TEST BANK forDiscovering Behavioral Neuroscience, An Introduction to Biological Psychology 5th Editi

Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience?

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Biological psychology can be defined as the branch of psychology that studies the biological foundations of behavior, emotions, and mental processes. a. True b. False 2. Santiago Ramón y Cajal is best known for demonstrating that neurons generate electrical signals. a. True b. False 3. The pathways of the brain can be studied using either myelin stains or horseradish peroxidase. a. True b. False 4. Questions about the activity of the brain can be investigated using positron emission tomography (PET) and functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). a. True b. False 5. Electroencephalograms (EEGs) were first developed and used by Raymond Damadian in Germany in 1924. a. True b. False 6. Repeated transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) can be used to help treat those who suffer from auditory hallucinations associated with schizophrenia. a. True b. False 7. Microdialysis can be used to assess the chemicals present in a very small area of the brain. a. True b. False 8. If the concordance rate for a psychological disorder is 60 percent, this means that genetics determine 60 percent of a person’s risk and the environment contributes the other 40 percent. a. True b. False 9. Stimulation of the brain using optogenetics is more precise than stimulation through surgically implanted electrodes. a. True b. False 10. Federal guidelines for using human participants in research apply to all organizations and individuals receiving federal funding. a. True b. False

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience?

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11. The fields of behavioral neuroscience and biological psychology a. are unrelated to one another. b. focus on different areas of the brain. c. differ in the complexity of their respective levels of investigation. d. are two different names for the same area of study.

12. Students planning to become mental health practitioners should learn about the biological basis of brain function so they will be able to a. relate every psychological disorder to its source in the nervous system. b. cope with major health and well-being challenges facing contemporary global populations. c. prescribe appropriate medications for all clients. d. understand all of neuroscience as a foundation for understanding clients.

13. You are a licensed clinical counselor. A 35-year-old woman comes to you who has always been very optimistic and cheerful but suddenly is extremely depressed. There has been no change in her life circumstances, and she is aware of nothing that could be causing this depression. Given what you have learned so far, what is the first thing you might suggest to her? a. She should see her doctor and perhaps even a neurologist to rule out any underlying physical problem. b. She probably has some deep underlying resentment of her parents that she needs to recognize before she can get better. c. The whole family should come in for therapy, as there is obviously something going on that is not obvious. d. She should see a psychiatrist and get medication for the depression first and foremost; then talk therapy will probably help her.

14. Trepanation is a(n) a. ancient practice of drilling holes in a person’s skull. b. type of mummification. c. postmortem ritual. d. technique involving the analysis of the bumps on the skull.

15. Scholars from what fourth century BCE civilization were the first to identify the brain as the source of sensation? a. the Egyptians b. the Greeks c. the Romans d. the Chinese 16. The process of trepanation a. always killed the patient. b. may have been done to release demons or relieve pressure. c. appears to have been performed after a person died. d. was first used during the sixteenth century in Europe.

17. The Egyptian author of the Edwin Smith Surgical Papyrus understood that Powered by Cognero

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience? a. paralysis and lack of sensation in the body resulted from nervous system damage. b. the brain is the source of every documented type of intelligence. c. functions can be localized in the brain and the spinal cord, both of which comprise the central nervous system. d. the brain is made up of trillions of separate cells.

18. The Egyptian author of the Edwin Smith Surgical Papyrus understood that a. the ventricles are not the source of behavior. b. epilepsy is a brain disturbance. c. most nervous system damage is relatively permanent. d. information about sensation and movement is carried by separate nerves.

19. Which of the following provide(s) evidence for early, accurate understanding of the function of the human brain? a. phrenology b. Egyptian mummification c. the Edwin Smith Surgical Papyrus and the writings of Hippocrates d. trepanation and the writings of Aristotle 20. Who correctly identified epilepsy as originating in the brain? a. Galen b. Aristotle c. Herophilus d. Hippocrates 21. Which of the following thinkers believed that the ventricles played an important role in transmitting information to and from the brain? a. Aristotle b. Galen c. Magendie d. Herophilus 22. What mistaken notion about the nervous system persisted from ancient times up through the work of some Renaissance thinkers? a. The ventricles play a major role in the transmission of messages in the brain. b. The heart is the organ of intellect. c. Damage to the brain is easily repaired. d. The muscular tremors that characterize epilepsy do not originate in the brain.

23. Monism is the philosophical view that considers a. the mind to be the product of activity in the brain. b. mind and body to be separate entities. c. the senses to be the source of knowledge. d. reality to exist when it enters the thoughts of an observer.

24. Which one of the following conclusions regarding animal experimentation was implied by Rene Descartes’s theory of mind–body dualism?

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience? a. Much could be learned from animal experimentation, as both humans and animals had minds. b. Animal experimentation was acceptable, as only humans possessed “minds.” c. Animal experimentation had to be avoided out of respect for the animal “mind.” d. Ethical guidelines for the use of animals in research were necessary because of the recognition of animal “minds.”

25. Rene Descartes was a dualist, believing the mind and body are separate entities. Which of the following statements reflects this belief? a. The mind is the product of neural activity. b. The mind exists in both human and nonhuman animals. c. The mind forms an indivisible whole with the body. d. The mind is not a physical entity that can be studied.

26. Descartes’s mind–body dualism is defined as the philosophical view that assumes a. the mind gives rise to neural activity. b. mind and body are separate entities. c. reality exists only when perceived by an observer. d. the five senses are the source of all knowledge.

27. Your roommate’s personality has changed a great deal since an accident injured her prefrontal cortex. This fact supports what view of the mind–body connection? a. phrenologistic b. monistic c. socialization d. dualistic 28. Anton van Leeuwenhoek advanced brain science by a. demonstrating that neurons communicate via electricity. b. demonstrating that sensory and motor information travel along separate pathways. c. inventing the light microscope. d. proposing the Neuron Doctrine.

29. Who demonstrated that communication in the nervous system is electrical? a. Descartes b. Galvani and du Bois-Reymond c. Golgi and Cajal d. van Leeuwenhoek 30. The Neuron Doctrine asserts that a. neurons use electricity to communicate. b. language is localized to the left hemisphere. c. separate pathways are used for processing sensory and motor information. d. the nervous system is a collection of separate cells.

31. The Neuron Doctrine was proposed by Powered by Cognero

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience? a. Descartes. b. Bell and Magendie. c. Camillo Golgi. d. Santiago Ramón y Cajal.

32. In 1906, Italian researcher Camillo Golgi and Spanish anatomist Santiago Ramón y Cajal shared a Nobel prize for their work on the human nervous system. Which of the following statements about their work is true? a. They did their research separately but came to the same conclusion. b. They had opposing views on the structure of the nervous system. c. They did their research together but came to different conclusions. d. They each resented having to share the Nobel prize with someone else.

33. We know today that Santiago Ramón y Cajal’s Neuron Doctrine is accurate, but what theory competed with the Neuron Doctrine as recently as the early 1900s? a. the Bell–Magendie law b. Camillo Golgi’s view of the nervous system as an interconnected network c. Luigi Galvani’s proposal that nerves communicate using electricity d. phrenology 34. Gall and Spurzheim, who proposed phrenology theory, eventually realized they were wrong and proposed a

more modern theory. What theory replaced phrenology for these two researchers? a. The brain is the organ of the mind. b. The mind is the organ of the brain. c. The mind and the brain are organs of each other. d. The mind and the brain are unrelated and exist independently of one another.

35. Gall and Spurzheim were responsible for a. the Neuron Doctrine. b. establishing the electrical nature of neural communication. c. demonstrating that sensory and motor information use separate pathways. d. proposing the “science” of phrenology.

36. Although phrenology is mostly wrong, what did phrenologists get right about the nervous system? a. The ventricles play a major role in the transmission of messages in the brain. b. Sensation and movement have separate pathways. c. Neurons communicate using electrical signals. d. Some functions can be localized in the brain.

37. You feel a mosquito on your thigh faster than you feel one on the bottom of your foot. Why? a. You are instinctively more protective of your thigh than of the bottom of your foot. b. You can see your thigh but not the bottom of your foot. c. The signal from your foot has to travel further to reach the brain. d. Your thigh is more sensitive than the bottom of your foot.

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience?

38. The localization of language functions in the brain was observed by a. Paul Broca. b. Santiago Ramón y Cajal. c. Fritsch and Hitzig. d. Camillo Golgi.

39. Experiments in which the cortices of rabbits and dogs were stimulated electrically demonstrated that a. cortical inhibition can cause an individual to initiate a fight. b. the nervous system has a hierarchical organization. c. each side of the brain controls the opposite side of the body. d. rabbits and dogs have minds.

40. The work of which researcher(s) provided further evidence for the localization of some functions in the brain? a. LeDoux b. Descartes c. Fritsch and Hitzig d. Bell and Magendie 41. Dr. Jones argues that higher levels of the brain inhibit aggressive impulses originating in lower levels of the brain. It is likely that her thinking has been influenced by the work of a. Santiago Ramón y Cajal. b. John Hughlings Jackson. c. Franz Josef Gall. d. Luigi Galvani.

42. John Hughlings Jackson is best known for a. demonstrating the localization of language in the brain. b. the Neuron Doctrine. c. mind–body dualism. d. viewing the nervous system as a hierarchy.

43. Charles Sherrington coined the term synapse, which refers to a. the separation of brain and mind. b. localization of activity within the brain. c. the hierarchical construction of the nervous system. d. the point of communication between two neurons.

44. “Fixing” brain tissue to be viewed refers to a. slicing tissue into thin slices. b. preserving the tissue by freezing or by the use of formalin. c. mounting tissue on slides. d. deciding which tissue to observe.

45. The existence of chemical signaling at the synapse was first demonstrated by Powered by Cognero

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience? a. Charles Sherrington. b. Santiago Ramón y Cajal. c. John Hughlings Jackson. d. Otto Loewi.

46. Your physician tells you that a medical procedure you need is non-invasive. What does that term tell you about the procedure? a. It could be fatal. b. It will do significant harm to your body. c. It will do minimal harm to your body. d. It will do no harm to your body.

47. The modern technique of electron microscopy can display images at between 1 and 100 nanometers. A

nanometer is one billionth of a meter. That means these methods are about how many times more powerful than the naked eye? a. one hundred b. one thousand c. one million d. ten million 48. If you want to observe a small number of cells in detail, it would be best to use the a. Golgi silver stain. b. Nissl stain. c. myelin stain. d. horseradish peroxidase stain.

49. If you want to identify clusters of cell bodies in a sample of tissue, it would be best to use the a. Golgi silver stain. b. Nissl stain. c. myelin stain. d. horseradish peroxidase stain.

50. To follow the pathways carrying information from one part of the brain to another, it would be best to use the a. Golgi silver stain. b. Nissl stain. c. myelin stain. d. antibody stain.

51. In the process known as immunohistochemistry, particular proteins in cells can be identified using a. the Golgi silver stain. b. the Nissl stain. c. horseradish peroxidase. d. antibodies.

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience?

52. If you want to locate a pathway’s point of origin, you should use a. the Golgi silver stain. b. the Nissl stain. c. the myelin stain. d. horseradish peroxidase.

53. A researcher is interested in discovering if one part of the brain, the orbitofrontal cortex, connects directly to another part of the brain, the amygdala. Which of the following experimental methods would be the most appropriate for this purpose? a. Inject horseradish peroxidase into a rat’s amygdala and then see if cells in the orbitofrontal cortex are stained. b. Inject a human volunteer with a radioactive glucose and see what part of his brain is active while viewing an emotionally charged set of pictures using a PET scan. c. Look at a human brain with fMRI to see if the orbitofrontal cortex and amygdala are active at the same times. d. Stimulate the orbitofrontal cortex of a human volunteer during neurosurgery.

54. Electron microscopes are capable of magnifications up to how many times? a. 1,000 b. 100,000 c. 1 million d. 10 million 55. What is the main problem with the earlier microscopy methods described in this chapter? a. They cannot be used on living organisms. b. They can resolve images only at the level of the nanoscopic scale. c. They cannot magnify an image more than 100 times. d. They always blur enlarged images.

56. T Synapses may be viewed using a. optogenetics. b. a light or electron microscope. c. the naked eye. d. a PET scanner.

57. What imaging process, commonly considered the “gold standard” imaging method, has been criticized for its high cost and low reproducibility? a. CT b. PET c. MRI d. fMRI 58. If you were told you needed a CT scan, what would be a reasonable concern? a. the exceptionally high cost b. amount of time needed to complete the process c. exposure to x-rays d. use of the oldest brain imaging technology Powered by Cognero

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience?

59. CT technology provided the first high-resolution look at a. the process of neuronal communication. b. parts of the brain smaller than a synapse. c. the living brain. d. activity in the brain.

60. What did positron emission tomography (PET) scans reveal for the first time? a. brain activity b. brain structure c. brain structures smaller than a synapse d. the point of origin of a brain pathway 61. PET scans a. expose the participant to x-rays. b. expose the participant to strong magnets. c. utilize detectors of radioactive tracers. d. require the participant to wear a head device containing sensors.

62. Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) is an imaging procedure closely related to PET. How does it differ from PET? a. It takes less time. b. It uses more radiation. c. It is more expensive. d. It provides less detail.

63. If a researcher wanted to learn as much as possible about the structure and function of the human brain, what imaging procedure should they use? a. MRI b. fMRI c. CT d. PET 64. How does magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) make use of the fact that different types of brain tissue consist of different components? a. The same components behave differently when exposed to greater or lesser amounts of magnetism. b. It takes more pictures of components containing protein and carbohydrates. c. Different components behave differently when exposed to MRI. d. It ignores components not made of certain types of brain tissue.

65. Which one of these statements important to magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is true? a. Nerve fibers (“white matter”) are covered by salt water. b. Tissue made up of nerve cell bodies (“gray matter”) contains large amounts of protein and carbohydrates. c. The material surrounding brain cells contains a large amount of fat. d. All brain tissue contains protein and carbohydrates, water, and fat.

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience?

66. In MRI technology, each small area being observed in the brain is assigned a voxel. What is a voxel? a. a three-dimensional image of all the pixels in the area b. a two-dimensional image of all the pixels in the area c. a three-dimensional image of a single pixel d. a two-dimensional image of a single pixel 67. Which statement describes the Blood Oxygenation Level Dependent (BOLD) effect in fMRI imaging? a. Blood flow in the brain is increased or decreased depending on the level of oxygen in the blood. b. The injection of radioactive substances into the participant causes oxygen levels to increase throughout the brain. c. Voxels show no changes in activity connected to movement and stimulation, even though firing

neurons require more oxygen. d. Signals from a voxel change in relation to the level of oxygen in the area.

68. In MRI technologies, the term voxel refers to a. the rate at which atoms spin. b. the strength of the magnets used. c. a small area of tissue assigned a 3D version of a pixel. d. a gamma ray released during the breakdown of a radioactive tracer.

69. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) takes advantage of the fact that compared with less active neurons, more active neurons require greater amounts of a. hydrogen. b. oxygen. c. gamma radiation. d. magnetism.

70. Which of the following contemporary technologies was previewed by and impressed nineteenth century psychologist William James? a. PET b. CT c. electroencephalography (EEG) d. fMRI 71. Hemoglobin’s magnetic properties change when it is a. combined with oxygen. b. combined with glucose. c. bombarded with gamma rays. d. exposed to x-rays.

72. The BOLD effect is important in which of the following technologies? a. PET b. CT c. electroencephalography (EEG) Powered by Cognero

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience? d. fMRI 73. Compared with PET scans, fMRI provides a. more information about brain activity. b. better structural resolution. c. fewer side effects. d. more economical imaging.

74. Although his ability to speak is otherwise normal, a patient suffering from a stroke is having difficulty naming common everyday objects, such as tools. In order to determine which part of the brain is functioning abnormally, his doctor may use which of the following techniques? a. Inject the patient with horseradish peroxidase. b. Do a CT scan on the brain. c. Do an fMRI scan. d. Stimulate the patient’s brain during neurosurgery.

75. Social psychologist Naomi Eisenberger and her colleagues are interested in whether or not brain activity correlates with feelings of social rejection. If you were advising Dr. Eisenberger, which technology would you recommend for her study? a. MRI b. CT c. electroencephalography (EEG) d. fMRI 76. The first EEG recordings were made by a. Phelps and Hoffman. b. Wilhelm Röntgen. c. Hans Berger. d. Hounsfield and Cormack.

77. Traditionally, electroencephalography (EEG) is most commonly used to study a. emotion. b. psychopathology. c. states of consciousness and epilepsy. d. learning and memory.

78. What does the recording of event-related potentials (ERPs) allow researchers to do? a. identify the neurochemicals active in particular parts of the brain b. generate high resolution images of brain structures c. correlate the timing of cortical neuron activity with stimuli presented to the participant d. track the utilization of glucose and oxygen by the brain 79. What technique was used to identify mirror neurons (neurons that fire in response to viewing an action

performed by someone else, such as the experimenter or even a monkey)? a. PET Powered by Cognero

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience? b. single-cell recording c. electroencephalography (EEG) d. ERPs 80. Researchers now know that even minimal exposure to alcohol in the womb can negatively impact the neural networks of a child. What procedure provided this information? a. PET b. diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) c. fMRI d. repeated rTMS 81. Jeremy’s physician suspects that he might have epilepsy. Which of the following technologies would be helpful in making a diagnosis? a. PET b. CT c. EEG brain tomography d. fMRI 82. What is the advantage of recording the brain’s magnetism rather than its electrical activity? a. Recording magnetism costs less than recording electrical activity. b. Recording electrical activity is a lengthy procedure, and recording magnetism is not. c. Skull bones and tissues do not reduce magnetism as it passes through. d. Magnetism produces more information than electrical activity does.

83. What exactly is recorded in studies of brain magnetism (magnetoencephalography) ? a. the magnetic fields of active neurons b. the magnetic field of the cerebral cortex c. magnetic particles deep within the brain’s tissue d. the magnetic field of the entire brain 84. Dr. Scheinhorn is interested in studying the magnetic activity involved in speech sounds. What recording device would you recommend to him? a. MEG b. PET c. CT d. fMRI 85. MEG involves the recording of a. the magnetic output only at the shallowest levels of the brain. b. electrical activity from the brain during surgery. c. the magnetic output of nerve cells. d. electrical activity from the brain through electrodes placed on the scalp.

86. The skull bones and other tissues separating the brain from electrodes can create a problem for recording because they block Powered by Cognero

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience? a. the brain’s electrical output more than its magnetic output. b. the brain’s magnetic output more than its electrical output. c. the brain’s magnetic and electrical output equally. d. neither the brain’s electrical nor its magnetic output.

87. MEG recordings may be taken a. at the same rate as PET and fMRI scans. b. faster than PET, but more slowly than fMRI scans. c. faster than fMRI, but more slowly than PET scans. d. faster than both PET and fMRI scans.

88. Why is MEG more useful than fMRI for studying participants’ responses to sounds? a. MEG equipment is much cheaper and easier to use than fMRI equipment. b. The magnets used in fMRI are noisy, blocking a patient’s ability to sense quiet sounds. c. MEG recordings of brain activity must be taken more slowly than fMRI images, allowing a more accurate assessment of brain activity. d. MEG recordings expose the patient to x-rays.

89. Researchers superimpose MEG recordings on three-dimensional MRI images because MEG recordings a. do not provide any anatomical data. b. have no meaning by themselves. c. provide only vague anatomical images. d. are needed to enhance MRI. 90. Superconducting quantum interference device (SQUID) sensors are used in a. PET scans. b. fMRI. c. MEG. d. EEG. 91. MEG results are usually superimposed on images obtained by a. CT scans. b. PET scans. c. MRI. d. EEG. 92. What improvement in MEG will likely contribute to our understanding of brain correlates of behavior? a. the ability to assess activity of single neurons b. the production of three-dimensional images c. the development of a mobile recording device d. the ability to record anatomical data 93. Which technology requires the surgical placement of a microelectrode outside of a cell? a. EEG Powered by Cognero

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience? b. MRI c. intracellular recordings d. single-cell recordings 94. In a single-cell recording, electrode tips a. contained in SQUIDs must be positioned over the area of interest. b. must be positioned on the surface of the skull bones. c. must be surgically implanted. d. must be arrayed on the surface of the scalp.

95. The purpose of stimulation research is to a. identify stimuli that activate a particular part of the brain. b. identify the function of a specific part of the brain. c. observe individual ion channels in the membranes of neurons. d. observe the activity of a particular part of the brain.

96. It is necessary to exercise caution in interpreting the results of brain stimulation research because a. different researchers may have different interpretations. b. the participant may not report reactions honestly. c. stimulation of one part of the brain can affect the areas to which it is connected. d. brain stimulation is a relatively new field and we know little about it.

97. Why is it common practice to conduct neurosurgery under local anesthesia instead of general anesthesia? a. The brain itself has no pain reception, and it is useful for the neurosurgeon to be able to converse with a patient during a procedure. b. General anesthesia has inherent risks not present with local anesthesia and should be avoided when possible. c. The person undergoing a neurosurgical procedure may have serious anxiety and need to be able to converse with the surgeon during the procedure. d. General anesthesia does not last as long as local anesthesia, so it is not suitable for lengthy procedures.

98. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has approved the use of repeated transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) for a. obsessive-compulsive disorder and major depressive disorder. b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder and autism. c. autism and schizophrenia. d. major depressive disorder and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.

99. Eduardo has a serious addiction to nicotine. He has tried various programs and treatments, but he has been unable to stop smoking. Eduardo’s physician might try which of the following treatments in order to provide him with relief from these troubling symptoms? a. low frequency rTMS b. lesions of the auditory cortex c. electrical stimulation of the auditory cortex d. gene therapy Powered by Cognero

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience?

100. What brain stimulation method has proven to be disappointing in efforts to improve cognitive function? a. MEG b. rTMS c. fMRI d. EEG 101. The genetic insertion of molecules into specific neurons that allows the activity of the neurons to be controlled by light is called a. optogenetics. b. epigenetics. c. dialectical genome manipulation. d. MEG. 102. The analysis of lesions allows researchers to a. identify stimuli that activate a particular part of the brain. b. identify the probable function of a specific brain area. c. observe individual ion channels in the membranes of neurons. d. observe the activity of a particular part of the brain.

103. Naturally occurring lesions identified after an autopsy were interpreted by a. Paul Broca. b. Simon LeVay. c. Hounsfield and Cormack. d. Fritsch and Hitzig.

104. Small lesions can be produced by applying neurotoxins, which are chemicals that a. strengthen neurons. b. kill neurons. c. cause neurons to shrink. d. slightly injure neurons.

105. Animals will gain up to two to three times their normal weight when the a. lateral hypothalamus is lesioned. b. lateral hypothalamus is stimulated. c. ventromedial hypothalamus is lesioned. d. ventromedial hypothalamus is stimulated.

106.106.

The purpose of conducting research using the technique illustrated in this figure is to a. discover the boundaries of the target area of the brain.

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience? b. identify the chemicals present in the target area of the brain. c. identify the function of the target area of the brain. d. discover the connections to and from the target area of the brain.

107. When a large area of brain is surgically removed, we might refer to the result as a(n) a. magnetoencephalogram. b. microdialysis analysis. c. lesion. d. ablation.

108. What do both heat-produced and chemically produced lesions result in? a. altered states of consciousness b. sensations of heat or cold in the brain c. permanent damage to the brain d. temporary damage to the brain 109. Reversible lesions are produced by applying a. heat. b. cold. c. chemicals. d. heat or cold.

110. Both lesions and electrical brain stimulation allow scientists to a. observe the activity of a particular part of the brain. b. observe the biochemical environment in a particular area of the brain. c. observe the functions of particular parts of the brain. d. identify stimuli that normally activate a particular part of the brain.

111. Dr. Abboud is interested in whether individuals on the autism spectrum have malfunctioning mirror neurons. Which of the following technologies would you recommend to Dr. Wilson for answering this question? a. rTMS b. fMRI c. single cell recording d. lesioning and electrical brain stimulation 112. Most chemicals in the blood supply a. enter the brain more easily than they enter other organs. b. are less likely to enter the brain than to enter other organs. c. enter the brain as easily as they enter other organs. d. are unable to enter the brain or other organs.

113. Researchers are turning away from microdialysis on humans and seeking other ways to identify areas in

which a specific neurochemical is particularly active, because microdialysis a. is a risky procedure.

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience? b. takes a long time to complete. c. often fails. d. is too invasive.

114. Researchers interested in the effects of a drug on a subject are most likely to a. surgically implant micropipettes to administer precise amounts of the drug to the brain. b. use microdialysis. c. allow the subject to inhale, eat, or chew substances that contain precise amounts of the drug. d. sample the chemicals that are active in a precise location in the brain.

115. One of the challenges associated with the successful use of chemotherapy for treating brain tumors is the fact that a. no known chemotherapy agents are effective against the types of tumors that arise in the brain. b. no chemicals are ever able to pass from the blood supply to the brain. c. many circulating chemicals are not able to enter the brain. d. chemicals introduced to the brain do not pass through neural membranes.

116. Microdialysis is used to a. assess the chemicals present in a very small area of the brain. b. apply chemicals directly to the brain. c. produce lesions. d. identify the function of a small area of the brain.

117. Dizygotic (fraternal) twins typically have roughly what percentage of their genes in common? a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100 118. Monozygotic (identical) twins typically have roughly what percentage of their genes in common? a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100 119. Fraternal twins share a. more genes than non-twin siblings but fewer genes than identical twins. b. about the same number of genes as non-twin siblings. c. about the same number of genes as identical twins. d. fewer genes than non-twin siblings.

120. If we say that bipolar disorder has a concordance rate of 85 percent in monozygotic twins, we mean that a. 85 percent of the time, bipolar disorder is the result of genetic influences shared by monozygotic twins. b. if one monozygotic (identical) twin has bipolar disorder, their twin has an 85 percent chance of being diagnosed with the disorder as well.

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience? c. 85 percent of the time, bipolar disorder cannot be explained by genetic variables, even in monozygotic twins. d. a parent with bipolar disorder has an 85 percent chance of passing the disorder to their monozygotic twins.

121. If the concordance rate for alcoholism were 50 percent among identical twins, which of the following would be true? a. If you inherit the gene that encodes alcoholism, you will develop alcoholism. b. If there is no alcoholism in your family, you will never develop a problem with alcoholism. c. If your father suffers from alcoholism, you will not develop the problem as long as he is not involved in raising you. d. If your twin struggles with alcoholism, you have an increased chance of having the same problem, but ultimately whether you do is also influenced by environmental factors.

122. If a trait were primarily influenced by genetic variables, we would expect to see a. adopted children who are more similar to their biological parents in the trait than to their adoptive parents. b. adopted children who are more similar to their adoptive parents in the trait than to their biological parents. c. strong similarities between adoptive and biological parents. d. strong similarities between adoptive children and their adoptive siblings.

123. What is the BEST definition of heritability? a. the amount of an individual’s phenotype that is due to genetic influences b. the proportion of traits in an individual that is not influenced by environmental variables c. the amount that a trait varies in a population that is due to genetics d. the likelihood that a parent will pass on a particular trait to their offspring 124. The similarities that are often seen among families that adopt children might have which of the following effects on analyses of the heritability of traits? a. exaggeration of environmental influences b. environmental influences that cannot be observed c. underestimation of genetic influences d. magnification of genetic influences 125. Dr. Campos is studying variations of intelligence among children living in an affluent community, in which most parents are college educated and schools are highly ranked. It is likely that using this relatively homogeneous group of participants will distort Dr. Campos’s results by a. exaggerating genetic influences on intelligence. b. causing her to underestimate genetic influences on intelligence. c. exaggerating environmental influences on intelligence. d. exaggerating individual differences in intelligence.

126. A knockout gene is one a. that is missing in an organism. b. that does not produce the protein product of a normal gene. c. in which a mutation has occurred in one or more of its alleles. d. that produces disease or death in more than 50 percent of those who have the gene.

127. Dr. Pratt is interested in identifying genes related to reduced eye contact in individuals with autism spectrum Powered by Cognero

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience? disorder. To identify the genes associated with this trait, Dr. Pratt will probably conduct a a. knockout gene experiment. b. twin study. c. forward genetic screen. d. reverse genetic screen.

128. A gene-wide association study (GWAS) is a type of a. twin study. b. adoption study. c. reverse genetic screen. d. forward genetic screen.

129. Optogenetics allows researchers to a. visualize neurons with very high resolution. b. influence the activity of neurons with light. c. record the activity of individual neurons. d. lesion individual neurons using light.

130. The “Common Rule” refers to a. federal restrictions on stem cell research. b. laws limiting the use of university research facilities by private corporations. c. a set of ethical standards for research. d. Hippocrates’ statement that physicians should “do no harm.”

131. University institutional review boards (IRBs) evaluate compliance with ethical standards in a. all types of research. b. research on human beings. c. animal research only. d. human and animal research.

132. Federal ethical guidelines apply to a. all research conducted in the United States. b. projects and institutions receiving federal support only. c. research using humans, but not animals. d. research conducted by faculty, but not by students.

133. As part of your senior thesis, you want to study the effects of advertising on young children during Saturday morning cartoons. Which of the following is the first step you will need to take? a. Get informed consent from the group of children you will be using as subjects. b. Obtain approval for your project from the institutional review board (IRB) at the university you are attending. c. Recruit students from a local school to be subjects. d. Find a place for all the children to watch television together on a Saturday morning.

134. Ethical standards for the use of human subjects require researchers to a. clearly identify each participant by name.

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience? b. never use deception. c. avoid coercion of participants. d. ensure that participants understand that they cannot quit once the experiment begins.

135. A researcher wants to study fetal alcohol syndrome, a set of deficits in the offspring caused by maternal drinking during pregnancy, by randomly assigning pregnant mice to alcohol and no alcohol groups. Which of the following is the BEST reason for using mice instead of people for this study? a. Mice consume larger amounts of alcohol relative to their body weight than humans do. b. Approval of an ethics committee is not required in order to study mice. c. Some research considered unethical for humans can be conducted with animals. d. Mice are so much like people that they can serve as reasonable substitutes in studies of physical behaviors.

136. In addition to adhering to specific ethical standards when using animals for research, what else are researchers required to do? a. Decondition the animals when the experiment is complete. b. Try to replace human studies with animal studies to the greatest degree possible. c. Train the animals before using them in research. d. Provide excellent care and housing for the animals.

137. A group of scientists at your university wants to investigate rates of misuse of prescription drugs, like Oxycontin, among students living in dorms. They plan to use an online questionnaire. This research proposal is likely to raise ethical concerns about a. obtaining truly informed consent. b. not working in person with research participants. c. whether or not all the participants are at least 18 years of age. d. giving participants the impression that people in their situation misuse prescription drugs.

138. The majority of animals used in research in the United States are a. guinea pigs. b. rats and mice. c. chimpanzees. d. cats and dogs.

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

139. What is the primary purpose of open science initiatives?

140. Why do universities have Institutional Review Boards?

141. Phrenologists like Gall believed that the shape of bumps on the skull indicated differences in the function of the brain under that skull. Although this theory has been discredited, there is evidence that the impact to the skull and the resulting trauma of a concussion produces measurable changes in the brain. Explain whether this fact vindicates phrenology as a means to study brain dysfunction.

142. Your textbook emphasizes that biology and behavior form a reciprocal relationship. We are often aware of situations Powered by Cognero

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience? in which our biology affects our behavior, such as when we take a medication and notice its results. We are somewhat less aware of situations in which our behavior affects our biology. One such situation was the Covid-19 pandemic, in which we used a variety of behaviors to reduce our chances of getting the disease. Relate the preventive measures taken during the pandemic to the ability of our behavior to influence important biological functions.

143. Brain surgery on a human patient is often accomplished with local anesthetic instead of general. Recognizing that the first principle in medicine is to do no harm, give reason as to why it is ethical and often preferred to have the patient awake during brain surgery.

144. The history of biological psychology is in many ways the history of technical advances. Which three technological advances do you think were the most significant and why?

145. Adoptive families have been found to share many features in common. How is this likely to impact measures of trait heritability that compare children with their biological and adoptive parents and siblings?

146. Animal research continues to be controversial. Describe the protections that are currently in place and their strengths and weaknesses.

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Ch 01 What is Behavioral Neuroscience?

Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. True 11. d 12. b 13. a 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. d 21. b 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. d Powered by Cognero

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26. b 27. b 28. c 29. b 30. d 31. d 32. b 33. b 34. a 35. d 36. d 37. c 38. a 39. c 40. c 41. b 42. d 43. a 44. b 45. d 46. d 47. c 48. a 49. b 50. c 51. d Powered by Cognero

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52. d 53. a 54. c 55. a 56. b 57. d 58. c 59. c 60. a 61. c 62. d 63. b 64. c 65. b 66. c 67. d 68. c 69. b 70. d 71. a 72. d 73. a 74. c 75. d 76. c Powered by Cognero

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77. c 78. c 79. b 80. b 81. c 82. d 83. a 84. a 85. c 86. a 87. d 88. b 89. a 90. c 91. c 92. c 93. d 94. c 95. b 96. c 97. a 98. a 99. a 100. b 101. a 102. b Powered by Cognero

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103. a 104. b 105. c 106. c 107. d 108. c 109. b 110. c 111. c 112. b 113. d 114. a 115. c 116. a 117. b 118. d 119. b 120. b 121. d 122. a 123. c 124. d 125. a 126. b 127. c Powered by Cognero

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128. d 129. b 130. c 131. d 132. b 133. b 134. c 135. c 136. d 137. d 138. b 139. to encourage the sharing of research results, methods, or resources 140. to evaluate the ethics of planned research on human beings 141. Answers will address that Gall claimed the shape of the skull indicated brain functions, but impacts to the skull were not the basis for his work. Rather, an impact to the skull that produces a concussion is producing trauma in the soft tissue of the brain, not altering the bony skull. Phrenology was about hard shapes indicating function, trauma is about soft tissue being damaged and resulting in modifying function.

142. Typical answers will discuss the fact that biology can impact all of our behaviors, including our actions, thoughts, and emotions. The response should include the fact that social isolation resulting from preventive measures during the Covid-19 pandemic led to various levels of loneliness, depending on how people perceived their isolation. Increased feelings of loneliness reduced the immune system’s ability to fight the virus. Recognizing the effects of behavior on biology is important for understanding key concepts such as the efficacy of cognitive-behavioral therapy for treating depression and placebo effects.

143. Local anesthetic is sufficient to eliminate the pain from the surgery, and because there are no pain receptors in the brain tissue itself there is no sense of pain from the procedure. There is an advantage in having a patient awake for certain brain surgeries to provide the surgeon with additional feedback as to function of specific regions, as a patient can indicate any sensation triggered by mild stimulation of a region. This can allow a surgeon operating to have the security of knowing that a minimal amount of damage may be done. Thus, the absence of pain receptors in the brain indicates no harm will come (the ethical component) and the potential feedback gives possible improvement of the procedure (the advantage to this method).

144. Students may choose from several advances. Some likely choices are the brain imaging techniques (MRI, fMRI, PET scan), electrical recordings/stimulations (single unit recording, deep brain stimulation, etc.), drugs for therapies (like SSRIs, opioids and naloxone, etc.). Reasons for choosing each technological advance will vary but are likely to include the accessibility of previously inaccessible information and the consequences for biological psychology.

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145. One challenge in comparing biological and adoptive families is the lack of randomness in adoptive parents. Parents who choose to adopt may share common features, which would presumably skew the analyses of comparisons of the biological and environmental impacts on traits.

146. Students should be aware in their answers of animal care and use committees, and the protections that are in place for protection of animals (and human subjects) from harm. They should discuss what an IRB is and how it works, discuss animal care and use guidelines and what role these play. It is likely that they will also include some comparison of animals used in research and animals used in other settings (testing of cosmetics, for example) and distinguish rationales for each.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The parietal lobes are found rostral to the occipital lobes and posterior to the frontal lobes. a. True b. False 2. The arachnoid layer of the meninges is found in both the central and peripheral nervous systems. a. True b. False 3. Nerves originating in the lumbar division of the spinal cord serve the lower back and legs. a. True b. False 4. The amygdala participates in emotional behavior and is particularly important in the fear response. a. True b. False 5. The reticular formation extends from the medulla through the pons and into the midbrain. a. True b. False 6. The primary auditory cortex is found in the parietal lobe of the cerebral cortex. a. True b. False 7. The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe. a. True b. False 8. All cranial nerves carry both sensory and motor information to and from the brain. a. True b. False 9. Neurons comprising the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system are located in the brain and sacral divisions of the spinal cord. a. True b. False 10. From early versions of the hominin up until current Homo sapiens, the brain has undergone virtually no change in size. a. True b. False 11. The cerebellum is part of the diencephalon. a. True Powered by Cognero

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System b. False 12. The hippocampus is one of the less important structures in the limbic system. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

13. Structures located relatively toward the tail of a four-legged animal are referred to as a. rostral. b. caudal. c. dorsal. d. ventral.

14. Structures located relatively toward the belly of a four-legged animal are referred to as a. rostral. b. caudal. c. dorsal. d. ventral.

15. A dog’s ears are a. rostral b. caudal c. dorsal d. ventral

relative to its tail.

16. Which of the following pairs of terms mean the same thing in a four-legged animal? a. ventral—superior b. dorsal—inferior c. rostral—anterior d. caudal—ipsilateral 17. An imaginary line that runs the length of the spinal cord to the front of the brain is known as the a. sagittal slice. b. proximal. c. neuraxis. d. plane of section.

18. The neuraxis runs in a straight line a. parallel to the ground in four-legged animals and humans. b. perpendicular to the ground in four-legged animals and humans. c. parallel to the ground in four-legged animals but makes an 80-degree turn in the brains of humans. d. parallel to the ground in humans but makes an 80-degree turn in the brains of four-legged animals.

19. A person’s hand is Powered by Cognero

relative to their elbow.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System a. proximal b. distal c. contralateral d. ipsilateral 20. Your right arm is a. proximal b. distal c. ipsilateral d. contralateral

to your left arm.

21. Your right arm is a. proximal b. distal c. contralateral d. ipsilateral

to your right leg.

22. CSF never has direct contact with what? a. the subarachnoid space b. the blood supply c. neurochemicals d. the skull 23. A person who experiences damage to the motor cortex from a stroke is likely to a. experience problems with balance. b. experience some paralysis. c. be unable to understand speech. d. be unable to produce speech.

24. Researchers investigating appetite distinguish between the roles played by the ventromedial hypothalamus and the lateral hypothalamus. Where are these two structures located relative to one another? a. The lateral hypothalamus is contralateral to the ventromedial hypothalamus. b. The lateral hypothalamus is rostral to the ventromedial hypothalamus. c. The lateral hypothalamus is closer to the midline than the ventromedial hypothalamus. d. The ventromedial hypothalamus is located closer to the midline than the lateral hypothalamus.

25. The superior and inferior colliculi are located in the midbrain. Where are these two structures located relative to one another? a. The superior colliculi are located above the inferior colliculi. b. The superior colliculi are located below the inferior colliculi. c. The superior colliculi are closer to the midline than the inferior colliculi. d. The superior colliculi are farther away from the midline than the inferior colliculi.

26. The anterior cingulate cortex (ACC) is located where in relation to the posterior cingulate cortex (PCC)? a. behind Powered by Cognero

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System b. in front of c. below d. above 27. Most of the neural input to your left eyebrow originates in the motor cortex of the left hemisphere. In other words, your eyebrow receives input from the hemisphere. a. proximal b. distal c. contralateral d. ipsilateral 28. An anatomical section that divides the brain parallel to the midline and perpendicular to the ground is a section. a. sagittal b. coronal c. horizontal d. axial 29. The plane of section that divides the brain from top to bottom is a a. sagittal b. coronal c. horizontal d. midsagittal

section.

30. Early computerized tomography (CT) equipment could take images from only one perspective, the axial or horizontal section. This means that the resulting images were from sections that are , dividing the brain from . a. perpendicular to the ground; front to back b. perpendicular to the ground; side to side c. parallel to the midline; side to side d. parallel to the ground; top to bottom 31. In order to assess the size of the lateral ventricles in patients with schizophrenia, Dr. Weinberger has decided to use a coronal or frontal section. In other words, he is looking at a plane of section that is a. perpendicular to the ground, dividing the brain from front to back. b. perpendicular to the ground, dividing the brain from side to side. c. parallel to the midline, dividing the brain from side to side. d. parallel to the ground, dividing the brain from top to bottom.

32. The correct ordering of the layers of the meninges from the skull to the brain is a. pia mater, arachnoid layer, and dura mater. b. arachnoid layer, pia mater, and dura mater. c. dura mater, pia mater, and arachnoid layer. d. dura mater, arachnoid layer, and pia mater.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System 33. You just heard about a friend who has a tumor on the meninges of their right temporal lobe. This means that the tumor is to the midline of the brain. a. contralateral b. medial c. ventral d. lateral 34. Your cat always wants you to pet it on its back or surface for you to scratch. a. ventral; dorsal b. dorsal; ventral c. rostral; caudal d. caudal; rostral

surface, but your dog lies on its back and presents its

35. A subdural hematoma is a “bruise” that often occurs following a head injury and affects a layer of the membranes that cover the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nerves. Given your knowledge of anatomical terms, which of the following is the likely location of this type of injury? a. the scalp b. the meninges c. the lateral ventricles d. the central canal of the spinal cord 36. Which of the meninges is described as a leather-like tissue that follows the contours of the skull bones? a. pia mater b. dura mater c. arachnoid layer d. subarachnoid space 37. What types of tissue protect the nerve fibers of the peripheral nervous system? a. pia mater, arachnoid layer, and dura mater b. pia mater only c. connective tissue d. arachnoid layer and dura mater only 38. A lymphatic system was discovered recently in which part of the nervous system? a. circle of Willis b. central canal c. ventricles d. meninges 39. The subarachnoid space is found between the arachnoid layer and the a. pia mater. b. dura mater. c. skull bones. d. lateral ventricles.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System 40. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is secreted by the a. meninges. b. subarachnoid space. c. choroid plexus. d. ventricles.

41. CSF may be found in the a. central and peripheral nervous systems. b. peripheral nervous system only. c. lateral and distal ventricles of the brain. d. ventricles, subarachnoid space, and central canal of the spinal cord.

42. The primary purpose of CSF is to a. nourish the cells of the brain and spinal cord. b. float the brain within the skull. c. remove toxins from the brain and excrete them from the body. d. synthesize chemical messengers.

43. A friend calls and says his daughter’s head has become enlarged. She is complaining of a terrible headache. The parent asks you what to do. Given what you have read in this chapter, what would you suggest? a. Have the child lie down; she’ll probably be fine. b. Call the pediatrician in the morning. c. Get the child immediately to a physician to be evaluated for meningitis. d. Get the child to see a neurologist without delay, as she may have hydrocephalus.

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44.44.

This figure illustrates the circulation of a. blood through the brain and spinal cord. b. CSF between the meninges and the upper layer of cortex. c. CSF through the ventricles, the central canal of the spinal cord, and in the subarachnoid space. d. CSF, from its manufacture in the subarachnoid space into the ventricles and central canal of the spinal cord.

45. A condition that results when the circulation of CSF is blocked is known as a. hydrocephalus. b. meningioma. c. meningitis. d. septicemia.

46. If you go to the doctor with a horrible headache and a stiff neck, why might they suggest a spinal tap? a. A spinal tap will tell if you have a brain tumor. b. The CSF can help diagnose specific diseases. c. The CSF is the same as the blood supply, and the doctor can tell if you have an infection. d. The CSF is the only way the doctor can tell if you are on drugs.

47. Why would your doctor want to do a spinal tap if they suspected that you had an infection of the brain?

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System a. because the CSF of the spinal cord is continuous with the CSF of the brain b. because the spinal cord is part of the CNS c. because the peripheral and central nervous systems are connected d. They wouldn’t do a spinal tap because the spinal cord is made of different kinds of neurons than the brain.

48. The blood supply to the brain is provided by the a. carotid and vertebral arteries. b. subclavian and axillary arteries. c. celiac artery. d. aorta.

49. Which of the following is a component of the peripheral nervous system? a. the corpus callosum b. the red nucleus c. the sympathetic nervous system d. the central canal 50. Which of the following allows the left and right hemispheres to communicate? a. the corpus callosum b. the red nucleus c. the sympathetic nervous system d. the central canal 51. Which of the following statements is correct? a. The CNS is encased in bone but has no CSF. b. The peripheral nervous system is encased in bone but has no CSF. c. The peripheral nervous system is encased with bone and is bathed with CSF. d. The CNS is encased with bone and is bathed with CSF. 52. The spinal cord extends how far down the length of the vertebral column? a. down the entire length b. down about two-thirds the length c. about halfway down the length d. about a third of the way down the length 53. Running down the center of the spinal cord is the a. subarachnoid space. b. fourth ventricle. c. central canal. d. spinal ventricle.

54. The region consisting of the head, neck, and arms is served by nerves exiting the cord. a. sacral Powered by Cognero

division of the spinal

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System b. lumbar c. thoracic d. cervical 55. The correct order of the spinal divisions from rostral to caudal is a. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. b. cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccygeal. c. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. d. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral.

56. A thoracic surgeon operates in the vicinity of the thoracic division of the spinal cord, that is, the structures located in the a. neck. b. torso. c. lower back. d. genitals and legs.

57. As a result of an accident that occurred while playing football, Michael must wear a device known as a cervical collar until his injuries heal. Based on this information, we know that Michael injured his a. shoulder. b. knee. c. neck. d. lower back.

58. Julie’s physician tells her that she damaged a disk in the lumbar region of her spinal cord. It is likely that Julie sought medical advice due to pain she experienced in her a. neck. b. upper back. c. shoulder. d. lower back.

59. Injuries to the lower back from lifting heavy objects are the cause of damage to which region of the spinal cord? a. sacral b. lumbar c. thoracic d. cervical 60. Spinal neurons that pass motor information to the body’s muscles may be found in a. the white matter b. the dorsal horns c. the ventral horns d. both the dorsal and ventral horns

of the spinal cord.

61. Axons carrying sensory information to the brain may be found in a. the ventral white matter of the spinal cord.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System b. the dorsal white matter of the spinal cord. c. both the ventral and dorsal white matter of the spinal cord. d. the lateral gray matter of the spinal cord only.

62. The knee jerk reflex, in which your foot kicks in response to a tap on your knee, is also known as what kind of reflex? a. withdrawal b. postural c. patellar d. polysynaptic 63. You’ve just heard that someone’s spinal cord has been injured in the lumbar region. Given what you’ve learned in this chapter, which of the following will likely be true? a. The person will be totally paralyzed from the neck down. b. The person will be totally paralyzed from just below the arms. c. Depending on how severe the injury, the person may be unable to move or feel anything from around the waist down. d. Depending on how severe the injury, the person may be unable to move or feel anything from around the chest down.

64. A person with cervical spinal cord damage is known as a control in the . a. paraplegic; arms and legs b. paraplegic; legs only c. quadriplegic; arms, legs, and torso d. quadriplegic; legs only

and experiences loss of sensation and motor

65. The myelencephalon and metencephalon are located in the a. hindbrain. b. midbrain. c. forebrain. d. cerebellum.

66. Another name for the midbrain is the a. myelencephalon. b. metencephalon. c. mesencephalon. d. diencephalon.

67. The brainstem contains the a. hindbrain only. b. midbrain only. c. hindbrain and midbrain. d. hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain.

68. The brainstem contains the Powered by Cognero

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System a. rhombencephalon only. b. mesencephalon only. c. rhombencephalon and mesencephalon. d. rhombencephalon, mesencephalon, and prosencephalon.

69. The is the most caudal portion of the brain and is a gradual swelling of tissue that lies above the cervical spine. a. medulla b. cerebellum c. pons d. reticular formation 70. Jonathan has been diagnosed with a tumor located in his medulla. His physician warns him that until treated, the tumor will most directly affect his a. balance and motor coordination. b. breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. c. control of aggression. d. decision making.

71. The pons and cerebellum make up which of the following divisions? a. telencephalon b. diencephalon c. mesencephalon d. metencephalon 72. Which of the following structures is in the brainstem? a. the central sulcus b. the corpus callosum c. the medulla d. the hypothalamus 73. The medulla contains nuclei responsible for which of the following functions? a. balance and motor coordination b. heart rate and respiration c. visual reflexes d. auditory reflexes 74. The cochlear and vestibular nuclei are located in the a. midbrain. b. medulla. c. pons. d. cerebellum.

75. Lucy is experiencing problems with maintaining both her muscle tone and her balance. Her physician is likely to look for the source of her problems in the Powered by Cognero

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System a. vestibular system and the cerebellum. b. reticular formation. c. red nucleus and the cerebellum. d. cochlear nucleus and the inferior colliculi.

76. The reticular formation is involved with regulation of a. appetite. b. heart rate and respiration. c. sexual activity. d. consciousness and arousal.

77. The reticular formation is located in the a. medulla. b. medulla and pons. c. pons. d. medulla, pons, and midbrain.

78. The locus coeruleus is located in the a. medulla. b. pons. c. midbrain. d. cerebellum.

79. Which one of these statements about the ascending reticular activating system is correct? a. The reticulospinal tracts are the major ascending pathways from the reticular formation. b. It participates in establishing alertness, arousal, consciousness, and sleep-wake cycles. c. It plays a major role in maintaining appropriate posture. d. It has a neuronal population consisting of only dopaminergic and noradrenergic brain nuclei.

80. Which of the following structures are important to the regulation of mood, states of arousal, and sleep? a. the vestibular nucleus and the cochlear nucleus b. the raphe nuclei and the locus coeruleus c. the red nucleus and substantia nigra d. periaqueductal gray and the red nucleus 81. Alcohol interferes with skilled movements, primarily through its action on the a. reticular formation. b. hypothalamus. c. cerebellum. d. medulla.

82. Autism spectrum disorder is often associated with abnormal development in the a. cerebellum. b. reticular formation.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System c. medulla. d. vestibular nuclei.

83. Which of the following structures is found in humans but not in other animals? a. periaqueductal gray b. the superior colliculi c. the neodentate d. the substantia nigra 84. Stanley is experiencing ongoing degeneration in his cerebellum. Consequently, which of the following behaviors may become progressively more difficult for him? a. breathing b. maintaining a normal core body temperature c. sleeping d. language skills 85. The dorsal portion of the midbrain is also known as the a. tegmentum. b. tectum. c. cerebral aqueduct. d. reticular formation.

86. A pathway considered important to our experience of reward and pleasure originates in the ventral tegmentum. Where would we look to find this area? a. in the spinal cord b. in the hindbrain c. in the midbrain d. in the forebrain 87. The cerebral aqueduct links the a. third and fourth ventricles. b. two lateral ventricles. c. fourth ventricle and the spinal canal. d. fourth ventricle and the subarachnoid space.

88. Which of the following structures participates in our experience of pain? a. the red nucleus b. the substantia nigra c. periaqueductal gray (PAG) d. the superior colliculi 89. Our ability to enjoy a good surround sound system, which makes it seem like sounds are coming from different directions in our environment, depends on our a. superior colliculi. b. inferior colliculi.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System c. periaqueductal gray. d. substantia nigra.

90. The basal ganglia, substantia nigra, and red nucleus are important for which of the following functions? a. memory b. motor control c. sympathetic nervous system control d. emotion 91. Several visual reflexes are managed by the a. red nucleus. b. periaqueductal gray. c. superior colliculi. d. inferior colliculi.

92. Your morning alarm includes a gradual increase in room lighting to help you awaken. This increase in ambient light triggers the in your brain to constrict your pupils in response to the increase in light. a. superior colliculi b. periaqueductal gray c. red nucleus d. inferior colliculi 93. The diencephalon contains which of the following structures? a. the thalamus and hypothalamus b. the thalamus and the basal ganglia c. the inferior and superior colliculi d. the substantia nigra and the basal ganglia 94. Before proceeding to the cerebral cortex, input from all sensory systems except smell converges on the a. hypothalamus. b. thalamus. c. amygdala. d. hippocampus.

95. The thalamus receives information from all sensory systems EXCEPT a. olfaction. b. taste. c. touch. d. temperature.

96. Katie has a tumor that is disrupting her ability to maintain her body temperature. Near which of the following structures is Katie’s tumor most likely to be located? a. hypothalamus b. periaqueductal gray c. locus coeruleus Powered by Cognero

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System d. raphe nuclei 97. Major regulatory functions, including eating, drinking, sex, biorhythms, and temperature control, are managed primarily by the a. hypothalamus. b. thalamus. c. amygdala. d. hippocampus.

98. The release of hormones by the pituitary gland is regulated primarily by the a. hypothalamus. b. thalamus. c. amygdala. d. hippocampus.

99. The caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, putamen, and subthalamic nucleus are found in the a. hypothalamus. b. reticular formation. c. basal ganglia. d. limbic system.

100. Anatomists often group the nucleus accumbens, which participates in our sense of pleasure and reward, with the a. reticular formation. b. vestibular system. c. cranial nerve nuclei. d. basal ganglia.

101. Some anatomists group the a. thalamus b. hippocampus c. reticular formation d. substantia nigra

with the basal ganglia.

102. Degeneration of the basal ganglia is a feature of which of the following conditions, which is noted for its interference in initiating movement? a. Alzheimer disease b. Parkinson disease c. schizophrenia d. autism 103. The structures of the limbic system are particularly important in a. motivated behavior, emotion, and learning. b. sensation and perception. c. motor control and sensory regulation. d. regulation of hunger and thirst.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System 104. The hippocampus is important in which of the following functions? a. learning and memory b. motor control c. recognition of biological danger d. regulation of hunger and thirst 105. Stephen’s surgery for epilepsy has made it very difficult for him to learn the names of new people he meets. It is most likely that Stephen’s surgery affected the in both of his temporal lobes. a. hippocampus b. locus coeruleus c. hypothalamus d. nucleus accumbens 106. Damage to the hippocampus in both cerebral hemispheres is associated with a. Parkinson disease. b. schizophrenia. c. inability to form procedural memories. d. anterograde amnesia.

107. The amygdala participates in which of the following behaviors? a. language b. motor control c. fear and aggression d. regulation of hunger and thirst 108. Students in a biological psychology laboratory were investigating the ability of rats to form associations between tones and electrical shock. Lesions to which of the following structures would make it very difficult for the students to teach their rats to be afraid of the tones? a. the nucleus accumbens b. the amygdala c. the substantia nigra d. the hypothalamus 109. Cindy brought a fake rubber snake into the lab where her rhesus monkeys lived. Most of the monkeys responded with fear vocalizations, but one did not. Cindy knew this monkey had been in a lesion experiment prior to coming to her lab, but she didn’t know what type of lesion had been done. What would you tell Cindy about her monkey? a. It probably didn’t have a lesion at all, as ignoring fake snakes is considered normal for rhesus monkeys. b. It probably had a lesion in the hippocampus of both hemispheres. c. It probably had a lesion in the amygdala of both hemispheres. d. It probably had a lesion of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus.

110. The limbic system includes all of the following brain structures EXCEPT the a. hypothalamus. b. medulla.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System c. cingulate cortex. d. amygdala.

111. The olfactory bulbs are located in which part of the brain? a. basal ganglia b. cerebellum c. cortex d. limbic system 112. The ventral striatum is another name for the a. caudate nucleus. b. subthalamic nucleus. c. lenticular nucleus. d. nucleus accumbens.

113. Jessica was playing poker while on a vacation in Las Vegas, and in a fit of exuberance, bet all of her money on one hand. Unfortunately, it turned out to be a losing hand. If we were using functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) to observe Jessica’s reactions to losing, which structure might have shown especially increased activation? a. her ACC b. her PCC c. her amygdala d. her hippocampus 114. Which part of the brain is also referred to as “the fifth lobe”? a. the orbitofrontal cortex b. the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex c. the insula d. the fusiform face area 115. Lesions of the a. hippocampus b. amygdala c. septal area d. thalamus

usually produce rage and attack behaviors.

116. The “hills” of the cerebral cortex are known as a. gyri. b. sulci. c. fissures. d. ganglia.

117. The “valleys” between ridges of cerebral cortex are known as a. gyri. b. sulci. c. nuclei.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System d. ganglia.

118. A particularly large sulcus is known as a a. gyrus. b. fasciculus. c. fissure. d. lemniscus.

119. The degree of cortical convolution in the brain predicts a species’ a. cognitive abilities. b. physical size. c. identity as an herbivore, a carnivore, or an omnivore. d. identity as nocturnal or diurnal.

120. How many distinct layers are typically found in the cerebral cortex? a. two b. four c. six d. eight 121. Which of the cortical layer(s) contain(s) no cell bodies? a. layer I b. layers II and IV c. layers III and V d. layer VI 122. Granule cells are usually found in cortical layer(s) a. I. b. II and IV. c. III and V. d. VI. 123. Pyramidal cells are usually found in cortical layer(s) a. I. b. II and IV. c. III and V. d. VI. 124. Output from the cortex to other parts of the nervous system usually originates in which of the cortical layers? a. II and IV b. III and V c. II and III d. V and VI

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System 125. Korbinian Brodmann’s system for dividing the cerebral cortex into 52 areas is based on a. divisions of the surface by sulci and fissures. b. regular units covering one square inch. c. the function of the underlying cortex of each area. d. the distribution of cell bodies in the six layers of cortex.

126. Although the human cerebral cortex performs many higher order cognitive functions, a. its volume is similar to the cortex of cats and dogs. b. its functions are quite different from the functions performed by the cortex of other mammals. c. it makes up nearly the entire volume of the cerebral hemisphere. d. it makes up only a thin layer of tissue covering the cerebral hemispheres.

127. The caudal boundary of the frontal lobe is formed by the a. longitudinal fissure. b. lateral sulcus. c. calcarine fissure. d. central sulcus.

128. The most rostral lobe of the cerebral cortex is the a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital

lobe.

129. At the very back of the cerebral cortex is the a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital

lobe.

130. The primary somatosensory cortex is located within the a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital 131. The postcentral gyrus contains primary a. somatosensory b. motor c. auditory d. visual 132. The primary visual cortex is located in the a. frontal Powered by Cognero

lobe.

cortex.

lobe.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital 133. The primary auditory cortex is located in the a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital

lobe.

134. The primary motor cortex is located in the precentral gyrus of the a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital

lobe.

135. Following a serious head injury, Robert began to make a series of impulsive decisions that led to negative consequences, such as quitting his job and leaving his wife for a woman he met in a bar. It is most likely that Robert’s injury affected his lobe. a. occipital b. frontal c. parietal d. temporal 136. Clare’s head injury has left her with serious problems in planning and executive cognitive functions, such as being able to remember a new friend’s telephone number long enough to put it in her cell phone. It is likely that Clare’s injury damaged her a. amygdala. b. hippocampus. c. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex. d. PCC. 137. The two cerebral hemispheres are connected by the a. anterior commissure and the corpus callosum. b. anterior and medial commissures. c. medial commissure and the corpus callosum. d. arcuate fasciculus and the corpus callosum.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System

138.138.

Among the functions localized in the area designated “1” in the given figure are a. decision making and planning. b. processing of sound and visual recognition of objects. c. generating movement and perceiving body position. d. primary visual processing and perception of movement.

139. A patient who demonstrates uncharacteristically poor judgment and is unable to maintain a typical attention span may have experienced damage to which lobe? a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital 140. Antisocial behavior has been correlated with damage to the a. hippocampus. b. orbitofrontal cortex. c. primary visual cortex. d. corpus callosum.

141. Damage to which of the following areas results in problems producing speech? a. Broca’s area b. Wernicke’s area c. the orbitofrontal cortex d. the cingulate cortex 142. For the vast majority of the population, which of the following functions are localized to the left hemisphere? a. language Powered by Cognero

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System b. spatial abilities c. intuition d. artistic and musical abilities 143. Which of the following peripheral nerves enter and exit the brain itself? a. cervical b. thoracic c. cranial d. lumbar 144. How many pairs of cranial nerves do humans have? a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12 145. Which of the following cranial nerves provides input and feedback from the heart, liver, and digestive tract? a. the trochlear nerve (IV) b. the abducens nerve (VI) c. the hypoglossal nerve (XII) d. the vagus nerve (X) 146. Which of the following cranial nerves do we use to produce facial expressions? a. the trigeminal nerve (V) b. the facial nerve (VII) c. the trochlear nerve (IV) d. the spinal accessory nerve (XI) 147. Which of the following statements accurately describes the ability of cranial nerves to carry sensory and motor information? a. Half of the cranial nerves carry sensory information and the other half of the cranial nerves carry motor information. b. All cranial nerves carry both sensory and motor information. c. Some cranial nerves carry just sensory information, while all of the others carry both sensory and motor information. d. Some cranial nerves carry sensory information, others carry motor information, and still others carry both sensory and motor information.

148. Efferent spinal nerves arise from the a. ventral; sensory b. ventral; motor c. dorsal; sensory d. dorsal; motor

root of the spinal cord and carry

149. Damage to a mixed nerve is likely to produce impairments in Powered by Cognero

information.

for a part of the body.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System a. both sensation and motor control b. sensation only c. motor control only d. neither sensation nor motor control 150. Dorsal root ganglia a. are located in the ventral horns of the spinal cord. b. contain the cell bodies of efferent nerves. c. are located in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord. d. contain the cell bodies of afferent nerves.

151.

spinal nerves in adult humans are myelinated. a. All b. None of the c. All efferent d. All afferent

152.152.

The structure designated “3” in this illustration a. transmits efferent data from the CNS to muscles and glands. b. transmits afferent data from the periphery to the CNS. c. is a mixed nerve, carrying both afferent and efferent data to and from the CNS. d. is a sympathetic ganglion and participates in autonomic arousal.

153. The dull, aching feeling that often follows injury is probably carried by a. myelinated efferent b. unmyelinated efferent c. myelinated afferent Powered by Cognero

nerves.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System d. unmyelinated afferent 154. The autonomic nervous system directly controls a. the skeletal muscles. b. the heart, lungs, and other organs. c. the reticular formation. d. temperature regulation.

155. Biofeedback training allows people to consciously control processes normally managed by the a. frontal lobe. b. reticular formation. c. somatic nervous system. d. autonomic nervous system.

156. Internal stimuli, such as the arrival of food in the digestive system, normally activate a. the somatic nervous system. b. the parasympathetic nervous system. c. the sympathetic nervous system. d. both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.

157.

nervous system(s) control the body’s “fight or flight” responses. a. The somatic b. The parasympathetic c. The sympathetic d. Both the parasympathetic and sympathetic

158. Salivation and digestion are inhibited during activation of a. the somatic nervous system. b. the parasympathetic nervous system. c. the sympathetic nervous system. d. both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.

159. Which of the following is a consequence of sympathetic nervous system activity? a. increased heart rate b. increased digestion c. increased salivation d. decreased blood pressure 160. Sexual activity involves a. the parasympathetic nervous system only. b. the sympathetic nervous system only. c. both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. d. neither the parasympathetic nor the sympathetic nervous system.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System 161. Constriction of blood vessels near the skin’s surface is a characteristic of activity in a. the somatic nervous system. b. the sympathetic nervous system. c. the parasympathetic nervous system. d. both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

162. The neurons associated with the parasympathetic nervous system are located in the a. lumbar and sacral divisions b. thoracic and lumbar divisions c. brain and sacral division d. brain and lumbar division

of the spinal cord.

163. The brain structure with the most direct responsibility over the autonomic nervous system is the a. amygdala. b. cingulate cortex. c. hippocampus. d. hypothalamus.

164. Evolution is understood as a. natural selection b. descent c. abrupt change d. genetics

with modification from a common ancestor.

165. Which of the following statements is modern biologists’ definition of evolution? a. Evolution describes descent with modifications from a common ancestor. b. Evolution describes how humans evolved from chimpanzees. c. Evolution describes the origin of life from the big bang. d. Evolution describes the transmission of dominant and recessive traits to offspring.

166. The process by which some genes become more prevalent in subsequent generations due to reproductive success is known as a. natural selection. b. descent. c. abrupt change. d. genetics.

167. Researchers studying two species of frogs found that one species seemed to be more numerous in ponds with lots of fishes, whereas the other species was more numerous in ponds with relatively fewer fishes. Using your understanding of the evolutionary concept of fitness, choose the statement that BEST describes the situation. a. It is only a matter of time before one of these species becomes more numerous in both ponds because certain traits are reproduced more successfully than others regardless of environment. b. It is likely that the two species differ in a trait that makes one better suited to ponds with lots of fishes and one better suited to ponds with fewer fishes. c. Both species are likely to become extinct in the near future as neither can successfully cohabit with fishes.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System d. Over time the numbers of the two species will become more equal, regardless of the type of pond they inhabit.

168. When industrialization covered British trees with soot, moths with darker coloring became more numerous. When pollution was reduced again, lighter colored moths became more numerous. This situation illustrates the process of a. artificial selection. b. epigenetics. c. fitness. d. mutation.

169. Natural selection refers to the a. ability of farmers and breeders to develop animals with specific traits, such as fast horses and hairless Chihuahuas. b. ability to select embryos with certain characteristics during in vitro fertilization. c. success of one trait over another in the survival of a species. d. dominance of genes for one trait, such as dark eye color, over another, such as blue eye color.

170. The first animals with simple nerve nets probably evolved about how many years ago? a. 4.5 billion b. 3.5 billion c. 700 million d. 250 million 171. Animals with the first rudimentary brains probably evolved about how many years ago? a. 4.5 billion b. 3.5 billion c. 700 million d. 250 million 172. The first hominin brain probably developed about how many million years ago? a. 700 b. 250 c. 10 d. 7 173. True brains and spinal cords occur in a. chordates. b. mollusca. c. crustacean. d. hemichordates.

174. Chordate nervous systems differ from nonchordate nervous systems in that a. chordate nervous systems run along the ventral, or front, side of the animal. b. chordate nervous systems run along the dorsal, or back, side of the animal. c. nonchordate nervous systems have brains rather than ganglia. d. nonchordate nervous systems provide faster reactions to sensory information.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System 175. Among chordates, more advanced brains had a. larger forebrains and cerebellums b. less convoluted cortices c. larger olfactory bulbs d. smaller cerebellums and less convoluted cortices

than earlier brains.

176. The first Homo sapiens appeared about how many years ago? a. between 4 million and 5 million b. between 1 million and 2 million c. between 300,000 and 500,000 d. between 100,000 and 200,000 177. Brain development among hominid species a. occurred quickly. b. occurred slowly and unevenly. c. occurred slowly and gradually. d. has appeared to speed up in the last hundred years.

178. Compared with early examples of Homo erectus, modern humans have a. much larger brains. b. smaller brains. c. brains that are about the same size. d. more convoluted brains.

179. Agriculture, urbanization, and literacy appear to have produced a. large amounts of additional growth b. modest amounts of additional growth c. no apparent changes d. possible reductions

in human brain size.

180. Factors that may limit human brain size include a. the brain’s requirements for calcium. b. gender differences in brain size. c. the brain’s need for fatty acids. d. difficulties in childbirth.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System

181.181.

The structure indicated by “4” in this illustration a. transmits afferent data to the CNS. b. transmits efferent data from the CNS. c. is a mixed nerve, carrying both afferent and efferent data to and from the CNS. d. is a sympathetic ganglion.

182. Which of the following is a major plane of section in brain anatomy? a. obtuse b. sagittal c. perpendicular d. oblique 183. Which major plane of section in anatomy runs parallel to the midline? a. coronal b. sagittal c. horizontal d. oblique 184. The brain floats in CSF so that a. it is cushioned to protect it from impact or sudden changes in movement. b. it can efficiently eliminate wastes from the brain into the CSF drainage. c. it can receive oxygen and glucose from the CSF bathing it. d. to both eliminate wastes and take in oxygen and glucose.

185. The is important in coordination of skilled movements. a. hypothalamus b. red nucleus Powered by Cognero

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System c. globus pallidus d. cerebellum 186. Which statement about the size of the cerebellum is correct? a. It does not increase in size. b. It has increased in size faster than the cerebral cortex. c. It has increased in size more slowly than the cerebral cortex. d. It has kept up with increases in the size of the cerebral cortex.

187. What do we call the collection of structures in the forebrain that participates in learning, emotion, and memory? a. medulla b. limbic system c. reticular formation d. cerebellum 188. Which lobe is primarily involved with visual processing? a. frontal b. parietal c. occipital d. temporal 189. What do we call dorsal afferent (sensory) nerves and ventral efferent (motor) nerves once they are beyond the spinal ganglion? a. double nerves b. mixed nerves c. conjoined nerves d. single nerves 190. The sympathetic nervous system a. increases heart rate and respiration. b. increases digestion activity. c. increases heart rate, respiration, and digestion. d. increases neither heart rate and respiration nor digestion.

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System

191.191.

In this illustration, CSF is shown moving from its place of synthesis in the through the third and fourth ventricles and then into the the within the meninges.

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of the ventricles, of the spinal cord. Finally, it flows into

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System

192.192.

(see Figure 2.21) Fill in the names of the four lobes depicted in this figure: Area 1: Area 2: Area 3: Area 4:

193.193.

The nerve fibers designated as “1” in this illustration carry designated as “2” carry information.

194.

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sections are parallel to the midline,

information, and the nerve fibers

sections divide the brain from Page 31

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System front to back, and 195. The

sections divide the brain from top to bottom. contributes to muscle coordination, muscle tone, balance, and some types of learning.

196. The nervous system is active during periods of arousal, stress, and emergency and prepares nervous system is active during times of calm and participates the body for “fight-or-flight.” The in the storage of nutrients and the repair of the body.

197. The actor Christopher Reeve damaged his cervical spinal cord during a tragic horseback riding accident. Based on your knowledge of the structure and functions of the spinal cord, what challenges did Reeve face as a result of his accident?

198. Why is the enteric nervous system referred to as “the second brain”?

199. Why do contemporary neuroscientists believe that the cerebellum is responsible for much more than balance and motor coordination?

200. Reading a sentence aloud involves sequential activation of different areas of the brain. Identify the major brain regions activated in the order necessary to read aloud.

201. A major evolutionary step was the process of cephalization (getting a head), with chordates having a single brain rather than a series of ganglia. What advantages does a brain confer to an animal that is not possible with ganglia?

202. The autonomic nervous system has two branches, sympathetic and parasympathetic. Activation of one branch typically suppresses activity of the other. If you eat a large meal, and then suddenly need to run, you will activate each system. Describe the likely chain of events that will transpire and include which system will take precedence.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. False 12. False 13. b 14. d 15. a 16. c 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. d 21. d 22. b 23. b 24. d 25. a Powered by Cognero

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System 26. b 27. d 28. a 29. c 30. d 31. a 32. d 33. d 34. b 35. b 36. b 37. c 38. d 39. a 40. d 41. c 42. b 43. d 44. c 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. c 50. a 51. d Powered by Cognero

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System 52. b 53. c 54. d 55. a 56. b 57. c 58. d 59. b 60. c 61. b 62. c 63. c 64. c 65. a 66. c 67. c 68. c 69. a 70. b 71. d 72. c 73. b 74. c 75. a 76. d Powered by Cognero

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System 77. d 78. b 79. b 80. b 81. c 82. a 83. c 84. d 85. b 86. c 87. a 88. c 89. b 90. b 91. c 92. a 93. a 94. b 95. a 96. a 97. a 98. a 99. c 100. d 101. d 102. b Powered by Cognero

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System 103. a 104. a 105. a 106. d 107. c 108. b 109. c 110. b 111. d 112. d 113. a 114. c 115. c 116. a 117. b 118. c 119. a 120. c 121. a 122. b 123. c 124. b 125. d 126. d 127. d Powered by Cognero

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System 128. a 129. d 130. b 131. a 132. d 133. c 134. a 135. b 136. c 137. a 138. a 139. a 140. b 141. a 142. a 143. c 144. d 145. d 146. b 147. d 148. b 149. a 150. d 151. c 152. b 153. d Powered by Cognero

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System 154. b 155. d 156. b 157. c 158. c 159. a 160. c 161. b 162. c 163. d 164. b 165. a 166. a 167. b 168. c 169. c 170. c 171. d 172. d 173. a 174. b 175. a 176. d 177. a 178. a Powered by Cognero

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System 179. c 180. d 181. c 182. b 183. b 184. a 185. d 186. d 187. b 188. c 189. b 190. a 191. choroid plexus; central canal; subarachnoid space (see Figure 2.5).

192. frontal; parietal; occipital; temporal 193. sensory (afferent); motor (efferent)

sensory; motor afferent; efferent (see Figure 2.25) 194. Sagittal; coronal; horizontal 195. cerebellum 196. sympathetic; parasympathetic 197. Answers will focus on the nerves that radiate from the spine below the cervical level, and discuss that these nerves carry motor and sensory information for all four limbs. Students will likely include discussion of Reeve as a quadriplegic, and may also explain that cranial nerves would be unaffected, since they exit above the cervical spine.

198. Answers may include the number of neurons (equivalent to the spinal cord) and the importance of gut–brain interactions in healthy and disordered behaviors.

199. This answer will typically focus on the fact that the size of the cerebellum has kept pace with the cerebral hemispheres in the course of evolution and that damage and abnormalities in the cerebellum are associated with problems with higher order cognitive and executive functioning.

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Ch 02 Functional Neuroanatomy and the Evolution of the Nervous System 200. Answer will vary, with general form of visual cortex (occipital lobe) to Wernicke’s area (temporal lobe) to Broca’s area (frontal lobe) to motor cortex.

201. This answer should discuss the survival advantage of a single brain over a series of ganglia. The one brain allows integration of information from anywhere on the body and allows for a response that involves the entire body, so escape from a threat can be more effective.

202. Students often have personal experience with this, and know that the sympathetic system will predominate, so the meal will be regurgitated. They will usually explain that sympathetic activation will suppress parasympathetic, and that the body will also eliminate the meal from the system to allow the parasympathetic system to diminish while the sympathetic system is active.

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CH 03 Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions..

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. There are many more neurons than glia in the nervous system. a. True b. False 2. Microtubules are the largest type of fibers found in the neural cytoskeleton. a. True b. False 3. Mitochondria produce proteins in the neural cell body. a. True b. False 4. Bipolar neurons have two branches leaving the cell body and are frequently found in the sensory systems of mammals. a. True b. False 5. Oligodendrocytes form the myelin sheaths in the central nervous system (CNS). a. True b. False 6. Additional action potentials can occur in response to stronger-than-normal stimulation during a neuron’s absolute refractory period. a. True b. False 7. The amount of neurotransmitter released during exocytosis is largely determined by calcium entering the presynaptic axon terminal. a. True b. False 8. Researchers have found that there is a negative correlation between the size of a synapse and its signaling strength. a. True b. False 9. Presynaptic facilitation occurs at a synapse between a presynaptic axon and a postsynaptic dendrite and leads to more frequent signaling by the postsynaptic cell. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

10. The most common type of glia in the brain is the a. astrocyte. b. oligodendrocyte.

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CH 03 Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions.. c. Schwann cell. d. microglia.

11. A structural matrix for neurons is provided by a. astrocytes. b. oligodendrocytes. c. Schwann cells. d. microglia.

12. The glia that participate in the formation of the blood–brain barrier are the a. astrocytes. b. oligodendrocytes. c. Schwann cells. d. microglia.

13. An important function of the astrocytes is to regulate the chemical environment of the synaptic gap. The ability of astrocytes to remove which of the following chemicals from the synaptic gap is especially important? a. magnesium b. potassium c. sodium d. tetrodotoxin 14. Following injury, which type of glia may actually inhibit neural regrowth by forming scar tissue? a. astrocytes b. oligodendrocytes c. Schwann cells d. microglia 15. Which type of glia may actually participate in neural communication? a. astrocytes b. oligodendrocytes c. Schwann cells d. microglia 16. Many common brain disorders, including stroke, may result in damage when the amino acid glutamate is released by damaged a. astrocytes. b. oligodendrocytes. c. Schwann cells. d. microglia.

17. Which type of glia is responsible for forming myelin in the CNS? a. astrocytes b. oligodendrocytes c. Schwann cells Powered by Cognero

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CH 03 Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions.. d. microglia 18. Which type of glia is responsible for forming myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)? a. astrocytes b. oligodendrocytes c. Schwann cells d. microglia 19. A single Schwann cell may myelinate axons from an average of how many different neurons? a. only 1 b. 2 to 5 axons c. 6 to 10 d. 15 or more 20. A single oligodendrocyte may myelinate axons from an average of how many different neurons? a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 21. Dr. Janelle notices that in some cases of multiple sclerosis (MS), one of the first symptoms is tingling or pain. Which of the following statements BEST explains why this might happen? a. The fibers of the axons are reduced in diameter, so the information can’t travel fast enough. b. Neural signaling may not work properly as a result of nervous system demyelination. c. The fibers of the axons are enlarged, slowing neural transmission. d. Potassium is not cleared from the synapse efficiently, leading to fewer action potentials.

22. Which of the following disorders is characterized by a progressive demyelination of the nervous system? a. Huntington disease b. Alzheimer disease c. multiple sclerosis (MS) d. Parkinson disease 23. A primary function of microglia is to a. digest debris. b. provide a structural matrix for neurons. c. participate in forming the blood–brain barrier. d. form myelin in the CNS. 24. Which type of glia actually helps guide the regrowth of axons following injury? a. astrocytes b. oligodendrocytes c. Schwann cells d. microglia Powered by Cognero

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25. Inflammation caused by which of the following types of glia is believed to contribute to neurodegenerative diseases, such as Alzheimer disease and Parkinson disease? a. astrocytes b. oligodendrocytes c. Schwann cells d. microglia 26. The neural cell membrane consists of a(n) a. outer layer of proteins and an inner layer of phospholipids. b. single layer of phospholipids. c. double layer of phospholipids. d. double layer of proteins.

27. “Permeability” refers to the ability of the cell’s a. axons to form connections with other neurons. b. microtubules to transport substances within the cell. c. dendrites to receive information from other neurons. d. membrane to control the movement of substances into or out of the cell.

28. Ion channels are made up of a. proteins and require energy in order to operate. b. lipids and require energy in order to operate. c. proteins and do not expend energy in order to operate. d. lipids and do not require energy in order to operate.

29. How do ion pumps differ from ion channels? a. they allow different types of ions to cross the neural membrane b. pumps respond to ligands and drugs, whereas channels respond to the electrical environment in their immediate vicinity c. channels require energy to operate, whereas pumps do not d. pumps require energy to function, whereas channels do not 30. Ion selectivity is a feature of a. both ion channels and ion pumps. b. neither ion channels nor ion pumps. c. ion channels but not ion pumps. d. ion pumps but not ion channels.

31. As much as 20 to 40 percent of the energy required by the brain is used by a. sodium-potassium pumps. b. calcium pumps. c. anterograde transport within neurons. d. retrograde transport within neurons.

32. The rapid rise in our recording of the action potential is accounted for by the slow opening of what kind of channels?

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CH 03 Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions.. a. sodium-potassium pumps b. ligand-gated channels c. voltage-dependent channels d. phospholipid pumps 33. Sodium-potassium pumps move a. potassium out of the cell and sodium into the cell. b. sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell. c. both sodium and potassium into the cell. d. both sodium and potassium out of the cell.

34. Calcium pumps differ from sodium-potassium pumps in that they a. do not require energy in order to operate. b. are rarely found in the CNS. c. do not collect another type of ion in exchange for the calcium they pump out of the cell. d. are not essential for the healthy operation of the nervous system.

35. Which are the largest of the three types of cytoskeleton fibers? a. microfilaments. b. intermediate filaments c. tau proteins. d. microtubules.

36. Abnormalities involving which type of cytoskeleton fibers have been implicated in Alzheimer disease? a. microfilaments b. intermediate filaments c. microtubules d. sodium-potassium pumps 37. Anterograde and retrograde transport within neurons occurs along a. microtubules. b. intermediate filaments. c. microfilaments. d. transport sites.

38. In a healthy brain, adjacent microtubules are connected by a. microfilaments. b. intermediate filaments. c. tau proteins. d. phospholipids.

39. In Alzheimer disease, neurofibrillary tangles result when levels of which proteins disconnect from microtubules? a. tetrodotoxin b. tau Powered by Cognero

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CH 03 Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions.. c. amyloid d. tetanospasmin 40. Many pathogens that cannot otherwise enter the nervous system because of the blood–brain barrier, such as rabies, polio, herpes simplex, and tetanus toxin, “hitchhike” via what to travel from the terminal of an axon to the brain and spinal cord? a. microfilaments b. intermediate filaments c. the retrograde transport system d. the anterograde transport system 41. Three types of what make up the neural cytoskeleton? a. neurons b. filament c. tau proteins d. microtubules 42. The most common of the cytoskeleton fibers are the a. microtubules. b. microfilaments. c. dendritic spines. d. intermediate filaments.

43. What is the primary function of the intermediate filaments? a. providing structural support for the neuron b. the transport of organelles to the end of the axon c. the transport of organelles back to the cell body d. increasing the permeability of the neuron’s cellular membrane 44. The substructure within a neuron’s cell body that contains the cell’s DNA is called the a. axon. b. dendrite. c. nucleus. d. nucleolus.

45. Ribosomes are built by the a. Ribosomes are built by the b. nucleolus. c. mitochondria. d. Golgi apparatus.

46. The organelles responsible for providing energy for the cell are the a. endoplasmic reticulum. b. nucleolus. c. mitochondria.

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CH 03 Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions.. d. Golgi apparatus.

47. Proteins produced in the cell body are packaged by the a. endoplasmic reticulum. b. nucleolus. c. mitochondria. d. Golgi apparatus.

48. Branches that receive information from other neurons are known as a. dendrites. b. ribosomes. c. mitochondria. d. cell bodies.

49. Knobs located on the dendrites that provide additional locations for synapses are known as dendritic a. spikes. b. spines. c. filopodia. d. lamellipodia.

50. A neural structure that typically carries messages to other neurons is known as a(n) a. axon. b. dendrite. c. spine. d. filopodium.

51. The initial cone-shaped segment of an axon at the junction with the cell body is known as the axon a. spine. b. spike. c. hillock. d. terminal.

52. The diameter of an axon correlates with a. the age of the organism. b. the speed of signaling in the axon. c. the number of synapses formed by the axon. d. whether or not learning has occurred.

53. Which neurons with short axons communicate primarily with adjacent cells? a. sensory b. motor c. projection d. local circuit Powered by Cognero

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54. Larger diameter axons usually transmit information a. faster than b. more slowly than c. at the same rate as d. using less energy than

smaller diameter axons.

55. The branches formed at the end of an axon that is closest to its target are known as a. spines. b. hillocks. c. collaterals. d. spikes.

56. The swelling at the end of an axon is known as an axon a. spine. b. hillock. c. collateral. d. terminal.

57. Which of the following structures are typically found within the axon terminal? a. mitochondria and synaptic vesicles b. the nucleolus and synaptic vesicles c. myelin and mitochondria d. the nucleolus and endoplasmic reticulum 58. Similar to a neuron’s cell membrane, synaptic vesicles are made of a(n) a. outer layer of proteins and an inner layer of phospholipids. b. single layer of phospholipids. c. double-lipid molecule structure. d. double layer of proteins.

59. Neurochemicals in the axon terminal are often contained within a. mitochondria. b. synaptic vesicles. c. ribosomes. d. nodes of Ranvier.

60. The uncovered section of axon membrane between two segments of myelin is known as a(n) a. axon terminal. b. axon hillock. c. collateral. d. node of Ranvier.

61. Compared with the myelin found on small diameter axons, the myelin coating axons of large diameter axons a. is of equal thickness and spacing.

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CH 03 Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions.. b. has less thickness but equal spacing. c. has equal thickness, but the nodes of Ranvier are closer together. d. is thicker, and the nodes of Ranvier are farther apart.

62. Compared with unmyelinated axons, myelinated axons a. use more energy to transmit a neural message. b. have wider nodes of Ranvier. c. have narrower nodes of Ranvier. d. use less energy to transmit a neural message.

63. Where do myelinated axons have large numbers of ion channels? a. along the entire length b. at the axon hillock and nodes of Ranvier c. only at the axon terminals d. only at the axon hillock 64. What extends from the cell body of unipolar neurons? a. one branch b. one axon and many dendrites c. two branches d. one dendrite and many axons 65. In vertebrates, unipolar cells are common in the a. cerebral cortex. b. cerebellum. c. sensory systems. d. motor systems.

66. What extends from the body of bipolar neurons? a. one branch b. one axon and many dendrites c. two branches d. one dendrite and many axons 67. Von Economo refers to a special type of what kind of neuron? a. unipolar b. bipolar c. multipolar d. sensory 68. Von Economo neurons are found in a. both invertebrates and vertebrates. b. all vertebrates but not in any invertebrates. c. all mammals but not in other types of animals.

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CH 03 Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions.. d. humans, elephants, great apes, and members of the whale family.

69. Von Economo neurons (VENs) probably participate in which of the following functions? a. assessing and performing complex social behaviors b. regulation of important body functions, including temperature, hunger, and thirst c. processing of complex visual stimuli d. reflexive motor behaviors 70. The most common structural type of neuron in the vertebrate nervous system is the a. unipolar neuron. b. bipolar neuron. c. multipolar neuron. d. interneuron.

71. What extends from the body of multipolar neurons? a. one branch b. one axon and many dendrites c. two processes d. one dendrite and many axons 72. Pyramidal cells in the cerebral cortex are examples of a. unipolar neurons. b. bipolar neurons. c. multipolar neurons. d. Purkinje cells.

73. Neurons specialized to receive information from the outside world are known as a. sensory neurons. b. motor neurons. c. multipolar neurons. d. interneurons.

74. Neurons that are specialized to transmit commands from the CNS to glands and muscles are known as a. sensory neurons. b. motor neurons. c. unipolar neurons. d. interneurons.

75. Neurons not specialized for either sensory or motor functions are known as a. sensory neurons. b. motor neurons. c. unipolar neurons. d. interneurons.

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76. The vast majority of neurons are classified as what type? a. sensory neurons. b. motor neurons. c. spinal neurons. d. interneurons.

77. Professor Badir is observing the effects of a new drug on neurons in the spinal cord that participate in reflexes by forming a bridge between incoming sensory information and outgoing motor commands. The neurons that Professor Badir is studying are most likely of what kind? a. sensory neurons b. motor neurons c. interneurons d. von Economo neurons 78. Intracellular fluid is rich in a. potassium ions. b. potassium and chloride ions. c. sodium and chloride ions. d. potassium, sodium, and chloride ions.

79. Extracellular fluid is most similar in chemical composition to a. fresh water. b. seawater. c. alcoholic beverages. d. caffeinated energy drinks.

80. Extracellular fluid is rich in a. potassium ions. b. potassium and chloride ions. c. sodium and chloride ions. d. potassium, sodium, and chloride ions.

81. A major factor contributing to the relative negativity of the neuron’s internal environment at rest is a. its large amount of sodium. b. its large amount of potassium. c. the presence of negatively charged protein ions. d. the absence of negatively charged protein ions.

82. The resting potential of a typical neuron is about a. −70mV. b. 70mV. c. −40mV. d. 40mV. 83. What does it really mean when scientists say that a neuron has a resting potential of −70mV? Powered by Cognero

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CH 03 Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions.. a. The difference between the electrical environment of the interior of the cell and the exterior of the cell is 70mV, with the interior being more negative than the exterior. b. The difference between the electrical environment of the interior of the cell and the exterior of the cell is 70mV, with the exterior being more negative than the interior. c. The interior of the cell has a charge of −70mV, whereas the exterior of the cell has a charge of +70mV, for a total difference of 140mV. d. The interior of the cell has a charge of −35mV, whereas the exterior of the cell has a charge of +35mV, for a total difference of 70mV. 84. The tendency for molecules to distribute themselves equally within a medium is known as a. osmosis. b. diffusion. c. electrostatic pressure. d. equilibrium.

85. The tendency for molecules with like charges to move apart and molecules with opposite charges to move together is known as a. osmosis. b. diffusion. c. electrostatic pressure. d. equilibrium.

86. In the resting neuron, sodium is pushed a. out of the cell by diffusion and into the cell by electrostatic pressure. b. out of the cell by electrostatic pressure and into the cell by diffusion. c. out of the cell by both electrostatic pressure and diffusion. d. into the cell by both electrostatic pressure and diffusion.

87. In the resting neuron, potassium is pushed a. out of the cell by diffusion and into the cell by electrostatic pressure. b. out of the cell by electrostatic pressure and into the cell by diffusion. c. out of the cell by both electrostatic pressure and diffusion. d. into the cell by both electrostatic pressure and diffusion.

88. In the resting cell depicted in the Figure 3.14, sodium is a. too large to pass through any channels. b. pushed into the cell by diffusion but out of the cell by electrostatic pressure. c. pushed out of the cell by diffusion but into the cell by electrostatic pressure. d. pushed into the cell by both diffusion and electrostatic pressure.

89. When potassium concentrations in the extracellular fluid are increased, the resting potential a. remains the same. b. is wiped out and no signaling occurs. c. is reduced, making signaling more likely.

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CH 03 Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions.. d. is increased, making signaling more likely.

90. The resting potential of a neuron is primarily dependent on the movement of a. sodium. b. calcium. c. chloride. d. potassium.

91. The resting potential of neurons a. is always −70mV. b. can range from −70mV to −110mV. c. can range from −40mV to −80mV. d. is always +40mV. 92. If a membrane potential changes from −70mV to −65mV, what has occurred? a. hyperpolarization b. depolarization c. an action potential d. saltatory conduction 93. Lethal injection interferes with the resting potential of cells by a. increasing the concentration of extracellular sodium. b. decreasing the concentration of extracellular sodium. c. increasing the concentration of extracellular potassium. d. decreasing the concentration of extracellular potassium.

94. The membrane potential at which an action potential is triggered is known as the a. resting potential. b. threshold. c. absolute refractory period. d. relative refractory period.

95. A neuron typically reaches threshold for an action potential when it is depolarized by at least a. 1mV to 2mV. b. 2mV to 5mV. c. 5mV to 10mV. d. 10mV to 12mV. 96. The first consequence of a neuron’s reaching threshold for an action potential is the opening of what channels that open and close rapidly? a. voltage-dependent sodium b. voltage-dependent potassium c. ligand-gated sodium d. ligand-gated potassium Powered by Cognero

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97. At the beginning of an action potential, sodium moves a. slowly into the cell, because electrostatic pressure is offset by diffusion. b. rapidly into the cell, because both electrostatic pressure and diffusion operate at the same time. c. slowly out of the cell, because as a positive ion, sodium remains attracted to the relatively negative intracellular environment. d. rapidly out of the cell, because the sodium-potassium pumps are very active.

98. The difference between the intracellular and extracellular environments at the peak of the action potential is approximately a. −70mV. b. −65mV. c. 40mV. d. 65mV. 99. If the neural membrane allowed sodium ions to move freely, the resting potential of a neuron would be approximately a. −70mV. b. −65mV. c. 10mV. d. 60mV. 100. Near the peak of the action potential, which type of ion begins to leave the cell? a. sodium b. potassium c. calcium d. magnesium 101. Compared with sodium channels involved with the action potential, potassium channels a. open more rapidly. b. open earlier. c. stay open longer. d. are inactive during action potentials.

102. If a membrane potential changes from −70mV to −75mV, what has occurred? a. hyperpolarization b. depolarization c. triggering of an action potential d. saltatory conduction 103. The hyperpolarization observed following an action potential is the result of a. potassium continuing to leave the cell. b. chloride continuing to enter the cell. c. sodium continuing to enter the cell. d. potassium returned to the cell by the sodium-potassium pumps.

104. Tetrodotoxin from puffer fish interferes with the formation of action potentials by blocking Powered by Cognero

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CH 03 Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions.. a. voltage-dependent sodium channels. b. voltage-dependent potassium channels. c. ligand-gated sodium channels. d. ligand-gated potassium channels.

105. Tetrodotoxin, the poisonous substance produced by the puffer fish, interacts with which of the following? a. sodium channels that are dependent on voltage b. calcium channels located at the axon terminal c. hydrogen channels located on postsynaptic dendrites d. potassium channels located on the axon membrane

106.106.

As seen in the picture, the relative refractory period begins approximately how many milliseconds after the beginning of the rise of the action potential? a. zero b. 1 c. 2 d. 3.5 107. A neuron is unable to produce another action potential under any circumstances during the a. absolute refractory period. b. relative refractory period. c. depolarization phase of the action potential. d. hyperpolarization phase of an action potential.

108. The absolute refractory period occurs because a. the cell is hyperpolarized, requiring a larger than normal stimulus in order to form another action potential. b. it takes time for the sodium-potassium pumps to return ion concentrations to the normal resting state. c. only one action potential at a time can travel the length of an axon.

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CH 03 Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions.. d. sodium channels cannot reopen until the membrane regains its resting potential.

109. A neuron may produce another action potential in response to larger than normal depolarization during the a. absolute refractory period. b. relative refractory period. c. depolarization phase of the action potential. d. hyperpolarization phase of an action potential.

110. The relative refractory period occurs because a. the cell is hyperpolarized, requiring a larger than normal stimulus in order to form another action potential. b. it takes time for the sodium-potassium pumps to return ion concentrations to the normal resting state. c. only one action potential at a time can travel the length of an axon. d. sodium channels cannot reopen until the cell regains its resting potential.

111. While Dr. Jackson is recording the activity of a squid axon, he finds that a larger depolarizing shock is necessary on occasion in order to produce a new action potential. What is the most likely explanation for Dr. Jackson’s observations? a. The squid axon is such an artificial laboratory preparation, it cannot be expected to respond like an axon in a living animal. b. Dr. Jackson’s second shock probably occurs during a relative refractory period. c. Dr. Jackson’s second shock probably occurs during an absolute refractory period. d. The squid axon in the laboratory does not have functioning sodium-potassium pumps.

112. A neuron’s maximum rate of firing is theoretically about how many action potentials per second? a. 200 b. 500 c. 1,000 d. 10,000 113. Technically, if an action potential were produced for the first time in the middle of an axon as a result of an experimental shock, there is no reason it couldn’t move backward toward the body. Realistically, what would likely prevent this occurrence? a. a lack of positively charged sodium and potassium ions to depolarize the previous segment b. bare spaces of axon membrane between adjacent segments of myelin c. the prior segment still in the refractory period and unable to fire d. multiple action potentials firing one after the other 114. Conduction of action potentials in a myelinated axon is referred to as a. absolute. b. relative. c. saltatory. d. slow.

115. Which of the following statements BEST describes the propagation of action potentials? a. The action potential is reproduced repeatedly down the length of the axon. b. One action potential is formed at the axon hillock, and this same signal travels down the length of the axon.

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CH 03 Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions.. c. When the axon hillock reaches threshold, action potentials are simultaneously formed down the length of the axon. d. One action potential is formed at the axon hillock, triggering the movement of chemical messengers that travel the length of the axon.

116. Compared with segments of unmyelinated axon membrane, channels at a node of Ranvier are a. about the same density. b. about half the density. c. approximately twice as dense. d. approximately 10 times as dense.

117. One of the reasons that action potentials only go in one direction, away from the cell body, is because a. the adjacent prior segment of axon is still at +40mV. b. voltage-dependent gates are limited in the frequency with which they can open. c. the adjacent prior segment is still in refractory period. d. the action potential temporarily disables the sodium-potassium pumps.

118. In a myelinated axon, action potentials are produced a. only at the axon hillock. b. only at the axon hillock and at the nodes of Ranvier. c. along the entire length of the axon membrane. d. only under segments of myelin.

119. Neurochemicals travel through the extracellular fluid and cerebrospinal fluid to influence distant cells in a process known as a. saltatory conduction. b. passive conduction. c. volume transmission. d. wiring transmission.

120. Once an action potential occurs at the axon hillock, why is it replicated at the next node of Ranvier? a. Incoming sodium ions diffuse to the next node, pushing potassium ions ahead as well, and threshold will be attained. b. The sodium-potassium pumps at the next node recapture sufficient potassium to reach threshold and trigger another action potential. c. The action potential drifts passively down the length of the entire axon. d. The occurrence of an action potential at the axon hillock attracts potassium from the adjacent node, and threshold will be attained.

121. Myelinated axons in human beings conduct action potentials about a. as fast as b. half as fast as c. 6 times faster than d. 24 times faster than Powered by Cognero

unmyelinated axons in invertebrates.

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122. In order to understand the way the brain and nervous system function, it is important to remember that a. the nervous system communicates primarily via electrical messages. b. the nervous system communicates primarily via chemical messages. c. communication in the nervous system depends on how large the action potentials are. d. communication in the nervous system is dependent on both electrical and chemical messages.

123. The gaps between cells involved in a chemical synapse are junctions. a. wider than b. smaller than c. about the same as d. in some cases wider and in some cases smaller than

gaps between cells involved in gap

124. The arrival of an action potential at the axon terminal results in the opening of what? a. voltage-dependent magnesium channels b. ligand-gated magnesium channels c. voltage-dependent calcium channels d. ligand-gated calcium channels 125. The greater the influx of calcium into the presynaptic axon terminal, the greater the a. release of neurochemicals. b. magnitude of action potential inhibition. c. amplitude of the action potential. d. rate of potassium reuptake.

126. When an action potential reaches an axon terminal, calcium a. rushes into the cell immediately, because this negatively charged ion is attracted to the now-positive environment of the axon terminal. b. rushes out of the axon terminal, because this positively charged ion is repelled by the now-positive environment of the axon terminal. c. leaves the axon terminal as the action potential recedes, because that is when the calcium channels begin to open. d. enters the axon terminal as the action potential recedes, because it is attracted by the relatively negative interior.

127. Calcium channels a. are evenly distributed down the length of the axon. b. are rare along the length of the axon but are found in large quantities on the axon terminal. c. are rare at the axon terminal but are found in large quantities down the length of the axon. d. occur on the cell body and dendrites but rarely on axons.

128. Exocytosis is the process that results in a. the generation of action potentials. b. the release of neurochemicals by the presynaptic neuron. c. reuptake of released neurotransmitter substance.

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CH 03 Neurophysiology: The Structure and Functions.. d. the interaction of a molecule of neurotransmitter and a receptor site.

129. Prior to release, synaptic vesicles are a. anchored by proteins near their release site. b. floating freely in the intracellular fluid of the axon terminal. c. fused to the membrane of the axon terminal. d. recaptured from the extracellular fluid of the synaptic gap.

130. Which of the following statements correctly describes calcium’s role in exocytosis? a. Calcium has no role in exocytosis. b. Calcium stimulates autoreceptors. c. Calcium frees synaptic vesicles from their protein anchors. d. Calcium moves neurotransmitter molecules back into synaptic vesicles.

131. What do some neuroscientists mean when they use the term kiss and run? a. The presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes actually touch or “kiss.” b. Synaptic vesicles touch or “kiss” each other inside the presynaptic terminal. c. Neurotransmitter molecules “kiss” receptors, and then return to the synaptic gap. d. Synaptic vesicles “kiss” the axon terminal membrane, releasing only a part of their contents.

132. In exocytosis, what is one possible advantage of the “kiss and run” theory as it explains the release of all neurotransmitter molecules in a vesicle? a. Signaling across the synapse is much faster. b. Fewer action potentials are needed in order to signal. c. Regaining the resting potential in the axon terminal occurs much faster. d. Neurons need fewer autoreceptors.

133. When can “kiss and run” be especially efficient? a. when neurochemicals must be broken down by special enzymes b. when the neurochemicals are not in the terminal membrane c. at gap junctions d. at synapses experiencing sustained release 134. Following exocytosis, it is important for calcium to be a. pumped out of the axon terminal. b. recaptured from the extracellular fluid. c. returned to synaptic vesicles. d. allowed to diffuse from the axon terminal back toward the cell body.

135. Protein structures located on the presynaptic neuron that monitor its activity level are called a. ionotropic receptors. b. metabotropic receptors. c. autoreceptors. d. transporter molecules.

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136. Protein structures on the postsynaptic neuron that have recognition sites located on the channel protein are known as a. ionotropic receptors. b. metabotropic receptors. c. autoreceptors. d. transporter molecules.

137. Protein structures on the postsynaptic neuron that have recognition sites on the extracellular side and G proteins on the intracellular side are known as a. ionotropic receptors. b. metabotropic receptors. c. autoreceptors. d. transporter molecules.

138. Compared with ionotropic receptors, metabotropic receptors respond more a. rapidly but with shorter-lasting effects. b. rapidly and have longer-lasting effects. c. slowly but with shorter-lasting effects. d. slowly and have longer-lasting effects.

139. Which of the following is a function that can be influenced by metabotropic receptors? a. ions passing through an ion channel b. the amount of calcium that enters a cell c. the amount of neurochemicals released d. the binding of neurochemical molecules to an ion channel 140. Which of the following statements correctly describes the influence of ionotropic and metabotropic receptors? a. Ionotropic receptors influence a small, local area of a cell, whereas metabotropic receptors can have wideranging, multiple effects on a cell. b. Metabotropic receptors influence a small, local area of a cell, whereas ionotropic receptors can have wideranging, singular effects on a cell. c. Both ionotropic and metabotropic receptors can have wide-ranging, distant effects on a cell. d. Both ionotropic and metabotropic receptors influence a small, local area of a cell.

141. The influx of calcium ions during exocytosis a. The influx of calcium ions during exocytosis b. triggers the activation of autoreceptors on the presynaptic membrane. c. causes synaptic vesicles to migrate to their release sites. d. signals the vesicles to store additional neurotransmitter molecules.

142. When chemical communication at a synapse is terminated by the recapture of neurotransmitter molecules by the presynaptic neuron, we refer to the process as a. diffusion. b. enzymatic deactivation. c. reuptake. d. second messaging.

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143. What determines the type of process used to terminate chemical communication at the synapse? a. the type of neurotransmitter involved b. the quantity of neurotransmitter involved c. the physical characteristics of the postsynaptic cell, such as being unipolar, bipolar, or multipolar d. whether the neurotransmitter molecules interacted with metabotropic or ionotropic receptors 144. Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) are similar in that both always a. are a small depolarization produced in the postsynaptic cell. b. are all or none. c. are a small hyperpolarization produced in the postsynaptic cell. d. result from the opening of chemically gated channels.

145. Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) generally result when which channels are opened? a. postsynaptic calcium b. postsynaptic sodium c. presynaptic potassium or chloride d. postsynaptic potassium or chloride 146. You will find a G protein on a. an autoreceptor. b. the intracellular side of a metabotropic receptor. c. a vesicle. d. the intracellular side of an ionotropic receptor.

147. Dr. Hunt is recording activity at the axon hillock of a neuron. In spite of significant input, no action potential has been generated. What will Dr. Hunt probably conclude about the activity of this cell? a. The current from the EPSPs and IPSPs is not reaching the axon hillock properly. b. The current produced by IPSPs is insufficient for reaching threshold at the axon hillock. c. Approximately equal amounts of excitatory and inhibitory input are canceling each other out. d. Insufficient calcium has entered the axon hillock.

148. Integration of inputs from many synapses on the postsynaptic neuron is known as a. saltatory conduction. b. the absolute refractory period. c. spatial summation. d. temporal summation.

149. What characteristic of EPSPs and IPSPs makes temporal summation possible? a. They last a longer time than action potentials. b. They are larger than action potentials. c. They produce more movement of sodium than action potentials. d. They do not have absolute refractory periods.

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150. In response to a depolarizing shock to a squid axon, what can we expect will happen? a. The exterior of the cell will become more similar to the interior of the cell. b. The interior of the cell will become more similar to the exterior of the cell. c. No neurotransmitter will be released at the synapse. d. Two or more different kinds of neurotransmitters will be released at the synapse.

151. When an axo-axonic synapse results in a decrease of neurotransmitter released by a target axon, which of the following processes has occurred? a. temporal summation b. spatial summation c. presynaptic facilitation d. presynaptic inhibition 152. When an axo-axonic synapse results in an increase of neurotransmitter released by a target axon, which of the following processes has occurred? a. temporal summation b. spatial summation c. presynaptic facilitation d. presynaptic inhibition

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

153. In Figure 3.16, the resting potential is measured at mV, and the peak of the action potential occurs at

mV, the threshold is measured at mV.

154. Refer Figure 3.14, Potassium ions (K+) are pushed

the cell by diffusion and

the cell by electrostatic pressure.

155. Refer Figure 3.23, during exocytosis,

to release from

ions enter the presynaptic terminal, causing .

156. In the disease MS, axons that were designed to be myelinated lose their myelin. What impact will this have for electrical signaling?

157. Gap junctions provide the ability to send only excitatory messages. What advantages are gained by having the ability to send both excitatory and inhibitory messages?

158. A commonly used method of lethal injection involves the injection of potassium. Explain why having too much potassium in your extracellular fluid would be fatal.

159. How are oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells similar? How are they different?

160. Differentiate between the two types of refractory periods and explain why both of these processes exist.

161. Discuss three ways the synapse can be cleared following neurotransmitter release.

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162. If you were designing communication between two neurons, would you choose to myelinate the presynaptic axon?

Why or why not?

163. What is the difference between diffusion and concentration gradient? How are each important to the process of cellular communication?

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Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. a 11. a 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. a 16. a 17. b 18. c 19. a 20. d 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. c 25. d Powered by Cognero

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26. c 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. a 31. a 32. c 33. b 34. c 35. d 36. c 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. c 41. b 42. d 43. a 44. c 45. b 46. c 47. d 48. a 49. b 50. a 51. c Powered by Cognero

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52. b 53. d 54. a 55. c 56. d 57. a 58. c 59. b 60. d 61. d 62. d 63. b 64. a 65. c 66. c 67. b 68. d 69. a 70. c 71. b 72. c 73. a 74. b 75. d 76. d Powered by Cognero

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77. c 78. a 79. b 80. d 81. c 82. a 83. a 84. b 85. c 86. d 87. a 88. d 89. b 90. d 91. c 92. b 93. c 94. b 95. c 96. a 97. b 98. c 99. d 100. b 101. c 102. a Powered by Cognero

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103. a 104. a 105. a 106. b 107. a 108. d 109. b 110. a 111. b 112. c 113. c 114. c 115. a 116. d 117. c 118. b 119. c 120. a 121. d 122. d 123. a 124. c 125. a 126. d 127. b Powered by Cognero

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128. b 129. a 130. c 131. d 132. a 133. b 134. a 135. c 136. a 137. b 138. d 139. c 140. a 141. c 142. c 143. a 144. d 145. d 146. b 147. c 148. c 149. a 150. a 151. d 152. c 153. −70; 65; +40 (approximate; see Figure 3.16) Powered by Cognero

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154. out of; into 155. calcium; synaptic vesicles; microtubules 156. The disease MS involves a progressive demyelination of the nervous system. The end result is neural signaling that may not work properly, leading to a range of symptoms from mild (increased fatigue) to more severe (vision and mobility problems) to death.

157. Although gap junctions are fast, chemical synapses have the advantage of providing a much greater variety of messages. The only type of message that can be sent at a gap junction between two neurons or muscle cells is an excitatory one. Excitation means that one cell can tell the next cell to produce an action potential. In contrast, chemical synapses allow for both excitatory and inhibitory messages to be sent. In inhibition, the next cell is told not to produce an action potential. Another major advantage of chemical synapses over gap junctions is that a very small presynaptic neuron using chemical messengers can still influence a very large postsynaptic neuron. In the case of a gap junction, it takes a very large presynaptic neuron to influence a tiny postsynaptic neuron, because the strength of the signal decreases as it moves from one cell to the next.

158. The process of lethal injection uses a combination of three drugs, administered intravenously: a barbiturate that induces coma, a muscle paralysis agent, and potassium chloride. It is the potassium chloride that actually produces death by stopping the heart, typically within 1 minute of administration. The distribution of potassium across the neural membranes (and the membranes of heart cells, too) is essential for electrical signaling. By increasing the concentration of potassium in the extracellular fluid, the resting potential of cells is increased. This depolarization inactivates sodium channels. The cell is unable to signal again until its normal resting potential is regained.

159. Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells are both types of macroglia that provide the myelin covering that insulates some axons. Oligodendrocytes form myelin in the CNS, and Schwann cells supply the myelin for the PNS. An oligodendrocyte puts out a number of branches that wrap themselves around the axons of adjacent neurons. Because a single oligodendrocyte can myelinate axons from an average of 15 different neurons, these macroglia contribute to the structural stability of the brain and spinal cord. In contrast, one Schwann cell provides a single myelin segment on a peripheral axon. It takes large numbers of Schwann cells to myelinate a peripheral nerve.

160. Once the voltage-dependent sodium channels have been activated, they cannot be opened a second time until the membrane is repolarized to nearly resting levels. This interval, in which no stimulus whatsoever can produce another action potential, is known as the absolute refractory period. While the cell is relatively hyperpolarized following an action potential, it can respond, but only to larger than normal input. We refer to this period as the relative refractory period. The refractory periods exist due to the physical limitations of the ion channels functioning to allow an action potential to occur.

161. Neurochemicals bind very briefly to receptors, after which they are released back into the synaptic gap. In the gap, neurochemicals are deactivated in three different ways. The first method is simple diffusion away from the synapse. Like any other molecule, neurochemicals diffuse away from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration. Recall, however, that the astrocytes surrounding the synapse influence the diffusion of neurochemicals away from the synapse, so there are limits to this process. In the second method for ending chemical transmission, neurochemical molecules are deactivated by enzymes in the synaptic gap. In the third process, reuptake, the presynaptic membrane uses its own set of receptors known as transporters to recapture molecules of neurochemical and return them to the interior of the axon terminal. In the terminal, the neurochemicals can be repackaged in vesicles for subsequent release.

162. Myelination of the presynaptic axon is the correct choice. The movement of an action potential along an

axon is influenced by whether the axon is myelinated. Ion channels are necessary to produce action potentials.

Numerous ion channels are located along the length of the unmyelinated axon, but in the myelinated axon, Powered by Cognero

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channels appear only at the initial segment and at the nodes of Ranvier, the bare spaces of axon membrane between adjacent segments of myelin. Myelin produces the faster, more efficient propagation of action potentials because the myelinated axon is like a leaky hose that has been patched. The patches, or myelin, prevent leakage of the sodium ions, at least until they reach a node of Ranvier. Just as water moves faster through the patched hose, so do the sodium ions move faster in the myelinated axon.

163. Diffusion (the force that moves molecules from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration) is a tendency for molecules to distribute themselves equally within a medium such as air or water. In more formal terms, diffusion pressure moves molecules along a concentration gradient from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration. During the action potential, these two forces are exceedingly important. For instance, once the sodium channels open, sodium rushes into the neuron, in part, because it moves along the concentration gradient. Once inside, the sodium will also diffuse down the length of the axon, thereby re-initiating the action potential at the next node of Ranvier.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. A neurohormone is released by neurons into the blood and travels through the blood to activate target cells that have receptors for the neurohormone. a. True b. False 2. Among the criteria for determining whether a substance acts as a neurochemical is the rule that a real neurochemical is released in response to an action potential. a. True b. False 3. Release of norepinephrine by cells in the locus coeruleus results in arousal and vigilance. a. True b. False 4. Small-molecule neurochemicals must be synthesized in the cell body, whereas neuropeptides can be synthesized anywhere in the neuron. a. True b. False 5. Endorphins are a type of neuropeptide. a. True b. False 6. Agonists always have a beneficial effect on neural activity, but antagonists are always poisonous. a. True b. False 7. Curare blocks receptors for acetylcholine (ACh). a. True b. False 8. Men and women of the same weight drinking two beverages in 1 hour will have the same blood alcohol readings. a. True b. False 9. The fact that tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) in marijuana interacts with receptors in the brain suggests that we have some type of naturally occurring substances that are chemically very similar to THC. a. True b. False 10. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) produces its effects by stimulating the release of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA). a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology 11. Neurochemicals used by neurons are signaling molecules that communicate from presynaptic to postsynaptic neurons. a. True b. False 12. Gasotransmitters like nitric oxide (NO) are never packaged into vesicles for release. a. True b. False 13. Glutamate is the most common excitatory neurochemical in the central nervous system (CNS). a. True b. False 14. While an agonist mimics the effect of the endogenous neurochemical, an antagonist can either mimic or block the normal neurochemical’s effect. a. True b. False 15. The fastest acting neurochemical receptors are ionotropic receptors. a. True b. False 16. Nicotine is an agonist for the type of ACh receptors present on muscle. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

17. Chemical messengers that act on neurons in the immediate vicinity of their release, generally at synapses, are a. neurotransmitters. b. neuromodulators. c. neurohormones. d. neuroenzymes.

18. The chemical messengers released by neurons that diffuse beyond the synapse to have their effect on surrounding neurons are called a. neurotransmitters. b. neuromodulators. c. neurohormones. d. neuroenzymes.

19. A neurochemical is released from a neuron and diffuses away to influence neurons somewhat distant from the releasing neuron. The chemical is a(n) a. neurotransmitters. b. neuromodulators. c. neurohormones.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology d. enzyme.

20. Chemical messengers released by a neuron that travels in the blood to affect other cells are called a. neurotransmitters. b. neuromodulators. c. neurohormones. d. neuroenzymes.

21. What chemical messenger is secreted by special neurons into the blood supply? a. neurotransmitters b. neuromodulators c. neurohormones d. neuroenzymes 22. Henry Dale proposed that neurons could only release one type of chemical messenger. This assertion is a. correct. b. incorrect, as some neurons can release two small molecules in different locations. c. partially correct, in that neuropeptides are never found in the same neuron as amines or amino acids. d. partially correct, as neurons nearly always release more than a dozen neurotransmitters whenever stimulated.

23. Professor Murthy is studying neurons that release a particular small-molecule neurotransmitter. In many of these neurons, the professor should expect to see a. no other types of neurotransmitters. b. a second type of small-molecule neurotransmitter. c. at least one type of neuropeptide neurotransmitter. d. at least one other type of small-molecule neurotransmitter and multiple types of neuropeptides neurotransmitters.

24. Small-molecule neurochemicals are typically synthesized in the . a. cell body; axon terminal b. axon terminal; cell body c. axon terminal; axon terminal d. cell body; cell body

, but neuropeptides are synthesized in the

25. The release of vesicles containing neuropeptides requires a. higher levels of calcium than the release of small-molecule neurochemicals. b. lower levels of calcium than the release of small-molecule neurochemicals. c. approximately equal levels of calcium as the release of small-molecule neurochemicals. d. no calcium at all.

26. Upon release into the synapse, neuropeptides differ from small-molecule transmitters as they a. cannot be deactivated by enzymes, whereas small-molecule transmitters diffuse away or are deactivated by reuptake. b. are deactivated by reuptake, whereas small-molecule transmitters diffuse away or are deactivated by enzymes.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology c. can diffuse away from synapses, whereas small-molecule transmitters are deactivated by reuptake. d. and small-molecule transmitters can be deactivated by diffusion, enzymes, or reuptake.

27. Vesicles containing a. neuropeptides are used only once, whereas vesicles containing small molecule neurochemicals are recycled. b. small molecule neurochemicals are used only once, whereas vesicles containing neuropeptides are recycles. c. some small molecule neurochemicals are recycled, while vesicles containing other types of small molecules are not. d. some neuropeptides are recycled, while vesicles containing other types of neuropeptides are not.

28. The neurochemical ACh is synthesized from a. acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA), usually found in dietary fats, and choline, a substance formed by the actions of mitochondria within cells. b. choline from dietary fats and acetyl CoA, both of which are acted on by choline acetyltransferase (ChAT) to produce ACh. c. the amino acid tyrosine, synthesized from the phenylalanine found in foods. d. tryptophan, an amino acid found in chocolate, milk, and poultry.

29. Which of the following substances is found only in neurons that produce ACh? a. choline b. acetyl CoA c. tryptophan d. ChAT 30. ACh released into the synaptic gap is deactivated primarily by a. diffusion away from the synapse. b. absorption by astrocytes. c. reuptake. d. enzymes.

31. Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) a. acts on the precursors of ACh to produce the final form of the neurochemical. b. breaks down ACh in the synaptic gap. c. acts on ACh to produce choline. d. acts on ChAT to produce ACh. 32. The neurochemical used in the vertebrate neuromuscular junction is a. dopamine. b. GABA. c. ACh. d. serotonin.

33. Neurons using which of the following neurochemicals are especially likely to deteriorate in cases of Alzheimer disease? a. dopamine.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology b. GABA. c. ACh. d. serotonin.

34. Neurons releasing ACh are found in the a. preganglionic and postganglionic synapses of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. b. preganglionic synapses of the sympathetic nervous system and both the preganglionic and postganglionic synapses of the parasympathetic nervous system. c. preganglionic synapses of the parasympathetic nervous system and both the preganglionic and postganglionic synapses of the sympathetic nervous system. d. postganglionic synapses of the sympathetic nervous system and the preganglionic synapses of the parasympathetic nervous system.

35. What processes rely on cholinergic neurons in the frontal lobes of the brain? a. regulating mood and appetite b. processing olfaction c. learning and memory d. maintaining homeostasis 36. Nicotinic receptors are sensitive to both nicotine and a. muscarine. b. norepinephrine. c. serotonin. d. ACh. 37. “Muscarinic cholinergic” is what type of receptor? a. ionotropic b. metabotropic c. nicotinic d. both ionotropic and nicotinic 38. Muscarinic receptors respond to a. muscarine, a substance found in tobacco, and ACh. b. muscarine, a substance found in Amanita mushrooms, and ACh. c. muscarine, nicotine, and ACh. d. ACh only.

39. Which of the following statements about nicotinic and muscarinic receptors is true? a. Nicotinic receptors are ionotropic, whereas muscarinic receptors are metabotropic. b. Nicotinic receptors are metabotropic, whereas muscarinic receptors are ionotropic. c. Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors are both ionotropic. d. Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors are both metabotropic.

40. Which of the following statements accurately describes the locations of muscarinic and nicotinic receptors? a. Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors are found in both the central and peripheral nervous systems.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology b. Muscarinic receptors are found in the CNS only, whereas nicotinic receptors are found in the peripheral nervous system only. c. Nicotinic receptors are found in both the central and peripheral nervous systems, whereas muscarinic receptors are found in the CNS only. d. Muscarinic receptors are found in both the central and peripheral nervous systems, whereas nicotinic receptors are found in the CNS only.

41. Jessica is worried about the impact of her smoking habit on her health. After studying biological psychology, she knows that nicotine would have an effect on a. her peripheral nervous system only. b. her central nervous system only. c. both her peripheral and central nervous systems. d. neither her peripheral nor central nervous systems, because she only smokes a couple of cigarettes with friends during weekend parties.

42. Which of the following neurochemicals is a monoamine? a. glutamate b. GABA c. ACh d. norepinephrine 43. Which of the following neurochemicals is a catecholamine? a. serotonin b. histamine c. melatonin d. norepinephrine 44. Monoamine oxidase would break down all the following neurochemicals EXCEPT a. serotonin. b. epinephrine. c. norepinephrine. d. ACh. 45. Which of the following neurochemicals is an indoleamine? a. epinephrine b. norepinephrine c. serotonin d. dopamine 46. Once released into the synapse, monoamines are deactivated in the synapse by a. reuptake. b. diffusion. c. enzymes. d. enzymes and reuptake.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology 47. Tyrosine serves as a substrate or building block for the synthesis of which of the following neurochemicals? a. ACh b. indoleamines c. histamines d. catecholamines 48. L-dopa is the precursor molecule in the synthesis of a. dopamine only. b. dopamine and epinephrine. c. dopamine and norepinephrine. d. dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine.

49. During the synthesis of the neurochemical , a precursor is released from synaptic vesicles back into the intracellular fluid for conversion by the enzyme phenylethanolamine N-methyl-transferase (PNMT). a. dopamine b. norepinephrine c. epinephrine d. serotonin 50. Which of the following neurochemicals undergoes its final synthesis step within synaptic vesicles? a. ACh b. norepinephrine c. epinephrine d. dopamine 51. What neurochemical is used in brain systems that involve motivated behaviors and reward? a. dopamine b. norepinephrine c. epinephrine d. serotonin 52. The mesostriatal pathway, also known as the nigrostriatal pathway, uses the neurochemical a. dopamine and is important in movement. b. dopamine and is important in the development of Parkinson disease. c. norepinephrine and is important in vigilance. d. serotonin and is important in mood.

53. Parkinson disease typically results from degeneration of brain systems using the neurochemical a. dopamine. b. norepinephrine. c. epinephrine. d. serotonin.

54. Which of these neurochemicals is involved with attention deficit disorder hyperactivity (ADHD)? a. serotonin Powered by Cognero

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology b. dopamine c. norepinephrine d. epinephrine 55. The primary site of norepinephrine in the brain is the a. substantia nigra; occipital lobe b. raphe nucleus; reticular activating system c. locus coeruleus; pons d. nucleus accumbens; cerebellum

, which is located in the

.

56. The mesolimbic and mesocortical dopaminergic pathways appear to be involved in what disorder? a. ADHD b. schizophrenia c. addition d. Parkinson disease 57. In posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), people often feel hypervigilant, or are unable to relax even when they’re in a very safe situation. Which of the following neurochemicals might be involved in this unusual state? a. ACh b. serotonin c. dopamine d. norepinephrine 58. Due to a very high level of stress and arousal, Kim is having difficulty getting to sleep at night. The activity of which of the following neurochemicals might be participating in Kim’s sleeping problem? a. norepinephrine b. ACh c. dopamine d. GABA 59. Adrenergic receptor subtypes are a. always ionotropic. b. always metabotropic. c. ionotropic in synapses using norepinephrine and metabotropic in synapses using epinephrine. d. ionotropic in synapses using epinephrine and metabotropic in synapses using norepinephrine.

60. Tryptophan is the precursor for synthesis of the neurochemical a. serotonin. b. dopamine. c. norepinephrine. d. epinephrine.

61. The primary location of serotonergic neurons in the brain is the a. substantia nigra. b. raphe nucleus.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology c. locus coeruleus. d. nucleus accumbens.

62. Relative to neurons using other neurochemicals, serotonergic neurons a. are quite numerous. b. are surprisingly few in number. c. project to very limited parts of the brain. d. do not have different receptor subtypes.

63. The regulation of sleep, mood, and appetite involves brain systems using the neurochemical a. serotonin. b. dopamine. c. norepinephrine. d. epinephrine.

64. In the human brain, about how many neurons use serotonin as their primary neurochemical? a. 200,000 b. 1 million c. 200 million d. 1 billion 65. The most common excitatory neurochemical in the CNS is a. serotonin. b. ACh. c. GABA. d. glutamate.

66. Excess release of which neurochemical is toxic to neurons? a. glutamate b. GABA c. dopamine d. serotonin 67. Jennifer enjoys Asian food, but carefully avoids the food additive monosodium glutamate (MSG). If she eats it by mistake, she experiences a rapid pulse, chest pain, and nausea. Jennifer’s symptoms might result from activity of which of the following neurochemicals? a. GABA b. glutamate c. serotonin d. dopamine 68. Refer Figure 4.11c, the image on the left illustrates the activation of which of the following types of receptor? a. an N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) glutamate receptor b. a kainate glutamate receptor c. a nicotinic dopamine receptor Powered by Cognero

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology d. a GABAA receptor 69. The NMDA receptor, kainate receptor, and alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methylisoxazole-4-proprionic acid (AMPA) receptor all respond to a. serotonin. b. epinephrine. c. glutamate. d. GABA. 70. Which of the following receptors is a prime candidate for having a significant role in learning at the cellular level? a. NMDA b. AMPA c. kainate d. muscarinic 71. NMDA receptors are blocked by a. sodium b. magnesium c. potassium d. calcium

ions unless the membrane is depolarized.

72. Which ion(s) pass through open NMDA receptor channels? a. chloride b. sodium and chloride c. calcium d. sodium and calcium 73. Histamine activity in the brain is typically associated with a. satiety. b. dreaming. c. drowsiness. d. alertness.

74. Glutamate can be toxic to neurons because a. NMDA receptors allow calcium into a cell, and excess calcium can stimulate harmful levels of enzyme activity. b. NMDA receptors block the movement of calcium into a cell, preventing the release of other neurochemicals. c. it blocks receptors for other types of neurochemicals, preventing effective communication between cells. d. its breakdown in the synaptic gap produces harmful free radicals.

75. The major inhibitory neurochemical of the CNS is a. glutamate. b. GABA. c. serotonin.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology d. ACh. 76. Which of the following neurochemicals is a byproduct of the energy molecule ATP? a. glycine b. GABA c. glutamate d. adenosine 77. Which of the following amino acid neurochemicals might be effective in treating insomnia? a. glycine b. GABA c. glutamate d. aspartate 78. Dr. Watts has discovered a new chemical that blocks adenosine receptors. When rats are injected with the new chemical, what is Dr. Watts likely to observe? a. The rats will fall asleep. b. The rats will be wakeful. c. The rats will be more responsive to pain than usual. d. The rats will not show any obvious changes in behavior.

79. Which of the following neuropeptides are released by the pituitary gland? a. substance P b. endorphins c. oxytocin d. cholecystokinin (CCK) 80. A neuropeptide involved with the perception of pain is a. substance P. b. CCK. c. oxytocin. d. vasopressin.

81. Endogenous morphines (endorphins) are examples of a. monoamines. b. catecholamines. c. indoleamines. d. neuropeptides.

82. Erectile dysfunction drugs such as Viagra act by increasing activity of a. substance P. b. oxytocin. c. NO. d. CCK. Powered by Cognero

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology 83. Within the brain, NO a. does not appear to play an important role in any system. b. appears to play an important role in regulating breathing and blood pressure. c. is located only in subcortical structures. d. is found in a small number of neurons in the cerebral cortex.

84. Which of the following substances is not a neuropeptide? a. oxytocin b. adenosine c. vasopressin d. insulin 85. Which of the following statements about gaseous neurochemicals is correct? a. They are contained in synaptic vesicles. b. They may transfer information from a postsynaptic neuron to a presynaptic neuron. c. They interact with receptors embedded in neural membranes. d. They are deactivated by enzymes in the synaptic gap.

86. Zoloft® is a drug that inhibits the reuptake of serotonin. This action makes this drug a(n) a. antagonist b. modulator c. agonist d. mimic

for serotonin.

87. If a drug blocks the action of AChE, the enzyme that breaks down ACh, it will serve as a(n) a. antagonist b. modulator c. agonist d. mimic

for ACh.

88. Serotonin levels increase when an individual eats what type of food? a. leafy green vegetables b. protein c. dairy products d. carbohydrates 89. Caffeine’s stimulant effects occur because it is an a. agonist for the excitatory b. antagonist for the excitatory c. agonist for the inhibitory d. antagonist for the inhibitory

neurochemical adenosine.

90. A drug that blocks the effect of a neurochemical is known as a(n) a. agonist.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology b. antagonist. c. facilitator. d. enabler.

91. Eating carbohydrates before bed may promote sleep, because carbohydrates raise brain levels of tryptophan, which a. is a serotonergic antagonist. b. is the precursor for the synthesis of serotonin. c. is a form of serotonin. d. prevents the reuptake of serotonin.

92. The drug α-methyl-p-tyrosine (AMPT) serves as a dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine antagonist by a. preventing the storage of the neurochemicals in vesicles. b. blocking the release of the neurochemicals. c. interfering with the synthesis of the neurochemicals. d. blocking the receptors for the neurochemicals.

93. Anya was born with an abnormality in her adrenal glands that results in the production of excess catecholamines.

Which of the following medications might be most useful for treating her condition? a. There is no possible way to treat Anya’s condition. b. amphetamine, because it is a potent catecholamine reuptake inhibitor c. Botox, because it will prevent the release of catecholamines d. AMPT, because it interferes with the production of catecholamines 94. Reserpine acts as a monoamine antagonist by a. preventing the reuptake of the neurochemicals into vesicles. b. blocking the release of the neurochemicals. c. interfering with the synthesis of the neurochemicals. d. blocking the receptors for the neurochemicals.

95. Jonathan is being treated for high blood pressure with the drug reserpine, which interferes with the storage of serotonin. Should Jonathan and his physician expect to see depression as a side effect of the drug? a. Yes, patients taking reserpine usually report feelings of depression. b. Yes, research has shown that depression is a common side effect of reserpine. c. No, because evidence supporting the belief that reserpine produces depression is poor. d. No, because depression has never been associated with taking reserpine.

96. Black widow spider venom acts as a(n) a. ACh agonist. b. ACh antagonist. c. dopamine agonist. d. dopamine antagonist.

97. Christina was bitten by a black widow spider while retrieving some wood for her fireplace. Her abdominal muscles began to contract painfully, which was to be expected because black widow spider venom a. inhibits release of ACh at the neuromuscular junction.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology b. competes with ACh at nicotinic receptor sites. c. promotes greater than normal release of ACh at the neuromuscular junction. d. interferes with GABA inhibition of the motor system by blocking receptors.

98. Curare causes muscle paralysis by a. interfering with the synthesis of ACh. b. preventing the release of ACh. c. blocking ACh receptors. d. blocking the action of AChE. 99. Botulinum, and its deactivated version Botox, causes muscle paralysis by a. interfering with the synthesis of ACh. b. preventing the release of ACh. c. blocking ACh receptors. d. blocking the action of AChE. 100. Stan, an aging Hollywood actor, uses Botox treatments to reduce wrinkling. These treatments work because Botox a. blocks nicotinic receptors on muscle fibers, reducing their rate of contraction. b. breaks down AChE in the synaptic gap, leading to stronger contraction of facial muscles. c. reduces the release of ACh and paralyzes facial muscles. d. increases the release of ACh and the subsequent contraction of facial muscles.

101. The term lock and key is a means to provide a visual explanation of which neuron function? a. degradation of neurochemicals by enzymes b. activation of the nerve impulse c. reuptake of neurochemicals d. action of neurochemicals on receptor sites 102. If a newly developed drug activated receptors for a neurochemical, the drug would be considered a(n) for that neurochemical. a. antagonist b. prototype c. agonist d. blocker 103. Refer Figure 4.18, in the process illustrated in this figure, which drugs act as antagonists? a. additional L-dopa, amphetamine, cocaine, and methylphenidate b. reserpine and most traditional medications used to treat schizophrenia c. cocaine, amphetamine, and methylphenidate d. apomorphine and most traditional medications used to treat schizophrenia 104. Benzodiazepines, barbiturates, and alcohol have binding sites on the a. cholinergic b. glutamate Powered by Cognero

receptor.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology c. dopaminergic d. GABAA 105. Your friend has a prescription for Valium that they take for anxiety. They have taken Valium before the party you and they are attending. When they gets to the party, you see them heading for the bar. Based on what you have learned so far in this course, which of the following would you tell them? a. You should not drink any alcohol because both alcohol and Valium act on the same system and their additive effects could be very dangerous. b. You should limit yourself to six drinks because too much of the two drugs together could make you very ill. c. Alcohol is not a drug, so there really isn’t any reason to worry as long as you don’t get drunk. d. Don’t worry, alcohol and valium act on very different neurochemicals, so a drug interaction is very unlikely.

106. Emily’s physician prescribed a benzodiazepine (Valium) to treat Emily’s ongoing problem with anxiety. Before prescribing the new medication, the physician was concerned about possible drug interactions and told Emily to be sure to avoid combining benzodiazepines and a. alcohol. b. tobacco. c. methamphetamines. d. marijuana.

107. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) produces its stimulant effects by a. promoting dopamine synthesis. b. promoting dopamine release. c. inhibiting the reuptake of dopamine. d. activating dopamine receptors.

108. Jayne’s little brother was recently prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin) for his ADHD. Having completed her biological psychology course, Jayne was able to explain to her parents that Ritalin was most similar in its actions at the synapse to a. reserpine. b. black widow venom and botulin toxin. c. nicotine and curare. d. cocaine and amphetamine.

109. Which of the following drugs act as reuptake inhibitors? a. organophosphates and reserpine b. cocaine and Prozac® c. nicotine and curare d. Botox and apomorphine 110. The antidepressant fluoxetine (Prozac) increases synaptic signaling of serotonin by a. promoting serotonin synthesis. b. enhancing serotonin release. c. inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin. d. activating serotonin receptors.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology 111. Sarin gas is a type of organophosphate. It was released in a Tokyo subway in 1995 by a religious sect, killing 12 people. Organophosphates are dangerous because they a. prevent the reuptake of ACh, reducing the amount available for subsequent signaling. b. stimulate a larger than normal release of ACh, leading to convulsions and death. c. interfere with AChE, allowing ACh to overstimulate muscle fibers. d. occupy receptor sites for ACh, preventing further signaling and paralyzing muscles.

112. The category of pesticides and biological weapons that are organophosphates exert their toxic effect at ACh synapses. Organophosphates are a. agonists that promote ACh production. b. antagonists that block ACh release. c. agonists that interfere with AChE. d. antagonists that block ACh receptors.

113. When someone takes a drug, the drug must first get into the bloodstream. Once in the blood, the size of the drug’s effect is directly related to a. the concentration of the drug in the blood supply. b. the gender of the user. c. whether the drug is an agonist or an antagonist. d. whether or not the drug is fat soluble.

114. The ingestion of toxins may trigger a vomiting reflex controlled by the a. locus coeruleus. b. area postrema. c. raphe nucleus. d. ventral tegmentum.

115. John participates in a drinking game at a friend’s weekend party and after a while finds himself vomiting uncontrollably. Which of the following statements is the BEST description of John’s situation? a. There is nothing to worry about. Everybody vomits when they drink alcohol at parties. b. John’s blood–brain barrier must be malfunctioning, as this normally would prevent the initiation of vomiting. c. John has ingested a dangerous amount of alcohol, and his area postrema has initiated vomiting in order to remove remaining alcohol from his stomach. d. John must have ingested other drugs in addition to alcohol, because alcohol alone will not initiate vomiting.

116. Javier enjoys chewing tobacco, while his friend Amy smokes cigarettes. One half hour after each has used tobacco, a. all of the effects of the nicotine will have worn off. b. they are likely to have very different levels of nicotine in their circulation, due to the different methods of administration. c. their circulating levels of nicotine will be very similar. d. Amy will need to smoke again, because cigarettes are addictive and chewing tobacco is not.

117. Lisa and her husband Cheung both weigh 160 pounds, and both consumed two beers in the last hour. What can we conclude about their blood alcohol levels?

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology a. Because they are the same weight, both should have the same blood alcohol levels. b. Neither will show any evidence of having consumed alcohol, because 1 hour is plenty of time for a 160 lb. person to metabolize the alcohol contained in two beers. c. Cheung’s blood alcohol level will probably be higher than Lisa’s, because alcohol is absorbed by fat, and women usually have more fat than men. d. Lisa’s blood alcohol level will probably be higher than Cheung’s because alcohol is diluted by muscle, and men usually have more muscle than women.

118. If someone drinking alcohol experiences a rapid heartbeat and dizziness, it is likely that they a. are typically heavy drinkers and drink for this effect. b. metabolize alcohol more rapidly than normal. c. have low levels of the liver enzyme aldehyde dehydrogenase (ALDH). d. have a genetic predisposition for alcohol abuse.

119. Karl has been told that his family produces low levels of the enzyme ALDH. Consequently, we would expect Karl to react to consuming his first alcohol a. with negative symptoms, including flushing and rapid heartbeat. b. completely normally, as ALDH affects a person’s response to nicotine, not alcohol. c. by becoming an alcoholic unusually quickly. d. by experiencing hallucinations.

120. Perceived benefits from the administration of an inactive substance are referred to as a. tolerance. b. withdrawal. c. addiction. d. placebo effects.

121. Your friend Sheena is visiting your home when she complains of a headache. You gave her a bottle that you thought had pain reliever, but it was your multivitamin container. She took one and an hour later thanked you that it worked and she is much better. Sheena a. is mistaken about the labeling of the bottle. b. is experiencing a placebo effect. c. likely never had a headache. d. still has a headache and misinformed you.

122. In a medication trial, a participant with ADHD acted very relaxed and focused after trying a new medication that they believed would calm them down. However, the “medication” was really just a sugar pill. Given what you’ve learned in this chapter, which of the following explanations makes the most sense? a. This would not have happened, because you have to have had a drug in order to feel its effects. b. This could happen because the placebo effect is real and can result in actual physical symptoms. c. The only way this could happen would be if the participant really didn’t have ADHD. d. The participant didn’t really feel relaxed and focused but didn’t want to disappoint the doctors.

123. In a double-blind experimental procedure a. both the participant and experimenter know whether the participant received a drug or a placebo.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology b. the participant, but not the experimenter, knows whether they received a drug or a placebo. c. the experimenter, but not the participant, knows whether the participant received a drug or a placebo. d. neither the participant nor the experimenter knows whether the participant received a drug or a placebo.

124. Professor Stevenson and his colleagues observed the motor behavior of children following the administration of a drink with food additives or a drink without the additives. Neither the children nor their observers knew which kind of drink each consumed. This experimental procedure is designed to control for a. placebo effects. b. tolerance. c. withdrawal. d. the likelihood that some of the children might have ADHD. 125. With repeated use of a drug, more of the drug is necessary to achieve the same effects. This demonstrates the development of a. tolerance. b. withdrawal. c. sensitization. d. cross-tolerance.

126. Tolerance develops for the use of some drugs because a. over time, the blood–brain barrier more effectively blocks the movement of the drug from the blood supply into the brain. b. more of the drug is absorbed by the body’s fat stores, leading to the need to use more to get the same effects. c. the body’s compensation for the drug cancels out its effects. d. the experienced user’s expectations cancel out the drug’s effects.

127. Cindy abuses barbiturates and she continually increases her doses. What is the likely outcome of this practice for Cindy’s health? a. She is not at risk of overdose because her body continually increases its tolerance to match her intake. b. She is very likely to overdose because some barbiturate effects show tolerance while others do not. c. She is not at risk of overdose because barbiturates do not have life-threatening effects, even at high doses. d. She is very likely to overdose because barbiturates do not produce tolerance.

128. The tendency for experienced cocaine users to undergo a drop in core body temperature while viewing paraphernalia associated with cocaine use probably results from a. changes in enzymes. b. changes in the number of receptor sites. c. changes in receptor sensitivity. d. classical conditioning.

129. Rats receiving overdoses of heroin a. were more likely to die in their home cage than in an unfamiliar cage. b. were less likely to die in their home cage than in an unfamiliar cage. c. were equally likely to die in their home cage as in an unfamiliar cage. d. all died regardless of location.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology 130. Darrell is going through withdrawal from a drug and is showing symptoms of hallucinations and seizures. The drug Darrell was using was most likely a. alcohol. b. amphetamine. c. LSD. d. marijuana.

131. Rita is going through withdrawal from a drug and is showing symptoms of lethargy. The drug Rita was using is most likely a. alcohol. b. amphetamine. c. LSD. d. marijuana.

132. Kiyoshi takes lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) several times a week. We can assume that he is a. getting a dopamine rush from the drug. b. unaware of the dangers of LSD. c. addicted to LSD. d. not addicted but is using the drug for other reasons.

133. A brain structure that appears to be involved with addiction is the a. nucleus accumbens. b. area postrema. c. locus coeruleus. d. raphe nucleus.

134. Drugs that are most likely to produce addiction have an effect on a. ACh. b. serotonin. c. dopamine. d. norepinephrine.

135. Compared with civilians suffering from addiction, returning vets from Vietnam who had used heroin while overseas had a. less success in recovering from addiction, because they used more potent forms of the drug. b. less success in recovering from addiction, due to the complications of PTSD. c. about the same rate of success in recovering from addiction. d. much more success in recovering from addiction.

136. Vaccinations against drugs of abuse a. are unlikely to be effective. b. stimulate the immune system to delay or prevent effects of the problem drug. c. provide a general protection against all drugs of abuse. d. are unlikely to interfere with pain medications and other legitimate pharmaceuticals.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology 137. Caffeine use is correlated with lower rates of a. Parkinson disease. b. Alzheimer disease. c. Huntington disease. d. multiple sclerosis.

138. An avid coffee drinker, Malisha starts each day with a double espresso. One morning she awoke late and rushed out without drinking her coffee. By noon, she began having caffeine withdrawal symptoms of a. cardiac arrhythmias. b. severe headaches. c. muscle tremors. d. lack of sleep.

139. Fuad has been a smoker for several years. Today in his psychology class, he learned that the nicotine in cigarettes produces its effects in him by a. increasing the synthesis of ACh. b. preventing the release of ACh. c. activating receptors for ACh. d. interfering with the action of AChE. 140. The alertness associated with nicotine use probably arises from nicotine’s ability to a. activate the cholinergic neurons of the basal forebrain. b. stimulate muscles. c. influence the autonomic nervous system. d. stimulate the nucleus accumbens.

141. People with diagnosed psychological disorders are more likely than the general population to use which of the following substances? a. LSD b. heroin c. ecstasy d. nicotine 142. Cocaine and amphetamine produce their stimulant actions by serving as a. serotonin b. norepinephrine c. glutamate d. dopamine

agonists.

143. Amphetamine and cocaine a. activate dopamine receptors. b. inhibit dopamine reuptake. c. activate serotonin receptors. d. inhibit serotonin reuptake.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology 144. Cocaine and amphetamine differ from one another in that a. cocaine serves as a reuptake inhibitor and amphetamine does not. b. amphetamine serves as a reuptake inhibitor and cocaine does not. c. cocaine stimulates neurochemical release and amphetamine does not. d. amphetamine stimulates neurochemical release and cocaine does not.

145. Chronic users of cocaine and amphetamine frequently show symptoms similar to a. major depressive disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. schizophrenia. d. ADHD. 146. MDMA (ecstasy) increases the user’s feelings of sociability by influencing the activity of a. serotonin and oxytocin. b. dopamine and norepinephrine. c. ACh and dopamine. d. glutamate and serotonin.

147. MDMA (ecstasy) is most similar in chemical structure to which of the following drugs? a. LSD b. methamphetamine and mescaline c. nicotine d. gamma-hydroxybutyrate (GHB) 148. Use of MDMA (ecstasy) may damage neurons using the neurochemical a. serotonin. b. dopamine. c. ACh. d. glutamate.

149. Morphine and heroin are opioids, and as such they exert their effects by a. acting as agonists on endorphin receptors. b. stimulating endorphin release. c. promoting endorphin synthesis. d. inhibiting endorphin reuptake.

150. Euphoria, lack of anxiety, and relaxation are typical effects of a. cocaine. b. ecstasy. c. phencyclidine (PCP). d. opioids.

151. OxyContin is a frequently abused drug that is in the same drug category as Powered by Cognero

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology a. heroin. b. methamphetamine. c. ecstasy. d. cocaine.

152. THC cannabinoids produce some of their effects by a. stimulating neurochemical release. b. blocking neurochemical reuptake. c. acting as an agonist at receptor sites. d. promoting neurochemical synthesis.

153. The compound anandamide is an endogenous a. opiate. b. cannabinoid. c. amphetamine. d. nicotine.

154. The negative impact of THC on memory may be due to its effect on the a. hippocampus and prefrontal cortex. b. hypothalamus. c. amygdala. d. thalamus.

155. Frequent use of which of the following drugs might increase symptoms in schizophrenia? a. tobacco b. alcohol c. marijuana d. heroin 156. LSD is structurally similar to the neurochemical a. dopamine. b. glutamate. c. serotonin. d. GABA. 157. LSD produces a. neither tolerance nor withdrawal. b. tolerance but not withdrawal. c. withdrawal but not tolerance. d. tolerance and withdrawal.

158. Alcohol probably produces its main effects by acting as an agonist at a. serotonin b. glutamate Powered by Cognero

receptors.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology c. GABAA d. dopamine 159. Alcohol’s potentially life-threatening withdrawal syndrome results from its impact on a. serotonin and norepinephrine b. NMDA and GABAA c. opiate d. dopamine 160. Memory problems associated with alcohol may result from its activity at a. GABAA b. NMDA glutamate c. opiate d. dopamine

receptors.

receptors.

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

161. Refer Figure 4.11c, in the process illustrated in this figure, the binding of neurochemical coupled with the activation of a nearby receptor leads to the ejection of a molecule of , allowing and to enter the cell.

162. Refer Figure 4.18, at the dopaminergic synapse illustrated in this figure, cocaine, amphetamine, and methylphenidate act as by reuptake.

163. When the body’s compensation for a drug cancels out most of the drug’s effects, and when the compensatory effects occur alone, occurs.

164. more distant neurons.

occurs,

are messengers that affect adjacent neurons, whereas influence travel from a neuron to their target cells through the blood supply.

165. Neuropeptides differ from that are used only once.

neurotransmitters in that they are packaged in

166. represents the body’s compensation for a drug’s effects seen in the absence of the drug itself, so the characteristics of it are the opposite of the drug’s effects.

167. People who consume moderate amounts of than people who consume none.

daily experience a relatively lower risk of

168. Alcohol produces its effects by acting on which receptor?

169. Suppose a pharmaceutical company is seeking government approval for a new ADHD stimulant medication and must show that it provides benefits above and beyond placebo effects. Explain the relevance of the placebo effect and why a double-blind study would not be a good choice.

170. Describe the action of MDMA (ecstasy) at the synapse, and relate this mode of action to the behavioral effects of the Powered by Cognero

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology drug.

171. Describe the action of LSD in the brain and relate this mode of action to the behavioral effects of the drug.

172. Small-molecule neurochemicals and neuropeptides are used by neurons in synaptic communication. But beyond the commonality of both being used in synaptic communication, there are substantial differences in how they are used.

Compare the mechanism of action and inactivation for small-molecule neurochemicals and neuropeptides, discussing duration of effect, inactivation, and other differences in these mechanisms.

173. Of the small-molecule neurochemicals, some are removed from the synapse by reuptake while others are inactivated by enzymes first. Recognizing that some molecules used in transmission have faster and briefer signals than others, discuss how you think the mechanism of inactivation plays a role in this.

174. Identified gasotransmitters include nitric oxide (NO), carbon monoxide (CO), and hydrogen sulfide (H2S).

Summarize the process of gasotransmission.

175. Clarify the relationship between caffeine and adenosine.

176. Opioids, like OxyContin, are highly addictive. Someone taking such an opioid will develop tolerance for it and increase the dosage. Recall that opioids have multiple effects with different efficacies and explain why development of tolerance can result in a life-threatening situation.

177. What type of behavioral change would you expect from a drug that is an antagonist for an inhibitory neurochemical like GABA? 178. Organophosphates are potent insecticides and nerve agents. What about their method of action makes them drugs of choice for both of these functions?

179. How do drugs like benzodiazepines, barbiturates, and ethanol relate to GABA? 180. A person who consumes alcohol and drives risks driving while impaired, while the same person who smokes marijuana and drives also risks driving while impaired. Alcohol and marijuana act on different receptors tied to different brain systems, but use of both drugs together compounds the impairment. Why is this the case if the two drugs do not act on the same systems?

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. True 17. a 18. b 19. b 20. c 21. c 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. a Powered by Cognero

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology 26. c 27. a 28. b 29. d 30. d 31. b 32. c 33. c 34. b 35. c 36. d 37. b 38. b 39. a 40. a 41. c 42. d 43. d 44. d 45. c 46. a 47. d 48. d 49. c 50. b 51. a Powered by Cognero

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology 52. b 53. a 54. b 55. c 56. b 57. d 58. a 59. b 60. a 61. b 62. b 63. a 64. a 65. d 66. a 67. b 68. a 69. c 70. a 71. b 72. d 73. d 74. a 75. b 76. d Powered by Cognero

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology 77. a 78. b 79. c 80. a 81. d 82. c 83. d 84. b 85. b 86. c 87. c 88. d 89. d 90. b 91. b 92. c 93. d 94. a 95. b 96. a 97. c 98. c 99. b 100. c 101. d 102. c Powered by Cognero

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology 103. b 104. d 105. a 106. a 107. c 108. d 109. b 110. c 111. c 112. c 113. a 114. b 115. c 116. b 117. d 118. c 119. a 120. d 121. b 122. b 123. d 124. a 125. a 126. c 127. b Powered by Cognero

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology 128. d 129. b 130. a 131. b 132. d 133. a 134. c 135. d 136. b 137. a 138. b 139. c 140. a 141. d 142. d 143. b 144. d 145. c 146. a 147. b 148. a 149. a 150. d 151. a 152. c 153. b Powered by Cognero

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology 154. a 155. c 156. c 157. b 158. c 159. b 160. b 161. magnesium; sodium; calcium 162. agonists; inhibiting 163. tolerance; withdrawal 164. Neurotransmitters; neuromodulators; Neurohormones 165. small-molecule; vesicles 166. Withdrawal 167. alcohol; death 168. GABA 169. A placebo effect occurs when the effects of a drug are influenced by the user’s expectations, experiences, and motivations. Pharmaceutical companies have to demonstrate that their medications provide real benefits and not just a placebo effect. A double-blind study, one in which neither the subjects nor the experimenter knows who is getting the placebo and who is getting the actual drug, is the standard method of distinguishing between the placebo effect and the effects of an active drug, but a double-blind study is not an effective procedure for evaluating stimulant drugs for the treatment of ADHD. The effects of such drugs, such as an increased heart rate, make it obvious who is taking the active drug.

170. MDMA affects at least three neurotransmitters: serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine, increasing their release at the synapse. MDMA has a larger effect (greater release) on serotonin and norepinephrine than dopamine. MDMA causes depletion of serotonin, contributing to negative after effects that are felt for several days. Low serotonin is associated with poor memory and depressed mood, and individuals using MDMA regularly show confusion, depression, anxiety, paranoia, and impairment of memory and attention.

171. LSD acts on serotonin receptors in the prefrontal cortex, locus coeruleus, and raphe nucleus. It produces hallucinations through an unknown mechanism, and while there is tolerance to LSD, there are not withdrawal symptoms.

However, some users experience flashbacks, which are unwanted visual hallucinations long after the person has stopped use of LSD.

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Ch 04 Psychopharmacology 172. Small-molecule neurochemicals are faster to act and faster to be inactivated or removed than neuropeptides. While small-molecule neurochemicals are used for rapid synaptic communication, neuropeptides are used for modulating synaptic communication for longer periods of time.

173. Using enzymes in the synapse to inactivate a neurochemical should provide the most rapid means to curtail a signal.

Given that acetylcholine is the fastest acting of neurotransmitters, both in onset and offset, and that acetylcholine is inactivated by enzymes in the synapse, this lends credence to the argument.

174. Gaseous molecules dissolve easily in lipids, so they do not need vesicles or a release mechanism to diffuse through membranes. They act on receptors located within cells rather than on receptors embedded in the membrane. They can even travel through one cell and influence its neighbors. Gasotransmitters break down quickly without needing the action of enzymes. In addition, they appear to transfer information from the postsynaptic neuron to the presynaptic neuron rather than the other way around.

175. Caffeine and adenosine have similar structures, and they compete at the binding sites of postsynaptic receptors for adenosine. Caffeine produces alertness by blocking the inhibitory effects of adenosine.

176. Opioids have two effects, analgesic at lower doses and suppression of respiration at higher doses. These two effects each have a sigmoidal dose-response, with the respiratory effects being only minimal at relatively high analgesic doses.

When a person develops tolerance for the analgesic effects, the response is to increase dosage. As dosage is increased, a person can find inhibitory effects on respiration. Since the respiratory effects are when there has already been suppression of pain, the individual is unaware of depressed respiration and can suffocate.

177. GABA antagonists would inhibit the action of GABA and thus produce stimulant effects. These drugs would be useful for counteracting the effect of an overdose of a sedative drug.

178. Organophosphates act on acetylcholinesterase, inhibiting its activity. Since acetylcholinesterase is what inactivates the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, the result would be to prolong acetylcholine action at the neuromuscular junction. As an insecticide, this action is toxic to insects and has widespread use in agriculture. As a nerve agent, organophosphates action of prolong acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction results in paralysis of the diaphragm and suffocation.

179. In addition to binding sites for GABA itself, the GABA receptor also contains binding sites that interact with benzodiazepines, barbiturates, and ethanol (alcohol). These drugs depress nervous system activity by increasing the inhibition produced by GABA. 180. While each drug acts through different mechanisms, they each serve to slow reaction time. A decrease in reaction time while driving is a major cause of the problem of driving under the influence.

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Joan has one APOE3 and one APOE4 allele. This means Joan is heterozygous for the APOE gene. a. True b. False 2. Females are much more likely than males to develop sex-linked disorders influenced by genes located on the X chromosome because they have two X chromosomes instead of one and therefore twice as much opportunity to experience problems with genes on those chromosomes. a. True b. False 3. Because the heritability of height is 81 percent, and the heritability of adult body mass index (BMI) is 59 percent, we can conclude that genetics play a stronger role in the development of height than BMI. a. True b. False 4. Without contact with any other embryonic cells, a mesodermal cell will differentiate into skin. a. True b. False 5. About two-thirds of the cells traveling to the developing cortex follow radial glia, and the remaining one-third move in a horizontal direction instead, without using radial glia to guide them. a. True b. False 6. Myelination of the human spinal cord and brain begins about 23 weeks following conception and is complete by the age of about 18 months. a. True b. False 7. Critical periods occur in many animals, such as the imprinting observed in geese, but have not yet been observed in humans. a. True b. False 8. Doctors recommend that those with phenylketonuria (PKU) adhere to the dietary restrictions associated with this condition throughout their lifetimes. a. True b. False 9. Healthy brain activity as we age appears to be quite independent of lifestyle, so there is little any of us can do to prevent cognitive declines. a. True b. False 10. According to the multiple reserve hypothesis, the quality of life in later adulthood is a function of people’s resources Powered by Cognero

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain that help them resist age-related loss of functioning. a. True b. False 11. An individual organism’s observable characteristics are known as the genotype. a. True b. False 12. The human genome has the greatest number of genes of all species studied to date. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

13. The human genome contains about a. 9,500 b. 19,000 c. 100,000 d. 2.5 million

protein-building genes.

14. Which of the following species have the greatest number of genes in their genome? a. plants b. flies c. yeast cells d. human beings 15. The set of genetic instructions of an organism is known as the organism’s a. telomere. b. genotype. c. phenotype. d. chromosome.

16. The observable characteristics of an organism are referred to as its a. genome. b. genotype. c. phenotype. d. chromosome.

17. Which of the following is the BEST example of a phenotype? a. Ryan has black hair. b. Jessica has an allele for type O blood from her father and one for type A blood from her mother. c. Andrew has two genes for freckles. d. Elizabeth has two copies of the APOE3 allele.

18. Which of the following is the BEST example of a genotype?

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain a. Nicole has green eyes. b. Justin is taller than his parents. c. Lauren has the same hair color as her fraternal twin sister. d. Anthony has two copies of the APOE2 allele.

19. How many chromosomes are typically present in human cells? a. 20 pairs for a total of 40 chromosomes b. 21 pairs for a total of 42 chromosomes c. 22 pairs for a total of 44 chromosomes d. 23 pairs for a total of 46 chromosomes 20. How many chromosomes do human beings receive from each parent? a. 23 b. 46 c. 21 d. 42 21. In which of the following cells would you NOT find the same deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as any of the other trillions of cells in your body? a. red blood cells b. leukocytes c. white blood cells d. basophils 22. Which of the following is the BEST definition of a gene? a. an individual’s set of observable characteristics b. a hereditary unit made of DNA that occupies a fixed location on a chromosome c. a molecule that encodes genetic information d. a sequence of three bases on the DNA molecule that encodes 1 of 20 amino acids 23. Alternative versions of a particular gene are known as a. single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs). b. imprinted genes. c. alleles. d. proteomes.

24. Brandon and Jacob are identical twins. However, Brandon had a finger damaged in an accident, so even if you couldn’t tell them apart from a distance, once you saw the finger you knew who was who. This difference is a characteristic of their a. genotypes. b. personalities. c. heterozygous chromosomes. d. phenotypes.

25. Gene expression refers to the Powered by Cognero

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain a. division of the chromosomes in half during the formation of eggs and sperm. b. passing along of genes that are located close to one another on a chromosome. c. conversion of genetic instructions into a feature of a living cell. d. imprinting of particular genes.

26. Javier and Alyssa are brother and sister, and both have O type blood. What alleles for blood type do they have? a. AB b. OO c. A d. could be AB or AO 27. An allele that produces a phenotypical trait regardless of whether or not its pair is homozygous or heterozygous is a. imprinted. b. dominant. c. recessive. d. an SNP. 28. When either a mother’s or father’s version of a gene is expressed in a cell, but not both, we refer to the gene as a. imprinted. b. dominant. c. recessive. d. an SNP. 29. Nancy and Cliff had four children who did not have cystic fibrosis, but their fifth child was born with the disease.

Cystic fibrosis is carried on a recessive gene. Given what you’ve learned in this chapter, how could this happen? a. It wasn’t until the fifth child that both parents passed on the allele for this illness. b. Recessive genes normally skip a generation, but after the parents had five children, the gene was expressed. c. Their fifth child must have been a boy, which makes it more probable that he would have the illness. d. Their fifth child must have been a girl, which makes it more probable that she would have the illness.

30. Sarah’s mother has Huntington disease, an illness that results from a dominant gene. Her father, on the other hand, does not have the illness. What is the likelihood that Sarah herself will develop the disease? a. Sarah has no chance of developing the disease, as she would have inherited a healthy allele from her father. b. Sarah has a 50 percent chance of developing the disease, as her mother could have given her either a healthy allele or an allele that produces the illness. c. Sarah has a 50 percent chance of developing the disease, because her mother would not have the disease herself unless she was homozygous for Huntington disease. d. Sarah has a 25 percent chance of developing the disease, because her father could be a carrier.

31. Cystic fibrosis is a fatal lung condition that results from a recessive gene. If one parent is a healthy carrier for the condition while the other is not a carrier, what is the likely outcome for any children they might have? a. The children will be heterozygous for cystic fibrosis, and all will develop the disease. b. Fifty percent of their children will develop the disease, and the other 50 percent will be carriers. c. None of the children will have the disease, and none will be carriers. d. None of the children will have the disease, but each child has a 50 percent chance of being a carrier.

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain 32. What does it mean when we say that heritability is zero? a. Genes play no part in producing phenotypical differences between individuals. b. A particular characteristic in an individual is purely the result of environment, with no genes involved. c. A father and mother each pass on the healthy allele instead of a mutation, so the mutation is not passed down. d. The environment in a population is constant, so that everyone is treated exactly the same way.

33. The a. proteome b. tripheme c. ribosome d. codon

is a group of three consecutive bases in a gene that codes for one amino acid in a protein.

34. What causes Huntington disease? a. receiving two recessive genes b. long-term exposure to environmental toxins c. the large number of codon repeats in the huntingtin gene d. the fact that there are no codon repeats in the huntingtin gene 35. Differences resulting from the deletion, insertion, or duplication of sections of DNA are known as a. copy number variations (CNVs). b. single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs). c. imprinting. d. X inactivation.

36. In cases of partial dominance, a heterozygous offspring of two homozygous parents will have a. a phenotype similar to the parent with dominant alleles. b. a phenotype similar to the parent with recessive alleles. c. phenotypes from both parents. d. a phenotype midway between the phenotypes of the homozygous parents.

37. A single human can produce eggs or sperm with more than a. 800 b. 8,000 c. 800,000 d. 8,000,000

different combinations of their chromosomes.

38. The passing along of genes that are physically close to one another on the same chromosome is known as a. linkage. b. crossing over. c. meiosis. d. gene expression.

39. During meiosis, the process where chromosomes exchange equivalent sections of genetic material is called Powered by Cognero

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain a. linkage. b. crossing over. c. meiosis. d. gene expression.

40. You were recently introduced to your roommate’s sibling. To your surprise, even though the siblings are the same sex, they look nothing alike. Which of the following is the BEST explanation of this situation? a. They must have different parents, as genetic inheritance ensures that they share a significant number of genes. b. Although they started out very similar genetically, their genotypes have changed during development to make them look very different. c. Given the number of different combinations of genes possible during reproduction, it may be that the two siblings don’t really share many alleles. d. One has expressed only recessive genes, while the other has not.

41.

of the genes found on the X chromosome are duplicated on the Y chromosome. a. All b. None c. Most d. Some

42. A characteristic that results from genes on the X chromosome that are not duplicated on the Y chromosomes is referred to as being a. recessive. b. mutated. c. an SNP. d. sex-linked.

43. Red-green color deficiency is due to a recessive gene on the X chromosome. Women can be carriers or have color deficiency, and men are either color deficient or not. If an unaffected male and a female who is a carrier have children, what is your prediction as to the color deficiency status of their children? a. Half of the couple’s daughters, but none of their sons, are likely to have red-green color deficiency. b. Half of the couple’s sons, but none of their daughters, are likely to have red-green color deficiency. c. None of the couple’s children are likely to have red-green color deficiency. d. All of the couple’s children are likely to have red-green color deficiency.

44. A mutation of a person’s DNA a. always has negative outcomes. b. always has positive outcomes. c. can have positive, negative, or neutral outcomes. d. has neither positive nor negative outcomes, because they are always recessive.

45. The presence of a recessive allele can a. only be expressed when paired with a matching allele. b. influence a genotype but not a phenotype. c. influence the phenotype of female children but not male children.

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain d. influence a phenotype when it occurs in chromosome pairs or on the X chromosome of a male.

46. Queen Victoria of England had a son, Leopold, and a great-grandson, Tsarevich Alexei Nikolaevich Romanov of Russia, both of whom had hemophilia. We can conclude that a. Queen Victoria must have had hemophilia, too. b. Queen Victoria was a carrier for hemophilia. c. Queen Victoria’s husband, Prince Albert, must have been a carrier. d. Leopold and Tsarevich Alexei probably developed hemophilia due to a spontaneous mutation, because their female relatives did not have the condition.

47. Tom’s father has hemophilia, but Tom does not have the disease. What are the chances that Tom’s children will have hemophilia? a. Tom’s sons will almost certainly have it because Tom will have inherited the recessive gene from his father. b. Tom’s daughters may be carriers, but his sons will not have the gene. c. All of Tom’s children will be carriers, but it will not be expressed until they have children. d. None of Tom’s children will be carriers or have the illness because his X gene came from his mother, who is not a carrier.

48. A process that prevents the production of much higher amounts of protein in females than in males is known as a. X inactivation. b. imprinting. c. crossing over. d. linkage.

49. Calico cats have splotches of colors of fur arrayed on them, with the color being determined by different alleles of an X chromosome gene. Calico cats a. can be male or female. b. are almost always male, because the calico condition is sex-linked. c. are always female, because the calico condition results from x-inactivation. d. are the result of spontaneous mutations that do not affect the sex chromosomes.

50. Extreme skewing in x-inactivation has been linked with which of the following characteristics in offspring? a. hemophilia b. colorblindness c. Alzheimer disease d. autoimmune diseases 51. When variations in a single base are responsible for the difference between two alleles, the resulting condition is known as a. X inactivation. b. an imprinted gene. c. an SNP. d. a mutation.

52. Different versions of the APOE gene are correlated with the development of Powered by Cognero

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain a. hemophilia. b. color deficiency. c. breast cancer. d. Alzheimer disease.

53. Research has shown that a person’s height is about 81 percent heritable, whereas their BMI is about 59 percent heritable. Which of the following is the most accurate interpretation of these findings? a. The variability we see in a population’s height is more influenced by genetic factors than the variability we see in the population’s weight. b. Environmental factors account for only 19 percent of a person’s height and 41 percent of a person’s BMI. c. We cannot make any conclusions about genetic contributions to either height or weight. d. Knowing the relative genetic contributions to traits such as height or weight does not allow us to compare these two unrelated characteristics of people.

54. Kyle plants a group of seeds in a pot of enriched soil and provides all the seeds with identical temperature, lighting, and water. When his plants are mature, he notices that they are quite different in height. Which of the following is the BEST conclusion Kyle could draw from his observations? a. The differences in the height of his plants are due to equal contributions of environmental and genetic variables. b. Holding the plants’ environment constant has magnified the influence of genetic differences on the height of the plants. c. Genetic variables are more influential than environmental variables in determining the height of Kyle’s plants. d. Kyle lacks sufficient information to draw any scientific conclusions from his observations.

55. In their study of the heritability of autistic traits among Dutch teens, Rosa Hoekstra and her colleagues were careful to choose participants from a variety of backgrounds and circumstances. Why is careful sampling especially important to studies of heritability? a. The effects of genetics are most obvious in populations that exclude extreme environmental conditions, such as affluent or very poor families. b. Environmental influences are magnified in extreme environmental conditions, such as among affluent or very poor families. c. Extremes of environmental conditions, such as affluent or very poor families, tend to magnify the influence of genetics. d. These precautions are really not relevant, because heritability cannot be assessed experimentally.

56. Compared with non-twin siblings, fraternal twins a. experience the same level of genetic and environmental influence. b. have more genes in common. c. have fewer environmental influences in common. d. have more environmental influences in common.

57. The Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart found support for which of the following conclusions? a. Identical twins are very similar to each other on a number of traits, regardless of whether the correlation for any particular trait was high or low. b. Identical twins raised together are very similar to each other on a number of traits, but identical twins raised apart are not.

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain c. Identical twins are very similar on traits that are highly correlated, like fingerprint ridges, but not similar to each other on traits that are not highly correlated, like nonreligious social attitudes. d. Identical twins are no more similar to each other on highly correlated traits than fraternal twins and non-twin siblings.

58. Elena and Gabriella are identical twins who were raised together, and Nicole and Kayla are identical twins who were adopted by different families at birth. Based on the findings of the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart, what can we expect to see as these girls grow up? a. Elena and Gabriella will have more similar nonreligious social attitudes than Nicole and Kayla. b. Elena and Gabriella will show about the same similarities in their nonreligious social attitudes as Nicole and Kayla. c. Elena and Gabriella will show less similarity in their nonreligious social attitudes than will Nicole and Kayla. d. None of the twins will share any substantial similarities in nonreligious social attitudes with their twin.

59. In the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart, identical twins were found to be a. very similar in all characteristics studied, regardless of whether they were raised together or apart. b. similar in some characteristics studied, but not all, regardless of whether they were raised together or apart. c. similar in all characteristics studied only if they were raised together. d. similar in some characteristics studied, but not all, only if they were raised together.

60. Two important processes that produce lasting but reversible changes in gene expression are histone modification and . a. imprinting b. crossing-over c. x-linked gene mapping suppression d. DNA methylation 61. A(n) a. zygote b. embryo c. blastocyst d. fetus

is a fertilized egg during the first 2 weeks of a pregnancy.

62. During weeks 3 to 8 of a pregnancy, the developing organism is called a(n) a. zygote. b. embryo. c. blastocyst. d. fetus.

63. In human development, the nervous system develops from which germ layer? a. the endoderm b. the mesoderm c. the ectoderm d. the blastoderm Powered by Cognero

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain 64. In human development, which germ layer gives rise to the muscles, connective tissue, and bone and blood vessels? a. the endoderm b. the mesoderm c. the ectoderm d. the blastoderm 65. In human development, which layer develops into most of the internal organs? a. the endoderm b. the mesoderm c. the ectoderm d. the blastoderm 66. The neural plate develops along the a. dorsal; ectoderm b. dorsal; mesoderm c. ventral; ectoderm d. ventral; endoderm

midline from cells in the

.

67. Cells from the ectoderm of the developing embryo that do not develop into nervous tissue develop into a. muscle and bone. b. connective tissue. c. skin. d. internal organs.

68. The interior of the neural tube will be retained in the adult brain as the a. forebrain. b. ventricles and central canal of the spinal cord. c. hindbrain. d. corpus callosum.

69. During which stage of development do new neurons form connections with other neurons? a. neurogenesis b. migration c. synaptogenesis d. differentiation 70. Cells that develop into neurons and glia originate in the a. ventricular zone. b. radial glia. c. forebrain. d. spinal cord.

71. Progenitor cells that divide to produce another progenitor cell and a migrating cell divide along a cleavage line that is to the surface of the zone. a. perpendicular; dorsal Powered by Cognero

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain b. parallel; ventricular c. perpendicular; dorsolateral d. parallel; caudal 72. New cells formed at the ventricular zone begin to migrate after the a. 7th day b. 7th week c. 5th month d. 7th month

following conception.

73. At the peak of neurogenesis in humans, about how many new neural cells are produced per minute? a. 10,000 b. 75,000 c. 250,000 d. 500,000 74. During migration, most neurons are guided to their ultimate location by special progenitor cells known as a. mitochondria. b. radial glia. c. oligodendrocytes. d. synapses.

75. Which of the following statements about radial glia is true? a. Some degenerate when migration is complete. b. Some differentiate into astrocytes. c. Some retain the ability to divide. d. Some differentiate into neurons.

76. Figure 5.16 illustrates which of the following processes?

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain

a. Migrating cells follow radial glia from the ventricular zone to the developing cortex. b. Progenitor cells located in the ventricular zone produce daughter cells that remain in the ventricular zone or migrate. c. Developing axons adhere to cell adhesion chemicals on the surface of other cells en route to forming synapses with target cells. d. Guidepost cells release chemicals that either attract or repel growing axons.

77. Cells in the outer layers of the cerebral cortex are the journey to their final destination. a. first; shortest b. first; longest c. last; shortest d. last; longest

to begin migrating, and they have the

78. Organization of the ventral neural tube into a motor system is primarily the result of a. differentiation-inducing factors. b. apoptosis. c. Hox genes. d. guidepost cells.

79. Before neural tube closure is complete at the end of gestational week 4, what three bulges appear that will become Powered by Cognero

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain parts of the brain? a. the telencephalon, diencephalon, and myelencephalon b. the telencephalon, diencephalon, and metencephalon c. the prosencephalon, diencephalon, and myelencephalon d. the prosencephalon, the mesencephalon, and the rhombencephalon 80. Which one of the following can cause microcephaly, an unusually small brain, by destroying progenitor cells? a. prenatal high fever in the mother b. viral infections c. high fever in an infant younger than 1 month old d. bacterial infections 81. Twelve-year-old Tomás has a smaller head circumference and less gray matter than he should. What likely caused his condition? a. contracting German measles as an infant b. exposure to environmental toxins as an infant c. prenatal exposure to multiple drugs d. prenatal exposure to German measles in mother 82. A growth cone for a developing neuron is a. a structure that influences neighboring cells in differentiation. b. an attractant chemical that guides axon growth and inhibits meiosis. c. a death gene that is expressed when a cell “decides” to die, leading to the formation of exact replacements for that cell. d. the swollen end of an axon or dendrite that facilitates the branching structure to reach its synaptic target.

83.

are long, fingerlike extensions extending out from a growth cone. a. Microtubules b. Filopodia c. Lamellipodia d. Cell adhesion molecules

84.

are flat, sheetlike extensions that arise from growth cones. a. Microtubules b. Filopodia c. Lamellipodia d. Cell adhesion molecules

85. A guidepost cell is one that a. repels all advancing growth cones. b. attracts all advancing growth cones. c. can repel or attract advancing growth cones. d. forms cell adhesion molecules.

86. Axons growing toward the optic chiasm are directed contralaterally or ipsilaterally by Powered by Cognero

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain a. cell adhesion molecules. b. guidepost cells. c. sonic hedgehog. d. radial glia.

87. Neurites growing in the same direction often experience a. fasciculation. b. apoptosis. c. anterograde degeneration. d. retrograde degeneration.

88. What role do astrocytes have in synapse formation? a. They increase the number of synapses formed by a neuron. b. They decrease the number of synapses formed by a neuron. c. They determine which neurochemical the presynaptic cell will use. d. They determine what kind of receptors will be on the postsynaptic cell.

89.

is programmed cell death. a. Fasciculation b. Apoptosis c. Anterograde degeneration d. Retrograde degeneration

90. It is that protect(s) a cell from apoptosis. a. cell adhesion molecules b. inducing protein c. neurotrophins d. sonic hedgehog 91. Nerve growth factor (NGF) is a type of a. cell adhesion molecule. b. guidepost cell. c. inducing factor. d. neurotrophin.

92. Activation of a. caspases b. neurotrophins c. sonic hedgehog d. inducing proteins

is the mechanism of programmed cell death, or apoptosis.

93. Neurotrophins prevent apoptosis by inhibiting the activity of a. caspases. b. neurotrophins.

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain c. sonic hedgehog. d. inducing proteins.

94. Genes that trigger cell death do so by a. stimulating sonic hedgehog. b. activating caspases. c. producing NGF. d. inhibiting caspases.

95. Children with higher than normal concentrations of neurotrophins may have a. schizophrenia. b. an autism spectrum disorder (ASD). c. bipolar disorder. d. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

96. If a child is born with higher than normal concentrations of neurotrophins, we can assume that a. no significant changes in brain development will occur. b. the child will have an unusually high IQ. c. the child’s brain will experience greater than normal apoptosis. d. the child’s brain will experience less than normal apoptosis.

97. During brain development, in addition to axons growing out to make new synaptic contacts, synaptic pruning can occur. Synaptic pruning a. is a normal part of brain development. b. is associated with mental retardation and results in too few connections. c. results from insufficient amounts of neurotrophins. d. results from excess amounts of neurotrophins.

98. During the development of your 4-year-old nephew’s brain, a number of neurons died and many synapses were pruned. As a result, when he is older, he will a. suffer from intellectual disability. b. probably be totally normal. c. not be able to learn to talk. d. have normal speech, but his intellectual functioning will be lower than normal.

99. Experience strengthens existing synapses when a. pre- and postsynaptic neurons are simultaneously active. b. activity of the pre- and postsynaptic neurons is not synchronized. c. activity in the postsynaptic neuron precedes activity in the presynaptic neuron. d. the pre- and postsynaptic neurons use the same neurotransmitter substances.

100. What is the order of central nervous system (CNS) myelination, from its start to its completion? a. forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain, spinal cord b. hindbrain, midbrain, forebrain, spinal cord c. spinal cord, forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain Powered by Cognero

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain d. spinal cord, hindbrain, midbrain, forebrain 101. Genie was not exposed to language or speech until she was nearly 14 years old, and despite training by linguistic experts, she was never able to learn the rules of English grammar. Genie’s inability to learn to speak demonstrates the existence of a. insufficient myelination. b. critical periods. c. social inhibition. d. brain plasticity.

102. In humans, myelination is not complete until a. the beginning of the fetal period of prenatal development. b. birth. c. 2 years of age. d. early adulthood.

103. Completion of myelination in the CNS a. does not have observable behavioral effects, as the process is completed before birth in humans. b. might account for the ability of children to learn to read and write. c. coincides with the onset of puberty and children’s ability to think in abstract terms. d. might account for superior decision-making in adults compared to teens.

104. In the forebrain, myelination proceeds a. simultaneously from inferior to superior and from posterior to anterior. b. simultaneously from superior to inferior and from anterior to posterior. c. first from posterior to anterior, then from inferior to superior. d. first from inferior to posterior, then from anterior to posterior.

105. The term Hebb synapse is used to refer to a synapse that a. has been pruned. b. has not fully matured. c. participates in vision. d. has been strengthened by simultaneous activity.

106. Which of the following processes experiences a critical window? a. singing b. reading c. vision d. mathematical reasoning 107. Hubel and Wiesel’s research with vision in kittens demonstrated that experience has organization of the visual cortex . a. no; during the critical period b. substantial; during the critical period c. substantial; throughout life Powered by Cognero

effects on the

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain d. no; throughout life 108. One-year-old Joey’s eyes have been crossing whenever he tries to focus on anything close to him. The doctor has told his parents that he has to have glasses immediately and wear them whenever he is awake. Why would the doctor say that? a. Joey has to get used to wearing glasses as a child in order to wear them later in life. b. Joey has to wear glasses now so that he won’t have to wear them later in life. c. Joey’s eyesight is still developing, and if he doesn’t wear glasses during this critical period, his vision could be permanently affected. d. Joey’s doctor is probably an alarmist, and it really isn’t that important.

109. According to research by Elenor Ames, Romanian orphans showed optimum recovery from early childhood deprivation when they were adopted prior to the age of a. 6 months. b. 1 year. c. 3 years. d. 6 years.

110. When critical periods end, the brain increases in plasticity. What causes this to happen? a. greater neurotrophic activity b. greater presence of caspases c. anterograde degeneration d. an absence of cell adhesion molecules 111. Studies have indicated that when the myelination of language areas finishes, this marks a. the beginning of a period of enhanced language learning, as the brain is now mature enough to manage this new type of input. b. that a child will be mentally retarded, as learning will be adversely impacted. c. the onset of adulthood. d. the end of a critical period for language learning.

112. When the caudal part of the neural tube fails to close, what disorder typically results? a. anencephaly b. Down syndrome c. Williams syndrome d. spina bifida 113. When the rostral part of the neural tube fails to close, what disorder typically results? a. anencephaly b. Down syndrome c. Williams syndrome d. spina bifida 114. Disjunction of the 21st chromosome that can lead to Down syndrome has been found to be related in most cases to a. paternal age.

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain b. maternal age. c. multiple codon repeats on the X chromosome. d. the inability to metabolize phenylalanine.

115. Fragile-X syndrome usually occurs as a result of a. paternal age. b. maternal age. c. unusually high codon repeats on the X chromosome. d. the inability to metabolize phenylalanine.

116. In which of the following conditions can the failure to follow a carefully prescribed diet result in intellectual disability? a. Williams syndrome b. Alzheimer disease c. fragile-X syndrome d. PKU 117. The leading known nongenetic cause of intellectual disability is a. alcohol use by pregnant women. b. marijuana use by the partner of a pregnant woman. c. prenatal exposure to lead-based paints. d. environmental asbestos exposure during pregnancy.

118. In a study of mothers who used combinations of alcohol, marijuana, and cocaine during pregnancy, it was found that they produced children who a. could not be distinguished from those produced by mothers who used alcohol only. b. had less gray matter than other children for the first few weeks of life, but who were subsequently quite normal. c. had less white matter than other children. d. had less gray matter than other children at least until age of 10–13 years.

119. Twelve-year-old Heather has a smaller head circumference and less gray matter thickness than typical children of her same age, sex, and size. It is most likely that a. Heather’s mother used alcohol or other drugs during her pregnancy. b. Heather’s mother has PKU. c. Heather has PKU. d. Heather has fragile-X syndrome.

120. Cortical thickening peaks around the age of a. 18 months. b. 11–12 years. c. 18–25 years. d. 45 years.

121. The human brain is considered mature during which developmental period?

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain a. early childhood b. adolescence c. late childhood d. early adulthood 122. Studies of schizophrenia indicate that this condition correlates with a. increased cortical thickening during young adulthood. b. increased cortical thickening during adolescence. c. abnormally large amounts of cortical thinning during young adulthood. d. abnormally large amounts of cortical thinning during adolescence.

123. Brain size begins to decline significantly in humans at about the age of a. 20 b. 45 c. 65 d. 80

years.

124. An individuals’ risk for developing Alzheimer disease has been found to be adult mental activity. a. negatively correlated with b. positively correlated with c. caused by d. unrelated to

educational attainment and

125. Compared to those with neurodegenerative conditions like Alzheimer disease, healthy older adults show a. no changes in pathways associated with memory. b. no changes in any pathways. c. changes of the same magnitude, but in different pathways. d. changes in the same pathways.

126. Neurogenesis in adulthood a. does not appear to occur in humans. b. may protect the brain from the effects of stress. c. only occurs in telomeres, the tips at the end of chromosomes. d. is negatively correlated with levels of physical activity.

127. Aging is associated with reduced rates of neurogenesis in the a. hypothalamus b. amygdala c. visual cortex d. hippocampus 128. Some studies indicate that a. cellular migration Powered by Cognero

in a wide range of mammalian species.

may protect the brain from the effects of stress.

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain b. synaptic pruning c. increased levels of neurotrophins d. adult neurogenesis 129. Which of the following substances appears to enhance adult neurogenesis in rats? a. antidepressant medications b. sonic hedgehog c. alcohol d. marijuana 130. According to the resources a person develops. a. multiple reserve b. synaptic pruning c. sundowning d. anterograde bracing

hypothesis, age-related decreases in brain function may be offset by cognitive

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

131. In Figure 5.16, in the zone begin to produce a daughter cell that remains in the zone and a daughter cell that is destined to migrate outward to the adjacent subventricular zone.

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain 132. As the developing axon grows toward its target, it may stick to (a), by following other axons (b), or be influenced by chemicals released by (c and d).

on the surface of other cells

(Figure 5.19) 133. Boxes a to d in this figure illustrate several influences on growing axons that help them reach their target cells.

Briefly describe the process illustrated in each box.

a. b. c. d.

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

134. Imprinted genes do not follow the rules of a. crossing over b. nondisjunction c. heredity d. dominance 135.

, as only one allele is expressed.

occurs when one X chromosome from a pair in a female’s cell is silenced during development. a. X chromosome inactivation b. X chromosome activation c. Crossing over d. Nondisjunction

136. Apoptosis occurs when a cell dies because of Powered by Cognero

.

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain a. encroachment by other cells b. lack of nutrition c. a programmed death d. an injury

137. Rosa Hoekstra and her colleagues (2007, p. 372) reported that “individual differences in endorsement on autistic traits show substantial heritability (57%).” Define heritability, and discuss the proper use of the concept and the implications of Hoekstra et al.’s statement.

138. Summarize the major events that occur in synaptogenesis.

139. What is a “Hebb synapse,” and how does this concept help us understand the segregation between input from each eye in the lateral geniculate nucleus of the adult animal?

140. Neurogenesis is now known to occur throughout life, though at different rates. Describe possible benefits of adult neurogenesis.

141. Spina bifida is a neurological disease that is correlated with a maternal vitamin deficiency. What is the cause of spina bifida and how is it manifested in a child?

142. Critical periods have been observed for many developmental steps in brain development, from language acquisition to vision. Explain the processes that are believed to end a critical period.

143. Programmed cell death, or apoptosis, occurs when specific genes are activated. Explain which genes are activated for apoptosis, what they express, and what these expressed proteins do. Additionally, explain what can prevent apoptosis even when the genes are activated.

144. Describe the development of the neural tube into bulges or vesicles.

145. The neural tube of the developing embryo gives rise to the nervous system. There is a dorsal-ventral difference in differentiation of the neural tube. Explain which aspects of the nervous system arise from the dorsal and ventral portions.

146. Many people adopt children, and studies indicate that there are similarities among adoptive families. Some researchers are concerned that these similarities will enhance genetic differences among adopted children, and thus impact the results of adoption studies. What impact may be expected by adoptive family similarity and why would this affect studies that compare environmental and genetic influences?

147. While males have one X chromosome, women have two. Women, however, have X chromosome inactivation, resulting in genes from only one of their X chromosomes being used. What advantage does this have? Using calico cats as a reference, explain when X chromosome inactivation may take place and what impact it has on the adult organism.

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. False 13. b 14. a 15. b 16. c 17. a 18. d 19. d 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. c 24. d 25. c Powered by Cognero

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain 26. a 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. b 31. d 32. a 33. d 34. c 35. a 36. d 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. c 41. d 42. d 43. b 44. c 45. d 46. b 47. d 48. a 49. c 50. d 51. c Powered by Cognero

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain 52. d 53. a 54. b 55. c 56. d 57. a 58. a 59. b 60. d 61. a 62. b 63. c 64. b 65. a 66. a 67. c 68. b 69. c 70. a 71. b 72. b 73. c 74. b 75. c 76. b Powered by Cognero

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain 77. d 78. a 79. d 80. b 81. c 82. d 83. b 84. c 85. c 86. b 87. a 88. a 89. b 90. c 91. d 92. a 93. a 94. b 95. b 96. d 97. a 98. b 99. a 100. d 101. b 102. d Powered by Cognero

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain 103. d 104. a 105. d 106. c 107. b 108. c 109. a 110. a 111. d 112. d 113. a 114. b 115. c 116. d 117. a 118. d 119. a 120. b 121. d 122. d 123. b 124. a 125. d 126. b 127. d Powered by Cognero

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain 128. d 129. a 130. a 131. radial glia; ventricular 132. cell adhesion molecules (CAMs); fasciculate; guidepost cells

cell adhesion molecules, fasciculate, guidepost cells CAMs, fasciculate, guidepost cells 133. Refer to Figure 5.19.

Cell adhesion molecules (CAMs) cause the neurites to stick together as they proceed in the same direction.Growth cones respond to the extracellular environment by fasciculation, sticking to the axons of other neurites traveling in the same direction.In chart (c), they are growing toward attractants released by guidepost cells.In chart (d), the are growing away from repulsive chemicals released by guidepost cells.

134. d 135. a 136. c 137. Heritability of traits is the from the observation that phenotypes are determined by genotypes, and it is the genotypes that are genetically passed along to progeny. In the case of heritability of autism, Hoekstra found by looking at twin studies that a propensity for autism seems to be genetically determined, and thus autism had a large heritability.

138. Synapse formation involves an initial contact between an axon terminal and a dendrite. This contact develops into an early synapse, and signals may cross it. If regular signaling occurs, this synapse matures, and if signals do not regularly occur, then this synapse will apoptose. Apoptosis is the synaptic pruning that eliminates unneeded synaptic connections.

139. Hebb is the scientist who first postulated that there are changes in the physical structure of a synapse that occur with use. The more synaptic signaling across a synapse, the larger the synapse grows and more neurotransmitter it releases, and onto more post-synaptic receptors. Studies have shown this is how systems develop, where use of a pathway strengthens that pathway.

140. While neurogenesis in adulthood involves many fewer cells when compared to prenatal and early childhood development, the process is believed to be essential to learning, memory, and stress protection.

141. Spina bifida is a condition that arises from failure of the caudal neural tube to close. Most individuals with this condition experience difficulty walking. A major cause of spina bifida is believed to be inadequate maternal intake of folic acid during pregnancy.

142. While the precise reason why a critical period ends is unclear, it may occur due to changes in the availability of neurotrophins, or it may be the conclusion of myelination of a particular system like the language areas of the brain.

143. Apoptosis, or programmed cell death, occurs when cell death genes are activated and caspases are expressed. These enzymes destroy DNA and other proteins essential to cell life. Apoptosis can be prevented when a cell obtains sufficient Powered by Cognero

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CH 05 Genetics and the Development of the Human Brain amounts of neurotrophins.

144. At the end of gestational week 4, the rostral part of the neural tube differentiates into prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon. In the following week, the prosencephalon differentiates into the telencephalon and diencephalon, and the rhombencephalon differentiates into the myelencephalon and metencephalon. The mesencephalon does not undergo further divisions.

145. In the dorsal-ventral differentiation of the neural tube, neurons in the ventral half develop into motor neurons, and neurons in the dorsal half develop into sensory neurons.

146. Even if a trait is highly heritable, it still interacts with the environment. If adoptive families provide very similar environments, genetic influences can be magnified. This situation would be analogous to raising genetically diverse plants in identical settings of nutrients, light, and water. Any differences you see in the plants under these conditions will be mostly genetic.

147. X chromosome inactivation occurs when one X chromosome from a pair found in a female’s cell is silenced during development. If it did not occur, females would produce double the amount of some proteins compared with males, whose one X chromosome has may genes that are not duplicated on their Y chromosome.

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CH 06 Vision

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Light is entering George’s eye and is being converted to neural signals by the cells in his retina in a process called . When George realizes that what he is looking at is a red car, he is using a process called . a. sensation; perception b. perception; sensation c. conscious; unconscious d. natural; supernatural 2. The transformation of sensory stimuli into neural signals in any of the sensory systems is called a. sensation b. interpolation c. perception d. transduction

.

3. The process of translating sensory information into action potentials is known as a. transduction. b. translation. c. absorption. d. the dark current.

4.

serves as an important gateway to perception. a. Attention b. Learning c. Memory d. Reflexive behavior

5. The amplitude of a light wave is encoded as . a. brightness; color b. color; brightness c. saturation; reflection d. hue; saturation

, while the wavelength of a light wave is encoded as

6. Mariah will interpret small amplitude waves of light as a. dim. b. bright. c. red. d. purple.

7. Diving birds have a special transparent eyelid that closes when the bird is underwater. What problem does the eyelid prevent? a. inability to see color underwater b. toxins entering the eye from the water c. blurry vision Powered by Cognero

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CH 06 Vision d. damage to eyes by struggling fish 8.

Electromagnetic radiation a. does not really exist. b. can be described as the movement of tiny indivisible particles called photons. c. can be described in terms of waves d. describes only the type of energy that is visible to the human eye.

9. Among the advantages of light as a stimulus is the fact that light a. passes through any medium. b. is absorbed by the ozone layer of the atmosphere. c. does not travel in straight lines. d. travels very quickly.

10. Francesca is working on a project where she was tasked to design a hypothetical new visual system. She suggested that the visual system detect ultraviolet (UV) light. Why might this be a bad idea? a. It passes through objects rather than reflecting from them. b. It is too abundant at the surface of the earth. c. Most UV light is blocked by the Earth’s atmosphere. d. It travels at too slow a speed.

11. Jerold is working on a project where he was tasked to design a hypothetical new visual system. He suggested that the visual system detect microwaves. Why might this be a bad idea? a. Most longer wavelengths are blocked by the Earth’s atmosphere. b. They travel at too slow a speed. c. They are too abundant at the Earth’s surface to be useful in vision. d. Longer wavelengths penetrate objects instead of being reflected from them.

12. The range of electromagnetic energy visible to humans falls between a. 400 and 700 b. 100 and 600 c. 700 and 1,000 d. 1,000 and 10,000

nm.

13. Within the visible light spectrum, shorter wavelengths are perceived as perceived as . a. red; violet and blue b. violet and blue; red c. yellow; blue and blue d. red; green

, whereas longer wavelengths are

14. Sarah is in charge of lighting for a school play, and she must find the right “gel,” or color filter, to produce a light with a wavelength of about 680 nm. When used on stage, the light will look a. violet. b. green.

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CH 06 Vision c. yellow. d. red.

15. The color of an object that a human sees is a function of the wavelengths that are a. refracted by b. unabsorbed by c. reflected by d. passed through

the object.

16. A sweater looks blue because it has properties that a. reflect short wavelengths while absorbing longer wavelengths. b. reflect long wavelengths while absorbing shorter wavelengths. c. refract short wavelengths while absorbing longer wavelengths. d. refract long wavelengths while absorbing shorter wavelengths.

17. The rippled outer surface of the fish eye allows the fish to properly focus light that is a. refracted. b. reflected. c. absorbed. d. both reflected and absorbed.

18. Based on the placement of the human eye, we should probably be classified as a. primarily a prey species. b. primarily a predator species. c. both a prey and a predator species. d. neither a prey nor a predator species.

19. Which of the following features of the human eye identifies us as predators rather than prey? a. the photoreceptors b. size of the cornea c. eyes on the front of the head d. ability to blink 20. Rabbits have monocular vision, with one eye on each side of its head. What is the advantage to the rabbit? a. prevention of visual agnosias b. sharper vision c. the ability to see more shades of color to identify predators d. the ability to see a wide area to each side to watch for predators 21. Red, green, and blue lights can be mixed in various ways to generate will yield light. a. all; white b. most; no c. prime; gray Powered by Cognero

colors, and mixing them all together

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CH 06 Vision d. pastel; ultraviolet 22. Marybeth is in pain because she scratched the white, tough outer covering of her eye called the a. fovea. b. iris. c. sclera. d. cornea.

23. Which of the following structures is actually a clear extension of the sclera? a. the fovea b. the macula c. the lens d. the cornea 24. The cornea obtains nutrients from a. its own blood supply. b. the aqueous humor. c. the vitreous humor. d. the blood supply of the iris.

25. The cornea and lens both remain clear, because a. they consist of special proteins found only in the eye. b. we habituate to the sight of their blood vessels. c. neither has a blood supply. d. their blood vessels contain clear plasma only.

26. Professor MacLeod is lecturing on the parts of the eye. He tells the class that the aqueous humor is found in the a. anterior chamber. b. vitreous chamber. c. cornea. d. lens.

27. Courtney suffered a corneal abrasion on one eye after she fell asleep with her hard contact lenses in place. When she asked her physician what to expect from her injury, the physician told her that a. she would no longer be able to see from that eye. b. she would need painkillers, as the cornea has a high density of pain receptors. c. she wouldn’t need any pain medication, because the cornea lacks pain reception. d. her monocular depth perception would no longer function normally.

28. Nick’s grandfather has just been diagnosed with glaucoma and was told by his doctor that this condition results from a blockage of fluid in the anterior chamber of the eye. Based on Nick’s understanding of the anatomy of the eye, he was able to tell his grandfather that the blockage involves his a. vitreous humor, which circulates around the cornea and lens. b. aqueous humor, which circulates around the cornea and lens. c. vitreous humor, located in the main chamber of the eyeball.

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CH 06 Vision d. aqueous humor, located in the main chamber of the eyeball.

29. Blaine just drove into a dark tunnel from outside where there was bright sunshine. When he entered the tunnel, his pupils a. did not change at all. b. got smaller (less open). c. got bigger (more open). d. quickly got bigger and then got smaller and stayed that way.

30. Vernita has brown eyes and her husband has green eyes. Their eyes differ in color mostly due to the a. thickness of their corneas. b. number of blood vessels in the cornea. c. amount of melanin in the iris. d. number of blood vessels in the retina.

31. Professor Toomer tells his class that which of the following parts of the eye responds to color? a. the cornea and lens as they project to the center of the macula b. areas MT and MST of the dorsal stream c. the ganglion cell layer d. neurons in areas with high concentrations of cytochrome oxidase 32. Ashley’s mother woke up one morning seeing rings of flashing light in one eye. Her doctor diagnosed the event as a “vitreous detachment.” Although Ashley was unfamiliar with this condition until she looked it up in her search engine, she was able to tell her mother that it probably involved a. the pigmented tissue at the back of the eye that supports the photoreceptors. b. a blockage of the tear ducts at the outer upper corner of the eye. c. the fluid located in the main interior chamber of the eyeball. d. the fluid located in the secondary anterior chamber of the eyeball.

33. The lens obtains its nutrients from a. its own blood supply. b. the aqueous humor. c. the vitreous humor. d. the blood supply of the iris.

34. The process of adjusting focus when looking at objects close up or at a distance is known as a. accommodation. b. assimilation. c. transduction. d. lateral inhibition.

35. Sana’s mom is in her mid-40s, and she’s starting to complain about how long it takes her to see well when she shifts her vision from the speedometer of her car to the road ahead of her. It is likely that Sana’s mom is experiencing agerelated deficits in the ability of her lens to a. assimilate.

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CH 06 Vision b. accommodate. c. transduce. d. laterally inhibit.

36. The major interior chamber of the eye is known as the a. anterior b. aqueous c. vitreous d. macular

chamber.

37. The aqueous and vitreous humors differ in that the a. aqueous humor is replenished and the vitreous humor is not. b. vitreous humor is replenished and the aqueous humor is not. c. aqueous humor nourishes the cornea, whereas the vitreous humor nourishes the lens. d. vitreous humor nourishes the cornea, whereas the aqueous humor nourishes the lens.

38. Relative to the actual image being viewed, the image reflected on the retina of the eye is a. identical in its spatial orientation. b. slightly elongated. c. right side up and reversed. d. upside down and reversed.

39. Before reaching the photoreceptors, light must pass through the a. retinal epithelium. b. optic disk. c. vitreous humor and several layers of neurons. d. vitreous humor, blood vessels, and several layers of neurons.

40. We do not see the blood vessels and neurons that lie in front of the photoreceptors because a. the visual system does not respond much to stimuli that never change. b. these structures are made of special proteins whose fibers make them transparent. c. they are blocked by the vitreous humor. d. they lie behind the lens and cornea.

41. Blood vessels and axons forming the optic nerve enter and exit the eye at the a. optic disk. b. macula. c. fovea. d. temporal retina.

42. Professor Aboud tells his class that humans have a blind spot in each eye because of the a. fovea. b. optic disk. c. macula.

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CH 06 Vision d. rods.

43. When Amal stares directly at an object, the light from that object is projected onto the center of her a. optic disk. b. anterior chamber. c. sclera. d. macula.

44. The small pit within the macula, specialized for detailed vision, is known as the a. optic disk. b. epithelium. c. fovea. d. inner plexiform layer.

45. The fovea contains only a. rods in all animals. b. cones in all animals. c. rods in primates. d. cones in primates.

46. The layer of pigmented cells supporting the photoreceptors in the retina and absorbing random light is known as the a. macula. b. epithelium. c. fovea. d. ganglion layer.

47. The “red eye” that appears in some flash photography results from the a. distortion of the eye’s color by the aqueous and vitreous humors. b. scattering of light from the iris of the eye. c. reflection from the red epithelium behind the retina. d. rich blood supply of the retina.

48. The axons of which type of cell form the optic nerve? a. bipolar b. amacrine c. ganglion d. horizontal 49. The cell bodies of bipolar, amacrine, and horizontal cells are located in the a. inner nuclear b. outer nuclear c. inner plexiform d. outer plexiform

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layer.

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CH 06 Vision 50. The type of retinal cells indicated by #3 in the given image are

cells.

(see Figure 6.10) a. ganglion b. horizontal c. bipolar d. amacrine 51. The dendrites of ganglion cells form connections with the amacrine and bipolar cells in the a. inner nuclear b. outer nuclear c. inner plexiform d. outer plexiform 52. Bipolar cells form connections with horizontal cells and photoreceptors in the a. inner nuclear b. outer nuclear c. inner plexiform d. outer plexiform

layer.

layer.

53. Bing has had a stroke that affected an area of his brain that serves his macula, including the foveas of both eyes. What should you expect his vision to be like? a. He will be totally blind.

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CH 06 Vision b. He will be able to see only what is exactly in front of him. c. He will be able to see only what is in his peripheral visual area. d. He will be able to see color but not movement.

54. Cell bodies of the photoreceptors are located in the a. inner nuclear b. outer nuclear c. inner plexiform d. outer plexiform

area.

55. Photoreceptors absorb light in their a. axons. b. dendrites. c. outer segments. d. inner segments.

56. Professor Crass tells her students that each human eye contains around a. 3 b. 50 c. 120 d. 150

million rods.

57. Rods contain which one of the following photopigments? a. rhodopsin b. cyanolabe c. chlorolabe d. erythrolabe 58. Renetta’s a. scotopic; dim b. scotopic; bright c. photopic; dim d. photopic; bright

vision is the result of activity of her rods that respond to

light.

59. Compared with photopic vision, scotopic vision is a. highly sensitive to light and color. b. less sensitive to light and color. c. highly sensitive to light but not detail. d. highly sensitive to detail but not light.

60. Gary’s physician warned him that changes in his vision made it too dangerous for him to drive his car anymore after dark, although he would be perfectly safe during the daytime. Gary is probably experiencing deficits in his a. color vision. b. retinal disparity.

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CH 06 Vision c. photopic vision. d. scotopic vision.

61. Jessica’s vision is 20/20, but her friend Joshua needs to wear glasses to correct for his 20/200 vision. Without his glasses, Joshua sees as much detail in objects that are 20 feet away from him as Jessica sees in objects that are feet away from her. a. 10 b. 20 c. 200 d. 2,000 62. Chong is looking at the fine details of a beautiful painting in an art gallery. Most likely, he is relying on his that give him vision to stare at the picture. a. rods; scotopic b. cones; scotopic c. rods; photopic d. cones; photopic 63. Professor Savedra tells his class that the human eye contains around a. 3 b. 100 c. 150 d. 300 64. Cones are responsible for a. scotopic; dim b. scotopic; bright c. photopic; dim d. photopic; bright

vision, which refers to our ability to see in

million cones.

light.

65. Moving from the fovea to the outer margins of the retina, a. rods and cones are evenly distributed. b. the concentration of rods decreases and the concentration of cones increases. c. the concentration of cones decreases and the concentration of rods increases. d. rods and cones are concentrated in distinct clusters.

66. The periphery of the retina is superior to the center for viewing a. colorful objects in bright light. b. black and white objects in bright light. c. objects in fine detail in dim light. d. objects with less detail in dim light.

67. On a night patrol with his platoon, Charles has been ordered to watch a house through night vision goggles and notify his commander when the front door opens. Suddenly, his night vision goggles malfunction. Until he can figure out how to readjust them, he will see the door opening best if he Powered by Cognero

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CH 06 Vision a. continues to look straight ahead at the door, focusing light on his foveas. b. continues to look straight ahead at the door to use his scotopic vision. c. focuses on a point to the left or right of the door in order to use his scotopic vision. d. focuses on a point to the left or right of the door in order to use his photopic vision.

68. As they walked on the beach on a starry night, Louise complimented her friend Josh on the color of his new sweater. It is most likely that Louise a. saw the sweater earlier under brighter light, because she would be unable to see its color in the dark. b. might not like the color of the sweater as well when she sees it under brighter light, because color vision in the dark is more reddish. c. can see the color of the sweater perfectly well, as color vision is excellent even in starlight conditions. d. possibly has a color deficiency, resulting in her “seeing” a color that she shouldn’t be able to see at night.

69. While you are reading this test, your a. photopic; fovea b. scotopic; fovea c. photopic; ganglion area d. photopic; rods

vision is most active because of activity in your

70. Rhodopsin, the photopigment found in rods, has two parts, opsin and a. cyanolabe b. retinal c. erythrolabe d. chlorolabe

.

.

71. When a rod absorbs a photon of light, retinal changes from the a. 11-cis form to the all-trans form and merges with opsin to form rhodopsin. b. all-trans form to the 11-cis form and merges with opsin to form rhodopsin. c. 11-cis form to the all-trans form, and the rhodopsin molecule breaks apart. d. all-trans form to the 11-cis form, and the rhodopsin molecule breaks apart.

72. When rods are in the dark, cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) keeps sodium channels sodium to the cell. a. open; enter b. open; leave c. closed; enter d. closed; leave

allowing

73. Photoreceptors a. are hyperpolarized in the dark and depolarized by light. b. are depolarized in the dark and hyperpolarized by light. c. produce action potentials in response to being in the dark. d. experience no refractory periods in response to light.

74. Photoreceptors release which of the following neurotransmitters when depolarized?

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CH 06 Vision a. substance P b. serotonin c. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) d. glutamate 75. When you enter a darkened theatre, it takes a while before you can see your surroundings clearly. The most likely explanation for this phenomenon is that a. the lens needs time to accommodate to the change in lighting. b. the glutamate in rods has been depleted and more must be synthesized. c. the visual system switches slowly between processing inputs from cones to inputs from rods. d. it takes about 30 minutes for rhodopsin to regenerate after it has broken apart in response to light.

76. James is comparing recordings of a rod’s reaction to a very bright light and a dim light. He soon observes that the bright light produces in the rod compared with activity in the dim light. a. greater hyperpolarization b. less hyperpolarization c. greater depolarization d. little change 77. Jennifer has been assessing the rate at which neurotransmitters are being released by a population of rods. So far she has observed a very low rate of release, which most likely means that the rods are a. completely in the dark. b. being exposed to dim light. c. being exposed to bright light. d. no longer functioning normally.

78. Rhodopsin absorbs photons most effectively from wavelengths that appear a. red. b. yellow. c. blue-green. d. violet.

79. Red or long-wavelength cones contain which of the following photopigments? a. rhodopsin b. cyanolabe c. chlorolabe d. erythrolabe 80. Cone photopigments differ from rhodopsin in that they a. respond to black and white as opposed to color. b. require more light before breaking apart. c. take longer to synthesize. d. are not contained in the photoreceptor outer segment.

81. One of the reasons that rods are more sensitive to dim light than cones is that Powered by Cognero

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CH 06 Vision a. they form graded potentials instead of the action potentials formed by cones. b. they are found in the eye in greater numbers than cones. c. it takes less light to break apart rhodopsin than the photopigments found in cones. d. rhodopsin shows a peak response to all wavelengths in the visual spectrum.

82. Which of the following sets of cells forms a direct pathway for visual information and lies perpendicular to the back of the eye? a. photoreceptors, horizontal cells, ganglion cells b. photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells c. photoreceptors, horizontal cells, amacrine cells d. photoreceptors, amacrine cells, bipolar cells 83. Which of the following cells form a system that lies parallel to the back of the eye and integrates information across the surface of the retina? a. bipolar cells and ganglion cells b. photoreceptors and bipolar cells c. horizontal cells and amacrine cells d. amacrine cells and ganglion cells 84. Horizontal cells receive input from a. photoreceptors; bipolar cells b. photoreceptors; ganglion cells c. amacrine cells; bipolar cells d. bipolar cells; photoreceptors

and provide output to

.

85. Bipolar cells receive input from a. photoreceptors only. b. horizontal cells only. c. photoreceptors and horizontal cells. d. photoreceptors and ganglion cells.

86. A visual interneuron’s receptive field is defined as the a. portion of the visual field to which the interneuron fails to respond. b. group of photoreceptors providing the interneuron with input. c. combination of the interneuron and the cells with which it communicates. d. location on the retina where light affects the interneuron’s activity.

87. While recording from a bipolar cell with an on-center off-surround receptive field, you shine a light on the entire receptive field. What will you observe in your recording? a. The cell will increase its rate of firing. b. The cell will decrease its rate of firing. c. The cell will not change its rate of firing much. d. The cell will first increase then rapidly decrease its rate of firing.

88. While recording from a bipolar cell with an off-center on-surround receptive field, you observe a hyperpolarization in Powered by Cognero

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CH 06 Vision your cell. The stimulus that most likely triggered this response is light that covered a. the surround but not the center. b. the center but not the surround. c. half of the center and half of the surround. d. the entire receptive field.

89. What is the approximate ratio of on-center bipolar cells to off-center bipolar cells in the human retina? a. 1:1 b. 2:1 c. 5:1 d. 10:1 90. The exact functions of amacrine cells are largely a. unknown. b. excitatory. c. outside of the retina. d. unrelated to light.

91. Antagonistic center-surround organization means that a. photoreceptors in the fovea will suppress input from photoreceptors in the periphery of the eye. b. photoreceptors in the periphery of the eye will suppress input from photoreceptors in the fovea. c. light falling on the center of a receptive field has the opposite effect of light falling on the surround. d. light falling on the center of a receptive field has the identical effect as light falling on the surround.

92. At least 17 different types of majority. a. bipolar b. ganglion c. horizontal d. amacrine

cells have been identified in the human retina, but 3 types comprise the vast

93. Heidy is studying for a quiz and writes in her notes that amacrine cells may help process a. color. b. movement. c. edges. d. shapes.

94. Amacrine cells form direct connections with a. photoreceptors and bipolar cells. b. photoreceptors and ganglion cells. c. horizontal cells and bipolar cells. d. bipolar cells, ganglion cells, and other amacrine cells.

95. The human eye has approximately a. 1.25 Powered by Cognero

million ganglion cells.

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CH 06 Vision b. 6.5 c. 12.75 d. 20 96. In which of the following ways do ganglion cells differ from the other cells in the retina? a. They are active only when light is present. b. They produce graded potentials instead of conventional action potentials. c. They produce conventional action potentials instead of graded potentials. d. They contain larger quantities of photopigment.

97. In response to light falling on the retina, ganglion cells a. go from being silent to very active. b. go from being active to being silent. c. change their spontaneous rate of firing. d. release glutamate onto photoreceptors.

98. Ganglion receptive fields a. are always the same size. b. do not show the same center-surround organization as bipolar receptive fields. c. are smaller in the periphery than in the macula. d. are smaller in the macula than in the periphery.

99. On-center ganglion cells receive input a. from on-center bipolar cells. b. from off-center bipolar cells. c. from both on-center and off-center bipolar cells. d. directly from photoreceptors.

100. A small number of ganglion cells contain the photopigment a. melanopsin b. rhodopsin c. phytochrome d. flavin

and act as photoreceptors themselves.

101. The presence of light changes the ganglion cells’ spontaneous rate of signaling. If large enough, this change might result in a. new visual perceptions. b. smaller receptive fields. c. the ability to see low contrast objects. d. more vivid color.

102. Midget ganglion cells receive information from a small number of cones, giving them the ability to process a. vision in dim light. b. underwater vision.

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CH 06 Vision c. highly detailed vision. d. low-contrast vision.

103. Coreen has a pet rabbit. For her rabbit, percent of optic nerve fibers cross the midline, whereas percent of Coreen’s optic nerve fibers cross the midline. a. 50; 100 b. 100; 50 c. 100; 70 d. 70; 100 104. Just past the optic chiasm, the optic fibers continue on to the optic a. nerves. b. tracts. c. radiations. d. pathways.

105. In her biology lab, Meredith performed a dissection that demonstrated that most of the axons from the optic nerve travel to the a. suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus. b. superior colliculus. c. inferior colliculus. d. thalamus.

106. Trevor is studying for a quiz. He writes in his notes that the superior colliculus is needed for a. setting circadian rhythms. b. recognizing faces of people he knows. c. guiding visual movements. d. being able to see color.

107. Visual input to the suprachiasmatic nucleus participates in a. regulating daily rhythms. b. recognizing familiar objects. c. visually guided reflexes. d. recognizing color.

108. Many axons in the optic tract form synapses to the a. medial geniculate b. lateral geniculate c. ventral posterior d. ventral posterior medial

nucleus of the thalamus.

109. How many major layers are found in the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)? a. two b. four c. six Powered by Cognero

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CH 06 Vision d. eight 110. In the LGN, there are a. three; three b. four; four c. two; four d. four; two

magnocellular and

parvocellular layers.

111. At the level of the LGN, input from the two eyes in humans is a. kept completely separate. b. kept separate in the magnocellular layers but not in the parvocellular layers. c. kept separate in the parvocellular layers but not in the magnocellular layers. d. mingled in all layers.

112. The fact that LGN cells have antagonistic center-surround organizations for color is consistent with what theory? a. both opponent process theory and trichromatic theory b. neither opponent process theory nor trichromatic theory c. trichromatic theory d. opponent process theory 113. Information from the left half of the visual field is processed by a. the left eye and the left occipital cortex. b. both the right and left occipital cortices. c. both eyes and the right hemisphere occipital cortex. d. both eyes and the left hemisphere occipital cortex.

114. Professor Hama tells her class that the primary visual cortex is also called the cortex. a. striate; frontal b. geniculate; parietal c. geniculate; temporal d. striate; occipital

cortex and is found in the

115. Which layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) receive input from the midget ganglion cells in the retina? a. layers 1 and 2 b. layer 3 and 4 c. layer 43 through 6 d. layer all layers 116. Hiroko is studying for an exam. She writes in her notes that end-stopped cells are a. simple cortical cells that do not respond to object shape. b. complex cells that respond most vigorously to a stimulus that falls within their receptive field but not beyond. c. simple cortical cells that do not respond to object orientation. d. both simple and complex cells that respond most vigorously to a stimulus that falls within their receptive field but not beyond.

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CH 06 Vision 117. Which of the following groups of cells respond to input from only one eye? a. ocular dominance columns b. orientation columns c. hypercolumns d. cytochrome oxidase blobs 118. Which of the following groups of cells participate in the processing of color? a. ocular dominance columns b. orientation columns c. hypercolumns d. cytochrome oxidase blobs 119. Cortical modules described by Hubel and Wiesel contain a. one set of ocular dominance columns, one hypercolumn, and four cytochrome oxidase blobs. b. one set of ocular dominance columns, two hypercolumns, and eight cytochrome oxidase blobs. c. two sets of ocular dominance columns, two hypercolumns, and sixteen cytochrome oxidase blobs. d. four sets of ocular dominance columns, four hypercolumns, and sixteen cytochrome oxidase blobs.

120. The dorsal stream projects to the a. parietal lobe and participates in the analysis of movement. b. temporal lobe and participates in object recognition. c. parietal lobe and participates in object recognition. d. frontal lobe and participates in the analysis of movement.

121. The ventral stream projects to the a. lateral parietal lobe and participates in the analysis of movement. b. inferior temporal lobe and participates in object recognition. c. superior parietal lobe and participates in object recognition. d. dorsal frontal lobe and participates in the analysis of movement.

122. Generally speaking, when you are watching a football game, your determine which team just made the touchdown, while your made it through for the extra point. a. magnocellular; parvocellular b. on-center; off-surround c. parvocellular; magnocellular d. off-center; on-surround

system is responsible for helping you system is responsible for telling you if the kick

123. Stimulus rotation, expansion, and contraction appear to be processed by Area a. MT. b. MST. c. V4. d. IT. Powered by Cognero

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CH 06 Vision 124. When looking at faces, Kyle’s fusiform face area, located in Area a. MT b. MST c. V4 d. IT

, is very responsive.

125. The idea of a hierarchical system of visual perception is challenged by which of the following? a. Single visual neurons are not capable of responding simultaneously to changes in two dimensions, such as orientation and movement. b. A visual hierarchy would require a very large number of “grandmother” cells. c. Single visual neurons can easily incorporate complex input from memory systems. d. Hierarchies help us predict how other species “see.”

126. Small black print on a white background is an example of a stimulus with contrast. a. high; high b. high; low c. low; high d. low; low

frequency and

127. High-frequency gratings have a. few bars within a given distance. b. many bars within a given distance. c. large differences in intensity between adjacent bars. d. small differences in intensity between adjacent bars.

128. Researchers are training pigeons to peck to receive food pellets when they see gratings but withhold their pecks to receive pellets when they see a uniform gray circle. This procedure will help the researchers determine a. whether or not pigeons can see color. b. whether or not pigeons have feature detectors. c. how much contrast a grating must have before it looks different from the gray circle to a pigeon. d. whether pigeons are intelligent enough to learn to peck one stimulus rather than another.

129. Using contrast sensitivity functions, we can conclude that cats would have superior vision compared to humans for stimuli with frequency and contrast. a. high; high b. high; low c. low; high d. low; low 130. Samuel lost vision in his right eye due to an accident. Samuel must use great care while driving because his a. color vision has been distorted. b. depth perception will not be as accurate as before his accident. c. peripheral vision is no longer functional. d. scotopic vision will be distorted.

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CH 06 Vision 131. Which of the following involves a binocular depth cue? a. texture gradient b. relative size c. retinal disparity d. perspective (parallel lines converge at the horizon) 132. Retinal disparity is when the two eyes send a. two completely different images; movement b. two completely different images; depth c. slightly overlapping images; depth d. slightly overlapping images; movement

and allow us to see

.

133. Binocular cells respond most vigorously when a. a grating appears different than a uniformly colored disk. b. an object is moving. c. a person is scanning a painting that uses perspective to achieve an impression of depth. d. both eyes are looking at the same feature of an object.

134. Information about retinal disparity combines with an assessment of an object’s movement in the anterior lobes. a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital 135. Natasha is testing her school’s theatre lighting system, beginning with colors. When she mixes them all together, she sees . a. red, yellow, and blue; white b. red, yellow, and blue; brown c. red, green, and blue; white d. red, green, and blue; brown

lights, which are the primary

136. The trichromatic theory of color vision is based on and best explains the processing of color at the level of the . a. the existence of three types of cones; retina b. the existence of three types of cones; primary visual cortex c. antagonistic center-surround receptive fields; retina d. antagonistic center-surround receptive fields; primary visual cortex 137. The trichromatic theory of color vision , and the opponent process theory . a. is accurate; is false b. is false; is accurate c. explains one part of color vision; explains another part of color vision, but neither explains it completely d. explains color vision in the cortex; explains all of color vision in the retina Powered by Cognero

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CH 06 Vision 138. Which type of cell plays a role in maintaining our sleep–wake cycles? a. all ganglion cells b. a small number of ganglion cells c. all bipolar cells d. a small number of bipolar cells 139. David has a color deficiency because he has a missing cone pigment. He is considered to be a a. dichromat. b. monochromat. c. anomalous trichromat. d. tetrachromat.

140. Which of the following statements correctly summarizes the relationship between color deficiency and sex? a. No type of color deficiency is related to the sex of the individual. b. Both red–green color deficiency and blue–yellow color deficiency are sex-linked conditions. c. Red–green color deficiency is a sex-linked condition, but blue–yellow color deficiency is not. d. Blue–yellow color deficiency is a sex-linked condition, but red–green color deficiency is not.

141. If in fact tetrachromats, or people with four color photopigments, exist, what can we conclude about their sex? a. All tetrachromats would be female. b. All tetrachromats would be male. c. Tetrachromats would be equally likely to be male or female. d. Tetrachromats would be slightly more likely to be female than male.

142. The influence of context on the appearance of a color is referred to as a. anomalous trichromacy. b. color constancy. c. color contrast. d. opponent processes.

143. Maria is looking at an optical illusion online of a dress. She thinks it looks gold and white. In part, this is probably due to the lighting in her room as she is looking at her computer, which is related to a. color constancy. b. dichromacy. c. opponent process theory. d. trichromatic theory.

144. The reduced accommodation to changes in focal distance that accompany typical aging is known as a. amblyopia. b. myopia. c. hyperopia. d. presbyopia.

145. Coreen has started to experience “old sight.” Her doctor said it was normal, but she is finding it hard to live with the Powered by Cognero

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, and this occurs because her

.

CH 06 Vision condition, also known as a. monochromacy. b. dichromacy. c. strabismus. d. presbyopia.

146. Johnny has a condition called “lazy eye” or a. amblyopia. b. myopia. c. hyperopia. d. presbyopia.

147. Luisa has cataracts that are caused because her a. lens is elongated. b. eye is shortened. c. cornea is misshapen. d. lens became clouded.

148. Gabriella has myopia. This means she is a. nearsighted; eye is elongated b. farsighted; eye is elongated c. nearsighted; eye is shortened d. farsighted; eye is shortened 149. Astigmatism usually occurs when the a. eye is elongated. b. eye is shortened. c. cornea is misshapen. d. lens becomes clouded.

150. A region of blindness in the visual field of patients with cortical damage is known as a(n) a. scotoma. b. agnosia. c. cataract. d. presbyopia.

151. Elanor is unable to recognize faces, even if they should be familiar to her (e.g., her daughter). She is likely to be diagnosed with a. prosopagnosia. b. scotomas. c. cataracts. d. astigmatism.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

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CH 06 Vision 152. Carmella is an artist and calls her most recent work “short wavelength” because she used mostly red colors. a. True b. False 153. The blind spot of the eye occurs when light falls on the macula. a. True b. False 154. Rods are unable to distinguish color yet show a peak sensitivity to light in the blue–green range of the visible spectrum. a. True b. False 155. If we record from an on-center bipolar cell in the retina, the cell will show maximum activity if we shine a light on its entire receptive field. a. True b. False 156. Areas MT and MST are important parts of the ventral stream and participate in the visual recognition of familiar objects and people. a. True b. False 157. Angelia has a cat named Mittens. As a result of increased contrast sensitivity, Mittens has better vision for details than Angelia. a. True b. False 158. Retinal disparity is caused by a decrease in the distance of the object from the viewer. a. True b. False 159. People with color blindness actually do see colors, but they will see them differently than people who have typical trichromatic vision. a. True b. False 160. The lens of the eye continues to grow throughout the life span. a. True b. False 161. Cherise has prosopagnosia. Her biggest struggle is a clouding of both of her lenses. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

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162. In this image, #6 and #7 together are known as (#4), which, in turn, sends information to

. They send information to (#2).

CH 06 Vision

(see Figure 6.10) 163. When a rod is exposed to light, retinal changes into the the cell releases glutamate.

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form, sodium channels close, and

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CH 06 Vision

(see Figure 6.13) 164. Information about vision travels from the retina to the cortex.

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and the

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CH 06 Vision

(see Figure 6.18)

165. Many animals are either diurnal (active during daylight) or nocturnal (active during night). What do the abilities of rods and cones to respond to different lighting conditions tell us about the niche of human beings relative to night and day?

166. Compare and contrast the receptive fields of retinal cells (bipolar and ganglion cells) with cortical receptive fields.

167. Describe some of the changes in vision that most of us can expect to experience as we age. Based on these changes, what recommendations would you make for senior drivers?

168. Discuss the portion of the electromagnetic radiation spectrum that humans can see. What is the approximate range (in nm) and what colors do we experience at each end of that range?

169. Professor Park explains that the striate cortex begins the task of processing visual input. How does she explain the role of the secondary visual cortex?

170. Rosemarie wore a pink dress to a school dance. She could clearly tell that her dress was pink when she was outside taking pictures and when she was in the dim lights of the dance floor. What allowed her to be able to do this?

171. Myles has hyperopia and his sister has myopia. What is occurring with their visual abilities?

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CH 06 Vision Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. d 10. c 11. d 12. a 13. b 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. b 19. c 20. d 21. a 22. c 23. d 24. b 25. c Powered by Cognero

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CH 06 Vision 26. a 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. c 31. d 32. c 33. b 34. a 35. b 36. c 37. a 38. d 39. d 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. d 44. c 45. d 46. b 47. d 48. c 49. a 50. d 51. c Powered by Cognero

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CH 06 Vision 52. d 53. c 54. b 55. c 56. c 57. a 58. a 59. c 60. d 61. c 62. d 63. a 64. d 65. c 66. d 67. c 68. a 69. a 70. b 71. c 72. a 73. b 74. d 75. d 76. a Powered by Cognero

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CH 06 Vision 77. c 78. c 79. d 80. b 81. c 82. b 83. c 84. a 85. c 86. d 87. c 88. b 89. a 90. a 91. c 92. b 93. b 94. d 95. a 96. c 97. c 98. d 99. a 100. a 101. a 102. c Powered by Cognero

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CH 06 Vision 103. b 104. b 105. d 106. c 107. a 108. b 109. c 110. c 111. a 112. d 113. c 114. d 115. c 116. d 117. a 118. d 119. c 120. a 121. b 122. c 123. b 124. d 125. b 126. a 127. b Powered by Cognero

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CH 06 Vision 128. c 129. d 130. b 131. c 132. c 133. d 134. b 135. c 136. a 137. c 138. b 139. a 140. c 141. a 142. c 143. a 144. d 145. d 146. a 147. d 148. a 149. c 150. a 151. a 152. False 153. False Powered by Cognero

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CH 06 Vision 154. True 155. False 156. False 157. False 158. False 159. True 160. True 161. False 162. photoreceptors; bipolar cells; ganglion cells 163. all-trans; less 164. lateral geniculate nucleus; primary visual (or striate or V1) 165. Rods are responsible for scotopic vision, or the ability to see in dim light. Under ideal conditions, the human eye can see a single photon. The cost for this extraordinary sensitivity to light is in the clarity and color of the image provided by the rods. Rods do not provide any information about color, and they do not produce sharp images. Cones are responsible for photopic vision or vision in bright light. Photopic vision is sensitive to color and provides images with excellent clarity. Given that humans are normally awake during the day would suggest that we rely much more heavily on the fine details provided by our cones for the majority of our visual information.

166. The arrangement of receptive fields for bipolar and ganglion cells is referred to as an antagonistic center-surround organization. The response of a cell depends on the amount of light falling on its center relative to the amount of light falling on its surround. It is called antagonistic because light falling on the center of the receptive field always has the opposite effect on the cell’s activity from light falling on the surround. Retinal cells have doughnut shaped receptive fields that respond best to dots of light. In the cortex, the receptive fields are determined by simple and complex cortical cells.

Simple cortical cells are those cells that respond to stimuli shaped like bars or edges that have a particular slant or orientation in a particular location on the retina. Complex cortical cells are cortical cells that share the simple cells’ preference for stimulus size and orientation but without reference to the stimulus’s location, as long as it appears in the receptive field.

167. As we age, predictable changes occur in our vision. In middle age, the lens accommodates more slowly to changes in focal distance. This condition is known as presbyopia or “old sight.” Older adults also have trouble responding quickly to changes in lighting, as when exiting a dark theater into the sunlight. The lens, which provides most of the focus of light onto the retina, continues to grow throughout the life span. As fibers are continually added to the structure of the lens, it takes on a yellow hue. Although this change in color provides more protection from UV rays that might otherwise harm the aging retina, the yellow lens will also distort the person’s perception of blue and green. Aging is also associated with smaller pupils, probably due to the loss of elasticity in the muscles of the iris. Smaller pupils allow less light into the eye, negatively affecting the quality of vision. Finally, aging might have a negative effect on the cortical processing of visual information. Compared to younger adults, the visual cortex of older adults does not show an increase in activity as the rate of stimulus presentation increases. This change at an early stage of processing might affect the quality of information available to higher cognitive processes.

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CH 06 Vision Recommendations about senior drivers: answers may vary.

168. Humans can see the visual light spectrum, an area of electromagnetic waves from 400 nm to 700 nm. Shorter wavelengths, approaching 400 nm, are perceived by humans as violet and blue, whereas longer wavelengths, approaching 700 nm, are perceived as red.

169. At least a dozen additional areas called extrastriate areas or the secondary visual cortex participate in visual processing. Next to the striate cortex is visual area 2 (V2), which forms part of the magnocellular pathway and projects to a dorsal stream visual pathway. The dorsal stream travels from the primary visual cortex toward the parietal lobe and then proceeds to the medial temporal lobe. V2 also projects to another visual region known as V4, continuing the parvocellular pathway. Area V4 participates in a second major pathway, the ventral stream, which proceeds from the primary visual cortex to the inferior temporal lobe.

170. Rosemarie was able to tell her dress was pink in both bright and dim light due to color constancy. Color constancy describes the fact that an object’s colors do not appear to change much even as the light falling on that object changes.

171. Myles is farsighted meaning that he cannot see things close up. He probably needs glasses for reading. His sister is nearsighted meaning that she cannot see things far away. She probably wears glasses most of the time, but especially for tasks like driving.

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Jasmine turned her radio up to a higher frequency, causing the music to be louder. a. True b. False 2. High-frequency sounds cause a peak vibration near the base of the basilar membrane, whereas low-frequency sounds cause a peak vibration near its apex. a. True b. False 3. Information from the cochlea travels to the brain along cranial nerve VIII. a. True b. False 4. Benjamin can “hear” sounds when he sees things moving. He would be diagnosed with referred sensations. a. True b. False 5. As people age, they are most likely to have problems hearing sounds with lower frequencies. a. True b. False 6. Ryan had difficulty hearing lower pitches because he had suffered damage to his semicircular canal. a. True b. False 7. Meissner’s corpuscles are an encapsulated mechanoreceptor located near the surface of the skin that senses pressure and vibration. a. True b. False 8. Nociceptors are largely responsible for the sensation of pain. a. True b. False 9. Olfactory receptor cells live for between 4 and 6 months and are not replaced once they die. a. True b. False 10. Gustatory information is processed in the temporal lobe. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception 11. The fact that all dogs in the neighborhood begin to howl at the same time every day while you can’t hear anything that might cause this response is probably because the dogs a. can hear sounds we would classify as infrasound. b. can hear sounds we would classify as ultrasound. c. are disturbed by underground vibrations. d. require more volume before they can hear the same sounds as you do.

12. Fabric in the environment a. makes noise. b. helps reduce noise. c. eliminates noise. d. increases noise.

13. Human hearing is not as good as dogs’ hearing for frequencies. a. high; middle b. middle; low c. high; low d. low; high

frequencies and not as good as elephants for

14. The sound stimulus begins with the a. absorption of energy by molecules of air. b. reflection of energy from objects in the environment. c. impact of sound energy on the cochlea. d. vibration caused by the movement of objects in space.

15. Holly was interested to learn that sound waves travel through a. air only. b. water only. c. air and water but not solid objects. d. air, water, and solids.

16. Echolocation, used by some animals to navigate and find prey, relies on the ability of physical objects to sound. a. absorb b. refract c. reflect d. enhance 17. Acousticians designing performance halls choose the fabric for seat covers and curtains very carefully and even try to predict the type of clothing patrons will wear to performances, due to the ability of fabric to sound. a. refract b. absorb c. reflect d. amplify Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception 18. The hum from Courtney’s computer bothers her roommate, who is a light sleeper. Because Courtney would like to stay up late to work without bothering her roommate, she might consider reducing the sound by a. buying new thick rugs, curtains, and bedspreads to absorb some of the noise. b. removing all fabrics from her dorm room, such as rugs and curtains. c. surrounding the back and sides of the computer with shiny metal panels. d. moving all objects, like lamps and chairs, that are between her computer and her roommate’s bed.

19. The amplitude of a sound wave is encoded as . a. loudness; pitch b. pitch; loudness c. pure tones; complex tones d. timbre; pitch

, whereas the frequency of a sound wave is encoded as

20. Kaylin is at a concert where the singer held a really high note for a few seconds. Kaylin could tell it was a high note versus a low note as a result of the the sound wave produced. a. amplitude of b. noise in c. timbre of d. frequency of 21. High-amplitude sound waves are perceived as a. quiet. b. loud. c. high pitched. d. low pitched.

22. A low-frequency sound wave is perceived as a. quiet. b. loud. c. high pitched. d. low pitched.

23. When Daniel drives down the street, other people stop and stare because of the loud, low-pitched sounds coming from the new sound system in his car. What types of sound waves are coming from Daniel’s car? a. high amplitude, low frequency b. high amplitude, high frequency c. low amplitude, low frequency d. low amplitude, high frequency 24. In the film Harry Potter and the Prisoner of Azkaban, the “Fat Lady” painting tries to break a glass with the highpitched, loud sound of her singing voice alone. Which type of sound stimulus is the Fat Lady trying to produce? a. high amplitude, low frequency b. high amplitude, high frequency Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception c. low amplitude, low frequency d. low amplitude, high frequency 25. Sound waves with a single frequency are known as a. pure tones, which are rare in nature. b. pure tones, which are common in nature. c. complex tones, which are rare in nature. d. noise, which is common in nature.

26. Sound waves that do not show a regular, repeating pattern are perceived as a. loud. b. soft. c. pure tones. d. noise.

27. Roy works at a job where he had to wear noise-reducing headphones since the decibel (dB) level exceeds , and he doesn’t want to hurt or damage his ears. a. 130 b. 115 c. 95 d. 80 28. Decibels (dB) are used to measure a sound’s a. pitch. b. frequency. c. intensity. d. harmonics.

29. Tennille is studying for a quiz on the auditory system. She writes in her notes that hertz is the unit used to measure sound’s a. loudness. b. intensity. c. frequency. d. timbre.

30. Sounds with frequencies above the range of human hearing are referred to as a. fundamental frequencies. b. pure tones. c. ultrasound. d. infrasound.

31. Sounds with frequencies below the range of human hearing are referred to as a. fundamental frequencies. b. pure tones. c. ultrasound.

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception d. infrasound.

32. Stephanie is working on a research project that is investigating the effects of sonar on marine mammal communication. Her recordings of whale songs are most likely to include which of the following types of sound? a. noise b. pure tones c. infrasound d. ultrasound 33. Brandon’s teeth are stained from his constant coffee drinking, so his dentist recommended that he switch to a new electric toothbrush that not only brushes teeth very rapidly, but also uses sound to reduce plaque and staining. What kind of sound is most likely generated by Brandon’s new toothbrush? a. infrasound b. ultrasound c. pure tones d. noise 34. Jessica’s band teacher was teaching the class about how different classes of instruments like brass and woodwind sound different even if you are playing the same note. She had a trumpet and a clarinet. Each plays a G. The differences Jessica heard between the two instruments are due to the of the resulting sounds. a. timbre b. hertz c. amplitude d. pitch 35. Which of the following structures are found in the outer ear? a. the pinna and auditory canal b. the pinna and the tympanic membrane c. the auditory canal and the tympanic membrane d. the auditory canal and the oval window 36. Gianna is making a model of the human ear for a class project. She decides to use clay to create the visible, outer structure called the . a. cochlea b. incus c. Eustachian tube d. pinna 37. The forms the boundary between the outer and middle ear, whereas the between the middle and inner ear. a. tympanic membrane; oval window b. oval window; tympanic membrane c. round window; oval window d. oval window; round window

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forms the boundary

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception 38. Which of the following is one of the ossicles? a. the stapes b. the incus c. the pinna d. the cochlea 39. The primary function of the ossicles is to a. transfer sound energy from the air of the middle ear to the fluid of the inner ear. b. transfer sound energy from the fluid of the middle ear to the air of the inner ear. c. funnel sound. d. prevent damage from loud noises.

40. The outer and middle ears both transmit sound through the process of transducing sound waves to electrical energy. a. bone; mucous b. liquid; mucous c. air; liquid d. air; sodium

, and the inner ear uses a

medium in

41. Charlotte is painting a model of the human ear for a class project. She is trying to choose which color to use on the so that she might remember that it contains the receptors that detect sound. a. semicircular canals b. ossicles c. auditory canal d. cochlea 42. Which of the following canals are actually connected to each other? a. the vestibular and tympanic canals b. the vestibular canal and the cochlear duct c. the tympanic canal and the cochlear duct d. the auditory and vestibular canals 43. Perilymph may be found in the , whereas endolymph is found in the a. cochlear duct; vestibular and tympanic canals b. vestibular and tympanic canals; cochlear duct c. cochlear duct and vestibular canal; tympanic canal d. cochlear duct and tympanic canal; vestibular canal 44. Reissner’s membrane separates the , whereas the basilar membrane separates the a. vestibular canal and cochlear duct; tympanic canal and cochlear duct b. tympanic canal and cochlear duct; vestibular canal and cochlear duct c. vestibular canal and tympanic canal; cochlear duct and auditory canal d. auditory canal and cochlear duct; vestibular canal and tympanic canal 45. Lyperior is taking a quiz on the ear as shown in the picture. She labels #6 as the Powered by Cognero

.

.

and #8 as the Page 6

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception .

(see Figure 7.3) a. pinna; tympanic membrane b. oval window; pinna c. oval window; cochlea d. tympanic membrane; cochlea 46. The round window covers the a. auditory canal. b. vestibular canal. c. cochlear duct. d. tympanic canal.

47. The organ of Corti rests on the a. tectorial membrane. b. Reissner’s membrane. c. basilar membrane. d. tensor tympani.

48. Professor Owusu told his class that the base of the basilar membrane is different from the apex, because the basilar membrane at its base is a. wider and stiffer. b. wider and more flexible. c. narrower and stiffer. d. narrower and more flexible.

49. High-frequency sounds produce a peak response Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception a. near the base of the basilar membrane. b. near the apex of the basilar membrane. c. in the tectorial membrane. d. in Reissner’s membrane.

50. Approximately how many hair cells may be found in each human inner ear? a. 3,500 b. 8,000 c. 12,500 d. 15,500 51. Of all the hair cells in the human inner ear, how many are inner hair cells, which are the actual auditory receptors? a. 3,500 b. 8,000 c. 12,500 d. 15,500

52.52.

(see Figure 7.4) Which of the membranes in the cochlea is labeled #6 in this image? a. the tympanic membrane b. the basilar membrane c. Reissner’s membrane d. the tectorial membrane 53. Approximately percent of auditory nerve fibers make connections with outer hair cells, whereas percent make connections with inner hair cells. a. 5; 95 Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception b. 25; 75 c. 50; 50 d. 95; 5 54. Hairlike cilia extend from a. inner hair cells only. b. outer hair cells only. c. both inner and outer hair cells. d. neither inner nor outer hair cells.

55. Professor Lee tells his class that hair cells will become hyperpolarized or depolarized depending on the activity of the channels. a. voltage-dependent sodium b. transmitter-gated potassium c. mechanically gated potassium d. mechanically gated sodium 56. The endolymph surrounding hair cells differs from other extracellular fluids in that it contains a a. smaller than normal concentration of sodium. b. larger than normal concentration of sodium. c. smaller than normal concentration of potassium. d. larger than normal concentration of potassium.

57. When potassium channels in the hair cell open, potassium will a. enter; depolarization b. enter; hyperpolarization c. leave; depolarization d. leave; hyperpolarization

the cell, producing

.

58. Professor Raimi is lecturing about the ear and tells her class that the hair cells release the neurotransmitter in order to communicate. a. acetylcholine b. glutamate c. glycine d. norepinephrine 59. Spiral ganglion cells are in structure. a. unipolar b. bipolar c. multipolar d. either bipolar or multipolar depending on their location 60. Spiral ganglion processes travel to the dorsal and ventral . a. cochlear; VIII Powered by Cognero

nuclei of the medulla by way of cranial nerve

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception b. vestibular; VIII c. cochlear; VII d. vestibular; VII 61. Axons from first synapse in the superior olive in the pons, which in turn forms connections via the lateral lemniscus with the inferior colliculus. a. the spiral ganglion cells b. the dorsal cochlear nucleus c. the ventral cochlear nucleus d. both the dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei 62. Juan is studying for a quiz and records that the axons from the in the pons before being sent to the inferior colliculi. a. ventral; superior olive b. ventral; inferior olive c. dorsal; superior olive d. dorsal; inferior olive

cochlear nucleus will first synapse in the

63. Rigoberto is studying for a quiz and records that the axons from the inferior colliculi synapse in the thalamus. a. medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) b. lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) c. superior olive d. inferior olive

of the

64. Matthew did not awaken when his rather noisy roommate came back to their dorm room in the very early hours of the morning. It is most likely that Matthew’s failure to hear the disturbance resulted from a. inner ear damage suffered as a result of attending too many loud heavy metal concerts. b. input from the reticular formation to the MGN that adjusted his hearing to his state of consciousness. c. stimulation of his superior olivary nucleus that temporarily made his inner hair cells less sensitive. d. a temporary deficit in glutamate in his inner hair cells.

65. Whitney is studying for a quiz and writes in her notes that primary auditory cortex is located in the a. frontal b. temporal c. parietal d. occipital 66. High frequencies are processed by a. rostral b. caudal c. dorsal d. ventral

lobe.

areas of A1, or primary motor cortex.

67. Complex stimuli such as clicks, noise bursts, and sounds with specific frequency patterns particularly activate Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception a. the superior olive. b. the inferior colliculi. c. primary auditory cortex. d. secondary auditory cortex.

68. Temporal theory accounts for the encoding of sounds under a. 4,000 b. 6,000 c. 10,000 d. 12,000

Hz.

69. The fact that auditory cortex is tonotopically organized means that a. there is a different area of cortex assigned to each ear. b. there is a different number of neurons assigned to each level of loudness. c. neurons responding to one frequency are located next to neurons responding to similar frequencies. d. neurons responding to one amplitude are located next to neurons responding to similar amplitudes.

70. According to place theory a. the peak of a wave in the basilar membrane correlates with a sound’s frequency. b. patterns of neural firing match the frequency of a sound. c. neurons responding to one frequency are located near neurons responding to similar frequencies. d. sounds with frequencies below 4,000 Hz are processed by parts of the basilar membrane different from those that process sounds above 4,000 Hz. 71. Brittany played a middle C note on the piano, which corresponds to about 261 Hz. It is likely that this tone will a. be processed according to place theory. b. be processed according to temporal theory. c. produce a peak response at the base of the basilar membrane. d. produce nausea, because it is infrasound.

72. Sounds that last longer are usually perceived as a. higher. b. lower. c. louder. d. softer.

73. Nicholas plays guitar and Anthony plays bass for their rock band. The guitar produces higher frequencies than the bass does. When they turn up their amplifiers to 80 dB, how will the instruments sound to their neighbors? a. Nicholas’s guitar will sound louder than Anthony’s bass. b. Anthony’s bass will sound louder than Anthony’s guitar. c. Both instruments will sound equally loud. d. The apparent loudness of the two instruments will vary from time to time depending on the frequencies of the notes being played.

74. The subjective perception of loudness Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception a. changes at the same rate as the intensity of a stimulus. b. changes at a slower rate than the intensity of a stimulus. c. changes at a faster rate than the intensity of a stimulus. d. cannot be measured by scientists due to individual differences among participants.

75. If I increase the volume on my stereo by 10 dB, from 60 dB to 70 dB, my family will probably perceive the loudness of the music as a. 10 times louder than before. b. 100 times louder than before. c. 2 times louder than before. d. about the same as before.

76. A single auditory neuron can usually respond to a range of sound intensity of about a. 10 b. 25 c. 40 d. 60

dB.

77. The difference in arrival times at each ear for sounds coming from directly in front of you or behind you is about msec. a. 0.0 b. 0.2 c. 0.4 d. 0.6 78. The difference in arrival times at each ear for sounds coming from a point perpendicular to your head on either side is about msec. a. 0.0 b. 0.2 c. 0.4 d. 0.6 79. It is particularly difficult to localize sounds that originate at a. 3 and 9 o’clock (to either side of our bodies). b. 12 and 6 o’clock (directly in front and behind us). c. 12 and 3 or 6 o’clock. d. 6 and 3 or 6 o’clock.

80. Arrival time of sound at the two ears is processed initially by binaural neurons in the a. cochlea. b. ventral cochlear nucleus. c. ventral cochlear nucleus. d. superior olive.

81. High-frequency sounds Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception a. produce a weaker signal in the ear farthest away from the sound. b. produce a weaker signal in the ear nearest the sound. c. produce a “sound shadow” on the ear nearest the sound. d. cannot be effectively localized.

82. Gustavo is able to detect that a noise is coming from straight above his head because of a. the existence of sound “shadow.” b. an analysis of the intensity of sounds reaching each ear. c. the effect of the pinna on incoming sounds. d. an analysis of the arrival time of sounds at each ear.

83. In order to avoid hearing loss, we should set the volume of our devises to about what percentage of the maximum? a. 80 b. 60 c. 40 d. 20 84. You will be determined to have a mild hearing loss if you are unable to hear sounds less than how many dB? a. 10 b. 25 c. 45 d. 50 85. Lauren is a huge fan of music. In addition to listening to her favorite music on her earphones, she also attends performances in clubs or concerts nearly every weekend. It is likely that a. Lauren will experience more hearing loss than her friends who use earbuds and attend concerts less frequently. b. Lauren will experience less hearing loss than her friends who attend concerts less frequently, because her ears will build up a tolerance to loud sounds in general. c. Lauren’s attendance will not affect her hearing, as she is only a college student, not a senior citizen. d. Lauren’s hearing will not be affected as long as she limits her exposure to 90 minutes each time.

86. As he has gotten older, Mr. Ortega has noticed that he is having trouble hearing a. higher-intensity sounds. b. higher-frequency sounds. c. where sounds are coming from. d. lower-frequency sounds.

87. Richard’s grandfather is losing his hearing. Consequently, he is probably experiencing a. no problems hearing voices, as age-related hearing loss does not affect the frequencies found in normal speech. b. equal difficulty hearing Richard and his mother. c. more difficulty hearing Richard’s mother than Richard. d. more difficulty hearing Richard than his mother.

88. Earbud devices used to listen to music Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception a. do not influence the loudness of music. b. boost the loudness of the music to as much as 120 dB. c. reduce the loudness of the music to below 10 dB. d. minimize the risk of hearing loss resulting from loud sounds.

89. Ms. Jones has been diagnosed with otosclerosis. Her doctor told her that her hearing loss was due to a. immobilization of the stapes. b. buildup of earwax in the ear canal. c. infections of the middle ear. d. damage to the tympanic membrane.

90. Conduction loss results from damage to a. primary auditory cortex. b. the superior olive. c. the inner ear. d. the outer or middle ear.

91. Ryan’s doctor told him that he is most likely experiencing hearing loss because of long-term use of which reduced the blood supply to his ear. a. nicotine b. marijuana c. alcohol d. cocaine

,

92. Linear acceleration is sensed by the a. cochlea. b. otolith organs. c. semicircular canals. d. nociceptors.

93. The movement associated with the take-off of an airplane is sensed by the a. cochlea. b. otolith organs. c. semicircular canals. d. nociceptors.

94. Otoliths are a. small stones that cover the gelatinous layer of the otolith organs. b. vestibular nerves that make contact with hair cells. c. particles suspended in the fluid of the semicircular canals. d. membranes found in the saccule and utricle.

95. Hair cells in a. both the utricle and saccule are arranged horizontally.

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception b. both the utricle and saccule are arranged vertically. c. the saccule are arranged vertically, whereas the hair cells in the utricle are arranged horizontally. d. the saccule are arranged horizontally, whereas the hair cells in the utricle are arranged vertically.

96. Amber’s dance routine includes several movements where she rotates her head. Her body senses these movements because of the work of the a. utricle. b. saccule. c. cochlea. d. semicircular canals.

97. Axons from the otolith organs and semicircular canals synapse in the a. ventral cochlear nucleus and MGN of the thalamus. b. vestibular nuclei of the pons and medulla and the cerebellum. c. LGN of the thalamus and the optic chiasm. d. superior olive of the pons and the reticular activating system.

98. Axons from the vestibular nuclei form connections with the a. MGN b. LGN c. ventral posterior (VP) nucleus d. intralaminar nuclei

of the thalamus.

99. Vestibular information is most highly integrated with which other sensory processing system in humans? a. touch b. olfaction c. vision d. pain 100. Kayla made an appointment with her physician after she experienced a sudden attack of dizziness and nausea.

Kayla’s physician will most likely begin the examination by checking her a. ossicles. b. pinnas. c. spinal reflexes. d. inner ear.

101. Which of the following is the outer layer of skin, which is actually composed of dead cells? a. glabrous tissue b. epidermis c. dermis d. subcutaneous tissue 102. Which of the following mechanoreceptors have small receptive fields? a. Meissner’s corpuscles and Merkel cells b. Pacinian corpuscles and Meissner corpuscles Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception c. Merkel’s disks and Ruffini’s endings d. Ruffini’s endings and Pacinian corpuscles 103. Which of the following mechanoreceptors have large receptive fields? a. Meissner’s corpuscles and Merkel’s disks b. Pacinian corpuscles and Ruffini’s endings c. Meissner’s corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles d. Merkel’s disks and Ruffini’s endings 104. Ellie can’t feel the bracelet on her arm unless she shakes her arm and the bracelet moves. This indicates that are the somatosensory receptors mediating her awareness of her jewelry. a. Meissner’s corpuscles b. free nerve endings c. Ruffini’s endings d. Merkel’s endings 105. Deja is doing a class activity called the two-point discrimination test. Assuming she has no injuries, which part of her body should be the most sensitive? a. her back b. calves of her legs c. her forearms d. her lips 106. C fibers carry information about a. temperature and pressure. b. sharp, quick pain c. dull, aching pain d. temperature and taste.

107. Meissner’s corpuscles, Pacinian corpuscles, Merkel’s disks, and Ruffini’s endings are served by a. Alpha-alpha b. Alpha-beta c. Alpha-delta d. C

fibers.

108. A dermatome is an area of skin a. containing free nerve endings. b. that is covered by hair. c. served by the dorsal roots of a spinal nerve. d. served by the ventral roots of a spinal nerve.

109. Christopher’s grandfather was diagnosed recently with shingles. Based on what he had learned in his biological psychology class, Christopher knew that his grandfather would experience unpleasant skin eruptions in a. random patterns all over his body. b. areas that are not covered with hair, such as the soles of the feet.

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception c. a single side of his body. d. a single dermatome along his body.

110. Fibers from the mechanoreceptors make their first synapses in the a. dorsal root ganglia of the cerebellum. b. dorsal column nuclei of the medulla. c. the VP nucleus of the thalamus. d. primary somatosensory cortex.

111. Professor Stover is lecturing about touch and tells the class that the dorsal column nuclei can be found in the a. parietal lobe. b. spinal cord. c. medulla. d. forebrain.

112. Fiber pathways carrying information about touch cross the midline in the a. spinal cord. b. medulla. c. midbrain. d. forebrain.

113. Sensations from the mechanoreceptors in the skin of the face, mouth, tongue, and the dura mater of the brain travels centrally along branches of a. the medial lemniscus. b. the dorsal column. c. cranial nerve V. d. cranial nerve VIII. 114. Input from mechanoreceptors travels via the medial lemniscus to a. the LGN of the thalamus. b. the MGN of the thalamus. c. the VP nucleus of the thalamus. d. somatosensory cortex directly, without forming connections in the thalamus.

115. Primary somatosensory cortex is located in the a. frontal b. temporal c. parietal d. occipital

lobe.

116. Primary somatosensory cortex is located in a. the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe. b. the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe. c. the fusiform gyrus of the temporal lobe.

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception d. Heschl’s gyrus of the temporal lobe.

117. Anna and Jean are having a discussion in class about touch and representation of various body parts in the primary somatosensory cortex. They decided that the would have the greatest density of microreceptors. a. foot and toes b. back and shoulders c. fingers and lips d. calf and shin 118. Danielle began taking violin lessons when she was only 4 years old, and she spends many hours practicing each week. When she volunteered to participate in an imaging study at her university, the researchers noticed that a. Danielle had a smaller area of her somatosensory cortex devoted to her fingers compared to other participants. b. Danielle had a larger area of her somatosensory cortex devoted to her fingers compared to other participants. c. Danielle’s frontal lobes were more active than other participants when music was played during the experiment. d. Danielle appeared to experience phantom pain when she was asked to imagine having lost her fingers in an accident.

119. David lost a foot when an explosive detonated under his Humvee during an army convoy mission in Iraq. While recovering in a hospital, David’s physician warned him that he might experience “phantom pain.” This means that David may experience a. a sensation of pain that seems to originate in his missing foot. b. vivid flashbacks of his combat injury. c. pain in his remaining foot. d. pain that moves from one area to another randomly.

120. Neglect syndrome typically results from damage to hemisphere. a. primary; right b. primary; left c. secondary; right d. secondary; left

somatosensory cortex in the

121. Oliver Sacks’ patient with neglect syndrome had which of the following problems? a. He experienced phantom pain in his paralyzed leg. b. He often crashed into things, because he couldn’t feel anything on one side of his body. c. He could not recognize Dr. Sacks when he visited. d. He could not recognize his own leg.

122. Pain receptors are called and are a type of a. nociceptors; free nerve ending b. nociceptors; Pacinian corpuscle c. free nerve endings; Meissner’s corpuscle d. free nerve endings; Pacinian corpuscle

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.

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception 123. Karen just finished an intense weightlifting session. It is likely that she will experience some muscle soreness the following morning due to the a. ability of some nociceptors to respond to capsaicin. b. ability of some nociceptors to respond to lactic acid. c. response of warm fibers to the heat generated by working muscles. d. opening of mechanically gated channels on some nociceptors.

124. Pain information travels to the brain along a. alpha-alpha fibers and C fibers. b. alpha-beta fibers and C fibers. c. A-delta fibers and C fibers. d. C fibers only.

125. If a pain you are feeling is sharp and intense, there’s a good chance it is traveling on a. C b. B c. alpha-delta d. alpha-beta

fibers.

126. Jonathan tripped on a sprinkler during a game of flag football and felt a sharp pain as he broke his ankle. Later on, after he returned home from the emergency room with a new cast, he felt a dull, aching pain in his broken ankle. Which of the following is the BEST explanation for Jonathan’s experience? a. The sharp pain resulted from the transmission of messages along C fibers, and as the rate of signaling dropped, the quality of the pain changed to dull and aching. b. The sharp pain resulted from the activation of nociceptors that respond to mechanical injury, whereas the dull pain resulted from the activation of nociceptors that respond to chemicals released by damaged cells. c. The sharp pain resulted from the transmission of messages along C fibers, and the dull pain resulted from the transmission of messages along A fibers. d. The sharp pain resulted from the transmission of messages along A fibers, and the dull pain resulted from the transmission of messages along C fibers.

127. Lauren loves very hot, spicy foods full of pepper. Sometimes, her friends can’t eat the food she prepares because they actually feel like their mouths have been burned. It is likely that this response results from the activity of a. nociceptors that respond to certain chemicals. b. warm fibers. c. mechanoreceptors. d. a combination of warm and cold fibers.

128. Ascending pain fibers use which of the following as their primary neurotransmitter? a. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) b. glutamate c. adenosine d. epinephrine 129. Professor Woodman tells her class that pain information is sent to the central nervous system (CNS) when the axons from nociceptors synapse in the Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception a. substantia gelatinosa. b. dorsal column nuclei. c. thalamus. d. anterior cingulate gyrus.

130. Neurons in the substantia gelatinosa release a. GABA only. b. GABA and Substance P. c. glutamate only. d. glutamate and Substance P. 131. Information about pain is processed by the a. VP and intralaminar b. VP and lateral geniculate c. intralaminar and medial geniculate d. medial dorsal and VP

nuclei of the thalamus.

132. Michael has decided to donate to a blood drive at his university. As the nurse prepares to insert a needle into Michael’s arm, which of the following structures becomes more active in anticipation of pain? a. Michael’s intralaminar nuclei of the hypothalamus b. Michael’s anterior cingulate cortex (ACC) c. Michael’s posterior cingulate cortex (PCC) d. Michael’s somatosensory cortex

133.133.

(see Figure 7.25) Pain information travels through the spinal cord to the brain along the pathway labeled “3” in this image. What is the name of this pathway? a. the reticulospinal tract Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception b. the rubrospinal tract c. the spinothalamic pathway d. the corticospinal tract 134. According to Melzack and Wall’s “gate theory” of pain, why does rubbing your elbow after you bump it help reduce the pain? a. Rubbing produces an increased release of endorphins. b. Rubbing produces a refractory period in nociceptors, preventing their further activation. c. Input from rubbing competes with ascending pain messages. d. The act of rubbing has a placebo effect on the pain.

135. If you were to take a cold pressor test, what would you be trying to determine? a. the point at which you experience cold b. your body’s ability to withstand physical pressure c. your level of pain tolerance d. whether you can create neurogenesis in your skin 136. Periaqueductal gray (PAG) contains large numbers of a. glutamate b. Substance P c. endorphin d. serotonin

receptors.

137. When you go to the cosmetologist for a facial wax, she will press her finger against the part of your face she has just pulled hair out of. The resulting decrease in your discomfort is best accounted for by the theory. a. Substance P b. massage c. pressure d. gate 138. Ms. Chou has chronic pain. As such, she likely has less neurogenesis in her experience an acute injury, like a burn. a. thalamus b. prefrontal cortex c. somatosensory cortex d. hippocampus

compared to people who

139. Your roommate seems to feel much more pain than you do when the two of you are working out together. Which of the following may be an explanation for this phenomenon? a. Your roommate may be stimulating more pain receptors than you are. b. Your roommate may have fewer endogenous opioid receptors than you do. c. Your roommate may have more nociceptors than you do. d. Your roommate is working out way harder than you are.

140. Justin was involved in a serious automobile accident, which resulted in damage to his olfactory system. Other than Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception not being able to smell anything, what else can Justin expect from his injury? a. He might become severely depressed. b. The taste of his food might become too strong to be pleasant. c. His sense of taste will become stronger to compensate for the loss of olfaction. d. There will be no other problems, as smell is not an important sense for humans.

141. Olfactory receptors lining the olfactory epithelium of the nasal cavity respond to what molecules? a. airborne b. water repellent c. fat-soluble d. adjacent 142. Benjamin is studying for a quiz on the sense of smell and was surprised to read in his book that receptor cells responsible for smell differ from most other neural cells in that they a. die and are replaced frequently. b. have no soma. c. have no dendrites. d. use gaseous neurotransmitters exclusively.

143. Olfactory receptor axons synapse within the a. olfactory epithelium. b. glomeruli of the olfactory bulbs. c. olfactory cortex. d. medial dorsal nucleus of the thalamus.

144. Pathways serving which sensory system do not synapse in the thalamus before communicating with the cerebral cortex? a. touch b. pain c. audition d. olfaction 145. Which of the following is one of the identified taste categories? a. tasteless b. fatty c. sour d. spicy 146. The average person has approximately how many taste buds? a. 2,000 b. 4,000 c. 6,000 d. 10,000 147. Axons from the gustatory nucleus synapse in the Powered by Cognero

of the thalamus.

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception a. MGN b. ventral posterior medial (VPM) nucleus c. VP nucleus d. intralaminar nuclei 148. Gustatory cortex is located a. at the junction of the frontal and parietal lobes. b. at the junction of the temporal lobe and the parietal lobe. c. in the parietal lobe. d. in the temporal lobe.

149. The olfactory cortex is located a. at the base of the frontal lobe extending onto the medial surface of the temporal lobe. b. in the frontal lobe extending into the parietal lobe. c. in the temporal lobe extending into the parietal lobe. d. at the base of the parietal lobe extending onto the medial surface of the temporal lobe.

150. Eilene has been diagnosed with Parkinson disease. Her doctor said that he isn’t surprised because many patients with severe dysfunction, as Eilene also has, end up developing Parkinson disease. a. olfactory b. gustatory c. auditory d. vestibular 151. Bernardo is a well-known perfumer. As such, he most likely has changes in all of the following brain regions EXCEPT a. the anterior cingulate cortex (ACC). b. primary olfactory cortex. c. orbitofrontal cortex. d. hippocampus.

152. The relationship between the combined modalities in synaesthesia is a. one-way. b. two-way. c. one-way in some people and two-way in others. d. unpredictable.

153. Professor Roux tells his class that synaesthesia isn’t well understood but is likely caused by which one of the following? a. genetics b. having schizophrenia c. a small amygdala d. a severe viral infection during childhood 154. What percent of the human population experiences synaesthesia?

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception a. 1 percent b. less than 1 percent c. 4 percent d. 10 percent

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

155. As shown in the figure, the ossicles that are located in the fluid in the (#8).

help transfer sound energy to the

(see Figure 7.3) 156. As shown in the figure, perilymph is found in the canal (#7), while endolymph is found in the

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canal (#2) and the (#3).

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception

(see Figure 7.4) 157. In the thalamus, pain information is sent to both the nuclei (#6).

nucleus (#5) and the

(see Figure 7.25)

158. Adella is a professional food critic. She recently broke her nose in a serious skiing accident. She is concerned about her career. Why might this be?

159. Describe the descending pathways for the control of pain and discuss the implications of this structural organization for the management of chronic pain.

160. The emotional quality of olfaction is evident in the distortion of this sense that occurs in some types of psychopathology. Describe one disorder that is associated with olfactory disturbances, and comment on how such Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception disturbances might contribute to the behavior that characterizes the disorder.

161. Discuss the difference between amplitude and frequency of sound waves and what would be experienced by each quality.

162. Caleb is suffering from hearing loss as a result of conduction loss. What could be causing his conduction loss? Is there anything that can be done to restore his hearing loss?

163. Dr. Bjornson is concerned that several of his teenage patients have been using earbuds and might be damaging their hearing. What suggestions is she likely to give about earbud use?

164. Describe the types of mechanoreceptors that provide information about touch.

165. Discuss some variations in sensitivity to smell that have been shown in humans.

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. b 12. b 13. c 14. d 15. d 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. a 20. d 21. b 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. a Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception 26. d 27. a 28. c 29. c 30. c 31. d 32. c 33. b 34. a 35. a 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. c 41. d 42. a 43. b 44. a 45. d 46. d 47. c 48. c 49. a 50. d 51. a Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception 52. b 53. a 54. c 55. c 56. d 57. a 58. b 59. b 60. a 61. c 62. a 63. a 64. b 65. b 66. b 67. d 68. a 69. c 70. a 71. b 72. c 73. c 74. b 75. c 76. c Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception 77. a 78. d 79. b 80. d 81. a 82. c 83. b 84. b 85. a 86. b 87. c 88. b 89. a 90. d 91. a 92. b 93. b 94. a 95. c 96. d 97. b 98. c 99. c 100. d 101. b 102. a Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception 103. b 104. a 105. d 106. c 107. b 108. c 109. d 110. b 111. c 112. b 113. c 114. c 115. c 116. a 117. c 118. b 119. a 120. c 121. d 122. a 123. b 124. c 125. c 126. d 127. a Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception 128. b 129. a 130. d 131. a 132. b 133. c 134. c 135. c 136. c 137. d 138. d 139. b 140. a 141. a 142. a 143. b 144. d 145. c 146. c 147. b 148. a 149. a 150. a 151. a 152. a 153. a Powered by Cognero

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception 154. c 155. middle ear; cochlea 156. vestibular; tympanic; cochlear duct 157. ventral posterior; intralaminar 158. Gustation is a combination of taste from the tongue and smell. While critiquing food, she would need to be able to see the presentation of the food as well as taste and smell it. Without her sense of smell intact, she couldn’t give an accurate description of the flavor of the dishes. This could make her career very difficult.

159. Descending control from the brain has a dramatic influence on our perception of pain. Many higher-level brain structures form connections with the PAG of the midbrain, which also receives ascending pain signals. The convergence of descending control and ascending pain information in the PAG provides an opportunity for the modification of incoming pain messages by higher-level cognitive processes. Electrical stimulation of the PAG generally produces a significant reduction in pain. In addition, the PAG contains large numbers of opioid receptors, which interact with opioids such as morphine. The pain relief achieved through the use of opioids probably occurs in large part due to the drugs’ actions in the PAG. Researchers have suggested that chronic pain is more of a memory problem than a sensory problem, as if the brain has difficulty forgetting about the pain. Given what is known about descending pathways, chronic pain might be relieved with behavioral and/or cognitive therapy that would increase descending control and activity of the PAG. 160. People with anorexia nervosa show specific patterns of olfactory deficits, illustrating the complex relationships between olfaction and emotion. Gustation is a specific combination of taste and smell. This could add a layer of difficulty in encouraging someone to eat who is worried about weight when half of the quality of the food (smell) isn’t as good as it could be.

161. The height, or amplitude, of a wave indicates the amount of vibration produced by the sound, which in turn is perceived as loudness by the listener. Low-amplitude waves are characteristic of soft sounds, and high-amplitude waves are perceived as loud. The frequency of the wave, or the number of cycles per unit of time, indicates wavelength.

Wavelength corresponds to the perceived pitch of a sound.

162. Caleb is suffering from conduction loss that could be the result of buildup of wax in the ear canal, infections of the middle ear, and a disease known as otosclerosis. If removing the wax doesn’t help, Caleb can possibly be helped by use of a hearing aid, which acts by amplifying sound signals.

163. Dr. Bjornson would be likely to recommend that consumers set the volume of their devices to about 60 percent of maximum and limit their use to about an hour per day (the 60/60 rule), but such recommendations are rarely heeded.

164. Mechanoreceptors are categorized according to their structure, size of receptive field, rate of adaptation, and type of information that is processed. Structurally, mechanoreceptors are either encapsulated or not. In encapsulated receptors, the axon fibers are surrounded by a fluid-filled capsule formed of connective tissue. The two major types of encapsulated mechanoreceptors are the Meissner’s corpuscles and the Pacinian corpuscles. The Meissner’s corpuscles are found at the junction of the epidermis and dermis, whereas the Pacinian corpuscles are located deep in the skin, in the joints, and in the digestive tract. Nonencapsulated receptors include the Merkel’s disks and Ruffini’s endings. The Merkel’s disks, like the Meissner’s corpuscles, are in the upper areas of the skin, whereas the Ruffini’s endings are located at deeper levels. We also find free nerve endings distributed within the skin. As their name implies, these receptors do not have any specialized structure but are simply the unmyelinated nerve endings of sensory neurons.

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CH 07 Nonvisual Sensation and Perception 165. Females are generally more sensitive to smell than males, and smokers are less sensitive to smell than nonsmokers.

Women taking oral contraceptives are less sensitive to odors, particularly those associated with social and sexual behavior such as musk, than naturally cycling women.

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Ch 08 Movement

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What is the function of striated muscles? a. control blood pressure and move the eyes and lung b. move nutrients through the digestive tract and move bones c. control the heart and skeletal muscles d. control blood pressure and move the heart 2. After Juliet has eaten a meal, her a. smooth b. cardiac c. striated d. both smooth and striated 3. The lungs are moved by a. smooth b. cardiac c. striated d. both smooth and striated

muscles will move the nutrients and waste through her digestive system.

muscle.

4. One major difference between striated and smooth muscles is that a. smooth muscles move the voluntary system and striated muscles move automatic systems. b. striated muscles are responsible for fast twitch and smooth muscles are responsible for slow twitch. c. striated muscles move mostly voluntary systems while smooth muscles move involuntary, automatic systems. d. smooth muscles are made up of myofibrils and striated muscles are made up of only sarcomeres.

5. Professor Ammon is giving a class demonstration about how muscle fibers have receptors for channels. a. acetylcholine (ACh); sodium b. ACh; potassium c. glutamate; sodium d. glutamate; potassium

that open

6. What causes muscles to twitch? a. depolarization of the muscle fiber produced by an influx of sodium ions b. depolarization of the muscle fiber produced by an influx of potassium ions c. hyperpolarization of the muscle fiber produced by an influx of calcium ions d. hyperpolarization of the muscle fiber produced by an outflow of potassium ions 7. Action potentials in muscle fibers a. do not occur. b. spread out in two directions on either side of a receptor site. c. travel in only one direction, from one end of a muscle fiber to the other. d. lead to multiple twitches in that fiber.

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Ch 08 Movement 8. The long strands of protein running the length of a muscle fiber are called a. sarcomeres. b. myofibrils. c. Z lines. d. troponins.

9.

Keino has been studying for a quiz so he is confident that the structure that is labeled #3 is the a. myofibril. b. Z line. c. sarcomere. d. myosin.

10. Single segments of a myofibril are called a. sarcomeres. b. twitches. c. Z lines. d. troponins.

11. Mellie is studying for a quiz and writes in her notes that a Z line is Powered by Cognero

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Ch 08 Movement a. a segment of myofibril. b. a measurement used to determine muscle mass. c. the boundary of a sarcomere. d. a reflex pathway in the nervous system.

12.

is a protein that makes up the thin filaments of the myofibril. a. Pectin b. Myosin c. Actin d. Sarcomere

13. Muscle fibers contract when Z lines move a. farther apart; stretch b. farther apart; shorten c. closer together; stretch d. closer together; shorten

and the sarcomeres

.

14. The arrival of an action potential in a muscle fiber causes a. calcium to enter the muscle fiber. b. calcium to be released by internal organelles. c. ACh to enter the muscle fiber. d. ACh to be released by internal organelles.

15. Professor Van Zile tells his class that, in a resting muscle fiber, called . a. actin; tropomyosin b. actin; troponin c. myosin; tropomyosin d. myosin; troponin

binding sites are covered by a protein

16. The separation of actin molecules from myosin molecules requires a. calcium. b. sodium. c. ACh. d. energy.

17. A muscle relaxes after contracting when a. calcium is taken up by internal organelles. b. internal ACh is broken apart by acetylcholinesterase (AChE). c. troponin is taken up by internal organelles. d. myosin and actin begin to interact.

18. The coroner of a small town was sent a body to examine. The coroner explained to her technician that the body had rigor mortis because of a. a drop in ACh levels after death.

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Ch 08 Movement b. a lack of energy needed to separate actin and myosin molecules. c. an increase in intracellular calcium concentrations after death. d. the breakdown of troponin molecules after death.

19. Slow-twitch fibers and fast-twitch fibers are both a type of a. myosin filament. b. actin filament. c. myofibril. d. sarcomere.

20. Slow-twitch muscle fibers are to a. Ia; Ib b. IIa; Ia c. I; IIa and IIb d. IIb; IIa

as fast-twitch muscle fibers are to

21. Fast-twitch fibers contract up to a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 12

times more rapidly than slow-twitch fibers.

.

22. The muscles of the arms and shoulders contain a. approximately equal amounts of fast- and slow-twitch fibers, making them well suited for both endurance and explosive movements. b. higher proportions of slow-twitch fibers, making them better suited for endurance than for explosive movements. c. higher proportions of fast-twitch fibers, making them better suited for explosive movements than for endurance movements. d. higher proportions of fast-twitch fibers, making them better suited for endurance than for explosive movements.

23. Humberto runs marathons. While running, he relies on his a. fast-twitch; aerobic b. fast-twitch; anaerobic c. slow-twitch; aerobic d. slow-twitch; anaerobic

muscles that are

24. When an Olympic weightlifter uses explosive strength to lift a personal best, the probably the most active, but the marathon runner relies on her fibers. a. slow-twitch; fast-twitch b. fast-twitch; slow-twitch c. type I; type III d. type III; type II Powered by Cognero

.

fibers in her legs are

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Ch 08 Movement 25. Muscles dominated by slow-twitch fibers appear a. white; calcium b. white; myoglobin c. red; calcium d. red; myoglobin

due to the presence of

26. An athlete with likely potential in Olympic weightlifting would probably have a. about the same number of fast- and slow-twitch fibers b. more fast- than slow-twitch fibers c. more slow- than fast-twitch fibers d. only fast-twitch muscles

.

in the quadriceps muscle.

27. The proportion of fast- and slow-twitch fibers found in an individual’s quadriceps muscle is primarily determined by the a. individual’s diet. b. number of hours the individual spends each week engaged in anaerobic activity, like weightlifting. c. the type of ACTN3 genes that person has. d. number of hours the individual spends each week engaged in aerobic activity, like running or cycling.

28. Brendon spends many hours per week in the weight room, and he is quite muscular. The muscles he uses in the weight room use anaerobic fast-twitch fibers and appear to be what color? a. gray b. brown c. red d. white 29. Farhad is in a graduate program conducted by NASA. He is interested in studying the effects of low/no gravity on muscle mass, since previous research has shown that time spent in low gravity . a. does not affect muscle mass in men but does in women b. increases muscle mass c. decreases muscle mass d. converts fast-twitch muscles to slow-twitch muscles 30. Elaine has suffered a spinal cord injury. It is likely that she has had a loss of a. slow-twitch b. slow-twitch and fast-twitch c. fast-twitch d. autonomic

muscle fibers.

31. Observations of the muscle fibers of people who have experienced spinal cord damage suggest that neural input is especially important to the maintenance of a. fast-twitch fibers. b. slow-twitch fibers. c. both fast- and slow-twitch fibers. d. neither fast- nor slow-twitch fibers.

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Ch 08 Movement 32. Compared to when he was a young man, Chris’s muscles a. contain fibers that are more angular than round b. show a more even distribution of slow- and fast-twitch fibers c. are more likely to be hybrids of fast- and slow-twitch fibers d. are more likely to be made up of slow-twitch fibers

now that he has grown old.

33. Age-related loss in muscle mass appears to begin around the age of a. 25 b. 30 c. 75 d. 90

years.

34. What happens to the rate of firing in motor neurons as we age? a. No changes occur. b. Firing rates decrease, leading to slower and weaker muscle responses. c. Firing rates increase, leading to uncomfortable cramping. d. Firing rates decrease, but muscle fibers are able to compensate for these changes.

35. Age-related changes in muscle function a. are related to genetics and cannot be changed. b. can be completely stopped through exercise. c. cannot be stopped, but people can compensate somewhat for these changes by exercising. d. cannot be stopped, but people can compensate somewhat for these changes by eating carefully.

36. Motor neurons are a. evenly distributed throughout the gray matter of the spinal cord. b. evenly distributed throughout the white matter of the spinal cord. c. more numerous in spinal segments serving the middle torso. d. more numerous in spinal segments serving the arms and legs.

37. Which of the following areas of the spinal cord show enlargement of the ventral horns due to large numbers of motor neurons? a. C1–C2 and T2–T12 b. C1–C2 and L1–S3 c. C3–T1 and T2–T12 d. C3–T1 and L1–S3 38. Spinal motor neurons responsible for contracting muscles are known as a. alpha b. beta c. gamma d. theta

motor neurons.

39. In adult humans, alpha motor neurons are Powered by Cognero

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Ch 08 Movement a. small and unmyelinated. b. small and myelinated. c. large and unmyelinated. d. large and myelinated.

40. Alpha motor neurons form connections with muscle fibers at the a. muscle spindle. b. antagonistic joint. c. motor unit. d. neuromuscular junction.

41. A single alpha motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates are known as a(n) a. motor junction. b. motor unit. c. intrafusal unit. d. antagonistic unit.

42. A single motor unit usually contains a motor neuron and a. one muscle fiber. b. both fast- and slow-twitch fibers. c. either fast-twitch or slow-twitch fibers but not a mixture of the two types. d. a muscle spindle.

43. Alla is studying for a quiz on the motor systems in the body. She writes in her notes that all of the motor neurons that innervate a single muscle are collectively called a a. motor neuron pool. b. motor unit. c. neuromuscular junction. d. muscle spindle.

44. Motor units that include type IIb fibers a. usually include type IIa fibers as well. b. contract faster than type I fibers. c. produce about one-third of the force produced by units that include type IIa fibers. d. are rarely found in humans.

45. Isaac observed a sample of motor units in which single neurons innervated fibers of the same type. This led Isaac to conclude that a. neural input probably determines the identity of muscle fibers as slow- or fast-twitch. b. the organism that supplied the samples had probably suffered a spinal cord injury. c. the organism that supplied the samples was very old. d. his sample was not representative, and he needed to obtain more samples before reaching a conclusion.

46. Temporal summation may occur at the neuromuscular junction because a. action potentials last longer than muscle contractions.

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Ch 08 Movement b. muscle contractions last longer than action potentials. c. many motor neurons form synapses at a single neuromuscular junction. d. ACh is broken down slowly in the synaptic gap.

47. Which of the following sequences describes the typical order in which motor units are recruited? a. type IIb, type IIa, type I b. type IIb, type I, type IIa c. type I, type IIa, type IIb d. type I, type IIb, type IIa 48. Professor Gallo tells his class that variations in the firing rate of motor neurons so that they meet the need for a certain amount of contraction is called a. the motor neuron pool. b. the rate code. c. tetanus. d. recruitment.

49. Recruitment proceeds in a way that ensures that the a. least amount of energy and force possible will be used to do a job. b. greatest amount of energy and force possible will be used to do a job. c. fastest fibers will be recruited first to produce optimum reaction time. d. fibers with the greatest oxygen requirements will be used only when absolutely necessary for survival.

50. Alpha motor neurons receive input from a. neurons in muscle spindles only. b. neurons in muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs. c. spinal interneurons and neurons of the brainstem and motor cortex. d. neurons in muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs, neurons of the brainstem and motor cortex, and spinal interneurons.

51. Professor Williams is giving a lecture about the motor systems in the body. He tells the class that we need muscle spindles to a. provide feedback regarding muscle contraction. b. provide feedback regarding position of joints. c. provide feedback regarding muscle length. d. contract muscles.

52. Intrafusal muscle fibers a. are found in muscle spindles. b. are responsible for muscle contractions. c. provide feedback regarding muscle contractions. d. are located at the junction between a muscle and tendon.

53. Pam is studying for a quiz on the muscular system. She writes in her notes that extrafusal muscle fibers a. are found inside each muscle spindle.

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Ch 08 Movement b. are responsible for muscle contractions. c. provide feedback regarding muscle contractions in the arms and legs. d. are located at the junction between a muscle and tendon.

54. Which of the following muscle spindle fibers provides information about a muscle’s velocity of change? a. dynamic nuclear bag fibers b. nuclear chain fibers c. static nuclear bag fibers d. dynamic nuclear chain fibers 55. Intrafusal fibers receive input from a. alpha motor neurons. b. gamma motor neurons. c. Ia sensory fibers. d. C fibers.

56. Professor Berger is giving a lecture about the motor systems in the body. She tells the class that Ia sensory fibers will become active in response to a. contraction of muscle fibers. b. input from gamma motor neurons. c. stretching of muscle fibers. d. input from Ib fibers.

57. Without input from the gamma motor neurons a. extrafusal muscle fibers would be unable to contract. b. intrafusal muscle fibers would not be able to relax. c. extrafusal fibers would go limp whenever intrafusal fibers contracted. d. intrafusal fibers would go limp whenever extrafusal fibers contracted.

58. Where should we look to find Ia sensory fibers? a. at the neuromuscular junction where they are forming synapses with muscle fibers b. wrapped around the middle sections of muscle spindle fibers c. in the junctions between muscles and tendons d. in joints and in the skin 59. Compared with other sensory neurons, such as those that serve mechanoreceptors, Ia sensory fibers are a. far less commonly found in the human nervous system. b. less likely to be myelinated in the human nervous system. c. very large and very fast. d. very small and slow.

60. Samantha is about to hand Megan a notebook that contains her biological psychology notes. Which of the following correctly describes how Megan’s muscles will react to the heavy notebook? a. The weight of the notebook will cause Megan’s arm muscles to contract. This information will be sensed by mechanoreceptors around her joints and sent to her spinal cord via Ib fibers. The Ib fibers will excite gamma Powered by Cognero

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Ch 08 Movement motor neurons, which will cause her arm to contract further to adjust to the heavier weight of the book. b. The weight of the notebook will cause Megan’s arm muscles to stretch. This information will be sensed by her spindles and sent to her spinal cord by gamma motor neurons. The gamma motor neurons will inhibit the alpha motor neurons, causing her arm muscles to relax enough that she won’t drop the book. c. The weight of the notebook will cause Megan’s arm muscles to contract. This information will be sensed by her Golgi tendon organs and sent to her spinal cord by Ib sensory fibers. The Ib sensory fibers will excite alpha motor neurons that will cause her arm muscles to stretch enough that she won’t drop the book. d. The weight of the notebook will cause Megan’s arm muscles to stretch. This information will be sensed by her spindles and sent to her spinal cord by Ia sensory fibers. The Ia sensory fibers will excite alpha motor neurons that will cause her arm muscles to contract enough that she won’t drop the book.

61. The patellar tendon or “knee jerk” reflex is an example of a a. withdrawal b. flexion c. monosynaptic d. polysynaptic

reflex.

62. Golgi tendon organs provide feedback about a. muscle stretch. b. force. c. position. d. movement.

63. Professor Hinson tells her class that they need to make sure they know that Golgi tendon organs are innervated by a. Ia sensory fibers. b. alpha motor neurons. c. IIa sensory fibers. d. Ib sensory fibers.

64. Input from Ib sensory fibers a. inhibits the activity of alpha motor neurons. b. activates alpha motor neurons. c. contracts muscle spindles. d. contracts muscles.

65.65.

Kadeshia has been studying for a quiz and knows that the structure labeled #2 in the picture is the Powered by Cognero

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Ch 08 Movement a. extrafusal fiber. b. Ia sensory fiber. c. gamma motor fiber. d. intrafusal fiber.

66. Feedback regarding joint position and movement is provided by a. muscle spindles. b. mechanoreceptors. c. Golgi tendon organs. d. free nerve endings.

67. Elizabeth’s grandmother recently underwent a hip replacement operation. Because she took this course, Elizabeth is able to tell her grandmother that she a. will need to be very careful, because the removal of her joint receptors means that she will not know the position of her hip without looking. b. will have to relearn how to walk, as the operation removes joint receptors responsible for managing muscle stretch. c. will still know the position of her hip without looking, even though her operation will remove all of her joint receptors. d. should prepare to deal with phantom pain from the joint receptors that have been removed.

68. Which of the following statements about muscle movement is true? a. The only thing that muscles can do is contract. b. A single muscle can bend a joint by contracting and straighten it by relaxing. c. Smooth muscles cause movement by contracting, while striated muscles cause movement by contracting and relaxing. d. Striated muscles cause movement by contracting, but smooth muscles cause movement by contracting and relaxing.

69. If Trey wanted to straighten a joint, he would need his muscles known as a. extensors. b. flexors. c. antagonists. d. relaxers.

70. If Alishia wanted to bend her knee, she would need a. relaxation of extensors and flexors. b. contraction of extensors and flexors. c. relaxation of extensors and contraction of flexors. d. contraction of extensors and relaxation of flexors.

71. As you bend your arm up to take a drink, the the glass down, the muscles are active. a. striated; smooth b. flexor; extensor Powered by Cognero

muscles are active, and when you extend your arm to put

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Ch 08 Movement c. extensor; flexor d. type II; type I 72. An antagonistic pair of muscles is made up of a. two extensor muscles at the same joint. b. two flexor muscles at the same joint. c. an extensor muscle and a flexor muscle at the same joint. d. two complex muscles that allow joints like hips and elbows to move in many directions.

73. The preventing of one member of an antagonist pair of muscles whenever its partner is active is known as a. a monosynaptic reflex. b. a withdrawal reflex. c. a flexion reflex. d. reciprocal inhibition.

74. Reciprocal inhibition is a simple type of a. monosynaptic b. polysynaptic c. flexion d. withdrawal

reflex.

75. Yesterday morning, Naomi accidentally touched a hot part of her toaster. She avoided major injury by quickly removing her hand thanks to a. reciprocal inhibition. b. a monosynaptic reflex. c. an extensor reflex. d. a flexor reflex.

76. Professor Grist tells his class that the Babinski sign is considered to be a. normal in adults but not in children. b. normal in children but not adults. c. normal in children and teenagers until after puberty. d. abnormal in both adults and children.

77. The Babinski sign occurs when a. stroking the sole of the foot causes the toes to spread and the big toe to point upward. b. stroking the sole of the foot causes the toes to curl and then separate. c. tapping the knee with a small hammer causes the foot to kick. d. both extensors and flexors at a joint contract simultaneously in violation of reciprocal inhibition.

78. Rey was being evaluated for a possible spinal cord injury during a college football game. The team physician stroked the sole of Rey’s foot, and his toes curled. This observation suggests that a. Rey has a serious spinal cord injury that might affect his future mobility. b. Rey has a mild spinal cord injury, and with proper treatment, he should recover completely. c. Rey does not appear to have damaged his spinal cord, although this should be confirmed by further testing.

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Ch 08 Movement d. Rey’s spinal cord is probably all right, but it appears that he has sustained damage to his foot or ankle.

79. The lateral pathway originates in the a. cerebral cortex; voluntary b. cerebral cortex; automatic c. brainstem; voluntary d. brainstem; automatic

and controls

movements.

80. Ventromedial pathways provide a. automatic control of the hands, feet, and parts of limbs farther from the body. b. automatic control of the neck, torso, and parts of limbs close to the body. c. voluntary control of the hands, feet, and the medial sections of limbs. d. voluntary control of the neck and torso.

81. Austin is in a band and plays the keyboard. Which motor pathway does he use most while playing the keyboard? a. the tectospinal tract b. the vestibulospinal tract c. the lateral pathway d. the corticobulbar tract 82. Kaci is studying for a quiz and makes a note that the two tracts that are parts of the lateral pathway are a. tectospinal and rubrospinal. b. vestibulospinal and tectospinal. c. corticospinal and reticulospinal. d. rubrospinal and corticospinal.

83. The rubrospinal tract originates in the a. The rubrospinal tract originates in the b. superior colliculi of the pons. c. red nucleus of the midbrain. d. vestibular nuclei of the thalamus.

84. The corticospinal tract crosses the midline at the level of the a. superior colliculi of the midbrain. b. junction between the midbrain and pons. c. junction between the pons and medulla. d. junction between the medulla and spinal cord.

85. Sherry turned her head quickly when she saw a flash of light off to the side. To do this requires the a. ventromedial pathway. b. rubrospinal tract. c. lateral pathway. d. spinal lemniscus.

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Ch 08 Movement 86. A person with damage to the right hemisphere motor cortex will experience weakness or paralysis a. on the left side of the body. b. on the right side of the body. c. on both the right and left sides of the body. d. in the torso and arms but not the legs.

87.87.

Faith has been studying for a quiz and knows that pathways #1 and 2 are the a. medial lemniscus. b. spinothalamic pathways. c. lateral pathways. d. ventromedial pathways.

88. Evangeline is tutoring her sorority sister. She tells her that one of the ventromedial pathways is the tectospinal tract and it originates in the a. reticular formation of the pons. b. tectum of the hindbrain. c. vestibular nuclei of the medulla. d. tectum of the midbrain.

89. Renae is studying for an important quiz on the ventromedial pathways. She writes in her notes that vestibulospinal tract originates in the a. reticular formation of the pons. b. tectum of the hindbrain. c. vestibular nuclei of the medulla.

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Ch 08 Movement d. midbrain.

90. The pontine reticulospinal tract originates in the a. reticular formation of the pons. b. reticular formation of the medulla. c. vestibular nuclei of the medulla. d. midbrain.

91. The medullary reticulospinal tract originates in the a. reticular formation of the pons. b. reticular formation of the medulla. c. vestibular nuclei of the medulla. d. midbrain.

92. Which of the following is NOT one of the ventromedial motor pathways? a. the reticulospinal tract b. the tectospinal tract c. the rubrospinal tract d. the vestibulospinal tract 93. The sequencing of complex movements is managed by the a. basal ganglia. b. red nucleus. c. cerebellum. d. reticular formation.

94. Kathleen is at a party and has consumed some alcohol. The first brain region to be inhibited (resulting in Kathleen having coordination problems) is the a. basal ganglia. b. cerebellum. c. putamen. d. caudate nucleus.

95. You are going home one night when you drive through a sobriety checkpoint. The policeman asks you to get out of the car, holds one finger up in front of your face, and asks you to follow his finger with your eyes only. What is he doing? a. He is checking to see if your frontal lobe is functioning properly, which allows you to initiate movement. b. He is checking to see if your caudate nucleus, which coordinates your movements, has been affected by alcohol. c. He is checking to see if your cerebellum is functioning properly because the cerebellum is one of the first areas to be affected by alcohol. d. He is checking to see if you will follow directions because if you are drunk you might not.

96. Your friend was in an accident, and although his intelligence and personality are unchanged, he is no longer able to play his guitar, nor is he the coordinated athlete he once was. His symptoms may be the result of damage to which of the following areas?

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Ch 08 Movement a. the frontal lobes b. the cerebellum c. the occipital lobes d. the hippocampus 97. Which of the following structures is part of the basal ganglia? a. the red nucleus b. the putamen c. the cerebellum d. the reticular formation 98. One of the actions of the basal ganglia is the a. inhibition of the thalamus. b. excitation of the hypothalamus. c. inhibition of the cerebellum. d. excitation of the cerebrum.

99. The fact that symptoms of Huntington disease include the inability to control voluntary movements makes sense because the major damage from Huntington seems to be in the a. motor cortex, which controls planned movements. b. cerebellum, which controls coordinated movements. c. spinal cord, which is the final pathway for all movements. d. basal ganglia, which participates in the initiation and control of fine motor movements.

100. Donovan’s doctor has found that, among other symptoms, he has significantly lower activity in his basal ganglia.

Donovan’s doctor will likely diagnose him with a. Alzheimer disease. b. Huntington disease. c. Parkinson disease. d. muscular dystrophy.

101. Nylah’s doctor has found that, among other symptoms, she has significantly higher activity in her basal ganglia.

Nylah’s doctor will likely diagnose her with a. Alzheimer disease. b. Huntington disease. c. major depressive disorder. d. muscular dystrophy.

102. In addition to its involvement with motor disorders, which of the following structures has been implicated in obsessive-compulsive disorder and attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder? a. the cerebellum b. the thalamus c. the red nucleus d. the basal ganglia Powered by Cognero

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Ch 08 Movement 103. Primary motor cortex is located in the a. precentral; frontal b. precentral; parietal c. postcentral; frontal d. postcentral; parietal

gyrus of the

lobe.

104. Neurons controlling voluntary movement of the head are located in the a. ventral portions of the precentral gyrus. b. dorsal portions of the postcentral gyrus. c. supplementary motor area (SMA). d. cerebellum.

105. Nasir is looking at a picture of a human motor homunculus in his textbook. Which of these body parts would have the largest representation in the primary motor cortex? a. the back b. the legs c. the lips d. the toes 106. The reason the homunculus for the motor cortex is shaped the way it is (huge face, large hands) is that a. it is a drawing of all the motor functions of the body, and it is not drawn to scale. b. the amount of cortex devoted to each part of the body is represented by the relative size of the body part. c. it is a reproduction of a drawing done in the late eighteenth century. d. there is an inverse relationship between the actual size of each body part to its representation in the homunculus drawing.

107. According to positron emission tomography (PET) scans, which of the following areas are the first to show activity when a voluntary movement is initiated? a. the occipital and temporal lobes b. the parietal and frontal lobes c. the SMA and the premotor area d. the premotor area and the parietal lobes 108. As movement is initiated in the brain, the first areas to show increased activity are the . a. basal ganglia; thalamus b. cerebellum; brain stem c. red nucleus; alpha motor neurons d. prefrontal cortex; parietal lobe

and the

109. A “readiness potential” is an EEG phenomenon that precedes movement by about a. a quarter second. b. a one-half second. c. one second. d. two seconds.

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Ch 08 Movement 110. The basal ganglia influence voluntary movement by a. directly inhibiting the thalamus, which in turn influences the premotor cortex and SMA. b. directly inhibiting the premotor cortex and SMA, which in turn influences the thalamus. c. making direct connections with primary motor cortex. d. directly activating the thalamus, which in turn influences pre-SMA and SMA. 111. The premotor cortex and SMA converge on very large cells located in a. pyramidal cells in Layer III b. pyramidal cells in Layer V c. Purkinje cells in Layer III d. Purkinje cells in Layer V

of primary motor cortex.

112. The most important target(s) for output from primary motor cortex is (are) a. either the red nucleus or alpha motor neurons. b. the superior and inferior colliculi of the midbrain. c. the vestibular nuclei of the brainstem. d. the reticular formation of the brainstem.

113. Single-cell recordings during movement indicate that a. movements are encoded by single neurons. b. neurons respond to a preferred direction. c. it is not possible to identify correlations between neural activity and movements. d. neural activity during movement appears surprisingly random.

114. Greg is watching his older brother strum various chords on a guitar, since his brother has had more lessons and holds his hands in the correct position. Likely, Greg’s neurons are active while he is watching. a. vector b. reciprocal c. mirror d. pyramidal 115. Theory of mind (TOM), the understanding of another person’s perspective, appears to be difficult for individuals with autism spectrum disorder. Consequently, researchers wrongly assumed that autism spectrum disorders are caused by problems with neurons. a. vector b. reciprocal c. mirror d. pyramidal 116. Many toxins responsible for motor disorders interact with the neurotransmitter a. serotonin. b. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA). c. ACh. d. glutamate.

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Ch 08 Movement 117. Philip was bitten by a black widow spider. It is possible that if exposed to enough, the venom will a. cause paralysis by preventing GABA release. b. cause paralysis by blocking postsynaptic receptors. c. interfere with glutamate synthesis. d. produce convulsions by overstimulating ACh release.

118. Taiwanese cobra venom a. causes paralysis by preventing neurotransmitter release. b. causes paralysis by blocking postsynaptic receptors. c. interferes with neurotransmitter synthesis. d. produces convulsions by stimulating neurotransmitter release.

119. Lisa has been diagnosed with an autoimmune disorder that produces antibodies that bind to the nicotinic ACh receptor. She has a. myasthenia gravis. b. muscular dystrophy. c. Parkinson disease. d. Huntington disease.

120. Droopy eyelids and slurred speech are characteristic of a. myasthenia gravis. b. muscular dystrophy. c. Parkinson disease. d. Huntington disease.

121. Myasthenia gravis a. may be treated by administering dopamine agonists. b. may be treated with medications that suppress the immune system. c. may be treated with the implant of fetal stem cells. d. has no current effective treatments.

122. Abnormalities in muscle fiber proteins characterize a. myasthenia gravis. b. muscular dystrophy. c. Parkinson disease. d. Huntington disease.

123. Which of the following is a sex-linked disorder? a. myasthenia gravis b. muscular dystrophy c. Parkinson disease d. Huntington disease 124. Muscular dystrophy Powered by Cognero

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Ch 08 Movement a. is usually treated with AChE inhibitors. b. may be treated with medications that suppress the immune system. c. may be treated with dopamine agonists. d. has no currently approved effective treatments.

125. Dystrophin, the protein that is affected by muscular dystrophy, normally acts to a. protect muscle fiber membranes during movement. b. clear the interior of muscle fibers of excess calcium. c. allow myosin and actin to interact during muscle contraction. d. protect muscle spindles from too much stretching during movement.

126. Which of the following disorders is caused by a virus that targets and destroys spinal alpha motor neurons? a. polio b. muscular dystrophy c. myasthenia gravis d. Huntington disease 127. Cases of polio may be found in a. human beings, whales, and chimpanzees. b. human beings only. c. human beings and any other primates. d. human beings and any animal species.

128. Vaccinations effectively prevent which of the following disorders? a. polio b. muscular dystrophy c. myasthenia gravis d. Huntington disease 129. Quadriplegia usually results from a. polio. b. muscular dystrophy. c. spinal cord damage at the cervical level. d. spinal cord damage at the lumbar level.

130. Paraplegia usually results from a. polio. b. muscular dystrophy. c. spinal cord damage at the cervical level. d. spinal cord damage at the lumbar level.

131. Degeneration of motor neurons in the brainstem and spinal cord is characteristic of a. polio. b. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).

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Ch 08 Movement c. muscular dystrophy. d. myasthenia gravis.

132. For which disease is the median lifespan after diagnosis 2 to 3 years? a. polio b. muscular dystrophy c. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) d. myasthenia gravis 133. Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra is implicated in a. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. b. Parkinson disease. c. Huntington disease. d. myasthenia gravis.

134. A disorder characterized by extreme difficulties in producing movement is known as a. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. b. Parkinson disease. c. Huntington disease. d. myasthenia gravis.

135. Genetics may predispose people to develop a. early onset but not late-onset b. late-onset but not early onset c. both early onset and late-onset d. neither early onset nor late-onset

Parkinson disease.

136. Exposure to environmental toxins may lead to a. Huntington disease. b. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. c. Parkinson disease. d. polio.

137. A history of having applied insecticides and herbicides to one’s garden is related to which of the following disorders? a. Huntington disease b. myasthenia gravis c. muscular dystrophy d. Parkinson disease 138. Traditional therapy for Parkinson disease often includes a. medication to inhibit dopamine production. b. medication to stimulate dopamine production. c. gene replacement therapy. d. caspase inhibitors.

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Ch 08 Movement 139. Drinking coffee is correlated with lower rates of a. Huntington disease. b. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. c. Parkinson disease. d. polio.

140. Stem cell transplantation has been used successfully to treat a. polio. b. myasthenia gravis. c. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. d. Parkinson disease.

141. Genetic abnormalities are probably most directly responsible for a. muscular dystrophy and Huntington disease. b. polio and muscular dystrophy. c. Huntington disease and polio. d. tetanus and polio.

142. A person with fewer than 35 repeats of a specific gene will probably remain healthy, while those with 37 or more repeats of that same gene will develop . a. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis b. asthma c. Parkinson disease d. Huntington disease 143. When the muscle cannot contract any farther, it has reached a state known as a. tetanus. b. maximum rate code. c. maximum recruitment. d. contraction.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

144. When an action potential arrives at the muscle fiber, calcium is released internally and binds with troponin. a. True b. False 145. Hua is lifting a weight in her hand by bending her elbow. When it bends, the flexor muscles connected to her elbow relax. a. True b. False 146. A motor unit is made up of one alpha neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Ch 08 Movement 147. Golgi tendon organs send information to the spinal cord through Ia sensory fibers. a. True b. False 148. Dr. Paquin tests the Longmore’s new baby for the Babinski sign, a type of monosynaptic reflex. a. True b. False 149. The rubrospinal tract is one of the ventromedial motor pathways. a. True b. False 150. The basal ganglia inhibit the activity of the thalamus. a. True b. False 151. Complex plans for movement are correlated with decreased activity in the premotor cortex. a. True b. False 152. Violetta is studying neurotoxins in graduate school. Her research project is looking at how sarin decreases AChE and leads to motor disruption. a. True b. False 153. Muscular dystrophy results from exposure to some viruses. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

154.154.

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Ch 08 Movement

In this image, the #4 indicates and the #7 indicates a

filaments, the #5 indicates

filaments,

.

155.155.

The two types of fibers in this figure are the fibers indicated by the #4.

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fibers indicated by the #1 and the

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Ch 08 Movement

156.156.

Melina has been studying this figure for a quiz. She knows that the pathway indicated by #3 is the , whereas the pathway indicated by #6 is the .

157. Describe the major features of fast- and slow-twitch muscles and discuss the implications of these different features for movement.

158. Describe the basal ganglia and the role it plays in initiating movement.

159. Describe current hypotheses regarding the causes of Parkinson disease.

160. Describe the three types of muscles in the human body.

161. How does recruitment work and why does our body do this?

162. What is the difference between a monosynaptic and polysynaptic reflex? Give examples of each.

163. Recently, there was a terrorist attack and sarin gas was released into a crowd. Given your knowledge of how sarin affects the nervous system, why was this such a horrific attack?

164. Given what you know, would you rather be diagnosed with myasthenia gravis or polio? Back up your choice with Powered by Cognero

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Ch 08 Movement evidence about the symptoms and potential treatments for each disorder.

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Ch 08 Movement Answer Key 1. c 2. a 3. c 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. a 10. a 11. c 12. c 13. d 14. b 15. a 16. d 17. a 18. b 19. a 20. c 21. c 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. d Powered by Cognero

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Ch 08 Movement 26. b 27. c 28. d 29. c 30. a 31. b 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. c 36. d 37. d 38. a 39. d 40. d 41. b 42. c 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. b 47. c 48. b 49. a 50. d 51. c Powered by Cognero

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Ch 08 Movement 52. a 53. b 54. a 55. b 56. c 57. d 58. b 59. c 60. d 61. c 62. b 63. d 64. a 65. b 66. b 67. c 68. a 69. a 70. c 71. b 72. c 73. d 74. b 75. d 76. b Powered by Cognero

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Ch 08 Movement 77. a 78. c 79. a 80. b 81. c 82. d 83. c 84. d 85. a 86. a 87. c 88. d 89. c 90. a 91. b 92. c 93. c 94. b 95. c 96. b 97. b 98. a 99. d 100. c 101. b 102. d Powered by Cognero

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Ch 08 Movement 103. a 104. a 105. c 106. b 107. b 108. d 109. b 110. a 111. b 112. a 113. b 114. c 115. c 116. c 117. d 118. b 119. a 120. a 121. b 122. b 123. b 124. d 125. a 126. a 127. b Powered by Cognero

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Ch 08 Movement 128. a 129. c 130. d 131. b 132. c 133. b 134. b 135. a 136. c 137. d 138. b 139. c 140. d 141. a 142. d 143. a 144. True 145. False 146. True 147. False 148. False 149. False 150. True 151. False 152. True 153. False Powered by Cognero

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Ch 08 Movement 154. myosin; actin; sarcomere (see Figure 8.2) 155. intrafusal; extrafusal (see Figure 8.11) 156. tectospinal tract; vestibulospinal tract (see Figure 8.16) 157. In humans, the thick myosin filaments in muscle fibers come in three varieties. Type I fibers are known as slowtwitch fibers, and types IIa and IIb are known as fast-twitch fibers. Type IIa fibers are also known as fast-twitch, fatigueresistant fibers, while type IIb are also known as fast-twitch, fatigable fibers. Type IIb fibers can contract up to 10 times faster than type I fibers. The contraction velocity of type IIa fibers falls somewhere between type I and type IIb. Most skeletal muscles contain mixtures of all three types of fibers but in different proportions. The postural muscles of the back, neck, and legs are dominated by slow-twitch fibers. The muscles of the arms and shoulders contain higher proportions of fast-twitch fibers.

158. The basal ganglia consist of the caudate nucleus, the putamen, the globus pallidus, the nucleus accumbens, and the subthalamic nucleus. Complex interactive loops connect the basal ganglia with the thalamus and with the motor cortex in the frontal lobe. The basal ganglia interact with the thalamus via two pathways, a direct pathway that excites the thalamus and an indirect pathway that inhibits the thalamus. As a result, you might think of the basal ganglia as a gate or filter for intentional activity, in which motor programs associated with reward will be carried out while competing motor programs unlikely to produce reward in the present circumstances are inhibited. In other words, the basal ganglia do not initiate movement, but without the “approval” of the basal ganglia, the cerebral cortex cannot send motor commands to lower levels of the system.

159. The factors responsible for the degeneration of the substantia nigra remain unknown. It is likely that genetic vulnerabilities play a role, but only about 15–25 percent of people with Parkinson disease report having a relative with the condition. Other cases appear to result from exposure to environmental toxins. One of the strangest findings in the quest to understand Parkinson disease is the fact that drinking caffeinated coffee reduces the odds of developing the disease. Not only does caffeine have a potential protective effect against the development of Parkinson disease, but investigators have explored the possibility of its use as a treatment Caffeine and other substances that block adenosine receptors appear to improve movement and wakefulness in both human patients and animal models of the disease.

160. Smooth muscle is found in the lining of the digestive tract, within the arteries, and in the reproductive system.

Smooth muscles move nutrients through the digestive tract, control blood pressure, and mix sperm with seminal fluid, among other tasks. The smooth muscles are controlled by the autonomic nervous system. Striated muscle, named after its striped appearance, can be divided into two types, cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle. Cardiac muscle produces the pumping action of the heart. The skeletal muscles attached to bones produce the majority of body movement. Other skeletal muscles are responsible for moving our eyes and lungs. The human body contains somewhere between 640 and 850 skeletal muscles.

161. As an increased load is placed on a muscle, as when you pick up a heavy object, more motor units are recruited to provide extra tension in the muscle. Recruitment proceeds according to the nature of the motor units. Smaller, slow-twitch units are recruited first, followed by the intermediate type IIa units, and finally the largest, fastest type IIb units. The smaller neurons that innervate slow-twitch fibers are more easily excited by synaptic input, which explains why they are recruited first. Recruiting the smaller motor units first ensures that the body uses the smallest amount of force and energy to get a job done.

162. Polysynaptic reflexes are reflexes requiring more than one synapse. In contrast, the myotatic reflexes are monosynaptic, or requiring only a single synapse between a sensory neuron and a motor neuron. Myotatic reflexes are examples of monosynaptic reflexes. A familiar example of a polysynaptic reflex is the flexor reflex.

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Ch 08 Movement 163. Sarin, a synthetic chemical used as a bioweapon, is a colorless, odorless liquid that can evaporate into a gas. Sarin acts as a neurotoxin by inhibiting AChE, the enzyme that normally breaks down ACh in the synaptic gap. In the presence of sarin, ACh continues to remain active, and muscles are continually stimulated. This produces rapid fatigue and respiratory failure, as new messages from the motor system to diaphragm muscles are unable to produce movement. This attack was horrific because not only does it cause rapid injury, it can kill people in a very painful manner. It also requires that anyone wanting to help victims wait until the gas has dissipated or wear special protective gear so they don’t also get exposed to the gas.

164. Answers will vary depending on choice. Symptoms of each disorder: Myasthenia gravis results when a person’s immune system, for reasons that are not well understood, produces antibodies that bind to the nicotinic ACh receptor. Over time, the ACh receptors degenerate and become less efficient, leading to extreme muscle weakness and fatigue. The degeneration usually affects the muscles of the head first, resulting in droopy eyelids and slurred speech. As the degeneration proceeds, the patient might experience difficulty swallowing and breathing. Myasthenia gravis is typically treated with medications that suppress the immune system. Polio, or poliomyelitis, occurs only in human beings and is caused by a contagious virus that specifically targets and destroys spinal alpha motor neurons. Symptoms can include muscle weakness and paralysis, usually of the legs. If the infection affects higher levels of the central nervous system, breathing can be affected. This situation leads to the patient’s reliance on assisted respiration, such as an “iron lung.” A vaccine against polio was developed and almost all cases in the United States have been eliminated.

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. A physiological state of equilibrium or balance is called a. motivation. b. a set point. c. homeostasis. d. drive.

2. A particular value defended by a regulatory system, such as body weight or core temperature, is known as a. motivation. b. a set point. c. homeostasis. d. drive.

3. Professor Arevalo is teaching her class about body temperature around 98.6F. a. set points b. drive states c. Homeostasis d. Motivation

and gives them the example that humans need to maintain a

4. Jessica’s weight of 123 pounds doesn’t vary much regardless of what she eats from day to day. It is likely that 123 pounds is Jessica’s a. ideal weight. b. set point. c. homeostasis. d. drive state.

5. The Walkers like to keep their home’s thermostat set to 68F. This setting is analogous to a body’s a. motivation. b. homeostasis. c. set point. d. drive state.

6. The process of activating and directing behavior designed toward a specific goal is known as a. motivation. b. homeostasis. c. drive. d. tension.

7. Which of the following occur in response to physiological deficits and disappear when needs are met? a. set points b. drive states c. thermostats Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward d. states of equilibrium 8. Animals that maintain their core temperature through internal metabolic activity are known as a. endotherms. b. ectotherms. c. mesotherms. d. cold-blooded animals.

9. Animals that rely on external factors to maintain their core temperature, such as basking in the sunlight, are known as a. endotherms. b. ectotherms. c. mesotherms d. warm-blooded animals.

10. Warm-blooded and cold-blooded animals attempt to maintain a. approximately the same internal temperatures but do so through different methods. b. approximately the same internal temperatures using the same methods. c. very different internal temperatures, with the warm-blooded animals having internal temperatures about 10°F higher than cold-blooded animals. d. very different internal temperatures but use the same methods to maintain their respective set points.

11. Animals with large body volumes generate animals with small body volumes. a. more heat than b. less heat than c. the same amount of heat as d. more heat than some animals with small body volumes and less heat than other 12. Professor Rayfield is discussing body temperature and surface area-to-volume ratio. He tells the class that a would have to work harder to maintain body heat. a. horse b. rat c. human d. whale 13. An animal’s surface-to-volume ratio predicts a. that it is an ectoderm. b. that it is an endoderm. c. how much heat the animal can generate. d. how much energy the animal requires to maintain core temperature.

14. Based on surface-to-volume ratios, which of the following animals would require the most energy to maintain core temperature? a. a mouse b. a dog c. a human Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward d. an elephant 15. Michael is determined to lose 50 pounds. In addition to looking and feeling great, what else should Michael expect? a. His reactions to hot and cold weather will not change due to his weight loss. b. He will feel warmer than before in hot weather. c. He will feel warmer than before in cold weather. d. He will feel cooler than he did before in both warm and cold weather.

16. A biologist is studying an animal with an elongated body and very long legs, ears, and tail. It is likely that this animal lives in a climate. a. cold b. moderate c. hot d. dry 17. Animals in cold climates have a. less; minimizing b. less; maximizing c. greater; minimizing d. greater; maximizing

surface area, thereby

18. Anna has a pet bird named Tweety. Anna is an a. endotherm; endotherm b. endotherm; ectotherm c. ectotherm; ectotherm d. ectotherm; endotherm

heat loss.

and her bird is an

19. Eldon works in a zoo and his favorite animal is a rattlesnake named Viper. Viper is an to stay warm. a. ectotherm; shivers b. ectotherm; basks under a heat lamp c. endotherm; shivers d. endotherm; basks under a heat lamp

.

and often

20. Shivering and blood vessel constriction a. dissipate heat in ectotherms. b. dissipate heat in endotherms. c. generate and conserve heat in ectotherms. d. generate and conserve heat in endotherms.

21. Artie has been diagnosed with Raynaud’s disease. She has to be very careful when she a. takes a shower in water that is too warm. b. gets a fever. c. takes hormone supplements, especially those containing estrogens. d. gets items out of her deep freezer.

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward 22. Deficits in thyroid functions often produce a. fever. b. higher-than-normal body temperatures. c. lower-than-normal body temperatures. d. inappropriate constriction of blood vessels.

23. Ashley has been diagnosed with a low thyroid condition. She frequently experiences a. lower-than-normal core body temperatures. b. unexplained fevers. c. hyperthermia requiring hospitalization. d. usually high activity in her brown fat cells.

24. In response to cold temperatures, an infant’s a. parasympathetic; white b. parasympathetic; brown c. sympathetic; white d. sympathetic; brown

nervous system stimulates

fat activity.

25. In comparison with white fat cells, brown fat cells appear a. larger. b. different due to their greater amounts of mitochondria. c. the same and can be identified only by their location. d. different due to their smaller amounts of mitochondria.

26. During the summer heat, Bennett stays cool because a. he perspires and his blood vessels dilate. b. he perspires and his blood vessels constrict. c. his thyroid activity increases and his brown fat cell numbers are reduced. d. his brown fat activity is stimulated and his white fat cell numbers increase.

27. Janaya is going through menopause and has been experiencing hot flashes because her . a. estrogen; increased b. estrogen; decreased c. thyroid hormone; increased d. thyroid hormone; decreased

levels have

28. Fevers due to illness a. have no benefit and should be reduced immediately through the use of medication. b. represent a failure of the body’s temperature control system. c. result from a resetting of the body’s temperature set point. d. occur when the body’s set point is exceeded.

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Core temperatures in humans

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward a. should be maintained within a range of 10 degrees in order for us to feel well. b. are not as important as they are in animals that are ectotherms. c. can vary quite a bit from person to person but must be maintained within a range of 10 degrees in order for us to feel well. d. must be maintained within a very few degrees or life-threatening conditions can occur.

30. You have been hiking, and as night falls and the temperature drops, the first part of your temperature regulation system to be activated is probably your , which will trigger your to make you shiver. a. spinal cord; thermoreceptors b. thermoreceptors; hypothalamus c. brainstem; hypothalamus d. hypothalamus; skin receptors 31. If for some reason your hypothalamus doesn’t raise your core temperature when you are exposed to very cold temperatures a. you will die of hypothermia. b. you will die of hyperthermia. c. your brainstem and spinal cord will attempt to raise your core temperature. d. your temporal lobe will tell you to move to a warmer environment, which will take care of the problem.

32. Adrian is at risk for heat stroke because a. he is wearing heavy clothing in warm weather and engaging in strenuous activity. b. his pyrogens were released by disease-causing organisms. c. his genetic predispositions cause him to sweat too much. d. he has been drinking large quantities of fluid.

33. Hypothermia occurs when a person’s core body temperature a. increases to 102°F. b. increases to 104°F. c. decreases below 98°F. d. decreases below 95°F. 34. Because of the potential benefits of fever, current medical practice suggests using medication to reduce a fever only if a. discomfort is excessive. b. no other health risk factors are present. c. the medication is acetaminophen. d. the person is also using antibiotics.

35. Following open-heart surgery or cardiac arrest, it has become common for physicians to a. artificially produce a state of mild hyperthermia in a patient. b. artificially produce a state of mild hypothermia in a patient. c. increase the levels of pyrogens in the brain. d. artificially produce a state of fever.

36. Temperature regulation is managed by a Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward a. single system in the hypothalamus. b. single system in the spinal cord. c. hierarchy of systems extending from the spinal cord to the hypothalamus. d. hierarchy of systems extending from the medulla to the spinal cord.

37. Sensitivity to changes in temperature is a. equally precise in all structures related to temperature regulation. b. more precise in the brainstem than in the spinal cord or hypothalamus. c. more precise in the spinal cord than in the hypothalamus. d. more precise in the hypothalamus than in the spinal cord.

38. People with spinal cord damage a. do not have any problems with temperature regulation, because the spinal cord is the most sensitive part of the temperature regulation system. b. have problems regulating core temperature in cold but not hot conditions. c. have problems regulating core temperature in hot but not cold conditions. d. have difficulty regulating temperature, because the spinal cord temperature regulating systems are less precise than brainstem or hypothalamic systems.

39. The preoptic area (POA) contains a. no temperature-responsive neurons. b. neurons that respond to any change in core temperature. c. two types of neurons that respond to either increases or decreases in core temperature. d. three types of neurons that respond to increases in temperature, decreases in temperature, or are temperature insensitive.

40. Temperature-insensitive neurons in the POA and posterior hypothalamus a. play no role in the maintenance of core temperature. b. increase their firing rate when temperature reaches a set point. c. maintain a fairly steady firing rate. d. increase their firing rate when core temperature increases.

41. Kimberlie’s core temperature has increased. As a result a. all temperature-sensitive neurons in her POA will increase their firing rates. b. all temperature-sensitive neurons in her POA will decrease their firing rates. c. warm-sensitive neurons will increase their firing rates, while cold-sensitive and temperature-insensitive neurons will maintain a steady rate of firing. d. warm-sensitive neurons will inhibit cold-sensitive neurons, while temperature-insensitive neurons will not change.

42. In addition to receiving input from thermoreceptors in the skin and spinal cord, warm-sensitive cells in the preoptic area (POA) of the hypothalamus a. receive input from cold-sensitive but not temperature-insensitive neurons in the POA. b. have receptors that sense temperature change in their vicinity. c. receive input from both cold-insensitive and temperature-insensitive neurons in the POA. Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward d. receive input from temperature-insensitive but not cold-sensitive neurons in the POA. 43. Pyrogens influence fever by which of the following mechanisms of action? a. inhibiting the activity of temperature-insensitive neurons b. increasing the activity of cold-sensitive neurons c. reducing the activity of warm-sensitive neurons d. increasing the activity of warm-sensitive neurons

44.44.

(see Figure 9.6) Bernice is studying for a quiz. She writes in her notes that the structure labeled #1 is called the a. posterior hypothalamus. b. septal area. c. pituitary gland. d. POA of the hypothalamus.

45. Electrolytes are a. substances that have broken up into ions in a solution. b. solutes that do not carry an electrical charge. c. positively charged solutes.

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward d. negatively charged solutes.

46. Tennie is in her physiology lab and is working on a lab project. Her teacher hands out a syringe filled with an isotonic solution. The solution has a. a higher concentration of solutes than normal body fluids. b. a lower concentration of solutes than normal body fluids. c. an equal concentration of solutes as normal body fluids. d. the same solutes in the same concentrations as normal body fluids.

47. Intracellular fluid makes up about a. one-tenth b. one-third c. two-thirds d. three-quarters

of the body’s total fluids.

48. Blake is studying for a quiz and writes in his notes that the extracellular fluid in his body would include a. fluid contained within his body cells. b. his blood supply, cerebrospinal fluid, and interstitial fluid. c. his cerebrospinal fluid and the fluid contained within his body cells. d. his interstitial fluid and the fluid contained within his body cells.

49. The human blood supply makes up about a. 2 b. 7 c. 13 d. 26

percent of the body’s total fluids.

50. In osmosis a. solutes move from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration. b. solutes move from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration. c. water moves from areas of low concentration of solutes to areas of high concentration of solutes. d. water moves from areas of high concentration of solutes to areas of low concentration of solutes.

51. Simona is in the laboratory and is working with a solution that has a lower level of solutes than human blood. Relative to blood, her solution would be a. hypotonic. b. isotonic. c. hypertonic. d. osmotic.

52. Nathan is drinking a sports drink filled with electrolytes. Compared to water, his drink is a. hypotonic. b. hypertonic. c. isotonic. d. osmotic.

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward 53. An emergency room (ER) staff has been alerted by an ambulance of the imminent arrival of a patient who consumed an excessive amount of water over a couple of hours. The ER staff should expect to treat the patient for the effects of a. damage to the subfornical organ (SFO) below the fornix and a hypotonic situation. b. damage to the subfornical organ (SFO) below the fornix and a hypertonic situation. c. water intoxication, hyponatremia, and a hypotonic situation. d. water intoxication, hyponatremia, and a hypertonic situation.

54. Most excess sodium and water in the body are excreted by a. the intestines. b. the kidneys. c. perspiring. d. respiration.

55. Humans need to ingest a. no fluids in addition to those contained in food. b. about 0.3 liters (about 0.10 gallons) of fluid per day. c. about 1 liter (about 0.27 gallons) of fluid per day. d. about 2.5 liters (about 0.55 gallons) of fluid per day.

56. The “rule” that says humans should drink eight cups of plain water per day is a. a good one, because that is about the right amount of fluids everybody needs. b. not so good, because we need about twice that much fluid for good health and skin. c. unnecessary, because we take in all the fluids we need from our foods. d. unnecessary, because we take in about half the fluid we need from our foods.

57. Which of the following factors contributes the least to feelings of thirst? a. feelings of a dry mouth b. a reduction in intracellular fluid levels c. a reduction in extracellular fluid levels d. an increase in the concentration of extracellular solutes 58. Ronnie is most likely experiencing osmotic thirst because of a. injuries leading to loss of blood. b. reductions in blood pressure. c. cellular dehydration. d. decreases in the concentration of extracellular sodium.

59. Flora is most likely experiencing hypovolemic thirst because of a. increases in blood pressure. b. decreases in blood volume. c. feelings of a dry mouth. d. decreases in intracellular fluid levels.

60. Stuart was in a serious automobile accident and, in addition to breaking several bones, he suffered a deep cut that was Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward bleeding badly. As he waited for help to arrive, it is likely that Stuart was beginning to experience a. hyponatremia. b. strong osmotic thirst. c. strong hypovolemic thirst. d. both hyponatremia and hypovolemic thirst.

61. Chris just ate some really salty snacks. He is now experiencing a. osmotic thirst due to loss of intracellular fluid. b. osmotic thirst due to loss of extracellular fluid. c. hypovolemic thirst due to loss of intracellular fluid. d. hypovolemic thirst due to loss of extracellular fluid.

62. Extreme thirst may occur in cases of diabetes mellitus due to a. low blood volume. b. low concentrations of solutes in the blood. c. high concentrations of solutes in the blood. d. high blood volume.

63. Researchers have identified the as the most likely location of osmoreceptors. a. POA of the hypothalamus b. posterior hypothalamus c. lateral hypothalamus d. organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis (OVLT) 64. Osmoreceptors appear to a. increase their rate of firing when placed in a hypertonic solution and decrease their rate of firing when placed in a hypotonic solution. b. increase their rate of firing when placed in a hypotonic solution and decrease their rate of firing when placed in a hypertonic solution. c. increase their rate of firing when blood pressure drops. d. decrease their rate of firing when blood pressure drops.

65. Professor Wedell tells her class that baroreceptors are important because they measure a. blood pressure. b. intracellular fluid volume. c. sodium levels in the blood. d. interstitial fluid volume.

66. Baroreceptors are located in the a. OVLT. b. heart and kidneys. c. medulla. d. stomach and digestive tract.

67. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is released in response to Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward a. osmotic thirst only. b. hypovolemic thirst only. c. either osmotic or hypovolemic thirst. d. release of renin.

68. Renin is released by the a. pituitary glands in response to ADH. b. kidneys in response to ADH. c. pituitary glands in response to angiotensin II. d. kidneys in response to angiotensin II. 69. Denise’s released renin in order to . a. kidneys; trigger the release of ADH b. kidneys; convert angiotensinogen into angiotensin II c. posterior pituitary gland; convert angiotensinogen into angiotensin II d. posterior pituitary gland; trigger the release of ADH

70.70.

(see Figure 9.12) Shanda is studying this diagram because she is going to take a quiz on how the body responds to Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward a. normal eating behavior. b. temperature. c. thirst. d. abnormal eating behavior.

71. The function of angiotensin II is to a. constrict blood vessels and trigger the release of aldosterone. b. constrict blood vessels and trigger the release of renin. c. dilate blood vessels and trigger the release of aldosterone. d. dilate blood vessels and trigger the release of renin.

72. Aldosterone is released by the a. kidneys. b. anterior pituitary gland. c. posterior pituitary gland. d. adrenal glands.

73. Aldosterone signals the kidneys to a. retain sodium. b. excrete sodium. c. increase urine production. d. decrease urine production.

74. When hypovolemia is experimentally induced in research animals, they usually show a. avoidance of sodium. b. a specific hunger for sodium. c. lack of thirst. d. a specific hunger for glucose.

75. Kyle’s father loves to add salt to his food, but given the family’s history of high blood pressure and stroke, he is trying to avoid this practice. Why is eating less salt important in controlling blood pressure? a. Excess salt damages the kidneys, resulting in a buildup of fluids leading to high blood pressure. b. The kidneys get accustomed to higher levels of salt, interfering with their ability to monitor fluid levels properly. c. High levels of salt in the blood cause water to leave the cells, and the higher blood volume increases blood pressure. d. Higher levels of salt intake stimulate overdrinking and the resulting higher blood volume leads to high blood pressure.

76. Medications used to treat high blood pressure include a. antidiuretics; increase b. antidiuretics; reduce c. diuretics; increase d. diuretics; reduce Powered by Cognero

because they

blood volume.

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward 77. Vomiting and diarrhea may be life threatening when a. reduced; low b. reduced; high c. increased; low d. increased; high

sodium levels lead to

blood pressure.

78. Monica had a serious case of the flu, with lots of vomiting and diarrhea. When she called the Health Center for advice, a nurse told her to a. drink as much plain water as possible. b. drink sports drinks containing sodium instead of plain water. c. avoid drinking anything until the vomiting and diarrhea stopped completely. d. drink coffee or tea without cream or sugar.

79. Professor Ocampo studies drinking behavior in rats. She has found that rats will begin drinking when a. aldosterone reaches the OVLT. b. aldosterone reaches the subfornical organ. c. angiotensin II reaches the OVLT. d. angiotensin II reaches the subfornical organ.

80. The subfornical organ communicates directly with the a. posterior pituitary. b. lateral hypothalamus. c. median preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus. d. zona incerta.

81. The median preoptic nucleus receives input from the a. OVLT and the subfornical organ (SFO). b. OVLT and the nucleus of the solitary tract (NST). c. subfornical organ and the NST. d. subfornical organ and the zona incerta.

82. The median preoptic nucleus communicates directly with the a. OVLT. b. lateral hypothalamus. c. posterior pituitary. d. zona incerta.

83. Professor Kreger studies homeostatic mechanisms in rats. He has found that when he stimulates the zona incerta, rats will a. initiate drinking behavior. b. inhibit drinking behavior. c. initiate eating behavior. d. inhibit eating behavior.

84. Hyponatremia results from Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward a. dangerously low sodium and fluid levels. b. dangerously high sodium levels. c. failure to drink enough plain water. d. frequent urination.

85. In ordinary circumstances, which of the following describes the relationship between sodium and extracellular fluid levels? a. Sodium levels and extracellular fluid levels are positively correlated. b. Sodium levels and extracellular fluid levels are negatively correlated. c. Sodium levels do not correlate systematically with extracellular fluid levels. d. Sodium levels typically remain low when extracellular fluids are low or normal but increase dramatically when extracellular fluids are high.

86. The abnormalities associated with hyponatremia occur when a. sodium levels are high, but extracellular fluid levels are low. b. sodium levels are low, but extracellular fluid levels are high. c. both sodium and extracellular fluid levels are low. d. both sodium and extracellular fluid levels are high.

87. Ryan was running his first marathon with a friend, and after drinking a lot of plain water, he dropped out of the race.

At the hospital, he was diagnosed with hyponatremia and treated for a. a wide range of problems resulting from his failure to release ADH. b. dehydration of organ tissues, including the brain, due to water moving into the hypertonic blood supply. c. a dangerous loss of fluid due to constant urination. d. swelling of the brain due to low sodium levels.

88. Which of the following behaviors is mostly influenced by emotions and learning? a. eating chocolate b. drinking water after exercise c. shivering in the cold d. standing in the shade on a hot day 89. James Olds and Peter Milner (1954) discovered some of the first evidence using a procedure called there were particular locations in the brain for experiencing . a. intracranial self-stimulation (ICSS); reward b. intravenous self-stimulation; satiety c. ICSS; thirst d. intravenous self-stimulation; hunger

that

90. Routtenberg and Lindy (1965) allowed rats access to two levers for 1 hour per day to either obtain ICSS or food. They found that a. rats pressed both levers equally. b. rats pressed the ICSS lever slightly more than the food lever. c. rats pressed the food lever slightly more than the ICSS lever. d. rats pressed the ICSS almost exclusively and many starved to death.

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward 91. Similar to ICSS, electrode implants have also been used with human participants. When the electrode was in the septal area, participants reported a. pleasurable sexual feelings. b. pleasurable feelings as if they were high on drugs. c. feelings of extreme happiness. d. feelings of sleepiness.

92. Multiple lines of research have shown that reward can be thought of as two processes a. liking and wanting. b. needing and pleasure. c. needing and wanting. d. liking and pleasure.

93. Which of the following is released when large amounts of fats are consumed? a. pepsin b. hydrochloric acid c. insulin d. cholecystokinin (CCK) 94. Under normal circumstances, the only source of energy used by the brain is a. glucose. b. fatty acids. c. protein. d. glycogen.

95. Excess sugars may be converted by the liver into a. ketones. b. glycogen. c. glucose. d. glucagon.

96. During times of starvation, the brain may obtain energy from a. ketones. b. galactose. c. amino acids. d. glucagons.

97. Nick is following the Atkins Diet, which allows dieters to consume lots of fats and proteins but very little carbohydrate. Consequently, it is likely that Nick will a. not lose any weight, as weight loss requires people to reduce the amount of fats consumed. b. experience cognitive problems, as the brain will have insufficient glucose to function properly. c. use ketones from fats to provide energy to his brain. d. use amino acids from proteins to provide energy to his brain.

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward 98. Glucagon and insulin are produced by the a. stomach. b. gall bladder. c. pancreas. d. liver.

99. Matt is having an hours-long study session in the library, where the “no food, no drink” rules are enforced very strictly. Over the course of the study session, we can expect that Matt’s glucagon a. and insulin levels will remain very low. b. and insulin levels will increase gradually. c. levels will drop and his insulin levels will rise. d. levels will rise and his insulin levels will drop.

100. Insulin levels a. remain constant over time. b. increase following a meal. c. decrease following a meal. d. fluctuate according to ultradian rhythms.

101. Kendall has just eaten breakfast. Right after her meal a. her insulin levels are low and blood levels of glucose are high. b. her insulin levels are high and blood levels of glucose are low. c. both her insulin and glucose levels are high. d. both her fat and glucose levels are low.

102. In untreated type I diabetes mellitus a. glucose can’t be moved from the blood into cells. b. excess glucose is stored by cells. c. blood sugar levels are abnormally low. d. blood becomes hypotonic.

103. Symptoms of untreated diabetes mellitus include a. weight gain and excess urination. b. thirst and excess urination. c. weight gain and lack of thirst d. thirst and reduced urination.

104. Low blood volume stimulates a specific hunger for sodium, causing thirst and the desire for sodium to happen simultaneously. This condition is called a. hypovolemia. b. polydipsia. c. hyponatremia. d. diabetes mellitus.

105. Which of the following brain regions is NOT associated with the “liking” aspect of reward?

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward a. ventral pallidum b. nucleus accumbens c. orbitofrontal cortex (OFC) d. ventral tegmentum of the midbrain 106. Which of the following brain regions is NOT associated with the “wanting” aspect of reward? a. ventral tegmentum of the midbrain b. prefrontal cortex c. striatum d. orbitofrontal cortex (OFC) 107. Glucoreceptors have been found in the a. hindbrain. b. prefrontal cortex. c. insula. d. putamen.

108. Animals stop eating on their own and must be force-fed following lesions of the a. zona incerta. b. median prefrontal nucleus. c. lateral hypothalamus. d. ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH).

109. Faraji has a lesion in the ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH). What can he expect in terms of his weight? a. significant weight gain b. significant weight loss c. fluctuating weight d. no weight change 110. Leptin is produced and secreted by a. the pancreas. b. the pituitary gland. c. the arcuate nucleus. d. fat cells.

111. Dr. Sanders was excited to observe the effects of leptin on her obese laboratory mice and began to explore ways that leptin could be used to help people lose weight. It is likely that Dr. Sanders will a. be equally successful with humans as with mice, once the side effects of leptin are controlled. b. not be successful with humans, because humans do not make leptin. c. not be successful with humans, because obese humans are already producing high amounts of leptin and adding more would not help them lose weight. d. not be successful with humans, because obese humans do not have receptors for leptin.

112. Karen has recently completed a very successful diet program and is now concerned about maintaining her weight loss. One of the challenges she must face is the fact that Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward a. nobody is ever successful in maintaining weight loss, because obesity is caused by your genes. b. her lower level of fat will stimulate the release of lower levels of leptin, leading to increased hunger. c. her lower level of fat will stimulate the release of higher levels of leptin, leading to increased hunger. d. dieting has made her resistant to leptin, leading to increased hunger.

113. Neuropeptide Y (NPY) and agouti-related protein (AgRP) a. initiate feeding behavior. b. inhibit parasympathetic nervous system activity. c. activate thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). d. activate adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

114. Low levels of leptin lead to a. fasting behavior, increased sympathetic nervous system activity, and the activation of TSH and ACTH. b. feeding behavior, increased parasympathetic nervous system activity, and the suppression of TSH and ACTH. c. fasting behavior, increased parasympathetic nervous system activity, and the suppression of TSH and ACTH. d. feeding behavior, increased sympathetic nervous system activity, and the activation of TSH and ACTH. 115. Levels of the hormone ghrelin a. remain steady, as long as an organism stays at a weight set point. b. increase following a meal, then drop during fasting. c. drop following a meal, then increase during fasting. d. are correlated with the amount of body fat an organism has stored.

116. Neurons in the lateral hypothalamus involved with the initiation of complex feeding behaviors may secrete a. TSH and ACTH. b. melanin-concentrating hormone (MCH) and orexins (hypocretins). c. MCH and ACTH. d. TSH and orexins (hypocretins).

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward

117.117.

(see Figure 9.17a) The structure indicated by #1 in this illustration is the a. arcuate nucleus. b. VMH. c. lateral hypothalamus. d. paraventricular nucleus (PVN).

118. Cells releasing orexins (hypocretins) become more active when a. both leptin and ghrelin levels are high. b. both leptin and ghrelin levels are low. c. leptin levels are low and ghrelin levels are high. d. leptin levels are high and ghrelin levels are low.

119. The lateral hypothalamus communicates with the cerebral cortex and provides the necessary link between the hypothalamus’s recognition of hunger and higher-order motivated behaviors that lead to eating using a peptide called a. MCH. b. ACTH. c. TSH. d. hypocretin.

120. A neuropeptide that may signal satiety is a. TSH. Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward b. NPY. c. CCK. d. ACTH. 121. Lesions in which of the following structures may interfere with satiety? a. ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH) b. lateral hypothalamus c. septal area d. arcuate nucleus 122. High levels of leptin stimulate the release of a. NPY. b. alpha melanocyte stimulating hormone (αMSH). c. CCK. d. AgRP. 123. In response to stimulation by αMSH and cocaine-and-amphetamine-regulated transcript (CART), the pituitary gland releases a. CCK. b. NPY. c. TSH and ACTH. d. AgRP. 124. MCR receptors in the lateral hypothalamus are a. activated by AgRP, leading to satiety. b. activated by AgRP, leading to feeding behavior. c. blocked by AgRP, leading to satiety. d. blocked by AgRP, leading to feeding behavior.

125. Gena’s doctor uses getting overweight. a. body mass index (BMI) b. body composition test c. submersion test d. set point index

, which is a height/weight ratio to determine if her weight is healthy or if she is

126. Alishia’s BMI is 31. She would be considered a. normal weight. b. overweight. c. obese. d. dangerously underweight.

127. Electrical stimulation of the a. medial forebrain bundle b. lateral forebrain bundle Powered by Cognero

produces extremely powerful reinforcement effects.

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward c. ventral tegmental bundle d. ventral tegmental pathway 128. Between 1988 and 2020, rates of obesity in the United States a. remained approximately the same, although other nations experienced rising rates. b. declined, although other nations experienced rising rates. c. increased slightly, a trend that also occurred in other nations. d. increased significantly worldwide.

129. Which of the following does not play a role in obesity? a. stress combined with a high-fat diet b. genetics c. the types of bacteria found in a person’s gut d. excessive amounts of sleep 130. The most predominant neurochemical produced in the medial forebrain bundle (MFB) is a. dopamine. b. serotonin. c. glutamate. d. gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA).

131. Obesity is probably caused by a. one gene that results in your body not using nutrients properly. b. eating the same amount that thin people eat. c. a number of complex, interacting factors. d. the same factors in humans as in other mammals.

132. Professor Oros is lecturing on the reward pathway in the central nervous system (CNS). He tells the class that many addictive substances highjack the reward pathway because they are a. dopamine agonists. b. dopamine antagonists. c. serotonin agonists. d. serotonin antagonists.

133. Amanda went on a crash diet in order to look terrific for a friend’s wedding. She consumed only 800 calories per day compared to the 3,000 calories per day she normally consumed. After the wedding, she found that she rapidly passed up her original weight by 10 pounds, even though she was eating 2,500 calories per day instead of her original 3,000. What’s going on here? a. Amanda must have reduced her activity level substantially. b. Amanda’s metabolism must have slowed down too much because of her dramatic restriction of calories. c. Amanda must be cheating. There is no way this could happen if she ate 2,500 calories per day. d. Everybody gets larger when they get older.

134. Prescription medications for obesity a. have no effect.

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward b. do not work in isolation. c. produce substantial weight loss of 90 pounds in 3 months. d. are not yet available.

135. People with anorexia nervosa that would be categorized as “severe” usually maintain a BMI of less than a. 5. b. 10. c. 15. d. 20.

136. Anorexia nervosa affects approximately a. 1.5 b. 0.3 c. 5.5 d. 0.8

percent of young females in America.

137. involves a cyclical pattern of binge eating followed by purging through compensatory methods, such as inducing vomiting or the use of laxatives. a. Anorexia nervosa b. Binge-eating disorder c. Orthorexia nervosa d. Bulimia nervosa 138. What is the most likely relationship between genetics and eating disorders such as anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa? a. There is no evidence for a genetic contribution to eating disorders. b. Genes probably contribute a great deal to bulimia nervosa but not to anorexia nervosa. c. Some studies have identified a genetic contribution. d. Eating disorders can be accounted for almost entirely by genetic influences.

139. What kind of medication, if any, has proven effective in eliminating anorexia nervosa? a. antidepressants b. diuretics c. antidiuretics d. none 140. What hypothesis predicts a relationship between expectations and what actually happens? a. double-depletion hypothesis b. the glucose hypothesis c. the reward prediction error d. the incentive salience hypothesis 141. Professor Lablanc tells his class that the a. OFC and ventromedial prefrontal cortex b. OFC and amygdala Powered by Cognero

assign positive or negative value to situations.

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward c. ventromedial prefrontal cortex and ACC d. ventromedial prefrontal cortex and amygdala 142. Antidepressant medications are a. not useful in treating either anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa. b. somewhat useful in treating anorexia nervosa but not bulimia nervosa. c. somewhat useful in treating bulimia nervosa but not anorexia nervosa. d. useful in treating both bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

143. Homeostasis is an organism’s ability to adjust its physiological processes to maintain a steady internal balance or equilibrium. a. True b. False 144. Reptiles are known to maintain a lower internal body temperature than birds, and that is why they are considered to be cold blooded. a. True b. False 145. Temperature set points result from comparisons between the activity of temperature-sensitive and temperatureinsensitive neurons in the POA. a. True b. False 146. Individuals with diabetes mellitus experience extreme thirst as a result of their experiencing hypovolemia. a. True b. False 147. ADH or vasopressin controls the retention of fluid while aldosterone controls the retention of sodium. a. True b. False 148. Hyponatremia occurs when extracellular sodium levels are high, but fluid levels are low. a. True b. False 149. Under normal circumstances, the only energy source for the brain is glucose. a. True b. False 150. Neuropeptide Y (NPY) is a potent orexigenic agent with long-lasting effects. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward 151. Communication between the nucleus accumbens and the ventral tegmental area (VTA) is important for reward. a. True b. False 152. The body mass index—BMI—is the best way to determine whether one is at a healthy weight. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

153.153.

(see Figure 9.6) Responses to warmer core temperatures are coordinated by the , labeled # , and responses to cooler core temperature are coordinated by the labeled # .

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,

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward

154.154.

(see Figure 9.12) In this image, structure #1, which is the , and structure #7, the

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, receives input from structure #2, the .

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward

155.155.

(see Figure 9.17a) In the hypothalamus, the (#1) is involved in the regulation of hunger; the (#2) participates in behavioral responses to thirst and in the initiation of feeding behavior; the participates in satiety, and the is believed to inhibit feeding behavior.

(#3)

156. Describe the role of the POA of the hypothalamus in the regulation of core body temperature in endotherms.

157. Why does hyponatremia occur, and what are its consequences?

158. When scientists first discovered that externally administering leptin to obese mice produced dramatic weight loss, they were excited about leptin’s potential as a weight loss aid for people. Subsequently, obese humans were found to be producing high levels of leptin, to which they had become resistant. Describe the likely outcomes of leptin resistance to the appetite and feeding patterns of obese humans.

159. Samuel works outside. Last summer, he experienced a heat stroke. What occurred and how is this different from a fever?

160. After losing blood due to a serious cut, Jaimee experienced what kind of thirst? How would her body respond to the loss of blood?

161. What are the mechanisms for satiety?

162. Although it may not have been the initial reason she became anorexic, describe two changes in the nervous system that LeeAnne might experience as a result of being anorexic.

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward 163. Regarding reward, what is the difference between wanting and liking? Describe the brain regions involved with each.

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. b 8. a 9. b 10. a 11. a 12. b 13. d 14. a 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. d 21. d 22. c 23. a 24. d 25. b Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward 26. a 27. b 28. c 29. d 30. b 31. c 32. a 33. d 34. a 35. b 36. c 37. d 38. d 39. d 40. c 41. d 42. b 43. c 44. d 45. a 46. c 47. c 48. b 49. b 50. c 51. a Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward 52. b 53. c 54. b 55. d 56. d 57. a 58. c 59. b 60. c 61. a 62. c 63. d 64. a 65. a 66. b 67. c 68. b 69. b 70. c 71. a 72. d 73. a 74. b 75. c 76. d Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward 77. a 78. b 79. d 80. c 81. c 82. b 83. a 84. a 85. b 86. c 87. d 88. a 89. a 90. d 91. a 92. a 93. d 94. a 95. b 96. a 97. c 98. c 99. d 100. b 101. c 102. a Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward 103. b 104. a 105. d 106. a 107. a 108. c 109. a 110. d 111. c 112. b 113. a 114. b 115. c 116. b 117. d 118. c 119. a 120. c 121. a 122. b 123. c 124. d 125. a 126. c 127. a Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward 128. d 129. d 130. a 131. c 132. a 133. b 134. b 135. c 136. a 137. d 138. c 139. c 140. c 141. a 142. c 143. True 144. False 145. True 146. False 147. True 148. False 149. True 150. False 151. True 152. True 153. preoptic area; 1; posterior hypothalamus; 5 Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward 154. median preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus; subfornical organ (SFO); nucleus of the solitary

tract 155. paraventricular nucleus (PVN); lateral hypothalamus (LH); ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH);

arcuate nucleus 156. The POA of the hypothalamus, along with adjacent areas of the anterior hypothalamus and septum, coordinates incoming information from thermoreceptors with structures that trigger appropriate responses to higher core temperatures, such as panting, sweating, and the dilation of blood vessels.

157. Overdrinking can be dangerous under certain conditions, resulting in hyponatremia, a condition in which extracellular sodium levels drop 10 percent or more below normal. Untreated hyponatremia results in nausea, vomiting, cramps, and disorientation. If the condition persists, seizures, coma (due to swelling of the brain), and death may follow.

158. Answer will vary.

159. Heat stroke, or hyperthermia, occurs when Samuel’s normal compensations (such as sweating and dilating the blood vessels close to the skin) couldn’t keep his core temperature within normal limits. If core temperature rises above 40°C/104°F, a person can become confrontational, faint, and confused. Sweating stops, compounding the problem of overheating. Heat stroke is a life-threatening condition and Samuel required immediate medical attention. In contrast, a fever represents a carefully monitored increase in the body’s temperature set point and wouldn’t necessarily require medical treatment.

160. Jaimee experienced hypovolemic thirst that resulted when she experienced a drop in the volume of her blood. Lower blood volume is sensed by receptors in the heart and kidneys. The wall of the heart muscle contains baroreceptors that measure blood pressure. As blood volume decreases, blood pressure decreases as well. The kidneys contain blood-flow receptors that also respond to changes in blood volume. When low blood volume is perceived, thirst is initiated, and the kidneys act to conserve remaining fluids. Baroreceptors stimulate release of ADH, also known as vasopressin, by the posterior pituitary gland located just below the hypothalamus. First, ADH signals the kidneys to reduce urine production, which conserves fluid. Second, ADH stimulates the kidneys to release the hormone renin into the blood supply. Renin is also released in response to activity in the kidneys’ blood-flow receptors. Once in the bloodstream, renin triggers the conversion of angiotensinogen, a blood protein, into angiotensin II. Angiotensin II constricts blood vessels, helping to maintain blood pressure. Angiotensin II also triggers the release of the hormone aldosterone from the adrenal glands, located above the kidneys. Aldosterone signals the kidneys to retain sodium rather than excrete it in the urine.

161. Satiety, or fullness, occurs long before sufficient nutrients make their way into cells. Stomach fullness provides an early warning signal to tell us that we have eaten enough. The intestines also provide satiety signals. The duodenum joins the stomach and the small intestines. When duodenal glucoreceptors sense sugars, eating generally stops quickly. The arrival of foods containing fats and proteins at the duodenum signals the release of the peptide CCK. CCK promotes the release of insulin by the pancreas and contracts the gallbladder to release bile to help break down fats. CCK clearly contributes to feelings of satiety. Early research suggested that the VMH might serve as a satiety center. Lesions of the VMH in rats produced VMH syndrome, characterized by large weight gains and picky eating habits. However, it is overly simplistic to view the VMH as a single center for satiety. Animals with VMH lesions do not continue to eat indefinitely.

Instead they seem to establish a much higher set point, which is then defended in a somewhat normal manner. Lesions of the VMH not only destroy the VMH nucleus itself but also damage important adjacent fiber pathways. Among these pathways are fibers connecting the PVN to the NST in the brainstem. The NST receives information from glucoreceptors and taste receptors and participates in energy storage. Disruption of this pathway could easily produce abnormal eating patterns. VMH lesions also result in excess insulin production.

162. Answer will vary, sample answer: Powered by Cognero

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CH 09 Homeostasis, Motivation, and Reward LeeAnne would likely show greater connectivity in pathways connecting the frontal lobes and striatum related to reward but reduced connectivity between the frontal lobes and the hypothalamus. Differences in the strengths of these circuits might support LeeAnne to override homeostatic signals. Another change she might experience is elevated CART levels.

CART raises metabolic rates and inhibits feeding. CART might also reduce the rewarding aspects of eating through its actions in the nucleus accumbens, which participates in reward circuits implicated in addiction. CART’s action in the nucleus accumbens is mediated by the activity of serotonin. Serotonin abnormalities have been implicated in both eating disorders and major depressive disorder, which might account for the higher risk for these disorders within the same families.

163. Reward is not a single process. Instead, reward can be divided into separate psychological components of liking and wanting. Liking describes pleasure and hedonic responses to a reward, such as our enjoyment of yummy ice cream.

Wanting is characterized by more motivational factors such as desire and craving. Liking and wanting ice cream might sound quite similar, but different brain circuits and neurochemical patterns underlie these two components. Liking is associated with activity in a number of small, hedonic hot spots, including nuclei in the pons, the ventral pallidum (part of the globus pallidus of the basal ganglia), the nucleus accumbens, the insula, and the OFC. Wanting is generated by pathways linking the ventral tegmentum of the midbrain with the striatum and prefrontal cortex.

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The case of David Reimer, who was raised as a girl but later took on a male identity, reminded researchers that a. biology plays a significant role in gender identity. b. biology appears to play little, if any, role in gender identity. c. biology plays a significant role in the gender identity of males but not females. d. socialization does not have any effects on gender identity.

2. How many pairs of chromosomes do human males and females have in common? a. 20 b. 22 c. 25 d. 27 3. The Gǫdeks are having a baby. If there are no unusual circumstances, their baby’s genetic sex will be determined by a. an X or Y chromosome supplied by the mother. b. an X or Y chromosome supplied by the father. c. X or Y chromosomes supplied by the mother and by the father. d. all 46 chromosomes received from both parents.

4. Compared with the population of people who have typical sex chromosomes, Nielsen and Wohlert (1991) found that populations with sex chromosome abnormalities were associated with a. no increases in criminal activity, mental disorders, or physical disorders. b. significant increases in mental retardation. c. significant increases in physical abnormalities. d. significant increases in mental disorders.

5. The Carmichaels’ baby was determined to have only one X chromosome (instead of two sex chromosomes). Their baby will be diagnosed with a. Turner syndrome. b. a typical female genotype. c. Klinefelter syndrome. d. Down syndrome.

6. Jennifer has a genetic condition that resulted in her being shorter than her parents and siblings, and she has increased skin folds at her neck. She performs well in school but has some difficulty with figure rotation tasks. Which of the following is likely to be Jennifer’s diagnosis? a. Klinefelter syndrome b. androgen insensitivity syndrome c. 5-alpha-reductase deficiency d. Turner syndrome 7. Most cases of Turner syndrome result in a. normal fertility. b. a high likelihood that the condition will be passed on to offspring.

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior c. infertility. d. increased fertility.

8. Many women with Turner syndrome experience a. unusually good verbal abilities. b. deficits in verbal abilities. c. unusually good spatial relations. d. deficits in the processing of spatial relations.

9. Klinefelter syndrome results from which of the following genotypes? a. XO b. XYY c. XXY d. YO 10. The Colwells’ baby was diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. Their baby will be a. phenotypically male. b. phenotypically female. c. raised as a female but may switch to male identity at puberty. d. raised as a male but may switch to female identity at puberty.

11. Many individuals with Klinefelter syndrome experience a. unusually good verbal abilities. b. deficits in verbal skills. c. unusually good spatial relations. d. deficits in the processing of spatial relations.

12. Men with Klinefelter syndrome are more likely to be a. physically aggressive. b. shorter than their parents and siblings. c. left-handed. d. color deficient.

13. Which of the following genetic conditions related to sex chromosomes is the most common? a. 5-alpha-reductase deficiency b. XYY c. Turner syndrome d. Klinefelter syndrome 14. Most men with a 47,XYY genotype are a. infertile. b. unusually fertile. c. normally fertile but slightly more likely to produce abnormal sperm. d. normally fertile, with a high probability of producing normal sperm.

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior 15. Physically, most men with a 47,XYY genotype are a. unusually muscular. b. lacking in male secondary sex characteristics. c. shorter than normal. d. unusually tall and lean and typically have acne.

16. Compared with the general male population, the population of men with the 47,XYY genotype is more likely to show . a. higher rates of violent crime. b. lower rates of violent crime. c. higher rates of property crime. d. lower rates of property crime.

17. Ryan is unusually tall for his age, has trouble with acne, and finds school a lot more difficult than his older siblings do.

Through thorough testing, his physicians are most likely to have discovered that Ryan has which of the following conditions? a. a 47,XYY genotype b. 5-alpha-reductase deficiency c. androgen insensitivity syndrome d. congenital adrenal hyperplasia 18. Variations in the development of internal organs, external genitalia, and secondary sex characteristics occur

in what syndrome? a. Turner b. Klinefelter c. Jacobs d. androgen insensitivity 19. Andre was found to have an extra Y chromosome. Because of this, you can expect that Andre is likely to be a. convicted of a violent crime. b. cognitively challenged. c. indistinguishable from a man with an XY genotype. d. infertile.

20. Large numbers of studies have pointed to higher empathy in females and higher levels of physical

aggression in males. At the same time, some females may show decreased empathy and higher levels of physical aggression relative to typically developing girls. What disorder can account for this difference? a. congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) b. a 47,XYY genotype c. androgen insensitivity syndrome d. Klinefelter syndrome 21. Intersex refers to situations in which a. an individual decides to undergo a sex change. b. both male and female elements occur in the same individual.

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior c. an individual has a homosexual orientation. d. an individual has a heterosexual orientation.

22. Professor Rutz is lecturing on human development. He tells the class that the uterus develops from a. the Müllerian system. b. the Wolffian system. c. ovaries. d. testes.

23. Chantal is studying for a quiz and writes in her notes that the SRY gene is found on a. chromosome 21 in both males and females. b. both the X and Y chromosomes. c. the X chromosome only. d. the Y chromosome only.

24. The SRY gene is expressed at about gestational week a. 6 b. 10 c. 12 d. 16

.

25. The sex-determining region of the Y chromosome (SRY) gene encodes the protein a. estrogen. b. testis-determining factor. c. testosterone. d. ovaries-determining factor.

26. Testis-determining factor a. activates the Wolffian system. b. inhibits the Müllerian system. c. develops the primordial gonads into testes. d. prevents the development of ovaries.

27. Chromosomally male mice that are genetically engineered to lack the SRY gene will develop a. neither ovaries nor testes. b. both ovaries and testes. c. testes. d. ovaries.

28. If the SRY gene is inserted in chromosomally female mice, they will develop a. neither ovaries nor testes. b. both ovaries and testes. c. testes. d. ovaries.

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior 29. Up until about the 3rd month after conception a. male fetuses possess a Wolffian system, and female fetuses possess a Müllerian system. b. male fetuses possess a Müllerian system, and female fetuses possess a Wolffian system. c. male fetuses possess both a Müllerian system and a Wolffian system, and female fetuses possess a Müllerian system only. d. male and female fetuses possess both a Müllerian system and a Wolffian system.

30. The Colwells are having a baby boy. As their baby develops, the . a. Wolffian; seminal vesicles, vas deferens, and the prostate b. Wolffian; uterus, fallopian tubes, and upper portion of the vagina c. Müllerian; seminal vesicles, vas deferens, and the prostate d. Müllerian; uterus, fallopian tubes, and upper portion of the vagina

system will develop into the baby’s

31. The Schachters are having a baby girl. As their baby develops, the . a. Wolffian; seminal vesicles, vas deferens, and the prostate b. Wolffian; uterus, fallopian tubes, and upper portion of the vagina c. Müllerian; seminal vesicles, vas deferens, and the prostate d. Müllerian; uterus, fallopian tubes, and upper portion of the vagina

system will develop into the baby’s

32. The male fetus’ testes release a. testis-determining factor. b. SRY. c. both testosterone and testis-determining factor. d. both testosterone and anti-Müllerian hormone.

33. About 3 months after conception, testosterone a. promotes the development of the Wolffian system. b. initiates the degeneration of the Wolffian system. c. promotes the development of the Müllerian system. d. initiates the degeneration of the Müllerian system.

34. About 3 months after conception, anti-Müllerian hormone a. promotes the development of the Wolffian system. b. initiates the degeneration of the Wolffian system. c. promotes the development of the Müllerian system. d. initiates the degeneration of the Müllerian system.

35. The Suttons are having a baby girl. As she develops, her a. ovaries release hormones that develop the Müllerian system. b. ovaries release hormones that initiate the degeneration of the Müllerian system. c. ovaries release hormones that initiate the degeneration of the Wolffian system. d. Müllerian system will develop in the absence of anti-Müllerian hormone.

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior 36. In adult humans a. males may retain remnants of the Müllerian system and females retain remnants of the Wolffian system. b. females may retain remnants of the Müllerian system and males retain remnants of the Wolffian system. c. females may maintain remnants of the Wolffian system, but the Müllerian system completely degenerates in males. d. males may maintain remnants of the Müllerian system, but the Wolffian system completely degenerates in females.

37.37.

In this illustration of the 6-week-old embryo, the structure identified by # 3 will develop fully in a. both males and females. b. males and remnants will remain in females. c. males but degenerate in females. d. females but degenerate in males.

38. Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS) results from a. an abnormal copy of the SRY gene. b. failure to release testis-determining factor. c. failure of the testes to produce testosterone. d. abnormal androgen receptors.

39. Fetuses with AIS have an a. XY genotype and normal, descended testes. b. XY genotype and normal, undescended testes. c. XX genotype and normal (yet undescended) testes. d. XYY genotype and normal, descended testes.

40. In cases of AIS, the testes release a. testosterone but not anti-Müllerian hormone. b. anti-Müllerian hormone but not testosterone. c. both anti-Müllerian hormone and testosterone. d. neither anti-Müllerian hormone nor testosterone.

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior 41. In cases of AIS a. the Müllerian system develops normally, but the Wolffian system does not. b. the Wolffian system develops normally, but the Müllerian system does not. c. both the Wolffian and Müllerian systems develop fully. d. neither the Wolffian nor the Müllerian systems develop fully.

42. Individuals with AIS have a. masculinized external genitalia. b. shallow vaginas and no ovaries or uterus. c. normal female internal organs and external genitalia. d. normal male internal organs and external genitalia.

43. Individuals with AIS typically have a. male chromosomal sex but female appearance and gender identity. b. female chromosomal sex but male appearance and gender identity. c. male chromosomal sex and appearance but female gender identity. d. female chromosomal sex and appearance but male gender identity.

44. Amber is a very typical-looking young teen whose parents took her to a physician when she failed to menstruate by the age of 15 years. The physician explained that Amber had AIS and that she a. would need to adopt children if she wished to become a parent. b. was more likely to be homosexual than heterosexual. c. was likely to adopt a masculine gender identity as she approached the age of 20 years. d. would develop typical female fertility with the proper hormone medications.

45. Sue has stated that she has a strong female gender identity. From this statement, we know that a. she must be heterosexual. b. she feels like a woman. c. she is genetically female. d. her internal and external genitalia are female.

46. Kareem is studying for a test on the male external genitalia. He would need to be able to identify and discuss the roles of the a. uterus, fallopian tubes, and upper portion of the vagina. b. seminal vesicles, vas deferens, and the prostate. c. penis and scrotum. d. labia, clitoris, and outer portion of the vagina.

47. Benjamin is studying for a test on the female external genitalia. He would need to be able to identify and discuss the roles of the a. uterus, fallopian tubes, and upper portion of the vagina. b. seminal vesicles, vas deferens, and the prostate. c. penis and scrotum. d. labia, clitoris, and outer portion of the vagina.

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior 48. Normal prenatal development of male external genitalia requires the direct action of a. 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone. b. testosterone. c. anti-Müllerian hormone. d. testis-determining factor.

49. Normal development of female external genitalia a. requires the release of estrogens by the ovary. b. requires the release of 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone by the ovary. c. requires the release of anti-Müllerian hormone by the ovary. d. will occur in the absence of androgens without further action by the ovaries.

50. Exposure of female fetuses to androgens will a. have no effect. b. masculinize the internal organs. c. masculinize the external genitalia. d. masculinize both the internal organs and external genitalia.

51. Males with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) a. show few physical or behavioral effects. b. experience abnormalities in their internal organs. c. have underdeveloped external genitalia. d. have overdeveloped external genitalia.

52. Compared with normal male fetuses, female fetuses with CAH are exposed to about androgens. a. twice the b. half the c. the same d. five times the

amount of

53. Females with CAH a. show no behavioral effects. b. behave in more feminine ways than typical females. c. are more likely to engage in bisexual and lesbian behavior than typical females. d. are less likely to refer to themselves as tomboys than typical females.

54. Secondary sex characteristics in humans develop a. about 6 weeks after conception. b. about 3 months after conception. c. at birth. d. at puberty.

55. Puberty may be triggered by a. the accumulation of body fat.

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior b. the expression of testis-determining factor. c. the SRY gene. d. anti-Müllerian hormone.

56. Over the past 150 years in the United States, the average age at which puberty begins has a. remained stable. b. risen. c. decreased. d. decreased for males but not for females.

57. In western countries, factors that might influence recent changes in the age at which puberty begins include a. exposure to cultural factors such as television. b. obesity and exposure to artificial hormones. c. a cultural tendency to marry later. d. reduced access to good health care.

58. At the onset of puberty, the hypothalamus releases a. gonadotropin-releasing hormone. b. luteinizing hormone. c. follicle-stimulating hormone. d. estradiol.

59. Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) are released in a. males only. b. females only. c. both males and females. d. males and in a small percentage of females.

60. At puberty, FSH and LH a. stimulate the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone. b. stimulate the release of additional testosterone by the testes and the release of estrogens by the ovaries. c. inhibit the release of estrogens by the testes and testosterone by the ovaries. d. inhibit the release of androgens by the testes and estrogens by the ovaries.

61. In males at puberty, sperm production is regulated by a. estradiol. b. FSH. c. LH. d. LH, FSH, and testosterone.

62. Lauren was excited to go shopping for new clothes before starting middle school, but she was surprised to find out that she suddenly needed to shop in the juniors section instead of the children’s section. The most likely explanation for this change is that a. Lauren is going through puberty, and her increased estradiol levels are changing the amount and distribution of fat on her body.

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior b. Lauren spent too much time over the summer eating fatty snacks in front of the television. c. Lauren has been exposed to high levels of synthetic hormones, and she is beginning to go through puberty at an abnormally early age. d. Lauren is going through puberty, and her increased levels of 5-alpha-reductase are changing the amount and distribution of fat on her body.

63. Skeletal growth is slowed by a. testosterone in males and estradiol in females. b. estradiol in males and testosterone in females. c. testosterone in both males and females. d. estradiol in both males and females.

64. When Anita was 10 years old, she was the tallest girl in her fourth-grade class. She also began to menstruate when she was 10 years old. Given what we know about the effects of estradiol, we can expect that at age 17, Anita will be a. one of the tallest girls in her class, because she started growing so early. b. quite obese, because estradiol tends to make women fat. c. not much taller than she was at 10 years old. d. very popular among her female peers, because she matured so early.

65. During the prenatal release of androgens, boys are exposed to about girls are. a. 2.5 b. 3.5 c. 4 d. 5

times the amount of androgens as

66. The Lauders’ son had a high level of testosterone in his urine when he was 5 months old. His doctors would expect that he would be a. more likely to play with boy-typical toys when he is around 4 years old. b. less likely to play with boy-typical toys when he is around 4 years old. c. more likely to become homosexual at puberty. d. more likely to enter puberty late.

67. In the absence of sufficient quantities of 5-alpha-reductase a. 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone is not converted into testosterone, and external genitalia are not masculinized in the fetus. b. testosterone is not converted into 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone, and external genitalia are not masculinized in the fetus. c. 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone is not converted into testosterone, and internal organs are not masculinized in the fetus. d. testosterone is not converted into 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone, and internal organs are not masculinized in the fetus.

68. Children with 5-alpha-reductase deficiency may be raised as a. girls, and they retain female identity at puberty.

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior b. boys, but they take on female identity at puberty. c. girls, but they take on male identity at puberty. d. boys, and they retain male identity at puberty.

69. In cases of 5-alpha-reductase deficiency, internal organs a. fail to develop in either the male or female pattern. b. develop in the normal female pattern. c. develop in the normal male pattern. d. develop both the normal female and male patterns.

70. Sex hormones are a. proteins. b. steroids, because they are synthesized from proteins. c. amino acids. d. steroids, because they are synthesized from cholesterol.

71. The quantity of androgens produced by adult females is about a. 10 b. 25 c. 33 d. 50

percent of the quantity produced by males.

72. Estrogens are produced by a. females only. b. males only. c. males and females in about the same amounts. d. males and females in different amounts.

73. Possible indicators for prenatal exposure to androgens in humans include a. height. b. sexual frequency. c. otoacoustic emissions and finger length. d. symmetry.

74. What is “2D:4D?” a. the ratio of one’s index finger length (second digit) to their ring finger length (fourth digit) b. the ratio at which dopamine receptors fire in the second cerebral lobe to the fourth cerebral lobe c. the ratio of sexual dimorphism in twins (2) to that of quadruplets (4) d. the rate of androgen release in the second trimester of pregnancy (2) to the first trimester of life after birth (4) 75. Male and female rats show differences in the a. hippocampus. b. sexually dimorphic nucleus of the preoptic area (SDN-POA). c. interstitial nuclei of the anterior hypothalamus-3 (INAH-3).

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior d. INAH-3 and spinal nucleus of the bulbocavernosus (SNB).

76. Male and female human brains are a. identical, with no sexual dimorphism. b. sexually dimorphic in the SDN-POA, with males having the larger version. c. sexually dimorphic in the INAH-3, with females having the larger version. d. similar once brain and body size are considered 77. Professor Zepp is talking about the sex hormones and tells her class that aromatase (aromatization) is required to convert a. estradiol into testosterone. b. testosterone into estradiol. c. testosterone into 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone. d. 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone into testosterone.

78. The toy preferences observed in male and female children support the idea that a. gender differences in toy selection are primarily the result of socialization, not biology. b. gender differences in toy selection are at least partly determined by biology. c. there are no gender differences in toy selection until children are the age of 18–24 months. d. gender differences in toy selection appear early in development but then decrease as children enter elementary school.

79. Masculine play behavior and toy selection among young girls is correlated with a. paternal androgen levels. b. maternal androgen levels. c. paternal estradiol levels. d. maternal estradiol levels.

80. Men’s testosterone levels are strongly influenced by a. sense of smell. b. diet. c. sexual desire. d. competition.

81. Women’s receptivity to sexual relations is a. strongest when progesterone levels are high and estrogen levels are low. b. strongest when estrogen levels are high and progesterone levels are low. c. constant at all times. d. constantly changing.

82. In a large body of research data,

have an advantage in

demonstrate an advantage in tasks

tasks, while

a. males; auditory; females; cognitive b. females; algorithmic; males; memory c. males; visuospatial; females; verbal Powered by Cognero

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior d. males; verbal; females; visuospatial 83. Sophia is 4 years old and was born to a mother who had high levels of phthalate in her urine during the third trimester of her pregnancy. It is likely that Sophia at her current age will begin to demonstrate a. more masculine interests. b. more feminine interests. c. androgenous interests. d. no interests.

84. Which of these statements about being transgender is true? a. Transgenderism in biological females is fairly common. b. Approximately 3 percent of women with CAH who were raised as girls express a wish to live as a man. c. Transgenderism only occurs during puberty, due to the timing of hormone influences. d. Transgender individuals have brain development consistent with both male and female patterns.

85. A male is somewhat more likely to be homosexual if he a. is an only child. b. has an older sister. c. has a younger brother. d. has several older brothers.

86. Simon LeVay (1991) argued that human male sexual orientation is correlated with the size of the a. INAH-3. b. SDN-POA. c. SNB. d. corpus callosum.

87.87.

(See Figure 10.25) These samples obtained by Simon LeVay indicate differences between heterosexual males and homosexual males in a. SDN-POA. b. INAH-3. c. the SNB. d. the thalamus.

88. A cross-shift hypothesis predicts that homosexual men will show cognitive patterns similar to those of a. homosexual women. b. heterosexual women. c. heterosexual men. d. other homosexual men.

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior 89. Identified genetic loci account for less than a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 10

percent of the variability in sexual orientation.

90. The primary causal factor in sexual orientation is a. genetic, as determined by the fact that 50 percent of identical twins show concordance for homosexuality. b. due to brain structure differences, as demonstrated by Simon LeVay’s work on INAH-3. c. due to prenatal androgens, as demonstrated by CAH syndrome in females. d. not clearly understood and may include some or all of the above depending on gender.

91. The release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) by the hypothalamus is a. stimulated by melatonin and inhibited by light. b. inhibited by melatonin and stimulated by light. c. stimulated by both melatonin and light. d. inhibited by both melatonin and light.

92. The hypothalamus controls the release of sex hormones by secreting a. melatonin. b. LH and FSH. c. GnRH. d. 5-alpha-reductase.

93. Human beings show a. no trends toward seasonality in birth rates. b. mild trends toward seasonality in birth rates. c. strong trends toward seasonality in birth rates. d. strong trends toward seasonality in birth rates in countries near the equator, but weak trends toward seasonality in countries located near the poles of the earth.

94. The gonadotropins are released by the a. hypothalamus. b. pineal gland. c. anterior pituitary gland. d. posterior pituitary gland.

95. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) a. contributes to the maturation of sperm. b. stimulates the testes to produce testosterone. c. stimulates the release of GnRH by the hypothalamus. d. inhibits the release of melatonin by the pineal gland.

96. Luteinizing hormone Powered by Cognero

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior a. is released only in females. b. is released by both females and males. c. is released only by males. d. plays an important role in the prenatal development of the reproductive system.

97. Prenatal androgen exposure also affects anogenital distance, with the distance being males than in females. a. 2 b. 3 c. 10 d. 15

times as large in

98. The human equivalent of SDN-POA consists of a cluster of neurons in the preoptic area of the human hypothalamus known as the a. INAH-1. b. INAH-2. c. INAH-3. d. INAH-4.

99. The neurons in the sacral spinal cord respond to both direct stimulation and cognitive factors. a. parasympathetic b. sympathetic c. bipolar d. unipolar 100. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) a. results from higher than normal levels of LH. b. occurs in women who don’t have enough iron. c. might involve oxidative stress caused by low levels of antioxidants. d. is most likely to occur in very young women.

101. What syndrome is characterized by physical symptoms of bloating, appetite change, weight gain, abdominal pain, back pain, headache, and breast enlargement and tenderness as well as psychological symptoms of depression, anxiety, anger, mood swings, restlessness, and irritability? a. PMDD b. premenstrual syndrome c. androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS) d. trisomy X 102. Peripartum depression occurs a. after giving birth and is typically severe. b. after giving birth and is typically mild. c. just before giving birth and is typically severe. d. just before giving birth and is typically mild.

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior 103. Emily is a single, 19-year-old new mother who struggles with sleep deprivation and stress due to financial and social changes related to parenthood. Emily likely a. has major depressive disorder. b. has PMDD. c. has peripartum depression. d. is experiencing normal conditions for a new mother.

104. Earlier exposure to androgens is associated with more typical male phenotypes later in life, including superior performance on tasks. a. visuospatial b. athletic c. verbal d. auditory 105. Women are more likely to experience , while men are more likely to experience a. major depressive disorder; autism spectrum disorder b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder; autism spectrum disorder c. autism spectrum disorder; major depressive disorder d. Tourette syndrome; major depressive disorder 106. Approximately gay or lesbian. a. 4.9; 2.1 b. 1.5; 1.8 c. 0.4; 0.9 d. 0.9; 0.4

percent of adult males and

107. Support for the cross-shift hypothesis is stronger in a. homosexual men; homosexual women b. homosexual women; homosexual men c. heterosexual men; heterosexual women d. homosexual women; heterosexual men

.

percent of adult females identify themselves as

and weaker in

.

108. Which group performs BEST at mental rotation tasks? a. men in general b. women in general c. bisexual men and women d. homosexual women 109. GnRH secreted by the hypothalamus travels to the a. anterior pituitary gland. b. posterior pituitary gland. c. anterior adrenal gland. d. posterior adrenal gland.

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior 110. Why is it to your advantage to choose mates whose major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is as different as possible from your own? a. It will make you less likely to catch illnesses from your mate. b. It will make you more fertile. c. It will result in the best immune system possible for your children. d. It will prevent you from marrying a close relative.

111. Major histocompatibility complex genes code for our a. immune system’s ability to recognize intruders. b. immune system’s ability to aid in reproduction. c. reproductive system’s ability to produce androgens. d. reproductive system’s ability to produce estrogens.

112. The fact that men can produce many offspring over their life span leads to reproductive strategies that reward a. remaining a bachelor. b. seeking only mates who can bear children. c. being monogamous. d. behaving promiscuously.

113. Sexual activity results in the release of a. dopamine b. serotonin c. vasopressin d. testosterone

, promoting bond formation and maintenance.

114. Watching a mother interact with any of her children is similar to watching a. a person with addiction. b. someone who is taking artificial hormones. c. a male interacting with his male children. d. a male interacting with his female children.

115. Which species experience menstrual cycles rather than estrus cycles? a. all mammals b. all primates c. humans and New World primates d. humans and Old World primates 116. Recent studies have shown a. progesterone; estrogens b. testosterone; androgens c. estrogens; progesterone d. estrogens; androgens

to be more important than

for female sexual desire.

117. Why is a high testosterone level in men incompatible with bonding? a. It leads to a weakened immune system.

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior b. It makes them lose interest in committed sex. c. It increases their interest in uncommitted sex. d. It makes them more competitive.

118. Yolanda can show sexual receptivity throughout her menstrual cycle; however, she finds that she has the most sexual interest a. when her testosterone is high. b. when she is ovulating. c. when she is competing with other females. d. during the summer months.

119. Testosterone levels in men appear to fluctuate in response to a. internal biological clocks. b. competition. c. sexual frequency. d. mental imagery.

120. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between testosterone and male sexual frequency? a. Sexual frequency and testosterone levels are strongly correlated for men of all ages. b. Sexual frequency is positively correlated with testosterone levels in young men but not in older men. c. Sexual frequency is positively correlated with testosterone levels in older men but not as much in younger men. d. Sexual frequency shows a zero correlation with testosterone levels in men of all ages.

121. For men and women, many cases of sexual dysfunction are associated with a. low levels of testosterone. b. high levels of testosterone. c. type 2 diabetes. d. chronic heart disease.

122. Approximately a. 30 million b. 10 million c. 3 billion d. 1 billion

men in the United States experience some degree of erectile dysfunction.

123. Manuel is in a long-term, monogamous relationship; Karl is single and dates women occasionally; and Stephen has three girlfriends who all believe that he is monogamous. It is most likely that a. all three men have similar testosterone levels. b. Karl has the highest testosterone levels, followed by Stephen, and then Manuel. c. Stephen has the highest testosterone levels, followed by Karl, and then Manuel. d. Manuel has the highest testosterone levels, followed by Stephen, and then Karl.

124. Which of the following is NOT true for people who have high levels of body symmetry?

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior a. They experience more opportunities for sexual activity. b. They are viewed as healthier. c. They are viewed as more beautiful. d. They have elevated levels of sex hormones.

125. Men viewing the faces of beautiful women showed activation of the a. INAH-3. b. SDN-POA. c. nucleus accumbens. d. anterior commissure.

126. People who are perceived as especially attractive tend to a. be less likely to cheat on their mates. b. spend more time on grooming. c. spend the most time working out. d. have physically symmetrical faces.

127. Children as young as a. 8 or 10 years b. 4 or 6 years c. 1 or 2 years d. 3 or 6 months

old spend more time staring at faces that adults judge as attractive.

128. Women prefer high testosterone men for a. both short-term and long-term relationships. b. short-term but not long-term relationships. c. long-term but not short-term relationships. d. neither short-term nor long-term relationships.

129. Common forms of female sexual dysfunction include a. testosterone insensitivity that reduces the ability to orgasm. b. orgasm problems only. c. both reduced sexual desire and orgasm problems. d. testosterone insensitivity that reduces sexual desire.

130. Human beings may be attracted by body scents that reflect a potential mate’s a. testosterone levels. b. immune system. c. symmetry. d. vasopressin levels.

131. Perceived similarity of body odor is correlated in . a. not; men; strongly; women Powered by Cognero

correlated with relationship satisfaction in

but is

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior b. 100 percent; men; only 50 percent; women c. positively; men; negatively; women d. negatively; men; positively; women 132. Areas of the brain that are associated with negative emotion, social judgment, and assessing other people’s intentions and emotions are less active when you are viewing a picture of a(n) a. symmetrical face. b. loved one. c. enemy. d. stranger.

133. Bonding is correlated with levels of a. testosterone. b. estradiol. c. oxytocin. d. vasopressin.

134. According to evolutionary psychology, the best reproductive strategy for a. men is to be selective and for women to be promiscuous. b. women is to be selective and for men to be promiscuous. c. both men and women is to be selective. d. both men and women is to be promiscuous.

135. The key to different mating and parenting patterns between prairie voles and montane voles is a. oxytocin receptor density. b. progesterone receptor density. c. differences in the mountain and prairie niches. d. differences in patterns of predation.

136. Maternal bonding behaviors in humans, such as vocalizations and gazing, are positively correlated with a woman’s levels of which of the following hormones during her pregnancy? a. testosterone b. vasopressin c. oxytocin d. estradiol 137. “Friends with benefits” situations, in which men and women have sex without expecting an emotional bond a. are likely to be equally desirable to both men and women. b. might be less desirable for men than for women. c. might be less desirable for women than for men. d. are likely to be equally undesirable for men and women.

138. Medications for erectile dysfunction interact with a. testosterone. b. acetylcholine (Ach).

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior c. oxytocin. d. nitric oxide (NO).

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

139. Compared with genetic disorders associated with chromosomes other than the sex chromosomes, disorders involving sex chromosomes have relatively mild effects on cognition. a. True b. False 140. Nonfunctional remnants of the Wolffian system may remain in adult women. a. True b. False 141. Professor Farris studies persons diagnosed with AIS. She has found that many of them have male gender identity in spite of the fact that they have an XY genotype. a. True b. False 142. Both males and females release the hormones LH and FSH, but these hormones impact fertility only in females. a. True b. False 143. David entered puberty around age 12. His doctors were concerned because this was very early compared to most children. a. True b. False 144. Sexually dimorphic structures have been identified in the human brain. a. True b. False 145. Female sexual interest is most highly correlated with estrogen levels, whereas male sexual interest is most highly correlated with testosterone levels only in older men. a. True b. False 146. Steve is in a monogamous, long-term relationship. It is likely that he has very high levels of testosterone compared to his single friends. a. True b. False 147. Facial symmetry fully accounts for human perceptions of facial attractiveness. a. True b. False

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior 148. Medications used to treat erectile dysfunction work by enhancing the effects of nitrous oxide (NO) on the erectile tissues of the penis. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

149.149.

(See Figure 10.7 The structure labeled number 1 in this illustration is known as a in males and into the

, which will develop into the in females.

150.150.

(See Figure 10.25) According to Simon LeVay, the sample labeled number 1 in this image of the men, and the sample labeled number 2 in this image is characteristic of men.

151. In males, LH signals the testes to produce . Both testosterone and are required for the maturation of sperm. In females, LH and FSH control the

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is characteristic of

.

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior 152. Carla has been diagnosed with Turner syndrome. Discuss what symptoms she might experience and the specific genetics she inherited.

153. Discuss the current research relating the 2D:4D ratio and presence of otoacoustic emissions to sexual orientation.

154. Discuss how the internal sexual organs develop differently from the gonads.

155. Although Weston is male and, therefore, doesn’t have a menstrual cycle, he still needs the hormones LH and FSH. Explain how his body uses these hormones.

156. Discuss the human equivalent of the SDN-POA. How does it differ in regard to sexual orientation?

157. Jan has been diagnosed with CAH. Explain what doctors would predict regarding her choices of toys.

158. Molly has been diagnosed with PMDD. What is this and what symptoms would she have? How might her doctors try to help her?

159. Discuss how an erection normally occurs and what happens when a male has erectile dysfunction. What is the typical treatment and how does it work?

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. a 6. d 7. c 8. d 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. c 13. d 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. a 21. b 22. b 23. d 24. a 25. b Powered by Cognero

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior 26. c 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. a 31. d 32. d 33. a 34. d 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. d 39. b 40. c 41. d 42. b 43. a 44. a 45. b 46. c 47. d 48. a 49. d 50. c 51. a Powered by Cognero

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior 52. b 53. c 54. d 55. a 56. c 57. b 58. a 59. c 60. b 61. d 62. a 63. d 64. c 65. a 66. a 67. b 68. c 69. c 70. d 71. a 72. d 73. c 74. a 75. b 76. d Powered by Cognero

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior 77. b 78. b 79. b 80. d 81. b 82. c 83. a 84. b 85. d 86. a 87. b 88. b 89. a 90. d 91. b 92. c 93. b 94. c 95. a 96. b 97. a 98. a 99. a 100. c 101. d 102. a Powered by Cognero

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior 103. d 104. a 105. a 106. a 107. a 108. a 109. a 110. c 111. a 112. a 113. a 114. a 115. d 116. c 117. c 118. b 119. b 120. c 121. c 122. a 123. c 124. d 125. c 126. d 127. d Powered by Cognero

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior 128. b 129. c 130. b 131. c 132. b 133. c 134. b 135. a 136. c 137. c 138. d 139. True 140. True 141. False 142. False 143. False 144. True 145. True 146. False 147. False 148. True 149. gonad; testes; ovaries 150. INAH-3; heterosexual and homosexual 151. testosterone; FSH; menstrual cycle 152. Carla has only one X chromosome instead of a pair of sex chromosomes. She likely has typical female external genitalia, but her ovaries can develop abnormally into what is known as “streak gonad” due to an increase in connective tissue. In most cases, the ovaries do not produce either eggs (ova) or normal levels of female hormones, leading to Powered by Cognero

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior infertility. She is likely fairly short. Her intelligence is normal, but specific deficits in spatial relationships and processing visual cues can occur.

153. Male 2D:4D ratios, particularly in the right hand, are typically smaller than female 2D:4D ratios, although the distributions of the ratios show wide areas of overlap. This means that the female index and ring fingers are similar in length (ratio approaching 1.0), while male index fingers tend to be shorter than ring fingers (ratio of about 0.955).

Lesbians tended to show the more masculine pattern of finger length, suggesting that they might have experienced prenatal exposure to androgens.

Females produce louder and more frequent otoacoustic emissions. These differences appear early in life and are possibly due to the amount of prenatal testosterone exposure experienced by an individual. The rate of the emissions in lesbian and bisexual women fell between the typical levels for heterosexual women and for men. It has been suggested that exposure to prenatal androgens may have influenced both the ear structure and sexual orientation of the lesbian and bisexual women.

154. Up until the 6th gestational week, both male and female embryos have identical primordial gonads that have the capacity to develop into ovaries, the female gonads, or testes, the male gonads. At about 6 weeks’ gestation, a gene on the short arm of the Y chromosome, known as the SRY, is expressed in male embryos. Testis-determining factor, the protein encoded by the SRY gene, switches on additional genes that cause the primordial gonads to develop into testes. In female embryos, which lack the SRY gene and its ability to produce testis-determining factor, alternate genes, including Wnt4 (located on Chromosome 1) and DAX1 (located on the X chromosome) guide the development of the primordial gonad into ovaries.

The differentiation of the internal organs follows the development of the gonads. Until about the 3rd gestational month in humans, both male and female embryos possess a male Wolffian system and a female Müllerian system. In males, the Wolffian system will develop into the seminal vesicles, the vas deferens, and the prostate. In females, the Müllerian system will develop into the uterus, the upper portion of the vagina, and the fallopian tubes.

155. While Weston is in puberty, FSH and LH will stimulate the testes begin to produce additional testosterone. In males, this burst of additional androgens stimulates muscular development, maturity of the external genitalia, facial hair, and enlargement of the larynx, which leads to a deeper voice. In conjunction with LH and FSH, testosterone begins to regulate the production of sperm. Testosterone also affects a male’s hairline and can result in baldness later in adulthood.

156. The human equivalent of SDN-POA consists of a cluster of neurons in the preoptic area of the human hypothalamus known as the INAH-1. Three additional clusters, INAH-2, INAH-3, and INAH-4, have been identified in the human brain.

INAH-2 and INAH-3 are about twice as large in males as in females. Simon LeVay asked whether INAH-3 might be different in heterosexual and homosexual men. Lesions of INAH-3 in monkeys impair heterosexual behavior but do not affect overall sex drive, as indicated by rates of masturbation. He found that INAH-3 was two to three times larger in heterosexual men than in homosexual men.

157. Jan has CAH. Despite any socialization to try to get her to play with more “feminine” toys, it is likely that Jan will choose toys significantly more in the masculine direction than in the feminine direction compared to typical female children.

158. Severe cases of premenstrual mood changes are diagnosed as PMDD. Women like Molly with PMDD experience more depression, changes in appetite (consuming more calories total and more calories from fat), and impaired cognitive performance than women who do not suffer from this disorder. Molly’s symptoms are consistent with a hypothesis linking serotonin dysfunction with PMDD, leading her doctors to try a treatment of medication with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

159. Erections occur as a result of either direct stimulation or cognitive factors. Parasympathetic neurons in the sacral spinal cord respond to both mechanoreceptors in the genitals (direct stimulation) and descending input from the brain (cognitive factors). These parasympathetic neurons release acetylcholine (Ach) and nitric oxide (NO) into the spongy Powered by Cognero

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CH 10 Sexual Behavior erectile tissues of the penis, which subsequently fill with blood. A common type of sexual dysfunction in men is erectile dysfunction, which occurs when a man is unable to achieve an erection sufficient for satisfactory sexual activity.

Medications used to treat erectile dysfunction promote erection by enhancing the effects of NO on the erectile tissues.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Americans are believed to be somewhat sleep-deprived because the average adult spends about bed (and not necessarily asleep). a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 8

hours in

2. How long does an ultradian cycle typically last? a. about 24 hours b. 90–120 minutes c. half a year d. 28 days 3. Which of the following is an example of a circadian rhythm? a. sleep–waking cycles b. menstrual cycles c. seasonal migration d. mating seasons 4. External cues, such as the rising of the sun, used by animals to establish daily rhythms, are known as a. phase shifts. b. zeitgebers. c. entrainment signals. d. circadian rhythms.

5. In the absence of natural light, the free-running circadian rhythms of human beings are a. between 22 and 23 b. between 23 and 24 c. between 24 and 25 d. more than 30

hours long.

6. Elizabeth is an officer on a nuclear submarine that on occasion stays submerged for months, preventing any exposure to natural sunlight. What is the likely consequence for Elizabeth and her crewmates? a. compensation from her internal biological clocks b. an inability to perform her duties c. a need for a 15- to 20-minute nap during the day d. severe sleep disruptions 7. Joshua, who is 19 years old, can’t seem to get to sleep until about 2:00 a.m. and then struggles to get up on time in order to attend morning classes. It is most likely that Joshua a. has always been an “owl” and will continue this pattern throughout his adulthood. b. is currently an owl but may change to another pattern during his 20s. c. might not have been an owl previously but will now maintain this pattern for the rest of his life.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking d. has been an owl up to young adulthood but will definitely change to a new pattern in his 20s.

8. The Jarmans’ daughter just turned 15. They have found that she a. has continued her previous patterns of sleep and waking. b. requires less sleep than at other points in her life span. c. has changed from being an “owl” to a “lark.” d. has changed from being a “lark” to an “owl.”

9. Sleep patterns are most likely to change at puberty due to a. social pressures to stay out late with friends. b. a drop in the production of melatonin. c. the need to sleep more due to the adolescent growth spurt. d. changes in physical activity and eating patterns.

10. School board member Lineman has proposed that his district change the school times so that classes begin later in the morning because he knows that this will a. have little effect on school performance of children and teens. b. boost school performance of elementary students but have no effect on teens and young adults. c. improve school performance of teens and young adults. d. decrease school performance of teens and young adults.

11. Evening and night shift workers experience a. increased mood and health problems. b. excessive weight gain. c. about the same rate of health problems as workers on typical day shifts. d. decreased health problems.

12. Concerns about links between night shift work and an increased risk for cancer a. have not yet been investigated. b. are still being investigated. c. are supported by research findings. d. are not supported by research.

13. Jet lag is a. worse when one travels in an eastward direction. b. worse when one travels in a westward direction. c. worse when one travels in a northward direction. d. dependent on distance traveled, not direction.

14. Paul has been working the night shift for a long time. He likely has a. developed shift maladaptation syndrome. b. developed a reduced need for sleep. c. increases in NREM. d. no observable symptoms.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking 15. You’ve been in college in Orange County, California, and you’ve been asked to interview for graduate school at Harvard on the east coast. If you have a choice, what schedule should you set for yourself, given the issue of jet lag? a. Fly out of LA at 5:00 p.m. PST and get into Boston at 2:00 a.m. EST for an 8:00 a.m. meeting with the dean the same day. b. Fly out of LA at 7:00 a.m. PST and get into Boston at 4:00 p.m. EST for an 8:00 a.m. meeting with the dean the next day. c. Fly out of LA at 7:00 a.m. PST and get into Boston at 4:00 p.m. EST for a 1:00 p.m. meeting with the dean the next day. d. Fly out of LA at 11:00 p.m. PST and get into Boston at 4:00 a.m. EST for a 3:00 p.m. meeting with the dean the same day.

16. The body’s internal “master clock” is the a. pons. b. occipital cortex. c. thalamus. d. suprachiasmatic nucleus.

17. Jack is studying for a quiz and records in his notes that the SCN is the and a. suprachiasmatic nucleus; is the only biological clock in the body. b. superficial cortical nucleus; is one of multiple, independent biological clocks in the body. c. suprachiasmatic nucleus; may be viewed as the body’s “master clock.” d. superficial cortical nucleus; responds more slowly to phase shifts than clocks in other types of tissue.

18. The suprachiasmatic nucleus is located in the a. midbrain. b. hypothalamus. c. pons. d. medulla.

19. Professor West is lecturing on sleep cycles and tells his class that the axons that form the retinohypothalamic pathway come from special a. ipRGC cells within the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN). b. cells called extrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells. c. cells called intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells. d. color-sensitive ganglion cells within the retina.

20. Cells forming the retinohypothalamic pathway contain a. rhodopsin, the same photopigment found in rods. b. a variety of color photopigments. c. no photopigments. d. the photopigment melanopsin.

21. Great Aunt Mary has always been a “lark,” getting up early, working busily during the day, and then going to bed relatively early. She recently had a slight stroke, and the only thing that seems different about her is that her normal periods of sleeping and waking have changed. Now, you never know when she will get up or when she will go to bed, and she is often up half the night but sleeping during the day. Given what you have learned about sleep and waking, which one Powered by Cognero

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking of the following brain areas might have been affected by her stroke? a. the rubrospinal tract b. the retinohypothalamic pathway c. the mesolimbicstriatal pathway d. the thalamopituitary pathway 22. A blood clot recently formed in the SCN of Sam’s hypothalamus. Now there has been a change in his behavior. What might you expect that change to be? a. He has problems remembering names and faces. b. His vision is slightly blurred all the time. c. He seems to have problems with going to sleep and waking up at normal times. d. His muscular coordination is not as good as it used to be.

23. The SCN is active during the a. day for diurnal species and during the night for nocturnal species. b. day for nocturnal species and during the night for diurnal species. c. day for both diurnal and nocturnal species. d. night for both diurnal and nocturnal species.

24. If SCN tissue is transplanted from a short-period hamster into a normal hamster, a. no change can be observed. b. the normal hamster will show 20-hour cycles. c. the normal hamster will show 24-hour cycles. d. the normal hamster will show 25-hour cycles.

25. Courtney believes that pulling regular “all-nighters” is an important part of being a college student, and she frequently goes all night without any sleep at all. Given what you know about sleep cycles and sleep deprivation, what else can you assume about Courtney? a. She probably is just one of those people who don’t need much sleep. b. She is a conscientious student who probably has a very high grade-point average c. She probably gets sick often and tends to feel depressed. d. She has probably maintained this same pattern of sleeping since childhood.

26. Stephanie, who lives in California, is preparing to compete in track and field at the Olympics in London. She plans to arrive in London a. 2 weeks before competing, because her peripheral clocks in her muscles and lungs take longer than her SCN to adjust to a new time zone. b. 2 weeks before competing, because her SCN requires this time in order to adjust to the new time zone. c. a couple of days before competing, because her SCN and peripheral clocks only require a short time to adjust to the new time zone. d. a couple of days before competing, because eastern travel is easier on her SCN and peripheral clocks than the western travel she experienced competing in Beijing.

27. Which of the following is an accurate description of the relationship between the SCN and the body’s internal clocks? a. Both the SCN and peripheral clocks behave independently and are most affected by light.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking b. The SCN is most affected by light, and the peripheral clocks in the body cells are coordinated by the SCN. c. The peripheral clocks are more affected by light, whereas the SCN is more affected by physical activity. d. Both the SCN and peripheral clocks are affected more by physical activity and feeding patterns than by light.

28. Gianmarco is planning to fly to Montreal, Canada, which is due north of his home in New York City. He tells you that adjusting his mealtimes to the destination time zone will be helpful in dealing with jet lag. After studying the material in your textbook, you tell John that a. he’s wasting his time, as north–south travel of equal distance does not produce the symptoms of jet lag. b. he should expect some benefits, as his SCN is very responsive to changes in feeding patterns. c. he should expect some benefits, as his peripheral clocks should respond to changes in feeding patterns. d. this is a highly effective strategy, because both his SCN and peripheral clocks are highly sensitive to changes in feeding patterns.

29. The origin of the SCN’s rhythms may be a. exposure to the mother’s rhythms in utero. b. input from the retinohypothalamic tract. c. exposure to melatonin. d. oscillations of protein production and degradation.

30. In fruit flies, PER and TIM proteins a. inhibit the period gene protein (PER). b. promote the production of the period gene protein (PER). c. are inhibited by the period gene protein (PER). d. inhibit the production of each other and the period gene protein (PER).

31. As PER and TIM proteins degrade over time, a. the period protein is inhibited, leading to greater production of PER and TIM. b. the period protein is activated, leading to greater production of PER and TIM. c. more melatonin is released by the pineal gland, leading to greater production of PER and TIM. d. the SCN is inhibited, leading to less production of PER and TIM.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking

32.32.

Rolanda is studying for a quiz. She knows that #1 in this diagram is pointing to the a. SCN. b. preoptic area (POA). c. optic chiasm. d. LGN of the thalamus.

33. Melatonin is secreted by the a. superior colliculi. b. SCN. c. pituitary gland. d. pineal gland.

34. Marlene was surprised to learn that melatonin is released primarily during the a. early morning. b. mid afternoon. c. day. d. night.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking

35.35.

In fruit flies, levels of the protein PER is highest during which of the stages illustrated in this figure? a. number 1 b. number 2 c. number 3 d. number 4 36. Release of melatonin is suppressed by a. exposure of the animal to light. b. exposure of the animal to darkness. c. input from peripheral clocks. d. input from the superior colliculi.

37. Cortisol levels are normally a. highest in the morning. b. highest midday. c. highest in the evening. d. stable throughout the day.

38. Jessica just watched an extremely scary video with her friends and is now finding it difficult to get to sleep, even though she is very tired. It is most likely that Jessica’s sleeplessness is related to increases in the release of a. melatonin. b. cortisol. c. dopamine. d. acetylcholine.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking 39. The stress of crossing multiple time zones during air travel may a. increase the release of melatonin. b. decrease the release of melatonin. c. increase the release of cortisol. d. decrease the release of cortisol.

40. Which statement about major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern is correct? a. This disorder occurs far less often in states with a warm winter, such as California and Florida. b. No research has shown that age and gender are relevant factors. c. Recent research has shown that this disorder does not actually exist. d. More research is needed to establish the effects of lighting and seasons on mood.

41. Major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern has traditionally been attributed to a. seasonal changes in light duration. b. low levels of glutamate. c. age and gender. d. excessively high levels of GABA. 42. Circadian disorders are usually treated by a. keeping the patient in a dark room during the day for a few days. b. administering cortisol. c. exposing the patient to bright lights. d. administering stimulant medication.

43. What is the primary characteristic of non-24-hour sleep–wake disorder? a. The person cannot sleep at all, no matter how sleepy they feel. b. The person’s sleep and waking cycles do not synchronize with the clock. c. The person never feels sleepy. d. It occurs primarily in people under 30.

44. Shirley’s electroencephalogram (EEG) indicates desynchronous activity. She is likely a. in a coma. b. in stage 3 or 4 of NREM sleep. c. dreaming. d. awake.

45. EEG recordings made while someone is awake show that wave activity correlates with alert, active information processing, activity occurs when people are very relaxed, and waves are observed when a person is at rest. a. beta; alpha; mu b. alpha; beta; theta c. beta; delta; theta d. delta; theta; alpha 46. Waking is associated with Powered by Cognero

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking a. alpha waves only. b. beta waves only. c. alternations between alpha and beta waves. d. alternations between alpha and theta waves.

47. Megan is participating in an EEG study at her university. Currently, she is awake, relaxed, and staring out the window while the technician takes some baseline readings. Which pattern of brain waves is most likely to be recorded from Megan’s brain at this time? a. beta waves b. alpha waves c. theta waves d. delta waves 48. Joseph is participating in an EEG study at his university, and the researcher has just asked him to close his eyes and perform some difficult calculations in his head. Which pattern of brain waves is most likely to be recorded from Joseph’s brain during this task? a. beta b. alpha c. theta d. delta 49. Olga’s brain activity is synchronous. This means she is likely a. awake. b. daydreaming. c. in deep sleep. d. dreaming.

50. According to your text, which of the following might be evidence that you have normal ultradian rhythms? a. Even though you love your psychology professor’s lectures, about halfway through the second hour of class, you find yourself nodding off. b. You are always hungry first thing in the morning no matter how late you ate the night before. c. You are always awake by 7:00 a.m. no matter how late you stay up the night before. d. You always sleep 8 hours every night (no more, no less) unless you set your alarm to wake you earlier.

51. The transition from drowsy wakefulness to stage 1 NREM sleep can usually be determined by the presence of more wave activity. a. beta b. delta c. alpha d. theta 52. Myoclonia is usually observed during a. waking. b. stage 1 NREM sleep. c. stages 3 and 4 NREM sleep.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking d. REM sleep.

53. The majority of time during a typical night’s sleep is spent in a. stage 1 NREM b. stage 2 NREM c. stages 3 and 4 NREM d. REM

sleep.

54. K-complexes occur during a. REM sleep. b. stage 1 NREM sleep. c. stage 2 NREM sleep. d. wakefulness.

55. K-complexes occur a. during episodes of myoclonia. b. throughout all sleep stages but primarily during REM. c. in response to awakening. d. spontaneously and in response to unexpected stimuli.

56. Professor St. Clair tells her class that compared with stage 2 NREM, stage 3 NREM a. has a larger proportion of delta waves. b. includes more sleep spindles. c. has a larger proportion of theta waves. d. is often accompanied by myoclonia.

57. EEG recordings during REM sleep are similar to a. beta and alpha b. beta and theta c. alpha and theta d. theta and delta

waves.

58. Throughout the night’s sleep, periods of REM sleep occur about every a. 30–60 b. 60–90 c. 90–120 d. 120–180

minutes.

59. During sleep, Gilberto is most likely to experience muscle paralysis during a. stage 1 NREM sleep. b. stage 2 NREM sleep. c. stages 3 and 4 NREM sleep. d. REM sleep.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking 60. Although it is normal, Mr. Rebuck’s EEG pattern 5 or 6 hours into his sleep study shows that his a. NREM sleep decreases and REM sleep increases. b. REM sleep decreases and NREM sleep increases. c. REM and NREM sleep both decrease. d. REM and NREM sleep both increase.

61. Stages 3 and 4 of NREM sleep occur a. every 90 minutes or so throughout the night’s sleep. b. primarily during the first 4 hours of sleep. c. primarily during the second 4 hours of sleep. d. more frequently as the night’s sleep progresses.

62. Your roommate swears they never dream. How might you prove them wrong? a. Buy them a dream catcher and hang it by their bed. b. Keep them awake for 48 hours and then they would remember their dreams. c. Have them concentrate on something they want to dream about before they go to sleep, and then see if they remember dreaming when they wake up. d. Watch them sleep, and when their eyes begin to move under their closed eyelids, wake them up, and they will probably realize they were dreaming.

63. Two pathways essential to wakefulness originate in the a. reticular formation of the medulla. b. lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. c. POA of the hypothalamus. d. reticular formation of the rostral pons.

64. Which of the following correctly describes the activity level of the locus coeruleus during different states of consciousness? a. active during wakefulness and REM sleep but silent during NREM sleep b. active during wakefulness, quieter during NREM sleep, and silent during REM sleep c. silent during wakefulness, active during REM sleep, and silent during NREM sleep d. active during wakefulness and silent during both REM and NREM sleep 65. The anterior raphe nuclei show the same pattern of activation during states of consciousness as the a. lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. b. POA of the hypothalamus. c. locus coeruleus. d. pontine reticular formation.

66. The extent of an organism’s sleep debt is tracked by which of the following structures? a. the locus coeruleus b. the raphe nuclei c. the lateral geniculate nucleus d. the POA of the hypothalamus Powered by Cognero

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking 67. Dr. Hickel has discovered that if she electrically stimulates the cells in the POA, her mice will immediately experience a. NREM sleep. b. wakefulness. c. REM sleep. d. coma.

68. Dr. Feit has demonstrated that rats with lesions in the POA experience a. constant NREM sleep. b. insomnia. c. constant REM sleep. d. sleep apnea.

69. Unless some type of pathology is present, the first segment of sleep is a. always REM. b. always NREM. c. a mixture of REM and NREM. d. a special state that cannot be characterized as either REM or NREM. 70. The brain waves typical of NREM sleep appear to be the result of a. activity progressing from the pons to the lateral geniculate nucleus to the occipital cortex. b. activity in the POA of the hypothalamus. c. synchronization of cortical neurons by the thalamus. d. desynchronization of cortical neurons by the thalamus.

71. Which structure is active during REM sleep but not during wakefulness or NREM sleep? a. the locus coeruleus b. the raphe nucleus c. the basal forebrain d. the rostral pontine reticular formation 72. REM sleep becomes possible when the a. reduced activity of the locus coeruleus and raphe nuclei disinhibits the rostral pontine reticular formation. b. increased activity of the locus coeruleus and raphe nuclei stimulates the rostral pontine reticular formation. c. increased activity of the locus coeruleus and raphe nuclei inhibits the rostral pontine reticular formation. d. decreased activity of the rostral pontine reticular formation stimulates the locus coeruleus and raphe nuclei.

73. PGO waves are usually observed a. during stages 1 and 2 of NREM sleep. b. during all stages of NREM sleep. c. during REM sleep. d. immediately after the subject awakens.

74. Professor Scheinberg explains to her class that the purpose of the eye movements during REM sleep is a. to direct the eyes during dreaming.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking b. to reduce emotional stress. c. to maintain sleep in spite of high levels of brain activity. d. currently unknown.

75. Eye movements during REM sleep are associated with a. a PGO wave. b. a spike from the thalamus to the cerebral cortex. c. a spike from the cerebral cortex to the thalamus. d. visual imagery of a static scene, as in stepping off a curb.

76. PGO spikes travel which of the following pathways? a. from the pons to the hypothalamus to the occipital cortex b. from the pons to the thalamus to the occipital cortex c. from the pons to the medulla to the spinal cord d. from the locus coeruleus to the hypothalamus to the cerebral cortex 77. The muscular paralysis associated with REM sleep results from a. inhibition of the primary motor cortex by the pontine reticular formation. b. PGO spikes. c. inhibition originating in the reticular formation and traveling to the spinal cord. d. inhibition of the basal ganglia.

78. During REM sleep, a. the hippocampus is relatively inactive. b. primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe is unusually active. c. the frontal lobes are unusually active. d. the frontal lobes are relatively inactive.

79. The emotional quality of our dreams is most likely a result of the a. activity of the amygdala b. increased activity of the frontal lobes c. suppression of the primary visual cortex d. increased activity of the hippocampus

during REM sleep.

80. During periods of wakefulness, Becki’s nervous system produces higher levels of a. acetylcholine and GABA. b. acetylcholine and histamine. c. adenosine and melatonin. d. adenosine and histamine.

81. Acetylcholine (ACh) levels in the brain are high during a. REM; wakefulness and NREM b. NREM; wakefulness and REM c. wakefulness and REM; NREM Powered by Cognero

sleep but lower during

sleep.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking d. wakefulness and NREM; REM 82. Jennifer’s grandmother has been diagnosed with Alzheimer disease. Recently, her grandmother has been using a nicotine patch in an effort to boost her abilities to concentrate. Is this strategy likely to work? a. No, because nicotine is a histamine agonist, and histamine produces drowsiness. b. No, because nicotine has no effects on any neurotransmitters involved with wakefulness. c. , because nicotine is a histamine agonist, and histamine produces alertness. d. Yes, because nicotine is a cholinergic agonist, and ACh function is associated with alertness.

83. Histamine activity in the brain is highest during a. wakefulness; REM and NREM sleep b. wakefulness and REM sleep; NREM sleep c. REM and NREM sleep; wakefulness d. REM sleep; wakefulness and NREM sleep

and drops off during

.

84. Michael was prescribed a traditional antihistamine in order to treat his allergies after he had a bad reaction to more modern antihistamines. The traditional antihistamine was helpful in reducing his allergy symptoms, but he a. suffered from serious insomnia. b. had trouble staying awake in his classes. c. became very depressed and woke frequently throughout the night after restless dreams. d. did not experience normal REM paralysis, and he hurt himself walking around his apartment in his sleep.

85. Ricardo was diagnosed with an allergy for which his physician prescribed a modern antihistamine to relieve symptoms. Ricardo should expect that he will a. have difficulty staying awake throughout the day. b. have no difficulty staying awake throughout the day. c. dream less than he did prior to taking the drug. d. dream more than he did prior to taking the drug.

86. Adenosine concentrations a. rise during the day and drop off during the night. b. rise during the night and drop off during the day. c. remain stable throughout most of the day and night but spike briefly at dawn. d. rise during wakefulness and REM but drop during NREM. 87. Dr. West loves to drink caffeinated coffee. She knows that caffeine makes her feel awake by a. increasing the release of adenosine. b. blocking receptors for adenosine. c. stimulating nicotinic ACh receptors. d. blocking receptors for serotonin.

88. Adenosine produces sleepiness by a. interacting with the SCN. b. promoting the release of melatonin. c. inhibiting the activity of neurons releasing ACh, serotonin, and norepinephrine.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking d. stimulating the activity of neurons releasing ACh, serotonin, and norepinephrine.

89. Premature infants spend a. more time in REM b. less time in REM c. more time in NREM d. less time in NREM

than term infants.

90. REM sleep can first be observed in humans a. prior to birth. b. about 2 weeks after birth. c. about 6 weeks after birth. d. at about 1 year of age.

91. At what age do humans show the highest proportion of delta wave activity? a. one month prior to birth b. between the ages of 3 and 6 years c. during adolescence d. after the age of 55 years 92. Now that he is almost going to be 30 years old, Malik is experiencing a. increased amounts of REM sleep. b. decreased amounts of REM sleep. c. increased amounts of NREM. d. decreased amounts of NREM. 93. The sleep of older people may be more easily disrupted due to less frequent a. REM episodes. b. sleep spindles. c. K-complexes. d. myoclonia.

94. At what age do we get the most REM sleep? a. 19 to 30 years b. 3 to 5 years c. 1 to 15 days d. 50 to 90 years 95. It is most likely that sleep a. has the same functions in all species. b. does not serve the same purposes in all species. c. is a behavior seen only in birds and mammals, as it requires a complex brain. d. has important functions, but humans can live without it.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking 96. According to Allison and Cicchetti (1976), which of the following animals would tend to sleep the most? a. lions b. cows c. human beings d. horses 97. Rachel, a biology student on a field study in the Amazon, observed the behavior of a small mammal that was frequently preyed upon by birds, snakes, and monkeys. It built burrows at the base of trees. Based on the work of Allison and Cicchetti, what predictions can Rachel make about her mammal’s sleeping habits? a. It is unlikely to sleep more than a few hours per day and will do so out in the open. b. It is likely to sleep many hours per day in its burrow. c. It is likely to sleep many hours per day out in the open. d. It is unlikely to sleep more than a few hours per day and will do so in its burrow.

98. Which of the following is a consequence of sleep deprivation? a. reduced immune system functioning b. overactive immune system functioning c. cessation of immune system functioning d. immune system attacking inappropriate targets 99. If sleep is a way to preserve energy, we would expect a. larger animals to sleep more, due to their high metabolic rates. b. smaller animals to sleep more, due to their high metabolic rates. c. hibernation to be accompanied by increased body temperature. d. animals with smaller appetites to sleep more.

100. Metabolism rates are a. positively correlated with the production of harmful free radicals. b. negatively correlated with the need for nutrients. c. positively correlated with hours spent awake. d. negatively correlated with the production of harmful free radicals.

101. Selective deprivation of stage 3 NREM sleep produces complaints of a. lack of concentration. b. inability to retain information. c. joint and muscle pain. d. depression.

102. Complaints of joint and muscle pain among older adults may result from age-related a. increases in REM sleep. b. decreases in REM sleep. c. increases in NREM sleep. d. decreases in NREM sleep.

103. Which of the following substances are released primarily at night in humans?

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking a. dopamine and melatonin b. norepinephrine and growth hormone c. melatonin and growth hormone d. acetylcholine and melatonin 104. Professor Gin tells his class that a person releases human growth hormone during a. wakefulness. b. REM sleep. c. the opening of the sleep gate. d. deep stages of sleep.

105. Sleep deprivation is associated with a. few, if any, serious physical effects. b. reduced release of growth hormone and impaired healing of injuries. c. lower metabolic rates and need for nutrients. d. impaired immune response in children but not in adults.

106. Research evidence suggests that a. sleep is not necessary or helpful for memory formation. b. REM sleep, but not NREM sleep, appears to be essential for memory formation. c. NREM sleep, but not REM sleep, appears to be essential for memory formation. d. both REM and NREM appear to play important roles in memory formation.

107. Tom tells you that he has a history exam coming up in five days, and he has five chapters to read before the exam.

He says he’s going to wait and read them all the day before the exam, even if he has to stay up all night, so the material will be fresh in his mind. What advice should you give Tom, and why? a. That sounds like a great plan, but be sure to take notes on what you’re reading so you’ll remember it for the test. b. Read the chapters as soon as possible, taking notes, and go over the notes every day before the exam. This is because the more often you sleep after learning information, the more apt you are to remember the information for the exam. c. Borrow notes from someone else and study them for the first four days, then get up extra early on the morning of the exam, read the five chapters, and don’t sleep again until after the exam, because sleeping after you learn something erases most of what you learned. d. It’s too late to try to learn the information in the textbook. Ask the instructor if you can take a later makeup exam.

108. The night after an ultramarathon, a runner’s sleep would be expected to contain a. the usual amounts of REM and NREM sleep. b. more REM sleep than usual. c. less REM sleep than usual. d. more NREM sleep than usual.

109. Which animals show evidence of REM sleep? a. all animals Powered by Cognero

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking b. mammals only c. mammals and birds d. humans only 110. After staying up two nights in a row, Kimberly experienced REM rebound when she finally did go to sleep. What did she experience during her sleep? a. the usual amounts of REM and NREM sleep b. more REM sleep than usual c. less REM sleep than usual d. more NREM sleep than usual 111. When we nap after REM sleep deprivation, we may experience a. increased amounts of NREM sleep. b. increased amounts of REM sleep. c. decreased amounts of REM sleep. d. normal patterns of REM and NREM sleep.

112. Shauna has just reached puberty. She will probably have a(n) a. increase in NREM sleep. b. decrease in NREM sleep. c. increase in REM sleep. d. decrease in REM sleep.

113. Mark is a participant in a sleep study at his university. The researchers observe that Mark spends a greater than normal proportion of his sleep time in REM. They question Mark about a. how much sleep he gets. b. whether he is an “owl” or a “lark.” c. the content of his dreams. d. his current grade point average.

114. Dreams during NREM sleep are a. nonexistent. b. vivid, unrealistic, and story-like. c. logical and not very emotional. d. associated with nightmares.

115. Dreams during REM sleep are a. nonexistent. b. vivid, unrealistic, and story-like. c. logical and not very emotional. d. associated with night terrors.

116. According to Hall (1951), we are more likely to dream about a. familiar places and routine activities. b. unfamiliar places and bizarre activities.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking c. familiar people than imaginary strangers. d. ourselves than other people.

117. Which of the following theorists would predict that sprinkling water on sleeping people would make them dream about rain? a. Hall b. Hobson and McCarley c. Crick and Mitchison d. Winson 118. Which of the following theorists view(s) dreaming as nothing more than a window into the brain’s processing of the day’s events? a. Hall b. Hobson and McCarley c. Crick and Mitchison d. Winson 119. Which of the following theorists believed that dreams were an evolutionary advance that allowed animals to process information during REM instead of while awake? a. Calvin Hall b. Hobson and McCarley c. Crick and Mitchison d. Winson 120. The threat simulation hypothesis of dreaming proposes that dreaming a. is the brain’s way to make sense out of the autonomic arousal that occurs during REM. b. allows us to discard unnecessary information. c. allows animals to process the day’s events during sleep instead of during times when they need to feed and watch for predators. d. provides us with a way to “practice” dealing with dangerous situations.

121. Nightmares occur during a. stages 1 or 2 NREM sleep. b. stages 3 or 4 NREM sleep. c. REM sleep. d. the time immediately after awakening.

122. If a person is deprived of REM sleep, they will experience a. REM rebound b. insomnia c. sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) d. sleep apnea

when allowed to sleep uninhibited again.

123. Which of the following is NOT a common dream reported by college students? a. falling or flying Powered by Cognero

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking b. taking an exam for which one is unprepared c. being chased d. being beaten up 124. Lucid dreaming a. occurs when you can consciously control your dream. b. occurs when you cannot control a nightmare. c. occurs only during NREM sleep. d. is characteristic of people with clinical depression.

125. Sleep terrors usually occur during a. stages 1 or 2 NREM sleep. b. deep NREM sleep. c. REM sleep. d. the time immediately after awakening.

126. Ryan’s little brother frequently wakes up screaming a few hours after going to bed and complains about a “bear” sitting on him. It is likely that Ryan’s brother is experiencing a. myoclonia. b. a sleep terror. c. a nightmare. d. lucid dreaming.

127. The frequency of sleep terrors is a. equal in boys and girls. b. higher in girls than boys. c. higher in boys than girls. d. higher in adults than children.

128. Which is the most common sleep–wake disorder? a. insomnia b. sleep apnea c. somnambulism d. SIDS 129. A sleep–wake disorder characterized by frequent interruption of sleep or early waking is known as a. onset insomnia. b. maintenance insomnia. c. SIDS. d. REM behavior disorder.

130. Meredith has been having a great amount of difficulty falling asleep at night. She lays in her bed for 1 or 2 hours before getting close to sleep, and despite the fact that she stays there, it is often 3 hours before she nods off. This has been an on and off problem for months and is starting to cause serious disruption to her life. Meredith may be suffering from a. pseudoinsomnia.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking b. maintenance insomnia. c. onset insomnia. d. apneic insomnia.

131. Dr. Schuetz is hesitant to give medications for insomnia as he has found that they only add a. one-half hour to total sleep time, with few side effects. b. one-half hour to total sleep time but are habit-forming and have additional significant side effects. c. two hours to total sleep time, with few side effects. d. two hours to total sleep time but are habit-forming and have additional significant side effects.

132. Barbara suffers from multiple sclerosis, and one of her symptoms is severe insomnia. Her neurologist has decided to prescribe zolpidem (Ambien) but has a serious conversation with her about the potential side effects of taking the drug.

Which of the following would NOT come up in this conversation? a. sleepwalking b. binge eating c. driving while she is asleep d. increased nightmares 133. Professor Nehls tells his class that when a person with narcolepsy has a sleep attack, they experience a. REM sleep. b. the usual alternation between REM and NREM sleep. c. immediate deep NREM sleep. d. wave forms not observed during normal sleep.

134. During an attack of cataplexy, the person a. falls into a full NREM sleep episode. b. falls into a full REM sleep episode. c. experiences REM dreaming without paralysis. d. is awake but experiences REM paralysis.

135. REM dreaming phenomena that precede actual sleep are known as a. myoclonia. b. hypnogogic hallucinations. c. hypnopompic hallucinations. d. sleep apnea.

136. Narcolepsy may be associated with a disruption in the synthesis of a. acetylcholine. b. norepinephrine. c. serotonin. d. orexins.

137. Actual cessation of breathing is characteristic of a. insomnia. b. somnambulism.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking c. nocturnal enuresis. d. central sleep apnea.

138. Your overweight roommate has become very irritable lately and is having trouble concentrating in class. They have gained about 30 pounds since they came to school and you’re feeling a little grouchy too because their snoring is keeping you awake at night. If you could give them advice, what might it be? a. They might need to visit their physician and see if they are suffering from obstructive sleep apnea hypopnea. b. They are probably suffering from cataplexy during the night due to narcolepsy. c. They need to be on a regular dose of sleep medication, as they are not getting enough sleep. d. They should make an appointment with a psychiatrist because they seem to be suffering from a psychotic disorder.

139. Putting infants to sleep on their backs has greatly reduced the frequency of a. sleep apnea. b. SIDS. c. narcolepsy. d. nocturnal enuresis.

140. Kenia has a tendency to talk in her sleep. When doing so, she is probably in a. REM sleep b. NREM stage 4 c. REM or the lighter stages of NREM d. synchronous sleep

sleep.

141. Rea walks in her sleep. She is most likely how old? a. 5 years old b. 15 years old c. 15 years old d. 75 years old 142. In REM behavior disorder, a person a. In REM behavior disorder, a person b. experiences unusually large amounts of REM sleep. c. does not experience the paralysis usually accompanying REM. d. remains paralyzed even after waking.

143. REM behavior disorder typically affects a. young children. b. people older than 65. c. middle-aged women. d. middle-aged men.

144. Which of the following disorders is especially common among children and adults with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder? a. SIDS Powered by Cognero

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking b. nocturnal enuresis c. restless leg syndrome (RLS) d. REM behavior disorder 145. Someone with REM sleep behavior disorder will usually also have or develop a. Parkinson disease. b. Alzheimer disease. c. heart disease. d. sleep apnea.

146. REM sleep behavior disorder is usually treated with a. benzodiazepines. b. serotonin. c. dopamine. d. histamine.

147. Which of the following is NOT a potential stressor that could result in SIDS? a. sleeping position b. exposure to cigarette smoking c. using a pacifier d. having a genetic disorder 148. Restless legs syndrome (RLS) seems to be the result of atypical a. dopamine b. serotonin c. melatonin d. histamine

functioning.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

149. Daylight savings time, a phase advance in the spring, often gives people a feeling of jet lag for a couple of days. a. True b. False 150. The SCN is active during the daytime in diurnal animals, like humans, but is active during the night in nocturnal animals, like rodents. a. True b. False 151. K-complexes are brief bursts of brain activity observed in the EEG of a person in stage 2 NREM sleep. a. True b. False 152. The default mode network (DMN) consists of the locus coeruleus and the anterior raphe nuclei. a. True Powered by Cognero

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking b. False 153. The locus coeruleus and raphe nuclei are active during wakefulness, quieter during NREM sleep, and silent during REM sleep. a. True b. False 154. Glutamate activity in the frontal lobes is higher during REM sleep than during wakefulness. a. True b. False 155. Cholinergic activity is high during wakefulness and REM sleep but lower during NREM sleep. a. True b. False 156. Dreaming occurs only during REM sleep but not during NREM sleep. a. True b. False 157. Following sleep deprivation, people are more reactive to negative stimuli. a. True b. False 158. Waylon has been diagnosed with narcolepsy. During a sleep attack, he immediately enters NREM sleep. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking

159.159.

The structure labeled number 1 in this illustration is the via the

, and it receives input from the pathway labeled number 3.

160.160.

In stage 1 of this illustration, the period gene is of PER and TIM.

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, leading to

production

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking

161.161.

Yolanda has been asleep for 6 hours. She is now spending most of her time in sleep. This stage is referred to as sleep because Yolanda’s brain activity resembles being awake, but her external appearance is deep sleep.

162. Describe the symptoms, prevalence, and treatments for major depressive disorder with seasonal pattern.

163. Given the fact that MDD is correlated with low levels of serotonin activity, explain why we would expect abnormalities of REM sleep in people diagnosed with depression. What types of sleep patterns would we expect to see?

How would medications boosting serotonin activity affect sleep?

164. Discuss the possible causes of and contributing factors to SIDS. 165. Explain the role of a zeitgeber and give some examples including the most potent for humans.

166. Geoffrey is studying for a quiz on waking and sleeping. What should he know about the SCN? 167. Discuss the EEG patterns characteristic of each sleep stage.

168. Discuss what is currently known about the role of sleep in memory formation.

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking 169. Jestine and Nola both have problems sleeping. Jestine complains that it takes her forever to fall asleep at night, while Nola find that she falls asleep just fine but then has periods when she stops breathing. What disorders might these two women have? What might be the cause?

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. c 6. d 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. c 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. c 18. b 19. c 20. d 21. b 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. c Powered by Cognero

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking 26. a 27. b 28. c 29. d 30. a 31. b 32. a 33. d 34. d 35. d 36. a 37. a 38. b 39. c 40. d 41. a 42. c 43. b 44. d 45. a 46. c 47. b 48. a 49. c 50. a 51. d Powered by Cognero

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking 52. b 53. b 54. c 55. d 56. a 57. b 58. c 59. d 60. a 61. b 62. d 63. a 64. b 65. c 66. d 67. a 68. b 69. b 70. c 71. d 72. a 73. c 74. d 75. a 76. b Powered by Cognero

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking 77. c 78. d 79. a 80. b 81. c 82. d 83. a 84. b 85. a 86. a 87. b 88. c 89. a 90. a 91. b 92. d 93. b 94. c 95. b 96. a 97. b 98. b 99. b 100. a 101. c 102. d Powered by Cognero

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking 103. c 104. d 105. b 106. d 107. b 108. d 109. c 110. b 111. b 112. d 113. a 114. c 115. b 116. a 117. b 118. c 119. d 120. d 121. c 122. a 123. d 124. a 125. b 126. b 127. c Powered by Cognero

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking 128. a 129. b 130. c 131. b 132. d 133. a 134. d 135. b 136. d 137. d 138. a 139. b 140. c 141. a 142. c 143. d 144. c 145. a 146. a 147. d 148. a 149. True 150. False 151. True 152. False 153. True Powered by Cognero

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking 154. False 155. True 156. False 157. True 158. False 159. SCN; optic nerve; retinohypothalamic pathway 160. activated; increased 161. REM; paradoxical 162. During the winter months at higher latitudes (areas closer to the poles of the earth), the reduction in daylight hours can interfere with circadian rhythms and thus lead to major depressive disorder (MDD) with seasonal pattern. Several mechanisms appear to lead to seasonal depression. Serotonin levels typically drop in the fall and winter, and people vulnerable to seasonal depression might experience a greater than normal decrease. Seasonal depression might also be influenced by disruptions in melatonin release caused by uneven patterns of daily light. Serotonin not only serves as a precursor for melatonin synthesis in the pineal gland, but its own synthesis is activated by light. Seasonal depression is treated by exposure to bright lights, with or without melatonin supplementation and antidepressants.

163. People with poorly treated MDD initiate REM too early and too frequently during the sleep cycle, possibly due to reduced serotonin activity. Antidepressant drugs boost serotonin activity and often suppress REM. 164. In SIDS, a basically healthy baby, usually between 2 and 4 months of age, dies while asleep. Sleeping position can play a major role in many cases of SIDS. Pediatrics recommended putting infants to sleep on their backs instead of on their stomachs. No single factor appears to account for all cases of SIDS. Once sleeping position was eliminated as a cause, genetics appeared to play a larger role (Christensen et al., 2017). Children dying from SIDS share abnormalities of the brainstem and in the serotonergic systems of the medulla in particular (Paine, Jacques, & Sebire, 2014; Paterson et al., 2006). In their triple-risk model of SIDS, Filiano and Kinney (1994) argue that SIDS involves a vulnerable infant in a critical period of development exposed to an external stressor. Among the vulnerabilities of infants are race and gender (Paterson et al., 2006). African American babies are twice as likely to die from SIDS as white babies, and Native American infants are three times as likely to die from SIDS as white babies (National Institutes of Health [NIH], n.d.).

Boys are at higher risk than girls (National Institutes of Health [NIH], n.d.). In addition to sleeping position, exposure to cigarette smoke (Klonoff-Cohen et al., 1995) and sharing a bed with parents (Paterson et al., 2006) might act as external stressors.

165. To establish and maintain biological rhythms, internal biological clocks interact with stimuli known as zeitgebers.

(Zeit means “time” in German; geber means “to give”; hence, these are “time givers.”) Light is the most important zeitgeber for human beings. In the absence of natural light, human free-running circadian rhythms last approximately 24.2 to 24.9 hours (Czeisler & Gooley, 2007; Sack, Brandes, Kendall, & Lewy, 2000). Exposure to sunlight each day helps reset, or entrain, the internal biological clock to the 24-hour cycle of the earth’s rotation. In addition to light, other zeitgebers include physical activity, feeding, body temperature, and sleep-related hormones.

166. Answers may vary. Here is a sample Geoffrey should know that the body’s internal master clock is the SCN in the hypothalamus. Input to the SCN comes from axons of special cells known as intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells (ipRGCs), which leave the optic nerve Powered by Cognero

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CH 11 Sleep and Waking and project to the SCN, forming the retinohypothalamic pathway. Unlike other retinal ganglion cells (see Chapter 6), the ipRGCs do not process information about visual images. The ipRGCs contain a photopigment known as melanopsin that is related to, but different from, the other photopigments involved in vision. The SCN is active only during the day. The SCN helps animals distinguish between day and night, but other structures dictate whether an animal is nocturnal or diurnal in its behavior. Activity in the human SCN produces a response in the sympathetic nervous system, which in turn communicates with the pineal gland. As light decreases in the evening, accompanied by reduced SCN activity, less input from the sympathetic neurons allows the pineal gland to synthesize and release more melatonin, a neurochemical that modulates brainstem structures related to waking and sleep. The SCN also manages other sleep-related changes, including body temperature, hormone secretion, production of urine, and blood pressure changes. The SCN is not dependent on input from other structures to maintain its rhythms.

167. During waking, EEG recordings typically alternate between beta wave and alpha wave patterns of brain activity.

Beta activity is characterized by highly desynchronized, rapid (14–30 cycles per second), irregular, low-amplitude waves.

Alpha waves are slightly slower, larger, and more regular than beta waves, with a frequency of 8–13 cycles per second.

Sleep consists of alternating periods of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep and non-REM (NREM) sleep. Sleep typically begins when a person enters stage 1 of NREM. In stage 1, the EEG is difficult to distinguish from the waking EEG of a drowsy person. Some theta wave activity now occurs, and heart rate and muscle tension begin to decrease. After 10–15 minutes, stage 1 gives way to stage 2 NREM, which accounts for about 50 percent of the night’s entire sleep. The EEG begins to show sleep spindles, short bursts of 12–14 cycle-per-second waves lasting about half a second that are generated by interactions between the thalamus and the cortex. Although spindles are prominent in stage 2, they do occur in other stages of NREM. K-complexes also begin to appear in the stage 2 EEG recording. These waveforms are made up of single delta waves. After about 15 minutes in stage 2, we enter stage 3 and stage 4 NREM sleep. Both stage 3 and stage 4 feature delta wave activity, which is the largest, slowest (1–4 cycles per second), most synchronized waveform of the sleeping state. Stages 3 and 4 differ from each other in that a greater proportion of stage 4 (about half) consists of delta waves.

After approximately 90 minutes of NREM, a first period of REM sleep occurs. During REM, the EEG shows activity very similar to beta activity observed during waking, with occasional periods of theta activity as well.

168. Scientists are certain that sleep in general is important to memory processing. Sleep-related changes in memory might be different from the changes that occur when we learn something while awake. Learning during waking might be a simple matter of strengthening connections, whereas sleep-related memory processes might involve the reorganization of existing memory systems to accommodate new information. The day’s memories can be reactivated during NREM and redistributed from the hippocampal circuits to the cerebral cortex. Memories now stored in the cerebral cortex can then be strengthened during REM, which will make the memories easier to recall during waking. Sleep also plays a role in reconsolidating memories. When we reactivate, or retrieve a memory for use, such as remembering the name of a structure for your behavioral neuroscience midterm, the memory becomes “open” to modification. The memory must undergo reconsolidation to become stable once more. Even a relatively short (40-minute) period of sleep showed benefits for reconsolidating reactivated memories.

169. Jestine would probably be diagnosed with insomnia, specifically onset insomnia. Onset insomnia occurs when a person is unable to go to sleep. Her sleep could be delayed by multiple factors, including stress, anxiety, and use of stimulant drugs. On the other hand, Nola would probably be diagnosed with sleep apnea. If she has obstructive sleep apnea, her problem is likely caused by obstruction of the airways, whereas if she has central sleep apnea, it is caused by deficits in the brain functions that maintain breathing during sleep.

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. A quick, involuntary response that always occurs in the presence of specific stimuli is called a(n) a. reflex. b. instinct. c. fixed action pattern. d. learned behavior.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

2. Many mating and parenting behaviors, including the tail feather display of the male peacock, are examples of instinctive behaviors. a. True b. False 3. Classical conditioning involves mostly involuntary behaviors, while operant conditioning involves mostly voluntary behaviors. a. True b. False 4. Semantic and episodic memories are types of explicit memories. a. True b. False 5. Habituation of the gill-withdrawal reflex in Aplysia californica is largely due to reduced responsiveness of the sensory neurons serving the siphon. a. True b. False 6. LTP occurs when a presynaptic cell releases neurotransmitter onto a cell that is already depolarized. a. True b. False 7. Levels of protein kinase M zeta (PKMζ) increase during the stage of LTP stabilization. a. True b. False 8. Monkeys were most impaired in their performance on the delayed nonmatching to sample (DNMS) test following lesions in the interpositus nucleus of the cerebellum. a. True b. False 9. Episodic memories remain dependent on the hippocampus indefinitely. a. True b. False Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory 10. Following a traumatic experience, the hippocampus experiences a refractory period but the amygdala does not. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11. Behaviors that are species-specific, are activated by environmental stimuli and can be complex, are called a. reflexes. b. instincts. c. habituation. d. sensitization.

12. “Fixed action patterns” are also known as a. reflexes. b. instincts. c. associative learning stimuli. d. nonassociative learning stimuli.

13. James has figured out that his mother will be furious with him if he comes home after dinner time, so he has started making sure never to be that late. James is demonstrating a. reflexes. b. instincts. c. fixed action patterns. d. learned behaviors.

14. The relatively permanent change in behavior due to experience is called a. learning. b. instinct. c. reflex. d. fixed action pattern.

15. Classical conditioning is an example of a. a reflex. b. a fixed action pattern. c. associative learning. d. nonassociative learning.

16. Which of the following processes represents the formation of a connection between two or more stimuli in one’s environment? a. instinctive behaviors b. reflexes c. associative learning d. nonassociative learning 17. Changes in the magnitude of a response to environmental stimuli is typical in Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory a. instinctive behaviors. b. reflexes. c. associative learning. d. nonassociative learning.

18. The reduced response to a repeated harmless stimulus is an example of a. instinctive behavior. b. habituation. c. sensitization. d. classical conditioning.

19. Although you may notice your air conditioner turning on, you no longer “hear” it running after a few minutes. Which of the following processes probably accounts for this change? a. instinctive behavior b. habituation c. sensitization d. classical conditioning 20. The process that occurs following a strong stimulus, when the responses to subsequent stimuli are increased, is called a. instinctive behavior. b. habituation. c. sensitization. d. classical conditioning.

21. For days after a loud and powerful earthquake, Lavonne jumped whenever an airplane flew low over her house to land at the nearby airport. This response is likely a result of a. instinct. b. reflex. c. habituation. d. sensitization.

22. When an animal learns that a particular stimulus occurs just prior to another event, what process has occurred? a. sensitization b. habituation c. classical conditioning d. extinction 23. In Pavlov’s classic experiments, salivation to a metronome is an example of a(n) a. conditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response.

24. In Pavlov’s classic experiments with dogs and salivation, food serves as the a. conditioned stimulus.

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response.

25. As a young child, Eli was bitten by a dog, and he continues to be frightened anytime he sees a large dog. For Eli, dogs are a(n) a. unconditioned response. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. conditioned response. d. conditioned stimulus.

26. When Thomas was a little boy, his mother often gave him a piece of cake or a cookie whenever he was feeling down.

Now that Thomas is in college, he struggles with his weight because every time he feels sad or lonely, he craves something sweet to eat. It is likely that for Thomas, eating sweets now serves as a(n) a. conditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response.

27. Which type of memory can hold large amounts of information but only very briefly (a second or two)? a. sensory b. working c. long-term d. episodic 28. What kind of memory can hold a limited amount of information (five to nine items) for 15 to 20 seconds? a. sensory b. short-term c. long-term d. episodic 29. The type of memory that can hold unlimited amounts of information indefinitely is a. sensory b. working c. long-term d. working 30. The components of and episodic buffer. a. sensory b. working c. long-term d. episodic

memory.

memory include the central executive, phonological loop, visuospatial scratchpad,

31. The type of memory that holds our knowledge of language and facts is what kind of memory?

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory a. procedural b. episodic c. sensory d. semantic 32. Memories of an individual’s personal experience are stored in a. procedural b. episodic c. working d. semantic 33. It is a. procedural b. episodic c. sensory d. semantic

memory.

memory that contains our knowledge of how to do specific activities involving motor skills.

34. This type of memory is easier to demonstrate than to explain in words. a. procedural b. episodic c. sensory d. semantic 35. Declarative memories include what kind of memories? a. procedural and sensory b. episodic and semantic c. procedural and episodic d. semantic and sensory 36. The memories that are easiest to explain in words are a. sensory. b. procedural. c. declarative. d. implicit.

37. Which memories are easiest to demonstrate? a. sensory b. procedural c. semantic and episodic d. explicit 38. Which of the following memories are ones that are recalled explicitly a. classical conditioning. b. sensitization.

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory c. procedural memory. d. episodic memory.

39. The BEST example of working memory from these examples is a. what you had for breakfast this morning. b. the question you just read and are trying to answer. c. your best friend’s name. d. the instructions your professor gave you when you began taking this exam.

40. The clearest example of episodic memory from these examples is a. what you ate for dinner last night. b. the meaning of the word exculpatory. c. the name of the first president of the United States. d. how to ride a bike.

41. Which of the following is an example of a procedural memory? a. where you were when you heard about the Twin Towers being attacked b. the name of your psychology professor c. how to play your guitar d. what you had for breakfast this morning 42. A good example of a semantic memory is which of these? a. the name of the first president of the United States b. what happened at your best childhood birthday party ever c. how to ride a bike d. where you were when you heard about the Twin Towers being attacked 43. You are on the phone with tech support after your software crashed. The technician is helping you go through the steps to reinstall the software, pausing from time to time to visualize the situation before telling you the next step. This technician is likely accessing memory. a. procedural b. episodic c. autobiographical d. explicit 44. Just before class, Willis asked you the title and edition of the textbook being used as she ordered it online. Willis was using her memory to hold this information while searching for the book. a. sensory b. working c. procedural d. semantic 45. After class, Mohammed regaled you with clever stories of his family cat when he was growing up. To tell you these stories, Mohammed was using his memory. a. sensory Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory b. working c. episodic d. semantic 46. Before reading the chapter on neuropsychology in his behavioral neuroscience textbook, Christopher had never heard of brain worms. Once he had mastered this knowledge, information about brain worms became part of Christopher’s memory. a. sensory b. procedural c. implicit d. semantic 47. Patients with anterograde amnesia show deficits in a. declarative but not explicit memory. b. explicit but not implicit memory. c. both explicit and declarative memory. d. neither explicit nor declarative memory.

48. Jonah required surgery on both of his temporal lobes. Following the surgery, Jonah suffered from severe anterograde amnesia and had great difficulty in a. learning the name of the new occupational therapist assigned to his case. b. learning to use his new cell phone. c. remembering the details of his high school graduation. d. remembering how to find the square root of a number.

49. The gill-withdrawal reflex in Aplysia is controlled by neurons in the a. brain. b. buccal ganglia. c. pedal ganglia. d. abdominal ganglia.

50. Repeated touching of the siphon in Aplysia will result in a. habituation. b. sensitization. c. classical conditioning. d. a fixed action pattern.

51. Habituation in Aplysia can last up to a. 3 hours. b. 1 day. c. 3 days. d. 3 weeks.

52. What causes a weak withdrawal reflex in Aplysia? a. diminished activity between the motor neurons and gill muscles Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory b. increased activity between the motor neurons and gill muscles c. fatigue in the muscles serving the gill d. excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) in the interneurons 53. What input change results in diminished activity between the motor neurons and gill muscles? a. a larger amount of input from sensory to motor neurons b. a smaller amount of input from sensory to motor neurons c. a larger amount of input from motor to sensory neurons d. a smaller amount of input from motor to sensory neurons 54. Habituation occurs in response to a. milder; stronger b. stronger; milder c. less: more d. more; less

stimuli while sensitization occurs in response to

stimuli.

55. The channel of the NMDA receptor is normally blocked by a molecule of a. calcium (Ca2+). b. sodium (Na2+). c. glutamate. d. magnesium (Mg2+).

56. In sensitization experiments, shocking the head or tail of Aplysia will result in a(n) a. reduced gill-withdrawal reflex in response to siphon touch. b. increased gill-withdrawal reflex in response to siphon touch. c. absence of the gill-withdrawal reflex in response to siphon touch. d. gill-withdrawal reflex in response to head touch but not siphon touch.

57. The neurotransmitter a. dopamine b. acetylcholine (ACh) c. serotonin d. norepinephrine

is released at axo-axonic synapses in Aplysia by neurons involved in sensitization.

58. The interneurons involved with sensitization in Aplysia form which of the following types of synapse? a. axo-axonic synapses on sensory neurons serving the siphon b. axo-dendritic synapses on sensory neurons serving the siphon c. axo-axonic synapses on the motor neurons serving the gill d. axo-dendritic synapses on the motor neurons serving the gill 59. What type of channels is involved in the sensitization process of the siphon sensory neurons in Aplysia? a. an ionotropic process, which results in the closing of calcium channels b. a metabotropic process, which results in the closing of calcium channels Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory c. an ionotropic process, which results in the closing of potassium channels d. a metabotropic process, which results in the closing of potassium channels 60. In sensitization in Aplysia, what processes account for the stronger than normal responses of gill motor neurons? a. extended action potentials in siphon sensory neurons, which result in the release of greater than normal amounts of neurotransmitter at synapses with gill motor neurons b. extended action potentials in siphon sensory neurons, which result in the release of less than normal amounts of neurotransmitter at synapses with gill motor neurons c. shortened action potentials in siphon sensory neurons, which result in the release of greater than normal amounts of neurotransmitter at synapses with gill motor neurons d. shortened action potentials in siphon sensory neurons, which result in the release of less than normal amounts of neurotransmitter at synapses with gill motor neurons 61. Operant conditioning in simple animals like Aplysia a. cannot be demonstrated. b. can result in increased biting behavior. c. produces a stronger gill-withdrawal response. d. produces a weaker gill-withdrawal response.

62. What process is involved with nonassociative learning such as habituation and sensitization? a. the formation of connections between specific elements or events b. changes in the magnitude of responses to stimuli c. repetition and memorization d. observing and modeling others’ behaviors 63. In studies of classical conditioning in Aplysia, which of the following usually serves as the unconditioned stimulus? a. touching the mantle b. touching the siphon c. the gill-withdrawal reflex d. electric shock to the tail 64. The classical conditioning studies in Aplysia found that gill withdrawal was the conditioned response to a. electrical shock to the tail. b. touching the CS+. c. touching the CS−. d. electrical shock to the siphon.

65. Classical conditioning in Aplysia results primarily from a. changes in the amounts of neurotransmitter released by the sensory neuron. b. the release of smaller amounts of neurotransmitter by the motor neuron. c. increased sensitivity of the motor neuron. d. larger numbers of active interneurons.

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory

66.66.

The procedure illustrated in this figure will result in a. sensitization of the Aplysia gill-withdrawal reflex. b. classical conditioning of the Aplysia gill-withdrawal reflex. c. habituation of the Aplysia gill-withdrawal reflex. d. extinction of the Aplysia gill-withdrawal reflex.

67. Output from the hippocampus travels via the a. parahippocampal and rhinal cortices. b. perforant pathway. c. mossy fibers. d. fornix.

68. The dentate gyrus and Ammon’s horn are both structures in the a. hippocampus. b. amygdala. c. hypothalamus.

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory d. cerebellum.

69. Areas CA1 to CA4 are found in a. the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus. b. Ammon’s horn in the hippocampus. c. the parahippocampal cortex. d. the rhinal cortex.

70. Input from the rhinal cortex travels along a. the perforant pathway to the dentate gyrus. b. the fornix to the hypothalamus. c. mossy fibers to CA3. d. Schaffer collateral pathway to CA1.

71. Mossy fibers in the hippocampus connect a. input from the rhinal cortex to the dentate gyrus. b. the dentate gyrus and CA3. c. CA3 and CA1. d. CA1 and the hypothalamus.

72. The Schaffer collateral pathway connects a. the dentate gyrus and Ammon’s horn of the hippocampus. b. association cortex and the hippocampus. c. the CA3 and CA1 areas of Ammon’s horn. d. the hippocampus and the hypothalamus.

73.73.

What fiber pathway is indicated in this illustration by the #8? a. the perforant pathway b. the fornix Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory c. the mossy fiber pathway d. the climbing fiber pathway 74. In studies of LTP in hippocampal tissue, a rapid series of shocks a. increases postsynaptic potentials for hours. b. increases postsynaptic potentials for up to 10 minutes after stimulation. c. has progressively larger postsynaptic potentials during the series. d. decreases the postsynaptic potentials.

75. The rapid series of shocks that is applied to demonstrate LTP is at a rate that is neuronal communication. a. greater than b. less than c. about the same as d. more irregular than

that found in normal

76. LTP may last a. hours in living animals and indefinitely in a brain slice. b. hours in a brain slice and indefinitely in living animals. c. a few seconds in living animals and several hours in a brain slice. d. a few seconds in a brain slice and several hours in living animals.

77. LTP is similar to long-term memory in which of the following ways? a. It requires input to be presented at rates of 2 per second or less. b. It occurs only in the hippocampus. c. It takes only seconds to develop and lasts indefinitely. d. It requires the activity of neurons that release ACh. 78. “Associativity” in the Hebbian synapse refers to the a. use of the same type of neurotransmitter in both the pre- and postsynaptic neurons. b. simultaneous activity of several synapses on the same postsynaptic neuron. c. nearly simultaneous activity of the pre- and postsynaptic neurons. d. ability of the postsynaptic cell to use retrograde messengers such as nitric oxide (NO) to communicate with the presynaptic cell.

79. Simultaneous activity of several synapses on the same postsynaptic neuron during LTP is referred to as a. sensitization. b. facilitation. c. cooperativity. d. potentiativity.

80. Which of the following statements about long-term potentiation (LTP) is correct? a. Presynaptic processes appear to be important to LTP in all locations. b. All synapses exhibiting LTP involve glutamate. c. LTP has not been demonstrated in the hippocampus.

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory d. LTP has been demonstrated throughout the central nervous system.

81. What activity meets the requirement for cooperativity? a. both sodium and calcium entering the cell b. diminished activity between the motor neurons and gill muscles c. AMPA receptors in conjunction with NMDA receptors d. potassium and calcium leaving the cell 82. What does it mean to say LTP is “input specific”? a. It occurs only in the hippocampus. b. It always involves the neurotransmitter glutamate. c. It involves a variety of neurotransmitters but only occurs in the cerebellum. d. If it occurs in one active synapse, it does not automatically occur at other inactive synapses on the same neuron.

83. The process of is probably dependent on LTP. a. language learning b. spatial learning c. formation of flashbulb memories d. habituation 84. Typical mice with impaired LTP a. are unable to form spatial maps. b. form spatial maps that are inaccurate. c. form spatial maps accurately but experience immediate loss of those maps. d. form new maps instead of reactivating an a previous one.

85. In conditioned fear research with rats, which of the following might be used by the experimenters as a conditioned response? a. working to postpone an electric shock b. increased salivation c. freezing d. increases in working for food 86. A drug that is an antagonist for the NMDA glutamate receptor blocks a. both LTP and spatial memory acquisition. b. neither LTP nor spatial memory acquisition. c. LTP but not with spatial memory acquisition. d. spatial memory but not with LTP. 87. What characterizes the beginning of early long-term potentiation? a. calcium entering the cell through NMDA receptors b. insertion of AMPA receptors into the postsynaptic membrane c. activation of protein kinase enzymes d. gene expression and protein synthesis Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory 88. During which memory phase do actin filaments produce larger, stiffer dendritic spines? a. generation b. stabilization c. retrieval d. Maintenance 89. The modifiability of synapses is known as a. generation b. stabilization c. plasticity d. maintenance

.

90. A transcription factor that is especially important in long-term learning is a. CREB. b. PKMζ. c. BDNF. d. AMPA. 91. If the translation of C/EBPβ is prevented one hour before training, a. learning is prevented. b. learning proceeds normally. c. long-term memory is unaffected, but short-term memory is impaired. d. short-term memory is unaffected, but long-term memory is impaired.

92. Memory destabilization during retrieval a. is the same for all types of memories. b. is more extreme for stronger, older memories. c. is less extreme for stronger, older memories. d. does not result in the inclusion of new information present at the time of retrieval.

93. An engram is defined as a(n) a. physical representation of memory in the brain. b. area of association cortex. c. type of lesion that reduces memory capacity. d. metaphor for the mind.

94. Karl Lashley suggested that a. location of a lesion was the best predictor of learned performance. b. the size of a lesion was the best predictor of learned performance. c. size and location of a lesion were equally correlated with learned performance. d. neither the size nor the location of a lesion was correlated with learned performance.

95. Lashley’s concept of equipotentiality means that Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory a. learning and memory functions are highly localized in the brain. b. size and location of lesions have equal impacts on learned behavior. c. all parts of the cortex make equal contributions to learning and memory. d. the amount of cortex you have is not related to how well you can learn.

96. Lashley was incorrect in his assumption that a. parts of the cortex were equivalent in their contributions to learning and memory. b. large lesions affect learned behavior more than small lesions. c. memories are stored in one specific location in the cortex. d. size and location of lesions have equal impacts on learned behavior.

97. In experiments Wilder Penfield performed on patients, some reported experiential memories when he stimulated which region of their brains? a. parietal lobe b. amygdala c. frontal lobe d. temporal lobe 98. During a learning experience, individual cells compete with a. motor neurons b. each other c. time d. interneurons 99. A puff of air to the eye of a rabbit is the a. unconditioned stimulus (UCS) b. conditioned stimulus (CS) c. unconditioned response (UCR) d. conditioned response (CR)

to be assigned to an engram.

in the classical conditioning of the nictitating membrane.

100. Classical conditioning of the nictitating membrane in rabbits is prevented by lesions of the a. amygdala. b. deep cerebellar nuclei. c. interpositus nucleus of the cerebellum. d. inferior olive.

101. If you temporarily inactivate the red nucleus, this will prevent a. conditioned responding but not learning. b. both conditioned responding and learning. c. neither conditioned responding nor learning. d. learning but not conditioned responding.

102. When eyeblink conditioning was done in rabbits, it was found that temporarily disabling the leaning. a. Purkinje cells Powered by Cognero

prevented

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory b. red nucleus c. interpositus nucleus d. nictitating membrane 103. A friend of yours is an accomplished pianist who has a lot of trouble remembering people’s names and what chores they have to do each day. However, they have no trouble remembering how to play the piano. This is because memories of how to play the piano are stored in their memory, rather than their memory. a. episodic; semantic b. semantic; episodic c. procedural; episodic d. episodic; procedural 104. Purkinje cells in the cerebellum receive direct input from a. mossy fibers and climbing fibers. b. climbing fibers and parallel fibers. c. mossy fibers and parallel fibers. d. mossy, climbing, and parallel fibers.

105. Climbing fibers synapsing in the cerebellum originate from cells located in the a. deep cerebellar nuclei. b. amygdala. c. inferior olive of the medulla. d. interpositus nucleus.

106. Parallel fibers synapsing in the cerebellum originate in a. neurons in the inferior olive of the medulla. b. neurons in the pons. c. Purkinje cells. d. granule cells.

107. Mossy fibers synapsing in the cerebellum originate in a. neurons in the inferior olive of the medulla. b. neurons in the pons. c. Purkinje cells. d. granule cells.

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108.108.

The structure identified as #5 in this illustration represents a a. parallel fiber. b. climbing fiber. c. mossy fiber. d. perforant pathway fiber.

109. The Purkinje cells of the cerebellum receive input from a. excitatory cells; granule cells b. inhibitory cells; engram cells c. mossy fibers; granule cells d. climbing fibers; parallel fibers

and

.

110. A condition for the formation of long-term potentiation (LTP) in which several synapses onto the target postsynaptic neuron must be simultaneously active is referred to as a. associativity. b. cooperativity. c. transcription. d. translation.

111. Decreases in excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) is seen in a. long-term potentiation (LTP). b. long-term depression (LTD). c. cerebellar inhibition. d. cerebellar excitation.

112. Lesion studies, recording studies, and research involving the administration of NMDA antagonists all point to the importance of the in the classical conditioning of fear. a. cerebellum b. Purkinje cells Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory c. hippocampus d. amygdala 113. The anatomy of the cerebellum seems ideally suited for a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. any type of conditioning. d. non-conditioned learning.

114. Extinction is BEST described as an example of a. forgetting. b. reconsolidation. c. generation. d. learning.

115. When learning their way through a maze, rats that received cortical lesions following training forgot many of their previously learned behaviors. What factor correlated with this outcome? a. the size of the rat’s amygdala b. the size of the rat’s hippocampus c. the location of the lesion d. the size of the lesion 116. Rats with hippocampal damage will differ in which of the following ways from rats with intact hippocampi? a. Previously extinguished freezing will reappear in response to the conditioned stimulus. b. Extinction of previously learned freezing behavior will generalize to all contexts. c. Extinction of previously learned freezing behavior will occur in the same place in which extinction training occurred, but freezing will occur in all other contexts. d. No differences will be observed, because the amygdala is responsible for managing context, not the hippocampus.

117. Henry Molaison (H.M.) had severe epilepsy that was alleviated by bilateral temporal lobe surgery. Following this surgery, Molaison had a. no memory deficits. b. deficits in implicit but not explicit memories. c. deficits in explicit but not implicit memories. d. profound deficits in both implicit and explicit memories.

118. The case of Henry Molaison (H.M.) and his long-term anterograde amnesia following temporal lobe surgery provided strong evidence that a. long-term memories are stored in the hippocampus. b. medial temporal lobe structures are necessary for the retrieval of stored memories. c. the hippocampus is essential to the formation of implicit memories. d. declarative and nondeclarative memories are processed differently.

119. Henry Molaison (patient H.M.) experienced severe memory problems with his Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory a. episodic memory. b. procedural memory. c. implicit memory. d. short-term memory.

120. Luis developed anterograde amnesia when he was in his 20s due to surgery. You would expect him to have the greatest difficulty with which one of the following tasks? a. learning to ride a bike b. learning to swim c. telling a joke he heard yesterday d. telling a joke he heard when he was 10 121. Monkeys perform poorly on the delayed DNMS test following lesions in their a. temporal b. frontal c. parietal d. occipital

lobes.

122. Poor performance by a monkey on the delayed nonmatching to sample (DNMS) task probably indicates difficulty forming new memories. a. sensory b. short-term c. long-term d. working 123. It appears that the hippocampus participates in matching correct responses to their contexts during training. a. dishabituation b. sensitization c. habituation d. extinction 124. A classic model of memory consolidation suggested that the role of the hippocampus is to a. serve as a storage location for declarative memories. b. serve as a storage location for procedural memories. c. assist in the retrieval of memories stored in other locations. d. transfer information from short-term memory into long-term memory.

125. Hyperthymesia results in a. superior procedural memory. b. inferior procedural memory. c. inferior episodic memory. d. superior episodic memory.

126. Following surgery that removed the hippocampus, amygdala, and part of the association cortex of the temporal lobe Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory from both his right and left hemispheres, Henry Molaison (H.M.) suffered from severe anterograde amnesia. What caused his amnesia to be so severe? a. the fact that he had brain damage b. his young age (27) c. surgery performed on both hemispheres of his brain d. a bicycle accident he experienced as a child 127. Hyperthymesia might be associated with differences in the a. anterior cingulate cortex (ACC). b. hypothalamus. c. thalamus. d. amygdala.

128. Semantic memory appears to be a. widely distributed throughout the association cortex. b. localized in the hippocampus. c. localized in the occipital lobes. d. localized in the frontal lobes.

129. Which of the following areas of the brain includes a wide distribution of episodic and semantic memories? a. the posterior temporal lobe b. the anterior temporal lobe c. the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex d. the cerebral cortex 130. While naming animals or tools, participants showed activation in a. overlapping areas in the temporal lobes. b. overlapping areas in the frontal lobes. c. separate but adjacent areas in the frontal lobes. d. separate areas including the occipital lobe, premotor area, and temporal lobe.

131. While undergoing brain imaging, Liam was asked to silently name types of animals. It is likely that his scan would show activity in the a. left premotor area. b. left medial occipital lobe. c. right premotor area. d. right medial occipital lobe.

132. One patient with damage to their association cortex was a. unable to name living things while retaining the ability to name inanimate objects. b. unable to name inanimate objects while retaining the ability to name living things. c. unable to name either living things or inanimate objects. d. able to name objects but not familiar people.

133. The central executive role in working memory most likely involves the Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory a. hippocampus. b. amygdala. c. orbitofrontal cortex. d. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex and anterior cingulate cortex (ACC).

134. Human infants achieve object permanence around the age of a. 6 months. b. 7 or 8 months. c. 12 months. d. 18 months.

135. Object permanence in monkeys a. does not occur. b. occurs at a much earlier developmental stage than in human infants. c. remains normal in cases of parietal lesion, but is eliminated in cases of prefrontal lesions. d. is eliminated in cases of both parietal and prefrontal lesions.

136. Important attentional aspects of short-term memory require activation in the a. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex and the anterior cingulate cortex. b. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex and the posterior cingulate cortex. c. hippocampus and the anterior cingulate cortex. d. hippocampus and the posterior cingulate cortex.

137. Your great uncle recently had a stroke, and there have been some subtle differences in his behavior. For example, you were playing checkers, and he was doing fine. But when your checker was “kinged” and could therefore move according to a different set of rules, he didn’t seem to be able to adjust. When you asked him if he realized what the rules said, he did, but he continued to play as if he didn’t. Considering what you learned about brain areas and memory, what part of his brain would you suspect has damage? a. the hippocampus b. the diencephalon c. the prefrontal cortex d. the parietal lobe 138. Short-term memory appears to require maturity in the a. dorsomedial thalamus. b. hippocampus. c. anterior thalamus. d. prefrontal cortex.

139. James constantly asks his friend Rob to tell him what the professor just said in lecture, because James has much more trouble remembering verbal information long enough to write it down in his notes. It is likely that James a. has some type of mild brain damage. b. is more likely than Rob to use simple repetition to remember verbal material. c. experiences more activation of his anterior cingulate cortex than Rob during verbal tasks. d. is more likely than Rob to use semantic strategies during short-term verbal memory tasks.

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory 140. The formation of procedural memories may involve activity in the a. dorsomedial thalamus. b. anterior thalamus. c. striatum. d. hippocampus.

141. The nucleus accumbens a. does not participate in learning of any type. b. is important to long-term but not to short-term learning. c. is important in episodic and semantic memory but not procedural memory. d. is reward-sensitive and signals conformity with the majority.

142. Lesions in the striatum interfere with a. procedural but not declarative b. declarative but not procedural c. both declarative and procedural d. short-term but not long-term

memories.

143. Samantha’s grandfather has been diagnosed with Parkinson disease. Samantha knows that Parkinson disease affects the basal ganglia, so she is able to tell her grandfather that he is likely to experience a. little if any memory impairment. b. problems with procedural memories but not declarative memories. c. problems with declarative memories but not procedural memories. d. problems with both declarative and procedural memories.

144. Overall, stress produces a rapid shift in the dominance of brain networks processing memory, from more cognitive networks that involve the hippocampus and prefrontal cortex to more habit-based networks that include the amygdala and basal ganglia. One negative consequence of this situation is that it limits our ability to a. respond to novel challenges. b. respond to any challenges. c. think logically in the face of a challenge. d. recognize a challenge when we are faced with one.

145. While skiing, Kayla was nearly buried alive in an avalanche and suffered damage to her hippocampus as a result.

However, her amygdala remained intact. As a result, she experiences constant without . a. night terrors; remembering them b. visions of the avalanche; an emotional reaction c. flashbacks; knowing why d. fear; knowing its source 146. In response to stressful events, the amygdala a. remains silent. b. experiences long-term excitation. c. experiences long-term inhibition Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory d. experiences enhanced activity followed by a refractory period.

147. The emotional and declarative aspects of a memory for a stressful event a. are both a result of activity in the hippocampus. b. are both a result of activity in the amygdala. c. are the result of independent activity in the amygdala and hippocampus, respectively. d. result when activity in the hippocampus inhibits activity in the amygdala.

148. What neurotransmitter released by the locus coeruleus fibers enhances memory formation? a. norepinephrine b. dopamine c. GABA d. glutamate 149. As healthy people age, most measures of cognitive functions a. become gradually worse. b. remain stable. c. become gradually better. d. remain stable until about age 65, at which time they become dramatically worse.

150. In a healthy aging adult, education, cardiovascular health, physical fitness, being married, and having strong social networks are referred to as a. accumulation. b. maintenance. c. reserve. d. compensation.

151. The ability of games to enhance cognition in our later years a. is still being debated. b. has been shown to be extremely strong. c. has not yet been researched. d. has been shown to be nonexistent.

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory

152.152.

In the example in this illustration, the water jet serves as the , and the gill-withdrawal serves as the

, the shock serves as the .

153.153.

Information from structure #1, known as # , which forms the Powered by Cognero

, leaves the hippocampus via structure .

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory

154.154.

LTD has been recorded in the structure labeled # in this illustration, which is a , when the structures labeled # and # and # , were simultaneously stimulated.

, known as

155. Explain the difference between associative and nonassociative types of learning and give an example of each.

156. Distinguish between declarative and nondeclarative memory.

157. Describe the information processing model of memory, focusing on the different types of memory. Describe and differentiate each type, giving special attention to the “subtypes” of the longest-lasting memory.

158. What is the process by which classical conditioning occurs in Aplysia?

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory

159.159.

In the given diagram, there is a region of interest that is circled, which shows a synapse between a sensory neuron and an interneuron. Explain the importance of events occurring in this region.

160.160.

Describe the flow of information along the perforant pathway, the mossy fiber pathway, and the Schaffer collateral pathway. Use the numbers on the structures in this diagram as references in your explanation.

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory 161. What is a Hebb (or Hebbian) synapse, and how is this concept related to LTP? 162. Spatial learning shares many characteristics with LTP. Explain the relationship between LTP and spatial learning.

163. Summarize the role of the amygdala in the classical conditioning of fear.

164.164.

In the given cortical diagram are five labeled structures. Summarize the inputs into and outputs from the structure labeled #2 in this diagram.

165. LTD occurs in multiple regions of the brain. Explain how LTD occurs in the cerebellum.

166. The case of Henry Molaison (patient H.M.) taught us much about memory. Molaison experienced anterograde amnesia for declarative memories. Describe the structures involved in declarative memory and how this case provided that understanding.

167. Procedural memories involve a number of areas of the brain. Explain which areas are involved.

168. The brain changes as we age. Explain the changes in brain activity involved in processing memories that occur with an aged brain.

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory Answer Key 1. a 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. b 12. b 13. d 14. a 15. c 16. c 17. d 18. b 19. b 20. c 21. d 22. c 23. b 24. c 25. d Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory 26. b 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. b 31. d 32. b 33. a 34. a 35. b 36. c 37. b 38. d 39. b 40. a 41. c 42. a 43. a 44. b 45. c 46. d 47. b 48. a 49. d 50. a 51. d Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory 52. a 53. b 54. a 55. d 56. b 57. c 58. a 59. d 60. a 61. b 62. c 63. d 64. b 65. a 66. b 67. d 68. a 69. b 70. a 71. b 72. c 73. a 74. a 75. c 76. b Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory 77. c 78. c 79. c 80. d 81. c 82. d 83. b 84. d 85. c 86. a 87. a 88. b 89. c 90. a 91. b 92. c 93. a 94. b 95. c 96. a 97. d 98. b 99. a 100. c 101. a 102. c Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory 103. c 104. b 105. c 106. d 107. b 108. c 109. d 110. b 111. b 112. d 113. a 114. d 115. d 116. b 117. c 118. d 119. a 120. c 121. a 122. c 123. d 124. d 125. d 126. c 127. d Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory 128. a 129. b 130. d 131. b 132. a 133. d 134. b 135. c 136. a 137. c 138. d 139. b 140. c 141. d 142. a 143. b 144. a 145. d 146. d 147. c 148. a 149. b 150. c 151. a 152. conditioned stimulus; unconditioned stimulus; unconditioned response 153. CA3; 4; fornix Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory 154. 2; Purkinje cell; 1, 4, parallel fibers, climbing fibers; 2; Purkinje cell; 4, 1, climbing fibers, parallel

fibers 155. Associative learning has two major types: classical conditioning and operant conditioning. Nonassociative learning also has two well-known types: habituation and sensitization. Habituation is a decrease in response to a benign stimulus; sensitization is an enhanced response to stimuli following a strong stimulus.

156. Declarative memory can be stated or “declared” and so is explicit memory. Nondeclarative memory cannot be explained easily in words but can be demonstrated and so is implicit memory.

157. The model states that there are three types of memory: sensory, short-term or working, and long-term. Sensory memory is brief, working memory lasts less than a half minute unless one repeats it to keep it in short-term or working memory. Short-term or working memory can be encoded to put the memory into long-term memory, from which it can be retrieved to short-term or working memory.

158. The siphon withdrawal reflex shows classical conditioning. It occurs when a weak stimulus to the siphon (the CS) is paired with a shock to the tail (the US). The mechanism of classical conditioning of the withdrawal reflex is similar to the mechanism underlying sensitization.

159. This is showing the mechanism for classical conditioning. Touching the mantle (the CS) is always followed by a shock to the tail (the US). The sensory neurons for the CS onto the motor neuron is circled, and one can see that the facilitating neuron has a presynaptic feedback onto the CS sensory neuron. The facilitating neuron as postsynaptic to the US sensory signal, as is the motor neuron, and it is this circled presynaptic signal onto the CS neuron that mediates classical conditioning.

160. The pathways connecting the hippocampus to the rest of the brain, as well as the connections formed within the hippocampus itself, are central to functions of this structure. Input from the rhinal cortex travels along the perforant pathway (8), whose axons form synapses on the cells of the dentate gyrus. Axons from the dentate gyrus, also known as mossy fibers (5), synapse on cells found in CA3 (1). Axons from CA3 form two branches. One branch, the Schaffer collateral pathway, synapses with cells in CA1 (3). The other branch exits the hippocampus as the fornix (4).

161. A Hebbian synapse is one that changes with repeated stimulation. Hebb theorized that with repetitive signals, a synapse would have larger individual signals. This has been shown to be true, and the mechanism is the underlying one of LTP: repetitive stimulation results in a prolonged time where each signal produces a larger postsynaptic response than before the repetitive stimulation.

162. Spatial learning in rodents is impaired by the application of NMDA receptor antagonists. When these chemicals are applied to the hippocampus in rats, they are unable to produce LTP or learn the location of an underwater platform in the Morris water maze. However, the drugs do not have any effect on performance or LTP if they are applied after spatial learning has occurred.

163. Perception of danger leads to a number of defensive behaviors. Animals might engage in fight or flight, freeze, or experience analgesia, or pain reduction. These behaviors are initiated by the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system, by way of the lateral hypothalamus (fight/flight) or the periaqueductal gray (freezing; analgesia). But where do these structures get their instructions?

Situated between the input from sensory systems and the output managed by the hypothalamus and periaqueductal gray is the amygdala. The amygdala plays an important role in the classical conditioning of emotional responses, including fear.

Lesion studies, recording studies, and research involving the administration of NMDA antagonists all point to the importance of the amygdala in this type of learning.

In a typical investigation of classically conditioned threat in rodents, a stimulus such as a tone (CS) is followed by Powered by Cognero

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Ch 12 Learning and Memory electrical shock to the feet (UCS). The conditioned response (CR) is usually freezing in place. Following the pairing of a shock with a tone, the tone by itself will begin to serve as a danger signal that evokes defensive responses.

164. 2 is a Purkinje cell, which receives inputs from 1, parallel fibers and 4, climbing fibers when these two cell types are simultaneously stimulated.

165. LTD has been recorded in Purkinje fibers when the inputs from climbing fibers and parallel fibers are simultaneously stimulated.

166. We now understand that the hippocampus is key to declarative memories, as loss of hippocampus function seen in these patients produces anterograde amnesia. What we know now is that declarative memory requires the hippocampus to encode the memory, while nondeclarative memory does not.

167. Procedural memories involve the circuit of the cortex-basal ganglia-thalamus-cortex loop.

168. Most measures of cognitive ability in healthy older adults remain stable. This stability might arise from modifications in brain activity that compensate for age-related declines in brain function. As people age, decreased blood flow is observed in many parts of the brain essential to memory and cognition, especially in the frontal and temporal lobes.

However, the aging brain also shows areas of increased activation, which suggests that these areas of increased activity represent a reorganization of the brain that allows cognitive performance to remain stable in spite of age-related deficits in function. An older person’s brain activity correlated with memory and cognition shows less localization than a younger person’s brain while engaged in the same task.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The split-brain operation may save the life of the patient but usually results in major deficits, such as the loss of language abilities. a. True b. False 2. It appears that the specialization we see in the human brain built upon specializations present in our apelike ancestors of long ago. a. True b. False 3. All left-handed people process language in the right hemisphere, and all right-handed people process language in the left hemisphere. a. True b. False 4. A significant mutation in the FOXP2 gene associated with language abilities occurred prior to the branching of species leading to modern chimpanzees and humans. a. True b. False 5. Those suffering from Wernicke aphasia are usually unaware of their symptoms, and thus experience no distress over the condition. a. True b. False 6. Autism spectrum disorder and schizophrenia are more common in left-handed people. a. True b. False 7. American Sign Language (ASL), which uses movement and vision instead of sound, is represented in completely different parts of the brain than verbal languages. a. True b. False 8. Dyslexia is strongly influenced by genetics. a. True b. False 9. The discrepancy between measured intelligence and verbal ability in individuals with Williams syndrome illustrates the existence of multiple types of intelligence. a. True b. False 10. Humans are the only animal with left-lateralized development of the brain and areas corresponding to Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11. The location of a function to one hemisphere of the brain is referred to as a. lateralization. b. bilateralism. c. Broca’s paradigm d. symmetry.

12. In cases of Rasmussen syndrome, the complete removal of the cortex of one hemisphere during childhood a. saves the child’s life at the expense of intelligence and mobility. b. has been discontinued due to its poor record of reducing seizures. c. demonstrates that we only need about 10 percent of our brain for normal functioning. d. significantly reduces seizures while producing relatively mild side effects.

13. Severing of the corpus callosum occurs during a. a split-brain operation. b. a hemispherectomy. c. removal of a brain tumor. d. head and neck surgery.

14. The term split brain refers to a. severing the spinal cord. b. severing the corpus callosum. c. severing the thalamus. d. removing one hemisphere.

15. The pathway connecting Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas is known as the a. ventral language pathway b. dorsal pathway c. basal ganglia d. arcuate fasciculus

.

16. The largest fiber pathway linking the two cerebral hemispheres is the a. anterior commissure. b. massa intermedia. c. corpus callosum. d. hippocampal commissure.

17. Joseph Bogen’s split-brain operation involves severing the a. anterior and hippocampal commissures. b. massa intermedia.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience c. corpus callosum. d. anterior and hippocampal commissures, the massa intermedia, and the corpus callosum.

18. Ronald is experiencing reduced sensation and difficulty moving his right arm. His neurologist is likely to look for damage in which of the following places? a. the sensory and motor cortical areas of the left hemisphere b. the sensory and motor cortical areas of the right hemisphere c. the sensory cortical areas of the right hemisphere and the motor cortical areas of the left hemisphere d. the sensory cortical areas of the left hemisphere and the motor cortical areas of the right hemisphere 19. Joseph Bogen operated on 16 patients with uncontrolled seizures due to epilepsy. In these operations, how many of the commissures did Bogen sever in each patient? a. one b. two c. three d. all four 20. The use of split-brain operations have been shown to a. be unsuccessful in treating epilepsy. b. improve the frequency of seizures but not the severity. c. improve the severity of seizures but not the frequency. d. improve both the severity and frequency of seizures.

21. Which one of these functions typically has greater representation in the right hemisphere? a. processing the right visual field b. right-ear advantage in dichotic listening tasks c. mathematical calculations d. prosody 22. Split-brain operations produce a. no changes in intellect, motivation, walking, or speech. b. changes in personality but none in intellect or speech. c. changes in intellect but none in walking or speech. d. changes in intellect, intellect-only.

23. You know your friend Ramon has just had a split-brain surgery to treat his uncontrollable epileptic seizures. When Ramon returns to school, it is likely that he will a. have trouble verbalizing his feelings. b. no longer be a star athlete as his coordination will have been affected. c. almost be the same, but his grades will probably drop a bit. d. have only very subtle changes that show up in follow-up tests of cognitive functioning.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience

24.24.

(see Figure 13.3) The structure indicated by the #2 in this illustration is the a. corpus callosum. b. massa intermedia. c. anterior commissure. d. hippocampal commissure.

25. Visual information about an object located to the right of center in the visual field is processed by a. both hemispheres equally. b. the left cerebral hemisphere. c. the right cerebral hemisphere. d. the left cerebral hemisphere in the majority of human participants, but in either the right hemisphere or both hemispheres in others.

26. In a typical experiment with split-brain patients, a person stared straight ahead as the experimenter flashed words or pictures on one side of a screen, too briefly for the person to move their eyes. Information going to one hemisphere could not cross to the other, because of the damage to the corpus callosum. The person could a. point with the right hand to what the right hemisphere perceived. b. point with the left hand to what the right hemisphere perceived. c. point with both hands to what the left hemisphere perceived. d. not point to anything perceived by either hemisphere.

27. In the experiment with split-brain patients in which the word HE appeared to the left of a fixation point and the word ART appeared to the right, how did participants respond when asked to point with the left hand to what they had seen? a. They pointed to “ART.” b. They pointed to “HE.” c. They pointed to “HEART.” Powered by Cognero

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience d. They were unable to respond, since they could no longer read.

28. In experiments with split-brain patients where they were shown an image in the left visual field, they a. were unable to select the object correctly with their left hands but were able to say what they had seen. b. were unable to select the object correctly with their right hands but were able to say what they had seen. c. selected the object correctly with their left hands but were unable to say what they had seen. d. selected the object correctly with their right hands but were unable to say what they had seen.

29. At one time, only damage to the corpus callosum or a brain hemisphere could reveal lateralization. How can we identify lateralization today? a. diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) and positive emission tomography (PET) b. positive emission tomography (PET) and x-rays c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and computed tomography (CT) d. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) and diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) 30. Logical, sequential information is typically processed by the left hemisphere. Where would thinking about a threedimensional figure be processed? a. the left hemisphere b. the right hemisphere c. the arcuate fasciculus d. the hippocampus 31. Information that is logical or sequential is processed a. more effectively in the right hemisphere in most people. b. more effectively in the left hemisphere in most people. c. with equal effectiveness in both hemispheres in most people. d. more effectively in the right hemisphere in about half of all people and more effectively in the left hemisphere in the other half.

32. Information that is intuitive or emotional is processed a. more effectively in the right hemisphere in most people. b. more effectively in the left hemisphere in most people. c. equally in both hemispheres in most people. d. more effectively in the right hemisphere in about half of all people and more effectively in the left hemisphere in the other half.

33. Which of the following processes is NOT lateralized? a. language b. motor control in the left side of the body c. sensation of the right visual field d. blood pressure in the torso 34. Michael damaged areas of his right hemisphere in a serious automobile accident. Which of the following types of information processing are likely to cause him problems in the future? a. logical, sequential processing Powered by Cognero

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience b. emotional, intuitive processing c. complex language d. identifying objects in the right half of the visual field 35. Since her auto accident, Maria seems to have problems interacting with people. In fact, she sometimes doesn’t seem to understand when people are angry or upset. She also never seems to be able to “get” jokes in spite of the fact that she is very intelligent. Given what you’ve learned in this chapter, what would you suggest might be going on with her? a. She may have an injury affecting her right hemisphere, which makes it difficult for her to understand other people’s emotions. b. Her language function is now localized to her right hemisphere. c. She may have an injury affecting her left hemisphere, which makes her unable to understand other people. d. She may have damage to her cerebellum, which makes her unable to interpret emotions.

36. Wade’s stroke left him unable to speak or move his right arm and hand. What part of the brain was most likely to be affected by Wade’s stroke? a. left hemisphere b. right hemisphere c. cerebellum d. thalamus 37. Ashley suddenly experienced problems with processing spatial and emotional information. Her physicians suspected that she might have an abnormality in her a. corpus callosum. b. massa intermedia. c. right hemisphere. d. left hemisphere.

38. Individuals in many species attack another’s message. a. right side; left side b. left side; right side c. ventral; dorsal d. dorsal; ventral

, so approaching from the

sends a peaceful

39. Andrew, who is left-handed, underwent a test in which one hemisphere was anesthetized at a time to determine lateralization. When his right hemisphere was anesthetized, he was unable to speak. How would Andrew’s physicians most likely interpret this result? a. They must have made a mistake, because language functions are managed by the left hemisphere. b. Andrew must have had a hemispherectomy for Rasmussen syndrome at some point. c. Andrew is one of a minority of left-handed people whose language is managed by the right hemisphere. d. Andrew must be bilingual. It is likely that he will still be able to speak in his other language.

40. Jill’s epilepsy is not responding to medication and is causing life-threatening symptoms. Her doctor has suggested surgery. One of the first steps in preparation for her surgery will be to determine where her language center is located. a. a split-brain test Powered by Cognero

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience b. a positron emission tomography (PET) scan c. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) d. a computerized tomography (CT) scan 41. Lateralization of function is found in a. humans only. b. humans and other primates only. c. all mammals. d. many animals, including invertebrates.

42. A possible benefit of lateralization is a. improvement in divided attention abilities. b. faster communication between the two hemispheres. c. “backup” in the event of brain damage. d. increased diversity among a population.

43. Which of the following statements about the effects of androgen levels on lateralization is correct? a. Higher androgen levels result in lower rates of verbal learning disabilities among males. b. Higher androgen levels result in higher rates of right-handedness among females. c. Human males exposed to prenatal androgens have lower rates of left-handedness. d. There is no evidence of androgen effects on lateralization in humans.

44. When does evidence of handedness first become apparent? a. in the embryo b. at birth c. at age 1 d. during toddlerhood 45. Which one of these statements about lateralization in people on the autism spectrum is correct? a. They exhibit more evidence of lateralization. b. They exhibit less evidence of lateralization. c. They exhibit no evidence of lateralization. d. They exhibit the same evidence of lateralization as people not on the spectrum.

46. According to research by Springer and Deutsch on handedness, artistic talent, and occupational choice, handedness a. is a strong predictor of occupational choice but not artistic talent. b. is a strong predictor of artistic talent but not occupational choice. c. is a strong predictor of both artistic talent and occupational choice. d. fails to predict either artistic talent or occupational choice.

47. Language function is lateralized to the right hemisphere a. in all right-handed people. b. in 96 percent of right-handed people. c. in a slight majority of right-handed people.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience d. only rarely in right-handed people.

48. Language function is lateralized to the left hemisphere a. in all left-handed people. b. in 90 to 97 percent of left-handed people. c. in a majority of left-handed people. d. only rarely in left-handed people.

49. The majority of left-handed people a. lateralize language function to the right hemisphere. b. use the two hemispheres equally for language. c. lateralize language function to the left hemisphere. d. switch back and forth between the left and right hemispheres while processing language.

50. In terms of percentages, left-handed people a. nearly always lateralize language to the right hemisphere. b. are less likely to lateralize language to the right hemisphere than right-handed people. c. are less likely to use both hemispheres equally for language than right-handed people. d. are more likely to use both hemispheres equally for language than right-handed people.

51. Research shows that left-handedness is a result of , so a. both genetics and environmental factors; both; a major b. neither genetics nor environmental factors; neither; a major c. environmental factors; genetics; no d. genetics; environmental factors; no

play(s)

role.

52. Dichotic listening tasks are based on the fact that a. information from each ear is processed exclusively by the ipsilateral auditory cortex. b. information from each ear is processed equally by both hemispheres. c. sounds originating from directly in front of or behind a person will be processed by the left hemisphere. d. information from each ear is processed more rapidly by the contralateral auditory cortex.

53. In dichotic listening tasks, a. most right-handed people will repeat the information heard by the left ear. b. most right-handed people will repeat the information heard by the right ear. c. 50 percent of right-handed people will repeat the information heard by the left ear. d. most left-handed people will repeat the information heard by the left ear.

54. In a dichotic listening test for which he volunteered, Justin was able to repeat the words presented to his right ear, but he did a better job evaluating the emotional tone of a word when it was presented to . a. his right ear b. his left ear c. both ears d. none Powered by Cognero

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience 55. Colby is left-handed. To which hemisphere does he likely localize language? a. both b. right c. left d. neither 56. For hearing, the term prosody indicates a. using pitch and tone to convey emotions in language. b. turn-taking during a conversation. c. perfect pitch. d. recognition of different grammatical structures in language.

57. While having a stroke, older adults are more likely to experience brain damage that results in a. growth of nonmalignant brain tumors b. language disorders c. stuttering d. loss of hemisphere lateralization 58. Albouy and his colleagues (2020) demonstrated that the left auditory cortex is sensitive to the of sounds, while the reverse is true of the right auditory cortex. a. arbitrariness; duality b. duality; arbitrariness c. pitch; timing d. timing; pitch

.

but not the

59. Research on the lateralization of musical skills a. demonstrates conclusively that musical skills are lateralized to the right hemisphere in most people. b. demonstrates conclusively that musical skills are lateralized to the left hemisphere in most people. c. has produced mixed results, leading to an ongoing debate about the extent to which musical skills are lateralized. d. supports the idea that musical skills are equally divided between the two hemispheres.

60. The brains of musicians with perfect pitch a. differed from nonmusicians but not from musicians lacking perfect pitch. b. differed from musicians lacking perfect pitch but not nonmusicians. c. were the same as nonmusicians and musicians lacking perfect pitch. d. differed from both nonmusicians and musicians lacking perfect pitch.

61. An area of the brain that appears to be structurally different in musicians with perfect pitch is the a. planum temporale. b. prefrontal cortex. c. primary auditory cortex. d. corpus callosum.

62. In terms of gender differences in specific brain functions, most research has shown that Powered by Cognero

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience a. there are no consistent differences between male and female cognitive abilities. b. males have a slight advantage over females in verbal skills. c. females have a slight advantage over males in verbal skills. d. males have a slight advantage over females in musical skills.

63. During a visuospatial task, a meta-analysis of meta-analyses found that a. males and females show similar patterns of right hemisphere activation. b. males are more likely to activate both hemispheres than females are. c. male advantage in spatial tasks is extremely large. d. female advantage in spatial tasks is extremely large.

64. Compared with healthy controls, individuals with schizophrenia a. show no differences in the lateralization of language. b. are less likely to be ambidextrous. c. are more likely to lateralize language to the left hemisphere. d. possess different patterns of asymmetry.

65. Savant behaviors occur a. only in individuals with autism spectrum disorder. b. in the majority of individuals with autism spectrum disorder and mental retardation. c. in people whose intellectual function is in the intellectual disability range. d. only in people who have experienced brain damage.

66. A participant in a case study on savant behaviors was found to have what kind of lateralization? a. right hemisphere lateralization b. left hemisphere lateralization c. cross lateralization d. nonlateralization 67. Language is found in a. all human cultures. b. most but not all contemporary human cultures. c. a minority of contemporary human cultures. d. all contemporary human cultures but probably did not occur in most human societies until approximately 15,000 years ago.

68. Aitchison’s 10 features of language include “spontaneous usage.” Which of the following is the BEST example of this feature? a. Birds respond to the singing of another bird. b. Children learn to speak without being explicitly taught to do so. c. Language is used to express ideas that have never been expressed before. d. We learn language within our families.

69. In Aitchison’s criteria for language, the fact that we learn language through simple exposure is an example of a. duality.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience b. cultural transmission. c. spontaneous usage. d. displacement.

70. In Aitchison’s criteria for language, the fact that the word chair can be used to describe all chairs is an example of a. arbitrariness. b. duality. c. displacement. d. semanticity.

71. Learning a spoken language is different from other types of learning in that a. the ability to learn language is closely tied to measures of intelligence. b. no specific instruction is necessary. c. there is no evidence for genetic influences on language learning. d. simple exposure is insufficient for learning to occur.

72. Support for a separate “language module” in the brain comes from a. the universality of language in human cultures. b. the human ability to learn spoken language through simple exposure rather than formal instruction. c. observations of a disconnect between language abilities and overall intelligence. d. controversies regarding the language abilities of nonhuman primates.

73. The language deficits of the KE family may originate in a. a single gene on Chromosome 7. b. multiple genes on Chromosome 7. c. a single gene on the X chromosome. d. multiple genes on the X chromosome.

74. Members of the KE family with a mutation in the FOXP2 gene show a. normal-high intelligence and excellent production of language. b. low-normal intelligence and severe difficulties in the production of language. c. below normal intelligence and minimal difficulties in the production of language. d. normal intelligence and an inability to produce language.

75. The KE family possesses a mutation in the FOXP2 gene that results in affected family members. a. a primary auditory cortex b. a planum temporale c. basal ganglia d. a caudate nucleus

that is significantly smaller in

76. Current theories indicate that early human click languages a. were brought into Africa by non-African groups. b. developed when the first Africans migrated out of Africa.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience c. were spoken at least 50,000 years ago. d. were spoken before human beings began agriculture.

77. African tribes using click languages are genetically a. distinct; developed very recently b. distinct; are very ancient c. similar; developed very recently d. similar; are very ancient.

suggesting that the languages

.

78. Why have efforts to teach sign language to apes been more successful than efforts to teach them speech? a. Apes have no vocal apparatus. b. Apes have shown no interest in speech. c. Apes are not intelligent enough to learn speech. d. Apes are already proficient in gesturing.

79. In the work to teach language to great apes, teaching sign language has a. been more successful than efforts to teach spoken language. b. been about as successful as efforts to teach spoken language. c. been less successful than efforts to teach spoken language. d. not been successful at all.

80. Kanzi, a pygmy chimpanzee (bonobo), has shown evidence that he can a. produce spoken language as well as signs. b. understand some human speech. c. read. d. develop new spoken words that other chimpanzees understand.

81. Herbert Terrace has argued that the use of symbols and sign language by apes differs from human language in a. arbitrariness. b. spontaneous learning. c. semanticity. d. turn-taking.

82. Evidence for cultural transmission of ape language is provided by a. Washoe’s ability to sign “waterbird” while observing a swan. b. the ability of great apes to learn sign language from humans. c. Kanzi’s ability to learn symbols by watching his mother’s training. d. Kanzi’s ability to respond to verbal commands.

83. What nonhuman animals might have language abilities? a. none b. all birds c. dogs, cats, and other domesticated species d. elephants, bats, whales, and some birds Powered by Cognero

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience 84. The planum temporale is usually larger in the left hemisphere than in the right. However, the difference between the left and right planum temporale is about twice as great in musicians who a. can sight-read sheet music. b. can play music by ear. c. do not have perfect pitch. d. have perfect pitch.

85. Some studies have indicated that musical training can provide advantages in using language, including the detection of a. sound and meaning. b. prosody and rhythm. c. articulation and foreign accent. d. syntax and pragmatics.

86. Research on multilingualism suggests an advantage to a. working memory b. native-language fluency c. cognition d. conversion of sound to meaning

in multilinguals.

87. What requires the activation of general attention circuits not restricted to language processing, including the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex, the supplementary motor area, the anterior cingulate cortex, the caudate nucleus, and the cerebellum? a. using sign language (ASL) b. speaking more than one language c. coping with dyslexia d. having global aphasia 88. Early exposure to a second language is associated with a. no differences in brain activation compared with monolingual English speakers. b. reduced activation in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex compared to monolingual English speakers. c. the absence of a foreign accent. d. increased likelihood of a foreign accent.

89. One longitudinal study of nuns found that nuns who spoke dementia. a. only one. b. two. c. three. d. four or more.

language(s) were the least likely to develop

90. Sign languages, such as ASL, have been demonstrated to be a. difficult to localize, due to the large amount of variations between individuals using the language. b. localized in the motor cortex of both hemispheres, due to its reliance on movement. c. localized in the right hemisphere, due to its visuospatial components. d. localized in the left hemisphere, like other languages.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience 91. If a deaf person who uses ASL for communication has damage to Broca’s area, one will likely find that a. there is no effect on their signing. b. there is a visible but modest effect on signing. c. they are only able to sign with difficulty. d. they are unable to understand sign language but can perform it without difficulty.

92. What do you expect would result from surgery on a deaf patient’s right temporal lobe? a. They would no longer be able to use ASL. b. They would still be able to use ASL. c. They would lose her ability to understand speech. d. They would lose their ability to produce speech.

93. As a child, Michelle learned sign language at the same time she learned English because her mother signed and spoke at the same time. If Michelle has a stroke that results in Broca aphasia, which of the following might you expect? a. She will speak English with difficulty but will be able to sign perfectly. b. She will be unable to sign correctly but will be able to speak English well. c. She will be able to speak English with difficulty and will also have trouble signing. d. She will have no comprehension of English, but she will be able to sign well.

94. Broca’s area is located in the a. left inferior frontal lobe. b. right orbitofrontal cortex. c. right superior temporal lobe. d. left insula.

95. Aphasia is BEST defined as a a. total loss of the ability to produce language. b. total or partial loss of the ability to produce or comprehend language. c. partial loss of the ability to comprehend language. d. total or partial loss of the ability to read or write.

96. Paul Broca’s patient “Tan” would probably be diagnosed today with a. Broca’s b. conduction c. global d. transcortical motor

aphasia.

97. The term anomia means a. poor comprehension. b. poor production of speech. c. difficulty reading and writing. d. difficulty finding the correct word to express an idea.

98. Patients with Broca aphasia have comprehension of language that is Powered by Cognero

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience a. normal. b. somewhat impaired. c. about as good as in cases of Wernicke aphasia. d. completely lacking.

99. Language disorders characterized by lack of fluency and relatively good comprehension include a. Broca aphasia and global aphasia. b. conduction aphasia and transcortical motor aphasia. c. Broca aphasia and transcortical motor aphasia. d. global aphasia and conduction aphasia.

100. A distinction seen in Broca aphasia is that patients can a. have particular difficulties with action words. b. write better than they can speak. c. speak more clearly than they can write. d. sign about as well as they can speak.

101. One of the most likely functions of Broca’s area is to a. sequence the movements necessary for articulate speech. b. maintain verbal short-term memories through rehearsal. c. divide speech into phonemes. d. identify the meaning of speech.

102. Sound substitutions are less likely to occur in a. Broca’s b. Wernicke’s c. conduction d. transcortical

aphasia.

103. Refer Figure 13.19, what structure associated with language is indicated by the #4 in this illustration?

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience

a. Broca’s area b. Wernicke’s area c. angular gyrus d. primary auditory cortex 104. Wernicke’s area is located in the a. inferior frontal lobe. b. prefrontal cortex. c. superior temporal gyrus. d. parietal lobe.

105. In talking with a person with Wernicke aphasia, you observe that they a. speak slowly and laboriously. b. comprehend most of what they hear. c. appear deeply concerned that they are not making sense. d. appear unaware that they are not making sense.

106. Language disorders characterized by fluent speech and poor comprehension include a. conduction aphasia and transcortical sensory aphasia. b. Wernicke aphasia and conduction aphasia. c. global aphasia and conduction aphasia. d. Wernicke aphasia and transcortical sensory aphasia.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience 107. People with Wernicke aphasia a. comprehend speech more effectively than written words. b. comprehend written words more effectively than speech. c. are unable to comprehend either written or spoken language. d. speak more clearly than they write.

108. Mr. Koerner had a stroke that resulted in Wernicke aphasia. His speech makes no sense but includes many curse words, which his wife finds shocking. How might you explain his condition to her? a. He is in denial about his stroke but really understands much of what is going on around him. b. He is very frustrated by his inability to make sense of the conversations going on around him. c. If he is still able to curse, he obviously could speak correctly if he really tried. d. He has no comprehension of any of the words he speaks or hears and is not troubled by it due to brain damage.

109. Patients can still repeat words and phrases accurately in cases of a. Broca aphasia. b. transcortical aphasia. c. conduction aphasia. d. Wernicke aphasia.

110. The arcuate fasciculus is typically damaged in cases of conduction aphasia a. only. b. and Broca aphasia. c. and global aphasia. d. and transcortical aphasia.

111. Damage to the arcuate fasciculus produces a. conduction aphasia. b. transcortical sensory aphasia. c. transcortical motor aphasia. d. global aphasia.

112. Damage to the supplementary motor area (SMA) is typical in cases of a. transcortical motor aphasia. b. Broca aphasia. c. transcortical sensory aphasia. d. conduction aphasia.

113. Damage at the junction of the parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes is typical in cases of a. transcortical motor aphasia. b. Broca aphasia. c. transcortical sensory aphasia. d. conduction aphasia.

114. Global aphasia typically results from strokes affecting the a. middle cerebral Powered by Cognero

artery.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience b. carotid c. anterior cerebral d. posterior cerebral 115. Which of the following disorders usually causes the least impairment? a. Broca aphasia b. Wernicke aphasia c. global aphasia d. conduction aphasia 116. Higher order functions in language production, such as attention, are probably specifically impaired in cases of aphasia. a. transcortical motor b. transcortical sensory c. conduction d. global 117. Modern research indicates that the Wernicke-Geschwind model is incorrect in which of the following assumptions? a. The angular gyrus is involved with the translation of written words into sound. b. Sounds are decoded by Wernicke’s area. c. Information travels in only one direction between Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas. d. Broca’s area participates in the production of speech.

118. Although now considered overly simplistic, the Wernicke-Geschwind model of language successfully predicted the a. evolutionary pattern of human language. b. participation of mirror neurons in gesture and language. c. amount of cortex associated with language function. d. symptoms associated with different types of language disorders.

119. The language model by Dronkers, Pinker, and Damasio proposes an implementation system composed of a. Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area. b. the basal ganglia and association cortex. c. insular cortex and the basal ganglia. d. Broca’s area, Wernicke’s area, insular cortex, and the basal ganglia.

120. The language model by Dronkers, Pinker, and Damasio proposes a. slight changes in the Wernicke-Geschwind model. b. a one-way pathway between Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas. c. implementation, mediational, and conceptual levels of processing. d. a role for Broca’s area in the management of semantic knowledge.

121. In the language model by Dronkers, Pinker, and Damasio, semantic knowledge is managed by a(n) a. implementation system existing in Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas. b. mediational system existing in association cortex of the temporal, parietal, and frontal lobes.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience c. system existing in Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas. d. system existing in higher-order association cortex.

122. Studies looking at language acquisition have indicated that reading and writing a. developed later than spoken language, approximately 50,000 years ago. b. were performed by Neanderthals as well as Homo sapiens. c. developed along with spoken language, probably between 100,000 and 200,000 years ago. d. developed very recently in human history, in perhaps the last 5,000 to 6,000 years.

123. Evaluation of language acquisition leads us to understand that reading and writing a. must be specifically taught, whereas spoken language is learned through simple exposure. b. is learned through simple exposure, whereas spoken language must be specifically taught to children. c. cannot be localized in the human brain, although spoken language can be localized. d. use the same areas of the brain as spoken language, so cannot be separately localized.

124. Alexia is correlated with damage to the pathways connecting cortex at the junction of a. Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area. b. the temporal and occipital lobes. c. the insular cortex and the basal ganglia. d. the angular gyrus and the arcuate fasciculus.

125. In conditions where a person has aphasia, they will a. not have problems with reading or writing. b. have problems with reading but not writing. c. have problems with comprehension but not speech. d. have problems producing and comprehending speech.

126. A person with alexia a. can speak and understand normally but cannot read. b. cannot recognize words that are spelled out loud to them. c. can understand spoken language but cannot speak or read. d. can point to words and letters on command but cannot read normally.

127. The condition where a person is unable to write words is called a. alexia. b. agraphia. c. aphasia. d. dyslexia.

128. People with alexia a. are unable to small print. b. must read phonetically, because they lack the ability to memorize whole words like the or and. c. are unable to learn to read. d. have lost the ability to read after having once mastered it.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience 129. Dyslexia occurs a. equally frequently in males and in females. b. almost always in females. c. more frequently in females than in males. d. more frequently in males than in females.

130. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship of dyslexia to genetics? a. There is no relationship between dyslexia and genetics. b. There is a strong relationship between dyslexia and genetics, resulting from a single gene. c. There is a strong relationship between dyslexia and genetics, but the genetic influences are highly complex. d. Dyslexia is a sex-linked condition, which explains why males are more likely than females to be diagnosed with dyslexia.

131. Five-year-old Chelsea is having difficulty with Dr. Seuss rhymes and understanding the difference when her mother says “ran” and “ram.” She might be at risk for a. stuttering. b. alexia. c. dyslexia. d. agraphia.

132. Which of the following is the most common form of learning disability? a. alexia b. agraphia c. dysgraphia d. dyslexia 133. Which of the following tasks requires phonological awareness? a. realizing when you hear them that plame and flame rhyme b. being able to read the words rough and plough c. quickly recognizing high frequency written words like and or the d. being able to discriminate between the appearance of b and d 134. Imaging studies of people with dyslexia during reading show a. no differences when compared with typical readers. b. greater activation of Broca’s area and less activation of Wernicke’s area and the angular gyrus than typical readers. c. less activation of Broca’s area and greater activation of Wernicke’s area and the angular gyrus than typical readers. d. less activation of Broca’s area, Wernicke’s area and the angular gyrus than typical readers.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience

135.135.

(see Figure 13.22) In this illustration of a typical reader, information travels from primary visual cortex to the temporal lobe by way of the structure labeled #4, which is the a. angular gyrus. b. arcuate fasciculus. c. hippocampal commissure. d. massa intermedia.

136. People who stutter have a difference in neural activity from non-stuttering individuals in that stutterers are a. more likely to have reduced white matter integrity. b. less likely to have reduced white matter integrity. c. more likely to use only the right hemisphere for language. d. more likely to use both hemispheres for language.

137. Which of the following statements about stuttering and gender is true? a. There is no systematic relationship between stuttering and gender. b. Stuttering is more common in males than in females. c. Stuttering is more common in females than in males. d. Stuttering is more likely in males, but females who stutter suffer more severe symptoms.

138. Stuttering is accompanied by abnormally high activity in a. the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience b. Broca’s area. c. the basal ganglia. d. Wernicke’s area.

139. Current treatments for stuttering focus on a. slowing the speaker’s rate of speech. b. the speaker’s self-image. c. the speaker’s articulation of individual sounds. d. nothing—there is currently no treatment for stuttering.

140. Stuttering appears to be primarily a result of a. pressuring a child to speak. b. genetics. c. the competition with siblings for speaking time. d. immaturity of the vocal apparatus.

141. In most individuals, the planum temporale is larger in the left than in the right hemisphere. This asymmetry is even more pronounced in musicians with compared to nonmusicians and musicians who have . a. perfect pitch; non-perfect pitch b. non-perfect pitch; perfect pitch c. extensive training; little training d. little training; extensive training 142. Which of the following is an example of fluid intelligence? a. explaining the differences between a gas and a liquid b. remembering the capitol of every state in the United States c. solving the New York Times Sunday crossword puzzle d. knowing the product produced by multiplying 12 × 12 143. Biological correlates of savant behaviors suggest a role for a. genetics b. environment c. atypical laterality d. autism spectrum disorders

in such behaviors.

144. When performance on diverse tests of cognitive ability from over 400 scholarly articles were re-analyzed using Spearman’s two-factor model of intelligence, all cognitive tests had positive correlations and provided evidence for a. the existence of savant behaviors. b. large improvements in IQ that have occurred in the last 100 years. c. verbal skills found in children with Williams syndrome. d. a general component (g-factor) explaining at least 40 percent of the variation in scores.

145. Between what two ages do human general intelligence measures remain stable? a. 11 to 80 b. 18 to 90 Powered by Cognero

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience c. 7 to 75 d. 23 to 68 146. A genome-wide association study (GWAS) found a. no relationship between educational attainment scores and intelligence. b. no relationship between educational attainment and socioeconomic status. c. a negative correlation between educational attainment and intelligence. d. a positive correlation between educational attainment and intelligence.

147. Dyslexia exhibits high a. degree of influence from environment. b. level of intellectual intelligence. c. heritability. d. randomness.

148. What is the main factor that distinguishes human language from other species’ communication? a. necessity b. intelligence c. experience d. productivity 149. The heritability of human adult intelligence, as measured by IQ tests, is reported to be .75. This number means that a. 75 percent of the variation in intelligence can be attributed to environment. b. 25 percent of the variation in intelligence can be attributed to genetic factors. c. 75 percent of the variation in intelligence can be attributed to education level. d. 75 percent of an individual’s intelligence is determined by genes, with the environment determining the remainder.

150. Which of the following statements about language is correct? a. It is more challenging for people with Williams syndrome than for those with other forms of intellectual impairment. b. No human culture exists without it. c. It consists of non-arbitrary symbols. d. Mouth gestures are unrelated to language.

151. Using fMRI, researchers have identified how many broad networks for lateralized functions? a. four b. three c. two d. one 152. Comparisons of the values of different items is associated with activity in the a. lateral intraparietal area (LIP). b. fusiform face area (FFA). c. striatum and medial prefrontal cortex.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience d. posterior cingulate cortex (PCC).

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

153.153.

(see Figure 13.3) The structures in this illustration were severed in the classic split-brain procedures used by Joseph Bogen. They are #1, ; #2, ; #3, ; and #4, .

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience

154.154.

(see Figure 13.19) According to classic language models, initial processing of sound occurs in structure # , and comprehension of speech is processed by structure # .

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, or , or

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience

155.155.

(see Figure 13.22) When people with dyslexia are reading, information travels from the structure #3 in this illustration, which is ; to the structure #1, ; by way of the structure #2, .

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience

156.156.

(see Figure 13.3) The cerebral hemispheres have multiple connections between right and left. Identify the structures that are linked by each of the commissures numbered 1 through 4 in this illustration and describe the types of information that is shared across each.

157. Studies on split-brain patients have revealed a wealth of data as to lateralization of brain functions. For the left side of the brain, explain which functions of right-handed patients are managed by this hemisphere.

158. Lateralization and connectivity of the hemispheres of the human brain are believed to be affected by a number of factors. Which factors impact development of lateralization?

159. What do dichotic listening tests tell us about lateralization of language and emotion?

160. While apes display an ability to learn language, they use it differently from humans. Which human language features are unique to humans and not used the same in apes?

161. Individuals who are fluent in two or more languages have some variations in brain activity. How is brain activity similar in single language and multiple language speakers, both early in life and in adulthood?

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience

162.162.

(see Figure 13.19) Discuss separately the effects of damage to the area #3 in this illustration. Following that explanation, discuss the effects of damage to area #1 in this diagram.

163. What are the major features of Wernicke aphasia?

164. Summarize the language model proposed by Dronkers, Pinker, and Damasio.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience

165.165.

(see Figure 13.22) Making reference to the numbered figures in this illustration, describe the differences in activity observed in the typical reader and the reader with dyslexia.

166. Discuss the implications of lateralization on musical abilities and learning.

167. Describe the major features of dyslexia.

168. Describe the brain structures associated with the valuation of choices.

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. b 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. d 20. d 21. d 22. a 23. d 24. a 25. b Powered by Cognero

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience 26. b 27. b 28. c 29. d 30. a 31. b 32. a 33. d 34. b 35. a 36. a 37. c 38. b 39. c 40. c 41. d 42. a 43. d 44. a 45. b 46. d 47. d 48. c 49. c 50. d 51. c Powered by Cognero

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience 52. d 53. b 54. b 55. c 56. a 57. a 58. d 59. c 60. d 61. a 62. c 63. c 64. d 65. c 66. a 67. a 68. b 69. c 70. d 71. b 72. c 73. a 74. b 75. d 76. a Powered by Cognero

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience 77. b 78. d 79. a 80. b 81. b 82. c 83. d 84. d 85. b 86. a 87. b 88. c 89. c 90. d 91. c 92. b 93. c 94. a 95. b 96. a 97. d 98. b 99. c 100. a 101. b 102. a Powered by Cognero

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience 103. c 104. c 105. d 106. d 107. c 108. d 109. b 110. c 111. a 112. a 113. c 114. a 115. d 116. a 117. c 118. d 119. d 120. c 121. d 122. d 123. a 124. b 125. d 126. a 127. b Powered by Cognero

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience 128. c 129. d 130. c 131. c 132. d 133. a 134. b 135. a 136. a 137. b 138. c 139. a 140. b 141. a 142. c 143. c 144. d 145. a 146. d 147. c 148. d 149. d 150. b 151. c 152. c 153. anterior commissure; corpus callosum; massa intermedia; hippocampal commissure Powered by Cognero

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience 154. 2; primary auditory cortex; 1; Wernicke’s area 155. Wernicke’s area; Broca’s area; the arcuate fasciculus 156. #1, anterior commissure; #2, corpus callosum; #3, massa intermedia; #4, hippocampal commissure 157. Answers will vary, with many including responses such as: Sensation and movement of the left side of the body and perception of the left half of the visual field are managed by the right hemisphere of the brain. Numbers, letters, and short words can be processed by the right hemisphere as long as a nonverbal response is required. Emotional, intuitive, and spatial information also appeared to be processed primarily by the right hemisphere.

158. Answers will vary, with most including: Androgens were once believed to play an important role in prenatal lateralization, and although they do seem to influence handedness, their role in the lateralization of language does not appear significant. The connectivity of the two hemispheres is influenced by different rates of gene expression in the two hemispheres, possibly leading to lateralization of some functions. Additionally, some environmental influences, such as prenatal exposure to ultrasound, appear to have the ability to influence lateralization of handedness.

159. In dichotic listening tasks, different stimuli are presented to each ear. Information presented to one ear is processed slightly faster by the contralateral hemisphere. Most right-handed participants show a right-ear advantage for verbal input and a left-ear advantage for emotional input (judging a person’s emotional tone in speech). This suggests that the left hemisphere is more involved with the meaning of speech, while the right hemisphere decodes its emotional tone.

160. Answers will vary, with most including: Word order is essential to human use of language but does not seem to matter much to apes trained to use symbols for language. In addition, the vast majority of human children learn to use language with simple exposure, while apes must be taught. However, some apes appear to have learned symbols while watching the instruction of other apes.

161. Answers will include that brain activity during language tasks in multilingual speakers depends on proficiency and age of learning. However, in highly proficient, early learners, brain activity was very similar to that observed in monolingual speakers, with the exception of slightly more activation in Broca’s area.

162. Refer to Figure 13.19. Damage to Broca’s area. In Broca aphasia, speech is slow and laborious but generally meaningful. In Wernicke aphasia, speech is rapid and fluent but virtually meaningless. Patients with Wernicke aphasia seem totally unaware that they are not making sense, whereas patients with Broca aphasia are typically frustrated by their inability to communicate.

163. Answers will include: Wernicke aphasia results from damage to Wernicke’s area. Symptoms include rapid, fluent, but meaningless speech and limited to no comprehension. Sound substitutions and neologisms occur frequently.

Surprisingly, the patient seems unaware of their difficulties and do not seem to experience distress due to the condition.

164. Answers will include: This model proposes three interacting language components. The first is an implementation system, comprised of Broca’s area, Wernicke’s area, the insula, and the basal ganglia. The second part of the model is a mediational system, which includes association cortex in the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. The third component, which is responsible for semantic knowledge, is located in higher-level association areas of the cortex.

165. Refer to Figure 13.22. #1, Broca’s area; #2, arcuate fasciculus; #3, Wernicke’s area; #4, angular gyrus; #5, primary visual cortex. Overactivation of anterior language areas, including Broca’s area, coupled with a lack of activation of posterior language areas, including Wernicke’s area and the angular gyrus, occurs during reading by participants with dyslexia (Hoeft et al., 2011). As shown in Figure 13.22, typical readers pass information from the visual cortex along the angular gyrus to Wernicke’s area, with only slight activation of Broca’s area. In readers with dyslexia, the posterior Powered by Cognero

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Ch 13 Cognitive Neuroscience language areas are hardly used at all. Instead, there is a much greater activation in the anterior language areas.

166. Researchers have investigated the lateralization of musical abilities. Following a stroke that damaged his left hemisphere, composer Maurice Ravel retained his ability to judge pitch and to recognize a piece of music he heard.

However, Ravel was unable to play the piano, recognize written music, or compose music. Ravel’s outcomes show us that some musical abilities are lateralized to the right hemisphere but that a simple “language-on-the-left, music-on-the-right” model of hemispheric functioning is incorrect. The extent to which music is lateralized is still debatable. Different aspects of music appear to produce more activity in one hemisphere or the other. The left hemisphere reacts to expectations regarding melodies (the main theme of a piece), while the right reacts more to expectations regarding harmonics (notes supporting the main theme).

167. Most cases of dyslexia involve poor phonological awareness, or the ability to discriminate verbal information at the level of speech sounds, or phonemes, as evidenced by difficulties with words that rhyme. During a rhyming task, typically developing children, but not children with dyslexia, recruited the left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (Kovelman et al., 2012). The left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex plays an important role in phonological awareness, which forms the basis of reading. Dyslexia is also associated with difficulties with rapid naming (Norton et al., 2015). This difficulty might result from poor coordination of linguistic and cognitive processes required for fluent reading.

168. When you make a decision based on preferences, you estimate the probable outcome of each choice, and weigh which outcome seems better. Input from the amygdala, hypothalamus, dorsolateral prefrontal cortex, orbitofrontal cortex, and anterior cingulate cortex converges on the medial prefrontal cortex and striatum, which then provide a common value scale, much like assigning dollar amounts to items in a store.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. Short-lived states elicited by an external stimulus that provoke action are called a. moods. b. superstitions. c. emotions. d. feelings.

2. A possible advantage of human emotions is their a. response to general arousal. b. contribution to general arousal. c. their contribution to excessive general arousal. d. ability to manage general arousal.

3. Which of the following is an example of an emotional valence? a. having a rapid heartbeat b. identifying your own mood as being happy c. experiencing a negative feeling d. perceiving another person’s facial expression as fearful 4. Charles Darwin concluded that emotions must have evolved after studying the a. facial expressions of humans and other primates. b. emotional behavior of insects. c. genetic contributions to the autonomic nervous system. d. varying emotional behaviors of animals found in the Galapagos Islands.

5. Yerkes and Dodson observed that for simple tasks, performance. a. moderate b. low c. greater d. varying

levels of arousal are associated with optimum

6. The evolutionary perspective on emotions argues that they increase individual survival by a. reducing responsiveness. b. contributing to general arousal. c. causing sleep. d. producing autonomic responses.

7. The explanation that emotion helps us to appropriately manage approach and withdrawal behaviors leads to the expectation that emotion a. reduces autonomic activity. b. maintains steady levels of arousal. c. promotes survival. d. allows us to express our feelings to our closest friends and family.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience 8. Which of the following is a way that emotion can promote survival? a. Avoid negative valences. b. Produce uniform levels of arousal. c. Reduce stress. d. Communicate nonverbally with others.

9. Facial expressions are controlled by the a. facial or fifth cranial nerve. b. facial or seventh cranial nerve. c. trigeminal or fifth cranial nerve. d. trigeminal or seventh cranial nerve.

10. Chewing and speaking are controlled by the a. facial b. hypoglossal c. trigeminal d. abducens

nerve.

11. How many major branches does the facial nerve have? a. two b. four c. five d. seven 12. The facial nuclei are located in the a. midbrain. b. medulla. c. reticular formation. d. pons.

13. The facial nuclei a. are richly connected with one another. b. do not communicate directly with one another. c. are controlled primarily by the red nucleus. d. are composed of eight subnuclei.

14.14.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience

(see Figure 14.7) The structure indicated by the #4 in this illustration is the a. facial nucleus. b. solitary nucleus. c. inferior olive. d. trigeminal nucleus.

15. The facial nuclei receive input from a. primary motor cortex located in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe. b. primary motor cortex located in the precentral gyrus of the parietal lobe. c. the basal ganglia located in the pons and reticular activating system. d. the substantia nigra located in the central sulcus.

16. The upper third of the face is controlled by a. the ipsilateral facial nerve. b. the contralateral facial nerve. c. both the ipsilateral and contralateral facial nerves. d. both the ipsilateral and contralateral trigeminal nerves.

17. Damage to the primary cortex in one cerebral hemisphere generally produces paralysis in the a. contralateral upper and lower face. b. ipsilateral upper and lower face. c. contralateral upper face without effect on the lower face. d. contralateral lower face without effect on the upper face.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience 18. Researchers distinguishing between proactive and reactive aggressors found that proactive aggressors were attempting to mask emotion. The researchers described the faces of proactive aggressors as a. brows raised, upper eyelids slightly lowered, and lips relaxed. b. brows lowered, upper eyelids raised, and lips slightly tightened. c. brows slightly lowered, upper eyelids strongly raised, lips strongly tightened. d. brows very low, eyelids very low, lips very tight.

19. A stroke patient who loses function in the primary motor cortex may show a loss of a. voluntary control of facial muscles but retain spontaneous expression. b. spontaneous expression but retain voluntary control of facial muscles. c. both voluntary control of facial muscles and spontaneous expression. d. neither voluntary control of facial muscles nor spontaneous expression.

20. Patients with damage to subcortical motor areas lose a. voluntary control of facial muscles but retain spontaneous expression. b. spontaneous expression but retain voluntary control of facial muscles. c. both voluntary control of facial muscles and spontaneous expression. d. neither voluntary control of facial muscles nor spontaneous expression.

21. Leticia required surgery for a tumor that damaged her primary motor cortex in the left hemisphere. It is likely that Leticia will a. have some problems with movement in general, but her emotional expressions will not be affected. b. be able to smile voluntarily for a photograph but will not smile naturally when a friend tells her a good joke. c. smile spontaneously in response to a good joke but will not be able to smile voluntarily for a photograph. d. be unable to smile under any circumstances.

22. Julio has been diagnosed with Parkinson disease, which causes deterioration of the basal ganglia. We can expect that Julio will a. have difficulty moving, but his emotional expression will be normal. b. show no emotional expression at all. c. be able to smile spontaneously when he hears a good joke but will not be able to smile when the photographer asks him to do so. d. be able to smile voluntarily for a photograph but will not smile spontaneously when he hears a good joke.

23. The evidence that people from all cultures recognize facial expressions of emotion supports Darwin’s theory that facial expressions a. are learned early in life and are similar all over the world. b. are part of our genetic makeup. c. may be similar, but emotions vary greatly all over the world. d. in humans are very different than facial expressions in apes.

24. Which of the following emotional expressions are NOT understood across cultures a. joy. b. sadness. c. happiness.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience d. comfort.

25. Children who are blind from birth a. do not show normal emotional expression. b. develop emotional expression faster than sighted infants. c. develop emotional expression more slowly than sighted infants. d. develop emotional expression at about the same time as sighted infants.

26. Fear of strangers develops a. more similarly in identical twins than in fraternal twins. b. more similarly in fraternal twins than in identical twins. c. at about the same time in fraternal and identical twins. d. at very different rates in different cultures.

27. Consistent timelines for emotional development occur a. only among humans. b. in rhesus monkeys, regardless of whether they are raised in isolation or socially. c. in rhesus monkeys raised in isolation but not in socially raised rhesus monkeys. d. in socially raised rhesus monkeys but not in rhesus monkeys raised in isolation.

28. Which brain structure is involved with broad integration of emotional information with cognition and action? a. autonomic nervous system b. anterior cingulate cortex (ACC) c. amygdala d. basal ganglia 29. You are a clinical psychologist with a doctorate. You are interested in applications of psychology to the law. What type of psychologist should you become? a. forensic b. evolutionary c. developmental. d. organizational 30. Damage to what area of the brain reduces subjective emotional states, impairs emotional responses to emotional tone of voice and facial expressions, and distorts emotional and social behavior? a. subthalamic nucleus b. orbitofrontal cortex c. medial cingulate cortex d. anterior insula 31. Which brain structure combines internal sensations with information about external stimuli to produce a “global emotional moment”? a. insula b. basal ganglia c. anterior cingulate cortex (ACC) Powered by Cognero

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience d. cerebral cortex 32. The facial expressions showing anger, sadness, happiness, fear, disgust, surprise, contempt, and embarrassment are significant because they a. the most common emotions in human communication. b. the most important emotions in human communication. c. perceived differently across cultures. d. are perceived similarly across cultures.

33. Which of the following provides evidence for universal facial expressions? a. People who are blind display inappropriate facial expressions in response to winning or losing. b. People who are blind show no facial expressions in response to winning or losing. c. Sighted and blind people show the same facial expressions in response to winning or losing. d. Sighted and blind people show different facial expressions in response to winning or losing.

34. Josh and his friends were watching a televised debate between two political candidates. When the candidates were asked by the moderator if they had accepted donations from any questionable sources, one of the candidates began to laugh nervously and speak less fluently than before. Josh and his friends should conclude that a. the candidate is obviously lying, and they should vote for the other one. b. the candidate is obviously telling the truth, but he is nervous. c. no conclusions can be drawn, because a question like that would make everybody act guilty. d. the candidate may simply be nervous about the question, but he is acting like he is being dishonest.

35. Researcher Paul Ekman suggests that we aren’t very good at detecting lies because we a. are too concerned about colluding in the lie. b. do not have a clear concept of what a lie is. c. are too focused on knowing the truth. d. often want to be misled.

36. In order to get a job at a convenience store, you had to take a lie-detector test. You were asked a series of questions and you answered truthfully that you had never stolen from your employer or lied during an interview. Unfortunately, you were not hired, because measurements recorded during these questions indicated that you were lying. What is the most likely explanation for this? a. The test revealed that you have a personality disorder. b. The machine was faulty, and thus misread your heart rate and galvanic skin response during only these questions. c. You may have been afraid of being accused of dishonest behavior that you never committed. d. Polygraphs are almost always accurate, so you must have lied about something.

37. Daniel was serving on a jury in a murder trial. Testimony from expert witnesses suggested that the defendant was a true psychopath, incapable of empathy with others or of remorse for what he had done. The defendant’s attorneys tried to get the judge to accept a lie detector test they had conducted privately, claiming that it proved that their client was innocent. The judge refused. How should Daniel interpret this information? a. The judge was correct. If the defendant is a psychopath, he might not show the arousal that most honest people show during a lie detector test, and his results are unlikely to be valid. b. The judge was in error. The lie detector test proved that the defendant was innocent, and this information Powered by Cognero

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience should have been admitted to the trial proceedings. c. The judge was correct. Lie detector tests are much worse than chance in detecting dishonesty. d. The judge was in error. Lie detector tests are routinely used in courts of law, and the defendant had a right to have this information submitted during his trial.

38. Which type of neuroimaging technique is being explored most frequently as a more accurate way of assessing an individual’s honesty? a. positron emission tomography (PET) b. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) c. computerized tomography (CT) d. electroencephalography (EEG) 39. Which of the following questions summarize the three theories of emotion discussed in the book? a. What is the relationship between the physical and conscious experiences of emotion? b. Are emotions learned or innate? c. What are the purposes of emotion? d. Does expressing an emotion reduce or enhance a person’s experience of the emotion?

40. The James-Lange theory of emotion says that we experience a. physical states prior to subjective feelings. b. subjective feelings prior to physical responses to emotion. c. simultaneous physical and subjective responses. d. subjective feelings without consideration of physical responses.

41. The James-Lange theory of emotion explains that a. you smile because you are happy. b. crying will make you feel much better. c. crying will make you feel more unhappy. d. punching someone in the nose relieves anger.

42. You are starting a new job that is important to your career. On your first day, though, you are feeling distressed over a personal matter. You determine to do the best job you can and you keep a smile pasted on your face all day. By the end of the day, you find that not only have you done well at work, but you actually feel better than you might have expected.

This experience offers support for a. a variation of the James-Lange theory suggesting that facial expressions can affect our emotions. b. a variation of the Cannon-Bard theory suggesting that facial expressions can affect our emotions. c. the fact that you are probably in the resistance stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS). d. the idea that we can all choose to feel whatever emotion we choose if we have strong enough character.

43. The use of the Maori haka to “psych up” by the New Zealand All Blacks rugby team demonstrates a. catharsis. b. the ability of facial expression and body movements to alter mood. c. the role of the right hemisphere in facial expression. d. the role of the amygdala in emotion.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience 44. The facial feedback hypothesis suggests that a. body language is a significant aspect of communication. b. other people’s facial expressions affect the way we feel. c. our facial expressions affect the way we feel. d. showing clear facial expressions is crucial to communication.

45. When your friend is feeling very stressed about an upcoming exam, you are most likely to correctly assess her feelings when you a. are discussing the matter in less-stressful settings, like a party, which gives you enough distance to feel objective. b. pay more attention to what she is saying than to her facial expressions. c. are able to feel confident about your own upcoming exams. d. feel the same level of stress about your own upcoming exams.

46. You and your friends get together to vent your concerns about your performances on an exam. All of you are anxious about your respective performances. Given what you learned in this chapter, how do you think you will all feel when you finish venting to each other? a. You will all feel less anxious due to catharsis. b. You will all feel about the same as when you started, as suggested by the Cannon-Bard theory. c. You will all probably be even more upset, as suggested by the James-Lange theory. d. You will all be in the exhaustion phase of GAS. 47. Freud, Lorenz, and others proposed the concept of catharsis, which is BEST exemplified by the idea that a. crying makes you feel sadder. b. crying makes you feel less sad. c. emotions do not build up if they are not expressed. d. expressing emotion enhances emotional feelings.

48. Kayla’s friends worry about her terrible temper, especially when she is driving. Which of the following strategies would be most helpful for reducing Kayla’s road rage? a. encouraging her to express her feelings more regularly when she is not driving, as bottling up her anger leads to explosions b. imitating her behavior so she can see how ridiculous she looks c. encouraging her to see the humor in the driving behavior of others d. encouraging her to express her feelings verbally and with gestures so she can “let off some steam” 49. An implication of relates to the concept of catharsis. a. the James-Lange theory b. the Cannon-Bard theory c. the Schachter-Singer theory d. all of the theories 50. People tend to make a. safer b. riskier Powered by Cognero

decisions in response to negative frames.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience c. more emotional d. less emotional 51. The theory of emotion that says we feel simultaneous physical and subjective emotional responses is the theory. a. James-Lange b. Cannon-Bard c. Schachter-Singer d. Darwinian 52. The Schachter-Singer theory of emotion suggests that the identification of specific emotions depends on a. general arousal, which leads us to appraise our circumstances. b. physical cues. c. feedback from facial expressions. d. simultaneous physical and subjective reactions.

53. You were driving your car home when you hit a patch of slippery road. Your car spun around in a circle but ended up still on the road and heading the right direction. It happened so fast that you didn’t think you even had time to be scared.

However, when you tried to put your foot on the gas pedal, you noticed that your foot was shaking so much that you couldn’t accelerate. Then you realized how frightened you were. This experience offers support for the theory. a. Cannon-Bard b. James-Lange c. Schachter-Singer d. general adaptation 54. You were walking across campus when you noticed a man and a woman standing with their heads very close together.

You realized it was your ex-boyfriend and your best friend. It took you a minute to react to this—to recognize who it was and then to appraise the situation and recognize the emotion you felt. This supports the theory. a. Cannon-Bard b. James-Lange c. Schachter-Singer d. general adaptation 55. The Cannon-Bard theory states that physical reactions and recognition of an emotional state occur both and independently. a. separately b. simultaneously c. randomly d. rapidly 56. A weakness of the Schachter-Singer theory is its a. inability to account for the results of the “swinging bridge” study. b. overemphasis on the role of specific physical states in the identification of subjective feelings. c. failure to acknowledge a role for cognitive assessment of one’s surroundings in determining a subjective Powered by Cognero

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience feeling. d. assumption that specific emotional states are rarely correlated with physical states.

57. How do researchers identify the development of theory of mind (ToM) in a child? a. resting-state fMRI b. false belief test c. intelligence test d. personality test 58. In a meta-analysis by John Cacioppo and his colleagues found that autonomic responses a. are weak when associated with either positive or negative emotions. b. are strong whether associated with positive or negative emotions. c. associated with positive emotions are stronger than those associated with negative emotions. d. associated with negative emotions are stronger than those associated with positive emotions.

59. Damasio hypothesized that somatic markers are a. emotional processes that guide behavior. b. conscious appraisals of subjective emotional states. c. unlearned associations between physical states and subjective feelings. d. stimuli that nearly all human beings respond to emotionally without prior experience.

60. Patients with damage to the orbitofrontal cortex a. respond to most stimuli with normal emotional responses. b. are unable to describe emotional images they have seen in words, but respond to them with typical emotional behaviors. c. have impaired emotional responses to emotional tone of voice and facial expressions. d. can neither describe emotional images in words, nor do they show typical emotional responses.

61. Which of the following structures has the greatest direct control over the autonomic nervous system (ANS)? a. the thalamus b. the hippocampus c. the amygdala d. the hypothalamus 62. The nucleus of the solitary tract is located in the a. medulla. b. pons. c. tectum. d. tegmentum.

63. The sympathetic nervous system is most likely to be active when a. you are settling down for an afternoon nap. b. an on-coming auto crosses over the line onto your side of the road, forcing you to swerve to avoid an accident. c. you just ate your lunch.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience d. you are relaxing with friends after an exam.

64. In studies on the relationship of autonomic and emotional states, it has been found that a. there are no correlations between autonomic and emotional states. b. each emotional state is correlated with a specific autonomic state. c. autonomic states correlate generally with positive or negative emotional states. d. distinguishing between the autonomic states correlated with two positive emotional states is easy.

65. For a lab project, Rachel wants to correlate autonomic states, as measured by skin conductance, with emotions produced by watching a video. It is most likely that Rachel will observe a. clear differences in autonomic measures between emotions like anger and fear. b. strong differences between different negative emotions, like anger and fear, but fewer differences between positive and negative emotions in general. c. strong differences between different negative emotions, but no differences between different positive emotions. d. stronger autonomic responses to negative emotions, such as fear or anger, than to positive emotions, like happiness and pride.

66. Damage to the amygdala may be correlated with a. increased rage. b. increased pleasure. c. inability to perceive others’ happiness. d. decreased response to fear-inducing stimuli.

67. The emotional symptoms of Klüver-Bucy syndrome probably result from damage to the a. amygdala. b. orbitofrontal cortex. c. septal area. d. temporal lobe cortex.

68. Lesions of the amygdala in monkeys usually result in a. reductions in fear and anxiety. b. increased aggression. c. increased fear. d. no observable changes in emotional behavior, although learning is impaired.

69. Patient S.M., whose amygdalae were destroyed, a. is totally unable to assess the emotions of others accurately. b. can assess other people’s emotions accurately when she is instructed to pay attention to their eyes. c. can assess negative emotions accurately but has difficulty interpreting expressions of positive emotions, like joy. d. can assess other people’s emotions by observing their body language but is unable to interpret facial expression and tone of voice.

70. The inability to identify the emotions of others seen in individuals with autism spectrum disorder may be correlated Powered by Cognero

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience with abnormalities in the a. orbitofrontal cortex. b. septal area. c. hippocampus. d. amygdala.

71. Kyle is providing after-school care for Sean, a young boy diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. Sean frequently mistakes Kyle’s concerned expressions as expressions of fear. It might be helpful if Kyle a. reminded Sean to look at his eyes when they are talking. b. attempted to keep his face as unemotional as possible. c. imitated Sean’s facial expressions. d. carefully avoided making eye contact with Sean, as this clearly confuses him.

72. Emotional states are accompanied by complex, interacting a. cognitive b. physical c. behavioral d. intuitive

responses.

73. Bilateral damage to the amygdala results in a. a non-functioning amygdala. b. a complete loss of fear. c. reduced emotionality. d. inability to express fear, anxiety, or aggression.

74. Lesions of the anterior cingulate cortex (ACC) impair responses to a. physical sensation. b. loneliness. c. threat. d. reward.

75. A person with an anxiety disorder who engages in catastrophizing and worrying shows unusually high levels of activity in the a. amygdala. b. anterior cingulate cortex (ACC). c. thalamus. d. nucleus accumbens.

76. Activity in the insula is particularly strong during which of the following emotions? a. disgust b. anger c. surprise d. fear 77. Primal emotions are innate but integrate with higher level emotional cognitive processes in what part of the brain?

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience a. the amygdala b. the frontal lobe c. the HPA axis d. the hippocampus 78. Each human emotion is associated with activity in a. widespread areas of the brain. b. a few adjacent areas of the brain. c. a single area of the brain. d. two areas that communicate with each other via a pathway.

79. Frontal lobotomies a. caused no side effects in most patients. b. caused reductions in intelligence. c. created aphasias. d. impaired emotional states and responses.

80. The Guilty Knowledge Test shows which areas of the brain light up when a participant is a. feeling depressed. b. lying. c. angry. d. lonely.

81. Philosophers viewed emotion and reason as pulling us in different directions. In contrast, contemporary neuroscientists believe that emotion can make valuable contributions to a. decision making. b. rational thinking. c. academic learning. d. logical reasoning.

82. The sympathetic adrenal-medullary (SAM) system responds to a stressor by releasing epinephrine (adrenalin) and norepinephrine from the adrenal glands into the circulation. The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis results in the slower release of by the adrenal glands. a. quickly; testosterone b. quickly; testosterone c. quickly; cortisol d. slowly; cortisol 83. Amalik has been depressed for a few days but has just been offered her dream job in the Silicon valley. How can we expect her to react? a. She will automatically turn down the offer because depression has eliminated her motivation. b. She may decide that she is not good enough to do the job. c. She will lose her depression immediately. d. She will imagine that the job is better than it actually is.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience 84. When we see someone’s face, initial categorization by race is likely to be a. dependent on our emotional reaction to the person. b. extended over a long period of time as we get to know the person. c. implicit and automatic. d. slow and somewhat hard to process.

85. For most people, facial expression on a. the right side of the face is more expressive. b. the left side of the face is more expressive. c. both sides of the face are equally expressive. d. the lower but not upper face is equally expressive.

86. Janice had an accident that resulted in brain damage. Although her intelligence and personality are unchanged, she does seem to have difficulty understanding communication that depends on people’s tone of voice or facial expression.

The part of her brain that you might suspect was injured would be some area in the a. left temporal lobe. b. left side of the orbitofrontal cortex. c. left frontal lobe. d. right hemisphere.

87. Although we use our entire bodies to express emotion, we pay the most attention to the to the . a. face; eyes b. hands; fingers c. arms; hands d. head; mouth

, and in particular

88. Who found that experiencing an emotion is correlated with overlapping areas of brain activation? a. Olds and Milner b. Antonio Damasio c. Robert Heath d. Paul Ekman 89. Compared to younger adults, older adults a. attend more to positive information while ignoring negative information. b. attend more to negative information while ignoring positive information. c. are more susceptible to major depressive disorder. d. engage in more self-related processing.

90. Dylan attends a friend’s wedding where he knows he will run into his ex. To manage his negative emotions, Dylan keeps telling himself that the relationship was terrible and he’s better off now. This emotion regulation strategy is known as a. avoidance. b. suppression. c. reappraisal.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience d. selective attention.

91. Sana was fired from her job and now experiences extremely negative emotions if she sees her former boss, who attends the same church she does. Sana decided to attend a different church. Her decision supports which theory of emotion? a. a little bit of each theory b. Schachter-Singer c. Cannon-Bard d. James-Lange 92. Peggy has received deep brain stimulation of the subthalamic nucleus. She may now have trouble recognizing a. tones of voice that express sadness, fear, or anger. b. facial expressions of emotion. c. the faces of people she knows well, including friends and family members. d. the voices of people she knows well, including friends and family members.

93. When human beings experience a conflict between stereotyping and social norms, what structures in the brain allow them to detect the bias? a. the superior temporal cortex and the amygdala b. the medial prefrontal and anterior cingulate cortices c. the posterior cingulate and the prefrontal cortices d. the temporal and parietal lobes 94. Difficulty identifying others’ emotions, especially fear, is observed in individuals with autism spectrum disorder (ASD). This difficulty is associated with differences in the a. orbitofrontal cortex. b. anterior cingulate cortex (ACC). c. lateral prefrontal cortex. d. amygdala.

95. People with damage to the primary motor cortex are unable to the damage. a. blink; ipsilateral b. blink; contralateral c. smile; ipsilateral d. smile; contralateral

on command on the side

to

96. Jean-Louis is terrified of riding roller coasters. When he goes to amusement parks, he refuses to go anywhere near a roller coaster. To control his experience, Jean-Louis is using a. self-hypnosis. b. emotion regulation. c. self-restraint. d. childish behavior.

97. Studies comparing premeditated (proactive) aggression and impulsive (reactive) aggression suggest that premeditated Powered by Cognero

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience aggression is a. more emotional than impulsive aggression. b. more likely to be the result of fear or anger than impulsive aggression. c. correlated with similar patterns of brain activity as impulsive aggression. d. correlated with different patterns of brain activity than impulsive aggression.

98. When the prefrontal and anterior cingulate cortices fail to inhibit subcortical structures a. there is no change in behavior. b. the result can be violence. c. the result can be tranquility. d. the result can be uninhibited verbal expression.

99. Evidence for a genetic basis for aggression is provided by a. data indicating that membership in certain ethnic groups predicts aggression. b. findings that men with the XYY genotype are more likely to be imprisoned. c. higher rates of aggression among individuals with fragile-X syndrome. d. the ability to breed strains of animals for aggressive tendencies.

100. Human twin studies suggest that the ability to interpret the emotional facial expressions of others is strongly influenced by a. genetics. b. cultural norms. c. age. d. expectations.

101. The systematic hunting and killing of other members of the same species is found in a. all mammals. b. animals that live socially, like dogs and humans. c. humans only. d. humans and chimpanzees.

102. The Yanomamö and the Waorani tribes of the Amazon basin are both aggressive toward neighboring tribes. Yet the Yanomamö stand down between raids, while the Waorani do not. How does this difference in aggressive behavior affect each culture? a. The Waorani raise their children to be aggressive, and the Yanomamö do not. b. The Yanomamö raise their children to be aggressive, and the Waorani do not. c. The Waorani have more children than the Yanomamö do. d. The Yanomamö have more children than the Waorani do.

103. What does “engaged followership” mean? a. People are unwilling to set aside their personal aversion to harming others for any reason. b. People tend to adhere to their political leaders’ values, regardless of what they are. c. Humans are willing to ignore their personal aversion to harming others in order to achieve an important goal. d. Children who are not exposed to violence in their culture will not become violent.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience 104. A condition called “sham rage” can be experimentally produced in cats by a. removing the cerebral cortices. b. lesioning the amygdala. c. frontal lobotomies. d. breeding aggressive strains of mice.

105. “Sham rage” behaviors in cats can be duplicated by electrically stimulating the a. amygdala. b. hypothalamus. c. hippocampus. d. septal area.

106. Compared to convicted offenders who do not reoffend, those who DO reoffend show a. greater activity in the anterior cingulate cortex (ACC). b. reduced activity in the anterior cingulate cortex (ACC). c. greater activity in the superior temporal lobe. d. reduced activity in the amygdala.

107. Aggression in rhesus monkeys can be reduced by removing the a. cerebral cortices. b. hypothalamus. c. thalamus. d. amygdala.

108. In rare cases of human violence, aggression has been reduced by lesioning the a. hypothalamus. b. septal area. c. amygdala. d. thalamus.

109. Damage to which of the following structures may be associated with human violence? a. the hippocampus b. the fornix c. the orbitofrontal cortex d. the fusiform gyrus 110. Damage to what part of the brain impairs responses to tones of voice and facial expressions, and distorts emotional and social behavior? a. the amygdala b. the orbitofrontal cortex c. the premotor cortex d. the hypothalamus 111. A phrase is missing from the statement, “Stress is defined as an unpleasant and disruptive state resulting from danger or threat.” What words are missing right before “danger or threat”?

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience a. the understanding of b. the experience of c. the misperception of d. the perception of 112. Use of which of the following substances is most likely to provoke aggression? a. lysergic acid (LSD) b. alcohol c. tobacco d. 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) (ecstasy) 113. Alcohol is well-known for its abilities to inhibit the cerebral cortex, including the frontal and cingulate cortices.

Consequently, we would expect people to respond to the consumption of alcohol by becoming a. less aggressive, due to the inhibition of parts of the brain responsible for aggression. b. more aggressive, due to the inhibition of parts of the brain that typically inhibit aggression. c. less aggressive, due to the inhibition of parts of the brain that produce fear and anger. d. less aggressive, due to the inhibition of parts of the brain needed for planning aggressive responses.

114. Prenatal exposure to extra testosterone a. increases aggression in males but not females. b. increases aggression in females but not males. c. increases aggression in both males and females. d. has no effect on aggression levels in either males or females.

115. Jorge uses illegal steroid supplements to improve his performance in the weight room. His resulting high testosterone levels are likely to a. improve the accuracy of his interpretation of the violent intentions of others. b. damage his orbitofrontal cortex. c. make him react more aggressively to threatening situations. d. increase the likelihood that he will engage in premeditated violence.

116. Male mice that have been castrated can have their normal level of biting attacks restored by a. administering testosterone. b. isolating the mice for several days. c. administering serotonin agonists. d. food depriving the mice for several days.

117. The hypothalamus, amygdala, cingulate cortex, and orbitofrontal cortex are all involved with a. sleep. b. stress. c. depression. d. aggression.

118. Which individual is exhibiting proactive aggression? a. Patrick, who kicked his cell phone across the room after it dropped an important call and stopped working.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience b. Raymond, a baseball team manager who yelled obscenities at an umpire for making an incorrect call. c. Luisa, who assassinated a popular politician in exchange for $500,000 she received from the politician’s rival. d. Michael, who punched a man for making fun of Michael’s wife.

119. It is not competitiveness alone but rather combining competitiveness with vulnerable to health problems. a. testosterone and cortisol b. hostility and anger c. a pessimistic attitude d. an overly optimistic attitude

that makes people more

120. High levels of testosterone are associated with a. low levels of progesterone. b. high levels of progesterone. c. low levels of cortisol. d. high levels of cortisol.

121. In humans, lower levels of serotonin are correlated with a. higher levels of both proactive and reactive aggression. b. higher levels of reactive aggression. c. higher levels of proactive aggression. d. diminished levels of both reactive and proactive aggression.

122. A male vervet monkey’s place in the social hierarchy is correlated with the monkey’s levels of a. serotonin. b. testosterone. c. dopamine. d. cortisol.

123. The term fight or flight was coined by a. Paul Broca. b. James Papez. c. Walter Cannon. d. Hans Selye.

124. For Hans Selye, the “fight or flight” response is synonymous with a. an alarm reaction. b. resistance. c. exhaustion. d. the GAS. 125. When we attempt to cope with stress while maintaining our normal activities, Selye would say we are experiencing a. “fight or flight.” b. an alarm reaction.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience c. resistance. d. exhaustion.

126. Hans Selye called the final stage of the GAS a. “fight or flight.” b. the alarm reaction. c. resistance. d. exhaustion.

127. Depression or even death may result from Selye’s stage of the GAS that he called, a. “fight or flight.” b. the alarm reaction. c. resistance. d. exhaustion.

128. The result of activity in the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis is a. activation of the amygdala. b. reductions in serotonergic activity. c. increases in the release of testosterone. d. increases in the release of cortisol.

129. At times of stress, the hypothalamus communicates with the anterior pituitary gland using a. cortisol. b. corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH). c. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). d. dopamine.

130. At times of stress, the anterior pituitary communicates with the adrenal glands using a. cortisol. b. CRH. c. ACTH. d. dopamine.

131. At times of stress, corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH) is released by the and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is released by the . a. hypothalamus; thalamus b. sympathetic adrenal-medullary (SAM) system; the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) system c. anterior cingulate cortex; dorsomedial prefrontal cortex d. paraventricular nucleus (PVN); pituitary gland 132. The hippocampus a. inhibits; stimulating b. inhibits; inhibiting c. stimulates; stimulating Powered by Cognero

the HPA axis by

release of CRH.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience d. stimulates; inhibiting 133. The hippocampus contains receptor sites for a. cortisol. b. CRH. c. ACTH. d. antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

134. According to research, gamblers typically begin by making risky choices for large rewards but quickly switch to safer choices, even though the rewards are more modest. Patients with damage to what area of the brain continue to make risky choices, regardless of the negative consequences? a. ventromedial prefrontal cortex b. amygdala c. primary motor cortex d. medial frontal gyrus 135. The activity of lymphocytes is a. inhibited by cortisol. b. enhanced by cortisol. c. inhibited by serotonin. d. enhanced by dopamine.

136. Long, stressful exam periods can produce a(n) a. improvement in immune response. b. deficit in performance. c. decrease in corticosteroids. d. increase in gamma interferon.

137. Which personality characteristic appears to be most predictive of cardiac-related illnesses? a. an external locus of control b. high levels of cynical hostility c. unusually elevated levels of stress d. being introverted 138. Identify the correct statement regarding the relationship between stress and mindset. a. A “stress is not different from excitement” mindset leads to learning to enjoy stress. b. A “stress is not dangerous” mindset leads to ignoring stress, regardless of how bad the stress is. c. A “stress is bad for me” mindset leads to the rapid development of coping approaches and reduces stressing about stress. d. A “stress is potentially good for me” leads to greater flexibility and reduces stressing about stress.

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

139. Emotions contribute to survival by enhancing arousal, eliciting approach or avoidance behaviors, and providing a means for nonverbal communication.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience a. True b. False 140. The two facial nuclei, located near the midline in the pons, form rich connections with each other. a. True b. False 141. Both voluntary and the spontaneous emotional expressions are mediated by the same brain pathways. a. True b. False 142. According to contemporary theories of emotion, some emotional states correlate with more precise physical sensations than other types of emotional states. a. True b. False 143. According to research by LeDoux (2000), rats with damaged amygdalas fail to learn to fear a tone that reliably predicts the onset of electric shock. a. True b. False 144. For most people, assessing emotional content in a voice or facial expression is primarily a function of the left hemisphere. a. True b. False 145. The intensity of expressed emotions can be influenced by the presence of other people. a. True b. False 146. Since most aggression is learned, the heritability of impulsive aggression is very low. a. True b. False 147. High serotonin levels may help prevent aggression by facilitating the activity of the prefrontal cortex. a. True b. False 148. When receptors in the amygdala report high levels of cortisol, the amygdala inhibits further activity in the HPA axis. a. True b. False

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience

149.149.

(see Figure 14.7).

Information from the structure labeled #3, the , travels to the structure labeled #4, the , and then to the facial muscles via the structure labeled #5, the

.

150.150.

(see Figure 14.7) Powered by Cognero

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience In figure, structure labeled # 2 is the one-third of the face. The structure labeled #3 is the two-thirds of the face.

, which sends information to the , which controls the

151. Summarize the components of an emotion.

152. What behaviors are correlated with telling a deliberate lie?

153. Compare and contrast the three classic theories of emotion.

154. Describe the lateralization of emotion in the cerebral cortex.

155. Describe the strategies people use in emotion regulation.

156. Describe the roles of the amygdala and prefrontal cortices in impulsive aggression.

157. What is the relationship between stress and health?

158. How well would the classic theories of emotion predict the behavior of people playing violent videogames?

159. What changes would you recommend to our criminal justice system on the basis of research findings described in this chapter regarding aggression and lying?

160. Describe the response of the HPA axis to a frightening stimulus.

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. c 6. b 7. c 8. d 9. b 10. c 11. c 12. d 13. b 14. a 15. a 16. c 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. b 21. c 22. d 23. b 24. d 25. d Powered by Cognero

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience 26. a 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. b 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. d 35. d 36. c 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. a 41. c 42. a 43. b 44. c 45. d 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. a 50. b 51. b Powered by Cognero

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience 52. a 53. b 54. c 55. b 56. d 57. b 58. d 59. a 60. c 61. d 62. a 63. b 64. c 65. d 66. d 67. a 68. a 69. b 70. d 71. a 72. b 73. c 74. c 75. b 76. a Powered by Cognero

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience 77. b 78. a 79. d 80. b 81. a 82. c 83. b 84. c 85. b 86. d 87. a 88. b 89. a 90. c 91. d 92. b 93. b 94. d 95. d 96. b 97. d 98. b 99. d 100. a 101. d 102. d Powered by Cognero

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience 103. c 104. a 105. b 106. b 107. d 108. c 109. c 110. b 111. d 112. b 113. b 114. c 115. c 116. a 117. d 118. a 119. b 120. c 121. b 122. a 123. c 124. a 125. c 126. d 127. d Powered by Cognero

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience 128. d 129. b 130. c 131. d 132. b 133. a 134. a 135. a 136. b 137. b 138. d 139. True 140. False 141. False 142. True 143. True 144. False 145. True 146. False 147. True 148. False 149. motor cortex; facial nucleus; facial nerve (or cranial nerve VII) 150. facial nucleus; upper; facial nerve (or cranial nerve VII); lower 151. Answers will vary, but should include the fact that an emotion is characterized by physical sensations, such as sweaty palms or a rapid heartbeat, and a conscious, subjective feeling, such as fear. Emotions have valence or an overall positive or negative quality.

152. Answers will vary but should include the fact that according to Paul Ekman liars become less articulate, show Powered by Cognero

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Ch 14 Social and Affective Neuroscience evidence of nervous laughter, hold the upper body stiffly, and show extra movement in the legs and feet. In some cultures, such as the United States, eye contact typically indicates honesty, whereas in others, it is viewed as an impolite expression of dominance.

153. Answers should include: The three classic theories of emotion describe the relationships between the physical sensations and subjective feelings of an emotion. The James-Lange theory views this relationship as sequential and dependent, with physical sensations giving rise to subjective feelings. The Cannon-Bard theory views physical sensations and subjective feelings to be independent and simultaneous. Like James-Lange, the Schachter-Singer theory views the relationship between physical sensations and subjective feelings to be sequential, but unlike James-Lange, the SchachterSinger theory postulates general arousal rather than physical sensations that are specific to each emotional state.

154. Answers should include: In most people, activity in the left hemisphere is correlated with positive emotions, whereas activity in the right hemisphere is correlated with negative emotions. Most people show a preference for processing emotional information with the right hemisphere in visual tests and dichotic listening tasks. Laterality is also evidenced by the tendency for most people to show asymmetry in facial expression.

155. People engage in both conscious and unconscious strategies in emotion regulation. They can use avoidance of a situation, selective attention, distraction, reappraisal, or suppression.

156. Answers should include the fact that impulsive or unplanned aggression occurs when the threat response of the amygdala overwhelms the inhibitory control of the prefrontal cortices. Very violent people might misinterpret environmental stimuli as threatening, and without appropriate impulse control by the prefrontal cortices, they might act aggressively, thinking they are being defensive.

157. Answers should include the fact that prolonged stress can compromise the effectiveness of the immune system, leading to poorer health. However, many mediating variables buffer stressed individuals, including a sense of control and social connectedness.

158. Answers will take the form of some response to the observation that this typically increases violent behavior. Some comments may include observations from the text on p. 491: In fact, the belief that the best way to reduce an emotion is to express it contributes to the popularity of playing violent video games (Bushman & Whitaker, 2010). These ideas are consistent with catharsis, or “purging,” an idea shared by Aristotle, Sigmund Freud, and ethologist Konrad Lorenz, among others. According to catharsis theory, emotions fill a reservoir. When the reservoir is full, the emotions will “overflow,” emptying the person of that emotion. Catharsis theorists recommend that people “let it all hang out” by expressing their emotions (Kennedy-Moore & Watson, 1999). Obviously, the example of the rugby players indicates otherwise. In many circumstances, expressing an emotion is more likely to enhance than reduce your feelings (Bushman, 2002).

159. This is a speculative question to provide a student the opportunity to reflect on lying and aggression.

160. Answers will show an understanding of the HPA axis, with ACTH release from the pituitary stimulated by CRH from the hypothalamus, and stimulating cortisol release from the adrenal cortex to mobilize body resources for action.

Additionally, students may include sympathetic arousal, activation of adrenal medulla and epinephrine release in their answers.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. It is estimated that half the people over age 90 will suffer from Alzheimer disease. a. True b. False 2. Larger numbers of strokes result from ischemia than from cerebral hemorrhages. a. True b. False 3. An open head injury is another name for a concussion. a. True b. False 4. Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs) are a form of prion disease. a. True b. False 5. The herpes simplex virus responsible for cold sores and genital herpes can produce a type of secondary encephalitis. a. True b. False 6. Partial seizures are frequently accompanied by an aura, but generalized seizures typically occur without an aura. a. True b. False 7. Oligodendrocytes are destroyed by the autoimmune disease of multiple sclerosis. a. True b. False 8. Migraine headaches can result from information carried by the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V) from the brainstem to the meninges. a. True b. False 9. Reactive neuroplasticity involves structural changes in the brain due to learning. a. True b. False 10. Following brain damage, the Kennard Principle appears to predict recovery of language functions, but not necessarily other types of cognitive function. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology 11. Most neuropsychologists are a. specialists among psychiatrists who have medical doctor (M.D.) degrees. b. specialists among neurologists who have M.D. degrees. c. licensed clinical psychologists who have special training in the neurosciences. d. masters level psychologists who hold licenses in counseling.

12. What is the Halstead-Reitan battery used to assess? a. intellect b. reflexes c. sensation d. coma 13. A useful adjunct to other diagnostic procedures in cases of probable a. Huntington b. Klinefelter c. Parkinson d. Alzheimer

disease is a PET scan.

14. Joseph is 78 years of age, and the recent appearance of certain cognitive symptoms has led his physician to diagnose him with Alzheimer disease. Which of the following statements would be the most accurate with regard to Joseph’s situation? a. Joseph should begin receiving passive chemotherapy treatment, as this has been found to reverse the symptoms of Alzheimer disease. b. Joseph should be very concerned that his wife will develop the same symptoms, as the disease has been found to be contagious. c. The risk of his symptoms getting worse will decrease the longer Joseph survives. d. A definitive diagnosis of Alzheimer disease will not be possible until an autopsy is conducted after Joseph’s death.

15. The role of amyloid plaques in Alzheimer disease is a. correlational. b. causal. c. not yet fully understood. d. non-existent.

16. Strokes occur when the blood supply is affected by a. low blood pressure (hypotension). b. hemorrhage or blockage. c. death of adjacent neurons. d. the presence of infarcts.

17. When low oxygen levels result from insufficiency in the blood supply to the brain, the resulting condition is known as a. ischemia. b. aneurysm. c. arteriovenous malformation.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology d. cavernous malformation.

18. Among the primary risk factors for stroke are a. low blood pressure and sodium insufficiency. b. sleep deprivation. c. obesity and the use of alcohol, tobacco, and other drugs. d. unusually low cholesterol levels.

19. A brain injury known as a cerebral hemorrhage is defined as a. blockage from material that doesn’t move from its point of origin. b. blockage from material that travels to smaller diameter blood vessels until it has to stop. c. bleeding in the brain. d. an area of dead neurons.

20. An aneurysm can be the cause of a. an open head injury. b. thrombosis. c. a concussion. d. a cerebral hemorrhage.

21. A balloon-like bulge in an artery is known as a(n) a. aneurysm. b. embolism. c. thrombosis. d. cerebrovascular accident (CVA).

22. A cerebral hemorrhage a. usually does not cause much damage. b. produces milder symptoms than ischemia. c. usually does not produce noticeable behavioral symptoms. d. is frequently fatal due to interfering with the blood supply to neurons and leading to neuron dehydration.

23. The area of neural tissue that dies following a stroke or other interruption of cerebral blood flow is known as the a. infarct. b. aneurysm. c. thrombosis. d. embolism.

24. An infarct of brain tissue a. seldom produces any noticeable symptoms. b. always triggers unconsciousness or coma. c. contributes to the development of epilepsy. d. produces different symptoms that depend on the size and location.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology 25. Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) a. produce symptoms of stroke lasting less than 24 hours. b. produce very mild stroke symptoms that last indefinitely. c. are typically fatal within a few hours. d. are very common and do not require medical treatment.

26. While TIAs often do not have long-term effects, they are a. rarely predictive of later strokes. b. strong predictors of later strokes. c. predictive of further TIAs but not full strokes. d. negatively correlated with the occurrence of later strokes.

27. A thrombosis is a. a blockage resulting from material that doesn’t move from its point of origin. b. a blockage resulting from material that travels to smaller diameter blood vessels until it has to stop. c. bleeding in the brain. d. an area of dead neurons.

28. An embolism is a. a blockage resulting from material that doesn’t move from its point of origin. b. a blockage resulting from material that travels to smaller diameter blood vessels until it has to stop. c. bleeding in the brain. d. an area of dead neurons.

29. While a large stroke can cause long-term damage, multiple small strokes a. typically are no cause for concern. b. are not predictive of later larger strokes. c. can also produce significant damage. d. do not produce true infarcts.

30. Following ischemia, neural damage is found a. equally distributed throughout the brain. b. primarily in the hippocampus and in middle layers of the cortex. c. primarily in the hippocampus and inner layers of the cortex. d. primarily in subcortical areas.

31. Olney’s concept of excitotoxicity suggests that most neural death in ischemia is due to a. excess cholinergic activity. b. insufficient gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) activity. c. insufficient glutamate activity. d. excess glutamate activity.

32. Which of the following symptoms of stroke are part of the American Heart Association’s “BEFAST” acronym? a. arm weakness Powered by Cognero

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology b. tripping or stumbling c. total loss of consciousness d. tingling in the extremities 33. Why can’t the cells of the nervous system rely on stored supplies of oxygen? a. Oxygen carried in the blood has trouble getting into neural tissue. b. The circulation of blood to neural tissue can be interrupted by ruptures and blockages. c. Stored oxygen is used only in emergencies such as a stroke. d. The blood vessels cannot supply enough oxygen to the brain.

34. Cells in culture that are deprived of oxygen are more likely to survive in the presence of a. GABA agonists. b. GABA antagonists. c. glutamate agonists. d. glutamate antagonists.

35. Oxygen deprivation in neurons leads to a “cascade” of enzyme activity triggered by abnormally a. high levels of sodium activity. b. low levels of sodium activity. c. high levels of calcium activity. d. high levels of potassium activity.

36. Phencyclidine (PCP) is a potent glutamate antagonist that is known to produce psychotic behavior in humans. Given what you know about stroke, what would happen if somebody used PCP right after a stroke? a. It would increase the damage initiated by the stroke. b. It might have a protective effect against further cell death, but the psychotic side effects would be problematic. c. It would not produce any psychotic symptoms due to stroke-related changes in brain biochemistry. d. It would have no observable effects on cell health or psychotic behavior.

37. The area of neural tissue surrounding an infarct is known as the a. embolism. b. thrombosis. c. penumbra. d. aneurysm.

38. An injury with penetration of the skull is termed a(n) a. concussion. b. subdural hematoma. c. meningioma. d. open head injury.

39. Closed head injuries, or concussions, are characterized by a. injury without penetration of the skull. b. lack of a coup and countercoup.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology c. penetration of the skull. d. no loss of consciousness.

40. Major causes of open head injuries in the United States include a. boxing and playing football. b. gunshot wounds and skull fractures. c. playing soccer. d. aneurysms.

41. What determines the severity of the consequences of an open head injury? a. the affected area of the brain b. which hemisphere is affected c. the involvement of the ventricles d. how many lobes are affected 42. Which of the following is one of the four leading causes of traumatic brain injuries in the United States? a. playing football b. traffic accidents c. playing soccer d. boxing 43. An injury that produces a concussion a. is a mild injury that does not require medical attention. b. is a type of open head injury. c. can produce symptoms that range from mild to a coma. d. does not produce unconsciousness.

44. The site of a blow to the head in a closed head injury is known as a. thrombosis. b. hematoma. c. coup. d. countercoup.

45. The site of damage on the opposite side of an initial blow in a closed head injury is known as a. thrombosis. b. hematoma. c. coup. d. countercoup.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology

46.46.

(see Figure 15.12) In this illustration of a closed head injury, the area indicated by the #2 is known as a(n) a. embolism. b. thrombosis. c. coup. d. countercoup.

47. Bleeding between the membranes covering the brain (that is, under the dura mater) following a closed head injury is known as a. thrombosis. b. subdural hematoma. c. coup. d. countercoup.

48. Symptoms that occur following a traumatic brain injury (TBI) a. occur only in cases in which unconsciousness lasts for more than a day. b. occur only in cases in which bleeding has required surgery. c. can produce memory loss and dizziness. d. are usually so mild that the patient does not notice any changes.

49. Symptoms that occur following a traumatic brain injury (TBI) and last for days to years are referred to as a. penumbra.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology b. hematoma. c. chronic traumatic encephalopathy. d. neurocognitive disorder.

50. What is there about a concussion that may cause the cognitive symptoms seen in some people following their injury? a. When you are unconscious, your brain is not getting enough nutrients, so the longer you are unconscious, the more apt you are to have problems. b. When you have a concussion, there is a chance that the brain is actually injured by compression. c. Concussions will not cause any problems unless you are unconscious for a while, which results in loss of blood supply to the brain. d. Concussions will not cause cognitive problems unless the damage is accompanied by bleeding.

51. The autopsy results from cases of dementia pugilistica, or boxer’s syndrome, most closely resemble a. open head injuries. b. Alzheimer disease. c. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). d. meningitis.

52. Symptoms of chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) can include a. an inability to feel pain. b. unrealistically euphoric mood. c. dementia and impulsivity. d. high blood pressure.

53. Which athletes other than boxers are at risk of chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)? a. tennis players b. baseball players c. football players d. basketball players 54. Having the ε4 variant of the APOE gene increases an individual’s risk for a. stroke. b. brain tumors. c. aneurysms. d. Alzheimer disease (AD).

55. Which of the following individuals is the most likely to have symptoms of traumatic brain injury (TBI)? a. Guillaume, who is an Olympic sprinter b. George, who has been a professional American football player for many years c. Michael, who has been an Olympic swimmer for years d. Samuel, who has been a professional ballet dancer for years 56. Initial symptoms of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-associated neurocognitive disorder (NCD) may mimic a. meningitis.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology b. West Nile virus infection. c. depression. d. schizophrenia.

57. Infection from HIV results in a. the virus invading neurons, killing them. b. the infected cells releasing chemicals that trigger apoptosis. c. the virus interfering with the NMDA glutamate receptor, which then no longer allows calcium to enter neurons. d. no direct effect on the cells of the nervous system, but opportunistic viruses can thrive.

58. So-called “mad cow” disease is a type of a. TSE. b. encephalitis. c. meningitis. d. kuru.

59. Among the symptoms of a TSE in humans is (are) a. convulsions. b. paranoia. c. inflammation of the meninges. d. a stiff neck and aversion to lights.

60. In which of the following ways does HIV-associated neurocognitive disease (NCD) differ in children versus in adults? a. HIV effects on the nervous system are seen quickly in children, but appear only at later stages of the disease in adults. b. HIV does not affect the nervous system in children, but does affect the nervous system in adults. c. HIV effects on the nervous system occur at late stages of the disease in children, but appear right away in adults. d. HIV affects the nervous systems of children, but has no impact on the nervous system in adults.

61. The sheep disease “scrapie” can spread to a. humans but not to cows. b. cows but not to humans. c. both cows and humans. d. neither cows nor humans.

62. The sheep disease “scrapie” a. caused an epidemic among humans in nineteenth century Great Britain. b. is responsible for causing kuru in humans. c. does not pass directly to humans, although it can pass to other animals like cows. d. passes frequently to humans in countries that consume a lot of sheep.

63. Which of the following factors is responsible for some cases of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)? a. eating infected beef Powered by Cognero

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology b. cannibalism c. contamination of surgical instruments d. eating sheep meat infected with “scrapie” 64. Kuru, a disease found among the Fore people of New Guinea, virtually died out after a. beef consumption was outlawed. b. people changed to vegetarian diets. c. consumption of monkeys was outlawed. d. cannibalism was outlawed.

65. In studies of prion proteins in cell culture, the abnormal prions a. “hijack” deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) in order to produce more abnormal prions. b. convert normal prions into the abnormal form. c. increase calcium influx, which triggers apoptosis. d. enhance the expression of death genes that produce caspases.

66. The prions believed to cause TSEs a. normally perform important functions in their host animal, and only cause problems if they are transmitted to another species. b. differ from normal versions of proteins due to their increased length. c. show different forms in different species. d. show identical forms in all species.

67. Our current understanding of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs) stems from eighteenth-century England, when the disease known as was first identified among sheep and goats. a. traumatic brain injury (TBI) b. Kuru c. scrapie d. variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) 68. Between 1990 and 2020, 143 individuals in the UK died from variant Creutzfeldt Jakob disease (vCJD). Bans on mammal proteins in animal feed at that time were intended to a. increase the spread of BSE. b. stop the spread of BSE. c. increase the spread of TSE. d. stop the spread of TSE. 69. Recovery from substance/medication-induced neurocognitive disorder is more likely when people a. have been using alcohol or antianxiety medications instead of cocaine and methamphetamine. b. begin abstaining before the age of 30 years. c. begin abstaining before the age of 50 years. d. experience milder withdrawal syndromes after abstaining from their drug of choice.

70. Independent growths of new tissue that lack purpose are known as a. tumors.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology b. arteriovenous malformations. c. cavernous malformations. d. aneurysms.

71. Tumors in the nervous system arise from a. neurons and glia. b. neurons and cells of the meninges. c. glia and cells of the meninges. d. neurons, glia, and cells of the meninges.

72. Tumors that lack boundaries and are likely to recur following removal are known as a. benign. b. malignant. c. encapsulated. d. recursive.

73. The process in which malignant tumors shed cells that travel to another part of the body, where they initiate new tumor growth, is known as a. infiltration. b. encapsulation. c. malformation. d. metastasis.

74. Tumors that are contained within their own membrane and are unlikely to recur following removal are known as a. infiltration. b. malignant. c. benign. d. metastatic.

75. Which of the following could NOT be an accurate statement? a. Tom has been hospitalized due to lung cancer that has metastasized to his brain. b. Tom has been hospitalized due to a glioma that has caused him to have seizures. c. Tom has been hospitalized due to a benign tumor that has spread to his liver. d. Tom has been hospitalized due to a meningioma that will be removed from his brain tomorrow.

76. Symptoms of tumors include a. general symptoms due to increased pressure and specific symptoms related to the location of the tumor. b. increased heart rate. c. increased amounts of cerebrospinal fluid. d. loss of the ability to plan behavior.

77. Most gliomas develop in a. neurons. b. astrocytes and oligodendrocytes or a combination of the two.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology c. Schwann and amacrine cells. d. the membranes covering the brain.

78. Meningiomas typically arise from a. neurons. b. astrocytes and oligodendrocytes or a combination of the two. c. Schwann and amacrine cells. d. the membranes covering the brain.

79. A meningioma is a cancer that a. cannot be removed surgically due to the location. b. is typically malignant. c. is typically benign. d. produces a serious risk of metastasis.

80. Your physician somberly informs you that you have been diagnosed with a Grade I tumor and will require surgery.

What does this mean? a. You may want to pass up the surgery and concentrate on enjoying your remaining time, as Grade I tumors are typically rapidly fatal with or without treatment. b. You should ask for a second opinion, as Grade I tumors are benign and do not need to be removed through surgery. c. You can feel mildly optimistic, as Grade I tumors tend to recur after surgery, but they also grow slowly. d. Your chances of survival are relatively good, as Grade I tumors are usually benign, slow-growing, and respond well to surgery.

81. The use of chemotherapy for brain tumors is complicated by the fact that a. brain tumors do not respond to traditional chemotherapy. b. chemotherapy causes too much damage to neurons to be considered as a treatment for brain tumors. c. many substances used in traditional chemotherapy do not cross the blood–brain barrier. d. substances used in traditional chemotherapy mimic the actions of naturally occurring neurotransmitters.

82. The most common approach to treating brain tumors is a. medication. b. surgical removal. c. hypnosis. d. no treatment.

83. A virus that has the potential to be transmitted from pregnant women to their fetuses is known as a. herpes simplex virus. b. West Nile virus. c. Zika virus. d. coxsackie virus.

84. Neurocysticercosis results from an infection by a. a fungus.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology b. the larvae of the pork tapeworm. c. a type of bacteria. d. a virus.

85. In cases of neurocysticercosis, partial seizures typically do not occur until a. larvae hatch from the ingested eggs. b. larvae penetrate the intestines and enter the blood supply. c. larvae become encysted and grow. d. encysted larvae die and the immune system acts.

86. The most visible symptom of neurocysticercosis is a. nausea and double vision. b. a rash. c. the sudden onset of partial seizures. d. the sudden onset of tonic-clonic seizures.

87. Inflammation of the brain caused by viruses is known as a. neurocysticercosis. b. encephalitis. c. meningitis. d. septicemia.

88. Primary encephalitis usually results from a. infection with mosquito-borne viruses. b. overreaction by the immune system to viruses like chicken pox. c. infection by fungi. d. infection by common bacteria passed through close contact with others.

89. Herpes simplex, the virus responsible for cold sores and genital herpes, a. has been implicated in cases of primary encephalitis. b. is a major cause of secondary encephalitis. c. is responsible for many cases of multiple sclerosis. d. has been implicated in neurocysticercosis.

90. Prior infection with herpes simplex has been implicated in the later development of a. meningitis. b. secondary encephalitis. c. dementia. d. multiple sclerosis.

91. Meningitis is a. the immune system’s overreaction to viruses like chicken pox. b. an infection by mosquito-borne viruses. c. caused by ingestion of the pork tapeworm.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology d. an inflammation of the membranes covering the brain.

92. In addition to flulike symptoms, meningitis may cause a. sudden onset focal seizures. b. a characteristic “bulls-eye” rash. c. a stiff neck and sensitivity to lights. d. fatigue and joint pain.

93. The bacteria responsible for bacterial meningitis a. are not a threat in swimming pools, buildings, and the water supply. b. cannot be spread by kissing, coughing, or sneezing. c. are spread from infected birds to people by mosquitos. d. are quite rare among people.

94. Secondary encephalitis caused by which of the following produces damage similar to that seen in Alzheimer disease, leading to hypotheses that the virus might play a causal role in Alzheimer? a. Zika virus b. herpes simplex virus c. West Nile virus d. neurocysticercosis 95. Compared with bacterial meningitis, viral meningitis is a. less common and less dangerous. b. less common and more dangerous. c. more common and less dangerous. d. more common and more dangerous.

96. The difference between encephalitis and meningitis is that a. encephalitis can be life threatening but meningitis cannot. b. meningitis can be life threatening but encephalitis cannot. c. encephalitis is caused by bacteria but meningitis is caused by a virus. d. encephalitis is an infection of the brain itself, whereas meningitis is an infection of the lining of the brain and/or spinal cord.

97. Uncontrolled electrical disturbances in the brain accompanied by changes in consciousness are known as a. seizures. b. tumors. c. subdural hematomas. d. coma.

98. Epilepsy is diagnosed in patients with a. a history of at least one seizure. b. a history of at least one seizure that was unrelated to having a fever as a child. c. repeated, unprovoked seizures. d. seizures resulting from an inoperable tumor.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology 99. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between epilepsy and the results of electroencephalograph (EEG) and imaging? a. All individuals with epilepsy will show abnormal brain activity, which is never seen in people without the disorder. b. All individuals with epilepsy will show abnormal brain activity, but some healthy people show the same patterns. c. Some individuals with epilepsy show abnormal brain activity, but some healthy people show the same patterns. d. Some individuals with epilepsy show abnormal brain activity, but healthy people never show these patterns.

100. Seizure activity may be associated with the activity of a. glutamate. b. GABA. c. acetylcholine. d. adenosine.

101. Ralph has suffered from alcoholism since he started college. Instead of undergoing a medically supervised rehabilitation, he plans to try quitting on his own. You advise Ralph that his plan is a. probably perfectly okay, because he has no family history of epilepsy. b. probably perfectly okay, because alcohol is legal and safe. c. a really bad idea, because withdrawal from GABA agonists like alcohol can lead to severe seizures. d. a really bad idea, because alcohol inhibits seizures in people with epilepsy by boosting activity of acetylcholine.

102. Seizures that involve a focal area and may be preceded by an aura are known as a. partial seizures. b. general seizures. c. photosensitive seizures. d. paroxysmal seizures.

103. Seizures that originate in a focal area without affecting consciousness are known as a. absence seizures. b. tonic-clonic seizures. c. simple partial seizures. d. complex partial seizures.

104. Which of the following types of seizures typically begins in the temporal lobes? a. absence seizures b. tonic-clonic seizures c. simple partial d. complex partial 105. Paroxysmal depolarizing shifts (PDSs) characterize which of the following types of seizures? a. absence and tonic-clonic seizures Powered by Cognero

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology b. absence and simple partial seizures c. simple and complex partial seizures d. tonic-clonic and complex partial seizures 106. Generalized seizures appear to involve circuits connecting the a. thalamus and cerebral cortex. b. temporal lobes. c. hypothalamus and amygdala. d. basal ganglia and the substantia nigra.

107. Auras typically occur before a. all partial seizures but not before a generalized seizure. b. some partial seizures but not before a generalized seizure. c. all general seizures but not before partial seizures. d. some general seizures but not before partial seizures.

108. In Jacksonian seizures, which of the following is disturbed? a. visual behavior b. auditory behavior c. motor behavior d. consciousness 109. Changes in consciousness frequently accompany a. Jacksonian seizures. b. photosensitive seizures. c. simple partial seizures. d. complex partial seizures.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology

110.110.

(see Figure 15.22a) This image illustrates a(n) a. partial seizure. b. tonic-clonic seizure. c. absence seizure. d. migraine headache.

111. Individuals experience violent, rhythmic contractions during a. the tonic phase of tonic-clonic seizures. b. the clonic phase of tonic-clonic seizures. c. absence seizures. d. the Jacksonian march.

112. Absence seizure is another term for a. the tonic phase of grand mal seizures. b. the clonic phase of grand mal seizures. c. a petit mal seizure. d. the Jacksonian march.

113. The “3/sec spike and wave” pattern is observed during a. simple partial seizures. b. complex partial seizures. c. absence seizures. d. the Jacksonian march.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology 114. During the tonic phase of a tonic-clonic seizure a. rhythmic muscular contractions occur. b. coma occurs. c. urination, defecation, and sweating commonly occur. d. breathing ceases and muscles contract.

115. Paroxysmal depolarizing shifts are seen in the EEG of patients experiencing a. partial seizures. b. tonic-clonic seizures. c. absence seizures. d. migraine headaches.

116. Many medications that are effective in treating epilepsy are a. dopamine agonists. b. cholinergic antagonists. c. GABA antagonists. d. GABA agonists.

117. In children, epilepsy may be improved by a diet that is high in a. fat; carbohydrates b. protein; fat c. carbohydrates; fat d. fat; protein

and low in

.

118. Multiple sclerosis (MS) results in the degeneration of a. the basal ganglia. b. astrocytes. c. Schwann cells. d. oligodendrocytes.

119. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is more common in northern latitudes and a. affects more women than men. b. affects more men than women, as it is a sex-linked condition. c. affects equal numbers of men and women. d. typically does not develop until after the age of 55 years.

120. A young woman tells her physician that she is troubled by pain and tingling sensations in her legs. It is likely that she will be evaluated for a. a brain tumor. b. multiple sclerosis (MS). c. petit mal seizures. d. post-concussive syndrome.

121. Multiple sclerosis results from a. strong heritability.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology b. exposure to environmental toxins. c. a combination of modest heritability and environmental factors. d. excessive exposure to the sun.

122. Which of the following people is at highest risk for multiple sclerosis (MS)? a. an elderly man with a family history of multiple sclerosis living in Panama b. a young man living in California who spends a lot of time in the sun as a construction worker c. an older woman with a family history of multiple sclerosis who lives in Mexico d. a young woman with a history of mononucleosis living in New York 123. Which type(s) of multiple sclerosis respond(s) BEST to current treatments? a. The relapsing-remitting form responds better than the progressive forms. b. The progressive forms respond better than the relapsing-remitting form. c. The relapsing-remitting and progressive forms respond about equally well. d. None of these types respond to any type of treatment.

124. The aura associated with migraine headaches a. occurs in all patients who experience migraines. b. usually takes the form of a visual distortion. c. consists of a vague premonition that a headache is about to occur. d. can produce muscular contractions.

125. Most cases of migraine headaches are treated with medications. For example, triptans act as a. GABA b. serotonin c. norepinephrine d. dopamine

agonists.

126. Botox injections are approved for the treatment of a. multiple sclerosis. b. epilepsy. c. migraine headaches. d. encephalitis.

127. People who experience migraine headaches a. usually have a history of post-concussive syndrome. b. are equally likely to be male or female. c. are more likely to be male than female. d. are more likely to be female than male.

128. Migraine headaches affect a. about the same number of men and women. b. about twice as many women as men. c. about twice as many men as women.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology d. slightly more men than women.

129. Migraine headaches may involve the release of a. GABA by the vagus nerve. b. dopamine by the facial nerve. c. serotonin by the hypoglossal nerve. d. calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) by the trigeminal nerve.

130. Which of the following helps to reduce the severity and frequency of migraine headaches? a. improved sleep habits b. increased aerobic exercise c. ketogenic diets d. serotonin antagonists 131. Which of the following classes of medication are used to treat migraine headaches? beta amyloids a. statins b. endogenous hormones c. triptans and Botox d. beta amyloids 132. According to the Kennard Principle, reorganization after brain damage is a. a function of the amount of tissue involved. b. a function of developmental age. c. more extensive when damage affects the right hemisphere. d. more extensive when damage affects the left hemisphere.

133. The Kennard Principle best describes the recovery of which of the following functions following brain damage? a. movement b. spatial relations c. language d. all cognitive functions 134. In an examination of 50 patients who had sustained either prenatal or early postnatal right- or left-hemisphere damage, Woods and Teuber (1973) found a. no deficits to either language or visuospatial skills. b. relatively normal visuospatial skills but deficient language skills. c. relatively normal language skills but deficient visuospatial skills. d. deficient language and visuospatial skills.

135. Following brain injury, patients’ recovery of language functions a. shows no improvement. b. is extremely slow. c. does not occur beyond 2 years. d. is more extensive than recovery of other cognitive processes.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology 136. Who is more apt to recover from brain damage? a. a 47-year-old woman who had an aneurysm in her brainstem b. a 3-year-old child whose seizures were treated with a hemispherectomy c. a 75-year-old man who had a severe stroke resulting in Wernicke aphasia d. a 15-year-old boy whose seizures were treated with a hemispherectomy 137. Cognitive is a proposed basis for individual differences in responses to brain injury either due to brain size, synapse number, or flexible use of cognitive networks. a. resourcing b. reserve c. malleability d. plasticity 138. Using virtual reality (VR) for rehabilitation after brain injury a. does not produce any significant benefits. b. is impossible, given the inability of patients to use the technology. c. might be used in the future but is not currently available. d. allows the patient to receive more hours of rehabilitation than more traditional methods requiring the presence of a therapist.

139. Imaging studies of the use of VR therapies for brain injury show that VR a. produces the same patterns of brain activity as interactions with a real environment. b. produces the same amount of brain activity as interactions with a real environment, but the patterns of activity are quite different. c. is unable to produce changes in brain activity compared to lying in bed. d. produces too much activity in the brain for healthy recovery.

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology

140.140.

(see Figure 15.12) The initial area of impact in a closed head injury, indicated by the # . A secondary area of impact, indicated by the # .

, is known as a , is known as the

141.141.

(see Figure 15.16) PrPc stands for

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, whereas PrPsc stands for

.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology

142.142.

(see Figure 15.22a) In this illustration, abnormal electrical activity travels from its origin, labeled #1 or the opposite hemisphere by way of the , which is labeled #2.

to the

143. Discuss the similarities and differences between a TIA and stroke. Include in your analysis the predictive value and also the timeline for damage (or lack of damage).

144. Prion diseases are responsible for TSEs. Explain the states of prions and our understanding about their involvement in TSEs. Discuss how a TSE can be transmitted to humans.

145. Closed head injuries have become common in some sporting events. Discuss closed head injuries; include in your discussion the site of impact and site of damage and implications for diagnosis and possible treatment.

146. The World Health Organization (WHO) establishes grading for tumors from Grade I to Grade IV. Explain these grades, the hallmarks of cancer seen for each grade, and differences in prognosis based on grade.

147. Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease that has a different set of risk factors from other autoimmune diseases.

Explain what the risk factors are and the different types of this disease, and briefly discuss why it can be fatal.

148. Migraine headaches are debilitating events for those that develop them regularly. Discuss the role of serotonin in migraines; include in your discussion effects on blood flow. Explain why it may be that people with migraines are more frequently diagnosed with depression and anxiety.

149. Summarize the symptoms and treatment of HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology 150. How would you advise a National Football League (NFL) quarterback who has experienced several concussions during the current season?

151. Describe the two major types of generalized seizures.

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. c 12. a 13. d 14. d 15. c 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. c 20. d 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. d 25. a Powered by Cognero

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology 26. b 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. b 31. d 32. a 33. b 34. d 35. c 36. b 37. c 38. d 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. b 43. c 44. c 45. d 46. d 47. b 48. c 49. d 50. b 51. b Powered by Cognero

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology 52. c 53. c 54. d 55. b 56. c 57. b 58. a 59. b 60. a 61. b 62. c 63. c 64. d 65. b 66. c 67. c 68. b 69. c 70. a 71. c 72. b 73. d 74. c 75. c 76. a Powered by Cognero

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology 77. b 78. d 79. c 80. d 81. c 82. b 83. c 84. b 85. d 86. c 87. b 88. a 89. b 90. c 91. d 92. c 93. a 94. b 95. c 96. d 97. a 98. c 99. c 100. b 101. c 102. a Powered by Cognero

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology 103. c 104. d 105. c 106. a 107. b 108. c 109. d 110. a 111. b 112. c 113. c 114. d 115. a 116. d 117. a 118. d 119. a 120. b 121. c 122. d 123. a 124. b 125. b 126. c 127. d Powered by Cognero

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology 128. b 129. d 130. a 131. c 132. b 133. c 134. c 135. d 136. b 137. b 138. d 139. a 140. 1; coup; 2; countercoup 141. prion protein cellular; prion protein scrapie 142. primary seizure focus; corpus callosum 143. From pp. 488–489 in the text: Blockages of blood vessels result in ischemia, or low oxygen levels. Cases of ischemia account for about 80 percent of all strokes (Donnan, Fisher, Macleod, & Davis, 2008). Ischemia often results in the death of neural tissue, producing an area known as an infarct. Infarcts can cause changes in consciousness, sensation, or the ability to move, depending on their size and location. Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) produce brief episodes (24 hours or less) of stroke symptoms. Although these brief attacks do not cause permanent damage, they are strong predictors of subsequent stroke (Donnan et al., 2008).

144. Prions are proteins with alternate shapes, and are believed to be transmitted to humans by contact with neural material that contains prions. Since the incubation period is unusually long, usually years, and not inflammation is observed in infected tissues, these diseases are difficult to diagnose prior to the onset of symptoms. Normal sterilization techniques have been ineffective in preventing transmission of the disease.

145. From the text, p. 490: Traumatic brain injuries can be divided into two categories. Open head injuries involve penetration of the skull, while concussions, or closed head injuries, do not. Open head injuries usually occur as a result of gunshot wounds or of fractures of the skull in which fragments of bone enter the brain. A projectile produces immediate damage to tissues in its pathway, which is compounded by the stretching and compression of the tissues that result from the shock waves produced by the projectile’s movement (Risdall & Menon, 2011). The severity of the consequences of an open head injury is highly dependent on the areas of the brain that are affected. Injuries that involve damage to ventricles, both hemispheres, or multiple lobes of the brain are most likely to result in death (Martins, Siqueira, Santos, ZanonCollange, & Moraes, 2003).

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Ch 15 Neuropsychology 146. WHO grades tumors from Grade I (least serious) to Grade IV (most serious). A Grade I tumor is benign, slowgrowing, and responsive to surgery. A Grade I tumor is malignant, but slow-growing. A Grade III tumor is malignant and requires more aggressive treatment than Grade II tumors, and Grade IV tumors are rapidly fatal.

147. MS is usually diagnosed in young adults, and women are more likely to develop the disease than men. Modest heritability combines with environmental factors, such as exposure to viruses and too little vitamin D to produce the disease.

148. Serotonin levels are negatively correlated with blood flow to the brain, so low serotonin activity might produce the increased blood flow observed during headaches. Low serotonin is also correlated with depression and anxiety, and people with migraine headaches are more likely than others to also be diagnosed with these conditions. Reserpine depletes available serotonin and is also associated with headaches.

149. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder is a collection of neurocognitive symptoms that results either directly from the actions of the HIV virus itself or from other opportunistic infections that overwhelm the impaired immune system of the HIV patient. Although contemporary antiretroviral treatments have diminished the prevalence and severity of the most serious cases, milder forms continue to be a problem for many patients (Spudich & González-Scarano, 2012).

150. Answer should include a description of how concussions occur, what happens in the brain when they do, and the risk of neurocognitive disease resulting from repeated concussions. Specific advice (e.g., quit football) will vary.

151. Partial seizures originate in an identifiable part of the brain (the focus or focal area) and then spread outward.

Generalized seizures do not appear to have a focus or clear point of origin and affect both sides of the brain symmetrically. Some partial seizures are preceded by an aura, or premonition of the impending seizure. In some cases, the aura involves sensory distortions, whereas in others, it is simply the sense that a seizure will occur soon. Generalized seizures typically are not accompanied by an aura.

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Ch 16 Psychopathology

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Medications that influence the activity of serotonin, GABA, and glutamate have produced encouraging improvements in the behavior of children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD). a. True b. False 2. People with known frontal lobe damage behave similarly to those with ADHD. a. True b. False 3. Schizophrenia is far more likely to occur in people who are over 30 years of age. a. True b. False 4. Hallucinations, such as hearing voices, are a common type of positive symptom experienced by patients with schizophrenia. a. True b. False 5. One effect of Marquita’s antidepressant medication is that it increases her amount of REM sleep. a. True b. False 6. According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM), the depression that sometimes accompanies bipolar disorder is quite different than the depression seen in cases of major depressive disorder. a. True b. False 7. Women are more likely than men to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder (MDD) but are about equally likely as men to be diagnosed with bipolar disorder. a. True b. False 8. When Dr. West moved into a new house, his cat developed an exaggerated grooming habit that caused her to start going bald. Dr. West was likely correct in assuming that his cat was exhibiting behaviors similar to obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). a. True b. False 9. Injections of sodium lactate can initiate a panic attack in individuals diagnosed with panic disorder. a. True b. False 10. Men and women are equally likely to demonstrate antisocial personality disorder (ASPD). a. True Powered by Cognero

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Ch 16 Psychopathology b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11. Mental disorders a. result from interactions between biology and experience. b. always result from brain diseases. c. always result from biochemical imbalances. d. can be found in the majority of the human population.

12. Mental disorders affect a. fewer than 1 b. between 11 and 18 c. between 34 and 52 d. about 77

percent of the world population.

13. Among the most common mental disorders are a. autism and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). b. schizophrenia and antisocial personality disorder (ASPD). c. anxiety and depression. d. ASPD and borderline personality disorder.

14. Approximately 1 billion people globally experience a mental disorder. Not including substance use disorders, is experienced by the highest number of people, and is experienced by the second highest number of people. a. bipolar disorder; attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD); bipolar disorder c. depression; anxiety d. anxiety; depression 15. Autism spectrum disorder usually becomes apparent a. at birth. b. within the first year of life. c. in early childhood. d. at puberty.

16. Autism spectrum disorder affects a. males and females equally. b. about three times as many females as males. c. about twice as many adult males as females. d. about four to five times as many males as females.

17. The concordance rate in identical twins for autism spectrum disorder is between a. 10 and 17 b. 23 and 41 Powered by Cognero

percent.

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Ch 16 Psychopathology c. 53 and 65 d. 76 and 88 18. All of the following are likely biomarkers for autism spectrum disorder (ASD) EXCEPT a. frontal alpha asymmetry. b. atypical EEG. c. cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) in infancy. d. early problems with eye contact.

19. Autism spectrum disorder may be associated with a. larger than normal amounts of neurotrophins. b. reduced amounts of neurotrophins. c. childhood exposure to viruses. d. parenting style.

20. Brain growth in autism spectrum disorder usually a. proceeds at a normal rate. b. first accelerates and then decelerates relative to healthy controls. c. first decelerates and then accelerates relative to healthy controls. d. proceeds at an increased rate throughout childhood and adolescence.

21. Autism spectrum disorder may be associated with structural abnormalities in the a. cortical surface area. b. spine density of dendrites. c. anterior cingulate cortex. d. locus coeruleus.

22. Compared with healthy controls, people with autism spectrum disorder show a. increased numbers of minicolumns. b. reduced numbers of minicolumns. c. minicolumns that are closer together. d. larger minicolumns.

23. Research into the molecular causes of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) has shown that abnormal contribute to ASD through their participation in the pruning of synapses during development. a. microglia b. astrocytes c. oligodendrocytes d. mirror neurons

might

24. Professor Windell is lecturing her class about psychopathology. She reports that using medication for treating ASD symptoms a. has been more effective than behavioral treatments. b. is effective with high-functioning children but has little effect on low-functioning children. c. has not yet been evaluated scientifically due to ethical concerns.

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Ch 16 Psychopathology d. has been ineffective.

25. As of 2022, approximately how many American children between the ages of 3 and 17 years have been diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? a. less than 1 percent b. about 7–8 percent c. about 10 percent d. about 15 percent 26. Research by Angold et al. (2000) on the use of medication for ADHD found that a. there is no evidence that children are being inappropriately medicated. b. fewer than 5 percent of children on medication are being inappropriately medicated. c. more than half of children on medication are being inappropriately medicated. d. medication is rarely used to treat the disorder.

27. The heritability of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is a. less than 10 percent b. between 20 and 40 percent c. between 40 and 60 percent d. 70 percent or higher 28. It is likely that ADHD is a. underdiagnosed b. overdiagnosed c. underresearched d. overresearched

.

in the United States.

29. Children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) a. show consistent deficits in gray matter growth beginning in early childhood. b. may simply need more time for their brains to mature than other children. c. show obvious signs of brain damage, particularly in the frontal lobes. d. cannot be expected to improve as they mature.

30. Jamar has been diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). He is most likely to be treated with a. intensive behavioral therapies, similar to those used to treat autism spectrum disorder. b. medication with tranquilizers. c. medication with stimulant drugs. d. medication with antidepressant drugs.

31. Your parents have been advised to give your little brother methylphenidate (Ritalin) as treatment for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). What advice would you give them? a. Don’t bother. The drug rarely produces any improvements in behavior. b. Make sure the diagnosis is correct, as Ritalin has no effect on behavior unless you really have ADHD. c. Proceed with caution. Ritalin can improve behavior, but it also produces significant side effects. d. Try giving him a cup of coffee first, and if he reacts well to that, he probably will respond well to Ritalin, too.

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Ch 16 Psychopathology 32. Claude has been diagnosed with explained are a symptom. a. schizophrenia; positive b. schizophrenia; negative c. bipolar disorder; positive d. bipolar disorder; negative

because he has been having delusional thoughts, which his doctor

33. Misty is studying for a quiz on psychopathology. She writes in her notes that schizophrenia. a. hallucinations b. social withdrawal c. mood disturbance d. lack of motivation

is/are a positive symptom of

34. When patients with schizophrenia perform behaviors that we would not expect to see in a typical person, we refer to these behaviors as symptoms. a. negative b. positive c. active-phase d. prodromal 35. When patients with schizophrenia fail to perform behaviors considered to be normal, we refer to these “missing” behaviors as symptoms. a. negative b. positive c. active-phase d. prodromal 36. Butch is studying for a quiz on psychopathology. He writes in his notes that schizophrenia. a. delusions b. hallucinations c. psychotic episodes d. social withdrawal

is/are a negative symptom of

37. Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between gender and schizophrenia? a. Men and women are equally likely to be diagnosed with schizophrenia. b. Women are about twice as likely as men to be diagnosed with schizophrenia. c. Men are slightly more likely than women to be diagnosed with schizophrenia. d. Men are about twice as likely as women to be diagnosed with schizophrenia.

38. Professor McEwen tells his class that, worldwide, schizophrenia is diagnosed in approximately the population. a. 0.3 Powered by Cognero

percent of

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Ch 16 Psychopathology b. 1.5 c. 5 d. 7 39. Most cases of schizophrenia are diagnosed for the first time between a. 10 and 12 b. 12 and 18 c. 18 and 25 d. 25 and 40

years of age.

40. Professor Peach is giving a lecture on schizophrenia. She tells her class that a. men are diagnosed more often than women. b. women are diagnosed about twice as often as men. c. women are diagnosed about three times as often as men. d. men and women are diagnosed at about the same rates.

41. Which of the following individuals has the highest risk of being diagnosed with schizophrenia? a. a 23-year-old woman whose mother was diagnosed with bipolar disorder b. a 62-year-old man born in Panama c. a 5-year-old child diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) d. a 42-year-old man who uses heroin regularly 42. The concordance rate among identical twins for schizophrenia is approximately a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 90

percent.

43. If your identical twin has schizophrenia, what does that mean for you? a. If you inherited the gene for schizophrenia, you will be diagnosed with schizophrenia too. b. Your chances of being diagnosed with schizophrenia are not increased as long as you were not raised by the same parents. c. Your chances of being diagnosed with schizophrenia are the same as the rest of the population—about 1 percent. d. You have about a 50 percent chance of also being diagnosed with schizophrenia.

44. Elia and Leslie are fraternal twins. Elia was recently diagnosed with schizophrenia. What are Leslie’s chances of also being diagnosed? a. 50 percent b. 17 percent c. 25 percent d. 100 percent 45. Given what you now know about the role of genetics in schizophrenia, which one of these statements is most likely to be correct?

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Ch 16 Psychopathology a. the presence of schizophrenia in the adopted parents correlated with schizophrenia in the adopted children b. the presence of schizophrenia in the biological parents correlated with schizophrenia in the adopted children c. the presence of schizophrenia in the adopted parents appeared to be as important as the presence of schizophrenia in the biological parents in predicting outcomes of the adopted children d. schizophrenia neither in the adopted parents nor in the biological parents appeared related to the presence of schizophrenia in the adopted children 46. Which of the following statements about schizophrenia is correct? a. Genetics play a major role in schizophrenia, with little, if any, influence from the environment. b. The environment plays a major role in schizophrenia, with little, if any, influence from genetics. c. Genetics play a strong role in schizophrenia, but environmental factors contribute as well. d. Environmental factors play the strongest role in schizophrenia, but genetics contribute slightly to the outcomes.

47. The same genes that contribute to schizophrenia might also be involved in the development of a. panic disorder. b. antisocial personality disorder (ASPD). c. major depressive disorder. d. bipolar disorder.

48. The abnormal saccades seen in relatives of people with schizophrenia are a. eye movements during the visual tracking of a stimulus. b. eye movements during REM sleep. c. EEG waveforms recorded over the occipital lobe. d. chemicals found in the cerebrospinal fluid.

49. Schizophrenia patients might self-medicate with as it has been shown to provide relief from problems in more general executive functioning and inhibitory control as well as the aberrant eye movements a. nicotine b. caffeine c. heroin d. alcohol 50. Schizophrenia occurs a. more frequently in rural than in urban environments. b. more frequently in urban than in rural environments. c. about as frequently in urban as in rural environments. d. more frequently in rural environments in wealthy countries and in urban environments in poorer countries.

51. Professor Ruggs tells her class that research has shown that schizophrenia occurs a. most frequently among people from the upper and middle socioeconomic statuses. b. most frequently among people from the lower socioeconomic status. c. without respect to a person’s socioeconomic status. d. more commonly among men from the lower socioeconomic status and women from the upper and middle socioeconomic statuses.

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Ch 16 Psychopathology 52. Research has identified several factors that might explain the prevalence of schizophrenia in urban environments. One of them is the stress related to a. “keeping up” with neighbors financially, by buying expensive houses and cars. b. commuting long distances to work. c. racism. d. outdoor noise levels.

53. Use of which of the following substances has been implicated in the development of schizophrenia in vulnerable individuals? a. MDMA (ecstasy) b. methamphetamine c. heroin d. cannabis 54. The Petersons’ child has schizophrenia. It is possible that his played a significant role. a. high birth weight b. abnormally large head circumference c. birth complications such as lack of oxygen and emergency caesarean section d. abnormally high neurotrophin levels in umbilical blood 55. How should we interpret the correlation between schizophrenia and birth complications? a. Birth complications clearly cause schizophrenia in the mother. b. Birth complications clearly lead to the later development of schizophrenia in the child. c. Infants who will later develop schizophrenia are difficult to carry and deliver. d. Birth complications may trigger schizophrenia, or an infant who is vulnerable to schizophrenia may be difficult to carry and deliver, or both.

56. Schizophrenia may be associated with a. the mercury found in routine childhood immunizations. b. routine prenatal ultrasound. c. contracting influenza in early childhood. d. prenatal exposure to viruses.

57. Ventricular enlargement of the brains of some patients with schizophrenia appears to develop from a. increased fluid pressure in the ventricles from blocking of fluid pathways. b. increases in the volume of adjacent neural tissue. c. death of neurons in adjacent areas. d. increased production of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

58. Brooke has schizophrenia. It is to be expected that all of the following EXCEPT normal. a. gray matter volume b. total brain volume c. ventricles Powered by Cognero

will be smaller than

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Ch 16 Psychopathology d. intracranial volume 59. Professor Heggestad tells his class that research has found that patients with schizophrenia have a. low metabolic activity throughout the brain. b. less metabolic activity in the temporal lobes than in the frontal lobes. c. hypofrontality, or less activity in the frontal lobes. d. overactivity in the right hemisphere.

60. The brains of people with schizophrenia demonstrate a. hypofrontality. b. hyperfrontality. c. increased connectivity. d. no connectivity.

61. Howard has schizophrenia. Compared to healthy children his age, he is expected to have a. less brain growth in the teen years. b. excessive brain growth in the teen years. c. excessive loss of gray matter during his teen years. d. excessive loss of white matter during his teen years.

62. Some patients given L-dopa to control the symptoms of Parkinson disease reportedly a. develop Tourette syndrome. b. become euphoric. c. experience panic attacks. d. develop symptoms similar to schizophrenia.

63. A patient was brought into the ER with unusual, schizophrenic-like symptoms. Until bloodwork was done, the doctors couldn’t tell if the patient had schizophrenia or had been using large doses of a. phencyclidine (PCP). b. marijuana. c. heroin. d. MDMA (ecstasy).

64. Most medications used to reduce positive symptoms of schizophrenia act as a. dopamine agonists. b. dopamine antagonists. c. serotonin agonists. d. serotonin antagonists.

65. Which of the following BEST describes the actions of first-generation and second-generation antipsychotic medications? a. Both types of medication act as dopamine agonists. b. Both types of medication act as dopamine antagonists. c. First-generation antipsychotics act as dopamine antagonists, but second-generation antipsychotics act as dopamine agonists.

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Ch 16 Psychopathology d. First-generation antipsychotics act as dopamine antagonists, and second-generation antipsychotics act on other neurotransmitters in addition to dopamine.

66. One problem with the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia is a. the lack of response to dopamine agonists shown by some patients. b. the lack of response to dopamine antagonists shown by some patients. c. research findings showing people with schizophrenia produce abnormal amounts of dopamine. d. research findings showing people with schizophrenia have normal numbers of dopamine receptors.

67. Why are researchers investigating a possible role for glutamate in schizophrenia? a. Known antipsychotic medications have their primary effects on glutamate. b. People with schizophrenia have abnormal levels of glutamate activity. c. Phencyclidine (PCP) use, which affects glutamate systems, mimics several symptoms of schizophrenia. d. Glutamate levels are directly influenced by cocaine and amphetamine.

68. Dr. Weimer has noticed that many of his patients with schizophrenia have a. abnormally low amounts of serotonin. b. abnormally low amounts of dopamine. c. increased numbers of glutamate receptors in their brains. d. reduced numbers of glutamate receptors in their brains.

69. You are responsible for treating a patient who is exhibiting symptoms of psychosis after taking a large amount of PCP. Which of the following might help your patient? a. a drug that acts as a dopamine agonist b. a drug that acts as a dopamine antagonist c. a drug that acts as a glutamate antagonist d. MDMA (ecstasy) to promote increased serotonin activity 70. Substantial drops in the population of patients institutionalized for mental disorders coincided with a. the use of typical antipsychotics to treat schizophrenia. b. the use of clozapine to treat schizophrenia. c. the widespread use of psychosocial rehabilitation. d. reduced exposure of pregnant women to viruses.

71. When used to treat schizophrenia, first-generation antipsychotics are a. effective against negative symptoms but not against positive symptoms. b. effective against positive symptoms but not against negative symptoms. c. equally effective against both positive and negative symptoms. d. ineffective against both positive and negative symptoms.

72. Tardive dyskinesia may result from a. dopamine antagonists. b. medication with second-generation antipsychotics but not first-generation antipsychotics. c. overactivity in GABA neurons. d. increases in dopamine activity associated with schizophrenia.

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Ch 16 Psychopathology 73. If medication with antipsychotics is discontinued, tardive dyskinesia a. disappears immediately. b. disappears after a period of about 6 months to a year. c. disappears after a period of about 3 years. d. can continue indefinitely.

74. Professor Geib tells his class that some patients taking antipsychotics might develop symptoms of tardive dyskinesia, which suggests that the medications are interfering with systems in the body. a. sensory b. motor c. executive d. emotional 75. In the treatment of schizophrenia, an advantage of the second-generation antipsychotics over first-generation antipsychotics is their a. lack of side effects. b. superiority in treating positive symptoms. c. superiority in treating negative and cognitive symptoms. d. ability to enhance dopamine activity.

76. The World Health Organization (WHO) published data suggesting that a. patients with schizophrenia recovered more frequently in wealthy countries like the United States than in developing countries like India, Nigeria, and Colombia. b. patients with schizophrenia recovered more frequently in developing countries like India, Nigeria, and Colombia than in wealthier countries. c. psychosocial approaches to schizophrenia were a waste of time and resources. d. psychosocial approaches were used in treating the vast majority of patients with schizophrenia in the United States but rarely in developing countries.

77. Mania is characterized by a. loss of interest in pleasurable activities. b. thoughts of death and suicide. c. boundless energy and elevated mood. d. depressed motor activity.

78. Bipolar disorder affects about a. 1.5 b. 2.6 c. 5.6 d. 10

percent of the U.S. population in a given year.

79. Jamison is studying for a quiz and was surprised to read that bipolar disorder is a. more common in men than women. b. more common in women than men.

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Ch 16 Psychopathology c. equally common in men and women. d. about three times as common in women as in men.

80. Prior to puberty, symptoms of bipolar disorder are a. more common in males than females. b. more common in females than males. c. as common as in adults. d. diagnosed as disruptive mood dysregulation disorder.

81. According to Kay Jamison (1993), higher levels of artistic creativity may coincide with greater risk for a. bipolar disorder. b. schizophrenia. c. antisocial personality disorder. d. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.

82. Patients with bipolar disorder a. do not show exceptional creativity. b. appear to show higher levels of creativity, similar to healthy controls in creative professions. c. appear to show reduced levels of creativity. d. appear to show higher levels of creativity but were less creative than healthy controls in creative professions.

83. Genes associated with transport, receptors for neurochemicals, insulin secretion, and endocannabinoid signaling have been implicated in a. borderline personality disorder. b. autism spectrum disorder. c. bipolar disorder. d. schizophrenia.

84. Dr. Hugh is conducting research into the genetics of bipolar disorder. So far, he has found that many of the genes that might cause it also seem to be responsible for a. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). b. schizophrenia. c. obsessive compulsive disorder. d. ASPD. 85. Countries with high consumption of foods containing omega-3 fatty acids a. have higher rates of bipolar disorder than countries where consumption of these foods is less. b. have about the same rates of bipolar disorder as countries where consumption of these foods is less. c. have lower rates of bipolar disorder than countries where consumption of these foods is less. d. report no cases of bipolar disorder.

86. Supplementation with omega-3 fatty acids has a. had no effect on b. clearly improved the behavior of c. produced a worsening of symptoms in Powered by Cognero

people with bipolar disorder.

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Ch 16 Psychopathology d. produced mixed results in improving the behavior of 87. Professor Huntley is giving a lecture on treatments for bipolar disorder. He mentions that some research was looking into using omega-3 fatty acids as a potential supplemental treatment and that results showed a. the effect was too strong. b. that patients clearly had significant improvement. c. that only men benefited from the supplements. d. that more research is needed as results were mixed.

88. Bipolar disorder may be associated with abnormalities in the a. ventral prefrontal cortex. b. hippocampus and ventricles. c. anterior cingulate cortex. d. hippocampus and amygdala.

89. Bipolar disorder is most frequently treated through the use of a. lithium. b. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). c. electroconvulsive shock therapy. d. monoamine oxidase inhibitors.

90. Clarissa was prescribed lithium carbonate (lithium salts) to help treat her bipolar symptoms because they a. enhance norepinephrine activity. b. stabilize mood. c. enhance serotonin activity. d. reduce serotonin activity.

91. Which of the following can be considered a symptom of major depression? a. changed eating habits b. hallucinations c. inflated self-esteem d. racing thoughts 92. Lisa is having a very stressful term in college. She has noticed changes in her sleeping habits, appetite, interest in her hobbies, and ability to concentrate. What should Lisa do? a. Nothing, as there is nothing wrong with her. All students experience these symptoms. b. She should contact her student health center and be evaluated for major depressive disorder. c. She should contact her student health center and be evaluated for bipolar disorder. d. She may have major depressive disorder, but she should wait for the term to be over and see if the symptoms go away on their own.

93. Your roommate is sleeping all day and skipping classes. She frequently wakes up irritable in the middle of the night.

When she goes to dinner, she shows no interest in anything on the menu, and she ends up eating snack foods. She has difficulty concentrating and has lost interest in hobbies that she used to enjoy. What might be going on with her? a. She might have bipolar disorder and should get medication.

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Ch 16 Psychopathology b. She might be depressed and should definitely see a doctor for a diagnosis. c. She might have schizophrenia and should see a doctor before it gets worse. d. She is probably just homesick and will be fine as soon as she gets over it.

94. Lifetime prevalence rates for major depressive disorder are about a. 1 b. 7 c. 12 d. 16

percent.

95. Prevalence rates for major depressive disorder are a. much higher for females than for males throughout the life span. b. much higher for males than for females throughout the life span. c. about equal between males and females until adolescence but increasingly higher for females than males at later ages. d. about equal between males and females until adolescence but increasingly higher for males than females at later ages.

96. Observed gender differences in rates of major depressive disorder (MDD) a. do not exist. b. are most likely due to environmental factors, such as sexism. c. are most likely due to biological factors. d. do not occur in nations other than the United States.

97. The heritability of depression appears to be between a. 10 and 20 b. 25 and 40 c. 30 and 50 d. 60 and 90

percent.

98. The genetic profile of major depressive disorder (MDD) overlaps all of the following EXCEPT a. schizophrenia. b. autism spectrum disorder. c. antisocial personality disorder. d. borderline personality disorder.

99. Data from the Million Veteran Program demonstrated that disorder (MDD). a. 2 b. 20 c. 200 d. 2000

genes are associated with major depressive

100. Women who were pregnant during the “Dutch Hunger Winter” of 1944–1945 were more likely to have children who were later diagnosed with Powered by Cognero

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Ch 16 Psychopathology a. major depressive disorder (MDD). b. anxiety disorders. c. autism spectrum disorder. d. personality disorders.

101. Prenatal events, such as the mother’s stress or near starvation, a. increase the likelihood a child will later develop schizophrenia and depression. b. increase the likelihood that the mother will later develop schizophrenia or depression. c. increase the likelihood that a child will later develop schizophrenia but decrease the likelihood that the child will develop depression. d. have no measurable impact on the child’s risk for developing depression.

102. One of the most significant environmental factors correlated with the development of major depressive disorder (MDD) is a. prenatal exposure to androgens. b. stress. c. emergency caesarean sections. d. high birth weight.

103. Biomarkers for the improved diagnosis of bipolar disorder may be found in signs of a. increased serotonin. b. oxidative stress. c. reduced volume of the amygdala. d. reduced volume of the hippocampus.

104. Relative to healthy controls, people with major depressive disorder (MDD) show a. no differences in brain structure or activity. b. increased volume in the hippocampus. c. decreased volume in the hippocampus. d. decreased volume in the hippocampus but increased volume in the orbitofrontal cortex.

105. In MDD, excess activity in the DMN (default mode network) is apparent. This excess activity is correlated with a. increased activity in both the right and left frontal lobes. b. decreased activity in both the right and left frontal lobes. c. rumination. d. anxiety.

106. Stephanie has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder (MDD). While participating in a research study at her university, her brain structure and activity were assessed during a decision-making task. Compared with healthy controls, what difference might the researchers observe in Stephanie’s brain? a. Her hippocampus and orbitofrontal cortex would have increased volume. b. Her orbitofrontal cortex would be more active. c. Her left cerebral hemisphere would show increased activity. d. Her hippocampus would have reduced volume.

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Ch 16 Psychopathology 107. Ronald has major depressive disorder (MDD), so we can assume his frontoparietal network is typically and his default mode network (DMN) is . a. overactive; underactive b. underactive; overactive c. active unpredictably; active unpredictably d. inactive; inactive 108. Jen has MDD and was asked to participate in a sleep study. Compared to healthy volunteers, Jen entered REM sleep a. earlier. b. later. c. only in the first half of the night. d. only in the last half of the night.

109. Depression is correlated with a. relatively normal amounts of sleep time but less REM than usual. b. relatively normal amounts of sleep time but more stage 3 and stage 4 non-REM sleep than normal. c. reduced amounts of sleep in all cases. d. both reduced amounts of sleep and greater than normal amounts of sleep.

110. People with major depressive disorder (MDD) spend a. more time in REM sleep than usual. b. less time in REM sleep than usual. c. more time in both REM and NREM than usual. d. less time in both REM and NREM than usual.

111.111.

(See Figure 16.21) The pattern of sleep indicated in the lower half of this image is typical of people who have been diagnosed with a. schizophrenia. b. bipolar disorder. c. major depressive disorder (MDD). d. autism spectrum disorder (ASD).

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Ch 16 Psychopathology 112. Most medications that are effective in treating major depressive disorder (MDD) have substantial side effects, including and . a. insomnia; suicidal tendencies b. sexual dysfunction; sleep disruption c. stomach upset; headache d. additional REM sleep; vivid nightmares 113. Professor Andrade has been investigating the relationship of sleep to depression for years. He has shown that a. depression seems to be related to irregular or missing circadian rhythms. b. men seem to have a phase advance and women have a phase delay in sleep patterns. c. depression for everyone is correlated with a phase advance in sleep. d. depression for everyone is correlated with a phase delay in sleep.

114. According to research, people who are diagnosed with MDD may have a. elevated levels of serotonin. b. reduced levels of glutamate. c. abnormal patterns of cortisol release. d. reduced levels of cortisol.

115. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is a. ineffective b. more effective c. less effective d. equally effective

when the patient’s symptoms are severe.

116. How does major depressive disorder (MDD) differ as a function of gender? a. Adult women are nearly twice as likely as men to be diagnosed with MDD. b. Adult men are nearly twice as likely as women to be diagnosed with MDD. c. Preadolescent boys are nearly twice as likely as preadolescent girls to be diagnosed with MDD. d. Preadolescent girls are nearly twice as likely as preadolescent boys to be diagnosed with MDD. 117. In addition to disruptions of serotonin activity, people with major depressive disorder (MDD) might also experience a. increased glutamate activity. b. decreased glutamate activity. c. decreased dopamine activity. d. increased dopamine activity.

118. In most cases, injection of dexamethasone a. suppresses cortisol release in healthy controls but not in patients with depression. b. suppresses cortisol release in patients with depression but not in healthy controls. c. increases cortisol release in healthy controls but not in patients with depression. d. increases cortisol release in patients with depression but not in healthy controls.

119. If, as some theorists suspect, serotonin has little or nothing to do with major depressive disorder, who will need to Powered by Cognero

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Ch 16 Psychopathology provide a rationale for the efficacy of SSRIs? a. non-depressed patients who take SSRIs b. depressed patients who successfully use non-SSRI medications c. physicians d. manufacturers of SSRIs 120. A dominant hypothesis attributes major depressive disorder (MDD) to reduction in serotonin activity. An extensive review found that this hypothesis is a. not supported. b. only partially supported. c. fully supported. d. based on faulty data.

121. Recent research has shown that alterations in neurochemical activity might be a secondary effect of the larger problem of a. neuroinflammation. b. disrupted hormones. c. obesity. d. heart disease.

122. SSRI medication produces remission from depression symptoms in a. nearly 100 percent b. about 75 percent c. slightly less than half d. around one third

of all cases.

123. Some studies suggest physical exercise, such as walking or jogging, a. has no impact on symptoms of depression. b. worsens symptoms of depression. c. produces a moderate reduction in depression but doesn’t have an effect when combined with SSRIs. d. produces a moderate reduction in depression.

124. Which of the following correctly summarizes outcome studies of treatment for depression? a. Medication is more effective than cognitive-behavioral therapy. b. Cognitive-behavioral therapy is more effective than medication. c. Neither medication nor cognitive-behavioral therapy appears effective. d. Cognitive-behavioral therapy is equally effective as antidepressant medication.

125. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) a. is no longer used to treat major depressive disorder (MDD). b. worsens symptoms of depression. c. produces profound memory loss. d. may be replaced by repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS).

126. Which statement is correct about electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) as a treatment for depression?

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Ch 16 Psychopathology a. ECT is always effective. b. ECT is effective more often than not. c. The efficacy of ECT has not yet been demonstrated. d. ECT has been shown to be ineffective.

127. About a. 0.5–1 b. 5–7 c. 16 d. 30

percent of people world-wide experience an anxiety disorder.

128. Genetics appear to a. predispose individuals to specific anxiety disorders. b. predispose individuals to anxiety disorders in general but not to a specific type. c. predispose individuals to some types of anxiety disorders but not all. d. play no causal role in anxiety disorders.

129. Professor Lam is talking to her class about psychological disorders. She states that physical exercise has beneficial effects on neuroinflammation and the HPA axis, making it a useful approach to treatment for a. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). b. schizophrenia. c. major depressive disorder (MDD). d. antisocial personality disorder (ASPD).

130. A common medication prescribed for anxiety disorders is a. paroxetine. b. aducanumab. c. antipsychotics. d. benzodiazepines.

131. Panic disorder affects approximately a. 1–2 b. 2–3 c. 4–5 d. 6–7

percent of the population.

132. Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between panic attacks and panic disorder? a. Having one panic attack meets the criteria for diagnosing panic disorder. b. Both panic attacks and panic disorder are quite common, affecting about one-quarter of the population. c. Both panic attacks and panic disorder are quite rare, affecting about 2–3 percent of the population. d. Panic attacks are common, but one must have repeated attacks and fear of attacks in order to be diagnosed with panic disorder.

133. Which one of the following is an example of the second type of psychological disorder experienced by 80 percent of people with panic disorder?

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Ch 16 Psychopathology a. antisocial personality disorder b. autism spectrum disorder c. bipolar disorder d. schizophrenia 134. David is undergoing testing for a suspected psychological disorder. His testing includes an injection of sodium lactate. The purpose of this injection is to a. treat David for obsessive-compulsive disorder, as he does not respond to other medications. b. see if David has major depressive disorder (MDD), in which case he will show an abnormal response to the sodium lactate in his HPA axis. c. see if David has bipolar disorder, in which case the sodium lactate will trigger a manic episode. d. see if David will respond with a panic attack, in which case he will probably be diagnosed with panic disorder.

135. Treatment for panic disorder usually includes a. antidepressant medication. b. medication with lithium. c. tranquilizers, such as Valium. d. electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).

136. A disorder that is characterized by repeated thoughts and ritualistic behaviors is known as a. panic b. posttraumatic stress c. obsessive-compulsive d. somatoform

disorder.

137. Alyssa washes her hands more than 50 times a day in order to avoid germs. In Alyssa’s case, washing her hands 50 times a day is a(n) , while fear of germs is a(n) . a. phobia; habit b. habit; phobia c. obsession; compulsion d. compulsion; obsession 138. Panic attacks can be artificially generated in patients with panic disorder by administering a. sodium lactate. b. aducanumab. c. minocycline. d. lithium.

139. Circuits connecting which of the following structures are implicated in obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)? a. the amygdala and raphe nuclei b. the amygdala and the hippocampus c. the posterior cingulate cortex and the hippocampus d. frontostriatal circuits 140. Cognitive-behavioral therapy produces the same changes in the Powered by Cognero

as medication does.

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Ch 16 Psychopathology a. frontal lobe b. corpus callosum c. basal ganglia d. hippocampus 141. Cognitive-behavioral therapy for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) a. is not effective. b. has weaker effects than medication alone. c. is as effective as medication alone but does not last as long. d. may be as effective as medication alone.

142. Severe cases of OCD might respond positively to a. deep brain stimulation in the area of the nucleus accumbens. b. lesions of the globus pallidus (pallidotomy). c. repeated transcranial magnet stimulation (rTMS). d. electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).

143. People with disorder experience unwanted flashbacks and hyperarousal. a. panic b. posttraumatic stress c. obsessive-compulsive d. generalized anxiety 144. Children are posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). a. more likely than adults to develop b. less likely than adults to develop c. about equally likely as adults to develop d. unlikely to develop 145. Patients with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) are a. equally likely to be male or female. b. more likely to be female than male. c. more likely to be male than female. d. more likely to be female if the PTSD results from combat but more likely to be male if the PTSD results from other types of trauma.

146. Which of the following statements about the types of trauma associated with the development of PTSD is true? a. Natural disasters are the most likely cause of PTSD, but PTSD also occurs as a result of combat, automobile accidents, and physical assaults. b. Combat is virtually guaranteed to result in PTSD, which is why the disorder used to be known as “shell shock.” c. Combat is a common trigger of PTSD, but PTSD also occurs as a result of natural disasters, automobile accidents, and physical assaults. d. Combat rarely results in PTSD, but automobile accidents produce PTSD in a majority of survivors.

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Ch 16 Psychopathology 147. Kah has been diagnosed with PTSD. Imaging scans of his brain might show a smaller a. hypothalamus. b. nucleus accumbens. c. hippocampus. d. amygdala.

148. Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) may be associated with a. reduced glutamate b. increased GABA c. reduced benzodiazepine d. increased serotonin

binding in the frontal cortex.

149. The is of interest in posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) due to the flashback and other memory-related symptoms of the disorder. a. hippocampus b. thalamus c. hypothalamus d. orbitofrontal cortex 150. Psychopaths lack all of the following EXCEPT a. guilt. b. empathy. c. boldness. d. intelligence.

151. In one study, criminal psychopaths were particularly impaired in their ability to perceive a. angry facial expressions. b. happy facial expressions. c. fear in a person’s voice. d. anger in a person’s voice.

152. The heritability of psychopathic traits is approximately a. 95 percent. b. 76 percent. c. 60 percent. d. 49 percent.

153. Focusing on antisocial behavior, which is a shared feature of both ASPD and psychopathy, research has shown that heritability is in antisocial behavior. a. nearly 100 percent b. a major significant factor c. a minor but significant factor d. an insignificant factor 154. Johnson and colleagues (2020) found that structures implicated in antisocial behavior include the Powered by Cognero

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Ch 16 Psychopathology a. basal ganglia and the corpus callosum. b. cerebellum and the hippocampus. c. basal ganglia and the CSF-brain barrier. d. amygdala and the frontotemporal cortex.

155. Raine and his colleagues (1998) reported that the lowest levels of frontal lobe activity are associated with a. all individuals diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder (ASPD). b. murderers whose personal background includes abuse and neglect. c. murderers whose personal background does not include abuse and neglect. d. murderers who are normally responsive to environmental stimuli.

156. Treatment for antisocial personality disorder (ASPD) have proven to be a. completely ineffective. b. extremely effective with psychopathic adolescents. c. modestly effective with psychopathic adults. d. elusive.

Enter the appropriate word(s) to complete the statement.

157. Zachery has schizophrenia. Mostly he experiences such as hearing voices. Occasionally, he also experiences when he goes through periods where he is emotionless. His doctor prescribed him some medication, but it caused him to have movement problems, a condition called .

158. Compared to the sleep pattern of a healthy individual in the top image, the sleep pattern in the lower image features much more time spent in and but virtually no time in stage of NREM sleep.

(See Figure 16.21)

159. Discuss the roles of genetics and environmental factors in the development of autism spectrum disorder (ASD).

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Ch 16 Psychopathology 160. Summarize the biochemical correlates of schizophrenia.

161. Discuss the correlations between brain activity and antisocial behavior.

162. Kym is worried that she might have a mental disorder. What are the general criteria that she must meet if she were to be diagnosed?

163. Ellsworth has been diagnosed with ADHD. If his brain were to be examined, what sorts of changes would doctors likely find?

164. Summarize what is known about the altered biochemistry in individuals with bipolar disorder.

165. Lala has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder (MDD). What treatments options are available to her?

166. Discuss the difference between an obsession and a compulsion?

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Ch 16 Psychopathology Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. a 12. b 13. c 14. d 15. c 16. d 17. d 18. a 19. a 20. b 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. d 25. c Powered by Cognero

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Ch 16 Psychopathology 26. c 27. d 28. b 29. b 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. d 37. a 38. a 39. c 40. d 41. a 42. c 43. d 44. b 45. b 46. c 47. d 48. a 49. a 50. b 51. b Powered by Cognero

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Ch 16 Psychopathology 52. c 53. d 54. c 55. d 56. d 57. c 58. a 59. c 60. a 61. c 62. d 63. a 64. b 65. d 66. b 67. c 68. d 69. b 70. a 71. b 72. a 73. d 74. b 75. c 76. b Powered by Cognero

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Ch 16 Psychopathology 77. c 78. a 79. c 80. d 81. a 82. b 83. c 84. b 85. c 86. d 87. d 88. c 89. a 90. b 91. a 92. b 93. b 94. b 95. c 96. c 97. c 98. c 99. c 100. a 101. a 102. b Powered by Cognero

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Ch 16 Psychopathology 103. b 104. c 105. c 106. d 107. b 108. a 109. d 110. a 111. c 112. b 113. a 114. c 115. d 116. a 117. c 118. a 119. d 120. a 121. a 122. d 123. d 124. d 125. d 126. c 127. c Powered by Cognero

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Ch 16 Psychopathology 128. b 129. c 130. d 131. b 132. d 133. c 134. d 135. a 136. c 137. d 138. a 139. d 140. c 141. d 142. a 143. b 144. a 145. b 146. c 147. c 148. c 149. a 150. d 151. c 152. d 153. b Powered by Cognero

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Ch 16 Psychopathology 154. d 155. c 156. d 157. positive symptoms; negative symptoms; tardive dyskinesia 158. wakefulness; REM; 3 159. Autism is described as a spectrum because the severity of the observed deficits and the course of the disorder vary widely from individual to individual. The causes of ASD remain unknown. Evidence from family and twin studies indicates that ASD is influenced by genetics. The concordance rate in identical twins is 76–88 percent. Relatives of people with ASD have elevated levels of autistic traits compared to people with no relatives with ASD. Genetic predispositions for ASD likely interact with multiple environmental factors. One environmental risk factor for ASD is perinatal complications or complications surrounding the birth of the individual. Advanced paternal age at conception (mid-30s or more) is correlated with increased risk of producing a child with autism. Exposure to infection, pesticides, and nutritional factors has also been implicated as possible risks for ASD. Maternal use of antidepressants, SSRIs in particular, during or prior to pregnancy increases the likelihood of giving birth to a child with ASD. 160. The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia rests on observations of psychosis resulting from higher levels of dopamine activity along with the efficacy of dopamine antagonists in treating schizophrenia. Amphetamine, cocaine, and L-dopa (used to treat Parkinson disease) are potent dopamine agonists. Over time, these drugs often produce behaviors similar to the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, including hallucinations and paranoid delusions. The dopamine antagonists used to treat schizophrenia, also known as typical antipsychotic medications, act by blocking the D2 dopamine receptor and reduce psychotic symptoms that result from either schizophrenia or stimulant abuse. In addition to possible abnormalities in the number of D2 receptors, patients with schizophrenia also show evidence of greater dopamine synthesis and release. Finally, a disturbance in glutamate systems might provide the large-scale effects that would account for the wide range of positive symptoms in schizophrenia. Patients with schizophrenia show evidence of reduced numbers of glutamate receptors in their brains. Patients with schizophrenia experience a greater drop in glutamate activity in the brain as a result of aging compared to healthy controls.

161. The model in which limbic activation, particularly in the amygdala, provides aggressive drive that is normally inhibited by the orbitofrontal cortex and ACC. According to this view, impulsive aggression will result from limbic overstimulation, insufficient frontal inhibition, or both. Not too surprisingly, abnormalities in these structures and their functions have been implicated in antisocial behavior. Lower amygdala volume is associated with childhood aggression, early psychopathic traits, and later violence in males. One of the most replicated findings in ASPD is reduced volume and activity in the prefrontal cortex. Damage to the orbitofrontal cortex is seen in individuals engaged in stealing, lying, aggressive behavior, poor parenting, and an inability to understand the consequences of their behavior. Psychopaths show different patterns of connectivity involving the frontal lobes when compared to typical control participants. In addition, the typical controls used the inferior frontal cortices and orbitofrontal cortices as information “hubs,” while the psychopaths used the superior frontal cortices for this function. The callousness that characterizes the psychopath might result from different patterns of brain activity. Criminal psychopaths showed less activity in several limbic structures than noncriminal controls when exposed to stimuli that normally elicit an emotional response, such as the word torture.

Criminal psychopaths were especially impaired in identifying fear in a person’s voice. These impairments in empathy, mediated by circuits involving the amygdala and by levels of oxytocin and vasopressin, could interfere with some of the normal controls that prevent us from hurting one another.

162. According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders 5, a mental disorder is “a syndrome characterized by clinically significant disturbance in an individual’s cognition, emotion regulation, or behavior that Powered by Cognero

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Ch 16 Psychopathology reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological, or development processes underlying mental functioning.” In other words, Kym must have a pattern of thinking, emotion, or behavior that is disrupting her day-to-day ability to function and develop.

163. Ellsworth would likely have changes to his frontal lobes, which would be associated with organization, impulsivity, emotional behavior, and sustained attention. However, the frontal lobes are not the only structures of interest in ADHD. He might also have less volume in the amygdala, basal ganglia, hippocampus, and the brain as a whole. Researchers have also identified differences between healthy controls and individuals with ADHD in the prefrontal cortex, the ACC, and the circuits that connect these areas, so Ellsworth’s doctors should look there. White matter disruption is also associated with ADHD as well as smaller volume of the caudate nucleus, a part of the basal ganglia.

164. Bipolar disorder is related to oxidative stress or an imbalance between the production of free radicals and the body’s defenses against them. In particular, bipolar disorder causes oxidative damage to the DNA of brain cells, which in turn leads to apoptosis. Higher amounts of DNA damage are correlated with the number of lifetime manic episodes. Lithium salts, a major form of treatment for bipolar disorder, produce antioxidant effects in animal models of mania and are likely to produce relief from symptoms in humans through this same means. Lithium salts also promote adult neurogenesis in the hippocampus. Consistent with observations of increased oxidative stress, bipolar disorder features changes that are consistent with accelerated aging. Similar changes in inflammation, amyloid, and neurotrophin activity are observed in both patients with bipolar disorder and individuals with dementia. Individuals with bipolar disorder experience earlier onset and higher rates of many diseases, including cardiovascular disease, cancer, and autoimmune diseases.

165. The most common treatment for MDD is antidepressant medication, particularly an SSRI. Her doctor would likely suggest that she try a medication first. In addition to the medication, her doctor would also likely recommend increasing her amount of exercise and attending some sort of cognitive-behavioral therapy. If those options don’t provide relief, she might try ECT. As a last resort, she might try deep brain stimulation.

166. Individuals with OCD are haunted by repetitive, intrusive thoughts (obsessions), the need to carry out repetitive behaviors (compulsions) such as hand washing or counting objects, or both. Typical obsessions include thoughts of germs and disease, fear for the safety of the self or others, symmetry, and religious or moral concerns. Common compulsions include washing, checking, touching, counting, and arranging. Compulsions appear to be efforts to ward off the anxiety produced by the obsessions. For example, people obsessed with germs and disease often compulsively wash their hands hundreds of times per day. OCD is associated with abnormal patterns of activity in the frontostriatal circuits implicated in tardive dyskinesia. The direct pathway facilitates movement and is inhibited by the indirect pathway result from excessive activity in the direct pathway. Exaggerated worries about danger, hygiene, or harm, mediated by the orbitofrontal cortex, might lead to greater attention to perceived threats (obsessions) and compulsive behaviors aimed at reducing threat. The experience of relief following performance of compulsive behaviors would reinforce this cycle.

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