Introduction to Information Technology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Information Technology offers a comprehensive overview of the fundamental concepts, principles, and applications of IT in modern society. This course covers topics such as computer hardware and software, networking, the Internet, databases, cybersecurity, and ethical issues related to information technology. Students will learn about the role of IT in business, education, and everyday life, and will develop practical skills in using common software tools. Emphasis is placed on understanding how technology impacts communication, problem-solving, and decision-making in various professional environments.
Recommended Textbook
Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Guide to Managing and Troubleshooting PCs 5th Edition by Mike Meyers
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Chapter 1: The Path of the PC Tech
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Q1) What is the most popular computer literacy certification?
A)CompTIA A+
B)CompTIA IT Fundamentals
C)Certiport IC³
D)Microsoft Certified Solutions Expert (MCSE)
Answer: C
Q2) Other than retaking the exam, what must a certified professional do to maintain their CompTIA A+ certification?
A)Successfully complete another CompTIA exam within three years of earning their A+ certification.
B)Provide proof to CompTIA of one year of relevant work experience gained within three years of earning their A+ certification.
C)Pay a $194 (U.S.) renewal fee to CompTIA every three years.
D)Earn 20 CEUs every three years.
Answer: D
Q3) Very few people pay full price for the A+ exams, because most companies that provide CompTIA A+ training offer discount _______________.
Answer: vouchers
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Chapter 2: Operational Procedures
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Q1) Most companies require a signed _______________ to perform work.
Answer: Authorization of Work
Q2) When building out a computer space and cutting drywall, wear a(n) _______________ for breathing protection.
Answer: air filter mask
Q3) Which device or appliance emits radio waves?
A)Toaster
B)Refrigerator
C)Cordless drill
D)Microwave oven
E)Hemostat
Answer: D
Q4) Briefly describe escalation.
Answer: Escalation is the process your company (or sometimes just you) goes through when you-the person assigned to repair a problem-are not able to get the job done.It's okay to escalate because no one can fix every problem.
Q5) The _______________ follows a set of steps to diagnose and fix a computer. Answer: troubleshooting theory
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Chapter 3: The Visible Computer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pairing of an application with its file extension is called _______________.
Answer: file association
Q2) In Mac OS X, what launch point provides access to almost all the settings needed to administer a Mac OS X system?
A)System Preferences
B)Control Panel
C)Utilities folder
D)Administrative Tools
Answer: A
Q3) Which device is a general-purpose computing device?
A)Apple iPod
B)Xbox One
C)Smartphone
D)Digital watch
Answer: C
Q4) Explain how to access the Windows command-line interface.
Answer: Click on the Start button, type cmd in the Search text box, and press the Enter key.
Q5) What is the purpose of the Windows notification area?
Answer: The notification area shows programs running in the background.
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Microprocessors
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Q1) What technique is used by the motherboard to go back to CMOS defaults?
Q2) The _______________-bit address bus can address 16 EB of RAM.
Q3) What causes CPUs to heat up?
Q4) What type of RAM is used for main system memory?
A)DRAM
B)SRAM
C)BRAM
D)CRAM
Q5) Which cache on the CPU is used first?
A)L3
B)L2
C)L1
D)L0
Q6) What happens if the CPU is made to run faster than its clock speed?
Q7) Which type of processor is sometimes integrated with the CPU to handle certain tasks more efficiently, such as video processing?
A)L2
B)MCC
C)IMC
D)GPU
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Chapter 5: Ram
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Q1) What information does the CPU-Z freeware program provide?
Q2) What is another name for a stick of RDRAM?
A)RIMM
B)DIPP
C)SIMM
D)STRAM
Q3) What does a Windows 8/8.1/10 system display as its NMI proprietary crash screen?
Q4) Today's PCs that need to watch for RAM errors use a special type of RAM called _______________ RAM.
Q5) Why has DRAM been the standard RAM used in all computers-not just PCs-since the mid-1970s?
Q6) Explain why DDR2 DIMMs and SO-DIMMS are not compatible with DDR DIMMs and SO-DIMMS.
Q7) List the five commonly used clock speeds for early SDRAM systems.
Q8) What is the core RAM clock speed for RAM with a DDR2 speed rating of DDR2-400 and a PC speed rating of PC2-3200?
A)100 MHz
B)200 MHz
C)400 MHz
D)800 MHz
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bios
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Q1) In a graphical system setup utility, where would you get information about devices, and configure, hard drives, optical drives and other built-in components?
Q2) Which component handles the interconnection between most devices and the CPU?
A)Northbridge
B)RAM
C)ROM
D)Southbridge
Q3) What is firmware?
Q4) Why are ROM chips considered nonvolatile?
Q5) Every time a key is pressed on the keyboard, the _______________ chip in the keyboard notices which key has been pressed.
Q6) Describe the two POST beep codes found in most modern PCs.
Q7) After restarting your system, you notice that none of your CMOS settings changes are implemented.What is most likely the problem?
Q8) What initiates the power-on self test (POST)?
Q9) The _______________ acts as a secure cryptoprocessor that can usually be turned on or off or else enabled or disabled in the CMOS setup program.
Q10) What are three advantages of UEFI over the 16-bit BIOS?
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Chapter 7: Motherboards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the size of the Nano-ITX form factor?
A)3.8 × 2.8 inches
B)4.7 × 4.7 inches
C)6.7 × 6.7 inches
D)9.6 × 9.6 inches
Q2) A(n) _______________ determines the physical size of the motherboard as well as the general location of components and ports.
Q3) Why are chipset component chips relatively centrally located on the motherboard?
Q4) Briefly list the four steps one would take when selecting a case and motherboard.
Q5) In addition to the Northbridge and the Southbridge chips, some motherboard manufacturers added (or still add) a third chip called the _______________ chip to handle expansion devices and mass storage drives especially in dealing with legacy devices.
Q6) In Device Manager, what does black downward-pointing arrow on a white field indicate?
Q7) List the four speed grades featured in the PCI-X 2.0 standard.
Q8) List the various types of motherboard cases.
Q9) How does a form factor relate to air movement in a case?
Q10) Describe how motherboards support video.
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Chapter 8: Power Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can a UPS help regulate power to a computer?
Q2) L-shaped power connectors are used for _______________ drives.
Q3) You suspect that a wire has a break in it.What can you do to test your theory?
Q4) Modern motherboards use a(n) _______________- or _______________-pin P1 power connector.
Q5) What is the recommended wattage for a new system?
Q6) _______________ current allows electrons to flow in one direction around continuous circuits.
Q7) Many modern ATX motherboards feature a(n) _______________-pin CPU power connector like the one found in the EPS12V standard.
Q8) Which power supply never turns off? A)ATX B)AT C)P8, P9
Q9) What type of voltage does a PC use?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Hard Drive Technologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______________ extends the SATA bus to external devices.
Q2) How many wires are in the SATA interface?
A)Four
B)Eight
C)Seven
D)Eighty
Q3) What items can impede airflow?
Q4) RAID that distributes data and parity information evenly across all the drives is known as _______________.
Q5) Which term specifies a type of nonvolatile flash memory that current SSD devices use to retain data when power is turned off or disconnected?
A)ATAPI-6
B)ATA-7
C)AHCI
D)NAND
Q6) Disk striping with parity protects data by adding extra information, called _______________ data, that can be used to rebuild data if one of the drives fails.
Q7) What is a first step in configuring controllers?
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Implementing Hard Drives
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Q1) What is the go-to tool in Windows when adding drives or adding arrays to a system?
Q2) A(n) _______________ organizes each partition on the hard disk in such a way that the operating system can store files and folders.
Q3) Microsoft calls a hard drive that uses either the MBR partitioning scheme or the GPT partitioning scheme a(n) _______________ disk.
Q4) What is the Ultimate Boot CD (UBCD)?
Q5) What is the difference between extending a disk and spanning a disk?
Q6) You should never defrag a(n) _______________ because it can shorten its lifetime.
Q7) A(n) _______________ causes the format utility to test every sector to mark out the unusable ones in the FAT.
Q8) What Windows tool partitions a drive?
A)Disk Management
B)Disk Administrator
C)FDISK
D)Optimize Drives
Q9) What are the different types of volumes in dynamic disks?
Q10) What is the difference between Disk Management and FDISK?
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Chapter 11: Essential Peripherals
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Q1) When using MP3 compression, how far can you shrink a WAV file without losing much sound quality?
Q2) _______________ readers read standard Universal Product Code (UPC) labels, primarily to track inventory.
Q3) What is the most common removable storage media used in modern digital cameras?
A)Compact flash (CF) unit
B)CD ROM
C)USB flash drive
D)Secure Digital (SD) card
Q4) What common form factor is used for magnetic tape?
A)Linear Tape Open (LTO)
B)Logical Tape Open (LTO)
C)Linear Tape Organization (LTO)
D)Linear Tape Organization (LTO).
Q5) What is the advantage of having a higher frame rate? Which rate is considered optimal?
Q6) _______________ is the standard container file for Apple QuickTime for both Mac OS X and Windows.
Q8) Describe the two distinct types of FireWire connectors. Page 14
Q7) _______________ is a container used mainly for WMA and WMV streams.
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Page 15
Chapter 12: Building a PC
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Q1) As a minimum, what technology can be an inexpensive redundant storage option for thick clients?
A)RAID 6
B)RAID 5
C)RAID 1
D)RAID 0
Q2) A(n) _______________ installation allows a system to choose between two or more operating systems each time the computer boots.
Q3) Which component of a video workstation is important due to the large size of video files?
A)Storage
B)GPU
C)Power supply fan
D)Video card
Q4) The _______________ is a layer of software that allows Windows to run on different hardware platforms.
Q5) What is the preferred connector between a television and a home-theater PC?
Q6) For the best output, what type of connection should exist between the sound card and the stereo receiver?
Page 16
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Chapter 13: Windows Under the Hood
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Q1) What are some common reasons to manually edit the Registry?
Q2) The _______________ command can modify the Registry in only one way, adding (or registering) dynamic link library (DLL) files as command components.
Q3) Which key value data type is limited to exactly 64 bits?
A)QWORD
B)DWORD
C)Binary
D)String
Q4) What happens if you select the End Process button in Task Manager?
Q5) What is the Registry?
Q6) In a(n) _______________ system, the MBR/GUID partition table (GPT) nor the file system boot code is run.
Q7) What does the taskkill command-line utility do?
Q8) The go-to command to open up the Registry editor is ________________.
A)taskmgr
B)registryedit.exe
C)regedit
D)winload.exe
Q9) A process started by Windows has the user name _______________.
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Chapter 14: Users, Groups, and Permissions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term refers to a unique combination of a user name and an associated password?
A)user authorization
B)user account
C)user authentication
D)user identity
Q2) What Windows tool locates all of the shared folders on a computer, regardless of where they reside on the drives?
Q3) You create three accounts when you set up a Windows Vista computer: guest, administrator, and a(n) _______________ that is a member of the Administrators group.
Q4) The primary way to set NTFS permissions is through the _______________ tab under the folder or files Properties.
Q5) To add a user in Windows Vista, open the _______________ applet.
Q6) In a Windows XP system, ____________________ are almost as powerful as administrators, but they cannot install new devices or access other users' files unless access is provided.
Q7) How can NTFS inheritance for a specific folder or file be turned off in the rare situations in which this is desired?
Page 18
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Chapter 15: Maintaining and Optimizing Operating Systems
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Q1) What function does the Disk Cleanup utility perform?
Q2) By default, Windows creates a ___________ every time new software is installed.
A)boot disk
B)device driver
C)license
D)restore point
Q3) Time Machine in Mac OS X creates full system backups that are known as
A)restore points
B)images
C)local snapshots
D)system copies
Q4) What are the drive requirements for the Time Machine in Mac OS X?
Q5) What changes occur during a restore process in Windows?
Q6) What does Ubuntu Linux use for backing up files, folders, and drives?
A)Ubuntu BackIn
B)Déjà Dup
C)Linux Restore
D)Save Images
Q7) In Windows Task Scheduler, what are triggers?
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Chapter 16: Working With the Command-Line Interface
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Q1) What Linux command describes the syntax and options of a specific command?
A)help
B)ls
C)man
D)xcopy
Q2) The Linux command _______________ displays the current working directory.
Q3) What does the /e switch in the xcopy command do?
Q4) Which Windowscommand will power down a local or remote computer?
A)restart
B)poweroff
C)shutdown
D)reboot
Q5) What does the term "mounting" mean?
Q6) A Windows command switch is expressed by using which character?
A)-
B):
C)\
D)/
Q7) How is the wildcard character "?" used?
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Q8) What command moves the working directory up one level in the file system tree?
Chapter 17: Troubleshooting Operating Systems
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Q1) Which mode is identical to Safe mode but provides network support as well?
A)Enable Boot Logging
B)Safe Mode
C)Safe Mode with Command Prompt
D)Safe Mode with Networking
Q2) Which option nukes your system-all apps, programs, user files, user settings-and presents a fresh installation of Windows?
A)Refresh your PC
B)Reset your PC
C)Restart your PC
D)Repair your PC
Q3) Describe the Windows Preinstallation Environment (PE).
Q4) What are the risks of the typical recovery options?
Q5) What is the best way to restore a good Registry copy?
Q6) Which command rebuilds the boot sector for the active system partition?
A)bootrec /fixmbr
B)bootrec /scanos
C)bootrec /fixboot
D)bootrec /rebuildmbr
Q7) What is the Recovery Console?
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Chapter 18: Virtualization
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Q1) The most popular reason for virtualization is easier system _______________.
Q2) Which of these virtualization products is a commercial product (i.e., not free)?
A)KVM
B)VMware Fusion
C)Hyper-V
D)VirtualBox
Q3) Which of these tools is considered a Web application?
A)Microsoft Word
B)Linux
C)VirtualBox
D)DropBox
Q4) A(n) _______________ environment is called a virtual machine (VM).
Q5) Where is hardware virtualization support for Intel and AMD processors enabled?
Q6) What is one of the advantages of Software as a Service?
A)You can use it free of charge.
B)You do not have to install the software.
C)Your data is secure in the cloud.
D)You do not need a powerful computer with a modern operating system.
Q7) Discuss how virtualization enables hardware consolidation.
Q8) Inactive virtual machines are stored as _______________.
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Chapter 19: Display Technologies
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Q1) Which video mode is the native resolution for many desktop LCD monitors?
A)XGA
B)UXGA
C)SXGA
D)WUXGA
Q2) Describe the original Cathode ray tube (CRT) monitors.
Q3) How do you repair an LCD monitor that is cracked?
Q4) What is a front-view projector?
Q5) What is the aspect ratio of the SXGA video mode?
A)5:4
B)4:3
C)16:9
D)16:10
Q6) Which DVI connector accepts either a DVI-D or DVI-A connection?
A)DVI-I
B)DVI-DI
C)DVI-A
D)DVI-B
Q7) For standardization, the _______________ defines a certain number of resolutions, all derived from the granddaddy of video modes: VGA.
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Chapter 20: Essentials of Networking
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Q1) _______________ fiber transmits multiple light signals at the same time, each using a different reflection angle within the core of the cable.
Q2) Describe the benefits and downsides of solid core and stranded core cable.
Q3) _______________ cabling standards give professional cable installers detailed standards on every aspect of a cabled network, from the type of cabling to use to standards on running cable in walls, even the position of wall outlets.
Q4) Which CAT level supports 10-Gbps networks at 100-meter segments and provides shielding for individual wire pairs reducing crosstalk and noise problems?
A)CAT 5e
B)CAT 6a
C)CAT 6e
D)CAT 7
Q5) What is the general cable distance limit of an Ethernet segment?
A)300 yards
B)1000 meters
C)One mile
D)100 meters
Q6) What three items must a network have to share and access resources?
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Chapter 21: Local Area Networking
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Q1) Which component emits a sound when it receives an electrical signal along the wire at a certain frequency?
A)Tone generator
B)Time-domain reflectometer
C)Multimeter
D)Tone probe
Q2) The vast majority of network disconnection problems occur at the _______________.
Q3) What is an IP conflict?
Q4) ::1 is the IPv6 _______________.
Q5) The Control Panel box for setting printer sharing is called _______________ in Windows 7 and later.
Q6) What command verifies communication with a remote system by sending packets to it and receiving them back?
A)ping
B)tracert
C)ipconfig
D)net
Q7) What does DNS stand for and what does it do?
Q8) What is the function of the nslookup command?
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Chapter 22: Wireless Networking
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Q1) A(n) ______________ enables Ethernet network communication using IrDA.
Q2) What is a wireless service area that has been extended by adding more WAPs?
A)EWAP
B)SID
C)BSS
D)EBSS
Q3) What centrally connects wireless network nodes in the same way that a hub connects wired Ethernet PCs?
A)EAP
B)WAP
C)WEP
D)WPA
Q4) How many bits does WEP encryption use to scramble data packets?
A)20
B)30
C)40
D)50
Q5) Two or more wireless nodes communicating in ad hoc mode form what's called a(n)
Q6) A service area that is extended by adding WAPs is called a(n) _____________.
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Chapter 23: The Internet
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Q1) What service runs from the provider straight to a home or office, using fiber the whole way?
A)FTTP
B)FTP
C)SFTP
D)FTTN
Q2) With most ISPs, a(n) ______________ server will provide your computer with the proper TCP/IP information.
A)SMTP
B)WWW
C)Telnet
D)DHCP
Q3) What port numbers are used by FTP?
A)443 and 444
B)20 and 21
C)23 and 25
D)80 and 110
Q4) The most common method of encrypting personal information sent over the Web
Q5) How do satellite connections to the Internet exchange data?
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Chapter 24: Portable Computing
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Q1) Which battery has a downside of exploding if overcharged or punctured?
A)Li-Ion
B)Ni-Cd
C)Ni-Li
D)Ni-MH
Q2) When should you allow a portable battery to drain all the way down?
Q3) In G1 (S1) mode, the CPU stops _______________, but the power to the CPU and _______________ is maintained.
Q4) What is a feature of the 2-in-1 laptop?
A)Touchscreen
B)Optical drive
C)USB ports
D)Battery life
Q5) What are lithium polymer (LiPo) batteries?
Q6) Describe the ACPI G3 state.
Q7) When you don't need access to a number of ports at once, you can often find a(n) _______________ for whatever you need to connect, such as an optical drive.
Q8) The term _______________ refers to the comparison of the screen width to the screen height.
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Chapter 25: Understanding Mobile Devices
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Q1) Some small devices, like the better smartphones, use a technology known as _______________ that lights the screen with an organic compound.
Q2) Infrared Data Association (IrDA) requires _______________, meaning that devices have to be directly facing each other, requires very short distances (sometimes inches) between devices, and has very slow data rates.
A)Near Field Communication (NFC)
B)Exchange ActiveSync (EAS)
C)line of sight
D)geotracking
Q3) What is the typical range for NFC communications?
Q4) List three features of wearable devices that distinguish them from other mobile devices.
Q5) Android-based devices assume you will have a(n) _______________ account as your primary account.
Q6) iOS apps are almost exclusively purchased, installed, and updated through Apple's _______________ Store.
Q7) Review the integrated commercial provider email configuration information for iOS, Android, and Windows Phone devices.
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Chapter 26: Care and Feeding of Mobile Devices
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Q1) PGP and S/MIME are examples of _______________.
A)SMS notifications
B)encryption standards
C)system procedures
D)email servers
Q2) A(n) _______________ will clear all user data and setting changes, returning the device's software to the state it was in when it left the factory.
Q3) A hot, sluggish device might use _______________ to protect the device's CPU from heat damage?
A)heat dispersion
B)thermal throttling
C)liquid cooling
D)automatic backup
Q4) What type of authentication is a username and a password?
A)Blind authentication
B)Multifactor authentication
C)Single-factor authentication
D)Double-factor authentication
Q5) What are some safeguards that OS makers supply to combat malware?
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Chapter 27: Printers and Multifunction Devices
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Q1) How many power supply units are in a laser printer?
Q2) What is resolution enhancement technology (RET)?
Q3) The toner in a laser printer is a fine powder.This powder is made up of plastic particles bonded to _______________ particles.
A)nickel
B)polyester
C)aluminum
D)pigment
Q4) What kind of chip is used by a laser printer to translate the raster image sent to the printer into commands for the laser?
A)RAM
B)RIP
C)ROM
D)UART
Q5) Laser printers rely on the ______________ properties of certain organic compounds.
Q6) What happens if you are a member of a Windows 7 homegroup, and printer sharing is enabled?
Q7) What are the four colors of toner used by color laser printers.?
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Chapter 28: Securing Computers
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43825
Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) _______________ is a device or software (or combination of both) used to protect an internal network from unauthorized access from the Internet.
Q2) An intrusion prevention system will _______________.
A)only prevent network intrusion
B)prevent intrusion and also stop attacks as they are occurring
C)prevent network intrusion by shutting down your computer
D)provide batch warnings, but not operate real-time
Q3) What is a checksum?
Q4) Security _______________ are devices that store some unique information that the user carries on his or her person.
Q5) Unsolicited e-mail is more commonly known as _______________.
Q6) List the four interlinked topics that should be considered when implementing access control.
Q7) What has occurred when a user accesses resources in an unauthorized way?
A)Environmental threat
B)Hardware failure
C)Unauthorized access
D)Virus attack
Q8) What is the difference between a virus and a worm?
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