
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Criminal Profiling explores the methods and strategies used to identify the behavioral, psychological, and demographic characteristics of offenders through an analysis of crime scene evidence, victimology, and investigative data. Students study the history and development of profiling, the theoretical foundations behind offender behavior, and the role of profiling in criminal investigations. The course also examines real-world case studies, ethical considerations, limitations of profiling, and the integration of profiling with other investigative techniques to enhance law enforcement efforts in solving crimes.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Forensic Psychology Research and Application 5th Edition by Curtis R. Bartol
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Q1) The study of persons who have experienced actual or threatened physical, psychological, social, and/or financial harm as the result of the actual or attempted commission of crime against them is called ______.
A) victimology
B) rehabilitation psychology
C) heuristics
D) correctional psychology
Answer: A
Q2) The minimum educational requirement for psychologists is the bachelor's degree.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The history of forensic psychology can be traced back to late 19th-century experiments involving which topic?
A) serial murders
B) prison violence
C) child development
D) eyewitness identification
Answer: D
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Q1) Who typically requests a fitness-for-duty evaluation?
A) a police psychologist
B) the department head
C) a family member of the officer
D) the officer
Answer: B
Q2) Which source of stress would be considered an external stressor?
A) excessive shift work
B) negative police-citizen interactions
C) exposure to death
D) substance abuse
Answer: B
Q3) Which program is often considered a form of racial/ethnic profiling?
A) Stop and Frisk
B) Critical Incident Stress Debriefing
C) Community-Oriented Policing
D) Peer Counseling
Answer: A
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Q1) Which hypothesis is a possible explanation for own-race bias?
A) false alarm hypothesis
B) differential experience hypothesis
C) unconscious transfer hypothesis
D) double-blind hypothesis
Answer: B
Q2) What three fundamental questions are central to the psychology of investigations in their early stages?
Answer: (1) What are the important behavioral features associated with the crime that may help identify and successfully prosecute the perpetrator?
(2) What inferences can be made about the characteristics of the offender that may help identify him or her?
(3) Are there any other crimes that are likely to have been committed by the same person?
Q3) Identify the three broad categories of investigative psychology.
Answer: The nature of offender behavior, the social psychology of group crime and terrorism, and the cognitive psychology of investigative decision-making by law enforcement investigators.
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Q1) All of the following are concerns with actuarial instruments except they ______.
A) may include legally unacceptable risk factors
B) often have a restricted definition of violence
C) focus on a small number of factors
D) are too generalizable to other contexts
Q2) Empirical literature has consistently supported the superiority of clinical data over actuarial data for the prediction of violence.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Substance abuse and unemployment are examples of ______ risk factors.
A) dynamic
B) static
C) actuarial
D) instrumental
Q4) Identify one type of specialty court. Why are specialty courts often interesting to psychologists?
Q5) Amicus curiae briefs are filed at the disposition stage of the court process. A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe structured professional judgment.
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Q1) Which individual would be eligible for the death penalty?
A) a juvenile sex offender who is under age 18
B) a 36-year-old female who is intellectually disabled
C) a female business owner who stabs her husband to death
D) a male serial rapist whose victims are all alive
Q2) Most clinicians regard the evaluation of criminal responsibility as a complex issue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Research suggests that the inclusion of a clinically diagnosed mental disorder is a strong predictor of a finding of incompetence.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When assessing risk in sexually violent predators, it is important for clinicians to be aware that ______.
A) the majority of SVPs are also substance abusers
B) the majority of SVPs have been falsely accused
C) comorbid mental disorders are rare in this population
D) treatment may not be provided once the individual is civilly committed
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Q1) Describe the six categories of good parenting, as defined by Eve, Byrne, and Gagliardi (2014). Name one other category you could add to this list.
Q2) Identify and briefly describe the three forms of outpatient civil commitment.
Q3) Gretchen has decided to complete a legal document to make her health wishes known, should she become physically incapacitated. Gretchen is working on a(n)
A) advance directive
B) competency evaluation
C) death with dignity application
D) treatment assessment tool
Q4) Who makes the custody decision in the majority of divorce cases involving dependent children?
A) the consulting psychologist
B) the parents
C) the judge
D) the child(ren)
Q5) Harassment is a form of discrimination.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Define delinquency from a legal perspective, a social perspective, and a psychological perspective.
Q2) Discuss the reasons why many arsons set by youth go undetected and unreported.
Q3) During adolescence, face processing of the social cognition system becomes more specialized in line with the norms of the culture with which the person is most familiar.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which common childhood diagnosis is closely linked to poor executive functioning?
A) ADHD
B) substance abuse
C) psychopathy
D) schizophrenia
Q5) Youths at the fireplay stage of firesetting often use fire to destroy property.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How does adolescent risk-taking behavior play a primary role in adolescent mortality?
Q7) Describe the Uniform Crime Reports. Include the limitations of these data.
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Q1) Threat assessment involves the three basic functions of identify, manage, and treat.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to the text, human violence is ultimately a ______ behavior.
A) transitional
B) persistent
C) static D) learned
Q3) What are the two dominant explanations for gender discrepancies in violent offending?
Q4) All of the following statements accurately describe multiple murderers EXCEPT ______.
A) they are more common than single-victim murderers
B) the media often sensationalizes their crimes
C) until recently, researchers assumed they were similar to single-victim offenders
D) there is sparse empirical research on multiple murderers
Q5) Choose one of the causes of violence discussed in the chapter. Explain the cause in detail and include examples in your answer.
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Q1) Brett enjoys extreme sports, has a history of violent behavior, and displays a hostile attitude toward women. Brett seems to have features of ______.
A) macho personality constellation
B) psychopathic rapist
C) male chauvinistic syndrome
D) neurotic extraversion
Q2) Why are unstructured clinical interviews particularly problematic for assessing adult sex offenders?
A) They include collateral information such as medical reports and arrest reports.
B) They do not allow the interviewee an opportunity to expound on responses.
C) The typical interviewer is untrained in sex offender typologies.
D) Sex offenders may deny or conceal feelings and deviant behavior.
Q3) According to the MTC:R3, an opportunistic rapist who has demonstrated impulsivity since adolescence is classified as a ______ rapist.
A) Type 1
B) pervasively angry
C) vindictive
D) Type 2
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Q1) Which term best defines trafficking?
A) exploitation
B) personalization
C) border
D) movement
Q2) Contrast the grieving process for survivors of homicidal death versus survivors of those who died nonviolently.
Q3) Which statement is true about the legal rights of victims?
A) Most victims who exercise their right to allocution are successful at increasing the defendant's prison sentence.
B) Victims in all 50 states have the right to be represented by an attorney during all stages of the criminal process.
C) Most victims are unaware of their legal rights.
D) Victims in all 50 states receive notifications at all stages of the criminal justice process.
Q4) The greater the perceived malevolence of the murder, the higher the stress of those left behind.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) According to research by Patihis et al. (2014), which group was the most skeptical about the recovery of repressed memories?
A) college undergraduates
B) college graduates
C) practicing mental health clinicians
D) experimental psychologists
Q2) Most infanticides are committed by women suffering from postpartum depression.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which individual is most likely to be the victim of a stranger child abduction?
A) a preschool boy who is kidnapped by his uncle while at the beach
B) a middle school boy who is kidnapped by his teacher while at school
C) a preschool girl who is kidnapped by a stranger at a park
D) an elementary school girl who is kidnapped by a stranger while at an amusement park
Q4) The inability to recall events before age three is called repressed memory.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast postpartum blues, postpartum depression, and postpartum psychosis.
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Q1) Jails are typically operated by the federal government.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Imagine you are conducting a competency to be executed evaluation. Refer to some techniques described in the chapter and explain the process that you would use.
Q3) High-security prisons or units within a facility designed to hold the most violent inmates are called ______.
A) supermax prisons
B) specialized facilities
C) boot camps
D) intermediate sanctions
Q4) Choose one special population discussed in the chapter and describe one approach to treatment for that population.
Q5) One future change in institutional corrections will likely involve a(n) ______.
A) increase in the overall recidivism rate for violent offenders
B) decrease in mental health needs of incarcerated individuals
C) positive outcomes of the war on drugs
D) growth of private prisons
Q6) How is recidivism measured?
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Q1) Research suggests that functional family therapy may be especially effective at ______.
A) improving academic performance
B) reducing violent crime committed by juveniles
C) educating juveniles about sexual abuse
D) reducing substance abuse
Q2) Research suggests that which functional family therapist will yield the most positive results for juveniles?
A) a bilingual therapist with a doctorate degree
B) a well-trained therapist who is supervised by a PhD
C) a therapist who is the same gender as the juvenile and vested in the company
D) a therapist who is nurturing and appreciated by the juvenile
Q3) One concern with group homes such as the teaching-family model is that they ______.
A) focus primarily on serious delinquents
B) do not reinforce positive behaviors
C) focus on substance abuse treatment
D) do not address the importance of individual cultural needs
Q4) What do Morris Kent Jr. and Gerald Gault have in common?
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