TEST BANK for Psychological Testing: Principles, Applications, and Issues, 9th Edition By Robert M.

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Chapter 01: Introduction 1. According to recent research, growing numbers of four-year colleges are not relying on the SAT test partly because of

a. budget constraints. b. diversity concerns. c. reliability issues. d. quality control.

ANSWER: b 2. Psychological tests a. pertain only to overt behavior. b. always have right or wrong answers. c. do not attempt to measure traits. d. measure characteristics of human behavior.

ANSWER: d 3. The specific stimulus on a test to which a person responds overtly is called a(n) a. overt event. b. answer. c. item. d. scale.

ANSWER: c 4. An individual test a. involves a single examiner for two or more subjects. b. involves only tests of human ability. c. can be given to only one person at a time. d. involves more than one examiner for a single subject.

ANSWER: c 5. A group test a. can be given to multiple people by one examiner. b. can be given to only three people at a time. c. involves a group of examiners for a single subject. d. involves only tests of human ability.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 01: Introduction 6. Previous learning can best be described as a. achievement. b. aptitude. c. intelligence. d. ability.

ANSWER: a 7. The potential for learning a specific skill can best be described as a. achievement. b. aptitude. c. intelligence. d. ability.

ANSWER: b 8. One’s general potential, independent of prior learning, can best be described as a. achievement. b. aptitude. c. intelligence. d. ability.

ANSWER: c 9. Achievement, aptitude, and intelligence can be encompassed by the term a. human potential. b. human traits. c. human personality. d. human ability.

ANSWER: d 10. Structured personality tests a. require you to produce something spontaneously. b. require you to choose between two or more alternative responses. c. involve an ambiguous test stimulus about which the response is structured. d. involve an ambiguous test response.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 01: Introduction 11. The main purpose of psychological testing is to evaluate a. covert behavior. b. individual differences. c. personality traits. d. overt behavior.

ANSWER: b 12. Projective personality tests a. provide a statement, usually of the self-report variety. b. require the subject to choose between two or more alternative responses. c. are unstructured. d. are structured.

ANSWER: c 13. Tests that measure an individual’s typical behavior are called a. ability tests. b. personality tests. c. intelligence tests. d. group tests.

ANSWER: b 14. Tests that provide a statement, usually of the self-report variety, and require the subject to choose between two or more alternative responses, are called a. group tests.

b. individual tests. c. structured personality tests. d. projective personality tests.

ANSWER: c 15. Personality tests in which the test stimulus and/or required response are ambiguous are called a. projective personality tests. b. structured personality tests. c. individual personality tests. d. achievement personality tests.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 01: Introduction 16. Which of the following is true of tests? a. Tests produce explicit data that are subject to scientific study. b. Tests are successful in separating prior learning from potential for learning. c. Very few tests can actually predict behavior. d. Tests can provide insight into overt but not covert behavior.

ANSWER: a 17. Which of the following relates raw test scores to theoretical or empirical distributions? a. Transforms b. Reliability c. Scales d. Theories ANSWER: c 18. The general potential to solve problems, adapt, and profit from experience is called a. ability. b. achievement. c. prediction. d. intelligence.

ANSWER: d 19. Which of the following is the most important function of testing? a. To determine what sort of treatment or other intervention is appropriate b. To develop accurate portraits of individuals c. To discriminate among related constructs d. To differentiate among individuals taking the test ANSWER: d 20. When you gather information through verbal interaction, you are using a(n) a. individual test. b. interview. c. group test. d. brainstorming.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 01: Introduction 21. If one can depend upon the results of a particular test to be consistently accurate, the test can be said to be a. valid. b. structured. c. unambiguous. d. reliable.

ANSWER: d 22. A test that yields dependable and consistent results is ____. a. meaningful b. objective c. reliable d. valid ANSWER: c 23. The validity of a psychological test refers to its a. dependability. b. meaning. c. objectivity. d. fairness.

ANSWER: b 24. If a particular test “X” is designed to measure success in a particular job, and it is accurate and useful for that purpose, then the test is said to be a. valid.

b. structured. c. ambiguous. d. reliable.

ANSWER: a 25. Test administration refers to the a. construction of the test. b. validation of the test. c. act of taking a test. d. act of giving a test.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 01: Introduction 26. What evolutionary constructs did Galton apply in his book Hereditary Genius? a. Genetics and epigenetics b. Survival of the fittest and individual differences c. Random differences and population variation d. Evolution and selective breeding ANSWER: b 27. The origins of testing can be traced to a. Egypt. b. England. c. China. d. Russia.

ANSWER: c 28. The use of test batteries was common by the time of the a. Ling Dynasty. b. Han Dynasty. c. Tam Dynasty. d. Nam Dynasty.

ANSWER: b 29. Two or more tests that are given together and relate seemingly diverse topics are called a. structured. b. unstructured. c. batteries. d. portfolios.

ANSWER: c 30. Sir Francis Galton set out to show a. that some humans possessed characteristics that made them more fit than other humans. b. that humans did not differ significantly from each other. c. that life evolved on this planet partially because of individual differences among individual forms of life within a species or type of animal.

d. that the concept of survival of the fittest was essentially incorrect.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 01: Introduction 31. The term mental test was coined by a. Charles Darwin. b. Sir Francis Galton. c. Alfred Binet. d. James M. Cattell.

ANSWER: d 32. The work of Weber and Fechner represents which foundation of psychological testing? a. Individual differences b. Psychophysical measurement c. Survival of the fittest d. Darwinian evolution ANSWER: b 33. Which of the following scientists is credited with founding the science of psychology? a. Herbart b. Wundt c. Weber d. Cattell ANSWER: b 34. The first version of the Binet-Simon scale was published in a. 1896. b. 1905. c. 1908. d. 1911.

ANSWER: b 35. Which test represented a major breakthrough in the measurement of cognitive ability? a. Binet-Simon Scale b. Sequin Form Board Test c. Strong Vocational Interest Bank d. Carnegie Interest Inventory ANSWER: a

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Chapter 01: Introduction 36. It is important to obtain a standardization sample a. to prevent bias in the development and scoring of the test. b. to provide a reference sample to which the results of a new subject can be compared. c. to separate the intellectually subnormal from the normal individual. d. to ensure the representativeness of a sample.

ANSWER: b 37. The first intelligence tests were developed for the purpose of a. identifying gifted children. b. finding the most suitable candidates for the U.S. Army. c. measuring emotional instability. d. identifying intellectually subnormal individuals.

ANSWER: d 38. In order to establish norms, a large group of people is being given a test under the same conditions in which the test will actually be used. This group is called a(n) ____ group. a. reliability

b. standardization c. random d. experimental ANSWER: b 39. A standardization sample is representative if the sample a. has been subjected to rigorous experimental control. b. consists of individuals who are similar to the group to be tested. c. consists of a great many individuals. d. is administered in the same way as the actual test group will be.

ANSWER: b 40. When a test is administered to the general population, norms should be established using a representative sample that a. has been administered the test under standard conditions. b. has been chosen in a completely random fashion. c. represents all segments of the population in proportion to their numbers. d. is comprised of a great many individuals.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 01: Introduction 41. Administering a test with precisely the same instructions and format is giving it under a. normative conditions. b. standard conditions. c. facilitative conditions. d. group administration.

ANSWER: b 42. Dr. Johnson is trying to establish norms for his new test. He determined that 50% of the people in the population are Hispanic, 20% are Caucasian, 15% are Asian, and 15% are African American. He uses the same proportions when he creates a a. valid test.

b. representative sample. c. random sample. d. test population.

ANSWER: b 43. The successful revision of the Stanford-Binet intelligence scale for use in the United States was developed by a. A. Binet. b. T. Simon. c. A. Binet and T. Simon. d. L. M. Terman.

ANSWER: d 44. The concept of mental age was introduced in a. 1905. b. 1908. c. 1911. d. 1916.

ANSWER: b 45. Eight-year-old Daniel was administered the Binet-Simon Scale, and the results suggested that he was functioning at the same level as an average senior in high school. This is an example of a(n) a. outcome measure.

b. mental age scale. c. restandardization. d. norm.

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Chapter 01: Introduction 46. A child’s mental age a. cannot be determined independently of the child’s chronological age. b. provides a measurement of a child’s performance relative to other children of a particular age group. c. cannot be determined from a child’s test score. d. can only be determined from large representative samples.

ANSWER: b 47. The use of standardized tests after World War I culminated with the publication of the a. Stanford Binet Test. b. Stanford Achievement Test. c. Army Beta. d. Army Alpha.

ANSWER: b 48. The first group tests of human abilities were developed for a. screening intellectually subnormal schoolchildren. b. selecting soldiers to fight for the United States in World War I. c. selecting pilots for advanced training in World War II. d. evaluating which students should be admitted to public universities.

ANSWER: b 49. Which of the following is a group test of human ability for an adult that does NOT require the subject to be literate? a. Army Alpha b. Sequin Form Board c. Army Beta d. Wechsler-Bellevue Intelligence Scale ANSWER: c 50. Robert Yerkes led the team of psychologists that developed the a. Army Alpha and Army Beta. b. Seguin Form Board. c. Wechsler-Bellevue Intelligence Scale. d. Yerkes Personal Data Sheet.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 01: Introduction 51. Which of the following tests produced both a verbal and a performance IQ? a. Terman’s Stanford-Binet b. The 1908 Binet-Simon Scale c. The Army Beta d. The Wechsler-Bellevue Scale ANSWER: d 52. A trait is ____. a. dependent upon the situation b. defined as the motivating force behind behavior c. strongly impacted by changes in the environment d. an enduring disposition that distinguishes one individual from another ANSWER: d 53. The first structured personality test was the a. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory. b. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet. c. Thematic Apperception Test. d. 16 Personality Factors test.

ANSWER: b 54. A major problem with the Woodworth Personal Data Sheet was that a. it assumed the answers were acceptable at face value. b. the normative sample was too small. c. it was difficult to administer. d. there were too few questions.

ANSWER: a 55. Structured personality tests became unpopular in the 1930s and 1940s because they a. were difficult to administer. b. were too subjective. c. were not standardized. d. relied on the face value of responses.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 01: Introduction 56. Which of the following is an example of a trait? a. Depression b. Fear c. Pessimism d. Anger ANSWER: c 57. The Rorschach was introduced into the United States by a. Henry Murray. b. Herman Rorschach. c. Sam Beck. d. David Levy.

ANSWER: d 58. The Rorschach presents ambiguous stimuli to an individual who then provides his or her own personal interpretation.

This is an example of what kind of test? a. Structured

b. Projective c. Intelligence d. Abilities ANSWER: b 59. Who is associated with the development of the TAT? a. Murray & Morgan b. Terman & Binet c. Levy & Beck d. Morgan & Beck ANSWER: a 60. Which of the following are both projective tests? a. The Rorschach and the MMPI b. The Rorschach and the TAT c. The Rorschach and the Woodworth Personal Data Sheet d. The TAT and MMPI ANSWER: b

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Chapter 01: Introduction 61. Which of the following tests is purported to measure human needs? a. 16PF b. TAT c. MMPI d. Rorschach ANSWER: b 62. Who developed the Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire? a. J. R. Guilford b. R. B. Cattell c. L. L. Thurstone d. Sam Beck ANSWER: b 63. The first attempt to apply factor analytic techniques to test construction was made by a. Sam Beck. b. R. B. Cattell. c. Henry Murray. d. J. R. Guilford.

ANSWER: d 64. A method for finding the minimum number of dimensions to account for a large number of variables is called a. correlational analysis. b. multiple regression. c. factor analysis. d. analysis of variance.

ANSWER: c 65. Factor analytic techniques were employed in the development of the a. MMPI. b. CPI. c. TAT. d. 16PF. ANSWER: d

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Chapter 01: Introduction 66. The Shakow report emphasized that a. most personality tests were invalid. b. IQ tests should not be used to place children in special classes. c. testing is a unique function of clinical psychologists. d. all tests must have normative samples.

ANSWER: c 67. By 1949, formal university training standards led to the birth of a. factor analysis. b. clinical psychology. c. the MMPI. d. psychological tests.

ANSWER: b 68. The most widely used and referenced personality test is the a. MMPI. b. TAT. c. Rorschach. d. Wechsler-Bellevue Intelligence Scale.

ANSWER: a 69. Today, psychological testing a. is regarded as having little room for improvement. b. remains one of the most important yet controversial issues. c. is mostly ignored because insurance companies will not pay for it. d. is losing its credibility.

ANSWER: b 70. Which individual developed tests to evaluate persons with emotional impairments? a. Galton b. Seguin c. Kraepelin d. Weber ANSWER: c

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Chapter 01: Introduction 71. Which of the following contributed to the popularity of standardized achievement tests? a. Their objectivity and ease of administration and scoring b. Their ability to measure learning independently of intelligence c. Their relationship to objective measures of neurological functioning d. Their importance to psychological theories ANSWER: a 72. Which of the following is one criticism of early personality tests? a. The tests made too few assumptions about the meaning of a test response. b. The questions were too complex to grade objectively. c. The tests did not accurately reflect modern testing theories. d. The test taker and the test administrator may have different interpretations of the questions.

ANSWER: d 73. Which of the following tests was developed based on the idea that empirical research would help determine the meaning of each response? a. TAT

b. MMPI c. 16PF d. CPI ANSWER: b 74. In what settings are psychological tests most likely to be found today? What role does psychological testing play in contemporary society and how has this role changed since the inception of testing?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

75. Trace the rise and fall of testing in the last century. Make note of significant historical events that played a part in the development of testing as a major field.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

76. Describe the difference between measuring traits and state. Give examples of each from your life experience.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

77. Describe the evolution of intelligence testing. What was the original purpose of intelligence testing and how is it used now? How has the modern cultural context influenced intelligence testing?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 01: Introduction 78. Which of the following is NOT a group that standardized tests tend to disadvantage? a. Women b. Students from low-income households c. Younger students d. Ethnic minorities ANSWER: c 79. Understanding concepts such as reliability, validity, item analysis, and test construction requires careful study and knowledge of a. psychology.

b. the history of testing. c. test administration. d. statistics.

ANSWER: d 80. _______ is always associated with a sampling process. a. Randomization b. Error c. Factor analysis d. Testing ANSWER: b 81. These types of tests contain items that can be scored in terms of speed, accuracy, or both. a. Ability tests b. Personality tests c. Structured personality tests d. Individual tests ANSWER: a 82. All of the following are types of ability tests EXCEPT for a. achievement tests. b. aptitude tests. c. personality tests. d. intelligence tests.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 01: Introduction 83. Which of the following is a method for collecting data that complement test results? a. The interview b. The Rorschach c. Test batteries d. Standardization ANSWER: a 84. In 1883, the U.S. government established this commission to develop and administer competitive examinations for certain government jobs: a. American Educational Testing Commission

b. American Civil Service Commission c. Federal Employment Screening Commission d. Federal Employment Selection Commission ANSWER: b 85. Whose mathematical models of the mind strongly influenced 19th-century educational practices? a. G. T. Fechner b. E. H. Weber c. G. Whipple d. J. E. Herbart ANSWER: d 86. Explain why just knowing the percentage of correct items on a test can be misleading for understanding a participant’s performance. How have psychologists dealt with these issues of interpretation?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

87. Explain how we came to understand the concept of individual differences. Which major scientists and publications originally theorized about this concept?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 1. When you assert that it is improbable that the mean intelligence test score of a particular group is 100, you are ____. a. using exploratory data analysis b. using a data scale c. determining the reliability of the data d. making an inference ANSWER: d 2. Statistical procedures that summarize and describe a series of observations are called a. inferential statistics. b. descriptive statistics. c. scales. d. ratios.

ANSWER: b 3. Statistical procedures that allow one to make inferences about large groups by examining a smaller sample are called a. populations. b. descriptive statistics. c. inferential statistics. d. ratios.

ANSWER: c 4. Which of the following evaluates data against rigid statistical rules? a. Confirmatory data analysis b. Tests of statistical significance c. Factor analysis d. Psychometrics ANSWER: a 5. Exploratory data analysis involves the process of a. making theoretical assumptions. b. computing reliability and validity. c. evaluating evidence using statistics. d. gathering and displaying evidence.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 6. Scales of measurement differ from one another in terms of a. magnitude, absolute measurement, and equal intervals. b. magnitude, relative zero, and equal intervals. c. numbers, relative zero, and equal intervals. d. magnitude, absolute zero, and equal intervals.

ANSWER: d 7. Which of the following scales has the properties of magnitude, absolute zero, and equal intervals? a. Ordinal b. Interval c. Nominal d. Ratio ANSWER: d 8. A scale that allows one to determine only if there is more, less, or an equal amount of the attribute in comparison to another observation is called a(n) ____ scale. a. nominal

b. ordinal c. interval d. ratio ANSWER: b 9. A property of a scale that implies the complete absence of the measured attribute is called a(n) a. magnitude. b. absolute zero. c. equal interval. d. ratio.

ANSWER: b 10. Many feel that the difference between an IQ of 100 and 105 is not the same as the difference between an IQ of 70 and 75. These people feel that IQ tests lack ____. a. absolute zeroes

b. magnitudes c. ratios d. equal intervals ANSWER: d

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 11. Which of the following scales would be used when the information is qualitative rather than quantitative? a. Ordinal b. Interval c. Nominal d. Ratio ANSWER: c 12. When the relationship between the unit of measurement of a scale (strength) and an outcome (pounds lifted) can be described by a linear equation Y = a + bX, the scale is said to have what property? a. Magnitude

b. Equal intervals c. Absolute zero d. Nominal ANSWER: b 13. The speedometer on your car uses what kind of scale measurement? a. Nominal b. Ordinal c. Interval d. Ratio ANSWER: d 14. A scale that allows us to rank individuals or objects, but not to say anything about the meaning of the differences between the ranks, is a(n) a. nominal scale.

b. ordinal scale. c. interval scale. d. ratio scale.

ANSWER: b 15. The Fahrenheit scale of temperature (32°F = freezing; 212°F = boiling) is best described as a. nominal. b. ordinal. c. interval. d. ratio.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 16. In which scales can you make meaningful interpretation of an arithmetic operation such as addition? a. Nominal scale and ordinal scale b. Ordinal scale and interval scale c. Interval scale and nominal scale d. Ratio scale and interval scale ANSWER: d 17. Which type of scale simply ranks observations? a. Nominal b. Ordinal c. Interval d. Ratio ANSWER: b 18. An equal interval scale is found on which of the following? a. A list of telephone numbers b. A ruler c. A ranking of National Football League team standings d. A student’s IQ score report ANSWER: b 19. What do the rules used in measurement do? a. Transform the qualities of attributes into numbers b. Identify and correct for potential sources of bias c. Relate individual scores to those of the normative populations d. Allow for the determination of reliability and validity ANSWER: a 20. If a scale allows one to say whether a particular instance has more, less, or the same amount of an attribute as another instance, the scale is said to have a. cross-validity.

b. measurement. c. magnitude. d. comparativity.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 21. If the relationship between a scale’s measured units and some outcome can be described by a straight line or linear equation, the scale is said to have a. predictive validity.

b. magnitude. c. linear significance. d. equal intervals.

ANSWER: d 22. Which type of scale does not have magnitude, does not have equal intervals, and does not have an absolute zero? a. Ordinal b. Nominal c. Ratio d. Interval ANSWER: b 23. Which type of scale has magnitude and equal intervals but does not have an absolute zero? a. Ordinal b. Nominal c. Ratio d. Interval ANSWER: d 24. Which of the following is a permissible operation for nominal data? a. Multiplication of data points b. Creation of frequency distributions c. Comparison of scores to determine relative quantities d. Rank-ordering the individual scores ANSWER: b 25. Which of the following is an accurate description of percentile ranks? a. They are the ratio of the number of cases below a score of interest to the total number of cases. b. They are a measurement of the extent to which scores are normally distributed. c. They must be computed in order to use most statistical analysis techniques. d. While they are useful in describing nominal scales, they cannot be used with interval and ratio scales.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 26. Which of the following is true of percentiles? a. They are the inverse of percentile ranks. b. They indicate what percentage of scores fall below a given score. c. They describe the relationship of test scores to the hypothesized constructs. d. They divide the total frequency for a set of observations into hundredths.

ANSWER: d 27. In a frequency distribution, the scores, from lowest to highest, are typically arranged a. on the horizontal axis. b. on the vertical axis. c. in the legend. d. in the title.

ANSWER: a 28. There are more people with incomes on the low end as compared to the high end. What kind of distribution does this illustrate? a. Normal

b. Positively skewed c. Negatively skewed d. Bell curve ANSWER: b 29. In order to rank group members in relationship to the number of other members of groups of arbitrary size, you would use the a. class interval.

b. simple rank. c. percentile rank. d. mean.

ANSWER: c 30. In order to calculate a percentile rank, you need to know a. how many cases are below the score of interest. b. whether the distribution is normal or skewed. c. the standard deviation of the scores. d. the nature of the underlying scale.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 31. Suppose there were 50 people in your class and you obtained the 20th highest score. Your percentile rank would be a. 20. b. 40. c. 50. d. 60.

ANSWER: d 32. A percentile rank is a measure of a. actual performance. b. relative performance. c. absolute performance. d. peak performance.

ANSWER: b 33. Suppose you are in the 87th percentile on a test. This means a. you are among the top 13 students in the class. b. 87% of the students got a score lower than yours. c. you got 87% of the test items correct. d. 87% of the students got a score higher than yours.

ANSWER: b 34. Calculate the mean for the following set of scores: 4, 8, 3, 7. a. 3.0 b. 4.5 c. 5.5 d. 6.0 ANSWER: c 35. In statistics, the Roman letter S refers to a. the variance of a population. b. the variance of a sample. c. the standard deviation of a population. d. the standard deviation of a sample.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 36. The standard deviation a. reflects the similarity among a set of scores. b. equals the sum of all scores minus the mean squared. c. is an approximation of the average deviation around the mean. d. always equals 0.

ANSWER: c 37. A measure of how much scores within a distribution differ among themselves is the a. mean. b. frequency. c. variance. d. median.

ANSWER: c 38. If you are given X̅= 57 and S = 4, what is the variance? a. 2.0 b. 14.25 c. 16.0 d. 30.5 ANSWER: c

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 39. Which of the following set of scores contains the most variability? a. 15 15 15 15 15 15

b. 3 4 3 4 3 4

c. 1 4 2 5 1 6

d. 25 27 25 27 25 27

ANSWER: c 40. A Z score a. is the difference between a raw score and the sample mean, divided by the standard deviation. b. is always a positive number. c. is a measure of the standard normal distribution. d. is the standard deviation of a population.

ANSWER: a 41. In a distribution where X = 21 and S = 3, what is the Z score of a raw score of 15? a. −12 b. −2 c. 2 d. 12 ANSWER: b

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 42. When deviation scores around the mean are added up, their mean will be a. indeterminate. b. <0. c. 0. d. >0.

ANSWER: c 43. In a symmetrical binomial probability distribution, the greatest frequency of scores is near the a. ends of the distribution. b. center of the distribution. c. top of the distribution. d. bottom of the distribution.

ANSWER: b 44. If a score is equal to the mean, its Z score will be a. <0. b. exactly 0. c. >0. d. impossible to calculate.

ANSWER: b 45. A Z score of 1.0 is associated with approximately the a. 16th percentile. b. 50th percentile. c. 75th percentile. d. 84th percentile.

ANSWER: d 46. The square root of the variance is the a. true variance. b. standard deviation. c. mean. d. variability of the population.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 47. One advantage of using Z scores is that a. they are always positive. b. they can show the effects of test bias. c. they are standardized units. d. they allow the researcher to manipulate information.

ANSWER: c 48. A Z score of 0 would correspond to approximately what percentile? a. 0 b. 1 c. 16 d. 50 ANSWER: d 49. A Z score of 3 is approximately how many standard deviations above the mean? a. 0 b. 3 c. 6 d. 99 ANSWER: b 50. A Z score of −1 would correspond to approximately what percentile? a. 0 b. 16 c. 50 d. 84 ANSWER: b 51. A score at the 98th percentile is approximately how many standard deviations above the mean? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 98 ANSWER: c

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 52. A score at the 50th percentile is approximately how many standard deviations above the mean? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 50 ANSWER: a 53. McCall’s T scores have a. a mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1. b. a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 2. c. a mean of 10 and a standard deviation of 2. d. a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10.

ANSWER: d 54. Approximately what percentage of scores falls below the mean in a standard normal distribution? a. 1% b. 16% c. 34% d. 50% ANSWER: d 55. In the standard normal distribution, a. most of the scores cluster on the ends of the distribution. b. more scores fall above the mean than below the mean. c. more scores fall below the mean than above the mean. d. approximately 95% of all scores fall between plus and minus two standard deviations from the mean.

ANSWER: d 56. Distributions of scores can be divided into how many equal deciles? a. 5 b. 9 c. 10 d. 25 ANSWER: c

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 57. A raw score is also called a(n) a. estimated score. b. predicted score. c. sigma. d. obtained score.

ANSWER: d 58. Interquartile range is bounded by the a. bottom 25% of the distribution. b. middle 25% of the distribution. c. middle 50% of the distribution. d. top 50% of the distribution.

ANSWER: c 59. When discussing scores in terms of quartiles, three-fourths of all scores in a distribution fall a. below Q2. b. above Q2. c. below Q3. d. above Q3.

ANSWER: c 60. What scoring system is standardized to have a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of approximately 2? a. Decile b. McCall’s T c. Stanine d. Quartile ANSWER: c 61. Within the quartile system, the second quartile is the a. 20th percentile. b. 50th percentile. c. 75th percentile. d. 80th percentile.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 62. If you score in the upper quartile, a. you scored in the 25th percentile. b. you scored in the 75th percentile or higher. c. three-fourths of the others scored better than you.. d. 60% of the others scored better than you.

ANSWER: b 63. The mean of a standardization sample is a. zero. b. a norm. c. the same for every sample. d. always a Z score.

ANSWER: b 64. The performance by a defined group on a particular test is called a(n) a. quartile. b. median. c. norm. d. tracking score.

ANSWER: c 65. Suppose that a doctor weighs your child and finds her to be in the 25th percentile for weight at age 2. The doctor rechecks your child every few months to be sure that she is staying near the 25th percentile. This is an example of a. tracking.

b. leafing. c. quartiles. d. percentile monitoring.

ANSWER: a 66. Comparing an individual’s test score only with members of his or her own racial group is an example of a. tracking. b. within-group norming. c. norm monitoring. d. criterion monitoring.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 67. The Triple ZZZ Corporation had 87% black male employees. However, only 50% of the applicant pool was composed of black males. This is an example of a. translocation.

b. normalization. c. overselection. d. representativeness.

ANSWER: c 68. In the Civil Rights Act of 1991, Section 106, a. within-group norming was made legal. b. employers were prohibited from using test scores in hiring decisions. c. within-group norming was made illegal. d. employers were prohibited from transforming test scores.

ANSWER: c 69. A test that compares each person with a norm is called a a. transformed test. b. criterion-referenced test. c. norm-referenced test. d. within-group norming test.

ANSWER: c 70. Jennifer took a test in school that indicated that she was meeting the learning targets for reading but not for math. She probably took what kind of test? a. Criterion-referenced

b. Norm-referenced c. Personality d. Projective ANSWER: a 71. Logical deductions about events that cannot be observed directly are referred to as a. data. b. inferences. c. statistics. d. distributions.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 72. Which type of scale does not permit mathematical manipulations? a. Nominal b. Ordinal c. Ratio d. Interval ANSWER: a 73. A researcher tracks the weights of babies born in a particular hospital. She identifies the number of babies falling in each of the following weight classes: 0–2 lbs, 2.1–4 lbs, 4.1–6 lbs, 6.1–8 lbs, 8.1–10 lbs. A graph of this information is called a(n) a. standard deviation.

b. norming distribution. c. interval scale. d. frequency distribution.

ANSWER: d 74. A researcher tracks the weights of babies born in a particular hospital. She identifies the number of babies falling in each of the following weight classes: 0–2 lbs, 2.1–4 lbs, 4.1–6 lbs, 6.1–8 lbs, 8.1–10 lbs. What is the class interval for this frequency distribution? a. 0

b. 10 c. 2 d. 1 ANSWER: c 75. The particular score below which a defined percentage of scores falls is known as a a. ratio. b. Z score. c. percentile rank. d. percentile.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 76. The mean of a distribution of Z scores is always a. 50 b. 0 c. equal to the mean of the raw score squared. d. 1 ANSWER: b 77. One difference between distributions of Z scores and distributions of T scores is that they do not have the same a. skew. b. frequency. c. mean. d. magnitude.

ANSWER: c 78. The second quartile is also the a. mean. b. median. c. interquartile range. d. 25th percentile.

ANSWER: b 79. Develop an example of each of the following scales: nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

80. Explain why the mean of a distribution of Z scores is equal to 0.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

81. Compare and contrast norm-referenced and criterion-referenced tests.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

82. Compute the percentile rank for each of the following scores. Show your work.

17, 42, 36, 9, 11, 24, 23, 44, 41, 29 ANSWER: Answer not provided.

83. Explain the process of standardization. Why is it that any system of standardization works equally well?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 02: Norms and Basic Statistics for Testing 84. List the steps for going from raw scores to stanines.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 1. A scatter diagram is a a. bivariate plot of individual data points. b. univariate plot of individual data points. c. form of the stem and leaf display. d. method of calculating variance.

ANSWER: a 2. Each point on a scatter diagram shows a. the variance of a set of scores. b. the standard deviation of a set of scores. c. where an individual scored compared to the mean. d. where an individual scored on both X and Y. ANSWER: d 3. Diagrams that use a single point to show a person’s scores on two measures are called ____ plots. a. validity b. regression c. scatter d. normality ANSWER: c 4. What do scatter diagrams do? a. Allow visualization of the relationship between two variables b. Create an objective measure of reliability c. Relate univariate observations to bivariate distributions d. Demonstrate the statistical validity of measures ANSWER: a 5. If the line that comes closest to all points in a scatter diagram is perfectly straight, the correlation between the two variables is a. linear.

b. curvilinear. c. positive. d. unknown.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 6. The observation that Y decreases as X increases suggests a. a positive correlation. b. no correlation. c. a negative correlation. d. a curvilinear correlation.

ANSWER: c 7. In a negative correlation, a. individuals tend to maintain the same or a similar relative performance. b. scores on one variable tell us nothing about scores on a second. c. individuals who score low on one variable tend to score low on a second. d. high scores on the X variable are associated with low scores on the Y variable.

ANSWER: d 8. The correlation equals +1 for which of the following four pairs of numbers? a. (−2, −4), (0, 0), (2, 4), (4, 8) b. (0, 0), (1, 1), (2, 4), (3, 9) c. (−2, −9), (0, −5), (2, –1), (4, 3) d. (−2, −2), (0, −5), (2, −1), (4, −9) ANSWER: a 9. Correlation measures the magnitude and ____ of a relationship. a. strength b. consistency c. direction d. regression ANSWER: c 10. Correlation coefficients describe the a. degree of linearity of relation between X and Y. b. mean of X and Y. c. direction and magnitude of relationship between X and Y. d. causality of relationships between X and Y. ANSWER: c

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 11. People who drink more caffeinated beverages tend to experience more alertness and psychomotor activity. This demonstrates a(n) a. positive correlation.

b. negative correlation. c. zero correlation. d. unknown.

ANSWER: a 12. Which of the following correlations represents the strongest relationship between two variables? a. −.85 b. .01 c. .50 d. .80 ANSWER: a 13. Given the following ordered pairs, you can infer that the correlation is most likely 87 76 32 12 12 a. positive. b. negative. c. zero. d. perfect.

ANSWER: a 14. If the scores on X give us no information about the scores on Y, the sets of scores likely have a. a positive correlation. b. a negative correlation. c. no correlation. d. curvilinear correlation.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 15. In correlation analysis, we ask whether two variables a. can be measured. b. experience regression. c. have a causal relationship. d. covary.

ANSWER: b 16. Which of the following is true of correlations? a. They cannot be used to determine statistical significance. b. They provide the basis for transforming observations to scales. c. They are particularly useful with nominal scales. d. They describe the direction and magnitude of relationships between two variables.

ANSWER: d 17. The best-fitting straight line through a set of points in a scatter diagram is known as the a. regression line. b. linear line. c. correlation line. d. perfect correlation.

ANSWER: a 18. What is the point of least squares for the set of scores [4, 6, 8, 10]? a. Indeterminate b. 4 c. 7 d. 10 ANSWER: c 19. What is the point of least squares for the set of scores [2, 7, 8, 11]? a. Indeterminate b. 4 c. 7 d. 10 ANSWER: c

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 20. Suppose that you have two variables, one with a mean of 15 and another with a mean of 19. If you know only that one person’s score on the first variable is 14, the best prediction of that person’s score on the other is a. 0.

b. 15. c. 19. d. indeterminate.

ANSWER: c 21. In general, a regression line is used to a. make a prediction about a person’s score on one variable, based on the person’s score on a different variable.

b. assess the magnitude of the relationship between two variables, based on sets of scores from the same people.

c. assess the direction of the relationship between two variables, based on sets of scores from the same people. d. determine whether results of a study are statistically significant, based on a sample from the population.

ANSWER: a 22. The principle of least squares minimizes the squared deviation a. at the intercept. b. of positive correlations but not negative correlations. c. of the slope. d. around the regression line.

ANSWER: d 23. A common use of correlation is to provide evidence for a. criterion validity. b. face validity. c. a normative sample. d. a scatter plot.

ANSWER: a 24. In the linear equation Y´ = a + bX, “a” is called a. the regression coefficient. b. the intercept. c. the actual score. d. the predicted score.

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 25. When you know nothing about a person’s academic ability and have to make an estimate, the best strategy is to make the prediction based on the a. mean of a known sample.

b. Z scores of each person in the sample. c. criterion scores. d. correlation coefficient.

ANSWER: a 26. In the linear equation Y´ = a + bX, “b” is called the a. slope. b. intercept. c. actual score. d. predicted score.

ANSWER: a 27. In the formula Y´ = a + bX, Y´ is the a. regression coefficient. b. raw score of Y. c. predicted value of Y. d. intercept.

ANSWER: c 28. The point at which the regression line crosses the Y axis is the a. slope. b. regression coefficient. c. predicted value of X. d. intercept.

ANSWER: d 29. The intercept is the a. value obtained using the equation to predict scores. b. slope of the regression line. c. value of Y when X is zero. d. standard deviation of the set of scores.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 30. Suppose that we are given the regression equation, Y´ = 12 + .80X. If we observe an X score of 2, what score on Y would we expect? a. 8

b. 10.4 c. 13.6 d. 16.4 ANSWER: c 31. The difference between the observed and predicted score is a. the residual. b. the intercept. c. the Z score. d. correlation coefficient.

ANSWER: a 32. What describes how much change is expected in Y each time X increases by one unit? a. Intercept b. Slope c. Correlation coefficient d. Covariance ANSWER: b 33. The correlation coefficient can take any value from a. −1.0 to 1.0. b. 0 to 1.0. c. −1.0 to 0. d. 1.0 to 10.0.

ANSWER: a 34. A correlation of .80 suggests that a. the scores on X and Y are not related. b. standardized scores on the Y axis are expected to be .8 times the corresponding scores on the X axis. c. scores on Y will be 80% larger than corresponding scores on X. d. the differences between X and Y are statistically nonsignificant.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 35. If the correlation between X and Y is 0 and we observe a score (in Z units) of 1.5 on X, what score would be predicted for Y? a. −1.5

b. −.75 c. 0 d. 1.5 ANSWER: c 36. If the correlation between X and Y is .60 and we observe a score of 1.0 (Z units) on X, what score would be predicted for Y? a. −1.2

b. 0 c. 0.6 d. 1.6 ANSWER: c 37. Correlation coefficients can be tested for significance using the a. Z distribution. b. t distribution. c. principle of least squares. d. regression distribution.

ANSWER: b 38. The Pearson product moment ____ is a ratio to determine the degree of variation in one variable that can be estimated from knowledge about variation in the other variable. a. residual

b. variable c. coefficient d. correlation ANSWER: d

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 39. Assume that X and Y correlate .6, are in Z score form, and that a particular value of X is 1. What is the predicted value of Y? a. 0

b. .4 c. .6 d. 1 ANSWER: c 40. Assume that X and Y correlate .4, are in Z score form, and that a particular value of X is 1. What is the predicted value of Y? a. 0

b. .4 c. .6 d. 1 ANSWER: b 41. If the regression between X and Y is less than perfect, a. predicted values of Y are relatively further from the mean of Y than observed values of X are to the mean of X.

b. predicted values of Y are relatively closer to the mean of Y than observed values of X are to the mean of X. c. values of Y cannot be predicted from observations of X. d. observed values of X are relatively closer to the mean of X than predicted values of Y are to the mean of Y. ANSWER: b 42. Regression plots are pictures showing a. the relationship between variables. b. cause and effect. c. the null hypothesis. d. residuals.

ANSWER: a 43. What is regression typically used for? a. The researcher uses it to find the statistical significance of correlations. b. The researcher uses it to convert raw scores to t scores. c. The researcher uses it to make predictions about scores based on other scores. d. The researcher uses it to create linear relationships for transforms.

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 44. Which of the following is also the slope of the regression line? a. The regression coefficient b. The intercept c. The relative covariance d. The best fit ANSWER: a 45. Which of the following is true of the best-fitting line? a. It establishes statistical significance. b. It increases as the correlation decreases. c. It is rarely useful for prediction. d. It minimizes residuals.

ANSWER: d 46. Which of the following is used to test the statistical significance of correlations? a. The regression line b. The t distribution c. The coefficient of relatedness d. The slope and the intercept ANSWER: b 47. John is asked to predict Janae’s IQ score, but he knows nothing about her. John should predict Janae’s IQ is 100 (which is the average IQ score), because he is relying on what kind of data? a. Normative

b. Regressive c. Correlational d. Transformative ANSWER: a 48. Which of the following is a dichotomous variable? a. Football players’ numbers b. Weight c. Time d. Whether you are currently married ANSWER: d

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 49. An appropriate correlation coefficient to show the relationship between two artificially dichotomous variables is the a. biserial correlation. b. phi coefficient. c. tetrachoric correlation. d. point biserial correlation.

ANSWER: c 50. To assess the relationship between intelligence and passing or failing this exam, you should compute the a. point biserial correlation. b. Pearson r. c. biserial correlation. d. tetrachoric correlation.

ANSWER: c 51. Which of the following is an artificially dichotomous variable? a. Favorite ice cream flavor b. Weight c. Success (pass/fail) on a final exam d. GPA ANSWER: c 52. To see the correlation between two true dichotomous variables, you should compute a. Spearman’s rho. b. the point biserial correlation. c. the phi coefficient. d. the biserial correlation.

ANSWER: c 53. One formula for the correlation between a continuous variable and an artificially dichotomized variable is a. Spearman’s rank order formula. b. the point biserial correlation. c. the phi coefficient. d. the biserial correlation.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 54. The type of correlation coefficient used to find the association between two sets of ranks is called a. Spearman’s rho. b. the point biserial correlation. c. the phi coefficient. d. factor loading.

ANSWER: a 55. In order to determine the relationship between a true dichotomous variable and a continuous variable, one would compute a. the phi coefficient.

b. the point biserial correlation. c. Spearman’s rho. d. the Pearson r.

ANSWER: b 56. Which of the following is used to show the relationship between a true dichotomous variable and a continuous variable? a. Spearman’s rho

b. The point biserial correlation c. The Pearson product-moment correlation d. The phi coefficient ANSWER: b 57. Which of the following is used to show the relationship between two dichotomous variables, at least one of which is a true dichotomy? a. Tetrachoric correlation

b. Phi coefficient c. Point biserial correlation d. Spearman’s rho ANSWER: b 58. Which of the following is computed to show the relationship between two artificially dichotomous variables? a. Tetrachoric correlation b. Factor analysis c. Discriminant analysis d. Multiple regression ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 59. The type of correlation coefficient computed when the data are from a true dichotomous variable and a continuous variable is a. Spearman’s rho.

b. the point biserial correlation. c. the phi coefficient. d. multivariate analysis.

ANSWER: b 60. The difference between the predicted value of Y and the observed value is called the a. standard deviation. b. standard error of the mean. c. residual. d. factor score.

ANSWER: c 61. The formula Y − Y´ represents a. the true score. b. the residual. c. the standard error of estimate. d. shrinkage.

ANSWER: b 62. X and Y correlate .5. What is the coefficient of determination of this relation? a. 0 b. .25 c. .50 d. .75 ANSWER: b 63. X and Y correlate .2. What is the coefficient of determination of this relation? a. 0 b. .04 c. .45 d. .75 ANSWER: b

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 64. The coefficient of determination is the a. number of degrees of freedom. b. difference between predicted and observed values of Y. c. mean. d. squared correlation coefficient.

ANSWER: d 65. If r = .6, what is the coefficient of alienation? a. .64 b. .36 c. .40 d. .80 ANSWER: d 66. The coefficient of alienation measures what? a. Shrinkage b. The coefficient of determination c. Nonassociation between two variables d. The standard deviation of residuals ANSWER: c 67. The standard deviation of the residuals is called the a. coefficient of alienation. b. shrinkage. c. coefficient of determination. d. standard error of estimate.

ANSWER: d 68. The amount of decrease observed when a regression equation is created for one population and applied to another is called a. the true score.

b. the standard deviation. c. a residual. d. shrinkage.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 69. The observation that the preference for watching TV shows depicting violence is correlated −.86 with altruism suggests a. TV violence causes altruistic behavior.

b. altruistic behavior causes a preference for TV violence. c. increases in altruism are associated with decreases in preference for violent programs. d. there is no relationship between TV preference and altruism.

ANSWER: c 70. The coefficient of alienation is the a. squared correlation coefficient. b. index of variation in Y not explained by its relationship to X. c. standard deviation of the residuals. d. square root of the standard deviation.

ANSWER: b 71. Owning a dog may make people happier. Then again, happier people may be more likely to want a dog. Not knowing whether happiness leads to dog ownership or vice versa, we have a. restricted range.

b. the correlation-causation problem. c. cross-validation. d. shrinkage.

ANSWER: b 72. What is the sum of the predicted value of Y and its residual? a. The coefficient of determination b. The obtained Y c. The alienation coefficient d. The sum of squares ANSWER: b

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 73. A regression equation was derived from a small sample in which X and Y are correlated .6. The equation is Y´ = .6X + 15. Suppose this equation were applied to a second sample. It is likely that the correlation between the scores predicted from this equation and the observed scores will be a. 0

b. less than 0.6. c. approximately 0.6. d. greater than 0.6.

ANSWER: b 74. It is difficult to observe significant correlation between the GRE score and graduate school GPA among elite graduate students because of a. the restricted range.

b. the elite syndrome. c. unreliability in the GRE. d. shrinkage.

ANSWER: a 75. The relationship between TV viewing and aggressive behavior might be influenced by poor social adjustment. Social adjustment here is regarded as a(n) ____ problem. a. restricted range

b. shrinkage c. third variable d. lack of linearity ANSWER: c 76. A study demonstrates that the number of cigarettes smoked per day is significantly correlated with the number of respiratory infections experienced by young adults. We can conclude that a. cigarette smoking causes respiratory infections.

b. cigarette smoking does not cause respiratory infections. c. cigarette smoking causes some respiratory infections but not others. d. the data do not allow inferences about causation.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 77. A correlation of .6 was obtained from a particular sample. The two measures are then administered to a sample from a more homogeneous population. The expected correlation in this new sample will probably be a. 0

b. less than .6. c. approximately .6. d. greater than .6.

ANSWER: b 78. If the coefficient of determination is 0.49, what is the correlation coefficient? a. 0.24 b. 0.51 c. 0.70 d. 0.89 ANSWER: c 79. An appropriate statistical technique that one might use to see how Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) scores and high school grades jointly relate to college freshman grades is a. linear regression.

b. multiple regression. c. discriminant analysis. d. factor analysis.

ANSWER: b 80. To determine which combination of variables determines whether people are likely to get married or stay single, the appropriate method is a. linear regression.

b. a two-tailed test. c. discriminant analysis. d. factor analysis.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 81. Suppose you had a series of eight measures of anxiety that you administered to a sample. You would use the statistical technique referred to as ____ in order to test the hypothesis that they are all measuring the same thing (anxiety). a. linear regression

b. multiple regression c. discriminant analysis d. factor analysis ANSWER: d 82. Suppose we wanted to predict GPA in graduate school on the basis of undergraduate GPA, IQ, and professor ratings. The statistical method that would be most useful is a. bivariate correlation.

b. Spearman’s rho. c. multiple regression. d. factor analysis.

ANSWER: c 83. How is discriminant analysis different from multiple regression? a. In discriminant analysis, the criterion variable is a set of categories rather than a continuous variable. b. The criterion variable is continuous in discriminant analysis but not in multiple regression. c. Discriminant analysis is a form of factor analysis, while multiple regression is not. d. Discriminant analysis and multiple regression involve exactly the same process.

ANSWER: a 84. Principal components are found in a. multiple regression. b. factor analysis. c. discriminant analysis. d. Spearman’s rho.

ANSWER: b 85. Factor loading refers to a. the residual from a regression equation. b. the correlation between two principal components. c. the correlation between an item and a factor. d. the square root of a factor.

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 86. The primary purpose of factor analysis is to a. determine the relationship between variables. b. reduce a larger set of variables to a smaller composite set. c. insure that proper inferences are being made. d. determine the degree of nonassociation between variables.

ANSWER: b 87. In order to examine the relationship between gender, hair color, and intelligence, you would use a. the Pearson r. b. multivariate analysis. c. the phi coefficient. d. the tetrachoric correlation.

ANSWER: b 88. In a bivariate distribution, the relationship between X and Y a. is best described by a straight line. b. can sometimes be nonlinear. c. is always systematic. d. cannot be plotted in a scatter diagram.

ANSWER: b 89. Which of the following is a mathematical index that describes the direction and magnitude of a relationship? a. Intercept b. Positive correlation c. Correlation coefficient d. Residual ANSWER: c 90. A correlation coefficient of −.67 tells us a. the magnitude of the correlation only. b. the direction of the correlation only. c. the magnitude and direction of the correlation. d. neither the magnitude nor the direction of the correlation.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 91. How many variables are required to calculate a correlation coefficient? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 ANSWER: c 92. A regression line a. is always a straight line. b. can sometimes be nonlinear. c. cannot be used to make predictions. d. cannot be plotted in a scatter diagram.

ANSWER: a 93. The sum of the squared deviations around the mean will be ______ it is around any value other than the mean. a. more than b. less than c. the same as d. more or less, but never the same as ANSWER: b 94. An advantage to the use of Z scores in correlation is that it a. makes it easier to find the best fitting line. b. reduces the number of scores that must be plotted to find the regression line. c. is the only format in which one can determine the magnitude of a relationship. d. eliminates the need to find the intercept.

ANSWER: d 95. Which of the following is a measure of the accuracy of prediction? a. Regression coefficient b. Coefficient of determination c. Standard error of estimate d. Cross-validation ANSWER: c 96. Identify and discuss the use of two measures of correlation other than the Pearson r.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 03: Correlation and Regression 97. Explain the correlation-causation problem and give an example.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

98. It is frequently argued that the Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) should not be used to select students because the correlation between their SAT scores and their freshman grades may be low, indicating that the SAT is not a valid measure. How does the concept of range restriction apply here? What other factors might operate to reduce this correlation?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

99. Compare and contrast shrinkage and restriction of range.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

100. Describe the difference between correlation and regression. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each method of assessing bivariate relationships?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

101. Explain how a third variable can influence an observed relationship between two variables.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 04: Reliability 1. When talking about errors in terms of psychological testing, we are referring to the fact that: a. someone got an answer incorrect. b. there is always some inaccuracy in the measurement. c. the test was inappropriate for that particular group. d. the score is too subjective to be accurate.

ANSWER: b 2. The basic theory of reliability was first worked out by a. Karl Pearson. b. Charles Spearman. c. Julian Stanley. d. Lee Cronbach.

ANSWER: b 3. The work of Charles Spearman combined what two measurement concepts? a. mean and variance b. sample statistics and population parameters c. sampling error and correlation d. reliability and validity ANSWER: c 4. Who developed methods for evaluating sources of error in behavioral research? a. Edward Thorndike b. Kuder and Richardson c. Charles Spearman d. Cronbach ANSWER: d 5. According to classical test theory, errors of measurement are a. always overestimates of true score. b. always underestimates of true score. c. random. d. constant.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 04: Reliability 6. If we repeatedly administered the same test to the same individual, the standard deviation of the person's score would be the a. standard error of the mean.

b. variance. c. reliability of the test. d. standard error of measurement.

ANSWER: d 7. Because classic test theory assumes a person's true score is the same over time, repeating the same test over and over gives a distribution of scores that reflect what? a. systematic error

b. random error c. reliability d. internal consistency ANSWER: b 8. Classical Test Theory assumes that a. errors are systematic. b. errors are random. c. true scores cannot be estimated. d. the length of a test has no bearing on its reliability.

ANSWER: b 9. Classical Test Theory assumes a. the length of a test has no bearing on its reliability. b. measurement errors occur systematically. c. it is not possible to estimate true scores. d. the distribution of random errors is the same for every respondent.

ANSWER: d 10. Theoretically, if Susie repeatedly took the 6th grade achievement test, you would be able to find her true score by finding the ____ of the distribution of her scores. a. mean b. standard deviation c. variance d. standard error of measurement ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Reliability 11. If you have three clocks in your house, and every clock is 10 minutes fast, this is an example of a. systematic error. b. random error. c. measurement error. d. a rubber yardstick.

ANSWER: a 12. We can get an idea of how much measurement error is present in a score through the a. true score. b. observed score. c. standard error of the mean. d. standard error of measurement.

ANSWER: d 13. What is Cronbach known for? a. Developing measures to evaluate sources of error b. Creating the basics of multivariate analysis c. Developed the basics of contemporary measurement theory d. Distinguished between objective and subjective measures ANSWER: a 14. Which of the following is an important distinction between systematic errors and random errors? a. Random errors are more likely than systematic errors to cause errors in conclusions. b. Systematic errors occur only in objective measures and random errors occur only in subjective measures. c. Random errors can be eliminated by careful wording of test items. d. Systematic errors are extremely rare among psychological tests.

ANSWER: a 15. Assuming the “rubber yardstick” shrinks and expands at random, what can be said about the distribution of scores from the rubber yardstick? a. It will have a mean of zero (0).

b. It will be normal. c. It will have a standard error of zero (0). d. It will be skewed.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 04: Reliability 16. What is Spearman known for? a. Working out the basics of reliability theory b. Developing the notion of sampling error c. Creating methods for measuring error d. Developing multivariate analysis ANSWER: a 17. Repeated use of the same test typically results in different scores. How does classical test theory account for this? a. poor test validity b. systematic variability c. random error d. inattention ANSWER: c 18. Theoretically, reliability is a. the correlation of the observed test score with the true score. b. the square root of the ratio of true to the observed score. c. the ratio of true to the observed score squared. d. not possible to define.

ANSWER: a 19. When creating a test, one generally uses a subset of items to represent a larger construct. This is known as a. a population parameter. b. a domain sampling. c. a sampling error. d. descriptive statistics.

ANSWER: b 20. An observed score is composed of a. the residual and the true score. b. the criterion and the predictor. c. the measurement error and the predictor. d. the true score and the measurement error.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 04: Reliability 21. In the domain sampling model, the error that is being considered is the error caused by a. choosing the wrong domain. b. systematic error. c. using a limited sample of items. d. random error.

ANSWER: c 22. The problems created by using a limited number of items to represent a larger and more complicated construct are explicitly considered in the ____ model. a. multivariate

b. random sampling c. domain sampling d. standard error of measurement ANSWER: c 23. Professor Pine constructed five different short history tests by randomly drawing questions from the huge pool of all possible questions about the current material. He has created a. randomly parallel tests. b. a large sample size. c. systematic errors. d. attenuation effects.

ANSWER: a 24. Dr. Smith is trying to determine the reliability of a new personality test. Two randomly parallel tests, A and B, have a correlation of .81. What is the estimated reliability of the new personality test?

a. .81 b. -.9 c. .9 d. .81/t ANSWER: c

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Chapter 04: Reliability 25. How does the domain sampling model conceptualize reliability? a. The absolute value of the difference between the standard error of measurement and the variance b. The ratio of variance of the observed scores on the short version of a test and the variance of the long-run true scores

c. The sum of squares of the difference between the observed and true scores d. The ratio of the number of sample items to the number of domain items, multiplied by the mean of the sample distribution

ANSWER: b 26. Why might different random samples of domain items yield different estimates of the true score? a. sampling error b. poor reliability c. respondent error d. item bias ANSWER: a 27. Tests designed according to item response theory a. are no longer considered useful. b. can only be used with non-objective material c. yield more reliable results with fewer items d. provide low-tech methods for field use.

ANSWER: c 28. As opposed to reliability based on the classical test theory, ____ focuses on the range of item difficulty that is useful in assessing an individual's ability.

a. domain sampling b. internal consistency c. coefficient alpha d. item response theory ANSWER: d 29. If a researcher is attempting to assess the reliability of a measure of depression, the method of choice would be a. internal consistency. b. time sampling. c. the test-retest method. d. more than one of these.

ANSWER: a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Reliability 30. A reliability coefficient of .60 suggests that a. 64% of the variance on the test is error. b. 40% of the variance on the test is error. c. 78% of the variance on the test is error. d. the test can be used for clinical purposes but not for research.

ANSWER: b 31. Federal government guidelines require that a test be a. standardized for use among all U.S. sub-populations. b. factor analyzed before it can be used to make employment decisions. c. reliable before it can be used to make employment decisions. d. reliable above the .90 level.

ANSWER: c 32. Upon repeated applications of the same test, performance on the second application may be affected by previous experience on the test. This is known as a. attenuation.

b. a carryover effect. c. shrinkage. d. selected recall.

ANSWER: b 33. The difference between David's two typing tests, one at the beginning of the semester and one at the end, reflects the fact that he typed quite a few term papers during the semester. This reflects a. attenuation.

b. random error. c. practice effects. d. domain sampling.

ANSWER: c 34. Dr. Janine developed two equivalent forms of a test and administered them both, in counter-balanced order, to a group of people on the same day in order to assess reliability. What is this called? a. test- retest b. parallel forms c. split-half d. KR 20 ANSWER: b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 04: Reliability 35. Sources of error associated with time sampling are measured using a. the test-retest method. b. the split half method. c. KR 20. d. the alpha method.

ANSWER: a 36. Suppose you were trying to estimate the reliability of a whole test on the basis of the correlation between scores on the two halves of the test. In order to correct for using scores based on the halves, you might use the a. KR 20.

b. alpha method. c. Spearman-Brown formula. d. split half method.

ANSWER: c 37. The Spearman Brown formula corrects for deflated reliability due to a. half-length tests. b. small sample size. c. systematic error. d. poor test item construction.

ANSWER: a 38. The method for estimating the internal consistency of a test that simultaneously considers all possible ways of splitting the items is the a. Spearman Brown formula.

b. Kuder-Richardson formula. c. Cronbach's alpha. d. the odd-even method.

ANSWER: b 39. A split-half correlation, KR 20, and coefficient alpha are all used to evaluate a. standard errors of measurement. b. internal consistency. c. variance. d. validity.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 04: Reliability 40. Which of the following would tend to provide the most conservative estimate of split-half reliability? a. the Phillips method b. the Spearman-Brown formula c. coefficient alpha d. the odd-even reliability coefficient ANSWER: c 41. The difference between KR 20 and coefficient alpha is a. KR 20 can be used to evaluate time sampling problems while alpha cannot. b. Alpha can be used to evaluate time sampling problems while KR 20 cannot. c. KR 20 can only be used for items scored right or wrong but Alpha can be used for items in any format. d. Alpha can only be used for items scored right or wrong but KR 20 can be used for items in any format.

ANSWER: c 42. Difference scores are created by a. subtracting one test score from another. b. subtracting the true score from a predicted score. c. eliminating error from true scores. d. giving a test to two different individuals.

ANSWER: a 43. The reliability of a difference score is a. equal to the reliability of the most reliable of the two measures. b. equal to the reliability of the least reliable of the two measures. c. the average reliability of the two measures. d. expected to be lower than the reliability of either of the two measures.

ANSWER: d 44. Measures of test-retest reliability are sometimes considered inappropriate for the evaluation of health status because a. health status tests should not given at multiple points in time. b. variations in health status may be related to true changes over time rather than measurement error. c. there is no domain of health status. d.

health status is too complicated to measure.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 04: Reliability 45. What is the impact of carryover effects on test-retest reliability? a. Test-retest reliability is not influenced by carryover effects. b. Carryover effects result in an overestimation of reliability. c. Carryover effects result in an underestimation of reliability. d. Test-retest reliability increases carryover effects.

ANSWER: b 46. Which of the following is true of the parallel forms method? a. It is the most often used method for estimating reliability. b. It provides one of the most rigorous methods for estimating reliability. c. It is largely ineffective with psychological tests. d. Sophisticated computer programs have made it unnecessary.

ANSWER: b 47. Jennifer read a report in which the agreement between raters of children's aggressive behavior was .50, indicating a. the raters agreed at chance levels. b. agreement was poor. c. agreement was excellent. d. agreement was moderate.

ANSWER: d 48. Which of the following is a problem in evaluating the agreement between observers in behavioral studies? a. The observers are usually not trained. b. The behaviors being studied are usually not directly observable. c. There will always be some agreement by chance. d. There is no method for evaluating the agreement between observers.

ANSWER: c 49. The kappa statistic is used to a. assess the level of agreement among several observers. b. estimate the correlation between a continuous variable and an artificially dichotomous variable. c. estimate the percentage of disagreement between observers. d. estimate the validity of behavioral observation.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 04: Reliability 50. The preferred method for assessing the level of agreement between observers is the a. kappa statistic b. Spearman coefficient c. coefficient alpha d. rank-order statistic ANSWER: a 51. Which of the following is a source of measurement error? a. respondent sampling b. scorer sampling c. internal consistency d. external consistency ANSWER: c 52. Which of the following is used to estimate the number of items that should be added to a test to achieve a specified reliability?

a. KR 20 b. coefficient alpha c. Spearman-Brown prophecy formula d. split-half technique ANSWER: c 53. Correction for attenuation is used a. to estimate the validity of a test. b. to correct for tests that are short. c. to correct for tests that are long. d. to estimate the true correlation between variables that have been measured with error.

ANSWER: d 54. In order to determine the unidimensionality of a test, you can use a. factor analysis. b. split half reliability. c. parallel forms assessment. d. the Spearman-Brown prophecy formula.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 04: Reliability 55. Items are probably measuring the same thing when the correlation between an item and the total score a. is high. b. is low. c. approaches 0. d. is negative.

ANSWER: a 56. If the same test, given at different points in time to the same test takers, yields different scores, then the method typically used to assess this source of error is a. test-retest.

b. alternate forms/parallel forms. c. split-half. d. KR 20.

ANSWER: a 57. Approximately what value must a reliability coefficient have for most purposes in basic research? a. .90 b. .50 c. .70 d. .30 ANSWER: c 58. The standard error of measurement allows us to a. estimate the degree to which a test provides inaccurate readings. b. have an acceptable margin of error. c. determine the source of error. d. avoid any measurement error.

ANSWER: a 59. Standard errors of measurement are used to a. determine whether an observed score is the "true" score. b. determine the standard deviation of the scores. c. calculate the exact true score. d. create confidence intervals around specific observed test scores.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 04: Reliability 60. Test constructors can improve test reliability by a. increasing the number of items. b. decreasing the number of items. c. retaining items that have the most face validity. d. reducing the item to total correlation.

ANSWER: a 61. The formula used to estimate how long a test must be to achieve a desired level of reliability is a. kappa b. prophecy c. Spearman d. Thorndike ANSWER: b 62. The prophecy formula is used to a. predict expected values. b. estimate how long a test must be to achieve a desired level of reliability. c. estimate how long a test must be to achieve a desired level of validity. d. calculate variability.

ANSWER: b 63. Tests will be most reliable if they are a. multidimensional. b. unidimensional. c. brief. d. criterion-referenced.

ANSWER: b 64. What is the most useful indicator of reliability for the interpretation of individual scores? a. split-half variance b. item sampling c. test-retest d. standard error of measurement ANSWER: d

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Chapter 04: Reliability 65. Reliability theory combines De Moivre's concept of sampling error with Pearson’s concept of _____________ in the context of measurement. a. coefficient alpha

b. internal consistency c. product moment correlation d. domain sampling ANSWER: c 66. Classical test theory assumes that a. there are no errors in measurement. b. each person has a true score. c. observed scores almost always reflect true ability. d. errors of measurement are systematic.

ANSWER: b 67. The reliability coefficient is a. the mean of the observed scores. b. the variance of the observed scores. c. the ratio of the mean of the true scores on a test to the mean of the observed scores. d. the ratio of the variance of the true scores on a test to the variance of the observed scores.

ANSWER: d 68. For which of these constructs is it most appropriate to measure test-retest reliability? a. IQ b. Depression c. Literacy d. Blood pressure ANSWER: a 69. Carryover effects only affect reliability when changes over time are a. large. b. systematic. c. random. d. due to practice effects.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 04: Reliability 70. Interrater reliability is of concern in a. personality testing. b. behavioral observation studies. c. factor analysis. d. parallel forms assessment.

ANSWER: b 71. The intercorrelations among items within the same test is referred to as a. interrater reliability. b. discriminability. c. standard errors of measurement. d. internal consistency.

ANSWER: d 72. In the domain sampling model, the reliability of a test increases as a. the number of items increases. b. the number of items decreases. c. the number of test administrations increases. d. the number of test administrations decreases.

ANSWER: a 73. Classical Test Theory is based on certain assumptions. Discuss these basic assumptions and the theory behind them, and then address the challenges to any of these assumptions.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

74. There are several methods to estimate reliability. Compare and contrast the different methods of reliability discussed in this chapter, stressing the importance of coefficient alpha.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

75. Discuss the challenges to the use of difference scores.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

76. Describe some of the advantages and disadvantages associated with behavioral observation techniques. Provide examples.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

77. Briefly discuss each of the APA’s standards for reliability.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 04: Reliability 78. Describe the reasons for the large movement from Classical Test Theory to Item Response Theory.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

79. Explain how someone might decide how reliable is “reliable enough” for a measure. What settings might warrant more stringent criteria for reliability, and why?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 05: Validity 1. How does the current edition of Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing conceptualize validity? a. Validity is a non-statistical measure for non-quantitative tests. b. Validity should only be assessed when reliability is low. c. Validity is a unitary concept that represents all evidence. d. Only one type of validity must be high and the others can be low.

ANSWER: c 2. As a result of the Griggs v. Duke Power decision, employers must provide evidence that a test used for employee selection or promotion has a. test-retest reliability. b. inter-rater reliability. c. specific meaning. d. internal consistency.

ANSWER: c 3. Evidence for validity should include what information about construct, criterion, and content validation? a. any form suffices b. two forms of necessary c. two forms are necessary plus information about face validity d. all three need be presented in unified form.

ANSWER: d 4. Why does the current edition of Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing reject face validity? a. By definition, all tests have face validity. b. Face validity in not technically a type of validity. c. No reliable measures of face validity have been found. d. Face validity is irrelevant.

ANSWER: b 5. Which type of validity is most important for educational tests? a. face b. content c. concurrent d. predictive ANSWER: b

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Chapter 05: Validity 6. Why is evidence for criterion-related validity gathered? a. It is legally required. b. It is critical for reliability. c. Tests serve as a substitute for the real measure of interest. d. Criterion validity subsumes all other validity.

ANSWER: c 7. Which of the following should be considered when evaluating evidence for validity? a. Whether the cause of the relationship between the test and the criterion has changed since the test was validated. b. Excessively high validity may indicate a need for improving reliability. c. Validity is only of concern when legal challenges are expected. d. Tests that are highly valid for at least two distinct populations are likely to be valid for all populations.

ANSWER: a 8. Which of the following is an important validation consideration in industrial settings? a. pay grade b. occupational classification c. attrition d. education ANSWER: c 9. If the results obtained in a validity study are not specific to the validation population, what quality does the validation have? a. differential validation b. convergence c. population crossover d. generalizability ANSWER: d 10. Under what circumstances is construct validation essential? a. when the test has some type of novel approach b. when no criterion or universe of content is accepted as adequate to define the quality c. when insurance reimbursement is going to be sought d. when a single, large-scale validation study is to be performed ANSWER: b

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Chapter 05: Validity 11. According to Campbell and Fiske, what types of evidence are required for a test to be meaningful? a. reliability and validity b. content and construct c. convergent and divergent d. quantitative and qualitative ANSWER: c 12. Which of the following is true of the relationship between reliability and validity? a. It is possible to create a highly reliable test that lacks validity. b. If a test lacks reliability, it is important to emphasize its validity. c. High levels of validity are often associated with low reliability. d. There is an inverse relationship between reliability and validity.

ANSWER: a 13. The agreement between a test score and the construct it is presumed to measure is referred to as its a. stability. b. alpha level. c. reliability. d. validity.

ANSWER: d 14. Validity refers to a. the stability of a score. b. the alpha level. c. the agreement between a test score and the quality it is believed to measure. d. item to total correlation.

ANSWER: c 15. "Face validity" is a. the correlation between a test score and some poorly established criterion. b. the best evidence for validity. c. acceptable for research studies but not for tests used in clinical practice. d. not really a form of validity because it offers no evidence to support conclusions.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 05: Validity 16. Which of the following was not one of the major categories recognized in the booklet on Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing? a. content validity b. criterion validity c. convergent validity d. construct validity ANSWER: c 17. Concurrent and predictive validity are both subcategories of a. criterion validity. b. empirical validity. c. face validity. d. convergent validity.

ANSWER: a 18. Which type of validity is unique because it is not statistically-based? a. predictive b. concurrent c. content d. construct ANSWER: c 19. Asking patients where their injured back hurts illustrates ____ validity. a. predictive b. face c. construct d. content ANSWER: b 20. When Ms. Anderson applied for an administrative assistant job in a factory, she was given a test that examined her typing ability, political affiliation, and filing ability. This test clearly violates what kind of validity? a. predictive b. construct c. criterion d. content ANSWER: d

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Chapter 05: Validity 21. Many psychologists no longer believe this to be a separate type of evidence for validity because of the lack of clearcut boundaries between it and other types of evidence for validity. What is it? a. content b. criterion c. constructive d. predictive ANSWER: a 22. Which type of validity requires that test items provide an adequate representation of the conceptual domain they are designed to cover? a. face validity b. content validity c. predictive validity d. construct validity ANSWER: b 23. If scores on a test of intelligence are influenced by eye color, this is an example of a. face validity b. construct underrepresentation. c. aggregate validity. d. construct-irrelevant variance.

ANSWER: d 24. Both convergent and discriminant evidence are essential for a. content validity. b. predictive validity. c. concurrent validity. d. construct validity.

ANSWER: d 25. If the test score forecasts some criterion, the test has a. face validity. b. content validity. c. predictive validity. d. concurrent validity.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 05: Validity 26. Seaman Sanchez had a hearing impairment, but passed the test to become a radio operator because the test did not measure hearing acuity. What does this represent? a. criterion/predictor confusion b. construct underrepresentation c. construct-irrelevant variance d. criterion-related evidence for validity ANSWER: b 27. A test that has a high correlation with some well-accepted outcome measure provides evidence for a. face validity. b. criterion validity. c. construct validity. d. content validity.

ANSWER: b 28. The advantage of using a test that is "face valid" is that a. the appearance of validity can help motivate test-takers because they can see that the test is relevant. b. it assures that the items are properly sampled from the domain of content. c. face validity is an important component of criterion validity. d. it boosts the construct validity coefficient.

ANSWER: a 29. A student confronts a professor and says, "You assigned Chapters 7 through 10 but nearly all of the items came from Chapter 7. How can you evaluate whether we know anything about the other material we were supposed to read?"

The student is challenging the test on the basis of a. face validity. b. content validity. c. criterion validity. d. construct validity.

ANSWER: b 30. The evidence is logical rather than statistical for a. face validity and predictive validity. b. criterion validity and content validity. c. content validity and face validity. d. content validity and concurrent validity.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 05: Validity 31. Job samples exemplify the use of a. criterion validity. b. predictive validity. c. concurrent validity. d. content validity.

ANSWER: c 32. Which of the following is a legal requirement for the validity of a test that is used to select employees for a job? a. The test must focus on job-related tasks. b. The test must include multiple choice, short-answer, and essay questions. c. The test must include items taken directly from other, related tests. d. The test must be uncorrelated with similar tests.

ANSWER: a 33. The extent to which a test is valid for making statements about the criterion is represented by its a. content validity. b. validity coefficient. c. squared validity coefficient. d. construct-irrelevant variance.

ANSWER: b 34. The proportion of variation in the criterion that is knowable in advance from knowledge of the test scores can be found by a. construct-irrelevant variance. b. the validity coefficient. c. squaring the validity coefficient. d. the square root of the validity coefficient.

ANSWER: c 35. A validity coefficient is a. the correlation between a test and the validity criterion. b. the squared correlation between the test and the validity criterion. c. the square root of the correlation between the test and the validity criterion. d. one minus the correlation between a test and the validity criterion.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 05: Validity 36. Hypothetically, 9% of the variation of skill among dentists is accounted for by the test that they took in order to pass the dental board examination. What is the validity coefficient of the test? a. 0.03 b. 0.3 c. 0.9 d. 3.0 ANSWER: b 37. Which of the following is one of the eight recommended criteria for evaluating validity coefficients? a. Determine the statistical sophistication of the researchers who conducted the validation. b. Do not confuse the criterion with the predictor. c. Make sure the results obtained from the validity study are situation specific. d. Perform a small-scale validation study with the population of interest to you.

ANSWER: b 38. Which of the following would be a cause for concern when assessing the validity of an employment test? a. The validity study was done on a somewhat small sample. b. The test correlates highly with other tests of known validity. c. The test was only validated on an all white, male population. d. There is great variability in both predictor and criterion.

ANSWER: c 39. A careful test constructor obtained the correlation between her test and a well-defined validity criterion. She then repeated the study to determine whether this same relationship held in another sample. This exercise is known as a. correction for attenuation. b. construct validation. c. cross validation. d. criterion/predictor confusion.

ANSWER: c 40. Some studies have failed to demonstrate that the Graduate Record Exam (GRE) is a good predictor of grade point average in graduate school. One of the difficulties with these studies is that a. the Graduate Record Exam is rarely used as a predictor of graduate school success. b. the Graduate Record Exam was validated on a very small sample of students. c. both grade point average and GRE scores have a restricted range for graduate students. d. the Graduate Record Exam has no reliability.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 05: Validity 41. If a validity coefficient of .3 is found between a written test of baseball rules and actual skills playing baseball, what percentage of the variation in baseball skills would be accounted for? a. 3% b. 6% c. 9% d. 30% ANSWER: c 42. The problem with using the GRE to determine whether students who have already been admitted to graduate school should be given their degrees is that a. the criterion validity of the GRE is not well enough established. b. the sample size is too small. c. the causes of performance at the school where this procedure is used might be different than the causes of performance at the schools where the GRE was validated. d. this policy confuses the predictor and the criterion.

ANSWER: d 43. Construct validity is used when a. a test can be validated against a single criterion. b. we cannot clearly define what we want to measure. c. we want to construct a new test for a specific purpose. d. we draw samples of items from some clearly defined.

ANSWER: b 44. Suppose you wanted to develop a measure of jealousy, but were unable to define precisely the concept. What type of validation studies would you most likely use? a. face validation b. reliability validation c. criterion validation d. construct validation ANSWER: d 45. In Rubin's study on the Love Scale, the amount of time lovers spent gazing into each other's eyes was used as evidence for the scale's a. face validity. b. criterion validity. c. convergent validity. d. content validity.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 05: Validity 46. To develop a test with construct validity, what types of validity evidence are needed? a. face validity and predictive validity b. discriminant validity and predictive validity c. face validity and content validity d. discriminant validity and convergent validity ANSWER: d 47. An exclusive preschool program has strict enrollment criteria and only accepts children with very high marks on the enrollment test. Unfortunately, they have found that the enrollment test does not correlate highly with the grades the children make. The probable reason is a. predictor/criterion confusion. b. an invalid criterion. c. convergent evidence. d. range restriction.

ANSWER: d 48. If a variable has a "restricted range", it is difficult to estimate a validity coefficient due to a lack of a. criterion validity. b. variability. c. adequate sample size. d. cross validation.

ANSWER: b 49. A researcher seeking to develop a measure of depression cites a moderate correlation between her measure and the Beck Depression Inventory as evidence of the test's validity. What type of validity documentation does this provide? a. convergent validity b. discriminant validity c. content validity d. face validity ANSWER: a 50. Discriminant and convergent evidence provide evidence for what type of validity? a. predictive b. criterion c. content d. construct ANSWER: d

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Chapter 05: Validity 51. Dr. Tong is trying to define 'life satisfaction' and to create a test that will assess the level of a person's satisfaction with their life. She is planning to find out how well her test correlates with other tests believed to measure life satisfaction. This is an example of a. convergent evidence. b. divergent evidence. c. discriminant evidence. d. differential prediction.

ANSWER: a 52. Several measures are already available that assess coping skills. In order to prove that a new measure of coping is needed, what type of validity evidence should be provided? a. convergent b. discriminant c. discrete d. predictive ANSWER: b 53. Cronbach and other authors have argued that all types of validity are really categories of a. face validity. b. criterion validity. c. content validity. d. construct validity.

ANSWER: d 54. At what point would we assume that the construct validity of a test has been established and no more studies should be done? a. when we have shown that it correlates with several other measures designed to tap the same construct b. when we have shown that it does not correlate with measures designed to tap different constructs c. never – construct validation is an ongoing process d. when the validity coefficients are above .8 ANSWER: c 55. In construct validation, a. a single variable can serve as the criterion. b. multiple studies are not required. c. no single variable serves as the criterion. d. the criterion remains static once defined.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 05: Validity 56. Which of the following illustrates lack of convergent validity? a. demonstrating that tests A, B, and C all measure the same things for the same purpose b. demonstrating a particular relationship between a test of job satisfaction and an employee's stated job satisfaction c. demonstrating a relationship between the results of a physical exam and a health index score d. demonstrating that a score on the SAT and ACT have no correlation ANSWER: d 57. Evidence that indicates a measure does not represent a construct other than the one for which it was devised is ____ validity. a. convergent b. discriminant c. content d. predictive ANSWER: b 58. The type of validity that subsumes all other types of validity is a. construct. b. discriminant. c. predictive. d. content.

ANSWER: a 59. Which of the following statements is true? a. We can always demonstrate that a reliable test has meaning. b. It is logically impossible to demonstrate that a totally unreliable test is valid. c. A test cannot be reliable unless it is also valid. d. Reliability and validity are basically unrelated concepts.

ANSWER: b 60. A test with low reliability a. will not have a high validity coefficient. b. may or may not have a high validity coefficient. c. is likely to be face valid. d. can be used in clinical practice but not research.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 05: Validity 61. The validity coefficient of an aggression scale is .5. Using a score on this scale as a predictor of domestic violence, how much of the variability in domestic violence can be attributed to scores on the aggression scale? a. 25% b. 50% c. none d. indeterminate ANSWER: b 62. Criterion-related validity is meaningful when a. the predictor is stable. b. the criterion is valid and reliable. c. the criterion is valid but not necessarily reliable. d. the predictor is reliable.

ANSWER: b 63. When evidence obtained in one situation is not found in other similar situations, the evidence lacks a. generalizability. b. criterion. c. predictor. d. inter-situation reliability.

ANSWER: a 64. A professor considers the difference of validity of his mid-term exam between male and female students. This professor is dealing with a. range restriction. b. confusion between predictor and criterion. c. differential prediction. d. face validity.

ANSWER: c 65. A student stays up all night studying for a test. She is so exhausted that she does not perform well even though she has learned the content for the test. This is an example of a. poor construct validity. b. predictive validity evidence. c. construct-irrelevant invariance. d. construct underrepresentation.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 05: Validity 66. The different categories of validity a. are important distinctions with little overlap. b. have little use when determining overall validity. c. must each be considered in order to determine validity of a scale. d. are convenient grouping methods, but not distinctly different from each other.

ANSWER: d 67. Most aspects of validity can be seen in terms of these categories. a. face-related, predictive-related, and construct-related b. construct-related, criterion-related, and content-related c. concurrent-related, discriminant-related, and content-related d. convergent-related, concurrent-related, and discriminant-related ANSWER: b 68. A professor is developing a final exam for her course. She goes through each chapter of the textbook for the semester and develops questions from each to ensure they are all sufficiently covered in the exam. Which type of validity is this professor ensuring for her exam? a. content validity b. construct validity c. predictive validity d. criterion validity ANSWER: a 69. Which of the following is a predictor variable for the criterion of college GPA? a. College test scores b. High school graduation rates c. The SAT d. Graduate school admittance rates ANSWER: c 70. Which of the following is equivalent to the percentage of variation in the criterion that we can expect to know in advance because of our knowledge of the test scores? a. the validity coefficient b. the validity coefficient squared c. the correlation coefficient d. the correlation coefficient squared ANSWER: b

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Chapter 05: Validity 71. Assembling evidence about what a test means is referred to as a. cross validation b. prediction c. range restriction d. construct validation ANSWER: d 72. A new measure for anxiety correlates highly with the Beck Anxiety Inventory. This new measure is demonstrating a. discriminant validity. b. convergent validity. c. construct validity. d. predictive validity.

ANSWER: b 73. According to your book, in some settings–particularly in education–tests have been criticized simply because of improper interpretation or over-reliance on a single measure. Discuss the topic and suggest ways to improve the situation.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

74. It is important to consider several important factors when interpreting the meaning of a validity coefficient. Outline and discuss what those factors are. Give examples when appropriate.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

75. When your colleague tries to develop a scale to measure stress, what recommendations should you give the colleague in terms of validity? Give examples.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

76. Explain how reliability is related to validity, and/or vice versa.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

77. Suppose you are consulting for a company that uses a test to predict how successful job applicants might be on the job. The test is being challenged in the courts. Discuss the types of evidence you would use to defend the test.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

78. Discuss the factors a university should consider in deciding whether or not to eliminate the SAT or ACT as an admissions requirement.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

79. Explain the process of construct validation.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 1. The tendency for test takers to agree on most of the items is called a(n) a. guessing threshold. b. acquiescence response set. c. item difficulty. d. the miss rate.

ANSWER: b 2. This test item is an example of a a. polytomous format. b. dichotomous format. c. Likert format. d. category format.

ANSWER: a 3. Distractors that are obviously incorrect a. lower the reliability of the test. b. increase the reliability of the test. c. have no impact on the reliability of the test. d. reduce the likelihood of correct guessing.

ANSWER: a 4. True-false examinations use a. a dichotomous format. b. a polytomous format. c. a Likert format. d. a category format.

ANSWER: a 5. In multiple choice examinations, incorrect alternatives are called a. flags. b. non-categories. c. distractors. d. miss rates.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 6. In order to correct for guessing a. a correction formula can be used. b. distractors should be eliminated. c. the number of items should be increased. d. distractors should be increased.

ANSWER: a 7. The expected level of chance performance, for a 200-item multiple-choice exam with four choice alternatives, is a. 25 correct. b. 50 correct. c. 75 correct. d. 100 correct.

ANSWER: b 8. Suppose that you are taking a multiple choice test where there is no correction for guessing. If you aren't sure of the answer, a. only guess if you have some confidence you are correct. b. you should always guess on a speed test. c. you should always guess. d. you should never guess.

ANSWER: c 9. What describes the chances that a low-ability test taker will obtain each score? a. acquiescence response set b. the miss rate c. guessing threshold d. the moments method ANSWER: c 10. What format do some personality tests use because it requires an absolute judgment? a. multiple-choice b. Likert c. dichotomous d. category ANSWER: c

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 11. Which item format can best be factor analyzed to find which ones group together? a. multiple-choice b. Likert c. dichotomous d. forced-choice ANSWER: b 12. Suppose you got 75 items correct on a 100-item, six alternative, multiple-choice exam. What would your score be after we corrected for guessing? a. 50 b. 57 c. 63 d. 70 ANSWER: d 13. Under what circumstance is it NOT to your advantage to guess on a multiple-choice exam? a. when you are making a "wild guess" and a correction formula is being used b. in any test situation where you are making a "wild guess" c. when you can rule out one or more of the alternatives as being incorrect d. when the guessing threshold is low ANSWER: a 14. The difference between Likert scales and category formats is that a. category formats are used only in health settings. b. category formats tends to be dichotomous while Likert scales tends to be polytomous. c. category formats tend to have a smaller number of choices. d. Likert scales tend to have a smaller number of choices.

ANSWER: d 15. A test format that is typically used for attitude measurement is the a. checklist format. b. dichotomous format. c. category format. d. Likert format.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 16. When distractors are likely to be selected as alternative responses on multiple-choice tests, a. validity is increased. b. item reliability is increased. c. item reliability is decreased. d. guessing is reduced.

ANSWER: b 17. One method for measuring chronic pain asks the respondent to group statements according to how accurately they describe his/her discomfort. This would be an example of the a. Q-sort format. b. checklist format. c. Likert format. d. category format.

ANSWER: a 18. The following is an item from an attitude scale: Physical punishment is essential in order to control children.

Strongly disagree Disagree Neither agree or disagree Agree Strongly agree This item is in the a. category format. b. Likert format. c. dichotomous format. d. polytomous format.

ANSWER: b 19. One problem with the use of category rating scales is that a. many respondents are confused by dichotomous formats. b. responses are sometimes influenced by the context in which objects are rated. c. rating scales must be at least 100 points in order to be meaningfully interpreted. d. category rating scale data do not have ordinal scale property.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 20. Describing the chances that low-ability test takers will obtain each score is called the a. dichotomous format. b. polytomous format. c. guessing threshold. d. 50% threshold.

ANSWER: c 21. When teachers are initially told that the students they will be teaching are either not very imaginative or are very imaginative, ratings using an adjective checklist will tend to reflect this original assessment. This is an example of a. the effect of context. b. visual analogue. c. low sample size. d. forced choice effect.

ANSWER: a 22. Which method involves scoring that is very time consuming? a. dichotomous format. b. visual analogue scale. c. Likert scale. d. multiple-choice format.

ANSWER: b 23. Which testing method is popular for measuring self-rated health? a. q-sort technique b. visual analogue scale c. checklists d. category formats ANSWER: b 24. Which of the following item writing recommendations has research support? a. All answer options should be plausible. b. Items should cover important concepts and objectives. c. All parts of an item or exercise should appear on the same page. d. There should be an equal number of true and false statements.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 25. Which of the following is a disadvantage of true-false tests? a. They are typically only useful with simple information. b. They encourage memorization without understanding. c. They are difficult to administer. d. They encourage rapid responding.

ANSWER: b 26. Which type of item tends to lose reliability and become obsolete over time? a. factual items b. skill-based items c. items based on abstract concepts d. simple items ANSWER: c 27. What is the impact of adding distractors on polytomous item reliability? a. The number of distractors is inversely related to item reliability. b. Large numbers of distractors can greatly increase reliability. c. Adding distractors may not increase reliability if the distractors are implausible. d. Reliability is optimized when there are 8 to 10 distractors.

ANSWER: c 28. Which of the following increases the likelihood that students will guess when they are not sure of the correct response on a multiple choice item? a. when they expect a low grade b. when the items are easy c. when the course is a required course d. when they dislike the subject ANSWER: a 29. How do Likert format tests differ from tests made of dichotomous and polytomous items? a. Likert format tests require far fewer items to achieve reliability and validity. b. Likert format items quantify characteristics rather than classifying responses as correct or incorrect. c. Likert format tests cannot be validated whereas dichotomous and polytomous item tests can be validated. d. Likert format items require higher literacy levels than do dichotomous and polytomous items.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 30. Why have checklists fallen out of favor? a. They are simplistic. b. They are prone to error. c. They are difficult to write well. d. They cannot be validated.

ANSWER: b 31. As the proportion of people who get an item on a test correct increases, the measure of item difficulty a. decreases. b. remains the same. c. increases. d. approaches chance.

ANSWER: c 32. A multiple-choice test with five options has a chance performance level of a. .50. b. .25. c. .20. d. .10.

ANSWER: c 33. When Lupe argued that one of the questions on the five-alternative test was unfairly difficult, the teacher simply replied by saying that the item .60.difficulty was optimal at a. .50. b. .60. c. .625. d. .70.

ANSWER: b 34. The optimal item difficulty of a six-alternative test is a. .50. b. .585. c. .60. d. .625.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 35. If the five applicants for the chief financial officer position of ABC Company are highly qualified, the company should use a test that a. has easier items. b. discriminates 20% of the time. c. contains mostly difficult items. d. contains items ranging in difficulty from .30 to .70.

ANSWER: c 36. The optimum level of item difficulty for a five-alternative multiple choice item is a. .50. b. .60. c. .70. d. .80.

ANSWER: b 37. For most tests, the maximum amount of information about differences between individuals can be obtained from items in the difficulty range of a. .30 to .70. b. .40 to .80. c. between .55 and .85. d. above .90.

ANSWER: a 38. If 50% of the individuals taking a particular test get a certain item correct, the difficulty (or easiness) level of that item would be a. .05. b. .25. c. .50. d. .10.

ANSWER: c 39. In the extreme group method of item analysis, a. point-biserial correlations are used. b. data from some test-takers are not used in the analysis. c. only the performance of those who scored extremely well is studied. d. distractors are eliminated.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 40. The method of item analysis which looks at the correlation between performance on an item (correct or incorrect) and total test score is a. the extreme group method. b. the tetrachoric method. c. the point-biserial method. d. the item characteristic curve method.

ANSWER: c 41. Exhibit 6-1

Refer to Exhibit 6-1. Which item discriminates at various levels of performance? a. item a b. item b c. item c d. item d e. item e ANSWER: e

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 42. Exhibit 6-1

Refer to Exhibit 6-1. Which item discriminates well at low levels of performance but not at high levels? a. item a b. item b c. item c d. item d e. item e ANSWER: c

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 43. Exhibit 6-1

Refer to Exhibit 6-1. Which item is unrelated to total test score performance? a. item a b. item b c. item c d. item d e. item e ANSWER: a

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 44. Exhibit 6-1

Refer to Exhibit 6-1. Which item is inversely related to performance on the test? a. item a b. item b c. item c d. item d e. item e ANSWER: b

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 45. Exhibit 6-1

Refer to Exhibit 6-1. In constructing a test, we would most likely eliminate a. item a b. item b c. item c d. item d e. item e ANSWER: d 46. When 100% of the test-takers get an item correct, the item will have a a. low difficulty index (0%). b. high discriminability index. c. discriminability index of approximately .5. d. very low discriminability index.

ANSWER: d 47. The proportion of test takers that get a "good" item correct increases as a function of the a. item characteristic curve. b. total test score. c. validity of the test. d. item difficulty.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 48. Dr. H likes to start off his tests with a few easier items in order to boost the confidence of the test takers. This is an example of a. human factors. b. the psychometric properties of the test. c. optimum item difficulty. d. item difficulty.

ANSWER: a 49. An employment test attempted to find out if individuals who scored high on specific items that assessed an individual's ability to work well in a team related strongly to the test as a whole. The purpose of the study was to evaluate a. human factors. b. optimum item difficulty. c. item discriminability. d. categories.

ANSWER: c 50. When test items are evaluated against total test score, we use a(n) a. internal criterion. b. external criterion. c. multivariate analysis. d. criterion referenced test.

ANSWER: a 51. In item analysis, the internal criteria against which items are evaluated refers to the a. discrimination index. b. total test score. c. criterion. d. predictor.

ANSWER: b 52. In order to evaluate a criterion referenced test, the test was administered to a group of students who had studied a learning unit and to another group who had not studied the learning unit. For each item on the test, the criterion for mastery would be a. the point-biserial correlation. b. below the antimode. c. above the antimode. d. the validity coefficient.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 53. Proponents of criterion-referenced tests have criticized item analysis procedures because they a. cannot be used for criterion-referenced tests. b. have statistical flaws. c. do not provide information about the type of errors that students make. d. have no relevance for educational tests.

ANSWER: c 54. The approach to test construction in which the item characteristic curve for each individual item is analyzed is called a. prophecy theory. b. classical test theory. c. item response theory. d. item analysis theory.

ANSWER: c 55. The average of a series of item characteristic curves is known as a. the average characteristic curve. b. the standard error of the item characteristic. c. a test characteristic curve. d. the variance ratio curve.

ANSWER: c 56. One of the major advantages of tests developed using item response theory is that they a. can be easily adapted for computer administration. b. are longer. c. are easier to administer. d. can be developed with little effort.

ANSWER: a 57. The extreme group method and the point biserial method are both used to estimate a. reliability. b. validity. c. discriminability. d. difficulty.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 58. The least frequent score in a frequency polygon is the a. negative discriminator. b. discrimination point. c. antimode. d. criterion.

ANSWER: c 59. In experimental psychology, the proportion of the top third of the class that correctly answered the last question of the final was .93 while .89 of the bottom third of the class answered correctly. The professor should decide not to include this question in the next final because the discrimination index indicates a. negative discrimination. b. chance level performance. c. that students were incorrectly prepared. d. that the item does not discriminate well.

ANSWER: d 60. Professor Plum created class intervals from the test scores for his class. He made a line graph using these intervals on the X-axis and the proportion of students who answered a particular question correctly on the Y-axis. The result is a. a discrimination index. b. a correlation index. c. an item characteristic curve. d. a histogram.

ANSWER: c 61. An item characteristic curve that rises gradually and then turns down for people at the highest levels of performance a. is likely to occur when students are making a wild guess. b. can happen when 'none of the above' is one of the multiple choice options. c. turns down at a point referred to as the antimode. d. indicates an item with a high level of difficulty.

ANSWER: b 62. In order to choose questions for a final version of a test, the examiners created a graph with difficulty on one axis and discriminability on the other. The examiners should use the questions that a. all above the .50-point on the discriminability axis. b. fall below the .50 point on the discriminability axis. c. fall between .30 and .70 on difficulty and above .30 on discriminability. d. fall above the .50 point on discriminability and difficulty.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 63. The proportion of responses that are expected to be correct for each level of ability can be represented by a. an item characteristic curve. b. a discrimination index. c. a test characteristic curve. d. the optimum difficulty.

ANSWER: c 64. Peaked conventional tests present items a. from a wide range of difficulty levels. b. at optimum difficulty levels. c. at levels appropriate for the test taker. d. mostly at or near average difficulty levels.

ANSWER: d 65. Which type of test is especially helpful for evaluating progress in individualized programs of instruction? a. peaked conventional b. criterion-referenced c. rectangular-referenced d. dichotomous ANSWER: b 66. Your text presents empirical evidence that indicates school children tend to repeat the same kind of errors when given problems of a particular type. This highlights the a. importance of ranking students. b. need to provide corrective feedback. c. concept of 'teaching to the test.' d. ability of IRT procedures to initiate guidance.

ANSWER: b 67. The difference in proportion of correct responses for each item between the top third of the class and the bottom third of the class is an example of a(n) a. point biserial correlation. b. discrimination index. c. item difficulty. d. guessing threshold.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 68. Item analysis is different from the classical method of reliability because a. a smaller number of items leads to higher reliability in item analysis. b. item analysis ignores total score. c. item analysis describes results for individual items, whereas reliability describes results for the scale as a whole. d. item analysis generally considers the validity of the test.

ANSWER: c 69. In most situations, a good test should contain items a. from a wide range of difficulty levels. b. at optimum difficulty levels. c. at levels appropriate for the test taker. d. mostly at our near average difficulty levels.

ANSWER: a 70. Why should tests include items from a variety of difficulty levels? a. Students are less likely to guess when there is a wide range of item difficulty. b. Good tests encourage students to do their best and a range of difficulty helps less confident students. c. Good tests discriminate at a variety of difficulty levels. d. Students like to have some easy items because they are more likely to respond correctly by chance.

ANSWER: c 71. Which of the following methods is used in the analysis of item discriminability? a. test-retest b. extreme group c. characteristic curves d. factor analysis ANSWER: b 72. Which of the following is true of the characteristic curve for a “good” test item? a. It is normally distributed. b. It is bimodal and positively skewed. c. It has a gradual, positive slope. d. It is negatively accelerated.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 73. What is the first step in developing criterion-referenced tests? a. Getting expert agreement about how to construct the test b. Clearly specifying the objectives in precise statements about what is to be learned c. Identifying the types of people who are likely to take the test and either score very well or very poorly d. Creating items with a wide range of difficulty and administering them to experts in the field ANSWER: b 74. Which of the following is NOT one of DeVellis (2016)’s guidelines for writing test items? a. Consider mixing positively and negatively worded items. b. Define clearly what you want to measure. c. Consider using “double-barreled” items that convey two or more ideas at the same time. d. Generate an item pool.

ANSWER: c 75. Items that retain their reliability over time tend to be those that focus on a. skills. b. abstract concepts. c. easier concepts. d. foundational knowledge.

ANSWER: a 76. The most common sort of dichotomous format is a. multiple choice. b. Q-sort. c. Likert. d. true-false.

ANSWER: d 77. To be reliable, a true-false test must a. use simple items. b. contain many items. c. have a high guessing threshold. d. contain few items.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 78. How many distractors does this item contain? a. 0 b. 1 c. 3 d. 4 ANSWER: c 79. For essay items, the reliability of the scoring procedure should be assessed by determining the association(s) between a. the item score and score on the overall test. b. the test score and scores on tests measuring similar constructs. c. each item on the test. d. two scores provided by independent scorers.

ANSWER: d 80. The optimal difficulty level for items is usually about halfway between 100% of the respondents getting the item correct and a. a 50/50 chance for choosing a correct response. b. the level of success expected by chance alone. c. the highest possible variance in correct responses for the item set. d. zero respondents getting the item correct.

ANSWER: b 81. Which of the following is NOT true of item response theory? a. It assigns values to specific items. b. Tests based on this theory are easily adaptable for computer administration. c. It defines a respondent's score by the total number of items correct. d. It provides information about item functioning.

ANSWER: c 82. Develop several test items and describe methods for analyzing the appropriateness or inappropriateness of their inclusion on a test. (Hint: It may be helpful to actually "administer" these items to a group of friends.)

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

83. Criterion-referenced tests offer some advantages over tests that may be graded more subjectively and they are now quite prolific in school systems across the country. However, they have some specific problems. Discuss these advantages and disadvantages (feel free to integrate information from previous chapters). How would you improve this situation?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

84. Identify and discuss the limitations of item analysis.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 06: Writing and Evaluating Test Items 85. What factors should you consider when determining the optimal number of distractors for a multiple choice item?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

86. Describe the conditions under which it is advisable to guess on a multiple choice test.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 07: Test Administration 1. In general, studies have indicated that the race of the examiner a. should be the same as that of the subject. b. should be different than that of the subject. c. is unrelated to test performance. d. is not as important as sex of the examiner.

ANSWER: c 2. Studies on the effect of the race of the tester have demonstrated that a. African-American children consistently score higher when they are tested by African-American examiners. b. African-American children consistently score lower when they are tested by African-American examiners. c. White children consistently score higher when they are tested by White examiners. d. the race of the examiner does not have a consistent effect on the test scores of African-American or White children.

ANSWER: d 3. For children up through about the 3rd grade, a friendly examiner a. significantly affects performance on a test. b. does not significantly affect performance on a test. c. increased IQ scores by nearly one standard deviation. d. decreased IQ scores by nearly one standard deviation.

ANSWER: b 4. Dominic, a Caucasian male, is in the first grade and his reading skills are being assessed for placement next year. His teacher is out sick on the day of his assessment test. You can expect his test score to be a. substantially higher than if the test were administered by the regular teacher. b. unaffected by the change in examiner. c. significantly lower as a result of an unfamiliar examiner. d. nothing more than a reflection of his reading ability.

ANSWER: c 5. Studies have demonstrated that a. disapproving comments by an examiner can hinder test performance. b. disapproving comments by the examiner can actually motivate children and enhance their performance. c. too much approval by the examiner can hinder performance. d. there is no relationship between the examiner's comments and test performance.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 07: Test Administration 6. The "Rosenthal effect" occurs when a. race of the tester produces a bias. b. the administrators' expectations influence the respondents' scores. c. test-takers do poorly because they are fatigued. d. the gender of the test administrator is different than that of the examinee.

ANSWER: b 7. Rosenthal asserted that expectancy effects are likely to result from subtle uses of a. reinforcement. b. nonverbal communication. c. disapproving comments. d. gender and racial bias.

ANSWER: b 8. Research on the effects of examiners' expectations upon test scores have shown that a. examiners' expectations influence scores only when rapport has developed. b. examiners' expectations have little effect upon test scores. c. there is inconsistency with regard to the effect of examiners' expectations. d. too few studies have been done to draw any conclusions.

ANSWER: c 9. The school board decided to send professional test administrators into the schools in an attempt to establish stricter standardization procedures for the administration of IQ tests. If you are from a socio-economically disadvantaged area, you can expect that the test scores for your school district will a. benefit greatly from the use of outside examiners. b. be equal to the scores received by students in upper socio-economic groups. c. be more negatively impacted by the use of unfamiliar examiners than for wealthier districts. d. be more positively impacted by the use of unfamiliar examiners than for wealthier districts.

ANSWER: c 10. In a study of examiner reinforcement on test takers, under which condition did children score the lowest? a. Examiners made approving comments. b. Examiners made disapproving comments. c. Examiners made neutral comments. d. Examiners made no comments.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 07: Test Administration 11. Mrs. Morgan and Mrs. Malcolm are African-American and only want an African-American examiner to administer an IQ test to their children. They a. are justifiably concerned that their children's scores will be adversely affected by a Caucasian examiner. b. are operating under the widely held myth that the race of the examiner impedes performance of AfricanAmerican children. c. realize that strict standards for proper test administration do not exist. d. realize that it is important to have an examiner that is new and unknown to the test-taker.

ANSWER: b 12. Mr. and Mrs. Lozano have recently moved to Ohio from Mexico and have been notified that their son Reuben will be given an English IQ test to determine school placement. They should a. not be concerned about the language of the test because one of the secretaries has offered to translate. b. be pleased because the school is hiring a professional to translate the test especially for Reuben. c. ask the school to only use a test that has been translated and subjected to reliability and validity studies in Spanish speaking populations. d. realize that by testing their son in English, they are helping him to acculturate to his new environment much faster.

ANSWER: c 13. Because situational variables can affect test scores, testing requires a. standardized conditions. b. at least two test administrators. c. a test administrator and an observer. d. test administrators with similar backgrounds and characteristics.

ANSWER: a 14. Patty has just received a graduate degree in psychology and has been hired by a local organization to administer the WAIS-R. They should a. have no qualms about her qualifications for this position because she has a degree. b. have no qualms about her qualifications because her program required that she engage in at least 5 practice administrations of this test. c. be aware that errors are likely to be high unless she has completed at least 10 practice sessions. d. realize test administer training is a highly standardized process with high quality standards.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 07: Test Administration 15. Mrs. Collins and Mrs. Grey both administered the same IQ test to their regular classes by reading instructions, refraining from providing any verbal feedback, and generally following strict procedural guidelines. Even though the classes were comparable, Mrs. Grey's class had much lower test scores than Mrs. Collins. It is likely that a. the instructions were not clear. b. standard test administration does not work. c. some subtle non-verbal cue or body language affected scores. d. the race of the teachers affected test scores.

ANSWER: c 16. The Rosenthal effect a. appears to be consistent but relatively small. b. is limited to human subjects. c. has been consistently replicated. d. shows no gender effect.

ANSWER: a 17. Worry, emotionality, and lack of self-confidence are the three components of a. test anxiety. b. expectancy effects. c. human factors. d. reactivity.

ANSWER: a 18. As sample size increases, expectancy effects tend to a. become more important. b. decrease. c. remain stable. d. increase.

ANSWER: b 19. One study showed that when 6- to 13-year-olds received tokens they could exchange for money each time they gave a correct response on the WISC verbal scale, performance was improved only for a. White children from middle income homes. b. White and African American children from low income homes. c. African American children from low income homes. d. White children from low income homes.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 07: Test Administration 20. Why is it of concern that there is not a standardized protocol for training on how to administer the WAIS-R? a. Individuals with only undergraduate degrees are permitted to administer it, making training especially important. b. The courts have repeatedly ordered the development of standardized training for the WAIS-R, but it has not been done. c. There is no evidence that training will improve the ability of examiners to administer and score the WAIS-R. d. Research indicates that errors are common until examiners have administered 10 practice tests and declines thereafter.

ANSWER: d 21. Deviations from standardized testing procedures a. do not affect scores unless the deviations are severe. b. should be avoided by an examiner regardless of the population in question. c. may be necessary for particular populations like the blind. d. can be avoided by never using tape recorded instructions.

ANSWER: c 22. When asking people to provide answers to sensitive health care questions, it might be better to a. conduct face-to-face interviews. b. use self-administered questionnaires. c. conduct telephone interviews. d. use younger males to conduct the interviews.

ANSWER: b 23. Test scores of paper and pencil tests compared to computer assisted tests indicate that a. better scores are achieved by paper and pencil tests. b. better scores are achieved by computer assisted tests. c. the scores are about equivalent. d. poorer control with computer assisted tests.

ANSWER: c 24. Studies on computer-administered interviews have shown that a. people will sometimes divulge more personal information to a machine than they will to a human interviewer. b. people are reluctant to give personal information unless an interviewer is warm and empathetic. c. the computer is too impersonal as a mechanism for obtaining personal information. d. students typically dislike computer-assisted interviews and thus do not pay attention to questions.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 07: Test Administration 25. Test anxiety is an example of a(n) a. test variable. b. reactivity variable. c. expectancy variable. d. subject variable.

ANSWER: d 26. Which of the following is an advantage of computer-assisted test administration? a. Use of computers greatly increases validity. b. Test takers can look ahead and skip back and forth to items they feel confident about. c. Computer generated reports are less likely to be misinterpreted. d. Items can be administered in any order.

ANSWER: d 27. One study showed that measures administered via telephone differed in what way from those that required people to fill out the questions on their own? (Hanmer, Hays, & Flyback, 2007) a. They yielded lower health scores. b. They yielded higher health scores. c. They yielded more accurate health scores. d. They yielded more variability in health scores.

ANSWER: b 28. Test takers who speak more than two languages should be given a test in a. the test taker's first language. b. the test administrator's first language. c. the standard language used in that area. d. the language with which the test taker is most comfortable.

ANSWER: d 29. Which of the following is true of self-report of health issues? a. People report more symptoms when a mailed questionnaire is used than when they are interviewed face to face. b. People are typically reluctant to report symptoms when completing a mailed questionnaire because it feels so impersonal. c. Mailed questionnaires should not be used due to the possibility that private health information might be accidentally made public. d. It is important for an examiner to be present to explain difficult terms to those taking the test.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 07: Test Administration 30. What likely accounts for an observed effect of the examiner’s race on intelligence test performance? a. White examiners are more likely to elicit stereotype threat from racial minority test takers. b. Lack of standardization in some intelligence testing procedures. c. Subtle, nonverbal cues that manifest in racially-specific ways. d. Racial minority test takers tend to have lower expectations for their performance in the presence of White examiners.

ANSWER: c 31. Which of the following is one explanation for the negative impact of test anxiety on performance? a. It causes students to not study as hard. b. The test taker is distracted by self-doubting thoughts. c. The examiner may provide more negative feedback to test takers who appear anxious. d. Anxious test takers tend to give up on tests sooner.

ANSWER: b 32. Donna wants to express empathy toward the individuals she is interviewing about very sensitive medical conditions.

She nods in a warm and approving way each time they report a symptom. What might be expected? a. Participants will talk with her longer about each symptom. b. Participants will be more honest about their symptoms. c. Participants will show long term improvements in their symptoms. d. Participants will report significantly more symptoms.

ANSWER: a 33. Which of the following is true concerning the language of the test taker? a. Language should not be of concern, since there are computer programs that will translate. b. The use of interpreters is helpful and typically will not affect reliability or validity. c. The test should be administered in the language of the majority, even if the test taker is not fluent. d. It is important to ensure that the translated version of the test is comparable to the original version.

ANSWER: d 34. Which of the following is, according to the APA, characteristic of a good test manual? a. A good manual should be brief and emphasize the importance of the examiner bringing their own style to the testing situation. b. A good manual should be written using technical language, since doing so will reduce misunderstandings and misinterpretation. c. A good manual should provide instructions that include the exact words to be used during testing administration. d. A good manual should focus on what can go wrong during administration rather than providing rigid instructions.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 07: Test Administration 35. Patterson and colleagues (1995) reported that in order to reduce administration errors, test administrators should a. be disciplined for mistakes. b. practice administration about 10 times. c. always have a supervisor observe them. d. reinforce test takers.

ANSWER: b 36. The effect of praise for children is in general a. better than the effect of money or candy. b. worse than the effect of money or candy. c. damages the test's reliability and validity. d. as strong as the effect of money or candy.

ANSWER: d 37. Members of groups that are plagued by negative stereotypes tend to perform better academically when intelligence is described to them as a. malleable and adaptable to environmental circumstances. b. an illusory concept with no clear definition. c. too complex to measure through academic tests. d. a fixed trait that is genetically determined.

ANSWER: a 38. Which of the following has been proven to reduce the risk of stereotype threat? a. Allowing individuals to take tests independently rather than in group format. b. Explaining to test takers the statistics on how various demographic groups tend to perform on a test. c. Placing demographic questions at the end of the test rather than the beginning. d. Using test proctors from underrepresented groups.

ANSWER: c 39. Which of the following is a common theory regarding how stereotype threat weakens test performance? a. Test takers attend to the test administrator’s feelings and behaviors. b. Test takers feel afraid to do well on the test. c. Test takers take longer to read the test instructions to ensure they understand. d. Test takers dedicate attention to themselves rather than the test.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 07: Test Administration 40. The phenomenon in which a test taker exerts less effort to protect their self-worth when faced with the expectation that they may not perform well is referred to as a. the biasing effect b. self-handicapping c. stereotype threat d. the expectancy effect ANSWER: b 41. When men and women are told that they are taking a test that measures gender differences, which outcome can be expected? a. Equally qualified women will perform worse than the men. b. Equally qualified men will perform worse than the women. c. The men and women will perform equally well. d. The test is more likely to capture true differences in men and women’s performance.

ANSWER: a 42. Interventions to reduce stereotype threat help students move from a ______ mindset to a ______ mindset. a. stress, calm b. trait, experience c. fixed, growth d. threat, safety ANSWER: c 43. Which comment of praise is most likely to increase a child’s test performance? a. “You’re so organized.” b. "You are so smart." c. "How clever." d. "You worked so hard."

ANSWER: d 44. Which of the following is true of the use of reinforcement during tests? a. Only tangible rather than verbal forms of reinforcement are effective for improving performance. b. It is strictly prohibited by most test manuals. c. The advantages tend to be similar for all people. d. It increases the validity of test results.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 07: Test Administration 45. Which of the following is true of computer-assisted test administration? a. It reduces biases in test administration. b. Test items are presented in a standard order for each test taker. c. It is a more expensive approach than traditional paper and pencil testing. d. People across demographic groups tend to feel more comfortable interacting with computers.

ANSWER: a 46. Which of the following is true about the reliability of computer-administered testing in comparison to traditional assessment? a. It is more reliable. b. It is less reliable. c. It is just as reliable. d. There is not yet enough research on the differences in reliability.

ANSWER: c 47. When compared to self-completed measures, measures completed using an interviewer a. show poorer health. b. show better health. c. show no differences in health. d. have greater validity for measuring health.

ANSWER: b 48. The mode of administration for a test a. should be varied for each test taker according to their individual characteristics. b. is not a significant variable in test taking. c. has only small effects in most situations. d. has a larger effect on educational testing than clinical testing.

ANSWER: c 49. The state of the subject may well affect his or her test performance and may be a serious source of error. Discuss some possible subject variables that may interfere with or improve an individual's performance on a test.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

50. Identify and discuss four advantages of computer administered tests.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

51. As an administrator of tests, what factors should you consider based on this chapter (e.g., characteristics of an administrator, training administrator, administering context, subject factor, mode of administration, etc.)?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 07: Test Administration 52. What solutions have been posed for reducing the effects of stereotype threat?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

53. Describe some of the risks associated with computer-administered testing and how they have been addressed by the Guidelines for Computer-based Internet Testing (van de Vijver, Schweizer, & DiStefano, 2016).

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

54. Describe the factors affecting the reliability and validity of this test you are currently taking. What are possible sources of error (including your own subject variables)? How could test administration have been improved?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 1. The personnel manager of ABC Company asked all of the applicants she interviewed the same questions in the same systematic fashion. She was conducting a(n) ____ interview. a. nondirective b. unstructured c. structured d. diagnostic ANSWER: c 2. An interview in which the person being interviewed is allowed to determine the direction of the interview is called a(n) ____ interview. a. nondirective b. directive c. structured d. selection ANSWER: a 3. Which of the following differentiates between an interview and psychological tests in general? a. how they are evaluated b. whether they are administered individually or in groups c. whether there is a standardized format d. their importance for gathering information in clinical settings ANSWER: d 4. Which test cannot be properly used without interview data? a. TAT b. MMPI c. 16PF d. WAIS ANSWER: a 5. The reciprocal nature of interviewing means a. the participants of an interview do not influence each other's mood. b. the participants of an interview are interdependent upon and influence each other. c. an interview involves high activity among both participants. d. if the interviewer is tense and anxious, the interviewee will tend to calm down.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 6. Studies have shown that in an interview, a. high activity in one participant is associated with reduced activity in the other. b. high activity in one participant is associated with increased activity in the other. c. the activity of one participant has nothing to do with the activity of the other. d. high activity in one participant tends to lead to hostility in the other.

ANSWER: b 7. Criminal interrogations can result in misleading information if an interrogator is highly active because a. they make the suspect nervous and prone to make misleading statements. b. the suspect's activity level increases, which increases the interrogator's suspiciousness. c. hyperactive interrogators tend to miss important cues given by the suspect. d. active interrogators tend to cause the suspect to clam up and refuse to make a statement.

ANSWER: b 8. David had graduated and secured two job interviews. He was quite nervous and in one interview, the interview team bickered among themselves and was rude to each other. In the other, the interview team was calm, relaxed, and welcoming. When he later thought about the interviews, David described himself as feeling very tense and even frightened in the first interview, and calm and confident in the second one. This is consistent with the idea of a. mirroring b. social facilitation c. active listening d. probing ANSWER: b 9. During a job interview, Geoffrey found his behavior began to mimic the behavior of the nervous and disorganized interviewer. This is best described as an example of a. social facilitation. b. halo effect. c. interpersonal attraction. d. paraphrasing.

ANSWER: a 10. The degree to which one person is able to influence another is known as a. interpersonal attraction. b. interpersonal influence. c. social facilitation. d. halo effect.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 11. Social facilitation refers to a. the phenomenon that we tend to act like the models around us. b. a method of interviewing. c. the best method of psychotherapy. d. a method of enhancing human relationships.

ANSWER: a 12. Good interview behavior is more a matter of ____ than ____. a. social skills; experience b. technique; attitude c. attitude; skill d. acquired abilities; personality style ANSWER: c 13. One study (Saccuzzo, 1975) found that the most important factor in a patient's evaluations of the quality of an interview was a. the seriousness of their concerns. b. their mood state. c. the therapist's orientation. d. their perceptions of the interviewer's feelings.

ANSWER: d 14. In social psychology, the degree to which people share a feeling of understanding, mutual respect, and similarity is known as a. social facilitation. b. interpersonal influence. c. interpersonal attraction. d. halo effect.

ANSWER: c 15. Deliberately inducing discomfort or anxiety in an interviewee a. should always be avoided. b. is likely to increase how much information an interviewee reveals. c. is related to the interviewer's training. d. is appropriate for certain types of interviews.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 16. The fact that Roger is more impressed by how much his therapist appeared to care, rather than the numerous diplomas and certificates on the therapist’s walls, suggests that Roger will likely evaluate the quality of the interview as a. poor. b. average. c. high. d. indeterminate.

ANSWER: c 17. Probing statements a. will put the interviewee on the defensive. b. do not carry judgmental overtones. c. should usually be avoided in an interview. d. communicate a deep sense of empathy.

ANSWER: c 18. Which of the following directs anger toward the interviewee? a. evaluative statements b. probing statements c. hostile statements d. reassuring statement ANSWER: c 19. Which of the following communicates "I don't approve of this aspect of you?" a. evaluative statements b. probing statements c. hostile statements d. reassuring statements ANSWER: a 20. Which of the following demands more information than the interviewee would be willing to provide voluntarily? a. evaluative statements b. probing statements c. hostile statements d. reassuring statements ANSWER: b

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 21. Which of the following attempts to comfort or support the interviewee? a. evaluative statements b. probing statements c. hostile statements d. reassuring statements ANSWER: d 22. Which type of statement tends to bring the interview to a halt, and thus violates the principles of keeping the interaction flowing? a. open-ended questions b. closed-ended questions c. verbatim playback d. summarizing ANSWER: b 23. Which of the following types of statements should be avoided in most interview situations? a. probing statements b. clarification statements c. summarizing statements d. verbatim playback ANSWER: a 24. "Don't worry, everything will be alright" is an example of a. a facilitative response. b. a confrontational response. c. an effective response. d. a response to be avoided.

ANSWER: d 25. "Are you feeling good today?" is an example of a(n) a. open-ended question. b. evaluative statement. c. closed-ended question. d. transitional phrase.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 26. An open-ended question a. requires the interviewee to produce something spontaneously. b. usually can be answered specifically. c. have the disadvantage of limiting the topics. d. generally requires the person to recall something.

ANSWER: a 27. A closed-ended question a. requires the interviewee to produce something spontaneously. b. cannot be answered specifically. c. gives the interviewee wide latitude in choosing the topics that he or she feels is important. d. generally requires the person to recall something.

ANSWER: d 28. A transitional phrase a. brings the interview to a halt. b. implies that the interviewee should continue talking about the same topic. c. communicates empathy. d. should be avoided in unstructured facilitative interviews.

ANSWER: b 29. The statement, "Yes, I see" might best be described as a. probing. b. verbatim playback. c. transitional. d. clarification.

ANSWER: c 30. A verbatim playback a. communicates empathy. b. is less like the interviewee's response than a paraphrase. c. adds to the interviewee's response. d. is a repeat of the interviewee's last response.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 31. Clarification statements a. serve to clarify the interviewee's response. b. remain very close to the meaning of the interviewee's response. c. may add to the interviewee's response. d. all of these ANSWER: d 32. Which of the following responses would be the most likely to lead the interviewee to elaborate on his or her responses? a. false reassurance b. verbatim playback c. levels one and two responses d. none of these typically facilitates the interview process ANSWER: b 33. What two types of statements go just beyond the interviewee's response? a. clarification and transition b. clarification and summarizing c. clarification and verbatim playback d. paraphrasing and restatement ANSWER: b 34. A powerful response that communicates that the interviewer understands how the interviewee must be feel is a(n) a. clarification response. b. therapeutic response. c. verbatim playback. d. empathic response.

ANSWER: d 35. Understanding responses are important because they a. help an interviewee explore themselves at deeper levels. b. help the interviewee decide what action to take. c. indicate what the interviewee should not do. d. make an interviewee feel good.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 36. Select the best response, according to your text, to the statement, "My physics teacher yelled at me in front of the whole class." a. Why did he do that? b. That's embarrassing. c. You should report him. d. Don't worry; he yells at everyone.

ANSWER: b 37. According to Carkhuff and Berenson, a level one response a. communicates some awareness of the meaning of a statement. b. is interchangeable with the interviewee's statement. c. goes beyond the statement given. d. bears little relationship to the interviewee's response.

ANSWER: d 38. Which level of communication indicates only a superficial level of awareness of the meaning of a statement? a. level 1 b. level 2 c. level 3 d. level 4 ANSWER: b 39. Which level is interchangeable with the interviewee's statement? a. level 1 b. level 2 c. level 3 d. level 5 ANSWER: c 40. Which level is interchangeable with the interviewee's statement? a. evaluation b. employment c. mental status d. case history ANSWER: a

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 41. Which type of statement points out a discrepancy or inconsistency? a. level 3 b. probing c. summarizing d. confrontation ANSWER: d 42. In response to the statement "My boss yelled at me today," which of the following statements is most likely to keep the interaction flowing? a. Your boss must be a real jerk. b. What did you do wrong? c. Don't worry; I'm sure it's no big deal. d. That sounds very unpleasant.

ANSWER: d 43. Within Carkhuff and Berenson's five-point system, what is the minimum level of responding necessary to keep the interaction flowing? a. III b. I c. II d. V ANSWER: a 44. A confrontation should be used with great caution because a. it may induce anxiety. b. it may elicit anger. c. people should not be made aware of discrepancies or inconsistencies. d. there are too many different degrees of confrontation.

ANSWER: a 45. Because they were interviewing for a public relations position that would involve dealing with very volatile situations on very short notice, the MEM Oil Co. deliberately induced a degree of anxiety in the interview process. They were using a technique known as the ____ interview. a. structured b. evaluative c. stress d. probing ANSWER: c

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 46. Although interviewers normally avoid ____ statements, they may be necessary when interviewing a child or someone with mental retardation. a. evaluative b. probing c. hostile d. judgmental ANSWER: b 47. By replacing "why?" statements with "tell me" or "how?" statements, an interviewer can occasionally make wise use of ____ statements. a. evaluative b. judgmental c. probing d. hostile ANSWER: c 48. The school counselor knew he was wrong when he told the failing student in his office that everything would be alright, but the student was so upset that the counselor could not help himself. This is an example of a. probing. b. false reassurance. c. directive statements. d. hostile statements.

ANSWER: b 49. In an effective interview, the interviewer maintains face-to-face contact and ____ to keep the interactions flowing. a. exerts minimal effort b. avoids directing the conversation c. exerts a great deal of effort d. uses closed-ended questions ANSWER: a 50. Research indicates people are more apt to talk about or explore themselves at deeper levels when ____ responses are used because they demonstrate that the interviewer knows how the interviewee feels. a. paraphrasing b. clarification c. empathic d. summarizing ANSWER: c

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 51. Attempts to measure understanding began with the work of a. Carkhuff. b. Berenson. c. Saccuzzo. d. Rogers.

ANSWER: d 52. Making understanding responses is sometimes referred to as a. active listening. b. empathic accuracy. c. paraphrasing. d. transitions.

ANSWER: a 53. Kaplan and Saccuzzo recommend the use of direct questioning at the end of an evaluation interview under particular circumstances. Which of the following is NOT one of them? a. The interviewee is a verbal adult and capable of responding. b. The data can be obtained in no other way. c. Time is limited and the interviewer needs specific information. d. The interviewee cannot or will not cooperate.

ANSWER: a 54. "Don't worry, everything will be all right" is an example of a. a probing statement. b. a clarification statement. c. false reassurance. d. verbatim playback.

ANSWER: c 55. The power of understanding responses is documented in the area of a. active listening. b. evaluation. c. level-one responses. d. social facilitation.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 56. Why are “stress interviews” generally not appropriate in clinical settings? a. Upsetting patients/clients may result in malpractice claims. b. Anxious interviewees are less likely to disclose personal information. c. Most psychologists are unable to correctly conduct stress interviews. d. Stress interviews are only used in criminal investigations.

ANSWER: b 57. Why is the question “Why?” to be avoided in interviews? a. It is too open-ended and is ineffective in gathering needed information. b. It demands that interviewees explain their behavior and may be perceived as judgmental. c. It encourages interviewees to launch long explanations rather than addressing real issues. d. People are generally not very good at analyzing “why” questions to explain specific behaviors.

ANSWER: b 58. Which of the following is the most likely to be a good interview question? a. Why did you yell at him? b. How could you possibly do something so foolish? c. How did you happen to say that? d. Did you not stop to think before you said that?

ANSWER: c 59. Which of the following is an open-ended question? a. Are you having problems? b. Is your father strict? c. What kinds of recreation do you enjoy? d. Would you like to visit Paris?

ANSWER: c 60. Which type of response goes beyond what the interviewee has said? a. verbatim playback b. paraphrasing c. restatement d. clarification ANSWER: d

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 61. Susan just stated that she hates her brother. Which of the following statements is likely to keep the conversation flowing? a. “Hating is wrong.” b. “I very much doubt that you actually hate him.” c. “I hated my brother when I was your age.” d. “You are angry with your brother.”

ANSWER: d 62. What is a special type of interview used primarily to diagnose psychosis, brain damage, and other major mental health problems? a. behavioral evaluation. b. psychoanalytic interview. c. mental status examination. d. client-centered session.

ANSWER: c 63. Experienced interviewers tend to a. focus on a conversation. b. consciously attend to what is being said. c. attend to various important things automatically. d. respond faster.

ANSWER: c 64. A(n) ____ interview was developed in order to help overcome the low reliability in psychiatric diagnosis. a. evaluation b. structured clinical c. case history d. mental status ANSWER: b 65. The DISC-2, CAS, EPDS, and SCID-II are all examples of ____ interviews. a. evaluation b. structured clinical c. case history d. mental status ANSWER: b

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 66. A statement that points out a discrepancy or inconsistency is called a a. confrontation b. judgment c. reflection d. clarification ANSWER: a 67. Structured clinical interviews have been criticized because a. they rely completely on self-report data. b. reliability is very low. c. they are very brief. d. it is difficult to define a specific group.

ANSWER: a 68. Dr. Daniels spoke with several members of the family in order to obtain developmental information about the problems being experienced by his adolescent client. This best exemplifies a(n)____ interview. a. evaluation b. structured clinical c. case history d. mental status ANSWER: c 69. Thorndike (1920) called the tendency to judge specific traits on the basis of general impressions the a. halo effect. b. general standoutishness. c. testing effect. d. experimenter bias effect.

ANSWER: a 70. For interview data, the critical questions about reliability have centered around a. halo effects. b. inter-interviewer agreement. c. validity. d. re-interview data.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 71. The tendency to judge on the basis of one outstanding characteristic is called a. general standoutishness. b. halo effect. c. negative discrimination. d. judgmental observation.

ANSWER: a 72. Some of the foreign-based corporations in Hong Kong require their employees who transfer to Hong Kong to learn something about the culture and the language, even though English is commonly spoken. These businesses are clearly concerned with errors associated with a. cross-cultural bias. b. using the local work force. c. the halo effect. d. social facilitation.

ANSWER: a 73. According to general standoutishness theory, a. more attractive applicants are treated more favorably in telephone interviews. b. less attractive applicants are more favorably treated in telephone interviews. c. more attractive applicants are treated less favorably in in-person interviews. d. less attractive applicants are treated more favorably in in-person interviews.

ANSWER: b 74. Which of the following is true of interview reliability? a. It usually focuses on inter-interviewer agreement. b. It can be seriously degraded by the halo effect. c. It is typically quite high. d. It is equivalent to reliability for standardized tests.

ANSWER: a 75. Which of the following describes interpersonal influence? a. The degree to which particular interview questions influence a respondent’s behavior in the interview. b. The degree to which one person can influence another. c. The degree to which interview type influences the responses elicited from respondents. d. The degree to which people share a feeling of understanding, mutual respect, similarity, and the like.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 76. Which of the following is NOT an attitude related to good interviewing skills? a. genuineness b. acceptance c. understanding d. soft spokenness ANSWER: d 77. To keep the interaction flowing in unstructured interviews, the interviewer must a. remain quiet and not interrupt the interviewee. b. ask several probing questions. c. stop the interviewee to insert their perspectives if they talk for too long. d. use social facilitation to model the behavior of talking a lot.

ANSWER: a 78. Which two responses go beyond the interviewee’s response? a. paraphrasing and restatement b. verbatim playback and understanding c. clarification and summarizing d. transitional phrasing and reassurance ANSWER: c 79. Which of the following elicits self-exploration? a. accurate empathy b. false reassurance c. social influence d. transitional phrases ANSWER: a 80. Truax and Carkhuff’s (1967) 5-point scoring system for interviewer understanding is rooted in seminal research on the effects of which type of therapy? a. cognitive b. psychodynamic c. client-centered d. existential ANSWER: c

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Chapter 08: Interviewing Techniques 81. Which of the following is NOT assessed during a mental status exam? a. attitudes b. case history c. behaviors d. appearance ANSWER: b 82. Which of the following is the most effective means for reducing bias in an interview? a. Matching interviewer and interviewee on race and gender b. Using more open-ended questions c. Focusing on more general rather than individuating information d. Using a highly structured interview ANSWER: d 83. Discuss potential cross-ethnic, cross-cultural, and cross-class factors that may affect interview validity. How would you handle interviews with these factors in play?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

84. Given what you have read in this chapter, design a training program for law enforcement officers teaching interrogation techniques that will reduce the errors associated with interviewing.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

85. Identify, describe, and provide examples of each of the five levels of understanding posited by Truax and Carkhuff.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

86. You are the interviewer, and the interviewee has just told you that she feels that her husband no longer finds her attractive. Provide an example of a response to this statement at each of the five levels of understanding developed

by Truax and Carkhuff.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

87. Define verbatim playback, paraphrasing, restatement, summarizing, clarifying, and understanding, and briefly describe why these responses are effective for keeping the interaction flowing in an interview.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 1. What method of studying intelligence examines the properties of a test by evaluating its correlates and underlying dimensions? a. factor analysis b. psychometric c. information-processing d. cognitive ANSWER: b 2. Dr. Kang is investigating the mechanisms that underlie how humans learn and solve problems. She is using the ____ approach to investigate human intelligence. a. information-processing b. psychometric c. cognitive d. psychophysics ANSWER: a 3. Which of the following needs was the impetus for the development of intelligence testing? a. classification of military recruits b. identification of high quality civil service recruits c. identification of individuals with intellectual disabilities d. creation of vocational and technical colleges ANSWER: c 4. In research investigating human intelligence, focusing on how humans adapt to real-world demands is called a ____ approach. a. information-processing b. psychometric c. cognitive d. psychophysics ANSWER: c 5. What is the oldest approach to investigating human intelligence? a. information-processing b. psychometric c. cognitive d. psychophysics ANSWER: b

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 6. The finding that a correlation exists between scores on all standardized intelligence tests and ____ has been a problem in defining intelligence. a. gender b. profession c. chronological age d. socioeconomic status ANSWER: d 7. Which of the following is part of Binet's definition of intelligence? a. memory function b. the level of quantitative skills c. self-criticism d. the ability to carry on abstract thinking ANSWER: c 8. Binet believed that human intelligence was expressed through a. socioeconomic status and level of education. b. positive self concept and gender. c. judgment, attention, and reasoning. d. ethnicity and socioeconomic status.

ANSWER: c 9. Binet's two major principles of test construction were a. general mental ability and age differentiation. b. reliability and validity. c. norms and standardization. d. age differentiation and age scale.

ANSWER: a 10. With the principle of age differentiation, a. one can find the equivalent age capabilities of a child independently of chronological age. b. one can find the equivalent age capabilities of a child if their chronological age is known. c. the deviation IQ can be ascertained. d. Binet freed himself from the burden of identifying each independent aspect of intelligence.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 11. The tasks that Binet used to differentiate between age groups could be completed by what percentage of the children in a particular age group? a. at least 50% b. between 50% and 75% c. between 66.67% and 75% d. 100% ANSWER: c 12. The concept that older children have greater capabilities than younger children is referred to as a. general mental ability. b. intelligence. c. Spearman's g. d. the principle of age differentiation.

ANSWER: d 13. What technique is more commonly used today in order to evaluate age equivalent capabilities? a. item response theory b. factor analysis c. mental age d. predictive validity ANSWER: a 14. With the concept of general intelligence, a. Binet's search for tasks could be unrestricted. b. Binet was forced to ascertain the relative contribution of each element to the whole. c. the value of a task could be judged in terms of its correlation with the total score. d. each element of intelligence must first be identified.

ANSWER: c 15. Which of the following is an implication of Binet’s concept of general mental ability? a. Individual items that do not correlate well with the total score can be eliminated. b. A broad range of diverse items must be included. c. Variability in the ability to perform specific skills should be minimal. d. Those who are high in general mental ability will also be high in specific mental abilities.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 16. To support the notion of g, Spearman developed a statistical technique called a. correlation. b. principle components. c. factor analysis. d. analysis of variance.

ANSWER: c 17. A major implication of general intelligence is that a. a person's intelligence can best be represented by a single score. b. human intelligence is broad and general. c. human intelligence is the interaction among a broad range of specific abilities. d. human intelligence refers to good judgment, reasoning, concentration, attention, etc.

ANSWER: a 18. Spearman suggested that the variance that is shared by a set of tests/scores represents a. age differentiation. b. positive manifold. c. the g factor. d. factor analysis.

ANSWER: c 19. According to Spearman, what percentage of the variance in a set of mental ability tests is represented by the g factor? a. 50% b. between 66.67% and 75% c. 75% d. 100% ANSWER: a 20. According to the concept of general intelligence, a person's intelligence score actually represents a. differences in unique ability stemming from a specific task. b. the additive score on a broad variety of tasks. c. the shared variance underlying performance on a diverse set of tasks. d. abilities on a particular test as compared to others within the same age group.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 21. The concepts of fluid and crystallized intelligence are part of which theory? a. psychometric g b. general intelligence c. gf-gc d. positive manifold ANSWER: c 22. Before Binet, the notion of general mental ability had been propounded by a. Wechsler. b. Thurstone. c. Galton. d. Simon.

ANSWER: c 23. The notion of g was advanced by a. Spearman. b. Galton. c. Thurstone. d. Simon.

ANSWER: a 24. Those abilities that allow us to learn and acquire information can be referred to as a. crystallized intelligence. b. 'g'. c. fluid intelligence. d. positive manifold.

ANSWER: c 25. When sets of diverse ability tests are administered to large, unbiased samples, almost all the correlations are positive.

This is a phenomenon known as ____. a. the positive correlation effect. b. positive manifold. c. positive factor structure. d. factor analysis.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 26. The first version of what is now referred to as the Stanford-Binet, the Binet-Simon Scale, was developed in a. 1905. b. 1916. c. 1927. d. 1908.

ANSWER: a 27. Which of the following is true about the 1905 Binet-Simon Scale? a. It employed the mental age concept. b. It contained 30 items, presented in random order. c. The normative sample consisted of only 10 children. d. It lacked an adequate measuring unit to express results.

ANSWER: d 28. The age scale concept was introduced in a. the 1905 Binet-Simon Scale. b. the 1908 Binet-Simon Scale. c. the 1911 Binet-Simon Scale. d. the 1916 Stanford-Binet Scale.

ANSWER: b 29. The ____ version of the Binet-Simon scale was considered an age scale. a. 1905 b. 1908 c. 1911 d. 1916 ANSWER: b 30. Which of the following problems of test construction did Binet adequately address in his 1905 scale? a. identification of what should be measured b. standardizing using a large, representative sample c. elimination of cultural bias d. development of quantitative analytic methods ANSWER: a

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 31. Which of the following is a valid criticism of early versions of the Binet Scale? a. lack of ability to differentiate among different age groups b. difficult and time-consuming administration c. heavy reliance on verbal abilities d. failure to relate to Binet’s model of intelligence ANSWER: c 32. The main improvement in the 1908 Binet-Simon scale was the introduction of a. the concept of mental age. b. a control group. c. a performance scale. d. the IQ concept.

ANSWER: a 33. A persistent criticism of the 1908 Binet-Simon scale was the a. lack of a control group. b. emphasis on language and verbal abilities. c. lack of an age scale. d. use of outmoded terms.

ANSWER: b 34. The 30 items in the Binet-Simon scale were arranged a. according to type of task. b. randomly to avoid ordering effects. c. according to underlying ability tapped. d. in an increasing order of difficulty.

ANSWER: d 35. Which scale used the now offensive and unacceptable terms idiot, imbecile, and moron? a. the 1905 Binet-Simon Scale b. the 1908 Binet-Simon Scale c. the 1911 Binet-Simon Scale d. the 1916 Stanford-Binet Scale ANSWER: a

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 36. In an age scale, a. items are grouped according to difficulty. b. items are grouped by content. c. items are grouped according to age level. d. items are grouped according to age level and content.

ANSWER: c 37. Binet's rationale for providing only a single score was a. the result of the principle of age differentiation. b. based on the notion of general mental ability. c. logically inconsistent with his major premise. d. inappropriate for his purpose.

ANSWER: b 38. The 1908 Binet-Simon Scale a. abandoned the principle of age differentiation. b. used the age scale format. c. relied largely on nonverbal tests of intelligence. d. introduced the concept of gf-gc.

ANSWER: b 39. The 1916 Stanford-Binet was developed under the direction of a. T. Simon. b. F. Kuhlman. c. R. M. Yerkes. d. L. M. Terman.

ANSWER: d 40. Terman's 1916 Stanford-Binet added the following improvement to the earlier scales: a. an increase in the size of the standardization sample. b. the age scale format. c. the mental age concept. d. the principle of age differentiation.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 41. The IQ concept was introduced a. in the 1908 Binet-Simon Scale. b. in the 1911 Binet-Simon Scale. c. in the 1916 Stanford-Binet Scale. d. in the 1937 Stanford-Binet Scale.

ANSWER: c 42. The standardization sample of Terman's 1916 Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale a. consisted exclusively of native born children from California. b. consisted exclusively of native born children from the United States. c. included foreign born children of Northern European descent. d. included only a token number of black children.

ANSWER: a 43. Intelligence Quotient (IQ) is determined by the formula a. MA = IQ/CA X 100. b. IQ = MA/CA X 100. c. IQ = CA/MA X 100. d. IQ = MA/CA. ANSWER: b 44. Why did the 1916 Stanford-Binet set an upper age limit? a. Intelligence testing is needed only for school-age groups, not for adults. b. The IQs of all persons above the maximum possible mental age would have been less than 100. c. It was developed during World War I when men in their teens and twenties were being drafted. d. Acceptable reliability and validity could not be established for individuals older than 16.

ANSWER: b 45. Which of the following was a significant improvement of the 1937 Stanford-Binet? a. The upper age limit was eliminated. b. It equalized reliability across age groups. c. Items suitable for infants younger than 2 years of age were added. d. Performance items were added to reduce reliance on verbal skills.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 46. What important concept was included in the 1960 Stanford-Binet Revision? a. norms b. factor analysis c. deviation IQ d. standardized administration ANSWER: c 47. Which of the following was included in the 1916 Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale? a. separate scales based on race and sex b. general mental ability c. standardization using a geographically diverse population d. representative sampling ANSWER: b 48. Which version of the Stanford-Binet scale was the first one to utilize a large, geographically diverse standardization sample? a. 1905 b. 1908 c. 1916 d. 1937 ANSWER: d 49. One problem with the standardization sample in the 1937 version of the Stanford-Binet scale was that a. there were only Californians in the sample. b. the sample was too small. c. the sample only included whites. d. rural residents were over-represented.

ANSWER: c 50. The 1937 Stanford-Binet scale was more reliable for ____ than for ____ individuals. a. younger; older b. older; younger c. urban; rural d. rural; urban ANSWER: b

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 51. Among the improvements of the 1937 Stanford-Binet Scale was the a. introduction of the IQ concept. b. introduction of the deviation IQ concept. c. inclusion of an alternate equivalent form. d. elimination of the IQ concept.

ANSWER: c 52. If a 10-year-old child has a mental age of 12, what would her IQ be? a. 83 b. 100 c. 120 d. 140 ANSWER: c 53. In which version of the Binet scale was an alternate, equivalent form first introduced? a. the 1908 Stanford-Binet Scale b. the 1916 Stanford-Binet Scale c. the 1937 Stanford-Binet Scale d. the 1960 Stanford-Binet Scale ANSWER: c 54. Poorest reliabilities of the 1937 Stanford-Binet Scale occurred for a. older children at low IQ levels. b. older children at high IQ levels. c. young children at low IQ levels. d. young children at high IQ levels.

ANSWER: d 55. The deviation IQ became necessary because a. standard deviations for IQ's were the same across age groups. b. IQ's at one age level did not compare to IQ's at another age level in terms of percentiles. c. the IQ was difficult to calculate. d. the IQ was a cumbersome concept.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 56. As used in the Stanford-Binet Scale, the deviation IQ is a standard score with a a. mean of 100 and standard deviation of 10. b. mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15. c. mean of 100 and standard deviation of 16. d. mean of 50 and standard deviation of 8.

ANSWER: c 57. What was the most significant psychometric problem of the 1937 Stanford-Binet Scale? a. differential variability of IQ scores as a function of age b. narrower age range c. more problematic scoring standards and instructions d. poor predictive validity ANSWER: a 58. The first version of the Stanford-Binet to include non-whites in the standardization sample was the a. 1937 scale. b. 1960 scale. c. 1972 scale. d. 1986 scale.

ANSWER: c 59. Which of the following is NOT a major content area of the 1986 Stanford-Binet? a. verbal reasoning b. visual-motor accuracy c. short-term memory d. abstract reasoning ANSWER: b 60. Which type of intelligence reflects learning the overlay of experience on original potential? a. short-term intelligence b. long-term intelligence c. crystallized intelligence d. fluid intelligence ANSWER: c

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 61. The 1986 Binet eliminated a. the age scale format. b. the concept of age differentiation. c. the evaluation of general mental ability. d. adaptive testing.

ANSWER: a 62. The two alternate equivalent forms of the 1937 Stanford-Binet were forms a. S & B. b. L & M. c. B & S. d. B & T. ANSWER: b 63. In the 2003 fifth edition of the Binet Scale, the verbal and nonverbal scales are a. equally weighted. b. unequally weighted. c. age restricted. d.

ANSWER: a 64. In the current (2003) version of the Binet scale, testing proceeds until an examinee has a particular number of incorrect responses. This point is called the ____. a. criterion b. basal c. ceiling d. floor ANSWER: c 65. In the current (2003) version of the Binet scale, the level at which a minimum criterion number of correct responses is obtained is known as the ____. a. criterion b. basal c. ceiling d. floor ANSWER: b

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 66. How many factors are present in the Fifth Edition of the Binet scale? a. two b. three c. four d. five ANSWER: d 67. Evidence for the validity of the Fifth Edition of the Binet scale does NOT include ____ validity. a. predictive b. criterion c. content d. construct ANSWER: a 68. Binet freed himself from the burden of specifying each component of intelligence by introducing the concept of a. crystallized intelligence. b. fluid intelligence. c. mental age. d. general mental ability.

ANSWER: d 69. How did Thurstone’s conceptualization of intelligence differ from Spearman’s? a. Thurstone argued for a single, global intelligence rather than a multidimensional model. b. Thurstone believed that intelligence was almost exclusively nonverbal. c. Thurstone believed the components of intelligence were largely independent, whereas Spearman believed in a single process. d. Thurstone believed intelligence was best measured by physiologic processes.

ANSWER: c 70. What is the purpose of routing tests? a. They measure an individual’s visuospatial skills. b. They prevent administration of items that are too easy. c. They help establish interrelations among components of intelligence. d. They improve reliability and validity.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 71. Which of the following approaches to studying human intelligence focuses on how humans adapt to real world demands? a. psychometric b. information-processing c. cognitive d. none of the above ANSWER: c 72. Binet’s approach to intelligence testing is based primarily on which approach to studying human intelligence? a. psychometric b. information-processing c. cognitive d. none of the above ANSWER: a 73. Which of the following was NOT one of the facilities through which Binet believed intelligence was expressed? a. reasoning b. creative c. judgmental d. attentional ANSWER: b 74. Which of the following scenarios describes a child with the mental age of 10? a. A 7-year-old prefers the company of a 10-year-old to someone her own age. b. A 10-year-old performs a task at the proficiency level of the average 7-year-old. c. A 10-year old prefers the company of a 7-year-old to someone her own age. d. A 7-year-old performs a task at the proficiency level of the average 10-year-old.

ANSWER: d 75. Binet judged the value of any particular task in terms of its correlation with a. other items within the same age category. b. other items within the same age category. c. the total scale score. d. the Wechsler scales.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 76. The abilities that allow us to reason, think, and acquire new knowledge are referred to as what type of intelligence? a. general b. fluid c. crystallized d. principle ANSWER: b 77. Which was the first version of the Stanford-Binet scale to group items according to age level? a. 1908 b. 1916 c. 1937 d. 1960 ANSWER: a 78. Which revision of the Stanford-Binet scale was the first to seriously address the underrepresentation of skills such as visual and motor functioning? a. 1916 b. 1937 c. 1960 d. 1986 ANSWER: d 79. Discuss the three-level hierarchical model of the modern Binet and compare it to Spearman's concept of general mental ability.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

80. Compare and contrast crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence, giving examples of each.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

81. Explain how g is related to specific intelligence.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

82. Identify the key constructs of gf-gc theories and explain their underlying theory of intelligence.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

83. Trace the progression of the Stanford-Binet scale to the modern version. Describe the timeline and most significant changes within each revision.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 09: Theories of Intelligence and the Binet Scales 84. Describe the characteristics of the 2003 fifth edition of the Stanford-Binet scale, including the purpose of the routing tests and how they are applied.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 10: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales: WAIS-IV, WISC-IV, and WPPSI-III 1. Among his motivations for the development of the Wechsler scales of intelligence, was David Wechsler's belief that a. one underlying mental ability was solely responsible for the concept of intelligence. b. a single intelligence score was the most appropriate measure of human intelligence. c. human intelligence was significantly influenced by nonintellectual factors. d. existing intelligence scales were adequate to measure the intelligence of all age groups.

ANSWER: c 2. Because he used a point scale, Wechsler was able to a. determine age level performance. b. assign points on an all or none basis. c. only analyze one area of ability. d. group similar content items together.

ANSWER: d 3. The separate subscale used to measure nonverbal intelligence in the Wechsler scale is called a(n) a. point scale. b. performance scale. c. memory scale. d. age scale.

ANSWER: b 4. One of the most influential advocates of the role of nonintellectual factors in intelligence tests is a. Binet. b. Terman. c. Wechsler. d. Rapaport.

ANSWER: c 5. A major criticism of the Binet scale by Wechsler was that a. the Binet Scale was not an appropriate measure of adult intelligence. b. the concept of an age scale was outdated. c. it was not reliable. d. the norms did not include non-whites.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 10: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales: WAIS-IV, WISC-IV, and WPPSI-III 6. The original Wechsler scale was the first one that a. was capable of directly comparing verbal and nonverbal measures. b. used a large, representative sample. c. used a performance scale. d. could be generalized to various populations.

ANSWER: a 7. The Wechsler-Bellevue a. was well standardized. b. had a normative sample consisting of a representative sample of adults. c. included a standardization sample that was larger than any before or since. d. used separate subscales to measure adult intelligence.

ANSWER: d 8. The Wechsler tests employs a(n) a. age scale concept. b. criterion IQ concept. c. self-reference point concept. d. point scale concept.

ANSWER: d 9. In a point scale, a. items are grouped according to age level and content. b. points are assigned to each item. c. items cannot be presented in order of increasing difficulty. d. subjects receive some points even for items that are missed.

ANSWER: b 10. The concept of a Performance Scale a. was introduced by Wechsler in 1939. b. was introduced prior to the development of the Wechsler-Bellevue. c. was found to be more applicable to adults than to children. d. was found to be more applicable to children than to adults.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 10: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales: WAIS-IV, WISC-IV, and WPPSI-III 11. Which of the following is true of the Wechsler Scales? a. Items have content validity for adults. b. They are most useful with adults. c. They are administered in groups. d. They have limited reliability in clinical settings.

ANSWER: a 12. The main reason for including a performance scale in a measure of intelligence is to a. facilitate scoring. b. increase ease of administration. c. improve examiner-examinee rapport. d. overcome language, cultural, and educational factors.

ANSWER: d 13. Which of the following is a component of Wechsler's definition of intelligence? a. self-esteem b. emotional intelligence c. artistic talent d. capacity to act purposefully ANSWER: d 14. Which of the following is true of the Wechsler-Bellevue Intelligence Scale? a. It is appropriate for children but not adults. b. Its normative sample was non-representative. c. It has a verbal scale, but, unlike the other Wechsler scales, not a performance scale. d. It is unfair to older adults.

ANSWER: b 15. The information subtest of the WAIS-IV measures a. concentration. b. anxiety. c. range of knowledge. d. abstract thinking.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 10: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales: WAIS-IV, WISC-IV, and WPPSI-III 16. The comprehension subtest of the WAIS-IV measures a. abstract thinking. b. analysis of part whole relationships. c. anxiety. d. common sense or judgment.

ANSWER: d 17. The arithmetic subtest of the WAIS-IV measures a. concentration. b. alertness to details. c. planning ability. d. common sense or judgment.

ANSWER: a 18. The similarities subtest of the WAIS-IV measures a. abstract thinking. b. planning ability. c. common sense or judgment. d. anxiety.

ANSWER: a 19. The digit span subtest of the WAIS-IV measures a. alertness to details. b. nonverbal reasoning. c. visual-motor functioning. d. anxiety.

ANSWER: d 20. Which WAIS-IV subtest asks questions such as, "What should you do if you see an injured person lying in the street?" a. information b. comprehension c. similarities d. picture arrangement ANSWER: b

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Chapter 10: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales: WAIS-IV, WISC-IV, and WPPSI-III 21. Which of the following is not one of the WAIS-IV verbal scales? a. digit symbol-coding b. information c. similarities d. digit-span ANSWER: a 22. In which WAIS-IV subtest would an emotional disturbance be likely to interfere with the subject's response? a. information b. comprehension c. similarities d. vocabulary ANSWER: b 23. Which WAIS-IV subtest is likely to reveal the character of a person's thought processes? a. information b. comprehension c. similarities d. arithmetic ANSWER: c 24. Which WAIS-IV subtest provides one of the most stable and least deteriorating aspects of intelligence? a. information b. comprehension c. similarities d. vocabulary ANSWER: d 25. Which of the following subtests measures short-term and auditory memory? a. digit span b. block design c. digit symbol d. picture completion ANSWER: a

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Chapter 10: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales: WAIS-IV, WISC-IV, and WPPSI-III 26. Which of the following is a supplemental verbal subtest? a. matrix reasoning b. letter-number sequencing c. analogies d. digit-symbol-coding ANSWER: b 27. Scaled scores on the WAIS-IV have a mean of ____ and a standard deviation of ____. a. 10; 3 b. 50; 10 c. 100; 15 d. 100; 16 ANSWER: a 28. The Verbal IQ has a mean of ____ and a standard deviation of ____. a. 100; 15 b. 10; 3 c. 100; 10 d. 100; 3 ANSWER: a 29. Which WAIS-IV subtest measures such factors as the ability to learn an unfamiliar task, visual-motor dexterity, and the degree of persistence? a. digit symbol b. picture completion c. picture arrangement d. block design ANSWER: a 30. In the WAIS-IV, a full-scale IQ is obtained by a. multiplying verbal and nonverbal scores. b. dividing verbal scores by age and multiplying by 100. c. adding scores of the various scales. d. adding weighted scores of various scales.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 10: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales: WAIS-IV, WISC-IV, and WPPSI-III 31. In the WAIS-IV, an index is created when a. two or more subtests are related to a basic underlying skill. b. a specified number of items is missed. c. a criterion number of correct responses is obtained. d. at least one subtest is related to an underlying skill.

ANSWER: a 32. The best single measure of intelligence that is also the most stable is a. information processing speed. b. quantitative ability. c. the ability to define words. d. concentration.

ANSWER: c 33. Lowered performance compared to a previously higher level is referred to as a. an index. b. deterioration. c. a ceiling effect. d. manifold.

ANSWER: b 34. Which subtest of the WAIS-IV is specifically related to working memory and attention? a. letter-number sequencing b. comprehension c. vocabulary d. similarity ANSWER: a 35. In order to compare scores on individual subtests, a. you can compare raw scores directly because of the use of a point scale. b. raw scores are converted to standard scores. c. weighted averages for each subscale are computed and then compared. d. scores on subscales cannot be compared to one another.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 10: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales: WAIS-IV, WISC-IV, and WPPSI-III 36. The WAIS-IV uses what two kinds of norms in order to facilitate the comparison of scores on individual subtests? a. gender and age b. ethnic group and gender c. profession and age-adjusted d. age-adjusted and reference group ANSWER: d 37. The FSIQ has a mean of ____ and standard deviation of ____. a. 10; 3 b. 100; 3 c. 100; 10 d. 100; 15 ANSWER: d 38. Information processing skills are measured by the a. digit-symbol coding subtest. b. matrix reasoning subtest. c. block design subtest. d. information subtest.

ANSWER: b 39. Which WAIS-IV subtest purports to measure the speed of information processing? a. matrix reasoning b. symbol search c. block design d. object assembly ANSWER: b 40. Which WAIS-IV subtest provides an excellent measure of nonverbal concept formation or abstract reasoning? a. matrix reasoning b. symbol search c. block design d. letter-number sequencing ANSWER: c

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Chapter 10: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales: WAIS-IV, WISC-IV, and WPPSI-III 41. Which of the following represents a Full Scale IQ two standard deviations above the mean? a. 110 b. 80 c. 120 d. 130 ANSWER: d 42. Picture completion, block design, and matrix reasoning are the components of the ____ index. a. verbal comprehension b. perceptual c. working memory d. processing speed ANSWER: b 43. The index that refers to the information a person is currently holding in memory and actively manipulating is called a. verbal comprehension. b. perceptual index. c. working memory. d. processing speed.

ANSWER: c 44. The ____ index attempts to measure how quickly your mind works. a. verbal comprehension b. perceptual index c. working memory d. processing speed ANSWER: d 45. The index that can best be thought of as a measure of crystallized intelligence is a. verbal comprehension. b. perceptual index. c. working memory. d. processing speed.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 10: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales: WAIS-IV, WISC-IV, and WPPSI-III 46. Subtests are to index scores as index scores are to a. FSIQ b. IQ c. WISC d. WAIS ANSWER: a 47. IQ scores are determined on the WAIS-IV by a. summing the age-corrected scaled scores of the composite indexes. b. summing the scaled scores and dividing by the ratio MA/CA c. the formula IQ = MA/CA X 100. d. summing the raw score for each IQ and comparing this sum to age appropriate norms.

ANSWER: a 48. Pattern analysis is best used to generate a. diagnoses. b. reliability measures. c. hypotheses. d. validity coefficients.

ANSWER: c 49. Evaluating relatively large differences between subtest scaled scores is called a. factor analysis. b. verbal-performance comparisons. c. pattern analysis. d. deviation analysis.

ANSWER: c 50. Suppose an individual who was previously known to have intelligence is tested several years later. On the second test, while the individual is within the normal range on verbal scales, her scores on performance scales have dropped to well below normal. What might you suspect? a. brain injury or brain tumor b. severe depression c. attention deficit disorder d. limited motivation ANSWER: a

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Chapter 10: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales: WAIS-IV, WISC-IV, and WPPSI-III 51. The validity of pattern analysis of the Wechsler Scales a. is well established in clinical settings. b. has yet to be resolved. c. prevents practitioners from using interpretative patterns. d. cannot be determined empirically.

ANSWER: b 52. The reliability of the WAIS-IV a. is not well-established b. ranges from 0.90 to 0.98 for the indexes c. has recently decreased sharply d. is of little importance ANSWER: b 53. In general, the validity of the WAIS-IV a. rests on studies done with earlier versions of the test. b. is undocumented, but promising. c. indicates the WAIS correlates poorly with other tests of intelligence. d. is weak when factor analytic data are considered.

ANSWER: a 54. Which of the following is true of the WAIS-IV? a. Pattern analysis can be used to diagnose functional and organic illnesses. b. It reflects Wechsler’s belief that there are multiple, independent types of intelligence. c. It is too complex to use in clinical settings. d. Reliability of individual subtests tends to be lower than for the index scores.

ANSWER: d 55. Which of the following describes the current consensus model of intelligence? a. individual abilities that group into multiple factors relatively independent of each other. b. a global model of general intelligence with little variation between grouped factors. c. a hierarchical model with a general factor at the top followed by group factors and finally individual abilities. d. a model of individual abilities directly connected to a general intelligence factor.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 10: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales: WAIS-IV, WISC-IV, and WPPSI-III 56. Which test can be administered and scored by two coordinated iPads? a. WISC-IV b. WISC-V c. WPPSI-IV d. WAIS-IV ANSWER: b 57. Success on the WISC-V is heavily based on a. creativity. b. stamina. c. accuracy on more difficult items. d. speed.

ANSWER: d 58. Which of the following is a descriptive classification on the WISC-V a. "borderline" b. "imbecile" c. "extremely high score" d. "superior" ANSWER: c 59. Which of the following is NOT one the five indexes or primary scores used by the WISC-V and WAIS-IV? a. processing speed b. long term memory c. fluid reasoning d. verbal comprehension ANSWER: b 60. While the WAIS-IV has ____ factors, factor analysis of the WISC-V indicated ____. a. 3; 4 b. 4; 3 c. 4; 5 d. 5; 4 ANSWER: c

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Chapter 10: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales: WAIS-IV, WISC-IV, and WPPSI-III 61. Which test was further validated by special group studies focused on individuals with cognitive deficits, such as traumatic brain injuries and autism spectrum disorder? a. WISC-IV b. WISC-V c. WPPSI-IV d. WAIS-IV ANSWER: b 62. WPPSI-IV users have the flexibility to use more or less subtests based on the needs of the evaluation and a. the child's diagnosis. b. the time of testing. c. the child's age. d. the number of children being tested.

ANSWER: c 63. The Wechsler tests have all proven to be compatible with a. educational tests. b. clinical assessments. c. achievement tests. d. school performance.

ANSWER: c 64. The largest debate regarding the development of the Wechsler scales is regarding a. their validity for predicting achievement. b. their use with very young children. c. their validity with individuals with cognitive impairments. d. the number of factors and their stability.

ANSWER: d 65. The reliabilities for the Wechsler tests in general are a. low. b. moderate. c. high. d. still undergoing testing to be determined.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 10: The Wechsler Intelligence Scales: WAIS-IV, WISC-IV, and WPPSI-III 66. Index scores on the modern day Wechsler tests are a replacement for the past use of a. performance scales. b. point scales. c. primary scales. d. ancillary scales.

ANSWER: a 67. Choose one of the WAIS-IV subtests and describe possible non-intellective factors that may influence an individual's performance.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

68. Compare and contrast the WAIS-IV with the Binet scale that you learned about in the previous chapter.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

69. Describe the hierarchical structure of the WISC-V. Specifically, list the names of each level of the hierarchy and the subtests they comprise.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

70. Discuss the general vs. single intelligence factor debate, providing evidence for each side of the argument.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

71. Explain the ways in which technology is used to enhance the administration of the WISC-V. ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 11: Other Individual Tests of Ability in Education and Special Education 1. Which of the following is an advantage of alternative tests? a. They have stronger validation. b. They yield stable scores. c. They are interchangeable with Wechsler. d. They are suitable for use with populations with disabilities.

ANSWER: d 2. Alternative individual ability tests a. are often not as reliant on a verbal response as are the Binet and Wechsler scales. b. depend more on complex integration of visual/motor functioning. c. are psychometrically superior to the Binet and Wechsler scales. d. do not make use of performance tasks.

ANSWER: a 3. One way to overcome the limitations of a particular alternative ability test is to a. use several such tests in conjunction. b. compare the results to one of the major scales. c. compare the results at two different administrations. d. There is no way to overcome these limitations.

ANSWER: a 4. In comparison to the Binet and Wechsler Scales, alternative forms a. are more stable. b. are not as psychometrically sound. c. are more reliant on verbal responses. d. provide more validity documentation.

ANSWER: b 5. In comparison to the Binet and Wechsler scales, the alternative individual ability tests a. are more stable. b. are more established. c. are superior from a psychometric standpoint. d. can be used for specific populations.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 11: Other Individual Tests of Ability in Education and Special Education 6. Alternative individual intelligence tests a. tend to be more stable than the Binet and Wechsler scales. b. are better than the two major scales when all relevant factors are considered. c. find their major advantage when used for their own unique purposes. d. are highly reliable and valid.

ANSWER: c 7. An IQ score based on one of the alternative tests a. is usually interchangeable with a score from one of the major scales. b. is usually more accurate than a score from one of the major scales. c. should generally not be used interchangeably with a score from one of the major scales. d. is generally more reliable than a score based on one of the major scales.

ANSWER: c 8. Which of the following is true of ability tests other than the Binet and Wechsler tests? a. Nearly all yield scores that are directly comparable to the results of the Binet and/or Wechsler tests. b. Nearly all are very easy to administer and require only brief training. c. Because most focus on the needs of children with disabilities, they are nearly all non-verbal and require simple responses. d. While some focus on a wide range of abilities, most focus on a narrow range.

ANSWER: d 9. Which ability test preceded the development of the Binet scale? a. Healy-Fernald Test b. The Knox Battery c. Seguin Form Board Test d. Gesell Developmental Schedules ANSWER: c 10. A heavy emphasis was placed on speed in performance of the a. Knox test battery. b. Healy-Fernald Test. c. Seguin Form Board Test. d. BNAS. ANSWER: c

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Chapter 11: Other Individual Tests of Ability in Education and Special Education 11. The Brazelton Scale a. has relatively good norms. b. lacks predictive validity. c. has very poor inter-rater reliability. d. is stable over time.

ANSWER: b 12. Of the infant and preschool tests, the youngest age range is covered by a. The Bayley Scales of Infant Development II. b. The Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale. c. The Cattell Infant Intelligence Scale. d. Gesell Developmental Schedules.

ANSWER: b 13. No normative data is available for the a. Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale. b. Gesell Developmental Schedules. c. Bayley Scales of Infant Development II. d. Cattell Infant Intelligence Scale.

ANSWER: a 14. A major drawback of the Brazelton Scale is that a. it does not contain information about social functioning. b. no norms are available. c. it is not effective for use with drug-addicted infants. d. it is not a useful research tool.

ANSWER: b 15. Test-retest reliability coefficients for the Brazelton Scale a. are both good and stable. b. are generally good but unstable. c. are generally poor but stable. d. are both poor and unstable.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 11: Other Individual Tests of Ability in Education and Special Education 16. The Brazelton Scale a. has relatively good norms. b. purports to measure a newborn's competence. c. has very good test-retest reliability. d. is a very narrow neonatal exam.

ANSWER: b 17. Normative data for the Gesell Scale a. were based on a large representative sample. b. included 10 percent minorities. c. were based on a small, but representative sample for the general population. d. was not representative of the population.

ANSWER: d 18. The Developmental Quotient (DQ) is employed in the a. Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale. b. Gesell Developmental Schedules. c. Bayley Scales of Infant Development. d. Cattell Infant Intelligence Scale.

ANSWER: b 19. The developmental quotient (DQ) a. parallels the Intelligence Quotient (IQ) concept. b. parallels the Mental Age (MA) concept. c. cannot be compared to the IQ or MA concept. d. parallels the deviation IQ concept.

ANSWER: b 20. After years of extensive use, the Gesell scale a. still has a number of problems. b. has relatively few problems. c. is no longer used in clinical settings. d. has excellent documentation in terms of reliability and validity.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 11: Other Individual Tests of Ability in Education and Special Education 21. The Gesell scale a. presents strong evidence of reliability in the test manual. b. presents strong evidence of validity in the test manual. c. has an excellent normative sample. d. is based on a longitudinal study of early human development.

ANSWER: d 22. The Bayley III assesses development across how many domains? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 ANSWER: d 23. According to the laws on special education testing, when evaluating a student for a learning disability to qualify for special education, a. the Binet test must be used. b. the Wechsler test must be used. c. both the Binet and Wechsler tests must be used. d. neither the Binet nor the Wechsler test must be used.

ANSWER: d 24. The Bayley-III is designed to be used with children from ____ of age. a. 3 days to 4 weeks b. 1 month to 42 months c. 2 months to 30 months d. 2 years to 6 years ANSWER: b 25. Which of the following scales is used as a research tool to validate other psychological instruments? a. Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale b. Gesell Developmental Schedules c. Bayley Scales of Infant Development III d. Cattell Infant Intelligence Scale ANSWER: b

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Chapter 11: Other Individual Tests of Ability in Education and Special Education 26. Which of the following is true of the Gesell Scale’s ability to predict intelligence? a. It only predicts intelligence at the lower ends of the scale. b. It is comparable to the Binet Scales. c. It only predicts intelligence in children 6-12 years old. d. It is a psychometrically sound instrument for predicting intelligence in children under 6 years old.

ANSWER: a 27. The Bayley III Scales a. are currently the most psychometrically rigorous. b. predict future intelligence in children with high intelligence. c. do not predict well for infants with cognitive impairments. d. were designed for children between 3 and 5 years of age.

ANSWER: a 28. The McCarthy Scales a. are psychometrically unsound. b. are outdated and have only historical significance. c. are widely used in research. d. represent a novel conceptualization of intelligence.

ANSWER: c 29. The McCarthy Scales for Children's Abilities a. produces only a single score. b. produces a score known as the general cognitive index. c. measures abilities in children between 4.5 and 10.5 years of age. d. are not psychometrically sound.

ANSWER: b 30. The General Cognitive Index a. is derived by the formula GC = MA/CA X 100. b. is derived by the formula GC = CA/MA X 100. c. is a standard score with a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10. d. is a standard score with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 16.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 11: Other Individual Tests of Ability in Education and Special Education 31. The General Cognitive Index (GCI) is made up of a. verbal, perceptual-performance, and quantitative scales. b. verbal, memory, and motor scales. c. verbal, quantitative, and additional scales. d. verbal, quantitative, and memory scales.

ANSWER: a 32. The KABC draws a major distinction between which two types of higher brain processes? a. sequential and simultaneous processing. b. verbal and nonverbal processing. c. hand movements and number recall. d. face recognition and Gestalt closure.

ANSWER: a 33. The Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children (KABC) a. was developed in the 1970s. b. contains only three subtests. c. is an ability test for children 3 to 18 years of age. d. was developed to assess only infants.

ANSWER: c 34. Which of the following tests uses the General Cognitive Index (GCI)? a. Bayley Scales III b. Gesell Developmental Schedules c. Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale d. McCarthy Scales of Children's Abilities ANSWER: d 35. Recent studies have indicated that the Bayley-III a. cannot differentiate between normative and developmentally delayed children. b. underestimates developmental impairment. c. only adequately measures language and motor impairments. d. is not an effective measurement tool for infants less than 3 months old.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 11: Other Individual Tests of Ability in Education and Special Education 36. The KABC a. has limited validity when evaluating gifted children. b. is unbiased when used with Mexican-American children. c. has a combined intelligence and achievement scale. d. produces large differences between African-American and white children.

ANSWER: a 37. The KABC a. tends to show larger African-American/white differences than the WISC-R or Binet. b. tends to show smaller African-American/white differences than the WISC-R or Binet. c. is not appropriate for evaluating African-American children. d. is not appropriate for evaluating white children.

ANSWER: b 38. The Columbia Mental Maturity Scale is a reliable instrument, but is not useful in assessing individuals a. with sensory handicaps. b. with physical handicaps. c. under the age of 3 years. d. with language handicaps.

ANSWER: c 39. Which test is especially vulnerable to random errors? a. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale b. Leiter International Performance Scale c. Porteus Maze Test d. KABC ANSWER: a 40. Which test purports to measure receptive (hearing) vocabulary? a. KABC b. McCarthy Scales c. Peabody Picture Vocabulary d. Porteus Maze Test ANSWER: c

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Chapter 11: Other Individual Tests of Ability in Education and Special Education 41. When used with adults, the ____ tends to underestimate IQ. a. Wechsler b. KABC c. Binet d. Peabody Picture Vocabulary ANSWER: d 42. The Peabody is a. a useful component of a test battery. b. a viable alternative to the Binet. c. reliant on the ability to read. d. psychometrically unsound.

ANSWER: a 43. Which test can be administered in about 15 minutes and requires no reading ability? a. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale b. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test c. Porteus Maze Test d. KABC ANSWER: b 44. Which test is strictly a performance scale aimed at providing a nonverbal measure of intelligence for individuals from 3 to 75 years and older? a. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale b. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test c. Leiter International Performance Scale-Third Edition d. KABC ANSWER: c 45. Which scale purports to measure general intelligence by sampling from a variety of functions, such as memory and nonverbal reasoning, in a completely nonverbal fashion? a. KABC b. Peabody Picture Vocabulary c. CMMS d. Leiter International Performance Scale-Third Edition ANSWER: d

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Chapter 11: Other Individual Tests of Ability in Education and Special Education 46. Which of the following tests is based on the information processing approach? a. Leiter International Performance Scale b. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test c. Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities d. Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test ANSWER: c 47. Which of the following tests was developed as a non-verbal test for use with adolescent “delinquents?” a. Seguin b. Healy-Fernald c. BNAS d. GDS ANSWER: b 48. Which of the following is a drawback of the Brazelton test? a. It does not predict future intelligence. b. It is not suitable as a research tool. c. It is not useful for diagnostic purposes. d. It includes only elicited responses.

ANSWER: a 49. Which of the following is true of the Brazelton test? a. Infants must be at least 6 weeks old before it can be used. b. It has the greatest breadth of infant tests. c. It has very limited research support. d. The norming sample was representative of the U.S. population.

ANSWER: b 50. Which of the following is true of most infant intelligence measures? a. Predictive and construct validity are not well documented. b. They differentiate well for infants who function at higher levels but do not do well with infants who are suspected of having disabilities. c. They can be used in place of invasive medical tests and complex scanning methodologies. d. Because of their psychometric weaknesses, they are no longer used.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 11: Other Individual Tests of Ability in Education and Special Education 51. The underlying assumption of the Gesell Developmental Schedules is that a. intelligent infants are better able to interact with their caregivers. b. early developmental deficits are not predictive of continued deficits. c. properly developed and administered infant intelligence tests predict subsequent intelligence. d. human development unfolds in stages over time.

ANSWER: d 52. Which of the following is an important feature of the Bayley-III? a. It is entirely non-verbal. b. It includes observations aimed at better informing interventions. c. It yields a two-factor model: motor skills and intelligence. d. It is strongly predictive of later intelligence.

ANSWER: b 53. One of the theoretical bases of the Kaufman battery is a. Luria’s model of brain functioning. b. Skinner’s model of learning. c. Pavlov’s approach to conditioning. d. Binet’s structure of intelligence.

ANSWER: a 54. Which of the following is an example of simultaneous processing? a. synthesizing information to solve problems b. arranging information in a systematic order c. splitting attention between two sources of information d. any activity that involves both verbal and nonverbal skills.

ANSWER: a 55. What is the underlying assumption of the Benton Visual Retention Test? a. Visuospatial skills are highly predictive of intelligence. b. Brain damage can easily impair visual memory. c. Individuals with brain damage will stay on dull visual tasks longer than individuals without brain damage. d. Neurological tests should relate specific areas of the brain to function.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 11: Other Individual Tests of Ability in Education and Special Education 56. The main purpose of the Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities is to measure a. infant intelligence. b. sensory handicaps. c. specific learning disabilities. d. brain damage.

ANSWER: c 57. The concept of psychological deficit suggests that poor performance on a specific task is related to a. observable behavioral deficits. b. an underlying deficit. c. poor verbal skills. d. poor visual-spatial skills.

ANSWER: b 58. Which of the following is a procedure with relevance for assessing brain damage? a. Leiter International Performance Scale-Revised b. Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities c. Porteus Maze Test d. Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test ANSWER: d 59. The general reaction among reviewers to the Torrance Tests of Creative Thinking has been a. unequivocal praise. b. strongly positive with some negative criticism. c. generally negative with some positive support. d. a suggestion that more work is needed.

ANSWER: d 60. Which of the following is superior to the ITPA for evaluating learning disabilities? a. Woodcock-Johnson b. Bender c. Leiter d. Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test ANSWER: a

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Chapter 11: Other Individual Tests of Ability in Education and Special Education 61. The Wide Range Achievement Test-3 has been criticized because a. it measures intelligence rather than achievement. b. it is difficult to administer. c. sample sizes in validity studies are too small. d. it is not applicable to children younger than 10 years of age.

ANSWER: c 62. Memory-for-Designs (MFD) is intended to assess a. learning disorders. b. children under age of 3. c. brain injury or disease. d. academic achievement.

ANSWER: c 63. According to the concept of psychological deficit, a. poor performance in a specific task is related to or caused by some underlying psychological deficit. b. poor performance in a specific task is related to or caused by low intelligence. c. poor performance in a specific task is related to or caused by low motivation. d. poor performance in a specific task is related to or caused by a situational factors.

ANSWER: a 64. When compared to the general population, the Bayley III standardization sample is a. lower in achievement. b. higher in achievement. c. lower in ability. d. higher in ability.

ANSWER: c 65. Which scale was found to be useful in making an early diagnosis of language disorder? a. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test b. Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities c. Bayley III d. Gesell Scales ANSWER: c

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Chapter 11: Other Individual Tests of Ability in Education and Special Education 66. The Cattell standardization sample is primarily a. developmentally delayed. b. male. c. ethnic minorities. d. lower and middle income.

ANSWER: c 67. The McCarthy Scales a. can compete with the Wechsler Scale. b. are no longer sold. c. lack recent norms. d. were last revised in 2013.

ANSWER: c 68. Which of the following is NOT one of the Woodcock-Johnson IV test batteries? a. Socioemotional skills b. Cognitive abilities c. Oral language d. Achievement ANSWER: a 69. The Woodcock-Johnson IV test batteries a. are administered at separate time periods. b. are independent but coordinated. c. only measure general intellectual ability. d. consist of seven subscales.

ANSWER: b 70. Multiple standardization procedures on the TTCT over time have shown that in the general population, IQ has ________, while creativity has ________. a. stayed the same; increased b. decreased; increased c. stayed the same; decreased d. increased; decreased ANSWER: d

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Chapter 11: Other Individual Tests of Ability in Education and Special Education 71. How long does it take to administer the Memory for Designs (MFD) test? a. 10 minutes b. 30 minutes or less c. 3 hours d. Several hours over the course of multiple testing intervals ANSWER: a 72. Discuss the implications of testing infants. What are the advantages and disadvantages of such procedures?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

73. Given what you have learned about testing and its legal ramifications in regard to education, what steps would you take to ensure the best possible evaluation of a school-age member in your family, should they need to be evaluated for a learning disability? What particular test or tests would you want (or not want) to be administered to the child?

Why or why not?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

74. Identify and discuss three visiographic tests, their psychometric properties, and their uses.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

75. Describe the possible circumstances in which a person might differ in intelligence and achievement. What might be indicated by discrepancies in scores on intelligence and achievement tests?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

76. Compare the Binet and Wechsler scales to their alternatives. Why are these two tests still the most trusted? What are the advantages and disadvantages of choosing an alternative scale?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 12: Standardized Tests in Education, Civil Service, and the Military 1. An individual test a. is less expensive to administer. b. provides more objective scoring. c. provides information about the unique attributes of the examinee. d. are more reliable than group tests.

ANSWER: c 2. In general, a paper and pencil test is representative of a. individual tests. b. intelligence tests. c. verbal tests. d. group tests.

ANSWER: d 3. When utilizing the results of group tests, it is wise to a. be suspicious of high scores. b. refrain from the use of additional testing. c. include the scores as only a part of the data. d. look for wide discrepancies to verify findings.

ANSWER: c 4. Which of the following is an advantage of individually-administered tests? a. They provide cost effective approaches to testing. b. They are typically easy to administer. c. Their scoring is more reliable. d. They allow individualized interpretation.

ANSWER: d 5. In general, group tests a. are psychometrically sound. b. lack documentation. c. are essay-type tests. d. lack reliability and validity.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 12: Standardized Tests in Education, Civil Service, and the Military 6. One of the advantages of group tests is (are) a. the opportunity to observe behavior in a standard setting. b. that they provide a wealth of information about a subject above and beyond the test score. c. that they minimize the amount of professional time. d. low scores for reasons other than low ability are kept to a minimum.

ANSWER: c 7. Scoring of group tests is ____ objective and ____ reliable than scoring of many individual tests. a. more; less b. less; more c. more; more d. less; less ANSWER: c 8. Which of the following is an advantage of group tests? a. They provide information beyond the test score. b. They require minimal examiner skill to administer and score. c. They allow interpretation of the test scores. d. They allow observation of behavior under standard conditions.

ANSWER: b 9. What should an educator or teacher do when wide discrepancies exist between a test score and other sources of data? a. Ignore the test score. b. Ignore the other sources of data. c. Use the data that seem to fit. d. Refer the subject for individual testing.

ANSWER: d 10. Which of the following is important to remember when using group tests? a. Group tests typically lack validity and have other poorly defined psychometric qualities. b. Discrepancies in scores between group tests and other measures should be investigated. c. Because they lack the detailed standardization of individual tests, group tests should be used cautiously. d. Contrary to stereotype, group tests require considerable expertise to administer and score.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 12: Standardized Tests in Education, Civil Service, and the Military 11. Validity of an aptitude test relies heavily on ____ oriented evidence. a. content b. criterion c. construct d. face ANSWER: b 12. A final examination in a school course is a type of ____ test. a. achievement b. aptitude c. performance d. intelligence ANSWER: a 13. Achievement tests a. evaluate the product of a course of training. b. evaluate the potential to learn general information. c. do not rely heavily on content validity. d. are not affected by educational background.

ANSWER: a 14. Which of the followings is an example of a K-12 group test? a. KAT b. LSAT c. GRE d. ACT ANSWER: a 15. Which of the following is characteristic of aptitude tests? a. Aptitude tests reflect the test-taker’s learning experiences. b. Validity is related to content-related evidence. c. Aptitude tests measure the effects of unknown and uncontrolled experiences. d. Aptitude tests typically have only limited ability to predict future behavior.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 12: Standardized Tests in Education, Civil Service, and the Military 16. Which test added alternate forms for children with visual limitations when it was renormed in 2000? a. Stanford Achievement Test b. Metropolitan Achievement Test c. Kuhlmann-Anderson Test d. Henmon-Nelson Test ANSWER: a 17. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Kuhlmann-Anderson Test? a. While most achievement tests rely increasingly on verbal items with increasing grade level, the KAT remains nonverbal throughout. b. The KAT cannot be used with students who have disabilities of any type. c. Despite its wide use, there remains serious concerns about the reliability and validity of the KAT. d. The KAT is suited only for those who speak English at grade level.

ANSWER: a 18. Which of the following is true of the Henmon-Nelson Test? a. It has been rigorously evaluated for possible bias and suspect items have been removed. b. It provides individual scores for each of type of multiple intelligence. c. It has a low ceiling and does not discriminate well at high levels of intelligence. d. Scores correlate better with grades than with intelligence or achievement.

ANSWER: c 19. To measure an individual's potential in music, you would use a(n) ____ test. a. aptitude b. achievement c. intelligence d. personality ANSWER: a 20. Which of the following types of tests typically predicts general ability? a. aptitude b. achievement c. intelligence d. group ANSWER: c

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Chapter 12: Standardized Tests in Education, Civil Service, and the Military 21. A percentile band a. provides the range of percent correct for any given group of individuals. b. provides the range of percentiles that are likely to represent a subject's true score. c. is formed as an interval one standard error of measurement above and below the true score. d. represents all scores below the mean score.

ANSWER: b 22. The KAT a. has potential for use with non-English speakers. b. is not appropriate for use with ethnic minorities. c. does not have well documented validity. d. correlates poorly with many other ability and IQ tests.

ANSWER: a 23. The Kuhlmann-Anderson Test a. is an extremely sound instrument. b. has good validity but poor reliability. c. is primarily a verbal test. d. is useful only for pre-school age children.

ANSWER: a 24. Validity for the Kuhlmann-Anderson Test a. is well documented. b. is poorly documented. c. is not based on correlations with other IQ tests. d. relies on face validity.

ANSWER: a 25. The availability of only a single score has been a continued source of criticism for a. the Kuhlmann-Anderson Test. b. the Cognitive Abilities Test. c. the Henmon-Nelson Test. d. the Cooperative School and College Ability Tests.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 12: Standardized Tests in Education, Civil Service, and the Military 26. Unlike most multi-level batteries, the Kuhlman-Anderson Test a. is primarily non-verbal. b. is for individuals in pre-school through 2nd grade. c. has poor norms. d. is difficult to administer.

ANSWER: a 27. Which test is especially useful if nonverbal items are needed? a. the Kuhlmann-Anderson Test b. the Cognitive Abilities Test c. the Henmon-Nelson Test d. the Millers Analogies Test ANSWER: a 28. Which of the following group tests has advantages over the Henmon-Nelson Test in selecting minority, culturally diverse, and economically disadvantaged children? a. the Cognitive Abilities Test b. the Scholastic Assessment Test c. the Kuhlman-Anderson Test d. the Metropolitan Achievement Test ANSWER: a 29. Although it has limits pertaining to the identification of giftedness and the identification of disabilities in minority groups, which of the following tests is a good choice when a quick measure is needed? a. COGAT b. KAT c. Henmon-Nelson d. SAT ANSWER: c 30. Which test is likely to take two or three days to complete? a. COGAT b. KAT c. Henmon-Nelson d. SAT ANSWER: a

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Chapter 12: Standardized Tests in Education, Civil Service, and the Military 31. Which of the following tests provides three scores: Verbal, Quantitative, and Non-Verbal? a. Henmon-Nelson Test b. Kuhlman-Anderson Test c. Cognitive Abilities Test d. Scholastic Assessment Test ANSWER: c 32. In comparison to the verbal section of the SAT, the verbal section of the SAT-I focuses much more heavily on students' abilities to a. spell correctly. b. complete antonyms. c. problem-solve interpersonal situations. d. read critically.

ANSWER: d 33. The Stanford and Metropolitan are both ____ tests. a. intelligence b. aptitude c. nonverbal d. achievement ANSWER: d 34. Which of the following is a concern that has been raised about the current revision of the SAT Reasoning Test? a. Because the current revision is longer than the previous one, it may disadvantage persons with attention deficit disorder. b. The analogies section accounts for half of the test score. c. The current SAT Reasoning Test place less emphasis on reading comprehension and has eliminated questions related to grammar. d. The math section focuses on arithmetic skills rather than higher mathematical skills.

ANSWER: a 35. The major weakness of the SAT lies in its a. poor reliability. b. poor predictive power in discriminating students who score in the middle ranges. c. lack of separate norms as a function of various demographic variables. d. relatively small normative sample.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 12: Standardized Tests in Education, Civil Service, and the Military 36. The Cooperative School and College Ability Test a. has many advantages over the SAT. b. is poorly constructed. c. has a large and representative standardization sample. d. has a reasonably good correlation with the SAT. ANSWER: d 37. The stability of the GRE has been evaluated by a. Kuder-Richardson. b. extensive test-retest reliability coefficients. c. inter-rater reliability coefficients. d. correlating scores to a number of students who completed graduate school.

ANSWER: a 38. One shortfall of the ACT is that a. it has low internal consistency coefficients. b. it does not predict first year college GPAs. c. the ITED must be administered along with it. d. it does not compare well to the SAT. ANSWER: a 39. One reason that GRE scores and graduate GPAs have low correlations may be a. underprediction of younger examinees. b. range restriction. c. selection bias. d. improper administration.

ANSWER: b 40. Like the GRE, the MAT a. underpredicts the scores of men and over predicts the scores of women. b. underpredicts the scores of both men and women. c. overpredicts the scores of men and under predicts the scores of women. d. overpredicts the scores of both men and women.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 12: Standardized Tests in Education, Civil Service, and the Military 41. A score of 600 on the verbal section of the GRE would indicate that the individual scored a. at the mean. b. one standard deviation below the mean. c. one standard deviation above the mean. d. two standard deviations above the mean.

ANSWER: c 42. Although adequate psychometrically, both the Miller Analogies Test and the GRE have rather poor a. construct validity. b. internal consistency. c. test-retest reliability. d. predictive validity.

ANSWER: d 43. The Miller Analogies Test a. is strictly verbal and timed. b. is strictly verbal but not timed. c. contains verbal and performance items and is timed. d. contains verbal and performance items but is not timed.

ANSWER: a 44. Unlike some tests for professional degree programs, the LSAT a. predicts first year GPA in law school. b. is very unstructured. c. is based on performance rather than verbal skills. d. is not timed.

ANSWER: a 45. The Raven Progressive Matrices Test a. cannot be administered to language-impaired individuals. b. measures general intelligence, or Spearman's g. c. is poorly constructed psychometrically. d. is an individual test.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 12: Standardized Tests in Education, Civil Service, and the Military 46. A major advantage of the Raven Progressive Matrices Test is that it a. has better validity documentation than most group tests. b. does not correlate with traditional tests such as the Wechsler or Binet Scales. c. predicts creativity. d. minimizes the effects of language and culture.

ANSWER: d 47. One of the simplest, quickest, easiest to administer, and least expensive ability tests is the a. Progressive Matrices Test. b. Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test. c. IPAT Culture Fair Test. d. Quick Test.

ANSWER: b 48. The IPAT Culture Fair Test was designed to a. eliminate cultural influences in an ability test. b. estimate the intelligence of language impaired children. c. estimate the intelligence of language impaired adults. d. be used with children three years of age and younger.

ANSWER: a 49. Which of the following group tests can be either group or individually administered? a. Cognitive Abilities Test b. Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test c. Miller Analogies Test d. Henmon-Nelson Test ANSWER: b 50. Which of the following tests was developed for use in making employment decisions in government agencies? a. Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery b. General Aptitude Test Battery c. Differential Aptitude Test d. Wonderlic Personnel Test ANSWER: b

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Chapter 12: Standardized Tests in Education, Civil Service, and the Military 51. The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery (ASVAB) a. is extremely weak from a psychometric standpoint. b. is of little use to the military despite the large numbers of tests given. c. is not valid for Blacks and Hispanics. d. consists of ten subtests.

ANSWER: d 52. The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery a. has poor psychometric characteristics. b. is not a valid predictor of training performance. c. does not have adequate norming information. d. now has a computerized adaptive version.

ANSWER: d 53. Which of the following was developed by the U.S. Employment Service to measure occupational aptitude? a. IPAT Culture Fair Intelligence Test b. Wonderlic Personnel Test c. General Aptitude Test Battery d. Raven Progressive Matrices ANSWER: c 54. The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Test is now administered by computer, allowing adaptive testing. What is adaptive testing? a. Adaptive testing includes only those items related to the recruit’s areas of interest. b. Adaptive testing involves presenting a question of known difficulty and then presenting more or less difficult items depending on whether the item was correctly answered. c. Adaptive testing eliminates sources of bias by generating large numbers of items. d. Adaptive testing reduces the risk of cheating by randomly sampling from a large test bank.

ANSWER: b 55. What change to the General Aptitude Test Battery occurred as a result of the Civil Rights Act of 1991? a. It can no longer be used in employment decisions. b. It can no longer use within-group norming. c. It must be directly related to job tasks. d. It must be renormed each year.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 12: Standardized Tests in Education, Civil Service, and the Military 56. First year grades in graduate school are the best ________ of the GRE. a. predictor b. correlate c. criterion d. justification ANSWER: c 57. The GRE is a strong predictor of a. clinical skills. b. first year graduate school grades. c. ability to solve real world problems. d. none of the above ANSWER: d 58. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of group tests? a. They are cost-efficient. b. Scoring is more objective. c. Scores are more reliable. d. Examiners have more training.

ANSWER: d 59. Under what circumstances is it most appropriate to use standardized tests for prediction? a. Predicting general mental ability. b. Predicting relatively limited factors over a brief time. c. Predicting long term academic success within diverse institutions. d. Predicting abilities related to abstract concepts.

ANSWER: b 60. A percentile band follows the same logic as a. a confidence interval. b. standardization. c. reliability testing. d. factor analysis.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 12: Standardized Tests in Education, Civil Service, and the Military 61. The COGAT Form 7 is a measure of a. crystallized intelligence. b. achievement. c. fluid intelligence. d. visual-motor functioning.

ANSWER: c 62. Which test is a sensitive discriminator for giftedness? a. COGAT b. KAT c. Henmon-Nelson d. SAT ANSWER: a 63. Which of the following is NOT one of the changes made to the 2016 SAT? a. Fewer sections b. No penalty for guessing c. Less emphasis on speed d. Increased answer choices from 4 to 5 ANSWER: d 64. As mentioned in your text, one purpose of nonverbal and performance tests is to remove factors related to cultural influences so that "pure" intelligence can be measured. Discuss the types of factors you would want to eliminate and the likelihood of being able to do so.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

65. Identify and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of group and individual tests.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

66. Explain why low scores on group tests are often difficult to interpret in comparison to high scores.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

67. Describe the difference between achievement and aptitude tests and summarize what we know about the extent to which they measure what they purport to measure.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 1. Personality is defined as an individual's patterns of behavior that a. change over time and characterize a person's reactions to the environment. b. indicate relatively enduring tendencies to act, think or feel in a certain manner. c. are relatively stable and enduring and characterize a person's reactions to the environment. d. indicate emotional states that vary from one situation to another.

ANSWER: c 2. All of his life, whenever Thomas met new groups of people he felt timid and shy and tended to retreat to the edge of the crowd until he was better acquainted. Thomas' behavior is best described as a personality ____. a. trait b. type c. state d. definition ANSWER: a 3. Mrs. Bauer is normally a very happy person, but she recently learned her son had a chronic illness and has been somewhat gloomy and pessimistic. This behavior is typical of a personality ____. a. trait b. type c. state d. concept ANSWER: c 4. An organized and relatively consistent set of assumptions that a person has about himself/herself is called a(n) a. personality. b. personality trait. c. self-concept. d. personality type.

ANSWER: c 5. At the broadest level, strategies for the development of personality tests can be divided into what two types? a. logical content and theory b. factor analytic and criterion group c. deductive and empirical d. external and empirical ANSWER: c

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 6. The principal distinguishing characteristic of the logical-content strategy is that it assumes that the a. factor analytic technique will be used to group items appropriately. b. test taker is biased when giving responses to test items. c. test item describes a subject's personality and behavior. d. meaning of a test item can only be determined by empirical research.

ANSWER: c 7. The theoretical strategy attempts to produce scales that are a. homogeneous. b. heterogeneous. c. multivariate. d. hypothetical.

ANSWER: a 8. Which strategy relies on reason and logic as opposed to data collection and statistical analysis? a. deductive b. external c. contrasted d. empirical ANSWER: a 9. Which strategy is likely to use item analysis in order to create a homogeneous scale? a. empirical b. logical-content c. intuitive d. theoretical ANSWER: d 10. Which strategy makes extensive use of cross-validation? a. logical-content b. intuitive c. criterion-group d. factor analytic ANSWER: c

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 11. The two empirical strategies of test construction are the a. rational and logical-content. b. multivariate and external. c. criterion keying and theoretical. d. criterion group and factor analytic.

ANSWER: d 12. The two deductive strategies of test construction are the a. logical-content and rational. b. logical-content and empirical. c. logical-content and theoretical. d. empirical and rational.

ANSWER: c 13. The criterion group strategy is also called the a. empirical strategy. b. rational approach. c. factor analytic. d. content approach.

ANSWER: a 14. Which approach relies on reasoning and deductive logic? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy c. criterion strategy d. factor analytic strategy ANSWER: a 15. Which approach examines common variance? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy c. criterion strategy d. factor analytic strategy ANSWER: d

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 16. The theoretical approach to test construction is a(n) a. deductive strategy. b. empirical strategy. c. factor analytic strategy. d. external strategy.

ANSWER: a 17. The first personality inventory was called the a. Bell Adjustment Inventory. b. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet. c. Bernreuter Personality Inventory. d. Mooney Problem Checklist.

ANSWER: b 18. What test was, in effect, a paper-pencil psychiatric interview? a. MMPI b. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet c. EPPS d. CPI ANSWER: b 19. An example of an early multidimensional logical-content scale is the a. Bell Adjustment Inventory. b. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet. c. EPPS. d. CPI. ANSWER: a 20. The Mooney Problem Checklist relies on which approach to test construction? a. logical content b. theoretical c. criterion group d. factor analytic ANSWER: a

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 21. Logical-content approaches to personality test construction are not used extensively anymore because a. such tests did not meet the need for which they were designed. b. responses were too ambiguous. c. of its reliance on the logic of face validity. d. the approach is too time consuming.

ANSWER: c 22. Which strategy does the Mooney Problem Checklist use? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy c. criterion-group strategy d. factor analytic strategy ANSWER: a 23. The CPI utilizes which approach to test construction? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy c. criterion-group strategy d. factor analytic ANSWER: c 24. The MMPI and MMPI-2 are a. true-false tests. b. multiple choice tests. c. subjective tests. d. fill-in-the-blanks tests.

ANSWER: a 25. The purpose of the MMPI and MMPI-2 is to a. assist in distinguishing normal from abnormal groups. b. evaluate normal personality. c. evaluate job satisfaction. d. evaluate vocational aptitude.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 26. With the new MMPI-2 norms, T scores are considered significant if they are a. 65 or higher. b. 70 or higher. c. 75 or higher. d. 100 or higher.

ANSWER: a 27. The FB scale of the MMPI-2 measures a. random responding. b. family problems. c. health concerns. d. cooperation throughout the test.

ANSWER: d 28. One problem with the original MMPI was that the control group consisted of a. highly educated professionals. b. relatives and visitors of hospitalized mental patients. c. patients with severe psychopathology. d. men only.

ANSWER: b 29. Which of the following scales is related to faking good (falsely presenting yourself in a favorable way) on the MMPI? a. L b. F c. Pd d. Si ANSWER: a 30. Which of the following occurred as a result of Meehl’s studies of individuals, which consisted of the same two scales that were elevated? a. Clinical scales were shown to be appropriately and correctly named. b. New criterion groups were created based on similarities in their MMPI profiles. c. Clinical groups were identified on the basis of patterns of MMPI scores. d. Psychiatric diagnosis became even more important to the definition of criterion groups.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 31. The approach used in construction of the MMPI is referred to as a. criterion-group strategy. b. empirical strategy. c. criterion-keyed method. d. content approach.

ANSWER: a 32. In Welsh's coding system, the symbol indicates a T score a. below 29. b. between 60 and 69. c. between 80 and 89. d. equal to or greater than 90.

ANSWER: d 33. How many content scales does the MMPI-2 contain? a. 3 b. 8 c. 10 d. 15 ANSWER: d 34. One problem that was not addressed in the MMPI-2 was a. sexist language. b. item overlap. c. outdated language. d. an adequate control group.

ANSWER: b 35. How many validity and clinical scales were in the original MMPI, respectively? a. 3; 10 b. 5; 10 c. 5; 16 d. 10; 10 ANSWER: a

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 36. Raw scores on the MMPI are converted to standardized scores called a. Z scores. b. V scores. c. T scores. d. K scores.

ANSWER: c 37. The reading ability required for the MMPI-2 is at least a. 5th grade. b. 8th grade. c. 6th grade. d. 12th grade.

ANSWER: b 38. Which MMPI scale was designed to detect individuals with psychopathology who produce “normal” MMPI patterns because of defensiveness? a. L scale b. K scale c. F scale d. 0 scale ANSWER: b 39. Factor analysis suggests that most of the variance in the CPI can be accounted for by only two factors related to a. internal control and interpersonal effectiveness scales. b. internal control and achievement potential c. interpersonal effectiveness and interest modes d. interest modes and achievement potential ANSWER: a 40. The MMPI-2 a. reduced the number of items compared to MMPI. b. has more items that are sexist than the MMPI. c. has not yet been standardized. d.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 41. The restandardization of the MMPI has eliminated the most serious drawback of the original version, a. an inadequate control group. b. lack of validity documentation. c. poor reliability. d. inter-item correlations.

ANSWER: a 42. The major source of validity for the MMPI and MMPI-2 a. comes from criterion-validity studies. b. comes from content-validity studies. c. comes from studies that describe the characteristics of particular profile patterns. d. comes from newly developed techniques of meta analysis.

ANSWER: c 43. What does the California Psychological Inventory best measure? a. normal individuals b. personality disorders c. mild to moderate clinical disorders d. severe clinical disorders ANSWER: a 44. The final restandardization group for the MMPI-2 a. was representative of the 1980 United States Census population. b. was recruited from the United States and Canada. c. included clinical populations and their family members who did not have psychiatric diagnoses. d. was more educated and had greater financial resources than the population as a whole.

ANSWER: d 45. What does the VRIN scale of the MMPI-2 measure? a. variable responding b. valid responding c. vanity responding d. value-based responding ANSWER: a

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 46. What does the TRIN scale of the MMPI-2 measure? a. acquiescence b. deliberate manipulation c. lying d. malingering ANSWER: a 47. Why did the MMPI-2 number the clinical scales rather than retain the scale names that specified clinical conditions such as paranoia and depression? a. Scales of the MMPI-2 no longer correspond directly to specific diagnoses. b. Elevations on a particular scale do not necessarily mean the individual has a particular diagnosis. c. The names of the scales made it easier for people to fake and indicate they had the condition when they did not. d. Use of numbers made it easier to perform statistical analyses such as regression.

ANSWER: b 48. What did the MMPI-2 Restructured Clinical Scales (2003) add? a. contemporary norms b. computer scoring c. incorporation of items scored on scales rather than just true-false items d. nearly complete re-scaling ANSWER: a 49. J. P. Guilford was a pioneer in the a. logical-content strategy. b. contrasted groups strategy. c. factor analytic strategy. d. theoretical strategy.

ANSWER: c 50. Which test contains no item overlap and balanced keying among the various alternative responses? a. MMPI b. CPI c. 16PF d. MMPI-2 ANSWER: c

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 51. Which test has been extended downwards to apply to children and adolescents? a. MMPI b. CPI c. 16PF d. EPPS ANSWER: c 52. Which test has been extended downwards to apply to children and adolescents? a. It lacks standardized statistical methods. b. It uses subjective factor names. c. It requires annual revisions. d. It can be used with clinical but not “normal” populations.

ANSWER: b 53. Guilford-Zimmerman Temperament Survey utilizes which strategy? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy c. criterion-group strategy d. factor analytic ANSWER: d 54. What strategy did R. B. Cattell use in developing the l6PF? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy c. criterion-group strategy d. factor analytic ANSWER: d 55. The Edwards Personal Preference Schedule utilizes which approach to test construction? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy c. criterion-group strategy d. factor analytic ANSWER: b

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 56. Which test presents scores in relative terms rather than as absolute totals? a. CPI b. 16PF c. Personality Research Form d. EPPS ANSWER: d 57. Which of the following tests has a forced-choice format? a. EPPS b. 16PF c. CPI d. MMPI ANSWER: a 58. Which test is based on Murray's (1938) Theory of Needs? a. EPPS b. 16PF c. MMPI d. CPI ANSWER: a 59. The PRF-III and JPI-R differ from the EPPS because they a. developed specific definitions of Murray’s needs. b. they have lower levels of validity. c. they lack "fake" scales. d. they are based on Maslow’s work rather than Murray’s.

ANSWER: a 60. The Personality Research Form utilizes which approach to test construction? a. logical-content strategy b. theoretical strategy c. criterion-group strategy d. factor analytic ANSWER: b

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 61. Carl Rogers had people sort sets of cards into groups that described the real self and the ideal self. This method is called a. self-efficacy. b. rational approach. c. Q-sort technique. d. self-report.

ANSWER: c 62. The NEO-PI-R was developed using a. factor analysis and theory. b. deductive approaches. c. theory and external approaches. d. empirical strategies.

ANSWER: a 63. How were the questions for the NEO-PI-R developed? a. Items were taken directly from the MMPI. b. “Normal” individuals were asked to list personality traits. c. They were balanced for positive and negative wording. d. They selected traits from a dictionary.

ANSWER: c 64. The Neo-PI-R scale measures which of the following dimensions? a. extraversion, neuroticism, conscientiousness, agreeableness, and openness to experience b. self-esteem, self-control, openness to experience, positive trait, and hope c. ego, self-efficacy, resilience, and hope d. disposition, extraversion, neuroticism, psychosis, and agreeableness ANSWER: a 65. The Rosenberg Self-Esteem Scale was created for ____ populations. a. abnormal b. childhood c. adult d. criminal ANSWER: c

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 66. According to the LOT-R, an individual's tendency to view the world and the future in positive ways is called a. openness to experience. b. agreeableness. c. satisfaction with life. d. dispositional optimism.

ANSWER: d 67. Which test conceptualizes life satisfaction as a cognitive-judgmental process? a. SWLS b. LOT-R c. DRS d. CPI ANSWER: a 68. LOT-R is designed to measure a. openness to experience. b. agreeableness. c. satisfaction with life. d. dispositional optimism.

ANSWER: d 69. Positive and Negative Affect Schedule (PANAS) measures positive affect (PA) and negative affect (NA) by a. 10 positive and 10 negative adjectives. b. a short interview. c. 10 items developed to assess individual differences in generalized optimism and pessimism. d. 100 positive and 100 negative items.

ANSWER: a 70. Which scale reflects the idea of personality as a single construct? a. The NEO Personality Inventory (NEO-PI-R) b. Core Self-Evaluations c. Jackson Personality Inventory d. MMPI ANSWER: b

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 71. Research on the General Self-Efficacy Scale (GSE) indicates a. that the underlying construct is culturally specific. b. a negative correlation with work satisfaction. c. a positive correlation with depression. d. that self-efficacy is a global construct.

ANSWER: d 72. According to a study by Saccuzzo, Kewley, Johnson, and colleagues (2003), a. the various measures of positive affect are completely independent. b. various measures of positive affect are best conceptualized as a single construct. c. a large number of items is required to reliably and validly measure positive affect. d. each measure of positive affect has a high level of unique variance.

ANSWER: b 73. Tests of mental ability were originally created to distinguish a. those with average mental abilities from those who are mentally gifted. b. mental abilities between different demographic subgroups of people. c. those who would perform well in school from those who would perform poorly. d. those with subnormal mental abilities from those with normal mental abilities.

ANSWER: d 74. Ada tends to be an outgoing person with high social interest and involvement in activities. This is an example of a a. personality trait. b. personality type. c. personality state. d. self-concept.

ANSWER: b 75. Which strategy uses reason and deductive logic to inform measurement development? a. criterion-group b. factor-analytic c. logical-content d. empirical ANSWER: c

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 76. Which approach relies on experimental research to determine the meaning of a test response? a. theoretical b. empirical c. factor analytic d. logical-content ANSWER: b 77. In the criterion-group strategy, the actual content or face validity a. is tested through factor analytic techniques. b. is critical to test construction. c. is only taken into account for the criterion group. d. is of little importance.

ANSWER: d 78. Which of the following questions most closely reflects the typical structure of items on the MMPI? a. “I like to go out.” b. “Do you like to go out?” c. “Is going out a fun thing to do?” d. “Going out is fun.”

ANSWER: a 79. The criterion groups used to develop the original MMPI consisted of a. university students. b. a normally distributed sample of the population. c. psychiatric inpatients. d. soldiers in WWI. ANSWER: c 80. The tendency to respond “true” on true-false items is referred to as a. acquiescence. b. truth bias. c. self-assurance. d. malingering.

ANSWER: a 81. The measurement of personality assumes that humans possess characteristics or traits that are stable across situations, vary from individual to individual, and can be measured. Discuss these assertions and your agreement or disagreement.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 13: Applications in Clinical and Counseling Settings 82. Compare and contrast deductive and empirical strategy and discuss their sub-strategies.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

83. How do positive personality tests differ from those used to assess psychological disturbances? Describe a real world setting in which these tests might be used.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

84. Describe the methods used in developing the original MMPI and subsequent revisions, identifying how the later tests addressed specific problems with the original.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

85. Describe the major differences between the MMPI and MMPI-2.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

86. Describe how Meehl extended the empirical approach to improve the validity of the MMPI. ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 14: Projective Personality Tests 1. The most controversial and misunderstood psychological tests are a. group tests. b. achievement tests. c. objective personality tests. d. projective personality tests.

ANSWER: d 2. Who first introduced the Rorschach to the United States? a. Marguerite Hertz b. J. Kerner c. David Levy d. Samuel Beck ANSWER: c 3. The Barnum effect is found when a. statements that fit most people inflate the validity of a personality profile. b. ambiguous responses on personality measures are subjectively evaluated. c. participants who lack pathology are diagnosed as having pathology. d. a scale is not standardized.

ANSWER: a 4. Which individual played a major role in the use and investigation of the Rorschach? a. Murray b. Klopfer c. Rogers d. Barnum ANSWER: b 5. Which of the following is true of the Rorschach? a. It was treated with suspicion from the beginning. b. It is the most widely used psychological test. c. Recent scoring revisions have eliminated the most serious objections. d. It has finally become a widely accepted method in psychology.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14: Projective Personality Tests 6. The determinant types of the Rorschach are a. form, movement, color, and shading b. whole, common detail, and unusual detail c. excellent matching, average matching, and poor matching d. location, form quality, and content ANSWER: a 7. Qualitative interpretation of the Rorschach is useful in a. estimating the skills of the administrator. b. specifying reliability. c. differentiating between normal and disordered conditions. d. determining whether the individual taking the test understands the instructions.

ANSWER: c 8. Early demonstrations of the Rorschach included validation by a. reviews by content-area experts familiar with the underlying constructs. b. performance of individuals who analyzed the responses of individuals they had never met, making a diagnosis, and validating the diagnosis against other data sources. c. large-scale field work that involved thousands of individuals tested by hundreds of administrators whose skill levels varied. d. standard psychometric methods that yielded surprisingly high validity.

ANSWER: b 9. What are the content types of the Rorschach? a. positive and negative b. human, animal, and nature c. nature and nurture d. reality-based and fantasy-based ANSWER: b 10. Exner’s 2007 revision of the Rorschach a. included new non-patient norms. b. argued that the original test was not reliable. c. identifies few individuals as having psychopathology, including those who actually have psychopathology. d. linked the Rorschach with other projective techniques.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14: Projective Personality Tests 11. Use of the Kuder-Richardson formula a. corrects for faking. b. yields analyzable data. c. increases estimates of reliability. d. eliminates random variability.

ANSWER: c 12. Adding information from the Rorschach to information from other sources does not improve diagnostic accuracy and may even decrease it. This indicates the lack of a. incremental validity. b. reliability. c. standardized scoring. d. relevance.

ANSWER: a 13. The first phase of Rorschach administration is called a. free association. b. process monitoring. c. inquiry. d. initial interpretation.

ANSWER: a 14. The two phases of Rorschach administration are called a. phase I and phase II. b. free response and determinant. c. free association and inquiry. d. associational and inquiry.

ANSWER: c 15. The relative proportion of W, D, and Dd location choices varies as a function of a. maturation. b. degree of psychological disturbance. c. degree of psychological well-being. d. defensiveness.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14: Projective Personality Tests 16. The Dd response refers to a. an unusual detail. b. a divided response. c. a double response. d. animal content.

ANSWER: a 17. Which of the following is not a scoring category of the Rorschach? a. location b. content c. inquiry d. form quality ANSWER: c 18. The DW response on the Rorschach is a(n) a. animal movement. b. human movement. c. confabulatory response. d. unusual detail.

ANSWER: c 19. Form quality is a scoring dimension that refers to a. where the perception was seen. b. what determined the response. c. the extent to which the response matched the stimulus qualities of the inkblot. d. what the perception was.

ANSWER: c 20. The characteristic of an inkblot that leads a subject to see a particular form is called a. the determinant. b. a pure form response. c. an inquiry. d. confabulation.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14: Projective Personality Tests 21. Early proponents of the Rorschach gave impressive demonstrations that seemed to support the reliability of the test.

These demonstrations a. are unquestionable evidence of the effectiveness of the Rorschach. b. have been labeled as the result of the Barnum effect. c. depended on the evaluator giving one specific analysis. d. were undoubtedly given before the analyst knew anything about the patient.

ANSWER: b 22. According to the text, Rorschach "virtuosos" a. performed significantly better in controlled studies than in clinical settings. b. were actually no better than chance in their clinical assessments. c. performed no better than chance when tested in controlled studies. d. never actually had their expertise statistically analyzed.

ANSWER: c 23. If an individual taking the Rorschach said, "It looked like one; here are the feet, head, tail, and wings," the determinant would be a. content. b. location. c. form. d. popular.

ANSWER: c 24. Scoring of content on the Rorschach a. is impossible. b. is extremely difficult. c. cannot be done reliably. d. is a relatively simple matter.

ANSWER: d 25. The Comprehensive System for scoring the Rorschach was developed by a. Levy. b. Beck. c. Hertz. d. Exner.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 14: Projective Personality Tests 26. In order to remedy problems identified in the Rorschach, Exner developed a. the concept of determinants. b. highly structured administration protocols. c. the Comprehensive System for scoring. d. revised stimuli.

ANSWER: c 27. Exner's attempts to provide adequate norms for the Rorschach have largely failed because a. he miscalculated the actual number of people in the norming group. b. his sample came from relatives of psychiatric patients. c. his sample did not use both males and females. d. only educated people from upper income levels were used.

ANSWER: a 28. Most researchers today feel that the Comprehensive System for scoring a. is an effective improvement to the Rorschach. b. has failed to remedy the problems associated with the Rorschach. c. still has a ways to go but at least provides adequate norms. d. makes improvements that allow the test to be used in forensic settings.

ANSWER: b 29. The Rorschach tends to ____ emotionally disturbed individuals. a. accurately identify b. underestimate the number of c. overestimate adults but not children as d. identify over half of normal subjects as ANSWER: d 30. Which statement is true of the Rorschach? a. Due to the consensus on its lack of validity, it is no longer used to diagnose patients. b. Due to the consensus on its lack of validity, it is no longer used to diagnose patients. c. Due to the lack of consensus on its validity, it is not currently used to diagnose patients. d. Despite the consensus on its lack of validity, it is still used to diagnose a great number of patients each year.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 14: Projective Personality Tests 31. The psychometric properties of the Rorschach have been difficult to evaluate because a. the Rorschach is difficult to administer. b. there is no universally accepted method of administration. c. responses can only be subjectively evaluated. d. the Rorschach has no clinical utility.

ANSWER: b 32. Which of the following is a criticism of the Rorschach? a. lack of universally accepted scoring procedures b. unstable results over time c. no empirical base d. more than one of these ANSWER: d 33. Supportive evidence in favor of the Holtzman Inkblot Test a. is highly objective. b. is based on quantitative features. c. appears to depend on examiner skill. d. depends on formal interpretive standards.

ANSWER: c 34. The Holtzman Test a. is an alternative to the Rorschach. b. is an alternative to the TAT. c. has proven to be more useful than the Rorschach in clinical settings. d. has proven to be more useful than the alternatives to the traditional procedures.

ANSWER: a 35. The main difficulty with the Holtzman Inkblot Test is a. cumbersome administration. b. questionable validity. c. lack of an alternative form. d. lack of normative data.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 14: Projective Personality Tests 36. Gamble (1972) reviewed the literature on the Holtzman and concluded that the a. Holtzman is clearly superior to the Rorschach. b. Holtzman is clearly inferior to the Rorschach. c. Holtzman and Rorschach are about equally sound. d. data are insufficient and it should not be considered any more useful than the Rorschach.

ANSWER: d 37. The ____ has been suggested as a possible alternative to split-half reliability for the Thematic Apperception Test. a. coefficient alpha b. test-retest c. difference score d. Kuder-Richardson ANSWER: d 38. The work of which theorist underlies the Thematic Apperception Test? a. Beck b. Murray c. Freud d. Jung ANSWER: b 39. Compared to the Rorschach, the TAT is a. more structured and more ambiguous. b. more structured and less ambiguous. c. less structured and more ambiguous. d. less structured and less ambiguous.

ANSWER: b 40. Compared to the Rorschach, standardization of administration and scoring of the TAT a. is clearly better. b. is about the same. c. is clearly worse. d. is inconsistent.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 14: Projective Personality Tests 41. Compared to the Rorschach, the TAT has ____ interpretive and scoring systems. a. more b. about as many c. fewer d. far fewer ANSWER: a 42. TAT interpretation relies most heavily upon a. elaborate, complex scoring systems. b. quantitative methods. c. qualitative methods. d. computer scoring.

ANSWER: c 43. Almost all TAT methods of interpretation take into account a. hero, needs, and thought content. b. overt behavior, press, and themes. c. press, needs, and outcomes. d. fantasies, press, and themes.

ANSWER: c 44. Lindzey's 10 assumptions apply primarily to a. the TAT. b. the Rorschach. c. the Holtzman. d. the MMPI. ANSWER: a 45. In TAT interpretation, the environmental forces that interfere with or facilitate the satisfaction of various needs are called a. press. b. external stimuli. c. themes. d. determiners.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14: Projective Personality Tests 46. An analysis of existing results concerning the reliability of the TAT indicates that when specific variables such as the need for achievement are studied, a. respectably high reliability figures are found. b. low reliability figures are found. c. modestly positive reliability figures are found. d. inconclusive results are found.

ANSWER: a 47. Supporters of the TAT a. have noted the test's high split-half reliability coefficients. b. have argued that internal consistency cannot be determined. c. do not consider split-half methods appropriate for the TAT. d. do not think that reliability is important for the TAT. ANSWER: c 48. Validity studies of the TAT suggest that a. validity of the TAT depends on high test-retest reliability. b. validity of the TAT depends on high split-half reliability. c. there is content-related validity. d. validity of the TAT does not depend on split-half reliability.

ANSWER: c 49. Word association tests were first used on a clinical basis by a. Jung. b. Murray. c. Rorschach. d. Lindzey.

ANSWER: a 50. Word association tests can be traced back to a. Kerner. b. Galton. c. Cattell. d. Guilford.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 14: Projective Personality Tests 51. One problem with word association techniques is that a. scoring systems are generally subjective. b. no norms exist. c. interpretation is objective. d. they do not adequately predict clinical syndromes.

ANSWER: d 52. On the Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank, a. short, humorous sentences generally receive the highest scores. b. humor tends to lower scores. c. long, complex sentences generally receive higher scores. d. short, humorous sentences generally receive lower scores.

ANSWER: a 53. Initial reviews of the Incomplete Sentences task by Lanyon and Lanyon have a. indicated poor reliability. b. shown very little to recommend the test. c. been positive and encouraging. d. indicate low validity.

ANSWER: c 54. Despite findings that indicate it is perhaps the most psychometrically sound projective test, the ____ is rarely used in clinical settings. a. Draw-A Person Test b. Children's Apperception Test c. Washington University Sentence Completion Test d. Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank ANSWER: c 55. Among projective tests that overinterpret data without sufficient empirical foundation, the worst offenders are a. thematic apperception tests. b. inkblots. c. projective drawing tests. d. word completion tasks.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 14: Projective Personality Tests 56. One of the most valid figure drawing tests is the a. Draw-a-Person Test. b. House-Tree-Person Test. c. Kinetic Family Drawing Test. d. Goodenough Draw-a-Man Test.

ANSWER: d 57. When compared to the Rorschach, what can be said regarding the clinical utility of the Holtzman? a. It is more useful. b. It is no more useful. c. It is less useful. d. There is not enough information to compare.

ANSWER: d 58. Gruber and Kreuzpointer (2013) found higher reliability for the TAT when using a. split-half reliabilities. b. category scores as items rather than picture scores. c. longer testing intervals. d. Kuder-Richardson reliabilities, as was studied in the Rorschach.

ANSWER: b 59. Cora looks across the lunchroom and sees a boy that she likes look in her direction and laugh. Her tears start to well up and her heart races as she believes he is making fun of her for the embarrassing comment she made in class right before. She had been feeling insecure about the incident. This scenario describes a. an anxious personality type. b. a projective assessment. c. the projective hypothesis. d. interpretive bias.

ANSWER: c 60. Who was the first person to purport the notion that individuals report unique interpretations of inkblot stimuli? a. J. Kerner b. Herman Rorschach c. Alfred Binet d. David Levy ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14: Projective Personality Tests 61. The first stimulus cards created by Rorschach were developed by a. throwing loose ink on blank paper hung on a clothes line. b. hand drawing unique and intricate abstract designs. c. dropping ink onto a piece of paper and folding it. d. smudging ink onto paper using sponges.

ANSWER: c 62. Cooperative movement on the Rorschach refers to a. a conceptual agreement between perceptions of multiple stimuli. b. the tendency to perceive pleasant concepts in stimuli. c. the perception of two or more people, animals, or objects moving in unison. d. a perception of positive interaction between humans or animals in a stimulus.

ANSWER: d 63. As the number of responses on each Rorschach inkblot increases, a. scores on the test increase. b. reliability and validity of scores increase. c. space responses decrease. d. positive perceptions increase.

ANSWER: a 64. Gruber and Kreuzpointer (2013) maintain that the problem of low reliability in projective testing stems from a. lack of validity of projective tests. b. use of category scores instead of image scores. c. incorrect use of internal consistency coefficients. d. low sample size for reliability testing.

ANSWER: c 65. Discuss the concept of the projective hypothesis and explore examples of projection in situations other than formal psychological testing.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

66. The issue of projective test usage creates strong debate among professionals. Take a position, pro or con, and defend that position using the information in the text.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

67. Identify and discuss the use of three nonpictorial projective tests. Compare their methods, uses, reliability, and validity to those of the Rorschach.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 14: Projective Personality Tests 68. Describe how Exner’s Comprehensive System attempted to address the problems associated with the original Rorschach.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

69. Compare and contrast the Rorschach and the Holtzman.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 15: Computers and Basic Psychological Science in Testing 1. All of the cognitive-behavioral assessment procedures a. are more direct than traditional psychological tests. b. can be collectively categorized as observational assessment. c. are based on learning principles. d. employ sophisticated hardware such as electronic beepers.

ANSWER: a 2. Which type of therapy is based on principles of learning? a. cognitive b. client-centered c. behavior modification d. personality ANSWER: c 3. Tests based on behavior modification and used as an alternative to traditional tests are known as a. projective assessments. b. cognitive-behavioral assessments. c. personality tests. d. psychoanalytic assessments.

ANSWER: b 4. Cognitive-behavioral assessments focus on ____ as the main problem in a disorder. a. the behavior b. repressed memory c. previous trauma d. personality ANSWER: a 5. Dr. Moore was convinced he would not be able to help his client control his compulsive overeating, unless he discovered the reason behind the behavior. Therefore, the tests he used were intended to examine these underlying causes. Dr. Moore was following the a. biopsychosocial model. b. psychoanalytic approach. c. cognitive approach. d. medical model.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 15: Computers and Basic Psychological Science in Testing 6. Joey's parents went to a therapist to help them overcome Joey's fear of going to school. Before she helped them create a reward system for each time their son went to school without crying, the therapist first determined the severity and frequency of the behavior. The therapist was a. establishing a baseline. b. developing a diagnosis. c. establishing rapport. d. assessing the cause of behavior.

ANSWER: a 7. A behavioral assessment that involves evaluating the current frequency of a behavior, designing a treatment intervention using reinforcement, and then evaluating the effect of the treatment relative to a baseline, is based on a. classical conditioning. b. psychosocial effects. c. operant conditioning. d. backward conditioning.

ANSWER: c 8. The major distinction between cognitive-behavioral and traditional self-report procedures is that a. cognitive-behavioral assessment deals mostly with issues of intelligence. b. traditional self report procedures ask questions about autobiographical memory. c. the former is used with children and the later is used with adults. d. cognitive-behavioral assessment has concentrated on the phenomenon of fear.

ANSWER: d 9. Which of the following models assumes that overt manifestations of psychopathology are only symptoms of an underlying problem? a. Kanfer and Saslow's model b. the operant conditioning model c. the medical model d. the social ecology model ANSWER: c 10. When traditional and cognitive-behavioral procedures are compared, a. traditional procedures are clearly superior. b. traditional procedures are more related to treatment. c. both are based on the same underlying philosophy. d. cognitive-behavioral procedures are more related to treatment.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 15: Computers and Basic Psychological Science in Testing 11. Cognitive-behavioral and traditional procedures differ in that a. cognitive-behavioral procedures are more direct and remain closer to observable behaviors. b. traditional procedures have fewer inferential assumptions. c. traditional procedures measure the overt manifestations of psychological disorders. d. cognitive-behavioral procedures tend to be based on the medical model.

ANSWER: a 12. The evaluation of the frequency, intensity, and duration of a behavior is known as a. behavioral assessment. b. establishing a baseline. c. a critical response. d. operant conditioning.

ANSWER: b 13. The first step in a cognitive-behavioral assessment is to a. develop reinforcers. b. identify critical behaviors. c. determine a baseline. d. determine the cause of the problem behavior.

ANSWER: b 14. Which procedure is designed to minimize the effect that the presence of an observer has on the behavior that is being observed? a. operant b. self-report c. extinction d. psychophysical ANSWER: b 15. Ken is having trouble at work because his boss takes advantage of him and gives him twice as much work as anyone else. Ken has trouble saying 'no' to his boss but then gets very angry because of all the work he has to do. Ken's therapist is likely to use the ____ in order to assess Ken's behavior in this particular situation. a. Assertive Behavior Survey Schedule b. Miller Analogies Test c. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory d. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale ANSWER: a

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Chapter 15: Computers and Basic Psychological Science in Testing 16. Cognitive-behavioral self-reports are best used in conjunction with other sources of information because a. they only address a small number of behaviors. b. they are very difficult to administer. c. little psychometric data is available for any of them. d. very few such tests even exist.

ANSWER: c 17. Pat is constantly cleaning and re-cleaning the house and cannot seem to stop doing so. Pat's behavior is beginning to interfere in other areas of life and cause others, as well as Pat, great concern and distress. Pat's behavior would be described as a(n) a. phobia. b. behavioral deficit. c. behavioral excess. d. dysthymic disorder.

ANSWER: c 18. Organized cognitive frameworks that help organize experiences, interpret new experiences, and make predictions about what is likely to happen in the future are called a. schemas. b. self-concepts. c. biases. d. prototypes.

ANSWER: a 19. Which of the following problems are inappropriate for operant techniques? a. eating problems b. studying problems c. losing weight d. general dissatisfaction with life ANSWER: d 20. Cognitive-behavioral self-report techniques a. are superior to traditional self-report techniques. b. attempt to deal with the problems in obtaining observational data. c. are generally well supported in terms of reliability and validity. d. are best categorized as a technique of psychophysiological assessment.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 15: Computers and Basic Psychological Science in Testing 21. The Fear Survey Schedule (FSS) is an example of a a. traditional psychological test. b. self-report measure. c. projective behavioral test. d. psychophysiological procedure.

ANSWER: b 22. The Fear Survey Schedule (FSS) attempts to identify a. those individuals most likely to be fearful in a variety of situations. b. internal characteristics that lead to fear responses. c. situations that elicit fear and avoidance. d. the circumstances under which typically fearful people are less likely to be afraid.

ANSWER: c 23. The school counselor has administered the ____ to Danielle to assess her belief that unless she gets an A in all of her courses, she will be viewed as stupid and incompetent. a. WAIS b. FSS c. IBT d. DAS ANSWER: c 24. Brenda's therapist is helping her to identify how she might be keeping herself from succeeding in various tasks by assessing the kinds of self-statements she makes. This is one of the most important functions of a(n) a. cognitive functional analysis. b. personality test. c. projective test. d. factor analysis.

ANSWER: a 25. Procedures and tools that are intended to increase a subject's awareness of a particular behavior by providing feedback are known as a. projective tests. b. personal profiles. c. structured tests. d. self monitoring devices.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 15: Computers and Basic Psychological Science in Testing 26. In an interview, the tendency for a person to respond in a way that makes them look good in the eyes of the interviewer is known as a. self efficacy. b. social desirability. c. attribution bias. d. self concept.

ANSWER: b 27. Research indicates that the effects of social desirability are ____ in computer-administered interviews as compared to face-to-face interviews. a. increased b. decreased c. about the same d. increased for sensitive subject areas ANSWER: b 28. Self-report techniques of cognitive-behavioral assessment a. tend to focus on situations that lead to particular response patterns. b. implicitly assume construct validity. c. include such procedures as the Woodworth Personal Data Sheet. d. focus primarily on underlying personality traits.

ANSWER: a 29. Who proposed the use of a self-report battery? a. Kanfer and Saslow b. McFall and Lillesand c. Cautela and Upper d. Mahoney and Ward ANSWER: c 30. The functional (behavior-analytic) approach to assessment is a product of a. the Self-Report Battery. b. Meichenbaum. c. Kanfer and Saslow. d. the Fear Survey Schedule.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 15: Computers and Basic Psychological Science in Testing 31. Research has indicated that self-statements a. influence behavior. b. are unrelated to overt behavior. c. cannot be assessed. d. are caused by environmental contingencies.

ANSWER: a 32. Which of the following researchers is associated with cognitive functional analysis? a. Ax b. Azrin c. Kanfer d. Meichenbaum ANSWER: d 33. The Fear Survey Schedule (FSS) is an example of a. a self-report technique. b. Kanfer and Saslow's Functional Approach. c. a psychophysiological assessment. d. a psychophysical procedure.

ANSWER: a 34. Generally, all of the problems of early structured personality tests apply to a. self-report techniques. b. Kanfer and Saslow's Functional Approach. c. psychophysiological assessment. d. psychophysical procedures.

ANSWER: a 35. What technique emphasizes behavioral deficits and excesses? a. self-report techniques b. Kanfer and Saslow's Functional Approach c. psychophysiological assessment d. psychophysical procedures ANSWER: b

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Chapter 15: Computers and Basic Psychological Science in Testing 36. The first step in a cognitive-behavioral assessment is to a. develop reinforcers. b. identify critical behaviors. c. determine a baseline. d. determine the cause of the problem behavior.

ANSWER: b 37. When cognitive-behavioral assessment methods are compared to traditional assessments, cognitive-behavioral assessments a. make fewer inferential assumptions. b. are plagued with problems related to definition. c. have fallen into disfavor. d. are generally of lower reliability and validity.

ANSWER: a 38. Elise, a bright four year-old, is very reluctant to try new foods. In fact, she has become unwilling to eat anything other than chicken nuggets, macaroni and cheese, and french fries. What is most likely the critical behavior? a. fear of getting fat b. refusing new foods c. being a difficult child d. maternal control ANSWER: b 39. Paulo has been very disrespectful to his older sister and it is causing family conflict. The target behavior has been identified as insulting comments, and it is categorized as a behavioral excess. What is the next step? a. Asking Paulo why he is so rude b. Determining a baseline for rude comments c. Experimenting with what it will take for Paulo to stop being rude d. Identifying the stimulus antecedents ANSWER: b 40. Why are self-report methods often preferred to observer methods? a. The mere presence of an observer can influence the occurrence of the target behaviors. b. Self-report measures allow the individual to feel more in control of the situation. c. The mere act of self-report typically induces the desired changes. d. Insurance companies will not pay for observer ratings.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 15: Computers and Basic Psychological Science in Testing 41. In cognitive-behavioral approaches, the primary determinant of the behavior is viewed as a. the individual’s attitudes b. the situation c. the reinforcement history d. lack of learning and knowledge ANSWER: b 42. Which test has been adapted for use with adults who have intellectual disabilities? a. ABSS b. TAT c. MSAT d. FSS ANSWER: d 43. Which of the following is true of cognitive-behavioral self-report procedures? a. They are not yet well-established clinical tools. b. They are strongly preferred by most clinicians. c. They require substantial skill to administer, score, and interpret. d. They typically lack face validity.

ANSWER: a 44. What is the goal of the Dysfunctional Attitude Scale? a. To identify schemas that predispose individuals to pathological behaviors b. To assess the extent to which bad attitudes cause unacceptable behavior c. To determine whether bias and prejudice contribute to interpersonal problems d. To measure the impact of low expectations on school and other achievement ANSWER: a 45. In comparison to the Irrational Beliefs Test (IBT), the Irrational Beliefs Inventory (IBI) a. is much longer and more complex. b. focuses on cognitions rather than negative affect. c. lacks consistent psychometric properties across cultures. d. is less useful in clinical settings.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 15: Computers and Basic Psychological Science in Testing 46. In psychology, psychophysiologic hardware a. is of limited use. b. may increase the scientific quality of psychological tests. c. often causes more harm than good. d. cannot be integrated into psychological testing procedures.

ANSWER: b 47. The premise underlying a Cognitive Functional Analysis is that a. overt behavior rather than underlying causes should be the primary focus of the assessment. b. what a person says to himself or herself plays a critical role in behavior. c. assessment of the internal dialogue has no place in the cognitive-behavioral assessment process. d. self-report procedures are they only useful technique in cognitive-behavioral assessment.

ANSWER: b 48. Indicators such as heart rate, blood pressure, and GSR are used in

a. psychophysiological procedures. b. cognitive functional analysis. c. cognitive-behavioral assessment. d. signal detection procedures.

ANSWER: a 49. Which of the following researchers in psychophysiological assessment demonstrated that the fear response was related to specific physiological changes? a. Klinger b. Powell c. Azrin d. Ax ANSWER: d 50. Which of the following individuals can be given credit for his or her involvement in psychophysical and signal detection procedures? a. Saccuzzo b. Kaplan c. Kelly d. Meichenbaum ANSWER: a

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Chapter 15: Computers and Basic Psychological Science in Testing 51. One problem in psychophysiological assessment is that a. no relationship has been found between physiological processes and cognitive processes. b. there may be artifacts. c. they are too time intensive. d. they are not cost-effective.

ANSWER: b 52. What approach may use an electronic device to measure heart rate and blood pressure? a. self-report techniques b. Kanfer and Saslow's Functional Approach c. psychophysiological assessment d. psychophysical procedures ANSWER: c 53. A signal detection procedure may be used in a. self-report techniques. b. Kanfer and Saslow's Functional Approach. c. psychophysiological assessment. d. psychophysical procedures.

ANSWER: d 54. Which of the following has been an impediment to the widespread use of computers in cognitive-behavioral assessment? a. questionable reliability b. lack of acceptance by practitioners c. difficulty with computerized test administration d. unreliable scoring of behavioral data ANSWER: b 55. Iconic storage refers to a. the memories of negative self-statements. b. a brief perceptual memory system. c. the development of schemas. d. the rate of GSR. ANSWER: b

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Chapter 15: Computers and Basic Psychological Science in Testing 56. In general, the results of computerized testing are ____ when compared to paper and pencil testing. a. lower b. lower for adults, but not for children c. less accurate d. about the same ANSWER: d 57. Researchers are able to compensate for differences in the testing environment of subjects who respond via the Internet by a. publishing clearly stated instructions on the web site. b. eliminating outliers. c. the sheer increase of the sample size generated on the web. d. by limiting access to their web page to pre-qualified participants.

ANSWER: c 58. For his patients who have a fear of flying, Dr. Davidson uses a computer to mimic the effects of airplane travel. This is known as a. virtual reality. b. operant conditioning. c. functional assessment. d. psychoanalytic assessment.

ANSWER: a 59. Jessica and her twin brother took a college entrance exam via computer. When talking afterwards, they found they had responded to different questions. The computer provided each question based on how well they had done on the previous question. This is known as a. individualized testing. b. computer adaptive testing. c. selective assessment. d. projective testing.

ANSWER: b 60. A problem encountered in computer adaptive testing is that a. expense usually increases. b. they generally require more time to administer. c. test takers cannot go back and change their answers. d. it takes a long time to find out your score.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 15: Computers and Basic Psychological Science in Testing 61. One potential drawback to the computerization of traditional tests is that a. there is a significant reduction in reliability. b. interpretations based on computer programs must be viewed with caution. c. computerized test administration is cumbersome. d. there is a significant decrease in validity.

ANSWER: b 62. To score psychological tests such as educational, personality, and/or psychopathology measurement, a. a trained individual should be involved in the scoring process. b. computers are taking a major role. c. computers started replacing almost all the psychopathological tests. d. computer-based scoring is not recommended.

ANSWER: b 63. Internet administration of psychological tests is generally a. adequate. b. not recommended. c. better than other methods. d. worse than paper and pencil tests.

ANSWER: a 64. Cognitive-behavioral assessment can include an evaluation of the factors that ________ disordered behavior a. precede b. coexist with c. maintain d. all of the above ANSWER: d 65. A cognitive-behavioral intervention has failed when the critical behavior a. is formed. b. remains at or above baseline levels. c. is modified in any way. d. drops below the baseline.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 15: Computers and Basic Psychological Science in Testing 66. The operant approach is characterized by a. rewards for desired behaviors. b. punishments for undesired behaviors. c. classical conditioning. d. social learning.

ANSWER: a 67. In the ideal situation, the behavioral observer will be a. an untrained, objective individual unknown to the subject or the behavior modification process. b. a parent or other person with intimate knowledge of the subject. c. a practitioner or trained assistant. d. a familiar individual that the subject is comfortable with but that can be more objective than a parent (e.g. a teacher) ANSWER: c 68. Cognitive-behavioral self-report techniques a. are not psychometrically established instruments. b. have higher validity than observational techniques. c. are no longer used. d. are few.

ANSWER: a 69. Which of the following scales was developed to evaluate negative schemas? a. Assertive Behavior Survey Schedule b. Irrational Beliefs Test c. The Dysfunctional Attitude Scale d. The Fear Survey Schedule ANSWER: c 70. Intervention to address negative self-statements involves a. forming more neutral self-statements. b. eliminating the negative self-statements. c. increasing positive self-statements. d. learning how to avoid any type of self-statement.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 15: Computers and Basic Psychological Science in Testing 71. Eliza, the computer program developed to emulate the behavior of a psychotherapist a. produced a superficial interaction with clients. b. engendered positive emotions and a connection with clients. c. was unable to exhibit empathy. d. used a cognitive-behavioral approach.

ANSWER: b 72. Choose a behavior that you would like to increase or decrease. Plan an intervention using the steps outlined in the text (Table 15-3). What reinforcers did you choose? How effective was the intervention?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 73. Identify, discuss, and evaluate psychophysiologic procedures used in psychological settings.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

74. What are some of the advantages and disadvantages of computer-administered testing? When would you tend to avoid their use and how should these drawbacks be handled?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

75. Describe the differences between cognitive-behavioral assessment procedures and the medical model of assessment.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 76. Explain how operant conditioning is applied in cognitive-behavioral interventions.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 16: Testing in Counseling Psychology 1. The first interest inventory was the a. Strong Vocational Interest Blank. b. Carnegie Interest Inventory. c. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory. d. Kuder Preference Survey.

ANSWER: b 2. The 1966 version of SVIB used standard scores with a mean of ____ and a standard deviation of ____. a. 0; 1 b. 50; 10 c. 100; 15 d. 100; 10 ANSWER: b 3. The criterion-group approach to test construction a. matches a test-taker's responses to those of a defined group. b. defines a criterion or cut-off score associated with high interest levels. c. allows the test-taker to identify his or her criterion for success. d. is seldom used for vocational tests.

ANSWER: a 4. Studies by Strong on occupational interests demonstrated that a. occupational interests are very unstable and may change from year to year. b. occupational interests are stable during high school years but become unstable during adulthood. c. occupational interests remain relatively stable after students have left school. d. occupational interests are stable during high school and college years, become unstable during the 30s, and become stable once again later in life.

ANSWER: c 5. Studies that examined the stability of interest patterns indicated that a. they were not stable over time. b. adolescents had a very stable pattern of interests. c. interest patterns were established by about age 17. d. most people became instable in midlife.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 16: Testing in Counseling Psychology 6. The SCII improved on the SVIB by a. reducing the number of occupational scales. b. reducing gender bias in the scales. c. limiting the age range of the criterion group. d. using more gender specific norms.

ANSWER: b 7. According to Holland's six personality factors, an individual that enjoys self-expression and being dramatic would fall on the ____ factor. a. realistic b. investigative c. artistic d. social ANSWER: c 8. David is very active politically and generally likes to be the leader of any group he joins. According to Holland's six personality factors, David is likely to fall on the ____ factor. a. realistic b. investigative c. social d. enterprising ANSWER: d 9. Sonya builds computers for a living and enjoys camping and hiking on the weekends. Holland's theory would identify Sonya as a. realistic. b. artistic. c. social. d. investigative.

ANSWER: a 10. Suppose you scored very high on the Dentist Scale of the SCII. This would suggest that a. you are interested in dentistry. b. your interests are similar to those of people who say they are happy working as dentists. c. you have a high aptitude for dentistry. d. the chances are good that you will be a successful dentist.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 16: Testing in Counseling Psychology 11. A major criticism of the Strong Vocational Interest Blank was a. low validity. b. low reliability. c. sex bias. d. that it was not properly designed for real life applications.

ANSWER: c 12. Which of the following statements is true? a. Scores on the Kuder remain stable over the course of time, but scores on the SCII tend not to. b. Scores on the SCII remain stable over time while scores on the Kuder tend not to. c. Scores on both the Kuder and the SCII do not remains table over time. d. Scores on both the Kuder and the SCII remain stable over the course of time.

ANSWER: d 13. Next to the Strong-Campbell, the second most widely used interest inventory is the a. Kuder Occupational Interest Survey. b. Minnesota Vocational Interest Inventory. c. Career Assessment Inventory. d. Carnegie Interest Inventory.

ANSWER: a 14. Next to the Strong-Campbell, the second most widely used interest inventory is the a. Kuder Occupational Interest Survey. b. Minnesota Vocational Interest Inventory. c. Career Assessment Inventory. d. Carnegie Interest Inventory.

ANSWER: a 15. The report that is generated for the KOIS presents ____ in the first section. a. dependability of the results b. rank-ordered interest patterns c. ranks of different occupations d. matches with different college majors ANSWER: a

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Chapter 16: Testing in Counseling Psychology 16. Examinations of the psychometric properties of the KOIS indicate a. poor reliability. b. poor validity. c. good reliability and predictive validity measures. d. Examinations of the psychometric properties of the KOIS indicateless predictive validity in college graduates.

ANSWER: c 17. The expectation that a person has about their ability to perform the tasks associated with a particular occupation is known as a. social desirability. b. egocentrism. c. self-efficacy. d. attribution bias.

ANSWER: c 18. Influencing, Helping, and Creating are three of the seven orientation scales that are part of the a. Campbell Interest and Skill Inventory. b. Jackson Vocational Interest Survey. c. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory. d. Kuder Occupational Interest Survey.

ANSWER: a 19. One difference between the KOIS and the SCII in item format is that a. KOIS items are not associated with occupational interests. b. each SCII item presents the test-taker with a triad (set of 3) of alternative activities. c. the KOIS presents the test-taker with triads of (set of 3) alternative activities. d. only the SCII provides direction with regard to selection of a college major.

ANSWER: c 20. Which of the following tests may help college students choose a major? a. Strong Vocational Interest Blank b. Kuder Occupational Interest Survey c. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory d. Minnesota Vocational Interest Inventory ANSWER: b

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Chapter 16: Testing in Counseling Psychology 21. Which of the following interest inventories is primarily designed for non-college bound individuals? a. the KOIS b. the SCII c. the CAI d. the SII ANSWER: c 22. Which of the following tests has become the "working person's" SCII? a. KOIS b. CAI c. SDS d. JVIS ANSWER: b 23. The ____ is useful when planning a midlife career change a. MVII b. SCII c. KOIS d. JVIS ANSWER: d 24. Individuals who take the Career Assessment Inventory must be able to read at the ____ grade level. a. 6th b. 8th c. 10th d. 12th ANSWER: a 25. Marjorie wants to get some information about possible career choices she might like. She would prefer to use some assessment that she can complete on her own rather than arranging an appointment with a career counselor. Marjorie might be interested in the a. MVII. b. JVIS. c. SDS. d. CAI. ANSWER: c

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Chapter 16: Testing in Counseling Psychology 26. The U.S. News and World Report now offers the ____ over the Internet for a small fee. a. Kuder Occupational Interest Survey b. Strong-Campbell Interests Inventory c. Campbell Interest and Skill Survey d. Minnesota Vocational Interest Inventory ANSWER: c 27. Which test includes a scale that assesses the degree of skill in a number of specific occupations in addition to the scales that assess interest in academic and occupational topics? a. KOIS b. CISS c. SVIB d. JVIS ANSWER: b 28. The Strong Vocational Interest Blank is based on the observation that a. people from different occupations have different interests. b. individuals’ interests guide their career choices. c. people who are not interested in a career often require guidance. d. vocational interests are more important than career choices, ANSWER: a 29. Which of the following is true of the 1966 SVIB? a. It included 54 occupations for men but only 32 for women. b. It had very serious problems with reliability. c. It was developed using the theoretical approach. d. The interest patterns are not stable over time.

ANSWER: a 30. Which of the following is a valid criticism of the SVIB? a. It has problems with gender bias. b. It lacks reliability. c. It yields unstable scores. d. It has poor predictive validity.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 16: Testing in Counseling Psychology 31. Which theorist had an influence on the Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory? a. Holland b. Murray c. Maslow d. Skinner ANSWER: a 32. Barbara is motivated by power and political strength. Which of Holland’s personality factors does this reflect? a. enterprising b. ego strength c. interpersonal d. dominance ANSWER: a 33. What do the SCII occupational scores provide? a. The likelihood that the test-taker will be successful in the different occupations b. The similarity between an individual’s interests and the interests of those who are happy in their occupation c. An indication of whether the individual will be able to find a job in their chosen occupation d. What types of interests an individual needs to develop in order to be a success ANSWER: b 34. Which of the following is a criticism of the 1977 version of the SCII? a. It is too similar to the SVIB. b. It lacks predictive validity. c. The individuals in the criterion groups were older than the individuals who typically take the test. d. It is based on the assumption that an individual’s interest in their late teens or early twenties will be stable.

ANSWER: c 35. The Kuder Occupational Interest Survey involves a. the selection of the most and least preferred activities from a triad. b. only trade and technical occupations. c. a combination of interests, abilities and education. d. combined rather than separate norms for males and females.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 16: Testing in Counseling Psychology 36. Which of the following is true of Holland’s Self-Directed Search? a. It helps individuals develop a personal career theory. b. It identifies individuals’ strengths and weaknesses. c. It yields impressive correlations between test results and stated career aspirations. d. It is very difficult to score correctly and this has harmed its validity.

ANSWER: a 37. Which of the following is a criticism of Osipow’s approach? a. It focuses on the individual characteristics at the expense of the work environment. b. It places greater emphasis on career interests over time than on stable career interests. c. It assumes personality traits are stable when they are not. d. It lacks the statistical power necessary for use in research.

ANSWER: a 38. Which of the following approaches to assessment is used in Osipow's approach to occupational assessment? a. matching traits to occupations b. assessing career maturity c. assessing career preferences d. using interview data exclusively ANSWER: a 39. A special commission appointed by The Association for Evaluation in Guidance found that a. the psychometric properties of most interest inventories was poor. b. instruction manuals for the interest inventories needed to be improved. c. interest inventories guided men and women into gender-typed careers. d. unisex interest inventories were neither valid nor reliable.

ANSWER: c 40. Scales like the SCII and the KOIS are based on a. measures that assess an individual's aptitude for a particular occupation. b. an assessment of crystallized intelligence. c. similar interests between test takers and persons in a particular occupation. d. measures that predict how successful a person is likely to be in an occupation.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 16: Testing in Counseling Psychology 41. Who postulated that interests were an expression of personality that could be divided into one or more of six categories? a. D. P. Campbell b. E. K. Strong, Jr. c. R. L. Thorndike d. J. L. Holland ANSWER: d 42. The approach of ____ involves the administration of an extensive test battery that includes the Purdue pegboard in order to learn as much about an individual's traits as possible a. Holland b. Osipow c. Roe d. Super ANSWER: b 43. What is one of the problems with tests that measure personality traits? a. They are usually too short. b. Scores for personality traits may not be good predictors of how individuals behave in particular situations. c. Two measures of the same trait usually do not correlate well with one another. d. They are seldom psychometrically sound.

ANSWER: b 44. Research on attribution theory suggests that people tend to describe others in terms of ____, but explain their own behavior in terms of ____. a. situations; traits b. traits; personalities c. traits; situations d. specific context; situations ANSWER: c 45. According to attribution theory, people determine what has caused some event in their environment using three criteria: a. persons, entities, or times. b. distinctiveness, consensus, or consistency. c. who, what, or when. d. internal, external, or global.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 16: Testing in Counseling Psychology 46. Jones and Nisbett (1977) suggested that we make situational attributions about our own behavior because a. it is more difficult to accept our own faults. b. we know more about ourselves than about others. c. we are more subjective about our own faults. d. we forget unpleasant aspects of our past behavior.

ANSWER: b 47. Tina, who is generally easy going, became short tempered after a run-in with a rude, irate customer. According to attribution theory, her behavior would be considered a. consistent. b. global. c. stable. d. distinctive.

ANSWER: d 48. Which of the following is considered the first step in identifying an appropriate career path? a. Identifying the school subject in which you made the best grades. b. Evaluating your interests. c. Choosing a college major. d. Talking to individuals about their professions.

ANSWER: b 49. In the criterion-group approach, subjects are matched to careers based on a. personality type. b. career knowledge and skills. c. values and interests. d. interests and experiences.

ANSWER: c 50. Which of the following describes the sample used in the construction of the SVIB? a. Restricted to less than 20 occupations. b. An all male sample. c. A predominantly young adult sample. d. A good normative sample.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 16: Testing in Counseling Psychology 51. Which of the following was NOT one of the improvements the SCII made over the SVIB? a. It removed gender biased terminology. b. It used a more representative sample in test construction. c. It applied Holland’s theory of vocational choice. d. It merged men and women’s forms.

ANSWER: b 52. Which measure includes an extroversion scale that helps guide respondents to occupations with the appropriate amount and intensity of interpersonal relations? a. CISS b. CAI c. KOIS d. SCII ANSWER: a 53. Which of the following describes how gender is treated in the KOIS? a. Gender differences are not addressed. b. Men and women’s forms are merged. c. Gendered occupational terms such as “waitress” are used. d. Separate norms were developed for men and women.

ANSWER: d 54. Which test was carefully designed to be culturally fair? a. CISS b. CAI c. KOIS d. SCII ANSWER: b 55. Studies of the Self-Directed Search (SDS) have shown that respondents tend to score their own tests a. accurately. b. in a biased manner toward the career they were originally planning. c. in gender-specific ways. d. with a number of mathematical errors.

ANSWER: a 56. Describe the criterion keying method that was used to develop the Strong Vocational Interest Blank. What procedures were changed in the development of later versions of this instrument; i.e., the SCII and the CISS? ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 16: Testing in Counseling Psychology 57. Compare and contrast the KOIS and CAI. ANSWER: Answer not provided 58. Describe at least two key issues in the development of interest assessments and outline the attempts, if any, that have been made to deal with them.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

59. Besides interests, describe other factors that should be considered for career planning and placement, and identify any of the tests discussed in this chapter that measure these factors in addition to interests.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

60. Describe how gender has been treated in career testing. What measures have been taken to avoid gender bias? How have gender-based differences in career factors been addressed?

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 1. The scientific discipline that examines psychological impairments of the central nervous system, and the therapeutic or educational techniques designed to bring about improvement, is known as ____. a. behavioral psychology b. cognitive psychology c. clinical neuropsychology d. health psychology ANSWER: c 2. Dr. Jackson, a psychologist, works in a rehabilitation facility that handles patients with injury or disease of the brain and/or spinal cord. His job is to identify and describe the dysfunction that is present, to use statistical procedures to quantify that dysfunction, and to design an appropriate treatment plan for the patient. It is likely that Dr. Jackson is a specialist in a. experimental psychology. b. behavioral medicine. c. cognitive behavioral psychology. d. clinical neuropsychology.

ANSWER: d 3. Clinical neuropsychology and ____ both focus on sensations and perceptions and on motor movements. a. psychophysical assessment b. cognition c. neurology d. psychiatry ANSWER: c 4. Clinical neuropsychology is multidisciplinary and overlaps with the fields of a. psychiatry, neurology, and psychometric testing. b. operant conditioning, nuclear medicine, and neurology. c. counseling, neurology and psychometric testing. d. psychiatry, nephrology, and psychometric testing.

ANSWER: a 5. The roots of neuropsychology can be traced to the 19th century work of a. Luria and Reitan. b. Broca and Wernicke. c. Tuber and Geschwind. d. Halstead and Reitan.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 6. Most of the work in neuropsychology is directed toward the assessment of a. sensations/perceptions. b. brain dysfunction. c. mood. d. motor movements.

ANSWER: b 7. After suffering from a stroke, Louise has problems dressing and seems to have trouble telling her right from her left.

She also has trouble reading because she cannot seem to recognize written words. It is quite likely that the damage from the stroke a. affected the right hemisphere of her brain. b. affected the left hemisphere of her brain. c. is not responsible for the deficits she is experiencing. d. effected both sides of her brain.

ANSWER: b 8. An individual with difficulty writing, impaired visual perception, and paralysis of a limb that they deny is paralyzed, might be suspected of having damage to which brain hemisphere? a. left hemisphere b. right hemisphere c. there is no way to infer that information d. both hemispheres of the brain must be involved ANSWER: b 9. Wernicke's aphasia involves damage to the a. hippocampus. b. corpus collosum. c. superior temporal gyrus. d. amygdala.

ANSWER: c 10. Brain damage that effects information-processing skills involved in the retrieval of information is likely to be located in the a. diencephalic system. b. frontal lobes. c. medial temporal lobes. d. ventromedial hippocampus.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 11. Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by a. difficulty hearing. b. impaired verbal comprehension. c. impaired reading ability. d. impaired psychomotor abilities.

ANSWER: b 12. The factor proposed by Mirsky related to a child's ability to scan information and respond in a meaningful way is called a. shift. b. focus execute. c. encode. d. scanning.

ANSWER: b 13. Your textbook presents the case of a patient who exhibited deterioration in performance on the Draw-a-Clock task, which was administered three times from 1996 to 1999. The pattern of the patient's performance indicated that a. he was probably schizophrenic. b. he was most likely illiterate. c. parietal lobe functioning had deteriorated. d. dopamine production had deteriorated.

ANSWER: c 14. The Trail Making Tests evaluate several cognitive skills, including a. mood, attention, and sequencing. b. attention, intelligence, and thought processing. c. attention, sequencing, and thought processing. d. intelligence, sequencing, and thought processing.

ANSWER: c 15. Mirsky and colleagues have identified four different factors of mental processing and related them to specific anatomical regions in the brain. These four factors are a. focus execute, sustain, encode, and shift. b. focus execute, sustain, process, and shift. c. encode, process, sustain, and output. d. sustain, encode, shift, and output.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 16. Dyslexia a. is a motor disorder. b. is a disease that affects the muscular system. c. is characterized by difficulty decoding single words. d. is associated with mental retardation.

ANSWER: c 17. Dyslexia is an example of a a. subcortical dementia. b. speech disorder. c. short-term memory deficit. d. learning disability.

ANSWER: d 18. Neuropsychological evaluations and ____ analysis have been used to identify malingering in patients who previously had brain damage. a. factor b. descriptive c. discriminate function d. differential item ANSWER: c 19. The concussion resolution index a. does not correlate well with other neuropsychological tests. b. performs poorly in comparison to the grooved pegboard test. c. is a paper and pencil test. d. can assess neuropsychological problems when other reports are normal.

ANSWER: d 20. One of the major disadvantages of the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery is that the battery a. was not systematic. b. is useless in localizing injury in a particular hemisphere of the brain. c. can only be administered to adults. d. requires 8 to 12 hours to administer.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 21. Along with the Halstead-Reitan Battery, patients often receive the a. MMPI. b. CPI. c. Rorschach. d. TAT. ANSWER: a 22. Approximately how long does it take to administer the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery? a. less than 1 hour b. 4 to 5 hours c. 8 to 12 hours d. 12 to 24 hours ANSWER: c 23. The Halstead-Reitan Battery can assist in assessing a. tumors from heart disease. b. left versus right hemisphere brain lesions. c. subcortical versus cortical brain lesions. d. peripheral versus central nervous system lesions.

ANSWER: b 24. Which researcher introduced the concept of pluripotentiality? a. Luria b. Halstead c. Reitan d. Lezak ANSWER: a 25. The concept of pluripotentiality suggests that a. all areas of the brain are equally capable in performing any function. b. any one center in the brain can be involved in several different functional systems. c. one center of the brain is involved in one and only one functional system. d. the potential of brain capacity is unlimited.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 26. Luria's original work used a. highly objective measures. b. standardized procedures. c. multiple validity measures. d. psychometrically unsound procedures.

ANSWER: d 27. A standardized version of Luria's procedure was developed by a. Benton. b. Golden. c. Mirsky. d. Geschwind.

ANSWER: b 28. Approximately how long does it take to administer the Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery? a. 1 hour b. 4 to 5 hours c. 8 to 12 hours d. 24 hours ANSWER: d 29. The Luria-Nebraska test provides a total of ____ scores reported as standardized performance levels. a. 3 b. 10 c. 11 d. 14 ANSWER: d 30. Pluripotentiality refers to a. simultaneous talents. b. an individual's ability to perform two activities at the same time. c. the concept that any one center in the brain can be involved in several functional systems. d. the possibility of multiple intelligences.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 31. Receptive and expressive language abilities seem to be localized a. more in the left than the right side of the brain. b. more in the right than the left side of the brain. c. equally in the right and the left sides of the brain. d. in the frontal lobe of the brain.

ANSWER: a 32. Which neuropsychological test can be administered by a computer? a. Luria-Nebraska b. California Verbal Learning Test c. Halstead-Reitan d. Trail Making Test ANSWER: b 33. The Halstead-Reitan is an example of a ____. a. fixed quantitative battery b. more flexible assessment than the CVLT c. qualitative approach d. battery that does not used standardized procedures ANSWER: a 34. The California Verbal Learning Test (CVLT) a. is one of the subscales of the Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery. b. is an example of a fixed quantitative assessment approach. c. identifies different strategies, processes, and errors associated with specific deficits. d. is exclusively a paper and pencil instrument.

ANSWER: c 35. The findings of a study, using the CVLT, which compared patients with Huntington's disease, Alzheimer's disease, and other neuropsychological impairments suggest that a. measures have the same validity for different patient groups. b. the association between variables is different for different patient populations. c. the CVLT may be an appropriate measure for Alzheimer's patients but not Huntington's. d. the CVLT cannot discriminate between impaired groups and a control group of patients.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 36. The California Verbal Learning Test is a new approach to clinical neuropsychology that builds on research in a. psychological testing, cognitive psychology, and neuroscience. b. physiological testing, experimental psychology, and neuroscience. c. physiological testing, experimental psychology, and computer science. d. psychological testing, cognitive psychology, and computer science.

ANSWER: d 37. Which test attempts to determine how errors are made in learning tasks? a. Luria-Nebraska b. Halstead-Reitan c. California Verbal Learning Test d. Category Test ANSWER: c 38. The three components of psychological stress are: a. fright, flight, and fight. b. frustration, fear, and pressure. c. frustration, conflict, and pressure. d. demands, opportunities, and constraints.

ANSWER: c 39. As a component of psychological stress, frustration is defined as a. the reaction that occurs when the attainment of some desired goal is blocked. b. the type of stress that occurs when we must make a choice. c. occurring when we are forced to speed up activity. d. the type of stress that occurs when we have too much time on our hands.

ANSWER: a 40. An emotional state marked by worry, apprehension, and tension is known as a. frustration. b. fear. c. stress. d. anxiety.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 41. Stress is a response to situations that involve a. demands, constraints, or deadlines. b. fear, frustration, or demands. c. frustration, constraints, or opportunities. d. demands, constraints, or opportunities.

ANSWER: d 42. State anxiety is a(n) a. personality characteristic. b. emotional reaction that varies from one situation to another. c. reaction that can be measured using trait personality measures. d. stable and consistent fear reaction not specific to any one stimulus situation.

ANSWER: b 43. The state-trait anxiety theory was developed by a. Spearman. b. Sarason. c. Spielberger. d. Mandler.

ANSWER: c 44. Research on the STAI, which measures two components of anxiety, would seem to indicate a. that the psychometric properties of the test are poor. b. each component is measuring a different aspect of anxiety. c. the two components are measuring the same thing. d. that the factor structure of the test does not hold up in Japanese culture.

ANSWER: b 45. The Test Anxiety Questionnaire distinguishes between the ____ drive and the ____ drive. a. learned task; learned anxiety b. stress; anxiety c. learned task; learned hopelessness d. learned helplessness; learned anxiety ANSWER: a

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 46. The short version of the Test Anxiety Inventory a. has been found to be psychometrically unsound. b. has a total of 10 items. c. retains many of the reliability properties of the full version. d. has not yet been tested to evaluate its validity.

ANSWER: c 47. The original test anxiety measure was the a. TAQ. b. TAI. c. STAI. d. STABBS. ANSWER: a 48. Early studies using the Test Anxiety Scale demonstrated that test-anxious students a. tended to be very self-confident. b. are anxious in nearly all social situations. c. tend to focus attention on themselves in test-taking situations rather than on the test. d. are anxious because they are so tightly focused on the test.

ANSWER: c 49. The focus of the TAS is on a. the particular situation. b. the measurement of social support. c. the person rather than the situation. d. the same as in the TAQ. ANSWER: c 50. After receiving neutral feedback, individuals who score low on the TAS tend to a. be pessimistic about their future performance. b. be optimistic about their future performance. c. have low frustration thresholds. d. be overly self-focused.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 51. The Ways of Coping Scale (Folkman, 2010; Lazarus & Folkman, 1984) is a ____-item test and includes ____ subscales. a. 10; three b. 68; seven c. 24; nine d. 79; six ANSWER: b 52. One advantage of EMA is that a. information is collected in the subject's natural environment. b. it does not require a computer. c. information can only be collected once. d. there is no variability over time.

ANSWER: a 53. Which type of memory is assumed to be unlimited in quantity and duration? a. LTM b. STM c. WM d. Verbatim ANSWER: a 54. In one study, 18-month detoxified alcoholics a. did not show any recovery of learning and memory. b. showed some recovery of memory and learning. c. showed full recovery of memory and learning. d. showed better memory and learning than the abstinent group.

ANSWER: b 55. Why is ANAM one of the most important developments in clinical neuropsychology? a. ANAM takes eight hours to administer. b. ANAM is the first neurological test to measure psychological disorder. c. ANAM is an automated neuropsychological test. d. ANAM only requires a single task.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 56. Which imaging study allows estimates to be made of blood flow to regions of the brain? a. CAT b. fMRI c. PET d. EEG ANSWER: b 57. Given the advances in neuroimaging, why are neuropsychological tests still used? a. Neuropsychological tests can detect problems that are missed with imaging. b. Neuropsychological tests are needed for confirmatory analyses. c. Neuropsychological tests take less time to administer and are less stressful. d. Neuropsychological tests are an expected part of neurological workups.

ANSWER: a 58. According to your textbook, which of the following is regarded as a major accomplishment of neuropsychologists? a. The development of procedures to identify relationships between the brain and behavior b. The synthesis of medications that help slow the progression of Alzheimer’s disease c. The development of imaging methods that eliminate the need for lengthy neuropsychological testing d. The identification of specific brain structures that are associated with complex cognitive functions ANSWER: a 59. Which of the following is associated with right-sided brain injury? a. word-memory problems b. finger agnosia c. problems dressing d. difficulty writing ANSWER: d 60. Which of the following is associated with left-sided brain injury? a. visual-spatial defects b. problems recognizing written words c. problems with spatial calculations d. inability to recognize a physical deficit ANSWER: b

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 61. Which test evaluates attention and executive functioning in children? a. Trail Making Test b. Child Development Inventory c. Halstead-Reitan d. Luria-Nebraska ANSWER: a 62. Which component of the Halstead-Reitan assesses current learning skills, mental efficiency, and abstract concept formation? a. category b. trail making c. rhythm d. tactual ANSWER: a 63. The California Verbal Learning Test a. determines how errors are made. b. tests memory function. c. measures intelligence. d. identifies the location of brain injury.

ANSWER: a 64. The Ecological Momentary Assessment a. avoids biases associated with asking people to remember their moods or symptoms. b. requires a highly trained observer to rate behavior. c. provides information about the situational determinants of behavior. d. shows great promise as an alternative to lengthy neuropsychological assessments.

ANSWER: a 65. The two major approaches to quality-of-life assessment are a. tangible and intangible. b. psychometric and decision theory. c. internal and external. d. life and death.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 66. The best known example of a psychometric approach to quality-of-life assessment is the a. TAS. b. WHO. c. SIP. d. MMPI. ANSWER: c 67. An important characteristic that specifically identifies the decision theory approach to quality of life assessment is that it a. provides separate measures for different dimensions of quality of life. b. asks respondents to choose from alternatives to determine what their quality of life is. c. is based upon subjective ratings by physicians. d. attempts to weight different dimensions of health.

ANSWER: d 68. The eight-dimension measure that was developed for the Medical Outcomes Study and the RAND Corporation is the a. SF-36. b. QWB. c. Nottingham Health Profile. d. Karnofsky Performance Status.

ANSWER: a 69. Despite its limitations, which of the following is the most commonly used behavioral measure in contemporary medicine? a. Nottingham Health Profile b. Sickness Impact Profile c. Index of Activities of Daily Living d. SF-36 ANSWER: d 70. In cost/utility analysis, the benefits of treatment are expressed in a. mortality rates. b. well-years. c. morbidity rates. d. life satisfaction scores.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 71. Decision theory approaches to quality of life measurement have the advantage of providing a. a complex profile of health status. b. a basis to compare patients with very different conditions. c. a method for predicting future illness. d. unweighted dimensions of health.

ANSWER: b 72. The psychometric approach to quality of life measurement a. weights different dimensions of quality of life to derive a single score. b. is applicable to social aspects of life but not health issues. c. are plagued by problems with validity. d. provides separate measures for each of the dimensions of quality of life.

ANSWER: d 73. Advances in neuroimaging techniques have most strongly benefitted which field? a. behavioral psychology b. cognitive psychology c. clinical neuropsychology d. health psychology ANSWER: c 74. New research supports which view of functional problems? a. They are related to specific locations within the brain. b. They arise within complex neural systems. c. They are primarily cognitive in nature. d. All of the above.

ANSWER: b 75. Why is brain injury in children difficult to detect? a. Neuroimaging tests are not safe to administer to children. b. The smaller size of children’s brains makes it more difficult to detect injuries. c. Functional impairments may not appear until they are older and presented with new challenges. d. It is difficult to get any child to attend to and perform well on neuropsychological assessments.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 76. The Concussion Resolution Index (CRI) was designed primarily to track the recovery process for which group? a. battered women. b. veterans. c. car accident survivors. d. athletes ANSWER: d 77. By 3 years old, infants who suffered from early brain lesions a. had still not developed verbal abilities, coordination, and visual spatial abilities. b. had caught up to their healthy peers in verbal ability, coordination, and visual spatial ability. c. showed poor performance on tests of verbal ability, coordination, and visual spatial ability. d. varied significantly in their verbal ability, coordination, and visual spatial ability.

ANSWER: c 78. Different people confronted with the same stressful situation a. may respond quite differently. b. tend to respond in similar ways. c. systematically assess all possible coping mechanisms and then choose the one that uniquely suits them. d. experience similar health outcomes associated with stress regardless of how they choose to cope.

ANSWER: a 79. Which of the following is the LEAST stable over time? a. cognitive deficits b. stress levels c. traits d. states ANSWER: b 80. Research on the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale a. suggested that it was unnecessary and not cost effective to screen all pregnant and postpartum women for depression. b. showed that it did not function well for low income and African American women. c. showed that it is only able to detect major depression in pregnant and postpartum women. d. showed that is capable of identifying both major and minor depression in pregnant and postpartum women.

ANSWER: d 81. Discuss how neuroscience is related to other forms of psychological assessment.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 17: Testing in Health Psychology and Health Care 82. Identify and discuss the types of imaging studies that are used in neuropsychology.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 83. Discuss issues related to quality of life. Operationalize this concept, (i.e., how do definitions of quality of life differ from individual to individual and how might these variations affect measurement of health status?).

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

84. Discuss the relationship(s) between life stress, social support, and coping. What impact do these factors have on physical illness? What about psychological distress?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 85. Define mHealth, list and describe mHealth applications, and discuss how mHealth has advanced healthcare practice.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

86. Describe the major changes to the 2015 Medical College Admissions Test (MCAT).

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 18: Testing in Industrial and Business Settings 1. In practice, employment interviews involve a search for a. goodness of fit. b. skill sets. c. negative information. d. employment history.

ANSWER: c 2. The difference between I/O psychology and human resource management is that a. human resource emphasizes quantitative methods. b. human resource emphasizes testing methods. c. I/O psychology emphasizes quantitative methods. d. I/O psychology emphasizes qualitative methods.

ANSWER: c 3. ____ psychology is the study and practice of job analysis, job recruitment, employee selection, and the evaluation of employees, while ____ psychology is the study and practice of leadership, job satisfaction, and employee motivation a. Cognitive; social b. Personnel; organizational c. Human resource; leadership d. Selection psychology; motivational ANSWER: b 4. In structured interviews, candidates who work hard at impression management a. have no advantage. b. receive higher ratings. c. are seen as manipulative. d. pay less attention to the questions.

ANSWER: b 5. When there has been one unfavorable impression in an interview, ____ of the interviewees are rejected; when there have been only positive impressions, ____ are rejected. a. 50%; 50% b. 75%; 25% c. 75%; 10% d. 90%; 25% ANSWER: d

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Chapter 18: Testing in Industrial and Business Settings 6. When women apply for an entry-level management position, wear perfume, and convey friendliness through nonverbal behaviors, a. male interviewers are typically distracted and pay less attention to responses. b. they are negatively viewed, perhaps because they seem manipulative. c. they are viewed as appropriate management candidates. d. the salary that is offered will be higher.

ANSWER: b 7. Researchers who have reviewed the literature on employment interviews almost unanimously recommend a. the use of an unstructured interview. b. the use of a structured interview. c. that the employer should depend upon their first impression. d. that prospective employees cannot go too far in trying to make a good impression.

ANSWER: b 8. What kind of score is used when a decision is dichotomous? a. scaled b. cutting c. qualitative d. normalized ANSWER: b 9. When a false negative rate is high, test makers may a. re-norm the test. b. add items to the test. c. lower the cutoff. d. increase reliability.

ANSWER: c 10. When the cost of false positives is high, test makers may a. abandon the test for one that is better. b. raise the cutting score. c. identify sources of variance. d. change the method of administration.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 18: Testing in Industrial and Business Settings 11. Which of the following is a problem with tests that purport to measure and predict antisocial behavior by measuring childhood aggression? a. They have high false positive rates. b. They lack validity. c. They have poor reliability. d. They have high false negative rates.

ANSWER: a 12. Which of the following is needed for Taylor-Russell tables? a. determination of the reliability b. definition of false negatives c. identification of false positives d. a definition of success ANSWER: d 13. Which of the following is true of decision and utility theory? a. It makes managers more likely to use data. b. It is widely used in employee selection. c. It requires information that is difficult to estimate. d. It has been rejected for use in medical research.

ANSWER: c 14. Which type of employment interview has the lowest validity? a. structured b. psychologically-based c. situational d. value-added ANSWER: b 15. In order for a test to be considered useful, it must provide more information than would be known by a. the cutting score. b. the validity coefficient. c. making a decision without a test. d. the hit rate alone.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 18: Testing in Industrial and Business Settings 16. A cutting score is a. associated with the number of people allowed to take the test. b. the minimum point for test reliability. c. a decision point. d. the base rate for a test with a dichotomous format.

ANSWER: c 17. The percent of cases in which a test accurately predicts success or failure is known as the a. rate of accuracy (RA). b. positive percentile. c. hit rate. d. base rate.

ANSWER: c 18. A base rate is a. the number of "hits". b. the proportion of people with a defined condition in the general population. c. the chances of succeeding given a person is selected by a highly valid test. d. the chances of failing given that a person is selected by a highly valid test.

ANSWER: b 19. If an applicant is selected on the basis of test performance, but fails on the job, the situation is described as a a. hit. b. false negative. c. false positive. d. high cutting score.

ANSWER: c 20. On the basis of a psychological test, an individual is identified as schizophrenic. An interview reveals schizophrenic thinking and a history of psychiatric hospitalization. This case best illustrates a a. false negative. b. miss. c. false negative. d. hit.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 18: Testing in Industrial and Business Settings 21. In decision analysis, the detection rate is the same thing as a. the sensitivity. b. the specificity. c. the accuracy rate. d. the false positive rate.

ANSWER: a 22. If a test were available that could identify those persons most likely to suffer heart attacks, it would be more costly and dangerous to have a a. hit. b. low cutting score. c. false positive. d. false error.

ANSWER: b 23. Students selected on the basis of a test for a graduate training program frequently leave prior to completion because of poor grades. This is an example of a a. false negative. b. high cutting score. c. high base rate. d. false positive.

ANSWER: d 24. ________ interviews are less subject to sex bias and are less likely to result in discrimination against women or men. a. employment b. educational c. structured d. group ANSWER: a 25. Validity for structured interviews is highest when a. the interviewer and interviewee are matched on gender. b. the interviewee is more him or herself rather than focusing on impression management. c. the same interviewer evaluates all candidates. d. the interviewer explains to the interviewee the criteria on which they will be judged.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 18: Testing in Industrial and Business Settings 26. The percentage of applicants who are hired or admitted to a program is known as the a. base rate. b. reliability coefficient. c. selection ratio. d. validity coefficient.

ANSWER: c 27. Suppose that 100 people applied for a job and that 50 will be selected. The base rate for success on the job is .60 and the applicants would be selected on the basis of a test with a validity of .80. What would the probability of success be given rejection? a. 44/50 b. 44/60 c. 6/60 d. 16/50 ANSWER: d 28. Taylor-Russell tables are used to estimate a. it is not as reliable as the Taylor-Russell table. b. the equations are difficult to apply. c. hit rates are low. d. variables must be dichotomous.

ANSWER: b 29. Utility theory has not been widely used for making personnel decisions because a. it is not as reliable as the Taylor-Russell table. b. the equations are difficult to apply. c. hit rates are low. d. variables must be dichotomous.

ANSWER: b 30. Utility theory approaches may be more applicable to actual situations than the Taylor-Russell methods because a. the definition of success can be in terms of a continuous variable. b. utility theory does not consider dollar values. c. they are easier to apply. d. the information needed for the calculations is easily obtained.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 18: Testing in Industrial and Business Settings 31. The information a test provides beyond what is known using some simpler procedure is called a. construct validity. b. hit rates. c. incremental validity. d. the base rate.

ANSWER: c 32. Incremental validity a. is less valuable than face validity. b. defines the base rate in utility theory. c. is an estimate of the hit rate. d. tells you what you can gain by using a particular test.

ANSWER: d 33. Even if a test is reliable and valid, it should not be used unless it has a. incremental validity. b. utility. c. a high cutting score. d. content validity.

ANSWER: a 34. _________ remain(s) one of the best ways to understand the value of personnel testing. a. The Taylor-Russell tables b. Environmental classification c. Value-added employee assessments d. The Myers-Briggs type indicator ANSWER: a 35. Jason had worked very hard to accurately and quickly perform every task assigned to him. Still, his supervisor gave him a low rating. Research indicates that supervisors a. are the most accurate judge of an employee's performance. b. are not influenced by petty concerns such as their own job security. c. are known to be inaccurate raters. d. give lower performance ratings if they are conflicted about their own role.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 18: Testing in Industrial and Business Settings 36. The predictive validity of most selections tests a. is very low. b. is only modest. c. is between .7 and .8. d. is never less than .9.

ANSWER: b 37. Which test attempts to measure temperament? a. WPT b. MBTI c. MEAP d. CPI ANSWER: b 38. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is based on the theory of psychology types proposed by a. Isabel Myers. b. Carl Jung. c. Henry Murray. d. Carl Rogers.

ANSWER: b 39. According to Jung's theory, knowing something because we can see it would be considered a. intuition. b. sensing. c. feeling. d. vision.

ANSWER: b 40. In Jung's theory, inferring what underlies sensory inputs is a. sensing. b. signal detection. c. intuition. d. thinking abstractly.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 18: Testing in Industrial and Business Settings 41. The purpose of the Myers-Briggs test is to determine a. whether people are clinically depressed. b. if a potential employee will be successful in a particular job. c. where people fall on the introversion-extroversion dimension. d. the IQ of older employees compared to younger employees.

ANSWER: c 42. The Wonderlic Personnel Test is based on the a. Porteus Maze Test. b. Otis Self-Administering Tests of Mental Ability. c. General Aptitude Test. d. Bennett Mechanical Comprehension Test.

ANSWER: b 43. The WPT is a(n) a. computer adaptive test. b. very long test to administer. c. stable test with extensive norms. d. test with extensive validity documentation.

ANSWER: c 44. The field of psychology that studies people in their natural environment and attempts to analyze the effects of the physical environment on social behavior is known as a. behaviorism. b. cognition. c. environmental psychology. d. ecological psychology.

ANSWER: c 45. What is commonly found to be the correlation between the GRE and graduate school GPA? a. .05 b. .10 c. .50 d. .80 ANSWER: b

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Chapter 18: Testing in Industrial and Business Settings 46. Which measure also has an abbreviated quicktest? a. Wonderlic b. Myers-Briggs c. Perceived Person—Environment Fit Scale d. Taylor-Russell ANSWER: a 47. A work situation is described as follows: hot, high pressure for production, little reinforcement for production, and low pay. This description employs which approach to assessment? a. personality b. environmental classification c. persons-situation interaction d. job stress ANSWER: b 48. A classification system that includes six characteristics of environments was developed by a. Roe. b. Barker. c. Stokols. d. Moos.

ANSWER: d 49. Many studies have demonstrated that the characteristics of other people in a person's environment a. serve as an example of what not to do. b. fail to have any impact on behavior. c. affect one's own behavior. d. only have an effect on the weak-minded.

ANSWER: c 50. Moos' research has led to the conclusion that a. work productivity is not affected by the environment. b. supportive work environments reduce stress. c. bank customers do not care if the teller is friendly or not. d. stress is related to outside influences and not to work environments.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 18: Testing in Industrial and Business Settings 51. Behavioral factors like smoking predict life expectancy ________ measures of physical indicators like blood pressure. a. only when considered along with b. as well as c. better than d. worse than ANSWER: b 52. According to Moos's classification system, consideration of the architectural design would be a characteristic of the a. behavioral setting. b. ecological dimensions. c. functional properties. d. organizational structure.

ANSWER: b 53. A(n) ____ is used by job analysts to describe the activities and working conditions associated with a job title. a. incident report b. checklist c. base rate d. interview ANSWER: b 54. Several studies have demonstrated that self-rated emotional intelligence a. cannot be used to make inferences. b. predicts if a person will like a work environment. c. is a good predictor of job performance. d. is not as accurate as when rated by others.

ANSWER: c 55. Which of the following methods of job analysis involves the observation of behaviors that differentiate successful from unsuccessful employees? a. checklists b. observation c. questionnaires d. critical incidents ANSWER: d

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Chapter 18: Testing in Industrial and Business Settings 56. Special precautions are necessary when using ____ to find out about job situations because the information gained is easily biased by employees who have strong negative or positive feelings toward the company. a. observation b. interviews c. questionnaires d. critical incidents ANSWER: c 57. A problem with obtaining information about employment settings from questionnaires is that a. returned questionnaires may not be a representative sample of the employees. b. employees tend not to report critical incidents. c. questionnaire studies are too expensive. d. questionnaires cannot be structured to allow employees to express their opinions.

ANSWER: a 58. Analysis of success for employees in the Phillips Rubber Band Company has shown that the successful employees always arrive at work on time, volunteer to help other employees, and always attend the company picnic. The form of job analysis used to arrive at this conclusion was most likely a. checklists. b. attribution theory. c. the critical incident technique. d. the template-matching technique.

ANSWER: d 59. The template-matching technique attempts to match a specific template of behavior to a. job performance. b. test scores. c. personality. d. interest inventories.

ANSWER: c 60. Which factors are associated with the greatest percentage of variation in behavior? a. situations b. persons c. person-situation interactions d. "other" factors and error ANSWER: d

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Chapter 18: Testing in Industrial and Business Settings 61. In the template-matching technique, a. personality test scores are matched to environmental classification scores. b. individuals predict how they will behave in well described situations. c. clusters of traits are obtained through factor analysis to form "templates". d. employers develop templates of the "ideal" employee.

ANSWER: b 62. Ryan was fired last week, but he looked still confident as usual. As opposed to Ryan, Jason looked less confident due to the lay off. This illustrates a a. person-situation interaction. b. trait. c. state. d. personality.

ANSWER: a 63. Person-situation interaction is analogous to a(n)____ in educational psychology. a. aptitude test b. achievement test c. aptitude-treatment interaction d. STM-LTM interaction ANSWER: c 64. Initial impressions in job interviews can have _______ effects on overall evaluations and are often _______. a. strong; accurate b. strong; inaccurate c. weak; accurate d. weak; inaccurate ANSWER: b 65. Which of the following is NOT an assessment provided by the Wonderlic company? a. Knowledge and skills b. Motivational potential c. Integrity d. Job satisfaction ANSWER: d

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Chapter 18: Testing in Industrial and Business Settings 66. Concerns about the validity of the Wonderlic primarily stem from studies showing that the test does not well differentiate people with a. superior intelligence. b. low visual-spatial processing ability. c. high fluid intelligence. d. cognitive impairments.

ANSWER: c 67. Local environments, such as the availability of parks, sidewalks, and public transportation have a big impact on a. cognitive functioning. b. job satisfaction. c. motivation. d. health behaviors.

ANSWER: d 68. All of the following have been associated with workplace depression EXCEPT a. working in isolated environments. b. having little job latitude. c. feeling strain from work. d. being bullied by other employees.

ANSWER: a 69. The Perceived Person—Environment Fit Scale consists of how many subscales? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 ANSWER: c 70. Which of the following is NOT measured by the Perceived Person—Environment Fit Scale? a. Fit between a person and a college major b. Fit between a person and a job c. Fit between a person and their supervisor d. Fit between a person and an organization ANSWER: a

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Chapter 18: Testing in Industrial and Business Settings 71. Which of the following is predicted by the Perceived Person—Environment Fit Scale? a. Citizenship within organizations b. Citizenship within organizations c. Promotion potential d. Productivity ANSWER: b 72. Select a variable of interest that can be evaluated with some sort of test (i.e., medical, psychological, educational, etc.) and discuss the issues involved in determining an acceptable hit and miss rate. What would the base rate and cutting score be? What are the costs associated with false negatives and false positives?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

73. Compare and contrast utility theory and decision theory. How have they been used in I/O settings? What are the particular barriers to application of these theories?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

74. Discuss the use of value-added assessments for teachers. What are the strengths and weaknesses of this approach?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

75. Discuss the importance of fit between person and work environment. How is this construct measured by the Perceived Person—Environment Fit Scale and what factors does this measure predict?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

76. Describe the purpose of the Taylor-Russell tables. List and define the four types of information required to use them.

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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Chapter 19: Test Bias 1. Much of the controversy regarding testing has centered on the finding that on average, the IQ scores of African Americans are a. 15 points above the scores of white Americans. b. 20 points below the scores of white Americans. c. one standard deviation below the scores of white Americans. d. two standard deviations below the scores of white Americans.

ANSWER: c 2. The highest scores on the SAT Reasoning Test math section are obtained by a. white Americans. b. Asian Americans. c. African Americans. d. American Indians.

ANSWER: b 3. The finding that intelligence scores have changed significantly over time for some groups lends support to the argument that a. intelligence is not completely determined by genetics. b. culture does not affect intelligence. c. nature is the most important determinant of IQ. d. socioeconomic status does not affect intelligence.

ANSWER: a 4. A test has adverse impact if it a. decreases an individual's self-esteem. b. systematically rejects higher proportions of minority than non-minority individuals. c. prevents non-minority applicants from being hired. d. is used by an untrained administrator.

ANSWER: b 5. The real dispute about racial differences in intelligence test results is a. whether the results actually exist. b. why better tests have not been developed. c. why the differences exist. d. whether the differences can ever be eliminated.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 19: Test Bias 6. Which of the following makes it difficult to interpret racial differences in test performance? a. Researchers fear they will be accused of being biased. b. Increasing numbers of individuals will not report their race when asked. c. Many individuals are of mixed race and do not know it. d. Racial differences have been eliminated by better test construction.

ANSWER: b 7. Over the last decade, SAT scores have been a. trending upward. b. trending downward. c. fluctuating greatly. d. stagnant.

ANSWER: b 8. On the GRE, men have scored consistently higher on which section? a. critical reading b. writing c. mathematics d. all of the above ANSWER: c 9. African American children significantly outperform white children on which test? a. SAT b. Chitling c. WISC-R d. Binet ANSWER: b 10. Which of the following is true of the Chitling test? a. It is predictive of academic success. b. It shows fewer racial differences in scores than other IQ tests. c. It reflects racially-specific linguistic differences. d. It is predictive of success in one’s home environment.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 19: Test Bias 11. Flaugher (1978) contends that arguments about test bias were based on misunderstandings because test developers a. are sensitive to the opportunities people have to learn information on a test. b. are very concerned about the individual items on a test. c. focus on overall test performance and how it correlates with an external criteria. d. do not focus as much on test performance.

ANSWER: c 12. ____ attempts to identify items that are specifically biased against specific groups. a. Differential item functioning analysis b. Multivariate analysis c. Ethnicity sensitive analysis d. Measurement equivalence ANSWER: a 13. Which of the following is true of job performance measures in relation to race? a. The differences between African Americans and whites are greater for objective than subjective measures. b. The differences between African Americans and whites are greater for subjective than objective measures. c. Because of improved training, the differences in job performance have been almost completely eliminated. d. Racial differences are consistent whether objective or subjective measures of job performance have been used.

ANSWER: a 14. Which of the following is true of biased test items? a. Items believed to be biased rarely are biased. b. Apparently biased test items actually decrease test score differences. c. Elimination of biased items does not eliminate test score differences. d. It is impossible to eliminate bias because every item is, in some way, biased.

ANSWER: c 15. Examination of tests such as the WAIS and WISC-R have found that white males are more often depicted in test items than other groups. What has research shown about such differences? a. No one has established that these differences affect test performance. b. They have a greater impact on females than on males. c. They have a substantial impact on younger children but little impact on adults. d. They account for a large percentage of test score differences.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 19: Test Bias 16. In one study on content bias in elementary reading tests, groups of experts were able to inspect the test and eliminate items that were potentially biased toward the majority group. How did this affect the differences between scores obtained by groups of majority and minority students? a. Differences were eliminated. b. Differences became greater. c. It had little or no effect. d. Minority students scored better than majority students.

ANSWER: c 17. A clear case of test bias is when regression lines describing the relationship between test and criterion for two different groups a. are parallel, but have different intercepts. b. have the same slope and the same intercept. c. have different slopes. d. are based on two different means for the test.

ANSWER: c 18. Exhibit 19-1

Refer to Exhibit 19-1. In the above figure, a test score of 6 is associated with a criterion score of approximately ____ for Group A and ____ for Group B. a. 5; 9 b. 5; 5 c. 6; 6 d. 8; 6 ANSWER: a

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Chapter 19: Test Bias 19. Exhibit 19-1

Refer to Exhibit 19-1. The regression line for the combination of groups A and B in the above figure yields a predicted score of approximately ____ for a test score of 6. a. 4.0 b. 5.5 c. 7.0 d. 8.5 ANSWER: c

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Chapter 19: Test Bias 20. Exhibit 19-1

Refer to Exhibit 19-1. The combined regression line in the figure ____ predicts Group A and ____ predicts Group B. a. accurately; accurately b. accurately; under c. under; over d. over; under ANSWER: d 21. The type of analysis that starts by finding equivalent subgroups of various test takers and then comparing their performance on specific test questions is known as a. criterion testing. b. differential item functioning analysis. c. validity testing. d. reliability.

ANSWER: b 22. The most clear-cut case of test bias is shown when the regression lines for two groups have ____ slopes and ____ intercepts. a. the same; different b. parallel; different c. the same; the same d. different; different ANSWER: d

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Chapter 19: Test Bias 23. Meagan grew up in a small rural town where she was a top student in her school. She was active in the Agricultural Club, but had not had an opportunity to travel, or attend plays, operas, and formal dinners. She did not score well on an intelligence test that asked questions about these types of events. Her low score reflects a. her low intelligence. b. a violation of content validity. c. low fluid intelligence. d. high reliability of the test.

ANSWER: b 24. Attributing low test scores to "ignorance" suggests a. test performance might be improved by enriching the social environment. b. those who do not score well on tests are ignorant and cannot be helped. c. that differences between groups on IQ tests result from genetic factors. d. placement based on low test scores is justified.

ANSWER: a 25. In a California trial, a judge remarked that ignorance and stupidity are two competing explanations for poor test performance. According to the stupidity explanation, poor test performance a. is caused by unstimulating environments. b. represents a deficiency that cannot easily be changed. c. is caused by culturally biased test items. d. is caused by a lack of education.

ANSWER: b 26. The Chitling test a. has only been shown to have face validity. b. is a convincing demonstration of bias in other standardized tests. c. was designed by a racist group to demonstrate minority inferiority in test performance. d. is commonly used in research studies.

ANSWER: a 27. The main type of validity evidence that exists for the Chitling Test is a. predictive validity. b. concurrent validity c. face validity. d. content validity.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 19: Test Bias 28. In a multi-country survey of experts, which of the following lists the cited reasons for international differences in cognitive ability in order of first, second, and third most commonly cited? a. Genetics, education, culture b. Culture, education, genetics c. Education, genetics, culture d. Culture, genetics, education ANSWER: c 29. What did psychologist Carol Dweck identify as a crucial ingredient of intellectual growth of children and young adults? a. mindsets b. reasoning abilities c. cultural awareness d. personality ANSWER: a 30. Williams created the BITCH to test a. the ability to survive in the African American community. b. IQ of African American children. c. the ability of African Americans to survive in white communities. d. the ability of whites to survive in white communities.

ANSWER: a 31. Scores on the BITCH have been shown to be a. higher for white groups than for African American groups. b. higher for African American groups than for white groups. c. equal for African American and white groups. d. comparable to scores on the Stanford-Binet.

ANSWER: b 32. A limitation of the BITCH is a. lack of manualized administration. b. too few items. c. little convincing validity data. d. lack of normative data.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 19: Test Bias 33. Which viewpoint was not considered in the development of the SOMPA? a. the medical model b. the social systems model c. the genetic model d. the pluralistic model ANSWER: c 34. Which component of the SOMPA assumes that different subcultures are associated with different life experiences? a. social-system b. pluralistic c. personal d. systemic ANSWER: b 35. The SOMPA system a. considers each child relative to all other children. b. considers each child relative to others from the same social and cultural group. c. assumes that all individual children should have the same score on a test. d. views each child as independent of all other children.

ANSWER: b 36. The SOMPA system includes a physical examination because a. physical skills are related to intelligence. b. medical problems can interfere with performance on mental measures and school assignments. c. the SOMPA is primarily a physical health evaluation. d. its underlying theory is that intelligence is completely biological.

ANSWER: b 37. Which SOMPA component uses the norms within a particular subgroup for defining deviance? a. pluralistic b. social c. organizational d. communal ANSWER: a

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Chapter 19: Test Bias 38. WISC-R scores are converted into estimated learning potentials (ELPs) on the a. BITCH. b. SOMPA. c. Chitling. d. IPAT Culture Fair Test.

ANSWER: b 39. The SOMPA system uses portions of the a. BITCH. b. Chitling test. c. Stanford-Binet. d. WISC-R. ANSWER: d 40. The assessment technique that best challenges traditional beliefs about testing is the a. BITCH. b. Chitling Test. c. Dove Counterbalance General Intelligence Test. d. SOMPA. ANSWER: d 41. The BITCH may help to assess a. the extent to which an African-American is in touch with his/her community. b. how well someone will survive on the street. c. how well an African-American child will do in school. d. how well an African-American adult will do in a given occupation.

ANSWER: a 42. Which of the following is defined by implicit theories about the determinants of success and failure? a. quotas b. mindsets c. intelligence testing d. estimated learning potentials ANSWER: b

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Chapter 19: Test Bias 43. An estimated learning potential is a. a score on the WISC-R intelligence test. b. an intelligence test score normed against individuals with the same social and cultural background as the testtaker. c. an estimation of a child's potential to learn based on a combination of teacher and parent predictions. d. the estimated ability of a child to learn based on the average performance of siblings.

ANSWER: b 44. Some people might advocate that separate regression lines be used to select people from different groups and that persons should be selected only on the basis of the probability they will succeed on the job. The moral position this represents is a. unqualified individualism. b. qualified individualism. c. relativism. d. quotas.

ANSWER: a 45. Ms. Collins used tests to select the most qualified people she could find to hire. She did not attend to the race or gender of the applicants. Ms. Collins' technique is known as a. employment bias. b. qualified individualism. c. unqualified individualism. d. test bias.

ANSWER: c 46. According to ____, selection procedures are biased if the percentage of applicants admitted to a school is significantly different from the percentage in the population. a. unqualified individualism b. qualified individualism c. the use of quotas d. the EEOC ANSWER: c 47. Which of these ethical positions most explicitly recognizes race and gender differences? a. qualified individualism b. unqualified individualism c. straight regression model d. quotas ANSWER: d

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Chapter 19: Test Bias 48. Dr. X believes that the state-supported law school should accept its first year class with ethnic representation equal to the proportions of the different ethnic groups in the general population. Dr. X believes in a. unqualified individualism. b. quotas. c. qualified individualism. d. reverse discrimination.

ANSWER: b 49. Which of the following approaches leads to the highest expected performance on the criterion? a. regression b. constant ratio c. Cole/Darlington d. quota ANSWER: a 50. One problem with the standardized Medical College Admissions Test is that a. it has not been validated against performance in medical school. b. it has not been evaluated against performance on medical board examinations. c. it has not been successfully evaluated against performance in actual medical practice. d. it is extremely gender biased.

ANSWER: c 51. Which model of test fairness selects more potentially successful people from the lower group? a. Cole-Darlington b. constant ratio c. quota d. regression ANSWER: a 52. The phrase “girls can’t do math” reflects which type of mindset? a. fixed b. biased c. gendered d. growth ANSWER: a

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Chapter 19: Test Bias 53. Although the quota system may adequately represent minority groups, it a. may underrepresent majority groups. b. has to use the same selection procedures for all groups. c. may result in greater failure rates among some groups. d. may not represent the minorities of that particular community.

ANSWER: c 54. A way in which the differences between groups might stimulate new interpretations is a. to view the differences as genetic variations. b. to view them as social handicaps. c. to examine patterns of problem-solving within a subculture. d. allowing the differences to be used by employers when hiring.

ANSWER: c 55. Studies that have examined the correlation between measures of medical school success and success as a physician in practice have shown a. the correlation to be very high. b. only a moderate correlation. c. almost no correlation. d. that successful students make successful doctors.

ANSWER: c 56. Sander's position that students who were accepted in law schools by affirmative action tend to perform worse than other students a. is supported by other researchers. b. is widely accepted by law schools. c. was not well received by legal scholars. d. has mixed by supports and rejections.

ANSWER: c 57. According to Heckman, which of the following is responsible for many major social problems? a. poor literacy skills b. prejudice c. inherent differences d. lack of health care ANSWER: a

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Chapter 19: Test Bias 58. The textbook takes the position that observed differences between minority and non-minority groups might be attributed to a. biased tests. b. biased test administrators and academicians. c. unequal access to adequate education and stimulating experiences. d. inherent differences between the groups.

ANSWER: c 59. The phrase “everyone can succeed if they work really hard” reflects which type of mindset? a. growth b. unqualified individualist c. fixed d. ambitious ANSWER: a 60. Which of the following was a result of the decision by the University of California to reject the SAT-I? a. Fewer qualified students were admitted. b. High schools changed their curricula to include more math and essay writing experiences. c. The College Board suspended their accreditation. d. It became difficult to recruit exceptional students because of questions about the University’s academic quality.

ANSWER: b 61. A fixed mindset is associated with a ________ view of intelligence. a. environmental b. cognitive c. genetic d. cultural ANSWER: c 62. A person with a growth mindset is more likely to a. attribute failures to factors they cannot change. b. seek out challenging tasks. c. redirect their path when they have not succeeded in an area. d. avoid subjects in which they have performed poorly.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 19: Test Bias 63. Which of the following is true about standardized test scores? a. They provide a reasonable indication of whether or not a student should continue pursuing a particular career path. b. They typically do not improve even with time and practice. c. In general, they tend to have high predictive validity. d. They tend to feed into the development of fixed mindsets.

ANSWER: d 64. There is now plenty of evidence that most human abilities a. can be validly assessed through standardized testing. b. are not fixed. c. are genetically determined. d. are immeasurable.

ANSWER: b 65. An intervention to increase growth mindsets among students from economically disadvantaged backgrounds had what effect? a. Increased GPAs b. Increased self-esteem c. Increased the percentage of students who changed majors after their first year d. Decreased test anxiety ANSWER: a 66. Which of the following is a major controversy in K-12 standardized testing addressed by the Bush and Obama administrations? a. The use of standardized tests in schools. b. Teacher training in the administration of standardized tests. c. The number of tests children were mandated to take. d. The accuracy of test scoring procedures.

ANSWER: c 67. Which of the following was a finding of the evaluation study conducted by the Council of the Great City Schools? a. There was a stark decline in the amount of time teachers spent in preparing students for standardized tests. b. The average student took one standardized test per year. c. Many schools had eliminated typical end of year examinations to make time for standardized testing. d. The amount of time spent on testing was completely uncorrelated with performance in math or reading.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 19: Test Bias 68. Which term was coined in the most recent version of Standards For Educational And Psychological Testing to describe different patterns of association between test scores and criterion variables for different demographic groups? a. Unqualified individualism b. Stereotype threat c. Predictive bias d. Criterion-related validity ANSWER: c 69. Standardized tests have been accused of being biased in favor of white, middle-class populations. Using research outlined in the text, take a position, pro or con, and defend it.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

70. What are the underlying assumptions of the SOMPA? What are its components and how are they applied?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

71. Which model of test fairness do you prefer and why?

ANSWER: Answer not provided 72. Should standardized testing be reduced in schools? Defend your stance using data and arguments described in the chapter ANSWER: Answer not provided.

73. Design an intervention to increase growth mindsets in students. What outcomes would you expect from this intervention?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 20: Testing and the Law 1. The amendment that guarantees all citizens due process and equal protection under the law is the ____ Amendment. a. 1st b. 2nd c. 5th d. 15th ANSWER: d 2. Rules that are written by a legislative body at any governmental level are known as a. bills. b. statutes. c. propositions. d. opinions.

ANSWER: b 3. Before a statute becomes a law, it is known as a(n) a. regulation. b. judicial opinion. c. bill. d. order.

ANSWER: c 4. In accordance with the U.S. Constitution, individual states a. cannot pass a law that is inconsistent with the Constitution. b. are provided regulations for their individual cities. c. must define county governments according to constitutional guidelines. d. have complete control over how they regulate interstate commerce.

ANSWER: a 5. ABC Company has received 150 job applicants for a job opening: 100 white applicants, 25 Mexican Americans, and 25 African Americans. They hired 60 of the white applicants. How many of the other two groups do they have to hire in order to abide by the four-fifths rule? a. 12 from each group b. a total of 24 in any combination c. 15 from each group d. a total of 30 in any combination ANSWER: a

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Chapter 20: Testing and the Law 6. The EEOC requires organizations with more than ____ employees to complete an annual form that specifies the number of women and members of four minority groups who are employed in nine job categories within that organization. a. 10 b. 50 c. 100 d. 500 ANSWER: c 7. Decisions forbidding the placement of black children in EMR classes on the basis of standardized test scores are typically made by a. trained psychologists. b. professional educators. c. interested citizens. d. the judicial system.

ANSWER: d 8. Before proposed statutes become law, they are called a. constitutions. b. policies. c. bills. d. rights.

ANSWER: c 9. The 14th Amendment guarantees all citizens a. due process and equal protection under the law. b. freedom of speech. c. freedom of religion. d. the right to privacy.

ANSWER: a 10. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) a. evolved from the Civil Rights Act of 1964. b. evolved from the Equal Employment Act of 1964. c. only has influence in non-governmental agencies. d. was created during the Reagan Administration.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 20: Testing and the Law 11. One of the effects of the 1991 Civil Rights Act was that the burden of proof regarding psychological tests was placed on the a. employer. b. employee. c. test developer. d. ETS. ANSWER: a 12. The New York Truth in Testing Law was the result of an investigation of the a. ETS. b. NYPRIG. c. EEOC. d. APA. ANSWER: a 13. Section 9 of the 1991 Civil Rights Act a. forbids sexual harassment in the workplace. b. provided the four-fifths rule. c. specifically prohibits discriminatory use of test scores. d. explicitly prohibits the use of quotas.

ANSWER: c 14. The Easy Buy corporation uses a test of interpersonal skills to select employees. Experience indicates that 70% of women who score above a cutting score will be hired. Under the four-fifths rule, what percentage of men must be selected? a. 14% b. 30% c. 56% d. 70% ANSWER: c 15. Which of the following is a key component of No Child Left Behind? a. Teachers are required to provide copies of classroom tests for validation studies. b. Tests of student progress are used to assess student progress and hold schools accountable. c. If a school system mounts a legal challenge to NCLB, funding will be automatically withheld. d. School systems across the nation must all use the same measures of student achievement.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 20: Testing and the Law 16. The organization most responsible for getting the Educational Testing Service to revise some of their policies was the a. EEQC. b. FDA. c. SDPD. d. NYPIRG. ANSWER: d 17. In 1996, California passed ____, a measure that made the preferential treatment based on demographic characteristics illegal. a. Initiative 200 b. Proposition 209 c. PL 94-142 d. Proposition 1200 ANSWER: b 18. One of the most interesting issues with the four-fifths rule is that a. most employers find it uninterpretable. b. efforts to recruit minority group members reduce the percentage hired from that group. c. typically less than four-fifths of the applicants for a given job are minorities. d. numerous legal loopholes in the rule result in more discrimination than took place before its adoption.

ANSWER: b 19. According to the EEOC guidelines for criterion validity in statistical relationship, a. no more than one in thirty relationships between selection procedure scores and criterion measures should happen by chance. b. no more than one in twenty relationships between selection procedure scores and criterion measures should happen by chance. c. no more than three in twenty relationships between selection procedure scores and criterion measures should happen by chance. d. no more than one in ten relationships between selection procedure scores and criterion measures should happen by chance.

ANSWER: b 20. In general, NCLB a. improved the educational level in many states. b. improved the educational level in some states. c. did not have strong evidence that educational level was improved. d. did not affect educational system.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 20: Testing and the Law 21. In 1980, the EEOC added specific guidelines on a. physical disabilities. b. sexual harassment. c. educational requirements. d. racial discrimination.

ANSWER: b 22. How many complaints from prospective employees does the EEOC receive in a typical year? a. 20,000 b. 70,000 c. 150,000 d. 250,000 ANSWER: b 23. Which of the following is required by the EEOC for the validation of tests? a. Criterion measures that represent important or critical work behavior(s) b. Norming the test based on EEOC-developed tests c. Establishing that there is a statistically reliable relationship between the to-be-validated test and more established tests d. Identifying and eliminating all biased test items ANSWER: a 24. What standards does the EEOC apply when investigating the fairness of tests? a. American Psychological Association b. American Psychometry Association c. National Testing Corporation d. National Education Association ANSWER: a 25. Which provision of the New York Truth in Testing Law is most controversial? a. Requiring that test makers disclose all validity studies b. Disclosing the method by which scores are calculated, even when proprietary methods are used in the computation. c. Disclosing the meaning of test scores. d. Providing a copy of the test questions, correct answers, and student’s answers when asked by the student to do so ANSWER: d

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Chapter 20: Testing and the Law 26. Why are interstate commerce laws applicable to testing? a. Tests developed and published in one state may be marketed and used in other states. b. Tests used in employment decisions affect individual finances. c. Students may attend colleges located in states other than their home states, so college entrance exams are controlled by interstate commerce laws. d. Testing is a business and thus antitrust laws apply.

ANSWER: a 27. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures a. have been substantially weakened and no longer ban discrimination. b. prohibit discrimination on the basis of gender, race, color, national origin, and religion. c. require that employers ask about gender, race, color, national origin, and religion so the employers can demonstrate they do not discriminate. d. establish a standardized assessment that is to be used in all hiring decisions.

ANSWER: b 28. The United States government has the power to control the use of public dollars. How does this affect testing? a. The government can withhold funding if tests or practices are objectionable. b. Tests measuring educational achievement are given to school districts at no cost by the federal government. c. The government often imposes heavy fines when school systems and others misuse tests. d. Because test development is so expensive, tests are typically only developed when requested by the federal government.

ANSWER: a 29. If prospective employees feel they have been treated unfairly, they can file complaints with the a. EEOC. b. FDA. c. SDPD. d. NYPIRG. ANSWER: a 30. The Truth in Testing Law requires testing companies to a. disclose only the most recent validity studies. b. provide a copy of the students’ answers but none of the questions. c. disclose to students how scores are calculated and what they mean. d. provide index scores to schools without the student's knowledge.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 20: Testing and the Law 31. Which of the following resulted from the Truth in Testing Law? a. decreased costs to ETS b. increased validity c. better comparison between years d. increased costs to consumers ANSWER: d 32. The New York Truth in Testing Law a. applies only to the ETS. b. was written for the ETS but applies to many companies. c. was the result of an investigation into the NYPIRG. d. is a federal regulation.

ANSWER: b 33. Which of the following cases resulted in the decision that employment tests must be reliable and valid? a. Golden Rule Insurance Company v. Washburn b. Griggs v. Duke Power Company c. Hobson v. Hansen d. Connecticut v. Teal ANSWER: b 34. Judge Skelly Wright ruled against classification based on group ability tests in the case of a. Diana v. State Board of Education. b. Hobson v. Hansen. c. Brown v. Board of Education. d. Plessy v. Ferguson.

ANSWER: b 35. The class-action suit, settled out of court, that resulted in non-English speaking students being tested in their primary language was a. Hobson v. Hansen. b. Stell v. Savannah-Chatham County Board of Education. c. Diana v. State Board of Education. d. Larry P. v. Wilson Riles.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 20: Testing and the Law 36. The first major case to examine the validity of psychological tests was a. Plessy v. Ferguson. b. Brown v. Board of Education. c. Hobson v. Hansen. d. Stell v. Savannah-Chatham County Board Of Education.

ANSWER: c 37. As a result of the court ruling in Larry P. v. Wilson Riles, a. schools were forced to provide special classes for non-white children. b. IQ testing was no longer used to place African American children in EMR classes. c. standardized tests could no longer be used with bilingual children. d. all handicapped children were guaranteed services.

ANSWER: b 38. Children labeled EMR a. may gain confidence and self-esteem. b. may behave as though they have cognitive impairments as a self-fulfilling prophecy. c. are probably not incorrectly classified by biased tests d. are not adversely affected by the label, according to research.

ANSWER: b 39. Which of the following cases resulted in a reversal of the ban on IQ testing for African American children? a. Parents in Action on Special Education v. Hannon b. Crawford et al. v. Honig et al. c. Hobson v. Hansen d. Debra P. v. Turlington ANSWER: b 40. The type of test that came under scrutiny in the Debra P. v. Turlington case was a a. standard intelligence test. b. multicultural pluralistic test. c. personnel test. d. minimum competency test.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 20: Testing and the Law 41. Bakke sued the University of California at Davis, Medical School in the early 1970s after he was denied admission a. because he was a minority. b. even though his test scores were higher than minority students who had been admitted. c. because his MCAT scores were insufficient. d. even though he was part of a special affirmative action program ANSWER: b 42. The Bakke case was significant because a. test items had to be selected based on the proportions of correct answers given by white and non-white test takers. b. federal grants could no longer be awarded under special preference programs. c. it signified a change in attitude about affirmative action programs. d. it demonstrated the positive impact of affirmative action programs.

ANSWER: c 43. In ____, the courts found against a law school applicant and in favor of the university policy of using racial or ethnic group as one of several factors in the admissions policy. a. Hobson v. Hansen b. Diana v. State Board of Education c. Grutter v. Bollinger d. Gratz v. Bollinger ANSWER: c 44. In the ____ case, the critical result was that focus shifted from test bias to the ultimate benefit to students and curriculum-based assessments rather than IQ testing. a. Debra P. v. Turlington b. Diana v. State Board of Education c. Marchall v. Georgia d. Crawford et al. v. Honig et al.

ANSWER: c 45. The finding in ____ allowed for the consideration but not the quantification of race in admission procedures. a. Larry P. v. Wilson Riles b. Gratz v. Bollinger c. Hobson v. Hansen d. Grutter v. Bollinger ANSWER: b

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Chapter 20: Testing and the Law 46. The finding in the Stell v. Savannah-Chatham County Board of Education case was overturned based on a. Brown v. Board of Education. b. Plessy v. Ferguson. c. Hobson V. Hansen. d. Diana v. State Board of Education.

ANSWER: a 47. The Hobson v. Hansen case a. contested the use of psychological tests for placement. b. resisted the previous court order to desegregate. c. forced schools to desegregate. d. challenged the use of tests for Asian American children.

ANSWER: a 48. The most significant racist court case began when attorneys for two white children argued that African American children did not have the ability to be in the same classrooms as whites. What was this case? a. Plessy v. Ferguson. b. Brown v. Board of Education. c. Hobson v. Hansen. d. Stell v. Savannah-Chatham County Board of Education.

ANSWER: d 49. In which of the following cases did the court rule that schools could remain "separate but equal"? a. Brown v. Board of Education. b. Plessy v. Ferguson. c. Hobson v. Hansen. d. Diana v. State Board of Education.

ANSWER: b 50. Specific restrictions have been placed on the use of tests for the selection of employees through a series of Supreme Court decisions. The effect of these decisions a. denies that tests are valuable tools in the personnel field. b. denies that the use of tests can continue in the personnel field. c. has been to force employers to define the relationship between test scores and job performance and to define the measure of job performance. d. groups and not specific individuals are protected from biased testing procedures.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 20: Testing and the Law 51. Courtroom decisions over the use of psychological tests a. typically side with the psychological statistician. b. are frequently inconsistent. c. are seldom inconsistent. d. do not have much effect on changing actual laws.

ANSWER: b 52. In the case of Golden Rule Insurance Company v. Washburn, the settlement suggested that a. items for insurance licensing tests should be revised to reduce racial bias. b. items for police academy admissions tests should be revised to reduce racial bias. c. items for firemen selection tests should be revised to reduce racial bias. d. ETS would make an admission of guilt.

ANSWER: a 53. The case of Parents in Action on Special Education v. Hannon reached a conclusion opposite to that of a. Plessy v. Ferguson. b. Hobson v. Hansen. c. Larry P. v. Wilson Riles. d. Stell v. Savannah.

ANSWER: c 54. Supreme Court decisions suggest that employment tests involving height, weight, and physical strength a. must be evaluated using different validity procedures than are psychological tests. b. must be evaluated using the same validity procedures as psychological tests. c. are not subject to evaluation for psychometric properties. d. cannot be used under any circumstances.

ANSWER: b 55. The Crawford v. Honig case a. reaffirmed the Larry P. case. b. lifted the ban on Intelligence Testing for African American children. c. strengthened the ban on intelligence testing for African American Children. d. extended the ban on testing for African American children to Hispanic children.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 20: Testing and the Law 56. In 1992 the University of California Boalt Hall School of Law was investigated because the school a. was accused of discrimination against Caucasians and Asians. b. failed to admit enough African American students. c. failed to admit enough Hispanic students. d. had never set-up an Affirmative Action Policy.

ANSWER: a 57. Perhaps the most influential ruling in the history of American public school education was the decision that schools must provide nonsegregated facilities for African American and white students. This was based on a. Plessy v. Ferguson. b. Brown v. Board of Education. c. Hobson v. Hansen. d. Stell v. Savannah-Chatham County Board Of Education.

ANSWER: b 58. The most significant finding in Brown v. Board of Education was that a. segregation could exist as long as the quality of the schools was equal. b. African American children did not have the ability to be in white schools. c. integration was not in the best interest of the children. d. segregation denied equal protection under the law.

ANSWER: d 59. Although the Supreme Court refused to hear the case, Wards Cove Packing Company v. Antonio was significant because a. it strengthened previous civil rights cases. b. it overturned the Larry P. case. c. it overturned the Crawford case. d. it shifted the burden of proof from employer to employee.

ANSWER: d 60. The major focus of the Americans with Disabilities Act is a. the prevention of selection bias among disabled individuals. b. the removal of physical barriers that may impede the education and employment of disabled individuals. c. the elimination of psychological tests in employment decisions for people with disabilities. d. the education of the public regarding people with disabilities.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 20: Testing and the Law 61. Meredith v. Jefferson County Board of Education was significant because it a. strengthened previous civil rights cases. b. overturned the Larry P. case. c. reversed the tide of racial cases related to education. d. shifted the burden of proof from employer to employee.

ANSWER: c 62. After the state of California responded to a teacher shortage by hiring individuals who had not completed teacher training, a study by the Center for the Future of Teaching and Learning found that a. completion of teacher training has no relationship to student performance. b. the percentage of teachers who had not completed teacher education was higher in predominantly minority schools. c. teachers responded to NCLB by “teaching to the test.” d. lack of teacher training resulted in the development of new and exciting educational methods.

ANSWER: b 63. Which initiative was an attempt to coordinate different federal programs designed to improve performance of students in both primary and secondary schools? a. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission b. Common Core State Standards Initiative c. No Child Left Behind d. Race to the Top ANSWER: c 64. Which of the following was NOT one of the policies enacted by NCLB? a. Schools were required to use a standard national test. b. Funding was withdrawn from poorly performing schools. c. Student information was reported to military recruiters. d. Schools were rewarded for good test grades.

ANSWER: a 65. Under NCLB, the schools most likely to close were a. not using enough tests. b. lacking time to prepare for standardized testing. c. those with the highest needs. d. the most diverse.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 20: Testing and the Law 66. Which of the following practices was the core of the criticism of NCLB? a. The use of standardized testing in schools. b. The number of tests used in schools. c. The use of tests that have shown racial biases. d. The use of test scores as a way of achieving accountability for schools.

ANSWER: d 67. The Common Core State Standards Initiative attempted to define what students should know in which two subjects? a. language arts and mathematics b. mathematics and science c. science and language arts d. social studies and science ANSWER: a 68. Which program replaced No Child Left Behind in 2015? a. Common Core State Standards Initiative b. Every Student Succeeds Act c. Race to the Top d. The Elementary and Secondary Education Act ANSWER: b 69. African American children were disproportionately assigned to EMR classes on the basis of what? a. Course grades. b. Classroom behavior. c. IQ tests. d. Classroom participation.

ANSWER: c 70. Which of the following is the only state with a legal ban on IQ testing of African American children? a. New York b. Illinois c. Washington d. California ANSWER: d 71. Identify and discuss the implications of four United States federal laws that have implications for the use of tests.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 20: Testing and the Law 72. What role, if any, should the courts play in the regulation of psychological tests and why?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

73. In the last 30 years, what are the specific cases that have dealt with affirmative action and what impact have these proceedings had on affirmative action programs?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

74. Describe the Fisher v. University of Texas case and the outcome. What is the “mismatch hypothesis” endorsed by Justice Antonin Scalia and the public response to this perspective?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

75. Describe the main goals and controversies of the No Child Left Behind Act. How were the concerns of this program addressed in subsequent legislation?

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

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Chapter 21: Ethics and the Future of Psychological Testing 1. Two major professional issues in testing are a. ethical and moral issues. b. theoretical concerns and the adequacy of tests. c. social and legal issues. d. actuarial vs. clinical prediction and ethical issues.

ANSWER: b 2. When we say a test has reliability, a. we are implying that test results are attributable to a systematic source of variance. b. the test is presumed to measure some unknown entity. c. the test also has validity. d. there is no limit on the test's validity.

ANSWER: a 3. Most existing tests are presumed to measure a. interactions between the individual and the environment. b. a stable entity. c. overall human functioning. d. adaptability to change.

ANSWER: b 4. A theory consistent with the data concerning the reliability of tests would propose that a. ability and personality are ever-changing. b. ability and personality are not measurable. c. humans possess an ability to adapt to changing circumstances. d. personality is static and enduring.

ANSWER: c 5. According to your text, the real issue in testing is a. how reliable tests are. b. whether tests have predictive validity. c. what tests actually measure. d. how tests are used.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 21: Ethics and the Future of Psychological Testing 6. Studies have indicated that the temporal stability of tests is a. in need of improvement, even for the best tests. b. at acceptable levels, at least for the better tests. c. at acceptable levels for most, if not all, tests. d. has not had an effect on reliability.

ANSWER: a 7. The new technologies of testing would be well served by measuring behavior in the _______ context. a. neurological b. genetic c. social d. political ANSWER: c 8. Behavioral dispositions are a. dysfunctional behaviors. b. stable and lasting traits. c. transient personality states. d. innate.

ANSWER: b 9. The authors of your textbook have suggested that one reason for the relatively poor long-term reliability of personality tests is that a. the tests are not really measuring personality. b. personality is too broad of a construct to adequately measure. c. personality tests are too vague and subjective. d. although people exhibit a core of stability, they continually change.

ANSWER: d 10. Sawyer (1966) and Sines (1970) examined studies in which test results were interpreted by a set of rules and compared them to studies in which trained professionals interpreted the test results. They found that a. the professionals were more accurate than the set of rules. b. the set of rules was more accurate than the trained professionals. c. there was no difference between the set of rules and the professionals. d. the professionals were more accurate, but only when they knew the rules.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 21: Ethics and the Future of Psychological Testing 11. Studies on actuarial vs. clinical prediction by Meehl, Sawyer, and Sines have indicated that a set of rules is a. more accurate than inexperienced professional practitioners. b. about as accurate as trained. c. more accurate than trained professional practitioners only when they don't know the rules. d. more accurate than the interpretations of trained professional practitioners even when they know the rules.

ANSWER: d 12. Which of the following issues is classified by your text as a theoretical concern? a. Whether the systematic sources of variance measured by the test arise from the person or the setting b. Whether the test meets the ethical and legal standards for testing c. Whether the results of the test will be used to unfairly label the test taker d. Whether the test has adequate reliability, validity, and norms ANSWER: a 13. Which of the following is true about how tests are used? a. In the end, it may be determined by law and the threat of litigation. b. There is substantial evidence of the intentional misuse of tests. c. The use of tests has declined sharply in the past 20 years. d. It is very difficult to use tests appropriately.

ANSWER: a 14. Under what circumstances have clinicians been found to provide better prediction than actuarial data? a. None; clinicians are, at best, as good as actuarial data. b. When clinicians consider additional sources of data such as test batteries, interviews or test histories c. When clinicians have more than five years of experience d. When tests involve complex scoring algorithms ANSWER: b 15. A 2011 survey of independent practitioners about their use of technology found that a. considerable cost savings result from the use of technology. b. they were unsure about what uses of computer technology were ethical and which were unethical. c. recent changes in billing regulations forced them to implement technologies they did not understand. d. the use of computer technology is widespread and has greatly increased productivity.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 21: Ethics and the Future of Psychological Testing 16. Under what circumstances is informed consent not required for testing? a. When the individual cannot consent to testing b. When testing is ordered by the courts c. When testing uses a well-established procedure d. When the individual does not want to be tested but the clinician views testing as critical ANSWER: b 17. Which of the following is of particular concern when computers are used to score and interpret the results of complex psychological tests? a. invasion of privacy b. violation of consent c. improper use of standardization d. dehumanization ANSWER: d 18. Which of the following is true of test security? a. Test security takes precedence over individuals’ rights to know, because society has a vested interest in testing. b. Test security cannot be predicted at the expense of an individual’s right to know the basis of adverse decisions. c. The Internet has destroyed the last vestiges of test security. d. Test security is important for achievement and intelligence tests, but not for other types of tests.

ANSWER: b 19. Which of the following is a responsibility of potential test takers? a. Knowing and demanding their rights b. Understanding the validity of tests c. Selecting which tests to take d. Relinquishing their privacy rights ANSWER: a 20. The most recent psychological tests are based in a. technology. b. cognitive theories. c. rigorous validation studies. d. the predictions of trained professionals.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 21: Ethics and the Future of Psychological Testing 21. While many individual and group tests have generally adequate reliability, just about any test could benefit from a. better validity documentation. b. a larger standardization sample. c. more representative norms. d. simplified scoring techniques.

ANSWER: a 22. According to the ethical code of the APA (2002), test results a. can never be shared with anyone except the examinee. b. should never be shared with the examinee. c. can be subpoenaed and, therefore, are not always confidential. d. should only be shared with the individual and his/her family.

ANSWER: c 23. According to the APA guidelines, Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct, a. a clinician is responsible for the appropriateness of an analysis even if a computer supplied the interpretation. b. software companies that supply computerized diagnosis are responsible for the content of the interpretation. c. clinicians and software companies are equally responsible for the diagnosis provided by a computer program. d. clinicians are not responsible for the content of a computerized diagnosis.

ANSWER: a 24. Test takers a. have the right to know who will have access to their test data. b. do not have to be informed if a test has a selection bias. c. need not be informed about test interpretations and scores if it will pose a threat to the security of the test. d. have no privacy risks when transmitting data over the Internet.

ANSWER: a 25. The use of labels that rely on the medical model a. encourages people to seek medical treatment. b. may keep people from taking responsibility for their life. c. gives people the impression that medication will cure any condition. d. implies that the individual is to blame for becoming ill.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 21: Ethics and the Future of Psychological Testing 26. When testing is necessary in order to determine pathology, a. projective tests such as the Rorschach should be used. b. it is better to over assess than under assess the pathology. c. tests that overpathologize, like the Rorschach, should be avoided. d. labels will only help to define the problem.

ANSWER: c 27. The more accurate a test, the more ________ the results should be. a. complex b. generalizable c. stable d. unbiased ANSWER: c 28. An investigation of tests by the Senate Subcommittee on Constitutional Rights and the House Subcommittee on Invasion of Privacy found a. evidence of deliberate misuse of tests. b. evidence of widespread but not deliberate misuse of tests. c. no evidence of widespread or deliberate use of tests. d. evidence of both widespread and deliberate misuse of tests.

ANSWER: c 29. Jackson and Messick have argued that it has not been possible to formulate a coherent set of ethical principles that govern all legitimate uses of testing. This is because of a. invasion of privacy. b. human rights. c. divided loyalties. d. moral issues.

ANSWER: c 30. In order to resolve the conflict of divided loyalties, a psychologist must a. inform all concerned parties where his/her loyalty lies. b. protect the rights of the client only. c. provide all information obtained to all parties. d. protect the rights of the institution only.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 21: Ethics and the Future of Psychological Testing 31. The APA provides an exception to confidentiality guidelines when a. the client's spouse needs to access the information. b. withholding information causes danger to the person or society. c. the psychologist needs the information for research. d. the information would make a difference to a potential employer.

ANSWER: b 32. At the present time, psychologists a. must tell clients in advance how tests will be used and describe the limits of confidentiality. b. are not ethically bound to tell clients where their loyalty lies. c. must provide full disclosure to the institution that ordered the testing. d. are bound to maintain test security even if it violates the person's right to know.

ANSWER: a 33. The 2002 version of the APA Code of Ethics directs psychologists who administer tests to a. utilize tests that are written in English. b. interpret results in a standardized, objective fashion. c. use instruments with established validity and reliability for use with members of the population being tested. d. use instruments that have validity and reliability in studies using representative samples of the general population.

ANSWER: c 34. Access to psychological testing is limited by a. the age of the individual seeking the service. b. financial considerations. c. time constraints on the test administrator. d. the lack of available tests.

ANSWER: b 35. Current standards for test use state that the test developer(s) must provide sufficient information to permit appropriate use of the test. Which of the following does not have to be included in this information? a. guidelines for administration and scoring b. information regarding item construction c. validity data d. reliability data ANSWER: b

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Chapter 21: Ethics and the Future of Psychological Testing 36. The question, "Is the test any good as a measure of the characteristics it purports to measure?," is a. a psychometric question. b. based on ethical and social values. c. a moral issue. d. a legal issue.

ANSWER: a 37. The question, "Should this test be used for this purpose?," a. is a technical question. b. is based on ethical and social issues. c. depends on research data. d. is a legal issue.

ANSWER: b 38. Dehumanization is presented in the text as a a. professional issue. b. social issue. c. technical issue. d. legal issue.

ANSWER: b 39. The question of who will have access to psychological testing services is presented in the text as a(n) a. legal issue. b. economic issue. c. social issue. d. issue of human rights.

ANSWER: c 40. One recent trend in testing has been that a. fewer and fewer new tests are being published each year. b. hundreds of new tests are being published each year. c. the public has had less and less influence on the testing field. d. objectivity is being greatly reduced in test scoring to increase flexibility.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 21: Ethics and the Future of Psychological Testing 41. Some of the impetus in the development of new tests comes from a. disagreements between professionals about the best way to measure characteristics. b. so few tests making a profit that test makers need multiple tests to survive. c. agreements between professionals about the best way to measure characteristics. d. the fact that so much grant money is available for people to develop new tests.

ANSWER: a 42. According to your textbook, the majority of new tests are based on a. theories that are fundamentally different from those in traditional tests. b. the same principles and underlying theories as the more established tests. c. the scientific approach of psychological testing. d. behavioral psychology.

ANSWER: b 43. One trend in test development is a. to design tests that are more theoretical. b. that the cost of tests is going down. c. to integrate aspects of applied psychology. d. designing tests that have good face validity.

ANSWER: c 44. Emphasis has been placed on ____ in the push for higher standards in testing. a. reducing the use of computers b. greater objectivity in test interpretation c. less objectivity in test interpretation d. greater subjectivity in test interpretations ANSWER: b 45. An important contribution of the Joint Committee on Testing Practices is a. identifying specific tests that should be used in specific situations. b. delineating the qualifications of test users. c. establishing requirements for testing reimbursement. d. requesting a moratorium on test development so standards could be developed.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 21: Ethics and the Future of Psychological Testing 46. In terms of increasing test standards, computers have a. aided progress by enabling advanced statistical analysis of test information. b. failed to help because they cause an increase in analytical errors. c. had little or no impact on the way data is analyzed. d. caused more problems than they have solved.

ANSWER: a 47. The result of greater public awareness about testing is a. complete public support for testing. b. a reduction of the safeguards in relationship to human rights. c. that the public is ambivalent about psychological testing. d. a reduced demand for testing services.

ANSWER: c 48. The future of the Rorschach and TAT a. is uncertain. b. is increased respectability. c. will not be bright. d. will be bright.

ANSWER: a 49. In psychological testing, computers will a. play a somewhat uncertain role. b. be as useful as at present. c. hold one of the most important roles. d. not be as important.

ANSWER: c 50. According to the text, one safe prediction for testing is that a. According to the text, one safe prediction for testing is that b. increasingly narrow and specific tests will be used. c. future prospects for testing are grim. d. future prospects for testing are promising.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 21: Ethics and the Future of Psychological Testing 51. Which of the following is a fundamental assumption of tests yet is unfounded? a. Test results are valid and can be interpreted independently of environmental and subject variables during testing. b. Test users are objective and typically make accurate clinical predictions. c. Computer administration of tests decreases bias and thus increases validity. d. Human characteristics are stable and can be measured independently of the environment.

ANSWER: d 52. Changes in personality can typically be attributed to a. biological changes as people age. b. adaptation to new environments. c. education. d. family socialization.

ANSWER: b 53. How often do test users typically receive feedback on the accuracy of their predictions and decisions based on tests? a. Frequently when in clinical settings b. Typically only when audited or challenged in court c. Always; it is required by APA for all testing d. Rarely, if ever ANSWER: d 54. Which of the following is the approach in which test results are interpreted by using a set of rules? a. Clinical b. Statistical c. Actuarial d. Psychometric ANSWER: c 55. Which of the following is the approach in which trained professionals interpret test results? a. Clinical b. Statistical c. Actuarial d. Psychometric ANSWER: a

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Chapter 21: Ethics and the Future of Psychological Testing 56. The issue of actuarial versus clinical prediction has recently reemerged due to what advancement in testing? a. Increases in validation studies b. Norming on diverse groups c. Legal mandates for educational testing d. Computerization of test interpretation ANSWER: d 57. Labeling a person as mentally ill tends to have what effect? a. Decreases stigmatization b. Facilitates treatment c. Lowers tolerance for stress d. Motivates individuals to take control of their outcomes ANSWER: c 58. The issue of divided loyalties in psychological testing refers to loyalties to which two entities? a. The test taker and the institution that ordered the test b. The test taker and the test user c. The test user and the institution that ordered the test d. The institution that ordered the test and the test developer ANSWER: a 59. A basic assumption of most tests is that the traits being measured are stable. Some researchers have challenged this assumption. Discuss the issues regarding this challenge and outline how they have been dealt with.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

60. Discuss both the positive and negative aspects of labeling.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 61. Identify and discuss the implications of three human rights issues that arise in testing.

ANSWER: Answer not provided.

62. Describe the responsibilities of test users outlined by APA guidelines.

ANSWER: Answer not provided 63. Discuss how testing has improved over time and what issues remain to be adequately addressed.

ANSWER: Answer not provided

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