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Big Data Management explores the principles, challenges, and technologies involved in storing, processing, and analyzing large-scale data sets. This course covers data modeling, distributed storage systems, data integration, and approaches for ensuring data quality and consistency. Students will learn about frameworks such as Hadoop and Spark, as well as current trends in data governance, scalability, and security. Practical exercises focus on designing robust big data solutions for real-world business and scientific applications.
Recommended Textbook
Database Systems Design Implementation and Management 11th Edition by Carlos Coronel
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Q1) is the body of information and facts about a specific subject.
A) Validation
B) A format
C) Knowledge
D) A database
Answer: C
Q2) Describe what metadata are and what value they provide to the database system. Answer: The metadata describe the data characteristics and the set of relationships that links the data found within the database. For example, the metadata component stores information such as the name of each data element, the type of values (numeric, dates, or text) stored on each data element, and whether the data element can be left empty. The metadata provide information that complements and expands the value and use of the data. In short, metadata present a more complete picture of the data in the database. Given the characteristics of metadata, you might hear a database described as a "collection of self-describing data."
Q3) Data processing can be as simple as organizing data to reveal patterns.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an SQL-based relational database, rows in different tables are related based on common values in common attributes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A(n) enables a database administrator to describe schema components.
A) extensible markup language (XML)
B) data definition language (DDL)
C) unified modeling language (UML)
D) query language
Answer: B
Q3) A(n) is a collection of similar objects with a shared structure and behavior. Answer: class
Q4) In Chen notation, entities and relationships have to be oriented horizontally; not vertically.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) Each row in the relational table is known as a(n) .
Answer: entity instance

4
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Q1) To be considered minimally relational, the DBMS must support the key relational operators , PROJECT, and JOIN.
A) INTERSECT
B) UNION
C) DIFFERENCE
D) SELECT
Answer: D
Q2) A table is also called a(n) because the relational model's creator, E. F. Codd, used the two terms as synonyms.
Answer: relation
Q3) Depending on the sophistication of the application development software, nulls can create problems when functions such as COUNT, AVERAGE, and SUM are used.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) A(n) links tables on the basis of an equality condition that compares specified columns of each table.
Answer: equijoin
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Q1) An entity in the entity relationship model corresponds to a table in the relational environment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The process of database design is a sequential process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) are characteristics of entities.
Q4) Knowing the minimum and maximum number of occurrences is very helpful at the application software level.
A) object
B) attribute
C) data
D) entity
Q5) A derived attribute is indicated in the Chen notation by a that connects the attribute and an entity.
A) single line
B) dashed line
C) double dashed line
D) double line
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Q1) keys work with primary keys to properly implement relationships in the relational model.
A) Foreign
B) Composite
C) Natural
D) Surrogate
Q2) The property of enables an entity subtype to inherit the attributes and relationships of the supertype.
A) subtype discriminator
B) inheritance
C) specialization hierarchy
D) entity supertype
Q3) The preferred placement for a foreign key when working with a 1:1 relationship is to .
A) use the same primary key for both entities
B) create a bridge entity
C) place the foreign key in one of the entities
D) place the surrogate key in both entities
Q4) completeness means that every supertype occurrence must be a member of at least one subtype.
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Q1) What characteristics do tables that conform to the concept of well-informed relations have?
Q2) Dependencies based on only a part of a composite primary key are known as dependencies.
A) primary
B) partial C) incomplete
D) composite
Q3) In a real-world environment, changing granularity requirements might dictate changes in primary key selection, and those changes might ultimately require the use of keys.
Q4) All relational tables satisfy the 1NF requirements.
A)True B)False
Q5) Normalization represents a micro view of the entities within the ERD. A)True B)False
Q6) When a nonkey attribute is the determinant of a key attribute, the table is in 3NF but not in .
Q7) A dependency based on only a part of a composite primary key is called a .
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Q1) When a user issues the DELETE FROM tablename command without specifying a WHERE condition, .
A) no rows will be deleted
B) the first row will be deleted
C) the last row will be deleted
D) all rows will be deleted
Q2) Which of the following queries will use the given columns and column aliases from the PRODUCT table to determine the total value of inventory held on hand and display the results in a column labeled TOTVALUE?
A) SELECT P_DESCRIPT, P_QOH, P_PRICE, P_QOH*P_PRICE AS TOTVALUE FROM PRODUCT;
B) SELECT P_DESCRIPT, P_QOH, P_PRICE, P_QOH=P_PRICE AS TOTVALUE FROM PRODUCT;
C) SELECT P_DESCRIPT, P_QOH, P_PRICE, P_QOH/P_PRICE AS TOTVALUE FROM PRODUCT;
D) SELECT P_DESCRIPT, P_QOH, P_PRICE, P_QOH-P_PRICE AS TOTVALUE FROM PRODUCT;
Q3) String comparisons are made from left to right.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An alias is especially useful when a table must be joined to itself in a(n) query.
Q5) A table can be deleted from the database by using the command.
Q6) In the SQL environment, the word covers both questions and actions.
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Q1) The Oracle equivalent to an MS Access AutoNumber is a(n) .
A) auto-number
B) sequence
C) TO_NUMBER function
D) trigger
Q2) The statement in SQL combines rows from two queries and returns only the rows that appear in the first set but not in the second.
A) UNION
B) UNION ALL
C) INTERSECT
D) MINUS
Q3) How are triggers critical to proper database operation and management?
Q4) When using a subquery, the output of a(n) query is used as the input for the outer query.
Q5) The PL/SQL block starts with the section.
A) IS
B) OPEN
C) DECLARE
D) BEGIN
Q6) When the critical application code is isolated in a single program, improves.
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Q1) The database contents might be loaded interactively or in batch mode using a variety of methods and devices including customized user programs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The term "database development" is used to describe the process of database design and implementation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the concept of logical design and list the steps involved.
Q4) A is an information system component that handles a specific business function, such as inventory, orders, or payroll.
Q5) An initial assessment of the information flow-and-extent requirements must be made during the portion of the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC).
Q6) In DBLC, the phase after the database initial study is .
A) operation
B) database design
C) database initial study
D) implementation and loading
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Q1) A field-level lock allows concurrent transactions to access the same row, as long as they require the use of different fields within that row.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ANSI has defined standards that govern SQL database transactions. Transaction support is provided by two SQL statements: and ROLLBACK.
A) RETRIEVE
B) ASSIGN
C) UPDATE
D) COMMIT
Q3) ANSI defines four events that signal the end of a transaction. Of the following events, which is defined by ANSI as being equivalent to a COMMIT?
A) Five SQL statements are executed.
B) The end of a program is successfully reached.
C) The program is abnormally terminated.
D) The database is shut down for maintenance.
Q4) What is transaction isolation and why it is important?
Q5) How does a shared/exclusive lock schema increase the lock manager's overhead?
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Q1) The table space is used for transaction-recovery purposes.
A) system
B) user data
C) temporary
D) rollback segment
Q2) How can queries be written to perform the fastest when equality and inequality comparisons are needed?
Q3) Good database performance is easy to evaluate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The majority of primary memory resources will be allocated to the cache.
A) data
B) SQL
C) sort
D) optimizer
Q5) A cost-based optimizer uses a set of preset rules and points to determine the best approach to execute a query.
A)True
B)False
Q6) are ordered sets of values that are crucial in speeding up data access. Page 13
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Q1) In a distributed database management system (DDBMS), occurs to determine the data location of local and remote fragments.
Q2) A transaction processor (TP) is the software component residing on each computer that stores and retrieves data located at the site.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a distributed database management system (DDBMS), control is used to manage simultaneous data access and ensure data consistency across database fragments.
Q4) transparency allows data to be updated simultaneously at several network sites.
A) Transaction
B) Distribution
C) Failure
D) Performance
Q5) Current distributed database management system (DDBMS) are subject to some problems, such as the complexity of management and control.
A)True
B)False
Q6) management ensures that data move from one consistent state to another.
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Q1) Business intelligence (BI) architecture is composed of data, people, processes, technology, and the management of such components.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bill Inmon and Chuck Kelley created a set of 12 rules to define a(n) .
A) data warehouse
B) multidimensional cube
C) OLAP tool
D) star schema
Q3) Computed or derived facts, at run time, are sometimes called to differentiate them from stored facts.
A) schemas
B) attributes
C) metrics
D) dimensions
Q4) What is the ROLLUP extension to the GROUP BY clause? Provide the syntax for this extension.
Q5) In multidimensional terms, the ability to focus on slices of the cube to perform a more detailed analysis is known as _____.
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Q1) code is embedded inside an HTML page and is activated by triggering events such as clicking on a link.
A) XML
B) SQL
C) Visual Basic
D) VBScript
Q2) Using , you can extract data from an XML document and convert it into a text file.
A) XMLD
B) XSLT
C) DTD
D) XML schema
Q3) Every XML document has a .
A) root element
B) base tag
C) schema
D) DTD
Q4) A(n) provides limited additional semantic value to XML, such as data type support or data validation rules.
Q5) What are the components in the basic ODBC architecture?
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Q1) Having a computerized DBMS guarantees that the data will be properly used to provide the best solutions required by managers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The DBA function provides data modeling and design services to the end-user community, often through coordination with an application development group within the data-processing department.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n) data dictionary is automatically updated by the DBMS with every database access.
A) dynamic
B) active
C) passive
D) static
Q4) A(n) _____ physically stores the database's data.
Q5) Based on the type of decision-making support required, database users may be classified into: operational, tactical, or _____.
Q6) Describe the DBA's managerial role.
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