Computer Information Systems Project Management
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Computer Information Systems Project Management provides students with a comprehensive overview of project management principles as they apply specifically to information systems within organizations. This course explores the methodologies, tools, and techniques used to initiate, plan, execute, monitor, and close IT projects, with an emphasis on aligning technology initiatives with organizational goals. Key topics include requirements gathering, risk management, resource allocation, scheduling, team dynamics, and quality control. Through real-world case studies and hands-on projects, students develop practical skills in leading and managing computer information systems projects, utilizing industry-standard project management software and best practices to ensure project success.
Recommended Textbook
Information Technology Project Management 8th Edition by Kathy Schwalbe
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Project Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) High-end tools are generally licensed on a(n) _____ basis. Answer: per-user
Q2) Project _____ management involves defining and managing all the work required to complete the project successfully.
A)human resource
B)scope
C)time
D)cost
Answer: B
Q3) Earned value management is a tool primarily used in human resource management.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q4) Effective program managers recognize that managing a project is much more complex than managing a program.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q5) A project's sponsor is also known as a(n) _____. Answer: primary customer
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Chapter 2: The Project Management and Information Technology Context
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Q1) Most colleges and universities have very strong functional organizations.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q2) The _____ life cycle model is suitable for projects in which changes can be incorporated with reasonable cost increases or acceptable time delays.
Answer: spiral
Q3) _____ refers to the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment.
A)Means-ends orientation
B)Open-systems focus
C)Conflict tolerance
D)Risk tolerance
Answer: B
Q4) In the _____ phase of the project life cycle, the work is completed, and customers should accept the entire project.
Answer: close-out
Q5) Sprint planning is part of the basic ______. Answer: Scrum framework
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Chapter 3: The Project Management Process Groups: A Case Study
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Q1) A(n) _____ is a cross-functional team of five to nine people who organize themselves and the work to produce the desired results for each sprint.
Answer: Scrum team?development team
Q2) A _____ is usually not necessary to the Scrum method.
A)team contract
B)velocity estimate
C)Gantt chart
D)product backlog
Answer: A
Q3) A(n) _____ describes how things should be done.
Answer: methodology
Q4) Key outcomes of the executing process group are formal acceptance of the work and creation of closing documents.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) _____ is a project management methodology that defines 45 separate subprocesses and organizes these into eight process groups.
Answer: PRojects IN Controlled Environments?PRINCE2
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Chapter 4: Project Integration Management
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Q1) Interface management involves identifying and managing the points of interaction between various elements of a project.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A project charter typically does not authorize the project manager to use organizational resources to complete the project.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ factors include relevant government or industry standards, the organization's infrastructure, and marketplace conditions.
Q4) List and briefly describe the six main processes involved in project integration management.
Q5) Which of the following is a proactive process undertaken to reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks?
A)Performance reports
B)Preventive actions
C)Defect repairs
D)Corrective actions
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Chapter 5: Project Scope Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ refers to the difference between planned and actual performance.
A)Decomposition
B)Variance
C)Scope validation
D)Scope creep
Q2) Generating ideas by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products inside or outside the performing organization is known as _____.
A)variance
B)benchmarking
C)prototyping
D)decomposition
Q3) Subdividing the project deliverables into smaller pieces is known as _____.
Q4) A(n) _____ is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defines its total scope.
Q5) A unit of work should appear at only one place in the WBS.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The _____ includes the approved project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Project Time Management
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Q1) A white diamond on a Tracking Gantt chart represents a(n) _____.
Q2) What is the Theory of Constraints? Describe critical chain scheduling, an application of the Theory of Constraints.
Q3) Which of the following is a silimarity between scope control and schedule control?
A)Both are initial processes of project time management.
B)Both of their primary goals is to define project goals and miestones.
C)Both are portions of the integrated change control process under project integration management.
D)Both of these processes should occur before estimating activity durations.
Q4) After defining project activities, the next step in project time management is developing the schedule.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the activity defining process, the project team should review the _____ and activity attributes with project stakeholders before moving on to the next step in project time management.
Q6) One of the first reality checks on scheduling that a project manager should make is to review the _____.
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Chapter 7: Project Cost Management
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Q1) If an important supplier goes out of business, management reserves can be set aside to cover the resulting costs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Project managers must conduct cash flow analysis to determine net present value.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When deciding what projects to invest in or continue, one should include sunk costs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Soles is a footwear company which has recently set up its store in Ambrosia. To manufacture its products, Soles incurs a range of different costs. Which of the following would be an example of an indirect cost?
A)Cost of machines to produce shoes
B)Salary paid to factory workers
C)Electricity used to run its factories
D)Cost of leather used to manufacture shoes
Q5) A cost management plan is a subsidiary of the _____ plan.
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Chapter 8: Project Quality Management
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Q1) The _____ means taking responsibility for failures or not meeting quality expectations.
Q2) _____ is a measure of quality control equal to 1 fault in 1 million opportunities.
Q3) Performing _____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality.
Q4) Watts S. Humphrey defines a(n) _____ as anything that must be changed before delivery of the program.
Q5) Project managers are ultimately responsible for quality management on their projects.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The _____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling.
A)quality planning
B)quality certification
C)quality assurance
D)quality control
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Project Human Resource Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ a highly respected psychologist, rejected the dehumanizing negativism of psychology and proposed the hierarchy of needs theory.
A)Sigmund Freud
B)Abraham Maslow
C)Carl Jung
D)Philip Zimbardo
Q2) According to Covey, project managers must use a win/lose approach in making decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ is the concept that the whole is equal to more than the sum of its parts.
Q4) _____ power is getting people to do things based on a position of authority.
Q5) _____ is best known for distinguishing between motivational factors and hygiene factors when considering motivation in work settings.
A)Frederick Herzberg
B)David McClelland
C)Abraham Maslow
D)Douglas McGregor
Q6) What is a staffing management plan?
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Chapter 10: Project Communications Management
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Q1) Microsoft Office Enterprise Project Management Solution has a(n) _____ tool that provides a centralized and consolidated view of programs and projects.
Q2) Many experts agree that the greatest threat to the success of any project, especially information technology projects, is a failure to _____.
Q3) A facilitator can help the team solve any communication problems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ monitoring and controlling project communications to ensure that stakeholder communication needs are met.
Q5) Many information technology professionals work on _____ projects where they never meet their project sponsors, other team members, or other project stakeholders.
Q6) As the number of people involved in a project _____, the complexity of communications _____.
A)increases, decreases B)decreases, increases C)increases, stays constant
D)increases, increases
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Project Risk Management
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Q1) _____ involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives.
A)Performing quantitative risk analysis
B)Planning risk responses
C)Controlling risk
D)Performing qualitative risk analysis
Q2) _____ involves allocating ownership of the risk to another party.
A)Risk exploitation
B)Risk sharing
C)Risk enhancement
D)Risk acceptance
Q3) _____ involves reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence.
A)Risk avoidance
B)Risk acceptance
C)Risk transference
D)Risk mitigation
Q4) The risk register can be created with a simple Microsoft Word or Excel file.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Project Procurement Management
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Q1) A(n) _____ is a document prepared by a seller when there are different approaches for meeting buyer needs.
Q2) A single contract can include all three categories of contracts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How are RFPs different from RFQs? What are some of the requirements of writing an RFP?
Q4) After planning for procurement management, which of the following does the next process involve?
A)Determining the evaluation criteria for the contract award
B)Developing procurement statements of work
C)Using expert judgement in planning?purchases and acquisitions
D)Sending appropriate documentation to potential sellers
Q5) Which of the following is an output of the contract closure process?
A)Procurement statements of work
B)Updates to organizational process assets
C)Resource calendars
D)Work performance information
Q6) What are some of the advantages that outsourcing offers which is encouraging many companies to adopt it?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Project Stakeholder Management
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Q1) Government officials and concerned citizens would be classified as _____ project stakeholders.
Q2) Which of the following is true about identifying stakeholder?
A)The project manager's family is not a potential stakeholder.
B)It is not very difficult to identify stakeholders.
C)Stakeholders with indirect ties to the project need not be engaged with.
D)Stakeholders do not change during a project
Q3) Scope, time and cost goals in order of importance can be ranked on a(n) _____.
A)requirements traceability matrix
B)expectations management matrix
C)responsibility assignment matrix
D)probability matrix
Q4) Sensitive information can be included in the stakeholder register as very few people in the organization have access to it.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is a stakeholder register and what information must be included in it?
Q6) What must be the contents of the stakeholder management plan?
Q7) A(n) _____ is a tool that is used to document, monitor, and track problems that need resolution.
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