Radiologic Science for Limited Scope Practitioners
Question Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides an introduction to the fundamental principles and practices of radiologic science, tailored for limited scope practitioners responsible for conducting basic diagnostic imaging procedures. Students will explore essential topics including radiation physics, image production, radiographic anatomy, and patient positioning. Emphasis is placed on radiation safety, federal and state regulations, and ethical considerations specific to limited radiography. Through a combination of classroom instruction and laboratory experience, learners will develop the foundational skills necessary to produce high-quality diagnostic images while ensuring patient safety and adhering to professional standards.
Recommended Textbook
Radiography Essentials for Limited Practice 4th Edition by Bruce W. Long
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26 Chapters
1134 Verified Questions
1134 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Role of the Limited X-Ray Machine Operator
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Sample Questions
Q1) A term for a physician who has completed extensive additional training to qualify as an expert in a particular aspect of practice is a:
A) doctor.
B) specialist.
C) chiropractor.
D) practitioner.
Answer: B
Q2) The imaging modality that uses contrast media to image blood vessels is called: A) mammography.
B) positron emission tomography.
C) sonography.
D) angiography.
Answer: D
Q3) X-rays were discovered in 1895 by: A) Coolidge.
B) Crookes.
C) Roentgen.
D) Edison.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Introduction to Radiographic Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding scatter radiation is true?
A) Scatter radiation is another term for remnant radiation.
B) Scatter radiation is created within the tube with the primary beam.
C) Scatter radiation has less energy than the primary beam.
D) Scatter radiation travels in one direction and is easy to control.
Answer: C
Q2) X-rays that leave the x-ray tube exit via the:
A) tube housing.
B) tube port.
C) patient.
D) image receptor system.
Answer: B
Q3) The boxlike device attached under the tube housing that allows the limited operator to vary the size of the radiation field is called a: A) collimator.
B) transformer.
C) detent.
D) tube port.
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Basic Mathematics for Limited Operators
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following exposures will create the greatest radiographic density?
A) 100 mAs at 40" SID
B) 200 mAs at 72" SID
C) 100 mAs at 36" SID
D) 200 mAs at 80" SID
Answer: A
Q2) A fraction in which the top number is larger than the bottom number is called a(n)_____ fraction.
A) proper
B) unnatural
C) improper
D) unconverted
Answer: C
Q3) What is a numerator?
A) The answer to a multiplication problem
B) The answer to a division problem
C) The bottom or lower number of a fraction
D) The upper or top number of a fraction
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Basic Physics of Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following energy types occurs in the form of a sine wave?
A) Magnetic energy
B) Kinetic energy
C) Electromagnetic energy
D) Thermal energy
Q2) Which of the following particles are located in an orbit around the nucleus of an atom?
A) Protons
B) Electrons
C) Neutrons
D) Positrons
Q3) The smallest possible unit of electromagnetic energy is the:
A) photon.
B) electron.
C) nucleus.
D) atom.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: X-Ray Production
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most x-ray tubes in use today have a standard rotation speed of ______ rpm.
A) 1,500
B) 2,000
C) 3,600
D) 10,000
Q2) A steeper target angle provides:
A) more heat capacity.
B) lower patient dose.
C) less anode heel effect.
D) smaller effective focal spot.
Q3) When exposure time is very short,the time is usually measured in:
A) milliseconds.
B) deciseconds.
C) kiloelectron volts.
D) angstroms.
Q4) The penetrating power of the x-ray beam is controlled by varying the:
A) anode angle.
B) anode speed.
C) milliamperage.
D) kilovoltage.
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Chapter 6: X-Ray Circuit and Tube Heat Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some x-ray generators are programmable and the exposure factors from the technique chart can be programmed into the generator. This system is called:
A) manual exposure control.
B) programmed exposure control.
C) automatic exposure control (AEC).
D) anatomically programmed radiography (APR).
Q2) Exposure times that are as low as 0.001 sec are typical of a(n):
A) mechanical timer.
B) synchronous (impulse) timer.
C) electronic timer.
D) phototimer.
Q3) Which of the following x-ray generators will produce the greatest amount of heat for the same exposure technique?
A) 1-phase
B) 3-phase
C) 3-phase, 12-pulse
D) High-frequency
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8
Chapter 7: Principles of Exposure and Image Quality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two exposures are made using the following technical factors: Image A: 500 mA,0.05 seconds,72 kVp
Image B: 200 mA,0.125 seconds,72 kVp
Which image would have the greater density?
A) Image A
B) Image B
C) Image A and B would exhibit equal density.
D) Density cannot be determined because no SID was provided.
Q2) The primary controlling factor of penetration of x-rays is:
A) mA.
B) kVp.
C) SID.
D) exposure time.
Q3) Tissue density refers to the ________ of the body part.
A) density of muscle
B) density of fat
C) mass density or atomic number
D) density of bone
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Chapter 8: Digital Image Receptor Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a CR plate is inserted into the reader for processing,the phosphor is scanned with a:
A) green/blue light.
B) fluorescent light.
C) white light.
D) laser beam.
Q2) Which of the following artifacts can appear in the radiographic image if the CR imaging plate is not erased properly?
A) Light spots
B) Edge enhancement
C) Quantum mottle
D) Phantom or ghost images
Q3) Which control on the viewing station can blacken the clear or white areas around the collimation edges of a radiograph?
A) Shuttering
B) Image stitching
C) Window width
D) Window level
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Chapter 9: Scatter Radiation and Its Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing the beam alignment test,the x-ray tube must be within ____ degree(s)of perpendicular to be in control.
A) 1
B) 1.5
C) 2
D) 3
Q2) Compton scatter that is directed from the patient back toward the x-ray tube is called:
A) backscatter.
B) front scatter.
C) side scatter.
D) coherent scatter.
Q3) If the size of the x-ray field increases,what happens to scatter radiation fog?
A) It increases.
B) It decreases.
C) It remains the same.
D) It increases for the thorax, abdomen, and pelvis projections only.
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Chapter 10: Formulating X-Ray Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pathologic conditions require an increase in exposure factors?
1) Pneumonia
2) Paget disease
3) Bowel obstruction
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) What is the major limitation in obtaining images of obese patients?
A) A strong enough table to hold the patient
B) Reduced resolution due to motion
C) Inadequate penetration of the body part
D) Inability to adjust the mAs high enough
Q3) Technique charts are based on patient-body part measurements obtained using an x-ray caliper. These measurements are expressed as:
A) circumference in inches.
B) part thickness in centimeters.
C) diameter in centimeters.
D) part thickness and width in inches.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Radiobiology and Radiation Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can the limited operator do to keep radiation exposure to patients as low as reasonably achievable?
1) Use a small radiation field.
2) Use the highest kVp possible.
3) Never use an SID below 40-in.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) What is the guiding philosophy of radiation protection?
A) ALARMA-as long as radiographs are made accessible
B) ALARA-as low as reasonably achievable
C) ALAIS-as long as ionizations are small
D) ALAP-as low as possible
Q3) Which of the following would not be a mutation as a result of radiation to the gonads?
A) Cleft palate
B) Spina bifida
C) Polydactyly
D) Leukemia
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Anatomy, positioning, and Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An axial projection is achieved when the:
A) patient is in a recumbent position.
B) CR "skims" the profile of the part.
C) CR is angled longitudinally more than 10 degrees.
D) CR is horizontal.
Q2) Which of the following are parts of the appendicular skeleton?
1) Skull
2) Pelvis
3) Extremities
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Refer to the diagram in question 66. What is the projection?
A) AP
B) PA
C) Lateral
D) Tangential
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Chapter 13: Upper Extremity and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the position of the thumb on a PA projection of the hand?
A) Lateral
B) Oblique
C) Anatomic position
D) Modified teacup
Q2) What is the proper patient position for the AP oblique projection (Grashey method)of the shoulder?
A) Patient's coronal plane is placed 35 to 45 degrees to the IR with the posterolateral aspect of shoulder in contact with table or upright Bucky.
B) Patient's MSP is placed 35 to 45 degrees to the IR with the posterolateral aspect of shoulder in contact with table or upright Bucky.
C) Patient's coronal plane is placed 35 to 45 degrees to the IR with the anterolateral aspect of shoulder in contact with table or upright Bucky.
D) Patient's MSP is placed 35 to 45 degrees to the IR with the anterolateral aspect of shoulder in contact with table or upright Bucky.
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15
Chapter 14: Lower Extremity and Pelvis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to an AP projection,which of the following should be used to image the hip of a patient with a suspected fracture?
A) Lateral projection of the pelvis
B) AP oblique projection of the pelvis (modified Cleaves method)
C) Lateral projection of the hip (frog-leg lateral)
D) Axiolateral projection (Danelius-Miller method)
Q2) Where is the medial malleolus located?
A) On the anterior aspect of the knee joint
B) On the lateral aspect of the knee joint
C) On the anterior aspect of the ankle joint
D) On the medial aspect of the ankle joint
Q3) Where does the CR enter the patient for the AP projection of the first toe?
A) Base of the third metatarsal
B) Proximal IP joint
C) Metatarsophalangeal joint
D) Distal IP joint
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Chapter 15: Spine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following join to form the posterior portion (vertebral arch)of a vertebra?
A) Transverse and spinous processes
B) Body and vertebral foramen
C) Transverse process and articular facet
D) Pedicle and lamina
Q2) When viewing an AP projection of the upper cervical spine (open-mouth technique),you notice that the base of the skull is superimposed over the dens. What positioning error caused this?
A) The patient's neck was extended too much.
B) The patient's neck was flexed too much.
C) The patient's mouth was not open wide enough.
D) There is no positioning error in the image; this is the way the anatomy is supposed to be demonstrated.
Q3) What is the odontoid process and where is it located?
A) A sharp process on the inferior surface of C1
B) A toothlike projection on the superior surface of C2
C) A rounded prominence on the posterior aspect of C7
D) A palpable landmark on the mandible
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Bony Thorax, Chest, and Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many lobes are in the left lung?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Two
D) One
Q2) When taking a PA projection of the chest,the recommended SID is ______ inches.
A) 30
B) 40
C) 60
D) 72
Q3) Which ribs are best demonstrated when the exposure is made after the patient has suspended respirations after expiration?
A) Ribs 1 to 5
B) Ribs 1 to 9
C) Ribs 8 to 12
D) Ribs 10 to 12
Q4) Which lung has three lobes?
A) The right lung
B) The left lung
C) Both lungs
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Chapter 17: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the right and left halves of the skull do not appear symmetrical on a PA or AP projection,this is a sign that the:
A) neck is extended too much.
B) neck is flexed too much.
C) sagittal plane is not perpendicular to the IR.
D) central ray is not angled correctly.
Q2) When the patient is supine,the midsagittal plane of the skull is perpendicular to the IR,the orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the IR,and the central ray is angled 30 degrees caudad,the resulting radiograph demonstrates the:
A) frontal bone.
B) temporal bones.
C) posterior parietal bones and the occipital bone.
D) maxillary sinuses.
Q3) The depression on the anterior surface of the skull between the orbits is called the: A) acanthion.
B) inner canthus.
C) infraorbital margin.
D) nasion.
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Chapter 18: Radiography of Pediatric and Geriatric Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) A large group of disorders associated with brain damage or impaired cerebral function is called:
A) osteopenia.
B) osteoporosis.
C) Parkinson disease.
D) organic brain syndrome.
Q2) Which of the following diseases associated with the geriatric population has the early characteristic symptom of fine tremors in the hands or feet that eventually spread to the entire body?
A) Parkinson disease
B) Alzheimer disease
C) Osteopenia
D) Diverticulitis
Q3) The term geriatrics refers to the specialized care of:
A) the elderly.
B) children.
C) feet.
D) the GI tract.
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Chapter 19: Image Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What error is evident in Figure 19-2?
A) The image is underexposed.
B) An artifact is present.
C) The radiation field is not centered over the anatomy.
D) Anatomy is not oriented correctly for this projection.
Q2) Radiographs made with the patient in the ______ position are usually hung horizontally.
A) supine
B) prone
C) decubitus
D) upright
Q3) Which of the following errors are evident in Figure 19-3?
1) The anatomy of interest is not centered to the IR.
2) There is too much density.
3) The blocker is in the anatomy of interest.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Ethics, Legal Considerations, and Professionalism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A limited operator innocently commits an error as the result of following the orders of his or her employer,a physician. The employer may be held responsible according to which of the following?
A) ASRT code of ethics
B) Rule of professional responsibility
C) Doctrine of respondeat superior
D) Doctrine of non compos mentis
Q2) Which of the following are true regarding informed consent?
1) Informed consent may be revoked at any time.
2) Patient must be legally competent to sign.
3) Patient may sign an incomplete form and the blanks may be filled in later by the physician.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 21: Safety and Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chest radiographs and skin tests involving intradermal injections are tools used to screen for:
A) HIV and AIDS.
B) hepatitis B.
C) tuberculosis.
D) pneumonia.
Q2) Which term refers to any medium that transports microorganisms?
A) Vehicle
B) Vector
C) Fomite
D) Cycle of infection
Q3) How is tuberculosis (TB)transmitted?
A) Sexual contact
B) Direct contact
C) Spread by airborne transmission
D) Spread by droplet transmission
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Assessing Patients and Managing Acute Situations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hot,dry skin is often an indication of:
A) pain.
B) fever.
C) lack of oxygen.
D) loss of blood.
Q2) The normal pulse rate for an adult is _____ beats per minutes.
A) 90 to 100
B) 60 to 100
C) 50 to 80
D) 100 to 120
Q3) Which of the following are symptoms of shock?
1) Cool,clammy skin
2) Increased pulse rate
3) Confusion
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 23: Medications and Their Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to describe the condition in which IV fluids leak into surrounding tissues?
A) Infiltration
B) Infusion
C) Injection
D) Exjection
Q2) The needle enters the skin at an angle of 45 degrees when making an injection by which route?
A) Intradermal route
B) Subcutaneous route
C) Intramuscular route
D) Intravenous route
Q3) The principal role of the limited operator in medication administration involves:
A) determining what drug is needed.
B) determining the dose to be administered.
C) determining the route of administration.
D) preparing the medication for administration and monitoring the patient after it has been given.
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25
Chapter 24: Medical Laboratory Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) Standard precautions are used when drawing blood specimens to avoid the risk of:
A) contaminating the sample.
B) spilling the blood.
C) injuring the patient.
D) transmitting a blood-borne infection to the health care worker.
Q2) Poisonous refuse or waste that is dangerous to living creatures is termed which of the following?
A) Biohazardous waste
B) Sharps waste
C) Isolation waste
D) Contaminated waste
Q3) If the collection tube fails to fill with blood during the venipuncture procedure,the most likely cause is which of the following?
A) Damage to the tube
B) Damage to the needle
C) Failure to secure the tourniquet correctly
D) Failure to place the tip of the needle correctly within the vein
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Chapter 25: Additional Procedures for Assessment and Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a 12-lead ECG,how many of the leads are standard leads?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 10
D) 12
Q2) What tool is used to measure distance vision?
A) Ishihara test
B) Snellen chart
C) ECG machine
D) FVC test
Q3) Hyperopia is commonly referred to as which of the following?
A) Nearsightedness
B) Farsightedness
C) Crossed eyes
D) Color blindness
Q4) Persons who are unable to see normally at a distance have:
A) myopia.
B) hyperopia.
C) presbyopia.
D) hypopia.
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Chapter 26: Bone Densitometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two basic types of bone?
A) Cortical and trabecular
B) Cortical and compact
C) Trabecular and cancellous
D) Trabecular and os calcis
Q2) What does BMD stand for,as it relates to osteoporosis testing?
A) Body mass determination
B) Bone mineral density
C) Bone muscle distribution
D) Biomass density
Q3) Which BMD measurement score indicates the number of SDs from the average BMD for the patient's respective age and sex group?
A) T-score
B) W-score
C) V-score
D) Z-score
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