Basic Nursing Concepts Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
This course introduces students to the foundational principles and practices of nursing, exploring essential concepts such as health and illness, the nursing process, communication, safety, and patient-centered care. Students will learn about the roles and responsibilities of nurses within healthcare teams, ethical and legal considerations, and cultural competency. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and practical experiences, learners will develop fundamental skills necessary for effective patient assessment, basic clinical procedures, documentation, and critical thinking, preparing them for more advanced nursing studies and practice.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Nursing Skills and Techniques 8th Edition by Anne Griffin Perry
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44 Chapters
1316 Verified Questions
1316 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2003
Page 2
Chapter 1: Using Evidence in Nursing Practice
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39771
Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence-based practice is a problem-solving approach to making decisions about patient care that is grounded in:
A)the latest information found in textbooks.
B)systematically conducted research studies.
C)tradition in clinical practice.
D)quality improvement and risk management data.
Answer: B
Q2) Evidence-based practice requires good ______________.
Answer: nursing judgment
Evidence-based practice requires good nursing judgment; it does not consist of finding research evidence and blindly applying it.
Q3) Patient fall rates are an example of a ______________ type of study in the evidence hierarchy.
Answer: quality improvement data
Data collected within a health care agency offer important trending information about clinical conditions and problems.Staff in the agency review the data periodically to identify problem areas and to seek solutions.
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Chapter 2: Admitting, Transfer, and Discharge
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phase of the discharge process where medical attention dominates discharge planning efforts is known as the _____ phase.
A)transitional
B)continuing
C)acute
D)multidisciplinary
Answer: C
Q2) The patient has decided that he would like to create an advance directive.The nurse is asked if she would be a witness.What is the best response for the nurse to make to this request?
A)Agree to be a witness.
B)Refuse to be a witness.
C)Contact social work.
D)Contact the physician.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Communication
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39773
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse, "I want to die." Which response is the most appropriate for the nurse to make?
A)"Why would you say that?"
B)"Tell me more about how you are feeling."
C)"The doctor should be told how you feel."
D)"You have too much to live for to think that way."
Answer: B
Q2) Nonverbal communication incorporates messages conveyed by: A)touch.
B)cadence.
C)tone quality.
D)use of jargon.
Answer: A
Q3) Verbal communication includes which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Speech
B)Personal space
C)Body movement
D)Writing
Answer: A, D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Documentation and Informatics
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39774
Sample Questions
Q1) Standardized care plans are effective ways to plan care for the patient.To be most effective, however, the SCP must be _________________.
Q2) The patient was in bed with all side rails up.During the night, the patient tried to get up to go to the bathroom and fell while trying to climb over the side rails.After meeting the patient's needs and assessing that the patient was not harmed, what step should the nurse take (if any)?
A)Complete an incident report and put it in the medical record.
B)Chart what happened and state that an incident report has been filled out.
C)Do nothing because the patient was not harmed.
D)Document what happened in the patient record without mentioning the incident report.
Q3) Nursing documentation must have which of the following characteristics? (Select all that apply.)
A)Factual
B)Organized
C)Public
D)Complete
Q4) The abbreviation for every day (___) is no longer used.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Vital Signs
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To take a manual blood pressure, the nurse places the cuff of the _____________ around the patient's upper arm.
Q2) After applying the sphygmomanometer to the patient's upper arm, the nurse inflates the cuff to the proper level, and then, using a stethoscope, listens for the __________________ sounds.
Q3) The percent to which hemoglobin is filled with oxygen is known as _________________.
Q4) The nurse takes the patient's temperature using a tympanic electronic thermometer.The temperature reading is 36.5° C (97.7° F).The nurse knows that this correlates with:
A)37.0° C (98.6° F) rectally.
B)37.0° C (98.6° F) orally.
C)36.0° C (97.7° F) axillary.
D)36.0° C (97.7° F) orally.
Q5) When heat loss mechanisms are unable to keep pace with heat production, ____________ is the result.
Q6) The patient has been sleeping and has been lying on his right side.The nurse is ready to take his temperature using a tympanic thermometer.She needs to insert the thermometer into his ___________ ear.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Health Assessment
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the nurse document an exaggeration of the posterior curvature of the thoracic spine found during the assessment of a 90-year-old patient?
A)Lordosis
B)Osteoporosis
C)Scoliosis
D)Kyphosis
Q2) Petechiae are noted on the patient as a result of the nurse finding:
A)bluish-black patches.
B)tenting.
C)pinpoint-sized red dots.
D)large areas of raised, irritated skin.
Q3) Which patient position maximizes the nurse's ability to assess the patient's body for symmetry?
A)Sitting
B)Supine
C)Prone
D)Dorsal recumbent
Q4) When breast self-examination is done, it should be done once a month.For women who menstruate, the best time is ______________.
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Chapter 7: Medical Asepsis
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39777
Sample Questions
Q1) For patients with which of the following conditions should the nurse implement airborne precautions?
A)Rubella
B)Influenza
C)Tuberculosis
D)Pediculosis
Q2) Droplet precautions will be instituted for the patient admitted to the infectious disease unit with:
A)streptococcal pharyngitis.
B)herpes simplex.
C)pulmonary TB.
D)measles.
Q3) The nurse is applying for a position at a local hospital.As part of the employment criteria, she will be required to be assessed for TB exposure.She should be prepared for the ___________ blood test to be scheduled.
Q4) The nurse is preparing to provide care for the patient.Before making patient contact, she washes her hands.This practice is known as __________________.
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9
Chapter 8: Sterile Technique
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39778
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter.The package is dry but shows signs of yellowing inside the plastic wrapper, as if the package was wet at one time.What should the nurse do?
A)Use the package because it is dry at present.
B)Consider the outer package contaminated, but the inner package sterile.
C)Discard the entire package as contaminated.
D)Open the package and consider the 1-inch border as contaminated.
Q2) A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a dressing change using surgical aseptic technique.The nurse gathers supplies to prepare the sterile field using a packaged drape.Which option correctly describes how the nurse should set up the field?
A)Don sterile gloves before opening the packaged drape.
B)Clean the bottle of irrigation solution with alcohol before placing the bottle on the field.
C)Avoid dropping sterile supplies close to the 1-inch border around the drape.
D)Leave the sterile field unattended to obtain needed supplies.
Q3) The minimum standard for infection control as established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is _______________.
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Chapter 9: Safe Patient Handling, Transfer, and Positioning
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39779
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse plans to use a trochanter roll when repositioning a patient.Where should the nurse place the trochanter roll?
A)Under the small of the back
B)Behind the knees when supine
C)Alongside the ilium to mid-thigh
D)In the palm of the hand with fingers flexed
Q2) Plantar flexion contracture, otherwise known as _____________, is caused when the force of gravity pulls an unsupported, weakened foot into a plantar-flexed position.
Q3) The patient is immobile and is being placed in the supine position.To reduce extension of the fingers and abduction of the thumb, the nurse places _________________ in the patient's hands.
Q4) The term _____________ refers to the conditions of the joints, tendons, ligaments, and muscles in various body positions.
Q5) To position a patient with hemiplegia in Fowler's position, the nurse should:
A)elevate the head of the bed 15 to 30 degrees.
B)place the patient in the prone position.
C)position a spastic hand with the fingers extended using hand rolls.
D)position the patient's head with slight hyperextension of the neck.
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Chapter 10: Exercise and Ambulation
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39780
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has just been treated for a broken leg.She needs to teach the patient how to use crutches.Which crutch gait is most appropriate for this patient?
A)Four-point gait
B)Three-point gait
C)Two-point gait
D)Swing-to gait
Q2) A patient with left hemiparesis is using a quad cane for ambulation.Which of the following is the correct technique for the nurse to use in teaching the patient?
A)Use the cane on the right side, with the cane moving forward first.
B)Use the cane on the left side, with the left leg moving forward with the cane.
C)Use the cane in either hand, with the right leg moving forward first.
D)Use the cane in either hand, with the left leg moving beyond the forward placement of the cane.
Q3) The patient is performing ROM exercises independently.These are known as __________ exercises.
Q4) A person's inability to move about freely is known as _______________.
Q5) _________________ increase muscle tension but do not change the length of muscle fibers.
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Chapter 11: Orthopedic Measures
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39781
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has had a new cast applied.The nurse is performing a neurovascular assessment so as to detect signs of possible compartment syndrome.Which of the following are signs of compartment syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
A)Inability to move body parts distal to the cast
B)Pain on passive motion of distal body parts
C)Hyperventilation
D)Tachycardia
E)None of above
Q2) The nurse places the patient in traction.Expected outcomes would include which of the following?
A)Alignment of fracture fragments with formation of callus within 24 hours
B)Verbalization of pain level as a "4" on a scale of 0 to 10
C)Verbalization of immediate relief of symptoms
D)Distal skin tissue becoming cooler, with capillary refill greater than 3 seconds
Q3) __________________ involves monitoring for the five Ps (pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis).
Q4) _________________ may occur when pressure within a casted extremity increases.
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Chapter 12: Support Surfaces and Special Beds
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39782
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is admitted to the hospital.Part of the patient assessment will include: (Select all that apply.)
A)Use of an appropriate pressure ulcer risk scale
B)Assessment of the patient's nutritional status
C)Assessment of the patient's mobility status
D)Assessment of the patient's fluid status
E)None of above
Q2) What is the most important factor in preventing and treating pressure ulcers?
A)Proper use of foam or air mattresses
B)Proper utilization of an air-fluidized bed
C)Frequent repositioning of the patient
D)Proper use of a low-air-loss bed
Q3) Factors that contribute to pressure ulcer formation include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Friction
B)Shear
C)Turning every 2 hours
D)Malnutrition
E)Impaired mobility
Q4) A ______________ serves as an artificial layer of fat to protect bony surfaces.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Safety and Quality Improvement
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39783
Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse do to promote patient understanding and security in the health care setting?
A)Restrain the patient as necessary.
B)Explain all procedures to the patient.
C)Allow the patient more time alone.
D)Restrict activity as much as possible.
Q2) A patient is taking a medication that has the potential to cause orthostatic hypotension. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate for this patient?
A)Have the patient sit slowly and dangle.
B)Refer the patient to physical therapy.
C)Keep the side rails up at all times.
D)Obtain a walker or a cane for patient use.
Q3) The use of physical restraints is one safety strategy that has been used to protect patients from injury.However, physical restraints should be used as a ______________ and are used only when reasonable alternatives have failed.
Q4) Health care facilities must provide employees access to information about the properties of particular chemicals and information for handling substances in a safe manner.Facilities do this by providing ______________.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Disaster Preparedness
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39784
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are goals of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Prevention of terrorist attacks
B)Response to disasters
C)Recovery from disasters
D)Coordination of efforts among agencies
Q2) The strategic plan of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention in the event of a disaster first focuses on __________________.
Q3) Disaster nursing differs from general nursing because when caring for patients during a disaster:
A)the focus is on caring for the sickest people first.
B)using a color tag system reduces the amount of emotional stress on the nurse.
C)the focus is no longer on airway, breathing, and circulation.
D)the focus is on caring for those most likely to survive.
Q4) For safety reasons, rescue workers should be upwind and uphill from a toxic chemical disaster scene to avoid exposure.The exception is when ____________ has been released, because it is lighter than air.
Q5) A patient has been exposed to a toxic chemical.The nurse's first priority is
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Chapter 15: Pain Assessment and Basic Comfort Measures
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is unable to rest even after pain medication has been administered.The nurse decides to give the patient a backrub.Which of the following strokes should the nurse use when finishing the backrub?
A)Long firm stroking movements down the back
B)Light strokes while moving up the back in a circular motion
C)Kneading movements toward the sacrum
D)Circular motion upward from buttocks to shoulders
Q2) When evaluating the effects of PCA, the nurse notes that the patient is sedated and is difficult to arouse.What step should the nurse take next?
A)Insert an airway.
B)Turn patient to the side.
C)Stop the PCA.
D)Expect this as a patient outcome of the therapy.
Q3) When assessing a local infusion pump site, the nurse notes that which of the following requires an intervention?
A)The device is labeled, indicating that an anesthetic is being used.
B)The catheter connections are loose.
C)Surgical dressings are dry and intact.
D)No blood backup is present in the tubing.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Palliative Care
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39786
Sample Questions
Q1) A new staff member is working with a patient who is dying.A nurse evaluates that this new employee requires additional teaching when he or she is observed:
A)limiting the family's visiting hours.
B)staying with the patient and family as much as possible.
C)finding a quiet place for family members to gather.
D)asking the family if they would like to help with preparing the body.
Q2) Nurses provide _______________ that is defined as care of the body after death in a manner consistent with the patient's religious and cultural beliefs.
Q3) _____________ helps people live as well as possible through the dying process.
Q4) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement when caring for a patient's body after death is to:
A)remove the patient's ID band and put a new gown on the patient.
B)cover the patient with a sheet and transfer him or her to the morgue.
C)inquire about particular cultural or spiritual practices.
D)remove tubes and lines if the patient is to be autopsied.
Q5) An _______________ is the surgical dissection of a body after death.
Q6) A person experiences an actual _________ when an object or a person can no longer be felt, heard, or experienced.
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Chapter 17: Personal Hygiene and Bed Making
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39787
Sample Questions
Q1) When bathing a patient, which sequence is the correct approach to use?
A)Wash the feet after the legs.
B)Wash the eyes after the face.
C)Wash the legs before the abdomen.
D)Wash the back area before the extremities.
Q2) When evaluating the shaving of a patient done by a family member, the nurse determines that the technique is done appropriately when:
A)long strokes are used.
B)the razor is held at a 45-degree angle to the skin.
C)shaving is done against the direction of hair growth.
D)a cool cloth is used on the skin before the shave.
Q3) Tissue that surrounds the fingernail, slowly grows over the nail, and must be regularly pushed back with a soft nail brush is known as the __________________.
Q4) What should hygienic care of the patient with dry skin include?
A)Use of moisturizers
B)Use of ultraviolet light
C)Application of antiseptic lotion
D)Lowering of bath water temperature
Q5) The act of chewing is also known as ________________.
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Chapter 18: Pressure Ulcer Care
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39788
Sample Questions
Q1) Aggressive prevention measures should be implemented for a patient in the general population with a pressure ulcer risk on the Braden Scale of less than or equal to: A)16.
B)18.
C)20.
D)24.
Q2) The nurse is planning care for her patient who has a stage II pressure ulcer.Care should include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)A heat lamp to dry the wound
B)Application of topical antibiotics
C)Nutritional assessment
D)Maintaining moisture in the wound
Q3) When skin layers adhere to the linens and deeper tissue layer move downward, ________ damage occurs.
Q4) A _______________ is a localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissue, usually over a bony prominence, as a result of pressure, or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.
Q5) The removal of devitalized tissue in a wound is known as ______________.
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Chapter 19: Care of the Eye and Ear
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39789
Sample Questions
Q1) When removing a soft contact lens, the nurse finds that it is sticking together.What should the nurse do next?
A)Rub the lens briskly.
B)Soak the lens in saline.
C)Place cleansing solution on the lens.
D)Pry the lens apart with the fingertips.
Q2) When providing care to a patient who has splashed bleach into his eye, the nurse will:
A)remove the patient's contacts immediately.
B)flush the eye from the outer to the inner canthus.
C)reinsert contacts as soon as irrigation is done.
D)irrigate toward the lower conjunctival sac.
Q3) The nurse caring for a comatose patient determines that he is wearing contact lenses.Which of the following nursing interventions will the nurse use when removing the contact lenses?
A)Put on snug, powdered, clean gloves.
B)Ask the patient to look down to expose the lower eyeball.
C)Use the fingernail to slide the lens off of the cornea.
D)Inspect the eye after the lenses have been removed.
Q4) ____________ is the complete surgical removal of the eyeball.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Safe Medication Preparation
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39790
Sample Questions
Q1) When medications are administered, which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A)Administering medications prepared by another nurse
B)Using sterile technique for nonparenteral medications
C)Leaving medication at the bedside when the patient is in the bathroom
D)Documenting the reason for medication refusal in the nurse's notes
Q2) The intended or desired physiological response to a medication is known as its ____________.
Q3) When do most medication errors occur? (Select all that apply.)
A)During hospital admission
B)During transfer from one unit to another
C)During discharge home
D)During discharge to another facility
E)None of above
Q4) The prescribed dose of Tylenol is given to a patient.The nurse recognizes the name Tylenol as which of the following?
A)Chemical name
B)Trade name
C)Generic name
D)United States Pharmacopeia
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Chapter 21: Oral and Topical Medications
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer a medication via a jejunostomy tube to a patient who is receiving continuous tube feedings.The medication needs to be given on an empty stomach and comes only in tablet form.What action should the nurse take first?
A)Add the medications directly to the tube feeding.
B)Flush the tubing before the medication is given.
C)Stop the feeding 30 minutes before medication administration.
D)Dissolve the medication in cold water.
Q2) The patient has eyedrops ordered daily to both eyes.Which action by the nurse is appropriate when administering the medication?
A)Carefully place the drop on the cornea.
B)Wipe the eye with a tissue after placing the eyedrop.
C)Hold the eyedropper about 1 to 2 cm above the eye.
D)Instruct the patient to squeeze the eye shut after instillation.
Q3) The easiest and most desirable way to administer medications is via the _________ route.
Q4) Handheld devices that disperse medications through an aerosol spray or mist to penetrate lung airways are known as ___________.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Parenteral Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing an injection of 0.45 mL of medication for a pediatric patient.Which syringe is most appropriate?
A)Tuberculin syringe
B)Insulin syringe
C)3-mL syringe
D)10-mL syringe
Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to a 6-month-old infant.Which injection site is the most appropriate for this patient?
A)Deltoid muscle
B)Dorsogluteal injection site
C)Vastus lateralis
D)Abdomen 2 inches away from the umbilicus
Q3) The nurse is teaching a patient how to give a subcutaneous injection.The nurse includes which sites as acceptable for this route of administration? (Select all that apply.)
A)Ventrogluteal area between the greater trochanter and the iliac crest
B)Outer aspect of the upper arms
C)Abdomen from below the costal margins to the iliac crests
D)Anterior thighs
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Oxygen Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease ( COPD ) is on oxygen therapy at 3 L per nasal cannula.Which assessment finding should alert the nurse to a potential problem with this patient?
A)Respiratory rate of 26
B)Low carbon dioxide levels
C)Arterial oxygen saturation level of 99%
D)Lower oxygen saturation levels at night than during the day
Q2) The nurse is caring for several patients postoperatively following abdominal surgery.Which patient will benefit the least from the use of incentive spirometry?
A)Middle-aged male with a history of smoking since high school
B)Elderly female with type 2 diabetes
C)Middle-aged female with a history of chronic respiratory disease
D)Adolescent female with atelectasis
Q3) The ________, also called a Briggs adaptor, connects an oxygen source to an artificial airway such as an endotracheal tube.
Q4) The amount of air inspired and expired with each breath while a patient is on mechanical ventilation is known as the ________________.
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Chapter 24: Performing Chest Physiotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse auscultates the patients' lung fields and notes congestion in several patients.The nurse anticipates that postural drainage may be used for the patient with which condition?
A)Congestive heart failure with pulmonary edema
B)History of cigarette smoking with recent hemoptysis
C)Chronic bronchitis with frequent coughing
D)Pulmonary embolism after a long international flight
Q2) The nurse is teaching the family of a patient with cystic fibrosis how to use a high-frequency chest wall oscillation (HFCWO) vest.The nurse informs the family that this device will do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Allow patient to perform other tasks while receiving therapy.
B)Improve patient adherence to chest physiotherapy.
C)Assist in the removal of secretions from the lungs.
D)Decrease the viscosity of mucus so coughing it up will be easier.
Q3) ________________ is positioning the patient so that the position of the lung segment to be drained allows gravity to have its greatest effect.
Q4) The nurse positions the patient flat on the back with a small pillow under the knees to drain the right and left _____________________.
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Chapter 25: Airway Management
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing nasotracheal suctioning for a 13-year-old patient with secretions in the throat and trachea.Which action by the nurse demonstrates proper technique?
A)Applying sterile petroleum jelly to the distal tip of the suction catheter
B)Applying clean gloves to both hands
C)Inserting the suction catheter 6 to 8 inches during inspiration
D)Suctioning the pharynx first and then the trachea
Q2) The student nurse is preparing to perform nasotracheal suctioning on an adult patient wearing a face mask.Which action by the student should the nursing instructor question?
A)Increasing the oxygen flow rate for the face mask and asking the patient to deep-breathe slowly before suctioning
B)Inserting the catheter into the nares slanting slightly downward
C)Asking the patient to swallow while the catheter is being inserted
D)Inserting the catheter about 8 inches without applying suction
Q3) A plastic or rubber tube that is inserted through the nares or mouth past the epiglottis and vocal cords to maintain an airway is known as an
Q4) Too much oxygen reduces the drive to breathe in patients with chronic
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Chapter 26: Closed Chest Drainage Systems
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has had a chest tube in place for 2 days.As the nurse begins her shift assessment, she should ensure that what equipment is at the bedside? (Select all that apply.)
A)Two rubber-tipped clamps
B)Plain gauze 4×4
C)Sterile petroleum gauze
D)Extra drainage system
E)A sterile chest tube of the same size as the one inserted in the patient
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient with blood collecting in the pleural space.The nurse documents this as:
A)pleural effusion.
B)hemothorax.
C)pulmonary hemorrhage.
D)pneumothorax.
Q3) What does the expected role of the nurse include during chest tube removal?
A)Prepares an occlusive dressing
B)Performs clipping of the sutures
C)Provides support and assessment of the patient
D)Removes the chest tube firmly and quickly
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Emergency Measures for Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for an unconscious patient who has an oral airway in place, and who has copious amounts of oral secretions.What may the nurse have to do while caring for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
A)Cleanse the mouth frequently using lemon glycerin swabs.
B)Replace or clean the oral airway.
C)Suction the oral cavity frequently.
D)Keep the airway in place for extended periods.
Q2) When applying an automated external defibrillator, the nurse would:
A)connect the cable to the machine, apply the pads, and turn on the power.
B)turn on the power, apply the pads, and connect the cable.
C)turn on the power, connect the cable, and apply the pads.
D)connect the cable, turn on the power, and apply the pads.
Q3) The patient is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident.The patient has head and neck trauma and has stopped breathing.What should the nurse do?
A)Open the airway using the head tilt-chin lift method.
B)Open the airway using the jaw-thrust method.
C)Give two breaths using mouth-to-mouth and a barrier device.
D)Give two breaths using a bag-mask device.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Intravenous and Vascular Access Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The order is for the patient to receive 500 mL over 4 hours.The nurse has an electronic infusion device ( EID ) in place that provides for the regulation of hourly infusion.The IV tubing available is 10 gtt/mL.What is the setting for the infusion device?
A)125 mL/hr
B)500 mL/hr
C)21 gtt/min
D)32 gtt/min
Q2) What should be the next action by the nurse, once an over-the-needle catheter ( ONC ) has been inserted through the skin and into the vein?
A)Loosen the stylet for removal
B)Check for blood return in the flashback chamber
C)Stabilize the catheter and release the tourniquet
D)Advance the catheter until the hub rests at the insertion site
Q3) _________________________ pull fluid into the vascular space by osmosis, resulting in an increased vascular volume that possibly will result in pulmonary edema.
Q4) Intravenous pumps that have built-in software programmed from health care pharmacy databases with unit-specific profiles are known as ______________.
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Chapter 29: Blood Transfusions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The specific blood product used for replacement of clotting factors and fibrinogen is:
A)whole blood.
B)packed RBCs.
C)cryoprecipitate.
D)albumin, 25% pooled.
Q2) The patient is receiving a unit of packed RBCs.Fifteen minutes into the procedure, he complains of severe kidney pain, and his temperature increases by 3° F.The nurse stops the transfusion immediately, suspecting that which of the following reactions is occurring?
A)Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
B)Nonhemolytic febrile reaction
C)Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
D)Severe allergic reaction
Q3) The presence or absence of specific antigens on the surface of red blood cells determines ___________________ in the ABO system.
Q4) Under the ABO system, the blood type __________ can be given to any individual and is known as the "Universal Donor."
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Chapter 30: Oral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who requires assistance with eating.The patient repeatedly apologizes to the nurse, saying, "I'm so sorry.I'm like a baby.I'm such a burden since I can't even feed myself." What is the most appropriate strategy for the nurse to use?
A)Feed all of the solid foods first, and then offer liquids.
B)Feed the patient quickly so as not to make the patient feel like it is taking a great deal of time out of the nurse's day.
C)Minimize conversation so that the patient can eat faster.
D)Appear unhurried, sit at the bedside, and encourage the patient to feed himself/herself as much as possible.
Q2) The nurse is caring for an infant who is 3 months old and is being bottle-fed human milk.Will the nurse need to provide the infant with any additional sources of nutrition or fluids?
A)The infant will need extra water in between feedings.
B)The infant will need juice in between feedings.
C)No additional fluids will be needed between meals.
D)The child will need to start on infant cereal.
Q3) _______________ is useful for monitoring short-term changes in visceral protein.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Enteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding for the patient.The patient has been on enteral feedings for 2 days.The nurse knows that the most appropriate technique for implementing enteral feeding is:
A)weighing the patient weekly.
B)measuring the gastric residual every hour.
C)changing the formula every 12 hours in an open system.
D)leaving the formula in place in an open system for up to 24 hours.
Q2) The nurse, physician, and dietitian collaborate to select an enteral feeding formula for the patient.Their decision should be based on which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Protein requirements of the patient
B)Digestive ability of the patient
C)Amount of lactose required
D)The patient's disease process
Q3) The nurse determines that a nasogastric (NG) tube needs irrigation when she:
A)obtains more than 200 mL of residual volume.
B)obtains a small amount of thin watery residual.
C)does not encounter resistance when aspirating the residual.
D)obtains a unusually thick secretions.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has been receiving PN but has not been given lipid emulsion therapy.The nurse notices that the patient is developing dry, scaly skin, his wound is healing more slowly than expected, and he is anemic.Which condition should the nurse anticipate as a potential problem?
A)Excess linoleic acid
B)Omega-6 fatty acid excess
C)Essential fatty acid deficiency
D)Electrolyte instability
Q2) A 72-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of intestinal failure.Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care to deliver nutritional needs?
A)Enteral
B)Parenteral
C)A combination of enteral and parenteral
D)Oral
Q3) For patients receiving PN, ___________ provide supplemental kilocalories and prevent essential fatty acid deficiencies.
Q4) If PN must be discontinued suddenly, hang __________ in water at the same infusion rate to prevent hypoglycemia.
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Chapter 33: Urinary Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning care for a 12-year-old female patient who needs a Foley catheter inserted.It is most important for the nurse to use a catheter of which size?
A)5 to 6 French (Fr)
B)8 to 10 Fr
C)12 Fr
D)14 to 16 Fr
Q2) When providing care for a patient with a suprapubic catheter who has acquired a UTI, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
A)Using clean technique
B)Securing the tube to the inner thigh
C)Cleansing the insertion site in a direction toward the drain
D)Promoting intake of 2200 mL of fluid per day
Q3) On the basis of the nurse's assessment of kidney function for an adult patient, which finding is normal?
A)10 mL/hr
B)20 mL/hr
C)30 mL/hr
D)100 mL/hr
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Chapter 34: Bowel Elimination and Gastric Intubation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse prepares to exercise a digital removal of feces.To detect an untoward effect of this procedure, the nurse should assess the patient history for which condition?
A)Heart disease
B)Abdominal pain
C)Urinary infection
D)Diabetes mellitus
Q2) What should the nurse do to verify nasogastric (NG) tube placement? (Select all that apply.)
A)Ask the patient to speak.
B)Inspect the posterior pharynx.
C)Aspirate back on the syringe.
D)Obtain an x-ray of the placement.
E)Auscultate the lung fields.
Q3) _____________ is defined by a number of signs including infrequent bowel movements, difficulty evacuating, hard stools, and inability to defecate.
Q4) Infrequent bowel movements (less often than every 3 days), difficulty in evacuating feces, inability to defecate, and hard feces are signs of ________________.
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36
Chapter 35: Ostomy Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) An opening that is in the ileal portion of the small intestine is an ____________.
Q2) When providing care for a patient with a colostomy or an ileostomy, the nurse recognizes that which is an expected assessment finding?
A)A moist, reddish-pink stoma
B)A dry, purplish stoma
C)Erythema on the skin around the stoma
D)No drainage noted from the stoma when washed
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient with an ostomy.The nurse notes that the ostomy is putting out watery effluent.The nurse recognizes that this is indicative of which location?
A)Descending colon
B)Sigmoid colon
C)Ileal portion of the small intestine
D)transverse colon
Q4) A ______________ is an opening in the large intestine or colon for elimination of fecal material.
Q5) The opening created into the abdominal wall for fecal or urinary elimination is known as a _______________.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Preoperative and Postoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching the patient about positive expiratory pressure therapy (PEP) and "huff" coughing, the nurse incorporates which of the following in the plan of care?
A)Instruct the patient to remain flat in bed.
B)Place a nose clip on the patient's nose.
C)Instruct the patient to breathe through his nose.
D)Instruct the patient to exhale with long slow breaths.
Q2) Which of the following have been identified as evidence-based guidelines to reduce surgical site infections (SSIs)? (Select all that apply.)
A)Prepping the surgical site with a razor followed by an antiseptic scrub
B)Giving antibiotics immediately after the procedure
C)Maintaining blood glucose levels
D)Maintaining normal body temperatures
E)Maintaining proper positioning
Q3) A patient is being transferred to a room from the PACU.What should the nurse do upon transfer?
A)Remove the indwelling urinary catheter.
B)Turn off the nasogastric tube suction.
C)Use a black pen to note drainage on the dressing.
D)Change the dressing immediately when the patient reaches the room.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Intraoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _______________ phase begins when the patient enters the operating room suite and ends with admission to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU).
Q2) When one prepares to enter the operating room, which technique demonstrates the safest outcome?
A)Keeping the hands below the elbows
B)Applying surgical gloves before the scrub
C)Scrubbing for at least 3 to 5 minutes with an antimicrobial
D)Drying the hands and arms, starting at the elbow and moving toward the fingers
Q3) The scrub nurse's hands are being washed in preparation for a surgical procedure.As the nurse finishes, the scrub nurse accidentally touches the faucet with one hand.Which action should the nurse take next?
A)Apply sterile gloves.
B)Apply a sterile gown.
C)Apply a sterile mask.
D)Wash her hands.
Q4) The ________________ is a "sterile" team member who provides the surgeon with instruments and supplies, disposes of soiled sponges, and accounts for sponges, sharps, and instruments in the surgical field.
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Chapter 38: Wound Care and Irrigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a dressing over a surgical wound created the night before.The dressing has never been changed.How should the nurse proceed?
A)Change the dressing so she can assess the wound.
B)Administer an analgesic 30 to 45 minutes before a dressing change.
C)Culture the wound if wound exudate is present.
D)Administer an analgesic 30 minutes after a dressing change.
Q2) What is an appropriate technique for the nurse to implement for drainage evacuation?
A)Replace the Hemovac drain fully expanded.
B)Attach the drainage tubing to the patient's gown.
C)Tilt the evacuator of the Hemovac away from the plug.
D)Complete the dressing change before the drainage evacuation.
Q3) When should a nurse consider culturing a wound?
A)When the tissue is clean and dry
B)When exudate is not present
C)When the patient is afebrile
D)When the surrounding area shows inflammation
Q4) ___________ are threads of wire or other materials used to sew body tissues together.
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Chapter 39: Dressings, Bandages, and Binders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In caring for a patient who has an abdominal binder, it is expected that the nurse will do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Remove the binder and assess the skin and wound every 8 hours.
B)Evaluate the patient's ability to breathe deeply and cough effectively every 4 hours.
C)Evaluate the patient's pulmonary function every 8 hours.
D)Remove the binder at least daily.
Q2) ___________ healing takes place when tissue is cleanly cut and the margins are reapproximated.
Q3) Which of the following are examples of wounds that heal by secondary intention? (Select all that apply.)
A)Burns
B)Surgical incisions
C)Infected wounds
D)Deep pressure ulcers
Q4) _____________ dressings cover or hold primary dressings in place.
Q5) _______________ dressings are used for wounds that require debridement.
Q6) A __________ dressing comes in direct contact with the wound bed.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Therapeutic Use of Heat and Cold
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________________ blanket raises, lowers, or maintains body temperature through conductive heat or cold transfer between the blanket and the patient.
Q2) You are explaining to the patient the reason why you are using dry heat.Which of the following statements indicates understanding of the advantage of dry heat application for the patient?
A)It maintains temperature changes longer.
B)It reduces drying of the skin.
C)It penetrates tissue layers deeply.
D)It conforms better to body surfaces.
Q3) Besides monitoring the controls on the hypothermia blanket every 30 minutes, the nurse will need to assess the patient's ____________ every 4 hours.
Q4) When applying a hypothermia or hyperthermia blanket, the nurse should:
A)wrap the patient's hands and feet.
B)monitor the patient's axillary temperature every hour.
C)put the patient directly onto the heating or cooling blanket.
D)place the patient onto the blanket and then start the heating or cooling process.
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42
Chapter 41: Home Care Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching an elderly patient about safety in the bathroom, which of the following recommendations should the nurse make?
A)Use bath oils to maintain skin integrity and suppleness.
B)Hang towels on grab bars for easy access.
C)Make sure the bathroom door can be locked from the inside only for privacy.
D)Shower using a shower stool and a handheld sprayer.
Q2) When a caregiver is communicating with a patient, which of the following may facilitate communication? (Select all that apply.)
A)Face the patient who has a hearing impairment.
B)Avoid eye contact.
C)Use simple words.
D)Be aware of nonverbal gestures.
Q3) Which assistive device would most benefit a patient with a neuromuscular weakness?
A)Large-print labels
B)A syringe with a magnifier
C)Screw-top medication containers
D)Color-coded tops for medications
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Chapter 42: Home Care Teaching
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Sample Questions
Q1) What instructions should the nurse provide when teaching the patient and the patient's caregiver how to administer parenteral nutrition (PN)?
A)PN solution should be kept refrigerated until time of administration.
B)Remixing separated mixture components by shaking the bag is common.
C)PN is compatible with most intravenous (IV) medications.
D)Blood glucose monitoring will be necessary.
Q2) The patient is taking Synthroid (a thyroid medication) for hypothyroidism.What should the nurse instruct the patient to do when teaching the patient how to assess her own blood pressure and pulse?
A)Withhold the medication if her blood pressure is above the normal range or if her pulse is over 100 beats per minute.
B)Withhold the medication if her blood pressure is below the normal range or if her pulse is less than 60 beats per minute.
C)Never withhold her medication.Have the patient take it and notify the physician at the next office visit.
D)Withhold her medication only if both her blood pressure and pulse rate are too high.
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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) When collecting specimens, the nurse should: (Select all that apply.)
A)wear gloves and perform hand hygiene.
B)handle excretions discreetly.
C)explain the procedure to the patient.
D)allow patients to collect their own urine specimens.
E)None of above
Q2) The nurse is drawing blood from a patient to determine the blood alcohol level.Which step is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A)Swab the area with an antiseptic swab.
B)Swab the area with an alcohol swab.
C)Do not swab the area at all.
D)Apply the tourniquet for 5 minutes.
Q3) Hemoccult testing helps to reveal blood that is visually undetectable.This test is a useful diagnostic tool for which of the following conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A)Colon cancer
B)Upper gastrointestinal ( GI ) ulcers
C)Localized gastric parasites
D)Large polyps
E)None of above
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to assist with a bone marrow aspiration on a 3-month-old infant.The nurse may expect that the physician will use which site to perform the aspiration?
A)Sternum
B)Anterior iliac crest
C)Proximal tibia
D)Posterior iliac crest
Q2) The removal of a small amount of the liquid organic material in the medullary canals of selected bones, in particular the sternum and the posterior superior iliac crests in adults, is known as _______________.
Q3) The patient will be undergoing moderate intravenous ( IV ) sedation.The nurse needs to assess which of the following during the procedure? (Select all that apply.)
A)Airway compromise
B)Hemodynamic instability
C)Agitation
D)Combativeness
E)None of above
Q4) _____________________ apply manual compression to prevent bleeding at the arterial site.
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