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Quantitative Methods in Marketing introduces students to the analytical tools and statistical techniques used to address complex marketing challenges. The course covers data-driven decision-making processes, including topics such as survey design, experimental analysis, market segmentation, and demand forecasting. Students learn to apply quantitative models, such as regression analysis, conjoint analysis, and cluster analysis, to interpret consumer data and evaluate marketing strategies. Emphasis is placed on using software tools for data analysis and developing actionable insights to support marketing decisions in dynamic business environments.
Recommended Textbook MR2 2nd Edition by Tom J. Brown
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT consistent with the definition of marketing research?
A) The definition is broad.
B) The definition stresses the importance of activities conducted in order to understand the process of marketing.
C) The definition emphasizes the function as a link between consumers and the firm.
D) The definition states that marketing research is focused on collecting information.
E) Neither b nor d is consistent with the definition.
Answer: D
Q2) The basic purpose of all marketing research is to help develop new products. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) ____________________ research is not custom designed for a particular client, but is designed and collected by the research company and sold to multiple clients.
Answer: Syndicated
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Q1) ____________________ decision problems are common with unplanned changes in the marketing environment.
Answer: Discovery-oriented
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE?
A) Many managers cannot clearly and precisely state the nature of the decision problem they want investigated.
B) Managers do not need to be actively involved in the marketing research process.
C) If a decision-maker will not change his decision regardless of the result of the research, the research should still be conducted for informational purposes.
D) A researcher should not worry about the decision alternatives as decision-makers typically provide researchers with a complete list of them.
E) All of the above statements are true.
Answer: A
Q3) A(n) ____________________ is a restatement of the decision problem in research terms, from the researcher's perspective.
Answer: research problem
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Q1) Which research design(s) is (are) typically guided by an initial hypothesis?
A) Causal
B) Descriptive
C) Exploratory
D) Exploratory and causal
E) Descriptive and causal
Answer: E
Q2) Focus groups have proven productive for all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) determining the feelings of the general population.
B) generating hypotheses to be tested further.
C) stimulating ideas for new products.
D) interpreting previously obtained results.
E) developing lists of characteristics on which consumers evaluate products.
Answer: A
Q3) An advantage of sample surveys is the ability to use a probability sampling plan that will allow the results of the sample to be projected to the overall population.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Q1) The use of analytic techniques to explore the data held within a dataset in order to isolate useful information is called ____________________.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of primary data collection?
A) Telephone survey of manufacturers.
B) Computerized literature search of Google.com to learn about the U.S. trade deficit.
C) Asking restaurant patrons to complete a survey after their meal and dropping it in the suggestion box before exiting.
D) Observation of oil patches in driveways of homes to determine the socioeconomic status of the neighborhood.
E) An academic experiment using graduate students in a retailing course as subjects to determine how different retailers measure customer satisfaction.
Q3) The most important advantage(s) of secondary data is(are) that:
A) it is appropriate for many purposes.
B) it is usually more thoroughly tested and evaluated.
C) it may involve additional field and office personnel.
D) there could be possible cost and time savings.
E) it provides a welcome rest in the library.
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Q1) ____________________ observation is more likely to be used in exploratory research than in descriptive or causal research.
Q2) One of the common indices used to measure the short-term success of an ad is "day-after-recall."
A)True
B)False
Q3) Demographic and socioeconomic characteristics correlate highly with purchase intentions for specific brands.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A common use of demographic and socioeconomic data in marketing is:
A) delineating market segments.
B) investigating intentions to purchase.
C) relating attitudes to opinions.
D) discovering motivations.
E) determining brand awareness.
Q5) A motive is any inner state that directs behavior toward goals.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Jane Doe wants to administer a short survey on "student driving habits" to a representative sample of students at the local university. She secures a list of students from the student directory. She assigns each student a unique number and then uses a random number table to select her sample. The student directory from which Jane selects her sample of students to contact is referred to as:
A) sampling frame.
B) sampling control.
C) sampling error.
D) sampling directory.
E) None of the above.
Q2) The amount of knowledge about the purpose of a study communicated to the respondent is called ____________________.
Q3) Although fixed-alternative questions tend to provide the most reliable responses, they may also ____.
A) deceive the respondent
B) hide the purpose of the study
C) encourage misleading answers
D) avoid possible replies
E) obstructs factual information
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Q1) You have been assigned the task of evaluating consumer acceptance of, and favorability toward, a new product that a company has just test marketed in your area. In order to determine the degree to which consumers hold favorable attitudes toward the product, what is the lowest level of scale that you can use?
A) Nominal
B) Ordinal
C) Interval
D) Ratio
E) Need more information
Q2) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to a nominally classified variable?
A) Counting is the only permissible operation.
B) The median is a permissible measure of central tendency.
C) The only property conveyed by the number is identity.
D) When members of a sample have been classified along a nominal scale, it is possible to say what percentage of the sample is classified a certain way.
E) The mode is a permissible measure of central tendency.
Q3) Discuss in detail the two types of errors that may affect measurement scores.
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Q1) The words occasionally, sometimes, regularly and often are considered ambiguous.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A researcher developing a questionnaire becomes aware of an interesting additional relationship that could be investigated at very little cost and effort. He knows that this is not vital to his present research purpose. He should:
A) investigate it to a limited extent.
B) forget it.
C) evaluate the cost.
D) investigate it carefully.
E) investigate it, as this is likely to reduce sampling error.
Q3) A recruiting script is a(n):
A) introduction to a questionnaire.
B) method of statistical analysis.
C) list containing respondent details.
D) type of rating scale.
E) example of response order bias.
Q4) A(n) ____________________ question is framed so as to give the respondent a clue as to how he or she should answer.
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Q1) Andy was a senior in college majoring in marketing. He received a call to participate in a survey on behalf of a company that was targeting graduating seniors. At the end of the survey, Andy was asked for the name of a friend who was also a senior in marketing. This is an example of a "referral or snowball" sample.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The distinguishing feature of probability samples is that:
A) they involve personal judgment somewhere in the selection of sample elements.
B) each population element has an equal chance of being included in the sample.
C) each population element has an equal chance of being included in the sample and every combination of n population elements is a sample possibility.
D) each population element has a known chance of being included in the sample. E) they will always be more representative of the population than nonprobability samples.
Q3) In stratified random sampling, a sample of population units is randomly selected from each stratum of the population.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Blame for response errors can lay with the researcher, respondent or both.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following does NOT lead to response bias?
A) Errors in asking questions
B) Errors in recording answers
C) Errors in probing when additional information is required
D) Errors due to cheating
E) A poorly specified sampling frame
Q3) Not-at-home nonresponse bias is most affected by sample size.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Much nonsampling error occurs during "data collection" process in the field. These "data collection" errors may be divided into
A) Data error in; data error out.
B) Noncoverage error and nonrespondent error.
C) Intentional error and office error.
D) Response error and office error.
E) None of the above.
Q5) Discuss at least five (5) ways in which response rates might be improved.
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Q1) ____________________ is the process of transforming raw data into symbols.
Q2) Which of the following might NOT be an appropriate strategy for dealing with missing information on a questionnaire?
A) Throw out the entire questionnaire.
B) Overlook the missing information and code the remaining answers.
C) Substitute information based on the responses of similar respondents.
D) Both a and c only.
E) All of the above might be appropriate.
Q3) Which of the following strategies for handling missing data makes maximum use of the data?
A) Substituting values for the missing data.
B) Reporting the number of blanks as a separate category.
C) Eliminating the case with the missing data in analyses using the variable(s) for which data is missing.
D) Eliminating questionnaires with missing data.
E) None of the above.
Q4) Blunders are errors that occur during editing, coding or especially data entry.
A)True
B)False
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Independently
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Q1) Which of the following is true regarding the standard deviation?
A) It indicates the degree of variation in the values in such a way as to be translatable into a normal curve.
B) One standard deviation above and below the midpoint in a normal distribution includes approximately 68% of the area underneath the curve.
C) + or - 1.96 standard deviations above and below the midpoint in a normal distribution includes 95% of the area underneath the curve.
D) The standard deviation can be approximated by dividing the range of the data by 6.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q2) The use of the t-statistic in a hypothesis test with two means requires the assumption that it involves two independent samples. A)True B)False
Q3) The arithmetic mean value across all responses for a variable is called the ____________________ mean.
Q4) Discuss the most commonly used descriptive statistics.
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Simultaneously
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Q1) The manager of New England Patriots conducted a large survey. He wanted to know if there was an association between fans being "season ticket holders" vs. "non-season ticket holders" and whether they "bought" vs. "didn't buy" team merchandise at the game. Since his survey included these measurements, he used SPSS to run a Pearson correlation coefficient that turned out to be 0.88 with a Sig. value of .001. This meant there is a significant relationship.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The upper limit of the Pearson chi-square test of independence is limited by A) sample size.
B) the distribution of cases across the cells.
C) degrees of freedom.
D) Both a and b
E) a, b, and c.
Q3) All other variables held constant, a 95% confidence interval will give us a narrower range than will a 99% confidence interval.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Technical details of the sampling or complex details of tables and charts are placed in the ____________________.
Q2) A written report may be considered incomplete because :
A) it is too brief.
B) it includes interesting but not vital information.
C) it is too long.
D) it includes statistical calculations unfamiliar to the reader.
E) All of the above are sources of report incompleteness.
Q3) Which of the following is TRUE for the technical aspects of a research report?
A) The technical sophistication of the report reader should act as a guide for the technical sophistication of the report.
B) Technical jargon impresses the report reader.
C) The technical capacity of the reader is unimportant as far as the research report is concerned. Rather, the reader's interest is critical in determining the content of the report.
D) Both a and b
E) All of the above are correct.
Q4) If the body of the report uses references, the report should include a ____________________.
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