TEST BANK for for Canadian Human Resource Management 12th Edition by Hermann Schwind, Krista Uggersl

A) Chartered Professional in Human Resources B) Corporate Council on Education C) Human Resource Professional Association D) Business Development Bank of Canada E) Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development 5) Which of the following tasks would a human resource manager carry out during a recessionary period?

A) Providing better benefits B) Implementing employee layoffs C) Creating a culture of innovation within the organization D) Recruiting employees with new skill sets E) Order managers in other departments to reduce expenditures 6) Which of the following is an activity that HR professionals must continually focus on when making choices about formulating an HR strategy?

A) Monitoring demographic trends B) Adjusting the organizational mission C) Conducting program evaluations D) Analyzing the organizational culture E) Identifying opportunities, risks, and challenges 7) Which of the following is causing increased expectations of human groups departments within organizations?

A) The decreasing retirement age B) The high cost of actively disengaged employees C) Canada's low ranking among exporting nations D) The lower quality in production due to automation E) The lack of multiculturalism in Canada 8)

What strategic step might an organization take to protect their sensitive data?

A) Move all their storage to the cloud B) Hire a cyber-security expert C) Continuously back-up data D) Only permit employees to use corporate-issued hardware E) Ensuring its employees have hacking skills Version 1

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9) Which of the following is of great importance in organizations that have flexible structures?

A) Preserving the existing division of work B) Hiring specialists for each division C) Creating an organization-wide perspective D) Introducing training systems that foster functional expertise E) Establishing narrow job classes 10) Which of the following is defined as "the use of rules, competition, and teamwork to encourage engagement by mimicking games"?

A) Cultural mosaic B) Gamification C) Automation D) Demographic management E) Situational approach 11) Which of the following is defined as "an examination of the human resource policies, practices, and systems of a firm (or division) to eliminate deficiencies and improve ways to achieve goals"?

A) A human resource audit B) An environmental scan C) Knowledge management D) A mission statement E) Demographic change

12)

Which of the following is a sociocultural challenge facing Canadian organizations today?

A) Gender balance in the workforce B) Global trade C) The shift towards knowledge workers D) Ethics E) The generational shift

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13)

Which of the following is an outcome of HR strategy evaluation?

A) Firms abandon practices with low performance potential B) Legal compliance takes longer C) Human resource costs increase D) Making improvements to the information system become more challenging E) Alignment with the organizational strategy is disrupted 14)

Gains in productivity give managers the ability to do which of the following?

A) Focus more on predicting employee performance B) Save scarce resources C) Improve working conditions D) Increase employee benefits E) Provide better pay to employees

15)

"Using ethical practices" is an example of which type of organizational goal?

A) Not-for-profit B) Leadership C) Social D) Technological E) Ergonomic

16)

Which of the following is an example of a service industry?

A) Education B) Mining C) Fishing D) Forestry E) Agriculture

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17) Which of the following is a technological force that allows for more flexibility in operations?

A) Automation B) Connectivity C) Flexible work design D) Knowledge management E) Global trade

18) The ratio of an organization's outputs (goods and services) to its inputs (people, capital, materials, energy) describes which of the following?

A) Sociocultural forces B) Mechanization C) Flexible work design D) Automation E) Productivity

19)

Human resource audits involve which of the following activities?

A) Setting a corporate mission B) Monitoring labour market trends C) Analyzing organizational character D) Optimizing for high performance E) Program evaluation

20) Which of the following describes an outcome associated with moving to a mechanized process?

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A) Decreased standards of quality in production B) Increased cost C) Increased effort to change setups for small production batches D) Decreased operational flexibility E) Increased reliability in operations

21)

Which of the following is a challenge associated with automation?

A) Lower predictability in operations B) Lower standards of quality in production C) Decreased reliability in operations D) Negative union attitudes E) Less flexibility in operations

22) Canada exports more than the United States on a per capita basis due to the combination of a relatively small population and a large natural resource base. Which economic force is this an example of?

A) Productivity improvement B) Economic cycles C) Innovation improvement D) Global trade E) Connectivity

23) Which of the following is a continuously changing internal factor that makes it important for human resource strategies to be evaluated regularly?

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A) Technology B) Environments C) Government policies D) Role definitions E) Demographics

24) Which of the following indicates that that the importance of human resource management activity is being recognized?

A) The varied capability of practicing HR experts B) The higher status given to human resource experts in job ads C) The lack of growth in the field of human resource management D) The limited professional opportunities for human resource specialists today E) The ability to become certified in human resources

25)

Which of the following describes the role of proactive human resource management?

A) It allows staff to ensure their family or friends are hired by the organization B) It focuses on how to best deploy HR activities to solve problems as they arise C) It allows minor problems to become major ones D) It focuses only on identifying challenges arising outside of the organization E) It anticipates problems before they impact the organization

26)

Which of the following is describes the role of a human resource department?

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A) It is critical to the success and survival of the organization B) It has the authority to order other managers to accept their ideas C) Its contribution should be kept at a level appropriate to an organization's needs and resources D) It is a required department within all organizations E) It eliminates the need for individual managers to take responsibility for the day-to-day management of human resources

27)

A department which has staff authority has which of the following?

A) Control over the organization's entire staff B) The ability to direct manager decisions about how to best handle staffing issues C) The authority to make decisions about production D) The power to advise managers in other departments E) The authority to order managers to accept their ideas

28)

An organization's mission statement does which of the following?

A) It specifies what activities the organization has pursued in the past B) It is the product of all organizational features and how they are arranged C) It systematically reviews the current state of human resource practices in an organization D) It identifies which not-for-profits will benefit from the organization's success E) It gives the organization its own special identity, character, and path of development

29)

Organizational strategies are

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A) small-scale.

B) responsive to uncertain environments.

C) past-oriented.

D) designed to focus on short-term value.

E) very similar, especially within the same market.

30)

Which of the following is a benefit of conducting a human resource audit?

A) It ensures timely compliance with legal requirements B) It aligns the HR department goals with the goals of other departments C) It reveals corrupt activities in other departments D) It stimulates variety in the application of human resource policies E) It increases human resource costs

31) The participation rate of biologically female workers is higher than that of biologically male workers in which of the following industries?

A) Wholesale trade B) Oil and gas C) Transportation D) Manufacturing E) Health care

32) Giving a department the right to make decisions usually made by line managers or top management is an example of

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A) functional authority.

B) a regulation.

C) line authority.

D) human resource management.

E) staff authority.

33) Which of the following is an example of a demographic challenge facing Canadian organizations?

A) Automation B) Diversity C) Knowledge workers D) Global trade E) Aging population

34)

How often should human resource strategies be evaluated?

A) Once a year B) Once every 5 years C) Once they have been evaluated they do not need to be re-evaluated D) Continuously E) When a new human resource manager is hired

35) The decline in Canada's competitiveness in the international marketplace is an example of which economic force?

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A) Economic cycles B) Global trade C) Productivity improvement D) Connectivity E) Innovation improvement

36) What progressive human resource management strategy is being used to create a culture of innovation within organizations?

A) Data and analytics B) Encouraging higher educational attainment C) Recruiting innovative staff D) Automation E) Human resource audits

37)

Which of the following is a benefit of remote work arrangements?

A) There is a lower risk of data breaches B) Less training is needed C) Work requiring special equipment can be performed away from the workplace D) Greenhouse gases are reduced E) It is easier to ensure employee workstations are safe

38)

Which of the following is an example of unethical business practices?

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A) Avoiding conflict of interest B) High executive salaries C) Security of information D) Insider trading E) Environmental protection

39) Which of the following is a group of human resource activities that are now more critical to competitive survival than ever before?

A) Compensation B) Benefit packages C) Succession planning D) Automation E) Employee development

40) Which of the following is defined as the shift toward converting work that was traditionally done by hand to being completed by mechanical or electronic devices?

A) Automation B) Diversity C) Demographic changes D) Email E) Sociocultural forces

41)

Workers who fall below adequate levels of literacy

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A) make up less than 10 percent of Canadians aged 16 or over.

B) may be major contributors to safety violations.

C) increase overall productivity levels.

D) are in high demand.

E) are not recognized as a problem.

42)

Managers with line authority are

A) responsible for ensuring compliance with organizational policies.

B) involved in planning and organizing activities related to hiring a new employee.

C) responsible for promotions and job assignments.

D) required to establish grievance handling procedures.

E) active in negotiations with the bargaining unit.

43)

Which of the following describes Generation X employees?

A) They are averse to hard work B) Their biggest fear is boredom C) They prefer being passive participants in decision making D) They show disdain for a "command and control" culture E) They place little value on work-life balance

44) Which of the following characteristics make Generation X employees very different from baby boomer employees?

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A) They view work as a career B) They are impressed by power C) They are team-oriented D) They seek ongoing feedback E) They mistrust most businesses

45) Which of the following is a key area identified in the Chartered Professional in Human Resources Competency Framework?

A) Operations management B) Strategy C) Product development D) Promotions E) defining job roles

46) Which of the following is one of the 6 stages of moral development identified by Kohlberg as guiding ethical behaviour?

A) Advancement B) Reciprocity C) Transitional D) Learning E) Psychological factors

47) Faced with an aging population, which of the following is a challenge that awaits human resource specialists in the future?

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A) a need for more compensation B) Pressure to hire the children of senior executives C) increased demand for fixed work schedules D) Coordination of government benefits with company benefits E) The declining age of retirement

48)

People are the core of all social organizations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

49) Organizational goals are the organization's short- and long-term outcomes that human resource management aims to support and enable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

50) The field of human resource management is unrelated to key organizational goals, product-market plans, technology, and innovation. ⊚ ⊚

51)

true false

All organizations have a dedicated human resource department. ⊚ ⊚

true false

52) A new venture or micro-business might initially have the entrepreneur perform HR related tasks.

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⊚ ⊚

53)

Human resource management operates separately from the framework of an organization. ⊚ ⊚

54)

true false

Employee salaries account for a maximum of 30% of organizational operating expenses. ⊚ ⊚

55)

true false

true false

A single HR strategy can accomplish different corporate strategies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

56) Many organizations now include organizational strategies that directly consider their employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) Economic boom and bust business cycles are experienced the same way across the country. ⊚ ⊚

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58)

The economic forces facing Canadian organizations include big data trends. ⊚ ⊚

59)

true false

Canada's international trade advantage is due to its large population. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) HR professionals can directly contribute to improved productivity by improving the quality of work life for employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) Recruiting innovative staff to create a culture of innovation within the organization is an example of a progressive human resource strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) Firms with nonroutine production processes (such as advertising firms), benefit more from flexible human resource practices than those that focus on predicting employee performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) Integrating digital information systems has allowed for more effective knowledge management.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Extractive industries (e.g., mining, fishing, oil and gas) currently account for most of the national wealth in Canada. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) The recent shift away from employment in extractive industries has increased the need for innovative thinking within organizations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) The move towards a knowledge-based economy is a trend witnessed only in North America. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Employees are hiding and withholding knowledge now that organizations rely more on knowledge workers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Educational attainment is defined as "the average academic level required to work at a particular job." ⊚ ⊚

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69)

Educational attainment is keeping pace with the growing knowledge-based economy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) Personal management skills were identified by the Corporate Council on Education as foundational for employability in the future. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) The aging population impacts human resource management the same way across all geographical locations. ⊚ ⊚

72)

There is a growing population of youth workers entering the Canadian workforce. ⊚ ⊚

73)

true false

true false

In today's workplace, leaders may be faced with up to five generations of workers. ⊚ ⊚

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74) Sociocultural forces are defined as "challenges facing a firm's decision makers because of cultural differences among employees or changes in core cultural or social values occurring at the societal level." ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Canada continues to be a two-language nation, where the majority of Canadians have either English or French as their mother tongue. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) When an ethical decision is based on the decision-maker's personal values and preferences, the decision-maker is using the situational approach to determine the ethically "right" behaviour. ⊚ ⊚

77)

true false

Cyber espionage is an example of an ethical issue confronting Canadian firms today. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) When objectives can be achieved in several acceptable ways, the key to success is choosing the path that best aligns with individual stakeholder needs. ⊚ ⊚

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79) Seniority-based pay is an example of an HR practice that would work best when organizations are consciously making an effort to create an egalitarian, participative, and entrepreneurial work climate. ⊚ ⊚

80)

true false

New workers usually fit the organization's needs exactly, reducing the need for training. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) HR managers should focus on evaluating past performance to develop a future orientation. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

Human Resource audits can be performed for one division or an entire company. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) Human resource managers must constantly scan their professional and social environment for clues about the future. ⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

Departments become less specialized as an organization becomes more complex.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

85) When an HR team is created, the manager no longer has a key role in administering HR practices. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Human resource managers do not have the authority to order other managers in other departments to accept their ideas. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Functional authority gives the HR department the right to make decisions usually made by line managers or top management. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Human resource professionals need to be well versed in data-driven decision making and financial operations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) The Certified Human Resources Professional (CHRP) accreditation is granted by each provincial HR association. ⊚ ⊚

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22

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Answer Key Test name: ch 1 1) D 2) C 3) A 4) C 5) B 6) E 7) B 8) B 9) C 10) B 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) A 18) E 19) E 20) E 21) D 22) D 23) D 24) B 25) E 26) C Version 1

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27) D 28) E 29) B 30) A 31) E 32) A 33) E 34) D 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) D 39) C 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) D 44) E 45) B 46) B 47) D 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE Version 1

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57) FALSE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE Version 1

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87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE

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Student name:__________ 1)

Work is increasingly being organized around which of the following?

A) Activities and processes B) Teams and processes C) Functions and teams D) Processes and activities E) Functions and activities

2) Which of the following is an advantage of using employee logs for collecting job analysis information?

A) They require little effort from job holders and HR specialists B) Entries become more accurate and frequent overtime C) Managers and workers see them as helpful and favour their introduction D) They are a quick, cost-efficient method of collecting job analysis information E) The logs can be quite accurate if entries are made over the entire job cycle

3) There are three main differences between competency-based job analyses and other forms of job analyses. Which of the following is one of these differences?

A) Competencies are job-specific, contributing to success in only one job within the organization B) Competencies are uniform across job roles C) Competencies do not support the firm's vision, strategic direction, or values D) Competencies contribute to both job performance and organizational success E) Competencies need to be enacted the same way for every job to ensure strong performance

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4) When conducting an interview to collect job analysis data, the interviewer should collect a variety of information. Which of the following is a human characteristic that the interviewer may need to capture?

A) The level of decision-making authority associated with the job B) The noise exposure inherent to the job C) Information about health and safety features of the job D) A description of how performance is measured for the job E) An outline of the type and amount of experience required for the job

5)

Which of the following may occur as a result of job rotation?

A) Changes to the relationships between tasks, activities, and objectives B) Faster adoption of effective training techniques C) Increased monotony of highly specialized work D) Improvements to worker self-image and personal growth E) Workers become highly competent in one job rather than several jobs

6) Which of the following is an organizational factor that should be considered when designing jobs?

A) Feedback B) Workforce availability C) Job enrichment D) Autonomy E) Work flow

7) In the past, many individuals in Canada were willing to work for long hours doing difficult jobs. However, today workers are more educated and expect a higher quality of work life. This is an example of which element that should be considered when designing jobs?

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A) Work practices B) Social expectations C) Environmental considerations D) Task significance E) Job specifications

8)

Which of the following is a key employee consideration when designing jobs?

A) Efficiency B) Ergonomics C) Task identity D) Job rotation E) Work practices

9) Which of the following is a major Human Resource Management activity that relies on job analysis information?

A) Selecting an appropriate organizational strategy B) Outlining the organizational mission C) Conducting an environmental scan D) Planning future human resource requirements E) Determining employee career paths

10)

Likely targets of job analysis are jobs that

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A) have not required any recent alterations to the work environment.

B) are easy to learn or perform.

C) rarely have to be filled by new employees.

D) are unimportant to the success of the organization.

E) are affected by new technology.

11) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using direct observation as a means of collecting job- and performance-related information?

A) Workers may perform differently when they know they are being watched B) It cannot confirm doubts emerging from data collected using other methods C) It cannot be used when language barriers exist D) When analysts question data from other techniques, it cannot remove doubts E) It only captures irregularly occurring activities

12)

Which of the following is a nonhuman source of job data?

A) Job incumbent B) Subordinates C) Job experts D) Organization charts E) Supervisors

13) Job analysis consists of three phases. Which of the following is part of phase 2, which involves collecting job analysis information?

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A) Outlining job specifications B) Determining sources of job data C) Changing HR systems D) Designing HRIS E) Redesigning work flow

14) When creating a job analysis questionnaire, which of the following may be considered under the category of "working conditions"?

A) Education and training B) An outline of the equipment used C) Necessary skills and attributes D) A description of how performance is measured E) Physical surroundings encountered on the job

15)

A competency is defined as?

A) The specific tasks and responsibilities to be performed by an individual B) The sequence of and balance between jobs in an organization needed to produce the firm's goods or services C) The knowledge, skill, ability, or behaviour required to be successful on the job D) The part of a job description that includes the job title, location, and status E) A group of leaders within the organization

16) According to the Job Characteristics Model, which of the following outcomes occurs when employees do meaningful work, have high levels of responsibility, and are knowledgeable about the outcomes of their work?

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A) Low motivation B) High absenteeism C) Low Satisfaction D) High Turnover E) High performance

17) Human Resource departments use a combination of tools to improve the work experience for workers in routine jobs. Which of the following describes job enrichment?

A) Adding more responsibility, autonomy, and control to a job B) Increasing the number of tasks to a job to increase the job cycle C) Moving employees from one job to another D) Work that is organized around teams and processes E) Providing workers with more feedback

18)

In the context of human resource management, what does the acronym NOC stand for?

A) National Organization of Cosmetologists B) National Optometrists Conference C) Norwegian Organic Commission D) National Organizational Classification E) National Occupational Classification

19) Industrial engineers suggest task specialization for improving efficiency among assembly line workers. Why would task specialization improve efficiency for these workers?

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A) The work involves a short job cycle B) The work demands large investments in training C) The work consists of many different tasks D) The work requires completing highly complex tasks E) The work prevents workers from learning the job quickly

20) Which of the following is a fast and cost-effective way of collecting job analysis information?

A) Questionnaires B) Interviews C) Employee logs D) Observation E) Focus Groups

21) Job analysis information is usually sufficient for establishing performance standards for jobs with which of the following features?

A) Performance that requires substantial interpretation B) Performance that is measured across very long work cycles C) Performance standards that are only fully understood by supervisors D) Performance that is difficult to measure E) Performance that is quantified

22)

Ergonomics focuses on which of the following?

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A) The sequence of jobs in an organization needed to produce the firm's goods B) Achieving maximal output with minimal input C) Giving workers control over their work and their response to the work environment D) Giving workers the feeling of pride that results from doing an entire piece of work E) How human beings physically interface with their work

23)

Which of the following is a job responsibility captured by conducting a job analysis?

A) A description of safety and health features B) The physical attributes needed to perform the job C) A job summary D) Information about decision-making authority E) A description of factors that contribute to successful performance

24) Jobs are at the core of every organization's productivity and must therefore be understood for HR to be effective. Which of the following describes an advantage of having several identical positions within an organization as opposed to hundreds of different positions?

A) Employee output increases, boosting organizational productivity B) The organization is better able to meet the demands of society, customers, employees, and other stakeholders C) Profits increase for the organization D) Meeting customer needs becomes easier E) HR professionals do not need to collect details about each position separately

25) Which of the following details can be found in the job identity section of a job description?

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A) What the job requires B) How the job is done C) Where the job is located D) The nature of any travel requirements E) If the job description received approval from jobholders and supervisors

26) According to a survey conducted by Glassdoor, which of the following aspects has been cited as being different from new hires' expectations set during the hiring process?

A) The office space B) Compensation C) Employee benefits package D) Job responsibilities E) Training requirements

27) Which of the following solutions could address the diminished visual capabilities of an aging workforce?

A) Making mechanical tilters available for worker use B) Making improvements to lighting arrangements C) Installing vacuum lifts D) Purchasing screw guns E) Ensuring that all tables are adjustable

28)

After selected jobholders review job descriptions, they should be approved by

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A) Supervisors B) Line managers C) All other jobholders D) Investors E) The CEO

29) Which of the following describes a challenge associated with competency-based job analyses?

A) Competencies only support the firm's vision indirectly B) Competencies offer minimal contributions to the success of the organization C) Competencies that become increasingly job-spanning may not be legally defensible D) Competencies often apply to only one job in an organization E) Competencies cannot vary in importance across job levels

30)

Job performance standards are:

A) Set and cannot be changed once established B) Targets for employee efforts C) Susceptible to change, based upon an employee's gender D) Defined by the Canadian Standards Association E) Based solely on industry standards

31)

Which of the following factors give rise to work practices?

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A) Tradition B) Autonomy C) Expectations of workers D) Workforce availability E) Task significance

32) According to the Job Characteristics Model, which of the following job characteristics leads to fatigue and errors when it is lacking?

A) Task efficiency B) Work flow C) Ergonomics D) Variety E) Feedback

33) In today's fast-changing environments, job analysis will continue to be relevant for legal compliance and defensibility in the event of a court action. ⊚ ⊚

true false

34) Global competition, fast technological obsolescence, changing worker profiles, and rapid increases in knowledge requirements have made it difficult to create accurate and up-to-date job descriptions. ⊚ ⊚

35)

true false

A job is a collection of tasks and responsibilities performed by an individual.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

36) When job crafting is offered to increase job resources and add challenging job demands, employees display higher work engagement. ⊚ ⊚

37) jobs.

true false

The first phase of the job analysis process involves identifying the data required to study ⊚ ⊚

true false

38) In unionized organizations, job analysis steps have to meet the various provisions of the collective agreement. ⊚ ⊚

true false

39) Job analysis questionnaires are checklists that seek to collect information about jobs in a customized, non-uniform manner. ⊚ ⊚

true false

40) Questionnaires are particularly important when collecting information from human sources. ⊚ ⊚

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41) The working conditions section of a job description contains information about health and safety hazards and travel requirements associated with the job. ⊚ ⊚

true false

42) Performance standards describe to what level an employee needs to be doing the job to be a good performer versus an average or a poor performer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

43) Required safety training and equipment are both human characteristics that would be included on a job description. ⊚ ⊚

true false

44) The critical incident method involves identifying and describing specific events when an employee performed very well and when that employee performed poorly. ⊚ ⊚

true false

45) When collecting job data, analysts usually talk to a limited number of workers and then ask supervisors to verify the information. ⊚ ⊚

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46) Focus groups are face-to-face meetings with five to seven knowledgeable experts on a job and a facilitator to collect job- and performance-related information ⊚ ⊚

true false

47) When analysts use interviews to collect job information, they may use the job analysis questionnaire as a guide but can add other questions if needed. ⊚ ⊚

48)

true false

When using interviews to collect job data, only line managers are interviewed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

49) When a facilitator brings together five to seven experts on a job to discuss the job duties and responsibilities, it is called a brainstorming group. ⊚ ⊚

true false

50) An employee log is an approach to collecting job- and performance-related information by asking the jobholder to summarize tasks, activities, and challenges in a diary format. ⊚ ⊚

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51) The observation method of job analysis data collection faces issues of misunderstood questions, incomplete responses, and low response rates. ⊚ ⊚

true false

52) Since each method of collecting job- and performance-related information has its shortcomings, analysts often use a combination of two or more techniques concurrently. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) A drawback of using focus groups to collect job data is that they prevent participant ideas from building off of one another to gain consensus on job duties and responsibilities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) Once information about various jobs has been collected, it informs job descriptions, job specifications, job standards, and competency models. ⊚ ⊚

55)

Observation is the most common method of collecting data for job analysis. ⊚ ⊚

56)

true false

true false

A job description is a collection of tasks and responsibilities performed by an individual.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

57) "Display and stock merchandise on shelves" is an example of a responsibility on a job description. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Having selected jobholders and their supervisors approve a job description is a way to further test the job description. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) The two major attributes of jobs used for classification criteria in the NOC were skill level and skill type. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) The first digit in the National Occupational Classification represents the skill type category. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) In the National Occupational Classification, the second digit represents the education level. ⊚ ⊚

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62) A job specification is a written statement that explains what a job demands of jobholders and the human skills and factors required. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) "Works in a well-ventilated office" would be included in a job specification to highlight the physical demands of a job. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) It would be better to include "must lift heavy materials" than "lifts 10-pound boxes" in a job specification. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) According to a survey by Glassdoor, employee morale was the most commonly cited aspect of jobs that was different from what new hires expected. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) When measured performance is misaligned with job performance standards, corrective action is taken to change either the standards or the feedback to improve actual job performance. ⊚ ⊚

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67)

Job performance standards are developed from job analysis information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Job descriptions can be instrumental in ensuring that new hires' expectations about a job are met. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Industry standards may be used as benchmarks for performance in service functions such as HR. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) A competency matrix indicates to what level multiple jobs across a firm should have mastery of each competency. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) The need for an engineer to have the technical expertise at skill level 6 would be included on a competency matrix. ⊚ ⊚

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72) When competencies are no longer supported by specific duties or tasks any decisions made based on these competencies may not be legally defensible. ⊚ ⊚

73)

true false

Competencies are identified after carefully analyzing the work of the high performers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) Job design identifies job duties, characteristics, competencies, and sequences without considering technology, workforce, organization character, or the environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Human resources are less important in organizations today because worldwide competition and complex technology has resulted in job elimination due to automation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Job families are groups of different jobs that are closely related by similar duties, responsibilities, skills, or job elements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) Efficiency is concerned with achieving minimal output with maximal expenditure of resources.

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⊚ ⊚

78)

A short job cycle is created when workers are limited to a few repetitive tasks. ⊚ ⊚

79)

true false

true false

Short job cycles require large investments in worker training. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Work flow is defined as the sequence of and balance between jobs in an organization needed to produce the firm's goods or services. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Ergonomics is the study of the relationship between the economy and the work environment. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

The Job Characteristics Model states that 5 characteristics result in 4 psychological states. ⊚ ⊚

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83) In a job context, autonomy is defined as having control over one's work and one's response to the environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) Task identity is a set of codes that outlines the amount of training needed and type of work being performed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Creating the wick on candles but not getting to view the completed candle would be an example of a job that lacks task identity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) When gardeners and landscapers know that a community values their work, their job can be considered to have high levels of task significance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Feedback is information that helps workers evaluate the success or failure of an action or system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Task significance is the impact which one's activities and responsibilities have on the work flow.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

89) Job enlargement adds more responsibility, autonomy, and control to a job, giving the worker greater powers to plan, do, and evaluate job performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) The environmental factors that should be considered when designing jobs include workforce availability and social expectations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) Longstanding job ads for janitors in industrializing nations is an example of an environmental consideration that will affect job design. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: ch 2 1) B 2) E 3) D 4) E 5) D 6) E 7) B 8) C 9) D 10) E 11) A 12) D 13) B 14) E 15) C 16) E 17) A 18) E 19) A 20) A 21) E 22) E 23) D 24) E 25) C 26) D Version 1

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27) B 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) D 33) TRUE 34) TRUE 35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) FALSE 38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) TRUE 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) FALSE Version 1

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57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE Version 1

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87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1) Which of the following describes how crowdsourcing helps companies meet their resources requirements?

A) By making a formal agreement with a third party about performing a service B) By bringing together an external team to work with an internal team C) By outsourcing a function once performed by employees to an undefined network of people D) By entering into a service agreement with a freelancer E) By dividing duties of a single position between two or more employees

2) When deciding on an appropriate HRIS to match their needs, which of the following should be considered by organizations?

A) Job design B) Turnover C) Managerial decision needs D) Competitors E) External supply of human resources

3)

Which of the following describes job sharing?

A) Two or more people do the same job at the same time B) Duties of one position are divided between two or more employees C) Available work is assigned to one full-time employee and one part-time employee D) One employee completes the work while another collects compensation for the work E) Employees engage in social loafing

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4) Which of the following is a strategic and proactive process used to determine future human resources requirements, as well as the business processes needed to support those resources?

A) Program measurement B) Extrapolation C) Nominal group technique D) New-venture analysis E) Human resource planning

5)

Which of the following is the first step in the human resource planning process?

A) Develop HR objectives B) Establish and conduct evaluation C) Assess supply of resources D) Forecast demand for resources E) Design and implement workforce systems

6)

Advances in technology have enabled HR to do which of the following?

A) Focus more on administrative transactions B) Enable employees to speak with HR leaders in person to acquire needed information C) Automate day-to-day activities D) Encourage managers and HR professionals to work separately E) Provide limited service delivery to stakeholders

7) An organization offering employees money to leave the organization early is an example of which practice?

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A) A buyout B) Severance pay C) A bonus D) Unemployment insurance E) Performance rewards

8)

Which of the following is a technique for estimating future human resource demand?

A) Replacement charts B) Labour market analysis C) Transition matrices D) The Delphi technique E) Skills inventories

9) Greater knowledge of current employees allows human resource departments to more effectively plan which of the following?

A) Product development B) Sales goals C) Career planning D) Organizational mission statement E) Market entry timing

10)

Which of the following is a major cause of human resource demand?

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A) Changes to recruitment policies B) Technological changes C) Cultural changes D) Decreases in global trade E) Unethical business practices

11)

Indexation is a method of estimating which of the following?

A) Budgets B) Unemployment rates C) The internal supply of human resources D) Organizational strategy E) Future employment needs

12) A means of identifying an internal supply of candidates for future human resource demands is a

A) Markov analysis.

B) labour market analysis.

C) demographic analysis.

D) job analysis.

E) economic analysis.

13) Which of the following is an external cause that may drive the demand for human resources in the future?

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A) Budgets B) Revenue forecasts C) Demographic impacts D) Job design E) Strategic plans

14)

Which of the following is the most common first response to an employee surplus?

A) Job sharing B) Hiring freeze C) Early retirement offers D) Termination E) Overtime

15)

Part-time work is?

A) A way for organizations to reduce labour costs B) Usually paid benefits C) A strategy that increases employee work hours D) Associated with low public costs E) Difficult to align with peak workforce demands

16)

Flexible work arrangements can do which of the following?

A) Outsource functions to an undefined network of people B) Minimize business flexibility C) Enable HR departments to better respond to employee needs D) Increase costs E) Reduce organizational efficiency

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17) Which of the following methods of addressing shortages in human resources leverages the supply of existing employees within an organization?

A) Developing employees internally B) Contracting work out C) Outsourcing D) Crowdsourcing E) Hiring part-time employees

18) An organization facing a shortage in human capital is looking to implement a flexible work arrangement to enable its resources to be transferred when needed. Which of the following arrangements should they choose?

A) Overtime B) Flexible retirements C) Floats and transfers D) Developing employees internally E) Job sharing

19)

Estimating future resource needs and changes is called

A) Retrospection B) Introspection C) Forecasting D) Supply projections E) Demand sourcing

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20) Which of the following is a managerial tool that can help managers make better decisions by providing them with the objective and reliable information needed to plan functions such as salary administration, training, and union-management negotiation?

A) Human resource accounting B) Human resource auditing C) Human relations accounting D) Human relations accountability E) Human relations auditing

21) Which of the following aims to have the right people with the right skills at the right time?

A) Budget forecasts B) Human resource planning C) The delphi technique D) Indexation E) Simulation modelling

22)

In the human resource business, HRIS stands for:

A) Human resource information standards B) Human relations information system C) Human resource information system D) Human relations information standards E) Human resource identification system

23) Which of the following occurs when a firm's internal supply of workers exceeds its demand?

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A) Human resource shortage B) Demographic challenge C) Human resource surplus D) Labour market division E) Human resource division

24) Which of the following is defined as the separation of employees from the organization for economic or business reasons?

A) Outplacement B) Layoffs C) Attrition D) Termination E) Phased retirement

25) Which of the following refers to the systemic attraction, identification, development, engagement/retention, and deployment of those individuals with high potential who are of particular value to the organization?

A) Assessment of internal supply of resources B) Development of HR objectives C) Labour demand forecasts D) Human resource audits E) Talent management

26) When estimating the external supply for human resources, considering information about demographic trends is useful because

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A) tendencies are usually known years in advance of their impacts.

B) demographic projections are reactive and unreliable.

C) information about trends is hard to obtain.

D) include community growth rates.

E) they examine social justice movements.

27)

The advantage of attrition as a means of reducing an employee surplus is that

A) it is a fast process.

B) it guarantees the loss of the most expendable employees.

C) it involves forcing low performing employees out of their jobs.

D) it usually presents the fewest problems for the organization.

E) it does not include employees who die at work.

28) Current and future impacts of the Canadian Human Rights Acts will have what effect on human resource planning?

A) Increase the need for human resource planning B) Decrease the need for human resource planning C) It will not impact human resource planning.

D) It is unclear how it will impact human resource planning.

E) The Human Rights Acts does not apply to human resource planning.

29)

Markov analysis is particularly useful in organizations where

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A) the external environment is unstable.

B) strategic changes are complex and on-going.

C) jobs do not fluctuate rapidly due to external change.

D) rapid response is needed to social and legal challenges.

E) employees rarely move between jobs.

30) Which of the following can be used to predict the internal supply of human resources for an organization?

A) Performance evaluations B) Extrapolation C) Labour market analysis D) Community attitudes E) Markov analysis

31) Which economic force is making internal supply estimates more difficult due to increased transitions?

A) Increased global trade B) Increased use of part time opportunities C) Increased optimization of productivity D) Increased voluntary temporary work E) Decreased innovative work

32)

Which of the following is a method of trend projection forecasting?

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A) Extrapolation B) Budget analysis C) Nominal group technique D) The delphi technique E) Staffing tables

33)

Which of the following is a way for firms to deal with a human resource surplus?

A) Float and transfer B) Overtime C) Outsourcing D) Job sharing E) Contracting out the work

34) Which of the following is the process of selecting, exploring, analyzing, and modelling data to create better business outcomes?

A) Predictive tactics B) Proactive planning C) Predictive planning D) Proactive analysis E) Predictive analysis

35)

Human resource planning helps organization respond to change by

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A) participating in global trade.

B) defining the mission statement.

C) expanding the product lines.

D) identifying what human resources are needed to carry out plans.

E) establishing a better market position.

36)

Which of the following is a strategy for handling human resource shortages?

A) Hiring freeze B) Attrition C) Layoffs D) Outsourcing E) Job sharing

37)

How many levels of human resource planning are there?

A) Five B) Seven C) Three D) Ten E) Four

38) Which of the following is the final step in the process of connecting human resources to strategy?

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A) Evaluate workforce planning activities B) Conduct human resource audits C) Conduct a labour market analysis D) Outline revenue forecasts E) Conduct a Markov analysis

39)

When estimating external supplies for human resources, HR departments examine:

A) Labour market trends B) Possible promotions C) Sales projections D) Replacement charts E) The internal workforce

40)

Replacement status is made up of which two variables?

A) Current job level and seniority B) Present performance and promotability C) Seniority and promotability D) Current job level and present performance E) Skills and training requirements

41) Which of the following forecasts a firm's future human resource supplies using transitional probability matrices reflecting historical or expected movements of employees across jobs?

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A) Markov analysis B) Replacement summaries C) Leadership inventories D) Human resource audits E) Labour market analysis

42)

Which of the following is a source of supply for projected human resource needs?

A) Internet sources B) Physical sources C) Social sources D) Internal sources E) Financial sources

43)

An organization may not be able to fill human resource demands internally because

A) some jobs are entry level.

B) a corporate strategy that prevents internal job promotions.

C) jobs cost too much to fill internally.

D) union contracts usually prevent employees from being promoted.

E) most employees refuse promotions.

44)

Mergers are an example of which factor that cause human resource demand?

A) Competitors B) Legal changes C) Technological changes D) Retirements E) New ventures

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45)

An advantage of flexible retirement is

A) the organization has an advance notice of a future position vacancy.

B) it creates unexpected talent gaps to be filled.

C) the company is able to speed up the rate of the flexible retirement schedule.

D) retirees can extend their engagement with the organization.

E) it is a politically correct way of enforcing a mandatory retirement age.

46) Which of the following is generated by human resource audits to facilitate the preparation of a replacement chart?

A) Staffing tables B) Replacement summaries C) Transition matrices D) Skills inventories E) Predictive models

47)

Contract workers are

A) governed by employment legislation.

B) people who provide goods or services to another entity under the terms of a specific contract.

C) freelancers who are part of the regular workforce.

D) permanent employees who have been marked for layoffs.

E) full-time employees who work remotely for more than 50% of the work week.

48)

Replacement summaries have an advantage over replacement charts because

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A) the summaries allow for more informed decisions to be made.

B) the summaries provide less data.

C) the summaries depict various jobs in the organization.

D) the summaries use simpler language.

E) the summaries can be computerized.

49) job?

Which of the following is a listing of anticipated employment openings for each type of

A) A staffing table B) A new-venture analysis C) A predictive model D) A replacement summary E) An extrapolation

50) Which step of the human resource planning process involves identifying what the planners expect to accomplish as a result of their actions?

A) Assess supply of resources B) Develop HR objectives C) Establish and conduct evaluation D) Design and implement workforce systems E) Forecast demand for resources

51) Which step of the human resource planning process involves deciding which initiatives and actions will be used to balance demand and supply?

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A) Design and implement workforce systems B) Establish and conduct evaluation C) Forecast demand for resources D) Assess supply of resources E) Develop HR objectives

52) If a company is measuring whether there is a tangible link between human resource programs and organizational sustainability, which step of the human resource planning process are they implementing?

A) Forecast demand for resources B) Assess supply of resources C) Establish and conduct evaluation D) Develop HR objectives E) Design and implement workforce systems

53) Which step of the human resource planning process looks at the factors that cause a labour need to exist?

A) Establish and conduct evaluation B) Forecast demand for resources C) Develop HR objectives D) Design and implement workforce systems E) Assess supply of resources

54) If a company is establishing which skills and competencies their resources possess, which step of the human resource planning are they implementing?

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A) Design and implement workforce systems B) Develop hr objectives C) Assess supply of resources D) Forecast demand for resources E) Establish and conduct evaluation

55) HR planning is often referred to as strategic human resource planning because of the interdependence of organizational strategy and human resources. ⊚ ⊚

true false

56) The process of human resource planning has expanded beyond predicting the number of employees an organization will need. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) Human resource planning is strictly focused on matching the supply and demand of employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Adopting a strategic focus on HR enables managers to proactively anticipate the longterm "people" and "process" needs of an organization. ⊚ ⊚

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59) While all successful organizations benefit from detailed human resource planning, small firms usually benefit more than larger firms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) A firm's strategic plans are often executed through a series of tactical plans that focus on current needs. ⊚ ⊚

61)

The organization's strategic plan affects the demand for human resources. ⊚ ⊚

62)

true false

Factors that drive human resource demand include social justice movements. ⊚ ⊚

63)

true false

true false

Sophisticated forecasting methods are considered perfectly accurate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Expert forecasts rely on those people who are knowledgeable to estimate future human resource needs. ⊚ ⊚

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65) Two methods for estimating the future demand for human resources are expert forecasting and trend projection forecasting. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) The Nominal Group Technique (NGT) for forecasting the demand for human resources involves administering surveys repeatedly until a general opinion occurs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Extrapolation and indexation are short-run forecasting tools that assume that the causes of demand remain consistent. ⊚ ⊚

68)

true false

A staffing table lists current employees for tax, payroll, and benefit purposes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Internal supply estimates of human resources can be conducted using trend projection forecasting. ⊚ ⊚

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70)

Human resource audits summarize employees' knowledge, skills, and abilities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Replacement summaries are visual replacements of who will replace whom in the event of a job opening. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) Despite its usefulness, Markov analysis cannot be used for "what if" analysis to access the impact of possible future scenarios. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) Conducting a labour market analysis is one way to estimate the external supply of human resources. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) The Canadian Occupational Projection System (COPS) provides a highly detailed projection of the Canadian economy up to 10 years in the future. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) When employees are discharged for business or economic reasons, and the employer has no plans to rehire them, it is referred to as a termination.

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⊚ ⊚

76)

true false

Early and phased retirement offers are a special form of attrition. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) "Float and Transfer" is a flexible arrangement that organizations use to manage an oversupply of human resources. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) Job sharing involves having two employees work full-time hours to complete the same duties at the same time. ⊚ ⊚

79)

true false

Phased retirement refers to retiring employees in groups based on occupation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Reducing the number of work hours per employee through job sharing can improve productivity levels. ⊚ ⊚

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81) After undergoing a downsizing or restructuring, many firms employ part-timers to provide services that had previously been offered by full-timers. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

Furlough describes a permanent separation from the organization for any reason. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) Ways to overcome employee shortages include overtime, contract workers, and hiring new employees. ⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

Contract workers are governed under employment legislation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Organizations will capitalize on their internal HR-related processes to optimize their human resources' talent pool. ⊚ ⊚

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86) A work arrangement is a firm's use of work hours, schedules, and location to ensure that the goals of the organization and the needs of employees are optimally met. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Work arrangements refer to situations where a company outsources a function once performed by employees to an undefined network of people. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Enterprise-wide systems link an organization's entire software application environment into a single enterprise solution. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) Referential integrity ensures that organizational policies are implemented consistently throughout the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) A key feature of any HRIS system is how effective it is at providing the tools with which to manage security issues. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

One of the most common components of an HRIS is performance management.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Leveraging the automation and system capabilities of an HRIS allows the HR role to enhance its service delivery to the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Advances in technology have resulted in information that is less accurate, timely, accessible, and readily available to HR. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Combining human resource and business-related data helps HR leverage employees' capabilities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) Human resource accounting attempts to put a dollar figure on the human assets of an organization using either a cost or a value model. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) The available supply of human resources is usually equal to the demand of human resources. ⊚ ⊚

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97) Human resource planning is a process with a specific order of activities helping managers to focus on the most important issues. ⊚ ⊚

98)

Developing HR objectives involves identifying how the planner will achieve its goals. ⊚ ⊚

99)

true false

true false

A firm's HRIS can answer questions interactively. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: ch 3 1) C 2) C 3) B 4) E 5) D 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) C 10) B 11) E 12) A 13) C 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) C 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) C 24) B 25) E 26) A Version 1

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27) D 28) D 29) C 30) E 31) D 32) A 33) D 34) E 35) D 36) D 37) E 38) A 39) A 40) B 41) A 42) D 43) A 44) E 45) D 46) D 47) B 48) A 49) A 50) B 51) A 52) C 53) B 54) C 55) TRUE 56) TRUE Version 1

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57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE Version 1

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87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) TRUE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1) The voluntary adjustments to work or workplaces that allow employees with special needs to perform their job effectively are called:

A) BFOQs B) reasonable accommodations C) adjusted requirements D) systemic changes E) reverse discrimination

2) Which of the following is one of the first steps that organizations should take when moving towards an inclusive environment?

A) Analyze the model to be followed B) Identify challenges for diverse workers C) Articulate the ideal future state to be achieved through inclusion D) Outline the importance of human capital E) Acknowledge the changing workforce

3) Which of the following is a reason for introducing employment equity programs that only applies to organizations at the federal level??

A) Open discrimination can lead to negative publicity B) Excluding an entire group of people limits the number of people available to work C) Apparent or perceived discrimination can lead to government intervention D) Perceived discrimination can lead to consumer boycott E) The law requires it

4)

Indirect or systemic discrimination occurs when:

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A) discrimination is intended but hidden and applied subtly.

B) employment practices exclude specific groups for reasons that are not job-related.

C) bona fide occupational requirements apply.

D) particular groups are not hired because there are specific safety-related reasons.

E) organizational policies forbid the hiring of people based solely on race or sex.

5) In Canada, intentional discrimination against a member of a protected class for a justified business reason is called:

A) systemic discrimination B) affirmative action C) a reasonable accommodation D) a bona fide occupational requirement E) ad hoc accommodation

6)

Employee drug and alcohol dependencies are considered to be which of the following?

A) Cause for immediate dismissal B) A designated group protected by the Employment Equity Act C) Disabilities that must be reasonably accommodated up to the point of undue hardship D) Beyond the point of undue hardship E) Problems that workers need to address on their own

7) Human rights legislation differs from other employment related laws and regulations because it:

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A) is limited in scope and application B) affects nearly every human resource function C) is applied at an organization's discretion D) has nation-wide jurisdiction E) consists of both federal and provincial laws

8) Human resource specialists are concerned with human rights legislation for which of the following reasons?

A) Changes in production technology have increased the importance of human capital B) It is foundational to defining the minimum standard for treatment of Canadian workers C) The Charter of Rights and Freedoms has limited reach D) The Canadian labour market is undergoing rapid and continuous transformation E) To establish who is legally responsible for organizational activities

9) When an allegation of discrimination in employment is made, the Canadian Human Rights Commission can do which of the following?

A) Order violators to restore the rights denied to the victim B) Recommend mediation C) Provide a ruling on the case D) Apply fines E) Outline how much compensation victims will receive

10) Which of the following is focused on training employees to develop their understanding of the need to manage and value diversity, equity, and inclusion?

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A) Conflict management training B) Skill-building training C) Establishing communication standards D) Awareness training E) Process training

11)

The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms is part of the:

A) Employment Equity Act (1987) B) Constitution Act of 1982 C) Declaration of Independence D) Canadian Human Rights Act (1977) E) Canadian Immigration Act

12) Federal and provincial human rights legislation specifying grounds of discrimination prohibited in employment are:

A) completely identical B) are often similar C) significantly different D) entirely unique E) typically contradictory

13)

The Canadian Human Rights Act seeks to provide which of the following?

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A) LGBTQ + rights B) Social welfare C) Equal employment opportunities D) Protection of Canada's multicultural heritage E) Indigenous rights

14)

Pay equity legislation attempts to:

A) import new skills to manage a diverse workforce B) outline compensation requirements for victims of discrimination C) provide more flexibility to employees D) remedy the earnings gap between biologically male and biologically female employees E) specify the lowest amount an employer can pay workers

15) Which of the following prohibited grounds for discrimination are common to all human rights acts in Canada?

A) language B) national or ethnic origin C) age D) family status E) social condition

16)

Provincial employment laws govern which of the following?

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A) Communication industry employees B) Transportation industry employees C) Banking industry employees D) Provincial government employees E) Postal service employees

17) According to a Canadian Human Rights Tribunal, which of the following is a characteristic of sexual harassment?

A) the encounters must be unsolicited but can be welcomed by the complainant B) the conduct must be ongoing at the time of complaint C) the complainant must be female D) the complainant must be a subordinate E) the complainant's co-operation must be due to employment-related threats or promises

18) Which of the following fundamental rights is addressed in The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms?

A) the freedom to be accommodated up to the point of undue hardship B) the freedom to prohibit discrimination C) the freedom from judgment based on political beliefs D) the freedom of peaceful assembly E) the freedom to equal employment opportunities for members of protected groups

19) The Employment Equity Act of 1987 is specifically intended to remove employment barriers and promote equity for which of the following groups:

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A) apprentices B) senior workers C) LGBTQ employees D) persons with disabilities E) victims of harassment

20) Which of the following goes beyond providing the minimum treatment to employees to guide the ideal treatment of employees within the workplace?

A) Organizational policies B) Employment and labour standards C) Human rights legislation D) Privacy legislation E) The Charter of Rights and Freedoms

21)

In recent years, mandatory retirement has been:

A) receiving little attention because few employers consider age as an employment criterion.

B) considered discrimination for anyone over the age of 55.

C) abolished in jurisdictions across the country.

D) only discriminatory when the worker is a member of a minority group.

E) allowed because age accurately reflects one's ability to perform at work.

22) The Canadian Human Rights Act declares which of the following in response to charges of reverse discrimination?

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A) that human resource departments must ensure the wage and salary systems are not discriminating according to sex B) that organizations are responsible for avoiding the provision of preference to members of a protected class C) that human resource managers are permitted to eliminate concentration and underutilization by any means necessary D) that preferential treatment is considered non-discriminatory when fulfilling the spirit of the law E) that preferential treatment for protected group members violates the employment equity act

23) Which of the following could be considered a bona fide occupational requirement for a job stocking shelves at a grocery store?

A) The ability to carry items of a certain weight B) Minimum weight requirement C) Achievement of a specific score on an employment test D) Limiting hiring to younger applicants E) Not hiring applicants of a specific faith

24) Which of the following are programs encouraging members of disadvantaged groups to work with a senior manager who acts like a friend and guide in achieving career success in nontechnical jobs?

A) Support groups B) Alternate work arrangements C) Mentoring programs D) Apprenticeships E) Diversity and inclusion audits

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25)

Which of the following is an example of direct discrimination?

A) Psychological inability of people to deal with persons with disabilities B) Reduction in shifts of a pregnant server in an effort to get the employee to quit C) Limited accessibility of buildings and facilities D) Minimum height requirements for police forces E) Internal or word-of-mouth hiring policies

26) Which of the following considerations is relevant when determining whether an employer has suffered "undue hardship"?

A) The proportion of protected class members within the employer's labour market B) The disruption to a collective agreement C) The design of remedial programs D) The employer's preference E) The old boys' network

27) Workplace harassment includes incidents or behaviours that occur under which of the following circumstances:

A) at any time or any place, regardless of whether it is employment-related B) at any place, provided it occurred during working hours C) at any time provided that it occurred at the workplace D) at any time or anyplace if they are employment-related E) only between supervisors and their immediate subordinates

28) Allowing new recruits to choose their uniforms based on sizing and fit with modernized, functional, and gender-neutral styles is a way for organizations to protect employee from discrimination based on which prohibited ground?

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A) Family status B) Sexual orientation C) Religion D) Gender identity E) Age

29) Examination of systems and practices for their appropriateness for an inclusive culture includes examining which of the following?

A) Compensation structures B) Bona fide occupational requirements C) Probationary processes D) Human resource accounting processes E) Performance appraisal practices

30)

The purpose of the Charter of Rights and Freedoms is to:

A) provide moral guidance B) provide a structure for human resource specialists C) provide fundamental rights to Canadians D) provide a framework for lawyers and their families E) provide a safe working environment

31) Which of the following is an example of an accommodation that would impose undue hardship on a small business?

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A) Providing a sign language interpreter to interview a deaf candidate B) Putting in an elevator to the third floor of a home office to provide for a disabled job applicant C) Providing a step-stool or ladder for an employee who is a little person D) Altering dress codes to permit indigenous people to wear braids E) Providing special telephone or computer equipment for a person who is hearing or visually impaired

32) An organization should do which of the following to effectively develop an employment equity program?

A) Exhibit strong employer commitment B) Appoint a middle-ranking director to indicate commitment C) Not include the phrase "an equal opportunity employer" on stationary D) Avoid outlining specific timetables E) Design passive programs

33) A survey revealed blind spots in managers' understanding of the need for managing and valuing diversity, equity, and inclusion. Which of the following would help organizations address this issue?

A) Inclusion training B) Diversity training C) Skill-building training D) Awareness training E) Equity training

34) The Supreme Court has now addressed the issue of discrimination against same-sex couples by deciding that:

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A) same-sex couples must be treated the same way as heterosexual couples.

B) only married same-sex couples must be treated the same way as heterosexual couples.

C) sexual orientation is not a human rights issue.

D) businesses may refuse to hire both partners to work together.

E) that the definition of marriage is between a man and a woman but that same-sex partners are considered legally married under federal law.

35)

Tribunals do which of the following?

A) Interpret the Constitution B) Apply legislation passed by both the federal and provincial governments C) Develop common law D) Resolve disputes in a specific area E) Hear cases after they have proceeded through lower courts

36) Which of the following is an implication of the Charter on human resources and industrial relations issues?

A) The flood of cases into the Supreme Court B) Increased efficiency C) Implications are still unfolding due to how the court system operates D) The cases appearing in the Supreme Court more complex E) More dispute resolution is occurring

37)

An employer has a duty to accommodate an employee's human rights until:

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A) the point of "undue hardship" is reached B) the required modification costs exceed $3000 C) the employer feels they can no longer accommodate employees D) the employees' work performance decreases E) the human resource specialist deems the modifications to be sufficient

38) The Employment Equity Act requires employers with how many employees to develop and submit annual plans setting out goals and timetables for progress?

A) 20 or more B) 5 or more C) 100 or more D) 10 or more E) 50 or more

39)

To be a bona fide occupational requirement, the employment practice must:

A) be unrelated to job performance B) be a justified business reason for discriminating C) be an unnecessary requirement for employees to meet D) only apply to certain groups E) not apply to target groups listed in the Employment Equity Act

40)

What does Section 2 of the Charter state?

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A) It guarantees rights and freedoms "subject only to such reasonable limits prescribed by law as can be demonstrably justified in a free and democratic society."

B) It guarantees freedom of association C) It specifies that an employer shall prepare an employment equity plan that provides for reasonable accommodation D) It specifies special programs as a legitimate mechanism for improving the opportunities of a group E) It guarantees freedom of thought, belief, and expression

41)

The Charter of Rights and Freedoms applies only to individuals dealing with:

A) federal departments.

B) businesses under federal jurisdiction.

C) industry under federal jurisdiction.

D) Crown corporations.

E) federal and provincial governments and agencies under their jurisdiction.

42) An invisible, but real obstruction to career advancement of women and people of visible minorities, resulting in frustration, career dissatisfaction, and increased turnover is known as:

A) the glass ceiling.

B) Stereotyping.

C) "from pet to threat."

D) the old boys' network.

E) the changing workforce.

43) Which of the following is a shared experience by many Black women where mentors who once supported them later undermine them because they are perceived to be competition?

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A) "from pet to threat" B) the old boys' network.

C) Stereotyping.

D) the changing workforce.

E) the glass ceiling.

44) Who of the following are often consulted to provide diversity, equity, and inclusion training programs in organizations?

A) Managers B) Internal stakeholders C) Outside experts D) Low-level managers E) High-ranking executives

45)

The Canadian Human Rights Act prohibits discriminating against a person if:

A) they have ever been convicted of an offence.

B) they have ever been arrested, even if they were not convicted of an offence.

C) they have been convicted of an offence for which a pardon has been issued.

D) they have served time in jail or prison.

E) they have ever filed a complaint with the police.

46) While it is illegal to recruit, hire, and promote employees based upon a person's sex, it is legal to:

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A) have separate policies for men and women.

B) reserve some jobs for men only (ex. male welders).

C) have bona fide occupational requirements that discriminate on the basis of sex.

D) have similar standards for men or women even if such standards are arbitrary.

E) hire on the basis of sex so long as this has been made clear from the beginning.

47)

Verbal abuse, practical jokes, and unnecessary physical contact are all examples of:

A) stereotyping B) inclusion C) ostracism D) direct violation of the Employment Equity Act E) harassment

48) Which of the following includes important human characteristics that influence employee values, their perceptions of self and others, behaviours, and interpretations of events?

A) Stereotyping B) The mission of the organization C) Workplace diversity D) An inclusion philosophy E) Organizational character

49) Which of the following can uncover underlying dimensions, causes, interdependencies, and progress-to-date on diversity and inclusion matters?

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A) Awareness training B) Diversity and inclusion audits C) Mentoring programs D) Old boys' network E) Support groups

50) Which of the following is a way of accommodating the unique needs of employee groups by removing negative factors?

A) Diversity training programs B) Mentoring programs C) Support groups D) Alternate work arrangements E) Skill-building training

51) Which of the following programs is particularly useful for attracting members of visible minorities, women, people with disabilities, and other disadvantaged group members to nontraditional jobs within a firm?

A) Support groups B) Diversity training programs C) Apprenticeships D) Mentoring programs E) Alternative work arrangements

52) The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms guarantees individuals equal rights before the law. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

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53)

The impact of the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms is far-reaching. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) The impact of the Charter of Rights and Freedoms extends beyond those dealing with federal and provincial governments because every law can be challenged in court. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) When a person or group challenges that their rights were infringed upon, the dispute may be heard by an administrative board. ⊚ ⊚

56)

true false

Section 15 of the Charter guarantees freedom of association. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) There are 4 layers of employment laws that exist to provide equal employment opportunities for members of protected groups and to prevent discrimination. ⊚ ⊚

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18

58) The Canadian Human Rights Act seeks to guarantee equality before the law for every Canadian. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) The Canadian Human Rights Act seeks to provide individuals with equal employment opportunities and prohibits discrimination on all prohibited grounds. ⊚ ⊚

60)

Legal direct discrimination is called a bona fide occupational requirement. ⊚ ⊚

61)

true false

Legal intentional discrimination is often referred to as systemic discrimination. ⊚ ⊚

62)

true false

true false

Human rights legislation prohibits discrimination in employment under all circumstances. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) An example of indirect discrimination could be the unavailability of alternative formats or forms of tools. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

19

64) A lack of explicit anti-harassment policies in an organization could be an example of indirect discrimination. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) Asking that only women apply for the position of attendant in a women's health club is an example of a BFOR. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) All federal and provincial human rights legislation in Canada specifically prohibits discrimination based upon assignment, attachment, or seizure of pay. ⊚ ⊚

67)

true false

Few HR functions are affected by employment equity plans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Allowing an employee who has just joined a relatively obscure religious organization to take leave on a busy work day for a special religious observance would be considered "undue hardship" and can be safely refused. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

20

69) Although it is unlawful to discriminate in recruiting or hiring men and women, it is lawful to have separate policies for men and women. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) Ontario Human Rights Commission's discrimination policy on the basis of pregnancy now includes protection for women trying to become pregnant. ⊚ ⊚

71)

true false

Under no circumstances is it legal to have separate standards for men and women. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) Canada has 3 privacy laws that are enforced by the Office of the Privacy Commissioner of Canada ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) When a job standard discriminates against a person under the Canadian Human Rights Act, the burden of proof rests with the individual, not the organization. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

21

74) If an employee needs time off for voluntary family activities, such as extracurricular sporting events, the employer has a duty to accommodate the employee. ⊚ ⊚

75)

true false

Firing an employee for drug or alcohol dependency can be considered discrimination. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Ostracism, is considered acceptable and therefore does not need to be included in harassment policies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) Having embarrassing photos or videos taken at a work event then uploaded to a social media site is an example of cyber-bullying. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) Protection against harassment extends to incidents occurring outside the workplace if the incidents are employment-related. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) HR must pursue its traditional roles of obtaining, maintaining, and retaining an optimal workforce.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Obstructing a tribunal or failing to comply with settlement terms can be considered an offence punishable by a fine, jail sentence, or both. ⊚ ⊚

81)

true false

Employment Equity has designated six target (or protected) groups within Canada. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) Human resource specialists only need to be concerned about employment equity plans when engaging in recruitment, selection, or compensation functions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) Only British Columbia and Saskatchewan have laws related to pay equity that cover the public and private sector. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) Companies doing business with the federal government are not required to comply with the Employment Equity Act. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

23

85) An example of the old boys' network is when a group of male managers goes out for lunch with male executives, creating a "culture" of men and excluding women. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) The glass ceiling enhances the career growth of women, LGBTQ+, and visible minorities beyond a certain level. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) A person's business contact information that an organization collects, uses, and discloses for the sole purpose of communicating with that person for employment-related reasons is not considered personal information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) In today's information age, the importance of human capital is less critical due to the advancement of artificial intelligence. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) Valuing differences among team members can improve creativity and innovative problem solving. ⊚ ⊚

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24

90) Inclusion efforts will fail unless all managers and employees see them as an integral part of the firm's business philosophy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) Awareness training uncovers underlying dimensions, causes, interdependencies, and progress-to-date on diversity and inclusion matters. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Participants in a process-oriented diversity training program develop an understanding of how management style, the interpersonal communication process, teamwork, and other managerial issues are affected by diversity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Discrimination against younger workers is notoriously hard to prove because age and years of work experience go hand in hand. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Almost 800,000 Canadians are not working even though their disability does not prevent them from doing so. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

25

95) One of the most common forms of cyberbullying that occurs is to send defamatory remarks to or about a colleague. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) A company with 20 or more employees bidding on contracts for goods and services of $300,000 or more will be subject to the employment equity criteria listed in the Act ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Diversity, equity, and inclusion recognizes that an organization is a mosaic where employees with varying beliefs, culture, values, and behaviour patterns come together to create a whole organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) The most valuable parts of a firm's operation may be reflected in human tasks of sensing, judging, and making decisions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) Due to globalization, most employers now measure the impact, efficiency, and return on investment of their diversity initiatives. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

26

100) A support group is a group of employees who provide emotional support to a new employee who shares a common attribute with the group. ⊚ ⊚

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27

Answer Key Test name: ch 4 1) B 2) C 3) E 4) B 5) D 6) C 7) B 8) B 9) B 10) D 11) B 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) E 18) D 19) D 20) A 21) C 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) B Version 1

28

27) D 28) D 29) E 30) C 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) A 38) C 39) B 40) B 41) E 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) C 46) C 47) E 48) C 49) B 50) D 51) C 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE Version 1

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57) FALSE 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE Version 1

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87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) TRUE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1)

Transit advertising involves which of the following?

A) Removing ad information that identifies the employer B) Telling applicants to send their resumés to a post office box C) Placing ads in subway stations D) Using surveyors' equipment to advertise E) Displaying ads for less than a week

2) Which of the following usually appears beside the signature line on a job application form?

A) An authorization allowing the employer to check references B) A verification that the applicant understands the information outlined in the application form C) A clause allowing the applicant to make changes to their application at a later date D) An acknowledgement that the applicant understands the consequences associated with falsifying information on an application E) A space to enter in a telephone number

3) According to past research, students consider which of the following characteristics to be important for recruiters to have?

A) An expressed interest in the student as a part of a group B) Honesty C) Good communication skills D) Some basic knowledge about the job E) A tendency to exaggerate

4)

Which of the following describes what private employment agencies do?

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A) Hire permanent employees for organizations B) Receive employer requests for recruits and solicit job seekers for job vacancies C) Recruit very specific types of human resources for a fee D) Provide a comprehensive online database of job openings that prospective employees can scan at their leisure.

E) Use a standard process to match job seekers with job vacancies

5) Which of the following is an environmental condition that should be checked after a human resource plan is a finalized because it can change pace so quickly?

A) Legal changes B) Technological changes C) Demographic changes D) Cultural changes E) Economic changes

6)

Which of the following is an external factor that constrains the recruiting function?

A) Human resource plans B) Organizational policies C) Costs D) Environmental conditions E) Recruiter habits

7) Which of the following recruitment methods can allow recruiters to learn a lot about applicants, but risks having much of what they learn be unrelated to the job?

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A) Labour organizations B) Social media C) Professional associations D) Educational institutions E) Private employment agencies

8) Which of the following can be extremely costly to organizations, despite state-of-the-art human resource systems and procedures?

A) When an organization's workforce reflects the larger labour market composition B) Poorly qualified and motivated recruits C) Restrictive compensation policies D) Using innovative recruitment programs to tap the skills of a diverse workforce E) Using inducements

9) Which of the following recruitment methods can offer recruiters the unique advantage of identifying individuals who have rare job skills and the right work attitude?

A) Job banks B) Direct inquiries C) Employee referrals D) Advertising E) Social media

10) Which of the following is a comprehensive database of thousands of jobs and work opportunities available across Canada?

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A) The newspaper B) Social media C) The ESDC's job bank D) Career-related sections or corporate websites E) Human resources information systems

11) Issuing an instruction to recruiters to "find the best and most experienced applicant you can," is problematic for which of the following reasons?

A) Those with less experience may become overwhelmed quickly B) Discrimination could occur if a high degree of experience is not actually needed C) Underqualified individuals may become bored with the job D) The selection process will be lengthier due to the large pool of recruits that will form E) It violates human rights legislation

12)

External recruitment offers recruiters which of the following advantages?

A) It improves workforce morale B) It allows for newer ideas to emerge C) It shortens the training and orientation period D) Fit between the new employee and the organization is established quickly E) It increases motivation among current employees

13)

Success in recruitment is related to which of the following?

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A) Getting people to apply for jobs regardless of fit B) Getting a very large number of people to apply C) Getting the right type of applicant D) Getting a lot of applicants for the smallest cost E) Hiring the best person

14) An interested applicant would submit their resume to a noncorporate email account in response to which type of advertisement?

A) Radio ads B) Small print ads C) Blind ads D) Billboards E) Television ads

15) Which of the following describes the impact that diversity and employment equity programs can have on the recruiting function?

A) They have no significant impact on recruitment B) They can lead to employee dissatisfaction C) They can increase employee turnover D) They can spark the use of innovative recruitment programs E) They stimulate a potential recruit's interest

16)

The benefits of recruiting from within include which of the following?

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A) It stimulates new ideas B) It allows organizations to recruit employees that are familiar to the firm C) It allows novel ways of solving problems to emerge D) It allows the organization to acquire new knowledge E) It allows new people to be brought into the system

17)

Which of the following policies constrain recruitment?

A) Environmental policies B) Career development policies C) Reverse discrimination policies D) Compensation policies E) Accessibility policies

18) If organizations consider individuals with foreign work experience to be extremely valuable, then those organizations that manage to successfully recruit these individuals have done which of the following?

A) Gained a competitive advantage B) Violated the employment equity act C) Risked being accused of discrimination D) Placed a constraint on selection procedures E) Increased the need for additional resources to be invested into training

19)

Which of the following is an advantage of using a formal job application form?

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A) Information is directly comparable between applicants B) It eliminates the need for a job applicant to submit a resumé C) It allows job recruits to include unique, detailed information about themselves D) It hides the identity of the employer E) It describes the job to applicants

20) Which of the following is a possible outcome of offering a buy-back to a departing employee?

A) Employee morale generally rises within the organization B) Other employees may expect similar raises C) Organizations risk being charged because buy-backs are is illegal in most provinces D) It can result in the employee doing less E) Ethical issues associated with buy-backs may cause the hr manager discomfort

21) Which of the following is a program offered by ESDC to employers and/or prospective employees?

A) Co-operative education programs B) Employment equity programs C) Diversity and inclusion training programs D) Mentoring programs E) Programs that disseminate labour market information

22) Which of the following is an index for evaluating the effectiveness of a firm's recruitment strategy?

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A) The direct costs B) The number of offers extended C) The indirect costs D) The time lapsed per hire E) The number of resumés received

23)

A diverse workforce does which of the following?

A) Makes the selection choices more difficult B) offers greater flexibility C) Decreases the number of qualified applicants D) Lengthens the recruiting process E) Is administratively challenging to do

24) When applicants lack the necessary skills and aptitudes to be successful, additional resources must be spent in which of the following areas?

A) Reward systems B) Employee counselling practices C) Performance management D) Orientation E) Employee communication systems

25) A recruiter using an organization's flextime policy as a selling point to attract recruits to an organization is an example of which of the following practices?

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A) A recruiter habit B) Using inducements C) Explaining environmental conditions D) Diversity management E) Blind advertising

26) Which of the following is part of Employment and Social Development Canada's mission?

A) Working to improve the quality of life for Canadians B) Directly enforcing employment equity legislation C) Taking employer requests for recruits and solicit job seekers on their behalf D) Enforcing a safe, stable, fair, and productive work environment for all Canadians E) Promoting international labour legislation

27)

In preparing a resumé, which of the following should be included?

A) Signature line B) Authorization for reference verification C) Personal goals D) Work experience E) Employment status

28) Since internet recruiting has taken off, what tool do most organizations now use to convey detailed information about the job and the organization to recruits?

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A) Inducements B) Job board sites C) Direct inquiries D) Careers section on their corporate websites E) Social media

29)

Indeed, Monster, and Workopolis are all examples of which recruitment method?

A) Job banks B) Corporate websites C) Private employment agencies D) Social media E) Online newsgroups

30)

The recruitment process begins with which of the following?

A) Choosing the best applicant B) Convincing candidates who have been offered the job to accept it C) Generating a pool of applicants D) Evaluating the effectiveness of the recruitment strategy E) Newcomer onboarding

31)

Which of the following costs of a "bad hire" is difficult to quantify in monetary terms?

A) Total advertising costs B) Number of lost customers C) Recruiter's travel expenses D) Cost of training replacements E) Costs of assessing applicants' abilities

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32) Producing a good system for tracking which of the following saves time and effort down the road

A) Recruitment quality B) The bottom line C) Recruitment success D) Employee morale E) Retention

33)

Which of the following is an advantage of blind ads?

A) They are the most expensive ad type B) They only convey a limited amount of information to recruits C) They allow organizations to advertise to replace a current employee D) They are most effective for large companies E) They only include positive aspects of the job and the organization

34) Which of the following personal information do human resource departments have a legitimate reason to ask for?

A) Place of birth B) Address C) Religion D) National origin E) Marital status

35)

Recruiting can be challenging because of which of the following factors?

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A) More organizations are implementing promote-from-within policies B) Recruiter habits are perpetuating more past recruitment mistakes C) Recruiters are relying more heavily on inducements D) Technological advances have complicated the recruitment process E) New entrants are aspiring to higher levels

36) Which of the following is an advantage associated with using private employment agencies for recruitment?

A) Individuals who are already employed on a part-time basis can be recruited B) Individuals working for private employment agencies are more informed about changes in the labour market C) Some agencies have publications that accept job advertisements D) Recruiters focus their efforts on specific specialties E) More applicants can be reached by recruiters

37)

What is the key difference between professional search firms and placement agencies?

A) Placement agencies can be more objective than search firms B) The cost per recruit is lower when using placement agencies C) The overall success rate in recruiting the right person is higher when using placement agencies D) The approach used to attract applicants relies more heavily on advertising when using placement agencies E) Agencies have a greater understanding of niche requirements in specific industries than search firms

38)

Which of the following is a factor that constrains which recruitment method(s) to use?

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A) How realistic the job preview is B) Employment test availability C) Collective agreements in place at the organization D) The length of the application form E) Whether contingent assessments will be used

39)

Which of the following is a drawback associated with advertising?

A) Most ad types do not attract many applications B) Ads can lack a certain secrecy that may be required on occasion C) Small print ads are the most expensive forms of recruiting D) Using ads creates too large of a pool of qualified candidates for organizations to manage E) Only billboards can include a lot of detail

40)

Recruiter habits can do which of the following?

A) Eliminate time-consuming deliberations that reach the same answers B) Encourage the use of non-traditional inducements C) Cause more unqualified job seekers to apply for jobs D) Lead to more diversity within an organization E) Increase employee dissatisfaction and turnover

41)

Which of the following is a key job of the recruiter?

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A) To sell the company as a potential place of work to eligible recruits B) To avoid using monetary incentives to stimulate recruits' interest C) To use a reactive approach to deal with emerging trends D) To create a large uniform pool of candidates for job vacancies E) To develop job standards based upon the applicant pool

42)

Which of the following is an advantage associated with internal recruiting?

A) It allows for more accurate prediction of the person's chance of success B) It brings in "new blood" C) It decreases costs associated with employee counselling D) It allows new ideas to be introduced into the organization E) It removes undesirable employees

43) By stating that transit advertising is too expensive to use to fill one vacant position, recruiters are answering which of the key questions involved in selecting the best recruitment method?

A) What has worked in the past?

B) How much is the budget?

C) What is the skill level required?

D) What sources are available in that industry and geographic region?

E) How many recruits are needed?

44)

Using employee referrals for recruitment can do which of the following?

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A) Increase the likelihood of discrimination B) Be a costly recruiting method C) Bring in employees that likely have different work habits D) Substantially increase workplace diversity E) Generate a pool of poor-quality applicants

45) Which of the following sections of a job application form asks applicants about their employment objective and availability?

A) Work history B) Personal data C) Skills D) Employment status E) Education

46) Which of the following recruitment methods requires that applicants mail in their resumé or complete a job application online?

A) Employee referrals B) Direct inquiries C) Social media D) Private employment agencies E) Advertising

47) Which of the following recruitment methods has declined in popularity but can be successful at identifying specialized talents?

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A) Social media B) Professional search firms C) Education institutions D) Internet recruiting E) Job fairs

48) Which of the following recruitment effectiveness indices should HR be cautious about using because it can be affected by extraneous variables such as the firm's location?

A) Offers-applicants ratio B) Quality of hires and cost C) Cost per hire D) Time lapsed per hire E) Performance rating of hires

49)

Which of the following tools is used for internet recruiting?

A) Massive open online courses (MOOCs) B) Webcasts C) Rich site summary D) Wikis E) Virtual office tours

50) Recruitment is the process of finding and attracting capable individuals to apply for employment. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

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51)

After identifying job openings, recruiters review job specifications. ⊚ ⊚

true false

52) Knowing the job's requirements assists recruiters in choosing the appropriate recruitment methods for finding the right number and type of applicants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) In today's global knowledge economy having highly skilled and motivated workers can be a real competitive advantage. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) The strategic choice to promote internal candidates or hire from outside has major implications for employee morale. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) Constraints on the recruitment process arise from two sources: the organization and the external environment ⊚ ⊚

true false

56) Among environmental conditions that constrain recruiting are compensation and internal promotion policies.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

57) Establishing pay ranges to attract new hires helps reduce compensation policy constraints on recruiting. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Providing opportunities for movement among positions discourages people from staying with an organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) International hiring policies that require foreign job openings be staffed with local citizens constrains organizational recruitment processes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) An organization recruiting for a highly specialized worker is constrained because it is hard to find such a highly skilled worker. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) When an organization demands a high degree of experience but cannot prove that such a high level of experience is needed, this artificial requirement could be discriminating against some applicants.

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⊚ ⊚

62)

Recruiting for several job openings simultaneously can increase the cost per recruit. ⊚ ⊚

63)

true false

true false

Inducements must be monetary. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Some recruiters use applicant tracking systems, which allow recruiters to filter through resumés according to key job requirements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) When an applicant applies for a job by submitting a resumé, the completion of a formal job application form is redundant. ⊚ ⊚

66)

true false

Organizations that use job application forms make it easier to compare candidates. ⊚ ⊚

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19

67) Recruiters can use the work history section in a job application to determine if the candidate exaggerated job duties. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Human rights legislation has made recruiting by use of employee referrals illegal because it is considered discrimination. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Applicants recruited through employee referrals are typically less attracted to the organization than applicants who walk in to apply for a job ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) An advantage to using employee referrals for recruitment is that referred applicants are likely to have work habits that are similar to the current employee's habits. ⊚ ⊚

71)

Good job ads use short sentences with familiar action-oriented words. ⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

true false

The cost of advertising is determined by the size of the organization.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

73) To reach highly specialized recruits to fill a job that rarely becomes vacant, a billboard will likely be the most effective advertising strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) Television advertisements are typically only useful for large hiring campaigns with a national focus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) One way to target potential recruits of specific demographic or ethnic groups could be transit advertising placed at particular bus or subway stops. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) The advantage of using LinkedIn for recruiting is that a large number of conversations can take place. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) Two of the programs and activities offered by ESDC are the "Job Bank" and "Jobs and the Workplace" websites. ⊚ ⊚

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78) Private employment agencies charging applicants a fee for placements is illegal or regulated in most provinces. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) Professional search firms are the same as private employment agencies because they take the same approach to recruitment. ⊚ ⊚

80)

Public employment agencies are sometimes called "headhunters." ⊚ ⊚

81)

true false

true false

Professional search firms tend to be more specialized than placement agencies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) It is not unusual for search firms to charge 30% or more of the candidate's gross starting salary as their fee for successful placement. ⊚ ⊚

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83) The age and title of a recruiter may be important factors in creating a favourable impression on recruits when an organization engages in campus recruiting. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) Organizations find that co-operative education programs facilitate college and university recruitment efforts because students gain a clear idea of what to expect from the firm should they later join as full-time employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Recruiters use local labour organizations as a source of job seekers because they have rosters listing individuals with skills in specific trades who are looking for employment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Departing employees can be a source of job recruits if organizations can make changes to satisfy the employee, persuading them to stay. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Recruiting abroad can be time-consuming due to the process of acquiring employment visas. ⊚ ⊚

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88) The budget is an important factor in determining which recruitment method(s) recruiters can afford to use. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) Tracking how well certain recruitment sources have worked over time has no bearing on future recruitment efforts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) Producing a good system for tracking recruitment success can be quite time-consuming in the long run. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) Recruiters are unable to justify their own efforts unless they identify and control recruitment costs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Measuring the effectiveness of the recruitment function using the "quality of hires and costs" indicator compares the number of hires to the direct costs of recruiting. ⊚ ⊚

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93) The "offers-applicants ratio" measure of recruitment strategy effectiveness compares the number of job offers extended with the total number of applicants received for each recruiting method. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Although human resource plans help recruiters by summarizing future recruiting needs, they are also a constraint on the recruitment process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) Asking about "reference-like" information such as criminal records, credit history, or friends who work for the employer, is illegal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) The "education and skills" section of a job application form assesses the suitability of a candidate for a particular job more than any other part of the application. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Human resource departments consider personnel trained by the Canadian Armed Forces to be a valuable source of recruits. ⊚ ⊚

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98) Contract workers require more training, further increasing the hiring costs of the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) Costs included when calculating the cost per hire should include direct costs, apportioned costs, and overheads. ⊚ ⊚

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26

Answer Key Test name: ch 5 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) B 5) E 6) D 7) B 8) B 9) C 10) C 11) B 12) B 13) C 14) C 15) D 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) E 22) D 23) B 24) E 25) B 26) A Version 1

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27) D 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) C 33) C 34) B 35) E 36) A 37) D 38) C 39) B 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) B 44) A 45) D 46) B 47) E 48) A 49) E 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) FALSE Version 1

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57) FALSE 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE Version 1

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87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1)

A selection ratio of 2:50, means which of the following?

A) That the company did not get enough applicants B) That the company did not recruit from appropriate sources C) That there is a large number of applicants from which to select D) That the job was hard to fill E) That the recruits interested were low quality

2) Which of the following has been found to be a particularly valuable tool in predicting accident rates, turnover, absenteeism, and job performance?

A) Biographical information blanks B) Employment tests C) Courtesy interviews D) Job application forms E) Weighted application blanks

3)

Which one of the following could hurt the reputation of the company and recruiter?

A) Selecting employees based on merit B) Having a large selection ratio for an available job C) Hiring a minority applicant when they out-perform the majority applicants D) Posting a false ad E) Taking gender information into consideration when the nature of the job demands it

4) Rejecting applicants with foreign qualifications, because they are overqualified is an example of which of the following?

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A) A breakdown of barriers against immigrants B) A mismatch between job analysis information and the selection criteria C) An increase in opportunities for visible minorities D) Evidence of performance-based job descriptions being used E) Selection board members rejecting applicants based on an assumption

5)

Why are employment tests useful for selection?

A) They obtain subjective information from applicants B) They assess the match between applicants and job requirements C) They are always conducted in written format D) They all have the same purpose E) They prevent response faking

6)

Who typically does the hiring in small firms?

A) The human resource department B) The owner-manager C) Line managers D) Individual operating departments E) Consultants

7)

A well-designed application form will do which of the following?

A) Decrease the likelihood that applicants will embellish information B) Reveal applicant's religion C) Provide less utility than resumés D) Allow overqualified applicants to be tested E) Screen out applicants who do not meet the minimum specifications for a job

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8) When interviews have high reliability, it means that the interpretation of interview results:

A) should be consistent from one interviewer to another.

B) does not correlate with job performance.

C) represents unique interview opinions.

D) was affected by interviewer biases.

E) indicates that the interview should not be used for selection.

9)

Which of the following should interviewers do when conducting an interview?

A) Ask leading questions that imply a desired answer B) Be guided by initial impressions C) Collect only job-related information D) Attempt to predict personality traits from one interview E) Exhibit personal biases even if based on experience

10) In which of the following approaches does a decision maker set minimum scores for numerous predictors and reject applicants whose scores fall below the minimum score for any of the predictors?

A) Multiple cut-off approach B) Judgmental approach C) Compensatory approach D) Subjective approach E) Clinical approach

11)

Which of the following is a rational approach to test validation?

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A) Predictive validity B) Content validity C) Concurrent validity D) Differential validity E) Validity generalization

12) Interviewers try to ensure that applicants get a strong and lasting impression of the company during which stage of the selection interview process?

A) Information exchange B) Creation of rapport C) Evaluation of the candidate D) Termination of the interview E) Interviewer preparation

13) Basing hiring decisions on which of the following may currently be considered nondiscriminatory in Canada?

A) Age B) Self-stated opinions C) Sex D) Political affiliation E) Ethnicity

14)

The purpose of the employment interview is to:

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A) assess the appropriateness of an applicant for the job.

B) judge the effectiveness of the recruitment process.

C) decide whether the job analysis was accurate.

D) gather information about the applicant's sex, family status, religion, and age.

E) allow for a one-way communication exchange.

15) Which of the following selection tools helps an employer identify which aspects of a person's background reliably distinguish groups of satisfactory and unsatisfactory job incumbents?

A) Selection ratios B) Contingent assessments C) Employment interviews D) Weighted application blanks E) Personality tests

16)

When applicants exaggerate or outright fabricate information in resumés, it is called:

A) resumé diversion.

B) resumé embellishment.

C) resumé management.

D) resumé fraud.

E) resumé differential.

17) Which of the following organizational variables is affected by the selection strategy in the short-term?

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A) Human resource plans B) Organizational constraints C) Quality of recruits D) Results of job analyses E) Performance evaluations

18)

Providing realistic job previews results in which of the following?

A) Decreased perceptions of organizational honesty B) Less turnover C) Minimal trust in the organization D) Reduced job satisfaction E) Lower performance

19)

Which of the following selection techniques is most widely used?

A) Written tests B) References C) Employment interviews D) Psychological tests E) Resumés

20) If an organization wants to implement a drug testing policy for selection purposes, which of the following could they do?

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A) Withdraw job offers for candidates who fail drug tests without offering accommodation B) Implement mandatory drug testing policies when the testing is not connected to job performance C) Refuse to hire candidates who disclose drug abuse problems without first offering to assist D) Assume that all drug tests reliably provide accurate data on current usage levels E) Ensure that the testing is a bona fide occupational requirement for which accommodation would affect the viability of the enterprise

21)

Which of the following describes a reliable employment test?

A) A test that yields consistent results over time B) A test that consists of questions that test takers interpret differently C) A test that compares the results with performance traits needed to perform the job D) A test that is significantly related to job performance E) A test that measures what it is supposed to measure

22) Organizations that want to use medical or physical evaluations for selection must be aware of which of the following?

A) That the number of worker injuries will increase B) That evaluations can only be conducted before making the hiring decision C) That assessing whether an applicant can handle the stress of a job will become more difficult D) That the employer's insurance rates will increase E) That the evaluation must relate to a bona fide occupational requirement

23)

A test with differential validity is:

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A) not valid for predicting job performance in any case.

B) measuring too many constructs alongside job performance.

C) potentially valid for predicting job performance for a large group but not for subgroups.

D) not legally allowed to be used as a measure of job performance.

E) equally predicting job performance for all applicants.

24) Which of the following test types can measure applicant behavioural responses to video scenarios?

A) Integrity tests B) Performance tests C) Knowledge tests D) Personality tests E) Ability tests

25)

Common approaches to test validation include which of the following?

A) Empirical approaches B) Compensatory approaches C) Subjective approaches D) Clinical approaches E) Multiple cut-off approaches

26)

In the preparation stage, interviewers should do which of the following?

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A) Establish a relaxed rapport with the recruit B) Consider which questions the applicant is likely to ask C) Create trust by projecting an image of confidence, competence, and concern D) Establish two-way communication by asking applicants if they have any questions E) Develop interview questions that capture the applicant's general interests

27)

Which of the following is a common interviewing mistake made by candidates?

A) Exhibiting personal biases B) Overpreparing C) Not listening D) Not talking enough E) Bragging about successes

28) Which of the following is an interview type that allows the interviewer to develop questions as the interview proceeds, but lacks reliability?

A) Situational interviews B) Unstructured interviews C) Behavioural description interviews D) Stress-producing interviews E) Panel interview

29) Which of the following is a method of integrity testing that is prohibited in some provinces by the Employment Standards Act?

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A) Written tests B) Situational judgment tests C) Polygraph tests D) Computer interactive tests E) Employment tests

30)

Which of the following is an empirical approach to test validation?

A) Content validity B) Construct validity C) Predictive validity D) Generalized validity E) Differential validity

31) When an organization conducts separate validation studies for different demographic subgroups, they are establishing whether a test is producing which of the following?

A) Concurrent validity B) Construct validity C) Predictive validity D) Differential validity E) Generalized validity

32)

A good employment contract includes which of the following?

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A) Careful positive wording B) The reason offered for hiring the individual C) A selection ratio D) Organizational characteristics E) Reasonable restrictive covenants

33) Having a large number of qualified recruits from which to select applicants during a labour shortage is an example of a selection strategy that is effectively doing which of the following?

A) Relying on feelings or myths to select employees B) Mismatching job requirements and selection criteria C) Becoming less well-integrated with organizational priorities D) Downplaying organizational constraints E) Adapting to labour market realities

34) Which of the following interview types gathers information about how job applicants responded to specific work situations in the past?

A) Situational interviews B) Behavioural description interviews C) Stress-producing interviews D) Panel interviews E) Unstructured interviews

35)

The compensatory approach to hiring is used when:

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A) predictors are assumed to be independent.

B) scores for each predictor are evaluated on a pass or fail basis.

C) there are multiple hurdles involved in the selection process.

D) decisions are based on gut feelings.

E) the applicant with the highest total score across predictors is selected for the position.

36)

The hiring decision marks the:

A) end of the interview process.

B) end of the recruitment process.

C) end of the job analysis.

D) end of the selection process.

E) end of the realistic job preview.

37)

When supervisors make the final hiring decision, what role does HR need to play?

A) provide the supervisor with the best applicants available B) evaluate the technical abilities of applicants C) answer specific job-related questions from interviewees D) make a psychological commitment to assist the new employee E) accept all responsibility for candidate successes and failures

38)

The multiple cut-off approach to hiring is used when:

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A) scores for each predictor are evaluated on a pass or fail basis.

B) management predetermines the number of applicants that will proceed on to the next round.

C) predictors are assumed to be additive.

D) decisions about who will move forward in the selection process are based on gut feelings.

E) applicants with the highest total score are selected for the position.

39)

Behavioural description interviews are based on the principle that:

A) Asking questions that upset the applicant effectively predicts performance.

B) The best predictor of future behaviour is past behaviour in similar circumstances.

C) Using unplanned questions helps interviewees understand if they are right for a job.

D) Watching how a person behaves while they are being interviewed is informative.

E) Behavioural intentions in work-related situations predict performance.

40) Which of the following is an advantage of using unstructured employment interviews for selection?

A) They are highly reliable B) They ask applicants the same series of questions C) They result in a friendly conversation D) They only touch on job-related topics E) They are based on a thorough job analysis

41)

Which of the following describes the purpose of situational interviews?

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A) To identify how a job applicant responded to specific work situations in the past B) To capture past actions that can be used to predict future actions C) To upset the applicant using rapid-fire questions D) To assess an applicant's likely future responses to incidents which they may not have encountered before E) To have a friendly conversation using questions that go into topic areas as they arise in the interview

42) When deciding whether to include drug testing as a contingent assessment in their selection process, employers must:

A) enforce policies requiring all applicants to self-administer drug tests.

B) balance individual rights against employer liability and workplace safety.

C) test for drugs under all circumstances for liability reasons.

D) accommodate employees even if it would alter the nature of the enterprise's viability.

E) be aware that offers of employment can be automatically withdrawn if a candidate fails the test.

43) In Canada, which of the following gives an employer better luck in defending a drug policy?

A) If candidates have a history of failing to disclose past drug abuse B) If the policy is a bona fide occupational requirement of the job C) If the policy only prohibits recreational drug use D) If the policy penalizes drug use that would requires any employer accommodation E) If the policy indicates that employment offers will be withdrawn immediately upon failing a drug test

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44) At which step in the selection process are organizations removing from further consideration those applicants who do not meet the education or experience qualifications that are required for the job?

A) Applicant screening B) Preliminary reception of applicants C) Verification of reference(s) D) Administration of employment tests E) Realistic job preview

45) Which of the following is a questionnaire that uses a multiple-choice format to measure a job candidate's education, experiences, opinions, attitudes, and interests?

A) Weighted application blank B) Biographical information blank C) Leadership opinion questionnaire D) Stanton survey E) Hogan personality inventory

46)

The multiple hurdle approach is best used:

A) when the business is small and owner-operated.

B) when applied to the first half of the selection process.

C) when decision makers subjectively evaluate all of the applicant information.

D) when predictors used in the selection system are expensive.

E) when higher scores on some predictors may compensate for low scores on other predictors.

47)

Which of the following is a problem with using personal references?

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A) They are too focused on the applicant's work history B) They tend to be overused C) They emphasize only positive points D) They are too objective in nature E) They are too unreliable to be useful during selection

48) Which of the following internal factors can expand existing challenges or simply add more constraints to an organization's selection strategy?

A) Labour market realities B) Organizational policies C) Environmental scans D) Selection ratios E) Employment interview format

49)

Which of the following is an example of feedback on employee failures?

A) Displeased supervisors B) Less union activity C) Increasing employee satisfaction D) Reductions in turnover E) Lower absenteeism

50) Preserving the job applications of those hired helps human resource departments to learn about which of the following?

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A) Indexation B) The source of its applicants C) identify corrective action options retroactively D) Changes to relevant legislation E) Economic trends

51) An organization's overall effectiveness and success depends on the quality and calibre of the employees it hires. ⊚ ⊚

true false

52) When information gathered through job analyses does not match the criteria used for selection, organizations are exposed to lawsuits. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) The life cycle stage of an organization is irrelevant to determining a selection strategy that meets organizational needs. ⊚ ⊚

54)

true false

A selection ratio of 1:3 means a low quality of recruits are available to fill the job. ⊚ ⊚

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17

55) The relationship between the number of applicants hired and the total number of applicants available is called a selection ratio. ⊚ ⊚

56)

The type of selection procedure used depends on organizational size. ⊚ ⊚

57)

true false

true false

In most organizations the selection process ends with the realistic job preview. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) During the selection process, the employment interview is conducted after applicants are given a realistic job preview. ⊚ ⊚

59)

true false

The popularity of drug testing is declining in organizations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) The first step in the selection process involves conducting "courtesy interviews" on occasion. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

18

61)

Application forms are poor predictors of performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) Items on biographical information blanks can have the unintended effect of turning off well-qualified applicants. ⊚ ⊚

63)

true false

The reliability of a test refers to its accuracy and relationship to job-relevant criteria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) When tests are not reliable, they can still accurately measure what they are supposed to measure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) Conducting validity studies refers to using evidence accumulated for other jobs or applicant populations to guide employment choices. ⊚ ⊚

66)

true false

Involving immediate supervisors in the interviewing process is recommended.

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⊚ ⊚

67)

true false

Using RJPs can result in more candidates declining job offers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Using social networking sites to learn more about applicants has been tested legally and is considered illegal in all Canadian jurisdictions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Assessment centres use multiple assessment techniques to predict candidates' managerial potential. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) Computer-interactive performance tests are a becoming more common way of conducting performance tests. ⊚ ⊚

71)

true false

Direct questions about past thefts are typically asked in non-overt integrity tests. ⊚ ⊚

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20

72)

Integrity tests are highly predictive of job performance. ⊚ ⊚

73)

true false

Employment tests are limited to measuring factors that can be tested and validated easily. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) In Canada, drug-dependence is considered to be a disability protected under the Canadian Charter of Human Rights and Freedoms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Many human resource professionals feel that employment references are helpful selection tools due to their objectivity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Employment references are not useful during selection, confirming the doubts of many HR specialists. ⊚ ⊚

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21

77) Organizations that exclude realistic job previews from the selection process tend to show lower employee turnover than organizations that include realistic job previews in the selection process. ⊚ ⊚

78)

true false

The subjective approach to hiring is also referred to as the clinical approach. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) The judgmental nature of hiring decisions made using the subjective approach reduces confusion and potential problems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) The multiple cut-off approach allows applicants to make up for a poor score on one predictor by achieving a strong score on another predictor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) The underlying assumption of the multiple hurdle approach is that deficiency in one predictor cannot be compensated by superior performance on another. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

Rational approaches to test validation include both content and construct validity.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

83) Factors that are not easily measured with employment tests are less important to selection than those that can be measured through testing. ⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

Boring questions can lower the reliability of a test. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Construct validity is established by testing present employees and correlating these scores with measures of their performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Establishing differential validity refers to conducting separate test validation studies for different subgroups such as women or minorities. ⊚ ⊚

87)

true false

Unstructured employment interviews are poor predictors of candidate performance. ⊚ ⊚

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23

88) Employment interview formats differ based on whether the questions are structured or unstructured. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) A behavioural description interview question asking candidates how they dealt with an angry customer is appropriate for a job that will be in retail. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) Using questions that ask about what candidates would do in situations likely to arise on the job is useful for understanding the candidate's behavioural intentions. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

Employment interviews consist of five stages. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) The evaluation stage should immediately follow the termination stage of an employment interview. ⊚ ⊚

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24

93) When an interviewer's evaluation is biased because they were unimpressed by the applicant's choice of attire, the interviewer's judgment is being biased by the halo effect. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Many employers have had to revise their workplace drug and alcohol policies in response to the legalization of recreational cannabis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) The costs incurred by the selection process include only the out-of-pocket costs such as the costs of testing, interviewing, postage, and stationery. ⊚ ⊚

96)

true false

Employment specialists should shred the applications of all rejected applicants. ⊚ ⊚

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25

Answer Key Test name: ch 6 1) C 2) E 3) D 4) B 5) B 6) B 7) E 8) A 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) B 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) D 17) E 18) B 19) C 20) E 21) A 22) E 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) B Version 1

26

27) C 28) B 29) C 30) C 31) D 32) E 33) E 34) B 35) E 36) D 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) B 43) B 44) A 45) B 46) D 47) C 48) B 49) A 50) B 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE Version 1

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57) FALSE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE Version 1

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87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) FALSE

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Student name:__________ 1) Which of the following gives employees an opportunity to understand which knowledge, skills, abilities, and behaviours are needed to add value to the business?

A) A training system B) A needs assessment C) A competency framework D) An orientation program E) A training objective

2)

Strategic human resource development involves which of the following?

A) Familiarizing employees with their roles B) Attempting to change employee behaviour C) Focusing employee learning on the short-term future D) Identifying essential job skills E) Looking for growth opportunities

3)

Using behaviour modelling as a development strategy does which of the following?

A) Helps team members devise solutions to problems B) Uses passive methods to encourage behaviour C) Makes managers more aware of the impact of their behaviour D) Focuses on ongoing information-sharing processes E) Teaches desired behaviour by providing trainees with displays of desirable behaviour

4)

Active career planning does which of the following for organizations?

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A) Taps employee potential B) Reduces startup costs of hiring new employees C) Lowers instances of grievances D) Slows the attainment of acceptable job performance levels E) Helps employees accept the organizational culture

5) Which of the following is an outcome measure used by employees to evaluate career success?

A) Union activity B) Work-life balance C) Anxiety levels D) Absenteeism E) Learning

6)

To be truly successful in raising awareness of career options, career counsellors must:

A) outline employees' career paths for them B) get employees to assess themselves and their environment C) persuade employees to work towards the goals that were set out for them D) provide feedback to the employee about their performance E) avoid using attitudes and skills tests

7)

When selecting a training technique, cost-effectiveness is:

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A) the most important factor B) one of several trade-offs C) difficult to achieve D) not a priority E) less important than trainee preferences

8)

Job rotation is an example of using which approach for developing talent?

A) Behavioural B) Environmental C) Cognitive D) Learning E) Managerial

9)

Mindfulness training can be used to carry out which employee development strategy?

A) Behavioural B) Environmental C) Cognitive D) Advancement E) Employability

10) Which of the following is a digital method for delivering training programs that allows trainees to respond to job requirements as though they worked on the job?

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A) virtual reality B) wikis C) performance support D) social networking websites E) blogs

11)

The reaction criterion for training evaluation evaluates which of the following?

A) The setup of the program B) Program effectiveness C) Desired behavioural changes D) Which skills and knowledge were acquired E) Overall organizational results

12)

The first step in any training program is to:

A) design the training program B) determine the program content C) identify the training objectives D) assess the training needs of the organization E) evaluate whether the training program achieved the objectives

13)

Needs assessments accomplish which of the following?

A) assessing the costs of different training programs B) suggesting possible methods to evaluate training programs C) diagnosing environmental challenges that can be met through training D) identifying barriers faced by employees E) linking employee competencies to business goals

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14) The Conference Board of Canada developed the "Employability Skills Profile" to list the critical skills required for which of the following?

A) Entry-level jobs B) Current jobs C) HR jobs D) Past jobs E) Middle-management jobs

15)

Implying constant learning would indicate which type of development strategy?

A) Cognitive strategy B) Behavioural strategy C) Environmental strategy D) Cost-benefit strategy E) Assessment strategy

16) A large organization that hires several employees at the same time will likely use which method to deliver orientation programs?

A) A less comprehensive orientation program B) An individual orientation program C) A group orientation program D) A sponsor worker will be assigned to new hires to facilitate orientation activities E) An extended orientation program

17) Which of the following occurs as a result of HR's active involvement in employee career planning?

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A) More turnover B) Increased hoarding C) Development of promotable employees D) Growth in absenteeism E) Additional challenges meeting legal requirements

18) Which of the following is defined as capturing, distributing, and effectively using knowledge?

A) Knowledge management B) Training C) Onboarding D) Development E) Orientation

19) Which of the following HR tools raises awareness of career options by informing employees of changes that may affect their career choices?

A) Creating career paths B) Offering an internal job posting process C) Career counselling D) Conducting workshops E) Hosting seminars

20) Which of the following is an organizational issue that is often a topic covered in employee orientation programs?

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A) Employee benefits B) Job duties C) Workplace safety D) Vacations E) Pay scales

21)

Which of the following is an on-the-job training technique?

A) Job labs B) Job rotation C) Lectures D) Role-playing E) Case studies

22) Cross-training employees by moving them through a variety of jobs within the organization is called:

A) Job enrichment B) An employee exchange program C) Job rotation D) Mentoring E) Job enlargement

23) Which of the following training evaluation criteria relies on self-reports and observations by neutral observers, superiors, and customers?

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A) Organizational results B) Reaction C) Knowledge D) Behaviour E) Skill

24) Environmental strategies for employee career development include which of the following?

A) Behaviour modelling B) Temporary assignments C) Sensitivity training D) Mentoring E) Team building

25) Which of the following is an approach that can be used to evaluate the effectiveness of a training program?

A) A cost-benefit analysis B) A cognitive development strategy C) Learning principles D) Trainer capabilities E) A needs assessment

26)

A needs assessment would recommend training in which of the following situations?

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A) When accident rates are declining B) When supervisors want to reward good workers C) When new procedures are being introduced D) When employees seem motivated E) When there is high morale within the organization

27)

Which of the following is a strategic purpose served by proper onboarding?

A) Increasing uncertainty about what is expected on the job B) Reducing instances of corrective discipline C) Increasing employee anxiety D) Reducing organizational stability E) Increasing grievances

28) Which of the following criteria for evaluating training programs would be ideal if it were easier to determine the cause-effect link between them and the training program?

A) Reactions B) Behaviours C) Organizational results D) Skills E) Attitudes

29) Which of the following is an action that employees typically take to direct their personal development?

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A) Leave the organization to seek a better job B) Decrease visibility within the organization C) Avoid offers of informal career advice D) Limit involvement in management development programs E) Strive to set only modest job performance

30) Which of the following outcomes is associated with the implementation of a poor onboarding program?

A) Increased organizational stability B) Reduced employee anxiety C) Time savings D) Increased grievances E) Development of clear-cut organizational expectations

31) Which of the following describes employees who change employers as part of a conscious career strategy?

A) Contract workers B) Job hoppers C) Part-time employees D) Temporary workers E) Sponsors

32)

Which of the following is a learning principle?

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A) Advancement B) Employability C) Psychological factors D) Engagement E) Repetition

33) Which of the following is the career anchor where individual employees seek the opportunity to integrate the efforts of others?

A) Security B) Pure challenge C) Dedication to a cause D) Autonomy E) General managerial

34)

Which of the following should be stated in the training objectives?

A) History of the employer B) Acceptable performance criteria C) Revised job descriptions D) Training costs E) Layout of the physical facilities

35)

Case study, role-playing, and simulations are all examples of:

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A) Types of developmental activities B) Off-the-job training techniques C) Learning principles D) Methods of creating employee development plans E) Popular digital learning tools

36) Which of the following is the process by which people adapt to an organization through learning and accepting the values, norms, and beliefs held by others in an organization?

A) Orientation B) Repetition C) Socialization D) Evaluation E) Participation

37) Which of the following describes the strategically aligned process of helping new hires adjust to the performance aspects of their new jobs and the social aspects of the organization?

A) Orientation B) Socialization C) Succession planning D) Onboarding E) Teamwork

38)

Effective onboarding activities include which of the following?

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A) Hiring B) Socialization C) Succession planning D) Recruitment E) Employee development

39) Which of the following is the human resource department's plan for unexpected vacancies in key positions?

A) Human resource planning B) Replacement planning C) Succession planning D) Contingency planning E) Insurance planning

40)

Which of the following make up more than half of all coaches?

A) Senior managers B) Corporate executives C) Supervisors D) Coaches from outside of the organization E) Interns

41) Which of the following evaluation methods would be most effective for measuring whether skills and knowledge were acquired from a training program?

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A) Testing the trainees at the end of the program B) Getting feedback from other employees C) Applying tests at the beginning and end of the training program D) Looking at reports of organizational results E) Having supervisors observe employees

42) Which of the following focuses on developing competencies and skills that will enable employees to be successful in a future role in the organization?

A) Onboarding B) Conducting a needs assessment C) Employee development D) Training E) Learning principles

43) Training pilots in flight simulators because the simulators closely resemble the actual cockpits and flight characteristics of the airplane is an example of which learning principle?

A) Relevance B) Repetition C) Transference D) Feedback E) Participation

44) When an employee is moved to another position in the same class, or to a different class with the same level of duties and salary this is called a:

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A) Lateral transfer B) Job rotation C) Temporary assignment D) Employee exchange program E) Job redefinition

45) Which of the following steps of creating employee development plans follows "assess employees' needs"?

A) Identify barriers B) Identify learning and development activities C) Determine resources D) Link competencies and skills to business goals E) Evaluate the plan

46) Which of the following steps of creating employee development plans focuses on what support is needed to ensure success?

A) Determine resources B) Identify barriers C) Link competencies and skills to business goals D) Identify learning and development activities E) Assess employees' needs

47) Which of the following is the first step to consider when creating an employee development plan?

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A) Identify barriers B) Determine resources C) Identify learning and development activities D) Assess employees' needs E) Link competencies and skills to business goals

48) Formal orientation programs are intended to familiarize new employees with their roles, other employees, and the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

49) For a majority of jobs, there are no clear-cut lists of desirable behaviours, outcomes, and attitudes. ⊚ ⊚

50)

true false

Small organizations use group orientation programs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

51) What employees learn during socialization depends on the willingness of others to form a relationship with the newcomer. ⊚ ⊚

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52) Some organization conduct orientation by assigning new hires a buddy to direct the employee to the appropriate resources. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) The onboarding process builds knowledge of the organization at the individual, department, and job level for new hires. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) A typical orientation program focuses on having new hires observe the language, behaviours, dress, and other artifacts at the workplace. ⊚ ⊚

55)

The evolving global economy impacts training requirements. ⊚ ⊚

56)

true false

Diversity training helps to alert supervisors to stereotypes and prejudices. ⊚ ⊚

57)

true false

true false

The organizational benefits of training can include skill improvement. ⊚ ⊚

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58) The benefits of training for employees can include stronger identification with corporate goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) The role that HR plays in knowledge management involves facilitating knowledge retention when employees leave or retire from the organization. ⊚ ⊚

60)

true false

Employee development prepares employees for their current jobs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) When planning a training program, organizations should first decide which learning principles to use. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) When supervisors suggest training surplus employees who are temporarily expendable, they are recommending training for a valid reason. ⊚ ⊚

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63)

Training objectives should state the conditions under which training is to occur. ⊚ ⊚

64)

A training program's content is shaped by the needs assessment. ⊚ ⊚

65)

true false

true false

Feedback is a learning principle that can be included in training. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) The relevance learning principle focuses on practicing a sequence of steps to make them easier to recall when they are needed on the job. ⊚ ⊚

67)

true false

Active participation usually makes learning quicker and more long-lasting. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Feedback allows motivated learners to modify their behaviour to achieve the quickest possible learning curve. ⊚ ⊚

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69)

The use of learning principles speeds up the rate at which an individual learns. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

On-the-job training methods are more effective than off-the-job training methods. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Role playing is an on-the-job training method that forces trainees to assume different identities. ⊚ ⊚

72)

Coaching tends to be more formal than apprenticeship programs. ⊚ ⊚

73)

true false

Job lab training is used so that training does not disrupt normal organizational operations. ⊚ ⊚

74)

true false

true false

Telecom companies use MOOCs for training more often than other sectors.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Employee development can focus on taking what the employee has already learned and applying it in innovative ways. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Strategic human resource development involves the active management of employees' learning in relation to corporate strategies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) Talent shortages need to be considered when determining with top management which employees to develop. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) Employee development focuses on developing competencies and skills that will enable the employee to be successful in a future role in the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) The three basic developmental strategies for organizations are cognitive, behavioural, and environmental. ⊚ ⊚

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80)

Cognitive developmental strategies tend to use active techniques. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Behavioural developmental strategies aim to make individuals more competent in interacting with their environment. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

Project teams is an example of an environmental approach to employee development. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) The learning organization creates a knowledge network where employees can learn more about content that is important to their development. ⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

Participant reactions can be used to evaluate the effectiveness of a training program. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) The most effective way for an employee to manage their career path is to demonstrate good job performance.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

86) When employers encourage career planning, employees are less likely to pursue further training. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) The starting point for career development is the employer, who is expected to take care of hard-working and loyal employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) To evaluate career success, employees refer to their ability to gain a sense of power or status. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) To be successful, career counsellors must get employees to assess themselves and their environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) Meeting employees' career development objectives can alleviate other organizational concerns. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: ch 7 1) C 2) D 3) E 4) A 5) E 6) B 7) B 8) B 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) D 13) C 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) C 18) A 19) C 20) C 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) C Version 1

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27) B 28) C 29) A 30) D 31) B 32) E 33) E 34) B 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) B 39) C 40) D 41) C 42) C 43) C 44) A 45) D 46) A 47) D 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE Version 1

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57) FALSE 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE Version 1

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87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1) Which of the following is the process of identifying, measuring, and developing the performance of individuals and teams and aligning performance with the strategic goals of the organization?

A) performance appraisal B) employee development C) performance management D) talent management E) career planning

2) Which of the following requires a rater to provide a subjective evaluation of an employee's performance?

A) A rating scale B) A BARS C) A paper-and-pencil test D) A simulation E) A forced distribution

3)

Which of the following describes subjective performance measures?

A) Ratings that are verifiable by others B) Ratings based on opinion or perception C) Ratings based on having witnessed the performance D) Ratings based on substitutes for actual performance E) Ratings that are usually quantitative

4)

Comparative evaluation methods for performance appraisals can include:

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A) behaviour observation scales B) forced distributions C) performance tests D) management by objectives E) behaviourally anchored rating scales

5) Which step immediately follows "measure performance" in the performance appraisal system?

A) Identify performance objectives B) Communicate feedback C) Store records of performance evaluations D) Make hr decisions E) Identify the purpose of the performance appraisal

6)

Which of the following appraisal approaches is future-oriented?

A) Management-by-objectives B) Performance tests C) Behavioural observation scales D) Forced distributions E) Observations

7) If an evaluator is providing an employee with feedback about their past performance or future potential using the "tell and sell" approach, what is the evaluator engaging in?

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A) Measurement of performance B) The setting of performance standards C) An evaluation interview D) Use of the 360-degree performance appraisal E) Application of a performance improvement plan

8)

In order to be effective, performance standards must be:

A) unrealistically challenging B) subjective descriptions of average performance C) created by employees D) reflective of the desired results of each job E) general in nature

9) Rater guidelines for conducting effective performance evaluation interviews include which of the following?

A) Emphasize negative aspects of performance B) Make general criticisms C) Delay positive feedback D) Be willing to argue with the person being evaluated E) Discuss the manager's role in supporting future development

10) The 360-degree performance appraisal is most appropriate for which of the following purposes?

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A) Employee development B) Administrative C) Career planning D) Determining pay raises E) Making decisions about promotions

11) Which performance evaluation approach is based on the premise that employees are more motivated to achieve goals when they are jointly agreed upon by employees and supervisors?

A) The 360-degree performance appraisal B) Behaviourally anchored rating scales C) Management-by-objectives D) Performance tests E) Use of the ranking method

12)

Which of the following is a new trend in rater training?

A) Training on company policies surrounding performance appraisals B) Training about how to evaluate the performance of your boss C) Training about rater errors D) Training on how to make valid judgments based on complex information E) Training about the dangers of groupthink

13) What is performance appraisal being used for when performance evaluations give stronger performers pay raises and transfer weaker performers?

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A) Career planning B) Test validation C) Performance improvement D) Employee development E) Administrative tasks

14) The reluctance to give very poor or excellent ratings describes which of the following rating errors?

A) Contrast error B) Leniency error C) Central tendency error D) Strictness error E) Halo effect error

15)

Performance appraisal is the process by which organizations:

A) select the best applicants to hire B) review applications for employment C) evaluate employee job performance over time D) determine individual health and safety benefits E) develop employees who have high potential

16)

Which of the following is characteristic of an effective performance appraisal process?

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A) It requires little training for raters B) It is ineffective for capturing recurring activities C) It is independent from innovation D) It can be used as legal evidence in litigation E) It relies on inconsistent performance criteria

17) Which of the following is an error that occurs when raters rate all employees as "below average"?

A) Personal prejudice error B) Contrast error C) Central tendency error D) Strictness error E) Halo effect error

18) Which of the following is a serious problem with all subjective measures of employee performance?

A) They are subject to rater bias B) They are quantitative C) They compare employees to each other D) They are time-consuming E) They are not an option for all jobs

19)

Performance appraisals are stored for:

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A) a maximum of one year B) legal documentation purposes C) internal use only D) later submission to the provincial labour relations board E) rater training purposes

20) If a rater is asked to evaluate employee performance using a rating scale that has specific examples of effective and ineffective performance behaviours placed along a scale, which method are they using?

A) A rating scale B) A forced distribution C) A performance observation D) A behaviourally anchored rating scale E) The management-by-objectives approach

21) Which of the following characteristics is associated with the "linking up" approach to aligning organizational and individual goals?

A) It produces goals with little meaning B) It risks goals being distorted as they move through the chain C) It is time-consuming to set up D) It allows for a direct line of sight between the individual goals and the organization's objectives E) It ensures that goals at the organizational level cascade into unit goals

22) Which of the following is a characteristic of non-comparative performance evaluation methods?

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A) They use scales with performance standards B) They can apply low ratings to good performers C) They overcome the central tendency bias D) They offer little job-related feedback E) They classify employees on bell curves

23)

Which of the following is a purpose of conducting performance appraisals?

A) To adapt to labour market realities B) To inform employee career development plans C) To recognize organizational constraints D) To get a personal impression of employees E) To measure test reliability

24) When a supervisor's personal opinion of an employee sways the supervisor's measurement of the employee's performance, the supervisor is committing which rater error?

A) Halo effect error B) Central tendency error C) Leniency error D) Contrast error E) Personal prejudice error

25) Which of the following approaches to employee evaluation combines self, peer, supervisor, and subordinate performance evaluations?

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A) The evaluation interview B) The 360-degree performance appraisal C) The performance improvement plan D) The performance observations method E) The behaviour observation scale

26) Which system integrates financial measures with other key performance indicators to assess performance of the overall organization?

A) The linking up approach B) Ratings of talent potential C) The performance improvement plan D) Cascading goals E) The balanced scorecard

27) Which of the following are key benchmarks that relate to the desired results of employee performance?

A) Working conditions B) Performance standards C) Direct observations of performance D) 9-box grids E) Organizational missions

28)

Performance objectives should be:

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A) practical B) general goals C) outlined before putting together the performance management plan D) subjective E) set without input from employees

29) Focusing on the work environment as a way to improve systemic poor performance is an example of conducting performance appraisals for which purpose?

A) Identifying training program objectives B) Outlining how jobs should be redesigned C) Using it as a criterion for test validation D) Guiding employee development E) Informing career planning

30)

The design of a performance appraisal process will depend on which of the following?

A) The amount of administrative work that HR can handle B) Employees' career plans C) The purpose of the performance appraisal system D) Employee categorization on the 9-box grid E) Rater training needs

31) If a rater's performance ratings are generally lower for female employees than they are for male employees, the rater is likely committing which rater error?

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A) Halo effect error B) Strictness error C) Leniency error D) Personal prejudice error E) Contrast error

32)

Which of the following is occurring when raters actually see employee performance?

A) Indirect observation B) Objective performance measurement C) Comparative evaluation D) Direct observation E) Subjective performance measurement

33) Which of the following steps for creating a performance improvement plan involves documenting the employee's current performance and areas for improvement?

A) Develop an action plan B) Getting started C) Review the performance improvement plan D) Follow up E) Meet with the employee

34) Which performance appraisal method requires the rater to measure the frequency of observed behaviours with a scale?

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A) A behaviour observation scale B) A rating scale C) A performance test D) A behaviourally anchored rating scale E) A forced distribution

35) When performance standards are based on how well performance objectives have been achieved, they are focusing on which of the following?

A) Manager's goal setting abilities B) The timing of performance C) The quantity of performance D) The quality of performance E) Performance goal specificity

36) Which of the following is a comparative evaluation method where raters place each employee in order from best to worst?

A) A behaviourally anchored rating scale B) A forced distribution C) The ranking method D) Observation E) The management-by-objectives approach

37) An evaluation interview where a supervisor allows an employee to explain reasons, excuses, and defensive feelings about their performance is an example of which approach to providing performance feedback?

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A) The tell-and-sell approach B) The problem-solving approach C) The tell-and-listen approach D) The positive approach E) The direct approach

38) Which of the following evaluation sources can allow employees' typical performance, as opposed to just their "best behaviour," to be captured?

A) Peers B) Self-appraisals C) Direct reports D) Customers E) Supervisors

39) Which of the following is a potential rater bias that occurs when raters compare employees to each other rather than to a performance standard?

A) Personal prejudice error B) Halo effect error C) Leniency error D) Contrast error E) Strictness error

40)

Which of the following are the ratings used to evaluate employee performance?

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A) Performance management B) Performance measures C) Performance appraisal D) Performance implementation plans E) Performance standards

41)

Which of the following describes a key feature of comparative evaluation methods?

A) They contrast one person's performance with that of co-workers B) They use standardized forms that are always job-related C) They evaluate employee performance according to present data D) They are based on paper-and-pencil tests E) They evaluate employees against performance objectives

42)

A legally defensible performance appraisal system uses performance criteria that:

A) are relevant to the job B) demonstrate low validity C) tend to be applied differently across participants D) base ratings on rater opinions E) relate to non-critical work behaviours

43)

Job analysis impacts performance appraisal by:

A) establishing performance standards B) providing different methods to evaluate performance C) guiding administrative decisions D) identifying individuals within the organization for development E) outlining plans to improve performance

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44) Which performance evaluation method requires that employees be in circumstances similar to those encountered on the job?

A) Behaviourally anchored rating scales B) Rating scales C) The ranking method D) Performance tests E) Forced distributions

45) If an employee receives an unsatisfactory performance review and the employee and manager are engaged in a performance improvement process, how often should feedback be provided?

A) Weekly B) Monthly C) Annually D) Quarterly E) Twice a year

46) When the purpose of a performance appraisal is to provide course correction feedback, it would be ideal to provide feedback when?

A) Weekly B) Monthly C) Immediately D) Quarterly E) Annually

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47) Which of the following tools categorizes employees as future, current, and consistent stars?

A) Balanced scorecards B) Subjective performance measures C) Evaluation interviews D) 9-box grids E) Performance improvement plans

48)

An employee classified as a current star demonstrates which of the following?

A) High performance and low potential B) Low performance and high potential C) Moderate performance and high potential D) Moderate performance and moderate potential E) High performance and moderate potential

49) Which of the following is a way for organizations to give poor-performing employees the opportunity to succeed, while still holding them accountable for past performance?

A) A work plan B) A performance improvement plan C) A strategic plan D) A career plan E) A human resource plan

50) Which of the following steps for establishing a performance improvement plan involves seeking assistance from the HR department to ensure that the plan is clear, specific, unemotional, and attainable within the set timeframe?

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A) Develop an action plan B) Follow up C) Getting started D) Meet with the employee E) Review the performance improvement plan

51) During which of the following steps in establishing a performance improvement plan should the manager clearly lay out the areas for improvement and the action plan?

A) Performance improvement plan conclusion B) Meet with the employee C) Getting started D) Follow up E) Review the performance improvement plan

52) Many employees will likely be excluded from internal placement decisions when the appraisal process indicates which of the following conditions?

A) A labour supply shortage B) The workforce displaying low levels of literacy C) Widespread poor performance D) The presence of unethical business practices E) An undersupply of employees categorized as "solid professionals"

53) When a time frame is set for performance improvement, the length of time allotted depends on which of the following?

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A) The job B) The career plan C) The organization's strategy D) The factors that caused the poor performance E) The employee's categorization in the 9-box grid

54) Incentives are ineffective for reinforcing performance that matches the desired business strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) Performance management needs to be carefully linked to business strategy, regardless of whether the strategic focus is safe working, competitive pricing, high quality, or exemplary customer service. ⊚ ⊚

true false

56) Having organizational goals cascade into refined goals at the unit, team, and individual levels is a way to align organizational and employee performance goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) Sound performance management programs make a clear connection between employee goals and demographic trends. ⊚ ⊚

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18

58) Performance management plans aim to provide clarity for how the work of the employee contributes to organizational success. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) Business strategy, performance management, and compensation systems should be carefully linked. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) Performance appraisals can indicate to employees where they are not meeting acceptable performance standards. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) The major problem with peer appraisals is the concern that peers have about potential retribution if their responses are identified. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) Most human resource departments dislike using self-appraisals because they offer little job-related feedback about how employees can improve. ⊚ ⊚

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19

63) Performance appraisals can become evidence when allegations of wrongful dismissal occur. ⊚ ⊚

64)

Performance appraisals can be used for making decisions about promotions. ⊚ ⊚

65)

true false

true false

Performance appraisals inform long-term career planning. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) Performance measures are the benchmarks that relate to the desired results of employee performance. ⊚ ⊚

67)

Performance standards may relate to the due dates of performance objectives. ⊚ ⊚

68)

true false

true false

Direct subjective measures of performance are preferred.

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⊚ ⊚

69)

Human resource specialists should arbitrarily set performance standards. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

true false

To be useful, performance measures need to be easy to use. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Subjective indirect performance measures are usually less accurate than subjective direct measures. ⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

Subjective performance measures minimize the personal biases of the rater. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) Useful performance measures must report on the critical behaviours that determine performance. ⊚ ⊚

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21

74) Improvements to employee performance are significantly higher when supervisors set general as opposed to specific goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) During an evaluation interview, negative comments should focus on an employee's personality as opposed to their job performance. ⊚ ⊚

76)

Performance appraisals that enforce consequences lose their effectiveness quite quickly. ⊚ ⊚

77)

true false

true false

The ranking method is a future-oriented approach to performance evaluation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) The behaviourally anchored rating scales method of appraisal places specific examples of effective and ineffective performance behaviours along a scale. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) A limitation of behaviourally anchored rating scales is that they only look at a limited number of performance categories.

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⊚ ⊚

80)

true false

Forced distribution is a comparative performance evaluation method. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) A good method for overcoming the biases of leniency, strictness, and central tendency in performance appraisal is through the use of forced distributions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) The management-by-objectives approach to performance appraisal is based on the premise that when future objectives are set, employees gain the motivational benefit of a specific target to direct their efforts towards. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) The 360-degree performance appraisal combines performance evaluations made by the employee as well as the employee's peers, supervisors, and subordinates. ⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

Frame-of-reference training aims to improve raters' categorization skills. ⊚ ⊚

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23

85) The halo effect error occurs when a rater is comparing employees to each other rather than to a performance standard. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) The leniency bias occurs when raters are consistently too easy in evaluating employee performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Rater training may include information on how to communicate feedback about the performance appraisal to the employee. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) The tell-and-listen approach to an employee appraisal interview reviews the employee's performance and tries to convince the employee to perform better. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) The problem-solving approach to an employee evaluation interview allows the employee to explain reasons, excuses, and defensive feelings about why performance is deficient. ⊚ ⊚

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90) Establishing performance standards using a job analysis ensures that performance criteria that are not relevant to the job are avoided during the appraisal process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) The ratings and comments made on performance appraisals provide documentation that is necessary for justifying HR decisions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Performance appraisal forms serve little legal purpose beyond providing proof that employee evaluation is consistent. ⊚ ⊚

93)

true false

A performance appraisal is a legal document that can be used in court. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Unacceptably high numbers of poor performers within an organization could indicate issues elsewhere in the HR function. ⊚ ⊚

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95) Performance appraisals with a forward-looking focus on development aim to control employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Talent management involves identifying and developing specific individuals within the organization who have high potential. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: ch 8 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) B 5) B 6) A 7) C 8) D 9) E 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) E 14) C 15) C 16) D 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) D 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) B 26) E Version 1

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27) B 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) D 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) C 38) A 39) D 40) B 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) D 45) A 46) C 47) D 48) E 49) B 50) E 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE Version 1

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57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE Version 1

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87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1) Which of the following is a level of pay that is a common source of dissatisfaction among employees?

A) Relative pay B) Incentive pay C) Absolute pay D) Variable pay E) Skill-based pay

2)

The point system is a job evaluation approach that is usually done by:

A) supervisors B) peers C) specialists D) line managers E) executives

3)

Which of the following is a pay raise given to an employee for longstanding tenure?

A) Merit raise B) Production bonus C) Commission D) Promotion E) Indirect compensation

4) Which of the following is a good source of information on wage and salary benchmark data?

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A) Consulting companies B) Private employment agencies C) Professional search firms D) Educational institutions E) Temporary-help agencies

5)

Which of the following is an individual incentive plan?

A) Team results B) Production incentive plans C) Employee stock ownership plans D) Piecework E) Profit-sharing plans

6)

Which of the following is a group or team-based incentive plan?

A) Spot awards B) Production incentive plans C) Commissions D) Discretionary bonus plans E) Piecework

7) Which phase in compensation management involves understanding the elements of the job and the skills needed to conduct the job?

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A) Reviewing the job analysis B) Establishing the compensation philosophy C) Determining compensable factors D) Matching employees to pay E) Pricing jobs

8)

Which of the following factors can justify differences in wages for jobs of equal value?

A) Sex B) Seniority C) Race D) National origin E) Age

9) Which of the following is a job evaluation technique that focuses on what competitors are offering for similar work to determine how much the organization should pay for jobs?

A) Job grading B) Wage and salary surveys C) Job ranking D) The point system E) Job analysis

10) Which of the following job evaluation techniques is the most difficult quantitative method for organizations to develop?

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A) Job grading B) The point system C) Job analysis D) Job classification E) Job ranking

11)

The principle of equal pay for men and women in jobs with comparable content is called:

A) equal pay B) pay equity C) merit pay D) employment equity E) differential pay

12) How large is the pay gap between men and women in Canada when studying comparable groups?

A) 5-10 percent B) 20-25 percent C) 50-55 percent D) 65-70 percent E) 85-90 percent

13)

A piecework incentive system pays employees:

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A) for exceeding a specific level of output B) a flat amount for each unit sold C) for special contributions as they occur D) a base wage as well as a bonus E) for each unit of output produced

14) According to Lawler, which of the following lowers employees' pay satisfaction as well as their motivation perform?

A) Profit-sharing plans B) Job evaluations C) Pay equity D) Piecework incentive systems E) Pay secrecy

15) Which of the following job pricing tools is used to discover what other employers in the same labour market are paying for specific key jobs?

A) Job grading B) Wage and salary surveys C) The point system D) Job ranking E) Job analysis

16)

Which of the following is an advantage of using the point system for job evaluation?

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A) It focuses on external equity B) It is easy to develop initially C) It is simple to use D) It is usually done by departmental managers E) It can handle critical factors in more detail

17)

Which of the following job evaluation methods is also known as job classification?

A) The point system B) Job grading C) Wage and salary survey D) Job ranking E) Job analysis

18) Which of the following is described as a job evaluation system whereby jobs in an organization are subjectively placed in order according to their overall worth to the organization?

A) Job grading B) Job rating C) Job ranking D) Job classification E) Job analysis

19) Which of the following is a systematic procedure that is used to determine the relative worth of jobs to the organization?

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A) Job evaluation B) Incentive pay plans C) Temporary training positions D) Demotion pay procedures E) Job analysis

20) The perceived fairness of a pay system across different jobs within an organization is referred to as:

A) employment equity B) internal equity C) pay equity D) equal pay E) equal opportunity

21) Which of the following is a challenge affecting compensation that could raise the prevailing rate for jobs that require particular skills, such as plumbers?

A) Succession plans B) Union power C) Job requirements D) Economic conditions E) Analyst habits

22) If the average wage rate for a particular job class is $13 per hour, but pay can vary from $11 per hour for less than average employees and $15 per hour for an exceptional employee, then this organization is using which type of compensation policy within job classes?

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A) Flat rates B) Disbursed rates C) Red-circled rates D) Rate ranges E) Prevailing wage rates

23) If an organization applies a general across-the-board pay raise, how does the wage-trend line change?

A) It moves the right B) It moves upwards C) It moves downwards D) It reverses the direction of the slope E) It moves to the left

24) What does the vertical axis of a scattergram represent when the point system is used to rank jobs?

A) Pay rates B) Wage-trend line C) Key jobs D) The point value of jobs E) Job classes

25) Which of the following is defined as the perceived fairness in pay relative to what other employers are paying for the same type of work?

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A) Equity pledge B) Pay equity C) External equity D) Equal pay E) Equal opportunity

26) Which of the following is a form of job evaluation that assigns jobs to predetermined job classifications according to their relative worth to the organization?

A) Job classification B) Wage and salary surveys C) Job grading D) The point system E) Job ranking

27) Which of the following is a job pricing method focused on paying employees based on skill depth, breadth, and self-management?

A) Wage and salary surveys B) The point system C) Job ranking D) Job grading E) Knowledge-based pay

28) Since flat wage rates can make rewarding exceptional employees more difficult, most firms now use which of the following instead?

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A) Wage compression B) Rate ranges C) Merit raises D) Red circle rates E) Knowledge-based pay

29)

Compensation systems aim to incentivize workers by doing which of the following?

A) Enhancing job satisfaction B) Decreasing the variety of variable pay C) Delaying feedback D) Adding task significance E) Increasing salary comparisons between employees

30) Which of the following helps employers address gender pay inequity by ensuring that at least one woman and one minority member are considered for every open manager position?

A) Compa-ratio calculations B) The rooney rule C) Scattergrams D) Job grading E) Wage compression

31) Which of the following challenges does an organization face when market forces require that some jobs be paid more than is indicated by their relative work?

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A) Employment standards B) Wage and salary policies C) Productivity D) Prevailing wage rates E) Union power

32)

Which of the following prevents employees from adequately meeting their basic needs?

A) Low pay secrecy B) Low pay equity C) Low motivation D) Low job satisfaction E) Low absolute pay

33) Which of the following is a reason why the issue of equal pay for work of equal value is a difficult concept to tackle?

A) It covers women in the marketplace but ignores other protected classes B) It is widely known that there is a conspiracy among managers to keep wages of female-dominated jobs down C) It lacks a generally acceptable definition of "equal value" D) It conflicts with equal pay for equal work principles E) It is constrained by prevailing wage rates

34)

The major challenge of using market pricing for job evaluation is which of the following?

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A) That specialists lack access to industry-specific data B) That the data projects too far forward into the future C) That there is no way to compare data from organizations of similar revenue size D) That matching jobs within the organization to those reported in the survey can be misleading E) That unions can use their power to influence wage rates

35)

In pricing jobs, the appropriate pay level for any job reflects:

A) the productivity of the organization B) the firm's compensation philosophy C) manager preferences D) the compa-ratio E) the job's relative and absolute worth

36)

Which of the following is the most precise job evaluation technique?

A) Job ranking B) The point system C) Job grading D) Job classification E) Subjective comparisons of jobs

37) Which of the following job pricing strategies best suits organization with strong nonmonetary forms of compensation?

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A) Market lag B) Pricing at the top 25th percentile of organizations with similar positions C) Market leader D) Pricing at the 50th percentile of organizations with similar positions E) Matching the market

38)

Which of the following job pricing methods is now used by 9 out of 10 organizations?

A) Job ranking B) Job grading C) The point system D) Job classification E) Market pricing

39)

Employee stock ownership plans do which of the following?

A) Provide ownership and voting power to employees when it comes to major decisions about the company's future B) Have organizations share profits with the workers C) Allow groups of workers to receive bonuses for exceeding predetermined levels of output D) Encourage sharing salary increases equally by basing them on team results E) Recognize special contributions as they occur

40) The Canadian Human Rights Act makes it illegal to discriminate under which of the following conditions?

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A) When some employees are in temporary training positions B) When jobs differ in value C) When differences exist due to red-circled employees D) When performance ratings differ E) When employee seniority levels vary

41)

Effective compensation management aims to do which of the following?

A) Assess the internal and external supply of resources B) Encourage unproductive employees to leave C) Identify people who are likely to perform well on the job D) Acquire qualified personnel E) Pay rates that are higher than the relative marketplace

42) Which of the following is instrumental in striking a balance between the conflicting objectives of compensation management?

A) Surveying employees about which incentives they value B) Explaining the level of performance necessary to achieve benefits C) Consulting the organization's compensation philosophy D) Recognizing special employee contributions as they occur E) Allowing employees to choose their rewards

43) Which of the following is an indicator of how the salary of an employee relates to the midpoint of their relevant pay grade?

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A) Wage compression B) Red-circled rate C) The compa-ratio D) Rate range E) Wage-trend line

44) In a point system matrix, which of the following could be a component of the "working conditions" factor?

A) Level of responsibility B) Skill requirements C) Education training D) Effort needed E) Hazards

45) Which of the following is a significant benefit of including financial incentives in compensation programs?

A) Wages are allowed to be out of proportion from performance B) Reinforcement can be delayed C) Employees are motivated to narrow their output D) Better performance is regularly reinforced E) Indirect measures of time worked are rewarded

46) Which of the following is a compensation philosophy that pays rates that are higher than those of the relative marketplace?

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A) A lead strategy B) A reward strategy C) A lag strategy D) A match strategy E) An operating strategy

47)

Data from wage salary survey loses market reliability after:

A) 5 years B) 1 year C) 2 years D) 10 years E) 7 years

48)

In which of the following situations does a market leader position make sense?

A) When an organization's main objective is to control costs B) When an organization is competing for specialized skills in a tight labour market C) When the supply of a particular skill exceeds the demand for that skill D) When an organization has strong variable compensation programs E) When an organization is looking to pay employees comparable rates to the relative marketplace

49)

Depth-oriented pay systems reward employees for which of the following?

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A) Working in multiple capacities for the organization B) Needing little supervision C) Being able to conduct simple as well as complex tasks D) Their flexibility to do different jobs E) Gaining greater experience on existing skills

50) Which of the following is described as a rate of pay higher than the contractual, or formerly established, rate for the job?

A) A prevailing wage rate B) A flat rate C) A rate range D) A merit raise E) A red-circled rate

51)

Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with pay secrecy policies?

A) They cannot cover up inequities in the internal pay structure B) They give managers less freedom C) They can generate distrust in the pay system D) Few employees prefer to keep their pay a secret E) Employees are likely to underestimate the salaries of their colleagues

52) Which of the following categories of workers is frequently used to justify a pay difference?

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A) Full-time workers B) Casual workers C) Seasonal workers D) Contract workers E) Consultants

53) Compensation systems consist only of direct compensation paid to employees in exchange for the work that they do. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) When compensation is perceived to be inadequate, there are negative consequences regardless of whether the employee continues to work for the firm. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) When absolute pay is low, employees compare their salary with that of other employees in relation to experience and the duties and responsibilities required. ⊚ ⊚

true false

56) In Canada, perceptions of unfairness based on absolute pay levels tend to cause more dissatisfaction than perceptions of inadequate pay based on relative levels of pay. ⊚ ⊚

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57)

Objectives sought through effective compensation management include controlling costs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) If a recruiter offers one recruit a salary that is higher than the salary of other workers within the firm doing the same job, this is a threat to internal equity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) Internal equity requires that wage rates and salaries be reflective of what other employers are paying for the same type of work. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) External equity involves paying workers at a rate perceived to be fair compared to what the market pays. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) Job evaluations are systematic procedures used to determine the relative worth or value of jobs. ⊚ ⊚

62)

true false

The purpose of job evaluation is to identify which jobs should be paid more than others.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

63) The job evaluation technique that involves assigning each job a grade is called the point system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) When implementing the point system of job evaluation, jobs with fewer points lead to more pay. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) The point system of job evaluation involves judging each compensable factor on the level of effort required for each job. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) Many organizations engage a firm specializing in compensation to help them establish their pay systems. ⊚ ⊚

67)

true false

Job evaluation techniques focus on achieving internal equity. ⊚ ⊚

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68) Wage and salary surveys discover what other employers in the same labour market are paying for specific key jobs. ⊚ ⊚

69)

Consulting companies are poor sources of compensation information. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

true false

The final phase of the compensation management process is matching employees to pay. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) A job's relative worth is determined by market pricing for what the labour market pays for similar jobs. ⊚ ⊚

72)

A scattergram combines absolute and relative data. ⊚ ⊚

73) jobs.

true false

true false

Wage trend lines represent the intersection of the point value and wage rate for nonkey

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⊚ ⊚

true false

74) When using a wage-trend line, the first step to determining wage rates is to locate the point value for a nonkey job on the horizontal axis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Wage compression occurs when employers respond to legally required increases to minimum wage by also increasing wages for workers earning more than minimum wage. ⊚ ⊚

76)

The concept of equal pay for equal work is the same as pay equity. ⊚ ⊚

77)

true false

true false

The concept of equal pay for work of equal value is known as pay equity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) Demotion pay procedures due to unsatisfactory work performance justify differences in wages. ⊚ ⊚

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79) A factor contributing to the earning gap between men and women is that women have greater career interruptions than men. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) When implementing incentive compensation programs, the HR function interviews employees who are leaving the organization. ⊚ ⊚

81)

true false

Piecework is a type of individual incentive plan. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) Team incentive plans are used when measurable output is the result of group effort and it is challenging to separate individual contributions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) The total compensation model includes everything employees value in an employment relationship. ⊚ ⊚

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84) A retailer in a mall choosing to pay employees the same amount as other retailers in the same mall pay their employees is using a lag strategy. ⊚ ⊚

85)

true false

The greatest advantage of using skill-based pay is the flexibility of the workforce. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Redesigning jobs is a way for organizations to manage situations where workers are being paid more than they are contributing in terms of long-term productivity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Unions are able to use their power to obtain wage rates that are disproportional to the relative worth of the job. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) If women have a lower-than-average compa-ratio, then it is likely that pay decisions are being made equitably. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) All of the components that may be included in total compensation have a dollar value associated with them.

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⊚ ⊚

90)

Incentive pay is directly linked to an employee's performance. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

true false

Employers using variable pay aim to enhance employee recruitment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Unlike employee stock ownership plans, profit-sharing plans give employees genuine ownership. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: ch 9 1) A 2) C 3) A 4) A 5) D 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) B 10) B 11) B 12) A 13) E 14) E 15) B 16) E 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) C Version 1

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27) E 28) B 29) A 30) B 31) D 32) E 33) C 34) D 35) E 36) B 37) A 38) E 39) A 40) B 41) D 42) C 43) C 44) E 45) D 46) A 47) C 48) B 49) E 50) E 51) C 52) B 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) FALSE Version 1

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57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE Version 1

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87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE

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Student name:__________ 1) Benefits and services give many employees financial security against which of the following?

A) Layoffs B) Unfair labour practices C) Dismissal D) Wage compression E) Disability

2) Which of the following is a legal provision that helps alleviate financial problems during a transition from one job to another?

A) workers' compensation acts B) employment insurance C) the Canada pension plan D) health insurance plans E) minimum wage acts

3) Contributions to a noncontributory Defined Contribution (DC) Plan are made by which of the following?

A) The provincial government B) Employers C) The federal government D) All employers in the same sector E) Employees

4) According to the Pension Benefits Standards Act, which of the following can fund a private pension plan?

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A) The employer B) A labour organization C) The employee D) An insurance company E) A union

5) Organizations can achieve the long-term goal of retaining good employees by integrating which of the following into the total compensation package?

A) Merit pay B) Commissions C) Profit-sharing plans D) Piecework incentives E) Spot awards

6) Which of the following allows employees to shop for specific benefits and services from among those offered by the employer using an account that has a specific number of dollars in it?

A) Health spending accounts B) Wellness accounts C) Concierge services D) Flexible benefit programs E) Employment insurance

7) Which of the following is a legally required and provincially governed benefit that is largely paid for by the taxes collected at the federal level?

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A) Family allowances B) Health insurance plans C) Canada pension plan D) Insurance benefits E) Income security benefits

8) Employers should do which of the following to keep ballooning benefit costs under control?

A) Outline separate maximums of coverage for each paramedical service B) Provide out-of-country medical coverage for personal travel C) Ensure coverage across all benefit domains D) Encourage employees to seek one month of prescription refills at a time E) Introduce a health care spending account

9)

Which of the following is a benefit provided to employees monthly beginning at age 65?

A) Worker's compensation B) Employment Insurance C) Family allowances D) Canada Pension Plan E) Health insurance

10) Which of the following uses two components to identify inefficiencies in benefit programs?

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A) A human resources audit B) A benefit audit C) A claims audit D) An organizational audit E) A diversity and inclusion audit

11) Which of the following has a legally set minimum amount that must be offered to employees?

A) Paid sick leave days B) Vacation entitlements C) Defined benefit plans D) Supplemental unemployment benefits E) Tax-free savings account contributions

12)

Employee benefits seek to satisfy which of the following objectives?

A) Legal B) Economic C) Societal D) Demographic E) Technology

13) Which of the following is an emerging trend in employee assistance program offerings that can be applied toward proactive health?

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A) Vision care B) Life insurance C) Prescription drug coverage D) Long-term disability insurance E) Employee wellness accounts

14) Which of the following describes the legally required health insurance plans that need to be offered to employees?

A) They credit employees with a number of sick days for nonoccupational accidents B) They specify a limited number of days that employees are allowed to skip work C) They are provided by provincial governments with federal assistance D) They give employees a break from the physical and mental efforts of a job E) They assist employees with personal problems

15) Acts entitling workers to some form of compensation in the event of personal workplacerelated injury exist where?

A) In all provinces except Quebec B) In all provinces but not in the territories C) In all provinces and all territories D) Only in Ontario, Manitoba, Saskatchewan, Nunavut, Nova Scotia, and Newfoundland E) In all territories but not all provinces

16)

Generally, GST/HST has to be paid on which of the following employee benefits?

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A) Child care B) Tuition fees C) Health benefits D) Car operating costs E) Awards

17) Which of the following gives workers the right to pension benefits after a specified number of years, even if they leave the company?

A) Financial security B) Employment insurance C) Vesting D) Portability clauses E) Workers' compensation

18) Which of the following often leads employees to pressure employers for more benefits to meet their needs?

A) Ignorance about the mix of benefits offered through benefit packages B) The challenges associated with administering benefits packages C) The constant legal review of retirement plans D) The increased complexity of benefit packages E) The changes to health care policies

19)

A benefit audit does which of the following?

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A) Outlines which performance incentives can be replaced by benefits B) Treats benefits as independent of total compensation C) Constrains recruitment activities D) Ensures that benefit packages are "one size fits all" E) Identifies who is in control of the benefit budget

20) Which of the following is an employer-specific outcome of having offered benefits to employees?

A) More turnover B) More overtime costs C) More labour unrest D) More successful recruitment efforts E) More worker fatigue

21)

Which of the following is an outcome associated with using flexible benefit programs?

A) Lower administrative costs B) Lower employee participation C) Less obligation for the human resource department to advise employees D) Less employee confusion about what benefits are offered E) Less involvement by the human resource department

22)

Flexible benefit programs are also known as which of the following?

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A) Blended benefit programs B) Cafeteria benefit programs C) Optional benefit programs D) Equity benefit programs E) Selective benefit programs

23) According to workers' compensation acts, who is liable for payment of compensation to workers in the event of accidental personal injury on the job?

A) All employers B) The federal government C) The provincial government D) Individual employers E) Employers classified together because of similar hazards

24) Which of the following is a remedy for problems associated with poorly understood benefit packages?

A) Improving retirement plans offered B) Providing vacation time C) Making pension contributions D) Offering payroll deductions E) Publicizing benefits

25) Since pension rights under the Canada Pension Plan are not affected by changes of job or residence, they are:

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A) collective B) voluntary C) portable D) contributory E) flexible

26) Which of the following programs would assist an employee with caring for children or adult family members?

A) Caregiver programs B) Employee discount programs C) Simple interest group programs D) Wellness spending accounts E) Relocation programs

27) Which of the following aims to help employees and their family members overcome personal and work-related problems?

A) Health insurance plans B) Employment insurance programs C) Short-term disability plans D) Employee assistance programs E) Income security benefits

28)

Voluntary employee insurance benefits can include which of the following benefits?

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A) Supplemental unemployment benefits B) Defined contribution plans C) Short-term disability plans D) Paid sick leave E) Financial services

29) Which of the following is described as payment to a worker upon permanent separation from an employer?

A) Supplemental unemployment benefit B) Employment assistance program C) Paid time-off D) Severance pay E) Stock purchase

30)

Which of the following has become a common part of flexible benefit programs?

A) Long-term disability B) Life insurance C) Buying and selling vacation time D) Group legal services E) Prescription drug coverage

31)

An employer with many workers' compensation claims can be:

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A) mandated to provide more frequent on-the-job breaks B) required to offer comprehensive extended health insurance C) asked to deduct more employment insurance from employee paycheques D) informed that they can opt out of workers' compensation E) charged a higher rate of contribution to workers' compensation

32) Which of the following is a benefit that organizations can offer to employees in addition to compensation in the form of pay?

A) Piecework incentive systems B) Commissions C) Profit sharing plans D) Tax-free savings accounts E) Production bonuses

33) What is the minimum vacation entitlement for employees, with the exception of employees in Saskatchewan?

A) One week B) Ten days C) Three weeks D) Two weeks E) Four weeks

34)

Which of the following is the main advantage of using flexible benefit programs?

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A) Increased employee participation B) Discouraged labour unrest C) Reduced turnover D) They aid recruitment E) They reduce administrative costs

35)

Which of the following is a legally required insurance benefit offered to employees?

A) Paramedical expense coverage B) Vacations C) Paid time-off D) Short-term disability plans E) Life insurance

36) Health and pension benefits can make a great difference in corporate loyalty, especially for which of the following employees?

A) Older employees B) Part-time employees C) Employees with no pre-existing medical conditions D) Temporary employees E) High-performing employees

37) Which of the following help employees reduce fatigue and may enhance productivity during working hours?

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A) Educational assistance B) Health insurance plans C) Stock purchase programs D) Holidays E) Portability clauses

38) Which of the following is an objective that employees seek to satisfy through accessing employer-provided benefits and services?

A) Minimizing overtime costs B) Reducing employee fatigue C) Gaining benefits and services at a low rate D) Reducing turnover E) Discouraging labour unrest

39)

A short-term disability plan is an example of which type of voluntary benefit?

A) Retirement security benefits B) Paid time-off benefits C) Retirement security benefits D) Income security benefits E) Insurance benefits

40) If an employee is out of work and collecting employment insurance, but receives a boost to their income that brings it in line to their previous earnings, they are receiving which benefit?

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A) A supplemental unemployment benefit B) Disability insurance C) A short-term disability plan D) A vesting period E) An employee assistant program

41)

Which of the following is a paid time-off benefit?

A) Employee assistance programs B) Supplemental unemployment benefits C) Meal breaks D) Defined contribution plans E) Extended health insurance

42) Which of the following has allowed employers to more effectively respond to their employees' needs when implementing employee assistance programs?

A) Technological advances B) Using online tools to replace counselling C) Outsourcing administrative work D) Increased uniformity in benefit package offerings E) Reduced employee participation in benefit programs

43)

The value of benefits and services has gone up over time relative to pay. ⊚ ⊚

44)

true false

Benefits will one day replace performance incentives as motivators.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

45) An employee making an annual salary of $50,000 will actually cost the organization $100,000 in expenses for the company once the benefit programs have been factored into the compensation price tag. ⊚ ⊚

true false

46) Benefit programs make insignificant contributions to attracting and retaining key employees. ⊚ ⊚

47)

Through favourable tax treatment, employees can receive most benefits tax-free. ⊚ ⊚

48)

true false

true false

Employee benefits seek to satisfy societal, organizational, and employee objectives. ⊚ ⊚

true false

49) The objectives of society, organizations, and employees have constrained the growth of benefits. ⊚ ⊚

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50)

Employees usually seek employer-provided benefits and services because they cost less. ⊚ ⊚

true false

51) Legally required benefits are important to the human resource department because mishandling these obligations can result in severe fines and more taxes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

52) Employees with pre-existing medical conditions seek employer-provided benefits because the policies are sometimes unobtainable otherwise. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) Legally required benefits are important because they ensure that minimum levels of financial security are provided to the workforce. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) All legally required employee benefits that provide protection for workers fall under federal legislation. ⊚ ⊚

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55) The Canada Pension Plan, Employment Insurance, and Workers' Compensation Acts outline the major legal provisions relevant to establishing financial security for Canadians. ⊚ ⊚

56)

Contributory benefit plans are those where employers pay all of the costs. ⊚ ⊚

57)

true false

Self-employed people are unable to register for Employment Insurance. ⊚ ⊚

58)

true false

true false

Minimum wage acts ensure fair remuneration for workers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) If an employee loses their job and it is their fault, they will receive biweekly payments from Employment Insurance while they look for work. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) Portability clauses allow accumulated pension rights to be transferred to another employer when an employee changes jobs. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

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61) All employers make an annual contribution to workers' compensation as a percentage of their total annual payroll figures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) Employment insurance is a voluntary benefit that can be included in compensation packages at the employer's discretion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) Defined contribution plans make a fixed dollar amount that depends on age and length of service available to employees as a pension upon retirement. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Long-term disability plans pay employees a smaller amount of the employee's working income than short-term disability plans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) A defined benefit plan is one where both employers and employees invest an equal amount into secure funds. ⊚ ⊚

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66) Employees who are fired before the vesting period are entitled to receive the employer's matched contributions to the pension benefits. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) The Pension Benefits Standards Act regulates pension plans in industries under the jurisdiction of the Government of Canada. ⊚ ⊚

68)

There are both legal and voluntary time-off benefits. ⊚ ⊚

69)

true false

Personal leave days allow an employee to skip work for any reason and get paid. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

true false

Both provincial and federal governments regulate holidays and vacations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Offering group legal services as part of a flexible benefits program is an emerging trend in organizations today.

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⊚ ⊚

72)

Offering employee discount plans is a new trend in organizations today. ⊚ ⊚

73)

true false

true false

An employer-sponsored softball team can be a benefit offered to employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) Including services that address problems associated with substance abuse in an employee assistance program is illegal in Canada. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Offering concierge services as part of employee benefit packages is becoming more common. ⊚ ⊚

76)

true false

Retirement plans have grown in scope and coverage due to union pressure. ⊚ ⊚

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77)

Over 70 percent of Canadian organizations now offer flexible benefit plans to employees. ⊚ ⊚

78)

true false

Retention has become a major issue in high-tech companies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) Benefit audits enable an employer to compare its employee claiming habits against other Canadian employers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Making sure the benefits offered are valued by the employees is one step a company can take to ensure it meets its long-term objectives. ⊚ ⊚

81)

true false

Employee benefits and services are growing at twice the pace of wages and salaries. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) Innovative and flexible benefit plans are effective tools in attracting and retaining skilled staff. ⊚ ⊚

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83)

GST needs to be paid on child care benefits. ⊚ ⊚

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22

Answer Key Test name: ch 10 1) E 2) B 3) B 4) D 5) C 6) D 7) B 8) E 9) D 10) B 11) B 12) C 13) E 14) C 15) C 16) D 17) C 18) A 19) E 20) D 21) D 22) B 23) E 24) E 25) C 26) A Version 1

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27) D 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) E 32) D 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) A 37) D 38) C 39) E 40) B 41) C 42) A 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE Version 1

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57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE

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Student name:__________ 1)

Which of the following is a step in a typical progressive discipline system?

A) Approach discipline as a problem-solving process B) Reform the offender C) A suspension from work D) Deter others from engaging in similar actions E) Encourage self-discipline among employees

2) Which of the following gives workers a stake in the performance of the business by making employees assume more responsibility for the firm's success?

A) Grapevine communication B) In-house complaint procedures C) Open-book management D) Employee opinion surveys E) Suggestion systems

3) Which of the following refers to the awarding of extended periods of notice in wrongful dismissal cases when the employer terminated the employee in bad faith?

A) The "Wallace effect" B) Constructive dismissal C) Progressive discipline D) The right to fair treatment E) An employee involvement intervention

4)

Which of the following is a factor that improves employee retention?

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A) Remaining in the same position for extended periods B) Empowered employees C) Events that induce shock D) Overrated management E) Little internal promotion

5) A variety of downward communication methods are typically used for which of the following reasons?

A) It reduces employment costs B) It improves external communications C) It limits feedback on employee efforts D) It allows more barriers to be overcome E) It increases productivity

6) Which of the following is part of the seven-step plan to protect organizations from the misuse of electronic communications?

A) Hiring a chief reputation officer B) Banning social media use at work C) Discouraging cell phone use during working hours D) Repealing telecommuting policies E) Examining the available tools for controlling internet access

7)

It is challenging for employers to establish just cause for dismissal on the basis of:

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A) Willful disobedience B) Incompetence C) Conflict of interest D) Conspiracy E) Fraud

8) Which of the following is described as any act by the employee that could have serious negative effects on the operation or reputation of the organization?

A) Cause for dismissal under common law B) Termination in bad faith C) Wrongful dismissal D) An attempt to mitigate losses E) Constructive dismissal

9) Which of the following is a component of effective employee relations that tends to focus on the participation of workers to improve employee productivity?

A) Rights B) Involvement C) Discipline D) Recruiting E) Counselling

10) Allowing employees to respond to allegations made against them in disciplinary action is referred to as:

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A) Adjudication process B) Due process C) Disciplinary process D) Decision-making process E) Arbitration process

11)

Providing new hires with an employee handbook is a form of:

A) Upward communication B) Employee involvement C) Downward communication D) Open-book management E) Informal communication

12) Which of the following needs to occur for employee engagement, commitment, and performance to take place?

A) Ensuring the selection process is fair B) Making attractive benefit packages available C) Enforcing disciplinary procedures D) Using open-book management E) Employees viewing their work as meaningful

13)

Developing internal video programs for employees to access is an example of:

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A) Suggestion systems B) Downward communication C) Employee referral programs D) Open-door policy E) An employee assistance program

14) Managers discussing a problem with an employee to try and help that employee resolve the issues are engaging in which of the following?

A) Employee assistance B) Employee counselling C) Employee communication D) Employee involvement E) Employee advising

15) Which of the following is a complex blend of organizational culture, human resource practices, and individual perceptions that affects virtually everything that the human resource department does?

A) Benefits administration B) Employee relations C) Salary review sessions D) Recruitment E) Performance appraisal

16)

Employee relations practices are important for which of the following major reasons?

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A) They reduce overtime requirements B) They reduce perceptions of internal equity C) They reduce employee fatigue D) They reduce labour unrest E) They reduce employment costs

17)

Which of the following is an example of upward communication?

A) Grapevine B) Email C) In-house newsletters D) Jobholder reports E) Prerecorded messages

18) Which of the following refers to the termination of an employee without just cause or without giving the employee reasonable notice or compensation in lieu of notice?

A) Good faith dismissal B) Undue hardship C) Wrongful dismissal D) a violation of PIPEDA E) Constructive dismissal

19) Which of the following is a major factor that determines the amount of advance notice of termination that employers must give nonunionized employees?

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A) Employee's responsibilities B) Cause for dismissal C) Length of service D) Damages suffered by the employer E) Terms of the collective agreement

20) Which of the following electronic communication methods is particularly effective as a way to update handbooks and manuals?

A) Email B) Social media C) Chat messengers D) Employee blogs E) Intranets

21)

Which of the following occurs after an organization downsizes?

A) Organizational performance improves B) Employees become more open-minded C) Employees become more self-absorbed D) Employee risk aversion decreases E) Morale improves

22) Which of the following is a formal method through which employees can register a complaint?

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A) Manager-employer meetings B) In-house complaint procedures C) Employee attitude surveys D) Grapevines E) Suggestion systems

23) Which of the following is a policy that encourages employees to come to higher management to resolve workplace conflict?

A) A peer review panel B) An open-door policy C) An in-house complaint procedure D) A suggestion system E) Mediation

24) Which of the following refers to a deliberate organizational decision to reduce the workforce to improve organizational performance?

A) Outsourcing B) Downsizing C) Layoffs D) Co-sourcing E) Attrition

25) Which legislation protects employee privacy rights in every province without its own privacy legislation?

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A) The Canada Labour Code B) The Charter of Rights and Freedoms C) Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act D) The Canadian Human Rights Act E) Employment Standards Acts

26) Which of the following is defined as action taken by supervisors prior to an infraction that encourages employees to follow the rules?

A) Corrective discipline B) Progressive discipline C) Preventive discipline D) Positive discipline E) Disciplinary action

27) Which of the following reduces the amount of administrative work performed by human resource professionals by getting employees involved in strategy- and productivity-related human resource activities?

A) Employee self-service B) High-involvement work practices C) Self-directed work teams D) Cloud computing E) Time-tracking technology

28) Which of the following principles of PIPEDA states that an organization will make available to individuals specific information about its policies and practices?

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A) Openness B) Individual access C) Accountability D) Accuracy E) Consent

29)

Which of the following is a way that good employee relations practices reduce costs?

A) Helping employees achieve their personal goals B) Ensuring employee commitment C) Improving employee attitudes D) Reducing absenteeism E) Effectively communicating organizational goals to employees

30)

The purpose of downward communication systems is to:

A) Increase employee involvement B) Obtain information from employees C) Get information to employees D) Improve employee satisfaction E) Resolve problems with employees through discussion

31) Which of the following is an intervention that employers can use to increase employee involvement?

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A) Implement employee assistant programs B) Encourage grapevine communication C) Use self-directed work teams D) Apply no-layoff policies E) Help employees to cope with problems

32) Which of the following states that disciplinary action should be applied with warning, immediate, consistent, and impersonal?

A) Corrective discipline B) Right to fair treatment C) Due process D) Disciplinary action E) Hot-stove rule

33) Which of the following is an informal communication system that arises spontaneously from the social interaction of people in organizations?

A) Grapevine communication B) Suggestion systems C) Social media D) Employee blogs E) Intranets

34) A policy whereby individuals are asked to write in the first person to make it clear that views expressed are not those of the company is a way to address concerns about which form of electronic communication?

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A) Employee blogging B) Mobile device use at work C) Text messaging D) Intranets E) Emails

35)

The onus for proving just cause in dismissing an employee lies with:

A) The employee B) The courts C) The labour board D) The employer E) the Human Rights Commission

36)

Employee rights refer to rights desired by employees relating to which of the following?

A) Employment status B) Performance management C) Employee selection D) Job security E) Training

37)

Which of the following is an objective of preventive discipline?

A) To discourage future infractions B) Encourage self-discipline among employees C) To maintain effective group standards D) To deter others from similar actions E) To reform the offender

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38) Which approach to paying employees for suggestions ensures that employees receive feedback about their suggestions quickly?

A) Providing non-monetary recognition B) Evaluating the suggestion's exact dollar savings C) Modifying suggestion systems to reflect group contributions D) Sharing the first-year savings with employees E) Paying employees a flat dollar amount

39) Which organizational downsizing strategy involves evaluating whether specific functions, products, or services should be eliminated or changed?

A) Work redesign B) Systematic change C) Workforce reduction D) Voluntary severance incentive packages E) Attrition

40)

The dismissal of unionized employees is governed by which of the following?

A) Employment standards legislation B) The Federal Privacy Commission C) Provisions of the collective agreement D) The Workplace Safety and Insurance Act E) The Wallace effect

41)

Which of the following is a digital form of employee assistance programs?

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A) Social media B) Chat messaging C) Intranet D) Email E) Blogs

42) Which approach to employee discipline uses a sandwich model to discuss infractions by offering a positive comment before and after bringing up the infraction?

A) Due process B) Positive discipline C) Progressive discipline D) Corrective discipline E) Preventive discipline

43) Which of the following approaches to discipline aims to frame the discussion in such a way that the employees and employers are working together to achieve goals and objectives?

A) Due process B) Preventive discipline C) Progressive discipline D) Corrective discipline E) Positive discipline

44) Which of the following is occurring when an employer changes an individual's job in such a way that the employee decides to quit?

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A) Corrective discipline B) The "Wallace Effect" C) Disciplinary action D) A dismissal in good faith E) Constructive dismissal

45) Proactive employers continuously monitor employee working conditions using which of the following tools?

A) Grievance committees B) In-house publications C) Intranets D) Open-book management E) Social media

46) If an employee requires medical cannabis for treatment, the employer may need to do which of the following?

A) Immediately dismiss the employee B) Provide reasonable notice of dismissal C) Accommodate the employee until the point of undue hardship D) Engage in disciplinary action E) Compensate the employee in lieu of providing notice

47)

Which of the following is a characteristic of "high road" work practices?

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A) Use of short-term contracts B) High-commitment human resource management C) The provision of little training D) Centralized accountability E) Increased status differentials

48)

Which of the following jobs are at high risk of becoming obsolete due to automation?

A) Engineering B) Teaching C) Management D) Retail salesperson E) Math

49) Which of the following is a characteristic that an employee may give off if they are considering quitting?

A) Participating in more training B) Going beyond the call of duty C) Displaying interest in pleasing the boss D) Being more reserved E) Suggesting new ideas

50)

Solid employee relations demand careful attention to employee counselling. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

16

51) A policy of encouraging employees to address their problems to higher levels of management is called an open-door policy. ⊚ ⊚

52)

true false

Good employee relations practices ensure that organizational strategies are implemented. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) Although good employee relations practices tend to improve employee attitudes, they do not have any direct effect on productivity. ⊚ ⊚

54)

Employee counselling is one of the five key dimensions of employee relations. ⊚ ⊚

55)

true false

true false

Upward communication systems exist to get information from employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

56) The use of wearable activity monitors at work have given rise to questions related to privacy. ⊚ ⊚

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17

57) Communication systems that exist to get information to employees are called upward communication systems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Intranets are organization-specific internal communication systems that function much like the Internet. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) Nonunion grievance procedures can be set up to guarantee employees the right to present complaints to management. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) Employers need consent to collect certain information from social media under privacy laws. ⊚ ⊚

61)

true false

Suggestion systems can work without the active support of top management. ⊚ ⊚

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18

62) Programs that seek to help employees overcome personal problems that may be affecting their performance at work are referred to as employee assistance programs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) Some organizations advise managers to avoid giving employees personal advice that is not related to the job. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Discipline seeks to ensure compliance with organizational standards by informing employees about organizational expectations. ⊚ ⊚

65)

true false

Preventive discipline describes an action taken following a rule infraction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) Giving an employee a warning following a rule infraction is an example of applying corrective discipline. ⊚ ⊚

67)

true false

Progressive discipline involves highlighting the positive aspects of employee behaviour.

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⊚ ⊚

68)

true false

Positive discipline uses punishment to resolve problems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Employee misconduct must have occurred at the workplace for it to be considered just cause for dismissal. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

Demanding an employee's resignation is an example of constructive dismissal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) A major change in the employment terms that results in an employee resigning may be considered as constructive dismissal. ⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

PIPEDA legislation aims to permit individuals to correct personal information. ⊚ ⊚

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20

73) Collecting nonwork information is an unnecessary intrusion into the private lives of job applicants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) The PIPEDA principle of "individual access" states that personal information shall be protected by security safeguards appropriate to the sensitivity of the information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) The collection of personal information can be conducted without consent from the individual according to PIPEDA. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Individuals need judicial approval to get access to their personal information according to PIPEDA. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) Canada's new anti-spam legislation permits businesses to send electronic commercial messages provided that the information is not graphic. ⊚ ⊚

78)

true false

Social media can be valuable for recruiting purposes.

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⊚ ⊚

79)

It is illegal to install programs on someone's computer without consent of the recipient. ⊚ ⊚

80)

true false

true false

Virtual communication is considered harder than meeting in person. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) No-layoff policies are part of an integrated system of progressive HR practices that enhance employee job security to encourage innovation that improves the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) Systematic change is a short-term downsizing strategy focused on cutting the number of employees through layoffs. ⊚ ⊚

83)

true false

Downsizing is an effective way for organizations to increase productivity. ⊚ ⊚

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22

84) Human resource professionals are often in a good position to advise on the impact of restructuring an organization to maximize productivity and retain quality performers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Some organizations consider people to be easily replaceable and are willing to accept high levels of employee turnover. ⊚ ⊚

86)

true false

Shock related to a precipitating event is a reason that some employees leave their job. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Some progressive discipline systems allow minor offenses to be removed from the employee's record after a period of time. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Establishing just cause for dismissal at common law means that an employer also has sufficient cause under provincial employment standards legislation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) When dismissing an employee, it is recommended that employers notify others in the organization and ensure that the individual's duties are covered.

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⊚ ⊚

90)

Employers should specify a notice period in employment contracts. ⊚ ⊚

91) law.

true false

true false

All employee rights relating to working conditions and job security are protected under

⊚ ⊚

true false

92) The right to fair treatment includes employees' right to work in a harassment-free environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Being reluctant to commit to long-term projects is a behavioural cue that could indicate an employee is thinking of quitting. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) The two groups of human resource activities that can be addressed by employee selfservice are productivity applications and strategic applications. ⊚ ⊚

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95)

Human enhancement technologies are a major force that will change work. ⊚ ⊚

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25

Answer Key Test name: ch 11 1) C 2) C 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) E 7) B 8) A 9) B 10) B 11) C 12) E 13) B 14) B 15) B 16) E 17) A 18) C 19) C 20) E 21) C 22) B 23) B 24) B 25) C 26) C Version 1

26

27) A 28) A 29) D 30) C 31) C 32) E 33) A 34) A 35) D 36) D 37) B 38) E 39) A 40) C 41) B 42) D 43) E 44) E 45) A 46) C 47) B 48) D 49) D 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE Version 1

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57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE Version 1

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87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1)

A workplace health and safety committee is usually required in every workplace with:

A) 15 or more employees B) 20 or more employees C) 50 or more employees D) 75 or more employees E) 10 or more employees

2)

Which of the following jobs is at the greatest risk of workplace violence?

A) Gas station attendants B) Administrative assistants C) Teachers D) Cashiers E) Truck drivers

3) Which of the following describes a situation where employees experience health effects that appear to be linked to the length of time spent in a building, but no specific cause can be identified?

A) Ergonomics B) Sick building syndrome C) Burnout D) Overuse syndrome E) Overexertion

4) As the Internet and social media have grown, which of the following has emerged as a threat in the workplace?

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A) Verbal threats B) Sick building syndrome C) Bullying D) Cyberstalking E) Identity theft

5) Which of the following imposes the duty to take reasonable steps to prevent workplace violence on individuals and organizations?

A) The Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act B) The Charter of Rights and Freedoms C) The employment Standards Act D) Bill C-45 E) The Human Rights Act

6) Which of the following is an example of an organization using preventive solutions for workplace stress?

A) Helping employees develop ways to cope with stress B) Allowing employees to do relaxing activities C) Changing the cause of stress D) Using video counselling to help employees E) Correcting the outcome of stress

7) Which of the following is a major cause of workplace stress related to compensation issues?

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A) Lack of autonomy B) Level of responsibility C) Workload D) Job insecurity E) Unrealistic demands

8) Which of the following means that a company took all reasonable steps to avoid a particular event?

A) Safety enforcement B) Just cause C) Due diligence D) Reasonable accommodation E) Preventive solutions

9) Human resource departments can take which of the following actions to reduce employee stress?

A) Decrease opportunities for social interaction among employees B) Limit worker participation in decision-making C) Minimize task diversification D) Define employee responsibilities E) Avoid developing work schedules

10) Which of the following aims to ensure that the physical and behavioural characteristics of employees are compatible with the work systems?

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A) A biology program B) An ergonomics program C) An anatomy program D) A physiology program E) An engineering program

11) Which of the following is a stressful condition associated with organizational downsizing?

A) An insecure workplace climate B) A lack of performance feedback C) Survivors being asked to work longer hours D) Inadequate authority to match one's responsibilities E) Frequent complaining about bad bosses

12) Which of the following is a federal level law that establishes the employee right to know about hazards in the workplace?

A) The Canadian Labour Code (Part II) B) The Railway Safety Act C) The Hazardous Products Act D) The Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act E) The Canadian Centre for Occupational Health and Safety Act

13) Organizational level dimensions of an organization's safety climate include which of the following?

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A) Internal group processes B) Risk C) Management commitment to safety D) Work pressure E) Boundary management

14)

Which of the following is the largest source of lost-time injury costs in Canada?

A) Open wounds B) Repetitive strain injuries C) Getting limbs caught in equipment D) Shoulder injuries E) Burns

15)

Who is responsible for ensuring that adequate records are kept on workplace accidents?

A) Top management B) The minister C) Supervisors D) Employees E) Workplace health and safety committees

16) The human resource department can be proactive in preventing burnout in employees before it occurs by doing which of the following?

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A) Rearranging work assignments B) Spending fewer resources on manager training C) Limiting job redesign D) Discouraging temporary job leaves E) Encouraging presenteeism

17) A number of organizations have done which of the following to help employees feel more secure at work?

A) Clearly defining employee responsibilities B) Developing emergency evacuation plans C) Outlining appropriate work schedules D) Increasing opportunities for social interactions among employees E) Training managers to be sensitive to the symptoms of stress

18)

Which level of stress may increase workplace performance?

A) No stress B) Low levels of stress C) Moderate levels of stress D) High levels of stress E) Extreme levels of stress

19) Human resource specialists can evaluate the extent of dysfunctional stress in an organization by doing which of the following?

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A) Performing a stress audit B) Conducting a job analysis C) Distributing opinion surveys D) Using a suggestion system E) Implementing an open-door policy

20) To ensure that employees understand safety issues, organizations should ensure that safety is discussed during which of the following human resource activities?

A) Orientation B) Recruitment C) Job analysis D) Selection E) Performance appraisal

21)

Supervision can be a workplace stressor under which of the following conditions?

A) When employees have inadequate authority to match responsibilities B) When the workplace climate is focused on safety C) When organization are going through downsizing D) When jobs are clearly defined E) When employees receive consistent performance feedback

22) The Canadian Centre for Occupational Health & Safety Act aims to do which of the following?

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A) Inspect workplaces each month B) Transport dangerous materials C) Dispose of health and safety complaints D) Keep adequate records of workplace accidents E) Consult all levels of government on health and safety issues

23) The administration of workplace safety programs falls mainly under which type of legislation?

A) Federal B) Global C) Provincial D) Municipal E) International

24) Which of the following is a psychological symptom associated with stress that can harm an employee's job performance?

A) Cardiovascular disease B) Burnout C) Back injury D) Impaired immune function E) Ulcers

25)

A major purpose of all occupational health and safety laws is to:

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A) Detail the elements of an industrial safety program B) Prevent injuries from happening C) Ensure that adequate records of health hazards are kept D) Assist in the maintenance of programs aimed at eliminating occupational hazards E) Educate older employees about workplace safety

26)

Which of the following is a fundamental employee right?

A) The right to engage in health and safety training B) The right to know about hazards in the workplace C) The right to report hazards in the workplace D) The right to participate in workplace accident investigations E) The right to inform others of dangerous work conditions

27) Fewer mental health problems have arisen for employees under which of the following circumstances?

A) Employees living alone B) Employees with older children C) Employees with more work-family conflict D) Employees with limited access to social networks outside of work E) Employees that have a higher household income

28)

The Minister may do which of the following to carry out their duties?

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A) Implement changes that affect occupational health and safety B) Dispose of health and safety complaints C) Serve as a resource for national statistics regarding health and safety D) Remove samples of materials for analysis E) Develop programs to reduce occupational hazards

29) It is estimated that about how many Canadian workers die every working day from an occupational injury or disease?

A) Six B) Three C) Ten D) Fourteen E) Twenty-five

30) Which federal safety legislation has objectives that include hazard classification, cautionary labelling of containers, and the provision of safety data sheets?

A) The Workers' Compensation Act B) The Canada Labour Code (PartII) C) The Transportation of Dangerous Goods Act D) The Canadian Centre for Occupational Health and Safety Act E) The Hazardous Products Act

31) The legal expression used when a worker accepts all the customary risks inherent in a given job, is:

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A) Assumption of risk.

B) The hot-stove rule.

C) Due process.

D) The "Wallace" effect.

E) A high-involvement work practice.

32)

The average stress-related absence in Canada last about how long?

A) 14 days B) 20 days C) 33 days D) 40 days E) 55 days

33) Which of the following is an experience that can lead to a variety of symptoms of stress that can harm job performance amongst a large number of employees?

A) Employee relationships at work B) Hours of work C) Work-life balance D) Downsizing E) Autonomy

34)

Which of the following activities is part of a health and safety audit?

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A) Conducting examinations, tests, investigations, and inspections B) Implementing changes that will affect occupational health and safety C) Touring the workplace D) Removing samples of any biological, chemical, or physical agent for testing E) Taking photographs

35) What proportion of accepted occupational injury claims are time-loss injuries warranting compensation?

A) Over one-half B) Over one-quarter C) Over one-third D) Over two-thirds E) Over three-quarters

36)

Which of the following jobs has the greatest risk of death?

A) Airline pilot B) Event coordinator C) Taxi driver D) Compliance officer E) Firefighter

37)

Wellness programs are typically aimed at which of the following?

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A) Presenteeism B) Poor supervision C) Workplace violence D) Burnout E) Chronic stress

38)

Which of the following is a health hazard that is categorized as a physical agent?

A) Parasites B) Exposure to toxic substances C) Viruses D) Radiation E) Bacteria

39)

Which of the following is one of the most common injuries affecting young workers?

A) Overexertion B) Repetitive strain injuries C) Electrocution D) Lower back injuries E) Musculoskeletal injuries

40) When an Occupational Health and Safety inspector arrives at the workplace, the employer should do which of the following?

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A) Answer questions directly without a lot of narrative B) Be trained to understand the safety rules C) Know how to operate equipment safely D) Reward good safety performance E) Conduct a task-and-hazard analysis

41) According to Bill C-45, the consequence for failing to take reasonable steps to prevent workplace violence and accidents employers may now include:

A) Incurring fines B) Criminal liability C) Active discouragement D) Specialized training E) Fewer costs to employers

42)

An effective safety training program includes which of the following?

A) Ensuring employee workloads are compatible with their capabilities B) Meeting with management C) Clearly defining employee roles D) Designing jobs to provide meaningful opportunities for employees E) Increasing opportunities for social interaction among employees

43) Which of the following may help to reinforce safety-consciousness through peer pressure?

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A) Providing specialized training B) Investigating accidents C) Using group awards D) Documenting unsatisfactory practices E) Correcting unsatisfactory behaviour

44) Which of the following is a work-related factor that is associated with fewer mental health issues?

A) Job security B) A higher household income C) Living with a partner D) Fewer work-family conflicts E) Less use of skills

45)

Employee wellness programs do which of the following?

A) Increase turnover B) Decrease employee satisfaction C) Increase health care costs D) Decrease employee health E) Increase corporate image

46) Which of the following is a critical part of a good occupational health and safety program?

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A) Diversity in worker tasks B) An effective training program C) Curative solutions D) Effective counselling services E) An employee assistance program

47) Which of the following asks the question "does the organization's design contribute to the symptoms described?"

A) Provincial audits B) Internal audits C) Safety audits D) Stress audits E) Ergonomics audits

48)

Workplace accident rates can be reduced when employers are the sole decision-makers. ⊚ ⊚

49)

Physical health hazards include radiation, parasites, and insects. ⊚ ⊚

50)

true false

true false

The Canada Labour Code (Part II) details the elements of an industrial safety program. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

16

51) The federal law that requires labels on all hazardous products is the Workplace Hazardous Material Information System. ⊚ ⊚

true false

52) The responsibility for the handling and shipping of dangerous materials is regulated under the Canadian Centre for Occupational Health and Safety Act. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) The Hazardous Products Regulations now includes the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) The Minister is responsible for exercising duties historically performed by health and safety inspectors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) The careless worker model assumed that accidents were due to workers' failure to protect themselves. ⊚ ⊚

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17

56)

The number of work-related injuries has increased since the 1980s. ⊚ ⊚

57)

The responsibility for health and safety rests primarily with the employer. ⊚ ⊚

58)

true false

true false

Many organizations neglect safety issues when designing orientation programs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) The shared responsibility model is a newer approach to workplace safety that relies on the cooperation of both the employer and the employees. ⊚ ⊚

60)

true false

Workplace accident rates have diminished considerably due to greater employer efforts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) Workplace safety is a complex issue to manage because employers may "clean up" a health or safety problem before an inspector arrives.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

62) Organizations need to extend consideration to the safety of members of the public who enter onto company property. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) There is growing evidence that safety climate is an important factor affecting safety knowledge. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Downsizing in a company with a positive safety climate create slow compliance with safety procedures. ⊚ ⊚

65)

When safety motivation is low, employees are more likely to work in a safe manner. ⊚ ⊚

66)

true false

true false

All stress is associated with poor job performance. ⊚ ⊚

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67)

Acute stressors are events that occur infrequently but are extremely stressful. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) The ongoing, daily problems and hassles at work that cause stress are referred to as chronic stressors. ⊚ ⊚

69)

Poor communication is an example of a workplace stressor related to life events. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

true false

Burnout can be defined as a condition of mental exhaustion that results from acute stress. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Presenteeism describes employees who come to work but are inhibited from achieving optimal levels of productivity. ⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

Curative solutions to workplace stress attempt to correct the outcome of stress.

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⊚ ⊚

73)

true false

Preventative solutions to workplace stress attempt to change the cause of stress. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) It is important to consider the influence of life at home to get a complete picture of mental health in the workplace. ⊚ ⊚

75)

The most common type of workplace injury is bruises. ⊚ ⊚

76)

true false

true false

The most common injuries affecting young workers include electrocution. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) When an organization recognizes that they lack internal expertise to address safety issues, they can outsource health and safety needs. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

21

78) Unions are often skeptical about employer motivations for implementing wellness programs. ⊚ ⊚

79)

true false

Few organizations have assessed the work site for hazards and security shortcomings. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Building-related illness is when symptoms of a diagnosable illness are identified and attributed directly to airborne contaminants in the building. ⊚ ⊚

81)

true false

Overexertion is the most frequent type of lost-time injuries. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) Top management involvement in setting health and safety policies is essential for avoiding setting an example of inaction. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

22

Answer Key Test name: ch 12 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) D 6) C 7) D 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) C 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) E 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) A 21) A 22) E 23) C 24) B 25) B 26) B Version 1

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27) E 28) D 29) B 30) E 31) A 32) B 33) D 34) C 35) C 36) C 37) E 38) D 39) C 40) A 41) B 42) B 43) C 44) A 45) E 46) B 47) D 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE Version 1

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57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE

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Student name:__________ 1) According to a survey about unions, which of the following is a major finding about current union members' attitudes towards work and employees?

A) Most want to be unionized B) Few would prefer to be unionized C) Most had never been in a union before D) Few view unions as relevant today E) Most believe that a secret ballot vote should be necessary when forming unions

2) If the headquarters for the "United Steelworkers" union is in the United States, it is an example of:

A) An employer-owned union.

B) An international union.

C) A local union.

D) A craft union.

E) An industrial union.

3) Which of the following is the use of a neutral third party to help settle a labourmanagement dispute?

A) Mediation B) Business unionism C) Conciliation D) Secession E) Arbitration

4) All jurisdictions require a collective agreement to include a provision for final settlement by which of the following?

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A) Mediation B) Conciliation C) Arbitration D) Secession E) Business unionism

5)

Which of the following employee behaviours could suggest union activities?

A) More co-operative behaviour by workers B) Positive comments about the work environment C) Formation of new employee alliances D) Increased morale E) Maintenance of consistent routines

6)

Which of the following gave federal civil servants the right to strike?

A) Human Rights Act B) Public Service Staff Relations Act C) National Labour Relations Act D) Charter of Rights and Freedoms E) British North America Act

7) When a union leader speaks out against a government program, they are practicing which of the following?

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A) Strike action B) Social unionism C) Unfair labour practices D) Grievance procedures E) Collective bargaining

8) Which of the following is a feature of legislation specific to provincial government employees?

A) The right to join a union B) Good faith bargaining C) Conciliation D) Prohibition of unfair labour practices E) The restriction of strikes by public sector workers

9) Which of the following provides management with the freedom to operate the business subject to any terms in the collective agreement?

A) Conciliation B) Management rights C) Conciliation D) Mediation E) Mutual gains bargaining

10) Which of the following does the industrial relations perspective state about workplace conflict?

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A) It stems from an employer-employee power imbalance B) It is based in poor management C) It can be reduced by workplace innovations D) It fades from the employment relationship when management improves E) Mutual gains-oriented problem-solving techniques can decrease conflict

11) Which of the following is a change that can occur in the human resources function when unions are present?

A) Specialists in labour relations are added to the human resource department B) Line managers get increased authority C) Management has more freedom to make unilateral changes D) Employee record-keeping is less centralized E) There is less friction between line managers and human resource staff members

12)

Unfair labour practices by unions can include which of the following?

A) Contributing financially to the formation of a union B) Interfering in union formation C) Discriminating against an employee on the basis of trade union membership D) Coercing employees to join or not join a union E) Engaging in illegal strikes

13) Which of the following requires that an employee be part of a union prior to obtaining employment?

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A) Closed shop B) Union shop C) The Rand Formula D) Management rights E) Illegal discrimination

14)

Which of the following sectors is the most highly unionized?

A) Food service B) Agriculture C) Education D) Utilities E) Technical services

15)

Employees help convince co-workers to join a union by doing which of the following?

A) Conducting home visits B) Persuading co-workers during work hours C) Changing their daily work routines D) Becoming less cooperative at work E) Modifying their language at work

16) Which of the following common provisions in union-management agreements provides workers with economic security by giving guarantees of minimum work?

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A) Duration of agreement B) Management rights C) Union security D) Cost of living wage increases E) Income maintenance

17) Which of the following has a mission of protecting workers, increasing their pay, improving their working conditions, helping workers in general?

A) Collective agreements B) Business unionism C) Strike action D) Grievances E) Conflict resolution

18)

Which type of union members have been increasing rapidly in recent years?

A) Older workers B) Visible minorities C) Young workers D) Women E) Low wage employees

19) Which of the following can lead to unfair labour practice charges when negotiating a collective agreement?

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A) Bargaining in bad faith B) Including a management rights clause C) Adding contract language that increases flexibility at work D) Monitoring the environment to obtain information about likely union demands E) Engaging in face-to-face negotiation with the union

20) Which of the following has the power to determine whether an organization is an appropriate bargaining agent for bargaining purposes?

A) Labour relations boards B) Conciliators C) Mediators D) Public service staff relations board E) Arbitrators

21) Which of the following types of unions is composed of workers who possess the same skills or trades?

A) Local unions B) International unions C) Industrial unions D) National unions E) Craft unions

22) Which of the following provisions specifies that employee-related decisions are determined by the length of the worker's employment?

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A) Pension benefits B) Wage rates C) Time-off benefits D) Seniority E) Discipline

23)

The impact of unions can include which of the following?

A) Decreased innovation B) Decreased employee tenure with the firm C) Decreased productivity D) Decreased training opportunities E) Decreased ability to recognize the importance of increasing productivity

24) When a dispute remains unresolved, the final step in most grievance procedures is which of the following?

A) The union submits the complaint to senior management B) Make arrangements for an arbitrator to settle the matter C) Have management and the union discuss the complaint D) Put the complaint in writing and submit it to the supervisor E) Have the chief steward take the complaint to the superintendent

25)

Once a union drive is underway, management can do which of the following?

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A) Seek legal advice about how to best encourage employees to vote B) Discipline union supporters C) Coerce employees to become union members D) Contribute to union formation efforts financially E) Discriminate against an employee on the basis of trade union membership

26) In most provinces, no strike action is permitted before which of the following has occurred?

A) Grievances resolution B) Arbitration C) Disciplinary action D) A conciliation effort E) Search for a precedent

27) Which of the following is described as a process whereby both parties sit down at the bargaining table as equals and engage in joint problem-solving activities?

A) Mediation B) Conciliation C) Mutual gains bargaining D) Preparing for negotiations E) Arbitration

28) Unions may obtain legal recognition or bargaining rights by doing which of the following?

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A) Persuading employees to join the union at the workplace during work hours B) Being certified on the basis of authorization card signatures C) Trying to compel an employer to bargain collectively with the union prior to certification D) Intimidating individuals because they filed complaints in the past E) Threatening an illegal strike

29) Which of the following increases the chance that a grievance dispute gets resolved without going to arbitration?

A) Limit how many perspectives are solicited during the grievance procedure B) Using a grievance procedure that settles disputes based on seniority C) Using a multi-step grievance procedure D) Limit the use of written responses throughout the grievance procedure E) Using an informal grievance procedure

30)

Strikes were less common in organizations with which of the following features?

A) A larger organizational size B) Progressive human resource management practices C) A smaller share of the market D) Unions that are in a strategically strong position E) Workers with less autonomy

31)

According to the industrial relations perspective, workplace conflict occurs when:

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A) Employer-employee power is imbalanced B) Organizations engage in innovation C) Management is poor D) Mutual gains-oriented problem-solving techniques are used E) Institutions avoid intervening

32)

The collective bargaining process involves which of the following overlapping phases?

A) Arbitration B) Outlining grievance procedures C) Preparation for negotiations D) Disciplinary action E) Strike action

33) Which of the following techniques for improving labour-management cooperation involves objectively communicating the intent of union and management bargainers?

A) Joint study committees B) Training programs C) Sincere concern D) Prior consultation E) Third parties

34) Which branch of unions provides the members, the revenue, and the power of the entire union movement?

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A) Local union B) National union C) Social union D) Craft union E) Industrial union

35) A type of union that includes both unskilled and semiskilled, usually at a particular location is called:

A) Craft union B) Industrial union C) Social union D) Business union E) Authoritarian union

36)

Strikes that are mistakes occur for which of the following reasons?

A) The union is in a strategically weak position B) The implications of shutting down bargaining have been carefully considered C) Negotiations are based on perfect information D) Both negotiation teams are inexperienced E) Workers perceive that they are being treated unfairly

37) Which of the following reasons for joining a union is an example of the union push explanation?

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A) Higher compensation packages B) Greater benefits C) More grievance representation D) Increased job security E) Peer pressure by co-workers

38) The fear of past practices causes which of the following changes in human resource procedures for supervisors?

A) They get increased bonuses B) They are stripped of their authority to make decisions on layoffs C) They get less training in contract administration D) They are given freedom to apply the collective agreement as they choose E) They are expected to enforce the contract in a less uniform manner

39) Which of the following is a problem that arbitration holds for labour relations practitioners?

A) It can reduce time commitment costs B) It can reduce financial costs C) It can result in unacceptable solutions D) It can only be conducted by a government-appointed official E) It can be biased in favour of the employer

40) Which of the following describes a step that organizations can take using union suppression to remain nonunion?

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A) Design personally satisfying jobs B) Select workers who are well qualified C) Provide employees with a voice in the workplace D) Threaten to move the facility E) Reward behaviour on the basis of actual performance

41) Employers have authority over all issues not contained in the collective agreement according to which of the following?

A) Contract provisions B) Labour relations boards C) Management rights clauses D) Precedent E) The residual rights theory of management

42)

Most collective agreements in Canada are settled with which of the following?

A) Arbitration B) No strike action C) With mediation D) No union substitution E) With conciliation

43) Which of the following is an explanation for the decline in union representation on the global scene?

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A) A decline in the agriculture sector B) Constraints of globalization on macroeconomic policies C) Less competition from developing countries D) An increase in low-skilled jobs E) An increase in labour-intensive jobs in high-wage countries

44) Which of the following is a core characteristic of federal and provincial labour legislation?

A) Lockouts can occur during the life of the collective agreement B) Collective agreements can only be in force for one year C) Certain unfair labour practices are prohibited D) Strike action can be taken while conciliation is ongoing E) Only management has a duty to bargain in good faith

45)

Which of the following is a phase of the collective bargaining process?

A) Grievance procedure B) Preparation C) Conciliation D) Union organizing E) Identifying unfair labour practices

46)

Final approval of the proposed collective agreement rests with whom?

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A) Employees B) Supervisors C) Top management D) Organizations E) Human resource professional

47)

Labour relations professionals are most involved in which of the following activities?

A) Coaching B) Negotiation C) Interpersonal skills D) Conflict resolution E) Communication

48) The quality of the relationship between an employer and a union predicts firm performance. ⊚ ⊚

49)

The presence of a union places limits on the human resource management role. ⊚ ⊚

50)

true false

true false

Collective agreement negotiations address issues related to the length of the workday. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

16

51) Union grievances often arise because supervisors do not understand the terms of the collective agreements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

52) One reason for not joining a union is that the employee views unions as "one more boss" that leads to extra costs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) The human resource department's involvement in union-related issues is always well received by lower levels of management. ⊚ ⊚

54)

The presence of labour unions alters the work environment. ⊚ ⊚

55)

true false

true false

Unions are affected by the financial condition of the employer. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

17

56) Social unionism recognizes that a union can only survive if it delivers a needed service to its members in a business-like manner. ⊚ ⊚

57)

true false

Two major types of local unions are craft unions and industrial unions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Unions composed of workers who possess the same skills or trades, usually within a certain geographical area, are called craft unions. ⊚ ⊚

59)

true false

International unions are those whose headquarters are located outside of Canada. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) Many Canadians view union workers as being in government occupations so there is a growing recognition of the need to appeal to other employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) Secession refers to the trend of Canadian workers increasingly joining international unions.

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⊚ ⊚

62)

Secession is motivated by Canadian locals' desire for more autonomy. ⊚ ⊚

63)

true false

Newfoundland has the highest rate of unionism in Canada. ⊚ ⊚

65)

true false

Traditional approaches to organizing and collective bargaining are less relevant today. ⊚ ⊚

64)

true false

true false

A strike changes the labour-management relationship. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) The average hourly wage for full-time nonunionized employees is notably better than the hourly wage for full-time unionized workers. ⊚ ⊚

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19

67) Unionized employees have more comprehensive benefit packages than nonunionized employees. ⊚ ⊚

68)

Good faith bargaining is a key aspect of Canadian labour law. ⊚ ⊚

69)

true false

true false

The Canadian government has jurisdiction over all unions organized in Canada. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) Labour relations boards are less flexible in their procedures for resolving conflict than traditional courts of law. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Labour relations boards have the power to determine whether a person is an employee for the purposes of the law. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) Unions can be certified automatically by the labour relations board when the employer engages in unfair labour practices.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

73) Canadian labour law extends employers a great amount of leeway when attempting to counter a union organizing drive. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) Contributing financially to the formation or operation of a union is considered to be an unfair labour practice by management ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Failing to represent employees fairly is considered to be an unfair labour practice by unions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) The various labour relations statutes require the union and the employer to bargain "in good faith" prior to the union being certified. ⊚ ⊚

77)

true false

Residual rights often include the right to reassign employees to different jobs. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

21

78) Conciliation involves using a neutral third party to help settle a labour-management dispute. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) Upon ratification by union members and approval by management, the parties begin living with the collective agreement. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) A complaint by an employee or an employer that alleges that some aspect of the collective agreement has been violated is called a grievance. ⊚ ⊚

81)

true false

Most grievances are filed by management. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) The Rand Formula requires an employer to deduct union dues at source from the wages of an employee, but the employee is not obligated to join the union. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

22

83) In any disciplinary action, management must abide by the terms of the collective agreement. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) Arbitration cases are often lost by management because they neglect to document past disciplinary procedures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) A new standard for behaviour that arises from past practices of either the company or the union is referred to as a precedent. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Employee-related decisions are often centralized in the human resource department to prevent precedents. ⊚ ⊚

87)

true false

A union is an organization with the legal authority to represent workers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) There has been increasing government intervention in the bargaining process at the provincial and national levels.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

89) An employee who is dissatisfied with their job and believes that a union could have a positive impact on the employee is more likely to join a union. ⊚ ⊚

90)

Almost all strikes and conflicts have been defensive from the management perspective. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

true false

The relationship between unionization and productivity is open to debate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Voluntary recognition occurs if a union has organized a majority of employees, and the union did not apply undue pressure in the organization process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Significant information about human resource management from the perspective of unionized workgroups is available. ⊚ ⊚

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24

94)

Workers need to take initiative in establishing collective bargaining relationships. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) Many co-operative programs have the underlying goal of increasing managerial domination in the workplace. ⊚ ⊚

96)

Co-operative programs are in the union leader's best interests. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

true false

Union leaders mistrusting management is an obstacle to co-operation. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

25

Answer Key Test name: ch 13 1) E 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) C 6) B 7) B 8) E 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) E 13) A 14) C 15) A 16) E 17) B 18) D 19) A 20) A 21) E 22) D 23) A 24) B 25) A 26) D Version 1

26

27) C 28) B 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) E 38) B 39) C 40) D 41) E 42) B 43) B 44) C 45) B 46) C 47) A 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE Version 1

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57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE Version 1

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87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) TRUE

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