Introduction to Pathophysiology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Pathophysiology explores the foundational concepts of how normal physiological processes are altered by disease or injury. The course provides a comprehensive overview of cellular and systemic responses to various stressors, disturbances, and pathological conditions. Students learn about the mechanisms behind common disorders affecting different body systems, including inflammation, immune responses, genetic mutations, and metabolic imbalances. Emphasis is placed on understanding the underlying causes of diseases, their clinical manifestations, and the body's compensatory mechanisms, preparing students for further studies in health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 6th Edition by
Jacquelyn L. Banasik
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54 Chapters
1199 Verified Questions
1199 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) After suffering a heart attack,a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication.This is an example of
A) primary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) tertiary prevention.
D) disease treatment.
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is swabbing a patient's throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis.The nurse must understand that tests such as this differ in the probability that they will be positive for a condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is termed sensitivity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) When the cause is unknown,a condition is said to be idiopathic
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis, Allostasis, and Adaptive
Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by A) norepinephrine.
B) cortisol.
C) glucagon.
D) ACTH.
Answer: A
Q2) The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is A) energy and repair.
B) invoke resting state.
C) produce exhaustion.
D) set a new baseline steady-state.
Answer: A
Q3) The effects of excessive cortisol production include A) immune suppression.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) anorexia.
D) inflammatory reactions.
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) GTP-binding proteins (G-proteins)function to
A) activate receptors on the extracellular surface.
B) degrade second-messenger molecules.
C) activate intracellular enzyme systems.
D) synthesize ATP.
Answer: C
Q2) Excitable cells are able to conduct action potentials because they have A) receptors for neurotransmitters.
B) tight junctions.
C) ligand-gated channels.
D) voltage-gated channels.
Answer: D
Q3) Cell-to-cell communication through secretion of chemical signals into the bloodstream to target cells throughout the body is called _____ signaling.
A) synaptic
B) paracrine
C) endocrine
D) autocrine
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is
A) anaplasia.
B) dysplasia.
C) metaplasia.
D) hyperplasia.
Q2) Somatic death refers to death
A) of a body organ.
B) of the entire organism.
C) of nerve cells.
D) secondary to brain damage.
Q3) Reperfusion injury to cells
A) results in very little cellular damage.
B) results from calcium deficiency in cells.
C) occurs following nutritional injury.
D) involves formation of free radicals.
Q4) Coagulative necrosis is caused by
A) dissolving of dead cells and cyst formation.
B) trauma or pancreatitis.
C) lung tissue damage.
D) interrupted blood supply.
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Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The differences in structure and function of cells in different body tissues are resulting from
A) gene differences in tissue cells.
B) expression of tissue-specific genes.
C) transcriptional controls.
D) translation of amino acids to proteins.
Q2) The primary role of genes is to
A) code for reproduction.
B) direct the synthesis of proteins.
C) determine differentiation.
D) determine cellular apoptosis.
Q3) Which tissue type is categorized as epithelial?
A) Tendons and ligaments
B) Blood cells
C) Blood vessel endothelium
D) Cartilage
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Huntington disease primarily affects the _____ system.
A) neurologic
B) muscular
C) gastrointestinal
D) endocrine
Q2) Characteristics of X-linked (sex-linked)recessive disorders include
A) all daughters of affected fathers' being carriers.
B) boys' and girls' being equally affected.
C) the son of a carrier female's having a 25% chance of being affected.
D) affected fathers' transmitting the gene to all their sons.
Q3) Information parents should be given about the consequences of PKU includes
A) high dietary phenylalanine may help induce enzyme production.
B) PKU is commonly associated with other congenital anomalies.
C) failure to avoid phenylalanine results in progressive mental retardation.
D) mental retardation is inevitable.
Q4) Males are more likely than females to be affected by ________ disorders.
A) X-linked
B) autosomal-dominant
C) autosomal-recessive
D) chromosomal nondisjunction
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is scheduled for a staging procedure.She wants to know what that means.The correct response is which of the following?
A) It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread.
B) It is a histologic examination of tissues to determine the degree of tumor differentiation.
C) It is based on exploratory surgery.
D) It is biochemical testing of tumor cells to determine the genetic basis of the tumor.
Q2) A patient with metastatic lung cancer wants to know her chances for survival.Which response is correct?
A) "Lung cancer is always fatal."
B) "Lung cancer has about a 15% survival rate."
C) "Lung cancer is highly curable when diagnosed early."
D) "Lung cancer death rate has decreased significantly, as with all other cancers."
Q3) In general,a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is more likely to be aggressive.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed A) endemic.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) partdemic.
Q2) Characteristics of immunization include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Giving injections of preformed antibodies provides immediate immunity.
B) Immunization provides life-long immunity.
C) Immunization with killed vaccines may lead to infection from the agent.
D) Herd immunity controls disease without immunizing everyone in the population.
E) Lack of immunization may lead to an epidemic.
Q3) The most common method of disease transmission is A) airborne.
B) droplet.
C) vector.
D) inoculant.
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Functions of B cells include
A) synthesizing antibodies.
B) secreting cytokines.
C) killing antigen-presenting cells.
D) stimulating B cells.
E) killing virally infected cells.
Q2) Leukocytosis with a "shift to the left" refers to
A) elevated segmented neutrophils.
B) elevated immature neutrophils.
C) decreased monocytes.
D) decreased immature neutrophils.
Q3) The spleen is an important defense against infection,because it
A) activates the complement cascade.
B) initiates inflammation.
C) controls phagocytosis.
D) filters the blood.
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11
Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is A) monocytes.
B) mast cells.
C) neutrophils.
D) cytotoxic cells.
Q2) Secondary immune deficiency problems may be caused by (Select all that apply.)
A) surgery.
B) high blood sugar.
C) corticosteroids.
D) genetic disorders.
E) low protein level.
Q3) Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they A) run high fevers.
B) have unusually high WBC counts.
C) develop brain infections.
D) develop recurrent infections.
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autologous stem cell transplantation is a procedure in which
A) there is a high rejection rate.
B) stem cells are transferred to the patient from an HLA-matched donor.
C) stem cells are transferred to the patient from an identical twin.
D) stem cells are harvested from the patient and then returned to the same patient.
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with CML (chronic myeloid leukemia).The patient may experience which of these symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fatigue
B) Weight loss
C) Abdominal discomfort
D) Joint pain
E) Sweats
Q3) Renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease?
A) Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
B) Chronic lymphoid leukemia (CLL)
C) Myeloma
D) Hodgkin disease
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13
Chapter 12: HIV Disease and Aids
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIV replicates very quickly from the onset of infection.What is the major site of HIV replication?
A) Vaginal mucosa
B) Anal mucosa
C) GI tract
D) Respiratory tract
Q2) Which statement about HIV testing is correct?
A) Any patient can be tested for HIV with or without their informed consent.
B) A negative HIV test ensures absence of infection.
C) The false-negative rate for HIV testing is zero.
D) Significant exposure to infected blood or body fluids requires HIV testing.
Q3) The CDC defines three CD4 T-cell categories of T cell ranges.Which values are correct? (Select all that apply.)
A) In category 1, the CD4 T-cell count is greater than or equal to 500/mL.
B) In category 1, the CD4 T-cell counts range from 200 to 499/mL.
C) In category 2, the CD4 T-cell counts range from 200 to 499/mL.
D) In category 3, the CD4 T-cell count is less than 200/mL.
E) In category 3, the CD4 T-cell count is less than 300/mL.
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14
Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anemia resulting from a deficiency of either vitamin B (cobalamin)or folate is caused by a disruption in DNA synthesis of the blast cells in the bone marrow that produces very large abnormal bone marrow cells called megaloblasts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream as A) carboxyhemoglobin.
B) bicarbonate ion.
C) dissolved carbon dioxide.
D) carbonic acid.
Q3) The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is A) volume expansion with saline.
B) measured to improve oxygenation.
C) phlebotomy.
D) chemotherapy.
Q4) Red blood cells differ from other cell types in the body,because they A) contain cytoplasmic proteins.
B) have no cytoplasmic organelles.
C) have a longer life span.
D) contain glycolytic enzymes.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Homeostasis and Blood
Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The conversion of plasminogen to plasmin results in A) clot retraction.
B) fibrinolysis.
C) platelet aggregation.
D) activation of thrombin.
Q2) A patient presents to the physician's office with pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin.The patient is most likely between the ages of _____ years.
A) 6 months and 2
B) 4 and 7
C) 15 and 18
D) 25 and 45
Q3) Treatment for hemophilia A includes A) heparin administration.
B) factor IX replacement.
C) factor VIII replacement.
D) platelet transfusion.
Q4) Hemophilia B is also known as Christmas disease. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood flow is slow through capillaries because capillaries
A) are so far away from the heart.
B) have the largest total cross-sectional area.
C) are so narrow.
D) have no smooth muscle.
Q2) Clinical manifestations of chronic arterial obstruction include A) edema.
B) intermittent claudication.
C) decreased pressure proximal to the obstruction.
D) distal hyperemia.
Q3) A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is A) stroke.
B) hypertensive crisis.
C) extremity necrosis.
D) pulmonary embolus.
Q4) Tissues are able to autoregulate their rate of blood flow by controlling A) perfusion pressure.
B) arterial blood pressure.
C) vascular resistance.
D) venous return to the heart.
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle,because it increases A) stroke volume.
B) blood volume.
C) preload.
D) afterload.
Q2) A patient has a history of falls,syncope,dizziness,and blurred vision.The patient's symptomology is most likely related to A) hypertension.
B) hypotension.
C) deep vein thrombosis.
D) angina.
Q3) The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in A) non-Hispanic white adults.
B) Mexican-American adults.
C) non-Hispanic black adults.
D) Asian children.
Q4) The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is pulmonary disease. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A requirement for rhythmicity is that the cell membrane has channels that automatically open during phase 3.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Creatine phosphate is
A) a waste product of cellular metabolism.
B) synthesized when ATP levels are high.
C) enzymatically degraded to form creatine kinase.
D) an indicator of myocardial cell damage.
Q3) Electrical currents that travel through the heart are called vectors because they include (Select all that apply.)
A) direction.
B) polarity.
C) magnitude.
D) vascularity.
E) ionic waves.
Q4) The R wave is responsible for apical depolarization.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Constrictive pericarditis is associated with A) impaired cardiac filling.
B) cardiac hypertrophy.
C) increased cardiac preload.
D) elevated myocardial oxygen consumption.
Q2) Inflammatory disorders that may alter endothelial cell function include (Select all that apply.)
A) multiple sclerosis.
B) lupus erythematosus.
C) Kawasaki syndrome.
D) rheumatoid arthritis.
E) polyarteritis nodosa.
Q3) The most reliable indicator that a person is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI)is
A) severe, crushing chest pain.
B) ST-segment elevation.
C) dysrhythmias.
D) pain radiating to the lower legs.
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Q1) The common denominator in all forms of heart failure is
A) poor diastolic filling.
B) reduced cardiac output.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) tissue ischemia.
Q2) After sitting in a chair for an hour,an elderly patient develops moderate lower extremity edema.His edema is most likely a consequence of
A) arterial obstruction.
B) isolated left-sided heart failure.
C) right-sided heart failure.
D) peripheral vascular disease.
Q3) A patient's ECG lacks recognizable waveforms and is deemed to be in sinus arrest.The patient's sinus arrest may be a result of (Select all that apply.)
A) MI.
B) electrical shock.
C) electrolyte disturbance.
D) acidosis.
E) alkalosis.
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Q1) A patient who was involved in a fall from a tree becomes short of breath.The lung sounds are absent on one side.This patient is experiencing ________ shock.
A) cardiogenic
B) obstructive
C) hypovolemic
D) distributive
Q2) Administration of a vasodilator to a patient in shock would be expected to A) decrease vascular resistance.
B) increase contractility.
C) decrease left ventricular afterload.
D) increase tissue perfusion.
Q3) In contrast to all other types of shock,the hyperdynamic phase of septic shock is associated with A) high afterload.
B) low cardiac output.
C) high cardiac output.
D) reduced contractility.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic pulmonary hypertension can eventually cause which complication?
A) Pulmonary emboli
B) Respiratory acidosis
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Right heart failure
Q2) The central chemoreceptors for respiratory control are
A) located in the carotid artery.
B) responsive primarily to changes in pH and CO .
C) responsive primarily to hypoxemia.
D) less important than the peripheral chemoreceptors in maintaining respiration.
Q3) The pulmonary structure that has the least pulmonary blood flow is
A) lung apex.
B) middle lung.
C) lower lung.
D) zone 4.
Q4) Hypoventilation causes
A) hypoxemia.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) increased minute ventilation.
D) decreased PaCO .
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Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Q1) Lack of a-antitrypsin in emphysema causes
A) chronic mucous secretion and airway fibrosis.
B) destruction of alveolar tissue.
C) pulmonary edema and increased alveolar compliance.
D) bronchoconstriction and airway edema.
Q2) The increased anterior-posterior chest diameter associated with obstructive lung disease is caused by
A) increased pulmonary blood flow.
B) increased expiratory flow rates.
C) increased residual lung volumes.
D) decreased chest wall compliance.
Q3) To best prevent emphysema,a patient is instructed to stop smoking since cigarette smoke
A) impairs a -antitrypsin, allowing elastase to predominate.
B) paralyzes the cilia, causing impaired mucociliary clearance.
C) predisposes to respiratory infections.
D) introduces carcinogens into the lungs.
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Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Widespread atelectasis,non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema,and diffuse,fluffy alveolar infiltrates on chest radiograph are characteristic of
A) acute respiratory distress syndrome.
B) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
C) asthma.
D) cor pulmonale.
Q2) Which is indicative of a left tension pneumothorax?
A) Course crackles throughout the left chest
B) Tracheal deviation to the left
C) Absent breath sounds on the left
D) Respiratory acidosis
Q3) Empyema is defined as an
A) exudative bronchitis.
B) infection in the pleural space.
C) infection localized in the lung.
D) infection in the blood.
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Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) What is the most likely explanation for a diagnosis of hypernatremia in an elderly patient receiving tube feeding?
A) Too much sodium in the feedings
B) Excess of feedings
C) Inadequate water intake
D) Kidney failure
Q2) Signs and symptoms of clinical dehydration include
A) decreased urine output.
B) increased skin turgor.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) decreased heart rate.
Q3) Osmoreceptors located in the hypothalamus control the release of A) angiotensin.
B) atrial natriuretic peptide.
C) aldosterone.
D) vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH).
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) The patient who requires the most careful monitoring for development of metabolic acidosis is a patient who
A) is in the diuretic phase of acute renal failure.
B) has had hypokalemia for over a week.
C) has had diarrhea for over a week.
D) has newly diagnosed Cushing syndrome.
Q2) Metabolic alkalosis is often accompanied by A) hypernatremia.
B) hyponatremia.
C) hyperkalemia.
D) hypokalemia.
Q3) Respiratory acidosis may be caused by A) hyperventilation.
B) massive blood transfusion.
C) tissue hypoxia.
D) hypoventilation.
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Q1) The primary selectivity barrier for glomerular filtration is the
A) glomerular basement membrane.
B) endothelial tight junctions.
C) epithelial fenestra.
D) mesangial cells.
Q2) Factors that increase the glomerular filtration rate include
A) fluid volume excess.
B) increased hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman's capsule.
C) high oncotic pressure in glomerular capillary blood.
D) obstruction in the renal tubules.
Q3) The underlying mechanism which directly results in glycosuria is
A) filtration of glucose from the glomerulus.
B) exceeding the threshold for glucose reabsorption.
C) secretion of glucose into the distal tubule.
D) the mechanism is unknown.
Q4) It is true that glucose reabsorption in the tubules
A) occurs passively.
B) occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule.
C) is unlimited.
D) simply does not occur.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Q1) It is true that polycystic kidney disease is
A) always rapidly fatal.
B) caused by a streptococcal infection.
C) associated with supernumerary kidney.
D) genetically transmitted.
Q2) Glomerular disorders include A) pyelonephritis.
B) obstructive uropathy.
C) interstitial cystitis.
D) nephrotic syndrome.
Q3) The organism most commonly associated with acute pyelonephritis is A) Streptococcus.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Klebsiella.
D) Enterobacter.
Q4) The most common sign/symptom of renal calculi is A) pain.
B) vomiting.
C) hematuria.
D) oliguria.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Q1) The condition associated with end-stage chronic renal disease that is the most immediately life threatening is
A) azotemia.
B) increased creatinine.
C) hypertension.
D) hyperkalemia.
Q2) The most common cause of ischemic acute tubular necrosis (ATN)in the United States is
A) hypotension.
B) hypovolemia.
C) renal artery stenosis.
D) sepsis.
Q3) The most common agent resulting in nephrotoxicity and subsequent acute tubular necrosis (ATN)in hospitalized patients is
A) contrast media.
B) antibiotics.
C) cancer chemotherapy.
D) recreational drugs.
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Q1) Vesicoureteral reflux is associated with A) increased serum creatinine.
B) recurrent cystitis.
C) polycystic renal disease.
D) proteinuria.
Q2) Detrusor muscle overactivity can be improved by administration of A) alpha-receptor agonists.
B) botulinum toxin.
C) cholinergic agents.
D) nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents.
Q3) Infection can lead to bladder stone formation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person is unaware that his bladder is full of urine,but complains that he is leaking urine almost constantly.The most accurate term for this type of incontinence is A) overflow.
B) stress.
C) urge.
D) mixed.
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The thick covering of the ovum is called the zona pellucid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The main function of the prostate is to
A) produce sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid to support sperm.
C) secrete male hormones.
D) provide innervation for erection.
Q3) The male penis is innervated by the ________ nerve.
A) sciatic
B) sacral
C) pudendal
D) caudal
Q4) The nerve most responsible for penile erection is the _____nerve.
A) penile
B) prepual
C) pudendal
D) prostatic
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) A patient presenting with a urethral stricture may experience (Select all that apply.)
A) decreased urinary stream.
B) urethral discharge.
C) infection.
D) urine retention.
E) inability to retract the glans of the penis.
Q2) Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the corpus cavernosum during sexual stimulation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as
A) hypospadias.
B) urethral fistula.
C) epispadias.
D) priapism.
Q4) The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the stage of the disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The heartbeat becomes audible through a stethoscope during which phase of fetal development?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) Parturition
Q2) A 48-year-old female who is having hot flashes,tachycardia,palpitations,and sleep disturbance may be experiencing symptoms related to A) pregnancy.
B) perimenopause.
C) ovulation.
D) endometriosis.
Q3) The hormone released from the posterior pituitary gland during the milk ejection reflex is
A) gonadotropin.
B) prolactin.
C) vasopressin.
D) oxytocin.
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Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n)________ to hold the uterus in place.
A) catheter.
B) IUD.
C) pessary.
D) endopelvic mesh implant.
Q2) Infection by ________ accounts for nearly half of all reported cases of vulvovaginitis.
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Candida albicans
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Pseudomonas
Q3) Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the
A) cardinal ligaments.
B) abdominal organs.
C) cervix.
D) vaginal musculature.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What systemic infections are potentially transmitted by sexual contact? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cytomegalovirus
B) Hepatitis A
C) Hepatitis B
D) HIV
E) Herpes simplex virus
Q2) Central nervous system degeneration,blindness,and paresis are associated with untreated
A) HSV.
B) LGV.
C) syphilis.
D) gonorrhea.
Q3) A 23-year-old male presents with urethritis,dysuria,and purulent urethral discharge.The suspected diagnosis would be
A) gonorrhea.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) Chlamydia.
D) syphilis.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much fluid is secreted from the intestinal glands daily?
A) 1/2 L
B) 1 L
C) 2 L
D) 4 L
Q2) The propulsive movement of the GI tract is called A) peristalsis.
B) transmission.
C) contraction.
D) constriction.
Q3) The primary stimulus for pancreatic secretion is A) gastrin.
B) histamine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) secretin.
Q4) Most of the parasympathetic innervation of the GI tract is supplied by the A) hypoglossal nerves.
B) enteric nervous system.
C) vagus nerves.
D) celiac ganglia.
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient receiving chemotherapy may be at greater risk for development of A) gastroesophageal reflux.
B) stomatitis.
C) esophageal varices.
D) Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
Q2) What finding would rule out a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome in a patient with chronic diarrhea?
A) Negative stool leukocytes
B) Intermittent constipation
C) Abdominal pain and distention
D) Bloody stools
Q3) A disorder of the esophageal smooth muscle function where dysphagia is a symptom is (Select all that apply.)
A) esophageal stricture.
B) achalasia.
C) esophageal tumors.
D) Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
E) hiatal hernia.
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most gallstones are composed of A) bile.
B) cholesterol.
C) calcium.
D) uric acid salts.
Q2) More than half of the initial cases of pancreatitis are associated with A) trauma.
B) stones.
C) alcoholism.
D) high cholesterol.
Q3) Patients who may be at risk for development of cholesterol gallstones include (Select all that apply.)
A) high spinal cord injuries.
B) patients receiving total parenteral nutrition.
C) patients receiving chemotherapy.
D) patients with rapid weight loss.
E) pregnant women.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of alcoholism presents with hematemesis and profound anemia.The expected diagnosis is
A) ascites.
B) cerebral edema.
C) hepatic encephalopathy.
D) gastroesophageal varices.
Q2) What laboratory data would support a diagnosis of hemochromatosis?
A) Deficient protease inhibitor
B) Elevated ferritin
C) Elevated urine copper
D) Positive antinuclear antibody
Q3) A viral hepatitis screen with positive hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)should be interpreted as ________ hepatitis B.
A) recovered from
B) immunity to
C) chronic active
D) acute
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone is highly bound to carrier proteins in the bloodstream?
A) Thyroid hormones
B) Insulin
C) Glucagon
D) Parathyroid hormone
Q2) An increase in serum osmolality would be expected to ________ secretion.
A) increase vasopressin
B) decrease vasopressin
C) decrease ADH
D) decrease aldosterone
Q3) _________ is the hormone which causes uterine and milk duct contractions.
A) Vasopressin
B) Prolactin
C) Oxytocin
D) Antidiuretic
Q4) In primary thyroid hormone deficiency,the TSH levels are
A) high.
B) low.
C) undetectable.
D) constantly fluctuating.
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A thyroid gland that grows larger than normal is known as A) cretinism.
B) myxedema.
C) goiter.
D) colloidosis.
Q2) Which response to an injection of ACTH indicates a primary adrenal insufficiency?
A) No change in serum glucocorticoid level
B) An increase in serum glucocorticoid level
C) A decrease in serum glucose level
D) An increase in serum ACTH level
Q3) A patient reporting vision changes,photophobia,and lid lag may be exhibiting signs of
A) Addison disease.
B) Cushing syndrome.
C) myxedema.
D) Graves disease.
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetes mellitus is the ________ leading cause of death and a major cause of disability in the United States.
A) first
B) second
C) fourth
D) seventh
Q2) Type 2 diabetes mellitus is often associated with A) nonketotic hyperosmolality.
B) childhood.
C) autoimmune destruction of the pancreas.
D) ketoacidosis.
Q3) The breakdown of stored glycogen in the liver and muscles is called A) glycolysis.
B) glycogenesis.
C) glycogenolysis.
D) gluconeogenesis.
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Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Q1) Starvation is associated with A) loss of visceral protein.
B) low serum albumin levels.
C) loss of somatic fat and protein.
D) generalized edema.
Q2) A body mass index of 25.5 is considered to be
A) morbidly obese.
B) normal.
C) overweight.
D) obese.
Q3) Which condition is associated with an increase in basal metabolic rate?
A) Aging
B) Fever
C) Obesity
D) Starvation
Q4) The metabolic response to physiologic stress is characterized by A) loss of somatic protein.
B) preservation of visceral protein.
C) body weight less than 80% of ideal.
D) stress-induced protein catabolism.
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The language center in most individuals is located in the A) frontal lobe.
B) left hemisphere.
C) right hemisphere.
D) limbic area.
Q2) The pathologic process called hydrocephalus would be manifested by _____ ventricular size.
A) decreased CSF, increased
B) increased CSF, increased
C) decreased CSF, decreased
D) increased CSF, decreased
Q3) Which are functions of neuroglia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Generation of action potential
B) Modulation of ionic composition of extracellular fluid in the brain
C) Production of CSF
D) Phagocytosis of wastes within the CNS
E) Slowing the rate of conduction to the nerve axons
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that epidural bleeding is
A) associated with widespread vascular disruption.
B) located between the arachnoid and the dura mater.
C) usually because of venous leakage.
D) characterized by a lucid interval immediately after injury.
Q2) Risk factors for hemorrhagic stroke include A) atherosclerosis.
B) dysrhythmias.
C) acute hypertension.
D) sedentary lifestyle.
Q3) Leakage of CSF from the nose or ears is commonly associated with A) epidural hematoma.
B) temporal skull fracture.
C) basilar skull fracture.
D) cerebral aneurysm.
Q4) The most important determinant for prescribing therapy for acute stroke is A) location of ischemia.
B) thrombotic versus embolic cause.
C) ischemic versus hemorrhagic cause.
D) age of the patient.
46
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect do demyelinating disorders such as multiple sclerosis have on neurotransmission?
A) Slower rate of action potential conduction
B) Increased rate of action potential conduction
C) Facilitation of action potential initiation
D) Faster rate of repolarization
Q2) Steroids may be used in the management of acute exacerbation of symptoms in patients with multiple sclerosis,because
A) viral damage can be inhibited.
B) demyelination is mediated by immune mechanisms.
C) steroids reverse the progression of the disease.
D) steroids inhibit synaptic degradation of neurotransmitters.
Q3) Seizures that involve both hemispheres at the outset are termed
A) partial.
B) complex.
C) focal.
D) generalized.
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myopia is as a result of an error of light refraction in which
A) light rays are scattered as they pass through the cornea.
B) the focal point of an image is behind the retina.
C) far vision is impaired.
D) accommodation is impaired.
Q2) It is true that a conductive hearing loss
A) cannot be corrected.
B) is as a result of damage to hair cells in the inner ear.
C) usually results from chronic exposure to loud noise.
D) is because of dysfunction of outer and middle ear structures.
Q3) Which structures make up the middle ear? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cerumen
B) Malleus
C) Incus
D) Scala media
E) Stapes
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physiologic mechanisms involved in the pain phenomenon are termed A) nociception.
B) sensitization.
C) neurotransmission.
D) proprioception.
Q2) Referred pain may be perceived at some distance from the area of tissue injury,but generally felt
A) on the same side of the body.
B) with slightly less intensity.
C) within the same dermatome.
D) within 10 to 15 cm area.
Q3) One of the most common causes of acute pain is A) headache.
B) fibromyalgia.
C) malignancy.
D) trigeminal neuralgia.
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Childlike silliness in a patient with schizophrenia is known as A) delusions.
B) disorganized thinking.
C) grossly disorganized behavior.
D) asociality.
Q2) Which symptoms would support a diagnosis of major depressive disorder? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diminished interest or pleasure
B) Incomprehensible speech
C) Altered reality
D) Psychomotor agitation or retardation
E) Appetite disturbance
Q3) Mania and depression are both characterized by A) high energy and hyperactivity.
B) poor appetite.
C) hopelessness.
D) altered decision making ability.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Q1) A person who frequently spends hours each day attending to hand hygiene is referred to as a A) hoarder.
B) washer.
C) checker.
D) counter.
Q2) The first-line treatment for posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)is
A) adrenergic blockers.
B) benzodiazepines
C) tricyclic antidepressants.
D) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
Q3) As many as ____ of children in the United States aged 3 to 17 years are affected by some type of neurodevelopmental disorder.
A) 5%
B) 12%
C) 25%
D) 30%
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The correct sequence of bone healing following fracture is A) hematoma formation, callous formation, fibrocartilage formation, ossification, remodeling.
B) hematoma formation, callous formation, fibrocartilage formation, remodeling, ossification.
C) callous formation, hematoma formation, fibrocartilage formation, ossification, remodeling.
D) hematoma formation, fibrocartilage formation, callous formation, ossification, remodeling.
Q2) Menisci facilitate the rotation of the A) neck.
B) elbow.
C) knee.
D) spine.
Q3) Osteoclast activity leads to A) hardening of the bones.
B) resorption of bone.
C) deposition of bone.
D) arthritis.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Q1) Bone healing may be impaired by A) excessive vitamin C.
B) nicotine use.
C) a high-protein diet.
D) immobilization.
Q2) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which
A) neuronal demyelination disrupts nerve transmission.
B) muscles become increasingly bulky but weakened.
C) acetylcholine receptors are destroyed or dysfunctional.
D) acetylcholine release from motor neurons is disrupted.
Q3) Muscular dystrophy includes a number of muscle disorders that are A) genetically transmitted.
B) easily prevented and managed.
C) autoimmune in nature.
D) demyelinating focused.
Q4) A malignant bone-forming tumor is referred to as a(n) A) rhabdosarcoma.
B) liposarcoma.
C) osteosarcoma.
D) chondrosarcoma.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function: Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ankylosing spondylitis causes
A) intervertebral joint fusion.
B) instability of synovial joints.
C) costal cartilage degeneration.
D) temporomandibular joint degeneration.
Q2) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)is a rheumatic disease attributed to A) wear and tear on weight-bearing joints.
B) septic joint inflammation and necrosis.
C) unknown etiologic factors.
D) autoimmune mechanisms.
Q3) Rheumatoid arthritis involves joint inflammation caused by A) bacterial infection.
B) trauma.
C) autoimmune injury.
D) congenital hypermobility.
Q4) It is true that scleroderma involves
A) inflammation and fibrosis of connective tissue.
B) autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors.
C) infection by beta-hemolytic streptococcus.
D) inflammation caused by antigenic fragments of dead organisms.
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Conditions caused by a virus include A) athlete's foot.
B) boils.
C) warts.
D) impetigo.
Q2) Which finding indicates a need for further evaluation of a nevus mole?
A) The presence of light pigmentation
B) Variations in color within the nevus
C) Very dark coloration of the mole
D) Diameter less than 2 mm
Q3) Shingles is caused by the same virus that causes A) measles.
B) mumps.
C) chickenpox.
D) rubella.
Q4) The cancer considered to be the most malignant is A) hyperkeratosis.
B) basal cell carcinoma.
C) squamous cell carcinoma.
D) melanoma.
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Q1) A necessary intervention when managing burns associated with automobile airbag injury include
A) irrigation with water.
B) application of steroid cream.
C) IV infusion of antibiotics.
D) debridement of skin.
Q2) It is true that covering a burn with cool wet sheets
A) promotes comfort.
B) facilitates healing.
C) prevents fluid loss.
D) promotes hypothermia.
Q3) The third element essential to survival after major burn injury is
A) excision of the burn followed by skin grafting.
B) frequent wound debridement to encourage wound healing.
C) hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
D) continuous topical antibiotic therapy.
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