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Interpersonal Communication explores the processes and principles underlying communication between individuals in various contexts, including personal, professional, and social relationships. The course examines verbal and nonverbal message exchange, active listening, conflict resolution, perception, self-disclosure, and the impact of culture and technology on personal interactions. Through theoretical frameworks and practical exercises, students will develop skills to enhance their ability to build and maintain effective, ethical, and meaningful relationships in diverse environments.
Recommended Textbook
The Basics of Communication A Relational Perspective 2nd Edition by Steve W. Duck
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15 Chapters
567 Verified Questions
567 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe how social frames function to help people interpret the meaning of a message.
Answer: The context in which a message is delivered--for instance, a commencement address--helps us to understand the meaning we are to assign to a message. Messages can be delivered in more or less formal contexts, in workplace or social settings, and to familiar as well as unfamiliar audiences. All of these are 'frames' that help us create expectations for what we will say or hear in a given setting.
Q2) Signs are consequences or indicators of something specific, which human beings can change by their arbitrary actions or labels.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Relationships affect communication by:
A) Preventing expectations from affecting the meaning of a message
B) Minimizing the effective interpretation of a message
C) Establishing time frames for the interpretation of a message
D) Establishing expectations for the interpretation of a message
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term connotation refers to:
A) The use of language to identify something in a simple and straightforward way
B) Failing to understand the implications and background behind words
C) The use of language to identify something in a specific or literal way
D) Understanding the implications and background behind words
Answer: D
Q2) Explain the connection between naming and thinking expressed by the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis.
Answer: The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis proposes that your language and the words you have been taught help you make conceptual distinctions (for instance, Eskimos have more words for snow than you might have because they differentiate between types of snow that have different implications for their daily life).
Q3) The indexical function of talk in relationships means that:
A) Talk can make something happen
B) Talk can indicate something about the nature or status of the relationship
C) Talk can create the essence of the relationship
D) Talk can terminate the relationship
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of kinesics in NVC would include:
A) Observing vocal variety in a conversation
B) Observing numbers of um's and you know's in a conversation
C) Observing how people claim space and territory
D) Observing how people stand or gesture
Answer: D
Q2) Identify at least three of the kinds of topics that make up the study of nonverbal communication (NVC).
Answer: Nonverbal communication includes facial expression, hand movements and gestures, physical appearance, attire, physical attractiveness, timing, body movement and posture, eye contact, tone/pitch/volume of voice, touch, and smell, to name just a few.
Q3) Examples of static NVC would include:
A) Eye contact
B) Eye color
C) Pupil dilation
D) Blinking rate
Answer: B
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38 Verified Questions
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Q1) Identify the communication behaviors one should demonstrate in therapeutic listening.
Q2) Hasty generalization arises when a conclusion is based on a single occurrence or insufficient data or sample size.
A)True
B)False
Q3) People speak on average between 100 and 150 words per minute, but listeners process information at a rate of between 400 and 500 words per minute. The kind of thought speed difference causes us to have
A) "experiential superiority."
B) "wandering thoughts."
C) "egocentric listening."
D) "fallacious arguments."
Q4) Red herring describes the use of another issue to divert attention away from the real issue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify the difference between hearing and listening.
Q6) Give a definition of critical listening.
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Sample Questions
Q1) During your interactions with others, you will be more likely to pick up on activities that support your views of the world and pay less attention to those that do not. This is an example of:
A) symbolic self
B) unstable behavior
C) accountable self
D) selective exposure
Q2) It is possible to self-disclose too much information in given situations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The earliest important influence on a person's sense of origin and identity is that person's:
A) Best friend
B) Spouse
C) Work supervisor
D) Family
Q4) Personal constructs are bipolar dimensions used to measure and evaluate things.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify the perception process.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the role of physical appearance in Duck's Relationship Filtering Model.
Q2) Prospective relational continuity constructional units (RCCUs) would be most likely to:
A) Indicate that one partner is physically absent from the relationship
B) Indicate that one partner has returned to the relationship
C) Indicate that one partner wants the other to leave the relationship
D) Indicate that one partner is about to be absent from the relationship
Q3) If you begin complaining to your partner, start talking about problems, goals, and commitment in the relationship with him/her, Duck suggests you are in this phase:
A) Intrapsychic
B) Dyadic
C) Social process
D) Grave-dressing
Q4) A resurrection process deals with the ways people prepare themselves for new relationships after ending an old one.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how relationships influence the distribution of information.
Q6) Discuss the difference between social and personal relationships.
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Q1) A leader who pays attention to members' feelings, comfort, and satisfaction with outcomes is identified as:
A) A socioemotional leader
B) A team leader
C) A task leader
D) A motivational leader
Q2) Certain types of groups are less structured and formal than others.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Power in groups is:
A) Always held by the designated leader
B) Sometimes based on communication competence
C) Based only on roles
D) Decided by majority rule.
Q4) Group communication that helps keep people on track and moving forward is referred to as:
A) Counteractive communication
B) Disruptive communication
C) Promotive communication
D) Analytic communication
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Q1) Giving up your own positions on a regular basis to satisfy others in a conflict, even when no one else compromises anything, is typical of this style of conflict management:
A) Dominating
B) Integrating
C) Obliging
D) Avoiding
Q2) A person who comes from a monochronic culture would be most likely to:
A) Arrive on time, if not early, for appointments
B) Multitask on a regular basis
C) Carry out multiple conversations at the same time
D) Establish relationships before introducing business
Q3) The cultural approach to conflict that views it as destructive would likely assume:
A) Conflict is a normal, useful process
B) All issues are subject to change through negotiation
C) People who dispute issues should be disciplined
D) Confrontation releases tensions
Q4) Provide a definition of what it means to belong to a culture.
Q5) Identify the differences between individualist and collectivist cultures.
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Q1) Your authors challenge the research behind the media equation for the following reasons:
A) Most of the studies used to test it come from the field of psychology
B) Most of the studies used to test it come from the field of communication
C) Most people's brains have not evolved enough to treat computers and people similarily
D) Most people's brains have not evolved enough to treat computers and people differently
Q2) Explain why an Internet user might choose a screen name that does not truly represent himself/herself.
Q3) Self-disclosure on social networking sites online differs from face-to-face (FTF) self-disclosure because:
A) Much more self-disclosure happens FTF
B) Online self-disclosure happens much more gradually than in FTF interaction
C) Online self-disclosure happens much more quickly than in FTF interactions
D) Self-disclosure rarely happens online
Q4) Explain Reeves and Nass's concept of the 'media equation.'
Q5) Explain why people from different generations assign different meanings to relational technologies, as well as using them in a different way.
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Q1) According to uses and gratifications theory, if you watch a reality TV program such as 'Gene Simmons Family Jewels' for the very personal reason that you are a Kiss fan, even though you would admit this to none of your friends, you are using media for the following reason:
A) Escapism
B) Reality exploration
C) Character reference
D) Incidental reasons
Q2) The use of media as a shared relational activity enables people to accomplish certain relational needs. When Media enable interaction to take place, they address which relational need.
A) Promoting interaction
B) Withdrawing from interaction
C) Differentiating relationships
D) Enacting and evaluating roles
Q3) Studies indicated that people do not use media in isolation but often use two or more media systems simultaneously, an activity referred to as concurrent media use.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Doing an individual inventory is helpful for a speaker because it:
A) Prevents the speaker from talking about what he/she knows well
B) Prevents the speaker from knowing what makes him/her unique
C) Prevents the speaker from overlooking what makes him/her unique
D) Prevents the speaker from preparing the presentation
Q2) Public speakers should present the same kinds of evidence, organization, and approach to a topic regardless of the audience.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Distinguish between attitudes, beliefs, and values.
Q4) In selecting a topic, the speaker should consider his/her:
A) Knowledge
B) Experiences
C) Important issues
D) All of the above
Q5) Audiences can be expected to respond consistently to presentations, regardless of their attitudes, beliefs, and values.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Providing audience with any background information needed on the topic during the introduction is referred to as:
A) Reinforcement
B) Emergence
C) Conflict
D) Orientation
Q2) "Now that we have talked about X, let's turn our attention to the matter of Y." This statement is a(n)
A) Clincher
B) Subpoint
C) Attention getter
D) Transition
Q3) In selecting an organizational pattern for a presentation, a speaker should:
A) Use the pattern he/she knows best
B) Consider topic, purpose, and audience
C) Use the pattern the audience knows best
D) Consider avoiding unity principle
Q4) The number of subpoints should always be the same in every presentation.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) When seeking to change an audience's way of thinking, a speaker must:
A) Point out that he/she has the audience's best interests in mind
B) Point out that he/she will benefit from the audience's change of perspective
C) Point out that he/she has more knowledge than the audience
D) Point out that he/she has less knowledge than the audience
Q2) The purpose of an informative presentation is to enhance the knowledge or understanding of the audience on a given subject.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Process speeches always require the audience to be able to perform the process after listening to the presentation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In delivering an informative process presentation, the speaker must remember:
A) To avoid explaining obvious steps in the process
B) To avoid explaining why the process is important
C) To avoid using visual aids
D) To avoid skipping any steps in the process
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Q5) Identify "Strategies for Successful Informative Presentations."
Q6) Define the Aristotelian artistic proofs of ethos, pathos, and logos.
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Sample Questions
Q1) In using presentation aids, a speaker can reduce communication apprehension by:
A) Using children and animals as presentation aids
B) Using very technical presentation aids
C) Practicing the use of presentation aids
D) Using as many presentation aids as possible
Q2) An important tip in practicing a presentation to reduce communication anxiety is:
A) Practice the presentation in isolation
B) Practice the presentation silently
C) Practice the presentation out loud and in front of other people
D) Practice the presentation only once
Q3) Explain why a speaker would want to consider culture in deciding how much or little eye contact to have with the audience.
Q4) ___________ involves being energetic and enthusiastic.
A) Inspiring
B) Composure
C) Sociability
D) Dynamism
Q5) Discuss the role of dynamism/extroversion in establishing speaker credibility.
Q6) Discuss vocalics.

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Q1) The purpose of the _________________ is to present credentials in a clear and concise manner.
Q2) Reframing the interview means that any interview can help us learn, and therefore any interview can be successful.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Directive interviews are those in which control for the direction of the interview is primarily given to the interviewee.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the employment interview, the interviewer and interviewee both have specific responsibilities before during and after the interview.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify the 3 types of interview question sequences discussed in the chapter and provide an example of when each type would be effectively used in an interview.
Q6) _______________________ interviews are those which are greatly controlled by the interviewer.
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