Pharmaceutical Biochemistry
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmaceutical Biochemistry is a course that explores the chemical processes and substances that occur within living organisms, with a specific emphasis on their relevance to pharmaceuticals and drug action. The curriculum covers fundamental biochemical principles, including the structure and function of biomolecules, enzyme kinetics, metabolic pathways, and the molecular basis of disease. Students learn how these biochemical concepts underpin drug development, mechanisms of drug action, pharmacokinetics, and pharmacodynamics. The course also examines biochemical techniques used in pharmaceutical research and diagnostics, preparing students to understand and apply biochemistry in the context of drug discovery and therapeutic interventions.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 8th Edition by Mary K. Campbell
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biochemistry and the Organization of Cells
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Q1) 11 Ribosomes are made up of
A) RNA and proteins
B) DNA and proteins
C) RNA and DNA
D) proteins and carbohydrates
Answer: A
Q2) Cell membranes
A) are found in plants, but not in animals
B) consist mainly of sugars
C) do not allow transport into or out of the cell
D) separate the cell from the outside world
Answer: D
Q3) The idea that a coding system and a catalysis system came about separately and then combined to form life as we know it is known as
A) the origin of life
B) the big bang theory
C) the double origen theory
D) the theory of evolution
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Water: the Solvent for Biochemical Reactions
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Q1) The substance most likely to form a micelle is
A) acetic acid
B) sodium palmitate
C) methyl alcohol
D) acetone
Answer: B
Q2) Refer to Exhibit 2B. Which of the following would make the best buffer at pH =10.0?
A) Acetic acid and sodium acetate
B) Tris and its acid form
C) H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> and NaHCO<sub>3</sub>
D) Na<sub>2</sub>HPO<sub>4</sub> and NaH<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
E) NaHCO<sub>3</sub> and Na<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
Answer: E
Q3) A hydrogen bond is a special type of
A) dioole - dipole bond
B) induced dipole - induced dipole bond
C) covalent bond
D) ionic bond
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Amino Acids and Peptides
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Q1) At its isolectric pH, glycine will have
A) both of its ionizable functional groups dissociated.
B) neither of its ionizable functional groups dissociated.
C) only its carboxyl group dissociated.
D) only its amino group dissociated.
Answer: A
Q2) The pK<sub>a</sub> values of the side chains of the common amino acids
A) are always at low pH
B) are always at high pH
C) depend on the chemical nature of the side chain
D) are not known
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a correct combination of an amino acid, its three-letter designation, and its one-letter designation?
A) Lysine, lys, L
B) Glycine, gly, G
C) Histidine, his, H
D) Tryptophan, Trp, W
E) Arginine, arg, R
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Q1) Hydrophobic interactions may occur between the R groups of which of the following amino acids?
A) tyrosine and glycine
B) arginine and histidine
C) phenylalanine and tryptophan
D) valine and asparagine
Q2) Refer to Exhibit 4B. Which one shows hydrogen bonding of the peptide backbone?
A) M
B) N
C) P
D) M and N
E) All of these
Q3) Incorrect protein folding resulting in exposure of hydrophobic regions can result in A) aggregation.
B) homology.
C) liposomes.
D) the Bohr effect.
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6
Chapter 5: Protein Purification and Characterization Techniques
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Q1) In affinity chromatography, a protein
A) which binds to the ligand will remain on the column.
B) which binds to the ligand will elute from the column.
C) which is hydrophobic will remain on the column.
D) which is hydrophilic will remain on the column.
Q2) In isoelectric focusing gel electrophoresis
A) particular care must be taken to ensure the same pH along the length of the gel
B) there is a pH gradient that parallels the electric field gradient
C) the electric current is allowed to fluctuate
D) the electric circuits of the apparatus must be very well insulated
Q3) In affinity chromatography
A) there is nonspecific binding of proteins to column material
B) only minor purifications can be obtained
C) the mobile phase is always pure water
D) the ligand is always specific for one type of protein to be bound
E) there can be molecule specific ligands or group specific ligands
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Chapter 6: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes
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Q1) When an enzyme is saturated with substrates,
A) it will display zero-order kinetics.
B) it will display first-order kinetics.
C) it will display second-order kinetics.
D) it will denature and cease to function.
Q2) A noncompetitive inhibitor
A) binds to the enzyme at a site other than the active site
B) is structurally related to the substrate
C) does not affect the value of V<sub>max</sub>
D) decreases the value of K<sub>M</sub>
Q3) When an enzyme-catalyzed reaction has two substrates and substrate A must bind before substrate B, the mechanism is called
A) a ping-pong mechanism
B) a random mechanism
C) an ordered mechanism
D) a suicide mechanism
E) none of these is true
Q4) The substrate will only bind to the enzyme when the shapes fit together rigidly. A)True B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes, Mechanisms, and
Control
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Q1) The critical serine residue in the active site of chymotrypsin functions as A) a nucleophile.
B) an electrophile.
C) a base.
D) a methyl donor.
E) none of these
Q2) Homotrophic effects for allosteric enzymes involve
A) the same molecule binding to different sites in the enzyme.
B) different molecules binding to the same site in an enzyme.
C) different molecules binding to different sites in the same enzyme.
D) All of these are homotrophic effects.
Q3) Which of the following does not apply to the concerted model for subunit behavior:
A) Each subunit can exist in a relaxed (R) and taut (T) conformation.
B) All subunits will be in either the R or the T conformation at the same time.
C) Some subunits can be in the R state while others are in the T state.
D) The presence of inhibitors will lead to more of the enzyme being in the T form
E) the presence of activators will lead to more of the enzyme being in the R form
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Lipids and Proteins Are Associated in Biological
Membranes
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A) All triacylglycerols and all phosphoacylglycerols have the same fatty acids in them.
B) All triacylglycerols have the same fatty acids, but the fatty acids in phosphoacylglycerols vary.
C) The fatty acids in triacylglycerols vary, but all phosphoacylglycerols have the same fatty acids in them.
D) The fatty acids in both triacylglycerols and in phosphoacylglycerols vary.
Q2) Vitamin E has all of the following properties, except:
A) It is an antioxidant.
B) It can be made in the sunshine.
C) It is essential for at least some mammal's fertility.
D) It is often a component of membranes.
E) All of these describe vitamin E.
Q3) Which of the following does not belong in the list?
A) Retinol
B) Vitamin A
C) beta-carotene
D) Cholesterol
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Chapter 9: Nucleic Acids: How Structure Conveys Information
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Q1) Topoisomerases are associated with
A) production of RNA from DNA.
B) joining of nucleotide monomers to make polynucleotides.
C) supercoiling of DNA.
D) ribosomes.
E) All of these
Q2) Comparison of DNA sequences between widely diverse organisms indicates that all organisms have genetic similarity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following best describes the structure of a nucleosome?
A) DNA wrapped around an octomer containing two each of H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 with H1 on the outside.
B) DNA wrapped around an octomer of H1 with H2A,B, H3 & H4 on the outside.
C) DNA wrapped around a octomer of either H2A/H2B or H3/H4 with H1 on the outside.
D) DNA wrapped around a tetramer of either H2A/H2B or H3/H4 with H1 on the outside.
E) None of these
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Chapter 10: Biosynthesis of Nucleic Acids: Replication
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Q1) Which is most likely to have a high processivity?
A) a DNA polymerase that is primarily a repair enzyme
B) a primase
C) a DNA ligase
D) a DNA polymerase that is a main polymerizing enzyme
Q2) When the synthesis of new DNA is directed by an original template DNA molecule
A) the DNA produced has two newly formed strands (no change in the original DNA)
B) two DNA molecules are formed, each with one new strand and one strand from the original DNA
C) there is random arrangement of newly formed and original DNA on the two strands of the DNA produced
D) no information is available on this subject
Q3) DNA replication is a challenging process because:
A) DNA strands must be separated
B) New DNA is always synthesized from the 5' 3' direction but the two template strands run in opposite directions
C) The cell must guard against replication errors
D) All of these
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Chapter 11: Transcription of the Genetic Code: Biosynthesis of RNA
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the order of events at the promoter?
A) open complex closed complex transcription initiation
B) closed complex open complex transcription initiation
C) open complex transcription initiation closed complex
D) transcription initiation open complex closed complex
Q2) Ribozymes, the catalytic activity of RNA, were first discovered as part of the snRNA group.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The eukaryotic TATA-binding protein (TBP) functions in a manner similar to
A) sigma ( ) factor in E. coli.
B) rho ( ) factor in E. coli.
C) lac I in E. coli.
D) CAP in E. coli.
Q4) Which of the following is not a structural motif encountered in DNA-binding proteins?
A) helix-turn-helix
B) leucine zipper
C) zinc finger
D) barrel
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Protein Synthesis: Translation of the Genetic Message
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Q1) Which amino acids have unique codons?
A) met, gly
B) trp, met
C) tyr, met
D) stop, his
Q2) Inosine or hypoxanthine can wobble with all the following bases, except:
A) A
B) C
C) T
D) U
E) Inosine can wobble with all of these bases.
Q3) The final form of mRNA in eukaryotes has all these features, except:
A) There will be a special nucleotide cap on the 5' end of the mRNA.
B) There is usually a poly A tail on the 3' end of the mRNA.
C) The mature, active mRNA contains introns.
D) Only a single protein is made from any mature mRNA molecule.
E) All of these are true.
Q4) Wobble allows a single codon to code for more than one amino acid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Nucleic Acid Biotechnology Techniques
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Q1) A single clone of interest can be distinguished from others in a mixture of clones by A) testing the clones for antibiotic resistance.
B) mobility of the clones in gel electrophoresis.
C) a specific probe, usually a labeled complementary DNA.
D) resistance to damage by ultraviolet light.
Q2) One major obstacle to using bacteria to produce human proteins is because addition of sugar residues to the proteins, glycosylation, never occurs properly.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Determining disease states using protein arrays may be limited by
A) the inability to find proteins to test
B) the inability to put large numbers of samples on a protein chip
C) the lack of a suitable antibody to test with D) the inability to visualize results
Q4) Ethidium bromide slips between the bases of DNA giving it fluorescent properties that differ from those observed when it is free in solution.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Viruses, Cancer, and Immunology
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Q1) A viral genome is
A) always double-stranded.
B) always single-stranded.
C) may be double or single stranded.
D) always made of DNA
E) always made of RNA
Q2) Which of the following is the most direct reason that AIDS is deadly?
A) HIV is a retrovirus
B) HIV enters helper T-cells
C) Budding HIV particles damage helper T-cell membranes lowering the helper T-cell count
D) HIV has an RNA genome
E) none of these explain why HIV is deadly
Q3) The protein called p53 is especially important in cancer because:
A) Protein p53 has the ability to prevent cells from dividing.
B) Protein p53 has the ability to repair mutations.
C) Protein p53 can cause damaged cells to enter programmed cell death.
D) Protein p53 can prevent cells from dividing and cause to enter programmed cell death.
E) All of these.
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Chapter 15: The Importance of Energy Changes and
Electron Transfer in Metabolism
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Q1) The linking of an exergonic reaction to drive an endergonic reaction is called:
A) coupling
B) a state function
C) resonance
D) catabolsim
Q2) Refer to Exhibit 15A. Which is the oxidizing agent?
A) Ethanol
B) NAD<sup>+</sup>
C) Acetaldehyde
D) NADH
E) H<sup>+</sup>
Q3) What happens to the entropy when ATP is hydrolysed to ADP?
A) Entropy increases
B) Entropy decreases.
C) Entropy doesn't change.
D) ATP has no entropy.
Q4) The body allows energy consuming reactions to occur by coupling them with reactions which have a negative G.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Carbohydrates
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Q1) One advantage of branched sugar polymers is the availability of more ends for chemical reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Aldoses can form which type of cyclic structure?
A) Hemiacetal
B) Hemiketal
C) Both hemiacetal and hemiketal
D) Neither hemiacetal and hemiketal
Q3) Which of the following is true about the ABO blood groups?
A) all three of the blood groups have an á-L-fucose group attached
B) type O blood is the universal donor because it has an á-L-fucose group
C) type A blood has a â-N-acetylgalactosamine group
D) type AB blood is the universal donor
Q4) The following sugar is also called blood sugar:
A) Fructose
B) Glucose
C) Lactose
D) Sucrose
E) Maltose
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) The nicotinamide-binding region in glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase is similar to all other NAD binding domains.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many steps in glycolysis have ATP as a substrate or product?
A) zero
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
E) 6
F) none of these
Q3) Which of the following is not an end product of glucose metabolism via either aerobic or anaerobic means?
A) ethanol
B) carbon dioxide
C) lactate
D) fructose
E) all of these are end products of glucose metabolism
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Chapter 18: Storage Mechanisms and Control in Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the function of debranching enzyme?
A) It simply cleaves (1 6) bonds in glycogen via phosphorolysis.
B) It transfers a set of three glucose residues from a limit branch and then cleaves the (1 6) bond via phosphorylsis.
C) It simply cleaves (1 6) bonds in glycogen via hydrolysis.
D) It transfers a set of three glucose residues from a limit branch and then cleaves the (1 6) bond via hydrolysis.
E) none of these describes the enzyme's function
Q2) Which of the following mechanisms can be used to regulate metabolic pathways?
A) Allosteric activators and inhibitors.
B) Covalent modifications of enzymes.
C) Use of separate enzymes at a given point in the forward and backward pathways.
D) Regulation of the genes for the enzymes used in the pathway.
E) All of these are used to regulate metabolism.
Q3) It is impossible to reverse any kinase reaction under physiological conditions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Citric Acid Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes is allosterically inhibited by ATP?
A) pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
B) succinyl-CoA synthetase
C) succinate dehydrogenase
D) fumarase
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning the glyoxylate pathway is false?
A) It utilizes one mole of acetyl-CoA per cycle.
B) It can produce a net synthesis of 4-carbon fragments that are intermediates of the citric acid cycle.
C) It usually occurs in the mitochondria
D) It is the main pathway that allows for synthesis of sugars from acetyl-CoA.
Q3) Which of the following cannot cross the inner mitochondrial membrane?
A) malate
B) phosphoenolpyruvate
C) succinyl-CoA
D) oxaloacetate
Q4) The "energy charge" in a cell is important in the control of metabolism.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Oxidative phosphorylation is coupled to electron transport in
A) Complexes I, II, and III
B) Complexes I, II, and IV
C) Complexes I, III, and IV
D) all four respiratory complexes
Q2) Complex III of the electron transport chain oxidizes ____, reduces ____, and ____ protons in the process.
A) coenzyme Q; cytochrome c; pumps
B) coenzyme Q; cytochrome c; doesn't pump
C) cytochrome c; coenzyme Q; pumps
D) cytochrome c; coenzyme Q; doesn't pump
Q3) In the conformational coupling mechanism for oxidative phosphorylation, the effect of the proton gradient is
A) to inhibit conformational changes in the ATP synthase
B) to create more sites for ATP synthesis
C) the release of tightly bound ATP from the synthase
D) all of these
E) none of these
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Chapter 21: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) Other than their use in nucleic acid synthesis, which energy source is used uniquely for the synthesis of lipids?
A) ATP
B) CTP
C) GTP
D) UTP
E) None of these is unique to fatty acid synthesis.
Q2) The -oxidation of unsaturated fatty acids requires additional enzymes to isomerize the double bonds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Isoprenoid derivatives play what role in steroid biosynthesis?
A) inhibit a key step
B) are key intermediates
C) compete with steroid biosynthesis for a limited precursor
D) its role is unknown
Q4) What effect do high concentrations of ketone bodies have on blood pH?
A) They tend to lower blood pH.
B) They tend to increase blood pH.
C) They have no effect on blood pH.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The enzyme, ribulose 1,5 bisphosphate carboxylase (Rubisco), is:
A) one of the most abundant proteins in nature.
B) about 15% of the protein content of the chloroplast
C) a multisubunit enzyme
D) consistent with the endosymbiotic origin for organelles such as chloroplasts and mitochondria
E) all of these
Q2) The C<sub>4</sub> pathway for carbon dioxide fixation has what requirement compared to the Calvin cycle?
A) requires more ATP
B) requires less ATP
C) requires more NADPH
D) requires less NADPH
E) none of these
Q3) Anaerobic, photosynthetic bacteria differ from green plants in that they only have one type of chlorophyll.
A)True
B)False
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24
Chapter 23: The Metabolism of Nitrogen
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Q1) The following two amino acids are key to the transfers of amino groups during breakdown and synthesis of amino acids.
A) GLU and ASP
B) GLU and ARG
C) GLU and GLN
D) ALA and GLN
E) ASP and GLN
Q2) How is cancer chemotherapy related to purine biosyntheis?
A) rapidly dividing cells require more purine biosynthesis and some chemotherapy drugs inhibit a key enzyme in purine biosynthesis
B) aminopterin is a good chemotherapy drug because it inhibits aspartate transcarbamoylase
C) cancer cells lack folic acid, and chemotherapy drugs like sulfanamide act by overproducing folic acid, which is then poisonous to the cancer cells
D) none of these
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Chapter 24: Integration of Metabolism: Cellular Signaling
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Q1) Sweets and fats are at the top of the food pyramid, because they are so important in our diet.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a role for hormones?
A) maintenance of homeostasis
B) mediation of responses to external stimuli
C) growth and development
D) antioxidants
Q3) Which of these hormones causes elevation of the level of glucose in human blood?
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon.
C) Glucagon and Epinephrine.
D) Insulin and Glucagon.
E) All of these Hormones elevate the blood glucose levels.
Q4) Steroid hormones affect which of the following?
A) carbohydrate metabolism.
B) inflammatory and stress reactions.
C) sexual development.
D) All of these
Page 26
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