Physical Therapist Assistant Program Fundamentals
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
The Physical Therapist Assistant Program Fundamentals course provides students with a comprehensive introduction to the field of physical therapy and the essential roles and responsibilities of physical therapist assistants (PTAs). This course covers foundational topics such as human anatomy and physiology, therapeutic exercise principles, patient communication, basic assessment techniques, and clinical documentation. Students will also explore the ethical and legal guidelines governing PTAs, professional behavior in healthcare settings, and the development of effective patient care skills. Through lectures, hands-on labs, and collaborative activities, students gain the foundational knowledge and practical competencies necessary to succeed in subsequent stages of the PTA program and in clinical practice settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Physical Therapist Assistant 1st Edition by Catherine C. Goodman
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Concepts of Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which type of cognitive deficit should the physical therapist assistant use repetition to teach the patient new activities?
A) decreased executive functions
B) poor complex problem solving
C) slowed information processing
D) memory deficits
Answer: B
Q2) In utero gene therapy (IUGT)is most beneficial for genetic diseases if gene therapy is performed _________.
A) immediately after conception
B) before symptoms have manifested
C) after symptoms have manifested, but before birth
D) after birth
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following was not a purpose of the Human Genome Project?
A) to identify all human genes
B) to map the genes' locations on chromosomes
C) to determine the origins of humans on the planet
D) to provide detailed information on genes function
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Problems Affecting Multiple Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is a delayed complication of radiation to the brain?
A) debilitating fatigue
B) dry skin
C) Lhermitte sign
D) radionecrosis
Answer: D
Q2) What adverse drug reaction would be expected with the long-term use of neuroleptic drugs in the elderly population?
A) abdominal cramps
B) hypertension
C) tardive dyskinesia
D) pulmonary edema
Answer: C
Q3) What is the most serious side effect of long-term use of glucocorticoids?
A) hyperglycemia
B) fluid retention
C) GI irritation
D) increased susceptibility to infection
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Injury, Inflammation, and Healing
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Q1) Which of the following disorders is the result of an alteration in the chromosome?
A) sickle cell anemia
B) low density lipoprotein
C) alpha-antitrypsin deficiency
D) Down syndrome
Answer: D
Q2) Sepsis is most likely to result from which of the following disorders?
A) any autoimmune disorder
B) vitamin D deficiency
C) cellulitis
D) scurvy (vitamin C deficiency)
Answer: C
Q3) What type of collagen is absent in bone and tendon and is more prevalent in newborns?
A) type 1
B) type 2
C) type 3
D) type 4
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Immune System
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Q1) A patient with a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome begins outpatient physical therapy.Which of the following would be an inappropriate intervention on their first day of treatment?
A) treadmill walking uphill Ă— 20 minutes
B) upper body ergometer Ă— 5 minute
C) low impact aquatic aerobics
D) recumbent stepper Ă— 10 minutes
Q2) Exposure to which of the following bodily fluids presents the highest risk for HIV transmission?
A) tears
B) sweat
C) saliva
D) semen
Q3) A person is diagnosed with chronic fatigue syndrome,when unexplained fatigue is present for how many months?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 6
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Infectious Disease
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Q1) Physical therapist assistants should be immunized against many diseases.Which of the following diseases requires an immunization injection each year?
A) hepatitis B
B) influenza
C) measles
D) tetanus
Q2) According to the Centers for Disease Control (CDC),when is it essential to wash hands with soap and water?
A) before putting on latex gloves
B) after removing latex gloves
C) after the hands are visibly soiled with body fluid
D) after routine contact with a patient
Q3) Scarlet fever is caused by what bacterial strain?
A) Clostridium difficile
B) staphylococcal infections
C) streptococcal infections
D) pneumococcal infections
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Chapter 6: Oncology
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Q1) Particle radiation __________.
A) targets cellular RNA
B) damages more normal tissues than cancer cells
C) is rarely used in today's medicine
D) produces less skin irritation than ionizing radiation
Q2) Excessive alcohol consumption is associated with cancer of all of the following structures except which one?
A) stomach
B) mouth
C) pharynx
D) larynx
Q3) A client with a diagnosis of stomach cancer is beginning a general strengthening program at outpatient physical therapy.Weight training has been prescribed by the supervising physical therapist.Which of the following is an appropriate program for this patient?
A) low repetition, high weight with an RPE of 14 or above
B) high repetition, low weight with an RPE of 14 or below
C) low repetition, high weight with an RPE of 14 or below
D) high repetition, low weight with an RPE of 14 or above
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Page 8
Chapter 7: The Integumentary System
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Q1) Which of the following is an uncommon clinical manifestation of polymyositis and dermatomyositis?
A) weight loss
B) general malaise
C) pain
D) cardiac involvement
Q2) What stage of eczema/dermatitis is characterized by thickened skin with postinflammatory hyperpigmentation and hypopigmentation?
A) undiagnosed dermatitis
B) acute dermatitis
C) subacute dermatitis
D) chronic dermatitis
Q3) A surgeon chooses to use the patient's own skin for a graft.What type of graft has the surgeon chosen to use?
A) allograft
B) xenograft
C) biosynthetic graft
D) autograft
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9
Chapter 8: The Endocrine and Metabolic Systems
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Q1) What is a common orthopedic finding for individuals diagnosed with acromegaly?
A) widening of joint spaces
B) thinning of the cartilage
C) carpal tunnel syndrome
D) thoracic/lumbar pain
Q2) Which of the following is a normal response to aging by the endocrine system?
A) Blood supply is increased to the pituitary gland.
B) The thyroid gland becomes larger.
C) The adrenal glands will have more fibrous tissue.
D) The thyroid gland becomes more elevated.
Q3) Parathyroid hormone _____________.
A) decreases the release of calcium and phosphate from bone
B) increases the rate of absorption of calcium by the kidneys
C) decreases calcium absorption in the GI tract
D) promotes absorption of phosphate by the kidneys
Q4) A deficiency of aldosterone will cause ____________.
A) decreased calcium excretion
B) orthostatic hypotension
C) decreased cardiac output based on the rational this is also correct
D) hyperglycemia
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Chapter 9: The Cardiovascular System
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Q1) What disease is associated with thickening of the walls of the small arteries?
A) atherosclerosis
B) Mönckeberg's arteriosclerosis
C) arteriosclerosis
D) coronary artery disease
Q2) Which of the following conditions would not cause cardiac syncope?
A) lymphostatic hypotension
B) arrhythmia
C) coronary artery disease
D) hyperglycemia
Q3) Which of the following is indicative of an arterial ulcer?
A) edema in the involved lower extremity, superficial wound with red wound base
B) wound over the lateral malleolus with minimum exudate and a dry wound bed
C) nonpainful wound with a craterlike center with an elevated rim
D) weeping wound above malleoli
Q4) Which of the following is a risk factor for developing coronary artery disease?
A) Anorexia
B) Hypotension
C) Hyperlipidemia
D) Female gender
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Chapter 10: The Hematologic System
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Q1) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is most often caused by mutations of what cell?
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) granulocytes
D) macrophages
Q2) The physician has communicated that there is more than 50% cortical metastatic involvement of the patient's bone metastases.Which of the following is the recommended weight-bearing status for this patient?
A) full weight bearing
B) partial weight bearing
C) partial weight bearing and avoid twisting or stretching
D) non-weight bearing/toe touch-weight bearing
Q3) A patient with hemophilia presents to physical therapy after a recent episode within the quadriceps.Which of the following exercises is most appropriate to begin during the first session of physical therapy?
A) resistive terminal knee extension
B) quadriceps sets
C) exercise bike
D) full squats
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Adenocarcinoma is a form of what type of cancer?
A) small cell lung cancer (SCLC)
B) oat cell carcinoma
C) non-small cell lung cancer
D) squamous cell carcinoma
Q2) Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to airway clearance techniques?
A) open wounds over the chest
B) pulmonary edema
C) hypotension
D) large plural effusion
Q3) A patient presents today with a metered-dose inhaler (MDI).What is the proper advice to give this patient on when to take this particular medication?
A) 15 to 20 minutes before exercise
B) 1 to 2 minutes before exercise
C) during exercise
D) 5 to 10 minutes after exercise
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Chapter 12: The Hepatic, Pancreatic, and Biliary Systems
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Q1) Why is the liver one of the most common sites of metastases from other primary cancers?
A) Bile attracts cancer cells.
B) Gastrointestinal fluids are made in the liver.
C) The liver is a central organ.
D) The liver filters all blood.
Q2) The PTA is beginning intervention for a patient in the inpatient setting.The patient is diagnosed with ascites secondary to liver cirrhosis.What is the most effective treatment option for this patient?
A) liver transplant
B) antibiotics
C) sodium restriction
D) diuretic use
Q3) Which condition/dysfunction is not associated with jaundice?
A) blood transfusion
B) excessive drug intake
C) alcohol-related hepatitis
D) rheumatoid arthritis
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14
Chapter 13: Introduction to Pathology of the
Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) What is the primary objective of the vascular response to injury?
A) to bring white blood cells to the area
B) to bring red blood cells to the area
C) to bring platelets to the area
D) to promote bleeding
Q2) Strength training benefits the geriatric patient population by A) producing substantial increases in strength and power
B) normalizing blood pressure in those with high normal values
C) reducing insulin resistance
D) increasing maximal oxygen uptake beyond normal
Q3) A 15-year-old male client has just initiated a strength training program in a local gym.The client tells the PTA that he feels his strength has increased markedly over the first 3 to 4 weeks of this program.This initial gain is due to what phenomenon?
A) increase of type I fibers
B) improved neuromuscular recruitment
C) increase of type II fibers
D) increase in muscle mass
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Q1) A patient presents to physical therapy requiring bracing secondary to scoliosis.What are some of the common precautions given to patients using orthotics?
A) Wear a thick protective layer under the brace.
B) Monitor the skin under the brace for redness.
C) Direct heat improves the integrity of brace materials.
D) Braces should fit tightly.
Q2) Which of the following is not a dominant feature of arthrogryposis multiplex congenital (AMC)?
A) articular rigidity
B) muscle weakness
C) replacement of muscle with fibrous fatty tissue
D) brittle bones
Q3) What is the most common type of scoliosis?
A) idiopathic
B) osteopathic
C) myopathic
D) neuropathic
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Infectious Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) Which of the following is indicative of mechanical loosening of a prosthetic joint?
A) a wound over the surgical incision with drainage
B) constant joint pain
C) x-ray of the proximal component of the total joint with pathology
D) complaints of pain accompanied by fever
Q2) A patient with recent total knee replacement is considered to have osteomyelitis if aspirate shows a white blood cell count of more than _____.
A) 500 WBC/mL
B) 1000 WBC/mL
C) 1500 WBC/mL
D) 2500 WBC/mL
Q3) A patient has recently undergone surgery for an infection of the bursae in the hand.What is the appropriate course of rehabilitation for this patient?
A) splinting and gentle passive range of motion
B) early active range of motion exercise
C) therapy should be delayed for 2 weeks after surgery
D) ultrasound over the surgical site
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Musculoskeletal Neoplasms
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Q1) What type of malignant bone tumor is most responsive to high-dose radiation?
A) osteosarcoma
B) chondrosarcoma
C) Ewing's sarcoma
D) multiple myeloma
Q2) At what age is a male most likely to be seen with chondrosarcoma?
A) 10 years old
B) 20 years old
C) 30 years old
D) 50 years old
Q3) Which type of chondrosarcoma originates in the periosteum?
A) central chondrosarcoma
B) peripheral chondrosarcoma
C) juxtacortical chondrosarcoma
D) medullary chondrosarcoma
Q4) Which of the following is true regarding osteoblastoma?
A) It is smaller than osteoid osteoma.
B) Pain of osteoblastoma is relieved with aspirin.
C) Osteoblastoma is common in the spine, sacrum, and flat bones.
D) There is usually no tenderness over the lesion.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Bone, Joint, and Soft Tissue Diseases and Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is the least effective treatment for Osgood-Schlatter syndrome?
A) discontinuing the aggravating activity
B) icing the affected knee daily
C) stretching the hamstrings
D) immobilizing the knee
Q2) Which of the following is indicative of swan neck deformity?
A) hyperflexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint and flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint
B) flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint and hyperextension of the distal interphalangeal joint
C) hyperextension of the proximal interphalangeal joint and extension of the distal interphalangeal joint
D) hyperextension of the proximal interphalangeal joint and partial flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint
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19
Chapter 18: Introduction to Central Nervous System Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is indicative of a metabolic or drug-induced coma?
A) severe headache with focal seizures
B) unequal or absent corneal reflex
C) decorticate or decerebrate posturing
D) intact deep tendon reflexes
Q2) Biofeedback is an example of which of the following?
A) classical conditioning
B) operant conditioning
C) procedural learning
D) declarative learning
Q3) Which of the following is the primary neurotransmitter of the sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons?
A) epinephrine
B) norepinephrine
C) acetylcholine
D) dopamine
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Chapter 19: Infectious Disorders of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) What is the most common cause of sporadic nonepidemic encephalitis in the United States?
A) measles
B) mumps
C) herpes simplex
D) rubella
Q2) West Nile virus initially replicates in which type of cell?
A) microglia
B) dendritic cell
C) astrocytes
D) oligodendrocyte
Q3) What test is considered the gold standard for the diagnosis of meningitis?
A) computed tomography (CT) scan
B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) bone scan
D) lumbar puncture
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Chapter 20: Degenerative Diseases of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is associated with an improved prognosis of MS?
A) motor and cerebellar symptoms
B) disability after the first attack
C) short time interval between attacks
D) sensory symptoms
Q2) What is the most common type of dementia?
A) Pick's disease
B) Lewy body dementia
C) Alzheimer's disease
D) frontotemporal dementia
Q3) Which of the following would be an effective intervention strategy for patients diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease?
A) exercise outdoors
B) use several different therapists in the patient's exercise session
C) multiple exercises with each session
D) short, simple, repetitive exercises
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Chapter 21: Stroke
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Q1) After an ischemic event,what neurotransmitter is released in excess,leading to calcium ion intrusion into cells?
A) acetylcholine
B) epinephrine
C) norepinephrine
D) glutamate
Q2) What is the most common source of embolitic occlusion that causes ischemic stroke?
A) from the pia mater
B) the heart as a result of atherothrombotic disease
C) deep vein thrombosis (DVT) secondary to immobility
D) ventricular fibrillation
Q3) Patients with an intracranial hemorrhage at which of the following sites will exhibit gait ataxia,ipsilateral gaze or cranial nerve VI paresis,small pupils,and nausea?
A) putamen
B) cerebellar
C) caudate
D) pons
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23
Chapter 22: Traumatic Brain Injury
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Q1) What is the most important cause of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)after head trauma?
A) increased cerebrospinal fluid production
B) hypertension
C) hypotension
D) increase in blood volume
Q2) What is the primary imaging modality for the initial diagnosis and management of the head injured person?
A) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
B) positron emission tomography (PET) scan
C) computed tomography (CT) scan
D) plain film radiograph
Q3) Which of the following is not true regarding heterotopic ossification (HO)?
A) HO usually appears 4 to 12 weeks after the injury.
B) Usually the first sign of HO is loss of range of motion around a joint.
C) HO is not associated with TBI.
D) There is erythema, swelling, and pain with movement of the affected joint.
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24
Chapter 23: Traumatic Spinal Cord Injury
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Q1) What is the most common cause of death after SCI?
A) autonomic dysreflexia
B) infected pressure ulcers
C) falls
D) pneumonia
Q2) Which of the following is an appropriate long-term goal associated with a C8 quadriplegic?
A) dependent in all dressing activities
B) dependent in all bathing activities
C) use of assisting devices for writing, page turning, and use of telephone
D) able to dress and undress in wheelchair with assistive devices
Q3) What medication is usually given to SCI-injured patients at the emergency department immediately after injury?
A) aspirin
B) Dilantin
C) Xanax
D) methylprednisolone
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Chapter 24: Cerebral Palsy
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Q1) What type of spastic CP involves the trunk and lower extremities,with the upper extremities to a lesser degree?
A) monoplegia
B) diplegia
C) hemiplegia
D) quadraplegia
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement regarding muscle dysfunction in CP?
A) Both hypertrophy and atrophy can be present in a child diagnosed with CP.
B) There is an increase in number of sarcomeres per muscle fiber.
C) Muscle will grow faster than bone.
D) There will be a decrease in fat and fibrous tissue and an increase in blood flow to muscles.
Q3) Which of the following clients with CP would benefit the most from a hinged ankle-foot orthosis (AFO)?
A) a beginning stander
B) nonambulators
C) ambulator with excessive ankle pronation
D) clients with some, but limited, functional mobility
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Chapter 25: The Peripheral Nervous System
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Q1) Which test is considered the gold standard for carpal tunnel syndrome?
A) Phalen's test
B) Tinel's test
C) nerve conduction velocity testing
D) carpal compression test
Q2) Which of the following is correct advice for a PTA to give a patient with a diagnosis of post-polio syndrome that is beginning an outpatient physical therapy intervention program?
A) The patient should exercise to the point of fatigue at the first visit.
B) The patient should stop exercise if pain or weakness increases.
C) The patient should focus on lower extremity aggressive exercise.
D) Functional exercises should be of maximal intensity.
Q3) Why does demyelination occur in Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A) Schwann cells die too fast for the body to replenish them.
B) Macrophages strip myelin from the nerves.
C) There is a lack of acetylcholine at the presynaptic junction.
D) There is a lack of blood flow to the outermost covering of nerves.
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Chapter 26: Behavioral, Social, and Environmental Factors
Contributing to Disease and Dysfunction
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Q1) What was the leading cause of death in the United States in the year 2000?
A) heart disease
B) cancer
C) stroke
D) pneumonia
Q2) There is evidence that physical activity will have several effects on the body.Which of the following is not an effect of physical activity on the body?
A) decreased blood pressure
B) inhibited endothelial function
C) decreased triglycerides
D) increased high density lipoprotein
Q3) What has the most adverse influence on health?
A) gender
B) race
C) distance the client lives from the closest medical center
D) socioeconomic status
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Chapter 27: The Psychosocial-Spiritual Impact on Health Care
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Q1) What muscles are most commonly affected in acute alcoholic myopathy?
A) gastrocnemius
B) forearm flexors
C) shoulder girdle
D) finger intrinsics
Q2) At what point after smoking cessation do nerve endings begin repair?
A) 20 minutes
B) 8 hours
C) 1 day
D) 2 days
Q3) Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for bulimia nervosa?
A) body weight 15% below expected weight for age and height
B) recurrent purging in excess of twice a week for 3 months
C) intense fear of weight gain
D) inaccurate perception of body size or weight
Q4) Which of the following is the most addictive to humans?
A) tobacco
B) cocaine
C) heroin
D) marijuana
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Chapter 28: Environmental and Occupational Medicine
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Q1) Injury to what body part constitutes the majority of work-related cases?
A) upper extremity
B) back
C) lower extremity
D) neck
Q2) High levels of what chemical are associated with chloracne and porphyria cutanea tardea?
A) asbestos
B) carbon monoxide
C) gasoline
D) dioxin
Q3) At what measurement does lead become toxic in the bloodstream in children?
A) 3 mg/dL
B) 5 mg/dL
C) 10 mg/dL
D) 15 mg/dL
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Chapter 29: The Gastrointestinal System
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Q1) Which of the following is considered a mechanical cause of intestinal obstruction?
A) ulcer
B) stricture
C) volvulus
D) gall stones
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?
A) It is an acute condition.
B) There is no relationship between IBS and malignancy of the bowel.
C) IBS is diagnosed with a blood test.
D) Pain is uncommon with this diagnosis.
Q3) Presence of a peptic ulcer will radiate pain to what part of the body?
A) right upper quadrant
B) right lower quadrant
C) left upper quadrant
D) left lower quadrant
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Chapter 30: The Renal and Urologic Systems
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Q1) Which of the following types of urinary incontinence is marked by a sudden unexpected urge to urinate and then the uncontrolled loss of urine?
A) functional incontinence
B) stress incontinence
C) hyperreflexive bladder
D) overflow incontinence
Q2) What patient population is most likely to exhibit mental status changes with a UTI?
A) young females
B) young males
C) middle-age females
D) elderly females
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding aging and the renal system?
A) There is a gradual increase of blood flow to the kidneys.
B) There is a reduction of nephrons.
C) There is a decrease in volume of urine.
D) There is a tendency toward lesser renal vasoconstriction.
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Chapter 31: Central Nervous System Neoplasms
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Q1) What is the typical frequency and duration of radiation therapy following a brain tumor?
A) 2 times a week for 23 to 25 weeks
B) 5 times a week for 23 to 25 weeks
C) 2 times a week for 34 to 36 weeks
D) 5 times a week for 34 to 36 weeks
Q2) What is the most common symptom of cancer metastasis to the spinal column?
A) decreased deep tendon reflexes
B) pain
C) loss of sensation below the level of the lesion
D) loss of motor innervation below the level of the lesion
Q3) What type of radiation therapy involves placing the radiation source within the tumor for a period of several days?
A) stereotactic radiosurgery
B) linear accelerator based
C) synchrocyclotron proton beam therapy
D) brachytherapy
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33
Chapter 32: Epilepsy
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Q1) Which of the following is a false statement regarding epilepsy?
A) You should restrain someone during a seizure.
B) It is impossible to swallow your tongue during a seizure.
C) Status epilepticus can cause death.
D) People with epilepsy hold jobs with a high degree of responsibility.
Q2) What central nervous system (CNS)neurotransmitter plays a vital role in seizure termination?
A) epinephrine
B) norepinephrine
C) acetylcholine
D) gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA)
Q3) What is the preferred drug for the management of infantile spasms?
A) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
B) vigabatrin
C) phenytoin
D) phenobarbital
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Chapter 33: Headache
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Q1) Which of the following is inappropriate treatment for a postdural puncture headache?
A) hydration
B) lying still
C) epidural blood patch
D) aspirin
Q2) Which of the following is the most painful of the primary headaches?
A) migraine
B) tension
C) cluster
D) trauma-induced headache
Q3) In order for a headache to be classified as chronic,it must last how many days per year?
A) 60
B) 90
C) 120
D) 180
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Chapter 34: The Male Genital or Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following is often not a symptom of orchitis?
A) testicular pain
B) urinary dysfunction
C) fever
D) malaise
Q2) What symptom differentiates prostatitis from benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)and prostate cancer?
A) urinary retention
B) fever/chills
C) pain
D) urinary frequency
Q3) Which of the following is not a risk factor for impotence?
A) smoking
B) diabetes mellitus
C) coronary heart disease
D) hyperthyroidism
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Chapter 35: The Female Genital or Reproductive System
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Q1) A client is performing abdominal strengthening in the physical therapy clinic.Upon questioning the patient,the physical therapist assistant (PTA)suspects an ectopic pregnancy.What is the appropriate action by the PTA?
A) increase intensity of abdominal intervention
B) decrease intensity of abdominal intervention
C) stop abdominal exercise because these are contraindicated for pregnant females
D) contact the supervising physical therapist/physician
Q2) Which of the following is not a common site of ectopic implantation of endometrial tissue?
A) bladder
B) stomach
C) perineum
D) vulva
Q3) A decline in estrogen triggers all of the following except which one?
A) an increase in serotonin
B) breast atrophy
C) decreased thyroid function
D) hyperparathyroidism
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Chapter 36: Vestibular Disorders
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Q1) Which pathway that receives its signals from the vestibular system is responsible for postural changes in response to angular head motion?
A) medial vestibulospinal tract
B) lateral vestibulospinal tract
C) dorsal horn of the spinal cord
D) reticulospinal tract
Q2) Which of the following situations would manifest as vertigo?
A) A vestibular nerve on one side of the head has a loss of tonic firing.
B) A vestibular nerve on one side of the head is hyperactive.
C) Vestibular nerves on both sides of the head have a loss of tonic firing.
D) Vestibular nerves on both sides of the head are hyperactive.
Q3) What is not a common complaint of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)?
A) Sensation stops after 2-3 minutes in static position
B) Sensation of intense vertigo with head position changes
C) Autonomic changes such as sweating
D) Sensation of movement of the environment and blurred vision
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Chapter 37: Laboratory Tests and Values
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Q1) What of the following values is most likely to be increased with infection?
A) Magnesium
B) Red blood cells
C) Platelets
D) White blood cells
Q2) Which of the following is a potassium level that would be a contraindication to physical therapy intervention?
A) 3.5 mEq/L
B) 4.0 mEq/L
C) 4.5 mEq/L
D) 5.5 mEq/L
Q3) Alkaline phosphatase is increased when what organ is impaired?
A) Liver
B) Heart
C) Lungs
D) Stomach
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