Course Introduction
Biological Sciences
Test Questions
Biological Sciences is a comprehensive course that explores the fundamental principles of living organisms, from molecular and cellular processes to the structure, function, and diversity of plants, animals, and microorganisms. Students will investigate core topics such as genetics, evolution, physiology, ecology, and biochemistry, gaining insight into how life is organized, maintained, and adapts to changing environments. Through lectures, laboratory work, and field studies, the course encourages analytical thinking, scientific inquiry, and an understanding of how biological discoveries impact society, health, and the environment.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology From Cells to Systems 9th Edition by Lauralee Sherwood
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are two examples of connective tissue?
A)muscle and tendons
B)bone and tendons
C)ligaments and nerves
D)cartilage and skin
E)blood and muscle
Answer: B
Q2) Physiology examines the mechanisms of actions.in the body
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Long-term adaptations make the body more efficient in responding to an ongoing or repetitive challenge in homeostasis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The ____________________ environment is the surrounding environment in which an organism lives.
Answer: external
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Chapter 2: Cell Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many net molecules of ATP are produced from the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose?
A)36
B)32
C)16
D)12
E)2
Answer: B
Q2) ____________________ are irregular,threadlike proteins.
Answer: Intermediate filaments
Q3) In addition to the main types of RNA,what are the newly discovered regulatory RNA types called?
A)small RNA and regulatory RNA
B)intracellular RNA and extracellular RNA
C)microRNA and small interfering RNA
D)microRNA and regulatory RNA
E)cytoplasm RNA and interfering RNA
Answer: C
Q4) Tay-Sachs disease is an example of a(n)____________________ storage disease.
Answer: lysosomal
4
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Chapter 3: The Plasma Membrane and Membrane
Potential
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Sample Questions
Q1) What ion is more concentrated in the extracellular fluid (ECF)?
A)potassium ions
B)sodium ions
C)hydrogen ions
D)phosphorus ions
E)nitrogen ions
Answer: B
Q2) Compared to membrane carriers,how much faster are channels at allowing particles/ions to pass through the plasma membrane?
A)2x
B)10x
C)25x
D)100x
E)1,000x
Answer: E
Q3) Desmosomes are the weakest cell-to-cell connections.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Principles of Neural and Hormonal Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many types of extracellular chemical messengers or signal molecules are used for indirect cell communication in the body?
A)two
B)three
C)four
D)five
E)six
Q2) ____________________ potentials are local changes in membrane potential that occur in varying grades or degrees of magnitude or strength.
Q3) Membrane potential is related to the uneven distribution of what two positively charged ions?
A)salt and sugar
B)calcium and magnesium
C)hydrogen and oxygen
D)sodium and potassium
E)chloride and phosphorus
Q4) Synapses that lead to responses mediated by second messengers are known as ____________________ synapses.
Q5) Action potentials occur in a(n)____________________ fashion.
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Chapter 5: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many functionally distinct parts does the cerebellum have?
A)two
B)three
C)four
D)five
E)six
Q2) What are the three higher motor areas of the cortex that are involved in voluntary decision-making?
A)muscle motor area,premotor cortex,and posterior occipital cortex
B)supplementary motor area,presensory cortex,and posterior occipital cortex
C)supplementary motor area,presensory cortex,and temporal cortex
D)supplementary motor area,premotor cortex,and posterior parietal cortex
E)muscle motor area,frontal cortex,and posterior parietal cortex
Q3) The storage capacity of the long-term memory bank is ____________________ (larger/smaller)than the capacity of short-term memory.
Q4) The autonomic nervous system is subdivided into the ____________________ nervous system and the ____________________ nervous system.
Q5) A delta rhythm in the brain is associated with deep ____________________ slow-wave sleep.
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Chapter 6: The Peripheral Nervous System - Afferent
Division - Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are rapidly adapting receptors called?
A)phasic
B)tonic
C)clonic
D)depolarizing
E)responsive
Q2) What are the actin-stiffened microvilli in the organ of Corti?
A)Corti hairs
B)tip link hair
C)stereovilli
D)microcilia
E)stereocilia
Q3) Tonic receptors do not adapt or adapt slowly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most of the eyeball is covered by a tough outer layer of connective tissue,the macula,which forms the visible white part of the eye.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss how the gut and airways "taste" also.
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Chapter 7: The Peripheral Nervous System - Efferent
Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) Long postganglionic fibers originate in the ganglion chain and end on the effector organs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Within a neuromuscular junction,the axon terminal splits into multiple fine branches,each of which ends in an enlarged knoblike structure called the terminal button.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Curare blocks the action of ACh at receptor-channels.Therefore,it is considered a(n)____.
A)antagonist
B)agonist
C)protagonist
D)synergist
E)beta blocker
Q4) ____________________ ions trigger the release of acetylcholine by exocytosis from a portion of the vesicles.
Page 9
Q5) Discuss how organophosphates affect neuromuscular junctions.
Q6) Describe sympathetic dominance.
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Page 10
Chapter 8: Muscle Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) One motor neuron,plus all the muscle fibers it innervates,is known as a(n):
A)nerve bundle
B)motor unit
C)activated component
D)cross bridge
E)functional unit
Q2) Myofibrils are made from thick and round filaments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A single skeletal muscle cell is known as a(n)____________________.
Q4) During the recovery period,fresh supplies of ATP are formed by oxidative phosphorylation using the newly acquired oxygen,which is provided by the sustained increase in breathing after exercise has stopped.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A group of interconnected muscle cells that function electrically and mechanically as a unit is known as a functional ____________________.
Q6) The lighter area within the middle of the A band,where the thin filaments do not reach,is the ____________________.
11
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Chapter 9: Cardiac Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parasympathetic stimulation and epinephrine enhance the heart's contractility.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The difference between the cardiac output at rest and the maximum volume of blood the heart can pump per minute is called the __________.
Q3) About 30% of coronary arterial flow occurs during systole,driven by ventricular contraction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the two determinants of cardiac output?
A)size of the ventricles and stroke volume
B)size of the heart and blood pressure
C)blood pressure and heart size
D)heart rate and ventricular volume
E)heart rate and stroke volume
Q5) An insufficient heart valve is often called a leaky valve because it lets blood leak back through when the valve should be closed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: The Blood Vessels and Blood Pressure
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Q1) Capillaries typically branch either directly from an arteriole or from a thoroughfare channel known as a(n)__________.
Q2) As the major arteries branch into medium-size vessels approaching the organs,the vessel wall becomes relatively less __________ and more __________.
Q3) Vasodilation is associated with:
A)increased sympathetic nervous system stimulation
B)increased carbon dioxide and nitric oxide levels
C)increased oxygen levels and myogenic activity
D)decreased nitric oxide levels and increased histamine release
E)decreased carbon dioxide and myogenic activity
Q4) Discuss viscosity and how it relates to blood.
Q5) Although ventricular pressure falls to 0 mm Hg during diastole,arterial pressure does not fall to 0 mm Hg because the next cardiac contraction refills the arteries before all the blood drains off.
A)True
B)False
Q6) When blood pressure is 120/80,pulse pressure is __________ mm Hg.
Q7) Explain the difference between vasoconstriction and vasodilation.
Q8) Explain the meaning of flow in terms of the bloodstream.
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Chapter 11: The Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many steps are involved in the extrinsic pathway to the clotting cascade?
A)eight
B)seven
C)six
D)five
E)four
Q2) What makes hemoglobin red colored when combined with oxygen?
A)oxygen
B)plasma protein
C)sodium
D)chloride
E)iron
Q3) What is the normal range of white blood cells per milliliter of blood?
A)40 to 50 million
B)32 to 35 million
C)20 to 25 million
D)12 to 18 million
E)5 to 10 million
Q4) Plasma,being a liquid,consists of about __________% water.
Q5) Discuss malaria as a cause of anemia.
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Chapter 12: Body Defenses
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Q1) On being released into the blood from either the bone marrow or the spleen,mature
A and B cells take up residence and establish lymphocyte colonies in the peripheral lymphoid tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How are antibodies shaped?
A)like an O
B)like an M
C)like an E
D)like a Y
E)like an X
Q3) What are the two types of lymphocytes?
A)plasma cells and macrophages
B)B cells and T cells
C)A lymphocytes and B lymphocytes
D)monocytes and basophils
E)neutrophils and eosinophils
Q4) Lymphocytes that have not yet been exposed to their specific antigen are known as __________ lymphocytes.
Q5) Give an overview of immune system function.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Clustered at the ends of the terminal bronchioles are the __________,the tiny air sacs where gases are exchanged between air and __________.
Q2) What is the maximum volume of air that the lungs can hold when healthy?
A)3,600 mL
B)4,700 mL
C)5,700 mL
D)6,500 mL
E)7,500 mL
Q3) Arterial PCO is monitored by peripheral chemoreceptors known as the carotid bodies and arterial bodies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The term external respiration refers to the entire sequence of events in exchange of O and CO between the external environment and tissue cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Prostaglandins can spill into the blood,but they are __________ during passage through the lungs so that they cannot exert systemic effects.
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Chapter 14: The Urinary System
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Q1) The __________ apparatus produces substances involved in the control of kidney function.
Q2) The role of the hormone erythropoietin is to:
A)stimulate red blood cell production
B)increase urine volume
C)increase frequency of urination
D)draw sodium out of the plasma
E)combat dehydration
Q3) The tubuloglomerular filtration mechanism involves the glomerular apparatus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Although vasopressin promotes H O conservation by the body,it cannot halt urine production.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most important and best-known hormonal system involved in regulating sodium ions is the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).
A)True
B)False
Q6) Outline the role of the kidneys in the urinary system.
Page 17
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Chapter 15: Fluid and Acid Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the three ways that the body loses or excretes salt?
A)exhaling,sweat,and vomit
B)exhaling,urine,and sweat
C)sweat,feces,and urine
D)inhaling,urine,and sweat
E)inhaling,feces,and vomit
Q2) Describe the features of acids.
Q3) What type of fluid is cerebrospinal fluid?
A)transcellular
B)lymph
C)intracellular
D)extracellular
E)interstitial
Q4) Outline the three causes of hypertonicity (dehydration).
Q5) What type of tissue contains the least amount of water?
A)bone
B)muscle
C)skin
D)fat
E)connective tissue
18
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Chapter 16: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The exposed part of a tooth is covered by:
A)enamel
B)pulp
C)connective tissue
D)gingival tissue
E)nerve root
Q2) Saliva begins digestion of dietary starches through action of the enzyme:
A)salivary amylase
B)salivary protease
C)salivary lipase
D)dextrin
E)pepsin
Q3) Any substance that increases bile secretion is called a choleretic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The muscularis externa,the major smooth muscle coat of the digestive tube,surrounds the submucosa.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the benefits of the beneficial bacteria in the large intestine.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation
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Q1) Heat always moves down a thermal gradient from a(n)__________ to a(n)__________ region.
Q2) Skin temperature may fluctuate between 68°F and 104°F (20°C and 40°C)without damage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where is the major site for leptin action?
A)pancreas
B)arcuate nucleus
C)liver
D)thalamus
E)thyroid gland
Q4) A more convenient method of indirectly determining the rate of heat production requires only measuring the person's __________ uptake per unit of time.
Q5) If the amount of energy in food intake is less than the amount of energy expended,the extra energy taken in but not used is stored in the body,primarily as glycogen,so body weight decreases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Principles of Endocrinology - the Central
Endocrine Glands
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Q1) The fluctuating levels of __________ bring about cyclic changes in neural output from the suprachiasmatic nucleus that,in turn,lead to cyclic changes in effector organs throughout the day.
Q2) __________,a protein found in a special type of retinal ganglion cell,is the receptor molecule for light that keeps the body in tune with external time.
Q3) The specialized retinal ganglion cells cue the pineal gland about the presence or absence of light by sending their signals along the __________ to the suprachiasmatic nucleus.
Q4) The most abundant form of thyroid hormone secreted by the thyroid gland is __________,but the most powerful form of thyroid hormone in the blood is
Q5) Melatonin inhibits the hormones that stimulate:
A)reproductive activity
B)bone growth
C)immune response
D)cellular aging
E)sleep
Page 21
Q6) The master biological clock that serves as the pacemaker for the body's circadian rhythms is the __________.
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Chapter 19: The Peripheral Endocrine Glands
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Q1) The hypothalamic thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH),in tropic fashion,"turns on" TSH secretion by the anterior pituitary.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many layers or zones does the adrenal cortex have?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q3) What is the only adrenal sex hormone that has any biological importance?
A)cortisol
B)dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
C)estrogen
D)androgen
E)testosterone
Q4) The liver plays the primary role in maintaining normal blood glucose levels.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most common cause of hyperthyroidism is __________.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: The Reproductive Systembrad
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Q1) Discuss the corpus luteum of pregnancy.
Q2) Binding of the sperm head to ZP3 triggers the Ca2+-dependent
reaction.
Q3) How long does the menstrual,or uterine,cycle last on average?
A)1 week
B)10 days
C)2 weeks
D)3 weeks
E)28 days
Q4) Describe the erection reflex.
Q5) What is the production of female eggs called?
A)oogenesis
B)parturition
C)fertilization
D)gestation
E)lactation
Q6) The vaginal opening is located in the perineum between the urethral opening anteriorly and the anal opening posteriorly.
A)True
B)False
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