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Introduction to Pharmacy Practice provides an overview of the foundational concepts and essential skills required for the pharmacy profession. The course covers the roles and responsibilities of pharmacists within various healthcare settings, introduces students to pharmacy laws and ethics, and emphasizes the importance of effective communication and professionalism. Students will learn about the medication use process, patient safety, and the basics of drug information resources. Through case studies and practical exercises, the course aims to prepare students for direct patient care and collaboration as integral members of the healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook
Mosbys Pharmacy Technician Principles and Practice 4th Edition by Elsevier
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Q1) Today, licensure for pharmacists includes:
A)Passing the National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) examination and an examination covering the individual pharmacist's state pharmacy law
B)Earning a PharmD degree
C)Taking the PTCB examination
D)A and B
Answer: D
Q2) What term refers to a set of standards or guidelines within which a facility functions?
A)Laws
B)Ethics
C)Dogma
D)Protocol
Answer: D
Q3) Which medication(s) come(s) from plants?
A)Opium
B)Penicillin
C)Quinine
D)A and C
Answer: D
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Q1) The first set of numbers of a National Drug Code (NDC) number, which is assigned by the FDA, is the:
A)Labeler code
B)Product code
C)Package code
D)None of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Drug diversion can be defined as the:
A)Intentional misuse of a drug intended for medical purposes
B)Mishandling of a medication that can lead to contamination or impurity, falsification of contents, or loss of drug quality or potency
C)Recreational use of a prescription or a scheduled drug
D)A and C
Answer: D
Q3) Which schedule of medication is considered an exempt controlled substance?
A)C-II
B)C-III
C)C-IV
D)C-V
Answer: D
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Q1) The measure of professionalism includes:
A)Attitude
B)Level of competence
C)Interpersonal skills
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Job sites for pharmacy technicians include:
A)Hospital, retail, and long-term care pharmacies
B)Prisons
C)Insurance and software companies
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) The White Paper on Pharmacy Technicians 2002 addressed:
A)Pharmacy technician qualifications, knowledge, and responsibilities
B)Pharmacist qualifications
C)The concern that technicians were putting pharmacists out of work
D)The idea that technicians should counsel patients
Answer: A
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Q1) The mental disposition or feeling a technician adopts when interacting with customers, patients, and co-workers or when performing duties at work is called:
A)Attitude
B)Ethics
C)Morals
D)Outlook
Q2) Which of the following pertain to spoken communication?
A)Vocal
B)Verbal
C)Gestures
D)A and B
Q3) One of the most prevalent concerns of retail pharmacy managers and pharmacists is the need for pharmacy technicians who are competent in the area of:
A)Communication
B)Compounding
C)Aseptic technique
D)Research
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Q1) An advantage of the IV route of administration is:
A)Fast onset of action
B)Low cost
C)Ease of preparation and administration
D)Little or no time to counteract an overdose
Q2) Which of the following are ways a drug may be eliminated from the body?
A)Urine and feces
B)Sweat
C)Breast milk
D)All of the above
Q3) Which one of the following statements is not true? Suspensions:
A)Must always be shaken.
B)Are available for many routes of administration.
C)Have very small solid particles suspended in a base solution.
D)Are a good choice for children and some seniors.
Q4) Which of the following liquids always contain alcohol?
A)Syrup
B)Suspension
C)Elixir
D)Spray
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Q1) What is 12:30 AM in military time?
A)1200
B)0000
C)1230
D)0030
Q2) One fluid dram is often approximated to equal:
A)1 tsp
B)15 mL
C)1 Tbsp
D)A and B
Q3) How many grams of dextrose are needed to prepare 500 mL of 20% dextrose solution?
A)10
B)20
C)60
D)100
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Q1) OBC:
A)Is a method of pricing drugs.
B)Identifies therapeutic equivalence.
C)Stands for Orange Book code.
D)B and C
Q2) Micromedex Healthcare Evidence and Clinical Xpert provide an online and mobile application that can be used by:
A)Physicians
B)Pharmacists
C)Nurses
D)All of the above
Q3) Which reference book is a compilation of package inserts from manufacturers who have paid a fee to have their drugs included?
A)Drug Facts and Comparisons
B)Physicians' Desk Reference (PDR)
C)American Hospital Formulary Service Drug Information
D)Orange Book
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Q1) In a community pharmacy, the prescription department is required to have a:
A)Sink with hot and cold running water
B)Microwave
C)Security system
D)A and C
Q2) Which of the following items of information should the pharmacy technician collect from a new patient?
A)Patient's address
B)Known allergies
C)Prescription insurance information
D)All of the above
Q3) Durable medical equipment (DME) includes all of the following except:
A)Wheelchairs
B)Incontinence supplies
C)Hospital beds
D)Commodes
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Q1) USP <797> regulations state that compounding should take place within an ______ or better clean room.
A)International Standards Organization (ISO) Class 1
B)ISO Class 2
C)ISO Class 8
D)ISO Class 9
Q2) A Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee is made up of:
A)Pharmacists
B)Nurses and physicians
C)Administrative personnel
D)All of the above
Q3) The Pyxis company currently makes a(n):
A)Automated dispensing system
B)Safe system
C)Automated packaging machine
D)All of the above
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Q1) Pharmacy benefit management (PBM) companies hire pharmacy technicians to:
A)Process claims for members according to their benefits.
B)Provide benefit information to patients.
C)Prepare mail-order prescriptions.
D)Perform all of the above tasks.
Q2) In what type of pharmacy setting are the pharmacist and technician not in direct contact with one another?
A)Nuclear pharmacy
B)Inpatient pharmacy
C)Telepharmacy
D)Retail pharmacy
Q3) Radiopharmaceuticals can be administered by:
A)Mouth
B)Injection
C)Installation in the bladder
D)All of the above
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Q1) Which organization sets the standards for a nonsterile compounding area?
A)U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
B)American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP)
C)United States Pharmacopeia (USP)
D)Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
Q2) Which of the following ingredients is(are) considered hydrophobic?
A)Ointment
B)Cream
C)Oleaginous base
D)A and B
Q3) Where does a technician log information concerning the contents of a particular product that has been compounded?
A)Material safety data sheets (MSDS)
B)Formulation record
C)Compounding record
D)GMP
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Q1) KPO is the chemical formula for:
A)Calcium phosphate
B)Potassium phosphorous oxide
C)Potassium phosphate
D)Calcium phosphorous oxide
Q2) Which of the following IV hoods can be used to prepare chemotherapy medications?
A)Horizontal flow hood
B)Vertical flow hood
C)Biological safety cabinet
D)B and C
Q3) All of the following can be added to a TPN except:
A)Regular insulin
B)Neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin
C)Histamine-2 antagonists
D)Electrolytes
Q4) The anteroom is adjacent to the:
A)Green room
B)Clean or buffer room
C)Primary engineering control room
D)Nonsterile compounding room
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Q1) What is meant by a back-ordered item?
A)The item is automatically replaced by the wholesaler on a weekly basis.
B)The item must be reordered since it did not arrive with the order.
C)The ordered item is not currently in stock but will be sent as soon as it is available.
D)The item has been discontinued.
Q2) Medicare Part D specifically covers:
A)Prescription medications
B)Surgery
C)Physicians' visits
D)Physical therapy
Q3) In which of the following circumstances do most insurance companies allow early refills?
A)Extended vacation
B)Disaster situation
C)Needing a backup supply
D)A and B
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Q1) What is an ADR?
A)Actual drug reaction
B)Adverse drug reaction
C)Adverse drug response
D)Actual drug response
Q2) Which one of the following is not a high-alert IV medication according the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)?
A)Insulin
B)Heparin
C)Potassium chloride (KCl)
D)Penicillin
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the five safety standards outlined by TJC?
A)Leadership Process and Accountability
B)Competent and Capable Workforce
C)Safe Environment for Staff and Patients
D)Clinical Care of Staff
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Q1) Which of the following is not a primary function of the nervous system?
A)Relaying impulses to and from the central nervous system (CNS)
B)Coordinating of the nervous system activities
C)Detecting sensory changes
D)Transporting nutrients
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning insomnia is false?
A)Insomnia increases in prevalence with age.
B)It is more common in men than women.
C)Insomnia can be a difficulty in falling or staying asleep or an issue of awakening too early.
D)It can be related to medication use.
Q3) Parkinson disease (PD) is characterized by a deficiency of which of the following transmitters?
A)Epinephrine
B)Norepinephrine
C)Dopamine
D)Serotonin
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Q1) All of the following are true of Graves disease except:
A)Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder.
B)Common symptoms of Graves disease are goiter and exophthalmos.
C)Although rare, Graves disease is more common in women than men.
D)Graves disease can be treated with thyroid hormone replacement therapy.
Q2) Aldosterone:
A)Is a glucocorticoid.
B)Maintains sodium and magnesium levels.
C)Stimulates the kidneys to conserve sodium and excrete potassium.
D)Is all of the above.
Q3) Which medication(s) contain(s) the generic ingredient levothyroxine?
A)Synthroid
B)Levoxyl
C)Armour Thyroid
D)A and B
Q4) Secretion of too much aldosterone by the adrenal glands can lead to:
A)Hypertension from the retention of sodium and water
B)Hyperkalemia from the retention of potassium
C)Hypokalemia from the excretion of potassium
D)A and C

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Q1) All of the following osteoporosis agents are in the same class except:
A)Fosamax
B)Boniva
C)Actonel
D)Evista
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
A)Structural support and protection
B)Facilitates movement
C)Storage site for sodium and potassium
D)Storage bank for calcium and phosphorus
Q3) Baclofen (Lioresal) belongs to what classification of medication?
A)Skeletal muscle relaxants
B)NSAIDs
C)Osteoporosis agents
D)Analgesics
Q4) The only COX-2 inhibitor available in the United States is:
A)Celebrex
B)Vioxx
C)Mobic
D)Motrin
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Q1) Low-molecular-weight heparins (LMWHs) are:
A)Used as bridge therapy until therapeutic warfarin levels are reached.
B)Subcutaneously administered.
C)Used only in hospitals.
D)A and B are characteristics of LMWHs.
Q2) One annoying side effect of some niacin formulations is:
A)Cramping
B)Diarrhea
C)Flushing
D)Excessive urination
Q3) Excessive salt intake can cause:
A)Edema
B)Decreased blood pressure
C)Dehydration
D)B and C
Q4) Nitrates:
A)Dilate the arteries to permit an increase of blood flow to the heart muscle.
B)Reduce the workload of the heart.
C)Are used to treat angina.
D)All of the above are true statements.
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Q1) MDI stands for:
A)Multiple-drug inclusion
B)Many dosage increments
C)Metered-dose inhaler
D)Multidose inhaler
Q2) The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide within the respiratory system takes place in the:
A)Trachea
B)Alveoli
C)Bronchioles
D)Pharynx
Q3) Influenza can be fatal to:
A)Older adults
B)Infants
C)Those with weakened immune systems
D)All of the above
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Q1) Auxiliary organs of the digestive system include all except the:
A)Pancreas
B)Liver
C)Gallbladder
D)Appendix
Q2) The organs most involved in the absorption of nutrients are:
A)Mouth and salivary glands
B)Stomach and small intestines
C)Large intestine
D)Anus
Q3) All of the following are functions of the GI system except:
A)Absorption
B)Digestion
C)Distribution
D)Excretion
Q4) Bulk-forming agents are used for:
A)Constipation
B)Nausea
C)Diarrhea
D)A and C
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Q1) All of the following are potassium-sparing diuretics except:
A)spironolactone (Aldactone)
B)triamterene (Dyrenium)
C)amiloride (Midamor)
D)furosemide (Lasix)
Q2) Agents to treat anemia associated with kidney failure include:
A)Ferrous sulfate to increase the production of red blood cells
B)Erythropoietin to increase the production of red blood cells
C)Ferrous sulfate to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the hemoglobin in red blood cells
D)All of the above
Q3) What is a possible side effect of all diuretics?
A)Hypokalemia
B)Hypotension
C)Photosensitivity
D)Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
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Q1) Which of the following hormones cause(s) weight gain, cramping, swelling, acne, and anxiety in women during the last 2 weeks of the menstrual cycle?
A)Estrogen
B)Progesterone
C)Androgen
D)A and B
Q2) The generic name for Cialis is:
A)Sildenafil
B)Vardenafil
C)Tadalafil
D)Alprostadil
Q3) Which one of the following statements is not true regarding the application of the contraceptive patch Ortho Evra?
A)The Ortho Evra patch can be applied to the upper arm, back, abdomen, or buttocks.
B)One patch is used for a period of 3 weeks.
C)The fourth week should be patch free.
D)A new patch should be applied at the beginning of each of the first 3 weeks.
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Q1) Chronic inflammation can:
A)Occur locally or systemically.
B)Lead to the development of scar tissue.
C)Alter an organ's ability to function optimally.
D)All of the above are characteristics of chronic inflammation.
Q2) Propylthiouracil and methimazole are used to treat:
A)RA
B)Hyperthyroidism
C)Hypothyroidism
D)SLE
Q3) Which of the following would not be considered an antigen?
A)Virus
B)Foreign substance that causes a disease
C)Foreign substance that causes no reaction
D)Foreign substance that causes an allergy
Q4) Which of the following statements is(are) true regarding cytokines?
A)Cytokines are secreted by a variety of cells, including immune cells.
B)They signal inflammation and the activation of immune responses.
C)Cytokines include tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and interleukin-1 (IL-1).
D)All of the above are true statements.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true regarding GERD?
A)Treatment includes avoiding certain foods.
B)Medication treatment includes the use of antacids.
C)Medication treatment includes proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) and histamine 2 (H )-antagonists.
D)Medications are available by prescription only.
Q2) Acute bacterial sinusitis:
A)Primarily develops as a secondary infection after an upper respiratory viral infection.
B)Will typically improve after 7 to 10 days without treatment.
C)Is easy to distinguish from viral sinusitis.
D)Does not include congestion and fever.
Q3) Medications for earwax removal include:
A)Debrox
B)Pinnacaine
C)Ceruminex
D)A and C
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Q1) What is an advantage of topical antibiotics over oral antibiotics for the treatment of impetigo?
A)Topical antibiotics work faster.
B)They are more effective.
C)Topical antibiotics do not have systemic side effects.
D)They cover more strains of bacteria.
Q2) Pruritis is the medical term for:
A)Skin inflammation
B)Acne
C)Itching
D)Rash
Q3) Which one of the following statements is not true regarding permethrin (Nix)?
A)Permethrin (Nix) is available by prescription only.
B)It paralyzes and kills lice.
C)Permethrin (Nix) is available as a topical cream rinse.
D)A second treatment may be required in 7 to 10 days.
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Q1) What is the primary treatment for iron-deficiency anemia?
A)Spinach
B)Blood transfusions
C)Oral iron supplements
D)Intravenous (IV) iron
Q2) In which form of anemia do RBCs take on an abnormal shape?
A)Folate-deficiency anemia
B)Iron-deficiency anemia
C)Pernicious anemia
D)Sickle cell anemia
Q3) DDAVP increases plasma factor VIII and von Willebrand factor and is used to treat:
A)von Willebrand disease
B)Hemophilia A
C)Surgical bleeding
D)All of the above
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Q1) What is the generic name for Claritin?
A)Cetirizine
B)Fexofenadine
C)Diphenhydramine
D)Loratadine
Q2) Symptoms such as itching, hives, sneezing, and itchy and runny eyes should be treated with a(n):
A)Antihistamine
B)Decongestant
C)Combination antihistamine and decongestant
D)Analgesic
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true regarding OTC sleep aids?
A)Many sleep aids contain antihistamines.
B)Sleep aids cause drowsiness.
C)Many contain acetaminophen.
D)Sleep aids are approved for chronic insomnia.
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Q1) Which of the following is not considered a form of CAM?
A)Yoga
B)Meditation
C)Weight lifting
D)Acupuncture and acupressure
Q2) Ginkgo is used for:
A)Gastrointestinal (GI) upset
B)Alzheimer disease
C)High blood pressure
D)Diabetes
Q3) Goals of the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine (NCCAM) include:
A)Researching alternative medicine
B)Training people in CAM techniques
C)Providing consumer information about CAM therapy
D)All of the above
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