
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
General Science offers a comprehensive overview of foundational scientific principles spanning biology, chemistry, physics, and earth sciences. This course emphasizes the development of scientific literacy, critical thinking skills, and the application of scientific methods to real-world problems. Through a blend of theoretical knowledge and hands-on experiments, students will explore topics such as the structure and function of living organisms, matter and its interactions, energy and forces, and the changing Earth. The course aims to foster curiosity, promote analytical reasoning, and build a solid base for further study in specialized branches of science.
Recommended Textbook
Physical Science 9th Edition by Bill Tillery
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Q1) A scheme of thought that has survived a test of detailed examination for long periods of time is a (an)
A)hypothesis.
B)scientific law.
C)scientific theory.
D)model.
Answer: C
Q2) An event with two situations with all the influencing factors identical except one is a (an)
A)hypothetical experiment.
B)experiment.
C)controlled experiment.
D)impossible experiment.
Answer: C
Q3) A tentative thought- or experiment-derived explanation is known as a (an)
A)hypothesis.
B)scientific law.
C)scientific theory.
D)model.
Answer: A
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Q1) You should "follow through" when hitting a ball because
A)this increases the force.
B)momentum is conserved.
C)of the relationship \(\Delta\)p = Ft.
D)momentum is mv.
Answer: C
Q2) Gravity is an attractive force between
A)all massive objects.
B)Earth and objects on Earth.
C)Earth and Moon, and objects on Earth.
D)all objects everywhere.
Answer: D
Q3) A block of iron is transported to the Moon.Which of the following is true?
A)both its mass and weight remain unchanged.
B)its mass decreases, but its weight remains the same.
C)its mass remains the same, but its weight decreases.
D)both its mass and weight decrease.
Answer: C
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Q1) While exploring an ancient Mayan tomb, you discover that the walls are closing in on you.By exerting 400 N of force, you are able to keep the wall from coming closer.The work you are doing on the wall is
A)400 J.
B)3920 J.
C)unknown, because the mass of the wall is not given.
D)zero, because the wall is not moving.
Answer: D
Q2) The energy an object has because of its position is called potential energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which form of energy does not require matter for traveling through space?
A)electrical
B)chemical
C)radiant
D)mechanical
Answer: C
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Q1) The sum of all the energy of the molecules of an object is called the temperature of that object.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Liquid water at 0ºC has to give up energy in order to become ice at 0ºC.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process by which solids vaporize without first becoming a liquid is called
A)sublimation.
B)condensation.
C)evaporation.
D)boiling.
Q4) Water molecules move back and forth between the liquid and gaseous phases
A)only when the space above a liquid is not saturated.
B)only at 100ºC.
C)only when the humidity is low.
D)at all times.
Q5) Temperature is a measure of the amount of heat stored in a substance.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Resonance occurs at a (an)
A)natural frequency.
B)intensity match.
C)point of constructive interference.
D)point of destructive interference.
Q2) The bending of a wave at the boundary between two media is called A)reflection.
B)resonance.
C)reverberation.
D)refraction.
Q3) The time that is required for a vibrating object to complete one full cycle is called A)frequency.
B)wavelength.
C)amplitude.
D)period.
Q4) Sound travels faster through cold, denser air than through warm, less dense air.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If you double the distance between two charged objects, you reduce the electrical force by a factor of four.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The reading on your electric bill shows the amount of power you have used in a month.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A neutral atom that gains one or more electrons is called a (an)
A)negative ion.
B)positive ion.
C)de-ionized atom.
D)positron.
Q4) A magnetic field
A)is produced by an excess of stationary electric charges.
B)is produced by a deficiency of stationary electric charges.
C)is produced by moving charges.
D)attracts or repels stationary electric charges.
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Q1) Ultraviolet light carries more energy than infrared radiation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The image formed by a plane mirror is A)virtual.
B)real.
C)a result of diffuse reflection.
D)smaller than the object.
Q3) The index of refraction for flint glass is 1.5.This means that
A)light travels faster in this medium than it does in vacuum.
B)the wavelength of light passing through glass is 1.5* as long as it is in vacuum.
C)the speed of light is slower in this medium than it is in vacuum.
D)a ray of light is refracted away from the normal as it passes from air into glass.
Q4) Polarizing sunglasses are useful because they are able to
A)use the critical angle to block light.
B)reflect glare.
C)absorb reflected light, which is polarized.
D)refract reflected light, which causes glare.
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Q1) J.J.Thomson reasoned that cathode rays were really charged particles because
A)a magnet deflected cathode rays.
B)cathode rays formed only when the air was pumped out of a discharge tube.
C)the properties of the cathode rays depended on the cathode material.
D)the cathode rays were attracted to the anode.
Q2) Neutral atoms of a given element all have the same
A)number of protons.
B)atomic number.
C)number of electrons.
D)All of the above.
Q3) The fact that wavelengths of the four lines in the Balmer series fit a regular pattern was evidence supporting the idea that
A)electrons could exist in only four energy states in a hydrogen atom.
B)there must be four electrons in each hydrogen atom.
C)electrons could only gain or lose specific amounts of energy in hydrogen atoms.
D)electrons were continuously losing energy.
Q4) The word halogen comes from the Greek, meaning salt-former.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The representative elements have one to eight valence electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The element M forms a stable ionic compound MCl<sub>2</sub>.If M were allowed to react with bromine, the resulting compound would have the formula A)MBr.
B)M<sub>2</sub>Br.
C)MBr<sub>2</sub>.
D)there is not enough information to tell for sure.
Q3) Atoms that have eight valence electrons would tend to A)be very reactive.
B)be inert.
C)form positive ions. D)form negative ions.
Q4) The -ide ending in nitrogen dioxide tells you that this is an ionic compound. A)True
B)False
Q5) A covalent bond is a shared pair of electrons.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) What is the mass of 0.50 mole of baking soda, N<sub>a</sub>HCO<sub>3</sub>?
A)26 g
B)42 g
C)84 g
D)168 g
Q2) What is the number of oxygen atoms in Al<sub>2</sub>(SO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>3</sub>?
A)3
B)4
C)7
D)12
Q3) The reaction 2 M<sub>g</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 2 M<sub>g</sub>O is an example of A)oxidation.
B)combination.
C)combustion.
D)All of the above.
Q4) In combination reactions, elements react to form compounds.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Highway departments spread salt on icy roads because the solution process generates heat, which melts the ice.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One mole of particles lowers the freezing point of 1,000 g of water by 1.76ºC.What is the freezing point of a solution containing one mole of NaNO<sub>3</sub> in 1,000 g of water?
A)30.24ºC
B)28.48ºC
C)-1.76ºC
D)-3.52ºC
Q3) Cooks add a pinch of salt to water to increase its boiling point since it is known that solutions boil at a higher temperature than pure water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The dye litmus turns blue in basic solutions.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Hydrocarbons with single carbon-to-carbon bonds are known as A)alkanes.
B)alkenes. C)alkynes.
D)aromatic hydrocarbons.
Q2) Organic chemistry is the study of compounds produced by living things. A)True B)False
Q3) Crude oil refineries were originally built to refine petroleum to obtain gasoline. A)True B)False
Q4) Propanol and iso-propanol have
A)the same physical and chemical properties.
B)the same physical, but different chemical properties.
C)different physical, but the same chemical properties.
D)different physical and chemical properties.
Q5) Alcohols have the carboxyl functional group -COOH. A)True B)False
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Q1) Nuclei with a higher than desired neutron-to-proton ratios tend to undergo which type of decay?
A)alpha
B)beta
C)gamma
D)All of the above.
Q2) When an isotope releases gamma radiation the atomic number
A)decreases by two and the mass number decreases by four.
B)increases by one and the mass number remains the same.
C)and the mass number decrease by one.
D)and the mass number remain the same.
Q3) Isotopes with an even number of both protons and neutrons are generally stable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) X undergoes radioactive decay to Y with a half-life of five minutes.After 10 minutes, the sample of X has completely decayed to Y.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) More massive stars tend to use up their supply of hydrogen more rapidly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of star has the shortest life span?
A)large, very massive
B)small, not very massive
C)one on the main sequence
D)a star about the size of our Sun
Q3) Which of the following depends on your location on Earth?
A)celestial pole
B)celestial meridian
C)celestial equator
D)All of these depend on your location.
Q4) Earth rotates
A)from west to east.
B)from east to west.
C)at the same rate as it revolves around the Sun.
D)twice each day.
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Q1) The brightest object in the sky after the Sun and Moon is
A)Saturn.
B)Jupiter.
C)Mars.
D)Venus.
Q2) Most of the mass of the solar system is found in
A)the terrestrial planets.
B)the gas giants.
C)the comets and asteroids.
D)the Sun.
Q3) Which planets have no moons?
A)Earth and Neptune
B)Mars and Saturn
C)Mercury and Venus
D)All of the planets have at least one moon.
Q4) Our model of the surface features of Venus was obtained by A)powerful Earth-based telescopes.
B)cameras on the fly-by Voyager probes.
C)radar mapping from the Magellan probe.
D)the Venera probes which roamed the surface of the planet.
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Q1) The findings from the Apollo space missions to the Moon support the idea that the Moon formed from the impact of Earth with a very large object.
A)True
B)False
Q2) South of the Antarctic Circle, the Sun appears
A)directly overhead only once a year.
B)directly overhead twice yearly.
C)above the horizon all day at least once during December.
D)above the horizon all day at least once during June.
Q3) If your favorite constellation rose at 8:00 PM one night, when would it rise two weeks later?
A)at 8:00 PM
B)around 7:00 PM
C)around 9:00 PM
D)it depends on the constellation
Q4) The position of a spot on the floor made by a sunbeam traces out a "figure eight" pattern over the course of a year.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Most rocks are composed of minerals that are A)carbonaceous.
B)metamorphic.
C)silicates.
D)igneous.
Q2) The most abundant elements in Earth's crust are A)nitrogen and oxygen.
B)iron and aluminum.
C)silicon and oxygen.
D)aluminum and silicon.
Q3) It is believed that at one time all rocks of Earth were A)igneous.
B)clastic sedimentary.
C)chemical sedimentary.
D)metamorphic.
Q4) Very rapid cooling of magma produces glass rather than a mineral.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Evidence shows that Earth's magnetic field is diminishing with time and may reverse orientations by the end of the next
A)200 years.
B)2,000 years.
C)25 million years.
D)4.5 million years.
Q2) According to plate tectonics, new crustal material is created at A)divergent plate boundaries.
B)ocean-continent plate convergence.
C)subduction zones.
D)ocean-ocean plate convergence.
Q3) Evidence for the theoretical formation of Earth and the structure of its interior comes largely from deep core samples.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Earth's crustal layer is
A)thicker under the continents than beneath the oceans.
B)is composed largely of rocks rich in aluminum and silicon.
C)less dense than the mantle material.
D)All of the above.

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Q1) In a "normal" fault, the hanging wall moves downward relative to the foot wall.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When subjected to stress, rocks at great depths and high temperature tend to undergo
A)plastic strain.
B)elastic strain.
C)fracture or rupture.
D)no change due to the great pressure.
Q3) Sills are formations of lava that cool on Earth's surface in giant sheets.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Seismic sea waves
A)are more properly called tsunamis than tidal waves.
B)travel at speeds approaching 55 mph.
C)break upon the shore rapidly.
D)All of the above.
Q5) Stress is the adjustment a rock makes when it is subjected to a strain.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) One would expect to find deep rich soil layer where the climate is A)wet and warm.
B)dry and cold.
C)tropical.
D)arctic.
Q2) When a stream flows into a body of water it often forms a A)delta.
B)floodplain.
C)dune.
D)ventifact.
Q3) Weathering is the process that must occur before erosion can take place. A)True
B)False
Q4) Weathering involves the A)picking up of rock fragments. B)movement of rock fragments.
C)mechanical and chemical breakup of rocks.
D)formation of rocks by the action of weather.
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Q1) Estimations of the age of Earth based on its present rate of cooling from a molten mass yielded times that are close to current estimates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The principle of uniformity requires you to believe that the geologic features you see today were formed in the past by the same processes we observe today.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The science of deciphering the history of life from the fossil record is called archeology.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fossilization process by which the original material is dissolved and new materials added is called
A)replacement.
B)carbonization.
C)mineralization.
D)replication.
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Q1) When a glass filled with a cold beverage "sweats," water evaporating from the surface of the beverage condenses on the cold glass surface.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide is regulated by A)removal from the atmosphere by green plants.
B)exchanges between the ocean and atmosphere.
C)chemical reactions between the atmosphere and rocks.
D)All of the above.
Q3) Dew is more likely to form
A)on a clear night.
B)in an open field.
C)when the wind is not blowing.
D)All of the above.
Q4) The greenhouse effect results in warmer temperatures near the surface because A)clouds trap infrared radiation near the surface.
B)some of the energy that would ordinarily escape is re-radiated toward the surface.
C)carbon dioxide and water vapor trap infrared radiation.
D)carbon dioxide molecules do not permit radiation to escape.
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Q1) There are greater temperature extremes in North Dakota than in the state of Washington because
A)North Dakota is farther north than Washington.
B)North Dakota is more mountainous than Washington.
C)there is no ocean near North Dakota.
D)the dry adiabatic lapse rate is greater in North Dakota.
Q2) Which of the following is not considered to be a form of precipitation?
A)rain
B)dew
C)snow
D)hail
Q3) A parcel of air that is shoved upward into atmospheric air in a state of instability will expand and become cooler
A)than the surrounding air.
B)reaching the same temperature as the surrounding air.
C)but not as cool as the surrounding air.
D)then warmer as it rises.
Q4) The average density of liquid water in a cloud is 1 gram per cubic centimeter.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The largest freshwater reservoir in the world is
A)the oceans.
B)lakes and streams.
C)the atmosphere.
D)glaciers and ice caps.
Q2) The characteristics of ocean waves are influenced by A)wind speed.
B)length of time the wind blows.
C)the fetch.
D)All of the above.
Q3) A watershed is
A)a layer of permeable material capable of storing groundwater.
B)the land area drained by a stream.
C)the amount of precipitation released by a rainstorm.
D)the amount of water stored in the ground and in reservoirs.
Q4) A current that moves parallel to the shore in the surf zone is called a A)rip current.
B)longshore current.
C)undertow.
D)turbidity current.

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