Introductory Physics for Life Sciences Exam Questions - 3839 Verified Questions

Introductory Physics for Life Sciences

Exam Questions

Course Introduction

This course introduces the fundamental principles of physics with a focus on applications relevant to biological and health sciences. Topics covered include mechanics, energy, fluids, thermodynamics, electricity, and optics, all presented in contexts that emphasize their significance to living systems and the human body. Through conceptual understanding and quantitative problem solving, students will develop the skills needed to analyze physical phenomena that underpin physiological processes, medical technologies, and biological research. The course is designed for students pursuing studies in biology, medicine, or related fields, and integrates laboratory experiences to reinforce core concepts through experimentation and observation.

Recommended Textbook

College Physics 10th Edition by Raymond A. Serway

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61 Chapters

3839 Verified Questions

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction

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Q1) A circle has an area of 4.0 m².A second circle has double the radius of the first.The area of the second circle is ____ times that of the first.

A) 1

B) 2.0

C) 4.0

D) 8.0

E) 4.0

Answer: C

Q2) The speed of a boat is often given in knots.If a speed of 5 knots were expressed in the SI system of units,the units would be:

A) m.

B) s.

C) m/s.

D) kg/s.

Answer: C

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Chapter 1: Introduction: Part A

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Q1) I walk six miles in a straight line in a direction north of east,and I end up four miles north and several miles east.How many degrees north of east have I walked?

A) 19°

B) 42°

C) 60°

D) 71°

Answer: B

Q2) A cement truck can pour 40 cubic yards of cement per hour.Express this in ft³/min.

A) 2/3 ft³/min

B) 18 ft³/min

C) 6 ft³/min

D) 2.0 ft³/min

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension

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Q1) Displacement is which of the following types of quantities?

A) vector

B) scalar

C) magnitude

D) dimensional

Answer: A

Q2) In one-dimensional motion where the direction is indicated by a plus or minus sign,the average velocity of an object has which of the following properties?

A) It is positive.

B) It is negative.

C) It is zero.

D) It can be positive,negative,or zero.

Answer: D

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Page 5

Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension: Part A

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Q1) Displacement is which of the following types of quantities?

A) vector

B) scalar

C) magnitude

D) dimensional

Q2) Five boys are pushing on a snowball,and each is pushing with a force of 20.0 N.However,each boy is pushing in a different direction.They are pushing north,northeast,east,southeast,and south.(Each boy is pushing at an angle of 45.0° relative to his neighbor. )What is the magnitude of the total force on the ball?

A) 54.2 N

B) 48.3 N

C) 24.1 N

D) 0 N

Q3) Which formula is dimensionally consistent with an expression yielding a value for velocity? (a is acceleration,x is distance,and t is time)

A) v/t²

B) vx²

C) v²/t

D) at

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Page 6

Chapter 3: Vectors and Two-Dimensional Motion

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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a vector quantity?

A) velocity

B) temperature

C) volume

D) mass

Q2) A helicopter is traveling at 50 m/s at a constant altitude of 100 m over a level field.If a wheel falls off the helicopter,with what speed will it hit the ground? (g = 9.8 m/s² and air resistance negligible)

A) 59 m/s

B) 45 m/s

C) 67 m/s

D) 4,460 m/s

E) 57 m/s

Q3) Which type of quantity is characterized by both magnitude and direction?

A) scalar

B) vector

C) trigonometric

D) algebraic variable

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Chapter

3: Vectors and Two-Dimensional Motion: Part A

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Q1) A cheetah can maintain its maximum speed of 100 km/hr for 35.0 seconds.What minimum distance must a gazelle running 80.0 km/hr be ahead of the cheetah to escape?

A) 194 m

B) 167 m

C) 70.0 m

D) 125 m

Q2) The acceleration due to gravity on the Moon's surface is one-sixth that on Earth.An astronaut's life support backpack weighs 240 lb on Earth.What does it weigh on the Moon?

A) 40 lb

B) 120 lb

C) 80 lb

D) 240 lb

Q3) Find the tension in an elevator cable if the 1000-kg elevator is ascending with an acceleration of 1.2 m/s²,upward.

A) 11,000 N

B) 9800 N

C) 8600 N

D) 1200 N

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Chapter 4: The Laws of Motion

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Q1) An Olympic skier moving at 15.0 m/s down a 25.0° slope encounters a region of wet snow,of coefficient of friction _k = 0.740.How far down the slope does she go before stopping?

A) 56 m

B) 46 m

C) 66 m

D) 36 m

E) 61 m

Q2) The acceleration due to gravity on the Moon's surface is one-sixth that on Earth.An astronaut's life support backpack weighs 350 lb on Earth.What does it weigh on the Moon?

A) 2,100 lb

B) 350 lb

C) 356 lb

D) 58 lb

E) 344 lb

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Chapter 4: The Laws of Motion: Part A

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Q1) A fireman,40.0 m away from a burning building,directs a stream of water from a fire hose at an angle of 30.0° above the horizontal.If the initial speed of the stream is 40.0 m/s,at what height above the nozzle will the stream of water strike the building?

A) 9.60 m

B) 16.6 m

C) 18.7 m

D) 22.4 m

Q2) A 100-kg box is placed on a ramp.As one end of the ramp is raised,the box begins to move downward just as the angle of inclination reaches 25°.What is the coefficient of static friction between box and ramp?

A) 0.15

B) 0.27

C) 0.47

D) 0.95

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10

Chapter 5: Energy

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Q1) The quantity of work equal to one joule is also equivalent to which of the following?

A) watt

B) watt /s

C) watt s

D) watt /s²

Q2) A hill is 200 m long and makes an angle of 12° with the horizontal.As a 65-kg jogger runs up the hill,how much work does gravity do on the jogger?

A) 127,400 J

B) 26,488 J

C) 26,488 J

D) 124,616 J

E) zero

Q3) The unit of power,watt,is dimensionally the same as:

A) joule-second.

B) joule/second.

C) joule-meter.

D) joule/meter.

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Chapter 5: Energy: Part A

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Q1) An object when orbiting the Earth at a distance of three Earth radii from the center of the Earth has a weight of 2.0 N.What is the object's mass? (g at the surface of the Earth is 9.8 m/s²)

A) 0.10 kg

B) 1.8 kg

C) 0.92 kg

D) 1.0 kg

Q2) A cylindrical space colony 13 km in diameter and 30 km long has been proposed as living quarters for future space explorers.Such a habitat would have cities,land,and lakes on the inside surface and air and clouds in the center.All this would be held in place by the rotation of the cylinder about the long axis.How fast would such a cylinder have to rotate at its perimeter to produce a 1-g gravitational field at the walls of the cylinder?

A) 200 m/s

B) 250 m/s

C) 650 m rad/s

D) 800 m rad/s

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Chapter 6: Momentum and Collisions

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Q1) A 71-kg man is standing in a 25-kg boat.The man steps to the right thinking he is stepping out onto the dock.However,the following will actually happen (ignore the friction of the water or air on the boat or the man):

A) The man only moves a short distance to the right while the boat moves a larger distance to the left.

B) The man only moves a short distance to the left while the boat moves a larger distance to the right.

C) The man actually stays still while the boat moves toward the left.

D) The boat doesn't move and the man moves to the right.

E) None of the above.

Q2) A billiard ball (Ball #1)moving at 5.00 m/s strikes a stationary ball (Ball #2)of the same mass.After the collision,Ball #1 moves at a speed of 4.25 m/s.Find the speed of Ball #2 after the collision.

A) 0.75 m/s

B) 6.56 m/s

C) 9.25 m/s

D) 2.63 m/s

E) 0.87 m/s

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Chapter 6: Momentum and Collisions: Part A

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Q1) A satellite is held in orbit by a 3000-N gravitational force.Each time the satellite completes an orbit of circumference 80,000 km,the work done on it by gravity is:

A) 2.4 × 10⁸ J

B) 2.4 × 10¹¹ J

C) 9.6 × 10¹¹ J

D) 0

Q2) Four different compact fluorescent bulbs and their comparison to incandescent bulbs are advertised as follows: a 42-W cfl produces the light of a 150-W incandescent,a 9-W cfl produces the light of a 40-W incandescent,a 23-W cfl produces the light of a 100-W incandescent,and a 13-W cfl produces the light of a 60-W incandescent.Which cfl produces the most light per watt,and which one produces the least? Assume true advertising!

A) the 13 W,the 42 W

B) the 9 W,the 23 W

C) the 23 W,the 42 W

D) the 42 W,the 13 W

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14

Chapter 7: Rotational Motion and the Law of Gravity

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Q1) In order for a satellite to be geosynchronous,its orbit must:

A) go over the North and South Poles.

B) be over the equator.

C) be over a single longitude.

D) emit television signals.

Q2) A ceiling fan is turned on and reaches an angular speed of 120 rev/min in 20 s.It is then turned off and coasts to a stop in 40 s.In the one minute of rotation,through how many revolutions did the fan turn?

A) 20

B) 60

C) 0

D) 600

Q3) Consider a point on a bicycle wheel as the wheel makes exactly four complete revolutions about a fixed axis.Compare the linear and angular displacement of the point.

A) Both are zero.

B) Only the angular displacement is zero.

C) Only the linear displacement is zero.

D) Neither is zero.

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15

Chapter 7: Rotational Motion and the Law of Gravity: Part A

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Q1) An unfueled 1000-kg experimental rocket sled at rest on level frictionless rails is loaded with 50 kg of propellant.It exhausts the propellant in a 20 s "burn." The rocket moves at 160 m/s after the burn.What average force is experienced by the rocket during the burn?

A) 0.80 × 10⁴ N

B) 0.75 × 10⁴ N

C) 0.60 × 10⁴ N

D) 0.35 × 10⁴ N

Q2) A miniature,spring-loaded,radio-controlled gun is mounted on an air puck.The gun's bullet has a mass of 5.00 g,and the gun and puck have a combined mass of 130g.With the system initially at rest,the radio-controlled trigger releases the bullet,causing the puck and empty gun to move with a speed of 0.500 m/s.Of the total kinetic energy of the gun-puck-bullet system,what percentage is in the bullet?

A) 50%

B) 96%

C) 3.4%

D) 100%

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Chapter 8: Rotational Equilibrium and Rotational Dynamics

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Q1) A 0.30-m radius grinding wheel starts at rest and develops an angular speed of 20 rad/s in 5 s.What is the average tangential acceleration of a point on the wheel's edge?

A) 6 m/s²

B) 1.2 m/s²

C) 66.7 m/s²

D) 2.4 m/s²

E) 100 m/s²

Q2) Calculate the linear speed due to the Earth's rotation for a person at a point on its surface located at 70^o N latitude.The radius of the Earth is 6.40 × 10⁶ m.

A) 80 m/s

B) 465 m/s

C) 159 m/s

D) 437 m/s

E) 573 m/s

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Chapter 8: Rotational Equilibrium and Rotational Dynamics:

Part A

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Q1) A woman who weighs 500 N stands on an 8.0 m long board that weighs 100 N.The board is supported at each end.The support force at the right end is 2 times the support force at the left end.How far from the right end is the woman standing?

A) 4.0 m

B) 2.4 m

C) 2.7 m

D) 1.6 m

Q2) A 0.60-kg rock is swung in a circular path and in a vertical plane on a 0.25-m length string.At the top of the path,the angular speed is 12.0 rad/s.What is the tension in the string at that point?

A) 7.9 N

B) 16 N

C) 22 N

D) 6.5 N

Q3) If a nonzero torque is applied to an object,that object will experience:

A) a constant angular speed.

B) an angular acceleration.

C) a constant moment of inertia.

D) an increasing moment of inertia.

Page 18

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Chapter 9: Solids and Fluids

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Q1) The Garfield Thomas water tunnel at Pennsylvania State University has a circular cross-section that constricts from a diameter of 3.6 m to the test section,which is 1.2 m in diameter.If the speed of flow is 3.5 m/s in the large-diameter pipe,determine the speed of flow in the test section.

A) 0.4 m/s

B) 3.5 m/s

C) 32 m/s

D) 4 m/s

E) 34 m/s

Q2) A solid object is made of two materials,one material having density of 2 000 kg/m³ and the other having density of 5 500 kg/m³.If the object contains equal masses of the materials,what is its average density?

A) 2 933 kg/m³

B) 3 750 kg/m³

C) 3 933 kg/m³

D) 7 500 kg/m³

E) more information is needed

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Chapter 9: Solids and Fluids: Part A

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Q1) A 2.0-kg mass in the xy plane is moving in the negative x direction at 3.0 m/s along the line y = 5.0 m.As the mass passes across the y axis (i.e. ,passing the point (x,y = 0,5.0 m)),what is its angular momentum with respect to the z axis?

A) 30 SI units

B) 150 SI units

C) 30 SI units

D) 150 SI units

Q2) A uniform solid sphere rolls down an incline of height 3 m after starting from rest.In order to calculate its speed at the bottom of the incline,one needs to know:

A) the mass of the sphere.

B) the radius of the sphere.

C) the mass and the radius of the sphere.

D) no more than is given in the problem.

Q3) Consider the use of the terms "rotation" and "revolution".In physics:

A) the words are used interchangeably.

B) the words are used interchangeably but "rotation" is the preferred word.

C) the words have different meaning.

D) "rotation" is the correct word,and "revolution" should not be used.

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Chapter 10: Thermal Physics

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Q1) A spherical air bubble originating from a scuba diver at a depth of 15 m has a diameter of 0.8 cm.What will the bubble's diameter be when it reaches the surface? (Assume constant temperature. )

A) 2 cm

B) 1.2 cm

C) 1.1 cm

D) 0.9 cm

E) 1.7 cm

Q2) Estimate the volume of a helium-filled balloon at STP if it is to lift a payload of 250 kg.The density of air is 1.29 kg/m³ and helium has a density of 0.178 kg/m³.

A) 1,404 m³

B) 170 m³

C) 225 m³

D) 194 m³

E) 278 m³

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Chapter 10: Thermal Physics: Part A

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Q1) Water (density = 1 × 10³ kg/m³)flows at 16 m/s through a pipe with radius 0.040 m.The pipe goes up to the second floor of the building,3.0 m higher,and the pressure remains unchanged.What is the speed of the water flow in the pipe on the second floor?

A) 13 m/s

B) 14 m/s

C) 15 m/s

D) 16 m/s

Q2) A Boeing-737 airliner has a mass of 30,000 kg.The total area of the wings is 100 m².What must be the pressure difference between the top and bottom of the wings to keep the airplane up?

A) 1960 Pa

B) 2940 Pa

C) 7840 Pa

D) 15,700 Pa

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22

Chapter 11: Energy in Thermal Processes Heat and Internal Energy

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Q1) An inventor develops a stationary cycling device by which an individual,while pedaling,can convert all of the energy expended into heat for warming water.What minimum power must be generated if 300 g water (enough for 1 cup of coffee)is to be heated in 12 min from 18°C to 94°C? (1 cal = 4.186 J,the specific heat of water is 4 186 J/kg °C)

A) 8,000 W

B) 440 W

C) 130 W

D) 1590 W

E) 90 W

Q2) The filament temperature of a light bulb is 2,000 K when the bulb delivers 40 W of power.If its emissivity remains constant,what power is delivered when the filament temperature is 2,400 K?

A) 166 W

B) 125 W

C) 83 W

D) 62 W

E) 42 W

23

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Chapter 11: Energy in Thermal Processes Heat and Internal

Energy: Part A

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Q1) Halving the mass of the bob on a simple pendulum will cause a change in the frequency of the pendulum swing by what factor?

A) 4.0

B) 2.0

C) 1.0

D) 0.50

Q2) The position of a 0.64-kg mass undergoing simple harmonic motion is given by x = (0.160 m)cos ( t/16).What is its position at t = 6.0 s?

A) 0.160 m

B) 0.159 m

C) 0.061 m

D) 0.089 m

Q3) A simple pendulum of length 2.00 m has a mass of 100 g attached.It is drawn back 30.0° and then released.What is the maximum speed of the mass?

A) 1.14 m/s

B) 4.58 m/s

C) 2.29 m/s

D) 1.62 m/s

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Chapter 12: The Laws of Thermodynamics Work in Thermodynamic Processes

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Q1) An avalanche of ice and snow of mass 2,000 kg slides a vertical distance of 180 m down a mountainside.If the temperature of the ice,snow,mountain and surrounding air are all at 0°C,what is the change in entropy of the universe?

A) 25,846 J/K

B) 12,923 J/K

C) 6,462 J/K

D) 4308 J/K

E) 1,319 J/K

Q2) The maximum theoretical thermodynamic efficiency of a heat engine operating between hot and cold reservoirs is a function of which of the following?

A) hot reservoir temperature only

B) cold reservoir temperature only

C) both hot and cold reservoir temperatures

D) None of the above choices are valid.

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Chapter 12: The Laws of Thermodynamics Work in

Thermodynamic Processes: Part A

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Q1) A standing wave is set up in a 100-cm string fixed at both ends.The string vibrates in 5 distinct segments when driven by a 120-Hz source.What is the wavelength?

A) 10 cm

B) 20 cm

C) 40 cm

D) 80 cm

Q2) Quadrupling both the tension in a guitar string and its mass per unit length will result in changing the wave speed in the string by what factor?

A) 4.00

B) 2.00

C) 1.00 (i.e. ,no change)

D) 0.50

Q3) For a wave traveling in a string,by what factor would the tension need to be increased to triple the wave speed?

A) 2.7

B) 9.0

C) 3.0

D) 1.7

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Chapter 13: Vibrations and Waves

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Q1) A mass of 0.39 kg,hanging from a spring with a spring constant of 72 N/m,is set into an up-and-down simple harmonic motion.What is the speed of the mass when moving through the equilibrium point? The starting displacement from equilibrium is 0.14 m.

A) zero

B) 1.9 m/s

C) 2.7 m/s

D) 2.5 m/s

E) 0.3 m/s

Q2) Doubling the displacement from equilibrium of an object in simple harmonic motion will bring about a change in the magnitude of the object's acceleration by what factor?

A) 0.5

B) 1.0

C) 2.0

D) 4

E) 0.25

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Chapter 13: Vibrations and Waves: Part A

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Q1) The Doppler shift of ultrasonic waves can measure the speed of blood in an artery.If the frequency of the stationary source is 100 kHz and the reflected sound has a Doppler shift of 300 Hz,what is the blood flow speed? (The speed of sound inside the body is 1500 m/s. )

A) 1.0 m/s

B) 1.5 m/s

C) 2.2 m/s

D) 3.3 m/s

Q2) What sound level change most nearly corresponds to a factor of three change in intensity?

A) 0.5 dB

B) 2 dB

C) 3 dB

D) 5 dB

Q3) The speed of sound at 0°C is 331 m/s.What is the speed of sound at 32°C? (0°C = 273 K)

A) 346 m/s

B) 356 m/s

C) 343 m/s

D) 350 m/s

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Chapter 14: Sound

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Q1) The number of overtones,and their relative intensities,is associated with what property of the tone generated by a musical instrument?

A) quality

B) interference pattern

C) range

D) attack pattern

Q2) When a sine wave is used to represent a sound wave,the crest corresponds to: A) rarefaction.

B) condensation.

C) point where molecules vibrate at a right angle to the direction of wave travel.

D) region of low elasticity.

Q3) Two tuning forks sounding together result in a beat frequency of 4 Hz.If the frequency of one of the forks is 252 Hz,what is the frequency of the other?

A) 260 Hz or 244 Hz

B) 126 Hz

C) 248 Hz or 256 Hz

D) 63 Hz

E) 128.0 Hz

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29

Chapter 14: Sound: Part A

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Q1) A piece of copper of mass 100 g is being drilled through with a ¹/₂" electric drill.The drill operates at 50.0 W and takes 30.0 s to bore through the copper.If all the energy from the drill heats the copper,find the copper's increase in temperature.(c_copper = 387 J/kg · °C. )

A) 40.6°C

B) 38.8°C

C) 31.0°C

D) 27.3°C

Q2) A machine gear consists of 0.40 kg of iron and 0.16 kg of copper.How much total heat is generated in the part if its temperature increases by 35°C? (Specific heats of iron and copper are 450 and 390 J/kg · °C,respectively. )

A) 910 J

B) 8500 J

C) 4000 J

D) 5300 J

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Chapter 15: Electric Forces and Electric Fields

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Q1) A ping-pong ball covered with a conducting graphite coating has a mass of 5.1 × 10 ³ kg and a charge of 3.3 µC.What electric field directed upward will exactly balance the weight of the ball? (g = 9.8 m/s²)

A) 0.7 × 10² N/C

B) 1.5 × 10⁴ N/C

C) 0.6 × 10 ⁷ N/C

D) 1.7 × 10⁶ N/C

E) 6.3 × 10⁶ N/C

Q2) A charge Q accumulates on the hollow metallic dome,of radius R,of a Van de Graaff generator.A probe measures the electric field strength at various points outside the sphere surface.If the probe is initially at a distance 3R from the sphere's center and then is moved to 4R,by what factor will the electric field reading change?

A) (4/3)²

B) 4/3

C) 3/4

D) (3/4)²

E) 1

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Chapter 15: Electric Forces and Electric Fields: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) A helium-filled weather balloon has a 0.90-m radius at liftoff where air pressure is 1.0 atm and the temperature is 298 K.When airborne,the temperature is 210 K,and its radius expands to 3.5 m.What is the pressure at the airborne location?

A) 0.50 atm

B) 0.012 atm

C) 0.019 atm

D) 0.38 atm

Q2) For a quantity of ideal gas,which of the following is constant?

A) PTV

B) P/TV

C) PT/V

D) PV/T

Q3) A spherical air bubble originating from a scuba diver at a depth of 30.0 m has a diameter of 1.0 cm.What will the bubble's diameter be when it reaches the surface? (Assume constant temperature. )

A) 0.7 cm

B) 1.0 cm

C) 1.4 cm

D) 1.6 cm

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Page 32

Chapter 16: Electrical Energy and Capacitance

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Sample Questions

Q1) An electron and a proton are each released from rest in the same uniform electric field.The electron moves a distance d_electron and the proton moves a distance d_proton as each particle's kinetic energy increases by 1.6 eV.How do d_electron and d_proton compare?

A) d_electron < d_proton

B) d_electron > d_proton

C) d_electron = d_proton

D) The answer depends on the direction of the electric field.

Q2) Case 1: An electron is released from rest in a uniform electric field.Case 2: A proton is released from rest in a uniform electric field of the same magnitude as in case 1.How does the electric potential energy of the charge-field system behave in these cases?

A) In both cases,the potential energy increases.

B) In both cases,the potential energy decreases.

C) In case 1 the potential energy increases,but in case 2 it decreases.

D) In case 1 the potential energy decreases,but in case 2 it increases.

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33

Chapter 16: Electrical Energy and Capacitance: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) The surface of the Sun is at approximately 5700 K,and the temperature of the Earth's surface is about 290 K.What total entropy change occurs when 2000 J of heat energy is transferred from the Sun to the Earth?

A) 5.78 J/K

B) 5.97 J/K

C) 7.24 J/K

D) 6.55 J/K

Q2) The laws of thermodynamics can be related to the following: (i)the measurement of temperature, (ii)the lowest temperature possible, (iii)conservation of energy,and (iv)only part of heat energy available may be turned into work.Which of these involve the zeroth and third law?

A) (i)and (ii)

B) (ii)and (iv)

C) (i)and (iii)

D) (iii)and (iv)

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Chapter 17: Current and Resistance Electric Current

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Q1) A superconducting wire's chief characteristic is which of the following?

A) an extremely great length

B) a large cross sectional area

C) an extremely high temperature

D) no resistance

Q2) A 400-W heater carries a current of 4.0 A.How much does it cost to operate the heater for 50 min if electrical energy costs 6 cents per kWh?

A) 2 cents

B) 12 cents

C) 2.9 cents

D) 0.1 cents

E) 40 cents

Q3) When you flip a switch to turn on a light,the delay before the light turns on is determined by:

A) the number of electron collisions per second in the wire.

B) the drift speed of the electrons in the wire.

C) the speed of the electric field moving in the wire.

D) none of these,since the light comes on instantly.

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35

Chapter 17: Current and Resistance Electric Current: Part A

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Q1) An electron with a charge value of 1.6 × 10 ¹⁹ C is moving in the presence of an electric field of 300 N/C.What force does the electron experience?

A) 2.3 × 10 ²² N

B) 4.8 × 10 ¹⁷ N

C) 6.4 × 10 ¹⁷ N

D) 1.9 × 10 ²¹ N

Q2) About how many electrons are in 0.3 gram of water (H₂O)?

A) 10²³

B) 10²¹

C) 10²⁵

D) 10¹⁹

Q3) A Van de Graaff generator has a spherical dome of radius 12 cm.Operating in dry air,where "atmospheric breakdown" is at E_max = 3.0 × 10⁶ N/C,what is the maximum charge that can be held on the dome? (k_e = 8.99 × 10⁹ N m²/C²)

A) 4.8 × 10 ⁶ C

B) 1.3 × 10 ⁵ C

C) 2.7 × 10 ⁵ C

D) 3.3 × 10 ⁶ C

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Page 36

Chapter 18: Direct-Current Circuits Sources of EMF

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Q1) When a light bulb is turned on,its resistance increases until it reaches operating temperature.What happens to the current in the bulb as it is warming up?

A) It stays constant.

B) It increases.

C) It decreases.

D) It increases at first and then decreases.

Q2) Three resistors connected in series have individual voltages labeled V₁, V₂ and V₃,respectively.Which of the following expresses the value of the total voltage V_T taken over the three resistors together?

A) V_T = V₁ + V₂ + V₃

B) V_T = (1/ V₁ + 1/ V₂ + 1/ V₃)

C) V_T = V₁ = V₂ = V₃

D) V_T = (1/ V₁ + 1/ V₂ + 1/ V₃) ¹

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Chapter 18: Direct-Current Circuits Sources of EMF: Part A

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Q1) A uniform electric field,with a magnitude of 600 N/C,is directed parallel to the positive x axis.If the potential at x = 4.0 m is 1000 V,what is the change in potential energy of a proton as it moves from x = 4.0 m to x = 1.0 m? (q_p = 1.6 × 10 ¹⁹

C)

A) 500 J

B) 2.9 × 10 ¹⁶ J

C) 1.9 × 10 ¹⁶ J

D) 8.0 × 10 ¹⁷ J

Q2) Two capacitors with capacitances of 1.0 C and 0.50 F,respectively,are connected in series.The system is connected to a 150 V battery.What charge accumulates on the 1.0- F capacitor?

A) 50 C

B) 150 C

C) 100 C

D) 33 C

Q3) Equipotential surfaces around a point charge are

A) spherical.

B) cylindrical.

C) planar.

D) none of these choices.

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Chapter 19: Magnetism Magnets

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Sample Questions

Q1) A proton,mass 1.67 × 10 ²⁷ kg and charge +1.6 × 10 ¹⁹

C,moves in a circular orbit perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.66 T.Find the time for the proton to make one complete circular orbit.

A) 3.2 × 10 ⁸ s

B) 9.9 × 10 ⁸ s

C) 5.0 × 10 ⁸ s

D) 1.6 × 10 ⁸ s

E) Not enough information is given.

Q2) A proton moving at a speed of 3.2 × 10⁶ m/s cuts across the lines of a magnetic field at an angle of 61°.The strength of the field is 0.63 × 10 ⁴ T.What is the magnitude of the force acting on the proton? (q_p = 1.6 × 10 ¹⁹ C)

A) 1.6E-17 N

B) 3.1E-17 N

C) 2.8E-17 N

D) 7.1E-9 N

E) 4.5E-36 N

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Page 39

Chapter 19: Magnetism Magnets: Part A

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Q1) A high voltage transmission line of diameter 2 cm and length 2 km carries a steady current of 1000 A.If the conductor is copper with a free charge density of 8 × 10²⁸ electrons/m³,how long does it take one electron to travel the full length of the cable? (e = 1.6 × 10 ¹⁹ C)

A) 8 × 10² s

B) 8 × 10⁸ s

C) 8 × 10⁶ s

D) 8 × 10⁴ s

Q2) Four 1.5-volt AA batteries in series power a transistor radio.If the batteries hold a total charge of 440 C,how long will they last if the radio has a resistance of 200 ?

A) 4.1 h

B) 2.2 h

C) 1.1 h

D) 13 h

Q3) A 300-A·h battery can deliver how many coulombs starting from a full charge?

A) 4.8 × 10³

B) 4.3 × 10⁴

C) 7.2 × 10⁵

D) 1.1 × 10⁶

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Page 40

Chapter 20: Induced Voltages and Inductance

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Q1) A bar magnet is falling through a loop of wire with constant velocity.The south pole enters first.As the magnet leaves the wire,the induced current (as viewed from above):

A) is clockwise.

B) is counterclockwise.

C) is zero.

D) is along the length of the magnet.

Q2) A coil is rotated in a magnetic field generating an emf given by emf = NBA sin ,where = t.At which angle is the emf one sixth of its maximum value?

A) 0°

B) 10°

C) 1.6°

D) 80°

E) 30º

Q3) The operation of a tape player to play music depends on which of the following?

A) the Doppler effect

B) the photoelectric effect

C) the force acting on a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field

D) induced current from the motion of a magnet past a wire

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Chapter 20: Induced Voltages and Inductance: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) A proton and an alpha particle are moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field with the same speeds.If the velocity of the proton is at an angle of 20° with respect to the magnetic field direction,at what angle to the magnetic field direction would the alpha particle be moving if it experiences the same magnitude magnetic force as the proton? The alpha particle has 4 times the mass of the proton and twice its charge.

A) 10°

B) 62°

C) 43°

D) 9.8°

Q2) A horizontal wire of length 3.6 m carries a current of 6.0 A and is oriented so that the current direction is 50° S of W.The Earth's magnetic field is due north at this point and has a strength of 0.14 × 10 ⁴ T.What is the size of the force on the wire?

A) 1.6 × 10 ⁴ N

B) 0.28 × 10 ⁴ N

C) 1.9 × 10 ⁴ N

D) 2.5 × 10 ⁴ N

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42

Chapter 21: Alternating-Current Circuits and Electromagnetic Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) An electromagnetic wave with a peak electric field component of 1.74 × 10² N/C has what associated peak magnetic field value? ( ₀ = 8.85 × 10 ¹² C²/N m², ₀ = 4 × 10 ⁷ T m/A and c = 3.00 × 10⁸ m/s)

A) 5.22E+10 T

B) 1.72E+6 T

C) 5.80E-7 T

D) 7.29E-13 T

E) 1.15E+4 T

Q2) A 16.8- F capacitor is connected to an AC source with an rms voltage of 155 V and a frequency of 85.0 Hz.What is the rms current in the capacitor?

A) 0.443 A

B) 0.695 A

C) 1.39 A

D) 0.98 A

E) 1.97 A

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Chapter 21: Alternating-Current Circuits and Electromagnetic

Waves: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two loops of wire are arranged so that a changing current in one,the primary,will induce a current in the other,the secondary.The secondary loop has twice as many turns as the primary loop.The current in the primary at this moment is 6 A and increasing.The current in the secondary must be:

A) 3 A.

B) 6 A.

C) zero.

D) There is insufficient information to work this problem.

Q2) The magnetic field inside a circular loop of wire of radius 30 cm increases at a constant rate from 2.0 × 10^-3 T to 3.5 × 10^-3 T in 0.47 s.If the resistance of the loop is 0.31 ,what is the current in the loop?

A) 7.4 × 10^-4 A

B) 5.8 × 10^-4 A

C) 2.9 × 10^-3 A

D) 5.8 × 10^-3 A

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Page 44

Chapter 22: Reflection and Refraction of Light

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Sample Questions

Q1) Monochromatic light hits a piece of glass.What happens to the wavelength in the glass as the index of refraction increases?

A) decreases

B) increases

C) remains constant

D) approaches 3 × 10⁸ m

Q2) A ray of light strikes a thick sheet of glass (n = 1.5)at an angle of 28° with the normal.Find the angle of the ray reflected off the glass surface with respect to the normal.

A) 42°

B) 63°

C) 18°

D) 28°

E) 19°

Q3) A line representing a wave front for a wave should be drawn:

A) from the source to the receiver.

B) from one crest to the preceding crest.

C) along one of the crests of the wave.

D) in the direction the wave is moving.

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Page 45

Chapter 22: Reflection and Refraction of Light: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) A series LC circuit in a radio is in resonance with AM 1200 kHz.If the radio station is changed to AM 600 kHz,by what factor must the capacitance be multiplied to again achieve resonance?

A) 4

B) 2

C) 1/2

D) 1/4

Q2) An AC power generator produces 100 A (rms)at 3600 V.The voltage is stepped up to 100,000 V by an ideal transformer,and the energy transmitted through a long-distance power line with a total resistance of 100 .What is the rms current in the long-distance line?

A) 3.6 A

B) 1.0 A

C) 1000 A

D) 1.8 A

Q3) The peak voltage of an AC source is 400 V.What is the rms voltage?

A) 100 V

B) 200 V

C) 141 V

D) 283 V

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Chapter 23: Mirrors and Lenses

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the image distance of an object 1.30 m in front of a converging lens of focal length 20.0 cm?

A) + 17.3 cm

B) -1.39 cm

C) + 23.6 cm

D) + 110 cm

E) + 4.2 cm

Q2) An object 6 cm high is placed 18 cm in front of a mirror.What type of mirror and what radius of curvature is needed for an image that is upright and 16 cm tall?

A) Concave,R = 58 cm

B) Concave,R = 7 cm

C) Convex,R = -7 cm

D) Convex,R = -26 cm

E) Concave,R = 29 cm

Q3) When the reflection of an object is seen in a convex mirror the image will:

A) always be real.

B) always be virtual.

C) may be either real or virtual.

D) will always be enlarged.

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Page 47

Chapter 23: Mirrors and Lenses: Part A

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Q1) The human eye is sensitive to light with wavelength up to 750 nm.What is the frequency of radiation at this wavelength? (1 nm = 10 ⁹ m and c = 3.00 × 10⁸ m/s)

A) 8.5 × 10⁸ Hz

B) 1.8 × 10⁸ Hz

C) 4.0 × 10¹⁴ Hz

D) 7.7 × 10¹⁴ Hz

Q2) An electromagnetic wave with a peak magnetic field component of 3.2 × 10 ⁷ T carries what average power per unit area? ( ₀ = 4 × 10 ⁷ T m/A, ₀ = 8.85 × 10 ¹² C²/N m²,and c = 3.00 × 10⁸ m/s)

A) 12 W/m²

B) 3.0 W/m²

C) 2.7 W/m²

D) 1.3 W/m²

Q3) In order of decreasing frequency,which of the following is correct?

A) infrared,visible,ultraviolet,and gamma

B) gamma,ultraviolet,visible,and infrared

C) visible,radio,ultraviolet,and X-ray

D) visible,gamma,ultraviolet,and X-ray

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Chapter 24: Wave Optics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A soap bubble (n = 1.35)is floating in air.If the thickness of the bubble wall is 320 nm,which of the following wavelengths of visible light is strongly reflected?

A) 543 nm (green)

B) 612 nm (orange)

C) 576 nm (yellow)

D) 661 nm (red)

E) 392 nm (violet)

Q2) A silicon monoxide thin film (n = 1.45)of thickness 73.8 nm is applied to a camera lens made of glass (n = 1.55).This will result in a destructive interference for reflected light of what wavelength?

A) 571 nm

B) 342 nm

C) 428 nm

D) 310 nm

E) 535 nm

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Chapter 24: Wave Optics: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) A light ray passes from air through a thin plastic slab (n = 1.3)with parallel sides.If the ray in air makes an angle of 67° with the normal after leaving the slab,what is the angle of incidence for the ray in air as it impinges upon the other side of the slab?

A) 33°

B) 67°

C) 58.5°

D) 45°

Q2) A ray of light is incident on the mid-point of a glass prism surface at an angle of 25.0° with the normal.For the glass,n = 1.55,and the prism apex angle is 40.0°.What is the angle of refraction as the ray enters the air on the far side of the prism? The surfaces involved are those of the apex angle.

A) 39.4°

B) 46.0°

C) 22.3°

D) 14.1°

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Chapter 25: Optical Instruments

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Sample Questions

Q1) A low f-number:

A) allows a smaller depth of field.

B) allows using a faster shutter speed.

C) causes less spherical aberration.

D) is not related to any of the above options.

Q2) If the objective lens of a compound microscope is replaced with a lens of double the focal length while the eyepiece also has its focal length doubled,what will happen to the overall magnification of the microscope?

A) This will result in no change in the magnification.

B) The magnification doubles.

C) The magnification quadruples.

D) The magnification decreases.

Q3) A converging lens will be prescribed by the eye doctor to correct which of the following?

A) farsightedness

B) glaucoma

C) nearsightedness

D) astigmatism

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Chapter 25: Optical Instruments: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) A diffraction grating has 2500 lines/cm.What is the slit separation?

A) 4.0 m

B) 250 nm

C) 400 nm

D) 2.5 m

Q2) A multiple slit diffraction grating has a slit separation of 2.00 × 10 ⁶ m.Find the wavelength of the monochromatic light that will have its second order (m = 2)bright fringe diffracted through an angle of 43.4°.(1 nm = 10 ⁹ m)

A) 616 nm

B) 500 nm

C) 687 nm

D) 120 nm

Q3) What is the highest order (m value)maximum for wavelength 450 nm that can be obtained with a grating with 300 lines per mm?

A) 8

B) 3

C) 7

D) 4

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Chapter 26: Relativity

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Q1) The mass of a proton at rest is m_. If the proton is moving so fast that its total energy is three times its rest energy,then what is the kinetic energy of the proton?

A) mc²

B) 2mc²

C) 3mc²

D) 4mc²

Q2) According to the special theory of relativity,if a 30-year old astronaut sent on a space mission is accelerated to speeds close to that of light,and then returns to earth after 20 years as measured on earth,what would be his biological age upon returning?

A) less than 50 years

B) 50 years

C) more than 50 years

D) exactly 100 years

Q3) As the speed of an object increases,its relativistic momentum:

A) stays the same as its classical momentum.

B) increases more than its classical momentum.

C) increases less than it classical momentum.

D) does not change since momentum is a conserved quantity.

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Chapter 26: Relativity: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) A high f-number:

A) allows using a slower shutter speed. B) causes more spherical aberration. C) allows a larger depth of focus. D) is not related to any of the above options.

Q2) A camera has a lens that has an adjustable film distance used for focusing purposes.When the object being photographed is at a very large distance,the distance from the lens to the film is 50.0 mm.What would be the lens-to-film distance for an in-focus object 2.00 m from the camera?

A) 66.7 mm

B) 40.0 mm

C) 51.3 mm

D) 48.8 mm

Q3) A magnifying lens with a focal length of 10 cm has what maximum magnification? (Assume the near point is 25 cm).Do not use the approximation formula.

A) 3.5

B) 2.5

C) 7.1

D) 3.0

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Page 54

Chapter 27: Quantum Physics Blackbody Radiation and Plancks Hypothesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Who was the first to successfully explain the photoelectric effect?

A) Planck

B) Young

C) Bohr

D) Einstein

Q2) In an x-ray diffraction experiment,using x-rays of wavelength = 0.434 × 10 ¹⁰ m,a first-order maximum occurred at 8° off the crystal plane.Find the distance d between crystal planes.

A) 1.56E-10 m

B) 2.19E-11 m

C) 4.88E-10 m

D) 1.70E-9 m

E) 3.12E-10 m

Q3) Due to the dual nature of light and matter,either can act in an experiment as if it is a wave or a particle.In which experiment is the wave aspect exhibited for matter?

A) the Davisson and Germer experiment

B) the photoelectric effect

C) pair production

D) Compton scattering

Page 55

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Chapter 27: Quantum Physics Blackbody Radiation and Plancks

Hypothesis: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) A ground observer measures the period of a pendulum moving as a part of an inertial frame of reference to be 2.30 s as the inertial frame moves by at a velocity of 0.800c.What would the observed period be of the same pendulum if its inertial frame were at rest with respect to the observer?

A) 3.03 s

B) 1.38 s

C) 1.84 s

D) 4.25 s

Q2) A muon formed high in Earth's atmosphere travels at a speed 0.9900c for a distance (as we see it)of 9200 m before it decays.How far does the muon travel as measured in its frame?

A) 2596 m

B) 1298 m

C) 4554 m

D) 649 m

Q3) At what speed is the momentum of an object triple that found classically?

A) c/3

B) 0.942 c

C) 0.866c

D) 2c/3

Page 56

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Chapter 28: Atomic Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a hydrogen atom,originally in its ground state of energy -13.6 eV,absorbs a photon of energy 15.9 eV,what is the resulting kinetic energy of the electron if the proton has negligible kinetic energy?

A) 13.6

B) -2.30 eV

C) 2.30 eV

D) 15.9 eV

E) Such a photon cannot be absorbed in this case.

Q2) What is the energy needed to change an He⁺ ion into an He⁺⁺ ion? (The ionization energy of hydrogen is 13.6 eV).

A) 13.6 eV

B) 54.4 eV

C) 92.9 eV

D) 112.4 eV

Q3) The Bohr model of the hydrogen atom accounts for which quantum number?

A) principal

B) orbital

C) orbital magnetic

D) All of the above.

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Page 57

Chapter 28: Atomic Physics: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) The microwave in the kitchen has a label that indicates it produces its microwaves at a frequency of 2450 MHz.What is the energy associated with one of these microwave photons? (h = 6.63 × 10 ³⁴ J s)

A) 3.19 × 10^-2 eV

B) 2.45 eV

C) 1.02 × 10^-5 eV

D) 1.62 eV

Q2) Of the following energies for photons,which is the least energy that could result in photoelectron production if the work function is 1.60 eV?

A) 1.50 eV

B) 6.01 eV

C) 2.90 eV

D) 3.50 eV

Q3) As the temperature of a radiation emitting blackbody becomes lower,what happens to the peak wavelength of the radiation?

A) remains constant

B) increases

C) decreases D) is directly proportional to temperature

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Page 58

Chapter 29: Nuclear Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The neutron is radioactive and can beta decay to form a proton.This can occur primarily because:

A) the proton has less mass than a neutron.

B) there are several hydrogen isotopes.

C) of the binding energy of hydrogen.

D) the neutron is neutral.

Q2) Uranium-238 decays to Thorium-234 by emitting which of the following?

A) beta

B) alpha

C) gamma

D) positron

Q3) The half-life of radioactive Technetium-99 is 6.0 hours.Find the number of ⁹⁹Tc nuclei necessary to produce a sample of activity 1.9 µCi.(1 Ci = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ decays/second)

A) 5.9E-2

B) 2.2E+9

C) 1.5E+9

D) 6.1E+5

E) 4.2E+5

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Page 59

Chapter 29: Nuclear Physics: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) The quantum mechanical model of the hydrogen atom requires that if the orbital quantum number of the hydrogen atom is 3,there will be how many permitted orbital magnetic quantum numbers?

A) three

B) nine

C) four

D) seven

Q2) What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy a 3d subshell?

A) 5

B) 14

C) 10

D) 18

Q3) When a hydrogen atom absorbs a photon that raises it to the n = 4 state,what is the least number of photons that can be emitted by that atom as it returns to the ground state?

A) 4

B) 3

C) 5

D) The correct value is not given.

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Page 60

Chapter 30: Nuclear Energy and Elementary Particles

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the standard model,a quark and its antiquark may have the same:

A) spin.

B) baryon number.

C) charge.

D) All of the above may be the same.

Q2) The medical diagnostic technique PET stands for:

A) proton energizing test.

B) phosphorus electron tracing.

C) precision electronic tracking.

D) positron emission tomography.

Q3) A positron and an electron differ in:

A) charge.

B) mass.

C) spin.

D) energy.

Q4) Which particle in the free state is least stable?

A) electron

B) photon

C) neutron

D) proton

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Chapter 30: Nuclear Energy and Elementary Particles: Part

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pure sample of ²²⁶Ra contains 3.0 × 10¹⁴ atoms of the isotope.If the half-life of ²²⁶Ra = 1.6 × 10³ years,what is the decay rate of this sample? (1 Ci = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ decays/s)

A) 2.7 × 10 ¹² Ci

B) 11 × 10 ⁸ Ci

C) 3.4 × 10 ¹⁰ Ci

D) 7.4 × 10 ⁸ Ci

Q2) What is the energy released for the reaction where the products are 0.0051 u less than the reactants? (1 u = 931.5 MeV/c²)

A) 7.6 MeV

B) 5.2 MeV

C) 4.8 MeV

D) 8.5 MeV

Q3) If there are 146 neutrons in ²³⁸U,how many neutrons are found in the nucleus of ²³³U?

A) 147

B) 145

C) 143

D) 141

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Chapter 31: Particle Collisions, Mediating Photons, and Quark Structures:

Exploring the Fundamentals of Physics

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Q1) The strong force is mediated by

A) the gluon.

B) the W^- boson.

C) the W⁺ boson.

D) All of these choices.

Q2) The microwave background radiation:

A) represents the leftover glow from the Big Bang.

B) had its slight non-uniformity measured by COBE.

C) was discovered by Penzias and Wilson.

D) All of the above.

Q3) The exchange of mediating photons can produce

A) neither a repulsive nor an attractive force.

B) either a repulsive or an attractive force.

C) a repulsive force.

D) an attractive force.

Q4) Of the following mesons,which is its own antiparticle?

A) K^-

B)

C) ⁺

D) none of those given

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