ref: 574 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Cognitive and CognitiveBehavioral Therapy Skill: Applied Answer: REBT is a form of cognitive-behavioral therapy. The focus of this therapy is to change an unhealthy thought process. Thus, this form of therapy is behavioral in that learning principles are used to change a behavior and it is cognitive in that the behavior to be changed is thought processes.

16.3-9. What are the main objectives of client-centered therapy?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.3-9 Page Ref: 576-577 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Humanistic-Experiential Therapies Skill: Conceptual Answer: To help clients become able to accept and be themselves. Therapy strives to provide a climate where the client feels unconditionally accepted, understood, and valued. The therapist uses only nondirective techniques.

16.3-10. Describe the process and purpose of Freudian dream analysis.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.3-10 Page Ref: 580 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Psychodynamic Therapies Skill: Applied Answer: During sleep, defenses are lowered and repressed material begins to come out.

However, some material is so threatening it comes out in disguised form. Dreams have a manifest content, the obvious theme of the dream, and a latent content, the actual disguised motives and impulses. Analyzing the dream helps uncover the latent content.

Essay Questions 16.4-1. Discuss three different ways that the success of therapy can be assessed.

What factors complicate the determination of whether treatment is successful?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.4-1 Page Ref: 565-566 Topic: Measuring Success in Psychotherapy Skill: Conceptual ..

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Answer: In order to determine whether treatment has been effective, some change needs to have occurred. Thus, some measure to effectiveness is needed, as well as a source of the necessary information. It should be noted, however, that sometimes people get well just with the passage of time. This must be considered when considering the effectiveness of treatment - did the treatment work, or would the person have improved without any care? Establishing whether improvements have occurred can be assessed with information obtained from the therapist, the client, family or friends of the client, test scores, and/or the measurement of overt behavior. Clearly, a number of these information sources are likely to be biased, either for treatment success or against it. Ideally, an independent source would assess treatment success and the measures employed would be objective. Obviously, this may or may not be possible. GRADING RUBRIC - 10 points total - 2 for each of 3 ways of measuring success, 2 for each of 2 complicating factors (time may fix problem, bias, need for valid measures, etc.)

16.4-2. Describe Beck's cognitive theory and therapy.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.4-2 Page Ref: 574-575 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Cognitive and CognitiveBehavioral Therapy Skill: Conceptual Answer: This is an information-processing model of psychopathology. Problems come from the biased processing of external events or internal stimuli. These biases distort the ways people make sense of their world, leading to cognitive errors. Underlying the bias are schemas that contain dysfunctional beliefs. When these schemas become activated, they bias how the person processes information. For example, in depression, people tend to make negative interpretations about themselves, their world, and their future. In therapy, clients are made aware of the connection between thinking and emotional response. They are taught to identify their automatic thoughts, the logical errors in thinking they are making, and how to challenge their validity. Clients are encouraged to gather information on their own and test their beliefs as hypotheses. GRADING RUBRIC: 10 points, 5 for theory, 5 for therapy.

16.4-3. Discuss the techniques used in psychodynamic therapy. What is the goal of such therapy and how has it changed over time?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 16.4-3 Page Ref: 578-579 Topic: Psychosocial Approaches to Treatment/Psychodynamic Therapies Skill: Conceptual Answer: The goal of psychodynamic therapy is to reveal the unconscious by using numerous techniques designed to reveal that which one may or may not be aware of.

Classical psychoanalysis is an intensive and long-term process that is rarely practiced today. Psychoanalytically oriented psychotherapies are more common today. These employ many of the same approaches as classical psychoanalysis, but focus more on interpersonal considerations. While the classical psychoanalyst would focus on early ..

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relationships, the more modern psychotherapist would look at how those early relationships impact today's interactions. Some psychodynamic techniques are free association, analysis of dreams, analysis of resistance, and analysis of transference. In free association, the client is asked to say whatever comes to mind - to speak without thinking. When dreams are analyzed, the therapist looks past the dream as remember and interprets the hidden meaning of the dream. All of these techniques are designed to aid the client in developing an awareness of that which lurks in his or her unconscious.

GRADING RUBRIC - 8 points total - 2 points each to name and describe 2 techniques 4 points, explain change in psychoanalysis over time - 2 points, explanation of goal of therapy - 2 points.

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TOTAL ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Chapter 17: Contemporary and Legal Issues in Abnormal Psychology

Topic

Perspectives on Prevention

Inpatient Mental Health Treatment in Contemporary Society (604) Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill (610)

Organized Efforts for Mental Health (619)

Challenges for the Future (622)

Multiple Choice (17.1) Blank (17.2-) Short Answer (17.3-) Essay (17.4-) Multiple Choice (17.1) Blank (17.2-)

Factual

Conceptual

Applied

1, 3, 4, 7, 12, 13, 17, 19, 21, 23, 24, 25, 26 1, 2, 3, 4 1

6, 8, 10, 11, 14, 15, 18, 20, 22

2, 5, 9, 16

27, 29, 31, 33, 34, 36, 37, 38, 39

28, 30, 32

2, 3 1 35

5

4, 6

45, 49, 51, 53, 59, 67, 68

40, 42, 60, 61, 66, 71

Short Answer (17.3-) Essay (17.4-) Multiple Choice (17.1) Blank (17.2-) Short Answer (17.3-) Essay (17.4-) Multiple Choice (17.1) Blank (17.2-) Short Answer (17.3-) Essay (17.4-) Multiple Choice (17.1) Blank (17.2-) Short Answer (17.3-) Essay (17.4-)

41, 43, 44, 46, 47, 48, 50, 52, 54, 55, 56, 57, 58, 62, 63, 64, 65, 69, 70, 72 5, 6 7, 8 73, 74, 75, 76, 79, 80

9 2 77, 78

3 81, 82, 83

Copyright © 2013 by Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved.

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Chapter 17: Contemporary and Legal Issues in Abnormal Psychology Multiple-Choice Questions 17.1-1. The concepts of universal, selective, and indicated interventions were widely used by a. psychodynamic therapists to describe ways of reducing neurotic anxiety. b. city planners to describe ways of eliminating crime and other social problems. c. public health experts to describe ways of preventing disease. d. developmental psychologists to describe problems that occur in early, middle, and later childhood.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-1 Page Ref: 599-600 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention Skill: Factual Answer: c. public health experts to describe ways of preventing disease.

17.1-2. Efforts at reducing racism as a means of preventing mental illness would be a(n) ________ intervention. a. universal b. selective c. indicated d. tertiary Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-2 Page Ref: 600 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention Skill: Applied Answer: b. selective 17.1-3. "Efforts that are aimed at influencing the general population" best describes a. crisis interventions. b. universal interventions. c. selective interventions. d. indicated interventions.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-3 Page Ref: 600 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention Skill: Factual Answer: b. universal interventions.

17.1-4. Universal interventions are concerned with two key tasks: a. identifying people with a particular disorder and referring them for help. b. providing timely therapy and evaluating its usefulness. c. strengthening individuals' psychological coping skills and improving their biological ..

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health. d. altering conditions that cause disorders and establishing conditions that foster positive mental health.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-4 Page Ref: 600 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Universal Interventions Skill: Factual Answer: d. altering conditions that cause disorders and establishing conditions that foster positive mental health.

17.1-5. Which of the following might be a component of a biologically based universal strategy for preventing mental illness? a. Identifying people with a particular disorder and referring them for help b. Determining whether or not there is a family history of mental illness c. Encouraging regular physical activity d. Offering tuberculosis testing Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-5 Page Ref: 600 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Universal Interventions Skill: Applied Answer: c. Encouraging regular physical activity 17.1-6. Which of the following is a requirement for psychosocial health? a. High socioeconomic status b. Having sound moral judgment c. Having a realistic view of one's self d. Being a member of a religious organization Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-6 Page Ref: 601 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Universal Interventions Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Having a realistic view of one's self 17.1-7. Having skills for effective problem solving, possessing an accurate set of assumptions about oneself, and being prepared for problems one is likely to encounter at various life stages are all requirements for a. cultural adjustment. b. psychosocial health. c. biological health. d. being a candidate for deinstitutionalization.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-7 Page Ref: 601 ..

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Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Universal Interventions Skill: Factual Answer: b. psychosocial health.

17.1-8. Which of the following is a sociocultural efforts toward universal prevention of mental disorders? a. Daycare. b. Penal systems. c. Private schools. d. Social security.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-8 Page Ref: 601 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Universal Interventions Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Social security.

17.1-9. Which of the following is a sociocultural effort toward universal prevention? a. Public education b. Teaching adolescents to not use drugs c. Hospitalizing the mentally ill d. Deinstitutionalization of the mentally ill Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-9 Page Ref: 601 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Universal Interventions Skill: Applied Answer: a. Public education 17.1-10. The fact that funding for community mental health centers was cut in the 1980s while money for the "war on drugs" was increased illustrates the a. current shift away from attacking personal risk factors and toward attacking social circumstances. b. tendency for selective and indicated interventions to use different funding sources. c. trend of government to provide fewer selective interventions and more universal ones. d. likelihood that political philosophy will influence efforts at social change.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-10 Page Ref: 601 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Selective Interventions Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. likelihood that political philosophy will influence efforts at social change.

17.1-11. Which of the following is a social force that affects teen drug use? a. Parental drug use. b. Increased potency of street drugs. ..

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c. Variety of available drugs. d. Price of street drugs.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-11 Page Ref: 602 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Selective Interventions Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. increased potency of street drugs.

17.1-12. Efforts to counterbalance the social factors that entice adolescent binge drinking are examples of a. selective interventions. b. crisis interventions. c. indicated interventions. d. social-learning programs.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-12 Page Ref: 601-602 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Selective Interventions Skill: Factual Answer: a. selective interventions.

17.1-13. Although the rate of adolescent substance use has decreased, a. tobacco use has been eliminated. b. binge drinking has not. c. alcohol and tobacco use remains a persistent problem. d. adult use has increased.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-13 Page Ref: 602 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Selective Interventions Skill: Factual Answer: c. alcohol and tobacco use remains a persistent problem.

17.1-14. Why has the attempt to reduce the drug supply from other countries not reduced the rate of adolescent substance abuse? a. Most smugglers are still able to find a way to bring drugs in. b. Local residents account for most of the illegal drug traffic. c. The drugs most abused by adolescents are alcohol and tobacco, which are easily available. d. Drug abusers are traveling to other countries to obtain their supply.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-14 Page Ref: 602 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Selective Interventions Skill: Conceptual ..

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Answer: c. The drugs most abused by adolescents are alcohol and tobacco, which are easily available.

17.1-15. Why is it important to prevent teen alcohol use? a. Teens are more susceptible to alcoholism than adults. b. Most teens who drink go on to do "harder drugs." c. Teens are more prone to violence while drinking than adults. d. Early alcohol use is associated with later alcohol abuse and dependence.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-15 Page Ref: 602 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Selective Interventions Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Early alcohol use is associated with later alcohol abuse and dependence.

17.1-16. What is the goal of school-based drug and alcohol education programs? a. To teach children how to recognize the drugs that they might be exposed to b. To ensure that children are educated consumers c. To teach children about drugs so that they can make informed choices d. To scare children away from using drugs Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-16 Page Ref: 602 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Selective Interventions Skill: Applied Answer: c. To teach children about drugs so that they can make informed choices 17.1-17. Family-oriented alcohol prevention problems have been developed because a. teen views of alcohol typically reflect those of their parents. b. most underage alcohol use occurs at home. c. parents need to help their children resist peer pressure. d. teen drinking frequently starts when problems in the home have become unmanageable.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-17 Page Ref: 603 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Selective Interventions Skill: Factual Answer: a. teen views of alcohol typically reflect those of their parents.

17.1-18. Mrs. Lloyd was shocked when she learned of Julia's drinking. While she knew that Julia drank on occasion, she never expected that her 16-year-old daughter was drinking on a daily basis. What is unique about this scenario? a. Mrs. Lloyd was aware that her daughter drank. b. Most parents overestimate their children's drug and alcohol use. c. While teenaged boys are likely to drink, teenaged girls rarely do. ..

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d. Nothing.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-18 Page Ref: 603 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Selective Interventions Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. Nothing.

17.1-19. When is peer influence most powerful for high-risk teens? a. When peer pressure is negative b. When peer pressure is positive c. When there is a lack of adult supervision d. When a teenager has well-developed social skills Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-19 Page Ref: 603 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Selective Interventions Skill: Factual Answer: c. When there is a lack of adult supervision 17.1-20. Selective intervention programs that teach adolescents social skills and enhance feelings of competency are a. usually ineffective at reducing the impact of substance use. b. considered mass media and modeling programs. c. forms of crisis intervention. d. aimed at increasing self-esteem and reducing the influence of negative peer pressure.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-20 Page Ref: 603 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Selective Interventions Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. aimed at increasing self-esteem and reducing the influence of negative peer pressure.

17.1-21. Combined prevention programs that educate about drugs and teach skills needed to refuse alcohol and drug use demands a. have proven to be better with rural environments than with inner city environments. b. are rarely as successful as family-based programs. c. are most effective when targeted at college students. d. have failed to show any significant impact when evaluated with control groups.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 12.1-21 Page Ref: 604 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Selective Interventions Skill: Factual Answer: a. have proven to be better with rural environments than with inner city environments. ..

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17.1-22. Dr. Jones says, "These projects have clearly shown a promising path toward reducing the extent of substance abuse in young people." What projects is Dr. Jones talking about? a. Ones that combine different intervention strategies b. Ones that involve the interdiction or reduction in supply of drugs c. Ones that contradict the movies and TV commercials that glamorize drugs d. Ones that use teachers to tell students why drugs are bad for their health Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-22 Page Ref: 603 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Selective Interventions Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. Ones that combine different intervention strategies 17.1-23. Project Northland demonstrated that a. a psychotherapist's involvement is the key ingredient in most drug prevention efforts. b. the development of peer pressure resistance skills can decrease drug use by 44 percent. c. there is no way of counteracting the positive representation of drugs in the media. d. community-wide "no use" norms for teens can be taught.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-23 Page Ref: 603 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Selective Interventions Skill: Factual Answer: d. community-wide "no use" norms for teens can be taught.

17.1-24. While there is little research on the different substance abuse prevention programs, what there is on programs such as D.A.R.E. suggests a. they are extremely successful. b. they are mostly ineffective. c. they are effective for children and adolescents who have not already started using. d. they are effective for non-minority children and adolescents only.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-24 Page Ref: 602 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Selective Interventions Skill: Factual Answer: b. they are mostly ineffective.

17.1-25. In order to prevent long-term consequences, ________ interventions are provided immediately after a disaster such as a plane crash. a. universal b. indicated c. education d. selective Difficulty: 1 ..

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Question ID: 17.1-25 Page Ref: 604 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Indicated Interventions Skill: Factual Answer: b. indicated 17.1-26. Indicated prevention emphasizes a. education efforts to an entire population regardless of the individual's social situation. b. the early detection and prompt treatment of maladaptive behavior in a person's community setting. c. teaching social skills and problem solving as a way of improving self-esteem. d. genetic screening.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-26 Page Ref: 604 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Indicated Interventions Skill: Factual Answer: b. the early detection and prompt treatment of maladaptive behavior in a person's community setting.

17.1-27. Which of the following is an element of "milieu therapy"? a. Systematic desensitization. b. Patients are encouraged to participate in making decisions. c. Teaching social skills and problem solving. d. Challenging irrational thoughts.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-27 Page Ref: 604 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/The Mental Hospital as a TC Skill: Factual Answer: b. Patients are encouraged to participate in making decisions.

17.1-28. Which of the following is a characteristic of a therapeutic community? a. Individual responsibility b. Minimal interaction amongst the patients c. Extensive use of medications d. Many restrictions Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-28 Page Ref: 604 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/The Mental Hospital as a TC Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. Individual responsibility 17.1-29. In a study by Paul and Lentz designed to assess the effectiveness of different approaches to the treatment of chronically hospitalized patients, what treatment approach ..

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was found to yield the best results? a. Milieu therapy b. Social learning c. Traditional mental hospital treatments d. Psychotherapy alone Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-29 Page Ref: 605 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/The Mental Hospital as a TC Skill: Factual Answer: b. Social learning 17.1-30. At Rush General, the inpatient mental ward employs a program that focuses on modifying the behavior of the patients by giving them gold stars for good behavior and ignoring undesirable behavior. What type of treatment program does this appear to be? a. Milieu therapy b. Social learning c. Traditional mental hospital treatments d. Psychotherapy alone Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-30 Page Ref: 605 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/The Mental Hospital as a TC Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Social learning 17.1-31. Which of the following is a criticism of the use of token economies? a. They are ineffective. b. They are inconsistent with how the real world works. c. The patient is not an active part of the treatment process. d. It is inhumane to expect a mental patient to behave in accordance with an established schedule of reinforcements.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-31 Page Ref: 605 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/The Mental Hospital as a TC Skill: Factual Answer: d. It is inhumane to expect a mental patient to behave in accordance with an established schedule of reinforcements.

17.1-32. A major difference between social-learning programs and milieu therapy is that social-learning programs a. are never provided in mental hospitals. b. require each patient to be involved in groups that "govern" the ward. c. expect patients to care for one another. d. target specific behaviors for reinforcement. ..

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Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 17.1-32 Page Ref: 605 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/The Mental Hospital as a TC Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. target specific behaviors for reinforcement.

17.1-33. Community-based treatment programs are now referred to as a. crisis intervention. b. deinstitutionalization. c. aftercare programs. d. managed care initiatives.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-33 Page Ref: 605 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/The Mental Hospital as a TC Skill: Factual Answer: c. aftercare programs.

17.1-34. Community-based facilities that provide aftercare are typically run by a. the residents themselves. b. mental health professionals. c. trained paraprofessionals. d. community activists.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-34 Page Ref: 606 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/The Mental Hospital as a TC Skill: Factual Answer: a. the residents themselves.

17.1-35. For which person is aftercare likely to be helpful because the person will fit the services typically offered? a. Bart, who has a lengthy criminal record b. Helen, who has developed posttraumatic stress disorder after being attacked c. Ned, who has had several schizophrenic episodes d. Vera, who has few psychological problems but who frequently moves from place to place Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-35 Page Ref: 606 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/The Mental Hospital as a TC Skill: Applied Answer: c. Ned, who has had several schizophrenic episodes 17.1-36. In order for community-based aftercare for psychiatric patients to be successful ..

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a. there must be a crisis intervention component. b. milieu methods must be used rather than social-learning methods. c. the facilities must be run by mental health professionals. d. the community must be educated so it will be tolerant of troubled people.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-36 Page Ref: 606 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/The Mental Hospital as a TC Skill: Factual Answer: d. the community must be educated so it will be tolerant of troubled people.

17.1-37. Which of the following is a barrier to effective deinstitutionalization? a. Society's desire to free previously confined persons b. The use of antipsychotic medications c. The lack of sufficient mental health services in the community d. Deinstitutionalized patients do not fair better than those who remain hospitalized Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-37 Page Ref: 607 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Deinstitutionalization Skill: Factual Answer: c. The lack of sufficient mental health services in the community 17.1-38. Which of the following was an unforeseen consequence of deinstitutionalization? a. An increased demand on the welfare system b. Abuses of antipsychotic and anxiolytic medications c. The need for mental health services in the community d. A rise in homelessness Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-38 Page Ref: 607 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Deinstitutionalization Skill: Factual Answer: d. A rise in homelessness 17.1-39. The most recent research on deinstitutionalization has found a. inpatient hospitalization has been increasing due to the failures to provide adequate care in the community. b. inpatient hospitalization has continued to decrease, despite an increase in problems as a result. c. inpatient hospitalization has continued to decrease and communities have stepped up their response to improve outpatient care. d. inpatient hospitalization has been increasing due to increasing numbers of mentally ill.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-39 Page Ref: 607 ..

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Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Deinstitutionalization Skill: Factual Answer: a. inpatient hospitalization has been increasing due to the failures to provide adequate care in the community.

17.1-40. Dr. McDougal's specialty is forensic psychology. We can imagine that she a. provides preventive services to prevent criminal behavior. b. is concerned with the legal status of the mentally ill. c. does research on the impact of deinstitutionalization. d. works for a managed care organization.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-40 Page Ref: 610 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill Skill: Applied Answer: b. is concerned with the legal status of the mentally ill.

17.1-41. One difference between voluntary hospitalization and involuntary commitment is that people who are in the hospital voluntarily a. need to be assessed as dangerous to themselves or others. b. can, with sufficient notice, leave the hospital when they want to. c. are eligible for aftercare services following. d. must be treated in the least restrictive environment.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-41 Page Ref: 610 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and The Mentally Ill/Civil Commitment Skill: Factual Answer: b. can, with sufficient notice, leave the hospital when they want to.

17.1-42. Which of the following can be committed against their will to a psychiatric hospital? a. Carole, who has schizophrenia and will not take her medications because they make her feel ill. b. Tina, who has schizophrenia and is homeless. c. Kathie, who has schizophrenia and has been threatening to hurt people on the street. d. Any of these three, schizophrenia is a serious enough disorder for the person to be forced into the hospital.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-42 Page Ref: 611 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and The Mentally Ill/Civil Commitment Skill: Applied Answer: c. Kathie, who has schizophrenia and has been threatening to hurt people on the street.

17.1-43. Once a person is committed to a mental hospital ..

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a. he or she must establish their sanity before they can be released. b. he or she must participate in whatever treatment they are prescribed. c. the hospital must report to the court as to whether or not continued confinement is necessary. d. the court establishes the minimum treatment necessary as indicated by testimony from two examiners.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-43 Page Ref: 611 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues & The Mentally Ill/Civil Commitment Skill: Factual Answer: c. the hospital must report to the court as to whether continued confinement is necessary.

17.1-44. Emergency hospitalization without a commitment hearing is permitted when a. a judge declares that imminent danger exists. b. the person to be hospitalized has a criminal history. c. the person to be hospitalized is found to be insane. d. a physician signs a formal statement saying that imminent danger exists.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-44 Page Ref: 611 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and The Mentally Ill/Civil Commitment Skill: Factual Answer: d. a physician signs a formal statement saying that imminent danger exists.

17.1-45. Suppose a family is quite alarmed about the threatening behavior of a relative.

They want to petition the court for commitment but there is no time to get a court order.

What option does the family have? a. None. They must wait until there is a court evaluation of the person's dangerousness. b. They can ask the police to declare the person "insane." c. After getting a physician to state that the person is dangerous, they can have the police pick up and detain the person for up to 72 hours. d. After getting a police officer to examine the person, they can require the person's attendance in a crisis intervention program.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-45 Page Ref: 611 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/Civil Commitment Skill: Applied Answer: c. After getting a physician to state that the person is dangerous, they can have the police pick up and detain the person for up to 72 hours.

17.1-46. Once a person has been involuntarily committed to a mental institution, he or she a. may refuse treatment. b. may refuse medication but not therapy. ..

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c. may refuse therapy but not medication. d. may not refuse treatment.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-46 Page Ref: 611 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Disordered/Civil Commitment Skill: Factual Answer: a. may refuse treatment.

17.1-47. Although the majority of currently disordered persons shows no tendency toward violence, an increased risk of violence is likely among those who a. currently experience psychotic symptoms. b. have been extremely emotionally rigid in the past. c. have just experienced a natural or man-made form of disaster. d. are religiously preoccupied.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-47 Page Ref: 611 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/Assessment of "Dangerousness" Skill: Factual Answer: a. currently experience psychotic symptoms.

17.1-48. Homicidal behavior amongst former patients is greatest with a diagnosis of a. alcoholism. b. bipolar depression. c. major depression. d. schizophrenia.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-48 Page Ref: 611 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/Assessment of "Dangerousness" Skill: Factual Answer: a. alcoholism.

17.1-49. Which phrase best captures how well mental health professionals do in predicting the occurrence of dangerous acts? a. Exceedingly well, especially if the person has a diagnosed mental condition b. Rather well, as long as the patient provides honest information c. Miserably poorly, especially with people who are actively schizophrenic or delusional d. Not as well as we would like Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-49 Page Ref: 613 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/Assessment of "Dangerousness" Skill: Conceptual ..

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Answer: d. Not as well as we would like 17.1-50. What kind of mistake do most mental health professionals make when assessing dangerousness? a. They overemphasize the importance of situational factors. b. They overpredict violence. c. They underestimate the likelihood of violence in psychotic patients. d. They make many "false negatives."

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-50 Page Ref: 613 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/Assessment of "Dangerousness" Skill: Factual Answer: b. They overpredict violence.

17.1-51. One of the main reasons it is so hard to predict future dangerousness is a. there are no psychological tests to help measure dangerousness. b. most potentially violent people refuse to talk to therapists. c. there is very little research into who becomes violent and who doesn't, and why. d. situational circumstances play as large a role as an individual's personality traits.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-51 Page Ref: 613 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/Assessment of "Dangerousness" Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. situational circumstances play as large a role as an individual's personality traits.

17.1-52. What is one of the best predictors of future violence? a. Compliance with treatment b. Past history of violence c. Family support d. Employment history Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-52 Page Ref: 613 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/Assessment of "Dangerousness" Skill: Factual Answer: b. Past history of violence 17.1-53. Predicting dangerousness is most comparable to a. preparing a team for a sports competition. b. reviewing for a comprehensive examination. c. figuring your taxes at the end of the year. d. preparing a weather forecast.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-53 ..

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Page Ref: 613 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/Assessment of "Dangerousness" Skill: Conceptual Answer: d. preparing a weather forecast.

17.1-54. Under what circumstances can a therapist violate a client's confidence? a. When someone is in danger b. When a crime has been committed c. Only when the client gives permission d. Never Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-54 Page Ref: 613 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/Assessment of "Dangerousness" Skill: Factual Answer: a. When someone is in danger 17.1-55. What doctrine came out of the original Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California et al. case? a. Treatment in the least restrictive environment b. The duty to warn c. The right-versus-wrong principle in insanity cases d. The duty to protect Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-55 Page Ref: 613 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/Assessment of "Dangerousness" Skill: Factual Answer: b. The duty to warn 17.1-56. In most states that have a Tarasoff-type rule, when a client threatens someone, a therapist must a. make a reasonable effort to warn potential victims. b. continue trying to warn potential victims until he or she reaches them. c. not break confidentiality. d. warn as many people who know the client as possible.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-56 Page Ref: 614 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/Assessment of "Dangerousness" Skill: Factual Answer: a. make a reasonable effort to warn potential victims.

17.1-57. The Tarasoff rule usually applies a. anytime a client threatens to do a violent act. b. only to violent acts against people. ..

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c. only if the target of violence is clearly identifiable. d. only if the client has given an informed consent.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-57 Page Ref: 614 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/Assessment of "Dangerousness" Skill: Factual Answer: c. only if the target of violence is clearly identifiable.

17.1-58. Tarasoff-style laws a. are in every state. b. are in a minority of states. c. are in a majority of states but vary quite a bit. d. are no longer law in most states.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-58 Page Ref: 614 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/Assessment of "Dangerousness" Skill: Factual Answer: c. are in a majority of states but vary quite a bit.

17.1-59. The underlying basis of the insanity defense is a. people who have a mental illness should not be punished. b. people who have a mental illness cannot ever form the intent needed to commit a crime, so shouldn't be punished. c. some people who have a mental illness are not able to fully comprehend their behavior, so are not able to form the needed intent for a crime, so should not be punished. d. even if they had the required intent for a crime, the mentally ill still shouldn't be punished.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-59 Page Ref: 614 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/The Insanity Defense Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. some people who have a mental illness are not able to fully comprehend their behavior, so are not able to form the needed intent for a crime, so should not be punished.

17.1-60. What was unusual about the Hinckley case? a. He used the insanity defense. b. The public believed that he did not need to pay for his crime. c. He was successful in pleading the insanity defense. d. His petitions for release have been consistently denied.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-60 Page Ref: 615 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/The Insanity Defense ..

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Skill: Applied Answer: c. He was successful in pleading the insanity defense.

17.1-61. An attorney says, "My client has a mental disorder that made it impossible, at the time of the crime, to have intended to do harm. Because of this, he is not legally responsible for his actions." The attorney is arguing for a. involuntary commitment. b. the Tarasoff principle. c. deinstitutionalization of his client. d. an insanity defense.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-61 Page Ref: 615 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/The Insanity Defense Skill: Applied Answer: d. an insanity defense.

17.1-62. Why should defense lawyers be cautious about using the insanity defense? a. It rarely works. b. Most defendants feign mental illness in order to escape punishment. c. Hospitalization is not an appropriate consequence for those who have committed violent crimes. d. No reason - it frequently is successful.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-62 Page Ref: 615 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/The Insanity Defense Skill: Factual Answer: a. It rarely works.

17.1-63. A typical defense strategy, to try to counteract public anger about the insanity defense, is to a. portray the defendant as someone who was him- or herself a victim. b. portray the defendant as suffering terribly from their mental illness. c. portray the defendant as tremendously likeable. d. portray the victim as negatively as possible.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-63 Page Ref: 616 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/The Insanity Defense Skill: Factual Answer: a. portray the defendant as someone who was him- or herself a victim.

17.1-64. The insanity defense is employed in ________ percent of capital cases in the United States. a. less than 2 ..

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b. roughly 10-15 c. 20 d. 33 Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-64 Page Ref: 617 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/The Insanity Defense Skill: Factual Answer: a. less than 2 17.1-65. According to the M'Naghten Rule, insanity is defined as a. failing to understand the consequences of one's actions. b. not knowing right from wrong. c. acting on an irresistible impulse. d. lacking the capacity to understand that an action violates the law.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-65 Page Ref: 617 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/The Insanity Defense Skill: Factual Answer: b. not knowing right from wrong.

17.1-66. Darryl has schizophrenia, disorganized type. He has visual hallucinations, and one day he saw a giant bug standing in from of him. He picked up a large knife and stabbed it.

In reality, Darryl stabbed his mother who had come to tell him dinner was ready. His lawyer argues that Darryl cannot be found guilty because he had no idea what he was doing or that it was wrong. His lawyer is arguing the a. M'Naghten rule. b. Durham rule. c. irresistible impulse rule. d. American Law Institute standard.

Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 17.1-66 Page Ref: 617 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues & The Mentally Ill/The Insanity Defense Skill: Applied Answer: a. M'Naghten rule.

17.1-67. Knowing right from wrong is to ________ as "unlawful act was the product of mental disease" is to ________. a. irresistible impulse; Durham Rule b. M'Naghten Rule; Durham Rule c. Durham Rule; M'Naghten Rule d. M'Naghten Rule; irresistible impulse Difficulty: 3 Question ID: 17.1-67 ..

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Page Ref: 617 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/The Insanity Defense Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. M'Naghten Rule; Durham Rule 17.1-68. The Durham Rule a. made the criteria for establishing insanity more objective. b. focused on the cause of an unlawful act. c. established that one was sane unless they did not know right from wrong. d. is often referred to as the "substantial capacity test."

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-68 Page Ref: 617 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/The Insanity Defense Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. focused on the cause of an unlawful act.

17.1-69. The broadest of the insanity rules is the a. M'Naughten Rule. b. irresistible impulse rule. c. Durham Rule. d. Federal Insanity Defense Reform Act. Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-69 Page Ref: 617 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/The Insanity Defense Skill: Factual Answer: c. Durham Rule.

17.1-70. Which of the following changed with the Federal Insanity Defense Reform Act of 1984? a. It became much easier for defendants to quality for the insanity defense. b. It narrowed the definition of insanity to the "product test" (Durham Rule). c. It abolished the "knowing right from wrong" principle. d. It put the burden of proof on the defense.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-70 Page Ref: 617 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/The Insanity Defense Skill: Factual Answer: d. It put the burden of proof on the defense.

17.1-71. Which of the following has the best chance of successfully pleading not guilty by reason of insanity? a. Tim, who is depressed, has never been hospitalized and murdered his wife. b. Ernie, who has schizophrenia, was in the hospital once a long time ago and murdered ..

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three former co-workers. c. Lori, who has bipolar disorder, has never been hospitalized and tried to murder a stranger. d. Susie, who has schizophrenia, has been in and out of hospitals all her life, who tried to break the arm of a romantic rival.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-71 Page Ref: 618 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/The Insanity Defense Skill: Applied Answer: d. Susie, who has schizophrenia, has been in and out of hospitals all her life, who tried to break the arm of a romantic rival.

17.1-72. The verdict of Guilty but Mentally Ill a. means people with mental illness that are found guilty of a crime are put in jail but in a special section. b. means people with mental illness that are found guilty of a crime get shorter sentences. c. means people with mental illness that are found guilty of a crime go to jail but get mental health treatment while in jail. d. means people with mental illness that are found guilty of a crime go to the hospital until they are better, then return to jail to serve out their sentence.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.1-72 Page Ref: 618 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Disordered/The Insanity Defense Skill: Factual Answer: d. means people with mental illness that are found guilty of a crime go to the hospital until they are better, then return to jail to serve out their sentence.

17.1-73. Why did World War II lead to a greater recognition of the pervasiveness of mental illness? a. Over 70 percent of veterans suffered from either PTSD or substance abuse after the war. b. Many women developed psychiatric conditions when left to raise families and make a living on their own. c. Two out of seven potential military recruits were rejected for psychiatric reasons. d. The military was unable to provide adequate mental health services to men in the field.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-73 Page Ref: 619 Topic: Organized Efforts for Mental Health/U.S. Efforts Skill: Factual Answer: c. Two out of seven potential military recruits were rejected for psychiatric reasons.

17.1-74. Which of the following funds research on mental disorders and assists ..

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communities in establishing effective mental health services? a. The National Association for Mental Health (NAMH) b. The American Psychological Association (APA) c. Health maintenance organization (HMO) d. The National Institute on Mental Health (NIMH) Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-74 Page Ref: 619 Topic: Organized Efforts for Mental Health/U.S. Efforts Skill: Factual Answer: d. the National Institute on Mental Health (NIMH) 17.1-75. Which of the following activities does NIMH perform? a. Provide communities with psychologists and psychiatrists who do individual and group therapy b. Do nationwide universal and selective preventive interventions c. Pay for the hospital care of the chronically mentally ill d. Support professional training and provide the public with information on mental health Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-75 Page Ref: 619 Topic: Organized Efforts for Mental Health/U.S. Efforts Skill: Factual Answer: d. Support professional training and provide the public with information on mental health 17.1-76. Most of NIMH's programs are a. actually planned and run by state and local organizations. b. actually focused on the prevention of crime rather than mental disorder. c. designed, controlled, and implemented by the federal government. d. much larger and better funded than they were in the 1960s and 1970s.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-76 Page Ref: 619 Topic: Organized Efforts for Mental Health/U.S. Efforts Skill: Factual Answer: a. actually planned and run by state and local organizations.

17.1-77. What is an important function of organizations such as the American Psychological Association, the American Psychological Society, and the American Medical Association? a. They fund most of the treatment and prevention research done in the United States. b. They draw up the policies that determine which clients get treatment and of what duration. c. They set and maintain professional and ethical standards. d. They control forensic issues such as the insanity defense and the policies for ..

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committing patients against their will.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-77 Page Ref: 620 Topic: Organized Efforts for Mental Health/U.S. Efforts Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. They set and maintain professional and ethical standards.

17.1-78. What do the National Association for Mental Health, the National Association for Retarded Citizens, and the National Alliance for the Mentally Ill (NAMI) have in common? a. They all provide training for psychologists and psychiatrists. b. They are all government-funded organizations that do research on mental disorders and related problems. c. They all try to improve services and educate the government and public about various problems. d. They are all working to increase the awareness of work-related stress and its impact on mental health.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-78 Page Ref: 620 Topic: Organized Efforts for Mental Health/U.S. Efforts Skill: Factual Answer: c. They all try to improve services and educate the government and public about various problems.

17.1-79. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the use of mental health resources in private industry? a. Private industry typically does not acknowledge the importance of mental healthpromoting factors in the work place and therefore dramatically underutilizes mental health resources. b. Primary prevention programs have been routinely used in private industry for many decades. c. Many companies have recently begun providing psychological services through employee assistance programs. d. Psychological services are provided on an extremely limited basis, even at the most elite private corporations.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-79 Page Ref: 620 Topic: Organized Efforts for Mental Health/U.S. Efforts Skill: Factual Answer: c. Many companies have recently begun providing psychological services through employee assistance programs.

17.1-80. In understanding and treating mental disorders, the World Health Organization at the present time has ..

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a. almost completely ignored the impact of physical disease on mental health. b. almost completely ignored ethnic and cultural differences. c. focused exclusively on physical diseases, not on mental health. d. been very much aware of the interrelationship between physical, psychosocial, and sociocultural factors.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-80 Page Ref: 621 Topic: Organized Efforts for Mental Health/International Efforts Skill: Factual Answer: d. been very much aware of the interrelationship between physical, psychosocial, and sociocultural factors.

17.1-81. The history of abnormal psychology makes it clear that a. the field can be profoundly changed and improved through individual effort. b. international efforts in dealing with mental disorders are doomed to failure because there is no agreement on the definition of "disorder." c. more domestic and fewer international efforts are needed. d. we are no further today in understanding mental disorders than we were in the time of Pinel, Dix, and Beers.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-81 Page Ref: 622 Topic: Challenges for the Future/The Individual's Contribution Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. the field can be profoundly changed and improved through individual effort.

17.1-82. What impact have HMOs had on mental health care? a. The cost of mental health services has risen. b. Greater emphasis has been placed on finding treatment approaches that are time and cost efficient. c. The reliance on medical therapies has decreased. d. Mental health treatment is more readily available.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-82 Page Ref: 623 Topic: Unresolved Issues/The HMOs and Mental Health Care Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. Greater emphasis has been placed on finding treatment approaches that are time and cost efficient.

17.1-83. What treatment approach is most likely to be employed by an HMO to treat an anxiety disorder? a. Aversion therapy b. Flooding ..

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c. Pharmacotherapy d. Systematic desensitization Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.1-83 Page Ref: 623 Topic: Unresolved Issues/The HMOs and Mental Health Care Skill: Conceptual Answer: c. Pharmacotherapy Fill-in-the-Blank Questions 17.2-1. Efforts that are aimed at influencing the general population are known as __________ interventions.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.2-1 Page Ref: 599 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention Skill: Factual Answer: universal 17.2-2. Efforts that are aimed at a specific at risk subgroup are known as __________ interventions.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.2-2 Page Ref: 600 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention Skill: Factual Answer: selective 17.2-3. Efforts that are directed toward high-risk individuals with detectable symptoms are called __________ interventions.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.2-3 Page Ref: 600 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention Skill: Factual Answer: indicated 17.2-4. The movement to close down mental hospitals and treat the mentally ill in the community is __________ .

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.2-4 Page Ref: 605 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Deinstitutionalization Skill: Factual Answer: deinstitutionalization ..

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17.2-5. The ruling that came to be known as "duty to warn" was also called the __________ decision.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.2-5 Page Ref: 613-614 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Disordered/Assessment of "Dangerousness" Skill: Factual Answer: Tarasoff 17.2-6. The American Law Institute (ALI) standard is also called the __________ test.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.2-6 Page Ref: 617 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Disordered/The Insanity Defense Skill: Factual Answer: substantial capacity Short Answer Questions 17.3-1. Name and briefly describe the three subcategories of preventive interventions.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.3-1 Page Ref: 599-600 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention Skill: Factual Answer: Universal: efforts aimed at influencing the general population. Selective: efforts aimed at specific subgroups that are considered to be at risk for developing mental health problems.

Indicated: efforts directed at high-risk individuals identified as having minimal symptoms of a mental disorder but who do not meet criteria for clinical diagnosis.

17.3-2. Discuss the three requirements for psychosocial health.

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.3-2 Page Ref: 601 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Universal Interventions Skill: Applied Answer: Developing the skills needed for problem solving and relating to others, accurate frame of reference on which to build an identity and preparation for types of problems one is likely to encounter.

17.3-3. What are the three strategies that the United States government has used to address the drug abuse problem? How effective have these strategies been?

Difficulty: 1 ..

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Question ID: 17.3-3 Page Ref: 602 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Selective Interventions Skill: Applied Answer: Reducing the supply of drugs, providing treatment for those with substance abuse or dependence, and encouraging prevention are all approaches taken to combatting the "drug problem". All have been found to be insufficient.

17.3-4. What principles guide the approach called milieu therapy?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.3-4 Page Ref: 604 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/The Mental Hospital as a TC Skill: Applied Answer: Staff in psychiatric hospitals communicate both negative and positive feedback to patients to encourage appropriate actions. Patients are encouraged to participate in decisions concerning them. There is self-government. Group cohesiveness is encouraged so that patients feel supported and so group pressure exerts control over patient behavior.

17.3-5. What are aftercare programs? Who is least likely to benefit from such programs?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.3-5 Page Ref: 605-606 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/The Mental Hospital as a TC Skill: Conceptual Answer: Aftercare programs are programs designed to facilitate adjustment back into the community following hospitalization. These are community-based live-in programs, typically, that help ease the former patient back into society. Those who have a criminal history or who tend to be transient tend to not do well in aftercare programs. Interestingly, those who have less severe symptoms may also not do well as facility staff do not recognize that they need assistance as much as those with more severe symptoms.

17.3-6. What have been some of the negative effects of deinstitutionalization?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.3-6 Page Ref: 607-608 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Deinstitutionalization Skill: Applied Answer: Despite the well-meaning intentions of the movement to release the mentally ill from inpatient facilities, this has lead to many negative consequences. Many went from institutions to the streets, with little or no care. The community-based services that were to be available to this population were not there at all, or were insufficient. Many of the mentally ill do not receive that care that they desperately need.

17.3-7. What are the conditions, in addition to mental illness, that must be met in most states for someone to be involuntarily committed? ..

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Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.3-7 Page Ref: 607-608 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Disordered/Civil Commitment Skill: Factual Answer: Dangerous to self or others, incapable of providing for basic needs, unable to make responsible treatment decisions about hospitalization, and in need of treatment in a hospital.

17.3-8. What factors increase the risk of violence in someone with mental illness?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.3-8 Page Ref: 611-612 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Disordered/Assessment of "Dangerousness" Skill: Factual Answer: A history of violent behavior, psychotic symptoms, antisocial personality disorder, alcoholism, and situational factors.

17.3-9. What is the importance of the Tarasoff case?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.3-9 Page Ref: 614 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Disordered/Assessment of "Dangerousness" Skill: Conceptual Answer: This ruling established the legal obligation for a mental health professional to violate confidentiality in order to warn someone that a client has threatened to harm them. In Tarasoff II, the duty to warn was changed to the duty to protect a prospective victim. The duty to protect may be discharged if the therapist makes "reasonable efforts" to inform potential victims and an appropriate law enforcement agency of the pending threat. However, numerous other lawsuits in other jurisdictions have been adjudicated in confusing and inconsistent ways.

Essay Questions 17.4-1. What are the key tasks involved in universal interventions? Why is epidemiological research particularly important to these efforts?

Difficulty: 1 Question ID: 17.4-1 Page Ref: 600-601 Topic: Perspectives on Prevention/Universal Interventions Skill: Applied Answer: Universal interventions focus on altering conditions that can cause or contribute to mental disorders (risk factors) and establishing conditions that foster positive mental health (protective factors). Epidemiological research supplies data on the incidence and prevalence of various disorders and the populations that are most affected. Equipped with this information, ..

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those who design universal interventions know where to look and what to look for. GRADING RUBRIC - 8 points, 2 for each of two key tasks, 4 for explaining the importance of epidemiological data.

17.4-2. Discuss three principles that are commonly used to define insanity. How is insanity most commonly defined today?

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.4-2 Page Ref: 617-618 Topic: Controversial Legal Issues and the Mentally Ill/The Insanity Defense Skill: Conceptual Answer: The M'Naghten Rule emphasizes not knowing right from wrong at the time of the crime, while the irresistible impulse rule that holds that the person is not responsible if he or she could not avoid doing the act in question. The Durham rule or "product test" says the accused is not criminally responsible if the unlawful act was the product of a mental disease or defect. Thus, we see a movement from not knowing right from wrong, an emphasis on thought processes, to establishing is some illness was the cause of the behavior. Over time, the insanity defense has become more difficult to use, as a consequence of a number of controversial cases. Today the burden of proof is on the defense; the defense must establish that the defendant is insane, as opposed to the prosecution establishing sanity. Most states today employ the M'Naghten or the American Law Institute (ALI) Standard. The ALI standard requires a combination of M'Naghten and irresistible impulse - the individual must not know right from wrong and be moved by an irresistible impulse. GRADING RUBRIC - 2 points each for each of 3 principles, 4 points for status of insanity today - 10 total.

17.4-3. Discuss three of the six specific mental health risk factors in work situations.

Difficulty: 2 Question ID: 17.4-3 Page Ref: 621 Topic: Organized Efforts for Mental Health/U.S. Efforts Skill: Factual Answer: 1. work load and pace - the degree of control the worker has over this is what is important - the less control, the higher the risk. 2. work schedule - rotating shifts have the highest risk. 3. role stressors - role ambiguity and role conflict have the highest risk. 4. career security factors - concerns about job future and job development raise risk. 5. interpersonal relationships if relationships with co-workers and bosses are bad, risk is higher. 6. job content - if there is little room for creativity or little sense of making a contribution, risk is increased. GRADING RUBRIC: 9 points, 3 for each factor.

..

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Chapter 1

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY: AN OVERVIEW

Agree or disagree?

To avoid misconception and error, research and research methodology should focus on the distinction between what is observable and what is hypothetical or inferred.

A. I agree with this statement B. I disagree with this statement

________ is concerned with understanding the nature, causes, and treatment of mental disorders.

A. Abnormal psychology B. Social psychology C. Cognitive psychology D. Behavioral psychology

True or False?

No single indicator is sufficient in and of itself to define or determine abnormality.

A. True B. False

If something is statistically rare and undesirable, people are more likely to consider it ________ than something that is statistically rare and ________.

A. temporary; permanent B. permanent; temporary C. abnormal; highly desirable D. highly desirable; abnormal

In the United States, the accepted standard for defining various types of mental disorders is the American Psychiatric Association’s ________.

A. Manual of Adolescent and Psychology B. Manual for Empirically Validated Treatment C. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders D. Clinical Handbook of Psychological Disorders

________ is the study of the distribution of diseases, disorders, or health-related behaviors in a given population and ________ refers to the number of active cases in a population during any given period of time.

A. Epidemiology; prevalence B. Prevalence; variance C. Variance; prevalence D. Prevalence; epidemiology

________ are automatic beliefs concerning other people that are based on minimal and often trivial information (e.g., all college professors are old and stodgy; all college students are binge drinkers).

A. Convictions B. Values C. Social assumptions D. Stereotypes

True or False?

When people understand that mental illness is caused by problems in the brain, they are less prejudiced toward those with mental illness.

A. True B. False

Ava drinks excessively and is simultaneously depressed and suffering from several phobias.

The presence of multiple disorders illustrates ________.

A. comorbidity B. emotional distress C. bipolar disorder D. confluence

Barry is completing a case study on a new client. He is wise to consider his findings carefully because information from such work is subject to ________ and ________.

A. bias; low generalizability B. bias; high generalizability C. impartiality; low generalizability D. impartiality; high generlaizability

________ in a research or clinical setting refers to careful scrutiny of the conduct and manner of specific individuals.

A. Observation B. Reliability C. Transference D. Introspection

The research technology that generates a magnetic field on the surface of the head through which underlying brain tissue is stimulated is referred to as ________.

A. positron emission tomography (PET) B. computed tomography (CT) C. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) D. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

To explain, predict, and make sense of behavior, researchers generate ________.

A. preliminary case studies B. clinical observations C. antitheses D. hypotheses

Study groups of people who are easily accessible to researchers and who are readily available are known as ________.

A. samples of designation B. samples of convenience C. samples of conveyance D. samples of conjecture

________ research takes things as they are and determines associations among observed phenomena.

A. Experimental B. Survey C. Correlational D. Quasi-experimental

Edwin is a researcher in abnormal psychology.

To produce ________ results, his research must be conducted on individuals who are representative of the diagnostic group to which they purportedly belong.

A. useable B. valid C. interesting D. publishable

Correlations based on _________ samples can be very small and yet still reach statistical significance. Conversely, correlations drawn from small samples need to be ________ to reach statistical significance.

A. very large; very large B. very small; very small C. very large; very small D. very small; very large

Experimental research involves manipulating the ________ variable and observing the effect this manipulation produces with regard to the ________ variable.

A. dependent; independent B. independent; dependent C. dependent; random D. random; dependent

Within a __________, each separate study can be thought of as being equivalent to an individual participant in a conventional research design.

A. micro-analysis B. experimental analysis C. meta-analysis D. correlational analysis

True or false?

Correlation equals causation.

A. True B. False

Dr. Hamilton wants to collect information about how her patients behaved early in their lives with the goal of identifying factors that might have been associated with what went wrong later. To do this she will use a ________.

A. introspective research strategy B. prospective research strategy C. retrospective research strategy D. patient-guided research strategy

Although most experiments involve the study of groups, ________ may also be used to make causal inferences in individual instances.

A. single case experimental designs B. single case correlational designs C. multiple case experimental designs D. multiple case correlational designs

The goal of a ________ identies individuals who have a higher-than-average likelihood of becoming psychologically disordered and to focus research attention on them before any disorder manifests.

A. introspective research strategy B. prospective research strategy C. retrospective research strategy D. patient-guided research strategy

________ provide an approximation to the human disorders of interest.

A. Experimental studies B. Case studies C. Analogue studies D. Correlational studies

A ________ variable is observed to change as the manipulated factor is changed, then that ________ variable can be regarded as a cause of the outcome.

A. dependent; independent B. independent; dependent C. intervening; static D. static; intervening

Chapter 2

HISTORICAL AND CONTEMPORARY VIEWS OF ABNORMAL BEHAVIOR

Agree or disagree?

Studying the historical views of abnormal psychology will help me better understand the field today.

A. I agree with this statement B. I disagree with this statement

The early Greek doctor and philosopher who denied that deities and demons intervened in the development of illnesses and instead insisted that mental disorders, like other diseases, had natural causes and appropriate treatments was known as ________.

A. Hippocrates B. Plato C. Socrates D. Aristotle

________ viewed psychological phenomena as responses of the whole organism, reflecting its internal state and natural appetites.

A. Hippocrates B. Plato C. Socrates D. Aristotle

________ took a scientific approach to the field, dividing the causes of psychological disorders into physical and mental categories. Among the causes he named were injuries to the head, excessive use of alcohol, shock, and fear.

A. Galen B. Plato C. Socrates D. Aristotle

In some isolated rural areas, people believed themselves to be possessed by wolves and imitated their behavior. This behavior is known as ________.

A. lycanthropy B. urbanity C. dementia D. anxiety

During the latter part of the Middle Ages and the early Renaissance, scientific questioning reemerged and a movement emphasizing the importance of specifically human interests and concerns is known today as ________.

A. behaviorism B. empiricism C. humanism D. fundamentalism

________ was one of the first physicians to specialize in mental disorders. His wide experience and progressive views justify his reputation as the founder of modern psychopathology.

A. Skinner B. Clark C. Freud D. Weyer

Pinel was placed in charge of an asylum in Paris. In this capacity, he received the permission of the Revolutionary Commune to remove the chains from some of the inmates as an experiment to test his views ________.

A. that mental patients should be forced to work in every day jobs B. that mental patients should be taught to read and write C. that mental patients should be treated with drugs a D. that mental patients should be treated with consideration as sick people

The founder of American psychiatry who wrote the first systematic treatise on psychiatry in American and was one of the signers of the Declaration of Independence was ________.

A. Benjamin Rush B. Thomas Jefferson C. Benjamin Franklin D. Alexander Bell

During the early part of the humanitarian reform period, a wide-ranging management system in asylums emphasized the patients’ ethical and spiritual development and the rehabilitation of their character rather than their physical or mental disorders. This was known as ________.

A. autocratic management B. paternalistic management C. democratic management D. moral management

Agree of disagree?

Institutionalization is never appropriate for the treatment of mental patients and diseases.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

National Institutes of Mental Health was organized and provided active support for ________ and ________ through psychiatric residencies and clinical psychology training programs.

A. research; training B. research; community-based programs C. community-based programs; international collaboration D. international collaboration; research

The discovery of the organic factors underlying ________ in the latter years of the 19th century was a major medical breakthrough.

A. dementia B. injuries of the brain C. syphilis of the brain D. disease remission of the brain

________emphasized the importance of the brain in psychic functions and advocated postmortem dissection to study the brains of the insane.

The first systematic presentation of this viewpoint, was made by ________ who insisted that all mental disorders could be explained in terms of brain pathology.

A. von Haller; Griesinger B. Griesinger; Freud C. Freud; Jung D. Jung; von Haller

Kraepelin described mental disorders and worked out a scheme of classification that integrated all of the clinical material underlying this classification. This was known as the ________.

A. Clinical Handbook of Psychological Disorders B. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders C. The Merck Manual D. Clinical Manual of Psychiatric Diagnosis and Treatment

________ developed a comprehensive theory of psychopathology that emphasized the inner psychodynamics that are at the heart of the psychoanalytic perspective.

A. Skinner B. Piaget C. Keller D. Freud

True or false?

Mental disorders are best explained by psychological, rather than biological bases.

A. True B. False

According to Freudian theory, the portion of the mind that contains experiences of which a person is unaware is known as the ________.

A. unconscious B. conscious C. id D. ego

In attempting to find cures for mental disorders, ________ concluded that all people possessed magnetic forces that could be used to influence the distribution of the magnetic fluid in other people and effect cures.

A. Freud B. Rogers C. Mesmer D. Andrews

The method that enabled Freud’s patients to talk openly about themselves is known as ________.

A. free association B. dream analysis C. conference therapy D. remote association

The behavioral perspective is organized around a central theme addressing ________.

A. role of learning in antisocial activities B. role of happiness in social setting C. role of learning in human behavior D. role of learning in abnormal psychology

A form of learning in which a neutral stimulus is paired repeatedly with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicits an unconditioned behavior is known as ________.

A. operant conditioning B. classical conditioning C. positive reinforcement D. negative reinforcement

In Skinner’s view, behavior that is shaped when something reinforces a particular activity of an organism is referred to as ________.

A. operant conditioning B. classical conditioning C. positive reinforcement D. negative reinforcement

The physicians who worked together to develop the hypothesis that hypnotism and hysteria were related and to suggestion came to be known as ________.

A. the Nancy School B. the psychoanalytic school C. the behaviorist school D. the Edwards school

Freud and Breuer directed patients to talk freely about their problems while under hypnosis. The patients usually displayed considerable emotion and, on awakening, felt a significant emotional release, which was called a ________.

A. catharsis B. free association C. hypnotic conversion D. remission

Chapter 3

CASUAL FACTORS AND VIEWPOINTS

Agree or disagree?

It is necessary to find the cause to successfully treat a psychological disorder.

A. I agree with this statement B. I disagree with this statement

Variables correlated with an abnormal outcome are called ________.

A. causal factors B. experimental factors C. comorbid factors D. risk factors

A ________ cause is a condition that must exist for a disorder to occur.

A ________ cause of a disorder is a condition that guarantees the occurrence of a disorder.

A ________ cause is one that increases the probability of a disorder developing, but is neither necessary nor sufficient for the disorder to occur.

A. necessary; sufficient; contributory B. contributory; necessary; sufficient C. sufficient; contributory; necessary D. necessary; contributory; sufficient

Some causal factors occurring relatively early in life may not show their effects for many years; these would be considered ________ causal factors.

A. distal B. proximal C. delayed D. developmental

True or false?

A reinforcing contributory cause is a condition that tends to maintain maladaptive behavior that is has already occurred.

A. True B. False

Some causal factors operate shortly before the occurrence of the symptoms of a disorder.

These would be considered ________ causal factors.

A. distal B. proximal C. delayed D. developmental

True or false?

What may be a proximal cause for a problem at one stage in life may also serve as a distal contributory cause that sets up a predisposition for another disorder later in life.

A. True B. False

Many different neurotransmitter and hormonal abnormalities contribute to the development of ________ because of the effects they exert on different relevant brain and body areas.

A. mental structures B. mental disorders C. mental strengths D. mental networks

Genetic vulnerabilities can affect the development of mental disorders through multiple mechanisms, including ways in which the genotype may affect genotype–environment correlations. This is known as the ________.

A. genotype B. genotype transaction C. phenotype D. phenotype transaction

In current research, ________ and ________ are beginning to contribute knowledge about the exact location of genes contributing to mental disorders.

A. linkage analysis; association studies B. association studies; microanalysis C. analysis of expression data; linkage analysis D. microanalysis; linkage analysis

________ forms the basis of adult personality, which in turn influences vulnerability to different disorders.

A. Temperament B. Personality C. Conscience D. Traits

True or false?

Studies of neural plasticity indicate that genetic programs for brain development are not as fixed as once believed and existing neural circuits can often be modified based on experience.

A. True B. False

In examining psychologically based vulnerabilities, there are three primary perspectives that have developed since the end of the 19th century: ________, ________, ________.

A. ecological; behavioral; and cognitive-behavioral B. psychodynamic; sociological; and cognitivebehavioral C. psychodynamic; behavioral; and evolutionary D. psychodynamic; behavioral; and cognitivebehavioral

The oldest psychological viewpoint on abnormal behavior is ________.

A. Piagetian cognitive theory B. Skinnerian behavior theory C. Freudian psychoanalytic theory D. Bandura learning theory

Influences that modify a person’s response to environmental stressors, making it less likely that the person will experience the adverse consequences of the stressors are called ________.

A. environmental factors B. reactive factors C. residual factors D. protective factors

True or false?

Protective factors are not necessarily positive experiences.

A. True B. False

Anna Freud’s ego psychology highlighted the important role of the ego in normal and abnormal behavior, with special attention focused on ________.

A. Assimilation B. ego-defense reactions C. adaptation D. ecosystems

________ focused on the role of the quality of very early (pre-Oedipal) mother–infant relationships for normal development.

A. Learning theorists B. Behavior theorists C. Object-relations theorists D. Interpersonal theorists

The originators of the ________ took exception to the Freudian emphasis on the internal determinants of motivation and behavior and instead emphasized the social and cultural forces that shape behavior.

A. learning perspective B. objects-relations perspective C. interpersonal perspective D. cognitive perspective

________ theory, which has roots in both the interpersonal and object-relations perspectives, emphasizes the importance of early experiences with attachment relationships.

A. Social learning B. Behavioral C. Psychodynamic D. Attachment

The site of communication between the axon of one neuron and the dendrites or cell body of another neuron is the ________.

A. synapse B. nucleus C. cell body D. ribisome

The ________ perspective focuses on the role of learning in human behavior and attributes maladaptive behavior either to a failure to learn appropriate behaviors or to the learning of maladaptive behaviors.

A. attachment B. social learning C. behavioral D. psychodynamic

Treatments developed from the ________ perspective attempt to alter maladaptive thinking and improve a person’s abilities to solve problems and to achieve goals.

A. attachment B. social learning C. cognitive-behavioral D. psychodynamic

Sources of ________ include early social deprivation or severe emotional trauma, inadequate parenting styles, marital discord and divorce, and maladaptive peer relationships.

A. psychologically determined vulnerability B. biologically determined vulnerability C. cognitively determined vulnerability D. socially determined vulnerability

True or false?

In our society the lower the socioeconomic class, the higher the incidence of mental and physical disorders.

A. True B. False

Chapter 4

CLINICAL ASSESSMENT AND DIAGNOSIS

Agree or disagree?

With advanced technology and training, most clinical disorders can be reliably assessed and diagnosed.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

The extent to which a person’s problems are understood and appropriately treated depends largely on the adequacy of the ________.

A. psychological assessment B. patient commitment to change C. clinician training D. pre-treatment physical exam

________ refers to a procedure by which clinicians develop a summary of the client’s symptoms and problems. ________ is the process through which a clinician arrives at a summary classification of the patient’s symptoms by following a clearly defined system.

A. Clinical diagnosis; Behavioral assessment B. Behavioral assessment; Psychological assessment C. Psychological assessment; Clinical diagnosis D. Clinical diagnosis; psychological assessment

A psychiatrist or other medical practitioner is likely to focus on ________ aimed at determining any underlying organic malfunctioning that may be causing maladaptive behavior.

A. psychoanalytically oriented methods B. behaviorally oriented methods C. cognitively oriented methods D. biological assessment methods

One of the rating scales most widely used for recording observations in clinical practice and in psychiatric research is the ________.

A. Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2) B. Rorschach inkblots C. Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS) D. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)

________ describes the degree to which an assessment measure produces the same result each time it is used to evaluate the same thing. ________ is the extent to which a measuring instrument actually measures what it is supposed to measure.

A. Reliability; Validity B. Validity; Randomness C. Randomness; Integrity D. Validity; Reliability

In cases where organic brain damage is suspected, it is important to have ________ tests to help determine the site and extent of organic brain disorder.

A. psychological B. neurological C. psychiatric D. cognitive

In his practice, Dr. Peace uses a test in which clients make sense out of vague, unstructured stimuli by projecting their own problems, motives, and wishes into a situation. This is known as a ________.

A. retrospective personality test B. projective cognition test C. projective personality test D. retrospective cognition test

Ongoing psychological activity can be mapped and reveal specific areas of the brain that appear to be involved in neurophysiological processes by using ________.

A. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) B. electroencephalography (EEG) C. positron emission tomography (PET) D. near-infrared spectroscopy (NIRS)

True or false?

The most dramatic innovation in clinical assessment during the last 40 years has been the increasing use of computers in individual assessment.

A. True B. False

________ methods are techniques for gathering psychological information relevant to clinical decisions about patients A. Decision-point assessment B. Clinical mapping assessment C. Cognitive learning assessment D. Psychosocial assessment

When working with clients, Dr. Fernandez assumes that a person’s typical behavior is the product of differing strengths or intensities of behavior along several definable attributes. This is characteristic of the ________ approach.

A. behavioral traits approach B. developmental approach C. dimensional approach D. retrospective approach

The most widely used and most flexible psychosocial assessment methods are the ________and ________.

A. clinical interview; behavior observation B. behavior observation; Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) C. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM); MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory) D. clinical interview; MCMI (Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory)

Glynn, age six, has been diagnosed with ADHD. When his first grade teacher reviews his school records, she decides he will be a problem child.

This is an example of how a ________ can make it hard to look at a person’s behavior objectively, without preconceptions about how he will act.

A. diagnostic label B. school-based report C. developmental inventory D. prejudiced participant

Which of the following best describes the DSM?

A. A complete guide to the origin, diagnosis, and treatment of mental disorders B. A work in progress that classifies mental disorders based on what is currently known C. A fundamentally flawed collection of unfounded assumptions about mental disorders D. An objective guide to diagnosing mental disorder

Psychological tests, such as intelligence and personality tests, include ________ stimuli for collecting behavior samples that can be compared with other individuals’ behavior via test norms.

A. normalized B. objective C. mediated D. standarized

Dr. David uses various testing devices to measure her clients’ cognitive, perceptual, and motor performance as clues to the extent and location of brain damage. This is known as a ________.

A. cognitive assessment B. neuropsychological assessment C. psychological assessment D. neurological assessment

In ________ tests unstructured stimuli are presented to a subject, who then project meaning onto the stimulus.

In ________ tests subjects are required to read and respond to itemized statements or questions.

A. objective; retrospective B. retrospective; objective C. objective; projective D. projective; objective

________ personality tests provide a costeffective means of collecting a great deal of personality information rapidly.

A. Objective B. Projective C. Retrospective D. Summative

Your abnormal psychology professor explains that competent psychologist are informed of the issues involved in multicultural assessment and the use of testing procedures that have been adapted and validated for culturally diverse clients. This is referred to as ________.

A. cultural competence B. cultural congruence C. mainstream competence’ D. cultural aggregation

True or false?

Objectively scored personality tests provide a costeffective means of collecting a great deal of personality information slowly and methodically.

A. True B. False

When two or more identified disorders regularly occur together in the same individual, a situation known as ________ occurs.

A. morbidity B. congruence C. comorbidity D. mutality

A disorder in which there is a loss of ability to communicate verbally is called ____________.

A. Alzheimer’s disease B. aphasia C. dysrhythmia D. actuarial procedures

Agree or disagree?

A formal definition of mental disorder will be contained in the fifth edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM).

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

The process by which a psychological test is administered, scored, and interpreted in a consistent manner is known as ________.

A. standardization B. reliability C. validity D. interpretation

Chapter 5

STRESS AND PHYSICAL AND MENTAL HEALTH

The field of ________ medicine grew from the general recognition that physical and emotional well-being are intimately interrelated.

A. scientific B. behavioral C. cultural D. strategic

Stress takes its toll on physical and psychological well-being. In the DSM-IV-TR, ________ is used to note any psychosocial stressors that may contribute to or result from an ________ disorder.

A. Axis IV; Axis I B. Axis II; Axis IV C. Axis I; Axis IV D. Axis II; Axis I

When people are stressed, the autonomic nervous system responds with an increased production of ________.

A. insulin B. leukocytes C. serotonin D. cortisol

________ psychology is concerned with the effects of stress and other psychological factors in the development and maintenance of physical problems.

A. Social B. Cultural C. Health D. Cognitive

In the immune system, specialized white blood cells called ________ respond to antigens such as viruses and bacteria.

A. B-cells and T-cells B. antigens C. leukocytes D. cytokines

________ is a developing field concerned with the interactions between the nervous system and the immune system.

A. Etymology B. Psychoneuroimmunology C. Cognitivism D. Psychometrics

________ are chemical messengers that allow the brain and the immune system to communicate with each other.

A. Leukocytes B. B-cells C. Antigens D. Cytokines

________ can impair the functioning of the immune system and the cardiovascular system, leaving a person more vulnerable to disease and infection.

A. Negative emotional states B. Positive emotional states C. Hypertension D. Cortisol

True or false?

Resilience is the most common reaction following loss or trauma.

A. True B. False

External demands are considered ________ and the effects they create within the organism are known as ________.

A. inhibitors; stress B. microphages; states C. stressors; stress.

D. risk factors; states

Hostility and depression are well established as an independent risk factor for ________.

A. acute stress B. hypertension C. anxiety D. coronary heart disease (CHD)

The impact of stress depends not only on its severity but also on the person’s ________.

A. social isolation B. preexisting vulnerabilities C. allostatic load D. personality

__________ behavior is characterized by excessive competitive drive, extreme commitment to work, impatience or time urgency, and hostility.

A. Type A B. Type B C. Type C D. Type D

Several relatively common events. may produce a great deal of stress and psychological maladjustment, resulting in adjustment disorder. Which of the following is NOT an example of these events?

A. Cardiovascular disease B. Prolonged unemployment C. Loss of a loved one through death D. Marital separation or divorce

More intense psychological disorders in response to trauma or excessively stressful situations may be categorized as ________.

A. anxiety disorder B. obsessive compulsive disorder C. posttraumatic stress disorder D. emotional deregulation

True or false?

Events that are predictable and anticipated are most likely to place a person under severe stress.

A. True B. False

Most people exposed to traumatic events ________ develop PTSD.

A. do B. do not

If symptoms begin ________ after a traumatic event, the diagnosis is delayed posttraumatic stress disorder A. one week or more B. one month or more C. three months or more D. six months or more

The ________ is designed to mobilize resources and prepare for a fight-or-flight response.

A. sympatheticadrenomedullary (SAM) system B. hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) system C. stress-induced immunosuppression (SII) system D. psychological maladaptiveness reaction

Factors that increase a person’s risk of experiencing trauma include ________.

A. being female B. having a college education C. high levels of introversion D. family history of psychiatric problems

Factors that increase the risk of developing PTSD include ________.

A. being male B. having high levels of social support C. higher levels of neuroticism D. no preexisting problems with anxiety and depression

The biological cost of adapting to stress is called the allostatic. When people are relaxed and not experiencing stress, their allostatic load is ________.

When they are stressed and feeling pressured, their allostatic load will be ________.

A. low, higher B. high, lower C. low, stable D. high, stable

True or false?

Men with PTSD have higher baseline cortisol levels than men who do not have PTSD. This is not the case for women with PTSD. A. True B. False

Walter learned that he has the s/s genotype of the serotonin-transporter gene. Walter may have ________ to PTSD in the face of trauma exposure in a combat zone.

A. increase vulnerability B. decrease vulnerability C. increase responsiveness D. decrease responsiveness

One implication of developments in cytokine research is that disorders of the brain could potentially have _________ effects on the immune system. Problems with the immune system may also lead to some ________ changes or even to psychiatric problems.

A. downstream; allostatic B. downstream; behavioral C. upstream; behavioral D. upstream; cardiovascular

Chapter 6

PANIC, ANXIETY, AND THEIR DISORDERS

Agree or disagree?

Everyone experiences anxiety on a regular basis.

A. I agree with this statement B. I disagree with this statement

________ involves a general feeling of apprehension about possible future danger, and ________ is an alarm reaction that occurs in response to immediate danger A. Depression; fear B. Panic; fear C. Anxiety; fear D. Phobia; fear

Regi periodically exhibits a fear response in the absence of any obvious danger. She is experiencing a(n) ________.

A. spontaneous or uncued panic attack B. anxiety disorder C. effects of a phobia D. acute stress disorder

True or false?

Neither fear nor anxiety can be classically conditioned.

A. True B. False

Humans appear to have a(n) ________ preparedness to readily acquire fears of objects or situations that posed a threat to their early ancestors.

A. socially based B. evolutionarily based C. culturally based D. emotionally based

________ have unrealistic, irrational fears or anxieties of disabling intensity as their principal and most obvious manifestation.

A. Stress disorders B. Anxiety disorders C. Social disorders D. cultural disorders

Kathie has disabling fears of several social situations, usually because of fears of negative evaluation by others. Kathie’s fear is a ________.

A. social phobia B. cultural phobia C. stress disorder D. panic disorder

People with ________ primarily experience a general sense of diffuse anxiety and worry about many potentially bad things that may happen.

A. specific phobias B. social phobias C. generalized anxiety disorder D. posttraumatic stress disorder

________ is a cardinal characteristic of phobias.

A. Avoidance B. Depression C. Stress D. Cardiovascular disease

According to the ________ view, phobias represent a defense against anxiety that stems from repressed impulses from the id.

A. psychoanalytic B. social C. evolutionary D. behavioral

________ of panic disorder emphasize that the disorder may result from biochemical abnormalities and several neurotransmitters in the brain.

A. Learning theories B. Behavior theories C. Biological theories D. Cognitive theories

Phobic people turn their attention ________ their phobic objects. Non-phobic people tend to direct their attention _______ from threatening stimuli A. toward; away from B. away from; toward C. toward; toward D. away from; away from

Panic attacks may arise primarily from the brain area called the ________.

A. brain stem B. prefrontal cortex C. amygdala D. pituitary gland

The ________ of panic disorder propose that panic attacks cause the conditioning of anxiety primarily to external cues associated with the attacks.

A. biological theories B. learning theories C. behavior theories D. cognitive theories

________ therapy involves controlled exposure to the stimuli or situations that elicit phobic fear.

A. Biological B. Learning C. Exposure D. Cognitive

The ________ of panic disorder suggests that this condition may develop in people who are prone to making catastrophic misinterpretations of their bodily sensations.

A. biological theories B. learning theories C. behavior theories D. cognitive theories

Christina has chronic and excessively high levels of worry about a number of events and activities. She responds to stress with high levels of psychic activity. Christina has a generalized ________.

A. Tourette’s Syndrome B. anxiety disorder C. phobia D. panic disorder

When people experience unwanted and intrusive distressing thoughts or images that are usually accompanied by compulsive behaviors performed to neutralize those thoughts or images, they have a(n) ________.

A. panic disorder B. obsessive-compulsive disorder C. phobias D. anxiety sensitivity

Evidence coming from psychopharmacological studies, genetic studies, and studies of brain functioning suggest that ________ are involved in obsessive-compulsive disorder.

A. environmental causal factors B. social causal factors C. genetic causal factors D. biological causal factors

The most important temperamental variable is ________, which shares characteristics with both neuroticism and introversion.

A. behavioral inhibition B. cultural inhibition C. social inhibition D. genetic inhibition

The ________ model is best able to explain the occurrence of panic attacks that occur without any preceding negative automatic thoughts.

A. cognitive theory B. behavioral theory C. learning theory D. psychoanalytic theory

True or false?

Behavioral and cognitive therapies have a very good track record with regard to treatment of the anxiety disorders.

A. True B. False

Maria often complains the a spot on her face “must surely be cancer” or her rapid breathing after exercise “must be a heart attack.” Maria possesses a trait-like belief that many of her bodily symptoms may have harmful consequences. This could be diagnosed as ________.

A. panic disorder B. anxiety disorder C. anxiety sensitivity D. depression

Agree or disagree?

Anxiety disorders are highly exaggerated and highlighted in the media.

A. I agree with this statement B. I disagree with this statement

________ focus on helping clients understand their underlying automatic thoughts, which often involve cognitive distortions.

A. Cognitive therapies B. Behavioral therapies C. Social therapies D. Psychoanalytical therapies

Chapter 7

MOOD DISORDERS AND SUICIDE

Agree or disagree?

Colleges should provide resources for students who are at risk for suicide.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

________ are those in which extreme variations in mood are the predominant feature. ________ of mood are intense and persistent enough to be clearly maladaptive.

A. Anxiety disorders; Disturbances B. Mood disorders; Disturbances C. Panic disorders; Stressors D. Stress disorders; Stressors

In ______ depressive disorders, clients experiences only depressive episodes.

In ______ disorders, clients experience both manic and depressive episodes.

A. unipolar; bipolar B. bipolar; unipolar C. panic; anxiety D. anxiety; panic

________ usually refers to one or more forms of stress ongoing for at least several months.

A. Anxiety B. Dysfunction C. Depressive episodes D. Chronic stress

A ________ genetic contribution is among the biological causal factors for unipolar disorder.

A. moderate B. severe C. universal D. chronic

True or false?

Normal depressions are nearly always the result of recent stress.

A. True B. False

Beck’s cognitive theory maintained that dysfunctional beliefs need to be activated by the occurrence of ________.

A. a phobia B. a dysfunction C. some form of stress D. some form of anxiety

True or false?

Major depression in women occurs more frequently in the postpartum period than would be expected in women of the same age and socioeconomic status who have not just given birth.

A. True B. False

Personality variables such as ________ may serve as diatheses for depression.

A. anxiety level B. obsessiveness C. neuroticism D. hormonal regulation

Psychodynamic and interpersonal theories of unipolar depression emphasize the importance of ________ as setting up a predisposition for depression.

A. genetics B. immune response C. social competence D. early experiences

To be diagnosed with dysthymic disorder, an adult must have a persistently depressed mood most of the day, for more days than not, for at least ________ years.

A. two B. three C. four D. five

During ________ episodes, the symptoms are essentially the opposite of those experienced during a depressive episode.

A. maladaptive B. cyclothymic C. bipolar D. manic

Which of the following are the antidepressants most widely prescribed today for the treatment of panic disorder?

A. Tricyclics B. Anxiolytics C. SSRIs D. Benzodiazepines

________ probably play an even more prominent role for bipolar disorders than for unipolar disorders.

A. Social causal factors B. Emotional causal factors C. Biological causal factors D. Cultural causal factors

Chronic major depression has been associated with serious childhood family problems and ________.

A. an excitable personality in childhood B. an anxious personality in childhood C. an excitable personality in early adulthood D. an anxious personality in early adulthood

Results from ________ make a strong case for a moderate genetic contribution to the causal patterns of unipolar major depression.

A. comparative studies B. blind studies C. family and twin studies D. control groups

The different patterns of symptoms or features are called ________.

A. markers B. factors C. variations D. specifiers

Thoughts that often occur just below the surface of awareness and involve unpleasant pessimistic predictions are called ________.

A. positive automatic thoughts B. negative automatic thoughts C. positive internal thoughts D. negative internal thoughts

When people find that they have no control over aversive events, they may feel that they are helpless. This makes them unmotivated to try to respond in the future and is known as ________.

A. passiveness B. general disinterest C. learned helplessness D. rumination

In ________, people are moderately depressed on a chronic basis, but undergo increased problems from time to time, during which they also meet criteria for a major depressive episode.

A. bipolar disorder B. double depression C. cyclothymic disorder D. generalized anxiety disorder

A ________ amount of suicidal behavior is performed as a means of indirect interpersonal communication.

A. substantial B. minute C. unclear D. mediated

Caspi and colleagues published a landmark study in which they tested for the possibility of a ______________ interaction involving two alleles of the serotonin-transporter gene.

A. genotype–environment B. genotype–biological C. biological–environment D. environment–stressor

Serina believes she has no control over what happens to her and by the absolute certainty that bad things will always happen. Serina is demonstrating a ________.

A. hopelessness expectancy B. depressive expectancy C. resilient expectancy D. stress expectancy

Recent research suggests that ________ plays a significant role in some forms of depression, including depression with atypical features and bipolar depression.

A. serotonin dysfunction B. dopamine dysfunction C. relapse D. negative cognitive triad

Suicide prevention programs generally consist of crisis intervention in the form of ________.

A. psychological evaluation B. ambivalence C. suicide hotlines D. social inclusion

Chapter 8

SOMATOFORM AND DISSOCIATIVE DISORDERS

Agree or disagree?

Multiple personalities disorders are real.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

Psychological problems that are manifested in physical disorders and often mimic medical conditions for which no evidence of corresponding organic pathology can be found are known as ________.

A. anxiety disorders B. somatoform disorders C. depressive disorders D. dissociative disorders

Gina is very unhappy with her job. She fallaciously informs her employer that she has just been diagnosed with cancer and asks for a leave of absence. It is likely that Gina could be diagnosed with a ________ disorder.

A. malingering B. factitious C. social D. depersonalization

People with ________ are preoccupied either with fears of contracting a serious disease or with the idea that they actually have such a disease even though they do not.

A. somatization disorder B. hypochondriasis C. pain disorder D. conversion disorder

________ is characterized by the experience of persistent and severe pain in one or more areas of the body that is not intentionally produced or feigned.

A. Hypochondriasis B. Somatization disorder C. Pain disorder D. Conversion disorder

The term conversion disorder is relatively recent, and historically this disorder was one of several disorders that were grouped together under the term ________.

A. hysteria B. mania C. depression D. regression

True or false?

Conversion disorders exclusively involve the auditory modality.

A. True B. False

In the past, a severe and chronic form of a factitious disorder in which a person had some kind of hospital addiction or a professional patient syndrome was called ________.

A. conversion disorder B. pain disorder C. body dysmorphic D. Munchausen’s syndrome

Although Irma is physically stunning, she is obsessed with flaws in her appearance to the point she firmly believes she is ugly. This preoccupation is so intense that it causes clinically significant distress and impairment in her social and occupational functioning. Irma is experiencing ________.

A. depersonalization disorder B. body dysmorphic disorder C. conversion disorder D. pain disorder

The most striking significant overlapping features between BDD and eating disorders is ________.

A. depression B. anxiety C. phobias D. body image distortion

________ involve physical symptoms and complaints suggesting the presence of a nonexistent medical condition.

________ involve disruptions in a person’s normally integrated functions of consciousness, memory, identity, or perception.

A. Somatoform disorders; Dissociative disorders B. Dissociative disorders; Somatoform disorders C. Hypochondriasis; Pain disorders D. Body dysmorphic disorders; Conversion disorders

Two of the more common kinds of dissociative symptoms are ________ and ________.

A. depression; anxiety B. derealization; depersonalization C. gastrointestinal; pseudoneurological D. seizures; amnesia

________ amnesia is the partial or total inability to recall or identify previously acquired information or past experiences.

By contrast, ________ amnesia is the partial or total inability to retain new information.

A. Antegrade; retrograde B. Retrograde; antergrade C. Primary; secondary D. Secondary; primary

Jamell experienced extreme abuse and neglect from his foster family and believed there was no acceptable way to escape. Eventually the stress becomes so intolerable that large segments of his personality and all memory of the stressful situation were suppressed. Jamell is experiencing ________ and ________.

A. dissociative amnesia; fugue B. retrograde amnesia; fugue C. delirium; anxiety D. pain disorder; hypochondriasis

In ________, patient manifests two or more distinct identities that alternate in some way in taking control of behavior.

A. somatization disorder B. pain disorder C. dissociative amnesia D. dissociative identity disorder

True or false?

Much of the reason for abandoning the older diagnostic term multiple personality disorder in favor of DID was the growing recognition that it had misleading connotations.

A. True B. False

Related studies on implicit transfer of memories have shown that emotional reactions learned by one identity often ________ across identities.

A. transfer B. do not transfer

In the contemporary literature, the original major theory of how DID develops is ________.

A. dissociative theory B. sociocultural theory C. somatization theory D. posttraumatic theory

The inability to learn new information is known as ________.

A. anterograde amnesia B. retrograde amnesia C. continuous amnesia D. generalized amnesia

________ posits that DID develops when a highly suggestible person learns to adopt and enact the roles of multiple identities.

A. Sociocultural theory B. Psychoanalytical theory C. Biological theory D. Sociocognitive theory

A ________ occurs when a person experiences a temporary marked alteration in state of consciousness or identity.

A ________ occurs when there an alteration of consciousness or identity is replaced by a new identity that is attributed to the influence of a spirit, deity, or other power.

A. fugue; stupor B. stupor; fugue C. trance; possession trance D. possession trance; trance

True or false?

No systematic, controlled research has been conducted on treatment of depersonalization disorder, dissociative amnesia, and dissociative fugue.

A. True B. False

The current prevalence of conversion disorder is ________.

A. decreasing as sophistication about disorders decreases B. increasing as sophistication about disorders increases C. decreasing as sophistication about disorders increases D. not changing

Experimental studies of DID find that interpersonality amnesia exists for ________.

A. all types of memories B. explicit memories C. implicit memories D. conditioned responses

Chapter 9

EATING DISORDERS AND OBESITY

Agree or disagree?

Obesity can be socially contagious.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

Eating disorders are characterized by a severe disturbance in eating ________.

A. influences B. factors C. behaviors D. cultures

At the heart of ________ is an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, combined with a refusal to maintain even a minimally low body weight.

A. obesity B. anorexia nervosa C. comorbid personality D. depressive personality

Patients with the binge-eating/purging type of anorexia nervosa differ from patients with restricting anorexia nervosa because they either ___________.

A. binge, purge, or binge and purge B. severely restrict their food intake C. purge only D. binge only

Patterns of disordered eating that do not exactly fit the criteria for any of the more specific diagnoses are called ________.

A. eating disorder not otherwise specified (EDNOS) B. idiopathic disorders C. anxiety disorders D. somatoform disorders

Children as young as ________ years of age have been known to develop eating disorders, especially anorexia nervosa.

A. five B. six C. seven D. eight

__________ is a much less lethal eating disorder than anorexia nervosa, although it is still associated with a mortality rate that is approximately twice that found in people of comparable age in the general population.

A. Bulimia nervosa B. Obesity C. Hypochondriasis D. Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)

________ occurs when someone who is diagnosed with one form of eating disorder is later diagnosed with another eating disorder.

A. Concurrent diagnosis B. Diagnostic crossover C. Set point D. Negative affect

One problem with simple examinations of personality disorders in patients with eating disorders is that some of the disturbances found in these patients could reflect the ________.

A. consequences of depression B. consequences of anxiety C. consequences of malnourishment D. consequences of posttraumatic stress disorder

African-American women who have ________ with their ethnicity and cultural heritage have less risk of developing eating disorders than African American women who have ________ white middle class values about the desirability of thinness.

A. strong identification; internalized B. internalized; strong identification C. negative issues; discounted D. weak identification; internalized

Keel and Klump concluded that ________ is not a culture-bound syndrome, but ________ is.

A. bulimia nervosa; anorexia nervosa B. anorexia nervosa; bulimia nervosa C. hypochondriasis; depersonalization disorder D. depersonalization disorder; hypochondriasis

In the ________, it is theorized that genes render some people more susceptible to environmental pressures and the development of problematic eating attitudes and behaviors.

A. sociocultural model B. psychoanalytic model C. cognitive model D. diathesis stress model

True or false?

Studies suggest that both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa are heritable disorders.

A. True B. False

Eating disorders have additionally been linked to genes that are involved in the regulation of the ________.

A. cortisol B. insulin C. serotonin neurotransmitter D. grehlin

The magnitude of genetic influences on eating disorders ________ over the course of development.

A. decreases B. increases C. remains stable D. has no effect

The ________ is the area of the brain that plays an important role in eating.

A. amygdala B. pituitary gland C. prefrontal cortex D. hypothalamus

________ is a neurotransmitter that has been implicated in obsessionality, mood disorders, and impulsivity. It also modulates appetite and feeding behavior.

A. Cortisol B. Serotonin C. Norepinephrine D. Cytokine

True or false?

It is likely that thinness became deeply rooted as a cultural ideal in the ________.

A. 1970s B. 1980s C. 1990s D. 2000s

More than one-third of patients with anorexia nervosa reported that ________ was a factor that contributed to the development of their eating disorder.

A. genetics B. culture C. family dysfunction D. socioeconomic status

In a large sample of college-age women, the strongest predictor of ________ was the extent to which family members made disparaging comments about the woman’s appearance and focused on her need to diet.

A. anorexic symptoms B. bulimic symptoms C. depressive symptoms D. anxiety symptoms

In a recent prospective longitudinal study, ________emerged as the most powerful predictor of the onset of eating disorders in a sample of almost 500 adolescent girls A. body dissatisfaction B. family dynamic C. social status D. economic status

True or false?

The most immediate concern with patients who have anorexia nervosa is to restore their weight to a level that is ________.

A. over 10% body fat B. over 20% body fat C. over 30% body fat D. no longer life threatening

For adolescents with anorexia nervosa, family therapy is considered to be the treatment of choice.

The best-studied approach, which blames neither the parents nor the child for the anorexia nervosa, is known as the _______ model.

A. Maudsley B. Freud C. Erickson D. Descartes

In ________, a major focus of the treatment involves modifying distorted beliefs concerning weight and food, as well as distorted beliefs about the self that may have contributed to the disorder.

A. electroconvulsive therapy B. cognitive-behavioral therapy C. deep brain stimulation D. behavioral activation treatment

Obesity is defined on the basis of a statistic called the body mass index (BMI). This is a measure of a person’s _____ relative to ______.

A. weight; height B. weight; age C. age; flexibility D. height; flexibility

Chapter 10

PERSONALITY DISORDERS

A person’s broadly characteristic traits, coping styles, and ways of interacting in the social environment emerge during _________.

A. early childhood B. middle childhood C. adolescence D. early adulthood

The set of unique traits and behaviors that characterize the individual is known as ________.

A. schema B. personality C. context D. adaptiveness

There is reasonably broad agreement among personality researchers that about ________ basic personality trait dimensions can be used to characterize normal personality.

A. two B. three C. four D. five

Two of the general features that characterize most personality disorders are chronic ________ and problems with one’s identity or sense of self.

A. phobias B. anxieties C. manic episodes D. interpersonal difficulties

________ studies are designed to establish the prevalence of a particular disorder in a very large sample of people living in the community.

A. Epidemiological B. Psychological C. Cultural D. Social

More misdiagnoses probably occur in diagnosis of ________ than any other category of disorder.

A. somatoform disorders B. dissociative disorders C. personality disorders D. mood disorders

True or false?

Infants’ temperament do not predispose them to the development of particular personality traits and disorders.

A. True B. False

For most disorders, the genetic contribution appears to be mediated by the genetic contributions to the ________ dimensions most implicated in each disorder, rather than to the disorders themselves.

A. primary trait B. secondary trait C. tertiary trait D. none of the above

Cluster ________ personality disorders display unusual behavior and social detachment.

Clients with this disorder often come appear odd or eccentric.

A. A B. B C. C D. D

Kenny is on guard all the time, distrusts others, and blames others for his own mistakes and failures. Kenny has a(n) ________ disorder.

A. avoidant personality B. histrionic personality C. obsessive-compulsive personality D. paranoid personality

Agree or disagree?

All loners or introverts have a schizoid personality disorder.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

________ theorists propose that individuals with schizoid personality disorder exhibit cool and aloof behavior because they view themselves as self-sufficient loners and others as intrusive.

A. Behavioral B. Cognitive C. Social D. Cultural

Morinda has a tendency to be dramatic, emotional, and erratic. She has a Cluster ________ personality disorder.

A. A B. B C. C D. D

Excessive attention-seeking behavior and emotionality are the key characteristics of individuals with ________ personality disorder.

A. paranoid B. histrionic C. narcissistic D. avoidant

Numerous studies support the notion of two subtypes of narcissism.

________ narcissism is manifested by traits related to grandiosity, aggression, and dominance. ________ narcissism characterizes people who are very fragile and have an unstable sense of self-esteem.

A. Grandiose; Vulnerable B. Vulnerable; Grandiose C. Avoidant; Paranoid D. Paranoid; Avoidant

_________ narcissism is associated with parental overvaluation. _________ narcissism is associated with parents who are intrusive, controlling, and cold.

A. Vulnerable; Grandiose B. Grandiose; Vulnerable C. Avoidant; Paranoid D. Paranoid; Avoidant

Patti continually violates and shows disregard for the rights of others through deceitful, aggressive, or antisocial behavior and is diagnosed with a(n) ________ personality disorder.

A. schizoid B. paranoid C. obsessive-compulsive D. antisocial

The central characteristic of borderline personality disorder is ________.

A. affective instability B. delusions C. social instability D. erratic behavior

Paris proposes that people who have high levels of impulsivity and affective instability may have a diathesis to develop ________ personality disorder.

A. Type A B. Type B C. Type C D. borderline

People with Cluster ________ personality disorders often show anxiety and fearfulness.

A. A B. B C. C D. D

Individuals with ________ personality disorder show extreme social inhibition and introversion, leading to lifelong patterns of limited social relationships and reluctance to enter into social interactions.

A. dependent B. obsessive-compulsive C. avoidant D. paranoid

Perfectionism and an excessive concern with maintaining order and control characterize individuals with _______ personality disorder.

A. obsessive-compulsive B. passive-aggressive C. histrionic D. antisocial

________ treatment is based on a clear hierarchy of goals, which prioritizes decreasing suicidal and self-harming behavior and increasing coping skills.

A. Cognitive B. Psychoanalytic C. Program-focused D. Behavioral

The outstanding characteristic of people with ________ personality disorder is their tendency to persistently disregard and violate the rights of others.

A. antisocial B. narcissistic C. schizoid D. paranoid

A diagnosis of ________ currently appears to be the single best predictor of violence and recidivism.

A. avoidant personality disorder B. psychopathy C. borderline personality disorder D. dependent personality disorder

Chapter 11

SUBSTANCE-RELATED DISORDERS

Agree or disagree?

Binge drinking in college results in alcoholism in later life.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

_________ behavior is based on the pathological need for a substance.

A. Borderline B. Paranoid C. Addictive D. Obsessive

The most commonly used problem substances that affect mental functioning in the central nervous system are ________ substances.

A. psychoactive B. withdrawal C. pathological D. stimulant

Substance ________ generally involves an excessive use of a substance resulting in potentially hazardous behavior or continued use despite a problem.

Substance ________ usually involves a marked physiological need for increasing amounts of a substance.

A. dependence; abuse B. abuse: dependence C. habituation; reliance D. reliance; habituation

The need for increased amounts of a substance to achieve the desired effects is known as ________.

A. craving B. tolerance C. intolerance D. threshold

________ refers to physical symptoms such as sweating, tremors, and tension that accompany abstinence from a drug.

A. Dependence B. Delirium C. Withdrawal D. Toxicity

Alcohol _________ syndrome is characterized by behavioral and other responses that always include a compulsion to take alcohol.

A. dependence B. avoidance C. withdrawal D. compulsion

The life span of the average person with alcohol dependence is about ________ years shorter than that of the average person without this disorder.

A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 16

True or false?

Alcohol abuse and alcohol dependence in the United States cut across all age, educational, occupational, and socioeconomic boundaries.

A. True B. False

The tendency toward decreased sexual inhibition but, simultaneously, lowered sexual performance is an example of ________ effects.

A. social B. cultural C. physiological D. psychological

It is the amount of alcohol actually ________ in the bodily fluids, not the amount _______, that determines intoxication.

A. consumed; concentrated B. concentrated; consumed C. removed; retained D. retained; removed

Alcoholic ________ are marked by a temporary loss of contact with reality, alcohol withdrawal delirium, and persisting alcohol disorder or alcohol amnestic disorder.

A. toxicities B. avoidances C. psychoses D. addictions

The ________ is central to the release of the neurotransmitter dopamine and in mediating the rewarding properties of drugs.

A. amygdala B. mesocorticolimbic pathway C. prefrontal cortex D. brain stem

Being born to an alcoholic parent, rather than being raised by one, increases the risk of a ________ becoming an alcoholic.

A. daugher B. uncle C. brother D. son

Alcohol-abusing parents are less likely to keep track of what their children are doing, and this lack of monitoring can often lead to the development of adolescents’ ________.

A. drug-use B. personality disorders C. mood disorders D. somatoform disorders

People at high risk for developing alcoholrelated problems have been found to be significantly more ________ and ________ than those at low risk for abusing alcohol.

A. aggressive; impulsive B. impulsive; aggressive C. hyperactive; impulsive D. impulsive; hyperactive

As an adolescent, Ursula began drinking as a result of her expectations that using alcohol would increase her popularity and acceptance by her peers. This explanation is in line with the ________ model.

A. behavioral B. social C. biological D. reciprocal-influence

True or false?

A multidisciplinary approach to the treatment of drinking problems appears to be most effective because the problems are often complex, requiring flexibility and individualization of treatment procedures.

A. True B. False

The three most frequently cited reasons for beginning to use heroin were pleasure, curiosity, and ________.

A. economics B. peer pressure C. availability D. effectiveness

True or false?

In contrast to narcotics, which stimulate the action of the central nervous system, cocaine and amphetamines slow it down.

A. True B. False

________ is one of the most dangerous illegal drugs. Addicted users are highly resistant to treatment, and post-treatment relapse is common.

A. Cocaine B. Heroine C. Methamphetamine D. Ecstasy

People who become dependent on ________ tend to be middle-aged and older people who often rely on them as “sleeping pills” and who do not commonly use other classes of drugs.

A. barbiturates B. hallucinogens C. stimulants D. opiates

After experimenting with a potent hallucinogen during spring break, Caren experiences flashbacks. It is likely that Caren used ________.

A. methamphetamine B. heroin C. LSD D. cocaine

The hallucinogen and stimulant that is popular as a party drug among young adults is known as ________.

A. marijuana B. cocaine C. ecstasy D. LSD

Agree or disagree?

Marijuana should be marketed and sold openly as a medication.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

Chapter 12

SEXUAL VARIANTS, ABUSE AND DYSFUNCTIONS

Agree or disagree?

Homosexuality should not be included as a topic in a college classroom.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

In the ________, the central belief posits that semen is necessary for physical and sexual vigor in men and for masculine characteristics.

A. masculinity theory B. degeneracy theory C. psychosexual theory D. dysfunctional theory

Ritualized homosexuality among the Melanesians is a striking example of the influence of ________ on sexual attitudes and behavior.

A. culture B. economics C. physiology D. genetics

True or false?

A plurality of Americans do not support marriage for same-sex couples.

A. True B. False

People with ________ have recurrent, intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors that generally involve nonhuman objects; suffering or humiliation; or children or other non-consenting persons.

A. paraphilias B. gender dysphoria C. transsexualism D. sexual aversion disorder

Yolanda has recurrent, intense sexually arousing fantasies, urges, and behaviors involving the use of several inanimate objects to obtain sexual gratification. Her behaviors are an example of ________.

A. frotteurism B. voyeurism C. exhibitionism D. fetishism

________ involves heterosexual men who experience recurrent, intense sexually arousing fantasies, urges, or behaviors that involve cross-dressing as a female.

A. Transvestic fetishism B. Frotteurism C. Voyeurism D. Exhibitionism

True or false?

Homosexuality is compatible with psychological health. Most gay men and lesbians do not have mental disorders.

A. True B. False

The observation of couples engaging in sexual activities is known as ________.

A. sadism B. voyeurism C. frotteurism D. exhibitionism

________, which usually begins in adolescence or young adulthood, is the most common sexual offense reported to the police in the United States, Canada, and Europe.

A. Sadism B. Voyeurism C. Exhibitionism D. Frotteurism

One particularly dangerous form of masochism involves self-strangulation and is called ________.

A. gender identity disorder B. hypersexual disorder C. autoerotic asphyxia D. transvestic fetishism

True or false?

Women’s vulnerability to paraphilias such as fetishism may be a result of their greater dependence on visual stimuli.

A. True B. False

The concept that refers to one’s sense of maleness or femaleness, and refers to the masculinity and femininity of one’s overt behavior is known as ________.

A. gender identity B. social identity C. cultural identity D. genetic identity

True or false?

When sexual contact involves physical or psychological coercion or at least one individual who cannot reasonably consent to the contact, it is defined as sexual abuse.

A. True B. False

________ is characterized by a strong and persistent cross-gender identification and gender dysphoria.

A. Fetishism B. Exhibitionism C. Sexual masochism D. Gender identity disorder

The most common adult outcome of boys with gender identity disorder appears to be ________ rather than _________.

A. homosexuality; transsexualism B. transsexualism; homosexuality C. sexual masochism; pedophilia D. pedophilia; sexual masochism

True or false?

Most gender dysphoric children do not become gender dysphoric adults. The problem generally remits during childhood.

A. True B. False

Childhood sexual abuse may have both shortterm and long term consequences, but approximately ________ of sexually abused children show no symptoms.

A. one quarter B. one third C. one half D. two thirds

Acting on inappropriate desires is ________ for the diagnosis of pedophilia.

A. necessary B. not necessary C. professionally mandated D. legally mandated

Culturally prohibited sexual relations between family members such as a brother and sister or a parent and child are known as ________.

A. rape B. pedophilia C. incest D. exhibitionism

________ describes sexual activity that occurs under actual or threatened forcible coercion of one person by another.

A. Rape B. Incest C. Voyeurism D. Sadism

________ are often middle- to upper-class young men who rarely have criminal records.

A. Transsexuals B. Date rapists C. Sexual masochists D. Exhibitionists

________ attempts to eliminate sex offenders’ cognitive distortions because these may play a role in sexual abuse.

A. Social restructuring B. Psychological restructuring C. Cognitive restructuring D. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

________ involves an involuntary spasm of the muscles at the entrance to, and outer third of, the vagina that prevents penetration and sexual intercourse.

A. Vaginismus B. Premature ejaculation C. Gender dysphoria D. Dyspareunia

Rolando experiences an inability to achieve or maintain an erection sufficient for successful sexual intercourse. He has been diagnosed with ________.

A. premature ejaculation B. male erectile disorder C. dyspareunia D. fetishism

Chapter 13

SCHIZOPHRENIA AND OTHER PSYCHOTIC DISORDERS

Agree or disagree?

I can always tell when a person has schizophrenia.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

The hallmark of schizophrenia is a significant loss of contact with reality, referred to as ______.

A. psychosis B. maladaptiveness C. prodromal D. expressed emotion (EE)

The vast majority of cases of schizophrenia begin in ________and ________.

A. late adolescence; adulthood B. adulthood; old age C. middle childhood; adulthood D. old age; middle childhood

True or false?

Female sex hormones might explain the better clinical outcome of women with schizophrenia.

A. True B. False

Delusions reflect a disorder in thought ______.

Disorganized speech is the external manifestation of a disorder in thought _______.

A. form; content B. content; form C. patterns; expressions D. expressions; patterns

______ are completely new, made-up words that in some cases appear in the patient’s speech.

A. Delusions B. Alogia C. Negative symptoms D. Neologisms

________ symptoms reflect an excess or distortion in a normal repertoire of behavior and experience. ________ symptoms reflect an absence or deficit of behaviors that are normally present.

A. Negative; Positive B. Positive; Negative C. Partial; Complete D. Complete; Partial

True or false?

A person can have a sudden onset of psychotic symptoms that create significant turmoil, return to his or her formal level of function, and never experience another episode.

A. True B. False

Research has shown a ________ concordance for schizophrenia among identical twins than among people related in any other way, including fraternal twins.

A. lower B. higher C. non-existent D. differentiated

A strong interaction between genetic vulnerability and an unfavorable family environment in the ________ pathway leading to schizophrenia.

A. upper B. lower C. binary D. causal

Discrete, stable, and measurable traits that are thought to be under genetic control are known as ________.

A. endophenotypes B. characteristics C. subtypes D. genetic factors

Risk of schizophrenia seems to be greatest when the mother gets the flu in the _______ month of gestation.

A. first to third B. third to fifth C. fourth to seventh D. seventh to ninth

Agree or disagree?

Genetic risk for schizophrenia emerges only from genetic mutations.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

One of the most consistent findings from highrisk research is that children with a genetic risk for schizophrenia are more deviant than control children on research tasks that require _________.

A. attention and higher intelligence B. early motor abilities and organizational skills C. organizational skills and higher intelligence D. attention and early motor abilities

Poor P50 suppression is the result of problems with specific receptors in the ________.

A. basal ganglia B. hippocampus C. occipital lobe D. fronta lobe

Compared with normal adolescents, young people with early-onset schizophrenia show a progressive loss of ________ in their brains over time.

A. spinal fluid B. grey matter C. leukocytes D. plasticity

In addition to being a neurodevelopmental disorder, schizophrenia is also a ________ disorder characterized by a loss of brain tissue over time.

A. regressive B. neuroprogressive C. communicable D. definitive

Children of people with schizophrenia have a reduction in the volume of the ________, even when they are not psychotic.

A. prefrontal cortex B. occipital lobe C. corpus callosum D. hippocampus

Research suggests that the brains of patients with schizophrenia may be less able to regulate ________ in certain key neural circuits.

A. underactivity B. overactivity C. serotonin D. synapses

The most important neurotransmitter implicated in schizophrenia is ________.

A. serotonin B. norepinephrine C. cortisol D. dopamine

________ is a measure of the family environment that is based on how a family member speaks about the patient during a private interview.

A. Social expression B. Expressed emotion C. Family study D. Cultural evaluation

People who leave their native land to live in another country have almost ________ times the risk of developing schizophrenia compared to people who remain living in their home country.

A. one B. two C. three D. four

True or false?

Research findings suggest that using cannabis during adolescence more than doubles a person’s risk of developing schizophrenia at a later stage of life.

A. True B. False

The ________ model of schizophrenia provides a general summary of the interplay between genetic factors, prenatal events, brain maturational processes, and stress in the development of schizophrenia.

A. social B. biological C. cultural D. diathesis-stress

In ________, researchers help patients improve some of their neurocognitive deficits and translate these into better overall functioning.

A. social remediation training B. cultural remediation C. cognitive remediation training D. genetic remediation training

Chapter 14

NEUROCOGNITIVE DISORDERS

Agree or disagree?

Contact sports in high school should be eliminated to avoid brain damage to young athletes.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

In contrast to ________ damage, _______ brain lesions involve circumscribed areas of abnormal change in brain structure.

A. focal; diffuse B. diffuse; focal C. traumatic; illness-related D. illness-related; traumatic

For most people…

________ hemisphere = serial processing of familiar information ________ hemisphere = grasping overall meanings

A. right; left B. left; right

True or false?

The psychopathological symptoms that do sometimes accompany brain impairment are not always predictable.

A. True B. False

________ is a state of acute brain failure that is characterized by confusion, disturbed concentration, and cognitive dysfunction.

A. Stupor B. Coma C. Fugue D. Delirium

Dementia implies ________ and is characterized by a _______ from a previous level of functioning.

A. loss; decline B. confusion; increase C. loss; increase D. improvement; standardization

________ is the second most common neurodegenerative disorder and is characterized by motor symptoms such as resting tremors or rigid movements.

A. Alzheimer’s disease B. Dementia C. Huntington’s disease D. Parkinson’s disease

________ is characterized by a chronic, progressive chorea involuntary and irregular movements that flow randomly from one area of the body to another.

A. Huntington’s disease B. Parkinson’s disease C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Dementia

True or false?

Alzheimer’s Disease only affects older people.

A. True B. False

It may be possible to reduce or delay the occurrence of ________ by deliberately limiting exposure to risks.

A. Alzheimer’s disease B. Huntington’s disease C. Parkinson’s disease D. amnestic disorder

In Alzheimer’s disease, a sticky protein substance accumulates into _______ and interferes with synaptic functioning.

A. retrograde amnesia B. anterograde amnesia C. amyloid plaque D. neurofibrillary tangles

When a closed-head injury occurs, ________.

A. the damage is localized B. the damage is a result of the brain colliding with the skull C. post-trauma epilepsy is common D. the skull is bruised

________ are webs of abnormal filaments within a nerve cell.

A. Amyloid plaques B. Tau tangles C. Neurofibrillary tangles D. Beta amyloid clusters

Agree or diagree?

Brain-imaging research allows us to identify people who are going to develop dementia.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

Even a short program of ______ conducted for four months can improve cognitive and physical functioning in elderly patients with Alzheimer’s disease.

A. diet B. exercise C. stress-testing D. psychotherapy

The neuropathology of HIV-associated dementia involves various changes in the brain, among them generalized atrophy, edema inflammation, and patches of ________.

A. fungi B. vascular damage C. dead nerve cells D. demyelination

Prevention of infection remains the only certain strategy for avoiding the cognitive impairments associated with _______.

A. HIV B. dementia C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Huntington’s disease

In ________, a series of interruptions of the blood supply to minute areas of the brain cumulatively destroy neurons over expanding brain regions.

A. amnestic disorder B. vascular dementia C. delirium D. concussion

The characteristic feature of ________ is strikingly disturbed memory.

A. dementia B. amnestic disorder C. delirium D. HIV

The most common causes of traumatic brain injury are _______, followed by _______.

A. falls; motor vehicle accidents B. assaults; sports injuries C. motor vehicle accidents; falls D. sports injuries; assaults

Research suggests that around ________ percent of soldiers who have served in Iraq have experienced a traumatic brain injury.

A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

After a concussion, the brain is four or five times more vulnerable to a ________ impact and this increased vulnerability lasts for several weeks.

A. first B. second C. third D. fourth

Mild brain injuries ________.

A. usually produce no problems B. usually produce short-lived, major problems C. usually produce long-term, minor problems, particularly in older people D. usually produce long-term, major problems, particularly in older people

The kinds of personality changes that emerge in severely damaged people depend, in large measure, on the ________ of their injury.

A. site B. size C. cause D. treatment

Genetic mutations are implicated in early-onset ____________.

A. Alzheimer’s disease B. Huntington’s disease C. Parkinson’s disease D. Amnestic disorder

Chapter 15

DISORDERS OF CHILDHOOD AND ADOLESCENCE

Agree or disagree?

Children with ADD and ADHD should be medicated-even in preschool.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

The most prevalent disorders of childhood and adolescence are ________ and ________.

A. ADHD; separation anxiety disorders B. childhood depression; bipolar disorder C. ADHD; childhood depression D. separation anxiety disorders; bipolar disorder

________ are devoted to studying the origins and course of individual maladaptation in the context of normal growth processes.

A. Neurologists B. Clinical psychiatrists C. Developmental psychopathologists D. Evolutionary psychology

What complicates the diagnosis of maladaptive behavior in childhood?

A. Behavior that is problematic for a child of one age is normal behavior for a child of a different age.

B. The dividing line between childhood and adolescence has been arbitrarily drawn.

C. Most psychological disorders in the young have an identifiable environmental cause.

D. Drugs are not effective in treating the disorders that are most commonly seen in children.

________ is characterized by difficulties that interfere with effective task-oriented behavior in children.

A. Bipolar disorder B. Separation anxiety disorder C. Childhood depression D. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

Although the ________ pharmacological effect of stimulants on the symptoms of hyperactive children is well established, ________ effects are not well known.

A. long term; short term B. short-term; long-term C. neurological; psychological D. psychological; neurological

The essential feature in ________ is a recurrent pattern of negativistic, defiant, disobedient, and hostile behavior toward authority.

The essential symptomatic behavior in ________ involves a persistent, repetitive violation of rules, and a disregard for the rights of others.

A. ADHD; antisocial personality disorder B. oppositional defiant disorder; conduct disorder C. conduct disorder; oppositional defiant disorder D. antisocial personality disorder; ADHD

The family setting of a child with conduct disorder is typically characterized by ________ and ________ parenting.

A. interfering; neglectful B. nurturing; protective C. fearful; overprotective D. strict; punitive

Children with anxiety disorders are ________ than those experiencing normal anxiety.

A. more extreme in their behavior B. less extreme in their behavior

Depressive symptoms are positively correlated with the tendency to attribute ________ events to external, specific, and unstable causes and ________ events to internal, global, and stable causes.

A. internal; external B. external; internal C. positive; negative D. negative; positive

The term _______ refers to the habitual involuntary discharge of urine, usually at night, after the age of expected continence (age _______).

A. enuresis; two B. enuresis; five C. echolalia; three D. echolalia; seven

Stephan, a child with autism, exhibits an inability to take the attitude of others or to see things as others do. This is known as ________.

A. macrocephaly B. hydrocephaly C. mind blindness D. encopresis

________ may appear later than autism and in most cases is not associated with the severe delay in language development and social interactions.

A. ADHD B. Oppositional defiant disorder C. Developmental psychopathology D. Asperger’s disorder

In ________, a person manifests problems in word recognition and reading comprehension; often he or she is markedly deficient in spelling and memory.

A. dyslexia B. autism C. Down syndrome D. echolalia

True or false?

Many classroom teachers and school administrators resort to blaming children with learning disabilities and attributing their problems to various character deficiencies.

A. True B. False

________ is defined as significantly below average general intellectual functioning that is accompanied by significant limitations in adaptive functioning.

A. Down syndrome B. Hydrocephaly C. Macrocephaly D. Mental retardation

________ factors play a much clearer role in the etiology of relatively infrequent but more severe types of mental retardation.

A. Genetic-chromosomal B. Environmental C. Social D. Economic

Agree or disagree?

All children with Down syndrome should be educated in contained classrooms or institutions.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

Bennett has a rare disorder in which the accumulation of an abnormal amount of cerebrospinal fluid within his cranium causes damage to the brain tissues and enlargement of his skull. This condition is known as ________.

A. hydrocephaly B. macrocephaly C. microcephaly D. encopresis

Many children with mild retardation do better when they attend regular classes for much of the day. This type of programming is known as ________.

A. mainstreaming B. restricted programming C. exclusion programming D. awareness programming

The law identifies several areas in which treatment without parental consent is permitted.

One of these includes ________.

A. immature minors B. those considered incapable of making decisions about themselves C. emancipated minors D. non-emergency situations

Children who are physically or sexually abused show problems in social adjustment and are particularly likely to feel that ________.

A. the outcomes of events are determined solely by factors under their control B. the outcomes of events are determined by external factors beyond their own control C. the outcomes of events are determined by their relationships with others D. the outcomes of events are determined by their peers

Agree or disagree?

Adolescents should be tried as adults for felonies and committed to adult correctional facilities if found guilty.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

________ are based on the assumption that delinquent behavior is learned, maintained, and changed according to the same principles as other learned behavior.

A. Psychotherapy techniques B. Behavior therapy techniques C. Psychoanalytical techniques D. Cognitive therapy techniques

The organic type of mental deficit accounts for only ________ percent of all cases of mental retardation.

A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 25

Chapter 16

THERAPY

Agree or disagree?

I would seek therapy if I had a problem.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

The conviction underlying all ________ is the belief that people with psychological problems can change and learn more adaptive ways of perceiving, evaluating, and behaving.

A. psychopharmacology B. systematic desensitization C. psychotherapy D. family therapy

The most obvious candidates for psychological treatment are people experiencing ________.

A. behavioral problems B. social problems C. resistance D. sudden and highly stressful situations

In a therapeutic alliance, there is ________.

A. a sense of working independently on the problem B. agreement between patient and therapist about the goals and tasks of therapy C. a subjective bond between patient and therapist D. a social alliance between patient and therapist.

Beck Depression Inventory and the Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression both yield ________ scores and have become almost standard in the pre- and posttherapy assessment of depression.

A. objective B. subjective C. interpretive D. summary

________ indicates how well a therapist delivers a particular type of therapy and ________ indicates how skillfully the therapist administers the therapy.

A. Therapist adherence; therapist competence B. Therapist competence; therapist adherence C. Therapeutic alliance; therapeutic efficacy D. Therapeutic efficacy; therapeutic alliance

Dr. Smith exploited the trust of his patient when he engaged in a sexual relationship with her.

This is called a(n) ________.

A. imaginal exposure B. in vivo exposure C. boundary violation D. transference

What recent changes have altered the types of therapy that are available?

A. There is an increased need to prove that therapy is effective.

B. Psychiatrists are hesitant to write prescriptions for many drugs.

C. The increased use of nurses as therapy providers has increased the use of drugs in many community health settings.

D. Many popular therapies have been found to do more harm than good.

Many people are now receiving their psychiatric medications from their ________ and are never referred for or do not seek psychotherapy from a mental health specialist.

A. pharmacist B. clinician C. hospital D. primary care physician

A major assumption of behavior therapy is that abnormal behavior is acquired in the same way as normal behavior by _________.

A. instinct B. intervention C. resistance D. learning

When a patient client is confronted with the fear-producing stimulus in a therapeutic manner in a very controlled, slow, and gradual way, this is referred to as ________.

A. systematic desensitization B. gestalt therapy C. response shaping D. exposure therapy

In ________, the client learns new skills by imitating another person, such as a parenor therapist, who performs the behavior to be acquired.

A. resistance B. transference C. flooding D. modeling

In ________, positive reinforcement is used to establish, by gradual approximation, a response that is actively resisted or is not initially in an individual’s behavioral repertoire.

A. resistance B. response shaping C. flooding D. modeling

True or false?

Generally, the more pervasive and vaguely defined the client’s problem, the less likely behavior therapy is to be useful.

A. True B. False

In ________ treatment approaches, it is believed that cognitive processes influence emotion, motivation, and behavior.

A. behaviorally oriented B. socially oriented C. cognitively oriented D. gestalt

The current practice of providing treatment stresses ________.

A. the value of confining a patient to a mental hospital.

B. the individual's responsibility for finding a personal solution to his or her problems.

C. the coordination of services in the community.

D. turning over to the patient's family the responsibility for behavior change.

A fundamental assumption of the ________ is that problems result from biased processing of external events or internal stimuli.

A. behavioral model B. cognitive model C. social model D. psychodynamic model

________ therapists feel that a client must take most of the responsibility for the direction and success of therapy, with the therapist serving merely as counselor, guide, and facilitator.

A. Countertransference B. Motivational interviewing C. Humanistic-experiential D. Structural family

Marcus works in the areas of substance abuse and addiction. He uses a brief form of therapy that can be delivered in one or two sessions to help his clients resolve their ambivalence about change and make a commitment to treatment. This therapy is known as ________.

A. motivational interviewing B. gestalt therapy C. manualized therapy D. rational emotive behavior therapy

Free association, analysis of dreams, analysis of resistance, and analysis of transference are all part of ________.

A. behavior therapy B. integrative behavioral couple therapy C. psychopharmacology D. psychoanalysis

The most extensive revisions of classical psychoanalytic theory undertaken within recent decades have been related to the ________ perspective.

A. psychodynamic B. biological C. cognitive D. object-relations

SSRIs serve to inhibit the reuptake of the neurotransmitter __________ following its release into the synapse. They have become the preferred antidepressant drugs.

A. serotonin B. dopamine C. norepinephrine D. cortisol

The most important and widely used class of antianxiety (or anxiolytic) drugs are the ________.

A. anticonvulsants B. benzodiazepines C. tricyclics D. MAOIs

Reviews evaluating research on ECT have concluded that it is a(n) ________ treatment for patients with severe or psychotic-level depression.

A. non-effective B. effective C. inconclusive

________ is used as a treatment of last resort.

Even when patients improve clinically, they may have permanent, adverse side effects.

A. Psychopharmacology B. Neurosurgery C. Electroconvulsive Therapy D. Deep brain stimulation

Chapter 17

CONTEMPORARY AND LEGAL ISSUES IN ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY

Agree or disagree?

Mental health services should be available for all citizens in the United States.

A. I agree with this statement B. I disagree with this statement

________ alter conditions that can cause or contribute to mental disorders and establish conditions that foster positive mental health.

A. Selective interventions B. Indicated interventions C. Genetic interventions D. Universal interventions

Interventions that are aimed at a specific subgroup of the population considered at risk for developmental health problems are called ________.

A. selective interventions B. indicated interventions C. genetic interventions D. universal interventions

The field of ________ has worked to change the psychological factors underlying unhealthy habits such as smoking, excessive drinking, and poor eating habits.

A. psychopharmacology B. social psychology C. behavioral medicine D. therapeutic medicine

What is the goal of school-based drug and alcohol education programs?

A. To teach children how to recognize the drugs that they might be exposed to B. To ensure that children are educated consumers C. To teach children about drugs so that they can make informed choices D. To scare children away from using drugs

Agree or disagree?

Research indicates that the D.A.R.E. program is ineffective.

A. I agree with this statement.

B. I disagree with this statement.

The most effective way to prevent complex problems like adolescent alcohol and other drug use is through the use of ________ programs that combine aspects of the various strategies.

A. single-strategy B. multicomponent C. cultural D. biological

To prevent long-term consequences, ________ interventions are provided immediately after a disaster.

A. universal B. indicated C. education D. selective

________ focuses on structuring a patient’s environment to provide clear communication of expectations and to get the patient involved in the treatment.

A. Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) B. Milieu therapy C. Maintenance therapy D. Selective therapy

The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) recognizes _________ disorders as one of the 10 leading work-related health problems.

A. social disorders B. behavioral disorders C. personality disorders D. psychological disorders

________ treatment programs are live-in facilities that serve as a home base for former patients as they make the transition back to adequate functioning in the community.

A. Preventative B. Selective C. Indicated D. Aftercare

Yes or no?

Do mentally ill men and women who are incarcerated actually receive mental health treatment?

A. Yes B. No

Being mentally ill ________ sufficient grounds for placing a person in a mental institution against his or her will.

A. is B. is not

An increased risk of violence appears more likely among some who are experiencing symptoms of ________.

A. paralysis B. psychosis C. dementia D. amnestic disorder

Yes or no?

If a person commits a capital offense when his or her consciousness is impaired, should he or she be held responsible for the crime?

A. Yes B. No

Violent acts are particularly difficult to predict because they are apparently determined as much by ________ as by an individual’s personality traits or violent predispositions.

A. genetics B. biological factors C. socioeconomic factors D. situational circumstances

The ________ spelled out a therapist’s responsibility in situations where there has been an explicit threat on a specific person’s life.

A. Megan’s Law B. duty-to-warn ruling C. right to compensation for work D. right to refuse treatment

The underlying assumption of the ________ suggests that being that insanity somehow precludes or absolves the harboring of a guilty intent.

A. irresistible impulse rule B. Durham rule C. M’Naghten rule D. insanity defense

Under the ________, people are assumed to be sane unless it can be proved that at the time of committing the act they were laboring under such a defect of reason.

A. Durham Rule B. irresistible impulse rule C. M’Naghten Rule D. Federal Insanity Defense Reform act

Doctrine of the ________ suggests that accused persons might not be responsible for their acts— even when they knew that what they were doing was wrong (provided they had lost the power to choose between right and wrong).

A. Durham Rule B. M’Naghten Rule C. Federal Insanity Defense Reform act (IDRA) D. irresistible impulse rule

The _______ sets the standard for the defense to be applied in all federal jurisdictions.

A. Federal Insanity Defense Reform ACT (IDRA) B. Durham Rule C. M’Naghten Rule D. irresistible impulse rule

The ________ is the largest national community-based organization advocating for people with intellectual and developmental disabilities.

A. ARC B. NIH C. AABT D. NMHA

World Health Organization’s estimate that mental disorders affect more than ________ million people worldwide, partly because of the significant world refugee crisis.

A. 50 B. 100 C. 200 D. 300

True or false?

Within our own country and the rest of the industrialized world, progress in prolonging life has brought with it increasing problems in the prevalence of disorders associated with advanced age.

A. True B. False

Patients who require longer treatments or need inpatient hospitalization are typically ________ served in managed care organizations A. well B. not well

Butcher 15e CRS Answer Key – Chapter 1 Slide 1-Title 2-Agree/Disagree 3-A 4-A 5-C 6-C 7-A 8-D 9-B 10-A 11-A 12-A 13-C 14-D 15-B 16-C 17-B 18-A 19-B 20-C 21-B 22-C 23-A 24-B 25-C 26-A

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Butcher 15e CRS Answer Key – Chapter 3 Slide 1-Title 2- Agree/Disagree 3-D 4-A 5-A 6-B 7-B 8-A 9-B 10-C 11-A 12-A 13-A 14-D 15-C 16-D 17-A 18-B 19-C 20-C 21-D 22-A 23-C 24-C 25-A 26-A

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Butcher 15e CRS Answer Key – Chapter 15 Slide 1-Title 2- Agree/Disagree 3-A 4-C 5-A 6-D 7-B 8-B 9-A 10-A 11-C 12-B 13-C 14-D 15-A 16-A 17-D 18-A 19- Agree/Disagree 20-C 21-C 22-C 23-B 24- Agree/Disagree 25-B 26-D

Butcher 15e CRS Answer Key – Chapter 16 Slide 1-Title 2- Agree/Disagree 3-C 4-D 5-B 6-D 7-A 8-C 9-A 10-D 11-D 12-D 13-D 14-B 15-A 16-C 17-C 18-B 19-C 20-A 21-D 22-D 23-A 24-B 25-B 26-B

Butcher 15e CRS Answer Key – Chapter 17 Slide 1-Title 2- Agree/Disagree 3-D 4-A 5-C 6-C 7- Agree/Disagree 8-B 9-B 10-B 11-D 12-D 13- Agree/Disagree 14-B 15-B 16- Agree/Disagree 17-D 18-B 19-D 20-C 21-D 22-A 23-A 24-C 25-A 26-B

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