TEST BANK for Employee Training & Development 9th Edition Noe Raymond. ISBN 9781265599652, ISBN-13 9

Chap 01 9e Noe 1) _________ refers to training, formal education, job experiences, relationships, and

assessments of personality, skills, and abilities that help employees prepare for future jobs or positions.

A) Knowledge management B) Formal training C) Development D) Succession planning

2) Which of the following statements is true of human capital?

A) Human capital is an organization’s tangible asset.

B) It is easy to imitate or purchase an organization’s human capital.

C) Motivation to deliver high-quality products and services is a part of human capital.

D) Human capital is standardized in companies.

3) Informal learning _________.

A) is developed and organized by a company B) is not required for the development of human capital C) cannot be controlled by the employees D) leads to the effective development of tacit knowledge

4) Which of the following is true of tacit knowledge?

A) It is easily codified and transferred from person-to-person.

B) Formulas and definitions are examples of tacit knowledge.

C) It is best acquired through formal training and development.

D) It is best acquired through informal learning.

5) _________ is an example of tacit knowledge.

A) Personal knowledge based on experience B) Knowledge of formal processes C) Knowledge of definitions D) Knowledge of formulas

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6) _________ refers to a systematic approach for developing training programs.

A) Total quality management B) Continuous learning C) The Instructional System Design (ISD) model D) Training and development

7) Which of the following statements is true of the Instructional System Design (ISD) model?

A) The model is generally universally accepted.

B) The model specifies an orderly, step-by-step approach to training design.

C) The model eliminates the need for trainers to use their own judgment.

D) The model has no underlying assumptions, which makes it very flexible.

8) The fifth step in the training design process is to develop an evaluation plan that involves

identifying _________.

A) an appropriate training method B) the requirements for training C) employees with motivation and basic skills D) the types of outcomes training is expected to influence

9) Which of the following steps of the training design process involves person and task

analysis?

A) ensuring transfer of training B) developing an evaluation plan C) conducting needs assessment D) monitoring and evaluating the program

10) The ADDIE model is most closely associated with A) creating a learning organization.

B) formal training and development.

C) informal learning.

D) knowledge management.

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11) Which of the following is not included in the ADDIE model?

A) analysis B) design and development C) implementation D) engagement

12) _________ refers to the process of moving jobs from the U.S. to other locations in the world.

A) Expatriation B) Job rotation C) Offshoring D) Insourcing

13) Which of the following intangible assets does training and development indirectly influence?

A) human capital B) intellectual capital C) customer capital D) All of these choices are correct

14) _________ capital refers to the sum of the attributes, life experiences, knowledge,

inventiveness, energy, and enthusiasm that the company’s employees invest in their work.

A) Intellectual B) Human C) Talent D) Social

15) Which of the following is an example of human capital?

A) corporate culture B) patents C) customer loyalty D) work-related competence

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16) Which of the following is not an example of human capital?

A) corporate culture B) education C) tacit knowledge D) work-related competence

17) Which of the following statements is not true of knowledge workers?

A) They generally have limited employment opportunities in other companies because

their knowledge and expertise tend to be firm specific.

B) They are common in organizations that value intangible assets.

C) They typically do not perform manual labor.

D) They share knowledge and collaborate with others.

18) Which of the following visas is for individuals in highly skilled and technical occupations

involving the completion of higher education?

A) H-1A B) H-1B C) H-2A D) H-2b

19) Which of the following statements is true of Millennials?

A) They are also known as Generation X or Baby Boomers.

B) They grew up during a time when the divorce rate doubled.

C) They are often considered to be workaholics and rigid in conforming to rules.

D) They are believed to have high levels of self-esteem, sometimes the point of

narcissism.

20) _________ is a companywide effort to continuously improve the ways people, machines, and

systems accomplish work.

A) Stakeholder management B) Diversity management C) Total quality management D) Talent management

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21) A core value of _________ is the prevention of the occurrence of errors in a product or

service rather than detection and correction.

A) ISD B) ADDIE C) HRM D) TQM

22) _________ involves highly trained employees known as Champions, Master Black Belts,

Black Belts, and Green Belts.

A) Six Sigma B) Lean manufacturing C) Instructional Systems Design D) TQM

23) _________ refer to teams that are separated by time, geographic distance, culture, or

organizational boundaries that rely almost exclusively on technology to interact and complete their projects.

A) Quality circles B) Virtual teams C) Six Sigma teams D) Ad hoc teams

24) Which of the following is not a criterion for the Baldrige Award?

A) strategic planning B) workforce focus C) legal compliance D) customer focus

25) The ATD competency model _________.

A) describes how to effectively design training interventions B) describes companywide effort to continuously improve the ways people and systems

accomplish work C) specifies what it takes for an individual to be successful in the training field D) is a framework to analyze competition in an industry to formulate a training strategy

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26) According to the ATD competency model, a business partner _________.

A) determines how workplace learning can be best used to help meet the company’s

business strategy B) plans and monitors the delivery of learning and performance solutions to support the business C) designs, delivers, and evaluates learning and performance solutions D) uses business industry knowledge to create training that improves performance

27) In the ATD competency model, a _________ plans, obtains, and monitors the effective

delivery of learning and performance solutions to support the business.

A) project manager B) learning strategist C) business partner D) knowledge worker

28) Training activities are said to be outsourced when they are provided by _________.

A) in-house consultants B) company managers C) company trainers D) individuals outside the company

29) Which of the following statements is true?

A) The reporting relationship between human resource management and the training

function is standard across companies.

B) Including training as part of the human resource function allows training to be

decentralized to better respond to unique needs in different business units.

C) Organizational development professionals are seldom responsible for training.

D) For training and development to succeed, employees, managers, training professionals, and top managers all have to take ownership.

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30) Which of the following is false regarding employee engagement?

A) It reflects the extent to which employees are fully involved in their work.

B) It is closely related to job satisfaction and organizational commitment.

C) Surveys demonstrate that approximately 60 percent of the U.S. workforce is engaged

in their work.

D) Actively disengaged employees cost the U.S. billions of dollars in lost productivity.

31) Which of the following is the least common type of training in organizations?

A) basic skills B) supervisory skills C) mandatory and compliance training D) sales

32) _________ refers to the systematic, planned, and strategic effort by a company to use

bundles of HRM practices.

A) Talent management B) Training and development C) Strategic management D) Performance management

33) Which of the following statements is false?

A) After rising from 83 billion in 2019, total training expenditures slightly declined to

$82.5 billion in 2020.

B) Average training expenditures per employee have gradually declined over the last several years.

C) The average number of learning hours per employee in 2020 increased over the previous 3 years.

D) There is an increased demand for specialized learning that includes manager, professional, and industry-specific content.

34) Companies cannot gain a competitive advantage solely through their training practices. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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35) Training differs from development in that training tends to be more future-focused. ⊚ true ⊚ false

36) Tacit knowledge tends to be the primary focus of formal training and employee development. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) Informal learning cannot be used to develop explicit knowledge. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) Training and development have a direct influence on the development of social capital, but

an indirect influence on the development of customer capital. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) There is no one universally accepted instructional systems development model. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) The ISD model includes five steps: analysis, design, delivery, implementation, and

evaluation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Ensuring transfer of training is the final step in the ISD model. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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42) Due to globalization, the supply for talented employees now exceeds the demand. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) Treating employees differently based on their age, such as only inviting younger employees

to attend training, can result in adverse legal consequences. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) One of the most significant talent management challenges today centers around the

retirement of the Traditionalist generational cohort. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) Decreasing numbers of Americans are participating in the gig economy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) Social networking facilitates decentralized decision making. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) Despite its potential benefits, there are a number of challenges associated with social media

for training and development. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) Quality circles refer to teams that are separated by time, geographic distance, culture, and/or

organizational boundaries and that rely almost exclusively on technology to interact and complete their projects. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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49) A type of organization that embraces a culture of lifelong learning, enabling all employees to

continually acquire and share knowledge is known as a "talent organization." ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) Augmented reality refers to smart eyewear technology and camera technology that gives

employees hands-free, voice-activated access to procedures and checklists and live access to experts using tablet computers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) Non-traditional employment refers to hiring increased numbers of immigrants and minorities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) When training is provided by consulting firms, it is said to be outsourced. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) According to the ATD competency model, foundational competencies are used to a different

extent in each role or specialization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) Regarding training roles, a project manager designs, develops, delivers, and evaluates

learning and performance solutions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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55) Unlike organizational development professionals, talent management professionals typically

focus on training as well as team building, conflict management, employment development, and change management. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) ATD stands for the Association for Training and Development. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) Online learning is least used for mandatory and compliance training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58) Average training expenditures per employee have declined over the last several years due to

technology. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59) Artificial intelligence is the most frequently used type of technology-based learning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

60) On average, more training occurs in a formal classroom environment today compared to

online learning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

61) Training and development can have a direct impact on customer and social capital by helping

employees better serve customers and by providing them with the knowledge they need to create patents and intellectual property. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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62) The primary implication of the aging workforce is that performance and learning among

older workers tend to be adversely affected. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) Research suggests that employees of different generations do not substantially differ in their

learning styles. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64) The objective of Six Sigma is to create a total business focus on serving the customer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

65) Name and describe the different ways that learning occurs in a company.

66) Name and describe the four types of capital described in the text and identify which are most

directly influenced by training and development?

67) Describe why some have criticized the Instruction System Design (ISD) model.

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68) What is the relationship between diversity, inclusion, and equity?

69) How has the COVID-19 pandemic influenced current and future training practices?

70) Describe the core values of Total Quality Management (TQM).

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01 9e Noe 1) C 2) C 3) D 4) D 5) A 6) C 7) B 8) D 9) C 10) B 11) D 12) C 13) C 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) A 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) C 26) D 27) A 28) D 29) D 30) C 31) A 32) A 33) B 34) TRUE 35) FALSE 36) FALSE 37) FALSE 14

38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) FALSE 46) TRUE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) FALSE 56) FALSE 57) FALSE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) Essay 66) Essay 67) Essay 68) Essay 69) Essay 70) Essay

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Chap 02 9e Noe 1) Which of the following is true about a learning organization?

A) A learning organization primarily encourages team learning.

B) The notion of the learning organization came into being in the early 2000s.

C) In a learning organization, employees learn from failure and successes.

D) In a learning organization, most learning occurs through formal training.

2) The strategic training and development process begins with _________.

A) choosing strategic training and development initiatives B) identifying the business strategy C) developing websites for knowledge sharing D) identifying measures or metrics

3) The final step of the strategic training and development process involves _________.

A) choosing strategic training and development initiatives B) identifying the business strategy C) identifying measures or metrics D) creating concrete training and development activities

4) Which of the following is not a step in the strategic training and development process?

A) determining strategic initiatives based on business strategy B) translating initiatives into concreate learning activities C) facilitating strategic training D) identifying metrics to determine whether training has contributed to goals related to

the business strategy E) None of these choices are correct

5) _________ typically includes information on the customers served, why the company exists,

what the company does, the value received by the customers, and the technology used.

A) Balanced scorecard B) Vision C) Mission D) Code of conduct

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6) Paycor’s redesign of its training from face-to-face to blended learning was provided as an

example of which of the following strategic training initiatives?

A) diversify the learning portfolio B) capture and share knowledge C) expand who is trained D) accelerate the pace of learning

7) Shaw Industries annually providing more than one million training hours to different

constituents—employees, including machinists, marketers, scientists, sales representatives, designers, data scientists, nurses, and administrators—was provided an example of which of the following strategic training initiatives?

A) expand who is trained B) capture and share knowledge C) diversify the learning portfolio D) accelerate the pace of learning

8) Which of the following is not one of the four major components of the balanced scorecard?

A) customers B) internal business processes C) sustainability D) financial

9) A SWOT analysis is typically conducted in the _________ step of the strategic training and

development process.

A) business strategy formulation and identification B) strategic training and development initiatives C) training and development activities D) measures or metrics identification

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10) _________ involves examining a company’s operating environment to identify opportunities

and threats.

A) Internal analysis B) Gap analysis C) External analysis D) Pareto analysis

11) Which of the following is true with regard to SWOT analysis?

A) In a SWOT analysis, external analysis attempts to identify the company’s strengths

and weaknesses.

B) A SWOT analysis represents the strategy believed to be the best alternative to achieve

the company goals.

C) A SWOT analysis is typically conducted in the strategic training and development initiatives step of the strategic training and development process.

D) A SWOT analysis provides a company the information needed to generate several alternative business strategies and make a strategic choice.

12) Business-level outcomes chosen to measure the overall value of training or learning

initiatives are referred to as _________.

A) values B) goals C) business strategies D) metrics

13) The _________ considers four different perspectives: customer, internal, innovation and

learning, and financial.

A) SWOT analysis B) value chain analysis C) BCG matrix D) balanced scorecard

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14) _________ refers to the company’s decisions regarding where to find employees, how to

select them, and the desired mix of employee skills and statuses.

A) Concentration strategy B) Staffing strategy C) External growth strategy D) Disinvestment strategy

15) Which of the following is not one of the major business strategies discussed in the text?

A) internal growth B) external growth C) divestment D) product differentiation

16) Companies that emphasize innovation and creativity are labeled as _________.

A) clubs B) academies C) fortresses D) baseball teams

17) In _________, financial and other resources are not available for development, so companies

tend to rely on hiring talent from the external labor market.

A) clubs B) fortresses C) baseball teams D) academies

18) Uniqueness refers to A) employee potential to improve company effectiveness and efficiency.

B) the extent to which training and learning are centralized in an organization.

C) the extent to which employees are rare, specialized, and not highly available in the

labor market.

D) the picture of the future an organization wants to achieve.

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19) Job-based employees are characterized by A) high value and high uniqueness.

B) high value and low uniqueness.

C) low value and low uniqueness.

D) low value and high uniqueness.

20) Which of the following positions is characterized by high value and low uniqueness?

A) lab technician B) scientist C) secretarial staff D) legal adviser

21) Companies adopting a _________ strategy need to train employees in job-search skills and

focus on cross-training their remaining employees.

A) concentration B) disinvestment C) external growth D) internal growth

22) A(n) _________ strategy focuses on new market and product development, innovation, and

joint ventures.

A) disinvestment B) privatization C) external growth D) internal growth

23) Development of an organizational culture that values creative thinking and analysis is

characteristic of a company adopting a(n) _________ strategy.

A) concentration B) disinvestment C) internal growth D) external growth

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24) Which of the following is true of centralized training?

A) A centralized training function helps drive stronger alignment with business strategy.

B) Training and development programs, resources, and professionals are housed in a

number of different locations.

C) A centralized training function hinders the development of a common set of metrics or scorecards.

D) A centralized training function is largely ineffective during times of change.

25) Which of the following is not an advantage of centralized training?

A) stronger alignment with business strategy B) streamlined processes C) integrated programs for managing talent and training during times of change D) the ability to respond quickly to client needs and provide high-quality services

26) Which of the following is true of the business-embedded (BE) learning function?

A) The BE function is customer-focused.

B) A BE training function views trainees as marketers.

C) A BE training function does not guarantee that training will improve performance.

D) Training functions organized by the BE model do not involve line managers.

27) Kitty Merriweather, a product manager working in a manufacturing firm, is highly anxious

about change. When the top management of Merriweather’s firm made it mandatory for all product managers to undergo training, she told her superior that she would be uncomfortable doing so. She added that she was certain of not being able to cope with the new developments. In this instance, Kitty is demonstrating A) indifference to change.

B) uniqueness.

C) resistance to change.

D) loss of control.

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28) Which of the following is not one of the major "change-related" problems that need to be

addressed before the implementation of new training practices?

A) resistance to change B) loss of control C) power imbalance D) training-business strategy incongruence

29) Which of the following is not one of the major reasons organizations outsource training?

A) potential cost savings B) desire for greater control C) time savings D) desire to access best practices

30) Which business strategy tends to focus on team building, cross-training, on-the-job training,

and specialized programs?

A) concentration B) internal growth C) external growth D) divestment

31) Development at Argo Group focuses on early career professionals with fewer than 5 years of

specialty insurance experience. This example was provided to illustrate which of the following strategic training initiatives?

A) diversify the learning portfolio B) capture and share knowledge C) expand who is trained D) accelerate the pace of learning

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32) Accenture’s gamified cybersecurity training program supports its business strategy by

motivating employees to adopt appropriate security behavior in the company and in interactions with clients. This example was provided to illustrate which of the following strategic training initiatives?

A) diversify the learning portfolio B) capture and share knowledge C) expand who is trained D) accelerate the pace of learning

33) _________ not only views trainees as customers, but also views managers and senior-level

managers as customers who make decisions to send employees to training and allocate money for training.

A) A business-embedded learning function B) Centralized training C) A corporate university D) Decentralized training

34) Learning organizations emphasize that learning occurs not only at the individual employee

level but also at the group and organizational levels. ⊚ true ⊚ false

35) It has been estimated that about one-quarter of all companies have an extensive learning

organization and that one-half possess at least some of the characteristics of a learning organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

36) In learning organizations, there is an understanding that failure provides important

information. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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37) Tacit knowledge is easy to imitate. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) Explicit knowledge is thought to have a stronger impact on helping organizations achieve a

competitive advantage than tacit knowledge. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) Companies need to support formal training because it is the best means to acquire tacit

knowledge. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) The first step in the strategic training and development process is to identify metrics to

determine if training will be successful. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Internal analysis involves identifying opportunities and threats. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) Strategic training and development initiatives vary by company depending on a company’s

industry, goals, resources, and capabilities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) Emphasis on the creation of intellectual capital and the movement toward high-performance

work systems using teams has resulted in employees performing many roles once reserved for management. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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44) From a strategic perspective, "diversify the learning portfolio" refers to providing strategic

diversity training to enhance a company’s competitive advantage. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) In the context of strategic training, the balanced scorecard is often used to determine levels of

organizational support to enhance transfer of training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) Skill-based pay systems determine employees’ pay on what skills they are using for their

current jobs rather than the number of skills they are competent in. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) The CEO of a company is responsible for setting a clear direction for learning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) Line managers spend less time managing individual performance and developing employees

than mid-level managers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) In highly integrated businesses, training is likely to include rotating employees between jobs

in different businesses. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) For companies in an unstable or recessionary business environment, training programs focus

more on correcting skill deficiencies rather than preparing staff for new assignments. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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51) Companies that adopt state-of-the-art HRM practices realize higher levels of performance

than firms that do not. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) Uniqueness refers to employee potential to improve company effectiveness and efficiency. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) Job-based employees are likely to receive less training than knowledge-based employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) Training for contract employees would focus on sharing expertise and team training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) Companies should generally avoid involving unions in retraining and productivity-

improvement efforts. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) A centralized training function not only hampers the streamlining of processes but also

denies the company a cost advantage in purchasing training from vendors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) There is an increasing trend for the training function to be organized by a blend of the

business-embedded (BE) learning function and centralized training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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58) Companies pursuing an external growth strategy typically focus on human capital issues to

enhance efficiency. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59) When companies are trying to revitalize and redirect, earnings may be flat, and there are

likely fewer incentives for participation in training programs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

60) Business process reengineering refers to the outsourcing of any business process, such as

HRM, training, or production. ⊚ true ⊚ false

61) Outsourcing allows a company to focus better on its business strategy by saving cost and

time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) Compared to 10 years ago, organizations are less focused now on creating a learning and

training brand. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) The types of training methods used by small, midsized, and large companies generally do not

vary except for the use of new technology-based training delivery methods. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64) Most training in small firms is usually informal and on-the-job. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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65) Fortunately, in union settings, when companies begin retraining efforts without involving the

union, the training is still found to be highly successful. ⊚ true ⊚ false

66) Chief learning officers (CLOs), also known as knowledge officers, are the individuals in

organizations who are typically responsible for delivering high-quality training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

67) Define balanced scorecard. What are the four perspectives it considers? Provide examples of

metrics used to measure them.

68) Describe the human capital requirements for fortresses, baseball teams, clubs, and academies.

69) Explain the business-embedded learning function.

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70) How does the strategic value of jobs and their uniqueness influence how training and

learning resources are invested?

71) What is a training “brand”? Why is it important? Describe how to create such a brand?

72) Describe five strategies for marketing training to internal customers.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02 9e Noe 1) C 2) B 3) C 4) C 5) C 6) D 7) A 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) D 12) D 13) D 14) B 15) D 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) A 27) C 28) D 29) B 30) A 31) C 32) A 33) A 34) TRUE 35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) FALSE 15

38) FALSE 39) FALSE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) FALSE 56) FALSE 57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) FALSE 67) Essay 68) Essay 69) Essay 70) Essay 71) Essay 72) Essay

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Chap 03 9e Noe 1) Which of the following statements is true of needs assessment?

A) The process should not provide information regarding outcomes to evaluate training.

B) Upper- and mid-level managers should be excluded.

C) The process can determine if training is the appropriate solution.

D) The process needs to be lengthy and comprehensive.

2) _________ involves determining whether performance deficiencies result from lack of

knowledge or skill.

A) Organizational analysis B) Person analysis C) Skill analysis D) Task analysis

3) _________ analysis involves determining the appropriateness of training, given the

company’s business strategy, its resources available for training, and support by managers and peers.

A) Organizational B) Task C) Gap D) Support

4) According to the text, collecting data on social support for training from managers and peers

is a component of which level of analysis?

A) organizational analysis B) personal analysis C) task analysis D) both organizational analysis and personal analysis

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5) _________ are more concerned with how training may affect the attainment of financial

goals for the particular units they supervise.

A) Operational workers B) Instructional designers C) Mid-level managers D) Upper-level managers

6) Which of the following methods is inexpensive and allows for the collection of data from a

large number of individuals?

A) survey B) observation C) focus group D) interview

7) A primary disadvantage of using _________ in the needs assessment process is that the data

obtained may lack detail.

A) crowdsourcing B) interviewing C) surveys D) observation

8) _________ are useful for exploring complex or controversial issues.

A) Surveys B) Observations C) Focus groups D) Historical data reviews

9) _________ refers to asking a large group of employees to provide information for needs

assessment.

A) Crowdsourcing B) Historical data review C) Focus group D) Benchmarking

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10) _________ refers to the process of a company using information about other companies’

training practices.

A) Brainstorming B) Crowdsourcing C) Outsourcing D) Benchmarking

11) In the needs assessment process, organizational analysis involves identifying _________.

A) the training resources that are available B) employees’ personal characteristics C) the conditions under which tasks are performed D) the employees who require training

12) Which of the following is not a component of organizational analysis?

A) the company’s strategic direction B) support of managers, peers, and employees for training C) training resources D) none of these—each is a key component

13) Marriott requires that trainees have adequate child care, transportation, and housing

arrangements for its welfare-to-work program. These standards resulted from which type of analysis, as discussed in the text?

A) person analysis B) task analysis C) support analysis D) discrepancy analysis

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14) A needs assessment conducted at McDonald’s was presented in the text. Which of the

following is NOT true of its needs assessment process?

A) The organization’s business strategy was reevaluated to ensure that training was in alignment with its strategy.

B) Employees’ education level, gender, language, age, and generation were examined.

C) Responsibilities, tasks, and leadership skills for each job were analyzed.

D) Data about the frequency of use of training online content and its accessibility were assessed.

15) Employees’ readiness for training includes identifying whether _________.

A) the work environment will facilitate learning and not interfere with performance B) an organization should develop training programs by itself or buy them from a vendor C) coworkers are supportive of employees D) managers are using a similar frame of reference when they evaluate associates using

the same competencies

16) The goal of _________ analysis is determining what is responsible for the difference

between employees’ current and expected levels of performance.

A) person B) performance C) discrepancy D) gap

17) A _________ analysis refers to the process of determining whether training is the best or

most likely solution for a performance problem or gap.

A) root cause B) gap C) performance D) discrepancy

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18) In person analysis, _________ relate(s) to resources employees need to help them learn.

A) outputs B) inputs C) consequences D) feedback

19) _________ relates to intellectual capability and general intelligence.

A) Basic skills B) Cognitive ability C) Self-efficacy D) Reading ability

20) Trainee self-efficacy can be increased by _________.

A) letting them know that the purpose of training is to identify areas in which employees

are incompetent B) providing limited information about the training program prior to the actual training C) convincing them training is important D) showing the successes of peers in similar jobs

21) Which of the following statements is most true about age and generation in the context of

training?

A) The speed with which people process information increases with age.

B) Gen Xers dislike close supervision.

C) Motivation tends to decrease with age.

D) Traditionalists prefer more of a self-directed training environment.

22) Which of the following is considered an “input” in the context of person analysis?

A) B) C) D)

awareness of performance standards social support cognitive ability conscientiousness

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23) Which of the following refers to the type of rewards that employees receive for performing

well?

A) B) C) D)

consequences feedback motivators outcomes

24) In which of the following instances is training most likely needed?

A) Employees have the knowledge and skill to perform a job, but they have inadequate

input.

B) Employees have the knowledge and skill to perform a job, but they lack feedback.

C) Employees lack the knowledge and skill to perform a job, but the other factors are satisfactory.

D) Employees have the knowledge and skill to perform a job, but the consequences are inadequate.

25) Which of the following issues is addressed by task analysis?

A) Who needs training?

B) What is the focus of training?

C) Does training support the company’s strategic direction?

D) Should training be built or bought?

26) Which one of the following is true of task analysis?

A) It should be undertaken before organizational analysis.

B) It involves breaking a task into several jobs.

C) It should be undertaken before a person analysis.

D) It involves determining KSAOs needed to perform specific tasks.

27) The first step in task analysis is to _________.

A) develop a preliminary list of tasks performed on the job B) select the job or jobs to be analyzed C) identify the KSAOs important for successful task performance D) identify important and frequently performed tasks for which training is required

6

28) Which of the following statements is true of competency models?

A) They are useful for a variety of HRM practices, not just training and development.

B) They provide a tool for determining what skills are necessary to meet current and

future needs.

C) They provide common criteria for identifying appropriate training activities for employees.

D) All of these choices are correct.

29) In the process of developing a competency model, the job or position to be analyzed is

identified after _________.

A) the needs assessment strategy is selected B) the effective and ineffective job performers are identified C) the business strategy and goals are identified D) the competencies responsible for effective and ineffective performance are identified

30) Which of the following statements is true of rapid needs assessment?

A) It involves using a large amount of resources, such as money and SMEs. B) It ultimately results in the sacrifice of the quality of the process.

C) Its scope is independent of the size of the potential pressure point.

D) It opts for methods that provide results in which trainers have the greatest confidence.

31) Which of the following is NOT a common problem if a needs assessment is improperly

conducted?

A) Training may be incorrectly used as a solution to a performance problem.

B) Training programs may have the wrong content, objectives, or methods.

C) Money may be spent on training programs are unnecessary because they are unrelated to business strategy.

D) Employees become dissatisfied because they may not be able to attend training.

32) _________ includes determining what is responsible for the difference between employees’

current and expected performance.

A) Gap analysis B) Root cause analysis C) Performance analysis D) Situational analysis

7

33) _________ refers to the process of determining whether training is the best or most likely

solution to a performance problem or gap.

A) Gap analysis B) Root cause analysis C) Performance analysis D) Situational analysis

34) Which of the following needs assessment techniques is objective, yet may threaten

employees?

A) surveys B) observations C) crowdsourcing D) technology

35) Subject-matter experts (SMEs) should have an understanding of the company’s language,

tools, and products. ⊚ true ⊚ false

36) Job incumbents should be included as SMEs because they tend to be the most knowledgeable

about the job. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) A primary advantage of crowdsourcing for conducting a needs assessment is the speed to

coordinate this data collection effort. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) A disadvantage of historical data reviews in conducting a needs assessment is data

potentially being incomplete, inaccurate, or not fully reflective of performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8

39) Surveys do not allow many employees to participate in the needs assessment process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) Surveys and interviews share common disadvantages as needs assessment methods. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Online technology is useful in the needs assessment process because it is most effective in

generating detailed content. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) Age does not affect how people prefer to learn. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) One of the better ways to assess self-efficacy prior to training is through a cognitive ability

assessment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) One of the best means to enhance trainees’ self-efficacy beliefs is to explain the importance

of learning new knowledge and skills for enhanced organizational performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) It is important to assess trainees’ level of cognitive ability during the needs assessment

process because cognitive ability is the personal characteristic that most strongly impacts trainees’ confidence to learn. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9

46) The importance of cognitive ability for job success increases with job complexity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) Determining a job’s cognitive ability requirement is part of the task analysis process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) It is generally advisable to design training materials at a reading level that is slightly above

trainees’ ability in order to “stretch” them during training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) To motivate employees to learn in training programs, managers should always avoid

informing the employees of their skill deficiencies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) To motivate employees to learn in training programs, they should be given a choice of what

training programs to attend. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) One of the most powerful ways to motivate employees to attend and learn from training is to

communicate the personal value of the training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) Task analysis should be undertaken only after the organizational analysis has determined that

the company wants to devote time and money for training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10

53) A task analysis should be undertaken prior to an organizational analysis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) It is always important to conduct a thorough needs assessment at the organization, personal,

and task levels of analysis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) Competency models are typically only used for training purposes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) Because training is increasingly being used to help the company achieve its strategic goals,

both upper- and mid-level managers are becoming involved in the needs assessment process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) In the context of person analysis, organizational leaders are primarily focused on whether

employees in specific functions or business units need training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58) In the context of task analysis, trainers are primarily focused on for which jobs can training

make the biggest difference in product quality or customer service. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59) A job incumbent is a cluster of tasks identified through needs assessment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11

60) Pressure points almost always suggest that a training need is present in the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

61) The primary role of upper-level managers in the needs assessment process is to ensure that

learning efforts are well designed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) Upper-level managers are not usually involved in identifying which employees need training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) Mid-level managers typically determine how much of their budgets will be devoted to

training during the needs assessment process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64) Name and describe the three levels of analyses for conducting a needs assessment.

65) Describe what problems might arise if a proper needs assessment is not conducted.

12

66) Why should upper-level managers be included in the needs assessment process?

67) Describe the advantages and disadvantages of observation, interviews, and the use of

historical data as methods for conducting a needs assessment.

68) Discuss the types of evidence that you would look for to determine whether a needs analysis

has been conducted improperly.

69) Explain the process you would use to conduct a root cause analysis of a performance

problem.

13

Answer Key Test name: Chap 03 9e Noe 1) C 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) C 6) A 7) C 8) C 9) A 10) D 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) B 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) D 27) B 28) D 29) C 30) D 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) D 35) TRUE 36) TRUE 37) FALSE 14

38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) FALSE 45) FALSE 46) TRUE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE 57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) TRUE 64) Essay 65) Essay 66) Essay 67) Essay 68) Essay 69) Essay

15

Chap 04 9e Noe 1) Which of the following statements is true?

A) In general, mistakes should be avoided in a training context.

B) For training to be effective, both learning and transfer are needed.

C) Transfer of training is to be considered only after the completion of training.

D) Most of what is learned during training is successfully transferred to the workplace.

2) Which of the following examples best reflects an attitude as a learning outcome?

A) articulate three reasons why diversity is important B) successfully provide employee feedback C) create a pivot table in Excel D) value work-life balance

3) _________ relates to the learner’s decision regarding what information to attend to, how to

remember, and how to solve problems.

A) Cognitive strategy B) Motor skill C) Attitude D) Verbal information

4) "Design and code a computer program that meets customer requirements" is an example of

which of the following learning outcomes?

A) cognitive strategies B) attitudes C) intellectual skills D) motor skills

5) Intellectual skill as a learning outcome primarily includes the capability to _________.

A) state or describe previously stored information B) apply generalizable concepts and rules to solve complex problems C) execute a physical action with precision and timing D) choose a personal course of action

1

6) "Not micromanaging trainees working in groups after the group demonstrates it can remain

on task" is an example of _________, in the context of reinforcement theory.

A) positive reinforcement B) negative reinforcement C) extinction D) punishment

7) "Not allowing trainees to take an extra break because they were disruptive" is an example of

_________, in the context of reinforcement theory.

A) positive reinforcement B) negative reinforcement C) extinction D) punishment

8) Behavior modification is a training method that is primarily based on _________.

A) goal setting theory B) information processing theory C) expectancy theory D) reinforcement theory

9) Behavior modeling is a training method that is primarily based on _________.

A) goal setting theory B) social learning theory C) expectancy theory D) reinforcement theory

10) _________ is a person’s judgment about whether he or she can successfully learn new

knowledge and skills.

A) Self-efficacy B) Self-actualization C) Self-esteem D) Self-concept

2

11) Logical verification to increase self-efficacy typically involves _________.

A) perceiving a relationship between a new task and a task already mastered B) trying out the observed behaviors to see if they result in the same reinforcement that a

model received C) motivating trainees by having employees who have mastered the learning outcomes demonstrate them D) determining the degree of support for using newly acquired capabilities

12) Juan, an operations manager, has been assigned to train a group of older employees in the

logistics department. He has to train them to use new computer software. He begins by reminding them that they were quick in learning the old software. Juan is trying to _________.

A) increase the employees’ self-efficacy B) deter expectancies of the employees C) create motor reproduction D) raise the valence of the behavior

13) Which of the following creates a learning orientation in trainees?

A) emphasizing trained task performance B) emphasizing competition among trainees C) ensuring trainees completely avoid errors and mistakes D) allowing trainees to experiment with new knowledge and skills

14) In the context of expectancy theory, the belief that performing a given action is associated

with a particular outcome is called _________.

A) valence B) instrumentality C) maintenance D) generalizing

3

15) In the context of expectancy theory, _________ relates to trainees’ beliefs that they can

perform the trained skill.

A) expectancy B) instrumentality C) self-efficacy D) valence

16) According to the _________, transfer will be maximized when the tasks, materials,

equipment, and other characteristics of the learning environment are similar to those encountered in the work environment.

A) theory of identical elements B) stimulus generalization approach C) cognitive theory of transfer D) theory of closed skills

17) Which of the following statements is true of closed skills?

A) They require the trainee to adapt general principles.

B) They refer to training objectives that are specific.

C) They refer to skills that are to be identically produced by the trainee on the job.

D) They are more difficult to train than open skills.

18) Which of the following strategies is least appropriate for supporting the transfer of open

skills?

A) B) C) D)

teaching general principles providing detailed checklists for trainees to follow allowing trainees to make mistakes without fear of punishment providing rewards for experimentation

19) Which of the following strategies is not appropriate for supporting the transfer of closed

skills?

A) B) C) D)

encouraging on-the-job experimentation providing high-fidelity practice shaping favorable attitudes toward compliance rewarding compliance

4

20) _________ is a learning process that involves identifying learned material in long-term

memory and using it to influence performance.

A) Generalizing B) Semantic encoding C) Retrieval D) Gratifying

21) In the learning process, semantic encoding typically involves ________.

A) informing learners of the lesson objective B) providing learning guidance to individuals, such as the use of diagrams and models to

show relationships among concepts C) providing learners cues that are used in recall D) providing feedback about performance correctness

22) Which of the following statements is true of organizing as a learning strategy?

A) It focuses on memorization of training content.

B) It focuses on learning through repetition of training content.

C) It requires the learner to find similarities and themes in the training material.

D) It requires the trainee to relate the training material to other, more familiar

knowledge, skills, or behaviors.

23) The learning cycle for a trainee begins with a(n) _________.

A) reflective observation B) concrete experience C) abstract conceptualization D) active experimentation

24) _________ refers to individual control over one’s thinking.

A) Modeling B) Instrumentality C) Valence D) Metacognition

5

25) _________ refers to the learner’s involvement with the training material and assessing their

progress toward learning.

A) Automatization B) Self-regulation C) Elaboration D) Generalization

26) Learner-learner interaction is most appropriate when learners have to _________.

A) master a task that is completed alone B) maximize their critical thinking and analysis skills C) acquire personal knowledge based on experience D) enhance their self-awareness and self-assessment

27) _________ refers to practicing a task continuously without breaks.

A) Overlearning B) Whole practice C) Massed practice D) Continuous learning

28) Which of the following is a disadvantage of communities of practice (COPs)?

A) Participation is often voluntary, so some employees may not share their knowledge

unless the organizational culture supports participation.

B) They are not naturally occurring in companies.

C) Social interaction is discouraged.

D) They require that employees meet face to face.

29) Which of the following is an example of the internal conditions necessary for learning?

A) providing trainees opportunities to practice new skills B) strong messages provided to trainees from credible sources C) verbal persuasion D) recall of training content

6

30) _________ regulate the processes of learning. They relate to the learner’s decision regarding

what information to attend to (i.e., pay attention to), how to remember information, and how to solve problems.

A) Cognitive strategies B) Intellectual skills C) Attitudes D) Motor skills

31) _________ focuses a person’s self-efficacy.

A) B) C) D)

Goal-setting theory Social learning theory Reinforcement theory Expectancy theory

32) _________ help(s) explain the value that a person places on different outcomes. With that

information, training can be better designed to motivate individuals and to be more fulfilling.

A) Social learning theory B) Goal setting theory C) Adult learning theory D) Need theories

33) Andragogy relates to which of the following theories most closely?

A) social learning theory B) adult learning theory C) reinforcement theory D) need theories

34) On the whole, research supports the notion that individuals differ greatly in their learning

styles. ⊚ true ⊚ false

7

35) The cognitive theory of transfer has relevance for both near and far transfers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

36) Goals have been shown to lead to high performance even when people are not fully

committed to them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) The effectiveness of massed versus spaced practice can vary by the characteristics of the

task. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) Generalization is defined as continued use of what was learned over time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) Developing a computer program that meets customer specifications is an example of an

intellectual skills learning outcome. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) Adult learning theory assumes that adults enter a learning experience with a subject-centered

approach to learning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Individuals with a performance orientation find that errors and mistakes cause anxiety. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8

42) Learners with a high-performance orientation will direct greater attention to learning for the

sake of learning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) To promote a learning orientation, trainers should deemphasize competition among trainees,

create a community of learning, and allow trainees to make errors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) In the context of expectancy theory, ensuring that trainees are confident in their ability to

learn helps to promote instrumentality beliefs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) In the context of expectancy theory, explaining to trainees that they will receive valued

rewards if they perform well helps to promote instrumentality beliefs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) In general, it is best to promote a performance orientation among trainees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) Instrumentality is similar to self-efficacy beliefs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) In the context of andragogy, group discussions would likely be less appropriate than the

traditional lecture method. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9

49) The working storage and semantic encoding processes both relate to short-term memory. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) Open skills need to be identically reproduced on the job. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) Making a hamburger at a fast-food restaurant is an example of a closed skill. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) Giving a sales presentation is an example of an open skill. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) Identical elements are more appropriate for open skills as opposed to closed skills. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) The stimulus generalization approach is more appropriate for open skills as opposed to

closed skills. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) Identical elements are maximized when the learning environment matches the trainee as

closely as possible. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10

56) The stimulus generalization approach emphasizes near transfer of training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) It is best to include a combination of examples and practice, rather than all practice. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58) Spaced practice is typically considered superior to massed practice. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59) In error management training, trainees are instructed that errors hamper learning and should

largely be avoided. ⊚ true ⊚ false

60) For more complex tasks, relatively long rest periods appear to be beneficial for learning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

61) Automatization of tasks increases memory demands. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) Providing self-management training is an example of an internal learning condition. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11

63) Describe how trainers can create a learning orientation among trainees in contrast to a

performance orientation. (Be sure to define learning orientation and performance orientation in your answer to demonstrate your understanding of these concepts.)

64) Describe what are meant by self-efficacy beliefs and how they can be enhanced in a training

context.

65) Describe the three components of expectancy theory and how they can be enhanced in a

training context.

66) Describe the principles of adult learning theory (andragogy) and their implications for

training design and delivery.

67) Explain how allowing trainees to make errors in training be useful.

12

68) Explain how badges and micro-credentials influence learning from the perspective of one of

the following theories: expectancy theory, need theory, goal setting theory, or adult learning theory.

69) What is near transfer? Far transfer? What are their implications for training design?

13

Answer Key Test name: Chap 04 9e Noe 1) B 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) B 6) B 7) C 8) D 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) D 14) B 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) B 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) C 23) B 24) D 25) B 26) C 27) C 28) A 29) D 30) A 31) B 32) D 33) B 34) FALSE 35) TRUE 36) FALSE 37) TRUE 14

38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) FALSE 57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) Essay 64) Essay 65) Essay 66) Essay 67) Essay 68) Essay 69) Essay

15

Chap 05 9e Noe 1) The pre-training phase primarily involves _________.

A) encouraging learners to apply what they have learned to their work B) preparing a concept map and curriculum road map to facilitate learning C) preparing, motivating, and energizing trainees to attend the learning event D) preparing instruction (classes, courses, programs, lessons) to facilitate learning

2) If training emphasizes total group discussion and no small-group interaction, a _________

seating arrangement will be most effective.

A) conference-type B) horseshoe C) fan-type D) classroom-type

3) _________ refers to the organization and coordination of the training program.

A) Program facilitation B) Program design C) A curriculum map D) Transfer of training

4) Breakout rooms not in a lecture hall or classroom are appropriate for training that requires A) high collaboration, low self-direction.

B) high collaboration, high self-direction.

C) low collaboration, low self-direction.

D) low collaboration, high self-direction.

5) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), which of the following types of

learners require instructors to emphasize personal needs, beliefs, values, and experiences?

A) proactive learners B) feeling learners C) thinking learners D) reactive learners

1

6) In the context of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), _________ types prefer a

learning atmosphere in which an emphasis is placed on meaning and associations. Insight is valued more than careful observation.

A) sensing B) feeling C) perceiving D) intuitive

7) In the context of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), _________ types thrive in

flexible learning environments in which they are stimulated by new and exciting ideas. Such individuals like to "go with the flow" and are receptive to new opportunities.

A) perceiving B) extraverted C) feeling D) intuitive

8) Jane has been a trainer for many years. She believes that trainees today lack any motivation

to learn. This attitude is apparent to her trainees. Her trainees then fail to exert personal initiative, as expected. What phenomenon is most likely occurring in this instance?

A) expectancy theory B) low self-efficacy C) behavior modeling D) self-fulling prophecy

9) A(n) _________ gets learners into the appropriate mental state for learning and allows them

to understand the personal and work-related meaningfulness of course content.

A) concept map B) request for proposal C) action plan D) application assignment

2

10) Curricula differ from courses in that curricula _________.

A) consist of narrower learning objectives B) include broader learning objectives C) address a more limited number of competencies D) take less time to complete

11) A _________ refers to an organized program of study designed to meet a complex learning

objective.

A) course B) curriculum C) training map D) lesson plan

12) Which of the following statements is true of lesson plans?

A) They are typically less detailed than a design document.

B) They include the sequence of activities that will be conducted and identify

administrative details.

C) They include several courses and focus primarily on developing a set of competencies needed to perform a job.

D) They include a storyboard to graphically represent content to trainees.

13) _________ review meetings are meetings between a manager and employee during which the

employee’s performance is discussed, and improvement goals are agreed upon.

A) Performance testing B) Performance appraisal C) Performance engineering D) Performance budget

14) _________ is a way of delivering content to learners in small, very specific bursts. With such

learning, individuals are in control of what and when they’re learning.

A) Microtraining B) Micromanagement C) Macrolearning D) Microlearning

3

15) A(n) _________ refers to a memory tool to encode difficult-to-remember information in a

way that is much easier to remember.

A) mnemonic B) meta-cognitive strategy C) concept map D) advanced organizer

16) A request for proposal (RFP) is a document mainly used to identify _________.

A) potential vendors and consultants for training services B) employees who do not require training C) trainee prerequisites D) disruptive trainees

17) Which of the following instances call for training with an emphasis on far transfer?

A) securing offices and buildings B) handling routine client questions C) creating a new product D) logging into computers and using software

18) Which of the following statements is true of near transfer?

A) If the tasks emphasized in training involve variable interactions with people, then

instruction should emphasize near transfer.

B) Programs that emphasize near transfer must include general principles that apply to a greater set of contexts than those presented in training.

C) Teaching learners to create a new product requires training with an emphasis on near transfer.

D) Trainees should be encouraged to focus on important differences between training tasks and work tasks.

4

19) Which of the following strategies is least appropriate for far transfer?

A) teaching general concepts, broad principles, or key behaviors B) focusing on principles that might apply to a greater set of contexts beyond those

presented in the training session C) using standardized procedures, processes, and checklists D) providing a list of prompts or questions to help trigger thoughts and questions from trainees

20) Which of the following represents the lowest level of manager support for training?

A) participation in training themselves B) encouragement of trainees’ participation in training C) allowing trainees to practice their skills D) serving as a trainer

21) In training, the greatest level of support that a manager can provide is to _________.

A) participate in training as an instructor B) allow trainees to attend training C) provide trainees opportunity to practice what they have learned D) provide incentives to attend training

22) A(n) _________ is a written document that includes the steps that a trainee and manager will

take to ensure that training transfers to the job.

A) concept map B) design document C) performance appraisal D) action plan

23) Which term refers to a group of two or more trainees who agree to meet to discuss their

progress using learned capabilities on the job?

A) quality circle B) focus group C) support network D) strategic group

5

24) With opportunity to perform, activity level refers to the _________.

A) number of trained tasks performed on the job B) frequency with which trained tasks are performed on the job C) critical nature of the trained tasks D) number of employees performing a similar trained task

25) Low levels of opportunity to perform may indicate that _________.

A) training content is not important for the employee’s job B) refresher courses for trainees are not necessary C) there is no decay in learned capabilities of employees D) the work environment supports transfer

26) Explicit knowledge _________.

A) mainly consists of personal knowledge based on individual experience B) can be communicated only through discussion C) can be managed by a knowledge management system D) is highly influenced by perceptions and values

27) Which of the following is a major aide in communicating tacit knowledge?

A) lecture B) manual C) discussion D) procedure document

28) Which of the following statements is true of knowledge management?

A) Social media hinders knowledge management.

B) It involves acquiring knowledge, studying problems, attending training, and using

technology only within work.

C) It should be a central focus of training design.

D) Creating communities of practice and using "after-action reviews" at the end of each project facilitates knowledge management.

6

29) Which of the following is a concern in organizations regarding the loss of explicit and tacit

knowledge?

A) the creation of chief information officer (CIO) positions B) involuntary employee turnover C) the retirement of Baby Boomers D) the increased use of social networking

30) Effective knowledge sharing is most likely when employees _________.

A) believe knowledge management is mandatory B) see knowledge sharing as a way to obtain a promotion C) view knowledge as a means to have power over others D) have easy access to information in the context of their jobs

31) A computer classroom is appropriate for training that requires A) high collaboration, low self-direction.

B) high collaboration, high self-direction.

C) low collaboration, low self-direction.

D) low collaboration, high self-direction.

32) _________ identify parts of terminal learning objectives that trainees must learn during

training.

A) Facilitating learning objectives B) Intermediate learning objectives C) Micro learning objectives D) Enabling learning objectives

33) Conference type seating is most appropriate when training involves small group discussions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

34) The traditional classroom-type arrangement is good for role-play exercises that involve

trainees working in groups of two or three. ⊚ true ⊚ false

7

35) In general, it is considered best practice to avoid the use of incandescent lighting in a training

room. Such lighting is typically too bright and "harsh." ⊚ true ⊚ false

36) Compared to other generations, Millennials prefer training methods that allow them to work

at their own pace and look to trainers to share their expertise. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) Counter to intuition, using managers and employees as trainers decreases the perceived

meaningfulness of the training content. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) The dimensions of Myers-Briggs Type Indicator combine to form eighteen personality types. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) In the context of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), sensing types will thrive when

information is organized and structured. Such individuals are motivated to complete assignments in order to gain closure. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) It is generally considered best practice to use slang and sports analogies when training groups

of trainees from different cultural backgrounds. Doing so helps to promote fun in the learning environment, and such strategies can serve as useful mnemonic devices. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8

41) The larger the room, the more a trainer’s gestures and movements must be exaggerated to get

the audience’s attention. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) A metaphor is a device, such as a pattern of letters, ideas, or associations, that assists in

remembering something. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) Using "HOMES" to remember the five Great Lakes (Huron, Ontario, Michigan, Erie, and

Superior) is an example of concept map. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) "I" before "e", except after "c", or when sounding like "a" in "neighbor" and "weigh", is an

example of a mnemonic. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) Incorporating novelty and fun into a training course can promote learner engagement, but

may have little effect on helping learners commit training content to memory. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) A curriculum covers more specific learning objectives and addresses a more limited number

of competencies than a course or program. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) Lesson plans are typically more detailed than design documents. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9

48) Content curation refers to creating a group of pictures that tell a story. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) In developing a lesson outline, trainers need to consider the proper sequencing of topics. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) When using an outside vendor to provide training services, it is important to consider the

extent to which the training program will be customized based on a company’s needs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) When a series of steps must be followed in a specific way to complete a task successfully,

training should be designed with an emphasis on far transfer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) To encourage self-management, it is important to emphasize that lapses are typically the

result of personal failure. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) A low level of training support a manager can provide is acceptance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) Opportunity to perform is influenced by both the work environment and trainee motivation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10

55) Regarding opportunity to perform, breadth refers to the number of times or the frequency

with which trained tasks are performed on the job. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) Companies experience loss of explicit and tacit knowledge when older employees retire. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) According to a survey of training professionals, it takes on average 40 hours to develop 23

minutes of face-to-face, instructor-led training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58) Training program features that include meaningful material, clear objectives, and

opportunities for practice and feedback are typically enough to create an effective training program. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59) There is no strong research demonstrating that the effectiveness of learning and transfer

among different generations varies according to the training method used. ⊚ true ⊚ false

60) Asperger’s syndrome, attention deficit disorder, and dyslexia are examples of neurodiversity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

61) Online training should incorporate multiple rather than one long training session, as well as

different activities and instructional modes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11

62) Fan-type seating is ineffective for training that includes trainees working in groups and

teams. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) Traditional classroom-type seating makes it difficult for trainees to work in teams. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64) Name and describe the three phases of training program design.

65) Name the four different types of seating arrangements discussed in the text and indicate when

each is most appropriate.

66) If you were going to conduct a training program what would you want to know about your

potential trainees that could help you design a training session that is enjoyable for the trainees and helps them learn? How would you conduct your audience analysis?

12

67) Describe a number of ways that training can be made more accessible for neurodiverse

learners.

68) Describe different strategies to involve learners in a training session and how to facilitate

discussions.

69) Describe the difference between near and far transfer and then articulate strategies to enhance

each type of transfer.

70) How can opportunity to perform be measured? What might low levels of opportunity to

perform indicate?

71) What features are necessary to make microlearning effective?

13

Answer Key Test name: Chap 05 9e Noe 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) B 5) B 6) D 7) A 8) D 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) B 13) B 14) D 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) C 27) C 28) D 29) C 30) D 31) C 32) D 33) FALSE 34) FALSE 35) FALSE 36) FALSE 37) FALSE 14

38) FALSE 39) FALSE 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE 51) FALSE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE 57) FALSE 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) Essay 65) Essay 66) Essay 67) Essay 68) Essay 69) Essay 70) Essay 71) Essay

15

Chap 06 9e Noe 1) _________ refers to the process of collecting the outcomes needed to determine whether

training is effective.

A) Training evaluation B) Program design C) Performance appraisal D) Needs assessment

2) Which of the following statements best differentiates formative evaluation from summative

evaluation?

A) Formative evaluation mainly involves collecting quantitative data, whereas summative evaluation involves collecting qualitative data.

B) Formative evaluation takes place on the completion of training, whereas summative evaluation takes place during program design and development.

C) Formative evaluation focuses on how to make a training program better, whereas summative evaluation helps to determine the extent to which trainees have changed after training.

D) Formative evaluation includes measuring the monetary benefits of training, whereas summative evaluation measures beliefs and opinions.

3) Formative evaluation involves collecting data about a training program from trainees mainly

through _________.

A) their opinions and feelings about the program B) measures of performance, such as volume of sales C) tests and ratings of behavior D) return on investment (ROI)

4) The evaluation process ideally begins with _________.

A) developing outcome measures B) choosing an evaluation strategy C) developing measurable learning objectives D) conducting a needs analysis

1

5) _________ relate(s) to whether trainees are using training content back on the job.

A) Reactions B) Learning C) Cognitive outcomes D) Behavior and skill-based outcomes

6) Which training outcome relates to trainees providing feedback about their satisfaction with a

trainer?

A) results B) cognitive C) reactions D) emotional

7) _________ relate to trainees’ attitudes toward training content and motivation to transfer.

A) Reactions B) Affective outcomes C) Cognitive outcomes D) Behavior and skill-based outcomes

8) Front-line supervisors are likely most concerned with which training outcomes?

A) reactions B) return on expectations (ROE) C) cognitive outcomes D) behavior and skill-based outcomes

9) Behavior and skill-based outcomes are best measured by _________.

A) surveys B) interviews C) focus groups D) observations

2

10) Typically, _________ are used to assess cognitive outcomes.

A) attitude surveys B) observations C) focus groups D) "pencil-and-paper" tests

11) Which of the following is an affective learning outcome?

A) learners’ satisfaction with training B) greater appreciation of diversity C) increased production D) reduced costs of production

12) If a firm measures its sales volume before and after a training program, which training

outcome is it focused on?

A) reactions B) return on expectations (ROE) C) return on investment (ROI) D) results

13) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding a Net Promoter Score (NPS)?

A) The NPS is used to measure satisfaction by asking trainees to rate the likelihood of

recommending training to a peer.

B) Trainees are categorized into detractors, permissives, and promotors.

C) The NPS is computed by subtracting the number of distractors from the number of promoters, dividing this number by the number of respondents, and then multiplying by 100.

D) None of the choices are correct—each statement is true.

3

14) It is estimated that 38% of organizations collect data on which of the following training

outcomes?

A) reactions B) cognitive outcomes C) behavioral outcomes D) results E) ROI

15) It is estimated that 16% of organizations collect data on which of the following training

outcomes?

A) reactions B) cognitive outcomes C) behavioral outcomes D) results E) ROI

16) _________ is (are) likely to be the easiest training outcome to measure.

A) Return on expectations (ROE) B) Return on investment (ROI) C) Results D) Reactions

17) _________ refers to the ease with which training outcomes can be collected.

A) Reliability B) Practicality C) Acceptability D) Relevance

18) _________ refers to whether performance on the outcome reflects true differences in

performance.

A) Validity B) Discrimination C) Reliability D) Utility

4

19) Appropriate training outcomes need to discriminate, meaning that _________.

A) tests given to employees before and after a training program should differ B) trainees should be asked to take a reliable test C) trainees’ performance on the outcome should actually reflect true differences in

performance D) different employees should be given different tests for measuring their performance

20) If trainers are interested in the generalizability of a study’s results, they are said to be

interested in the _________ of the study.

A) outcome practicality B) criterion relevance C) external validity D) outcome believability

21) Which of the following statements is most true of comparison groups?

A) The use of a comparison group poses a threat to internal validity.

B) They represent a group of employees who do not attend training.

C) Employees in a comparison group have personal characteristics that are different

from others.

D) They increase the possibility that changes found in outcome measures are due to factors other than training.

22) Which of the following statements is true of random assignment?

A) It assigns employees to a training program without considering their individual

differences.

B) It results in an unequal distribution of individual characteristics, such as age and gender.

C) It increases the effects of employees dropping out of the study.

D) It increases the differences between the training group and comparison group.

5

23) A company that aims to improve readily observable outcomes by collecting data at periodic

intervals before and after training is likely applying a _________ evaluation design.

A) Solomon four-group B) pre-test/post-test C) return on investment D) time series

24) _________ is a time period in which participants no longer receive training intervention.

A) Regression B) Mortality C) Reversal D) Maturation

25) Which of the following statements is true of Solomon four-group evaluation design?

A) It is mainly used by companies that are uncomfortable with excluding certain

employees or that intend to train only a small group of employees.

B) Pre-training outcomes are completely ignored.

C) It combines both pre-test/post-test comparison group and post-test-only/control group designs.

D) Relative to the other evaluation designs, it is more economical and takes less time to conduct.

26) Evaluation designs without pre-test or comparison groups are most appropriate when

_________.

A) information regarding training effectiveness is not needed immediately B) companies are interested in determining how much change has occurred C) a company has a strong orientation toward evaluation D) a company is only interested in whether trainees have achieved a certain proficiency level

27) Return on investment (ROI) analysis is best suited for training programs that are _________.

A) attended by few employees B) inexpensive and have limited visibility C) significant financial investments D) one-time events

6

28) _________ demonstrate(s) to key business stakeholders, such as top-level managers, that

their expectations about training have been satisfied.

A) Reactions B) Return on expectations (ROE) C) Results D) Return on investment (ROI)

29) _________ refers to concrete examples to show how learning has led to results that a

company finds worthwhile and credible.

A) Utility analysis B) Success cases C) Return on expectations (ROE) D) Outcome practicality

30) In the context of big data, _________ refers to the huge amount of data that is being

generated and the speed with which it must be evaluated, captured, and made useful.

A) valence B) volume C) variety D) velocity

31) In the context of big data, _________ refers to the large number of sources and types of data.

A) valence B) volume C) variety D) velocity

32) A net promoter score would be used to measure which of the following outcomes?

A) reactions B) learning C) transfer D) ROI

7

33) _________ refers to the benefits that the company and the trainees receive from training.

A) Training effectiveness B) Training evaluation C) Training outcomes D) Training criteria

34) Preparing a dessert, sawing wood, and landing an airplane are examples of which type of

evaluation outcome?

A) reactions B) affective C) behavior and skill-based D) results

35) Dollar value of productivity divided by training costs reflects which type of evaluation

outcome?

A) formative B) reactions C) results D) ROI

36) Results are more frequently examined than reactions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) Affective outcomes would be considered a Level 1 outcome in Kirkpatrick’s model of

training evaluation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) Among all training outcomes, cognitive outcomes are most frequently assessed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8

39) Improved self-efficacy beliefs relate to an affective learning outcome. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) Despite its advantages, one of the significant disadvantages of a Net Promoter Score (NPS) is

that it is relatively difficult for learners to complete. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) A “pencil-and-paper” test is the best means for measuring skill-based outcomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) Skill-based outcomes can be used to evaluate both learning and transfer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) A reliable test includes items for which the meaning or interpretation does not change over

time. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) Outcome measures are often highly related to each other. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) Favorable trainee reactions are strongly connected with transfer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9

46) Cognitive outcomes generally do not help determine how much trainees use training content

on the job. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) ROI (return on investment) would be considered a Level-4 outcome in Kirkpatrick’s model

of training evaluation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) Negative transfer is evident when learning occurs, but on-the-job behaviour is lower than

pre-training levels. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) Negative transfer happens when no learning occurs during training, and subsequently, there

is no on-the-job impact. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) The believability of study results refers to external validity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) A comparison group refers to a group of employees who participate in the evaluation study

but do not attend the training program. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) The Hawthorne effect refers to employees performing at a low level because of the attention

they receive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10

53) Evaluation designs without pre-test or comparison groups are most appropriate when

companies are interested in determining how much change has occurred in trainees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) The Solomon four-group design combines the pre-test/post-test comparison group and the

post-test-only/control group design. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) It is necessary to limit return on investment (ROI) analysis to certain training programs as it

can be costly. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) It is important to conduct a return on investment (ROI) analysis for nearly all training

programs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) Once the costs and benefits of the training program are determined, ROI is calculated by

dividing costs by benefits. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58) A manager is likely more concerned with formative evaluation; whereas an instructional

designer is likely more concerned with summative evaluation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59) Transfer is likely more difficult to evaluate than reactions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11

60) Curriculum mapping refers to the process used to identify relationships among training

resources, training activities, and program outcomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

61) Most companies engage in some type of training evaluation, with the most common outcome

being behavioral outcomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) Pilot testing refers to the process of previewing the training program with potential trainees

and managers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) Formative evaluation usually involves collecting quantitative data through tests or objective

measures of performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64) Pilot testing is more useful for formative evaluation than summative evaluation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

65) A CEO is likely more concerned with summative evaluation relative to formative evaluation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

66) Describe the various reasons for evaluating the effectiveness of training programs.

12

67) Compare and contrast reaction and affective learning outcomes. Be sure to define each to

demonstrate your understanding of these concepts.

68) Describe three ways to minimize threats to validity.

69) Identify the circumstances when a company should consider employing a more rigorous

design for evaluating a training program.

70) What are the strengths and weaknesses of each of the following designs: posttest-only,

pretest/posttest with comparison group, and pretest/posttest only?

13

Answer Key Test name: Chap 06 9e Noe 1) A 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) D 6) C 7) B 8) D 9) D 10) D 11) B 12) D 13) B 14) D 15) E 16) D 17) B 18) B 19) C 20) C 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) D 27) C 28) B 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) A 33) A 34) C 35) D 36) FALSE 37) FALSE 14

38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) FALSE 46) TRUE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE 57) FALSE 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) Essay 67) Essay 68) Essay 69) Essay 70) Essay

15

Chap 07 9e Noe 1) _________ learning focuses on well-defined competencies typically trained via lecture and

online methods.

A) Guided competency B) Social competency C) Guided contextual D) Social contextual

2) _________ learning focuses on context-dependent knowledge and skills learned via social

media and informal interactions through others.

A) Guided competency B) Social competency C) Guided contextual D) Social contextual

3) _________ is an example of a context-based learning method that is guided by companies.

A) Lecture B) Mentoring C) Coaching D) A simulation

4) Which of the following methods is/are the most commonly used in organizations?

A) online or computer-based B) virtual classroom C) blended learning D) instructor-led classroom training E) mobile learning

5) Which of the following is a presentation method of training?

A) on-the-job training B) lecture C) simulation D) case study

1

6) Lecture as a presentation method _________.

A) emphasizes active trainee involvement and feedback B) is an expensive and time-consuming way to communicate information C) can be easily employed with large groups of trainees D) allows for strong connection to the work environment

7) Which of the following is not a variation of the lecture method discussed in the text?

A) team teaching B) guest speakers C) guided conceptual inquiry D) student presentations

8) Which of the following methods would be appropriate for developing skills in revenue

management, as discussed in the text?

A) self-directed learning B) apprenticeship C) group-building methods D) behavioral modeling

9) Suppose you would like to train a group of managers to enhance their skills in providing

employee feedback. Which of the following methods would be least appropriate?

A) case study B) role play C) lecture and discussion D) adventure learning

10) Which of the following requires the least amount of participation from trainees?

A) apprenticeship B) case study C) simulation D) audiovisual instruction

2

11) Which of the following statements is most true of on-the-job training (OJT)?

A) It is formal because it should be planned.

B) OJT cannot be used for training newly hired employees.

C) Skills learned through OJT are easily transferred to the job.

D) OJT results in higher audiovisual costs.

12) Which of the following methods allows employees to take responsibility for all aspects of

learning?

A) self-directed learning B) adult learning C) apprenticeship D) informal learning

13) Development of effective self-directed learning typically begins with _________.

A) writing trainee-centered learning objectives directly related to the tasks B) conducting a job analysis to identify the tasks that must be covered C) developing content for the learning package D) developing an evaluation package

14) Which of the following involves assisting a certified tradesperson at a worksite?

A) an apprenticeship B) a simulation C) a business game D) a role play

15) A case study _________.

A) is a training method that replicates the physical equipment B) includes a description about how employees or an organization dealt with a difficult

situation C) involves assisting a certified tradesperson D) involves observing peers performing a case and then trying to imitate their behavior

3

16) Which of the following is not characteristic of case studies?

A) They often depict realistic situations.

B) They allow trainees to analyze situations and make recommendations.

C) They allow trainees to act out skills.

D) Trainees’ recommendations are hypothetical.

17) Which of the following statements is true of business games?

A) Business games are non-competitive.

B) Trainees know for certain the consequences of their actions.

C) A role play is the most common type of business game.

D) Several alternative courses of action are available to trainees.

18) _________ is based on the principles of social learning theory.

A) Behavior modification B) Simulation C) Behavior modeling D) Social-media learning

19) Vicarious reinforcement is most relevant to _________.

A) simulations B) behavior modeling C) case studies D) lectures

20) Which of the following is the first stage of an experiential learning training program?

A) taking part in a behavioral simulation B) analyzing the activity C) gaining conceptual knowledge and theory D) connecting theory with the activity

4

21) _________ refers to training that a team manager receives that focuses on ways to resolve

conflict within the team.

A) Guided team self-correction B) Scenario-based training C) Team-leader training D) Cross training

22) _________ best prepares team members to step in and take the place of a member who may

temporarily leave the team.

A) Guided team self-correction B) Cross training C) Coordination training D) Temporary team training

23) _________ involves training teams how to share information and make decisions.

A) Cross training B) Team sharing training C) Coordination training D) Guided team self-correction

24) _________ is a process that involves a small group working on real problems.

A) Action learning B) Adventure learning C) Cross training D) Guided team self-correction

25) Six Sigma and Kaizen involve principles of _________.

A) adventure learning B) action learning C) vicarious reinforcement D) social learning theory

5

26) The first and the most important step in choosing a training method is to identify the

_________.

A) cost B) learning objective C) availability of resources D) time required to complete training

27) Which of the following statements is true?

A) There is considerable overlap between learning outcomes across the training methods.

B) Group-building methods focus solely on team learning and not on individual learning.

C) Presentation methods lead to better transfer than hands-on methods.

D) Companies that have a larger budget should choose a presentation method over a

hands-on method.

28) If companies have a limited budget for developing new training methods, the most

appropriate hands-on training method would be what?

A) simulation B) team training C) on-the-job training (OJT) D) action learning

29) _________ case studies focus on a person such as a leader, manager, or patient.

A) Illustrative B) Explanatory C) Intrinsic D) Critical instance

30) _________ case studies are those that examine one or more situations to emphasize a point or

test an assumption.

A) Illustrative B) Explanatory C) Intrinsic D) Critical instance

6

31) _________ is the process for preparing trainees to transfer the key behaviors. It involves the

trainee preparing a written document specifying situations in which they should use the key behaviors.

A) Self-management training B) Application planning C) Goal setting D) Writing a “future letter”

32) _________ has four stages: (1) gain conceptual knowledge and theory, (2) take part in a

modeling simulation, (3) model the activity, and (4) connect the theory and activity with onthe-job or real-life situations.

A) Experiential learning B) Behavioral modeling C) Action learning D) Role-playing

33) Social-contextual learning consists of formal training activities designed by a company. ⊚ true ⊚ false

34) Consider guided-competency learning, social-competency learning, guided-contextual

learning, and social-contextual learning. Fewer and fewer companies are using training methods from each of these four quadrants. ⊚ true ⊚ false

35) Presentation methods promote active participation among trainees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

36) A potential disadvantage of a panel lecture format is that trainees who are relatively naive

about a topic may have difficulty understanding important points. ⊚ true ⊚ false

7

37) A case study is inappropriate for developing higher-order intellectual skills, such as analysis,

synthesis, and evaluation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) Business games mimic the competitive nature of business. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) In a role play, trainees practice their technical skills. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) Behavior modeling is more appropriate for teaching factual information than interpersonal

skills. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Role plays can be a component of modeling. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) It is generally considered best practice for role plays to be unstructured to enhance contextual

learning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) In behavior modeling, key behaviors are typically performed in a specific order. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8

44) On-the-job training is considered informal because it does not occur as part of a formal

classroom program. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) On-the-job training is typically more passive than classroom training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) One of the most significant advantages of on-the-job training (OJT) is that bad habits are

rarely passed on. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) In self-directed learning, trainers do not control instruction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) To support self-directed learning, Best Buy rewards virtual “badges” when employees

complete training that is necessary for their current career stage. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) Apprenticeships provide guarantees that jobs will be available to trainees when a program is

completed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) The average annual wage for an apprentice is $50,000. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9

51) Apprenticeships are most common for white-collar positions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) Group-building methods focus on individual and team learning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) Adventure learning often results in high transfer of training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) Presentation methods are generally more effective than hands-on methods. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) According to the 2020 Training Industry Report, 40% of companies utilize instructor-led

classroom training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) Most problems in using video for training stem from the creative approach used. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) A major assumption of roleplaying is that employees are most likely to recall and use

knowledge and skills if they learn through a process of discovery. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10

58) Action learning is an experiential learning method that focuses on the development of

teamwork and leadership skills through structured activities. Such learning includes wilderness training, outdoor training, improvisational activities, and drum circles. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59) According to the 70-20-10 model, approximately 20% of learning occurs through formal

classroom experiences. ⊚ true ⊚ false

60) According to the 70-20-10 model, the majority of learning should be guided by the employee

as opposed to the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

61) Context-based learning is unique to an employee’s needs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) Competency-based learning may occur through job experiences. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) Describe the 70-20-10 model and its implications for training.

11

64) Typically, on-the-job training (OJT) is unstructured and inconsistent. Identify best practices

to structure OJT to enhance its effectiveness.

65) Identify strategies to enhance role plays.

66) Identify the characteristics of effective modeling displays.

67) If you had to choose between adventure learning and action learning for developing an

effective team, which would you choose? Defend your choice.

12

Answer Key Test name: Chap 07 9e Noe 1) A 2) D 3) D 4) D 5) B 6) C 7) C 8) A 9) D 10) D 11) C 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) B 27) A 28) C 29) C 30) D 31) B 32) A 33) FALSE 34) FALSE 35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) FALSE 13

38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE 57) FALSE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) Essay 64) Essay 65) Essay 66) Essay 67) Essay

14

Chap 08 9e Noe 1) Which of the following statements is true of technology’s influence on training and learning?

A) While beneficial, technology has increased administrative costs associated with

training.

B) New technology gives employees greater control of their own learning.

C) In the near future, technology will totally replace face-to-face instruction.

D) New technology has made training less lifelike.

2) Approximately what percentage of training hours are delivered online?

A) 10% B) 20% C) 30% D) 40%

3) Which of the following refers to trainers, experts, and learners interacting with each other

live and in real time?

A) asynchronous communication B) synchronous communication C) online communication D) augmented communication

4) A(n) _________ refers to software tools that enable communication in short bursts of text,

links, and multimedia through stand-alone applications or online communities.

A) B) C) D)

RSS feed wiki microblog shared media

1

5) Which of the following is NOT true?

A) Online instruction is more effective than classroom instruction for teaching

procedural knowledge.

B) Online instruction is more effective than classroom instruction for teaching declarative knowledge.

C) Learners are equally satisfied with online and classroom instruction.

D) Online instruction appears to be more effective than classroom instruction for long courses if properly designed.

6) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Learners are generally more satisfied with online instruction relative to classroom

instruction.

B) Online instruction has been found to be effective for all learners.

C) Classroom instruction is more effective than online instruction for teaching declarative knowledge.

D) Online instruction and classroom instruction are equally effective when similar instructional methods are used.

7) Which of the following is true?

A) Online learning is ineffective for training that emphasizes cognitive outcomes.

B) Some trainees may not be motivated to learn through technology.

C) Online learning fails to link learners to other content, experts, and peers.

D) Updating online learning is extremely difficult.

8) To create a positive online learning experience, _________.

A) content should be delivered using massed practice B) the use of multiple types of media should be avoided C) there should be prompts to promote self-regulation D) modules should be fairly long to promote overlearning

9) The use of social media as a learning tool may be ineffective in a company that _________.

A) has a significant number of Millennials B) requires substantial teamwork C) requires centralized decision making D) has geographically dispersed employees

2

10) _________ refers to directly translating an instructor-led, face-to-face training program to an

online format.

A) Repurposing B) Rapid prototyping C) Self-directedness D) Blended learning

11) _________ refers to learners assessing their progress toward learning.

A) Repurposing B) Rapid prototyping C) Metacognition D) Self-regulation

12) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding blended learning?

A) An application of blended learning is the flipped classroom.

B) Trainees prefer blended learning to classroom instruction.

C) Compared to pure classroom learning, blended learning provides for greater self-

directedness.

D) Compared to pure technology-based learning, blended learning ensures that instruction is presented in a dedicated learning environment.

13) In comparison to classroom delivery, blended learning has increased _________.

A) involvement of the instructors B) face-to-face interactions C) self-directedness of learners D) learner’s dependency on the instructor

14) Which of the following is false regarding MOOCs? A) Completion rates are high.

B) They are low cost, accessible, and cover a wide range of topics.

C) Learning happens through engaging short lectures combined with interaction with the

course material, other students, and the instructor.

D) They emphasize applying knowledge and skills using role plays, cases, and projects.

3

15) In a(n) _________ type of simulation, trainees are presented with a situation and asked to

make a decision that enables them to progress through the simulation.

A) decision-making B) branching story C) virtual lab D) interactive spreadsheet

16) In a(n) _________ type of simulation, trainees are given a set of business tools and asked to

make decisions that will impact the business.

A) decision-making B) branching story C) virtual lab D) interactive spreadsheet

17) The use of simulations has been limited by their _________.

A) inability to incorporate situations that a trainee might encounter B) inability to be used on a desktop computer C) need for employees to travel to a central training location D) high development costs

18) Which of the following is true of simulations?

A) Simulations provide learning situations with a high degree of human contact.

B) Trainees do not have to acquire any prior knowledge while playing a game.

C) Simulations can safely put employees in situations that would be dangerous in the

real world.

D) Compared to most other training methods, development costs are low.

19) _________ is a computer-based technology that provides trainees with a three-dimensional

learning experience.

A) Podcasting B) Virtual reality C) Webcasting D) Shared media

4

20) Which of the following technologies refers to artificial-intelligence (AI) systems that create

an automated, personalized conversation with human users?

A) adaptive learning B) machine learning C) augmented reality D) chatbots

21) Which of the following technologies refers to artificial-intelligence (AI) systems that learn?

Such systems learn by applying algorithms to data to identify user trends that inform future suggestions and data searches.

A) adaptive learning B) machine learning C) augmented reality D) expert systems

22) Which of the following training methods brings digital elements into the physical world to

enhance the information and context that people experience?

A) augmented reality B) chatbots C) artificial intelligence D) adaptive learning

23) _________ refers to synchronous exchange of audio, video, and text between two or more

individuals or groups at two or more locations.

A) Interactive distance learning B) Virtual classroom C) Teleconferencing D) E-learning

5

24) _________ refers to the latest generation of distance learning that uses satellite technology to

broadcast programs to different locations and allows trainees to respond to questions using a keypad.

A) Interactive distance learning B) Virtual classroom C) Teleconferencing D) Augmented reality

25) _________ are a support tool that employees can refer to when they have a problem that

exceeds their current skill set.

A) Expert systems B) Virtual worlds C) Branching stories D) Virtual labs

26) _________ allow companies to track the number of employees who have completed courses.

A) Expert systems B) Learning management systems (LMSs) C) Intelligent tutoring systems D) Supply chain systems

27) Which of the following statements is true of learning management systems (LMS)?

A) An LMS helps companies understand the strengths and weaknesses of their

employees, including where talent gaps exist.

B) If a company wants to develop an LMS, it needs to have an online learning environment that is under the control of the instructors.

C) The major reason that companies adopt an LMS is to decentralize the management of learning activities.

D) An LMS increases a company’s costs related to training.

28) Which of the following methods has a relatively low development cost?

A) virtual reality B) mobile learning C) intelligent tutoring system D) adaptive training

6

29) Which of the following methods is best suited for training facts?

A) virtual reality B) mobile learning C) social-media learning D) blended learning

30) Approximately what percentage learning hours are delivered in virtual classrooms?

A) 10% B) 20% C) 30% D) 40%

31) Technology-based methods accounted for approximately what percentage of learning hours

in 2019?

A) 35% B) 45% C) 55% D) 65%

32) Approximately what percentage of companies report that employees regularly use tablets for

training?

A) 10% B) 30% C) 50% D) 70%

33) Training via Zoom (or a similar platform) best reflects _________.

A) digital collaboration B) asynchronous communication C) synchronous communication D) a community of practice

7

34) _________ provides learners with the positive features of both face-to-face instruction and

technology-based delivery and instructional methods (such as online learning, distance learning, or mobile technologies like tablet computers or iPhones), while minimizing the negative features of each.

A) Repurposing B) Rapid prototyping C) Self-directedness D) Blended learning

35) Online learning that merely repurposes an effective live training program will usually be

ineffective. ⊚ true ⊚ false

36) With respect to maximizing the benefits of learner control, programs should allow trainees to

control the amount of feedback they receive. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) Virtual reality allows simulations to become even more realistic. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) Virtual worlds are ineffective for teaching interpersonal skills, such as time management and

leadership. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) One of the benefits of augmented reality is that costs are relatively low compared to other

technology-based training methods. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8

40) Adaptive training refers to training that customizes the content presented to trainees based on

their learning style, ability, personality, and/or performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) One of the most significant benefits of adaptive training is easily matching customizations to

learners’ specific needs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) Teleconferencing refers to asynchronous exchange of audio and video between two or more

individuals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) Training support technologies assist in transfer of training by providing employees with

information not covered in training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) A major reason that companies adopt a learning management system (LMS) is to

decentralize management of learning activities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) Although development costs for technology-based training programs are high, costs for

administering these programs are low. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9

46) The key defining characteristic of a flipped classroom is that control over the content of

lectures is "flipped" from the instructor to student. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) The flipped classroom reverses the traditional learning arrangement by delivering

instructional content online outside of the classroom and moving homework into the classroom. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) In online training, an instructor has the capability to provide detailed feedback to trainees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) New training technologies are unlikely to totally replace face-to-face instruction. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) In general, large companies deliver more training online compared to small companies. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) There are significant generational differences in preferences for using and realizing the

potential benefits of social media tools. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) In general, repurposing is considered an advisable strategy for developing online learning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10

53) The flipped classroom is an application of blended learning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) With an interactive spreadsheet simulation, trainees are presented with a situation and asked

to make a choice or decision. Trainees then progress through the simulation on the basis of their decisions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) The major difference between augmented reality and virtual reality is that the physical reality

is always present in augmented reality. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) Approximately 80% of companies use Learning Management Systems (LMSs). ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) Describe the ways the use of new technology has benefited training and learning.

58) Describe strategies for designing an online environment that is most conducive to facilitating

a positive learning experience.

11

59) Describe recommendations for maximizing the benefits of learner control.

60) Describe why a company uses a combination of face-to-face instruction and web-based

training.

61) Discuss some potential problems with using games and gamification for training.

12

Answer Key Test name: Chap 08 9e Noe 1) B 2) C 3) B 4) C 5) A 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) D 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) D 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) A 26) B 27) A 28) B 29) B 30) B 31) C 32) C 33) C 34) D 35) TRUE 36) FALSE 37) TRUE 13

38) FALSE 39) FALSE 40) TRUE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE 57) Essay 58) Essay 59) Essay 60) Essay 61) Essay

14

Chap 09 9e Noe 1) Which of the following statements is true about the differences between training and

development?

A) Training is future-oriented, while development focuses more on present issues.

B) Training focuses on preparing employees for current jobs, but development prepares them for other positions.

C) Use of work experiences is greater in training than it is in development.

D) Employee participation in training is voluntary but not with development.

2) _________ is an assessment that measures patterns of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors to

identify areas where the individuals have the best chance for building on their strong suits.

A) StrengthsFinder B) Myers-Briggs Type Inventory (MBTI) C) The NEO Big Five Personality Assessment D) The DiSC

3) Which approach to career management prepares workers for moving through clearly defined

career paths? Companies using this approach want a stable plan for leadership succession.

A) structured B) flexible C) planned D) transitory

4) What approach to career management is entirely employee-driven? In this approach,

companies focus on finding the best talent from outside of the organization.

A) structured B) flexible C) open D) transitory

1

5) A protean career is _________.

A) controlled by the availability of positions in a company B) limited to achievements at work C) based on the feeling of pride that comes from achieving life goals D) primarily determined through signals the employee receives from the company

6) _________ refers to the use of information by employees to determine their career interests,

values, and aptitudes.

A) Reality check B) Goal setting C) Self-assessment D) Action planning

7) In the _________ stage of the career management process, employees receive information on

how the company evaluates their skills and where they fit into the company’s plans.

A) action planning B) self-assessment C) goal-setting D) reality check

8) The _________ is a personality assessment tool used for team building and leadership

development that identifies employees’ preferences for energy, information gathering, and decision making.

A) Wonderlic Personnel Test B) Myers-Briggs Type Inventory C) NEO D) 360-degree feedback

9) Which of the following is not measured by the Myers-Briggs Type Inventory (MBTI)?

A) extraversion vs. introversion B) emotional stability vs. neuroticism C) thinking vs. feeling D) sensing vs. intuition

2

10) Which of the following is most commonly included in assessment centers?

A) leadership group discussions B) behavioral modeling C) succession planning D) work-life balance workshops

11) Which of the following activities is typically NOT included with an assessment center?

A) in-basket exercises B) leaderless group discussions C) role plays D) succession planning E) None of the answer choices are correct—all are typically included.

12) An in-basket exercise is typically designed to measure _________.

A) psychomotor skills B) administrative skills C) conflict resolution skills D) emotional intelligence

13) In assessment centers, scheduling exercises typically evaluate _________.

A) leadership skills B) problem-solving abilities C) oral communication skills D) psychomotor skills

14) Which of the following is NOT a common limitation of 360-degree feedback?

A) the process is often too informal B) time demands placed on raters C) potential retaliation against raters D) failing to provide opportunities for employees to act on the feedback

3

15) Which of the following is not considered a best practice regarding 360-degree feedback

systems?

A) The results from such feedback should be used to make compensation decisions.

B) Maintain rater confidentiality.

C) The system provides reliable ratings of competencies.

D) Employees receive timely feedback.

16) Which of the following is true of 360-degree feedback?

A) Managers’ behaviors are evaluated only by subordinates.

B) It rarely produces anxiety.

C) A facilitator may be needed to help interpret the results.

D) The feedback is difficult to link to development plans.

17) In upward feedback, managers’ behaviors or skills are evaluated by _________.

A) their peers B) their subordinates C) external customers D) b and c

18) Sending employees on international assignments is an example of a(n) _________ approach

to employee development.

A) formal education B) assessment C) mentoring D) job experience

19) Job enlargement refers to the process of _________.

A) hiring more people for the same job category B) moving employees up the organizational hierarchy C) adding challenges or new responsibilities to an employee's current job D) adding more jobs in a department to reduce stress

4

20) _________ gives employees a series of job assignments in various functional areas of the

company.

A) Job rotation B) Job enlargement C) Onboarding D) Externship

21) Which of the following is a potentially negative outcome of job rotation?

A) It fails to provide employees with a holistic view of the company’s goals.

B) It creates a short-term perspective on problems.

C) It cannot be used for all levels and types of employees.

D) It has no relationship with promotion rates.

22) _________ grant(s) a temporary leave of absence from the company.

A) Job enlargement B) Apprenticeships C) Sabbaticals D) Job rotation

23) Which of the following is characteristic of successful formal mentoring programs?

A) Participation is involuntary.

B) The mentor and protégé avoid casual conversation.

C) The mentor–protégé relationship is limited to 1–3 hours per week.

D) The mentor and protégé relationship extends beyond the formal period.

24) Which of the following is true of coaching employees?

A) Coaching involves providing resources.

B) A good coach knows all.

C) A good coach has a strong desire to micromanage.

D) Coaching does not involve pointing out areas for improvement.

5

25) The process of developing a succession plan typically begins with _________.

A) identifying the employees included in the succession plan B) identifying the positions included in the succession plan C) developing standards D) determining ways to measure employee potential

26) The core employees in the nine-box grid are those with _________.

A) high potential and high performance B) low potential and outstanding performance C) high potential and low performance D) moderate potential and solid performance

27) In the nine-box grid, high-potential and high performing employees who should be

developed for leadership positions are known as _________.

A) core employees B) star performers C) strong contributors D) subject experts

28) According to the nine-box grid, the development plan for employees with outstanding

performance but low potential typically emphasizes _________.

A) finding them experiences that will continue to facilitate creativity and innovation B) moving them to a position that best matches their skill set C) performance improvement in their current position D) developing them for leadership positions in the company

29) _________ refers to the process of helping new hires adjust to social and performance

aspects of their new jobs.

A) Training B) Offshoring C) Repatriation D) Onboarding

6

30) Which of the following makes a socialization program ineffective?

A) including information on technical aspects of the job B) introducing the employee to company-related rules and regulations C) restricting interactions between new hires and current employees D) tracking employee progress at different points up to one year

31) Which of the following is not a common content area for onboarding programs?

A) compliance B) clarifying C) culture D) compensation

32) _________ is an assessment that measures personality and behavioral style, including

dominance (direct, strong-willed, forceful), influence (sociable, talkative), steadiness (gentle, accommodating), and conscientiousness (private, analytical).

A) StrengthsFinder B) Myers-Briggs Type Inventory (MBTI) C) The NEO Big Five Personality Assessment D) The DiSC

33) The ________ step of onboarding involves understanding and developing formal and

informal relations.

A) compliance B) clarification C) culture D) connection

34) The ________ step of onboarding involves understanding legal guidelines and company rules

and regulations.

A) compliance B) clarification C) culture D) connection

7

35) Career patterns involving movement across specializations and disciplines are becoming less

prevalent. ⊚ true ⊚ false

36) Discussing performance and development in the same meeting is difficult because they have

different objectives. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) Performance appraisal discussions are more long-term than development discussions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) Competencies include knowledge, skills, and abilities but not personal characteristics. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) Assessments can be used to identify communication styles that inhibit a team’s productivity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) In assessment centers, it is considered best practice not to have managers as assessors

because managers often make employees feel ill at ease. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Both the NEO Personality Inventory and the DISC measure conscientiousness. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8

42) In the context of the Big Five personality dimensions, conscientiousness refers to the extent

to which an individual is aware of his or her surroundings and is courteous to others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) In the context of the Big Five personality dimensions, emotional stability is also known as

neuroticism. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) Job experiences that are seen as negative stressors stimulate learning but fail to challenge

employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) Job rotation can be used for most, if not all, types of employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) Employee transfers necessarily increase job responsibilities and compensation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) Transfers and downward moves could help employees achieve long-term success with a

company. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48) Many Millennials feel that lateral moves are beneficial to their careers because they view

such moves as valuable opportunities to learn new knowledge and skills. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9

49) By definition, mentoring cannot occur between mentors and protégés from different

organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) In reverse mentoring programs, peers mentor each other. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) High-potential employees should participate in mentoring but not coaching. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) Most mentoring relationships develop formally in organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) Development plans for employees with low potential and low performance should emphasize

identifying challenging experiences more in line with their interests. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) By making a succession planning list public, high-potential employees who are not interested

in other positions can communicate their intentions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) A defining characteristic of succession planning is effective onboarding. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10

56) Generally speaking, succession planning is relatively easy in family-owned firms compared

to other types of organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) Regarding the prevalence of developmental activities, classroom experiences tend to be more

common in organizations relative to mentoring relationships. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58) A protean career is defined by a series of upward career transitions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59) A sabbatical is a leave of absence from the company to renew or develop new skills;

typically, these leaves are unpaid. ⊚ true ⊚ false

60) Stretch assignments refer to assignments in which there is a match (or congruence) between

the employee’s skills and past experiences and the skills required for success on the job. ⊚ true ⊚ false

61) With a protean career, managers take the primary responsibility for coaching employees

through their career stages. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) Reality check refers to the process whereby employees reflect on their strengths and

weaknesses and determine whether they should remain with or leave the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11

63) An action plan is a written strategy that employees use to determine how they will achieve

their short- and long-term career goals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64) Why is it better for managers to hold separate discussions for performance appraisals and

development?

65) Elaborate on the potential problems with job rotation for both the employee and the work

unit.

66) Describe strategies that companies can employ to help ensure the effectiveness of formal

mentoring programs.

67) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of making the results of succession planning

public.

12

68) Discuss the potential advantages and disadvantages of using the nine-box grid for talent

reviews.

69) Describe the challenges of succession planning for family businesses.

70) Explain the four steps in onboarding. What should new hires learn at each step? How might

social media or the Internet aid the onboarding process?

13

Answer Key Test name: Chap 09 9e Noe 1) B 2) A 3) A 4) D 5) C 6) C 7) D 8) B 9) B 10) A 11) D 12) B 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) D 27) B 28) A 29) D 30) C 31) D 32) D 33) D 34) A 35) FALSE 36) TRUE 37) FALSE 14

38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) FALSE 57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) Essay 65) Essay 66) Essay 67) Essay 68) Essay 69) Essay 70) Essay

15

Chap 10 9e Noe 1) The _________ Act is designed to assist states in building school-to-work systems that

prepare students for high-skill, high-wage jobs.

A) School-to-Work Opportunities B) Workforce Innovation and Opportunity C) Workforce Investment D) Sector Partnership

2) Legal action against a company may likely NOT be incurred when _________.

A) employees incur injuries during training conducted by the company B) employees incur injuries or damages in training conducted by a vendor or consultant C) the company uses small amounts of copyrighted material D) decisions about training and development opportunities are made on the basis of age

3) _________ refers to training that encourages employees to have conversations about difficult

topics and perspectives without fear of blame or shame.

A) Unconscious bias training B) Diversity training C) Inclusion training D) Ally training

4) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination based on which of the

following?

A) age B) disability C) religion D) veteran status E) All of the answer choices are correct.

5) Which of the following is not a standard in the context of the fair use doctrine?

A) the purpose for which the copyrighted material is being used B) the proportion of the copyrighted material being used C) how much money the copyright owner can lose as a result of the use D) None of the answer choices are correct—each is a standard.

1

6) Which of the following statements is false in the context of diversity programs?

A) Diversity programs have a large effect on changing behavior.

B) Managers should be used as trainers in diversity training.

C) The content of diversity training should include cases and exercises.

D) None of the answer choices are correct—each of the above statements is true.

7) The _________ refers to a barrier to advancement for women and minorities.

A) adverse effect B) funnel effect C) glass ceiling D) discrimination effect

8) An expatriate is an employee _________.

A) who participates in succession planning B) who has been headhunted from a firm to join another company C) who works in a country other than his or her country of origin D) working for a multinational company in his home country

9) _________ refers to an expatriate’s familiarity with job tasks and work environment in the

host country.

A) Cross-cultural experience B) Cultural novelty C) Job novelty D) Cultural facility

10) Which of the following causes overseas assignments to fail?

A) including an employee’s family in orientation programs B) high tolerance of ambiguity C) asking employees to self-manage the repatriation process D) developing technical skills over cross-cultural preparation

2

11) Which of the following is true of repatriation?

A) Employees are guaranteed a higher standard of living.

B) Employees may leave the company if their assignments upon returning home have

less responsibility.

C) Expatriates tend to experience little or no stress.

D) Adjustment tends to be fairly easy.

12) _________ refer to employees who have an assignment to manage an operation abroad

without being located in that country.

A) Virtual expatriates B) Inpatriates C) Offshore employees D) Intrapreneurial employees

13) Which of the following is true of virtual expatriates?

A) They expose the family to the culture shock of an overseas move.

B) They are more expensive than traditional expatriates.

C) They lack a strong personal relationship with local employees.

D) They have no interactions with the home office.

14) Which of the following is not a career stage discussed in the text?

A) exploration B) establishment C) acceptance D) decline

15) The establishment stage of an employee’s career involves _________.

A) B) C) D)

pursuing the type of education and training an employee needs finding employment, achieving more responsibility, and financial success a self-assessment of interests, values, and preferences being perceived as someone with many years of experience

3

16) In the _________ stage, individuals are concerned with keeping their skills up to date and

being perceived as someone who is still contributing to the company.

A) exploration B) decline C) establishment D) maintenance

17) In the _________ stage, individuals are largely concerned with achieving more responsibility

and financial success.

A) exploration B) decline C) establishment D) maintenance

18) _________ involves changing one’s major work activity after having been established in a

specific field.

A) Job repositioning B) Job novelty C) Career recycling D) Telecommuting

19) _________ refers to employees changing jobs, usually between companies, every two to

three years.

A) Job hopping B) Job rotation C) Job migration D) Job skipping

4

20) Which of the following is true of job hopping?

A) Job hopping makes it difficult for a company to downsize if necessary.

B) Job hopping makes it difficult to sustain continuity in employee-customer

relationships.

C) Job hopping reduces a company’s opportunity to hire employees with a variety of experiences.

D) Hiring employees who job hop decreases the company’s flexibility and adaptability.

21) Which of the following statements is most true regarding dual career paths?

A) They were designed to enhance work-life balance for working families.

B) They were designed to help chart future employment prospects for individual

contributors.

C) They were designed to meet the needs of Millennials.

D) There were designed to help with early retirement.

22) _________ refers to having two employees divide hours, responsibilities, and benefits of a

full-time job.

A) Job rotation B) Job sharing C) Job enlargement D) Job shadowing

23) _________ refers to giving employees the option of choosing when to work during the

workday or workweek.

A) Telecommuting B) Compressed workweek C) Job autonomy D) Flextime

5

24) The _________ Act makes it easier for veterans to find employment when they return from

service.

A) Workforce Investment B) Age Discrimination in Employment C) Equal Employment Opportunity D) Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment

25) _________ is a way to reduce head count and lower labor costs.

A) Offering an early retirement plan B) Encouraging flextime C) Job hopping D) Compressing the workweek

26) _________ involves employees transitioning from full-time employment to full-time

retirement by working part-time.

A) Compressed retirement B) Early retirement C) Phased retirement D) Golden parachute retirement

27) Which of the following relates to employees making a transition into life without work?

A) retirement B) retrenchment C) retreatment D) recycling

28) Which of the following is true of early retirement programs?

A) They should be an integral part of a strategy to lay off employees.

B) Eligibility is usually based on age and years of service.

C) These programs should be informal.

D) These programs are often involuntary.

6

29) _________ refers to a work schedule that allows employees to work fewer days but with

longer hours.

A) Telecommuting B) Flextime C) Compressed workweek D) Job autonomy

30) _________ refers to a work arrangement that gives employees flexibility in terms of both

hours and where they work.

A) Telecommuting B) Flextime C) Compressed workweek D) Work-life balance

31) A(n) _________ is primarily designed for employees with outstanding technical skills.

A) dual career path B) individual contributor career path C) management career path D) traditional career path

32) _________ result(s) in a loss of talent and productivity that results from turnover, retraining,

and recruitment costs.

A) Dual career paths B) Job hopping C) Individual contributor career paths D) All of the answer choices are correct

33) If training is voluntary and outside of regular work hours but directly related to an

employee’s job, the employee would need to be paid for attending training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

7

34) Employers are required to make accommodations for those with disabilities, even when such

individuals do not request them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

35) Federal laws require that companies in the gaming industry train employees to report

suspicious activity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

36) Injuries incurred by employees during training cannot result in legal action. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) provides protection for all individuals

based on age. ⊚ true ⊚ false

38) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) does not provide protection for

individuals under the age of 40. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) Copyrights protect the ideas that materials contain. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) The Fair Use Act of 2017 specifies that training material on Internet sites is free from

copyright law as long as a company or trainer does not generate income from the use of said content. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8

41) Companies can deduct the cost of training as a business expense. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) Research shows that diversity training has the largest effect on understanding and awareness

of diversity, but smaller effects on behavior change and attitudes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) Unconscious biases are social stereotypes about certain groups of people that individuals

form outside their own conscious awareness. These biases stem from one’s tendency to organize social worlds by categorizing. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) The primary aims of unconscious bias training are demonstrating that individuals are

typically free from biases unconsciously, and that biases are the result of conscious actions resulting from social pressures. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) The glass ceiling facilitates women and minorities to higher levels of the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) Current estimates indicate that women hold only 30% of the highest executive positions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) It is important for companies to place more emphasis on developing potential expatriates’

technical skills than on preparing them to work in other cultures. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9

48) Expatriates and their families are likely to experience high levels of stress when they return

from foreign assignments. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) Repatriation is the process of preparing individuals for expatriate assignments. ⊚ true ⊚ false

50) Virtual expatriates are more expensive than traditional expatriates. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) Millennials and Gen Xers are more used to change and job insecurity than Baby Boomers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

52) The individual contributor career path is used to develop individuals with strong managerial

potential. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) The individual contributor career path is used to develop individuals with strong technical

expertise who wish to advance in an organization through a non-management path. ⊚ true ⊚ false

54) Career recycling is limited to older employees nearing retirement. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10

55) Job hopping is prevalent in high-technology industries. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) Preretirement socialization helps employees avoid being forced to return to work because of

poor financial planning. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) Individuals must wait until the age of 65 to begin receiving social security benefits. ⊚ true ⊚ false

58) The use of phased retirement plans is complicated by regulations regarding taxation of

retirement benefits. ⊚ true ⊚ false

59) Phased retirement is becoming less popular than it once was. ⊚ true ⊚ false

60) Black executives only hold approximately 15% of the positions that influence company

success and are on the career path to the CEO position. ⊚ true ⊚ false

61) Women hold approximately 25 percent of positions with high potential for CEO promotion

and board recruitment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11

62) Under the Families First Coronavirus Response Act (FFCRA), employees were eligible for

an additional 15 weeks of family leave paid at two-thirds of their regular wages. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) Furloughed employees receive benefits, can receive unemployment for lost time, and have

the possibility of being called back to work. ⊚ true ⊚ false

64) Unlike managers, individual contributors are given opportunities to increase their total

compensation through bonuses (e.g., for patents and developing new products). ⊚ true ⊚ false

65) Sector partnerships typically focus on jobs that require four-year college degrees in STEM

majors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

66) Through sector partnerships, workforce skill needs can be met faster than if individual

employers worked alone. ⊚ true ⊚ false

67) Sector partnerships are designed to help individuals recycle their careers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

68) In most circumstances, organizations are not required to pay employees for attending

training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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69) Explain the relationship between “managing diversity, equity, and inclusion” and “diversity

training.” Which is most effective? Why?

70) Explain ally training. How can ally training contribute to companies' efforts toward diversity,

equity, and inclusion?

71) What is the purpose of unconscious bias training? Provide an example of how unconscious

bias training can affect who gets to attend training or is asked to participate in development activities.

72) Describe what is meant by a dual career path and the characteristics associated with these

paths.

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73) Discuss the advantages and challenges of job hopping from the employer’s and the

employee’s perspectives.

74) Describe what companies can do to prepare employees for layoffs and to reduce their

potential negative effects.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 10 9e Noe 1) A 2) C 3) D 4) C 5) D 6) A 7) C 8) C 9) C 10) D 11) B 12) A 13) C 14) C 15) B 16) D 17) C 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) B 23) D 24) D 25) A 26) C 27) A 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) B 33) TRUE 34) FALSE 35) TRUE 36) FALSE 37) FALSE 15

38) TRUE 39) FALSE 40) FALSE 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) FALSE 51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE 57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) Essay 70) Essay 71) Essay 72) Essay 73) Essay 74) Essay

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Chap 11 9e Noe 1) In which jobs is automation likely?

A) jobs that are unpredictable B) jobs involving management C) jobs involving exercising creativity D) jobs involving processing data E) None of the answer choices are correct.

2) Which of the following statements is false?

A) Jobs involving finance and accounting may be automated.

B) Jobs involving food service will unlikely be automated.

C) Automation will require that many employees retrain.

D) Many individuals could lose their jobs due to automation.

E) None of the answer choices are correct.

3) A Fitbit is an example of _________.

A) a wearable B) augmented reality C) gamification D) Tin Can API

4) A _________ collects and stores learning experiences in the form of statements that can be

organized and presented in a meaningful way.

A) Learning Records Store (LRS) B) Learning Management System (LMS) C) Social Network Support System (SNSS) D) Just-in-Time Learning System (JITLS)

5) _________ is a specification for learning technology that makes it possible to collect data

about an employee’s or a team’s online and face-to-face learning experiences.

A) Gamification B) Tin Can API C) Training Technology Enhancement D) Artificial Intelligence

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6) Regarding the implications of neuroscience for training, which of the following is not true?

A) Learners have to eliminate distractions.

B) Learners need to make their own connections to new ideas.

C) Emotional stimulation should be minimized.

D) None of the answer choices are correct.

7) Time Warner Cable’s leadership development program that spanned over 30 days and

included weekly videos, practice exercises, and a two-hour webinar was discussed in the text as an example of which of the following?

A) an application of advances in neuroscience to training B) using gamification to enhance learning C) using big data to analyze training compliance D) tracking training through a learning records store (LRS)

8) Which of the following is a criticism of the traditional training design model?

A) The trainer is the least important component of the design.

B) It is a linear approach driven by subject-matter experts.

C) It assumes that training content is unstable.

D) It takes very little time compared to the rapid instructional design model.

9) Which of the following statements is true of rapid instructional design (RID)?

A) Resources that are devoted to design and delivery of instruction cannot be reallocated.

B) Instructional content and process can be developed independently of each other.

C) Rapid instructional design is a self-serviced, modifiable, and on-demand computing

system that provides information technology infrastructure over a network.

D) Rapid instructional design refers to a company that provides software for a specific application.

10) All of the following are examples of RID strategies except _________.

A) combining different steps of the design process, such as analysis and evaluation B) conducting separate analyses of training needs and learning outcomes C) developing instruction around job aides D) using shortcuts, such as existing records, for needs assessment

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11) Which of the following is NOT a common RID strategy?

A) ensuring that instructional content and process are developed simultaneously B) adapting existing materials C) developing a learning system instead of an instructional system D) combining steps of the process

12) _________ emphasizes repeated small steps, rather than moving through the linear step-by-

step process (analysis through evaluation) of developing learning.

A) Rapid instructional design (RID) B) Micro-development C) Agile development D) Fluid training design

13) _________ involves collecting information about users’ activities, analyzing patterns, and

understanding how these patterns link to business outcomes.

A) Social network analysis B) Artificial intelligence C) Tin Can API D) Big data

14) Which of the following is not one of the major skills and competencies discussed in the

chapter needed for trainers to be successful?

A) designing learning in technology-driven environments B) using multimedia tools C) selecting, designing, and evaluating organizational research methods D) repurposing live instruction to online instruction

15) _________ refers to software that helps employees find training content and learning

resources that are personalized to their needs.

A) Learning experience platform (LXP) B) Tin Can API C) Experience API D) Learning Records Store (LRS)

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16) Which of the following is not a way that a learning experience platform (LXP) can make

self-directed learning easier?

A) providing employees with a learning path B) guiding learning based on an evaluation of their skills C) providing learning recommendations based on use by other learners D) providing learning recommendations and offering text, video, and audio content identified based on a web search E) None of the answer choices are correct; all are possible ways.

17) In the context of digital literacy, “interpretation and use of digital information” relates to

_________.

A) problem solving using technology B) basic tools C) data security and safety D) data ethics

18) In the context of digital literacy, “understanding how to interact with and utilize data” relates

to _________.

A) problem solving using technology B) basic tools C) data security and safety D) analytics and data manipulation

19) _________ refers to a technology that allows a person to interact with a different place as if

they were there. This includes controlling robots remotely or holding virtual meetings.

A) Artificial intelligence (AI) B) Virtual reality C) Telepresence D) Internet of Things (IoT)

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20) _________ refers to software that helps employees find training content and learning

resources that are personalized to their needs.

A) Artificial intelligence (AI) B) Learning experience platform (LXP) C) Telepresence D) Internet of Things (IoT)

21) By 2030, 30% of the global workforce representing over 400 million workers could be

potentially displaced by the adoption of automation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

22) By 2030, up to one-third of the workforce in the United States may need to learn new skills

and find jobs in new occupations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

23) Automation is thought to soon replace jobs requiring complex decision-making processes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

24) Artificial Intelligence (AI) learning bots can be used by training managers to analyze

matches (or mismatches) between roles and tasks to identify learning needs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

25) With a Learning Records Store (LRS), employees can have their own “personal lockers” to

store their personal learning histories. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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26) A Learning Records Store (LRS) can be used to show the relationship between learning

experiences and business outcomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

27) IoT devices refer to “smart devices” that help make learning a continuous, ongoing,

personalized experience. ⊚ true ⊚ false

28) Advances in neuroscience research have demonstrated that long-term information recall is

enhanced when individuals learn information over several time periods rather than all at once. ⊚ true ⊚ false

29) Researchers have shown that whether an idea can be easily recalled is linked to the strength

of activating the frontal lobe during a learning task. ⊚ true ⊚ false

30) In rapid instructional design (RID), it is acceptable to skip steps in the instructional design

process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

31) In rapid instructional design (RID), the resources that are devoted to design and delivery of

instruction cannot be reallocated. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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32) One principle of rapid instructional design (RID) that is retained from the traditional

instructional design model is that the development of instructional content and process must be in close coordination. ⊚ true ⊚ false

33) Managers are demanding training courses that are longer and that focus on holistic

development. ⊚ true ⊚ false

34) Cloud computing can make it easier for employees to access formal training programs from a

variety of vendors and educational institutions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

35) Big data can be useful for identifying experts and leaders in social networks. ⊚ true ⊚ false

36) While big data may be useful for understanding what needs to be taught, big data are unlikely

to be valuable for identifying how employees learn. ⊚ true ⊚ false

37) Due to technological advances in training, the current education-to-employment system is

preparing students well for the 21st-century economy. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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38) To cope with the skills gap, more and more companies are hiring individuals based on the

degrees they hold rather than based on the skills they have. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) Barriers between business and educational institutions make it difficult for many employees

to update their skills for their current jobs or another career. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) One strategy that companies will use to develop the skills they need and help employees

advance their careers is offering training as a component of benefit packages. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) Six out of 10 current occupations have more than 30% of work activities that can be

automated using technology. ⊚ true ⊚ false

42) Given increases in automation, there will be a lesser need for employee training. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) While digital literacy will be required for technology-related jobs, it will likely not be needed

for most other positions. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) Artificial intelligence (AI) will increasingly be used for coaching and mentoring. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8

45) A concern with artificial intelligence (AI) is that it may not be accessible and understandable

to all employees regardless of disability, race, gender, orientation, or cultural background. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) A “social cyborg” is an employee who expects companies to accommodate their need to

access the latest tools and technologies at work. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) What is digital literacy? Why is it necessary?

48) How will the increased automation of work influence jobs and the skills employees need to

perform those jobs? Are robots going to displace all workers? Explain your answer.

49) Discuss how training program design is being influenced by neuroscience research.

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50) Describe what is meant by rapid instructional design (RID), and provide examples of RID

strategies.

51) Describe the skills and competencies discussed in the chapter that are needed for trainers to

be successful now and in the future.

10

Answer Key Test name: Chap 11 9e Noe 1) D 2) B 3) A 4) A 5) B 6) C 7) A 8) B 9) B 10) B 11) A 12) C 13) D 14) D 15) D 16) E 17) A 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) FALSE 24) TRUE 25) TRUE 26) TRUE 27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) FALSE 30) TRUE 31) FALSE 32) FALSE 33) FALSE 34) TRUE 35) TRUE 36) FALSE 37) FALSE 11

38) FALSE 39) TRUE 40) TRUE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) TRUE 47) Essay 48) Essay 49) Essay 50) Essay 51) Essay

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