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Biological Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the principles and processes underlying life at molecular, cellular, organismal, and ecological levels. This course covers foundational topics such as cell biology, genetics, evolution, physiology, and ecology, introducing students to the diversity of living organisms and the complex interactions that sustain life. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, experimental techniques, and current advances in biotechnology and environmental science, providing students with the knowledge and skills necessary for further study or careers in research, healthcare, conservation, and other related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Anatomy Physiology 7th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Q1) The mediastinum separates ________ from the ________.
A) the pleural cavity; coelom
B) the thoracic cavity; peritoneal cavity
C) one pleural cavity; other pleural cavity
D) the abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity
E) the pericardial sac; pericardial cavity
Answer: C
Q2) A person who is lying on his or her stomach is said to be in the
A) supine position.
B) prone position.
C) transverse position.
D) frontal position.
E) sagittal position.
Answer: B
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Q1) Some proteins,like hemoglobin or antibody molecules,require multiple polypeptide chains to come together to act as a single protein.If the association among the different polypeptide chains is blocked,the ________ structure of the protein is destroyed.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
E) binary
Answer: D
Q2) Ions with a negative charge are called
A) cations.
B) anions.
C) radicals.
D) polyatomic ions.
E) None of these is correct.
Answer: B
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Q1) You mix a drop of blood with a drop of an unknown solution and look at the solution under the microscope.The cells look normal to you,so the solution you mixed with the blood would likely be
A) isotonic.
B) hypoosmotic.
C) hypotonic.
D) hypertonic.
E) hyperosmotic.
Answer: A
Q2) The nucleus ultimately controls the synthesis of which of the following molecules?
A) carbohydrates
B) lipids
C) phospholipids
D) proteins
E) nu cholesterols
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following is a connective tissue with a solid matrix?
A) cartilage
B) blood
C) adipose connective tissue
D) dense connective tissue
E) areolar connective tissue
Q2) Which of the following may occur with aging?
A) more efficient tissue maintenance
B) increased ability to repair connective tissues
C) more fragile connective tissue
D) increased bone strength
E) thicker epithelia
Q3) The type of epithelium found lining the trachea is
A) simple squamous.
B) simple cuboidal.
C) stratified squamous.
D) transitional.
E) pseudostratified columnar.
Q4) What type of epithelium would you expect to find lining the urinary bladder? Explain your answer.
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Q1) The walls of each hair follicle contain all the cell layers found in which of the following?
A) hypodermis
B) dermis
C) subcutaneous layer
D) epidermis
E) basement membrane
Q2) The hypodermis
A) provides mechanical strength to the skin.
B) is quite elastic.
C) has no blood vessels.
D) is composed of strata with various functions.
E) contains a variety of sensory receptors.
Q3) The sweat that is metabolized by bacteria on the skin,which leads to the strong odor of sweat,is associated with structure
A) D.
B) B.
C) E.
D) G.
E) F.
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Q1) What type of vertebra is this?
A) cervical
B) thoracic
C) sacral
D) lumbar
E) coccygeal
Q2) Structure B is the A) vertebral foramen.
B) intervertebral foramen.
C) transverse foramen.
D) dens.
E) lamina.
Q3) Structure L is the A) maxilla.
B) mandible.
C) palatine.
D) zygomatic.
E) concha.
Q4) Differentiate between compact bone and spongy bone.
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Q1) Which statement regarding "heat loss" is true?
A) Muscle activity does not generate heat.
B) Shivering in a cold environment results in higher levels of heat loss.
C) When skeletal muscles are contracting at peak levels, body temperature drops.
D) Heat loss is reduced when blood flow to the skin increases.
E) Muscle contractions play an important role in the maintenance of normal body temperature.
Q2) Glycolysis
A) is an anaerobic process.
B) is the breakdown of pyruvate to glucose.
C) acts as the only source of ATP in muscle tissue.
D) is only active during rest.
E) occurs in the nucleus.
Q3) Nonstriated,involuntary muscle is
A) cardiac.
B) red skeletal.
C) smooth.
D) white skeletal.
E) intermediate skeletal.
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Q1) The brain and spinal cord comprise the
A) autonomic nervous system.
B) peripheral nervous system.
C) central nervous system.
D) efferent nervous system.
E) afferent nervous system.
Q2) Most neurons in the brain are
A) bipolar.
B) unipolar.
C) anaxonic.
D) multipolar.
E) tripolar.
Q3) Neurons that have one axon and one dendrite with the cell body between them are called
A) polypolar.
B) unipolar.
C) bipolar.
D) tripolar.
E) multipolar.
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Q1) Structure Q is the A) lacrimal sac.
B) iris.
C) ciliary zonule.
D) ciliary muscle.
E) ciliary body.
Q2) Structure H is the A) retina.
B) sclera.
C) choroid.
D) ciliary body.
E) cornea.
Q3) Night blindness can be treated by administering
A) vitamin A.
B) vitamin D.
C) vitamin E.
D) vitamin K.
E) vitamin C.
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Q1) The nervous system
A) is ideal for crisis management.
B) communicates mainly by the release of hormones.
C) has effects that are very long-lived.
D) is regulated mainly by positive feedback.
E) does not rely on the binding of receptors to target cells.
Q2) Which statement is true regarding steroid hormones?
A) They are carbohydrates.
B) They cannot diffuse through the plasma membrane.
C) They do not bind to receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus.
D) They cannot change the nature or number of enzymes in the cytoplasm.
E) They can alter the rate of mRNA transcription.
Q3) Explain the interactions of parathyroid hormone and calcitonin.
Q4) These organs labeled M produce hormones involved in A) digestion.
B) respiration.
C) reproduction.
D) muscle contraction.
E) calcium absorption from blood.
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Q1) Label J represents
A) basophils.
B) neutrophils.
C) monocytes.
D) eosinophils.
E) lymphocytes.
Q2) A sample of tissue from an injury shows a large number of eosinophils.This would indicate that the tissue was
A) abscessed.
B) inflamed.
C) being rejected.
D) infected by viruses.
E) infected by parasites.
Q3) Label G represents A) basophils.
B) neutrophils.
C) monocytes.
D) eosinophils.
E) lymphocytes.
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Q1) Verne is suffering from cardiac arrhythmias and is brought into the emergency room of a hospital.In the emergency room,he begins to exhibit tachycardia and as a result loses consciousness.His anxious wife asks why he has lost consciousness.What should the attending physician say to Verne's wife?
Q2) Label F represents the A) interventricular septum.
B) apex.
C) opening of the coronary sinus.
D) fossa ovalis.
E) interatrial septum.
Q3) The first heart sound ("lubb")is produced as the atrioventricular valves ________ and the semilunar valves ________.
A) open; close
B) close; open
C) open; open
D) close; close
E) The actions of the valves do not contribute to the heart sounds.
Q4) Explain the significance of the thickness of the left ventricular wall.
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Q1) Release of histamines and nitric oxide (NO)
A) triggers baroreceptor reflexes.
B) stimulates the cardioacceleratory centers.
C) promotes increased peripheral resistance.
D) triggers the release of EPO.
E) causes localized vasodilation.
Q2) The distribution of arteries and veins on the left and right sides of the body is usually identical.One notable exception is the ________ vein.
A) adrenal
B) renal
C) vertebral
D) azygous
E) jugular
Q3) Considering the factors affecting blood flow,choose the correct relationship.
A) Under normal circumstances, blood flow equals cardiac output.
B) When pressure rises, blood flow decreases.
C) When resistance increases, blood flow increases.
D) Resistance and blood flow are directly related.
E) Vessel length and blood flow are directly related.
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Q1) The red pulp of the spleen contains large quantities of A) lymphocytes.
B) neutrophils.
C) red blood cells.
D) platelets.
E) fibrous connective tissue.
Q2) Lymph nodes
A) contain the largest collection of lymphoid tissue in the body.
B) are the site of T cell maturation.
C) stimulate lymphocyte stem-cell division.
D) purify lymph before it reaches the veins.
E) remove abnormal blood cells and components.
Q3) Choose the correct paired interaction in order for T cell activation to occur.
A) CD8 T cells; Class I MHC proteins
B) CD4 T cells; Class I MHC proteins
C) CD8 T cells; Class II MHC proteins
D) CD6 T cells; Class I MHC proteins
E) CD6 T cells; Class II MHC proteins
Q4) Willy is allergic to ragweed pollen.He has read about a medication that blocks certain antibodies.Explain how this treatment can alleviate his allergy.
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Q1) Surfactant
A) is produced by pneumocytes type I.
B) phagocytizes dust or debris.
C) replaces mucus in the alveoli.
D) plays a key role in keeping alveoli open.
E) is not found in healthy lung tissue.
Q2) Label F represents which structure(s)?
A) larynx
B) trachea
C) pharynx
D) bronchus
E) bronchioles
Q3) Label G represents which structure(s)?
A) larynx
B) trachea
C) pharynx
D) bronchus
E) bronchioles
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Q1) Which gastrointestinal hormone is released when fats and glucose enter the small intestine?
A) cholecystokinin
B) gastrin
C) secretin
D) pepsin
E) gastric inhibitory peptide
Q2) Which structures of liver lobules ultimately merge to form the hepatic veins?
A) hepatic ducts
B) hepatic arteries
C) capillary beds
D) central veins
E) portal veins
Q3) Label G represents which structure?
A) circular fold
B) submucosa
C) muscularis externa
D) serosa
E) mucosa
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Q1) The vitamin that is a coenzyme in amino acid and lipid metabolism is
A) vitamin B (pyridoxine).
B) vitamin B (pantothenic acid).
C) vitamin B (riboflavin).
D) vitamin B (folic acid).
E) niacin (nicotinic acid).
Q2) Lipogenesis of steroids and almost all fatty acids begins with A) glucose.
B) amino acids.
C) fatty acids.
D) acetyl CoA.
E) succinyl CoA.
Q3) Hypovitaminosis of vitamin B can cause pernicious anemia,however,hypervitaminosis can cause
A) polycythemia.
B) possible lethal CNS alterations.
C) hypotension.
D) kidney stones.
E) itching and tingling sensations.
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Q1) Considering the spatial relationship of the kidneys,the ________ kidney often sits slightly ________ than the ________ kidney.
A) left; lower; right
B) left; more anterior; right
C) right; lower; left
D) right; higher; left
E) right; more posterior; left
Q2) The ureters and urinary bladder are lined by
A) stratified squamous epithelium.
B) pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
C) simple cuboidal epithelium.
D) transitional epithelium.
E) simple columnar epithelium.
Q3) Label L represents which of the following structures?
A) renal papilla
B) renal columns
C) renal pyramid
D) major calyx
E) minor calyx
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Q1) The inner lining of the uterus is called the A) myometrium.
B) internal os.
C) perimetrium.
D) endometrium.
E) cervix.
Q2) The time in which ovulation and menstruation cease is called A) oogenesis.
B) menarche.
C) andropause.
D) menopause.
E) climacteric.
Q3) The most commonly prescribed oral contraceptives use small amounts of estrogen,or only
A) synthetic androgens.
B) gonadotropins.
C) progesterone.
D) FSH and LH.
E) LH.
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Q1) Polygenic traits include
A) eye color and hair colors other than pure blond or red.
B) a lack of A and B surface antigens and presence of RH factor.
C) inability to roll the tongue into a U-shape and near-sightedness.
D) photic sneeze reflex and attached earlobes.
E) ability to taste phenylthiocarbamate and color blindness.
Q2) The normal pair of sex chromosomes in males is
A) XX.
B) XO.
C) YO.
D) XY.
E) YY.
Q3) In which of the following does the individual carry the sex chromosome pattern XXY and is a male?
A) Down's syndrome
B) Klinefelter's syndrome
C) Fragile-X syndrome
D) Trisomy 21
E) Turner's syndrome
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