Course Introduction
Introduction to Genetics Study Guide Questions
Introduction to Genetics explores the fundamental principles that govern heredity and the variation of traits in living organisms. Students will learn about the structure and function of DNA, genes, and chromosomes, as well as the mechanisms of genetic inheritance and gene expression. The course covers classic Mendelian genetics, molecular genetics, genetic mutations, and the application of genetics in fields such as biotechnology, medicine, and agriculture. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory exercises, students gain a foundational understanding of genetic concepts and their relevance to modern biology and society.
Recommended Textbook
Concepts of Genetics 3rd Edition by Robert J. Brooker
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of the processes of transcription and translation is at the ________ level of biological organization.
A) population
B) organismal
C) cellular
D) molecular
Answer: D
Q2) What is natural selection?
A) When nongenetically based traits are passed from one generation to the next
B) A process that allows traits to remain the same over many generations
C) A process in which environmental constraints enable some phenotypes to be more successful than others
D) When one phenotype is as successful as all other phenotypes
Answer: C
Q3) Genetic variation is ultimately based upon which of the following?
A) morphological differences
B) variations in nucleotide sequence of the DNA
C) carbohydrate content of the cell
D) translation
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Reproduction and Chromosome Transmission
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Q1) In plants,spore production occurs by
A) spermatogenesis
B) meiosis
C) mitosis
D) binary fission
E) oogenesis
Answer: B
Q2) A cytogeneticist would primarily do which of the following?
A) study the distribution of traits in a population
B) study the evolutionary changes in a specific trait
C) examine chromosomes using a karyotype
D) determine the genetic sequence of a specific gene
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following would contain genetic material that is 100% identical?
A) homologous chromosomes
B) sister chromatids
C) X and Y chromosomes
D) All of these choices are identical.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ refers to the observable characteristics of an individual.
A) character
B) genotype
C) phenotype
D) dominant trait
E) recessive trait
Answer: C
Q2) Mendel's law of independent assortment states that ________ randomly assort their ________ during the formation of haploid cells.
A) genes; alleles
B) alleles; versions
C) cells; mitochondria
D) genes; nucleotides
Answer: A
Q3) An individual who has two identical alleles for a trait is said to be ________.
A) homozygous
B) heterozygous
C) isozygous
D) a variant
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not inactivate an X chromosome?
A) mammals
B) Drosophila
C) C. elegans
D) humans
Q2) Pseudoautosomal inheritance occurs when
A) a gene on an autosome is silenced by inactivation.
B) a gene on a Y chromosome has the same inheritance pattern as a gene on an X chromosome.
C) a gene on an autosome has the same inheritance pattern as a gene on a sex chromosome.
D) a gene on a sex chromosome has the same inheritance pattern as a gene on an autosome.
Q3) The Lyon hypothesis attempts to explain the molecular mechanism of ________.
A) X-inactivation
B) genomic imprinting
C) maternal inheritance
D) extra nuclear inheritance
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6
Chapter 5: Extensions of Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paralogs are often functionally redundant and can compensate for the loss of either of the paralogs in a set.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Variable expressivity means that the phenotype of a trait can vary between individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For a certain trait,a heterozygous individual has a selective advantage over a homozygous dominant or homozygous recessive individual.This is called ________.
A) codiminance
B) incomplete dominance
C) overdominance
D) incomplete penetrance
E) multiple allele systems
Q4) Typically,a recessive allele increases the expression of a functional protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Extranuclear Inheritance, Imprinting, and Maternal Effect
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is a chloroplast genome similar to a prokaryotic genome?
A) They are both circular.
B) They both code for all the proteins they need for functioning.
C) They are both linear.
D) There is only one chromosome per cell or chloroplast.
Q2) What is the molecular mechanism for imprinting a gene?
A) acetylation
B) nitration
C) phosphorylation
D) methylation
Q3) Who is largely responsible for proposing the endosymbiosis theory?
A) Schimper, Wallin
B) Lyon, Margulis, Schimper
C) Schimper, Wallin, Barr
D) Barr, Lyon, Margulis
Q4) Most imprinted genes are silenced.What is one exception to this rule?
A) H19
B) Igf-2
C) UBE3A
D) SNRPN
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Chapter 7: Genetic Linkage and Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The locus is the physical place of a gene on a chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Assume that genes C and D are located on the same chromosome.On one chromosome alleles C and D are found,while the homologue contains alleles c and d.Which of the following would be an example of a recombination event?
A) alleles C and D together on one chromosome
B) alleles c and d together on one chromosome
C) alleles C and d together on one chromosome
D) alleles c and D together on one chromosome
E) both alleles C and d together on one chromosome and alleles c and D together on one chromosome
Q3) In a chi square test to determine if two genes are linked or assorting independently,what is the default (null)hypothesis that is tested?
A) The genes are linked to one another.
B) The genes are assorting independently.
C) The genes are located on the sex chromosomes.
D) No crossing over occurs.
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Chapter 8: Variation in Chromosome Structure and
Number
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effects of a deficiency on an organism are dependent on the importance of the missing genetic material.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are Klinefelter and Turner syndromes examples of?
A) sex chromosome aneuploidy
B) autosomal aneuploidy
C) reciprocal translocations
D) paracentric inversions
Q3) Variations in a gene are called allelic variations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following generally has the least effect on the phenotype of the individual who carries it?
A) Robertsonian translocation
B) unbalanced translocation
C) balanced translocation
D) All of these choices are equally detrimental to the phenotype.
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Q5) Visible or measurable characteristics of an organism,resulting from its genotype,are called its ________.
Chapter 9: Genetics in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions must be correct for transformation to occur?
A) temperature
B) ionic conditions
C) nutrient balance
D) F factor must be present
E) bacteriophage strain
Q2) This form of DNA transfer was first observed by Lederberg and Tatum (1946)in Escherichia coli.
A) transformation
B) transduction
C) conjugation
D) fission
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true regarding bacterial genetics?
A) Bacteria are usually haploid organisms.
B) Bacteria primarily reproduce asexually.
C) The patterns of inheritance in bacteria are studied using the same techniques as eukaryotic organisms.
D) DNA is transferred between individuals by either conjugation, transduction, or transformation.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Genetics of Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which virus uses reverse transcriptase in its reproductive cycle?
A) HIV
B) Phage lamda
C) Both of the viruses use reverse transcriptase
D) Neither of the viruses use reverse transcriptase
Q2) A ________ frequently integrates into the host genome,forming prophages and utilizing a lysogenic cycle to manufacture new phages.
A) virulent phage
B) temperate phage
C) bacteria
D) eukaryotic cell
Q3) What is the genetic material in the parvovirus?
A) single-stranded DNA
B) double-stranded DNA
C) single-stranded RNA
D) double-stranded RNA
Q4) The genetic material of HIV is single-stranded RNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Molecular Structure of DNA and RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purine bases are ________.
A) cytosine, thymine, and uracil
B) adenine and guanine
C) adenine and thymine
D) cytosine and guanine
Q2) How many bases are necessary to complete one complete twist (360 degrees)of a DNA double helix?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 100
D) 1000
Q3) The term nucleic acids is used to describe RNA and DNA because
A) they are acidic molecules and have a net negative charge at neutral pH.
B) they are acidic molecules and have a net positive charge at neutral pH.
C) they are acidic molecules and have no charge at neutral pH.
Q4) Select the ways in which an RNA strand differs from a DNA strand.
A) It contains ribose instead of deoxyribose.
B) It is usually single-stranded.
C) It contains uracil instead of thymine.
D) It runs 6 to 3 instead of 5 to 3 .
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Chapter 12: Molecular Structure of Chromosomes and Transposition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What feature(s)may be found in insertion elements?
A) inverted repeats
B) transposase gene
C) reverse transcriptase gene
D) antibiotic resistance gene
E) integrase gene
Q2) Where is the bacterial chromosome located?
A) nucleus
B) nucleolus
C) nucleoid
D) nuclear envelope
Q3) One would expect heterochromatic regions of DNA to be more compacted than euchromatic regions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a mechanism of condensation shared by both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A) nucleosomes
B) loop domains
C) 30 nm fiber
D) None of these choices are correct.
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Chapter 13: Dna Replication and Recombination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which enzyme is responsible for the majority of DNA synthesis during replication?
A) DNA ligase
B) DNA primase
C) topoisomerase
D) DNA polymerase I
E) DNA polymerase III
Q2) Which describes the mechanism of DNA replication in which the newly made double-stranded DNA contains one parental strand and one daughter strand?
A) dispersive
B) semiconservative
C) conservative
Q3) Based on their known functions,which of the enzymes in the following pairs play a similar role in prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A) DNA pol I : DNA pol
B) DNA pol II : DNA pol
C) DNA pol III : DNA pol
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Chapter 14: Gene Transcription and RNA Modification
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Q1) The term ribozyme is given to catalytic RNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What RNA modification is important for mRNA stability?
A) alternative splicing
B) RNA editing
C) base modification
D) 3' polyA tailing
E) processing
Q3) Sigma factor belongs to a general group of proteins called the transcription factors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What structural motif is used by sigma factor to bind to DNA?
A) zinc-finger
B) helix-turn-helix
C) leucine zipper
D) homeodomain
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Chapter 15: Translation of MRNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The one-gene,one-enzyme hypothesis was first proposed by Beadle and Tatum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The scientist(s)________ developed the triplet-binding assay.Samples containing ribosomes and a particular RNA triplet were exposed to charged tRNAs with different radiolabeled amino acids.Only the amino acid whose tRNA matched the triplet would bind the ribosome.The triplet-binding assay established relationships between particular triplet sequences and specific amino acids.
A) Garrod
B) Nirenberg and Matthaei
C) Khorana and colleagues
D) Nirenberg and Leder
E) Beadle and Tatum
Q3) What level of protein structure is exemplified by -helices and -sheets?
A) primary structure
B) secondary structure
C) tertiary structure
D) quaternary structure
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Allosteric regulation is accomplished by
A) a small molecule that fits into an enzyme's active site.
B) a large protein that blocks an enzyme's active site.
C) a small molecule that fits into a site on the enzyme that is not the active site.
D) a small molecule that covalently modifies a site on the enzyme that is not the active site.
Q2) A riboswitch is an RNA molecule that can exist in two different conformations.Conversion from one to another is due to the binding of a small molecule to the riboswitch.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Operons that code for catabolic enzyme systems are typically regulated by repressors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Negative transcriptional regulation is conducted by activator proteins.
A)True
B)False
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18
Chapter 17: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) One difference between developmental and environmental epigenetic changes is that
A) environmental epigenetic control is the result developmental processes interacting with the environment.
B) developmental epigenetic control is a normal process that occurs in all offspring.
C) environmental epigenetic control is a normal process that occurs in all offspring.
D) the differences between the two lie in the mechanisms that each uses.
Q2) Expression of a gene can be impaired if its promoter is hypermethylated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Expression of ________ would inhibit X-chromosome inactivation.
A) Xic
B) Xist
C) Tsix
D) All of the answers are correct
E) None of the answers are correct
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Chapter 18: Non-Coding Rnas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ribozymes are RNA molecules with what type of activity?
A) Catalytic
B) Binding
C) Protease
D) Decoy
Q2) With which injection did Mello and Fire observe the lowest amount of mex-3 probe staining?
A) Injected with double-stranded RNA
B) Injected with mex-3 antisense RNA
C) Uninjected
Q3) A bacterial ncRNA called OxyS regulates translation by binding to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence,which prevents ribosome binding.What is the function of this ncRNA?
A) Blocker
B) Decoy
C) Ribozyme
D) Scaffold
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Chapter 19: Gene Mutation and DNA Repair
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Q1) An individual that is a genetic mosaic would be the result of a germ cell mutation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Ames test may be used to determine if an agent is a mutagen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most common genotype in a population is called the mutant genotype.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The conversion of cytosine to uracil in DNA is an example of ________.
A) depurination
B) tautomeric shifts
C) deamination
D) None of the answers are correct.
Q5) Ethyl methanesulfonate (EMS)is an example of a deaminating agent.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Molecular Technologies
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Q1) Although Dolly was only three years old,her chromosomes had the length of a 9- to 10-year-old sheep.Which of the following best describes why this occurred?
A) The cell lines that created Dolly were aged prematurely in the lab and thus became longer.
B) Nonhomologous recombination occurred, which caused Dolly's chromosomes to shorten.
C) A mutation enhanced the rate of aging of Dolly's chromosomes.
D) Dolly was not a clone.
E) The telomeres of the somatic cells that Dolly originated from were already shortening.
Q2) Detection of a product in real-time PCR depends on
A) the separation of the reporter from the quencher.
B) the reporter and quencher remaining in close proximity to each other.
C) the reporter binding to the quencher.
D) Taq polymerase destroying the reporter.
Q3) The use of fluorescent-labeled dideoxynucleotides is a characteristic of what type of sequencing?
A) automated DNA sequencing
B) base-specific DNA cleavage
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Chapter 21: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is in situ hybridization used for?
A) cytogenetic mapping
B) physical mapping
C) linkage mapping
D) sequencing
Q2) RFLP stands for restriction fragment linked position.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following procedures best determines the relative order,but not precise location,of a series of genes on a chromosome?
A) physical mapping
B) cytogenetic mapping
C) linkage mapping
D) shotgun sequencing
Q4) A small glass chip that contains thousands of microscopic pieces of DNA is called a DNA microarray.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Medical Genetics and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between genetic testing and genetic screening?
A) Genetic testing is concerned more with individuals and genetic screening is concerned with populations.
B) Genetic screening is concerned more with individuals and genetic testing is concerned with populations.
C) They use different tests and techniques to detect genetic mutations.
D) Genetic testing is concerned more with nonlethal syndromes and diseases, and genetic screening is concerned with lethal diseases and syndromes.
Q2) What are the general ways that tumor supressors and oncogenes act?
A) Tumor suppressors inhibit the cell cycle and oncogenes stimulate the cell cycle.
B) Oncogenes inhibit the cell cycle and tumor suppressors stimulate the cell cycle.
C) Both tumor suppressors and oncogenes stimulate the cell cycle.
D) Both tumor suppressors and oncogenes inhibit the cell cycle.
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Chapter 23: Population Genetics
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Q1) The term for a group of individuals from the same species that can interbreed with one another is
A) species.
B) population.
C) race.
D) community.
E) kingdom.
Q2) Which type of selection would lead to two distinct phenotypes?
A) stabilizing selection
B) phenotype selection
C) fitness selection
D) disruptive selection
E) directional selection
Q3) Which of the following types of selection favors one extreme of a phenotypic distribution?
A) disruptive selection
B) stabilizing selection
C) directional selection
D) balancing selection
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Quantitative Genetics
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Q1) QTL stands for quantitative trait locus and may contain more than one gene.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A trait that varies measurably in a species is called a discontinuous trait.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Since quantitative traits are frequently associated with a number of genes and the environment,it is difficult to assign accurate phenotypic classes for a Punnett square diagram.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The sum of all of the values for a trait,divided by the total number of individuals,is called the standard deviation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If a completely inbred population shows phenotypic variance,then that variance is caused by environmental effects.
A)True
B)False
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