Test Bank For Industrial Organizational Psychology Understanding the Workplace 7th Edition By Paul L

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Chapter 1 - Essay 1. What is industrial/organizational (I/O) psychology? What is the main difference between industrial and organizational psychology? Provide an example of how a topic associated with industrial psychology might be related to an organizational psychology topic.

ANSWER: I/O psychology is the application of psychological principles and theories to the workplace. The main difference between industrial and organizational psychology is the topics they cover. Industrial psychology is associated with job analysis, training, selection, and performance measurement.

Organizational psychology is associated with motivation, leadership, employer–employee relations, job attitudes, and organizational development. Examples may vary, but one example might be that if we select the wrong employees, they may experience low satisfaction in the workplace.

2. The separation of industrial and organizational psychology is generally considered to be a false dichotomy. Explain why this is, and provide an example that demonstrates why I/O psychologists are trained in both areas.

ANSWER: This is considered a false dichotomy because there is no clear line that divides problems into either industrial or organizational problems. The problem in the industrial domain may be caused by attitudinal or motivational factors associated with organizational psychology. In addition, I/O psychologists are trained in both areas because they are interdependent, related areas. Examples will vary, but one example might be that an I/O psychologist, when addressing low performance in the organization, may also need to look at whether poor leadership is in place.

3. I/O psychologists are often described as being scientists/practitioners. Explain what this means and provide an example.

ANSWER: I/O psychologist are often both the generators of knowledge (scientists) and the consumers of such knowledge (practitioners). Doctoral education in I/O psychology focuses on both theory and application. They are trained to be strong researchers and also know how to apply the knowledge from research in practical settings. This is why they are often described as being scientists/practitioners. Examples will vary, but one possible example is that an I/O psychologist in an organization may use data from an intervention that has been applied to write a research article.

4. How does the scientist/practitioner model affect the training of doctoral students in I/O psychology? What are three competencies that I/O psychology students develop in doctoral programs?

ANSWER: Students must focus on both the theories and the applications of various content areas. Competencies include attitude theory, career development, consumer behavior, criterion development, ethical and legal issues, history and systems, human factors, individual assessment, individual differences, job evaluation, judgment and decision making, leadership, occupational health and safety, organizational development, organizational theory, performance appraisal, personnel recruitment, professional skills, research methods, training, and work motivation.

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Chapter 1 - Essay 5. Briefly describe the Hawthorne studies and how they are considered the birth of organizational psychology.

ANSWER: The Hawthorne studies were conducted in an electric plant, where it was discovered that employee's productivity increased because they were being observed, not due to the amount of light being manipulated. This study highlighted the importance of psychological conditions at work rather than physical conditions. Questions about motivation, leadership, and human relations arose at this time and led to further research about organizational psychology topics.

6. Briefly define four of the given areas of focus in I/O psychology: selection, training and development, organizational development, performance appraisal, or quality of work life.

ANSWER: Selection experts work on the development and administration of tests used for employee hiring.

Training and development experts develop, deliver, and evaluate training programs. Organizational development experts analyze organizational structures, cultures, and climates. Performance appraisal experts develop measures of performance and use these measures to improve performance. Quality of work life experts assess and improve job attitudes such as satisfaction and commitment.

7. Choose two of these historical hallmarks: the Great Depression, World War I, World War II, or the civil rights movement. Describe how each event impacted the field and study of I/O psychology.

ANSWER: World War I saw the development of Army Alpha and Army Beta mental ability tests, which allowed for the screening and classification of military personnel. The Great Depression led to an all-time high in unemployment, so the focus on I/O psychology was less on testing and more on the human condition. World War II led to continued selection, placement, and evaluation in the armed forces. It also led to the creation of research centers such as ARI and AFHRL. The civil rights movement led to a greater focus on the social, political, and legal climate, including the ethnic and racial differences on selection tests, fairness of those tests, and issues of discrimination in the workplace.

8. Explain how the development of I/O psychology in the United States differed from that in Europe.

ANSWER: I/O psychology in Europe had more financial and governmental support. As a result, the field developed earlier and faster compared to that in the United States. There was also more collaboration among researchers in Europe as there were centers that funded research and brought experts together.

In contrast, in the United States, research was mostly done by individuals and lone faculty members conducting their own studies.

9. The Hawthorne studies were integral to the advancement of I/O psychology. Briefly describe those studies. Explain what the researchers found as a result of their experiments and how their findings influenced I/O psychology.

ANSWER: The Hawthorne studies were intended to study the influence of physical conditions (e.g., lighting) on employee productivity. Instead, researchers discovered that employees responded positively to the researchers paying attention to them. This led to more focus on the social aspects of the workplace, such as team development, supervision, worker morale, and group processes.

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Chapter 1 - Essay 10. Identify and explain two current trends in I/O psychology.

ANSWER: COVID-19 brought attention to how global events can impact workers, and the changing nature of work. Artificial intelligence and machine learning is likely to be used more in I/O psychology and lead to questions about job replacement and ethics. Increased automation of tasks means that employees are likely to be replaced by machines and automated processes. The gig economy means that traditional jobs are being filled by contract and freelance workers, which changes the way we apply I/O principles. Meeting the diversity and equity needs of organizations includes addressing topics on race, ethnicity, age, ability, gender identity, sexual orientation, and neurodiversity. Thus, training I/O psychologists in diversity and anti-discrimination is important.

11. Make a presentation to the president of a large U.S. corporation. Discuss current business trends that may be affecting the corporation's employees and its practices. Briefly discuss in the presentation two current issues facing organizations.

ANSWER: Examples will vary, but will likely include diversity, artificial intelligence/machine learning, the changing nature of work, algorithmic selection systems, leadership development, selecting training and retaining automation, and the gig economy.

12. Consider a problem an employee may encounter on the job. Which area of I/O psychology would be MOST relevant to that particular problem?

ANSWER: Responses will vary, but one example might be if the employee has had conflict with a supervisor, the area of leadership might relate to this problem.

13. A company downsized its workforce and laid off many of its employees. Discuss two ways I/O psychologists can help employees that were let go and those currently working.

ANSWER: I/O psychologists can help laid-off workers become more competitive for jobs and can help those who are left behind after downsizing deal with their more diverse jobs and heavier workloads.

14. Explain how technology is changing the workplace, and provide an example.

ANSWER: Big data and analytics allow companies to collect large amounts of data to use in their decision making.

Technology allows for telecommuting and virtual teams. Social media is becoming a potential way to recruit and select employees, but this comes with a number of problems. Technology and automation can also potentially put people out of work, leading to downsizing. Use of artificial intelligence and machine learning changes the way we assess employees and use data. Examples may vary.

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Chapter 1 - Essay 15. Explain how the COVID-19 pandemic impacted workers, and provide an example.

ANSWER: Workers were impacted with decreases in happiness and increased depressive symptoms as the boundaries between home and work blurred. Examples will vary, but most office workers had the ability to work remotely, while others were required to work outside of their homes and deemed essential, which put their health at risk. Surveys comparing individual well-being before and after the COVID-19 pandemic showed a decrease in happiness and an increase in depressive symptoms. The workforce was divided into office or white-collar workers who went on to work virtually, essential workers who had to risk their health and step outside their home, and non-essential workers who were terminated. Employees working from home had more work–family conflict, boundary violations between work and home, and struggle between childcare and professional demands. There were also mental health concerns like increased depressive symptoms.

16. What is one example of an ethical issue an organization might face? How might I/O psychology help leaders in the organization address ethical issues?

ANSWER: Examples will vary, but one example is that an employee could harass another employee. I/O psychologists do research on why individuals may behave unethically, and they can provide information on how best to approach this problem (e.g., harassment training, firing the employee).

17. What is the gig economy, and how does this affect the workplace?

ANSWER: The gig economy is where companies depend more heavily on contract and freelance workers.

Positions in many organizations are increasingly being filled by contract workers and freelancers, rather than full-time employees. Companies may sub an essential requirement to independent contributors. In addition, the gig economy includes the notion of the "side hustle," where individuals take on extra work to earn money for various purposes, often as a supplement to income from a full-time job.

Organizations will need to accommodate these diverse employment options, and individuals need to balance between projects, side hustles, and their traditional job.

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 1. The subspecialty that involves the study of motivation, work attitudes, and the culture of companies is: a. industrial psychology. b. personnel psychology. c. performance psychology. d. organizational psychology.

ANSWER: d 2. The subspecialty that involves the study of the assessment, measurement, and selection of people in their jobs is: a. personality psychology. b. industrial psychology. c. performance psychology. d. organizational psychology.

ANSWER: b 3. Which is NOT likely to be studied by an I/O psychologist whose emphasis is on the subspecialty of industrial psychology? a. training and development b. performance appraisal and job analysis c. work attitudes and behaviors d. selection and recruitment ANSWER: c 4. Which is likely to be studied by an I/O psychologist whose emphasis is on the subspecialty of industrial psychology? a. leadership b. work attitudes c. motivation d. selection ANSWER: d 5. Which is unlikely to be studied by an I/O psychologist whose emphasis is on the subspecialty of organizational psychology? a. leadership b. work attitudes c. motivation d. selection ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 6. Which is likely to be studied by an I/O psychologist whose emphasis is on the subspecialty of organizational psychology? a. performance appraisal b. selection c. job analysis d. leadership ANSWER: d 7. Which is likely to be studied by an I/O psychologist whose emphasis is on the subspecialty of industrial psychology? a. leadership b. work attitudes c. motivation d. performance appraisal ANSWER: d 8. Which is likely to be studied by an I/O psychologist whose emphasis is on the subspecialty of industrial psychology? a. leadership b. work attitudes c. motivation d. training ANSWER: d 9. Which is likely to be studied by an I/O psychologist whose emphasis is on the subspecialty of organizational psychology? a. performance appraisal b. selection c. job analysis d. job attitudes ANSWER: d

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 10. Juro, an I/O psychologist, spends his time designing tests to help select new employees, train those new employees, and help managers conduct performance evaluations. Juro's work would fall under which subspecialty of I/O psychology? a. personality psychology b. industrial psychology c. organizational psychology d. selective psychology ANSWER: b 11. Kamal, an I/O psychologist, spends their time developing leaders, conducting surveys, gauging employee motivation and satisfaction, and ensuring their workers are safe. Kamal's work would fall under which subspecialty of I/O psychology? a. personality psychology b. industrial psychology c. organizational psychology d. counseling psychology ANSWER: c 12. The textbook notes that the division between industrial and organizational psychology is somewhat artificial. What is one reason the textbook provides for why this might be a false dichotomy? a. Nobody in the field can agree on what is meant by industrial versus organizational psychology. b. Few organizations are concerned with organizational psychology topics, so nearly all I/O psychology consultants address only industrial topics. c. When I/O psychologists earn their required licenses from the American Psychological Association (APA), they must be well-versed in both industrial and organizational topics. d. Issues faced by organizations encompass both industrial and organizational topics.

ANSWER: d 13. The textbook notes that the division between industrial and organizational psychology is somewhat artificial. What is one reason the textbook provides for why this might be a false dichotomy? a. Nobody in the field can agree on what is meant by industrial versus organizational psychology. b. Few organizations are concerned with industrial psychology topics, so nearly all I/O psychology consultants address only organizational topics. c. When I/O psychologists take their licensure exams, they must answer questions about both industrial and organizational topics. d. I/O psychologists are trained in both topics, even though they may specialize in one or the other.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 14. The association with which I/O psychologists affiliate is: a. SIOP. b. JOOP. c. MPA. d. AIOP. ANSWER: a 15. A scientist/practitioner is both a generator and a consumer of knowledge. Therefore, their training should be focused on both: a. industrial and organizational psychology. b. theory and application. c. leaders and followers. d. SIOP and APA. ANSWER: b 16. In terms of their educational training, mostly I/O psychologists have: a. received training from the APA. b. obtained a PhD. c. earned a PsyD and not a PhD. d. attended graduate school outside of the United States and Canada.

ANSWER: b 17. Gia considers herself to be both a consumer and a generator of knowledge. Gia is actively publishing research and applying her knowledge in a small consulting firm. Which model is Gia using the approach of? a. industrial/organizational b. consumer/creator c. top-down approach d. scientist/practitioner ANSWER: d 18. Which is an important area for an I/O psychologist to be competent in? a. marketing strategies b. research methods c. counseling distressed individuals d. graphic design ANSWER: b

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 19. What is the definition of a competency? a. whether an employee is willing to take a test of their skills b. whether an employee is popular among their peers c. whether an employee enjoys their job d. whether an employee has the skills, behaviors, and capabilities necessary to effectively perform their job ANSWER: d 20. What is a feature of the scientist/practitioner model? a. Practitioners must be educated by someone who is a scientist. b. Scientists must be educated by someone who is a practitioner. c. Scholars should understand both theory and application in their area. d. Effective scientists will have spent a fair amount of time working as practitioners.

ANSWER: c 21. A doctoral student in I/O psychology will complete their training by reviewing the research literature and designing a study to answer a series of research questions, which is called: a. publication. b. dissertation. c. practicum. d. competency exam.

ANSWER: b 22. A consultant develops interventions for companies when changes arise. They analyze cultural climates and employees' openness to the changes. Which area of I/O do they specialize in? a. organizational development b. selection c. training and development d. prosocial and humanitarian work ANSWER: a

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 23. Ajani is an I/O psychologist who is responsible for overseeing tests used for employee hiring. Ajani also creates guides for managers to reduce possible biases when interviewing candidates. Which area of I/O does Ajani specialize in? a. performance management b. selection c. organizational development d. quality of work life ANSWER: b 24. Mayumi volunteers with a local organization to develop training for no compensation. She is involved in: a. performance management work. b. selection work. c. prosocial and humanitarian work. d. human factors work.

ANSWER: c 25. Toward the end of the 20th century, the field of I/O psychology grew very rapidly with more work being done in which of these areas? a. quality of work life b. selection c. industrial engineering d. performance management ANSWER: b 26. The five areas that account for the largest portion of work conducted by I/O psychologists are training and development, organizational development, selection, quality of work life, and: a. compensation. b. human factors. c. performance management. d. consumer behavior.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 27. The five areas that account for the largest portion of work conducted by I/O psychologists are training and development, performance appraisal, selection, quality of work life, and: a. organizational development. b. compensation. c. human factors. d. consumer behavior.

ANSWER: a 28. I/O psychologists who are mainly concerned with the measurement and improvement of job-related attitudes are primarily engaged in the area known as: a. performance appraisal. b. quality of work life. c. consumer psychology. d. organizational development.

ANSWER: b 29. The five areas that account for the largest portion of work conducted by I/O psychologists are training and development, performance appraisal, organizational development, quality of work life, and: a. selection. b. compensation. c. human factors. d. consumer behavior.

ANSWER: a 30. The five areas that account for the largest portion of labor conducted by I/O psychologists are training and development, performance management, selection, organizational development, and: a. quality of work life. b. compensation. c. human factors. d. consumer behavior.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 31. The five areas that account for the largest portion of work conducted by I/O psychologists are organizational development, performance management, selection, quality of work life, and: a. training and development. b. compensation. c. human factors. d. consumer behavior.

ANSWER: a 32. One major area that I/O psychologists focus on in their work is quality of work life. What is the definition of what this work might involve? a. These psychologists develop assessments to help them choose qualified employees. b. These psychologists work with employees to help them deal with problems in their personal lives. c. These psychologists assess whether employees are satisfied with their jobs. d. These psychologists ensure that managers are using fair measures to assess employee performance.

ANSWER: c 33. Dinah is helping a company change their culture to be more inclusive to diverse employees. She also devises interventions to help organizations work more effectively. Dinah's work primarily involves which area of emphasis? a. organizational development b. training and development c. performance appraisal d. quality of work life ANSWER: a 34. Sean is an I/O psychologist who conducts surveys in his organization to determine what types of things might frustrate or upset employees. His goal is to find ways to help employees feel satisfied and proud of their job.

Sean's work primarily involves which area of emphasis? a. selection b. organizational development c. performance appraisal d. quality of work life ANSWER: d

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 35. Anatoly is an I/O psychologist who spends his time designing surveys that supervisors can use to evaluate their subordinates. He also compiles results from these surveys and provides suggestions to supervisors about how to deal with employees who are underperforming. Anatoly's work primarily involves which area of emphasis? a. selection b. organizational development c. performance management d. quality of work life ANSWER: c 36. Shuo, an I/O psychologist who works at a large corporation, is in charge of performance management. Which activity would Shuo be likely to engage in? a. developing an intervention to redesign the organization's structure b. training new employees on how to do their jobs c. designing an appraisal measure for managers to use on their subordinates d. assessing employee satisfaction ANSWER: c 37. On December 20, 1901, which person gave a speech on the psychological aspects of advertising that marked the beginning of I/O psychology? a. Walter Dill Scott b. Kurt Lewin c. Laura Koppes d. Richard Hackman ANSWER: a 38. According to Moore and Hartmann (1931), I/O psychology in Europe: a. did not start developing until the 1950s. b. developed earlier and faster than it did in the United States. c. suffered from a lack of financial and governmental support. d. was hampered by researchers refusing to collaborate.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 39. Who wrote the book The Theory of Advertising? a. Kurt Lewin b. Hugo Munsterberg c. Walter Dill Scott d. Lillian Gilbreth ANSWER: c 40. Which book was written by Hugo Munsterberg? a. The Theory of Advertising b. Psychology and Industrial Efficiency c. The Psychology of Management d. The DSM-IV ANSWER: b 41. During World War I, the Army Alpha and Army Beta tests differed from previous intelligence tests in that they: a. were composed of multiple-choice questions and could be administered in groups. b. were meant to be administered to one individual at a time. c. rewarded employees for higher levels of intelligence. d. were used to assess personality.

ANSWER: a 42. The Army Alpha test: a. helped the army determine which soldiers were too traumatized for active duty. b. was used to determine which soldiers had the mental toughness to be successful spies. c. was a mental ability test that helped the army select and place military personnel. d. was a physical ability test that all military personnel had to pass to be considered for combat duty.

ANSWER: c 43. During which time period did I/O psychology begin to expand beyond the academic and military realms into government and private industry? a. pre–World War I b. from World War I through the 1920s c. from World War II to the mid-1960s d. from the mid-1960s to the mid-1980s ANSWER: b

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 44. The first PhD in industrial psychology was earned in 1921 by whom? a. Bruce V. Moore b. Walter Dill Scott c. Hugo Munsterberg d. Lillian Gilbreth ANSWER: a 45. Frederick Taylor's approach to work motivation was known as: a. vocational interests. b. Army Alpha. c. scientific management. d. scientist/practitioner approach.

ANSWER: c 46. Who discovered that employees could be differentiated for various jobs based on their interests, which led to the development of the Strong Vocational Interest Blank for Men? a. Walter Dill Scott b. James Hawthorne c. Greg Oldham d. Bruce V. Moore ANSWER: d 47. Who argued that employees should be financially rewarded for doing their work as efficiently as possible? a. Edward Strong b. John Hawthorne c. Frederick Taylor d. Kurt Lewin ANSWER: c 48. Frederick Taylor's scientific management approach suggested that employees could be motivated to work effectively by means of: a. financial incentives. b. praise and recognition. c. seeing the practical importance of their work. d. a feeling of fairness.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 49. Who was often called the first lady of management and the mother of scientific management? a. Beverly von Haller Gilmer b. Elsie Bregman c. Marion Bills d. Lillian Gilbreth ANSWER: d 50. Who wrote the book The Psychology of Management? a. Walter Dill Scott b. Hugo Munsterberg c. Lillian Gilbreth d. Frederick Taylor ANSWER: c 51. Which occurred during the period between World War I and the 1920s? a. Organizational psychology became a more equal partner with industrial psychology. b. The Army Alpha and Army Beta intelligence tests were administered for the first time. c. The Hawthorne studies were conducted. d. The civil rights movement led to a greater focus on fairness and discrimination issues.

ANSWER: b 52. The birth of organizational psychology has been viewed by many as marked by: a. World War II. b. Army Alpha and Army Beta testing. c. the Hawthorne studies. d. the civil rights movement.

ANSWER: c 53. In the Hawthorne studies, researchers attempted to manipulate which of these variables to see if it affected job performance? a. light b. noise level c. room temperature d. worker experience ANSWER: a

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 54. The Hawthorne studies illustrated that which of these were more important than the physical aspects of work? a. social and psychological conditions b. financial incentives c. leaders d. competencies ANSWER: a 55. The Hawthorne studies illustrated that which of these conditions were more important than physical conditions? a. individual b. societal c. economic d. psychological ANSWER: d 56. Which occurred during the time period between the 1930s and World War II? a. The first I/O PhD was awarded to Bruce V. Moore. b. The Army Alpha and Army Beta intelligence tests were administered for the first time. c. The Hawthorne studies were conducted. d. The civil rights movement led to a greater focus on fairness and discrimination issues.

ANSWER: c 57. Which occurred during the time period between World War II and the mid-1960s? a. Organizational psychology became a more equal partner with industrial psychology. b. The Army Alpha and Army Beta intelligence tests were administered for the first time. c. Bruce V. Moore received the first PhD in I/O psychology. d. Hugo Munsterberg published The Psychology of Management.

ANSWER: a 58. One of the university-based I/O psychology training programs that emphasized organizational issues rather than industrial issues was the: a. Research Center for Group Dynamics at Massachusetts Institute of Technology. b. Human Resources Lab at Carnegie Tech. c. Human Resources Lab at Pennsylvania State University. d. Quality of Work Life Center at the University of Maryland.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 59. What is the research center developed after World War II to continue military-related I/O research? a. SIOP b. CISS c. ARI d. IAAP ANSWER: c 60. Which occurred during the time period between the 1960s and the mid-1980s? a. The first I/O PhD was awarded to Bruce V. Moore. b. The Army Alpha and Army Beta intelligence tests were administered for the first time. c. The Hawthorne studies were conducted. d. The civil rights movement led to a greater focus on fairness and discrimination issues.

ANSWER: d 61. During which time period did Division 14 of the APA change its name to the Division of Industrial and Organizational Psychology? a. pre–World War I b. World War I through the 1920s c. the mid-1960s to the mid-1980s d. the mid-1980s to the present day ANSWER: c 62. The concern with ethnic and racial differences on selection tests and the fairness of those tests resulted from the: a. need to match military recruits to jobs. b. social, political, and legal climate of the 1960s. c. "flattening" of organizations. d. emphasis on the scientist/practitioner model in I/O psychology training programs.

ANSWER: b 63. What was one impact the civil rights movement of the 1960s had on I/O psychology? a. At-will employment was deemed illegal. b. Organizations were encouraged to embrace a flatter organizational structure. c. I/O researchers began to focus more heavily on the importance of organizational development. d. There was an increased focus on racial differences in employment tests.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 64. From the mid-1980s to 2000, much I/O research has been focused on: a. the human condition. b. scientific management. c. matching military recruits to jobs. d. cognitive processes.

ANSWER: d 65. Between 1986 and 2004, I/O doctoral programs increased by 50% and master's programs increased by: a. 50%. b. 100%. c. 200%. d. 500%.

ANSWER: c 66. In a 2023 study by Cropanzo et al., positions were increasingly filled by which of these rather than full-time employees? a. contract/freelance workers b. part-time employees c. retirees d. student workers ANSWER: a 67. Jessi takes on extra work to earn money by mystery shopping in their free time. What is Jessi's mystery shopping classified as? a. machine learning b. side hustle c. subbing d. automation ANSWER: b 68. In 2018, the California Supreme Court ruled that gig workers ought to be presumed to be which of these rather than independent contractors? a. side hustlers b. gig workers c. employees d. exempt workers ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 69. What is a benefit of side hustles? a. increased flexibility b. extra income c. living in a locale they otherwise couldn't afford d. These are all benefits ANSWER: d 70. The process by which artificial intelligence uses algorithms, pattern recognition, and feedback to acquire new tasks and behaviors is known as: a. competency selection. b. gigging. c. machine learning. d. automated erudition.

ANSWER: c 71. In a study by Wanberg et al. (2016), researchers found that age was negatively correlated with the: a. quality of work. b. applications for reemployment. c. fears of being laid off. d. speed of re-employment.

ANSWER: d 72. Artificial intelligence (AI) allows I/O psychologists to have the opportunity to do which of these? a. Analyze jobs with AI. b. Select and hire employees with AI. c. Cut learning budgets by replacing learning with AI. d. All of these are opportunities for I/O psychologists.

ANSWER: d 73. The use of contract workers and freelancers to fulfill roles traditionally held by full-time employees is known as: a. the gig economy. b. right-sizing. c. work miniaturization. d. micro working.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 74. The gig economy refers to: a. the tendency for organizations to implement many short-term projects rather than a few long-term projects. b. increased use of contract and freelance workers. c. the necessity for workers to create their brand to be appealing to organizations. d. the increased interest in using cryptocurrency like Bitcoin to pay employees.

ANSWER: b 75. One emerging issue in workplace diversity is value differences among: a. people from different educational institutions. b. employees of different generations. c. parents and nonparents. d. telecommuters and traditional workers.

ANSWER: b 76. Which of these aligns with the author's description of the importance of I/O psychology in the context of layoffs? a. streamlining tasks to increase overall efficiency b. providing emotional support to laid-off workers c. implementing advanced technology to automate tasks and reduce the need for human labor d. assisting remaining employees to adapt to a heavier workload ANSWER: d 77. Companies conduct mass layoffs to be more competitive, efficient, or lean, but they often result in: a. fewer employees asked to do more with less. b. fewer employees asked to do less with more. c. more employees asked to do less with more. d. more employees asked to do more with less.

ANSWER: a 78. A recent conceptualization of leadership that focuses on followers' perceptions of leader behaviors as ethically right is known as: a. good apples. b. alpha leadership. c. moralized leadership. d. beta leadership.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 79. When Kish-Gephart et al. (2010) talk about bad apples in terms of organizational ethics, they are referring to: a. characteristics of people who make poor ethical choices. b. characteristics of situations that lead to unethical decisions. c. organizational characteristics that are defined by poor ethics. d. individuals who convince others to make poor ethical choices.

ANSWER: a 80. When Kish-Gephart et al. (2010) talk about bad cases in terms of organizational ethics, they are referring to: a. characteristics of people who make poor ethical choices. b. characteristics of situations that lead to unethical decisions. c. organizational characteristics that are defined by poor ethics. d. particularly egregious examples of ethical lapses on the part of a company.

ANSWER: b 81. When Kish-Gephart et al. (2010) talk about bad barrels, they are referring to: a. characteristics of people who make poor ethical choices. b. characteristics of situations that lead to unethical decisions. c. organizational characteristics that are defined by poor ethics. d. individuals who convince others to make poor ethical choices.

ANSWER: c 82. Another term for industrial psychology is: a. personality psychology. b. personnel psychology. c. performance psychology. d. organizational psychology.

ANSWER: b 83. One association many I/O psychologists join that focuses on the professional practice of human resource management is: a. AHRM. b. HARM. c. HRAA. d. SHRM. ANSWER: d

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 84. The skills, behaviors, and capabilities that allow employees to perform specific functions are known as: a. proficiencies. b. talents. c. competencies. d. knacks.

ANSWER: c 85. A unique piece of scholarly research that is usually the last hurdle before obtaining a PhD is known as a: a. treatise. b. dissertation. c. publication. d. novella.

ANSWER: b 86. Tinotenda administers tests to job applicants to help them choose who should be hired. Tinotenda's work primarily involves which area of emphasis? a. organizational development b. training and development c. performance appraisal d. selection ANSWER: d 87. One major area that I/O psychologists focus on in their work is performance management. What is the definition of what this work might involve? a. These psychologists counsel employees and give them advice on how to deal with problems in their work lives. b. These psychologists develop tests to help them choose effective and qualified employees. c. These psychologists assess whether employees are satisfied with their jobs. d. These psychologists ensure that managers are using fair measures to assess employee effectiveness.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 88. One major area that I/O psychologists focus on in their work is selection. What is the definition of what this work might involve? a. These psychologists counsel employees and give them advice on how to deal with problems in their work lives. b. These psychologists develop tests to help them choose effective and qualified employees. c. These psychologists assess whether employees are satisfied with their jobs. d. These psychologists ensure that managers are using fair measures to assess employee performance.

ANSWER: b 89. One major area that I/O psychologists focus on in their work is training and development. What is the definition of what this work might involve? a. These psychologists counsel employees and give them advice on how to deal with problems in their work lives. b. These psychologists develop tests to help them choose effective and qualified employees. c. These psychologists assess whether employees are satisfied with their jobs. d. These psychologists teach employees how to use new equipment.

ANSWER: d 90. Who wrote the book Psychology and Industrial Efficiency? a. Kurt Lewin b. Hugo Munsterberg c. Walter Dill Scott d. Lillian Gilbreth ANSWER: b 91. Which book was written by Walter Dill Scott? a. The Theory of Advertising b. Psychology and Industrial Efficiency c. The Psychology of Management d. The DSM-IV ANSWER: a

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 92. Bruce V. Moore's claim to fame is that he: a. is thought to have earned the first PhD in industrial psychology. b. wrote The Theory of Advertising. c. wrote Psychology and Industrial Efficiency. d. founded the APA. ANSWER: a 93. During the early development of I/O psychology, women primarily contributed through their work in industry, rather than academia. Why was this? a. Women in academia tended to focus more on teaching than on conducting research. b. Women in academia were more focused on issues that had little real-world relevance. c. Opportunities for women in academia were limited. d. Women were not interested in joining academia.

ANSWER: c 94. What is the research center developed after World War II to continue military-related I/O research? a. SIOP b. Scientific Management c. AFHRL d. IAAP ANSWER: c 95. According to a 2018 LinkedIn article, from 2008-2018, what is one of the fastest-increasing trends in I/O psychology? a. training methods b. inclusion/diversity c. globalization d. physical ability tests ANSWER: b 96. According to a 2018 LinkedIn article, from 2008-2018, what is one of the fastest-increasing trends in I/O psychology? a. training methods b. big data c. stress/occupational health d. physical ability tests ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 97. According to a 2018 LinkedIn article, from 2008-2018, what is one of the fastest-increasing trends in I/O psychology? a. training methods b. big data c. globalization d. research methods ANSWER: d 98. Which of these aligns with the author's description of the importance of I/O psychology in the context of layoffs? a. helping laid-off workers become competitive for other job opportunities b. authoring communication plans for layoffs c. creating competitive role openings d. implementing hiring restrictions ANSWER: a 99. The COVID-19 outbreak created what kind of response in the workforce? a. peaceful b. divided c. simplistic d. uniform ANSWER: b 100. Cubrich and colleagues (2022) characterized the pandemic as leading to working arrangements that were: a. stable. b. long-term. c. part-time. d. flexible.

ANSWER: c 101. Cubrich and colleagues (2022) characterized the COVID-19 pandemic as leading to working arrangements that were: a. legal. b. supportive. c. insecure. d. all of these.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 102. Cubrich and colleagues (2022) characterized the COVID-19 pandemic as leading to working arrangements that were typically: a. focused on safety. b. lacking in legal protections. c. temporary. d. supportive of health.

ANSWER: c 103. What is the topic in I/O that receives the highest media attention? a. statistics b. ethics c. training d. legislation ANSWER: b 104. Research of moral licensing theory demonstrates that when people in positions of power perceived to wield their authority responsibly, are accused of harassment, then they will receive: a. characteristics of the situation surrounding the ethical choice. b. shaming by the community. c. the benefit of the doubt. d. accusations of wrongdoing.

ANSWER: c 105. One emerging issue related to layoffs is that older individuals who are laid off: a. are more likely to receive a leadership position when they are rehired. b. opt not to rejoin the workforce and retire instead. c. take longer to find a new job than younger applicants. d. tend to have a lighter workload when they are re-employed.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 2 - Essay 1. Identify and describe the four main goals of science.

ANSWER: Description: the accurate portrayal of the phenomenon of interest. Explanation: the identification of one or more conditions that occur prior to the phenomenon. Prediction: the ability to anticipate an event prior to its actual occurrence. Control: the manipulation of antecedent conditions to affect behavior.

2. Identify the five criteria of a good theory and describe any three of the five.

ANSWER: The five criteria of a good theory are: parsimony, precision, testability, usefulness, and generativity.

Parsimonious—explaining a lot as simply as possible; precise—specific and accurate in its wording and conceptual statements so that everyone knows what its propositions and predictions are; testability—the propositions presented in the theory must be verifiable by experimentation; usefulness —practical and helpful in describing, explaining, and predicting an important phenomenon; generativity —stimulating research that attempts to support or refute its propositions. The answer may include any three of the five criteria.

3. What are the main differences between the inductive and deductive approaches to science?

ANSWER: Induction involves working from data to theory. Deduction involves starting with a theory and propositions and collecting data to test those propositions.

4. Provide an example of a deductive approach to a research question and an inductive approach to the same research question.

ANSWER: Responses will vary. A deductive approach starts with a theory and collects data to test the theory. An inductive approach starts with data and devises a theory based on those data.

5. Describe the components of the cyclical inductive–deductive model of research.

ANSWER: Theory development: where deduction starts; coming up with a theory to explain human behavior.

Data collection: where induction starts; collecting data to test hypotheses based on a theory. Theory refinement: comparing data to theory, determining if it is supported, or if the theory needs to be refined based on the data. Additional data collection: where more data are collected to test new aspects of a theory.

6. Describe two ways in which I/O psychologists can control for extraneous variables in research.

ANSWER: Holding extraneous variables constant. Manipulating different levels of extraneous variables. Using statistical control.

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Chapter 2 - Essay 7. Briefly explain both internal validity and external validity. What can be done in research to improve internal validity and external validity?

ANSWER: Internal validity is the extent to which one can draw causal inferences about variables. It is likely that the result of the experiment is due to the independent variable that is being manipulated, not due to extraneous variables. External validity is the extent to which the results of an experiment generalize to other people, settings, and times. This can be improved by using representative samples to collect additional data.

8. Provide an illustration of how a researcher might increase internal validity at the expense of external validity.

ANSWER: Studies that have high internal validity often take place in labs or under other artificial conditions, and thus lack external validity. A lab study will allow the researcher to control many elements of the experiment, but the participants might not be a representative sample of the population due to the time commitment. Responses will vary.

9. Identify and describe the steps involved in the research process. Be sure to explain what happens at each step in the process.

ANSWER: Formulate the hypothesis by determining a tentative statement about the relationship between two or more variables. Design the study by determining the participants and variables to be measured. Collect data. Analyze the data. Write up the results and report the findings.

10. How are experimental methods of research different from other research methods?

ANSWER: They use random assignment, and they manipulate variables. These techniques allow us to draw causal inferences.

11. Explain the difference between an experiment and a quasi-experiment. Which approach has higher internal validity?

Why? ANSWER: Experiments have random assignment to conditions, while quasi-experiments do not. Experiments have better internal validity because they have more control over extraneous variables.

12. What is the difference between a field experiment and a lab experiment? How do they differ in terms of internal validity and external validity?

ANSWER: Field experiments take place in an environment outside a laboratory, such as a workplace. Laboratory experiments take place within research labs. Field experiments have high external validity but low internal validity. Laboratory experiments have high internal validity but low external validity.

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Chapter 2 - Essay 13. Identify and describe two observational methods of research. For each method, discuss an advantage of its use.

ANSWER: Naturalistic observation, which allows us to see people in their natural environment. Case studies, which are examinations of a single individual, group, company, or society. This method provides detailed information. Archival research, which receive rich data that have already been collected.

Surveys, which involve selecting a sample of respondents and administering questionnaires. They are faster and cheaper to administer.

14. Describe two ways in which technology has changed the way researchers conduct surveys.

ANSWER: Researchers can use online surveys. Researchers can more easily use experience sampling methodology, in which people are randomly signaled to fill out a short survey. Researchers can obtain panels of participants through websites.

15. Describe two statistical ways researchers can assess the reliability of a scale.

ANSWER: Split-half reliability and Cronbach's coefficient alpha. The two statistical ways used are split-half reliability and Cronbach's coefficient alpha. Split-half reliability divides the scale in half and correlates the two halves. If they both highly correlate, the scale is reliable. Cronbach’s alpha assesses if all the questions in a scale are measuring the same construct (internally, there is consistency among a set of items by looking at the correlations among all the items—a measure of inter-item reliability). If all pairs correlate, the scale is reliable. A high score means that items are closely related to another and the scale is reliable.

16. Briefly describe the differences between predictive validity and concurrent validity. Then, for one of these types of validity, briefly describe how to conduct a relevant study to provide this evidence.

ANSWER: Concurrent validity assesses how well a new test measures up against an existing (and validated) test at the same time, while predictive validity looks at whether a test taken at one point can accurately predict future outcomes or behaviors. For example, if you wanted to study intelligence and determine if it had concurrent validity, you would have your participants take your new measure and an existing measure of intelligence. You could then compare the results of the two assessments to see if scores are similar. Predictive validity can be determined by testing participants and then measuring them at a later point in time. For example, if you created a measure to determine retention levels, you could see if this was correlated to employee data at a later time.

17. Briefly identify and describe three measures of central tendency and three measures of variability.

ANSWER: Measures of central tendency include mean, median, and mode. Mean is the arithmetic average of a group of scores; mode is the most frequent single score in a distribution; median is the score in the middle of the distribution. Measures of dispersion include range, variance, and standard deviation.

Range is the simplest measure of variability, reflecting the spread of scores from the lowest to the highest. Variance is a measure of variability reflecting the sum of the squared differences between each score and the mean of the group divided by the number of total scores. Standard deviation is the measure of variability that is calculated as the square root of the variance.

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Chapter 2 - Essay 18. Identify and describe two of the additional stipulations set forth by the Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct of the American Psychological Association (beyond the five general principles).

ANSWER: Research studies must be approved by the supporting institution (usually through an Institutional Review Board). Research participants are to be treated fairly and their decision to participate must be an informed one.

19. Draw a normal distribution, including the standard deviations and the percentage of observations within the standard deviation units.

ANSWER: Students should draw a curve with 34% between the mean and ±1SD, 13.5% between ±1SD and ±2SD, and 2% between ±2SD and ±3SD. 20. Assume that a .80 correlation exists between class attendance and class grades. Graph this correlation, putting class grades on the y-axis and class attendance on the x-axis. Also, compute the coefficient of determination for this relationship.

ANSWER: Students should create a graph that has data in an oval pattern that goes from the lower left-hand corner of the graph to the upper right-hand corner of the graph. They should square .80 to obtain the coefficient of determination (.64).

21. Asif wants to measure creativity, a characteristic that we expect will remain stable across time for an individual.

Asif administers the test to a group of 100 participants. Six weeks later, Asif administers the same test to the same participants, and observes that their scores between the first and second administration are correlated .20. What kind of reliability has Asif measured, and what do the results suggest?

ANSWER: Asif has measured test–retest reliability. Their results suggest their test is reliably measuring creativity, because their participants' scores are not similar across administrations.

22. Fu wants to measure curiosity. Fu administers two versions of the test to a group of 100 participants. Participant scores on the first and second version of the test are correlated .85. What kind of reliability has Fu measured, and what do the results suggest?

ANSWER: Fu has measured parallel forms reliability (i.e., equivalent forms reliability). Their results suggest that the two versions of the test are equivalent.

23. Nomiki wants to measure friendliness. She administers her test to a group of 100 participants. She calculates a Cronbach's coefficient alpha and finds that it is .30. What kind of reliability has Nomiki measured, and what do her results suggest?

ANSWER: Nomiki has calculated internal consistency. Her findings suggest it is not very good, so for some reason her items are not hanging together very well. This may indicate she is measuring several constructs instead of a single construct of interest.

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Chapter 2 - Essay 24. Dagan is interested in studying aggressive behavior in cartoons. Dagan has two research assistants watch a 30minute cartoon, and asks them to tally how many times they witness aggressive acts. Both researchers say they counted 21 acts of aggression in the cartoon. What kind of reliability has Dagan investigated, and what do the findings suggest?

ANSWER: Dagan has investigated inter-rater reliability. This suggests that his raters are marking the same things down as aggression, which means they are judging the cartoons in a similar way.

25. Evgeny is creating a new measure of friendliness. Evgeny asks participants to complete the friendliness measure, another measure of friendliness that has already been published, and a measure of an unrelated construct, diligence.

Evgeny finds that the correlation between scores on the friendliness measures is quite high (.80). Meanwhile, the correlation between the friendliness measure Evgeny created and the diligence measure is somewhat low (.30).

What kind of validities has Evgeny investigated, and what do the findings suggest?

ANSWER: Evgeny has investigated convergent validity (the correlation between the friendliness measures) and divergent validity (the correlation between her friendliness measure and the diligence measure). Her findings suggest that she has good convergent and divergent validity, because similar constructs should be more highly related than dissimilar constructs. Evgeny is also investigating concurrent validity between her friendliness measures.

26. Describe how predictive validity is used in college admissions.

ANSWER: College admissions use standardized testing (e.g., SAT, ACT, GRE) and other scores such as GPA, as these scores can predict future success in college.

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 1. Which of these is the key characteristic of science? a. It involves formal and systematic observation. b. It involves the use of laboratories. c. It is taught by professors. d. It results in technological advances.

ANSWER: a 2. Which of these is a goal of science? a. inquiry b. internal validity c. description d. anticipation ANSWER: c 3. The goals of science include description, explanation, control, and: a. expectation. b. prescription. c. confirmation. d. prediction.

ANSWER: d 4. A researcher notes that employees are more productive when they have flexible working hours at their organization. They gather knowledge and articles about this phenomenon to understand what causes it. Which goal of science are they demonstrating? a. Control b. Explanation c. Prediction d. Evaluation ANSWER: b

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 5. An I/O psychologist observes that employees are more productive when they have strong social connections at their organization. They make note of this phenomenon and detail their observations. Which goal of science are they demonstrating? a. Control b. Explanation c. Description d. Evaluation ANSWER: c 6. The goal of science that involves learning about how and why a phenomenon exists is known as: a. control. b. explanation. c. description. d. proving.

ANSWER: b 7. Which of these is a goal of science? a. confirmation b. internal validity c. control d. external validity ANSWER: c 8. The goals of science include description, explanation, prediction, and: a. proscription. b. prescription. c. prevention. d. control.

ANSWER: d 9. The goal of science that involves the manipulation of antecedent conditions to affect behavior is called: a. control. b. explanation. c. prediction. d. disconfirmation.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 10. A scientist who believes that the best way to understand behavior is to generate predictions based on theory, gather data, and use the data to test their predictions believes in: a. discoverability. b. empiricism. c. descriptivism. d. determinism.

ANSWER: b 11. A scientist who believes that behavior is orderly and systematic and does not happen by chance holds the assumption of science known as: a. discoverability. b. empiricism. c. descriptivism. d. determinism.

ANSWER: d 12. Dr. Le believes that humans behave in orderly ways, and it is possible to detect this orderliness. Dr. Le believes in an assumption of science known as: a. parsimony. b. precision. c. discoverability. d. generativity.

ANSWER: c 13. Professor Fisk has developed a theory that contains statements that are verifiable by experimentation. The professor's theory has met the criterion for a "good" theory which is known as: a. parsimony. b. precision. c. discoverability. d. testability.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 14. The scientific philosopher Karl Popper stated that science is really about: a. generating as many theories as possible to advance science. b. proving that theories are true based on experimental data. c. ruling out alternative explanations until one explanation or theory fits the data. d. creating new theories, even if no one ever tests them.

ANSWER: c 15. Olonga develops the theory that students learn better from lectures than from reading. Anouk believes that this theory is not very good because it is unclear what Olonga means by "better." Anouk believes that Olonga's theory lacks: a. precision. b. discoverability. c. parsimony. d. generativity.

ANSWER: a 16. Ting believes that if you die in a dream you will also die in real life. Bingyi points out that if people died in their sleep, we could never find out what happened in the dream. Thus, there is no way to demonstrate support for Ting's theory. Ting's theory lacks: a. precision. b. parsimony. c. testability. d. determinism.

ANSWER: c 17. Which of these is a criterion of a good theory? a. Usefulness b. Empiricism c. Entropy d. Pseudoscience ANSWER: a

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 18. This criterion of a good theory states that it should be practical and help to describe, explain, and predict an important phenomenon. Thus, a good theory must be: a. parsimonious. b. useful. c. deterministic. d. testable.

ANSWER: b 19. The approach to science that involves starting with a theory and propositions and then collecting data to test those propositions is: a. description. b. induction. c. production. d. deduction.

ANSWER: d 20. Researchers are using induction when they start with data and create a theory to explain it, and they are using which of these when they start with a theory and collect data to support or refute that theory? a. deduction b. quasi-experiment c. description d. case studies ANSWER: a 21. Professor Sandhurst collects data from employees before developing a theory of job satisfaction. This approach is known as: a. description. b. deduction. c. induction. d. manipulation.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 22. Mohsina develops a theory that suggests filling out a job application in crayon will lead to a lower probability of being hired. However, few people fill out an application in crayon, so this finding will not affect anyone in a meaningful way. Mohsina's theory lacks: a. precision. b. parsimony. c. usefulness. d. determinism.

ANSWER: c 23. Dr. Omari develops a theory that suggests that paying interviewers for each interview they conduct will improve their performance. However, no other researchers seem to be interested in this theory, and nobody has tested this theory. Dr. Omari's theory lacks: a. precision. b. parsimony. c. generativity. d. determinism.

ANSWER: c 24. Sofia has heard about a theory that suggests that when people are in a group they tend to put forth less effort than when they work alone. She decides to collect some data to see if it supports this theory. Sofia is using: a. deduction. b. manipulation. c. parsimony. d. induction.

ANSWER: a 25. Darnell works in HR. He notices in his HR data that managers who speak more than one language have more satisfied employees. He proposes the theory that language skills relate to better communication skills with subordinates. Darnell is using: a. deduction. b. manipulation. c. parsimony. d. induction.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 26. When considering whether to begin scientific research with data or with theory, it is important to know that the approach taken by most scientists is one that: a. combines both inductive and deductive processes. b. uses only the deductive process. c. uses only the inductive process. d. uses only the qualitative process.

ANSWER: a 27. What is the cyclical inductive–deductive model of research? a. It is the idea that inductive processes are superior to deductive processes. b. It is the idea that deductive processes are superior to inductive processes. c. It is the idea that testing theories is a continuous process that uses both induction and deduction. d. It is the fact that the more inductive studies we do on a topic, the less appropriate deductive methods become.

ANSWER: c 28. Professor Sanchez has data from an experiment that indicates that being treated rudely by a boss leads to employees missing work more often. With such data, the professor can draw a(n): a. causal inference. b. deductive inference. c. inductive inference. d. conclusive inference.

ANSWER: a 29. By basing examinations on a single organization, a case study can have limited: a. manipulation. b. random assignment. c. external validity. d. internal validity.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 30. Dr. Applesmith conducts a study in which he manipulates the light in a room while assessing participants' performance on a counting task. In this example, the light is the independent variable, and the performance on the counting task is the: a. independent variable. b. extraneous variable. c. dependent variable. d. control variable.

ANSWER: c 31. The variable the experiment is designed to assess is known as the: a. independent variable. b. dependent variable. c. causal variable. d. internal variable.

ANSWER: b 32. Independent variables are frequently referred to as: a. predictors. b. criteria. c. confounds. d. outcomes.

ANSWER: a 33. "Predictors," "precursors," and "antecedents" are all words we might use to describe: a. extraneous variables. b. independent variables. c. dependent variables. d. criterion variables.

ANSWER: b 34. "Criteria," "outcomes," and "consequences" are all words we might use to describe: a. extraneous variables. b. independent variables. c. dependent variables. d. predictor variables.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 35. Dependent variables are frequently referred to as: a. predictors. b. criteria. c. confounds. d. manipulations.

ANSWER: b 36. The type of variable that can contaminate the results of an experiment and may be an alternative to a causal relationship is known as a(n): a. predictor variable. b. criterion variable. c. extraneous variable. d. antecedent variable.

ANSWER: c 37. In an experiment, a researcher is investigating the effects of two types of rewards on employee motivation and employee performance. The independent variable in this experiment is: a. the type of rewards. b. employee motivation. c. employee performance. d. employee salary.

ANSWER: a 38. Dr. Keerat wants to examine how light affects two groups of participants' performances on a counting task. One group works under dim lights and one works under bright lights. They find that those in the dim-light condition perform better. However, one of their research assistants admits that they gave those in the dim-light condition extra time to complete the task. Now Dr. Keerat is not sure whether those in the dim-light condition did better because of the lighting or because of the extra time they received. The extra time on the test is an example of which variable? a. independent b. dependent c. criterion d. extraneous ANSWER: d

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 39. Dr. Xiong conducts a study examining whether people feel more motivated when music is playing versus when there is silence. At first, his findings appear to indicate that those in the music condition do better. However, he learns that his research assistant encouraged the participants in the music condition but did not encourage those in the silent condition. Now, Dr. Xiong doesn't know whether the better performance was due to the music or the encouragement. Dr. Xiong's study has rates low on: a. external validity. b. extraneous validity. c. content validity. d. internal validity.

ANSWER: d 40. Dr. Chinua is conducting a lab study. The situation is very artificial, and participants may not always behave normally. However, Dr. Chinua can very carefully control the conditions so that he can be certain that the effects that he sees on the dependent variable result from changes in the independent variable. Dr. Chinua's research is low in: a. external validity. b. internal validity. c. extraneous validity. d. both extraneous and internal validity.

ANSWER: a 41. Dr. Begley is conducting a study in a factory in which she is examining whether having employees wear uniforms affects their job satisfaction. In this study, her sample is very representative of other factory workers; however, because the employees work in an actual workplace, she cannot control other things that might affect their satisfaction. Her research is high in: a. external validity. b. internal validity. c. extraneous validity. d. both extraneous and internal validity.

ANSWER: a 42. What validity is the extent to which we can draw causal inferences about the variables in an experiment? a. External b. Extraneous c. Content d. Internal ANSWER: d

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 43. The extent to which results in an experiment generalize to other people, settings, and times is referred to as: a. internal validity. b. external validity. c. empirical validity. d. experimental control.

ANSWER: b 44. When an experiment uses college students as participants, some people may raise concerns that the results are not generalizable to employees in the real world. This represents a concern about: a. content validity. b. construct validity. c. external validity. d. internal validity.

ANSWER: c 45. One way to demonstrate the external validity of an experiment is to: a. replicate the results with different participants, in different settings, and at different times. b. rule out all extraneous variables affecting the independent variable. c. implement statistical control to minimize variability in the experiment. d. manipulate different levels of the independent variable.

ANSWER: a 46. Extraneous variables can damage which type of validity? a. external b. content c. independent d. internal ANSWER: d 47. Claudette has read a theory and writes a tentative statement between two of the variables. What research stage is Claudette engaged in? a. designing a study b. collecting data c. writing up results d. formulating a hypothesis ANSWER: d

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 48. The first step in any research project is to: a. design the study and consider validity. b. formulate testable hypotheses. c. decide how data will be collected from participants. d. use statistical analysis to make sense of the data.

ANSWER: b 49. Shoaib is conducting research to explore the differences between happiness and job performance. Shoaib designs the study, gathers participants, and then collects data from a large sample. He begins to analyze the results when he discovers there are interesting findings within the data. Shoaib formulates his study to align with the findings.

Which of these errors did Shoaib make in his research process? a. Participants were recruited after designing the study. b. Previous research has been conducted on this topic. c. The hypothesis was formulated after the study was conducted. d. The data was collected from a large sample.

ANSWER: c 50. When research participants have an equally likely chance of being associated with an experimental condition or the control condition, the experimenter has: a. manipulated the independent variable. b. demonstrated external validity. c. employed random assignment. d. set up a quasi-experiment.

ANSWER: c 51. A researcher is conducting an experiment to test the effect of feedback on job performance. The researcher can exercise control over extraneous variables, such as intelligence, by: a. using participants with the same level of intelligence. b. using participants with the same level of job performance. c. giving all participants the same type of feedback. d. randomly assigning participants to feedback conditions.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 52. Laboratory experiments are typically: a. high in internal validity and low in external validity. b. low in internal validity and high in external validity. c. generalizable to any workplace situation. d. conducted in real-world work settings.

ANSWER: a 53. A construction company is conducting an experiment. All the employees in the quality department are assigned to the training condition (experimental), and all the employees in the safety department of the same organization are assigned to the no-training condition (control); then performance is measured. What research methodology is being conducted? a. naturalistic observation b. quasi-experiment c. field experiment d. archival research ANSWER: b 54. What is the key difference between a field experiment and a quasi-experiment? a. Quasi-experiments do not include dependent variables. b. Quasi-experiments do not include independent variables. c. Quasi-experiments do not include random assignment. d. Quasi-experiments cannot be used in a real-world setting.

ANSWER: c 55. Quasi-experiments, rather than laboratory experiments, tend to have lower: a. external validity. b. extraneous validity. c. content validity. d. internal validity.

ANSWER: d 56. Studies using observational methods are also called: a. correlational designs. b. regression designs. c. archival designs. d. meta-analyses.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 57. What can you conclude from observational methods? a. Results are reliant on random assignment. b. Results indicate a true experiment. c. Results either do or do not indicate a relationship between variables of interest. d. Results indicate a partial relationship between variables of interest.

ANSWER: c 58. By basing examinations on a single organization, a case study can have limited: a. manipulation. b. random assignment. c. external validity. d. internal validity.

ANSWER: c 59. Which of these would NOT be a type of data collection one would use for an observational method of research? a. a lab experiment b. a survey c. a case study d. archival research ANSWER: a 60. A consultant enters a company meeting to observe and note the interactions and behaviors that take place by individuals. Which data collection technique is being used? a. naturalistic observation b. longitudinal data c. case study d. experience sampling methodology ANSWER: a 61. A case study is an example of a(n): a. observational method. b. field experiment. c. lab experiment. d. true experiment.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 62. Sonali, using an archival data set for their research, notices that the data were collected on March 1, 1999, from a group of army leaders. This data set is: a. longitudinal. b. cross-sectional. c. normally distributed. d. unobtrusive.

ANSWER: b 63. Meena, using an archival data set for her research, notices that the data were collected from the same group of children when they were in first, second, and third grade. This data set is: a. longitudinal. b. cross-sectional. c. normally distributed. d. unobtrusive.

ANSWER: a 64. What is a tool that involves selecting a sample of respondents and administering a questionnaire? a. an unobtrusive naturalistic observation b. an experience sampling methodology c. a survey d. an application ANSWER: c 65. What is one drawback of using self-administered mail surveys in research? a. It is difficult to administer them. b. They cannot be administered to large groups of people. c. Response rates can be low. d. There is a lack of respondent anonymity.

ANSWER: c 66. Tenoch is conducting a study about emotions at work. They use smartphone apps to signal participants at predetermined times to answer questions. Tenoch is using the data collection approach known as: a. longitudinal design. b. organizational network analysis. c. experience sampling methodology (ESM). d. unobtrusive naturalistic observation.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 67. If a practitioner gives a math question paper to the same group of participants at two points in time, and finds that the high scorers on the first attempt are also the high scorers on the second attempt by participants, the test has demonstrated: a. content validity. b. test–retest reliability. c. interrater reliability. d. internal consistency.

ANSWER: b 68. Professor Lang has created a new measure of intelligence. She administers the assessment to a number of participants. Two weeks later, she administers the same test to the same people. Professor Lang is examining: a. content validity. b. interrater reliability. c. test–retest reliability. d. parallel forms reliability.

ANSWER: c 69. Test–retest reliability is often called a: a. coefficient of equivalence. b. coefficient of stability. c. Cronbach's coefficient alpha. d. split-half reliability.

ANSWER: b 70. The two approaches of criterion-related validity are predictive validity and: a. criteria validity. b. construct validity. c. content validity. d. concurrent validity.

ANSWER: d 71. The extent to which items on a test are interrelated and seem to be measuring the same thing is referred to as: a. parallel forms reliability. b. content validity. c. divergent validity. d. internal consistency.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 72. Cronbach's coefficient alpha and Kuder-Richardson 20 are measures of: a. interrater reliability. b. parallel forms reliability. c. internal consistency. d. criterion-related validity.

ANSWER: c 73. In I/O psychology, a rule of thumb for the reliability of measures is to have reliability levels of at LEAST: a. .45. b. .50. c. .60. d. .70.

ANSWER: d 74. Chatna is a math teacher. She teaches two sections of math and wants to make sure her students don't cheat on the test. She creates two different versions of a math test and ensures that they measure the same thing and are equally difficult. Chatna has established: a. content validity. b. parallel forms reliability. c. internal consistency. d. concurrent validity.

ANSWER: b 75. Rani obtains a Cronbach's coefficient alpha of .20. Rani's measure has: a. low test–retest reliability. b. excellent test–retest reliability. c. low internal consistency. d. excellent internal consistency.

ANSWER: c 76. What is the degree to which a test or predictor covers a representative sample of the quality being assessed? a. Criterion-related validity b. Parallel-forms reliability c. Content validity d. Internal consistency ANSWER: c

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 77. Mika has created a test to measure high school students' math ability. However, they include only questions on addition and subtraction, even though most high school students also know other procedures (such as division and multiplication). Because their test does not measure everything that should be considered as part of math ability in this group, their test has low: a. predictive validity. b. concurrent validity. c. content validity. d. interrater validity.

ANSWER: c 78. Aneen wants to know which students will succeed in a gifted program, so she administers a test at the beginning of the year. At the end of the year, she finds that the test results correlate with those students' overall grades. The test has demonstrated: a. content validity. b. predictive validity. c. concurrent validity. d. divergent validity.

ANSWER: b 79. Jerome wants to determine whether a test can identify employees who will be top performers. He administers his test to his employees, and he finds that its results correlate with their current performance. Jerome has demonstrated: a. content validity. b. predictive validity. c. concurrent validity. d. divergent validity.

ANSWER: c 80. If Fatima develops a new measure of employee motivation and demonstrates that the measure is not related to measures of dissimilar constructs, then Fatima has demonstrated: a. concurrent validity. b. predictive validity. c. divergent validity. d. internal consistency.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 81. Ayumu has a new measure of charisma. They find that their measure correlates .75 with another measure of charisma and correlates .45 with a measure of kindness. Based on this information, which statement is true about their kindness measure? a. They have a convergent validity of .45. b. They have a divergent validity of .45. c. They have a content validity of .45. d. They have a predictive validity of .45.

ANSWER: b 82. Robbi has a new measure of dutifulness. She finds that her measure correlates .62 with another measure of dutifulness and correlates .35 with a measure of orderliness. Based on this information, which statement is true about her dutifulness measure? a. She has a convergent validity of .62. b. She has a divergent validity of .62. c. She has a content validity of .62. d. She has a predictive validity of .62.

ANSWER: a 83. Which of these is true of the APA ethical code for conducting research? a. Researchers cannot use any form of deception even if they debrief the participants about the deception. b. Research studies must be approved by the APA. c. Research participants' data must be held confidential. d. There are no ethical requirements for the care and use of animals in research.

ANSWER: c 84. What involves providing research participants with details about the purpose of the study, their right to decline participation, the potential risks and benefits to participants, and where to direct questions about the research? a. Informed consent b. Ethical consent c. Participant code of conduct d. Deception consent ANSWER: a

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 85. Before starting an experiment, Dr. Cortez asks a participant to read a detailed description of a study and its risks and benefits and sign a statement indicating he agrees to participate in the research. This procedure is known as: a. test validation. b. participant code of conduct. c. informed consent. d. ethical objection.

ANSWER: c 86. The most frequent single score in a distribution is called the: a. mode. b. mean. c. median. d. variance.

ANSWER: a 87. In the data set 3 5 5 6 7 8 8 9 10 10 10 15 17 20 20, what is the mode? a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 20 ANSWER: c 88. Jai wants to calculate how closely scores are grouped around a measure of central tendency. Jai subtracts scores from the mean, adds the squared differences, and divides the sum by the total number of scores. What measure is Jai calculating? a. Standard deviation b. Variance c. Mean d. Range ANSWER: b 89. In the data set 3 5 5 6 7 8 8 9 10 10 10 15 17 20 20, what is the median? a. 5 b. 9 c. 10 d. 20 ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 90. In the data set 3 5 5 6 7 8 8 9 10 10 10 15 17 20 20, what is the range? a. 8 b. 10 c. 15 d. 17 ANSWER: d 91. In a normal distribution, 99% of observations fall within: a. two standard deviations above the mean. b. three standard deviations above the mean. c. two standard deviations above and below the mean. d. three standard deviations above and below the mean.

ANSWER: d 92. What provides information about the direction and magnitude of the relationship between two or more variables? a. a median b. a correlation coefficient c. a standard deviation d. a mean ANSWER: b 93. One would expect that someone who has a high SAT score will also earn a high GPA in college. In this case, one would expect what kind of correlation between SAT scores and GPA? a. positive b. negative c. zero d. perfect negative ANSWER: a 94. Johanna's correlation coefficient indicates that the higher a GPA that someone has, the fewer classes they skip.

Johanna would expect what kind of correlation between GPA and classes skipped? a. positive b. negative c. zero d. perfect positive ANSWER: b

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 95. Which correlation indicates the strongest relationship? a. 0.0 b. –.23 c. + .53 d. –.76 ANSWER: d 96. Which correlation indicates the weakest magnitude? a. 0.0 b. –.23 c. + .53 d. –.76 ANSWER: a 97. If the correlation between variable A and variable B is .20, then the variance in variable B and variable A is what? a. .02 b. .04 c. .20 d. .40 ANSWER: b 98. When squaring a correlation coefficient (r2), the resulting value tells how much variance in the criterion is accounted for by the predictor. This statistic is also known as the coefficient of: a. explanation. b. determination. c. alpha. d. equivalence.

ANSWER: b 99. In a data set, we note a strong relationship between motivation and happiness: Individuals with low motivation also demonstrate low happiness. Which correlation would MOST likely describe this relationship? a. +.50 b. +.05 c. .00 d. –.50 ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 100. Which statistical and methodological technique is used for conducting quantitative literature reviews? a. meta-analysis b. deduction c. experience sampling methodology d. correlation coefficient ANSWER: a 101. Kailing prepares for her exam for hours and becomes knowledgeable about the material. After receiving her exam, Kailing suddenly becomes ill and completes the test. Kailing receives a 29% on the exam. Which of these impacted Kialing's test score? a. Test-retest reliability b. Measurement error c. Coefficient of equivalence d. Interrater reliability ANSWER: b 102. What provides a way to combine many literature review findings, which allows researchers to quantify the relationship between the two variables? a. a coefficient of equivalence b. a survey c. a quasi-experiment d. a meta-analysis ANSWER: d 103. Which of these is a criterion of a good theory? a. utility b. empiricism c. parsimony d. pseudoscience ANSWER: c 104. Which of these is a criterion of a good theory? a. utility b. empiricism c. pseudoscience d. generativity ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 105. Which of these is a criterion of a good theory? a. precision b. empiricism c. pseudoscience d. desirability ANSWER: a 106. Which of these is a criterion of a good theory? a. utility b. testability c. pseudoscience d. relativity ANSWER: b 107. Miras creates a complicated theory that suggests people prefer a certain soft drink based on cost, marketing, peer pressure, and socioeconomic status. His friend, Meela, suggests that maybe people prefer a soft drink because of the way it tastes. In this case, Miras's theory seems to lack: a. generativity. b. parsimony. c. testability. d. determinism.

ANSWER: b 108. Vera devises a theory that predicts what color of notepad employees will prefer. Her friend, Siv, says "Who cares? This theory doesn't really address an important problem." Siv is suggesting Vera's theory lacks: a. precision. b. parsimony. c. testability. d. usefulness.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 109. Osmund develops a theory about how to predict which stall someone is apt to use in a restroom. Unfortunately, no researchers seem interested in this theory, and as a result, nobody ever tests it. In this example, Osmund's theory lacks: a. precision. b. parsimony. c. testability. d. generativity.

ANSWER: d 110. Typically, science involves both inductive and deductive processes. This concept is known as the: a. recursive inductive–deductive model of research. b. regressive inductive–deductive model of research. c. cyclical inductive–deductive model of research. d. circumplex inductive–deductive model of research.

ANSWER: c 111. In an experiment, a researcher is investigating the effects of two types of rewards on employee motivation. The dependent variable in this experiment is: a. two types of rewards. b. employee motivation. c. employee performance. d. employee salary.

ANSWER: b 112. In an experiment, a researcher is investigating the effects of two types of meditation exercises on employee stress levels and how it affects their motivation levels. The independent variable in this experiment is: a. stress. b. employee motivation. c. type of meditation exercise. d. employee salary.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 113. Which of these is NOT an outcome of big data for I/O practitioners? a. lowered requirements of research methods b. lowered costs of data collection c. larger amount of data collected d. faster data collection time ANSWER: a 114. Examinations of a single individual, group, company, or society are known as: a. naturalistic observations. b. archival research. c. surveys. d. case studies.

ANSWER: d 115. There are three ways to use a more diverse and controlled sample for the study: holding extraneous variables constant in a study, manipulating different levels of a suspected extraneous variable purposefully, and: a. using statistical control. b. using a more diverse sample for the study. c. adding more dependent variables to the study. d. conducting the study in a field setting instead of in a lab.

ANSWER: a 116. There are three ways someone can control for adding more dependent variables to counter extraneous variables in a study: statistical control, manipulating different levels of a suspected extraneous variable purposefully, and: a. holding potential extraneous variables constant. b. using a less diverse sample for the study. c. adding more dependent variables to the study. d. conducting the study in a field setting instead of in a lab.

ANSWER: a 117. There are three ways someone can control for adding more dependent variables to counter extraneous variables in a study: holding extraneous variables constant in a study, statistical control, and: a. conducting the study in a field setting instead of in a lab. b. using a more diverse sample for the study. c. purposefully manipulating levels of potential extraneous variables. d. using a less diverse sample for the study.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 118. The last step in any research project is to: a. report the findings of the project. b. formulate testable hypotheses for the project. c. decide how data will be collected from participants. d. use statistical analysis to make sense of the data.

ANSWER: a 119. Field experiments are typically: a. high in internal validity and low in external validity. b. low in internal validity and high in external validity. c. a poor choice for conducting research. d. conducted outdoors.

ANSWER: b 120. Research comparing electronic surveys to paper-and-pencil surveys has indicated: a. there are large differences between the formats, so researchers should use electronic surveys with caution. b. most differences are minor, with the exception of gender differences. c. differences between the survey formats are small and infrequent. d. most differences are minor, with the exception of religion.

ANSWER: c 121. One would expect that someone who spends a lot of time studying will also earn a high score on their test. In this case, one would expect what kind of correlation between study time and test score? a. positive b. bilateral c. negative d. null ANSWER: a 122. One would expect that the more time Harun spends running each week, the less time it will take him to run a mile.

In this case, one would expect what kind of correlation between minutes of running per week and the time it takes to run a mile? a. positive b. negative c. oblique d. nondirectional ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 123. Which correlation indicates the weakest relationship? a. .03 b. –.17 c. .67 d. –.82 ANSWER: a 124. In a data set, we note a strong relationship between motivation and satisfaction: Individuals with high motivation also demonstrate high levels of satisfaction. Which correlation would MOST likely describe this relationship? a. +.40 b. +.07 c. .00 d. –.40 ANSWER: a 125. In a data set, we note a strong relationship between hours worked and life satisfaction: Individuals who work many hours each week also demonstrate lower life satisfaction. Which correlation would MOST likely describe this relationship? a. +.45 b. +.10 c. .00 d. –.45 ANSWER: d 126. By basing examinations on a single organization, a case study can have limited: a. manipulation. b. random assignment. c. external validity. d. internal validity.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 3 - Essay 1. Explain the relationship between elements, tasks, positions, and jobs.

ANSWER: Jobs are made of a collection of positions, positions are made of a collection of tasks, and tasks are made of a collection of elements.

2. What are the main differences among the task-oriented, worker-oriented, and hybrid approaches to job analysis?

ANSWER: Task-oriented techniques focus on describing the various tasks or activities that are performed on the job. Worker-oriented techniques examine broad human behaviors involved in work activities, or the attributes that a worker needs to do the job. Unlike task-oriented approaches, which focus on specific levels of tasks, worker-oriented job analyses focus broadly on general aspects of the job, such as the physical, interpersonal, and mental factors necessary for completion of the job and the related worker attributes.

3. Describe one way in which technology has changed the way we do job analysis.

ANSWER: The development of O*NET allows organizations to more quickly look up and use job analysis information for a job. Technology has also changed the nature of work as tasks become automated and responsibilities shift. Job analysis also must adjust to the changing nature of work and become more flexible as roles evolve.

4. Compare and contrast using a job incumbent versus a supervisor as a subject matter expert. What is one advantage and one disadvantage of using an incumbent? A supervisor?

ANSWER: Advantages of using an incumbent: intimate knowledge of the job, remembering menial tasks, knowledge of tasks that others may not see or notice. Disadvantages of using an incumbent: may be a poor performer or not know the job well, may exaggerate the importance of one's own tasks.

Advantages of using a supervisor: may know what superior performance looks like, may be able to compare across jobs, will be more honest about the job's importance. Disadvantages of using a supervisor: may not know all the details of the job, may miss menial tasks that they cannot directly observe.

5. Identify and define the three approaches to job analysis. For two of the three approaches, describe a relevant jobanalysis technique.

ANSWER: Task-oriented (Task Inventory Approach, Functional Job Analysis, DOT), worker-oriented (Job Element Method, Position Analysis Questionnaire, Common-Metric Questionnaire), and hybrid approaches (a combination of task-oriented and worker-oriented approaches, O*NET).

6. What is a subject matter expert (SME)? Describe when it is appropriate to use the SME in job analysis.

ANSWER: The SME is someone who participates in a job analysis based on their expertise. It is appropriate to use SMEs in either a task-oriented or worker-oriented job analysis, as long as the SME has expertise in that area of work.

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Chapter 3 - Essay 7. How would one conduct a job analysis using the Functional Job Analysis approach?

ANSWER: Functional job analysis is a highly structured task-oriented approach in which data are obtained about what tasks a worker does and how those tasks are performed. It is a series of task statements that are developed that are believed to be relevant for the job in question. Incumbents or SMEs rate each of these task statements on a series of dimensions: data, people, and things.

8. Identify three of six major classes of information in an O*NET entry, and provide an example of what that class might include.

ANSWER: Worker characteristics, which might include abilities, interests, values, or work styles. Worker requirements, which might include skills, knowledge, or education. Experience requirements, which might include experience, training, entry requirements, or licensing. Occupational requirements, which might include general work activities, detailed work activities, organizational context, or work context.

Occupational characteristics, which might include occupational outlook or labor market information.

Occupation-specific information, which might include tasks, tools, or technology.

9. What are the criticisms of task-oriented approaches to job analysis?

ANSWER: Task-oriented approaches are potentially too narrowly focused on the tasks for a particular job, so similarities in jobs may be missed because these statements are too specific.

10. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a worker-oriented approach to job analysis?

ANSWER: Worker-oriented job analysis tends to be broader, so that similar jobs can be compared. However, it is not as specific as task-oriented techniques and, thus, does not provide clear statements about what is to be done on the job.

11. Select one of the worker-oriented approaches to job analysis and describe that approach.

ANSWER: Job Element Method (SMEs list job elements and provide work examples of each); Position Analysis Questionnaire (a standardized instrument that workers fill out); Common-Metric Questionnaire (a computer-based measure that asks workers about the skills needed for a job).

12. Describe the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ). What are the three major criticisms of this approach?

ANSWER: The Position Analysis Questionnaire is "a standardized instrument that focuses on general work behaviors" (McCormick et al., 1972). The PAQ consists of 195 items, 187 of which describe general work behaviors, work conditions, and job characteristics. The incumbent employee or SME decides whether each item pertains to the job in question. The reading level of the PAQ is at least college level.

It is not well suited for managerial positions. The items themselves are too abstract.

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Chapter 3 - Essay 13. What have been the major recent advances in job analysis?

ANSWER: O*NET has replaced the DOT. Research on SMEs has suggested they may have certain biases.

Strategic job analysis allows analysts to consider organizational strategic context in job analysis. Tools like machine learning, artificial intelligence (AI), natural language processing, and qualitative data analysis are making job analysis faster, simpler, and more automated.

14. What is the difference between a job description and a job specification?

ANSWER: Job descriptions explain what job holders do, how they do it, and why they do it. Job specifications describe the KSAOs and "people requirements" necessary to perform the job.

15. What is the difference between a job analysis and competency modeling?

ANSWER: Competency modeling is broader in focus and tries to build a framework about the KSAOs that are relevant for an organization as a whole, while a job analysis focuses on the specific tasks, duties, and requirements for a specific role. Competency models can be applied to several roles while a job analysis cannot. Competency modeling is considered more worker oriented compared to the more task-oriented job analysis.

16. Why is job analysis considered the foundation of industrial psychology?

ANSWER: It is necessary to the success of HR functions, and an increased focus on laws makes it desirable for companies to use job analysis as a first line of defense against prosecution.

17. How does job analysis facilitate (a) criterion development and performance appraisal, (b) selection, and (c) job design and redesign?

ANSWER: (a) Job analysis provides criteria upon which employees can be evaluated; (b) the job analysis can identify what KSAOs are needed for the successful performance of the job and provide guidelines for what the organization should look for in an applicant; (c) job analyses are used to make alteration in the work process to help the company run more efficiently.

18. Describe the steps involved in conducting the point system to job evaluation.

ANSWER: Managers or SMEs use a job analysis to identify compensable factors. Each job is assigned points by a compensation committee. The points assigned to each job are summed across the factors to arrive at a total score. These points are used to assign wages and determine if a job is adequately compensated.

19. What is job evaluation, and how does it relate to wage equity?

ANSWER: Job evaluation attempts to determine the value of jobs. Knowing the value of a job prevents overpayment or underpayment, given the demands and requirements of the job.

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Chapter 3 - Essay 20. How has the idea of comparable worth evolved from the Equal Pay Act of 1963?

ANSWER: The act stipulates that men and women should be paid the same for equal work. The doctrine of comparable worth maintains that jobs of equal (or comparable) worth to the organization should be compensated equally. It suggests that job evaluation should play a larger role, and competition within the labor market should play a smaller one, in setting compensation. This is based on the belief that the market artificially sets the compensation for jobs dominated by women lower than for jobs dominated by men because of bias that views jobs dominated by women as less valuable.

21. In general, women are paid less than men for the same work. What are two possible reasons for this pay gap?

ANSWER: Women tend to receive lower starting salaries than men. The cultural norm that women are expected to shoulder most of the household and child-rearing responsibilities is one of the factors in the gender pay gap. The market artificially sets the compensation for jobs dominated by women lower than for jobs dominated by men because of bias that views jobs dominated by women as less valuable. The textbook notes there is no support for the idea that female-dominated jobs are more flexible, nor is there support for the notion that women leave the workplace once they have children.

22. Describe how a job analysis can inform learning and development (L&D) initiatives and training programs.

ANSWER: Job analysis can identify which work behaviors are critical and which can be updated, upskilled, or improved. This information can be used to develop and target training programs to help their employees increase new skills.

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 1. Turning a key to start an engine is an example of a unit of work activity known as a(n): a. position. b. task. c. element. d. job.

ANSWER: c 2. A collection of positions similar enough to one another to share a common title is referred to as a(n): a. element. b. task. c. hybrid. d. job.

ANSWER: d 3. KSAOs suggest that some characteristics required for successful job performance are knowledge, skills, and: a. attitudes. b. aptitudes. c. abilities. d. assignments.

ANSWER: c 4. Job analysis is the process of: a. developing a job. b. defining a job. c. adding a job. d. eliminating a job.

ANSWER: b 5. KSAOs constitute that some attributes required for successful job performance are knowledge, skills, abilities, and: a. opportunities. b. objectives. c. other characteristics. d. obsessions.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 6. A collection of similar positions is a(n): a. job. b. task. c. elements. d. job analysis.

ANSWER: a 7. A job is a collection of: a. positions. b. tasks. c. roles. d. elements.

ANSWER: a 8. What is the process of defining a job in terms of its component tasks or duties and the knowledge or skills required to perform them? a. a position b. a task c. a job analysis d. a job element ANSWER: c 9. A task is a collection of: a. elements. b. positions. c. jobs. d. roles.

ANSWER: a 10. What is defined as a collection of tasks someone performs? a. position b. job c. occupation d. element ANSWER: a

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 11. Priti is a social media manager. Priti clicking a mouse is an example of an element; Priti being able to write captions, edit videos, and upload content across platforms would be a form of a(n): a. task. b. element. c. job. d. role.

ANSWER: a 12. Hector is conducting a job analysis, during which Hector observes that several elements are involved when a restaurant server takes a customer's order. These include asking for the order, writing down the order, and retrieving the customer's menu. Collectively, these elements constitute a: a. position. b. job. c. task. d. domain.

ANSWER: c 13. Selena has several tasks she must complete, such as working with customers, taking inventory, and managing her team. These tasks define Selena's: a. element. b. occupation. c. position. d. career.

ANSWER: c 14. The MOST basic level of work activity is made up of the elements of work, which combine to form: a. aspects. b. tasks. c. occupations. d. roles.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 15. Conducting a job analysis with both the task-oriented and worker-oriented approaches together is known as a: a. hybrid approach. b. functional job analysis. c. job element method. d. competency model.

ANSWER: a 16. When an I/O psychologist focuses broadly on the general aspects of a person on the job—including the physical, interpersonal, and mental factors necessary to complete that job—the psychologist is using a: a. functional approach to job analysis. b. worker-oriented approach to job analysis. c. task-oriented approach to job analysis. d. hybrid approach to job analysis.

ANSWER: b 17. To conduct a job analysis for the job of a truck driver, Joshua is gathering information about the work of truck driving as well as about the truck drivers who perform the work. Which approach to job analysis is Joshua employing? a. organizational b. comparable worth c. point system d. hybrid ANSWER: d 18. To conduct a job analysis for the job of a cook, Alan is gathering information about the work that cooks do as well as about the cooks who perform the work. Which approach to job analysis is Alan employing? a. organizational b. comparable wealth c. point system d. hybrid ANSWER: d

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 19. Arynn is conducting a job analysis for the job of a veterinarian. Arynn focuses on describing the various activities (e.g., treating animals and interacting with human customers) that are performed on the job. Which of these describes Arynn's approach to job analysis? a. position-oriented b. task-oriented c. worker-oriented d. hybrid ANSWER: b 20. Jayson is conducting a job analysis for the job of kindergarten teacher. Jayson focuses on describing the various employee characteristics (e.g., playful, patient, observant) that are necessary for the completion of the job. Which of these describes Jayson's approach to job analysis? a. personality-oriented b. task-oriented c. element-oriented d. worker-oriented ANSWER: d 21. Zuri is conducting a job analysis for the job of pizza delivery driver. Zuri focuses on describing the various activities (e.g., driving a car to a delivery address, giving customers correct change) that are performed on the job. Which of these describes Zuri's approach to job analysis? a. task-oriented approach b. competency-oriented approach c. worker-oriented approach d. hybrid approach ANSWER: a 22. In one job analysis approach, experts generate task statements that are then given to incumbents of that job, who check off which tasks they do on the job. This technique is known as the: a. Task Inventory Approach. b. Task Checklist Approach. c. Job Element Method. d. Common-Metric Questionnaire.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 23. Individuals who participate in a job analysis as a result of their expertise are known as: a. PAQs. b. FJAs. c. SMEs. d. KSAOs. ANSWER: c 24. In the Task Inventory Approach to job analysis, task statements may be generated by: a. the candidates who apply for the job of interest. b. the CEO of another company. c. students of I/O psychology. d. anyone with knowledge of the job, including supervisors, incumbents, and I/O psychologists.

ANSWER: d 25. Karl is interested in conducting a job analysis that will provide very specific information about what duties a particular job will involve. Karl should use: a. task-oriented techniques. b. worker-oriented techniques. c. a common-metric method. d. the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ).

ANSWER: a 26. In the 1930s, the U.S. Department of Labor developed the DOT, which was a resource that listed job tasks and duties attached to a job; this has since been replaced by the: a. PAQ. b. DOT 2.0. c. O*NET. d. CIT. ANSWER: c 27. Task Inventory Approach and Functional Job Analysis are examples of: a. task-oriented techniques. b. worker-oriented techniques. c. KSAOs. d. job elements.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 28. Kairi is planning to conduct a job analysis of bus drivers and decides to survey incumbents to gather information about the job. This means Kairi will be surveying: a. customers who ride the buses. b. current bus drivers. c. the supervisors of current bus drivers. d. I/O psychologists who possess expertise in bus driving.

ANSWER: b 29. In a Functional Job Analysis, tasks are rated on three factors: a. inputs, outputs, and processes. b. tangibles, intangibles, and other. c. knowledge, skills, and abilities. d. people, data, and things.

ANSWER: d 30. In a Functional Job Analysis, tasks are rated on three factors: people, data, and: a. activities. b. things. c. objectives. d. items.

ANSWER: b 31. In a Functional Job Analysis, the category "people" is defined as the extent to which the: a. job requires employees to use interpersonal resources. b. job requires employees to synthesize complex data. c. employee uses physical strength, speed, and coordination on the job. d. company requires the employees to manage information.

ANSWER: a 32. In a Functional Job Analysis, the category "data" is defined as the extent to which the job requires employees to: a. be able to physically perform certain tasks. b. get along with others. c. use cognitive resources in handling information, ideas, and facts. d. be able to type quickly.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 33. In conducting a Functional Job Analysis for the position of a personal trainer, the task "encourages the client to meet their training goals" is linked to a requirement for the use of courtesy and understanding. Both of these are related to the: a. data dimension. b. people dimension. c. inputs dimension. d. outputs dimension.

ANSWER: b 34. In conducting a Functional Job Analysis for the position of a police officer, the task "places suspect in handcuffs" is linked to a requirement for the use of physical resources such as strength, speed, and coordination. All of these are related to the: a. data dimension. b. people dimension. c. things dimension. d. inputs dimension.

ANSWER: c 35. What was developed by the U.S. Department of Labor using the Functional Job Analysis method? a. the Common-Metric Questionnaire b. the Cross-Occupation Network c. the Dictionary of Occupational Titles d. the Job Element Method ANSWER: c 36. In a Functional Job Analysis, tasks are rated on three factors: people, things, and: a. objectives. b. descriptors. c. positions. d. data.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 37. In a Functional Job Analysis, tasks are rated on three factors: things, data, and: a. activities. b. items. c. people. d. positions.

ANSWER: c 38. In a Functional Job Analysis, the category "things" is defined as: a. physical resources, such as strength. b. objects required for the work, such as a computer. c. things someone needs to do on the job, such as make an omelet. d. information someone needs to obtain on the job, such as dollars earned.

ANSWER: a 39. In conducting a Functional Job Analysis for the position of librarian, the task "find magazine articles" is linked to a requirement for the use of cognitive resources in handling information. Both of these are related to the: a. data dimension. b. people dimension. c. things dimension. d. inputs dimension.

ANSWER: a 40. In conducting a Functional Job Analysis for the position of sales clerk, the task "greets customers" is linked to a requirement for the use of interpersonal resources such as courtesy. Both of these are related to the: a. data dimension. b. people dimension. c. things dimension. d. inputs dimension.

ANSWER: b 41. Functional Job Analysis (FJA) is an example of a task-oriented approach, while the Job Element Method (JEM) is an example of a: a. task inventory approach. b. job characteristics model approach. c. hybrid approach. d. worker-oriented approach.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 42. In an O*NET entry, whether someone will need licensure for the job is found in the: a. worker characteristics class. b. worker requirements class. c. experience requirements class. d. occupational characteristics class.

ANSWER: c 43. In the O*NET entry, the "worker characteristics" class might include information on: a. what worker experience and licensing are required for the job. b. what tools and technology are required by the job. c. the labor market and occupational outlook. d. abilities, work values, and work styles needed for the job.

ANSWER: d 44. In an O*NET entry, the "occupational requirements" class provides information about the: a. labor market and job outlook. b. tools and technology that are necessary for a job. c. general work activities and work context related to a job. d. required abilities and interests required by the job.

ANSWER: c 45. In an effort to make job analysis easier, researchers have put job descriptions on the Internet. The name of this database of occupational information is known as the: a. PAQ. b. O*NET. c. CMQ. d. JEM-NET. ANSWER: b 46. Which information is provided by the O*NET? a. worker characteristics b. minimum wage law information c. job safety information d. satisfaction indices ANSWER: a

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 47. Which of these is a class of information in the O*NET Content Model? a. leader characteristics b. retirement requirements c. occupational requirements d. typical worker satisfaction with the job ANSWER: c 48. Which information is provided by the O*NET? a. interview guides b. job training videos c. skills assessments d. incumbent guidance ANSWER: b 49. Which of these is a criticism of the task-oriented approach to job analysis? a. The approach is too narrowly focused on the tasks for a particular job. b. The approach identifies too many similarities among jobs. c. The approach relies too heavily on incumbents' knowledge, skills, and abilities. d. Incumbents write inaccurate task statements.

ANSWER: a 50. Brian is interested in conducting a job analysis to compare different jobs with respect to their reliance on incumbents' talents and abilities. Brian should: a. use task-oriented techniques. b. use worker-oriented techniques. c. use occupational requirement techniques. d. conduct a Functional Job Analysis.

ANSWER: b 51. Bian is conducting a job analysis for the job of executive assistant. Bian focuses on describing the various employee characteristics (e.g., patient, intelligent, organized) that are necessary for the completion of the job.

Which of these describes Bian's approach to job analysis? a. task-oriented approach b. functional job analysis c. worker-oriented approach d. hybrid approach ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 52. The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is an example of a(n): a. task-oriented approach. b. FJA approach. c. worker-oriented approach. d. hybrid approach.

ANSWER: c 53. What is one critique of the task-oriented approach to job analysis? a. Research has indicated that O*NET is not as useful or as accurate as originally thought. b. Focusing on tasks prevents us from identifying abstract similarities across jobs. c. O*NET is quickly becoming outdated and needs to be replaced by DOT. d. Task-oriented approaches focus too heavily on the characteristics of a person and prevent us from understanding what needs to be done in a specific job.

ANSWER: b 54. The job analysis method that consists of the dimensions of information input, mental processes, work output, relationships with other persons, job context, and other job characteristics is the: a. Common-Metric Questionnaire. b. Job Element Method. c. Task Inventory Approach. d. Position Analysis Questionnaire.

ANSWER: d 55. Of these job analysis techniques, which one is aimed directly at connecting job analysis to the selection context by identifying the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) necessary for successful performance? a. the Position Analysis Questionnaire b. the Common-Metric Questionnaire c. the Job Element Method d. the Task Inventory Approach ANSWER: c

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 56. One of the major criticisms of the Position Analysis Questionnaire is that: a. the time required to complete it is very long. b. its reading level rules out less educated incumbents. c. it ignores the specific job tasks. d. it is geared only toward managerial jobs.

ANSWER: b 57. Pedro thinks of himself as a smart, creative person who is very adaptable. Pedro is an incumbent SME for a job analysis and his highest ratings of important characteristics for the role include creative thinking, intelligence, and flexibility. Why might Pedro's ratings of these characteristics be higher than those of other raters? a. interrater agreement b. job crafting c. upskilling d. self-serving bias ANSWER: d 58. The focus of the Common-Metric Questionnaire is on: a. describing jobs at a level of difficulty that allows the descriptions to be compared across jobs. b. describing jobs in a highly specific manner to uncover only critical similarities. c. describing as many types of knowledge, skills, and abilities required for the job as possible. d. using a different rating scale for every job.

ANSWER: a 59. One of the major criticisms of the Position Analysis Questionnaire is that: a. the time required to complete it is very long. b. its reading level rules out more educated incumbents. c. it ignores the specific job tasks. d. it is not well suited for managerial jobs.

ANSWER: d 60. One of the major criticisms of the Position Analysis Questionnaire is that: a. the time required to complete it is very long. b. its reading level rules out more educated incumbents. c. the items are too abstract. d. it is geared toward only managerial jobs.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 61. What is a belief about the Common-Metric Questionnaire rating scale? a. The rating scale should be administered with pen and paper. b. The rating scale should avoid the importance of the skill. c. The rating scale must have the same meaning across all jobs. d. The rating scale must have different meanings across all jobs.

ANSWER: c 62. Joel is comparing the benefits of using the Position Analysis Questionnaire and the Common-Metric Questionnaire for his job analysis. Which of these is a benefit of using the Common-Metric Questionnaire? a. Its items are less behaviorally specific than those on the Position Analysis Questionnaire. b. It is a hybrid job analysis approach. c. Its items have a lower reading level than the Position Analysis Questionnaire. d. It takes an hour to administer.

ANSWER: c 63. Erin is addressing job incumbents. Erin will administer an instrument that consists of thousands of items and is organized along 80 dimensions. Which worker-oriented technique is Erin using? a. Position Analysis Questionnaire b. Job Element Method c. Work Design Questionnaire d. Common-Metric Questionnaire ANSWER: d 64. Which method of job analysis is administered on the computer? a. Job Element Method b. Task Inventory Approach c. Common-Metric Questionnaire d. Functional Job Analysis ANSWER: c 65. When considering gender pay gaps, job analysis plays an important role in ensuring: a. negotiation. b. flexibility. c. fair compensation. d. competitive health benefits ANSWER: c

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 66. What is one phenomenon that can affect subject matter expert (SME) job analysis ratings when the SME is an incumbent? a. the self-serving bias b. the similar-to-me effect c. the actor-observer effect d. the defensive pessimism bias ANSWER: a 67. Which of these is a recent advancement toward understanding subject matter expert (SME) ratings? a. SME incumbents endorse ability statements as important even when the abilities are not essential. b. SME incumbents intentionally plan to create inaccurate job analysis data. c. SME incumbents do not engage in self-serving behavior when identifying traits important to their job. d. One's attitude toward one's job does not affect job analysis ratings.

ANSWER: a 68. What is a potential problem with using subject matter expert (SME) ratings for job analysis? a. Because SMEs allow their own jobs and attitudes to influence their ratings, their ratings may not be as accurate. b. Because SMEs lack creativity and flexibility in their jobs that limits discretion, their ratings will be misleading. c. Because SMEs typically dislike providing these ratings, it is difficult to get enough data to have a good understanding of a job. d. Because SMEs tend to be men, they often overlook interpersonal factors related to the job.

ANSWER: a 69. What is one reason why subject matter expert (SME) ratings on job analyses tend to have low reliability? a. SMEs tend to base their ratings on their formal job description. b. Job crafting has led to more flexibility in jobs, so jobs that are supposed to be the same look quite different. c. Job crafting has led to less flexibility in jobs, so SMEs are influenced by their attitudes. d. SMEs prevent their attitudes from influencing the ratings of their current job.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 70. A strategic job analysis is unique because it: a. uses many different steps from a traditional job analysis. b. uses only incumbent ratings. c. asks about the potential future of the role. d. asks about information from similar roles.

ANSWER: c 71. The outcome of job analysis that presents the task requirements of a job is the: a. job evaluation. b. job description. c. job specifications. d. element statement.

ANSWER: b 72. Job descriptions relate to task aspects of the job. Which of these relates to KSAOs that are necessary for the job? a. job evaluations b. incumbents c. SMEs d. job specifications ANSWER: d 73. Fatima writes a list of statements that describe what gardeners do, and how they do it, and why they do it.

Fatima's list includes "designs landscaping", "uses garden tools", and "plants trees". In this case, Fatima is creating a job: a. specification. b. competency. c. description. d. evaluation.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 74. Which of these delineate the KSAOs deemed necessary to perform the job and describe the people requirements? a. job specifications b. job descriptions c. job evaluations d. job tasks ANSWER: a 75. The people requirements described by a job analysis are known as job: a. descriptions. b. evaluations. c. specifications. d. crafting.

ANSWER: c 76. Astrid writes a list of statements that describe the KSAOs necessary to perform the job of a chef, such as "understands how to follow a recipe" and "communicates effectively with wait staff." In this case, Astrid is creating a job: a. specification. b. task inventory. c. description. d. evaluation.

ANSWER: a 77. Which of these is a main difference between job analysis and competency modeling? a. Competency modeling is more task-oriented, while job analysis is more worker-oriented. b. Competency modeling is much broader in focus than job analysis. c. Job analysis is less methodologically rigorous than competency modeling. d. Job analysis addresses organizational strategy, whereas competency modeling does not.

ANSWER: b 78. One reason that job analysis is important to organizations is that: a. it can be used in the legal defense of employment practices. b. it eliminates the need for an HR department. c. employee attitudes improve with participation in job analysis. d. supervisors would not understand incumbents' jobs without it.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 79. When Javier conducts a job analysis, he uses the information gained to redesign the evaluations supervisors complete for people in that position. In this case, the job analysis will be helpful for: a. job classification. b. job redesign. c. performance appraisal. d. selection.

ANSWER: c 80. When Huan conducts a job analysis, Huan uses the information gained to categorize jobs into job families so that Huan can offer the same benefit package to employees within each job family. In this case, the job analysis will be helpful for: a. job classification. b. job redesign. c. performance appraisal. d. placement.

ANSWER: a 81. What involves categorizing jobs into job families? a. job specification b. job description c. job classification d. job placement ANSWER: c 82. Job classification involves categorizing jobs into: a. job families. b. groups. c. classes. d. clusters.

ANSWER: a 83. Objectives and criteria used to rate employees should be based on: a. results from their selection assessments. b. recommendations provided by a supervisor. c. results of a job analysis. d. benchmarks provided by executive management.

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 84. Why is it important for a job analysis to be accurate? a. If a job analysis misses an important KSAO, an organization may hire employees who will be unable to perform the job successfully. b. If a job analysis is inaccurate, supervisors will likely be unfair in their performance evaluations. c. If a job analysis is too worker-oriented, it will be too specific to apply to more than one job. d. If a job analysis is too task-oriented, it will be too vague to provide any helpful information about what person to hire.

ANSWER: a 85. The area of industrial psychology for which job analysis is MOST important is: a. training. b. performance appraisal. c. selection and placement. d. job redesign.

ANSWER: c 86. When Renata conducts a job analysis, she realizes that the employees are spending far too much time on one component of their job because of outdated equipment. In this case, the job analysis will be helpful for: a. training. b. job redesign. c. job evaluation. d. competency modeling.

ANSWER: b 87. Teshi learns that one position in their company is affected by changes in technology: Each time a new machine is designed, Teshi's employees will need additional training to do their jobs. In this case, we might indicate that these jobs are: a. biased. b. static. c. dynamic. d. academic.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 88. What is a technique based on job analysis that determines the worth of particular jobs to organizations? a. job specification b. job description c. job evaluation d. job logging ANSWER: c 89. Plotting point scores against current wages in a job evaluation can help identify: a. which job specifications are inaccurate. b. which job openings will be difficult to fill. c. whether individuals are overcompensated or undercompensated. d. whether a job analysis is necessary.

ANSWER: c 90. Which is NOT a compensable factor? a. effort b. skill c. working conditions d. work design ANSWER: d 91. Which of these is a compensable factor? a. gender b. responsibility c. age d. conscientiousness ANSWER: b 92. According to the point-system approach: a. an individual who works in dangerous conditions should receive more compensation. b. men should receive more points than women. c. parents should have more flexible deadlines than nonparents. d. employees should receive point rewards for doing good work.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 93. Which of these is a step in conducting a point-system job evaluation? a. SMEs use a job analysis to identify compensable factors. b. Supervisors use subjective ratings of employee performance to assign wages. c. Jobs are given equal point values regardless of compensable factors. d. Employees who have low or negative point values are laid off.

ANSWER: a 94. In the event that a job evaluation identifies someone who is being overcompensated, the organization might consider: a. eliminating that person's benefits. b. instituting a wage freeze for that position. c. moving that person into a different job family. d. providing that person with a wage increase.

ANSWER: b 95. In the event that a job evaluation identifies someone who is being undercompensated, the organization might consider: a. firing that person. b. eliminating that person's benefits. c. asking that person to serve as the SME in a job analysis. d. providing that person with a wage increase.

ANSWER: d 96. What might be one reason that an organization might choose to pay someone more than is suggested by a job evaluation? a. if there is a threat of a lawsuit b. when few people are willing to take certain lower-level jobs c. when workers have a family and will need the additional income d. when it is easy to find someone to take that position ANSWER: b 97. In which example might an organization decide to pay someone less than is suggested by a job evaluation? a. The position has a large applicant pool. b. The position tends to be male-dominated. c. The position requires someone to spend time in dangerous conditions. d. Other companies pay individuals in that position well.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 98. As of 2023, women in the United States earn about what percentage of what men earn? a. 28% b. 50% c. 84% d. 120% ANSWER: c 99. Data suggest that female-dominated fields: a. are more focused on interpersonal relations. b. have lower rates of pay. c. have high levels of harassment. d. are less focused on advanced education.

ANSWER: b 100. Proponents of comparable worth suggest that women are paid less than men because: a. women are less likely to have graduate degrees. b. women are more likely to need to take time off to raise children. c. the market is biased and artificially sets compensation for female-dominated jobs lower than maledominated jobs. d. men are more likely to be interested in leadership positions.

ANSWER: c 101. For a chef, simple behaviors like frying an egg or boiling pasta are examples of the smallest unit of work activity, known as a(n): a. position. b. task. c. job. d. element.

ANSWER: d 102. Lifting a box is an example of a unit of work activity known as a(n): a. element. b. task. c. job. d. position.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 103. Driving a truck, which requires elements such as knowing how to shift gears and use the brakes, is an example of a unit of work activity known as a(n): a. position. b. task. c. job. d. action.

ANSWER: b 104. Cooking a meal, which includes elements such as knowing how to chop vegetables and fry an egg, is an example of a unit of work activity known as a(n): a. position. b. object. c. job. d. task.

ANSWER: d 105. Packing boxes into a truck, which includes elements such as lifting boxes and rearranging them to make space, is an example of a unit of work activity known as a(n): a. task. b. component. c. job. d. aspect.

ANSWER: a 106. An individual's place in an organization (i.e., truck driver) defined by the activities performed to achieve a specific objective is an example of a unit of work activity known as a(n): a. position. b. task. c. component. d. element.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 107. An individual's place in an organization (i.e., package handler) defined by the activities performed to achieve a specific objective is an example of a unit of work activity known as a(n): a. aspect. b. task. c. position. d. element.

ANSWER: c 108. The specific title "short-order morning cook" is an example of a(n): a. position. b. job. c. task. d. element.

ANSWER: b 109. Beyond knowledge, abilities, and other characteristics, what does the KSAOs state is needed for a job? a. skills b. status c. systems d. situations ANSWER: a 110. Beyond knowledge, abilities, and skills, what does the KSAOs state is needed for a job? a. status b. tasks c. other characteristics d. outside influence ANSWER: c 111. For the job of a chef, cooking an omelet, plating up food, and creating new menu items would be examples of: a. roles. b. elements. c. jobs. d. tasks.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 112. Faruk has a number of tasks he must complete, such as packing boxes into a truck, driving the truck, and delivering packages. These tasks define Faruk's: a. element. b. competency. c. career. d. position.

ANSWER: d 113. We would expect to find items such as "removing litter," "using shovels," and "trimming trees" in what type of job analysis? a. personality-oriented b. task-oriented c. competency-oriented d. worker-oriented ANSWER: b 114. We would expect to find items such as "actively finds ways to help people," "pays attention to nonverbal cues," and "knows about famous landmarks in major cities" in what type of job analysis? a. function-oriented b. task-oriented c. element-oriented d. worker-oriented ANSWER: d 115. In job analysis, we often need to use SMEs. What is a SME? a. a paper-and-pencil measure of job tasks b. an online dictionary of jobs c. someone who has expertise in a particular job d. a method of categorizing jobs into data, people, and things ANSWER: c

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 116. Tools like machine learning, artificial intelligence (AI), natural language processing, and qualitative data analysis are making job analysis increasingly: a. obsolete. b. automated. c. lengthy. d. complicated.

ANSWER: b 117. Carlota is interested in conducting a job analysis that will provide general information about what type of person would do well in a certain job. Carlota should use: a. task-oriented techniques. b. worker-oriented techniques. c. a Functional Job Analysis (FJA). d. an activity inventory approach.

ANSWER: b 118. An HR manager is conducting a job evaluation and finds that the perfect wage equity for a job that has 200 job evaluation points is $22 per hour. Iskander has a job that has 200 job evaluation points and is paid $23 per hour.

In this case, Iskander is: a. overpaid. b. underpaid. c. fairly paid. d. equivalently paid.

ANSWER: a 119. An HR manager is conducting a job evaluation and finds that the perfect wage equity for a job that has 100 job evaluation points is $17 per hour. Yuko has a job that has 200 job evaluation points and is paid $16 per hour. In this case, Yuko is: a. overpaid. b. underpaid. c. fairly paid. d. equivalently paid.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 120. What might be one reason someone would ignore the results of a job evaluation and overpay for a certain position? a. There are too many people interested in a certain position. b. Nobody is willing to take the job. c. The job has changed and now it requires less training. d. The job has changed and now it is less dangerous.

ANSWER: b 121. What might be one reason someone would ignore the results of a job evaluation and underpay a certain position? a. There are many people interested in a certain position. b. Nobody is willing to take the job. c. The job has changed and now it requires more training. d. The job has changed and now it is more dangerous.

ANSWER: a 122. Traditional job analyses assume that jobs: a. are novel. b. remain stable. c. tend to change. d. evolve rapidly.

ANSWER: b 123. Remote work can cause variance in traditional job analysis due to changes in the: a. setting of how work gets done. b. responsibilities of work that needs to be done. c. scope of the work. d. value of the work.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 4 - Essay 1. Briefly identify and describe three of Bernardin and Beatty's (1984) Criteria for the Criteria, as discussed in the textbook.

ANSWER: Relevance (does it capture the main elements of the job and capture job performance well), reliability (is it stable or consistent), sensitivity (can it discriminate between ineffective and effective employees), practicality (can the criteria be easily used by those in the job), and fairness (do employees perceive this criterion as fair).

2. Draw a diagram that depicts the relationship between the ultimate criterion, the actual criterion, and relevance when the percent of variance in the ultimate criterion that can be accounted for when the actual criterion is .70.

ANSWER: Students should draw a Venn diagram of two circles with some overlap in the middle. The overlap constitutes criterion relevance (.70). If students include criterion deficiency, this would fall under ultimate criterion circle in the diagram. If included, criterion contamination would fall under actual criterion.

3. Provide one example of criterion deficiency and one example of criterion contamination.

ANSWER: Responses will vary. In the textbook, filing efficiency, written communication, oral communication, and creativity are listed as examples of deficiency.

Elements such as likability, attractiveness, age, and status are listed as examples of contamination.

4. Describe the two ways in which criterion contamination can occur in the measurement of performance.

ANSWER: The first cause would be random measurement error (measures might not reflect true performance). A second cause would be bias (when individuals allow their judgments to impact ratings).

5. Identify and describe the two conditions that limit the relevance of a criterion.

ANSWER: Criterion deficiency (what parts of the ultimate criterion are not included in the actual criterion) and criterion contamination (what is included in the actual criterion that is not part of the ultimate criterion).

6. Describe the criterion problem and state why it is troubling for I/O psychologists.

ANSWER: Performance is a complicated criterion to measure. Job performance is multifaceted, but it is treated as though it were unidimensional. There is no one perfect performance criterion measure nor can it be confirmed that a particular behavior be determined by one particular cause. Also, I/O psychologists are learning that criteria are dynamic and likely to change over the course of an employee's tenure.

7. What is meant by the "criterion problem"?

ANSWER: Human behavior is determined by multiple causes, such that it is impossible to perfectly demonstrate that the behavior was determined by one particular cause. Similarly, employee performance studied by I/O psychologists cannot be perfectly assessed by standard measures because it is multifaceted and dynamic. And criteria that measure performance in one organization may not work for others. All these challenges are referred to as the criterion problem.

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Chapter 4 - Essay 8. Identify three of Campbell's dimensions of performance and provide an example that illustrates each dimension.

ANSWER: Campbell's taxonomy includes job-specific task proficiency (an administrative assistant who maintains up-to-date proficiency in word-processing applications), non-job-specific task proficiency (a plumber who handles inquiries and sets up appointments to provide estimates for work), written and oral communication tasks (a military officer who gives a formal talk to recruits), demonstrating effort (a researcher who revises and submits a manuscript to a fourth journal after it was rejected at three other journals), maintaining personal discipline (an off-duty nurse who avoids excessive alcohol in case they are needed in an emergency), facilitating peer and team performance (a journalist who conducts additional research to help a coworker writing a story meet the deadline), supervision (a retail store manager who models appropriate behavior, provides fair and timely feedback, and is available to handle the questions of their subordinates), and management/administration (a plant manager who monitors resources, sets department goals and objectives, and controls expenditures). Examples will vary.

9. Most I/O psychologists recognize that performance is multifaceted; however, organizations need to make decisions based on one score or number. What are two solutions to this problem?

ANSWER: Both solutions focus on creating a composite criterion. One solution is to combine criteria by weighting them all equally, which is easily done if they are all on the same scale. A second solution is to weigh criteria differently depending upon their importance, which can be determined based on how valuable each separate criterion is deemed by the organization.

10. What is a composite criterion? What is an alternative to this method of dealing with criteria?

ANSWER: A composite criterion is a weighted combination of multiple criteria that results in a single index of performance. A second alternative composite criterion can also be created through unequal weighting, whereby some procedure is employed to weight the criteria differentially.

11. What is the difference between equal weighting and unequal weighting of performance criteria? When might unequal weighting be a better choice for a criterion?

ANSWER: Equal weighting weights all aspects of performance the same; unequally weighted criteria weighs them based on their importance. Unequal weighting is helpful if there are some behaviors that are very important for performance.

12. What are dynamic criteria? Provide an example of dynamic criteria.

ANSWER: Measures that reflect performance that changes over time. Examples will vary.

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Chapter 4 - Essay 13. Define the concept of dynamic criteria. Describe one research study that supports its importance to the human resource (HR) department and I/O psychology.

ANSWER: Dynamic criteria is the concept that performance can change over time. Research has suggested that performance during the first six months is not the same as that for the next six months. Research with the NHL suggests that leadership roles change performance. A study of 420 employees over six years suggests that job performance demonstrates periods of stability that are briefly interrupted by sharp increases or decreases.

14. Provide one example of an objective criterion and one example of a subjective criterion.

ANSWER: Objective criteria must be something that can be measured or counted (e.g., days late) while subjective criteria is based on evaluation or judgments (e.g., supervisor ratings). Examples with vary.

15. What are the primary differences between objective and subjective criteria?

ANSWER: Objective criteria can be objectively counted and are often taken from organizational records (e.g., days late), while subjective criteria involves ratings based on judgments or evaluation (e.g., supervisor ratings). Objective criteria are factual or directly observable, whereas subjective criteria ratings are created based on thoughts, feelings, or opinions. Unlike ratings, objective criteria are based on data so they are more free of bias and beliefs of the raters. But subjective criteria is often necessary where data on record is insufficient to make decisions. Examples will vary.

16. What is one advantage and one disadvantage of using an objective criterion to measure performance?

ANSWER: An objective criterion tends to involve less judgment than subjective criteria, but unexpected factors or constraints (e.g., faulty equipment) can lead to inaccuracy.

17. What is one advantage and one disadvantage of using a subjective criterion to measure performance?

ANSWER: A subjective criterion tends to accommodate unexpected factors (e.g., faulty equipment) but relies on subjective judgment that might involve opinion, bias, feeling, or opinions.

18. Describe the three major distinctions between task performance and contextual performance.

ANSWER: Contextual behaviors tend to be similar across jobs, while task performance differs greatly depending on the job. Task activities are more likely to be formally instituted by the organization on the job description, while contextual behaviors are informal. Task activities have different antecedents from contextual behaviors.

19. Provide one example of contextual performance and one example of a counterproductive work behavior.

ANSWER: Responses will vary. Contextual performance should help others in the organization (e.g., staying late to help a coworker), while counterproductive work behaviors hurt other employees, the workplace, or the organization (e.g., vandalizing equipment).

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Chapter 4 - Essay 20. Define the concept of counterproductive behavior. Describe at least two things that research has demonstrated about counterproductive behavior and employees.

ANSWER: Counterproductive behaviors are intended to harm the organization, its employees, or its stakeholders.

They are only moderately negatively correlated with OCBs. They also differ in their causes, and people can exhibit both. Stress is a major cause of CWBs. Employees who exhibit CWBs can induce CWBs in others who witness their behaviors. CWBs are related to the dark triad of narcissism, Machiavellianism, and psychopathy.

21. Are organizational citizenship behaviors (OCBs) always positive for organizations? Provide one example of how OCBs can lead to problems for an organization.

ANSWER: Not always. Spending too much time on OCBs can distract from task performance. Also, if employees are required to engage in OCBs, they can become entitled and may believe they have moral license to behave badly when they want to.

22. What is the predictor of counterproductive work behaviors (CWBs) at work?

ANSWER: Employees who are stressed are more likely to engage in CWBs. Employees who witness others engaging in CWBs are also more likely to engage in them too. The dark triad of personality (narcissism, Machiavellianism, and psychopathy) is related to higher levels of CWB. 23. What is one possible cause for counterproductive work behaviors (CWBs) at work?

ANSWER: The textbook suggests stress, job insecurity, and running short on self-regulatory forces (e.g., sleep, positive affect, self-efficacy) and deviant behaviors on the part of other coworkers contribute to CWBs.

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 1. Evaluative standards that can be used as yardsticks for measuring an employee's success or failure are generally known as: a. predictors. b. criteria. c. organizational citizenship behaviors (OCBs). d. counterproductive work behaviors (CWBs).

ANSWER: b 2. In I/O psychology, what are evaluative standards that can be used as yardsticks for measuring employees' success or failure? a. dimensions b. elements c. criteria d. contamination ANSWER: c 3. The textbook defines performance as: a. important core beliefs that are relevant to the organization's goals. b. job-related attitudes that are relevant to the organization's goals. c. job-related thoughts that are relevant to the organization's goals. d. actual on-the-job behaviors that are relevant to the organization's goals.

ANSWER: d 4. According to the definition of "performance" in the textbook, which of these is an example of performance? a. A flight attendant is excited to go to work in the morning. b. An animal trainer receives a positive review from a client. c. A nurse inserts an IV into a patient's arm. d. A photographer thinks about what items they need to pack for tomorrow's wedding shoot.

ANSWER: c 5. Which of these is an example of performance? a. A plumber fixes a leak. b. A piano teacher is excited to go to work in the morning. c. An athletic trainer feels stressed. d. A wedding planner receives payment for their services.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 6. When I/O psychologists refer to performance, they are referring to on-the-job: a. beliefs. b. attitudes. c. thoughts. d. behaviors.

ANSWER: d 7. A professor decides to use student attendance in an I/O class as a way to gauge student performance. According to the professor, the students who have the lowest attendance rates are the lowest performers. In this case, student attendance is the: a. actual criterion. b. ultimate criterion. c. judgmental criterion. d. soft criterion.

ANSWER: a 8. Laila creates a comprehensive list of all aspects that makes up job performance for a role. Laila would be measuring the: a. actual criteria. b. ultimate criteria. c. composite criteria. d. dynamic criteria.

ANSWER: b 9. All aspects of performance that describe success on the job, although in reality they can never be completely defined and measured, are known as the: a. actual criteria. b. ultimate criteria. c. composite criteria. d. objective criteria.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 10. A real-world representation of all aspects of performance that define success on the job is known as the: a. actual criterion. b. ultimate criterion. c. composite criterion. d. objective criterion.

ANSWER: a 11. An I/O psychologist interested in measuring performance decides to use supervisor ratings. Supervisor ratings are an example of a(n): a. composite criterion. b. objective criterion. c. ultimate criterion. d. actual criterion.

ANSWER: d 12. A restaurant owner decides to use tips their servers earn as a way to measure their performance. In this case, tips are the: a. subjective criterion. b. ultimate criterion. c. actual criterion. d. soft criterion.

ANSWER: c 13. The statistical percentage of variance in the ultimate criterion that can be accounted for by the actual criterion is known as: a. practicality. b. sensitivity. c. reliability. d. relevance.

ANSWER: d 14. The amount of overlap between the actual criterion and the ultimate criterion is known as: a. deficiency. b. contamination. c. relevance. d. reliability.

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 15. The principal of a school wants to measure performance by having trained observers watch teachers in their classes for at least a week and check off what behaviors each teacher is engaging in that are effective. The superintendent points out that this method of measuring performance is extremely time-consuming and expensive.

In this case, the performance measure lacks: a. reliability. b. practicality. c. sensitivity. d. relevance.

ANSWER: b 16. A manager rates employees who take maternity leave lower on their performance evaluations. Because the employees view this rating as inappropriate and unreasonable, this measure of performance lacks: a. reliability. b. fairness. c. sensitivity. d. relevance.

ANSWER: b 17. A supervisor is examining his sales representatives' sales numbers, and they seem to be random. Whoever is the top salesperson one month might be the lowest the next month. This measure of performance lacks: a. reliability. b. practicality. c. sensitivity. d. relevance.

ANSWER: a 18. A sales manager decides to evaluate her representatives based only on the dollar values of their sales each month.

A colleague points out that some of the representatives have very large, wealthy regions, whereas others have sparsely populated, low-income regions. The colleague suggests that the dollars in sales might be more of a reflection of the wealth of the region rather than of the representative's performance. The colleague is suggesting the measure has poor: a. reliability. b. deficiency. c. sensitivity. d. relevance.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 19. St. Agatha's University includes on its instructor evaluations a question about the quality of the classroom.

However, instructors do not have any control over the classroom they use because it is assigned to them.

Because this question measures something that is not truly part of the instructor's performance, it might be considered criterion: a. contamination. b. deficiency. c. relevance. d. sensitivity.

ANSWER: a 20. What is the condition in which an actual measure fails to measure some aspect of the ultimate criterion? a. criterion relevance b. criterion bias c. criterion contamination d. criterion deficiency ANSWER: d 21. At D'Amico's Pizza Parlor, servers are evaluated on their knowledge of the menu, their accuracy of order taking, and their ability to work the cash register. But they should also be measured on how satisfied their customers are with the service. Because customer satisfaction is missing from the performance measure, one might consider it an example of criterion: a. contamination. b. deficiency. c. relevance. d. practicality.

ANSWER: b 22. What is the condition in which a measure assesses something that is not part of the ultimate criterion? a. criterion relevance b. criterion sensitivity c. criterion contamination d. criterion deficiency ANSWER: c

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 23. Criterion contamination can occur when a rater allows something unrelated to performance, such as liking a ratee, to affect their ratings. This is known as criterion: a. relevance. b. bias. c. desensitization. d. deficiency.

ANSWER: b 24. Having an unreliable measure of performance can increase criterion: a. relevance. b. prediction. c. contamination. d. deficiency.

ANSWER: c 25. What is the extent to which dimensions in the ultimate criterion measure are not part of the actual criterion measure? a. criterion reliability b. criterion deficiency c. criterion relevance d. criterion contamination ANSWER: b 26. One contributing factor of criterion contamination is: a. validity. b. fairness. c. random measurement error. d. contextual performance.

ANSWER: c 27. Even though Daiyu's job performance has not changed over the past year, Daiyu received a higher evaluation this year. Because the measure of performance is not reliable, there is criterion: a. relevance in the measure. b. deficiency in the measure. c. contamination in the measure. d. sensitivity in the measure.

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 28. Even though Emiliana's job performance has not changed over the past year, she received a higher evaluation this year because she has become better friends with her boss. This is an example of: a. measure reliability. b. sensitivity. c. deficiency. d. bias.

ANSWER: d 29. Someone is measuring the performance of dog grooming professionals by using supervisor ratings. They find that when the supervisors rate the groomers' performance, the ratings are biased because higher ratings are given to groomers who are well liked, regardless of their actual job performance. The supervisors' bias has resulted in criterion: a. contamination. b. deficiency. c. overlap. d. sensitivity.

ANSWER: a 30. Which of these refers to the stability or consistency of a measure? a. reliability b. sensitivity c. relevance d. practicality ANSWER: a 31. When Professor Landsley grades papers for their class, they have a tendency to give Ivan a lower grade than he deserves because they allow their negative opinion to color their judgement of him. Because Ivan's scores are consistently lower than he deserves based on his performance, this would be an example of criterion: a. relevance. b. bias. c. desensitization. d. deficiency.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 32. Steven, a manager, is providing performance ratings for his employees. Chet, one of his employees, has been doing a very poor job. However, Steven finds Chet attractive, so he consistently rates Chet higher than they deserve. This undeserved high rating is an example of criterion contamination of: a. relevance. b. deficiency. c. desensitization. d. bias.

ANSWER: d 33. One contributing factor to criterion contamination is: a. bias. b. fairness. c. validity. d. contextual performance.

ANSWER: a 34. Employees at a dry-cleaning service are evaluated on the number of shirts ironed per hour. All of the employees iron between 10 and 12 shirts per hour, so it is difficult to distinguish between effective and ineffective employees.

There appears to be a problem with the performance criterion's: a. sensitivity. b. fairness. c. practicality. d. reliability.

ANSWER: a 35. An I/O psychologist has developed a set of performance criteria with hardly any criterion deficiency or contamination. However, the organization does not approve the measures because they are too difficult to measure and too abstract to be useful for their purpose. The I/O psychologist has encountered a problem with the criteria's: a. fairness. b. practicality. c. reliability. d. sensitivity.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 36. A manager decides to use days missed as a measure of performance. However, at the end of the year, they find that only a few employees in the entire organization have missed a day at work. Because almost everyone has the same score on this measure of performance, it lacks: a. practicality. b. fairness. c. sensitivity. d. reliability.

ANSWER: c 37. According to the textbook, it is important for criteria to be relevant, reliable, fair, practical, and: a. substantive. b. objective. c. subjective. d. sensitive.

ANSWER: d 38. According to the textbook, it is important for criteria to be fair, reliable, sensitive, practical, and: a. relevant. b. objective. c. subjective. d. contaminated.

ANSWER: a 39. Which statement about performance criteria is true? a. There is no one performance criterion that is suitable for all organizational purposes. b. Performance criteria usually consist of only one dimension. c. I/O psychologists have identified several performance criteria that are perfect measures of performance. d. All performance criteria are suitable for all organizational decisions.

ANSWER: a 40. According to the textbook, it is important for criteria to be relevant, reliable, sensitive, practical, and: a. formidable. b. objective. c. subjective. d. fair.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 41. Nishina Computers has an evaluation that all computer technicians are rated on. The criteria are so simple that nearly all technicians (even those with low performance) receive a high rating. In this case, the measure likely has low: a. sensitivity. b. reliability. c. practicality. d. fairness.

ANSWER: a 42. I/O researchers have often debated about how to measure performance appropriately. This area of debate and research is generally referred to as the: a. contextual versus task debate. b. criterion problem. c. subjective/objective issue. d. multiple versus composite argument.

ANSWER: b 43. According to Campbell's taxonomy of performance, if an off-duty pilot avoids excessive alcohol in the event that they are needed in an emergency, that behavior exemplifies the performance factor known as: a. job-specific task proficiency. b. non-job-specific task proficiency. c. maintaining personal discipline. d. demonstrating effort.

ANSWER: c 44. According to Campbell's taxonomy of performance, if a lawyer goes to the office on a holiday to review their cases and prepare for the next week, that behavior is BEST described as: a. job-specific task proficiency. b. non-job-specific task proficiency. c. supervision. d. demonstrating effort.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 45. An electrician handles phone inquiries and sets appointments to provide estimates. This behavior exemplifies the performance factor known as: a. job-specific task proficiency. b. non-job-specific task proficiency. c. facilitating peer and team performance. d. supervision.

ANSWER: b 46. Campbell's model of performance suggests that all jobs include at least how many factors? a. 2 b. 5 c. 8 d. 12 ANSWER: c 47. According to Campbell's model of job performance, which is a job-specific task proficiency? a. A waiter agrees to cover for another waiter who is sick that day. b. A pilot successfully lands a plane. c. A locksmith takes a phone call and schedules an appointment to change a lock. d. A security officer provides the dates they are on vacation so their supervisor can create a schedule for the month.

ANSWER: b 48. According to Campbell's model of job performance, which is an example of maintaining personal discipline? a. A tour guide suppresses their desire to roll their eyes when a customer asks a foolish question. b. A chemist orders new flasks and other materials for the lab. c. A piano teacher sends a bill to one of their customers. d. A sales representative presents their progress on sales goals to the rest of their team.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 49. Roshan evaluates his customer service call bank workers on a 1–5 scale on three dimensions (customer service, quick resolution to problems, attendance). To determine performance, he simply adds up their scores on these three scales. This would be an example of: a. equally weighted criteria. b. unequally weighted criteria. c. objective criteria. d. dynamic criteria.

ANSWER: a 50. If employees are rated on a 1–5 scale for both customer service and attendance, but customer service is considered twice as important as attendance, employees should be evaluated using: a. equal weighting. b. unequal weighting. c. primary weighting. d. secondary weighting.

ANSWER: b 51. According to Campbell, which of the three dimensions of performance are necessary components of every job? a. demonstrating job-specific task proficiency, demonstrating effort, and maintaining personal discipline b. demonstrating proficiency in written and oral communication tasks, maintaining personal discipline, and supervision c. demonstrating proficiency in written and oral communication tasks, facilitating peer and team performance, and demonstrating effort d. demonstrating effort, management/administration, and maintaining personal discipline ANSWER: a 52. According to Campbell, what is one problem with adding up multiple criteria to create a single composite criterion? a. Such a criterion contains a great deal of data and is often too complex to be used for hiring decisions. b. Such a criterion treats performance as if it were a single construct. c. Such a criterion makes it too difficult to select the single best person for a job. d. Such a criterion is not typically used in organizations because it tends to be quite expensive.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 53. Yara has determined that, in terms of her bartenders' performance, it is much more important for them to make customers feel comfortable than it is for them to pour drinks correctly. If she uses unequal weighting when evaluating performance, this means that: a. she weights each bartender differently, depending upon whether they make customers comfortable. b. in some evaluations, she focuses more on customer service, and on other evaluations, she focuses more on how her employees pour drinks. c. customer service and skill in pouring drinks are equally important in her performance evaluations. d. she tends to weight customer service more heavily than pouring drinks when she evaluates her bartenders.

ANSWER: d 54. A law firm uses law school GPA and work experience to determine if a law school graduate should be hired.

When making hiring decisions, a law school graduate's GPA is weighted 80% and work experience is weighted only 20%. This is an example of a(n): a. fair composite criterion. b. equally weighted composite criterion. c. dynamic composite criterion. d. unequally weighted composite criterion.

ANSWER: d 55. When selecting an administrative assistant, a supervisor mentions that the assistant's customer service skills might be much more important than their typing skills for proper job performance. In this case, one might recommend that the supervisor use a(n): a. equally weighted composite criterion when hiring her assistant. b. unit-weighted composite criterion when hiring her assistant. c. unequally weighted composite criterion when hiring her assistant. d. dynamically weighted composite criterion when hiring her assistant.

ANSWER: c 56. In their classic article on handling criteria, Schmidt and Kaplan (1971) argue that when making hiring decisions, MOST applied psychologists should: a. use a weighted composite for hiring, and then examine the relationships between predictors and the various criteria. b. examine multiple criteria in light of predictor variables without combining them into a composite. c. treat performance as a single construct. d. weight the criterion dimensions the same as those used for termination decisions.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 57. According to Schmidt and Kaplan (1971), composite scores should be used to make hiring decisions, while individual predictor scores should be used: a. for training purposes. b. for selection purposes. c. to examine how compensation affects performance. d. if psychological understanding is the primary goal.

ANSWER: d 58. The criterion problem is characterized by two elements. First, practitioners must decide between using multiple or composite criteria. Second, practitioners must determine how to address: a. counterproductive work behaviors. b. criterion relevance. c. dynamic criteria. d. the lack of available objective criteria.

ANSWER: c 59. An I/O psychologist develops measures that will reflect performance levels that change over time to address the issue of: a. dynamic criteria. b. static criteria. c. subjective criteria. d. contextual performance.

ANSWER: a 60. A researcher finds that the performance of managers notably improves over time. Because the managers' performance predictably changes over time, this might be an example of: a. composite criteria. b. dynamic criteria. c. contextual criteria. d. incremental criteria.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 61. An employee who has strong performance in the first two years on the job may not have very strong performance for the next two years on the job. This finding supports the existence of: a. composite criteria. b. incremental criteria. c. unidimensional criteria. d. dynamic criteria.

ANSWER: d 62. Criteria taken from organizational records and referred to as "hard" or "nonjudgmental" are known as: a. dynamic criteria. b. subjective criteria. c. objective criteria. d. composite criteria.

ANSWER: c 63. Which is an example of an objective criterion? a. accidents b. peer ratings c. supervisor ratings d. effectiveness ANSWER: a 64. The MOST typical objective criterion is: a. turnover. b. absence. c. effort. d. productivity.

ANSWER: d 65. Sondra assesses the performance of her manufacturing employees by keeping track of how many of the products they produce are defective. This would be an example of a(n): a. dynamic criterion. b. ultimate criterion. c. objective criterion. d. subjective criterion.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 66. Objective criteria tend to be more appropriate for: a. nonmanagerial positions. b. managerial positions. c. low-quality employees. d. high-quality employees.

ANSWER: a 67. Lorenzo assesses the performance of his managers by noting how many grievances their subordinates file each year. This would be an example of a(n): a. contaminated criteria. b. objective criteria. c. ultimate criteria. d. subjective criteria.

ANSWER: b 68. What is one limitation of objective criteria, as mentioned in the textbook? a. They are strongly affected by rater attitudes, such as favoritism. b. They can be limited by situational constraints, for example, a jammed machine. c. They tend to be unrelated to subjective measures of performance. d. They can record only contextual performance.

ANSWER: b 69. Louisa assesses the performance of her manufacturing employees by having supervisors provide effectiveness ratings. This would be an example of a(n): a. objective criterion. b. composite criterion. c. dynamic criterion. d. subjective criterion.

ANSWER: d 70. Asif assesses the performance of his managers by having their subordinates provide ratings of how effective they believe their manager is. This would be an example of a(n): a. deficient criterion. b. contaminated criterion. c. objective criterion. d. subjective criterion.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 71. Juan is developing criteria for the job of a grocery store manager, but he is unsure what type of criteria to use. For this type of job, Juan would use: a. objective criteria. b. subjective criteria. c. static criteria. d. ultimate criteria.

ANSWER: b 72. What is the major weakness of subjective criteria for performance? a. These criteria are more likely to be affected by rater attitudes than objective performance. b. They are rarely under the control of the employee. c. Organizations rarely have access to raters from whom they can obtain subjective measures of performance. d. It can be quite expensive to obtain subjective measures of performance.

ANSWER: a 73. What is one of the major strengths of subjective criteria for performance? a. They tend to be less biased than objective criteria. b. They are more likely to be about a behavior that employees have control over. c. They are rarely used in most organizations, so attaining them can give a company a competitive advantage. d. They can be automatically recorded by equipment or personnel records.

ANSWER: b 74. Contextual performance is similar to the concept known as: a. social organizational performance. b. prosocial organizational behavior. c. organizational courtesy performance. d. organizational development behavior.

ANSWER: b 75. Task performance describes work-related activities, while which type of performance describes activities that help to maintain the broader organizational, social, and psychological environment? a. static b. dynamic c. contextual d. quality ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 76. Sheila performs many activities that help maintain the broader organizational, social, and psychological environment. She would, therefore, likely receive high ratings with regard to: a. task performance. b. expatriate performance. c. contextual performance. d. dynamic performance.

ANSWER: c 77. According to Borman and Motowidlo (1997), which of these is an example of the contextual performance dimension known as civic virtue? a. a cashier who takes on extra responsibilities to help another cashier leave work on time b. a teacher who continues to work despite a salary reduction and school budget cuts c. a waiter who encourages their friends to eat at the restaurant where they are employed d. an engineer who always turns in technical reports on time and who follows safety procedures ANSWER: d 78. According to Borman and Motowidlo (1997), which is an example of the contextual performance dimension known as organizational courtesy? a. a server who stays after work to help another server wait on a large group of people b. a bus driver who is friendly and attentive to children, even when they are in a bad mood c. a store clerk who encourages their friends to shop at the store where they are employed d. a construction worker who always follows safety procedures ANSWER: a 79. Borman and Motowidlo (1997) suggested that contextual performance can be divided into five categories: enthusiasm, volunteering, organizational courtesy, civic virtue, and: a. defending and supporting the organization. b. being proactive in telling management about problem employees. c. engaging in additional training on a voluntary basis. d. desiring to move up in the organization.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 80. Spending extra time helping a coworker is an example of: a. a counterproductive work behavior. b. an organizational citizenship behavior. c. civic virtue. d. task performance.

ANSWER: b 81. One of the major distinctions between task performance and contextual performance is that: a. contextual performance is more likely to be formally instituted by the organization on a performance appraisal form. b. contextual behaviors vary greatly across jobs, whereas task behaviors are similar across jobs. c. contextual performance is not relevant to employees outside the United States. d. contextual performance seldom includes the social and psychological environment in which employees operate.

ANSWER: d 82. Research proposes that organizational citizenship behaviors (OCBs) result in positive coworker relationships, which serve as: a. tenure; this in turn affects the organization's overall performance and effectiveness. b. promotions; this in turn affects the organization's overall performance and effectiveness. c. social capital; this in turn affects the organization's overall performance and effectiveness. d. salary negotiation; this in turn affects the organization's overall performance and effectiveness.

ANSWER: c 83. A meta-analysis has indicated that when groups engage in more organizational citizenship behaviors (OCBs), they: a. tend to have better social processes, such as coordination and communication. b. tend to spend more time socializing and less time on task-related behaviors. c. tend to have lower performance and profit margins. d. also experience an increase in counterproductive work behaviors.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 84. Research on organizational citizenship behaviors (OCBs) and organizational effectiveness have suggested that OCBs can have a positive effect on: a. CEO ratings of the group's performance. b. supplier ratings of the group's performance. c. customer ratings of the group's performance. d. competitor ratings of the group's performance.

ANSWER: c 85. Research on the effects of organizational citizenship behaviors (OCBs) has suggested that: a. there is no such thing as too much OCBs—focusing heavily on OCBs leads to increases in overall performance. b. too much focus on OCBs can take away attention from task performance, leading to decrements in overall performance. c. OCBs and counterproductive work behaviors are basically the same construct. d. OCBs are not a type of contextual performance.

ANSWER: b 86. Rick has caused a coworker to miss an important deadline by withholding important information about their work. Rick has engaged in: a. expatriate work behavior. b. counterproductive work behavior. c. subjective work behavior. d. task work behavior.

ANSWER: b 87. Which is NOT an example of a counterproductive work behavior? a. theft b. abuse of others c. anger d. withdrawal behaviors ANSWER: c

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 88. Research has indicated that in terms of organizational citizenship behaviors and counterproductive work behaviors: a. organizational citizenship behaviors appear to be more strongly related to group and individual performance than counterproductive work behaviors. b. cannot co-occur. c. counterproductive work behaviors appear to be more strongly related to group and individual performance than organizational citizenship behaviors. d. are both very harmful to productivity.

ANSWER: c 89. Research on organizational citizenship behaviors (OCBs) has suggested that they have: a. a curvilinear relationship with task performance; too much can actually lead to lower performance. b. a positive linear relationship with task performance; more OCBs lead to higher performance. c. a negative linear relationship with task performance; more OCBs lead to lower performance. d. no significant relationship with task performance.

ANSWER: a 90. Organizational citizenship behaviors and counterproductive work behaviors share a: a. strong positive correlation. b. moderate positive correlation. c. strong negative correlation. d. moderate negative correlation.

ANSWER: d 91. Research has found that when employees are aware of their coworkers' counterproductive work behaviors (CWBs), they are: a. more likely to engage in organizational citizenship behaviors (OCBs). b. more likely to engage in CWBs. c. highly likely to report their coworkers' behaviors to the supervisor. d. less likely to experience stress in the workplace.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 92. A study by Yam and colleagues suggested that when employees engage in organizational citizenship behaviors (OCBs) because they were required to (as opposed to freely choosing to engage in OCBs), they feel entitled to behave badly at other times. This is known as: a. intrinsic motivation. b. moral licensing. c. moral occlusion. d. criterion deficiency.

ANSWER: b 93. Research by Meier and Spector (2013) suggests that which of these is an important predictor of counterproductive work behaviors? a. stress b. organizational citizenship behaviors c. pay d. task significance ANSWER: a 94. Actual behaviors performed at work that are relevant to the organization's goals are known as: a. ultimate criteria. b. performance. c. criterion contaminants. d. criterion deficiencies.

ANSWER: b 95. A manager decides to use the number of reports written as a way to gauge their employee's performance. In this case, the number of reports written is the: a. ultimate criterion. b. actual criterion. c. soft criterion. d. subjective criterion.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 96. A manager of a bank wants to record footage of the bank tellers to measure their performance. The manager's assistant points out that in order to use this approach, the manager would have to watch hundreds of hours of footage each day. Because this approach would be time-consuming and expensive, it lacks: a. reliability. b. relativity. c. sensitivity. d. practicality.

ANSWER: d 97. The manager of a drug store believes that male employees are unable to adequately help customers in the makeup section and, therefore, gives them lower evaluations. The employees view this rating as unjust. In this case, the performance measure lacks: a. reliability. b. practicality. c. sensitivity. d. fairness.

ANSWER: d 98. Esther, a store clerk, doesn't understand her performance ratings. One week, she'll receive a 1 out of 5, the next week, she receives a 5 out of 5, even though her actual behaviors don't really change. In this case, the performance measure lacks: a. reliability. b. practicality. c. sensitivity. d. relevance.

ANSWER: a 99. The principal of a school evaluates their teachers based on how physically attractive each teacher is. This evaluation seems to be completely unrelated to how well the teachers perform in the classrooms. In this case, the performance measure lacks: a. reliability. b. contamination. c. sensitivity. d. relevance.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 100. A landscaping company assesses their gardeners based on how many houses they visit a week. However, some gardeners have to service very large estates and, therefore, can't visit as many houses, even though they do their work efficiently. Because this criterion measures something that is not truly part of the gardener's performance, it might be considered: a. impractical. b. contaminated. c. deficient. d. sensitive.

ANSWER: b 101. At Fratelli's Hardware Store, clerks are evaluated on their knowledge of home repair, their customer satisfaction, and their ability to work the cash register. But they should also be measured on how well they are able to accurately record special orders. Because special order accuracy is missing from the performance measure, one might consider it an example of criterion: a. contamination. b. acceptability. c. deficiency. d. practicality.

ANSWER: c 102. According to the textbook, it is important for criteria to be relevant, reliable, sensitive, practical, and: a. feasible. b. applicable. c. fair. d. biased.

ANSWER: c 103. The criterion problem refers to the fact that: a. contextual and task performance are the same thing. b. the actual criterion and the ultimate criterion usually completely overlap. c. objective measures are better to use, but many managers insist on using subjective measures. d. job performance is complex and difficult to measure accurately.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 104. According to Campbell's taxonomy of performance, if an accountant successfully gives a formal presentation that explains how to save the department money, that behavior exemplifies the performance factor known as: a. job-specific task proficiency. b. management/administration. c. maintaining personal discipline. d. written and oral communication skills.

ANSWER: d 105. According to Campbell's taxonomy of performance, if a factory line worker shows a new employee how to properly wear the safety equipment, that behavior exemplifies the performance factor known as: a. job-specific task proficiency. b. facilitating peer and team performance. c. maintaining personal discipline. d. written and oral communication skills.

ANSWER: b 106. If a receptionist answers phones politely and correctly books appointments, that behavior exemplifies Campbell's performance factor known as: a. job-specific task proficiency. b. non-job-specific task proficiency. c. maintaining personal discipline. d. supervision.

ANSWER: a 107. An interior designer sets up appointments with customers and provides estimates for their work. According to Campbell's Taxonomy of Performance, which performance factor is the inspector demonstrating? a. job-specific task proficiency b. non-job-specific task proficiency c. demonstrating effort d. facilitating team performance ANSWER: b

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 108. According to Campbell's Taxonomy of Performance, which is the example of demonstrating effort? a. A store clerk agrees to cover for another clerk who is having car trouble. b. A researcher presents their research at a conference. c. A manager provides feedback to one of their bartenders. d. A programmer who is stuck on a piece of code keeps working until they solve the problem.

ANSWER: d 109. A professor teaches a couple classes for another faculty member who has fallen ill. According to Campbell's Taxonomy of Performance, which performance factor is the professor demonstrating? a. management/administration. b. non-job-specific task proficiency c. demonstrating effort d. facilitating team performance ANSWER: d 110. According to Campbell's Taxonomy of Performance, which is an example of supervision? a. A bartender agrees to cover for another bartender who is ill. b. An accountant shows a new coworker how to use a computer program. c. A manager provides feedback to one of their delivery drivers. d. A manager sets department goals for monthly sales.

ANSWER: c 111. Ebony's performance is not very good during her first six months on the job. However, her second six months on the job are excellent. This changing nature of Ebony's performance over time is an example of: a. composite criteria. b. reliable criteria. c. dynamic criteria. d. incremental criteria.

ANSWER: c 112. Oskar assesses the performance of his sales representatives by recording how many calls they make per hour.

This would be an example of a(n): a. dynamic criterion. b. objective criterion. c. composite criterion. d. subjective criterion.

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 113. Haider assesses the performance of his restaurant servers by looking at customer ratings of the server's performance. This would be an example of a(n): a. objective criterion. b. subjective criterion. c. dynamic criterion. d. composite criterion.

ANSWER: b 114. A variable related to counterproductive work behavior (CWB) is where an employee engages in self-deception to justify unethical behavior, called: a. absenteeism. b. criterion deficiency. c. criterion contamination. d. moral disengagement.

ANSWER: d 115. Research by Welsh et al. (2015) has found that employees can gradually become more morally disengaged by engaging in small counterproductive work behaviors (CWBs) with increased frequency. This is known as the: a. slippery slope phenomenon. b. bad apples phenomenon. c. inch -by -inch phenomenon. d. group-level phenomenon.

ANSWER: a 116. Which of these behaviors is an example of subjective task performance? a. sales quota attained b. grant proposals submitted c. student teacher evaluations d. number of research projects volunteered for ANSWER: c 117. Moral licensing and moral disengagement are behaviors that impact organizations: a. on no occasion. b. rarely. c. positively. d. negatively.

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 118. Lane works as both an office administrator and as a graduate assistant. Lane steals printer paper from his office job, so that he can print for free at his assistantship. Lane stealing paper is an example of: a. an organizational citizenship behavior. b. a counterproductive work behavior. c. contextual performance. d. task performance.

ANSWER: b 119. Sara, an I/O psychologist, develops a performance appraisal system that measures employee leadership effectiveness, attendance, and team performance and combines these into a single performance index. Which type of criterion has Sara created? a. static b. dynamic c. contextual d. composite ANSWER: d

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Chapter 5 - Essay 1. Identify the three purposes of performance appraisal.

ANSWER: Personnel decisions (e.g., demotions, hiring), development (e.g., informing employees of performance strengths and weaknesses), and documentation (e.g., detailed accounts of employees' performance).

2. Discuss at least two negative consequences that could occur if poorly designed and implemented performance appraisals are used in organizations.

ANSWER: Such appraisals could result in the wrong person being promoted, transferred, or fired. They could cause feelings of inequity. They could lead to lawsuits. They could lead to disgruntled employees who decrease effort, ignore feedback, or look for other jobs.

3. What are the four components of a performance management system?

ANSWER: Objective goal setting, continuous coaching and feedback, performance appraisal, and development planning.

4. What are the three basic assumptions held by advocates of 360-degree feedback systems?

ANSWER: When multiple raters are used, the participants are happier because they are involved in the process.

When multiple raters are used, the more idiosyncrasies and biases of any single rater are overcome.

Multiple raters bring with them multiple perspectives on the employee, allowing for more accurate evaluations.

5. What recommendations would be appropriate for an organization that wants to implement a 360-degree feedback system?

ANSWER: Responses will vary. The best practices suggest being honest about how ratings are used, include those from all levels to provide input, helping employees interpret and deal with the ratings, and avoiding presenting too much information.

6. What are the advantages and disadvantages of telework?

ANSWER: Responses will vary. Advantages might include positive associations with task and contextual performance. Disadvantages might include performance appraisal errors.

7. Explain the five steps to develop a behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS).

ANSWER: Participants/SMEs are selected. A group of participants identifies and defines dimensions of performance. Another group generates behavioral examples for each dimension. Another group of participants sorts examples into appropriate dimensions (retranslation). Another group rates behavioral examples on their level of effectiveness. Finally, items are chosen from this pool and used to create the BARS.

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Chapter 5 - Essay 8. Choose three types of appraisal rating formats and outline at least one advantage and disadvantage of using each type in an organization.

ANSWER: Graphic ratings scales (advantage is that they are easy to develop and use; disadvantage is they lack precision in dimension and anchors); BARS (advantage is they are precise and well-liked by raters; disadvantage is they are difficult and expensive to create and there is no evidence they are more accurate than other formats); checklists (advantage is they are easy to develop and use; disadvantage is the problem of rater errors and perception of less rater control); employee comparison procedures (advantage is they are precise and useful; disadvantage is they are time intensive for raters, not well liked by raters or ratees, and can result in well-performing employees being let go over time).

9. What are the three employee comparison procedures of performance appraisal? Provide an example of each method.

ANSWER: Rank-ordering (employees are ranked from worst to best), paired comparisons (comparing each employee with every other employee in team or level), and forced distribution (forcing designated proportion of ratees into several rating categories). Examples will vary.

10. What is the checklist format of performance appraisal? Provide an example of this method.

ANSWER: Raters read behavioral statements and check off the behaviors that the employee exhibits. Additionally, there are weighted checklists (items weighted by importance or desirability then summed), forcedchoice checklists (choose two of four favorable items but two discriminate between effective and ineffective performers), and the computerized adaptive rating scale (CARS).

11. Explain each of the five stages involved in the cognitive processing model. For each stage, provide an example of how the rater could make a mistake.

ANSWER: Observe behavior (missing important behaviors or seeing what the observer wants to see), encoding information (not labeling information well enough for storage or labeling it incorrectly), storing information (not storing some relevant information or storing wrong information), retrieving information (failing to recall important information or recalling information that is not relevant), and integrating information (making poor decisions based only on the available information or coming to a biased conclusion because of liking).

12. Does all halo error result in inaccurate performance ratings? Why or why not?

ANSWER: No, it does not. Sometimes, a good performer will be good at all aspects of the job, leading to true halo. The type of halo that results from accurate intercorrelations among performance dimensions rather than from rating error is called true halo.

13. What is the difference between halo error and true halo? Provide an example of each.

ANSWER: In halo error, an employee receives similar ratings on different performance dimensions that are inaccurate. In true halo, an employee is genuinely similar in performance across performance dimensions. Examples will vary.

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Chapter 5 - Essay 14. Identify and describe the three distributional errors. Provide an example for each type of error.

ANSWER: Severity (raters tend to give consistently low ratings), central tendency (raters tend to give consistently mid-range ratings), leniency (raters tend to give consistently high ratings), recency error (rating on most recent interactions), first impression/primacy effect (rating on first impression of ratee), and the similarto-me error (giving favorable ratings to those who are like themselves). Examples will vary.

15. Why might an organization choose to use an employee comparison procedure for performance appraisal? What is one disadvantage of the approach?

ANSWER: Organizations may use employee comparison to eliminate leniency and to force evaluators to rank employees. However, employee comparison can be time-consuming, and raters and ratees tend to dislike the approach.

16. Managers at a company need to be trained on how to do performance appraisal ratings. Choose a rater error training (RET) method and explain why this particular method is preferable over the others.

ANSWER: The best response is Frame-of-Reference (FOR) training, as this is the only type that reduces errors.

Behavioral observation training (BOT) is a newer approach that holds promise when combined with FOR training.

17. What steps should be taken to implement a performance appraisal in an organization?

ANSWER: Responses will vary. Students should consider the different rating formats, rater training, the different contextual influences, and other practical concerns. Processes should be fair, accurate, motivating, and user-friendly.

18. Do employee reactions to performance appraisal matter? What might an organization do to improve employee reactions to appraisals?

ANSWER: Research on reaction criteria implies employee reactions do matter (acknowledging them makes employees less angry, improves feelings of justice, and decreases feelings of burnout). Organizations can use good practices for conducting evaluations and attend to contextual issues such as justice and feedback orientation.

19. What is the current trend in evaluating performance appraisals? How is this different from traditional approaches?

ANSWER: Current approaches take the context into account. Examples include assessing reaction criteria, attending to relationships at work (LMX or politics), focusing on trust and justice, soliciting participation from ratees, providing performance feedback, and noting factors such as feedback environment and feedback orientation.

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Chapter 5 - Essay 20. What is the due process metaphor approach of performance appraisal and what components make up this view?

ANSWER: Due process is a term pulled from legal contexts that outlines an approach to ensuring that the employee is treated fairly. This process includes three components: adequate notice (the employee knows ahead of time what they are being judged on), fair hearings (the employee can review information and present their own statements about it), and judgments based on evidence (the organization must document information that leads to a decision about performance appraisals).

21. Leon is a manager in a store. Leon's sales representatives demonstrate a wide variety of performance—some are very skilled salespeople, and some are not. However, Leon gives all employees at least a 4 out of 5 on their performance, regardless of their skill. What error is Leon making, and what is one way to prevent Leon from making this error?

ANSWER: The error is leniency. Suggested solutions may vary, but some might be changing the type of scale (e.g., using BARS, checklists, or comparison methods) and some might be about training Leon (the ideal approach is FOR training).

22. Consider the job of a fast-food worker. Create a behaviorally anchored rating scale for "customer service" by providing an example of an anchor for poor performance, moderate performance, and excellent performance.

ANSWER: Responses will vary. Students likely will provide an example of being rude for the poor performance, an example of being friendly but not particularly helpful for the moderate performance, and being proactive, polite, friendly, and going above and beyond for the excellent performance.

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 1. A bad grade in a course is an example of a(n): a. positive appraisal. b. negative appraisal. c. upward appraisal rating. d. critical incident.

ANSWER: b 2. Performance appraisal can be used to make important personnel decisions, such as: a. which employees need more motivation. b. which employees get fired. c. which employees feel satisfied. d. which employees are stressed.

ANSWER: b 3. Which is an example of using performance appraisal to make a personnel decision? a. choosing which employee gets laid off b. choosing the employees' areas of improvement c. providing an employee with a list of skills they need to develop to earn their next promotion d. providing an employee with a list of their strengths ANSWER: a 4. Which of these is a significant purpose of performance appraisal? a. documenting an employee's satisfaction levels b. substantiating a decision about whether to give an employee a raise c. identifying disgruntled employees who feel they deserve a pay increase d. identifying an employee's interest in a training program ANSWER: b 5. The systematic review and evaluation of how an employee completes their job is known as: a. job evaluation. b. performance appraisal. c. critical evaluation. d. content appraisal.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 6. Which is an example of using performance appraisal for a developmental purpose? a. choosing which employees to demote b. choosing which employees to promote c. providing documentation to justify why a certain employee receives a raise d. providing an employee with a list of their strengths ANSWER: d 7. A performance management system typically includes: a. critical incidents. b. objective goal setting. c. subjective goal setting. d. organizational-profit forecasting.

ANSWER: b 8. A performance management system typically includes: a. layoffs. b. continuous coaching. c. organizational restructuring. d. organizational-profit forecasting.

ANSWER: b 9. In organizations, a performance management system is implemented: a. whenever company goals are not met. b. when coaching and feedback have failed. c. on a continuous cycle. d. once per year.

ANSWER: c 10. The purpose of performance management is to: a. assess performance. b. increase performance. c. decrease performance. d. overhaul performance.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 11. In order to ensure our performance appraisal system evaluates relevant criteria, criteria are identified from: a. goal setting. b. training. c. developmental planning. d. a job analysis.

ANSWER: d 12. Using a job analysis for performance appraisal is important because it: a. reduces the need for documentation of organizational decisions. b. ensures that we are measuring criteria that are actually relevant to the job. c. allows the organization to forecast how many employees it will need to promote within the next few years. d. ensures that we are evaluating employees on subjective job performance.

ANSWER: b 13. Which of these is an assumption held by proponents of 360-degree feedback? a. Employees do not like being involved in the performance appraisal process. b. Multiple raters allow for a more accurate view of performance. c. Multiple raters allow for a less accurate view of performance. d. Self-ratings will be harsher than supervisor and peer ratings.

ANSWER: b 14. Asking multiple raters and various levels of the organization to evaluate and provide feedback to a target employee is known as: a. Feedback Intervention Theory (FIT). b. a job analysis. c. 360-degree feedback. d. Feedback Orientation (FO).

ANSWER: c 15. One reason organizations use 360-degree feedback is that: a. participants take the results more seriously. b. it is simple to interpret. c. it is more defensible in court than other types of feedback. d. participants are happier because they are involved in the process.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 16. Which of these is a benefit of 360-degree feedback? a. Single raters allow for a more accurate view of performance. b. Multiple raters allow for a more accurate view of performance. c. The interpretation takes little time. d. It is more defensible in court than other types of feedback.

ANSWER: b 17. One reason organizations use 360-degree feedback is that: a. it provides a broader and more accurate view of performance. b. it is more defensible in court than other types of feedback. c. participants take the results more seriously. d. it is simple, cheap, and quick.

ANSWER: a 18. Nurudeen and colleagues (2015) researched 360-degree feedback among surgeons. Which statement describes their findings? a. Most surgeons did not believe their subordinates could provide accurate feedback and ultimately ignored their recommendations. b. Most surgeons felt the feedback was accurate, and they made changes to their practice as a result of the feedback. c. Most surgeons liked the feedback but didn't change their performance as a result of the feedback. d. Most raters and ratees believed the process was unhelpful, and nearly all participants said they would not be willing to participate with 360-degree feedback in the future.

ANSWER: b 19. Five vice presidents of a bank provide appraisal ratings of the bank president. When they do this, they are: a. giving self-ratings. b. giving upward appraisal ratings. c. engaging in leader–member exchange. d. engaging in behavioral observation training.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 20. An I/O psychologist is hired by an organization that is planning to implement a 360-degree feedback system.

Which of these should they recommend? a. Employees should be told exactly how the performance ratings will be used. b. The 360-degree feedback ratings should be gathered on a monthly basis. c. Employees should be allowed to interpret the results on their own. d. Employees should be restricted from rating themselves.

ANSWER: a 21. Nurudeen and colleague's (2015) research indicated that surgeons who underwent a 360-degree feedback process: a. disliked the process and refused to participate in any additional 360-degree feedback sessions. b. believed the ratings were inaccurate. c. failed to lead to any meaningful changes in a surgeon's practice. d. by a good majority (80%) would be willing to participate in future 360-degree evaluations.

ANSWER: d 22. One difficulty related to teleworking is that: a. supervisors tend to rely too heavily on direct sources of information, which are less frequent in telework. b. most employees dislike telework. c. performance appraisal cannot be conducted with these workers. d. supervisors tend to rely too heavily on indirect sources of information, which can often make teleworkers seem unproductive.

ANSWER: a 23. Research by Gajendran and colleagues (2015) on remote work and job performance indicates that telework has a: a. positive relationship with task performance but a negative relationship with contextual performance. b. negative relationship with task performance but a positive relationship with contextual performance. c. negative relationship with both task performance and contextual performance. d. positive relationship with both task performance and contextual performance.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 24. Research by Gajendran and colleagues (2015) found that one reason remote work and job performance are positively related is that employees perceive that they: a. have more autonomy and work harder, especially when they have a good relationship with their supervisor. b. have less supervision and, thus, are more likely to spend time off-task. c. have less autonomy and work harder because they are concerned they will lose their jobs. d. are favored employees and feel less obligated to work hard.

ANSWER: a 25. Which of these includes examples such as graphic rating scales, behaviorally anchored rating scales, and checklists? a. rating formats b. reaction criteria c. rating errors d. critical incidents ANSWER: a 26. The oldest types of rating scales used in the evaluation of performance are known as: a. behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS). b. graphic rating scales. c. employee comparisons. d. feedforward interviews.

ANSWER: b 27. The primary disadvantages of which appraisal format is its lack of precision in its dimensions and its anchors? a. employee comparison procedure b. checklists c. behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) d. graphic rating scales ANSWER: d 28. Which rating format involves a lengthy development procedure and results in a scale with multiple actions as points along a scale? a. categorically adjusted rating scales (CARS) b. behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) c. checklists d. forced distribution ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 29. When helping to develop behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS), a bank teller writes that an example of low effectiveness would be giving a customer the wrong amount of cash during a transaction. The bank teller is giving a: a. distribution error. b. retranslation. c. critical incident. d. graphic account.

ANSWER: c 30. Which of these is NOT a step in the creation of a BARS scale? a. Participants generate a series of behavioral examples of job performance. b. SMEs identify and define job dimensions as important. c. Drop items if fewer than 80% of participants place incident in the correct dimension. d. Participants rate the social desirability of each item.

ANSWER: d 31. One drawback to the development of a behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) as an appraisal format is the: a. lack of precision in the dimensions. b. lack of precision in the anchors. c. criticism from raters and ratees. d. substantial investment of time and money.

ANSWER: d 32. Alejandro works in the HR department of an organization. Alejandro needs to implement a performance appraisal format that is easily developed and then easily used by an organization. Alejandro should use: a. behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS). b. employee comparison procedures. c. critical incidents. d. checklists.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 33. Andy is completing a performance appraisal and must choose two items from a group of four that best describe their customer service employee. The type of appraisal format that Andy is completing is a: a. graphic rating scale. b. paired comparison. c. forced-choice checklist. d. retranslation.

ANSWER: c 34. One disadvantage of a forced-choice checklist is that: a. ratings are unreliable. b. it is very difficult to design. c. raters feel they are not in control of the rating process. d. the rating process can be complex.

ANSWER: c 35. Mimi is a supervisor with three subordinates—Geeta, Shabna, and Cleo. For performance appraisal purposes, she must first equate Geeta to Shabna, then Geeta to Cleo, and finally Shabna to Cleo. This procedure is known as a: a. forced-choice checklist. b. paired comparison. c. forced distribution. d. categorically adjusted rating system (CARS).

ANSWER: b 36. One of the main disadvantages of a paired-comparison procedure is that it: a. leads to unreliable ratings. b. can lead to a tie among incumbent appraisals. c. becomes complicated when there are a large number of ratees. d. allows supervisors to rate every employee's performance as above average.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 37. Jiro, a manager at a car repair shop, must identify one-third of his mechanics as above average, one-third as average, and one-third below average. Jiro is being asked to use a: a. rank-ordered comparison. b. forced distribution. c. normal distribution. d. paired comparison.

ANSWER: b 38. A disadvantage of the forced-distribution method of evaluation is that: a. it is unpopular among raters and ratees. b. it allows too many employees to be categorized as "excellent." c. it is highly unreliable. d. administering it becomes very complex in large organizations.

ANSWER: a 39. Which method of evaluation has had several lawsuits alleging that its methods discriminate against underrepresented groups? a. forced-distribution b. employee comparison procedures c. paired comparisons d. forced-choice checklists ANSWER: a 40. One disadvantage of the forced-choice checklist method of evaluation is that: a. raters feel they have little control of the rating process. b. it allows too many employees to be categorized as "average." c. it lacks construct validity. d. it leads to mass layoffs.

ANSWER: a 41. Which statement about performance appraisal research is true? a. Paired comparisons are superior to other rating format types. b. Employee comparison methods are clearly superior to other rating format types. c. Companies often use checklists as their preferred rating format. d. Companies often use a hybrid of a graphic rating scale and a BARS. ANSWER: d

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 42. Fatima, a supervisor, rarely gets to see her employees interacting with customers, and as a result has a hard time rating them on this dimension of performance. Fatima has had difficulty in the cognitive-processing stage known as: a. observation. b. encoding. c. integration. d. retrieval.

ANSWER: a 43. Nuru is often very busy at work. When Nuru sees Nuru's employees engaging in good performance behaviors, Nuru becomes distracted before being able to commit this information into their long-term memory. Nuru has had difficulty in the cognitive-processing stage known as: a. observation. b. encoding. c. integration. d. retrieval.

ANSWER: b 44. Allison documents her subordinates' performance activities on a weekly basis. When she needs to remember how well her subordinates have been performing, she can consult her documents. In this way, Allison can avoid errors in: a. retrieval when appraising her subordinates' performance. b. integration when appraising her subordinates' performance. c. storage when appraising her subordinates' performance. d. encoding when appraising her subordinates' performance.

ANSWER: a 45. Malik is a good friend of his subordinate, Anita. He gives her higher ratings than all other employees, even though she is a below-average employee. Malik has had difficulty in the cognitive-processing stage known as: a. observation. b. encoding. c. integration. d. retrieval.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 46. When a rater relies on their global evaluation of a subordinate, they are more likely to make: a. halo errors. b. leniency errors. c. severity errors. d. central tendency errors.

ANSWER: a 47. Omari is working on a performance appraisal for his subordinate, Anaya. The questionnaire asks whether Anaya is effective at working with others. Omari doesn't have many opportunities to observe Anaya around others, but he thinks she's a good employee in general, so he rates her high on this characteristic. Omari has made which type of rating error? a. severity b. central tendency c. halo d. recency ANSWER: c 48. When Tamika rates her subordinate, Chad, she gives him all 5s. She does this because Chad is genuinely excellent on all the performance dimensions on the appraisal. Tamika's ratings represent: a. halo error. b. true halo. c. leniency. d. central tendency.

ANSWER: b 49. Juanita's average overall rating for her subordinates is 4 out of 5 on their performance appraisals. Even for poor employees, she does not go below a rating of 3. She has committed the error of: a. central tendency. b. severity. c. leniency. d. forced distribution.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 50. Which statement describes why range restriction in performance ratings is a problem for organizations? a. The ratings do not discriminate between effective and ineffective employees. b. Employees are held accountable to a standard for rating they cannot obtain. c. Employees have to engage in impression management with their superiors. d. Managers only know how their highly effective employees have performed.

ANSWER: a 51. Ekundayo finds completing performance appraisals to be exhausting, so he does not bother to spend extra time reviewing his employees' performances. Instead, he gives them all ratings of 2.5 out of 5 without differentiating between good and poor performers. Ekundayo has committed the error of: a. severity. b. halo. c. first impression. d. central tendency.

ANSWER: d 52. Raters can lose the respect of their subordinates by committing which of these errors to maintain the impression of being tough and in charge? a. primacy b. central tendency c. severity d. halo ANSWER: c 53. Jericho gives all his subordinates low ratings on their appraisals in an effort to intimidate them. Jericho is making which type of rating error? a. central tendency b. halo c. leniency d. severity ANSWER: d

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 54. Which of these is a distributional error in performance appraisal? a. inaccuracy b. central tendency c. implicit prototypes d. halo ANSWER: b 55. Usually, Casey is very friendly with customers. Last week, however, she had a bad day, and lost her temper with a customer in front of her supervisor. If her supervisor rates her poorly on customer service, that supervisor may be making which type of error? a. leniency b. severity c. recency d. primacy ANSWER: c 56. If ratings do not adequately discriminate between effective and ineffective performers: a. it suggests that the given department consists of mostly average employees. b. there will be a lower chance of range restriction. c. they will not be useful for making personnel decisions. d. employees will experience higher morale.

ANSWER: c 57. On the first day on the job, Chisato said something rude to a coworker. Since then, however, Chisato has always been polite and friendly to all coworkers. If Chisato's supervisor rates her as being impolite on a performance evaluation, that supervisor may be making which type of error? a. leniency b. recency c. primacy d. similar-to-me ANSWER: c

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 58. When raters give higher ratings to people who have the same beliefs and attitudes as theirs, it is known as the: a. just-like-me errors. b. self-enhancement errors. c. similar-to-me errors. d. self-promotion errors.

ANSWER: c 59. Madison, who is a White, conservative Catholic person, also tends to give higher ratings to other White, conservative Catholics. Madison is likely making a: a. just-like-me error. b. similarity error. c. similar-to-me error. d. self-promotion error.

ANSWER: c 60. One reason why Rater Error Training (RET) does not appear to improve rating accuracy is that: a. raters cannot avoid making rating errors. b. raters are more concerned with politics than with rating accuracy. c. true halo may be occurring. d. the training takes too much time to implement.

ANSWER: c 61. According to researchers, which approach can help improve rater accuracy, especially when paired with other training approaches? a. Feedback Environment (FE) b. Frame-of-Reference (FOR) training c. Performance Management (PM) d. Feedback Orientation (FO) ANSWER: b 62. A type of training that is focused on calibrating raters' scores to enhance their observational and categorization skills so that all raters share a common view and improves rater accuracy is known as: a. Frame-of-Reference training. b. behavioral observation training. c. Rater Error Training. d. Rater Goals and Accountability training.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 63. Raters who are going to judge student projects at a science fair have to attend several sessions at which they learn about the rating scales they will use, and they will have opportunities to view examples of good versus poor science fair projects. This type of training is known as: a. Rater Error Training. b. Rater Efficacy Training. c. Rater Goals and Accountability training. d. Frame-of-Reference training.

ANSWER: d 64. Prakash, a CEO, is concerned that his managers are purposely misusing appraisal rating scales to make it look as though their teams are very effective. Which action should Prakash take to fix the problem? a. He should use Rating Error Training. b. He should use Frame-of-Reference (FOR) training. c. He should tell managers that they will have to justify their ratings to him in a face-to-face meeting. d. He should threaten to fire any manager whose ratings are too high.

ANSWER: c 65. Holding raters accountable for their ratings are MOST effective when raters: a. must justify their ratings in a face-to-face meeting. b. must justify their ratings in writing. c. are faced with dismissal for misusing rating scales. d. attempt to maintain harmony in the workplace.

ANSWER: a 66. The social-psychological climate in which performance appraisal takes place is known as the: a. halo. b. politics. c. context. d. culture.

ANSWER: c 67. Which of these is an issue related to the social-psychological context in which performance appraisal takes place? a. pay levels b. the role of organizational strategy c. the use of critical incidences to generate BARS items d. employee participation in the appraisal process ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 68. There has been a shift in focus from researching psychometric criteria to _____ criteria when evaluating performance appraisals. a. quantitative b. reaction c. management d. proactive ANSWER: b 69. Proponents of reaction criteria for performance appraisal have suggested that worker attitudes toward performance appraisal are more important than psychometric indices because: a. psychometric indices are often biased. b. the effectiveness of a performance appraisal is limited if participants do not support its use. c. a great deal of research suggests that formal elements of the performance management process are likely to contribute to positive employee reactions. d. the mathematics behind psychometric indices of agreement are controversial.

ANSWER: b 70. Research suggests that subordinates reported less anger and higher perceptions of justice when the supervisor conducting the evaluation: a. was a woman. b. was a White person. c. provided justification for their ratings. d. used the behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS).

ANSWER: c 71. The Dunning-Kruger effect is observed when a worker is: a. so low in skills, they overestimate their ability. b. high in skills, but rates themselves low to seem humble. c. low in skills but can rate their ability accurately. d. so high in skills, they perform poorly because they are bored.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 72. Research on the Dunning-Kruger effect suggests that when confronted with their lack of skills, individuals: a. are motivated to develop and eventually improve. b. are motivated to improve but experience difficulties in actually doing so. c. are uninterested in improving and are unlikely to use feedback. d. lower their self-evaluations but use their strong emotional intelligence skills to get feedback from their subordinates.

ANSWER: c 73. Aziz is a very low-skill manager. He thinks he is actually quite a good manager. According to the Dunning-Kruger effect, how will Aziz respond when he receives feedback about his lack of management skills? a. He will be embarrassed by this feedback and will be motivated to improve. b. He will not be interested in this feedback and will not work on improving. c. He will not be hesitant to ask for additional training and recognize that his evaluations have been wrong. d. He will be motivated to improve but will be unlikely to be able to change his performance.

ANSWER: b 74. Research on the leader–member exchange (LMX) relationship has shown that employees who experienced a high level of LMX with their supervisor were rated high on performance: a. regardless of objective performance indicators. b. but they were low on objective performance indicators. c. but they were unchanged on objective performance indicators. d. but they were high on objective performance indicators.

ANSWER: a 75. If Kirsty wants to receive a high evaluation from her supervisor, which actions might she take, according to research on leader–member exchange (LMX)? a. Kirsty should work to develop a good relationship with her supervisor and also communicate with her supervisor frequently. b. Kirsty should work to develop a good relationship with her supervisor but should avoid communicating with her supervisor. c. Kirsty should focus primarily on improving her contextual performance. d. Kirsty should focus primarily on improving her maximal performance.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 76. Sefu wants a favorable appraisal from his boss, so he provides exceptional customer service whenever his boss is standing nearby. Sefu has engaged in: a. self-efficacy. b. upward appraisal. c. leader–member exchange. d. impression management.

ANSWER: d 77. Research by Rosen and Levy (2013) indicates that individuals who pay a great deal of attention to politics at work and think about them a lot demonstrate: a. higher performance. b. high levels of stress and lower performance. c. low levels of stress and positive work attitudes. d. low levels of neuroticism.

ANSWER: b 78. Research shows that ingratiation can lead to higher ratings of performance if the individual also demonstrates: a. high political skill. b. low political skill. c. high levels of rumination. d. poor leader–member exchange.

ANSWER: a 79. A study showed that raters who had low trust in the Trust in the Appraisal Process Survey (TAPS) were: a. more lenient raters than those who had higher trust. b. more severe raters than those who had higher trust. c. likely to commit fewer rating errors than those who had higher trust. d. likely to have lower discomfort in evaluating others.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 80. Research by Mayer & Davis, 1999, indicates that performance management systems that are well received by employees instill confidence in the employees about the top management, suggesting that performance management system may be an effective tool for enhancing: a. trust. b. reputation among customers. c. politics. d. feedback orientation.

ANSWER: a 81. Research by Cheng and colleagues (2017) suggested that individuals who were high on agreeableness and extraversions rated others most: a. leniently. b. harshly. c. accurately. d. reliably.

ANSWER: a 82. Research suggests that which of these is a key predictor of positive reactions to a performance appraisal system? a. age b. leniency c. participation d. tenure ANSWER: c 83. A department store manager wants to foster positive employee reactions toward its appraisal system. An I/O psychologist should suggest that the manager: a. assess personality in the employee hiring process. b. use only the low end of the rating scale when making ratings. c. base ratings on global evaluations of the employees. d. allow employees to participate in meetings to improve the rating scales.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 84. Which of these can be a key determinant for ensuring that employees feel accountable for their development? a. social support b. financial incentives c. threats d. low procedural justice ANSWER: a 85. The performance management cycle is central to employee development. Its key element is the: a. extent to which employees receive and use feedback. b. degree to which rating sources agree. c. amount of self-efficacy raters and ratees have. d. number of goals that raters have when making ratings.

ANSWER: a 86. Which of these is a part of the feedback process? a. attending to the feedback b. ignoring the feedback c. refuting the feedback d. rejecting the feedback ANSWER: a 87. Research by Kluger and DeNisi (1996) indicated that nearly one-third of studies on feedback found that: a. feedback had a negative effect on performance. b. participants were excited about developing their skills. c. companies rely on executive coaches to deliver feedback. d. participants had not received any feedback at work.

ANSWER: a 88. Recent research on feedback environment and feedback orientation suggests that having a favorable feedback environment is: a. helpful for all employees. b. helpful only if an employee doesn't value feedback. c. helpful only if an employee values feedback. d. not helpful for employees.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 89. According to research conducted by Werner and Bolino (1997), which action should an organization take to help improve their ability to win a court case regarding their appraisal process? a. The organization should use only graphic rating scales. b. The organization should conduct a job analysis to help them design their appraisal system. c. Employees should be disallowed from reviewing their appraisals. d. The organization should avoid training their raters on how to use a scale.

ANSWER: b 90. The due process approach of performance appraisal emphasizes: a. the accuracy of rating. b. the judgments based on evidence. c. written instructions for rating behavior. d. the type of rating format used.

ANSWER: b 91. The system where an employee sets goals, receives continuous coaching and feedback from manager, is appraised on their performance, focuses on goal setting with manager, and works with them on development planning is known as: a. Frame-of-Performance training. b. Rater Error Training. c. critical incidents. d. performance management.

ANSWER: d 92. A one-on-one collaborative relationship, in which a manager, peer, or trained professional provides performancerelated guidance to an employee is known as: a. Frame-of-Reference training. b. coaching. c. critical incidence. d. upward appraisal.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 93. Which of these is a significant purpose of performance appraisal? a. determining whether an employee deserves a promotion b. identifying which employees are most stressed c. identifying disgruntled employees to avoid them starting a push for unionization d. gauging an employee's interest in a training program ANSWER: a 94. Which is NOT a main purpose of performance appraisal? a. Informing employees of their strengths and weaknesses. b. Identifying an effective way to motivate employees throughout the organization. c. Using information to make personnel decisions, such as layoffs. d. Documenting employee behavior to have a legal defense for personnel decisions.

ANSWER: b 95. Which of these is an example of using performance appraisal for a personnel decision? a. providing a job candidate with their scores on a test b. choosing which employees to promote c. providing documentation to justify why a certain employee receives a raise d. providing an employee with a list of their strengths ANSWER: b 96. Which of these is an example of using performance appraisal for a documentation purpose? a. choosing which employees to lay off b. choosing which employees to train c. recording why a certain employee receives a promotion d. providing an employee with a list of their weaknesses ANSWER: c 97. Which is NOT an assumption of 360-degree feedback? a. Participants are happier because they are involved in the feedback process. b. It is more accurate than other types of feedback. c. It prevents a single, biased rater from strongly affecting the results of the feedback. d. It provides a broader and accurate view of performance.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 98. According to Campion and team (2019), which is NOT a recommendation for implementing 360-degree feedback? a. Be honest about how the ratings will be used. b. Help employees interpret and deal with the ratings. c. Avoid presenting too much information to ratees. d. Do not allow raters to leave their feedback anonymously.

ANSWER: d 99. One difficulty with conducting performance evaluations is that managers tend to rely on direct performance information and overlook indirect performance information. Which would be an example of indirect performance information in a remote work context? a. The remote employee being present during an online meeting. b. Reading a remote employee's report on market changes. c. Hearing from a customer that a remote employee has not been answering their phone. d. Meeting with a remote employee one-on-one over the phone to discuss a problem.

ANSWER: c 100. One difficulty with conducting performance evaluations is that managers tend to rely on direct performance information and overlook indirect performance information. Which would be an example of direct performance information in a telework context? a. The remote employee being present during an online meeting. b. Hearing a colleague mention that a remote employee wrote an excellent report. c. Hearing from a customer that a remote employee has not been answering their phone. d. Learning from a team member that the remote employee worked late into the night to solve a problem.

ANSWER: a 101. Research suggests that teleworking is associated with higher performance ratings when the relationship between the manager and the subordinate is: a. positive. b. negative. c. neutral. d. nonexistent.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 102. "Follows most procedures but occasionally skips steps" might be an anchor on which type of rating scale? a. a graphic rating scale b. a behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) c. a checklist d. a forced distribution ANSWER: b 103. "Excellent" might be an anchor on which type of rating scale? a. a graphic rating scale b. a forced distribution c. a checklist d. a behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) ANSWER: a 104. Danae is completing a performance appraisal by using a checklist. Items on this checklist are worth different points—positive for effective behaviors and negative for ineffective behaviors. The type of checklist Danae is using is known as a: a. weighted checklist. b. paired-comparison checklist. c. forced-choice checklist. d. iterative checklist.

ANSWER: a 105. The type of rating format that is fairly easy to develop and administer is: a. the behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS). b. the computerized adaptive rating scale (CARS). c. graphic rating scales. d. employee comparison methods.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 106. Dominique spends some time each month reviewing her notes on each employees' performance. This way, she is sure to remember all the important information about each employee. This also ensures that she will remember what behaviors go with which employee. In this way, Dominique can avoid errors in: a. encoding when appraising her subordinates' performance. b. integration when appraising her subordinates' performance. c. storing when appraising her subordinates' performance. d. observing when appraising her subordinates' performance.

ANSWER: c 107. If a manager tends to remember their first impressions of an employee and uses that first impression to guide their ratings, which error are they making? a. primacy b. recency c. severity d. similar-to-me ANSWER: a 108. If a manager tends to remember what their employee did within the last week and uses that information to guide their ratings, which error are they making? a. primacy b. similar-to-me c. severity d. recency ANSWER: d 109. Thanh, who is an immigrant from Vietnam also tends to give higher ratings to other Vietnamese employees. Thanh is making a(n): a. similar-to-me error. b. halo error. c. recency error. d. primacy effect error.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 110. Catalina is having her managers use a new rating scale to evaluate employees. Before using this scale, she has her managers attend several sessions where they can learn about the new scale and practice rating example employee behaviors so they all understand how to use the scale. This type of training is known as: a. Rater Error Training. b. Rater Efficacy Training. c. State-of-Mind training. d. Frame-of-Reference training.

ANSWER: d 111. Raters who are going to judge research grants have to attend several sessions at which they learn about the rating scales they will use, and they will have opportunities to view examples of good versus poor grant applications.

This type of training is known as: a. Frame-of-Reference training. b. Rater Efficacy Training. c. Retranslation Training. d. Rater Error Training.

ANSWER: a 112. Igor can't stand his boss but compliments and flatters them in order to get the boss to like him. This is an example of: a. self-efficacy. b. impression management. c. leader–member exchange. d. downward appraisal.

ANSWER: b 113. Which of these describes implicit person theory (IPT)? a. The extent to which a supervisor believes someone is politically motivated in their behavior. b. The extent to which a supervisor believes someone can change in response to feedback. c. The concept that people who are good at one skill tend to be good at many other skills due to natural talent. d. The concept that people are motivated to do well at their work and will thrive if given autonomy.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 114. Performance data from wearable technology is: a. objective. b. subjective. c. biased. d. inaccurate.

ANSWER: a 115. Liat works remotely and has a boss that gathers information from those who work directly with Liat and reviews documentation of the work. Liat's boss relies on which type of interactions to measure Liat's performance? a. on-the-job observations b. wearable device data c. indirect actions d. direct actions ANSWER: c 116. When evaluating performance for remote workers, organizations should consider: a. assumptions of time spent working. b. personal feelings about remote work. c. home office setup appearance. d. appropriate, accurate, and objective data.

ANSWER: d 117. Research by Shimura and colleagues (2021) found that when jobs that can be done remotely, partial remote work (or hybrid work) is more effective than: a. full-time remote work only. b. full-time office work only. c. both full-time remote work and full-time office work. d. flexible working arrangements.

ANSWER: c 118. Which of these does NOT impact remote work? a. manager–employee relationships b. distractions at home c. performance management d. home office setup ANSWER: c

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 119. Elena is asked to provide ratings of her direct manager. Which type of rating is this? a. self-rating b. upward appraisal rating c. graphic rating scale d. behaviorally anchored rating scale ANSWER: b 120. Werner and Bolino researched court of appeals decisions related to performance appraisal. Which of these factors did NOT impact the judgment made for the defendant (the organization)? a. if a job analysis was used b. if written instructions regarding the appraisal process was provided c. if the rating format was BARs versus graphic rating scales d. if employees were provided an opportunity to review their appraisal ANSWER: c

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Chapter 6 - Essay 1. If an organization hired an individual to develop a set of predictors for selecting employees, what steps should this individual take?

ANSWER: Responses will vary. Students should note starting with a job analysis to identify necessary KSAOs and then might discuss constructs (e.g., personality) or formats (e.g., structured interviews or valid assessments) to collect information and make decisions.

2. Discuss the main differences between speed and power tests. Describe a situation where it is preferable to use a speed test rather than a power test and explain the reasons for choosing that particular test.

ANSWER: Speed tests consist of easy items that are timed and are typically not expected to be completed fully.

Power tests are untimed and tend to be more difficult. For example, for a college test, you want a student to complete all items. For a typing test, you want to see the amount of words per minute that can be produced. Examples and justifications will vary.

3. What is a performance test? Provide an example of how one might use performance tests to select for a job as a police officer.

ANSWER: Performance tests involve manipulations of an object or piece of equipment. Examples for a police officer might include a target shooting test, a running test, or a driving test.

4. Identify and describe the three types of specific cognitive ability tests. For each ability test, identify a job that would benefit from having the test as a predictor of job performance.

ANSWER: Mechanical (mechanical knowledge and comprehension, and recognition of tools used for various purposes), spatial (geometric relations), and clerical (perceptual speed and accuracy in processing verbal and numerical data). Examples will vary.

5. What is incremental validity? What might be two tests one would use in a selection battery that would provide a high level of incremental validity?

ANSWER: feedback: Incremental validity is how much a selection battery's validity increases with an additional predictor. Suggestions may vary; motivation, working memory, and different dimensions of "biodata."

6. What is emotional intelligence? What does research on this predictor tell us in regard to its usefulness in selection?

ANSWER: Emotional intelligence is the ability to deal effectively with one's own emotions and the emotions of others. It seems to be an important predictor of performance.

7. What is the Purdue Pegboard? For what jobs might it be helpful in selecting appropriate candidates?

ANSWER: The Purdue Pegboard is a psychomotor test. It is helpful in selecting for jobs where an employee's ability to make controlled movements with their hands, arms, and finger tips is important (e.g., manufacturing).

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Chapter 6 - Essay 8. What are the five dimensions that make up the Big Five model of personality? What is an example behavior of someone who is high on each dimension?

ANSWER: Openness to experience (interest in abstract ideas), conscientiousness (prepared and detail-oriented), extraversion (start conversations), agreeableness (take interest in others), and neuroticism (get stressed out easily). Examples will vary.

9. What is the current debate in the research literature on faking?

ANSWER: The debate is about whether faking matters. Some research suggests that faking affects the rank order of candidates, while other researchers found that faking did not affect scores.

10. Identify and define the two types of integrity tests. What does research say about the validity of integrity tests?

ANSWER: Overt tests, which explicitly ask applicants about their attitudes and thoughts about unethical behavior, and personality type, which use personality constructs such as emotional stability to predict unethical behavior. Research shows some support for the use of these tests to predict performance—it appears to be more useful for predicting counterproductive work behavior than it is for job performance.

11. Which two tools should one use in the selection process at a company? Why? ANSWER: Responses will vary. The tests that have the highest validity are cognitive ability, work samples, structured interviews, and assessment centers.

12. Describe what is involved in an assessment center. Who? What? For how long?

ANSWER: Candidates participate in a number of exercises, and a team of assessors rate them. The overall assessment can last anywhere from a few hours to several days.

13. What are two common exercises in an assessment center? Briefly describe each type of exercise.

ANSWER: In-basket (a scenario in which the candidate must act as a manager and respond to memos, e-mails, or similar materials); leaderless group discussion (LGD; a group exercise in which the candidate must interact with other candidates to solve a problem).

14. Compare and contrast an application blank and biodata. How can they both be defended as valid predictors of on-the-job performance?

ANSWER: Application blanks are forms that ask information about education, work experience, and other historical data. Biodata tend to be obtained in biographical information blanks (BIBs) that assess hobbies, family history, and interests. Both are valid predictors since they capture relevant information about a candidate's background and experiences that are directly linked to job performance.

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Chapter 6 - Essay 15. An employer is selecting among applicants for two positions for a trucking company: a truck driver and someone who manually loads boxes onto the truck. How should the selection process differ for the two positions?

ANSWER: Answers should indicate that the jobs are different, and thus require KSAOs. Suggestions will vary; a driver is more likely to need vision tests or driving tests, while loaders might need to show by a physical test that they can lift boxes of the required weight.

16. Between unstructured and structured interviews, which is better for selecting appropriate candidates and why?

ANSWER: Structured interviews are better as they are more valid and more legally defensible.

17. What are realistic job previews (RJPs)? What is their role in personnel selection?

ANSWER: RJPs are accurate glimpses of what the job would actually be like. This can help applicants get a better sense of whether they have the abilities to perform the job and interest in it.

18. Compare and contrast situational interview questions and behavioral description interview questions, and provide an example of each.

ANSWER: Situational interviews are about future behavior (What would you do if . . .). Behavioral interviews are about past behavior (Tell me about a time when you . . .).

19. Explain how interviews can provide applicants with a realistic job preview (RJP).

ANSWER: RJPs are accurate glimpses of what the job would actually be like. Interviews allow applicants to get a sense of the job and the culture of an organization.

20. Provide an example of an illegal interview question. Why is it illegal? What might be a way to reword the question to make it more appropriate?

ANSWER: Responses will vary. Questions about arrest records, disabilities, citizenship, parental status, mental health, age, diseases, or prescription drug use are all illegal. Removing these factors will make the question more appropriate.

21. The textbook discusses how computer technology has been applied to paper-and-pencil tests by allowing either online tests or mobile device tests. What is one advantage and one disadvantage of using an online/mobile test instead of a traditional paper-and-pencil test?

ANSWER: Advantages include lower cost and more convenience for the test taker. Disadvantages include concerns about cheating (especially if a company is not using a proctor) and test takers getting lower scores due to inexperience with technology, or not ensuring they have a quiet, distraction-free testing environment.

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 1. A systematic procedure for observing behavior and describing it with the aid of numerical scales or fixed categories is known as a(n): a. inventory. b. test. c. prediction. d. criterion.

ANSWER: b 2. The first step in selecting or developing predictors is: a. job analysis. b. validity analysis. c. performance appraisal. d. realistic job preview.

ANSWER: a 3. An HR manager wants to know the psychometric properties of a particular selection test as well as the costs and time involved in administering it. Which resource should they use? a. Wechsler Inventory Book b. Educational Testing Services Guidelines c. Mental Measurements Yearbook d. Personnel Measurements Guide ANSWER: c 4. If Fabricia does well on the first set of questions on the GRE, she will receive more difficult questions in the next set. If she does poorly on those first questions, she will receive easier questions. This type of testing is known as: a. flexible testing. b. testing accommodations. c. computer adaptive testing. d. calibrated testing.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 5. When Sumire applies for the job of store cashier, she is given a test that involves answering 150 simple addition and subtraction items. She is told to answer as many of the questions as she can in 10 minutes. The type of test that Sumire is taking is a: a. power test. b. speed test. c. performance test. d. psychomotor test.

ANSWER: b 6. One of the benefits of computer adaptive testing is that: a. the test adjusts the difficulty according to test taker's responses, which allows quick assessment of their ability level. b. the test requires that applicants have knowledge of how to use computer programs, which is likely to be job-relevant. c. the text sizes are large, which makes it easier for older applicants to complete the test. d. it is very cheap and easy to develop.

ANSWER: a 7. Which test contains relatively easy items that must be taken within a short amount of time? a. psychomotor b. speed c. performance d. power ANSWER: b 8. Which test contains relatively difficult items, but has no set time limit for completion? a. power b. speed c. performance d. psychomotor ANSWER: a

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 9. In most college exams, students are given difficult multiple choice or essay questions and have adequate time to complete those questions. These tests would be categorized as: a. integrity tests. b. speed tests. c. power tests. d. psychomotor tests.

ANSWER: c 10. Sifa is a candidate for a nursing job. They are asked to complete a test that includes items that tap medical knowledge, but they are not given any particular time limit within which to complete the test. Sifa is likely taking a(n): a. ability test. b. performance test. c. speed test. d. power test.

ANSWER: d 11. Which of these is a drawback of using individual tests for selection? a. The items are difficult and there is no fixed time limit for administration. b. They can be used only for lower-level employees and there is no validity evidence. c. They have a long administration time and need to be scored by an expert. d. They are easy to fake and the results are not relevant outside the United States.

ANSWER: c 12. Isiah has created a job posting and has received over 100 applications. Isiah wants to save costs and test many applicants at the same time. Which test will Isiah use? a. group tests b. individual tests c. WAIS-IV d. WISC-V ANSWER: a

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 13. Tests that require the manipulation of an object or a piece of equipment and include demonstration of manual dexterity and psychomotor skills are referred to as: a. performance tests. b. individual tests. c. power tests. d. speed tests.

ANSWER: a 14. Niral has to participate in a test during which they have to demonstrate that they can use a forklift correctly. This type of test is known as a(n): a. procedural test. b. performance test. c. dexterity test. d. adaptive test.

ANSWER: b 15. Dasha is applying to work in a factory. One of the tasks she must complete during the selection process is to place a certain number of washers onto a pegboard in a short amount of time. This test is intended to assess whether she has the manual dexterity to do the assembly work in the factory. One would consider this test to be a(n): a. integrity test. b. psychometric test. c. power test. d. performance test.

ANSWER: d 16. Milla is applying to work as a firefighter. During the selection process, she must successfully put out a small, controlled flame using a fire extinguisher. This fire extinguisher test would be described as a: a. speed test. b. performance test. c. power test. d. psychometric test.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 17. Research by Arthur and colleagues (2014) that compared taking an unproctored test on a mobile phone versus a nonmobile device found that: a. individuals who took the test on the mobile phone outperformed those who took it on a computer. b. both groups were generally similar, although taking the test on the mobile phone took less time. c. individuals who took the test on the mobile device had lower cognitive ability scores and took longer to complete the test. d. most individuals who took the test on the mobile device were unable to complete the test because of technology issues.

ANSWER: c 18. Taci finds a correlation between a manual dexterity test and performance of .30. She squares this value and obtains a value of .09. This value of .09 represents the: a. performance coefficient. b. validity coefficient. c. coefficient of determination. d. coefficient of agreement.

ANSWER: c 19. Which of these is important because predictors are used as proxies for real performance? a. Content validity b. Criterion-related validity c. Ecological validity d. Reliability ANSWER: b 20. The index of the relationship between a predictor and a criterion is known as a: a. performance coefficient. b. validity coefficient. c. mode. d. squared criterion.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 21. An I/O psychologist finds that 20% of the variance in a criterion is accounted for by the predictor. This value represents the: a. validity coefficient. b. validity correlation. c. coefficient of determination. d. criteria coefficient.

ANSWER: c 22. If a test has a validity coefficient of .50, the coefficient of determination is: a. 1.00. b. .25. c. .50. d. 2.50.

ANSWER: b 23. Jerika has to choose among four different ability tests. Which of these tests have the highest validity? a. a test with a validity coefficient of .10 b. a test with a validity coefficient of .30 c. a test with a coefficient of determination of .10 d. a test with a coefficient of determination of .00 ANSWER: c 24. Which of these tests assesses an individual's general intelligence? a. cognitive ability b. mechanical ability c. personality d. emotional intelligence ANSWER: a 25. Maaza finds a correlation between a personality test and job performance that equals .29. She has found the: a. performance coefficient. b. validity coefficient. c. coefficient of determination. d. cognitive ability coefficient.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 26. There are two main types of intelligence tests: a. emotional intelligence and practical intelligence. b. Project Alpha and Project Beta. c. general cognitive ability and specific cognitive ability. d. speed tests and power tests.

ANSWER: c 27. Kaimana is the HR director for a professional sports team. They are looking for a test that measures general cognitive ability. Which of these would meet Kaimana's needs? a. Mental Measurements Test b. Test of Mechanical Concepts c. Purdue Pegboard test d. Wonderlic Personnel Test ANSWER: d 28. A meta-analysis by Hunter and Hunter (1984) found a validity coefficient between general cognitive ability and performance to be .5. A meta-analysis by Sacket et al (2022) found that measures for general cognitive ability had a validity coefficient of .31. Which of these describes the validity coefficients for general cognitive ability? a. validity coefficients for cognitive ability are higher than previously thought b. validity coefficients for cognitive ability are lower than previously thought c. 31% of the performance variance in people can be predicted by measures of general cognitive ability d. 25% of the performance variance in people can be predicted by measures of general cognitive ability ANSWER: b 29. Devraj administers the Wonderlic Personnel Test, a test that is intended to assess someone's overall capacity to learn. This test is known as a: a. general cognitive ability test. b. specific cognitive ability test. c. general performance test. d. specific performance test.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 30. The Minnesota Clerical Test is an example of a(n): a. specific cognitive ability test. b. mechanical ability test. c. general cognitive ability test. d. emotional intelligence test.

ANSWER: a 31. Research by Song and colleagues has suggested that emotional intelligence predicts social interactions, while general cognitive ability predicts: a. academic performance. b. social performance. c. performance on speed tests. d. performance on power tests.

ANSWER: a 32. Some researchers are looking for other predictors to help account for a greater percentage of criterion variance than what is accounted for by general cognitive ability. Their goal is to demonstrate: a. incremental validity. b. content validity. c. construct validity. d. reliability.

ANSWER: a 33. Which type of test taps the recognition of tools for various purposes? a. personality b. psychomotor c. spatial ability d. mechanical ability ANSWER: d 34. Anara administers a spatial ability test, a test in which individuals are asked to look at an object, mentally rotate it, and from several options identify the image that matches the first object. Anara is using a: a. general cognitive ability test. b. specific cognitive ability test. c. general performance test. d. specific performance test.

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 35. Ilesha administers a mechanical ability test, a test in which individuals are asked to examine an image of gears and identify in which direction a certain gear should rotate if another gear is turned. Ilesha is administering a: a. general cognitive ability test. b. specific cognitive ability test. c. performance test. d. psychomotor test.

ANSWER: b 36. The Purdue Pegboard test is an example of a: a. performance test. b. emotional intelligence test. c. psychomotor test. d. specific ability test.

ANSWER: c 37. Aakil administers a test in which an applicant compares two lists of words and numbers and circles any instances where the pairs do not match. Aakil is administering a: a. mechanical ability test. b. special ability test. c. clerical ability test. d. general cognitive ability test.

ANSWER: c 38. A candidate for the job of architect is asked to take a test that requires them to mentally rotate a threedimensional figure. This test is tapping: a. mechanical test. b. spatial test. c. clerical test. d. general cognitive test.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 39. Adanna wants to hire a bookkeeper and needs to find someone with excellent perceptual speed and accuracy in processing verbal and numerical data. The suitable test for Adanna's use is a: a. mechanical ability test. b. spatial ability test. c. clerical ability test. d. psychomotor test.

ANSWER: c 40. A study conducted by Rode and colleagues (2007) found that emotional intelligence predicted college GPA, public speaking effectiveness, and group performance if the student was also: a. high in specific cognitive ability. b. conscientious. c. popular. d. attractive.

ANSWER: b 41. Ahanu scores highly on measures indicating that he can recognize, express, understand, and evaluate his own and others' emotional stability. Which construct has Ahanu scored highly on? a. openness to experience b. emotional intelligence c. conscientiousness d. citizenship behavior ANSWER: b 42. An individual with high emotional intelligence can understand their own emotions and feelings but can also: a. perceive and understand the emotions of others. b. use their own emotions to manipulate others. c. have trouble regulating their emotions because the emotions are so strong. d. be extremely conscientious.

ANSWER: a 43. An individual with high emotional intelligence: a. cannot understand others' emotions. b. can only perform in groups. c. cannot regulate their emotions because they are so strong. d. can understand and deal with their own emotions.

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 44. Which type of test would be used to evaluate the sensory abilities of a candidate for fighter pilot training? a. psychomotor b. emotional intelligence c. speed d. power ANSWER: a 45. In order to get a job in a toy factory, Suresh has to manipulate pegs, washers, and collars around a pegboard as quickly as he can. This test is an example of a: a. power test. b. psychomotor test. c. general ability test. d. specific ability test.

ANSWER: b 46. Azul wants to select applicants based on their predisposition to be dependable and hardworking across situations. Which selection test should they use for this purpose? a. personality b. emotional intelligence c. general cognitive ability d. integrity ANSWER: a 47. Which of these is a Big Five personality factor? a. conscientiousness b. adaptability c. tolerance d. psychoticism ANSWER: a 48. Which personality predictors have received the most research attention and are reported to be the strongest predictors of job performance? a. neuroticism and emotional intelligence b. agreeableness and adaptability c. conscientiousness and emotional stability d. extraversion and openness to experience ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 49. Items such as "I am the life of the party" and "I start conversations" measure which Big Five personality trait? a. neuroticism b. conscientiousness c. agreeableness d. extraversion ANSWER: d 50. Items such as "I am interested in other people" and "I take time for others" measure which Big Five personality trait? a. neuroticism b. conscientiousness c. agreeableness d. openness to experience ANSWER: c 51. Items such as "I am always prepared" and "I pay attention to details" measure which Big Five personality trait? a. openness to experience b. conscientiousness c. agreeableness d. extraversion ANSWER: b 52. Items such as "I get stressed out easily" and "I worry about things" measure which Big Five personality trait? a. neuroticism b. openness to experience c. agreeableness d. extraversion ANSWER: a 53. Items such as "I spend time reflecting on things" and "I am quick to understand things" measure which Big Five personality trait? a. openness to experience b. conscientiousness c. agreeableness d. extraversion ANSWER: a

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 54. One of the main concerns researchers have with using personality tests in selection contexts is: a. the length of time needed to evaluate candidates' responses. b. that high-quality empirical research to support their use has been slow to develop. c. the expense involved in purchasing personality questionnaires. d. the potential for applicants to fake their responses.

ANSWER: d 55. Research has suggested that measuring which of these might be one way to identify faking on personality tests? a. eye movements b. sweating c. heart rate d. blood pressure ANSWER: a 56. Which of these explains why integrity tests have taken a more important role in selection? a. passage of the Employee Polygraph Protection Act b. research indicating that job candidates engage in faking behavior c. increasing rates of counterproductive behavior in the workplace d. an increasing number of arrests for white-collar crimes in the United States ANSWER: a 57. There are two types of integrity tests: the overt integrity test and the: a. covert integrity test. b. personality-type integrity test. c. situational judgment integrity test. d. specific morals integrity test.

ANSWER: b 58. Integrity tests attempt to predict whether an employee will engage in: a. productive or honest work-related behaviors b. counterproductive or dishonest work-related behaviors c. organizational citizenship behaviors d. political behaviors ANSWER: b

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 59. On one selection test, Malia encounters a question that asks whether she has ever stolen from a previous employer. This item is testing Malia's: a. overt integrity. b. covert integrity. c. personality-type integrity. d. emotional intelligence.

ANSWER: a 60. An organization hires Lisette to develop a two-predictor selection system that will account for the greatest variance in job performance. She has identified general cognitive ability as one predictor. To demonstrate the greatest incremental validity she should choose: a. integrity tests. b. unstructured interviews. c. application blanks. d. realistic job previews.

ANSWER: a 61. On a selection test, Dorjee encounters questions about whether he enjoys risk taking, whether he is responsible, and whether he is ever dishonest. These items are testing Dorjee's: a. overt integrity. b. personality-type integrity. c. emotional intelligence. d. general cognitive ability.

ANSWER: b 62. One issue with some of the evidence linking integrity tests to relevant performance criteria is that: a. it is impossible to conduct an experiment on integrity tests. b. studies conducted by integrity test publishers demonstrate higher validity coefficients than found in studies conducted by independent researchers. c. there are currently no available meta-analyses examining integrity test data. d. two meta-analyses have demonstrated no relationship between integrity tests and counterproductive work behavior.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 63. Research on integrity tests found relatively large coefficients for predicting counterproductive work behavior, and small coefficients for: a. situational judgment. b. citizenship behavior. c. job performance. d. personality.

ANSWER: c 64. A potential concern about using integrity tests is that: a. they are illegal in some states. b. they are vulnerable to faking. c. high-quality applicants are often screened out by them. d. they show no reliable relationship to useful criterion.

ANSWER: b 65. Selection tests that attempt to duplicate performance criterion measures and use them as predictors are known as: a. psychomotor tests. b. work sample tests. c. mechanical ability tests. d. biodata.

ANSWER: b 66. Idiris is applying for the job as a filing clerk. On one selection test, he is required to correctly file 15 files in alphabetical order. This activity is basically what Idiris will be doing on the job if he is selected. The test he has taken is a: a. psychomotor test. b. work sample test. c. mechanical ability test. d. biodata measure.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 67. Evrim is applying for a college professor position. As part of the selection process, they must present a mock lecture in front of the college faculty. This type of selection technique is known as a: a. biodata test. b. cognitive ability test. c. work sample test. d. situational judgment test.

ANSWER: c 68. Which statement about situational judgment tests (SJTs) is true? a. They predict behavior beyond what is predicted by cognitive ability and personality predictors. b. They are more valid when presented in paper-and-pencil form. c. They are less valid when based on a job analysis. d. They fail to predict contextual performance.

ANSWER: a 69. Mandla is a candidate for the job of store security guard. He watches a videotaped scenario of an attempted store theft and is then given four alternatives for how to respond to the theft. The type of test that Mandla is taking is a: a. situational judgment test. b. mechanical ability test. c. biodata test. d. power test.

ANSWER: a 70. Which statement about work samples is true? a. They are valid predictors of job performance. b. Most applicants believe the tests lack face validity. c. They demonstrate a strong bias against younger applicants. d. They demonstrate poor criterion-related validity.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 71. A company uses both personality and cognitive ability tests to select job candidates. It would like to add another predictor to explain additional variance in job performance. One should advise the company to use a(n): a. integrity test. b. emotional intelligence test. c. situational judgment test (SJT). d. bibliographical information blank (BIB).

ANSWER: c 72. A test in which an applicant is presented with an event (e.g., seeing a customer stealing merchandise) and is asked to select a response that best describes how they would respond to that event (e.g., ignoring it, reporting it to a manager, confronting the customer) is known as a: a. general ability test. b. situational judgment test. c. clerical ability test. d. biodata measure.

ANSWER: b 73. Which of these is typically part of an assessment center? a. multiple exercises b. integrity tests c. psychomotor tests d. coworker ratings ANSWER: a 74. Arun takes part in a selection session in which he completes an in-basket and a leaderless group discussion. This selection tool is a(n): a. situational judgment test. b. biodata test. c. interview. d. assessment center.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 75. An assessment center is a(n): a. selection method. b. place in a consulting firm. c. statistical technique. d. organizational descriptor.

ANSWER: a 76. Research has shown that the validity coefficient for assessment centers is: a. weak. b. strong. c. negative. d. not predictive.

ANSWER: b 77. The purpose of administering an in-basket as part of an assessment center is to: a. evaluate an applicant in a situation similar to what they would experience on the job. b. observe an applicant when no leader is assigned to a group. c. measure the predominant personality characteristics of an applicant. d. evaluate how an applicant handles an ambiguous situation with no clear instructions.

ANSWER: a 78. During an assessment center, an applicant receives a scenario in which he is asked to take on the role of a manager. He receives several e-mails, memos, and scheduling requests from his subordinates and is asked to respond to these items. What assessment center exercise is being described here? a. a leaderless group discussion b. an in-basket c. a case study d. an interview ANSWER: b

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 79. During an assessment center, an applicant must pretend to be a manager in a cosmetics company. He joins five other applicants in a conference room, and together, they learn that one of their makeup products is defective, and they must solve the problem. What assessment center exercise is being described here? a. a leaderless group discussion b. an in-basket c. a case study d. an interview ANSWER: a 80. Which of these is typically part of a leaderless group discussion? a. a small group of applicants b. psychomotor tests c. an unlimited amount of time for the exercise d. integrity tests ANSWER: a 81. Which of these dimensions is typically rated in a leaderless group discussion? a. physical disability b. listening skills c. mental health d. deviance ANSWER: b 82. Which of these requests historical information such as educational background, work history, job-relevant experience, and the names and addresses of previous employers? a. An in-basket b. An application blank c. A work sample d. An individual test ANSWER: b 83. One problem with using application blanks as part of the selection process is that: a. questions are often ambiguous and confusing to applicants. b. questions are often illegal. c. organizations use generic application blanks, which leaves them at risk for legal action. d. organizations rarely have the time to comb through information provided in the application blank.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 84. An applicant for a customer service job completed a questionnaire in which these questions were among those asked: "To what extent would your friends describe you as sympathetic?" and "When you feel strongly about something, how easily can you persuade others to see your point of view?" Which test did the applicant take? a. in-basket test b. integrity test c. speed test d. biodata test ANSWER: d 85. Which question would be considered legally appropriate to ask in a job interview? a. Do you plan on having children? b. How many days were you absent from work due to illness in the past year? c. Have you ever been arrested? d. Are you eligible to work in the United States?

ANSWER: d 86. One way in which Biographical Information Blanks (BIBs) differ from application blanks is that BIBs: a. require narrative responses. b. contain very few (less than 10) questions. c. ask very specific work-related questions. d. ask questions that cover broad areas.

ANSWER: d 87. What are the two major types of job interviews? a. individual and group b. individual and panel c. structured and unstructured d. overt and covert ANSWER: c 88. Ashanti has interviewed two different people. For the first applicant, she asked about strengths and weaknesses; for the second applicant, she asked about interests and experiences. In these cases, Ashanti has conducted: a. illegal interviews. b. formal interviews. c. structured interviews. d. unstructured interviews.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 89. While conducting interviews, Tui always asks all applicants the exact same questions. Tui has conducted a(n): a. standardized interview. b. structured interview. c. unstructured interview. d. unstandardized interview.

ANSWER: b 90. According to research, the most valid type of interview is a(n): a. structured interview. b. unstructured interview. c. realistic interview. d. global interview.

ANSWER: a 91. Recent research on interviews suggests that: a. interviews are not affected by nonverbal factors such as physical attractiveness. b. interviews are free from rating biases such as halo error and similarity effects. c. structured interviews are better predictors of job performance than unstructured interviews. d. interviewers can predict when individuals will be hired 94% of the time.

ANSWER: c 92. An interviewer says, "Tell me about a time when you had a conflict with a coworker." This would be an example of a(n): a. unstandardized interview. b. reflective interview. c. situational interview. d. behavior interview.

ANSWER: d 93. An interviewer asks, "Imagine you disagree with a decision your supervisor has made. What would you do?" This would be an example of a(n): a. unstandardized interview. b. prescriptive interview. c. situational interview. d. behavior interview.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 94. Asking applicants about future behavior occurs in a: a. retrospective interview. b. prospective interview. c. situational interview. d. behavior interview.

ANSWER: c 95. "Tell me about a time you came up with a creative idea" is an example of what type of interview question? "What would you do if you realized you made a mistake?" is an example of what other type of interview question? a. situational; behavior description b. behavior; situational c. structured; unstructured d. unstructured; structured ANSWER: b 96. Even though interviews have fairly low criterion-related validity, including them in a selection system is helpful because: a. it is necessary to be able to legally defend a selection system. b. it provides applicants with a realistic job preview. c. it demonstrates no bias against minoritized members. d. low performers tend to dislike interviews, so including them can help to make the applicant pool smaller.

ANSWER: b 97. What is a variable that is used to forecast a criterion, and might include data, test results, or prior work performance? a. an inventory b. an assessment center c. a predictor d. a situational judgment test ANSWER: c 98. In computer adaptive testing, if a test taker answers a question correctly, the next question will be: a. easier. b. more difficult. c. the same difficulty. d. identical to the question that was just asked.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 99. When Aisha applies for the job of receptionist, she is given a test that involves identifying spelling errors in a list of words. She is told to identify as many mistakes as she can within 2 minutes. The type of test that Aisha is taking is a: a. psychomotor test. b. power test. c. performance test. d. speed test.

ANSWER: d 100. Henrik, who is applying for a receptionist position, has to type up an example memo without making any typing mistakes. Because this test replicates something he will likely do on the job, this is an example of a(n): a. performance test. b. psychomotor test. c. integrity test. d. psychometric test.

ANSWER: a 101. Mufaddal is applying to work on an assembly line. One of the tasks he must complete during the selection process is to turn a series of pegs as quickly as possible. This test is intended to assess whether he has the manual dexterity to do the assembly work in the factory. One would consider this test to be a(n): a. integrity test. b. psychometric test. c. performance test. d. plyometric test.

ANSWER: c 102. Guntram finds a correlation of .25 between a typing test and job performance. This value of .25 represents the: a. performance coefficient. b. validity coefficient. c. coefficient of determination. d. coefficient of agreement.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 103. If a test has a validity coefficient of .30, the coefficient of determination is: a. .90 b. .60 c. .09 d. .06 ANSWER: c 104. Yasmin administers a cognitive ability test and sees that it explains 20% of job performance. However, she also finds that if she administers a personality test, that test explains an additional 3% of variance. That additional 3% of variance explained is known as: a. general validity. b. specific validity. c. incremental validity. d. redundant validity.

ANSWER: c 105. Matheus is completing a cognitive ability test. It contains items where he needs to know vocabulary words, how to complete a pattern of numbers and identify which months have 31 days in them. This is a test of: a. general cognitive ability. b. specific cognitive ability. c. incremental cognitive ability. d. creative cognitive ability.

ANSWER: a 106. Nekesa is completing a cognitive ability test for a clerical job. The test contains sections where she needs to compare lists of names to identify mismatches, alphabetize a list of words, and identify spelling mistakes in a list of simple words. This is a test of: a. general cognitive ability. b. specific cognitive ability. c. incremental cognitive ability. d. creative cognitive ability.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 107. The ability of a person to deal with their own emotions and those of others is known as: a. interpersonal quotient. b. emotional stability. c. emotional intelligence. d. social aptitude.

ANSWER: c 108. The ability of a person to generate, recognize, express, understand, and evaluate their own and others' feelings is known as: a. interpersonal acumen. b. emotional intelligence. c. communal wisdom. d. social capacity.

ANSWER: b 109. Rowena just completed a test where she had to identify different types of hammers and saws. The test Rowena completed is a: a. mechanical ability test. b. spatial ability test. c. clerical ability test. d. psychomotor test.

ANSWER: a 110. Sabah just completed a test where he was asked to look at a three-dimensional shape and identify what it would look like if it was rotated. The test Sabah completed was a: a. mechanical ability test. b. spatial ability test. c. clerical ability test. d. psychomotor test.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 111. Sabias just completed a test where he had to compare lists of words or numbers to identify when the two lists didn't match. Sabias has completed a: a. mechanical ability test. b. spatial ability test. c. clerical ability test. d. psychomotor test.

ANSWER: c 112. Saoirse just completed a test where she had to push a button as quickly as possible when a green square appeared on her computer screen; the goal was to test her reaction time. Saoirse completed a: a. mechanical ability test. b. spatial ability test. c. clerical ability test. d. psychomotor test.

ANSWER: d 113. Which of these is a Big Five personality factor? a. courageousness b. adaptability c. neuroticism d. exoticism ANSWER: c 114. Which of these is NOT a Big Five personality factor? a. neuroticism b. agreeableness c. openness d. expressiveness ANSWER: d 115. On one selection test, Kwame encounters a question that asks whether he would report a coworker whom he caught stealing. This question is testing his: a. personality-type integrity. b. covert integrity. c. overt integrity. d. emotional intelligence.

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 116. Luke reads a personality assessment, and the items ask if he gets stressed out easily, if he worries about things, and if he feels relaxed most of the time. Which Big 5 personality dimension are these items measuring? a. Openness b. Conscientiousness c. Agreeableness d. Neuroticism ANSWER: d 117. Jayla is conducting a virtual interview with two candidates. She asks her first candidate what her greatest strengths are and how they have interacted with others. She asks the second candidate about their weaknesses and how they have solved a problem under pressure. Which type of interview is Jayla conducting? a. structured interview b. unstructured interview c. situational interview d. realistic job preview ANSWER: b 118. Which of these questions are NOT legally suspect? a. Have you ever been arrested? b. Do you have a disability? c. Do you have responsibilities that might result in considerable absenteeism? d. What year were you born?

ANSWER: c 119. Which does NOT describe computer adaptive testing: a. the test adjusts the difficulty according to the test taker's responses. b. scoring is quick and accurate. c. if you answer correctly your next question is more difficult. d. if you answer incorrectly the next question is less difficult.

ANSWER: d 120. Asking applicants about past behavior occurs in a: a. retrospective interview. b. prospective interview. c. behavior interview. d. situational interview.

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Chapter 7 - Essay 1. Describe two aspects of recruitment that are known from recent research.

ANSWER: Recruits use the organization's reputation as an indicator of what the job is like; organizational values attract recruits; individuals are interested in jobs that seem well suited for them (PE fit); usability of online sites strongly affects recruits' perceptions of the organization; social media is becoming one way in which organizations can recruit new applicants.

2. What four steps are necessary to conduct a predictive validation study?

ANSWER: Gather predictor data on all applicants; hire some applicants to fill open positions (but don't use predictor to hire); after several months, gather performance data that can serve as criteria; compute a validity coefficient between the predictor and the criterion.

3. Identify and describe the steps involved in conducting a concurrent validation study.

ANSWER: Collect data on both predictors and criteria from incumbent employees at the same time; compute a validity coefficient between the predictor score and the criterion score.

4. What are two major ways in which concurrent validation differs from predictive validation?

ANSWER: Concurrent validation differs from predictive validation in two major ways: In situations involving concurrent validation, (1) incumbents, rather than applicants, are used as participants, and (2) predictors and criteria are measured at the same time.

5. How would one go about cross-validating a selection battery?

ANSWER: Calculate the validity coefficient in one sample using a certain selection battery. Then apply the same predictors and criteria to a new sample using the regression equation to create a predicted criterion score. Finally, correlate the predicted score with the actual score.

6. Compare and contrast the multiple cutoff approach to selection with the multiple regression approach. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each approach?

ANSWER: Multiple cutoff: Advantages—it ensures all hires have a minimum level of competence; it is easy for organizations to understand. Disadvantages—it is noncompensatory, so applicants who don't score higher than the cutoff are not selected, and they cannot make up for a weak score in one aspect with a higher score in another; the result may be a pool of qualified candidates with possibly no strategy to choose among them.

Multiple regression: Advantages—it is compensatory, so strong performance in one area can make up for a weakness in another area; candidates can be rank-ordered to determine which are the best for the job. Disadvantages—There are no minimums, so an applicant may not meet the minimum level of competence for a component of the job; the compensatory nature of this approach can also be a disadvantage if someone lacks the necessary skill to do a certain job.

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Chapter 7 - Essay 7. What is utility, and what three things affect the utility of a selection battery?

ANSWER: Utility is the degree to which a selection battery is useful and cost efficient. A number of factors influence this, including test validity, base rates, selection ratios, and the cost of the test.

8. Describe the accuracy of a selection decision using a graph, where the predictor battery is on the x-axis and the criterion is on the y-axis. Label each quadrant to reflect the accuracy of the selection decision.

ANSWER: The graphic should include hits, misses, correct rejections, and false alarms. True positives (hits) and true negatives (correct rejections) should have high decision accuracy, while false negatives (false alarms) and false positives (misses) should have low decision accuracy.

9. Explain what a selection ratio is. Would companies prefer that the selection ratio be large or small?

ANSWER: The selection ratio is the number of positions being hired for divided by the number of applicants. The smaller it is, the more selective it is possible to be, so most organizations would want this value to be small. When a selection ratio reaches the highest value possible (1.00), every applicant must be hired.

10. What is adverse impact? How does one know when adverse impact is occurring?

ANSWER: Adverse impact occurs when an organization discriminates against a group. It is determined by the 80% rule of thumb; a selection procedure is said to exhibit adverse impact (i.e., to discriminate) against a group if the selection rate (i.e., the percentage of applicants hired) for that group is less than 80% of the selection rate for the group with the highest selection rate. Usually, but not always, it is a minority group that has been hired at a rate lower than that for White applicants.

11. Describe the steps for how an employment discrimination case might proceed in court, identifying the plaintiff's and defendant's responsibilities.

ANSWER: The plaintiff files a complaint with the court. The plaintiff demonstrates a prima facie case of adverse impact. Motions, such as the plaintiff's request for organizational data or details about procedures, are filed by both sides. The defendant rebuts the adverse impact analysis by showing data to be inaccurate, or the defendant accepts the adverse impact but argues that the selection tests are job related. The plaintiff then has an opportunity to refute the defendant's assertion by discrediting the adverse impact analysis or by showing that selection tests are a pretext for discrimination.

12. Describe the two recent Supreme Court cases involving Harvard College and North Carolina. What might be the impact of these rulings on policies for employment settings?

ANSWER: Students who identify as racial or ethnic minority groups will not receive preference in college admissions processes. Colleges must take a race-blind approach to applications. This ruling could result in evaluation and/or change in AA policies in employment settings.

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Chapter 7 - Essay 13. What is the Equal Pay Act, and how has the Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act changed the way the Equal Pay Act works?

ANSWER: The Equal Pay Act makes it illegal to provide unequal pay and benefits on the basis of sex for people who are holding jobs that are equal. The Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act changed the statute of limitations. Before the Lilly Ledbetter Act, plaintiffs had to bring a case within 300 days of the alleged discrimination. The Lilly Ledbetter Act stipulates that each time the plaintiff is affected by the discrimination (e.g., with every paycheck), the clock on the statute of limitations is reset, allowing plaintiffs more time to discover discrimination and sue over it.

14. What is the difference between a disparate impact case and a disparate treatment case?

ANSWER: In disparate treatment, discrimination is intentional and the result of different treatment of candidates. In disparate impact, employment procedures unintentionally disadvantage a certain group.

15. What are the two forms of sexual harassment?

ANSWER: Hostile work environment (involves behavior that is intimidating, hostile, or offensive to the point that it interferes with job performance). Quid pro quo (a situation in which advancement or continuation of employment is contingent on sexual favors).

16. What is the purpose of Executive Order 11246 and whom does it affect?

ANSWER: Executive Order No. 11246, enacted in 1965, prohibits job discrimination by employers holding federal contracts or subcontracts on the basis of race, color, sex, national origin, or religion. This piece of legislation is very similar to the CRA but is specifically relevant for federal agencies and those organizations that do work for federal agencies.

17. How are essential functions defined under the Americans with Disabilities Act? ANSWER: Essential functions are significant and meaningful aspects of the job. If a given task is only occasionally part of the job, organizations should be able to accommodate someone who cannot do that task.

18. Provide an example of a reasonable accommodation that an organization could make for a disabled employee.

ANSWER: Responses will vary. The accommodation should concern an essential task and should not cause major inconvenience or cost to the organization.

19. Provide an example of an undue hardship that might allow an organization to refuse to make an accommodation for an individual with a disability.

ANSWER: Responses will vary. The example offered should involve an accommodation that would be very costly and difficult or excuses the employee from completing essential functions of the job.

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Chapter 7 - Essay 20. What is the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)? What does it provide, and when does it provide it?

ANSWER: The FMLA allows employees to take job-protected unpaid leave for up to 12 weeks for familyrelated issues. This leave can occur when there is a birth or adoption of a child, a serious health condition of a family member, or a serious health condition of the employee.

21. A department store is hiring. As part of their selection process, male applicants must drag a 160-pound package for 50 meters. Female applicants are not required to complete this task. Is this selection process likely to be found legal? Why or why not?

ANSWER: This selection process is not likely to be legal, because it involves disparate treatment between two groups based on a protected class (sex).

22. A police department is hiring officers. Based on a job analysis, the police department knows that climbing over obstacles such as fences and walls is an essential part of the job. Therefore, they include a climbing test as part of their selection process. During a validation study, the department learns that women are hired at 85% of the rate men are, and this difference is because women have a harder time passing this test because they tend to be shorter and have less upper body strength compared to male applicants. Is this selection process likely to be found legal?

Why or why not?

ANSWER: Most likely, this test will be found to be legal. First, women are passing at an 85% rate of the men, which exceeds the 80% rule of thumb. Second, the job analysis suggests that this test is job related.

Strong responses might suggest some possible ways to help women pass this test, such as ensuring the wall is not arbitrarily high or providing training to all applicants to help them achieve adequate upper body strength for the test.

23. A Catholic school is hiring teachers. Because the main duties of this position involve educating children about the Catholic religion and encouraging the children to adhere to the rules and beliefs of Catholicism, one of their requirements is that the teacher must be of the Catholic faith. Is this requirement likely to be found legal? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Most likely, this requirement will be found to be legal. Although religion is a protected class, the requirements of the job suggest that being Catholic is a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ).

24. Describe cybervetting. How might cybervetting create legal challenges for organizations?

ANSWER: Cybervetting is when employers use public information online (social media) to evaluate candidates separate from interviews. Cybervetting can potentially lead to discrimination claims by revealing protected characteristics.

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 1. Using multiple tests in a selection battery will likely: a. decrease the coefficient of determination. b. decrease the validity coefficient. c. increase the need for conducting a job analysis. d. increase the proportion of criterion variance accounted for.

ANSWER: d 2. HPC Manufacturing has applicants complete a basic intelligence test, a personality test, and a dexterity test. It then uses the scores from all these tests to determine whom to hire. Such an array of tests is known as: a. a selection battery. b. validity generalization. c. the multiple cutoff technique. d. base rate.

ANSWER: a 3. Ideally, before choosing tests for a selection battery, an organization should conduct a: a. training needs analysis. b. validity generalization study. c. hurdle approach. d. job analysis.

ANSWER: d 4. The correlation between the combination of all predictors in a selection battery and the criterion is represented by: a. multiple R. b. r2. c. r. d. y.

ANSWER: a 5. Ideally, the measures in a selection battery should: a. be highly correlated with one another. b. have low correlations with one another. c. have identical correlations. d. demonstrate a low multiple R. ANSWER: b

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 6. What is the process of encouraging potentially qualified applicants to seek employment with a particular company? a. affirmative action b. job analysis c. recruitment d. utility analysis ANSWER: c 7. What is the match between an individual's KSAOs and an organization's characteristics and values? a. recruitment b. person–environment fit c. affirmative action d. organizational image ANSWER: b 8. Lashith highly values helping others and being cooperative. He is being recruited by an organization that focuses on making money at the expense of acting ethically. In this case, we might argue that this is an example of poor: a. validity generalization. b. base rates. c. person–environment fit. d. reasonable accommodation.

ANSWER: c 9. According to research, components of an organization's website that lead to applicants more carefully processing information on the site include: a. diversity cues. b. use of the color red. c. small use of images on the site. d. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: a 10. Organizations can attract a pool of diverse applicants by focusing on: a. the methods used to source candidates. b. the material presented to candidates. c. how the organization is portrayed to candidates. d. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 11. Donnie's Shoe Shop looks at applicants' social media to see if applicants have posted any inappropriate or strange content. This would be an example of: a. recruiting. b. cybervetting. c. BFOQ. d. referral.

ANSWER: b 12. A recruiter is looking for an applicant on social media and finds out that their candidate has a large social media following. The recruiter assumes several things about the candidate based on their posts and photos. According to research, what would be true of using this knowledge in a hiring decision? a. Candidates do not view cybervetting as an invasion of their privacy with public profiles. b. Social media evaluations predict job performance. c. Organizations cannot face legal challenges in cybervetting since profile information is public. d. Revealed demographic data can open up organizations to legal challenges.

ANSWER: d 13. One benefit of increased use of social media to recruit job candidates is that: a. fewer people over the age of 40 will apply for a position. b. it provides a much broader applicant pool. c. it makes it less likely that a hiring decision will be challenged in court. d. it provides more qualified applicants.

ANSWER: b 14. Which recruitment method results in shortened hiring processes but could also result in illegal discrimination because of a lack of diversity among the applicants? a. internet job boards b. college placement offices c. job fairs d. employee referrals ANSWER: d

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 15. According to research on racioethnicity, which factor seems to have an important influence on whether a racially mixed pool of applicants will apply? a. the application type b. the diversity of the workplace community c. whether there are volunteer opportunities through the organization d. whether the organization is a nonprofit ANSWER: b 16. If Widgets Incorporated wants to improve the diversity of its workforce, which approach would encourage more diverse applicants to accept job offers? a. ensuring the organization has an aggressive quota system b. ensuring the organization demonstrates that it values variety in its employees c. ensuring the organization avoids engaging in affirmative action plans d. ensuring the organization recruits using newspaper ads ANSWER: b 17. Which of these is an approach to demonstrating the validity of a selection battery? a. person–environment fit b. validity generalization c. utility analysis d. validity shrinkage ANSWER: b 18. Which of these would demonstrate that a selection battery correctly predicts who will be effective on the job? a. conducting a validation study b. quota hiring c. prima facie d. reasonable accommodations ANSWER: a

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 19. Hasan is conducting a validation study on a selection battery and has taken the first step by collecting selection data from applicants, but he is not using it to choose whom he hires. The type of study Hasan is conducting is referred to as: a. content validation. b. cross-validation. c. predictive validation. d. concurrent validation.

ANSWER: c 20. Predictive validation differs from concurrent validation in that predictive validation involves: a. skipping the job analysis. b. not cross-validating a measure. c. collecting data from job applicants. d. a smaller sample size.

ANSWER: c 21. Which term describes the extent to which test scores obtained at one time account for variance in criteria obtained at a future time? a. concurrent validity b. cross-sectional validity c. predictive validity d. criterion validity ANSWER: c 22. Dr. Siddiqui obtains a measure of applicant personality. Once applicants have been hired and have been in their positions for at least six months, Dr. Siddiqui assesses their job performance. Dr. Siddiqui is examining: a. validity generalization. b. synthetic validity. c. predictive validity. d. concurrent validity.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 23. Dr. Zemple wants to see if a manual dexterity test predicts performance. He administers his test to his employees and correlates their scores to their most recent performance review scores. Dr. Zemple is examining: a. cross-sectional validity. b. concurrent validity. c. predictive validity. d. immediate validity.

ANSWER: b 24. Concurrent validation differs from predictive validation in that concurrent validation involves: a. collecting data from job incumbents. b. computing a validity coefficient between the predictor and criterion score. c. measuring predictors and criteria at two different times. d. higher costs associated with administering and developing the tests.

ANSWER: a 25. Which type of validity describes the extent to which test scores obtained at one time account for variance in criteria obtained at the same time? a. concurrent validity b. cross-sectional validity c. predictive validity d. content validity ANSWER: a 26. Luca is conducting a validity study on a selection battery and has taken a first step by collecting both predictor and criteria data from incumbents at the same time. The type of study Luca is conducting is referred to as: a. content validation. b. cross-validation. c. general validation. d. concurrent validation.

ANSWER: d 27. One factor that makes predictive validity studies difficult to conduct is that they require: a. selecting employees on the basis of variables other than those to be validated. b. involvement of incumbents in the initial test administration. c. participation of a large applicant pool. d. highly complex statistical analyses.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 28. Alberto validated his selection battery on one sample and found that it predicts performance. He then applied this selection strategy to a different sample to see if it was still predictive. This process is known as: a. validity generalization. b. cross-validation. c. validity specialization. d. content validation.

ANSWER: b 29. Compared to a second sample used for cross-validation, validity coefficients will be: a. higher in the original sample. b. lower in the original sample. c. identical in the original sample. d. unpredictably different in the original sample.

ANSWER: a 30. Beyhan validated their selection battery and found a validity coefficient of .74. Later, their selection battery yielded a validity coefficient of .67 when they used a different sample of participants. This drop in the validity coefficient is an example of: a. validity generalization. b. cross-invalidation. c. validity shrinkage. d. regression to the mean.

ANSWER: c 31. A small amount of validity shrinkage indicates that the: a. original predictive study was flawed. b. predictors do not help estimate the criterion. c. selection battery is valid and ready to use to select employees. d. selection measures are no longer valid and must be replaced.

ANSWER: c 32. To empirically cross-validate a selection battery, one must: a. apply different predictors to the same sample. b. apply different criteria to the same sample. c. apply the same predictors and criteria to a different sample. d. reapply the same predictors and criteria to the same sample.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 33. If Ahmet believes that a valid test for police officers in Philadelphia would NOT be valid for police officers in Pittsburgh, he believes in: a. validity shrinkage. b. validity generalization. c. validity overlap. d. situational specificity.

ANSWER: d 34. If Tanya believes that a personality test will predict performance for both administrative assistants and filing clerks, she believes in validity: a. overlap. b. specificity. c. generalization. d. synthesis.

ANSWER: c 35. To examine whether validities are situationally specific or generalizable across situations, Hunter and Schmidt (1990) recommended using which approach to weigh and combine validity coefficients? a. multiple cutoffs b. meta-analysis c. multiple regression d. utility analysis ANSWER: b 36. Some researchers believe that job components across jobs are related to the same knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) and that validation can be carried out by linking appropriate KSAOs in a large database, so that individual validation studies are not required. This approach is known as: a. validity generalization. b. situational specificity. c. shared validity. d. synthetic validity.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 37. In a multiple hurdle approach, if an applicant fails to meet a cutoff for a selection test, the applicant: a. must be provided a retest. b. must redo all other selection tests they may have taken. c. is eliminated from the applicant pool. d. must earn a very high score on the next selection test to remain in the applicant pool.

ANSWER: c 38. To be hired as an airline pilot, one must accomplish three objectives: a 90% or higher score in a flight simulator, an 80% or higher score on a technical knowledge test, and at least 500 hours of flying experience. All applicants complete all three tests, regardless of whether they pass each test or not. This approach to employee selection is known as: a. multiple cutoff. b. multiple correlation. c. multiple regression. d. situational specificity.

ANSWER: a 39. Alayna is applying for a job as a computer technician. She passes a cognitive test but fails a job knowledge test, and thus she is immediately eliminated from the applicant pool. The approach that was likely used in this case is: a. stepwise selection. b. multiple hurdle. c. compensatory selection. d. at-will selection.

ANSWER: b 40. RJ&C Consulting Company is hiring managers. Some of the tests it uses are quite cheap (such as cognitive tests).

Some of them are very expensive (such as an assessment center). If the company wants to minimize the costs of its selection system, which selection approach should it use? a. multiple cutoffs b. multiple hurdles c. multiple regression d. cross-replication ANSWER: b

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 41. When predictors are administered in a predetermined order, and applicants are measured on a subsequent predictor only if they pass the cutoff on a previous predictor, the approach to selection is known as: a. multiple predictor. b. multiple hurdle. c. predictive validation. d. synthetic validation.

ANSWER: b 42. How are predictors administered when the multiple hurdle approach to selection is applied? a. least difficult to most difficult b. most difficult to least difficult c. least expensive to most expensive d. most expensive to least expensive ANSWER: c 43. Which of these estimates how well a series of predictors forecasts a performance criterion? a. utility analysis b. decision accuracy c. validity generalization d. multiple regression ANSWER: d 44. Gina has applicants take a series of tests. Each applicant ends up with a score, so Gina can rank the applicants and see who is likely to produce the highest performance. Gina is likely using which approach to selection? a. multiple cutoffs b. multiple hurdles c. multiple regression d. holistic ratings ANSWER: c 45. In many cases, a minimum threshold is set for an applicant's score on a selection test. This minimum is known as the: a. selection ratio. b. compensatory limit. c. cutoff. d. hurdle.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 46. A multiple regression helps organizations select an employee by providing: a. a predicted performance score for each applicant. b. a ratio of variance explained to variance unexplained in performance. c. data on which assessment should be administered first. d. data on which applicants may be experiencing test anxiety.

ANSWER: a 47. Altoneicia conducts a validation study and finds r = .55. She obtains a second sample, and when she validates the measure this time, she finds r = .06. This notable drop between her first sample and her second sample suggests that her measure: a. does not apply well to different samples and probably should not be used. b. discriminates against a protected class and probably should not be used. c. demonstrates very little shrinkage and is ready to use to select employees. d. demonstrates validity generalization and is ready to use to select employees.

ANSWER: a 48. The CEO of an organization is concerned that the selection battery for top-level managers does not help identify the best candidates. They also worry that it costs much more than it should. The CEO's concerns are for: a. generalizability. b. undue hardship. c. utility. d. validity overlap.

ANSWER: c 49. A selection tool that has poor decision accuracy and is also expensive would likely have: a. low utility. b. high utility. c. a high level of hits. d. a low level of misses.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 50. When the decision accuracy of a selection battery is examined, the number of applicants who were not hired but who would have been successful performers can be labeled as: a. false positives. b. correct rejections. c. false alarms. d. misses.

ANSWER: d 51. In examination of the decision accuracy of a selection battery, the number of applicants who were hired but who are not successful performers can be labeled as: a. hits. b. correct rejections. c. false alarms. d. misses.

ANSWER: c 52. In examination of the decision accuracy of a selection battery, the number of applicants who were hired and who are successful performers can be labeled as: a. hits. b. correct rejections. c. false alarms. d. misses.

ANSWER: a 53. In examination of the decision accuracy of a selection battery, the number of applicants who were not hired, and who would have performed poorly if they had been, are known as: a. false positives. b. correct rejections. c. false alarms. d. misses.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 54. Pascal was selected by an organization, but he is doing very poor work. In this example, Pascal is a: a. miss. b. hit. c. correct rejection. d. false alarm.

ANSWER: d 55. Manuel was not selected by an organization, but he would have done an excellent job had he been selected. In this case, Manuel is a: a. hit. b. false alarm. c. miss. d. correct rejection.

ANSWER: c 56. Which test would tend to maximize hits and correct rejections? a. a test with a validity of .05 b. a test with a validity of .10 c. a test with a validity of .20 d. a test with a validity of .40 ANSWER: d 57. A selection ratio of 1.00 means that: a. using a selection battery is extremely important. b. there are no applicants for the job. c. to fill the openings, all applicants must be hired. d. testing all the applicants is likely to be extremely expensive.

ANSWER: c 58. If a company has five open positions and a selection ratio of 1.00, it will mean that: a. the 5 open positions are filled. b. there are 5 job applicants. c. there are 25 job applicants. d. 20% more candidates than openings need to apply.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 59. The goals of a selection battery are to: a. minimize rejecting applicants. b. maximize false positives. c. maximize hits. d. minimize hits.

ANSWER: c 60. Which of these is key for maximizing hits and correct rejections and minimizing misses and false alarms? a. a base ratio b. a selection ratio c. validity d. utility ANSWER: c 61. A local swimming pool does not use any selection tests. Forty percent of the lifeguards employed at this swimming pool are identified as being successful at the job. This percentage represents the: a. base rate. b. selection ratio. c. validity ratio. d. Taylor-Russell index.

ANSWER: a 62. If an amusement park has 50 job openings and 500 applicants, the selection ratio for the park is: a. 1/5. b. 1/10. c. 1/50. d. 10.

ANSWER: b 63. If a restaurant has 5 openings and 15 applicants, the selection ratio is: a. 1/3. b. 1/5. c. 1/15. d. 3.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 64. Which of these would be necessary when estimating the improvement that would likely result from implementing a newly developed selection battery? a. job specifications b. selection ratio c. adverse impact ratio d. person–environment selection ANSWER: b 65. Typically, the smaller the selection ratio, the greater the: a. possibility of adverse impact. b. chances of illegal discrimination. c. cost of the selection battery. d. potential utility of the selection battery.

ANSWER: d 66. Which test demonstrates the greatest utility? a. a test in which the selection ratio is 1.00 and the validity of the measure is .25 b. a test in which the selection ratio is 1.00 and the validity of the measure is .55 c. a test in which the selection ratio is .25 and the validity of the measure is .25 d. a test in which the selection ratio is .25 and the validity of the measure is .55 ANSWER: d 67. In which case might an organization be willing to spend a great deal of money on a selection battery? a. when there is a high likelihood of a hit b. when a false alarm is very costly to the organization c. when the selection ratio is 1.00 or higher d. when a false alarm is very costly to the employees.

ANSWER: b 68. The right of employees and employers to terminate the employment relationship at any time, for any reason, or no reason is referred to as: a. employment at-will. b. prima facie. c. adverse impact. d. reasonable employment discharge.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 69. Skye wants to proceed with a discrimination case against their employer, JLH Foods. The first step in this type of case involves: a. demonstration by Skye that the selection battery had an adverse impact on them. b. determination by Skye that the selection battery was job related. c. JLH Foods showing that there was no adverse impact. d. JLH Foods explaining the business necessity of its selection battery.

ANSWER: a 70. Which statement is true? a. Adverse impact is always illegal. b. Hiring members of minorities at a selection rate below 80% of the selection rate of members of the majority indicates adverse impact. c. Affirmative action requires that a company hire unqualified applicants if they are of an underrepresented race. d. As a first step in a discrimination case, the organization must prove that discrimination was justified by a business need.

ANSWER: b 71. LaFavre Foundry has hired 50 out of 100 male applicants and 10 out of 20 female applicants. It calculates that the selection of female applicants is 100% the rate of male applicants. Which statement is true? a. There is no adverse impact at LaFavre Foundry. b. There is an adverse impact on women. c. There is an adverse impact on men. d. The selection procedures at LaFavre Foundry are illegal.

ANSWER: a 72. If the selection rate for a group is less than 80% of the selection rate for the group with the highest selection rate, which of these is occurring? a. base rate b. validity generalization c. adverse impact d. employment at-will ANSWER: c

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 73. Andersen Food Company has hired 30 out of 60 White applicants and 10 out of 60 Black applicants. It calculates that the selection of Black applicants is about 33% the rate of White applicants. Which statement is true? a. The ratio indicates adverse impact on Black applicants. b. The ratio indicates adverse impact on White applicants. c. The ratio indicates that Andersen Food Company is engaging in illegal hiring practices. d. The ratio indicates that there are no hiring differences between Black and White applicants.

ANSWER: a 74. Which of these is a purpose of affirmative action programs? a. to establish a quota system whereby numbers of members in a minoritized group must be hired b. to increase the number of members in a minority group or members of protected classes in targeted jobs c. to prevent members in a majority group from getting jobs in the organization d. to ensure the hiring of unqualified applicants who are members in a minority group ANSWER: b 75. One problem with affirmative action plans is that: a. they require the use of quotas. b. they lead to the hiring of unqualified employees. c. individuals who benefit from affirmative action may be stigmatized. d. they fail to increase the diversity within an organization.

ANSWER: c 76. Research has demonstrated that individuals who benefit from affirmative action are: a. less likely to succeed on the job. b. sometimes viewed as lacking competence. c. perceived positively by their coworkers. d. more likely to believe the organization is fair.

ANSWER: b 77. A 2023 Supreme Court ruling on affirmative action ruled that: a. every individual should be considered on race and individual qualifications in admission decisions. b. experts must evaluate affirmative action policies in employment settings. c. a university must adopt a race-blind approach to admissions decisions. d. a university must adopt an approach that considers race and income in admission decisions.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 78. What was the ultimate purpose of the Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act? a. to require that women be paid equally to men for the same work b. to require that women be paid during maternity leave c. to prevent the statute of limitations from running out when discriminatory practice is ongoing d. to prevent job incumbents from learning how much everyone in the workplace is paid ANSWER: c 79. One of the MOST important outcomes of Griggs v. Duke Power is that: a. it is illegal to hire members of only one race, even if they do better on a selection test, if the test does not predict job performance. b. organizations must provide reasonable accommodations for people with disabilities. c. organizations may not discriminate against pregnant persons. d. it became illegal to discriminate against people who are under 40 years of age.

ANSWER: a 80. A railroad company posts a sign that says, "Women need not apply." Because discrimination is intentional in this instance, the case that could be brought against the railroad is: a. disparate impact. b. disparate treatment. c. adverse impact. d. prima facie.

ANSWER: b 81. A department store uses a personality test in its selection battery for managerial jobs. This practice unintentionally results in the hiring of women rather than men. The type of case that can be brought against the store is: a. disparate impact. b. disparate treatment. c. adverse treatment. d. quid pro quo.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 82. Bowser's Gym requires that an applicant for a janitorial position be female because a primary duty of the job is cleaning the female locker room while women are using it. Bowser's requirement is an example of: a. quid pro quo. b. prima facie. c. disparate impact. d. a BFOQ. ANSWER: d 83. Which of these is an example of a BFOQ? a. An organization requires that applicants be female because they will be monitoring security camera footage of the women's changing room. b. A supervisor refuses to hire people of color because he believes they do poor work. c. An airline requires flight attendants to be female because women provide a pleasant environment for passengers. d. An organization is required to hire an applicant from a minority group because an AAP is in place.

ANSWER: a 84. A case involving employment procedures that unintentionally discriminate against a minoritized group is known as a: a. disparate treatment case. b. disparate impact case. c. prima facie case. d. BFOQ. ANSWER: b 85. A case involving an employment procedure that intentionally discriminates against a minoritized group would demonstrate: a. a hostile work environment. b. disparate impact. c. disparate treatment. d. prima facie.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 86. Taimane would like to be promoted to a managerial position. Her boss tells her that to receive the promotion, she must give sexual favors in exchange. This exemplifies the form of sexual harassment known as: a. prima facie. b. a hostile work environment. c. an unreasonable work environment. d. quid pro quo.

ANSWER: d 87. Hine works in a manufacturing plant where many employees display photographs of scantily clad women in their work areas. Additionally, she is frequently subjected to inappropriate physical contact by those employees. Her supervisor ignores her complaints, telling her to "take it as a compliment." This type of sexual harassment is known as: a. chronic harassment. b. a hostile work environment. c. quid pro quo. d. an adverse work environment.

ANSWER: b 88. Kauri is 55 years old, Len is 21 years old, and Jorge is 45 years old. All three work at a computer software firm and all were fired and then replaced by three new 20-year-old employees. Which employees are covered under the Age Discrimination in Employment Act? a. only Len b. only Len and Jorge c. only Jorge and Kauri d. only Jorge ANSWER: c 89. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act protects only employees who are: a. age 60 or older. b. age 40 or older. c. disabled. d. from another country.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 90. A large public library restructures its work schedules to allow employees with disabilities to perform their duties.

The library has: a. made reasonable accommodations. b. made essential accommodations. c. been subject to undue hardship. d. established BFOQs. ANSWER: a 91. What are changes or exceptions made by an employer that would allow a qualified person with disabilities to successfully do the job? a. BFOQs b. essential functions c. undue hardships d. reasonable accommodations ANSWER: d 92. If an accommodation for an individual with a disability would result in significant difficulty or expense given an employer's size and financial resources, that accommodation is considered a(n): a. reasonable burden. b. essential function. c. undue hardship. d. BFOQ. ANSWER: c 93. In order to hire an individual with disabilities for a job, a small company would have to renovate its building to put in elevators and ramps. The company might argue that these renovations are not possible because of their high expense. If this were the case, we would say that the required renovations are an example of: a. an essential function. b. a reasonable accommodation. c. undue hardship. d. prima facie.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 94. Under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA), employees are given time for family-related issues. This time is considered job-protected: a. severance pay. b. unpaid leave. c. paid leave. d. flexible working hours.

ANSWER: b 95. Which event would be covered under the Family and Medical Leave Act? a. the birth of a child b. the serious illness of a pet c. permanent disability that prevents the employee from meeting the requirements of the job d. needing to leave work to vote in a presidential election ANSWER: a 96. Maikki is trying to design a selection battery for the job of a locksmith. Which scenario would likely lead to the BEST prediction? a. Maikki uses a single test. b. Maikki uses three tests that have high correlations with one another. c. Maikki uses three tests that have low correlations with one another. d. Maikki selects locksmiths randomly.

ANSWER: c 97. Typically in selection, we want our predictors to have which type of correlation with the criterion? a. 0.0 b. low c. moderate d. high ANSWER: d 98. Which of these is an example of cybervetting? a. A company puts a puzzle online, and only people who solve it receive a link to the application website. b. A company uses an online version of an application blank. c. A company installs software on employee computers to monitor whether they visit inappropriate websites. d. A company reviews applicants' social media pages to see if they make poor choices about what they post online.

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 99. According to the research by Berkelaar and Buzzanell (2015), hiring managers examine applicants' social media for evidence of drunken or lewd behavior because they believe this content demonstrates: a. extraversion. b. poor decision-making skills. c. low neuroticism. d. high intelligence.

ANSWER: b 100. Employees sharing job postings with their family and friends is a common way to recruit. Why is it problematic to use this approach as the only recruitment method? a. Employees are likely to recommend people who do not have the skills necessary for the job. b. Employees may only invite people who are similar to themselves, which may lead to illegal discrimination. c. This approach doesn't tend to increase the applicant pool very much. d. Employees tend to describe the job in overly positive terms, which can lead to negative applicant attitudes once they find out what the job is really like.

ANSWER: b 101. The correct order of steps in conducting a predictive validation study are: a. gather predictor data; hire some of the applicants; gather criterion data after a few months; compute a validity coefficient. b. gather predictor and criterion data; compute a validity coefficient. c. compute a validity coefficient; gather predictor and criterion data. d. gather predictor data; compute a validity coefficient; hire some applicants; gather criterion data after a few months.

ANSWER: a 102. Cross-validation tells us: a. whether a validity study is cost-effective. b. whether a measure discriminates against women. c. whether one of our predictors is reliable. d. how well the results of our original validation study generalize to a different sample.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 103. Felipe conducts a study to see if a personality test predicts performance in a sample. He then collects a second sample to see if the result from his first study generalizes to this new sample. This is known as: a. cross-validation. b. a disparate treatment case. c. synthetic validity. d. situational specificity.

ANSWER: a 104. A large amount of shrinkage indicates that the: a. original predictive study was flawed. b. selection battery does not generalize well to a new sample. c. selection battery is valid and should be used in the future. d. selection measures discriminate against protected classes.

ANSWER: b 105. To statistically cross-validate a selection battery, one must: a. compare selection ratios between protected classes. b. apply different criteria to the same sample. c. apply the same predictors and criteria to a different sample. d. use a formula to adjust the original validity coefficient to account for measurement error.

ANSWER: d 106. The two ways to cross-validate a measure are: a. predictive and concurrent. b. empirically and statistically. c. bona fide and synthetic. d. ideographic and nomothetic.

ANSWER: b 107. Validity generalization means that a measure predicts similarly across different: a. situations. b. variables. c. reliabilities. d. criteria.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 108. Hunter and Schmidt (1990) found that MOST test validities generalized across situations as long as the: a. same researcher conducted all the validity studies. b. criterion was different across those situations. c. jobs under investigation were fairly similar. d. same participants were assessed in the validity studies.

ANSWER: c 109. In a multiple-cutoff approach, if an applicant fails to score above the cutoff score of a test in a selection battery, the applicant: a. must be provided a retest. b. must redo all other selection tests they may have taken. c. will be hired since performance in other tests is good. d. takes the next test anyway but ultimately will not be hired.

ANSWER: d 110. To be hired as a firefighter, Mei must accomplish three objectives in this order: she must climb 10 flights of stairs wearing a 70-pound vest, she must crawl on her hands and knees through a 50-meter tunnel, and then she must drag a 160-pound dummy 100 meters. She finishes the first task but is unable to complete the second task. She is immediately eliminated from the process. The selection process being used in this example is likely multiple: a. cutoff. b. correlation. c. regression. d. hurdle.

ANSWER: d 111. In a multiple regression approach to hiring, if an applicant does poorly on one test, he can make up for that poor performance by doing really well on another test that is weighted heavily in the regression. Which type of hiring approach is this? a. noncompensatory b. compulsory c. compensatory d. noncompulsory ANSWER: c

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 112. In a multiple-hurdle approach to hiring, if an applicant does poorly on one test, she cannot make up for that poor performance by doing really well on another test. This type of approach is known as a: a. noncompensatory approach. b. compulsory approach. c. compensatory approach. d. noncompulsory approach.

ANSWER: a 113. Juno was selected by an organization, and she is an excellent performer. In this example, Juno is a: a. hit. b. miss. c. correct rejection. d. false alarm.

ANSWER: a 114. Priya was not selected by an organization, and had she been selected, she would have done poor work. Priya is an example of a: a. hit. b. miss. c. correct rejection. d. false alarm.

ANSWER: c 115. Zayd was selected by an organization, but he is doing a poor job. In this case, Zayd is a: a. hit. b. miss. c. correct rejection. d. false alarm.

ANSWER: d 116. Tito was selected by an organization and is doing an excellent job. In this case, Tito is a: a. hit. b. miss. c. correct rejection. d. false alarm.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 117. Which is NOT a consideration when assessing a test's utility? a. decision accuracy b. base rate c. applicant reactions d. cost ANSWER: c 118. Which of these is a consideration when assessing a test's utility? a. adverse treatment b. base rate c. motivation d. applicant reactions ANSWER: b 119. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act protects only employees who are age: a. 40 or older. b. 30 and older. c. 20 or younger. d. 35 and younger.

ANSWER: a 120. Under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA), employees can take time off for family-related issues.

Employees can receive: a. 9 months unpaid leave. b. 9 months paid leave. c. 12 months unpaid leave. d. 12 weeks paid leave.

ANSWER: c 121. What does Executive Order No. 11246 prohibit? a. discrimination against qualified individuals with disabilities b. discrimination against individuals over 40 years old c. discrimination by employers holding federal contracts or subcontracts on the basis of race, color, sex, national origin, or religion. d. iscrimination by university employers on the basis of race, disability, religion, and sex.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 8 - Essay 1. Provide a definition of training and a definition of learning. What is the difference between training and learning?

ANSWER: Training is collectively the formal procedures used to facilitate learning so that the resultant behavior contributes to the attainment of a company's goals and objectives. Learning, meanwhile, is part of training and often is considered a main outcome of training.

2. Identify and describe each type of training that needs analysis. For each type, explain how one would go about performing the analysis.

ANSWER: Organizational analysis: speaking to leadership about the organization's purpose, mission, and culture.

Task analysis: using an SME to identify key tasks or KSAOs that are needed for successful job performance. Person analysis: using performance appraisals, tests, or surveys to see who needs training. Demographic analysis: identifying any specific demographic groups that may need additional or special training, such as older hires or hires with disabilities.

3. Describe three of the five principles of learning.

ANSWER: Active learning (practicing what is being learned); size of the unit to be learned (e.g., determining whether a task should be broken into smaller components and whether practice should be massed or distributed); meaningfulness of material (e.g., helping learners understand why information is important); practice and overlearning (helping learners to practice new skills so they become easier and more automatic); and feedback (providing regular and prompt feedback to help learners identify and learn from mistakes).

4. Describe a situation in which an organization may choose to conduct a demographic needs analysis. What would be the cause of this analysis? What questions might an organization need to answer through this needs analysis?

ANSWER: Responses will vary. Students should discuss having learners actively practice their skills and receive feedback. An organization would need to ask questions that would indicate the training needs of particular employee populations. For example, if the organization is seeking how to make reasonable accommodations for employees with certain disabilities, they might ask which alternative functions must be completed.

5. Define distributed practice and massed practice. Provide an example of a task that would be well suited to each type of practice.

ANSWER: In distributed practice, new skills are practiced at several intervals throughout the training. In massed practice, skills are practiced only once for a long period of time without breaks. Examples will vary.

Distributed practice is best in most cases, especially in learning low-complexity tasks; massed practice is more practical in many cases.

6. Explain what it means to engage in overlearning in the context of training. What might be an example of a skill one could have overlearned?

ANSWER: Overlearning occurs when a task is learned so thoroughly that it becomes automatic. When trainees are given continued practice even after they have mastered a skill or task, the task will be performed more quickly, easily, and consistently. Examples will vary.

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Chapter 8 - Essay 7. What are two important characteristics of the learner that can affect training?

ANSWER: Readiness, self-efficacy, and motivation are the important characteristics of the learner that can affect training. Responses may vary.

8. What are two issues that might prevent transfer of training, and what might an organization do to combat these issues?

ANSWER: Responses will vary. The textbook notes that helping employees to recognize where they can use their training by making the learning environment similar to the applied environment, social support from supervisors and peers, a positive transfer climate in the organization, refresher courses, active practice, and self-efficacy can all help with transfer.

9. Describe three actions an organization can take to help employees who have undergone training to transfer their new skills to their jobs.

ANSWER: The training context and the work context should be as similar as possible. Employees should have opportunities to practice their new skills. Trainers should provide different contexts in which these skills might be applicable. Trainers, trainees, and managers should work together. Expectations for the trainers, trainees, and managers should be presented up front. Trainers need to provide on-the-job maintenance programs that help them continue to use their learned behaviors.

10. Describe two evidence-based instructional design principles. Provide an example of each.

ANSWER: Content organization (e.g., making main points prominent or playing text near corresponding graphics), optimized sequencing of material (e.g., starting with the simplest tasks and then building complexity), engaging learners in their own learning (e.g., having learners demonstrate a concept), conducting effective practice (e.g., replicating what the situation feels like), and developing knowledge beyond skills and mastery (e.g., asking learners to identify misconceptions and missing information).

11. Define physical fidelity and psychological fidelity. How are they different? Provide an example of each.

ANSWER: In physical fidelity, training equipment mimics equipment used in the real world. In psychological fidelity, training aims to produce behaviors that mimic the actual behaviors the employee needs to engage in on the job. Examples will vary.

12. Describe two benefits of developing employees through coaching methods. How does the coaching relationship impact coaching effectiveness?

ANSWER: Examples may vary. Benefits of coaching include improved relationships, goal setting, skills, and enhanced learning and development. Research indicates that the effectiveness of coaching depends on the quality of the coaching relationship. A coach offers employees a non-judgmental space to explore their challenges and gain clarity on what is most important to them, and the experience is tailored to the employees’ goals. Executive coaching is used to develop executives and improve their skill sets and capabilities to make them more effective leaders.

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Chapter 8 - Essay 13. What are corporate universities? What societal trend appears to have led to their development?

ANSWER: Corporate universities are institutes within a company focused on employee development. Their development is likely due to the focus on continuous learning, development in technology, digital solutions, and conscious brand building.

14. Identify and define Kirkpatrick's (1976) taxonomy of training criteria.

ANSWER: Kirkpatrick's taxonomy of training criteria is divided into the reaction criteria (attitudes about training), the learning criteria (knowledge gained from training), the behavioral criteria (transfer of training), and the results criteria (contributions to the organization's goals).

15. What are two major changes Alliger and colleagues (1989, 1997) have made to Kirkpatrick's original four-criteria framework for training evaluation?

ANSWER: Kirkpatrick's reaction criteria has been reorganized into utility judgments and affective reactions.

Learning criteria has been reorganized into immediate post-training knowledge, knowledge retention, and behavior/skill demonstration. Behavioral criteria is called transfer criteria.

16. Choose an evaluation design to assess a training program. Describe why one would choose this method and what the drawbacks of this method are.

ANSWER: Options include pre/post design, pre/post design with a control group, and the Solomon four-group design. Examples of drawbacks will vary for each design with the Solomon four-group as the strongest design. Pre/post design allows one to measure various criteria before and after training but it lacks a control group. Pre/post design with a control group has the added advantage of a stronger internal validity. Solomon four-group design has the strongest internal validity and allows for several comparisons. However, it is costly in terms of money and resources, which makes it impractical at times.

17. The textbook notes that the Solomon four-group design is much stronger than the pre/post design for assessing training outcomes. Explain why the Solomon four-group is more helpful for providing evidence that training works.

ANSWER: The Solomon four-group design uses two control groups and two experimental groups, which receive the treatment at different times. This allows us to rule out extraneous variables better than with a pre/post design and draw several useful comparisons. However, the Solomon four-group design is difficult and costly to administer and requires many participants and measures.

18. What are the three dimensions of the consequences of sexual harassment?

ANSWER: Work outcomes, psychological and somatic outcomes, and negative effects on the organization are the three dimensions of the consequences of sexual harassment.

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Chapter 8 - Essay 19. What are the three ways to increase the effectiveness of diversity training?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Integrate DT with organizational diversity initiatives, ensure DT is openly supported by management, avoid mandatory training to reduce backlash/defensiveness, and introduce perspective-taking approaches.

20. Consider the I-O psychology class you are currently in. How might you measure each level of Kirkpatrick's taxonomy of training criteria in this class?

ANSWER: Responses will vary. Reaction criteria will involve assessment of attitudes about the training ("On a scale of 1–5, how useful was the class?"), the learning criteria will involve knowledge gained from training (e.g., a multiple-choice exam asking students to recall facts from the book), the behavioral criteria will involve transfer of training (e.g., being able to use some of what they are learning in their current job or applying their knowledge to an applied project in the class), and the results criteria will involve contributions to the organization's goals (although this is often about a company's profitability, if students think about their college/university goals, they may also talk about graduation, getting a good job, or other outcomes).

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 1. Which of these is NOT a reason why training programs are deployed in organizations? a. provide job-specific or organization-specific training b. confirm correct selection decisions were made when hiring employees c. continue personal and professional growth of employees d. retraining with changes in the role or organization ANSWER: b 2. Even if an organization has an extremely effective selection system, it may still need to conduct some training because: a. many applicants misrepresent their skills when they apply for a job at a particular organization. b. most selection systems still do a relatively poor job of identifying competent applicants. c. most applicants will not know aspects of jobs that are specific to a particular organization. d. it is legally required in the United States.

ANSWER: c 3. Which analysis determines where the training needs are in a particular company? a. behavioral b. task c. positional d. organizational ANSWER: d 4. One reason that training is important to organizations is that such programs can lead to: a. an increase in the cognitive ability of the workforce. b. increased organizational commitment. c. an increase in the situational specificity of the training programs. d. an increase in counterproductive behavior.

ANSWER: b 5. The formal procedures that a company utilizes to facilitate learning so that the resultant behavior contributes to the attainment of company goals and objectives are referred to as: a. psychological fidelity. b. performance appraisal. c. job analysis. d. training.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 6. According to the textbook, which of these is an example of training? a. While chatting over coffee, Juanita lets Kavana know that to get ahead in the workplace, she should try to play golf with her supervisor. b. Mohan gives his employee low ratings on a performance appraisal and asks that employee to meet with him to set some goals for the next performance appraisal. c. Tariq watches a presentation that tells him more about his company's products so that he can sell them more effectively. d. Anya quizzes her employees to learn what facts about the company's products they tend to misunderstand.

ANSWER: c 7. Which type of analysis determines what behaviors need to be improved? a. behavioral b. organizational c. positional d. task ANSWER: d 8. Janice is interested in determining what goals are not being reached in the company. What type of analysis should Janice conduct? a. person b. task c. organizational d. demographic ANSWER: c 9. Organizational analysis, task analysis, and person analysis are all examples of: a. training needs analysis. b. demographic analysis. c. training transfer. d. training delivery.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 10. Research has found that diversity strategies are motivated by: a. offering bonuses for completing diversity training. b. a carefully crafted needs analysis. c. empirical evidence-based strategies. d. personal preference of what trainers would believe is effective.

ANSWER: d 11. Ramona is interested in determining what behaviors and duties the employees need to improve. Which analysis should Ramona conduct? a. person b. demographic c. organizational d. task ANSWER: d 12. Kasa is conducting an organizational analysis for BMH Corp. Kasa finds that the BMH Corp's long-term goal of being ranked as number one in pet food sales is not being reached. Kasa's organizational analysis should also consider: a. performance appraisal data. b. liquid capital reports. c. job matrix data. d. the culture of training and development in the company.

ANSWER: d 13. The type of job analysis often used to determine training needs is: a. person-oriented. b. organization-oriented. c. task-oriented. d. learning-oriented.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 14. Which needs analysis involves subject matter experts (SMEs) who are familiar with a job responding to a series of items in a checklist format? a. task analysis b. demographic analysis c. organizational analysis d. worker analysis ANSWER: a 15. Which is a type of training needs analysis? a. training media analysis b. competency analysis c. matrix analysis d. demographic analysis ANSWER: d 16. Zora works in an organization in which a fair number of employees are older adults who have limited experience with new technology. As Zora needs to understand how and in what areas this group might need training, she should conduct a(n): a. political analysis. b. task analysis. c. organizational analysis. d. demographic analysis.

ANSWER: d 17. Alejandro is interested in determining who needs to be trained. What type of analysis should Alejandro conduct? a. organizational b. positional c. person d. task ANSWER: c

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 18. The term human capital refers to: a. the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics of employees that require training. b. how much employees should be paid for their work, considering working conditions, skills required, and other factors. c. the education, training, and experiences of employees that provide value to organizations. d. the utility of keeping a seasoned employee rather than hiring a new employee.

ANSWER: c 19. Performance appraisal data, employee self-nominations, and diagnostic testing can contribute to which analysis? a. demographic b. job c. human capital d. person ANSWER: d 20. Mateo is determining what training older employees need in cutting-edge computer technology. Mateo is likely conducting a: a. diversity assessment. b. behavioral analysis. c. demographic analysis. d. matrix analysis.

ANSWER: c 21. Which of these is the definition of continuous learning? a. practicing a skill over and over until it is automatic b. taking as many academic courses as possible c. learning how to learn d. learning a skill, and then training someone else on that skill ANSWER: c 22. Learning how to learn is a process known as: a. meta-learning. b. active learning. c. overlearning. d. continuous learning.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 23. Which comprises all activities that are developed and coordinated to support trainees' learning processes? a. instructional design b. distributed training c. transfer of training d. knowledge of results ANSWER: a 24. What are the general categories of learning? a. task, person, and organizational b. emotional, physical, and cognitive c. on-the-job, off-the-job, and self-paced d. cognitive, psychomotor, and social ANSWER: d 25. Nilsu is attempting to train a new administrative assistant on using a word processing program. Since the program is fairly complex and has many independent components (e.g., creating mail merge documents is very different from formatting a letterhead), Nilsu should: a. teach the assistant bits and pieces of the program. b. teach the assistant the whole program at once. c. teach the assistant the most difficult tasks first. d. not provide any formal training for the assistant.

ANSWER: a 26. Oishi is learning to drive a car. Because she will ultimately need to perform many different tasks at the same time it is best for her to learn: a. all the tasks at one time. b. one task at a time. c. all the tasks over the course of an entire month. d. through the use of a lecture course.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 27. Chelsea is teaching a new chef how to cook a hamburger. Which of these is an example of active learning? a. Chelsea tells the chef how to cook the burger. b. Chelsea has the chef read a book about how to cook a burger. c. Chelsea demonstrates how to cook a burger. d. Chelsea has the chef practice cooking a burger, and Chelsea then answers any questions on the cooking method.

ANSWER: d 28. Joaquin tries to give his trainees realistic and relevant examples of situations they may encounter in their jobs. By doing this, Joaquin is increasing the: a. acceptability of the material. b. mass of the material. c. distribution of the material. d. meaningfulness of the material.

ANSWER: d 29. Latif is delivering a training program to cell phone repair technicians. Latif divides the training into four weeklong segments delivered across eight weeks, with one week of rest after each segment. The type of training practice that Latif is implementing is known as: a. distributed practice. b. massed practice. c. readiness. d. overlearning.

ANSWER: a 30. Brenda delivers an eight-hour training program in customer service to a group of new employees. The training program includes no breaks and is the only training the new employees will receive. Brenda has implemented a training practice referred to as: a. overlearning. b. massed practice. c. distributed practice. d. continuous learning.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 31. Tiva is teaching new employees about psychomotor tasks that are low in complexity. According to research, the appropriate training for Tiva to use is: a. trainee readiness. b. massed practice. c. distributed practice. d. transfer of training.

ANSWER: c 32. What type of practice is best for learning skills for long-term retention according to research? a. massed b. distributed c. perfect d. divided ANSWER: b 33. Denise wants to make the material in the training program for retail sales clerks more meaningful for Denise's trainees. One element Denise could incorporate into the training is to: a. give trainees plenty of breaks throughout the program. b. convey that the material should be overlearned. c. present an overview of the material at the outset. d. provide numerous non-job-relevant examples.

ANSWER: c 34. Providing an overview, giving relevant examples, and proceeding in a logical order can help increase which of these during training? a. feedback b. meaningfulness c. distribution d. overlearning ANSWER: b 35. "Perfect practice" is important because it prevents trainees from: a. adopting bad habits. b. learning too much at once. c. becoming lazy during training. d. focusing too much on their performance on a simple task.

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 36. Daku trains lifeguards on how to perform CPR. Although the lifeguards appear to be proficient with the procedure, Daku continues to have them practice CPR once a week so that it becomes second nature to them.

Daku is encouraging the process of: a. massed practice. b. distributed practice. c. job-relevant practice. d. overlearning.

ANSWER: d 37. When Corinna was in school, she learned to save her work after every page just in case her computer crashed.

Now she automatically saves her work after every page—she doesn't even notice she's doing it. This is an example of: a. job-relevant practice. b. overlearning. c. massed practice. d. divided practice.

ANSWER: b 38. In the context of training, which example is a purpose of feedback? a. giving trainees the opportunity to adjust their behaviors b. frustrating trainees so they will increase their efforts c. increasing the validity of the training program d. preventing trainees from setting difficult goals ANSWER: a 39. Ari, a retail store manager, notices that one of the employees, Eric, is sleeping in the break room during the shift.

Ari needs to give Eric feedback that this conduct is not allowed. You advise Ari that the feedback would be best delivered to Eric: a. as soon as possible after Eric's behavior was observed. b. at the beginning of Eric's next shift. c. during Eric's performance appraisal meeting next week. d. during Eric's year-end review meeting next month.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 40. According to the textbook, both positive and negative feedback can be valuable when they are delivered: a. occasionally. b. in a sensitive and clear manner. c. long after the behavior occurred. d. during performance of the behavior.

ANSWER: b 41. What is NOT the purpose of feedback in a training context? a. lead to goal setting for improved performance b. capture mistakes for accurate penalties c. make the learning process more interesting for trainees d. provide information to allow trainees to make adjustments ANSWER: b 42. An individual who is incapable of being taught something because they do not have the necessary knowledge, ability, or experience to allow them to learn it is said to lack: a. transferability. b. readiness. c. knowledge of results. d. fidelity.

ANSWER: b 43. Shawna has just begun a role as a sales representative. During training, Shawna is often confused because the trainer is discussing unfamiliar concepts. The training may not be helpful because Shawna: a. lacks training readiness. b. has high self-efficacy. c. needs to overlearn the content. d. does not have a strong transfer in training culture.

ANSWER: a 44. Anna is training sales representatives on how to use a new promotional pamphlet. Anna finds that the representatives are not very motivated to learn. One strategy Anna can use to increase their motivation is to: a. give trainees continued practice on using the pamphlet even after they have become proficient in its use. b. report the trainees' low motivation to their supervisors. c. require trainees to use massed practice. d. show trainees how effectively using the pamphlet will lead to increased sales.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 45. One way to increase training motivation is to: a. ensure that trainees set their own goals. b. ask trainees to take turns leading the training session. c. help trainees understand how the training will benefit them. d. use a lecture-based format.

ANSWER: c 46. Research by Gully and colleagues (2002) has indicated that training that allowed learners to explore through trial and error: a. improved self-efficacy for individuals with high conscientiousness. b. helped the trainees learn the tasks at a deeper level. c. was distracting and traumatizing to trainees. d. was effective for trainees who were high in openness and cognitive ability.

ANSWER: d 47. Research on the Big Five personality variables has indicated that participants learn faster in training when high in: a. agreeableness and extroversion. b. conscientiousness and extroversion. c. emotional stability and openness. d. agreeableness and openness.

ANSWER: c 48. Effective trainers establish specific objectives, have a solid understanding of how people learn, and: a. tailor the style of instruction to fit the trainee. b. have trainees hold questions until the end of training. c. use a rigid training design. d. criticize trainees when they don't do well.

ANSWER: a 49. Research has demonstrated that effective trainers tailor the style of the instruction to fit the trainee, have a solid understanding of how people learn, and: a. withhold feedback until training has been completed. b. have trainees hold questions until the end of training. c. use massed practice. d. establish specific learning objectives.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 50. Effective trainers should: a. use massed practice. b. have a solid understanding of how people learn. c. avoid active learning techniques. d. use a consistent method of training.

ANSWER: b 51. The extent to which materials, skills, or procedures learned in training are taken back to jobs and regularly used by employees is known as: a. knowledge of results. b. overlearning. c. transfer of training. d. utility of training.

ANSWER: c 52. Tama is an auto mechanic who was recently retrained on how to change a transmission. Since the training, it appears, however, that Tama's performance has become worse, and Tama is making more mistakes. This outcome is an example of: a. negative transfer. b. negative fidelity. c. positive transfer. d. overlearning.

ANSWER: a 53. Negative transfer is said to have occurred when a: a. trainee dislikes the training sessions. b. trainee's performance declines after training. c. trainee makes mistakes during training. d. trainee has difficulty finding opportunities to use their training.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 54. The idea that a training environment should resemble the on-the-job environment as much as possible is often called: a. behavior modeling theory. b. social learning theory. c. identical elements theory. d. a work simulation.

ANSWER: c 55. Which statement about training is supported by research? a. Trainees should learn in an environment very different from the one in which they will need to use their skills so they feel challenged. b. Trainees are more likely to transfer new skills when they have heavy workloads. c. The training environment should mimic the on-the-job environment as much as possible. d. Supervisors should not discuss training with their subordinates.

ANSWER: c 56. One way we can ensure that employees will be able to transfer their new skills to a novel situation is to: a. have high standards in training. b. participate in a "train the trainer" program. c. practice their desired behaviors in different contexts. d. allow participants to set their own goals in training.

ANSWER: c 57. Upon returning from training, Shandra receives compliments from the boss on newly acquired skills and is encouraged to continue practicing to improve further. In this case, Shandra's organization has a: a. low training climate. b. strong transfer climate. c. low overlearning climate. d. high maintenance climate.

ANSWER: b 58. Peer and supervisory support for applying training define the: a. training climate. b. human capital culture. c. readiness culture. d. transfer climate.

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 59. Upon Larinda's return from training, the manager inquired about the training but promptly assigned Larinda a very heavy workload. In this scenario, Larinda's job has a: a. poor training climate. b. poor transfer climate. c. strong overlearning climate. d. low maintenance climate.

ANSWER: b 60. Pietro needs to train 100 museum tour guides on facts related to the American Civil War. Pietro is looking for an economical training method and would like to train all the tour guides at the same time. The training approach Pietro should use is: a. a work simulation. b. a job aid. c. behavior modeling. d. lecturing.

ANSWER: d 61. Which training technique is comprised of instruction in the work setting during work? a. distance training b. on-the-job training c. coaching d. e-learning ANSWER: b 62. Ayita, a new server in a restaurant, is learning the role by observing another server perform their duties and asking questions when Ayita doesn't understand what they are doing. This is an example of: a. training via interview. b. on-the-job training. c. practical training. d. self-paced training.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 63. The first step of self-paced learning involves: a. arranging job elements from the simplest to the most complex. b. administering an assessment to determine if trainees have acquired the material. c. presenting material broken down into small elements. d. providing trainees with a strict schedule.

ANSWER: c 64. The final step of self-paced learning involves: a. administering an assessment to determine if trainees have acquired the material. b. arranging job elements from the simplest to the most complex. c. presenting material broken down into small elements. d. providing trainees with immediate feedback on their performance.

ANSWER: d 65. Which is NOT a step involved in self-paced learning? a. The most complex tasks are taught first, and the simplest are taught last. b. Testing is conducted after each element of the training program. c. Presentation of material is broken down into small elements. d. Trainees have control over their pace of learning.

ANSWER: a 66. One potential problem with self-paced training is that: a. many learners dislike it, and they become unmotivated. b. some learners use poor learning strategies, which makes this technique less useful. c. most learners find it unrealistic, which makes it difficult to transfer training. d. some learners believe that transfer of learning is poor even with adaptive guidance.

ANSWER: b 67. A nuclear reactor simulator used in training is said to have good physical fidelity. This means that: a. trainees are required to demonstrate a high level of physical skill in the nuclear reactor simulator. b. the nuclear reactor simulator was inexpensive to construct. c. the nuclear reactor simulator mimics a real nuclear reactor. d. there are no physical hazards associated with training in the nuclear reactor simulator.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 68. A podcast training used to help surgeons learn how to insert a pacemaker is said to have low psychological fidelity. This means that the: a. training will be frightening to watch. b. actual procedure will replicate the cognitive demands experienced in the training. c. behaviors the surgeons need to execute to successfully insert the pacemaker are similar to what they would do for an actual patient. d. behaviors for inserting the pacemaker are not similar to how it would be done on an actual patient.

ANSWER: d 69. The extent to which the behavioral processes needed for success on a job are also necessary for success on a training simulation is known as: a. physical fidelity. b. psychological fidelity. c. criterion contamination. d. utility.

ANSWER: b 70. The extent to which the equipment used in a simulator mimics the equipment used in the real world is known as: a. physical fidelity. b. psychological fidelity. c. criterion fidelity. d. utility.

ANSWER: a 71. A study conducted by Bruppacher and colleagues (2010) examined whether a simulation or an interactive seminar did a better job of preparing anesthesia interns. The results of the study indicated that: a. the simulation and the seminar were equally ineffective. b. the seminar was ineffective, and the simulation was effective. c. neither approach was effective. d. although both approaches were effective, the simulation was superior.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 72. Celine and Juan work together to create training for their organization. Juan is using a video presentation as the basis for his training program. Celine is using a web-based learning module for her training program. Who has the more effective training method? a. Juan; videos are the most effective media for training effectiveness. b. Celine; web-based learning is the most effective media for training effectiveness. c. Neither; they should have used a job aid as the most effective training method. d. Neither; the specific media used has no impact on the effectiveness of a training method.

ANSWER: d 73. Research on training medium suggests that: a. the training medium is more important than instructional design. b. the training medium is less important than instructional design. c. the cost of the training medium is highly correlated with effectiveness. d. the in-classroom training method is the strongest method.

ANSWER: b 74. Which is the process by which an individual acquires the attitudes, behaviors, and knowledge needed to participate as an organizational member? a. on-the-job training b. coaching c. organizational socialization d. organizational behavior modeling ANSWER: c 75. Belinda is a new employee who attends a training seminar that teaches about the history of the corporation and its policies and gives a tour of the facility. This type of training is known as: a. on-the-job training. b. coaching. c. behavioral modeling. d. organizational socialization.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 76. Tarni, a manager, provides subordinates with advice and information about their current performance and discusses ideas and goals for performance improvement. Tarni is engaged in: a. coaching. b. socializing. c. modeling. d. conspiring.

ANSWER: a 77. Coaching serves which function in an organization? a. guidance b. implication c. mobilization d. extrication ANSWER: a 78. Research by Smither and colleagues (2003) suggests that, compared to managers who received no coaching, managers who were coached were: a. more likely to be promoted within a year. b. less likely to provide feedback to their subordinates. c. less likely to set goals for their subordinates. d. rated more favorably by their subordinates.

ANSWER: d 79. Which of these is an employee development–based approach to training that has its foundation in social learning theory? a. Identical elements b. Behavior modeling c. Coaching d. Business simulation ANSWER: b

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 80. Takoda owns a hotel and wants to implement a training program to improve the interpersonal skills of the front desk employees. Takoda believes that most social behavior is learned through observation. The appropriate training approach for Takoda to use is: a. behavior coaching. b. behavior modeling. c. lecturing. d. audiovisual techniques.

ANSWER: b 81. One criticism of using business games as a training tool is that trainees: a. do not perceive the games as relevant. b. do not perceive the games as realistic. c. do not perceive the games as interesting to participate in, so they often do not learn the intended objectives. d. become so interested in competition that they lose sight of the principles the games were designed to teach.

ANSWER: d 82. Disney University and Apple University are examples of: a. accredited universities. b. corporate universities. c. management games. d. coaching institutes.

ANSWER: b 83. In Kirkpatrick's (1976) taxonomy of training criteria, which criteria traditionally involve a trainee's attitudinal response to a training program? a. learning b. behavioral c. results d. reaction ANSWER: d

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 84. According to Kirkpatrick's (1976) taxonomy of training criteria, cognitive, skill-based, and affective outcomes are three ways in which: a. knowledge criteria can be characterized. b. learning criteria can be characterized. c. results criteria can be characterized. d. behavioral criteria can be characterized.

ANSWER: b 85. Yuvraj attends a training session that he enjoys tremendously. However, when he takes a knowledge test after the training, it is clear that he has not gained any new knowledge on the training content. In this example, the training demonstrated good results on the: a. learning criterion. b. results criterion. c. reaction criterion. d. behavioral criterion.

ANSWER: c 86. Harumi attends a training session at which she learns a great deal, and she does well on a post-training test.

However, when she attempts to apply her training to the job, she finds that she cannot do so effectively. In this case, the training demonstrated good results on the: a. learning criterion. b. reaction criterion. c. results criterion. d. behavioral criterion.

ANSWER: a 87. According to Kirkpatrick's (1976) taxonomy of training criteria, which training criteria are closely linked to the transfer of training? a. behavioral b. affective reaction c. utility reaction d. cognitive ANSWER: a

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 88. According to Kirkpatrick's (1976) taxonomy of training criteria, which type of criteria reflects the ultimate value of training to an organization? a. learning b. results c. reaction d. behavioral ANSWER: b 89. In the augmented framework of training criteria, trainees' feelings about the training program are categorized as: a. learning. b. behavioral criteria. c. affective reactions. d. utility judgments.

ANSWER: c 90. In the augmented framework of training criteria, trainees' beliefs about the transferability of the training program are categorized as: a. learning. b. behavioral criteria. c. affective reactions. d. utility judgments.

ANSWER: d 91. When considering internal validity, which of these is ideal for use in training evaluation? a. pre/post design with a control group b. pre/post design c. Solomon four-group design d. single-measure design ANSWER: c

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 92. A manager has observed sexual harassment in their team. Several of the men on the team believe that making sexual jokes does not constitute sexual harassment. According to research, they should implement sexual harassment training that employs: a. behavior modeling. b. massed practice. c. coaching. d. programmed instruction.

ANSWER: a 93. Research has shown that sexual harassment training: a. is least effective in improving declarative knowledge. b. is most effective in improving declarative knowledge. c. has no effect of training on transfer outcomes. d. is equally helpful for all genders.

ANSWER: b 94. Which is true of diversity training (DT)? a. DT should be provided by uninvolved trainees. b. DT is more impactful when delivered alongside larger workplace diversity initiatives. c. Mandatory DT does not result in backlash. d. DT aims to reduce the diversity in an organization.

ANSWER: b 95. Even if an organization has an extremely effective selection system, it may still need to conduct some training because: a. training helps employees develop, which leads to better satisfaction and productivity. b. most selection systems still do a relatively poor job of identifying competent applicants. c. most applicants misrepresent their skills when they apply for a job. d. it is legally required for companies to train their employees if they have publicly traded stock.

ANSWER: a 96. Which analysis determines if particular groups (such as employees with disabilities) need specific training? a. Demographic b. Organizational c. Task d. Person ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 97. Which question relates to conducting a task analysis for training? a. What skills do your employees need in order to do the job well? b. Do you think that employees with disabilities in particular need help with this new technology? c. Who seems to need this training? d. Does the culture at this organization view training as a reward for employees?

ANSWER: a 98. Which question relates to conducting a demographic analysis for training? a. What skills do your employees need in order to do the job well? b. Do you think that employees with hearing loss in particular need help using this new technology? c. Who seems to need this training? d. Does the culture at this organization view training as a punishment?

ANSWER: b 99. Which question from an I/O consultant relates to conducting a person analysis for training? a. What skills do your employees need in order to do the job well? b. Do you think that employees who are older in particular need help with this new technology? c. Who seems to need this training? d. Does the culture at this organization view training as important and valuable?

ANSWER: c 100. Which is NOT a part of instructional design? a. planning the evaluation of trainees b. determining what is to be learned c. making decisions about design features d. determining financial compensation for acquired skills ANSWER: d 101. Omar is teaching the housekeepers in a hotel how to properly clean a room. Which of these is an example of active learning? a. Omar shows the housekeepers an instructional video that shows the right and wrong ways to clean. b. Omar provides a manual that explains how to clean a room and has a short quiz at the end. c. Omar demonstrates how to clean a room, and then has housekeepers try cleaning and provides them with feedback and tips while they work. d. Omar demonstrates for the housekeepers how to clean a room, and then has them take a multiple choice test.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 102. Alfie works in a manufacturing company that produces medical equipment. When training new employees, Alfie says, "It's important that you make sure these pieces fit together correctly, because if you do it wrong, it could cost someone their life." By doing this, Alfie is increasing the: a. acceptability of the material. b. meaningfulness of the material. c. distribution of the material. d. practice of the material.

ANSWER: b 103. For a task that is coherent and interdependent, like driving a car, research suggests it is best to teach the entire task at once (rather than teaching each piece separately). This approach is known as: a. complete learning. b. holistic learning. c. whole learning. d. unabridged learning.

ANSWER: c 104. For a task that is complex and has many independent components, like learning a word processing computer program, research suggests it is best to teach each piece separately (rather than trying to teach the entire program at once). This approach is known as which type of learning? a. part b. divided c. itemized d. enumerated ANSWER: a 105. Professor Achebe wants to make the material in the psychology class more meaningful for the students. One element the professor could incorporate into the class is to: a. give students plenty of breaks throughout the class. b. convey that the material should be overlearned. c. teach one three-hour lecture per week rather than three one-hour lectures. d. provide numerous real-life examples of where students might encounter class concepts.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 106. Sifa is training their plant employees on how to build a fan, and they want to make this training more meaningful for their employees. One element they could incorporate into their training is to: a. show how to build the fan in a logical order. b. convey that the material should be overlearned. c. make employees build the fans as quickly as possible to practice. d. give a multiple choice quiz after the training.

ANSWER: a 107. Research shows that trainees who have high self-efficacy tend to do better in training. Which statement is an example of what someone with high self-efficacy might say about training? a. Training is only necessary for those who require additional support. I'm pretty smart, so I don't really need this. b. I feel certain I'll be able to acquire this skill. c. This looks really difficult. d. I am going to feel really embarrassed if I make a mistake in this training.

ANSWER: b 108. When Armand returns from training, the boss dismisses the training as a waste of time and ridicules the use of new skills learned in the training. In this case, Armand is experiencing a(n): a. inclusive company climate. b. lack of job relevancy. c. poor transfer climate. d. strong transfer climate.

ANSWER: c 109. Which term describes a training program that uses computer-based activities and simulations? a. on-the-job training (OJT) b. Solomon four-group c. gamification d. human capital ANSWER: c

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 110. Sofiya attends a helpful sales training session and immediately starts using the skills learned when making sales calls. However, this doesn't result in any more sales, so the organization doesn't make any additional money as a result of the training. In this case, the training demonstrated good results on the: a. training criterion. b. reaction criterion. c. results criterion. d. behavioral criterion.

ANSWER: d 111. Kirkpatrick's behavioral taxonomy is similar to which of the augmented taxonomy criteria by Alliger and colleagues? a. reactions b. results c. transfer d. learning ANSWER: c 112. If a math teacher wanted to evaluate student learning using Kirkpatrick's reaction criteria, which question would be appropriate? a. On a scale of 1–5, how helpful do you think this class was? b. What is 5 times 6? c. Did you use your new math skills the last time you bought something in a store? d. True or False: 2 + 2 = 4.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 9 - Essay 1. Identify and describe each of the three major categories of motivation theories.

ANSWER: Need–motive–value theories emphasize the role of personality traits, stable dispositions, needs, and values; cognitive choice theories emphasize rational thought and decision making; and self-regulation theories emphasize goal-directed behaviors and self-monitoring.

2. How does Alderfer's ERG theory relate to Maslow's hierarchy of needs? What are the major differences between the two needs theories?

ANSWER: ERG theory recategorizes Maslow's needs into existence (physiological and safety), relatedness (love), and growth (esteem and self-actualization). ERG also posits that several needs can operate at once instead of in a sequence as Maslow suggested. ERG also posits that an individual who is frustrated about something at one level may focus their efforts at another level.

3. What are the two major components of Herzberg's two-factor theory? What might be an example of each component? How do they affect job satisfaction?

ANSWER: Hygiene factors are related to job contexts such as working conditions, pay, and supervision. Without hygiene factors, employees can experience dissatisfaction, but if present, lead to a neutral state.

Motivators are factors such as recognition, interesting work, and opportunities to advance. Employees who don't have motivators can experience a neutral state, but if present, lead to a satisfied state.

Motivators are key for job satisfaction while hygiene factors can reduce dissatisfaction. Examples will vary.

4. Draw a model that depicts the components of job characteristics theory. List the core job dimensions and the critical psychological states that contribute to outcomes.

ANSWER: The picture should depict core job dimensions (skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback) that lead to critical psychological states (such as experienced meaningfulness of work or knowledge of results), which then lead to outcomes such as motivation.

5. What are the two major implications of job characteristics theory?

ANSWER: Jobs should be designed with the core dimensions in mind as these are principle to all jobs: high skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback. Consideration should be given to the placement of employees in jobs, depending on what core dimensions are important to the jobs themselves.

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Chapter 9 - Essay 6. Self-determination theory holds that in order to foster feelings of well-being and motivation, environments must meet three needs: competence, relatedness, and autonomy. Explain what each of these three needs is and give an example for how a workplace might meet those needs.

ANSWER: Responses will vary. Competence is about experiencing success and building self-efficacy; relatedness is about feeling a sense of belonging; and autonomy is about having control over one's own actions.

Examples may vary. Competence might look like allowing an employee to demonstrate their skills on projects and receiving feedback highlighting their contributions. Relatedness can be created with social or cultural connections. Autonomy could look like allowing an individual to choose which initiatives to be involved in or setting key processes for their role.

7. What has research demonstrated about equity theory in terms of its actual effect on motivation?

ANSWER: Research suggests that when people feel underrewarded, they tend to reduce their inputs or provide lower quality work. However, the theorized effect of overrewarding causing guilt has not been supported in research. In fact, overreward can lead to burnout and other negative organizational outcomes.

8. Describe the four major assumptions of equity theory.

ANSWER: People strive to maintain a state of equity. When inequity is perceived, a state of tension results. When faced with this tension, people are motivated to reduce the tension. The greater the magnitude of the perceived inequity, the greater the motivation to act to reduce the tension.

9. What are the three main strategies an employee might use to reduce feelings of inequity?

ANSWER: Change inputs; change outcomes; alter perceptions/comparison group.

10. Provide an example of an effective goal you might set for yourself if you want to improve your study habits. Explain how this example illustrates the characteristics of an effective goal.

ANSWER: Responses will vary. The goal should be difficult and specific, the student should commit to the goal, and the student should find ways to obtain feedback on their progress toward the goal. Students may also reference management by objectives by checking in with the teacher to get a plan.

11. What are the three classifications of people based on their equity sensitivity, and how do they react to overreward or underreward?

ANSWER: Benevolents are fairly tolerant of underreward inequity; entitleds have a desire for overreward; equitysensitives truly desire equity in their rewards.

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Chapter 9 - Essay 12. What are the three main types of organizational justice? Provide a scenario for each type of justice that illustrates what a high level of justice might look like.

ANSWER: Responses will vary. Distributive justice concerns fairness of outcomes, procedural justice concerns the fairness of decision-making procedures, and interactional justice concerns how decisions are communicated. For example, distributive justice could look like evaluating the amount of bonuses that were paid to employees. Procedural justice would evaluate why certain workers got higher bonuses than others. Interactional justice would concern how bonus allotment was described and justified to employees.

13. What are the three components of Vroom's expectancy theory? Describe how motivation is determined based on this theory.

ANSWER: Expectancy (Will effort lead to better performance?), instrumentality (Will better performance lead to rewards?), and valence (Are the rewards of value?). These components are multiplicative, and thus, if any of them is zero, there will be no motivation.

14. According to Locke, what are the four ways in which goals affect behavior?

ANSWER: They draw attention to a particular task or element of a task; they mobilize on-task effort; they enable people to be persistent as they strive toward attaining their goals; they help people facilitate strategies that can be used at a higher cognitive level to move toward their attainment.

15. Use the example of a thermostat to illustrate how control theory works to motivate employees.

ANSWER: A thermostat operates by sensing the temperature in a room and comparing it with a standard. If it is too cold, the thermostat will turn on the furnace to reduce the discrepancy. Control theory is similar in that people set a standard for themselves and compare their progress to this standard. If they are not up to the standard, they will be motivated to work harder or focus on more relevant tasks.

16. In organizational behavior management, what does the "ABC" in the ABC model stand for?

ANSWER: In the ABC model, A stands for the antecedents of the behavior, B stands for the behavior itself, and C stands for the consequences of the behavior.

17. You are an HR manager who needs to explain the management by objectives (MBO) process to your company.

What will you say? What can you tell the company about what research has to say about this process?

ANSWER: Responses will vary. They likely will discuss setting objectives, creating an action plan, conducting a performance review, and setting objectives for the next period. MBO has been shown to have a positive effect on performance.

18. If you were assigned to increase the job enrichment of a retail salesperson, what would you do? Link your ideas to the core job dimensions of job characteristics theory.

ANSWER: Responses will vary. Responses should mention skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback.

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Chapter 9 - Essay 19. Provide an example of how someone might craft a job, and describe how job crafting might affect motivation.

ANSWER: Responses will vary. A response should describe someone who customizes a job to fit their skills and interests. Job crafting can allow an employee to create more meaningful work experiences, which could positively affect motivation.

20. The owner of a paper company is talking with one of her employees. The employee indicates that he feels unmotivated at his work. Every day, he comes in and fills in the same boring spreadsheet. His boss makes him follow a specific procedure for doing this task for no clear reason, and this boss only speaks to him to yell at him if he does something differently from that procedure. He doesn't even know what the point is of these spreadsheets.

Using job characteristics theory, provide two possible actions this owner could take to help this employee feel more motivated.

ANSWER: Answers will vary, but the owner might find the employee some additional and different tasks to do (skill variety), see if the employee feels like his efforts are reflected in his work (task identity), explain why this task is important (task significance), or talk with the employee's boss to talk with the employee more about his performance (feedback) or ask that the boss let the employee do things his own way (autonomy).

21. A manager has a team of five very talented employees, but they can only give out one end-of-year bonus. Describe two actions this manager can take to help make their employees who do not get the bonus feel better about the situation and relate these behaviors to justice theory.

ANSWER: Responses will vary. Distributive justice concerns the fairness of outcomes, so there's not much the manager can do about that (unless the student says the manager should split the bonus among all five people). Procedural justice concerns how decisions are made, so students might talk about having a specific procedure in place that makes the decision fair (e.g., not being biased or playing favorites when deciding who gets the bonus). Interactional justice involves respect and politeness, so suggestions in this area might be apologizing that not everyone can get a bonus, thanking employees for working hard even if they didn't get the bonus, or having a face-to-face conversation instead of sending a note about the bonus by e-mail. Informational justice is about providing explanations about decisions, so suggestions in this area might be providing an explanation for how the manager decided to award one person the bonus, or telling employees what they might do to get a bonus in the future.

22. Jasmine is not feeling very motivated at work. Jasmine knows that working an extra hour every day will improve her performance. Jasmine also knows that if Jasmine's performance improves, Jasmine's boss will be delighted and will give Jasmine a raise. But Jasmine doesn't want a raise—Jasmine would rather get a nice office with a window so Jasmine can enjoy beautiful weather when she's working those long hours. Evaluate Jasmine's expectancy, instrumentality, and valence (VIE theory) to evaluate why Jasmine is unmotivated, and what Jasmine's boss might do to fix the problem.

ANSWER: Jasmine has high expectancy (she knows more effort will lead to better performance) and high instrumentality (she knows she'll get rewarded for good performance), but her valence is low (she is not interested in money). One solution is to find a reward that Jasmine can have that will be more appealing to her (like an office with a window).

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 1. Which of these is the systematic study of dispositional and situational variables that influence the behaviors and experiences of individuals and groups at work? a. Management by objectives b. Organizational psychology c. Industrial psychology d. Human factors ANSWER: b 2. A topic that is included in organizational psychology is: a. teamwork. b. selection. c. job analysis. d. legal issues in hiring.

ANSWER: a 3. Which of these areas are studied within the field of organizational psychology? a. Employee selection b. Performance appraisal c. Leadership d. Job performance ANSWER: c 4. Which of these is a force that drives employees to behave in a way that energizes, directs, and sustains their behavior? a. Job enrichment b. Valence c. Instrumentality d. Work motivation ANSWER: d 5. Work motivation is a force that drives employees to behave in a way that: a. identifies work behaviors. b. controls work behaviors. c. sustains work behaviors. d. suppresses work behaviors.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 6. Work motivation is a force that drives employees to behave in a way that: a. energizes work behaviors. b. internalizes work behaviors. c. limits work behaviors. d. decreases work behaviors.

ANSWER: a 7. Which effort is a component of work motivation? a. directing effort b. limiting effort c. examining effort d. decreasing effort ANSWER: a 8. Which statement about motivation is true? a. Motivation is the same thing as performance. b. Motivation and performance are the same construct. c. Motivation involves sustaining work behaviors. d. Motivation involves decreasing effort.

ANSWER: c 9. Forces that organize perceptions, beliefs, cognitions, and actions, and then give rise to behaviors that reduce these forces and bring about a steady state, are known as: a. traits. b. needs. c. expectancies. d. beliefs.

ANSWER: b 10. Chacko, a college student, diligently attends every class and studies hard for every exam as he is motivated by the need to fulfill his potential. According to Maslow, Chacko has reached the level of the needs hierarchy known as: a. self-actualization. b. self-transcendence. c. growth. d. esteem.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 11. Arya is a college professor who feels that they are well-regarded and respected by their students and their peers.

According to Maslow, Arya has reached the level of the needs hierarchy known as: a. safety. b. esteem. c. love. d. self-transcendence.

ANSWER: b 12. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which need takes precedence over all other needs? a. making friends b. gaining respect from colleagues c. drinking water to reduce thirst d. fulfilling one's purpose in one's life ANSWER: c 13. Which need is included in Maslow's hierarchy? a. esteem b. identification c. growth d. altruism ANSWER: a 14. From bottom to top, what is the order of Maslow's hierarchy of needs? a. physiological needs, safety, love, esteem, self-actualization b. physiological needs, love, esteem, safety, self-actualization c. safety, esteem, love, physiological needs, self-actualization d. safety, physiological needs, esteem, love, self-actualization ANSWER: a 15. Which statement summarizes the research findings on Maslow's hierarchy of needs? a. It is easily testable, and a great deal of research supports it. b. It is easily testable, and a great deal of research refutes it. c. It is difficult to test, and thus few empirical studies have investigated it. d. Research has mainly been conducted by business managers, and this evidence shows strong support for the theory.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 16. Maslow's love needs correspond to Alderfer's: a. existence needs. b. rational needs. c. growth needs. d. relatedness needs.

ANSWER: d 17. Carlos is an HR manager in a manufacturing plant who wants to motivate the employees. Carlos uses job characteristics theory as guidance. One step Carlos will take is: a. helping employees see how their efforts produce a final product that satisfies customers. b. decreasing the autonomy employees have over their work. c. giving all employees a raise. d. setting difficult, specific goals for the employees.

ANSWER: a 18. According to self-determination theory, employees need to feel a sense of belonging and connectedness to other individuals or groups. This sense is known as: a. esteem. b. relatedness. c. autonomy. d. expectancy.

ANSWER: b 19. Maslow's esteem and self-actualization needs correspond to which of Alderfer's needs? a. existence b. rational c. growth d. relatedness ANSWER: c 20. Maslow's physiological and safety needs correspond to Alderfer's: a. existence needs. b. relatedness needs. c. growth needs. d. safety needs.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 21. One main difference between Maslow's hierarchy and Alderfer's ERG theory is that: a. there is strong empirical support for Maslow's hierarchy but not for Alderfer's ERG theory. b. Maslow's hierarchy of needs can operate simultaneously rather than sequentially as the ERG need categories do. c. ERG need categories can operate simultaneously rather than sequentially as Maslow's hierarchy does. d. Alderfer's work was mostly based on clinical observations, whereas Maslow conducted only empirical studies.

ANSWER: c 22. Nala cannot attain her growth needs, so she refocuses her energy on satisfying her relatedness needs. Her situation would be explained by: a. Alderfer's frustration–regression hypothesis. b. Herzberg's two-factor theory. c. job characteristics theory. d. positive psychology.

ANSWER: a 23. According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, which is an example of a motivator? a. responsibility b. salary c. working conditions d. supervision ANSWER: a 24. According to the two-factor theory, which is an example of a hygiene factor? a. recognition b. interesting work c. advancement opportunities d. working conditions ANSWER: d 25. Which statement summarizes the empirical support for Alderfer's ERG theory? a. Research indicates that the different stages cannot occur simultaneously. b. Most research was conducted by Alderfer himself and has mixed support. c. More research has been done on Maslow's theory than on Alderfer's theory. d. To date, there has not been any empirical research conducted on Alderfer's theory.

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 26. Who is responsible for the motivation theory that proposes that the determinants of job satisfaction are not the same as those that determine job dissatisfaction? a. Victor Vroom b. Albert Bandura c. Frederick Herzberg d. J. Stacy Adams ANSWER: c 27. According to the two-factor theory, recognition is an example of a(n): a. motivator. b. hygiene. c. expectancy. d. self-observation.

ANSWER: a 28. According to the two-factor theory, which is an example of a hygiene factor? a. recognition b. interesting work c. advancement opportunities d. supervision ANSWER: d 29. According to the two-factor theory, supervision is an example of a: a. motivator. b. hygiene. c. relatedness need. d. growth need.

ANSWER: b 30. The study of human attributes, including well-being, optimism, creativity, and spirituality, is known as: a. industrial psychology. b. positive psychology. c. holistic psychology. d. organizational behavior management.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 31. Which theory argues that motivation is determined by the combined effect of individual differences in personality and features of work? a. Goal Setting b. Self-efficacy expectations c. Job characteristics d. Expectancy ANSWER: c 32. According to Hackman and Oldham (1980), which of these is NOT a core job dimension? a. autonomy b. feedback c. contextual performance d. task significance ANSWER: c 33. In job characteristics theory, core job dimensions directly influence: a. growth need strength. b. personal and work outcomes. c. critical psychological states. d. internal motivation.

ANSWER: c 34. Paul is an HR manager who wants to motivate the employees using the job characteristics theory. One step Paul should take is to: a. redesign jobs to be high on skill, variety, and autonomy. b. help employees reduce their inputs and increase their outcomes. c. improve employees' salaries and working conditions. d. set difficult, specific goals for his employees.

ANSWER: a 35. Which recommendation is supported by the job characteristics model? a. Job tasks should be simple and repetitive. b. Employees should understand how their efforts lead to meaningful outcomes. c. Employees with high levels of growth need strength should not be allowed to assume personal responsibility for their work. d. Supervisors should avoid giving regular constructive feedback to employees.

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 36. According to Hackman and Oldham (1980), which represents the extent to which individuals value fulfilling their higher-order demands? a. self-actualization b. expectancy c. cognitive evaluation d. growth need strength ANSWER: d 37. Which statement summarizes the empirical research on the job characteristics model? a. The theory is difficult to test, and therefore very few studies have been conducted. b. A meta-analysis suggests that the job characteristics model actually works in the opposite way from that theorized by Hackman and Oldham. c. A meta-analysis suggests that job characteristics have important influences on motivation, performance, and satisfaction. d. A review by the APA found that instituting suggestions from the job characteristics model would be highly unethical.

ANSWER: c 38. Circe is not interested in fulfilling higher-order demands. Circe wants to go to work, do the same thing every day, and go home and not think about work. Circe has no desire to learn or get promoted. What is Circe exhibiting? a. positive psychology. b. self-transcendence. c. cognitive evaluation. d. growth need strength.

ANSWER: d 39. Which motivational theory suggests that social-contextual events that enhance perceptions of competence improve intrinsic motivation? a. self-evaluation theory b. self-regulation theory c. self-determination theory d. expectancy theory ANSWER: c

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 40. In their self-determination theory, Ryan and Deci (2000) suggested that to foster high levels of well-being and motivation, people's needs should be met for competence, relatedness, and: a. self-esteem. b. safety. c. autonomy. d. expectancy.

ANSWER: c 41. In their self-determination theory, Ryan and Deci (2000) suggested that to foster high levels of well-being and motivation, which of these needs should be met? a. hygiene b. relatedness c. valence d. expectancy ANSWER: b 42. According to self-determination theory, which of these needs should be met to foster high levels of well-being and motivation? a. instrumentality b. safety c. autonomy d. expectancy ANSWER: c 43. According to self-determination theory, in order to be motivated, employees need to feel as though they are successful in their work. This feeling is known as: a. self-esteem. b. competence. c. autonomy. d. expectancy.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 44. According to self-determination theory, in order to be motivated, employees need to feel that they have personal control over their actions. This feeling is known as: a. relatedness. b. competence. c. autonomy. d. valence.

ANSWER: c 45. Research has found that providing external reinforcement reduces intrinsic motivation. This phenomenon is known as the: a. cognitive evaluation effect. b. goal-setting effect. c. overjustification effect. d. valence–instrumentality–expectancy effect.

ANSWER: c 46. Which scenario is an example of the overjustification effect? a. Regan used to like painting pictures. However, once she started getting paid for painting, she refused to paint unless she was paid to do so. b. Felipe does not work very hard, so he claims his poor performance is because his job is very difficult. c. Melinda feels that she is overpaid for her work. As a result, she works much harder and for longer hours than she would if she were paid less. d. Juro spends a great deal of time procrastinating so that he has to rush to finish his work. This way, when his work is poor quality, he can blame it on the rushing rather than on his abilities.

ANSWER: a 47. Equity theory and expectancy theory are categorized as which theories of motivation? a. cognitive choice b. self-regulation c. need–motive–value d. hygiene ANSWER: a

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 48. People's perceptions and beliefs about the fairness of their treatment at work affect their motivation, attitudes, and behaviors. Which theory is this the underlying idea behind? a. ERG b. equity c. expectancy d. social cognitive ANSWER: b 49. According to equity theory, which is an input? a. benefits b. feelings of satisfaction c. education level d. salary ANSWER: c 50. According to equity theory, which is an outcome? a. abilities b. efforts c. education level d. feelings of satisfaction ANSWER: d 51. According to equity theory, people compare their ratio of inputs and outcomes to the: a. outputs that they believe they should earn. b. inputs they believe are valuable. c. ratio of inputs and outputs of their peers. d. ratio of inputs and outputs of CEOs. ANSWER: c

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 52. Ayita perceives inequity because when she compares her input/outcome ratio to that of Yindi's, the ratios are not equal. Ayita frequently volunteers to work many more hours than Yindi, but she receives smaller bonuses compared to what Yindi receives. According to equity theory, one way Ayita can reduce her perceived inequity is to: a. increase the value she places on outcomes such as bonuses. b. increase her commitment to achieve a $1,000 bonus. c. stop volunteering to work extra hours. d. devote more time to conducting a self-evaluation.

ANSWER: c 53. Pilar observes inequity because when she contrasts her inputs versus outcomes comparison to that of Zuri's, the comparisons are not equal. Pilar produces excellent work but does not receive the pay that Zuri receives.

According to equity theory, one way Pilar can reduce her perceived inequity is to: a. improve the quality of her work. b. increase her inputs by obtaining more education. c. increase the value she places on outcomes, such as pay. d. alter her perceptions about her ratio by comparing herself to a coworker who earns a lower salary.

ANSWER: d 54. Which statement about the research on equity theory is accurate? a. Research suggests that if people believe they are overpaid, they will increase their inputs. b. Research suggests that if people believe they are underpaid, they will refuse to continue working. c. Research suggests that if people believe they are underpaid, the quality of their work may become lower. d. Research suggests that if people believe they are overpaid, they will ask for a pay cut.

ANSWER: c 55. Which statement summarizes the empirical research on equity theory? a. Research clearly demonstrates that if people feel underrewarded, they will increase their efforts. b. Empirical support is mixed; people are more likely to attempt to change their ratios if they are underrewarded than if they are overrewarded. c. Empirical support is mixed; people are more likely to attempt to change their ratios if they are overrewarded than if they are underrewarded. d. Because the premises are difficult to test, very little research has been done on equity theory.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 56. Research examining equity sensitivity suggests that which group is fairly tolerant of underreward inequity? a. benevolents b. entitleds c. expectancies d. instrumentals ANSWER: a 57. An individual's interest in, and concern with, fairness-related activities in a workplace is referred to as: a. organizational justice. b. equity sensitivity. c. self-regulation. d. cognitive dissonance.

ANSWER: a 58. Organizational justice involves three types of justice: distributive, procedural, and: a. attributional. b. relational. c. interactional. d. ideal.

ANSWER: c 59. Interactional justice can be divided into two subtypes: interpersonal justice and: a. procedural justice. b. informational justice. c. distributive justice. d. instrumentality justice.

ANSWER: b 60. Alicia does not believe it is fair to work in the job for two years before being considered for promotion. Alicia's feelings of unfairness in this situation fall under which category of justice? a. informational b. distributive c. interactional d. procedural ANSWER: d

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 61. Hine has learned that there will be no bonus this year. The news is particularly upsetting because the supervisor has not explained the reason for the lack of bonus and was rude when delivering the news. Hine is likely upset because of the low level of: a. distributive justice. b. procedural justice. c. interactional justice. d. individual justice.

ANSWER: c 62. Kia has received a poor grade in a class. When visiting the professor to discuss it, the professor is polite toward Kia but fails to explain in detail how the grade was decided. Kia likely experiences low: a. procedural justice. b. informational justice. c. distributive justice. d. interpersonal justice.

ANSWER: b 63. Aiko is very bothered when feeling underrewarded for work. According to research on equity sensitivity, Aiko is likely a(n): a. entitled. b. benevolent. c. expectancy. d. equity-sensitive.

ANSWER: a 64. Greta is not at all bothered when underrewarded for work. According to research on equity sensitivity, Greta is likely a(n): a. entitled. b. benevolent. c. expectancy. d. equity-impervious.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 65. Mina has received a poor grade in a class. When visiting the professor to discuss it, the professor is very polite but does not really explain how Mina earned the grade. Mina likely experiences high: a. procedural justice. b. informational justice. c. distributive justice. d. interpersonal justice.

ANSWER: d 66. Thiago knows that good performance is rewarded with extra vacation time, and values having that vacation time so Thiago can travel. In expectancy theory, Thiago's expectation that satisfaction will come from having time off is known as: a. valence. b. expectancy. c. instrumentality. d. inputs.

ANSWER: a 67. Which theory is based on the premise that people's behaviors result from conscious choices among alternatives, and that these alternatives are evaluated with respect to valence, among other things? a. Equity b. Expectancy c. Self-determination d. Cognitive evaluation ANSWER: b 68. Carlos believes that there is a strong relationship between studying for many hours and receiving an A on the next exam. According to Vroom's VIE theory, Carlos's belief reflects: a. valence. b. expectancy. c. regulation. d. instrumentality.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 69. Mariela believes that a favorable performance review will likely result in higher pay. According to expectancy theory, Mariela's belief reflects: a. valence. b. expectancy. c. instrumentality. d. inputs.

ANSWER: c 70. Reyna knows that if she puts in longer hours, her performance on her project will improve. However, she feels her boss dislikes her, so even if she improves her performance, she believes she will not receive a raise, which she would really like. According to expectancy theory, Reyna has high: a. instrumentality. b. valence. c. expectancy. d. effort.

ANSWER: c 71. Gul knows that if they perform well on their next project, they will receive a pay raise. Unfortunately, Gul is not interested in a pay raise; they would rather have more vacation time to spend with their family. According to expectancy theory, Gul has a low level of: a. expectancy. b. instrumentality. c. equity sensitivity. d. valence.

ANSWER: d 72. Which theory suggests that motivation is linked to the manner in which individuals monitor their own behaviors and adjust those behaviors in the pursuit of goals? a. Self-determination b. Self-regulation c. Cognitive choice d. Need ANSWER: b

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 73. A newspaper wants a salesperson to increase the subscription sales. According to goal-setting theory, which goal will likely be effective in motivating this salesperson? a. Sell at least one subscription when you can. b. Sell five new subscriptions per week. c. The company believes you can sell a lot of subscriptions. d. You can do it!

ANSWER: b 74. Which is a way in which goal-setting changes behavior? a. Goals help people direct their attention. b. Goals help people decide if they are being paid fairly. c. Goals help people evaluate their inputs and outcomes. d. Goals help people compare themselves with others.

ANSWER: a 75. According to goal-setting theory, people will perform best when they: a. do not have any goals. b. are assigned specific and difficult goals. c. are assigned general and difficult goals. d. are assigned specific and easy goals.

ANSWER: b 76. According to goal-setting theory, motivation is enhanced when employees accept and are committed to specific, difficult goals as well as when they: a. are given feedback regarding progress toward those goals. b. are rewarded for reaching those goals. c. can see the effort-to-performance link. d. can see the performance-to-outcome link.

ANSWER: a 77. With respect to goal-setting theory, which statement is true? a. People perform best when their goals are specific and difficult. b. People perform best when they are able to choose their own goals. c. People perform best when they do not feel committed to their goals. d. People perform best when they do not receive feedback on their performance.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 78. Which theory emphasizes the mental, behavioral, individual, and environmental factors that work together in determining motivation? a. Self-determination b. Job characteristics c. Social cognitive d. Cognitive evaluation ANSWER: c 79. Bandura's concept of self-efficacy refers to: a. how good an individual feels about themself as a person. b. whether an individual feels they can successfully accomplish a task. c. whether an individual is focused on performance rather than learning. d. whether an individual is motivated by extrinsic rewards rather than intrinsic rewards.

ANSWER: b 80. According to Bandura, which is a component of self-regulation? a. self-mitigation b. self-evaluation c. self-construal d. self-esteem ANSWER: b 81. Bandura refers to the attention that individuals devote to feedback processes and to understanding their own performance and effort as: a. self-observation. b. self-evaluation. c. self-esteem. d. self-understanding.

ANSWER: b 82. Juan, a long-distance runner, perceives his ability to complete a marathon to be quite good. According to Bandura, Juan's perceptions reflect his: a. self-esteem. b. self-acknowledgment. c. self-efficacy expectations. d. valence.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 83. Tanya is studying for a statistics exam. The primary concern is thoroughly understanding statistical concepts rather than the grade received in the course. Tanya has adopted a: a. learning goal orientation. b. self-efficacy expectation. c. motivational goal orientation. d. performance goal orientation.

ANSWER: a 84. Eliseo, who is taking a biology course, is not particularly interested in learning and developing as a researcher.

What Eliseo is focused on is earning an A in the course. Which orientation has Eliseo adopted? a. learning goal b. efficacy goal c. social cognitive d. performance goal ANSWER: d 85. Sahu has set a goal to have her assigned textbook chapters read by Thursday of each week. She realizes that she is much more likely to rush through the reading on Sunday instead. According to control theory, what is Sahu's likely response? a. She will feel helpless and will give up studying altogether. b. She will feel bad that she is missing her goals, but will not be motivated to change her behavior. c. She will see the discrepancy between her goal and her behavior and will be more motivated to start studying earlier. d. She will talk to her friends to see if they think she should continue to pursue this goal.

ANSWER: c 86. Which social cognitive motivational theory is based on the existence of a negative feedback loop that results from comparing performance feedback with a goal? a. job characteristics theory b. goal-setting theory c. expectancy theory d. control theory ANSWER: d

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 87. Adan has set a standard for himself to be productive at work. According to control theory, how will Adan gauge whether or not he has met this standard? a. He might look at a checklist to see which tasks he has successfully completed. b. He might consider whether he felt he had control over his tasks, and, if he did not, he will not feel badly about missing some tasks. c. He will ask his supervisor for a raise. d. He will not be concerned about whether he has met his standard, and thus will not take the time to gauge his success.

ANSWER: a 88. Yang has given up trying to achieve an A in the psychology course because Yang believes that it is now impossible to earn that grade. According to control theory, Yang's belief represents: a. disengagement. b. performance goal orientation. c. equity sensitivity. d. benevolence.

ANSWER: a 89. In organizational behavior management (OBM), the approach that focuses on the antecedents of behaviors, the behaviors themselves, and the consequences of the behaviors is an application of: a. management by behavior. b. applied behavior analysis. c. job enrichment. d. job autonomy.

ANSWER: b 90. In organizational behavior management (OBM), the name of the ABC model of applied behavior analysis stands for: a. activities, bases, costs. b. attention, behavior, cognition. c. antecedent, behavior, consequence. d. anticipate, believe, control.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 91. Oluwaseun wants to use organizational behavior management to help motivate the employees. What is the first step Oluwaseun should take? a. identify what behaviors need to be changed b. measure the behaviors he wants to change in order to get a baseline c. evaluate the success of the intervention by comparing current behaviors to a baseline d. examine the links between the targeted behaviors and current rewards and punishments ANSWER: a 92. Which is one of the steps involved in the behavioral approach to human resources management? a. targeting actions that need to be changed b. examining the links between job descriptions and job specifications c. assessing employees' feelings of justice d. developing an action plan to describe how managers will achieve their goals ANSWER: a 93. Which statement describes the finding of Stajkovic and Luthans's (1997) meta-analysis on organizational behavior management (OBM)? a. Companies that used OBM experienced significant performance improvements. b. Companies that used OBM found that subjective performance increased, while objective performance decreased. c. Approximately 50% of companies found that OBM damaged performance. d. OBM appears to have no meaningful effect on performance.

ANSWER: a 94. Ludwig and Geller (1997, 2000) conducted a study examining goal setting and safety behaviors of pizza delivery drivers. Which statement describes their findings? a. The drivers exhibited safer behaviors only if they helped to set their own goal. b. The drivers exhibited safer behaviors only if they were assigned a goal. c. Drivers who were either assigned a goal or set one themselves were safer than drivers who did not set goals. d. All drivers immediately improved their safety behaviors at the beginning of training, but they immediately stopped engaging in safety behaviors when they believed the researchers weren't observing them.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 95. Which is a stage in the management by objectives process? a. hiring a project manager b. conducting a job analysis c. setting subordinate performance goals d. examining the links between current rewards and subordinate behaviors ANSWER: c 96. The process of increasing the motivating potential of jobs by strengthening the key motivating characteristics identified by job characteristics theory is referred to as: a. applied behavioral analysis. b. job enlargement. c. job enrichment. d. management by objectives.

ANSWER: c 97. Work enrichment relies heavily on which motivational theory? a. expectancy theory b. equity theory c. goal-setting theory d. job characteristics theory ANSWER: d 98. Which of these is a context in which employees have the flexibility to customize or modify their own jobs? a. job creation b. job crafting c. positive psychology d. job analysis ANSWER: b 99. Manaia is an administrative assistant whose main job is to answer phones and book appointments. However, Manaia is also talented in programming and modifies the job to also update the company website because that work is engaging. Manaia is engaging in job: a. modeling. b. crafting. c. flex. d. plasticity.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 100. Which of these refers to the workplace approach in which employees can negotiate with their supervisors about their job conditions and arrangements? a. Idiosyncratic deals b. Favor trees c. Ideographic deals d. Independence deals ANSWER: a 101. Research on idiosyncratic deals suggests that: a. managers are unwilling to negotiate about employees' job conditions. b. idiosyncratic deals are related to low levels of employee initiative. c. employees who negotiate i-deals are viewed positively by coworkers. d. employee perceptions of procedural justice are important for its effectiveness.

ANSWER: d 102. The three general theories of motivation are need–motive–value, cognitive choice, and: a. self-efficacy. b. self-regulation. c. self-esteem. d. self-transcendence.

ANSWER: b 103. According to the two-factor theory, which example is a motivator? a. supervision b. salary c. working conditions d. recognition ANSWER: d 104. According to the two-factor theory, which example is a motivator? a. supervision b. interesting work c. working conditions d. salary ANSWER: b

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 105. According to the two-factor theory, which example is a hygiene factor? a. supervision b. interesting work c. advancement opportunities d. responsibility ANSWER: a 106. According to the two-factor theory, which example is a hygiene factor? a. recognition b. interesting work c. salary d. reinforcement for work well done ANSWER: c 107. According to two-factor theory, supervision is an example of a(n): a. hygiene. b. motivator. c. esteem need. d. growth need.

ANSWER: a 108. According to Hackman and Oldham (1980), what is a core job dimension? a. goal orientation b. experienced responsibility c. feedback d. self-actualization ANSWER: c 109. Devonte is a manager who wants to motivate the employees using the job characteristics theory. One step Devonte should take is to: a. let employees make their own decisions about how to do their work. b. help employees increase their inputs and decrease their outcomes. c. give all employees raises. d. ensure that hygiene factors, like good work conditions, are in place.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 110. Bernice is a supervisor who wants to motivate the employees using the job characteristics theory. One step Bernice should take is to: a. ensure that motivators, such as opportunities for advancement, are in place. b. help employees reduce their inputs and increase their outcomes. c. provide her employees with constructive feedback on how to do their jobs well. d. give all employees raises.

ANSWER: c 111. Which action represents the application of job characteristics theory? a. Lukas makes tasks simple and repetitive so the workers don't have to think much while they are at work. b. Mahdi shows line workers how the parts they work fit together to create the final product, so they understand why their work matters. c. Callam doesn't give the employees any feedback because Callam thinks it's mean to do so. d. Marlee shows the employees one way to do a task and does not allow them to find their own ways to complete it.

ANSWER: b 112. According to self-determination theory, in order to be motivated, employees need to feel that they have a sense of belonging and connectedness to their coworkers. This feeling is known as: a. relatedness. b. sociability. c. autonomy. d. valence.

ANSWER: a 113. According to equity theory, which is an input? a. benefits b. feelings of satisfaction c. self-concept d. knowledge ANSWER: d

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 114. According to equity theory, which is an outcome? a. recognition b. efforts c. education level d. vision ANSWER: a 115. According to two-factor theory, which would lead to a satisfied state? a. the presence of hygiene factors b. the absence of hygiene factors c. the absence of motivator factors d. the presence of motivator factors ANSWER: d 116. According to the two-factor theory, what would lead to a dissatisfied state? a. the presence of hygiene factors b. the absence of hygiene factors c. the absence of motivator factors d. the presence of motivator factors ANSWER: b 117. Kirra has worked in a role for three years and is considering the motivation to assume more responsibilities to receive a pay raise. Kirra expects that increased responsibilities will lead to better performance ratings and Kirra would value a raise. However, Kirra does not expect that the effort will be compensated due to recent budget cuts. According to Vroom's expectancy theory, which would describe Kirra's motivation? a. Kirra will not be motivated. b. Kirra will be somewhat motivated. c. Kirra will be highly motivated. d. Kirra will be undeterred by budget cuts.

ANSWER: a 118. Motivation can be: a. seen. b. measured directly. c. inferred from behaviors. d. touched.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 119. According to Locke and Latham (2019), goals affect behavior by: a. providing motivation. b. providing direction. c. increasing distractions. d. minimizing effort.

ANSWER: b 120. Which of these is a challenge of the pay-for-performance approach? a. Motivation is not impacted by pay. b. Performance is not impacted by pay. c. It increases the likelihood of unethical behavior. d. Pay-for-performance is illegal.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 10 - Essay 1. List three reasons why it is important to understand job attitudes.

ANSWER: It has long been assumed that attitudes influence work behavior. For humanitarian reasons, improving job attitudes is a desirable goal. Studying job attitudes can help us understand the complexity of both our work lives and our nonwork lives. Additionally, how we feel about our jobs relates to broader life factors, such as feelings about life, how we treat others, and how secure attachments are built.

2. Draw a diagram that depicts the theory of planned behavior. Define at least two antecedents of behavior.

ANSWER: The diagram should include attitudes, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control. Each of these components should directly influence intentions. Intentions and perceived behavioral control should relate directly to behavior. The definition of attitude is the degree of positive or negative feeling someone has about something. Subjective norms are an individual's perception of social pressures to perform or not perform a behavior. Perceived behavioral control is an individual's belief about how easy or difficult performance of a behavior is likely to be. Intentions are whether someone plans to engage in a certain behavior.

3. How would one improve the job satisfaction of employees in an organization? Describe research that supports any suggestions.

ANSWER: Responses will vary, but respondents might suggest changing job characteristics (e.g., allowing more autonomy), hiring employees with certain individual characteristics (e.g., positive affect), influencing social factors (e.g., improving supervisor or coworker relationships), or providing growth opportunities (e.g., improving promotion opportunities).

4. Identify and describe two individual/personal characteristics that are antecedents of job satisfaction.

ANSWER: Affective disposition is the tendency to respond to environmental stimuli in predetermined affect-based ways. Genetics is the indication that some reactions to work are influenced by genetic factors. Selfesteem can include core self-evaluations and organization-based self-esteem.

5. What is job involvement? How is this different from work centrality?

ANSWER: Job involvement concerns the extent to which employees are cognitively engaged in their jobs and focuses on one's particular job. Work centrality concerns how important work is in an employee's life and concerns work in general.

6. Describe two specific types of support that are antecedents to organizational commitment.

ANSWER: Antecedents include perceptions of supervisor treatment, transformational leadership, psychological contract breaches, organizational politics, developmental opportunities, and role conflict. Value-based profiles are also associated with organizational support.

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Chapter 10 - Essay 7. Explain the difference between global and facet measures of job satisfaction. When might an organization prefer to use a facet measure instead of a global measure?

ANSWER: Global measures assess a general sense of satisfaction, whereas facet measures assess an individual's satisfaction with many different aspects of the workplace. Facet measures might be helpful when an organization wants more detailed information about how employees feel about different aspects of the organization.

8. Identify and describe three measures that you could use to measure job satisfaction in an organization. For each one, describe one advantage of using that measure.

ANSWER: The Job Descriptive Index (JDI) is one of the most well-established measures of facets of job satisfaction. The Job Diagnostic Survey (JDS) is also well-established and provides information about facets of job satisfaction. The Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire (MSQ) assesses how a job satisfies an employee's needs and desires. The Faces Scale is nonverbal and useful for verbally unskilled employees.

9. Provide three counterproductive work behaviors and describe how they can be detrimental to an employee and an organization.

ANSWER: CWBs can be described as any behaviors that are intended to bring harm to an organization, its stakeholders, and its employees. Workplace deviance can impact employees on an emotional basis or financially at an organization-level. Results may vary, but examples of CWBs could include stealing, lateness, turnover, absence, sabotage, bribery, cyberloafing, and others.

10. Using the Steers and Rhodes (1978) model as a guide, describe how job satisfaction affects employee absence/attendance.

ANSWER: Job satisfaction affects an individual's attendance motivation as employees who are more satisfied with their jobs are more motivated to attend. However, this is also influenced by pressure to attend (e.g., work-group norms) and ability to attend (e.g., illness). Thus, satisfaction matters but is not the only determinant of attendance.

11. In what cases might turnover have positive consequences for an organization?

ANSWER: When the individuals who are leaving the workplace are ineffective employees and are replaced by effective employees, this can have positive outcomes for the organization.

12. What are the two main antecedents of employee turnover that have been studied by researchers?

ANSWER: Perceived ease of movement (the extent to which an employee can find another job) and perceived desirability of movement (the desire to change jobs, which is often operationalized as job satisfaction).

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Chapter 10 - Essay 13. Describe the financial consequence of employee turnover for organizations.

ANSWER: Turnover can have large cost implications for organizations. When organizations invest time, finances, and effort into recruiting, selecting, and training their employees, it costs the employer to repeat this process to replace their role. According to research, it costs at least one half of an employee's salary to replace them.

14. Describe affective commitment. Provide two recommendations that a company can use to increase its employees' affective commitment.

ANSWER: Affective commitment is the emotional attachment to an organization. Recommendations will differ.

Affective commitment is about helping employees have a strong belief in and acceptance of the organization's goals and values, have a willingness to exert effort on behalf of the organization, and have a strong desire to remain a part of the organization. Any intervention that helps employees connect with the organization on this level would be an effective example. Reward systems that give employees perks for positive performance, providing gift certificates for employees of the month, and paying for furthering employees' education are some measures a company can take to increase its employees' affective commitment.

15. Compare and contrast the three different types of organizational commitment. Which is MOST desirable for organizations?

ANSWER: Affective commitment is characterized by a strong belief and acceptance in organizational goals and values. Continuance commitment is characterized by attachment to an organization as a function of what an employee has invested in it. Normative commitment is characterized by feelings of obligation to continue employment. Affective commitment is most desirable, as this has the most positive outcomes. Meanwhile, continuance commitment is somewhat undesirable, as employees with high levels of continuance commitment tend to experience higher levels of stress.

16. What are examples of corporate social responsibility? Provide an example of how an organization might use these mechanisms to engage people.

ANSWER: CSR is when organizations engage in activities to benefit their employees, the environment, or their stakeholders. Examples of these could include paid volunteer days, merchandise, recognition and reward programs, and flexible working conditions. Examples will vary, but organizations can use these types of positive experiences or perks to help employees feel connected and supported by their organization.

17. How might findings on emotional labor and job attitudes influence how we select employees?

ANSWER: Research suggests that having good person–organizational fit is helpful for job attitudes. If an employee has an emotional makeup that matches what is required of them on the job (e.g., having a positive attitude in a customer service job), then they will work more effectively and will have a better attitude in the long run.

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Chapter 10 - Essay 18. What are organizational commitment profiles, and how is this contributing to research on job attitudes?

ANSWER: Organizational commitment profiles are a way to categorize employees based on whether they are high or low on the three different types of commitment. This has allowed researchers to understand how these types of commitment interact. For example, high continuance commitment seems to be problematic, regardless of the level of other types of commitment. Similarly, affective commitment seems to drive many positive outcomes and is even more powerful when combined with high normative commitment.

19. Identify and define the two types of emotion regulation. Provide an example of each type.

ANSWER: Emotion regulation can include amplification (faking or exaggerating pleasant emotions) and suppression (hiding displays of felt emotions such as anger or jealousy). Examples will vary.

20. What is the difference between deep acting and surface acting in emotional labor? Which is a better approach and why?

ANSWER: Deep acting involves attempting to actually experience the emotion one has to display on the job.

Surface acting involves faking emotions without actually trying to experience them. Research shows that deep acting is more effective, as it has better effects on customers, and tends to be less laborious for employees.

21. What is presenteeism, and why might this be a problem for an organization's productivity?

ANSWER: Presenteeism is when employees attend work, even though they are ill or injured. There are two main reasons this might hurt productivity. First, an ill employee will not be functioning well and might spread germs that will infect other employees, leading to more absenteeism or presenteeism. Second, other employees might feel sympathy for the ill/injured employee and will be distracted from their own work by caring for that employee.

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 1. What is the degree of positive or negative feeling a person has toward a particular person, place, or thing? a. Motivation b. Value c. Intention d. Attitude ANSWER: d 2. Which theory depicts the relationship among attitudes, intentions, and behaviors? a. theory of planned behavior b. theory of work adjustment c. control theory d. job characteristics theory ANSWER: a 3. Janice dislikes her job and does not believe that her work affects anyone in a meaningful way. According to the theory of planned behavior, Janice's negative feelings toward her job are her: a. subjective norms. b. perceived behavioral controls. c. objective norms. d. attitudes.

ANSWER: d 4. According to the theory of planned behavior, an individual's belief about how easy or difficult the performance of an action is likely to be is known as: a. an intention. b. an objective norm. c. withdrawal behavior. d. perceived behavioral control.

ANSWER: d 5. According to the theory of planned behavior, an individual's perception of the social pressures to perform or not to perform a particular behavior is the individual's: a. intention. b. attitude. c. subjective norm. d. perceived behavioral control.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 6. Tanesha would like to take her lunch break early. However, she knows that this behavior is frowned upon at her job. Her coworkers' disapproval, according to the theory of planned behavior, is an example of: a. a hierarchical need. b. a subjective norm. c. perceived behavioral control. d. an objective norm.

ANSWER: b 7. Omari works in a toy factory. He genuinely wants to meet his quota of making 30 toys per hour, but one of the machines is broken so he is working at a slower pace than usual. According to the theory of planned behavior, the broken machine affects: a. subjective norms. b. perceived behavioral control. c. counterproductive work behaviors. d. group efficacy.

ANSWER: b 8. The pleasurable, positive emotional state resulting from the cognitive appraisal of one's work or work experiences is known as: a. organizational commitment. b. organization-based self-esteem. c. core self-evaluation. d. job satisfaction.

ANSWER: d 9. Job satisfaction consists of two components: a. an affective component and an interpersonal component. b. an effective component and an interpersonal component. c. a tertiary component and a cognitive component. d. a cognitive component and an affective component.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 10. The three major categories of consequences of job satisfaction include performance, withdrawal behaviors, and: a. growth behaviors. b. job characteristics. c. social factors. d. counterproductive behaviors.

ANSWER: d 11. According to the meta-analysis by Humphrey and colleagues (2007), what account(s) for a large proportion (24%) of variance in job satisfaction and will likely be a focus of work design initiatives in the 21st century? a. skill variety b. task significance c. social characteristics d. experienced meaningfulness ANSWER: c 12. Which is NOT considered an antecedent of job satisfaction? a. workload b. absenteeism c. organizational justice d. job feedback ANSWER: b 13. In the context of the framework for job satisfaction, which is NOT considered a consequence of job satisfaction? a. aggression b. task performance c. lateness d. task significance ANSWER: d 14. Which of these is the tendency to respond to classes of environmental stimuli in predetermined, emotion-based ways? a. Core self-evaluation b. Affective disposition c. Self-esteem d. Perceived behavioral control ANSWER: b

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 15. Research supporting the importance of affective dispositions on job satisfaction suggests that if Nava is not satisfied with her job as a mail clerk at McDonell Law Associates, then she will be: a. happy with a job as a mail clerk at a different law firm. b. happy with a different job at McDonell Law Associates. c. happy with a different job at a different law firm. d. just as unhappy in any job, at any company.

ANSWER: d 16. Research evidence from the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart supports the idea that: a. genetics contribute to an individual's level of job satisfaction. b. core self-evaluations are related to job satisfaction. c. organization-based self-esteem is hereditary. d. sibling relationships are important determinants of job satisfaction.

ANSWER: a 17. Twin research suggests that genetic factors explain about what percentage of the variance in job satisfaction? a. 10% b. 30% c. 50% d. 60% ANSWER: b 18. Research on core self-evaluations has indicated that people who have high core self-evaluations choose more complex tasks and are: a. never satisfied with their jobs as a result. b. less satisfied with their jobs as a result. c. more satisfied with their jobs as a result. d. more likely to quit from burnout.

ANSWER: c 19. Monique views herself as someone who has the skills and experience that make her highly valuable to her company. Monique possesses: a. an affective disposition. b. generalized self-enhancement. c. injunctive norms. d. organization-based self-esteem.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 20. In a research study of healthcare workers (Chen et al., 2004), the relationship between organization-based selfesteem and job satisfaction was found to be: a. strong. b. moderate. c. weak. d. zero.

ANSWER: a 21. Denny's boss asks him to pick up their dry cleaning. Denny believes that this task is not part of the conditions of his employment, and as a result, feels very dissatisfied. His boss has: a. demonstrated high organizational justice. b. violated their psychological contract with Denny. c. encouraged Denny's organizational citizenship. d. reduced Denny's emotional labor.

ANSWER: b 22. Ayla studies the role of fairness in her workplace and studies employees' perceptions of the fairness of policies, procedures, and treatment. Ayla is interested in the predictor of job satisfaction known as: a. role ambiguity. b. organizational justice. c. organizational citizenship. d. rational choice.

ANSWER: b 23. Which is a growth opportunity positively related to job satisfaction? a. having an increased workload b. having a higher self-esteem c. being given opportunities to improve leader–member relations d. being provided with excellent benefits ANSWER: d

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 24. According to research done by Li and colleagues (2010), workers who have proactive personalities or take personal initiative are more likely to: a. develop high-quality relationships with their supervisors. b. do menial tasks such as cleaning and preparing work for others. c. act aggressively and disrupt office politics. d. engage in fewer organizational citizenship behaviors.

ANSWER: a 25. Research by Keller and Semmer (2013) suggests that young adults experience a decrease in job satisfaction when they: a. do not experience growth on situational and dispositional variables. b. engage in organizational citizenship behaviors. c. decrease their job performance. d. withdraw from the workplace and focus on their hobbies instead.

ANSWER: a 26. Fabio is an HR manager who wants to get a sense of how satisfied his employees are with their jobs in general. In this case, which measure of satisfaction should Fabio use? a. global b. facet c. valence scores d. sampling methodology ANSWER: a 27. A question such as "How satisfied are you with your job?" would be an example of which measure of job satisfaction? a. facet b. global c. multidimensional d. semantic differential ANSWER: b

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 28. The measure of job satisfaction that is most frequently used and that assesses five dimensions, including satisfaction with coworkers and satisfaction with pay, is the: a. Job Descriptive Index. b. Overall Job Scale. c. Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire. d. Faces Scale.

ANSWER: a 29. The five dimensions of job satisfaction in the Job Descriptive Index are with the type of work itself, satisfaction with pay, satisfaction with supervision, satisfaction with coworkers, and satisfaction with: a. subordinates. b. facilities. c. promotion opportunities. d. executive leadership.

ANSWER: c 30. The five dimensions of job satisfaction are measured by the: a. Job Descriptive Index. b. Text-Based Attitude and Perception Scoring. c. experience sampling methodology (ESM). d. Likert scale.

ANSWER: a 31. Which measure is based on the theory of work adjustment? a. Faces Scale b. Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire c. Job Diagnostic Survey d. Job Descriptive Index ANSWER: b 32. The measure that assesses only the affective component of job satisfaction is the: a. Job Descriptive Index. b. Job Diagnostic Survey. c. Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire. d. Faces Scale.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 33. Job satisfaction consists of two components: a cognitive component and a(n): a. interpersonal component. b. affective component. c. tertiary component. d. behavioral component.

ANSWER: b 34. According to research done by Tang & Ibrahim (1998), the relationship between job satisfaction and organizational citizenship behaviors has suggested a: a. moderate positive relationship (r = .22 to .57). b. moderate negative relationship (r = –.20 to –.60). c. near-zero relationship. d. strong negative relationship (r = –.70 to –.80).

ANSWER: a 35. Why is it unrealistic to expect a strong relationship between attitudes and behaviors? a. Our measures are not yet advanced enough to capture this relationship. b. There are many antecedents to behavior other than attitudes. c. Researchers have yet to identify the specific attitudes that predict behaviors such as performance. d. Most relationships between variables are small to moderate at best.

ANSWER: b 36. According to research done by Ng and colleagues (2009), job satisfaction–performance relationship is stronger in cultures that are: a. high on power distance and low on collectivism. b. low on power distance and high on collectivism. c. high on individualism and low on uncertainty avoidance. d. high on individualism and high on uncertainty avoidance.

ANSWER: c 37. In the Steers and Rhodes (1978) model of absenteeism, the two factors affecting the relationship between job satisfaction, attendance motivation, and employee attendance are: a. the need to attend and the desire to attend. b. satisfaction with pay and satisfaction with promotion opportunities. c. the ability to attend and the pressure to attend. d. coworker relationships and supervisor relationships.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 38. Because Lucy does not make much money, she knows that missing a day of work may make it difficult for her to pay her rent on time. In this case, Lucy is unlikely to skip work due to: a. attendance satisfaction. b. ability to attend. c. pressure to attend. d. attendance inclination.

ANSWER: c 39. Albert likes his job and would like to be at work. However, his son has chicken pox and cannot go to daycare, therefore, Albert must stay home with him. In this case, Albert misses work because: a. his attendance motivation is high. b. his ability to attend is low. c. the pressure to attend is high. d. the pressure to attend is low.

ANSWER: b 40. Although turnover is usually negative for organizations, it can be positive if the employees who leave: a. were ineffective and can be replaced by better workers. b. are leaving to take a promotion at another company. c. recently experienced a major decrease in job satisfaction. d. were highly job-involved.

ANSWER: a 41. Research by Chen and colleagues (2011) suggests that intent to turnover increases the most when someone: a. has a low general level of job satisfaction. b. experiences a decrease in job satisfaction. c. has a neutral affective disposition. d. has a high tendency for habitual lateness.

ANSWER: b 42. The antecedent to employee turnover that has been largely operationalized with respect to job satisfaction is: a. perceived desirability of movement. b. coworker support. c. role variables. d. task identity and significance.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 43. The commonly investigated antecedents to employee turnover are perceived desirability of movement and perceived: a. ease of movement. b. acceptability of movement. c. commitment to movement. d. sanctions against movement.

ANSWER: a 44. Which model suggests that turnover results from a shock to the system? a. the modified model b. the work adjustment model c. the unfolding model d. the theory of planned behavior ANSWER: c 45. Which behaviors are behaviors that bring, or are intended to bring, harm to an organization, its employees, or its stakeholders? a. Miscommunication b. Counterproductive work c. Scrupulous work d. Careless work ANSWER: b 46. Vlad reports late to work, steals printer paper for his personal use, and speaks rudely to his coworkers. Vlad is engaging in: a. JDIs. b. OCBs. c. CWBs. d. AI. ANSWER: c 47. Employees are especially likely to engage in counterproductive work behaviors when they feel: a. depressed. b. frightened. c. frustrated. d. cheerful.

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 48. Research by Spector and colleagues (2006) indicates that abusive behaviors driven by anger and withdrawal are related to: a. anger. b. boredom. c. positive affect. d. negative affect.

ANSWER: b 49. The relative strength of an individual's psychological attachment to a particular company is known as: a. affective commitment. b. work centrality. c. perceived behavioral control. d. organizational commitment.

ANSWER: d 50. When compared to job satisfaction, the scope of organizational commitment is considered to be: a. narrower. b. broader. c. less stable. d. task focused.

ANSWER: b 51. According to Allen and Meyer (1996), which component reflects one's moral obligation to continue employment with the organization? a. substantive commitment b. normative commitment c. evaluative commitment d. emotional commitment ANSWER: b 52. Research by Meyer and colleagues (2002) found that employees with longer tenure demonstrated higher levels of: a. affective commitment. b. normative commitment. c. dispositional commitment. d. voluntary commitment.

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 53. One of the strongest predictors of affective and normative commitment is: a. continuance commitment. b. dispositional commitment. c. organizational support. d. task performance.

ANSWER: c 54. Which is an antecedent of organizational commitment? a. performance b. social factors c. CWBs d. turnover ANSWER: b 55. What is a consequence of organizational commitment? a. pay b. job level c. absenteeism d. workload ANSWER: c 56. There are three general antecedents of organizational commitment: organizational mechanisms, social factors, and: a. performance. b. withdrawal behaviors. c. individual characteristics. d. counterproductive behaviors.

ANSWER: c 57. Ziva stays with her company because if she were to leave, she would lose $65,000 in retirement earnings and also lose free season tickets to see her favorite football team. Ziva's feelings toward her organization are characterized as: a. affective commitment. b. continuance commitment. c. normative commitment. d. moral commitment.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 58. Due to FX Company's poor financial performance, John received a decrease in both his pay and benefits. He received a job offer from BT Corporation that included a significant pay increase, but he turned it down because he felt morally obligated to remain with FX despite its financial troubles. John's feelings toward his organization are characterized by which type of commitment? a. affective b. continuance c. normative d. dispositional ANSWER: c 59. Airi, who has been with her company for 15 years, firmly believes in its goals and values, and she is willing to go the extra mile to help it succeed. Airi's feelings toward her organization are characterized as: a. affective commitment. b. continuance commitment. c. normative commitment. d. dispositional commitment.

ANSWER: a 60. Emotional attachment to an organization, characterized by a strong belief in and acceptance of the organization's values, is known as: a. affective commitment. b. continuance commitment. c. normative commitment. d. moral commitment.

ANSWER: a 61. Attachment to an organization because of what an employee has invested in it is known as which type of commitment? a. affective b. continuance c. normative d. obligatory ANSWER: b

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 62. Attachment to an organization that reflects one's moral obligation to continue employment is known as: a. affective commitment. b. continuance commitment. c. normative commitment. d. sunk-costs.

ANSWER: c 63. A trend in the commitment literature is the focus on interactions among the three components of commitment. This approach, which classifies employees into one of 8 types, is known as: a. commitment facets. b. commitment squads. c. organizational commitment profiles. d. organizational constellations.

ANSWER: c 64. Research into organizational commitment profiles has found that the best outcomes for both the individual and the organization occur in individuals who have: a. high levels of affective and normative commitment and low levels of continuance commitment. b. high levels of affective commitment and low levels of continuance and normative commitment. c. high levels of continuance commitment and low levels of normative and affective commitment. d. low levels of all three types of commitment.

ANSWER: a 65. Research into organizational commitment profiles has found that high levels of continuance commitment: a. help individuals to feel connected to and satisfied with the organization. b. lead to better job performance. c. are associated with more thoughts about leaving the organization. d. are associated with fewer thoughts about leaving the organization.

ANSWER: c 66. The degree of importance that work, in general, holds in an employee's life is known as: a. work centrality. b. work attachment. c. embeddedness. d. career growth.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 67. Dan loves working as a plastic surgeon and often schedules extra surgeries in the evenings rather than spending time with his family. Dan is likely: a. a counterproductive worker. b. low on job involvement. c. low on work centrality. d. a workaholic.

ANSWER: d 68. Binh finds that their job holds an important place in their life and identifies strongly with their work role; when they were laid off, they felt that an important part of their life was missing. We might characterize Binh as having a high level of: a. job involvement. b. work centrality. c. task importance. d. citizenship orientation.

ANSWER: b 69. Individuals whose drive to work is so intense that they experience work–life balance issues are known as: a. workaholics. b. counterproductive workers. c. remote workers. d. in-office workers.

ANSWER: a 70. Johanna believes that her company cares about her well-being and values her contribution. Johanna's feelings are characterized as having: a. organizational involvement. b. continuance commitment. c. work centrality. d. perceived organizational support.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 71. Research suggests that managers who experience high levels of perceived organizational support are more likely to: a. treat employees poorly. b. treat employees well. c. increase turnover intention. d. experience burnout.

ANSWER: b 72. The way in which individuals monitor their feelings and the expression of those emotions is known as: a. affective disposition. b. attitudes. c. emotion regulation. d. emotional dissonance.

ANSWER: c 73. At times, individuals may need to either hide feelings they are experiencing or fake feelings they are not experiencing. This type of behavior is known as: a. affective commitment. b. cognitive appraisal. c. affective disposition. d. emotional labor.

ANSWER: d 74. Nur, who works at a children's photography studio, is often required to act happy, laugh, and be excited in order to get the children to smile. The type of emotion regulation that Nur displays is referred to as: a. amplification. b. centrality. c. expansion. d. suppression.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 75. Abby works at the front desk of a hotel, and guests often act rudely and aggressively toward her. Abby finds herself hiding her anger, waiting until she gets home to vent her frustration. The type of emotion regulation that Abby displays is referred to as: a. augmentation. b. depression. c. amplification. d. suppression.

ANSWER: d 76. Ruby works in an elementary school. At times, young children swear at each other, which Ruby finds amusing, but she must hide her amusement so she can properly scold the children. The type of emotion regulation Ruby displays is referred to as: a. augmentation. b. suppression. c. amplification. d. centrality.

ANSWER: b 77. The effort, planning, and control required by employees to express organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal interactions is known as: a. emotional labor. b. emotion control. c. disposition regulation. d. affective regulation.

ANSWER: a 78. Employees whose true feelings are different from the emotions they project on their jobs are experiencing emotional: a. dissociation. b. disengagement. c. departure. d. dissonance.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 79. Researchers consistently find that employees who experience higher rates of stress are those who often experience: a. normative commitment. b. emotional dissonance. c. disposition regulation. d. perceived behavioral control.

ANSWER: b 80. Individuals who attempt to feel the emotions they are displaying at work are engaging in deep acting, and individuals who simply fake their emotions without trying to actually experience them are engaging in: a. surface acting. b. unconscious acting. c. authentic labor. d. superficial labor.

ANSWER: a 81. According to research done by Barger & Grandey (2006), the strength of employees' smiles predicts customer satisfaction and higher customer ratings of service, EXCEPT when the: a. customer and employee were of different races. b. employee was male. c. customer detected that the expression was not genuine. d. customer was in a bad mood.

ANSWER: c 82. The extent to which employees interpret positive behaviors exhibited by the most important social agents within the organization, such as coworkers, is known as: a. organizational commitment (OC). b. Perceptions of Social Context (PoSC). c. counterproductive work behaviors (CWBs). d. social capital.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 83. Franz views himself as not being at all valuable to the corporation. In this example, Franz has poor: a. emotional regulation. b. subjective norms. c. organization-based self-esteem. d. emotional labor.

ANSWER: c 84. Which of these consists of employees' beliefs about what they are entitled to receive because of promises made to them by their employer? a. a psychological contract b. a bona fide occupational agreement c. a leader–member exchange d. an emotional pact ANSWER: a 85. Which of these statements BEST summarizes the relationship between pay and job satisfaction? a. Pay is one of the most important predictors of whether someone will be satisfied with their job. b. Pay becomes more and more important as people progress in their careers. c. Pay is only weakly related to job satisfaction, and likely depends on whether there is a discrepancy between what an employee expects and what the employee receives. d. Pay is a very important predictor of job satisfaction for men; women are more likely to be influenced by social factors such as friendly coworkers.

ANSWER: c 86. The five dimensions of job satisfaction that are measured by the JDI are satisfaction with promotion, satisfaction with pay, satisfaction with supervision, satisfaction with coworkers, and satisfaction with: a. corporate ethics. b. facilities. c. the type of work itself. d. technology.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 87. A question such as "How satisfied are you with your coworkers?" would be an example of which measure of job satisfaction? a. facet b. global c. task-focused d. semantic differential ANSWER: a 88. Amaan is an HR manager who wants to get a sense of how satisfied his employees are with their pay. Which measure of satisfaction should Amaan use in this case? a. global b. facet c. hybrid d. multidimensional ANSWER: b 89. Jaylan is tempted to skip work to go to the state fair, but he knows that this will mean his coworkers will need to stay late to cover for him, and he knows they would not skip work unless they need to. In this case, Jaylan is unlikely to skip work due to: a. pressure to attend. b. ability to attend. c. continuance commitment. d. turnout proclivity.

ANSWER: a 90. Illness is an example of something that would affect someone's: a. affective attendance appraisal. b. cognitive attendance appraisal. c. ability to attend. d. pressure to attend.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 91. Transportation problems are an example of something that would affect someone's: a. cognitive attendance appraisal. b. affective attendance appraisal. c. pressure to attend. d. ability to attend.

ANSWER: d 92. Work group norms are an example of something that would affect someone's: a. cognitive attendance appraisal. b. affective attendance appraisal. c. pressure to attend. d. ability to attend.

ANSWER: c 93. Which of these describes workers who are not well enough to do their job but go to work anyway? a. Subjective norm b. Presenteeism c. Ghosting d. Absenteeism ANSWER: b 94. Which is an example of presenteeism? a. Bronwen is physically at work, but her mind is constantly drifting elsewhere. b. Preet gives their coworkers gifts, but it is actually a ploy to bribe them into doing some of their least favorite tasks. c. Nazim thinks he is a great presenter, but he actually is a very boring speaker. d. Barnaby has the flu and can barely function, but he goes to work anyway.

ANSWER: d 95. What have researchers found in terms of presenteeism's effect on work productivity? a. It increases productivity to a great extent. b. It increases productivity by a small amount. c. It harms productivity. d. It has no effect on productivity.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 96. Some researchers speculate that presenteeism is worse for productivity than absenteeism. What is one argument for this perspective? a. When ill coworkers come into work, they are ineffective and they infect other coworkers with their illness. b. Employees who conduct poor presentations demotivate other coworkers and upset clients. c. When employees daydream, it takes them longer to reengage with their work than if they took some days off to clear their minds. d. Exchanging presents at work can lead to perceptions of unfairness.

ANSWER: a 97. The commonly investigated antecedents to employee turnover are perceived ease of movement and perceived: a. desirability of movement. b. suitability of movement. c. obligation to movement. d. prohibitions against movement.

ANSWER: a 98. Who developed the theory of planned behavior? a. Victor Vroom b. Icek Ajzen and colleagues c. Greg Oldham and colleagues d. Richard Hackman ANSWER: b 99. Research by Staw and Ross (1985) found moderate correlations for satisfaction measures over time and that they were also stable when individuals changed jobs. What does this research indicate? a. Some people tend to change jobs to seek higher satisfaction. b. Some people will feel satisfied across their whole careers regardless of change. c. Satisfaction is correlated to job changes. d. Job changes are positive.

ANSWER: b 100. Job satisfaction can be attributed to additional factors outside of the role such as: a. a "curmudgeon personality". b. the economy. c. the organization. d. All of these are factors affecting job satisfaction.

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 101. Which factors shared by supervisors and subordinates affect job satisfaction? a. demographic similarity b. absence frequency c. workaholic tendencies d. All of these are factors affecting job satisfaction.

ANSWER: a 102. Ross enjoys going to the office regularly since he enjoys conversing with his coworkers over lunch. As a result, Ross feels a lot more satisfied in his job. What factor is contributing to his satisfaction? a. perceived organizational support b. interpersonal relationships c. organizational fairness d. role clarity ANSWER: b 103. Whitney is frustrated that she has not been able to grow, advance, or get promoted within her organization. Her organization does not provide Whitney with: a. socializing opportunities. b. organizational justice. c. counterproductive work. d. growth opportunities.

ANSWER: d 104. Which of these is an example of time theft? a. Working on projects outside of working hours. b. Working on nonwork activities. c. Getting paid less than expected. d. Getting paid more than expected.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 11 - Essay 1. How is stress different from strain?

ANSWER: Strain is an outcome of stress. Stress is the process that connects stressors to strains.

2. Identify the main sources of stress according to the general stress model. What are the three types of strains that result from organizational stress?

ANSWER: The main sources of stress are intrinsic work factors, role variables, interpersonal relationships, and career development. The three types of strains are job-related, emotion-related, and physiological.

3. Research on managers has suggested two major types of stress: challenge demands and hindrance demands.

Define each and contrast the effect these kinds of stress have on managers.

ANSWER: Challenge-related stress occurs in response to time pressure, high levels of responsibility, and job overload. Hindrance-related stress occurs in response to constraints that interfere with one's work.

Challenge-related stress is associated with some positive outcomes, such as job satisfaction and job tenure. Hindrance-related stress is only associated with negative outcomes. Students may note that some problems may be both challenge and hindrance demands.

4. Explain the conservation of resources (COR) model, and how it relates to stress. Provide an example that illustrates the theory.

ANSWER: COR is the theory that when individuals believe they don't have or are losing the resources they need, perceptions of stress increase, resulting in strains. Examples will vary.

5. Compare and contrast role ambiguity and role conflict. Provide an example of each and explain how these relate to strains.

ANSWER: Role ambiguity has to do with roles being unclear. Role conflict has to do with role expectations being inconsistent, or when different individuals provide conflicting messages about what a role is. Examples will vary, but both lead to higher levels of stress and strain.

6. Identify and describe the three characteristics of burnout.

ANSWER: Emotional exhaustion is being overextended by one's work. Depersonalization is a cynical view of others and a feeling of detachment. Reduced personal accomplishment is the belief that one is no longer useful or successful at the job.

7. Define problem-focused and emotion-focused coping. Provide an example of each coping mechanism.

ANSWER: Problem-focused coping involves actions targeted toward solving or handling the stress-inducing problem itself. Emotion-focused coping is a cognitive or thought-related strategy that minimizes the emotional effects of stress-inducing events. Examples will vary.

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Chapter 11 - Essay 8. Compare and contrast problem-focused coping and emotion-focused coping. Provide an example of a problem someone might encounter in the workplace and explain whether it is problem-focused or emotion-focused coping.

Explain which is a better solution and why.

ANSWER: Problem-focused coping addresses the cause of the stress, whereas emotion-focused coping addresses the strains associated with stress. Examples will vary, and problem-focused coping is generally more effective but may not be possible in all situations.

9. Explain what the spillover model of stress is and give an example.

ANSWER: The spillover model is that experiences and emotions from one domain spill over into another.

Examples might be positive (e.g., someone learning good leadership skills and applying that to their parenting approach) or negative (e.g., someone who feels stressed at work goes home and takes their frustrations out on their family).

10. Arlen works from home. Arlen thought it would be great, but Arlen is more stressed because of never being able to get away from the job. Define the four tactics Arlen could use to manage the boundary between work and home life, and give an example of how Arlen might apply them.

ANSWER: Behavioral (e.g., using technology), temporal (e.g., blocking off specific times for work versus relaxation), physical (e.g., having a home office where work is done and not doing any work outside of that home office), and communicative (e.g., communicating to coworkers that he is not available to do work outside of a set schedule). Students may note that setting boundaries is not necessary; what workers need is to feel they have control over their workday.

11. Define work–family conflict and work–family enrichment. Provide a realistic example that illustrates the work and family domains for each concept.

ANSWER: Work–family conflict exists when work and home domains don't fit well together and result in one role having a negative effect on the other. Work–family enrichment is when attitudes and behaviors have a positive carryover from one domain to the other. Examples of spillover include feeling grumpy with your partner when you get home after a stressful commute, or being in a great mood when you get to work because of an uplifting coffee date you had with a friend earlier that morning.

12. Identify three traditional and three nontraditional work–life benefits offered by organizations.

ANSWER: Traditional benefits include child-care benefits, elder-care benefits, flexible work arrangements, and leave/time-off policies. Nontraditional benefits include convenience benefits, health promotion benefits, education assistance benefits, housing assistance programs, and group purchase programs. Possible answers are summarized in Table 11.1.

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Chapter 11 - Essay 13. Describe three risk factors for the likelihood of being assaulted at work.

ANSWER: OSHA lists these risk factors for the likelihood of being assaulted at work (OSHA, 2023): Having contact with the public Being involved in the exchange of money Working in settings where alcohol is served Delivering passengers, goods, or services Having a mobile workplace (e.g., working in a field office or in sales) Working with unstable persons (e.g., health care, social services, criminal justice settings) Working alone or in isolated settings.

14. What is the concept of thriving at work? What are three antecedents of thriving at work?

ANSWER: Thriving at work is a research domain topic that stems from positive psychology. It can be described as a positive state at work, which enables learning and vitality. Antecedents include personal attributes, such as a proactive personality and positive affect. Contextual attributes include supportive coworker behavior, supportive manager behavior, and perceived organizational support.

15. Compare and contrast U.S. family leave policies with those of other countries. What might be some disadvantages of U.S. policies?

ANSWER: The United States offers job-protected, unpaid leave for only up to 12 weeks for family-related issues, and this has been in place for only the last 30 years. This is in contrast to other countries such as Hungary and Sweden, which have had parental leave policies in place for longer (nearly 50 years in Hungary and 40 years in Sweden). Most other countries offer paid leave for longer periods of time.

Belgium allows employees to take a career break where they receive an allowance. Disadvantages may vary, but one example is that many individuals in the United States do not take their full leave because they cannot afford to forego 12 weeks of pay.

16. What are three services that an employer could offer for older-care services?

ANSWER: Answers may vary. Examples of services could include long-term insurance, counseling, dependentcare accounts, information, expense reimbursement, and intergenerational daycare centers.

17. How do women's experiences with the work–family interface differ from those of men?

ANSWER: Responses may vary. Women have greater demands of family, home, and child-care. Men and women typically face different pressures and expectations in their work and family demands and adopt different strategies to manage those demands. Women also report doing over 13 hours of household labor a week compared to just under 7 hours for their male partners. Crossover effects show that women's depression and job demands affect their partners' mental health and levels of exhaustion.

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Chapter 11 - Essay 18. Compare and contrast the effect of downsizing on those who are laid off and those who remain in the organization after the layoffs.

ANSWER: Downsizing has negative effects both on those who are laid off and those who survive. Individuals who are laid off experience distress and depending upon their coping strategies, may struggle to find a new job. Some laid-off workers experience symptoms of PTSD. Survivors are often less productive, less trusting of the organization, and feel angrier and more anxious. About 20% of remaining employees leave the organization either physically or emotionally.

19. Describe how workplace stress is related to heart disease.

ANSWER: Workplace stress can significantly contribute to heart disease, which is the leading cause of death in the United States. Chronic prolonged stress can raise cortisol levels and cause inflammation, both of which are harmful to heart health. Additionally, stress often leads to a sedentary lifestyle, poor diet, and unhealthy coping mechanisms like smoking and drinking.

20. What is occupational health psychology (OHP)? What are three issues that would be addressed by OHP? ANSWER: OHP deals with the application of psychology to improving the quality of work life, protecting and promoting safety, and enhancing the health and well-being of workers. Examples will vary, but Table 11.2 provides a list of possible answers.

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 1. The process of stressors leading to strain is what we generally refer to as: a. coping. b. stress. c. dissatisfaction. d. strain alleviation.

ANSWER: b 2. Undesirable personal outcomes that result from the combined stressful experiences of various life domains are known as: a. dissatisfactions. b. stressors. c. strains. d. demands.

ANSWER: c 3. Mimi has a very rude and demanding boss. She feels tense throughout the day, and when she goes home at night, she has a pounding headache. In this example, the demanding boss is an example of: a. a strain. b. a stressor. c. stress. d. both a stressor and a strain.

ANSWER: b 4. One variable that is especially important to stress levels, according to Karasek's (1990) model of stress, is: a. lack of control. b. feedback. c. task dependence. d. task significance.

ANSWER: a 5. Getting fired from a job would be an example of: a. a strain. b. a stressor. c. stress. d. burnout.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 6. Josie has low motivation because she doesn't get along with her boss, doesn't know what she is supposed to do in her role, and has few choices over how she completes her work. This lack of motivation is referred to as: a. strain. b. stress. c. stressors. d. cognitive dissonance.

ANSWER: a 7. According to Karasek's demand–control model, one of the most important predictors of strains is: a. how much decision latitude employees are provided. b. how many demands an employee makes. c. how large the company is. d. whether an employee is paid well.

ANSWER: a 8. According to the general stress model, an example of a stressor is: a. coping. b. depression. c. self-esteem. d. interpersonal relationships.

ANSWER: d 9. Which is NOT a stressor in the general stress model? a. intrinsic work factors b. role variables c. job satisfaction d. career development ANSWER: c 10. Low motivation, increased illness, and depression are all examples of: a. strains. b. stressors. c. stress. d. coping.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 11. The general stress model suggests there are three major categories of strains: job-related, emotion-related, and: a. problem-related. b. intrinsic. c. physiological. d. career-related.

ANSWER: c 12. An example of an emotion-related strain would be: a. low job satisfaction. b. a lack of motivation. c. reduced self-esteem. d. increased blood pressure.

ANSWER: c 13. Increased absences at work would be which type of strain? a. problem-related b. job-related c. psychological d. problem-focused ANSWER: b 14. Which is an example of a job-related strain? a. increased illnesses b. depression c. ineffective performance d. low self-esteem ANSWER: c 15. Which is an example of an emotion-related strain? a. ineffective performance b. depression c. increased illnesses d. role variables ANSWER: b

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 16. According to the General Model of the Stress Process, which is an example of a physiological strain? a. chest pains b. depression c. lack of motivation d. ineffective performance ANSWER: a 17. Sandeep, a dental hygienist, is not sure what their bosses (the dentists) expect from them. They are likely experiencing: a. role ambiguity. b. role conflict. c. role contradiction. d. job conflict.

ANSWER: a 18. Gretchen, a hospital nurse, feels particularly stressed right now because two doctors are disagreeing about what she should be doing with her time. She does not have time to do the things that both doctors want her to do and must choose which doctor to obey. Gretchen is most likely experiencing: a. role uncertainty. b. role conflict. c. job variety. d. role ambiguity.

ANSWER: b 19. Tse, who is a police officer, has two different roles at work. Sometimes they have to treat citizens respectfully, comfort them, and help them solve problems. At other times, they must behave aggressively, make demands of citizens, and delay solving problems to ensure that people are safe. These contradictory expectations are an example of: a. role ambiguity. b. role conflict. c. emotion-focused roles. d. problem-focused roles.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 20. The conservation of resources (COR) model suggests that employees will feel stressed when they: a. perceive that they are losing resources. b. have higher levels of responsibility. c. are prevented from hoarding resources. d. have close but intense work relationships.

ANSWER: a 21. Which is a category of work strain? a. contextual-related strain b. emotional-related strain c. relationship-focused d. aggression-based ANSWER: b 22. Which of these is characterized by emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and reduced personal accomplishment? a. Adaptive coping b. Burnout c. Aggression d. A stressor ANSWER: b 23. At work, burnout is typically characterized by emotional exhaustion, reduced personal accomplishment, and: a. aggression. b. depersonalization. c. family–work conflict. d. episodic stress.

ANSWER: b 24. According to the textbook, which of these is NOT a contributor of burnout? a. unclear job expectations b. lack of social support c. level of education d. insufficient rewards ANSWER: c

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 25. What are the leading causes of disability in the U.S. workforce? a. workplace injury b. smoking and drinking c. heart disease and stroke d. depersonalization ANSWER: c 26. What is the leading cause of death in the United States? a. Old age b. Injury c. Heart disease d. Smoking ANSWER: c 27. Which of these does NOT contribute to the risk of heart disease? a. smoking and drug use b. chronic inflammation c. chronically elevated cortisol levels d. increased physical activity ANSWER: d 28. Which of these is NOT a physiological measure of stress? a. cortisol levels b. heart rate c. heart rate variability d. self-report ANSWER: d 29. David is a manager who deals with organizational politics. He is not sure that his job will exist in the next few months and faces red tape whenever he advocates an idea to his boss. The type of stress that David is encountering is: a. challenge demands. b. physiology-related. c. skill-related. d. hindrance demands.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 30. Lee, who is a manager, has a heavy workload, a high level of responsibility, and a lot of pressure to get their work done quickly. The type of stress they are experiencing is: a. challenge demands. b. hindrance demands. c. role ambiguity. d. emotional exhaustion.

ANSWER: a 31. Recent research suggests that burnout at work: a. is limited to helping professions such as medicine and psychology. b. rarely occurs. c. is a widespread phenomenon. d. occurs in response to minor episodic stress.

ANSWER: c 32. Ethan, a call center employee, often feels as though his work doesn't matter. The dimension of burnout that Ethan is experiencing is: a. episodic stress. b. personal deflation. c. depersonalization. d. reduced personal accomplishment.

ANSWER: d 33. Which statement accurately reflects research on social support at work? a. Men are most effective at creating social support structures to buffer against stress. b. Having a "best friend at work" contributes to increased turnover. c. Having a "best friend at work" contributes to essential social and emotional support. d. Social support is not related to emotional support.

ANSWER: c 34. Challenge demands: a. are unmanageable. b. are the same as hindrance demands. c. can be overcome by hard work. d. cannot overcome by hard work.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 35. Research indicates that recession-related stressors of increased workloads and corporate reorganizations were related to: a. higher employment levels. b. increased engagement. c. lower job satisfaction. d. lower social relationships.

ANSWER: c 36. C.J., who is a police officer, often feels overextended by their work. The dimension of burnout C.J. is experiencing is: a. hindrance. b. emotional exhaustion. c. depersonalization. d. reduced personal accomplishment.

ANSWER: b 37. Meditating and thinking positively are examples of: a. avoidant coping. b. problem-focused coping. c. emotion-focused coping. d. maladaptive coping.

ANSWER: c 38. Which type of coping involves behaviors or actions targeted toward solving or handling the stress-inducing issue itself? a. Avoidance-focused b. Problem-focused c. Emotion-focused d. Person-focused ANSWER: b 39. Which type of coping involves strategies that minimize the common responses to stress, such as rationalization? a. Stress-focused b. Distraction-focused c. Problem-focused d. Emotion-focused ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 40. Lianne's boss has just given her so much work that she is worried she won't be able to finish it. She decides to talk to her colleagues and get them to help her with her workload. In this case, Lianne is engaging in what type of coping? a. reactive b. cognitive c. problem-focused d. emotion-focused ANSWER: c 41. Callista's boss has just given her so much work that she is worried she won't be able to finish it. She decides to take some time out of her day to take a yoga class to relax herself. In this case, Callista is engaging in which type of coping? a. denial b. problem-focused c. emotion-focused d. maladaptive ANSWER: c 42. According to research, which form of coping has been shown to lead to positive outcomes? a. maladaptive avoidance b. adaptive distraction c. substance use d. wishing the problem away ANSWER: b 43. Which type of training has been found to improve an employee's subjective and physical well-being? a. On the job b. Team-based c. Emotional competence d. Task-based ANSWER: c

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 44. Which strategy would lead to reducing work-related stress? a. spending your downtime surfing the Internet and checking your work e-mail b. discussing your problems and getting social support from others c. withdrawing from coworkers d. power through breaks to finish work early ANSWER: b 45. Lena recently became a supervisor, and she is learning a lot about leadership. She realizes many of her leadership skills, such as negotiation, are also helping her be a better parent to her two small children. This is an example of work–family: a. enrichment. b. involvement. c. conflict. d. support.

ANSWER: a 46. Juan's boss yells at him for making a minor mistake at work. Juan feels frustrated and unappreciated, and when he gets home, he takes his frustration out on his kids by yelling at them for making a mess. This is an example of work–family: a. dissolution. b. enrichment. c. conflict. d. ambiguity.

ANSWER: c 47. A large number of companies are reporting that the reason they are allowing for more worker and family assistance is that it: a. is related to higher productivity. b. is legally mandated. c. helps with employee retention. d. discourages single and childless people from applying to the company.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 48. SHRM has developed an Effective Workplace Index that has seven core components that have positive benefits for both employers and employees. Which is NOT a core component? a. job challenge and learning opportunities b. valued social position c. coworker support for job success d. work-life fit ANSWER: b 49. SHRM has developed an Effective Workplace Index that has seven core components that have positive benefits for both employers and employees. Which is NOT a core component? a. supervisor support for job success b. culture of respect, trust, and belonging c. autonomy d. infrastructure and technology ANSWER: d 50. Wasim had a great day at work and has a positive attitude. When they arrive home, they maintain this positive attitude and is in a particularly good mood with their family. Wasim is experiencing: a. work–family involvement. b. work–family enrichment. c. work-life support. d. organization-based self-esteem.

ANSWER: b 51. Brent has had a horrible day at work. When he arrives home, he is too tired to help his partner with the children.

As a result, he has an argument with his wife. Brent is experiencing: a. work–family involvement. b. work–family enrichment. c. adaptive distraction. d. work–family conflict.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 52. One concept used to explain work–family conflict is known as the: a. spillover model. b. trickle-down model. c. bottom-up model. d. saturation model.

ANSWER: a 53. Farah spends a lot of time as a caretaker for an ill family member. As a result, Farah is falling behind on her work responsibilities. Which challenge is Farah experiencing? a. low organizational coping resources b. low mindfulness c. family interference with work (FIW) d. work interference with family (WIF) ANSWER: c 54. There are four ways to manage boundaries—behavioral, physical, communicative, and: a. spatial. b. temporal. c. contractual. d. cognitive.

ANSWER: b 55. Anton is committed to setting strict boundaries between his working hours and his personal time after work.

Which boundary is Anton demonstrating? a. physical b. communicative c. integration d. segmentation ANSWER: d 56. Which of these actions demonstrates a communicative boundary? a. Leaving your work laptop at home on a weekend trip. b. Telling your boss that you will not work after working hours. c. Creating a separate office space at home. d. Scheduling breaks on your work calendar.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 57. Haseem uses technology, such as voice mail, caller ID, and e-mail, to keep his work life separate from his home life. In nature, this type of boundary-setting is: a. temporal. b. communicative. c. behavioral. d. physical.

ANSWER: c 58. Research has indicated that individuals with high levels of work–family conflict tend to be: a. more satisfied with their jobs and lives. b. more satisfied with their jobs but less satisfied with their lives. c. less satisfied with their jobs but more satisfied with their lives. d. less satisfied with their jobs and lives.

ANSWER: d 59. Research has suggested that work domains such as job involvement and job stress influence: a. work interference with family (WIF) conflict. b. family interference with work (FIW) conflict. c. organizational coping resources. d. work variables.

ANSWER: a 60. SHRM has developed an Effective Workplace Index that has seven core components that have positive benefits for both employers and employees. Which is NOT a core component? a. satisfaction with wages and benefits b. autonomy c. coworker support for job success d. high prestige in the community ANSWER: d

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 61. In their research on work–family demand, Shockley and colleagues (2021) found that dual-earners used approaches during the Covid-19 pandemic to balance work and family demands. Which approach led to the best preserved well-being and job performance for both partners? a. Fully outsourcing childcare. b. Women do most or all of the childcare while working remotely. c. Alternating non-remote working days. d. Remote working wife does most and husband pitches in.

ANSWER: c 62. Which of these is a work boundary that can be set? a. integration b. communicative c. intrapersonal d. cognitive ANSWER: b 63. Carson works from home much of the time. In order to help him keep his work and home life separate, he has an office where he only does his work. This type of boundary-setting is: a. temporal. b. communicative. c. behavioral. d. physical.

ANSWER: d 64. Rio works from home much of the time. In order to keep their work and home life separate, Rio starts working at 7 AM and finishes by 3 PM every day. This type of boundary-setting is: a. temporal. b. communicative. c. physical. d. behavioral.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 65. Zelda works from home much of the time. In order to keep her work and home life separate, she tells her children that when she is in her office she is not to be disturbed. This type of boundary-setting is: a. temporal. b. communicative. c. spatial. d. behavioral.

ANSWER: b 66. Hammer and colleagues' research on family-supportive supervisor behaviors suggested that employees who felt that their employers provided them family-specific support had: a. higher job satisfaction and lower turnover intentions. b. higher life satisfaction and better physical health. c. higher job satisfaction and higher turnover intentions. d. lower job satisfaction and poorer physical health.

ANSWER: a 67. Family-friendly programs are often known as: a. work–family enhancers. b. employee assistance programs. c. work-life supports. d. spillover enrichments.

ANSWER: c 68. Which two countries were the first to have parental leave? a. United States and Canada b. France and Germany c. Hungary and Sweden d. Spain and Portugal ANSWER: c 69. The Family and Medical Leave Act allows eligible employees to take leave for family-related issues for 12: a. weeks paid. b. weeks unpaid. c. months paid. d. months unpaid.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 70. Which country allows citizens to take a career break in order to manage family responsibilities? a. United States b. Belgium c. Switzerland d. Germany ANSWER: b 71. According to the U.S. Department of Labor, forty percent of employees who take time off under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) do not take the entire 12 weeks of leave because: a. their employers ask them to come back to work. b. their jobs are not protected after the eighth week of the leave. c. they cannot afford to go without pay during the entire leave. d. they feel guilty about not attending work.

ANSWER: c 72. Which has been depersonalization to job-related strains? a. increased satisfaction b. decreased turnover c. absenteeism d. workplace violence ANSWER: c 73. Research by Materson et al., (2021) has shown that active users of onsite child-care centers: a. held higher turnover intentions. b. held lower turnover intentions. c. worked less hours in organizations. d. held fewer positive attitudes toward managing their work and family responsibilities than nonusers.

ANSWER: b 74. Perhaps the fastest growing elder-care benefit is: a. the dependent-care account. b. long-term insurance. c. geriatric care management. d. informational assistance.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 75. The transmission of stress, strain, and depression from one member of a couple to the other is referred to as: a. spillover. b. transference. c. interference. d. crossover effects.

ANSWER: d 76. Which statement is mentioned as a reason why jobs are important to us? a. They provide an opportunity to use our existing skills and to develop new ones. b. They require many people to commute to work. c. They provide social interaction with our family. d. They increase crossover effects between partners.

ANSWER: a 77. Research suggests that when a layoff is announced in a company, the layoff survivors tend to be: a. more loyal to the organization. b. more productive. c. less trusting of the organization. d. less stressed.

ANSWER: c 78. Research on job loss has found that: a. employees' ability to distance themselves from the job loss is positively related to reemployment. b. layoff survivors often experience increased productivity and improved morale. c. an individual's unemployment has no impact on marital satisfaction. d. job search activities of unemployed individuals are negatively related to social support.

ANSWER: a 79. Research suggests that laid-off workers experience symptoms of: a. schizophrenia. b. borderline personality disorder. c. posttraumatic stress disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 80. Research suggests that organizations can support layoff survivors by: a. talking about the economic and corporate social responsibility reasons for layoffs. b. limit communications about layoffs to reduce fear. c. providing social gatherings to boost morale. d. providing raises.

ANSWER: a 81. Individuals who believe they are underemployed: a. tend to be more productive as a result. b. feel grateful toward the organization for hiring them. c. tend to have low job satisfaction. d. engage in more organizational citizenship behaviors.

ANSWER: c 82. Underemployment is when workers are in a job that: a. has experienced recent layoffs. b. requires more skills or education than they possess. c. does not provide them with enough hours. d. is inferior or below their capacity or ability.

ANSWER: d 83. Research suggests that survivors of layoffs: a. tend to be more productive as a result. b. feel grateful toward the organization. c. do not consider the fairness of the layoff process. d. experience decreased job satisfaction.

ANSWER: d 84. According to research by Weisenfeld et al., (2000), managers who perceive layoff procedures as unjust tend to: a. exhibit low self-esteem. b. exhibit highly effective behaviors toward subordinates. c. become focused on earning a promotion. d. commiserate with layoff survivors.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 85. According to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, the leading causes of death in a workplace are falls, transportation accidents, and: a. suicides. b. chemical accidents. c. accidents due to lack of proper safety equipment. d. homicides.

ANSWER: d 86. According to Caillier (2021), individuals who witness or experience workplace violence experience several outcomes. Which of these is NOT an outcome? a. increased feelings of stress b. higher turnover intentions c. lower turnover intentions d. lower levels of job satisfaction ANSWER: c 87. According to the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), which is a risk factor for the likelihood of being assaulted at work? a. working with stable persons b. working at night c. being involved in the exchange of money d. delivering products using e-mail ANSWER: c 88. According to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), which is a risk factor for the likelihood of being assaulted at work? a. working in isolated situations b. working with large amounts of people c. having a remote workplace d. riding public transportation to work ANSWER: a

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 89. Attempts by someone inside or outside a company to cause injury or to be destructive as a result of an organizational factor are referred to as: a. organization-motivated aggression. b. organization-based violence. c. organization-induced strain. d. passive-aggressive violence.

ANSWER: a 90. Amelia is angry with her boss for a negative performance review. To retaliate, she sneaks into his office and attempts to erase the hard drive on his computer. Her actions are an example of: a. organization-motivated violence. b. individually motivated aggression. c. interpersonally motivated violence. d. organization-motivated aggression.

ANSWER: d 91. A reliable finding that resulted from Martinko and Zellars' (1998) research is that: a. aggression is perpetrated in the workplace without conscious thought. b. "shocks to the system" trigger aggression in the workplace. c. employees who have a low external locus of control are more likely to be aggressive than those with a high external locus of control. d. males are considerably more likely than females to be aggressive in the workplace.

ANSWER: d 92. Which is an example of a job-related strain? a. low job satisfaction b. depression c. emotional exhaustion d. low self-esteem ANSWER: a 93. What is a research domain concept that emerged from positive psychology? a. work-family enrichment b. burnout c. underemployment d. thriving at work ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 94. What was the "Great Resignation" following the Covid-19 pandemic? a. large masses of companies shut down permanently b. large masses of workers resigned from their roles c. large masses of workers were fired from their roles d. large masses of workers returned to college ANSWER: b 95. Which is an example of an emotion-related strain? a. ineffective performance b. chest pain c. increased illnesses d. irritability ANSWER: d 96. Which is an example of an emotion-related strain? a. ineffective performance b. lack of motivation c. increased illnesses d. reduced self-esteem ANSWER: d 97. Which is an example of an emotion-related strain? a. ineffective performance b. low job satisfaction c. depression d. increased heart rate ANSWER: c 98. Which is an example of a physiological strain? a. low job satisfaction b. depression c. high blood pressure d. ineffective performance ANSWER: c

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 99. Which is an example of a physiological strain? a. increased heart rate b. depression c. lack of motivation d. ineffective performance ANSWER: a 100. Which coping strategies are those that protect one's health? a. maladaptive b. adaptive c. avoidance d. dysfunctional ANSWER: b 101. In general, emotion-focused and problem-focused coping are considered to be which of these coping strategies? a. maladaptive b. adaptive c. dysfunctional d. functional ANSWER: b 102. Which of these types of training has been found to improve an employee's subjective and physical well-being? a. Athletic b. Team-based c. Emotional competence d. Transformational ANSWER: c 103. Paying attention to present experiences with nonjudgmental awareness is known as: a. attention honing. b. focal training. c. transcendence. d. mindfulness.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 104. Research by the National Conference of State Legislatures has reported that the cited family-related problem involves: a. elder care. b. childcare. c. spousal support. d. pet care.

ANSWER: b 105. Which subspecialty of I/O psychology would be likely to examine problems such as employee exposure to chemicals, good air quality, and access to affordable healthcare? a. professional wellness psychology b. occupational health psychology c. organizational safety psychology d. risk management psychology ANSWER: b 106. The occupational health psychology (OHP) based model that focuses on policies, programs, and practices that integrate protection from work-related health and safety hazards, with promotion of injury and illness prevention efforts to advance employee well-being, is termed: a. complete member health. b. holistic employee wellness. c. total worker health. d. comprehensive coworker beneficence.

ANSWER: c 107. Which statement is mentioned in the text as a reason for jobs being important to us? a. They help build resilience through repeated failure. b. They require many people to commute to work. c. They provide social interaction with people outside of our family. d. They help dissolve the routine structure of our day.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 108. Which statement is mentioned in the text as a reason for jobs being important to us? a. They help us build tenacity through repeated failures. b. They provide structure to our day. c. They provide social interaction with our family. d. They provide opportunities to tackle stress on a daily basis.

ANSWER: b 109. Which statement is mentioned in the text as a reason for jobs being important to us? a. They develop conscientiousness through a constant need for time management. b. They require many people to commute to work. c. They provide social interaction with our family. d. They provide our lives with short- and long-term goals, which builds a sense of purpose.

ANSWER: d 110. According to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), which of these is a risk factor for the likelihood of being assaulted at work? a. working in a suburban area b. working at night c. working outside d. having a mobile workplace (like a taxi) ANSWER: d 111. What is it when someone inside or outside of the organization attempts to cause injury or harm to the organization? a. organization-motivated aggression b. organizational action c. organizational environment characteristics d. hostile attribution bias ANSWER: a

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Chapter 12 - Essay 1. Compare formal and informal groups. What are the four functions that informal groups serve?

ANSWER: Informal groups satisfy social and security needs, facilitate cooperation, and regulate social and task behaviors. Comparisons may vary, but the main difference is that formal groups are created by the organization, whereas informal groups are established by employees who tend to be close in proximity and interact frequently.

2. Briefly identify and define four main types of social influences in groups.

ANSWER: Norms, which are shared expectations about appropriate ways of responding in a group; roles, which are sets of behaviors expected of a person who occupies a certain position; conflict, which is the extent to which members disagree or argue; cohesion, the strengths of members' motivation to maintain membership and links that have developed among members; group development, which describe the life cycle of a group; and social loafing, which describes the lack of effort on the part of group members toward a goal.

3. Provide examples of the three main types of conflict that can occur in teams. Explain the effect that each type of conflict is likely to have on the team's performance.

ANSWER: Relationship conflict is the tension that emerges in interpersonal relationships and is typically harmful to team performance. Task conflict occurs when team members have different ideas, beliefs, or viewpoints. This type of conflict can sometimes decrease performance and can sometimes increase it.

Process conflict emerges when group members have incompatible ideas about how to do the work.

This conflict typically results in decreased performance.

4. Is high cohesion always beneficial for teams? Provide an example of how cohesion can be helpful to a team and how it might be detrimental to a team.

ANSWER: High cohesion is not always beneficial. Research shows that high cohesion leads to higher satisfaction and higher performance, helps members feel connected to the team, and reduces withdrawal.

However, high cohesion can also lead to poor decision making in the group and is a predictor of groupthink.

5. You are a member of a group that has existed for a short amount of time. There is quite a bit of conflict on the team, as members challenge and question one another and disagree about the solutions to problems. According to research on group development, what stage do you believe the group is in? What does Tuckman's model suggest will be the next stage, and how will team members' behaviors change when they reach this stage?

ANSWER: This group is most likely in the storming stage. The next stage will likely be norming, where group members develop trust, roles, and standards and feel more cohesive.

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Chapter 12 - Essay 6. What are the five stages of Tuckman's model of group development? For each stage, describe what is happening among the group members.

ANSWER: Forming, where members are getting acquainted and are polite; storming, where members question one another and engage in conflict; norming, where unity is established and cohesion forms; performing, where members become focused on productivity and goal achievement; and adjourning, where relationships weaken and/or roles are terminated.

7. Compare and contrast the five-stage model from the punctuated equilibrium model of group development.

ANSWER: The main difference between the models is that Tuckman's stage model suggests that progressing through stages is linear. The punctuated equilibrium model suggests that groups fluctuate quickly among the stages and can be experiencing several stages at once.

8. What is social loafing? Under what conditions are group members less likely to engage in social loafing?

ANSWER: Social loafing is where group members reduce their individual efforts when in a group. This is likely to occur when members believe their individual efforts cannot be identified and when others will not be affected by their efforts. Some also argue that this occurs when individuals don't expect their efforts on group tasks to be tied to outcomes as strongly as their efforts on individual tasks.

9. A team has been tasked with putting together a market research report, which requires them to conduct research, analyze data, and provide a recommendation to the CEO. A manager notices that some members are not doing their share of the work. What are some actions the manager can take to reduce this social loafing? What are potential consequences of allowing social loafing to continue?

ANSWER: Recommendations will vary, but the manager should ensure that individual efforts on the project are identifiable, emphasize how others will be affected by these individual efforts, and tie their efforts on the group project to valued outcomes for the individuals. It may also help to ensure that those who do not help also do not get to enjoy the rewards of the work. If the manager does not address this issue, other workers may stop working (the sucker effect) or a small number of group members may put forth more effort to ensure the work gets done (social compensation).

10. A clothing store is experiencing a problem with low customer satisfaction. The store manager has asked a team of employees to work together to come up with a possible solution to the problem. Describe the steps the team should take to ensure that they make a good decision, and what behaviors they should avoid.

ANSWER: The team should follow the five steps for effective group decision-making (diagnose the problem, generate solutions, evaluate solutions, choose a solution, and develop an action plan and implementation). The team should avoid behaviors that lead to groupthink (ineffective brainstorming, isolating the team from other groups, having a biased leader, self-censorship, pressure on dissenters, belief in invulnerability, appointing a mindguard, rationalizing, and developing illusions of morality).

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Chapter 12 - Essay 11. Identify the five steps to effective group decision-making. For each step, provide a description of what occurs and one common mistake that is made.

ANSWER: The first step is diagnosing the problem where members come to an agreement on the nature of the problem. The next step is generating solutions where group interaction is focused on understanding the problem well enough to identify potential solutions. The next step is evaluating solutions where group members consider each solution in terms of its potential for success and failure. The next step is choosing a solution where group members come to an agreement on the best solution. The final step is developing and implementing an action plan where group members determine steps to follow in carrying out the decision and monitoring the process.

12. Describe the three common mistakes that can be made when brainstorming.

ANSWER: Examples of brainstorming mistakes could include members having to wait their turn or being delayed in sharing, blocking the free flow of ideas; being apprehensive about voicing their ideas; and being more concerned with looking good than generating viable solutions. They may confuse facts with opinions, mistake symptoms for causes, ignore potential downsides, attack the proposer instead of the solution, exclude decision process members, suggest irrelevant solutions, and focus on what should have been done rather than looking forward.

13. Name and define the four common approaches to choosing solutions in groups.

ANSWER: Delegating is an approach where the group provides information to a chairperson, who makes the decision. Averaging individual inputs is an approach where group members make individual private decisions, which are averaged to arrive at a group-level decision. Majority rules is an approach where the group votes and the majority viewpoint is adopted. The group consensus is an approach where the group must discuss the issue until they reach a unanimous agreement.

14. What are the main antecedents of groupthink? How might groupthink be eliminated or prevented?

ANSWER: High group cohesion, isolation, biased leadership, and high decisional stress. Following the five steps to decision making helps address this problem. These steps include being careful about diagnosing the problem, focusing on identifying solutions, evaluating solutions critically, choosing a plan carefully, and precisely planning the implementation.

15. Describe three types of work teams and provide at least one example of each type.

ANSWER: Production teams, which are frontline employees producing tangible outputs; management teams, where corporate teams plan, budget, and direct work units; service teams, where members attend to the needs of multiple customers; project teams, where a cross-functional team is created to solve a specific issue and disbands at the completion of the project; and advisory teams, where a group solves problems and recommends solutions to a manager or corporate-level leaders.

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Chapter 12 - Essay 16. What are self-managed work teams (SMWTs)? How have changes in the way organizations approach operations allowed for the increase in the use of these SMWTs? Are they typically effective?

ANSWER: SMWTs are teams that are responsible for monitoring and controlling the overall process or product, as well as doling out specific tasks to team members. These teams often schedule their own work, do routine housekeeping, and maintain their own equipment. Some may even participate in discussions of budgets, performance appraisals, or training. Traditionally, organizations have taken a command-andcontrol approach to operations, where the organization is viewed as a machinelike system that was all about order, predictability, and control. Now, more organizations view teams as sensemakers. These teams can help the organization get to know itself and its future. These teams are more flexible, independent, and self-empowered. SMWTs can have positive effects on work-team effectiveness but conflict can decrease the effectiveness of SMWTs. 17. What are the three major dimensions of work-team effectiveness?

ANSWER: Team performance, attitudes of team members, and withdrawal behaviors are the three major dimensions of work-team effectiveness.

18. Define both teamwork and taskwork. Describe how these factors are important to team effectiveness.

ANSWER: Taskwork involves the specific individual behaviors or duties that are required for success from each member. Teamwork includes activities and efforts that maintain how a group will work together effectively. Research shows that both are integral to successful team performance, as team member contributes to communication, cohesion, and trust, while taskwork contributes to the completion of tasks and individual skills.

19. A manager has a new opening on a highly cohesive, high-performing sales team. What are some characteristics they should look for in a new team member if they would like this team to continue performing well?

ANSWER: Recommendations will vary, but they should consider issues of group composition (e.g., high conscientiousness, emotional stability, agreeableness, and cognitive ability; a member who is diverse from the group in terms of extraversion; and a member who has high teamwork knowledge). Students may suggest tools such as the Team Role Test, and/or the Team Role Experience and Orientation test.

20. Identify how virtual team dynamics can differ from in-person team dynamics.

ANSWER: Virtual team dynamics differ from in-person teams. Virtual teams can access diverse talent and reduce travel costs, but they often face more conflict, less psychological safety, and communication issues.

Strong leadership and good virtual work skills help overcome these challenges and improve team performance.

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 1. A work team is NOT a group unless the people: a. share a common goal. b. share descriptive or prescriptive norms. c. are physically near one another. d. discuss cohesion.

ANSWER: a 2. Subgroups that are established by the organization to achieve a specific goal are known as: a. objective work teams. b. service work teams. c. informal work teams. d. formal work teams.

ANSWER: d 3. Groups of employees that have emerged among employees who have shared identities are known as: a. collaborative alliances. b. cardinal groups. c. informal groups. d. formal groups.

ANSWER: c 4. The TLC Company has established a Rewards Committee that meets every month to determine the Employee of the Month. The Rewards Committee represents a(n): a. service work team. b. asset work team. c. informal work group. d. formal work group.

ANSWER: d 5. Fadia, U-jin, and Svetlana, who are all going through the same training program, often meet together for lunch to study their training materials together. In this case, they represent a(n): a. objective team. b. management team. c. informal group. d. formal group.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 6. Which is a function that informal groups serve? a. satisfying employees' social needs b. satisfying employees' monetary needs c. satisfying employees' self-actualization needs d. facilitating isolation among employees ANSWER: a 7. What are shared expectations about appropriate ways of responding in a group? a. norms b. roles c. duties d. cohesions ANSWER: a 8. Which type of norm suggests what people should do, feel, or think in a particular situation? a. informal b. formal c. prescriptive d. descriptive ANSWER: c 9. What norms are those that define what most people tend to do, feel, or think in a particular situation? a. informal b. formal c. prescriptive d. descriptive ANSWER: d 10. Everyone in Danika's office dresses professionally. When Danika arrives at work one day dressed in jeans, she is scolded by her boss and peers. In this case, professional dress is likely which type of norm? a. prescriptive b. descriptive c. formal d. informal ANSWER: a

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 11. Jachin notices that people in his group get their lunch from the cafeteria rather than bring their own lunch. When Jachin brings his own lunch, his coworkers notice it but don't seem too concerned about it. In this case, getting lunch at the cafeteria is which type of norm? a. prescriptive b. descriptive c. formal d. informal ANSWER: b 12. Which statement about group norms is true? a. New employees generally change group norms. b. New employees tend to ignore group norms. c. Norms develop very rapidly in groups. d. Group norms are passed down by more experienced employees.

ANSWER: d 13. According to Kurt Lewin, behavior is a function of: a. roles and norms. b. cohesion and group development. c. the person and the environment. d. the person and the leadership.

ANSWER: c 14. What is the process by which a group establishes distinct roles for various members of the group? a. role ambiguity b. role differentiation c. social loafing d. teamwork ANSWER: b 15. What is a set of behaviors expected of a person who occupies a particular position in a group? a. habit b. role c. duty d. mental model ANSWER: b

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 16. Payal, a sales manager, believes she should accompany her sales representatives on sales calls. Wasim, who is also a sales manager, does not believe he should accompany sales representatives because he believes his sales representatives can handle clients on their own. Payal and Wasim have different: a. role differentiation for being sales managers. b. role concepts for being sales managers. c. equilibrium for being sales managers. d. valence for being sales managers.

ANSWER: b 17. Which is the process by which a group or organization establishes distinct roles for various members of a group? a. role differentiation b. role identification c. role self-management d. role conflict ANSWER: a 18. Which type of conflict is the tension and friction that emerges in interpersonal associations and can harm team performance? a. process b. task c. relationship d. personality ANSWER: c 19. Which type of conflict results when team members have different ideas, beliefs, or viewpoints regarding the work to be done? It can sometimes be helpful for team performance. a. process b. task c. relationship d. approach ANSWER: b

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 20. Which type of conflict emerges when group members have incompatible ideas about how the work should be accomplished, which typically is harmful for performance? a. process b. informational c. relationship d. task ANSWER: a 21. Trudy and Gene, who are members of a group, argue constantly because they do not like each other. This type of conflict is known as: a. process. b. informational. c. relationship. d. personality.

ANSWER: c 22. Bora and Chin, who are group members, are experiencing some conflict. Bora believes the team should focus on developing internet advertisements for their products, while Chin believes the team should focus on developing newspaper advertisements. This conflict has in turn increased the effectiveness of the team. This is an example of: a. process conflict. b. informational conflict. c. relationship conflict. d. task conflict.

ANSWER: d 23. Autumn and Georgio, who are group members, are experiencing some conflict. Autumn believes that when making decisions, the group should vote and go with whatever gets a majority vote. Georgio, meanwhile, believes that they should try to reach a consensus when making decisions. This conflict has in turn affected the team's performance negatively. This is an example of which type of conflict? a. process b. approach c. relationship d. task ANSWER: a

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 24. Kaamil works in a group whose members are highly motivated to stay together. All members are willing to put aside their individual goals in order to see the group succeed. Kaamil's group is described as having a high level of: a. differentiation. b. cohesion. c. descriptive norms. d. moral development.

ANSWER: b 25. Which statement about cohesive groups is true? a. Cohesive groups are negatively linked to performance. b. Cohesive groups demonstrate low satisfaction. c. Cohesive groups are more satisfied than noncohesive groups. d. Cohesive groups tend to experience more tension.

ANSWER: c 26. Which statement represents an accurate research finding on group cohesion? a. Cohesiveness and performance are positively related. b. Cohesiveness and performance are negatively related. c. Members of cohesive groups tend to have high anxiety. d. Members of cohesive groups tend to have low job satisfaction.

ANSWER: a 27. In a recently created group, group members are getting to know about one another and are on their best behavior. Which stage in Tuckman's stages of group development is this group in? a. performing b. norming c. forming d. storming ANSWER: c

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 28. In a group that was recently created, group members are beginning to disagree with one another and are not always on their best behavior. Which stage in Tuckman's stages of group development is this group in? a. performing b. adjourning c. storming d. forming ANSWER: c 29. According to which model do groups go through separate, linear phases in their development? a. Tuckman's 5 stage model b. punctuated equilibrium model c. two-factory model d. expectancy model ANSWER: a 30. In group development, the main difference between Tuckman's model and the punctuated equilibrium model is: a. whether groups go through the stages in a linear fashion. b. the extent to which group formation is explained. c. the manner in which conflict is established. d. the level of moral development reached by group members.

ANSWER: a 31. Which is a stage in Tuckman's (1965) model of group development? a. adjourning b. informing c. swarming d. conforming ANSWER: a 32. In which stage of group development do group members become more cohesive and establish unity among themselves? a. performing b. norming c. adjourning d. forming ANSWER: b

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 33. In a well-established group, members know and understand one another well, and they accomplish a great deal of work together. Which stage of group development is this group in? a. norming b. informing c. performing d. doing ANSWER: c 34. In a somewhat new group, members are settling into their roles and feel connected to one another. Which stage of group development is this group in? a. forming b. norming c. adjourning d. storming ANSWER: b 35. In a group that has been in existence for quite some time, group members are beginning to leave to work on other projects. Which stage of group development is this group in? a. dissolving b. storming c. coining d. adjourning ANSWER: d 36. What is the reduction in individual effort that occurs when people work in groups instead of alone? a. role differentiation b. groupthink c. social loafing d. mindguard ANSWER: c

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 37. Professor Fabrizio has a group project in his class, and he is concerned about social loafing. Which of these is advice for preventing social loafing from happening? a. Ensure that the project is boring and uninteresting. b. Ask each student to clearly identify what they contributed. c. Require groups to complete a weekly progress report. d. Assign groups such that each group has one A student and one C student in it.

ANSWER: b 38. Professor Berend has a group project in his class, and he is concerned about social loafing. Which of these is advice for preventing social loafing from happening? a. Provide bonus points for the group of students with the best project. b. Ask the groups to have weekly meetings. c. Make tasks interdependent. d. Designate one student as the leader.

ANSWER: c 39. According to Zaccaro (1984), which leads to less social loafing? a. attractive tasks b. low motivation c. low collectivism d. disparate norms ANSWER: a 40. Kerri is a member of a work group of graphic designers who have been asked to design a billboard. She thinks that the billboard is effectively being completed by others and that her efforts are not necessary. Kerri is engaged in: a. social enhancement. b. social compensation. c. groupthink. d. free riding.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 41. Varun and four other students have been assigned to work as a group on a class project. Midway through the project, Varun realizes he is the only one working and decides not to put forth any more effort. This outcome is called: a. free riding. b. the sucker effect. c. social enhancement. d. social loafing.

ANSWER: b 42. Deniz realizes that her group members are doing very little work on a project, so she increases her efforts to get the job done. This outcome is called: a. the sucker effect. b. social enhancement. c. social compensation. d. social loafing.

ANSWER: c 43. Brainstorming often occurs in the phase of decision making known as: a. diagnosing the problem. b. evaluating solutions. c. implementing a solution. d. generating solutions.

ANSWER: d 44. Which reduces the effectiveness of brainstorming? a. group members sharing their ideas whenever they want b. group members bringing up new and relevant ideas c. group members being nervous about voicing their opinions d. group members placing their need to generate viable solutions above self-interests ANSWER: c

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 45. In group decision making, the point at which group members come to agree on the nature of the issue and the goals of their group is known as: a. forming. b. generating solutions. c. diagnosing the problem. d. evaluating solutions.

ANSWER: c 46. Which reduces the effectiveness of brainstorming? a. group members sharing their ideas whenever they want b. group members waiting for their turn to share their ideas c. group members having confidence in their ability to voice concerns to the group d. group members placing their need to generate viable solutions above self-interests ANSWER: b 47. In group decision making, when members are focused on understanding the problem well enough to devise answers, this phase is known as: a. storming. b. generating solutions. c. diagnosing the problem. d. evaluating solutions.

ANSWER: b 48. In group decision making, when members consider responses in terms of their potential for success and failure, this phase is known as: a. choosing a solution. b. generating solutions. c. diagnosing the problem. d. evaluating solutions.

ANSWER: d 49. In group decision making, when members come to agree on the best solution is a phase known as: a. developing an action plan and implementation. b. generating solutions. c. diagnosing the problem. d. choosing solutions.

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 50. In group decision making, when members determine steps to carry out a decision, this phase is known as: a. developing an action plan and implementation. b. generating and brainstorming ideas. c. diagnosing the problem. d. evaluating solutions.

ANSWER: a 51. One way to improve brainstorming is to use a software that allows group members to type in their ideas and share them anonymously. This is known as: a. traditional brainstorming. b. electronic brainstorming. c. evaluating solutions. d. majority rules.

ANSWER: b 52. Electronic brainstorming reduces: a. production blocking. b. the availability of other members' ideas during brainstorming. c. the number of ideas generated by individuals. d. the anonymity of individuals' responses.

ANSWER: a 53. According to Forsyth (1999), what is a common approach to choosing a solution in group decision making? a. delegating b. coercion c. minority rule d. mindguarding ANSWER: a 54. Rahim's team generates solutions and then provides information about each solution to the chairperson, who ultimately makes the decision. According to Forsyth (1999), Rahim's group is using which process of decision making? a. averaging b. majority rule c. consensus d. delegating ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 55. Habib's team does not select a solution until everyone in the group agrees on the best solution. According to Forsyth (1999), Habib's team is using which process of decision making? a. taskwork b. joint ventures c. consensus d. delegating ANSWER: c 56. Tamar's team takes a vote on a solution and selects the one that receives the most votes. According to Forsyth (1999), Tamar's team is using which process of decision making? a. averaging b. majority rules c. taskwork d. alliance teams ANSWER: b 57. A team is trying to decide the price for a new product. First, they all make their own personal estimates of what the product should cost. Then, they compile these estimates to come up with a final value that is roughly in the middle of their estimates. This team is using what process of decision making? a. averaging b. zero-sum c. consensus d. groupthink ANSWER: a 58. When a group creates methods for monitoring and evaluating progress toward a solution, the group has reached which stage of the decision-making process? a. choosing solutions b. generating solutions and brainstorming ideas c. diagnosing problems d. developing an action plan and implementation ANSWER: d

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 59. Qasim is finding that a group project is taking a lot of time because his team members do not communicate well or share information, and they have difficulty finding meeting times that work for everyone. This is an example of: a. process loss. b. groupthink. c. mindguard. d. cohesion.

ANSWER: a 60. Any nonmotivational element of a group situation that detracts from a group's performance is known as: a. loafing. b. process loss. c. groupthink. d. mindguard.

ANSWER: b 61. According to research on group decision making, groups are NOT particularly effective at: a. pooling unshared information. b. coordinating shared information. c. making decisions based on shared information. d. avoiding groupthink.

ANSWER: a 62. When a cohesive unit's desire to agree becomes so dominant that it overrides realistic appraisal of alternative courses of action, the result is: a. groupthink. b. mindguard. c. social loafing. d. free riding.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 63. Hyria, who is part of a work group, feels very connected to her coworkers, but she is concerned about a decision they are making. She is afraid to speak up, however, because in the past, dissenters were pressured into going along with the overall consensus. Hyria's group is likely engaging in: a. mindguard. b. free riding. c. groupthink. d. descriptive norming.

ANSWER: c 64. According to Janis's Model of Groupthink, which is an antecedent of groupthink? a. group cohesion b. unbiased leadership c. low group decisional stress d. appointment of a devil's advocate ANSWER: a 65. According to Janis's Model of Groupthink, what is a symptom of groupthink? a. high decisional stress b. strong, biased leadership c. pressure on dissenters d. group isolation ANSWER: c 66. According to Janis's Model of Groupthink, which of these is an antecedent of groupthink? a. brainstorming b. group cohesion c. appointment of a mindguard d. low decisional stress ANSWER: b 67. Aart is a member of a group that is organizing a protest. The team has given him the job of protecting the members of the group from the views of people outside the group. Aart is acting as a: a. dissenter. b. mindguard. c. devil's advocate. d. free rider.

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 68. What are groups in which the actions of individuals are interdependent, individuals hold a specific role, and common goals are shared across the group? a. work teams b. work units c. business units d. cliques ANSWER: a 69. What is an organized knowledge structure that enhances the interaction of an individual with their environment? a. equilibrium model b. construct c. mental model d. context ANSWER: c 70. Niamh is a nurse on a surgery team. The surgeon often doesn't need to tell her what to do—she knows her team so well that she can anticipate what they require her to do next. We might say that Niamh's team has an effective: a. groupthink. b. mindguard. c. shared mental model. d. punctuated equilibrium model.

ANSWER: c 71. In which group would a shared mental model be important? a. administrative assistants at an insurance company b. medical personnel on a team in an emergency room c. clerks in an electronics store d. executive coaches in a consulting office ANSWER: b 72. Mary, Prateek, Lou, and Fahima work as a group on a daily basis to make computer chips in a manufacturing plant. They are an example of which type of team? a. project b. service c. production d. management ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 73. A chief executive officer (CEO), a chief financial officer (CFO), and a chief information officer (CIO) may be considered parts of which type of team? a. advisory b. service c. production d. management ANSWER: d 74. A group consisting of engineers, maintenance workers, and mathematicians is brought together to solve a problem with a nuclear reactor. Once the reactor is repaired and operational, they will return to work in their respective departments. This group represents which type of team? a. production b. service c. project d. management ANSWER: c 75. Cross-functional teams often are also known as which type of team? a. parallel b. project c. service d. production ANSWER: b 76. A team whose task is to keep a college president informed about all areas of the college would be which type of team? a. production b. service c. management d. advisory ANSWER: d

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 77. A group of employees answer customer questions about a new version of software. This group represents which type of team? a. advisory b. service c. project d. management ANSWER: b 78. A team that assumes complete responsibility for monitoring and controlling the overall production process, as well as for assigning specific tasks to team members, is known as a: a. cross-functional team. b. self-managed work team. c. superordinate team. d. consulting team.

ANSWER: b 79. Historically, organizations were viewed as machinelike systems that were all about order and predictability. This was known as which type of approach? a. defective decision making b. mindguard c. command-and-control d. sensemaking ANSWER: c 80. Recently, companies have required that teams be flexible and independent, so they could help the organization get to know itself and plan for its future. This is known as which type of framework? a. command-and-control b. mindguard c. defective decision making d. sensemaking ANSWER: d

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 81. In terms of work-team effectiveness, what involves process-oriented aspects of work? a. structure b. consideration c. teamwork d. taskwork ANSWER: c 82. Which of these is NOT one of Cohen's dimensions of work-team effectiveness? a. attitudes of team members b. social loafing c. withdrawal behaviors d. team performance ANSWER: b 83. A manager evaluates a team on whether her team members are carrying out their individual duties. She is evaluating their: a. teamwork. b. taskwork. c. cohesion. d. groupthink.

ANSWER: b 84. A manager evaluates group members on their communication and coordination. She is evaluating their: a. teamwork. b. taskwork. c. loafing. d. groupthink.

ANSWER: a 85. Research suggests teams that tend to be the MOST effective have: a. high variability on conscientiousness and high variability on extraversion. b. low variability on conscientiousness and low variability on extraversion. c. high variability on conscientiousness and low variability on extraversion. d. low variability on conscientiousness and high variability on extraversion.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 86. Based on the research done by Mathieu, Gallagher, and colleagues, which is considered a predictor of workteam effectiveness? a. group composition b. individual work design c. intragroup conflict d. group politics ANSWER: a 87. According to research studies, whether a team member will perform backup behaviors depends greatly on which traits of both the helper and the recipient of help? a. cognitive abilities b. personalities c. duties d. norms ANSWER: b 88. Research indicates that individuals high in which trait tend to secure more backup behaviors from other team members? a. agreeableness b. neuroticism c. extraversion d. openness ANSWER: c 89. Research indicates that individuals high in which trait tend to provide more backup to team members, whether they need it or not? a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. neuroticism d. extraversion ANSWER: a

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 90. According to research, teams will function best if all teammates have high levels of: a. neuroticism. b. openness to experience. c. conscientiousness. d. extraversion.

ANSWER: c 91. Based on the research done by Mathieu, Gallagher, and colleagues, which is a predictor of work-team effectiveness? a. cultural signals b. group composition and size c. internal group efficiencies d. leader extraversion ANSWER: b 92. Research by Javalagi and colleagues (2023) found that problemsolving in groups varied by how teams deliberated. The teams that had the greatest chance of solving the task: a. had the highest levels of groupthink. b. deliberated independently and then rejoined as a group. c. deliberated virtually. d. deliberated in person.

ANSWER: d 93. A newly developed test improves upon the Team Role Test by examining past behaviors and behavioral predispositions, rather than just assessing team knowledge. This is known as a(n): a. TREO test. b. ability test. c. situational judgement test d. work sample test.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 94. Jerrod wants to assess potential team members on how they understand the important parts different members play on a team. Jerrod should implement the: a. Team Role Test. b. Team Member Test. c. Big Five personality test. d. Myers-Briggs test.

ANSWER: a 95. Ryder needs to select team members based on their understanding of which people are important in different situations. Ryder should implement the: a. Teamwork Test. b. Team Role Test. c. California Personality Inventory. d. Hogan Developmental Survey.

ANSWER: b 96. One current trend in teamwork is the development of two or more teams that interface directly and interdependently in response to environmental contingencies toward accomplishment of collective goals. These are known as: a. multiteam systems (MTS). b. self-managed work teams (SMWT). c. shared mental models (SMM). d. hierarchical achievement-linked organizations (HALO).

ANSWER: a 97. Which is a function that informal groups serve? a. satisfying employees' independence needs b. satisfying employees' monetary needs c. facilitating cooperation among employees d. facilitating isolation among employees ANSWER: c

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 98. Which is a function that informal groups serve? a. regulating behaviors to disseminate organizational norms and procedures b. satisfying employees' monetary needs c. satisfying employees' self-actualization needs d. facilitating isolation among employees ANSWER: a 99. Which is a function that informal groups serve? a. satisfying employees' independence needs b. helping employees with their monetary needs c. satisfying employees' self-actualization needs d. helping employees feel safe and connected ANSWER: d 100. Most employees in Fahim's organization stay after their company potluck to help clean up. However, Fahim leaves right away without helping. In this case, Fahim has probably violated a: a. role. b. mindguard. c. norm. d. mental model.

ANSWER: c 101. Everyone in Matteo's office arrives at work at 8 a.m. Matteo never gets in before 9 a.m. His coworkers view this as problematic and think that Matteo is a bad employee because of this behavior. In this case, Matteo is violating a: a. theoretical norm. b. descriptive norm. c. formal norm. d. prescriptive norm.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 102. Everyone in Matteo's office spends their morning coffee break chatting. Matteo prefers to sit quietly and listen to music on his headphones instead of chatting. His coworkers think this is unusual but not particularly problematic.

Which norm is Matteo is violating? a. theoretical b. descriptive c. formal d. prescriptive ANSWER: b 103. Bernadette, a cashier, has duties that involve working with customers and using the cash register. Finn, a cook, has duties that involve putting burgers on a grill and frying onion rings. The fact that Bernadette and Finn have various duties is known as: a. role differentiation. b. role concept. c. equilibrium. d. instrumentality.

ANSWER: a 104. A meta-analysis by DeChurch and colleagues (2013) suggests that resolving conflict by being collaborative and open is: a. positively related to individual promotion. b. negatively associated with team performance. c. positively associated with team performance. d. not associated with team performance.

ANSWER: c 105. A group is experiencing a high level of conflict. According to a meta-analysis by DeChurch and colleagues (2013), which of these is an approach to addressing the conflict while maintaining good team performance? a. The group should avoid one another unless it is absolutely necessary for them to talk. b. The group should compete against one another to prove who is right. c. The group should find a task to collaborate on in an open and honest manner. d. The leader should punish the group members until they can get along.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 106. What is the strength of members' motivation to maintain membership in a group and of the links that have developed among members? a. descriptive norms b. groupthink c. differentiation d. cohesion ANSWER: d 107. A situation where employees do less than their fair share of the work but still share equally in the rewards is known as: a. free riding. b. the sucker effect. c. teamwork. d. social loafing.

ANSWER: a 108. When members become concerned their coworkers are holding back, leading them to reduce their own efforts, is known as: a. the punctuated equilibrium. b. the sucker effect. c. teamwork. d. social loafing.

ANSWER: b 109. When a group member realizes that their efforts are not necessary for group success and rewards, and therefore they reduce their efforts, this is known as: a. free riding. b. the sucker effect. c. teamwork. d. social compensation.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 110. A member of a group realizes that their group members are not putting in much effort on a project. If they decide to work harder, this is known as: a. the sucker effect. b. social compensation. c. groupthink. d. social enhancement.

ANSWER: b 111. A member of a group realizes that their group members are not putting in much effort on a project. If they decide to reduce their efforts, this is known as: a. the sucker effect. b. free riding. c. social enhancement. d. groupthink.

ANSWER: a 112. Which reduces the effectiveness of brainstorming? a. group members being motivated by trying to look good in comparison with others b. group members sharing their ideas whenever they want c. group members having confidence in their ability to voice concerns to the group d. group members placing their need to generate viable solutions above self-interests ANSWER: a 113. Which reduces the effectiveness of brainstorming? a. group members placing their need to generate viable solutions above self-interests b. group members sharing their ideas whenever they want c. group members having confidence in their ability to voice concerns to the group d. group members bringing up old solutions to the problem ANSWER: d 114. According to Forsyth (1999), which is a common approach to choosing a solution in group decision making? a. group coercion b. group consensus c. minority rule d. mindguarding ANSWER: b

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 115. According to Forsyth (1999), which is a common approach to choosing a solution in group decision making? a. coercion b. autocracy c. majority rule d. mindguarding ANSWER: c 116. According to Forsyth (1999), which is a common approach to choosing a solution in group decision making? a. coercion b. averaging c. minority rule d. mindguarding ANSWER: b 117. Giving rewards, designing goals, and getting training are all examples of what category of work-team effectiveness? a. organizational context b. group composition c. group work design d. intragroup processes ANSWER: a 118. Group member cognitive ability, personality, and demographics are all examples of what category of work-team effectiveness? a. organizational context b. group composition c. group work design d. intragroup processes ANSWER: b 119. Group cohesion and group communication processes are examples of what category of work-team effectiveness? a. external group processes b. group composition c. group work design d. intragroup processes ANSWER: d

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 120. Communication outside the group is an example of what category of work-team effectiveness? a. external group processes b. group composition c. group work design d. intragroup processes ANSWER: a 121. According to Janis's Model of Groupthink, which of these is an antecedent of groupthink? a. brainstorming b. self-censorship c. appointment of a mindguard d. high decisional stress ANSWER: d 122. According to Janis's Model of Groupthink, what is a symptom of groupthink? a. rationalizing b. isolation c. group cohesion d. high decisional stress ANSWER: a 123. According to Janis's Model of Groupthink, which of these can lead to groupthink? a. brainstorming b. unbiased leadership c. isolation d. low decisional stress ANSWER: c 124. According to Qin et al. (2021), which cultures have strong and clearly communicated norms with severe sanctions for deviance? a. tight cultures b. loose cultures c. work teams d. multiteam systems ANSWER: a

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Chapter 13 - Essay 1. Define what leadership means. What is effective leadership?

ANSWER: Leadership involves a social process where someone exerts influence over others to structure their behaviors and relationships. Effective leadership is when an individual's leadership leads to successful long-term performance of the leader's followers.

2. Describe the difference between the leader behavior dimensions of initiating structure and consideration.

ANSWER: The dimension of initiating structure involves setting goals and organizing tasks, while consideration involves showing support for their team's well-being and needs.

3. Name the three early approaches to leadership research. Describe how the approaches differ from one another.

ANSWER: Trait theories focused on identifying what characteristics led to someone being a good leader. Behavior theories focused on behaviors of good leaders, which included initiating structure and consideration behaviors. Contingency theories focused on how behaviors and situations interacted and suggested that certain behaviors were more necessary or more effective in certain situations.

4. How has research on trait theories evolved over time?

ANSWER: Previous research on leadership traits suggested that characteristics such as intelligence and dominance could predict who would emerge as leaders in groups, although not necessarily effective ones. Recent research suggests that leadership emergence isn't just determined by traits; personality and social skills also play big roles. Effective leadership appears to result from a complex array of various traits, behaviors, and interpersonal dynamics within the group.

5. Using the Leader Behavior Description Questionnaire (LBDQ) as a guide, identify two behaviors that represent consideration and two behaviors that represent initiating structure.

ANSWER: Examples will vary. Possible initiating structure behaviors might include planning, scheduling, making decisions, or setting standards for performance. Possible consideration behaviors might include explaining decisions, treating people like equals, being friendly, or listening to others' input.

6. If one were testing Fiedler's (1967) contingency theory, what measure would one use to determine the degree to which situational favorability matches up with leader style? Briefly describe the measure and what it requires of the leader.

ANSWER: Situational favorability is assessed by whether the leader has good relationships with subordinates, if tasks are well defined, and if the leader has the power to make decisions. Leader style is assessed using the least preferred coworker scale, which assesses how negatively a leader assesses a single worst coworker. This measure has been criticized as lacking construct validity. Empirical results of this measure are mixed.

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Chapter 13 - Essay 7. Identify and describe the four kinds of leader behaviors mentioned in path–goal theory.

ANSWER: Directive leader behaviors provide structure by clarifying subordinates' performance goals and clarifying standards used to evaluate subordinates. Achievement-oriented leader behaviors stress personal accomplishments and encourage performance excellence. Supportive leader behaviors focus on interpersonal relations and provide psychological and emotional support for subordinates.

Participative leader behaviors encourage subordinates to take an active role through mentoring, guidance, and coaching.

8. Choose one contemporary theory of leadership, define the theory, and discuss one major research finding related to the theory.

ANSWER: Implicit leadership theory views leadership as an outcome of a perceptual process involving leaders and subordinates. Research supports the existence of prototypes and indicates that much of what people rate in leaders is based on their prototypes. Leaders are preferred when they match one's prototype, which can include the stereotype of leaders being White and male. Transformational leadership involves interactions between leaders and followers that raise both to higher levels of motivation and morality than they would achieve individually. Research shows this has a positive effect on many follower outcomes such as performance and satisfaction, though it can also make followers dependent on the leader. Authentic leadership is about leading through one's own genuine style that engenders trust among followers, and servant leadership is leading through personal integrity driven by a desire to serve other people. Research on these two topics is developing, but generally show that they have positive outcomes similar to transformational leadership.

9. "Good leaders should avoid transactional leadership and should focus on transformational leadership." Provide a critique of this statement based on recent research findings.

ANSWER: Research does not support this statement. Transformational leadership behaviors are helpful and lead to many positive outcomes. However, some transactional behaviors are necessary; leaders who engage in both transformational and transactional leadership tend to be more successful. What does not work well is for a leader to be only transactional.

10. Identify two of the "four I's" of transformational leadership and describe a behavior that might reflect each of them.

ANSWER: Idealized influence, inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, individualized consideration.

Examples will vary. An example behavior that reflects idealized influence might be behaving ethically when faced with a scandal. An example behavior that reflects inspirational motivation might be giving an exciting speech about the mission of the organization. An example behavior that reflects intellectual stimulation might be allowing followers to try new approaches to problems even if they don't always work well. An example behavior that reflects individualized consideration might be providing a tough assignment to a talented follower.

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Chapter 13 - Essay 11. Compare and contrast transformational leadership and servant leadership.

ANSWER: All theories have similarities. For example, all of them are focused on how leaders can inspire their followers. Servant leadership differs from transformational leadership in that transformational leadership has the potential for narcissism. Servant leadership, however, has a strong focus on humility, which precludes narcissism. Servant leadership is centered on serving, growing, and developing others.

12. What is the glass ceiling? What does research say about the presence of women in leadership roles on the glass ceiling?

ANSWER: This refers to a situation where qualified individuals are prevented from achieving all they can because of some form of discrimination. Research says that the mere presence of women in leadership won't break the glass ceiling, meanwhile performance and organizational context play an important role. If women are unsuccessful in leadership roles, it might create negative attributions for other women.

13. How can organizations take steps to create equitable leadership opportunities for people of all genders?

ANSWER: Organizations should focus efforts on combatting biases and acts of discrimination and should create equitable recruitment, development, and promotion strategies.

14. Describe two major findings from Eagly's research on gender and leadership.

ANSWER: Eagly has found that women are more participative and interpersonally oriented than men. Women also tend to lose authority or legitimate power when they use more "female" tactics (e.g., participation) in male-dominated roles. She also found that men and women are perceived as more effective in gender congruent roles. Additional research shows that the gender gap in leadership is not explained by differences in genders with respect to traits or ability. In fact, women are more likely to use transformational leadership behaviors, which have positive effects on performance.

15. Why is culture an issue in leadership research?

ANSWER: How individuals are rated as leaders depends very much on culture. People in different cultures have different prototypes, and thus may view a single leader very differently depending on their culture.

16. What is the Global Leadership and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness (GLOBE) research project? Describe what researchers want to demonstrate with this research project.

ANSWER: GLOBE is a research collective that spans 150 countries and is aimed at understanding leadership across different cultures. The goal is to identify what leadership characteristics or behaviors are universally effective, and how leadership intersects with culture, leadership ideals, and trust.

17. Describe the concept of the "dark triad" of personality traits. What behaviors do these individuals engage in?

ANSWER: The dark triad is composed of psychopathy, narcissism, and Machiavellianism. Leaders who are high in these traits tend to be self-promoting, emotionally cold, dishonest, and aggressive. These individuals engage in hard tactics such as punishing or manipulating others.

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Chapter 13 - Essay 18. What is emotional intelligence, and how does it relate to leadership effectiveness?

ANSWER: Emotional intelligence (EI) is the ability to identify and manage one's own emotions and to understand the emotions of others. Empathy plays a central role in leadership perceptions, as well as in both taskbased and relational behaviors. Research shows that leaders high in EI are more effective because they engage in more transformational leadership behaviors.

19. How does gender diversity in leadership contribute to organizational outcomes?

ANSWER: Women in leadership contribute to higher organizational performance and greater innovation.

20. What is implicit leadership theory, and why can it be problematic for assessing leadership behaviors?

ANSWER: Implicit leadership theory indicates that people have implicit theories about what a prototypical leader is like. When people evaluate a leader, they compare that person to their prototypical leader, and rate them well if they match that prototype. The problem with these ratings will be based on a global impression of how someone is as a leader, and this affects people's memories and perceptions of a leader instead of their actual behaviors. Ultimately, if people are not aware of these prototypes, they may assess a leader as doing a behavior they do not, in fact, do. This can also be problematic with respect to evaluating groups that are not prototypical leaders (people of color and/or women).

People's view of themselves as leaders can also affect their ratings.

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 1. What is a social process through which an individual intentionally exerts influence over others to structure their behaviors and relationships? a. requisition b. power c. leadership d. consideration ANSWER: c 2. If a leader is able to influence their work group to produce successful, long-term performance, that leader is: a. considerate. b. invitational. c. formal. d. effective.

ANSWER: d 3. If someone described Bonita as an effective leader, they would probably mean that she: a. has elicited successful performances from her team members. b. has a high degree of reward power. c. is disliked by her followers. d. forces her team members to do things they don't want to do.

ANSWER: a 4. An individual's potential influence over the attitudes and behaviors of others is referred to as: a. effectiveness. b. power. c. congeniality. d. aggression.

ANSWER: b 5. Sheila's company has promoted her to the position of senior vice president of accounting. Sheila possesses which base of power? a. expert b. referent c. coercive d. legitimate ANSWER: d

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 6. According to French and Raven (1958), which is NOT a base of power? a. coercive power b. authoritarian power c. reward power d. legitimate power ANSWER: b 7. Fernando is the human resources manager responsible for making all decisions about employee raises and promotions in his company. Fernando has which type of power? a. reward b. referent c. coercive d. authoritarian ANSWER: a 8. Harold is the only employee in his restaurant who knows the secret recipe for its famous prizewinning apple pie.

Harold has likely gained which type of power? a. referent b. legitimate c. reward d. expert ANSWER: d 9. Hazel gets her colleagues to obey her by yelling at them and threatening to fire them. Many of them have been written up for minor infractions, and most are afraid of her. In this case, we might argue that Hazel has: a. legitimate power. b. reward power. c. coercive power. d. referent power.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 10. Latrice is well liked and respected by her colleagues. Even though she is not a supervisor, her colleagues often do what she suggests because she is so admired. In this case, Latrice has which type of power? a. legitimate b. reward c. coercive d. referent ANSWER: d 11. Which leadership theory focuses on identifying the individual characteristics that make people good leaders? a. contemporary b. behavioral c. trait d. contingency ANSWER: c 12. In the 1950s, research on leadership was: a. mostly based on theory and previous research. b. largely based on commonsense notions of leadership and social interactions. c. focused on the situation in which leadership took place. d. focused on behaviors that leaders actually performed.

ANSWER: b 13. Which trait was NOT studied by early trait theorists? a. intelligence b. gender c. decision making d. need for power ANSWER: c 14. Research by Smith & Foti (1998) found self-efficacy and which of these other traits as related to the emergence of a leader? a. agreeableness b. emotional stability c. self-efficacy d. openness to experience ANSWER: c

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 15. Research by Smith & Foti (1998) found self-efficacy and which of these other traits as related to the emergence of a leader? a. agreeableness b. dominance c. emotional stability d. openness to experience ANSWER: b 16. After the 1950s, interest in leader traits took a new direction. Leadership researchers then turned their attention to: a. leader behaviors. b. leader–member exchanges. c. situational variables. d. implicit leadership.

ANSWER: a 17. The Iowa studies, led by Kurt Lewin, examined all of the leadership styles EXCEPT: a. laissez-faire. b. democratic. c. authoritarian. d. consideration.

ANSWER: d 18. Based on the Ohio State studies, the dimension of leadership behavior that relates to the extent to which leaders define their roles and their subordinates' roles in achieving group goals is the: a. initiating-structure behavior. b. consideration behavior. c. control behavior. d. contingency behavior.

ANSWER: a 19. What is an example of a leader behavior that would be characterized as consideration? a. planning ahead for future assignments b. emphasizing participative decision making c. assigning specific tasks to subordinates d. defining work procedures ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 20. Based on the Ohio State studies, the dimension of leadership behavior that relates to the extent to which leaders act in a supportive way and show respect for their subordinates is: a. initiating-structure behavior. b. consideration behavior. c. control behavior. d. contingency behavior.

ANSWER: b 21. According to the Leader Behavior Description Questionnaire (LBDQ), "Tries out their ideas in the group" and "Decides what shall be done and how it will be done" are statements that measure: a. leadership self-efficacy. b. behavioral flexibility. c. initiating structure. d. consideration.

ANSWER: c 22. According to the Leader Behavior Description Questionnaire (LBDQ), which behavioral phrase refers to a leader's consideration behavior? a. The leader lets group members know what is expected of them. b. The leader schedules the work to be done. c. The leader is willing to make changes. d. The leader encourages the use of uniform procedures.

ANSWER: c 23. Which statement summarizes general research findings on leader behaviors? a. Both initiating structure and consideration are important behaviors, but findings on how they affect performance have been inconsistent. b. Research shows that consideration is more important than initiating structure for leadership effectiveness. c. Research shows that initiating structure is more important than consideration for leadership effectiveness. d. Researchers have concluded that discussing leader behaviors is not particularly useful in applied settings.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 24. According to the Leader Behavior Description Questionnaire (LBDQ), which behavioral phrase measures a leader's initiating structure? a. The leader is friendly and approachable. b. The leader schedules the work to be done. c. The leader is willing to make changes. d. The leader treats each group member as their equal.

ANSWER: b 25. Joely is a leader who spends a great deal of time supporting and encouraging her employees. She tends to spend very little time, however, scheduling tasks and defining roles for them. Joely is: a. high on the initiating-structure dimension and high on the consideration dimension. b. low on the initiating-structure dimension and low on the consideration dimension. c. high on the initiating-structure dimension and low on the consideration dimension. d. low on the initiating-structure dimension and high on the consideration dimension.

ANSWER: d 26. Brandon is a leader who spends a great deal of time organizing tasks and schedules for his subordinates. He tends to spend very little time, however, supporting and encouraging them. Brandon is: a. high on the initiating-structure dimension and high on the consideration dimension. b. low on the initiating-structure dimension and low on the consideration dimension. c. high on the initiating-structure dimension and low on the consideration dimension. d. low on the initiating-structure dimension and high on the consideration dimension.

ANSWER: c 27. Lambert and colleagues (2012) found that in terms of most leadership outcomes, it was MOST effective for leaders to have: a. moderate levels of initiating structure and high levels of consideration. b. moderate levels of consideration and high levels of initiating structure. c. low levels of consideration and initiating structure. d. moderate levels of initiating structure and low levels of consideration.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 28. Rita is a leader who spends time organizing tasks for her subordinates, yet she also takes the time to support and encourage them. Rita is: a. high on the initiating-structure dimension and high on the consideration dimension. b. low on the initiating-structure dimension and low on the consideration dimension. c. high on the initiating-structure dimension and low on the consideration dimension. d. low on the initiating-structure dimension and high on the consideration dimension.

ANSWER: a 29. The leadership theories that formally consider situational or contextual variables are referred to as: a. behavior theories. b. trait theories. c. contemporary theories. d. contingency theories.

ANSWER: d 30. The first theory to consider how leader characteristics might interact with situational variables to determine leader effectiveness was which theory? a. House's path–goal b. Fiedler's contingency c. Bass's transformational leadership d. Stogdill's great man/great woman ANSWER: b 31. According to Fiedler, the extent to which a leader perceives they have control of a circumstance is known as: a. task structure. b. situational favorability. c. contextual structure. d. directive behaviors.

ANSWER: b 32. According to Fiedler, a favorable situation for leadership is defined by three dimensions that include: a. positive relationships with subordinates, subordinates' well-defined tasks, and the power of the leader to make important decisions. b. directive, need-oriented, and supportive behaviors. c. need for achievement, self-esteem, and task structure. d. subordinate satisfaction, effort, and performance.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 33. To determine leadership style, Fiedler used a scale where leaders described the worst colleague they have ever encountered. Which type of scale is this known as? a. least preferred coworker b. contingency c. implicit leadership d. leader–member exchange ANSWER: a 34. According to Fiedler, person-oriented leaders are BEST in situations of: a. very high control. b. moderate control. c. very low control. d. either very high or very low control.

ANSWER: b 35. According to Fiedler, it is BEST to have task-oriented leaders when a situation has which level of control? a. only very high b. moderate c. only very low d. either very high or very low ANSWER: d 36. Allen is completing a questionnaire that requires him to describe the single worst colleague he has ever encountered and to evaluate them on a range of bipolar adjectives (e.g., pleasant–unpleasant, friendly–unfriendly).

Allen is likely completing the: a. Leadership Opinion Questionnaire. b. Leader Behavior Description Questionnaire. c. leader–member exchange survey. d. least preferred coworker scale.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 37. According to House's (1971) path–goal theory, leader behaviors that involve mentoring, guidance, and coaching are known as: a. instrumental leader behaviors. b. developmental leader behaviors. c. participative leader behaviors. d. achievement-oriented leader behaviors.

ANSWER: c 38. According to House's (1971) path–goal theory, leader behaviors that stress subordinates' personal accomplishments and encourage performance excellence are known as: a. supportive leader behaviors. b. directive leader behaviors. c. participative leader behaviors. d. achievement-oriented leader behaviors.

ANSWER: d 39. According to House's (1971) path–goal theory, leader behaviors that clarify performance goals and evaluation standards are known as: a. directive leader behaviors. b. supportive leader behaviors. c. achievement-oriented leader behaviors. d. participative leader behaviors.

ANSWER: a 40. Which theory focuses on the reciprocal relationships between subordinates and leaders? a. path–goal b. leader–member exchange c. contingency d. transactional leadership ANSWER: b

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 41. According to leader–member exchange (LMX) theory, which is characteristic of in-group subordinates' relationships with their leaders? a. mutual trust b. unshared responsibility c. competition d. task-oriented treatment ANSWER: a 42. One of the main differences between leader–member exchange (LMX) theory and behavior-based theories is that LMX theory: a. suggests that leaders treat subordinates differently from one another. b. suggests that playing favorites can improve group performance. c. is not concerned with task-related behaviors. d. appears to be unrelated to any meaningful outcomes.

ANSWER: a 43. According to research on leader–member exchange (LMX) theory, which statement is false? a. Positive LMX relationships are related to favorable performance ratings. b. LMX relationship quality is significantly related to job satisfaction. c. LMX relationship quality is unrelated to turnover intentions. d. The quality of LMX relationships is positively related to organizational commitment.

ANSWER: c 44. Nishii and Mayer (2009) found that turnover was highest when the leader developed very strong LMX relationships: a. with only some of the team members. b. with all of the team members. c. in independent teams. d. after a stressful event.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 45. Dulebohn and colleagues (2012) conducted a meta-analysis that suggests that the MOST variance in LMX can be explained by: a. leader behaviors and perceptions. b. follower attitudes. c. team diversity variables. d. leader personality variables.

ANSWER: a 46. Research by Lord and colleagues (1984) on implicit leadership theory suggests that subordinates will rate a leader positively when the leader: a. is different from their prototype. b. matches their prototype. c. engages in effective behaviors. d. engages in ineffective behaviors.

ANSWER: b 47. Implicit leadership theory suggests that White leaders might emerge as leaders more often because: a. they match most people's prototype of a leader. b. they are generally more effective as leaders than other demographics. c. there are more of them in the workforce compared to other demographics. d. race is important for leadership effectiveness.

ANSWER: a 48. The theory that views leadership as the outcome of a perceptual process involving both leaders and subordinates is which theory? a. leader–member exchange b. path–goal c. transformational leadership d. implicit leadership ANSWER: d 49. According to implicit leadership theory, one's mental representation of a leader is known as a: a. role model. b. prototype. c. cognition. d. model.

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 50. Kyungmin believes that a leader is someone who is charismatic, encouraging, and forceful. In this case, one might call this concept of a leader a: a. role model. b. falsehood. c. prototype. d. prejudice.

ANSWER: c 51. According to implicit leadership theory (ILT), leadership effectiveness may be: a. more about subordinates' perceptions than about leaders' actions. b. based on leaders' traits and behaviors. c. increased when there is a discrepancy between subordinates' and leaders' ILTs. d. derived from high-quality relationships with subordinates.

ANSWER: a 52. Mila thinks her boss, Rohan, is a very effective leader. When Mila is asked whether Rohan is collegial and professional with his peers, she says yes, even though she's never actually observed Rohan around his peers. This issue is relevant to which theory of leadership? a. leader–member exchange theory b. transformational leadership theory c. path–goal theory d. implicit leadership theory ANSWER: d 53. Why might I/O researchers be particularly concerned about some of the findings related to implicit leadership theory (ILT)? a. This theory recommends that leaders engage in favoritism with their subordinates. b. This theory suggests that women are unlikely to be effective leaders. c. This theory indicates that subordinates' ratings of leaders may not reflect leaders' actual behaviors. d. This theory argues that truly effective leadership skills cannot be taught.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 54. Which is a common characteristic among the new leadership theories? a. They explain why so many businesses are struggling. b. They stress emotionally distant behaviors such as coercion. c. They encourage an increase in subordinates' self-esteem and satisfaction. d. They account for the leader's perceived situational control.

ANSWER: c 55. One common characteristic among the new leadership theories is that they: a. explain how leaders adapt their behaviors to new situations. b. emphasize organization and task completion. c. make use of cutting-edge technologies. d. encourage subordinates to identify with the leader's values.

ANSWER: d 56. Nikki is a manager who not only motivates her team to exceed its goals but also helps her subordinates see the value in their work beyond the paycheck. Nikki is engaged in what type of leadership? a. transformational b. transactional c. implicit d. contingent ANSWER: a 57. Tenoch is a leader who focuses on outlining clear expectations for their team. In a weekly e-mail, they inform their team of the rewards they will receive for meeting their expectations. Tenoch is engaged in: a. transformational leadership. b. transactional leadership. c. implicit leadership. d. authoritarian leadership.

ANSWER: b 58. Which is a component of transformational leadership? a. industrialized structuring b. idealized influence c. contingent reinforcement d. institutional consideration ANSWER: b

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 59. Akoni is a very charismatic leader. All of his subordinates want to emulate him. The facet of transformational leadership Akoni embodies is: a. idealized influence. b. intellectual stimulation. c. inspirational motivation. d. individualized consideration.

ANSWER: a 60. Lisbet encourages her subordinates to fight for a common cause. She also focuses on seeing the best in people and wants everyone to work for the greater good. In this case, the facet of transformational leadership she is demonstrating is: a. individualized consideration. b. idealized influence. c. inspirational motivation. d. intellectual stimulation.

ANSWER: c 61. One common characteristic among the new leadership theories is that they: a. suggest leaders are born, not made. b. emphasize organization and task completion. c. make use of cutting-edge technologies. d. explain how leaders can take organizations to new heights.

ANSWER: d 62. One common characteristic among the new leadership theories is that they: a. explain how leaders adapt their behaviors to new situations. b. emphasize transactional behaviors. c. make use of cutting-edge technologies. d. stress emotionally appealing behaviors such as empowering subordinates.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 63. Which type of leadership is a form of leadership where the interaction between leader and follower raises both to higher levels of motivation and morality than they would achieve individually? a. transformational b. transactional c. implicit d. prototypical ANSWER: a 64. Which type of leadership is a form of leadership where the relationship between leader and follower is based chiefly on exchanges, with a focus on contingent reinforcement? a. transformational b. transactional c. implicit d. prototypical ANSWER: b 65. The facet of transformational leadership where a leader arouses a strong desire among employees to emulate the leader is: a. individualized consideration. b. idealized influence. c. industrial motivation. d. intellectual stimulation.

ANSWER: b 66. The facet of transformational leadership where a leader focuses on the best in people and gives followers a reason to engage in shared goals is: a. individualized consideration. b. idealized influence. c. inspirational motivation. d. intellectual stimulation.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 67. The main difference between transformational leadership and authentic leadership is that: a. authentic demonstrates any relationship with follower performance. b. authentic necessarily includes a charismatic component. c. transformational demonstrates any relationship with follower performance. d. transformational necessarily includes a charismatic component.

ANSWER: b 68. A main difference between transformational leadership and servant leadership is that: a. servant leadership focuses on individual growth, whereas transformational leadership focuses on organizational growth. b. servant leadership focuses on organizational growth, whereas transformational leadership focuses on individual growth. c. servant leadership focuses primarily on subordinates, whereas transformational leadership focuses primarily on leaders. d. servant leadership focuses on organizational performance, whereas transformational leadership focuses on individual performance.

ANSWER: a 69. The facet of transformational leadership where a leader encourages followers to consider problems from a new perspective is: a. individualized consideration. b. idealized influence. c. inspirational motivation. d. intellectual stimulation.

ANSWER: d 70. The facet of transformational leadership where a leader treats followers as individuals by supporting and encouraging them is: a. individualized consideration. b. idealized influence. c. individualized motivation. d. intellectual stimulation.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 71. The process through which transformational leaders increase subordinates' ability to see problems from a new perspective is known as: a. contingent reinforcement. b. inspirational motivation. c. individualized consideration. d. intellectual stimulation.

ANSWER: d 72. Research suggests that transformational leadership is effective when it is combined with aspects of: a. implicit leadership. b. coercive power. c. transactional leadership. d. egocentrism.

ANSWER: c 73. Vina gives her subordinates challenging problems and encourages them to find creative solutions to them. The facet of transformational leadership she is showing is: a. inspirational motivation. b. idealized influence. c. individualized consideration. d. intellectual stimulation.

ANSWER: d 74. Alessandro is careful to give his subordinates tasks suited to their talents, goals, and abilities. In this case, the facet of transformational leadership he is showing is: a. idealized influence. b. inspirational motivation. c. individualized consideration. d. intellectual stimulation.

ANSWER: c 75. Two conflicting outcomes that can result from transformational leadership are: a. dependence on the leader and empowered self-direction. b. organizational commitment and turnover intentions. c. job satisfaction and leader dissatisfaction. d. motivation and actual turnover.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 76. Research by Li and colleagues (2013) found that transformational leadership had the greatest impact on teams when team members: a. initially feel highly connected with their team. b. are extremely high in conscientiousness. c. are extremely high in extraversion. d. initially feel low levels of cohesion within their team.

ANSWER: d 77. Which type of leadership is where one leads through their own genuine style that engenders trust in followers and builds relationships? a. thoughtful b. genuine c. charismatic d. authentic ANSWER: d 78. Which type of leadership is where one leads through personal integrity and is driven by a desire to assist other people? a. servant b. genuine c. charismatic d. obsequious ANSWER: a 79. One main difference between transformational leadership and servant leadership is that transformational leadership has the potential for: a. narcissism. b. positive organizational outcomes. c. employee development. d. high employee satisfaction.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 80. The glass ceiling is a phenomenon in which: a. people with low status in an organization have difficulty determining what they need to do to move up. b. leaders ensure they are being transparent in their decision making so that subordinates understand their reasoning. c. people who want to move up in the organization sometimes collide with people currently in the position who are not interested in moving up and out of that position. d. qualified individuals cannot move up in an organization because of discrimination.

ANSWER: d 81. According to Eagly's research on gender and leadership, women are: a. more participative than men. b. more task-oriented than men. c. less participative than men. d. less interpersonally oriented than men.

ANSWER: a 82. According to research on gender and leadership, which statement is true? a. Male leaders exhibit higher levels of transformational leadership behaviors than female leaders. b. Male leaders often are perceived as more effective than women because of the "masculine advantage." c. Men are perceived as more effective leaders overall than are women. d. Women emerge more often as leaders in communal situations.

ANSWER: d 83. The feminine advantage refers to the theory that women are more: a. effective leaders because they are more inclusive and nurturing. b. likely to emerge as leaders when they are found to be attractive. c. likely to emerge as leaders when they are seen as aggressive and dominant. d. likely to gain positions of leadership because hiring managers overcompensate for their stereotypical attitudes.

ANSWER: a 84. An ongoing study on culture and leadership is known as: a. Project Lead. b. the CULTR commission. c. the EARTH report. d. the GLOBE project.

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 85. Across all countries, research has found that the leadership traits that appear to be important are: a. those that match cultural expectations. b. transactional. c. extraversion and agreeableness. d. intelligence-related.

ANSWER: a 86. When compared to less transformational leaders, transformational leaders express more: a. positive emotions. b. emphasis on self-interest. c. negative emotions. d. negative moods.

ANSWER: a 87. The ability to assess and manage one's own emotions as well as understand the feelings of others is known as: a. perceptual capability. b. leader–emotion exchange. c. cognitive prototyping. d. emotional intelligence.

ANSWER: d 88. Research in South Korea suggests that leaders high in emotional intelligence are effective because they: a. are better at gaining power and influence through coercion. b. can train their followers to be more empathetic and relationship-oriented. c. engage in more transformational behaviors. d. demonstrate a better balance of task-oriented and relationship-oriented behaviors.

ANSWER: c 89. Research on the training of leaders on emotional and social skills: a. suggests that this training is successful. b. has not provided conclusive results. c. suggests that this training can actually worsen social skills. d. demonstrates that these skills can be taught, but they do not translate to improved leader performance.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 90. The dark triad is composed of: a. neuroticism, Machiavellianism, and narcissism. b. excitability, hostility, and aggression. c. psychopathy, narcissism, and Machiavellianism. d. aggression, sadness, and jealousy.

ANSWER: c 91. Research indicates that individuals who score high on the dark triad: a. take joy in other people's misfortunes. b. are noncompetitive. c. tend to be highly honest and ethical. d. have difficulty making decisions.

ANSWER: a 92. Compared to women, how do men score on the dark triad? a. higher b. lower c. equally d. similarly ANSWER: a 93. Arrogant leaders tend to have: a. high cognitive ability and high self-esteem. b. high cognitive ability and low self-esteem. c. low cognitive ability and low self-esteem. d. low cognitive ability and low self-esteem.

ANSWER: d 94. Arifa is reading a book that suggests that good leaders are born and will be good in every situation. The book then goes on to describe the characteristics of a good leader. Likely, Arifa's book relies on which theory of leadership? a. trait b. behavioral c. power d. contingency ANSWER: a

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 95. How does contemporary trait theory differ from older trait theories of leadership? a. It focuses more on the context than on leader characteristics. b. It focuses more on men rather than women. c. It focuses more on the Big Five theory of personality. d. It focuses more on all the factors that impact whether someone will emerge as a leader.

ANSWER: d 96. Osian is a leader who is very organized and great at coordinating and assigning work. However, many of his direct reports describe him as cold and unsupportive. According to the Ohio State studies, Osian is: a. high in initiating-structure behavior and low in consideration behavior. b. high in consideration and low in initiating-structure behavior. c. high in authoritarian behavior and low in laissez-faire behavior. d. high in laissez-faire behavior and low in authoritarian behavior.

ANSWER: a 97. Jax is a leader who is kind and supportive of his employees. However, many of his direct reports describe him as disorganized and not good about making sure employees are getting their work done. According to the Ohio State studies, what behavior is Jax high in? a. initiating-structure b. consideration c. authoritarian d. laissez-faire ANSWER: b 98. According to Fiedler, a favorable situation for leadership is defined by three dimensions that include positive relationships with subordinates, well-defined subordinates' tasks, and: a. power to make important decisions. b. an abundance of resources. c. high self-esteem. d. subordinate satisfaction.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 99. According to Fiedler, a favorable situation for leadership is defined by three dimensions that include positive relationships with subordinates, decision-making power, and: a. high subordinate performance. b. an abundance of resources. c. well-defined tasks for subordinates. d. subordinate satisfaction.

ANSWER: c 100. According to Fiedler, a favorable situation for leadership is defined by three dimensions that include decisionmaking power, well-defined tasks for subordinates, and: a. high levels of uncertainty. b. an abundance of resources. c. high self-esteem. d. positive relationships with subordinates.

ANSWER: d 101. According to research about cognitive resource theory, intelligence has: a. a positive effect on leadership success when leaders are under high stress and a negative effect when leaders are under low stress. b. a negative effect on leadership success when leaders are under high stress and a positive effect when leaders are under low stress. c. no effect on leadership success when leaders are under high stress and a moderately positive effect when leaders are under low stress. d. no effect on leadership success when leaders are under high stress and a negative effect when leaders are under low stress.

ANSWER: c 102. According to House's (1971) path–goal theory, leader behaviors that focus on interpersonal relations and provide emotional encouragement are known as: a. directive leader behaviors. b. supportive leader behaviors. c. achievement-oriented leader behaviors. d. participative leader behaviors.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 103. According to House's (1971) path–goal theory, participative leader behaviors: a. encourage subordinates to take an active role through mentoring and coaching. b. emphasize rewards and incentives to motivate subordinates. c. establish rules for subordinates. d. encourage leaders to participate in authoritarian roles.

ANSWER: a 104. Skylar has a weekly meeting with her subordinates to provide them with an outline of tasks they need to complete for the week and reminding them of their goals for the department. In this example, Skylar is engaging in which type of leader behaviors? a. directive b. supportive c. achievement-oriented d. participative ANSWER: a 105. Sienna emphasizes to her team the importance that they crush the competition this month. She also publicly praises her top-selling sales representatives. Which leader behavior is Sienna engaging in? a. directive b. supportive c. achievement-oriented d. participative ANSWER: c 106. Fletcher encourages his team members by listening to their concerns and giving them tips and ideas for how to solve their problems on their own.

Fletcher is engaging in: a. directive behavior. b. authoritarian behavior. c. achievement-oriented leader behaviors. d. participative leader behaviors.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 107. Roy tells his employees they can come to him to talk about anything. He knows a lot about his employees and asks them questions about things in their lives that are important to them. Roy is engaging in which leader behaviors? a. directive b. supportive c. achievement-oriented d. prohibitive ANSWER: b 108. What is the leading factor in CEO resignations and dismissals? a. pay b. ethical leadership behavior c. misconduct d. arrogant leadership ANSWER: c 109. Research from Van Quaquebeke and colleagues (2019) found that consumers are becoming concerned with the: a. ethics of organizations they purchase from. b. profits of the organizations they purchase from. c. hiring practices of the organizations they purchase from. d. tenure of leaders at the organizations they purchase from.

ANSWER: a 110. What is defined as principles that guide leader decision making, conduct, attitudes, and behaviors? a. profitability b. transparency c. moral judgements d. ethics ANSWER: d 111. Ethical leadership has been shown to influence: a. personal goals. b. personality traits. c. organizational performance but not employee performance. d. both organizational and employee performance.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 112. Research has demonstrated that employee perceptions of ethical leadership contribute to several factors. Which of these are NOT a factor? a. knowledge-sharing b. profits c. creativity d. in-role performance ANSWER: b

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Chapter 14 - Essay 1. Describe the four basic tenets of classical organizational theory.

ANSWER: Organizations exist for economic reasons and to accomplish productivity goals. Scientific analysis will identify the one best way to organize for production. Specialization and the division of labor maximize production. Both people and organizations act in accordance with rational economic principles.

2. What is Scientific Management? Describe its four principles.

ANSWER: This is an approach that treats the organization as a machine whose focus is to run more effectively.

Management gathers data from workers; these data are analyzed and reduced to laws and rules, which are applied to workers' jobs in the form of detailed procedures and how-to explanations.

Workers are selected carefully and trained to become efficient. The selection, data collection, and training are combined to enhance efficiency. Finally, work is redistributed, with management taking over tasks previously left to subordinates.

3. What are the main differences between a Theory X manager and a Theory Y manager?

ANSWER: They differ in how they view employees. Theory X manager assumes that employees are passive, selfcentered, gullible, unintelligent, resistant, and require directing or controlling. Theory Y manager assumes that employees are only passive due to poor treatment, and they have the potential and capacity for assuming responsibility and readiness to work. They also differ on the responsibilities of management. Theory X manager views management as being responsible for the economic well-being of the organization. Theory Y manager agrees with this but also views management as being responsible for arranging organizational conditions to help employees achieve their own goals.

4. Describe the self-fulfilling nature of Theory X managers. How do employees learn to act and believe in ways consistent with how Theory X managers think they act and believe?

ANSWER: The process begins with management holding negative assumptions about employees' intentions and capabilities. Acting on these assumptions, management imposes strict controls and treats employees disrespectfully. This poor treatment leads to negative reactions from the employees, who then can become disengaged and demotivated. The employees' performance deteriorates, aligning with the initial, inaccurate assumptions held by management, perpetuating the cycle.

5. What are the four major features of a bureaucratic organization? According to Katz and Kahn (1978), what are the two additional issues important to a bureaucracy?

ANSWER: The four features are specialized positions with their own set of responsibilities and duties; a top-down pyramid structure; a reliance on delegation of authority, where supervisors assign tasks to employees; and supervisors who each have a span of control over a certain number of subordinates. Katz and Kahn suggested that bureaucracies also include standardization of tasks (where one best way of getting the work done is identified) and centralized decision making (major decisions are made by a limited number of people centralized under one command).

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Chapter 14 - Essay 6. What is the open systems theory of organizations? Identify and describe examples of each of the three key elements.

ANSWER: The open systems theory suggests that organizations develop and change over time as the result of internal and external forces. The three key elements of open systems theory are inputs, throughputs, and outputs. Characteristics can include importation of energy (energy is brought in from the external environment for use by the system), throughput (the transformation of energy), and output (the service or product that is exported). The outputs lead back to inputs, creating a feedback cycle. Examples may vary, but inputs can include machinery, energy, human resources, and raw materials. Throughputs could include production processes, service processes, and training processes. Outputs include services, products, and knowledge.

7. What are four important characteristics shared by organizational development programs?

ANSWER: Involve the total organization. Be supported (and initiated) by top management. Entail a diagnosis of the organization, as well as an implementation plan. Involve a long-term (as opposed to short-term) process. Focus on changing attitudes, behaviors, and performance of groups/teams. Emphasize the importance of goals, objectives, and planning.

8. Describe gainsharing and how it is related to performance.

ANSWER: Gainsharing is an OD intervention where employees receive bonuses based on productivity improvements. With an emphasis fairness, gainsharing distributes gains equally between employers and employees, enhancing commitment and trust. Gainsharing also includes components such as suggestion systems, team evaluations, and review boards. Research shows gainsharing outperforms individual pay systems due to better cooperation and idea generation.

9. What are the three major phases in Lewin's change model? Describe what happens at each phase.

ANSWER: The first is unfreezing, where the forces maintaining the status quo are broken down and the system is opened for change. Next is moving, where organizational change happens in the form of new attitudes, values, and behaviors. Finally, refreezing is where changes that were implemented become stabilized, and the organization reaches a new level of equilibrium.

10. How is the action research model of change an extension of Lewin's previous work?

ANSWER: It provides information about when change is needed, and it helps to guide organizational change and action. It does this through identifying problems, gathering data and diagnosing the problem, planning an intervention, and executing that intervention.

11. What are the three criteria for an effective organizational development intervention?

ANSWER: It fits the needs of the organization, it's based on causal knowledge of intended outcomes, and it transfers change-management competence to organization members.

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Chapter 14 - Essay 12. What were the eight types of organizational development interventions discussed in the textbook? Briefly describe two of them.

ANSWER: Survey feedback, which involves the systematic collection of data via surveys. Team building, where work groups learn to more effectively work together and perform. Agile Development, which has to do with focusing on individual interactions on multidisciplinary teams and emphasizing continuous communication and attention to meeting client needs. Total quality management, where employees become involved in controlling the quality of products or services. Gainsharing, where employees receive a bonus based on productivity improvements. Technostructural interventions, where the structure of an organization is changed to address a need or needs of the organization. Positive organizational development, where focus is increased on leveraging the strengths of individuals and institutions. Organizational transformation, where an organization develops a new vision, changing its beliefs, purpose, and mission.

13. Describe the five steps involved in survey feedback.

ANSWER: First, top management supports and actively participates in the survey process. Next, an anonymous survey is administered to organization members, tapping their attitudes and perceptions. Survey results are compiled by department, plant, or demographic segments. The consultant provides feedback to the organization in a summary. Finally, managers, task forces, or other employees meet with the consultant to identify potential changes for implementation.

14. Identify six objectives of team-building interventions.

ANSWER: Clarify role expectations and responsibilities among team members. Improve supervisor–subordinate relations. Improve problem solving, decision making, and planning by team members. Reduce conflict among team members. Develop a vision, mission, or set of goals. Build cohesion and unity within the team.

15. What are the stages involved in implementing a total quality management (TQM) intervention?

ANSWER: First, one must get support of top management. Next, employees are trained in quality methods, such as statistical process control. Third, the employees identify deviations from standards. Fourth, the group compares its effectiveness to a benchmark. Finally, rewards are linked to the accomplishment of the TQM intervention's goals.

16. What are the common components of a gainsharing program? What are the two factors at the heart of gainsharing?

ANSWER: They often involve a suggestion system, department teams, review boards, and bonus pools. The two key factors are participation and justice.

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Chapter 14 - Essay 17. What were the four technostructural interventions discussed in the book? Compare and contrast these interventions.

ANSWER: First is functional design, where the organization is structured by the functions of the employees.

Second is the product-based design, where employees are structured based on the product they work on. Third is the matrix structure, which combines the functional and product designs. Finally, there is reengineering (i.e., business process redesign), which involves a fundamental rethinking of the business process to improve performance.

18. What is appreciative inquiry? What field of psychology is this area based on?

ANSWER: Appreciative inquiry is based on positive psychology, and it focuses on asking questions to discover strengths and successes (in organizations and in people). It emphasizes building strengths rather than fixing problems.

19. What is a culture change, and why might this be helpful to an organization?

ANSWER: Culture change is where the pattern of beliefs, values, norms, and expectations shared by organizational members are changed. Some cultures are very strong and cannot be changed. Some cultures can be detrimental, leading companies to make poor decisions. One example is the banking industry, which had a culture of taking risks that led to serious negative consequences for companies and their customers.

20. What is knowledge management? What organizations might need knowledge management, and how can it help the business?

ANSWER: Knowledge management is a method where an organization enhances its operations through attempts to develop, disseminate, and use knowledge. This is most useful in organizations where there is a lot of change and innovation. Having a good knowledge management system can help employees to learn new content quickly, and it allows the organization to quickly adapt in response to a change in customers or technology.

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 1. Organizational theory is a set of propositions that explains or predicts: a. which organizations are apt to make the most money. b. how hierarchical structure predicts dysfunction in an organization. c. how groups and individuals behave in different organizational structures. d. how humans tend to naturally arrange themselves into groups.

ANSWER: c 2. One of the tenets of classical organizational theory is that: a. scientific analysis will identify the one best way to organize for production. b. organizations exist for humanitarian reasons. c. employee empowerment maximizes productivity. d. economic principles are irrational.

ANSWER: a 3. One of the tenets of classical organizational theory is that: a. scientific analysis will identify several effective ways to accomplish productivity goals. b. organizations exist to accomplish productivity goals. c. employee satisfaction maximizes the bottom line. d. economic principles are irrelevant to organizations.

ANSWER: b 4. One of the tenets of classical organizational theory is that: a. empiricism has no bearing on how organizations work. b. organizations exist to ensure that humans feel fulfilled and part of something larger. c. employees can determine the best approach to work on their own. d. people and organizations can be guided by rational economic principles.

ANSWER: d 5. One of the tenets of classical organizational theory is that: a. specialization and the division of labor maximize production. b. organizations exist to ensure that humans feel fulfilled and part of something larger. c. employees can determine the best approach to work on their own. d. requiring all workers to cross-train will maximize production.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 6. Who developed the school of thought known as Scientific Management? a. Max Weber b. Douglas McGregor c. Frederick Taylor d. Michael Hitt ANSWER: c 7. Taylor's theory of Scientific Management compared organizations to a: a. web. b. terrarium. c. football team. d. machine.

ANSWER: d 8. Scientific Management might examine variables such as: a. light and temperature. b. friendship and support. c. leadership and motivation. d. reaction times and cognition.

ANSWER: a 9. Taylorism suggests that: a. anyone can complete a job if it is broken down into simple tasks. b. there is one best way to get a job done. c. any job can be satisfying with good leadership. d. small teams are more efficient than large teams.

ANSWER: b 10. Which school of thought was based on the notion that there is one BEST way to get the job done? a. Theory X b. Lewin's Change Model c. open-system theory d. Scientific Management ANSWER: d

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 11. What is the first step of the Scientific Management process? a. gathering data from workers b. combining data collection and training to create efficiency c. selecting and training workers d. redistributing work ANSWER: a 12. What is the final step of the Scientific Management process? a. gathering data from workers b. combining data collection and training to create efficiency c. selecting and training workers d. redistributing work ANSWER: d 13. In one example of Scientific Management, Taylor helped improve coal workers' yield by: a. creating a weightlifting program to make coal workers stronger. b. creating a leadership training program to help managers better lead their employees. c. designing a shovel that held the optimum amount of coal for shoveling efficiency. d. designing a teamwork program that helped employees communicate better.

ANSWER: c 14. Which theory suggests that there are many ways to reach the same end result? a. Theory Y b. Theory X c. Scientific Management d. open-systems theory ANSWER: d 15. The four features of a bureaucratic organization are top-down pyramid hierarchy, span of control, delegation of authority, and: a. gainsharing. b. appreciative inquiry. c. knowledge management. d. division of labor.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 16. Who studied organizations and developed the idea of bureaucracy in organizations? a. Max Weber b. Frederick Taylor c. Douglas McGregor d. Daniel Katz and Robert Kahn ANSWER: a 17. Which of these do bureaucratic organizations engage in to avoid asking people to perform tasks requiring skills they do not have? a. centralized decision making b. divisions of labor c. spans of control d. negative entropy ANSWER: b 18. Bureaucracies aim to find just the right number of subordinates who report to a given supervisor. This is known as: a. standardization of teams. b. division of labor. c. centralized decision making. d. span of control.

ANSWER: d 19. The four features of a bureaucratic organization are division of labor, top-down pyramid hierarchy, delegation of authority, and: a. gainsharing. b. appreciative inquiry. c. span of control. d. knowledge management.

ANSWER: c 20. One feature of a bureaucratic organization is: a. culture change. b. delegation of authority. c. reengineering. d. sensemaking.

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 21. One feature of a bureaucratic organization is: a. sensemaking. b. appreciative inquiry. c. knowledge management. d. top-down pyramid hierarchy.

ANSWER: d 22. Bhargav is a supervisor who tries to take charge of everything rather than delegating work to his subordinates and holding them responsible for their work. Bhargav is MOST likely a(n): a. change agent. b. interventionist. c. micromanager. d. sensemaker.

ANSWER: c 23. Katz and Kahn (1978) introduced two additional issues into Weberian bureaucracy: standardization of tasks and: a. division of labor. b. appreciative inquiry. c. span of control. d. centralized decision making.

ANSWER: d 24. What is one critique that modern theorists have regarding Scientific Management and bureaucracies? a. They lack a clear structure and often lead to disorganization. b. They are ineffective for organizations operating in rapidly changing environments. c. Structuring the work this way can lead to high variety and can be too challenging for employees. d. It lacks a clear hierarchy, so employees may struggle with role clarity.

ANSWER: b 25. Katz and Kahn (1978) introduced two additional issues into Weberian bureaucracy: centralized decision making and: a. delegation of authority. b. negative entropy. c. span of control. d. standardization of tasks.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 26. Which theory introduced employees' motives, goals, and aspirations, as well as the supervisor–subordinate relationship, into the study of organizations? a. humanistic b. Scientific Management c. total quality management d. open-system ANSWER: a 27. Who developed Theory X and Theory Y? a. Frederick Taylor b. Max Weber c. Douglas McGregor d. W. Edwards Deming ANSWER: c 28. The theory that assumes that the average employee is gullible, not very bright, self-centered, and lacks ambition is: a. open-system theory. b. bureaucratic theory. c. Theory X. d. Theory Y. ANSWER: c 29. The theory that assumes that the average employee is passive because of past experiences in workplaces and has the capacity to be motivated if they are developed by the management is: a. open-system theory. b. bureaucratic theory. c. Theory X. d. Theory Y. ANSWER: d

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 30. Douglas McGregor suggested that Theory X was a self-fulfilling prophecy. This means that: a. employees who are treated as though they are selfish and lazy will begin to conform to this expectation. b. an effective manager should be able to anticipate how employees will react to a change in organizational policy. c. employees will be motivated by harsh treatment from a boss. d. managers should not concern themselves with the economic well-being of the organization, because they cannot influence outcomes such as revenue.

ANSWER: a 31. Sylvain believes his employees are lazy, and in order to get them to work, he has to supervise them closely and control their behaviors. The theory that describes Sylvain's management style is: a. Theory X. b. Theory Y. c. Theory Z. d. Scientific Management.

ANSWER: a 32. Haruki believes that his employees have a strong capacity for assuming responsibility for their work. Haruki subscribes to: a. Theory X. b. Theory Y. c. negative entropy. d. equifinality.

ANSWER: b 33. Basheer believes that his employees can be effective if he finds ways to give them responsibility and help them work toward goals. Basheer's approach to management is described by: a. Scientific Management. b. Theory X. c. Theory Y. d. bureaucratic theory.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 34. Which assumption would be held by an organization that subscribes to a Theory Y orientation? a. The average employee is indifferent to organizational needs. b. Employees have become passive and resistant as a result of their experience within organizations. c. The average employee dislikes responsibility. d. Management of employees requires modifying their behavior to fit the needs of the organization.

ANSWER: b 35. Which researchers are credited with the development of open-system theory? a. Frederick Taylor and Kurt Lewin b. Douglas McGregor and Kevin Ford c. Daniel Katz and Robert Kahn d. Kurt Lewin and Mary Parker Follett ANSWER: c 36. The open-system theory cycle includes these three components: a. Theory X, Theory Y, and Theory Z. b. inputs, throughputs, and outputs. c. change agents, clients, and resistance. d. unfreezing, moving, and refreezing.

ANSWER: b 37. Which open-system principle refers to an organization's avoidance of movement toward death by continuing to import energy from outside its system? a. differentiation b. equifinality c. negative entropy d. steady state ANSWER: c 38. Katz and Kahn's (1978) open-system theory is based on which discipline's principles? a. biology b. philosophy c. physics d. economics ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 39. According to open-system theory, what is the ability of a system to reach the same end state in different ways? a. differentiation b. equifinality c. negative entropy d. positive entropy ANSWER: b 40. Open systems that are characterized by a balance in energy exchange are known as: a. equifinality. b. differentiated. c. steady state. d. entropic.

ANSWER: c 41. When open systems move toward more specialized functions, this is known as: a. steady state. b. entropy. c. differentiation. d. equifinality.

ANSWER: c 42. Which is an important characteristic shared by organizational development (OD) programs? a. top management support b. short-term processes c. limited involvement d. centralized decision making ANSWER: a 43. Which is an important characteristic shared by organizational development (OD) programs? a. They focus on changing attitudes, behaviors, or performance of teams. b. They involve a short-term process. c. They involve only the CEO. d. They focus on the importance of having a strong hierarchy.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 44. As a result of the technological revolution, in order to thrive, organizations must: a. employ a larger number of employees. b. hire a more specialized and less diverse workforce. c. be more strategically flexible. d. adhere to business plans that have worked in the past.

ANSWER: c 45. Tanaya, who owns a baby clothing store, has noticed that her customers are requesting products that are environmentally friendly. She initiates a new program in which she rewards employees for identifying promising new products they should carry in the store. In this case, the change agent is: a. Tanaya. b. Tanaya's employees. c. the reward program Tanaya has designed. d. future customers of the store.

ANSWER: a 46. The individual who initiates a change process is the: a. client. b. change agent. c. intervention. d. knowledge change manager.

ANSWER: b 47. The recipient of an organizational change effort is the: a. client. b. change agent. c. intervention agent. d. knowledge manager.

ANSWER: a 48. The program or initiative that is suggested or implemented is the: a. client. b. change agent. c. intervention. d. appreciative inquiry.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 49. Sometimes, clients will create obstacles aimed at preventing a transformation. This is known as: a. negative entropy. b. resistance to change. c. equifinality. d. differentiation.

ANSWER: b 50. Nagiba, who owns an art supply store, has noticed that her customers are requesting products that are environmentally friendly. She initiates a new program in which she rewards employees for identifying promising new products they should carry in the store. In this case, the client is: a. Nagiba. b. Nagiba's employees. c. the reward program for employees Nagiba has designed. d. future customers of the store.

ANSWER: b 51. Zee, owner of a car repair shop, noticed that certain customers were often dissatisfied with the shop's service because they felt the car mechanics didn't clearly explain what the problem was with their cars. As a result, Zee now provides the mechanics with a checklist they must go through when they talk with clients. They use the completed checklists to help evaluate mechanic performance. In this case, the intervention is: a. Zee. b. the car mechanics. c. the checklist procedure Zee designed. d. Zee's customers.

ANSWER: c 52. Who characterized change as a matter of modifying those forces that are acting to keep things stable? a. Kurt Lewin b. Jerry Porras c. Douglas McGregor d. W. Edwards Deming ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 53. According to Lewin's change model, the first step in the change process is: a. changing. b. unfreezing. c. moving. d. refreezing.

ANSWER: b 54. According to Lewin's change model, the final step in the change process is: a. moving. b. unfreezing. c. changing. d. refreezing.

ANSWER: d 55. Lailani is a manager in a restaurant. She believes the restaurant culture has led employees to treat customers disdainfully. In order to change that culture, she informs them that since poor customer service does not support their goal of selling food, she will henceforth only be rewarding behaviors that demonstrate good customer service. According to Lewin's change model, Lailani is implementing which step? a. refreezing b. changing c. unfreezing d. moving ANSWER: c 56. Aiguo manages a home decor store. Last year, he noticed that his employees were treating customers disdainfully.

He subsequently fired the employees who demonstrated poor customer service and promoted those who provided good service. Now, good customer service is something that employees do naturally and automatically.

According to Lewin's change model, Aiguo's store is at what step? a. refreezing b. moving c. changing d. unfreezing ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 57. According to Lewin's change model, the step in the change process when real organizational change begins to happen is referred to as: a. unfreezing. b. changing. c. moving. d. refreezing.

ANSWER: c 58. Daya is a manager in a bar and believes the bar culture has led employees to treat customers disdainfully. Daya often tells the servers that from now on, they are expected to greet customers immediately and get them a drink even if they are seated in someone else's section. Employees are starting to do this. They sometimes forget, but many of them are finding that this change has an effect on customer satisfaction and the tip amount. According to Lewin's change model, Daya's servers are at what step? a. refreezing b. changing c. unfreezing d. moving ANSWER: d 59. Which is an element of organizational change? a. change agents b. sensemaking c. positive training climates d. bona fide occupational qualifications ANSWER: a 60. One sign that an organizational development (OD) intervention has succeeded is when: a. the OD consultant becomes more expendable. b. employees meet with the OD consultant to identify potential changes. c. employees decide on the one best way to achieve performance goals. d. managers wait for the OD consultant to drive change activities.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 61. Which is the last step in survey feedback? a. administering an anonymous survey to top management b. administering an anonymous survey to the target department c. hosting a meeting at which employees and managers identify potential changes d. requesting that top management support and actively participate in the survey process ANSWER: c 62. Which is the first step in survey feedback? a. administering an anonymous survey to top management b. administering an anonymous survey to the target department c. hosting a meeting at which employees and managers identify potential changes d. requesting that top management support and actively participate in the survey process ANSWER: d 63. Which would be a goal of team building? a. improving supervisor–subordinate relations b. eliminating team member responsibilities c. hearing the company mission from the CEO d. involving employees in making quality improvements within the organization ANSWER: a 64. To improve the team performance of the employees in company, the employer is planning to implement team building. According to research by Klein and colleagues (2009), to increase the impact of team building on team performance, the employer should: a. combine the team building with another organizational development (OD) intervention. b. measure performance based on individual contributions. c. give the Baldrige Award to a team member. d. discourage team members from engaging in sensemaking during the team building.

ANSWER: a 65. The organizational development intervention that involves increasing employee involvement in production processes is known as: a. team building. b. total quality management. c. gainsharing. d. technostructural interventions.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 66. The second step of total quality management focuses on identifying problems that reflect a low-quality product or service. This step is: a. output variation control. b. experiential training. c. self-comparison analysis. d. statistical process control.

ANSWER: d 67. According to research on total quality management (TQM) by Boon et al. (2007), a study of semiconductor plants in Malaysia found that implementing TQM practices increased employees': a. quantity and quality of output. b. empowerment and job involvement. c. knowledge of the organization. d. mistakes on the manufacturing line.

ANSWER: b 68. In the third stage of the total management quality (TQM) process, employees identify areas in which their department deviates from quality standards. These deviations are known as: a. statistical process controls. b. change agents. c. output variations. d. flow anomalies.

ANSWER: c 69. A criticism of total quality management (TQM) is that it: a. overlooks the consequences of change because of its rational and technical approach. b. fails to properly operationalize success. c. is too complex to implement in most organizations. d. fails to determine whether it is effective in comparison to competitors.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 70. In the fourth and final stage of the total management quality (TQM) process, the organization compares its effectiveness to: a. their performance levels prior to the intervention. b. competitors who have a very high level of performance. c. competitors who have a very low level of performance. d. their projected performance in the next 12 months.

ANSWER: b 71. A criticism of total quality management (TQM) is that it: a. overlooks the social and political conditions in the organization. b. fails to properly operationalize success. c. is too complex to implement in most organizations. d. fails to determine whether it is effective in comparison to competitors.

ANSWER: a 72. The organizational development (OD) intervention that involves paying employees a bonus based on improvements in productivity is known as: a. technostructural intervention. b. gainsharing. c. total quality management. d. reengineering.

ANSWER: b 73. Which is a common component of MOST gainsharing plans? a. hierarchical structure b. bonus pool c. systematic data collection d. on-the-job training ANSWER: b 74. Which principle is key to the success of a gainsharing program? a. perceptions of transformational leadership b. perceptions of justice and fairness c. aspects of Maslow's hierarchy d. aspects of BARS and performance appraisal ANSWER: b

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 75. The basic organizational structural design is referred to as which type of organizational design? a. functional b. productive c. a matrix d. simple ANSWER: a 76. A functional organization is structured by: a. the various functions of employees. b. what organizations produce. c. what employees do and what employees produce. d. the stakeholders the employees serve.

ANSWER: a 77. Matrix organizational designs combine which types of organizational designs? a. product-based and functional b. product-based and open c. functional and open d. functional and bureaucratic ANSWER: a 78. Akimitsu works at a company that manufactures cars. He works under the vice president of manufacturing, while one of his best friends works under the vice president of finance. Akimitsu works in a company that uses: a. product-based organizational design. b. humanistic organizational design. c. open organizational design. d. functional organizational design.

ANSWER: d 79. Kannika works in a company that designs and manufactures cars. She works under the vice president of the engine division. Kannika works in a company that uses which type of organizational design? a. product-based b. bureaucratic c. open d. functional ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 80. Ryu works at a company that designs makeup products. He works in the mascara marketing division. This means that he works under a vice president of marketing, and he also works under a manager who coordinates everything about the mascara the company produces (including the manufacture, marketing, and development of the product). Ryu works in a company that uses which type of organizational design? a. product-based b. matrix c. open d. functional ANSWER: b 81. Which structures help encourage communication and cooperation? a. functional b. dramatic c. matrix d. product ANSWER: c 82. The organizational design that encourages communication and cooperation between managers, and that maintains consistency among product lines and departments, is referred to as a(n): a. product design. b. matrix organization. c. open design. d. functional organization.

ANSWER: b 83. Which element of reengineering involves an examination of what the company does and why? a. radical b. dramatic c. fundamental d. processes ANSWER: c

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 84. Which element of reengineering involves a focus on making striking performance improvements rather than only slight performance improvements? a. radical b. dramatic c. fundamental d. game-changing ANSWER: b 85. Which element of reengineering involves a focus on making far-reaching organizational changes rather than superficial change? a. radical b. dramatic c. differentiation d. fundamental ANSWER: a 86. Which is an element of reengineering? a. the elemental element b. the dramatic element c. the conservative element d. the sensemaking element ANSWER: b 87. The organizational development technique that involves focusing on positive messages, the best of what employees have to offer, and the affirmation of past and present strengths and successes is: a. survey feedback. b. gainsharing. c. team building. d. appreciative inquiry.

ANSWER: d 88. The study of the strengths and virtues of individuals and institutions is known as: a. pop psychology. b. positive psychology. c. advantage assessment. d. appreciative assessment.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 89. The first step in appreciative inquiry, where the organization uses questioning to determine the strengths of the organization and its people, is the: a. design. b. destiny. c. discovery. d. dream.

ANSWER: c 90. The second step in appreciative inquiry, where information is used to arrive at a vision statement, is the: a. design. b. destiny. c. discovery. d. dream.

ANSWER: d 91. The third step in appreciative inquiry, where the organization creates innovative ways to identify where the organization should be going, is the: a. design. b. destiny. c. discovery. d. dream.

ANSWER: a 92. Creating a new vision for an organization is the focus of the organizational development intervention referred to as: a. appreciative inquiry. b. transformation. c. positive psychology. d. positive entropy.

ANSWER: b 93. An unintended consequence of culture change resulting from organizational transformation is: a. cultural erosion. b. behavioral ambiguity. c. paradigm alignment. d. culture reactance.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 94. Which is a determinant of successful culture change? a. a lack of a new strategy b. support of top management c. a lack of supportive systems d. the assigning of a chief knowledge officer ANSWER: b 95. Which is an approach to organizational transformation? a. reengineering b. knowledge management c. pop psychology d. information technology ANSWER: b 96. Which is a characteristic of learning organizations? a. gainsharing b. transactional leadership c. HR system that rewards continuous education d. appreciative inquiry ANSWER: c 97. What is an approach where each job in a bureaucratic organization is a specialized position with its own responsibilities and duties? a. centralized decision making b. Scientific Management c. span of control d. division of labor ANSWER: d 98. What is a supervisor who, instead of delegating tasks to employees, tries to take charge of all tasks. a. interventionist b. micromanager c. change agent d. sensemaker ANSWER: b

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 99. When Faiza has a good idea about a better way to buy materials for her organization, she doesn't go straight to the CEO; instead, she shares this idea with her boss, who can then move the idea up the chain to the correct policy maker. This approach is known as: a. division of labor. b. appreciative inquiry. c. span of control. d. centralized decision making.

ANSWER: d 100. At UniCorp Inc., employees asking for vacation time have to complete a formal request form, and supervisors have a consistent method to make decisions about who gets vacation and when. This is known as: a. division of labor. b. task standardization. c. span of control. d. centralized decision making.

ANSWER: b 101. Which assumption would be held by an organization that subscribes to a Theory Y orientation? a. The main job of management is to arrange organizational conditions so employees can develop goals and direct their own behaviors. b. The average employee is not very bright. c. The average employee dislikes responsibility. d. Management of employees requires modifying their behavior to fit the needs of the organization.

ANSWER: a 102. Which assumption would be held by an organization that subscribes to a Theory Y orientation? a. The average employee is indifferent to organizational needs. b. The average employee is not very bright. c. The average employee dislikes responsibility. d. Management is responsible for the economic well-being of an organization.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 103. Which assumption would be held by an organization that subscribes to a Theory X orientation? a. Management is not responsible for the economic well-being of an organization. b. Management requires controlling employee behavior to fit the needs of the organization. c. Motivation is inherent in all employees. d. The main job of management is to arrange organizational conditions so employees can achieve goals by directing their own behavior.

ANSWER: b 104. Which assumption would be held by an organization that subscribes to a Theory X orientation? a. Management is not responsible for the economic well-being of an organization. b. Employees have become passive as a result of their experience in organizations. c. Employees are generally lazy and dislike responsibility. d. The main job of management is to arrange organizational conditions so employees can achieve goals by directing their own behavior.

ANSWER: c 105. Which assumption would be held by an organization that subscribes to a Theory X orientation? a. The average employee is self-centered and resistant to change. b. Employees have become passive as a result of their experience in organizations. c. Motivation is inherent in all employees. d. The main job of management is to arrange organizational conditions so employees can achieve goals by directing their own behavior.

ANSWER: a 106. According to Katz and Kahn's (1978) open-system theory, which is an input? a. raw materials b. training processes c. products d. services ANSWER: a 107. According to Katz and Kahn's (1978) open-system theory, which of these is an input? a. production processes b. training processes c. human resources d. services ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 108. According to Katz and Kahn's (1978) open-system theory, which of these is an input? a. service processes b. training processes c. products d. machinery ANSWER: d 109. According to Katz and Kahn's (1978) open-system theory, which is a throughput? a. raw materials b. training processes c. products d. services ANSWER: b 110. According to Katz and Kahn's (1978) open-system theory, which is a throughput? a. production processes b. knowledge c. human resources d. services ANSWER: a 111. According to Katz and Kahn's (1978) open-system theory, which is a throughput? a. raw materials b. machinery c. products d. service processes ANSWER: d 112. According to Katz and Kahn's (1978) open-system theory, which is an output? a. raw materials b. training processes c. products d. service processes ANSWER: c

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 113. According to Katz and Kahn's (1978) open-system theory, which is an output? a. raw materials b. training processes c. production processes d. services ANSWER: d 114. According to Katz and Kahn's (1978) open-system theory, which is an output? a. energy b. training processes c. knowledge d. service processes ANSWER: c 115. A work team spends a one-day retreat where they go out to a ropes course and have to encourage and support their team members navigating the tricky and scary course. This would be an example of: a. nature capability assessment. b. outdoor experiential training. c. aerial agility competency. d. recreational rehabilitation.

ANSWER: b 116. One very new approach to organizational development focuses on individuals and interactions instead of processes and tools and prioritizes change over an adherence to a plan. This approach is known as: a. gainsharing. b. outdoor experiential training. c. total quality development. d. Agile Development.

ANSWER: d 117. An approach where each job in a bureaucratic organization is a specialized position with its own set of responsibilities and duties is known as: a. standardization of teams. b. division of labor. c. delegation of authority. d. span of control.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 118. Which method goes beyond an organizational chart to help visualize informal relationships between employees to prevent communication from occurring in silos? a. matrix b. division of labor c. organizational network analysis d. span of control ANSWER: c

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