Test bank for Introducing Communication Theory Analysis and Application 7th Edition By Richard West

Test bank for Introducing Communication Theory Analysis and Application 7th Edition By Richard West and Lynn Turner Chapter 1-30 Answer are at the End of Each chapter Chapter 1

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) In the transactional model of communication, it is the sole responsibility of the source to communicate effectively. ⊚ ⊚

2)

Communication can best be explained by the linear model. ⊚ ⊚

3)

true false

true false

Communication models are usually incomplete and unsuitable for all purposes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Definitions of communication are abundant and have changed substantially over the years. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Because the communication process is so dynamic, researchers and theorists draw conclusions about communication by looking for patterns over time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6)

Free speech advocates stress that censorship is arbitrary. ⊚ ⊚

7)

true false

Symbols are arbitrary. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Buddhists believe that being moral requires one to use communication for attaining peace. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

9) Communication is defined as

A) a linear process in which an individual employs language to send a message B) a social process in which individuals employ symbols to establish and interpret meaning in their environment C) an interactional process in which two or more people use concrete symbols to establish meaning in an interaction D) an ethical process in which individuals employ language in their environment

10)

Claude Shannon and Warren Weaver describe the communication process

A) as linear B) using a sports analogy C) as transactional D) as something that is influenced by a person's field of experience

11) Which of the following is a type of noise associated with the linear model of communication?

A) deliberate noise B) semantic noise C) ethical noise D) syntactic noise

12)

The interactional model of communication

A) places a great deal of emphasis on feedback in communication B) is widely accepted as the ideal model of communication C) was the result of the work of the Palo Alto team D) underscores the simultaneous sending and receiving of messages in a communication episode

13) Some researchers state that the efforts to investigate and interrogate political stories are nowadays frequently supplanted by 140-character tweets on Twitter. This practice is sometimes called

A) viral politics B) fad politics C) condensed politics D) network politics

14)

From a communication perspective, ethical issues surface

A) only when a politician argues for her or his position B) when a receiver fails to properly interpret a message C) whenever messages potentially influence people D) when physical noise interferes with the transmission of a message

15) Which of the following features of the interactional model of communication most likely represents how a person’s culture influences their ability to communicate with another?

A) abstract symbol B) psychological noise C) feedback D) field of experience

16)

Which of the following statements is true of the transactional model of communication?

A) It underscores the simultaneous sending and receiving of messages in a communication episode.

B) It suggests that a person is only a sender or a receiver in a communication episode.

C) It illustrates that a person can perform the role of either sender or receiver during an interaction, but not both roles simultaneously.

D) It suggests that the roles of the sender and the receiver are independent in the effectiveness of communication.

17) _____ are created by communication theorists to help us weave together the basic elements of the communication process.

A) Structures B) Codes C) Models D) Symbols

18)

Which of the following influences the communication environment?

A) time B) place C) historical period D) All of the answers are correct.

19) In the context of the interactional model of communication, which of the following statements is true of feedback?

A) It may be verbal or nonverbal B) It represents how a person’s culture influences their ability to communicate with another C) It takes place during a message in a communication D) It is effective only when it is intentional

20)

Which of the following is NOT true of symbols?

A) they are arbitrary B) they are ambiguous C) they are sometimes abstract D) they are only verbal in nature

21)

Referring to communication as a process emphasizes the fact that communication is

A) composed of verbal and nonverbal symbols B) fraught with ethical considerations C) an ongoing, dynamic, and unending occurrence D) affected by the field of experience of the speakers

22) All of the following are ethical strategies to consider when reading communication theory, EXCEPT

A) remain open to being persuaded by the statements of others B) be intolerant of contradiction and ambiguity C) evaluate knowledge claims against personal experience D) accept that multiple perspectives on reality are held as valid by different people

23)

_____ refers to Aristotle's idea that a person's moral virtue stands between two vices.

A) Communication ethics B) Judeo-Christian ethics C) The boomerang effect D) The Golden Mean

24)

It is important to understand communication theory

A) to help you make sense of your personal experiences B) in order to deceive others with your communication C) so you can have perceived power over others D) if you are to put people in their "place"

25)

According to the transactional model, meaning

A) is built by both people in an interaction B) is shared by all people at all times C) is unaffected by one's field of experience D) is static regardless of context

26) "A source sends a message to a receiver through a channel" is associated with which of the following communication models?

A) the transactional model B) Frank Dance's communication helix C) the linear model D) Aristotle's "Golden Mean"

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

27) What is the definition of communication embraced by the authors of this text? Explain this by expanding each of the key terms used in this definition.

28)

Explain the following: Communication is transactional.

29) List and define the three types of noise that can interfere with the transmission of a message.

30)

What are symbols? Provide examples of both concrete and abstract symbols.

31)

How does a person's field of experience influence a communication event?

32) In what ways are ethics and communication related to each other? In your answer, be sure to provide examples to support your explanation.

33) Of the three models of communication discussed in Chapter 1, which do you feel does the best job of capturing the essence of the communication process? In your answer, be sure to briefly explain the model you have chosen and use specific examples to support your position.

34) Discuss the value of studying and understanding communication theory. Provide at least three major arguments that support your position.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE

8) TRUE 9) B 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) A 14) C 15) D 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) B 23) D 24) A 25) A 26) C 27) Answers will vary.

28) Answers will vary.

29) Answers will vary.

30) Answers will vary.

31) Answers will vary.

32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Mass communication allows only senders to exercise control over the communication process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Intercultural communication is concerned only with the communication between individuals from different countries. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Most researchers agree that small group communication should ideally involve a maximum of seven individuals. ⊚ ⊚

4)

If I say to myself, "He looks tired today," I am engaging in intrapersonal communication. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

Critiquing the social order is at the heart of the critical tradition. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

true false

New media includes the Internet, cell phone usage, and high-definition (HD) television. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) For speakers, the goal of providing entertainment is at the core of rhetorical communication. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Communication apprehension is the fear that communication research is not a legitimate scholarly discipline. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Those who adhere to the socio-psychological tradition of communication theory uphold a cause–effect model of communication. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

10) The _____ context of communication pertains to speaking and persuasion.

A) mass/media B) public/rhetorical C) cultural D) interpersonal

11) Which of the following statements most accurately encapsulates the view held by the semiotic tradition?

A) Meaning is achieved when we share a common language.

B) Meanings are passed down from previous generations and do not change.

C) Meaning resides in the words we use to express our ideas.

D) All of the answers are correct.

12)

The environment in which communication takes place is called the

A) perspective B) tradition C) context D) situation

13) Those who adhere to the _____ in the field of communication most likely support the view that someone’s behavior is influenced by something else.

A) socio-physiological tradition B) socio-cultural tradition C) socio-phenomenological tradition D) socio-psychological tradition

14)

Small group communication research focuses on

A) task groups B) successful groups C) social groups D) All of the answers are correct

15) The _____ experiments indicated that environmental conditions and interpersonal relationships influence employee output.

A) Denning B) Stockman C) Oppenheim D) Hawthorne

16) In the context of organizational communication, which of the following is an organizing principle whereby things or persons are ranked one above the other?

A) specialization B) authority C) rationality D) hierarchy

17)

Co-cultures are

A) cultures that compete for influence over a common set of people B) groups of individuals who are part of the same larger culture, but who create opportunities of their own C) groups of individuals who strive to understand unfamiliar cultures, but who fail to arrive at common conclusions about these cultures D) cultures that influence individuals to help others

18)

Communication apprehension

A) is also known as the fear of speaking before an audience B) research has been examined across communication contexts C) can be reduced D) All of the answers are correct

19)

_____ is defined as a speaker's available means of persuading his or her audience.

A) Propaganda B) Rhetoric C) Communication metamorphosis D) Co-cultural communication

20) The exchange of multiple perspectives in a small group is known as _____ and explains why small groups may be more effective at achieving goals than an individual would be.

A) multitasking communication B) agenda setting C) groupthink D) synergy

21)

Which of the following statements is true of intrapersonal communication?

A) It stops the moment a person meets another individual.

B) It is non-repetitive in nature.

C) People who engage in it are prohibited from making attributions about others.

D) People engage in it many times a day.

22) Which tradition in the field of communication relates to the influence of preexisting shared cultural patterns and social structures on interactions?

A) the enviro-cultural tradition B) the psycho-social tradition C) the socio-cultural tradition D) the inter-social tradition

23) Investigating the origins of relationships, the maintenance of relationships, and the dissolution of relationships characterizes the _____ communication context.

A) intrapersonal B) interpersonal C) small group D) power relationship

24)

_____ are communication patterns through which information flows.

A) Branches B) Domains C) Networks D) Synergies

25)

_____ communication is usually more repetitive than other types of communication.

A) Organizational B) Interpersonal C) Intrapersonal D) Rhetorical

26) Which of the following is the minimum number of individuals required to initiate small group communication?

A) two B) three C) four D) five

27) The growth of the study of the academic context of cultural communication can be attributed to

A) genuine efforts to understand other cultures B) technological availability C) population shifts D) All of the answers are correct

28) Research on romantic relationships in the workplace would be simultaneously considering which two contexts?

A) intrapersonal and intercultural contexts B) small group and mass communication contexts C) organizational and interpersonal contexts D) public/rhetorical and organizational contexts

29) Which of the following is NOT given as an example of research related to the mass communication context?

A) online dating sites B) e-mail flaming C) sex on prime-time TV D) use of humor in conversation

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

30) Select one of the seven traditions in the field of communication to define and discuss.

Provide examples of the kind of research that is done in that tradition, making sure it is clear how and why those examples illustrate the main focus and concerns of that tradition.

31)

Define the term context, and discuss how it is related to the study of communication.

32)

Identify and define the two most important components of small group behavior.

33) Argue for or against the following proposition: The communication discipline should establish one core communication theory.

34) Provide three examples of communication phenomena that may be studied in more than one context. Specify to which contexts they might be relevant and how researchers would differ in their approaches across those contexts.

35) Do you feel that each of the seven contexts of communication is a "legitimate" area of research? If yes, briefly explain why you feel each is legitimate. If no, explain which contexts you feel are not legitimate areas and why.

36) Which of the seven contexts do you feel is most important and relevant to everyday life?

In your answer, be sure to explain why you feel this way using specific examples to support your thesis.

37) Identify and discuss an example from your life where you feel a better understanding of the research associated with one of the seven contexts of communication could have helped you better deal with a particular problem or situation.

38) Do you think communication should really be considered its own discipline, or do you feel it is just a loose collection of concepts from other fields? In your response, be sure to support your thesis with specific examples

Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) B 11) A 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) D 16) D 17) B 18) D 19) B 20) D 21) D 22) C 23) B 24) C 25) C 26) B

27) D 28) C 29) D 30) Answers will vary.

31) Answers will vary.

32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Reliability is the opposite of validity. ⊚ ⊚

2)

true false

Homeostatic systems stay the same over a period of time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Most social science researchers do not seek covering law explanations. Instead, they may seek "probabilistic" statements that can be said to have a certain degree of probability.

⊚ ⊚

true false

4) All of us in daily life think like researchers, using implicit, naïve theories to help us understand behavior. ⊚ ⊚

5)

Nominal concepts are concepts that are observable. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

true false

Ontology is sometimes called the first philosophy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) When considering the role and influence of values in scholarly research, our authors argue that it is realistic to expect that research will always be value-free. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

Concepts are words or terms that label the most important elements in a theory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) According to Wallace's theory, most researchers tend to strictly adhere to either deductive or inductive logic but never use both. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Some critical theorists, such as Stuart Hall, argue that power imbalances are not always the result of intentional strategies on the part of the powerful, but may instead be accidentally reproduced. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) All of the following have been identified as goals of theory EXCEPT

A) explanation B) understanding C) reviewing D) social change

12)

The scientific method follows

A) deductive logic B) interpretive logic C) inductive logic D) lawlike logic

13) Theory is defined as a(n) _____ system of _____ with indications of the _____ among these concepts that help us to understand a phenomenon.

A) important; relationships; utility B) abstract; concepts; relationships C) interesting; variables; utility D) abstract; relationships; utility

14) Who among the following suggested that theory "is like a map for exploring unexplored territories"?

A) Stephen Littlejohn and Karen Foss B) William Doherty and his colleagues C) Jonathan H. Turner D) Donald Stacks and Michael Salwen

15) In the context of the components of a theory, which of the following is an example of a real concept?

A) love B) spatial distance C) democracy D) wage inflation

16)

Rhetorical theories, some media theories, and many interpersonal theories

A) simply improve individual lives B) aim to change the structures of society C) focus on prediction and extrapolation D) seek primarily to provide explanation or understanding

17) Which of the following is true of the critical approach to how researchers think and talk about the world?

A) The critical researcher believes that values are relevant in the study of communication.

B) Critical researchers strive to be objective and work for control or direction over important concepts.

C) Critical researchers feel that it is important to change the status quo to resolve power imbalances.

D) The critical researcher carefully structures a situation so that only one element in his or her research varies in order to study it.

18) In the context of the covering law approach, which of the following is a definition of cause?

A) It is an antecedent condition that determines an effect.

B) It is a testable prediction of relationships between concepts.

C) It is an activity based on intentional choice responses.

D) It is a condition that inevitably follows a causative condition.

19) Andrew and his elder sister Susan are watching television. Andrew wants to please Susan, hoping it will encourage her to buy him a skateboard for Christmas. He tunes in to the channel that she likes even though he hates its shows. According to James Lull, which of the following rules did Andrew adopt?

A) parametric rules B) peer rules C) tactical rules D) habitual rules

20) In the context of the systems approach, which of the following is true of the wholeness concept?

A) It means that the behaviors of system members co-construct the system and that all members are affected by shifts and changes in the system.

B) It involves elements that generally shift and change over time.

C) It states that a system cannot be fully comprehended by a study of its individual parts in isolation from one another.

D) It periodically checks the scale of allowable behaviors and resets the system.

21) In the _____ to creating theory, communication behavior is believed to be governed by forces that are predictable and generalizable.

A) rules approach B) systems approach C) covering law approach D) inductive approach

22) When a theory's explanations make sense and do not appear to contradict each other, the theory is said to have

A) good scope B) logical consistency C) heuristic appeal D) utility

23) In the context of the guidelines researchers use to create theories, which of the following is true of the rules approach?

A) It assumes that communication behavior is governed by forces that are predictable and generalizable.

B) It seeks to explain an event in the real world by referring to a general law.

C) It holds that communication behavior is not subject to change.

D) It holds that communication behavior is not lawlike.

24) At Westco Inc., a mission statement is presented to all new employees promoting its philosophy. It states that all departments should insist on quality performance from one another for the success of the company as a unit. When one unit fails, others will suffer. Which of the following systems approach elements is being promoted in this mission statement?

A) hierarchy B) boundaries/openness C) interdependence D) equifinality

25) The McAllister family has a rule that there will be no television viewing after eight o'clock on school nights. Which of Lull's rules governing television viewing is represented by this rule?

A) tactical rules B) habitual rules C) parametric rules D) authoritative rules

26)

_____ addresses questions about the role of values in the research process.

A) Axiology B) Epistemology C) Ontology D) Astrology

27) In which of the following statements is the criterion of parsimony most accurately described?

A) Parsimony requires that theories contain as many concepts as possible.

B) Parsimony requires that a theory's explanations be simplistic.

C) Parsimony requires consistent explanations and clear assumptions.

D) Parsimony requires simplicity without sacrificing completeness.

28) _____ is the study of what it means to be human, which shapes the background understanding for theorizing about human communication.

A) Axiology B) Ontology C) Metatheology D) Epistemology

29) When scientists have disagreements about how we go about knowing things and what counts as knowledge, there is a disagreement about

A) axiology B) heurism C) testability D) epistemology

30)

In __________, the focus is on generating knowledge and theory for its own sake.

A) pure research B) applied research C) theoretical research D) axiological research

31) Converting raw data into a category system, such as when a researcher analyzes newspaper coverage of an event by quantifying and classifying the various topics covered in the articles into categories, is called

A) coding B) triangulation C) textual analysis D) operationalization

32) A researcher who has no concern for issues of control or the ability to generalize, instead choosing to focus on providing rich descriptions would be following the _____ to knowing things.

A) positivistic/empirical approach B) interpretive approach C) critical approach D) scientific approach

33) Researchers are concerned with the extent to which they are actually measuring the true variable of interest, such as whether the standard IQ test is really capturing an individual's intelligence. This concern is about

A) coding B) testability C) validity D) experimentation

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

34) Describe the elements of the systems approach. Provide a real-life example of a system by applying each of the elements in your description.

35) Explain the difference between ontology, epistemology, and axiology. Write an original question to illustrate your understanding of each of these approaches.

36) Explain the definition of theory. Do you agree with this definition? Are there ideas or concepts you would like to add or take away from this definition?

37) Differentiate between the positivistic, interpretive, and critical approaches to conducting research. Identify the paradigm that you think best describes your approach to research. Explain why you chose this approach.

38) Select the three criteria for evaluating communication theory that you deem most important. For each one, provide a definition, an explanation of what that criterion entails, and an argument as to why you believe it is among the most important criteria for evaluating communication theory.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) C 12) A 13) B 14) D 15) B 16) D 17) C 18) A 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) B 26) A

27) D 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Expectancy violations are always evaluated negatively. ⊚ ⊚

2)

true false

We frequently lay claim to various spatial areas that we want to protect or defend. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) If we like a person, it is likely that we will positively evaluate most violations of expectancies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4)

Pre-interactional expectations refer to a person's ability to carry out the interaction itself. ⊚ ⊚

5)

Personal distance typically ranges from 0 to 18 inches. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

Territory that is the exclusive domain of an individual is known as primary territory. ⊚ ⊚

7)

true false

true false

Cultural norms may influence our expectancies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) When arousal occurs, we tend to pay more attention to the message in order to understand the source of the arousal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Expectancy Violations Theory is often criticized because it has not led to research on a variety of topics. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Hall found it interesting that when U.S. citizens found themselves in intimate surroundings with intimate partners, they often attempted to create a nonintimate experience.

⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) According to Burgoon, "an invisible, variable volume of space surrounding an individual which defines that individual's preferred distance from others" is known as

A) territoriality B) the proxemic zone C) personal space D) affiliative space

12)

Social distance usually ranges from _____ to _____.

A) 12 feet; 13 feet B) 18 inches; 4 feet C) 0 inches; 18 inches D) 4 feet; 12 feet

13) Which of the following spatial zones is described as typically being reserved for family and close friends?

A) intimate distance B) personal distance C) social distance D) public distance

14) All of the following statements about Expectancy Violations Theory (EVT) are true EXCEPT

A) expectations for personal space and distance in conversations have received considerable attention in the study of expectancy violations B) EVT was initially developed to examine the influence of nonverbal communication on message production C) the focus of EVT lies in examining the impact that deviations from expectations for others' behaviors have on the communication process D) people typically are uncertain about what to expect with regard to the verbal and nonverbal behaviors of others

15) The debate team meets in the same classroom each week to discuss upcoming tournaments and to rehearse their presentations. They have the room reserved for their use from 6 to 10 every Tuesday and Thursday night. Which type of territory does this room represent?

A) primary territory B) secondary territory C) public territory D) tertiary territory

16) According to Judee Burgoon, _____ refers to the distance at which an interactant experiences physical and physiological discomfort by the presence of another.

A) implicit expectancy B) proxemics C) threat threshold D) violation valence

17) All of the following are assumptions of Expectancy Violations Theory identified by the authors EXCEPT

A) expectancies for human behavior are learned B) expectancies for human behavior are frequently incorrect C) expectancies drive human interaction D) people make predictions about nonverbal behavior

18) Acts by high-reward sources are typically assigned _____ meanings; the same act performed by a low-reward source may be assigned a _____ meaning.

A) positive; positive B) positive; negative C) negative; positive D) negative; negative

19) Nancy has learned that it is important for her to maintain a conversational distance from her supervisor when communicating face-to-face. She also makes an effort to look at her supervisor directly in the eye during interactions. These behaviors reflect Nancy's _____.

A) pre-interactional expectations B) post-interactional expectations C) interactional expectations D) irrelevant expectations

20) Holly takes a step back when her friend Lui approaches her to speak to her because he seems to insist on invading her personal space. Which of the following types of arousals is Holly experiencing?

A) cognitive arousal B) physical arousal C) emotional arousal D) spatial arousal

21)

Increased interest or attention when deviations from expectations occur is known as

A) arousal B) threat threshold C) violation valence D) speculation

22) Which approach to knowing characterizes the research undertaken using Expectancy Violations Theory?

A) ontological approach B) interpretive/hermeneutic approach C) positivistic/empirical approach D) critical approach

23) In the context of the criteria of testability for evaluating a theory, Sparks and Greene criticized Expectancy Violations Theory in that

A) the theory lacks attention to age differences in expectancies B) self-perceptions of arousal are not valid measures C) the theory does not consider homogeneity of expectancies D) valid indices of observers’ ratings cannot be established

24) Expectancy Violations Theory is grounded primarily in the _____ and _____ contexts of communication.

A) intrapersonal; interpersonal B) organizational; intrapersonal C) interpersonal; public D) intercultural; small group

25) When an individual becomes cognitively or physically aroused by an expectancy violation, that individual will likely

A) feel romantically attracted to the violator B) automatically assign a negative meaning to the violation C) become more focused on the violation than the message itself D) all of the answers are correct

26) Which communication tradition is most closely associated with Expectancy Violations Theory?

A) critical communication tradition B) socio-psychological communication tradition C) empirical communication tradition D) socio-cultural communication tradition

27) Athena is not usually bothered by distance violations of others, which is something Artemis cannot understand. When someone comes within a distance of Artemis, she considers it too close for comfort, becomes angry, and starts inching away from the person. Athena and Artemis differ greatly in their

A) violation valence B) intimate distance C) perception of arousal D) threat threshold

28)

_____ refers to the perceived negative or positive assessment of an unexpected behavior.

A) Threat threshold B) Double agency C) Violation valence D) Audience analysis

29) _____ includes the way people use space in their conversations as well as perceptions of another's use of space.

A) Territoriality B) Proxemics C) Expectancy D) Collectivism

30)

Which of the following is a relational factor that influences a person's expectations?

A) cultural norms B) reputation C) levels of attraction D) social functions

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

31) Describe the four proxemic zones identified by Hall. Be sure to include the space regulations for each zone as well as the type of communication that typically takes place in each zone.

32) Provide an example of an expectancy violation that you have experienced. Define communicator reward valence, and discuss the extent to which this factor influenced your evaluation of the violation.

33) Differentiate between primary, secondary, and public territories. Provide an example of each, and list an expectancy that you have for each of these territories in your own life.

34) Distinguish between cognitive and physical arousal. Provide an example of each type of arousal that you have experienced as a result of a specific expectancy violation.

35) Throughout this course, cultural variables have been emphasized as a critical dimension of human communication. Address the issue of culture as it relates to Expectancy Violations Theory (EVT). What role do cultural variables play in this theory? Does EVT do a sufficient job of addressing these variables? Why or why not?

36)

Using the standard criteria for theory evaluation, critique Expectancy Violations Theory.

37) How would you go about testing Expectancy Violations Theory with respect to an area of nonverbal communication other than use of space? Provide a hypothesis or research question, and describe how you would go about studying that particular nonverbal phenomenon.

38) How would you go about testing Expectancy Violations Theory with respect to an area of verbal communication? Provide a hypothesis or research question, and describe how you would go about studying that particular verbal phenomenon.

39) Generally speaking, we tend to associate the term "violation" with negative consequences. According to Expectancy Violations Theory, are violations always bad? Is it possible for violations to be perceived in a positive way? Why or why not? In your response, be sure to support your position with information from the text and use an example to illustrate your thesis.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) C 12) D 13) B 14) D 15) B 16) C 17) B 18) B 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) B

27) D 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) Answers will vary.

32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) The entry phase of interpersonal communication is guided by the implicit and explicit rules and norms that we have for conversations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Dainton and Aylor found that in established relationships, as uncertainty increased, jealousy decreased. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Prediction is defined as attempts made to interpret the meaning of past actions in a relationship. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) In an initial interaction setting, as nonverbal affiliative expressiveness increases, uncertainty levels increase. ⊚ ⊚

5)

High levels of uncertainty produce high rates of reciprocity. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

true false

Increases in uncertainty level produce decreases in liking. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) While Uncertainty Reduction Theory has enjoyed relevance to initial interaction and developed relationships, it has no applicability to other contexts, such as mass communication. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) New research, which expanded the theory, found an inverse relationship between uncertainty and interaction with social networks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

9) All of the following are concepts identified by Berger and Calabrese as being related to uncertainty EXCEPT

A) self-disclosure B) verbal output C) information seeking D) argumentativeness

10)

Uncertainty Reduction Theory predicts that high levels of uncertainty produce

A) high levels of similarity B) high levels of reciprocity C) high levels of liking D) high levels of affiliative expressiveness

11) All of the following are assumptions about uncertainty reduction identified by the authors EXCEPT

A) it is unreasonable to attempt to predict people's behavior in a lawlike fashion B) uncertainty is an aversive state, generating cognitive stress C) people experience uncertainty in interpersonal settings D) when strangers meet, they want to reduce their uncertainty and increase their predictability

12)

Which of the following is an assumption of Uncertainty Reduction Theory?

A) When strangers meet, their primary concern is to reduce predictability.

B) Interpersonal communication is the secondary means of uncertainty reduction.

C) The quantity and nature of information that people share change through time.

D) It is not possible to predict people’s behavior in a lawlike fashion.

13) Uncertainty Reduction Theory poses _____, or truisms drawn from past research and common sense, to explain the process of reducing uncertainty in initial interactions.

A) personal space expectancies B) axioms C) research questions D) disclosure violations

14) In the context of interpersonal communication, the _____ is the stage where interactants start to communicate more spontaneously and to reveal more idiosyncratic information.

A) initial phase B) primary phase C) personal phase D) exit phase

15) One of the axioms of uncertainty reduction states that as nonverbal affiliative expressiveness _____, uncertainty levels _____.

A) increases; decrease B) decreases; increase C) increases; increase D) decreases; decrease

16)

A _____ is derived from axioms, and it suggests a relationship between two concepts.

A) connection B) theorem C) theory D) hypothesis

17) Uncertainty Reduction Theory has been expanded into many concepts. This refers to the criterion known as

A) utility B) parsimony C) heurism D) scope

18) Ashley meets Lisa on an online dating site and is considering meeting her in person.

When she Googles Lisa to find out if what Lisa has disclosed about herself matches information on the online public record, she is reducing uncertainty by using a(n) _____.

A) extractive strategy B) interactive strategy C) active strategy D) passive strategy

19) Jake is attracted to Felicia, but he's not sure about her current relationship status. He decides to ask one of her field hockey teammates if Felicia is currently seeing anyone. Which type of tactic has Jake employed to reduce his uncertainty about Felicia?

A) passive strategy B) active strategy C) interactive strategy D) coactive strategy

20)

To which communication tradition is Uncertainty Reduction Theory related?

A) phenomenological communication tradition B) socio-cultural communication tradition C) semiotic communication tradition D) socio-psychological communication tradition

21) In their comparison of low- and high-context cultures, Gudykunst and his colleagues discovered that

A) the frequency of communication predicts uncertainty in high-context cultures, but not in low-context cultures B) the quality of communication predicts uncertainty in low-context cultures, but not in high-context cultures C) the frequency of communication predicts uncertainty in low-context cultures, but not in high-context cultures D) the quality of communication predicts uncertainty in high-context cultures, but not in low-context cultures

22) Uncertainty Reduction Theory has been investigated using primarily the _____ approach to knowing.

A) positivistic B) critical C) interpretive D) axiological

23) Research on relational uncertainty in long-distance relationships revealed that uncertainty is a critical variable affecting levels of

A) relational satisfaction B) information-seeking C) jealousy D) self-disclosure

24) _____ refers to the degree of uncertainty associated with beliefs and attitudes that people hold.

A) Cognitive uncertainty B) Behavioral uncertainty C) Initial uncertainty D) Value uncertainty

25) James Neuliep and Erica Grohskopf (2000) conducted a study that indicates a relationship between uncertainty reduction and

A) communication compulsion B) communication aversion C) communication apprehension D) communication satisfaction

26) Erick and Ellen are in a long-term romantic relationship. As partners in a stable long-term relationship, they have much lower levels of uncertainty than those in newer relationships. They often find themselves feeling as if this lack of uncertainty has led to a degree of stagnation.

While they enjoy the stability that certainty brings to a relationship, they sometimes wish there was more uncertainty to keep things fresh. What phenomenon are Erick and Ellen experiencing?

A) relational uncertainty B) dialectical uncertainty C) uncertainty acceptance D) uncertainty avoidance

27) According to Edward T. Hall (1977), _____ are defined as those cultures in which meaning is found in the explicit code or message.

A) high-context cultures B) indirect cultures C) direct cultures D) low-context cultures

28) According to Hofstede (1991) and Smith (2015), _____ refers to an attempt to shun ambiguous situations.

A) uncertainty avoidance B) heurism C) prediction D) self-disclosure

29)

_____ refers to revealing private information about oneself to another.

A) Explanation B) Self-actualization C) Self-disclosure D) Reactivity

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

30) Explain three of the five assumptions about Uncertainty Reduction Theory that are presented by the authors.

31) Describe the axioms developed to explain Uncertainty Reduction Theory, and discuss the relationship between the variables identified in each of the axioms.

32) What kind of research would you conduct to learn more about uncertainty reduction in a particular context? Propose a hypothesis or research question, and describe your study.

33) Provide an example of a time in your life when you experienced uncertainty about communicating with another person. Describe how you could have used each of the following strategies to reduce your level of uncertainty: passive, active, interactive, and extractive.

34) Discuss the three antecedent conditions that influence a person's decision to reduce his or her uncertainty about another individual.

35)

Using the standard criteria for theory evaluation, critique Uncertainty Reduction Theory.

36) Throughout this course, we have taken care to emphasize the significance of cultural variables in communication and in our lives in general. Have researchers addressed cultural dimensions of Uncertainty Reduction Theory (URT)? What, if any, research exists to investigate this question? Are there ways in which culture may affect URT? Why or why not?

37) Do you agree with the fundamental assertion that humans are primarily concerned with uncertainty reduction in initial interactions, or might there be other concerns that could outweigh this concern under particular circumstances? Explain.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) B

27) D 28) A 29) C 30)Answers will vary.

31) Answers will vary.

32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) The dispositional matrix represents the variety of alternative behaviors and outcomes that guide an individual's choice for behavior in the social exchange. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) If the comparison level for alternatives is greater than the comparison level, which is greater than the outcome, the relationship will be viewed as being unsatisfying and unstable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Social Exchange Theory says that a relationship in which the partners have no power over each other will be the most satisfying and least costly. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4)

Behavioral sequences are a series of actions designed to achieve one's goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) If no rewarding options are available, an individual will choose the option that is most costly to him or her. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Social Exchange theorists believe that all relationships require time and effort on the part of the participants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Saying that humans are rational decision makers is essentially the same thing as saying they engage in rationalization. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

A prevailing belief in Social Exchange Theory is that people are rational decision makers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

9) Relationships in which costs exceed rewards are perceived as having

A) positive worth B) negative worth C) supportive outcomes D) instability

10) Emotional support and companionship may be perceived as being _____ in a relationship.

A) costs B) rewards C) worthwhile D) desired

11) Sabatelli and Shehan use the metaphor of a(n) _____ to describe the social exchange that takes place in relationships.

A) grandfather clock B) bank C) marketplace D) onion

12) Which of the following accurately states the two assumptions that Social Exchange Theory makes about the nature of relationships?

A) Relational life always has a positive value associated with it, and relationships are rational.

B) Relationships are interdependent, and relational life is a process.

C) Relationships are rational, and they emphasize rewards and minimize costs.

D) Relationships emphasize rewards and minimize costs, and they promote rational behavior.

13) Which of the following assumptions of Social Exchange Theory suggests that the theory must take diversity into consideration?

A) Humans seek rewards and avoid punishments.

B) Humans are rational beings.

C) The standards used to evaluate costs vary over time.

D) Relationships are interdependent.

14)

The Prisoner's Dilemma is a simulation game that was created to illustrate

A) the value of conflict in relational exchanges B) the impact of time and change on relational life C) the importance of not revealing private information about oneself to others D) the fact that social exchange is a function of interdependence

15) All of the following statements about the relationship between comparison level (CL), comparison level for alternatives (CLalt), and outcomes are true EXCEPT

A) if the outcome is greater than the CL, which is greater than the CLalt, the relationship will be viewed as being satisfying and stable B) if the outcome is greater than the CLalt, which is greater than the CL, the relationship will be viewed as being unsatisfying and stable C) if the CL is greater than the CLalt, which is greater than the outcome, the relationship will be viewed as being unsatisfying and unstable D) if the CL is greater than the outcome, which is greater than the CLalt, the relationship will be viewed as being unsatisfying and stable

16) When you think about your own satisfaction with your current relationship in terms of how much happier you think you could be if you were dating your previous relational partner, you are considering your

A) comparison level for alternatives B) comparison level C) potential outcomes D) personal assessments

17)

Which of the following statements is true of comparison levels (CL)?

A) CLs remain the same for all individuals.

B) Individuals base their CL on past experiences with a specific type of relationship.

C) Relationships portrayed in the media have little effect on our own relationships.

D) There is a typical standard on which to base comparison levels.

18) The comparison level predicts the _____ of a relationship, whereas the comparison level for alternatives predicts the _____.

A) outcome; selection B) satisfaction; stability C) selection; worth D) stability; satisfaction

19) Which approach to knowing characterizes the research conducted using Social Exchange Theory?

A) positivistic/empirical approach B) interpretive approach C) critical approach D) phenomenological approach

20) Alicia is upset because her family is against her decision to accept a job in Chicago. They do not like the fact that she will be moving to a big city all by herself. Alicia decides to discuss her relationship with her parents to point out that she feels that they are treating her like a child instead of an adult. Alicia's decision to adjust the power and costs involved in her family relationship by discussing the relationship represents the _____.

A) given matrix B) chosen matrix C) effective matrix D) dispositional matrix

21) The _____ is used to illustrate the way in which two people believe that rewards should be exchanged between them in the relationship.

A) given matrix B) chosen matrix C) effective matrix D) dispositional matrix

22)

All of the following are criticisms of Social Exchange Theory EXCEPT

A) the theory is not testable because the concepts of costs and rewards are not clearly defined B) the theory views humans as rational calculators who are able to come up with numerical representations of their relational lives C) the theory fails to focus on the importance of group solidarity and the importance it plays on individual needs fulfillment D) the theory has not stood the test of time

23) Your inability to enjoy ballroom dancing with your relational partner because you don't know how to dance, something she or he considers a cost in the relationship, is part of your relationship's _____.

A) given matrix B) chosen matrix C) effective matrix D) dispositional matrix

24) In the context of the matrices in Social Exchange as described by Thibaut and Kelley, the _____ represents the behavioral choices and outcomes that are determined by a combination of external factors and internal factors.

A) positional matrix B) dispositional matrix C) effective matrix D) given matrix

25) Your ability to influence your relational partner's actions, such as when you convince her or him to spend time alone with you rather than go out with friends, is called

A) fate control B) stability control C) relational control D) behavior control

26) In the context of the matrices in Social Exchange as described by Thibaut and Kelley, the _____ represents an expansion of alternative behaviors and/or outcomes which ultimately determines the behavioral choices in social exchange.

A) positional matrix B) dispositional matrix C) given matrix D) effective matrix

27)

Which of these communication traditions is associated with Social Exchange Theory?

A) phenomenological communication tradition B) semiotic communication tradition C) socio-psychological communication tradition D) rhetorical communication tradition

28)

A(n) _____ refers to whether people continue in a relationship or terminate it.

A) cost B) alternative C) outcome D) sequence

29)

_____ refers to the ability to affect a partner's relational outcomes.

A) Double agency B) The given matrix C) The comparison level D) Fate control

30)

Which of the following is a criticism of Social Exchange Theory (SET)?

A) The exchange framework that SET fits into is too focused on the separate self.

B) The exchange framework that SET fits into deemphasizes rationality and self-interest.

C) The theory is too focused on the connected self.

D) The theory sees humans as irrational calculators.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

31) Describe the concepts of costs and rewards in a relationship, and give examples of each.

Also, provide examples of things that could be perceived as both costs and rewards in a relationship.

32) Discuss the two types of comparison levels that are used when deciding whether to continue or terminate a relationship. Provide examples of each based on a personal decision that was made with regard to the continuance of a relationship.

33) Describe the role of power in calculating relational rewards and costs. What are the two types of power that are addressed in Social Exchange Theory? Provide an example of each.

34) Describe the different patterns of communication that individuals can employ in coping with power differentials in relationships.

35)

How does the role of self function in Social Exchange Theory?

36) What conclusions can be drawn with respect to the role of self-disclosure in Social Exchange Theory? How is it discussed in the theory?

37) Apply social exchange principles to a relationship you have with a close co-worker or family member.

38) Do you agree with the assumption that humans are fundamentally rational beings when it comes to evaluating relationships? Why or why not? What, if any, change would you propose to refine this theory to account for irrational relational behaviors?

39) How would you go about researching a particular relational phenomenon using Social Exchange Theory? Formulate a hypothesis or research question and describe the study you would conduct.

40)

Using the standard criteria for theory evaluation, critique Social Exchange Theory.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) B 10) B 11) C 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) A 20) C 21) D 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) D 26) D

27) C 28) C 29) D 30) A 31) Answers will vary.

32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

40) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Dyadic uniqueness emerges in the affective exchange stage of the social penetration process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Relationships with a reservoir of positive reward/cost experiences are better equipped to handle conflict.

⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The greater the depth of disclosure, the fewer opportunities there are for an individual to be concerned about feeling vulnerable in a relationship. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

Social penetration views relationships as being dynamic and changing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Relational communication begins at a superficial level and gets less personal as the relationship progresses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) In the context of the stages of the social penetration process, the stable exchange stage is characterized by a low degree of spontaneity and relational uniqueness. ⊚ ⊚

7)

true false

Depenetration always leads to relational dissolution. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Individuals in the affective exchange stage may begin to form private ways of expressing a relationship's intimacy, known as personal idioms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

9) As a "stage" theory, Social Penetration Theory believes relationship development is

A) nonintimate B) systematic C) unpredictable D) unreasonable

10)

The "stranger-on-the-train" phenomenon is an example of

A) nonstrategic self-disclosure B) social penetration C) strategic self-disclosure D) affective exchange

11) Which of the following assumptions of Social Penetration Theory is NOT correctly stated?

A) Relational development includes depenetration and dissolution.

B) Relational development is generally systematic and predictable.

C) Relationships progress from intimate to nonintimate.

D) Self-disclosure is at the core of relationship development.

12) The fact that Social Penetration Theory has spurred hundreds of studies on a variety of relationships means that it is a highly _____ theory.

A) useful B) consistent C) broad D) heuristic

13)

All of the following statements about self-disclosure are true EXCEPT

A) self-disclosure is not necessary to move nonintimate relationships toward intimacy B) self-disclosure can be strategic, which means that disclosures are planned C) self-disclosure can be nonstrategic, which means that disclosures are spontaneous D) self-disclosure sometimes occurs with strangers in public places

14) In the context of the onion analogy used by Altman and Taylor to represent various aspects of a person's personality, the _____ is the outer layer of an individual's personality or that which is available to the naked eye.

A) idiosyncratic image B) private image C) public image D) personal image

15) In the context of the dimensions of penetration in Social Penetration Theory, _____ refers to the degree of intimacy that guides topic discussions.

A) quantity B) depth C) quality D) breadth

16) As relationships move toward intimacy, there is _____ breadth in disclosure and _____ depth in disclosure.

A) more; less B) more; more C) less; more D) less; less

17) When partners start to feel willing to engage in criticisms because they are not typically viewed as a threat to the relationship, which of the following stages of the social penetration process have they reached?

A) orientation stage B) exploratory affective exchange stage C) affective exchange stage D) stable exchange stage

18) Which of the following statements about rewards and costs in relationships is most accurate?

A) Costs stimulate positive feelings.

B) A reward-cost ratio is often calculated to determine the balance between positive and negative relationship experiences.

C) If a relationship produces more costs than rewards, it is likely to continue.

D) Rewards and costs have a greater impact later on in a relationship than earlier in the relationship.

19) The stage of social penetration at which individuals make quick decisions about communication with little regard to the relationship as a whole is the _____.

A) orientation stage B) exploratory affective exchange stage C) affective exchange stage D) stable exchange stage

20) Julianne and Ricardo have reached a point in their relationship where they openly express their thoughts and feelings with one another. Their communication is viewed as being efficient.

Which stage of social penetration describes the current state of their relationship?

A) orientation stage B) exploratory affective exchange stage C) affective exchange stage D) stable exchange stage

21)

Critics of Social Penetration Theory are concerned that _____ is too narrowly interpreted.

A) relational development B) self-disclosure C) personality D) reciprocity

22)

An individual's personality begins to emerge in the _____ of social penetration.

A) orientation stage B) exploratory affective exchange stage C) affective exchange stage D) stable exchange stage

23) With which communication tradition is Social Penetration Theory most closely associated?

A) interpersonal B) socio-cultural C) phenomenological D) socio-psychological

24)

_____ is a violation of relational rules, practices, and expectations.

A) Depenetration B) Transgression C) Reciprocity D) Social exchange

25)

In the context of Social Penetration Theory, _____ refers to a pathway to closeness.

A) trajectory B) intimacy C) affective exchange D) social exchange

26) Social Penetration theorists believe that _____ is the primary way that superficial relationships progress to intimate relationships.

A) depenetration B) dissolution C) self-disclosure D) self-actualization

27)

_____ refers to the process by which one person's openness leads to the other's openness.

A) Depenetration B) Reciprocity C) Dissolution D) Orientation

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

28) Describe the concept of self-disclosure and its dimensions of breadth and depth. Discuss the role of self-disclosure in developing relationships.

29) Explain how costs and rewards factor into the process of social penetration. How do we use rewards and costs to make decisions about the future of a relationship?

30) Identify and describe the four stages in the process of social penetration. Provide an example of a relationship (real or fictional) that evolved through the social penetration process.

Describe the communication changes that took place during these four stages.

31) Describe the processes of depenetration and dissolution. What role does communication play in each of these processes?

32)

Evaluate Social Penetration Theory using the standard criteria for theory evaluation.

33) Apply at least two concepts of Social Penetration Theory (SPT) to an office relationship.

Be sure to describe the features of the relationship and how SPT principles apply to that relationship.

34) Discuss the potential for intercultural influences on Social Penetration Theory. Do you think culture is a variable that has the potential to influence this theory? Why or why not?

35) Compare and contrast Social Penetration Theory with any other theory we have discussed that deals with interpersonal relationship development. How are these two theories similar? How are they different? Do you think one is better than the other? Why or why not?

36) Discuss various times when we should be cautious in our self-disclosures. Why should self-disclosure be used sparingly in these instances? What is unique about these situations as opposed to our intimate relationships with our family, friends, or romantic partners?

37) Define and discuss two assumptions of Social Penetration Theory. In what ways have you experienced the phenomena they describe? Have you had any relational experiences that seem to contradict these assumptions?

38) How would you use Social Penetration Theory to research some aspect of relational development? Provide a hypothesis or research question and describe the study you would conduct to gain insight into this phenomenon.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) B 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) C 15) B 16) B 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) B 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) C

27) B 28) Answers will vary.

29) Answers will vary.

30) Answers will vary.

31) Answers will vary.

32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Relationships developed online require more time to achieve the same level of intimacy as relationships developed face-to-face. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) One assumption of Social Information Processing Theory is that online communicators are motivated to form favorable impressions of themselves to others. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Computer-mediated communication is a process in which people perceive, interpret, and exchange information via large networked telecommunications systems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) In synchronous communication, both the sender and the receiver are online simultaneously. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

Media Richness Theory considers telephones to be one of the "richest" media. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Walther has never addressed critics who believe Social Information Processing Theory has too much breadth. ⊚ ⊚

7)

true false

Social Information Processing Theory is a positivistic/empirical theory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Social Information Processing Theory was developed as a critique of Communication Privacy Management Theory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Both Social Presence Theory and Media Richness Theory have the advantage of an indepth understanding of relational life online. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

10) Which of the following theories influenced the development of Social Information Processing Theory?

A) Media Ecology Theory B) Media Richness Theory C) Uncertainty Reduction Theory D) Expectancy Violations Theory

11) Social Information Processing Theory has been critiqued in all of the following areas EXCEPT

A) utility B) heurism C) scope D) testability

12)

Which of the following is an assumption of Social Information Processing Theory?

A) The online medium is too narrow to allow for relationship development.

B) Computer-mediated communication provides unique opportunities to connect with people.

C) Relationships are stable and unchanging.

D) People experience uncertainty in interpersonal settings, and it generates cognitive stress.

13) Elena posts a status update on Facebook celebrating her new job, but she never mentions that she was fired from her previous position, fearing that her friends might think she's unreliable or even a thief. This is an example of

A) feedback B) overattribution C) asynchronous communication D) impression management

14) A tendency for an individual's expectation of a target person to evoke a response from that person which, in turn, reaffirms the original prediction is called

A) overattribution B) self-fulfilling prophecy C) channel management D) impression management

15) Which of the following is an option an online communicator might use to indicate that he or she is already in a romantic relationship?

A) by providing dialogue about his or her partner B) by displaying his or her relationship status C) by displaying a picture that shows a partner D) All of these answers are correct.

16) In the context of Social Information Processing Theory, _____ are those cues related to how people perceive, use, or respond to time.

A) phonemic cues B) chronemic cues C) semantic cues D) tactile cues

17) Claire has been chatting with Steve on an online dating site for a few weeks. When she finds out his full name, she Googles his name to find out if his band is really as successful as he claims. Social Information Processing Theory refers to this behavior as

A) impression management B) warranting C) asynchronous communication D) cyberstalking

18)

The communication tradition to which Social Information Processing Theory is related is

A) socio-cultural communication tradition B) socio-phenomenological communication tradition C) socio-psychological communication tradition D) socio-semiotic communication tradition

19)

Which of the following components is NOT part of the hyperpersonal perspective?

A) channel management B) feedback C) sender D) nonverbal cues

20) Studies have shown that online relationships may be perceived as more _____ than those developed face-to-face.

A) superficial B) hostile C) intimate D) impersonal

21)

The testability of Social Information Processing Theory has been criticized because

A) warranting research has only examined undesirable social traits B) researchers have not tested whether there is a particular receiver behavior that leads to greater online intimacy C) the issue of space has never been addressed D) channel management has not been sufficiently studied

22) In a 2009 study that included mock-up Facebook posting, researchers found that selfproclaimed physical attractiveness was found to be _____ believable when others confirmed the claim.

A) less B) more C) equally D) empirically

23) In the context of Walther's hyperpersonal perspective of computer-mediated communication (CMC) relationships, _____ are those evaluations and judgments people make based on the actions or behaviors of others.

A) allusions B) revelations C) intimations D) attributions

24) Walther contends that the _____ relational the affection or more desirable the other communicator is, the _____ editing in message composition.

A) less; less B) more; less C) less; more D) more; more

25) Which approach to knowing characterizes the research undertaken with Social Information Processing Theory?

A) post-positivistic/empirical approach B) interpretive/hermeneutic approach C) critical approach D) phenomenological approach

26) When Althea sees that Leslie has tweeted a picture of herself with a surfboard, she assumes that Leslie goes surfing regularly. In reality, Leslie liked the design of the surfboard and posed with it but has never actually been surfing. In this scenario, Althea is

A) overattributing B) communicating synchronously C) managing impression D) creating the ought self

27) Ellison, Heino, and Gibbs (2006) found that online daters present all of the following "selves" EXCEPT

A) the ought self B) the actual self C) the imaginary self D) the ideal self

28) _____ is defined as either a strategic or unconscious effort to influence another's perception.

A) Boundary coordination B) Synchronous communication C) Impression management D) Affinity seeking

29) In the context of impression management, the _____ refers to the attributes a person possesses.

A) ought self B) ideal self C) imaginary self D) actual self

30)

Which of the following statements is true of cues filtered-out theories?

A) They refer to theories that address the lack of nonverbal hints as being detrimental to online relationship development.

B) They refer to theories that posit the extent to which people are aware of each other via various communication media.

C) They refer to theories that advance the notion that communication can be classified according to message complexity.

D) They refer to theories that envision the enormous influence of the Internet and rest upon the interplay among technology and relationships.

31)

Which of the following statements is true of Social Presence Theory?

A) According to the theory, lower-degree mediums are viewed as opportunistic for relational growth.

B) It states that higher-degree mediums are perceived as being more impersonal and unemotional in nature.

C) According to the theory, audio and text-based mediums have a higher degree of social media presence as compared to video-based mediums.

D) It relates to the extent to which individuals are aware of each other via various communication media.

32)

Which of the following statements is true of Media Richness Theory?

A) The theory was independent of the evolution of Social Information Processing Theory.

B) "Richness" is evaluated by the extent to which a message is personalized.

C) The "richest" media are telephones, memos, and letters.

D) The "leanest" media prompt individuals to communicate faster.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

33) Explain the role of impression management in Social Information Processing Theory.

How does it manifest in online conversations and relationships?

34) Do you agree with Social Information Processing Theory's belief that online relationships can become just as intimate as those developed face-to-face? Why or why not?

35) Describe Social Presence Theory and Media Richness Theory. How does Social Information Processing Theory function as a critique of these theories?

36)

Differentiate between synchronous and asynchronous communication. Use examples.

37) Describe some of the ways in which online communicators adapt to the restrictions of the online medium. How do they compensate with the lack of nonverbal cues?

38) How would you apply Social Information Processing Theory to social media? Choosing a particular form of social media (e.g. Facebook, Twitter, Goodreads), formulate a hypothesis or research question based on the theory, and describe your method for investigating it.

39)

How is computer-mediated communication different from face-to-face communication?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) B 11) B 12) B 13) D 14) B 15) D 16) B 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) B 23) D 24) D 25) A 26) A

27) C 28) C 29) D 30) A 31) D 32) B 33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) A system is a group or organization and not the behaviors the group engages in to pursue its goals. ⊚ ⊚

2)

true false

Giddens views all group members as having some sort of power. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Structure refers to the rules and resources that group members use to guide their behavior and sustain their system.

⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Legitimate power is based on a person's ability to exert influence over other group members on the basis of his or her position or title. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Poole and his colleagues conclude that the key to understanding groups is through an analysis of the rules that underlie them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Poole and his colleagues contend that small groups are aware of and knowledgeable about the events and activities that take place around them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Social integration in Structuration Theory refers to the reciprocity of communication behaviors among persons in interactions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Structures are viewed as having both temporal and spatial qualities, and in understanding them, we must try to ignore the time–space relations inherent in the constitution of all social interaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Giddens views social structures as a double-edged sword in that they restrict our behavior, but those same rules are necessary because they enable us to understand and interact with others. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) A system is a group or organization and not the behaviors the group engages in to pursue its goals. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Giddens views all group members as having some sort of power. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Structure refers to the rules and resources that group members use to guide their behavior and sustain their system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Legitimate power is based on a person's ability to exert influence over other group members on the basis of his or her position or title. ⊚ ⊚

true false

14) Poole and his colleagues conclude that the key to understanding groups is through an analysis of the rules that underlie them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Poole and his colleagues contend that small groups are aware of and knowledgeable about the events and activities that take place around them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Social integration in Structuration Theory refers to the reciprocity of communication behaviors among persons in interactions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Structures are viewed as having both temporal and spatial qualities, and in understanding them, we must try to ignore the time–space relations inherent in the constitution of all social interaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) Giddens views social structures as a double-edged sword in that they restrict our behavior, but those same rules are necessary because they enable us to understand and interact with others. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

19) All of the following statements about rules are true EXCEPT

A) rules may be implicitly learned B) rules increase uncertainty C) rules may be explicitly stated D) rules enable members to understand and interact with others

20)

Which of the following is an assumption of Structuration Theory?

A) Communication rules serve as only the medium for interactions.

B) Organizations do not use power structures in the decision-making process.

C) Groups and organizations are produced and reproduced through actions and behaviors.

D) Every action or behavior results in the production of an old act.

21) Structuration theorists believe that all social interaction in an organization is comprised of _____ and _____ dimensions.

A) temporal; spatial B) cognitive; affective C) informal; informational D) reflexive; reflective

22)

Structuration is defined as

A) the system in which an organization operates and develops its rules and resources for guiding interaction B) the development of agency and reflexivity as facilitating decision making in organizations and groups C) the rules and resources that affect organizational members' interactions and decisions on a daily basis D) the process by which systems are produced and reproduced through members' use of rules and resources

23) In Structuration Theory, rather than viewing rules as strictly guidelines for _____ something must be done, it is more useful to view them as an instruction manual for _____ a goal may be accomplished.

A) why; how B) when; how C) how; why D) where; how

24) Which of the following is an approach to knowing that characterizes the research undertaken using Structuration Theory?

A) socio-cultural approach B) mass/media approach C) critical approach D) positivistic/empirical approach

25) When you do what your boss asks you to do because you recognize that she has the ability to promote you following next month's performance evaluations, you are acknowledging her

A) favoritism tendencies B) reward power C) allocative resources D) structuration capacity

26)

Critics of Structuration Theory are primarily concerned with its

A) heuristic value B) ability to stand the test of time C) lack of parsimony D) logical consistency

27) Alberto's team agreed to participate in a late-night meeting to formulate a plan of action for an emergency task. While most people would refuse to work late hours, Alberto's team complied with his request because he is the Manager of Operations for their division of the company. Which of the following types of power is most influential in getting the group to agree to the late-night meeting?

A) expert power B) referent power C) reward power D) legitimate power

28) One's ability to exert influence over others based on his or her ability to penalize group members who do not comply, such as a boss who can require workers who arrive late to do undesirable tasks, is called

A) reward power B) referent power C) expert power D) coercive power

29) In Structuration Theory, the _____ is the group or organization and the behaviors that the group engages in to pursue its goals, and the _____ is the rules and resources used to sustain a group or organization.

A) system; structure B) collective; structuration C) structure; system D) agent; agency

30) With which of the following communication traditions is Structuration Theory associated?

A) semiotic communication tradition B) cybernetic communication tradition C) rhetorical communication tradition D) phenomenological communication tradition

31) When you are assigned to a group for a class project, your ability to express your thoughts and goals in a language that other group members are able to understand is called

A) practical consciousness B) authoritative resources C) discursive consciousness D) power base

32) The interpersonal characteristics that are employed during communication interactions are considered to be _____.

A) allocative resources B) authoritative resources C) material resources D) practical resources

33) The person who engages in behaviors or activities in social environments is referred to as the _____ by structuration theorists.

A) agent B) agency C) structure D) authoritative resource

34)

Anthony Giddens believes that

A) people are unaware of the influence of others B) the structures and the rules that we create restrict behavior C) communication systems are too complex to completely understand D) rules are key to an individual's satisfaction

35) In the context of the model of social power proposed by French and Raven, _____ is based on a person's perception that another has the ability to provide positive reinforcements.

A) referent power B) inferential power C) reward power D) expert power

36)

_____ refers to the imposition of personal will on others.

A) Structuration B) Fate control C) Reflexivity D) Power

37)

A _____ refers to something new developed from action or behavior.

A) dyadic uniqueness B) blueprint C) fresh act D) structure

38) In the context of Structuration Theory, _____ refers to actors' ability to monitor their actions and behaviors.

A) reflexivity B) applicability C) retrospection D) rumination

39)

All of the following statements about rules are true EXCEPT

A) rules may be implicitly learned B) rules increase uncertainty C) rules may be explicitly stated D) rules enable members to understand and interact with others

40)

Which of the following is an assumption of Structuration Theory?

A) Communication rules serve as only the medium for interactions.

B) Organizations do not use power structures in the decision-making process.

C) Groups and organizations are produced and reproduced through actions and behaviors.

D) Every action or behavior results in the production of an old act.

41) Structuration theorists believe that all social interaction in an organization is comprised of _____ and _____ dimensions.

A) temporal; spatial B) cognitive; affective C) informal; informational D) reflexive; reflective

42)

Structuration is defined as

A) the system in which an organization operates and develops its rules and resources for guiding interaction B) the development of agency and reflexivity as facilitating decision making in organizations and groups C) the rules and resources that affect organizational members' interactions and decisions on a daily basis D) the process by which systems are produced and reproduced through members' use of rules and resources

43) In Structuration Theory, rather than viewing rules as strictly guidelines for _____ something must be done, it is more useful to view them as an instruction manual for _____ a goal may be accomplished.

A) why; how B) when; how C) how; why D) where; how

44) Which of the following is an approach to knowing that characterizes the research undertaken using Structuration Theory?

A) socio-cultural approach B) mass/media approach C) critical approach D) positivistic/empirical approach

45) When you do what your boss asks you to do because you recognize that she has the ability to promote you following next month's performance evaluations, you are acknowledging her

A) favoritism tendencies B) reward power C) allocative resources D) structuration capacity

46)

Critics of Structuration Theory are primarily concerned with its

A) heuristic value B) ability to stand the test of time C) lack of parsimony D) logical consistency

47) Alberto's team agreed to participate in a late-night meeting to formulate a plan of action for an emergency task. While most people would refuse to work late hours, Alberto's team complied with his request because he is the Manager of Operations for their division of the company. Which of the following types of power is most influential in getting the group to agree to the late-night meeting?

A) expert power B) referent power C) reward power D) legitimate power

48) One's ability to exert influence over others based on his or her ability to penalize group members who do not comply, such as a boss who can require workers who arrive late to do undesirable tasks, is called

A) reward power B) referent power C) expert power D) coercive power

49) In Structuration Theory, the _____ is the group or organization and the behaviors that the group engages in to pursue its goals, and the _____ is the rules and resources used to sustain a group or organization.

A) system; structure B) collective; structuration C) structure; system D) agent; agency

50) With which of the following communication traditions is Structuration Theory associated?

A) semiotic communication tradition B) cybernetic communication tradition C) rhetorical communication tradition D) phenomenological communication tradition

51) When you are assigned to a group for a class project, your ability to express your thoughts and goals in a language that other group members are able to understand is called

A) practical consciousness B) authoritative resources C) discursive consciousness D) power base

52) The interpersonal characteristics that are employed during communication interactions are considered to be _____.

A) allocative resources B) authoritative resources C) material resources D) practical resources

53) The person who engages in behaviors or activities in social environments is referred to as the _____ by structuration theorists.

A) agent B) agency C) structure D) authoritative resource

54)

Anthony Giddens believes that

A) people are unaware of the influence of others B) the structures and the rules that we create restrict behavior C) communication systems are too complex to completely understand D) rules are key to an individual's satisfaction

55) In the context of the model of social power proposed by French and Raven, _____ is based on a person's perception that another has the ability to provide positive reinforcements.

A) referent power B) inferential power C) reward power D) expert power

56)

_____ refers to the imposition of personal will on others.

A) Structuration B) Fate control C) Reflexivity D) Power

57)

A _____ refers to something new developed from action or behavior.

A) dyadic uniqueness B) blueprint C) fresh act D) structure

58) In the context of Structuration Theory, _____ refers to actors' ability to monitor their actions and behaviors.

A) reflexivity B) applicability C) retrospection D) rumination

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

59) Distinguish between the concepts of rules and resources. How does a group utilize each of these concepts in arriving at a decision?

60) Identify the five authoritative resources used by groups in arriving at decisions. Provide an example of each type of power exerted in group decisions in which you were a participant.

61) Discuss whether you believe Structuration Theory relates to a few, many, or most groups and organizations. Are there some concepts that are more readily applicable than others?

Explain.

62) Apply the principles of discursive consciousness and practical consciousness to relationships you have with others. What similarities and differences exist across these relationships?

63) Does Structuration Theory have any utility in helping make class-assigned groups more effective as they work on class projects? If so, which concepts do you feel would be useful to teach students embarking on group work so that they may better understand group processes that may make the group more or less effective? If not, why not?

64) Select five concepts from Structuration Theory to apply to a school as an organization.

Use examples to illustrate each concept. Be sure to explain each concept's role in the larger theoretical framework to show that you understand how it relates to the theory.

65) Distinguish between the concepts of rules and resources. How does a group utilize each of these concepts in arriving at a decision?

66) Identify the five authoritative resources used by groups in arriving at decisions. Provide an example of each type of power exerted in group decisions in which you were a participant.

67) Discuss whether you believe Structuration Theory relates to a few, many, or most groups and organizations. Are there some concepts that are more readily applicable than others?

Explain.

68) Apply the principles of discursive consciousness and practical consciousness to relationships you have with others. What similarities and differences exist across these relationships?

69) Does Structuration Theory have any utility in helping make class-assigned groups more effective as they work on class projects? If so, which concepts do you feel would be useful to teach students embarking on group work so that they may better understand group processes that may make the group more or less effective? If not, why not?

70) Select five concepts from Structuration Theory to apply to a school as an organization.

Use examples to illustrate each concept. Be sure to explain each concept's role in the larger theoretical framework to show that you understand how it relates to the theory.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) B 26) C

27) D 28) D 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) B 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) D 37) C 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) A 42) D 43) A 44) D 45) B 46) C 47) D 48) D 49) A 50) B 51) C 52) B 53) A 54) B 55) C 56) D

57) C 58) A 59) Answers will vary.

60) Answers will vary.

61) Answers will vary.

62) Answers will vary.

63) Answers will vary.

64) Answers will vary.

65) Answers will vary.

66) Answers will vary.

67) Answers will vary.

68) Answers will vary.

69) Answers will vary.

70) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Equivocality involves the process of engaging in complex communication behaviors in order to reduce the ambiguity of information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Weick proposes that the members of an organization must work together in order to reduce the ambiguity of information. It is not the sole responsibility of one person.

⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Effort is a rule that is applied when organizations choose to employ a plan of communication that in the past has helped to reduce the equivocality of information. ⊚ ⊚

4)

The information environment is identical to an organization's physical environment. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

Organizing is viewed as a structural process in Organizational Information Theory. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

true false

Response refers to a reaction to equivocality. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) According to Weick, organizations and their environments change so rapidly that it is unrealistic to show what they are like now, because that's not the way they're going to be later. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) According to Weick, if an organization has few rules to deal with equivocality, a greater number of cycles will be needed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) According to Weick, the fewer cycles that are used to obtain additional information and make adjustments, the more equivocality is removed. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

A technical question is highly equivocal to those who are trained in the field of expertise. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) According to Organizational Information Theory, the cycle of communication behaviors includes three stages. Which of the following correctly lists the stages and the order in which they occur?

A) enact, select, and retain B) act, respond, and adjust C) retain, select, and enact D) adjust, respond, and act

12)

All of the following are assumptions of Organizational Information Theory EXCEPT that

A) the equivocality of information is useful for assisting an organization in achieving its goals B) the information an organization receives differs in terms of equivocality C) human organizations exist in an information environment D) human organizations engage in information processing to reduce equivocality of information

13) The stage of reducing equivocality in which an organization stores information for later use and looks at what to deal with and what to ignore or leave alone is _____.

A) conclusion B) ambivalence C) retention D) selection

14) Because Organizational Information Theory has stimulated a lot of scholarship on various organizational information issues, it is considered to have _____.

A) semiotic value B) heuristic value C) consistency D) utility

15) All of the following are principles that organizations use when dealing with equivocality, according to Organizational Information Theory, EXCEPT

A) an organization must analyze the relationship among the equivocality of information, the rules the organization has for removing the equivocality, and the cycles of communication that should be used B) if an organization has only a few rules to help reduce equivocality, more cycles will be needed C) the greater the number of cycles, the lower the amount of equivocality that remains D) organizational members must assess their own abilities to make sense of equivocal information

16)

The _____ refers to the availability of all stimuli in an organization.

A) technological space B) physical environment C) information environment D) theoretical latticework

17) Which approach to knowing characterizes the research undertaken using Organizational Information Theory?

A) socio-cultural B) positivistic/empirical C) critical D) interpretive

18) Tom was trying to decide between sending an e-mail and sending a physical memo to the members of the sales team to announce upcoming procedural changes. He chose e-mail because of the efficiency and timeliness with which it could be composed and distributed. Which of Weick's rules for processing equivocality did Tom apply?

A) duration B) personnel C) success D) effort

19) The meetings your boss organizes each week in order to help your department experience less ambiguity about upcoming projects is an example of a(n)

A) response adjustment B) act enactment C) double-interact loop D) retention enactment

20) Which of the three stages in the process of reducing equivocality requires an organization to make a decision about the rules and cycles that will be used for obtaining or understanding information?

A) selection B) enactment C) retention D) identification

21)

Organizational Information Theory has been criticized because of its

A) inclusion of influential theories such as General Systems Theory B) emphasis on communication C) belief that people are guided by rules in an organization D) view of organization as an interactive process, not a structural one

22) Kendall's project team is reviewing the information that it received from other teams in the organization. It focuses on interpreting the information to determine its level of equivocality.

Which stage of the process of equivocality reduction does this scenario represent?

A) selection B) enactment C) retention D) identification

23) The guidelines that an organization has established for analyzing the equivocality of a message as well as for guiding responses to information are called

A) rules B) enactments C) reactions D) responses

24) Which of the following theories did Karl Weick apply in the development of his approach to studying how organizations manage information?

A) Dialectical Theory B) Uncertainty Reduction Theory C) General Systems Theory D) Structuration Theory

25) The two primary tasks that an organization must perform in order to successfully manage multiple sources of information are

A) interpreting the external information and increasing the complexity of data B) identifying the potential sources of information and soliciting information from those sources C) identifying the potential sources of information and blocking the channels of information D) interpreting the external information and coordinating the information to make it meaningful

26)

Which of the following is true of the rule of effort?

A) It is an organizational rule stating that a successful plan of the past will be used to reduce current equivocality.

B) It is an organizational rule stating that decisions regarding equivocality should be made in the least amount of time.

C) It is an organizational rule stating that decisions regarding equivocality should be made with the least amount of work.

D) It is an organizational rule stating the most knowledgeable workers should resolve equivocality.

27) With which communication tradition is Organizational Information Theory most closely associated?

A) cybernetic B) semiotic C) phenomenological D) rhetorical

28) When an organization chooses to employ a plan of communication that has been proven effective in the past at reducing the equivocality of information, _____ is the influential rule that is being applied.

A) effort B) duration C) expertise D) success

29) Inspired by Organizational Information Theory, Rosness et al. (2015) conducted research on the topic of _____.

A) nomadic work B) surgical procedures C) environmental flooding D) cohesion in the U.S. Army

30)

_____ refer to a series of communication behaviors that serve to reduce equivocality.

A) Rules B) Double-interact loops C) Acts D) Cycles

31) The organizational rule of _____ states that people who are the most knowledgeable should emerge as key resources to reduce equivocality.

A) success B) personnel C) effort D) staffing

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

32) Discuss the influence of General Systems Theory and Darwin's Theory of Evolution on the development of Organizational Information Theory. What other communication theories could be applied to explain how organizations reduce the ambiguity of information they receive?

33) Describe the four rules that an organization might employ to reduce the equivocality of information. Provide an example of each.

34) Explain the three stages in the cycle of communication behaviors used to reduce equivocality of information. Provide an example of each.

35) Explain the relationship between the following concepts of Organizational Information Theory: information environment, information equivocality, rules, and cycles.

36) Using the standard criteria for theory evaluation, critique Organizational Information Theory.

37) Look at how uncertainty is viewed in Organizational Information Theory and how it is viewed in Uncertainty Reduction Theory (Berger & Calabrese). Point out any differences and/or similarities in the viewpoints.

38) You are interested in studying how a news organization deals with equivocal and sometimes contradictory information about the events it needs to report to the public. How would you use Organizational Information Theory to study this phenomenon? Develop a hypothesis or research question, and describe your study.

39) Recall a time when you received ambiguous, equivocal, or contradictory information on which you had to make a decision or act. What concepts from Organizational Information Theory could be applied to describe what you did (or what you might have done if you'd been aware of the theory)?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 10 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) B 12) A 13) C 14) B 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) D 26) C

27) A 28) D 29) B 30) D 31) B 32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) When a relation exists between a high-power source and low-power media, the source is able to set the agenda for the media. ⊚ ⊚

2)

true false

Agenda Setting is a limited effects model. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The level of attribute agenda setting asserts that the media do guide their consumers in how to think. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) In the process of priming, what the media present temporarily, at least, influences what people think about afterwards in processing additional information. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

The agenda setting process consists of five parts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) The agenda setting process can be complicated by different media sources presenting confliction information. ⊚ ⊚

7)

Agenda Setting Theory is associated with the interpersonal communication context. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

true false

Agenda Setting Theory has only been studied in the United States. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) In the case of a low-power source and high-power media, the media are not able to set their own agenda because the source is considered to have a voice. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Walter Lippmann used the term "agenda setting" in his book called Public Opinion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) Which of the following important functions of mass media did Harold D. Lasswell describe?

A) agenda setting and surveillance B) gatekeeping and limited effect C) correlation and gatekeeping D) surveillance and correlation

12) The phenomenon of journalists' agenda being influenced by other journalists is referred to as _____.

A) social journalism B) pack journalism C) yellow journalism D) salient journalism

13)

Which of the following is an assumption of Agenda Setting Theory?

A) The media simply reflect reality.

B) The media's concentration on the issues that comprise their agenda influences the public's agenda.

C) The public and policymakers have no influence on the media's agenda.

D) All of these answers are correct.

14)

All of the following are examples of media framing in newspapers EXCEPT

A) the photographs included with a story B) a story's overall length C) the size of headlines D) the vocabulary used in a story

15)

When both media and source have high power, Littlejohn and Foss suggest that

A) the source's opinions will overpower the media B) the media will usually set the agenda C) they will be equals in setting the agenda D) outside events will be likely to determine the agenda

16) Tre has recently lost his job. He wants to vote for a candidate who will expand unemployment benefits, so he tunes in to numerous news reports about the beliefs and promises of the candidates. Which of the following variables affecting agenda setting does this scenario exemplify?

A) uncertainty B) salience C) correlation D) relevance

17) The way that media direct our attention to certain issues through communicating them to the public and to policymakers is called

A) framing B) priming C) relevance D) correlation

18) Mei has heard many news reports lately about gun violence. When she hears that a murder has been committed in her city, she immediately thinks the victim must have been shot, even though the reporter doesn't mention the cause of death. This is an example of _____.

A) priming B) surveillance C) uncertainty D) salience

19)

The _____ refers to the priority of issues to be discussed in mediated sources.

A) media environment B) media landscape C) media agenda D) media selection

20)

Which of the following factors does the power of the media agenda depend on?

A) media credibility B) the public's need for guidance or orientation C) the extent of conflicting evidence available to consumers D) All of these answers are correct.

21)

If relevance and uncertainty are both high, then Agenda Setting should be _____.

A) inapplicable B) predictive C) flexible D) restrictive

22)

The _____ is the result of the media agenda interacting with what the world thinks.

A) policy agenda B) cross-cultural agenda C) public agenda D) private agenda

23)

A 2008 study by Jennifer Brubaker concluded that

A) television viewers and Internet users ranked issues differently than the general media did B) media use was the same across generations C) political blogs were influenced by traditional media D) agenda setting is a useful framework for an environment with many media choices

24) In the first study of Agenda Setting Theory, which of the following did McCombs and Shaw hypothesize?

A) the intermedia influence on the agenda setting process B) the four types of power relations between the media and other sources C) media agenda being unlikely to become the agenda for the public over time D) a causal relationship between the media and the public agendas

25) In their landmark study on Agenda Setting Theory, McCombs and Shaw asked undecided voters what they thought were the main things on which the government should focus. Which of the following was one of the five main issues that they found?

A) presidential elections B) civil rights C) public perception D) government welfare

26)

The utility of Agenda Setting Theory has been criticized because

A) very few studies have been performed applying the theory B) media framing is now considered a separate theory C) it may not apply to new media D) it cannot be expanded beyond the American culture

27)

Which of the following approaches to knowing characterizes Agenda Setting research?

A) critical B) positivistic/empirical C) interpretive/hermeneutic D) both interpretive/hermeneutic and critical

28)

Agenda Setting Theory is associated with the _____ communication context.

A) intrapersonal B) mass/media C) small group D) public/rhetorical

29)

Criticisms of Agenda Setting Theory have asserted that the theory's scope is _____.

A) too large B) too narrow C) sometimes too large, sometimes too narrow D) too limited

30) _____ is the process of newspeople scanning the information that is in the environment and deciding which of the many events that are occurring deserve attention in their news outlets.

A) Surveillance B) Correlation C) Agenda D) Priming

31) A(n) _____ refers to a list of the most important issues of the day as decided by an entity, such as the media.

A) episode B) docket C) summary D) agenda

32)

_____ refers to how much information people think they have about an issue.

A) Relevance B) Salience C) Uncertainty D) An agenda

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

33) Identify and explain the three assumptions associated with Agenda Setting Theory.

34) Discuss the first stage of agenda setting research in the context of the contributions by Robert E. Park, Walter Lippmann, and Harold D. Lasswell.

35) Discuss the second level of agenda setting function, especially in the context of media framing.

36) Discuss an example of intermedia influence you have recently experienced about an issue. What are some advantages and disadvantages of this pack journalism?

37) Using the standard criteria for evaluating communication theories, evaluate Agenda Setting Theory.

38) Explain the simple format of the agenda setting process as well as three of the following factors that might complicate that format: salience, credibility, conflicting evidence, shared values, relevance, and uncertainty.

39) Do you believe that Agenda Setting is still a useful theory as more and more media sources become available to the public? Why, or why not?

40) How would you go about testing whether Agenda Setting Theory is occurring with respect to a particular social issue? Select an issue, formulate a research question, and describe a study that could test whether Agenda Setting Theory is supported.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 11 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) D 12) B 13) B 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) D 18) A 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) D 25) B 26) C

27) B 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

40) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Spiral of Silence Theory suggests that humans have an aversion to discussing topics that do not have the support of the majority. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Noelle-Neumann's Spiral of Silence Theory is important because it directly relates to the freedom of speech. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3)

Ubiquity refers to the fact that the media are pervasive sources of information. ⊚ ⊚

4)

The hard core is part of the vocal majority. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

Spiral of Silence Theory assumes that people remain silent because of a fear of isolation. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

true false

The media's effects are always direct. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) People tend to share their opinions with those who disagree with them because they wish to persuade others to their point of view. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Nancy Eckstein and Paul Turman (2002) claim that "the media may provide the force behind the spiral of silence because it is considered a one-sided conversation, an indirect public form of communication where people feel helpless to respond." ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Consonance is produced from a tendency for newspeople to confirm their own thoughts and opinions, making it look as if those opinions were emanating from the public. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) People only employ their personal observations of public opinion and do not rely on the media. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Dashtia et al. (2015) hypothesized that women may be willing to share their views face to face instead of posting them on Twitter. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

12) Noelle-Neumann believes that the very essence of our society depends on people commonly recognizing and endorsing a set of _____.

A) assertions B) assumptions C) opinions D) values

13)

When people agree on a common set of values, then their fear of isolation

A) increases B) decreases C) evaporates D) None of the answers are correct.

14) Which of the following statements refers to the quasi-statistical sense of personal observation?

A) "Guns are killing thousands of people each year."

B) "People should have to wait a few days before purchasing a gun."

C) "I don't want to be perceived as condoning murder."

D) None of the answers are correct.

15)

Pluralistic ignorance

A) is a result of the silent majority not speaking out B) occurs when the hard core is muted C) happens when personal observations of public opinion are distorted or inaccurate D) characterizes news reports

16) Maria learns from the morning paper that gas prices are about to increase. She hears the same story on the local radio station while driving to work. In the evening, when she turns on the television, she hears the story again on the news. This is an example of the _____ of the media.

A) consonance B) resonance C) ubiquity D) cumulativeness

17) Which of the following characteristics of the news media allows for majority opinions to be heard over minority viewpoints?

A) ubiquity B) cumulativeness C) consonance D) All of these answers are correct.

18) In Noelle-Neumann's interviews with smokers, she found that in the presence of nonsmokers

A) smokers were adamant about their right to smoke B) smokers felt they were under attack by nonsmokers C) smokers were more likely to argue with them about their rights D) smokers were less willing to support smokers' rights overtly

19) Philip and Misha had a conversation about birth control. After debating its pros and cons for a while, Philip tells Misha that he now believes that she is right about birth control. Since Misha cited the results of a survey demonstrating that a majority of people had the same opinion as her, Philip was convinced. Spiral of Silence theorists would argue that Philip

A) lacks debating skills B) should stand his ground C) engaged in "last-minute swing" D) became part of the "hard core"

20) Noelle-Neumann believes that the media provide sometimes biased _____ so people can confidently speak about a subject.

A) words and phrases B) demonstrations C) evidence and background D) confirmation of opinions

21) Mark firmly believes that drunken drivers should lose their licenses and never be allowed to drive again. He views the results of a recent poll and finds that he holds the minority opinion on the subject. Spiral of Silence theorists would predict that Mark will

A) forget about the whole issue B) decide to remain silent on the issue C) change his opinion D) None of the answers are correct.

22)

Which of the following statements is NOT true according to Spiral of Silence Theory?

A) People draw the strength of their convictions from a variety of sources.

B) There are a variety of ways to express one's opinion.

C) People are less likely to voice an opinion if it fits within the current trends.

D) People may jump on the bandwagon of the most popular opinion during the final moments of a conversation.

23)

All of the following are assumptions of Spiral of Silence EXCEPT

A) people draw the strength of their convictions from a variety of sources B) society threatens deviant individuals with isolation and fear of isolation is pervasive C) the fear of isolation causes individuals to try to assess the climate of opinion at all times D) public behavior is affected by public opinion assessment

24)

Spiral of Silence Theory has been criticized because

A) it fails to acknowledge a person's ego involvement in an issue B) Noelle-Neumann did not empirically test the assumption that fear of isolation prompts people to speak out C) it relies too heavily on West Germany media D) All of these answers are correct.

25) Which approach to knowing characterizes the research undertaken using Spiral of Silence Theory?

A) critical B) positivist/empirical C) interpersonal D) interpretive/hermeneutic

26) Which of the following communication traditions is Spiral of Silence Theory most closely associated with?

A) socio-cultural and semiotic B) phenomenological C) cybernetic and socio-psychological D) rhetorical

27) Which principle of the Spiral of Silence Theory is represented when you compare your personal reactions on physician-assisted suicide to how the media report the issue?

A) duality of structure B) duality of climate C) duality of public opinion D) dual climates of opinion

28) Noelle-Neumann defines _____ as the attitudes or behaviors one must express to the world if one is not to isolate oneself.

A) perceived opinion B) public opinion C) personal opinion D) pluralistic opinion

29) In his study that asked participants to indicate which of the line on the right of the sheet was equal in length to the line on the left side, Asch discovered

A) participants gave the wrong answer after hearing several other individuals give the wrong answer B) participants gave the right answer despite the fact that several other individuals had already given the wrong answer C) participants indicated they were not affected by other individuals' responses D) participants were not able to determine the correct answer

30) A(n) _____ refers to a personal estimation of the strength of opposing sides on a public issue.

A) opinion B) interpretation C) train test D) quasi-statistical sense

31) According to Elisabeth Noelle-Neumann, _____ represents the legal, social, and socialpsychological concerns of people.

A) public B) pluralistic ignorance C) ubiquity D) dual climates of opinion

32) Which of the following is an assessment of the extent to which people will speak out with their own opinion?

A) quasi-statistical sense B) train test C) last-minute swing D) dispositional matrix

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

33) Identify and explain the three assumptions associated with Spiral of Silence Theory.

34) Identify and define the two ways in which people receive information about public opinion.

35) Using the following topic, diagram how public opinion is communicated by the media: "Drunk drivers are a danger to the citizens of the United States." Be sure to identify the majority view, the silent minority view, and the quasi-statistical sense.

36) Do you agree with Glynn and McLeod that it is doubtful whether the characteristics of the media as outlined by Noelle-Neumann (ubiquitous, cumulative, and consonant) apply to media in the United States? Why, or why not? Provide examples in your answer.

37) Using the standard criteria for evaluating communication theories, evaluate Spiral of Silence Theory.

38) Distinguish between the concepts of ubiquity, cumulativeness, consonance, and dual climates of opinion, making sure to define each and identify how they relate to each other in the framework of the Spiral of Silence Theory.

39) How would you go about testing whether the Spiral of Silence is occurring with respect to a particular opinion? Select an opinion, formulate a research question, and describe a study that could test whether Spiral of Silence is supported.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 12 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) D 13) B 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) D 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) D 25) B 26) C

27) D 28) B 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) B 33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Uses and Gratifications Theory views the audience as passive. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) The initiative in linking needs gratification to a specific medium choice rests with the audience member. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Vincent listens to the traffic report on his car radio while he is stuck in rush hour traffic.

This is an example of activeness.

⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

Uses and Gratifications Theory counters the limited effects paradigm. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Uses and Gratifications theorists believe that audiences frequently are duped and unaware of the influence of the media. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

Uses and Gratifications Theory has little application outside of television. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) LaRose and Eastin suggest that Uses and Gratifications Theory, when applied to social media, can be enhanced by the addition of some new variables such as expected activity outcomes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Mass Society Theory is still valid today because social science and simple observation confirm the notion of all-powerful media and media messages. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) An assumption of Uses and Gratifications Theory suggests that the media and their audiences exist in a vacuum.

⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

10) The main idea behind Uses and Gratifications Theory is that

A) people cannot articulate the reasons or gratifications underlying their media consumption B) people do not realize they are being influenced by the media C) people's social reality is affected over the long term by media content and portrayals D) people actively seek out specific media and content to obtain specific gratifications

11)

According to the Social Categories Model, the influence of media is minimized by

A) audience members' associations and group affiliations B) audience members' particular selections of media content C) the amount of time an audience member spends consuming media D) All of these answers are correct.

12) Danny and Moira want to fix a new window in their bedroom. They go to the video store and rent "How to Fix Windows in 60 Minutes or Less." In the context of Uses and Gratifications Theory, Danny and Moira are using media as a source of information, thus satisfying their _____ needs.

A) affective B) cognitive C) personal integrative D) tension release

13) Louie is active on various networking websites. He posts a variety of content to his online accounts multiple times in a day and has many followers. In the context of Uses and Gratifications Theory, Louie's type of media use is an example of satisfying _____.

A) cognitive needs B) surveillance needs C) social needs D) tension release needs

14) Which of the following is NOT an assumption associated with Uses and Gratifications Theory?

A) The audience is active, and its media use is goal directed.

B) Value judgments of media content can only be made by researchers and theorists.

C) The media compete with other sources for need satisfaction.

D) People have enough self-awareness of their media use, interests, and motives to be able to provide researchers with an accurate picture of that use.

15) Within the Uses and Gratifications perspective, which of the following statements about media effects is related to the idea that the media compete with other sources for need satisfaction?

A) Audience members are not always totally free in their uses of media.

B) Social situations can create an awareness of problems that demand attention, information about which may be sought through the media.

C) The media and their audiences are part of the larger society and are influenced by that society.

D) Social situations can impoverish real-life opportunities to satisfy certain needs.

16) Blumler offered several suggestions as to the kinds of audience activity in which consumers could engage. These include

A) utility B) intentionality C) selectivity D) All of these answers are correct.

17) _____ refers to an individual's freedom and autonomy in the mass communication process.

A) Cultivation B) Congruence C) Activeness D) Activation

18)

Uses and Gratifications theorists argue that activeness

A) is relative B) relates only to latent-level effects C) is not individually variable D) is relative and often varies by time of day and type of content

19) Which of the following statements can be used to support the premise that people's use of media and the gratifications they seek from it are inextricably intertwined with the world in which they live?

A) Social situations can produce tensions and conflicts, leading to pressure for their easement through the consumption of media.

B) The world we live in contains information that makes us aware of things that are of interest to us, and we can find out more about those things through the media.

C) Sometimes the situations individuals find themselves in make the media the best, if not the only, source possible.

D) All of these answers are correct.

20) Jay Blumler and another colleague Denis McQuail (1969) found that there was a need either to _____ or to _____ others.

A) get to know/befriend B) teach/learn from C) influence/persuade D) connect with/disconnect from

21) According to researchers McQuail, Blumler, and Brown, a basic division with which media use could be categorized is _____.

A) personal identity B) relaxation C) social interaction D) passing time

22) Uses and Gratifications Theory does not address unethical journalism. This argument relates to the criterion of _____ for evaluating theory.

A) utility B) heurism C) parsimony D) logical consistency

23)

Uses and Gratifications Theory has been criticized

A) because it has strayed too far from the limited effects paradigm B) for its emphasis on the use of symbols, not on how people use information from the media C) for its notion of the active audience D) because its assumptions focus on producers of media content and not on audience members

24)

Schramm's fraction of selection is calculated by

A) multiplying the effort required by the expectation of reward B) dividing the expectation of reward by the effort required C) adding the effort required to the expected reward D) subtracting the effort required from the expectation of reward

25) The approach to knowing that characterizes the research undertaken using Uses and Gratifications Theory is

A) positivistic/empirical B) critical C) interpretive/hermeneutic D) semiotic

26) According to Uses and Gratifications theorists, watching movies and listening to music based on art or dance satisfy _____ needs.

A) affective B) cognitive C) tension release D) aesthetic

27) The communication tradition most closely associated with Uses and Gratifications Theory is

A) socio-cultural B) phenomenological C) socio-psychological D) critical

28) The type of audience activity in which consumers may actively avoid certain types of media influence is called

A) utility B) selectivity C) intentionality D) imperviousness to influence

29) _____ occurs when people's prior motivations determine their consumption of media content.

A) Diversion B) Selectivity C) Utility D) Intentionality

30) _____ refers to the idea that average people are helpless victims of the powerful forces of media directed at large audiences.

A) The Individual Differences Perspective B) The limited effects viewpoint C) Media Richness Theory D) Mass Society Theory

31) In the context of the reasons for media use defined by Uses and Gratifications Theory, using media for escape or diversion helps satisfy _____.

A) utility needs B) surveillance needs C) cognitive needs D) tension release needs

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

32) Compare and contrast audience activity and audience activeness.

33) Provide an example of how the media can fulfill the following needs: cognitive, affective, social, personal, and tension release needs.

34)

How is Uses and Gratifications Theory related to the limited effects paradigm?

35)

How can social situations generate media use? Provide examples to illustrate.

36)

Do you agree that Uses and Gratifications Theory is heuristic? Why or why not?

37)

Describe Schramm's fraction of selection.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 13 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) D 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) A

27) A 28) D 29) D 30) D 31) D 32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) In the obliging strategy of conflict management, interactants try to collaborate with others to find a solution to a problem in order to satisfy the expectations of all parties. ⊚ ⊚

2)

true false

Avoiding and obliging are both active in their attempts to manage conflict. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The Chinese have been found to use compromising as a management style more than other cultural groups. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4)

Negative face refers to a desire to be autonomous and unconstrained. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Solidarity facework allows others the freedom to behave according to their own will without imposing restrictions. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

Collectivism suggests direct communication with another. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Individuals in all cultures hold various self-images and continually negotiate these images. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Ting-Toomey found that the Chinese use higher degrees of avoidance as a conflict style than other cultural groups investigated in her research. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Politeness theory suggests that a single message can both support and threaten face needs simultaneously. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

10) All of the following are true about Face-Negotiation Theory EXCEPT

A) it combines the principles of intercultural communication, conflict, and politeness B) the theory has been criticized for overlooking the impact of cultural differences in conflict management C) the theory has been influenced by the work of Goffman and Ho D) face is a central concept in the theory and is viewed as pervading all aspects of social life

11)

Negative face is associated with a desire for

A) popularity B) affiliation C) autonomy D) dominance

12)

A person's interest in maintaining one's own face or the face of others is called

A) face need B) face acceptance C) face concern D) facework

13) Sometimes in conversation when we say something that embarrasses the other person, we try to change the subject to reduce potential face loss. Such an action that is taken to deal with the face needs/wants of self and others is called

A) face need B) face acceptance C) face concern D) facework

14)

Face is a metaphor developed by Goffman and Ho for examining

A) self-acceptance B) self-image C) self-esteem D) self-concern

15) Michele, a factory owner, wants to discuss the decline in production at her factory with her shift managers Alice and James. She decides that the best way to approach the matter is to talk about how they managed to raise the previous year's productivity despite several challenges and then talk about the current year's dismal numbers. She also decides not to blame the managers for the poor show. In this scenario, Michelle employs _____ to maintain face.

A) tact facework B) solidarity facework C) approbation facework D) politeness facework

16) Which of the following approaches to knowing characterizes the research undertaken using Face-Negotiation Theory?

A) phenomenological B) positivistic/empirical C) critical D) interpretive/hermeneutic

17) Which of the following assumptions of Face-Negotiation Theory proposes that people hold a number of self-images about themselves and that these identities are negotiated in interactions that link self to society?

A) Self-identity is important in interpersonal interactions, with individuals negotiating their identities differently across cultures.

B) Conflict can damage the self-images of individuals but cannot reduce the relational closeness involves in identity negotiations in interactions.

C) Certain acts threaten an individual's projected self-image.

D) Cultural variability can be used to explain cultural differences in behavior.

18) Lilly knows that Shari did not do well in a pop quiz, so Lilly avoids bringing it up at dinner. This effort to prevent the occurrence of events that may elicit vulnerability or damage a person's self-esteem is called

A) face need B) face-saving C) face restoration D) face concern

19) _____ face-threatening acts pose more threat to the face of others in comparison with _____ face-threatening acts, which pose less threat.

A) Direct; indirect B) Unintentional; intentional C) Positive; negative D) Negative; positive

20)

Face-threatening acts occur when

A) excuses and justifications are made to cover an individual's actions B) individuals present an image of who they are in interactions with others C) efforts are made to prevent the occurrence of events that may elicit vulnerability D) people's desired identity is challenged

21)

Which of the following are examples of collectivistic countries?

A) Italy and Belgium B) the Netherlands C) Ecuador and Panama D) All of these answers are correct.

22) All of the following are true statements about Ting-Toomey's findings from her comparisons of conflict styles across five cultures EXCEPT

A) members of the U.S. culture use significantly more dominating styles of conflict management than members of other cultures B) the Chinese use a higher degree of compromising than other cultures C) the Taiwanese report using significantly less integrating styles of conflict management than other cultures D) the Chinese and Taiwanese use significantly more obliging conflict styles than others

23) Sanjay and Shari are having a conflict over which film to watch this evening. Sanjay's usual strategy for managing conflict is to finally just go along with whatever Shari wants. This passive accommodation that tries to go along with what the other wants is called the _____ style.

A) avoiding B) compromising C) obliging D) integrating

24) Which of the following types of facework refers to the extent that a person respects another's autonomy and allows a person the freedom to act as he or she pleases while minimizing any impositions that may restrict this freedom?

A) tact facework B) solidarity facework C) approbation facework D) politeness facework

25) Which of the following conflict management styles reflects a high degree of concern an individual may have for himself or herself and for others?

A) the dominating style B) the compromising style C) the integrating style D) the obliging style

26) With which of the following communication traditions is Face-Negotiation Theory most closely associated?

A) socio-psychological B) phenomenological C) socio-cultural D) semiotic

27)

A cultural value that places emphasis on a person over a group is referred to as

A) individualism B) collectivism C) ethnocentrism D) egocentrism

28)

_____ includes a person's collective experiences, thoughts, ideas, memories, and plans.

A) Self-identity B) Positive face C) Negative face D) Self-actualization

29) The _____ style of managing conflict includes those behaviors that involve using influence, authority, or expertise to get ideas across or to make decisions.

A) obliging B) avoiding C) dominating D) integrating

30) In the _____ style of managing conflict, people will try to stay away from disagreements and dodge unpleasant exchanges with others.

A) dominating B) obliging C) integrating D) avoiding

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

31) Describe the three types of facework identified by Lim and Bowers (1991). Provide an example of how each could be used.

32) Distinguish between the following concepts: face concern, face need, face-saving, and face restoration.

33) Explain the difference between individualistic and collectivistic cultures. How does this classification of cultures impact the interpretation of face and face negotiation?

34) Think of a recent face-threatening situation in which you were involved. Describe the situation, applying as many concepts from Face-Negotiation Theory as you can. Explain how and why these concepts are illustrated in this situation.

35) List and explain the three assumptions of Face-Negotiation Theory, making sure to define related concepts along the way.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 14 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) B 11) C 12) C 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) A

27) A 28) A 29) C 30) D 31) Answers will vary.

32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) George Herbert Mead believes that human develop minds through interaction with others. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) One of the conclusions of Symbolic Interaction Theory states that humans act toward others on the basis of the meanings those others have for them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Symbolic Interaction Theory defines self-concept as the ability to see oneself in the reflection of another's gaze. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Mead contends that the study of human beings cannot be conducted using the same methods as the study of other things.

⊚ ⊚

5)

According to Symbolic Interaction Theory, language includes only verbal symbols. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

true false

Symbolic Interaction Theory has been criticized for being difficult to test. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) The basic philosophical difference between the Iowa School and the Chicago School of thought on Symbolic Interaction Theory centered on the role of the generalized other. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

The "Me" is the part of the self that is an acting subject. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) One of the assumptions of Symbolic Interaction Theory states that meaning is modified through a static process. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

There are multiple variations and branches of Symbolic Interaction Theory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) Which of the following is true of Symbolic Interaction Theory?

A) It centers on the relationship between symbols and interactions between people using these symbols.

B) It is based on the research of George Herbert Mead.

C) It forms a bridge between theories focusing attention on individuals and theories attending to social forces.

D) All of these answers are correct.

12)

The "I"

A) is impulsive, creative, and spontaneous B) is more reflective and socially aware than the "Me" C) reflects on the actions of the "Me" D) All of these answers are correct.

13) The branch of Symbolic Interaction Theory that emphasizes the importance of communication to life and social encounters is

A) the Chicago School B) the Minnesota School C) the Iowa School D) the North Dakota School

14)

Which of the following is NOT a criticism of Symbolic Interaction Theory?

A) Symbolic Interaction theory is too broad to be useful.

B) Symbolic Interaction theory ignores the extent to which people live in a world not of their own making.

C) Symbolic Interaction theory ignores the influence of "the generalized other."

D) Symbolic Interaction theory ignores important concepts such as emotion and selfesteem.

15) Angela is reflecting over the perception that she holds of herself. When she asks the question "Who am I?", the answer relates to

A) her looking-glass self B) the mind C) her self-concept D) the "Me"

16)

Which of the following is an assumption of Symbolic Interaction Theory?

A) Individuals construct meaning via the communication process.

B) The relationship between self-expectation and the mind cannot be ignored.

C) Self-appraisal is a motivation for behavior.

D) An individual and the society exist as isolated entities.

17) Which of the following communication traditions are associated with Symbolic Interaction Theory?

A) critical and socio-psychological communication traditions B) empirical and rhetorical communication traditions C) cybernetic and socio-cultural communication traditions D) semiotic and phenomenological communication traditions

18) While preparing for her driver's exam, Athena reflected on all the experiences that brought her to that time and place. She considered her successful practice sessions and her teacher's positive encouragement and told herself that she would be successful. This intrapersonal conversation is known as

A) thought B) role taking C) self-motivation D) attitude adjustment

19) Which of the following communication contexts are associated with Symbolic Interaction Theory?

A) mass and interpersonal communication contexts B) interpersonal and intrapersonal communication contexts C) intrapersonal and cultural communication contexts D) cultural and small group communication contexts

20)

Which of the following is a criticism of Symbolic Interaction Theory?

A) The theory does not account for important concepts like trust and relational satisfaction.

B) The theory is vague and difficult to test because it purports to explain everything.

C) The theory is too heuristic.

D) The theory's concepts and their relationships are not clearly explained.

21)

_____ are those symbols that evoke basically the same meaning for many people.

A) Particular symbols B) Generalized symbols C) Significant symbols D) None of the answers are correct.

22) According to Symbolic Interaction Theory, _____ is a shared system of verbal and nonverbal symbols organized in patterns to express thoughts and feelings.

A) criticism B) role taking C) self D) language

23) The people who are most important to us and contribute to our sense of self and awareness of what is socially acceptable are our

A) generalized others B) cultural others C) particular others D) looking-glass others

24)

Which of the following is NOT an assumption of Symbolic Interaction Theory?

A) Language is acquired through interaction with the generalized other.

B) Individuals construct meaning via the communication process.

C) Self-concept is a motivation for behavior.

D) A unique relationship exists between an individual and society.

25) According to George Herbert Mead, the web of social relationships that humans create is known as

A) interaction B) social penetration C) society D) None of the answers are correct.

26)

The self-concept

A) is a relatively stable set of perceptions people hold about themselves B) is a notion critical to Symbolic Interaction Theory C) develops through interaction with society D) All of these answers are correct.

27)

The expectations of others influencing an individual's actions is known as

A) the looking-glass effect B) role taking C) a self-fulfilling prophecy D) the Pygmalion effect

28) In the context of Symbolic Interaction Theory, an individual's prediction about himself or herself causing him or her to behave in such a way that it comes true is called _____.

A) a self-fulfilling prophecy B) the looking-glass self C) the Pygmalion effect D) an "I"

29)

Which of the following statements is true of Symbolic Interaction Theory?

A) It is a community of theories, rather than simply one theory.

B) It states that people will apply a personal set of rules to try to understand a social situation.

C) It pictures individuals with passive selves, grounded in interactions with the self.

D) It opposes the idea that meaning occurs between people.

30) _____ refers to the ability to symbolically place oneself in an imagined self of another person.

A) Looking-glass self B) The Pygmalion effect C) Role taking D) Self-talk

31) Which of the following theories, derived from Symbolic Interaction Theory, defines concepts more clearly and is capable of falsification?

A) Social Interaction Theory B) The Pygmalion Theory C) The Self-fulfilling Theory D) Role Theory

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

32) Define the concepts "I" and "Me," indicating how they are related to each other.

33) Compare and contrast the concept of particular others and the generalized other and explain the role of these concepts in the framework of Symbolic Interaction Theory.

34)

Define the looking-glass self, and discuss how it is used in Symbolic Interaction Theory.

35) Argue for or against the following proposition: No one has a self without social interaction.

36)

Using the criteria for theory evaluation, evaluate Symbolic Interactionism as a theory.

37) List and explain the three major criticisms of Symbolic Interactionism as well as the responses to each.

38)

List and explain the three major themes of Symbolic Interaction Theory.

39) Explain the concept of the self-fulfilling prophecy. Support your answer with concepts from the text as well as real life examples.

40) Discuss Symbolic Interactionism as it relates to one of the three prevailing models of communication. Which of these models do you feel best suits the theory? Be sure to support your position with specific evidence from the text.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 15 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) D 12) A 13) A 14) C 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) D

27) D 28) A 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

40) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) According to Coordinated Management of Meaning, rules help us not only in our communication with others but also in our interpretation of what others are communicating to us. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) When two people agree on each other's interpretations, they are said to achieve interpersonal meaning. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3)

Coordination cannot be influenced by the resources available to an individual. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) An example of a regulative rule is when one person tells another person that "honesty is the best policy." ⊚ ⊚

5)

Life scripts are determined for us when we are born. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

true false

Regulative rules are guidelines for an individual's behavior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Social constructivists believe that people co-construct their social reality in conversations. ⊚ ⊚

8)

Charmed loops often result in a vicious cycle. ⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

true false

Relationships are like contracts, which set guidelines and often prescribe behavior.

⊚ ⊚

10) self.

true false

Life scripts can be thought of as autobiographies that communicate with one's sense of

⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) Which of the following is true of Coordinated Management of Meaning (CMM)?

A) It focuses on how individuals establish rules for creating and interpreting meaning.

B) It focuses on the linear nature of communication and its influences.

C) It focuses on the effects of conflict in relationships.

D) All of these answers are correct.

12)

Which of the following statements is associated with interpersonal meaning?

A) "We are acting according to the same rules."

B) "We agree with each other's interpretations."

C) "We have experienced this before."

D) "We are experiencing conflict because of differing rules."

13) As we listen to another person in a conversation, we are categorizing the symbols and beginning to make sense of them. In the hierarchy of meaning, to which level does this process of converting raw data into some meaning refer?

A) speech act B) content C) contract D) episode

14) Which of the following is true of rules in the context of Coordinated Management of Meaning?

A) Rules are not necessarily linked to time, place, relationship, and self-concept.

B) Rules are independent of context, and context is a homogeneous environment.

C) Rule usage in a conversation is less significant than an ability to use a rule.

D) Rules provide people opportunities to choose between alternatives.

15) The term "_____" describes the extent to which people identify themselves as part of the relational system.

A) episode B) punctuation C) enmeshment D) coordination

16)

U.S. culture, according to Myron Lustig and Jolene Koester, puts a premium on

A) materialism B) collectivism C) socialism D) individualism

17) Which of the following is NOT an assumption governing Coordinated Management of Meaning?

A) Human beings live in communication.

B) Human beings co-create a social reality.

C) Information transactions depend on personal and interpersonal meaning.

D) Group interpretation is more influential than interpersonal meaning.

18)

Punctuate is to episode as _____ is to relationship.

A) raw data B) content level C) enmeshment D) None of the answers are correct.

19) Pat and Chris frequently experience conflicts about how to spend their weekends. When Pat suggests something that Chris believes to be a waste of time and money, he feels as though he has no choice but to protest against it. These conflicts are an example of

A) a sustained speech act B) a co-created script C) an unwanted repetitive pattern D) individualism

20)

Coordinated Management of Meaning is associated with the work of

A) George Herbert Mead B) Gulifor and Bryant C) Pearce and Cronen D) Longo and Frank

21) Over the years, Coordinated Management of Meaning (CMM) has been investigated using multiple approaches to knowing. Earlier research with CMM primarily used _____ approaches.

A) interpretive B) critical C) practical D) empirical

22) For Coordinated Management of Meaning theorists, the stories, symbols, and images that people use to make sense of their world are defined as

A) rules B) resources C) foundation for behaviors D) raw data

23) _____ are at the top of the hierarchy of organized meaning and help us to interpret lowerlevel meanings.

A) Cultural patterns B) Life scripts C) Speech acts D) Episodes

24)

Coordinated Management of Meaning has been criticized for

A) being too abstract B) not being useful C) being too simple D) None of the answers are correct.

25) Coordinated Management of Meaning is primarily related to the _____ communication contexts.

A) small group and interpersonal B) critical and intrapersonal C) intrapersonal and interpersonal D) public and rhetorical

26) All of the following are communication traditions to which Coordinated Management of Meaning is related EXCEPT

A) socio-cultural communication tradition B) phenomenological communication tradition C) cybernetic communication tradition D) socio-psychological tradition

27)

Charmed loops occur when

A) one part of the hierarchy of meaning supports another level B) the rules of meaning change within the loop C) two people get along and understand each other D) there is similarity in two people's rules

28)

To describe life experiences, Pearce and Cronen (1980) use the metaphor _____.

A) "social worlds" B) "substance of human community" C) "undirected theater" D) "performative platform"

29) _____ refers to a person's beliefs about how meaning and action fit within an interpersonal interaction.

A) Enmeshment B) Social reality C) Personal meaning D) Speculation

30) Which of the following is included in the evaluation criteria for the theory of Coordinated Management of Meaning?

A) collectivism B) speculation C) testability D) parsimony

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

31) Provide an example each of a speech act, a contract, and a life script.

32)

Compare and contrast the concepts of personal meaning and interpersonal meaning.

33) Define constitutive rules and regulative rules and explain how they influence the coordination of meaning.

34)

Do you agree that "humans co-create a social reality"? Why or why not?

35) Using the standard criteria for evaluating communication theory, evaluate Coordinated Management of Meaning.

36) Compare and contrast the theories of Coordinated Management of Meaning and Symbolic Interactionism. Is there a relationship between these two theories? Do they stand in opposition to each other, or do they peacefully coexist?

37) Define and explain what unwanted repetitive patterns are and discuss the various reasons why two relational partners may continue to engage in them.

38) Develop a study one could use to test Coordinated Management of Meaning. What questions would you attempt to answer? What methods would you use? Why?

39) List and define the components of the hierarchy of meaning in the correct order and explain how they are related to each other.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 16 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) A 12) B 13) B 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) D 18) C 19) C 20) C 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) C 26) D

27) A 28) C 29) B 30) D 31) Answers will vary.

32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Communication Privacy Management Theory has its roots in economics. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Human beings, in Communication Privacy Management Theory, are viewed as choice makers, rule makers, and rule followers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Private disclosure puts more emphasis on the personal content of the disclosure than does traditional self-disclosure literature. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Privacy ownership refers to a person's decision to cross over appropriate relational guidelines. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) When private information is shared, the boundary around it is called a collective privacy boundary. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Communication Privacy Management Theory is a dialectic theory, although it has been criticized for reflecting more of a dualistic approach. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Petronio has argued that privacy can only be understood in a dialectical tension with disclosure. If we disclose everything, we will not have a concept of privacy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

8) Over 30 years ago, Petronio and her colleagues published some studies outlining principles that would eventually become part of Communication Privacy Management Theory.

These principles looked at

A) initial encounters with the opposite gender B) how people decided on the rules guiding their disclosure behavior C) reasons for relationship termination D) friendship formation

9) Originally, Petronio referred to her theory as a(n) _____ because its boundaries were confined to privacy management within a marital dyad.

A) macrotheory B) microtheory C) rhetoric D) experiment

10) Which of the following is an assumption of Communication Privacy Management Theory?

A) Humans are denied choice in life.

B) Humans refuse to live by rules.

C) Humans believe that life is always in flux.

D) Humans' choices are based on a consideration of others.

11) Miranda is concerned about disclosing information about things that matter deeply to her to her boss. Thus, she is wary of communicating _____ to her boss.

A) guided information B) irrelevant information C) logical information D) private information

12)

Which of the following is one of the features of boundaries as discussed by Petronio?

A) Factors such as age, gender, and culture have no influence on how boundaries are established.

B) The boundaries around personal information are within people's control to set and change.

C) Boundaries provide no guarantee for maintaining privacy.

D) Boundaries remain consistent across an individual's life span.

13) In the context of Communication Privacy Management Theory, one of the processes in the privacy rule management system that describes how jointly owned private information is managed is called _____.

A) boundary coordination B) boundary linkage C) boundary bonding D) boundary rule

14)

The communication tradition to which Communication Privacy Management is related is

A) socio-cultural communication tradition B) socio-phenomenological communication tradition C) socio-psychological communication tradition D) socio-semiotic communication tradition

15) Tucker and Sophie have been roommates for two months. Although they feel quite close, they still find themselves in conflict sometimes. For instance, Tucker has accused Sophie of revealing personal information about him. Sophie, however, felt that Tucker did not clearly say that the information should be kept private. This episode represents the _____ concept of Communication Privacy Management Theory.

A) privacy ambiguity B) privacy permeability C) privacy ownership D) privacy turbulence

16) In the context of the Communication Privacy Management Theory, which of the following statements accurately expresses the relationship between people and rules?

A) People have little respect for rules in close relationships.

B) People learn rules by negotiation with others to create new rules.

C) The rules people set reflect their personal values.

D) Rules are critical in determining relationship satisfaction.

17) Which of the following is NOT considered to be a decision criterion for rule development?

A) gender B) cultural community C) class D) sexual identity

18)

In the context of privacy ownership, which of the following is a true statement?

A) People share private information with others with the assumption that the others are not authorized owners of the shared information.

B) People believe they "own" personal information about themselves and can manage it however they want.

C) People's belief in the concept of ownership of information is factual and not a perception.

D) People's attitudes about privacy are less important than whether they were communicating online or offline.

19) As partners for over a decade, Carmen and Lucy have clear rules about information that they keep to themselves and information they share with close friends. The couple is practicing the _____ concept of Communication Boundary Management Theory.

A) privacy permeability B) privacy explicitness C) privacy ownership D) privacy communication

20) Communication Privacy Management relies on the boundary metaphor to make the point that there is a line between being public and being private. When private information is shared, the boundary around it is called a

A) collective privacy boundary B) personal boundary C) private boundary turbulence D) microtheory privacy boundary

21)

Which communication context is the focus of Communication Privacy Management?

A) intrapersonal communication context B) small group communication context C) public communication context D) interpersonal communication context

22) Which approach to knowing characterizes the research undertaken with Communication Privacy Management?

A) socio-psychological approach B) interpretive/hermeneutic approach C) critical approach D) phenomenological approach

23) Which of the following statements accurately captures the main criticism of Communication Privacy Management (CPM)?

A) Critics question its logical consistency because it claims to be a dialectical theory but appears to take a dualistic approach.

B) Critics question its heurism because of the lack of research that has been undertaken using CPM. C) Critics question its utility because it does not appear to explain the phenomenon under consideration very well.

D) Critics question its parsimony because it seems unnecessarily complex in nature given the simple processes it attempts to explain.

24) Which of the following is a reason why the recency of Communication Privacy Management is exciting?

A) It indicates the contemporary thinking going on in the communication discipline.

B) It indicates that old-world thinking continues to illuminate questions of communication behavior.

C) It shows that theorizing is long dead.

D) It illustrates the decay of communication as a field.

25) How did Petronio's earlier work on Communication Privacy Management differ from her later conceptualization of the theory?

A) The boundaries of the theory are now confined to privacy management within a marital dyad.

B) She now calls it "Please Stand By" theory.

C) The theory has now dropped the boundary metaphor to explain the management process.

D) She now refers to the theory as a macrotheory because its boundaries include a large variety of interpersonal relationships.

26) _____ are a set of stable criteria that a person uses consistently across situations in making privacy disclosure decisions.

A) Catalyst criteria B) Heuristic criteria C) Parsimonious criteria D) Core criteria

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

27) Explain the role of rules in Communication Boundary Management Theory. How are they interpreted by Petronio and how do they function?

28)

Apply Communication Privacy Management Theory to online relationships.

29)

How does boundary ownership exist in work relationships?

30) Differentiate between private disclosures and self-disclosures. Are they basically the same or are they different? Use examples.

31) Define boundary turbulence and describe an instance in which you experienced it. What adjustments were made to reduce turbulence and achieve coordination? Were they effective?

Why or why not?

32) How would you go about studying Communication Privacy Management in a particular relationship or context? Formulate a hypothesis or research question based on the theory and describe your method for investigating it.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 17 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) B 9) B 10) D 11) D 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) A 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) D

27) Answers will vary.

28) Answers will vary.

29) Answers will vary.

30) Answers will vary.

31) Answers will vary.

32) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Groups are generally better at problem solving than individuals alone because of their availability to more information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Groupthink is associated with both small group and organizational communication contexts. ⊚ ⊚

3)

true false

Groups that have clear procedures for decisions are more susceptible to groupthink. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) When decision makers are under great stress imposed by forces outside their group, faulty decision making happens. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Collective rationalization refers to a group member's tendency to minimize his or her doubts and to refrain from presenting counterarguments. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) When a group is closed-minded, it tries to entertain all options before a final decision is made. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) One of Janis's suggestions for avoiding groupthink or its negative consequences is to have a contingency plan for failed recommendations or suggestions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) According to Janis, group members frequently engage in a style of deliberating in which consensus seeking loses to good sense. ⊚ ⊚

9)

Groupthink has been criticized because it has not been applied to political contexts. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

true false

Groupthink has been criticized because it has not withstood the test of time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) All of the following are recommendations provided by Hart for teams who may be prone to groupthink EXCEPT

A) balance consensus and majority rule B) discourage whistle-blowing C) require oversight and control of groups D) allow for objection

12) Janis's research on group dynamics, which led to the development of Groupthink, resulted primarily from his investigation and analyses of

A) foreign-policy decisions B) corporate takeovers C) assessments of student work groups in classrooms D) hospital administrative meetings

13) Which of the following is used to refer to the notion that group members withhold their inputs in meetings rather than stating their opinions and risking rejection?

A) Communication apprehension B) Group phobia C) Affiliative constraints D) Policy constraints

14)

All of the following are assumptions that guide Groupthink EXCEPT that

A) group problem solving is primarily a unified process B) groups and group decision making are frequently complex C) conditions in groups promote high cohesiveness D) groups work in ways that discourage homogeneity

15)

The cohesiveness of a group may emerge as a problem because

A) cohesiveness is generally experienced in the same manner across groups and the results of cohesion can be generalized from one group to another B) members generally feel dissatisfied with the group experience and other group members in highly cohesive groups C) highly cohesive groups tend to exert great pressure on their members to conform to the group's standards D) cohesiveness typically results in group members resisting the temptation to conform

16)

Which of the following is a true statement in the context of groupthink?

A) Group members have a common sentiment and tend to maintain a group identity.

B) Members of small groups are predisposed to disrupting decision making.

C) Group members are unlikely to attach greater importance to the preservation of the group than to the issues under consideration.

D) Members of a highly cohesive group may be quite willing to express any reservations about solutions.

17) The belief that a group is special enough to overcome any obstacles or setbacks is referred to as

A) inherent morality B) collective rationalization C) the illusion of invulnerability D) self-censorship

18)

Group members who shield the group from adverse information are

A) conscientious objectors B) self-appointed mindguards C) dissenters D) opinion leaders

19) At a meeting in Palmis Inc., the decision to launch a new product that prevents tooth decay was being debated. A product development specialist said "What a wonderful product! We have created a formulation that will help Americans protect their teeth. I do not know why those health critics are accusing us of introducing a potentially harmful product to the market. After all, our goal is to help people, not harm them. We want to do what is in the best interest of the public." Which of the following symptoms of groupthink does she demonstrate by this speech?

A) the illusion of invulnerability B) out-group stereotypes C) a belief in the inherent morality of the group D) collective rationalization

20) The act of silencing one's own opposing views and using in-group rhetoric to bolster the decision of a group is known as

A) self-censorship B) collective rationalization C) promoting out-group stereotypes D) developing an illusion of invulnerability

21)

All of the following are symptoms of Groupthink EXCEPT

A) an overestimation of the group B) closed-mindedness C) group insulation D) the pressures toward uniformity

22) All of the following are suggestions about how groups can engage in vigilant decision making EXCEPT

A) looking at the range of objectives group members wish to achieve B) avoiding previously rejected action plans when choosing a plan C) developing and reviewing action plans and alternatives D) having a contingency plan for failed suggestions

23) Which of the following is NOT true about the potential factors identified by Shaw as influencing group decisions?

A) Various leadership styles will emerge as groups develop and discuss issues.

B) The gender composition of a group has an impact on the decision-making process.

C) The cultural background of members has little influence on the decisions that are made by groups.

D) The intelligence of group members will influence the decisions that are made.

24) In the context of problem solving, small group members must continue to understand the many alternatives available to them and be able to distinguish among these alternatives. In addition, members must not only understand the task at hand but also the people who provide input into the task. Which assumption of Groupthink does this situation illustrate?

A) Groups and group decision making are frequently complex.

B) Conditions in groups promote high cohesiveness.

C) Group problem solving is primarily a unified process.

D) Age and culture have little impact on the decision-making process.

25)

In the context of group dynamics, _____ refers to the similarity among group members.

A) hegemony B) heterogeneity C) homophile D) homogeneity

26) In the context of preventing groupthink, the process in which individuals report unethical or illegal behaviors or practices to others is called

A) behavioral uncertainty B) whistle-blowing C) self-actualization D) affiliative constraint

27) All of the following are specific structural faults that may put a group at high risk for groupthink EXCEPT

A) group insulation B) a lack of impartial leadership C) a lack of decision-making procedures D) the illusion of unanimity

28) The country of United Lands decided to go to war with country of Inkit. Some government and military leaders predicted that victory against Inkit would be swift because the country was not organized or technologically advanced enough to fight the armed forces of United Lands successfully. This prediction by the government and military leaders of United Lands could be considered an example of

A) a belief in the inherent morality of the group B) collective rationalization C) out-group stereotypes D) self-appointed mindguards

29) As a member of a task team at work, Faith feels her group has been successful in completing all its projects ahead of time. Its final report was received enthusiastically by its supervisors. The group members were also given a bonus for their efforts. The members felt a renewed sense of commitment to their company. They felt ready to take on any project and complete it efficiently, no matter how challenging it seemed. If the group was assigned a new task, which of the following symptoms of Groupthink would they most likely display?

A) the illusion of invulnerability B) a lack of impartial leadership C) self-actualization D) collective rationalization

30)

With which communication tradition is Groupthink most closely associated?

A) semiotic B) socio-cultural C) rhetorical D) critical

31)

Which of the following is an action taken to prevent groupthink?

A) playing down the moral implications of a course of action B) suppressing concerns about group processes C) introducing a multiple advocacy approach to decisions D) encouraging the development of subgroups

32) _____ refers to the direct influence on group members who provide thoughts contrary to the group's opinion.

A) Pressure on dissenters B) The illusion of unanimity C) Collective rationalization D) Out-group stereotype

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

33) Identify and explain the assumptions of Groupthink presented by Irving Janis.

34) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of having a high level of cohesiveness among members of a group.

35) Do you agree with Paul 't Hart's criticism that Irving Janis's recommendations to prevent Groupthink "inadvertently erode collegiality and foster group factionalism"? Do you think 't Hart's recommendations are preferable, or do they introduce other unintended negative consequences? Can the two sets of suggestions coexist?

36) Identify and explain the three primary categories of Groupthink. Be sure to identify and explain the symptoms associated with each of these categories.

37)

Using the standard criteria for theory evaluation, assess Groupthink.

38) Discuss the role of accountability in companies today. Given the numerous ethical problems associated with corporations today, how might Groupthink help inform company leaders?

39) Analyze a recent government decision using Groupthink. Identify all the relevant concepts from the theory and conclude as to whether Groupthink may have been at work in influencing the outcome. Support your ideas with examples.

40) Reflect on a group experience you had. Conclude about whether you think Groupthink occurred, identifying the relevant concepts from the theory. If so, what do you think contributed to it and what (if anything) was done to overcome it? What was the outcome? If you do not believe Groupthink occurred, explain why you think the group was successful in averting it.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 18 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) B 12) A 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) A 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) B

27) D 28) C 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) A 33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

40) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) A researcher's own interpretations and values have no place in the kind of research that is typically done using Organizational Culture Theory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) The goal of the cultural approach to organizations is to create a generalized description of life that can be applied across a variety of organizations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) An individual uses a field journal in ethnographic research to record experiments performed on the people of a culture different from that individual's own culture. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The cultural approach has been criticized for focusing its attention on the organization as a whole, rather than attempting to understand the experiences of individuals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) The appeal of Organizational Culture Theory has been far and wide, resulting in a heuristic theory. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

Political performances refer to the acts of civility and politeness in organizations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Dwight Conquergood's research examined the rituals and symbols of the homeless in Chicago. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The organizational stories that members enthusiastically relate to others are termed passion performances. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9)

It is often easy to be polite, thus social performances are viewed as trivial. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Performance is a metaphor that suggests a symbolic process of understanding human behavior in an organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) When constructing the Organizational Culture Theory, Pacanowsky and O'DonnellTrujillo adopted the _____ articulated by Clifford Geertz.

A) groupthink approach B) Symbolic-Interpretive approach C) linear model of communication D) Relational Dialectics Theory

12)

Jokes, jargon, and stories are examples of _____ symbols.

A) behavioral B) physical C) cultural D) verbal

13) Pacanowsky and O'Donnell-Trujillo proposed that organizational members serve as _____ who are part of the communicative performances that create a unique organizational culture.

A) agents B) analogies C) actors D) agencies

14) All of the following are methods of investigation used by ethnographers to examine organizational culture EXCEPT

A) survey questionnaires B) direct observation C) interviews D) participant observation

15) Rebekah is responsible for balancing the cash register at the end of every workday. This is an example of a(n) _____.

A) social ritual B) task ritual C) personal ritual D) organizational ritual

16) Each summer NowBank hosts a picnic for the families of its employees. This is an example of a(n) _____.

A) social ritual B) task ritual C) personal ritual D) organizational ritual

17) The approach to knowing that characterizes the research conducted using Organizational Culture Theory is the

A) positivistic/empirical approach B) critical approach C) interpretive approach D) performative approach

18)

The major criticism of Organizational Culture Theory is that

A) the theory has not stood the test of time B) the theory lacks consistency because stories may not have shared meaning C) the theory views organizational life as too complex to study systematically D) the theory lacks heuristic value

19) Renaldo always has a smile on his face when he enters his workplace. His colleagues comment on how much they appreciate him taking the time to stop and ask how their day is going as he passes by their desks. In this scenario, in which type of communicative performance does Renaldo engage?

A) social performance B) passion performance C) ritual performance D) political performance

20)

All of the following are assumptions of Organizational Culture Theory EXCEPT

A) organizational members create and maintain a shared sense of organizational reality B) the use and interpretation of symbols are critical to an organization's culture C) cultures vary across organizations, and the interpretations of actions within these cultures are diverse D) organizations are produced and reproduced through the use of rules and resources

21) All of the following statements about the cultural approach to organizations are true EXCEPT

A) change often results in confusion, anxiety, frustration, and excitement among the organization's members B) researchers should observe, record, and make sense out of an organization by examining the communication among its members C) culture is something an organization has, not something it is D) culture is communicatively constructed by organizational practices

22) The communication tradition most closely associated with Organizational Culture Theory is the

A) socio-psychological communication tradition B) semiotic communication tradition C) socio-cultural communication tradition D) cybernetic communication tradition

23) The workers at Zeideco Products often go out together after work on Fridays for "happy hour." This kind of organizational ritual would be classified as

A) passion B) a social ritual C) enculturation D) a personal ritual

24) Organizational _____ are used to inform members about what standards and principles are viewed as being important by the organization.

A) stories B) rules C) values D) performances

25)

When organizational cultures communicate _____, they are exercising power or control.

A) political performances B) passion performances C) social performances D) symbolic performances

26) Organizational Culture Theory has been applauded for its ability to explain the experiences of nearly all the employees in an organization, which means it has significant _____.

A) utility B) hermeneutic value C) consistency D) heuristic value

27)

Pacanowsky has noted that values derive from

A) moral knowledge B) our private interactions with others C) the stories we share D) the culture in which we live

28) The material objects of an organization, such as your school's logo and buildings, are called

A) physical symbols B) behavioral symbols C) passion artifacts D) ceremonial artifacts

29)

A _____ is an explanation of the intricate layers of meaning underlying a culture.

A) cultural narrative B) field journal C) thick description D) performance

30)

Which of the following is an example of a behavioral symbol?

A) decor B) appearance C) metaphors D) punishments

31) _____ is a qualitative methodology that uncovers and interprets artifacts, stories, rituals, and practices to reveal meaning in a culture.

A) Cultural relativism B) Ethnography C) Reflexivity D) Cross-cultural comparison

32)

In an organizational context, which of the following is true of political performances?

A) It is a bad thing to communicate a desire to influence organizational members.

B) Acquiring and maintaining power and control is a hallmark of U.S. organizations.

C) Most organizations are flat by nature; hence, power and control are unnecessary.

D) These performances help to maintain a professional decorum in organizations.

33)

Which of the following is true of enculturation performances?

A) They expose a member's incompetency within an organization.

B) They essentially communicate a desire to influence others.

C) They help organizational members be "nice" to each other.

D) They refer to acquired competencies over an individual's organizational career.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

34) Describe the various types of symbols that can be used to communicate an organization's values. Provide an example of each. Why are symbols important to examine when taking a cultural approach to organizations?

35) Differentiate between the various types of performances proposed by Pacanowsky and O'Donnell-Trujillo.

36) Describe the various methods that may be used to investigate an organization from a cultural approach. What are the strengths and weaknesses of each method?

37) Geertz applied the analogy of a spider web to explain organizational culture. Develop an original analogy that can be used to explain organizational culture. Be sure to discuss the reasoning behind your choice.

38) Geertz believes that to understand a culture, it must be seen from the members' points of view. Discuss the application of this thinking to one of your classrooms this term. How are you able to see the classroom culture from the views of others?

39) How would you use the concepts from Organizational Culture Theory to study a particular organizational culture? Formulate a research question and describe how you would go about learning more about an organization that interests you. What would be the utility of such research?

40) Describe the culture of your school using Organizational Culture Theory. Identify the various types of symbols and performances used to perpetuate the culture among the members of this organization.

41) In addition to the five cultural performances identified by Pacanowsky and O'DonnellTrujillo, name additional cultural performances in organizations in which you have worked. Be sure to describe the characteristics of the performance and any corresponding examples.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 19 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) B 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) C 18) B 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) C 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) A

27) A 28) A 29) C 30) D 31) B 32) B 33) D 34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

40) Answers will vary.

41) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Aristotle believed that there are five subjects on which people deliberate: revenue, war and peace, the defense of the country, commerce, and legislation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) In the context of Aristotle's canons of rhetoric, the canon of delivery is concerned with knowing what to say and when to say it.

⊚ ⊚

true false

3) "Drunk driving can kill people. College students drink and drive. Therefore, college students can kill others (by drinking and driving)." This is an example of a syllogism. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The introduction of a speech should gain the audience's attention, suggest a connection with the audience, and provide an overview of the speech's purpose. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) In his notion of rhetoric, Aristotle suggests that the available means of persuasion for a speaker include ethos, logos, and pathos. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) According to Aristotle, speakers look to civic spaces, which symbolize metaphorical locations where rhetoric has the opportunity to effect change. ⊚ ⊚

7)

true false

It is possible for a speaker to eliminate ethos from an epideictic speech. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Aristotle's Rhetoric has been criticized for encouraging speakers to avoid focusing on logos yet incorporating it as a strategy that he recommended.

⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

For Aristotle, availing oneself of all means of persuasion translates into bribery or torture. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

10) In this classic syllogism, which element is the minor premise? "All humans are mortal.

Aristotle is human. Aristotle is mortal."

A) All humans are mortal.

B) Aristotle is human.

C) Aristotle is mortal.

D) None of the answers are correct.

11) One assumption of the Aristotelian theory of rhetoric is that effective speakers must consider their audience. This assumption underscores the notion of communication as

A) a symbolic activity B) a linear process C) centering on a speaker's perceived sense of power D) a transactional process

12) Before he creates his speech, Antonio considers the age, sex, and educational level of his audience. Antonio is engaging in

A) the activities associated with the canon known as style B) audience analysis C) predictive behavior D) role-playing

13)

_____ refers to the perceived character, intelligence, and goodwill of a speaker.

A) Ethos B) Pathos C) Mythos D) Logos

14) In the context of Aristotle's canons of rhetoric, the use of language to express ideas in a certain manner is called

A) deliberation B) delivery C) audience adaptation D) style

15)

A syllogism represents a form of _____ logic.

A) inductive B) ethos-based C) deductive D) rhetorical

16)

Which of the following accurately states one of Aristotle's assumptions?

A) Effective speakers must use logical appeals to influence their audience.

B) Effective speakers employ a number of proofs in their presentations.

C) Effective speakers need not adapt to their audience.

D) Effective speakers must primarily be concerned with arrangement.

17)

Which of the following is NOT one of Aristotle's canons of rhetoric?

A) memory B) arrangement C) style D) elocution

18)

A speech should contain

A) topoi, inventio, and elecutio B) power and vision C) metaphors and idioms D) introduction, body, and conclusion

19) Kameka is an assistant district attorney in a small New England town. She is about to prosecute Parker, who is accused of blackmail and fraud. To establish guilt, Kameka will

A) rely on ethos and mythos to prove her point B) need to establish Parker's motivation for doing wrong C) employ the technique known as "bait and switch" D) have to put Parker on the witness stand

20)

Aristotle felt that _____ and _____ ranked above all other virtues.

A) courage; justice B) honesty; nationalism C) righteousness; promise-keeping D) honor; duty

21) While running for the president of the United States, Barack Obama gave many speeches advocating health care reform in the United States. These speeches were a form of _____ oratory.

A) epideictic B) forensic C) ceremonial D) deliberative

22)

Aristotle's Rhetoric has been criticized for

A) contradiction B) incoherence C) inconsistency D) All of these answers are correct.

23)

_____ were the teachers of public speaking in ancient Greece.

A) Philosophers B) Sophists C) Politicians D) Deliberators

24) The _____ approach to knowing characterizes the research done using Aristotle's ideas about rhetoric.

A) semiotic B) interpretive/hermeneutic C) public/rhetorical D) positivistic/empirical

25)

The Rhetoric passes the criteria of _____ for theory evaluation.

A) semiotic B) test of time C) scope D) parsimony

26) Isabella is working on a project on rhetoric for her communication studies class. She has to observe an example of forensic rhetoric. Where should Isabella go to complete her assignment?

A) a political rally B) a funeral C) a courthouse D) a city council meeting

27) When U.S. senators debate on the floor of the Senate, arguing for or against a particular policy that the body is about to vote on, they are using _____.

A) epideictic rhetoric B) deliberative rhetoric C) enthymematic rhetoric D) syllogistic rhetoric

28) In the context of Aristotle's canons of rhetoric, which of the following canons refers to having a basic understanding of material and techniques for a speech?

A) invention B) creation C) creativity D) memory

29) According to Aristotle, _____ refers to the logical proof that speakers employ—their arguments and rationalizations.

A) ethos B) syllogism C) style D) logos

30) In the context of Aristotle's canons of rhetoric, _____ is defined as the construction or development of an argument that is relevant to the purpose of a speech.

A) delivery B) arrangement C) invention D) memory

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

31) Think of a speech you have heard recently. Analyze it using as many concepts from Aristotle's Rhetoric as you deem relevant.

32)

Identify and define the five canons of rhetoric. Give an example to illustrate each canon.

33)

Identify the three types of oratory and provide an example of each.

34)

What did Aristotle mean by the "moral habits" of a person? Explain.

35)

Why is the study of rhetoric important to the democratic process?

36) Write a short persuasive argument on any topic using the concepts forwarded by Aristotle in the Rhetoric. It is not necessary to use every single element perfectly, but it is important to demonstrate a clear understanding of all the critical elements of rhetorical theory.

37)

Evaluate Aristotle's ideas according to the criteria used to judge theories.

38) [Provide a transcript of a short speech by a recognizable figure.] Analyze this speech using as many concepts from Aristotle's Rhetoric as you deem relevant.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 20 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) B 11) D 12) B 13) A 14) D 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) D 23) B 24) B 25) B 26) C

27) B 28) D 29) D 30) C 31) Answers will vary.

32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) The theory of Dramatism assumes that human behavior is deterministic in nature. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) As defined by Burke, Olivia's substance refers to the fact that she is a 24-year-old female, a civil engineer, and likes crossword puzzles, horseback riding, and bowling. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The pattern of guilt and purging guilt is as follows: order or hierarchy, the negative, victimage, and redemption.

⊚ ⊚

4)

The only way to determine dramatistic ratios is by examining the agent-act ratio. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

true false

The act is the goal the agent had in mind when engaging in a particular behavior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Although Burke's theory has been influenced by Aristotle, Burke's ultimate purpose was to displace Aristotle's original thinking. ⊚ ⊚

7)

true false

The pentad allows us to analyze various speakers and speeches. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Steven Hunt called the dramatistic ratios the "interaction effects of two or more elements" and argued that observing these interactions is one criterion by which to judge the worth of a piece of rhetorical criticism. ⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

Burke's goal was to theorize about the whole range of human experience. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) When a culture's language does not have symbols for a given motive, then speakers of that language are unlikely to recognize that motive. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) Burke argued that some of what people do is motivated by their animal nature (such as thirst and hunger) and some of what they do is motivated by

A) others B) attitude C) symbols D) reaction

12)

Burke asserted that words, thoughts, and actions have

A) little effect on human motivation B) no meaning without rational thought C) never been fully understood D) extremely close connections with one another

13)

_____ occurs when two people overlap in terms of their substance.

A) Identification B) Action C) Purpose D) Mortification

14)

According to Burke, _____ is the central motive for all symbolic activities.

A) attitude B) guilt C) division D) scapegoating

15) Louie is late for his date with Rachel. When she asks him the reason, he says, "My roommate borrowed my car and was late getting back. He's so irresponsible! I'm definitely not rooming with him again next year." In the given scenario, Louie is engaging in

A) identification B) redemption C) division D) scapegoating

16) After being accused of fixing championship games, Sam, a football referee, accepts what he did was wrong. He takes the blame on himself for accepting money to fix matches. Sam's behavior is an example of

A) mortification B) scapegoating C) redemption D) division

17) In the context of the pentad, message strategies, storytelling, apologies, and speech making are forms of _____.

A) attitude B) the scene C) the agent D) agency

18)

According to _____, when people use language, they are used by it as well.

A) Sapir and Whorf B) Conrad and Macom C) Borrowman and Kmetz D) None of the answers are correct.

19)

One of the assumptions of Burke's Dramatism Theory is that

A) humans are animals who use words rather than symbols B) symbols rather than language form a critically important system for humans C) humans are choice makers D) language has no life of its own

20) When using the pentad to analyze a text, the analyst first labels the elements of the pentad and then examines the

A) response B) dramatistic ratios C) allocative resources D) purpose

21)

Burke struggled with negotiating a space between complete free will and complete

A) division B) identification C) determinism D) hierarchy

22) Rosa Lopez is a candidate for the state senate in Ohio. During one of her campaign speeches, she blames the media and gun manufacturers for the problem of violence in America.

In this instance, she is attempting to set herself up as the _____ of the voters of her state.

A) agent B) redeemer C) positive identifier D) negative identifier

23) Which of the following is considered a rejection of one's place in the existing social order?

A) chaos B) the negative C) victimage D) the new order

24)

Which approach to knowing characterizes the research undertaken with Dramatism?

A) interpretive/hermeneutic B) critical C) positivist/empirical D) phenomenological

25) Condit (1992) suggests that Burke's Dramatism Theory needs extension and modification in the areas of

A) act and agency B) order or hierarchy and victimage C) gender and culture D) identification and consubstantiality

26)

All of the following are assumptions of Burke's Dramatism Theory EXCEPT

A) humans are animals who use symbols.

B) humans are rational beings.

C) humans are choice makers.

D) language and symbols form a critically important system for humans.

27) What phrase represents the notion that people cannot see beyond what their words lead them to believe?

A) trained incapacities B) narrow observations C) limited behavioral observations D) limited analytic abilities

28) _____ was a later addition to the pentad and refers to the manner in which the agent positions herself or himself relative to others.

A) Purpose B) Act C) Attitude D) Demeanor

29) Kenneth Burke views literature as _____, which means that literature or texts speak to people's individual experiences and problems and provide people with responses for dealing with these experiences.

A) terministic screens B) trained capacities C) equivocalness of substance D) equipment for living

30) _____ can be described in a person by listing demographic characteristics as well as background information and facts about the present situation, such as talents and occupation.

A) Identification B) Substance C) Order D) Consubstantiation

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

31) Identify and explain the three assumptions of Burke's Dramatism Theory.

32)

Identify and define the elements of Burke's pentad.

33) What is identification in Burke's Dramatism Theory? How does it apply to the Dramatism Theory?

34) Do you agree or disagree that "guilt is the central motive for all communication"? Why, or why not?

35) Evaluate Burke's Dramatism Theory using the standard criteria for evaluating communication theories.

36) Discuss why rhetorician Marie Hochmuth Nichols believes that Burke is "difficult and often confusing." What can you present from the theory that illustrates her thinking? What response would you offer to Nichols in her assessment?

37) Compare "terministic screens" and "trained incapacities" across a variety of contexts, namely, medicine, education, and labor (trades). If, as Burke contends, language has a life of its own, how does the language used in each of these professions differ and/or how are they similar?

38) Identify and define the types of victimage. Provide an example of each to illustrate.

Which do you feel is more widely used among celebrities who find themselves in trouble, and why do you think that is the case?

39) A key in the redemption phase is that guilt is only temporarily relieved. Explain what this means and why guilt returns to plague the human condition as any order or hierarchy becomes established.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 21 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) D 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) B

27) A 28) C 29) D 30) B 31) Answers will vary.

32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) According to Fisher, narrative logic is similar to traditional logic and reasoning. ⊚ ⊚

2)

The Narrative Paradigm suggests that all stories are equally effective. ⊚ ⊚

3)

true false

true false

Aristotle and Plato valued logos (rational argument) above mythos (story and emotion).

⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The logic of good reasons presents a listener with a set of values that appeal to her or him and form warrants for accepting or rejecting the advice advanced by any form of narrative. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) In the Narrative Paradigm, absolute truth is discovered through rational analysis, not through emotional responses to compelling stories. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Fisher argues that there is no way of knowing what individuals consider when judging whether to believe a particular story because individuals differ too greatly in their life experiences, perceptions, biases, etc. ⊚ ⊚

7)

true false

According to Fisher, good reasons mean strict logic or argument. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) As people listen to conflicting stories, their choice of story does not stem from narrative logic but from traditional logic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

9) The Narrative Paradigm asserts that

A) humans are more persuaded by a good argument than by a good story B) the essence of human nature is storytelling C) human beliefs and behaviors are unaffected by values and emotions D) decision making is based on arguments

10)

Narrative rationality includes

A) power and vision B) language and rational argumentation C) coherence and fidelity D) None of the answers are correct.

11) All of the following are questions the listener asks about the narrative regarding a "logic of reason" EXCEPT

A) Are the patterns of reasoning in the narrative based on emotional or logical appeals?

B) Are the statements that claim to be in the narrative really factual?

C) Have the relevant facts been omitted from the narrative or distorted in its telling?

D) How relevant are the arguments in the story to any decision the listener may make?

12) After listening to his daughter's story about an event that occurred at school, Alberto says, "I believe your story because a similar thing happened to me when I was in the sixth grade." Alberto is judging his daughter's story on the basis of

A) material coherence B) characterological coherence C) vividness D) fidelity

13) The logic of _____ presents a listener with a set of values that appeals to her or him and form warrants for accepting or rejecting the advice advanced by any form of narrative.

A) good reasons B) rational argumentation C) fidelity D) All of these answers are correct.

14) Which approach to knowing characterizes the research undertaken using the Narrative Paradigm?

A) phenomenological B) interpretive/hermeneutic C) critical D) positivistic/empirical

15) Whereas the Rational World Paradigm requires that arguments adhere to specific criteria for soundness and logic, the Narrative Paradigm argues that

A) good reasons are determined by matters of history, biography, culture, and character B) only narratives can produce true knowledge C) the world can be reduced to a series of logical relationships that are understood through deductive reasoning D) None of the answers are correct.

16)

According to Fisher, which of the following is true about narration or narratives?

A) Narrative is a specific genre rather than a mode of social influence.

B) Narration refers to a fictive composition whose propositions may be true or false.

C) Narration includes only a verbal account with a sequence of events to which listeners assign a meaning.

D) Narration is much more than a plotted story with a beginning, middle, and end.

17)

Fisher argues that

A) only verbal communication is narrative B) only nonverbal communication is narrative C) all communication is narrative D) None of the answers are correct.

18)

Critics of the Narrative Paradigm fault it for its

A) broad scope B) overly conservative nature C) failure to actually provide an alternative to the Rational World Paradigm D) All of these answers are correct.

19) Which of the following is NOT one of the consistencies used to judge the coherence of a story?

A) structural coherence B) material coherence C) rationality coherence D) characterological coherence

20)

_____ is a broader concept than _____.

A) A paradigm; a theory B) A theory; a paradigm C) Coherence; fidelity D) Fidelity; coherence

21)

Narrative rationality

A) provides a means for judging narratives that is quite different from the traditional methods found in the Rational World Paradigm B) includes any verbal or nonverbal account with a sequence of events to which listeners assign a meaning C) is viewed as superior to traditional methods of evaluating arguments D) includes any verbal or nonverbal account and is viewed as superior to traditional methods of evaluating arguments

22) When you are skeptical about your classmate's account of what happened at the previous night's party because it is inconsistent with what your roommate told you, you are doubting the _____ of your classmate's story.

A) rationality B) good reasons C) material coherence D) fidelity

23)

Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the Narrative Paradigm?

A) We experience the world as filled with stories, and we must choose among them.

B) Good reasons are determined by history, biography, culture, and character.

C) Decisions about a story's worth are based on "good reasons."

D) Humans are inadequate storytellers who make points when they want to.

24)

A significant change in the way people think about the world and its meanings is called a

A) structural change B) paradigm shift C) rejection of logic D) paradigm reversal

25)

Which of the following is NOT one of the assumptions of the Rational World Paradigm?

A) Humans are rational beings.

B) Arguments adhere to specific criteria for soundness and logic.

C) Decision making is based on "good reasons."

D) The world can be reduced to a series of logical relationships that are uncovered through reasoning.

26)

What communication context is most associated with the Narrative Paradigm?

A) public/rhetorical B) interpersonal C) small group D) mass/media

27) All of the following are questions the listener asks about the narrative regarding a "logic of good reasons" EXCEPT

A) How well does the narrative address the important and significant issues of this case?

B) What are the implicit and explicit values contained in the narrative?

C) What would be the effects of adhering to the values embedded in the narrative?

D) Are the values of the narrative the basis for ideal human conduct?

28) _____ refers to any verbal or nonverbal account with a sequence of events to which listeners assign a meaning.

A) Narration B) Double agency C) Coherence D) Fidelity

29)

_____ refers to a principle of narrative rationality judging the credibility of a story.

A) Coherence B) Fidelity C) Narration D) Utility

30)

Characterological coherence is a type of coherence referring to the

A) degree of congruence between one story and other stories that seem related to it B) truthfulness or reliability of a story C) degree to which the elements of a story flow smoothly D) believability of the characters in a story

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

31) Identify the five essential assumptions of the Narrative Paradigm.

32) Identify, define, and provide an example of the three types of coherence used to evaluate a narrative.

33)

How is fidelity used as a standard for assessing narrative rationality?

34)

What does Fisher mean by "good reasons"?

35)

Do you agree or disagree that all communication is narrative? Why, or why not?

36) Comment upon the following statement within the context of the Narrative Paradigm: "Stories are lived experiences which are random, unpredictable, and spontaneous." What does the statement mean to you? How does it apply to Fisher's theory? Discuss the statement using some key concepts of the theory.

37) "The Narrative Paradigm has made a substantial contribution to our understanding of human communication and human nature in general." Based on your understanding of the theory, is their claim too broad and wishful? What evidence and examples can you point to in order to justify your opinion?

38) Evaluate a story you heard recently on at least five concepts of the Narrative Paradigm as you deem relevant. Did you believe the story? Explain why or why not, invoking the appropriate concepts from the Narrative Paradigm.

39) How would you go about using the Narrative Paradigm to frame a study about how individuals assess narratives? Select a particular context and type of narrative or narrative topic to investigate in your study. Develop a research question or hypothesis and describe your study.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 22 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) B 10) C 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) D 17) C 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) A

27) A 28) A 29) B 30) D 31) Answers will vary.

32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) McLuhan based much of his thinking on Aristotle's works. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) According to Innis, those in power were given more power because of the development of technology. ⊚ ⊚

3)

true false

McLuhan felt that media were broad enough to include money.

⊚ ⊚

4)

The prominent sense during the print era, according to McLuhan, was hearing. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

Meyrowitz agrees with McLuhan that electronic media have social consequences. ⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

The Internet is an example of enhancement, one of the laws of media. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

McLuhan conceptualized the laws of media while working with his son. ⊚ ⊚

7)

true false

The ratio of the senses refers to how people adapt to their environment. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

true false

Postman (1992) hypothesizes that technology negatively changes the fabric of society. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

10) Scholars term McLuhan's work "Media Ecology" because

A) it emphasizes the audience B) it views media as an environment unto itself C) it is a paradigm rather than a theory D) it reflected the popular media at the time

11) McLuhan felt that _____ is a "corporate image" that relies on society for its status and sustenance.

A) a game B) time C) money D) luck

12)

"The medium is the message" suggests that

A) media continue to subordinate the masses B) media content is secondary to the channel C) people are intoxicated by television over other media D) print was the most influential of all media

13)

Which of the following is a hot medium according to McLuhan?

A) telephone B) conversations C) television D) radio

14)

The main distinguishing factor between hot and cool media is the

A) involvement required of the audience member B) number of senses required in order to consume it C) effects the media content has on the audience D) era in history when the medium came into existence

15)

The beginning of the industrial revolution characterizes the _____ in media history.

A) tribal era B) literate era C) print era D) electronic era

16)

To illustrate hot and cool media, McLuhan analyzed

A) a presidential debate B) television commercials C) celebrity speeches D) telephone messages

17) McLuhan claimed that the content of a message is what gets our attention and that the effect of the medium is largely

A) overstated B) unconscious C) temporary D) ecological

18)

When Neil Postman stated that we have become a technopoly, he is stating that

A) we are preoccupied with computers B) technology dominates our thinking C) the Internet has too much power D) television has influenced viewers for too long

19)

Joshua Meyrowitz contends that

A) what was once private is now public B) media operate on a personal level C) our society has a love affair with computers D) people are incapable of change

20) Which approach to knowing characterizes the research undertaken using Media Ecology Theory?

A) critical B) positivistic/empirical C) quantitative D) interpretive/hermeneutic

21)

Media Ecology Theory, as proposed by McLuhan, has been criticized as being

A) overly optimistic B) sublime C) unfortunate and imposing D) new and innovative

22)

All of the following are assumptions of Media Ecology Theory EXCEPT

A) media infuse every act and action in society B) media fix our perceptions and organize our experiences C) media tie the world together D) media cause more problems than it solves

23) Which communication traditions are most closely associated with Media Ecology Theory?

A) socio-cultural and critical B) phenomenological and semiotic C) rhetorical and socio-psychological D) cybernetic and critical

24)

In the electronic era, which sense is dominant?

A) visual B) audio C) touch D) All of these answers are correct.

25) _____ is a law that states that media will—when pushed to their limit—produce or become something else.

A) Obsolescence B) Reversal C) Retrieval D) Exaggeration

26)

The _____ refers to the shaping power of technology on a society.

A) law of media B) ratio of the senses C) global village D) bias of communication

27) Marshall McLuhan and Eric McLuhan offer the _____ as an organizing concept that allows scholars to understand the past, present, and current effects of media.

A) tetrad B) bias of communication C) laws of media D) master narrative

28)

Which of the following was the prominent technology in the tribal era?

A) Face-to-face contact B) Stone tablets C) Phonetic alphabet D) Parchment

29)

Which of the following was the dominant sense in the literate era?

A) Hearing B) Touching C) Seeing D) Tasting

30)

Which of the following statements is true of the tribal era?

A) It was marked by the introduction of the alphabet.

B) It became possible to make copies of essays, books, and announcements.

C) It presented opportunities to reevaluate how media influence the people it serves.

D) People heard with no real ability to censor messages.

31)

Which of the following statements is true of the print era?

A) It allowed only the elite to gain access to information.

B) People had to rely on their memories for information.

C) Permanency of record was difficult to achieve.

D) It was possible to make copies of essays and books.

32)

_____ is the law of media that states media restore something that was once lost.

A) Enhancement B) Obsolescence C) Retrieval D) Reversal

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

33) In a succinct manner, differentiate between hot and cool media. Provide examples of each, explaining the utility of this differentiation when studying media.

34) What might Media Ecology theorists say about social media such as Facebook and Twitter?

35) Apply the tetrad to 21st century technology. Present several technological innovations and describe how the laws of media apply.

36) What is meant by the statement, "decentralization of authority is enhanced by the Internet"? Apply Media Ecology Theory to your interpretations.

37) Postman coined the word technopoly to refer to a society dominated by technology. What could be a few positive and negative effects of a technopoly?

38) Explain the major criticisms scholars have voiced in regard to Media Ecology Theory. Do you agree with these criticisms? Why or why not?

39) Compare the principles and concepts of Media Ecology Theory to those of Social Information Processing Theory. What is the primary focus of these two theories?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 23 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) B 11) C 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) A 20) A 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) D 25) B 26) D

27) A 28) A 29) C 30) D 31) D 32) C 33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) According to Gasiorek, Giles, and Soliz, 2015, and Giles, 2008, in addition to the perception of the other's communication, convergence is also based on attraction. ⊚ ⊚

2)

Perception is the process of judging a conversation. ⊚ ⊚

3)

true false

true false

Accommodation is not necessarily a worthwhile or beneficial process.

⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Dependency overaccommodation is typically used when communicating with those who have a limitation of some nature. ⊚ ⊚

5)

Stereotyping is at the root of intergroup overaccommodation. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

People from marginalized cultures are usually expected to accommodate others. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

Divergence frequently occurs in conversations where there are distinct role differences. ⊚ ⊚

7)

true false

true false

Communication Accommodation Theory has been criticized for not being heuristic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Divergence has received as much research attention as convergence. Therefore, our knowledge about the process is vast. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Divergence is an effort to disagree or to not respond to another communicator and is the same as inattentiveness. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

When conversants are accommodating, they are agreeing with things. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

12) Social Identity Theory suggests that a person's self-concept comprises

A) internal and external manifestations B) personal identity and a social identity C) in-group and out-group norms D) converging and diverging tendencies

13) Aisha goes to Germany for a vacation. Identify an example of divergence experienced by Aisha.

A) A German tour guide converses with her in English, Aisha's native language.

B) Aisha uses phrases commonly used by Germans when conversing with the locals.

C) Aisha copies the accent of the locals when visiting a doctor during her stay.

D) The staff at a restaurant speaks to Aisha in German even when she speaks in English.

14)

Convergence is a selective process that is based on

A) respect B) perceived dissimilarities C) attraction D) marginalization

15) _____ is defined as the ability to adjust, modify, or regulate one's behavior in response to another.

A) Adaptation B) Accommodation C) Reflexivity D) Assertion

16) The _____ similar our attitudes and beliefs are to those of others, the _____ we will be attracted to and accommodate those others.

A) less; likelier that B) less; more C) more; more D) more; less

17) Motivation is the key part of the assumption of Communication Accommodation Theory in that

A) speech and behavioral dissimilarities exist in all conversations B) the manner in which we perceive the speech and behaviors of another will determine how we evaluate a conversation C) language and behaviors impart information about social status and group belonging D) accommodation varies in its degree of appropriateness, and norms guide the accommodation process

18)

_____ is identified as being at the heart of intergroup overaccommodation.

A) Jealousy B) Stereotyping C) Language barriers D) Attraction

19) Dr. Smith is upset that Mrs. Hernandez isn't taking her blood pressure medicine as prescribed. Initially, he tried to be nice and speak to her in layman's terms. Now, he speaks to her in an authoritative tone, using medical jargon to describe the perils of not taking the medicine. In the context of Communication Accommodation Theory, which of the following accommodation strategies does Dr. Smith employ?

A) overaccommodation B) convergence C) divergence D) face-saving

20) The third assumption of Communication Accommodation Theory states that language and behaviors impart information about

A) intentions and motivations B) convergence and divergence C) expectations and interpretations D) social status and group belonging

21)

Communication Accommodation Theory was formerly called

A) Speech Accommodation Theory B) Social Identity Theory C) Accommodation Identification Theory D) Verbal Accommodation Theory

22) When Alan communicates with his African-American friend, he uses terms like "crib" and "brother" quite frequently. This is because Alan thinks that all African Americans use these words as part of their everyday communication. In this scenario, Alan is employing _____.

A) sensory overaccommodation B) dependency overaccommodation C) intergroup overaccommodation D) alternative overaccommodation

23) Since Communication Accommodation Theory has been invoked in a lot of studies in various contexts, it is said to have good _____.

A) utilitarian value B) heuristic value C) testability D) consistency

24) Which of the following statements is a criticism of Communication Accommodation Theory?

A) It has little heuristic value.

B) It is limited in its ability to be applied to a variety of communication contexts.

C) Conversations are too complex to be reduced to convergence versus divergence.

D) It is extremely difficult to understand.

25) McKenna spent the summer with her aunt and uncle in New York City. While living there, she began to integrate New York slang words like "schlepping" into her conversations with other New Yorkers. She found that it helped to make herself understood when interacting with her new friends. Which of the following types of accommodation did McKenna employ?

A) convergence B) divergence C) overaccommodation D) attentiveness

26)

Which of the following statements about convergence is true?

A) When convergence is perceived as bad, it can lead to meaningful dialogue.

B) If one converges to be similar and enhance communication, it will likely be perceived as being negative.

C) If one converges with the purpose of ridiculing, teasing, or patronizing, it will likely be perceived as being negative.

D) The universal norms of society and the rate of speech in a language are used to evaluate convergence.

27) The approach to knowing that characterizes the research undertaken using Communication Accommodation Theory is

A) phenomenological B) interpretive C) critical D) positivistic/empirical

28) Many refugees may feel subordinated as they try to assimilate into new communities because they do not have a basic understanding of cultural values or norms. According to Communication Accommodation Theory, this may result in

A) dependency overaccommodation B) intergroup overaccommodation C) sensory overaccommodation D) cultural overaccommodation

29) All of the following are assumptions of Communication Accommodation Theory EXCEPT

A) speech and behavioral similarities and dissimilarities exist in all conversations B) language and behaviors impart information about social status and group belonging C) our evaluations of a conversation are based on the social group to which the other belongs D) accommodation varies in its degree of appropriateness, and norms guide the accommodation process

30) Communication Accommodation Theory is primarily concerned with the _____ context of communication.

A) interpersonal B) cultural C) intrapersonal D) small group

31) The communication tradition most closely associated with Communication Accommodation Theory is

A) semiotic B) socio-cultural C) rhetorical D) socio-psychological

32)

_____ assumes that a person has a linguistic or a physical limitation.

A) Dependency overaccommodation B) Intergroup overaccommodation C) Affiliative overaccommodation D) Sensory overaccommodation

33) _____ occurs when two people speak to each other with no concern about accommodating each other.

A) Divergence B) Stereotyping C) Convergence D) Speculation

34) _____ are expectations of behaviors that individuals feel should or should not occur in a conversation.

A) Evaluations B) Norms C) Tactics D) Strategies

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

35) Describe the three forms of overaccommodation. Provide an example of a situation in which each could be used.

36) What factors are important to consider when making a decision to engage in convergence? Discuss the potential pros and cons of using convergence as an accommodation strategy.

37) Distinguish between the following: convergence, divergence, and overaccommodation.

Provide an example of a situation in which you have experienced or engaged in each of these forms of accommodation.

38) Discuss the role of in-groups in influencing your decision to engage in communication accommodation. Describe a situation in which you either engaged in accommodation or witnessed another person who accommodated his/her speech.

39) Looking at how conversations pervade our lives, examine how the principles and concepts of Communication Accommodation Theory relate to our dialogues with our physicians, teachers, and/or family members. Provide an example of a conversation to analyze (it can be fictional or real).

40) Discuss the various reasons one might choose to engage in divergence, noting the functions it is intended to serve. Under what circumstances might such divergence be expected by the other person, and when might it offend instead? Provide examples to illustrate your points.

41) How would you go about studying the phenomenon of accommodation (or divergence)?

Select a particular context and specify the groups you would study. Formulate a hypothesis or research question, and describe your study.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 24 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) B 13) D 14) C 15) B 16) C 17) B 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) A 22) C 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) C

27) D 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) D 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

40) Answers will vary.

41) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Segmentation occurs when people choose one of opposing tensions to feature at a particular point in time and alternate this with the other. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) A contextual dialectic resulting from the difference between idealized relationships and lived relationships is known as the real and ideal dialectic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3)

The monologic approach pictures contradictions as either/or relationships. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) New research that studied nurses working in health-care teams found that, contrary to expectations, they experience no dialectical tensions related to their role, status, or identity. ⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

Contextual dialectics derive from the place of the relationship in the larger culture. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Baxter and Montgomery predicted that we can have fewer ongoing tensions in our relationships if we increase the amount of self-disclosure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Relational Dialectics Theory can be applied to a variety of relationships and contexts, including the workplace, family, and health care relationships. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) When dealing with tensions, partners make communication choices based on what has happened in the past as they communicate in the present about the future of the relationship. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

9) Research using Relational Dialectics Theory has uncovered several new dialectics.

Which two were found in the research focusing on illness and death in the context of the family?

A) ordered-emergent activities and acceptable-unacceptable behavior B) presence-absence and joy-grief C) acceptable-unacceptable behavior and joy-grief D) group-individual and presence-absence

10)

Which of the following is an assumption of Relational Dialectics Theory?

A) Relationships are linear.

B) Humans are irrational beings.

C) Relational life is characterized by change.

D) Relational life is an independent process.

11) Which of the following assumptions of Relational Dialectics Theory posits that tensions between opposites never go away and never cease to provide tension?

A) Accommodation is the fundamental fact of relational life.

B) Relational life is characterized by change.

C) Relationships are not linear.

D) Contradiction is the fundamental fact of relational life.

12)

_____ refers to the processual nature of relationships and their change over time.

A) Praxis B) Motion C) Totality D) Speculation

13) The authors point out that the choices we make in relationships are often influenced by all of the following EXCEPT

A) previous choices B) choices of others C) cultural and social conditions D) cognitive dissonance

14) Kip has been dating Theresa for less than a month. Kip wants to become closer to Theresa by sharing some very personal information, but he is also nervous about revealing too much, which could have negative relational consequences. Which dialectical tension is Kip experiencing?

A) autonomy and connection B) openness and protection C) novelty and predictability D) real and ideal

15) Yvonne complains to Cedric that the spark has gone out of their relationship. She claims that Cedric used to surprise her with flowers and cards, but he no longer engages in those behaviors. Cedric is confused. After all, didn't Yvonne comment only a week earlier how content and safe she felt knowing that their relationship was stable? Which dialectical tension is present in Yvonne and Cedric's relationship?

A) autonomy and connection B) openness and protection C) novelty and predictability D) real and ideal

16) _____ refer to the tensions that result from the conflicting nature of how the public defines a relationship and the private interactions that take place in the relationship.

A) Spatial dialectics B) Dualistic dialectics C) Interactional dialectics D) Contextual dialectics

17) According to the assumptions of Relational Dialectics Theory, _____ is central to organizing and negotiating relational contradictions.

A) communication B) patience C) self-disclosure D) integration

18)

Three forms of integration as a strategy for managing tensions are

A) neutralizing, segmenting, disqualifying B) reframing, disqualifying, selecting C) reframing, neutralizing, disqualifying D) segmenting, selecting, disqualifying

19) Which of the following statements is true of the techniques used to manage dialectic tensions?

A) They are unaffected by time.

B) They are selected after the nature of the tensions is altered.

C) They are not open to improvisation.

D) They are possibly complicated by unintended consequences.

20) Rawlins did not find evidence of the novelty-predictability dialectic in his study of friendship. Instead, a different dialectic emerged, which he called

A) presence-absence B) subordinate-equal C) judgment-acceptance D) informing-constituting identity

21)

One of the primary criticisms of Relational Dialectics Theory has been that

A) it does poorly on the criterion of parsimony B) it has limited heuristic value C) it is untestable D) it views relationships as being dynamic rather than static

22) Kera and Vic choose to be close to each other at all times and to do everything together.

They have chosen to manage the dialectical tension of autonomy and connection by employing

A) cyclic alternation B) segmentation C) selection D) integration

23) _____ is a term developed by Rawlins (1992) to explain the fact that some relationships fulfill both public and private functions.

A) Duality B) Cyclic alternation C) Relational functioning D) Double agency

24) With which communication tradition is Relational Dialectics Theory most closely associated?

A) socio-cultural B) socio-rhetorical C) socio-psychological D) socio-phenomenological

25) In the context of the strategies used by people to manage dialectic tensions in relational life as identified by Baxter, _____ involves some kind of synthesis of the opposites.

A) selection B) cyclic alternation C) segmentation D) integration

26) Michael and Ken are deeply committed to each other and have been together for ten years. However, their relationship is not recognized or treated as socially legitimate because same-sex union is not legal in their country. The tension they experience because of the inconsistencies between their own perceptions of the relationship and societal perceptions is reflected in the relational dialectic of _____.

A) the real-the ideal B) public-private C) acceptable-unacceptable D) legitimate-illegitimate

27)

Which of the following is NOT one of Baxter and Montgomery's dialectics?

A) autonomy-connection B) openness-protection C) extroversion-introversion D) novelty-predictability

28) Which of the following approaches to knowing is most closely associated with Relational Dialectics Theory?

A) interpretive B) rhetorical C) cybernetic D) semiotic

29) _____ refers to the way people use communication to make sense of contradictions in their relationships.

A) Double agency B) Time alternation C) Relational development D) Dialectical unity

30) In the context of the strategies used by people to manage dialectic tensions in relational life as identified by Baxter, _____ is a form of integration that manages the tensions by exempting certain issues from the general pattern.

A) neutralizing B) disqualifying C) reframing D) segmenting

31) The dialectic between _____ refers to the conflict between the comfort of stability and the excitement of change.

A) openness and protection B) autonomy and connection C) novelty and predictability D) speculation and contradiction

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

32) Compare the monologic, dualistic, and dialectical views of the following dialectics: openness and protection, autonomy and connection, and novelty and predictability.

33) Describe the four primary strategies that have been used to manage dialectical tensions.

Which do you perceive to be the most effective? Why? Which do you perceive to be the least effective? Why?

34) Provide an example that illustrates each of the three factors that influence the strategies used to manage dialectical tensions.

35) Identify the two locations from which dialectical tensions result. Provide an example of each.

36) Suppose you could sit with Baxter and Montgomery and discuss the merits and shortcomings of their theory. What sorts of discussions would you undertake with the theorists?

37) Think of additional dialectics that you have experienced in your interpersonal relationships. Are there different dialectics for different types of relationships? Explain with examples.

38)

Using the standard criteria for theory evaluation, critique Relational Dialectics Theory.

39) How would you use Relational Dialectics Theory to develop a study investigating dialectical tensions in a particular type of relationship or context? Formulate a hypothesis or research question, and describe how you would go about conducting your study.

40) Do you think there are strategies other than those identified by the theorists as the means of managing dialectical tensions? Use examples to illustrate some other ways relational partners may negotiate the contradicting desires described in this theory.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 25 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) B 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) D 26) B

27) C 28) A 29) D 30) B 31) C 32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

40) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) There is wide acceptance among media practitioners and academic researchers for Gerbner's Violence Index. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Cultivation theorists argue that television is fundamentally different from other forms of mass media. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Cultivation Theory is concerned with what people do as a result of too much exposure to violence on television. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Second-order effects involve hypotheses about general issues and assumptions that people make about their environments. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Horace Newcomb, an early critic of Cultivation Theory, believed that Gerbner failed to move his work out of the laboratory into real-world venues. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

Gerbner believed that the media directly influence people's behaviors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) The goal of the Proportional Representation of Diversity index was to examine the distortion in representation of various co-cultures "across the demography of the media landscape." ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The three Bs that Gerbner and his colleagues discussed were found in Jeffres, Atkin, and Neuendorf's study. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) The methods employed by Cultivation Theory researchers match the conceptual reach of the theory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) A cultivation differential can be defined as the percentage of difference in response between light and heavy television viewers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) Gerbner helped found the worldwide _____ in 1996 to assist people in the struggle against powerful media industries.

A) Violence Index B) Media Cultivation Initiative C) Anti-Media Institute D) Cultural Environment Movement

12) In the _____ of communication, media are conceptualized as central to "the maintenance of society in time."

A) transmissional perspective B) mainstreaming perspective C) ritual perspective D) phenomenological perspective

13)

The Violence Index is

A) the extent to which violent images on television make people think the world is a violent place B) a yearly content analysis of prime-time network programming to assess the amount of violence represented C) a means of defining what counts as violence so it may be measured D) a belief that media are senders of violent messages across space

14)

Which of the following is NOT an assumption of Cultivation Theory?

A) Television is essentially and fundamentally different from other forms of mass media.

B) Television shapes our society's way of thinking and relating.

C) The influence of television is limited.

D) All viewers of television think of the world as "mean and scary."

15)

For cultivation theorists, television is unique compared to other mass media because it

A) requires no literacy B) is often free C) is ageless D) All of these answers are correct.

16) Between 1993 and 1996, there was a 20 percent decrease in the homicide rate in the United States. During this time, the number of murder stories on the news

A) decreased by the same rate B) stayed the same C) increased by 721 percent D) None of the answers are correct.

17) To empirically demonstrate their belief that television has an important causal effect on culture, Cultivation Theory researchers use a four-step research process. Which of the following activities is associated with the first step, the message system analysis?

A) developing questions about people's understanding of their everyday lives B) doing a detailed content analysis of television programming C) distributing questionnaires to participants in a study D) comparing the social realities of light and heavy viewers

18) _____ occurs when, especially for heavier viewers, television's symbols dominate other sources of information and ideas about the world.

A) Mainstreaming B) Cultivation incongruence C) Resonance D) Third-order reasoning

19)

Learning values and assumptions from the media are called

A) secondary learnings B) first-order effects C) primary learnings D) second-order effects

20) For cultivation theorists, _____ is the best predictor for how people will answer the three Mean World Index statements.

A) income B) education C) gender D) the amount of television viewing

21)

Which of the following is NOT one of Gerbner's three Bs of television?

A) blurring B) blending C) breaking D) bending

22)

Cultivation Theory is a critical theory because it

A) uses a causal argument B) focuses on television viewing and the influence of television C) is concerned with the way that communication perpetuates the dominance of one group over another D) All of these answers are correct.

23)

Cultivation Theory

A) is heuristic B) has been criticized because it employs social scientific methods typically identified with the limited effects findings C) has been criticized for some recent studies not being able to find results consistent with its tenets D) All of these answers are correct.

24) Molly learns from the evening news on television that crime in her state is decreasing.

This is an example of

A) mainstreaming B) a first-order effect C) cultivation-identification D) resonance

25) In the context of the processes and products related to Cultivation Theory, _____ occurs when things on television are, in fact, congruent with viewers' actual everyday realities.

A) institutionalization B) generalization C) resonance D) mainstreaming

26) Which of the following is the second step of the four-step process for conducting Cultivation Theory research?

A) defining what counts as violence B) formulation of questions about viewers' social realities C) measurement of the amount of television viewing D) comparing social realities of heavy and light viewers

27) Which of these communication traditions is most closely associated with Cultivation Theory?

A) critical and interpretive/hermeneutic B) positivistic/empirical and critical C) critical and phenomenological D) socio-cultural and critical

28)

All of the following are part of the Mean World Index EXCEPT

A) most people are inherently violent B) most people are just looking out for themselves C) you can't be too careful in dealing with people D) most people would take advantage of you if they got the chance

29) The _____ sees media as senders of messages—discrete bits of information—across space.

A) ice age analogy B) causal argument C) ritual perspective D) transmissional perspective

30) The _____ refers to a position stating that television does not have to have a single major impact, but influences viewers through steady limited effects.

A) cultivation differential B) ice age analogy C) causal argument D) Mean World Index

31) Which of the following is the last step of the four-step process developed by cultivation researchers to empirically demonstrate that television has an important causal effect on culture?

A) comparing the social realities of light and heavy viewers B) formulation of questions about viewers' social realities C) surveying the audience D) message system analysis

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

32) Identify and explain the four-step process used by Cultivation Theory researchers.

33)

Compare and contrast "mainstreaming" and "resonance."

34)

What is the "Mean World Index," and how is it related to Cultivation Theory?

35) Using the standard criteria for evaluating communication theories, evaluate Cultivation Theory.

36) Discuss the role of television as a storyteller in society. How does television function as a way for different groups of people to come together? Using concepts from Cultivation Theory, what is the consequence of having television serve as a nation's storyteller?

37) Discuss "reality TV" (Survivor, Fear Factor, etc.) and the extent to which cultivation theorists would analyze these shows. What features of reality television are important to study?

In your opinion, what would Gerbner say about this television programming?

38) Do you agree that audiences' increased ability to be selective through technology like TiVo and online streaming makes Cultivation Theory less applicable than it has been in the past?

Explain and justify your answer.

39) Select a particular phenomenon (other than violence) that is portrayed on television, and describe how you would use the four-step process to analyze its existence and possible cultivation effects.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 26 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) D 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) C 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) B

27) D 28) A 29) D 30) B 31) A 32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Cultural Studies theory is a theoretical perspective that focuses on how culture is influenced by powerful, dominant groups. ⊚ ⊚

2)

true false

Cultural Studies theory argues that meaning in our culture is not influenced by the media. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Cultural Studies would support the claim that the professional code of television broadcasters will always operate within the hegemony of the dominant code because professional codes reproduce hegemonic interpretations of reality. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

Cultural Studies refers to a single doctrine of human behavior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Individuals who are dominated frequently use the same resources to challenge that domination. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

Power operates at only a few levels in humanity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Graham Murdock notes that being part of a diverse cultural community often results in struggles over meaning, interpretation, identity, and control. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Stuart Hall focused on the role of the media and their ability to shape public opinions of marginalized populations, including people of color, the poor, and others who do not reflect a White, male, heterosexual (and wealthy) point of view. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

9) Cultural Studies is a theoretical perspective that

A) assumes that human behavior is deterministic B) focuses on how culture is influenced by powerful, dominant groups C) argues that media influence is very limited D) All of these answers are correct.

10) Hall argues that _____ include(s) the languages, the concepts, and the categories that different social groups collect in order to make sense of their environments.

A) hegemony B) modes of alienation C) ideologies D) encoding

11) In the debate on reproductive rights, both the pro-life camp and the pro-choice camp want to make their meaning of the product of conception (e.g., fetus or baby) the dominant meaning.

Their struggle to promote their desired meaning takes place in the courtroom, the media, and the classroom. The pro-life/pro-choice debate is a good example of

A) the theatre of struggle B) counter-hegemony C) mainstreaming D) culture wars

12)

The notion that audiences are not necessarily willing and compliant relates to _____.

A) counter-hegemony B) dominant-hegemonic decoding C) hierarchy D) alienation

13)

Scholars in Cultural Studies differ from Karl Marx in that they

A) have integrated a variety of perspectives into their thinking, including those from the arts, the humanities, and the social sciences B) have expanded the subordinate group to include additional powerless and marginalized people, not just laborers C) elaborate on Marx's notion of what constitutes everyday life D) All of these answers are correct.

14) Hall refers to the idea that various ideologies in society compete and are in temporary states of conflict as a

A) hegemonic struggle B) theatre of struggle C) class struggle D) None of the answers are correct.

15) Shortly after the United States invaded Iraq in 2003, photos and news stories were published showing Iraqis cheering in the streets, pulling down statues of Saddam Hussein, and greeting U.S. soldiers as liberators. Some anti-war groups, however, rejected these images and accused the military and mainstream news organizations of "staging" these events and reactions, even to the point of paying actors to appear in these scenes. These groups can be described as engaging in decoding the mainstream war coverage from a(n) _____.

A) dominant position B) hegemonic position C) oppositional position D) negotiated position

16) Marx believed that being powerless can lead to _____, or the psychological condition whereby people begin to feel they have little control over their future.

A) domination B) regulation C) hegemony D) alienation

17) When Murdock notes that "all groups are constantly engaged in creating and remaking meaning systems and embodying these meanings in expressive forms, social practices, and institutions," he is referring to _____.

A) the pervasiveness of culture B) hegemony C) the theater of struggle D) negotiated decoding

18) Antonio Gramsci's notion of hegemony was based on Karl Marx's idea of _____, a state in which individuals are unaware of the domination in their lives.

A) false consciousness B) dominant-hegemonic decoding C) the theater of struggle D) culture wars

19) Which of the following statements highlights an oppositional reading of beauty as presented by the media?

A) I want to look and feel like one of the models I see in television commercials.

B) I know that my friends tell me that I can never be as thin as a model, but I am going to stay on this diet because I know that I can be.

C) I can look and feel my best without looking like a model.

D) I can be like a model only if I purchase the right makeup.

20) Marxist thinkers who believed that the working class was oppressed because of corporate-owned media have been called the

A) Cultural-Critical School B) Frankfurt School theorists C) Modern-Day Marxists D) Berlin University Scholars

21) The Simpsons can be considered through the lens of Cultural Studies. From this perspective, all of the following statements are accurate descriptions EXCEPT

A) The Simpsons contains satiric counter-hegemonic messages showing that individuals who are dominated use the same symbolic resources to challenge that domination B) The Simpsons challenges dominant-hegemonic views through its reference to a wide variety of topics and the adventures of its characters C) The Simpsons provides examples of an individual "shutting down" the very dominant forces that try to shut down that individual, as is the case with Bart D) The Simpsons was created and put on the air by powerful groups who wanted to influence American culture and society and maintain their hegemonic position

22)

With which approach(es) to knowing is Cultural Studies most closely associated?

A) positivist/empirical and critical B) interpretive/hermeneutic C) critical and interpretive D) positivist/empirical

23)

Which of the following is NOT one of the positions of decoding articulated by Hall?

A) creating an individual code B) operating within a dominant code C) allowing for cultural exceptions D) substituting alternative messages

24) A _____ is a "grand story told by the dominant groups to legitimate and justify their actions and policies."

A) theatre of struggle B) master-narrative C) magnum opus D) culture war

25)

Which of the following statements is true of the beliefs of the Frankfurt School theorists?

A) The media might claim that they are delivering information for money.

B) The working class was emancipated by corporate-owned media.

C) The media could be considered an "authoritarian personality."

D) The media's messages were constructed and delivered with the single goal of socialism in mind.

26)

Which of the following is an assumption of Cultural Studies?

A) The working class was oppressed by powerful people.

B) Everyday life is centered on work and the family.

C) People are part of a hierarchical structure of power.

D) Culture is isolated from all facets of human behavior.

27) In the context of the assumption of cultural theory that people are part of a hierarchical structure of power, which of the following is true of power?

A) Power is not role-based.

B) Power does not operate at all levels in society.

C) Power is independent of meaning.

D) Power is something that subordinate groups can achieve.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

28) Define the term ideology.

29) In December 2005, it was discovered that the U.S. military had been employing journalists to write pro-U.S. stories about the war in Iraq and paying Iraqi newspaper editors to have them published in Iraqi newspapers. Analyze this phenomenon from the perspective of Cultural Studies, invoking as many concepts as you deem relevant.

30) How would you use Cultural Studies to formulate a study of how a particular dominant group uses the media to influence culture and maintain its hegemonic status? Formulate a research question, and describe your study. Be sure to specify which group and messages are the focus of your study.

31) What are the three ways in which audience members decode media messages? Provide examples of each.

32)

How has the thinking of Karl Marx influenced Cultural Studies theory?

33) Identify counter-hegemonic figures or institutions in our society. Why do you identify them as counter-hegemonic? What characteristics or principles cut across each of your examples? How might Hall respond to your examples?

34)

Using the standard criteria for theory evaluation, critique Cultural Studies.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 27 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) A 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) A 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) C

27) A 28) Answers will vary.

29) Answers will vary.

30) Answers will vary.

31) Answers will vary.

32) Answers will vary.

33) Answers will vary.

34) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Mark Orbe suggests that in the United States and several other cultures, society privileges specific characteristics and perspectives, which include African American and non-Christian. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Social hierarchy and class are factors often used to determine whose language will dominate. ⊚ ⊚

3)

Gender polarization refers to the allocation of work on the basis of sex. ⊚ ⊚

4)

true false

true false

Women sometimes engage in the process of silencing one another.

⊚ ⊚

5)

true false

Harassment refers to the process in which speech is trivialized. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) According to Cindy Reuther and Gail Fairhurst, White men's experiences dominate the world of work. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) The research on interruption patterns shows that men and women are pretty much the same with respect to interrupting others. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The stereotype that women talk more than men has been found to be true, as recent research has found that women's talk time exceeded men's in the vast majority of cases. ⊚ ⊚

9)

true false

Muted Group Theory is a social scientific theory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Muted Group Theory acknowledges that women are all alike, and there is an essential womanness that all women possess. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Elspeth Tilley (2010) found that men were not more likely than women to speak out in public when confronted with an employee who had breached ethical standards. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Heather Kissack (2010) tested some of Muted Group Theory's assumptions and found that they still hold true in the context of organizational emails. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

13) Which of the following is an assumption central to Muted Group Theory according to Cheris Kramarae?

A) Women perceive the world through men's experiences and activities.

B) Men's system of perception is dominant because of their political dominance.

C) In order to participate in society, women must transform the received male system of expression in terms of their own models of expression.

D) The free expression of women's alternative models of the world is impeded by the differences among women.

14)

Which of the following is NOT consistent with the main ideas of Muted Group Theory?

A) The dominant group is better served by the language because they had the largest part in creating it.

B) In order to be heard, the muted group must translate its own worldview and experiences into a language that can be compared to that of the dominant group.

C) The language differences of the muted group and the dominant group are discussed, and a common language to use as a reference point is negotiated between the two groups.

D) The articulations of the muted group are often broken and less clear than those of the dominant group.

15) Kosenko (2010) studied _____, concluding that they are rendered mute by a biomedical discourse that does not include their experiences.

A) female politicians B) expectant mothers C) transgender individuals D) nurses

16)

The group that holds the power in the culture is referred to as the _____.

A) muted group B) oppressed group C) majority group D) dominant group

17) Shirley Ardener discovered that women explain their mutedness as being a result of men's

A) deafness B) argumentativeness C) inquisitiveness D) resistance

18) One of the primary factors contributing to the differences in the ways that women and men experience the world, as identified by muted group theorists, is that

A) women are able to experience childbirth B) women are becoming empowered to seek management positions C) women's and men's different experiences are rooted in the division of labor D) more women are making the decision to remain at home to raise their children

19) All of the following statements describing how women experience the communication process when interacting with men are true EXCEPT

A) women must first conceptualize a thought B) women must scan their vocabulary to find words for encoding their thought into a meaning that can be interpreted by men C) men engage in storytelling in an attempt to assist women in finding words to describe their experiences D) the development of terminology such as "sexual harassment" and "date rape" has enabled women to describe experiences that previously they were unable to articulate

20) Labeling women's talk as "gossip," "chatter," "nagging," or "whining" is a type of silencing referred to as

A) ritual B) ridicule C) harassment D) polarization

21) The events that take place in a wedding ceremony are often perceived as serving the function of silencing women. This exemplifies _____.

A) ritual B) ridicule C) harassment D) polarization

22)

_____ refers to verbal threats of men and their nonverbal control of public places.

A) Ritual B) Ridicule C) Street harassment D) Public harassment

23) Which of the following is NOT one of the strategies identified by Houston and Kramarae for resisting the process of muting?

A) naming the strategies of silencing (e.g., ridicule, ritual, harassment) B) studying diaries, journals, quilts, and other artistic expressions of women C) developing a more representative language to capture women's uniquely gendered experiences D) negotiating a shared language that can be understood by dominant and subordinate groups

24) Some critics have pointed out that there are examples of women in today's society who are willing and able to speak out in public and be heard. Hillary Rodham Clinton and Sarah Palin are two examples. Which of the following criticisms against Muted Group Theory best exemplifies this scenario?

A) The theory has not been utilized much in communication research.

B) The theory has been accused of essentialism, or the belief that all women are essentially the same.

C) The theory's tenets are not supported when it is employed in communication research.

D) The theory does not challenge women to think about biases that exist in their own language system.

25) Traditionally, White men have decided what information will be included in our textbooks and have underrepresented the roles of women and minorities in shaping our history.

This demonstrates the process of silencing referred to as

A) ritual B) ridicule C) control D) harassment

26)

One of the primary benefits of Muted Group Theory is that it

A) advocates the status quo B) engages in essentialism C) has received extensive empirical support D) shines a light on what we accept and reject from speakers

27)

Non-dominant groups to which Muted Group Theory has been applied include

A) the elderly B) non-Christians C) the disabled D) All of these answers are correct.

28)

The research of Radhika Chopra showed that muting can also affect

A) children B) grandparents C) fathers D) mothers

29)

The ultimate goal of Muted Group Theory is to

A) reduce the amount of anxiety women have in their jobs B) change the system of language that serves men more than women C) limit the options that men have in perpetuating sexual stereotypes D) present women with ways to become more powerful in their jobs

30)

_____ is a biological category; _____ is a social category.

A) Gender/sex B) Muting/resistance C) Sex/gender D) Resistance/muting

31)

The communication traditions most closely associated with Muted Group Theory are

A) semiotic and critical B) critical and phenomenological C) phenomenological and rhetorical D) rhetorical and semiotic

32)

The central premise of Muted Group Theory is that

A) all speakers of the English language were equally represented in its development B) women are naturally less talkative than men C) members of marginalized groups are silenced and rendered inarticulate as speakers D) the division of labor based on sex originated during the Renaissance

33) _____ is defined as the learned behaviors that constitute femininity and masculinity in a given culture.

A) Sex B) Stalking C) Conformity D) Gender

34) Cindy Reuther and Gail Fairhurst (2000) discuss the _____ for women in organizational hierarchies and observe that patriarchal values tend to reproduce themselves in organizations to men's advantage.

A) "master narrative" B) "double agency" C) "glass ceiling" D) "power index"

35) The final assumption of Muted Group Theory speaks to the process of _____ that women must go through in order to participate in social life.

A) translation B) labeling C) marginalization D) speculation

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

36) Identify a group, other than women, in our society that has been silenced or muted.

Provide examples that illustrate the difficulties that may emerge or have emerged as a result of this silencing.

37) Houston and Kramarae offer three strategies for resisting the process of silencing.

Describe these strategies. Provide two additional strategies that you believe would be useful for resisting the silencing process.

38) Describe the four methods that result in silencing, and provide an example to illustrate each method.

39) Differentiate between the language you hear in the classroom (or on your campus) and the language used in other contexts (such as a physician's office, on a job site, or at a Thanksgiving dinner). What similarities and differences cut across the various contexts?

40) Apply Muted Group Theory to technology such as the Internet. Discuss whether or not you believe the theory has more validity when it is applied to technology. Why or why not? Use examples to defend your view.

41) Think of three examples (other than those provided in your text) of experiences unique to a marginalized group that has recently been given a name. What effects, according to Muted Group Theory, should that naming have for that group? Do you agree that in these three cases those effects have been realized?

42) Discuss what it means to refer to Muted Group Theory as a critical theory. What does it share in common with other critical theories?

Answer Key Test name: chapter 28 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) B 14) C 15) C 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) D

27) D 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) A 36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

40) Answers will vary.

41) Answers will vary.

42) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Standpoint epistemology is based on the assumption that no knowledge can be truly objective. ⊚ ⊚

2)

true false

Hegel and Marx were influential in the development of Feminist Standpoint Theory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Standpoint Theory can be used to analyze a variety of standpoints, not just those related to gender. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Feminist Standpoint Theory assumes that the dominant group often has a clearer vision of social life because of its hierarchical position. ⊚ ⊚

5)

Communication is the vehicle used to transmit and shape standpoints. ⊚ ⊚

6)

true false

Hartsock's theory has its beginnings in the writings of Aristotle and his mentor, Plato. ⊚ ⊚

8)

true false

Developing a standpoint usually requires little or no effort. ⊚ ⊚

7)

true false

true false

Social hierarchy is fixed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) The elite, and not everyday people, provide the framework for Feminist Standpoint Theory because of the belief that they possess knowledge different from that of the subordinate groups. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Feminist Standpoint Theory recognizes that knowledge is separable from politics. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) The ongoing global debate over undocumented immigrants reflects the continual struggles in society to determine which group is dominant and who has the right to speak for them and for others. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

12) Which of the following statements is true of Feminist Standpoint Theory (FST)?

A) It offers a framework for understanding women's positions relative to systems of power.

B) It is built on knowledge generated from the everyday lives of the elite.

C) It forges standpoints in opposition to the perspectives of everyday people.

D) It applies Marx's concepts about masters and slaves to issues of sex and gender and gives the exact meaning of the term "feminist."

13)

All of the following statements about Feminist Standpoint Theory are true EXCEPT

A) the theory gives authority to women's own voices B) the theory argues that individuals' assertions and statements are objective C) the theory criticizes the status quo because of the power structures it creates D) experiences, knowledge, and communication of individuals are shaped by the social groups to which they belong

14) In the context of Feminist Standpoint Theory, which of the following standpoints refers to the recognition that no one has a complete view of the social hierarchy?

A) specific B) distinctive C) partial D) unbiased

15) According to Feminist Standpoint Theory, the assignment of people to different tasks on the basis of sex is called:

A) sexual discrimination B) unequal pay for equal work C) sexual division of labor D) sexism

16)

The standpoint of _____ has served to dominate research and silence other standpoints.

A) white, middle-class males B) white, middle-class females C) white, upper-class males D) ethnic, middle-class males

17) All of the following are assumptions proposed by Chafetz as being characteristic of any feminist theory EXCEPT

A) sex or gender is a central focus for the theory B) feminist theory can be used to challenge the status quo when the status quo devalues women C) sex or gender relations are viewed as static D) sex or gender relations are viewed as problematic

18) Members of the Students for Environmental Concerns (SEC) organization submitted a request to university administrators to obtain a permit that would enable them to hold a demonstration on Parents' Weekend. The university agreed to issue the permit but designated that the demonstration can only take place between 8 a.m. and 10 a.m. and must be located on the far end of campus, away from the student center. If the SEC wants to demonstrate, it must follow the guidelines. Which of the assumptions of Feminist Standpoint Theory explains social life as experienced by SEC members?

A) Material life structures and limits understandings of social relations.

B) When there is a dominant and a subordinate group, the understanding of the dominant group will be both partial and harmful.

C) The vision of the ruling group structures the material relations in which all groups are forced to participate.

D) The potential understanding of the oppressed makes visible the inhumanity of the existing relations among groups and creates a move toward a better, more just world.

19) In her research project for her sociology class, Martha discovered that nontraditional students clearly understand the attitudes and opinions held by traditional students on campus.

The nontraditional students say that, often, it is easier simply to go along with requests for latenight study sessions and Sunday night group meetings with traditional students because there are fewer arguments. Which of the assumptions of Feminist Standpoint Theory explains social life as experienced by the nontraditional students?

A) Material life structures and limits understandings of social relations.

B) When there is a dominant and a subordinate group, the understandings of the dominant group will be both partial and harmful.

C) The vision of the ruling group structures the material relations in which all groups are forced to participate.

D) The potential understanding of the oppressed makes visible the inhumanity of the existing relations among groups and creates a move toward a better, more just world.

20) _____ refers to a location, shared by a group experiencing outsider status within the social structure, that lends a particular kind of sense making to a person's lived experience.

A) Situated knowledge B) Sexual division of labor C) Standpoint D) Feminism

21) The research participant is an active partner in the endeavor to develop new methodologies that give voice to those who have been silenced previously. Which of the following statements contained within Feminist Standpoint Theory relates to this statement?

A) We can only know women's experience by attending to women's interpretations of this experience.

B) All knowledge is a product of social activity, so no knowledge can be truly objective.

C) Material life structures and limits understanding of social relations.

D) The dominant group does not wish to scrutinize the structure because it is advantageous to maintain the status quo.

22) One of the criticisms of Feminist Standpoint Theory is that it is organized around a set of _____, which imply a hierarchical relationship between two terms.

A) dialectics B) contradictions C) dualisms D) perspectives

23)

A common criticism of Feminist Standpoint Theory is that

A) it has little heuristic value B) it is organized around a language that emphasizes equity among groups C) it doesn't explain the link between communication behavior and individual experiences D) it is rooted in essentialism

24) Which of the following statements is related to the fifth assumption about the understanding of the oppressed?

A) The vision available to an oppressed group represents struggle and an achievement.

B) A clearer vision than that possessed by the ruling class enables the subordinate group to pay careful attention to the dominant group.

C) The ruling group often structures life so as to remove choices from the subordinate group.

D) Sex or gender relations are viewed as problematic.

25)

The communication context associated with Feminist Standpoint Theory is

A) cultural B) interpersonal C) societal D) mass

26)

Which of the following is an assumption of Feminist Standpoint Theory?

A) The vision available to a ruling group represents struggle and an achievement.

B) The dominant group in a culture often develops a clearer vision of social life than the subordinate group.

C) Material life structures and limits understandings of social relations.

D) Sex or gender relations are viewed as static.

27) There are two primary tensions that Feminist Standpoint Theory tries to hold together.

One is that there is always a search for new knowledge. The second is that

A) knowledge is always changing B) knowledge is not imparted in equitable ways C) knowledge is tied to power and politics D) knowledge is always situated

28)

According to Feminist Standpoint Theory, standpoints come from

A) resisting those in power B) accepting the way that society defines one's group C) the powerful beginning to understand the plight of the powerless D) allowing others to speak for oneself

29) Feminist Standpoint Theory is grounded in a second set of assumptions about knowledge in addition to the assumptions about the nature of social life. All of the following are accurate statements of this second set of assumptions EXCEPT

A) all knowledge is a product of social activity, and thus no knowledge can be truly objective B) we can know women's experience in part by looking into men's interpretations of this experience C) it is a worthwhile endeavor to understand the distinctive features of women's experience D) cultural conditions "typically surrounding women's lives produce experiences and understandings that routinely differ from those produced by the conditions framing men's lives"

30) When it is said that those in the lowest positions in the hierarchy are best able to understand the social system as a whole in addition to their own place in it, those in the lowest positions are considered to possess the greatest

A) intuition B) understanding C) insight D) accuracy

31)

Because standpoints are defined by specific social locations, they are necessarily

A) accurate B) temporary C) partial D) situated

32) In the context of the key concepts of Standpoint Theory, _____ means something about our identity, and it may be best defined by its opposition to silence.

A) rhetoric B) equivocality C) speech act D) voice

33) According to Donna Haraway (1988), the term _____ refers to the fact that a person's know-how is grounded in context and circumstances.

A) cognitive dissonance B) situated knowledges C) communication apprehension D) bias of communication

34) Which of the following statements is true of the assumptions of Feminist Standpoint Theory?

A) The ruling group structures life in such a way as to provide choices to the subordinate group.

B) The ruling class promotes propaganda that describes the market as beneficial and virtuous.

C) Members of oppressed groups have a less complete standpoint than do members of dominant groups.

D) The standpoints of the ruling class benefit those of the subordinate group.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

35) Describe the relationship between communication and standpoints as conceptualized by Feminist Standpoint theorists.

36) Discuss the epistemological and ontological assumptions that serve as the basis for Feminist Standpoint Theory.

37) Explain the historical foundations of Feminist Standpoint Theory. What central concepts are included in these foundations?

38) Based on your understanding of Feminist Standpoint Theory, how would you apply concepts discussed in Chapter 3 to evaluate the theory?

39) Based upon your understanding of feminist theory, would you propose that feminism is linked to activism? Why or why not? Provide examples to defend your view.

40) Comment upon the following statement within the context of Feminist Standpoint Theory: Dominant groups in society have little motivation to understand nondominant groups.

What does the statement mean to you? How does it apply to Hartsock's theory? Discuss the statement using some of the key concepts of the theory.

41) How would you go about using Feminist Standpoint Theory as the basis for formulating a study? Select a marginalized group other than women and pose a research question that stems from this theory. Describe your study and its utility.

42) What does it mean to say that Feminist Standpoint Theory is a critical theory? How does this help us distinguish it from other theories? Does it share anything in common with any of the other critical theories we've discussed?

43)

What is meant by situated knowledges? Explain in detail.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 29 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) C 16) A 17) C 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) C

27) C 28) A 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) D 33) B 34) B 35) Answers will vary.

36) Answers will vary.

37) Answers will vary.

38) Answers will vary.

39) Answers will vary.

40) Answers will vary.

41) Answers will vary.

42) Answers will vary.

43) Answers will vary.

Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Co-Cultural Theory (CCT) is grounded in research framed by Media Ecology Theory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Phenomenology takes the position that researchers are best when they interfere least with what their co-researchers tell them.

⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Mark Orbe believes that Westernized cultures are rooted in hierarchical thinking and structures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) According to Co-Cultural Theory (CCT), members of underrepresented groups share an insider view of the dominant culture. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) In the context of the communication goals elaborated in Co-Cultural Theory (CCT), those whose goal is separation seek to promote group solidarity among co-cultural members. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) In the context of the communication approaches elaborated in Co-Cultural Theory (CCT), between the nonassertive and the aggressive approach is the diffident approach. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) In the context of the communication orientations that nondominant group members may adopt when in communication with dominant group members, assertive accommodation is an orientation adopted by co-cultural members when they are actively working for the rights of everyone. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) To test the reliability and validity of the goals, approaches, and communication orientations he proposed in Co-Cultural Theory (CCT), Mark Orbe teamed with Maria Knight Lapinski and developed self-report scales. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) In the context of the communication strategies that nondominant group members use when in communication with dominant group members, dissociating refers to an aggressive assimilation strategy that involves conscious attempts to excel and be a "superstar." ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) A criticism of Co-Cultural Theory (CCT) is that there is a lack of attention in the theory to nondominant group members. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11) Muted Group Theory (MGT) is a useful underpinning for Co-Cultural Theory (CCT) because MGT _____.

A) explains that in any society where power is not distributed equally, lower-power groups have to contend with tools that were not created with their needs in mind B) focuses on the fact that the articulations of the muted group are often direct and clear when compared with those of the dominant group C) begins with the premise that people understand themselves and their world based on their specific social position D) acknowledges that muted groups are better served by language because they played the largest part in creating it

12) Feminist Standpoint Theory (FST) is useful for Co-Cultural Theory (CCT) because FST _____.

A) is built on the knowledge generated from the everyday lives of the elite B) begins with the premise that people understand themselves and their world based on their specific social position C) applies Marx's concepts about masters and slaves to issues of sex and gender and gives the exact meaning of the term "feminist" D) explains that in any society where power is not distributed equally, lower-power groups have to contend with tools that were not created with their needs in mind

13) Which of the following is one of the core aspects of Feminist Standpoint Theory (FST) that make it a good foundation for Co-Cultural Theory (CCT)?

A) From the perspective of FST, power privileges members of co-cultural groups.

B) FST acknowledges that every individual has a single identity.

C) FST points out how power plays a role in the social world.

D) FST advances a noncomplementary relationship between communication behavior and standpoints.

14)

_____ is a qualitative research method focusing on people's lived experiences.

A) Ontology B) Anthropology C) Phenomenology D) Ethnography

15)

Which of the following is an assumption that guides Co-Cultural Theory (CCT)?

A) When a culture is organized in a hierarchy, certain groups are favored over others and power is awarded based on this preference.

B) Dominant group members have very little say in creating the overall structure of society.

C) Members of underrepresented groups share an insider view of the dominant culture.

D) Members of nondominant groups represent similar lived experiences.

16) According to Martin and Nakayama (2018), the assumption of Co-Cultural Theory (CCT) that the lived experiences of underrepresented groups are valuable and must be identified and embraced _____.

A) suggests that nondominant group members have a significant say in creating the overall structure of society B) reflects Mark Orbe's belief that Westernized cultures are rooted in a system of thinking that is based on equity C) underscores the ethical imperative for welcoming nondominant groups into the cultural conversation D) suggests that members of underrepresented groups share an insider view of the dominant culture

17) Co-cultural group members define _____ as attempts to eliminate cultural differences, including the loss of any distinctive characteristics in order to fit in with dominant society.

A) accommodation B) separation C) assimilation D) dissimilation

18) Aiyana is a Native American who was raised around people who follow the dominant White culture. She does not practice the culture of Indigenous people, and her habits and language are such that she blends in with the dominant culture in her community. In the context of Co-Cultural Theory (CCT), which of the following communication goals is elaborated in this scenario?

A) Accommodation B) Separation C) Dissimilation D) Assimilation

19) Mark Orbe's co-researchers defined _____ as working to change the rules of the dominant culture so that the specific experiences of co-cultural group members are honored.

A) separation B) dissimilation C) accommodation D) assimilation

20) Daniel lives in a community in which most people practice a dominant European culture.

However, he rejects the idea of blending in with the dominant culture. He urges members of his co-cultural group to promote group solidarity among themselves and seeks to maintain his own culture. In the context of Co-Cultural Theory (CCT), which of the following communication goals is elaborated in this scenario?

A) Separation B) Assimilation C) Dissimilation D) Accommodation

21) In the context of the communication approaches elaborated in Co-Cultural Theory (CCT), the _____ is defined as expressing "self-enhancing, expressive communication that takes into account the needs of both self and others."

A) aggressive approach B) nonassertive approach C) assertive approach D) argumentative approach

22) David is part of a research team in a firm. David is the shortest member of the team and usually feels intimidated by some of his teammates. He is always conscious when speaking around his teammates and makes an effort to ensure they feel comfortable around him. Which of the following communication approaches elaborated in Co-Cultural Theory (CCT) is illustrated in this scenario?

A) The aggressive approach B) The nonassertive approach C) The assertive approach D) The argumentative approach

23) In the context of the communication approaches elaborated in Co-Cultural Theory (CCT), when nondominant group members use a(n) _____, they are engaging in behaviors that are hurtfully expressive, self-promoting, and controlling.

A) aggressive approach B) nonassertive approach C) assertive approach D) argumentative approach

24) In the context of the communication strategies that nondominant group members use when in communication with dominant group members, _____ refers to an aggressive assimilation strategy in which one adopts the dress, speech, and so forth of the dominant group to hide one's association with a co-cultural group.

A) mirroring B) censoring self C) bargaining D) ridiculing self

25)

Which of the following is a criticism of Co-Cultural Theory (CCT)?

A) CCT is based on the concept of national culture, which narrows the scope of the theory considerably.

B) CCT does not score well on the criterion of heurism.

C) CCT essentializes dominant group members, presenting them all as committed to maintaining their privilege.

D) CCT gives too much attention to dominant group members while sidelining nondominant group members.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

26) Discuss the significance of Muted Group Theory and Feminist Standpoint Theory in the development of Co-Cultural Theory (CCT).

27) How were phenomenological methods used by Mark Orbe and his colleagues in the development of Co-Cultural Theory (CCT)?

28)

Elaborate on any one of the three assumptions that guide Co-Cultural Theory (CCT).

29) Discuss the three communication approaches related to Co-Cultural Theory (CCT).

Elaborate on any one of the communication approaches with an example.

30) Discuss the three communication goals related to Co-Cultural Theory (CCT). Elaborate on any one of the communication goals with an example.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 30 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) C 26) Answers will vary.

27) Answers will vary.

28) Answers will vary.

29) Answers will vary.

30) Answers will vary.