

Physiology for Physician Assistant Programs
Exam Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of human physiology tailored for physician assistant students, focusing on the fundamental mechanisms that govern the function of the bodys organ systems. Emphasizing the integration of cellular processes and organ system regulation, topics include neurophysiology, cardiovascular physiology, respiratory dynamics, renal function, gastrointestinal physiology, endocrine control, and musculoskeletal interactions. The curriculum bridges basic scientific principles with clinical applications, preparing students to understand physiological responses to disease states, therapeutic interventions, and clinical assessments. Critical thinking and problem-solving skills are developed through case studies, laboratory exercises, and interactive discussions relevant to patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology An Integrated Approach 7th Edition by Silverthorn
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26 Chapters
3071 Verified Questions
3071 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1214

Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Table 1.3.
A.Write a hypothesis regarding the effects of breakfast consumption on reaction time.
B.What is the dependent variable? What is the independent variable?
Answer: A.A prediction such as "Eating breakfast prior to testing improves reaction time of subjects (compared to subjects who did not eat breakfast)" is appropriate.
B.The independent variable is breakfast consumption; the dependent variable is reaction time.
Q2) Place these terms in the typical sequence in which they appear in the process of scientific inquiry: experimental data, theory, model, observation, hypothesis, replication.
A) experimental data, theory, model, observation, hypothesis, replication
B) replication, hypothesis, experimental data, theory, model, observation
C) theory, observation, experimental data, hypothesis, replication, model
D) observation, replication, model, experimental data, hypothesis, theory
E) observation, hypothesis, experimental data, replication, model, theory
Answer: E
Q3) Why are physiology and anatomy frequently studied together?
Answer: This is discussed in the "Physiology Is an Integrative Science"
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Chapter 2: Molecular Interactions
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149 Verified Questions
149 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ of a solution is the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration, expressed in moles per liter of solution.
Answer: pH
Q2) Nucleotides participate in which of the following functions?
A) They combine with oxygen to produce energy.
B) They are the building blocks of proteins like cell receptors.
C) They form structural elements in the cell membrane.
D) They transfer energy and are part of genetic material.
E) They store glucose as fat.
Answer: D
Q3) A free radical is a
A) charged particle.
B) molecule with an extra electron.
C) molecule with an extra neutron.
D) molecule with an extra proton.
E) molecule with an unpaired electron.
Answer: E
Q4) When a nitrogenous base is bonded to a pentose sugar and a phosphate, a ________ is formed.
Answer: nucleotide

Page 4
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Chapter 3: Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues
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160 Verified Questions
160 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are synthesized along various sites of the endoplasmic reticulum except one.Identify the exception.
A) proteins
B) fatty acids
C) steroids
D) RNA
E) phospholipids
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT True regarding mitochondria?
A) The outer mitochondrial membrane is responsible for its shape.
B) The intermembrane space is used in the production of ATP.
C) Mitochondria contain their own DNA and RNA.
D) Mitochondria can replicate themselves only when directed by the cell's nuclear DNA.
E) Mitochondria are responsible for providing energy to the cell.
Answer: D
Q3) Describe the progression of a fertilized egg, from totipotent cell through pluripotent and multipotent stem cells.How might stem cells be of therapeutic value? What is plasticity?
Answer: This is discussed in the "Tissue Remodeling"
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Page 5

Chapter 4: Energy and Cellular Metabolism
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146 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is there a range of 30-32 ATP molecules produced from one glucose molecule?
A) Sometimes the electron transport system is more efficient than other times.
B) The NADH molecules produced during glycolysis are in the cytoplasm; occasionally, electrons are carried by the lower energy FADH instead of NADH.
C) Individual variation is normal among cells.
D) Any of these answers may work under different cellular conditions.
Q2) Glucose is phosphorylated to ________ with a phosphate from ________.
Q3) Create a map that integrates the following terms: alternative splicing, constitutive, interference, mRNA, post-translation modification, regulated, repression, induction, translation, and tRNA.Add terms as needed.
Q4) Regulatory-protein transcription factors bind to ________ and activate ________, which tells the RNA polymerase ________.
Q5) Transcription factors are proteins whose binding to the ________ region for a gene can ________ (increase)or ________ (decrease)expression of that gene.
Q6) A molecule of ________ consists of all the codons needed to produce a specific polypeptide chain at the ribosome.
Q7) The enzyme ________ and ________ ions are required for the synthesis of mRNA.
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Chapter 5: Membrane Dynamics
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144 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cell membrane that is selectively permeable
A) randomly chooses which substances will pass through.
B) can change which substances pass through by changing its lipid and protein content. C) is impermeable to all substances but water.
D) will only allow substances in or out if their concentration in the cell is above or below a certain point.
Q2) Membrane protein pores that are essentially always open are called ________ or ________ channels.
Q3) Water is a polar molecule, yet it easily moves through the nonpolar portions of cell membranes.Which transport process is responsible?
A) facilitated diffusion
B) simple diffusion
C) uniport
D) symport
E) antiport
Q4) A pump that helps maintain an electrical gradient, such as the Na -K -ATPase is a(n)________ pump.
Q5) Describe the distribution of water in the body's fluid compartments.
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Chapter 6: Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis
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82 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A few gases are known to act as signal molecules, including ________, ________, and ________.
Q2) What general action is shared by about half of the medical drugs currently in use?
Q3) Compare and contrast the four basic methods of cell-to-cell communication.
Q4) What by-product results during the production of nitric oxide?
A) arginine
B) citrulline
C) nitric oxide synthase
D) carbon monoxide
E) carbon dioxide
Q5) Receptor molecules are located
A) only in the outer cell membrane.
B) only in the cytosol.
C) only in the nucleus.
D) only on the cell surface.
E) in all of these places.
Q6) Homeostatic regulation usually involves a(n)________ that is sensitive to a particular stimulus (variable)and a(n)________ whose activity has an effect on the same stimulus.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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76 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) lipophobic molecule that interacts with receptors on cell surface
A)peptide hormone
B)steroid hormone
C)amino acid-derived hormone
D)anterior pituitary
E)hypothalamus
F)posterior pituitary
Q2) ________ is a decrease in the number of receptors of target cells in order to dampen the effects of excess hormone.
Q3) The sex hormones that regulate the male and female reproductive organs are collectively called ________.
Q4) Chemical signals released into the blood by neurons are called ________.
Q5) What normally stops hormone action, and why is this important?
Q6) True endocrine gland of epithelial origin
A)peptide hormone
B)steroid hormone
C)amino acid-derived hormone
D)anterior pituitary
E)hypothalamus
F)posterior pituitary
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Chapter 8: Neurons: Cellular and Network Properties
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229 Verified Questions
229 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a channelopathy, and what are some examples?
Q2) If an axon has an absolute refractory period of 2 msec, what is the maximum frequency of action potential (AP)production in that neuron?
Q3) A damaged neuron has a better chance of survival and repair if the ________ is/are undamaged.
A) cell body
B) axon
C) dendrites
D) Schwann cells
E) axon and dendrites
Q4) cells that are a source of neural stem cells
A)ependymal cells
B)astrocytes
C)satellite cells
D)Schwann cells
E)oligodendrocytes
F)microglia
Q5) oligodendrocytes
A)central nervous system
B)peripheral nervous system

10
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Chapter 9: The Central Nervous System
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107 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe cerebrospinal fluid flow from secretion to absorption.
Q2) small area that relays signals for auditory and visual reflexes as well as eye movement
A)medulla oblongata
B)pons
C)midbrain
D)reticular formation
Q3) ventral horn
A)structure is composed of gray matter
B)structure is composed of white matter
Q4) There are three divisions of the brain.Make a table and place each of the six regions of the brain in one of the three divisions.
Q5) In vertebrates, the CNS is protected by bony cases, the brain inside the ________, while the spinal cord runs through a canal inside the ________.
Q6) corpus callosum
A)structure is composed of gray matter
B)structure is composed of white matter
Q7) Describe the physical protection afforded by the cerebrospinal fluid.
Q8) Describe the phases of a normal sleep cycle.
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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology
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175 Verified Questions
175 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A viral infection involving the vestibular nuclei may result in
A) loss of hearing.
B) loss of sight.
C) a sense of dizziness.
D) local paralysis.
E) high blood pressure.
Q2) Damage to the fovea of the eye would interfere with the ability to
A) focus an image.
B) regulate the amount of light striking the retina.
C) detect objects in the periphery of ones field of vision.
D) detect the detailed image of objects in the middle of ones field of vision.
E) detect color images.
Q3) Light only shines on the surround of an off-surround visual field.
A)fully excited
B)fully inhibited
C)weak response
Q4) ________ are raised sensory structures within the ampulla of semicircular canals that contain the hair cells.
Q5) A sensory receptor is a ________ that converts a stimulus into electrical graded potentials.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Efferent Division: Autonomic and Somatic Motor Control
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78 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) blocks urination
A)sympathetic antagonist
B)parasympathetic antagonist
Q2) Cholinergic muscarinic receptors are found at the ________ in the ANS.
Q3) It dominates during resting-and-digesting activities.
A)True only for the sympathetic division
B)True only for the parasympathetic division
C)True for both divisions
Q4) To perform surgery with a minimum of pain for the patient and hassle for the surgeon, a patient may be administered a general anesthetic to prevent sensation and consciousness, as well as a paralytic to prevent reflexive muscle spasms.From what you have learned of motor control, suggest mechanisms by which a paralytic can prevent muscle contraction.With paralytics, what extra measure must be taken to keep the patient alive? Name such a paralytic agent.
Q5) blocks sweating
A)sympathetic antagonist
B)parasympathetic antagonist

Page 13
Q6) Describe the different types of cholinergic receptors in the nervous system.Which neurotransmitter binds to each type?
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Chapter 12: Muscles
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nervous system avoids muscle fatigue during submaximal contraction by
A) always recruiting slow-twitch motor units.
B) asynchronous recruitment.
C) synchronous recruitment.
D) always recruiting fast-twitch motor units.
Q2) Briefly compare and contrast the structure and behavior of cardiac, smooth, and skeletal muscles.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a property of single-unit smooth muscles?
A) All smooth muscle cells are connected by gap junctions.
B) Their contraction occurs in a coordinated manner.
C) Electrical responses travel directly between cells.
D) Only a proportion of the smooth muscle cells receive autonomic nervous input.
E) Each cell functions independent of its neighbor.
Q4) Explain the events leading up to a skeletal muscle twitch, starting with the arrival of neurotransmitter in the neuromuscular junction.
Q5) Describe the process of relaxation of a skeletal muscle fiber.
Q6) The thick filament of the myofibril is composed of ________ molecules whereas ________ is a protein that makes up the thin filaments.
Q7) Store-operated calcium channels open in response to ________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement
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76 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The motor neurons that innervate the normal contractile fibers of the muscle are the
Q2) Ten-year-old Tina falls while climbing a tree and lands on her back.Her frightened parents take her to the local emergency room where she is examined.Her knee jerk reflex is normal and she exhibits a negative Babinski reflex.These results suggest that
A) Tina has injured one of her descending nerve tracts.
B) Tina has injured one of her ascending nerve tracts.
C) Tina has a spinal injury in the lumbar region.
D) Tina has a spinal injury in the cervical region.
E) Tina suffered no damage to her spinal cord.
Q3) In a ________ reflex, a sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron.
Q4) Most reflexes are regulated by
A) the brain.
B) the spinal cord.
C) ganglia.
D) positive feedback.
E) negative feedback.
Q5) Compare and contrast the structures and functions of the Golgi tendon organ and the muscle spindle.
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Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Physiology
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191 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it necessary to direct the electrical signals in the heart through the AV node instead of allowing them to spread directly from the atria to the ventricles?
Q2) During the isovolumic phase of ventricular systole,
A) the atria contract.
B) the atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves are closed.
C) blood is ejected into the great vessels.
D) the ventricles are relaxing.
E) the ventricles are filling with blood.
Q3) The term for reduced blood flow to the cardiac muscle is ________.
Q4) Stretching a myocardial cell
A) only decreases the force of a contraction.
B) only allows more Ca² to enter.
C) only increases the force of contraction.
D) decreases the force of a contraction and allows more Ca² to enter.
E) allows more Ca² to enter and increases the force of a contraction.
Q5) The duration of the action potential is ________ in contractile myocardium, ________ in autorhythmic contractile, and ________ in skeletal muscle.
Q6) The amount of blood returning to the heart is the ________.
Q7) The period when blood is pushed into the arteries is called ________.
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Chapter 15: Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increased blood volume ________ blood pressure.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) has no effect on
Q2) Compare and contrast the types of pressure and flow in systemic, pulmonary, glomerular, and peritubular capillaries using simple diagrams or tables.Be as complete and specific as possible.You do not need to provide values for the pressures, but you should indicate the relative strength of the different pressures.
Q3) For a diagnosis of hypertension, a patient must have
A) a systolic pressure above 120 mm Hg.
B) a systolic pressure above 140 mm Hg.
C) a diastolic pressure above 90 mm Hg.
D) a diastolic pressure below 80 mm Hg.
E) a systolic pressure above 140 mm Hg or a diastolic pressure above 90 mm Hg.
Q4) ________ is an increase in blood flow that accompanies an increase in metabolic activity.
Q5) Outline the relationship between hypertension and the development of congestive heart failure.
Q6) Venous return to the heart is aided by ________ and the ________.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define, compare, and contrast "clot busters" and anticoagulants; describe how each works.
Q2) Under normal circumstances, aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by the
A) spleen.
B) yellow bone marrow.
C) kidneys.
D) digestive tract.
E) thymus gland.
Q3) Define anemia, and explain how it is the same or different from hypoxemia.Give examples of three different types of anemia and a brief synopsis of each kind.Is sickle cell disease a True anemia? Explain your answer.When sickle cell disease is fatal, what is the cause of death?
Q4) genetic condition resulting in crescent moon-shaped red blood cells
A)hereditary spherocytosis
B)polycythemia vera
C)iron-deficiency anemia
D)sickle cell disease
E)anemia
Q5) The two main components of plasma are ________ and ________.Name two other components found in plasma.
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Chapter 17: Mechanics of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) the amount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal breath
A)total lung capacity
B)inspiratory capacity
C)vital capacity
D)functional residual capacity
Q2) The ease with which the lungs stretch in response to changes in pressure is termed ________.
Q3) List and describe the lung volumes.
Q4) The volume of air that can be forcefully inhaled on top of a normal inspiration is called the ________.
Q5) In a condition known as pleurisy, there is excess fluid in the pleural space.How would you expect this to affect the process of pulmonary ventilation?
A) Ventilation would require less energy.
B) Breathing would be labored and difficult.
C) It would be easier to expand the lungs on inspiration.
D) More air would be forced out during expiration.
E) Tidal volume would increase.
Q6) When the inspiratory muscles relax, the rib cage returns to its original position as a result of ________.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Timmy is a cantankerous toddler who has just threatened that he will hold his breath until Mom gives him some chocolate.His mother refuses to be manipulated and watches in amusement as Timmy stubbornly refuses to breathe.To her horror, Timmy loses consciousness and collapses onto the floor.Her cousin, who is enrolled in a course for emergency medical technical (EMT)training, is visiting, and tells her there is no need to call for an ambulance.Why did Timmy lose consciousness? Should his mother trust her instincts and call for help and begin CPR, or should she listen to her well-meaning but young and inexperienced cousin? Explain.
Q2) Compare and contrast carbon monoxide (CO)poisoning, in which CO displaces oxygen from hemoglobin, and metabolic poisoning such as by cyanide.
Q3) Oxygen consumption increases with exercise due to the fact that the contracting muscles are doing work and require ATP to produce the contractions.
A.How does the body meet the increased demand for oxygen?
B.Calculate the oxygen consumption of a runner using the following information: Heart Rate: 130 bpm; Stroke Volume: 270 mL/beat; Arterial oxygen content: 250 mL O /L blood, and Venous oxygen content: 100 O /L blood.
Q4) Diffusion rate is directly proportional to ________ and ________.
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Page 20

Chapter 19: The Kidneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) The percentage of total plasma volume that filters is called the ________.
Q2) Which structure is NOT part of the blood circulation through the kidney?
A) vasa recta
B) loop of Henle
C) glomerulus
D) renal corpuscle
Q3) Fred weighs 100 kg.Assume his total blood volume is 7%, his heart pumps his total blood volume within 90 seconds, and his renal blood flow is 20% of his cardiac output.Calculate the volume of blood that flows through Fred's kidneys each minute.
Q4) movement from the nephron lumen to the blood
A)excretion
B)filtration
C)reabsorption
D)secretion
Q5) Which is NOT a kidney filtration barrier?
A) glomerular capillary endothelium
B) basal lamina
C) Bowman's capsule epithelium
D) juxtaglomerular apparatus
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Chapter 20: Integrative Physiology II: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decreased ECF volume causes
A) sympathetic output from the cardiovascular control center to increase.
B) parasympathetic output from the cardiovascular control center to increase.
C) the force of ventricular contraction to decrease.
D) arteriolar vasodilation.
E) sympathetic output from the cardiovascular control center to increase and arteriolar vasodilation.
Q2) The primary route for ion loss from the body is the ________ system.
A) respiratory
B) urinary
C) digestive
D) integumentary
E) cardiovascular
Q3) What are oropharynx receptors, which hormone do they suppress, and how is it known that they exist? If a person stranded on a desert island drank seawater to try to quench his thirst, how would this affect the oropharynx receptors?
Q4) What are the two mechanisms of bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule?
Q5) The cellular mechanisms for renal handling of H and HCO involve several membrane transporters; name three.
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Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the body, 80% of all lymphocytes, a type of immune system cell, are thought to be present in the
A) small intestine.
B) large intestine.
C) appendix.
D) stomach.
E) mouth.
Q2) Digestion refers to the
A) progressive dehydration of indigestible residue.
B) input of food into the digestive tract.
C) release of substances into the lumen of the gut.
D) absorption of nutrients in the gut.
E) breakdown of food into particles small enough to cross epithelial cells.
Q3) A condition known as lactose intolerance is characterized by painful abdominal cramping, gas, and diarrhea.The cause of the problem is an inability to digest the milk sugar, lactose.How would this cause the observed symptoms? Why is yogurt less likely to trigger the symptoms?
Q4) What would be the nutritional consequence of excessive antacid use?
Q5) Where does carbohydrate digestion begin? Which enzyme is involved, and which reaction does it catalyze?
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energy Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) High protein (low carbohydrate)diets have become popular in recent years.Based on what you've learned about metabolism and the body's energy needs, explain what might be some of the disadvantages of this type of diet.
Q2) The crew of an ocean-going racing sailboat must adhere to strict weight limits for both their bodies and the food they eat, yet their activity levels are very high, and weather conditions may vary to extreme cold, so they must consume many kilocalories.What kinds of nutrient-dense foods can you suggest to them to bring? In general, what type of energy nutrient should they choose to consume?
Q3) Define basal metabolic rate (BMR)and list the six factors affecting BMR.
Q4) Diet-induced thermogenesis is highest after ingestion of A) spicy foods, like jalapeno peppers. B) fats. C) proteins. D) carbohydrates.
Q5) ________ is the direct transfer of heat energy from one object to another.
Q6) ________ are lipoproteins that are formed in the intestine to carry lipids into circulation.
Q7) Describe anorexia nervosa and diabetes mellitus, and how they resemble each other.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Thyroid hormones T and T are lipophilic so they do not require transporters to cross cell membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List four factors that affect normal body growth.
Q3) List and explain the effects of cortisol.
Q4) The most important metabolic effect of ________ is protection against ________, crucial to surviving significant stress.
Q5) Hyperthyroidism
A) decreases oxygen consumption.
B) increases protein catabolism.
C) decreases protein synthesis.
D) slows heart rate.
E) causes cold intolerance.
Q6) Juan has great hopes that his 12-year-old son will play professional basketball and wants to do anything that might be helpful.He has heard that the administration of testosterone or other androgens might increase his son's height.Alarmed, you tell him that this may be a treatment that would actually limit his future athletic potential.Why?
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Chapter 24: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects
A) B cells.
B) plasma cells.
C) cytotoxic T cells.
D) helper T cells.
E) suppressor T cells.
Q2) A sample of tissue from an injury shows a large number of basophils.This would indicate that the tissue was
A) abscessed.
B) inflamed.
C) being rejected.
D) infected by viruses.
E) infected by multicellular parasites.
Q3) Cells that help to regulate the immune response are
A) B lymphocytes.
B) plasma cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) cytotoxic T cells.
E) NK cells.
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Chapter 25: Integrative Physiology III: Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) The initial change in heart rate at the onset of exercise is due to A) sympathetic stimulation.
B) the withdrawal of parasympathetic inhibition.
C) stretching of the cardiac muscle fibers in response to increased venous return.
D) overfilling of the ventricles.
Q2) The largest metabolic reserves for the average adult are stored as A) carbohydrates.
B) proteins.
C) amino acids.
D) triglycerides.
E) fatty acids.
Q3) The maximal rate of consumption of ________ is used as a measurement of a person's ability to perform endurance exercise and is measured in what units? How is this molecule related to metabolism?
Q4) In resistance exercise, such as strength training, muscles rely heavily on ________ energy production.
A) anaerobic
B) aerobic
Q5) Why is the normal baroreceptor reflex absent during exercise?
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is responsible for driving the female libido?
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) lutenizing hormone
D) adrenal androgens
E) gonadotropin releasing hormone
Q2) Which of the following is responsible for the cessation of reproductive cycles in women?
A) The hypothalamus no longer produces gonadotropin releasing hormone.
B) The anterior pituitary no longer produces lutenizing hormone.
C) The ovaries no longer produce estrogen.
D) The ovaries are unable to respond to lutenizing hormone or follicle stimulating hormone.
E) The ovaries no longer produce progesterone.
Q3) Describe the events that must occur in order for sperm to penetrate an egg.What prevents more than one sperm from entering? In the case of twins, how many sperm entered the egg? Why must a man have millions of sperm in a semen sample to be considered fertile? If only one sperm were present in the semen and that sperm managed to find its way to the egg, could it fertilize the egg? Explain.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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