Test Bank For Fundamentals of Pharmacology for Veterinary Technicians 3rd Edition By Janet Amundson

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01 A Brief History of Veterinary Pharmacology 1. Which animal population had the first outbreak of disease creating the field of veterinary pharmacology? a. Elephants b. Cattle c. Dogs d. Birds ANSWER: b 2. Before it was veterinary pharmacology what was it called? a. Pharmakeutikos b. Epizootics c. Genomia d. Materia medica ANSWER: d 3. What term is used for the physiological movement of drugs? a. Pharmacokinetics b. Pharmacotherapeutics c. Pharmacodynamics d. Pharmacotherapy ANSWER: a 4. What term is used for investigating how a sick animal responds to drugs? a. Pharmacogenetics b. Pharmacotherapeutics c. Pharmacogenomics d. Pharmacotherapy ANSWER: b 5. _______ is the term used for the study of the impact of genetic variation on drug effects. a. Pharmacogenetics b. Pharmacotherapeutics c. Pharmacodynamics d. Pharmacogenomics ANSWER: d 6. Which of the following is not covered under FDA regulations? a. Biologics b. Food additives c. Pesticides d. Cosmetics ANSWER: a

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01 A Brief History of Veterinary Pharmacology 7. Which of the following statements is true? a. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) became a government agency to enforce the federal Pure Food and Drugs Act of 1938. b. The FDA’s CVM prohibits the sale and use of a drug that would cause animals to suffer serious health problems, unless it will relieve a different more serious condition. c. FDA approval of a particular drug is based on the drug’s therapeutic effects and adverse effects in many test animals. d. It is important to note that FDA regulations do cover certain medically significant compounds known as therapeutic agents derived from living organisms, such as vaccines, antibodies, and toxoids.

ANSWER: c 8. Which drugs may be purchased by a client without a prescription? a. Extra-label b. Over-the-counter c. Controlled substance d. Biologics ANSWER: b 9. Which OTC should not be given to cats because it contains aspirin? a. Subsalisylate b. Chondroitin c. Glucososamine d. Zeniquin ANSWER: a 10. Which guidelines give the authority for extra-label drug use? a. DEA b. USDA c. FDA d. AMDUCA ANSWER: d 11. When is it allowable to use an extra-label drug? a. If it will improve an animal’s productivity b. If it is less expensive than an approved drug c. If there is no FDA-approved drug to treat the animal d. If there is not yet an established VCPR ANSWER: c 12. Which type of drug is considered dangerous because of its potential for human abuse of misuse? a. Extra-label b. Prescription c. Over-the-counter .. Powered by Cognero.

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01 A Brief History of Veterinary Pharmacology d. Controlled substance ANSWER: d 13. Which agency controls the use of controlled substances? a. USDA b. FDA c. DEA d. AVMA ANSWER: c 14. What happens when a controlled substance is combined with another drug? a. It is illegal to combine higher-level and lower-level controlled substances. b. It must be classified as both a lower-level and a higher-level substance. c. It is classified as the higher-level controlled substance. d. It is classified as the lower-level controlled substance.

ANSWER: d 15. The risk of residues is increased by improper drug use and failure to follow the _____. a. dosing schedule b. withdrawal time c. disposal protocol d. inventory controls ANSWER: b 16. Where can you find a list of all withdrawal times and drugs approved for use in food-producing animals? a. VFD b. FARAD c. DEA d. FDA-CVM ANSWER: b 17. When is a VCPR considered valid or established? a. If the client pays the veterinarian’s bill b. If a referral is made to a veterinarian based on the owner’s assessment c. If follow-up visits are required d. If the veterinarian has assumed the responsibility for making clinical judgments ANSWER: d 18. During which type of telehealth is a diagnosis not given? a. Telemedicine b. Teletriage c. Teleconsulting .. Powered by Cognero.

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01 A Brief History of Veterinary Pharmacology d. Telemonitoring ANSWER: b 19. When can medical advice be given outside of a VCPR using telehealth? a. Telemedicine b. Teletriage c. Teleconsulting d. Telemonitoring ANSWER: a 20. Which level of controlled substance has no currently acceptable medical use? a. Schedule I b. Schedule II c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV ANSWER: a 21. Which of the following drugs is a schedule II (C-II)? a. Marijuana b. Phenobarbital c. Morphine d. Testosterone ANSWER: c 22. What is the difference between a schedule I and schedule II drug? a. Schedule I drugs have no accepted medical use and schedule II drugs do. b. Schedule I drugs have accepted medical use and schedule II drugs do not. c. Schedule I drugs have a high potential for abuse and schedule II drugs have a low potential for abuse. d. Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse and schedule I drugs have a low potential for abuse.

ANSWER: a 23. The veterinarian has prescribed an acetaminophen/codeine combination for pain for your dog. What level substance is that drug? a. Schedule I b. Schedule II c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV ANSWER: c 24. Which level of controlled substance has a low potential for abuse? a. C-I b. C-II .. Powered by Cognero.

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01 A Brief History of Veterinary Pharmacology c. C-IV d. C-V ANSWER: d 25. How often do veterinarians have to register with the DEA, if they wish to prescribe controlled substances? a. Annually b. Bi-annually c. Triennially d. Every five years ANSWER: c

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02 Veterinary Drug Development and Control 1. How long does it take on average for testing before a new veterinary drug appears on the market? a. One year b. Three years c. Five years d. Seven years ANSWER: d 2. During which stage of drug development is a drug approved or rejected? a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV ANSWER: c 3. Which regulatory agency develops new uses of existing pesticides? a. USDA b. EPA c. FDA d. DEA ANSWER: b 4. When can preclinical studies begin? a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV ANSWER: b 5. What is another name for stability studies? a. Shelf life studies b. Clinical trials c. Post-approval monitoring d. Surveillance studies ANSWER: a 6. What test is done to determine the dosage at which a drug induces organ or tissue damage resulting in permanent injury or death? a. Margin of safety b. Therapeutic indexing c. Systems-oriented screening d. Toxicity evaluation ANSWER: d .. Powered by Cognero.

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02 Veterinary Drug Development and Control 7. Which agency requires that all drugs be tested for adverse effects before approval? a. USDA b. EPA c. FDA d. DEA ANSWER: c 8. If a serious adverse reaction occurs on a ______ then the manufacturer will most likely terminate drug testing. a. special test b. short-term toxicity test c. reproductive test d. long-term test ANSWER: b 9. If a manufacturer wants to see if a drug causes cancerous tumors, which test would be conducted? a. Carcinogenicity test b. Special test c. Reproductive test d. Teratogenicity test ANSWER: a 10. Which of the following statements is true? a. Drugs that kill with a small dose need further evaluation. b. Only drugs that are highly lethal need to include the lethal dose on their marketing materials. c. The effective dose is the dose that produces the desired effect. d. A dose can be called effective only if the amount of the test drug caused a defined effect in 75 percent of the animals.

ANSWER: c 11. What percentage of the animals receiving a drug must die in order for researchers to identify the lethal dose? a. 10 percent b. 25 percent c. 50 percent d. 75 percent ANSWER: c 12. What is the lethal dose of Valium® in mice? a. 720 mg/kg given orally b. 500 mg/kg given orally c. 2,000 mg/kg given orally d. 100 mg/kg given orally ANSWER: a .. Powered by Cognero.

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02 Veterinary Drug Development and Control 13. A dose can be called effective only if the amount of the test drug causes a defined effect in _____ of the animals that receive it. a. 10 percent b. 25 percent c. 50 percent d. 75 percent ANSWER: c 14. What value is determined by comparing the drug’s LD50 and its ED50? a. Long-term toxicity b. Systems-oriented screen c. Chronic study d. Therapeutic index ANSWER: d 15. How long are tests conducted before they can be labeled non-carcinogenic? a. Three months b. Six months c. Three years d. Six years ANSWER: b 16. What do systems-oriented screens test? a. Toxicity b. Physiological systems c. Therapeutic indices d. Margins of safety ANSWER: b 17. If there is a small difference between an effective dose and a lethal dose then there is a _____. a. narrow therapeutic index b. broad therapeutic index c. narrow shelf life d. broad shelf life ANSWER: a 18. A greater therapeutic index is represented by a(n) _____ number. a. equal b. larger c. smaller d. zero ANSWER: b .. Powered by Cognero.

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02 Veterinary Drug Development and Control 19. When calculating the therapeutic index, what is used as the measure of toxicity? a. The effective dose b. The lethal dose c. The margin of safety d. Toxic evaluation ANSWER: b 20. What is monitored during therapeutic drug therapy? a. Temperature b. Plasma levels c. Blood pressure d. Bone marrow ANSWER: b 21. If the LD50 and ED50 values are known for a given drug, how can you determine the therapeutic index? a. By subtracting the LD50 value by the ED50 value b. By adding the LD50 value by the ED50 value c. By multiplying the LD50 value by the ED50 value d. By dividing the LD50 value by the ED50 value ANSWER: d 22. When researchers are testing for fetal defects, they are testing for which adverse effect? a. Carcinogenicity b. Teratogenicity c. Reproductivity d. Toxicity ANSWER: b 23. After a drug is approved, is any further testing done? a. No, once approved all testing is stopped. b. No, because further testing may reveal adverse effects. c. Yes, long-term toxicity tests continue for up to two years. d. Yes, if the company so decides to continue testing.

ANSWER: c 24. Who can report an adverse reaction to the FDA? a. Veterinarians b. Animal owners c. Manufacturers d. All of the choices are correct. .. Powered by Cognero.

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02 Veterinary Drug Development and Control ANSWER: d 25. When will the FDA approve a drug for general use even if it can cause birth defects? a. If the risk to the fetus is so small in number that it is unlikely to occur b. If the benefits of the drug are far greater than the risk to the fetus c. If the manufacturer can demonstrate that the adverse effects no longer exist in certain breeds d. If the therapeutic index has narrowed to such a number that the FDA is now comfortable with the risk ANSWER: b

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03 Principles and Methods of Drug Administration 1. Which right of proper drug administration is being followed if the plasma levels are at the proper level without causing signs of toxicity? a. Time b. Dose c. Drug d. Documentation ANSWER: a 2. When a drug produces the desired effect in the animal with minimal or no signs of toxicity, it is called the _____. a. maximum effective concentration b. therapeutic range c. duration of action d. subtherapeutic range ANSWER: b 3. Which of the following is true for a drug given intravenously? a. Drugs administered intravenously have a higher therapeutic range than drugs administered orally. b. Drugs administered intravenously achieve a concentration in the therapeutic range more slowly than other routes of drug administration. c. Drugs administered intravenously have a lower therapeutic range than drugs administered rectally. d. Drugs administered intravenously achieve a concentration in the therapeutic range more rapidly than other routes of drug administration.

ANSWER: d 4. Which of the following factors is NOT involved in keeping the plasma drug concentration within its therapeutic range? a. Drug dose b. Administration c. Breed d. Dosage interval ANSWER: c 5. There are many routes of administration. Which key word part is used to mean “across”? a. Epib. Subc. Transd. IntraANSWER: c 6. A critically ill patient tends to receive medication through which route? a. IV b. Oral c. Rectal d. Inhalation .. Powered by Cognero.

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03 Principles and Methods of Drug Administration ANSWER: a 7. How are parental drugs administered? a. Transdermally b. Rectally c. Orally d. By injection ANSWER: d 8. Which type of injection is given under the skin? a. Intravenous b. Subcutaneous c. Intradermal d. Intramammary ANSWER: b 9. Which is the fastest route of administration? a. Intramammary b. Intravenous c. Subcutaneous d. Epidural ANSWER: b 10. What is a discrete drug dose given over a relatively short amount of time? a. Emulsion b. Immiscible c. Bolus d. Repository ANSWER: c 11. Which administration type would use a repository or depot preparation? a. Intramuscular b. Intravenous c. Intraperitoneal d. Intradermal ANSWER: a 12. By adding warmth or cold, you can impact the rate of absorption of which route of administration? a. Intramedullary b. Intramammary c. Intravenous d. Subcutaneous .. Powered by Cognero.

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03 Principles and Methods of Drug Administration ANSWER: d 13. Which drug form melts at body temperature? a. Cream b. Gel c. Ointment d. Paste ANSWER: c 14. If the drug is administered by a nebulizer, which route is being used? a. Rectal b. Topical c. Inhalation d. Transdermal ANSWER: c 15. Which route of administration uses suppositories? a. Rectal b. Topical c. Inhalation d. Transdermal ANSWER: a 16. What is the most likely route of administration of lidocaine? a. Rectal b. Topical c. Inhalation d. Transdermal ANSWER: d 17. Which drug form retains its state at body temperature? a. Cream b. Gel c. Lotion d. Paste ANSWER: d 18. What are large, compressed, rectangular tablets that are typically used to dose large animals? a. Boluses b. Lozenges c. Solutions d. Suspensions .. Powered by Cognero.

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03 Principles and Methods of Drug Administration ANSWER: a 19. What does drench mean? a. Oral liquid drugs given by dropper. b. Oral liquid drugs given by forcing the animal to drink. c. Oral liquid drugs given by syringe. d. Oral liquid drugs given by mixing them with foods.

ANSWER: b 20. What is the phenomenon called when the liver metabolizes the drug? a. Plasma leveling b. Monogastric ruminants c. Transport across the GI tract d. First-pass metabolism ANSWER: d 21. Which dose will get the drug concentration in the therapeutic range in a very short period of time? a. Initial dose b. Loading dose c. Maintenance dose d. Maximum dose ANSWER: b 22. What comes first when describing the drug regimen? a. Drug name b. Dose c. Route d. Frequency ANSWER: a 23. Which of the following represents the dosing interval? a. g/lb b. mg/kg c. mL d. bid ANSWER: d 24. The _____ dose keeps the drug in the therapeutic range. a. maximum b. minimum c. maintenance d. loading .. Powered by Cognero.

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03 Principles and Methods of Drug Administration ANSWER: c 25. When would you give an animal activated charcoal? a. If you want the animal to vomit b. If you want to encourage the animal to urinate c. If you want the drug to be absorbed d. If you want to stimulate a bowel movement ANSWER: c

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04 Pharmacokinetics 1. Which step in pharmacokinetics is when the drug enters the blood? a. Absorption b. Distribution c. Metabolism d. Elimination ANSWER: a 2. What is another name for the biotransformation step in pharmacokinetics? a. Absorption b. Distribution c. Metabolism d. Elimination ANSWER: c 3. Which mechanism of drug movement uses energy and a carrier? a. Passive diffusion b. Facilitated diffusion c. Active transport d. Pinocytosis/phagocytosis ANSWER: c 4. Which type of drug movement does insulin use? a. Passive diffusion b. Facilitated diffusion c. Active transport d. Pinocytosis/phagocytosis ANSWER: d 5. What is the term for the degree to which a drug is absorbed and reaches circulation? a. Absorption b. Bioequivalent c. Ionization d. Bioavailability ANSWER: d 6. Which of the following statements is true? a. Drugs that are partially absorbed have a bioavailability of 50 percent. b. Drugs that are partially absorbed have a bioavailability of less than one. c. Drugs that are partially absorbed have a bioavailability of 25 percent. d. Drugs that are partially absorbed have a bioavailability of 75 percent.

ANSWER: b

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04 Pharmacokinetics 7. What is the pH of number of something that is neutral? a. 0 b. 14 c. 1 d. 7 ANSWER: d 8. Which organ impacts a drugs metabolism? a. Stomach b. Liver c. Heart d. Small intestines ANSWER: b 9. In order for a drug to be approved by the FDA as a generic equivalent, which of the following must be true? a. It must vary less than 50 percent from the comparison drug. b. It must vary less than 20 percent from the comparison drug. c. It must vary less than 75 percent from the comparison drug. d. It must vary less than 30 percent from the comparison drug.

ANSWER: b 10. When a drug molecule changes from an ionized to nonionized form as it moves from one body compartment to another it is called ______. a. charging b. equilibrium c. ionization d. ion trapping ANSWER: d 11. Drug distribution is affected by all of the following except? a. Elimination b. Tissue perfusion c. Protein binding d. Membrane permeability ANSWER: a 12. Where are the capillaries which have no fenestrations, allowing no permeability? a. The brain b. The liver c. The stomach d. The heart ANSWER: a .. Powered by Cognero.

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04 Pharmacokinetics 13. When discussing protein binding, what does a free drug mean? a. It is in the tissues. b. It is attached to a protein. c. It is unbound. d. It is in an equilibrium state.

ANSWER: c 14. When dosing obese animals, base the dose on ______. a. actual current weight b. estimated lean weight c. the difference between actual and estimated weight d. percentage of actual weight ANSWER: b 15. Which of the following receives the least blood flow so therefore would be less affected by drugs sent through the bloodstream? a. Skeletal muscle b. Lungs c. Fat d. Brain ANSWER: c 16. What is the effect of metabolism? a. To make drugs neutralized for distribution. b. To make drugs unbound for tissue perfusion. c. To make drugs ionized for absorption. d. To make drugs water soluble for elimination.

ANSWER: d 17. How does body temperature affect metabolism? a. Higher body temperature decreases drug metabolism. b. Higher body temperature increases drug metabolism. c. Body temperature does not affect drug metabolism. d. Lower body temperature increases drug metabolism.

ANSWER: b 18. Which drugs may cause altered elimination? a. Acetaminophen b. Diuretics c. Antacids d. Prednisone ANSWER: b .. Powered by Cognero.

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04 Pharmacokinetics 19. What are the main organs of elimination? a. Colon and large intestines b. Stomach and small intestines c. Heart and lungs d. Kidney and liver ANSWER: d 20. How is milk elimination affected by drugs? a. Milk elimination is not affected by drugs. b. Milk elimination affects the young offspring and milk products. c. Milk elimination needs to be shelved until the half-life is achieved. d. Milk elimination can be treated so that it does not affect others.

ANSWER: b 21. In order for a drug to work, it interacts with a(n) _____. a. receptor b. agonist c. antagonist d. affinity ANSWER: a 22. What is a drug that binds to a cell receptor and stimulates a response characteristic of that cell? a. Receptor b. Agonist c. Antagonist d. Affinity ANSWER: b 23. Which of the following is a drug that binds to a cell receptor and prevents the cell from performing some function? a. Receptor b. Agonist c. Antagonist d. Affinity ANSWER: c 24. If an antagonist and agonist are both competing for the same receptor, which of the following can be done? a. Use equal doses of the agonist and antagonist. b. Use high doses of the antagonist. c. Use low doses of the agonist. d. Use high doses of the agonist.

ANSWER: d

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04 Pharmacokinetics 25. Which administration will peak first? a. Oral b. IV c. Rectal d. Vaginal ANSWER: b

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05 Veterinary Drug Use, Prescribing, Acquisition, and Pharmacy Management 1. Which drug name is written in lowercase letters? a. Proprietary b. Generic c. Trade d. Brand ANSWER: b 2. Does the Americans Veterinary Medical Association allow compounded preparations to be sold to patients? a. No, it is not legal for a veterinarian to sell to patients. b. Yes, as long it is large quantities. c. Yes, as long as the veterinarian has deemed it an emergency. d. No, veterinarians cannot sell them but wholesalers can.

ANSWER: a 3. Which of the following is NOT a USP standard that all drugs must meet according to the FDA? a. Purity b. Quality c. Potency d. Uniformity ANSWER: c 4. Which section of the package insert describes the situations in which the drug should not be used? a. Contraindications b. Precautions c. Adverse reactions d. Warnings ANSWER: a 5. What refers to the amount of drug that will produce the desired effect? a. Indications b. Overdosage c. Adverse reactions d. Dosage ANSWER: d 6. If you forget if the medication should be kept in the refrigerator or at room temperature, where on the package insert can you look? a. How supplied b. Storage information c. Composition statement d. Administration ANSWER: b .. Powered by Cognero.

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05 Veterinary Drug Use, Prescribing, Acquisition, and Pharmacy Management 7. What is the first step in prescribing veterinary drugs? a. Establishing a VCPR b. Providing a prescription c. Maintaining medical records d. Obtaining a prescription ANSWER: a 8. What part of the prescription must be kept confidential and excluded from the preprinted prescription pad? a. Client’s address b. Veterinarian’s name c. DEA number of the prescriber d. Pharmacy ANSWER: c 9. What is the abbreviation for “after meals?” a. am b. pc c. po d. ae ANSWER: b 10. If you want a client to take a medicine once a day, you can use all of the following abbreviations except ______. a. qd b. q24h c. sid d. tid ANSWER: d 11. Why is the @ abbreviation not used? a. It could be mistaken for a unit amount. b. It could be mistaken for a dosage amount. c. It could be mistaken for the word “at”. d. It could be mistaken for the number 2.

ANSWER: d 12. What is included with the directions for use on the prescription label? a. Active ingredient b. Dose and duration c. Drug name d. Quantity of the drug dispensed ANSWER: b

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05 Veterinary Drug Use, Prescribing, Acquisition, and Pharmacy Management 13. Why are warning labels included on the prescription medication container? a. To assign a veterinarian to an animal for a VCPR b. To remind the owner how often to give the drug c. To emphasize key facts about the drug d. To create the electronic coding match for future use ANSWER: c 14. Which of the following statements is true about drug dispensing? a. All medications should be dispensed in childproof containers. b. The veterinarian’s signature should appear on the prescription label. c. Veterinary staff can refill and dispense medications without veterinarian approval. d. Cautionary labels should be used sparingly as to not overwhelm the client.

ANSWER: a 15. When do withdrawal or withholding times need to be included on the label? a. If the patient needs to wait to take the medication after eating b. If the patient is a food-producing animal or is nursing c. If the patient needs to wait to eat after taking the medication d. If the patient is taking a medication that has a tapered dose for withdrawal ANSWER: b 16. Which of the following is NOT a warning label for prescription medication? a. For the eye b. Keep refrigerated c. Give with food d. Stop, drop, and roll ANSWER: d 17. What is the goal of maintaining drug inventory? a. To stock quantities at the maximum level b. To stock quantities at the minimum level c. To stock quantities at the best guess level d. To stock quantities so that there is one of everything ANSWER: b 18. What is one way to assess the amount of money tied up in inventory? a. Use 80/20 rule: 80 percent of drugs should be 20 percent of profit b. Count receipts of bulk purchases c. Average monthly receipts d. Calculate turnover ANSWER: d

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05 Veterinary Drug Use, Prescribing, Acquisition, and Pharmacy Management 19. All of the following are advantages to buying in bulk except which one? a. Items that are hard to find are best ordered in bulk. b. Vendors deal in bulk orders to save money. c. Bulk orders have different expiration dates, so they last longer. d. Large orders and small order take the same amount of time to process.

ANSWER: c 20. What is a disadvantage to using a distributor? a. It means more storage space to old the larger quantities. b. It has higher costs for its pharmaceuticals. c. It requires a larger commitment of time. d. It locks the business into buying from only one vendor.

ANSWER: b 21. What does OSHA require for all hazardous substances? a. Theft and sale records b. Safety Data Sheets c. Controlled substance inventory logs d. Inventory master list ANSWER: b 22. Where should injectables be kept when organizing the pharmacy? a. Near the needles and syringes b. Near the sink c. Near the counting area d. Near the locked safe ANSWER: a 23. If your pharmacy is organized by oral solids, oral liquids, injectables, and ointments, then it is organized by _____. a. drug category b. number c. alphabetically d. drug classification ANSWER: a 24. What is considered a required special storage condition? a. High-volume storage b. Shelving c. Bulky item area d. Refrigerator ANSWER: d

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05 Veterinary Drug Use, Prescribing, Acquisition, and Pharmacy Management 25. When disposing of liquid drugs that will be sent to a landfill, what needs to be done? a. Freeze them first and then dispose. b. Put them in a container with cat litter. c. Heat them to boiling and then dispose. d. Put them in a container with acid.

ANSWER: b

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06 Systems of Measurement in Veterinary Pharmacology 1. Which measurement system used in pharmacology uses the “drop”? a. Unit system b. Household system c. Metric system d. Apothecary system ANSWER: b 2. When measuring the weight of an animal, which base unit of measure would be used? a. Grain b. Meter c. Liter d. Gram ANSWER: d 3. To measure to one-hundredth of a unit, use the prefix ______. a. micro b. milli c. centi d. kilo ANSWER: c 4. How many pints are in a gallon? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 ANSWER: d 5. How many grams are in 2.75 micrograms? a. 0.00275 g b. 0.00000275 g c. 0.275 g d. 0.0275 g ANSWER: b 6. Solve the equation 4,768 mg = _____ g. a. 47.68 b. 0.4768 c. 4.768 d. 476.8 ANSWER: c

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06 Systems of Measurement in Veterinary Pharmacology 7. You need to convert the amount of medicine needed for an ill guinea pig from kilograms to grams. The bottle only lists weights in kilograms. How many kilograms is a guinea pig who weighs 75 g? a. 0.075 b. 7.5 c. 0.75 d. 0.0075 ANSWER: a 8. You want to divide a large liter into several smaller containers. How many containers would you need, if you started with 3.45 L and were dividing it into containers that held 100 mL? a. 35 b. 3 c. 5 d. 345 ANSWER: a 9. You need to convert a solution of 57 mL to liters. Which of the following is the correct amount of liters? a. 0.0057 b. 0.57 c. 5.7 d. 0.057 ANSWER: d 10. The medication you wish to prescribe for an ill cat weighing 8.8 pounds is three fluid ounces per kilogram. How much will you write the prescription for? a. 1-1/2 cups b. 1 gallon c. 2 pints d. 3 quarts ANSWER: a 11. Solve the equation 396 gr = _____ g. a. 2.57 b. 25.7 c. 257 d. 0.257 ANSWER: b 12. How many fluid ounces are in 1 quart? a. 16 b. 8 c. 24 d. 32 .. Powered by Cognero.

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06 Systems of Measurement in Veterinary Pharmacology ANSWER: d 13. On the Fahrenheit scale what is the difference between the freezing and the boiling points? a. 100 degrees b. 180 degrees c. 32 degrees d. 75 degrees ANSWER: b 14. If a dog’s temperature is 102°F, you can convert it to ____°C. a. 38.8 b. 70 c. 126 d. 24.6 ANSWER: a 15. A ferret’s temperature is 37.2°C. What would the temperature be in °F? a. 34.9 b. 66.9 c. 2.8 d. 98.96 ANSWER: d 16. If the dose of a drug is 5 mg, how many doses are contained in 25 mg? a. 20 b. 10 c. 5 d. 15 ANSWER: c 17. If each dose of medicine is 200 mg, how many doses are in 86 g of medicine? a. 0.430 b. 43 c. 4.3 d. 430 ANSWER: d 18. The dosage of a drug is 3 mg per kilogram of body weight. How many mg should be given to a rabbit weighing 12 pounds? a. 16.36 mg b. 4 mg c. 36 mg .. Powered by Cognero.

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06 Systems of Measurement in Veterinary Pharmacology d. 8.8mg ANSWER: a 19. The dosage of a drug is 0.05 mg per kg of body weight. How many mcg should be given to a dog weighing 28.5 kg? a. 1.425 mcg b. 1,425 mcg c. 142.5 mcg d. 14.25 mcg ANSWER: b 20. If the total amount of 18 L of medicine represents 360 doses, how many mL are in each dose? a. 0.05 mL b. 50 mL c. 6.48 mL d. 648 mL ANSWER: b 21. How do you determine the amount of pure drug needed to make a solution? a. Use 100 percent pure drug all the time. b. Use the ratio–proportion method. c. Use a stock solution and then add more if needed. d. Use solvents and then add equal parts.

ANSWER: b 22. When preparing a solution, how will you determine the amount of solvent needed make the finished solution? a. Divide the amount of liquid drug into the total amount. b. Add the volume of liquid drug. c. Cross multiple the amount of liquid drug. d. Subtract the volume of liquid drug.

ANSWER: d 23. What is the dissolved substance called? a. Solute b. Miscible c. Concentration d. Solvent ANSWER: a 24. How are drugs reconstituted? a. A pill is formed. b. A powder is made. c. A solvent is added. .. Powered by Cognero.

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06 Systems of Measurement in Veterinary Pharmacology d. A capsule is created.

ANSWER: c 25. Ampicillin comes in a vial containing 25 g of ampicillin. It can be diluted with sterile water for injection in volumes of 104.5 mL (final concentration 200 mg/mL), 79.0 mL (final concentration 250 mg/mL), or 41.0 mL (final concentration 400 mg/mL). If the 25 g ampicillin vial is diluted with 41.0 mL of sterile water, how many mL would be given to an animal needing a 1,200-mg dose of ampicillin? a. 6 mL b. 3 mL c. 2 mL d. 4 mL ANSWER: b

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07 Drugs Affecting the Nervous System 1. Which of the following is NOT a type of neuron? a. Sensory b. Chemical c. Motor d. Associative ANSWER: b 2. This part of the neuron conducts impulses away from the cell body toward the muscle cells, glands, or other nerves: ______. a. cell body b. dendrites c. terminal end fibers d. axon ANSWER: d 3. What is the basic unit of the nervous system? a. Cell body b. Neuron c. Dendrite d. Synapse ANSWER: b 4. What is the space between two neurons? a. Terminal end fiber b. Neuron c. Dendrite d. Synapse ANSWER: d 5. What allows an impulse to move across a synapse from one neuron to another? a. Dendrite b. Neurotransmitter c. Terminal end fiber d. Axon ANSWER: b 6. Which nervous system makes constant adjustments of body functions to maintain life? a. ANS b. PNS c. CNS d. SNS ANSWER: a .. Powered by Cognero.

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07 Drugs Affecting the Nervous System 7. Which nervous system is also called the fight-or-flight system? a. Peripheral nervous system b. Parasympathetic nervous system c. Central nervous system d. Sympathetic nervous system ANSWER: d 8. Which sympathetic receptor types are found mainly in smooth muscles of the lung? a. Alpha 1 b. Alpha 2 c. Beta 1 d. Beta 2 ANSWER: d 9. These sympathetic receptor types cause inhibition of norepinephrine release in the brain, resulting in drowsiness: ______. a. Alpha 1 b. Alpha 2 c. Beta 1 d. Beta 2 ANSWER: b 10. Which nervous system increases GI function and causes the pupils to constrict? a. Peripheral nervous system b. Parasympathetic nervous system c. Central nervous system d. Sympathetic nervous system ANSWER: b 11. Which system is responsible for decreasing GI function? a. Peripheral nervous system b. Parasympathetic nervous system c. Central nervous system d. Sympathetic nervous system ANSWER: d 12. Which type of receptor affects skeletal muscles? a. Muscarinic b. Dopaminergic c. Nicotinic d. Adrenergic ANSWER: c .. Powered by Cognero.

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07 Drugs Affecting the Nervous System 13. Which anticonvulsant would be prescribed for an animal with hepatic disease? a. Phenobarbital b. Pentobarbital c. Diazepam d. Potassium bromide ANSWER: d 14. What drugs lessen anxiety but do not make the animal drowsy? a. Sedatives b. Tranquilizers c. Antianxiety drugs d. Barbituates ANSWER: c 15. What inhibits transduction in the pain pathway? a. Tricyclic antidepressants b. Opioids and NSAIDs c. O2 adrenergic agonists d. General anesthesia ANSWER: b 16. The three types of opioid receptors include all of the following except ______. a. mu b. delta c. kappa d. gamma ANSWER: d 17. What drug reverses all clinical effects of opioids? a. Naloxone b. Loperamide c. Diphenoxylate d. Serotonin ANSWER: a 18. Anesthesia does not mean _______. a. lacking sensation b. without perception c. unconsciousness d. muscle relaxation ANSWER: c .. Powered by Cognero.

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07 Drugs Affecting the Nervous System 19. Which of the following is an example of a neuroleptanalgesic? a. Fentanyl b. Apomorphine c. Naltrexone d. Tapentadol ANSWER: a 20. Which drug would be used to decrease the intraocular pressure of glaucoma? a. Bethanechol b. Pilocarpine c. Neostigmine d. Organophospate ANSWER: b 21. When preparing an animal for a C-section, which would be drug of choice? a. Atropine b. Propantheline c. Epinephrine d. Glycopyrrolate ANSWER: d 22. This drug is used to treat heart failure in horse and other large animals, but may cause tachycardia in dogs and cats: ______. a. ephedrine b. dobutamine c. norepinephine d. dopamine ANSWER: b 23. Which drug is used to relax the urinary sphincters and reduce the recurrence of urinary blockage in cats? a. Tolazoline b. Yohimbine c. Acepromazine d. Prazosin ANSWER: d 24. What are adverse effects of beta blockers? a. Bradycardia and hypotension b. Hypertension and glaucoma c. Hypertension and heart failure d. Increased heart rate and vasodilation ANSWER: a .. Powered by Cognero.

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07 Drugs Affecting the Nervous System 25. To remember the adverse effects of cholinergic drugs use the acronym: ______. a. AChE b. 2-PAM c. SLUDDE d. CPCR ANSWER: c

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08 Drugs Acting on the Heart, Blood Vessels, and Blood 1. Which area of the heart receives the deoxygenated blood from the venous circulation? a. Left atrium b. Right atrium c. Left ventricle d. Right ventricle ANSWER: b 2. ______ creates the heart rate. a. The frequency of cardiac contractions b. The wavelike depolarization of the AV valves c. The spontaneous impulses of the SA node d. The delayed reaction of the AV nodes ANSWER: a 3. On an ECG, what depicts the delay between depolarization of the atria and ventricles as the impulse travels through the AV node? a. QRS complex b. A P-wave c. A T-wave d. P-R interval ANSWER: d 4. Where does the blood accumulate when the left side of the heart fails? a. Brain b. Lungs c. Arms d. Legs ANSWER: b 5. What is the long-term harm of peripheral vasoconstriction? a. Hypertension b. Increased work and O2 demand c. Renal hypoperfusion and failure d. Edema and ascites ANSWER: c 6. Which of the following drugs is a cardiac glycoside that increases the strength of contractions and decreases heart rate? a. Propranolol b. Digoxin c. Coumarin d. Telmisartan .. Powered by Cognero.

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08 Drugs Acting on the Heart, Blood Vessels, and Blood ANSWER: b 7. What is the term for enlargement of the heart? a. Pulmonary edema b. Ascites c. Peripheral vasoconstriction d. Cardiomegaly ANSWER: d 8. Which catecholamine receptor treats diseases such as feline asthma where bronchodilation is needed? a. α1 b. α2 c. β1 d. β2 ANSWER: d 9. What drug is approved by the FDA for use in dogs with CHF due to cardiomyopathy or mitral valve disease? a. Benazepril b. Enalapril c. Telmisartan d. Hydralazine ANSWER: b 10. Which drug is approved by the FDA for the treatment of hypertension in cats? a. Benazepril b. Enalapril c. Telmisartan d. Hydralazine ANSWER: c 11. What is the adverse effect of nitroglycerin? a. Vomiting b. Hypotension c. Fever d. Lethargy ANSWER: b 12. How do diuretics help CHF? a. They increase urine output and pulmonary edema. b. They decrease blood pressure and urine output. c. They decrease plasma volume, reducing pulmonary edema. d. They increase plasma volume and reduce pulmonary edema. .. Powered by Cognero.

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08 Drugs Acting on the Heart, Blood Vessels, and Blood ANSWER: c 13. What drug is used to alleviate exercise-induced pulmonary hemorrhage in horses? a. Furosemide b. Epinephrine c. Nitroglycerin d. Hydralazine ANSWER: a 14. How is nitroglycerin administered to animals? a. Injected b. Orally c. Rectally d. Topically ANSWER: d 15. Which of the following is a beta blocker used in veterinary medicine? a. Propranolol b. Digoxin c. Coumarin d. Telmisartan ANSWER: a 16. Which of the following is an adverse effect of calcium channel blockers? a. Bronchospasm b. Lethargy c. Hypotension d. Vomiting ANSWER: c 17. Which of the following is an anticoagulant that prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin? a. Aspirin b. Heparin c. Coumarin d. EDTA ANSWER: b 18. What is used to treat bleeding disorders associated with rodenticide toxicity? a. Aspirin b. Vitamin K1 c. Silver nitrate d. Iron .. Powered by Cognero.

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08 Drugs Acting on the Heart, Blood Vessels, and Blood ANSWER: b 19. To help baby pigs with anemia, what nutritional supplement can be given? a. Folic acid b. Iron c. Erythropoietin d. Darbepoetin ANSWER: b 20. What is used to treat vitamin B12 deficiencies? a. Folic acid b. Cyanocobalamin c. Erythropoietin d. Darbepoetin ANSWER: b 21. Which of the following is the preferred treatment in dogs and cats with anemia of chronic kidney disease? a. Folic acid b. Cyanocobalamin c. Erythropoietin d. Darbepoetin ANSWER: d 22. What is used to control bleeding after dehorning of cattle, sheep, and goats? a. Silver nitrate sticks b. Ferrous sulfate powder c. Gelfoam gelatin sponge d. Thrombogen topical thrombin solution ANSWER: b 23. What is an adverse effect of aspirin? a. Bronchospasm b. Lethargy c. Hypotension d. Vomiting ANSWER: d 24. Which of the following is an adverse effect of EDTA? a. Diarrhea b. Lethargy c. Hypotension d. Bleeding .. Powered by Cognero.

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08 Drugs Acting on the Heart, Blood Vessels, and Blood ANSWER: a 25. Which of the following drugs has few adverse effects? a. Vitamin K1 b. Aspirin c. Iron d. Folic acid ANSWER: d

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09 Respiratory System Drugs 1. Which of the following secrete mucus to trap foreign particles? a. Epithelial cells b. Alveoli c. Goblet cells d. Bronchioles ANSWER: c 2. Which respiratory condition is characterized by an inflammation of the lungs caused by infection with a respiratory pathogen or by aspiration of a foreign substance into the lower respiratory tract? a. Pneumonia b. ROA c. Bronchitis d. Asthma ANSWER: a 3. How do expectorants work? a. They thicken the mucus so it can be coughed up. b. They reduce the stickiness of the mucus so it can be coughed up. c. They decrease the fluidity of the mucus. d. They decrease the flow of respiratory secretions.

ANSWER: b 4. Acetylcysteine is administered in all of the following ways except ______. a. orally b. intravenously c. by inhalation d. rectally ANSWER: d 5. Why is acetylcysteine given to cats? a. To treat corneal damage b. To treat acetaminophen toxicity c. To treat ophthalmic disease or injury d. To break up thick mucoid secretions ANSWER: b 6. Which of the following is an adverse effect of acetylcysteine when given orally? a. Diarrhea b. Lethargy c. Vomiting d. Fever ANSWER: c .. Powered by Cognero.

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09 Respiratory System Drugs 7. Which of the following is FDA approved for the relief of nonproductive coughs in dogs? a. Trimeprazine b. Codeine c. Hydrocodone d. Butorphanol ANSWER: d 8. Which of the following is sold over-the-counter? a. Trimeprazine b. Dextromethorphan c. Hydrocodone d. Butorphanol ANSWER: b 9. Which of the following is a C-IV controlled drug used as an antitussive? a. Trimeprazine b. Dextromethorphan c. Hydrocodone d. Butorphanol ANSWER: d 10. Which antitussive drug is available in spansules? a. Trimeprazine b. Dextromethorphan c. Hydrocodone d. Butorphanol ANSWER: a 11. Which of the following has not been shown to be effective in veterinary species? a. Trimeprazine b. Dextromethorphan c. Hydrocodone d. Butorphanol ANSWER: b 12. Antitussives that contain ______ should not be given to cats or ferrets. a. butophanol b. codeine c. prednisolone d. acetaminophen ANSWER: d

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09 Respiratory System Drugs 13. How does a decongestant work? a. It suppresses a cough. b. It decreases the swelling of nasal passages. c. It widens the lumen of the bronchioles. d. It changes a liquid medication into an aerosol to be inhaled.

ANSWER: b 14. Which drug is used for anaphylaxis? a. Clenbuterol b. Terbutaline c. Albuterol d. Epinephrine ANSWER: d 15. Which drug is banned for use in food-producing animals? a. Clenbuterol b. Terbutaline c. Albuterol d. Epinephrine ANSWER: a 16. What is used to manage dogs with bronchitis and cats with asthma? a. Clenbuterol b. Isoproteronol c. Albuterol d. Epinephrine ANSWER: c 17. Which drugs can interfere with uterine contractions? a. Pyrilamine b. Theophylline c. Aminophylline d. Epinephrine ANSWER: d 18. Which is an example of a methylxanthine? a. Antibiotics b. Caffeine c. Prednisolone d. NSAIDs ANSWER: b

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09 Respiratory System Drugs 19. Which of the following would be given orally to a horse with an obstructed airway? a. Clenbuterol b. Terbutaline c. Albuterol d. Epinephrine ANSWER: a 20. How do methylxanthines work? a. They inhibit an enzyme in smooth muscle cells. b. They promote bronchoconstriction. c. They decrease excitability and increase relaxation. d. They are used to slow or stop vomiting and diarrhea.

ANSWER: a 21. For horses with RAO, which medication would be used? a. Clenbuterol b. Terbutaline c. Albuterol d. Epinephrine ANSWER: c 22. Antihistamines usually have what common part in their name? a. -hist b. -buterol c. -ephedrine d. -amine ANSWER: d 23. What drug is used with neonates after a Cesarean section? a. Doxapram b. Albuterol c. Epinephrine d. Terbutaline ANSWER: a 24. Which of the following is NOT an adverse reaction to a respiratory stimulant? a. Hypertension b. Arrhythmia c. CNS stimulation d. GI tract discomfort ANSWER: d

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09 Respiratory System Drugs 25. What drug is used to restore reflexes after anesthesia? a. Doxapram b. Albuterol c. Epinephrine d. Terbutaline ANSWER: a

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10 Hormonal and Reproductive Drugs 1. What do the ductless glands of the endocrine system secrete? a. Follicles b. Hormones c. Tissues d. Blood ANSWER: b 2. Which of the following is the master gland? a. Pancreas b. Thyroid c. Pituitary d. Hypothalamus ANSWER: d 3. What does the pituitary gland do? a. It inhibits hormones from reaching other endocrine glands. b. It secretes hormones that control other endocrine glands. c. It signals the brain to release hormones from the endocrine glands. d. It protects the hypothalamus from harmful parasites.

ANSWER: b 4. Positive and negative feedback loops control for endocrine disease by maintaining the right balance of hormone secretion. Which of the following hormones would be released during a positive feedback loop? a. Oxytocin b. Glucocorticoid c. Somatotropin d. Lutein ANSWER: a 5. Which drug would be used to treat dogs and cats with diabetes insipidus? a. Luteotropin b. Somatotropin c. Glucocorticoids d. Vasopressin ANSWER: d 6. What is formed in the pancreas and released in response to a rise in blood glucose? a. Methimazole b. Levothyroxine c. Thyroxine d. Insulin ANSWER: d .. Powered by Cognero.

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10 Hormonal and Reproductive Drugs 7. What drug would you give a dog who has decreased coat luster or hair loss, weight gain without any increase in appetite, and is listless? a. Methimazole b. Levothyroxine c. Thyroxine d. Insulin ANSWER: b 8. What is most likely going to be prescribed for a dog with Addison’s disease? a. Desoxycorticosterone pivalate b. Corticotropin c. Cosyntropin d. Mitotane ANSWER: a 9. Which of the following animals would be given insulin? a. An animal with diabetes mellitus b. An animal with hypoglycemia c. An animal with hyperthyroidism d. An animal with adrenocortical insufficiency ANSWER: a 10. How is insulin administered? a. Orally b. Rectally c. Intravenously d. Topically ANSWER: c 11. How is medication used to treat hypoglycemia administered? a. Orally b. Rectally c. Intravenously d. Topically ANSWER: a 12. Which of the following is seen mainly in cats? a. Hypothyroidism b. Addison’s disease c. Cushing’s disease d. Hyperthyroidism ANSWER: d .. Powered by Cognero.

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10 Hormonal and Reproductive Drugs 13. As an alternative to removing the thyroid surgically, what else can be used? a. Carbimazole b. Iodine isotopes c. Methimazole d. Propranolol ANSWER: b 14. The thyroid controls all of the following except ______. a. metabolism b. growth c. elimination d. reproduction ANSWER: c 15. During which stage of estrus is the CL formed in the ovary, producing progesterone to maintain pregnancy? a. Proestrus b. Diestrus c. Estrus d. Metestrus ANSWER: d 16. What is the period of the cycle before sexual receptivity? a. Proestrus b. Diestrus c. Estrus d. Metestrus ANSWER: a 17. If the animal is not pregnant, what stage ends? a. Proestrus b. Diestrus c. Estrus d. Metestrus ANSWER: b 18. What causes lysis of the CL at the end of pregnancy? a. Estrogen b. Prostaglandin c. Progesterone d. Testosterone ANSWER: b

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10 Hormonal and Reproductive Drugs 19. Which hormone is predominant during the follicular phase? a. Estrogen b. Testosterone c. Progesterone d. Gonadotropin-releasing ANSWER: a 20. Which of the following causes the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles? a. GnRH b. LH c. FSH d. ACTH ANSWER: c 21. During which phase is progesterone the predominant hormone? a. Luteal b. Follicular c. Proestrus d. Estrous ANSWER: a 22. What is implanted in the pinnae of cattle to improve the growth rate? a. Estrogen b. Prostaglandin c. Progesterone d. Testosterone ANSWER: d 23. What drug is approved for use in mares to suppress estrus or for synchronization of estrus? a. Finasteride b. Altrenogest c. Estriol d. Medroxyprogesterone ANSWER: b 24. Which of the following should not be handled by pregnant women as it may cause uterine contractions? a. Estrogen b. Prostaglandin c. Progesterone d. Testosterone ANSWER: b

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10 Hormonal and Reproductive Drugs 25. Hormones are often given to livestock to increase _____. a. sexual drive b. weight c. number of embryos d. fertility age ANSWER: b

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11 Gastrointestinal Drugs 1. What is a wavelike contraction that moves food through the gut? a. Churning b. Peristalsis c. Segmentation d. Flexure ANSWER: b 2. If an animal is excessively drooling, what is most likely the cause? a. Twisting of the mesentery b. Inflammation of the lining of the stomach c. Decreased pancreatic secretions d. An abnormality associated with swallowing ANSWER: d 3. All of the following could be causes of vomiting except ______. a. stretching of the intestinal wall b. inflammation of the lining of stomach c. infection or inefficient digestion d. systemic disease such as renal disease ANSWER: a 4. Which antisialogue drug is preferred for use in pregnant animals? a. Aminopentamide b. Glycopyrrolate c. Atropine d. Propantheline ANSWER: b 5. Which anticholinergic is approved for horses with spasmodic colic? a. Aminopentamide b. Atropine c. Propantheline d. N-butylscopolammonium bromide ANSWER: d 6. Which of the following may have to be refrigerated to maintain their viability? a. Adsorbents b. Protectants c. Probiotics d. Motility reducers ANSWER: c

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11 Gastrointestinal Drugs 7. Which product would only be given to treat diarrhea if a specific toxin was ingested? a. Activated charcoal b. Kaolin/pectin c. Bismuth subsalicylate d. Bio-Sponge ANSWER: a 8. Which motility reducer can be purchased over-the-counter? a. Metronidazole b. Clostridium difficile c. Diphenoxylate d. Loperamide ANSWER: d 9. What type of laxative results in watery stools and abdominal cramping? a. Bulk forming b. Cathartics c. Osmotics d. Emollients ANSWER: b 10. Which laxative category is not approved for veterinary use? a. Bulk forming b. Stimulants c. Osmotics d. Emollients ANSWER: b 11. Which of the following have the fewest adverse effects? a. Cathartics b. Stimulants c. Osmotics d. Emollients ANSWER: d 12. Bran is an example of a(n) _____ laxative. a. bulk forming b. stimulant c. osmotic d. emollient ANSWER: a

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11 Gastrointestinal Drugs 13. Which of the following animals would be given an antiemetic? a. Horse b. Rabbit c. Rat d. Cat ANSWER: d 14. Where is the vomiting center located? a. Brain stem b. Stomach lining c. Small intestine d. Inner ear ANSWER: a 15. When vomiting is due to motion sickness, what drug is used? a. Metoclopramide b. Phenothiazine derivative c. Antihistamine d. Serotonin Receptor Antagonists ANSWER: c 16. Which locally acting antacid may cause diarrhea? a. Aluminum b. Magnesium c. Sucralfate d. Simethicone ANSWER: b 17. What drug is now used instead of syrup of ipecac to stimulate vomiting? a. Apomorphine b. Activated charcoal c. Hydrogen peroxide d. Xylazine ANSWER: c 18. How do proton pumps work? a. They cover the ulcer and protect it from bile salts. b. They inhibit hydrogen ion transport into the stomach. c. They increase mucus production in the GI tract. d. They inhibit liver enzymes and slow the metabolism of other drugs.

ANSWER: b

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11 Gastrointestinal Drugs 19. When is an antifoaming agent needed? a. When the animal is able to release gas through belching b. When the animal cannot stop vomiting c. When the animal is constipated, causing gas to be expelled through the mouth d. When the animal cannot clear the rumen by eructation ANSWER: d 20. Which drug is used after surgery to help animals increase gastric motility? a. Acetylcholine b. Dexpanthenol c. Metoclopramide d. Neostigmine ANSWER: b 21. Which of the following is NOT subject to FDA approval? a. Cisapride b. Pancrelipase c. Capromorelin d. Mirtazapine ANSWER: b 22. Which appetite stimulant can be given to both cats and dogs? a. Capromorelin b. Cyproheptadine c. Diazepam d. Propofol ANSWER: b 23. Which of the following statements is true? a. Cleansing products may help with plaque removal but not freshening breath. b. Avoid abrasive chews for two days after the sealant is applied to prevent mechanical abrasion that could remove the sealant. c. Fluoride-containing products designed for animals have higher concentrations of fluoride than human products. d. Cleansing products need not be rinsed.

ANSWER: d 24. How often should sealants be reapplied to the teeth? a. Annually b. Every six months c. Every three months d. Every three years .. Powered by Cognero.

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11 Gastrointestinal Drugs ANSWER: b 25. If the pet has received the Doxirobe Gel antibiotic treatment for a dental procedure, how long does the owner have to wait before giving the pet treats? a. Seven days b. Seven hours c. One day d. One hour ANSWER: a

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12 Urinary System Drugs 1. Where is urine formed? a. In the collecting ducts b. In the nephron c. In the loop of Henle d. In the Bowman’s capsule ANSWER: b 2. What needs emergency intervention to prevent death due to rapid increases of nitrogenous waste products in affected patients and the risk of bladder rupture? a. Kidney disease b. Crystals c. Uroliths d. Renal failure ANSWER: c 3. What increases the volume of urine excreted by the kidneys and thus promotes the release of water from the tissues? a. Diuretics b. Vasodilators c. Hypertensives d. Channel blockers ANSWER: a 4. How do diuretics work? a. They block the sodium from entering the kidneys. b. They increase the fluid volume in tissues. c. They lower the fluid volume in tissues. d. They are contraindicated for edema and high blood pressure.

ANSWER: c 5. Which of the following is a loop diuretic that blocks reabsorption of chloride and potassium? a. Mannitol b. Spironolactone c. Hydrochlorothiazide d. Furosemide ANSWER: d 6. Which diuretic blocks the enzyme that increases sodium, potassium, and bicarbonate excretion? a. Potassium-sparing diuretics b. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors c. Osmotic diuretics d. Thiazides ANSWER: b .. Powered by Cognero.

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12 Urinary System Drugs 7. Which diuretic has an adverse effect of vomiting and electrolyte imbalance? a. Potassium-sparing diuretics b. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors c. Osmotic diuretics d. Thiazides ANSWER: c 8. Which diuretic can be given intravenously, intramuscularly, and orally to small animals, horses, and cattle? a. Mannitol b. Spironolactone c. Hydrochlorothiazide d. Furosemide ANSWER: c 9. Which diuretic is commonly combined with other drugs to be more effective? a. Potassium-sparing diuretics b. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors c. Osmotic diuretics d. Thiazides ANSWER: a 10. What is the main adverse effect of spironolactone? a. Hyperkalemia b. Vomiting c. Hypokalemia d. GI disturbances ANSWER: a 11. Which of the antihypertensives relax smooth muscles of the blood vessels? a. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors b. Calcium channel blockers c. Angiotensin receptor blockers d. Direct-acting arteriole vasodilators ANSWER: d 12. Which hypertensive is currently the drug of choice for treating feline hypertension? a. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors b. Calcium channel blockers c. Angiotensin receptor blockers d. Direct-acting arteriole vasodilators ANSWER: b

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12 Urinary System Drugs 13. How can an animal with kidney disease regulate blood phosphorous levels? a. Through dietary management b. Through oral medication c. Through intravenous medication d. Through the use of blood transfusions ANSWER: a 14. Which is the main ACEI used in veterinary medicine because it is FDA approved for use in dogs and has fewer adverse effects? a. Enalapril b. Captopril c. Lisinopril d. Benazepril ANSWER: a 15. Which of the following is often considered an emergency drug due to the rapid reduction of blood pressure that occurs after parenteral administration? a. Carvedilol b. Hydralazine c. Diltiazem d. Telmisartan ANSWER: b 16. Which drug is FDA-approved as an oral solution first-line treatment for hypertension in cats? a. Carvedilol b. Hydralazine c. Diltiazem d. Telmisartan ANSWER: d 17. Which is an example of a nonselective beta blocker that is also an alpha-1 (α1) adrenergic antagonist that is used to treat dilated cardiomyopathy in dogs? a. Aluminum hydroxide b. Carvedilol c. Hydralazine d. Diltiazem ANSWER: b 18. How are struvite stones treated in dogs? a. With antibiotics and urinary acidifiers b. With antibiotics only c. With diets that dissolve the uroliths only d. With diets that dissolve the uroliths and urinary acidifiers .. Powered by Cognero.

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12 Urinary System Drugs ANSWER: a 19. What are the most common uroliths in cats? a. Urate uroliths b. Cystine uroliths c. Calcium oxalate uroliths d. Struvite uroliths ANSWER: c 20. Which type of urolith is treated with the medication allopurinol? a. Urate uroliths b. Cystine uroliths c. Calcium oxalate uroliths d. Struvite uroliths ANSWER: a 21. Which uroliths are rare in cats? a. Urate uroliths b. Cystine uroliths c. Calcium oxalate uroliths d. Struvite uroliths ANSWER: b 22. Diets that are high in what ingredient can increase an animal’s risk of developing urolithiasis? a. Potassium b. Magnesium c. Sodium chloride d. Water ANSWER: b 23. Dogs with cystine uroliths may be prescribed _____ to keep the urine in the proper pH range. a. phenylpropanolamine b. potassium citrate c. allopurinol d. propantheline ANSWER: b 24. Which of the following is a muscle relaxant used to treat animals that have urge incontinence or urethral obstructions due to increased external urethral sphincter tone? a. Bethanechol b. Diazepam c. Estriol .. Powered by Cognero.

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12 Urinary System Drugs d. Pseudoephedrine ANSWER: b 25. Which drugs are used to decrease blood pressure and are an adjunct treatment of congestive heart failure, systemic hypotension, or pulmonary hypertension? a. Hormones b. Anticholinergics c. Adrenergic antagonists d. Cholinergic agonists ANSWER: c

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13 Drugs Used to Treat Musculoskeletal Dysfunction 1. Which muscles are activated by motor nerves that originate in the spinal cord and terminate in fibers connected to muscle cells? a. Skeletal b. Smooth c. Cardiac d. Fiber ANSWER: a 2. Which of the following is an enzyme that readies the muscle fibers for the next nerve impulse? a. Hypermagnesemia b. Acetylcholine c. Acetylcholinesterase d. Sarcolemma ANSWER: c 3. What are the tissues that contract to produce movement? a. Fibers b. Organs c. Muscles d. Synapses ANSWER: c 4. What are disorders of muscles called? a. Myopathies b. Fasciculi c. Sarcolemma d. Atrophies ANSWER: a 5. Which myopathies can affect the muscle cell membrane? a. Secondary b. Minimum c. Primary d. Maximum ANSWER: c 6. Which of the following infections affect the muscles? a. Hypocalcemia b. Tetanus c. Selenium deficiency d. Hypothyroidism ANSWER: b .. Powered by Cognero.

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13 Drugs Used to Treat Musculoskeletal Dysfunction 7. What is the point at which a motor nerve fiber connects to muscle cells called? a. Nicotinic receptor b. Electrical impulse c. Muscle fiber d. Neuromuscular junction ANSWER: d 8. Where does the axon terminal meet a muscle fiber? a. Nicotinic receptor b. Electrical impulse c. Muscle fiber d. Neuromuscular junction ANSWER: d 9. Which of the following are neuromuscular junction disorders? a. Hypocalcemia b. Tetanus c. Selenium deficiency d. Hypothyroidism ANSWER: a 10. What are synthetic products that are unrelated to substances produced by the body? a. Glucocorticoids b. NSAIDs c. Muscle relaxers d. Curarizing agents ANSWER: b 11. Which anti-inflammatory modifies the body’s immune system? a. Glucocorticoids b. NSAIDs c. Muscle relaxers d. Curarizing agents ANSWER: a 12. Where is the hormone cortisone secreted from? a. The adrenal cortex b. The neuromuscular junction c. The thyroid d. The spinal cord ANSWER: a

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13 Drugs Used to Treat Musculoskeletal Dysfunction 13. How are neuromuscular blockers administered? a. Orally b. Subcutaneously c. Intravenously d. Topically ANSWER: c 14. Horses seem to be resistant to which neuromuscular blocker? a. Atracurium b. Vecuronium c. Pancuronium d. Rocuronium ANSWER: b 15. Which antidote is given intravenously for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis? a. Neostigmine b. Pyridostigmine c. Edrophonium d. Succinylcholine ANSWER: c 16. Which muscle paralyzer is not a competitive nondepolarizer? a. Neostigmine b. Pyridostigmine c. Edrophonium d. Succinylcholine ANSWER: d 17. What is available in an injectable form and is used to treat rumen atony? a. Neostigmine b. Pyridostigmine c. Edrophonium d. Succinylcholine ANSWER: a 18. Which antidote is given two to three times per day to dogs? a. Neostigmine b. Pyridostigmine c. Edrophonium d. Succinylcholine ANSWER: b

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13 Drugs Used to Treat Musculoskeletal Dysfunction 19. Animals being treated with ______ may develop darker urine. a. methocarbamol b. guaifenesin c. dantrolene d. diazepam ANSWER: a 20. What is used to treat urethral obstructions due to increased external urethral sphincter tone in dogs and cats? a. Methocarbamol b. Guaifenesin c. Dantrolene d. Diazepam ANSWER: c 21. Which spasmolytic does not affect the diaphragm or respiratory function? a. Methocarbamol b. Guaifenesin c. Dantrolene d. Diazepam ANSWER: b 22. Which drug is used as an adjunct to anesthesia in horses? a. Methocarbamol b. Guaifenesin c. Dantrolene d. Diazepam ANSWER: b 23. What drugs have a tissue-building effect? a. Depolarizing drugs b. Anabolic steroids c. C-III controlled substances d. Corticosteroids ANSWER: b 24. Which drug inhibits calcium release from the muscle, making it less responsive to nerve impulses? a. Methocarbamol b. Guaifenesin c. Dantrolene d. Diazepam ANSWER: c

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13 Drugs Used to Treat Musculoskeletal Dysfunction 25. What is a C-IV controlled substance that decreases the turnover of Ach in the brain? a. Methocarbamol b. Guaifenesin c. Dantrolene d. Diazepam ANSWER: d

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14 Antimicrobial Drugs 1. How do antimicrobials work? a. They kill or inhibit microorganisms. b. They kill microorganisms only. c. They inhibit growth of microorganisms only. d. They kill and inhibit microorganisms.

ANSWER: a 2. What is used to describe the spectrum of activity of a particular drug? a. Cell wall size b. Types of bacteria c. Gram stain properties d. List of all susceptible species ANSWER: b 3. Which of the following statements means that an agent is bacteriostatic? a. Refers to antibiotic drugs that act on both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria b. Refers to antibiotic drugs that act on either Gram-positive or Gram-negative bacteria c. Refers to an agent that is capable of killing bacteria d. Refers to an agent that is capable of inhibiting the growth or replication of bacteria ANSWER: d 4. What zone of inhibition means the bacteria are inhibited only by the maximum recommended dosage of antibiotic? a. Resistant b. Sensitive c. Intermediate d. Breakpoint ANSWER: c 5. When an antibiotic allows a cell to overfill with water, resulting in cell death, what mechanism has the antibiotic used to inhibit or kill the bacteria? a. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis b. Damage to the cell membrane c. Inhibition of protein synthesis d. Interference with metabolism ANSWER: b 6. During which mechanism do antibiotics act selectively on the ribosomes of bacteria? a. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis b. Damage to the cell membrane c. Inhibition of protein synthesis d. Interference with metabolism ANSWER: c .. Powered by Cognero.

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14 Antimicrobial Drugs 7. Which mechanism is only effective when bacteria are growing and dividing? a. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis b. Damage to the cell membrane c. Inhibition of protein synthesis d. Interference with metabolism ANSWER: a 8. Which of the following have a beta-lactam ring and interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis? a. Polypeptide b. Cephalosporin c. Monobactam d. Tetracyclines ANSWER: b 9. Which of the following can cause fatal diarrhea in guinea pigs, rabbits and hamsters? a. Polypeptide b. Cephalosporin c. Monobactam d. Penicillin ANSWER: d 10. Which generation of cephalosporin would be used to combat MRSA? a. Second b. Third c. Fourth d. Fifth ANSWER: d 11. Which antibiotic is so poorly absorbed after oral administration that if an animal licks it after topical administration, the risk is minimal? a. Bacitracin b. Vancomycin c. Carbapenems d. Monobactams ANSWER: a 12. Which of the following is an aminoglycoside? a. Vancomycin b. Erythromycin c. Gentamicin d. Bactramycin ANSWER: c .. Powered by Cognero.

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14 Antimicrobial Drugs 13. Which of the following has been found to reduce gingival inflammation in dogs with periodontal disease? a. Chlortetracycline b. Doxycycline c. Minocycline d. Oxytetracycline ANSWER: b 14. Which of the following has been banned in food animals in the United States because it may result in irreversible aplastic anemia? a. Erythromycin b. Florfenicol c. Chloramphenicol d. Tilmicosin ANSWER: c 15. Which of the following may be used to treat penicillin-resistant infections or be given to patients who have allergic reactions to penicillin? a. Erythromycin b. Florfenicol c. Chloramphenicol d. Tilmicosin ANSWER: a 16. Which of the following antifungal drugs is not well absorbed and is fairly toxic? a. Nystatin b. Fluconazole c. Flucytosine d. Terbinafine ANSWER: a 17. Which of the following antifungals disrupt fungal cell divisions? a. Polyenes b. Imidazoles c. Antimetabolics d. Superficials ANSWER: d 18. Which of the following is used mainly in combination with other antifungals to treat Cryptococcus infections? a. Polyenes b. Imidazoles c. Antimetabolics d. Superficials .. Powered by Cognero.

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14 Antimicrobial Drugs ANSWER: c 19. ______ would be used for systemic mycotic infections. a. Nystatin b. Fluconazole c. Flucytosine d. Terbinafine ANSWER: b 20. What would be used to treat ringworm? a. Flucytosine b. Lyme sulfur c. Ketoconazole d. Amphotericin B ANSWER: b 21. Which antiviral drug affects attachments of viruses to cell receptors and inhibits the replication of influenza A virus? a. Interferon alfa b. Amantadine c. Ganciclovir d. Acyclovir ANSWER: b 22. Which of the following statements is true? a. Disinfection guarantees that all pathogens are eliminated. b. Antiseptics and disinfectants do not have the same chemicals in them. c. Antiseptics kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms on living tissue. d. All disinfectants are suitable for use as antiseptics.

ANSWER: c 23. Which disinfecting solution is recommended by OSHA in a medical-based practice? a. Alcohol b. Halogen c. Biguanide d. Aldehyde ANSWER: b 24. Which of the following is available as a scrub that is commonly used for prepping patients prior to surgery and as a surgical scrub for veterinary staff? a. Hypochlorite b. Iodine c. Chlorhexidine .. Powered by Cognero.

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14 Antimicrobial Drugs d. Clostridium ANSWER: c 25. Which of the following is not affected by organic matter or hard water? a. Oxidizing agents b. Ethylene oxide c. Halogens d. Alcohols ANSWER: a

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15 Antiparasitic Drugs 1. Where are ectoparasites found? a. On the body surface of the host b. In infected soil c. Within the body of the host d. In feces from an infected host ANSWER: a 2. Which of the following inhabit the stomach and intestines and are transmitted by the fecal-oral route? a. Cestodes b. Trematodes c. Nematodes d. Protozoa ANSWER: c 3. Which administration route allows more precise control over the amount of drug given? a. Oral b. Injectable c. Topical d. Rectal ANSWER: a 4. Which of the following allows little control over the amount of drug ingested by an individual animal? a. Tablets b. Liquid c. Feed additives d. Sustained release bolus ANSWER: c 5. If you want to treat internal and external parasites, which of the following would you use? a. Oral b. Injectable c. Topical d. Rectal ANSWER: c 6. Which of the following statements is true? a. Pour-ons increase stress for treated animals. b. Injectable treatment requires livestock to run through chutes. c. Feed additives do not need to comply with Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD) regulations. d. Paste syringes contain a precalibrated amount of paste with inconsistent drug distribution throughout the product.

ANSWER: b .. Powered by Cognero.

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15 Antiparasitic Drugs 7. How is a bolus given to an animal? a. Orally b. Intravenously c. Topically d. Subcutaneously ANSWER: a 8. Which coccidial infection affects carnivores? a. Eimeria b. Toxoplasma c. Babesia d. Isospora ANSWER: d 9. Which of the following drugs is often used to treat Babesiosis? a. Pyrimethamine b. Imidocarb c. Diclazuril d. Ponazuril ANSWER: b 10. Which drug given for EPM converts one form of folic acid used for metabolism in parasites to an inactive form of folic acid? a. Pyrimethamine b. Imidocarb c. Diclazuril d. Ponazuril ANSWER: a 11. Which drug should not be used in equine species as it is highly cardiotoxic? a. Amprolium b. Robenidine c. Monensin d. Decoquinate ANSWER: c 12. Providing clean, nutritious, and palatable feed and water and avoiding overcrowded conditions help to keep what in check? a. Antinematodals b. Anticestodals c. Antitrematodals d. Coccidia organisms .. Powered by Cognero.

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15 Antiparasitic Drugs ANSWER: d 13. Which drug is often used to treat giardiasis in cats, dogs, and horses? a. Amprolium b. Robenidine c. Metronidazole d. Decoquinate ANSWER: c 14. Which of the following heartworm medications should be used with caution in collies? a. Ivermectin b. Moxidectin c. Eprinomectin d. Selamectin ANSWER: a 15. Which of the following drugs has the adverse effect of alopecia at the application site? a. Ivermectin b. Moxidectin c. Eprinomectin d. Selamectin ANSWER: d 16. Which of the following is approved for the control of hookworms, ascarids, and whipworms in dogs? a. Milbemycin b. Melarsomine c. Wohlbachia d. Selamectin ANSWER: a 17. Which of the following is an arsenical drug given by deep IM injection to kill adult heartworms? a. Milbemycin b. Melarsomine c. Wohlbachia d. Selamectin ANSWER: b 18. What drug can be used to remove any remaining microfilariae after using a macrocyclic lactone drug? a. Milbemycin b. Melarsomine c. Wohlbachia d. Selamectin .. Powered by Cognero.

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15 Antiparasitic Drugs ANSWER: a 19. Which product type may not kill all stages of the ectoparasite? a. Injectable b. Oral c. Fogger d. Pour-on ANSWER: b 20. Which product type is convenient and easy to use? a. Prediluted spray b. Kennel spray c. Topical long acting d. Pour-on ANSWER: a 21. Which of the following can only be used on the environment? a. Prediluted spray b. Kennel spray c. Topical long acting d. Pour-on ANSWER: b 22. When fleas feed on blood containing this drug the eggs they lay fail to develop normally. a. Neonicotinoid b. Chitin c. Fipronil d. Lufenuron ANSWER: d 23. Which is a tablet that kills adult fleas within 30 minutes? a. Neonicotinoid b. Chitin c. Fipronil d. Lufenuron ANSWER: a 24. What drug should not be used on cats? a. Frontline Plus® b. Revolution® c. K9 Advantix® d. Dectomax® .. Powered by Cognero.

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15 Antiparasitic Drugs ANSWER: c 25. Which of the following is applied topically but is not absorbed into the blood? a. Frontline Plus® b. Revolution® c. K9 Advantix® d. Dectomax® ANSWER: a

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16 Anti-Inflammatory and Pain-Reducing Drugs 1. What is a natural response of living tissue to cellular injury? a. Vasodilation b. Edema c. Inflammation d. Gestation ANSWER: c 2. What is produced in the breakdown of phospholipids by phospholipase? a. Prostaglandins b. Arachidonic acid c. Leukotrienes d. Thromboxanes ANSWER: b 3. Which of the following reduce inflammation by blocking the action of the enzyme phospholipase? a. Prednisone b. Benadryl c. Ibuprofen d. Aspirin ANSWER: a 4. Which drugs are effective at blocking the action of the enzyme cyclooxygenase? a. Steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs b. Glucocorticoid drugs c. Antihistamine drugs d. NSAIDs ANSWER: d 5. Glucocorticoid drugs have many advantages, but they also have disadvantages. Which of the following is an adverse effect risk of using glucocorticoid drugs? a. Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia b. Infection due to immunosuppression c. Mast cell tumors d. Intervertebral disk disease ANSWER: b 6. Endogenous glucocorticoid production affects which hormone producer? a. Adrenal cortex b. Hypothalymus c. Anterior pituitary d. Thyroid ANSWER: a .. Powered by Cognero.

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16 Anti-Inflammatory and Pain-Reducing Drugs 7. Which of the following are clinical signs of Cushing’s disease? a. Weakness b. Diarrhea c. Vomiting d. Lethargy ANSWER: d 8. Whenever possible, how should glucocorticoids be applied? a. Intravenously b. Orally c. Topically d. Subcutaneously ANSWER: c 9. Which of the following statements is true about glucocorticoids? a. Glucocorticoid drugs should be used in animals with corneal ulcers. b. The immunosuppressive effects of glucocorticoid drugs disable pathogens from establishing infections in the body. c. The anti-inflammatory effects of glucocorticoid drugs do not cure inflammatory diseases. d. Continuous glucocorticoid use is better than intermittent use.

ANSWER: c 10. How is Addison’s disease prevented? a. Glucocorticoids are given at the highest dosage possible and are withdrawn quickly. b. Glucocorticoids are given at the lowest dosage possible and are withdrawn quickly. c. Glucocorticoids are given at the highest dosage possible and are withdrawn gradually. d. Glucocorticoids are given at the lowest dosage possible and are withdrawn gradually.

ANSWER: d 11. Which of the following is better for cats? a. Prednisone b. Prednisolone c. Fluocinolone d. Hydrocortisone ANSWER: b 12. What ending do most glucocorticoid drugs have in the generic name? a. -amine b. -ane c. -ate d. -sone ANSWER: d .. Powered by Cognero.

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16 Anti-Inflammatory and Pain-Reducing Drugs 13. When an animal is on a glucocorticoid, what does the adrenal cortex do? a. Increase glucocorticoid production b. Decrease glucocorticoid production c. Stimulate the adrenal glands to release excess hormones d. Fight the glucocorticoid as if it was an infection ANSWER: b 14. NSAIDs are _____. a. immunosuppressive b. antipyretic c. antifungal d. immunomodulating ANSWER: b 15. Which of the following is a salicylate that cats cannot metabolize? a. Ibuprofen b. Naproxen c. Diclofenac d. Aspirin ANSWER: d 16. Which of the following is often given to horses with athletic injuries? a. Phenylbutazone b. Flunixin c. Piroxicam d. Aspirin ANSWER: a 17. Which of the following can cause a perforated gastric ulcer in a dog with just one dose? a. Ketoprofen b. Carprofen c. Naproxen d. Ibuprofen ANSWER: c 18. Which drug is available as an oral suspension, a spray for application to the mucous membranes of the mouth, and an injectable solution for dogs? a. Robenacoxib b. Meloxicam c. Firocoxib d. Deracoxib ANSWER: b .. Powered by Cognero.

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16 Anti-Inflammatory and Pain-Reducing Drugs 19. How is meloxicam given to cats? a. Orally b. Intravenously c. Topically d. Subcutaneously ANSWER: d 20. What is the only NSAID labeled for use in beef and dairy cattle? a. Flunixin meglumine b. Dimethyl sulfoxide c. Tolfenamic acid d. Diclofenac sodium ANSWER: a 21. Which of the following drugs causes vasodilation while also being an anti-inflammatory? a. Flunixin meglumine b. Dimethyl sulfoxide c. Tolfenamic acid d. Diclofenac sodium ANSWER: b 22. Which of the following COX-2 drugs has an adverse effect of ulceration? a. Robenacoxib b. Meloxicam c. Firocoxib d. Deracoxib ANSWER: a 23. Which of the following products is not approved for use as drugs by the U.S. FDA but is available as a chewable treat for dogs? a. Hyaluronic acid b. Glucosamine/chondrotin sulfate c. Polysulfated glycosaminoglycans d. Dermatan sulfate ANSWER: b 24. Which of the following is the only antihistamine drug approved by the FDA for a veterinary species a. Loratidine b. Diphenhydramine c. Trimeprazine d. Cyproheptadine ANSWER: c .. Powered by Cognero.

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16 Anti-Inflammatory and Pain-Reducing Drugs 25. Which of the following is the most effective immunosuppressant agent available? a. Cetirizine b. Diphenhydramine c. Cyclosporine d. Pyrilamine ANSWER: c

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17 Drugs for Skin Conditions 1. Where are blood and lymph vessels found in the integumentary system? a. The epidermis b. The dermis c. The hypodermis d. The hyperdermis ANSWER: b 2. Which of the following is a behavioral condition that can cause a skin disorder? a. GI conditions b. Nutritional deficiencies c. Environmental allergies d. Excessive grooming ANSWER: d 3. Which of these topical antibacterial drugs would be used to treat feline acne? a. Bacitracin b. Clindamycin c. Gentamicin d. Neomycin ANSWER: b 4. Topical antibiotics are used to treat all of the following except ______. a. ocular infections b. abscesses c. minor burns d. puncture wounds ANSWER: d 5. What topical antibacterial drug would be used on second and third degree burns? a. Silver sulfadiazine b. Polymyxin B c. Thiostrepton d. Nitrofurazone ANSWER: a 6. How would you treat thrush in horses? a. With lime sulfur b. With miconazole c. With nystatin d. With copper naphthenate ANSWER: d

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17 Drugs for Skin Conditions 7. What is used to control lick dermatitis? a. Lidocaine b. Zinc c. Colloidal oatmeal d. Pramoxine ANSWER: b 8. What is the least potent topical glucocorticoid? a. Triamcinolone b. Flumethasone c. Hydrocortisone d. Dexamethasone ANSWER: c 9. Which of the following statements is true? a. Glucocorticoids slow the rate of skin cell production; hence, they slow healing time of wounds. b. Glucocorticoids increase the rate of skin cell production; hence, they decrease healing time of wounds. c. Glucocorticoids slow the rate of skin cell production; hence, they decrease healing time of wounds. d. Glucocorticoids increase the rate of skin cell production; hence, they slow healing time of wounds.

ANSWER: a 10. How long do long-acting glucocorticoids work? a. Less than 12 hours b. 12 to 24 hours c. 24 to 36 hours d. More than 48 hours ANSWER: d 11. Which of the following is given orally to dogs an hour before or two hours after eating? a. Oclacitinib b. Lokivetmab c. Cyclosporine d. Propionibacterium acnes ANSWER: c 12. What is used to treat seborrhea oleosa? a. Benzoyl peroxide b. Coal tar c. Selenium sulfide d. Salicylic acid ANSWER: b

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17 Drugs for Skin Conditions 13. Which of the following lowers skin pH resulting in increased hydration and is used to treat seborrhea sicca? a. Benzoyl peroxide b. Coal tar c. Selenium sulfide d. Salicylic acid ANSWER: d 14. Which of the following will help control dry, scaly skin? a. Benzoyl peroxide b. Selenium sulfide c. Phytosphingosine d. Essential fatty acids ANSWER: c 15. What can help with stud tail? a. Benzoyl peroxide b. Selenium sulfide c. Phytosphingosine d. Essential fatty acids ANSWER: a 16. Hot spots can be treated with _______. a. benzoyl peroxide b. selenium sulfide c. phytosphingosine d. essential fatty acids ANSWER: a 17. What is an astringent used in veterinary medicine? a. Lactoperoxidase b. Benzalkonium chloride c. Stanisol® d. Iodine ANSWER: c 18. Which of the following is used in surgical scrubs and handwashes? a. Benzalkonium chloride b. Chloroxylenol c. Acetic acid d. Lactoperoxidase ANSWER: b

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17 Drugs for Skin Conditions 19. Which antiseptic is typically used as a solvent or vehicle for other drugs? a. Hypochlorous acid b. Propylene glycol c. Iodine d. Triclosan ANSWER: b 20. Which of the following is a bactericidal fungicidal, virucidal, and sporicidal? a. Hypochlorous acid b. Propylene glycol c. Iodine d. Triclosan ANSWER: c 21. Where is magnesium sulfate found? a. In Epsom salts b. In eucalyptus oil c. In Burow’s solution d. In medicated shampoo ANSWER: a 22. How do you treat proud flesh in horses? a. With magnesium sulfate b. With propylene glycol c. With copper sulfate pentahydrate d. With eucalyptus oil ANSWER: c 23. Which of the following is a counterirritant? a. Magnesium sulfate b. Propylene glycol c. Silver nitrate d. Eucalyptus oil ANSWER: d 24. What would be used to treat feline herpes viral dermatitis? a. Aldara® b. Protopic® c. Elidel® d. Retin-A® ANSWER: a

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17 Drugs for Skin Conditions 25. Your patient has footpad hyperkeratosis. Which drug would you prescribe? a. Aldara® b. Protopic® c. Elidel® d. Retin-A® ANSWER: d

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18 Ophthalmic and Otic Medications 1. I am a clear, flexible, and curved capsule. What am I? a. The pupil b. The lens c. The iris d. The retina ANSWER: b 2. Most ophthalmic drugs for small animals are given using which route of administration? a. Oral b. Topical c. Intravenous d. Intravitreal ANSWER: b 3. Which drug would be used to dilate pupils prior to cataract removal? a. Atropine b. Homatropine c. Phenylephrine d. Tropicamide ANSWER: c 4. What is being explained with this description: “a group of diseases characterized by increased intraocular pressure?” a. Cataracts b. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca c. Horner’s syndrome d. Glaucoma ANSWER: d 5. Which glaucoma treatment was originally developed as a diuretic and is administered orally or parenterally? a. Miotics b. Beta-adrenergic blockers c. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors d. Osmotic diuretics ANSWER: c 6. Which drug is given intravenously prior to surgery or as an emergency treatment of glaucoma? a. Miotics b. Beta-adrenergic blockers c. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors d. Osmotic diuretics ANSWER: d

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18 Ophthalmic and Otic Medications 7. What is common in dogs, is thought to be immune-mediated, and is diagnosed with a Schirmer tear test? a. Cataracts b. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca c. Horner’s syndrome d. Glaucoma ANSWER: b 8. Mydriatics are used for all of the following except ______. a. aiding in eye exams b. preventing adhesions between the iris and the lens c. treating open-angle glaucoma d. preparing an animal for ocular surgery ANSWER: c 9. When would a lacrimogenic be used? a. To dilate pupils b. To increase tear production c. To constrict pupils d. To treat bacterial infections ANSWER: b 10. Which of the following is an immunomodulating drug that is used to decrease inflammation resulting in improved tear production? a. Cyclosporine b. Pilocarpine c. Mannitol d. Apraclonidine ANSWER: a 11. Which of the following is an antibacterial drug? a. Pilocarpine b. Tacrolimus c. Prednisolone d. Neomycin ANSWER: d 12. You are examining a dog who you suspect has inflammation of the conjunctiva. What will you prescribe? a. Topical antifungal drug b. Topical glucocorticoid drug c. Topical NSAID d. Topical antiviral drug ANSWER: b .. Powered by Cognero.

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18 Ophthalmic and Otic Medications 13. Which of the following antibacterial drugs may cause anaphylaxis in cats when applied topically? a. Ciprofloxacin b. Sulfacetamide c. Erythromycin d. Polymyxin B ANSWER: d 14. To treat acute inflammation of the anterior uvea, use _______. a. atropine b. pilocarpine c. bimatoprost d. methazolamide ANSWER: a 15. Which of the following is used to treat inflammation of the eye? a. Prostaglandins b. Mitotics c. Immunomodulators d. Mydriatics ANSWER: d 16. Which of the following is true about artificial tears? a. They are petroleum-based products. b. They are pH-buffered solutions. c. They are used during anesthesia. d. They include products such as DuraTear®.

ANSWER: b 17. How is a lubricant tear supplement used? a. As a buffer for dry eyes b. As an anesthetic when eyes need to stay open c. As an irrigation rinse for eyes d. As a numbing agent that dilates eyes ANSWER: b 18. Why are topical glucocorticoids not often used? a. They delay healing and cannot be used on corneal ulcers. b. They interrupt viral replication. c. They must be continued past clinical resolution. d. They can cause sensitization.

ANSWER: a

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18 Ophthalmic and Otic Medications 19. What parts of the ear are responsible for balance and equilibrium? a. Pinna and auditory ossicles b. Eustachian tube and oval window c. Cochlea and tympanic membrane d. Vestibule and semicircular canals ANSWER: d 20. A dog is tilting his head to one side, has ataxia and is vomiting. What is the possible diagnosis? a. Otitis externa b. Otitis media c. Otitis interna d. Otitis chronica ANSWER: c 21. Which of the following has both antifungal and antibacterial properties? a. Cipro HC Otic® b. ClotrimaTop® c. Ciprodex® d. Baytril Otic® ANSWER: d 22. To use this drug the tympanic membrane needs to be intact? a. Ofloxacin b. Tobramycin c. Gentamicin d. Ciprofloxacin ANSWER: c 23. Because otic drugs can enter the blood stream, which of the following cannot be given to food-producing animals? a. Florfenicol b. Enrofloxacin c. Ofloxacin d. Tobramycin ANSWER: a 24. Which of the following would be used to remove debris and wax? a. Hypochlorous acid b. Propylene glycol c. Fluocinolone d. Chlorhexidine ANSWER: b

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18 Ophthalmic and Otic Medications 25. What would be used to reduce inflammation and pain associated with acute chronic otitis? a. Hypochlorous acid b. Propylene glycol c. Fluocinolone d. Chlorhexidine ANSWER: c

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19 Fluid Therapy and Emergency Drugs 1. What are the predominant cations that regulate electrolyte balance? a. Chloride and sodium b. Sodium and potassium c. Potassium and chloride d. Phosphate and bicarbonate ANSWER: b 2. What is the patient’s dehydration percentage if they have tacky mucous membranes and their abdomen feels doughy? a. 6-8% b. 10-12% c. 5% d. >12% ANSWER: c 3. What is the preferred route for animals that are not eating or drinking and who are moderately to severely dehydrated? a. Orally b. Subcutaneously c. Intraosseously d. Intravenously ANSWER: d 4. Which of the following statements is true? a. Hypotonic solutions have osmolality higher than that of the fluid component of blood. b. Isotonic solutions produce no significant changes in the osmolality of blood. c. The osmolality of hypertonic solutions is lower than that of the fluid component of blood. d. Tonicity is based on a measurement called solute.

ANSWER: b 5. What is the fluid of choice in many disease situations related to dehydration? a. Lactated Ringer’s solution b. Normosol-R® c. Plasma-Lyte® d. Vetivex® ANSWER: a 6. Which of the following is a synthetic colloid? a. Plasma b. Whole blood c. Albumin d. Dextrans .. Powered by Cognero.

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19 Fluid Therapy and Emergency Drugs ANSWER: d 7. Which of the following can be stored frozen? a. Plasma b. Whole blood c. Albumin d. Dextran ANSWER: a 8. Which of the following are used to treat hypovolemic shock? a. Hypotonic solutions b. Hydroxyethyl starch c. Isotonic solutions d. Hypertonic solutions ANSWER: b 9. What is isotonic saline used for? a. To increase body weight b. To expand plasma volume c. To treat hypernatremia d. To treat shock ANSWER: b 10. Which of the following are transient, meaning they work quickly, but their effects are short-lived? a. Hypotonic solutions b. Hydroxyethyl starch c. Isotonic solutions d. Hypertonic solutions ANSWER: d 11. Which of the following is a hypotonic solution? a. 5 percent dextrose in water b. 3 percent normal saline c. Lactated Ringer’s solution d. 0.9 percent sodium chloride ANSWER: a 12. Which of the following statements is true about colloids? a. They have high sodium concentrations. b. They have about the same solute concentration as blood. c. They are fluids with large molecules that enhance the oncotic pressure of blood. d. They stay in the vasculature for a short time. .. Powered by Cognero.

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19 Fluid Therapy and Emergency Drugs ANSWER: c 13. What is used in IV fluid to correct hypoglycemia? a. Sodium bicarbonate b. Potassium c. Dextrose d. Calcium ANSWER: c 14. What is the normal serum potassium level? a. 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L b. 5.5 to 7.5 mEq/L c. 7.5 to 9.5 mEq/L d. 9.5 to 11.5 mEq/L ANSWER: a 15. Calcium is given to patients for all of the following reasons except ______. a. milk fever b. eclampsia c. severe shock d. endocrine disorders ANSWER: c 16. Which of the following is false about rehydration? a. Dehydration affects younger animals much more rapidly than older animals. b. Older patients with chronic disease may require less fluids than other animals. c. Animals need more fluids if they are active or if the weather is hot or humid. d. Drugs such as glucocorticoids and diuretics will alter fluid and electrolyte requirements.

ANSWER: b 17. Which of the following is a sensible fluid loss that can be measured? a. Sweat b. Ventilation c. Mucous membrane evaporation d. Urine ANSWER: d 18. An adult dog weighing 40 lb needs maintenance fluids. Calculate the amount of fluids this dog needs per 24 hours (in this case, use 3 mL/kg/hr). a. 54 mL b. 1,634 mL c. 68 mL .. Powered by Cognero.

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19 Fluid Therapy and Emergency Drugs d. 1,309 mL ANSWER: d 19. An adult 11-lb cat with 3 percent dehydration (mild to no evidence of clinical dehydration, but a history of fluid loss) comes into the clinic. The cat is to be kept npo (nothing by mouth). Calculate a fluid dose for this cat (in this case, use 2 mL/kg/hr). a. 240 mL b. 390 mL c. 150 mL d. 192 mL ANSWER: b 20. How is the amount of fluid to be delivered adjusted in a drip administration set? a. With screw clamps b. With roller clamps c. With slide clamps d. With compression clamps ANSWER: b 21. What is the typical administration rate for adult drip administration? a. 15 gtt/mL b. 60 gtt/mL c. 10 gtt/mL d. 20 gtt/mL ANSWER: a 22. What is the typical administration rate for pediatric drip administration? a. 15 gtt/mL b. 60 gtt/mL c. 10 gtt/mL d. 20 gtt/mL ANSWER: b 23. Which of the following indicate that the patient is receiving too much fluids? a. Decreased urine output b. Decreased serous secretions c. Harsh lung sounds d. Slowed respiratory rate ANSWER: c 24. What is the goal of emergency treatment? a. To prevent renal failure b. To metabolize acidosis .. Powered by Cognero.

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19 Fluid Therapy and Emergency Drugs c. To correct tissue hypoxia d. To maintain adequate oxygenation of vital organs ANSWER: d 25. What drug is used to reverse an opioid overdose? a. Epinephrine b. Naloxone c. Atropine d. Diazepam ANSWER: b

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20 Antineoplastic and Immunomodulatory Drugs 1. Cancerous cells lose cellular differentiation and ______. a. regulate cell growth b. grow with normal homeostatic control c. exhibit anaplasia d. inject host cells with added energy and functionality ANSWER: c 2. Which of the following statements is true about antineoplastic drugs? a. A few antineoplastic drugs are cytotoxic; therefore, careful selection is needed so that they do not interfere with normal as well as neoplastic cells. b. Antineoplastic drugs are not cytotoxic and therefore do not interfere with normal or neoplastic cells. c. Only some antineoplastic drugs are cytotoxic, and those interfere with normal as well as neoplastic cells. d. All antineoplastic drugs are cytotoxic and therefore interfere with normal as well as neoplastic cells.

ANSWER: d 3. Which drugs are used to attack malignant cells? a. Antineoplastic drugs b. Biologic response modifying drugs c. Immunostimulant drugs d. Immunosuppressive drugs ANSWER: a 4. Antineoplastic drugs attack rapid cell division and growth regardless of whether it is needed for the body or not.

Where else in the body does rapid cell division and growth occur normally for body functions? a. Mucous membranes b. Hair follicles c. Urinary tract d. Cardiovascular system ANSWER: b 5. During which phase of the cell cycle is protein synthesized? a. G1 phase b. S phase c. M phase d. G2 phase ANSWER: d 6. Which of the following drugs work on all phases of the cell cycle? a. Antibiotics b. Alkylating agents c. Alkaloids d. Antimetabolites alkylating agents .. Powered by Cognero.

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20 Antineoplastic and Immunomodulatory Drugs ANSWER: b 7. Which type of drug inhibits mitosis and causes cell death? a. Alkylating agents b. Antimetabolites c. Alkaloids d. Antitumor antibiotics ANSWER: c 8. Which of the following drugs works on all phases of the cell cycle? a. Methotrexate b. Procarbazine c. Vincristine d. Gemcitabine ANSWER: b 9. Which of the following are more effective at the S and M phases? a. Glucocorticoids b. Methotrexate c. Vincristine d. Gemcitabine ANSWER: a 10. All of the following work on the S phase of the cell cycle except ______. a. Cytarabine b. Methotrexate c. Vincristine d. Gemcitabine ANSWER: c 11. What type of drug causes miscoding of DNA? a. Alkylating agents b. Antimetabolites c. Alkaloids d. Antitumor antibiotics ANSWER: a 12. This drug contains chemicals derived from plants. What is it? a. Alkylating agents b. Antimetabolites c. Alkaloids d. Antitumor antibiotics .. Powered by Cognero.

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20 Antineoplastic and Immunomodulatory Drugs ANSWER: c 13. Which drug would be prescribed to reduce edema and suppress tumor growth? a. Ifosfamide b. Bleomycin c. Mitoxantrone d. Prednisone ANSWER: d 14. What is the percentage of cancer cells that are actively dividing? a. Doubling time b. Growth fraction c. Survival time d. Pulse dosing ANSWER: b 15. What is often the first sign of malignancy? a. Paraneoplastic syndromes b. Alopecia c. Infertility d. Nephrotoxicity ANSWER: a 16. Which of the following is the paraneoplastic syndrome that is associated with a pancreatic carcinoma? a. Hypoglycemia b. Cachexia c. Anemia d. Alopecia ANSWER: d 17. What tumor is associated with peripheral neuropathy? a. Lymphoma b. Insulinoma c. Gastrinoma d. Carcinoma ANSWER: b 18. What is used to calculate drug doses for antineoplastic drugs? a. Tumor size b. Body surface area c. Body weight d. Body weight divided by tumor size .. Powered by Cognero.

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20 Antineoplastic and Immunomodulatory Drugs ANSWER: b 19. When preparing antineoplastic agents, what is used to wipe all surfaces of syringes and bottles after use? a. Bleach b. Cleaning agents c. Water d. 70% alcohol ANSWER: d 20. What type of gloves should be worn to protect the skin when handling antineoplastic drugs? a. Latex b. Vinyl c. Rubber d. Leather ANSWER: a 21. How do biologic response modifiers work? a. They interfere with one of the stages of the cell cycle. b. They enhance the immune response against the tumor. c. They offer a different approach to treating tumor cells. d. They control tumor growth as an approach to treating the tumor.

ANSWER: b 22. Which is an immune polysaccharide used in the treatment of fibrosarcomas? a. Interferon b. Acemannan c. Lokivetmab d. Filgrastim ANSWER: b 23. The adverse effects of this biologic response modifier are bone pain, diarrhea, and anorexia. What drug is it? a. Interferon b. Acemannan c. Lokivetmab d. Filgrastim ANSWER: d 24. Which of the following affects cells in the S phase and is not recommended for use in cats or pregnant animals? a. Cyclosporine b. Azathioprine c. Cyclophosphamide d. Toceranib .. Powered by Cognero.

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20 Antineoplastic and Immunomodulatory Drugs ANSWER: b 25. Which of the following is used to treat KCS in dogs, but has adverse effects of nephrotoxicity and vomiting? a. Cyclosporine b. Azathioprine c. Cyclophosphamide d. Toceranib ANSWER: a

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21 Vaccines 1. Which immunity is important in protecting against intracellular bacterial or viral infections, fungal diseases, and protozoal diseases? a. Nonspecific b. Humoral c. Cell-mediated d. Antibody-mediated ANSWER: d 2. When an animal receives antibodies from another animal, what type of immunity is that? a. Active b. Passive c. Cell-mediated d. Antibody-mediated ANSWER: b 3. Which of the following would be an artificially acquired active immunity? a. Cat getting feline leukemia from another cat. b. Cat gets vaccinated for feline leukemia. c. Cow gets tetanus antitoxin. d. Calf gets maternal antibodies through colostrum.

ANSWER: b 4. What is the point of a vaccine? a. To produce immunity without producing the disease. b. To give the disease in a controlled manner. c. To trigger the body’s response to an antigen by introducing antibodies. d. To build up the body’s defenses by increasing antibody production.

ANSWER: a 5. When are vaccines given? a. After the illness is fully established b. Before the illness is contracted c. When the illness is just beginning d. Once the illness is over ANSWER: b 6. What do vaccines trigger in the body? a. Boosters b. Pathogens c. Antigens d. Antibodies ANSWER: d .. Powered by Cognero.

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21 Vaccines 7. If the microbe is killed in the vaccine, the vaccine is known as a(n) _____. a. attenuate b. bacterin c. toxoid d. subunit ANSWER: b 8. Which vaccine is inactivated by heat or chemicals but is still able to stimulate antibody production? a. Attenuate b. Bacterin c. Toxoid d. Subunit ANSWER: c 9. What type of radiation kills the microorganisms in inactivated vaccines? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Delta d. Gamma ANSWER: d 10. Why are some vaccines called live vaccines? a. Because they are given to live animals b. Because they produce naturally acquired active immunities c. Because they are made from microorganisms that are fully virulent d. Because they allow naturally acquired passive immunity to develop in the animal ANSWER: c 11. Which of the following statements is true? a. Toxoids provide active immunity, while antitoxins provide passive immunity. b. Toxoids provide passive immunity, while antitoxins provide active immunity. c. Toxoids are collected from the plasma and antitoxins are collected from the DNA. d. Toxoids are short-lived, while antitoxins provide long-lasting effects.

ANSWER: a 12. Where are the antibodies for the antiserum collected from? a. Stem cells b. Plasma c. Bone marrow d. DNA ANSWER: b

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21 Vaccines 13. What is an example of an antitoxin vaccine? a. Tetanus b. Bovine anthrax c. Feline immunodeficiency virus d. Canine distemper ANSWER: a 14. Which of the following would have an active immune response? a. Polynucleotide b. Antitoxins c. Toxoids d. Antiseras ANSWER: c 15. Which type of vaccines directly inject DNA into bacterial plasmids? a. Polynucleotide b. Antitoxins c. Toxoids d. Antiseras ANSWER: a 16. In which recombinant technique is the microorganism’s ability to replicate deleted? a. Category I b. Category II c. Category III d. Category IV ANSWER: b 17. Which of the following is an example of a vaccine using antigens generated by gene cloning? a. Pseudorabies virus b. Newcastle disease virus c. Lyme disease d. Feline immunodeficiency virus ANSWER: c 18. The Newcastle disease virus was the first _____ vaccine approved by the USDA. a. polynucleotide b. genetically attenuated organism c. antigen generated by gene cloning d. live recombinant organism ANSWER: d

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21 Vaccines 19. When would an autogenous vaccine be used? a. When there is a large scale outbreak of a virus b. When there is an infectious outbreak on a specific farm c. When there is an infectious bacteria in DNA d. When the toxins have developed an immunity to previous vaccines ANSWER: b 20. Which of the following is an advantage of monovalent vaccines? a. They are convenient. b. They can be administered with fewer injections. c. They are less expensive than polyvalent vaccines. d. They allow the selection of the desired antigen to be administered.

ANSWER: d 21. When reconstituting a vaccine, which of the following may inactivate the proteins? a. Light shaking that dilutes the contents b. Vigorous mixing that leads to foaming c. Mixing too near the time of administration d. Using pH sensitive diluents ANSWER: b 22. What may happen if a vaccine is frozen? a. Cell multiplication b. Cell death c. Cell contamination d. Cell instability ANSWER: b 23. Where is the best place to store vaccines? a. Unpacked, out on a shelf by a window b. Unpacked, in a cabinet at room temperature c. In the original packaging, on a shelf d. Unpacked, in the refrigerator ANSWER: d 24. Which of the following vaccines is given to dogs? a. Bordetella bronchiseptica b. Campylobacter fetus c. Mannheimia hemolytica d. Fusobacterium necrophorum ANSWER: a

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21 Vaccines 25. Which of the following is given to protect against foot rot? a. Crotalus atrox b. Fusobacterium necrophorum c. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis d. Pasteurella multocida ANSWER: b

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22 Behavior-Modifying Drugs 1. Besides drug therapy, which of the following is a form of behavior modification? a. Consequences b. Rewards c. Isolation d. Punishment ANSWER: b 2. Behavior-modifying drugs affect more than just the behavior. They also affect all of the following except the ______. a. liver b. kidney c. heart d. stomach ANSWER: d 3. Which of the following is NOT a behavior-modifying drug category? a. Hormones b. Pheromones c. Antimetabolites d. Antidepressants ANSWER: c 4. Which of the following is used to treat forms of aggression? a. Benzodiazepines b. Buspirone c. Serotonin d. L-tryptophan ANSWER: a 5. Which drug would be used to treat urine spraying and creates no withdrawal problems? a. Benzodiazepines b. Buspirone c. Serotonin d. L-tryptophan ANSWER: b 6. Which drug is used to reduce fear responses and anxiety in cats associated with travel? a. Probiotics b. Gabapentin c. Tryptophan d. L-theanine ANSWER: b

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22 Behavior-Modifying Drugs 7. Which class of antianxiety drug does not cause sedation? a. Anxiolytic b. Anticonvulsants c. Benzodiazepines d. Azapirones ANSWER: d 8. What type of drug is clomipramine? a. Antianxiety b. Antidepressant c. Hormonal d. Antimetabolite ANSWER: b 9. How do SSRIs work? a. They selectively inhibit serotonin reuptake, increasing serotonin neurotransmission. b. They cause an increase in serotonin concentration at the nerve synapse by inhibiting serotonin uptake. c. They work by inhibiting the enzyme serotonin, thus reducing the destruction of neurotransmitters. d. They increase the concentration of neurotransmitters at postsynaptic receptors.

ANSWER: a 10. Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of SARIs? a. Sedation b. Lethargy c. Shaking d. Ataxia ANSWER: c 11. Which class of drug reduces the destruction of neurotransmitters and increases their free level in the CNS? a. MAOIs b. SARIs c. SSRIs d. TCAs ANSWER: a 12. Which drug should be absorbed through the oral mucosa and not be swallowed? a. Selegiline b. Medroxyprogesterone acetate c. Dexmedetomidine d. Melatonin ANSWER: c

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22 Behavior-Modifying Drugs 13. Which neurotransmitter communicates between nerves and muscles? a. Dopamine b. Acetylcholine c. Norepinephrine d. Serotonin ANSWER: b 14. This neurotransmitter is important in arousal and sleep as well as in preventing depression. What is it? a. Dopamine b. Acetylcholine c. Norepinephrine d. Serotonin ANSWER: d 15. Which neurotransmitter is important is preventing overexcitability or stimulation? a. GABA b. Acetylcholine c. Norepinephrine d. Serotonin ANSWER: a 16. Which of the following is NOT a potential adverse effect of TCAs? a. Vomiting b. Fever c. Anorexia d. Diarrhea ANSWER: b 17. What is a potential adverse effect of SARIs? a. Vomiting b. Fever c. Ataxia d. Diarrhea ANSWER: c 18. Due to the large number of adverse effects, which of the following should be the last of the drugs tried in treating animal behavior problems? a. Hormones b. Pheromones c. Antianxiety d. Antidepressants ANSWER: a .. Powered by Cognero.

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22 Behavior-Modifying Drugs 19. Which type of drug can have an adverse effect of bone marrow suppression? a. Hormones b. Pheromones c. Antianxiety d. Antidepressants ANSWER: a 20. Which drug has no significant adverse effects? a. Hormones b. Pheromones c. Antianxiety d. Antidepressants ANSWER: b 21. Which drug class would be used to treat fear-related anxieties? a. Tricyclics b. Azapirones c. Tryptophan d. Alpha (α)-casozepine ANSWER: d 22. What is used to manage excessive vocalization, jumping, trembling, and house soiling? a. Alpha (α)-casozepine b. Probiotics c. Partial GABA agonist d. Amino acid derivative ANSWER: b 23. What is believed to provide a substance that marks territory so that a cat does not mark with urine? a. DAP b. EQP c. EAP d. FFP ANSWER: d 24. All of the following are used to treat noise phobias except ______. a. medroxyprogesterone acetate b. clomipramine c. dexmedetomidine d. benzodiazepines ANSWER: a

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22 Behavior-Modifying Drugs 25. What is used to treat cognitive canine dysfunction? a. Medroxyprogesterone acetate b. Selegiline c. Dexmedetomidine d. Melatonin ANSWER: b

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23 Herbal Therapeutics 1. What type of veterinary alternative medicine involves manipulation and adjustments of specific joints and cranial structures? a. Acupuncture b. Chiropractic c. Physical therapy d. Homeopathy ANSWER: b 2. What type of alternative medicine believes that an individual’s inner force is out of balance? a. Holistic veterinary medicine b. Chinese traditional herbal medicine c. Veterinary acupuncture d. Western herbal medicine ANSWER: d 3. Which alternative medicine uses multiple herbs in one remedy? a. Nutraceutical medicine b. Chinese traditional herbal medicine c. Veterinary acupuncture d. Western herbal medicine ANSWER: b 4. Chinese medicine based its prescriptions on all of the following except? a. Yin b. Qi c. Xiao d. Yang ANSWER: c 5. Why can herbs not be sold or promoted as drugs in the United States? a. Because they are too potent b. Because they do not require FDA approval c. Because they can only treat but not cure disease d. Because they are natural substances and not chemically made ANSWER: b 6. Which of the following factors do not affect herb quality? a. Environment b. Plant c. Handling d. Desire ANSWER: d .. Powered by Cognero.

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23 Herbal Therapeutics 7. What statement is allowable on the label of herbal supplements? a. Promotes regularity b. Prevents heart disease c. Cures arthritis d. Treats high cholesterol ANSWER: a 8. Which of the following statements is true? a. Safety and efficacy are guaranteed, and outside monitoring programs are currently available to identify and judge the potency of these herbs. b. Because herbal products are unregulated, the concentrations of active ingredients can vary between dose forms. c. The FDA and manufacturers have devised parameters for quality control. d. The DSHEA permits general health claims such as “these supplements are intended to diagnose, treat, cure, or prevent any disease.”

ANSWER: b 9. Which herb form is best known for human patients? a. Ointments b. Teas c. Poultices d. Extracts ANSWER: b 10. Which herbal form allows for consistent efficacy? a. Ointments b. Teas c. Poultices d. Extracts ANSWER: d 11. What is made by boiling fresh or dried herbs, squeezing out excess liquid, cooling the herb, and applying it to the skin? a. Ointments b. Teas c. Poultices d. Extracts ANSWER: c 12. Which herb is used to reduce aging effects on the nervous system? a. Gingko b. St. John’s Wort c. Saw Palmetto .. Powered by Cognero.

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23 Herbal Therapeutics d. Cranberry ANSWER: a 13. Which herb is used to treat behavior disorders such as separation anxiety and aggression? a. Echinacea b. St. John’s Wort c. Saw Palmetto d. Ginseng ANSWER: b 14. To treat anorexia and feline leukemia, consider using _____. a. garlic b. gingko c. goldenseal d. ginseng ANSWER: d 15. If an animal’s owner is opposed to using a prescription flea medicine, which herb can they try? a. Garlic b. Gingko c. Goldenseal d. Ginseng ANSWER: a 16. Which herb is used with cats and dogs to maintain healthy skin, normal growth in young, and lactation in females? a. Echinacea b. Evening primrose c. Saw Palmetto d. Goldenseal ANSWER: b 17. Which herb should not be used with pregnant animals because it can stimulate uterine contractions if you are not careful with the dosage? a. Echinacea b. Evening primrose c. Saw Palmetto d. Goldenseal ANSWER: d 18. Too much of this herb or prolonged use can cause kidney stones. What herb is it? a. Ginger b. Garlic .. Powered by Cognero.

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23 Herbal Therapeutics c. Cranberry d. Valerian ANSWER: c 19. Which of the following is used as a sleep aid and to calm hyperactivity in dogs? a. Ginger b. Hawthorn berry c. Milk thistle d. Valerian ANSWER: d 20. Which herb will help repair liver cells damaged by toxic substances? a. Ginger b. Cannabis c. Milk thistle d. Valerian ANSWER: c 21. Although this herb can treat intestinal disorders, it can also inhibit platelet clumping. What is it? a. Ginger b. Cannabis c. Echinacea d. Goldenseal ANSWER: a 22. What does the Quality Seal mean? a. The company is compliant with stringent labeling guidelines for all products. b. The product is FDA approved. c. The product has passed an independent audit every three years. d. The company has demonstrated compliance with some standard operating procedures (SOPs) for production processes.

ANSWER: a 23. What is good advice for a client who wants to use herbal supplements? a. There are no known herb-drug interactions, so any are safe. b. Since herbal dosages are unknown, more is better. c. All herbs are standardized, so any on the shelf are fine to use. d. Herb use in pregnant or nursing animals may not be wise.

ANSWER: d 24. During an office visit with a client, you should do all of the following except ______. a. treat clients who are using or who want to use alternative or complementary medicines .. Powered by Cognero.

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23 Herbal Therapeutics b. diagnose the animal’s condition accurately c. ask the client whether they give herbs or other supplements to their animals d. document all herb or supplement uses in the animal’s medical record ANSWER: a 25. Who of the following may not benefit from herbal supplements? a. The depressed b. The healthy c. The very old d. The active ANSWER: c

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