Test Bank For Strategic Staffing 5th Edition by Jean Phillips All Chapter 1-13

TEST BANK Strategic Staffing 5th Edition by Jean Test Bank For Phillips Strategic Staffing 5e Jean M. Phillips Chapter 1-13

Chapter 1 1. An organization's competitive advantage is ________. a. not something that can be influenced by staffing b. the number of employees it hires in a year c. the annual employee turnover rate d. what it can do differently from its competitors ANS: d

REF: p. 2

TOP: Introduction

2. Staffing can be considered a cornerstone of human resource management because it ________. a. takes the largest part of the human resource budget b. determines the workforce available to the company c. takes the most time of any human resource management function d. is the only function performed by human resources ANS: b

REF: p. 3

TOP: Introduction

3. Strategically evaluating the company's current lines of business, new businesses it will be getting into, businesses it will be leaving, and the gaps between the current skills in the organization and the skills it will need to execute its business strategy is ________. a. workforce planning b. sourcing c. recruiting d. succession planning ANS: a

REF: p. 9

TOP: The Components of Strategic Staffing

4. Which of the following is the first of the seven components of strategic staffing? a. sourcing b. selecting c. workforce planning d. deploying ANS: c

REF: p. 9

TOP: The Components of Strategic Staffing

5. If a staffing specialist evaluates the external labor market to determine how challenging it will be to hire the talent her employer needs over the next few years, which of the following is being done? a. planning b. acquiring

c. sourcing d. performance management ANS: a

REF: p. 10

TOP: The Components of Strategic Staffing

6. When a firm determines that it will need to hire 50 customer service representatives within the next three months, it has engaged in ________. a. attracting b. placement c. workforce planning d. competency modeling ANS: c

REF: p. 10

TOP: The Components of Strategic Staffing

7. All organizational practices and decisions that affect either the number or types of individuals willing to apply for and accept job offers is ________. a. negotiating b. recruiting c. performance management d. human resource management ANS: b

REF: p. 11

TOP: The Components of Strategic Staffing

8. Locating qualified individuals and labor markets from which to recruit is ________. a. recruiting b. staffing c. deployment d. sourcing ANS: d

REF: p. 10

TOP: The Components of Strategic Staffing

9. The primary goal of ________ is to get the right people interested in working for an organization or in a specific job, then persuade them to apply and ultimately accept a job offer if one is extended. a. sourcing b. recruiting c. employer branding d. selecting ANS: b

REF: p. 11

TOP: The Components of Strategic Staffing

10. When a company creates an advertising campaign about what a great employer it is, it has engaged in ________. a. sourcing b. competency modeling c. employer branding

d. redeployment ANS: c

REF: p. 11

TOP: The Components of Strategic Staffing

11. Interviewing job candidates to assess their fit with the job and organization is part of ________. a. attracting b. selecting c. deploying d. employee profiling ANS: b

REF: p. 11

TOP: The Components of Strategic Staffing

12. When a supervisor assigns a new employee to a new project team, the manager has engaged in ________. a. deployment b. placement c. workforce planning d. competency modeling ANS: a

REF: p. 12

TOP: The Components of Strategic Staffing

13. When a supervisor introduces a new hire to her new colleagues and other important people in the organization, he is engaging in ________. a. deployment b. recruiting c. socialization d. career planning ANS: c

REF: p. 13

TOP: The Components of Strategic Staffing

14. Deployment involves ________. a. assigning talent to appropriate jobs and roles in the organization b. negotiating an employment contract c. getting new hires up to speed and productive on their job d. getting a job requisition approved ANS: a REF: p. 12 TOP: The Components of Strategic Staffing 15. If a company's employees have talents that would be useful to the organization and the company is not taking advantage of these talents, it is not being efficient in the activity of ________ talent. a. acquiring b. deploying c. sourcing d. recruiting

ANS: b

REF: p. 12

TOP: The Components of Strategic Staffing

16. Putting together an attractive job offer and negotiating with the candidate the company wants to hire is part of ________. a. onboarding b. attracting c. recruiting d. acquiring ANS: d

REF: p. 12

TOP: The Components of Strategic Staffing

17. Strategic staffing is a(n) _________ process. a. simple b. unethical c. matchmaking d. illegal ANS: c

REF: p. 13

TOP: The Components of Strategic Staffing

18. __________ relate to the hiring process itself. a. Process goals b. Outcome goals c. Hiring goals d. Evaluation goals ANS: a

REF: p. 14

TOP: The Goals of Strategic Staffing

19. Focusing on maximizing how quickly a position can be filled improves the _______ of the staffing process. a. efficiency b. effectiveness c. cost d. quality ANS: a

REF: p. 14

TOP: The Goals of Strategic Staffing

20. Focusing on the staffing goal of hiring quickly reflects a focus on _____. a. protecting a competitive advantage b. strategic performance c. efficiency d. a long-term outcome goal ANS: c

REF: p. 14

TOP: The Goals of Strategic Staffing

21. Which of the following is a hiring process goal? a. meeting stakeholder needs

b. enhancing organizational flexibility c. improving business strategy execution d. attracting diverse applicants ANS: d

REF: p. 15

TOP: The Goals of Strategic Staffing

22. Under which of the following circumstances does a company prefer to "churn" rather than keep existing employees? a. when technology is developing very rapidly b. when the existing employees are overqualified c. when the training period provided is short d. when competition in the market has increased ANS: a

REF: p. 16

TOP: The Goals of Strategic Staffing

23. RST is a small software firm that operates using the latest technology. As a result, the required employee skill sets change rapidly. The skill sets of employees who have been with the company for several years are found to be inferior to those of new hires, and the company has realized that fresh graduates are often better qualified to handle the projects. The firm's resources are limited, and it needs to spend as little as possible on the staffing function, reserving most of its capital for project-specific investments. Which of the following staffing goals would be most suited to the company's needs? a. Recruiting semi-skilled workers from nontraditional sources and training them. b. Reducing the employee turnover rate. c. Hiring employees every two years on a contract basis. d. Hiring employees whose skills can be developed over the long term.

ANS: c

REF: p. 16

TOP: The Goals of Strategic Staffing

24. A call center has adopted an expansionist strategy. It has taken on a number of big contracts from clients and is on a tight schedule to supply customer support services by the deadlines promised. Which of the following statements, if true, will result in the staffing goals being best aligned to the organizational strategy? a. The time taken to fill a position should be tracked for each recruiting source, and the fastest possible source of at least minimally qualified talent should be utilized. b. Only the best talent be selected, even if it takes a lot of time to hire. c. As many applicants should be hired as possible in order to get the needed number of employees quickly. d. The compensation offered should be higher than the average market rate to attract the maximum number of applicants.

ANS: a

REF: p. 15

TOP: The Goals of Strategic Staffing

25. Which of the following is NOT a stakeholder in the staffing process? a. supervisors b. employees

c. shareholders d. none of the above; all are stakeholders ANS: d

REF: p. 16

TOP: The Goals of Strategic Staffing

26. If an employer is unable to hire candidates with the desired qualifications, _______ may be its only option. a. compensating them highly b. training c. succession planning d. performance management ANS: b

REF: p. 18

TOP: Integrating the Functional Areas of Human

27. Which of the following does an employer have to do if it wants to hire successfully from the traditional labor pool? a. automate the job b. increase training c. reduce required qualifications d. provide competitive pay ANS: d

REF: p. 18

TOP: Integrating the Functional Areas of Human Resource Management

28. Leo Ink is a company that produces stationery items. In order to improve its profits, the company plans to hire new talent for a brand-new marketing team. The labor market has a shortage of qualified marketing professionals. In this situation, which of the following strategies could Leo Ink follow to make profits? a. Increase the salary offered to hire the needed marketing talent b. Increase its scale of production instead of hiring people c. Branch into the production of other items d. Continue in the present state ANS: a

REF: p. 19

TOP: Integrating the Functional Areas of Human Resource Management

29. Greg’s Bakery chain is planning to diversify into producing and selling candy. It has opened a new factory to support this plan, and the factory is ready to be staffed. The top management at Greg's has decided that it is willing to offer the best salaries in the industry to its latest employee additions. In this situation, which of the following staffing goals should Greg's follow? a. hiring a large number of employees b. hiring the best-qualified employees c. hiring high-salaried employees d. providing an extensive training period

ANS: b

REF: p. 18

TOP: Integrating the Functional Areas of Human Resource Management

30. Samuel joined an accounting firm as a clerk. Each Monday, he is assigned a new project which is due by Friday. It has been over five months since he joined the firm, but Samuel has yet to receive any feedback about his work performance from his supervisor. This is an example of poor ________. a. career development b. succession management c. performance management d. work training ANS: c

REF: p. 19

TOP: Integrating the Functional Areas of Human Resource Management

31. Succession management ensures that ________. a. a company attracts sufficient numbers of appropriately qualified applicants b. new employees will be motivated by the firm's compensation package c. high-potential new hires do not leave because they are overqualified and underchallenged d. an organization has people ready to assume leadership positions when they become available ANS: d

REF: p. 20

TOP: Integrating the Functional Areas of Human Resource Management

32. Staffing ethics are gaining more attention as _______ increase(s). a. business demands b. employee turnover c. hiring costs d. socially responsible investing ANS: d

REF: p. 21

TOP: Current Issues in Staffing

33. ____________ can pressure managers to suppress their ethical concerns in pursuit of profits. a. Shareholders b. The government c. Their families d. Elves ANS: a

REF: p. 21

TOP: Staffing Ethics

34. Staffing professionals are expected to act as agents of _________. a. their employer b. employees

c. shareholders d. their supervisors ANS: a

REF: p. 21

TOP: Staffing Ethics

35. Which of the following is NOT an ethical issue commonly faced by staffing professionals? a. Being pressured to promote an employee based on non-job-related criteria b. Being pressured to hire a manager’s underqualified relative c. Being asked not to lower hiring standards to meet a demanding hiring goal d. Failing to consider the role of unconscious bias in recruitment and selection ANS: c

REF: p. 23

TOP: Staffing Ethics

36. A(n) _________ is a set of rules outlining an employer’s behavioral expectations and the responsibilities of employees. a. employment contract b. code of conduct c. schema d. employer brand ANS: b

REF: p. 22

TOP: Staffing Ethics

37. When we recognize a situation as presenting an ethical issue, we have employed _______. a. a schema b. a contract c. our intuition d. metacognition ANS: a

REF: p. 22

TOP: Staffing Ethics

38. When an employer studies the causes of turnover among its high-performers, it is engaging in ___________. a. deployment b. succession management c. staffing ethics d. staffing analytics ANS: d

REF: p. 23

TOP: Staffing Analytics

39. ________ is being used to speed up hiring, lower hiring costs, and enhance the candidate experience during the hiring process. a. Staffing analytics b. Staffing technology c. Career planning d. Staffing ethics ANS: b REF: p. 23-24 TOP: Staffing Analytics

1. According to the resource-based view of the firm, in order to create value, staffing practices must ________. a. imitate the practices followed by competitors b. enhance the differentiation of the firm's products c. rapidly create new products or services d. maximize the number of applicants who are hired ANS: b

REF: p. 33

TOP: A Resource-Based View of the Firm

2. Which of the following, if true, would uphold a company's sustainable competitive advantage in front of rival firms? a. Workforce attributes encouraged by staffing practices are commonplace. b. Strategic staffing practices are difficult to imitate. c. Staffing practices have maximum substitutability. d. The firm should take care not to exploit staffing practices.

ANS: b

REF: p. 34

TOP: A Resource-Based View of the Firm

3. A company is successful at recruiting engineers by handing out flyers during community events near a university, which is highly-rated for its engineering program. The company's competitor effectively reaches the same audience by hanging banners at a similar event. This is an example of ________. a. substitutability b. value addition c. refutability d. inimitability ANS: a

REF: p. 34

TOP: A Resource-Based View of the Firm

4. __________ is/are most responsible for an organization’s ability to gain and keep a competitive advantage. a. How top leaders are compensated b. How it manages its money c. Its employees d. Its training and development program ANS: c

REF: p. 35

TOP: The Firm’s Business Strategy

5. Hiring people who are efficient, trainable, and willing to follow standardized procedures would support a(n) ________ competitive advantage. a. product leadership b. operational excellence c. customer intimacy d. training and development ANS: b

REF: p. 36

TOP: The Firm’s Business Strategy

6. Axis Auto tries to keep its operational spending as low as possible so that it can pass the savings on to customers in the form of lower prices. This is known as a ________ strategy. a. cost-leadership b. differentiation c. specialization d. growth ANS: a

REF: p. 36

TOP: The Firm’s Business Strategy

7. Organizations relying on a cost-leadership strategy would have what type of talent philosophy? a. viewing employees as assets b. viewing employees as investors c. keeping salaries competitive d. hiring as many people as possible ANS: a

REF: p. 46

TOP: The Firm’s Business Strategy

8. With which of the following competitive advantages is cost less of a barrier in attracting top talent for companies? a. product innovation b. cost leadership c. growth d. maturity ANS: a

REF: p. 37

TOP: The Firm’s Business Strategy

9. When a firm pursues a differentiation strategy, it is attempting to ________. a. achieve the efficient production and delivery of products b. be the lowest-cost producer for a product c. expand the company to increase the firm's sales d. develop products that have unique characteristics ANS: d

REF: p. 37

TOP: The Firm’s Business Strategy

10. Hiring people who are trainable and willing to follow standardized procedures would support a ________ competitive advantage. a. product leadership b. operational excellence c. customer intimacy d. training and development ANS: b

REF: p. 36

TOP: The Firm’s Business Strategy

11. Organic growth takes place when an organization ________.

a. b. c. d.

expands from within by opening new factories or stores acquires those companies with which it used to compete focuses on just one specific line of production branches into producing numerous other unrelated goods

ANS: a

REF: p. 38

TOP: The Firm’s Business Strategy

12. Hiring people who are active learners with good emotional resilience under pressure would support a ________ competitive advantage. a. product leadership b. operational excellence c. customer intimacy d. training and development ANS: c

REF: p. 38

TOP: The Firm’s Business Strategy

13. Hiring people who are entrepreneurial, creative, and have a high tolerance for ambiguity would support a ________ competitive advantage. a. product innovation b. operational excellence c. customer intimacy d. training and development ANS: a

REF: p. 37

TOP: The Firm’s Business Strategy

14. A firm pursuing an operational excellence competitive advantage would focus on acquiring top _______ talent. a. advertising b. sales c. research and development d. supply chain ANS: d

REF: p. 40

TOP: The Firm’s Business Strategy

15. Skylark Corporation produces apparel for women. The firm experienced rapid growth when it first opened, but for the last couple of years, business growth has slowed, but revenues remain good. Skylark is probably in the _________ phase of its life cycle. a. introduction b. growth c. maturity d. decline ANS: c

REF: p. 48

TOP: The Firm’s Business Strategy

16. A software company has a high turnover rate. What staffing strategy would be most appropriate?

a. b. c. d.

hiring people with the potential to be promoted over a period of years hiring people quickly even if their skills are not as high as required slowing down the hiring process to try to find better recruits filling vacancies quickly with people who are able to perform with minimal job training

ANS: d

REF: p. 42

TOP: The Firm’s Talent Philosophy

17. Taking the time to explain the hiring process and making every effort to follow up with candidates and minimize delays is an example of ________. a. viewing applicants as assets b. a commitment to ethical behavior c. a commitment to diversity d. hiring for long-term careers ANS: b

REF: p. 44

TOP: The Firm’s Talent Philosophy

18. In which of the following cases would a company opt for a short-term staffing strategy? a. Employee turnover is high. b. Employee skill sets need to be developed through intensive training. c. Higher-level managers need a substantial amount of knowledge about how the company works. d. competitive advantage ANS: a

REF: p. 44

TOP: The Firm’s Talent Philosophy

19. When viewing employees as assets, the staffing focus is on managing ________. a. performance b. costs c. hiring strategies d. existing employees ANS: b

REF: p. 43

TOP: The Firm’s Talent Philosophy

20. Compstar Limited establishes a mutually beneficial relationship in which employees are recognized as investing their resources, such as time or energy, in exchange for pay and benefits and an opportunity to develop their skills. This is an example of ________. a. viewing employees as assets b. a competitive disadvantage c. viewing employees as investors d. an innovation strategy ANS: c

REF: p. 43

TOP: The Firm’s Talent Philosophy

21. When viewing applicants and employees as investors, the goal is to ________. a. be as selective as possible in choosing whom to hire

b. ensure that the revenue generated by a new hire exceeds the new hire's total compensation level c. give applicants and employees a return on their personal contributions to the organization d. terminate the bottom performing 10% of employees every year ANS: c

REF: p. 43

TOP: The Firm’s Talent Philosophy

22. Which of the following, if true, would require a company to respectfully and honestly explain the hiring process to all applicants? a. The company is committed to practicing ethical behavior. b. The company views employees as investors. c. The company is solely interested in profit-making. d. The company views employees as assets.

ANS: a

REF: p. 44

TOP: The Firm’s Talent Philosophy

23. An organization’s staffing strategy should reflect and clearly support its ________. a. core workforce b. promotion needs c. compensation strategy d. business strategy ANS: d

REF: p. 41

TOP: Deriving the Firm’s Staffing Strategy

24. A staffing strategy of hiring people likely to be promoted over time would be compromised without a quality ___________. a. training and development system b. performance management system c. compensation system d. union representing the workforce ANS: a

REF: p. 47

TOP: Deriving the Firm’s Staffing Strategy

25. Bella Vista Inc. needs to hire a new marketing manager after the former manager retired. The company recruited James Anderson, who was employed in Webster & Co., and offered him the job of manager. This is an example of ________. a. internal talent focus b. growth focus c. external talent focus d. competitive advantage ANS: c

REF: p. 50

TOP: The Firm’s Strategic Staffing Decisions

26. Which of the following is compromised when retaining workers? a. creating a more loyal and committed workforce

b. creating a workforce that has a better understanding of the company's processes c. decreasing staffing costs d. a regular infusion of new ideas and perspectives ANS: d

REF: p. 52

TOP: The Firm’s Strategic Staffing Decisions

27. To hire technical skills a company expects to need in six months, it would engage in ________. a. talent-oriented staffing b. reactive staffing c. idiosyncratic staffing d. job-oriented staffing ANS: a

REF: p. 53

TOP: The Firm’s Strategic Staffing Decisions

28. Jen is the Human Resources manager for Bailey's, a large department store. A competitor, ShopWell, is scheduled to open nearby in a few months, and Jen is afraid that some of her staff may quit and join ShopWell. To prevent this, Jen introduces a performance incentive program that will reward Bailey's highest-performing employees at the end of the year. This is an example of ________. a. replacement charting b. idiosyncratic staffing c. proactive staffing d. reactive staffing ANS: c

REF: p. 53

TOP: The Firm’s Strategic Staffing Decisions

29. Idiosyncratic jobs are ________. a. created around a current new employee's unique skills b. created to fill an immediate hiring need c. jobs that have been in an organization for over 20 years d. jobs that are at the entry-level only ANS: a

REF: p. 54

TOP: The Firm’s Strategic Staffing Decisions

30. Ed Waters is a former CEO who was responsible for the dramatic turnaround of a food company. When Ed retired, Phil, the CEO of a travel agency, invited him to be a business consultant for the travel company, hoping that Ed's unusual strategies could work the same magic twice. Phil created a new designation and position in the company, especially for Ed. This is an example of ________. a. talent-oriented staffing b. a reactive job c. an idiosyncratic job d. job-oriented staffing ANS: c

REF: p. 55

TOP: The Firm’s Strategic Staffing Decisions

31. To maximize an employer’s investment in staffing, it should focus on the jobs that are critical to _____________. a. lowering the company’s turnover rate b. obtaining its competitive advantage c. reducing payroll costs d. improving diversity in the company ANS: b

REF: p. 54

TOP: The Firm’s Strategic Staffing Decisions

32. In which case would staffing be the best investment? a. when current employees perform well and have long tenure with the employer b. when a job is not complex and is easily learned c. when it is easy to find enough quality new hires d. when there is a lot of performance variability in a job ANS: d

REF: p. 54

TOP: The Firm’s Strategic Staffing Decisions

33. _____________ best allows an employer to create a consistent and strong image as an employer. a. Centralized staffing b. Decentralized staffing c. Talent-oriented staffing d. Job-oriented staffing ANS: a

REF: p. 56

TOP: The Firm’s Strategic Staffing Decisions

34. A company that lets each of its business units staff in whatever way they choose and house their own staffing function is an example of ________. a. delegation b. strategic staffing c. centralized staffing d. decentralized staffing ANS: d

REF: p. 56

TOP: The Firm’s Strategic Staffing Decisions

35. When a firm has a superior level of cooperation and innovation among its research team that allows it to design a new product two days faster than its competitors it has created a ________. a. human capital advantage b. talent maximization strategy c. human resource strategy d. human process advantage ANS: d

REF: p. 57

TOP: Achieving a Competitive Talent Advantage

36. When the employees of an organization cooperate well together and achieve very high performance as a result of how they work together, this is an example of a ___________. a. competitive advantage b. human process advantage c. human capital advantage d. process loss ANS: b

REF: p. 57

TOP: Achieving a Competitive Talent Advantage

37. When a manager decides how to most fairly identify internal candidates for a promotion, she is making a(n) __________. a. moral judgment b. schema c. moral intent d. ethical climate ANS: a

REF: p. 58

TOP: Ethics

38. When a recruiter is having a hard time filling a position and decides to mislead candidates into thinking the position has more opportunity for advancement than it does to make the job more appealing even though she knows this is wrong, this is an example of _________. a. ethical climate b. moral judgment c. schema d. moral intent ANS: d

REF: p. 58

TOP: Ethics

39. Which of the following is the best way for an organization to prepare employees for future ethical situations? a. Have an ethics code of conduct b. Provide scenario-based ethics training c. Tell employees to act ethically d. Put an ethics reporting feature on the company intranet ANS: b

REF: p. 59

TOP: Ethics

40. The time it takes to fill a position is an example of a staffing ______. a. statistic b. judgment c. metric d. correlation ANS: c

REF: p. 61

TOP: Analytics

41. Software that tracks recruits to help recruiters identify how many candidates are at each stage

of its hiring process is called a(n) _____________. a. applicant tracking system b. human resource information system c. database d. dashboard ANS: a

REF: p. 62

TOP: Technology

1. Which of the following is true for employment contracts? a. To be enforceable, an employment contract must be in writing. b. An oral contract is implicit, while a written contract is explicit. c. They give employees the upper hand in the employment relationship. d. An implicit contract is not specified in a written or verbal contract.

ANS: d

REF: p. 72

TOP: The Types of Employment Relationships

2. Employment-at-will is an employment relationship which ________. a. allows either the employee or employer to terminate the employment at any time b. offers blanket protection to employers for all employee discharges c. allows an employer to terminate employment only for a just cause d. offers employees a contract for a definite term of employment ANS: a

REF: p. 73

TOP: The Types of Employment Relationships

3. Which of the following are employees of a company who take on the operation of certain functions, or staff an entire office or factory on a contractual basis for a client or company? a. contingent workers b. at-will employees c. leased workers d. independent contractors ANS: c

REF: p. 75

TOP: The Types of Employment Relationships

4. Which of the following is true of a "closed shop"? a. Employers encourage unions to form. b. Employees need not remain union members after they are hired. c. Only union workers are employed. d. Employees must give up union membership once employed.

ANS: c

REF: p. 77

TOP: The Types of Employment Relationships

5. Which of the following was declared illegal by the Taft-Hartley Labor Act? a. open shop b. union shop c. agency shop d. closed shop

ANS: d

REF: p. 77

TOP: The Types of Employment Relationships

6. Which of the following is a characteristic of independent contractors? a. They have a continuous relationship with the employer. b. They do not receive benefits from the employer. c. They control the processes and results of their work. d. They do not pay their employment taxes, the employer does.

ANS: b

REF: p. 76

TOP: The Types of Employment Relationships

7. A right-to-work state prohibits _______. a. closed shops b. open shops c. union shops d. agency shops ANS: c

REF: p. 77

TOP: The Types of Employment Relationships

8. A(n) ________ only employs people who are already union members. a. agency shop b. union shop c. open shop d. closed shop ANS: d

REF: p. 77

TOP: The Types of Employment Relationships

9. The _________ improves corporate financial disclosures and protects investors from fraudulent corporate accounting.. a. Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 b. Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1970 c. The WARN Act of 1988 d. Rehabilitation Act of 1973 ANS: a

REF: p. 78

TOP: Risk Management

10. Monitoring and resolving risks is called __________. a. legal compliance b. risk assessment c. risk management d. risk control ANS: d

REF: p. 79

TOP: Risk Management

11. Department store BigTen refused to hire Max because of his religion. The store is in violation of ________.

a. b. c. d.

the WARN Act the USERRA of 1994 Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 the VEVRAA Act of 1974

ANS: c

REF: p. 83

TOP: Laws and Regulations

12. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits employment discrimination based on _____. a. age b. military veterans c. national origin d. disability ANS: a

REF: p. 81

TOP: Laws and Regulations

13. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 protects people ________. a. 30 years of age or older b. 40 years of age or older c. 50 years of age or older d. 60 years of age or older ANS: b

REF: p. 82

TOP: Laws and Regulations

14. The WARN Act of 1988 applies to ________. a. employers with up to 100 employees, not including part-time workers b. regular local, federal, and state government entities that provide public services c. private, public, and quasi-public entities which operate in a commercial context d. employers with employees who work less than 20 hours per week ANS: c

REF: p. 82

TOP: Laws and Regulations

15. The WARN Act relates to which of the following? a. recruiting b. selecting c. negotiating d. layoffs ANS: d

REF: p. 82

TOP: Laws and Regulations

16. The Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act ________. a. ensures that members of the uniformed services can return to their civilian employment after their military service ends b. ensures that veterans are equally represented in the workforce c. provides job training to members of the uniformed services to assist them in transitioning to civilian jobs

d. requires that a job board be maintained for the sole use of veterans transitioning to civilian jobs after their service ends ANS: a

REF: p. 82

TOP: Laws and Regulations

17. A BFOQ is a(n) ________. a. requirement for establishing a case of discrimination b. exception to employment-at-will relationship c. characteristic that is essential to the performance of a specific job d. analysis of a firm's competitive advantage ANS: c

REF: p. 87

TOP: Laws and Regulations

18. Affirmative action means ________. a. proactive plans to ensure nondiscriminatory results in employment practices b. employment practices are designed and used in a "facially neutral" manner c. employers must meet quotas to ensure employee diversity d. protection for employees against retaliatory discharge ANS: a

REF: p. 89-90

TOP: Equal Employment Opportunity, Affirmative Action, and Quotas

19. Which of the following is true for affirmative action plans? a. An affirmative action plan should not be remedial in nature. b. An affirmative action plan should exclude all non-minorities. c. An affirmative action plan should be temporary. d. An affirmative action plan does not need to be formalized.

ANS: c

REF: p. 90

TOP: Equal Employment Opportunity, Affirmative Action, and Quotas 20. An affirmative action plan should ________. a. be permanent b. exclude all nonminorities c. be informal and flexible d. be remedial ANS: d

REF: p. 91

TOP: Equal Employment Opportunity, Affirmative Action, and Quotas

21. The OFCCP __________. a. enforces EEO programs that apply to federal contractors and subcontractors b. is the only government agency that has the authority to impose quotas c. enforces Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 d. will only investigate an employer if an employee reports a possible violation ANS: a

REF: p. 95

TOP: Equal Employment Opportunity, Affirmative

Action, and Quotas 22. Mrs. Peters filed a complaint against her employers for firing her. She admitted to being late to work five days one month, but she claimed that she was fired on the grounds of being a female employee. This is an example of ________. a. fraudulent recruitment b. mixed motive case c. adverse impact d. negligent hiring ANS: b

REF: p. 98

TOP: The Bases for Employment Lawsuits

23. A manager only hires Hispanic women as secretaries. This is an example of ________. a. disparate treatment b. disparate impact c. negligent hiring d. sexual harassment ANS: a

REF: p. 97

TOP: The Bases for Employment Lawsuits

24. What is the best conclusion given the following information about research technicians employed in the scientific wing of a pharmaceutical organization? Females comprise 60 percent of the current workforce and 50 percent of the relevant population (research technicians) and males comprise 40 percent of the current workforce and 50 percent of the relevant population. a. There is a disparate impact on males as research technicians. b. There is a disparate impact on females as research technicians. c. There is no evidence of disparate impact among research technicians. d. There is evidence of disparate impact against both males and females as research technicians.

ANS: a

REF: p. 99

TOP: The Bases for Employment Lawsuits

25. Comparing the percentage of men, women, or minorities employed in a job category with their availability in the relevant population of qualified people interested in the position is an example of a ________. a. bona fide occupational qualification b. concentration statistic c. flow statistic d. stock statistic ANS: d

REF: p. 99

TOP: The Bases for Employment Lawsuits

26. If 33 percent of Hispanics are hired, 42 percent of whites are hired, and 50 percent of blacks are hired, disparate impact has occurred against ________. a. Hispanics

b. whites c. Hispanics and whites d. None of the groups ANS: a

REF: p. 100

TOP: The Bases for Employment Lawsuits

27. A hotel chain that is recruiting front desk receptionists receives 200 applications from males and 100 applications from females. 100 out of 200 men are hired and 25 out of 100 women are hired. Which of the following statements is true of the hotel chain's hiring policy? a. There is evidence of a disparate impact of the hiring process on males as a group. b. There is evidence of a disparate impact of the hiring process on females as a group. c. There is no evidence of any disparate impact. d. There is evidence of disparate impact against both males and females.

ANS: b

REF: p. 100

TOP: The Bases for Employment Lawsuits

28. Comparing the percentage of applicants hired from different subgroups to determine if they are significantly different from each other is an example of a ________. a. BFOQ b. concentration statistic c. flow statistic d. stock statistic ANS: c

REF: p. 100

TOP: The Bases for Employment Lawsuits

29. Comparing the percentages of men, women, or minorities in various job categories to see if men, women, or minorities are disproportionately represented in certain workforce categories is an example of a ________. a. hiring yield statistic b. concentration statistic c. flow statistic d. stock statistic ANS: b

REF: p. 101

TOP: The Bases for Employment Lawsuits

30. If a company makes promises to a recruit that it does not intend to keep, it could be found guilty of ________. a. negligent hiring b. negligent referral c. fraudulent recruitment d. violating the WARN Act ANS: c

REF: p. 103

TOP: The Bases for Employment Lawsuits

31. A company fails to do a background check that would have revealed that a person it has hired has the potential to harm others. The employee then physically harms a customer during a

disagreement. The company could be found guilty of ________. a. negligent hiring b. negligent referral c. fraudulent recruitment d. violating the WARN Act ANS: a

REF: p. 104

TOP: The Bases for Employment Lawsuits

32. When a competing hospital calls for an employee recommendation, a hospital manager fails to disclose negative information about a previous employee who was discharged for improper and reckless behavior toward a patient. This could be an example of ________. a. negligent hiring b. negligent referral c. fraudulent recruitment d. violating the WARN Act ANS: b

REF: p. 105

TOP: The Bases for Employment Lawsuits

33. A recruiter who is under a lot of pressure to hire a talented research scientist tells her that the company’s growth rate is much higher than it actually is to try to get her to accept a job offer.

This is an example of _________. a. negligent hiring b. negligent referral c. fraudulent recruitment d. violating the WARN Act ANS: c

REF: p. 103

TOP: The Bases for Employment Lawsuits

34. When Mary hires a candidate because they went to the same university, which of the following has occurred? a. stereotyping b. like-me bias c. prejudice d. hiring manager bias ANS: b

REF: p. 107

TOP: Barriers to Legally Defensible Staffing

35. "All men are strong" is an example of which type of bias? a. like-me bias b. stereotyping c. prejudice d. ignorance ANS: b

REF: p. 107

TOP: Barriers to Legally Defensible Staffing

36. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission imposed compensatory damages on Czar

Microsystems Ltd. for discriminating against an employee on the basis of their age. Czar claimed to be unaware of any such law. This is an example of the ________ barrier to equal employment opportunity. a. generational b. stereotype c. prejudice d. ignorance ANS: d

REF: p. 108

TOP: Barriers to Legally Defensible Staffing

37. The ___________ ethical approach assesses a decision as ethical if the ends are beneficial to the greatest number of people, regardless of the means. a. consequentialist b. human rights c. virtue d. fairness ANS: a

REF: p. 111

TOP: What Ethical Theories Apply to Staffing?

38. The __________ ethical approach defines a morally correct action as one that an individual has a moral right to do and that does not infringe on the moral rights of others. a. consequentialist b. human rights c. virtue d. fairness ANS: b

REF: p. 111

TOP: What Ethical Theories Apply to Staffing?

39. The ________ ethical approach proposes that an action must result in those affected by it being treated with respect and in ways to which they have freely consented and not just to make money for the employer. a. consequentialist b. human rights c. virtue d. fairness ANS: b

REF: p. 111

TOP: What Ethical Theories Apply to Staffing?

40. The ________ ethical approach proposes that a person’s or employer’s character rather than specific behaviors is what is important. a. consequentialist b. human rights c. virtue d. fairness ANS: c

REF: p. 112

TOP: What Ethical Theories Apply to Staffing?

41. The ______ ethical approach uses the standard “do unto others as you would have done unto you” to determine if an action is ethical. a. consequentialist b. fairness c. cultural relativism d. duty ethics ANS: d

REF: p. 113

TOP: What Ethical Theories Apply to Staffing?

42. When Mary believes that it is ethical to use a hiring method that is illegal in the U.S. in another country in which it is legal to use, she is probably applying which ethical approach? a. stereotyping b. like-me bias c. cultural relativism d. fairness ANS: c

REF: p. 113

TOP: What Ethical Theories Apply to Staffing?

43. If coworkers are well aware of a colleague’s ethical lapses but the supervisor, who sees the same behaviors, doesn’t notice the ethical violations because the supervisor feels responsible for the hire, this is an example of _________. a. rationalizing b. groupthink c. moral courage d. motivated blindness ANS: d

REF: p. 116

TOP: What Ethical Theories Apply to Staffing?

44. If a recruiter believes that it is alright to inflate her travel expenses because she thinks other employees do it and get away with it, she is engaging in ________. a. rationalizing b. groupthink c. moral courage d. motivated blindness ANS: a

REF: p. 116

TOP: What Ethical Theories Apply to Staffing?

45. When data that reflects previous hiring biases is used in an algorithm to make future hiring decisions _______ has occurred. a. rationalizing b. algorithmic bias c. disparate treatment d. motivated blindness ANS: b

REF: p. 117

TOP: Algorithmic Bias

46. Some websites provide tools to help calculate ___________. a. disparate impact statistics b. human rights violations c. negligent hiring d. disparate treatment statistics ANS: a REF: p. 117-118 TOP: Technology 1. A formal group or cluster of tasks is a ________. a. job analysis b. job family c. person specification d. job ANS: d

REF: p. 128

TOP: Introduction

2. A role that directly generates revenue for an employer is a ________. a. value enabler b. value creator c. competency d. job ANS: b

REF: p. 128

TOP: Introduction

3. The sets of behaviors people are expected to display in a company are called ________. a. value enablers b. roles c. competencies d. jobs ANS: b

REF: p. 128

TOP: Introduction

4. When Mary's Macaroons conducted a ________ on its customer service positions, it found that 35% of the customer service employee's time was being spent on administrative duties, not focusing on customer service. a. workflow analysis b. value chain analysis c. job rewards analysis d. competency analysis ANS: a

REF: p. 130

TOP: Introduction

5. When a manager specifies what a new job will require and how it should be done, she is engaging in job ________. a. enrichment b. design

c. enlargement d. redesign ANS: b

REF: p. 130

TOP: Job Design and Redesign

6. When a worker is given more tasks to do, this is called job ________. a. enrichment b. design c. enlargement d. redesign ANS: c

REF: p. 130

TOP: Job Design and Redesign

7. When a manager gives a high performing worker more discretion in how he does his job, this is an example of job ________. a. enrichment b. design c. enlargement d. redesign ANS: a

REF: p. 130

TOP: Job Design and Redesign

8. When a team of employees analyzes their workflow to improve efficiency, this is an example of ________. a. job enlargement b. workflow analysis c. competency analysis d. job rewards analysis ANS: b

REF: p. 130

TOP: Workflow Analysis

9. A systematic process of identifying and describing the important aspects of a job and the characteristic a worker needs to perform the job well is a ________. e. legal audit f. job analysis g. bona fide occupational qualification h. job specification ANS: b

REF: p. 131

TOP: What is Job Analysis?

10. A job analysis ________. a. establishes hiring quotas for different protected groups b. ensures that equal numbers of all protected groups are in a firm's workforce c. determines a job's entry requirements d. is generated by an affirmative action plan

ANS: c

REF: p. 131

TOP: What is Job Analysis?

11. A job analysis that produces a valid selection system identifies characteristics in candidates that ________. a. can be easily replaced b. are not easily learned on the job c. are easily manipulated d. can ensure efficiency and low cost at the same time ANS: b

REF: p. 132

TOP: What is Job Analysis?

12. Analyzing how a job will look in three years to enable recruiters to hire people who will be able to do the job effectively over time is a ________. a. strategic analysis b. role analysis c. future-oriented job analysis d. competency analysis ANS: c

REF: p. 133

TOP: What is Job Analysis?

13. Legal reasons for doing a job analysis relate to ________. a. making sure that hiring methods are job-related b. controlling risk c. reducing performance variability d. controlling hiring costs ANS: a

REF: p. 133

TOP: What is Job Analysis?

14. If the job of a loader exists to load packages on delivery trucks, the ability to safely lift and load packages onto a truck is a(n) ________. a. job description b. desirable criteria c. job grade d. essential function ANS: d

REF: p. 133

TOP: What is Job Analysis?

15. In analyzing a job of a stenographer that is to be advertised as a vacancy, an employer found that the ________ for the job was rapid typing skills. a. bona fide occupational qualification b. employee value proposition c. desirable criteria d. essential function ANS: d

REF: p. 133

TOP: What is Job Analysis?

16. A summary of the characteristics of someone able to perform the job well is a ________. a. job requisition b. job analysis c. job description d. person specification ANS: d

REF: p. 135

TOP: Job Descriptions and Person Specifications

17. If speaking German is something that it is nice for employees to be able to do but is not necessary for good job performance, then speaking German is a(n) ________. a. essential criteria b. desirable criteria c. job description d. competency ANS: b

REF: p. 136

TOP: Job Descriptions and Person Specifications

18. The ________ job analysis technique identifies behaviors that lead to extremely effective or extremely ineffective job performance. a. task inventory b. job elements c. critical incidents d. structured interview ANS: c

REF: p. 138

TOP: Common Job Analysis Methods

19. The job analysis method that uses expert brainstorming sessions to identify the characteristics of successful workers is the ________. a. task inventory method b. job elements method c. critical incidents method d. structured interview method ANS: b

REF: p. 139

TOP: Common Job Analysis Methods

20. Alex and Jane are the best economists that FlexMoney Inc., a consulting firm, has. However, FlexMoney is in urgent need to hire more economists, and Alex and Jane are told to come up with all the criteria that they think will influence the ability to succeed in this field. This should give the higher management a good idea of the nature of the job and the kind of people they should be looking to hire. Which job analysis method is being used by FlexMoney? a. task inventory method b. job elements method c. critical incidents method d. Position Analysis Questionnaire method

ANS: b

REF: p. 139

TOP: Common Job Analysis Methods

21. A _____ generates a list of 50 to 200 tasks grouped in categories reflecting major functions of the job as the functions relate to selection purposes. a. personality assessment b. task inventory c. skills inventory d. job analysis ANS: b

REF: p. 141

TOP: Common Job Analysis Methods

22. Which of the following are advantages of using structured questionnaires for job analysis? a. speed and low reading level b. standardization and low reading level c. standardization and the ability to capture unique aspects of the job d. speed and low cost ANS: d

REF: p. 141

TOP: Common Job Analysis Methods

23. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using the task inventory job analysis method? a. inability to distinguish superior from average workers b. lack of objectivity c. lack the ability to fit unique needs of the organization d. relatively small amount of data is collected ANS: a

REF: p. 141

TOP: Common Job Analysis Methods

24. When the main job duties have already been determined, a(n) ________ job analysis would be required. a. inductive b. deductive c. reactive d. idiosyncratic ANS: b

REF: p. 138

TOP: Planning a Job Analysis

25. When a job is brand new, and the main job duties have been determined, a(n) ________ job analysis would be required. a. inductive b. deductive c. reactive d. idiosyncratic ANS: a

REF: p. 138

TOP: Planning a Job Analysis

26. Which of the following arguments about job analysis is most effective in order to gain the

support of top managers? a. Multiple approaches to job analysis can be combined to address the limitations of any single approach. b. The process will help identify employee characteristics that will enable the firm's business strategy and increase the company's return on its staffing investment. c. It is not uncommon for the job experts doing the analysis to try to color the job analyst's interpretation of the job to suit their personal goals and needs. d. By adequately planning and preparing for the job analysis, the results are likely to be more accurate and useful, and the job analysis should take less time and effort.

ANS: b

REF: p. 137

TOP: Conducting a Job Analysis

27. Which of the following is not typically used as background information about a job when conducting a job analysis? a. Training information for the job b. Performance reviews for the job c. Competitors’ job descriptions for similar jobs d. Entry examinations for the job ANS: c

REF: p. 143

TOP: Conducting a Job Analysis

28. Tamika Johnson is a senior HR executive at CarMakers Corp. She has been informed that the company needs to hire five lineworkers for their Kingston plant. Phoebe decides to go down to the plant to get a better idea of the work. She speaks to the line workers there and gets firsthand information about the important aspects of the job involved. Phoebe is using the ________ method to collect information. a. job family description b. entry examination c. job profiling d. desk audit ANS: d

REF: p. 143

TOP: Conducting a Job Analysis

29. The first step in conducting a job analysis is to ________. a. get the support of top management b. communicate the purpose of the job analysis to the job experts c. collect critical incidents d. write the job description and person specification ANS: a

REF: p. 142

TOP: Conducting a Job Analysis

30. A job task is a(n)________. a. observable unit of work with a beginning and an end b. set of related tasks that are repeated on the job c. set of KSAOs d. employee characteristic related to job performance

ANS: a

REF: p. 145

TOP: Conducting a Job Analysis

31. In staffing, O*NET is used for ________. a. background job analysis information b. legal research c. job rewards analyses d. identifying a firm's best business strategy ANS: a

REF: p. 144

TOP: Conducting a Job Analysis

32. Which of the following is contained in a task statement? a. the type of people required for the job b. how to recruit for the given job specifications c. the physical working conditions of the job d. identifying the changes anticipated for the position ANS: c

REF: p. 145

TOP: Conducting a Job Analysis

33. Typing at least 90 words per minute with 3 or fewer errors is a ______. a. knowledge b. competency c. other characteristic d. skill ANS: d

REF: p. 147

TOP: Conducting a Job Analysis

34. A behavior that interferes with leader performance is a ________. a. job element b. detractor c. derailer d. competency ANS: c

REF: p. 149

TOP: Conducting a Job Analysis

35. A summary of the information collected during a job analysis is a ______. a. job requirements matrix b. job description c. person specification d. job rewards analysis ANS: a

REF: p. 153

TOP: Conducting a Job Analysis

36. ________ are more broadly defined components of a successful worker's behavior capabilities needed to do the job well. a. Talents

b. Competencies c. Skills d. Abilities ANS: b

REF: p. 155

TOP: Other Methods: Competency Modeling and Job Rewards Analysis

37. Enjoying continuous learning opportunities and the satisfaction of meeting personal goals are examples of a job’s ________. a. intrinsic rewards b. a job's total rewards c. a job's total compensation package d. extrinsic rewards ANS: a

REF: p. 157

TOP: Other Methods: Competency Modeling and Job Rewards Analysis

38. Dana works as a financial consultant at a start-up company called MoneyCare. While some of her friends earn more than she does working for similar positions in other companies, Dana finds her work far more interesting and challenging than what her friends do. As MoneyCare is a small organization, Dana has a lot of responsibilities and believes that she is actually learning far more on the job than she thought she would. Which of the following statements is true about Dana? a. She thinks total rewards from her job are low. b. She finds the intrinsic rewards from this job very satisfying. c. She thinks the extrinsic rewards from this job are very high. d. The extrinsic rewards account for the bulk of the total rewards she gets from this job.

ANS: b

REF: p. 157

TOP: Other Methods: Competency Modeling and Job

1. Which of the following is the first step in the typical workforce planning process? a. identifying the firm's business strategy b. articulating the firm's strategic staffing decisions c. developing and implementing action plans d. conducting a workforce analysis ANS: a

REF: p. 173

TOP: The Workforce Planning Process

2. Anna is the manager of human resources at Alcatec Inc. She is comparing the number of employees required over the next six months versus the capabilities of her existing workforce adjusted for attrition. She is trying to identify any gaps between the two. Which step of the workforce planning process is discussed here? a. monitor and revise the forecasts and action plans b. articulate the firm's strategic staffing decisions c. develop and implement action plans d. conduct a workforce analysis

ANS: d

REF: p. 173

TOP: The Workforce Planning Process

3. Typically, when interest rates rise, a. businesses are willing to borrow more money. b. consumers are willing to borrow more. c. businesses are less likely to expand. d. businesses make bigger capital investments.

ANS: c

REF: p. 175

TOP: The Workforce Planning Process

4. A Japanese company that makes electronic watches exports 90 percent of its products to the United States. Which of the following will happen if the dollar strengthens against the Japanese Yen? a. The company's watches will become less expensive in the US. b. The purchasing power of US consumers will decline. c. The company will have to reduce its number of employees. d. The company will export lesser number of watches to the US. ANS: a

REF: p. 175

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Demand

5. ROM Corporation had kept all its hiring plans on hold during the last four quarters because the economy was in a state of recession. ROM manufactures data cards, memory chips, and LCD monitors. The company is analyzing market trends in order to reassess its hiring strategy for the coming year. Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument for restarting hiring? a. The previous recessionary had only lasted a year. b. Though there was a decline in profits compared to the previous year, the company recently reported the best numbers in its industry. c. Computer manufacturers have aggressively started hiring more staff. d. One of ROM's fiercest rivals has started laying off its employees.

ANS: c

REF: p. 176

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Demand

6. If a company employs two office assistants for every nine architects (a staffing ratio of 2:9) and it plans to expand and hire eighteen new architects, how many new office assistants will it need to hire? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 ANS: b

REF: p. 178

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Demand

7. Which of the following events suggests that a home improvement store such as Home Depot or Lowe's will need fewer workers in the next 1-3 years? a. increased housing purchases

b. a decrease in consumer disposable income c. an increase in consumer spending d. falling interest rates ANS: b

REF: p. 176

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Demand

8. Which of the following, if true, would require a company to make adjustments to its historical employee-productivity ratios? a. The company is able to recruit more easily because of higher unemployment in the market. b. The company's cost of borrowing is going down. c. The company is expecting higher volumes of work in the next two years. d. The company is adopting a more efficient manufacturing system.

ANS: d

REF: p. 178

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Demand

9. ________ involves looking at past employment patterns and using those patterns to predict a firm's future labor needs. a. Trend analysis b. Judgmental forecasting c. ROI analysis d. Transition analysis ANS: a

REF: p. 180

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Demand

10. Work done by _______ is considered value-adding. a. direct labor b. indirect labor c. contract workers d. leased workers ANS: c

REF: p. 181

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Demand

11. A decrease in the __________ generally reflects an overstaffing of indirect labor relative to direct labor. a. productivity ratio b. hiring yield c. staffing trend d. transition analysis ANS: a

REF: p. 181

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Demand

12. Which of the following forecasting methods relies on the experience and insights of people in the organization to predict a firm's future employment needs? a. trend analysis b. ROI analysis

c. judgmental forecasting d. transition analysis ANS: c

REF: p. 181

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Demand

13. If managers are asked to estimate their optimal headcount for the following year for staffing planning purposes, which of the following has been used? a. ratio analysis b. trend analysis c. scatter plots d. judgmental forecasting ANS: d

REF: p. 181

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Demand

14. Why is it usually best to supplement the ratio, scatter plot, and trend forecasting methods with managerial judgment? a. because judgment forecasting is the most accurate method b. because historical trends and relationships can change c. because top-down approaches need analytical validation d. because firms need to keep their fingers on the pulse of their labor markets ANS: b

REF: p. 181

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Demand

15. New salespeople at a retail store generate an average of $50,000 in profit their first year. In addition, the reduced workload on the rest of the sales staff improves their efficiency and ability to provide high-quality customer service by 10 percent. This is worth an additional $20,000 to the company. The cost of hiring and training a new salesperson is expected to be $3,000 and $8,000, respectively. The salary for this position is $35,000. What is the return on investment of hiring an additional salesperson? a. 152% b. 163% c. 200% d. 143% ANS: a

REF: p. 182

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Demand

16. ________ is a quantitative technique that can be used to analyze a firm's internal labor markets and forecast its internal labor supply. a. Trend analysis b. Judgmental forecasting c. ROI analysis d. Transition analysis ANS: d

REF: p. 183

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Supply

17. Which of the following is true of transition analysis?

a. b. c. d.

It can account for multiple moves.

It assumes that all employees in a job have an equal probability of movement.

It is a qualitative technique.

It does not rely on historical patterns and activity levels.

ANS: b

REF: p. 185

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Supply

18. Identify the primary limitation of all forecasting techniques. a. They are qualitative in nature. b. They tend to give biased estimates. c. They rely on managerial intuition and judgment. d. They rely on historical patterns and activity levels.

ANS: d

REF: p. 186

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Supply

19. Which of the following is more likely to warrant changes in an organization's compensation policy and induce it to offer above-market wages? a. decreasing unemployment rates b. decrease in the number of employees quitting jobs c. reduction in the number of companies in its industry d. restructuring of jobs to make them more process oriented ANS: a

REF: p. 186

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Supply

20. Which of the following are detailed records or databases that summarize each employee's skills, competencies, education, training, languages spoken, and chances of being promoted? a. performance reviews b. transition databases c. talent inventories d. replacement charts ANS: c

REF: p. 187

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Supply

21. Which of the following would be most useful for a firm needing to quickly reassign employees to an important new project? a. job analysis b. transition analysis c. a talent inventory d. trend analysis ANS: c

REF: p. 182

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Supply

22. Which of the following visually shows each of the possible successors for a job and summarizes their strengths, present performance, promotion readiness, and development needs? a. scatter diagrams

b. perceptual maps c. talent inventories d. replacement charts ANS: d

REF: p. 186

TOP: Forecasting a Firm’s Labor Supply

23. After the gaps between the firm's labor supply and labor demand are identified, a firm should: a. develop and implement action plans. b. conduct a workforce analysis. c. identify its business strategy. d. articulate its talent philosophy and strategic staffing decisions.

ANS: a

REF: p. 190

TOP: Resolving Gaps Between the Firm’s Labor Supply and Labor Demand

24. Which of these is a way that employers try to manage temporary talent shortages? a. Outsource the work b. Replace workers with robots c. Hire consultants d. Lower the pay offered for the job ANS: c

REF: p. 191

TOP: Resolving Gaps Between the Firm’s Labor Supply and Labor Demand

25. Which of the following is a way in which many organizations try to reduce their need for skills that will be in short supply for a number of years? a. exiting certain lines of business b. redesigning jobs c. focusing on other areas where there is adequate labor supply d. focus on unskilled labor ANS: b

REF: p. 192

TOP: Resolving Gaps Between the Firm’s Labor Supply and Labor Demand

26. When an employer outsources its customer service function to another company it has engaged in _______. a. contingent hiring b. business process outsourcing c. offshoring d. staffing planning ANS: b

REF: p. 192

TOP: Resolving Gaps Between the Firm’s Labor Supply and Labor Demand

27. Which of the following is a way in which companies usually deal with temporary employee

surpluses? a. offering early retirement options b. stopping filling of vacated positions c. announcing massive layoffs d. removing contingent workers ANS: d

REF: p. 193

TOP: Resolving Gaps Between the Firm’s Labor Supply and Labor Demand

28. Which of the following is not a question that needs to be answered when planning the staffing process? a. How many people should be recruited? b. What resources are needed? c. How much time will it take to hire the employees? d. What is the best place to advertise the job opening?

ANS: c

REF: p. 194

TOP: Staffing Planning

29. What is the ideal number of applicants to recruit for an opening? a. Ten times the number that needs to be hired b. It depends on the nature of the employer’s staffing and HR strategies c. Twice the number that needs to be hired d. At least 10 per entry-level position and 20 per managerial-level job ANS: b

REF: p. 194

TOP: Staffing Planning

30. Which term refers to the proportion of applicants moving from one stage of the hiring process to the next? a. staffing yields b. hiring yields c. attrition d. retention ANS: a

REF: p. 194

TOP: Staffing Planning

31. Hiring yield refers to: a. the proportion of hires coming through a particular recruiter. b. the return on investment from one additional hire. c. the percent of applicants ultimately hired. d. the proportion of applicants moving from one stage of the hiring process to the next.

ANS: c

REF: p. 194

TOP: Staffing Planning

32. If an employer has 200 applicants, interviews 50 of them, and ultimately hires 20 of them, what is its hiring yield? a. 10%

b. 25% c. 40% d. 50% ANS: a

REF: p. 194

TOP: Staffing Planning

33. _________ will lessen the burden placed on the assessment system. e. Hiring more recruiters f. Reducing hiring yields g. Increasing the quality of the applicant pool h. Raising pay ANS: c

REF: p. 195

TOP: Staffing Planning

34. ________ forecasting uses historical data on the average number of hires typically made per recruiter or the average number of recruits processed per recruiter over a given period of time, say, a week, month, or year. a. Staffing efficiency-drive b. Hiring-yield driven c. Staffing-yield driven d. Workload-driven ANS: d

REF: p. 197

TOP: Staffing Planning

35. Which of the following is NOT a cost of making an internal hire? a. Internal recruiter costs b. Relocation costs c. Search firm fees d. Relocation costs ANS: c

REF: p. 197

TOP: Staffing Planning

36. A firm's internal and external staffing costs were $50,000, and 5 people were hired, each with a starting base salary of $40,000. What would be the firm's staffing efficiency? a. 12.5% b. 25% c. 16.7% d. 125% ANS: b

REF: p. 197

TOP: Staffing Planning

37. Which of the following observations is true? a. Continuous recruiting involves recruiting an entirely new applicant pool every time the organization has one or more positions to fill. b. Batch recruiting is particularly useful for positions that turn over relatively quickly. c. Jobs recruited using batch recruiting typically take a longer time to fill than jobs

recruited using continuous recruiting. d. Continuous recruiting does not work well for jobs that take a long time to fill, or for jobs that cost the organization a lot of money while they are vacant.

ANS: c

REF: p. 199

TOP: Staffing Planning

38. Which of the following is NOT data related to a diversity goal? a. A low hiring yield b. Pay equity data c. Surveys of employees’ disability status across different jobs d. Job application rates of people of different races ANS: a

REF: p. 200

TOP: Diversity Planning

39. Which of the following is NOT a leading indicator of ethical staffing issues? a. A low hiring yield a. No code of ethics b. Rewarding results c. Conflicting goals ANS: a

REF: p. 201

TOP: Ethics

40. _______ can help an employer streamline the hiring process and reduce hiring costs. a. Workload-driven forecasting b. Business process outsourcing c. Demand forecasting d. Analytics ANS: d

REF: p. 202

TOP: Analytics

41. _______ predicts how busy an employer will be at a particular time and how many employees it will need as a result. a. Timeline analysis b. Staffing efficiency analysis c. Demand forecasting d. Yield analysis ANS: c

REF: p. 202

TOP: Analytics

1. A successful executive, who is happy with her current position, does not look for information about other jobs, but might be tempted by a great opportunity is a(n) ________. a. active job seeker b. passive job seeker c. semi-passive job seeker d. non-active job seeker

ANS: b

REF: p. 214

TOP: What is Sourcing?

2. A college senior looking for her first full-time job is a(n) _________ job seeker. a. desperate b. semi-passive c. passive d. active ANS: d

REF: p. 213

TOP: What is Sourcing?

3. A recruiting source that is _______ is the most effective. a. slower b. more expensive c. better at finding qualified diverse talent d. unable to find candidates willing to accept job offers ANS: c

REF: p. 214

TOP: What Makes a Recruiting Source Effective?

4. Which of the following is an internal recruiting source? a. Succession management b. Career fairs c. Boolean searching d. College recruiting ANS: a

REF: p. 215

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

5. Which of the following is an external recruiting source? a. LinkedIn b. Job slotting c. Employee development d. Talent inventories ANS: c

REF: p. 215

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

6. The ongoing process of recruiting, evaluating, developing, and preparing employees to assume other positions in the firm in the future is ________. a. a qualifications inventory b. succession management c. a job posting system d. resume database building ANS: b

REF: p. 215

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

7. Which of the following recruitment strategies can reduce the possibility of overlooking qualified internal talent? a. employee development

b. talent inventories c. internal job posting systems d. employee referrals ANS: b

REF: p. 216

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

8. The management at Ajax Corporation believes that internal recruiting sources are the best, especially when it comes to filling vacant positions higher up in the hierarchy. Team leaders and managers at Ajax regularly update the internal records of all employees and their performances, promotability, career interests, etc. This allows the company to quickly and cheaply source qualified internal candidates who can be contacted whenever a position needs to be filled. Most of Ajax's managers were promoted to their respective positions with the help of this internal database. Which of the following methods of internal sourcing does Ajax use? a. succession management b. employee referrals c. internal job posting system d. talent inventories ANS: d

REF: p. 216

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist

9. Publicizing open jobs to employees is known as ________. a. employee development b. succession planning c. external job posting d. internal job posting ANS: d

REF: p. 216

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

10. Which of the following refers to the training of employees to extend their capabilities and prepare them to assume other jobs and roles in the firm? a. leadership development program b. internal job posting c. employee development d. succession management ANS: c

REF: p. 216

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist

11. When an employee checks the company intranet for other job opportunities with their current employer, this is an example of ___________. a. networking b. an internal job posting system c. an employee referral d. lateral hiring ANS: b

REF: p. 216

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

12. An HR manager trying to recruit for a number of key positions in a firm asks the best talent to recommend the best employees they've worked with in the past, or employees they feel would be good performers. This is an example of ________. a. networking b. internal job posting c. employee referrals d. external job posting ANS: c

REF: p. 218

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

13. ______ occurs when a manager identifies a subordinate they want to put into an open job and doesn’t let other employees know of or be considered for the opportunity. a. Lateral hiring b. Employee development c. Job slotting d. Employee referrals ANS: c

REF: p. 217

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

14. An organization that is currently composed of primarily white males may discriminate against minorities and women if it uses which recruiting source? a. employee referrals b. job fairs c. search firms d. college recruiting ANS: a

REF: p. 218

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

15. When a manager wants her employer to hire her niece, this is an example of ________. a. nepotism b. job slotting c. lateral hiring d. poaching ANS: a

REF: p. 218

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

16. When the manager of a store in a local mall spends the afternoon pretending to shop at other stores in the mall to try to find quality employees to recruit, this is an example of ________. a. lateral hiring b. walk-ins c. social networking d. observation ANS: d

REF: p. 220

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

17. Online job fairs are best for recruiting____________________ a. Passive job seekers b. Active job seekers c. Non-active job seekers d. Latent job seekers ANS: b

REF: p. 220

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

18. Which of the following is a benefit of social networking as a sourcing method? a. It takes longer than external sourcing. b. It is more effective than external sourcing. c. It increases diversity of talent available. d. It promotes employee retention.

ANS: c

REF: p. 222

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

19. Which of the following external recruiting sources is useful for finding both active and passive job seekers? a. walk-ins b. military transition services c. online job boards d. LinkedIn ANS: d

REF: p. 223

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

20. Retainer firms are ________. a. firms that require a large group of new recruits within a short period of time b. search firms who charge employers a fixed fee in advance of placement c. sites that allow employers to post job vacancies d. organizations that keep in-house sources ANS: b

REF: p. 225

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

21. Which of the following means of sourcing talent is sometimes considered unethical? a. transitional talent deployment b. data mining c. lateral hiring d. acquisitions and mergers ANS: c

REF: p. 227

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

22. A headhunter for an engineering firm is looking for a civil engineer to head their new project to build a highway. Unable to find the right candidate for the job, the headhunter resorts to scouting for potential candidates among the employees of rival firms. It offers the assistant chief engineer of its rival firm an extremely lucrative package and the chance to assume greater responsibilities. This practice is known as ________.

a. b. c. d.

pull-up hire tracking data mining flip searching

ANS: a

REF: p. 226

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

23. Hiring top talent away from another company is an example of using which recruiting source? a. Lateral hiring b. employee referrals c. internet data mining d. networking ANS: a

REF: p. 227

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

24. SteelMakers Inc. (SMI) is in urgent need of senior sales executives. Sales have declined in the last three quarters while the market share of their leading competitor, Steelworld, has steadily increased. SMI has realized that they are losing out not because of inferior products, but because they have not been able to pitch their products as well as Steelworld. After careful observation of the sales efforts of the latter, the SMI management has decided to offer extremely lucrative, hard-to-refuse deals to one or two selected members of Steelworld's sales team. Which of the following modes of sourcing is SMI using in this case? a. ambushing b. employee referrals c. lateral hiring d. pull-up hire ANS: c

REF: p. 227

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

25. Web sites that continually search the Web for information about people with desirable talents and sell access to their database of potential recruits are called ________. a. career sites b. web crawlers c. job boards d. career fairs ANS: b

REF: p. 228

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

26. When a manager rehires a former employee, this is called ________. a. lateral hiring b. nepotism c. social networking d. a boomerang hire ANS: d

REF: p. 229

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

27. Which of the following recruitment strategies can help an organization reduce labor costs and improve customer service together with accessing top talent? a. resume databases b. offshoring c. observation d. trade fairs ANS: b

REF: p. 230

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

28. When a U.S. employer cannot find a qualified American for a position, it can hire a non-U.S. citizen who can show proof of their eligibility for employment in the U.S. through the _____ visa program. a. I-9 b. B-12 c. W-2 d. H-1B ANS: d

REF: p. 230

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

29. Which of the following external recruiting sources is fast, cheap, and useful for finding active job seekers? a. career sites b. walk-ins c. schools d. creative sourcing ANS: b

REF: p. 231

TOP: What Recruiting Sources Exist?

30. When a staffing professional analyzes which recruiting source(s) produced the highest quality new hires, he is performing a ________. a. staffing analysis b. recruiting yield analysis c. transition analysis d. applicant flow analysis ANS: b

REF: p. 234

TOP: Creating a Sourcing Plan

31. When an employer presents targeted online ads to people who visited its careers site but leave before completing an application, it has engaged in ________. a. remarketing b. Boolean searching c. poaching d. web crawling ANS: a

REF: p. 221

TOP: Creating a Sourcing Plan

32. Which of the following are considered to be an underutilized labor source? a. career fairs b. written job advertisements c. qualified persons with disabilities d. employee referrals ANS: c

REF: p. 238

TOP: Sourcing Nontraditional Applicant Pool

33. Firms operating globally often need to give some latitude to their local managers to tailor their strategies and practices to meet the needs of their locations. This highlights the ________ aspect of global sourcing. a. integration b. differentiation c. standardization d. specialization ANS: b

REF: p. 241

TOP: Global Sourcing and Geographic Targeting

34. Axis Partners, a Canadian mutual fund, recently expanded its operations by opening a branch in Shanghai, China, to handle market analysis. The company used an integration strategy for staffing its new office. Entry-level positions in Shanghai were filled by recruiting graduates from local campuses. However, they soon realized that this strategy was not as successful in China as it was in Canada. Which of the following, if true, could explain the reason for this? a. Employee turnover rates in the financial services industry in China is one of the lowest in the world. b. The employees in Shanghai were being paid less than their counterparts in Canada. c. Some of its successful competitors in China use a differentiation strategy. d. Few students in Shanghai chose finance as their subject of specialization.

ANS: d

REF: p. 241

TOP: Global Sourcing and Geographic Targeting

35. The need to acknowledge and respect the diversity of local cultures when sourcing and managing a global workforce is called ________. a. integration b. diversification c. localization d. differentiation ANS: d

REF: p. 241

TOP: Global Sourcing and Geographic Targeting

36. In geographic targeting, the labor market used to source lower-level positions in a firm is most likely to be ________. a. local b. regional c. national

d. international ANS: a

REF: p. 242

TOP: Global Sourcing and Geographic Targeting

37. Filling lower-level positions from the local labor market and higher-level positions from the regional or national labor market is an example of ________. a. labor market analysis b. job fairs c. global staffing d. geographic targeting ANS: d

REF: p. 242

TOP: Global Sourcing and Geographic Targeting

38. When a convenience store decides to advertise a job in the store and on Craigslist because it knows that only people in a 5-mile radius are likely to work there is using ________. a. geographic targeting b. geofencing c. networking d. social media ANS: a

REF: p. 242

TOP: Global Sourcing and Geographic Targeting

39. The moral elements of the schemas of people higher in ______ are more constantly primed and available. a. moral courage b. moral efficacy c. moral identity d. moral ethics ANS: c

REF: p. 243

TOP: Ethics

40. Strategic sourcing is facilitated by the use of artificial intelligence and algorithms that do NOT _______. a. analyze existing talent data b. help clarify the characteristics of a good hire c. inform automated tools that can identify signals that targeted talent might be more open to recruiting because of a recent life or work event d. perpetuate unconscious bias ANS: d REF: p. 245 TOP: Technology 1. The first step in the external recruitment process is to ________. a. define recruiting goals b. identify who will recruit c. secure job requisition approval d. identify whom to recruit

ANS: c

REF: p. 258

TOP: What is Recruiting?

2. When a recruiter is late and unprepared for an interview, the applicant is likely to perceive low ________. a. procedural fairness b. distributive fairness c. interactional fairness d. spillover effects ANS: c

REF: p. 260

TOP: How Do Applicants React to Recruiting?

3. When an applicant believes that an assessment method is unfair because it does not give him an opportunity to demonstrate job-relevant skills ________. a. distributive fairness is low b. procedural fairness is low c. interactional fairness is low d. interactional fairness is high ANS: b

REF: p. 259

TOP: How Do Applicants React to Recruiting?

4. Roberto applied to a post for a software engineer at Tech Infosystems. He was asked to correct a software problem as a screening test and then interviewed by a panel that comprised of a hiring manger, the HR manager, and a software engineer from the firm. Which of the following statements, if true about the recruitment process, would result in Roberto concluding that the procedural fairness was high? a. He was not given the job despite the fact that he corrected the software problem and was satisfied with the way the interview went. b. He could not correct the software problem in the screening test and was not selected for the position. c. He was not selected for the post after successfully passing the screening test and was bullied during the interview. d. He did not get the job, but another candidate who had had a similar interview experience did.

ANS: b

REF: p. 259

TOP: How Do Applicants React to Recruiting?

5. Which type of fairness is perceived to be low by most job applicants who are not selected for a particular job? a. distributive fairness b. procedural fairness c. interactional fairness d. recruiter fairness ANS: a

REF: p. 259

TOP: How Do Applicants React to Recruiting?

6. An applicant who finds a recruiter to be rude is likely to perceive ________.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: c

low distributive fairness low procedural fairness low interactional fairness high procedural fairness REF: p. 260

TOP: How Do Applicants React to Recruiting?

7. Amy was unhappy with the way she was treated when she applied for the position of a shopfloor assistant at a local retail outlet. When her friend Carrie hears about this, she stops shopping at that store. This is an example of ________. a. incorrect signaling b. cognitive dissonance c. spillover effect d. groupthink ANS: c

REF: p. 260

TOP: How Do Applicants React to Recruiting?

8. Which of the following do corporate executives use to form an image of a specific organization? a. quality of the firm's products b. advertisements released by the firm c. economic performance indicators d. knowing an employee of the firm ANS: c

REF: p. 262

TOP: Developing Applicant Attraction Strategies

9. Presenting both positive and potentially negative aspects of a job to recruits is a ________. a. realistic job preview b. job description c. job enhancement preview d. person specification ANS: a

REF: p. 269

TOP: Developing Applicant Attraction Strategies

10. Before joining the Regal Hotel as a concierge, Maxine was told that she would be required not only to work her own shifts but also work others' shifts if they were unexpectedly absent.

She was also warned about the temperamental and inebriated guests who often checked in late at night. In spite of these warnings, Maxine accepted the job. What function of the realistic job preview has been used in Maxine's case? a. self-selection b. immunization c. vaccination d. salting ANS: c

REF: p. 269

TOP: Developing Applicant Attraction Strategies

11. While interviewing Denise for the position of counselor at the local rehabilitation facility for troubled teens, she was informed that her line of work would involve interacting with youths who have a history of violent behavior, as well as, drug and alcohol abuse. Denise accepts the position without hesitation. What function of the realistic job preview is being discussed here? a. self-selection b. a commitment to the choice c. immunization d. salting ANS: b

REF: p. 270

TOP: Developing Applicant Attraction Strategies

12. To reduce the high turnover rate, this company changed its recruiting strategy from one focused on hiring the best-qualified people to one emphasizing the company’s values and providing RJPs to let poor fits self-select out. This was__________ a. UPS b. IKEA c. Motorola d. Federal Express ANS: b

REF: p. 270

TOP: Developing Applicant Attraction Strategies

13. Linda, a qualified and experienced nurse, is being interviewed for the position of a seniorcare nurse at a facility for terminally ill patients. Which of the following, if true, would suggest self-selection has taken place in this situation? a. She is caught in a dilemma over whether to accept the offer after meeting with several nurses who tell her about the challenges of the job. b. She was shown a video depicting a "day in the life" of a worker at this facility and realized that the job entailed far more hardships than she had anticipated. c. She was told about the hardships of the job during the interview and was asked to accept the offer in spite of them. d. She was asked to serve a month's probation, at the end of which the organization would decide on her job fitness.

ANS: b

REF: p. 269

TOP: Developing Applicant Attraction Strategies

14. Recruiter behaviors have the largest impact on ________. a. overall applicant impressions of HR b. applicant intentions to pursue a job opportunity c. applicant intentions to accept job offers d. overall applicant impressions of the recruiter ANS: d

REF: p. 272

TOP: What Makes a Recruiter Effective?

15. For which of the following types of candidates will initial recruiter experiences be more important in their ultimately becoming applicants at all?

a. b. c. d.

active job seekers lesser skilled recruits passive job seekers inexperienced recruits

ANS: c

REF: p. 271

TOP: What Makes a Recruiter Effective?

16. Which of the following is generally not a desirable recruiter characteristic? a. Introversion b. Good listening skills c. Credibility d. Intelligence ANS: a

REF: p. 272

TOP: What Makes a Recruiter Effective?

17. Tracy has an interview with a disorganized, unprepared recruiter and concludes that the company does not have a very professional culture. This is an example of ________. a. a realistic job preview b. signaling c. cognitive dissonance d. a person specification ANS: b

REF: p. 272

TOP: What Makes a Recruiter Effective?

18. Karen learns that her new job at the bookstore has no other female employees. Thinking that this could lead her employers and coworkers to treat her unfairly, she declines the offer. This is an example of ________. a. a realistic job preview b. a person specification c. cognitive dissonance d. signaling ANS: d

REF: p. 272

TOP: What Makes a Recruiter Effective?

19. Which of the following seems to be most important with regard to recruiter demographics? a. The recruiter should be of the opposite sex as the recruit. b. The recruiter should be the same ethnicity as the recruit. c. The recruiter should be at the same job level as the position being recruited for. d. The recruiter needs to be able to relate to a recruit's value system and drive.

ANS: d

REF: p. 273

TOP: What Makes a Recruiter Effective?

20. The set of recruiter characteristics related to more effective recruiting is called a(n) _______. a. Recruiter profile b. Realistic job preview c. Employer brand

d. Recruiting source profile ANS: a

REF: p. 274

TOP: What Makes a Recruiter Effective?

21. What is the disadvantage of getting line managers to recruit for a firm? a. They are not impartial in their recruitment choices. b. They have to take time out from their actual jobs. c. They are not competent enough to select recruits. d. They cause applicants to have a negative image of the firm.

ANS: b

REF: p. 275

TOP: What Makes a Recruiter Effective?

22. An employer who uses artificial intelligence to hold a “conversation” with online job seekers to answer questions and help people complete their job applications is a ________. a. robot b. chatbot c. artificial recruiter d. sourcer ANS: b

REF: p. 275

TOP: What Makes a Recruiter Effective?

23. Hiring an outside company to help find executive-level hires is an example of using ________. a. retained search firm b. contingency search firm c. full-scale recruitment process outsourcing d. staff augmentation ANS: a

REF: p. 276

TOP: What Makes a Recruiter Effective?

24. A company that outsources all its recruiting to an outside company is using ________. a. a retained search firm b. a contingency search firm c. full-scale recruitment process outsourcing d. staff augmentation ANS: c

REF: p. 277

TOP: What Makes a Recruiter Effective?

25. Hiring consultants instead of permanent employees to work on a project is an example of using ________. a. a retained search firm b. a contingency search firm c. full-scale recruitment process outsourcing d. staff augmentation ANS: d

REF: p. 277

TOP: What Makes a Recruiter Effective?

26. When a shortage of talent makes it hard for a recruiter to fill all a company’s open positions ________ has influenced the recruiter’s effectiveness. a. coworkers b. the labor market c. the organization’s characteristics d. bad luck ANS: b

REF: p. 278

TOP: What Makes a Recruiter Effective?

27. Which of the following is NOT an area that recruiters are usually trained in? a. multiple assessments b. the employer’s value proposition c. how to do the job itself d. presentation skills ANS: c

REF: p. 280

TOP:

28. The extent to which recruiters influence job seekers depends on the degree to which recruiters ________. a. are transparent in the recruitment process and provide feedback b. share similar demographic characteristics with the applicant c. share educational backgrounds with the applicants d. are seen as reliable signals of what it would be like to work for the company ANS: d

REF: p. 281

TOP: Training and Developing Recruiters

29. When a union organizer tries to get a job with a company for the purpose of unionizing the company's workforce, this is known as ________. a. discrimination b. negligent hiring c. reneging d. salting ANS: d

REF: p. 282

TOP: Training and Developing Recruiters

30. Having recruiters evaluate candidates for their fit with several different positions is an example of ________. a. interpersonal skills b. applicant attraction c. multiple assessments d. workforce development ANS: c

REF: p. 282

TOP: Training and Developing Recruiters

31. How can an organization with a positive employer branding image increase the quality of its

applicant pools? a. Train recruiters in relevant marketing principles b. Give monetary bonuses to recruiters for the number of recruits they generate per month c. Use an external search firm d. Use the same recruiting sources that it has been using since they seem to work ANS: a

REF: p. 283

TOP: Training and Developing Recruiters

32. Which of the following recruiting metric gives the number of employees who voluntarily quit within their first year? a. turnover data of the company b. new recruit efficiency c. new hire satisfaction d. new hire failure rate ANS: a

REF: p. 283

TOP: Recruiting Metrics and Analytics

33. The ________ describes how personal information such as that provided by a job applicant is handled in the European Union. a. European Privacy Act b. General Data Protection Regulation c. Employer Data Privacy Regulation d. Online Data Security Act ANS: b

REF: p. 292

TOP: Global Recruiting

34. Which of these should be shared with job applicants in the latest stage of the recruiting process? a. Company benefits b. Detailed information about job duties c. Information helping the applicant assess their fit with the company culture d. General information about the company ANS: a

REF: p. 286

TOP: Timing the Disclosure of Information

35. A formal document detailing the process to be followed when a firm recruits for an open position is a ________. a. recruiting guide b. staffing plan c. external recruiting analysis d. realistic job preview ANS: a

REF: p. 287

TOP: Achieving Recruitment Consistency

36. Which of the following statements is true of a recruiting guide?

a. b. c. d.

It is an informal set of guidelines followed by the organization.

It addresses external recruitment processes, not internal ones.

It details which staff members are responsible for recruiting.

What is and what is not acceptable recruitment behavior is left to the discretion of the staff member.

ANS: c

REF: p. 287

TOP: Achieving Recruitment Consistency

37. _________ helps to improve the engagement of job candidates throughout the application and recruitment process. a. Automation b. Gamification c. Social media d. Artificial intelligence ANS: b

REF: p. 290

TOP: Gamification

38. Creating a simulation that visitors to the company’s website can play to experience what a particular job at that company is like is an example of ________. a. social media b. a chatbot c. gamification d. artificial intelligence ANS: c

REF: p. 290

TOP: Gamification

39. Ethical recruiter behavior begins with ________. a. terminating recruiters who behave unethically b. rewarding ethical behavior c. hiring ethical recruiters d. the employer clearly defining expected recruiter behaviors ANS: d

REF: p. 293

TOP: Ethics

40. Which of the following is a common ethical issue in recruiting? a. Which assessments to use to evaluate job candidates b. What information to communicate to job seekers c. Which jobs to invest the most money in recruiting for d. Which recruiter to assign to which job opening ANS: b

REF: p. 293

TOP: Ethics

1. Predictive data is information used to ________. a. measure important outcomes of the staffing process b. categorize people into appropriate labels c. make projections about outcomes

d. assess central tendency ANS: c

REF: p. 307

TOP: What is Measurement?

2. Information about important outcomes of the staffing process is called ________. a. predictive data b. criterion data c. reliability d. validity ANS: b

REF: p. 307

TOP: What is Measurement?

3. Years of experience, salary in dollars, and weight are examples of what type of measure? a. nominal b. ordinal c. interval d. ratio ANS: d

REF: p. 308

TOP: Describing and Interpreting Data

4. Edwin is the HR manager at a customer care unit with approximately 1,000 employees. He wants to statistically analyze the service data to make the recruitment process more effective by identifying desirable and undesirable qualities of employees. Edwin decides to use customer satisfaction ratings as a predictor and customer return rates as the criterion. Which of these is true? a. Customer return rates are measured on an ordinal scale b. Customer satisfaction ratings are measured on an interval scale c. Customer satisfaction ratings are measured on a nominal scale d. Customer return rates are measured on an interval scale ANS: b

REF: p. 308

TOP: Describing and Interpreting Data

5. If job candidates must be able to lift 40 pounds to be allowed to advance to the next stage of the hiring process, lifting ability is what type of measure? a. criterion-referenced b. norm-referenced c. standardized d. subjective ANS: a

REF: p. 309

TOP: Describing and Interpreting Data

6. The top 30% of job applicants, based on a job knowledge test, advance to the next stage of the hiring process regardless of their job knowledge test score. What type of measure is the job knowledge test? a. criterion-referenced b. norm-referenced

c. standardized d. subjective ANS: a

REF: p. 309

TOP: Describing and Interpreting Data

7. If a test score is at the 90th percentile, then which of the following is true? a. Only 10% of the test takers scored higher than this. b. This is in the bottom 10% of the distribution. c. About 90% of the test takers scored higher than this. d. This is the most commonly observed score in the test.

ANS: a

REF: p. 309

TOP: Describing and Interpreting

8. When are the mean, median, and mode likely to be at the same point in a distribution of scores? a. when the sampling error is high b. when the distribution is positively skewed c. when the distribution is negatively skewed d. when the distribution is a normal curve ANS: d

REF: p. 310

TOP: Describing and Interpreting Data

9. What would the median of the following distribution be 2, 3, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 8? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 ANS: b

REF: p. 310

TOP: Describing and Interpreting Data

10. What would the mode of the following distribution be 2, 3, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 8? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 ANS: a

REF: p. 310

TOP: Describing and Interpreting Data

11. Which of the following refers to the spread of the data around the midpoint? a. variability b. validity c. coefficient d. regression ANS: a

REF: p. 310

TOP: Describing and Interpreting Data

12. What would the range of the following distribution be 2, 3, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 8? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 ANS: d

REF: p. 311

TOP: Describing and Interpreting Data

13. Which of the following is true of a distribution with positive skew? a. The scores will mostly be in the negative end of the distribution. b. The mode falls between the mean and the median. c. The mode would be shifted to the right of the distribution. d. The mean would be to the right of the distribution.

ANS: d

REF: p. 310

TOP: Describing and Interpreting Data

14. Which of the following values is closest to the standard deviation of the following distribution 2, 3, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 8? a. 0 b. 2 c. 5 d. 6 ANS: b

REF: p. 311

TOP: Describing and Interpreting Data

15. A ________ indicates how many standard deviations above or below the mean a given score lies. a. norm-referenced score b. raw score c. criterion-referenced score d. standard score ANS: d

REF: p. 311

TOP: Describing and Interpreting Data

16. Which of the following is true of a z score of -3.2 in a distribution? a. The score lies above the mean of the distribution. b. The score is lower than the group average. c. The score is above the 50th percentile. d. Most people scored below this score.

ANS: b

REF: p. 311

TOP: Describing and Interpreting Data

17. The correlation coefficient between a selection test and job performance is 0. This means the selection test ________. a. perfectly predicts job performance b. and job performance are unrelated

c. has adverse impact on job performance d. is positively related to job performance ANS: b

REF: p. 313

TOP: Using Data Strategically

18. A graphical illustration of the relationship between two variables is a ________. a. correlation b. regression c. scatter plot d. validity chart ANS: c

REF: p. 315

TOP: Using Data Strategically

19. If the correlation coefficient for the relationship between a job sample test and job performance is -0.7 and significant, then the employer should ________. a. not hire people who pass the test b. hire people who score high on the job sample test c. hire people who score low on the job sample test d. rerun the analyses because a coefficient of -0.7 is impossible ANS: c

REF: p. 316

TOP: Using Data Strategically

20. If an observed correlation is unlikely to be due to sampling error it has ________. a. statistical significance b. practical significance c. reliability d. validity ANS: a

REF: p. 317

TOP: Using Data Strategically

21. When predictor and job performance scores have been obtained, the predictor can be considered valid and useful if the correlation coefficient ________. a. has both practical and statistical significance b. has statistical significance alone c. is insignificant d. has practical significance alone ANS: d

REF: p. 315

TOP: Using Data Strategically

22. Which of the following is true about multiple regressions? a. It allows the use of one predictor when predicting an outcome b. It works only on variables that are at the interval or ratio level c. The higher the correlation between variables the greater the regression d. Regression is based on each correlation with the criterion ANS: d

REF: p. 318

TOP: Using Data Strategically

23. The following equation is the result of performing a multiple regression analysis: Job performance = 10 + (5*job knowledge) + (0.7* conscientiousness), where job knowledge is measured on a scale of 0-5 and conscientiousness is measured on a scale of 0 to 100.

Which of the following conclusions is correct? a. Conscientiousness is less important than job knowledge. b. If a person scored 2 on job knowledge and 50 on conscientiousness he or she would have the maximum predictive score possible. c. Neither job knowledge nor conscientiousness predicts performance. d. If a person scored 0 on both job knowledge and conscientiousness, his or her predicted job performance score is 10.

ANS: d

REF: p. 319

TOP: Using Data Strategically

24. How dependably or consistently a measure assesses a particular characteristic is the measure's ________. a. reliability b. validity c. standardized score d. percentile ANS: a

REF: p. 320

TOP: Using Data Strategically

25. A personality test that measures the intended personality trait and also assesses elements of an unrelated trait has _______ error. a. deficiency b. random c. contamination d. standard ANS: c

REF: p. 322

TOP: What Are the Characteristics of Useful Measures?

26. An accounting test that fails to assess an important area of accounting knowledge has ________ error. a. deficiency b. random c. contamination d. standard ANS: a

REF: p. 322

TOP: What Are the Characteristics of Useful Measures?

27. When unpredictable traffic causes employee productivity to fluctuate in unpredictable ways, this results in ________ error when measuring employee productivity. a. deficiency b. random c. contamination

d. standard ANS: b

REF: p. 321

TOP: What Are the Characteristics of Useful Measures?

28. When multiple versions of the same test are developed to deter cheating, which of the following reliabilities is used to ensure the two forms are comparable? a. test-retest reliability b. inter-rater reliability c. parallel forms reliability d. internal consistency reliability ANS: c

REF: p. 323

TOP: What Are the Characteristics of Useful Measures?

29. The extent to which items on a given measure assess the same construct is assessed by ________. a. test-retest reliability b. inter-rater reliability c. parallel forms reliability d. internal consistency reliability ANS: d

REF: p. 324

TOP: What Are the Characteristics of Useful Measures?

30. Which of the following is true regarding the standard error of measurement (SEM)? a. The SEM is a useful measure of the accuracy of individual scores. b. The higher the SEM, the more accurate the measurements. c. With longer periods between administrations, SEMs are likely to go down. d. If the SEM is 1, then the observed score is the true score.

ANS: a

REF: p. 325

TOP: What Are the Characteristics of Useful Measures?

31. If you scored 54 on a test with a standard error of 6, which of the following is true? a. Your z-score is above 0 b. Your true score could be as low as 40 c. Your true score could be as high as 70 d. Your true score could be as high as 60 ANS: d

REF: p. 325 TOP: What Are the Characteristics of Useful Measures?

32. A measure’s validity is established in reference to a specific ________. a. reference group b. target group c. target population d. reliability ANS: a

REF: p. 327

TOP: What Are the Characteristics of Useful Measures?

33. Applicants often react negatively to an assessment they do not perceive to have high ________. a. test-retest validity b. face validity c. psychological fidelity d. physical fidelity ANS: b

REF: p. 328

TOP: What Are the Characteristics of Useful Measures?

34. If the items on an assessment method do not seem to be job-related, then, which of the following is true? a. The assessment method's criterion-related validity is low. b. The assessment method's construct validity is low. c. The assessment method's face validity is low. d. The assessment method's content validity is low.

ANS: c

REF: p. 328

TOP: What Are the Characteristics of Useful Measures?

35. Checking that a new job knowledge test you developed does a good job measuring job knowledge is ________. a. predictive validation b. concurrent validation c. construct-related validation d. content-related validation ANS: c

REF: p. 329

TOP: What Are the Characteristics of Useful Measures?

36. If job performance scores are measured at the same time personality is assessed it is called ________. a. concurrent validity b. predictive validity c. construct validity d. reliable validity ANS: a

REF: p. 329

TOP: What Are the Characteristics of Useful Measures?

37. The magnitude of the relationship between an interview score and turnover is the ________. a. correlation a. validity coefficient b. reliability c. standardized score ANS: b

REF: p. 330

TOP: What Are the Characteristics of Useful Measures?

38. ________ is usually evaluated using a single sample and a specific job. a. validity

b. reliability c. a correlation d. fidelity ANS: c

REF: p. 332

TOP: What Are the Characteristics of Useful Measures?

39. Asking all job candidates questions from the same interview schedule, in the same way, is an example of ________. a. validity b. correlation c. reliability d. standardization ANS: d

REF: p. 334

TOP: What Are the Characteristics of Useful Measures?

40. The ________ is the percent of employees who are defined as currently successful performers. a. base rate b. selection ratio c. SEM d. coefficient ANS: a

REF: p. 336

TOP: Creating and Validating an Assessment System

41. The number of people hired divided by the number of applicants is the ________. a. base rate b. selection ratio c. SEM d. coefficient ANS: b

REF: p. 336

TOP: Creating and Validating an Assessment System

42. Lowering the _______ can improve the impact of the assessment system. a. correlation b. base rate c. yield ratio d. selection ratio ANS: d

REF: p. 336

TOP: Creating and Validating an Assessment System

43. Pre-employment assessments can help identify if a job candidate has the _______ required to deal effectively with ethical challenges likely on the job. a. moral experience b. moral courage c. ethical awareness d. moral disengagement

ANS: b

REF: p. 337

TOP: Ethics

1. The fit between a person's abilities and the demands of the job and the fit between a person's desires and motivations and the attributes and rewards of a job is ________. a. person-job fit b. person-group fit c. person-organization fit d. supplementary fit ANS: a

REF: p. 352

TOP: The Firm’s External Assessment Goals

2. Effective staffing enhances the degree to which a(n) ________. a. hiring manager ensures job performance b. employee meets a job's requirements c. individual candidate has a chance to be selected d. employee realizes his or her own potential ANS: b

REF: p. 352

TOP: The Firm’s External Assessment Goals

3. If an individual's goals, values, and work style clash with the goals, values, and work style of his or her co-workers, which of the following is true? a. The individual has low person-job fit. b. The individual has low person-organization fit. c. The individual has low person-vocation fit. d. The individual has low person-group fit.

ANS: d

REF: p. 353

TOP: The Firm’s External Assessment Goals

4. Juan is a highly qualified biomedical researcher. Having recently completed his education, he applies to work at a pharmaceutical company, which is renowned for its fast-paced innovation and aggressive growth policy. Which of the following, if true, would provide for a poor person-organization fit in this case? a. Juan is interested in applied research that is likely to produce tangible results. b. Juan has the tendency to be process-oriented and is risk averse. c. Juan is a team-player and works exceedingly well in lab groups. d. Juan is interested in making numerous breakthrough discoveries in the lab.

ANS: b

REF: p. 353

TOP: The Firm’s External Assessment Goals

5. Which of the following is true of person-organization fit? a. It is not related to the intent to stay with the company. b. It is the same as person-job fit. c. It is positively related to job satisfaction. d. It is unrelated to organizational commitment.

ANS: c

REF: p. 353

TOP: The Firm’s External Assessment Goals

6. Black Lilies is a fledgling apparel company which is run and managed by its creator Patricia.

She has advertised for an accounting executive to manage the finances of the firm. Which of the following, if true, would result in a complementary fit having occurred for the post? a. Patricia is well-versed in accounting and will manage the firm's finances jointly with the new employee. b. There is already a dedicated finance team in the firm who would work with the new employee. c. The existing accounting executive is planning to quit to take up a better opportunity. d. Patricia lacks the requisite skills to manage the company's accounts, hence the opening.

ANS: d

REF: p. 355

TOP: The Firm’s External Assessment Goals

7. When a restaurant hires a server who has similar competencies to the existing servers, this is an example of ________. a. person-organization fit b. supplementary fit c. complementary fit d. person-supervisor fit ANS: b

REF: p. 355

TOP: The Firm’s External Assessment Goals

8. When a company hired Marcus, who turned out to be a poor performer, which assessment outcome occurred? a. true positive b. true negative c. false positive d. false negative ANS: c

REF: p. 356

TOP: The Firm’s External Assessment Goals

9. When a company rejected Sara, who would have been a poor performer on the job, which assessment outcome occurred? a. true positive b. true negative c. false positive d. false negative ANS: b

REF: p. 356

TOP: The Firm’s External Assessment Goals

10. What is a stereotype threat? a. Comparison of the hired pool of candidates against the applicant pool to avoid discrimination. b. Evaluation of the job performance of hired candidates to avoid supplementary fit.

c. Admission of the fact that certain hiring practices have adverse impact on performance. d. Awareness of subgroup differences on standardized tests creates frustration among minority test takers leading to low scores.

ANS: d

REF: p. 357

TOP: The Firm’s External Assessment Goals

11. Which of these helps to reduce the effect of unconscious biases? a. Blind assessment b. Random hiring c. Banding d. Letting hiring managers do the interviewing ANS: a

REF: p. 357

TOP: The Firm’s External Assessment Goals

12. If a hiring manager is unhappy that the staffing system requires her to take two hours of her limited time to interview each candidate, which staffing goal is not being met? a. generating positive stakeholder reactions b. supporting talent philosophy and HR strategy c. establishing the firm's employer image d. complying with the law ANS: a

REF: p. 359

TOP: The Firm’s External Assessment Goals

13. If an employer viewed applicants and employees as _______ it would be more likely to develop a comprehensive careers section on its website. a. expensive b. assets c. investors d. a burden ANS: c

REF: p. 360

TOP: The Firm’s External Assessment Goals

14. If an employment test has a disparate impact on a minority group, the employer must show that the test is ________ to the job for which the test is required. a. unrelated b. reasonably related c. perfectly related d. randomly related ANS: b

REF: p. 361

TOP: The Firm’s External Assessment Goals

15. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures were created to ________. a. validate employee selection methods b. outline the enforcement of the Americans with Disabilities Act c. assist organizations in complying with federal law prohibiting discrimination in hiring

d. assist organizations with fewer than 10 employees comply with Title VII ANS: c

REF: p. 361

TOP: The Firm’s External Assessment Goals

16. Which of the following statements is a UGESP guideline that pertains to candidate assessment? a. No selection procedure measuring ability should closely approximate an observable work behavior. b. The setting and manner of the administration of the selection procedure can be disparate from the actual work environment but still have content validity. c. Abilities must be defined in terms of observable aspects of job behavior. d. Knowledge must be defined in general terms not necessarily directly linked to the job.

ANS: c

REF: p. 361

TOP: The Firm’s External Assessment Goals

17. Contingent assessments are used when ________. a. there are too many candidates and too few jobs b. the firm has identified whom it wants to hire c. there are too few qualified candidates per job d. the firm is narrowing down candidates for a post ANS: b

REF: p. 362

TOP: External Assessment Methods

18. Online applications give the candidate real-time status information and a. a deadline for completing the application b. flexibility to complete at their own convenience c. ability to submit a hard copy of the application d. increase the burden placed on recruiters ANS: b

REF: p. 366

TOP: External Assessment Methods

19. Asking applicants what sports they like to play is an example of which external assessment method? a. reference checks b. biodata c. job simulation d. personality inventories ANS: b

REF: p. 369

TOP: External Assessment Methods

20. Which of the following is a type of cognitive ability test? a. mathematical reasoning b. sensory skills c. psychomotor skills d. integrity

ANS: a

REF: p. 372

TOP: External Assessment Methods

21. The biggest legal problem with personality tests is based on ________. a. administration issues b. privacy issues c. morality issues d. diagnostic issues ANS: b

REF: p. 376

TOP: External Assessment Methods

22. Which of the following is true about integrity tests? a. Integrity tests often result in adverse impact. b. Integrity tests are, by definition, measures of cognitive ability. c. Integrity tests have the ability to overcome the problem of faking. d. Integrity tests usually take the form of oral interviews.

ANS: c

REF: p. 377

TOP: External Assessment Methods

23. Which assessment method would be the best choice to identify candidates who are more likely to pose a security risk to the company? a. personality test b. background check c. job simulation d. cognitive ability test ANS: b

REF: p. 377

TOP: External Assessment Methods

24. Job seekers often rate ________ as the most job-related selection procedure. a. interviews b. aptitude tests c. job simulation d. personality inventories ANS: a

REF: p. 378

TOP: External Assessment Methods

25. An HR manager asked every candidate during an interview to describe a situation in the past in which they had to display their leadership abilities even though they were not a formal leader, discuss what they did, and describe the result. This is an example of which external assessment method? a. situational judgment test b. case interview c. unstructured interview d. behavioral interview ANS: d

REF: p. 380

TOP: External Assessment Methods

26. Asking a candidate during an interview to indicate how she would respond to an irate customer is an example of which external assessment method? a. personality assessment b. behavioral interview c. unstructured interview d. situational interview ANS: d

REF: p. 382

TOP: External Assessment Methods

27. Behavioral interview questions are more reliable and substantially better than ________ at predicting job performance. a. structured interview questions b. situational interview questions c. unstructured interview questions d. situational judgment tests ANS: c

REF: p. 379

TOP: External Assessment Methods

28. Showing candidates a short video and asking them to choose one of five responses is an example of which external assessment method? a. situational judgment test b. behavioral interview c. unstructured interview d. situational interview ANS: a

REF: p. 384

TOP: External Assessment Methods

29. The higher the fidelity of a job simulation test, the higher is the ________. a. number of candidates taking the test b. cognitive ability required to pass the test c. similarity between the real job and the test d. cost required to maintain and administer the test ANS: c

REF: p. 384

TOP: External Assessment Methods

30. If you ask a candidate to spend a few hours performing a variety of simulations and assessments to assess their fit with and ability to do the job, you have used a(n) _______. a. situational judgment test b. job knowledge test c. contingent assessment method d. assessment center ANS: d

REF: p. 385

TOP: External Assessment Methods

31. A ______ is an example of an evaluative assessment method. a. credit check

b. social media check c. drug test d. criminal history check ANS: b

REF: p. 387

TOP: External Assessment Methods

32. Graphology includes any practice that involves determining personality traits or abilities from a person's ________. a. face b. handwriting c. palm d. biodata ANS: b

REF: p. 387

TOP: External Assessment Methods

33. When should medical tests be administered? a. before interviewing the applicant b. after the candidate has accepted a job offer c. any time the employer feels that it is appropriate d. after a job offer has been extended ANS: d

REF: p. 387

TOP: External Assessment Methods

34. A background check is a(n) _________. a. screening assessment method b. contingent assessment method c. evaluative assessment method d. recruiting method ANS: b

REF: p. 389

TOP: External Assessment Methods

35. An employer can reduce its potential liability for negligent hiring by _________. a. using personality tests b. conducting a background check c. using integrity tests d. using structured interview questions ANS: b

REF: p. 391

TOP: External Assessment Methods

36. ________ is/are beginning to be applied to job seeker credentials, speeding up background checks. a. chatbots b. artificial intelligence c. blockchain d. online applications

ANS: c

REF: p. 391

TOP: External Assessment Methods

37. Having a low selection ratio means ________. a. hiring most people who apply for a job b. having unacceptable adverse impact c. hiring only a few applicants d. having a small number of applicants per job ANS: c

REF: p. 393

TOP: Reducing Adverse Impact

38. Which of the following would NOT be effective in reducing adverse impact? a. Targeted sourcing to generate more diverse qualified applicants b. Use a high reading level on all written assessments as an extra screening tool c. Use banding d. Combine assessments to reduce adverse impact ANS: c

REF: p. 392

TOP: Reducing Adverse Impact

39. A(n) ________ describes which assessment method(s) will be used to evaluate each of the important characteristics for the job. a. job analysis b. job description c. assessment plan d. person specification ANS: c

REF: p. 393

TOP: Assessment Plans

40. Which of the following would reduce adverse impact? a. Contract the definition of what constitutes a good job performance. b. Use a single valid predictor instead of multiple predictors. c. Use of cognitive tests instead of simulations. d. Use assessment methods with less adverse impact early in the selection process.

ANS: d

REF: p. 393

TOP: Reducing Adverse Impact

41. If a decision an HR manager knows is best conflicts with what is best for another stakeholder, the HR manager is likely to feel _______. a. moral distress b. moral efficacy c. moral exhaustion d. moral disengagement ANS: a

REF: p. 395

TOP: Ethics

42. When Google found that _______ added little value to the quality of hire it was able to shorten the hiring process quite a bit.

a. b. c. d.

using biodata using case interviews conducting more than four interviews spending more than $50 per candidate

ANS: c

REF: p. 396

TOP: Analytics

43. _______ is/are one of the biggest limitations to using humans to assess job candidates. a. Their high cost b. Their lack of experience c. Their lack of motivation d. Implicit and explicit biases ANS: d

REF: p. 396

TOP: Technology

1. When all interested employees can apply for an open position, this is an example of _______. a. job slotting b. job posting c. a contingent assessment d. external sourcing ANS: b

REF: p. 411

TOP: Internal Recruiting

2. Internal assessment typically improves a firm's strategic capabilities by ________. a. conducting a legal audit of the staffing system b. giving all poor performers a chance to improve c. assisting "blocked" employees to improve their performance d. improving the competence of human resource personnel ANS: c

REF: p. 413

TOP: The Firm’s Internal Assessment Goals

3. A company cannot know what training to offer employees unless it ________. a. emulates its competitors policies and programs b. assesses their strengths and weaknesses c. reaches a minimum of 100 employees d. stops internal recruiting completely ANS: b

REF: p. 413

TOP: The Firm’s Internal Assessment Goals

4. Why do some firms prefer to call groups of employees targeted for accelerated development "acceleration pools" rather than "high-potential pools"? a. Because acceleration implies faster promotions. b. Because "high potential" pool implies the rest are of low potential. c. Because "acceleration pool" employees always rise to managerial levels. d. Because "high potential pools" occur only at technical levels.

ANS: b

REF: p. 413

TOP: The Firm’s Internal Assessment Goals

5. ________ will always be the best fit for a promotion. a. The most senior employee b. The most intelligent employee c. The employee with the most coworker support d. No particular type of employee ANS: d

REF: p. 414

TOP: The Firm’s Internal Assessment Goals

6. An assessment’s ________ does NOT influence whether recruiters and managers use it correctly and consistently. a. fairness b. cost c. ease of use d. speed ANS: b

REF: p. 414

TOP: The Firm’s Internal Assessment Goals

7. Managers should be rewarded for _______. a. having the lowest cost per hire in the firm b. developing promotable talent c. the number of interviews the conduct when hiring d. having zero employee turnover in a year ANS: b

REF: p. 416

TOP: The Firm’s Internal Assessment Goals

8. An organization claiming to provide an environment in which employees can grow their careers has to ________. a. provide performance feedback and development opportunities b. emulate its competitor firms and their placement strategies c. cease internal recruitment and rely on external recruiting alone d. implement a transparent hiring and firing strategy ANS: a

REF: p. 416

TOP: The Firm’s Internal Assessment Goals

9. An additional ethical issue involves the ________ of an employee's application for another position in the company. a. assessment b. processing c. confidentiality d. rejection ANS: c

REF: p. 417

TOP: The Firm’s Internal Assessment Goals

10. Unions usually negotiate for promotions to be based on ______.

a. b. c. d.

performance favoritism potential for performance in the next level job seniority

ANS: d

REF: p. 417

TOP: The Firm’s Internal Assessment Goals

11. Which of the following improves the ease of use of skills inventories? a. O*Net b. career management c. databases d. nine box matrix ANS: c

REF: p. 418

TOP: Internal Assessment Methods

12. If a company wanted to quickly identify which employees speak Spanish, what would be the best way to do this? a. Query the company's replacement charting system b. Ask all managers to ask their subordinates if any of them speak Spanish c. Query the company's skills inventory system d. E-mail all employees and ask Spanish speakers to respond ANS: c

REF: p. 418

TOP: Internal Assessment Methods

13. Which of the following is a limitation of using supervisors in performance reviews? a. They may be less able to see the employee's task and interpersonal behaviors. b. They may be unfamiliar with the employee's job performance. c. They may be unfamiliar with the employee's job requirements. d. They may focus on interpersonal behaviors rather than outcomes.

ANS: a

REF: p. 419

TOP: Internal Assessment Methods

14. Adam has joined an advertising firm as a junior executive. Due to his lack of experience, he has a lot to learn and has been assigned as a protégé to Mark, a senior executive in the firm, who will assist in training and assessing his performance. This process of internal assessment is called ________. a. skills inventorying b. performance reviewing c. a mentoring program d. job knowledge assessing ANS: c

REF: p. 419

TOP: Internal Assessment Methods

15. Assigning a new employee to regularly meet with a more senior, more experienced employee to further the career development of both employees is ________. a. job sharing

b. transferring c. mentoring d. training ANS: c

REF: p. 419

TOP: Internal Assessment Methods

16. Which of the following would result in peer ratings being a successful method of internal assessment in a firm? a. A well-developed skills inventory system exists. b. The level of technological expertise in the firm is high. c. All supervisors provide timely feedback. d. Work in the firm is done in teams.

ANS: d

REF: p. 420

TOP: Internal Assessment Methods

17. Matthew works as an accountant in a mobile phone company. During lunch, he spoke to Pat from the sales department about wanting to buy a mobile phone for himself. Pat persuaded Matthew to buy a mobile phone from the sales department itself, which Matthew did.

Matthew is a(n) ________. a. stakeholder b. internal customer c. human resource personnel d. external customer ANS: b

REF: p. 421

TOP: Internal Assessment Methods

18. Which of the following raters is often the most controversial feature of a multisource assessment? a. internal customers b. external customers c. peers d. subordinates ANS: d

REF: p. 421

TOP: Internal Assessment Methods

19. External customers are often best for evaluating an employee's ________. a. interpersonal behaviors b. job performance c. completion of job requirements d. teamwork skills ANS: a

REF: p. 421

TOP: Internal Assessment Methods

20. RBC Electronics is a retailer of electronic appliances. If Sandy does not see or understand the work processes and rules that influence RBC employees' task behaviors and has limited knowledge of the regulations, policies, and resources that affect employees' behavior, then

Sandy is most likely a(n) ________. a. internal customer b. subordinate c. external customer d. supervisor ANS: c

REF: p. 421

TOP: Internal Assessment Methods

21. Prestige Pegasus is a multinational firm that specializes in the manufacturing of hardware for high-end technical products and sells its products mostly through business-to-business interactions. Following a good year with soaring profit margins, Prestige Pegasus is planning to conduct an internal assessment throughout the organization. In a meeting following the decision to conduct the internal assessment, Douglas McCarthy (the Chief Operations Officer) and Tom Castleback (the Chief Marketing Officer) are the prime contributors on the methods that the organization should use to perform these assessments.

Douglas: "We should encourage 360-degree feedback, mostly concentrating on subordinates, as they would be the right people to judge their superiors."

Tom: "We should definitely use 360-degree feedback, mostly from external customers, as they are the ones who matter in the end."

Which of the following statements, if true, would support Douglas' argument? a. The company lacks a feedback mechanism that guarantees employee anonymity and protects their interests. b. The company is focusing on recruitment for middle-management positions, which mostly emphasizes people management skills. c. The company is planning to flatten its organizational structure by combining certain top management positions, while removing redundant ones. d. The company is introducing workforce diversity initiatives in order to comply with certain affirmative action policies.

ANS: b

REF: p. 421

TOP: Internal Assessment Methods

22. Prestige Pegasus is a multinational firm that specializes in the manufacturing of hardware for high-end technical products and sells its products mostly through business-to-business interactions. Following a good year with soaring profit margins, Prestige Pegasus is planning to conduct an internal assessment throughout the organization. In a meeting following the decision to conduct the internal assessment, Douglas McCarthy (the Chief Operations Officer) and Tom Castleback (the Chief Marketing Officer) are the prime contributors on the methods that the organization should use to perform these assessments.

Douglas: "We should encourage 360-degree feedback, mostly concentrating on subordinates, as they would be the right people to judge their superiors."

Tom: "We should definitely use 360-degree feedback, mostly from external customers, as

they are the ones who matter in the end."

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen Tom's argument? a. The salespeople of the company travel extensively and are expected to work independently without supervision. b. The salespeople of the company do not have any flexibility in the selling price of the product. c. The company targets a niche market segment with a limited customer base. d. Previous surveys have revealed that customers are more satisfied with the company's services than the actual products ANS: a

REF: p. 421

TOP: Internal Assessment Methods

23. Having candidates for an administrative assistant job perform a set of exercises including taking phone messages, typing reports, scheduling meetings, and filing is an example of a(n) ________. a. clinical assessment b. job knowledge test c. assessment center d. structured interview ANS: c

REF: p. 422

TOP: Internal Assessment Methods

24. ________ rely on trained psychologists to subjectively analyze a candidate's attributes, values, and styles in the context of a particular job. a. Clinical assessments b. Mentoring programs c. Multisource assessments d. Job knowledge tests ANS: a

REF: p. 422

TOP: Internal Assessment Methods

25. The focus of the career crossroads model is on ________. a. physical work b. technical work c. professional work d. managerial positions ANS: d

REF: p. 423

TOP: Internal Assessment Models

26. Expatriate success is NOT related to ________. a. emotional stability b. cultural agility c. understanding the firm’s business practices d. a low tolerance for ambiguity

ANS: d

REF: p. 423

TOP: Expatriate Selection

27. The value of the nine-box matrix depends most heavily on ________. a. the quality of the assessment methodology b. the number of people being assessed c. the length of time it covers d. the motivation of the employee being rated ANS: a

REF: p. 423

TOP: Internal Assessment Models

28. A nine-box matrix requires assessing employees on ________. a. past job performance and current job performance b. past job performance and future potential c. tenure and current job performance d. current job performance and future potential ANS: d

REF: p. 423

TOP: Internal Assessment Models

29. In the career crossroads model, each passage requires that the person ________. a. build on old skills b. change organizations c. unlearn old skills and learn new skills d. is promoted based on their mastery of their current job ANS: c

REF: p. 424

TOP: Internal Assessment Models

30. An insurance company assesses all employees' current job skills and creates road maps for them outlining the competencies they need to advance within the company. The company then makes sure they get the training they need, including coaching and mentoring, classroom training. This is an example of ________. a. making a career development plan b. succession management c. restructuring d. ethical assessment ANS: b

REF: p. 424

TOP: Managing Succession

31. The ongoing process of systematically identifying, assessing and developing organizational leadership to enhance performance is ________. a. development training b. replacement planning c. succession management d. business planning ANS: c

REF: p. 424

TOP: Managing Succession

32. A managers' involvement and commitment is critical to the success of the succession management process because ________. a. their skills assessments are central to the preparation of identified candidates for future positions b. they will be the future employers of the promoted employees c. managers need to develop their own replacements by training their subordinates adequately d. their bonuses are tied to the success of their subordinates ANS: a

REF: p. 425

TOP: Managing Succession

33. After choosing the position on which to focus, the first general step in a succession management project is to ________. a. identify each interested candidate's strengths, weaknesses, and succession readiness b. check that the job description outlines the current and future competencies, a person needs to perform at a high level in the key position c. create a plan to continually and systematically improve the capabilities of all identified succession candidates d. write a person specification linked to the firm's business strategy ANS: b

REF: p. 426

TOP: Managing Succession

34. The continuous process of career-oriented self-assessment and goal setting is ________ a. career planning b. succession management c. multi-source assessment d. clinical assessment ANS: a

REF: p. 428

TOP: Career Planning

35. ________ is(are) used to re-energize employees and give them the opportunity to develop skills and pursue other interests via workshops, formal classes, or travel. a. Job rotation b. Skills assessment c. Peer reviews d. Sabbaticals ANS: d

REF: p. 429

TOP: Career Planning

36. If the current hiring system does not generate employees with the potential to be promoted, the firm’s ________ will have very little with which to work. a. succession management b. internal assessment c. performance management system d. training

ANS: a

REF: p. 432

TOP: Integrating Succession Management and Career Planning

37. If a manager says that she “let someone go” instead of “fired” them this is an example of ________ of moral disengagement a. the outcomes locus b. the victim locus c. the behavior locus d. the agency locus ANS: c

REF: p. 433

TOP: Ethics

38. If a recruiter tries to justify unethical behavior by saying, “I was just following my boss’s orders”, this is an example of ________ of moral disengagement. a. the outcomes locus b. the victim locus c. the behavior locus d. the agency locus ANS: d

REF: p. 433

TOP: Ethics

39. ________ is NOT an example of a good succession planning metric. a. The percent of entry-level jobs without a successor b. The percent of critical jobs without a successor c. The percent of identified successor candidates ready for promotion d. The average time successors have been ready without being promoted ANS: a

REF: p. 433

TOP: Analytics

40. Technology facilitates succession management by ________. a. helping managers proactively create development plans b. raising succession planning costs c. reducing stakeholder reactions to the succession management program d. connecting a firm’s employees to external job opportunities ANS: a

REF: p. 434

TOP: Technology

1. In the selection procedure of a firm, an applicant must obtain a minimum passing score on two different assessment methods before being allowed to continue in the hiring process.

What type of assessment plan is being used? a. multiple hurdles b. contingent c. supplemental d. bona fide ANS: a

REF: p. 430

TOP: Choosing Candidates

2. Averaging candidates' scores from an interview, job knowledge test, and work simulation to derive a summary score to use in comparing candidates is an example of ________. a. contingent weighting b. unequal weighting c. unit weighting d. normative weighting ANS: c

REF: p. 430

TOP: Choosing Candidates

3. Allowing a candidate's high score on an interview to make up for a low score on a personality test is an example of the ________. a. multiple hurdles approach b. compensatory approach c. contingent approach d. normative approach ANS: b

REF: p. 430

TOP: Choosing Candidates

4. Asking a group of hiring managers to assign weights to each assessment being used to hire their subordinates to determine an overall assessment score is an example of the ________ approach to combining assessment scores. a. unit weighting b. rational weighting c. contingent weighting d. statistical weighting ANS: b

REF: p. 430

TOP: Choosing Candidates

5. Using multiple regression to identify the weight that will be given to different assessments to determine an overall assessment score is an example of the ________. a. unit weighting b. rational weighting c. contingent approach d. statistical weighting ANS: d

REF: p. 430

TOP: Choosing Candidates

6. When different assessments are made using different scales, before they can be combined, the raw scores must be ________. a. standardized b. normalized c. unit weighted d. rationally weighted ANS: a

REF: p. 430

TOP: Choosing Candidates

7. If the prediction equation produced by a regression analysis is: Job Success predicted = 10 + (2*interview) + (1*personality) + (3*job knowledge) What is Rosita's predicted job performance score if she scores 10 on the interview, 25 on the personality test, and 15 on the job knowledge test?

Criterion-referenced a. -80 b. 90 c. 100 d. 135 ANS: c

REF: p. 431

TOP: Choosing Candidates

8. A minimum assessment score that must be met or exceeded to advance to the next assessment phase or to be eligible to receive a job offer is a ________. a. criterion score b. contingent score c. band score d. cut score ANS: d

REF: p. 432

TOP: Choosing Candidates

9. Which of the following would enable a firm to hire the fastest? a. hiring the first candidate who exceeds a minimum cut score b. using unit weighting to determine the best candidate c. creating bands to pick out the candidates who perform best d. using rational weighting method to expedite the hiring process ANS: a

REF: p. 432

TOP: Choosing Candidates

10. Using high cut scores ________. a. is more appropriate for firms focusing on filling vacancies in the short-term b. can reduce adverse impact to a minimum in every case c. increase the number of false-negative hiring outcomes d. is inappropriate for firms with a talent strategy of hiring only the best ANS: c

REF: p. 432

TOP: Choosing Candidates

11. Which of the following, if true, would make a firm keep cut scores low? a. The company is following an innovation strategy. b. The company is following a cost-leadership strategy. c. The company wants to maintain its competitive advantages. d. The company wants to hire top talent in the field.

ANS: b

REF: p. 432

TOP: Choosing Candidates

12. Which of the following reduces the ability of rank ordering to identify the best hire? a. large differences between candidates' scores b. large scores of regression analysis c. large unit weighting of multiple candidates d. large standard error of measurement ANS: d

REF: p. 433

TOP: Choosing Candidates

13. When using banding, _________ is used to calculate the bands around a given test score. a. variance b. standard error of difference c. standard deviation d. correlation ANS: b

REF: p. 433

TOP: Choosing Candidates

14. If an applicant is not hired because the applicant has previously claimed overtime which they were owed, they are likely to be covered under the ________. a. Family and Medical Leave Act b. Fair Labor Standards Act c. National Labor Relations Act d. Equal Pay Act ANS: b

REF: p. 434

TOP: Choosing Candidates

15. ________ covers the payment of overtime to eligible employees. a. The Fair Labor Standards Act b. The Family and Medical Leave Act c. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures d. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act ANS: a

REF: p. 434

TOP: Choosing Candidates

16. ________ encourages voluntary diversity efforts to improve opportunities for minorities. a. The Fair Labor Standards Act b. The Family and Medical Leave Act c. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures d. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act ANS: d

REF: p. 436

TOP: Choosing Candidates

17. The best time to pursue workforce diversity is during ________. a. candidate assessment

b. making a final choice c. sourcing and recruiting d. developing an Affirmative Action plan ANS: c

REF: p. 436

TOP: Choosing Candidates

18. Which of the following, if true, would result in a new hire to a company getting paid less than existing employees? a. The company wishes to preserve internal equity b. The company wishes to attract top talent in the market c. The company lets the hiring manger make payroll decisions d. The company needs to fill a position immediately ANS: a

REF: p. 437

TOP: Job Offer Strategies

19. Don is a high-ranking manager in an advertising firm. He was recently offered a job with higher pay and more lucrative benefits by a rival firm. On coming to know about this, Don's employers decided to make him a(n) ________ matching the offer from their rival firm. a. compensatory package b. counteroffer c. equity bonus d. employment contract ANS: b

REF: p. 438

TOP: Job Offer Strategies

20. ________ are the two primary legal factors that influence job offer content. a. The UGESP and equal employment opportunity b. Applicant quality and affirmative action goals c. The UGESP and affirmative action goals d. Equal employment opportunity and affirmative action goals ANS: d

REF: p. 439

TOP: Job Offer Strategies

21. To have the best chance of hiring a top candidate quickly, an employer should make a(n) ________ job offer. a. high b. maximum c. competitive d. negotiable ANS: b

REF: p. 441

TOP: Job Offer Strategies

22. Which of the following is true of a maximum job offer? a. It can be a low, competitive, or high offer b. It allows further negotiation by either party c. It takes longer to fill such a position than other job offers

d. It tends to deter top finalists from accepting the job offer ANS: a

REF: p. 441

TOP: Job Offer Strategies

23. Which of the following is true of a competitive job offer? a. It is the best and final offer extended to the candidate b. It offers a total rewards package higher than competitors c. It is most likely to entice top finalists to accept the offer d. It may or may not allow for further negotiations ANS: d

REF: p. 441

TOP: Job Offer Strategies

24. To be enforceable, any contract that cannot be performed or fulfilled within ________ must be in writing under the statute of frauds. a. six months b. twelve months c. eighteen months d. twenty-four months ANS: b

REF: p. 441

TOP: The Employment Contract

25. Which of the following is true of an employment contract? a. Every employee has an employment contract b. To be enforceable, the contract has to be in writing c. Verbal contracts generally supersede written contracts d. At-will employees have a definite time period of service specified ANS: a

REF: p. 441

TOP: The Employment Contract

26. Mr. Draper is the hiring manager of a large corporation. He has been asked to recruit two new sales executives for the firm specifically targeted for luring away from a rival firm.

Which of the following packages should he offer in order to have a maximum chance of fulfilling this task? a. low job offer b. competitive job offer c. minimum job offer d. maximum job offer ANS: d

REF: p. 441

TOP: Job Offer Strategies

27. Dylan worked for Sun Pharmaceuticals as a scientific research assistant. He quit the company and joined Kip Pharma Industries as a senior researcher. Sources at Sun discovered that Dylan had given a customer list belonging to Sun to Kip Pharma. In this situation, which of the following statements is true?

a. b. c. d.

Sun Pharmaceuticals can litigate against Dylan for trade secret violation Kip Pharma can sue Sun Pharmaceuticals for allowing Dylan to quit.

Dylan can sue Sun Pharmaceuticals for causing him financial loss.

Kip Pharma can sue Dylan for trade secret violation.

ANS: a

REF: p. 442

TOP: The Employment Contract

28. The bargained-for exchange between the contract parties is known as ________. a. compensation b. co-optation c. confirmation d. consideration ANS: d

REF: p. 442

TOP: The Employment Contract

29. A nonsolicitation agreement is a type of ________. a. restrictive covenant b. compensation package c. severance package d. common contract ANS: a

REF: p. 442

TOP: The Employment Contract

30. A company relies on innovation as a competitive advantage. It wants to maintain the secrecy of its research and development projects. Which of the following would it most likely use? a. nondisclosure agreements b. non-solicitation agreements c. employment at will agreements d. implicit contracts ANS: a

REF: p. 442

TOP: The Employment Contract

31. An employment contract clause that requires an employee to use arbitration rather than litigation in the event of an employment related disute is a________. a. nonsolicitation agreement b. nondisclosure agreement c. noncompete agreement d. mandatory arbitration clause ANS: d

REF: p. 444

TOP: The Employment Contract

32. A finalist should be given at least ________ to consider a job offer. a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 1 week d. 2 weeks

ANS: b

REF: p. 445

TOP: Presenting a Job Offer

33. To successfully negotiate a job offer it is important to ________. a. focus on the things that matter most to the finalist b. keep negotiated salary levels as low as possible c. avoid exceeding market pay rates d. entice the finalist to accept the offer ANS: a

REF: p. 448

TOP: Negotiating

34. If an employer sends a finalist a job offer letter this is a(n) ________ employment contract. a. invalid b. explicit c. implicit d. nonnegotiable ANS: b

REF: p. 449

TOP: Negotiating

35. Union members are covered by ________ employment contracts. a. explicit b. implicit c. flexible d. permanent ANS: a

REF: p. 449-450

TOP: Negotiating

36. Which of the following is true once a formal written job offer has been presented? a. The rest of the finalists are told that the job has been filled b. Negotiations continue c. The finalist cannot reject the offer d. The employer stays in contact with the finalist ANS: d

REF: p. 450

TOP: Closing the Deal

37. ________ is used to document a new hire’s identity verification and employment eligibility. a. Form WD-40 b. Form W-2 c. Form I-9 d. A disclaimer ANS: c

REF: p. 451

TOP: Closing the Deal

38. When a finalist does not get a job offer, they are likely to perceive ________. a. low procedural fairness b. low distributive fairness

c. low interactional fairness d. high interactional fairness ANS: b

REF: p. 451

TOP: Fairness Perceptions and Rejections

39. Rejecting a candidate severely at the end of a long hiring process results in ________. a. reneging b. negative spillover effects c. competitive disadvantage d. restrictive covenants ANS: b

REF: p. 451

TOP: Fairness Perceptions and Rejections

40. The way a firm negotiates a job offer with a candidate influences the candidate's perceptions of ________. a. distributive fairness b. procedural fairness c. interactional fairness d. indicative fairness ANS: c

REF: p. 451

TOP: Fairness Perceptions and Rejections

41. Backing out of an employment contract after the job offer is accepted is called ________. a. rejection b. prima facie evidence c. reneging d. renegotiating ANS: c

REF: p. 453

TOP: Fairness Perceptions and Rejections

42. Deferring a new hire's start date can be an alternative to ________. a. reneging b. conducting a reference check c. negligent hiring d. using an assessment center ANS: a

REF: p. 454

TOP: Fairness Perceptions and Rejections

43. Which of the following is NOT a good thing to do if you see unethical behavior at work? a. Avoid talking to the perpetrator; go directly to a superior b. Identify the consequences of the behavior c. Engage in perspective-taking d. Protect yourself from retaliation ANS: a

REF: p. 455

TOP: Ethics

44. ________ is NOT a good metric at the final candidate choice and job offer stage of the hiring process. a. Quality of hire b. Time to fill c. The number of applicants d. First job offer acceptance rate ANS: c

REF: p. 455-456

TOP: Analytics

45. Artificial intelligence can NOT ________. a. effectively screen applications b. outperform humans in making final hiring decisions c. improve the candidate experience d. improve communication with applicants ANS: b

REF: p. 456

TOP: Technology

1. Processing a new employee's employment-related paperwork, acquiring necessary keys and identification cards, and establishing an e-mail account for them is part of ________. a. socialization b. onboarding c. attrition d. training ANS: b

REF: p. 480

TOP: Onboarding and Socializing New Employees

2. ________ is not a primary goal of onboarding. a. Ensuring new employees understand organizational rules and regulations b. Ensuring new employees understand their supervisor’s expectations c. Ensuring that new employees understand the organization’s mission and culture d. Ensuring that new employees do not get distracted by pursuing social relationships with coworkers ANS: d

REF: p. 480-481

TOP: Onboarding and Socializing New Employees

3. The most effective orientation programs ________. a. are done as quickly as possible to save time and money and improve efficiency b. focus on getting an employee up to speed quickly on job tasks and duties c. create an emotional connection to the company d. focus on the logistical details like an ID, computer password, and key card ANS: c

REF: p. 481

TOP: Onboarding and Socializing New Employees

4. Interacting with recruiters and future coworkers during the hiring process is the ________ phase of the socialization process. a. anticipatory

b. encounter c. settling in d. onboarding ANS: a

REF: p. 483

TOP: Onboarding and Socializing New Employees

5. The first stage of the socialization process is ________. a. settling in b. anticipatory c. encounter d. expectation ANS: b

REF: p. 483

TOP: Onboarding and Socializing New Employees

6. Socialization programs putting newcomers through a common set of experiences as a group rather than individually are called ________. a. one-time programs b. collective programs c. variable programs d. tournament programs ANS: b

REF: p. 484

TOP: Onboarding and Socializing New Employees

7. Denise, the human resource manager of a manufacturing company, found that the company's socialization process was too overwhelming for new hires. It consisted of presentations, meetings, and seminars packed into the first week of joining the company. She decided to switch to a(n) ________ approach to socializing so that new employees did not suffer from information overload. a. investiture b. staggered c. sequential d. formal ANS: b

REF: p. 484

TOP: Onboarding and Socializing New Employees

8. Earlene Gibson, the HR manager of BioMd, a manufacturer of high-end medical diagnostic equipment, is planning to implement a socialization program in the organization. She designs a program in which each stage of socialization is an "elimination tournament," and a new hire is out of the organization if he or she fails. Earlene submits the program draft to the CEO for approval. Which of the following, if true, would be the strongest counterargument for the implementation of this plan? a. BioMd has a strong R&D orientation and innovation and risk taking are the major values that the company promotes. b. The management is intending to develop a homogeneous workforce that is highly cohesive and goal oriented. c. One of the goals of the socialization program is to exercise more discipline and

control in the organization. d. The company is characterized by a vertical organizational structure and centralized decision making.

ANS: a

REF: p. 484

TOP: Onboarding and Socializing New Employees

9. A socialization program that requires new hires to "pass" different stages of socialization or be removed from the organization is a ________. a. one-time program b. collective program c. variable program d. tournament program ANS: d

REF: p. 484

TOP: Onboarding and Socializing New Employees

10. The Wolverines are a leading university soccer team. All new recruits to the team must go through certain "rites of passage" which include shaving their heads, swimming in cold water, getting a tattoo of the team's emblem, and other tests of servitude and obedience. This is an example of ________. a. investiture socialization b. disjunctive socialization c. divestiture socialization d. tournament socialization ANS: c

REF: p. 485

TOP: Onboarding and Socializing New Employees

11. After a wave of retirements, new employees hired to replace the retirees are likely to experience what type of socialization? a. disjunctive b. serial c. informal d. transitory ANS: a

REF: p. 485

TOP: Onboarding and Socializing New Employees

12. Who usually has overall responsibility for conducting socialization programs? a. coworkers b. hiring managers c. human resources d. top management ANS: c

REF: p. 486

TOP: Onboarding and Socializing New Employees

13. ________ has been found to enhance new hires' loyalty and reduce their turnover. a. Socializing new employees as a group b. Using random socialization methods

c. Disjunctive socialization d. Informal socialization methods ANS: a

REF: p. 487

TOP: Onboarding and Socializing New Employees

14. ________ involves managing employees’ national and international assignments and movements. a. Socialization b. Staffing c. Global mobility d. Talent management ANS: c

REF: p. 488

TOP: Global Mobility

15. What is optimal turnover? a. It is the lowest turnover that a firm can achieve. b. It produces lowest level of long-term productivity. c. It produces the highest level of long-term business improvement. d. It sees any employee turnover as a loss for the company.

ANS: c

REF: p. 489

TOP: Managing the Flow of the Workforce

16. When a call center fires an employee who cannot meet her call volume goals, which of the following types of turnover has occurred? a. Dysfunctional b. Functional c. Avoidable d. Voluntary ANS: b

REF: p. 490

TOP: Managing the Flow of the Workforce

17. A layoff is an example of which type of turnover? a. dysfunctional b. voluntary c. involuntary d. avoidable ANS: c

REF: p. 490

TOP: Managing the Flow of the Workforce

18. Companies generally try to minimize turnover that is ________. a. unavoidable, voluntary, and functional b. voluntary and functional c. voluntary, dysfunctional, and avoidable d. dysfunctional and involuntary ANS: c

REF: p. 490

TOP: Managing the Flow of the Workforce

19. Which of the following is true of voluntary turnover? a. It occurs especially if employees' job duties are well-defined. b. It has been proven that average performers are most likely to quit. c. It reduces when the economy is good and vice versa. d. It can be reduced by giving new hires a realistic job preview.

ANS: d

REF: p. 490

TOP: Managing the Flow of the Workforce

20. Exit interviews should be used to ________. a. find out which rivals are poaching talent from the firm b. identify ways in which the company could improve employee retention c. inform ex-employees of their shortcomings d. create optimal turnover ANS: b

REF: p. 491

TOP: Managing the Flow of the Workforce

21. Asking a departing employee why he or she is leaving the firm is a(n) ________. a. unstructured interview b. structured interview c. behavioral interview d. exit interview ANS: d

REF: p. 492

TOP: Managing the Flow of the Workforce

22. One of the best ways to create positive relationships with ex-employees is to ________. a. offer them an exit interview b. ask them to sign a release in exchange for severance pay c. make them feel appreciated as they leave d. give them a termination bonus ANS: c

REF: p. 493

TOP: Managing the Flow of the Workforce

23. Working from 6 a.m. to 2 p.m. is an example of ________. a. job sharing b. flextime c. telecommuting d. homesourcing ANS: b

REF: p. 495

TOP: Managing the Flow of the Workforce

24. As an invaluable employee to her company, Emma has been given the freedom to choose her work hours. She can also opt to work from home for a maximum of 7 days per month. Which of the following retention strategies is being used in this example? a. creating work flexibility b. challenging employees

c. clarifying promotion paths d. creating mobility barriers ANS: a

REF: p. 495

TOP: Managing the Flow of the Workforce

25. Holding managers accountable for turnover of the employees under them is an effective retention strategy because ________. a. managers become stressed about being laid-off b. managers know which employees to retain c. employees have most grievances about their supervisors d. employees cannot complain about miscommunication ANS: b

REF: p. 497

TOP: Managing the Flow of the Workforce

26. In order to reduce turnover rates, Sigma Corp. offers middle and high-ranking employees stock options in the company. This is an example of which retention strategy? a. job challenge b. strong culture c. accountability d. mobility barriers ANS: d

REF: p. 497-498

TOP: Managing the Flow of the Workforce

27. Workforce redeployment applies the ________ principles used to optimize inventory management, planning, and production to optimize the utilization of a firm's employees. a. product innovation b. customer management c. supply chain d. competitive advantage ANS: c

REF: p. 499

TOP: Managing the Flow of the Workforce

28. Moving employees to other parts of the company or to other jobs the company needs filled in order to match its workforce with its talent needs is ________. a. socialization b. workforce redeployment c. mobility barriers d. golden handcuffs ANS: b

REF: p. 499

TOP: Managing the Flow of the Workforce

29. Which of the following is true about downsizing? a. It works best when done regularly. b. It is never constrained by a collective bargaining agreement. c. It enhances employees' perceptions of fairness. d. It can improve shareholders' return.

ANS: d

REF: p. 500

TOP: Involuntary Employee Separations

30. Which of the following are generally well-received by employees? a. reneging b. buyout incentives c. downsizing d. layoffs ANS: b

REF: p. 505

TOP: Involuntary Employee Separations

31. ________ downsizing targets specific locations for headcount reduction, perhaps due to the loss of an important customer. a. Seniority-based b. Business-based c. Geographic d. Across the board ANS: c

REF: p. 500

TOP: Involuntary Employee Separations

32. Which of the following, if implemented, would reduce the number of less productive workers in a firm? a. across the board downsizing b. performance-based downsizing c. competency-based downsizing d. business-based downsizing ANS: b

REF: p. 500

TOP: Involuntary Employee Separations

33. BioMd is a manufacturer of high-end medical diagnostic equipment. The company's revenues and profit margins have come under pressure during the last two years because of a decline in product demand. Daisy Howell, the CEO of the company, calls for a senior management meeting to finalize the strategies to be adopted to tackle the dip in profit margins. In the meeting, most managers argue in favor of using downsizing as a means to reduce costs and improve margins. However, Daisy strongly argued for the use of layoffs instead of downsizing. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen Daisy's argument? a. The organization has a business-based target for reducing the number of employees. b. Major hospital chains have announced plans to open up more facilities in the coming year. c. An internal demographics review has shown that about ten percent of the firm's employees would retire within three years. d. Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act applies to the organization as it has more than hundred employees.

ANS: c

REF: p. 501

TOP: Involuntary Employee Separations

34. Because it is so traumatic, every action and communication during a downsizing should be consistent with the employer’s ________. a. values b. budget c. history d. legal advice ANS: a

REF: p. 502

TOP: Involuntary Employee Separations

35. ________ is when departing employees are not replaced with new hires. a. Phased retirement b. A hiring freeze c. Attrition d. A layoff ANS: b

REF: p. 505

TOP: Involuntary Employee Separations

36. ________ is when the employer intends to rehire displaced employees when business picks back up. a. A layoff b. A hiring freeze c. Attrition d. A discharge ANS: a

REF: p. 504

TOP: Involuntary Employee Separations

37. In which of the following cases is asking employees to take a leave without pay a good idea? a. The company is planning to expand its operations. b. The company is relocating abroad and needs foreign workers. c. The company needs to cut down costs for a specific period. d. The company has decided to conduct mass downsizing.

ANS: c

REF: p. 505

TOP: Involuntary Employee Separations

38. Firms that do not have proper documentation to terminate an employee but want to end the employment relationship, and at the same time reduce the possibility of a lawsuit, offer the employee a(n) ________. a. non-compete agreement b. non-disclosure agreement c. employment at will statement d. release ANS: d

REF: p. 507

TOP: Involuntary Employee Separations

39. During a downsizing, it can be helpful to track ________.

a. b. c. d.

supervisor satisfaction with onboarding time to new hire performance employee engagement new hire involuntary turnover

ANS: c

REF: p. 510

TOP: Analytics

40. ________ can help a new hire learn the policies of their new employer. a. Chatbots b. Robots c. Algorithms d. Recruiting software ANS: a

REF: p. 510

TOP: Analytics

1. Which of the following refers to the process of analyzing a hiring system to determine its performance and effectiveness? a. digital staffing b. staffing system evaluation c. HR planning d. recruitment life cycle management ANS: b

REF: p. 523

TOP: Introduction

2. Staffing technology can be used to: a. conduct interviews b. administer assessments c. improve standardization d. all of the above ANS: d

REF: p. 523

TOP: Introduction

3. Due to inappropriate staffing practices, a number of good quality candidates were rejected in favor of poor quality hires at Mac Computers. The rejected candidates joined other software firms and mentioned this experience to other software personnel. Everyone who heard it, formed a bad impression of Mac Computers and its staffing practices. This is an example of the ________ related to poor staffing practices. a. direct costs b. leading indicators c. negative spillover effects d. key performance indicators ANS: c

REF: p. 524

4. _______ is an indirect staffing cost. a. Market share

TOP: Staffing Outcomes

b. Training c. Productivity d. Turnover ANS: a

REF: p. 525

TOP: Staffing Outcomes

5. ________ is not an organizational outcome of strategic staffing. a. Job offer acceptance b. Stakeholder gains c. Strategy execution d. A leadership pipeline ANS: a

REF: p. 524

TOP: Staffing Outcomes

6. Indirect staffing costs ________. a. precede a staffing outcome b. can be more significant than the direct costs but are more difficult to measure c. are incurred if critical positions are unfilled for longer than necessary d. do not have any financial implications for the firm, unlike direct costs ANS: b

REF: p. 525

TOP: Staffing Outcomes

7. ________ is a direct cost of staffing. a. Lost market share b. Lower productivity c. Lost business opportunities d. Lower competition ANS: b

REF: p. 524-525

TOP: Staffing Outcomes

8. Measurable factors critical to the firm's success and long- and short-term goals are ________. a. key performance indicators b. digital dashboards c. staffing moderators d. HR scorecards ANS: a

REF: p. 525

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

9. Which of the following is a leading indicator of staffing effectiveness? a. The time to fill a position b. New hire quality c. The number of applications received in the first week of a job posting d. New hire turnover ANS: c

REF: p. 526

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

10. Which of the following is a lagging indicator of staffing effectiveness? a. Job success b. Applicant quality c. Applicant quantity d. The cost of placing a job posting ANS: a

REF: p. 526

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

11. Information that is available only after staffing decisions have been made constitutes a ________. a. leading indicator b. lagging indicator c. primary data source d. secondary data source ANS: b

REF: p. 526

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

12. In terms of evaluating staffing systems, lower applicant quality is a ________. a. leading indicator b. lagging indicator c. staffing metric d. staffing scorecard criterion ANS: a

REF: p. 526

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

13. If a company identifies and tracks underrepresented candidates and employees and leverages the sources from which they were recruited, which of the following is most likely to be the company's key performance indicator? a. expanding its business b. providing equal pay c. diversifying the workforce d. diversifying business lines ANS: c

REF: p. 526-527

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

14. Which of the following is both a leading and a lagging indicator of staffing outcomes? a. employee-organization fit b. promotability of firm's new hires c. high rate of turnover d. number of applicants per position ANS: d

REF: p. 526

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

15. ValuTech is a large-scale software company. Which of the following, if true, is a leading staffing indicator? a. The company's quarterly performance has declined after it preferred employment

agencies over campus recruitment programs. b. The company recently modified its training programs specifically to suit the needs of new recruits. c. The company's workforce is short of managerial talent due to the lack of investment in management development programs. d. The company's current business model only allows it to pay salaries that are below the industry average.

ANS: d

REF: p. 526-527

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

16. ValuTech is a large-scale software company. Which of the following, if true, is a lagging indicator of staffing effectiveness? a. The company's image was tarnished by a spate of lawsuits, which resulted in the resignation of several members of the top management. b. The company has witnessed a drop in demand for its products and services over the last six months due to recessionary trends. c. The company relaxed its hiring standards at the time of recruitment and new hires are struggling to keep pace with the dynamic work environment. d. The industry-wide adoption of new technologies has resulted in several firms redefining their job requirements.

ANS: c

REF: p. 526-527

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

17. The best use of short-term staffing metrics is ________. a. to be leading indicators to assess a company's staffing system b. to evaluate the effectiveness of the staffing system as a whole c. to evaluate how well the staffing process contributes to strategy execution d. to identify balanced scorecard criteria ANS: a

REF: p. 528

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

18. Which of the following is a long-term staffing metric? a. the average time-to-start (by position, source, and recruiter) b. the number of high-quality new hires coming from each recruiting source c. the number of diverse hires coming from each recruiting source d. employee job success measured by recruiting source and recruiter ANS: d

REF: p. 528

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

19. The HR manager of a manufacturing firm was calculating the amount spent annually by the company on its staffing practices. Which of the following should not be classified as a hiring cost? a. background checks on candidates b. candidates' travel expenses c. referral bonuses d. productivity losses due to the vacancy

ANS: d

REF: p. 528

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

20. Staffing efficiency ratio is calculated by ________. a. multiplying a firm's total staffing costs with the total compensation of the new hires divided by 100 b. dividing the total compensation paid to new hires by the number of new hires multiplied by 100 c. dividing a firm's total staffing costs by the total compensation of the new hires multiplied by 100 d. multiplying the compensation paid to new hires with the total number of new hires divided by 100 ANS: c

REF: p. 529

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

21. A firm hires only 5 employees annually but each for a compensation of $100,000 a year.

Assuming it costs the company $12,000 to recruit one person, what is the company's staffing efficiency ratio? a. 10.2 percent b. 1.2 percent c. 21 percent d. 12 percent ANS: d

REF: p. 529

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

22. Which of the following is a staffing effectiveness metric? a. Employee tenure b. Replacement costs c. Hiring costs d. Recruiter time per hire ANS: a

REF: p. 529

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

23. ________ reflects whether a new employee meets the hiring manager’s predetermined job performance requirements. a. Hiring efficiency b. Involuntary turnover c. Job success d. Quality of hire ANS: d

REF: p. 529

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

24. ________ refers to job performance as well as the new hire's fit with his or her work group, unit, and organization, and the degree to which his or her values are consistent with the company's culture and values. a. Job success

b. The value of top performers c. Staffing efficiency d. Staffing return on investment ANS: a

REF: p. 529

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

25. How well staffing processes meet stakeholder needs and contribute to strategy execution and organizational performance are elements of ________. a. strategic planning b. staffing efficiency c. staffing effectiveness d. staffing information systems ANS: c

REF: p. 529

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

26. The ________ reflects whether the company hired the people it set out to as defined by the hiring manager's predetermined job performance requirements. a. cost per hire b. quality of hire c. value of top performers d. return on investment ANS: b

REF: p. 529

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

27. Which of the following is a data-driven quality initiative and methodology that uses statistical analysis to measure and improve business processes and their outcomes to near perfection? a. key performance indicator analysis b. digital staffing dashboard c. Six Sigma d. balanced staffing scorecard ANS: c

REF: p. 531

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

28. Which of the following is true about Six Sigma? a. It has limited applicability outside manufacturing industries. b. It focuses merely on identifying the sources of error, not removing them. c. It aims to reduce defects to near zero. d. It does not attempt to control the variables that influence the measurement of activities.

ANS: c

REF: p. 531

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

29. A balanced scorecard balances a firm's ________. a. recruiting, staffing, and turnover b. staffing effectiveness and staffing efficiency

c. strategic, operational, financial, and customer-related goals d. human resource strategy and business strategy ANS: c

REF: p. 533

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

30. A majority of the measures in a balanced staffing scorecard should focus on ________. a. staffing efficiency b. staffing effectiveness c. cost control d. candidate assessment metrics ANS: b

REF: p. 534

TOP: Evaluating Staffing Systems

31. Staffing technology improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the staffing function by ________. a. reducing costs related to staffing for the entire organization b. automating many of the steps of the staffing process c. improving the strategic alignment of the staffing system d. improving the quality of data used in calculating staffing metrics ANS: b

REF: p. 536

TOP: Technology and Staffing Evaluation

32. Software that allows you to maintain a database of both candidates and job information to facilitate finding matches between openings and candidates is a(n) ________. a. applicant tracking system b. resume screening application c. balanced staffing scorecard d. digital staffing dashboard ANS: a

REF: p. 537

TOP: Technology and Staffing Evaluation

33. Which of the following is a potential drawback of résumé screening software? a. It can disproportionately exclude groups of people from various protected categories. b. It is a time-consuming process even if the use of the software is mastered. c. It results in a very small pool of résumés matching the desired keywords. d. It generates detailed profiles of candidates with information from unreliable sources.

ANS: a

REF: p. 536

TOP: Technology and Staffing Evaluation

34. Which of the following does a human resources information system NOT include? a. Veteran status b. Job interview scores c. Ethnicity d. Salary history ANS: b

REF: p. 539

TOP: Technology and Staffing Evaluation

35. E-recruiting should be used when ________. a. a small number of candidates are needed b. the job description specifies only average educational qualifications c. all other methods of recruitment have proven to be ineffective d. the candidates being targeted come from specific labor markets ANS: d

REF: p. 540

TOP: Technology and Staffing Evaluation

36. Which of the following statements is true about digital staffing dashboards? a. They contain safeguards to protect sensitive employee data. b. They lack scalability and hence are not suitable for small- and medium-sized firms. c. They do not provide any indicators of individual employee performance. d. They present large amounts of data in formats that are not user-friendly.

ANS: a

REF: p. 541

TOP: Technology and Staffing Evaluation

37. Which of the following is NOT an ethical issue in staffing evaluation? a. Some performance comparisons between different recruiters can be unfair b. Employees are not told how information about them will be used by the employer c. Employees’ personal information is kept confidential d. The data used is not always accurate ANS: c

REF: p. 543

TOP: Staffing Evaluation Ethics

38. Which of the following represents a breach of staffing evaluation ethics? a. The data used to conduct a staffing evaluation is of a high standard b. The salary information of employees is kept private c. The firm's candidates are unaware of how their information will be used d. The comparison of recruiters' performances is limited to year-to-year comparisons ANS: c

REF: p. 543

TOP: Technology and Staffing Evaluation

39. If you believe that you have the skills required to effectively face the ethical issues you are likely to face during your career, you have high ________. a. moral efficacy b. moral resolve c. moral courage d. moral resilience ANS: a

REF: p. 543

TOP: Staffing Evaluation Ethics