Introduction to Imaging Sciences
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Imaging Sciences offers an overview of the fundamental principles, techniques, and applications of imaging across various scientific fields. The course explores the physics of image formation, the types of imaging modalities such as optical, X-ray, MRI, and ultrasound, and the digital processing of images. Students will gain insight into how images are acquired, analyzed, and interpreted, with an emphasis on the technological innovations driving advances in medical diagnostics, materials science, and biological research. Foundational knowledge in mathematics and physics is applied to real-world imaging scenarios, providing a solid base for further study or research in imaging-related disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Radiologic and Imaging Sciences and Patient Care 6th Edition by Arlene M. Adler
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Imaging and Radiologic Sciences
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Q1) All of the following are true of the diagnostic procedure of mammography EXCEPT A)it is very valuable for the detection of early breast cancers.
B)the procedures may be performed using a general radiographic machine.
C)radiographers need to be specially trained in order to perform mammography.
D)radiographers must be certified by the ARRT to qualify for the mammography examination.
Answer: B
Q2) To study the blood vessels of the brain,kidneys,liver,and other organs,contrast material is administered into these vessels by using A)catheters. B)stents.
C)balloons.
D)none of the above.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Professional Organizations
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Q1) The process whereby an organization seeks recognition from its peer groups through demonstrated compliance with developed standards is termed A)licensure.
B)registration.
C)accreditation.
D)self-analysis.
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following are true of the American Healthcare Radiology Administrators (AHRA)organization EXCEPT it
A)certifies radiographers.
B)publishes the journal Radiology Management.
C)offers a certification examination for radiology administrators.
D)plays a key role with the manpower needs of the medical imaging profession.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Educational Survival Skills
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Q1) Nutrition that will improve your stress level includes
A)drinking coffee or tea with a hearty breakfast.
B)avoiding bananas and nuts.
C)eating a spinach salad topped with nuts and tomatoes.
D)skipping a daily vitamin for a few days to prevent mineral overload.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following statements uses out-of-control language?
A)"I can't believe I have all these examinations in the same week.This is so unfair!"
B)"Wow,three examinations this week.Oh well,I'll take each as it comes."
C)"I'm looking for a study partner for examinations this week.Anyone available?"
D)"Final examination week,wow! I've had bigger challenges in my life and have come out on top."
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Critical-Thinking and Problem-Solving Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you write a lengthy essay on your feelings about radiation protection,you are analyzing your
A)values that are learned or instilled as a part of your affective education.
B)knowledge of allowable dose limits.
C)skills with patient restraint that were developed in the laboratory setting.
D)comprehension of the cardinal rules of radiation protection.
Q2) Which of the following situations would require critical analysis thinking skills?
1)A patient asking for directions to the restroom
2)A physician asking you to call his office to speak to his nurse
3)Improvising the angulation of the x-ray tube to compensate for a patient condition
4)Your supervisor asking you to develop a new quality control plan
5)Repositioning a patient after assessing the patient's previous images
6)Providing a gown to a patient with instructions on putting it on correctly
7)Modifying exposure factors after reviewing the patient's history
A)2,3,5,6,and 7 only
B)1 and 2 only
C)3,4,5,and 7 only
D)1,2,and 6 only
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Clinical Education
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Q1) As a student radiographer,you have received a requisition to perform a procedure that requires indirect supervision.In completing the examination,you mistakenly mislabel the image with regard to the left and right sides of the patient.Department policy requires a repeat image.In doing so,you must be aware that
A)you can repeat the image with a technologist in another part of the department.
B)a qualified practitioner must review your repeat procedures and directly supervise your work.
C)you can still perform under indirect supervision as long as a technologist is within "shouting" distance.
D)you can repeat the examination with a classmate who has already demonstrated competency with this type of examination.
Q2) A high-quality radiologic science program should provide
A)published policies and procedures that involve clinical sites.
B)a competency-based clinical experience.
C)access to current imaging technology.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 6: Radiology Administration
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Q1) All of the physicians practicing medicine within a hospital comprise the hospital's A)board of trustees.
B)continuous quality improvement (CQI)group.
C)regulatory council.
D)medical staff.
Q2) All of the following are related EXCEPT
A)performance improvement (PI).
B)quality control inspections (QCI).
C)continuous quality improvement (CQI).
D)total quality management (TQM).
Q3) Employers are looking for two principle traits in all radiologic science professionals.These traits are
A)promptness and proper attire.
B)initiative and drive.
C)communication skills and the ability to speak a second language.
D)technical competency and teamwork skills.
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Chapter 7: Radiographic Imaging
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Q1) The device that intercepts the exit radiation from a patient and creates the radiographic image is the
A)radiographic grid.
B)collimator.
C)image receptor.
D)image workstation.
Q2) An effective measure of actual exposure compared to a target exposure value is the use of a(n)
A)S number.
B)deviation index (DI).
C)exposure index (EI).
D)half-value layer.
Q3) All of the following are true of computed radiography (CR)EXCEPT
A)it uses cassettes.
B)the image is recorded on an amorphous silicon digital detector plate.
C)the active chemical in CR plates is barium fluorohalide.
D)the image plates are reusable.
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Chapter 8: Radiographic and Fluoroscopic Equipment
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Q1) To improve the flexibility of a radiographic system,engineers have designed equipment so that the x-ray tube support system and detector assembly
A)are always connected and centered to each other.
B)have only longitudinal motions.
C)have only transverse motions.
D)do none of the above.
Q2) Portable digital DR detectors show tremendous promise for radiographers,particularly in terms of image quality and efficiency.Older versions of DR detectors used a wire cord from the detector to a computer.Newer models use ______ technology that captures the image data using radiofrequency (R/F)transmission.
A)tether
B)TFT gateway
C)wireless
D)ethernet
Q3) Fluoroscopy done in the surgical theater is typically accomplished with a A)portable radiographic unit.
B)mobile radiographic unit.
C)portable C-arm system.
D)conventional R/F system.
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Chapter 9: Basic Radiation Protection and Radiobiology
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Q1) Which of the following is a principle of the ALARA concept?
A)All diagnostic x-ray exposure is low energy and of little concern.
B)The radiographer should hold a standard number of patients per year as long as it is below the allowable limits.
C)X-ray doses can increase progressively to allowable limits on older patients.
D)The radiographer's occupational exposure should be kept as low as reasonably achievable.
Q2) The radiographic beam should be collimated so that it is _____ the image receptor.
A)slightly larger than
B)no larger than
C)twice as large as
D)four times as large as
Q3) In which of the following x-ray interactions with matter is the energy of the incident photon completely absorbed?
A)Compton scattering
B)Photoelectric absorption
C)Bremsstrahlung interactions
D)Characteristic interactions
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Chapter 10: Human Diversity
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Q1) The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 provides for all of the following conditions EXCEPT
A)employees must speak English and understand the nature of disability.
B)legal protection against discrimination because of physical or mental disability.
C)institutions must make reasonable accommodations for all individuals.
D)guarantees basic human rights to persons with a disability.
Q2) Another term for human diversity is
A)independence.
B)social autonomy.
C)cultural diversity.
D)existentialism.
Q3) To protect the human rights of people with disabilities,four essential core values of human rights were recognized by the 1993 Vienna Declaration for Human Rights.These core values are
A)freedom of speech,assembly,vote,and travel.
B)solidarity,dignity,autonomy,and equality.
C)religion,expression,employment,and education.
D)integrity,justice,due process,and appeal.
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Chapter 11: Patient Interactions
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Q1) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs,few people completely satisfy the need for
A)shelter,peace,and protection.
B)self-fulfillment and self-actualization.
C)food,water,and nutrition.
D)acceptance by peers.
Q2) Humans' first and foremost need is
A)being accepted by peers.
B)succeeding at job or work.
C)protection from outside enemies.
D)shelter,nourishment,and water.
Q3) Which of the following affects communication?
A)Values
B)Perception
C)Emotions
D)All of the above
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Chapter 12: History Taking
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Q1) When asking about a patient's pain,it is effective to A)ask the patient if the pain runs down his or her leg.
B)assure the patient that questions about pain offer little insight into the patient's condition.
C)ask the patient if the pain is in his or her abdomen.
D)ask the patient to point to or touch the area that hurts and record that area on the requisition.
Q2) It would be professionally appropriate for the imaging professional to A)gently touch the patient to clarify the location of his or her pain.
B)touch the patient with varying degrees of pressure to measure the patient's pain tolerance over the area of interest.
C)ask the patient to give you a general idea of the area of concern before the examination is started.
D)aggressively palpate the patient on the regions that do not hurt to isolate the area of interest.
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Chapter 13: Safe Patient Movement and Handling Techniques
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Q1) A sudden drop in a patient's blood pressure caused by standing or sitting upright is called
A)hypertension.
B)anemia.
C)orthostatic hypotension.
D)postural emesis.
Q2) When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to a radiographic table,
A)position the wheelchair at a 90-degree angle to the table.
B)allow the patient to help with the transfer if it is safe and he or she is capable of doing so.
C)do not let the patient do any weight-bearing movements.
D)break the transfer into a series of simultaneous movements and commands.
Q3) All of the following are true of good lifting mechanics EXCEPT
A)do most of the lifting with your legs and keep your back stationary.
B)extend your reach beyond the center of gravity to broaden your arm coverage.
C)stand with your feet far apart to broaden your base of support.
D)ensure your center of gravity is over your base of support.
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Chapter 14: Immobilization Techniques
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Q1) Establishing a rapport with a patient contributes greatly to a successful immobilization exercise.To establish patient rapport,the imaging professional should
A)tell the patient you need to hurry to get the examination done.
B)pull out all your immobilization tools in front of the patient to show you know what you are doing.
C)gently tell the patient what you need to accomplish and how you would like to move forward with the examination.
D)ask for two or three other technologists to come into the room as you begin the positioning.
Q2) When performing a lumbar spine series on an elderly patient, A)move very quickly and deliberately from one position to the next to expedite the examination.
B)remove the radiolucent table pad to improve image quality.
C)allow the patient to bend hips and knees between exposures to lessen back strain.
D)provide a warm blanket for comfort and remove it for each exposure.
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Chapter 15: Vital Signs, Oxygen, Chest Tubes, and Lines
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Q1) To relieve a large tension pneumothorax,what kind of tube(s)is (are)inserted into the patient?
A)Nasogastric
B)Chest
C)Thoracostomy
D)Both b and c
Q2) The peak blood pressure reading when measuring blood pressures is
A)diastolic pressure.
B)systolic pressure.
C)blood pressure resulting from left ventricular contraction.
D)Both b and c
Q3) The objective of oxygen therapy is to
A)produce a condition of hypoxemia.
B)decrease the CO2 concentration going to the patient.
C)increase the CO2 concentration going to the patient.
D)increase the O2 concentration going to the patient.
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Chapter 16: Basic Cardiac Monitoring: The
Electrocardiogram
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Q1) The QRS complex on a typical ECG represents
A)depolarization of atrial muscle.
B)depolarization of ventricular muscle.
C)repolarization of ventricular muscle.
D)ventricular diastole.
Q2) Cardioversion therapy can be used to treat A)ventricular fibrillation.
B)atrial-related arrhythmias.
C)V-tach.
D)all of the above.
Q3) A dual-wire ICD places electrode tips in the
A)right atrium and right ventricle.
B)right and left ventricles.
C)right and left atria.
D)left atrium and left ventricle.
Q4) A widened QRS complex on an ECG tracing could represent A)ventricular hypertrophy.
B)ventricular-paced rhythm.
C)pacemaker tissue that is below the AV node.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 17: Infection Control
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Q1) All of the following are viral infections EXCEPT
A)cold sores.
B)tinea pedis.
C)common cold.
D)warts.
Q2) Any microorganism that causes disease is
A)prokaryotic.
B)flora.
C)pathogenic.
D)iatrogenic.
Q3) The chain of infection consists of
A)fomite,vector,reservoir,and breachment.
B)bacteria,virus,protozoa,and fungi.
C)host,infectious microbe,mode of transmission,and reservoir.
D)encounter,entry,spread,multiplication,and outcome.
Q4) Streptococci and bacilli are classified as what type of microorganisms?
A)Viruses
B)Bacteria
C)Fungi
D)Molds
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Chapter 18: Aseptic Techniques
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Q1) Which of the following should be examined first when a sterile package is used?
A)Way the package is folded
B)Type of material used to wrap the package
C)Expiration date
D)Way the package is taped
Q2) When handling a patient with a Foley catheter in place,
A)the drainage bag should be placed at the same level or higher than the bladder.
B)avoid kinks in the tubing and keep the drainage bag lower than the bladder.
C)it is advisable to clamp the tubing to do a lengthy small bowel study.
D)never let the volume of urine fill more than 30% of the collection bag capacity.
Q3) When opening a sterile tray,your fingers
A)may not touch any metal content.
B)must be covered with sterile gloves.
C)may not touch any cloth content.
D)must never touch the inside of the tray.
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Chapter 19: Nonaseptic Techniques
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Q1) As you arrive into a patient's room for transport to radiology,you notice that the patient has an NG tube in place with a syringe upright and pinned to the gown.You should know that this patient
A)has a double-lumen NG tube in place.
B)has a Levine line that is single lumen.
C)must have the line clamped before transport.
D)Both a and c are correct.
Q2) Giving cleansing enemas "until clear" involves
A)giving two or three enemas until the bowel contents are free of fecal material.
B)administering enemas until the patient's state of hydration is at risk.
C)giving the patient cleansing enemas until his or her sinuses have drained.
D)asking the patient to hold the enema contents until the fluoroscopy schedule is open for the examination.
Q3) When a barium examination of an ostomy patient is performed,
A)the patient is imaged in the prone position.
B)it is important to prevent leakage of the barium around the stoma site.
C)glucagon is never given to such patients.
D)a larger volume of barium is used than in a conventional barium enema.
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Chapter 20: Medical Emergencies
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Q1) What type of shock can result from a severe reaction to the contrast media used in radiographic examinations?
A)Hypovolemic
B)Septic
C)Anaphylactic
D)Cardiogenic
Q2) When using an AED,
A)it is used simultaneously with CPR compressions.
B)two AED chest pads are used,one on the upper right side of the chest and the other on the lower left ribs.
C)the heart is in normal sinus rhythm.
D)CPR can be terminated because it is of no value after the AED is attached.
Q3) When comparing a semiautomatic AED device with an automatic device, A)both devices determine the patient's cardiac rhythm.
B)the automatic device robotically places the AED paddles on the patient.
C)the semiautomatic AED automatically shocks the patient without action by the operator.
D)none of the above are correct.
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Chapter 21: Pharmacology
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Q1) Drugs that are commonly used for the treatment of high cholesterol are referred to as
A)statins.
B)antihyperlipidemic agents.
C)Lipitor or Zocor.
D)all of the above.
Q2) All of the following are true of the drug nitroglycerine EXCEPT it
A)causes blood vessels to constrict.
B)is commonly used to treat angina.
C)may be administered to a patient under the tongue.
D)may be injected into a patient using a hypodermic needle.
Q3) A patient who is scheduled to have surgery of the esophagus for a diverticulum will likely be given a(an)_______ to decrease mucosal secretions and esophageal muscular activity.
A)analgesic
B)diuretic
C)anticholinergic
D)antiemetic
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Chapter 22: Principles of Drug Administration
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Q1) All of the following are related EXCEPT
A)intramuscular.
B)intragluteal.
C)subcutaneous.
D)intravenous.
Q2) When performing a subcutaneous injection,the needle tip is positioned
A)in the deltoid muscle of the upper arm.
B)at a 45-degree angle for average-sized patients.
C)perpendicular to the skin line.
D)at a 55- to 60-degree angle for thin patients.
Q3) When venipuncture is performed for contrast medium administration,
A)the veins of the arms are preferred injection sites.
B)a 25-gauge needle is preferred to lessen extravasation.
C)delayed reaction to the intravenous injection can be expected.
D)all of the above.
Q4) The abbreviation IM means
A)in the morning.
B)in mouth.
C)intramuscular.
D)once per month.
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Chapter 23: Contrast Media and Introduction to Radiopharmaceuticals
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Q1) For select examinations,air (negative contrast)and radiopaque contrast are used as a pair to outline mucosal linings,joint interspaces,and passageways.These examinations are considered
A)double-contrast studies.
B)extremely dangerous and rarely done.
C)single-contrast examinations.
D)low-contrast studies.
Q2) Laboratory tests to assess a patient's BUN and creatinine are used to determine the patient's
A)liver function.
B)renal function.
C)pancreas.
D)thymus.
Q3) Negative contrast agents
A)appear white on images.
B)have low atomic numbers.
C)provide high x-ray beam attenuation and absorption.
D)are materials such as bone and metal.
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Chapter 24: Professional Ethics
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Q1) After a stressful CT scan on a patient,you are confronted by the patient's family regarding the results of the examination.The patient was in a motor vehicle accident and has a severe head injury.The images you took are being sent to a "Nighthawk" reading service and will not be available for several minutes.The family insists they have a "right" to know the results immediately so they can make a decision about organ donation.How would you rationalize this situation to yourself as an imaging professional?
A)Your duty as a professional is to complete the CT examination quickly and with high quality,not to interpret the images,and to do no harm to the patient.
B)You tell the family what you saw on the images as an act of beneficence.
C)You tell the emergency department nurse about the images as an act of nonmaleficence.
D)You call the organ donor program director to tell him of the patient's condition as an act of veracity.
Q2) When undertaking an ethical analysis,
A)identification of human values pertinent to the analysis must be considered.
B)your professional society membership card should be presented.
C)your ARRT certification needs to be included in the analysis.
D)seniority with your employer should be considered.
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Chapter 25: Health Records and Health Information Management
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Q1) You are asked to testify in a court case involving a mammographic biopsy with which you were involved as a mammographer.During testimony,a question is raised regarding whether the biopsy was done successfully.You remember clearly that it was and state that.In the patient's health record,there is no written documentation of the biopsy being done.As far as the court is concerned,
A)the biopsy did not occur because it is not in the health record.
B)your testimony is all that is needed to straighten out the mistake.
C)the examination was completed if the patient paid her bill.
D)the examination was completed because the insurance company paid the bill.
Q2) When entering information into a patient health record,it is important to remember that
A)entries can be made in ink or with an indelible pencil,preferably a #1.
B)abbreviations that are common with cell phone texting are acceptable.
C)any date entered must be legible.
D)information can be entered electronically by anyone with a computer.
Q3) A key function performed by a patient's health information record is to
A)ensure the patient is discharged in a timely fashion.
B)communicate to the patient's physician all care rendered by all persons.
C)document the patient's chief complaint to see if it was treated.
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D)make sure all the patient's requests were met during the stay.
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Chapter 26: Medical Law
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Q1) What type of complaint can be filed by patients if they feel they have been touched without permission?
A)Battery
B)Assault
C)Defamation
D)Slander
Q2) Acceptable informed consent
A)turn off the barium,clean up the patient,and help her exit the room quickly.
B)record the amount of barium given to the patient and charge her accordingly.
C)insist that she can handle the barium enema and that after you have started,it needs to be completed because you cannot get the barium out.
D)stop the barium,drain as much of it as possible from the patient's colon,and courteously conclude the examination.
Q3) In a legal proceeding,the actions of a radiographer will be judged with regard to his or her compliance with the
A)actions of other radiographers working in the same department.
B)orders of a physician.
C)practice standards for medical imaging and radiation therapy.
D)standards of care of medicine.
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