Clinical Nursing Practice Study Guide Questions - 1742 Verified Questions

Course Introduction

Clinical Nursing Practice Study Guide

Questions

Clinical Nursing Practice provides students with comprehensive, hands-on experience in delivering safe, evidence-based nursing care across a variety of healthcare settings.

Emphasizing patient-centered approaches, this course covers core clinical skills including assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation of care for individuals and groups. Students integrate theoretical knowledge with practical application through simulations and supervised placements, learning to collaborate effectively within interprofessional healthcare teams. The course also focuses on developing critical thinking, ethical decision-making, and communication skills necessary for professional nursing practice in diverse clinical environments.

Recommended Textbook

Medical Surgical Nursing in Canada 3rd Canadian Edition by Lewis

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72 Chapters

1742 Verified Questions

1742 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction to Medical-Surgical Nursing

Practice in Canada

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following refers to the use of communication and information technologies in order to support the delivery and integration of clinical care?

A) e-Health

B) Nursing informatics

C) Electronic health record

D) ICT (information and communication technology)

Answer: A

Q2) A patient with an infection has a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit related to excessive diaphoresis.What is an appropriate patient outcome?

A) Balanced intake and output are achieved.

B) Patient verbalizes a need for increased fluid intake.

C) Bedding is changed when it becomes damp.

D) Skin remains cool and dry throughout hospitalization.

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Cultural Competence and Health Equity in Nursing Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is a primary factor that shapes the health of Canadians?

A) Medical treatments

B) Living conditions

C) Lifestyle choices

D) Obesity

Answer: B

Q2) A recent RN graduate is assessing a newly admitted non-English-speaking Chinese patient.Which action would alert the preceptor to intervene and assist the nurse with culturally appropriate care?

A) Sitting down at the bedside

B) Calling for a medical interpreter

C) Beginning the physical assessment with palpation

D) Avoiding eye contact with the patient

Answer: C

Q3) Which best describes culturally appropriate nursing care?

A) Asking permission to touch a patient

B) Avoiding questions about male-female relationships

C) Explaining how Western medical care differs from cultural folk remedies

D) Applying knowledge of a culture to patients of the same cultural group

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Health History and Physical Examination

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Sample Questions

Q1) Following knee surgery,the patient has an elastic bandage applied to the surgical site.What examination technique is used to assess the patient's distal extremity pulses and temperature?

A) Palpation

B) Inspection

C) Percussion

D) Auscultation

Answer: A

Q2) Which functional health pattern is the nurse assessing when asking a patient how his or her family feels about the patient being hospitalized?

A) Cognitive-perceptual

B) Role-relationship

C) Coping-stress tolerance

D) Self-perception-self-concept

Answer: B

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5

Chapter 4: Patient and Caregiver Teaching

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following nursing care plan entries would be a correctly worded nursing diagnosis?

A) Ineffective knowledge

B) Deficient knowledge

C) Inappropriate knowledge

D) Stereotypical knowledge

Q2) A patient admitted to the hospital with hyperglycemia and diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for discharge the second day after admission.In view of the patient's limited hospitalization,what should the nurse's teaching plan emphasize first for the patient's education about diabetes?

A) Prioritize realistic goals that are essential to the patient's immediate learning needs.

B) Reflect a complete plan that can be implemented by home health care nurses.

C) Use all available time to teach the patient as much as possible about the condition.

D) Involve teaching the family instead of the patient about management of diabetes.

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6

Chapter 5: Chronic Illness

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Sample Questions

Q1) Life expectancy in Canada is estimated to be approximately how many years?

A) 60

B) 70

C) 80

D) 90

Q2) Chronic illness accounts for well over half (63%)of all deaths globally.Which chronic illness accounts for the highest proportion of those deaths in Canada?

A) Cancer

B) Diabetes

C) Cardiovascular disease

D) Chronic respiratory disease

Q3) Which is the most influential source of self-efficacy?

A) Mastery

B) Affective states

C) Verbal persuasion

D) Vicarious experience

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Community-Based Nursing and Home Care

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Q1) Primary health care is increasingly being embraced as a strategy to shift the health system's focus from treatment of disease to health promotion.This shift is known as which of the following?

A) Economic shift

B) Reforming the system

C) Enhancing primary health care

D) Chronic disease management in home care settings

Q2) Which of the following is a current trend in home health nursing?

A) Increased numbers of registered nurses (RNs)are being employed as home health nurses.

B) Decreased numbers of licensed practical nurses (LPNs)are being employed as home health nurses.

C) There are more employment opportunities for newly graduated nurses.

D) A minimum of two years of acute care experience is required before employment as a home health nurse.

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Chapter 7: Older Adults

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an element of a stochastic theory of aging?

A) Programmed

B) Transcription

C) Neuroendocrine

D) Immunological-autoimmunological

Q2) In planning discharge teaching for an older,homeless adult,what is a common reason that older homeless adults often do not utilize shelter and meal-site services?

A) They are ashamed about being homeless.

B) They fear that they will be institutionalized.

C) They feel that they do not deserve community support.

D) They feel that use of such services means they cannot make it on their own.

Q3) Which of the following is an appropriate approach that the nurse should use to facilitate learning in older adults?

A) Using peer educators

B) Avoiding issues of a personal nature

C) Presenting material quickly to avoid fatigue

D) Acknowledging the older adult's dependence

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9

Chapter 8: Stress and Stress Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 40-year-old woman comes to the health clinic requesting sleeping medication and treatment for headaches.She tells the nurse that her husband has moved out to live with another woman.Her 16-year-old son,who has a drug problem,sold her jewellery and electronic equipment.What stress theory is the nurse using in concluding that the woman's life events are contributing to her insomnia and headaches?

A) Stress as a stimulus

B) Stress as a response

C) Stress as a perception

D) Stress as a transaction

Q2) A middle-aged man is recovering from a heart attack.He tells the nurse he is not surprised he had the attack because his work and home life are very stressful and he feels as if he is going to explode most of the time.What coping behaviours should the nurse suggest that would both increase the patient's resistance to stress and reduce the amount of stress he feels?

A) Changing his job and reorganizing his priorities at home

B) Learning all he can about heart disease and its effects on his body

C) Joining a community group of individuals with heart disease and their families

D) Performing healthy lifestyle behaviours related to diet,sleep,and exercise

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10

Chapter 9: Sleep and Sleep Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) After the nurse has taught a patient about the use of extended-release Zopiclone (Imovane)for insomnia,which patient statement indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I will take the medication an hour before bedtime."

B) "I should take the medication on an empty stomach."

C) "I should not take this medication unless I can sleep for at least six hours."

D) "I will schedule activities that require mental alertness for later in the day."

Q2) Which of the following is a common misconception about sleep in the older adult?

A) Older adults need less sleep than middle-aged adults.

B) Insomnia symptoms in the older adult frequently occur with depression.

C) Older female adults report more trouble falling asleep than their male counterparts.

D) Diabetes in the older adult can increase the prevalence of insomnia.

Q3) Which of the following is an arousal parasomnia that occurs during NREM sleep?

A) Enuresis

B) Hallucinations

C) Sleepwalking

D) Nightmares

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Chapter 10: Pain

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Sample Questions

Q1) Morphine 10 mg IV every four to six hours as needed is ordered for a patient with a pancreatic tumour who has a history of alcoholism.After three days of receiving the morphine every six hours,the patient tells the nurse that the medication is needed more frequently to control the pain.In responding to the patient's request,what does the nurse recognize?

A) A tolerance to the morphine is developing,and the patient should receive the drug more frequently.

B) Administering the morphine more frequently will increase the patient's physical dependence on the drug.

C) Physical dependence should be avoided at all costs,and the drug should continue to be administered every six hours.

D) The patient is becoming addicted to the morphine,and it should be administered less frequently than every six hours.

Q2) Which type of pain is caused by damage to somatic tissue?

A) Visceral

B) Nociceptive

C) Neuropathic

D) Sensory-discriminative

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Chapter 11: Substance Use

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is alcohol intoxicated must undergo emergency surgery for a ruptured spleen.What does the nurse recognize about the postoperative period for this patient?

A) The patient will require lower than normal doses of analgesics.

B) The patient is likely to develop withdrawal symptoms within 24 hours.

C) The patient is at increased risk for bleeding and respiratory complications.

D) The patient should be stimulated every hour to prevent the prolonged effects of the anaesthesia.

Q2) A patient has a history of drug abuse and is hospitalized following a fall down a flight of stairs.After a visit by a friend,the nurse finds the patient unresponsive,with pinpoint pupils.What drug should the nurse anticipate will be used to treat this patient?

A) Caffeine

B) Methadone

C) Naloxone (Narcan)

D) Diazepam (Valium)

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13

Chapter 12: Complementary and Alternative Therapies

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with chronic headaches seeks treatment from a nurse trained in therapeutic touch.What does the nurse explain to the patient that therapeutic touch involves?

A) The use of the practitioner's hands to assess and redirect energy

B) The forceful,passive movement of joints to restore structural and functional imbalances

C) Application of pressure with the fingers at points on the body where energy is obstructed

D) Manipulation of soft tissue and small joints that alters the length and tone of myofascial tissue

Q2) Which of the following is used to gently lift and knead the muscle?

A) Simple massage

B) Effleurage

C) Pétrissage

D) Circular massage

Q3) Which of the following is true regarding healing touch?

A) It has strong ties to religious beliefs.

B) It is a physician-based program.

C) It assists the patient to self-heal.

D) The nurse determines its effectiveness.

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Chapter 13: Palliative Care at the End of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) When caring for a patient close to death,when does the nurse recognize that death legally occurs?

A) When the cerebral cortex function ceases

B) When respirations cease

C) When coma,absence of brainstem reflexes,and apnea occur

D) When cardiopulmonary resuscitative efforts are not effective

Q2) A patient who is very close to death is very restless and repeats,"I am not ready to die." What is the most appropriate nursing intervention at this time?

A) Call the hospital chaplain to visit the patient.

B) Sit with the patient,and ask him if he wants to talk.

C) Inform the patient that everything possible is being done for him.

D) Ask the patient what he needs to do to come to acceptance of his death.

Q3) Which of the following refers to care that is provided in the last days or weeks of the patient's life?

A) Hospice care

B) Palliative care

C) Respite care

D) End-of-life care

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15

Chapter 14: Inflammation and Wound Healing

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Sample Questions

Q1) An older adult patient has a large,open,infected surgical wound on the abdomen that contains a creamy exudate and small areas of red granulation tissue.How should the nurse classify this wound?

A) Black wound

B) Yellow wound

C) Superficial red wound

D) Full-thickness red wound

Q2) Which of the following causes of lethal cell injury results in destruction of the cell membrane or nucleus and the production of lethal toxins?

A) Hypoxia

B) Chemical

C) Microbial

D) Immunological

Q3) Which local manifestation of inflammation causes a change in pH?

A) Heat

B) Pain

C) Redness

D) Swelling

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16

Chapter 15: Genetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A young woman's mother has been diagnosed with BRCA gene-associated breast cancer,an autosomal dominant genetic disorder.She asks the nurse about the inheritance patterns of this disorder.On what knowledge will the nurse base the response to this young woman?

A) Most affected offspring of autosomal dominant disorders are males.

B) The young woman's mother had unaffected parents who were heterozygous for the gene.

C) The young woman has a 50% chance of having the mutated gene if her mother is heterozygous.

D) Daughters of women who are heterozygotic with an autosomal dominant disorder are usually carriers of the gene.

Q2) What is the name given to a family tree that contains the genetic information and disorders of the family?

A) Genome

B) Hereditary

C) Phenotype

D) Pedigree

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Chapter 16: Altered Immune Response and Transplantation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse encourages a new mother to breastfeed her infant,even for a short time,because colostrum will provide the infant with which type of immunity?

A) Indefinite active immunity to childhood illnesses

B) Passive immunity to all childhood illnesses for several months

C) Passive immunity to diseases to which the mother has immunity

D) Active immunity for several years to diseases to which the mother has immunity

Q2) A patient with a severe allergic reaction is treated with epinephrine.The nurse recognizes that the rationale for the use of epinephrine is that epinephrine opposes the effects of which one of the following?

A) Adrenergic receptors

B) Lymphokines

C) Interleukin-2

D) Lysosomal enzymes

Q3) Which of the following is a side effect of corticosteroids?

A) Peptic ulcers

B) Nausea and vomiting

C) Pulmonary edema

D) Decreased appetite

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18

Chapter 17: Infection and Human Immunodeficiency Virus

Infection

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which following condition is most commonly caused by Escherichia coli?

A) Diphtheria

B) Food poisoning

C) Urinary tract infection

D) Gastroenteritis

Q2) At the health promotion level of care for HIV infection,what should the nurse assess for?

A) Symptoms the patient may be experiencing

B) Drug side effects or interactions that may be present

C) The patient's need for assistance from the community

D) Behaviours that place the patient at risk for HIV infection

Q3) During which period of chronic HIV infection would the patient experience lymphadenopathy and nervous system manifestations?

A) Early

B) Intermediate

C) Late

D) Terminal

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Cancer

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a large stomach tumour that is attached to the liver is scheduled to have a debulking procedure.What should the nurse explain that the expected outcome for this surgery will be?

A) Relief of pain by cutting sensory nerves in the stomach

B) Reduction of the tumour burden to enhance adjuvant therapy

C) Control of the tumour growth by removal of malignant tissue

D) Promotion of better nutrition by relieving the pressure in his stomach

Q2) Interleukin-2 (IL-2)is used as adjuvant therapy for a patient with metastatic renal cell carcinoma.Which of the following does the nurse recognize as a goal of therapy with this agent?

A) Selectively altering the DNA of malignant cells

B) Enhancing the patient's immunological response to tumour cells

C) Stimulating malignant cells in the resting phase to enter mitosis

D) Preventing the bone marrow depression common with the use of chemotherapeutic agents

Q3) Which one of the flowing malignancies has been linked to radiation?

A) Cervical cancer

B) Breast cancer

C) Thyroid cancer

D) Lung cancer

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Chapter 19: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acidbase Imbalances

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient in acid-base imbalance has altered potassium levels.What knowledge does the nurse use to recognize that the potassium levels are altered in acid-base imbalances?

A) Potassium is returned to extracellular fluid on correction of metabolic acidosis.

B) Hyperkalemia causes an alkalosis that results in potassium being shifted into the cell.

C) In acidosis,hydrogen ions in the blood are exchanged for potassium from the cell.

D) In alkalosis,potassium is shifted into extracellular fluid to bind excessive bicarbonate.

Q2) What is the normal approximate fluid balance in the adult?

A) 1000 mL

B) 1500 mL

C) 2000 mL

D) 2500 mL

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21

Chapter 20: Nursing Management: Preoperative Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) During the preoperative assessment of a patient scheduled for a cholecystectomy at an outpatient centre,the patient tells the nurse that she uses St.John's wort to keep her spirits up.Why should the nurse notify the anaesthesiologist about this use of St.John's wort?

A) It may increase the risk of bleeding.

B) It may prolong the effects of anaesthetics.

C) It may cause serious elevations in blood pressure.

D) It may depress the immune system response,delaying healing.

Q2) According to the Canadian Anesthesiologists' Society,what is the minimum preoperative fasting time period for intake of clear fluids?

A) 30 minutes

B) 1 hour

C) 2 hours

D) 4 hours

Q3) Which of the following is the meaning of the suffix -ostomy?

A) Excision or removal

B) Creation of opening into

C) Incision or cutting into

D) Repair and reconstruction

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Nursing Management: Intraoperative Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is part of the minimum requirements for the health record in ambulatory surgery facilities?

A) Postoperative checklist

B) Consult request

C) Documentation of consent

D) Detailed surgical procedure report

Q2) Which one of the following intraoperative patient positions would the nurse anticipate for the patient who is being prepared for abdominal surgery?

A) Prone

B) Supine

C) Trendelenburg

D) Lateral decubitus

Q3) What is the primary reason the perioperative nurse encourages a family member or a friend to remain with a patient in the preoperative holding area until the patient is taken into the operating room (OR)?

A) To ensure the proper identification of the patient before surgery

B) To protect the patient from cross-contamination with other patients

C) To assist the perioperative nurse to perform a complete patient history

D) To help minimize patient anxiety

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23

Chapter 22: Nursing Management: Postoperative Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) To maintain the airway and promote respiratory function,in which preferred position should the nurse place unconscious patients in the PACU?

A) Prone

B) Lateral

C) Dorsal recumbent

D) Supine with the head of the bed elevated

Q2) A patient who had bowel surgery 2 days ago has orders for morphine sulphate 4 mg IV every 2 hours and a clear liquid diet.The patient tells the nurse that she feels distended and has gas pains.What is the most appropriate intervention in response to the patient's complaint?

A) Obtain an order for a laxative.

B) Withhold all oral fluid and food.

C) Assist the patient to ambulate in the hall.

D) Administer the prescribed morphine sulphate.

Q3) Which of the following is an ambulatory surgery discharge criterion?

A) Voided at least three times

B) No IV narcotics for last 30 minutes

C) Had at least one bowel movement

D) Oxygen saturation 88%

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Nursing Assessment: Visual and Auditory Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) During assessment of a 68-year-old patient's eyes,the nurse determines that the patient needs more extensive examination of the eyes when which of the following data are found?

A) Persistent photophobia

B) Light-yellow colouring of the sclera

C) Slow recovery of the pupil after light stimulation

D) A whitish-grey ring encircling the periphery of the iris

Q2) Which of the following is a possible cause of diplopia?

A) Superficial corneal erosion

B) Anterior uveitis

C) Abnormalities of extraocular muscle action

D) Liquefaction of the vitreous humor

Q3) Women are at greater risk for which one of the following diseases?

A) Cataracts

B) Eye trauma

C) Colour blindness

D) Macular degeneration

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Nursing Management: Visual and Auditory

Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is prepared for discharge following outpatient cataract surgery.To evaluate whether the patient understands the postoperative regimen and procedures,what should the nurse ask the patient to do?

A) Rate his pain on a scale of 0 to 10.

B) Explain the purpose of the prescribed medication.

C) Describe how well he can see with the operative eye.

D) Indicate who will be caring for him at home for the first 24 hours.

Q2) Which of the following is an infection of the sebaceous glands in the eyelid margin?

A) Chalazion

B) Hordeolum

C) Blepharitis

D) Keratitis

Q3) Which of the following is a manifestation of cerumen impaction?

A) Temporal headache

B) Difficulty breathing

C) Amplified low-pitch sounds

D) Cardiac depression

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Page 26

Chapter 25: Nursing Assessment: Integumentary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) How would the nurse describe vitiligo,a common assessment abnormality of the integumentary system?

A) Tumour consisting of lymph vessels

B) Male-pattern distribution of hair in women

C) Complete absence of melanin resulting in chalky white patches

D) A sac containing fluid or semisolid material

Q2) What is the primary function of the skin?

A) Sensory perception

B) Mirroring of emotions

C) Protecting underlying tissues of the body

D) Displaying the individual identity of the person

Q3) A patient with pruritus has a large area of superficial excavation of the skin on the right forearm.How should the nurse record this finding?

A) Erythema

B) Excoriation

C) Carotenosis

D) Lichenification

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Chapter 26: Nursing Management: Integumentary Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following would the nurse suspect when assessment data revealed six groups of three wheals surrounded by vivid flare with firm urticaria and intense pruritus?

A) Wasp stings

B) Bedbugs

C) Scabies

D) Pediculosis

Q2) Why is it important to ensure that piercings in the mouth are done with plastic jewellery rather than metal jewellery?

A) The piercing may get dislodged and be swallowed.

B) Plastic will not chip teeth.

C) This eliminates the risk of metal absorption into the bloodstream.

D) Plastic is easier to clean and disinfect than metal.

Q3) A patient is undergoing psoralen plus UVA light (PUVA)therapy for treatment of psoriasis.To prevent complications from this procedure,what should the nurse plan to do?

A) Shield unaffected areas with lead-lined drapes.

B) Monitor for accumulation of laser light in adjacent tissue.

C) Apply petroleum jelly to unaffected areas surrounding the lesions.

D) Have the patient use protective eyewear that blocks 100% of UV light.

Page 28

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Chapter 27: Nursing Management: Burns

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Sample Questions

Q1) To prevent hypothermia,what is the maximum amount of time a large burn should be cooled?

A) 2 to 3 minutes

B) 5 minutes

C) 10 minutes

D) 20 minutes

Q2) A patient is to undergo skin grafting with the use of cultured epithelial autografts (CEAs)as skin replacement for full-thickness burns.The nurse explains to the patient that this treatment involves which of the following?

A) Shaving a split-thickness layer of the patient's skin from an unburned area to apply over burn wounds

B) Growing small specimens of the patient's skin in sheets,which are grafted as permanent skin coverage

C) Cultivating skin from a cadaver with epidermal growth factor to temporarily cover burn wounds for 1 to 2 weeks

D) Exposing animal skin to growth factors that stimulate its proliferation and decrease antigenicity for permanent skin coverage of the wound

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Chapter 28: Nursing Assessment: Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) An 80-year-old patient breathing room air has an arterial blood gas analysis.Which of the following results does the nurse interpret as normal?

A) pH 7.32,PaO₂ 85 mm Hg,PaCO₂ 55 mm Hg,and O₂ saturation 90%

B) pH 7.38,PaO₂ 75 mm Hg,PaCO₂ 40 mm Hg,and O₂ saturation 92%

C) pH 7.42,PaO₂ 80 mm Hg,PaCO₂ 33 mm Hg,and O₂ saturation 98%

D) pH 7.52,PaO₂ 90 mm Hg,PaCO₂ 30 mm Hg,and O₂ saturation 94%

Q2) A patient with a chronic cough with blood-tinged sputum undergoes a bronchoscopy.Following the bronchoscopy,what should the nurse do?

A) Keep the patient on bed rest for 8 hours.

B) Keep the patient on nothing by mouth (NPO)status until the gag reflex returns.

C) Check vital signs every 15 minutes for 2 hours.

D) Encourage fluid intake to promote elimination of the contrast media.

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Chapter 29: Nursing Management: Upper Respiratory Problems

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78737

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse determines that complications of influenza are developing in a patient who experiences which of the following?

A) Myalgia and headache

B) Diffuse crackles in the lungs

C) Sore throat and productive cough

D) A fever of 38°C with chills

Q2) A patient scheduled for a total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection for cancer of the larynx asks the nurse how the surgery will affect his throat.What is the best response?

A) "You will breathe through a permanent opening in your neck,and you will not be able to speak."

B) "You will have a permanent opening into your neck,and you will need to have rehabilitation for some type of voice restoration."

C) "You won't be able to speak as you used to,but a lot of artificial voice devices are available that will give you the ability to speak normally."

D) "You will have a tube into your trachea through which you will breathe,but you will be able to speak when the stoma heals and the tube is removed."

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Page 31

Chapter 30: Nursing Management: Lower Respiratory Problems

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47 Verified Questions

47 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78735

Sample Questions

Q1) Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia,the nurse documents a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance.On which of the following data would the nurse base this nursing diagnosis?

A) SpO₂ of 85%

B) Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min

C) Presence of greenish sputum

D) Weak,nonproductive cough

Q2) The nurse recognizes that the goals of teaching regarding the transmission of TB have been met when the patient with TB carries out which of the following actions?

A) Wears a mask when in contact with others

B) Reports daily to the public health department

C) Boils dishes and personal items between uses

D) Covers the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing

Q3) What should the nurse teach patients at risk for pneumonia to obtain?

A) Staphylococcal vaccine

B) Measles,mumps,rubella (MMR)vaccine

C) Pneumococcal vaccine

D) Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG)vaccine

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Chapter 31: Nursing Management: Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78734

Sample Questions

Q1) When taking an admission history of a patient with COPD who has new-onset wheezing and shortness of breath,the nurse will be most concerned about which information?

A) The patient has a history of pneumonia 2 years ago.

B) The patient takes propranolol (Inderal)for hypertension.

C) The patient uses acetaminophen (Tylenol)for headaches.

D) The patient has chronic inflammatory bowel disease.

Q2) When teaching a patient about continuous home oxygen use,the nurse tells the patient that evaporation of the oxygen accelerates during which season,and they should take extra care to ensure that they do not run out of oxygen?

A) Spring

B) Summer

C) Fall

D) Winter

Q3) Clinically significant airway obstruction develops in what percentage of smokers?

A) 5% to 10%

B) 15% to 20%

C) 25% to 30%

D) 40% to 50%

Page 33

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Chapter 32: Nursing Assessment: Hematological System

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78733

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is found to have leukopenia,anemia,neutropenia,and thrombocytopenia.Which drug classification is known to exhibit these hematological alterations?

A) Isoniazid

B) Aminoglycosides

C) H₂-receptor blockers

D) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Septra)

Q2) When evaluating the red blood cell (RBC)indices of a patient,what does the nurse know is indicated by a low mean corpuscular volume (MCV)?

A) RBCs of small size

B) A decrease in RBCs

C) Decreased saturation of RBCs with hemoglobin

D) Decreased weight of the amount of hemoglobin or RBCs

Q3) During physical assessment of a patient,the nurse suspects a chronic,severe iron-deficiency anemia on finding which of the following?

A) Yellowed sclera

B) Shiny,smooth tongue

C) Gum bleeding and tenderness

D) Loss of position and vibratory sensation in the extremities

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Page 34

Chapter 33: Nursing Management: Hematological Problems

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78732

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with myelodysplastic syndrome has laboratory values that indicate total bone marrow suppression.The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection based on which of the following findings?

A) Basophils 120 cells/mL

B) Monocytes 360 cells/mL

C) Neutrophils 4000 cells/mL

D) White blood cell (WBC)count 2.8 \(\times\) 10⁹cells/L (2800 cells/microlitre)

Q2) A patient with neutropenia has a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection.What is the most important nursing intervention in the prevention of transmission of harmful pathogens to the patient?

A) Prohibiting the oral intake of fresh fruits and vegetables

B) Maintaining strict administration schedules of prophylactic antibiotics

C) Strict and frequent handwashing by all persons having contact with the patient

D) Creating a "sterile" environment for the patient with the use of laminar airflow rooms

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Chapter 34: Nursing Assessment: Cardiovascular System

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78731

Sample Questions

Q1) While assessing a patient who has just arrived in the emergency department,the nurse notes a pulse deficit.Which of the following does the nurse anticipate that the patient may require?

A) Hourly blood pressure (BP)checks

B) A coronary arteriogram

C) Electrocardiographic (ECG)monitoring

D) A two-dimensional echocardiogram

Q2) A transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE)is ordered for a patient with possible endocarditis.Which of these actions included in the standard TEE orders will the nurse need to accomplish first?

A) Make the patient nothing by mouth (NPO)status.

B) Start a large-gauge IV line.

C) Administer O₂ per mask.

D) Give lorazepam (Ativan)1 mg IV.

Q3) What should the nurse expect as a possible etiology in a patient who exhibits a positive Homans sign?

A) Thyrotoxicosis

B) Thrombophlebitis

C) Incompetent valves

D) Intermittent claudication

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Chapter 35: Nursing Management: Hypertension

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78730

Sample Questions

Q1) A 62-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital with a BP of 240/118 mm Hg.The patient has been taking clonidine hydrochloride (Catapres)and hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)for 10 years for hypertension.What is the most appropriate question the nurse can ask at this time?

A) "Have you recently taken any antihistamine medications?"

B) "Have you been taking the clonidine and hydrochlorothiazide lately?"

C) "Did you have any recent stressful events in your life?"

D) "Did you take any acetaminophen yet today?"

Q2) During assessment of a patient who has stage 2 hypertension,the nurse recognizes that it is common for the patient to experience which of the following?

A) Nosebleeds

B) No symptoms

C) Blurred vision

D) Dyspnea on exertion

Q3) Which of the following is a correct mechanism action of aldosterone?

A) Increased sodium reabsorption

B) Decreased water reabsorption

C) Decreased blood volume

D) Increased potassium excretion

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Page 37

Chapter 36: Nursing Management: Coronary Artery Disease

and Acute Coronary Syndrome

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39 Verified Questions

39 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78729

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a mnemonic to assist the nurse in obtaining thorough information from a patient who has chest pain?

A) ABCDEF

B) PAIN

C) PQRST

D) AQSP

Q2) Fibrinolytic therapy is prescribed for a 64-year-old patient with an STEMI.During the administration of the fibrinolytic agent,the nurse recognizes that the therapy should be stopped when the patient experiences which of the following signs?

A) Bleeding from the gums

B) Surface bleeding from the IV site

C) A sudden decrease in the level of consciousness

D) Premature ventricular contractions and ventricular tachycardia

Q3) Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for the use of fibrinolytic therapy?

A) Diabetes

B) Pregnancy

C) Intercranial neoplasm

D) Laser eye surgery

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Chapter 37: Nursing Management: Heart Failure

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78728

Sample Questions

Q1) When the nurse is admitting an 80-year-old woman with chronic heart failure to the medical unit,the patient says she lives alone and that she thinks she confuses her "water pill" with her "heart pill." The nurse makes a note that which of the following discharge plans for this patient should be included?

A) A referral for a home care nurse

B) Placement in a skilled nursing care facility

C) Transfer to a special unit for individuals with dementia

D) Arrangements for a family member to be with the patient around the clock

Q2) After successful digitalization,a patient is to begin oral maintenance of digoxin and furosemide for control of chronic heart failure.To prevent digitalis toxicity,what does the nurse understand is the most important parameter to monitor in the patient?

A) Body weight

B) Liver function

C) Blood pressure

D) Serum potassium

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Chapter 38: Nursing Management: Dysrhythmias

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26 Verified Questions

26 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78727

Sample Questions

Q1) A 19-year-old student has a mandatory ECG before participating on a university swim team and is found to have sinus bradycardia,rate 52 beats/min.BP is 114/54 mm Hg,and the student denies any health problems.Which nursing action is appropriate?

A) Refer the student to a cardiologist for further assessment.

B) Allow the student to participate on the swim team.

C) Obtain more detailed information about the student's health history.

D) Tell the student to stop swimming immediately if any dyspnea occurs.

Q2) A patient's sinus rhythm rate is 62 beats/min.The PR interval is 0.18 seconds at 0100 hours,0.20 seconds at 1230 hours,and 0.23 seconds at 1600 hours.Which action should the nurse take?

A) Document the patient's rhythm,and continue to monitor.

B) Prepare for possible pacemaker insertion.

C) Hold the ordered metoprolol (Lopressor),and call the physician.

D) Give the as-needed dose of lidocaine (Xylocaine).

Q3) Which classification of antidysrhythmia drugs has no effect on ECG?

A) Class I: sodium channel blockers

B) Class II: ?-adrenergic blockers

C) Class III: potassium channel blockers

D) Class IV: calcium channel blockers

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Page 40

Chapter 39: Nursing Management: Inflammatory and

Structural Heart Disorders

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78726

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient hospitalized with a streptococcal IE tells the nurse that the physician said treatment would require 4 to 6 weeks of antibiotic therapy and says she needs to get back to work as soon as possible.In advising the patient about the expected regimen for IE,what should the nurse explain about the treatment?

A) After 2 weeks of IV antibiotic therapy,she may be discharged with oral antibiotics to take for another 4 weeks.

B) Hospitalization for 4 to 6 weeks will be necessary to prevent a relapse while she receives IV antibiotic therapy.

C) She may be able to receive outpatient IV antibiotic therapy with home nursing care if complications do not develop.

D) She will be able to return to work as soon as her fever subsides if she does not develop any symptoms of heart failure.

Q2) Which of the following is the primary symptom of mitral stenosis?

A) Tachypnea

B) Exertional dyspnea

C) Atrial fibrillation

D) Hemoptysis

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Page 41

Chapter 40: Nursing Management: Vascular Disorders

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78724

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse has initiated discharge teaching for a patient who is to be maintained on warfarin following hospitalization for DVT.The nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the patient makes which of the following statements?

A) "I should change my diet to include more green,leafy vegetables."

B) "I will check with my physician before I begin or stop any medication."

C) "I should wear a MedicAlert bracelet to indicate I am on anticoagulant therapy."

D) "I will need to have my blood drawn routinely to monitor the effects of the warfarin."

Q2) When caring for a patient following an AAA repair,which information is most helpful to the nurse in assessing the patient's gastrointestinal function?

A) Serum lipase

B) Bowel sounds

C) Stool character

D) Central venous pressure

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Chapter 41: Nursing Assessment: Gastrointestinal System

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78723

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is complaining of heartburn and a burning sensation in the epigastric area.What is a possible etiology for these complaints?

A) Cancer of the esophagus

B) Hiatal hernia

C) Peptic ulcer

D) GI infection

Q2) The nurse documents the absence of bowel sounds in all quadrants of a patient's abdomen.How long should the nurse have auscultated the patient's abdomen?

A) 8 minutes

B) 10 minutes

C) 16 minutes

D) 20 minutes

Q3) Which one of the following is an age-related change in the GI system?

A) Increased sense of smell

B) Increased sensitivity of taste buds

C) Atrophy of gingival tissue

D) Increased motility of small intestine

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43

Chapter 42: Nursing Management: Nutritional Problems

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78722

Sample Questions

Q1) When assessing anthropometric measurements on a 28-year-old male,the patient asks what information is obtained from the measurement of his midarm muscle circumference.The nurse's response is based on which following information regarding this measurement?

A) It is a measurement of subcutaneous fat stores.

B) It is used to calculate the body mass index (BMI).

C) It is an indicator of protein stores.

D) It is an indicator of hydration status.

Q2) While caring for an older adult patient hospitalized with dehydration and moderate protein-calorie malnutrition,the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection based on what knowledge?

A) Lymphocyte activity and phagocytosis are decreased.

B) Anemia of malnutrition contributes to susceptibility to infection.

C) Weakness of muscles leads to impaired ability to clear the lungs.

D) Wound healing is delayed if protein is not available for tissue building.

Q3) What is the daily recommended intake of fibre for a 38-year-old healthy female?

A) 21 g

B) 25 g

C) 30 g

D) 38 g

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Chapter 43: Nursing Management: Obesity

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78721

Sample Questions

Q1) When developing a weight-reduction plan for a patient with obesity who is starting a weight-loss program,which question is it most important for the nurse to ask?

A) "What kind of physical activities do you enjoy?"

B) "How long have you been overweight?"

C) "Why do you want to lose weight?"

D) "Have you been on any previous diets?"

Q2) In developing a weight-reduction plan for an obese patient who is motivated to lose weight,it is most important for the nurse to assess which of the following data first?

A) The patient's current level of physical activity

B) The length of time that the patient has been obese

C) The patient's social,emotional,and behavioural etiologies of obesity

D) Anthropometric measurements of height,weight,BMI,waist-to-hip ratio,and skinfold thickness

Q3) Which of the following is a hormone in the body that stimulates appetite?

A) Leptin

B) Insulin

C) Ghrelin

D) Cholecystokinin

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45

Chapter 44: Nursing Management: Upper Gastrointestinal

Problems

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43 Verified Questions

43 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78720

Sample Questions

Q1) What information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial assessment of a patient admitted to the emergency department with vomiting of bright-red blood?

A) Current medical problems

B) Medications the patient is taking

C) History of prior bleeding episodes

D) Vital signs and symptoms of hypovolemia

Q2) A 68-year-old patient has had intermittent epigastric distress,anorexia,and weight loss over a period of 6 months.She is hospitalized with anemia and ascites,and an endoscopic examination reveals cancer located in the fundus of the stomach.The nurse plans care for the patient with the knowledge that these findings indicate which of the following?

A) The patient has a poor prognosis with any therapy.

B) Surgical intervention is not indicated for the patient.

C) Radiation therapy is the treatment of choice for the patient.

D) The patient has a good prognosis with the use of combination chemotherapy.

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Chapter 45: Nursing Management: Lower Gastrointestinal

Problems

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45 Verified Questions

45 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78719

Sample Questions

Q1) After teaching a patient with IBD about the recommended low-residue diet,the nurse identifies a need for further instruction when the patient chooses which of the following foods from the menu?

A) Boiled shrimp

B) Ham hocks and beans

C) Spaghetti with tomato sauce

D) Poached eggs and crisp bacon

Q2) A patient with acute diarrhea of 24 hours' duration calls the clinic to ask for directions for care.In talking with the patient,what should the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient to describe the character of the stools and any associated symptoms.

B) Advise the patient to use over-the-counter loperamide (Imodium)to slow gastrointestinal motility.

C) Inform the patient that laboratory testing of blood and stool specimens will be necessary.

D) Advise the patient to drink clear liquid fluids with electrolytes,such as Gatorade or Pedialyte.

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Biliary Tract Problems

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78718

Sample Questions

Q1) When assessing a patient for signs of impending coma resulting from hepatic encephalopathy,what should the nurse ask the patient to do?

A) Stand on one foot.

B) Extend both arms.

C) Ambulate with the eyes closed.

D) Perform the Valsalva manoeuvre.

Q2) A patient with cancer of the liver has severe ascites that is causing shortness of breath and difficulty breathing.The physician plans a paracentesis to relieve the fluid pressure on the diaphragm.To prepare the patient for the procedure,what should the nurse do?

A) Ask the patient to empty the bladder.

B) Position the patient flat on the right side.

C) Obtain informed consent for the procedure.

D) Have the patient lie flat with a small pillow under the small of the back.

Q3) Which hepatitis virus has DNA as its characteristic virus type?

A) Hepatitis A

B) Hepatitis B

C) Hepatitis C

D) Hepatitis E

Page 48

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Chapter 47: Nursing Assessment: Urinary System

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78717

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an abnormal finding of the urinary system?

A) CVA tenderness

B) Nonpalpable kidney

C) No palpable masses

D) Nonpalpable bladder

Q2) When reading a patient's chart,the nurse notes that the patient has had dysuria.To assess whether there is any improvement,which question will the nurse ask?

A) "Do you have any blood in your urine?"

B) "Do you have to get up at night to urinate?"

C) "Do you have any pain when you urinate?"

D) "Do you have to urinate very frequently?"

Q3) A patient's urine dipstick reveals a large amount of protein in the urine.What is the next nursing action?

A) Check which medications the patient is currently taking.

B) Ask the patient about any family history of chronic renal failure.

C) Send a urine specimen to the laboratory to test for ketones and glucose.

D) Obtain a clean-catch urine specimen for culture and sensitivity testing.

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Chapter 48: Nursing Management: Renal and Urological Problems

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78716

Sample Questions

Q1) To promote muscle relaxation and induce voiding after the patient has undergone an open loop resection and fulguration of the bladder,what is an appropriate intervention for the nurse to use?

A) Sitz baths four times per day

B) Encouraging fluids to 3000 mL/day

C) Isometric exercises of the perineal muscles every 2 hours

D) Application of warm compresses to the suprapubic area four times per day

Q2) The composition of a patient's renal calculi is identified as uric acid.To prevent recurrence of stones,what should the nurse teach the patient to avoid?

A) Milk and dairy products

B) Legumes and dried fruits

C) Spinach,chocolate,and tomatoes

D) Organ meats and fish with fine bones

Q3) When admitting a patient with acute glomerulonephritis,the nurse inquires about which of the following?

A) History of high blood pressure

B) Frequency of UTIs

C) Recent sore throat and fever

D) Family history of kidney disease

Page 50

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Chapter 49: Nursing Management: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78715

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with ARF has an arterial blood pH of 7.30.Which of the following will the nurse assess for?

A) Tachycardia

B) Rapid respirations

C) Poor skin turgor

D) Vasodilation

Q2) Which of the following is the preferred hemodialysis vascular access site?

A) Nontunnelled central venous catheter

B) Arteriovenous fistula

C) Tunnelled central venous catheter

D) Arteriovenous graft

Q3) Two hours after a kidney transplant,the nurse obtains all of the following data when assessing the patient.Which information is most important to communicate to the physician?

A) The BUN and creatinine levels are elevated.

B) The urinary output is 900 to 1100 mL/hour.

C) The patient's central venous pressure (CVP)is decreased.

D) The patient has level 8 (on a 10-point scale)incision pain when coughing.

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Chapter 50: Nursing Assessment: Endocrine System

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78713

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a common characteristic of most hormones?

A) Secretion at unpredictable rates

B) Circulation through the blood

C) Binding to receptors only on the cell membrane

D) Binding only to receptors within the cell

Q2) Which of the following is an age-related change affecting the endocrine system?

A) Increase in TSH secretion

B) Decreased parathyroid secretion

C) Increased glucose intolerance

D) Decreased secretion of norepinephrine

Q3) A patient is scheduled for a 24-hour urine collection for 17-ketosteroids.The nurse will plan to do which of the following?

A) Insert a retention catheter.

B) Keep the specimen on ice.

C) Have the patient void and save that specimen to start the collection.

D) Encourage the patient to drink 2 to 3 L of fluid during the 24 hours.

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Chapter 51: Nursing Management: Endocrine Problems

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39 Verified Questions

39 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78712

Sample Questions

Q1) After 5 years of experiencing depression,fatigue,and lethargy,an older adult woman is diagnosed with hypothyroidism,and levothyroxine (Synthroid)is prescribed.During initiation of thyroid replacement for the patient,it is most important for the nurse to assess which of the following functions?

A) Mental status

B) Nutritional status

C) Cardiovascular function

D) Fluid and electrolyte balance

Q2) A patient with an antidiuretic hormone (ADH)-secreting small cell cancer of the lung is treated to control the symptoms of syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH).The nurse determines that treatment is effective on finding which of the following data?

A) The patient's weight is stable.

B) The urine specific gravity is increased.

C) The patient's urinary output is increased.

D) The patient's edema is reduced.

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Chapter 52: Nursing Management: Diabetes Mellitus

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78711

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with type 1 diabetes develops a sore throat,cough,and fever.He calls the clinic when he finds his blood glucose level to be 11.67 mmol/L (210 mg/dL)with his monitor.What should the nurse advise the patient to do?

A) Hold all food and insulin until his fever is relieved.

B) Measure his urinary output,and test his urine for ketones.

C) Reduce his carbohydrate intake until his glucose level is about 8.33 mmol/L (150 mg/dL).

D) Monitor his blood glucose every 4 hours,and notify the clinic if it continues to rise.

Q2) The nurse is preparing a mixed insulin dose for administration.After injecting air into both vials,what would be the immediate next step?

A) Gently rotate the NPH insulin bottle.

B) Invert and draw up regular insulin.

C) Swab the tops of both vials with alcohol sponge or swab.

D) Invert and draw up NPH insulin.

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Chapter 53: Nursing Assessment: Reproductive System

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78710

Sample Questions

Q1) A young man is suspected of having syphilis.Which of the following tests does the nurse recognize as the one most commonly used for initial screening for syphilis as it yields information in the fastest way possible?

A) Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL)testing for antibodies

B) A blood culture of the microorganism

C) A dark-field microscopy direct examination culture of a specimen of drainage from an active chancre

D) Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-Abs)testing for antibodies to treponema

Q2) A patient considering a vasectomy as a means of contraception asks the nurse what is involved in the procedure.The nurse explains that which of the following structures is partially removed?

A) Epididymis

B) Spermatic cord

C) Ductus deferens

D) Ejaculatory duct

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Chapter 54: Nursing Management: Breast Disorders

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78709

Sample Questions

Q1) A 64-year-old woman has undergone a modified radical mastectomy for a breast tumour.The pathology report identified the tumour as a stage II,estrogen receptor-positive adenocarcinoma.What would the nurse expect the first choice of treatment for the patient following the mastectomy to be?

A) Chemotherapy

B) Biological therapy

C) Radiation therapy

D) Hormone therapy with tamoxifen

Q2) After the nurse completes discharge teaching for a patient who has had a left modified radical mastectomy and lymph node dissection,which statement by the patient indicates that no further teaching is needed?

A) "I will avoid reaching over the stove with my left hand."

B) "I will need to do breast self-examination on my right breast monthly."

C) "I will keep my left arm elevated until I go to bed."

D) "I will remember to use my right arm and to rest the left one."

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Chapter 55: Nursing Management: Sexually Transmitted

Infections

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78708

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has undergone laboratory tests for an insurance screening has a positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test.What is the nurse's first action?

A) Ask the patient about past treatment for syphilis.

B) Discuss the need for blood and spinal fluid cultures.

C) Obtain a specimen for fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption testing.

D) Assess for the presence of chancres,flulike symptoms,or a bilateral rash on the trunk.

Q2) Which virus is responsible for genital warts?

A) Cytomegalovirus

B) HSV

C) Human immunodeficiency virus

D) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Q3) During the nursing assessment of a 23-year-old female patient,the nurse considers the patient's risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs).Which of the following findings indicates a need for patient teaching?

A) Has a stable,monogamous relationship with her boyfriend

B) Has never been tested for syphilis or Chlamydia

C) Has annual pelvic examinations with Pap smears

D) Has multiple sex partners but uses oral contraceptives

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Chapter 56: Nursing Management: Female Reproductive Problems

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78707

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with pelvic inflammatory disease is treated on an outpatient basis with oral antibiotics.When teaching the patient about follow-up care and management of her condition,what should the nurse instruct the patient to do?

A) Avoid sexual intercourse for 1 week.

B) Return for follow-up within 2 to 3 days.

C) Wear a vaginal tampon to absorb the drainage.

D) Use over-the-counter anti-inflammatory drugs to help prevent scarring of pelvic organs.

Q2) After teaching a perimenopausal patient who has started using HRT,the nurse determines that the teaching has been effective when the patient says which of the following?

A) "If I take a daily aspirin,I will not need to worry about blood clots."

B) "Now that I have started taking HRT,I can stop taking calcium supplements."

C) "My breasts may feel tender when I am taking the HRT."

D) "I will continue to have menstrual periods,but the blood flow will be lighter."

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Chapter 57: Nursing Management: Male Reproductive Problems

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26 Verified Questions

26 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78706

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following will the nurse teach to a patient with chronic bacterial prostatitis?

A) PSA elevation indicates that he has concurrent prostate cancer.

B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs usually provide adequate pain control.

C) Sexual intercourse and masturbation will relieve symptoms.

D) Antibiotics should be taken for 7 to 10 days.

Q2) The physician orders a blood test for PSA when an enlarged prostate is palpated during a routine examination of a 56-year-old man.When the patient asks the nurse the purpose of the test,the nurse's response is based on what knowledge?

A) PSA levels may be elevated in patients with cancer of the prostate.

B) Elevated levels of PSA are indicative of metastatic cancer of the prostate.

C) Variations in PSA levels can be used to differentiate between BPH and prostatic cancer.

D) Baseline PSA levels are necessary to evaluate the success of treatment of prostatic cancer.

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Chapter 58: Nursing Assessment: Nervous System

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78705

Sample Questions

Q1) The following orders are received for a patient who is unconscious after a head injury caused by an automobile accident.Which one should the nurse question?

A) Perform neurological checks every 15 minutes.

B) Prepare the patient for lumbar puncture.

C) Obtain X-ray films of the skull and spine.

D) Do computed tomography scanning with and without contrast.

Q2) Neurological testing of the patient by the nurse indicates impaired functioning of the left glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX)and the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X).Based on these findings,what should the nurse plan to do?

A) Insert an oral airway.

B) Withhold oral fluid or foods.

C) Provide highly seasoned foods.

D) Apply artificial tears to protect the cornea.

Q3) Which neurotransmitter is involved in emotions,moods,and regulating motor control?

A) Serotonin

B) Epinephrine

C) Dopamine

D) Substance P

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Page 60

Chapter 59: Nursing Management: Acute Intracranial Problems

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78704

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has a systemic blood pressure of 120/60 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure (ICP)of 24 mm Hg.What does the nurse determine that the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)of this patient indicates?

A) High blood flow to the brain

B) Normal ICP

C) Impaired blood flow to the brain

D) Adequate autoregulation of cerebral blood flow

Q2) When assessing a patient with a head injury,which assessment information is of most concern to the nurse?

A) The blood pressure increases from 120/54 to 136/62 mm Hg.

B) The patient is more difficult to arouse.

C) The patient complains of a headache at pain level 5 of a 10-point scale.

D) The patient's apical pulse is slightly irregular.

Q3) A patient admitted with bacterial meningitis and a temperature of 38.9°C has orders for all of these collaborative interventions.Which one should the nurse accomplish first?

A) IV ceftizoxime (Cefizox)1 g now and every 6 hours

B) IV dexamethasone (Decadron)4 mg now

C) Hypothermia blanket to keep the temperature less than 38.7°C

D) Nasopharyngeal swab for culture and sensitivity

Page 61

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Chapter 60: Nursing Management: Stroke

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78702

Sample Questions

Q1) During the acute phase of a patient with an ischemic stroke,the nurse monitors the patient's neurological status closely with the knowledge that following a stroke,increased intracranial pressure from cerebral edema is most likely to peak in which of the following time periods?

A) 12 hours

B) 24 hours

C) 48 hours

D) 72 hours

Q2) When initiating oral feedings for a patient with a stroke,the nurse determines that the patient has an intact gag reflex and then does which of the following actions?

A) Offers the patient a sip of juice

B) Orders a varied puréed diet

C) Assesses the patient's appetite

D) Assists the patient into a chair

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Chapter 61: Nursing Management: Chronic Neurological Problems

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33 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78701

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with MG has a nursing diagnosis of altered nutrition: less than body requirements related to impaired swallowing.To promote nutrition,the nurse suggests that before meals,the patient should avoid which of the following actions?

A) Writing letters

B) Talking on the telephone

C) Typing on the computer

D) Taking pyridostigmine (Mestinon)

Q2) A patient with restless legs syndrome (RLS)tells the nurse,"My leg pain and twitching keep me awake so much of the night,I am tired most of the day.Is there anything I can do?" Based on this information,which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?

A) Ineffective role performance related to fatigue

B) Chronic pain related to RLS

C) Anxiety related to lack of knowledge about RLS treatment

D) Sleep deprivation related to leg pain and involuntary movement

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Disease,and Other Dementias

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A long-term care patient with moderate dementia develops increased restlessness and agitation.What is the nurse's initial action?

A) Administer the as-needed dose of lorazepam (Ativan).

B) Reorient the patient to time and place.

C) Assess the patient for anything that might be causing discomfort.

D) Have a nursing assistant stay with the patient to ensure safety.

Q2) Which of the following is a rare and fatal infectious brain disorder that progresses rapidly to death within 1 year?

A) Vascular dementia

B) Dementia with Lewy bodies

C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

D) Neurofibrillary tangle disease

Q3) When administering a mental status examination to a patient,the nurse suspects depression when the patient gives which of the following responses?

A) "I don't know."

B) "Is that the right answer?"

C) "Wait,let me think about that."

D) "What are those people doing over there?"

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Chapter 63: Nursing Management: Peripheral Nerve and Spinal Cord Problems

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29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78699

Sample Questions

Q1) During the initial phase of care for a patient with spinal cord trauma at C5,why must the nurse give high priority to maintaining respiratory function?

A) At the C5 level,diaphragmatic and intercostal muscle function is lost.

B) Extension of edema above the site of the injury may affect phrenic nerve function.

C) Immobilization of the patient's spine promotes pooling of respiratory secretions.

D) Without abdominal muscle control,the patient cannot adequately cough to clear the lungs.

Q2) A 24-year-old patient is hospitalized with the onset of Guillain-Barré syndrome.During this phase of the patient's illness,what is the most essential assessment for the nurse to carry out?

A) Monitoring the vital signs every 2 hours

B) Determining the patient's level of consciousness every 2 hours

C) Performing constant evaluation of respiratory function

D) Evaluating sensory and motor function of the extremities

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65

Chapter 64: Nursing Assessment: Musculoskeletal System

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78698

Sample Questions

Q1) While assessing a patient's musculoskeletal function,the nurse asks the patient to demonstrate active range of motion of the shoulder.What is the motion(s)at the shoulder that the patient should be able to perform but cannot do at the elbow?

A) Circumduction

B) Opposition

C) Eversion

D) Adduction

Q2) Which of the following is an age-related change in the musculoskeletal system?

A) Increased diameter of muscle cells

B) Increased storage of glycogen

C) Loss of water from discs between vertebrae

D) Widening of intervertebral spaces

Q3) While testing the patient's muscle strength,the nurse finds that although the patient can move his limbs,he cannot apply muscle resistance to force.How should the nurse grade the muscle strength?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

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Chapter 65: Nursing Management: Musculoskeletal

Trauma and Orthopedic Surgery

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78697

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient in the emergency department is diagnosed with a patellar dislocation.What will the nurse's initial patient teaching focus on?

A) Conscious sedation

B) A knee immobilizer

C) Gentle knee flexion

D) Cast application

Q2) A 24-year-old man recently started an exercise regimen that includes running 5 to 7 km a day.He tells the nurse he has developed shin splints so severe that they limit his ability to run.What is an appropriate response?

A) "You may be increasing your running time too quickly and need to cut back a little bit."

B) "You need to have X-ray films made of your lower legs to be sure you do not have stress fractures."

C) "You should expect some leg pain while running."

D) "You should try speed-walking rather than running."

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Chapter 66: Nursing Management: Musculoskeletal

Problems

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78696

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with an open fracture of the left tibia with major soft tissue damage underwent surgical reduction and fixation of the tibia with debridement of nonviable tissue and drain placement in the damaged soft tissue.During the postoperative period,the nurse suspects the development of osteomyelitis on finding which of the following data?

A) Fever with chills and night sweats

B) Light-yellow drainage from the wound

C) Pain on movement of the affected limb

D) Muscle spasms around the affected bone

Q2) A patient is hospitalized for initiation of regional antibiotic perfusion for chronic osteomyelitis of the right femur.Which intervention will be included in the plan of care?

A) Frequent weight-bearing exercise

B) Immobilization of the right leg

C) Avoiding administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

D) Supporting the right leg in a flexed position

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Chapter 67: Nursing Management: Arthritis and Connective

Tissue Diseases

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41 Verified Questions

41 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78695

Sample Questions

Q1) Following instruction for a patient with newly diagnosed SLE,the nurse determines that teaching about the disease has been effective when the patient gives which of the following responses?

A) "I should expect to have a fever all the time with this disease."

B) "I need to restrict my exposure to sunlight to prevent an acute onset of symptoms."

C) "I should try to ignore my symptoms as much as possible and have a positive outlook."

D) "If I become pregnant,a therapeutic abortion can prevent an exacerbation of symptoms."

Q2) A 62-year-old patient is hospitalized for onset of diffuse erythema of his upper body with periorbital edema.The physician suspects dermatomyositis.In planning care for the patient,what should the nurse anticipate that the collaborative care of the patient will involve?

A) Instillation of artificial tears

B) Local steroid injections of skin lesions

C) Administration of high-dose corticosteroids

D) Electroencephalogram evaluation for central nervous system inflammation

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Page 69

Chapter 68: Nursing Management: Critical Care Environment

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78694

Sample Questions

Q1) When the ventilator alarm sounds,the nurse finds the patient sitting up in bed holding the ET.What is the first intervention the nurse should initiate?

A) Establish a patent airway.

B) Call the physician to reinsert the tube.

C) Activate the resuscitation protocol of the institution.

D) Manually ventilate the patient with 100% oxygen and a bag-valve-mask.

Q2) How often should all oral suction equipment and tubing be changed for a patient who is on a mechanical ventilator?

A) Every 4 hours

B) Every 12 hours

C) Every 24 hours

D) Every 72 hours

Q3) To prevent complications during the insertion of a pulmonary artery flow-directed catheter,it is important for the nurse to monitor which of the following parameters?

A) Cardiac activity

B) Coagulation status

C) Wave pressure tracings

D) Fluid and electrolyte status

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Chapter 69: Nursing Management: Shock,systemic

Inflammatory Response Syndrome,and Multiple-Organ

Dysfunction Syndrome

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78693

Sample Questions

Q1) What is an appropriate nursing intervention for a patient in shock with the nursing diagnosis of fear related to perceived threat of death?

A) Arrange for a member of the clergy to visit the patient.

B) Ask the physician to prescribe a sedative for the patient.

C) Provide the patient with as much privacy with the family as possible.

D) Place the patient's call bell where it can be easily reached.

Q2) When caring for the patient with cardiogenic shock and possible multiple-organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS),what information obtained by the nurse will help confirm the diagnosis of MODS?

A) The patient has crackles throughout both lung fields.

B) The patient complains of crushing chest pain at a level of 8 on a 10-point scale.

C) The patient has an elevated ammonia level and confusion.

D) The patient has cool extremities and weak pedal pulses.

Q3) Which of the following nursing interventions prevents the development of shock?

A) Routine checking of stools for occult blood

B) Keeping patients warm to prevent chilling or shivering

C) Identifying situations in which patients are at risk for shock

D) Frequent monitoring of patient status to detect compensatory changes

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Chapter 70: Nursing Management: Respiratory Failure and

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78691

Sample Questions

Q1) When caring for a patient with pulmonary fibrosis,the nurse understands that the patient is at risk for hypoxemic respiratory failure as a result of which of the following conditions?

A) Too rapid movement of blood flow through the pulmonary blood vessels

B) Incomplete filling of the alveoli with air because of reduced respiratory ability

C) Decreased transfer of oxygen into the blood because of thickening of the alveoli

D) Mismatch between lung ventilation and blood flow through the blood vessels of the lung

Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency department unconscious following a barbiturate overdose.The nurse recognizes that the patient is at risk for which of the following conditions?

A) Hypercapnic respiratory failure related to ventilatory failure

B) Hypoxemic respiratory failure related to diffusion limitations

C) Hypoxemic respiratory failure related to shunting of blood from underventilated alveoli

D) Hypercapnic respiratory failure related to V/Q mismatch due to increased airway resistance

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Page 72

Chapter 71: Nursing Management: Emergency Care Situations

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78690

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has experienced blunt abdominal trauma from a motor vehicle accident.Which of the following diagnostic tests does the nurse know is a noninvasive method of determining the presence of intra-abdominal bleeding?

A) Magnetic resonance imaging

B) Ultrasonography

C) Peritoneal lavage

D) Auscultation of bowel sounds in the chest

Q2) Which assessment finding would the nurse anticipate with a patient who is hypothermic?

A) Hyperventilation

B) Hypertension

C) Tachycardia

D) Fixed,dilated pupils

Q3) Which of the following is a cause of a life-threatening condition that the nurse identifies during the primary survey?

A) Pneumonia

B) Controlled hemorrhage

C) Hyperthermia

D) Flail chest with pulmonary contusion

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Chapter 72: Emergency Preparedness and Disaster Management

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/78689

Sample Questions

Q1) When planning the response to the potential use of smallpox as a biological weapon,the emergency department nurse manager will ensure that sufficient quantities of which of the following are available?

A) Blood

B) Vaccine

C) Antitoxin

D) Antibiotics

Q2) During a mass casualty incident,disaster triage in the hospital is completed in what time frame?

A) 15 seconds

B) 30 seconds

C) 1 minute

D) 2 minutes

Q3) Which of the following is true of a disaster?

A) It negatively affects society.

B) It requires a rapid and skilled response to action.

C) It is managed by a community's existing resources.

D) It requires urgent intervention to avoid worsening of the situation.

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