TEST BANK for Essentials of Contemporary Management, 7th Canadian Edition by Jones

SOLUTIONS MANUAL Essentials Of Contemporary Management 7th Edition by Gareth Jones, Jennifer George, and Jane Haddad

TABLE OF CONTENTS: PART 1: MANAGEMENT CHAPTER 1: Managers and Managing CHAPTER 2: Managing the Organizational Environment PART 2: PLANNING CHAPTER 3: Managing Decision Making CHAPTER 4: Managing Planning and Strategy PART 3: ORGANIZING CHAPTER 5: Managing Organizational Structure CHAPTER 6: Managing Information and Communication CHAPTER 7: Managing Human Resources PART 4: LEADING CHAPTER 8: Managing Motivation CHAPTER 9: Managing Leadership CHAPTER 10: Managing Teams PART 5: CONTROLLING CHAPTER 11: Managing Control and Operations CHAPTER 12: Managing Change

CHAPTER 1 1)

Henry Mintzberg grouped ________ roles into ________ broad categories.

A) 12, 4 B) 10, 3 C) 7, 3 D) 12, 3 E) 10, 12

2)

Which of the following contribute to organizational culture?

A) Socialization B) Stories and language C) Ceremonies and rites D) Values of the founder E) All of the choices are correct

3) A top manager in a conservative organizational culture is likely to emphasize which of the following?

A) Organic, flat structure B) Formal top-down planning C) Decentralized control D) Empowerment of lower level managers E) Encourage risk taking

4)

Middle managers spend the least amount of time on:

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A) planning B) organizing C) directing D) leading E) controlling

5) First-line managers spend most of their time performing which of the managerial functions?

A) Planning B) Organizing C) Directing D) Leading E) Controlling

6) To attract new customers, McDonald's decided to add breakfast to its menu. This was an attempt to improve the organization's: A) efficiency B) planning C) effectiveness D) strategy E) objectives

7) The ability to understand and manage one's own moods and emotions and the moods and emotions of other people is known as:

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A) leadership B) terminal valuation C) emotion D) instrumental values E) emotional intelligence

8) When founders hire employees for their new ventures, they tend to be attracted to and choose employees whose personalities are like their own. This is known as: A) The reverse leadership doctrine B) Attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) framework C) Emotional intelligence D) Organizational citizenship behaviours E) Corporate social responsibility

9)

The outcome of organizing is: A) the creation of an organizational structure B) strategy C) empowerment D) controlling E) demonstrating

10)

Which of the following is not a responsibility of top managers?

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A) Train new employees B) Develop the organizational vision C) Establish organizational goals D) Decide how different departments should interact E) Monitor how well middle managers are using resources to achieve goals

11) A manager who cuts the ribbon at the opening of a new corporate headquarters in Vancouver is performing which role in the organization?

A) Liaison B) Leader C) Figurehead D) Disseminator E) Spokesperson

12) Which level of manager's role changed significantly with Working from Home during the COVID-19 pandemic?

A) Top managers B) Middle managers C) First-line managers D) Supervisors E) Assistant Managers

13)

Which managers utilize conceptual skills the most?

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A) Top managers B) Middle managers C) First-line managers D) Supervisors E) Hourly workers

14) Which set of skills became extremely important for managers to master when offices closed during the COVID-19 pandemic?

A) interpersonal B) conceptual C) technical D) negotiating E) organizing

15) Company XYZ, Ltd. produces a low-quality product, which customers did not purchase.

This is an example of: A) low costs/high effectiveness B) low efficiency/low effectiveness C) high efficiency/high inputs D) high efficiency/low effectiveness E) high inputs/low outputs

16) The manager decided to produce a high-quality product, which ultimately made good use of the organization's resources; however, the product did not sell well. This is an example of:

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A) low costs/high effectiveness B) low efficiency/low effectiveness C) high efficiency/high inputs D) high efficiency/low effectiveness E) high inputs/low outputs

17) A manager who chooses the right goals to pursue but does a poor job of using resources to achieve these goals is said to have: A) low efficiency/high effectiveness B) low inputs/high effectiveness C) high efficiency/high inputs D) high efficiency/low effectiveness E) high inputs/low outputs

18) A manager who considers being _________ to be of paramount importance may be a driving force for taking steps to ensure that all members of a unit or organization behave ethically.

A) ambitious, hardworking, and aspiring B) imaginative, daring, and creative C) honest, sincere, and truthful D) self-controlled, restrained, and self-disciplined E) broad-minded and open-minded

19) Behaviours that are not required of organizational members but that contribute to and are necessary for organizational efficiency, effectiveness, and competitive advantage are known as:

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A) instrumental values B) Organizational Citizenship Behaviours (OCBs) C) job satisfaction D) attitudes E) norms

20) When the president of McDonald's informs the local community about the organization's future investments in the economy, in which role is he primarily acting?

A) Spokesperson B) Disseminator C) Leader D) Liaison E) Entrepreneur

21) Which role is the president of the company performing when they communicate the organization's vision to employees?

A) Spokesperson B) Disseminator C) Leader D) Liaison E) Entrepreneur

22) The five-step process used to identify and select appropriate goals and courses of action is known as:

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A) planning B) organizing C) leading D) controlling E) empowering

23) The process used to establish a structure of workplace relationships that allows organizational members to work together to achieve organizational goals is known as: A) planning B) organizing C) leading D) controlling E) strategizing

24) When managers articulate a clear vision to energize and enable members to understand the part they play in achieving organizational goals, it is known as: A) planning B) empowering C) leading D) organizing E) controlling

25) The process of evaluating how well an organization is achieving its goals and acting to maintain or improve its performance when standards are not met is known as:

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A) planning B) empowering C) leading D) organizing E) controlling

26) When the president of Walmart decided to expand into Canada, the president was acting in which type of role?

A) Entrepreneur B) Negotiator C) Liaison D) Disturbance handler E) Spokesperson

27) Following his decision to expand into Canada, the president of Walmart delivered a speech to the Canadian Chamber of Commerce to inform Canadian business people about the organization's future intentions. The president was acting in which type of role?

A) Entrepreneur B) Negotiator C) Liaison D) Disturbance handler E) Spokesperson

28)

All of the following roles fit into the broad category of "decisional," except:

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A) Entrepreneur B) Disturbance handler C) Liaison D) Resource allocator E) Negotiator

29) A middle manager that halts all operations in a factory to deal with a plumbing problem is acting as a(n): A) Entrepreneur B) Disturbance handler C) Liaison D) Resource allocator E) Negotiator

30) A manager who chooses inappropriate goals, but makes good use of resources to pursue these goals is said to have: A) low inputs/high outputs B) high efficiency/low effectiveness C) low efficiency/low effectiveness D) high efficiency/high effectiveness E) high inputs/low outputs

31)

Top managers spend the largest amount of their time on which of the following tasks?

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A) Planning and organizing B) Organizing and controlling C) Leading and controlling D) Controlling and planning E) Facilitating and leading

32) First-line managers spend the largest amount of their time on which of the following tasks?

A) Planning and organizing B) Organizing and controlling C) Leading and controlling D) Controlling and planning E) Facilitating and leading

33) Which level of manager focuses on the specific activities involved in the day-to-day production of goods and services?

A) CEO B) Top managers C) Middle managers D) First-line managers E) Executive managers

34) Which level of manager is responsible for the effective management of organizational resources?

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A) CEO B) Top managers C) Middle managers D) First-line managers E) Executive managers

35) Which level of manager would decide how employees should be organized to allow for the best use of resources?

A) CEO B) Top managers C) Middle managers D) First-line managers E) Executive managers

36)

Which level of manager has cross-departmental responsibilities?

A) Department heads B) Top managers C) Middle managers D) First-line managers E) Executive managers

37) A measure of the appropriateness of the goals an organization is pursuing and the degree to which the organization achieves them, is known as:

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A) efficiency B) effectiveness C) organizational performance D) strategy E) planning

38) When the Co-CEO of Netflix set the goal to increase the number of subscribers, it was an example of: A) strategizing B) empowering C) organizing D) motivating E) structuring

39) When the vice-president of finance compares the current financial statement to the budget, in which function are they engaged?

A) Controlling B) Planning C) Organizing D) Leading E) Motivating

40) When the vice-president of sales establishes a formal system of task and reporting relationships within their department, in which function are they engaged?

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A) Controlling B) Planning C) Organizing D) Leading E) Motivating

41)

Top managers spend most of their time on: A) leading and controlling B) planning and organizing C) organizing and controlling D) planning and leading E) leading and organizing

42)

The four essential managerial functions are: A) planning, organizing, leading, and controlling B) planning, organizing, demonstrating, and controlling C) planning, strategizing, demonstrating, and controlling D) planning, empowering, organizing, and controlling E) planning, leading, controlling, and empowering

43)

All of the following are examples of a resource, except: A) people B) machinery C) raw material D) interpersonal skills E) delegation

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44) Which of the following help new employees learn the values, norms, and culture of the organization?

A) Rites of passage and integration B) Material symbols C) Rites of enhancement D) Stories and language E) All of these choices are correct

45) Collections of people who work together and coordinate their actions to achieve goals are known as: A) organizations B) managers C) roles D) management E) empowerment

46) _________ are responsible for supervising the use of resources in an organization to ensure that goals are achieved.

A) Controllers B) Employees C) Self-managed teams D) Managers E) Strategists

47)

Which type of organization relies mainly on donations?

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A) Traditional business B) Social purpose business and social ventures C) Social enterprises D) Charities E) Financial institutions

48)

Which type of managers would require the least technical skills?

A) Middle managers B) First-line managers C) Supervisors D) Hourly workers E) Top managers

49) When the top manager empathizes with his employees, he is demonstrating that he possesses ________ skills.

A) interpersonal B) conceptual C) technical D) negotiating E) organizing

50) The ability to analyze and diagnose a situation and to distinguish between cause and effect is known as:

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A) interpersonal skills B) conceptual skills C) technical skills D) negotiating skills E) organizing skills

51) The ability to understand, alter, lead, and control the behaviour of other individuals is known as: A) interpersonal skills B) conceptual skills C) technical skills D) negotiating skills E) organizing skills

52) An analyst who prepares the cash forecast for the department using Microsoft Excel is exemplifying: A) interpersonal skills B) abstract skills C) technical skills D) negotiating skills

53) ________ are the job-specific knowledge and techniques that are required to perform an organizational role.

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A) Interpersonal skills B) Conceptual skills C) Technical skills D) Negotiating skills E) Organizing skills

54)

A top management team may be composed of all but which of the following managers?

A) CEO B) President C) Vice-president(s) D) Heads of departments E) Supervisors

55) Enduring characteristics that influence how people think, feel, and behave both on and off the job are known as: A) Terminal values B) Corporate culture C) Instrumental values D) Personality traits E) Ego

56)

Which of the following is not one of the Big Five Personality traits?

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A) Openness to experience B) Negative affectivity C) Extroversion D) Introversion E) Agreeableness

57)

People who follow a schedule score high on which of the Big Five Personality traits?

A) Openness to experience B) Negative affectivity C) Extroversion D) Conscientiousness E) Agreeableness

58) Managers who are high on this trait continuum may be especially likely to take risks and be innovative in their planning and decision making.

A) Openness to experience B) Negative affectivity C) Extroversion D) Conscientiousness E) Agreeableness

59) People who tend not to intervene to try to change a situation or solve a problem, have which type of personality trait?

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A) Introvert B) Conscientiousness C) Agreeableness D) Internal locus of control E) External locus of control

60)

High negative affectivity refers to:

A) People who believe their own actions do not make much of a difference in what happens in their lives.

B) People who believe their own actions do make a difference in what happens in their lives.

C) People who are less prone to take risks and more conservative in their planning and decision making.

D) People who tend to be less inclined toward social interactions and experience more positive energy from within.

E) People who often feel angry and dissatisfied and complain about their own and others' lack of progress.

61)

Low extroversion refers to:

A) People who believe their own actions do not make much of a difference in what happens in their lives.

B) People who believe their own actions do make a difference in what happens in their lives.

C) People who are less prone to take risks and more conservative in their planning and decision making.

D) People who tend to be less inclined toward social interactions and experience more positive energy from within.

E) People who often feel angry and dissatisfied and complain about their own and others' lack of progress.

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62)

Low openness to experience refers to:

A) People who believe their own actions do not make much of a difference in what happens in their lives.

B) People who believe their own actions do make a difference in what happens in their lives.

C) People who are less prone to take risks and more conservative in their planning and decision making.

D) People who tend to be less inclined toward social interactions and experience more positive energy from within.

E) People who often feel angry and dissatisfied and complain about their own and others' lack of progress.

63)

Managers tend to be low on this personality dimension: A) Need for Power B) Need for Achievement C) Need for Affiliation D) Self Esteem E) DiSC

64)

DiSC refers to: A) Dominance, influence, steadiness, and conscientiousness B) Dominance, introversion, stoicism, and control C) Dependence, introversion, steadiness and conscientiousness D) Dominance, introversion, steadiness, and conscientiousness E) Dependence, influence, steadiness, and conscientiousness

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65) In what ways can managers at each of the three levels of management contribute to organizational efficiency and effectiveness?

66) Discuss how managers affect organizational performance. Give an example of your choosing to illustrate.

67) Identify and describe the four essential managerial functions. In your opinion, which function is the most important and why?

68) Identify and discuss the primary responsibilities of the three levels of management and provide one example from a business of your choosing.

69) Mintzberg described ten managerial roles that managers play within the organization.

Identify these ten specific roles and give an example of each.

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70) Mintzberg grouped ten major roles that managers play into three broad categoriesinterpersonal, informational, and decisional. Discuss one of these categories in detail including the specific roles found in this category.

71) According to the text, the utilization of conceptual, interpersonal, and technical skills depends on the manager's position in the hierarchy. Discuss.

72)

Why do effective mangers need skills to handle workplace politics?

73)

Explain the meaning of core competency.

74)

What does research tell us about the relationship between mood states and creativity?

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75) Identify and discuss three of the "interpersonal skills" that a good manager needs to possess. For each, give a realistic business example of how a manager could use each of these three skills.

76) Compare the ways that managers perform the functions of planning, organizing, leading and controlling when the managers are part of an innovative versus a conservative organizational culture. In your opinion, which type of culture would bring out the best performance of employees?

77) What does Schneider's attraction-selection-attribution (ASA) framework tell us about personality and organizational culture?

78)

Assess the impact of values and attitudes on managerial behaviour.

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79) Describe the various personality traits that affect how managers think, feel and behave.

Which traits do you think make for the best manager?

80)

What are the key differences between managers and entrepreneurs?

81)

Effective managers continually try to improve the performance of their companies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) The social economy is made up of social enterprises, social ventures, and social purpose businesses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) Management is the planning, organizing, leading, and controlling of resources to achieve goals effectively and efficiently. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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84)

Canada's non-profit and voluntary sector is the second largest in the world ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Blended value refers to the convergence of corporate profits with profits from charitable organizations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) One of the most important goals of organizations is to provide goods and services that customers value. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) A measure of how efficiently and effectively a manager uses resources to achieve a goal or satisfy customers is known as organizational performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) The result of low efficiency and high effectiveness might be a product that customers want, but is too expensive for them to buy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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89) An example of high efficiency and high effectiveness is when a manager produces a high-quality product that customers do not want to buy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) An example of high effectiveness and low efficiency is when a manager produces a product that customers want at a quality and price that they can afford. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) Organizations are efficient when managers minimize the amount of input resources (such as labour, raw materials, and component parts needed to produce a given output of goods or services. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) An example of efficiency can be seen in how MacDonald's can produce twice as many French fries when they double the number of fryers per restaurant. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) The dynamic and complex nature of modern work means that conceptual skills are becoming obsolete. ⊚ ⊚

94)

true false

The four essential managerial functions are planning, organizing, selling, and controlling.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

95) Henri Fayol first outlined the nature of managerial tasks in The Wealth of Nations, published in 1916 ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Planning is establishing task and authority relationships that allow people to work together to achieve organizational goals. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

The outcome of planning is the creation of an organizational structure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) A cluster of decisions about what organizational goals to pursue, what actions to take, and how to use resources to achieve those goals is called a strategy. ⊚ ⊚

99)

true false

The outcome of organizing is the creation of a strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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100) Organizing people into departments according to the kinds of job-specific tasks they perform lays out the lines of authority and responsibility between different individuals and groups. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) The outcome of leading is a high level of energy and enabling organizational members to achieve organizational goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Leadership depends on the use of power, influence, vision, persuasion, and communication skills. ⊚ ⊚

103)

true false

Evaluating how well an organization is achieving its goals is known as strategizing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) Controlling involves evaluating how well the organization is achieving its goals and acting to maintain or improve performance if standards are not being met. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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105) The outcome of the control process is the ability to measure performance accurately and regulate efficiency and effectiveness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Typically, middle managers report to secondary managers, and secondary managers report to executive managers. ⊚ ⊚

107)

true false

All large organizations are structured with four distinct levels of management. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) First-line managers are responsible for the daily supervision of nonmanagerial employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) The head nurse in the paediatric department of a hospital would be classified as a firstline manager. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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110)

Middle managers supervise the first-line managers and report to top management. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) Middle managers are responsible for organizing the resources of the organization to best carry out its goals. ⊚ ⊚

112)

true false

The principal of a primary school is an example of a middle manager. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) The chief mechanic overseeing a crew of mechanics in the service department of a new car dealership would be classified as a middle manager. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) Middle managers are responsible for finding the best way to use resources to achieve organizational objectives. ⊚ ⊚

115)

true false

Top managers are responsible for their own individual departments. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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116) A top management team may include the CEO, the president, department heads, and firstline managers. ⊚ ⊚

117)

Top managers devote most of their time to leading and controlling. ⊚ ⊚

118)

true false

First-line managers spend more time planning than leading. ⊚ ⊚

120)

true false

Top managers devote most of their time to planning and organizing. ⊚ ⊚

119)

true false

true false

Middle managers spend most of their time planning, organizing, and leading. ⊚ ⊚

true false

121) The type of organizational culture determines how planning, organizing, leading, and controlling can best be done to create goods and services.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

122) Values, attitudes, and moods and emotions capture how managers experience their jobs as individuals. ⊚ ⊚

123)

A terminal value is a lifelong goal or objective that an individual seeks to achieve. ⊚ ⊚

124)

true false

An instrumental value is a mode of conduct that an individual seeks to follow. ⊚ ⊚

125)

true false

true false

An attitude is a collection of feelings and beliefs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

126) Job satisfaction is the collection of feelings and beliefs that managers have about their current jobs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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127) Organizational citizenship behaviours (OCBs)-behaviours are required of organizational members and contribute to and are necessary for organizational efficiency, effectiveness, and competitive advantage. ⊚ ⊚

128)

true false

Emotions are a feeling or state of mind. ⊚ ⊚

true false

129) Emotional intelligence is the ability to understand and manage one's own moods and emotions and the moods and emotions of other people. ⊚ ⊚

true false

130) The attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) framework posits that when founders hire employees for their new ventures, they tend to be attracted to and choose employees whose personalities are dissimilar to their own. ⊚ ⊚

true false

131) The most common rites that organizations use to transmit cultural norms and values to their members are rites of passage, of integration, and of enhancement. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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132) Culture influences how managers perform their four main functions: planning, organizing, leading, and controlling. ⊚ ⊚

133)

Stories and language play a very small role in organizational culture. ⊚ ⊚

134)

true false

true false

Frederick Taylor detailed ten specific roles that managers undertake. ⊚ ⊚

true false

135) Henry Mintzberg grouped ten managerial roles into three broad categories: interpersonal, informational, and decisional. ⊚ ⊚

true false

136) In the role of spokesperson, a manager transmits information to other members of the organization to influence their work attitudes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

137) The four roles that managers play when they are making decisions are entrepreneur, disturbance handler, resource allocator, and figurehead.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

138) When a manager cuts the ribbon at the ceremony of the opening of the new facility, the manager is acting as a figurehead. ⊚ ⊚

true false

139) Creating an alliance with a firm that supplies the company with raw materials is an example of the liaison managerial role. ⊚ ⊚

true false

140) The CEO of KLB Communications Inc. holds a staff meeting to share information about a new business strategy. The CEO is acting in the role of resource allocator. ⊚ ⊚

true false

141) When the vice-president approves the budget of a middle manager's department, the VP is acting as a disseminator. ⊚ ⊚

true false

142) When the CEO of a large company decides to expand internationally, they are acting in the role of an entrepreneur. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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143) A middle manager who halts all operations to deal with a plumbing problem in the factory is acting as a disturbance handler. ⊚ ⊚

true false

144) Delegative, interpersonal, technical, and strategic skills are the principal types of skills managers need to successfully perform their roles. ⊚ ⊚

145)

Interpersonal skills are demonstrated by the ability to analyze and diagnose a situation. ⊚ ⊚

146)

true false

First-line managers use mostly interpersonal and technical skills. ⊚ ⊚

148)

true false

Technical skills are most utilized by top managers. ⊚ ⊚

147)

true false

true false

Technical skills are demonstrated by the ability to analyze and diagnose a situation.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

149) To develop conceptual skills, leaders need to know how to deliver commands to their subordinates. ⊚ ⊚

true false

150) Formal education and training are very important in helping managers develop conceptual skills. ⊚ ⊚

151)

true false

Conceptual skills are used primarily by top managers in planning and organizing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

152) Personality traits are enduring characteristic that influence how people think, feel and behave. ⊚ ⊚

153)

true false

How managers react to different conditions has nothing to do with their personalities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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154) The Big Five Personality traits consist of extraversion, negative affectivity, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience. ⊚ ⊚

true false

155) People who follow a schedule score high on the Agreeableness trait in the Big Five Personality model. ⊚ ⊚

true false

156) People with anexternallocusofcontrol tend not to intervene to try to change a situation or solve a problem, leaving it to someone else. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_7ce_Jones 1) B 2) E 3) B 4) E 5) D 6) C 7) E 8) B 9) A 10) A 11) C 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) E 26) A Version 1

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27) E 28) C 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) C 36) B 37) B 38) A 39) A 40) C 41) B 42) A 43) E 44) E 45) A 46) D 47) C 48) E 49) A 50) B 51) A 52) C 53) C 54) E 55) D 56) D Version 1

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57) D 58) A 59) D 60) E 61) D 62) C 63) C 64) A 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) FALSE 94) FALSE 95) FALSE 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE Version 1

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103) FALSE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) FALSE 107) FALSE 108) TRUE 109) FALSE 110) TRUE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) FALSE 114) TRUE 115) FALSE 116) FALSE 117) FALSE 118) TRUE 119) FALSE 120) TRUE 121) TRUE 122) TRUE 123) TRUE 124) TRUE 125) TRUE 126) TRUE 127) FALSE 128) FALSE 129) TRUE 130) FALSE 131) TRUE 132) TRUE Version 1

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133) FALSE 134) FALSE 135) TRUE 136) FALSE 137) FALSE 138) TRUE 139) TRUE 140) FALSE 141) FALSE 142) TRUE 143) TRUE 144) FALSE 145) FALSE 146) FALSE 147) TRUE 148) FALSE 149) FALSE 150) TRUE 151) TRUE 152) TRUE 153) FALSE 154) TRUE 155) FALSE 156) FALSE

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CHAPTER 2 1)

Which of the following represents a threat to managers by large distributors?

A) Controlling customer access to an organization's goods and services B) Increasing orders C) Changing demographics D) Socio-cultural impact E) Efficiently managing uncertainty and change in an evolving market

2) All of the following are considered potential customers of a computer manufacturer,except: A) small businesses B) government agencies C) colleges D) individuals E) the environment

3)

The letter ‘T' in the PESTI acronym stands for: A) Threats B) Technology C) Transnational D) Translation E) Tariffs

4) The combination of equipment and skills which managers use in the production and distribution of goods is known as:

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A) economies of scale B) inflation C) competitive advantage D) technology E) the general environment

5) All of the following are examples of the industry-specific or task environment of the organization,except: A) distributors B) customers C) competitors D) suppliers E) technological forces

6) Organizations which produce goods that are similar to another organization's goods are known as: A) suppliers B) distributors C) competitors D) customers E) intermediaries

7)

Regional trade agreements like CUMSA result in all except which of the following?

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A) Declining barriers to trade B) Increased capital flows between partner nations C) Decline in labour intensive production in Canada and the USA D) Opportunities for managers to expand internationally E) Decreased competition

8) All of the following are examples of forces in the general environment of the organizationexcept: A) demographic forces B) legal and political forces C) distributors D) International/global forces E) technological forces

9) Organizations which supply another organization with the raw materials which it needs to produce goods are known as: A) suppliers B) competitors C) distributors D) customers E) potential competitors

10) as:

Organizations which help other organizations to sell their goods to customers are known

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A) competitors B) potential competitors C) distributors D) customers E) consultants

11)

The power of a distributor may be weakened if: A) there is only one intermediary B) there are many options for manufacturers and wholesalers C) direct sales to final consumers are prohibited D) trade barriers are removed E) competition decreases

12) Changes in the work patterns of women such as a larger percentage of working mothers with young children, are an example of which type of force on the organization?

A) General environmental B) Task environmental C) Economic environmental D) Political environmental E) Legal environmental

13) If a major firm suddenly creates a new product which makes the products of its competitors obsolete, this is an example of a force in which type of environment?

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A) General environment B) Task environment C) Economic environment D) Legal environment E) Political environment

14)

The outcomes of the changes in the laws of a society are known as: A) technological forces B) political and legal forces C) economic forces D) demographic forces E) cultural forces

15) Social structure and national culture are examples of which type of force in the general environment?

A) Technological forces B) Political and legal forces C) Economic forces D) Task forces E) Socio-cultural forces

16) __________ are outcomes of changes in international relationships, including changes in nations' economic, political, and legal systems.

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A) Technologies B) Legal systems C) Economic systems D) Political systems E) International/Global forces

17)

The result of falling trade barriers is: A) a reduction in global competition B) managers view global markets as closed systems C) higher prices D) greater competition E) reduced competition

18)

The four building blocks of a competitive advantage are: A) efficiency, effectiveness, quality, customer responsiveness B) efficiency, quality, customer responsiveness, innovation C) effectiveness, quality, customer responsiveness, innovation D) effectiveness, customer responsiveness, innovation, efficiency E) high performance, quality, efficiency, innovation

19)

All of the following are examples of political and legal forces,except: A) deregulation B) privatization C) emphasis on environmental protection D) emphasis on safety on the job E) social structure

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20) Modern communications and transportation technologies have done all of the following,except: A) decrease travel time B) reduce cultural differences among countries C) facilitate global communication networks D) increase barriers to trade and investment E) make reliable, secure, and instantaneous communication possible

21) The path of globalization is shaped by the ebb and flow of all of the following forms of capital,except: A) human capital B) political capital C) financial capital D) resource capital E) culture capital

22) Which of the following is a task of the top-management team in reducing the impact of environmental forces?

A) Create strategies that will take advantage of opportunities and counter threats.

B) Collect relevant information on the task environment.

C) Find ways to use resources more efficiently.

D) Get close to customers to learn what they want.

E) Transition older workers out of the labour force.

23) Which of the following is a task of the middle manager in reducing the impact of environmental forces?

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A) Create strategies that will take advantage of opportunities and counter threats.

B) Collect relevant information on the task environment.

C) Find ways to use resources more efficiently.

D) Get close to customers to learn what they want.

E) Design and implement strategic initiatives.

24)

The organizational environment is comprised of: A) forces that only effect incorporated enterprises B) forces that are extrinsic to the organization C) forces that cannot penetrate the core of an organization D) forces that insolate global enterprises from all domestic threats E) forces that present managers with threats and opportunities

25) Which of the following is a tax that a government imposes on goods imported into one country from another?

A) Tariff B) Interest rates C) Inflation D) GATT E) Quota

26)

All of the following are considered forces in the economic environment,except:

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A) unemployment B) inflation C) interest rates D) economic growth E) deregulation

27) The population of Canada is "aging" in the sense that the average age of Canadians increases each year. This is an example of which type of force in the environment?

A) Political B) Economic C) Legal D) Demographic E) Technological

28)

Pressures from customers are handled by: A) Sales and Services departments B) Marketing departments C) Legal and Public Relations departments D) Finance and Accounting departments E) Research and Development departments

29)

Which functional areas deal with the uncertainty and risks posed by competitors?

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A) Sales and Services departments B) Marketing and Strategy departments C) Legal and Public Relations departments D) Finance and Accounting departments E) Research and Development departments

30)

Changes in technological forces are handled by: A) Sales and Services departments B) Marketing departments C) Legal and Public Relations departments D) Finance and Accounting departments E) Research and Development departments

31)

Changes in economic forces are handled by: A) Sales and Services departments B) Marketing departments C) Legal and Public Relations departments D) Finance and Accounting departments E) Research and Development departments

32)

The impact of national culture on managing in a global economy means that:

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A) Managers should ignore the differences that exist between cultures B) Organizations with international management teams are less efficient C) Managers will never be able to understand, empathize, and work with multiple cultures D) Countries with a great deal of diversity will produce effective global managers E) Diversity is considered a general threat to productivity

33) as:

The set of forces which lead to interdependence and similarities among nations is known

A) social structures B) the organizational environment C) national cultures D) globalization E) stakeholders

34)

The organization's external environment can be divided into these categories: A) Internal threats and opportunities B) Task or industry-specific and general environments C) Organizational structure D) Organizational culture E) Strengths and weaknesses

35) When an organization's customers put pressure on the organization to reduce prices on its goods, this is a force in the organization's:

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A) general environment B) industry-specific environment C) political environment D) legal environment E) socio-cultural environment

36)

Individuals who buy goods that an organization produces are known as: A) competitors B) distributors C) potential competitors D) customers E) suppliers

37)

Globalization is driven by the free movement of: A) resources B) labour C) tariffs D) quotas E) capital

38) Which of the following concepts predicts that if each country agrees to specialize in the production of the goods and services that it can produce most efficiently, this will make the best use of global capital resources and will result in lower prices?

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A) The communist manifesto B) The theory of absolute advantage C) The free trade doctrine D) CUMSA E) GATT

39)

In terms of free trade, all of the following are correct, except:

A) Free-trade areas create an opportunity for manufacturing organizations because it lets them reduce their costs.

B) It facilitates organizations wishing to serve the whole region from one location rather than establishing separate operations in each country.

C) Some managers view regional free-trade agreements as a threat because they expose a company based in one-member country to increased competition from companies based in the other member countries.

D) Organizations can reduce costs by shifting production to the lowest-cost location within the free-trade area E) Free trade is generally recognized around the world as being protectionist.

40)

All of the following are examples of a demographic force,except: A) race B) gender C) sexual orientation D) ethnic origin E) privatization

41)

The degree to which forces in the environment change over time is known as:

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A) technological change B) economic change C) sociocultural change D) environmental change E) political change

42) All of the following are forces in the task or industry-specific environment of an organization,except: A) distributors B) customers C) suppliers D) competitors E) demographics

43) When a competitor negotiates a long-term contract with a supplier of raw materials, this is an example of an impact on your organization's: A) legal environment B) political environment C) task environment D) general environment E) socio-cultural environment

44) If the population of Canada is shifting from the East to the West, this is an example of which type of force in the environment?

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A) Political B) Legal C) Technological D) Economic E) Demographic

45)

All of the following are included in the organization's general environment,except: A) socio-cultural forces B) legal and political forces C) technological forces D) International/global forces E) distributors

46) Forces within the organization which result from the organization's structure and culture are known as: A) the task environment B) the general environment C) the external environment D) the internal environment E) the international environment

47) Overseas suppliers can pose a threat to managers of organizations in all of the following ways,except:

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A) If their position is strong.

B) They are the sole source of an input.

C) The input is vital to the organization.

D) They offer low cost, high quality parts/inputs.

E) They represent an integral contribution to the organization.

48)

Canadian managers face three main challenges in the global environment, including:

A) organizational type, size and ownership B) reliance on fossil fuel, industrial technology, and cheap labour C) political, technological and legal environmental forces D) Free trade, fair trade and tariffs E) building a competitive advantage while maintaining ethical standards; utilizing new kinds of technologies based on artificial intelligence and machine learning; and, embracing and overcoming differences in national cultures to curb racism and discrimination.

49)

Differences in national cultures include: A) Values and norms B) knowledge, beliefs and moral principles, C) laws, and customs D) other practices that unite the citizens of a country E) All of these answers are correct

50) Which of the following are the five dimensions of national culture identified by Hofstede?

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A) Individualism versus collectivism, power disturbance, achievement versus nurturing orientation, uncertainty avoidance, and long-term versus short-term orientation B) Individualism versus collectivism, power distance, achievement versus nurturing orientation, uncanny avoidance, and long-term versus short-term orientation C) Individualism versus collectivism, power distance, achievement versus nurturing orientation, uncertainty avoidance, and long-term versus short-term orientation D) Individualism versus collectivism, power disturbance, achievement versus nurturing orientation, uncertainty avoidance, and long-term versus medium-term orientation E) Individualism versus collectivism, power distance, achievement versus nurturing orientation, uncertainty activation, and long-term versus short-term orientation

51)

Which of the following nation has high power distance and low individualism?

A) USA B) Malaysia C) Germany D) UK E) Netherlands

52)

Which of the following is not a goal of B2B Commerce: A) Increase competition among business B) Share information among cooperating businesses C) Increase the profitability of making and selling goods and services D) Reduce costs E) Improve quality

53) The COVID-19 pandemic lead to which of the following outcomes with respect to international trade?

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A) Increased free trade B) Increased fair trade C) Decreased protectionism D) Increased protectionism E) Increased imports

54) Why is it important for managers to understand the forces in the external environment that are affecting their organizations?

55) Explain how the three levels of managers can minimize threats and uncertainty from forces in the external environment. Identify three forces from your own experience that contribute to the complexity and rate of environmental change.

56) For a computer manufacturing company, such as Hewlett-Packard, provide an example of each element in its "task environment" and how this places pressures on HP's managers on a daily basis.

57) Discuss how the "general environment" of an organization can affect the ability of an organization to respond to opportunities and threats from its environment. Give a specific business example of a company that would be affected by its environment in this way.

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58) An organization's suppliers can have an important impact on the success of the organization. Discuss using examples.

59) An organization's competitors can have an important impact on the success of the organization. Discuss how IKEA was greatly impacted by this environmental force.

60) The population is aging because of a combination of declining birth rates, declining death rates, and the aging of the baby boom generation. What might some of the implications of this demographic trend be for (a) a pharmaceutical company, and (b) the home construction industry?

61) Evaluate the implications for managers and organizations resulting from technological forces in the general environment.

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62) Customers are the most important group in the success of any company. Discuss the importance of national culture for IKEA and how they need to respond differently to the needs of its different customer groups if it is to be successful.

63)

Explain each of the four principal forms of capital that flows between countries.

64) Discuss the "four building blocks" of competitive advantage and give an example of a company that you feel uses each of these building blocks successfully in its production of goods and services.

65) Discuss how creating shared value can lead an organization to achieve a competitive advantage.

66) Managers need to understand how barriers to trade and distance between national cultures have affected the global economy. Discuss.

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67)

Globalization has resulted in restricted capital flows. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Globalization is a set of forces that work together to integrate and connect systems across countries. ⊚ ⊚

69)

true false

With globalization, nations become increasingly similar and interdependent. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) The organizational environment changes over time and therefore presents managers with opportunities and threats. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) The organization's internal environment is divided into the task environment and the general environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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72) The internal organizational environment includes the culture and structure of the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) The task environment (or industry-specific environment) is a set of external forces that affect an organization's ability to obtain inputs and dispose of outputs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) The task environment includes economic, technological, socio-cultural, demographic, political and legal, and global forces. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) The general environment includes political and legal, economic, technological, sociocultural, and international/global forces. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) The general environmental forces pose easily identifiable opportunities and threats for managers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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77) Forces in the industry-specific environment have immediate and direct effects on a managers' ability to obtain resources or sell an organization's goods and services. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) Overseas suppliers are increasingly specializing in just one part of the task of producing a product. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) The power of a distributor may get stronger if there are too many options for manufacturers and wholesalers to sell their products directly to customers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Suppliers are individuals or firms that provide an organization with inputs that it needs to produce goods and services. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Differences in customer preferences result in many companies standardizing products for different national markets. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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82) The suppliers, customers, and distributors that affect the organization's ability to obtain inputs and to sell its outputs are forces in the task or industry-specific environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) A high level of rivalry between firms often results in price competition, and falling prices reduce access to resources and cause profits to decrease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) All potential competitors are considered organizations that are part of the task environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) The wide-ranging set of forces and conditions that operate beyond an organization's boundaries and affect the organization are known as forces in the general environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) For the typical manager, opportunities and threats resulting from changes in the task or industry-specific environment are more difficult to identify than events in the general environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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87)

The task environment is also known as the industry-specific environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Organizations which help other organizations to sell their goods and services to customers are known as distributors. ⊚ ⊚

89)

true false

Groups which buy goods that another organization produces are known as suppliers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) An organization's "competitors" are those organizations which try to sell their goods to the same customers as the organization is trying to sell its goods. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) A shift in the age distribution of the population of Canada is an example of a demographic force. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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92) The outcomes of the changes in the laws of a country are examples of the political and legal forces in the environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Economic forces in the general environment include interest rates, inflation, and unemployment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Deregulation is an example of a socio-cultural force in the general environment that affects organizations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) The global financial meltdown from 2008 to 2010 was a result of too much risk-taking and not enough oversight. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Although cultures differ enormously around the world, most social structures are very similar. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

In the United States, collectivism is highly valued.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

98) Most industrialized nations are experiencing the aging of their populations as a consequence of falling birth and death rates and the aging of the baby boom generation. ⊚ ⊚

99)

The manager's job is being fundamentally changed by new technology. ⊚ ⊚

100)

true false

The aim of import tariffs is to foster growth opportunities for foreign investors. ⊚ ⊚

102)

true false

The social structure of a country affects the socio-cultural forces acting on organizations. ⊚ ⊚

101)

true false

true false

Declining barriers to trade and investment have facilitated globalization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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103) On average, the tariff barriers among the governments of developed countries declined from over 40 percent in 1948 to about 3 percent today, causing a dramatic increase in world trade. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) The free-trade doctrine predicts that if each country agrees to specialize in the production of the goods and services that it can produce most efficiently, this will make the best use of global capital resources and will result in lower prices. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) Barriers of distance and culture have closed the global environment and kept managers focused on their domestic market. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Since the end of the Second World War, a continuing stream of advances in communications and transportation technology has worked to reduce the barriers of distance and culture that affected Unilever and all global organizations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) One of the most important innovations in transportation technology that has opened the global environment has been the growth of commercial jet travel. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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108) The establishment of free-trade areas creates an opportunity for manufacturing organizations because it lets them reduce their costs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) Some managers view regional free-trade agreements as a threat because they expose a company based in a one-member country to increased competition from companies based in the other member countries. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) In general, the larger an organization is, the greater is the number of environmental forces that managers must respond to. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) The task of the top-management team in reducing the impact of environmental forces, is to create strategies that will take advantage of opportunities and counter threats. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) The main task of middle managers is to collect relevant data on forces in the task environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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113)

Marketing department managers handle pressures from suppliers. ⊚ ⊚

114)

Sales and service department managers handle pressures from customers. ⊚ ⊚

115)

true false

true false

Financial managers and accounting departments handle the forces in the economic realm. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) Changes in technological forces are dealt with by Research and Development department managers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

117) The highest degree of uncertainty for a manager occurs when the rate of change and the degree of complexity in the environment is high. ⊚ ⊚

true false

118) By better connecting companies' success with societal improvement, it opens up many ways to serve new needs, gain efficiency, create differentiation, and expand markets.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

119) Shared value creation focuses on identifying and expanding the connections between societal and economic progress. ⊚ ⊚

true false

120) The prominence of global organizations is putting pressure on managers of all organizations to improve their performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

121) To gain a competitive advantage in the global economy, firms can use five building blocks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

122) The four building blocks of a competitive advantage are increasing efficiency, offering superior quality, creating new or better products, and being responsive to customer needs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

123) Managers face the following challenges in today's global economy: creating shared value in building a competitive advantage, maintaining ethical standards, and utilizing new technologies.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

124) Codes of ethical conduct are a useful tool for managers to train and control the behaviour of employees and partners. ⊚ ⊚

125)

COVID-19 had a positive effect on economic forces in the general environment. ⊚ ⊚

126)

true false

Hofstede developed five dimensions along which national cultures can be placed. ⊚ ⊚

127)

true false

true false

Societies with high levels of individualism include Japan ⊚ ⊚

true false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_7ce_Jones 1) A 2) E 3) B 4) D 5) E 6) C 7) E 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) B 15) E 16) E 17) D 18) B 19) E 20) D 21) E 22) A 23) B 24) E 25) A 26) E Version 1

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27) D 28) A 29) B 30) E 31) D 32) D 33) D 34) B 35) B 36) D 37) E 38) C 39) E 40) E 41) D 42) E 43) C 44) E 45) E 46) D 47) D 48) E 49) E 50) C 51) B 52) A 53) D 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE Version 1

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70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE Version 1

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100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE 103) TRUE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) TRUE 107) TRUE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) TRUE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) FALSE 114) TRUE 115) TRUE 116) TRUE 117) TRUE 118) TRUE 119) TRUE 120) TRUE 121) FALSE 122) TRUE 123) TRUE 124) TRUE 125) FALSE 126) TRUE 127) FALSE

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CHAPTER 3 1) An organization in which managers try to maximize the ability of individuals and groups to think and behave creatively and thus maximize the potential for organizational learning to take place is known as: A) a learning organization B) a groupthink organization C) a privately held organization D) a heuristic organization E) an ergonomic organization

2) Showing disregard for social responsibility, and a willingness to engage in and cover up unethical and illegal behaviour is known as a(n): A) Obstructionist approach B) Defensive approach C) Accommodative approach D) Proactive approach E) Distributive approach

3) Having a minimal commitment to social responsibility, and a willingness to do what the law requires and no more is known as what type of approach to social responsibility?

A) Obstruction approach B) Defensive approach C) Accommodative approach D) Proactive approach E) Distributive approach

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4) Managers who have a moderate commitment to social responsibility, and a willingness to do more than the law requires if asked is known as a(n): A) Obstruction approach B) Defensive approach C) Accommodative approach D) Proactive approach E) Distributive justice

5) Managers who have a strong commitment to social responsibility, an eagerness to do more than the law requires and to use organizational resources to promote the interest of all organizational stakeholders is known as what type of approach to social responsibility?

A) Obstruction approach B) Defensive approach C) Accommodative approach D) Proactive approach E) Distributive justice

6)

Arguments against being socially responsible include all but which of the following?

A) Social responsibility benefits some stakeholders and not others B) Socially responsible businesses gain a reputation C) Business should only use its resources to increase profits D) Business should only use its resources to reward stockholders E) Business should only be responsible to stockholders

7) When managers are making decisions where the outcomes of alternatives are not known, they are working under conditions of:

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A) Risk B) Uncertainty C) Certainty D) Satisficing E) Bounded rationality

8)

Which of the following is the second step in the decision-making process?

A) Assess alternatives B) Identify decision criteria C) Choose from alternatives D) Recognize the need for a decision E) Learn from feedback

9) A regional manager decided to increase production based on random data that were interpreted to show a pattern of increased sales. Which type of bias does this reflect?

A) Systematic errors B) Representative bias C) Clustering illusion D) Illusion of control and overconfidence bias E) Prior hypothesis bias

10) as:

Errors that people make over and over and that result in poor decision making are known

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A) systematic errors B) representative bias C) confirmation bias D) illusion of control and overconfidence bias E) recency effect

11)

All of the following are examples of nonprogrammed decisions,except: A) Changing the light bulbs when they burn out B) Investing in new technology C) Developing a new product D) Launching a new promotional campaign E) Entering a new market or expanding internationally

12)

Decision making occurs in all of the following activities of managing,except: A) Planning B) Organizing C) Directing D) Controlling E) Tasking

13) Managers who are rational in their way of thinking and have a low tolerance for ambiguity have which decision-making style?

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A) Analytic B) Conceptual C) Directive D) Behavioural E) Disruptive

14) Managers who are rational in the way they process information but can handle more ambiguity and uncertainty have which decision-making style?

A) Analytic B) Conceptual C) Directive D) Behavioural E) Intuitive

15) Managers who use a high degree of intuition when making decisions and have a high degree of tolerance for ambiguity have which type of decision-making style?

A) Analytic B) Conceptual C) Directive D) Behavioural E) Intuitive

16) Managers who use a high degree of intuition and have a low tolerance for ambiguity have a(n) ___________ decision-making style.

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A) analytic B) conceptual C) directive D) behavioural E) pragmatic

17) A cognitive bias resulting from the tendency to base decisions on strong prior beliefs even if evidence shows that those beliefs are wrong is known as: A) systematic errors B) representative bias C) escalating commitment D) illusion of control and overconfidence bias E) prior hypothesis bias

18) A cognitive bias resulting from the tendency to generalize inappropriately from a small sample or from a single vivid event or episode is known as: A) systematic errors B) representative bias C) escalating commitment D) recency effect E) prior hypothesis bias

19) A source of cognitive bias resulting from the tendency to overestimate one's own ability to control activities and events is known as:

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A) systematic errors B) representative bias C) escalating commitment D) illusion of control and overconfidence bias E) fundamental attribution error

20) A manager decided to continue to purchase insurance from a company that charged high premiums, even though the manager knew that they could get the same coverage for less. This is an example of what type of cognitive bias?

A) Systematic errors B) Representative bias C) Escalating commitment D) Illusion of control and overconfidence bias E) Prior hypothesis bias

21) According to the text, when Richard Branson launched the Pulse MP3 to compete with Apple's iPod, this was an example of: A) systematic errors B) representative bias C) escalating commitment D) illusion of control and overconfidence bias E) prior hypothesis bias

22) Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria used by managers to evaluate the pros and cons of alternative courses of action?

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A) Prior hypothesis bias B) Legal C) Ethical D) Economical E) Practical

23)

The administrative model of decision making was developed by: A) Mary Parker Follet B) Kahneman and Tversky C) Fredrick Taylor D) March and Simon E) Peter Senge

24) When Walmart tried to use the same business model that worked for them in the USA in the rest of the world, they were acting on which type of cognitive bias?

A) Systematic errors B) Representative bias C) Fundamental attribution error D) Illusion of control and overconfidence bias E) Prior hypothesis bias

25) The ability to make sound decisions based on one's experience and immediate feelings about the information at hand is called:

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A) Judgment B) Bounded rationality C) Heuristics D) Satisficing E) Intuition

26) The ability to develop a sound opinion based on one's evaluation of the importance of the information at hand is known as: A) Judgment B) Bounded rationality C) Heuristics D) Satisficing E) Intuition

27)

Rules of thumb that simplify decision making are known as: A) systematic errors B) representative bias C) heuristics D) illusion of control and overconfidence bias E) prior hypothesis bias

28) A decision maker's ability to discover original and novel ideas that lead to feasible alternative courses of action is known as:

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A) groupthink B) creativity C) illusion of control D) brainstorming E) intuition

29) When Ford limits its search for new suppliers to an existing set of alternatives known to the purchasing manager, they are using which decision-making strategy?

A) Bounded rationality B) Satisficing C) Incomplete information D) Uncertainty E) Groupthink

30)

An organization's code of ethics is derived from which of the following?

A) Societal ethics B) Professional ethics C) Individual ethics D) Professional and individual ethics E) Societal, professional, and individual ethics

31) The classical or rational model is ________, which means that it specifies how decisions should be made.

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A) heuristic B) prescriptive C) intuitive D) satisficing E) legal

32)

Decision making has all but which of the following characteristics?

A) It is a process that only managers embark upon B) It is a process to respond to opportunities and threats C) It is a process of analyzing options D) It is a process of making determinations about courses of action E) It is a process of making determinations about organizational goals

33)

A sustainability strategy has all of the following characteristics,except: A) It must protect the environment B) It must promote social responsibility C) It must respect cultural differences D) It must have an economic benefit E) It relies on programmed decision making

34)

Which of the following is not a step in the decision-making process?

A) Generating alternatives B) Assessing alternatives C) Learning from feedback D) Choosing among alternatives E) Seek feedback from competitors

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35) When a manager must decide whether they have the capabilities and resources required to implement the alternate causes of action, upon which criteria for decision making is this manager focusing?

A) Practicality B) Economic feasibility C) Legality D) Ethnicity E) Urgency

36) When a manager performs a cost benefit analysis of the various alternatives they are considering, on which criteria for decision making is this manager focusing?

A) Practicality B) Economic feasibility C) Legality D) Ethnicity E) Urgency

37) The process through which managers seek to improve employees' desire and ability to understand and manage the organization and its task environment is known as: A) creativity B) brainstorming C) organizational learning D) production blocking E) intuition

38)

________ argued that "rules of thumb" simplify decision making.

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A) March and Simon B) Kahneman and Tversky C) Peter Senge D) Mary Parker Follet E) Fredrick Taylor

39) Which of the following is one of the criteria used by managers to evaluate the pros and cons of alternative courses of action, EXCEPT? A) Legal B) Ethical C) Practical D) Economical E) Sympathetical

40) The cognitive limitations that constrain one's ability to interpret, process, and act on information is known as: A) Bounded rationality B) Satisficing C) Prior hypothesis bias D) Groupthink E) Dialectic inquiry

41) Searching for and choosing an acceptable, or satisfactory response to problems and opportunities, rather than trying to make the best decision, is known as:

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A) Bounded rationality B) Satisficing C) Prior hypothesis bias D) Groupthink E) Dialectic inquiry

42) Decision makers who seek and use information that is consistent with their prior beliefs and ignore information that contradicts those beliefs are suffering from: A) Clustering bias B) Representative bias C) Prior hypothesis bias D) Illusion of control and overconfidence bias E) Systemic errors

43) A manager's duty or obligation to make decisions that promotes the welfare and wellbeing of stakeholders and society, as a whole is known as: A) Social responsibility B) Ethical behaviour C) Procedural justice D) Proactive approach E) Social audit

44) Nonroutine decision making that occurs in response to unusual, unpredictable opportunities, and threats is known as:

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A) Heuristic decision making B) Nonprogrammed decision making C) Programmed decision making D) Groupthink decision making E) Creative decision making

45) Routine, virtually automatic decision making that follows established rules or guidelines are known as: A) Heuristic decisions B) Nonprogrammed decisions C) Programmed decisions D) Groupthink decisions E) Creative decisions

46)

Nonprogrammed decision making occurs when: A) The decision question is routine B) The decision can be made automatically C) Rules and policies can be used to make the decision D) The outcomes of the alternatives can be known E) There are no ready-made decision rules that managers can apply to a situation.

47) The process by which managers respond to opportunities and threats that confront their organization by analyzing options and taking actions is known as:

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A) Decision making B) Bounded rationality C) Systematic error D) Intuition E) Heuristics

48)

The rational or classical model of decision making assumes: A) that managers have all the information they need to make an optimal decision B) that managers often do not act in the best interests of the organization C) that a manager's ability to be rational is limited or bounded D) that managers tend to satisfice E) that managers often make decisions under conditions of uncertainty

49) The administrative model recognizes that decision makers act under the following circumstances,EXCEPT: A) with incomplete information B) with bounded rationality C) with a tendency to satisfice D) with time constraints E) with the best interests of the organization in mind

50)

Information can be incomplete for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT:

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A) Uncertainty B) Time constraints C) Ambiguous information D) Information costs E) Satisficing

51) Which of the following is the formal procedure for learning from the results of past decisions?

A) 1. Explore why any expectations for the decision were not met.

2. Compare what actually happened to what was expected to happen as a result of the decision.

3. Develop guidelines that will help in future decision making.

B) 1. Compare what actually happened to what was expected to happen as a result of the decision.

2. Explore why any expectations for the decision were not met.

3. Develop guidelines that will help in future decision making.

C) 1. Develop guidelines that will help in future decision making.

2. Explore why any expectations for the decision were not met.

3. Compare what actually happened to what was expected to happen as a result of the decision.

D) 1. Compare what actually happened to what was expected to happen as a result of the decision.

2. Develop guidelines that will help in future decision making.

3. Explore why any expectations for the decision were not met.

E) 1. Develop guidelines that will help in future decision making.

2. Compare what actually happened to what was expected to happen as a result of the decision.

3. Explore why any expectations for the decision were not met.

52) A sales manager views the poor performance of their sales agents as resulting from the agents' laziness rather than from the innovative product line of a competitor. This is an example of:

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A) Clustering Illusion B) Recency Effect C) Escalating Commitment D) Fundamental Attribution Error E) Illusion of Control and Overconfidence Bias

53)

Pursuing ESG and DEI goals are an example of which approach to social responsibility?

A) Obstructionist B) Accommodative C) Proactive D) Defensive E) Ethical

54) Differentiate between programmed and nonprogrammed decisions and include two examples of each type of decision.

55) March and Simon developed three important concepts in their administrative model of decision making. Discuss these three concepts and explain how they would apply to a realistic business-decision situation of your choosing.

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56) Discuss the assumptions that underlie the classical or rational model of decision making.

How realistic is this model?

57) Researchers have identified a seven-step model that can be used by managers who are faced with an important decision. Discuss these steps as they would apply to an important and realistic business situation of your choosing.

58) Managers sometimes make poor decisions because of cognitive biases in their decisionmaking process. Discuss four of the sources of bias that can adversely affect the ability of managers to make a good decision, and illustrate each of them with a realistic business decisionmaking situation.

59) bias.

Describe what is meant by the recency effect and provide an example to illustrate this

60) Describe what is meant by the "clustering illusion" and provide an example to illustrate this bias.

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61) Compare an analytic decision-making style with a behavioural decision-making style.

Under which managerial style would you perform your job better?

62) While ethical beliefs lead to the development of laws and regulations to prevent certain behaviours or encourage others, laws themselves can and do change or even disappear as ethical beliefs change. Explain, using an example, what this statement means.

63) Discuss how managers can improve their decision-making abilities by adopting a sustainability strategy. What might the outcome be if decision making does not adopt sustainability?

64) Explain the role that organizational learning and creativity play in helping managers to improve their decisions. Provide an example where organizational learning and creativity are promoted.

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65) Compare four management decision making styles. In your opinion, which style suits management the best?

66) Compare the approaches to social responsibility. Choose one approach and defend its merits.

67)

Discuss the ways in which organizations can encourage and promote ethical behaviour.

68) Decision making is done every time a manager plans, organizes, directs, or controls organizational activities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Decision making involves analyzing options and making determinations about specific organizational goals and courses of action. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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70) Decision making in response to opportunities occurs when managers search for ways to improve organizational performance to benefit customers, employees, and other stakeholder groups. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Routine, virtually automatic decision making that follows established rules or guidelines is known as programmed decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) Ordering basic office supplies by the office manager whenever the inventory on hand drops below a certain level, is an example of nonprogrammed decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) The rational or classical model of decision making assumes that managers have all the information they need to make an optimal decision in the best interests of the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) The administrative model of decision making recognizes that the assumptions underlying the rational model are realistic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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75) The administrative model of decision making recognizes that the assumptions underlying the rational model are rarely accurate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) The premise of the classical or rational model is that once managers recognize the need to make a decision, they should be able to generate a complete list of alternatives and consequences, from which they can make the best choice. ⊚ ⊚

77)

true false

The administrative model was developed by March and Simon. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) The administrative model is based on three important concepts: bounded rationality, complete information, and satisficing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) Bounded rationality refers to the inability of managers to be completely rational when processing information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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80) Satisficing is when managers make lightning-quick calculations of costs and benefits that lead to optimal decisions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Satisficing is when managers fail to explore all the possible alternatives and choose one that only minimally solves the problem. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) When Ford limits its search for new suppliers to an existing set of alternatives known to the purchasing manager, they are using a satisficing strategy. ⊚ ⊚

83)

true false

Uncertainty occurs when the outcomes of various actions can be reasonably predicted. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) The ability to make sound decisions based on one's experience and immediate feelings about the information at hand is known as judgment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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85)

The first step in the decision-making process is to generate alternatives. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) When generating alternatives, managers must never generate a set of feasible alternative courses of action to take in response to the opportunity or threat. ⊚ ⊚

87)

true false

The last step in the decision-making process is to learn from feedback. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) One criterion for evaluating the pros and cons of alternative courses of action is "practicality". ⊚ ⊚

89)

Analyzing the costs and benefits of each alternative falls under ethical criteria. ⊚ ⊚

90)

true false

true false

It is the responsibility of middle managers to implement the chosen alternative. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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91)

Rules of thumb that simplify decision making are called heuristics. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) The tendency of decision makers to overestimate their ability is known as representativeness bias. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Prior hypothesis bias occurs when managers make decisions based on strong beliefs that they think apply to the situation even when they don't. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) A representative bias occurs when decision makers generalize from an isolated or individual case. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) When Walmart tried to use the same model that worked for them in the USA in the rest of the world, they were acting on a representative bias. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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96) The tendency to overestimate one's own ability to control events is called escalating commitment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) A manager decided to continue to purchase insurance from a company that charged high premiums, even though the manager knew that they could get the same coverage for less. This is an example of illusion of control. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) When a sales manager views the poor performance of his or her sales agents as resulting from their laziness rather than to the innovative product line of a competitor, this is a fundamental attribution error. ⊚ ⊚

99)

true false

The tendency to see patterns in data where none exist is known as a confirmation bias. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) The error of considering the most recent data to have the most relevance to a problem is known as a confirmation bias. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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101) Decision-making styles vary in terms of a person's way of thinking and on the tolerance for ambiguity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Managers with the analytic style are rational in their way of thinking and have a low tolerance for ambiguity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) Managers who use a high degree of intuition and have a low tolerance for ambiguity have a behavioural decision-making style. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) Managers who use a high degree of intuition when making decisions and have a high degree of tolerance for ambiguity are conceptual decision makers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) An ethical decision is a decision that reasonable or typical stakeholders would find acceptable because it aids shareholders, the organization, or society. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Ethics help people determine moral responses to situations in which the best course of action is unclear.

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⊚ ⊚

107)

When a manager has trouble deciding what to do, they may be facing an ethical dilemma. ⊚ ⊚

108)

true false

true false

Creativity is the ability of the decision maker to discover original ideas. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) Codes of ethics are formal standards and rules that managers use to make decisions in the best interests of their stakeholders. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) Canadian companies who locate in the developing world do not have to consider the host country's societal ethics. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) Individual ethics are derived from family, peers, and upbringing, but not personality and experience. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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112)

Creativity is at the heart of organizational learning. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) If a manager is not sure if a certain business practice is ethical, they should seek advice, if possible, from the company's ethics ombudsperson. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) Being proactive in terms of social responsibility includes thinking beyond what the law requires. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) A company with an obstructionist approach to social responsibility has a high social responsibility. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) A company that takes a defensive approach to social responsibility will comply with the law but not go above and beyond its requirements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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117)

A sustainability strategy has three elements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

118) Decisions that protect the environment, promote social responsibility, respect cultural differences, and provide an economic benefit are known as sustainability decisions. ⊚ ⊚

119)

Information is incomplete due to five reasons. ⊚ ⊚

120)

true false

true false

A formal procedure for learning from the results of past decisions should include 3 steps. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_7ce_Jones 1) A 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) B 7) B 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) A 12) E 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) E 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) D 24) B 25) E 26) A Version 1

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27) C 28) B 29) B 30) E 31) B 32) A 33) E 34) E 35) A 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) E 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) E 47) A 48) A 49) E 50) E 51) B 52) D 53) C 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE Version 1

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71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) FALSE Version 1

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101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) TRUE 107) TRUE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) FALSE 111) FALSE 112) TRUE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE 115) FALSE 116) TRUE 117) FALSE 118) TRUE 119) FALSE 120) TRUE

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CHAPTER 4 1)

Which of the following is an important reason for planning?

A) Planning is a useful way of getting managers to participate in decision making B) Planning is a means to give the organization a sense of direction C) A plan can be useful as a device for controlling managers D) A plan helps coordinate managers of the different divisions to ensure that they all pull in the same direction E) All of these choices are important reasons for planning

2)

Qualities of good goal formation include all of the following,except: A) Specific B) Measurable C) Acceleration D) Time-related.

E) Realistic

3) Which of the following qualities of an effective plan suggests that at any time only one central, guiding plan should be put into operation to achieve an organizational goal?

A) Unity B) Continuity C) Accuracy D) Flexibility E) Vertical integration

4) Which aspect of planning is emphasized when it is said that managers need to make every attempt to collect and utilize all available information at their disposal?

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A) Unity B) Continuity C) Accuracy D) Flexibility E) Vertical integration

5)

Implementing strategy includes all of the following steps,except: A) Allocating responsibility B) Drafting a detailed action plan C) Allocating appropriate resources D) Establishing a timetable E) Analyzing the environment

6)

Implementing strategy may require: A) Allocating responsibility B) Creating detailed action plans with a timeframe for achieving specific goals C) Allocating appropriate resources D) Holding specific people accountable for performance E) All of the choices are correct

7) A plan that indicates how a division intends to compete against its rivals in an industry is known as a:

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A) corporate-level plan B) corporate-level strategy C) business-level plan D) business-level strategy E) functional-level plan

8) A plan that indicates in which industries and national markets an organization intends to compete is known as: A) corporate-level plan B) corporate-level strategy C) business-level plan D) business-level strategy E) functional-level plan

9)

Evaluating strategy involves which of the following?

A) Monitoring progress B) Evaluating performance levels C) Comparing performance against goals D) Making corrections if the strategy is not achieving the mission and goals E) All of these choices are part of evaluating strategy

10) The strategy in which managers try to gain a competitive advantage by focusing the energy of all the organization's departments or functions on driving the organization's costs down below the costs of its rivals is called:

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A) Concentration on a single industry B) Diversification C) Cost leadership D) International expansion E) Vertical integration

11)

All of the following are examples of corporate-level strategiesexcept: A) Concentration on a single industry B) Diversification C) Cost leadership D) International expansion E) Vertical integration

12) With a differentiation strategy, managers may try to gain a competitive advantage by distinguishing their products or services from competitors on all of the following dimensions,except: A) Product design B) Product quality C) Customer service D) Customer support E) International expansion

13) When a company targets a specific language group to sell its products to, it is using a _______ strategy.

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A) low-cost B) focused C) differentiation D) cost-leadership E) Stuck-in-the-middle

14) Successful innovation that gives a department something unique that its rivals lack is a(n) __________ strategy.

A) low-cost functional B) corporate-level C) differentiation D) efficient E) focused cost leadership

15) Through the use of a ________, managers try to gain a competitive advantage by driving the organization's costs down below the cost of its rivals.

A) related diversification strategy B) formulation strategy C) differentiation strategy D) cost-leadership strategy E) vertical strategy

16)

The organization's vision is generally set by:

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A) top management B) middle management C) first-line management D) supervisors E) external forces

17)

Effective plans should have all of the following features,except: A) unity B) continuity C) flexibility D) accuracy E) divisiveness

18)

All of the following are business-level strategies,except: A) cost leadership B) vertical integration C) focused differentiation D) differentiation E) focused low-cost

19)

Which researcher developed the Five Forces Model?

A) March and Simon B) Kahneman and Tversky C) Fredrick Taylor D) Hawthorne E) Michael Porter

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20) When operations managers set goals to reduce shipping time to customers, this is an example of which level of planning?

A) Corporate-level B) Business-level C) Functional-level D) Team-level E) Global-level

21) The goal of GE Aviation to reduce manufacturing production costs by 20% over three years is a _________ goal.

A) corporate-level B) business-level C) functional-level D) departmental-level E) global-level

22) A plan that indicates the actions that managers intend to take at departmental levels such as marketing and R&D in order to allow the organization to attain its goals is known as a: A) business-level strategy B) formulating strategy C) functional-level strategy D) corporate-level strategy E) top-level strategy

23)

The intended duration of a plan is known as a:

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A) time horizon B) rolling horizon C) goal D) objective E) mission

24) A ______________ is a broad declaration of an organization's overriding purpose intended to identify its products and customers and distinguish itself from other similar organizations.

A) mission statement B) vision statement C) goal statement D) SWOT analysis E) corporate-level strategy

25) of a:

The desire of Bill Gates of Microsoft to have "a computer on every desk" is an example

A) mission statement B) vision statement C) goal statement D) swot analysis E) corporate-level strategy

26)

"To make commerce better for everyone." is Shopify's __________.

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A) mission statement B) vision statement C) goal statement D) SWOT analysis E) corporate-level strategy

27) E-Bay's __________ is "To be the world's favorite destination for discovering great value and unique selection. " A) mission statement B) vision statement C) goal statement D) SWOT analysis E) corporate-level strategy

28)

Crisis management: A) predicts when conditions might give rise to a contingency plan B) is the same as contingency planning C) is the same as scenario planning D) occurs when unanticipated conditions arise E) involves generating several 'what if' scenarios

29)

Identifying and selecting appropriate goals and courses of action is known as:

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A) planning B) controlling C) learning D) organizing E) implementing

30) Corporate and business-level goals and strategies require ________ and ________ term plans, respectively.

A) long; intermediate B) intermediate; intermediate C) long; short D) intermediate; long E) short; intermediate

31)

Plans with a time horizon of five years or more are referred to as: A) short-term plans B) intermediate plans C) long-term plans D) rolling plans E) corporate term plans

32)

Plans with a time horizon between one and five years are referred to as:

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A) short-term plans B) intermediate plans C) long-term plans D) rolling plans E) corporate term plans

33)

Which of the following is a formal, written guide to action?

A) Rules B) Policies C) Operating procedures D) Guidelines E) Standard procedures

34)

When handling crises, management should do all of the followingexcept: A) Be transparent about the situation B) Keep a low profile to avoid being blamed C) Remove tainted products from shelves D) Initiate a recall E) Be open with stakeholders

35) A(n) ________ is a plan that is updated and amended every year and takes account of changing conditions in the external environment.

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A) corporate plan B) long-term plan C) rolling plan D) intermediate plan E) divisional plan

36)

Contingency planning is also known as: A) business-level planning B) global planning C) scenario planning D) corporate-level planning E) missionary planning

37) When a company generates multiple forecasts of future conditions followed by an analysis of how to respond effectively to each of those conditions, this is known as: A) business-level planning B) global planning C) scenario planning D) corporate-level planning E) contingent planning

38)

Which of the following is a general guide to action?

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A) Procedures B) Policies C) Standard operating procedures D) Rules E) Standing plans

39) In contrast to plans that are developed to handle nonprogrammed decision making in unusual situations, ________ are plans used in situations in which programmed decision making is appropriate.

A) single-use plans B) standing plans C) strategic plans D) operational plans E) situational plans

40)

A SWOT analysis stands for: A) systems, weaknesses, opportunities, technologies B) systems, weaknesses, opportunities, threats C) strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, technologies D) strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats E) suitability, weaknesses, obligations, transformation

41) A cluster of decisions about what goals to pursue, what actions to take, and how to use resources to achieve goals is known as:

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A) planning B) strategy C) SWOT analysis D) vertical integration E) multi-domestic strategy

42) A ________ is a desired outcome that an organization strives to achieve within a specified timeframe.

A) goal B) vision C) SWOT analysis D) vertical integration E) multi-domestic strategy

43) A company pursuing a __________ serves one or a few segments of the overall market and aims to be the lowest-cost company serving that segment.

A) Differential strategy B) Focused low-cost strategy C) Stuck-in-the-middle strategy D) Focused-differentiation strategy E) Cost-leadership strategy

44) Analysis of an organization's current situation followed by the development of strategies to accomplish its mission and achieve its goals is known as:

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A) planning B) strategy formulation C) SWOT analysis D) applying the Five Forces model E) strategizing

45)

All of the following are included in Porter's Five Forces Model,except?

A) The level of rivalry among competitors B) The potential ease of entry into the industry C) The opportunity to increase market share D) The threat of substitute products E) The power of customers

46)

All functional managers should pay attention to all of the following goals,except?

A) To attain superior efficiency B) To attain superior quality C) To attain superior customer responsiveness D) To attain superior innovation E) To increase market share

47) To define the business for the mission statement, managers must ask which three questions?

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A) Who are our customers? Where should we locate? What customer needs are being satisfied?

B) Who are our customers? What customer needs are being satisfied? How are we satisfying customer needs?

C) Who are our customers? What customer needs are being satisfied? What customer needs are not being satisfied?

D) Who are our customers? Where should we locate? What customer needs are not being satisfied?

E) Who are our competitors? Where should we locate? What customer needs are being satisfied?

48) As jet fuel prices increase, airlines have little choice but to pay the higher prices. This is an example of: A) Barriers to entry B) Ease of entry C) Power of buyers D) Power of suppliers E) Threat of substitute products

49) As economies emerge from the COVID-19 pandemic, companies that are successful have innovated their business models and strategies by: A) Solely focusing on cutting costs B) Focusing on increasing product quality C) Focusing solely on increasing customer value D) Either cutting costs or adding value to customers E) Diminishing product quality to cut costs

50)

The updated Balanced Score Card (BSD) includes which of the following:

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A) Financial metrics, customer perspectives, operations perspective, and employee perspectives.

B) Financial metrics, customer perspectives, operations perspectives, and shareholder perspectives.

C) Financial metrics, customer perspectives, operations perspectives, and human resources perspectives.

D) Financial metrics, customer perspectives, operations perspectives, and administrative perspective.

E) Financial metrics, customer perspectives, operations perspectives, ESG and DEI perspectives.

51) In most organizations, planning is a five-step process. Identify the five steps and discuss them in the context of a realistic business problem of your choosing.

52)

Discuss the levels of managers responsible for various types of plans.

53)

Differentiate between standing plans and single-use plans and when each is appropriate.

54) Discuss time horizons in terms of long-term plans, intermediate plans, and short-term plans and provide one business example of each type of plan.

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55)

Planning is important for four reasons. Which reason do you think is the most important?

56) In order to write a concise statement of the organization's mission, a manager must first answer the question: "What business are we in and what business should we be in?" Discuss the three question areas that must be answered by a manager in order to define the organization's business. Construct a mission statement for a printing business.

57) Discuss each of the four qualities of effective plans. Which quality has the most importance and why?

58)

How does vision differ from other forms of organizational direction setting?

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59)

Discuss what is meant by a SWOT analysis and give examples using Amazon.com.

60) Michael Porter presented two basic ways in which the top management of an organization could select a business-level strategy for their organization. Discuss these and show how each main strategy can be 'focused'.

61) Michael Porter developed the Five Forces model to analyze threats and opportunities within an industry. Describe the Five Forces and provide an example to illustrate their effect on a bakery opening in an area where several bakeries already exist.

62)

Describe one advantage and one disadvantage of franchising.

63)

Explain what Michael Porter means by the expression "stuck in the middle."

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64) Describe the process of strategy implementation. Which step is the most important and why?

65)

Apply Porter's Five Forces Model to the music streaming industry.

66) How can companies better tailor their strategies to compete in the post-pandemic economy? Give examples to illustrate.

67)

Planning is a three-step activity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) The five steps in the planning process are: 1. determining the vision, mission and major goals of the organization; 2. analyzing the forces in the environment; 3. formulating strategies to accomplish goals; 4. implementing those strategies, and; 5. evaluating the success of the strategy in achieving the mission and goals.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

69) A Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) is a written instruction describing the exact series of actions that should be followed in a specific situation. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

Planning gives managers a sense of direction and purpose. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) In general, corporate-level planning is the primary responsibility of top management while business-level planning is the primary responsibility of supervisors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) First-line managers are responsible for tactical plans with short-term time horizons for their departments or teams. ⊚ ⊚

73)

true false

The intended duration of a plan is known as a rolling plan. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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74) A rolling plan is one that is updated every year to reflect changes in the organizational environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Corporate and business-level plans are generally short term relative to functional level plans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Standing plans are used in situations in which programmed decision making is appropriate while single-use plans are developed to handle nonprogrammed decision making in unusual or one-of-a-kind situations. ⊚ ⊚

77)

Plans are prepared statements of intent, they cannot be altered without board approval. ⊚ ⊚

78)

true false

true false

Effective plans have only two qualities: unity and continuity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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79)

Henri Fayol said that effective plans have five qualities. ⊚ ⊚

80)

true false

Scenario planning is the same thing as contingency planning. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) An example of contingency planning is when shell oil generated multiple scenarios about conditions in the world oil market that might prevail in the future, and then developed plans of what the company should do in the event that any of these scenarios actually occurred. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) Managers use scenario planning to generate different future scenarios of conditions in the environment. ⊚ ⊚

83)

true false

Crisis management is the same as contingency planning. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) The degree to which a firm can recover from a crisis depends on how transparent and open the top managers are with stakeholders.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

85) The goal of GE Aviation o reduce manufacturing production costs by 20 percent over the next three years is a corporate-level goal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) The goal of GE Aviation o reduce manufacturing production costs by 20 percent over the next three years is a is a functional-level goal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) A mission statement is a broad declaration of the organization and/or a statement of its dreams for the future. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) A mission statement is a broad declaration of an organization's overriding purpose intended to identify its products and customers and distinguish itself from other similar organizations. ⊚ ⊚

89)

true false

Good goal formulation means making goals which are SMART + C. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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90) The following is an example of a vision statement: "a computer on every desk, in every home, and in every office." ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) A goal is a broad declaration of the organization's purpose and/or a statement of its dreams for the future. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) The first step of the planning process is the determination of the organization's vision, mission, and goals. ⊚ ⊚

93)

true false

The organization's vision is generally set by the CEO. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) In the second step of the planning process, managers decide how to allocate the resources required to implement the strategies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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95) In the second step of the planning process, managers analyze the organization's current strengths and weaknesses to formulate strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Two techniques managers can use to analyze the organizational environment for threats and opportunities are SWOT and Porter's Four Forces model. ⊚ ⊚

97)

A SWOT analysis stands for systems, weaknesses, opportunities, and technologies. ⊚ ⊚

98)

true false

true false

The letter "O" in the SWOT acronym stands for "obligation." ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) A SWOT analysis begins with an examination of the internal dynamics of the organization. ⊚ ⊚

100)

true false

Michael Porter identified four factors that are major threats in the external environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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101) Michael Porter's Five Forces model is a well-known model that helps managers isolate forces in the external environment that are potential threats. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Corporate strategies include concentrating on a single business, diversification, international expansion, and vertical integration. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) Retrenching and concentrating on a single industry is an example of a corporate-level strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) A business-level strategy is called differentiation when a firm sets itself apart from the competition by adopting superior quality. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) "To be number one in market share." - This statement is an example of a business-level strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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106) Attaining superior quality products and services is a way of gaining a competitive advantage in a particular market or industry. ⊚ ⊚

107)

true false

A cost-leadership strategy is a business-level strategy that serves many market segments. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) Private label brands like President's Choice and No Name brands exemplify a differentiation strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) A differentiation strategy is one in which the managers try to distinguish the organization's product from the products of competitors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) Differentiation tends to increase the costs of products which can be recouped by charging higher prices. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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111) According to Porter, managers must choose between two basic ways of increasing the value of an organization's products: higher quality or lower costs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) XYZ Corp, a hypothetical retailer of consumer goods pursues a focused differentiation strategy in that it focuses on large retail chains and strives to be the lowest-cost company serving that segment of the market. ⊚ ⊚

113)

Luxury car producers follow a focused-differentiation strategy. ⊚ ⊚

114)

true false

Departments such as sales and marketing formulate business-level strategies. ⊚ ⊚

115)

true false

true false

Functional-level strategies add value to the company or lower the costs of creating value. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) An example of adding value in the research and development department of an organization is to improve existing products.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

117) A functional-level strategy to accomplish the goal of reducing costs in the production department, might be to invest in state-of-the-art European facilities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

118) Evaluating the success of the strategy involves monitoring progress, evaluating performance, and taking corrective action to make sure that the mission and goals are being achieved. ⊚ ⊚

119)

true false

Strategy implementation involves three steps. ⊚ ⊚

true false

120) Implementation of strategy involves establishing a timetable that includes when goals are scheduled to be completed, such as a Gantt chart. ⊚ ⊚

true false

121) Implementing a strategy may require redesigning the structure, changing the culture, and developing new control systems in the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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122) Thebalancedscorecard(BSC) is a way for managers to track and measure progress toward goals from a number of perspectives, including financial metrics, customer perspective and internal operations perspectives. ⊚ ⊚

123)

true false

More available substitutes tend to drive prices and profits lower. ⊚ ⊚

true false

124) As economies emerge from the COVID-19 pandemic, companies that are successful have innovated their business models and strategies in one of two concrete ways. ⊚ ⊚

true false

125) Changing the way the sales managers' performances were evaluated helped a beverage company cut costs and become profitable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_7ce_Jones 1) E 2) C 3) A 4) C 5) E 6) E 7) D 8) B 9) E 10) C 11) C 12) E 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) A 17) E 18) B 19) E 20) C 21) C 22) C 23) A 24) A 25) B 26) A Version 1

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27) A 28) D 29) A 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) C 38) B 39) B 40) D 41) B 42) A 43) B 44) B 45) C 46) E 47) B 48) D 49) D 50) E 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) FALSE Version 1

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73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) FALSE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE Version 1

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103) TRUE 104) TRUE 105) FALSE 106) TRUE 107) TRUE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) TRUE 111) TRUE 112) FALSE 113) TRUE 114) FALSE 115) TRUE 116) TRUE 117) TRUE 118) TRUE 119) FALSE 120) TRUE 121) TRUE 122) TRUE 123) TRUE 124) TRUE 125) TRUE

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CHAPTER 5 1)

Which of the following characterizes the outcome of job design?

A) Job simplification B) Job enlargement C) A division of labour among employees D) Job enrichment E) Job reduction

2)

A formal structure is more appropriate when the technology used is: A) cutting edge B) routine C) complicated D) developed E) uncertain

3) ________ is the process by which managers establish the structure of working relationships among employees to allow them to achieve organizational goals efficiently and effectively.

A) Planning B) Leading C) Controlling D) Motivating E) Organizing

4) An organizational structure composed of all the departments that an organization requires to produce its goods or services is known as a:

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A) product structure B) geographic structure C) divisional structure D) functional structure E) market structure

5) In an organization, departments are created according to the jobs performed with in them.

This best represents which type of organizational structure?

A) Product structure B) Geographic structure C) Divisional structure D) Functional structure E) Market structure

6) Managers tend to move to what type of structure to overcome the problems of a functional structure?

A) Product structure B) Geographic structure C) Divisional structure D) Network structure E) Market structure

7) An organizational structure composed of separate business units within which are the functions that together produce a specific product for a specific customer is known as a:

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A) Matrix structure B) Geographic structure C) Divisional structure D) Functional structure E) Team structure

8) An organizational structure in which each region of a country or area of the world is served by a self-contained division is known as a: A) Product structure B) Geographic structure C) Divisional structure D) Functional structure E) Market structure

9)

Which of the following is considered a disadvantage of excessive decentralization?

A) It leads to slow and distorted communication B) Managers no longer make decisions C) Divisions and functions may begin to pursue their own goals at the expense of organizational goals D) Employees are better able to recognize and respond to customer needs E) It leads to groupthink.

10) A differentiation strategy that focuses on increasing the value that customers perceive in an organization's goods and services succeeds best in which type of structure?

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A) Formal B) Hierarchical C) Flexible D) Stable E) Mechanistic

11) Highly skilled human resources are better suited to work in _______________ organizational structures.

A) formal B) hierarchical C) flexible D) stable E) mechanistic

12)

The criteria on which to answer design questions include:

A) The most efficient way to make the product or service B) Matching the firm's organizational environment, HR, technology, and strategy with its size and resources C) Following the principle of the minimum chain of command D) The degree of change in the organizational environment E) All of these criteria impact questions of designing an organizational structure.

13)

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing using a product structure?

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A) Allows functional managers to become familiar with a wide variety of products B) Helps managers choose business level strategies to differentiate their products C) Frees up corporate managers from the need to supervise the daily activities of the division D) Allows corporate managers to choose corporate level strategies E) Increases customer responsiveness by divisional managers

14) As an organization grows and changes its strategy, all of the following can occur with a functional structure,except: A) Communication between managers of different departments becomes difficult B) Efficiency is enhanced C) Functional managers can lose sight of organizational goals D) Functional managers become less effective because they perceive problems only from the narrow perspective of their department E) Coordination becomes difficult when managers are responsible for several different products

15) If the external environment of an organization is stable and if uncertainly is ________, then ________ coordination among workers is needed to obtain resources, and managers can bring ________ formality to the design of the organizational structure.

A) low; more; more B) low; less; more C) high; less; more D) high; less; less E) high; maximum; enhanced

16) In order to create an organizational structure, managers must make a decision about all of the following,except:

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A) How to group tasks into jobs B) How to group jobs into functions and divisions C) How to coordinate jobs, functions, and divisions by allocating authority D) How to appraise employee performance E) Whether to pursue a formal or flexible structure

17)

All of the following accurately describe matrix structures,except?

A) It is useful when technology is rapidly changing B) It is useful when customer needs are rapidly changing C) It is useful in environments of uncertainty D) It is useful in environments of certainty E) It is useful because it is flexible

18) The initial process by which managers decide how to divide tasks into specific jobs is known as: A) job simplification B) job enlargement C) job design D) job enrichment E) job reduction

19) When McDonald's Corporation made a basic decision as to how to divide the tasks of the jobs of "chefs" and "food servers" in its restaurants, this was an example of:

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A) job simplification B) job enlargement C) job design D) job enrichment E) job reduction

20) When Subway Corporation made the initial, basic decision that it would group the jobs of "chef" and "food server" into a single job description, this was an example of: A) job simplification B) job enlargement C) job design D) job enrichment E) job reduction

21)

Reducing the number of tasks that each worker performs is known as: A) job simplification B) job enlargement C) job design D) job enrichment E) job reduction

22) Increasing the number of different tasks in each job by changing the division of labour is known as:

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A) job simplification B) job enlargement C) job design D) job enrichment E) job reduction

23) A formal agreement that commits two or more companies to exchange or share their resources in order to produce and market a product is known as a: A) B2B network structure B) boundaryless organization C) joint venture D) strategic alliance E) permanent venture

24) According to the text, Nike formed a ________ with suppliers of designs and manufacturers.

A) B2B network structure B) boundaryless organization C) joint venture D) strategic alliance E) permanent venture

25) A series of strategic alliances that an organization creates with suppliers, manufacturers, and distributors to produce and market a product is known as a:

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A) B2B network structure B) boundaryless organization C) joint venture D) strategic alliance E) permanent venture

26) An organizational structure where the owner is the general manager responsible for the activities in all the functions is known as: A) departmentalization B) functional structure C) matrix structure D) network structure E) simple structure

27) The process by which managers make specific organizing choices that result in a particular kind of organizational structure is known as: A) organizational architecture B) organizational design C) organizational structure D) span of control E) organizational analyzability

28) A formal system of task and reporting relationships that coordinates and motivates organizational members so that they work to achieve organizational goals is known as:

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A) organizational architecture B) organizational design C) organizational structure D) the span of control E) organizational levelling

29) All of the following describe potential problems associated with decentralizing decisionmaking authority,except: A) Divisions, functions, or teams may lose sight of organizational goals B) Lack of communication among functional managers might occur C) Possible synergies might be missed D) Organizational performance might suffer E) Greater flexibility results

30) An organizational structure in which employees are permanently assigned to a team and report only to the product manager or to one of his or her subordinates is known as a: A) cross-functional team B) homogenous structure C) product team structure D) market team structure E) B2B network structures

31) A group of individuals from different departments brought together to perform organizational tasks is known as a:

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A) cross-functional team B) homogenous structure C) product/project team structure D) market team structure E) B2B network structures

32) A group of organizations that join together and use AI and IT to link their supply and distribution chains is known as: A) cross-functional team B) homogenous structure C) product/project team structure D) market team structure E) B2B network structures

33)

All of the following are characteristics of the job characteristics modelexcept: A) skill variety B) task identity C) task variety D) task significance E) autonomy

34) A carpenter who transforms a piece of wood into a custom-made desk has higher ____________ than does a worker who performs only one of the numerous operations required to assemble a flat-screen TV.

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A) skill variety B) task identity C) task variety D) task significance E) autonomy

35) A teacher who sees the effect of his or her efforts in a well-educated and well-adjusted student enjoys high ____________ compared to a dishwasher who monotonously washes dishes as they come to the kitchen.

A) skill variety B) task identity C) task variety D) task significance E) autonomy

36)

Which of the following is true of mechanistic organizational structures?

A) They have decentralized authority B) They have high cross-departmental cooperation C) They have horizontal communication flows D) They are appropriate in stable environments E) They are appropriate in dynamic environments

37)

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an organic organizational structure?

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A) They have decentralized authority B) They have high cross-departmental cooperation C) They have horizontal communication flows D) They are appropriate in stable environments E) They are appropriate in dynamic environments

38)

Which of the following is true of an organic organizational structure?

A) They have centralized authority B) They are appropriate in dynamic environments C) They have vertical communication flows D) They have strict rules and procedures E) They are hierarchical

39)

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a mechanistic organizational structure?

A) They have centralized authority B) They are appropriate in dynamic environments C) They have vertical communication flows D) They have strict rules and procedures E) They are hierarchical

40) Which of the following structures is described as one where authority is centralized at the top of the managerial hierarchy, and the vertical hierarchy of authority is the main means used to control subordinates' behaviour?

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A) Organic structure B) Matrix structure C) Sustainable structure D) Mechanistic structure E) Integrating structure

41)

Which of the following organizations is most likely to use a mechanistic structure?

A) Google B) Apple C) McDonalds D) The University of Toronto E) The Royal Ontario Museum

42) Which of the following characteristics does not determine how employees react to their work and lead to outcomes such as high performance and satisfaction and low absenteeism and turnover.

A) Task significance B) Skill variety C) Autonomy D) Task scrutiny E) Feedback

43) Which of the following role has the responsibility to increase coordination and integration across departments or divisions to achieve performance gains?

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A) Liaison role B) Leadership role C) Top management role D) Integrating role E) Coordinator role

44)

Integrating roles are most important in which of the following situations?

A) Organizations that following the simple structure of organizational architecture B) The fewer the members in the channel of distribution C) The more complex an organization and the greater the number of its divisions D) When transmitting information across organizational departments E) When splitting resources among departments

45) Which of the following role has the responsibility for coordinating with other functional departments or divisions?

A) Liaison role B) Leadership role C) Top management role D) Integrating role E) Coordinator role

46) Boundaryless organizations are also called _______ because members rarely see one another face-to-face.

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A) network organizations B) learning organizations C) virtual organizations D) organic organizations E) mechanistic organizations

47) When coordinating functions and divisions, managers must decide all of the following,except: A) How to enlarge the jobs of first line managers B) How to determine the optimal span of control C) Whether the organization should be tall or flat D) What the minimum chain of command should be E) To what degree authority should be decentralized

48) Which of the following structures are small and medium sized enterprises (SMEs) using to gain a competitive advantage in the post pandemic economy?

A) Matrix, Functional and B2B network structures B) Market, B2B network and Team-based structures C) Divisional, Matrix and Decentralized structures D) Market, Functional and Simple structures E) Mechanistic and Organic structures

49) As companies moved into the post pandemic era, many adopted this type of organizational structure:

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A) Multi-functional teams.

B) Matrix B2B teams.

C) Remote teams working from home or working from anywhere.

D) Hybrid teams—where some members work from home and others work at an office.

E) Automated team structures.

50)

Explain the decisions that managers make when grouping tasks into jobs.

51) List the five core characteristics found in every job to varying degrees, according to Hackman and Oldham.

52) Compare job simplification to job enlargement. Under what conditions would it be inappropriate to add tasks to an employee's job?

53) Describe the purpose of job enrichment and give three examples of how this may be accomplished.

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54) Four factors are important determinants of whether a formal or flexible overall organizational structure is appropriate. Analyze any two of these factors.

55) Describe two important changes in organizational architecture that have swept across North America as a result of increased globalization and the use of IT in today's organizations.

What are the advantages to these structures?

56)

Characterize a boundaryless organization.

57)

Analyze the advantages and disadvantages of a functional organizational structure.

58) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of creating "divisions" that focus their efforts on the production and marketing of specific product lines.

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59)

Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of a matrix structure of organizational design.

60) Analyze the advantages and disadvantages of "decentralization" in terms of organizational design.

61) Strategic alliances and B2B network structures are two recent innovations in organizational design. What advantages do they bring to the organization? Describe how changes in information technology have impacted their growing popularity.

62) What types of organizational structures are available to managers to make the best use of organizational resources?

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63)

Identify the elements managers have to consider in designing organizational structures.

64) Determine what post pandemic structure is appropriate for a company to adopt when customers are (1) profit drains, (2) profit peaks, and (3) profit deserts.

65)

Organizing is the process of establishing the structure of the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) Organizational design is the process by which managers make specific choices about job design, grouping jobs together and creating lines of authority that result in the construction of a particular organizational structure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Organizational structure is the formal system of task and reporting relationships that determines how resources are used to reach organizational goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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68) The process by which managers make specific organizing choices that result in a specific kind of organizational structure is known as organizational architecture. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) The second step in the process of organizational design is to decide how to divide tasks into specific jobs. ⊚ ⊚

70)

The most fundamental step in organizational design is job design. ⊚ ⊚

71)

true false

The result of the job design process is a division of labour among employees. ⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

true false

Job simplification involves adding responsibilities and tasks to existing jobs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) Because Starbucks offers a much broader variety of specialty coffees, lattes, and teas, each which is customized to satisfy every unique customer, it can be said that an employee at Starbucks has a "larger" job than someone serving coffee at Tim Hortons.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

74) Increasing the degree of responsibility a worker has over his or her job is known as job enlargement. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Job enrichment empowers employees by increasing their responsibilities and giving them more control over decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) According to the job characteristics model by Hackman and Oldham, every job has three core characteristics that affect employee motivation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) The job characteristics model suggests that the strength of the employees' need for growth, or growth need strength, affects their psychological states and levels of motivation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) The extent to which actually doing a job provides a worker with clear and direct information about how well he or she has performed the job is known as autonomy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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79) After designing jobs, managers must decide how to group jobs together to best match the needs of the organization's environment, strategy, technology, and human resources. ⊚ ⊚

80)

Most entrepreneurial start-ups adopt a functional structure. ⊚ ⊚

81)

true false

true false

Apparel company, Gildan Activeware, uses a functional structure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) A divisional structure is an organizational structure composed of all the departments that an organization requires to produce its goods or services. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) An advantage for managers in grouping similar jobs together into departments is that organizational goals take second place to departmental goals. ⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

There are four forms of divisional structures-product, market, geographic, and national.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Product structures are self-contained separate divisions organized based on one type of good or service. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) When managers organize divisions according to the region in which they serve, this is known as market structure. ⊚ ⊚

87)

true false

Federal Express uses a geographic structure to serve its customers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) A market structure allows managers to be both responsive to the needs of their customers and able to act flexibly to make decisions in response to customers' changing needs. ⊚ ⊚

89)

true false

A market segment division structure is also called a matrix structure ⊚ ⊚

true false

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90) To satisfy the needs of diverse customers, TELUS uses a market segment division structure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) A product structure allows functional managers to specialize in only one product area, so they can build expertise and fine-tune their skills in this particular area. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) A product structure requires that corporate managers supervise each division's day-to-day operations directly; this prevents corporate managers from creating the best corporate-level strategy possible. ⊚ ⊚

93)

true false

In a matrix structure, managers group people and resources by function and by product. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Matrix and product team structures provide managers with more flexibility than divisional structures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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95)

Dual reporting relationships are the main advantage of the matrix structure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) A cross-functional team is a group of individuals brought together from different departments to perform organizational tasks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) A strategic alliance is an agreement among two or more companies to jointly establish and share the ownership of a new business. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) A network structure is a series of strategic alliances that an organization creates with suppliers, manufacturers, and/or distributors. ⊚ ⊚

99)

true false

A boundaryless organization is also referred to as a virtual organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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100) Business-to-business (B2B) networks arose because of organizations pushing for lower costs. ⊚ ⊚

101)

true false

Managers coordinate functions and divisions by creating a hierarchy of authority. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) The number of subordinates who report directly to a manager is known as span of control. ⊚ ⊚

103)

true false

A flat organization has only seven levels in the authority hierarchy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) The minimum chain of command principle states that top managers should always construct a hierarchy with the fewest possible levels of authority. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) Decentralizing authority allows an organization and its employees to behave flexibly even as the organization grows and becomes taller.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Decentralized authority is always the best way to achieve organizational goals effectively and efficiently. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) The more complex the organizational structure a company uses to group its activities is, the greater the problems of linking and coordinating its different functions and divisions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) A liaison role is a manager that has the responsibility to increase coordination and integration across departments or divisions to achieve performance gains. ⊚ ⊚

109)

true false

Authority is centralized in a mechanistic structure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) Mechanistic structures allow managers to utilize resources effectively and efficiently in a stable environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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111) Organic structures allow managers to utilize resources effectively and efficiently in a stable environment. ⊚ ⊚

112)

true false

Four factors determine the appropriate design of an organizational structure overall. ⊚ ⊚

true false

113) The nature of an organization's technology is an important determinant of its overall structure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) The nature of an organization's environment is an important determinant of its overall structure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) The nature of an organization's human resources is an important determinant of its overall structure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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116) Differences in viewpoint may make manufacturing and product development managers reluctant to cooperate and coordinate their activities to meet company goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

117) Small and mid-sized enterprises (SMEs) are combining aspects of market segment divisional structures and B2B network structures with decentralized team structures to gain a competitive advantage in the post-pandemic economy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

118) By changing the typical top-down functional structure to an agile, multi-skilled team structure that provides integrated customer services, SMEs can increase profitability and compete in the post pandemic economy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

119) Hybrid teams—where some members work from home and others work at an office— were adopted as companies moved into the post-pandemic era. ⊚ ⊚

true false

120) Researchers have argued that in some situations stable, mechanistic structures may be most appropriate, while in others flexible, organic structures might be the most effective. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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121) The nature of the organizational environment, the type of strategy the organization pursues, the technology (and particularly information technology) the organization uses, and the characteristics of the organization's human resources. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_7ce_Jones 1) C 2) B 3) E 4) D 5) D 6) C 7) C 8) B 9) C 10) C 11) C 12) E 13) A 14) B 15) B 16) D 17) D 18) C 19) C 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) A 25) A 26) E Version 1

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27) B 28) C 29) E 30) C 31) A 32) E 33) C 34) B 35) D 36) D 37) D 38) B 39) B 40) D 41) C 42) E 43) D 44) C 45) A 46) C 47) A 48) B 49) D 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE Version 1

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72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE Version 1

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102) TRUE 103) FALSE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) FALSE 107) TRUE 108) FALSE 109) TRUE 110) TRUE 111) FALSE 112) TRUE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE 115) TRUE 116) TRUE 117) TRUE 118) TRUE 119) TRUE 120) TRUE 121) TRUE

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CHAPTER 6 1)

All of the following are considered important elements of a social media strategy,except: A) Spend time identifying the target audience B) Be spontaneous in the message C) Choose the correct Internet sites D) Provide engaging material, not just promotions E) Monitor and measure the effectiveness of social media sites

2) When a marketing manager who is in Calgary for a meeting calls his office in Toronto and retrieves his phone messages by himself so that he can respond to them while he is out of the office, this is an example of using what type of medium?

A) Video conferencing B) E-mail C) A fax D) A memo E) Voice mail

3) A manager who is a member of a self-managed team calls his office in Vancouver when he is at a conference in Halifax to retrieve his phone messages by himself without going through his secretary so that he can respond to messages from the other members of his team while he is out of the office. What communication medium is this manager using?

A) A fax B) Voice mail C) A memo D) A face-to-face meeting E) A blog

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4)

Communication skills for receivers include all of the following,except: A) Paying attention B) Selecting an appropriate medium for the message C) Being a good listener D) Being empathetic E) Staying focused

5) Which of the following communication networks has the manager at the centre, playing the role of liaison and responsible for integrating other work groups by controlling the information communicated from the central source?

A) The Wheel B) The Circle C) The All-Channel D) The Chain E) The "Y"

6) Which of the following communication networks is generally used among work groups and teams who may collaborate using file sharing and reply-all email?

A) The Wheel B) The Circle C) The All-Channel D) The Chain E) The "Y"

7) Which of the following communication networks allows information to flow freely among and between members of a department or work unit?

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A) The Wheel B) The Circle C) The All-Channel D) The Chain E) The "Y"

8) Which of the following communication networks branches out from a chain network to reach others?

A) The Wheel B) The Circle C) The All-Channel D) The Chain E) The "Y"

9)

Which of the following describes communication based on a gossip or cluster network?

A) The Mill B) The Grapevine C) The Roadhouse D) The Stalls E) The Fermenter

10) Which of the following communication networks symbolizes either formal horizontal or lateral communication among people at the same level of the organization or formal top-down or bottom-up vertical networks?

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A) The Wheel B) The Circle C) The All-Channel D) The Chain E) The "Y"

11) Which of the following terms describes when senders withhold part of a message because they (mistakenly) think that the receiver does not need the information or will not want to receive it?

A) Deception B) Collateral C) Rendering D) Filtering E) Distorting

12) When the driver of a large transport communicates with his co-worker, also driving a transport that is lagging him in traffic, to advise him that there are several "roller skates" on the highway, he is using which form of communication?

A) Jargon B) Blogging C) Voiceover D) Slander E) Decoding

13)

The medium, which is highest in information richness is:

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A) E-mail B) Management by wandering around C) Blogging D) Video-conferencing E) Voice mail

14) The sharing of information between two or more people within the organization in order to reach a common understanding is known as: A) Noise B) Encoding C) Communication D) Decoding E) Jargon

15) Information technology has allowed managers to develop computer-based management information systems that provide all but which of the following types of information?

A) Timely B) Accurate C) Complete D) Relevant E) High quality

16)

Which of the following are attributes of useful information?

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A) Competence, relevance, quantity and quality B) Completeness, reference, quality and quantity C) Competence, reference, quality and timeliness D) Completeness, relevance, quantity and timeliness E) Completeness, relevance, quality, and timeliness

17)

A written record that a message was sent and was received is known as: A) Noise B) Encoding C) Decoding D) A paper trail E) Information richness

18)

Which communication style gets irritated with illogical thinking?

A) Functional communicator B) Intuitive communicator C) Directive communicator D) Personal communicator E) Analytical communicator

19)

Which communication style is impatient and short tempered?

A) Functional communicator B) Intuitive communicator C) Directive communicator D) Personal communicator E) Analytical communicator

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20)

Which communication style has a high level of emotional intelligence?

A) Functional communicator B) Intuitive communicator C) Directive communicator D) Personal communicator E) Analytical communicator

21)

Which communication style may jump to the end game quickly?

A) Functional communicator B) Intuitive communicator C) Directive communicator D) Personal communicator E) Analytical communicator

22) In this stage of the communication process a common understanding is reached between the participants: A) Sender B) Filtering C) Encoding D) Feedback E) Transmission

23)

A "company newsletter" is an example of which type of communication?

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A) Face-to-face meeting B) Impersonal written communication C) Fax D) Voice mail E) A memo

24) In the communication process, when the receiver attempts to interpret the message, this is known as: A) Encoding B) Noise C) Feedback D) Decoding E) Sending

25)

Information is shared between two or more people in the ________ phase.

A) transmission B) encoding C) filtering D) sender E) medium

26)

Which of the following is an important element of a social media strategy?

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A) Pushing membership B) Infrequent updates C) Getting onto Facebook D) Offering awesome promotions E) Crafting a well thought-out message

27) The sharing of information through facial expressions, styles of dress, and body language is known as: A) Verbal communication B) Nonverbal communication C) Information richness D) Noise E) Subliminal referencing

28)

Communication media vary along which of the following dimensions?

A) Information richness, perception, and the need for a paper trail B) Information richness, time, and the need for a paper trail C) Information richness, time, and perception D) Time, intensity, and comprehension E) Noise, verbal, and subliminal meaning

29)

Which of the following is an important element of a social media strategy?

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A) Identifying the target audience B) Pushing membership C) Infrequent updates D) Getting onto Facebook E) Offering awesome promotions

30)

Perception is a process that involves all of the following,except: A) Selecting sensory input B) Organizing sensory input C) Interpreting sensory input D) Giving meaning to the world E) Stereotyping sensory input

31)

Stereotyping: A) Is based on accurate information B) Is treating an individual without bias C) Is treating an individual without prejudice D) Can interfere with encoding and decoding messages E) Does not apply to employee behaviours

32)

Email overload has the following characteristics,except: A) Being unable to keep up with all the emails and texts that arrive B) Mailboxes clogged with junk mail C) Listening to other people's voice mail or reading their email may occur D) As a result of e-overload, important information may be overlooked E) Increased efficiency with automatic response time

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33)

Artificial intelligence refers to:

A) Computer systems learning from patterns discerned in large amounts of data B) Computer systems with the ability to reason, discover meaning, generalize, or learn from past experience C) Computer systems endowed with the intellectual processes characteristic of humans D) Is behaviour by a machine that, if performed by a human being, would be called "intelligent."

E) All of these choices are correct

34)

The following form of communication is lowest in information richness: A) Face-to-face communication B) Video conference C) Management by wandering around D) Grapevine E) Impersonal written communication

35) In the communication process, the pathway through which an encoded message is sent is known as the: A) Noise B) Sender C) Medium D) Receiver E) Encoding

36) In the transmission phase of the communication process, the information that a sender wants to send is known as the: Version 1

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A) Encoding B) Sender C) Message D) Receiver E) Noise

37)

Which of the following is an example of nonverbal communication?

A) Posture B) Style of dress C) Nods D) Raising an eyebrow E) All of these choices exemplify nonverbal communication

38) In the transmission phase of communication, the person or group who wishes to share information with someone else is known as the: A) Encoder B) Message C) Noise D) Receiver E) Sender

39) In the transmission phase of the communication process, the translation of the message into understandable symbols or language is known as:

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A) Receiving B) Encoding C) Noising D) Sending E) Decoding

40) the:

In the communication process, the person for whom the message is intended, is known as

A) Sender B) Encoder C) Noise D) Medium E) Receiver

41)

All of the following are characteristics of useful information except: A) Relevance B) Timeliness C) Quality D) Accuracy E) Completeness

42) In the transmission phase of the communication process, anything that hampers any stage of the communication process is known as:

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A) Cloning B) Coding C) Grease D) Noise E) Clouds

43) In the feedback phase of the communication process, the __________ becomes the sender and __________ the message and then transmits it through a chosen __________.

A) sender; encodes; medium B) sender; decodes; outlet C) receiver; encodes; medium D) receiver; decodes; outlet E) receiver, transcribes, outlet

44)

Good communication can lead to all of the following,except: A) Increases in efficiency B) Improvements in quality C) Responsiveness to customers D) Strained interpersonal relations E) Innovation

45)

Communication skills for receivers include:

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A) Selecting a medium that the receiver monitors B) Paying attention C) Selecting an appropriate medium for the message D) Send messages that are clear and complete E) Ensure misleading rumours are not spread

46) In the feedback phase of the communication process, the __________ becomes the __________ and __________ the message.

A) sender; sender; encodes B) receiver; sender; encodes C) sender; receiver; encodes D) receiver; receiver; decodes E) sender, sender, decodes

47)

When communicating with an Analytical Communicator, one should: A) Speak at a fast pace B) Speak at a moderate pace with a softer voice and moderate tone C) Don't speak in a loud or fast-paced voice D) Speak in an energetic and fast-paced manner E) Listen and don't speak

48) The amount of information that a communication medium can carry and the extent to which the medium enables the sender and receiver to reach a common understanding is known as:

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A) noise B) information richness C) the medium D) decoding E) encoding

49)

In choosing a communication medium, managers should consider: A) The perception of the receiver B) The personality of the receiver C) The mood of the sender D) The skills and abilities of the sender E) The need for a paper trail

50)

In choosing a communication medium, managers should consider: A) The level of information richness that is needed B) The personality of the receiver C) The mood of the sender D) The skills and abilities of the sender E) The perception of the receiver

51) When a manager places a formal letter of reprimand into a subordinate's personnel file commenting on the subordinate's unexcused absences from work in case the subordinate decides to sue the organization for defamation of character, the manager is acting according to this management principle:

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A) The need for noise B) The need for high information richness C) The need for jargon D) The need for a paper trail E) The need for groupthink

52) When a sales manager follows up a complaint from a key customer with a letter to that customer describing the nature of the complaint and what the organization plans to do to resolve the situation and to prevent its future occurrence, this sales manager is acting according to this principle of management: A) The need for noise B) The need for high information richness C) The need for jargon D) The need for a paper trail E) The need for groupthink

53)

In choosing a communication medium, managers should consider: A) The perception of the receiver B) The personality of the receiver C) The skills and abilities of the sender D) The time needed for communication E) The mood of the sender

54)

Communication skills for senders include:

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A) Being empathetic B) Being a good listener C) Using jargon with people from outside the organization and industry D) Paying attention E) Ensuring a feedback mechanism is built into messages

55) Which of the following is a face-to-face communication technique that is effective for many managers at all levels in an organization?

A) Groveling B) MBWA C) Jargon D) The grapevine E) The circle network

56)

The encoding of messages into words either written or spoken is known as: A) Nonverbal communication B) Noise C) Verbal communication D) Information richness E) Jargon

57)

To make effective decisions, managers need information:

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A) From both internal and external sources B) Only from internal sources C) Only from external sources D) Only from the government E) Only from the manufacturing department

58)

Analytics is the process of examining data to:

A) Check its validity, timeliness and quality B) Check its quality, reliability and relevance C) Check its relevance, timeliness and completeness D) Uncover hidden patterns, unknown correlations, market trends and customer preferences E) Uncover relevance, timeliness and completeness

59)

AI systems that are trained on images found online, result in all of the following except: A) Stereotypical concepts of gender that limit roles for women B) Skewed and bias results that reinforce racialized stereotypes C) Highly accurate identification of the gender of white men D) Accurate identification of the gender of Black women E) Bias with respect to race and gender

60)

Managers use information to do all the following except:

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A) Coordinate the activities of departments and divisions B) Communicate with virtual teams C) Recall basic concepts D) Ensure that organizational goals are achieved E) Ensure employees are engaged

61)

A social media influencer is a: A) Person with good taste B) Person with a social media account that has millions of followers C) Person who communicates effectively D) Person who hosts a podcast E) Person who is artificially intelligent

62) With advanced technology comes the need for ________ to keep all of this information safe and protected against unauthorized use.

A) Big data B) PIPEDA C) Analytics D) Cybersecurity E) All of these choices are correct

63)

Define and discuss verbal & nonverbal communication. Give examples of each.

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64) Communication can have positive or negative effects on the organization. Discuss the dangers to the organization of ineffective communication.

65)

Define and discuss the role of perception in communication.

66) Define information richness and describe the information richness of communication media available to managers. Is there one media that is better than the others for managers?

67) Discuss how to most effectively communicate with one of the four communication styles of your choosing. Which communication style do you think is better for managers?

68) Diagnose the main mistakes that social media managers make and how a good strategy can overcome them.

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69) Discuss the advancements in AI and information technology. How has this impacted the managers' job?

70) Describe each of the five communication networks available to managers. What advantages does using the grapevine have for managers?

71) Discuss the skills senders and receivers of messages can use to make communication effective. Which one is the most important and why?

72)

Argue why managers should embrace a social media strategy.

73)

Evaluate the danger to managers of the rise in cyber-attacks.

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74)

Perception plays a central role in communication and affects only the transmission phase. ⊚ ⊚

75)

true false

Good interpersonal communication can make a workplace gain a competitive advantage. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) The sharing of information between two or more individuals or groups to reach a common understanding is known as communication. ⊚ ⊚

77)

The communication process consists of four phases. ⊚ ⊚

78)

true false

true false

The sender is the person wishing to share information with some other person. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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79)

In the transmission phase, a common understanding is reached. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) When information is shared between two or more people, it is known as the transmission phase of the communication process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) The person wishing to share information with some other person in the transmission phase of communication is known as the receiver. ⊚ ⊚

82)

Anything that hampers any stage of the communication process is known as noise. ⊚ ⊚

83)

true false

The encoding of messages into words is known as nonverbal communication. ⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

true false

Messages can only be encoded by written or spoken language. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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85) Managers tend to have less control over nonverbal communication than they do over verbal communication. ⊚ ⊚

86)

true false

Perception is influenced by people's values, experience, and personalities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Stereotypes are simplified and often inaccurate beliefs about the characteristics of particular groups of people but do not interfere with encoding and decoding messages. ⊚ ⊚

88)

true false

Nonverbal gestures are culturally constructed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) Most managers have greater control over nonverbal communication than they do other forms of communication. ⊚ ⊚

90)

true false

The way you dress affect show others perceive you.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

91) To improve the communication process, managers should avoid filtering and information distortion. ⊚ ⊚

92)

To improve the communication process, senders should be empathetic. ⊚ ⊚

93)

true false

Active listeners should avoid interrupting the speaker. ⊚ ⊚

96)

true false

Receivers should pay attention. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

Receivers can improve the communication process by learning to be good listeners. ⊚ ⊚

94)

true false

true false

There are five dominant communication styles.

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⊚ ⊚

97)

The analytical communicator is somewhat reserved. ⊚ ⊚

98)

true false

The personal communicator gets irritated with illogical thinking. ⊚ ⊚

100)

true false

The functional communicator is impatient with step-by-step linear thinking. ⊚ ⊚

99)

true false

true false

The intuitive thinker has "big picture" thinking. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) The amount of information, which a communication medium can carry, is known as information richness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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102) When managers have something important and personal to communicate, they should not use the face-to-face method. ⊚ ⊚

103)

true false

Impersonal written communication is the lowest in information richness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) Information overload increases the likelihood that important information is ignored or overlooked. ⊚ ⊚

105)

Electronic communication should replace face-to-face communication. ⊚ ⊚

106)

true false

true false

When giving negative feedback, focus on things that the individual can change. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) Information richness is lost if electronic communication is not followed up with face-toface communication. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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108)

Alone, data do not tell managers anything. ⊚ ⊚

109)

true false

A graph showing changes in sales volume or costs over time is data. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) Management by wandering around (MBWA) is a face-to-face communication technique that is effective for many managers at all levels in a brick-and- mortar organization. ⊚ ⊚

111)

true false

There are four attributes of useful information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) Technology gives managers access to high-quality real-time information that they can use to improve long-term decision making and alter short-term operating decisions, such as how much of a particular product to make daily or monthly. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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113) The high demand for mobile devices reflects the need for real-time information in order to make optimal decisions. ⊚ ⊚

114)

true false

One function of technology is to increase the completeness of managers' information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) Relevant information is useless and may actually hurt the performance of a busy manager who has to spend valuable time determining whether information is irrelevant. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) Communication networks are established channels by which communication flows throughout the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

117) The circle network has a manager at the centre who plays the role of liaison and is responsible for integrating other work groups by controlling the information communicated from the central source. ⊚ ⊚

true false

118) The "Y" network symbolizes either formal horizontal or lateral communication among people at the same level of the organization or formal top-down or bottom-up vertical networks.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

119) Software programs variously known as bots, softbots, or knowbots can be used to perform simple managerial tasks such as sorting through reams of data or incoming email messages to look for important ones. ⊚ ⊚

true false

120) The degree to which a human should intervene in routine tasks that can easily be done by AI systems depends on the ethical implications of the behaviour. ⊚ ⊚

true false

121) One function of a social media strategy is that it provides the opportunity to learn from instant feedback and gather statistics and data on the users. ⊚ ⊚

122)

true false

A social media strategy should communicate the brand or identity of the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

123) The effectiveness of a social media strategy comes from constantly pushing products or promotions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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124) A common error made by social media managers is not recognizing the subtle differences between social media outlets. ⊚ ⊚

true false

125) The social media network does not have to match the values of your organization and your customers-any outlet will do. ⊚ ⊚

true false

126) Businesses that do not implement AI and new technology may lose their competitive advantage. ⊚ ⊚

true false

127) To make effective decisions, managers need information both from inside the organization and from external stakeholders. ⊚ ⊚

true false

128) Analytics is the process of examining data to help managers make decisions that will advance the organization's business. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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129)

AI analytics have been found to present a completely false picture of reality. ⊚ ⊚

true false

130) Information is important for managers in coordinating activities to achieve organizational goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

131) Social media is an increasingly important tool for managers in reaching their stakeholders. ⊚ ⊚

132)

true false

To achieve control over any organizational activity, managers must have information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_7ce_Jones 1) B 2) E 3) B 4) B 5) A 6) B 7) C 8) E 9) B 10) D 11) D 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) B 16) E 17) D 18) A 19) E 20) D 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) D 25) A 26) E Version 1

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27) B 28) B 29) A 30) E 31) D 32) E 33) E 34) E 35) C 36) C 37) E 38) E 39) B 40) E 41) D 42) D 43) C 44) D 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) E 50) A 51) D 52) D 53) D 54) E 55) B 56) C Version 1

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57) A 58) D 59) D 60) C 61) B 62) D 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) TRUE Version 1

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98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) TRUE 105) FALSE 106) TRUE 107) TRUE 108) TRUE 109) FALSE 110) TRUE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE 115) FALSE 116) TRUE 117) FALSE 118) FALSE 119) TRUE 120) TRUE 121) TRUE 122) TRUE 123) FALSE 124) TRUE 125) FALSE 126) TRUE 127) TRUE Version 1

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128) TRUE 129) TRUE 130) TRUE 131) TRUE 132) TRUE

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CHAPTER 7 1) In a ________ performance appraisal, managers, peers, subordinates, customers, and even those who are being appraised themselves participate in the evaluation process.

A) pay level B) 90-degree C) 360-degree D) graphic-rating scale E) behavioural observation scale

2)

A graphic rating scale is: A) a behavioural method of employee appraisal B) an informal method of employee appraisal C) a 360-degree appraisal D) a subordinate appraisal E) also known as a peer feedback

3)

A workplace harassment policy should contain all but which of the following elements?

A) Examples of types of behaviour that are unacceptable B) Measures for a public trial of the prosecuted C) A procedure for employees to use to report instances of harassment D) A discussion of the disciplinary actions that will be taken when harassment has taken

place E) A commitment to educate and train organizational members about sexual harassment

4) When Ford Motor Co. tests applicants for assembly-line positions to determine their reading and mathematical skills to determine if they can do these types of jobs, what type of screening procedure is being used?

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A) Personality tests B) Ad hoc tests C) Ability tests D) Situational tests E) Unstructured tests

5) What type of interviewing question is being used when all of the job applicants for a sales position are asked: "What would you do when a customer complains that it takes too long to receive service?"

A) Personality B) Situational C) Ad hoc D) Unstructured E) Worker-requirements interview questions

6) In Gardenswartz and Rowe's four-layer model explaining the complexity of diversity which of the following is considered an organizational dimension affecting diversity?

A) Race B) Sexual orientation C) Personal habits D) Work location E) Relational status

7) In Gardenswartz and Rowe's four-layer model explaining the complexity of diversity which of the following is considered an external dimension affecting diversity?

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A) Race B) Sexual orientation C) Personal habits D) Work location E) Seniority

8) In Gardenswartz and Rowe's four-layer model explaining the complexity of diversity which of the following is considered an internal dimension affecting diversity?

A) Seniority B) Management status C) Income D) Appearance E) Gender Identity

9) In Gardenswartz and Rowe's four-layer model explaining the complexity of diversity which of the following is considered an external dimension affecting diversity?

A) Gender identity B) Relational status C) Seniority D) Physical ability E) Cognitive ability

10) Canada has become a truly diverse country, especially with respect to which of the following the dimensions?

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A) Age, sexual orientation, and race B) Age, race, and ethnicity C) Age, ethnicity, and sexual orientation D) Age, gender, and sexual orientation E) Age, ethnicity, and gender

11)

Quid pro quo sexual harassment occurs when a harasser:

A) asks or forces an employee to perform sexual favours to keep a job B) asks or forces an employee to perform sexual favours to receive a promotion C) asks or forces an employee to perform sexual favours to receive a raise D) asks or forces an employee to perform sexual favours to obtain a work-related opportunity E) all of these choices are correct

12)

Types of performance appraisals include all of the following,except: A) an RJP appraisal B) trait appraisals C) behaviour appraisals D) graphic rating scale method E) results appraisal

13) The objective of strategic HRM is the development of a system that enhances all of the following,except:

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A) efficiency B) quality C) conflict D) innovation E) responsiveness to customers

14)

All of the following exemplify hostile work environment sexual harassment,except: A) threats of dismissal by a harasser B) sexually oriented comments C) displays of pornography D) distribution of sexually oriented objects E) sexually oriented remarks about someone's physical appearance

15) Differences among people in age, gender, race, ethnicity, ability, and sexual orientation is known as: A) multi-culturalism B) immigration C) diversity D) millennials E) baby boomers

16) Diversity a pressing issue for managers and organizations for all of the following reasons,except:

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A) Effectively managing diversity can improve organizational effectiveness.

B) Embracing diversity encourages employee engagement.

C) Embracing diversity encourages differences of opinions or ideas that are beneficial to the organization.

D) There is a strong ethical imperative in many societies to see that all people receive equal opportunities and are treated fairly and justly.

E) Employees are less productive in diverse, global organizations making it critical to reduce the level of diversity in global corporations.

17)

Which of the following are considered mandatory benefits in Canada?

A) Employment insurance, dental benefits, and medical benefits B) Home insurance social insurance, and life insurance C) Employment insurance, social insurance, and worker's compensation D) Employment insurance, social insurance, and life insurance E) Disability insurance, liability insurance, and social insurance

18) The set of activities in which managers engage to develop a pool of qualified candidates for open positions is known as: A) selection B) performance appraisal C) feedback D) recruitment E) training

19) When an employee asks his or her manager, on the spur of the moment, whether he or she needs improvement in a specific area, this is considered to be a(n):

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A) informal appraisal B) 360-degree appraisal C) formal appraisal D) subordinate appraisal E) peer appraisal

20) The managers of ABC Company decided that their company would pay wages that were generally above the industry average. They were hoping to attract better-qualified employees than other firms. This is an example of managers making a decision regarding: A) pay level B) pay structure C) formal performance appraisal D) informal performance appraisal E) collective bargaining

21)

Which of the following can be a disadvantage of internal recruitment?

A) Internal applicants are familiar with the goals of the organization B) Internal applicants are known to managers C) Internal recruiting can boost the morale of workers who didn't get promoted D) Internal applicants are familiar with the culture of the organization E) Internal recruitment tends to maintain the status quo

22)

Which statement is true about the Canadian Human Rights Act?

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A) It covers the entire private sector.

B) It covers the entire public sector.

C) It covers only British Columbia, Prince Edward Island, Quebec, and Yukon.

D) It covers all businesses under federal jurisdiction with 100 or more employees.

E) It only covers workers in Ontario and Quebec

23) All of the following statements are true with respect to provincial Employment Standards Acts,except: A) It sets out health and safety standards.

B) It covers vacation entitlements.

C) It deals with the statutory leaves.

D) It deals with minimum wages and hours.

E) It covers whistleblower protection rights.

24) The process of identifying the job descriptions and the job specifications for all of the jobs within an organization is known as: A) training B) development C) job analysis D) selection E) performance appraisal

25) A ________ is when managers estimate the qualifications and numbers of employees an organization will need given its goals and strategies.

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A) supply forecast B) job analysis C) job specification D) demand forecast E) job description

26) Identifying the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that make up a job and the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to perform the job is known as: A) a job description B) a job analysis C) a job specification D) a job appraisal E) job identification

27) The process of identifying in writing the tasks, duties, and responsibilities for a specific job is known as: A) a job description B) performance appraisal C) job specification D) selection E) development

28) Prior to designing a training and development program for managers, a human resource specialist attempts to determine which managers need training and what type of skills and knowledge these managers need to develop. This process is known as:

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A) RJP validation B) needs assessment C) job validation D) recruitment E) skills assessment

29) __________ are activities that managers engage in to ensure they have effective working relationships with the labour unions that represent their employees' interests.

A) Collective bargaining B) Industrial relations C) Labour relations D) Collective agreement E) Strategic HRM

30)

When managers look outside to fill open positions, this is known as: A) external recruiting B) internal recruiting C) lateral moves D) selection E) training

31) When Microsoft sends teams of interviewers to college campuses to recruit new employees, this is known as:

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A) external recruiting B) internal recruiting C) lateral moves D) selection E) training

32) When managers attempt to fill open positions with workers who are already working for the organization in some other capacity, this is known as: A) external recruiting B) internal recruiting C) lateral moves D) selection E) training

33) When a manager changes jobs within the organization and moves to another job at the same level without any major changes in authority or responsibility, this is known as: A) external recruiting B) internal recruiting C) lateral moves D) selection E) training

34) When a large publishing company contracts with a freelance writer for the task of creating a test bank instead of hiring a full-time copy editor, this is an example of:

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A) a lateral movement B) an RJP C) outsourcing D) recruitment E) selection

35) When a manager hires a temporary secretary from Kelly Services instead of hiring a fulltime secretary, this is an example of: A) an RJP B) a 360-degree appraisal C) outsourcing D) training E) on-the-job training

36) The evaluation of employees' job performance and contributions to their organization is known as a: A) selection B) performance appraisal C) performance feedback D) training E) feedback

37) The process through which managers share performance appraisal information with subordinates, give subordinates an opportunity to reflect on their own performance, and develop, with subordinates, plans for the future is known as:

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A) selection B) performance appraisal C) performance feedback D) training E) orientation

38)

Which type of test is used to measure honesty?

A) Paper-and pencil tests B) Performance tests C) Physical ability tests D) Unstructured tests E) Personality tests

39) When a job applicant calls a former boss and asks him to write a letter to her prospective employer commenting on her previous performance, this is an example of which aspect of the HRM process?

A) Reference-checking B) Development C) Recruiting D) Training E) Ability testing

40) Activities that managers engage in to forecast their current and future needs for human resources is known as:

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A) human resource planning B) selection C) recruitment D) performance appraisal E) performance feedback

41) Which of the following Act prohibits discrimination on the bases of race, colour, sex, religion, or physical/mental ability?

A) Canadian Disabilities Act B) Affirmative Action Act C) Canadian Workplace Act D) Canadian Competition Act E) Canadian Human Rights Act

42)

A company may provide high pay levels when pursuing a strategy based on: A) cost leadership B) differentiated high quality customer service C) self-serve D) differentiated low cost E) budget

43) A written summary of the knowledge, skills, and abilities, which are needed to perform a specific job, is known as:

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A) feedback B) development C) the job specification D) performance appraisal E) job description

44)

Outsourcing works well for all of the following tasks,except:

A) those that are based on rules B) those that are based on creativity C) those that can apply pre-existing algorithms D) those that do not require problem solving E) those that do not require familiarity with the customs of the country in which the company is based

45)

"Sleep with me or you're fired" is a form of: A) Hostile work environment sexual harassment B) Quid pro quo sexual harassment C) Cumma sum laude sexual harassment D) Laissez-faire sexual harassment E) 360-degree workplace ultimatum

46)

The #metoo movement began in the wake of allegations of sexual harassment against:

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A) Bill Cosby B) Judge Brett Kavanaugh C) President Donald Trump D) Harvey Weinstein E) Morgan Freeman

47) ________ includes all the activities that managers engage in to attract and retain employees and to ensure that they perform at a high level.

A) Human resource management (HRM) B) Strategic human resource management C) Training D) Development E) Recruitment

48) Teaching organizational members how to perform their current jobs and helping them acquire the knowledge and skills they need to be effective performers is known as: A) Needs assessment B) On-the-job training C) Training D) Development E) Personal development

49) Building the knowledge and skills of organizational members so that they will be prepared to take on new responsibilities and challenges is known as:

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A) needs assessment B) on-the-job training C) training D) development E) growth

50) Which of the following is an advantage for Human Resource Managers when outsourcing?

A) The people hired tend to be inflexible B) It is very expensive to hire outside people C) Unions often resist outsourcing D) Managers can lose control over the quality of goods and services E) Outsourcing can save money

51)

Workers may desire to unionize for all of the following reasons,except: A) Shareholder interests overshadow those of the workers B) Dissatisfaction with wages, benefits, and working conditions C) Unsafe working environment D) The perception that union leaders are corrupt E) Unfair policies and practices

52) When a group of managers who are interviewing job applicants asks each job applicant: "What are your unique qualifications for this job?" which type of interviewing situation is being used?

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A) Worker-requirements interview questions B) Role-playing C) Unstructured D) Structured E) Situational

53) A test, which measures the ability of a job applicant for the position of trash collector to lift heavy objects, is a type of: A) personality test B) paper-and-pencil test C) unstructured interview test D) performance test E) structured interview test

54) Tests, which measure the personal characteristics of job applicants, which are relevant to successful performance on the job, are known as: A) personality tests B) paper-and-pencil tests C) unstructured interview tests D) ability tests E) structured interview tests

55) When Chrysler Corp. tests applicants for autoworker positions on their mechanical dexterity in an attempt to determine if they have the capability of performing an assembly-line job, this is an example of:

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A) role-play testing B) personality testing C) unstructured testing D) situational testing E) performance testing

56) Tests, which assess the skills of a job applicant necessary for the successful performance of the job, are known as: A) personality tests B) paper-and-pencil tests C) unstructured tests D) ability tests E) structured tests

57)

Training can include all of the following,except: A) classroom instruction B) on-the-job training C) personality tests D) apprenticeships E) one-on-one teacher student sessions

58)

All of the following are methods of developing employees,except:

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A) Classroom instruction B) On-the-job training C) Varied work experiences D) Formal education E) 360-degree Feedback

59)

Which of the following type of benefits are mandatory for employers to provide?

A) Extended health insurance, employee assistance, and employment insurance B) Employment insurance, workers' compensation, and social insurance C) Workers' compensation, employment insurance, and extended health insurance D) Extended health insurance, vacation time, and life insurance E) Vacation time, employment insurance, and employee assistance

60) An individual's ability to function and manage effectively in culturally diverse settings, is known as: A) Equity B) Reliability C) Cultural intelligence D) Inclusion E) Discrimination

61)

All of the following are examples of a disadvantage of outsourcing,except:

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A) Individuals performing outsourced work may have less commitment to an organization than regular employees B) Managers may lose some control over the quality of goods and services C) Managers do not have to invest in training D) Individuals performing outsourced work may have less knowledge of organizational practices, procedures, and goals E) Unions resist outsourcing because it has the potential to eliminate some of their members

62) Strategic human resource management is set in the context of the Canadian legal framework. Discuss the key pieces of legislation that govern HR management. Assess which legislation is most critical to HRM.

63) Explain three reasons why diversity is such a pressing issue of managers and organizations.

64)

Why it is important to use selection techniques that are both reliable and valid?

65)

Discuss why training and development is an ongoing activity for all organizations.

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66) What are the two most important ways in which performance appraisal and feedback contribute to the effective management of human resources within an organization.

67) Managers can use a variety of performance appraisal techniques to evaluate their subordinates on the job. Explain what is meant by a "360-degree appraisal" and show how a manager could use this technique in evaluating the quality of a subordinate's work.

68)

What is pay level? How does the strategy of an organization determine its pay level?

69) Discuss the role of the HR manager with respect to labour relations. What are the reasons why employees would vote to have a union represent their interests in negotiating with management? Why are some employees anti-union?

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70) How important are the activities involved in strategic human resource management for organizational performance?

71)

"Age diversity presents managers with unique challenges." Discuss.

72) What do you say to people who suggest that the legal environment of HR leads to reverse discrimination and hinders the rights of employers?

73) Summarize the advantages and disadvantages of external recruitment. What is the most important advantage and disadvantage and why?

74) Discuss the steps managers should take to eradicate workplace harassment. Why, in your opinion, does workplace harassment continue?

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75)

The HR manager is responsible to avoid intentional and unintentional discrimination. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) The Canadian Labour Code and Employment Equity Act set out the maximum employee entitlements for the private sector. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) The illegal practice of deliberately using prohibited grounds, such as race, religion, and sex, when making employment decisions is known as unintentional discrimination. ⊚ ⊚

78)

true false

The Canadian Human Rights Act covers all businesses under provincial jurisdiction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) Most businesses that operate in more than one province, such as telecommunications and transportation, are covered under provincial, not federal, jurisdiction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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80) Under the federal Employment Equity Act the designated groups for which discrimination is prohibited, are women, Aboriginal peoples, people with disabilities, and members of visible minorities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) In Gardenswartz and Rowe's four-layer model explaining the complexity of diversity the most immediate layer of factors that create diversity relate to one's age, gender, ability, ethnicity, race, and sexual orientation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) In striving for equity, managers must treat their employees fairly and consistently, regardless of the dissimilarities in their characteristics. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) Any successful HR strategy must be inclusive and open to the integration of racially diverse populations as well as age diversity to close the skills gap left by retiring baby boomers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) Embracing diversity encourages employee engagement and thus encourages differences of opinions or ideas that are beneficial to the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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85) In today's highly diverse population, it is no longer a struggle for highly skilled immigrants living in Canada to find well-paying jobs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) The Canadian Human Rights Act restricts the employer's right to reward high-performing employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Once the baby boomers retire, there will be no need for succession planning for new business leaders. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Human resource information systems (HRIS) collect and sort data relevant to help HR managers make strategic decisions about how to best manage current and future staffing needs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) The objective of strategic human resource management is the development of a system that enhances an organization's efficiency, quality, innovation, and responsiveness to customers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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90) Managers who have outsourcing experience have found that outsourcing works poorly for tasks that can be rule-based and do not require creativity. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

A personnel replacement chart helps managers with succession planning. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Identifying the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that make up a job and the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to perform the job is known as a job analysis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Human resource planning includes all the activities that managers engage in to forecast their current and future needs for human resources. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Demand forecasts estimate the availability and qualifications of current employees now and in the future and the supply of qualified workers in the external labour market. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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95) When amusement parks find that not enough young people are available or willing to work for them, they use this information in their supply forecasts. ⊚ ⊚

96)

Outsourcing is used increasingly on a national level but infrequently on a global basis. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

true false

The job description is the process of identifying the tasks and duties that make up a job. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) The job specification is the process of identifying the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to perform the job. ⊚ ⊚

99)

true false

A job analysis includes both a job description and a job specification. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Recruitment is the process by which managers determine the relative qualifications of job applicants and the potential for performing well in a particular job. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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101) Recruitment includes all the activities that managers use to develop a pool of qualified candidates for open positions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Internal recruitment strategies include lateral moves - job changes that entail no major changes in responsibilities or authority levels or promotions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) When employees are externally recruited there is certainty about whether they will be good performers. ⊚ ⊚

104)

true false

An unstructured interview often asks "situational" interview questions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) Evaluations based on structured interviews may be less likely to be influenced by the biases of the interviewer than evaluations based on unstructured interviews. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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106) An example of a behavioural interview question would be: How would you deal with a distraught customer? ⊚ ⊚

107)

Selection tools must be reliable and valid. ⊚ ⊚

108)

true false

true false

A typical hiring process has five steps. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) Training focuses on building the knowledge and skills of organizational members so that they will be prepared to take on new responsibilities. ⊚ ⊚

110)

Development often includes varied work experiences and formal education. ⊚ ⊚

111)

true false

true false

The graphic rating scale is the most popular method of employee performance appraisal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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112) Managers should perform performance appraisals but should not participate in performance feedback. ⊚ ⊚

113)

true false

In a 360-degree appraisal, a manager's performance is appraised by a variety of people. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) When a salesperson is evaluated by his or her manager twice a year on a number of performance dimensions, this is an informal appraisal. ⊚ ⊚

115)

true false

When giving performance feedback managers should avoid personal criticisms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) Pay structure is the relative position of an organization's pay incentives in comparison with those of other organizations in the same industry. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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117) Employers are legally required to provide workers' compensation, social insurance, and employment insurance benefits to their employees. ⊚ ⊚

118)

true false

Almost all companies have had success with cafeteria-style benefit plans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

119) The first step in the labour relations process is for workers to seek collective representation by expressing a desire to unionize. ⊚ ⊚

true false

120) The interests of shareholders are often pitched against the interests of workers to the detriment of the latter. ⊚ ⊚

121)

true false

Employees may desire to unionize to further their collective interests in the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

122) Abuse of authority and sexual harassment are two common forms of workplace harassment.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

123) Unwelcome behaviour of a sexual nature in the workplace that negatively affects the work environment or leads to adverse job-related consequences for the employee is known as sexual harassment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

124) To help eradicate harassment in the workplace, managers should develop and clearly communicate a workplace harassment policy endorsed by top management. ⊚ ⊚

true false

125) Managers must create conditions of inclusion, which means not only that employees with different characteristics feel welcome and valued, but also where they can excel and thrive. ⊚ ⊚

true false

126) Failure to create the conditions of inclusion can lead to legal action against the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

127) Failure to create the conditions of equity and inclusion can lead to career development for HR managers.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

128) It is important to note that the labour laws in Canada restrict employers' right and ability to reward high-performing employees and discipline employees for not meeting productivity standards or following company rules. ⊚ ⊚

true false

129) While mandatory retirement policies were once common across Canada, they are now increasingly treated as a form of age-related discrimination. ⊚ ⊚

true false

130) Cultural intelligence is an individual's ability to function and manage effectively in culturally diverse settings. ⊚ ⊚

true false

131) Workforce planning involves analyzing the gap in current and future needs, developing strategies to meet those needs, and implementing and evaluating the strategy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_7ce_Jones 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) B 6) D 7) C 8) E 9) B 10) B 11) E 12) A 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) E 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) A 21) E 22) D 23) E 24) C 25) D 26) B Version 1

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27) A 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) E 39) A 40) A 41) E 42) B 43) C 44) B 45) B 46) D 47) A 48) C 49) D 50) E 51) D 52) D 53) D 54) A 55) E 56) D Version 1

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57) C 58) E 59) B 60) C 61) C 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) TRUE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE Version 1

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100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE 103) FALSE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE 106) FALSE 107) TRUE 108) TRUE 109) FALSE 110) TRUE 111) TRUE 112) FALSE 113) TRUE 114) FALSE 115) TRUE 116) FALSE 117) TRUE 118) FALSE 119) TRUE 120) TRUE 121) TRUE 122) TRUE 123) TRUE 124) TRUE 125) TRUE 126) TRUE 127) FALSE 128) FALSE 129) TRUE Version 1

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130) TRUE 131) TRUE

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CHAPTER 8 1)

An example of high levels of job characteristics would be: A) A worker at McDonald's who grills hamburgers for the entire shift B) A cashier at a coffee shop C) A firefighter who rescues people and property from devastation D) An automotive assembly line worker E) A worker in a textile factory who operates a machine that cuts cloth

2)

For most managers, a promotion is considered to be: A) Self-efficacy B) Vicarious learning C) A negative valence D) A positive reinforcer E) A lateral move

3)

For most managers, praise from their superior is considered to be: A) An extinction B) A negative valence C) A positive reinforcer D) A negative reinforcer E) Self-efficacy

4)

________ proposed that all workers seek to satisfy five basic needs.

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A) Victor Vroom B) Frederick Herzberg C) Abraham Maslow D) J. Stacy Adams E) Locke and Latham

5)

All of the following are likely examples of intrinsically motivated behaviour,except: A) Responsibility B) Pay C) Autonomy D) Interesting work E) A feeling of accomplishment

6) Providing job security and adequate medical benefits at work is an example of how managers can help satisfy _________ needs of employees.

A) self-actualization B) esteem C) belongingness D) safety E) physiological

7)

Which of the following are inputs from organizational members?

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A) Time B) Pay C) Benefits D) Satisfaction E) Security

8)

All of the following are likely examples of extrinsically motivated behaviour,except: A) Getting stock options B) Attaining job security C) Receiving cafeteria style benefits D) Taking vacation time E) Adding responsibility

9) Joelyn feels that she has outcomes equal to 50 and inputs equal to 10. She perceives that Linda has outcomes equal to 60 and inputs equal to 10. In this case Joelyn is most likely to experience: A) overpayment inequity B) underpayment inequity C) equity D) value E) perspective inequity

10) Which of the following theories supports that outcomes such as pay should be linked to the attainment of goals?

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A) Expectancy B) Goal-setting C) Equity D) Learning E) Needs

11) Which of the following theories supports that outcomes such as pay should be distributed in proportion to the level of inputs?

A) Expectancy B) Goal-setting C) Equity D) Learning E) Needs

12) Which of the following theories alludes to the importance of pay and suggests that pay should be based on performance: A) needs theories B) expectancy theory C) equity theory D) goal-setting theory E) retribution theories

13) Michael does not believe that his high level of effort will actually increase his performance level. Michael's belief is centred on his:

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A) Goals B) Valence C) Expectancy D) Instrumentality E) Productivity

14)

All of the following are examples of a manager's input to the organizationexcept: A) Skills B) Work behaviour C) Experience D) Education E) Culture

15) A computer salesman who chooses this occupation because he enjoys receiving a sales commission on each computer sold is said to be: A) extrinsically motivated B) experiencing extinction C) experiencing underpayment inequity D) intrinsically motivated E) laterally engaged

16) A manager who derives a sense of accomplishment from managing a large corporation and strives to reach year-end targets in order to obtain large stock options is said to be:

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A) intrinsically motivated B) intrinsically and extrinsically motivated C) experiencing underpayment inequity D) extrinsically motivated E) bilaterally engaged

17) Noor's manager docked her pay after she came late to work every day for a week. Which reinforcement technique was Noor's manager practicing?

A) Positive reinforcement B) Negative reinforcement C) Extinction D) Punishment E) Valence

18) Hamid's manager usually reprimands him when he comes to work late. One day Hamid was on time and his manager did not reprimand him. Which reinforcement technique was Hamid's manager practicing?

A) Positive reinforcement B) Negative reinforcement C) Extinction D) Punishment E) Valence

19) Luke would always get a reaction from his manager when he disrupted meetings with meaningless questions. In an effort to stop this undesirable behaviour Luke's manager stopped recognizing Luke when he raised his hand in meetings. Which reinforcement technique was Luke's manager practicing?

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A) Positive reinforcement B) Negative reinforcement C) Extinction D) Punishment E) Valence

20) A schoolteacher who does this type of work because he or she enjoys teaching children is an example of: A) negatively reinforced behaviour B) extrinsically motivated behaviour C) extinction behaviour D) intrinsically motivated behaviour E) overpayment inequity behaviour

21)

Behaviour that is performed for its own sake is known as: A) motivation B) intrinsically motivated behaviour C) extrinsically motivated behaviour D) needs behaviour E) equity

22) Behaviour that is performed to acquire material or social rewards or to avoid punishment is known as:

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A) motivation B) intrinsically motivated behaviour C) extrinsically motivated behaviour D) needs behaviour E) equity

23)

Expectancy theory is based largely on the work of: A) Clayton Alderfer B) B. F. Skinner C) Frederick Herzberg D) Victor Vroom E) Abraham Maslow

24)

The motivator-hygiene theory was developed by: A) Maslow B) Freud C) Herzberg D) Hackman E) Oldman

25) Fiaz believes that if she spends five hours preparing for her exam, she will be able to ace the exam and get an "A" in the course, however, she only wants to get a passing grade and so she doesn't expend the effort to study. In this case, Fiaz has:

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A) high expectancy, high instrumentality, and a positive valence B) low expectancy, high instrumentality, and a positive valence C) high expectancy, low instrumentality, and a negative valence D) high expectancy, high instrumentality, and a negative valence E) low expectancy, low instrumentality, and a negative valence

26) George feels that if he increases his effort he can increase his output, but he does not feel that he will be recognized for his contribution. About George, we could correctly say that: A) his instrumentality is high B) his instrumentality is low C) his expectancy is negative D) his expectancy is low E) his valence is high

27)

Which of the following is important in goal-setting theory?

A) Goals should be general and vague B) Employees should receive feedback on progress C) If employees are included in the goal-setting process, they are less likely to be committed to the goals D) If employees are included in the goal-setting process, they are less likely to accept the goals E) Employees should not receive feedback on progress

28)

Anything a person contributes to his or her job is known as a(n):

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A) need B) value C) input D) expectancy E) outcome

29)

A requirement or necessity for survival and well-being is known as: A) need B) value C) input D) expectancy E) outcome

30)

In Herzberg's theory, all of the following are examples of hygiene needsexcept: A) responsibility B) pay C) job security D) effective supervision E) good relationships with co-workers

31)

The need theory that distinguishes between two sets of needs is known as: A) Alderfer's ERG theory B) Herzberg's motivator-hygiene theory C) Maslow's hierarchy of needs D) Expectancy theory E) McClelland's Need theory

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32) In Herzberg's theory, needs which are related to the nature of the work itself and the degree of challenge contained in the work are known as: A) expectancy needs B) instrumentality needs C) motivator needs D) hygiene needs E) valence needs

33) In Herzberg's theory, needs that are related to the physical and psychological context in which the work is performed are known as: A) expectancy needs B) instrumentality needs C) motivator needs D) hygiene needs E) valence needs

34) met.

For employees to experience no dissatisfaction at work, _________ must be adequately

A) expectancy needs B) instrumentality needs C) motivator needs D) hygiene needs E) valence needs

35)

Anything which a manager receives from his or her organization is called a(n):

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A) input B) equity result C) need D) outcome E) reward

36)

_______ theories of motivation focus on what leads employees to be motivated.

A) Equity B) Process C) Need D) Inequity E) Leadership

37) The extent to which an individual has a strong desire to perform challenging tasks well and to meet personal standards for excellence is referred to as: A) success needs B) self-actualization needs C) need for affiliation D) need for achievement E) need for belongingness

38)

A total reward strategy could include which of the following?

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A) Giving positive reinforcement B) Recognition C) Opportunities for advancement D) Flexible hours E) All these choices could be part of a total reward strategy

39) Curtailing the performance of dysfunctional behaviours by eliminating whatever is reinforcing them is known as: A) positive reinforcement B) valence C) punishment D) extinction E) negative reinforcement

40) Eliminating or removing undesired outcomes when people perform desirable workplace behaviours is known as: A) positive reinforcement B) valence C) punishment D) extinction E) negative reinforcement

41)

The two-factors of Herzberg's theory are:

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A) belongingness needs and security needs B) motivator needs and hygiene needs C) reinforcement needs and acknowledgement needs D) self-esteem needs and social needs E) motivator needs and reinforcement needs

42) _____________ is a person's belief about his or her ability to perform a behaviour successfully.

A) Self-esteem B) Self-confidence C) Self-absorbedness D) Self-righteousness E) Self-efficacy

43)

According to Maslow, the most basic need of a worker is: A) esteem needs B) safety needs C) self-actualization needs D) physiological needs E) belongingness needs

44)

According to Maslow, the highest level of needs that motivate employees are:

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A) esteem needs B) safety needs C) self-actualization needs D) physiological needs E) belongingness needs

45) In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, need for social interaction, friendship, and love are examples of: A) esteem needs B) safety needs C) self-actualization needs D) physiological needs E) belongingness needs

46) In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the need to realize one's full potential as a human being is an example of: A) esteem needs B) safety needs C) self-actualization needs D) physiological needs E) belongingness needs

47)

For most managers, remuneration is considered to be:

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A) a positive reinforcer B) a negative reinforcer C) self-efficacy D) vicarious learning E) a negative valence

48)

__________ is the degree to which one associates oneself with the work or profession.

A) Task significance B) Task identity C) Skill variety D) Autonomy E) Feedback

49)

A manager who experiences underpayment inequity may choose to: A) work more hours on the job B) leave the organization C) never take sick days D) never take a break E) increase their training to build their efficiency

50)

In Herzberg's theory, all of the following are examples of motivator needsexcept: A) interesting work B) responsibility C) stock options D) a sense of accomplishment E) autonomy

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51) In the job characteristics approach to job design, all of the following are core job dimensions,except: A) skill variety B) responsibility C) task identity D) feedback E) autonomy

52) To promote vicarious learning, managers should strive to have the learner meet the following conditions,except: A) The learner observes the model performing the behaviour.

B) The learner accurately perceives the model's behaviour.

C) The learner remembers the behaviour.

D) The learner has the skills and abilities needed to perform the behaviour.

E) The learner cannot see how the model is positively reinforced for the behaviour.

53)

McClelland's need theory focuses on which of the following?

A) The need for achievement, affiliation and power B) The need for expectancy, instrumentality and hygiene C) The need for esteem, power and belongingness D) The need for safety, security and self-actualization E) The need for social development

54)

According to McClelland, top managers have a high need for which of the following?

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A) The need for affiliation B) The need for achievement C) The need for power D) The need for self-actualization E) The need for autonomy

55) According to McClelland, first-line and middle managers have a high need for which of the following?

A) The need for affiliation and power B) The need for achievement and power C) The need for power and autonomy D) The need for self-actualization and power E) The need for autonomy and affiliation

56) Which of the following is NOT true of setting goals so that they motivate high performance?

A) They should be general B) They should be difficult C) They should be measurable D) They should be quantifiable E) They should be specific

57) _________ refers to psychological forces that determine the direction, level of effort, and level of persistence of a person's behaviour.

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A) Drive B) Motivation C) Valence D) Equity E) Instrumentality

58) The degree to which a manager focuses on the accomplishment of a goal despite obstacles is referred to as: A) effort B) persistence C) valence D) equity E) instrumentality

59) The sense of inequity that exists when a person perceives that his or her own outcome/input ratio is less than the ratio of a referent, is known as a(n): A) overpayment inequity B) equity C) valence equity D) value inequity E) underpayment inequity

60) The sense of inequity that exists when a person perceives that his or her own outcome/input ratio is greater than the ratio of a referent is known as a(n):

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A) overpayment inequity B) equity C) valence equity D) value inequity E) underpayment inequity

61)

A perceived lack of fairness is known as: A) overpayment inequity B) inequity C) valence equity D) value inequity E) underpayment inequity

62) In expectancy theory, a perception about the extent to which effort will result in a certain level of performance is known as: A) expectancy B) valence C) value D) instrumentality E) reinforcement

63) In expectancy theory, a perception about the extent to which performance will result in the attainment of outcomes or rewards is known as:

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A) expectancy B) valence C) value D) instrumentality E) reinforcement

64)

Employee stock options:

A) are used to reward past individual performance B) are rarely used to attract high-level managers C) entitle the employee to buy shares at a certain price during a certain period of time or under certain conditions D) base employees' pay on the number of units each employee produces E) transfer to employees a share of an organization's profits, independent of production levels

65)

Commission pay is considered a(n): A) profit sharing plan B) individual-based merit pay plan C) organization-based merit pay plan D) Scanlon plan E) superior motivator compared to a piece-rate pay plan

66) In expectancy theory, the desirability of the outcomes available from a job or organization is known as:

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A) expectancy B) valence C) value D) instrumentality E) reinforcement

67)

A lack of being exposed to ______ can actually impair well-being and performance.

A) New ideas B) Facebook C) Co-workers D) Nature E) Superiors

68)

What need did COVID-19 working from home bring to the forefront?

A) Intellectual stimulation B) Work-life balance C) Social interaction D) Introversion E) Commute time

69) When a worker perceives equity when comparing their ratio of inputs to outcomes, they are motivated to take what type of action to correct the perception?

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A) Reduce inputs B) Change the referent C) Increase outcomes D) Take no action E) Quit the job

70)

Equity theory is often labelled a theory of which type of justice?

A) Distributive B) Procedural C) Interpersonal D) Informational E) Restorative

71)

Motivation is higher when ________ justice is high rather than low.

A) Distributive B) Procedural C) Interpersonal D) Informational E) Restorative

72) Learning theory focuses on the linkage between _______ and _______ in the motivation equation.

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A) Rewards and career development B) Expectancy and valence C) Performance and inputs D) Instrumentality and rewards E) Performance and outcomes

73)

All of the following are elements of a Total Reward Strategy,except: A) Training and development B) Base pay and merit increases C) Career development opportunities D) Prosocial behaviour E) Nonfinancial recognition

74) _______ is a formal system of evaluating subordinates on their ability to achieve specific organizational goals or performance standards.

A) Equity theory B) Management by Objectives C) Process theory D) Expectancy theory E) Operant conditioning

75) Managers and their subordinates together determine the subordinates' goals in this step of MBO.

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A) Step 1 B) Step 2 C) Step 3 D) Step 4 E) Step 5

76) Specific goals and objectives are established at each level of the organization in this step of MBO. A) Step 1 B) Step 2 C) Step 3 D) Step 4 E) Step 5

77) Managers and their subordinates periodically review the subordinates' progress toward meeting goals, in this step of MBO. A) Step 1 B) Step 2 C) Step 3 D) Step 4 E) Step 5

78) Abraham Maslow developed a needs hierarchy model of motivation. Discuss the different kinds of needs in this model. Give one specific example of how a workplace manager can satisfy each of these types of needs.

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79)

Provide two examples of organizational-based merit pay plans.

80) Discuss the three major factors in expectancy theory and suggest ways in which managers can use expectancy theory to understand high and low performance among employees.

81) Define what motivation is and how behaviour can be intrinsically and extrinsically motivated. Give one example of each type of behaviour.

82) Reinforcement theory presents four major techniques which managers can use to influence the behaviour of subordinates. Discuss each of these techniques and give a specific example of how a manager could use each of these techniques in attempting to: (a) reduce the frequency of undesired behaviours (b) increase the frequency of desired workplace behaviours.

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83) Identify and briefly describe the three possible outcomes people perceive when they compare their ratio of inputs/outcomes with a referent, according to equity theory. What is one way that a person could restore their sense of equity in each of these situations?

84) Discuss three reasons why bonuses tend to have a greater motivational impact than dollar amount salary increases.

85) Managers can base merit pay on individual, group, or organizational performance.

Discuss the context under which each of these bases is most effective.

86) Using the motivation theories discussed in this chapter, explain why and how managers can use pay as a motivation tool.

87)

Assess the elements of a Total Reward Strategy for their motivating potential.

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88) Compare Herzberg's Motivator-Hygiene theory of motivation and Hackman and Oldham's Job Characteristics Approach to job design. How are they similar and different?

89) Motivation refers to the psychological forces that determine the direction of a person's behaviour in an organization, a person's commitment or effort, and a person's persistence in the face of obstacles. ⊚ ⊚

90)

Prosocially motivated behaviour is behaviour that is performed to benefit or help others. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

In order for employees to perform at a high level, managers must get to know them. ⊚ ⊚

92)

true false

true false

Motivation can come from intrinsic or extrinsic sources. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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93) Intrinsically motivated behaviour is behaviour that is performed to acquire material rewards. ⊚ ⊚

94)

Anything a person contributes to his or her job is known as an input. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

true false

Pay and benefits are examples of outcomes that are intrinsically motivating. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Feelings of accomplishment and satisfaction from work are examples of outcomes that are intrinsically motivating. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Time, effort, and experience of employees are examples of inputs necessary for an organization to achieve its goals. ⊚ ⊚

98)

true false

Need theories of motivation focus on how managers actually motivate employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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99)

A need is a requirement or necessity for survival and well-being. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) The basic premise of need theories is that people are motivated to obtain outcomes at work that will satisfy their needs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) Abraham Maslow proposed that all people seek to satisfy six basic needs that constitute a hierarchy with the most basic at the top. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Managers can satisfy self-actualization needs by recognizing the accomplishments of their employees. ⊚ ⊚

103)

Physiological needs are the needs for social interaction and friendship. ⊚ ⊚

104)

true false

true false

Esteem needs include the need to feel good about oneself and to be respected by others.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

105) By providing job security, benefits, and safe working conditions, managers help to satisfy employee needs for safety. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) According to Herzberg, hygiene needs are related to the nature of the work itself and how challenging it is. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) Pay and good relations with co-workers are examples of hygiene factors according to Herzberg. ⊚ ⊚

108)

According to Herzberg, hygiene factors determine the degree of employee satisfaction. ⊚ ⊚

109)

true false

true false

According to Herzberg, motivator factors determine the degree of employee satisfaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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110)

McClelland's need theory has four elements. ⊚ ⊚

111)

true false

Process theories focus on how to motivate employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) In expectancy theory, a perception about the extent to which performance will result in the attainment of outcomes is known as instrumentality. ⊚ ⊚

113)

true false

Providing training is a way managers can strengthen expectancy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) Valence is the degree of effort employees perceive they have to expend in order to result in a high level of performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) Valence is the extent to which employees desire the outcome or reward they would receive for high levels of performance.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

116) Instrumentality is a person's perception about the extent to which their supervisor's favouritism toward employees will result in receiving outcomes or rewards. ⊚ ⊚

117)

true false

Goal-setting theory suggests goals must be specific and difficult. ⊚ ⊚

true false

118) Equity exists when a person perceives his or her outcome/input ratio is equal to that of a referent. ⊚ ⊚

true false

119) In equity theory, when a manager's own outcome/input ratio is perceived by him/herself to be less than that of a referent, overpayment inequity is felt. ⊚ ⊚

true false

120) Underpayment inequity exists when a person's own ratio of outcome to input is perceived to be less than that of a referent. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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121) Operant conditioning or reinforcement theory is a motivation theory that looks at the relationship between behaviour and its consequences. ⊚ ⊚

122)

true false

Positive reinforcement can create a pleasant work environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

123) The use of positive and negative reinforcement encourages desired or functional organizational behaviours. ⊚ ⊚

124)

true false

Negative reinforcement is the same as punishment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

125) The use of extinction and punishment aim to decrease undesirable and dysfunctional workplace behaviours. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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126) Curtailing the performance of dysfunctional behaviours by eliminating whatever is reinforcing them is known as punishment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

127) Organizational behaviour modification is the systematic application of operant conditioning techniques. ⊚ ⊚

128)

true false

Vicarious learning is also called observational learning. ⊚ ⊚

true false

129) Vicarious learning occurs when a person (the learner) becomes motivated to perform a behaviour by watching another person (the model) perform the behaviour and be positively reinforced for doing the same. ⊚ ⊚

130)

true false

A total reward strategy includes both extrinsic and intrinsic motivating factors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

131) All motivation theories suggest that pay be distributed so that high performers receive more than low performers (other things being equal).

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⊚ ⊚

true false

132) Pay is an important extrinsic motivating factor addressed by both need and process theories. ⊚ ⊚

true false

133) Managers cannot distribute merit pay to people in the form of a salary increase or a bonus on top of regular salaries. ⊚ ⊚

true false

134) From a motivation standpoint, stock options are used not so much to reward past individual performance but, rather, to motivate employees to work in the future for the good of the company as a whole. ⊚ ⊚

135)

true false

Being exposed to nature can lead to positive outcomes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

136) When a worker perceives equity when comparing their ratio of inputs to outcomes, they are motivated to take action to correct the perception. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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137)

Equity theory is often labelled a theory of distributive justice. ⊚ ⊚

true false

138) Learning theory focuses on the linkage between performance and outcomes in the motivation equation. ⊚ ⊚

139)

true false

Management by Objectives is a systematic approach to goal setting. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_7ce_Jones 1) C 2) D 3) C 4) C 5) B 6) D 7) A 8) E 9) B 10) B 11) C 12) C 13) C 14) E 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) C 25) D 26) B Version 1

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27) B 28) C 29) A 30) A 31) B 32) C 33) D 34) D 35) D 36) C 37) D 38) E 39) D 40) E 41) B 42) E 43) D 44) C 45) E 46) C 47) A 48) B 49) B 50) C 51) B 52) E 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) A Version 1

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57) B 58) B 59) E 60) A 61) B 62) A 63) D 64) C 65) B 66) B 67) D 68) B 69) D 70) A 71) C 72) E 73) D 74) B 75) B 76) A 77) C 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE Version 1

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98) FALSE 99) TRUE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) FALSE 103) FALSE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) FALSE 107) TRUE 108) FALSE 109) TRUE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) TRUE 114) FALSE 115) TRUE 116) FALSE 117) TRUE 118) TRUE 119) FALSE 120) TRUE 121) TRUE 122) TRUE 123) TRUE 124) FALSE 125) TRUE 126) FALSE 127) TRUE Version 1

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128) TRUE 129) TRUE 130) TRUE 131) TRUE 132) TRUE 133) FALSE 134) TRUE 135) TRUE 136) FALSE 137) TRUE 138) TRUE 139) TRUE

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CHAPTER 9 1) All of the following are examples of an intangible reward, which can be given by a manager to a subordinateexcept: A) A choice job assignment B) Verbal praise C) "A pat on the back" D) Respect E) Appreciation

2) All of the following are examples of a tangible reward, which can be given by a manager to a subordinateexcept: A) A pay raise B) "A pat on the back" C) A bonus D) An attractive job assignment E) A country club membership

3)

Which of the following describes a transactional leader?

A) A leader who makes subordinates aware of the importance of their jobs to the organization B) A leader who makes subordinates aware of their own needs for personal growth C) A leader who motivates subordinates to work for the good of the whole organization D) A leader who emphasizes correction and punishment E) A leader who inspires subordinates

4)

Which of the following does NOT describe a transformational leader?

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A) A leader who makes subordinates aware of the importance of their jobs to the organization B) A leader who makes subordinates aware of their own needs for personal growth C) A leader who motivates subordinates to work for the good of the whole organization D) A leader who emphasizes correction and punishment E) A leader who inspires subordinates

5) All of the following are tangible rewards, which can be given by a manager to a subordinate,except: A) A choice job assignment B) A cash bonus C) A pay raise D) Stock options E) Respect

6)

Path-goal theory is based on the work of: A) Robert House B) B. F. Skinner C) Abraham Maslow D) Fred E. Fiedler E) Hersey and Blanchard

7)

According to John Chen, turnaround leaders should do all of the following,except:

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A) Dialogue with customers and employees B) Refocus strategy C) Add value for customers D) Be honest and realistic E) Keep a reasonable distance away from subordinates to earn respect.

8)

All of the following exemplify coercive power of a manager,except: A) Using psychological threats B) Using physical threats C) Causing mental and/or physical harm D) Workplace harassment E) Merit-based promotions

9) When a manager tells an employee that they must do the manager a sexual favour or be fired, the manager is using which type of power?

A) Legitimate B) Referent C) Coercive D) Reward E) Expert

10) When a manager has the power to assign projects to their subordinates, we say that this manager has:

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A) Expert power B) Legitimate power C) Coercive power D) Referent power E) Reward power

11) When a manager has the power to evaluate a subordinate's work and to decide if that subordinate is doing the work in a satisfactory manner, we say that this manager has: A) Referent power B) Expert power C) Coercive power D) Reward power E) Legitimate power

12) When a manager withholds a subordinate's bonus for poor performance at work, the manager is using which type of power?

A) Referent power B) Expert power C) Coercive power D) Reward power E) Legitimate power

13) When a manager is called upon to give advice in a situation because they have many years of experience in handling similar circumstances, we are using:

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A) Referent power B) Expert power C) Coercive power D) Reward power E) Legitimate power

14) Characteristics of subordinates or characteristics of a situation or context which acts in place of a leader so that leadership is unnecessary is known as: A) Empowerment B) Initiating structure C) Consideration D) A leader substitute E) Referent power

15) When the CEO of Intel, who has a Ph.D. in chemical engineering and is very knowledgeable about microprocessors which Intel produces, advises an R&D scientist about a possible new product idea, we say that this CEO has which type of power?

A) Expert power B) Empowerment power C) Consideration power D) Relationship-oriented power E) Deferential power

16) Hesselbein's turnaround strategy included which of the following three important elements?

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A) Create an inspiring identity, dialogue with customers and employees, add value for customers B) Increase information flows, be honest and realistic, add value for customers C) Create an inspiring identity, promote human value, increase information flows D) Promote human value, be honest and realistic, refocus strategy E) Increase efficiency, increase efficacy, increase effectiveness

17)

Which of the following is NOT an initiating structure behaviour?

A) Showing support for the well-being of employees B) Letting subordinates know what is expected of them C) Deciding how work should be done D) Making schedules E) Assigning tasks to individuals or groups

18) According to the path-goal theory, the following is NOT one of the behaviours that leaders can engage in to motivate subordinates: A) Achievement-oriented behaviours B) Participative behaviours C) Directive behaviours D) Supportive behaviours E) Task-oriented behaviours

19) Behaviour indicating that a manager trusts, respects, and cares about subordinates is known as:

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A) Initiating structure B) Consideration C) Empowerment D) Leadership substitute E) Task-oriented

20) Leadership theories which propose that the effectiveness of a leader depends on the situation in which the leader finds himself or herself are known as: A) Trait models B) Contingency models C) Empowerment models D) Path-goal models E) Leadership substitute models

21) When Bill Gates of Microsoft, who has a great deal of experience in software programming design, advises an R&D manager about how to design a new type of software for personal computers, we say that he has which type of power?

A) Referent power B) Relationship-oriented power C) Empowerment power D) Consideration power E) Expert power

22) According to Fiedler, the extent to which the work to be performed is clear-cut so that a leader's subordinates know what needs to be accomplished and how to go about doing it is known as:

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A) Consideration structure.

B) Task structure.

C) Empowerment structure.

D) Leader-member relations.

E) Charismatic leadership.

23)

Transformational leaders can be described by all of the following,except: A) Are charismatic B) Intellectually stimulate subordinates C) Engage in developmental consideration D) Focus on a vision for the future E) Rely excessively on coercive power

24) The process by which an individual exerts influence over other people and inspires, motivates, and directs their activities to help achieve group or organizational goals is known as: A) Leadership B) Reward power C) Expert power D) Empowerment E) The trait model

25) An individual who is able to exert influence over other people to help achieve group or organizational goals is known as a(n):

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A) Leader substitute B) Follower C) Expert power D) Leader E) Coercive leader

26) If Roy Vagelos, former CEO of Merck (a major pharmaceutical company), who was an outstanding research scientist before entering the ranks of management, were to advise a research scientist at Merck about a possible experiment to test a new type of drug, we would say that he had which type of power?

A) Empowerment power B) Relationship-oriented power C) Expert power D) Consideration power E) Referent power

27)

All of the following accurate describe people who work for charismatic leaders,except: A) Express greater satisfaction B) Are motivated to do extra work C) Generate more ideas D) Show stronger bonds of loyalty E) Are less productive

28) Which of the following contingency model of leadership suggests there are four leader behaviours that can lead to highly motivated employees?

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A) Fiedler's contingency model B) Hersey-Blanchard's situational leadership theory C) House's path-goal theory D) Leader substitute model E) Equity theory

29) According to Fiedler, the extent to which subordinates trust and are loyal to their leader is known as: A) Empowerment relations B) Task-oriented relations C) Leader-member relations D) Initiating structure relations E) Position power relations

30) Which element is NOT one that Fiedler identified as a determinant of how favourable a situation is for leading?

A) Position power B) Follower readiness C) Leader-member relations D) Task structure E) Leader preparedness

31) The authority that a manager has by virtue of their position in an organization's hierarchy is known as:

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A) Reward power B) Coercive power C) Legitimate power D) Expert power E) Referent power

32)

The ability of a manager to give or withhold tangible and intangible rewards is known as: A) Reward power B) Coercive power C) Legitimate power D) Expert power E) Referent power

33)

The ability of a manager to punish others is known as: A) Reward power B) Coercive power C) Legitimate power D) Expert power E) Referent power

34) Power that is based in the special knowledge, skills, and expertise that a leader possesses is known as:

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A) Reward power B) Coercive power C) Legitimate power D) Expert power E) Referent power

35) Power that comes from subordinates' and co-workers' respect, admiration, and loyalty is known as: A) Reward power B) Coercive power C) Legitimate power D) Expert power E) Referent power

36) According to Fiedler, when task structure is ________, the situation is favourable for leading and when task structure is ________, the situation is unfavourable for leading.

A) high; low B) high; high C) low; low D) low; high E) moderate; moderate

37)

Which of the following traits helps managers understand complex problems and issues?

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A) Self-confidence B) High energy C) Intelligence D) Integrity E) Dominance

38)

Which of the following traits helps managers deal with the many issues they face?

A) Self-confidence B) High energy C) Intelligence D) Integrity E) Dominance

39) Which of the following traits helps managers avoid acting selfishly, control their feelings, and admit when they have made a mistake?

A) Self-confidence B) High energy C) Intelligence D) Integrity E) Maturity

40) Leaders engage in _______ when they attempt to define and structure their role and the roles of their subordinates in order to achieve organizational goals.

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A) consideration B) transformational leadership C) initiating structure D) decomposition E) regressive behaviours

41)

Leaders engage in consideration when they show subordinates that they: A) don't respect them B) are suspicious of them C) trust them D) mistrust them E) depend on them

42)

Leaders differ from managers in all of the following ways,except: A) In planning, they set goals for daily operational transactions B) In organizing, they allocate resources to risky experiments, innovation, and change C) In controlling, their respect for individuals helps realize the vision of the organization D) In leading, they inspire performance beyond goals E) They are not necessarily appointed and may emerge organically within a work group

43) Which of the following traits helps managers influence their subordinates to achieve organizational goals?

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A) Self-confidence B) High energy C) Intelligence D) Integrity E) Dominance

44) Some typical stereotypes about gender and management include all of the following,except: A) Women are more nurturing than men B) Women are more concerned with interpersonal relations C) Men are more directive managers D) Men engage in more initiating structure E) Women are less participative managers

45)

Japanese managers tend to be: A) More collectivist oriented than Canadian, U.S., and European managers B) More individualist than Canadian, U.S., and European managers C) More short-term profit oriented than Canadian, U.S., and European managers D) Have more emotional intelligence than Canadian, U.S., and European managers E) More delegative than Canadian, U.S., and European managers

46) According to the path-goal theory, ________ behaviours are similar to initiating structure and include setting goals, assigning tasks, and taking concrete steps to improve performance.

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A) supportive B) directive C) participative D) achievement-oriented E) deferent

47) According to the path-goal theory, ________ behaviours are similar to consideration and include expressing concern for subordinates.

A) supportive B) directive C) participative D) achievement-oriented E) deferent

48) According to the path-goal theory, ________ behaviours give subordinates a say in matters and decisions that affect them.

A) supportive B) directive C) participative D) achievement-oriented E) coercive

49) According to the path-goal theory, ________ behaviours motivate employees to perform at the highest level possible.

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A) supportive B) directive C) participative D) achievement-oriented E) coercive

50) ________ behaviours may be beneficial when subordinates are having difficulty completing assigned tasks.

A) Task-oriented B) Supportive C) Participative D) Achievement-oriented E) Directive

51) ________ behaviours are often advisable when subordinates are experiencing high levels of stress.

A) Task-oriented B) Supportive C) Participative D) Achievement-oriented E) Directive

52) ________ behaviours can be particularly effective when subordinates' support of a decision is required.

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A) Task-oriented B) Supportive C) Participative D) Achievement-oriented E) Directive

53) The amount of legitimate, reward, and coercive power that a leader has by virtue of their position in an organization is known as ____________, according to Fiedler.

A) referent power B) expert power C) position power D) empowerment power E) consideration power

54) When a manager has the power to monitor the work of their subordinates and to tell them how to do a given task, we say that this manager has: A) Legitimate power B) Reward power C) Referent power D) Coercive power E) Expert power

55)

Servant leaders engage in all of the following,except:

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A) Share power with followers B) Ensure that followers' most important needs are met C) Ensure followers are able to develop as individuals D) Ensure discretion on the part of followers E) Ensure that attention is paid to those who are least well-off in a society

56) The ______ of leadership focuses on identifying the personal characteristics of effective leaders.

A) contingency model B) relationship-oriented model C) task-oriented model D) path-goal model E) trait model

57) The level of emotional intelligence of a leader is likely to determine all but one of the following: A) The development of a vision for the organization.

B) To what degree subordinates will be motivated and committed.

C) To what degree the leader develops an identity for the organization.

D) To what degree the organization will be effective.

E) To what degree global aspects affect the leadership experience.

58) _______ is based on experts leading experts, immersion in the details, and collaborative debate to drive innovation in all areas of the company.

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A) Servant leadership B) Indigenous leadership C) Wise compassionate leadership D) Discretionary leadership E) Authentic leadership

59) _______ is based on being true, transparent, and thoughtful about one's response to leading in interpersonal situations.

A) Servant leadership B) Indigenous leadership C) Wise compassionate leadership D) Discretionary leadership E) Authentic leadership

60) _______ empowers followers to act as collaborators and innovators within the organization.

A) Servant leadership B) Indigenous leadership C) Wise compassionate leadership D) Discretionary leadership E) Authentic leadership

61)

The wise compassion leader:

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A) Scores high on the dimensions of compassion and ignorance B) Scores high on compassion and wisdom C) Scores low on compassion, has high levels of indifference, and high levels of wisdom D) Scores high on both ignorance and indifference E) Scores high on compassion and low on indifference

62)

Discretionary leadership is based on all of the following,except: A) Is based on one's authentic self B) Is based on immersion in the details C) Is based on collaborative debate D) Is based on experts leading experts E) Is based on driving innovation in all areas of the company

63)

All of the following are ‘best practices' for ensuring gender equity,except: A) Setting up mentoring and coaching programs B) Enhancing self-perception of their abilities as effective leaders C) Ensuring ongoing measurement D) Offering job rotation opportunities E) Highlighting role models and communicating success

64) Of the 49 unique behaviours that predict a leader's effectiveness, women were ranked highest on:

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A) Women leaders were not ranked higher than men on any of the behaviours.

B) All of the behaviours.

C) All but "develops strategic perspective" and "technical or professional expertise."

D) Fifty percent of the behaviours.

E) On 25% of the behaviours.

65) Define the five different types of power that are available to a manager. Give one example of how a manager might use each source.

66) Describe what French and Raven call referent power. How does it compare to their other forms of managerial power?

67) Describe what French and Raven call coercive power. How does it compare to reward power?

68) How are ‘management' and ‘leadership' different? Give one example of how a manager and leader might tackle the same problem of lack of punctuality of an employee.

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69) Discuss the trait and behavioural model of leadership. What are the limitations to these perspectives?

70) Discuss the three situational determinations in Fiedler's leadership theory that allow a leader to determine the favourableness or unfavourableness of a situation for leading and give a specific example of how each of these determinants would work in a specific business situation of your choosing.

71) Path-goal theory provides manages with three guidelines for becoming an effective leader. Discuss these guidelines and give a specific example of how a manager could follow each of these guidelines when working with a subordinate.

72) Path-goal theory identifies four types of behaviours in which leaders can engage in, in order to motivate their subordinates. Discuss these types of behaviours and give one specific management example of how a manager could act according to each of these.

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73) Outline the main elements of each personal leadership style discussed. Which style would be best suited to managing (1) a high tech company, and (2) a non-profit charity?

74)

Explain the leader substitutes model. What is the advice this model offers to managers?

75) Explain what is meant by the concept of "transformational leadership" and give three specific examples of how a leader would act according to this theory in a specific business situation of your choosing.

76) Compare and contrast "transformational leadership" with "transactional leadership."

Which one of these theories makes more sense to you? Defend your answer.

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77) When organizations are in need of an extreme overhaul, they often look for leadership to turn the company's fortunes around. In your opinion, what characteristics of the turnaround leaders discussed in the chapter are most relevant to turning around a company of your choice that is on the verge of bankruptcy?

78)

Evaluate the new research on gender and leadership outlined in the chapter.

79) Do leadership styles vary across cultures? Discuss with reference to the degree of humanism, individualism and the focus on time horizons for profit making. Give an example of the differences.

80)

Analyze how emotional intelligence affects leadership.

81) Leadership is the process by which a person exerts influence over other people and inspires, motivates, and directs their activities to help achieve group or organizational goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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82) When leaders are effective, the influence they exert over others help a group or organization to achieve its performance goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) A manager's personal leadership style is the specific ways in which the manager chooses to plan, organize, control, and influence others. ⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

Leadership is the process by which an individual exerts influence over other people. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) A leader is able to exert influence over other people to help achieve group or organizational goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) According to French and Raven, there are six types of social power the leader has to affect other people's behaviour and get them to act in certain ways. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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87) The ability of a manager to give or withhold tangible and intangible rewards is known as legitimate power. ⊚ ⊚

88)

true false

Reward power is the ability of a manager to punish others. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) Expert power is based on the special knowledge, skills, and expertise that a leader possesses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) The power that comes from a manager's admiration and loyalty from subordinates and co-workers is known as referent power. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

When a manager degrades a subordinate, this is an example of expert power. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) When a manager is asked to give advice on a subject they have 15 years of experience in dealing with, they are relying on expert power.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

93) A manager who withholds a subordinate's bonus for poor performance at work is using legitimate power. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) A manager who has the trust and commitment of co-workers and subordinates has referent power. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) Managers can take steps to increase their referent source of power by showing interest and concern for their subordinates. ⊚ ⊚

96)

true false

Managers who tend to rely on coercive forms of power tend to be effective. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Leadership theories developed after the 1980s tend to focus on the supervisory nature of leadership. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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98) Research indicates that certain personal characteristics appear to be associated with effective leadership. ⊚ ⊚

99)

true false

Researchers concluded that traits alone are the key to understanding leader effectiveness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Leaders engage in consideration when they show their subordinates that they trust, respect, and care about them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) Leaders engage in initiating structure when they show their subordinates that they trust, respect, and care about them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Leaders with more focus on interpersonal skills and concern for the well-being of employees tend to have followers that are more satisfied, motivated, and have more respect for their leaders. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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103) Process models of leadership take into account the situation or context within which leadership occurs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) Contingency models of leadership suggest there is one 'best' set of traits or behaviours that can apply universally to all leadership situations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) Like the trait approach, Fiedler hypothesized that personal characteristics do not influence leader effectiveness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) According to Fiedler, leaders whose primary concern is to ensure that subordinates perform at a high level are showing consideration. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) According to Fiedler, leadership style is an enduring characteristic which managers cannot change. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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108) According to Fiedler, leader-member relations describe the extent to which work to be performed is clear-cut. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) According to Fiedler, position power is the amount of legitimate, reward, and coercive power a leader has by virtue of their position in an organization. ⊚ ⊚

110)

true false

When task structure is high, situations are favourable for leading, according to Fiedler. ⊚ ⊚

true false

111) According to Fiedler, when conditions are either very favourable or very unfavourable, a relationship-oriented leadership is best suited. ⊚ ⊚

112)

true false

When it comes to leading, managers expect goal achievement, but no more. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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113) While leaders look to the big picture, providing vision and strategy, managers are charged with implementing vision and strategy. ⊚ ⊚

114)

true false

Managers tend to seek innovation rather than stability. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) Path-goal theory focuses on what a leader can do to motivate subordinates to achieve organizational goals. ⊚ ⊚

116)

true false

Path-goal theory is based on the traits of determination and dominance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

117) It is appropriate for a leader to use directive behaviours with very experienced and motivated employees, according to path-goal theory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

118) It is appropriate for a leader to use achievement-oriented behaviours when subordinates are overworked.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

119) Characteristics of subordinates or characteristics of a situation or context that act in place of the influence of a leader and make leadership unnecessary. ⊚ ⊚

true false

120) A leader substitute is something that acts in place of the influence of a leader and makes leadership unnecessary. ⊚ ⊚

121)

true false

Steve Jobs of Apple and Jack Welch of General Electric are considered visionary leaders. ⊚ ⊚

true false

122) When organizations need an extreme overhaul, they often look for leadership to turn the company's fortunes around. ⊚ ⊚

true false

123) Transformational leadership, charismatic leadership, and turnaround leadership have the common element of being able to envision how an organization could be and being able to articulate it to followers in a way that inspires them to be part of the change that is needed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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124) Transformational leaders motivate their subordinates to work solely for their own personal gain and benefit. ⊚ ⊚

true false

125) Leaders who guide their subordinates toward expected goals with no expectations of exceeding those goals are known as transformational leaders. ⊚ ⊚

true false

126) Charismatic leaders stimulate subordinates intellectually and show developmental consideration towards them. ⊚ ⊚

true false

127) Research suggests that male managers and female managers who have leadership positions in organizations behave in similar ways. ⊚ ⊚

true false

128) Canadian and U.S. organizations tend to have a shorter-term profit horizon than the Japanese. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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129)

The European culture tends to have a profit horizon similar to the U.S. and Canada. ⊚ ⊚

true false

130) According to research, the moods and emotions that leaders experience on the job do not affect their leadership effectiveness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

131) When a manager is aware of their level of emotions and can handle moods in a positive way, they are said to be emotionally intelligent. ⊚ ⊚

true false

132) The discretionary leadership model has enabled Amazon to scale while maintaining a functional organizational structure where experts lead other experts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

133) While women have certainly made inroads into leadership positions in organizations, they continue to be very underrepresented in top leadership posts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_7ce_Jones 1) A 2) B 3) D 4) D 5) E 6) A 7) E 8) E 9) C 10) B 11) E 12) D 13) B 14) D 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) E 19) B 20) B 21) E 22) B 23) E 24) A 25) D 26) C Version 1

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27) E 28) C 29) C 30) B 31) C 32) A 33) B 34) D 35) E 36) A 37) C 38) B 39) E 40) C 41) C 42) A 43) E 44) E 45) A 46) B 47) A 48) C 49) D 50) E 51) B 52) C 53) C 54) A 55) D 56) E Version 1

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57) E 58) D 59) E 60) B 61) B 62) A 63) B 64) C 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE Version 1

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103) FALSE 104) FALSE 105) FALSE 106) FALSE 107) TRUE 108) FALSE 109) TRUE 110) TRUE 111) FALSE 112) TRUE 113) TRUE 114) FALSE 115) TRUE 116) FALSE 117) FALSE 118) FALSE 119) TRUE 120) TRUE 121) TRUE 122) TRUE 123) TRUE 124) FALSE 125) FALSE 126) TRUE 127) TRUE 128) TRUE 129) FALSE 130) FALSE 131) TRUE 132) FALSE Version 1

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133) TRUE

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CHAPTER 10 1) At which stage of group development is a task force after it submits its final report on the project on which the group has been working?

A) Norming B) Storming C) Adjourning D) Forming E) Performing

2) Which of the following does NOT represent how groups respond to members who deviate from the groups' norms?

A) Expel the member B) Reward the member C) Change the norm D) Punish the member E) Reprimand the member

3)

Which of the following roles is NOT an example of a task-oriented role?

A) Initiating B) Elaborating C) Clarifying D) Harmonizing E) Consensus testing

4) After Michael's comments during the group discussion, Esther said, "Thank you. Is the group ready to decide about this?" Esther is acting in the role of:

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A) Harmonizing B) Initiating C) Clarifying D) Consensus testing E) Encouraging

5) After Michael's comments during the group discussion, Esther said, "Thank you. I think what you started to say is important, please continue." Esther is: A) Harmonizing B) Initiating C) Clarifying D) Consensus testing E) Encouraging

6) After Susan's comments during the group discussion Jack said, "Thank you. Fred do you have a response to Susan's thoughts?" Jack is acting in the role of: A) Initiator B) Harmonizer C) Compromiser D) Encourager E) Gatekeeper

7) A conflict handling behaviour where one person tries to satisfy their own interests, without regard to the interests of the other party, is known as:

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A) avoiding B) competing C) compromising D) accommodating E) collaborating

8) Research and development (R&D) teams are a common practice in all of the following industries,except: A) High-tech B) Electronic imaging C) Computers D) Electronics E) Agriculture

9) When an advertising agency creates a work group to develop an ad campaign for a client, which contains a writer, an art designer, and a marketing manager, this is an example of which type of group?

A) Standing committee B) Virtual team C) Cross-cultural team D) Cross-functional team E) Top-management team

10)

All of the following are considered determinants of group cohesion,except:

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A) The degree of emphasis on group goal accomplishment B) The type of group C) The degree of conformity to group norms D) The degree of participation within a group E) The emphasis on organizational goal accomplishment

11) Groups of employees who supervise their own activities and monitor the quality of the goods and services they provide is known as: A) Virtual groups B) Self-managed work teams C) Departments D) Informal groups E) Interest groups

12) Managers usually form _________ to improve quality, increase motivation, increase satisfaction, and lower costs.

A) self-managed teams B) virtual teams C) departments D) task forces E) standing committees

13) _____________ is a critical analysis of a preferred alternative to pinpoint its strengths and weaknesses before it is implemented.

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A) Task significance B) Brainstorming C) Devil's advocacy D) Selection analysis E) Alternative appraisal

14)

All of the following exemplify a maintenance role,except: A) Compromising B) Gatekeeping C) Encouraging D) Summarizing E) Harmonizing

15) Compared to members of large groups, members of small groups tend to do all the following,except: A) Interact more with each other B) Be more motivated, satisfied, and committed C) Find it easier to share information with one another D) See more clearly the importance of their contributions to the group's success E) Use intimidation tactics to elevate their position in the group.

16)

Which of the following is NOT one of the five stages of group development?

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A) Adjourning B) Storming C) Forming D) Performing E) Informing

17) In terms of the stages of group development, when the members of the group are getting to know one another and attempting to reach an understanding of how each of them should act within the group, this is known as: A) Storming B) Norming C) Forming D) Adjourning E) Performing

18) When a research and development (R&D) team is composed of managers from engineering, marketing, and production, as well as members of the R&D department, this is an example of which type of group?

A) Informal team B) Cross-functional team C) Friendship team D) Cross-cultural team E) Interest team

19) Which term best describes a group which includes members of different departments, such as finance, marketing, production, and engineering?

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A) R&D team B) Cross-functional team C) Functional team D) Task force E) Virtual team

20)

Which of the following is NOT a key element of group dynamics?

A) Group size and roles B) Group leadership C) Group development D) Group norms E) Group mentality

21)

Shared guidelines or rules of behaviour that most group members follow are called: A) Sequential task interdependence rules B) Synergy C) Group norms D) Division of labour E) Task interdependence

22) According to research findings, when group cohesiveness is ________, the members of the group strongly ________ their group membership and have a ________ desire to remain a member of the group.

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A) high; value; weak B) low; value; strong C) high; value; strong D) low; devalue; strong E) Moderate; value; weak

23)

For which of the following do group members typically NOT develop norms?

A) Sharing of information among members B) How various group tasks should be performed C) How members of the group should dress D) Working hours of the group E) The formal goals of the group

24)

Sources of organizational conflict include all but which of the following?

A) Scarce resources B) Status inconsistencies C) Incompatible goals D) Task interdependencies E) Synergies

25) Groups and teams increase an organization's competitive advantage by all of the following,except:

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A) Enhancing performance B) Increasing responsiveness to customers C) Increasing innovation D) Increasing employee motivation and satisfaction E) Leveraging groupthink

26)

Large groups offer the advantage of: A) The possibility of a specialized division of labour B) Members spend more time communicating what they know to others C) Individual productivity decreases D) Social loafing increases E) Group performance suffers

27) A team whose members rarely or never meet face to face and interact by using various forms of information technology such as email, computer networks, telephones, faxes, and video conferences is known as a(n): A) Command team B) Virtual team C) Initial team D) Cross-cultural group E) Cross-functional group

28) The ________ with which team members work together and the presence of a specific ____________ distinguishes a team from a group.

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A) cohesiveness; objective B) intensity; objective C) intensity; need D) cohesiveness; need E) loyalty; adversary

29)

Roles performed by group members to make sure the task gets done are known as: A) Group roles B) Task-oriented roles C) Maintenance roles D) Virtual roles E) Experience-related roles

30) Roles performed by group members to make sure there are good relations among group members are known as: A) Group roles B) Task-oriented roles C) Maintenance roles D) Virtual teams E) Role making

31) A set of behaviours and tasks that a member of a group is expected to perform because of their position in the group is known as:

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A) Group roles B) Task-oriented roles C) Maintenance teams D) Virtual teams E) Departments

32) After a task force submits its final report with a recommendation that the organization should not launch a new product that the R&D department has been developing, at which stage of group development is this task force?

A) Forming B) Norming C) Performing D) Adjourning E) Storming

33) Close ties between the members of the group typically are formed during which one of the stages of group development?

A) Norming B) Adjourning C) Performing D) Storming E) Forming

34) In terms of the stages of group development, when the members of the group have disagreements because some members do not want to do what some of the other members want them to do, this is known as:

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A) Forming B) Norming C) Performing D) Storming E) Adjourning

35)

Being responsive to customer's needs means balancing all BUT which of the following?

A) the budget B) engineering constraints C) production costs and feasibilities D) government safety regulations E) marketing challenges

36) The tendency of group members to exert less effort when they work in groups than they would exert if they were acting alone is known as: A) Synergy B) Sequential task interdependence C) Reciprocal task interdependence D) Social loafing E) Virtual teamwork

37) To diminish and discourage dysfunctional conflict, managers can do all of the following,except:

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A) Promote positive group norms B) Promote cohesiveness C) Reduce collaboration D) Reduce interpersonal hostility E) Alter the source of conflict

38) When the sales managers for four product lines work for one hour by videoconference and communicate by email, this is an example of which type of group?

A) Informal group B) Virtual team C) Role making group D) Special interest group E) Interest group

39)

All of the following are strategies to diminish relationship conflict,except: A) Developing high levels of emotional intelligence among members B) Promote cohesiveness C) Seek clarification of the task D) Promote positive group norms E) Use collaborative conflict-handling behaviours

40) A committee of managers or nonmanagerial employees from various departments or divisions who meet to solve a specific, mutual problem, also called an ad hoc committee, is known as a:

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A) Departments B) Task force C) Self-managed work team D) Self-directed work team E) Virtual group

41)

All of the following are characteristics of self-managed teams,except: A) Team members develop their own goals B) They can take longer to accomplish tasks C) Sometimes there is difficulty coordinating efforts D) Members may be reluctant to discipline one another E) Emotional intelligence is a critical skill for team members

42) The degree to which the members of the group are attracted to membership in the group is known as: A) Group dynamics B) Group cohesiveness C) Synergy D) Group norms E) Role making

43) Two or more people who interact with each other to accomplish certain goals or meet certain needs are known as a:

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A) Team B) Group C) Task force D) Self-directed team E) Virtual team

44) When teams increase their productivity half way to the deadline of the project, this is known as: A) performing B) the mid-point C) task interdependence D) storming E) the groupthink dilemma

45)

In which stage of group development does the real work of the group get accomplished?

A) Forming B) Storming C) Norming D) Performing E) Adjourning

46) Which stage of group development applies only to groups that eventually are disbanded, such as task forces?

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A) Forming B) Storming C) Norming D) Performing E) Adjourning

47) In which stage of group development are interpersonal conflicts resolved and close ties between group members developed?

A) Forming B) Storming C) Norming D) Performing E) Adjourning

48) In which stage of group development does a strong sense of team identity, feelings of friendship and camaraderie emerge?

A) Forming B) Storming C) Norming D) Performing E) Adjourning

49)

In which stage of group development do power struggles and disputes typically arise?

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A) Forming B) Storming C) Norming D) Performing E) Adjourning

50) In which stage of group development should managers attempt to reduce anxieties and uncertainty by striving to make each member feel like a valued part of the group?

A) Forming B) Storming C) Norming D) Performing E) Adjourning

51)

In which stage of group development are self-managed teams most likely to struggle?

A) Forming B) Storming C) Norming D) Performing E) Adjourning

52) It seemed to Hamid that his group had become preoccupied with achieving a sense of agreement at the expense of more accurately assessing the information needed for the job at hand. Hamid's group appears to be developing:

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A) Synergy B) Social loafing C) Task roles D) Harmonizing roles E) Groupthink

53) A group of college students are working together on a marketing presentation but cannot seem to agree on the strategic management process as it applies to the organization they are considering. This is an example of: A) Relationship conflict B) Groupthink C) Task-related conflict D) Negative reinforcement E) Situation-related conflict

54) When accountants in an accounting department concentrate on serving the needs of their own clients independently, they are acting as a ________.

A) Group B) Team C) Norm D) Responsive advisor to their clients E) Performance enhancer

55)

Conformity to group norms can occur for all of the following reasons,except:

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A) They want to obtain rewards B) They want to imitate group members whom they like and admire C) They have internalized the norm and believe it is the right and proper way to behave D) They don't care what others think E) They want to avoid punishments

56)

Group members conform to norms for all of the following reasons, except: A) They believe it is the right and proper way to behave B) They want to obtain rewards C) They want to avoid punishments D) They want to imitate group members whom they like and admire E) They will to create dissention in the group.

57) Which type of group is responsible for developing strategies that give the organization a competitive advantage?

A) R&D Team B) Departments C) Top-Management Team D) Task Force E) Virtual Team

58) Which type of group is responsible for developing new software for a company such as Apple?

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A) R&D Team B) Departments C) Top-Management Team D) Task Force E) Virtual Team

59) A group composed of the CEO, the president, and the heads of the most important departments is known as a(n): A) Informal group B) Formal group C) Virtual group D) Top-management team E) Departments

60)

The punctuated-equilibrium model follows which process?

A) Five phases of group development B) Four phases of group development C) Three phases of group development D) Two phases with a moment of transition E) Two independent phases with no connection

61)

A dual reporting mechanism found in Matrix teams may cause which type of conflict?

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A) Scarce resource conflict B) Status inconsistency conflict C) Overlapping authority conflict D) Task interdependency conflict E) Incompatible reward systems conflict

62) Division heads and plant managers may experience ________ over allocation of budgets, because there is rarely enough money to meet everyone's needs.

A) Scarce resource conflict B) Status inconsistency conflict C) Overlapping authority conflict D) Task interdependency conflict E) Incompatible reward systems conflict

63) All teams are groups, but not all groups are teams. Discuss the characteristics that distinguish "teams" from "groups" and give a specific business example that clarifies this distinction.

64) Managers frequently form teams in order to accomplish organizational goals, but often there are additional benefits to the organization that make a team approach successful. Discuss these benefits and give specific examples of how each of them can help the organization to perform more effectively.

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65) Explain what is meant by "taskforce," and give a specific business example of a situation in which the use of a task force would be a good activity for the organization.

66) What is a virtual team? What are the advantages and disadvantages of virtual teams?

What types of protocols should be used when managing virtual teams?

67) Compare task-oriented roles with maintenance roles. Give one example of each type of role found in a R&D team.

68) Outline the benefits of small groups, compared to groups with a large number of members. Can you think of a business example where large groups would be more appropriate than small groups?

69) What are some of the guidelines recommended for creating effective virtual teams? Have these changed with COVID-19?

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70) Discuss the steps that managers can take to make self-managed work teams more effective.

71) Self-managed work teams can improve the effectiveness and the efficiency of the organization. Discuss the positive outcomes that can occur with these types of teams. Are there any negative outcomes managers should be aware of?

72) Discuss how the elements of group dynamics can influence the functioning and effectiveness of groups.

73)

Describe the two phases of group development in the punctuated-equilibrium model.

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74)

Explain why group members conform to norms.

75) Explain why it is important for groups to have a balance of conformity and deviance and a moderate level of cohesiveness.

76) Social loafing can be a very detrimental practice to the effectiveness of an organization.

Explain what is meant by this concept and discuss three specific steps that managers can take to reduce or to eliminate this undesirable work behaviour.

77) Discuss group decision making processes including the perils of groupthink and how creativity can be promoted.

78)

Evaluate how managers can help groups manage conflict effectively.

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79) Discuss two sources of organizational conflict and how managers might resolve the situation.

80) Groups and teams improve organizational effectiveness by enhancing performance, increasing responsiveness to customers, increasing innovation, and increasing motivation and satisfaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) People working in teams are able to produce more or higher quality outputs than would have been produced if each person had worked separately and all their individual efforts had been combined. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

All teams are groups, but not all groups are teams. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) Bringing salespeople, research and development experts, and members of other departments together in a group or cross-functional team can enhance responsiveness to customers by increasing the skills and expertise available.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

84) Successful innovation sometimes requires that managers form teams with members from different countries and cultures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Working in a group or team can satisfy organizational members' needs for engaging in social interaction and feeling connected to other people. ⊚ ⊚

86)

Top-management teams are responsible for developing new products. ⊚ ⊚

87)

true false

true false

Task forces are sometimes called ad hoc committees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Standing committees are task forces that are temporary and adjourn once the project is solved or the timeframe is finished. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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89) Self-managed teams are teams in which members are empowered and have the responsibility and autonomy to complete identifiable pieces of work. ⊚ ⊚

90)

Membership in standing committees changes over time. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

true false

Cross-functional team are always considered to be informal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Rarely will a task force have a timeline associated with the work that is to be accomplished. ⊚ ⊚

93)

true false

An important characteristic of virtual teams is that they meet frequently face to face. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Friendship groups are informal groups composed of employees who enjoy one another's company and socialize with one another.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

95) An essential criterion for consistency and stability of a standing committees is that membership does not change. ⊚ ⊚

96)

Virtual teams can include members who are not employees of the organization itself. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

true false

Managers are generally prohibited from forming friendship groups. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) Group dynamics is the term used to describe the characteristics and processes involved in how effectively groups function. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) The optimal size for a Research and Development group developing new software was found to be eight people, according to the former chief technology officer at Microsoft Corporation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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100) Roles performed by group members to make sure the tasks get done are known as maintenance roles. ⊚ ⊚

101)

Gatekeeping is a role that builds and maintains good group relations. ⊚ ⊚

102)

true false

true false

Consensus testing is a role that builds and maintains good group relations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) Some self-managed teams find it effective to rotate the leadership role among their members. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) Researchers have identified six stages of group development that many groups seem to pass through. ⊚ ⊚

105)

true false

Groups start getting down to the real work in the forming stage.

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⊚ ⊚

106)

true false

Roles as well as norms control behaviour in groups. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) In order for groups and teams to be effective, they need to have the right balance of conformity and deviance. ⊚ ⊚

108)

Deviance occurs when a member of the group violates a group norm. ⊚ ⊚

109)

true false

true false

Moderate conformity and moderate levels of deviance create a high-performing group. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) The degree to which members of a group are attracted or loyal to the group is called group cohesiveness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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111)

Groupthink occurs when the cohesiveness in in a group becomes dysfunctional. ⊚ ⊚

112)

One of the symptoms of the groupthink phenomenon the illusion of invulnerability. ⊚ ⊚

113)

true false

To promote production blocking, the nominal group technique is often used. ⊚ ⊚

115)

true false

Devil's advocacy is the unpopular agreement of the less-preferred alternative. ⊚ ⊚

114)

true false

true false

Brainstorming is a technique to promote group creativity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) A decision-making technique in which group members write down ideas and solutions, read their suggestions to the whole group, and discuss and then rank the alternative is known as the Delphi technique. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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117) A decision-making technique in which group members write down ideas and solutions, read their suggestions to the whole group, and discuss and then rank the alternative is known as the nominal group technique. ⊚ ⊚

true false

118) Groupthink occurs when members stop examining alternative courses of action in order to strive for agreement. ⊚ ⊚

119)

true false

Devil's advocacy is a technique that can be used to improve group decision making. ⊚ ⊚

true false

120) Conflict among members of a group can stem from the task itself or the attitudes of the members. ⊚ ⊚

true false

121) Members of groups and teams can be motivated to achieve organizational goals when all the members are rewarded for progress toward accomplishing those goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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122) The tendency of workers to put forth less effort when they are working in a group than when they are working alone is known as social loafing. ⊚ ⊚

123)

Social loafing contributes to the success of groups. ⊚ ⊚

124)

true false

true false

The Punctuated-Equilibrium model of group development applies to all types of groups. ⊚ ⊚

true false

125) Task-related conflict (or constructive conflict) occurs when the members of the group perceive a problem or have a disagreement about the way the members are relating to one another. ⊚ ⊚

true false

126) Within organizations conflict occurs for such reasons as overlapping authority, task interdependencies, incompatible evaluation or reward systems, scarce resources, status inconsistencies, and incompatible goals and time horizons. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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127) The dual reporting mechanism in the matrix structure may cause conflicting demands on team members who do not know which manager to satisfy first. This is an example of overlapping authority. ⊚ ⊚

true false

128) Often referred to as status inconsistencies , unclear sets of expectations over responsibilities can lead to conflict and weaken the performance of an organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

129) The behaviours for handling conflict fall along two dimensions: cooperativeness (the degree to which one party tries to satisfy the other party's concerns) and assertiveness (the degree to which one party tries to satisfy their own concerns). ⊚ ⊚

true false

130) When one person tries to please the other person by putting the other's interests ahead of their own, this is known as compromising. ⊚ ⊚

true false

131) When the parties to a conflict try to satisfy their goals without making any concessions and instead come up with a way to resolve their differences that leaves them both better off, this is known as collaborating.

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⊚ ⊚

132)

true false

Withdrawing from conflict is known as competing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

133) Temporary groups, such as task forces, have been found to follow the five-stage development model. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_7ce_Jones 1) C 2) B 3) D 4) D 5) E 6) E 7) B 8) E 9) D 10) B 11) B 12) A 13) C 14) D 15) E 16) E 17) B 18) B 19) B 20) E 21) C 22) C 23) E 24) E 25) E 26) A Version 1

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27) B 28) B 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) D 33) A 34) D 35) A 36) D 37) C 38) B 39) C 40) B 41) A 42) B 43) B 44) B 45) D 46) E 47) C 48) C 49) B 50) A 51) B 52) E 53) C 54) A 55) D 56) E Version 1

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57) C 58) A 59) D 60) D 61) C 62) A 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE Version 1

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104) FALSE 105) FALSE 106) TRUE 107) TRUE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) TRUE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) FALSE 114) FALSE 115) TRUE 116) FALSE 117) TRUE 118) TRUE 119) TRUE 120) TRUE 121) TRUE 122) TRUE 123) FALSE 124) FALSE 125) FALSE 126) TRUE 127) TRUE 128) FALSE 129) TRUE 130) FALSE 131) TRUE 132) FALSE 133) FALSE Version 1

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CHAPTER 11 1)

Given the information below, determine this organization's gross profit margin:

Net Sales Revenue $300,000 Cost of Goods Sold $150,000 Net Profit $20,000 Total Assets $250,00 A) 15% B) 20% C) 50% D) 30% E) 40%

2) The type of control system, which uses rules and SOPs to regulate the behaviour of workers within the organization, is known as: A) a bureaucratic control system B) an MBO system C) a feedback control system D) a feedforward control system E) a concurrent control system

3) When a division manager is evaluated based on the difference between the revenues and cost figures of their division, this is an example of: A) a cash flow budget approach B) a capital budget approach C) a revenue budget approach D) an expense budget approach E) a profit budget approach

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4) When a division manager is given an operating budget of $2.2 million for the coming year and is evaluated based on the amount of goods that can be produced within that budget, this is called: A) a revenue budget approach B) a cash flow budget approach C) an expense budget approach D) a profit budget approach E) a capital budget approach

5) When a division manager is told to "maximize revenue from the sales of goods and services produced," they are being told to take which approach?

A) A profit budget approach B) A revenue budget approach C) An expense budget approach D) A cash flow budget approach E) A capital budget approach

6)

All of the following are mechanisms of behaviour control,except: A) MBO B) Direct supervision C) Bureaucratic rules D) Corporate governance E) Output control

7) The type of control system within an organization that is characterized by shared values and standards of behaviour is known as: Version 1

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A) bureaucratic control B) feedforward control C) clan control D) feedback control E) concurrent control

8)

The third step in the control process is: A) establishing standards of performance B) measuring actual performance C) comparing actual levels to the standards of performance D) evaluating actual levels of performance E) ranking performance outcomes of competitors

9)

An organization's production system involves all of the following,except: A) acquiring raw materials B) marketing finished products C) converting inputs into outputs D) distributing outputs E) acquiring component parts

10) Which of the five "Ps" of the organization's operations focuses on technology and workflow?

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A) People B) Plants C) Parts D) Processes E) Planning and control systems

11)

Which of the five "Ps" of the organization's operations focuses on the facilities?

A) People B) Plants C) Parts D) Processes E) Planning and control systems

12) Which of the five "Ps" of the organization's operations focuses on standards and measures for quality control?

A) People B) Plants C) Parts D) Processes E) Planning and control systems

13)

The components of an effective output control system are:

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A) Objective financial measures, performance standards derived from goals, and appropriate operating budgets B) Subjective financial measures, performance standards derived from goals, and appropriate operating budgets C) Cost budget analysis, divisional goals, and performance standards D) Capital budget planning, evaluation of results, and corrective action taken when necessary E) Feedforward, control mechanisms, capital budget planning, and operational goals

14) This type of ratio is used to determine if a company has the resources available to meet the claims of short-term creditors: A) ROI B) quick ratio C) current ratio D) inventory turnover E) days sales outstanding

15) Formal target-setting, monitoring, evaluation, and feedback systems that provide managers with information about how well the organization's strategy and structure are working is known as: A) concurrent control B) control system C) feedback control D) feedforward control E) behaviour control

16) Control that gives managers immediate feedback on how efficiently inputs are being transformed into outputs so that managers can correct problems as they arise is known as:

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A) concurrent control B) control system C) feedback control D) feedforward control E) behaviour control

17) Control that gives managers information about customers' reactions to goods and services so that corrective action can be taken if necessary, is known as: A) concurrent control B) control system C) feedback control D) feedforward control E) behaviour control

18) A budget that states how managers intend to use organizational resources to achieve organizational goals is known as: A) financial budget B) capital budget C) functional budget D) operating budget E) master budget

19) A system designed to measure how consumer tastes are changing in order to determine the most efficient production levels is an example of:

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A) feedforward control B) feedback control C) functional control D) bureaucratic control E) concurrent control

20)

An effective control system:

A) is flexible enough to allow managers to deal with unexpected events B) provides accurate information C) gives managers a true picture of organizational performance D) provides managers with timely information E) is flexible, provides accurate information, in a timely manner, and gives managers a true picture of performance

21)

Return on investment is: A) net profit after taxes divided by total assets B) net income before taxes divided by total assets C) gross profit margin D) operating profit E) operating costs

22) Corporate governance concerns a number of issues involved in a company's leadership, including all of the following,except:

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A) levels of executive pay B) how they deal with shareholder rights C) how they conduct audits D) how they create strategy E) internal control systems

23) Which of the following terms describes an organization's net profit after taxes divided by its total assets?

A) Gross profit margin B) Return on capital C) Return on investment D) Operating margin E) The current ratio

24) Which of the following terms describes the difference between the amount of revenue generated by a product and the resources used to produce the product?

A) Gross profit margin B) Return on capital C) Return on investment D) Operating margin E) The current ratio

25) Which of the following terms tells managers whether they have the resources available to meet the claims of short-term creditors?

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A) Gross profit margin B) Return on capital C) Return on investment D) Operating margin E) The current ratio

26) Which of the following terms describes the degree to which managers use debt (borrow money) or equity (issue new shares) to finance ongoing operations?

A) Gross profit margin B) Times-covered ratio C) Return on investment D) Quick ratio E) The current ratio

27) Which of the following measures how well managers are creating value from organizational assets?

A) Liquidity rations B) Times-covered ratios C) Investment ratios D) Activity ratios E) Current ratios

28) Which of the following measures how efficiently managers are turning inventory over so that excess inventory is not carried?

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A) Gross profit margin B) Times-covered ratios C) Investment ratios D) Inventory turnover E) Current ratios

29) Control systems are intended to make organizations more successful by helping managers with all of the following,except: A) Adapt to change and uncertainty B) Reduce costs C) Increase routine decision making D) Deal with complexity E) Facilitate teamwork

30) The process by which managers monitor and regulate the efficiency and effectiveness of the members of an organization in achieving its goals, is called: A) Planning B) Organizing C) Leading D) Controlling E) Coordinating

31)

All of the following are measures of financial performance,except:

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A) Profit ratios B) Liquidity ratios C) Leverage ratios D) Activity ratios E) Feedforward ratios

32)

The steps in the control process are:

A) Establishing standards, measuring performance, evaluating performance, and taking corrective action B) Establishing standards, evaluating performance, comparing, and taking corrective action C) Measuring performance, comparing, evaluating actual performance, and taking corrective action D) Establishing standards, evaluating performance, measuring performance, and confirming appropriate standards E) Establishing standards of performance, then measuring, comparing, and evaluating actual performance

33)

The variety of standards set by managers include all of the following,except: A) time B) clan control C) output D) quality E) behavioural

34) When operations managers screen job applicants by using several interviews to select the most highly skilled people, this is an example of:

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A) concurrent control B) conversion control C) output control D) feedforward control E) feedback control

35) For many organizational activities, output and behaviour controls are inappropriate for all of the following reasons,except: A) Professionals engage in work that is hard to apply SOPs to B) SOPs are of little use in crisis situations C) Output controls measure quality well D) It is difficult to monitor all employees on a day-to-day basis E) Rules are of little use in situations requiring innovation

36) At the ________ stage of the process of transforming raw materials into finished goods, managers typically use ________ control procedures to anticipate problems before they occur.

A) input; concurrent B) conversion; feedforward C) output; concurrent D) input; feedforward E) conversion; feedback

37) At the ________ stage of the process of transforming raw materials into finished goods, operations managers typically use ________ control procedures to obtain immediate feedback about how efficiently the raw materials are being transformed into finished goods.

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A) conversion; concurrent B) input; feedback C) output; feedforward D) input; concurrent E) output; concurrent

38)

Clan control arises from: A) An externally imposed system of constraints B) Rules and SOPs C) Procedures used in the organization D) Direct supervision E) Organizational culture

39) When an organization monitors the number of customer returns for each product model in an attempt to recognize when the organization is producing a large number of defective products, this is an example of: A) feedforward control B) concurrent control C) production control D) feedback control E) bureaucratic control

40) ________ ratios measure how efficiently managers are using the organization's resources to generate profits.

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A) Activity B) Functional C) Profit D) Leverage E) Liquidity

41) This ratio measures the extent to which managers have used borrowed funds to finance investments: A) debt-to-assets ratio B) times-covered ratio C) quick ratio D) current ratio E) days sales outstanding

42) Control systems can help an organization gain a competitive advantage by increasing all of the following,except: A) Efficiency B) Quality C) Responsiveness to customers D) Innovation E) Bureaucracy

43)

The ________ is the most commonly used financial performance measure.

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A) current ratio B) inventory turnover C) return on investment D) gross profit E) quick ratio

44) In general, the more _________ organizational activities are, the _______ it is for managers to measure outputs or behaviours.

A) complex; easier B) routine; complex C) routine; harder D) complex; harder E) planned; more difficult

45)

The most immediate form of behaviour control is: A) MBO B) direct supervision C) rules D) standard operating procedures E) output control

46) A goal-setting process in which a manager and their subordinates negotiate specific goals and objectives for the subordinate to achieve and then periodically evaluates the extent to which the subordinate is achieving those goals is known as:

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A) MBO B) direct supervision C) rules D) standard operating procedures E) output control

47) Which of the following terms refers to the quantity of the service or product the employee is to produce?

A) Time standards B) Form standards C) Utility standards D) Output standards E) Behavioural standards

48) Which of the following terms refers to the quality of the actions which employees take in achieving organizational goals?

A) Time standards B) Form standards C) Utility standards D) Output standards E) Behavioural standards

49) Which of the following terms is used to measure the efficiency of production by monitoring and evaluating the actual costs associated with producing goods and services?

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A) Time standards B) Variable costs C) Utility standards D) Output standards E) Operating costs

50)

Output standards set: A) the quantity of the service or product the employee is to produce B) the quality expected in the delivery of goods or services C) the standards that govern the number of hours worked D) the standards that govern how long it is supposed to take to complete a task E) the norms that govern how co-workers should interact with one another

51) In ________, managers monitor and evaluate whether their organization's strategy and structure are working as intended, how they could be improved, and how they might be changed if they are not working.

A) Planning B) Organizing C) Leading D) Controlling E) Directing

52) __________ can govern such factors as hours worked, punctuality, dress code, or how one interacts with customers and other stakeholders.

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A) Output standards B) Time standards C) Behavioural standards D) Operating costs E) Control standards

53) In step ____ of the decision-making process, a variance analysis can be used to determine if corrective action is appropriate.

A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four E) Five

54)

When managers decide that corrective action is appropriate, they tend to: A) Punish the employees for not meeting the standard B) Revise the standard or address the work processes C) Reward the employees for not meeting the standard D) Predict the outcome with certainty E) Predict the outcome with uncertainty

55) When actual performance is compared with expected performance, all of the following choices are possible results,except:

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A) The results are uncertain.

B) Either the performance is greater than the standard, less than standard, or has met the standard.

C) The performance is less than standard.

D) The performance has met the standard.

E) The performance is greater than the standard.

56)

An __________job is to manage the three stages of production.

A) Marketing Manager's B) Financial Manager's C) Controller Manager's D) Operation's manager's E) Human Resources Manager's

57)

Operation's managers are responsible for all of the following,except:

A) The acquisition of inputs.

B) The control of conversion processes.

C) Dispersing of finished goods and services.

D) Determining where operating improvements might be made in order to increase quality, efficiency, and responsiveness to customers.

E) Manage the four stages of production.

58)

ESG and DEI goals stand for:

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A) Environmental, social goals, and diversity, employment and inclusion.

B) Environmental, social and governance, and Diversity, equity and inclusion.

C) Environmental, social and government, and Diversity, equity and inclusion.

D) Environmental, societal and governance, and Diversity, employment and inclusion.

E) Environmental, social and government, and Diversity, empowerment and inclusion.

59)

All of the following choices are outcomes of producing high quality goods,except:

A) Higher product quality means more time has to be spent fixing mistakes B) Customers usually prefer a higher-quality product to a lower-quality product C) Higher product quality can increase efficiency and thereby lower operating costs and boost profits D) Higher product quality can lead to higher employee productivity, which means lower costs E) Higher product quality means less employee time is wasted in making defective products

60)

Why is managing efficiency an important to an organization?

A) Increased efficiency lowers production costs B) Increased efficiency leads to greater profit C) Increased efficiency means an organization can attract more customers D) Increased efficiency means an organization can lower its price E) All of these choices are correct

61) In a ________ machines are organized so that each operation needed to manufacture a product is performed at workstations arranged in a fixed sequence.

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A) Just-in-Time layout B) Fixed position C) Flexible layout D) Process layout E) Product layout

62)

Just-in-time (JIT) inventory systems: A) Allow managers to warehouse inventory B) Allow managers to stockpile needed inputs C) Allow managers to not rely so heavily on supply chains D) Allow managers to quickly spot defective inputs E) Allow managers to have extra parts available

63)

Unintended racism may stem from: A) Output control mechanisms B) The cultural norms underpinning clan control C) Feedback control D) Concurrent control E) Operations control

64) Discuss the three characteristics of an effective control system in an organization and illustrate each of them with a specific example from an organization of your choosing.

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65) Define feedforward control, concurrent control, and feedback control. Give one example of each in a production process of your choice.

66) The control process can be broken down into four steps. Discuss these four steps, as they would apply to an important management situation of your choosing.

67) Managers typically use three primary measures to assess the output performance of their organization. Discuss these three types of measures and give one specific example of how a manager would use each of the measures that you select in a situation of your choosing.

68) The top managers of an organization typically use a variety of financial indicators to assess the performance of their organization. Discuss the four major types of financial measures used by these managers and give one specific example of each of these measures in terms of how it would be computed.

69) Management by objectives (MBO) is one way that managers can use goals or objectives to evaluate the performance of subordinates. Discuss the steps involved in using this technique in terms of a specific example of your choosing.

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70) Describe the problems associated with direct supervision as a behavioural control mechanism. Do the pitfalls outweigh the usefulness of this technique?

71) All organizations make use of bureaucratic control methods in their dealings with the employees of the organization. This type of control system can, however, create problems for the subordinates. Discuss these types of problems and explain what an organization's managers can do to reduce these types of problems within the organization.

72) How could an auto manufacturer use controlling mechanisms to gain a competitive advantage?

73)

How can operations management help managers create a competitive advantage?

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74) Discuss the importance of organizational control in helping managers perform their work.

What do you think is the most important aspect of control?

75)

Compare the old and new forms of corporate governance.

76) The process by which managers monitor and regulate the organization to determine if the organization is operating efficiently and effectively is known as controlling. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) The control function is limited to reacting to events in a business after the events have already occurred. ⊚ ⊚

78)

true false

The first step in the control process is to measure actual results. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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79)

The first step in the control process is to measure actual performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Output standards refer to the quantity of the service or product the employee is to produce. ⊚ ⊚

81)

There are five steps in the control process. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

Time standards refer to the quantity of the service or product the employee is to produce. ⊚ ⊚

83)

true false

true false

The first step in the control process is to establish standards for performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) Some companies instruct staff that all emails must be answered within 24 hours. This is an example of an output standard.

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⊚ ⊚

85)

true false

An operations manager is responsible for managing an organization's production system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) An effective control system does not have to be flexible, but it does need to provide accurate information to give manager's a true picture of organizational performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Giving stringent product specifications to suppliers in advance is an example of feedforward control. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) The conversion stage of any production system is focused on the acquisition of raw materials and other component parts. ⊚ ⊚

89)

true false

Feedforward control measures are effective at the input stage. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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90)

Feedback control measures are useful at the input stage. ⊚ ⊚

91)

Feedback control measures are useful at the conversion stage. ⊚ ⊚

92)

true false

true false

Concurrent control is at the heart of total quality management programs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) A system that alerts managers to excessive customer returns is an example of concurrent control. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Information about customers' reactions to new goods and services is provided through feedback control. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

All managers develop a system of output control for their organizations.

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⊚ ⊚

96)

true false

Return on investment is an example of a liquidity ratio. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Activity ratios provide measures of how well managers are using organizational resources to generate profits. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) Once top managers have set organizational goals, they establish performance standards for every department and division. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) An operating budget is a blueprint that states how managers intend to use organizational resources to achieve organizational goals efficiently. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) The long term is what managers should be most concerned about when it comes to output control. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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101) Direct supervision, management by objectives, and bureaucratic rules are considered output control mechanisms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Corporate governance principles are used to hold managers accountable for their behaviour. ⊚ ⊚

103)

true false

Corporate governance is the process companies use to be accountable to its stakeholders. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) Since implementing a management by objectives system can be complex, very few companies make use of this process. ⊚ ⊚

105)

Rules and SOP guides are fundamental to bureaucratic control. ⊚ ⊚

106)

true false

true false

Administering ever harsher discipline should be progressive.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

107) A problem with relying on rules and regulations is that it can stifle creativity and innovation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) William Ouchi used the term "norms" to describe the control exerted on individuals in an organization through shared values, norms, standards of behaviour, and expectations. ⊚ ⊚

109)

The control arising from clan control is an externally imposed system of constraints. ⊚ ⊚

110)

true false

Control systems can allow decentralized decision making and facilitate teamwork. ⊚ ⊚

111)

true false

true false

Control systems help managers adapt to change. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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112)

Control systems help managers deal with complex decision making. ⊚ ⊚

113)

true false

Control systems help managers uncover irregularities in product lines. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) Effective managers create a control system that consistently monitors the quality of goods and services so that they can make continuous improvements to quality. ⊚ ⊚

true false

115) When employees know that their behaviours are being monitored, they may also have less incentive to be helpful and consistent in how they act toward customers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116) A CRM system monitors, controls, and links each of the functional activities involved in marketing, selling, and delivering products to customers, such as monitoring the delivery of products through the distribution channel, monitoring salespeople's selling activities, setting product pricing, and coordinating after-sales service. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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117) In controlling, managers monitor and evaluate whether their organization's strategy and structure are working as intended, how they could be improved, and how they might be changed if they are not working. ⊚ ⊚

true false

118) Behavioural standards can govern such factors as hours worked, punctuality, dress code, or how one interacts with customers and other stakeholders. ⊚ ⊚

true false

119) When actual performance is compared with expected performance, there are three possible results. ⊚ ⊚

true false

120) Low-quality products possess attributes such as superior design, features, reliability, and after-sales support; these products are designed to better meet customer requirements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

121) Labour productivity is most commonly used to draw efficiency comparisons between different organizations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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122) The three basic ways of arranging workstations are: product layout, process layout, and fixed-position layout. ⊚ ⊚

true false

123) When an organization has ajust-in-timeinventorysystem, parts or supplies arrive at the organization when they are needed, not before. ⊚ ⊚

true false

124) Managers must sometimes be critical of the assumptions that underlie conceptions about what is best for the company that underpin clan control in order to dismantle systemic or unintended racism in the workplace. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_7ce_Jones 1) C 2) A 3) E 4) C 5) B 6) E 7) C 8) C 9) B 10) D 11) B 12) E 13) A 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) B 20) E 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) E 26) B Version 1

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27) D 28) D 29) C 30) D 31) E 32) E 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) D 37) A 38) E 39) D 40) C 41) A 42) E 43) C 44) D 45) B 46) A 47) D 48) E 49) E 50) A 51) D 52) C 53) C 54) B 55) A 56) D Version 1

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57) E 58) B 59) A 60) E 61) E 62) D 63) B 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE Version 1

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99) TRUE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE 106) TRUE 107) TRUE 108) FALSE 109) FALSE 110) TRUE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE 113) TRUE 114) TRUE 115) FALSE 116) TRUE 117) TRUE 118) TRUE 119) TRUE 120) FALSE 121) TRUE 122) TRUE 123) TRUE 124) TRUE

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CHAPTER 12 1) Which type of change refers to planned new institutional arrangements and policies in response to changes in the task-specific and general organizational environment?

A) Agent change B) Technological change C) Induced change D) Imposed change E) Structural change

2) Which type of change refers to new institutional arrangements that force change in order to comply with the new rules?

A) Agent change B) Technological change C) Induced change D) Imposed change E) Structural change

3) When the Trudeau government legalized marijuana in October 2018, organizations were forced to accept the change and implement strategies to protect the public from its abuse. This exemplifies which type of organizational change?

A) Agent change B) Technological change C) Induced change D) Imposed change E) Structural change

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4) __________ in an organization involves any changes in the way the organization is designed, planned, and controlled including how authority is allocated and how departments and activities are integrated and coordinated.

A) Agent change B) Technological change C) Induced change D) Imposed change E) Structural change

5) The "C" series regional jet from Bombardier exemplifies which type of organizational change?

A) Agent change B) Technological change C) Strategic change D) Imposed change E) Structural change

6)

What are the steps involved in the four-step model of organizational change process?

A) Decide on the change to make, identify the obstacles, introduce the change, and evaluate B) Assess the need for change, decide on the change to make, implement the change, and evaluate C) Assess the need for change, introduce and manage the change, identify and overcome obstacles to the change and evaluate D) Use benchmarking to compare performance, implement the top-down change, overcome obstacles, and evaluate E) Use benchmarking to compare performance, implement the bottom-up change, overcome obstacles, and evaluate

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7)

What is the first step involved in the four-step model of organizational change process?

A) Decide on the change to make B) Assess the need for change C) Introduce and manage the change D) Use benchmarking to compare performance E) Overcome obstacles, and evaluate the effectiveness of the change

8)

Managers can use all of the following to measure the success of the change,except: A) benchmarking B) changes in market share C) changes in profits D) changes in competition E) changes in the ability of managers to meet their goals

9) Padmina wanted to be sure that the changes they had recently overseen stayed in place.

They created a new bonus system to reward those who followed the new procedures. From the perspective of Lewin's model of change, this is an example of: A) Unfreezing B) Moving C) Changing the status quo D) Refreezing E) Skunkworks

10)

Which model of change uses the "Four D's"?

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A) Lewin's model of change B) Kotter's model of change C) Chaos theory D) Complexity theory E) Appreciative inquiry

11) Recent research has suggested that all of the following are essential elements for managing change in unionized environments in Canada, except: A) Creating an effective system for resolving day-to-day grievances B) Creating a jointly administered education process C) Creating a jointly developed strategic vision for the organization D) Creating a non-traditional problem-solving method of negotiating collective agreements E) Creating a way to threaten power relationships

12)

An adaptive culture is represented by all of the following,except: A) Encourages positive attitudes B) Encourages positive behaviours C) Fosters creativity D) Fosters innovation E) Encourages resistance to change

13)

An inert culture is represented by which of the following?

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A) Encourages positive attitudes B) Encourages positive behaviours C) Fosters creativity D) Fosters innovation E) Encourages resistance to change

14)

Resistance to change can be overcome by all of the followingexcept: A) Improving communication B) Empowering employees C) Increasing cynicism D) Emphasizing big-picture goals E) Inviting employees to participate

15) Organizational change can bring alterations in the ways managers carry out the critical tasks of all of the following,except: A) Planning B) Organizing C) Leading D) Controlling E) competing

16) Generally speaking, the __________ an organization is, the __________ is the change process.

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A) More complex; less routine B) less complex; less routine C) Less complex; more complex D) More complex; more complex E) Less complex; more obstructed

17)

Which is NOT true of bottom-up change?

A) It is implemented quickly B) Top managers consult with lower managers about the need for change C) Lower-level managers work with employees to plan the change D) It reduces uncertainty E) It reduces resistance to change

18) Janju wanted to change the way things happened in the customer service department.

According to Lewin's model Janju must first: A) Unfreeze B) Move C) Maintain the status quo D) Refreeze E) Construct a process-engineering group

19)

Which of the following is true of intrapreneurs?

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A) Many intrapreneurs become dissatisfied in an organization that does not support their creativity B) Many intrapreneurs will eventually leave their employers C) Many intrapreneurs eventually start their own organizations D) Many intrapreneurs become entrepreneurs E) All of the choices are correct

20)

Which of the following is NOT true of evaluating the success of a change?

A) Measures can be used to compare how well the organization is performing after the change with how well it was performing before the change B) The success depends on whether the change is from the top down or the bottom up C) Measures could include profits D) Measures could include market share E) Benchmarking could be used as a measure of success

21) A manager who takes ownership of a project and provides the leadership and vision that take a product from the idea stage to the final customer is called a(n): A) Product Supervisor B) Skunkwork Leader C) Product Champion D) Innovator E) Product Follower

22) In terms of Lewin's model of change, changing the status quo occurs during the __________ stage.

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A) unfreezing B) moving C) refreezing D) driving force E) restraining force

23) In terms of Lewin's model of change, making the change permanent occurs during the __________ stage.

A) unfreezing B) moving C) refreezing D) driving force E) restraining force

24) Factors that direct the organization away from the status quo are termed __________ forces.

A) driving B) restraining C) refreezing D) industry E) permanent

25) The first four steps of Kotters' model of change relate to Lewin's concept of which of the following?

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A) Unfreezing B) Moving C) Refreezing D) Dreaming E) Destiny

26) To achieve the state of being on the "edge of chaos," managers must do all of the following,except: A) Decrease channels of communication B) Not set specific agendas C) Rotate people regularly D) Avoid overreliance on the management team E) Avoid excessive "fit"

27) Which of the "Four D's" of appreciative inquiry flows from the dreaming stage, allowing members to develop a common vision of what qualities the organization will have and how it will be structured?

A) Delegation B) Dreaming C) Design D) Delivery E) Doubt

28) Which of the "Four D's" of appreciative inquiry draws on the strengths identified in the discovery step, to enable employees to envision possible futures for the organization?

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A) Delegating B) Dreaming C) Designing D) Delivery E) Distributing

29)

All of the following are included in appreciative inquiry,except: A) Discovery B) Dreaming C) Design D) Doubt E) Destiny

30)

All of the following are examples of a social entrepreneur,except:

A) Someone who developed inexpensive, efficient public transportation.

B) Someone who designed a website for sharing electronic fictional and non-fictional books for the school system to use free of charge.

C) Someone who discovered more efficient ways to harvest grains in third world countries.

D) Someone who designed a profitable business using cheap labour.

E) Someone who provides micro credit to poor rural people to start businesses.

31)

All of the following are true of a social entrepreneur,except:

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A) Social entrepreneurs seek to mobilize resources to solve social problems through creative solutions B) Muhammad Yunus, founder of the Grameen Bank, is a social entrepreneur C) Social entrepreneurs are motivated by the desire to help others and the environment D) Social entrepreneurs pursue initiatives and opportunities to address social problems and unmet needs in order to improve society and well-being E) Social entrepreneurs assume minimal risk projects and shy away from substantial risk initiatives

32) When shifts in the shared set of beliefs, expectations, values, norms, and work routines influence how members of an organization relate to one another and work together to achieve organizational goals, this is known as what type of change?

A) Structural change B) Technological change C) Strategic change D) Cultural change E) Eclectic change

33)

Each of the following is an organizational element that can be changed,except: A) People B) Strategy C) Technology D) Structure E) Competition

34)

All of the following are true statements describing entrepreneurs,except:

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A) They notice opportunities B) They are risk adverse C) They can effectively mobilize resources D) They can see new and improved ways to use resources E) They are creative

35) Which of the following is the first step in the four-step model of organizational change process?

A) They must decide on what the ideal future state of the organization would be B) They must assess the need for change C) They must decide if the structure should be changed D) They must engage in planning how they can best create the ideal future state E) They must identify sources of resistance to change

36) Which of the following is NOT true for managers deciding on the second step in the change process?

A) They must decide on what the ideal future state of the organization would be B) They must assess the need for change C) They must decide if the structure should be changed D) They must engage in planning how they can best create the ideal future state E) They must identify sources of resistance to change

37) Why is it important to create a sense of urgency by making your case in Kotter's plan for implementing change?

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A) Humans, by nature, easily adapt to change.

B) People embrace change easily.

C) It is human nature to want stability in life and work.

D) People tend not to need convincing that change is needed.

E) None of these choices is correct.

38) Compare conservative (inert) and innovative (adaptive) cultures. Assess the difficulty of managing change in each type of corporate culture.

39)

Compare imposed and induced organizational change.

40) Discuss how managers can use the four-step model to introduce and manage change from the top-down and from the bottom-up.

41) Identify and briefly describe the three steps in Lewin's model of change. Identify and briefly describe the two sets of forces that operate throughout this model and give one example of each in a change initiative to digitize a company.

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42) Explain the two primary reasons why individuals resist change. Which do you think has more power?

43) Discuss the Complexity Theory of change. Which elements of the theory do you agree with?

44) Describe the unique approach to change management known as appreciative inquiry.

Apply the appreciative inquiry process to a small company moving from selling groceries to fine foods.

45) Identify and briefly discuss four essential elements for managing change in a unionized environment. Which do you think is the most important element?

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46) What is innovation? How can managers promote innovation? Which element is the most significant in the process of innovation?

47)

Describe what is meant by a social entrepreneur? Give an example of your choosing.

48)

Assess the importance of intrapreneurship and innovation to organizational change.

49) Apply Kotter's 8 Step plan for implementing change to an organization embarked on digitization.

50) Organizational change is the movement of an organization away from its present state and toward some desired future state to increase its efficiency and effectiveness. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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51)

People who take responsibility for a change initiative are known as change makers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

52) Planned new institutional arrangements made to gain a competitive advantage is change that is imposed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) Induced organizational change refers to planned changes within the organization in terms of strategy, technology, human resources, and organizational structure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) When the City of Toronto legislated a ban on smoking in restaurants, all organizations had to accept that change and implement strategies that targeted smokers. This is an example of induced organizational change. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) Building on Lewin's three-step model, John Kotter, a professor at Harvard University, created a more detailed eight-step plan for implementing change. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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56) Appreciative inquiry builds a vision of the future of the organization on its current strengths and core competencies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) Complexity theory suggests that organizations respond best to fundamental change if they are poised on the "edge of chaos"; that is, not perfectly aligned with their environments. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Assessing the need for change calls for two important activities: recognizing that there is a problem and identifying its source. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) The first step in managing the organizational change process involves deciding on the change to make. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) The first step in managing the organizational change process involves assessing the need for change. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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61) When managers introduce the change, they must decide whether change will occur from the top down or from the bottom up. ⊚ ⊚

62)

A performance gap is not a good indicator of the need for change. ⊚ ⊚

63)

true false

Step two in the process of change includes identifying obstacles and resistance to change. ⊚ ⊚

64)

true false

true false

An organization's present strategy and structure can be powerful obstacles to change. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) Moving from a 'bricks and mortar' to a 'clicks and mortar' organization presents few challenges for today's managers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) The last step in the change process is to evaluate how successful the change effort has been in improving organizational performance.

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⊚ ⊚

67)

Top-down change is implemented gradually. ⊚ ⊚

68)

true false

Bottom-up change is typically implemented quickly. ⊚ ⊚

69)

true false

true false

Kurt Lewin identified a three-step model that organizations could use to manage change. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) The steps in Lewin's model of change involve unfreezing the status quo, moving to the new state, and refreezing the new change to make it permanent. ⊚ ⊚

71)

Forces that direct behaviour away from the status quo are termed driving forces. ⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

true false

Forces that prevent movement away from the status quo are termed restraining forces.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

73) Refreezing balances the driving and restraining forces to prevent the old state from arising again. ⊚ ⊚

74)

Individuals do not naturally resist change, they embrace it. ⊚ ⊚

75)

true false

true false

Kotter's plan for implementing change has 9 steps. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Complexity theory suggests that fixed notions such as mission statements, developing core competencies, and leadership may be suitable for firms operating in a stable environment but have little relevance to those confronting the necessities for fundamental change to remain competitive today. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) Organizations with innovative adaptive cultures, such as high-tech companies, are much easier to change than are organizations with more inert cultures such as those sometimes found in large bureaucratic organizations.

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⊚ ⊚

78)

true false

An inert culture fosters creativity and innovation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) An adaptive culture that encourages positive attitudes and behaviours fosters creativity and innovation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) In an inert culture, employees are content to be told what to do and have little incentive or motivation to perform beyond minimum work requirements. ⊚ ⊚

81)

Organizations with strong cultures invest in their employees. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

true false

Innovation is the recruiting and training of entrepreneurs within an organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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83) Entrepreneurs are the people who notice opportunities and take responsibility for mobilizing the resources necessary to produce new and improved goods and services. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) The term social innovation refers to finding new ways of solving social problems such as poverty, homelessness, and food security. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) A skunkworks is a group of intrapreneurs who are highly integrated into several aspects of the normal operation of an organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Entrepreneurs are employees of existing organizations who notice opportunities for product or service improvements and are responsible for managing the development process. ⊚ ⊚

87)

true false

There are five essential elements for managing change in a unionized environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) To manage change in a unionized environment it is important to resolve day-to-day issues and establish new problem-solving arrangements.

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⊚ ⊚

89)

true false

Kotter's plan for implementing change should be followed sequentially. ⊚ ⊚

true false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_7ce_Jones 1) C 2) D 3) D 4) E 5) E 6) B 7) B 8) D 9) D 10) E 11) E 12) E 13) E 14) C 15) E 16) D 17) A 18) A 19) E 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) A 26) A Version 1

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27) C 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) E 32) D 33) E 34) B 35) B 36) B 37) C 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE 57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE Version 1

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69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE

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