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Computer and Network Security introduces the principles, techniques, and tools for securing computer systems and networks against threats and vulnerabilities. The course covers fundamental concepts such as cryptography, authentication, access control, threat modeling, and risk management. Students learn about common attack methods, security protocols, firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and the design of secure communication channels. Emphasis is placed on both theoretical foundations and practical approaches to protecting data integrity, confidentiality, and system availability in various computing environments, preparing students to address real-world security challenges.
Recommended Textbook
CompTIA Security Guide to Network Security Fundamentals 6th Edition by Mark Ciampa
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750 Verified Questions
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Q1) What process describes using technology as a basis for controlling the access and usage of sensitive data?
A)technical controls
B)administrative controls
C)control diversity
D)vendor diversity
Answer: A
Q2) Which position below is considered an entry-level position for a person who has the necessary technical skills?
A)security technician
B)security administrator
C)CISO
D)security manager
Answer: A
Q3) A vulnerability is a flaw or weakness that allows a threat to bypass security.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) What are the four different risk response techniques?
Answer: Accept,transfer,avoid,and mitigate.
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Q1) What type of malicious software technology is used to download and install software without the user's interaction?
A)automatic download software
B)automated software
C)system modifying software
D)tracking software
Answer: A
Q2) A remote access Trojan has the basic functionality of a Trojan but also gives the threat actor unauthorized remote access to the victim's computer by using specially configured communication protocols.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What are botnets?
Answer: Botnets are collections of thousands or even hundreds of thousands of zombie computers are gathered into a logical computer network under the control of an attacker,or bot herder.
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Q1) What technology uses a chip on the motherboard of the computer to provide cryptographic services?
A)SEDs
B)FDE
C)TPM
D)HSM
Answer: C
Q2) What four basic protections can cryptography support?
Answer: Cryptography can support confidentiality,integrity,authentication,and non-repudiation.
Q3) What cryptographic method,first proposed in the mid-1980s,makes use of sloping curves instead of large prime numbers?
A)FCC
B)RSA
C)ECC
D)IKE
Answer: C
Q4) What characteristics are needed to consider a hashing algorithm secure?
Answer: The hashing algorithm must be a fixed size and unique,original,and secure.
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Q1) The Authentication Header (AH)protocol is a part of what encryption protocol suite below?
A)TLS 3.0
B)IPSec
C)GPG
D)SSL
Q2) What is used to create session keys?
A)master secret
B)crypto modules
C)validation
D)domain validation
Q3) What kind of digital certificate is typically used to ensure the authenticity of a web server to a client?
A)private
B)web server
C)public web
D)web client
Q4) What is the S/MIME protocol used for?
Q5) What protocol uses SSL or TLS to secure communications between a browser and a web server?
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Q1) Which SQL statement represents a SQL injection attempt to determine the names of different fields in a database?
A)whatever AND email IS NULL;--
B)whatever;AND email IS NULL;--
C)whatever" AND email IS NULL;--
D)whatever' AND email IS NULL;--
Q2) An attack that takes advantage of the procedures for initiating a session is known as what type of attack?
A)DNS amplification attack
B)IP spoofing
C)smurf attack
D)SYN flood attack
Q3) Which type of attack broadcasts a network request to multiple computers but changes the address from which the request came to the victim's computer?
A)IP spoofing
B)denial of service
C)DNS Poisoning
D)smurf attack
Q4) How does a cross-site request forgery (XSRF)attack work?
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Q1) An early networking device that functioned at layer 1 of the OSI model and added devices to a single segment is known as which of the following choices?
A)switch
B)router
C)firewall
D)hub
Q2) What type of monitoring compares network traffic,activities,transactions,or behavior against a database of known attack patterns?
A)application-based
B)protocol-based
C)behavioral-based
D)signature-based
Q3) Describe how Network Access Control (NAC)works.
Q4) What data unit is associated with the Open Systems Interconnection layer two?
A)segment
B)packet
C)frame
D)bit

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Q5) Describe how VLAN communication takes place.
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Q1) Discuss the problems associated with storing the entire database of names and IP addresses in one location.
Q2) In what type of cloud computing does the customer have some control over the operating systems,storage,and their installed applications?
A)Application as a Service
B)Infrastructure as a Service
C)Software as a Service
D)System as a Service
Q3) Which technology is a means of managing and presenting computer resources by function without regard to their physical layout or location?
A)IaaS
B)cloud computing
C)virtualization
D)PaaS
Q4) Which of the following protocols is unsecured?
A)HTTPS
B)TLS
C)SSL
D)FTP
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Q1) An access point that is unauthorized and allows an attacker to bypass network security configurations is considered to be what type of access point?
A)random
B)sanctioned
C)rogue
D)legitimate
Q2) What is the maximum number of characters that can exist within a SSID name?
A)10
B)12
C)26
D)32
Q3) What type of survey can help a network administrator make decisions about bands,channels,and widths when installing new access points?
A)wireless
B)site
C)frequency
D)architectural
Q4) What is the Message Integrity Check (MIC)within WPA used for?
Q5) What are the four types of packets used by EAP?
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Q1) In the production stage the application is released to be used in its actual setting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which AV approach uses a variety of techniques to spot the characteristics of a virus instead of attempting to make matches?
A)heuristic monitoring
B)pattern detection
C)hybrid monitoring
D)combination detection
Q3) What is a bollard?
Q4) What is the name for a cumulative package of all patches and hot-fixes as well as additional features up to a given point?
A)feature pack
B)roll-up
C)service pack
D)patch
Q5) What is a multi-functional device (MFD)?
Q6) What is provisioning?
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Q1) What mobile operating system below requires all applications to be reviewed and approved before they can be made available in the App store?
A)Android
B)Blackberry OS
C)iOS
D)Symbian
Q2) Describe how content management is used.
Q3) Which enterprise deployment model allows users to use their personal mobile devices for business purposes?
A)BYOD
B)COPE
C)VDI
D)CYOD
Q4) Which enterprise deployment model requires employees to choose from a selection of company owned and approved devices?
A)BYOD
B)COPE
C)VDI
D)CYOD
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Q1) Which term below describes the time it takes for a key to be pressed and then released?
A)dwell time
B)lead time
C)sync time
D)react time
Q2) Which of the following are key stretching password hash algorithms? (Choose all that apply. )
A)bcrypt
B)PBKDF2
C)seq02
D)SHA-256
Q3) Why should account passwords be disabled instead of the account being immediately deleted?
Q4) A secret combination of letters,numbers,and/or characters that only the user should have knowledge of,is known as a:
A)token
B)password
C)biometric detail
D)challenge
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Q1) Select the authentication system developed by the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)to verify the identity of network users.
A)Aurora
B)Kerberos
C)CHAP
D)TACACS
Q2) What is an entry in an ACL known as?
A)DACL
B)ACE
C)SQL
D)flag
Q3) Select the XML standard that allows secure web domains to exchange user authentication and authorization data and is used extensively for online e-commerce transactions.
A)SAML
B)LDAPS
C)TACACS
D)SDML
Q4) Discuss the differences between DAP and LDAP.
Q5) What is the purpose of an ACL?

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Q1) What type of penetration testing technique is used if the tester has no prior knowledge of the network infrastructure that is being tested?
A)white box
B)gray box
C)black box
D)sealed box
Q2) What is the end result of a penetration test?
A)penetration test profile
B)penetration test report
C)penetration test system
D)penetration test view
Q3) What type of reconnaissance is a penetration tester performing if they are using tools that do not raise any alarms?
A)active
B)passive
C)invasive
D)evasive
Q4) Explain the concepts of personal data theft and identity theft.
Q5) List at least four things that a vulnerability scanner can do.
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Q1) What kind of data can be lost when a computer is turned off?
A)volatile
B)static
C)non-volatile
D)persistent
Q2) What kind of slack is created from information stored on a hard drive,which can contain remnants of previously deleted files or data?
A)RAM slack
B)Edge slack
C)Drive file slack
D)Sector slack
Q3) What is the name for an image that consists of an evidence-grade backup because its accuracy meets evidence standards?
A)baseline
B)mirror image
C)logical image
D)thin image
Q4) Explain how an on-line UPS works and why their advantages when compared to off-line UPS units.
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Q1) What describes an agreement between two or more parties and demonstrates a "convergence of will" between the parties?so that they can work together?
A)MOU
B)NDA
C)BPA
D)ISA
Q2) Which term below describes the art of helping an adult learn?
A)andragogical
B)pedagogical
C)deontological
D)metagogical
Q3) Why should authorization be obtained for penetration testing and vulnerability testing?
Q4) A security control is any device or process that is used to reduce risk.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is a security control?
Q6) Distributive allocation refers to "eliminating" the risk.
A)True
B)False
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