Cardiorespiratory Science
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Cardiorespiratory Science explores the anatomy, physiology, and pathophysiology of the heart, lungs, and associated systems responsible for gas exchange and circulation. The course examines mechanisms of cardiac and pulmonary function, assessment techniques, and diagnostic tools used to evaluate respiratory and cardiovascular health. Students learn about common diseases and disorders affecting the cardiorespiratory system, principles of clinical management, pharmacological interventions, and approaches to rehabilitation. Emphasis is placed on integrating scientific knowledge with patient care practices in clinical and research settings.
Recommended Textbook
Respiratory Care Anatomy and Physiology Foundations for Clinical Practice 3rd Edition by Will Beachey
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24 Chapters
664 Verified Questions
664 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Airways and Alveoli
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most efficacious treatment for patients with obstructive sleep apnea?
A) Tongue resection
B) CPAP
C) Cervical collar
D) Sleep induction medicine
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following structures is an important landmark during the insertion of a tube into the trachea?
A) Thyroid cartilage
B) Cricoid membrane
C) Vallecula
D) Oropharynx
Answer: C
Q3) What is the narrowest portion of the airway in the infant?
A) Vocal cords
B) Cricoid ring
C) Vallecula
D) Epiglottis
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Lungs and Chest Wall
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the effect of parasympathetic stimulation on airway secretions?
A) Increased production and viscosity
B) Thin watery secretions
C) Decreased production
D) No change
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is the source of innervation for the lung?
A) Somatic nervous system
B) Cranial nerves
C) Autonomic nervous system
D) Visceral nerves
Answer: C
Q3) Approximately three-fourths of all parasympathetic fibers are in which cranial nerve?
A) IX
B) X
C) XI
D) XII
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Mechanics of Ventilation
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Auto-PEEP is known to increase WOB in spontaneously breathing and mechanically ventilated patients.Which of the following maneuvers will reduce auto-PEEP in both types of patients?
A) Increasing C<sub>L</sub>
B) Promoting a breath hold
C) Shortening the expiratory time
D) Lengthening the expiratory time
Answer: D
Q2) What is the normal airway resistance?
A)4.0 to 4.5 cm H<sub>2</sub>O/L/sec
B)3.0 to 3.5 cm H<sub>2</sub>O/L/sec
C)2.0 to 2.5 cm H<sub>2</sub>O/L/sec
D)0.5 to 1.5 cm H<sub>2</sub>O/L/sec
Answer: D
Q3) What is the normal lung compliance (CL)?
A)0.1 L/cm H<sub>2</sub>O
B)0.2 L/cm H<sub>2</sub>O
C)0.3 L/cm H<sub>2</sub>O
D)0.4 L/cm H<sub>2</sub>O
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 55-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital in obvious respiratory distress.Her increased rate and depth of breathing have raised her minute ventilation from 10 to 15 L/min.Arterial blood gases show a normal P<sub>a</sub>CO<sub>2</sub> of 40 mm Hg.It seems odd that this woman, with a minute ventilation this great, has a normal P<sub>a</sub>CO<sub>2</sub>.What is the explanation for this?
A) There is an increase in alveolar ventilation.
B) This change in minute ventilation has little impact on the PaCO2; therefore, P<sub>a</sub>CO<sub>2</sub> is normal.
C) This patient's dead space has decreased.
D) A normal P<sub>a</sub>CO<sub>2</sub> associated with high minute ventilation indicates that much of this patient's ventilation is not in contact with blood flow.
Q2) What is the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air?
A) 0.228 mm Hg
B) 159 mm Hg
C) 47 mm Hg
D) 149 mm Hg
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Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Measurements
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Sample Questions
Q1) The maximum voluntary ventilation reflects the overall integrated function of which of the following parameters?
I.Ventilatory apparatus
II.Muscle strength
III.Endurance
IV.Airway diameter, lung compliance, and neural control mechanisms
A) III, IV
B) I, II, III
C) I, II, IV
D) I, II, III, IV
Q2) The ability to generate high flow rates depends on which of the following factors?
I.Muscle strength
II.Airway patency
III.Neurological function
IV.Diaphragmatic function
A) I, II, III
B) II, III, IV
C) I, II, III, IV
D) II, III, IV.
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Chapter 6: Pulmonary Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following conditions is the PAP increased?
I.Hypervolemia
II.Left ventricular failure
III.High pulmonary vascular resistance
IV.Hypovolemia
A) I, II, III
B) III, IV
C) I, II, III, IV
D) II, IV
Q2) Monitoring of a patient with a PAC reveals an elevated PAP due to left heart failure.Which of the following therapies will be specifically directed at decreasing the PAP?
I.Oxygen therapy
II.Diuretics
III.Vasodilators
IV.Inotropes
A) I, II, III
B) I, II, IV
C) II, III, IV
D) I, II, III, IV
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Gas Diffusion
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is N<sub>2</sub>O the ideal gas for measuring the extent to which pulmonary blood contributes to the diffusion rate?
A) Blood can absorb N<sub>2</sub>O at a greater rate than N<sub>2</sub>O can diffuse across the alveolar capillary membrane.
B) If N<sub>2</sub>O is inhaled, the pulmonary capillary blood reaches its maximum capacity for N<sub>2</sub>O almost instantly.
C) If N<sub>2</sub>O is inhaled, the pulmonary capillary blood reaches its maximum capacity for N<sub>2</sub>O slowly.
D) Blood can absorb N<sub>2</sub>O at a slower rate than N<sub>2</sub>O can diffuse across the alveolar capillary membrane.
Q2) What is the PAOS1U1B12S1U1B0 ofS1U1B0 a person breathing room air at sea level, with a PaCOS1U1B12S1U1B0 equal to 40 mm Hg and an R equal to 0.8?
A) Approximately 80 mm Hg
B) Approximately 90 mm Hg
C) Approximately 100 mm Hg
D) Approximately 110 mm Hg
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Chapter 8: Oxygen Equilibrium and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many times the body tissues' resting requirement is oxygen delivery?
A) Two times
B) Three times
C) Four times
D) Five times
Q2) What is the name of the phenomenon associated with the decreased affinity of Hb for oxygen when PCO<sub>2</sub> is high?
A) Haldane effect
B) Bohr effect
C) Fick effect
D) Shift effect
Q3) What is the interpretation of a decrease in the C(a - \( \bar{V} \) )O<sub>2</sub>?
A) A decrease in the oxygen extraction ratio
B) A reduction in cardiac output
C) An increase in cardiac output
D) A decrease in the Hb level
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Chapter 9: Carbon Dioxide Equilibrium and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements explain the alkalemia that develops at high altitudes?
I.Lack of oxygen at high altitudes creates a chemical stimulus for ventilation.
II.Increased ventilation drives the PACO<sub>2</sub> and PaCO<sub>2 </sub>below 40 mm Hg.
III.Low PaCO<sub>2</sub> lowers the blood H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3 </sub>concentration.
IV.Low PaCO<sub>2</sub> lowers PaO<sub>2</sub> and promotes buffer release.
A) I, II, III
B) III, IV
C) I, II, III, IV
D) II, IV
Q2) What is the approximate percentage of dissolved CO<sub>2</sub>?
A) 8%
B) 12%
C) 80%
D) 100%
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Chapter 10: Acid-Base Regulation
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nonbicarbonate buffers is the most important?
A) Hb
B) HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
C) Organic phosphates
D) Plasma proteins
Q2) Which of the following is the only volatile acid of physiological significance in the body?
A) Carbonic acid
B) Lactic acid
C) Phosphoric acid
D) Sulfuric acid
Q3) Which of the following statements are true of acid excretion?
I.The lungs excrete only volatile acid.
II.The lungs can excrete large quantities of CO<sub>2</sub> in minutes.
III.The kidneys excrete primarily fixed acids.
IV.The kidneys remove fixed acids at a much slower pace (hours to days).
A) II, III, IV
B) I, II, III, IV
C) II, IV
D) I, II, III
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Chapter 11: Control of Ventilation
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inhibitory neurons that switch off the inspiratory ramp arise from which of the following areas?
I.VRG
II.DRG
III.Pulmonary stretch receptors
IV.Pneumotaxic center
A) I, II, IV
B) III, IV
C) I, II, III, IV
D) II, III
Q2) Which of the following respiratory centers controls the length of inspiration?
A) DRG
B) VRG
C) Pneumotaxic
D) Apneustic
Q3) Which of the following statements describes apneusis?
A) Prolonged inspiratory gasps interrupted by occasional expirations
B) Prolonged inspiratory gasps interrupted by apnea
C) Prolonged inspiratory gasps interrupted by frequent expirations
D) Short inspiratory gasps interrupted by occasional expirations
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Chapter 12: Ventilation-Perfusion Relationships
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following clinical conditions associated with alveolar collapse may be adversely affected by PEEP/CPAP?
A) Atelectasis
B) Pulmonary edema
C) ARDS
D) Pneumothorax
Q2) Which of the following is the explanation for the production of hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis associated with hypoxemia?
A) Peripheral chemoreceptor stimulation
B) Central chemoreceptor stimulation
C) Hypoxic drive stimulation
D) Peripheral chemoreceptor antagonism
Q3) Which of the following is the major effect of a low \(\dot {V}_{A} / \dot{Q} c \) ratio?
A) Hypercapnia
B) Acidosis
C) Hypoxemia
D) Hypocapnia
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14
Chapter 13: Clinical Assessment of Acid-Base and Oxygenation Status
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following acid-base disturbances is associated with the presence of vomiting or with continuous nasogastric suctioning?
A) Mixed metabolic and respiratory alkalosis
B) Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis
Q2) Which of the following laboratory values is used as an indicator of tissue hypoxia?
A) Glucose
B) pH
C) Tumor necrosis factor
D) Lactate
Q3) When does renal compensation begin?
A) As soon as PaCO<sub>2</sub> rises
B) Within a few minutes after PaCO<sub>2</sub> rises
C) Over the next 12 hours after PaCO<sub>2</sub> rises
D) Several days after PaCO<sub>2</sub> rises
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15
Chapter 14: Physiological Basis for Oxygenation and Lung Protection Strategies
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the major difference between CPAP and PEEP?
A) Airway pressure does not rise during inspiration with CPAP.
B) Airway pressure does not rise during inspiration with PEEP.
C) Airway pressure does not rise during expiration with CPAP.
D) Airway pressure does not rise during expiration with PEEP.
Q2) Which of the following substances are examples of inflammatory mediators?
I.Cytokines
II.Endotoxins
III.Prostaglandins
IV.Oxygen radicals
A) I, II, III
B) III, IV
C) I, II, III, IV
D) II, III
Q3) What is the level of PaO<sub>2</sub> set as a goal for oxygen therapy in the healthy adult?
A) At least 50 mm Hg
B) At least 60 mm Hg
C) At least 70 mm Hg
D) At least 80 mm Hg
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Physiology of Sleep Disordered Breathing
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27 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What neck circumference is highly correlated with the incidence of OSA in men?
A) Greater than 15 inches
B) Greater than 16 inches
C) Greater than 17 inches
D) Greater than 18 inches
Q2) EEG tracings during REM typically reflect the level of brain activity seen in which state?
A) Stage 1 NREM
B) REM
C) Stage 2 NREM
D) Awake
Q3) Which of the following therapies are considered options for treating SDB?
I.PAP therapy
II.Oral appliances
III.Positional solutions
IV.Tongue enlargement procedures
A) I, II, III
B) II, III
C) I, II, III, IV
D) II, III, IV
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Chapter 16: Fetal and Newborn Cardiopulmonary Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important means of heat production in the newborn infant?
A) Shivering
B) Head bobbing
C) Brown fat metabolism
D) Lipolysis
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of croup?
I.It is the most common cause of upper airway obstruction in children.
II.It is a viral infection.
III.It develops over several days.
IV.The obstruction is occasionally severe enough to require an artificial airway.
A) I, II, III, IV
B) III, IV
C) I, II, III
D) I, II, IV
Q3) When does the ductus arteriosus anatomically close?
A) 1 to 2 weeks
B) 2 to 4 weeks
C) 4 to 6 weeks
D) 2 months
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Functional Anatomy of the Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are signs of cardiac tamponade?
I.Distended neck veins
II.Bradycardia
III.Muffled, distant heart sounds
IV.Low systolic blood pressure
A) I, IV
B) I, III, IV
C) I, II, III, IV
D) II, IV
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the sinoatrial node?
I.It is embedded in the right atrial muscle.
II.It is near the superior vena cava.
III.It initiates the electrical impulses that produce sequential atrial and ventricular contraction.
IV.It is near the right ventricle.
A) I, II, III
B) II, III
C) I, II, III, IV
D) II, III, IV
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Chapter 18: Cardiac Electrophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are known effects of catecholamines?
I.They increase the influx of Ca<sup>++</sup> into the myocardial cell during the plateau phase of the action potential.
II.They activate beta receptors in the cardiac cell membrane.
III.They raise intracellular levels of cyclic AMP.
IV.They raise intracellular levels of cyclic GMP.
A) I, II
B) III, IV
C) I, II, III, IV
D) I, II, III
Q2) What is the name of the ventricular rhythm associated with the pacemaker function taken over by the Purkinje system?
A) Ventricular arrhythmia
B) Ventricular escape
C) Dominant rhythm
D) Ventricular ectopy
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Chapter 19: The Electrocardiogram and Cardiac Arrhythmias In Adults
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which direction does ventricular depolarization normally occur?
I.Leftward
II.Downward
III.Anterior
IV.Posterior
A) I, II
B) I, II, IV
C) I, II, III, IV
D) I, II, III
Q2) Inadequate filling time coupled with the loss of the atrial kick is associated with which of the following physical findings?
A) Hypotension
B) Pulse deficit
C) Bounding pulse
D) Ventricular beat cannot be heard with the stethoscope.
Q3) How long does it normally take for the ventricles to depolarize?
A) 0.08 to 0.1 second
B) 0.1 to 0.2 second
C) 0.25 to 0.3 second
D) 0.3 to 0.4 second
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Chapter 20: Control of Cardiac Output and Hemodynamic
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stroke volume is determined by which of the following factors?
I.Preload
II.Afterload
III.Contractility
IV.Conduction rate
A) I, II, III
B) III, IV
C) I, II, III, IV
D) II, III
Q2) How soon after coronary artery occlusion should fibrinolytics be administered to improve survival?
A) Within 5 minutes
B) Within 1 hour
C) Within 2 hours
D) Within 24 hours
Q3) What is considered the hallmark of cardiac contractility?
A) Preload pressure
B) Afterload pressure
C) Mean arterial blood pressure
D) Conduction rate
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Chapter 21: Filtration, Urine Formation, and Fluid Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are considered substances that are eliminated by the kidneys?
I.Hemoglobin
II.Urea
III.Creatinine
IV.Bilirubin
A) I, II, III
B) III, IV
C) I, II, III, IV
D) II, III, IV
Q2) Which of the following is the best clinical indicator of perfusion adequacy?
A) Skin color
B) Blood pressure
C) Heart rate
D) Urine output
Q3) Under the influence of ADH, what type of urine is excreted by the kidneys?
A) Low volume, low concentration
B) Low volume, high concentration
C) High volume, low concentration
D) High volume, high concentration
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Chapter 22: Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is required for active transport across the cell membrane?
A) Calcium
B) Sodium
C) ATP
D) Potassium
Q2) Which of the following buffers transport excess H<sup>+</sup> ions in the urine?
I.Phosphate
II.Ammonia
III.HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
IV.Hb
A) I, II, III
B) III, IV
C) I, II, III, IV
D) II, III
Q3) Which of the following is a pulmonary manifestation of the nephrotic syndrome?
A) Pleural effusion
B) Pulmonary edema
C) Pneumonia
D) Pulmonary infiltrate
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Cardiopulmonary Response to Exercise in Health and
Disease
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Sample
Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the source of energy for skeletal muscle contraction?
A) AMP
B) ATP
C) Glucose
D) Calcium
Q2) What is the respiratory quotient?
A) The ratio of carbon dioxide molecules produced to oxygen molecules consumed by the tissues
B) The ratio of carbon dioxide molecules consumed by the tissues to oxygen molecules produced
C) The ratio of carbon dioxide molecules produced to oxygen molecules produced
D) The ratio of oxygen molecules consumed by the tissues to carbon dioxide molecules produced
Q3) Which of the following is the major ventilatory limiting factor in severely obstructed individuals?
A) Inability to eliminate carbon dioxide
B) Inability to make oxygen available to the tissues
C) Inability to reach ventilation limits
D) Inability to increase HbO<sub>2</sub>
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Chapter 24: Aging and the Cardiopulmonary System
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Q1) What percentage of the U.S.population is 65 years old or older?
A) 6%
B) 8%
C) 10%
D) 12%
Q2) What is the lung function of a healthy 70-year-old in comparison with that of a 30-year-old?
A) Approximately 50%
B) Approximately 40%
C) Approximately 30%
D) Approximately 20%
Q3) Which of the following is the most important physiological change in myocardial function?
A) Decrease in valvular function
B) Decline in ventricular filling
C) Decline in atrial filling
D) Reduction of sinus node pacemaker cells
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