Solutions Manual for Automotive Technology Principles, Diagnosis, and Service, 6th Edition. James D.

CHAPTER 1 Automotive Background and Overview REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. In 1900, by what was the most produced vehicle powered? (Text page 1) The most produced vehicle was powered by steam.

2. What parts are included in the vehicle chassis? (Text page 2) A vehicle chassis includes the frame (or body), axles, wheels, tires, suspension, and brakes.

3. Why were early engines called flat heads? (Text page 4) Early engines were called flat heads because the valves were located in the block next to the cylinders instead of being placed in the cylinder head. As a result, the cylinder heads were flat.

4. What is the difference between a unit-body and body-on-frame vehicle? (Text page 3) The difference between a unit-body and a body-on-frame construction is that in a unit body, the body itself is strong enough to support the suspension and drive train. In a body-on-frame vehicle, the frame supports the suspension and drive train. As a result, the body itself can be made lighter.

5. The powertrain consists of what components? (Text pages 5-6) The powertrain components consists of the engine, transmission/transaxle, final drive unit, and drive axles.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The first self-propelled vehicle that used an OTTO cycle four-stroke gasoline engine was produced in _______. (Text page 1) a. 1885 X b. 1900 c. 1902 d. 1908 2. Early vehicles were constructed mostly of what material? (Text page 2) a. Steel b. Cast iron c. Wood X d. Tin 3. Which component is not part of the chassis system? (Text page 2) a. Frame b. Electrical system X c. Suspension d. Brakes

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4. Early engines were called flat head design because they ______________________.

(Text page 4) a. were only inline engines b. did not include valves c. used valves beside the cylinder X d. used spark plugs at the top of the cylinders 5. A V-type engine could have how many cylinders? (Text page 4) a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. Any of the above X 6. What component regulates the temperature of the coolant in an engine? (Text page 5) a. Cooling (water) jackets b. Thermostat X c. Cooling fan(s) d. Radiator 7. A malfunction indicator light (MIL) on the dash may be labeled _________________.

(Text page 5) a. check engine X b. service vehicle soon c. MIL d. MAL 8. To retrieve stored diagnostic trouble codes, a service technician needs a _____________.

(Text page 5) a. paper clip b. desktop computer c. wireless connection to an electronic tester d. scan tool X 9. A four-wheel-drive vehicle often uses a _______ to transmit engine torque to all four wheels.

(Text page 6) a. drive shaft b. U-joint c. transaxle d. transfer case X 10. Automotive service systems are generally separated into how many content areas?

(Text page 7) a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 X d. 10

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CHAPTER 2 Careers in the Automotive Industry REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What should be included on a work order? (Text page 12) The work order lists customer and vehicle information, including the VIN and a listing of services requested by the owner.

2. What are some examples of mass merchandiser facilities? (Text page 10) Some examples of these chains include Sears, Goodyear, Firestone, and NAPA. 3. What tasks are usually performed by a general service technician? (Text page 12) A general service technician performs duties such as: a. Uses diagnostic equipment and test drives vehicles, plus uses service information b. Disassembles, replaces or repairs, and reassembles components c. Performs scheduled service maintenance d. Informs customers about the work performed by completing the work order 4. What duties are performed by the shop foreman and service manager? (Text page 13) The shop foreman runs the shop and directs and helps the service technician. The service manager is responsible for all aspects of the service department, including customer service.

5. What duties are performed by a parts counter person? (Text page 14) The parts counter person greets customers and helps find the correct parts needed. A parts counter person also handles the purchase orders and money, if a cash sale is made.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A vehicle needs a repair while still under warranty. Who is most likely to perform the repair?

(Text page 9) a. Any technician at the vehicle dealership b. A trained technician at any repair shop c. Any ASE certified technician d. A certified technician at the vehicle dealership X 2. A service advisor is called a ___________________. (Text page 13) a. shop foreman b. service Manager c. service writer X d. technician 3. All of the following are usual duties of a lube technician except ___________________.

(Text page 11) a. oil change 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

b. air filter replacement c. water pump replacement X d. accessory drive belt inspection 4. New vehicle preparation is usually an entry-level vehicle service position and usually involves what duties? (Text page 11) a. Installing dealer-installed options b. Correcting tire pressures c. Removal of all protective coverings and plastic d. Any of the above X 5. What is not a duty of a general service technician? (Text page 12) a. Have the customer sign the work order X b. Order the parts needed c. Diagnose the customer’s concern d. Perform vehicle repair procedures 6. Two technicians are discussing the duties of a shop foreman and a service manager.

Technician A says that a shop foreman diagnoses vehicle problems. Technician B says that the service manager usually repairs vehicle problems. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 13) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Who greets the service customer and completes the work order? (Text page 13) a. Service manager b. Service advisor c. Service writer d. Either b or c X 8. Which job would be concerned with the maintenance of the shop equipment? (Text page 13) a. Service manager b. Shop foreman c. Shop owner d. Any of the above X 9. Which job would be concerned with assigning working hours and pay? (Text page 13) a. Service manager X b. Shop foreman c. Service advisor d. Service technician 10. Who is responsible for finding the correct part needed by the service technician?

(Text page 14) a. Counter person X b. Service technician c. Shop foreman d. Service advisor 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 3 Starting a Career in the Automotive Industry REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What facts should be included on the resume? (Text pages 19-20) The facts included on a resume are all personal information, such as address and contact information, but no information that would indicate the age or race of the person.

2. What are five interviewing tips? (Text page 21) The five interviewing tips include: a. Wear shoes that are not sneakers b. Wear slacks, not jeans c. Wear a shirt with a collar d. Be clean shaven or have mustache or beard neatly trimmed e. Have clean hair 3. What is the difference between gross pay and net pay? (Text page 22) Gross pay is the amount of money earned before deductions. Net pay is the amount of money left after deductions have been removed from the gross amount.

4. What taxes are usually withheld from a paycheck? (Text page 22) Taxes that are usually taken out of the gross amount include federal income tax, FCIA (Social Security), state and local taxes (if applicable).

5. What are five duties of a shop owner? (Text page 24) The five duties of a shop owner include: a. Handling customers and employees b. Ordering and paying for supplies and shop equipment c. Bookkeeping, including payroll d. Paying rent and utilities for the shop e. Creating and paying for advertising

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A resume should be how many pages long? (Text page 19) a. 1 X b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 or more 2. What personal information should not be included on the resume? (Text page 19) a. Address b. Cell or telephone number 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

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c. Age X d. Work experience Why is having a good driving record good for the shop? (Text page 20) a. Allows the use of a company vehicle b. Lowers insurance costs X c. Allows you to drive customers’ vehicles d. Permits you to use your vehicle to get parts Which is not recommended during an interview? (Text page 21) a. Wear shoes that are not sneakers b. Wear a shirt with a collar c. Have clean hair d. Wear jeans X During an interview, try to ________________________. (Text page 21) a. show enthusiasm b. explain your work experience c. state your willingness to work d. all of the above X Flat rate time is expressed in tenths of an hour. Each tenth of an hour is ________ minutes.

(Text page 22) a. 60 b. 16 c. 30 d. 6 X One of the deductions from a pay check is for Social Security. This item is usually shown on the pay stub as ____________. (Text page 22) a. Social Security b. SSA c. FICA X d. U.S. government deduction Technician A says that the net pay amount is usually higher than the gross pay amount.

Technician B says that the gross pay amount is usually higher than the net pay. Which technician is correct? (Text page 22) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B A beginning service technician earns $400 per week. How much should the technician spend on a vehicle payment? (Text page 23) a. $400 per month X b. $500 per month c. $800 per month d. $1000 per month

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10. Which activity does not allow a person to perform any work while at the shop?

(Text pages 17-18) a. Cooperative education program b. Apprenticeship program c. Job shadowing X d. Part-time employment

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CHAPTER 4 Working as a Professional Service Technician REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What factors are a part of being a professional service technician? (Text page 24) The factors that are associated with being a profession service technician include: a. Being consistent in action and attitude b. Being honest and keeping your word c. Continuously trying to improve technician expectations d. Work successfully with others e. Apologize, if wrong 2. What is a mentor? (Text pages 30 + 31) A mentor is a highly qualified technician who is assigned to a beginning service technician to help them learn all aspects of the trade.

3. A formal evaluation could include what items? (Text page 33) A typical formal evaluation includes an analysis of attitude toward work and others, quality and quantity of work, punctuality, and professionalism.

4. What are the three C’s? (Text page 27) The three C’s are customer complaint (concern), cause, and correction.

5. What should be included on the work order after the repair has been completed?

(Text page 27) The technician should list the three C’s on the work order after the repair has been completed. Listing the consumer complaint, the cause, and the final correction will give the vehicle owner a detailed account of the process that was followed to correct the concern.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Professionalism includes which factor? (Text page 25) a. Keeping your word b. Becoming a teammate with your co-workers c. Apologizing if you are wrong d. All of the above X 2. Type of communications include ___________________. (Text pages 25-26) a. verbal b. written c. nonverbal d. all of the above X 3. The three Cs include ___________________, ________________, and _______________.

(Text page 28) a. correction, correct torque, and customer name b. concern, cause, and correction X 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. cause, cost, and caller name d. captured data, cause, and cost (of the repair) 4. When documenting the work order, what things should be listed? (Text page 28) a. The test equipment used in the diagnosis b. The test procedure that was followed c. The parts that were replaced d. All of the above X 5. Technician A says that customer-pay rate is sometimes higher than the factory flat-rate.

Technician B says that the factory flat-rate times are usually longer (given more time) compared to aftermarket flat-rate time guides. Which technician is correct? (Text page 29) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. Housekeeping duties of a technician can include ____________? (Text pages 32-33) a. cleaning the floor b. keeping the work area clean and organized c. keeping items off the floor whenever possible d. all of the above X 7. A repair shop pays $22.50 for an aftermarket water pump. With a shop margin of 35%, how much will the customer be charged for the water pump? (Text page 31) a. $22.50 b. $22.50 plus 10% c. $34.62 X d. $38.50 8. Which of the following is a characteristic of good business meetings? (Text page 32) a. The meetings should start on time and can be easily extended beyond the decided end time. b. The meetings should not include anyone outside the company or shop. c. The meetings should follow “Robert’s Rules of Order.” X d. The agenda of the meeting should be displayed at the end.

9. A mentor performs all of the following except ________________. (Text page 31) a. helps guide diagnosis of a problem b. signs paychecks X c. offers advice on how to do a job d. advises on professional behavior 10. Which of the following characteristics is evaluated under “maturity’ on a technician evaluation form? (Text page 34) a. Completely dependable b. Has difficulty working with others c. Very slow to learn d. Seldom assertive X

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CHAPTER 5 Technician Certification REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the eight ASE test areas? (Text page 36) The eight ASE test areas include: A1 Engine Repair A2 Automatic Transmission/Transaxles A3 Manual Drive Train and Axles A4 Suspension and Steering A5 Brakes A6 Electrical/Electronic Systems A7 Heating and Air Conditioning A8 Engine Performance 2. When are the written ASE tests given? (Text page 39) The ASE tests are given at selected sites electronically throughout the year at testing centers.

3. What types of questions are asked on the ASE certification tests? (Text pages 37-38) The types of questions asked on the ASE certification tests are mostly experienced-based, instead of knowledge-based questions. While a technician’s knowledge is needed to pass the tests, the questions mostly deal with understanding of test results and what action would be needed.

4. What can a technician do to help prepare to take the certification tests? (Text page 39) A technician should take practice questions and attend a test preparation course, if possible.

5. Why do vehicle manufacturers require that the technicians be certified at new vehicle dealerships? (Text page 41) All vehicle manufacturers require that the technician performing warranty repair be certified in the area that is being repaired.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Which ASE certification test would cover experience in reading an electrical schematic?

(Text pages 40-41) a. A6 b. A7 c. A8 d. All of the above are possible X 2. How many ASE tests must be passed to become a master automotive technician?

(Text page 36) a. 8 X b. 6 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

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c. 4 d. 2 How many years of experience are required to achieve ASE certification? (Text page 37) a. 8 b. 6 c. 4 d. 2 X Credit for how many years of work experience can be substituted by attending automotive service training? (Text page 37) a. None – no substitution for work experience is permitted b. 1 year X c. 2 years d. 3 years What type of certification is required in Canada? (Text page 41) a. Canadian National Certificate b. Inter-Provincial Certificate X c. Canadian Automotive Institute Certificate d. National Institute for Canadian Automotive Service Excellence Certificate What may be required in order for a technician to perform warranty repair on a vehicle?

(Text page 41) a. ASE certification b. Inter-Provincial certification c. Certification in the specific area to be repaired d. Both A and C X Which type of question is the same as two true-and-false-type questions? (Text page 37)) a. All except type b. Technician A and Technician B X c. Least likely type d. Most likely type Technician A says that you should guess if you do not know the correct answer. Technician B says that ASE will send you the correct answers to the questions you missed with your test results. Which technician is correct? (Text page 38) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B A technician should do all of the following to prepare to take the ASE certification test except ______________. (Text page 38) a. get a good night’s sleep the night before the test b. try to keep work schedule light the day of the test c. eat a big meal X d. have photo ID and entry ticket

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10. Which of the following is true of re-certification of ASE certifications? (Text page 41) a. ASE certifications are mandatory all over Canada. b. ASE certifications expire after five years. X c. ASE recertification requires five years of experience. d. ASE certification test results are not available right after the test.

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CHAPTER 6 Shop Safety REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. List four items that are personal protective equipment (PPE)? (Text pages 43-44) Four items of personal protective equipment include: a. Safety glasses b. Gloves c. Steel-toed shoes d. Bump cap 2. What are the types of fire extinguishers and their usage? (Text page 46) The types of fire extinguishers and their usage include: Type A – wood and paper fire Type B – flammable liquids fire Type C – electrical fire Type D – combustible metal fire 3. What items are included in a typical first-aid box? (Text page 47) Items that should be included in a first-aid box include bandages, gauge pads, antibiotic cream, burn gel packets, eye wash solution, scissors, tweezers, gloves, and a first-aid guide.

4. What infection control precautions should be followed in the shop? (Text page 48) Report to your supervisor any injury that involves blood and take the necessary precautions to avoid coming into contact with blood from another person.

5. What safety precautions should be taken when working on a hybrid electric vehicle?

(Text page 48) To safely work around a hybrid electric vehicle, the high-voltage (HV) battery and circuits should be shut off.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What do you call the service technician’s protective head cover? (Text page 44) a. Cap b. Hat c. Bump cap X d. Helmet 2. All safety glasses should meet the standards set by ___________. (Text page 43) a. ANSI X b. SAE c. ASE d. DOT 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3. When washing hands, the water should be at what temperature? (Text page 44) a. 98°F (37°C) b. 110°F (43°C) X c. 125°F (52°C) d. 135°F (57°C) 4. Hearing protection should be worn anytime the noise level exceeds _________.

(Text page 44) a. 60 dB b. 70 dB c. 80 dB d. 90 dB X 5. What color of high-voltage cables are used on a hybrid electric or electric vehicles?

(Text page 49) a. Blue b. Yellow c. Orange X d. Red 6. Exhaust hoses should be used because one of the exhaust gases is deadly in high concentration. This gas is _________. (Text page 45) a. carbon monoxide (CO) X b. carbon dioxide (CO2) c. hydrocarbons (HC) d. oxides of nitrogen (NOX) 7. The process of combustion occurring without an open flame is called _____________.

(Text page 45) a. direct ignition b. non-open flame combustion c. spontaneous combustion X d. cold fusion 8. When using a fire extinguisher, what word can be used to remember what to do?

(Text page 46) a. PASS X b. FIRE c. RED d. LEVER 9. Batteries should not be tipped to more than a ______________ angle. (Text page 46) a. 45 degree X b. 60 degree c. 5 degree d. none of the above 10. Which item is usually not included in a first-aid kit? (Text page 47) a. Eye wash solution b. Antibiotic cream c. Fire blanket X d. Bandages 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 7 Environmental and Hazardous Materials REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. List five common automotive chemicals or products that may be considered hazardous materials. (Text page 50) Five common automotive chemicals or products include asbestos, used oil, used brake fluid, used coolant, and batteries.

2. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) controls what types of automotive waste? (Text page 51) Hazardous waste disposal laws include the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). This law states that hazardous material users are responsible for hazardous materials from the time they become a waste until the proper waste disposal is completed.

3. What methods need to be used when handling products that may contain asbestos?

(Text page 52) Tests have determined that asbestos levels can easily be kept below the recommended levels by using a liquid, like water, or a special vacuum.

4. How should used engine oil be disposed? (Text page 53) After collecting used oil in an appropriate container, such as a 55-gallon steel drum, the material must be disposed of in one of two ways.  Shipped offsite for recycling  Burned in an onsite or offsite EPA-approved heater for energy recovery 5. What precautions are needed to be taken when handling an airbag? (Text page 58) Airbag safety should include the following precautions: 1. Disarm the airbag(s) if you will be working in the area where a discharged bag could make contact with any part of your body. Consult service information for the exact procedure to follow for the vehicle being serviced.

2. If disposing of an airbag, the usual procedure is to deploy the airbag using a 12-volt power supply, such as a jump-start box, using long wires to connect to the module to ensure a safe deployment.

3. Do not expose an airbag to extreme heat or fire.

4. Always carry an airbag pointing away from your body.

5. Place an airbag module facing upward.

6. Always follow the manufacturer’s recommended procedure for airbag disposal or recycling, including the proper packaging to use during shipment.

7. Wear protective gloves when handling a deployed airbag.

8. Always wash your hands or body well if exposed to a deployed airbag. The chemicals involved can cause skin irritation and possible rash development.

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CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Hazardous materials include all of the following except ________. (Text page 50) a. engine oil b. asbestos c. water X d. brake cleaner 2. To determine if a product or substance being used is hazardous, consult ________.

(Text page 51) a. a dictionary b. SDS X c. SAE standards d. EPA guidelines 3. Exposure to asbestos dust can cause what condition? (Text page 51) a. Asbestosis b. Mesothelioma c. Lung cancer d. All of the above are possible X 4. Wetted asbestos dust is considered to be ______________. (Text page 52) a. solid waste X b. hazardous waste c. toxic d. poisonous 5. An oil filter should be hot drained for how long before disposing of the filter? (Text page 53) a. 30 to 60 minutes b. 4 hours c. 8 hours d. 12 hours X 6. Used engine oil should be disposed of by all except the following methods. (Text page 53) a. Disposed of in regular trash X b. Shipped off-site for recycling c. Burned on-site in a waste oil-approved heater d. Burned off-site in a waste oil-approved heater 7. All of the following are the proper way to dispose of a drained oil filter except ______.

(Text page 53) a. sent for recycling b. picked up by a service contract company c. disposed of in regular trash d. considered to be hazardous waste and disposed of accordingly X 8. Which act or organization regulates air-conditioning refrigerant? (Text page 51) a. Clean Air Act (CAA) X b. SDS c. WHMIS d. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

9. Gasoline should be stored in approved containers that include what color(s)? (Text page 58) a. A red container with yellow lettering b. A red container X c. A yellow container d. A yellow container with red lettering 10. Which of these methods is the proper way to dispose of used brake fluid? (Text page 52) a. Collect the fluid in a clearly marked container. b. Disposed by an authorized waste receiver c. Mix the fluid with used engine oil d. Both a and b X

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CHAPTER 8 Fasteners and Thread Repair REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the difference between a bolt and a stud? (Text page 58) A stud has threads on both ends whereas a bolt has a head at one end used by a wrench or socket to rotate it and threads on the other end.

2. How is the size of a metric bolt expressed? (Text page 58) The size of a metric bolt is expressed with the letter M followed by the diameter in millimeters (mm). For example, a bolt that is 8 mm in diameter is labeled M8.

3. What is meant by the grade of a threaded fastener? (Text page 58) The grade of a threaded fastener is a measure of the tensile strength. The higher the grade is, the greater the tensile strength.

4. How do prevailing torque nuts work? (Text page 60) A prevailing torque nut works by deforming the threads or having a plastic insert, which helps the nut retain its position so that the clamping force of the fastener is not lost due to vibration.

5. How are threaded inserts installed? (Text page 65) Threaded inserts are installed by first drilling out the old threads and then threading the new hole, allowing the insert to be installed. The insert threads are the same size as the original.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The thread pitch of a bolt is measured in what units? (Text page 60) a. Millimeters b. Threads per inch c. Fractions of an inch d. Both a and b can be correct X 2. Technician A says that the diameter of a bolt is the same as the wrench size used to remove or install the fastener. Technician B says that the length is measured from the top of the head of the bolt to the end of the bolt. Which technician is correct? (Text page 60) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X 3. The grade of a fastener, such as a bolt, is a measure of its ___________. (Text page 61) a. tensile strength X b. hardness c. finish d. color 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4. Which of the following is a metric bolt? (Text page 61) a. 5/16 – 18 b. ½ - 20 c. M12 X 1.5 X d. 8 mm 5. The marks (lines) on the heads of bolts indicate _____________. (Text page 61) a. size b. grade c. tensile strength d. both b and c X 6. A screw that can make its own threads when installed is called a ______________ screw.

(Text page 64) a. sheet metal b. tapered c. self-tapping X d. both a and c 7. Which of the following statements is true of threaded inserts? (Text page 68) a. They look like small, stainless-steel springs. b. They are threaded inside and outside. X c. They screw on top of a nut and prevent nut loosening. d. They are used to hold together shafts and linkages.

8. All of the following are types of clips except ______________. (Text page 65) a. E-clip b. cotter X c. C-clip d. internal 9. What type of fastener is commonly used to retain interior door panels? (Text page 65) a. Christmas tree clips X b. E-clips c. External clips d. Internal clips 10. To avoid over-tightening or breaking a bolt, ________ should always be used when tightening fasteners. (Text page 67) a. a torque wrench X b. a box end wrench c. penetrating oil d. a pitch gauge

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CHAPTER 9 Hand Tools REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Why are wrenches offset 15 degrees? (Text page 71) Wrenches are offset 15 degrees to allow for clearance for the wrench when it is being rotated near other fasteners. The 15 degrees offset at the open end allows the wrench to be repositioned and the fastener rotated while in close areas.

2. What are the other names for a line wrench? (Text page 72) A line wrench may also be called a flare-nut wrench, a fitting wrench, or a tube-nut wrench.

3. What are the standard automotive drive sizes for sockets? (Text page 72) The standard automotive drive size for sockets include ¼ in., 3/8 in., and ½ in.

4. Which type of screwdriver requires the use of a hammer or mallet? (Text page 75) An impact-type screwdriver is designed to be used with a hammer or mallet to loosen screws.

5. What is inside a dead-blow hammer? (Text page 76) Small lead balls (shot) are inside a metal housing that is encased with plastic in a dead-blow hammer.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. When working with hand tools, always ________. (Text page 72) a. push the wrench – don’t pull toward you b. pull a wrench – don’t push a wrench X c. use an one-ended wrench to loosen fasteners. d. use an adjustable wrench to tighten or loosen any bolt or nut.

2. To grip large objects, the ________ plier is a commonly used tool. (Text page 76) a. diagonal b. multi-groove X c. linesman's d. slip-joint 3. What tool should be used to loosen or tighten brake or fuel lines? (Text page 72) a. Locking pliers b. Multi-groove adjustable pliers c. Line wrench X d. Torque wrench

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4. Two technicians are discussing torque wrenches. Technician A says that a torque wrench is capable of tightening a fastener with more torque than a conventional breaker bar or ratchet.

Technician B says that a torque wrench is used to apply a known amount of force to the fastener. Which technician is correct? (Text page 73) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 5. What type of hammer is plastic coated, has a metal casing inside, and is filled with small lead balls? (Text page 76) a. Dead-blow hammer X b. Soft-blow hammer c. Sledge hammer d. Plastic hammer 6. What type of pliers is capable of fitting over a large object? (Text page 76) a. Slip-joint pliers b. Linesman’s pliers c. Locking pliers d. Multi-groove adjustable pliers X 7. Which tool has a replaceable cutting edge? (Text page 78) a. Side-cut pliers b. Tin snips c. Utility knife X d. Aviation snips d. The part that connects to the handle 8. Which of the following basic hand tools should every technician possess? (Text page 81) a. Combination wrenches b. 3/8 inch drive socket set c. Adjustable wrenches d. A and B only X 9. Which of these would not be useful to a technician performing electrical repairs?

(Text page 83) a. Soldering gun b. Test light c. Gasket scraper X d. DMM 10. When loosening a bolt, a(n) ________ is the recommended tool. (Text page 73) a. pipe extension b. six-point socket X c. open-end wrench d. cheater bar

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CHAPTER 10 Power Tools and Shop Equipment REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. List the tools used by service technicians that use compressed air? (Text pages 87-88) Some of the tools that use compressed air include an air impact wrench, die grinder, air ratchet, and air drill.

2. Which trouble light design(s) is (are) the recommended type for maximum safety?

(Text page 88) For maximum safety either a fluorescent or an LED trouble light should be used.

3. What safety precautions should be adhered to when working with a vise? (Text page 89) A vise can damage the surface of a part or a component unless protective jaws are used or other materials, such as a shop cloth, is used between the jaws and the component.Use caution not to over tighten an object.

4. When using a blow gun, what precautions need to be taken? (Text page 88) When using a blow gun, be sure that the air pressure is 30 psi or less at the gun and that only an OSHA approved air gun is used.

5. How is the size of a vise determined? (Text page 89) The size of a vise is determined by the width of the jaws. Two common sizes of vises are 4 inch and 6 inch models.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. When using compressed air and a blow gun, what is the maximum allowable air pressure?

(Text page 86) a. 10 psi b. 20 psi c. 30 psi X d. 40 psi 2. Which air impact drive size is most commonly used? (Text page 87) a. ¼-inch b. 3/8-inch c. ½-inch X d. ¾-inch 3. What type of socket should be used with an air impact wrench? (Text page 87) a. Black X b. Chrome c. 12 point d. Either a or b

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4. What can be used to cover the jaws of a vise to help protect the object being held?

(Text page 89) a. Aluminum b. Wood c. Plastic d. All of the above X 5. Technician A says that impact sockets have thicker walls than conventional sockets.

Technician B says that impact sockets have a black oxide finish. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 87) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. Two technicians are discussing the use of a typical bench/pedestal-mounted grinder.

Technician A says that a wire brush wheel can be used to clean threads. Technician B says that the grinding stone can be used to clean threads. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 89) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. An hydraulic press is used with a ________ to remove a bearing from a shaft. (Text page 90) a. hammer b. torch c. bearing splitter X d. bearing driver 8. Which type of trouble light is recommended for use in the shop? (Text page 88) a. Incandescent b. Fluorescent c. LED d. Either b or c X 9. When mounting an engine to an engine stand, what grade of bolt should be used?

(Text page 91) a. 5 or 8 X b. 4 or 7 c. 3 or 5 d. 1 or 4 10. Proper care of shop equipment includes _________________________. (Text page 91) a. tuning up every 6 months b. keeping equipment clean c. keeping equipment lubricated d. both b and c X

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CHAPTER 11 Vehicle Lifting and Hoisting REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Why must safety stands be used after lifting a vehicle with a floor jack? (Text page 97) Safety stands must always be used to hold up a vehicle after a floor jack has been used to lift the vehicle. Safety stands are rigid and designed to hold the weight of a vehicle, whereas a hydraulic jack may leak internally, causing the vehicle to lower.

2. What precautions should be adhered to when storing a creeper? (Text page 97) A creeper should always be stored vertically and never on its wheels. This helps prevent a technician from accidentally stepping on it, losing balance, and falling.

3. What precautions should be adhered to when hoisting a vehicle? (Text pages 98-100) When hoisting a vehicle, the technician should first be certain that the pads are correctly set. The vehicle should be raised about one foot, and then checked for stability before raising it further. Use care while lowering the vehicle and always follow the hoist manufacturer’s instructions.

4. How is a floor jack operated? (Text page 97) A floor jack is a hand-operated hydraulic device that is used to lift vehicles or components, such as engines, transmissions, and rear axle assemblies. The typical floor jack is operated by rotating the handle to close the release valve, and then moving the handle up and down to raise the saddle of the jack.

5. Where should the hoist pads be located under the vehicle? (Text page 98) All automobile and light-truck service manuals include recommended locations to be used when hoisting (lifting) a vehicle. Some vehicles have a decal on the driver’s door indicating the recommended lift points.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A safety stand is also called a _________________. (Text page 97) a. jack b. jack stand X c. bottle jack d. safety stool 2. A creeper should be stored ______________. (Text page 97) a. vertically X b. under a vehicle c. flat on the floor d. upside down on the floor 3. The SAE standard for hoist location is _____________. (Text page 98) a. J-1980 b. SAE – 2009 24 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. JRP – 2184 X d. J – 14302 4. Tall safety stands would be used to ______________. (Text page 98) a. support an engine while the vehicle is hoisted X b. lift a vehicle c. lift a component, such as an engine, high off the ground d. both b and c 5. Commonly damaged areas of a vehicle during hoisting include _________________.

(Text page 99) a. rocker panels b. exhaust systems c. tires or body panels d. All of the above X 6. Pad extensions may be needed when hoisting what type of vehicle? (Text page 99) a. Small cars b. Pickup trucks c. Vans d. Either b or c X 7. Technician A says that a hoist can be stopped at any level as long as the safety latch engages.

Technician B says that the vehicle should be hoisted to the top of the hoist travel for safety.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 100) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Before lowering the vehicle, what should the technician do? (Text page 100) a. Be sure nothing is underneath the vehicle b. Raise the vehicle enough to release the safety latch c. Be sure no one will be walking under or near the vehicle d. All of the above X 9. A hoist with asymmetrical arms means it ______________. (Text page 98) a. has just two lifting arms b. uses different length lift arms X c. uses the same length lift arms d. has just one lifting arm 10. When checking for proper pad placement, how high should the vehicle be raised?

(Text page 99) a. About 2 inches (5 cm) b. About 6 inches (15 cm) c. About 1 foot (30 cm) X d. About 3 feet (91 cm)

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CHAPTER 12 Measuring Systems and Tools REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Explain how a micrometer is read. (Text page 106) A micrometer uses a screw thread that has 40 threads per inch. Every rotation of the thimble moves the spindle 0.025 in. The spindle is then divided into 25 parts so each line on the spindle represents 0.001 in.

2. Describe how to check a crankshaft journal for out-of-round and taper. (Text pages 105-106) To check a crankshaft journal for out-of round, a micrometer should be used to check the diameter in three positions, each 120 degrees apart. To check for taper, measure the journal diameter at two locations. The difference in the two readings is the taper.

3. List engine components that can be measured with the help of a telescopic gauge.

(Text page 108) The engine components that can be measured with the help of a telescopic gauge include cylinder bore, camshaft bearing diameter, main bearing bore diameter, and connecting rod bore diameter.

4. List the gaps or clearances that can be measured using a feeler (thickness) gauge.

(Text page 110) The gaps or clearances that can be measured using a feeler gauge include piston ring gap, piston ring side clearance, and connecting rod side clearance.

5. Explain why a dial bore gauge has to be set to a dimension before using.

(Text pages 110 -111) A dial bore gauge does not measure a hole, but instead shows how much the bore being measured varies from the preset dimension.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The threaded movable part that rotates on a micrometer is called the _________.

(Text page 105) a. barrel b. thimble X c. spindle d. anvil 2. To check a crankshaft journal for taper, the journal should be measured in at least how many locations? (Text page 106) a. One b. Three X c. Four d. Six

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3. To check a crankshaft journal for out-of-round, the journal should be measured in at least how many locations? (Text page 105) a. Two X b. Four c. Six d. Eight 4. A telescopic gauge can be used to measure a cylinder bore if what other measuring device is used to measure the telescopic gauge? (Text page 108) a. Micrometer X b. Feeler gauge c. Straightedge d. Dial indicator 5. To directly measure the diameter of a valve guide in a cylinder head, use a micrometer and a _______________. (Text page 108) a. telescopic gauge b. feeler gauge c. small-hole gauge X d. dial indicator 6. Which of the following cannot be measured using a feeler gauge? (Text page 110) a. Valve guide clearance X b. Piston ring gap c. Piston ring side clearance d. Connecting rod side clearance 7. Which of the following cannot be measured using a straightedge and a feeler gauge?

(Text page 110) a. Cylinder head flatness b. Block deck flatness c. Straightness of the main bearing bores d. Straightness of the cylinder bore X 8. Which measuring gauge needs to be set up (adjusted) to a fixed dimension before use?

(Text page 110) a. Dial indicator b. Dial bore gauge X c. Vernier dial gauge d. Micrometer 9. The freezing point of water is _______________. (Text page 104) a. 0°C b. 32°F c. 0°F d. Both a and b X 10. Which metric unit of measure is used for volume measurement? (Text page 104) a. Meter b. cc X c. Centimeter d. Millimeter 27 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 13 Scientific Principles and Materials REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is kinetic energy? (Text page 113) Kinetic energy is the energy that is in a moving object.

2. How is mechanical advantage used in the braking system? (Text page 117) Mechanical advantage is used in the braking system at the brake pedal to increase the force of the driver.

3. What is the difference between torque and power? (Text pages 113-114) Torque is a twisting force, which may or may not result in motion. Power is the rate of doing work.

4. How can a burn test help identify the type of plastic? (Text page 119) The color of the flame helps identify the type of plastic used so that the proper paint and painting process can be performed.

5. What is the pH of acids and bases? (Text page 118) The pH scale of acids and bases places the number 7 as neutral, like water, acids have numbers lower than 7, and bases have numbers higher than 7. The stronger the acid or the base, the further the number is from 7.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What term describes the ability to do work? (Text page 113) a. Energy X b. Force c. Potential d. Thermodynamics 2. Technician A says that work is being performed if a force is being applied, yet the object does not move. Technician B says that torque is a twisting force that may or may not result in motion. Which technician is correct? (Text page 113) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 3. Two technicians are discussing engine horsepower and torque figures. Technician A says that torque is measured on a dynamometer. Technician B says that horsepower is derived from the torque readings as measured on a dynamometer. Which technician is correct?

(Text pages 114-115) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 28 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4. An example of a lever and mechanical advantage used on a vehicle is the ______________.

(Text page 117) a. radio volume control b. brake pedal X c. fuel tank d. battery 5. Two technicians are discussing temperature and heat. Technician A says that temperature is the intensity of the heat source. Technician B says that heat is the quantity of heat. Which technician is correct? (Text page 117) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. Heat can move or travel by ______________. (Text page 117) a. conduction b. convection c. radiation d. all of the above X 7. Technician A says that zero degrees Celsius is the freezing temperature of water. Technician B says that 100 degrees Celsius is the boiling temperature of water. Which technician is correct? (Text page 118) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Technician A says that pure (distilled) water has a pH of 7. Technician B says that the pH of acids is less than 7. Which technician is correct? (Text page 118) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 9. Technician A says that the kinetic energy of a vehicle is proportional to its weight.

Technician B says that the kinetic energy of a moving vehicle is directly proportional to its speed. Which technician is correct? (Text page 115) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. The type of plastic can be determined by using a ______________test. (Text page 119) a. burn X b. weight c. color d. depression

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CHAPTER 14 Math, Charts, and Calculations REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the formula for determining fuel economy? (Text page 124) Divide the miles traveled by the number of gallons used to get miles per gallon.

2. Why are the torque and horsepower of an engine equal at 5252 RPM? (Text page 125) Torque and horsepower are the same at 5,252 RPM because the formula for the relationship between the two has the number 5,252 as a constant. Horsepower is torque multiplied by engine speed (RPM) divided by 5,252.

3. What service operation may require the technician to add and subtract? (Text page 123) A typical service operation that requires the technician to add or subtract is when determining the correct shim to use adjusting valves.

4. What service operation may require the technician to multiply or divide? (Text page 123) A technician may use multiplication and division to verify fuel economy, calculate pay, or determine current flow in a circuit if an accessory is added.

5. What math function is needed to calculate the overall gear ratio if the transmission and differential ratios are both known? (Text page 123) The math function needed to calculate overall gear ratio is multiplication.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Ten of 30 vehicles checked during a safety inspection had at least one tire that was under inflated. This represents what percentage of the vehicles? (Text page 122) a. 25% b. 33% X c. 43% d. 67% 2. Which of the following shows the relationship of parts? (Text page 126) a. Chart b. Graph c. Diagram X d. Schematic 3. Add 0.102 inch and 0.080 inch. The answer is __________. (Text page 123) a. 0.182 inch X b. 0.1082 inch c. 0.0082 inch d. 0.8200 inch 4. What is 26 out of 87 in percentage? (Text page 122) a. 33.5% b. 11.3% 30 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. 29.89% X d. 61.0% 5. What number is being represented by the scientific notation 6.28 × 103? (Text page 122) a. 6.28 b. 628 c. 6,280 X d. 62,800 6. 3/16 is what number in decimal form? (Text page 123) a. 0.1875 X b. 1.875 c. 0.5333 d. 5.333 7. How is 0.183 pronounced? (Text page 122) a. One hundred eighty-three thousandth X b. One thousand eighty-three c. Zero dot one hundred and eighty-three hundredths d. One tenth and 83 hundredths 8. A vehicle traveled 280 miles and used 12.6 gallons of fuel. What is the calculated miles per gallon? (Text page 124) a. 18 MPG b. 22.2 MPG X c. 28 MPG d. 42 MPG 9. Which number is the smallest? (Text page 123) a. 1/16 X b. .25 c. 3/8 d. .33 10. Gear ratio is expressed as the number of rotations the ______________ must make in order to rotate the ______________ one revolution. (Text page 124) a. drive gear/driven gear X b. driven gear/drive gear c. input gear/output gear d. output gear/input gear

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CHAPTER 15 Service Information and Repair Orders REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is included in the vehicle owner’s manual that could be helpful for a service technician?

(Text page 127) The owner’s manual includes many items of information that a technician needs to know, including capacity of the engine oil, transmission and differential, type of fluids and viscosity, recommended service intervals, as well as bulb trade numbers and how to operate all of the accessories.

2. Why is factory service information the most detailed of all service information?

(Text page 128) The most comprehensive and accurate service information is the service information from the vehicle manufacturer. This information is available for most, if not all, vehicles and can be purchased from their website.

3. What customer information needs to be included on a repair order (RO)? (Text page 131) Name and address of the owner with contact information, such as the cell phone number and email address.

4. What should the service technician include on the work order? (Text page 131) The technician should document the work order by stating not only what was done, but what service tools were used.

5. Describe how hotline services and Internet sites assist service technicians. (Text page 132) Hotline service, such as www.identifix.com, offer the technician real-time help from an experienced technician who is very knowledgeable about the particular vehicle being serviced. This, plus www.iatn.net, which has available history of successful repairs, helps reduce the time spent on diagnosis in most cases, thereby saving the technician and the shop a lot of time.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What type of information is commonly included in the owner’s manual that would be a benefit to service technicians? (Text page 127) a. Maintenance reminder light reset procedures b. Tire pressure monitoring system reset procedures c. Maintenance items specifications d. All of the above X 2. Two technicians are discussing the need for the history of the vehicle. Technician A says that an accident could cause faults to occur after the repair due to hidden damage. Technician B says that some faults could be related to a previous repair. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 132) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only 32 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 3. A campaign (recall) is mailed to the owner of a vehicle from the ______________.

(Text page 130) a. vehicle manufacturer X b. local dealer c. federal government d. state or local government 4. Technical service bulletins (TSBs) are issued by the______________. (Text page 130) a. vehicle manufacturer X b. local dealer c. federal government d. state or local government 5. Four tenths of an hour is how many minutes? (Text page 131) a. 14 b. 24 X c. 34 d. 44 6. What should the service technician document on the work order? (Text pages 130-131) a. The results of any inspections and tests b. What was replaced or serviced c. The dimensions of the related component and comparison to factory specifications d. All of the above X 7. The labor rate for each operation is included on the work order and is added by the ______________. (Text page 131) a. service technician b. service advisor c. shop owner or designated warranty person X d. any of the above 8. Which of the following are performed at no cost to the vehicle owner? (Text page 130) a. TSBs b. Campaigns (recalls) X c. Either a or b d. Neither a nor b 9. A Julian date of 186 is about when? (Text page 128) a. February 5 b. April 5 c. July 5 X d. October 5 10. Hotline services are ______________. (Text page 132) a. free b. available for a service fee X c. available on CD or DVD format d. accessed by the internet 33 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 16 Vehicle Identification and Emission Ratings REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. From what position are the terms left and right determined? (Text page 135) The terms left and right are all based as if the person is sitting behind the steering wheel.

2. What are the major pieces of information that are included in the vehicle identification number (VIN)? (Text page 136) The VIN indicates a lot of information, including country of manufacturer, model and make, model year, as well as type of safety equipment and the serial number.

3. What information is included on the VECI label under the hood? (Text page 137) The Vehicle Emission Control Information (VECI) sticker includes spark plug type and gap, vacuum hose routing, and other emission-related information and standards that the vehicle meets.

4. What does Tier 2 Bin 5 mean? (Text page 138) The term Tier 2 is a U.S. federal emission standard that replaced the less stringent Tier 1 rating in 2001. Bin 5 indicates the level achieved where the lower the bin number is, the clearer the exhaust emission.

5. What emission rating is required to allow the use of the High Occupancy Vehicle (HOV) lanes on highways in that state? (Text page 137) Tier 2 variations are appended with “II,” such as LEV II or SULEV II. Other categories have also been created. This designation is often used by some states to allow vehicles to use the High Occupancy Vehicle (HOV) lanes on highways in that state.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The passenger side is called the ___________________. (Text page 135) a. right side X b. left side c. either right or left side, depending on how the vehicle is viewed d. both a and b 2. A vehicle with the engine in the front can be __________________. (Text page 135) a. front-wheel drive b. rear-wheel drive c. four-wheel drive d. any of the above X 3. The vehicle identification number (VIN) is how many characters long? (Text page 136) a. 10 b. 12 c. 17 X d. 21 34 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4. The tenth character represents the year of the vehicle. If the tenth character is a “Y,” what year is the vehicle? (Text page 136) a. 1998 b. 2000 X c. 2002 d. 2004 5. The first character of the vehicle identification number is the country of origin. Where was the vehicle built that has a “5” as the first character? (Text page 136) a. United States X b. Canada c. Mexico d. Japan 6. The VECI label includes all except _________________. (Text page 137) a. engine identification b. horsepower and torque rating of the engine X c. spark plug type and gap d. valve lash 7. The vehicle safety certification label includes all except __________________.

(Text page 136) a. VIN b. GVWR c. tire pressure recommendation X d. GAWR 8. What are the characters that are embedded in most engine blocks and are used for identification? (Text page 138) a. VIN b. Calibration codes c. Bin number d. Casting number X 9. If the first number of the VIN is an “S,” where was the vehicle made? (Text page 136) a. United States b. Mexico c. Canada d. England X 10. Technician A says that the lower the Bin number is, the cleaner. Technician B says that SULEV has cleaner standards than ULEV. Which technician is correct?

(Text pages 137-138) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 17 Preventive Maintenance and Service Procedures REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Why should brake fluid not be filled above the full or MAX level as indicated on the master cylinder reservoir? (Text page 143) Brake fluid must not be filled above the “MAX” level indicated on the master cylinder reservoir because brake fluid expands when heated. During braking, the brake fluid gets hotter and expands. There needs to be room in the master cylinder reservoir for the fluid to expand.

2. Why should brake fluid be kept in an airtight container? (Text page 143) Brake fluid must be kept in an airtight container because most brake fluid absorbs moisture from the surrounding air, which lowers its boiling point.

3. How do you check differential fluid? (Text page 154) The differential fluid level is checked by hoisting the vehicle and removing the fill plug from the side of the differential housing. The correct level should be even with the bottom of the plug hole.

4. What are four lubricants that a manual transmission/transaxle may require, depending on exact year, make, and model of vehicle? (Text page 154) A manual transmission/transaxle could use any one of the following lubricants, depending on the year, make, and model of vehicle.

Engine oil (usually SAE 5W-30) Automatic transmission fluid (ATF) SAE 80W-90 gear lube Special manual transmission fluid 5. How often does diesel exhaust fluid (DEF) need to be refilled? (Text page 155) Most diesel vehicles are equipped with a DEF reservoir large enough to last until the next scheduled oil change.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Preventative maintenance includes all of these except ______________. (Text page 140) a. tire balancing X b. oil and filter change c. check tire pressure d. air filter replacement 2. When should the engine oil be replaced? (Text page 145) a. According to the vehicle manufacturer’s recommended interval based on time and mileage, whichever occurs first X b. Every 3 months regardless of miles 36 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

c. Every 3,000 miles regardless of time d. All of the above Which of these should be used when preparing a vehicle for service? (Text page 140) a. A windshield cover b. A steering wheel cover X c. Eye protection d. Elbow protection pads Routine service includes______ (Text pages 141-142) a. checking all safety related items b. replacing wiper blades as needed c. replacing cabin and air filters as needed d. all of the above X Which of these conditions must be met before checking the fluid level in an automatic transmission? (Text page 148) a. The vehicle should be on parked on an inclined surface. b. The transmission should be in the highest gear. c. The vehicle should be driven several miles before the level is checked. X d. The transmission fluid should have cooled after being used.

Coolant can be checked using _______________. (Text page 146) a. boiling/freezing points using a refractometer and hydrometer b. visual inspection c. test strips d. all of the above X Accessory drive belt tension is determined by ____________? (Text pages 149-150) a. marks on the tensioner b. torque required to rotate the tensioner using a beam-type torque wrench c. belt tension using a belt tension gauge d. any of the above, depending on the specified procedure as found in service information X What inflation pressure specifications should be used when checking or correcting tire pressure? (Text page 151) a. The MAX pressure as imprinted on the tire sidewall b. The driver's door placard pressure X c. 32 PSI in most tires d. 35 PSI in all tires The use of diesel exhaust fluid (DEF) in a vehicle equipped with a diesel engine is used to reduce______ emissions. (Text page 155) a. NOx X b. HC c. CO d. All of the above

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10. A service technician removed the inspection/fill plug from the differential of a rear-wheel- drive vehicle and gear lube started to flow out. Technician A says to quickly replace the plug to prevent any more loss of gear lube. Technician B says to catch the fluid and allow the fluid to continue to drain. Which technician is correct? (Text page 154) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 18 Gasoline Engine Operation, Parts, and Specifications REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How is the angle between power strokes determined? (Text page 161) To find the angle between power strokes of an engine, divide 720 by the number of cylinders.

2. What brands of vehicles use horizontally opposed 4- and 6-cylinder engines?

(Text page 161) This style of engine is used in Porsche and Subaru engines, and is often called the boxer or pancake engine design.

3. What are the strokes of a four-stroke cycle? (Text page 161) The four strokes of a four-stroke engine include intake, compression, power, and exhaust.

4. If an engine at sea level produces 100 horsepower, how many horsepower would it develop at 6,000 feet of altitude? (Text page 167) An engine loses 3% of its power for each 1,000 feet above sea level. Therefore, at 6,000 feet, an engine would lose 18% (3 × 6 = 18) or 18 hp. Therefore, if an engine develops 100 hp at sea level, that same engine will produce 82 hp when operating at 6,000 feet altitude.

5. What is the definition of horsepower? (Text page 168) One horsepower was determined to be the power required to move 550 pounds one foot in one second or 33,000 pounds one foot in one minute (550 × 60 seconds = 33,000 pounds per minute).

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The chemical energy in fuel is converted to heat by the burning of the fuel at a controlled rate. This process is called _______________. (Text page 157) a. combustion X b. consumption c. power d. torque 2. An SOHC V-8 engine has how many camshafts? (Text page 162) a. One b. Two X c. Three d. Four 3. The coolant flow through the radiator is controlled by the _______________.

(Text page 158) a. Size of the passages in the block b. Thermostat X 39 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. Cooling fan(s) d. Water pump 4. Torque is expressed in units of ________. (Text page 168) a. pound-feet X b. foot-pounds c. foot-pounds per minute d. pound-feet per second 5. Horsepower is expressed in units of ________. (Text page 168) a. pound-feet b. foot-pounds c. foot-pounds per minute X d. pound-feet per second 6. A normally aspirated automobile engine loses about _______ power per 1,000 feet of altitude. (Text page 168) a. 1% b. 3% X c. 5% d. 6% 7. One cylinder of an automotive four-stroke cycle engine completes a cycle every ________.

(Text page 161) a. 90 b. 180 c. 360 d. 720 X 8. How many rotations of the crankshaft are required to complete each stroke of a four-stroke cycle engine? (Text page 161) a. One-fourth b. One-half X c. One d. Two 9. A rotating force is called ________. (Text page 168) a. horsepower b. torque X c. combustion pressure d. eccentric movement 10. Technician A says that a crankshaft determines the stroke of an engine. Technician B says that the length of the connecting rod determines the stroke of an engine. Which technician is correct? (Text page 163) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 19 Diesel Engine Operation and Diagnosis REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the difference between direct injection and indirect injection? (Text page 172) A direct injection diesel engine uses an injector that squirts fuel directly into the combustion chamber. An indirect injection diesel engine uses an injector that squirts fuel into a pre-combustion chamber next to the combustion chamber.

2. What are the three phases of diesel ignition? (Text page 172) The three phases of diesel ignition are: a. Ignition delay b. Rapid combustion c. Controlled combustion 3. Why are glow plugs kept working after the engine starts? (Text page 177) The glow plugs are kept working to help reduce noise, white exhaust smoke (unburned fuel), and to improve idle quality.

4. What exhaust after-treatment is needed to achieve exhaust emission standards for vehicles 2007 and newer. (Text page 181) Diesel exhaust particulate filter (DPF) is the aftertreatment device needed to meet the 2007+ emissions standards.

5. What are the advantages and disadvantages of SCR? (Text page 183) The advantages of SCR include: a. The potential for higher power output b. Reduced NOX emission up to 90% c. Reduced HC and CO emissions up to 50% d. Reduced particulate matter (PM) by 50% The disadvantages of SCR include: a. On-board storage tank required for the urea (diesel exhaust fluid – DEF) b. Difficult to find DEF at times c. Increased cost to the vehicle owner due to the cost of refilling the DEF storage tank

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How is diesel fuel ignited in a warm diesel engine? (Text page 170) a. Glow plugs b. Heat of compression X c. Spark plugs d. Distributorless ignition system 41 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

2. Which diesel injection system supplies high-pressure diesel fuel to all of the injectors all of the time? (Text page 174) a. Distributor b. Inline c. High-pressure common rail X d. Rotary 3. What fuel system component is used in a vehicle equipped with a diesel engine that is seldom used on the same vehicle when it is equipped with a gasoline engine? (Text page 173) a. Fuel filter b. Fuel supply line c. Fuel return line d. Water-fuel separator X 4. Which of the following may be a symptom of injector O-ring trouble in a HEUI system?

(Text page 175) a. Water getting in the fuel b. The fuel filter element turning black X c. Fuel pressure over 20,000 PSI d. Tailpipe exhaust temperature over 572 degrees F (300 degrees C) 5. Technician A says that glow plugs are used to help start a diesel engine and are shut off as soon as the engine starts. Technician B says that the glow plugs are turned off as soon as a flame is detected in the combustion chamber. Which technician is correct? (Text page 177) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X 6. The use of a variable vane turbocharger allows the elimination of the ___________.

(Text page 178) a. turbocharger wastegate X b. diesel oxygen sensor c. intake air cooler d. exhaust cooler 7. Selective catalytic reduction (SCR) uses urea injection to reduce _________ emissions.

(Text page 182) a. NOx X b. CO2 c. H2O d. CO 8. Which of these takes place during regeneration in a diesel particulate filter (DPF)?

(Text page 181) a. The oxygen sensor is being cleaned b. Soot is being burned X c. EGR system is being actively tested d. Catalytic converter is being purged

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9. What color exhaust smoke occurs most often during cold engine starts because the smoke is usually condensed fuel droplets? (Text page 177) a. Grey b. Blue c. White X d. Black 10. What part should be removed to test cylinder compression on a diesel engine?

(Text page 185) a. Injector b. Intake valve rocker arm and stud c. Glow plug d. Glow plug or injector X

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CHAPTER 20 Coolant REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What types of coolant are used in vehicles? (Text pages 189-190) All factory installed coolant is ethylene-glycol based and currently includes: OAT, HOAT, and PHOAT formulations.

2. Why is a 50/50 mixture of antifreeze and water commonly used as a coolant?

(Text page 188) A 50/50 mixture provides the best combination of freezing protection and heat transfer ability of the coolant.

3. What are the differences among IAT, OAT, HOAT, and PHOAT coolants?

(Text pages 189-190) IAT contains silicate and phosphates and is used in vehicles older than 1996. OAT, HOAT, and PHOAT are used in many vehicles and include their own additive package.

4. What are some of the heavy metals that can be present in used coolant? (Text page 194) Some of the heavy metals found in used coolant include lead, aluminum, and iron.

5. What is the difference between galvanic activity and electrolysis? (Text page 193) Galvanic activity is voltage production without an outside source of voltage, whereas electrolysis is created when the vehicle has a poor ground connection.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Coolant is water and ______________. (Text page 188) a. methanol b. glycerin c. kerosene d. ethylene glycol X 2. As the percentage of antifreeze in the coolant increases, _________________.

(Text page 188) a. the freeze point decreases (up to a point) X b. the boiling point decreases c. the heat transfer increases d. all of the above 3. Adding a chemical to make ethylene glycol coolant bitter to the taste is called ____________.

(Text page 190) a. passivation b. embittered X c. refractometer d. electrolysis

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4. Asian red coolant is what type? (Text page 190) a. IAT b. OAT c. HOAT X d. PHOAT 5. PHOAT coolant is what color? (Text page 190) a. Dark green X b. Red c. Orange d. Blue 6. DEX-COOL is ____________. (Text page 189) a. propylene glycol b. ethylene glycol c. silicate and phosphate free d. both b and c X 7. Two technicians are discussing testing coolant for proper pH. Technician A says that coolant has a pH above 7 when new and becomes lower with use in an engine. Technician B says that OAT and HOAT coolants have a lower pH when new compared to the old green IAT coolant.

Which technician is correct? (Text pages 192) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. What percentage of coolant is water? (Text page 188) a. 80% b. 50% X c. 30% d. 10% 9. Reusing old coolant is generally not approved by vehicle manufacturers except ___________.

(Text page 194) a. General Motors b. Ford c. Chrysler d. Mercedes X 10. A voltmeter was used to check the coolant and a reading of 0.2 volt with the engine off was measured. A reading of 0.8 volt was measured with the engine running and all electrical accessories turned on. Technician A says that the coolant should be flushed to solve the galvanic activity. Technician B says that the ground wires and connections should be inspected and repaired to solve the electrolysis problem. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 193) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 45 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 21 Cooling System Operation and Diagnosis REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is normal operating coolant temperature? (Text page 197) Most engines are equipped with a 195 degree thermostat and as a result, will operate between 195 and 215 degrees, which is the opening point and the fully open temperature of the thermostat.

2. Explain the flow of coolant through the engine and the radiator. (Text page 196) The flow of coolant through the engine and the radiator starts when the thermostat opens. Coolant flows through the thermostat to the upper radiator hose and then through the radiator. After the coolant is cooled in the radiator, it is drawn into the water pump. It is then forced out and through the block and cylinder head(s) and then back to the thermostat.

3. Why is a cooling system pressurized? (Text page 200) The cooling system is pressurized because under pressure, the coolant boiling temperature is increased.

4. Describe how to diagnose a heater problem. (Text page 206) To diagnose a heater problem, first feel the radiator hoses to see that the coolant is hot enough. If the thermostat and coolant level is okay, feel the temperature of the heater hoses; both should be hot.

5. What are 10 common causes of overheating? (Text page 208) Ten causes of overheating include: a. low coolant level b. clogged radiator c. defective cooling fan d. incorrect ignition timing e. defective coolant pump belt f.

defective pressure cap

g. defective coolant pump h. defective thermostat i.

frozen coolant

j.

engine problem

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What diagnostic trouble code (DTC) could be set if the thermostat is defective?

(Text page 195) a. P0300 b. P0171 46 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

c. P0440 d. P0128 X What is the purpose of the lower air dam in the front of vehicles? (Text page 200) a. To help direct the air through the radiator X b. To direct the air to the automatic transmission c. To improve the looks of the vehicle d. Both b and c What type of pump is a water pump? (Text page 202) a. Positive displacement b. Centrifugal pump X c. Vane-type pump d. Gear-type pump Water pumps ________. (Text page 202) a. only work at idle and low speeds and are disengaged at higher speeds b. use engine oil as a lubricant and coolant c. are driven by the engine crankshaft or camshaft X d. disengage during freezing weather to prevent radiator failure Which statement is true about thermostats? (Text page 196) a. The temperature marked on the thermostat is the temperature at which the thermostat should be fully open. b. Thermostats often cause overheating. c. The temperature marked on the thermostat is the temperature at which the thermostat should start to open X d. Both a and b.

The normal operating temperature (coolant temperature) of an engine equipped with a 195F thermostat is ____. (Text page 197) a. 175 to 195F b. 185 to 205F c. 195 to 215F X d. 175 to 215F The upper radiator hose collapses when the engine cools. What is the most likely cause?

(Text page 202) a. Defective upper radiator hose b. Missing spring from the upper radiator hose, which is used to keep it from collapsing c. Defective thermostat d. Defective radiator pressure cap X A customer complains that the heater works sometimes, but sometimes only cold air comes out while driving. Technician A says that the water pump is defective. Technician B says that the cooling system could be low on coolant. Which technician is correct? (Text page 206) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Defective pressure cap 47 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

9. Technician A says that dirty or blocked radiator can cause the engine to overheat. Technician B says that overheating can be caused by a defective water pump. Which technician is correct? (Text page 208) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. What can be done to prevent air from getting trapped in the cooling system when the coolant is replaced? (Text page 209) a. Pour the coolant into the radiator slowly. b. Use a coolant exchange machine that draws a vacuum on the system. c. Open the air bleeder valves while adding coolant. d. Either b or c. X

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CHAPTER 22 Engine Oil REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What property of oil does the SAE ratings reflect? (Text page 213) The SAE rating reflects the viscosity of the oil.

2. What additives are used in the base oil to improve the oil? (Test page 212) The additives used to improve the base oil include: vicosity index (VI) improver, pour point depressant, and antifoam agents.

3. Why is the oil filter bypassed when the engine oil is cold and thick? (Text page 218) The bypass valve is used to allow oil to bypass the oil filter if the filter becomes clogged.

The oil will also bypass the filter through the bypass valve when the oil is cold and thick.

4. What are the steps in performing an oil change? (Text page 220) To change the engine oil, perform the following steps: Step 1 Check the oil level (notify the customer if low).

Step 2 Hoist the vehicle and drain the oil; remove the oil filter.

Step 3 Lubricate the oil filter rubber gasket and install the oil filter; reinstall the oil drain plug with a new gasket.

Step 4 Lower the vehicle and add the amount of specified oil.

Step 5 Start the engine and check for leaks.

5. What additives are added to oil to help protect the engine? (Text page 212) The additives used to protect the engine include: • • • •

Rust inhibitor. Inhibits the action of water on ferrous metal, such as steel Corrosion inhibitor. Protects nonferrous metals, such as copper Anti-wear additive. Forms a protective layer on metal surfaces to reduce friction and prevent wear when no lubricant film is present Extreme pressure additive. Functions only when heavy loads and temperatures are occurring

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Which of the following is true of the properties of engine oil? (Text page 213) a. Engine oil gets thinner when it is cooled. b. Engine oils should not be miscible. c. Engine oil viscosity changes with temperature. X d. Engine oil pour point is the highest temperature at which oil will pour.

2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of satisfactory engine oil? (Text page 212) a. Resist foaming b. Provides dry friction between moving parts X 49 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

c. Proper viscosity d. Pours at low temperatures The “W” in SAE 5W-20 means ________. (Text page 213) a. weight b. winter X c. with d. without Which rating is the ACEA rating specified for use by many European vehicle manufacturers?

(Text page 215) a. SAE b. A3/B3 X c. SM d. GF-4 Technician A says that the engine oil used should meet the vehicle manufacturer’s standards.

Technician B says that an oil with the specified API rating and SAE viscosity rating should be used in an engine. Which technician is correct? (Text page 217) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B Most conventional (mineral) oil is made from what API group? (Text page 215) a. Group I b. Group II X c. Group III d. Group IV or V Technician A says that all high mileage oils are synthetic. Technician B says that synthetic and mineral oils are miscible. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 216-217) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B Two technicians are discussing oil filters. Technician A says that the oil will remain perfectly clean if just the oil filter is changed regularly. Technician B says that oil filters can filter particles smaller than the human eye can see. Which technician is correct? (Text page 218) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B The purpose of the oil filter bypass valve is to_________. (Text page 218) a. allow oil to bypass the filter if the filter becomes clogged X b. keep the oil from draining out of the filter when the engine is off and the oil pressure drops to zero c. allows oil to bypass the oil filter when the oil is hot to help cool the oil d. Both a and b 50 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

10. Oil change intervals as specified by the vehicle manufacturer ______________.

(Text page 218) a. are maximum time and mileage intervals X b. are minimum time and mileage intervals c. only include miles driven between oil changes d. generally only include time between oil changes

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CHAPTER 23 Lubrication System Operation and Diagnosis REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What causes a wedge-shaped film to form in the oil? (Text page 226) The shape of the bearings allows small amount of oil to be trapped and it is this oil that is rotated by the crankshaft around the bearing, creating a hydrodynamic wedge.

2. What is hydrodynamic lubrication? (Text page 226) Hydrodynamic lubrication is the high pressure of oil created by the hydrodynamic wedge that supports the crankshaft on a layer (thin film) of oil.

3. Explain why internal engine leakage affects oil pressure. (Text page 229) Oil clearance between main and rod bearings represents a limited amount of leakage that the oil pump is normally able to handle and still maintain oil pressure. If the clearance is increased due to worn bearings, the capacity of the oil pump cannot keep up and the oil pressure drops.

4. Describe how the oil flows from the oil pump, through the filter and main engine bearings, to the valve train. (Text page 230) Oil flows from the pump to the spring regulator, and then on to the main and rod bearings and finally to the valve train.

5. What is the purpose of a windage tray? (Text page 233) A windage tray is a shield between the crankshaft and the oil in the oil pan. The purpose of the windage tray is to prevent the oil from being thrown by the counterweight of the crankshaft., thereby reducing oil foaming, improving lubrication, and reducing horsepower loss.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Normal oil pump pressure in an engine is ________ PSI. (Text page 227) a. 3 to 7 b. 10 to 60 X c. 100 to 150 d. 180 to 210 2. Two technicians are discussing oil pumps. Technician A says that many oil pumps are driven directly off the front of the crankshaft. Technician B says that some are driven from the distributor if the engine uses a distributor-type ignition system. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 228) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 3. A typical oil pump can pump how many gallons per minute? (Text page 227) a. 3 to 6 gallons X b. 6 to 10 gallons 52 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. 10 to 60 gallons d. 50 to 100 gallons 4. In typical engine lubrication systems, what components are the last to receive oil and the first to suffer from a lack of oil or oil pressure? (Text page 231) a. Main bearings b. Rod bearings c. Valve train components X d. Oil filters 5. Hydrodynamic lubrication created by the wedging action of oil between the crankshaft journal and the bearing, can be as high as _______ PSI. (Text page 227) a. 60 psi b. 120 psi c. 500 psi d. 1,000 psi X 6. What type of oil pump is driven by the crankshaft? (Text pages 228-229) a. Gerotor b. Internal/external gear c. External gear d. Both a and b X 7. Lower than specified oil pressure is measured on a high-mileage engine. Technician A says that worn main or rod bearings could be the cause. Technician B says that a clogged oil pump pickup screen could be the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 229) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Oil passages in an engine block are usually called ____________. (Text page 230) a. galleries X b. holes c. runners d. pathways 9. Why is a dry sump system used in some high-performance vehicles? (Text page 233) a. It allows the vehicle to corner or brake for long periods b. It allows the engine to develop more power c. It allows for a greater oil capacity so that oil temperatures can be controlled d. All of the above X 10. An engine oil cooler uses what to cool the oil? (Text page 234) a. Coolant X b. Air c. Air conditioning evaporator output d. Automatic transmission fluid after it flows through the radiator

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CHAPTER 24 Intake and Exhaust Systems REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the three main jobs of the air cleaner and filter? (Text page 236) The three main jobs of the air cleaner and filter include: • Clean the air before it is mixed with fuel • Silence intake noise • Act as a flame arrester in case of a backfire 2. How can fuel-injected engine intake manifolds be tuned to improve engine performance?

(Text page 238) Intake manifold runners are tuned to improve engine performance.

• Long runners build low-RPM torque.

• Shorter runners provide maximum high-RPM power.

3. What is a variable intake manifold? (Text page 240) Variable intake manifolds, commonly called a variable-length intake manifold (VLIM), allow the engine to produce a higher level of torque and horsepower over a wide range of engine speeds.

4. How does a muffler quiet exhaust noise? (Text page 244) A muffler quiets the exhaust by smoothing out the high-pressure exhaust pulses and allowing them to be released at an even and constant rate.

5. What is the purpose and function of exhaust system hangers? (Text page 243) The muffler and tailpipe are supported with brackets, which help to isolate the exhaust noise from the rest of the vehicle.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The air filter restriction indicator uses what to detect when it signals to replace the filter?

(Text page 237) a. Number of hours of engine operation b. Number of miles of vehicle travel c. The amount of light that can pass through the filter d. The amount of restriction measured in inches of water X 2. Air filters can remove particles and dirt as small as ______________. (Text page 236) a. 5 to 10 microns b. 10 to 25 microns X c. 30 to 40 microns d. 40 to 50 microns 3. Why do many port fuel-injected engines use long intake manifold runners?

(Text page 240) a. To reduce exhaust emissions b. To heat the incoming air 54 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. To increase high-RPM power d. To increase low-RPM torque X 4. The upper portion of a two-part intake manifold is often called the ______________.

(Text page 239) a. housing b. lower part c. plenum X d. vacuum chamber 5. Which of the following is/are terms for a variable intake manifold? (Text page 240) a. Variable intake system (VIS) b. Variable volume induction (VVI) c. Dual-stage intake (DSI) d. Any of the above X 6. Why are the EGR gases cooled before entering the engine on some engines? (Text page 241) a. Cool exhaust gas is more effective at controlling NOx emissions X b. To help prevent the exhaust from slowing down c. To prevent damage to the intake valve d. To prevent heating the air-fuel mixture in the cylinder 7. Technician A says that a cracked exhaust manifold can affect engine operation. Technician B says that a leaking lower intake manifold gasket could cause a vacuum leak. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 239;242) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Technician A says that some intake manifolds are plastic. Technician B says that some intake manifolds are constructed in two parts or sections: upper and lower. Which technician is correct? (Text page 239) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 9. Why is the catalytic converter placed as close to the engine as possible? (Text page 243) a. For easier access when working on the engine b. So the heat can help the converter work most efficiently X c. To allow the exhaust pipes from the catalytic converter rearward to be as long as possible d. To prevent the heat from the exhaust system moving upward toward the floor of the vehicle 10. The ________ smooths out the pressure pulses in the exhaust system, allowing them to be released at an even and constant rate. (Text page 243) a. exhaust manifold b. muffler X c. intake manifold d. exhaust gas recirculation valve 55 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 25 Turbocharging and Supercharging REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the reasons why supercharging increases engine power? (Text page 246) Superchargers increase engine power by increasing the air-fuel charge density, resulting in a more powerful combustion in the cylinder.

2. How does the bypass valve work on a supercharged engine? (Text page 248) A bypass valve is used on many superchargers to allow intake air to flow directly into the intake manifold bypassing the supercharger. This bypass valve improves fuel economy under port-throttle conditions, where the boost from the supercharger is not needed.

3. What are the advantages and disadvantages of supercharging? (Text page 248) A supercharger is able to boost engine power at all engine speeds and loads without a delay or lag. However, the supercharger itself takes power from the engine to operate, thereby reducing its efficiency.

4. What are the advantages and disadvantages of turbocharging? (Text page 249; 251) A turbocharger is more efficient than a supercharger because it uses the waste heat energy in the exhaust to provide boost. However, there is a delay or lag from the time the driver depresses the accelerator and when boost occurs.

5. What turbocharger control valves are needed for proper engine operation?

(Text pages 252- 253) A typical turbocharger system uses a wastegate to control (limit) the maximum boost, as well as a relief valve, such as a compression bypass valve or blow-off valve to release pressure in the intake system when the throttle is closed.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The term “volumetric efficiency” refers to the ability of an engine to ______________ .

(Text page 246) a. create emissions b. create heat c. pull in air X d. distribute air evenly 2. Boost pressure is generally measured in ______________ . (Text page 246) a. inch Hg b. PSI X c. inch H2O d. inch pound 3. Which valve is used on a factory supercharger to limit boost? (Text page 248) a. A bypass valve X b. A wastegate 56 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. A blow-off valve d. An air valve 4. How are most superchargers lubricated? (Text page 249) a. By engine oil under pressure through lines from the engine b. By an internal oil reservoir X c. By greased bearings d. No lubrication is needed because the incoming air cools the supercharger 5. How are most turbochargers lubricated? (Text page 250) a. By engine oil under pressure through lines from the engine X b. By an internal oil reservoir c. By greased bearings d. No lubrication is needed because the incoming air cools the supercharger 6. Two technicians are discussing the term “turbo lag.” Technician A says that it refers to the delay between when the exhaust leaves the cylinder and when it contacts the turbine blades of the turbocharger. Technician B says that it refers to the delay in boost pressure that occurs when the throttle is first opened. Which technician is correct? (Text page 251) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Technician A says that a stuck-open wastegate can cause the engine to burn oil. Technician B says that a clogged PCV system can cause the engine to burn oil. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 251) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. What service operation is most important on engines equipped with a turbocharger?

(Text page 251) a. Replacing the air filter regularly b. Replacing the fuel filter regularly c. Regular oil changes X d. Regular exhaust system maintenance 9. What is the purpose of an intercooler? (Text page 251) a. To reduce the temperature of the air entering the engine X b. To cool the turbocharger c. To cool the engine oil on a turbocharged engine d. To cool the exhaust before it enters the turbocharger 10. Nitrous oxide injection adds ________, allowing the engine to burn more fuel.

(Text page 254) a. NOx b. Oxygen X c. HC d. CO2 57 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 26 Engine Condition Diagnosis REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Describe the visual checks that should be performed on an engine if a mechanical malfunction is suspected. (Text pages 257-259) The visual inspection items that should be performed as a part of a diagnosis include oil level and condition, coolant level and condition, checking for oil leaks, and listening carefully for abnormal engine noise.

2. Describe how to perform a compression test and how to determine what is wrong with an engine based on compression test result. (Text pages 261-263) A compression test is performed by connecting a pressure gauge into the spark plug hole and cranking the engine. A low first puff measurement indicates worn or broken piston rings. All cylinders should be within 20% of each other.

3. Describe the cylinder leakage test. (Text page 264) A cylinder leakage test uses compressed air in the cylinders and faults are detected by listening for where the air is escaping from the engine.

4. Describe how a vacuum gauge would indicate if the valves were sticking in their guides.

(Text page 266) A vacuum gauge can be used to detect engine faults and a sticking valve would be indicated by a vacuum gauge needle movement that drops 1 or 2 in. Hg from the normal reading.

5. Describe the test procedure for determining if the exhaust system is restricted (clogged) using a vacuum gauge. (Text page 268) A clogged (restricted) exhaust would be indicated on a vacuum gauge as a drop in engine vacuum if the engine speed is held at 2,000 to 2,500 RPM.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Which of these smoke colors indicates excessive fuel being burned in the combustion chamber? (Text page 256) a. Blue b. Black X c. White d. Gray 2. Two technicians are discussing oil leaks. Technician A says that an oil leak can be found using a fluorescent dye in the oil with a black light to check for leaks. Technician B says that a white spray powder can be used to locate oil leaks. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 258) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 58 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3. Which of the following is the least likely to cause an engine noise? (Text pages 259-260) a. Carbon on the pistons b. Cracked exhaust manifold c. Loose accessory drive belt d. Vacuum leak X 4. Engine oil pressure at 3500 RPM should be at least ______________PSI. (Text page 260) a. 10 b. 25 c. 35 X d. 42 5. A good engine should produce how much compression during a running (dynamic) compression test at idle? (Text page 264) a. 150 to 200 PSI b. 100 to 150 PSI c. 60 to 90 PSI X d. 30 to 60 PSI 6. A good reading for a cylinder leakage test would be ________. (Text page 265) a. within 20% between cylinders b. all cylinders below 20% leakage X c. all cylinders above 20% leakage d. all cylinders above 70% leakage and within 7% of each other 7. Technician A says that during a power balance test, the cylinder that causes the biggest RPM drop is the weak cylinder. Technician B says that if one spark plug wire is grounded out and the engine speed does not drop, a weak or dead cylinder is indicated. Which technician is correct? (Text page 265) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Cranking vacuum should be ________. (Text page 266) a. 2.5 inches Hg or higher X b. over 25 inches Hg c. 17 to 21 inches Hg d. 6 to 16 inches Hg 9. Technician A says that a leaking head gasket can be checked using a chemical tester.

Technician B says that a leaking head gasket can be found using an exhaust analyzer. Which technician is correct? (Text page 268) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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10. The low oil pressure warning light usually comes on ________. (Text page 269) a. whenever an oil change is required b. whenever oil pressure drops dangerously low (4 to 7 psi) X c. whenever the oil filter bypass valve opens d. whenever the oil filter antidrainback valve opens

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CHAPTER 27 In-Vehicle Engine Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How can a thermostat fail? (Text page 273) A thermostat can fail in the following ways: • Stuck open • Stuck closed • Stuck partially open • Skewed 2. How can a water pump fail requiring replacement? (Text page 274) A water pump can fail in the following ways: • • • •

Leaking coolant from the weep hole Noisy bearing Loose bearing Not being able to circulate the proper amount of coolant due to worn or slipping impeller blades 3. What will happen to the engine if the intake manifold gasket fails? (Test page 274) If the intake manifold gasket fails, the following may occur: • Leaking coolant or oil • Coolant level goes down, but no external leaks are found • A diagnostic trouble code (DTC) for a lean exhaust condition 4. Why must timing belts be replaced? (Text page 275) A timing belt should be replaced if any of the following conditions are present: •

Meets or exceeds the vehicle manufacturer’s recommended timing belt replacement interval.

• The timing belt has been contaminated with engine oil or coolant.

• The timing belt has failed.

5. Why is it important that the READY light be out on the dash before working under the hood of a hybrid electric vehicle? (Text page 277) If the READY light is on or the ignition is on and the engine is off, it could be in “idle stop” mode. This means that the engine could start at any time without warning.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A thermostat can fail in which way? (Text page 273) a. Stuck open b. Stuck closed c. Stuck partially open d. Any of the above X 61 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

2. Coolant drained from the cooling system when replacing a thermostat or water pump should be ____________. (Text page 273) a. reused b. disposed of properly or recycled X c. filtered and reinstalled after the repair d. poured down a toilet 3. A water pump can fail to provide the proper amount of flow of coolant through the cooling system if what has happened? (Text page 274) a. The coolant is leaking from the weep hole b. The bearing is noisy c. The impeller blades are worn or slipping on the shaft X d. A bearing failure has caused the shaft to become loose 4. A defective thermostat can cause the powertrain control module to set what diagnostic trouble code (DTC)? (Text page 273) a. P0171 b. P0172 c. P0128 X d. P0300 5. Intake manifold gaskets on a V-type engine can fail due to what factor? (Text page 274) a. Fretting b. Coolant damage c. Relative movement between the intake manifold and the cylinder head d. Any of the above X 6. What precautions should be adhered to when installing a plastic intake manifold?

(Text page 275) a. Double check the fastener torque specifications. b. Tighten all fasteners in the specified order. c. Install new gaskets if required. d. All of the above X 7. The torque specifications for many plastic intake manifolds are in what unit? (Text page 275) a. Pound-inches X b. Pound-feet c. Ft-lbs per minute d. Lb-ft per second 8. When replacing a timing belt, many experts and vehicle manufacturers recommend that what other part(s) should be replaced? (Text page 276) a. Tensioner assembly b. Water pump c. Camshaft oil seal(s) d. All of the above X

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9. Which of the following is NOT a function of engine mounts? (Text page 276) a. Support the weight of the engine b. Support the torque of the powertrain c. Transfer engine vibrations into the body of the vehicle X d. Isolate engine noise from the frame of the vehicle 10. Hybrid electric vehicles usually require special engine oil of what viscosity?

(Text page 277) a. SAE 5W-30 b. SAE 10W-30 c. SAE 0W-20 X d. SAE 5W-40

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CHAPTER 28 Engine Removal and Disassembly REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the differences between a minor and a major overhaul? (Text page 283) A minor overhaul can usually be done with the engine in the vehicle and is less extensive than a major overhaul when the engine is removed from the vehicle.

2. When should the factory-installed lifting hooks be used? (Text page 285) Factory installed lifting hooks should be used whenever possible for removal (or installation) of the engine from the vehicle.

3. Why should the cylinder bore be measured before continuing with an engine disassembly?

(Text page 288) If the cylinder bore is worn beyond repair, then another block or engine may be more cost effective.

4. Why should the ridge that sometimes forms at the top of the cylinder be removed?

(Text page 287) The ridge must be removed at the top of the cylinder to prevent damage to the piston and to ease piston removal from the cylinder.

5. Why should the burrs often seen at the top of the valve stem be removed before removing the valves from the cylinder head? (Text page 290) Burrs must be removed from valve stems to prevent damage to the valve guides and to ease valve removal from the cylinder head.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A short block includes the ________. (Text page 284) a. block b. crankshaft and main bearings c. pistons, rods and rod bearings d. all of the above X 2. Technician A says that a minor overhaul can often be done with the engine remaining in the vehicle. Technician B says that a core is required for most remanufactured engines. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 283-284) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 3. When removing the engine only from a vehicle equipped with an automatic transmission, the torque converter normally ______________. (Text page 285) a. stays mounted on the transmission X b. is removed and stays attached to the engine 64 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. must be drained d. remains connected to the flexplate 4. When removing cylinder heads, the fasteners should be removed in which order?

(Text page 286) a. The reverse order of tightening X b. The same order as the specified tightening sequence c. Any order d. Loosened slightly in the same order as the tightening sequence and then removed in any order.

5. With the rocker cover (valve cover) removed, the technician can inspect all items except ________. (Text Page 286) a. combustion chamber deposits X b. rocker arms and valve spring c. camshaft (overhead camshaft engine only) d. valve stems and pushrods (overhead valve engines only) 6. What needs to be removed before the valves can be removed from the cylinder head?

(Text page 290) a. The valve keepers b. The camshaft if OHV engine c. The cylinder head from the block d. Both a and c X 7. After the oil pan is removed, the technician should inspect _________. (Text page 287) a. the oil pump and pickup screen b. to make certain that all rod and main bearings are numbered or marked c. the valve lifters (tappets) for wear d. both a and b X 8. The ridge at the top of the cylinder ________. (Text page 287) a. is caused by the rings that do not travel all the way to top of the cylinder X b. represents a failure of the top piston ring to correctly seal against the cylinder wall c. should not be removed before removing pistons except when reboring the cylinders d. means that a crankshaft with an incorrect stroke was installed in the engine 9. Before the timing chain can be inspected and removed, the ______________ must be removed. (Text page 288) a. valve cover b. vibration damper X c. cylinder head(s) d. intake manifold (V-type engines only) 10. Before the valves are removed from the cylinder head, what operations need to be completed?

(Text page 290 ) a. Remove valve keepers (locks) b. Remove cylinder head(s) from the engine c. Remove burrs from the stem of the valve(s) d. All of the above X 65 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 29 Engine Cleaning and Crack Detection REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the five methods that could be used to clean engines or engine parts?

(Text pages 294-298) Five methods that could be used to clean an engine or engine component part include chemical, mechanical, pyrolitic ovens, hot soak tank, and sprayers.

2. Explain magnetic crack inspection, dye-penetrant testing, and fluorescent-penetrant testing methods and where each can be used. (Text pages 298-299) Magnetic crack inspection uses a strong electromagnet to force iron powder around cracks. Dye penetrant is used on aluminum parts to check for cracks by using chemicals that penetrate into the surface flow. Fluorescent penetrant can be used on all material that requires a black light to observe cracks.

3. How can engine block and cylinder heads be repaired if cracked? (Text pages 299- 300) Engine blocks and cylinder heads can be repaired if cracked by welding or plugging.

4. What precautions need to be followed when cleaning aluminum parts using mechanical methods? (Text page 296) When cleaning aluminum cylinder heads, blocks, or other engine components, make sure that the chemicals used are “aluminum–safe.” Many chemicals that are not aluminum–safe may turn the aluminum metal black.

5. What is the purpose of stop drilling? (Text page 299) A hole can be drilled at each end of the crack to keep it from extending further, a step sometimes called stop drilling. Cracks that do not cross oil passages, bolt holes, or seal surfaces can sometimes be left alone if stopped.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Abrasive pads or discs should be used_______. (Text page 294) a. on disassembled engine parts only b. according to the specified grit size for the material being cleaned c. but clean the part thoroughly to wash away the abrasive material d. all of the above X 2. What actually does the cleaning when using steam? (Text page 296) a. Heat from the steam b. Pressure behind the steam c. Abrasives used d. Both a and b X 3. Aqueous-based cleaning means________. (Text page 296) a. water based X b. abrasive based 66 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. strong chemical based d. all of the above 4. A pyrolytic oven is used to clean parts; however, caution should be used to limit the temperature, to prevent damaging engine parts. What are the maximum recommended temperatures? (Text page 297) a. 300°F (150°C) for all engine parts b. 600°F (315°C) for aluminum parts c. 800°F (425°C) for cast iron d. Both b and c X 5. Which media is best to use for cleaning parts that do not need to be thoroughly cleaned after using? (Text Page 295) a. Baking soda X b. Stainless steel shot c. Glass beads d. Aluminum shot 6. Cleaning chemicals are usually either a alkaline material or an acid material. Which of the following statements is true? (Text page 295) a. Both alkalines and acids have a pH of 7 if rated according to distilled water . b. An acid is lower than 7 and an alkaline is higher than 7 on the pH scale. X c. An acid is higher than 7 and a alkaline is lower than 7 on the pH scale. d. Pure water is a 1 and a strong acid is a 14 on the pH scale.

7. Many cleaning methods involve chemicals that are hazardous to use. The least hazardous method is generally considered to be the ________. (Text page 297) a. pyrolytic oven X b. hot vapor tank c. hot soak tank d. cold soak tank 8. Magnetic crack inspection ________. (Text pages 298-299) a. uses a red dye to detect cracks in aluminum b. uses a black light to detect cracks in iron parts c. uses a fine iron powder to detect cracks in iron parts X d. uses a magnet to remove cracks from iron parts 9. Technician A says that engine parts should be cleaned before a thorough test can be done to detect cracks. Technician B says that pressure testing can be used to find cracks in blocks or cylinder heads. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 298-299) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. Plugging can be used to repair cracks _____________. (Text page 299) a. in cast-iron cylinder heads b. in aluminum cylinder heads c. in both cast-iron and aluminum cylinder heads X d. only in cast-iron blocks 67 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 30 Cylinder Head and Valve Guide Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is meant by the term crossflow head? (Text page 305) A cross-flow head is a design that uses the intake manifold on one side of the engine and the exhaust manifold on the opposite side of the cylinder head.

2. What is a Siamese port? (Text page 306) A Siamese port is one port with two shared passages.

3. What is the recommended cylinder head reconditioning sequence? (Text page 308) The recommended sequence is: 1) Disassemble and clean; 2) Check for cracks; 3) Check the machines surfaces and remachine if needed; 4) Check and service valve guides as needed; 5) Grind valves and assemble cylinder head.

4. What are the advantages of using four valves per cylinder? (Text page 305) Four valves per cylinder provide higher velocity and greater volume of intake charge.

5. How is valve stem-to-guide clearance measured? (Text page 313) The valve guide is measured in the middle with a small-hole gauge. The gauge size is checked with a micrometer. The guide is then checked at each end. The expanded part of the ball should be placed crosswise to the engine where the greatest amount of valve guide wear exists. The dimension of the valve stem diameter is subtracted from the dimension of the valve guide diameter. Valve stem-to-guide clearance can also be checked using a dial indicator (gauge) to measure the amount of movement of the valve when lifted off the valve seat.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Cylinder heads with four valves flow more air than those with two valves because they ________. (Text page 305) a. have a greater open area. X b. use a higher lift camshaft c. increase the velocity of the air d. use a camshaft with a greater duration 2. Two technicians are discussing a Hemi engine. Technician A says that a Hemi is an engine with a hemispherical-shaped combustion chamber. Technician B says that all Hemi engines are cam-in-block designs. Which technician is correct? (Text page 305) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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3. Technician A says that an Audi five-valve engine uses three intake valves and two exhaust valves. Technician B says that it uses three exhaust valves and two intake valves. Which technician is correct? (Text page 307) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. The gasket surface of a cylinder head, as measured with a precision straightedge, should have a maximum variation of ________. (Text page 309) a. 0.002 inch in any 6-inch length or 0.004 inch overall X b. 0.001 inch in any 6-inch length or 0.004 inch overall c. 0.020 inch in any 10-inch length or 0.020 inch overall d. 0.004 inch in any 10-inch length or 0.008 inch overall 5. A warped aluminum cylinder head can be restored to useful service by ________.

(Text page 310) a. grinding the gasket surface and then align honing the camshaft bore b. heating it in an oven at 500F with shims under each end, allowing it to cool, and then machining it X c. heating it to 500F for 5 hours and cooling it rapidly before final machining d. machining the gasket surface to one-half of the warped amount and then heating the head in an oven and allowing it to cool slowly 6. Some vehicle manufacturers recommend repairing integral guides using ________.

(Text page 314) a. OS stem valves X b. knurling c. replacement valve guides d. valve guide inserts 7. Typical valve stem-to-valve guide clearance is ________. (Text page 312) a. 0.030 to 0.045 inch (0.8 to 1.0 millimeter) b. 0.015 to 0.020 inch (0.4 to 0.5 millimeter) c. 0.005 to 0.010 inch (0.13 to 0.25 millimeter) d. 0.001 to 0.004 inch (0.03 to 0.05 millimeter) X 8. What other engine component may have to be machined if the cylinder heads are machined on a V-type engine? (Text page 311) a. Exhaust manifold b. Intake manifold X c. Block deck d. Distributor mount (if the vehicle is so equipped) 9. Which type of valve guide is most used in a cast iron head? (Text page 312) a. Integral X b. Bronze c. Powdered metal (PM) d. Thin wall sleeve type

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10. Which statement is true about surface finish? (Text page 311) a. Cast-iron surfaces should be smoother than aluminum surfaces. b. The rougher the surface, the higher the microinch finish measurement. c. The smoother the surface, the higher the microinch finish measurement. d. A cylinder head should be a lot smoother than a crankshaft journal.

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X

CHAPTER 31 Valve and Seat Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the procedure for grinding valves? (Text pages 324- 325) Step 1 – Valve stem tip is lightly ground and chamfered.

Step 2 – The face of the valve is ground to the proper angle using a valve grinder.

Step 3 – The valve seat is ground in the head. (The seat must be matched to the valve that will be used in that position.)

Step 4 – Valve spring installed height and valve stem height are checked and corrected as necessary.

Step 5 – After a thorough cleaning, the cylinder head should be assembled with new valve stem seals installed.

2. When is the valve tip ground? How do you know how much to remove from the tip?

(Text page 332) The valve tip should be ground whenever the valve is refaced. A maximum of 0.020" should be removed from the tip of the valve.

3. What is an interference angle between the valve and the seat? (Text page 327) An interference angle refers to the difference between the angles machined on the valve face and the valve seat (usually 1°).

4. How is a valve seat insert installed? (Text pages 330- 331) A valve seat insert is installed into a machined pocket with an interference fit.

5. How are the correct valve spring inserts (shims) selected and why are they used?

(Text page 332 ) Valve spring inserts (shims) are used to restore original valve spring tension after grinding valve seats and the face of the valve. By grinding the valve seats and the valve face, the valve stem protrudes further up from the spring seat of the cylinder head.

Valve spring inserts are used to compensate for this change in stem height.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. In a normally operating engine, intake and exhaust valves are opened by a cam and closed by the ________. (Text page 318) a. rocker arms or cam follower b. valve spring X c. lifters (tappets) d. valve guide and/or pushrod 2. Which of the following statements is true about valve seats? (Text page 320) a. Insert seats are used only in cast-iron heads. b. Insert seats do not fit into a machined recess in the cylinder head of automotive engines.

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3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

c. Exhaust valve seats run cooler in aluminum heads than in cast-iron heads. X d. Integral exhaust valve seats operate at hotter temperatures than do insert seats.

Dampers (damper springs) are used inside some valve springs to ___________.

(Text page 323) a. prevent valve spring surge X b. keep the valve spring attached to the valve c. decrease valve spring pressure d. retain valve stem seals A valve should be discarded if the margin is less than _____ after refacing. (Text page 325) a. 0.001 inch b. 0.006 inch c. 0.030 inch X d. 0.060 inch To lower and narrow a valve seat that has been cut at a 45-degree angle, use a cutter or stone of what angle? (Text page 327) a. 60 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 30 degrees X d. 15 degrees A valve seat should be concentric to the valve guide to a maximum TIR of ___________.

(Text page 329) a. 0.006 inch b. 0.004 inch c. 0.002 inch X d. 0.00015 inch Before a valve seat can be reconditioned or replaced the ________ must first be reconditioned. (Text page 326) a. valve guide X b. valve seals c. umbrella seals d. cylinder bore Never remove more material from the tip of a valve than ___________. (Text page 332) a. 0.001 inch b. 0.002 inch c. 0.020 inch X d. 0.050 inch Valve spring inserts (shims) are designed to __________. (Text page 332) a. increase installed height of the valve b. decrease installed height of the valve c. adjust the correct valve spring installed height X d. decrease valve spring pressure to compensate for decreased installed height

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10. Umbrella-type valve stem seals ________. (Text page 333) a. fit tightly onto the valve guide b. fit on the valve face to prevent combustion leaks c. fit tightly onto the valve stem X d. lock under the valve retainer

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CHAPTER 32 Camshafts and Valve Trains REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How is the camshaft driven by the crankshaft? (Text page 340) The camshaft is driven by: • • •

Timing gears Timing chains Timing belts

The gear or sprocket on the camshaft has twice as many teeth, or notches, as the one on the crankshaft. This results in two crankshaft revolutions for each revolution of the camshaft. The camshaft turns at one-half the crankshaft speed in all four-stroke cycle engines.

2. What drives the high-pressure fuel pump on a GDI engine? (Text page 340) The high-pressure fuel pump on a gasoline direct injected (GDI) engine is driven by the camshaft.

3. How is a composite camshaft constructed? (Text page 341) Composite camshafts, which use a lightweight tubular shaft with hardened steel lobes press-fitted over the shaft. (The actual production of these camshafts involves placing the lobes over the tube shaft in the correct position. A steel ball is then drawn through the hollow steel tube, expanding the tube and securely locking the cam lobes in position.

4. What is meant by an “interference” engine? (Text page 344) An interference engine, however, causes some of the valves that are open to hit the pistons, causing major engine damage.

5. How does variable valve timing help improve engine operation and reduce emissions?

(Text page 357) Varying the exhaust and/or the intake camshaft position allows for reduced exhaust emissions and improved performance. A valve in the intake manifold creates a longer path for intake air at low speeds, improving combustion efficiency and torque output.

At higher speed, the valve opens and creates a shorter air path for maximum power production.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The camshaft makes _____ for every revolution of the crankshaft. (Text page 340) a. one-quarter revolution b. one-half revolution X c. one revolution d. two revolutions

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2. A DOHC V-6 has how many camshafts? (Text page 341) a. 4 X b. 3 c. 2 d. 1 3. Which timing chain type is also called a “silent chain”? (Text page 343) a. Roller b. Morse c. Flat link d. Both b and c X 4. Many technicians always use new pushrods because ______________________.

(Text page 348) a. it is less expensive to buy than clean b. all of the dirt cannot be cleaned out from the hollow center X c. pushrods wear at both ends d. pushrods shrink in length if removed from an engine 5. Hydraulic valve lifters can make a ticking noise when the engine is running if ______________.(Text page 351) a. the valve lash is too close b. the valve lash is too loose X c. the lobe centerline is over 110 degrees d. Both a and c 6. Hydraulic lifters or hydraulic lash adjusters (HLA) may not bleed down properly and cause an engine to miss if ______________. (Text page 351) a. the engine oil is one quart low b. the wrong API-rated engine oil is used c. the wrong SAE-rated engine oil is used X d. both a and b 7. If lift and duration remain constant and the lobe center angle decreases, then ______________. (Text page 353) a. the valve overlap decreases b. the effective lift increases c. the effective duration increases d. the valve overlap increases X 8. The intake valve opens at 39 BTDC and closes at 71 ABDC. The exhaust valve opens at 78 BBDC and closes at 47 ATDC. Which answer is correct? (Text page 353) a. b. c. d.

Intake valve duration is 110 Exhaust valve duration is 125 Overlap is 86 X Both a and b

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9. The maximum total indicator runout (TIR) of a camshaft should be less than ________.

(Text page 355) a. 0.002 in. X b. 0.006 in. c. 0.004 in. d. 0.008 in.

10. Two technicians are discussing variable valve timing. Technician A says that changing the exhaust valve timing helps reduce exhaust emissions. Technician B says that changing the intake valve timing helps increase lowspeed torque. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 357) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 33 Pistons, Rings, and Connecting Rods REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Why are some piston skirts tin plated? (Text page 366) Some pistons are tin plated to help reduce scuffing and scoring during periods of minimum lubrication.

2. How does the piston pin offset as it controls piston slap. (Text page 367) Piston offset is toward the major thrust surface and is designed to reduce piston slap, especially during cold engine operation.

3. Why are forged pistons recommended for use in high-performance engines? (Text page 365) Forged pistons are recommended for high-performance applications because not only are they stronger and able to handle increased cylinder pressures, but also conduct heat more quickly than cast pistons.

4. What causes the piston ring groove clearance to widen in service? (Text page 376) Piston ring groove clearance widens during service as a direct result of piston ring twisting and forces exerted on the rings during normal engine operation.

5. How is the piston pin installed in the piston and rod assembly? (Text page 375) Non-floating piston pins are installed into a piston and rod by first heating the small end of the connecting rod. Before the rod has a chance to cool, the piston pin is pushed into the piston and rod. As the rod cools, an interference fit is created between the piston pin and the connecting rod.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A hypereutectic piston _____________. (Text page 364) a. uses about 16% silicon b. is a cast piston c. is a forged piston d. both a and b X 2. Many aluminum piston skirts are plated with ________. (Text page 366) a. tin or moly graphite X b. lead c. antimony d. terneplate 3. A cast connecting rod has ________. (Text page 373) a. a wide parting line b. a narrow parting line X c. a cracked rod cap d. high nickel content

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4. The purpose of casting steel struts into an aluminum piston is to________.

(Text page 366) a. provide increased strength b. provide increased weight at the top part of the piston where it is needed for stability c. control thermal expansion d. both a and c X 5. Full-floating piston pins are retained by ________. (Text page 368) a. lock rings X b. a drilled hole with roll pin c. an interference fit between rod and piston pin d. an interference fit between piston and piston pin 6. The space behind the ring is called ________________. (Text page 369) a. side clearance b. forward clearance c. back clearance X d. piston ring clearance 7. A misaligned connecting rod causes what type of engine wear? (Text page 375) a. Cylinder taper b. Barrel-shaped cylinders c. Ridge wear d. Diagonal wear on the piston skirt X 8. Side clearance is a measure taken between the _____ and the _____. (Text page 369; 376) a. piston (side skirt); cylinder wall b. piston pin; piston pin retainer (clip) c. piston ring; piston ring groove X d. compression ring; oil control ring 9. Piston ring gap is measured using a________. (Text page 376) a. feeler gauge X b. micrometer c. dial indicator d. either a and c 10. Which type of connecting rod needs to be heated to install the piston pin? (Text page 375) a. Forged b. Interference fit X c. Floating d. PM rods

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CHAPTER 34 Engine Blocks REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How is Styrofoam used to cast an engine block? (Text page 380) Styrofoam is packed into a sand mold. When molten aluminum is poured into the sand mold, the styrofoam vaporizes leaving behind a cavity that is filled by the molten aluminum.

2. What does “decking the block” mean? (Text page 386) "Decking the block,” means to machine the top surface of the block true and flat.

3. What is the difference between deglazing and honing a cylinder? (Text page 388) Deglazing is a process used to roughen the surface of a cylinder wall. Honing is a process used to remove material (straighten) and provide the proper surface finish to a cylinder wall by using cutting stones.

4. What is the best method to use to clean an engine block after honing? (Text page 392) The best way to clean the honed cylinders is to scrub the cylinder walls with a brush using a mixture of detergent and water.

5. What procedures should be performed to detail the block and get it ready to be reassembled?

(Text page 392) Before the engine block can be assembled, a final detailed cleaning should be performed.

1. All oil passages (galleries) should be cleaned by running a long bottle-type brush through all holes in the block.

2. All tapped holes should have the sharp edges at the top of the holes removed (chamfered) and cleaned with the correct size of thread chaser to remove any dirt and burrs.

3. Coat the newly cleaned block with fogging oil to prevent rust.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The block deck is the ________. (Text page 381) a. bottom (pan rail) of the block b. top surface of the block X c. valley surface of a V-type engine d. area where the engine mounts are attached to the block 2. Cast iron has about how much carbon content? (Text page 379) a. Less than 1% b. 2% c. 3% X d. 4% or higher

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3. Engine blocks can be manufactured using which method(s)? (Text page 380) a. Sand cast b. Sand cast or die-cast X c. Extruded cylinder d. Machined from a solid piece of metal (either cast iron or aluminum) 4. A bedplate is located between the ___________ and the ___________. (Text page 381) a. cylinder bores/water jacket b. cylinder head/block deck c. bottom of the block/oil pan X d. block deck/cylinder bore 5. Siamese cylinder bores are ______________________________. (Text page 382) a. cylinders that do not have a coolant passage between them X b. aluminum cylinders c. another name for cylinder liners d. cast iron cylinders 6. The surface finish for the cylinder walls usually depends on ______________.

(Text page 390) a. the type of piston rings to be used X b. the type of engine oil that is going to be used in the engine c. the cylinder wall-to-piston clearance d. both b and c 7. What should be installed and torqued to factory specification before machining a block?

(Text page 385) a. Front timing chain cover b. Main bearing caps X c. Oil pan d. All of the above 8. Ultrasonic testing is used to test______? (Text page 387) a. for cracks in the block b. surface finish of the cylinder bores c. cylinder wall thickness X d. both b and c 9. An engine block should be machined in which order? (Text page 384) a. Align honing, cylinder boring, block deck machining b. Block decking, align honing, cylinder boring c. Cylinder boring, align honing, block decking d. Align honing, block decking, cylinder boring X 10. After the engine block has been machined, it should be cleaned using __________________.

(Text pages 392) a. soap and water X b. SAE 10W-30 oil and a shop cloth c. sprayed with brake cleaner to remove the cutting oil d. sprayed with WD-40 80 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 35 Crankshafts, Balance Shafts, and Bearings REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How many degrees of crankshaft rotation are there between cylinder firings on an inline 4-cylinder engine, an inline 6-cylinder engine, and a V-8 engine? (Text page 398) The number of degrees of crankshaft rotation between cylinder firings is 180° for an inline four, 120° for an even fire V-6 or inline 6-cylinder engine, and 90° for a V-8.

2. What is the difference between primary and secondary balance? (Text page 401) • Primary balance. When pistons move up and down in the cylinders, they create a primary vibration, which is a strong low-frequency vibration. A counterweight on the crankshaft opposite the piston/rod assembly helps reduce this vibration. An inline four-cylinder engine has very little primary vibration, because as two pistons are traveling upward in the cylinders, two are moving downward at the same time, effectively canceling out primary unbalances.

• Secondary balance. Four-cylinder engines, however, suffer from a vibration at twice engine speed. This is called a secondary vibration, which is a weak high-frequency vibration caused by a slight difference in the inertia of the pistons at top dead center, compared to bottom dead center. This vibration is most noticeable at high engine speeds, especially if the engine size is greater than 2 liters.

3. What are the types of engine bearing materials? (Text page 405) Engine bearings materials include: babbett, tri-metal, and aluminum.

4. What is the difference between bearing crush and bearing spread? (Text page 408) Bearing crush is the amount the bearing insert extends above the housing bore. Bearing spread is the arc of the bearing insert; it has a slightly larger arc than does the bearing housing.

5. Why is it important that crankshafts be stored vertically? (Text page 404) All crankshafts should be coated with oil to keep them from rusting, and stored vertically until time for engine assembly. All crankshafts should be placed on the floor vertically to help prevent warping due to gravity.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A typical V-8 engine crankshaft has _____________ main bearings. (Text page 395) a. three b. four c. five X d. seven 2. A four-cylinder engine fires one cylinder at every _____ degrees if crankshaft rotation.

(Text page 398) a. 27 b. 180 X c. 120 d. 90 81 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3. A splayed crankshaft is a crankshaft that ________. (Text page 398) a. is externally balanced b. is internally balanced c. has offset main bearing journals d. has offset rod journals X 4. Which of the following is NOT true of a fully counterweighted crankshaft? (Text page 399) a. It is the smoothest running type b. It has the most durable design c. It is the least expensive to manufacture X d. It is the heaviest type 5. Which of the following causes primary vibrations in an engine? (Text page 401) a. Harmonic balancer b. Pistons X c. Flexplate d. Flywheel 6. A balance shaft used in a 90-degree V-6 engine is used to correct which of these types of force? (Text page 402) a. Primary vibration b. Secondary vibration c. Rocking couple X d. Rolling couple 7. If any crankshaft is ground, it must also be ________. (Text page 403) a. shot peened b. chrome plated c. polished X d. externally balanced 8. Typical journal-to-bearing clearance is ________. (Text page 408) a. 0.00015 to 0.00018 inch b. 0.0005 to 0.0025 inch X c. 0.150 to 0.250 inch d. 0.020 to 0.035 inch 9. Bearing _______ occurs when a bearing shell is slightly above the parting surface of the bearing cap. (Text page 408) a. overlap b. crush X c. cap lock d. interference fit 10. In ________ engines, the cam bearings are installed in the block. (Text page 409) a. overhead cam b. rotary c. two-stroke d. pushrod X

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CHAPTER 36 Gaskets and Sealants REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the purpose of a gasket? (Text page 412) The purpose of a gasket is to fill a space or gap between two parts.

2. What are the types of cover gaskets? (Text page 415) The types of cover gaskets include: cork, fiber gaskets, and synthetic rubber gaskets.

3. Why is armor used in head gaskets? (Text page 414) Armor is a steel or copper ring surrounding the combustion chamber section of a head gasket that is used to protect the head gasket from combustion pressures.

4. What is the difference between RTV and anaerobic sealers? (Text pages 417- 418) RTV is designed for use filling gaps on potential gaps between stamped covers.

Anaerobic sealers are designed to seal machined surfaces and cure in the absence of air.

5. What is needed for an anaerobic sealer to cure? (Text page 418) Anaerobic sealers cure in the absence of air.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What force causes a head gasket to be drawn downward during engine operation?

(Text page 412) a. Intake stroke vacuum X b. Gravity c. Head bolt torque d. Exhaust gas pressure 2. A multi-layered steel (MLS) gasket is usually used where in an engine? (Text page 414) a. Valve cover gasket b. Oil pan gasket c. Head gasket X d. Intake manifold gasket 3. A steel or copper wire used in a head gasket around the cylinder is called_____.

(Text page 414) a. armor b. fire ring c. ridge block d. either a or b X 4. A one piece oil pan gasket usually uses _________ in the middle to add strength.

(Text page 415) a. plastic (nylon) b. steel X 83 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. hard rubber d. carbon fiber 5. Some gaskets use a steel washer around each bolt hole. The purpose of this washer is to ______. (Text page 416) a. improve the strength of the gasket b. to help seal around the bolt hole c. to help prevent the gasket from shrinking d. to prevent the gasket from being compressed too much X 6. A gasket failure caused by the movement of dissimilar material s is called ______.

(Text page 416) a. fretting X b. corrosion c. collapsing d. tearing 7. Which type of oil seal must NOT have oil applied for it to work correctly? (Text page 417) a. Silicone rubber b. Buna-N c. Teflon® X d. Viton® 8. What precautions should be followed when using gaskets? (Text page 416) a. Never reuse an old gasket. b. A gasket should be checked to make sure it is the correct gasket. c. Read the instruction sheet. d. All of the above. X 9. Which type of sealer is to be used on nonmachined surfaces? (Text page 418) a. RTV b. Anaerobic sealer X c. Either a or b d. Neither a nor b 10. What product requires heat to remove? (Text page 418) a. Red thread locker X b. Blue thread locker c. RTV d. Antiseize

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CHAPTER 37 Engine Assembly and Dynamometer Testing REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the items that need to be installed as part of the short block assembly?

(Text pages 424-432) A short block assembly includes the block, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods, and camshaft if OHV. 2. How is crankshaft end play measured? (Text page 428) Crankshaft end play is measured with a dial indicator or a feeler gauge.

3. Why should Teflon seals not be oiled prior to being installed? (Text page 427) Teflon seals must transfer some of the Teflon to the crankshaft to provide a proper seal.

If oil is used on the seal, the Teflon cannot be transferred.

4. Why are torque-to-yield fasteners used for many head bolts? (Text page 435) Many engines use a tightening procedure called the torque-to-yield (TTY) method. The purpose of the TTY procedure is to have a more constant clamping load from bolt to bolt.

5. What are the measured and the calculated values as a result of testing an engine on a dynamometer? (Text pages 442 -443) Measured values are actual physical measurements taken from readouts from the sensors used on the engine or dynamometer. Calculated values, such as horsepower, are calculated from the torque and engine RPM measured values.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that when the camshaft is being installed, the lobes of the cam should be coated with special lubricant. Technician B says that the piston ring gap should be about 0.004 inch per inch of cylinder bore. Which technician is correct? (Text page 429) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. What can be used to check that heads are at the correct angle for the intake manifold on a V-type engine? (Text page 424) a. Metal rule b. Angle gauge X c. Tape measure d. Dial indicator 3. What is true about checking bearing clearance using Plastigage? (Text page 426) a. The journal should be clean and oil free b. The cap should be torqued to factory specifications 85 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

c. The wider the strip means the narrower the oil clearance d. All of the above X Service information states that SAE 30 engine oil should be used on the threads of the head bolts before installation and torquing. Technician A says that SAE 5W-30 will work.

Technician B says that SAE 10W-30 will work. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 433) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X Technician A says that the torque applied to the head bolts is the same as the clamping force on the gasket. Technician B says that the clamping force is the force actually applied to the surfaces of the gasket. Which technician is correct? (Text page 434) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B Head gasket installation is being discussed. Technician A says that the surface finish of the cylinder head or block deck are very important for proper sealing to occur. Technician B says that if “front” is marked on a head gasket, the mark should be installed near the accessory drive belt end of the engine. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 421; 435) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B The TTY method of tightening bolts involves which of these processes? (Text page 435) a. Turning all bolts the same number of turns b. Torqueing to specifications and loosening by a specified number of degrees c. Torqueing to one-half specifications, then to three-quarter torque, then to full torque d. Turning bolts a specified number of degrees after initial torque X Before starting a rebuilt engine, what procedure should be followed? (Text page 441) a. Rotate the engine by hand 3 turns backwards, then 3 turns forward b. Pre-lube the engine with a pressurized tool X c. Install pushrod deflectors d. Tap lightly on all the head bolts with a small hammer An engine dynamometer measures_______. (Text page 442) a. torque X b. horsepower c. both horsepower and torque d. fuel economy

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10. If the torque and horsepower reading are graphed, where do the curves cross (equal each other)? (Text page 444) a. Never b. At peak horsepower which can vary from engine to engine c. At peak torque which can vary from engine to engine d. At 5,252 RPM X

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CHAPTER 38 Engine Installation and Break-In REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How are the clutch and bell housing installed? (Text page 448) The clutch and bell housing are often installed before installing the engine into the vehicle.

2. What should be done to help prevent rear cylinder distortion when the bell housing is being installed on the engine? (Text page 449) The bell housing must be torqued to the correct amount and procedure to help prevent engine cylinder bore distortion.

3. Why should the clutch, if equipped, be adjusted before starting the engine? (Text page 449) Always adjust the clutch free play before starting the engine to help prevent engine thrust bearing or clutch release bearing damage 4. What is involved in “dressing the engine”? (Text page 449) “Dressing the engine” is a term used to describe the process of attaching all of the auxiliary items to the engine.

5. What is meant by lugging an engine? (Text page 451) Lugging means increasing the throttle opening without increasing engine speed (RPM).

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Before installing or starting a new or rebuilt engine, all of the following items should have been checked, EXCEPT______________.(Text page 448) a. battery fully charged b. pre-lube engine and check for proper oil pressure c. check that all of the vacuum lines are correctly installed and routed d. rear axle is topped off X 2. “Dressing the engine” means__________. (Text page 449) a. installing all of the exterior engine components X b. cleaning the engine c. changing the oil and oil filter c. both b and c 3. If the bell housing is not properly torqued to the engine block, ________. (Text page 449) a. the bell housing will distort b. the engine block will crack c. the rear cylinder can be distorted (become out-of-round) X d. the crankshaft will crack 4. Break-in engine oil is ________. (Text page 450) a. of the same viscosity and grade as that specified for normal engine operation X b. SAE 40 88 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. SAE 30 d. SAE 20W-50 5. Normal operating temperature is reached when ________. (Text page 451) a. the radiator cap releases coolant into the overflow b. the upper radiator hose is hot and pressurized c. the electric cooling fan has cycled at least once (if the vehicle is so equipped) d. both b and c occur X 6. Which computer sensor should be replaced to help insure that the engine will be operating at the correct air-fuel ratio? (Text page 449) a. Throttle position sensor b. Oxygen sensor X c. Manifold absolute pressure sensor d. Engine coolant temperature sensor 7. How should the vehicle be driven to best break in a newly overhauled engine?

(Text page 451) a. At a steady low speed b. At varying speeds and loads X c. At high speed and loads d. At idle speed and little or no load.

8. In which type of vehicle is the engine most likely to be installed from underneath the vehicle?

(Text page 450) a. Rear wheel drive (RWD) b. Front wheel drive (FWD) X c. Four wheel drive (4WD) d. Both a and c.

9. Engine vacuum on a normal stock rebuilt engine should be________. (Text page 451) a. 10 to 15 in. Hg. b. 12 to 16 in. Hg c. 17 to 21 in. Hg. X d. 19 to 23 in. Hg. 10. Why must flat-bottom camshafts be broken in at a fast idle? (Text page 451) a. The cam in a cam-in-block engine is only lubricated by splash oil X b. The flat-bottom of the lifters must become slightly concave in order to rotate c. Both a and b are correct d. Neither a nor b are correct

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CHAPTER 39 Electrical Fundamentals REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is electricity? (Text page 454) Electricity is the movement of electrons from one atom to another.

2. What are the ampere, volt, and ohm? (Text page 457) An ampere is the unit of the amount of current flow; a volt is a unit of electrical pressure and an ohm is a unit of electrical resistance.

3. What are three examples of conductors and three examples of insulators? (Text page 456) Conductors include steel, iron, copper, aluminum, mercury, brass, and all other metals.

4. What are five sources of electricity? (Text pages 458-459) Sources of electricity include friction, heat, light, pressure, and chemistry.

5. What is the relationship between the length of a wire and its resistance? (Text page 459) If the conductor length is doubled, its resistance doubles. This is the reason why battery cables are designed to be as short as possible.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. An electrical conductor is an element with __________ electrons in its outer orbit.

(Text page 455) a. less than 2 b. less than 4 X c. exactly 4 d. more than 4 2. Like charges ________. (Text page 454) a. attract b. repel X c. neutralize each other d. add 3. Carbon and silicon are examples of ________. (Text page 456) a. semiconductors X b. insulators c. conductors d. photoelectric materials 4. Which unit of electricity does the work in a circuit? (Text page 457) a. Volt b. Ampere X c. Ohm d. Coulomb 90 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

5. The __________ is a unit of electrical pressure. (Text page 457) a. coulomb b. volt X c. ampere d. ohm 6. Creating electricity by exerting a force on a crystal is called _______________.

(Text page 459) a. electrochemistry b. piezoelectricity X c. thermoelectricity d. photoelectricity 7. The fact that a voltage can be created by exerting force on a crystal is used in which type of sensor? (Text page 459) a. Throttle position (TP) b. Manifold absolute pressure (MAP) c. Barometric pressure (BARO) d. Knock sensor (KS) X 8. As temperature increases, ______________. (Text page 459) a. the resistance of a conductor decreases b. the resistance of a conductor increases X c. the resistance of a conductor remains the same d. the voltage of the conductor decreases 9. Technician A says that a two-wire variable resistor is called a rheostat. Technician B says that a three-wire variable resistor is called a potentiometer. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 460) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. A potentiometer, a three-wire variable resistance, is used in which type of sensor?

(Text page 460) a. Throttle position (TP) X b. Manifold absolute pressure (MAP) c. Barometric pressure (BARO) d. Knock sensor (KS)

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CHAPTER 40 Electrical Circuits and Ohm’s Law REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is included in a complete electrical circuit? (Text page 462) The parts of a complete circuit include: the power source, the protection (fuse), the control (switch) power side conductor, electrical load, and return path.

2. What is the difference between a short-to-voltage and a short-to-ground.? (Text pages 463) A short-to-voltage involves a copper-to-copper connection whereas a short-to-ground involves a copper-to-steel connection.

3. What is the difference between an open and a short? (Text page 463) An open results in the stoppage of the flow of current in the circuit, whereas a short is a path of reduced resistance, which usually causes an increase in the flow of current through the circuit and may or may not cause a fuse to blow.

4. What is Ohm's law. (Text page 465) Ohm’s Law states, “It requires one volt to push one ampere through one ohm of resistance.”

5. What happens to current flow (amperes) and wattage if the resistance of a circuit is increased because of a corroded connection. (Text page 465) A corroded electrical connection results in increased unwanted resistance in the circuit.

This increased resistance reduces the current (in amperes), as well as the voltage (amperes times volts) that are applied to the loads in the circuit.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. If an insulated wire rubbed through a part of the insulation and the wire conductor touched the steel body of a vehicle, the type of failure would be called a(n) ________.

(Text page 463) a. short-to-voltage b. short-to-ground X c. open d. chassis ground 2. If two insulated wires were to melt together where the copper conductors touched each other, the type of failure would be called a(n) ___________. (Text page 463) a. short-to-voltage X b. short-to-ground c. open d. floating ground 3. If 12 volts are being applied to a resistance of 3 ohms, _______ amperes will flow.

(Text page 465) a. 12 b. 3 92 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. 4 X d. 36 4. How many watts are consumed by a light bulb if 1.2 amperes are measured when 12 volts are applied? (Text page 466) a. 14.4 watts X b. 144 watts c. 10 watts d. 0.10 watt 5. How many watts are consumed by a starter motor if it draws 150 amperes at 10 volts?

(Text page 466) a. 15 watts b. 150 watts c. 1,500 watts X d. 15,000 watts 6. High resistance in an electrical circuit can cause ___________________________.

(Text page 465) a. dim lights b. slow motor operation c. clicking of relays or solenoids d. all of the above X 7. If the voltage increases in a circuit, what happens to the current (amperes) if the resistance remains the same? (Text page 465) a. Increases X b. Decreases c. Remains the same d. Can not be determined 8. If 200 amperes flow from the positive terminal of a battery and operate the starter motor, how many amperes will flow back to the negative terminal of the battery? (Text page 464) a. Cannot be determined b. Zero c. About one-half (about 100 amperes) d. 200 amperes X 9. What is the symbol for voltage used in calculations? (Text page 465) a. R b. E X c. EMF d. I 10. Which circuit failure is most likely to cause the fuse to blow? (Text page 463) a. Open b. Short-to-ground X c. Short-to voltage d. High resistance

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CHAPTER 41 Series, Parallel, and Series-Parallel Circuits REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is Kirchhoff’s voltage law? (Text page 469) Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law states, “The voltage around any closed circuit is equal to the sum (total) of the voltage drops across the resistances.”

2. What would current (amperes) do if the voltage were doubled in a circuit? (Text page 469) If the voltage was doubled, the current flow in amperes would also double assuming that the resistance in the circuit remains the same.

3. Why is the total resistance of a parallel circuit less than the smallest resistance?

(Text page 472) The total resistance of a parallel circuit is less than the resistance of the smallest resistance leg because the current splits, creating multiple paths for the current to flow back to the power source, thereby effectively reducing the overall resistance of the circuit.

4. What would be the effect of an open circuit in one leg of a parallel portion of a series-parallel circuit?? (Text page 476) If an open circuit were to occur in the parallel portion of a series-parallel circuit, it would stop the flow of current through the parallel leg where the open occurred.

5. What would be the effect of an open circuit in a series portion of a series-parallel circuit?

(Text page 476) If an open circuit were to occur in the series portion of a series-parallel circuit, it would stop the flow of current through the rest of the circuit or the parallel leg where the open occurred.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The amperage in a series circuit is ________________. (Text page 470) a. the same anywhere in the circuit X b. varies in the circuit due to the different resistances c. high at the beginning of the circuit and decreases as the current flows through the resistance d. always less returning to the battery than leaving the battery 2. The sum of the voltage drops in a series circuit equals the __________________.

(Text page 470) a. amperage b. resistance c. source voltage X d. wattage

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3. Technician A says that the sum of the voltage drops in a series circuit should equal the source voltage. Technician B says that the current (amperes) varies, depending on the value of the resistance in a series circuit. Which technician is correct? (Text page 470) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. A series circuit has three resistors of 4 ohms each. The voltage drop across each resistor is 4 volts. Technician A says that the source voltage is 12 volts. Technician B says that the total resistance is 18 ohms. Which technician is correct? (Text page 471) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 5. Two bulbs are connected in parallel to a 12-volt battery. One bulb has a resistance of 6 ohms and the other bulb has a resistance of 2 ohms. Technician A says that only the 2-ohm bulb will light because all of the current will flow through the path with the least resistance and no current will flow through the 6-ohm bulb. Technician B says that the 6-ohm bulb will be dimmer than the 2-ohm bulb. Which technician is correct? (Text page 474) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. Calculate the total resistance and current in a parallel circuit with three resistors of 4 Ω, 8 Ω, and 16 Ω, using any one of the five methods (calculator suggested). What is the total resistance and current? (Text page 475) a. 27 ohms (0.4 ampere) b. 14 ohms (0.8 ampere) c. 4 ohms (3.0 amperes) d. 2.3 ohms (5.3 amperes) 7. A vehicle has four parking lights all connected in parallel and one of the bulbs burns out.

Technician A says that this could cause the parking light circuit fuse to blow (open).

Technician B says that it would decrease the current in the circuit. Which technician is correct? (Text page 474) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. A vehicle has resistances to control the blower motor speed. This is an example of a ________ electrical circuit. (Text page 470) a. redundant b. series-parallel c. series X d. double

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9. A circuit has two resistors in parallel, and each resistor is 6 ohms. This circuit is connected to a single resistor of 6 ohms to form a series-parallel circuit. What is the total resistance of the circuit?. (Text page 476) a. 18 ohms b. 6 ohms c. 12 ohms d. 9 ohms X 10. In a series-parallel circuit, how is the total resistance in the circuit determined?

(Text page 476) a. All of the resistance values are added together b. The series resistance values are added together and then subtracted from the resistances in parallel c. The parallel resistance values are added together and then subtracted from the resistances in series d. None of the above X

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CHAPTER 42 Circuit Testers and Digital Meters REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Why should high-impedance meters be used when measuring voltage on computer-controlled circuits? (Text page 481) A high-impedance meter is a meter that has a high internal resistance so as not to affect the circuit when it is connected to measure voltage.

2. How is an ammeter connected to an electrical circuit? (Text page 482) An ammeter must be connected in the circuit itself in series unless a clamp-on ammeter is used.

3. Why must an ohmmeter be connected to a disconnected circuit or component.

(Text page 482) An ohmmeter applies a voltage so the circuit has to be off (open circuit) and the item being tested isolated from the rest of the circuit for best results.

4. How is a diode tested using a digital meter? (Text page 485) The meter applies roughly a 3-volt DC signal to the text leads. The voltage is high enough to cause a diode to work.

5. What is meant when a meter reads “OL” when measuring ohms? (Text page 485) Typical digital multimeter showing OL (over limit) on the readout with the ohms unit selected. This usually means that the unit being measured is open (infinite resistance) and has no continuity.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How can a text light be used to test a ground connection? (Text page 479) a. By touching both the tip and the ground clip to the positive terminal of a battery b. By touching the ground lead to the tip of the test light c. By connecting the tip of the test light to a good ground with the other end to the positive terminal of a battery X d. None of the above 2. A meter used to measure amperes is called ________. (Text page 482) a. an amp meter b. an ampmeter c. an ammeter X d. a coulomb meter 3. A voltmeter should be connected to the circuit being tested ________. (Text page 482) a. in series b. in parallel X c. only when no power is flowing d. both a and c 97 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4. An ohmmeter should be connected to the circuit or component being tested ________.

(Text page 482) a. with current flowing in the circuit or through the component b. connected to the battery of the vehicle to power the meter c. only when no power is flowing (electrically open circuit) X d. both b and c 5. When testing a diode with the multimeter set on "Diode Check," a reading of 0.6 volts is obtained. This indicates that the diode being tested is a __________. (Text page 485) a. tungsten bulb b. light-emitting diode c. silicon diode X d. bad diode 6. If a digital meter face shows 0.93 when set to read kΩ, the reading means ________.

(Text page 485) a. 93 ohms b. 930 ohms X c. 9300 ohms d. 93,000 ohms 7. A reading of 432 shows on the face of the meter set to the millivolt scale. The reading means ________. (Text page 487) a. 0.432 volt X b. 4.32 volts c. 43.2 volts d. 4,320 volts 8. What could happen if the meter leads were connected to the positive and negative terminals of the battery while the meter and leads were set to read amperes? (Text page 483) a. Could blow an internal fuse or damage the meter X b. Would read volts instead of amperes c. Would display OL d. Would display 0.00 9. The highest amount of resistance that can be read by the meter set to the 2-kΩ scale is ________. (Text page 487) a. 2,000 ohms X b. 200 ohms c. 200 kΩ (200,000 ohms) d. 20,000,000 ohms 10. A high-impedance meter _________. (Text page 481) a. measures a high amount of current flow b. measures a high amount of resistance c. can measure a high voltage d. has a high internal resistance X

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CHAPTER 43 Oscilloscopes and Graphing Multimeters REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the differences between an analog and a digital oscilloscope? (Text page 495) An analog oscilloscope shows voltage changes as they occur and the waveform cannot be captured or saved. A digital storage oscilloscope (DSO) records the voltage measurements as a series of dots and then connects the dots to display a waveform, which can be stored and viewed later after the event.

2. What is the difference between DC coupling and AC coupling? (Text page 497) DC coupling allows the scope to display both AC and DC voltage signals whereas AC coupling allows the scope to display only AC voltage signals and blocks all DC signals.

3. Why are DC signals that change called pulse trains? (Text page 497) DC signals that change are called pulse trains because the voltage remains positive.

Alternating current (AC) voltage signals are both positive and negative voltage.Therefore, when a DC voltage signal changes from high to low, the most commonly used term to describe that type of signal is a pulse train.

4. What is the difference between an oscilloscope and a graphing multimeter? (Text page 500) The difference between an oscilloscope and a graphing multimeter is that a graphing multimeter (GMM) simply displays the reading of the meter on a graph, whereas an oscilloscope displays the voltage directly and faster.

5. What is the difference between a positive trigger and a negative trigger? (Text page 500) If a waveform, such as a magnetic sensor used for crankshaft position or wheel speed, starts moving upward, a positive slope should be selected. If a negative slope is selected, the waveform does not start showing until the voltage reaches the trigger level in a downward direction.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says an analog scope can store the waveform for viewing later. Technician B says that the trigger level has to be set on most scopes to be able to view a changing waveform. Which technician is correct? (Text page 495) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. An oscilloscope display is called a ___________. (Text page 495) a. grid b. graticule X c. division d. box 99 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3. A signal showing the voltage of a battery displayed on a digital storage oscilloscope (DSO) is being discussed. Technician A says that the display will show one horizontal line above the zero line. Technician B says that the display will show a line sloping upward from zero to the battery voltage level. Which technician is correct? (Text page 496) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. Setting the time base to 50 ms per division will allow the technician to view a waveform how long in duration? (Text page 496) a. 50 ms b. 200 ms c. 400 ms d. 500 ms X 5. A throttle position sensor waveform is going to be observed. At what setting should the volts per division be set to see the entire waveform from 0 to 5 volts? (Text page 496) a. 0.5 V/division b. 1.0 V/division X c. 2.0 V/division d. 5.0 V/division 6. Two technicians are discussing the DC coupling setting on a DSO. Technician A says that the position allows both the DC and AC signals of the waveform to be displayed. Technician B says that this setting allows just the DC part of the waveform to be displayed. Which technician is correct? (Text page 497) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Voltage signals (waveforms) that do not go below zero are called _______________.

(Text page 497) a. AC signals b. pulse trains X c. pulse-width d. DC coupled signals 8. Cycles per second are expressed in ___________. (Text page 498) a. hertz X b. duty cycle c. pulse width d. slope 9. Oscilloscopes use what type of lead connector? (Text page 500) a. Banana plugs b. Double banana plugs c. Single conductor plugs d. BNC X 100 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

10. A digital meter that can show waveforms is called a __________. (Text page 500) a. DVOM b. DMM c. GMM X d. DSO

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CHAPTER 44 Automotive Wiring and Wire Repair REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the difference between the American wire gauge (AWG) system and the metric system? (Text pages 503-504) The AWG system uses numbers to represent the size of the connector and the higher the number, the smaller the wire. The metric system states the actual size of the conductor in square millimeters (mm2).

2. What is the difference between a wire and a cable? (Text page 504) While there is no real standard, the usual practice is to designate any wire AWG 4 or larger (smaller number) as a cable and smaller wire as wire.

3. What is the difference between a terminal and a connector? (Text page 509) A terminal is the metal part attached to the end of a wire and makes the electrical connection to another terminal or a component. A connection is the plastic part that houses the terminal(s) and provides the mechanical (not the electrical) connection to another connector or component.

4. How do fuses, PTC circuit protectors, circuit breakers, and fusible links protect a circuit?

(Text pages 505-508) Fuses melt if current flow exceeds the rating of the fuse. A PTC circuit protector increases in resistance if the current exceeds the rating of the device. Fusible links will melt if excessive current flows through the link, destroying the device.

5. How should a wire repair be done if the repair is under the hood where it is exposed to the outside? (Text pages 510-511) A wire repair should include the following steps: a. Strip the ends of the wire. b. Make a mechanical connection using solder or a crimp-and-seal fastener. c. Protect the repair using heat shrink tubing or heating the connector to melt the glue inside.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The higher the AWG number, _________. (Text page 502) a. the smaller the wire diameter X b. the larger the wire diameter c. the thicker the insulation d. the more strands in the conductor core 2. Metric wire size is measured in units of ________. (Text page 503) a. meters b. cubic centimeters c. square millimeters X d. cubic millimeters 102 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3. Which statement is true about fuse ratings? (Text page 505) a. The fuse rating should be less than the maximum current for the circuit. b. The fuse rating should be higher than the normal current for the circuit. c. Eighty percent of the fuse rating should equal the current in the circuit. d. Both b and c are correct. X 4. Which statements are true about wire, terminals, and connectors? (Text page 509) a. Wire is called a lead, and the metal end is a connector. b. A connector is usually a plastic piece where terminals lock in. X c. A lead and a terminal are the same thing. d. Both a and c are correct.

5. The type of solder that should be used for electrical work is ________. (Text page 510) a. rosin core X b. acid core c. 60/40 with no flux d. 50/50 with acid paste flux 6. A technician is performing a wire repair on a circuit under the hood of the vehicle.

Technician A says to use solder and adhesive-lined heat shrink tubing or a crimp and seal connector. Technician B says to solder and use electrical tape. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 511) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Two technicians are discussing fuse testing. Technician A says that a test light should light on both test points of the fuse if it is okay. Technician B says the fuse is defective if a test light only lights on one side of the fuse. Which technician is correct? (Text page 507) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Many ground straps are uninsulated and braided because _______________ .

(Text page 504) a. they are more flexible to allow movement of the engine without breaking the wire b. they are less expensive than conventional wire c. they help dampen radio-frequency interference (RFI) d. both a and c are correct X 9. What causes a fuse to blow? (Text page 505) a. A decrease in circuit resistance b. An increase in the current flow through the circuit c. A sudden decrease in current flow through the circuit d. Both a and b X

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10. A vehicle has some wiring covered with orange conduit. This indicates a ________ circuit.

(Text page 513) a. 42 volt b. 12 to 16 volt c. variable voltage d. high voltage X

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CHAPTER 45 Wiring Schematics and Circuit Testing REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What do the circuit numbers shown on schematics usually mean? (Text pages 517-518) Many vehicle manufacturers number circuits starting at the front of the vehicle and moving toward the rear with the 100s meaning under the hood, the 200s under the dash, the 300s in the passenger compartment, and the 400s in the trunk area.

2. What do the terminals of a typical ISO relay mean? (Text page 522) Terminals 85 and 86 represent the coil of the relay, terminal 30 represents the power in the relay, terminal 87a is the normally closed contact, and terminal 87 is the normally open contact.

3. What is used to control voltage spikes inside a relay? (Text page 523) When the relay or solenoid coil current is turned off, the stored energy in the coil flows through the clamping diode and effectively reduces voltage spike. Most relays use a resistor connected in parallel with the coil winding. The use of a resistor, typically about 400 to 600 ohms, reduces the voltage spike by providing a path for the voltage created in the coil to flow back through the coil windings when the coil circuit is opened.

4. How can a tone generator be used to locate a short circuit? (Text page 526) A tone generator is connected to the shorted circuit and a probe is used to locate where the tone stops, indicating the location of the short circuit.

5. What is the difference between a relay and a solenoid? (Text page 523) A relay is an electromagnetic switch that uses a movable arm. Because a relay uses a movable arm, it is generally limited to current flow not exceeding 30 amperes. A solenoid is an electromagnetic switch that uses a movable core. Because of this type of design, a solenoid is capable of handling 200 amperes or more.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. On a wiring diagram, S110 with a "0.8 BRN/BLK" means ______. (Text pages 515-518) a. circuit #.8, spliced under the hood b. a connector with 0.8 mm2 wire c. a splice of a brown with black stripe, wire size being 0.8 mm2 (18 gauge AWG) X d. both a and b 2. Where is connector C250? (Text page 518) a. Under the hood b. Under the dash X c. In the passenger compartment d. In the trunk 3. All switches illustrated in schematics are ______________. (Text page 520) a. shown in their normal position X b. always shown in their on position 105 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

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c. always shown in their off position d. shown in their on position except for lighting switches When testing a relay using an ohmmeter, which two terminals should be touched to measure the coil resistance? (Text page 522) a. 87 and 30 b. 86 and 85 X c. 87a and 87 d. 86 and 87 Technician A says that a good relay should measure between 60 and 100 ohms across the coil terminals. Technician B says that OL should be displayed on an ohmmeter when touching terminals 30 and 87.Which technician is correct? (Text page 522) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B Which relay terminal is the normally closed (N.C.) terminal? (Text page 522) a. 30 b. 85 c. 87 d. 87a X Technician A says that there is often more than one circuit being protected by each fuse.

Technician B says that more than one circuit often shares a single ground connector. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 524-526) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B Two technicians are discussing finding a short-to-ground using a test light. Technician A says that the test light, connected in place of the fuse, will light when the circuit that has the short is disconnected. Technician B says that the test light should be connected to the positive (+) and negative () terminals of the battery during this test. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 526) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X A short circuit can be located using a ____________. (Text pages 525-526) a. test light b. gauss gauge c. tone generator d. any of the above X

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10. For an electrical device to operate, it must have ________________. (Text page 528) a. power and a ground X b. a switch and a fuse c. a ground and fusible link d. a relay to transfer the current to the device

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CHAPTER 46 Capacitance and Capacitors REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How does a capacitor store an electrical charge? (Text page 530) A capacitor stores an electrical charge by using a condenser, such as aluminum foil separated by an insulator, where electrons are stored at a voltage potential.

2. How should two capacitors be electrically connected if greater capacitance is needed?

(Text page 533) To increase the capacitance, two capacitors should be connected in parallel.

3. How can a capacitor be used as a power source? (Text page 533) A capacitor can be used as a power source if it is first changed by being connected to an electrical circuit. When the circuit is opened, the capacitor can supply electrical current when it is discharged through a circuit.

4. How can a capacitor be used as a noise filter? (Text page 532) A capacitor is used on a noise filter because most radio noise is AC and a capacitor passes AC voltage. A capacitor connected to the power lead will then pass the AC voltage to ground through the capacitor without affecting the DC power line.

5. Why is a large capacitor used in some high-powered sound systems? (Text page 533) A capacitor can be used to supply electrical power for short bursts in an audio system to help drive the speakers. Woofers and subwoofers require a lot of electrical current that often cannot be delivered by the amplifier itself.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A capacitor _______________. (Text page 532) a. stores electrons b. passes AC c. blocks DC d. all of the above X 2. Capacitors are often used as “suppression capacitors”. What does a capacitor suppress?

(Text page 533) a. Excessive current b. Voltage fluctuations X c. Resistance d. Noise 3. Capacitors are commonly used as a___________. (Text pages 532-533) a. voltage supply b. timer c. noise filter d. all of the above X 108 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4. A charged capacitor acts like a ________. (Text page 533) a. switch b. battery X c. resistor d. coil 5. The unit of measurement for capacitor rating in called the _______. (Text page 532) a. ohm b. volt c. farad X d. ampere 6. Two technicians are discussing the operation of a capacitor. Technician A says that a capacitor can create electricity. Technician B says that a capacitor can store electricity. Which technician is correct? (Text page 533) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technician A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Capacitors block the flow of ______ current but allow _____current to pass. (Text page 532) a. strong; weak b. AC; DC c. DC; AC X d. weak; strong 8. To increase the capacity what could be done? (Text page 533) a. Connect another capacitor in series. b. Connect another capacitor in parallel. X c. Add a resistor between two capacitors. d. Both a and b 9. A capacitor can be used in what components? (Text pages 532-533) a. A microphone b. A radio c. A speaker d. All of the above X 10. A capacitor used for spike protection will normally be placed in _______ to the load or circuit. (Text page 533) a. series b. parallel X c. in either series or parallel d. in parallel with a resistor in series

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CHAPTER 47 Magnetism and Electromagnetism REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the relationship between electricity and magnetism? (Text page 537) Whenever electricity is flowing through a conductor, a magnetic field around the conductor is formed. Whenever a conductor is moved through a magnetic field or a magnetic field is moved past a conductor, electricity is created.

2. What is the difference between mutual induction and self-induction? (Text page 540; 542) Self induction occurs when current starts to flow through a conductor, creating a selfinduced voltage that opposes the current. Mutual induction occurs when the magnetic field in one conductor or coil induces a voltage in another conductor or coil.

3. What is the result if a magnet cracks? (Text page 535) A cracked magnet becomes two weaker magnets.

4. How can EMI be reduced or controlled? (Text page 544) Electromagnetic interference (EMI) can be reduced by using: • Resistance in the circuit • Capacitor in the circuit • Coils in the circuit • Shielding • Ground wire or strap 5. What is the difference between a “married” ignition coil and a “divorced” ignition coil?

(Text page 543) Many ignition coils contain two separate, but electrically connected, windings of copper wire. This type of coil is called a “married” type. Other coils are true transformers in which the primary and secondary windings are not electrically connected. This type of coil is often called a “divorced” type.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that magnetic lines of force can be seen by placing iron filings on a piece of paper and holding them over a magnet. Technician B says that the effects of magnetic lines of force can be seen using a compass. Which technician is correct? (Text page 536) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. Unlike magnetic poles ____________ and like magnetic poles _______________.

(Text page 536) a. repel; attract b. attract; repel X 110 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

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c. repel; repel d. attract; attract The conventional theory for current flow is being used to determine the direction of magnetic lines of force. Technician A says that the left-hand rule should be used. Technician B says that the right-hand rule should be used. Which technician is correct? (Text page 537) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B Technician A says that a relay is an electromagnetic switch. Technician B says that a solenoid uses a movable core. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 539-540) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B Two technicians are discussing electromagnetic induction. Technician A says that the induced voltage can be increased if the speed is increased between the conductor and the magnetic lines of force. Technician B says that the induced voltage can be increased by increasing the strength of the magnetic field. Which technician is correct? (Text page 540) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B An ignition coil operates using the principle(s) of __________________.

(Text pages 542-543) a. electromagnetic induction b. self-induction c. mutual induction d. all of the above X Electromagnetic interference can be reduced by using a _____________.

(Text pages 544-545) a. resistance b. capacitor c. coil d. any of the above X An ignition coil is an example of a _______________. (Text page 543) a. solenoid b. step-down transformer c. step-up transformer X d. relay Magnetic field strength is measured in _________ . (Text page 539) a. ampere-turns X b. flux

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c. density d. coil strength 10. Two technicians are discussing ignition coils. Technician A says that some ignition coils have the primary and secondary windings electrically connected. Technician B says that some coils have totally separate primary and secondary windings that are not electrically connected.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 543) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 48 Electronic Fundamentals REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the difference between P-type material and N-type material? (Text pages 547-548) P-type material is doped with an element that has only three electrons in the outer orbit, creating a hole in the silicon in which an electron could occupy. N-type material is pure silicon that has been doped with an element with five electrons in the outer orbit, resulting in an extra electron that could act as a current carrier.

2. How can a diode can be used to suppress high-voltage surges in automotive components or circuits containing a coil? (Text page 549) A diode can be installed across a coil in the reverse bias direction to suppress the high-voltage spikes that can occur when the current stops following through the coil.

3. How does a transistor work? (Text pages 553-554) A transistor can be toggled on and off, as well as throttled by controlling the current flow through the emitter-base circuit.

4. What precautions should all service technicians adhere in order to avoid damage to electronic and computer circuits? (Text page 560) Never open a package until the part is ready to install; ground yourself often and never touch terminals.

5. What is the difference between forward bias and reverse bias when discussing a diode?

(Text page 548) When current flows through the diode with low resistance, this condition is called forward bias. If the battery connections are reversed and the positive side of the battery is connected to the N-type material, the electrons are pulled toward the battery, and away from the junction of the N-type and P-type materials. Because electrical conduction requires the flow of electrons across the junction of the N-type and P-type materials, and because the battery connections are actually reversed, the diode offers very high resistance to current flow. This condition is called reverse bias.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A semiconductor is a material ________. (Text page 547) a. with fewer than four electrons in the outer orbit of its atoms b. with more than four electrons in the outer orbit of its atoms c. with exactly four electrons in the outer orbit of its atoms X d. determined by other factors besides the number of electrons 2. The arrow in a symbol for a semiconductor device ________. (Text page 554) a. points toward the negative b. points away from the negative c. is attached to the emitter on a transistor d. both a and c are correct X 113 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3. A diode installed across a coil with the cathode toward the battery positive is called ________. (Text page 549) a. a clamping diode X b. a forward biased diode c. an SCR d. a transistor 4. A transistor is controlled by the polarity and current at ________. (Text page 554) a. the collector b. the emitter c. the base X d. both a and b 5. A transistor can ________. (Text page 554) a. switch on and off b. amplify c. throttle d. do all of the above X 6. A zener diode is normally used for voltage regulation. A zener diode, however, can also be used for high-voltage spike protection if connected ________. (Text page 550) a. positive to anode, negative to cathode b. positive to cathode, ground to anode X c. negative to anode, cathode to a resistor then to a lower-voltage terminal d. both a and c 7. The forward-bias voltage required for an LED is ________. (Text page 551) a. 0.3 to 0.5 volt b. 0.5 to 0.7 volt c. 1.5 to 2.2 volts X d. 4.5 to 5.1 volts 8. Faults or failures in electronic components could be caused by all of the following EXCEPT: (Text page 560) a. Loose connector terminals b. A loose alternator belt X c. Jumper cables reversed when jump-starting d. A voltage spike 9. What is the purpose and function of an inverter? (Text page 559) a. To change the polarity of DC voltages b. To change low DC voltage to high DC voltage c. To change DC voltage to AC voltage X d. To change AC voltage to DC voltage 10. To avoid damage from an electrostatic discharge, the technician should do what before handling sensitive electronic components. (Text page 560) a. Wear dark clothing b. Be sure to wear insulated shoes c. Touch the housing of the component before removing it from the protective cover d. Touch a metal surface on the vehicle 114 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 49 CAN and Network Communications REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Why is a communication network used? (Text page 562) A communication network is used to reduce the number of wires and circuits needed in a vehicle by allowing common sensor data to be shared by all modules that need the information.

2. Why are the two wires twisted if used for network communications? (Text page 562) Two wires are twisted to reduce electromagnetic interference (EMI).

3. Why is a gateway module used? (Text page 570; 574) A gateway module is responsible for communicating with other modules and acts as the main communication module for scan tool data.

4. What are U codes? (Text page 568) U codes were at first undefined, but are now used to represent network communication-related diagnostic trouble codes (DTCs).

5. What is the purpose of the terminating resistors? (Text page 573) Terminating resistors are used to help reduce interference into other systems in the vehicle.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that module communications networks are used to reduce the number of wires in a vehicle. Technician B says that a communications network is used to share data from sensors, which can be used by many different modules. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 562) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. A module is also known as a _________. (Text page 562) a. BUS b. node X c. terminator d. resistor pack 3. A high-speed CAN BUS communicates with a scan tool through which terminal(s)?

(Text page 570) a. 6 and 14 X b. 2 c. 7 and 15 d. 4 and 16 115 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4. In a star link network, a serial data line connects all of the modules to ________.

(Text page 564) a. a central point X b. each other c. the vehicle fuse box d. chassis ground 5. Network diagnosis is being discussed. Technician A says that a test light can be used at the DLC to determine if the CAN bus has activity. Technician B says that a break-out box can be used to determine if there is activity on the CAN bus. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 572) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both technicians are correct d. Neither technician is correct 6. Which terminal of the data link connector does General Motors use for Class 2 communication? (Text page 565) a. 1 b. 2 X c. 3 d. 4 7. GMLAN is the General Motors term for which type of module communication?

(Text page 565) a. UART b. Class 2 c. High-speed CAN X d. Keyword 2000 8. CAN H and CAN L operate how? (Text page 570) a. CAN H is at 2.5 volts when not transmitting b. CAN L is at 2.5 volts when not transmitting c. CAN H goes to 3.5 volts when transmitting d. All of the above are correct X 9. Which terminal of the OBD-II data link connector is the signal ground for all vehicles?

(Text page 575) a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 X 10. Terminal 16 of the OBD-II data link connector is used for what? (Text page 575) a. Chassis ground b. 12-V positive X c. Module (signal ground) d. Manufacturer’s discretion

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CHAPTER 50 Batteries REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Why can a discharged batteries freeze? (Text page 581) Discharged batteries can freeze because the electrolyte becomes almost water.

2. What are the three most commonly used battery-rating methods? (Text pages 583 -584) The three most commonly used battery ratings are CA, CCA, and reserve capacity.

3. Why can a battery explode if exposed to an open flame or spark? (Text page 581) Batteries can explode if exposed to a flame or spark because they release hydrogen and oxygen from the vents.

4. What is meant by a sulfated battery? (Text page 583) When a battery is left in a discharged condition, the lead sulfate re-crystallizes into hard lead sulfate. This process is called sulfation or a sulfated battery.

5. What does the BCI group number mean? (Text page 584) Battery sizes are standardized by the Battery Council International (BCI). When selecting a replacement battery, check the specified group number in service information, battery application charts at parts stores, or the owner’s manual.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. When a battery becomes completely discharged, both positive and negative plates become _______ and the electrolyte becomes _____________. (Text pages 580-581) a. H2SO4 / Pb b. PbSO4 / H2O X c. PbO2 / H2SO4 d. PbSO4 / H2SO4 2. A fully charged 12-volt battery should indicate ________. (Text pages 581-582) a. 12.6 volts or higher b. A specific gravity of 1.265 or higher c. 12 volts d. both a and b X 3. Some vehicles use an AGM-type battery. This means the electrolyte is__________ inside the battery. (Text page 582) a. a dry powder b. liquid c. absorbed into the separator X d. a gel-like form 4. What makes a battery “low maintenance” or “maintenance free”? (Text page 578) a. Material is used to construct the grids. X b. The plates are constructed of different metals.

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c. The electrolyte is hydrochloric acid solution. d. The battery plates are smaller, making more room for additional electrolytes.

5. The positive battery plate is ____________. (Text page 579) a. lead dioxide b. brown in color c. sometimes called lead peroxide d. all of the above X 6. Which battery rating is tested at 0F (–18C)? (Text page 583) a. Cold-cranking amperes (CCA) X b. Cranking amperes (CA) c. Reserve capacity d. Battery voltage test 7. Which battery rating is expressed in minutes? (Text page 584) a. Cold-cranking amperes (CCA) b. Cranking amperes (CA) c. Reserve capacity X d. Battery voltage test 8. What battery rating is tested at 32F (0C)? (Text page 584) a. Cold-cranking amperes (CCA) b. Cranking amperes (CA) X c. Reserve capacity d. Battery voltage test 9. What gases are released from a battery when it is being charged? (Text page 582) a. Oxygen b. Hydrogen c. Nitrogen and oxygen d. Hydrogen and oxygen X 10. A charge indicator (eye) operates by showing green or red when the battery is charged and dark if the battery is discharged. This charge indicator detects ________________.

(Text page 581) a. battery voltage b. specific gravity X c. electrolyte water pH d. internal resistance of the cells

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CHAPTER 51 Battery Testing and Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the results of a voltmeter test of a battery and its state of charge? (Text page 588) After removing the surface charge, a battery voltage of 12.6 volts or higher indicates a fully charged battery. If 12.4 volts, it is 75% charged; 12.2 volts is 50% charged, and if 12.0 volts, the battery is only 25% charged.

2. What the steps for performing a battery load test? (Text page 589) A battery load test involves removing the surface charge, loading the battery to ½ of the CCA rating for 15 seconds, and observing the voltage at the end of the time with the load still applied.

3. How is a battery drain test performed? (Text page 593) A battery drain test is performed using either a clamp-on ammeter or by connecting an ammeter in series between the negative terminal of the battery and the disconnected negative battery cable end.

4. Why should a battery not be fast charged? (Text page 591) Fast charging a battery creates heat, which can cause battery plates to warp. It is best to change a battery at a rate equal to 1% of the CCA rating of the battery.

5. Why do some vehicles need to have a new battery registered? (Text page 595) When a new battery is installed, the vehicle must have the new battery registered so that the system is at rest and does not overcharge the new battery. The replacement battery must be the same type (flooded or AGM) as the original to avoid potential issues

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that distilled or clean drinking water should be added to a battery when the electrolyte level is low. Technician B says that fresh electrolyte (solution of acid and water) should be added. Which technician is correct? (Text page 587) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. A battery should be checked for ________. (Text page 587) a. being securely held down b. should have clean and tight battery terminals c. the battery case being clean d. all of the above X 3. What precautions are needed when charging an AGM-type battery? (Text page 592) a. Keep the charger away from the battery as far as possible. b. Charging amperage should be set to less than 10 amperes.

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c. Charging voltage should be at or below 14.4 volts. X d. Keep the charging time to less than one hour.

4. A battery has just been changed on a popular European vehicle. What service should the technician perform before returning the vehicle to the owner? (Text page 595) a. Charge the battery overnight b. Register the new battery to the vehicle X c. Allow the vehicle to sit overnight with the headlights on, then recharge the battery d. No additional steps are required, other than just installing the battery 5. A defective battery causes which of the following symptoms? (Text page 587) a. Slow cranking X b. Excessive voltage (over 16 volts) c. Smooth, clean connectors, indicating overheating of the cables d. None of these 6. When measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte, the maximum allowable difference between the highest and lowest hydrometer reading is ________. (Text page 589) a. 0.010 b. 0.020 c. 0.050 X d. 0.50 7. A battery high-rate discharge (load capacity) test is being performed on a 12-volt battery.

Technician A says that a good battery should have a voltage reading of higher than 9.6 volts while under load at the end of the 15-second test. Technician B says that a battery conductance tester is often used to load the battery to two times the CCA rating of the battery.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 589) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. When charging a maintenance free (lead calcium) battery, ________. (Text page 591) a. the initial charging rate should be about 35 amperes for 30 minutes b. the battery may not accept a charge for several hours, yet may still be a good (serviceable) battery c. the battery temperature should not exceed 125°F (hot to the touch) d. all of the above are correct X 9. Normal battery drain (parasitic drain) with a vehicle with many computer and electronic circuits is ________. (Text page 593) a. 20 to 30 milliamperes X b. 2 to 3 amperes c. 150 to 300 milliamperes d. none of the above 10. When jump starting, ________. (Text page 592) a. the last connection should be the positive post of the dead battery b. the last connection should be the engine block of the dead vehicle X c. the alternator must be disconnected on both vehicles d. both a and c are correct 120 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 52 Cranking System REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the difference between the control circuit and the power (motor) circuit sections of a typical cranking circuit.? (Text page 598) The control circuit includes those wires and components that carry a relatively small current, such as the ignition switch, safety switch, and solenoid. The power circuit carries the heavy current needed to crank the engine and includes the battery itself, plus the battery cables, solenoid, and starter motor.

2. What are the parts of a typical starter? (Text pages 602-603) Parts of a typical starter include: main field housing, commutator-end housing and drive-end housing, plus the armature, field coils, brushes, and starter drive.

3. Why does a gear-reduction unit reduce the amount of current required by the starter motor?

(Text page 604) A gear reduction starter allows the armature to rotate faster than in a direct drive starter, which causes the starter to produce more CEMF, thereby reducing the current draw from the battery.

4. What are the symptoms of a defective starter drive? (Text page 605) A defective starter drive will cause the starter to whine and not rotate the engine flywheel.

5. Why are there two windings in the starter solenoid? (Text page 606) The heavier-gauge winding (called the pull-in winding) is needed to draw the plunger into the solenoid and is grounded through the starter motor. The lighter-gauge winding (called the hold-in winding), which is grounded through the starter frame, produces enough magnetic force to keep the plunger in position

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Starter motors operate on the principle that ________. (Text page 600) a. the field coils rotate in the opposite direction from the armature b. opposite magnetic poles repel c. like magnetic poles repel d. the armature rotates from a strong magnetic field toward a weaker magnetic field X 2. Series-wound electric motors _______. (Text page 604) a. produce electrical power b. produce maximum power at 0 RPM X c. produce maximum power at high RPM d. use a shunt coil

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3. Technician A says that a defective solenoid can cause a starter whine. Technician B says that a defective starter drive can cause a starter whining noise. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 605) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. The neutral safety switch is located ________________. (Text page 598) a. between the starter solenoid and the starter motor b. inside the ignition switch itself c. between the ignition switch and the starter solenoid X d. in the battery cable between the battery and the starter solenoid 5. The brushes are used to transfer electrical power between ______________. (Text page 603) a. field coils and the armature X b. the commutator segments c. the solenoid and the field coils d. the armature and the solenoid 6. The faster a starter motor rotates ____________________. (Text page 604) a. the more current it draws from the battery b. the less CEMF is generated c. the less current it draws from the battery X d. the greater the amount of torque produced 7. Normal cranking speed of the engine is about ___________. (Text page 605) a. 2,000 RPM b. 1,500 RPM c. 1,000 RPM d. 200 RPM X 8. A starter motor rotates about _________ times faster than the engine.(Text page 605) a. 18 X b. 10 c. 5 d. 2 9. Permanent magnets are commonly used for what part of the starter? (Text page 603) a. Armature b. Solenoid c. Field coils X d. Commutator 10. A stop-start system includes what components? (Text page 607) a. A special starter b. An AGM or ELA battery c. A switch to turn the system off in some vehicles d. All of the above X

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CHAPTER 53 Cranking System Diagnosis and Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the steps involved in the diagnosis of a fault in the cranking circuit?

(Text page 609) Following are the steps involved in the diagnosis of a fault in the cranking circuit.

STEP 1 Verify the customer concern STEP 2 Visually inspect the battery and battery connections.

STEP 3 Test battery condition STEP 4 Check the control circuit STEP 5 Check voltage drop of the starter circuit.

2. What are the steps taken to perform a voltage drop test of the cranking circuit?

(Text pages 610-611) A voltage drop test is performed by connecting a voltmeter to two parts of the cranking circuit and cranking the engine. The voltmeter indicates the difference in voltage between the meter leads and should be less than 0.5 volt per cable and 0.1 volt or less per connection.

3. What are the steps necessary to replace a starter? (Text pages 613; 615) The negative battery cable should be removed from the battery and the vehicle hoisted safely in most cases. The attaching bolts should be removed and the starter removed from the engine. Often the wiring is easier to remove with the starter removed from the engine.

4. What are typical starter amperage draw for four-, six-, and eight-cylinder engines?

(Text page 612) The following can be used as general maximum amperage draw specifications for testing a starter on the vehicle.

•

4-cylinder engines = 150 to 185 amperes (normally less than 100 amperes) at room temperature • 6-cylinder engines = 160 to 200 amperes (normally less than 125 amperes) at room temperature • 8-cylinder engines = 185 to 250 amperes (normally less than 150 amperes) at room temperature 5. What could be the cause of excessive starter current draw? (Text page 612) Excessive current draw may indicate one or more of the following: 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Binding of starter armature as a result of worn bushings Oil too thick (viscosity too high) for weather conditions Shorted or grounded starter windings or cables Tight or seized engine Shorted starter motor (usually caused by fault with the field coils or armature)

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CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Which one of these would NOT be a diagnostic step when diagnosing a “no crank” customer concern? (Text page 609) a. Check the condition of the engine oil X b. Check operation of the theft deterrent systems c. Check the battery with a load test d. Test for proper operation of the starter enable relay 2. Two technicians are discussing what could be the cause of slow cranking and excessive current draw. Technician A says that an engine mechanical fault could be the cause.

Technician B says that the starter motor could be binding or defective. Which technician is correct? (Text page 612) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 3. A V-6 is being checked for starter amperage draw. The initial surge current was about 210 amperes and about 160 amperes during cranking. Technician A says the starter is defective and should be replaced because the current flow exceeds 200 amperes. Technician B says this is normal current draw for a starter motor on a V-6 engine. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 612) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. What is the first step for removing a starter? (Text page 613) a. Hoist the vehicle b. Disconnect the battery positive cable c. Disconnect the battery negative cable X d. Remove the battery cable from the starter 5. Technician A says that a discharged battery (lower than normal battery voltage) can cause solenoid clicking. Technician B says that a discharged battery or dirty (corroded) battery cables can cause solenoid clicking. Which technician is correct? (Text page 610) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. Slow cranking by the starter can be caused by all EXCEPT: ________. (Text page 612) a. a low or discharged battery b. corroded or dirty battery cables c. engine mechanical problems d. an open neutral safety switch X 7. Bench testing of a starter should be done when?__________(Text page 614) a. after reassembling an old starter b. before installing a new starter 124 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. after removing the old starter d. either a or b X 8. If the clearance between the starter pinion and the engine flywheel is too great, ________.

(Text page 615) a. the starter will produce a high-pitched whine during cranking X b. the starter will produce a high-pitched whine after the engine starts c. the starter drive will not rotate at all d. the solenoid will not engage the starter drive unit 9. A technician connects one lead of a digital voltmeter to the positive (+) terminal of the battery, the other meter lead to the battery terminal (B) of the starter solenoid, and then cranks the engine. During cranking, the voltmeter displays a reading of 878 mV. Technician A says that this reading indicates that the positive battery cable has too high resistance.

Technician B says that this reading indicates that the starter is defective. Which technician is correct? (Text page 611) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. After installing the starter, the technician should perform which of the following?

(Text page 615) a. Attach the negative battery cable b. Check the starter for proper operation c. Perform a starter voltage drop test before starting the engine d. Both a and b X

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CHAPTER 54 Charging System REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How can a small electronic voltage regulator control the output of a typical 100-ampere alternator? (Text page 628) The regulator controls the current flow through the field (rotor). Zero field current equals no generator output and maximum field current (about 5 amperes) results in maximum generator output.

2. What are the component parts of a typical alternator? (Text pages 622-626) The components of a typical alternator include the drive-end housing, the slip-ring housing, rotor, rectifier diodes, and a stator.

3. How is the computer is used to control an alternator? (Text page 630) The computer controls the output of the generator by controlling the current flow through the field (rotor).

4. How is AC voltage inside the alternator changed to DC voltage at the output terminal?

(Text page 626) The rectifier diodes change AC from the stator windings to DC at the output terminal of the alternator.

5. What is the purpose of an OAP or OAD? (Text page 622) The purpose of an overrunning alternator pulley (OAP) or an overrunning alternator dampener (OAD) is to reduce noise and vibration in the accessory drive belt system.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that the diodes regulate the alternator output voltage. Technician B says that the field current can be computer controlled. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 630) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. A magnetic field created in the ___________ is used to induce a voltage in the ________.

(Text page 626) a. stator; rear housing b. diodes; stator c. rotor ; stator X d. drive-end frame; OAD 3. How is the AC voltage produced in the alternator changed to DC voltage? (Text page 626) a. Mechanical switches b. Alternating brushes 126 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. Slip ring rotation d. Diodes inside the alternator X 4. Technician A says that two diodes are required for each stator winding lead. Technician B says that diodes change alternating current into direct current. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 626) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 5. The alternator output current is produced in the ___________. (Text page 626) a. stator X b. rotor c. brushes d. diodes (rectifier bridge) 6. The output of an alternator can be increased by increasing the _______ of the alternator.

(Text pages 627-628) a. speed of rotation b. number of conductors in the starter c. current in the rotor d. any of these would increase the output X 7. How much current flows through the alternator brushes? (Text page 628) a. All of the alternator output flows through the brushes b. 25 A to 35 amperes, depending on the vehicle c. 10 A to 15 amperes d. Less than 3 amperes X 8. Technician A says that an alternator overrunning pulley is used to reduce vibration and noise.

Technician B says that an overrunning alternator pulley or dampener uses a one-way clutch.

Which technician is correct? (Text pages 622-623) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 9. What is/are used to help control the heat created in the alternator?. (Text page 629) a. External fan b. Internal fan c. Coolant cooled d. Any of the above X 10. How does the computer interface with the alternator? (Text page 630) a. The computer can actuate the charging system b. The computer can monitor the operation of the alternator c. The computer can control the operation of the alternator d. Any of the above X

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CHAPTER 55 Charging System Diagnosis and Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How does a technician test the voltage drop of the charging circuit? (Text pages 637-638) To test the voltage drop of the insulated charging circuit, attach one voltmeter test lead to the output terminal of the alternator and the other test lead to the positive terminal of the battery. Start the engine and turn on the headlights and observe the voltmeter.

Repeat the test for the ground side.

2. How does a technician measure the amperage output of a alternator? (Text page 638) To test the amperage output of the alternator, use a carbon-pile tester, such as a Sun VAT-40 to provide the load with the engine running at 2,000 RPM.

3. What tests can be performed to determine whether a diode or stator is defective before removing the alternator from the vehicle? (Text page 636) If a rectifier diode or stator is defective, an excessive amount of AC voltage (ripple voltage) will be measured at the output terminal of the alternator.

4. Why could a defective overrunning alternator pulley (OAP) or dampener (OAD) cause a lack of proper charging? (Text page 635) If low or no alternator output is found, remove the alternator drive belt and check the overrunning alternator pulley (OAP) or overrunning alternator dampener (OAD) for proper operation. Both types of overrunning clutches use a one-way clutch. Therefore, the pulley should freewheel in one direction and rotate the alternator rotor when rotated in the opposite direction.

5. What is procedure for replacing an alternator? (Text pages 639; 643) A typical removal procedure includes the following steps.

STEP 1 - Before disconnecting the negative battery cable, use a test light or a voltmeter and check for battery voltage at the output terminal of the alternator. A complete circuit must exist between the alternator and the battery. If there is no voltage at the alternator output terminal, check for a blown fusible link or other electrical circuit fault.

STEP 2 - Disconnect the negative (-) terminal from the battery. (Use a memory saver to maintain radio, memory seats, and other functions.)

STEP 3 - Remove the accessory drive belt that drives the alternator.

STEP 4 - Remove electrical wiring, fasteners, spacers, and brackets, as necessary, and remove the alternator from the vehicle.

A typical installation procedure includes the following steps.

STEP 1 Verify that the replacement alternator is the correct unit for the vehicle.

STEP 2 Install the alternator wiring on the alternator and install the alternator.

STEP 3 Check the condition of the drive belt and replace, if necessary. Install the drive belt over the drive pulley.

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CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. To check the charging voltage, connect a digital multimeter (DMM) to the positive (+) and the negative (  ) terminals of the battery and select ________________. (Text page 633) a. DC volts X b. AC volts c. DC amps d. AC amps 2. To check for ripple voltage from the alternator, connect a digital multimeter (DMM) and select ____________. (Text page 636) a. DC volts b. AC volts X c. DC amps d. AC amps 3. Which of the following would NOT be used to check drive belt wear? (Text pages 634-635) a. Groove color change X b. A tension gauge c. A belt wear gauge d. Belt deflection between two pulleys 4. When performing an alternator output test, which tool should the technician choose?

(Text page 638) a. An electronic torque wrench b. An ohmmeter c. A load tester X d. A vacuum gauge 5. An acceptable charging circuit voltage on a 12-volt system is ________. (Text page 633) a. 13.5 to 15.0 volts X b. 12.6 to 15.6 volts c. 12 to 14 volts d. 14.9 to 16.1 volts 6. The diodes are usually replaced_______ (Text page 642) a. individually only if open b. individually only if shorted c. as a replaceable rectifier component X d. as part of the stator assembly 7. Technician A says that a voltage drop test of the charging circuit should only be performed when current is flowing through the circuit. Technician B says to connect the leads of a voltmeter to the positive and negative terminals of the battery to measure the voltage drop of the charging system. Which technician is correct? (Text page 637) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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8. When testing an alternator minimum required output, what is the an acceptable reading?

(Text page 639) a. 2 to 5 amperes b. Five amperes grater than the accessory load X c. Over 100 amperes higher than the accessory load d. Less than 3 amperes 9. An alternator diode is being tested using a digital multimeter set to the diode check position.

A good diode will read _______ if the leads are connected one way across the diode and ______ if the leads are reversed. (Text page 642) a. 300 / 300 b. 0.475 / 0.475 c. OL / OL d. 0.551 / OL X 10. How are new slip rings attached to the rotor core during alternator rebuilding?

(Text page 643) a. Machine clamped b. Soldered on X c. Crimped on d. Epoxy glue

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CHAPTER 56 Lighting and Signaling Circuits REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Why should the exact same trade number of bulb should be used as a replacement?

(Text page 653) The same trade number bulb should be used as a replacement because this assures that the correct voltage and wattage bulb is used.

2. Why is it important to avoid touching a halogen bulb with your fingers? (Text page 658) A halogen bulb contains a high-pressure gas, and oils from the hands can affect the expansion of the glass, which can shorten the life of the bulb.

3. What are the advantages of LED lights? (Text page 660) The advantages of LED headlights compared to other types include: • Long service life • Reduced electrical power required 4. Why are lights controlled by the BCM in many vehicles? (Text page 652) • It simplifies the manufacturing and troubleshooting aspects of electronic modules.

• It coordinates the operating functions of many related items, as well as security features.

5. What are the conditions needed for an auto dimming headlight system to work?

(Text page 662) For the automatic operation to turn on the high beams, the following conditions are usually required: • • • •

Vehicle speed above 20 MPH Dark conditions with few streetlights There are no approaching vehicles with the headlights on There are no taillights from the vehicle in front

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that the bulb trade number is the same for all bulbs of the same size.

Technician B says that a dual-filament bulb has different candlepower ratings for each filament. Which technician is correct? (Text page 653) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. Light-emitting diodes (LEDs) are used for lighting because they______________.

(Text page 652) a. light quicker (faster illumination) b. have longer service life 131 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

c. have lower current draw d. any of the above X The correct trade number of bulb always is used for replacement because it______________.

(Text page 653) a. prevents circuit or component damage. b. keeps the circuit resistance the same c. keeps the circuit current (amperes) the same d. all of the above X Which of the following will cause the brake lights to turn on when the brake pedal is depressed? (Text page 654) a. A brake light switch b. The pedal sensor c. A pressure sensor on the brake pedal itself d. Either a or b depending on the vehicle X Vehicles equipped with the illuminated entry feature typically use ______________to command the interior lights ON. (Text page 665) a. the BCM b. RKE fob c. outside door handle d. any of the above X Which of the lighting systems could result in an electrical shock hazard if proper precautions are not followed? (Text page 660) a. LED lights b. HID lights X c. Rear fog lights d. Driving lights What type of light bulb should not be touched using bare hands? (Text page 658) a. 1157 or 2057 bulbs b. Halogen bulbs X c. LED bulbs d. HID bulbs The “color” of light produced by a light bulb is measured in what unit? (Text page 659) a. Kelvin degrees X b. Amperes c. Watts d. Volts An automatically dimming mirror is used to ______________. (Text page 664) a. automatically dim the headlights b. help prevent the Troxler effect X c. operate the fog lights when needed d. operate the daytime running lights (DRLs)

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10. Technician A says that a scan tool is usually needed to aim headlights. Technician B says that the keyless entry key fob is used to wake up the BCM, which usually is responsible to turn on the interior lights. Which technician is correct? (Text page 665) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 57 Driver Information and Navigation Systems REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How does a stepper motor analog dash gauge work? (Text page 671) The needle of the analog display is moved using a stepper motor, which is controlled by the electronics in the instrument panel.

2. What do the colors of the dash symbols mean? (Text pages 669-670) Green or white symbols are used to notify the driver that certain functions are working, such as the headlights are on, or the turn signals have been activated. Amber-colored symbols mean that a fault or an issue has occurred that may require attention soon. Red symbols mean that a serious fault has been detected and that immediate attention is required.

3. Night vision is used to detect what type of objects? (Text page 672) The camera creates pictures based on the heat energy emitted by objects, rather than from light reflected on an object, as in a normal optical camera.

4. Parking-assist systems use what type of sensor? (Text page 681) The ultrasonic proximity detectors are used to measure the distances to nearby objects.

Electromagnetic parking sensors (EPS) detect when a vehicle is moving slowly and towards an object.

5.

How does a navigation system determine the location of the vehicle? (Text page 677) A navigation system uses satellites in orbit around the earth to provide signals for navigation devices.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Which color symbol requires immediate attention by the driver? (Text page 670) a. Red X b. Amber c. Green d. White 2. Technician A says that LCDs may be slow to work at low temperatures. Technician B says that an LCD dash display can be damaged if pressure is exerted on the front of the display during cleaning. Which technician is correct? (Text page 674) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 3. Technician A says that metal-type tinting can affect the navigation system. Technician B says most telematic systems require a monthly payment for full use of their system. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 678; 679) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only 134 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B Technician A says that the data displayed on the dash can come from the powertrain control module (PCM). Technician B says that a virtual display can be set to show what the driver wishes to see displayed. Which technician is correct? (Text page 671; 674) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B Which of the following is NOT included on a vehicle using a steering wheel control system?

(Text page 670) a. Power window control X b. Cruise control c. Radio controls d. HVAC functions What is the minimum oil pressure required to keep the oil pressure warning light turned OFF? (Text page 676) a. 10 PSI (70 kPa) b. 3 to 7 PSI (20 to 50 kPA) X c. 60 PSI (400 kPa) d. None of these Where are the total miles traveled stored in a vehicle equipped with an electronic odometer?

(Text page 676) a. LCD b. NVRAM X c. LED d. VTF A backup camera can show a poor quality image on the interior display if what occurs?

(Text page 680) a. Ice or snow on the camera b. Bright lights aimed at the camera c. Extreme temperatures d. Any of the above X The vehicle symbol jumps down the road on a vehicle equipped with an on-board navigation.

What is the most likely cause? (Text page 678) a. A defective yaw sensor b. A defective vehicle speed (VS) sensor or a fault in the circuits X c. A fault with the GPS antenna d. Metalized window tint

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10. A parking-assist system works to warn the driver if the vehicle is getting closed to an object.

What type of object cannot be detected by most systems? (Text page 681) a. Objects larger than 3 inches (8 cm) wide b. Objects larger than 10 inches (25 cm) high c. Objects under the vehicle X d. Any of the above

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CHAPTER 58 Safety, Comfort, and Convenience Circuits REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the advantages of using the BCM to able to operate the horns? (Text page 683) The BCM controls the operation of the horn relay. The horn relay may also be controlled by the BCM, which “beeps” the horn when the vehicle is locked or unlocked, using the key fob remote, and can be sounded by the alarm system.

2. How do rain-sense wipers work? (Text page 689) Rain-sense wiper systems use a sensor located on the inside and at the top of the windshield to detect rain droplets. This sensor is often called the rain-sense module (RSM). It determines and adjusts the time delay of the wiper based on how much moisture it detects on the windshield.

3. What is the purpose of a radar cruise control system? (Text page 691) The purpose of a radar cruise control system, often called adaptive cruise control (ACC), is to give the driver more control over the vehicle by keeping an assured clear distance, usually 2 to 3 seconds, behind the vehicle in front.

4. How can an infrared camera be used to test a rear window defogger? (Text page 694) It is difficult to test for the proper operation of all grids of a rear window defogger unless the rear window happens to be covered with fog. A common trick that works is to turn on the rear defogger and look at the outside of the rear window glass using an infrared camera. The image shows if all sections of the rear grids are working

5. What is meant by a “rolling code”? (Text page 704) A rolling-code type of transmitter emits a different frequency every time the transmitter button is depressed, and then rolls over to another frequency so that it cannot be intercepted.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. In most recent-model vehicles, the horn button is an input to the ______________, which then activates the horn circuit. (Text page 683) a. horn relay b. instrument cluster c. BCM X d. fuse controller 2. Technician A says that the cruise control on a vehicle that uses an electronic throttle control (ETC) system uses a servo to move the throttle. Technician B says that the cruise control on a vehicle with ETC uses the accelerator pedal position (APP) sensor to set the speed. Which technician is correct? (Text page 690) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only

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3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X Most vehicles use __________ to control the actual operation of the wipers? (Text page 686) a. variable resistors b. changing the voltage to the brushes c. the BCM X d. the changing the position of the brushes Technician A says that the automatic reversal system operates by detecting the force needed to close the window. Technician B says that the child-proof lock switch position should be checked if there is a power window operation customer concern. Which technician is correct?

(Text pages 695-696) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B A typical radar cruise control system uses______________. (Text page 691) a. long-range radar (LRR) b. short-range radar (SRR) c. electronic throttle control system to control vehicle speed d. all of the above X When checking the operation of a rear window defogger with a voltmeter, ______________.

(Text page 695) a. the voltmeter should be set to read AC volts b. the voltmeter should read close to battery voltage anywhere along the grid c. voltage should be available anytime at the power side of the grid because the control circuit just completes the ground side of the heater grid circuit d. the voltmeter should indicate decreasing voltage when the grid is tested across the width of the glass. X PM motors used in power windows, mirrors, and seats can be reversed by ______________.

(Text page 695) a. sending current to a reversed field coil b. reversing the polarity of the current to the motor X c. using a reverse relay circuit d. using a relay and a two-way clutch How is the panel of a sun roof opened and closed? (Text page 699) a. With a reversable PM motor X b. By way of vacuum actuators c. With a handle and cables d. None of these A keyless remote start is not working. Technician A says Technician B says that the key fob may be too far away from the vehicle. Which technician is correct? (Text page 706) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only

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c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. Technician A says that adjustable pedals move both the accelerator pedal and the brake pedal.

Technician B says that only the brake pedal moves when adjusting the pedals. Which technician is correct? (Text page 702) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both technicians are correct d. Neither technician is correct

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CHAPTER 59 Security and Immobilizer Systems REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What faults will an immobilizer system cause? (Text page 708) Faults with the immobilizer system can be the cause of one of the following conditions, depending on the exact make and model of a vehicle: • No crank condition (the starter motor does not operate) • The engine cranks but does not start ( fuel disabled in most vehicles) • The engine starts but then almost immediately stalls.

2. How is the security information transferred from the key to the vehicle? (Text page 709) Most immobilizer systems work as follows: •

The key identification (ID) numbers are stored in a nonvolatile memory of the immobilizer module. At each start, the module compares the ID number of the transponder key used with those stored in the memory.

• If the verification has been successful, the immobilizer module sends a request signal to the PCM to compare the key ID number with the numbers registered in the PCM. • Each immobilizer module has its unique code word that is stored in the PCM. After the verification of the ID number, the immobilizer module requests the code word from the PCM. • The immobilizer module controls the starter circuit and the security light and signals the PCM to activate fuel injection and ignition when the ID number and code word verification have been successful.

• The signals between immobilizer module and PCM are transmitted via a serial data line.

3. A typical immobilizer system consists of what parts? (Text page 709) Most security systems today use a Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) security system, which has two main components: 1. A key fob is the object that is a decoration on a key ring and usually contains a transmitter used to unlock a vehicle.

2. The transponder key has the transponder electronics integrated in its plastic body.

4. To avoid damage to the key, what precautions are needed to be performed? (Text page 710) To avoid damage to the key, do not allow the key to:

• Be dropped onto a hard surface • Get wet • Be exposed to any kind of magnetic field 5. An antenna coil tester is used to test what part of the immobilizer system? (Text page 714) Immobilizer coil detectors are used to test if the transceiver is able to transmit a signal.

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CHAPTER QUESTIONS AND ANSWRS: 1. What is the purpose and function of an immobilizer system? (Text page 708) a. To prevent entry inside the vehicle b. Only allows the use of the ignition key that is properly matched to the lock cylinder c. Prevents the vehicle from starting or running if the correct key is not used X d. Requires that the driver enter a password to start the vehicle 2. What does the battery in the key fob power? (Text page 709) a. The shock sensor b. The remote keyless entry (RKE) X c. The immobilizer circuit d. Both the remote keyless entry and the immobilizer circuit 3. What can occur if the immobilizer system is not working as designed? (Text page 708) a. No crank condition (the starter motor does not operate) b. The engine cranks but does not start c. The engine starts but then almost immediately stalls d. Any of the above X 4. An immobilizer fault may occur if the _________. (Text page 710) a. the key is dropped onto a hard surface b. the key gets wet c. the key is exposed to any kind of magnetic field d. any of the above X 5. How is data transmitted between the key and the steering column (lock cylinder)?

(Text page 709) a. By inductive coupling X b. By electrical contacts inside the lock cylinder c. Transmitted from the key to the vehicle using the battery inside the key d. Transferred from the key to the BCM using a small transmitter in the key 6. A typical Ford immobilizer system is called _________. (Text page 712) a. VATS b. PATS X c. Passlock d. SKIS 7. A typical Chyrsler immobilizer system is called _________. (Text page 711) a. VATS b. PATS c. Passlock d. SKIS X 8. The security dash lamp comes on for 2 to 5 seconds and then goes out. This indicates what condition? (Text page 709) a. A fault has been detected in the key transponder b. A fault has been detected in the wiring near the ignition lock cylinder c. Normal security light operation X d. The system has entered tamper mode 141 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

9. Immobilizer diagnostic trouble codes are often found under what area? (Text page 713) a. Engine-related “P” codes b. Body-related “B” codes c. Chassis-related “C” codes d. Either b or c X 10. If an immobilizer-related fault occurs, what symbol is likely to be displayed on the dash?

(Text page 709) a. “IM” b. A padlock symbol X c. The “check engine” light d. The “service engine soon” light

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CHAPTER 60 Airbag and Pretensioner Circuits REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the safety precautions to follow when working around an airbag? (Text page 719) Disconnect airbag modules if service work is going to be performed in the area. Do not use self-powered test equipment around airbag circuits. Use care when handling an inflator module. Always wear safety glasses.

2. What sensor(s) must be triggered for an airbag deployment? (Text page 715) To deploy an airbag, the arming sensor and at least one discriminating sensor must be triggered at the same time.

3. How should deployed inflation modules be handled? (Text page 717) A deployed airbag module must be handled as if it is a non-deployed airbag because many are two-stage units where only one of the stages may have deployed.

4. What is the purpose of pretensioners? (Text page 714) The purpose of pretensioners is to force the occupant into correct position in the seat and to remove any slack in the seatbelt prior to an airbag deployment.

5. What is the purpose of the event data recorder? (Text page 724) The event data recorder (EDR) is used to record parameters just before and slightly after an airbag deployment.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A vehicle is being repaired after an airbag deployment. Technician A says that the inflator module should be handled as if it is still live. Technician B says gloves should be worn to prevent skin irritation. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 719; 722) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. A seat belt pretensioner is _____________. (Text page 716) a. a device that contains an explosive charge b. used to remove slack from the seat belt in the event of a collision c. used to force the occupant back into position against the seat back in the event of a collision d. all of the above X 3. The occupant detection system measures the ______ of the person in the passenger seat.

(Text page 724) a. height b. weight X c. age d. distance from the seat belt 143 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4. Two technicians are discussing dual-stage airbags. Technician A says that a deployed airbag is safe to handle regardless of which stage caused the deployment of the airbag. Technician B says that both stages ignite, but at different speeds depending on the speed of the vehicle.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 719) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X 5. Where are shorting bars used? (Text page 723) a. In pretensioners b. At the connectors for airbags X c. In the crash sensors d. In the airbag controller 6. Technician A says that a deployed airbag can be repacked, reused, and reinstalled in the vehicle. Technician B says that a deployed airbag should be discarded and replaced with an entire new assembly. Which technician is correct? (Text page 723) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. What color is used for airbag electrical connectors and conduit? (Text page 720) a. Blue b. Red c. Yellow X d. Orange 8. On some vehicles, the side curtain airbags use which of the following devices to determine when to deploy? (Text page 725) a. Wheel speed sensors b. Lateral acceleration sensor X c. Passenger presence system (PPS) seat sensor d. Seat belt sensor 9. How many sensors must be triggered at the same time to cause an airbag deployment?

(Text page 717) a. One b. Two X c. Three d. Four 10. Which parameters might be stored in the airbag controller in the event of a deployment?

(Text page 726) a. Voice recordings b. A 10-second video of the driver c. Whether the windows were open or closed d. Seat belt fastened X

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CHAPTER 61 Autonomous Vehicles REVIEW QUESTION AND ANSWERS: 1. How does radar operate? (Text page 731) Radar transmits a radio wave at a specific frequency. When the radio wave contacts an object, the radio wave bounces off that object and returns to the radar. All radar uses the Doppler Effect to calculate position and speed of another object.

2. What is the purpose of dedicated short-range communications? (Text page 733) Dedicated short-range communication (DSRC) is used for vehicle-to-vehicle communication, as well as the vehicle to the infrastructure.

3. Why does Lidar work poorly in foul weather? (Text page 733) The operation of LiDAR is diminished by bad weather. The light pulses reflect off rain or snow, making the object difficult to define.

4. What is the purpose of the actuators in an autonomous vehicle? (Text page 734) The multi-domain controller processes the information from the many different inputs in the advanced driver assistance program. It is used to control the vehicle through actuators in the engine, transmission, steering, brakes, human-machine interface (HMI), and vehicle-to-everything (V2X) systems.

5. When is the calibration of a camera on an autonomous vehicle required? (Text page 732) Calibration of the camera is required when one or more cameras are replaced or a mounting component, such as a windshield, bumper cover, mirror, or door, is replaced.

The calibration is an in-shop static process.

CHAPTER QUIZ AND ANSWERS: 1. Connected vehicles are able to perform which of the following functions? (Text page 728) a. Blind-spot warning b. Traffic updates c. Social media communications d. All of the above X 2. An autonomous vehicle can have up to how many driving levels? (Text page 729) a. 2 b. 6 X c. 7 d. 3 3. Autonomous vehicles are being discussed. Technician A says that vehicle-to-vehicle communication results in fewer traffic collisions. Technician B says there are concerns related to cybersecurity and a loss of privacy. Which technician is correct? (Text page 729) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only 145 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. Both Technician A and Technician B X d. Neither Technician A nor Technician B 4. A level 2 autonomous vehicle may include which of the following systems? (Text page 730) a. Adaptive cruise control b. Lane-departure warning c. Automatic emergency braking d. All of the above X 5. Radar is being discussed. Technician A says that the purpose of radar is to determine the object’s position relative to the vehicle. Technician B says that radar works poorly in foul weather. Which technician is correct? (Text page 731) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technician A and Technician B d. Neither Technician A nor Technician B 6. The purpose of a camera on an autonomous vehicle is to ______________. (Text page 732) a. post pictures on social media b. replace the human eye X c. take selfies of the driver d. none of the above 7. Lidar systems are capable of ______________. (Text page 733) a. creating 3-D images at 300 yards b. recognizing an object c. measuring distance, location, and speed d. all of the above X 8. Ultrasound on an autonomous vehicle is being discussed. Technician A says that it is typically used in park-assist applications. Technician B says it has an effective operating range of approximately 2 to 4 yards. Which technician is correct? (Text page 733) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technician A and Technician B X d. Neither Technician A nor Technician B 9. Dedicated short-range communication is used in ___________. (Text page 733) a. vehicle-to-vehicle communication b. vehicle-to-infrastructure communication c. both A and B X d. neither A nor B 10. Actuators in an autonomous vehicle are used to control the ______________.

(Text page 734) a. engine b. brakes c. steering d. all of the above X

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CHAPTER 62 Audio System Operation and Diagnosis REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Why do AM signals travel farther than FM signals? (Text page 738) AM signals travel longer distances than FM signals because they bounce off the upper atmosphere.

2. What are the purpose and function of the ground plane? (Text page 739) The ground plane represents one-half of the length of the antenna.

3. How do you match the impedance of speakers? (Text page 741) Speakers must be matched with the same impedance to allow all of the speakers to receive the same power, not only to produce the best sound possible, but also to help equalize the current through the speaker driver circuits.

4. What two items may need to be added to the wiring of a vehicle to control or reduce radio noise? (Text pages 747-748) A capacitor can be added to the power input to the radio and a braided ground strap can be added to the ground to help reduce radio noise.

5. What can affect the reception of a satellite radio signal? (Text page 746) If poor reception is the cause, carefully check the antenna for damage or faults with the lead-in wire. The antennas must be installed on a metal surface to provide the proper ground plane.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that a radio can receive AM signals, but not FM signals, if the antenna is defective. Technician B says that a good antenna should give a reading of about 500 ohms when tested with an ohmmeter between the center antenna wire and ground. Which technician is correct? (Text page 740) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X 2. An antenna lead-in wire should have how many ohms of resistance between the center terminal and the grounded outer covering? (Text page 740) a. Less than 5 ohms b. 5 to 50 ohms c. 300 to 500 ohms d. Infinity (OL) X 3. Technician A says that a braided ground wire is best to use for audio equipment to help reduce interference. Technician B says to use insulated 14-gauge or larger ground wire to reduce interference. Which technician is correct? (Text page 749) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only 147 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. What maintenance should be performed to a power antenna to help keep it working correctly?

(Text page 741) a. Remove it from the vehicle and lubricate the gears and cable b. Clean the mast with a soft cloth X c. Disassemble the mast and pack the mast with silicone grease (or equal) d. Loosen and then retighten the retaining nut 5. If two 4-ohm speakers are connected in parallel [positive (+) to positive (+) and negative (–) to negative (–)], the total impedance will be ___________________. (Text page 741) a. 8 ohms b. 4 ohms c. 2 ohms X d. 1 ohm 6. If two 4-ohm speakers are connected in series, meaning the positive (+) of one speaker is connected to the negative (–) of the other speaker, the total impedance will be ____________________. (Text page 741) a. 8 ohms X b. 4 ohms c. 2 ohms d. 1 ohm 7. An aftermarket satellite radio has poor reception. Technician A says that a lack of a proper ground plane on the antenna could be the cause. Technician B says that mountains or tall buildings can interfere with reception. Which technician is correct? (Text page 746) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. 100,000 F means _____________. (Text page 744) a. 0.10 farad X b. 0.01 farad c. 0.001 farad d. 0.0001 farad 9. XM radio service uses___________ to transmit the audio signal. (Text page 746) a. satellites b. repeater towers c. both A and B X d. neither A nor B 10. What device passes AC interference to ground, blocks DC voltage, and is used to control radio interference? (Text page 747) a. Resistor b. Capacitor X c. Coil (inductor) d. Transistor 148 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 63 Heating and Air Conditioning Components and Operation REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How does the air-conditioning system removes moisture from the air? (Text page 760) The humid air is exposed to the cool evaporator and the moisture in the air is removed by condensation.

2. What is the operation of the typical automotive air-conditioning system?

(Text pages 753-755) Liquid high-pressure refrigerant is allowed to expand through an orifice or expansion valve when the pressure and the temperature drops inside the evaporator. The evaporator absorbs heat from inside of the vehicle during the process of evaporation.

3. Why is a desiccant needed in automotive air-conditioning systems? (Text page 761) Desiccant is used to remove any moisture that may get into the system.

4. What are three methods used to prevent the evaporator from becoming too cold and freezing?

(Text page 756) Cycling clutch, thermo expansion valve, or POA systems are all methods used to prevent evaporator freeze up.

5. What is the purpose and function of the low-pressure and high-pressure switches?

(Text pages 768-769) • Low-pressure switch: This pressure switch is electrically closed only if there is at least 25 PSI of refrigerant pressure. This amount of pressure means that the system is sufficiently charged to provide lubrication for the compressor.

• High-pressure switch: This pressure switch is located in the high-pressure side of the air-conditioning system. If the pressure exceeds a certain level (typically 375 PSI [2,600 kPa]), the pressure switch opens, thereby preventing possible damage to the air-conditioning system due to excessively high pressure.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that heat is measured in degrees. Technician B says that temperature is measured in degrees. Which technician is correct? (Text page 751) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. Hot coolant is circulated through the ________ to warm the vehicle interior. (Text page 752) a. evaporator b. heater core X c. core thermistor d. defroster core

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3. Where in the air-conditioning system is the refrigerant a low-pressure gas? (Text page 753) a. Condenser outlet b. Evaporator outlet X c. Evaporator inlet d. Condenser inlet 4. Where in the air-conditioning system is the refrigerant a high-pressure liquid?

(Text page 753) a. Condenser outlet X b. Evaporator outlet c. Evaporator inlet d. Condenser inlet 5. The compressor operates continuously with which type of system controls? (Text page 756) a. Orifice tube b. POA system c. EPR system d. Both b and c X 6. Technician A says that all HFC-134a uses the same refrigerant oil. Technician B says that refrigerant oil, regardless of type, must be kept in a sealed container to keep it from absorbing moisture from the air. Which technician is correct? (Text page 759) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. A thermal expansion valve has a ________ orifice, whereas an orifice tube uses a ________ orifice to control refrigerant flow. (Text page 754) a. digital; analog b. drain; fill c. open; closed d. variable; fixed X 8. Water is observed dripping out from beneath the evaporator. Technician A says that is normal. Technician B says that the evaporator housing is defective and should be replaced.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 760) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 9. The material used to absorb moisture from inside the air-conditioning system is called?

(Text page 761) a. Drier b. Desiccant X c. Ester d. PAG

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10. R-1234yf refrigerant is slightly flammable. Because of this, if the evaporator is damaged, it must be replaced with a ________ evaporator. (Text page 758) a. new X b. new or used c. rebuilt d. upgraded

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CHAPTER 64 Air Management System REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What do the three main HVAC doors do? (Text page 770) The three doors include: • An air inlet door is used to select outside or inside air inlet.

• A temperature-blend door is used to adjust air temperature.

• A mode door is used to select air discharge location.

2. In the heating mode, why is heat directed toward the floor? (Text page 771) Proper temperature control to enhance passenger comfort during heating should maintain an air temperature in the footwell about 7°F to 14°F (4°C to 8°C) above the temperature around the upper body. This is done by directing the heated airflow to the floor.

3. Where is the air directed when the control panel is set to defog/defrost position?

(Text page 771) In the defog or defrost mode position, the air is directed through the evaporator to remove the moisture from the air before being sent through the heater core to warm the air.

4. How does a “reheat” system work and why? (Text page 772) Most HVAC systems are considered reheat systems in that the incoming air is chilled as it passes through the evaporator. The air is then heated as part or all of the flow passes through the heater core so it reaches the desired in-vehicle temperature.

5. Where does the air enter the vehicle when outside air is selected? (Text page 774) Air enters the duct system from the plenum chamber in front of the vehicle’s windshield (outside air).

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. “Outside air” is also called______ air. (Text page 774) a. recirculation b. fresh X c. plenum d. mode 2. The __________door is used to select air discharge location, such as floor, vent or defrost.

(Text page 775) a. mode X b. recirculation c. fresh air d. any of the above

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3. What does the snowflake button on the dash do? (Text page 772) a. Selects defrost b. Selects defog c. Turns on the AC compressor X d. Selects fresh outside air 4. The ram air that enters the vehicle from the outside enters the HVAC system from _________. (Text page 772) a. beside the headlight b. behind the grille c. the side vents d. the base of the windshield X 5. Most systems use a flap door that swings about _____degrees. (Text page 772) a. 10 to 25 b. 25 to 40 c. 45 to 90 X d. 90 to 120 6. The air inlet control door is also called________. (Text page 774) a. fresh air door b. recirculation door c. outside air door d. any of the above X 7. The door used to control interior temperature is called the _______________door.

(Text page 775) a. temperature-blend X b. recirculation c. outside (fresh) air d. mode 8. A five-wire actuator uses two wires to power the motor (power and ground) and three wires for _______. (Text page 777) a. direction control b. a feedback potentiometer X c. static electricity protection d. redundant control 9. What is a “reheat” system? (Text page 772) a. A system that uses two heater cores. b. A system that cools the air through the evaporator and then heats the airflow through the heater core. X c. A system that uses both engine coolant and an electronic heater to heat the air d. Any of the above depending on the make and model of vehicle 10. Most recent HVAC actuators are recalibrated after replacement by__________.

(Text page 779) a. using a battery and jumper wires b. using a scan tool or allow it to self-learn after being installed X c. turning the ignition switch to the off position d. none of the above 153 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 65 Automatic HVAC Control Circuits REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the sensors used in a typical automatic temperature control (ATC) system?

(Text page 783) The sensors that are usually used include the outside air temperature (OAT), also called the ambient temperature sensor); in-vehicle temperature sensor; the discharge air temperature (DAT) sensor; evaporator temperature (EVT) sensor and the sun load sensor.

2. What are the three airflow sections in a typical HVAC system? (Text page 782) The three major airflow sections include the air inlet section, the plenum section and the air distribution section.

3. Why is a feedback potentiometer used on an electric actuator? (Text page 783) Feedback potentiometers are used to provide the controller with the actual position of the door or valve.

4. What components are needed for rear air-conditioning and heat? (Text page 786) Most rear HVAC systems include the following components: • • • • •

A larger capacity air-conditioning compressor A second evaporator located at the rear of the vehicle A second heater core located at the rear of the vehicle A second blower motor and blower motor control at the rear of the vehicle Lines and fittings connecting the front heater and air- conditioning components to the rear system • Rear controls for speed and temperature on some models 5. How does a dual-zone climate control system work? (Text page 785) In a dual-zone climate control system, the ducts and airflow are split and two air mix doors are used, with each door being controlled by its own actuator.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A dual-zone climate control system allows the driver and passenger to set individual temperatures. What design feature of the system allows this to happen? (Text page 785) a. There are two heater cores b. Use of an upper and lower evaporator c. Split ducts and two air mix doors X d. Temperature balance cables and doors 2. Which sensor is also called the ambient air temperature sensor? (Text page 783) a. Outside air temperature (OAT) X b. Inside vehicle temperature

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3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

c. Discharge air temperature d. Evaporator outlet temperature What is the most common type of sun load sensor? (Text page 783) a. Potentiometer b. Negative temperature coefficient (NTC) thermistor c. Photodiode X d. Positive temperature coefficient (PTC) thermistor An actuator can be capable of how many position(s)? (Text page 783) a. Two b. Three c. Variable d. All of the above X Some cabin filters contain ______________ to absorb odors. (Text page 783) a. perfume b. activated charcoal X c. paper filter material d. synthetic fibers Which sensor might use an aspirator tube? (Text page 783) a. Inside vehicle temperature X b. Outside air temperature (OAT) c. Discharge air temperature d. Evaporator outlet temperature Technician A says that some cabin filters are accessible behind the glove compartment.

Technician B says that some cabin filters are accessible from under the hood. Which technician is correct? (Text page 783) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both technicians A and B X d. Neither technician A nor B The blower motor resistors are used to limit ______________ to the motor. (Text page 785) a. voltage b. airflow c. current d. both a and c X Which is not part of a rear air-conditioning system? (Text page 786) a. Rear evaporator b. Rear heater core c. Rear A/C compressor X d. Rear blower motor

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10. What components in the air-conditioning system may be different on a hybrid electric vehicle? (Text page 787) a. Evaporator b. Compressor X c. Condenser d. Blower motor

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CHAPTER 66 Heating and Air Conditioning System Diagnosis REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Discuss how to diagnose the lack of heat from the heater. (Text page 790) The diagnosis of the lack of heat from the heater includes checking that the engine is reaching operating temperature and that both heater hoses are hot to the touch.

2. How can a low coolant level affect the heater operation? (Text page 790) Low coolant level can cause a lack of heat from the heater. Low coolant level can also cause occasional loss of heat.

3. What are the various methods that can be used to detect refrigerant leaks? (Text page 796) The various methods are dye, detectors, and soapy water.

4. How can a clogged evaporator affect airflow to the dash vents? (Text page 795) Oily dirt can trap dust and clog the airflow through an evaporator.

5. What should the temperature difference be between the inlet and outlet of the evaporator?

(Text page 795) • Normal operation —both temperatures about the same • Undercharged condition —accumulator temperature higher (warmer) than the orifice tube temperature

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A customer complains that the heater works sometimes, but sometimes only cold air comes out while driving. Technician A says that the water pump is defective. Technician B says that the cooling system could be low on coolant. Which technician is correct?

(Text pages 790-791) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. What should the pressures of the low-side and high-side A/C system read on a gauge set with the engine off? (Text page 792) a. The low side should be about 20% lower than the high-side pressure b. The same X c. The high side should be about 20o PSI with the engine off d. The low side should be at or near 0 PSI with the engine off 3. The first step in the diagnostic procedure when attempting to solve an HVAC customer problem is __________. (Text page 789) a. visual inspection b. check for diagnostic trouble codes

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4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

c. check for technical service bulletins d. verify customer concern X The last step in the diagnostic procedure is _________________. (Text page 789) a. determine the root cause b. verify the repair X c. recharge the system d. perform a visual inspection Technician A says that one heater hose should be hot and the other hose cool if the heater is functioning okay. Technician B says that both hoses should be hot to the touch. Which technician is correct? (Text page 790) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B Normal air conditioning system operation should result in what dash vent temperature during a an A/C performance test? (Text page 792) a. Below 32 degrees F (0 degrees C) b. Between 68 and 72 degrees F (20and 22 degrees C) c. 35 to 45 degrees F (2 to 7 degrees C) X d. Same or lower than ambient Technician A says that evaporator leaks can be detected by installing dye into the system and looking for yellowish-green dye stains. Technician B says that a leak at the evaporator can be detected by removing the blower motor resistor pack and inserting an electronic leak detector probe into the air stream. Which technician is correct? (Text page 796) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B Technician A says that with a properly operating air-conditioning system, the inlet to the compressor should be cold and the outlet from the compressor hot. Technician B says that the condenser should be hot and the evaporator cold. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 793) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B A clogged ___________can cause a lack of A/C cooling. (Text page 794) a. orifice tube X b. heater hose c. upper radiator hose d. condensate drain

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10. What must the technician do before checking an air-conditioning system for refrigerant leaks using a black light? (Text page 796) a. Evacuate the system b. Install dye in the system X c. Overcharge the system by 10 oz. d. Turn the system off and allow the pressure to equalize

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CHAPTER 67 Heating and Air Conditioning System Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What components should be checked if a blower motor resistor is found to be defective?

(Text page 798) The blower motor should be checked for current draw. cause the blower motor resistor to fail.

Excessive current draw will

2. Why could a broken air dam in the front of a vehicle cause an engine to overheat?

(Text page 799) The air dam forces air to flow through the radiator and not underneath the vehicle.

Therefore, if the air dam is broken or missing, less air will be directed through the radiator and the engine could overheat when being driven at highway speeds.

3. Why should a refrigerant identifier be used before evacuating the refrigerant?

(Text page 799) If the refrigerant is contaminated, the recovered refrigerant would then contaminate the other recovered refrigerant.

4. Why should the receiver/drier or accumulator/drier be replaced if the refrigerant system is opened for a repair? (Text page 801) The receiver/drier or accumulator/drier contains a desiccant, which absorbs moisture.

Over time, moisture enters the system through hoses and, if the system is opened, moisture enters directly from the air. Moisture is an air conditioning system cause of creation of acid and reduces the life of AC components.

5. What steps and procedures are required to retrofit an older R-12 system to a R-134a system?

(Text pages 802-803) The steps and procedures required to retrofit an R-12 system to a R134a system include: a. b. c. d. e.

Installation of specific R-134a fittings Refit labels are installed The specified oil is installed A high-pressure cut off switch is installed Plus other items that the vehicle manufacturer may require, such as replacing of the hoses, O-rings, receiver-drier or accumulator on the compressor.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. An evaporator is being replaced on a vehicle. It is recommended that the ________ also be replaced at the same time. (Text page 804) a. blower motor b. heater core X c. radiator d. blower resistor 160 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

2. Two technicians are discussing replacing heater hoses. Technician A says that the replacement hoses should be the same length as the original hoses. Technician B says that the replacement hoses should be cut as short as possible to allow more coolant to flow through the heater core faster. Which technician is correct? (Text page 799) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 3. What service procedure should be performed before recovering refrigerant from an A/C system? (Text page 799) a. Flush the radiator b. The refrigerant should be identified X c. Recover all of the refrigerant oil d. Replace the drier 4. O-rings are usually made from __________. (Text page 800) a. HSN b. natural rubber c. Neoprene d. either a or c X 5. What type of service valves are used with R-134a? (Text page 800) a. Schrader valves b. Gate valves c. Quick-disconnect valves X d. Saddle valves 6. Which reading represents the lowest vacuum reading? (Text page 801) a. 27 in. Hg. b. 28 in. Hg. c. 29 in. Hg. d. 500 microns X 7. What is a non-condensable gas? (Text page 801) a. Air X b. R-12 c. Ozone d. R-134a 8. Technician A says that all orifice tubes on all vehicles use the same size orifice size.

Technician B says that orifice tubes vary the orifice size by application. Which technician is correct? (Text page 802) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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9.

Which part must be used when refitting a vehicle from R-12 to R-134a refrigerant?

(Text page 802) a. A new (larger) condenser b. A new service fitting and a retrofit label X c. A high-pressure cut-off switch d. Both a and b 10. When should the accumulator be replaced with a new one? (Text page 804) a. Whenever the system is opened for service X b. Every 5 years c. Whenever the engine cooling system is flushed d. It never needs changing

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CHAPTER 68 Gasoline REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the difference between summer-blend and winter-blend gasoline? (Text page 808) The major difference is the volatility of the gasoline. Winter gasoline needs to have a higher RVP pressure to ignite at low temperatures, whereas summer gasoline requires a lower RVP to prevent vapors from forming in the fuel system.

2. What is Reid vapor pressure? (Text page 807) The pressure of the gasoline vapor in a closed container measured at 100°F.

3. What does the (R + M) ÷ 2 gasoline pump octane rating indicate? (Text page 811) The pump octane rating is the average of the fuel measured using the Motor and Research method.

4. What are the octane improvers that may be used during the refining process? (Text page 812) Octane improvers added in the refining process include: Xylene, toluene, ethanol, methanol, tertiary butyl alcohol (TBA), as well as propane and butane.

5. What is stoichiometric? (Text page 810) Stoichiometric is a ratio where all of the fuel is burned with all of the air. The Stoichiometric ratio varies according to the fuel used.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Winter-blend gasoline ________. (Text page 807) a. vaporizes more easily than summer-blend gasoline b. has a higher RVP c. can cause engine driveability problems if used during warm weather d. all of the above X 2. Vapor lock can occur __________________. (Text page 809) a. as a result of excessive heat near fuel lines b. if a fuel line is restricted c. during both a and b X d. during neither a nor b 3. Technician A says that spark knock, ping, and detonation are different names for abnormal combustion. Technician B says that any abnormal combustion raises the temperature and pressure inside the combustion chamber and can cause severe engine damage. Which technician is correct? (Text page 810) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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4. Technician A says that the research octane number is higher than the motor octane number.

Technician B says that the octane rating posted on fuel pumps is an average of the two ratings. Which technician is correct? (Text page 811) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 5. Technician A says that when going to high altitudes, engines produce lower power.

Technician B says that most engine control systems can compensate the air-fuel mixture for changes in altitude. Which technician is correct? (Text page 812) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. Which method of blending ethanol with gasoline is the most accurate? (Text page 814) a. In-line b. Sequential c. Splash d. All of the above are equally accurate methods 7. What can be used to measure the alcohol content in gasoline? (Text page 815) a. Graduated cylinder b. Electronic tester c. Scan tool d. Either a or b X 8. The gasoline burned inside the internal combustion engine is a type of___________ (Text page 807) a. carbon monoxide b. hydrocarbon X c. compressed vapor d. alcohol 9. Avoid topping off the fuel tank because _______________________. (Text page 816) a. it can saturate the charcoal canister X b. the extra fuel simply spills onto the ground c. the extra fuel increases vehicle weight and reduces performance d. the extra fuel goes into the expansion area of the tank and is not used by the engine 10. Using ethanol-enhanced or reformulated gasoline can result in _________. (Text page 814) a. improved fuel economy compared to using 100% gasoline b. reduced fuel economy compared to using 100% gasoline X c. the same fuel economy compared to using 100% gasoline d. higher or lower fuel economy depending on the size of the engine

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CHAPTER 69 Alternative Fuels REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Ethanol is also called by what other terms? (Text page 820 ) Ethyl alcohol and grain alcohol are other terms that mean the same as ethanol.

2. The majority of ethanol in the United States is made from what farm products?

(Text page 820) Ethanol is most commonly made from corn, grain, sorghum, wheat, barley, and potatoes.

3. How is a flexible fuel vehicle identified? (Text page 823) A flexible fuel vehicle (FFV) can be identified by: • Emblems on the side, front, and/or rear of the vehicle • VECI sticker information • VIN designation 4. Why is it desirable to fill a compressed natural gas (CNG) vehicle with the highest pressure available? (Text page 826) The higher the pressure is, the more gas can be installed in the pressurized tank and the larger the range of the vehicle.

5. The Fischer-Tropsch method can be used to change what into gasoline? (Text page 826) The Fischer-Tropsch method can use coal, natural gas, and other fossil fuel products to produce gasoline and diesel fuels.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Ethanol can be produced from what products? (Text page 820) a. Switchgrass b. Corn c. Sugarcane d. Any of the above X 2. E85 means that the fuel is made from _____________. (Text page 821) a. 85% gasoline; 15% ethanol b. 85% ethanol, 15% gasoline X c. ethanol that has 15% water d. pure ethyl alcohol 3. A flex-fuel vehicle can be identified by ____________. (Text page 823) a. emblems on the side, front, and/or rear of the vehicle b. VECI c. VIN d. any of the above X 165 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4. Methanol is also called ___________. (Text page 823) a. methyl alcohol b. wood alcohol c. methyl hydrate d. all of the above X 5. Which alcohol is dangerous (toxic)? (Text page 823) a. Methanol X b. Ethanol c. Both ethanol and methanol d. Neither ethanol nor methanol 6. Which is the most widely used alternative fuel? (Text page 824) a. E85 b. Propane X c. CNG d. M85 7. Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) is also called ___________. (Text page 824) a. E85 b. M85 c. Propane X d. P-series fuel 8. How much compressed natural gas (CNG) does it require to achieve the energy of one gallon of gasoline? (Text page 826) a. 130 cubic feet b. 122 cubic feet X c. 105 cubic feet d. 91 cubic feet 9. When refueling a CNG vehicle, why is it recommended that the tank be filled to a high pressure? (Text page 826) a. The range of the vehicle is increased X b. The cost of the fuel is lower c. Less of the fuel is lost to evaporation d. Both a and c 10. What personal protective equipment should be worn when working with alternative fuels?

(Text page 828) a. Safety glasses b. Gloves c. Long sleeve shirt and long pants d. All of the above X

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CHAPTER 70 Diesel and Biodiesel Fuels REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is meant by the cloud point? (Text page 829) The cloud point is the low-temperature point when the waxes in the diesel fuel tend to form crystals that can clog the fuel filter.

2. What is ultra low sulfur diesel? (Text page 829) Ultra low sulfur diesel is diesel fuel that contains less than 15 parts per million (ppm) of sulfur or less.

3. Bio-diesel blends are identified by what designation? (Text page 832) Bio-diesel is designated with the capital letter “B” followed by the percentage of biodiesel added to the petroleum-based diesel fuel. B20 indicates that it contains 20% biodiesel. B5 means that it contains 5% biodiesel.

4. What does it mean if the diesel fuel is dyed red? (Text page 829) Diesel fuel to be used on farms and off-road use is dyed red and is not taxed.

5. What additives may be helpful to use in the diesel fuel? (Text page 831) There are several types and many brands of additives that are designed to be added to diesel fuel. These types of additives include: 1. Winter Conditioners 2. Multi-functional Conditioners 3. Microbicide

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What color is diesel fuel dyed if it is for off-road use only? (Text page 829) a. Red X b. Green c. Blue d. Yellow 2. What clogs fuel filters when the temperature is low on a vehicle that uses diesel fuel?

(Text page 829) a. Alcohol b. Sulfur c. Wax X d. Cetane 3. The specific gravity of diesel fuel is measured in what units? (Text page 830) a. Hydrometer units b. API gravity X c. Grade number d. Cetane number 167 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4. What rating of diesel fuel indicates how well a diesel engine will start? (Text page 829) a. Specific gravity rating b. Sulfur content c. Cloud point d. Cetane rating X 5. Ultra-low-sulfur diesel fuel has how much sulfur content? (Text page 829) a. 15 PPM X b. 50 PPM c. 500 PPM d. 1,500 PPM 6. E-diesel is diesel fuel with what additive? (Text page 832) a. Methanol b. Sulfur c. Ethanol X d. Vegetable oil 7. Biodiesel is_________. (Text page 832) a. mono-alkyl esters mixed with diesel fuel X b. pure plant oil (PPO) c. waste vegetable oil (WVO) d. used cooking oil (UCO) 8. B20 biodiesel has how much regular diesel fuel? (Text page 832) a. 20% b. 40% c. 80% X d. 100% 9. Most diesel fuel is what grade? (Text page 829) a. Grade #1 b. Grade #2 X c. Grade #3 d. Grade #4 10. Most manufacturers of vehicles equipped with diesel engines allow what type of biodiesel?

(Text page 832) a. B100 b. B80 c. B20 d. B5 X

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CHAPTER 71 Ignition System Components and Operation REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How can 12 volts from a battery be changed to 40,000 volts for ignition? (Text page 835) Battery voltage is increased to 40,000 volts in the ignition coil by pulsing the primary windings on and off to ground through the module. The collapsing magnetic field around the primary winding induces the high-voltage change in the adjacent secondary winding.

2. How does a magnetic sensor work? (Text page 837) A magnetic sensor produces a varying voltage when the notch on the camshaft or crankshaft passes near the sensor and changes the strength of the magnetic field around the sensor.

3. How does a Hall-effect sensor work? (Text page 837) A Hall-effect sensor reacts to a magnetic field and produces a square wave output voltage signal.

4. How does a waste-spark ignition system work? (Text page 840) Each end of the secondary winding of the ignition coil is attached to a spark plug, therefore, both plugs fire at the same time.

5. What does the heat range of a spark plug refer to? (Text page 847) The heat range of the spark plug refers to how rapidly the heat created at the tip is transferred to the cylinder head. A plug with a long ceramic insulator path runs hotter at the tip than a spark plug that has a shorter path because the heat must travel farther.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The primary (low-voltage) ignition system must be working correctly before any spark occurs from a coil. Which component is not in the primary ignition circuit? (Text page 836) a. Spark plug wiring X b. Ignition module (igniter) c. Pickup coil (pulse generator) d. Ignition switch 2. The ignition module has direct control over the firing of the coil(s) of an EI system. Which component(s) triggers (controls) the module? (Text page 837) a. Pickup coil b. Computer c. Crankshaft sensor d. All of the above X 3. A reluctor is a_________________ . (Text page 834) a. type of sensor used in the secondary circuit b. notched ring or pointed wheel X 169 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. type of optical sensor d. type of Hall-effect sensor 4. HEI and EIS are examples of___________ . (Text pages 839-840) a. waste-spark systems b. coil-on-plug ignition systems c. distributor ignition systems X d. pickup coil types 5. Coil polarity is determined by the _____. (Text page 835) a. direction of rotation of the coil windings. X b. turns ratio c. direction of laminations d. saturation direction 6. Because of ____________, an ignition coil cannot be fully charged (reach magnetic saturation) until after a delay of about 10 milliseconds. (Text page 836) a. voltage drop across the ignition switch and related wiring b. resistance in the coil windings c. inductive reactance X d. saturation 7. A COP ignition system can be called___________. (Text page 842) a. coil-by-plug b. coil-near-plug c. coil-over-plug d. any of the above X 8. A compression-sensing ignition is what type? (Text page 844) a. Distributor b. Waste spark X c. Coil-on-plug d. Any of the above 9. A waste-spark-type ignition system fires _____ . (Text page 840) a. two spark plugs at the same time b. one spark plug with reverse polarity c. one spark plug with straight polarity d. all of the above X 10. An ion-sensing ignition system allows the ignition system itself to be able to___________ .

(Text page 845) a. detect misfire b. detect spark knock c. detect rich or lean air–fuel mixture d. all of the above X

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CHAPTER 72 Ignition System Diagnosis and Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Why should a spark tester be used to check for spark rather than a standard spark plug?

(Text page 849) A spark tester is the preferred tool to use to check the operation of the ignition system because it loads the ignition coil and forces it to produce at least 25,000 volts.

2. How is a magnetic sensor tested for resistance and AC voltage output? (Text page 851) If the sensor is removed from the engine, hold a metal (steel) object against the end of the sensor. It should exert a strong magnetic pull on the steel object. If not, replace the sensor. Second, the sensor can be tested using a digital meter set to read AC volts.

3. What harm can occur if the engine is cranked or run with an open (defective) spark plug wire? (Text page 852) If a spark plug is open (unplugged or disconnected) when the engine is being cranked or running, the high voltage produced inside the ignition coil can arc internally ruining the coil.

4. What are the sections of a secondary ignition scope pattern? (Text pages 860-861) The sections of a secondary ignition scope pattern include the firing line; spark line; intermediate section, the transistor on point and the transistor off point.

5. What can the slope of the spark line indicate about the engine? (Text page 863) The slope of the spark line can indicate the air fuel mixture present in the cylinder, as well as possible engine faults.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A spark tester should be used to check for spark because _____________ . (Text page 849) a. a spark tester requires at least 25,000 volts to fire X b. it is connected to the CKP sensor to check its output c. it can detect a cracked spark plug d. it can detect the gap of the spark plugs 2. Technician A says that a defective spark plug wire can cause an engine misfire. Technician B says that a defective spark plug can cause an engine misfire. Which technician is correct?

(Text pages 852; 855) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 3. Poor engine performance could be the result of a__________. (Text pages 853; 858) a. defective coil b. distributor ignition with the CMP and CKP not correctly indexed 171 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. a high-voltage spark leak d. any of the above X 4. Typical primary coil resistance specifications usually range from _____________ ohms.

(Text page 850) a. 100 to 450 b. 500 to 1,500 c. 0.5 to 3 X d. 6,000 to 30,000 5. Typical secondary coil resistance specifications usually range from _____________ ohms.

(Text page 851) a. 100 to 450 b. 500 to 1,500 c. 1 to 3 d. 6,000 to 30,000 X 6. What should be inspected as part of a visual inspection of the ignition system?

(Text page 852) a. Spark plug wires for proper routing X b. Spark plug gap c. Coil polarity d. All of the above 7. What part of the scope pattern shows the duration of the spark? (Text page 861) a. Firing line b. Spark line X c. Intermediate section d. Dwell section 8. Which can be used to test for a fault with a cylinder on a waste-spark system?

(Text page 853) a. Using a timing light to check for spark b. Using short sections of rubber hose attached to the coil terminals X c. An LED test light d. Any of the above 9. Two technicians are discussing a no-start (no-spark) condition. Technician A says that an open CKP sensor could be the cause. Technician B says that a defective ignition control module (ICM) could be the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 853) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. As engine speed increases, the timing of the spark in the cylinder must be ________.

(Text page 859) a. advanced X b. maintained the same c. set at 10 degrees BTDC d. retarded slightly 172 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 73 Computer Fundamentals REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What part of the vehicle computer is considered to be the brain? (Text page 868) The CPU is the “brain” of the computer.

2. What is the difference between volatile and nonvolatile RAM? (Text page 868) Volatile RAM means that the data is erased whenever the power is removed from the computer, whereas non-volatile RAM means that the data is retained when power is removed.

3. What are four input sensors? (Text page 870) Input sensors include: engine speed (RPM), MAP, MAF, ECT, O2S, TP, and vehicle speed.

4. What are four output devices? (Text page 870) Output devices include: fuel injection, ignition timing, transmission shifting, idle speed control, and evaporative emission control solenoids.

5. How does using pulse-width modulation control devices? (Text page 871) Pulse-width modulation (PWM) is a method of controlling an output using a digital signal. Instead of just turning devices on or off, the computer can control the amount of on-time.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What unit of electricity is used as a signal for a computer? (Text page 867) a. Volt X b. Ohm c. Ampere d. Watt 2. The four basic computer functions include __________________. (Text page 867) a. Writing, processing, printing, and remembering b. Input, processing, storage, and output X c. Data gathering, processing, output, and evaluation d. Sensing, calculating, actuating, and processing 3. All OBD II vehicles use what type of read-only memory? (Text page 868) a. ROM b. PROM c. EPROM d. EEPROM X 4. The “brain” of the computer is the ______________. (Text page 868) a. PROM b. RAM 173 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. CPU X d. AD converter 5. Computer speed is measured in ________________. (Text page 869) a. baud rate b. clock speed (Hz) X c. voltage d. bytes 6. Which item is a computer input sensor? (Text page 870) a. RPM b. Throttle position c. Engine coolant temperature d. All of the above X 7. Which item is a computer output device? (Text page 870) a. Fuel injector b. Transmission shift solenoid c. Evaporative emission control solenoid d. All of the above X 8. The SAE term for the vehicle computer is ____________. (Text page 867) a. PCM X b. ECM c. ECA d. Controller 9. What two things can a vehicle computer actually perform (output)? (Text page 870) a. Store and process information b. Turn something on or turn something off X c. Calculate and vary temperature d. Control fuel and timing only 10. Analog signals from sensors are changed to digital signals for processing by the computer through which type of circuit? (Text page 867) a. Digital b. Analog c. Analog-to-digital converter X d. PROM

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CHAPTER 74 Temperature Sensors REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How does a typical NTC temperature sensor work? (Text page 874) A typical NTC sensor decreases in resistance as the temperature increases. In other words, it becomes more electrically conductive as the temperature increases.

2. What is the difference between a stepped and a non-stepped ECT circuit?

(Text pages 874-875) A stepped ECT circuit uses a pull-up resistor inside the PCM to give the ECT a broader, more accurate reading of the coolant temperature. A non-stepped ETC sensor does not have this pull-up resistor.

3. What temperature should be displayed on a scan tool if the ECT sensor is unplugged with the key on, engine off? (Text page 879) If the ECT is unplugged, a scan tool will display –40°F (–40°C).

4. What are the three ways that temperature sensors can be tested? (Text pages 875-876) Temperature sensors can be tested by visual inspection, resistance, and by using a scan tool to monitor the operation (reading) of the sensor as the engine operates.

5. If the transmission fluid temperature (TFT) sensor were to fail open (as if it were unplugged), what would the PCM do to the transmission shifting points? (Text page 881) If the TFT sensor were to fail open, the automatic transmission would likely have the shift points delayed to help assist in the heating of the fluid.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The sensor that most determines fuel delivery when a fuel-injected engine is first started is the ________. (Text page 874) a. O2S b. ECT sensor X c. engine MAP sensor d. IAT sensor 2. What happens to the voltage measured at the ECT sensor when the thermostat opens?

(Text page 879) a. Increases slightly X b. Increases about 1 volt c. Decreases slightly d. Decreases about 1 volt

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3. Two technicians are discussing a stepped ECT circuit. Technician A says that the sensor used for a stepped circuit is different than one used in a non-stepped circuit. Technician B says that a stepped ECT circuit uses different internal resistance inside the PCM. Which technician is correct? (Text page 875) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. When testing an ECT sensor on a vehicle, a digital multimeter can be used and the signal wires back probed. What setting should the technician use to test the sensor? (Text page 876) a. AC volts b. DC volts X c. Ohms d. Hz (Hertz) 5. When testing the ECT sensor with the connector disconnected, the technician should select what position on the DMM? (Text page 876) a. AC volts b. DC volts c. Ohms X d. Hz (Hertz) 6. When checking the ECT sensor with a scan tool, about what temperature should be displayed if the connector is removed from the sensor with the key on, engine off? (Text page 879) a. 284°F (140°C) b. 230°F (110°C) c. 120°F (50°C) d. –40°F (–40°C) X 7. Two technicians are discussing the IAT sensor. Technician A says that the IAT sensor is more important to the operation of the engine (higher authority) than the ECT sensor.

Technician B says that the PCM will add fuel if the IAT indicates that the incoming air temperature is cold. Which technician is correct? (Text page 880) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. A typical IAT or ECT sensor reads about 3,000 ohms when tested using a DMM. This resistance represents a temperature of about ________. (Text page 876) a. –40°F (–40°C) b. 70°F (20°C) X c. 120°F (50°C) d. 284°F (140°C) 9. If the transmission fluid temperature (TFT) sensor indicates cold automatic transmission fluid temperature, what would the PCM do to the shifts? (Text page 881) a. Normal shifts and normal operation of the torque converter clutch b. Disable torque converter clutch; normal shift points 176 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. Delayed shift points and torque converter clutch disabled X d. Normal shifts, but overdrive will be disabled 10. A P0118 DTC is being discussed. Technician A says that the ECT sensor could be shorted internally. Technician B says that the signal wire could be open. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 882) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 75 Throttle Position Sensors REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the purpose of each of the three wires on a typical TP sensor? (Text page 884) The purpose of the three wires on a typical TP sensor include: 5-bolt reference from the PCM, signal wire from the TP sensor to the PCM, and ground.

2. What all does the PCM do with the TP sensor signal voltage? (Text page 885) The PCM uses the TP sensor signal to determine clear flood mode, torque converter clutch operation, target idle speed, automatic transmission shift points, air-conditioning compressor clutch operation, as well as, for rationality testing and backup for the other sensors.

3. What is the procedure to follow when checking the 5-volt reference and TP sensor ground?

(Text page 886) To check for proper 5-volt reference and TP sensor ground, the ignition key should be on, engine off and a digital multimeter set to read DC volts. The 5-volt reference should be measured at the sensor and should be between 4.9 and 5.1 volts. The ground should be checked by attaching one meter lead to the ground terminal of the TP sensor and the other to the negative terminal of the battery. A reading of less than 0.2 volts indicates a good ground connection.

4. How can a TP sensor be diagnosed using a scan tool? (Text page 887) A scan tool can be used to check a TP sensor by looking at the voltage, as well as the percentage of throttle valve opening and closing.

5. What diagnostic trouble codes (DTCs) are usually associated with a fault with the throttle position (TP) sensor? (Text page 887) The diagnostic trouble codes associated with the throttle position sensor include: P0121, P0122, and P0123.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1.

Which sensor is used to measure the position of the throttle? (Text page 884) a. O2S b. ECT sensor c. Engine MAP sensor d. TP sensor X 2. Typical TP sensor voltage at idle is about ________. (Text page 884) a. 2.50 to 2.80 volts b. 0.5 volt or 10% of WOT TP sensor voltage X c. 1.5 to 2.8 volts d. 13.5 to 15.0 volts

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3. A TP sensor is what type of sensor? (Text page 884) a. Rheostat b. Voltage generating c. Potentiometer X d. Piezoelectric 4. Most TP sensors have how many wires? (Text page 884) a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 X d. 4 5. Which sensor does the TP sensor backup if the PCM determines that a failure has occurred?

(Text page 885) a. Oxygen sensor b. MAF sensor c. MAP sensor d. Either b or c X 6. Which wire on a TP sensor should be back-probed to check the voltage signal to the PCM? (Text page 886) a. 5-volt reference (Vref) b. Signal X c. Ground d. Meter should be connected between the 5-volt reference and the ground 7. After a TP sensor has been tested using the MIN/MAX function on a DMM, a reading of zero volts is displayed. What does this reading indicate? (Text page 887) a. The TP sensor is open at one point during the test. X b. The TP sensor is shorted. c. The TP sensor signal is shorted to 5-volt reference. d. Both b and c are possible.

8. After a TP sensor has been tested using the MIN/MAX function on a DMM, a reading of 5 volts is displayed. What does this reading indicate? (Text page 887) a. The TP sensor is open at one point during the test. b. The TP sensor is shorted. c. The TP sensor signal is shorted to 5-volt reference. X d. Both b and c are possible.

9. A technician attaches one lead of a digital voltmeter to the ground terminal of the TP sensor and the other meter lead to the negative terminal of the battery. The ignition is switched to on, engine off and the meter displays 37.3 mV. Technician A says that this is the signal voltage and is a little low. Technician B says that the TP sensor ground circuit has excessive resistance. Which technician is correct? (Text page 887) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X

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10. A P0122 DTC is retrieved using a scan tool. This DTC means __________________.

(Text page 887) a. the TP sensor voltage is low b. the TP sensor could be shorted-to-ground c. the TP sensor signal circuit could be shorted-to-ground d. all of the above are correct X

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CHAPTER 76 MAP/BARO Sensors REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are two types (construction) of MAP sensors? (Text page 891) The two basic type of construction of MAP sensors include: • Silicon-diaphragm strain gauge map sensor • Ceramic disc map sensor 2. What is the MAP sensor signal voltage at idle? (Text page 891) It varies, but is about 0.8 to 1.6 volts

3. What are three uses of a MAP sensor by the PCM? (Text page 892) The PCM uses the MAP sensor for the following information: engine load, altitude, EGR system diagnosis, and to detect deceleration.

4. What are the purposes of the three wires from a typical MAP/BARO sensor? (Text page 894) A MAP/BARO sensor where it uses a five-volt reference voltage from the PCM and a signal plus a ground.

5. What diagnostic trouble codes are associated with faults with the MAP sensor?

(Text page 895) The following DTC are associated with a fault with a MAP/BARO sensor or sensor circuit: • • •

P0106 P0107 P0108

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. As the load on an engine increases, the manifold vacuum decreases and the manifold absolute pressure _______. (Text page 891) a. increases X b. decreases c. changes with barometric pressure only (altitude or weather) d. remains constant (absolute) 2. A typical MAP compares the vacuum in the intake manifold to ____________.

(Text page 889) a. atmospheric pressure b. a perfect vacuum X c. barometric pressure d. the value of the IAT sensor

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3. Which statement is false? (Text page 891) a. Absolute pressure is equal to barometric pressure plus intake manifold vacuum.

X b. A decrease in manifold vacuum means an increase in manifold pressure. c. The MAP sensor compares manifold vacuum to a perfect vacuum. d. Barometric pressure minus the MAP sensor reading equals intake manifold vacuum.

4. As the altitude of the vehicle increases, BARO voltage__________ . (Text page 893) a. increases b. does not change c. decreases X d. either b or c depending on the vehicle 5. When testing a MAP sensor, the technician should first check the________ voltage.

(Text page 894) a. signal X b. reference c. alternator d. back 6. Which is not a purpose or function of the MAP sensor? (Text page 892) a. Measures the load on the engine b. Measures engine speed X c. Calculates fuel delivery based on altitude d. Helps diagnose the EGR system 7. Which of these tools would be used to test a MAP sensor? (Text page 894) a. A digital voltmeter X b. A test light c. A Jumper wire d. A vacuum simulator 8. When the engine is at idle speed, manifold vacuum is _________. (Text page 891) a. low (1 to 4 in. Hg) b. fluctuating from 8 to 10 in. Hg c. high (17 to 21 in. Hg) X d. zero 9. Technician A says that MAP sensors use a 5-volt reference voltage from the PCM. Technician B says that the MAP sensor voltage will be higher at idle at high altitudes compared to when the engine is operating at near sea level. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 894) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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10. A P0107 DTC is being discussed. Technician A says that a defective MAP sensor could be the cause. Technician B says that a MAP sensor signal wire shorted-to-ground could be the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 895) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 77 Mass Airflow Sensors REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How does a hot film MAF sensor work? (Text page 897) A typical mass air flow sensor uses a hot wire to sense the mass of the air entering the engine. The electronics in the sensor itself determine the amount of cooling effect the incoming air exerts on the hot wire and converts this to a voltage or frequency output.

2. What change in the signal will occur if engine speed is increased? (Text page 897) The frequency or the voltage increases with increased airflow through the sensor.

3. How is a MAF sensor tested? (Text page 899) A MAF sensor can be tested using a DMM to check for proper output compared to specifications. A DSO can also be used and the signal checked for proper frequency and waveform shape. A scan tool can also be used to check a MAF sensor for proper operation.

4. What is the purpose of a MAF sensor? (Text page 897) The purpose of the MAF sensor is to measure the mass of the air entering the engine so the PCM can calculate the needed injector pulse width.

5. What are the types of mass air flow sensors? (Text pages 897-898) MAF sensors can be hot wire or hot film, or Karman-vortex to determine airflow volume.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A fuel-injection system that does not use a sensor to measure the amount (or mass) of air entering the engine is usually called a(n)________ type of system. (Text page 897) a. air vane-controlled b. speed density X c. mass air flow d. hot wire 2. Which type of sensor uses a burn-off circuit? (Text page 898) a. Hot wire MAF sensor X b. Hot film MAF sensor c. Vane-type air flow sensor d. Both a and b 3. The MAF sensor is used mostly by the PCM to determine the amount of ________ to deliver to the engine. (Text page 898) a. vacuum correction b. idle air c. spark advance d. fuel X 184 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4. Two technicians are discussing Karman Vortex sensors. Technician A says that they contain a burn-off circuit to keep them clean. Technician B says that they contain a movable vane.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 898) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X 5. The typical MAF reading on a scan tool with the engine at idle speed and normal operating temperature is _____. (Text page 899) a. 1 to 3 grams per second b. 3 to 7 grams per second X c. 8 to 12 grams per second d. 14 to 24 grams per second 6. Two technicians are diagnosing a poorly running engine. There are no diagnostic trouble codes. When the MAF sensor is unplugged, the engine runs better. Technician A says that this means that the MAF is supplying incorrect air flow information to the PCM. Technician B says that this indicates that the PCM is defective. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 901) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. A MAF sensor on a General Motors 3800 V-6 is being tested for contamination. Technician A says that the sensor should show over 100 grams per second on a scan tool display when the accelerator is depressed to WOT on a running engine. Technician B says that the output frequency should exceed 7000 Hz when the accelerator pedal is depressed to WOT on a running engine. Which technician is correct? (Text page 899) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. If the MAF sensor fails, the PCM uses ________ to calculate fuel delivery needs.

(Text page 899) a. MAP and throttle position b. RPM and throttle position X c. throttle position and transmission RPM d. RPM alone 9. Air that enters the engine without passing through the air flow sensor is called ____________. (Text page 900) a. bypass air b. dirty air c. false air X d. measured air

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10. A P0102 DTC is being discussed. Technician A says that a sensor circuit shorted-to-ground can be the cause. Technician B says that an open sensor voltage supply circuit could be the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 901) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 78 Oxygen Sensors REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How does an oxygen sensor detect oxygen levels in the exhaust? (Text page 904) An oxygen sensor detects oxygen in the exhaust by comparing the oxygen levels between the exhaust and the outside air.

2. What is the difference between open-loop and closed-loop engine operation? (Text page 906) In open loop, the fuel delivery is provided by the PCM based on a program, whereas in closed loop, changes in the injector pulse width can be made by the PCM based on the signal from the oxygen sensors.

3. What are three ways oxygen sensors can be tested? (Text pages 907-910) Oxygen sensors can be tested using a DMM set to read DC volts, a DSO to observe the waveform, or using a scan tool to check for voltage ranges and fuel trim numbers.

4. How can the oxygen sensor be fooled and provide the wrong information to the PCM? (Text page 909) An oxygen sensor can be fooled if there is an exhaust leak upstream from the O2S or if the sensor itself is contaminated.

5. What is the purpose of a wide band oxygen sensor? (Text page 911) Wide-band oxygen sensors are used to allow the engine to cover a broader range of air-fuel ratios and allow the vehicle to meet more stringent exhaust emission standards.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The voltage output of a zirconia oxygen sensor when the exhaust stream is lean (excess oxygen) is ________. (Text page 904) a. relatively high (close to 1 volt) b. about in the middle of the voltage range c. relatively low (close to 0 volt) X d. either a or b, depending on atmospheric pressure 2. A high O2S voltage could be due to ______________________. (Text page 904) a. a rich exhaust X b. a lean exhaust c. a defective spark plug wire d. both a and c 3. A low O2S voltage could be due to ______________________. (Text pages 906; 909) a. a rich exhaust b. a lean exhaust c. a defective spark plug wire d. both b and c X

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4. An oxygen sensor is being tested with a digital multimeter (DMM), using the MIN/MAX function. The readings are:minimum = 78 mV; maximum = 932 mV; average = 442 mV. Technician A says that the engine is operating correctly. Technician B says that the oxygen sensor is skewed too rich. Which technician is correct? (Text page 909) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 5. An oxygen sensor is being tested using a digital storage oscilloscope (DSO). A good oxygen sensor should display how many transitions (switches) per second? (Text page 910) a. 1 to 5 X b. 5 to 10 c. 10 to 15 d. 15 to 20 6. A wide-band oxygen sensor was first used on a Honda in what model year? (Text page 911) a. 1992 X b. 1996 c. 2000 d. 2006 7. A wide-band oxygen sensor is capable of detecting the air-fuel mixture in the exhaust from ______ (rich) to ______ (lean). (Text page 912) a. 12:1 to 15:1 b. 13:1 to 16.7:1 c. 10:1 to 23:1 X d. 8:1 to 18:1 8. The oxygen sensor signal is used by the PCM to ______________ the air-fuel mixture.

(Text page 906) a. dampen b. fine-tune X c. add air to d. Add fuel to 9. Which wide-band oxygen sensor incorporates a pump cell? (Text page 913) a. The single cell type b. The dual cell type X c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B 10. A wide-band oxygen sensor has an internally damaged heater circuit. What could this cause?

(Text page 915) a. It may not set a DTC X b. Could cause the engine to run rich c. Could cause the engine to operate in open loop only d. The oxygen sensor will leak air into the exhaust manifold

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CHAPTER 79 Fuel Pumps, Lines, and Filters REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the three most commonly used pump designs? (Text pages 923- 924) The three most used fuel pump designs include the roller cell or vane pump, the rotary vane pump, and a gerotor.

2. What is the proper way to disconnect and connect plastic fuel line connections?

(Text page 922) The proper way to disconnect plastic fuel lines is to use a release tool to unlock the retainer, and use a drop of oil to help lubricate the seal when the ends are reattached.

3. Where are the fuel filters located in the fuel system? (Text page 927) Fuel filters are located between the fuel pump and the injectors. Often, the fuel filter is placed inside the fuel pump module assembly, which is replaced as a unit.

4. What accident and rollover devices are installed in a fuel delivery system? (Text page 926) Accident and rollover devices include check valves or an inertia switch.

5. What three methods can be used to test a fuel pump? (Text pages 928-932) The three methods that can be used to check a fuel pump include: pressure testing, volume testing, and current draw.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The first fuel filter in the sock inside the fuel tank normally filters particles larger than _________. (Text page 927) a. 0.001 to 0.003 in. b. 0.010 to 0.030 in. c. 10 to 20 microns d. 70 to 100 microns X 2. If it is tripped, which type of safety device will keep the electric fuel pump from operating?

(Text page 921) a. Roll-over valve b. Inertia switch X c. Anti-siphoning valve d. Check valve 3. Fuel lines are constructed from _____________. (Text page 921) a. seamless steel tubing b. nylon plastic c. copper and/or aluminum tubing d. both a and b are used X

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4. What prevents the fuel pump inside the fuel tank from catching the gasoline on fire?

(Text page 923) a. Electricity is not used to power the pump b. No air is around the motor brushes X c. Gasoline is hard to ignite in a closed space d. All of the above 5. A good fuel pump should be able to supply how much fuel per minute? (Text page 930) a. ¼ pint b. ½ pint c. 1 pint d. 0.5 to 0.8 gallons X 6. Technician A says that fuel pump modules are spring-loaded so that they can be compressed to fit into the opening. Technician B says that they are spring-loaded to allow for expansion and contraction of plastic fuel tanks. Which technician is correct? (Text page 925) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Most fuel filters are designed to remove particles larger than __________. (Text page 927) a. 10 microns b. 20 microns X c. 70 microns d. 100 microns 8. The amperage draw of an electric fuel pump is higher than specified. All of the following are possible causes Except __________ (Text page 932) a. corroded electrical connections at the pump motor X b. clogged fuel filter c. restriction in the fuel line d. defective fuel pump 9. Where is the fuel pump located on most vehicles today? (Text page 923) a. Near the fuel injectors under the hood b. Attached to the outside of the fuel tank c. Inside the fuel tank X d. Mounted on the engine 10. The amperage draw of an electric fuel pump is lower than specified. What is the most likely cause? (Text page 932) a. Corroded electrical connections at the pump motor X b. Clogged fuel filter c. Restriction in the fuel line d. Stuck fuel pump impeller blades

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CHAPTER 80 Fuel Injection Components and Operation REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the two basic methods used for measuring the amount of air the engine is breathing in, in order to match the correct fuel delivery? (Text pages 935-936) Fuel-injection computer systems require a method for measuring the amount of air the engine is breathing in, in order to match the correct fuel delivery. There are two basic methods used: • Speed density • Mass airflow 2. What is the purpose of the vacuum-controlled (biased) fuel-pressure regulator?

(Text page 938) The purpose of the vacuum-controlled fuel-pressure regulator is to provide the same differences in pressure across the injectors under all operating conditions.

3. How many sensors are used to determine the base pulse width on a speed-density system?

(Text page 936) On a speed density-type fuel injection system, engine speed (RPM) and the MAP sensor reading are the two most important sensors to determine base pulse width. The base pulse width is then modified by readings from the ECT, IAT, TP, and the oxygen sensor.

4. How many sensors are used to determine the base pulse width on a mass air flow system?

(Text page 936) The base pulse width is primarily determined by the mass air flow (MAF) sensor, but is modified as a result of readings from the ECT, IAT, TP, and the oxygen sensor.

5. What are the three types of returnless fuel injection systems? (Text pages 939-941) The three types of returnless systems include mechanical, electronic and on-demand systems.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that the fuel pump relay is usually controlled by the PCM. Technician B says that a TBI injector squirts fuel above the throttle above the throttle plate. Which technician is correct? (Text page 934; 936) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. What determines the amount of fuel injected when an injector opens? (Text page 936) a. Length of time the injector is open X b. The distance the pintle travels (more travel, more fuel) 191 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

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c. The spacing between the pintle and the pintle spring d. The variable diameter of the injector solenoid coil Which fuel-injection system uses the MAP sensor as the primary sensor to determine the base pulse width? (Text page 935) a. Speed density X b. Mass air flow c. Demand delivery d. Mechanical returnless Why is a vacuum line attached to a fuel-pressure regulator on many port-fuel-injected engines? (Text page 939) a. To draw fuel back into the intake manifold through the vacuum hose b. To create an equal pressure drop across the injectors X c. To raise the fuel pressure at idle d. To lower the fuel pressure under heavy engine load conditions to help improve fuel economy Which sensor has the greatest influence on injector pulse width besides the MAF sensor?

(Text page 936) a. IAT b. BARO c. ECT d. TP X Technician A says that the port fuel-injection injectors operate using 5 volts form the computer. Technician B says that sequential fuel injectors all use a different wire color on the injectors. Which technician is correct? (Text page 938) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B Which type of port fuel-injection system uses a fuel temperature and/or fuel-pressure sensor?

(Text page 939) a. All port fuel-injected engines b. TBI units only c. Electronic returnless systems X d. Demand delivery systems Dampeners are used on some fuel rails to ______________. (Text page 937) a. increase the fuel pressure in the rail b. reduce (decrease) the fuel pressure in the rail c. reduce noise X d. trap dirt and keep it away from the injectors Which one of these sensors is NOT used to determine injector pulse width during open-loop mode? (Text page 943) a. ECT sensor b. TP sensor

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c. MAF sensor d. Oxygen sensor X 10. What type of device is used in a typical idle air control? (Text page 944) a. DC motor b. Stepper motor X c. Pulsator-type actuator d. Solenoid

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CHAPTER 81 Gasoline Direct-Injection Systems REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are two advantages of gasoline direct injection compared with port fuel-injection?

(Text pages 946-947) Advantages include: • Improved fuel economy due to reduced pumping losses and heat loss • Allows a higher compression ratio for higher engine efficiency • Allows the use of lower octane gasoline • The volumetric efficiency is higher • Less need for extra fuel for acceleration • Improved cold starting and throttle response • Allows the use of greater percentage of EGR to reduce exhaust emissions • Up to 25% improvement in fuel economy • 12% to 15% reduction in exhaust emissions 2. What are two disadvantages of gasoline direct injection compared with port fuel injection?

(Text page 947) Disadvantages include: • Higher cost • More components • Need for NOX storage catalyst in some applications 3. How is the fuel delivery system different from a port fuel injection system? (Text page 946) A vehicle equipped with gasoline direct injection uses a fuel pump in the fuel tank similar to a conventional port injection system. Then, the fuel is sent to a high-pressure pump driven by the camshaft to the fuel rail. The computer controls fuel pressure using an electric pressure-control valve.

4. What are the basic modes of operation of a GDI system? (Text page 949) The basic modes of operation include: • Stratified mode • Homogeneous mode 5. What should be replaced anytime it is removed from the high pressure GDI fuel system?

(Text page 951) If any high-pressure line is removed, it must be replaced with a new part. Always replace the Teflon seal whenever replacing or reinstalling an GDI injector

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Where is the fuel injected in an engine equipped with gasoline direct injection?

(Text page 946) a. Into the intake manifold near the intake valve b. Directly into the combustion chamber X 194 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

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c. Above the intake port d. In the exhaust port In a gasoline direct-injection system, the location of the ________ varies, depending on the design. (Text page 949) a. piston X b. injector c. head gasket d. valves The high-pressure fuel pumps used in gasoline direct injection (GDI) systems are powered by ______. (Text page 947) a. electricity (DC motor) b. electricity (AC motor) c. the camshaft X d. the crankshaft The high pressure fuel pressure is regulated by using _________________. (Text page 948) a. an electric pressure-control valve X b. a vacuum-biased regulator c. a mechanical regulator at the inlet to the fuel rail d. a non-vacuum biased regulator The fuel injectors operate under a fuel pressure of about ________. (Text page 947) a. 35 to 45 psi b. 90 to 150 psi c. 500 to 2,900 psi X d. 2,000 to 5,000 psi The fuel injectors used on a gasoline direct-injection system are pulsed on using what voltage? (Text page 949) a. 12 to 14 b. 50 to 90 X c. 100 to 110 d. 200 to 220 Which mode of operation results in a richer air-fuel mixture near the spark plug?

(Text page 949) a. Stoichiometric b. Homogeneous c. Stratified X d. Knock protection All of the following are advantages of gasoline direct injection except. (Text pages 946-947) a. Improved fuel economy b. Higher engine efficiency c. Able to use lower-octane gasoline d. Decreased throttle response X All of the following are disadvantages of gasoline direct injection except. (Text page 947) a. Higher cost 195 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

b. Less need for extra fuel for acceleration X c. NOx storage catalyst may be needed d. More components compared to port fuel injection systems 10. A lack of power from an engine equipped with gasoline direct injection could be due to ___________. (Text page 951) a. noisy injectors b. carbon on the injectors c. carbon on the intake valves d. both b and c X

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CHAPTER 82 Electronic Throttle Control Systems REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What parts can be deleted if an engine uses an electronic throttle control (ETC) system instead of a conventional accelerator pedal and cable to operate the throttle valve?

(Text page 953) The parts that can be deleted include: • Throttle cable and linkage (most applications) • Cruise control actuators • Idle air control 2. How can the use of an electronic throttle control (ETC) system improve fuel economy?

(Text page 953) The use of an electronic throttle control system can improve fuel economy by allowing the PCM to learn the air-fuel mixture, introduce more exhaust gas recirculation (EGR), and open the throttle more to reduce pumping losses without affecting the speed of the vehicle.

3. How is the operation of the throttle different on a system that uses an electronic throttle control system compared with a conventional mechanical system? (Text page 953) Under most conditions, the driver of the vehicle will not detect any difference in the operation of the throttle or in the performance of the engine. There are some situations where the use of an ETC system could be noticed such as: •

When the accelerator is depressed when the engine is at idle speed and the gear selector is in PARK or NEUTRAL, the engine speed may not increase or if it does, it will be less than normal.

• While cruising at highway speed, the engine speed may or may not react to slight movement of the accelerator pedal.

4. What component parts are included in an ETC system? (Text page 953) The components in an electronic throttle control system include: • Accelerator pedal position (APP) sensor • Throttle body assembly with actuator motor • Throttle position (TP) sensor 5. What is the default or limp-in position of the throttle plate? (Text page 955) The default or limp-in position of the throttle is 16% to 20% open, which would result in an engine speed of 1,200 to 1,500 RPM.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The use of an electronic throttle control (ETC) system allows the elimination of all EXCEPT _____________. (Text page 953) a. accelerator pedal X b. mechanical throttle cable (most systems) 197 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

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c. cruise control actuator d. idle air control The throttle plate is spring loaded to hold the throttle slightly open how far? (Text page 955) a. 3% to 5% b. 8% to 10% c. 16% to 20% X d. 22% to 28% The throttle plate actuator motor is what type of electric motor? (Text page 954) a. Stepper motor b. D.C. motor X c. A.C. motor d. Brushless motor The accelerator pedal position sensor uses two or three separate sensors that output a varying voltage signal. What is the purpose of using more than one sensor? (Text page 954) a. Allows the PCM to detect a malfunction b. For safety reasons c. Improves redundancy d. All of these X When does the PCM perform a self-test of the ETC system? (Text page 955) a. During cruise speed when the throttle is steady b. During deceleration c. During acceleration d. When the ignition switch is first rotated to the on position before the engine starts X What type is the throttle position sensor used in the throttle body assembly of an ETC system? (Text pages 955-956) a. A single potentiometer b. Two potentiometers that read in the opposite direction c. A Hall-effect sensor d. Either b or c X A green wrench symbol is displayed on the dash. What does this mean? (Text page 957) a. A fault in the ETC in a Ford has been detected X b. A fault in the ETC in a Honda has been detected c. A fault in the ETC in a Chrysler has been detected d. A fault in the ETC in a General Motors vehicle has been detected A technician is checking the operation of the electronic throttle control system by depressing the accelerator pedal when the gear selector is in PARK. What is the most likely result if the system is functioning correctly? (Text page 953) a. The throttle goes to wide open when the accelerator pedal is depressed all the way b. No throttle movement X c. The throttle will open partially but not all of the way d. The throttle will perform a self-test by closing and then opening to the default position

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9. With the ignition off and the key out of the ignition, what should happen if a technician uses a screwdriver and gently pushes on the throttle plate in an attempt to open the valve?

(Text page 958) a. Nothing. The throttle should be kept from moving by the motor, which is not energized with the key off. b. The throttle should move and stay where it is moved and not go back unless moved back. c. The throttle should move, and then spring back to the home position when released.

X d. The throttle should move closed, but not open further than the default position 10. The throttle body may be cleaned (if recommended by the vehicle manufacturer) if what conditions are occurring? (Text page 959) a. Coast-down stall b. Rough idle c. Lower-than-normal idle speed d. Any of the above X

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CHAPTER 83 Fuel Injection System Diagnosis and Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. List the ways fuel injectors can be tested. (Text pages 965-968) Fuel injectors can be tested for proper resistance, voltage drop, and pressure drop, as well as observed on a DSO for proper waveform, using both voltage and current.

2. List the steps necessary to test a fuel-pressure regulator. (Text page 961) To test a fuel pressure regulator, the following steps will be necessary.

Step #1 – Connect a fuel pressure gauge.

Step #2 – Start the engine and observe the fuel pressure.

Step #3 – Disconnect the vacuum line from the fuel pressure regulator and observe the pressure gauge. The pressure should increase about 10 psi.

Step #4 – Using a hand-operated vacuum pump, test to see that the fuel pressure regulator can hold vacuum.

Step #5 – Replace the rubber vacuum hose with a clean hose and start the engine. Check to see if there is fuel flowing through the clean hose, which would indicate a leak in the fuel pressure regulator.

3. What is wrong if a fuel injector measures 100 ohms of resistance? (Text page 966) This resistance value is much higher than any fuel injector resistance specification. This high level of resistance would cause less than normal current to flow and the injector would not likely be able to open.

4. Why would fuel injectors at the bends and ends of the fuel rail tend to become clogged?

(Text page 966) The fuel injectors at the end of the fuel rail or located at bends ion the fuel rail tend to become clogged. This is because the fuel tends to slow down at these points and any dirt or varnish in the fuel tends to fall and partially clog the injector filter basket.

5. What does an injector voltage drop test indicate? (Text page 967) The voltage drop across each injector should be within 0.1 volt of each other. If an injector has a higher-than-normal voltage drop, the injector windings have higher-than-normal resistance.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Most port fuel-injected engines operate on how much fuel pressure? (Text page 963) a. 3 to 5 psi (21 to 35 kPa) b. 9 to 13 psi (62 to 90 kPa) c. 35 to 45 psi (240 to 310 kPa) X d. 55 to 65 psi (380 to 450 kPa)

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2. Fuel injectors can be tested using ___________. (Text pages 963-967) a. an ohmmeter b. a stethoscope c. a scope d. all of the above X 3. Throttle-body fuel-injection systems use what type of injector driver? (Text page 965) a. Peak and hold X b. Saturated switch c. Pulse-width modulated d. Pulsed 4. Port fuel-injection systems generally use what type of injector driver? (Text page 966) a. Peak and hold b. Saturated switch X c. Pulse-width modulated d. Pulsed 5. The vacuum hose from the fuel-pressure regulator was removed from the regulator and gasoline dripped out of the hose. Technician A says that is normal and that everything is okay. Technician B says that one or more of the injectors may be defective, causing the fuel to get into the hose. Which technician is correct? (Text page 962) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X 6. The fuel pressure drops rapidly when the engine is turned off. Technician A says that one or more injectors could be leaking. Technician B says that a defective check valve in the fuel pump could be the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 964) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. In a typical port fuel-injection system, which injectors are most subject to becoming restricted? (Text page 966) a. Any of them equally b. The injectors at the end of the rail on a returnless system c. The injectors at the bends in the rail d. Either b or c X 8. What component pulses the fuel injector on most vehicles? (Text page 966) a. Powertrain control module (PCM) X b. Ignition module c. Crankshaft sensor d. Both b and c

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9. Fuel injection service is being discussed. Technician A says that the throttle plate(s) should be cleaned. Technician B says that the fuel rail should be cleaned. Which technician is correct? (Text page 971) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. A fuel line with a yellow tag on it has been removed from a GDI-equipped engine. What action should the technician take when reinstalling the fuel line? (Text page 972) a. Use a good sealer on the fitting b. Wrap the threads with Teflon tape c. The line must be replaced X d. The line can be reused if it looks OK

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CHAPTER 84 Vehicle Emission Standards and Testing REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. List the five exhaust gases and their maximum allowable readings for a fuel-injected vehicle equipped with a catalytic converter. (Text page 981) The five gases and their maximum allowable readings include: HC = 30 to 50 PPM or less CO = 0.3% to 0.5% or less O2 = 0% to 2% CO2 = 12% to 15% NOX = less than 100 PPM at idle and less than 1000 PPM at WOT

2. How is water formed during the combustion process? (Text page 979) During combustion, the HC combines with the air to form water (H2O) and carbon dioxide (CO2), plus nitrogen (N2) and some other non-desirable gases.

3. What is the stochiometric ratio and what does it mean? (Text page 979) Engines consume about 15 times more air than gasoline, this ratio of air to fuel is called the stoichiometric ratio. This ratio, which is 14.7:1 for gasoline, is the ratio where all the fuel is consumed in the combustion process and all the available oxygen is used.

4. How are oxides of nitrogen (NOx) formed? (Text page 980) Nitrogen is 78% of the air, so having some left over is normal. However, if the combustion temperatures and pressures are high enough, some of the nitrogen (N2) combines with the oxygen to form NO and NO2, which are harmful exhaust gases and referred to as oxides of nitrogen, NOx, where the “x” represents a number.

5. What information is on the vehicle emission control information (VECI) sticker?

(Text page 984) A vehicle emission control information (VECI) sticker for a vehicle showing that is meets Tier 3, Bin 1 (T2B3) EPA rating and California ULEV125 standard.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that high HC emission levels are often caused by a fault in the ignition system. Technician B says that high CO2 emissions are usually caused by a richer-than- normal air-fuel mixture. Which technician is correct. (Text page 980) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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2. HC and CO are high and CO2 and O2 are low. This could be caused by a _______________.

(Text page 981) a. rich mixture X b. lean mixture c. defective ignition component d. clogged EGR passage 3. Which gas is generally considered to be the rich indicator? (The higher the level of this gas, the richer the air-fuel mixture.) (Text page 981) a. HC b. CO X c. CO2 d. O2 4. Which gas is generally considered to be the lean indicator? (The higher the level of this gas, the leaner the air-fuel mixture.) (Text page 981) a. HC b. CO c. CO2 d. O2 X 5. Which exhaust gas indicates efficiency? (The higher the level of this gas, the more efficient the engine operates.) (Text page 980) a. HC b. CO c. CO2 X d. O2 6. All of the gases are measured in percentages except ______________. (Text page 980) a. HC X b. CO c. CO2 d. O2 7. In addition to NOx, HCs, and particulate matter (PM) emissions, what do European standards include? (Text page 985) a. Standards for water vapor b. Standards for nitrogen c. Standards for CO2 X d. Standards for ambient pressure 8. Technician A says that carbon inside the engine can cause excessive NOx to form.Technician B says that excessive NOx could be caused by a cooling system fault causing the engine to operate too hot. Which technician is correct? (Text page 981) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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9. In areas with emission testing, a MIL that is “ON” causes the vehicle to ______________ the emission inspection. (Text page 985) a. fail X b. skip c. pass d. bypass 10. An ignition fault could cause excessive ________ exhaust emissions. (Text page 982) a. HC X b. CO c. NOx d. CO2

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CHAPTER 85 Evaporative Emission Control Systems REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What components are used in a typical evaporative emission control system?

(Text page 987) The components in a typical evaporative emission control system include the carbon canister, purge valve, vent valve, and connecting hoses and connections.

2. How does the computer control the purging of the vapor canister? (Text page 988) The computer controls the purging of the vapor canister by turning on and off the purge solenoid.

3. What is the difference between an enhanced and nonenhanced evaporative control system?

(Text pages 985-989) Nonenhanced EVAP systems are not capable of detecting leaks in the system, whereas enhanced systems are able to detect leaks in the system.

4. Why is the vent valve subject to rust and corrosion? (Text page 990) The vent value is subject to rust and corrosions because it usually located under the vehicle and is exposed to the elements.

5. What are the parameters (enable criteria) that must be met for the evaporative system monitor to run? (Text page 992) The enable criteria include: 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Cold start BARO greater than 20.7 in. Hg ECT between 39°F and 86°F at engine start Fuel level within 15% and 85% TP sensor between 9% and 35%

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the substance used in a vapor canister to absorb volatile organic compounds?

(Text page 987) a. Desiccant b. Organic absorber c. Pleated paper d. Charcoal X 2. Which valve(s) is (are) normally closed? (Text page 990) a. Canister purge valve X b. Canister vent valve c. Both canister purge and canister vent valve d. Neither canister purge nor canister vent valve

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3. All of the following can increase the pressure in the evaporative emission control system except _____________. (Text page 988) a. fuel temperature b. returned fuel from the fuel injection system c. inlet fuel to the fuel pump X d. volatility of the fuel 4. Evaporative emission control systems operate on low pressure measured in inches of water (in. H2O). One psi is equal to how many inches of water? (Text page 988) a. 1 b. 10 c. 18 d. 28 X 5. Inadequate purge flow rate will trigger which DTC? (Text page 994) a. P0440 b. P0441 c. P0300 d. P0440 or P0446 X 6. Two technicians are discussing a state emission testing. Technician A says that a vent valve that is not able to close can cause the system to fail the on-board test. Technician B says that a leaking gas cap can cause a failure of the EVAP test. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 991) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Which EVAP valve is subject to rust and corrosion more than all of the others?

(Text page 990) a. Purge valve b. Vacuum control valve c. Vent valve X d. Roll over check valve 8. Before an evaporative emission monitor will run, the fuel level must be where?

(Text page 993) a. At least 75% full b. Over 25% c. Between 15% and 85% X d. The level of the fuel in the tank is not needed to run the monitor test 9. Technician A says that low-pressure smoke installed in the fuel system can be used to check for leaks. Technician B says that nitrogen under low pressure can be installed in the fuel system to check for leaks. Which technician is correct? (Text page 991) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 207 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

10. A small leak is detected by the evaporative emission control system monitor that could be caused by a loose gas cap. Which DTC will likely be set? (Text page 994) a. P0440 b. P0442 c. P0446 d. Either P0440 or P0442 X

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CHAPTER 86 Exhaust Gas Recirculation Systems REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What causes the formation of oxides of nitrogen? (Text page 996) Oxides of nitrogen are created under high pressure or temperatures over 2,500°F (1,370°C) inside the combustion chamber.

2. How does the use of exhaust gas reduce NOX exhaust emission? (Text page 996) Recirculating a small percentage of the exhaust gases back into the intake, results in reduced combustion temperatures. The exhaust gases are chemically inert and do not enter into the combustion process.

3. How does the DPFE sensor work? (Text page 999) The DPFE (Delta Pressure Feedback EGR) works by measuring the pressure differential between two sides of a metered orifice to signal the PCM the amount of EGR needed.

4. How does the PCM determine that the exhaust flow through the EGR system meets OBD-II regulations? (Text page 999) Depending on the make of vehicle, the PCM may use one of the following to detect EGR flow: 1. Monitoring the oxygen sensor activity when commanding the EGR open 2. Monitoring the MAP sensor and then commanding the EGR open 5. How can exhaust passages for the EGR system be cleaned? (Text page 1001) To quickly and easily remove carbon from exhaust passages, cut an approximately 1-foot (30-cm) length from stranded wire, such as garage door guide wire or an old speedometer cable. Flare the end and place the end of the wire into the passage. Set your drill on reverse and turn it on, and the wire pulls its way through the passage, cleaning the carbon as it goes, just like a snake in a drainpipe. Some vehicles, such as Hondas, require that plugs be drilled out to gain access to the EGR passages.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What causes the nitrogen and the oxygen in the air to combine and form NOX? (Text page 996) a. Sunlight b. Any spark will cause this to occur c. Heat above 2500°F (1370°C) X d. Chemical reaction in the catalytic converter 2. Exhaust gas recirculation (EGR) is generally not needed under all the following conditions except ___________. (Text pages 996-997) a. idle speed b. cold engine 209 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

c. cruise speed X d. wide-open throttle (WOT) Technician A says that a low-restriction exhaust system could prevent a back pressure-type vacuum-controlled EGR valve from opening correctly. Technician B says restricted exhaust can cause the EGR valve position sensor to fail. Which technician is correct?

(Text pages 997; 999) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B EGR is used to control which exhaust emission? (Text page 996) a. Unburned hydrocarbons (HC) b. Oxides of nitrogen (NOX) X c. Carbon monoxide (CO) d. Both NOX and CO A typical EGR pintle-position sensor is what type of sensor? (Text page 998) a. Rheostat b. Piezoelectric c. Wheatstone bridge d. Potentiometer X OBD-II regulations require that the EGR system be tested. Technician A says that the PCM can monitor the commanded position of the EGR valve to determine if it is functioning correctly. Technician B says that the PCM can open the EGR valve and monitors for a change in the MAP sensor or oxygen sensor reading to detect if the system is functioning correctly.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 999) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B Two technicians are discussing clogged EGR passages. Technician A says clogged EGR passages can cause excessive NOX exhaust emission. Technician B says that clogged EGR passages can cause the engine to ping (spark knock or detonation). Which technician is correct? (Text page 1000) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B An EGR valve that is partially stuck open would most likely cause what condition?

(Text page 1000) a. Rough idle/stalling X b. Excessive NOX exhaust emissions c. Ping (spark knock or detonation) d. Missing at highway speed

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9. When testing an EGR system for proper operation using a vacuum gauge, how much should the vacuum drop when the EGR is commanded on by a scan tool? (Text page 1001) a. 1 to 2 in. Hg b. 3 to 5 in. Hg c. 6 to 8 in. Hg X d. 8 to 10 in. Hg 10. A P0401 DTC (exhaust gas recirculation flow insufficient) is being discussed. Technician A says that a defective EGR valve could be the cause. Technician B says that clogged EGR passages could be the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1001) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 87 PCV and Secondary Air-Injection Systems REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What exhaust emissions do the PCV valve and SAI system control?(Text pages 1003; 1006) Both PCV and SAI systems are used to reduce HC and CO emissions.

2. How does a PCV valve work? (Text pages 1000-1001) The PCV valve works by regulating airflow through the crankcase under all operating conditions.

3. What prevents a backfire in the intake manifold from causing the fumes in the crankcase from exploding? (Text page 1004) If the engine backfires, the valve closes instantly to prevent a crankcase explosion.

4. Why do some PCV valves have an electric heater? (Text page 1006) Ford uses an electric heater to prevent ice from forming inside the PCV valve and causing blockage. Water is a by-product of combustion, and resulting moisture can freeze when the outside air temperature is low.

5. What keeps the exhaust gases from flowing up from the exhaust manifold and into the secondary air injection (SAI) pump? (Text page 1006) All air-injection systems use one or more one-way check valves to protect the air pump and other components from reverse exhaust flow.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The PCV system controls which exhaust emission(s)? (Text page 1003) a. HC b. CO c. NOX d. Both HC and CO X 2. How much of the air needed by the engine flows through the PCV system when the engine is at idle speed? (Text page 1004) a. 1 to 3% b. 5 to 10% c. 10 to 20% d. Up to 30% X 3. Technician A says that if the PCV valve was defective or clogged, the engine could idle rough. Technician B says that the engine may stall. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1004) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 212 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4. Technician A says that if a PCV valve rattles, then it is okay and does not need to be replaced. Technician B says that if a PCV valve does not rattle, it should be replaced. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1005) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 5. Technician A says that the PCV system should create a slight pressure in the crankcase at idle. Technician B says that the PCV system should create a slight vacuum in the crankcase at 2,500 RPM. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1005) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. The SAI system is used to reduce which exhaust emission(s)? (Text page 1006) a. HC b. CO c. NOX d. Both HC and CO X 7. Two technicians are discussing exhaust check valves used in SAI systems. Technician A says that they are used to prevent the output from the SAI pump from entering the intake manifold.

Technician B says the check valves are used to keep the exhaust from entering the AIR pump.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 1006) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Where is the output of the AIR pump directed when the engine is cold? (Text page 1007) a. Exhaust manifold X b. Catalytic converter c. Air cleaner assembly d. To the atmosphere 9. The switching valves on the AIR pump have failed several times. Technician A says that a defective exhaust check valve could be the cause. Technician B says that a leaking exhaust system at the muffler could be the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1006) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. When checking for the proper operation of the AIR system using an exhaust gas analyzer, how much should the oxygen (O2) levels increase when the pump is allowed to function?

(Text page 1008) a. 1 to 4% X b. 5 to 10% c. 10 to 20% d. Up to 30% 213 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 88 Catalytic Converters REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the three most common catalysts used in a catalytic converter? (Text page 1010) Rhodium, palladium, and platinum are used in most catalytic converters.

2. How does a catalytic converter reduce NOX to nitrogen and oxygen? (Text page 1011) The reduction section of a TWC, containing rhodium, is used to separate the NOX into H2 and O2.

3. Why must a catalytic converter be mounted close to the exhaust ports of the engine?

(Text page 1011) The catalytic converter is most efficient if it is mounted as close as possible to the exhaust ports of the engine where the exhaust is the hottest.

4. How does the computer monitor catalytic converter perform? (Text page 1012) The PCM monitors catalytic converters efficiency by checking the downstream oxygen sensor switch rates to the switch rate of the upstream oxygen sensor. If the switch rates are similar, the catalytic converter efficiency is low.

5. What tests can be performed by a service technician to test the catalytic converter?

(Text pages 1013-1015) A service technician can check the following: 1. Backpressure using a pressure gauge or individually by using a vacuum gauge 2. Testing for temperature rise 3. Check for efficiency by using the oxygen level tests

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is applied to the ceramic substrate to make the surface porous? (Text page 1010) a. Honeycomb filler b. Washcoat X c. Aluminum d. Cerium 2. Two technicians are discussing catalytic converters. Technician A says that the exhaust should have a 14.7:1 air-fuel ratio for the best efficiency. Technician B says that the air-fuel mixture must be leaner than 14.7:1 for best performance from a three-way catalytic converter.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 1011 ) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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3. A catalytic converter has to be at least how hot before it starts to work? (Text page 1011) a. 500°F (260°C) X b. 1,000°F (540°C) c. 1,500°F (815°C) d. 2,000°F (1,100°C) 4. What two primary sensors does the PCM use to check the catalytic converter?

(Text page 1012) a. Catalytic converter temperature sensor and rear oxygen sensor b. Precat and postcat oxygen sensor X c. Precat oxygen sensor and MAF d. MAP and TP 5. A catalytic converter can be harmed by _______________. (Text page 1012) a. excessive engine oil b. antifreeze c. sulfur from poor-quality fuel d. any of the above X 6. Two technicians are discussing testing a catalytic converter. Technician A says that a vacuum gauge can be used and observed to see if the vacuum drops with the engine at 2,500 RPM for 30 seconds. Technician B says that a pressure gauge can be used to check for back pressure.

Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1013- 1014) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. A catalytic converter is being tested with an infrared pyrometer. Which is an acceptable (good converter) result? (Text page 1014) a. The inlet should be hotter than the outlet by 10%. b. The outlet should be hotter than the inlet by 10%. X c. Both the inlet and the outlet should be the same temperature after the converter reaches operating temperature. d. The temperature of a catalytic converter is the best test to perform to locate a restricted (clogged) unit.

8. Which exhaust gas reading indicates a good catalytic converter? (Text page 1015) a. O2 is zero b. CO is zero X c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b 9. A P0422 (catalytic converter efficiency failure) is set. What is a possible cause?

(Text page 1015) a. Engine mechanical fault b. Exhaust leak c. Fuel contamination d. Any of the above X

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10. Technician A says that the catalytic converter is warranted for eight years or 80,000 miles, whichever comes first. Technician B says that after replacing the catalytic converter, the old converter must be kept for possible inspection for 60 days. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1015) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 89 On-Board Diagnosis REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What does the PCM do during a trip to test emission-related components? (Text page 1020) The PCM performs active and intrusive tests of the components if the operating conditions of the vehicle match the enabling criteria.

2. What is the difference between a type A and type B OBD-II DTC? (Text page 1020) Misfire type A. Upon detection of a misfire type A (200 revolutions), which causes catalyst damage, the MIL blinks once per second during the actual misfire, and a DTC is stored. Misfire type B. Upon detection of a misfire type B (1,000 revolutions), which exceeds 1.5 times the EPA federal test procedure (FTP) standard or causes a vehicle to fail an inspection and maintenance tailpipe emissions test, the MIL illuminates and a DTC is stored.

3. What is the difference between a trip and a warm-up cycle? (Text page 1022) A trip is defined as a key-on condition that contains the necessary conditions for a particular test to be performed, followed by a key-off. A warm-up cycle is defined as a trip with an engine temperature increase of at least 40°F and where engine temperature reaches at least 160°F (71°C).

4. What could cause the MIL to flash? (Text page 1022) This condition indicates a misfire or fuel control system fault that could damage the catalytic converter.

5. What modes are available using Mode $06? (Text page 1025) All OBD-II vehicles must be able to display data on a global (also called generic) scan tool under nine different modes of operation. These modes include: • • • • • • • • • •

Mode One - Current powertrain data (parameter identification display or PID) Mode Two - Freeze-frame data Mode Three - DTCs Mode Four - Clear and reset DTCs, freeze-frame data, and readiness status monitors for noncontinuous monitors only Mode Five - Oxygen sensor monitor test results Mode Six - Onboard monitoring of test results for non-continuously monitored systems Mode Seven - Onboard monitoring of test results for continuously monitored systems Mode Eight - Bidirectional control of onboard systems Mode Nine - Module identification Mode 10 - ($0A) Permanent DTCs

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CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A freeze frame is generated on an OBD-II vehicle ________. (Text page 1020-1021) a. when a type C or D diagnostic trouble code is set b. when a type A or B diagnostic trouble code is set X c. every other trip d. when the PCM detects a problem with the O2S 2. An ignition misfire or fuel mixture problem is an example of what type of DTC? (Text page 1020) a. Type A X b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D 3. The comprehensive component monitor checks computer controlled devices for________.

(Text page 1021) a. opens b. rationality c. shorts-to-ground d. all of the above X 4. OBD II has been on all passenger vehicles in the United States since ________.

(Text page 1019) a. 1986 b. 1991 c. 1996 X d. 2000 5. Which is a continuous monitor. (Text page 1020) a. Fuel system monitor X b. EGR monitor c. Oxygen sensor monitor d. Catalyst monitor 6. DTC P0302 is a _____________. (Text page 1023) a. generic DTC X b. vehicle manufacturer-specific DTC c. idle speed-related DTC d. transmission/transaxle-related DTC 7. Global (generic) OBD II contains some data in what format? (Text page 1025) a. Plain English b. Hexadecimal X c. Roman numerals d. All of the above 8. By looking at the way diagnostic trouble codes are labeled, which DTC could indicate that the gas cap is loose or defective? (Text page 1023) a. P0221 b. P1301 218 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. P0442 X d. P1603 9. The computer will automatically clear a DTC if there are no additional detected faults after ________________. (Text page 1024) a. forty consecutive warm-up cycles X b. eighty warm-up cycles c. two consecutive trips d. four key-on/key-off cycles 10. A pending code is set when a fault is detected on _________________. (Text page 1024) a. a one-trip fault item b. the first fault of a two-trip failure X c. the catalytic converter efficiency d. thermostat problem (too long to closed-loop status)

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CHAPTER 90 Scan Tools and Engine Performance Diagnosis REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Explain the procedure to follow when diagnosing a vehicle with stored DTCs using a scan tool. (Text pages 1031) Using a scan tool, check the ECT equals IAT to KOED and look carefully at all major sensors and compare the readings to the normal reading that would be accepted.

2. Discuss what the PCM does during a drive cycle to test emissions-related components.

(Text page 1038) The vehicle must be driven under a variety of operating conditions for all active tests to be performed. A trip is defined as an engine-operating drive cycle that contains the necessary conditions for a particular test to be performed. For example, for the EGR test to be performed, the engine has to be at normal operating temperature and decelerating for a minimum amount of time. Some tests are performed when the engine is cold, whereas others require that the vehicle be cruising at a steady highway speed.

3. Explain the difference between a type A and type B OBD-II diagnostic trouble code.

(Text page 1038) • TYPE A CODES. A type A diagnostic trouble code is emissions related and causes the MIL to be turned on at the first trip if the computer has detected a problem.

Engine misfire or a very rich or lean air–fuel ratio, for example, causes a type A DTC. These codes alert the driver to an emissions problem that may cause damage to the catalytic converter.

• TYPE B CODES. A type B code is stored and the MIL is turned on during the second consecutive trip, alerting the driver to the fact that a diagnostic test was performed and failed.

4. List three things that should be checked as part of a thorough visual inspection.

(Text page 1028) • Check for obvious problems • Check everything that does and does not work.

• Look for evidence of previous repairs.

• Check oil level and condition.

• Check coolant level and condition.

5. Explain why a bulletin search should be performed after stored DTCs are retrieved.

(Text page 1031) Many TSBs refer to problems that could have certain diagnostic trouble codes (DTCs).

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that the first step in the diagnostic process is to verify the problem (concern). Technician B says the second step is to perform a thorough visual inspection.

Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1024-1028) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only 220 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

c. Both Technician A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B Which item is not important to know before starting the diagnosis of an engine performance problem? (Text page 1029) a. List of previous repairs b. The brand of engine oil used X c. The type of gasoline used d. The temperature of the engine when the problem occurs A generic (global)-type scan tool can retrieve data.(Text page 1034) a. Emissions-related X b. All available c. Brake system d. All of these Which step should be performed last when diagnosing an engine performance problem?

(Text page 1032) a. Checking for any stored diagnostic trouble codes b. Checking for any technical service bulletins (TSBs) c. Performing a thorough visual inspection d. Verify the repair X Technician A says that if the opposite DTC can be set, the problem is the component itself.

Technician B says if the opposite DTC cannot be set, the problem is with the wiring or grounds. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1034) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technician A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B The preferred method to clear diagnostic trouble codes (DTCs) is to __________________.

(Text page 1034) a. disconnect the negative battery cable for 10 seconds b. use a scan tool X c. remove the computer (PCM) Power feed fuse d. cycle the ignition key on and off 40 times Which is the factory scan tool for Chrysler brand vehicles equipped with CAN? (Text page 1033) a. wiTECH X b. Tech 2 c. NGS d. Master Tech Technician A says that re-programming a PCM using the J2534 system requires a factory scan tool. Technician B says that re-programming a PCM using the J2534 system required Internet access. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1039-1040) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X

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c. Both Technician A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 9. Technician A says that knowing if there are any stored diagnostic trouble codes (DTCs) may be helpful when checking for related technical service bulletins (TSBs). Technician B says that only a factory scan tool should be used to retrieve DTCs. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1031) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technician A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. Which method can be used to reprogram a PCM? (Text pages 1039-1040) a. Remote b. Direct c. Off-board d. Any of the above X

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CHAPTER 91 Introduction to Hybrid Vehicles REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the advantages and disadvantages of a series hybrid design?

(Text pages 1046-1047) A series hybrid uses the electric motor to propel the vehicle which sometimes results in a less complex powertrain. However, to maintain the battery charge, using an ICE to charge the batteries adds to the weight and complexity of the vehicle.

2. What type of hybrid electrical vehicle is a Toyota Prius hybrid? (Text page 1048) Both are considered to be a series-parallel design hybrid because they are able to operate and propel the vehicle using battery power alone even if they can do so for a limited distance.

3. What are the advantages and disadvantages of mild, medium, and full hybrid vehicles?

(Text pages 1050-1051) Mild and medium hybrids cost less than full (strong) hybrids. Mild hybrids are the least expensive to manufacture but also provide the least improvement in fuel economy. Full hybrids cost more, but deliver greater fuel savings.

4. Why does a BAS system cost less than the other types of hybrid vehicles? (Text page 1048) A belt alternator starter (BAS) system cost less because there does not need to be a connection between the engine and the transmission as is needed on other types of hybrids.

5. What are the four modes of operation of a typical hybrid vehicle? (Text page 1050) The four modes of operation of a typical hybrid electric vehicle include: idle stop, regenerative braking, power assist, and electric vehicle mode (full hybrid only).

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The GM EV1 was what type of vehicle? (Text page 1045) a. Totally electric powered X b. A first-generation hybrid electric vehicle (HEV) c. A series-type HEV d. A parallel-type HEV 2. Which type of hybrid uses 36 to 42 volts? (Text page 1048-1050) a. Mild hybrid X b. Medium hybrid c. Full hybrid d. Strong hybrid 3. Which type of hybrid is capable of propelling the vehicle using just the electric motor?

(Text page 1051) a. BAS type b. Strong (full) hybrid X 223 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. Medium hybrid d. Mild hybrid 4. About how fast does a motor-generator crank the internal combustion engine?

(Text page 1046) a. About 1,000 RPM X b. About 2,000 RPM c. About 150-300 RPM d. About 400-600 RPM 5. With which type of hybrid electric design costs the least? (Text page 1048) a. Strong hybrid design b. Series hybrid design c. Parallel hybrid design d. BAS design X 6. Which type of hybrid electric vehicle has idle stop operation? (Text pages 1048-1050) a. Strong hybrids only b. Strong, mild, and medium hybrids X c. Mild hybrids only d. Medium hybrids only 7. A vehicle equipped with a belt-alternator-starter (BAS) hybrid system the alternator is also used to ______________. (Text page 1050) a. circulate the coolant b. pump refrigerant c. start the engine X d. assist steering effort 8. Technician A says that most hybrids use the series hybrid design. Technician B says that most hybrids have 42-volt batteries. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1046-1048) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X 9. Electric motors are better than an internal combustion engine to propel a vehicle because_________. (Text page 1045) a. they produce high torque at low speeds b. they do not burn fuel and, therefore, do not release carbon dioxide into the environment c. they are quiet d. all of the above are correct X 10. All of the following are characteristic of a hybrid electric vehicle (HEV), except _________.

(Text page 1050) a. high voltages (safety issue) b. lower fuel economy X c. lower amount of carbon dioxide released to the atmosphere d. quiet

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CHAPTER 92 Hybrid Vehicle High-Voltage Batteries REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are two types of high-voltage batteries used in hybrid electric vehicles?

(Text pages 1054;1056) • Most current production HEVs use nickel-metal hydride (NiMH) battery technology for the high-voltage battery.

• A battery design that shows a great deal of promise for EVs and HEVs applications is lithiumion (Li-ion) technology 2. Why are NiMH batteries are known as alkaline batteries? (Text page 1054) NiMH batteries are known as alkaline batteries due to the alkaline (pH greater than 7) nature of the electrolyte.

3. What are two designs of NiMH batteries? (Text page 1055) • Cylindrical type • Prismatic type 4. What are the advantages and disadvantages of NiMH batteries? (Text page 1055) ADVANTAGES: Nickel-based alkaline batteries have a number of advantages over other battery designs, including the following: • • • • • •

High specific energy The nickel electrode can be manufactured with large surface areas, which increase the overall battery capacity The electrolyte does not react with steel, so NiMH batteries can be housed in sealed steel containers that transfer heat reasonably well The materials used in NiMH batteries are environmentally friendly and can be recycled.

Excellent cycle life Durable and safe

DISADVANTAGES: Disadvantages of the NiMH battery include the following: • •

High rate of self-discharge, especially at elevated temperatures Moderate levels of memory effect, although this seems to be less prominent in newer designs • Moderate to high cost 5. What are the advantages and disadvantages of lithium-ion batteries? (Text page 1058) ADVANTAGES: Lithium-ion batteries have the following advantages: • • • • •

High specific energy Good high-temperature performance Low self-discharge Minimal memory effect High nominal cell voltage. The nominal voltage of a lithium-ion cell is 3.6 volts, which is three times that of nickel-based alkaline batteries. This allows for fewer battery cells being required to produce high voltage from an HV battery.

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DISADVANTAGES: Disadvantages of the lithium-ion battery include • •

High cost Issues related to battery overheating

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The voltage levels in many hybrid electric vehicles include_____ (Text pages 1053-1055) a. high voltage battery pack b. 12 volts in the auxiliary battery c. 42 volts for the electric power steering d. all of the above X 2. The electrolyte in nickel metal hydride battery is______ (Text page 1054) a. H2SO4 b. potassium hydroxide X c. nickel cadmium d. organic solvent 3. The electrolyte in a lithium-ion battery is______ (Text page 1058) a. H2SO4 b. potassium hydroxide c. nickel cadmium d. organic solvent X 4. Normal operating state-of-charge (SOC) range for most hybrid electric vehicles is____.

(Text page 1061) a. 15% to 95% b. 23% to 83% c. 46% to 56% d. 52% to 68% X 5. The nominal cell voltage of a nickel metal hydride battery is_________. (Text page 1055) a. 2.1 volts b. 1.2 volts X c. 1.1 volts d. 2.5 volts 6. Normal battery internal resistance is _____. (Text page 1061) a. 15 to 40 milliohms X b. 1 to 3 ohms c. 6 to 10 ohms d. 15 to 25 ohms 7. Which data parameter is often NOT included on the data stream of a scan tool when testing the high-voltage battery pack? (Text page 1061) a. Battery temperature b. Type of battery X c. Battery voltage d. Battery current draw 226 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8. Which battery type is NOT being used in hybrid or electric vehicles?

(Text pages 1059-1060) a. Zinc air b. Sodium sulfur c. Sodium-metal-chloride (ZEBRA) d. All of the above X 9. The ICE starts on most hybrid electric vehicles when the state-of-charge of the HV battery drops to __________. (Text page 1061) a. 40% b. 50% X c. 60% d. 70% 10. When working around high-voltage batteries what precautions should be adhered to?

(Text page 1063 ) a. Do not work on the vehicle if moisture is present on the skin or anywhere on or near the vehicle. b. Be sure to disconnect the HV battery and allow enough time for system capacitors to discharge before proceeding. c. Always refer to the service manual for approved safety procedures when handling the HV battery pack. d. All of the above X

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CHAPTER 93 Electric and Plug-In Hybrid Electric Vehicles REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the difference between a hybrid electric vehicle and a plug-in hybrid electric vehicle?

(Text page 1067) A plug-in hybrid electric vehicle (PHEV) is a vehicle that is designed to be plugged into an electrical outlet at night to charge the batteries. By charging the batteries in the vehicle, it can operate using electric power alone (stealth mode) for a longer time, thereby reducing the use of the internal combustion engine (ICE).

2. What are the advantages of using a higher-capacity battery in a PHEV? (Text page 1067) The size or capacity of the battery pack used determines how far the vehicle can travel without using the ICE, commonly called the electric vehicle, or EV, range.

3. What are the three operating conditions that would cause an electric vehicle to supply less than normal range? (Text page 1069) The range of an EV depends on many factors, including:

• • • •

Battery energy storage capacity Vehicle weight Outside temperature Terrain (driving in hilly or mountainous areas requires more energy from the battery) • Use of air conditioning and other electrical devices 4. What are the three levels of chargers? (Text pages 1070-1071) • Level 1 uses 110- to 120-volt standard electric outlet (20-amp circuit • Level 2 chargers use 220 to 240 volts • Level 3 charging stations use 440 volts and can charge most electric vehicles to 80% charge in less than 30 minutes.

5. What is the difference in the current used between level 2 and level 3?

(Text pages 1070-1071) Level 1 can charge up to 16 amperes.

Level 2 can charge up to 80 amperes.

Level 3 can charge up to 125 amperes.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The storage capacity of HV batteries are rated in ___________. (Text page 1067) a. volts b. Li-Ion c. kWh X d. watts

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2. Why do cold temperatures reduce the range of an electric vehicle? (Text page 1069) a. Cold temperatures reduce battery efficiency. b. Additional electrical power from the batteries is needed to heat the batteries. c. Passenger compartment heating requires the use of electrical heating/cooling, which reduces the range of the vehicle. d. All of the above X 3. What temperature range do batteries work best? (Text page 1069) a. 0°F to 32°F (−18°C to 0°C) b. 35°F to 65°F (2°C to 18°C) c. 68°F to 78°F (20°C to 26°C) X d. 90°F to 110°F (32°C to 43°C) 4. How is the high-voltage (HV) battery charged in a plug-in hybrid electric vehicle (PHEV)?

(Text page 1068) a. Using the ICE to turn the motor/generator to fully charge the HV battery b. Using an external charging station or electrical outlet X c. Can be charged to full capacity by using a special dealer only high-voltage charger d. Operating the ICE at idle after returning from a trip 5. Which type of vehicle is considered to be a ZEV? (Text page 1069) a. An electric vehicle (EV) X b. A plug-in hybrid electric vehicle (PHEV) c. A hybrid electric vehicle (HEV) d. All of the above 6. Why does warm weather decrease the range of an electric vehicle? (Text page 1069) a. Batteries do not function well at high temperatures. b. Batteries have to supply the power needed to keep the interior of the vehicle cool. c. Batteries must supply power to help keep the batteries themselves cool. d. All of the above X 7. The standard charging station plug is usually what SAE standard? (Text page 1070) a. J1777 b. J1772 X c. J1930 d. J1427 8. Which type (level) of charger usually requires that the vehicle be charged overnight?

(Text page 1070) a. Level 1 X b. Level 2 c. Level 3 d. J1772 9. Which type (level) of charger may be harmful to the battery? (Text page 1071) a. Level 1 b. Level 2 c. Level 3 X d. J1772 229 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

10. Why must the charger cord be unreeled and laid out in a straight line when charging an EV or a PHEV? (Text page 1070) a. To prevent heat buildup in the cable X b. To prevent electromagnetic interference c. To allow the current to flow faster to the vehicle d. All of the above

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CHAPTER 94 Hybrid Safety and Service Procedures REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the recommended items that should be used when working with the high-voltage circuits of a hybrid electric vehicle? (Text page 1073) Most hybrid electric vehicle manufacturers recommend the wearing of high-voltage (1,000 volts) linesman’s gloves with protective leather gloves over them. Some vehicle manufacturers recommend wearing a face shield.

2. What actions are needed to disable the high-voltage (HV) circuit? (Text page 1079) The actions needed to disable the high-voltage circuits vary according to the exact make and model of vehicle, but usually include: a. Turn the ignition off and remove the key b. Remove high-voltage control fuses c. Remove high-voltage service plug d. Disconnect the 12-volt auxiliary battery 3. What are the precautions that service technicians should adhere to when servicing hybrid electric vehicles? (Text page 1081) The service technician can perform routine service without having to disable the high-voltage circuits. However, if service work is to be performed on a system or component that has high voltage, follow the specified de-powering procedures before service work starts and wear protective high-voltage linesman’s gloves.

4. How should HV gloves be tested before use? (Text page 1074) Before using the rubber gloves, they should be tested for leaks using the following procedure: Roll the glove up from the open end until the lower portion of the glove begins to balloon from the resulting air pressure. Be sure to “lean” into the sealed glove to raise the internal air pressure. If the glove leaks any air, discard the gloves.

5. How is the ICE kept running if this is needed to perform some service inspections or service operations? (Text page 1077) Use a scan tool and select “service mode”, “maintenance mode” or “inspection mode”.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Rubber gloves should be worn whenever working on or near the high-voltage circuits or components of a hybrid electric vehicle. Technician A says that the rubber gloves should be rated at 1,000 volts or higher. Technician B says that leather gloves should be worn over the high-voltage rubber gloves. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1073) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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2. A CAT III-certified DMM should be used whenever measuring high-voltage circuits or components. The CAT III rating relates to ________________. (Text page 1074) a. high voltage b. high energy c. high electrical resistance d. both a and b X 3. All of the following will shut off the high voltage to components and circuits, except __________. (Text page 1079) a. opening the driver’s door X b. turning the ignition off c. disconnecting the 12-volt auxiliary battery d. removing the main fuse, relay, or HV plug 4. If the engine is not running, Technician A says that the high-voltage circuits are de-powered.

Technician B says that all high-voltage wiring is orange-color. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1076) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 5. Which statement is false about high-voltage wiring? (Text page 1076) a. Connects the battery pack to the electric controller b. Connects the controller to the motor/generator c. Is electrically grounded to the frame (body) of the vehicle X d. Is controlled by a relay that opens if the ignition is off 6. What routine service procedure could result in lower fuel economy, which the owner may discover? (Text pages 1081; 1083) a. Using the wrong viscosity engine oil b. Replacing tires c. Replacing the air filter d. Either a or b X 7. Two technicians are discussing jump starting a hybrid electric vehicle. Technician A says that the high-voltage (HV) batteries can be jumped on all HEV models. Technician B says that the 12-volt auxiliary battery can be jumped using a conventional jump box or jumper cable.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 1079) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. What can occur if a hybrid electric vehicle is pushed in the shop? (Text page 1080) a. The HV battery pack can be damaged b. The tires will be locked unless the ignition is on c. Damage to the electronic controller can occur d. High voltage will be generated by the motor/generator X

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9. Nickel metal hydride (NiMH) batteries can be damaged if exposed to temperatures higher than about ________. (Text page 1079) a. 150°F (66°C) X b. 175°F (79°C) c. 200°F (93°C) d. 225°F (107°C) 10. The local interlock system on a hybrid vehicle detects when ________ have been removed from high-voltage circuits. (Text page 1075) a. covers X b. screws c. cables d. bolts

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CHAPTER 95 Fuel Cells and Advanced Technologies REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How does a fuel cell work? (Text page 1088) A fuel cell generates electricity by harnessing the energy that is released when hydrogen combines with oxygen. Hydrogen is fed to one side of a catalyst-coated membrane, while oxygen is fed to the other side. The proton from the hydrogen is allowed to pass through the membrane, but the electron must follow a path external to the fuel cell to combine with the oxygen on the opposite side. This electron flow is converted into usable power by sending it through an electrical load such as a motor.

2. What are the advantages and disadvantages of fuel cells? (Text pages 1087-1088) The advantages of a fuel cell include zero emissions (only water and heat), high efficiency relative to an internal combustion engine, and no moving parts. The disadvantages of a fuel cell include high cost, lack of refueling infrastructure, perceived safety issues, lack of vehicle range, lack of durability, freeze starting problems, and insufficient power density.

3. What are the uses of the various types of fuel cells? (Text page 1089) Uses of the various types of fuel cells include: PAFC (Phosphoric Acid Fuel Cell) – used for stationary power applications PEM (Proton Exchange Membrane Fuel Cell) – used in vehicles, portable power, small stationary power MCFC (Molten Carbonate Fuel Cell) – used in industrial and institutional power SOFC (Solid Oxide Fuel Cell) – used in stationary power and military vehicle applications DMFC (Direct Methanol Fuel Cell) – used in small portable power applications 4. How does an ultracapacitor work? (Text page 1094) Ultracapacitors can be used in hybrid-electric vehicle applications to store electrical energy during regenerative braking, and then discharge that energy as the vehicle accelerates. Ultracapacitors lack energy density, but can charge and discharge very rapidly and are sometimes used in place of the battery pack in fuel cell hybrid vehicle designs.

5. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using hydrogen? (Text pages 1092-1093) Advantages of using hydrogen include zero emissions, quiet operation, and ability to generate hydrogen using renewable energy sources. Disadvantages of using hydrogen include limited vehicle range, perceived safety issues, a lack of fueling infrastructure, and low well-to-tank efficiency.

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CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A fuel cell produces electricity from ______________ and _______________.

(Text page 1088) a. gasoline/oxygen b. nitrogen/hydrogen c. hydrogen/oxygen X d. water/oxygen 2. What are the by-products (emissions) from a fuel cell? (Text page 1088) a. Water vapor X b. CO2 c. CO d. Nonmethane hydrocarbon 3. Which type of fuel cell is the most likely to be used to power vehicles? (Text page 1088) a. PAFC b. PEM X c. MCFC d. SOFC 4. Which liquid fuel could be used to directly power a fuel cell? (Text page 1090) a. Methanol X b. Ethanol c. Biodiesel d. Unleaded gasoline 5. Which is not a function of an ultracapacitor? (Text page 1094) a. Can pass AC current b. Can be charged with DC current c. Discharges DC current d. Can pass DC current X 6. The experimental hydraulic storage system is used to assist in the ________ of full-size vehicles. (Text page 1096) a. acceleration X b. braking c. both a and b d. neither a nor b 7. Hydrogen storage tanks are usually constructed from _______________. (Text page 1093) a. steel b. aluminum c. carbon fiber d. both b and c X 8. HCCI is a process that eliminates what parts or components in a gasoline engine?

(Text page 1097) a. Fuel tank b. Battery 235 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. Fuel injectors d. Ignition system X 9. Which energy source(s) is (are) currently being used to help reduce the use of fossil fuels?

(Text pages 1097-1098) a. Hydrogen b. Wind power c. Hydroelectric power d. Both b and c X 10. What does H70-T40 mean when describing a hydrogen filling station? (Text page 1090) a. The type of hydrogen b. The temperature and pressure rating X c. The size of the storage tank d. The estimated time needed to fill the tank

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CHAPTER 96 Braking System Components and Performance Standards REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. List the differences between drum brakes and disc brakes. (Text page 1099) Disc brakes squeeze two friction pads against both sides of a rotor, whereas in a drum brake, the friction material is forced outward against a rotating drum.

2. List the six brake subsystem categories. (Text page 1101) The six brake subsystem categories include: apply, boost, hydraulic, wheel brakes, brake balance control, and instrument panel warning lights.

3. Explain how ABS units prevent wheel lockup. (Text page 1101; 1103) An antilock brake system pulses the brake on and off to prevent the tires from skidding during an ABS event.

4. List ten of the brake tests performed under the Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard (FMVSS) 135. (Text pages 1104-1105) The ten tests performed under the FMVSS 135 include: ABS performance, adhesion utilization, cold effectiveness, high-speed effectiveness, stops with engine off, antilock function failure, variable brake proportioning, hydraulic circuit failure, brake power-assist unit inoperative, parking brake.

5. What is the purpose any brake repair? (Text page 1105) The purpose of any repair is to restore like-new performance.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Disc brakes use replaceable friction material called __________. (Text page 1100-1101) a. linings b. pads X c. core d. web 2. Drum brakes use replaceable friction material called ________. (Text page 1100-1101) a. shoes X b. pads c. core d. web 3. Technician A says that a power-assisted brake reduces stopping distances compared with a non-power-assisted brake system. Technician B says that the power-assisted brake system reduces the force that the driver must exert on the brake pedal. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1101) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X

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c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. What is the color of the antilock brake system (ABS) warning lamp? (Text page 1101) a. Red b. Amber X c. Yellow d. Green 5. If a vehicle is equipped with antilock brakes, ____________. (Text page 1103) a. the vehicle is able to be steered during hard braking X b. the brake pedal pulsates during normal braking c. the vehicle is able to stop in a shorter distance, regardless of road conditions d. all of the above 6. The FMVSS 135 standards determine ____________. (Text page 1104) a. the design of the braking system b. the performance of the braking system X c. the materials used in the braking system d. all of the above 7. An owner of a vehicle equipped with ABS brakes complained that whenever he tried to stop on icy or slippery roads, the brake pedal would pulse up and down rapidly. Technician A says that this is normal for many ABS units. Technician B says that the ABS unit is malfunctioning. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1103) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Which of the following will turn on the red brake warning lamp (RBWL)? (Text page 1101) a. Hydraulic system failure b. Low brake fluid level c. During a bulb check d. All of the above X 9. All of the following are specified by the FMVSS 135 except ________________.

(Text pages 1104-1105) a. brake burnish procedure b. variable brake proportioning system c. brake noise levels X d. cold effectiveness 10. What is the purpose of any brake repair? (Text page 1105) a. Reduce noise during braking b. Replace pads and linings c. Restore proper brake pedal height d. Restore like-new performance X

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CHAPTER 97 Braking System Principles and Friction Materials REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is kinetic energy? (Text page 1107) Kinetic energy is the energy of a mass in motion.

2. What is inertia? (Test page 1108) Inertia is defined by Isaac Newton’s first law of motion, which states that a body at rest tends to remain at rest, and a body in motion tends to remain in motion in a straight line unless acted upon by an outside force.

3. What is the coefficient of friction? (Text page 1109) The coefficient of friction is the measurement of the amount of friction between two surfaces. The higher the number from zero to one, the greater the friction.

4. Why is copper being removed from brake friction material? (Text page 1113) Copper is a pollutant because: •

It is toxic to certain sensitive species of algae (phytoplankton) that form the base of the aquatic food chain.

• Copper also directly damages the sensory capabilities of salmon, making it difficult for them to avoid predators or find their way back to their spawning grounds.

5. What is the meaning of the friction code letter printed on the edge of brake linings and pads?

(Text page 1114) After January 1, 2014, all brake shoes and pads were required to have manufacturer’s edge codes, which indicate all of the following: • • • • • • • •

Company code Pad number Formulation code Vendor number Friction code Week number that the brakes were made Environmental code (A, B, or N) Year of manufacture

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Which Greek letter is used to represent the coefficient of friction? (Text page 1109) a. Mu (μ) X b. Omega (Ω) c. Delta (Δ) d. Pi (π)

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2. The amount of asbestos in brake friction material is being restricted because ____________.

(Text page 1111) a. it does not transfer heat to the drum/rotor b. it is a health hazard X c. asbestos worn from brakes contaminate rivers and streams d. it causes excessive brake drum/rotor wear 3. What type of binder is used in all brake friction materials? (Text page 1112) a. Rubber scrap b. Carbon c. Phenolic resin X d. Ceramic powders 4. An edge code reading for coefficient of friction is EF. This means______________ .

(Text page 1114-1115) a. the coefficient of friction is 0.50 b. The coefficient of friction is higher when the brakes are cold c. the coefficient of friction is higher when the brakes are hot X d. a higher quality brake has a code of FF 5. Brake pads and linings that use synthetic material, such as aramid fibers, instead of steel are usually referred to as _____________. (Text page 1112) a. NAO b. NAS c. ceramic d. any of the above X 6. What can the driver do to reduce the possibility of brake fade caused by heat?

(Text page 1111) a. Ride the brakes to keep the shoes and pads against the drum or rotor b. Pump the brake pedal while descending a steep hill c. Select a lower transmission gear X d. Shift the transmission into neutral and allow the vehicle to coast down long or steep hills 7. Brake fade can occur due to____________ . (Text page 1110) a. mechanical fade b. gas fade c. water fade d. any of the above X 8. Why is copper being reduced in brake friction materials? (Text page 1113) a. Because it is a health concern when it becomes airborne b. It can affect life in rivers and streams X c. To help reduce the weight of the vehicle d. To help reduce the cost of the brake linings/pads 9. The kinetic energy of a vehicle traveling at 60 mph is ______when compared to the same vehicle traveling at 30 mph. (Text page 1108) a. twice as much b. three time higher 240 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. four times as much X d. ten times higher 10. Disc brake pads can reach temperatures as high as ____________. (Text page 1111) a. 300°F (150°C) b. 1,000°F (540°C) c. 1,300°F (700°C) X d. 1,800°F (980°C)

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CHAPTER 98 Brake Hydraulic Systems REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Explain Pascal's Law? (Text page 1118) Pascal’s Law states that when force is applied to a confined liquid, the pressure is equally transmitted undiminished and in every direction.

2. How does a master cylinder work? (Text page 1122) The force of the driver’s foot on the brake pedal compresses brake fluid in the master cylinder using two pistons, one for each circuit.

3. What is the difference between a dual split and a diagonal split master cylinder?

(Text pages 1125-1126) A dual split hydraulic system separates the two front wheel brakes into one circuit and the two rear wheel brakes into another circuit whereas, a diagonally split system separates the brakes into right front and left rear on one circuit and left front and right rear on the other circuit.

4. What is the difference between checking for venting (compensation) and bypassing?

(Text pages 1125 ; 1129) Venting occurs every time the brake pedal is depressed, which forces a small amount of brake fluid up into the master cylinder reservoir as the primary piston is moving forward. Bypassing is a fault where brake fluid from the rear circuit is forced into the front brake circuit.

5. What are the master cylinder fault symptoms? (Text page 1129) Some common master cylinder fault symptoms include: • • •

Spongy brake pedal.

Lower-than-normal brake pedal Sinking brake pedal

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Two technicians are discussing master cylinders. Technician A says that it is normal to see fluid movement in the reservoir when the brake pedal is depressed. Technician B says a defective master cylinder can cause the brake pedal to slowly sink to the floor when depressed. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1127-1129) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. What law of hydraulics does the brake system use? (Text page 1118) a. Ohm’s Law b. Pascal’s Law X 242 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

c. Watt’s Law d. All of the above The primary brake circuit fails due to a leak in the lines, leaving the rear section of a dual split master cylinder. Technician A says that the driver will notice a lower than normal brake pedal and some reduced braking power. Technician B says that the brake pedal will "grab" higher than normal. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1126) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B Two technicians are discussing a problem where the brake pedal travels too far before the vehicle starts to slow. Technician A says that the brakes may be out of adjustment.

Technician B says that one circuit from the master cylinder may be leaking or defective.

Which technician is correct? ( Text page 1129) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B Air in the lines will cause what type of problem? (Text page 1129) a. Vibration in the brake pedal during stops b. Low spongy brake pedal X c. Brake noise d. Hard brake pedal The master cylinder is able to move about how much brake fluid during each brake application? (Text page 1119) a. One tablespoon b. One teaspoon X c. One cu. in. d. 50 ml Brake fluid pressure is measured in what unit? (Text page 1119) a. Sq. in. b. Pounds c. Inches d. PSI X How much brake fluid is in a typical master cylinder reservoir? (Text page 1122) a. One gallon b. Enough to allow all brakes to become completely worn X c. 15 to 20 liters d. One pint What part in the master cylinder helps keep air from contacting the brake fluid yet allows the fluid level to drop as the disc brakes wear? (Text page 1122) a. Vent valve b. Compensating vale

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c. Residual valve d. Rubber diaphragm or floating disc X 10. Technician A says that the brake fluid level should not be filled higher than the “MAX” level line to allow room for expansion when the brake fluid gets hot. Technician B says that the brake system should be checked for leaks or worn disc brake pads if the brake fluid is low.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 1122) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 99 Hydraulic Valves and Switches REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How can dynamic rear proportioning (DRP) take the place of the proportioning valve?

(Text page 1138) Most new vehicles with antilock brake systems have eliminated the need for a conventional brake proportioning valve. Instead, this becomes a function of the antilock brake system controller. Often referred to as dynamic rear proportioning (DRP), this system removes the need for a mechanical proportioning valve.

2. What reasons could cause the red brake warning lamp to come on during driving?

(Text page 1132-1133) A pressure-differential switch is used on vehicles built after 1967 with front/rear master cylinders to warn the driver of a loss of pressure in one of the two separate systems by lighting the dashboard red brake warning indicator lamp. This system was used until it was replaced with the brake fluid level sensors used on newer vehicles.

3. Why are metering valves not used on all vehicles? (Text page 1140) Metering valves are not needed on front-wheel-drive vehicles because of the forward weight bias and they use a diagonal-split hydraulic system instead of a front/rear split system used on rear-wheel-drive vehicles.

4. What are the split point and the slope of a proportioning valve? (Text pages 1134; 1136) The proportioning valve limits the pressure to the rear brakes after a certain pressure is achieved. This pressure is called the split point. A portion of the front brake pressure that is sent to the rear brakes is called the slope.

5. What is the difference between a brake pedal switch and a brake pedal sensor?

(Text pages 1142-1143) On older vehicles, the brake switch was used to turn on the brake lights. Most new vehicles use the brake pedal position (BPP) sensor or switch as an input to the body computer for many functions. This sensor is a three-wire potentiometer that returns a variable voltage signal to the ABS controller to indicate the position of the brake pedal.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says a pull to the right during braking could be caused by a defective metering valve. Technician B says a pull to the left could be caused by a defective proportioning valve.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 1142) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X

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2. The rear brakes lock up during a hard braking. Technician A says the metering valve could be the cause. Technician B says that a defective proportioning valve could be the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1138) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 3. Technician A says the metering valve controls the flow of brake fluid to the front brakes.

Technician B says that proportioning valve is used to control the brake fluid pressure to the rear brakes. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1134; 1139) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. A combination valve could include__________________. (Text page 1141) a. metering and proportioning valves b. proportioning and pressure-differential valves c. proportioning, metering, and pressure-differential valves d. any of the above depending on the make and model of the vehicle X 5. Which one of these sends an electrical signal to the antilock brake control module?

(Text pages 1142-1143) a. Brake pedal position sensor X b. Residual check valve c. Pressure-differential switch d. All of these 6. Technician A says that the red brake warning light can be turned on if a difference in pressure is detected by the pressure-differential switch. Technician B says that the red brake warning light can be turned on if the brake fluid level sensor detected low brake fluid level. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1133) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Which type of vehicles most often do not use metering valves? (Text page 1140) a. Rear-wheel drive b. Four-wheel drive c. Front-wheel drive X d. All-wheel drive 8. Technician A says that some proportioning valves are one part and used to control both rear brakes. Technician B says that some proportioning valves are two parts; one for each rear wheel brake. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1134) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only

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c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 9. The button on the _______________ valve should be held when pressure bleeding the brakes.

(Text page 1141) a. metering X b. proportioning c. pressure-differential d. residual check 10. A typical brake pedal position (BPP) sensor/switch is_____________ . (Text page 1142) a. electrically normally open X b. electrically normally closed c. checked using an ammeter d. checked using a special tester

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CHAPTER 100 Brake Fluid and Lines REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the difference between DOT 3, DOT 4, DOT 5.1, and DOT 5 brake fluid?

(Text pages 1144-1145) DOT 3, 4, and 5.1 are polyglycol based whereas, DOT 5 is silicone based. DOT 4 and DOT 5.1 have higher boiling points, as well as, some additive differences.

2. What are four things that should be done during a thorough inspection of the brake fluid?

(Text pages 1146-1147) The four things that should be done during an inspection of the brake fluid include: checking for proper level, checking for color and condition, testing for absorbed moisture, and testing for contamination.

3. What are four precautions that should be followed when handling brake fluid?

(Text page 1148) Precautions for handling brake fluid include: store the brake fluid only in its original container, clean the top of containers before opening, do not reuse brake fluid, and do not transfer brake fluid to any other container that could have contained oil, gasoline, or antifreeze.

4. What are the two types of flares used on brake lines? (Text page 1150) The two types of brake line flares include ISO and double-lap flare.

5. Why are some brake lines coiled? (Text page 1152) Some brake line is coiled to allow for movement between brake system components without breaking.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The type of brake fluid most often recommended by vehicle manufacturers is _______.

(Text page 1144) a. DOT 3 X b. DOT 4 c. DOT 5 d. DOT 5.1 2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of conventional brake fluid? (Text page 1145) a. Absorbs moisture from the air b. Removes paint if spilled on vehicle surfaces c. Lasts the life of the vehicle unless there is a leak X d. Is clear or amber in color 3. Technician A says that DOT 5 brake fluid can be added to DOT 3 brake fluid. Technician B says that it is wise to purchase brake fluid that is in metal rather than plastic containers.

Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1145-1146) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X 248 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. As brake fluid ages, what happens? (Text page 1147) a. The boiling temperature decreases X b. The boiling temperature increases c. The viscosity (thickness) decreases d. The color changes to purple 5. Technician A says that glycol-based brake fluid causes the seals to swell slightly. Technician B says the DOT 5 (silicone-based) brake fluid causes rubber seals to swell slightly. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1149) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. The two types of flares used on brake lines are _______________. (Text page 1150) a. SAE and DOT b. double flare and ISO X c. ball flare and bubble flare d. SAE and double flare 7. Two technicians are discussing why the brake lines are coiled near the master cylinder on many vehicles. Technician A says that these coils help prevent moisture from flowing from the master cylinder to the calipers. Technician B says that they help prevent cracks that could be caused by vibrations. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1151) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Flexible brake hose should be inspected for all of the following except: _________ (Text pages 1155) a. cracks b. leakage c. twisted d. worn outer ribs X 9. Why should brake calipers be supported by a wire during brake service and not allowed to hang by the flexible brake hose? (Text page 1152) a. To keep air from getting into the system b. To help prevent damage to the brake hose X c. To hold the caliper higher than the master cylinder to prevent fluid loss d. To prevent bending the hose support bracket 10. Used brake fluid should be _____________. (Text page 1148) a. mixed with and recycled with used oil b. poured down the drain c. disposed of properly according to State and local laws X d. poured onto open ground to reduce dust 249 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 101 Brake Bleeding Methods and Procedures REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Describe how to bench bleed a master cylinder. (Text page 1156) A master cylinder is bench bled by clamping the ears (not the housing) in a vise and stroking the master cylinder with tubes installed at the outlet until all of the air is bled from the unit.

2. What steps are necessary to manually bleed a brake hydraulic system?

(Text pages 1158-1159) The steps necessary to manually bleed a hydraulic brake system includes: opening the bleeder, having an assistant slowly depress the brake pedal, closing the bleeder valve, having an assistant slowly release the brake pedal, and then wait 15 seconds.

3. What are the equipment and the procedures needed to pressure bleed a brake hydraulic system? (Text page 1161) A pressure bleeder and adapter are needed to pressure bleed a hydraulic brake system.

Do not exceed 20 psi or the pressure specified by the vehicle manufacturer and follow the specified bleeding sequence.

4. Explain how to gravity bleed a brake hydraulic system. (Text page 1160) To gravity bleed a brake hydraulic system, simply open a bleeder(s) and allow gravity to force brake fluid downward and out of the open bleeder valve. Any trapped air will escape before the fluid flows.

5. Describe how to vacuum bleed a brake hydraulic system. (Text page 1159) A vacuum pump is attached to the open bleeder valve and brake fluid is drawn from the wheel brake until all of the foam and air have been removed.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Two technicians are discussing bench bleeding a master cylinder. Technician A says that the front (nose end) of the master cylinder should be bled first. Technician B says that the rear (brake pedal end) should be bled first. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1156) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. Air in the brake hydraulic system can cause all except_____________ . (Text page 1156) a. spongy brake pedal b. hard brake pedal X c. lower-than-normal brake pedal d. may require the driver to “pump up” the brakes before they will stop the vehicle

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3. Two technicians are discussing how to loosen bleeder valves. Technician A says that a shock is usually necessary to break the taper at the base of the valve. Technician B says to apply steady, loosening torque to the bleeder valve using a 6-point wrench. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1157) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. The brake bleeding procedure usually specified for a rear-wheel vehicle with a dual split master cylinder is _________________. (Text page 1158) a. RR, LR, RF, LF X b. LF, RF, LR, RR c. RF, LR, LF, RR d. LR, RR, LF, RF 5. Technician A says that the brake pedal should be depressed with as much force as possible during the normal bleeding procedure. Technician B says that the brake pedal should be pumped rapidly during this manual bleeding procedure to force the air down toward the bleeder valve(s). Which technician is correct? (Text page 1158) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X 6. Where is vacuum applied where during vacuum bleeding? (Text page 1159) a. At each wheel brake bleeder valve X b. At the master cylinder reservoir c. At the vacuum booster check valve d. At the metering valve end of the combination valve 7. The bleeder is opened at a caliper and no brake fluid flows out. Technician A says that this is normal and that brake fluid should not flow or drip out of an open bleeder valve. Technician B says that the vent port in the master cylinder may be blocked. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1160) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. The button on the valve should be held when pressure bleeding the brakes. (Text page 1161) a. Metering X b. Proportioning c. Pressure-differential d. Residual check 9. The usual maximum pressure that should be used when pressure bleeding a brake system is________ . (Text page 1162) a. 20 PSI b. 30 PSI X 251 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. 50 PSI d. 70 PSI 10. When bleeding the brakes on a vehicle equipped with an antilock brake system, what is the function of the scan tool? (Text page 1164) a. To open the bleeder valves b. To maintain the fluid level in the reservoir c. To cycle the solenoids in the ABS unit X d. To turn off the ABS light

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CHAPTER 102 Wheel Bearings and Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are three common types of automotive antifriction bearings? (Text page 1167) Three types of automotive antifriction bearings include: ball bearings, roller bearings, and tapered roller bearings.

2. What is the adjustment procedure for a typical tapered roller wheel bearing?

(Text pages 1171-1174) The adjustment procedure for a typical tapered roller wheel bearing includes: tightening the spindle nut while rotating the wheel, then loosening the nut (while still rotating the wheel), tighten the spindle nut by hand. Install the cotter key.

3. What are four symptoms of a defective wheel bearing? (Text page 1170) A defective wheel bearing usually makes a sound like a noisy tire (growl or wobble).Additional symptoms include noise, vibration, and roughness felt in the steering wheel.

4. How is the rear axle removed from a C-lock-type axle? (Text page 1177) The differential cover and pinion shaft have to be removed before allowing access to the c-clip (lock), which holds the rear axle.

5. What is the meaning of the different colors of grease? (Text page 1169) Grease is colored for identification, marketing, and for consistency of color reasons.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Which type of automotive bearing can withstand radial and thrust loads, yet must be adjusted for proper clearance? (Text page 1167) a. Roller bearing b. Tapered roller bearing X c. Ball bearings d. Needle roller bearing 2. Most sealed bearings used on the front wheels of front-wheel-drive vehicles are usually which type? (Text page 1169) a. Roller bearing b. Single tapered roller bearing c. Double row ball bearing X d. Needle roller bearing 3. The bearing grease most often specified is rated NLGI __________________.

(Text page 1169) a. #00 b. #0 c. #1 d. #2 X 253 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4. Technician A says that a defective wheel or axle bearing often makes a growling or rumbling noise. Technician B says that a defective wheel or axle bearing often makes a noise similar to a tire with an aggressive mud or snow design. Which technician is correct?

(Text pages 1170-1171) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 5. After a non-drive-wheel bearing has been properly adjusted, the wheel should have how much end play? (Text page 1174) a. Zero b. 0.001 to 0.005 inch X c. 0.10 to 0.30 inch d. 1/16 to 3/32 inch 6. What part(s) should be replaced when servicing a wheel bearing on a non-drive wheel?

(Text pages 1173-1174) a. The bearing cup b. The grease seal c. The cotter key d. Both the grease seal and the cotter key X 7. Two technicians are discussing differentials. Technician A says all differentials are vented.

Technician B says that a clogged vent can cause the rear axle seal to leak. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1178) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Which type of drive axle would a heavy-duty truck tractor have? (Text page 1175) a. Full-floating X b. Semi-floating c. Three-quarter floating d. Any of these 9. The differential cover must be removed before removing the rear axle on which type of axle?

(Text page 1176) a. Retainer plate b. C-lock X c. Press fit d. Welded tube 10. On a bearing that has been shock loaded, the race (cup) of the bearing can be dented. This type of bearing failure is called ______________. (Text page 1179) a. spalling b. arcing c. brinelling X d. fluting 254 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 103 Drum Brakes REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the difference between a dual-servo and a leading–trailing drum brake system?

(Text page 1190-1191) A dual-servo brake uses the force of the primary brake shoe to engage the secondary shoe against the drum with even greater force. In a leading/trailing drum brake, each shoe works independently resulting in a more linear brake application.

2. List all the parts of a typical drum brake. (Text pages 1186-1189) The parts of a typical drum brake include, backing plate, anchor pin, primary (leading) shoe, secondary (trailing) shoe, hold-down springs, adjusting levers, and return springs.

3. How does a self-adjusting brake mechanism work? (Text pages 1192-1194) A typical self-adjuster moves the star wheel adjuster when the brakes are released after a brake application when the vehicle is traveling in reverse.

4. Why should a driver allow the brakes to cool before backing a long distance?

(Text page 1195) The brakes could over adjust if the driver repeatedly depresses and releases the brake pedal while backing the trailer down the boat ramp.

5. What is a labyrinth seal? (Text page 1185) The lip fits into a machined groove in the open edge of the brake drum to provide an even better water barrier or seal. This type of seal is called a labyrinth seal.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A vehicle with drum brakes on the rear wheels will usually have brakes on the front wheels.

(Text page 1183) a. Expanding shoe b. Disc X c. Banded d. Internal shoe 2. Technician A says that some drum brakes can fail to slow the vehicle if driven through deep water. Technician B says that when drum brakes get hot, the brake pedal will drop because the drum expands away from the shoes. Which technician is correct?

(Text pages 1183; 1185) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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3. Two technicians are discussing drum brake shoes. Technician A says that forward and rearward facing shoes are the same and can be installed in either position on any drum brake system. Technician B says that the longer lining should always be placed toward the front of the vehicle. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1187) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X 4. Which part of the drum brake shoe contacts the ledges on the backing plate?

(Text page 1187) a. Anchor eye b. Nib X c. Web d. Lining table 5. A typical drum brake backing plate has how many shoe support pads (also called ledges)?

(Text page 1185) a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 X d. 8 6. Which lining does most of the braking on a dual-servo brake? (Text page 1191) a. Front (forward facing) b. Rear (rearward facing) X c. Both contribute equally d. Depends on the speed of the vehicle 7. Which lining wears the most on a leading-trailing brake? (Text page 1190) a. Leading (forward facing) X b. Trailing (rearward facing) c. Both contribute equally d. Depends on the speed of the vehicle 8. Technician A says that starwheel adjusters use different threads (left- and right-handed) for the left and right sides of the vehicle. Technician B says that a pawl controls the teeth of the starwheel adjuster. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1193) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 9. Technician A says that self-adjusters used on most drum brakes work when the brakes are applied, then release while traveling in reverse. Technician B says that some adjusters can over-adjust if the brake drums are hot. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1195) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 256 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

10. Two technicians are discussing drum brake self-adjusters. Technician A says that a frozen starwheel adjuster can cause the brakes to lock up due to the adjusting lever being unable to move the adjuster causing the linkage to bind. Technician B says that some brakes self-adjust when the brakes are applied rather than when released. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1195) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 104 Drum Brake Diagnosis and Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Explain how to remove a brake drum. (Text pages 1197-1198) Before a brake drum is removed, the wheel and speed nut(s) (if equipped) must be removed. A hubless drum should slide off of the bearing hub, but some drums may come equipped with threaded holes where bolts can be installed to remove the drums.

2. What are the items that should be lubricated on a drum brake? (Text page 1204) The items that should be lubricated on a drum brake include: a. The six ledges on the backing plate b. The shoe anchor c. The self-adjuster at both ends and on the threads 3. What are the steps necessary to follow when replacing drum brake linings?

(Text pages 1199-1204) The steps necessary when replacing drum brake linings include: cleaning and lubricating the backing plate, installing the shoes and hold-down springs, installing the self-adjuster mechanism and return springs.

4. Why do many vehicle manufacturers not recommend the wheel cylinder be honed?

(Text page 1201) Many wheel cylinders are made using a bearingized surface which would be removed if honed.

5. What is the purpose of Tinnerman nuts? (Text page 1198) The tinnerman nuts can be discarded because they are not needed after the vehicle leaves the assembly plant.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that the tinnerman nuts are used to hold the brake drum on and should be reinstalled when the drum is replaced. Technician B says that a drum should be removed inside a sealed vacuum enclosure or washed with water or solvent to prevent possible asbestos dust from being released into the air. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1197) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. The backing plate should be replaced if the shoe contact areas (pads or ledges) are worn more than __________. (Text page 1200) a. 1/2 in. (13 mm) b. 1/4 in. (7 mm) c. 1/8 in. (4 mm) d. 1/16 in. (2 mm) X 258 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3. Technician A says that silicone brake grease can be used to lubricate the shoe contact ledges.

Technician B says that synthetic brake grease, lithium brake grease, or antiseize compound can be used as a brake lubricant. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1204) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. Most brake experts and vehicle manufacturers recommend replacing brake lining when the lining thickness is ____________________. (Text page 1200) a. 0.030 in. (0.8 mm) b. 0.040 in. (1.0 mm) c. 0.050 in. (1.3 mm) d. 0.060 in. (1.5 mm) X 5. Technician A says that many vehicle manufacturers recommend that wheel cylinders not be honed because of the special surface finish inside the bore. Technician B says that some experts recommend that the wheel cylinders be replaced every time the brake linings are replaced. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1202) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. Most manufacturers recommend that brake parts should be cleaned with__________ .

(Text page 1203) a. clean water only b. denatured alcohol X c. stoddard solvent d. detergent and water 7. After assembling a drum brake, it is discovered that the brake drum will not fit over the new brake shoes. Technician A says that the parking brake cable may not have been fully released.

Technician B says to check to see if both shoes are contacting the anchor pin. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1205) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Technician A says to use masking tape temporarily over the lining material to help prevent getting grease on the lining. Technician B says that grease on the brake lining can cause the brakes to grab. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1205) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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9. Technician A says that starwheel adjusters use different threads (left- and right-handed) for the left and right sides of the vehicle. Technician B says that the threads and end caps of the adjusters should be lubricated with brake grease before being installed. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1203) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. The drum brake on one side of a vehicle is dragging. Which of the following could NOT be the cause? (Text page 1206) a. Sticking wheel cylinder piston b. Improper shoe adjustment c. Broken retracting springs d. Air in the system X

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CHAPTER 105 Disc Brakes REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the advantages and disadvantages of disc brakes? (Text pages 1211-1213) Disc brake advantages include: fade resistance, self-adjustment, and freedom from pull.

Disadvantages include: lack of self-energizing or servo action, brake noise, brake dust, and poor parking brake performance.

2. What parts are included in a typical disc brake? (Text page 1214) A typical disc brake includes the caliper assembly, pads, clips, and mounting hardware.

3. How does a low-drag caliper work? (Text page 1220) A low-drag caliper works by retracting the caliper piston further into the caliper bore and away from the rotor. In a low-drag caliper design, the groove for the square-cut O-ring is V-shaped, allowing for more retraction.

4. What mechanism is used to apply the parking brake on a vehicle equipped with rear disc brakes? (Text page 1222) A vehicle equipped with rear disc brakes uses either a mechanically actuated drum brake inside the rear rotors or a mechanically activated caliper piston.

5. Where are anti-rattle clips used? (Text page 1213) Manufacturers use specific lining materials that damp vibrations, and most calipers have anti-rattle clips or springs that hold the pads in the caliper under tension to help prevent vibration.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What part causes the disc brake caliper piston to retract when the brakes are released?

(Text page 1213) a. Return (retracting) spring b. The rotating rotor (disc) that pushes the piston back c. The square-cut O-ring X d. The caliper bushings 2. Slots are often used in brake pads because they ___________. (Text page 1213) a. reduce brake noise b. increase brake life c. reduce brake fade X d. improve braking performance 3. Which of the following is NOT a component of a disc brake system? (Text page 1211; 1214) a. Backing plate X b. Splash shield c. Caliper d. Brake pads 261 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4. Technician A says that riveted disc brake pads are often quieter than bonded disc brake pads.

Technician B says integrally molded disc brake pads are molded into holes in the steel backing of the pads. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1216-1217) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 5. Two technicians are discussing the reason that the brake fluid level in the master cylinder drops. Technician A says that it may be normal due to the wear of the disc brake pads.

Technician B says that this is part of the wear compensation feature of disc brakes. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1219) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. Two technicians are discussing a floating-type disc brake caliper. Technician A says that if the caliper slides are corroded, one pad may wear more than the other pad on the same wheel brake. Technician B says that if a caliper slide is corroded, reduced braking may occur.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 1219) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Technician A says that disc brakes are self-adjusting and the brake pedal height should not become lower as the disc brake pads wear. Technician B says that as the disc brake pads wear, the level of brake fluid in the master cylinder reservoir drops. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1219) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Which type of disc brake caliper may leak brake fluid more often? (Text page 1219) a. Sliding b. Fixed X c. Floating d. Single-piston 9. Technician A says that all vehicles equipped with rear disc brakes use a parking brake that is integrated in the caliper. Technician B says that all vehicles equipped with rear disc brakes use a small drum brake inside the rear rotor for a parking brake. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1222) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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10. A four piston caliper is used in what type of caliper design? (Text page 1218) a. Floating b. Fixed X c. Sliding d. Either fixed or floating

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CHAPTER 106 Disc Brake Diagnosis and Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What parts are included in a typical overhaul kit for a single piston floating caliper?

(Text page 1229) A typical overhaul kit for a single piston floating caliper consists of a dust seal and a square-cut O-ring.

2. Describe how to remove caliper pistons and perform a caliper overhaul.

(Text pages 1228-1230) To remove a caliper piston, first remove the brake hose then apply compressed air (shop air) to the inlet of the caliper. The air pressure exerts enough force to remove the piston from the caliper bore. After piston removal and a thorough cleaning and inspection, a new square cut O-ring should be installed in the groove of the caliper bore. After lubricating the caliper piston with clean brake fluid, the caliper piston is pushed into the caliper bore. Check to see that the caliper seal is correctly installed. Properly seat the dust seal.

3. What causes disc brake squeal and what should a technician do to reduce or eliminate the noise? (Text page 1233) Disc brake squeal is often caused by movement of the disc brake pad during braking.

To reduce disc brake squeal, all mating surfaces of the brake should be clean and lubricated. Always use OEM recommended clips and anti-squeal shims. To further reduce noise, do not machine a disc brake rotor more than absolutely necessary.

4. Why should the bleeder valve be opened before pushing the piston back into the caliper when replacing brake pads? (Text page 1226) Most manufacturers recommend that the bleeder valve be opened and the brake fluid forced into a container rather than back into the master cylinder reservoir. This helps prevent contaminated brake fluid from being forced into the master cylinder where the dirt and contamination could cause problems.

5. What factors increase the possibility of brake noise? (Text page 1234) The factors that can increase brake noise include thin brake pads, thin brake rotors, dry caliper mounting and worn or defective anti-rattle clips.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A vehicle is in for a brake inspection and the red brake warning light is ON. Which of the following actions should the technician NOT take? (Text page 1224) a. Inspect the system for leaks b. Test drive the vehicle X c. Check brake pedal height d. Check the parking brake

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2. Uneven disc brake pad wear is being discussed. Technician A says the caliper piston may be stuck. Technician B says the caliper may be stuck on the slides and unable to “float.” Which technician is correct? (Text page 1227) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 3. A “chirping” noise is heard while the vehicle is moving forward, but stops when the brakes are applied. Technician A says that the noise is likely caused by the disc brake pad wear sensors. Technician B says the noise is likely a wheel bearing because the noise stops when the brakes are applied. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1225) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. Technician A says that disc brake pads should be replaced when worn to minimum allowable thickness. Technician B says the pads should be removed and inspected whenever there is a brake performance complaint. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1224) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 5. Two technicians are discussing ways of removing a caliper piston. Technician A says to use compressed air. Technician B says to use large pliers. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1227) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. Technician A says that a loaded caliper includes an overhauled caliper assembly but no brake pads or hardware. Technician B says that a loaded caliper includes the pads and all needed hardware. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1229) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Technician A says that a steel piston should be cleaned with sandpaper to remove rust.

Technician B says that the brake assembly fluid or clean brake fluid should be used to lubricate the caliper pistons before installing in the caliper. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1228-1229) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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8. Technician A says that a lack of lubrication on the back of the disc brake pads can cause brake noise. Technician B says that pads that are not correctly crimped to the caliper housing can cause brake noise. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1233-1234) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 9. What should be done after installing new disc brake pads? (Text page 1232) a. Pump the brake pedal several times X b. Test drive the vehicle c. Replace the rotors d. Rotate the piston back into the caliper 10. Which of the following lubricants should be used to lubricate moving or sliding disc brake components? (Text page 1233) a. Silicone grease b. Molybdenum disulfide (MOS2) grease c. Synthetic grease d. Any of the above X

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CHAPTER 107 Parking Brake Operation, Diagnosis, and Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How does a typical parking brake function on a vehicle equipped with rear drum brakes?

(Text page 1245) The parking brake uses a cable to mechanically (rather than hydraulically) apply the drum brake linings. When the parking brake is applied, a cable moves a parking brake lever that forces the brake shoe against the brake drum.

2. How does a typical parking brake function on a vehicle equipped with an integral rear disc brake system? (Text page 1246) The parking brake uses a cable to mechanically apply the caliper piston on a vehicle equipped with integral rear disc brakes. An actuating screw thread inside the caliper piston pushes the caliper piston against the disc brake rotor.

3. How is a parking brake properly adjusted? (Text page 1250) To properly adjust the parking brake cable, the rear brake must first be inspected and adjusted if necessary. The usual procedure for parking brake cable adjustment includes applying the parking brake 3 or 4 "clicks" and adjusting the cable until the rear brakes are applied.

4. What are the two types of electric parking brakes? (Text page 1251) Electric parking brake (EPB) systems are available using two different designs including the following: •

A cable-pulling type that uses an electric motor to pull the parking brake cable rather than a mechanical handle or foot pedal.

• A more advanced unit uses a computer-controlled motor attached to the brake caliper to activate it.

5. What is wrong when the parking brake cable is swollen? (Text page 1243) A cable that is larger in diameter in one section indicates that it is rusting inside and has swollen.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that the parking brake hand lever can turn on the red brake warning lamp.

Technician B says that a foot-operated parking brake can turn on the red brake warning lamp.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 1242) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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2. Technician A says that if the parking brake cable is adjusted too tight, the rear brakes may drag and overheat. Technician B says that the parking brake is adjusted properly if the cable is tight when in the released position. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1250) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 3. On most drum brake systems, the ___________ attaches to the parking brake lever or handle inside the vehicle. (Text page 1243) a. transfer cables b. control cables X c. application cables d. foot pedal 4. In a typical integral rear disc brake caliper, the parking brake cable moves the ___________.

(Text page 1246) a. caliper b. actuator screw X c. auxiliary piston d. rotor 5. On most vehicles, the ___________ transmit the force passed through the linkage to apply the rear brakes. (Text page 1243) a. transfer cables b. control cables c. application cables X d. foot pedal 6. The rear brakes should be inspected, and adjusted if necessary, if the parking brake requires more than _______. (Text page 1249) a. 5 clicks b. 10 clicks X c. 15 clicks d. 20 clicks 7. Technician A says that the parking brake cable should be adjusted at each wheel. Technician B says that the parking brake cable adjustment is usually done after adjusting the rear brakes.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 1250) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. A rear drum brake is being inspected. The primary shoe is not contacting the anchor pin at the top. Technician A says that this is normal. Technician B says that the parking brake cable may be adjusted too tight or is stuck. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1251) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X

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c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 9. Technician A says that a hose clamp can be used to compress the retainer fingers of a parking brake cable in order to remove it from the backing plate. Technician B says a box-end wrench can be used instead of a hose clamp. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1251) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. Technician A says that an electric parking brake (EPB) uses an electric motor to pull on the parking brake cable. Technician B says that some electric parking brake systems use a computer-controlled motor attached to the caliper. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1251) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 108 Machining Brake Drums and Rotors REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the difference between “machine to” specifications and “discard?” (Text page 1258) "Machine to" specifications indicate the minimum thickness (rotor) or maximum diameter (drum) that should be machined. "Discard" dimension is the maximum diameter (drum) or minimum thickness (rotor) that is allowed for wear after machining.

2. What are the steps for machining a brake drum? (Text pages 1259-1260) The steps necessary to machine brake drums include: a. Mount the drum on the lathe and install a damper b. Perform a scratch cut c. Rotate the drum and perform a second scratch cut d. Start the lathe and perform a rough, then a finish cut 3. Describe how to measure a disc brake rotor for lateral runout and thickness variation.

(Text page 1262) Measuring a disc brake rotor for lateral runout involves removing any bearing end-play and mounting a dial indicator (gauge) against the rotor. Any movement of the dial indicator while the rotor is being rotated indicates lateral runout. Thickness variation is measured using a micrometer about 1" from the outside of the rotor and measuring at least four or more equally spaced locations.

4. What are the steps for machining a disc brake rotor? (Text page 1267) The steps necessary for machining a disc brake rotor include: a. Mount the rotor to the lathe and install a damper. b. Perform a scratch cut. c. Move the rotor 180° and perform a second scratch cut. d. Start the lathe and perform a rough cut and a finish cut. e. Use sandpaper or other tools to create a smooth, non-directional surface finish.

5. What is necessary to achieve a “like new” disc brake rotor finish? (Text page 1268) A "like new" disc brake rotor finish is extremely smooth (less than 40 micro inches) and free from deep grooves and rust.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Brake drums use ________ for the friction surface area. (Text page 1254) a. cast iron X b. aluminum c. steel d. carbon

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2. Technician A says that hard spots in a brake drum should be removed using a carbide-tip machining tool. Technician B says that the drum should be replaced if hard spots are discovered. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1256) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 3. The major reason for brake pedal pulsation during braking is due to___________.

(Text page 1263) a. grooved rotors b. excessive rotor thickness variation X c. thin rotors d. poor surface finish on the rotors 4. After machining a rotor, what should be done? (Text page 1269) a. Installed on the vehicle b. Clean the rotor with soap and water X c. Rub the machined surface with a brake pad to burnish the surface d. Use new lug nuts when installing on the vehicle 5. A Typical maximum rotor thickness variation (parallelism) specifications is________ .

(Text page 1263) a. 0.0005 inch (0.013 mm) X b. 0.003 to 0.005 inch (0.08 to 0.13 mm) c. 0.030 to 0.050 inch (0.8 to 1.3 mm) d. 0.300 to 0.500 inch (8.0 to 13 mm) 6. Typical maximum rotor runout specifications are ______________________.

(Text page 1262) a. 0.0003 to 0.0005 in. (0.008 to 0.013 mm) b. 0.003 to 0.008 in. (0.08 to 0.13 mm) X c. 0.030 to 0.050 in. (0.8 to 1.3 mm) d. 0.300 to 0.500 in. (8.0 to 13 mm) 7. Rotor finish is measured in _______________________. (Text page 1264) a. millimeters b. inches c. microinches X d. centimeters 8. The lower the Ra of a rotor, the _______ the surface. (Text page 1265) a. smoother X b. rougher c. higher d. lower 9. The brake lathe arbor should be checked using a ________. (Text page 1266) a. feeler gauge b. vacuum gauge 271 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. thread pitch gauge d. dial indicator X 10. A disc brake rotor is being machined. Technician A says that a feed rate of 0.0008 inch per revolutions and 150 RPM is where the rotor should be set for a final cut. Technician B says that the rotor should be given a nondirectional surface finish using 150 grit sandpaper. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1267-1268) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 109 Power Brake Unit Operation, Diagnosis, and Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the purpose and function of the one-way check valve used on vacuum brake booster units? (Text page 1296) The purpose and function of the one-way check valve on the vacuum booster supply line is to prevent a loss of vacuum in the booster assembly when the engine is off. A spring-loaded check valve assures that the unit is sealed when the engine is stopped and is no longer producing vacuum.

2. How is vacuum used to assist in applying the brakes? (Text page 1295) Vacuum is the absence of air pressure. Vacuum is applied to both sides of a rubber diaphragm inside the vacuum booster assembly. When the driver depresses the brake pedal, outside air at full atmospheric pressure enters the backside of the booster. The air pressure "pushes" on the rubber diaphragm that is attached to a rod that pushes on the primary piston of the master cylinder. The air pressure increases the force exerted on the master cylinder resulting in decreased effort by the driver of the vehicle.

3. Describe how to perform a vacuum booster leak test and hydraulic system leak test.

(Text page 1299) The vacuum booster leak test is performed to test if the booster can hold vacuum. Start and run the engine, then stop the engine and wait one minute. Depress the brake pedal several times. A good booster should be able to supply two or more power-assisted stops. They hydraulic system leak test is performed to check the hydraulic system for leaks. After depressing the brake pedal several times, depress and hold the brake pedal.

If the brake pedal falls, the hydraulic brake system is leaking.

4. How does a Hydro-Boost system function? (Text page 1302) The hydro-boost system uses hydraulic pressure from the power steering pump to provide an assist for the driver.

5. What is the difference between vacuum and pressure? (Text page 1294) The term vacuum is used to refer to any pressure lower than atmospheric pressure.

Atmospheric pressure varies with altitude, but is approximately 14.7 pounds per square inch (PSI) at sea level.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A power brake booster provides which of the following design features? (Text page 1293) a. Reduced stopping distance b. Reduced brake pedal effort X c. High brake pedal effort d. A lower brake pedal position

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2. The proper operation of a vacuum brake booster requires that the engine be capable of supplying at least . (Text page 1299) a. 15 in. Hg vacuum X b. 17 in. Hg vacuum c. 19 in. Hg vacuum d. 21 in. Hg vacuum 3. A defective vacuum brake booster will cause a __________. (Text page 1298) a. hard brake pedal X b. soft (spongy) brake pedal c. low brake pedal d. slight hiss noise when the brake pedal is depressed 4. A brake pedal feels spongy when depressed. Technician A says that a defective hydraulic brake booster could be the cause. Technician B says that a defective vacuum brake booster could be the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1298) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X 5. Two technicians are discussing vacuum brake boosters. Technician A says that a low, soft brake pedal is an indication of a defective booster. Technician B says that there should be at least two power-assisted brake applications after the engine stops running. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1299) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. Technician A says that to check the operation of a vacuum brake booster, the brake pedal should be depressed until the assist is depleted and then start the engine. Technician B says that the brake pedal should drop when the engine starts, if the booster is okay. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1298-1299) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Which of these could be caused by an improperly adjusted booster pushrod?

(Text page 1300) a. Brakes to overheat X b. A soft pedal c. A low pedal d. None of these 8. An accumulator such as that used on hydraulic brake boosters _____________.

(Text page 1302) a. reduces brake pedal noise b. provides higher force being fed back to the driver’s foot 274 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. provides a reserve in the event of a failure X d. works against engine vacuum 9. The first step in diagnosing a Hydro-Boost problem is _________. (Text page 1302) a. a pressure test of the pump b. a volume test of the pump c. to tighten the power steering drive belt d. a thorough visual inspection X 10. If the engine stops running, what is the most likely to occur if the vehicle is equipped with a Hydro-Boost power brake system? (Text page 1302) a. Normal braking using the accumulator pressure X b. Greatly reduced braking distance but a normal feeling brake pedal c. A high and hard brake pedal d. A low and spongy brake pedal

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CHAPTER 110 ABS Components and Operation REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How does an antilock braking system (ABS) work? (Text page 1306) An antilock braking system works by controlling brake fluid pressure to prevent wheel lockup during braking.

2. What are the three stages of ABS operation? (Text pages 1313-1314) The three stages of ABS operation include: a. Pressure increase b. Pressure hold c. Pressure reduction 3. How does an active wheel speed sensor work? (Text page 1312) An active WSS is also called a digital wheel speed sensor because it generates a digital on and off output signal and is capable of detecting wheel speed as low as 0 mph (0 km/h).

4. What is the difference between a three- and a four-channel system? (Text page 1309) A three-channel antilock braking system controls each front wheel as a separate channel, but controls both rear wheels together as a single channel. Four-channel ABS controls all four-wheel brakes individually.

5. When is it possible for a vehicle to stop in a shorter distance without ABS than with ABS? (Text page 1307) The shortest stops is when braking on loose gravel or dirt, or in deep, fluffy snow.

Under these conditions, a locked wheel will stop the vehicle faster because loose debris builds up and forms a wedge in front of the tire that helps stop the vehicle.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The maximum traction between a tire and the road occurs when the tire is _______________.

(Text page 1307) a. locked and skidding b. rotating freely c. slipping 15 to 25 percent X d. slipping 80 to 90 percent 2. Antilock brakes cannot defy the laws of physics under what conditions? (Text page 1308) a. When a vehicle enters a corner traveling faster than it is physically possible to negotiate the turn b. If the brakes are applied too late to bring the vehicle to a complete stop before impact c. Be able to stop the vehicle in a short distance under all conditions d. All of the above X

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3. Technician A says that the ABS may not result in shorter stopping distance compared to brakes without ABS. Technician B says that a pulsating brake pedal during normal braking is a characteristic feature of most ABS equipped vehicles. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1307) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. Which type of antilock brake system (ABS) requires the use of four wheel speed sensors?

(Text page 1309) a. One channel b. Two channel c. Three channel d. Four channel X 5. Two technicians are discussing ABS wheel speed sensors. Technician A says that some ABS use a sensor located in the rear-axle pinion gear area. Technician B says that all ABS use a wheel speed sensor at each wheel. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1311) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. Technician A says that some ABS wheel speed sensors are used as part of the tire pressure monitoring system (TPMS) . Technician B says that the ABS is used as part of the hill assist system. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1315) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Technician A says that ABS brakes are designed to allow the front wheel to be steered during heavy braking. Technician B says that the ABS dash warning lamp is amber. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1306; 1311) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. A passive wheel speed sensor is also referred to as _____________ (Text page 1311) a. variable reluctance (VR) b. magnetic c. magneto resistive (MR) d. either a or b X 9. An active wheel speed sensor is also referred to as_________ (Text page 1312) a. variable reluctance (VR) b. Hall-effect

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c. magneto resistive (MR) d. either b or c X 10. Which part of an antilock brake system is used for tire pressure monitoring?

(Text page 1315) a. Hydraulic control module b. Wheel speed sensors X c. Yaw sensor d. Brake pedal position (BPP) sensor

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CHAPTER 111 ABS Diagnosis and Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS:

1. Why should the operation of the red and amber brake warning lamps be included in the diagnostic procedure? (Text page 1320) A red brake warning lamp (RBWL)failure in the base brakes, such as: • • • • •

Low brake fluid level Low pressure in half of the hydraulic system The parking brake is applied May light due to an ABS failure, such as low brake pressure on an integral system The amber ABS warning lamp usually comes on after a vehicle start during the initialization or start-up self-test sequence. If the amber warning lamp stays on after the vehicle is started, this means a fault in the ABS system has been detected.

2. What are the steps of the diagnostic procedure? (Text page 1320) STEP 1 Verify the customer concern.

STEP 2 Perform a visual inspection.

STEP 3 Check for stored diagnostic trouble codes (DTCs).

STEP 4 Check for technical service bulletins (TSBs).

STEP 5 Determine the root cause. Using all of the resources and tests as specified in service information, determine the root cause of the problem.

STEP 6 Complete the repair.

3. Why are many stored diagnostic trouble codes (DTCs) found under the chassis area?

(Text page 1324) ABS -related codes are often “C” cores meaning that they are chassis, codes which start with a “C.”

4. How is a multimeter used to check for proper wheel speed sensor operation?

(Text page 1326) A DMM can be used to check wheel speed sensors for resistance (ohms) and AC voltage output.

5. What are symptoms of a vehicle being under water? (Text page 1321) There are often strange electrical problems that can occur, including false DTCs or intermittent operation of electrical sensors, ABS, accessories, or gauges. Sometimes the root of these problems is due to rust and corrosion after a vehicle is involved in a flood.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The red brake warning lamp is on and the amber ABS lamp is off. Technician A says that a fault is possible in the base brake system. Technician B says that the red brake warning lamp can be turned on by a low brake fluid level in the master cylinder. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1320) 279 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B Technician A says that a breakout box is sometimes required to diagnose an older antilock brake system. Technician B says that a breakout box requires the use of a digital multimeter.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 1322) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B Technician A says that using the space-saving small spare tire may trigger an ABS amber warning lamp. Technician B says that if the red brake warning light is on, the vehicle should not be test driven. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1322; 1324) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B What type of scan tool is needed to retrieve data from the antilock brake system(ABS)?

(Text pages 1322-1323) a. Factory scan tool b. Enhanced factory-level scan tool c. Code reader d. Either a or b X A cracked tone (reluctor) ring will often cause what type of problem? (Text page 1324) a. The antilock brake system will be disabled and the amber ABS warning lamp will be on b. False ABS actuation at low speed X c. A brake failure which will turn on the red brake warning light d. The affected wheel brake will be applied all of the time Two technicians are discussing passive-type wheel speed sensors. Technician A says that wheel speed sensors are magnetic. Technician B says that the toothed sensor ring is magnetic.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 1326) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B A passive-type wheel speed sensor (WSS) is being checked for the proper resistance which should be 800–2,500 ohms. The meter reads 1.1 KΩ. This means____________ .

(Text page 1326) a. the sensor has a normal resistance reading X b. the sensor is electrically shorted c. the sensor is electrically open d. the sensor is grounded

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8. What safety precautions should be adhered to when working on or around a vehicle equipped with ABS? (Text page 1328) a. Avoid mounting any antenna near the ABS control unit b. Never open a bleeder valve or an hydraulic line while the ABS is energized c. Do not pry against or on a wheel speed sensor d. All of the above X 9. Technician A says that the ABS electrohydraulic unit can be bled using bleeder screws and the manual method. Technician B says that a scan tool is often required to bleed the ABS electrohydraulic unit. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1328) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. The ABS controller uses what signal characteristic from a wheel speed sensor?

(Text page 1326) a. Voltage b. Frequency X c. Resistance d. Electromagnetic

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CHAPTER 112 Electronic Stability Control Systems REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the difference between oversteering and understeering? (Text page 1330) Oversteering means that the rear wheels loose traction and the vehicle can spin out of control. Understeer means that the vehicle tends to continue traveling straight when turning a corner.

2. What is the “sine with dwell” test? (Text page 1331) A “sine with dwell” test is performed to verify that the electronic stability control system (ESC) can operate correctly and keep the vehicle under control.

3. What are some of the other names used to identify an electronic stability control (ESC) system? (Text page 1332) Some of the names include: Vehicle Stability Assist (VSA); Electronic Stability Program (ESP); Vehicle Dynamic Control (VDC); Dynamic Stability Control (DSC), and Vehicle Stability Control (VSC).

4. What sensors are used in the electronic stability control system? (Text pages 1332-1333) The sensors used in most Electronic Stability Control (ESC) systems include the steering wheel (handwheel) sensor, Vehicle Speed (VS) sensor, lateral acceleration sensor, and yaw rate sensor.

5. What action does the traction control system perform to help the drive wheels maintain traction during acceleration? (Text page 1334) The controller performs some or all of the following to help restore drive wheel traction during acceleration: • • • •

Retard ignition timing to reduce engine torque Decrease the fuel injector pulse-width to reduce fuel delivery to the cylinder to reduce engine torque Reduce the amount of intake air if the engine is equipped with an electronic throttle control (ETC); reduced airflow will reduce engine torque.

Up-shift the automatic transmission/transaxle. If the transmission is shifted into a higher gear, the torque applied to the drive wheels is reduced.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Which sensor is used by the ESC controller to determine the driver’s intended direction?

(Text page 1332) a. Yaw sensor b. Steering wheel (hand-wheel) position sensor X c. Vehicle speed (VS) sensor d. Lateral acceleration sensor

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2. The electronic stability control (ESC) system requires that the vehicle be equipped with what type of brake system? (Text page 1331) a. Four-wheel disc brakes b. Four channel ABS X c. Three channel ABS d. Front disc with rear drum brakes 3. Which Federal Motor Safety Standard requires electronic stability control to be on all vehicles by 2011? (Text page 1330) a. 126 X b. 113 c. 109 d. 101 4. What is the name of the standard test that is performed to verify ESC operation?

(Text page 1331) a. ESC plus b. Vehicle stability enhancement test c. Sine with dwell X d. Anti-skid test 5. What other name is used to describe an electronic stability control (ESC) system?

(Text page 1332) a. Vehicle Stability Assist (VSA) b. Electronic Stability Program (ESP) c. Vehicle Dynamic Control (VDC) d. Any of the above X 6. A diagnostic trouble code (DTC) has been set for a fault with lateral acceleration sensor or circuit. What test could be performed to check if the sensor is working? (Text page 1333) a. Unplug it and see if the scan tool reads 1.0 G b. Key on, engine off, hold the sensor sideways to see if a scan tool reads 0.0 G c. Key on, engine off, hold the sensor sideways to see if a scan tool reads 1.0 G X d. Drive the vehicle in a circle to see if the scan tool reads 0.0 G 7. A lateral acceleration sensor is usually located where in the vehicle? (Text page 1333) a. Under the front seat b. In the center console c. On the package shelf d. Any of the above locations X 8. Traction control uses the antilock brake system and other devices to limit________ of the drive wheels during acceleration. (Text page 1334) a. positive slip X b. negative slip c. side slip d. yaw slip

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9. When diagnosing ESC or TC system concerns, ________ is usually required.

(Text page 1335) a. a factory scan tool b. specific service information (SI) c. performing a visual inspection d. all of the above X 10. A traction control system can often control all except ___________. (Text page 1335) a. limit engine torque delivered to the drive wheel b. engage four-wheel drive X c. upshift the automatic transmission d. apply the wheel brake to the wheel that is losing traction

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CHAPTER 113 Tires and Wheels REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the various parts of a tire and how a tire is constructed? (Text pages 1338-1339) The parts of a tire include the body and belt plies, bead, sidewall, inner liner, and tread rubber. A tire builder assembles the inner liner and body plies around the beads before assembling it together with the belt and tread. After the tire is assembled, it is placed in a press where high temperature and chemical reaction cure the rubber, and the sidewall and tread designs are formed.

2. What is the aspect ratio? (Text page 1342) The aspect ratio is the percent of the height of the tire from bead to tread to the cross-sectional width of a tire. A 70 series (70% as high as it is wide) will ride smoother than a 50 series tire because the sidewalls are higher and can better absorb road shocks and bumps. The shorter sidewall height of a 50 series tire, however, provides a stiffer, better handling tire.

3. What are the factors that should be considered when purchasing tires?

(Text page 1349-1350) Tire purchasing guidelines include: purchase the same type and size of tire and no wider or narrower than 10 mm from the original. It is best to purchase all four tires at the same time so that rotating the tires is not a problem.

4. What are the three major areas of the Uniform Tire Quality Grading System?

(Text pages 1344-1345) The three major areas of the uniform tire quality grading system include tread wear, traction, and temperature resistance.

5. What is the difference between wheel back spacing and offset? (Text page 1350-1351) Back spacing, also called rear spacing or backside setting, is the distance between the back rim edge and the wheel center section mounting pad. Offset is a very important variable in wheel design. If the center section (spider) is centered on the outer rim, the offset is zero.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A defective tire can cause which of the following? (Text page 1337) a. Pulling to one side b. Erratic steering c. Darting or jumping d. Any of the above X 2. The part of the tire that is under just the tread of a radial tire is called the________ .

(Text page 1339) a. bead b. body (carcass) ply c. belt X d. inner liner 285 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3. A tire is labeled 215/60R × 15 92T; the T indicates___________ . (Text page 1343-1344) a. its speed rating X b. its tread wear rating c. its load rating d. its temperature resistance rating 4. Tire quality grading system includes_________ (Text pages 1344-1345) a. tread wear b. braking traction performance c. temperature resistance d. all of the above X 5. Which size lug nut would fit a metric wheel stud?. (Text page 1354) a. 7/16-20 LH b. ½ X20 c. M12X 1.5 X d. 7/16-20RH 6. Radial tires can cause a vehicle to pull to one side while driving. This is called “radial tire pull” and is often due to _______________. (Text page 1346) a. the angle of the body (carcass) plies b. tire conicity X c. tread design d. bead design 7. What precautions should the driver of a vehicle equipped with run-flat tires adhere to?

(Text page 1348) a. Should not be inflated to more than 10 PSI b. Should not be driven over 50 at 55 MPH with zero PSI of inflation pressure c. Rapid cornering should be avoided if the tire has zero air pressure d. Both b and c X 8. When selecting new tires for a vehicle, all are an important consideration except_______.

(Text page 1350) a. tire size b. size of the lettering on the sidewall X c. speed rating d. tire width 9. What do the letters JJ mean in a wheel designation size labeled 14 × 7JJ? (Text page 1350) a. The offset of the rim b. The bolt circle code c. The back spacing of the rim d. The shape of the flange area X 10. Wheel back spacing is also called_______________ . (Text page 1351) a. rear spacing X b. positive offset c. negative offset d. offset 286 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 114 Tire Pressure Monitoring Systems REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How does the use of wheel speed sensors detect a tire with low inflation pressure?

(Text page 1360) A low tire will rotate faster than a properly inflated tire and this difference can be detected by the wheel speed sensors.

2. What is the difference between faults when the TPMS warning lamp is on compared with when it is flashing? (Text page 1364) A flashing TPMS warning light indicates that a fault has been detected. If the TPMS warning lamp is on, this means a low tire has been detected.

3. What is the difference between indirect and direct tire-pressure monitoring system?

(Text pages 1360-1361) Indirect tire-pressure monitoring systems do not measure the actual tire pressure.

Instead, the system uses the wheels. Direct tire-pressure monitoring systems use individual pressure sensors located in each wheel to measure the inflation pressure.

4. TPMS pressure sensors can be made by what manufacturer? (Text page 1361-1362) Beru Lear Pacific Schrader Siemens TRW

5. What are the three modes of sensor operation? (Text page 1362) The three modes of operation include the Active mode, Sleep mode and Alert mode.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the purpose of the TPMS system? (Text page 1360) a. To detect a tire that has low inflation pressure X b. To inflate a low tire if needed c. To flash a warning light if a tire with low inflation pressure is detected d. All of the above 2. Technician A says that tire pressure will drop 1 PSI for every 10 degrees drop in temperature.

Technician B says that the two type of TPMS pressure sensors are snap-in and clamp-in.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 1358; 1362) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 287 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3. The FMVSS 138 law (TREAD Act) requires that the driver be notified if the tire inflation pressure drops how much? (Text page 1360) a. 30% b. 25% X c. 20% d. 15% 4. Two technicians are discussing the indirect tire-pressure monitoring system. Technician A says that it was used by some vehicle manufacturers. Technician B says that it uses the speeds of the RF and LR tires and compares the rotating speeds of the LF and RR tires to detect a low tire. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1360) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 5. What mode does a direct pressure sensor enter when the vehicle is stopped?

(Text page 1362) a. Sleep mode X b. Storage mode c. Alert mode d. Active mode 6. What type of valve core is used in stem-mounted sensors? (Text page 1362) a. Brass b. Nickel-plated X c. Steel d. Aluminum 7. The tire pressure sensor sends a signal to the ________. (Text page 1363) a. door module b. RKE receiver c. BCM d. any of these, depending on the vehicle X 8. What does the “delta pressure method” mean? (Text page 1365) a. Change the inflation pressure X b. Activate the sensor so it broadcasts the pressure to the scan tool c. Inflating the tire to the specified pressure d. Using a handheld tester to read the pressure as reported by the sensor 9. When a TPMS sensor needs replacement, which of the following is NOT an option?

(Text page 1366) a. Replace with an OE sensor b. Replace with a programmable aftermarket sensor c. Replace the sensor battery and program it to the vehicle X d. Replace with a multiple protocol sensor

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10. To activate or learn a direct pressure sensor, what does the service technician need to do?

(Text page 1365-1367) a. Enter learn mode and use a magnet b. Enter learn mode and decrease inflation pressure c. Use a handheld tester d. Any of the above depending on the vehicle and system X

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CHAPTER 115 Tire and Wheel Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the precautions and recommendations regarding tire maintenance?

(Text page 1370) The precautions and recommendations regarding tire selections and maintenance include: maintaining correct tire pressures, avoiding overloading the vehicle, keeping the tires balanced and rotated regularly.

2. What are the most commonly used tire rotation methods? (Text page 1375) The method most often recommended is the modified X method. In this method, each tire eventually is used at each of the four wheel locations. The other commonly used method is to move the front tires to the rear and the rear tires to the front on the same side of the vehicle or full “X” crossing the tires front to rear and rear to front.

3. How are lateral and radial runout of wheels and tires checked? (Text pages 1375-1376) Radial runout checks that the wheel and tire are round. Lateral runout checks for side-to-side movement that can cause a vibration. Both are checked with the wheels off the ground and using a dial gauge.

4. What is the difference between static and dynamic balance? (Text page 1379) Static balance is balancing in one plane or direction. Static balance does not account for any "wobble" or imbalance inside or outside of a tire/wheel assembly. Dynamic balance is balancing in two planes and accounts for imbalance both radially and laterally.

5. Why is a pin plate used on some wheels when attaching it to a balancer? (Text page 1383) A pin plate adapter that is designed to support the wheel/tire assembly on a tire balancer instead of using a centering cone. Pin plates are often specified to attach a chrome clad wheel to the tire balancers to insure an accurate balance.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Proper tire inflation pressure information is found _____________________.

(Text page 1370) a. on the driver’s door or post b. under the hood on the VECI sticker c. on the sidewall of the tire d. both a and b X 2. A tire is worn excessively on both edges. The most likely cause of this type of tire wear is________. (Text page 1372) a. overinflation b. underinflation X c. excessive radial runout d. excessive lateral runout

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3. Lug nuts should be evenly tightened in a ________ pattern. (Text page 1373) a. linear b. star X c. opposing d. random 4. Tire replacement involves all of the following except_____ (Text page 1377) a. remove the air from the tire b. remove the TPMS sensor from the wheel X c. remove the tire from the rim (wheel) d. install the tire on the rim (wheel) 5. Using the modified X method of tire rotation on a front-wheel drive vehicle, where should be the left front wheel placed? (Text page 1375) a. Right front b. Right rear c. Left rear X d. Left front 6. Which statement is false? (Text page 1379) a. Excessive radial runout can cause a tramp-type vibration. b. Excessive lateral runout can cause a tramp-type vibration. X c. A tire out of balance dynamically can cause a shimmy-type vibration. d. A tire out of balance statically can cause a tramp-type vibration.

7. When seating a bead of a tire, never exceed ___________PSI. (Text page 1379) a. 30 b. 40 X c. 50 d. 60 8. What lubricant should be used when mounting a tire? (Text page 1379) a. Silicone spray b. Grease c. Water-based soap X d. SAE 10W-30 engine oil 9. A vehicle vibrates at highway speed.Technician A says that water in the tire(s) could be the cause. Technician B says that an out-of-round tire could be the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1379: 1382) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. A tire has a nail in the shoulder area. What should the technician do? (Text page 1384) a. Replace the tire. X b. Repair the tire with a double patch. c. Repair the tire with a rubber plug. d. Install an inner tube.

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CHAPTER 116 Suspension System Principles and Components REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the types of suspensions and name their component part? (Text page 1393-1401) Types of suspensions include coil spring, torsion bar, and leaf spring types. Most types use control arms or links to provide longitudinal (front-to-back) and transverse (side-to-side) support.

2. What does Hooke's Law state? (Text page 1394) Hooke’s Law states that the deflection of a spring is directly proportional to the applied force.

3. What is the purpose and function of a stabilizer bar? (Text page 1404) A stabilizer bar is used to limit body roll during cornering.

4. What is the difference between a load-carrying and a follower (friction) ball joint?

(Text page 1403) A load-carrying ball-joint supports the weight of the vehicle, whereas a friction (follower) ball-joint acts as a pivot point for the suspension.

5. What is the purpose and function of bump stops? (Text page 1412) If a bump in the road is large enough, the suspension is compressed to its mechanical limit. Instead of allowing the metal components of the suspension to hit the frame or body of the vehicle, a rubber or foam bumper is used to absorb and isolate the suspension from the frame or body.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What component(s) is considered to be unsprung weight? (Text page 1393) a. Frame b. Body c. Wheels and tires X d. Both a and b 2. All suspension types use ________ of one form or another. (Text page 1393) a. beam axles b. control arms c. springs X d. pivot shafts 3. The spring rate of a spring is measured in units of ___________. (Text page 1395) a. lb per inch X b. ft-lb c. PSI d. in.-lb

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4. Two technicians are discussing torsion bars. Technician A says that many torsion bars are adjustable to allow for ride height adjustment. Technician B says that torsion bars are usually marked left and right and should not be switched side to side. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1399) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 5. A center bolt is used in what type of spring? (Text page 1397) a. Coil b. Leaf X c. Torsion bar d. All of the above 6. What suspension component is used to counteract body lean during cornering?

(Text page 1404) a. Torsion bar b. Strut rod c. Stabilizer bar X d. Control arm 7. Two technicians are discussing MacPherson struts. Technician A says that in most applications the entire strut assembly rotates when the front wheels are turned. Technician B says a typical MacPherson strut suspension system uses only one control arm and one ball joint per side. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1408) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Two technicians are discussing air shocks. Technician A says that air is forced through small holes to dampen the ride. Technician B says that air shocks are conventional hydraulic shock absorbers with an airbag to control vehicle ride height. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1407) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 9. A ______________ is a structural part of the vehicle. (Text page 1408) a. coil spring b. shock absorber c. bump stop d. MacPherson strut X 10. What is the purpose of bump stops? (Text page 1412) a. To raise the vehicle body b. Assist in steering c. Smooth out road shocks d. Isolate the suspension from the frame of the vehicle X 293 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 117 Front Suspensions and Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How should a proper road test be performed to diagnosis of suspension-related problems?

(Text page 1419) A thorough road test should include driving the vehicle over bumpy sections of road, as well as beside parked vehicles. Drive into driveways with a curb to cause the suspension to compress while the wheels are turned. A complete test drive should also include driving in reverse while turning.

2. What are four symptoms of worn or defective shock absorbers? (Text page 1427) The four symptoms of defective shock absorbers include: (a) Excessive harshness, (b) Frequent "bottoming out" on rough roads, (c) Extended vehicle vertical movement after driving on dips or a rise in the road, and (d) Cupped-type tire wear

3. What is the procedure for replacing front shock absorbers on an SLA-type suspension vehicle? (Text pages 1427-1428) Front shock absorber replacement on an SLA-type suspension simply requires that the fasteners be removed. No special methods or tools are required and the shocks can even be replaced without having to hoist the vehicle off the ground.

4. What is the testing procedure for ball joints? (Text pages 1421-1423 ) Load-carrying ball joints must be unloaded before they can be accurately tested. If the coil spring or torsion bar is attached to the lower control arm, the ball joint can be unloaded by placing a jack under the lower control arm and raising the tire off the ground. A special block or tool is required to hold the control arm if the spring is attached to the upper control arm. A dial indicator and a pry bar are used to move and measure the amount of wear.

5. How should tapered suspension components be removed? (Text page 1424) Tapered suspension components, such as ball joints, can be safely separated from the attached component by using a puller-type tool. To reassemble, use a new nut and tighten to factory specifications. If the cotter key hole does not line up after the attaching nut is tightened to specifications, tighten the nut just enough to align the cotter key - never loosen the nut to align the hole.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A disadvantage of a solid front axle on a vehicle is_________ . (Text page 1414) a. the wheels cannot be turned b. lack of ride quality X c. poor load capacity d. all of these 2. A vehicle is equipped with a SLA front suspension. What do the letters mean?

(Text page 1415) a. Single long arm b. Side-lateral angle 294 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

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c. Short-long arm X d. Solid link assembly Unusual noise during a test-drive can be caused by___________ . (Text page 1420) a. defective wheel bearings or stabilizer bar links b. defective or worn control arm bushings or ball joints c. worn or defective CV joints d. all of the above X A noise and a pull toward one side during braking is a common symptom of a worn or defective_____________ . (Text page 1431) a. shock absorber b. strut rod bushing X c. stabilizer bar link d. track rod bushing Two technicians are discussing non-indicator-type ball joint inspection. Technician A says that the vehicle should be on the ground with the ball joints loaded, then checked for freeplay. Technician B says that the ball joints should be unloaded before checking for freeplay. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1422) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B Most manufacturers specify a maximum axial play for ball joints of about________ .

(Text page 1422) a. 0.003 inch (0.076 mm) b. 0.010 inch (0.25 mm) c. 0.030 inch (0.76 mm) d. 0.050 inch (1.27 mm) X A light film of oil is observed on the upper area of a shock absorber. Technician A says that this condition should be considered normal. Technician B says that a rod seal may bleed fluid during cold weather, causing the oil film. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1427) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B Before the strut insert can be removed from a typical MacPherson strut assembly, which operation is necessary to prevent possible personal injury? (Text page 1428) a. The brake caliper and/or brake hose should be removed from the strut housing. b. The coil spring should be compressed. X c. The upper strut mounting bolts should be removed. d. The lower attaching bolts should be removed.

What should the technician do when replacing stabilizer bar links? (Text page 1430) a. The stabilizer bar should be removed from the vehicle before replacing the links. b. The links can be replaced individually, yet the manufacturer often recommends that the links at both ends and be replaced together. X 295 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. The stabilizer bar must be compressed using a special tool before removing or installing stabilizer bar links. d. Both b and c are correct.

10. Two technicians are discussing suspension bushings. Technician A says that replacing control arm bushings usually requires special tools. Technician B says using high-performance urethane bushings may cause excessive noise to be transferred to the passenger compartment.

Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1434-1435) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 118 Rear Suspensions and Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the disadvantages of a solid rear axle? (Text page 1441) Solid rear axles have the following disadvantages: high unsprung weight, side-to-side shock transference, and reduced tire adhesion.

2. What is the purpose of a torque arm? (Text page 1443) A torque arm absorbs engine torque and reduces axle windup.

3. What must be done to ensure safety when replacing the rear shock absorbers?

(Text page 1446) When replacing rear shock absorbers, the rear axle must be supported by tall safety standards to prevent the rear axle from dropping when the shocks are removed.

4. What is meant by “dog tracking”? (Text page 1447) When one side of the rear axle is behind the other side, the vehicle will dog track. Dog tracking refers to the sideways angle of the vehicle while traveling straight.

5. What is the purpose of a track rod? (Text page 1443) The purpose of the track rod is to keep the rear axle centered under the vehicle. The suspension may use either coil springs or struts.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Some light-duty trucks use a solid rear axle that is attached to ___________ with U-bolts.

(Text page 1443) a. struts b. coil springs c. torsion bars d. leaf springs X 2. When axle windup is controlled by the rear leaf spring during acceleration, this system is called__________ . (Text pages 1442-1443) a. trailing arm b. semi-trailing arm c. torque arm d. Hotchkiss drive X 3. A loud “bang” is heard and felt every time the accelerator is depressed or released on a rear-wheel-drive vehicle. Technician A says that a leaking shock absorber could be the cause.

Technician B says worn torque arm bushings could be the cause. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1443) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 297 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4. A track rod is also called a _________. (Text page 1443) a. panhard rod X b. control rod c. handing link d. semi-independent rod 5. A semi-trailing arm rear suspension uses________. (Text page 1443) a. coil springs b. air springs c. struts d. any of the above X 6. During a visual inspection of the rear suspension, the service technician should check for ___________. (Text page 1446) a. witness marks b. cracked rubber bushings c. damaged bump stops d. all of the above X 7. A vehicle equipped with a coil spring front suspension and a leaf spring rear suspension “dog tracks” while driving on a straight, level road. Technician A says that a broken center bolt could be the cause. Technician B says defective rear shock absorbers could be the cause.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 1447) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Two technicians are discussing rear shock absorbers. Technician A says that if one shock is leaking, then both rear shock absorbers should be replaced. Technician B says that the rear axle should be supported before removing rear shock absorbers. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1447-1448) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 9. The left front of the vehicle is higher than the right front and the right rear is lower than the left rear. What is the most likely cause of this problem? (Text page 1447) a. A weak right-rear shock absorber b. A broken track rod c. A broken left-front shock absorber d. A sagging right-rear spring X 10. One rear leaf spring is broken. Technician A says that both rear leaf springs should be replaced. Technician B says that the rear axle should be removed from the vehicle to replace a leaf spring. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1447-1448) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X 298 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 119 Electronic Suspension Systems REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What type of sensor is usually used on electronically controlled suspensions to sense the height of the vehicle? (Text page 1450) A photo-cell-type sensor, Hall-effect or a potentiometer-type sensors are usually used to sense the height of the vehicle.

2. Why is the vehicle speed sensor used as input for many electronic suspension systems?

(Text page 1453) Vehicle speed and throttle position sensors are inputs to the suspension electronic control module so the suspension can be made firm during high speed operation or during rapid acceleration.

3. What is a lateral accelerometer sensor and why is it used? (Text page 1453) A G-force sensor is used to measure the acceleration, braking, and cornering forces so the suspension control module can control the suspension to become firmer during rapid vehicle movements.

4. Why does the output side of the suspension air compressor contain a desiccant?

(Text page 1462) A desiccant is used on the outlet of the suspension air compressor to remove water from the system, which could cause rust or an inoperative suspension system in freezing weather.

5. How does a magneto-rheological suspension system work? (Text page 1463) Under normal operating conditions, the fluid flows easily through orifices in the shock and provides little dampening. When a large or high-frequency bump is detected, a small electrical current is sent from the chassis controller to an electromagnetic coil in each shock and the iron particles in the fluid respond within 3 milliseconds (ms), aligning themselves in fiber like strands. This type of shock absorber is used to control squat during acceleration and brake dive, as well as to reduce body roll during cornering by the chassis controller.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the purpose of an electronically controlled suspension system? (Text page 1450) a. Adjust shock stiffness depending on conditions b. Change settings to firm for cornering c. Selects soft for cruising d. Any of the above X 2. What type of sensor is used as a height sensor on vehicles equipped with an electronically controlled suspension? (Text page 1450) a. Hall-effect b. Photo cell 299 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

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c. Potentiometer d. Any of the above X Which sensors do most vehicles use if equipped with electronic suspension?

(Text pages 1450-1454) a. Height sensors b. Steering wheel position sensors c. Lateral accelerometer sensors d. All of the above X A lateral acceleration sensor is used to provide the suspension control module with feedback regarding________ force. (Text page 1453) a. cornering X b. acceleration c. braking d. all of the above A steering wheel position sensor is being discussed. Technician A says that the sensor is used to determine the direction the steering wheel is turned. Technician B says that the sensor detects how fast the steering wheel is turned. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1452) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B What type of electronically controlled suspensions is commonly used? (Text page 1456) a. Automatic level control b. Air suspension c. Magneto-Rheological Suspension d. Any of the above X The firm setting is usually selected by the electronic suspension control module whenever which of the following occurs? (Text page 1453) a. High speed b. Rapid braking c. Rapid acceleration d. Any of the above X What are commonly used as actuators in electronic suspension systems?

(Text pages 1455-1456) a. Solenoids b. Actuator motor c. Stepper motor d. Either a or b X A ride height compressor that runs excessively indicates ________ . (Text page 1463) a. low tire pressure b. an air leak in the system X c. a vacuum leak in the system d. any of the above 300 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

10. Some vehicles have shocks that use magneto-rheological fluid. This MR fluid changes viscosity when ________ is/are applied to the fluid. (Text page 1463) a. a vacuum b. an electrical current X c. shock force d. heat

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CHAPTER 120 Steering Columns and Gears REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What components are included in a typical steering column assembly?

(Text pages 1468-1470) A typical steering column includes the steering shaft, universal joint, flexible coupling, and column cover.

2. When the driver turns the steering wheel, how is the motion transferred to the front wheels through a conventional steering gear? (Text page 1471) When the driver rotates the steering wheel, the steering shaft rotates, which rotates the input gear inside the steering gear. The worm gear inside the steering gear then moves the sector gear, which is part of the pitman arm, which in turn is connected to the steering linkage.

3. Why are recirculating balls used in the recirculating ball steering gear? (Text page 1473) Recirculating balls are used in a recirculating ball steering gear to reduce friction.

4. What steering gear adjustments are possible on a conventional recirculating-ball-type steering gear? (Text pages 1474) Worm bearing preload and sector lash are two of the adjustments possible on a conventional ball-type steering gear.

5. What steering gear adjustments are possible on a typical rack-and-pinion steering gear?

(Text page 1478) The rack support and pinion bearing preload can be adjusted on a rack and pinion steering gear assembly.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The circuit to the airbag inflation module is connected from the steering column to the steering wheel through what component? (Text page 1466) a. Slip ring and carbon brushes b. Clockspring (coil) X c. Magnetic field sensor d. Hall-effect switch 2. After removing the center nut, use a ________ to remove the steering wheel from the steering shaft. (Text page 1467) a. puller X b. hammer c. shaft depressor d. snap ring plier 3. Which part in the steering column allows for changes in the angle between the upper and lower shafts? (Text page 1468) a. Flexible coupling b. Column cover 302 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. Universal joint X d. Collapsible section 4. The rotation of the steering wheel causes which part to move the actual steering linkage in a conventional steering gear? (Text page 1471) a. Sector shaft b. Pitman arm X c. Worm gear d. Gear nut 5. The driver rotates the steering wheel one-half of one revolution (180 degrees) on a vehicle equipped with a steering gear with a 20:1 gear ratio. How many degrees will the front wheels be rotated? (Text page 1471) a. 9 degrees X b. 0.1 degree c. 90 degrees d. 11.1 degrees 6. What causes a variable-ratio steering gear to be able to change the ratio as the steering wheel is turned? (Text page 1473) a. Using two or three different sector gears, depending on design b. Using a variable-length pitman arm c. Changing the number of teeth on the worm gear d. Changing the length of the teeth on the sector gear X 7. Recirculating steel balls are used in most conventional steering gears because they__________ . (Text page 1473) a. provide for a variable ratio b. keep the steering wheel centered c. reduce friction X d. help provide feedback to the driver regarding the road surface 8. Which conventional steering gear adjustment should be the first performed?

(Text page 1474) a. Worm bearing preload b. Tolerance adjustment c. Gear mesh preload X d. Sector shaft endplay 9. The two rack-and-pinion steering gear adjustments include____________ . (Text page 1479) a. worm bearing preload and tolerance adjustment b. pinion bearing preload and rack support X c. sector shaft and stub shaft preload d. stub shaft endplay and sector shaft preload 10. What is the purpose and function of the air tube connecting the two end boots?

(Text page 1476) a. Transfer air from one boot to the other when the wheels are turned X b. Move grease from one boot to the other to equalizer the amount of grease in each boot c. To prevent water from entering the boots d. To keep the any fluid from escaping 303 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 121 Steering Linkage and Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How is a dry park test performed? (Text page 1485) A dry park test is performed with the vehicle on the ground, or on a drive-on-type lift, and the steering column unlocked. While an assistant moves the steering wheel, look and feel for any movement in the steering linkage connections.

2. What steering parts should be replaced in pairs? (Text page 1489) The steering parts that should be replaced in pairs include the inner and outer tie rod ends.

3. What test procedure can be used to check that the steering linkage is straight and level?

(Text page 1486) A jounce/rebound test can be used to check that the steering linkage is straight and level.

4. What is the difference between a wear and non-wear center link? (Text page 1486) A wear-type center link uses ball joints, whereas a non-wear-type center link uses holes where the tapered part of the ball-joint-type link is inserted.

5. What can cause bump steer? (Text page 1488) Bump steer, or orbital steer, is used to describe what happens when the steering linkage is not level. The vehicle’s direction is changed without moving the steering wheel whenever the tires move up and down over bumps, dips in the pavement, or even over gentle rises

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Which of the following is NOT a component of a parallelogram type steering linkage?

(Text page 1481) a. Pitman arm b. Drag link X c. Center link d. Idler arm 2. How are the inner tie rods attached to the rack on a center take- off-type rack-and-pinion steering gear? (Text page 1482) a. Staked b. Bolts X c. Riveted d. Pinned 3. A vehicle equipped with four-wheel steering will use ________ mode when moving at low speeds. (Text page 1483) a. same-phase b. single-phase 304 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

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c. opposite-phase X d. right-phase Steering linkage joints should be lubricated with ________. (Text page 1484) a. brake fluid b. 20W-50 engine oil c. 80W-90 gear oil d. grease X A vehicle has an excessive amount of freeplay in the steering wheel and it is difficult to keep it traveling straight on a straight and level road. Which is the least likely cause?

(Text page 1485) a. Worn tie rod ends b. Excessive play in the ball socket assemblies c. Worn idler arms d. Loose pitman arm retaining nut X Which of the following steering linkage parts commonly wears out first? (Text page 1486) a. Center link b. Pitman arm c. Idler arm X d. Inner tie rods Two technicians are discussing bump steer. Technician A says that an unlevel steering linkage can be its cause. Technician B says that if the steering wheel moves when the vehicle is bounced up and down, the steering linkage may be bent. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1488) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B How much endplay is usually acceptable in tie rod ends during a dry park test?

(Text page 1487) a. Zero X b. 0.010 to 0.030 inch c. 0.030 to 0.050 inch d. 0.050 to 0.100 inch Technician A says that torque prevailing nuts can be reused unless damaged. Technician B says that a new cotter key should always be used. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1489) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

305 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

10. New tie rods are being installed. Technician A says to tighten the retaining nuts to specification and then loosen, if needed, to align the cotter pin hole. Technician B says to tighten farther to align the cotter key hole. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1489 ) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 122 Hydraulic Power Steering Systems REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the five possible causes for hard steering? (Text pages 1507-1508) Five possible causes of hard steering include: a. Too tight an adjustment of the rack bushing or over-center adjustment b. Under-inflated tires c. Internal steering gear mechanical bending d. Loose, worn or defective power steering pump drive belt e. Low or contaminated power steering fluid 2. What is the procedure for flushing a power steering system? (Text pages 1508-1509) Flushing a power steering system includes the following steps: Step 1 - Remove the low pressure hose from the pump (plug fitting) and direct the return line to an empty container. With the front wheels off the ground, fill the power steering pump reservoir and start the engine.

Step 2 - As the old power steering fluid is being pumped into the container, keep the reservoir full of clean fluid as an assistant turns the steering wheel.

Step 3 - When the fluid is clean going into the container, stop the engine and reconnect the low pressure line to the pump.

3. How is a pressure test of a power steering system performed? (Text pages 1509-1510) Connect the pressure tester hoses to the power steering system following the manufacturer’s instructions. Start the engine and close the shut off valve for a maximum of 15 seconds and observe the maximum pressure. Open the shutoff valve and repeat the test checking to see if the maximum pressures are all the same. Check service information for the procedures to follow if the pressures are not within specifications.

4. What is an integral power steering system? (Text page 1497) In an integral power steering system, the control valve and a power piston which applies force to the pitman arm are incorporated into the steering gear construction.

5. What tool is needed to remove and install a power steering pump pulley? (Text page 1511) Most power steering pump service requires the removal of the pump from the engine mounting and/or removal of the drive pulley.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. A hydraulic system uses ________ to transfer force from one place to another.

(Text page 1496) a. fluid b. pipes and hoses c. different-sized pistons d. all of the above X 307 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

2. High-pressure hoses have to be used on the high-pressure side of the power steering system because pressures can reach as high as __________. (Text page 1497) a. 200 PSI b. 750 PSI c. 1,400 PSI X d. 2,500 PSI 3. Some vehicles are equipped to signal the computer whenever the power steering pressures increase so that the idle speed can be increased to prevent stalling during turns at low speeds.

What component signals the computer? (Text page 1500) a. Pressure-relief valve b. Power steering pressure switch X c. Rotary valve d. Flow control valve 4. Integral power steering gears use ____________for lubrication of the unit. (Text page 1500) a. SAE 80W-90 gear lube b. chassis grease (NLGI #2) c. power steering fluid in the system X d. molybdenum disulfide 5. Electronically controlled variable-assist power steering systems vary the amount of boost by________ . (Text page 1505) a. varying the pump output orifice size X b. speeding up or slowing down the power steering pump c. changing the flow of fluid through the steering gear d. bypassing some of the fluid back into the reservoir 6. What can cause hard steering on a vehicle equipped with hydraulic power-assisted steering system? (Text page 1508) a. Low tire pressure b. Slipping power steering pump drive belt c. Low or contaminated power steering fluid d. Any of the above X 7. Two technicians are discussing the proper procedure for bleeding air from a power steering system. Technician A says that the front wheels of the vehicle should be lifted off the ground before bleeding. Technician B says that the steering wheel should be turned left and right with the engine off during the procedure. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1509) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. A power steering system should be checked for _________ (Text page 1508) a. power steering fluid level b. condition of the drive belt c. condition of the hoses d. all of the above X

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9. When pressure testing a hydraulic assisted power steering system, the highest pressures were greater than 50 PSI of each other. This indicates a problem with the _______.

(Text page 1510) a. pump rotor b. pump vanes c. flow control valve X d. defective hose 10. The specified power steering fluid is found where? (Text page 1508) a. On the cap of the power steering reservoir b. In the owner’s manual c. In service information d. All of the above X

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CHAPTER 123 Electric Power Steering Systems REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the types of electric power steering systems? (Text page 1517) There are two basic types of EPS systems: • Rack mounted • Column mounted 2. What sensors are needed for EPS systems? (Text page 1519) The EPS input sensors include: • Steering shaft torque sensor • Steering wheel position sensor 3. What are the advantages of using an electric power steering system? (Text page 1517) The advantages of electric power steering include: • • •

Improved fuel economy Increase in usable power Allows the vehicle manufacturer to save vehicle weight and complexity because there is no need for all of the hydraulic lines and engine-driven pump.

• Improved cold weather starting because of reduced engine load without the drag of a power steering pump • Simple two-wire connection in many cases, making vehicle assembly and vehicle service easier 4. What type of motor is used in electric power steering systems? (Text page 1518) Most electric power steering units use a DC electric motor. Some operate from 42 volts while others operate from 12 volts.

5. How does an electro-hydraulic power steering work? (Text page 1521) The electro-hydraulic power steering (EHPS) module controls the power steering motor, which has the function of providing hydraulic power to the brake booster and the steering gear.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. The two basic types of electric power steering include__________. (Text page 1517) a. engine mounted and column mounted b. column mounted and rack mounted X c. electro-hydraulic and rack mounted d. engine driven and battery powered 2. The advantages of electric power steering compared to hydraulic power steering include ___________. (Text page 1517) a. less weight b. improved fuel economy 310 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3.

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c. increase usable engine power d. all of the above X What type of motor is used in most electric power steering (EPS) systems? (Text page 1520) a. AC brush type b. DC brushless X c. Stepper d. None of the above Two technicians are discussing electric power steering (EPS) systems. Technician A says that some systems operate on 12 volts. Technician B says that some systems operate on 42 volts, such as some hybrid electric vehicles. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1518) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B A typical electric motor used in electric power steering systems produces about how much power? (Text page 1520) a. ¼ horsepower b. ¼ horsepower c. ¾ horsepower d. 1 horsepower X What is the relationship between the power steering control module (PSCM) and the powertrain control module (PCM)? (Text page 1520) a. Usually wired between the two b. No connection between the two c. Uses serial data lines between the two modules X d. Mounted together on the electric power steering (EPS) motor If a fault is detected in the electric power steering system, what dash light is turned on?

(Text page 1520) a. The “check engine” light b. The “service vehicle soon” light c. The power steering warning light d. Either b or c X What diagnostic equipment is usually needed to diagnose faults or relearn the electric power steering system? (Text page 1520) a. Special electronic diagnostic equipment designed to test each specific system b. Factory or factory-level scan tool X c. A breakout box d. A 12-volt test light Self-park systems use what sensors and EPS to achieve the parking maneuver?

(Text page 1521) a. Wheel speed sensors (WSS) b. Steering wheel position sensor c. Ultrasonic sensors d. All of the above X 311 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

10. Electro-hydraulic power steering systems use________ . (Text page 1521) a. an electric motor to power a hydraulic pump b. a conventional hydraulic power steering gear c. an engine-driven hydraulic power steering pump and an electric motor steering gear d. both a and b X

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CHAPTER 124 Wheel Alignment Principles REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the definitions for camber, caster, and toe? (Text pages 1524-1529) Camber is the tilt of the wheel from true vertical as viewed from the front or rear of the vehicle. Caster is the forward or rearward tilt of the steering axis. Toe is the difference in distance between the front and rear of the tires.

2. What happens to tire wear and vehicle handling if toe, camber, and caster are out of specification or not equal side-to-side? (Text pages 1524-1529) If toe is incorrect, excessive tire wear occurs. If toe is unequal side to side, the steering wheel will not be straight when the vehicle is driven straight on a level road. Camber can cause a pull if unequal side to side, and tire wear if out of specification. Caster can cause a pull only if the caster is different side to side.

3. Why can knowing SAI, TOOT, and included angle help in the correct diagnosis of an alignment problem? (Text pages 1531-1534) SAI, TOOT and included angle are all considered to be diagnostic angles. Bent or damaged chassis parts are the result of angles not within specification and must be corrected to assure a proper alignment.

4. What does thrust angle mean? (Text page 1535) Thrust angle is the total toe angle of the rear wheels.

5. How does SAI cause the vehicle to straighten the front tires after a turn? (Text page 1531) Vehicle weight tends to keep the front wheels in a straight-ahead position when driving, thereby increasing vehicle stability, directional control, and steering wheel returnability.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. All of these symptoms may be corrected by an alignment EXCEPT ________.

(Text page 1524) a. wander b. wheel tramp X c. pulling to one side d. drifting to one side 2. When performing an alignment, which angle is the most important for tire wear?

(Text page 1529) a. Toe X b. Camber c. Caster d. SAI (KPI)

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3. Positive camber means_____________ . (Text page 1524) a. the top of the tire is tilted outward X b. the top of the tire is tilted inward c. the front of the tire is pointing inward d. the front of the tire is pointing rearward 4. Which alignment angle is adjustable on all vehicles? (Text page 1530) a. Camber b. Caster c. Toe X d. SAI (KPI) 5. Positive (+) toe is___________ . (Text page 1529) a. toe-in X b. toe-out c. toe plus camber d. toe plus caster 6. If the top of the steering axis is tilted 2 degrees toward the rear of the vehicle, this is_________ . (Text page 1527) a. positive camber b. negative camber c. negative caster d. positive caster X 7. Included angle is_____________ . (Text page 1531) a. SAI + caster b. camber + caster c. camber + SAI X d. toe + camber 8. Which angle determines the thrust angle? (Text page 1535) a. Front toe b. Rear toe X c. Rear camber d. Front caster, SAI, and included angle 9. Two technicians are discussing scrub radius. Technician A says that scrub radius cannot be measured. Technician B says that scrub radius cannot be adjusted. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1532-1533) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both technician A and B X d. Neither technician A nor B

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10. When performing a four-wheel alignment, ______________are the first adjustments to make.

(Text page 1536) a. rear camber and toe X b. rear caster and toe c. SAI and included angle d. front wheel toe

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CHAPTER 125 Alignment Diagnosis and Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are 10 pre-alignment checks that should be performed before the wheel alignment is checked and/or adjusted? (Text pages 1539-1540) Ten pre-alignment inspections include the following items: a. Tire pressures f. Ride (trim) height b. Wheel bearings g. Steering gear looseness c. Tie rod ends h. Control arm bushings d. Center links i. Idler arm e. Stabilizer bar links and bushings j. Excessive or unequal loads 2. What is the difference between a lead (drift) and a pull? (Text page 1540) A pull is a condition that causes a definite "tug" on the steering wheel toward one side while driving straight on a level road. A lead or drift is the movement of a vehicle toward one side when the driver's hands are temporarily removed from the steering wheel, but is not enough to cause corrective counter steering pressure.

3. What are the causes and possible corrections for torque steer? (Text page 1541) Torque steer is the pulling of a vehicle during acceleration only on a front-wheel drive vehicle. If severe, the technician should carefully inspect and replace, if necessary, the engine and/or transaxle mounts or any other component that has failed to keep the engine and drive train level.

4. What are the causes and possible corrections for memory steer? (Text pages 1540-1541) Memory steer is usually caused by binding in the steering or suspension system. By disconnecting the tie rods from the steering knuckles, a technician can check to see if the front wheels rotate through their steering axis smoothly. To prevent "installing" a memory steer into a vehicle, all steering and suspension components should be tightened only after the vehicle is on the ground with the wheels in the straight ahead position.

5. What are the necessary steps to follow for a four-wheel alignment? (Text page 1548) A proper four-wheel alignment should be done in the following sequence: rear camber, rear toe, front caster, and camber, then front toe.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Which of the following would NOT be included in a pre-alignment check? (Text page 1540) a. Ride height b. Tire size and inflation c. Number of turns of the steering wheel lock to lock X d. Excessive load in trunk

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2. Technician A says that if a pull occurs sometime to the left and sometimes to the right, this is called memory steer. Technician B says that if a vehicle pulls to one side only during acceleration then this is called torque steer. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1540) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 3. Which angle is largest? (Text page 1543) a. 0.55 degrees b. ¼ degree c. 45 minutes X d. ½ degree Use the following information to answer question 4: Min. Preferred Max. Specifications: Camber (degree) 0 1.0 1.4 Caster (degree) .8 1.5 2.1 Toe (inch) –.10 .06 .15 Results: L R Camber (degree) –.1 .6 Caster (degree) 1.8 1.6 Toe (inch) 1.12 +.12 4. The vehicle above will ____________________________. (Text pages 1539; 1548-1549) a. pull toward the right and feather-edge both tires X b. pull toward the left c. wear the outside of the left tire and the inside of the right tire d. none of the above 5. After the vehicle is set up on the alignment rack, perform a(n) ________ to check front caster. (Text page 1544) a. angle measurement b. runout check c. caster sweep X d. height adjustment 6. A four-wheel alignment allows the_____________ to be adjusted to zero. (Text page 1547) a. centerline b. thrust line X c. rear toe d. front toe 7. Technician A says that the front toe determines the thrust angle. Technician B says that a tolerance adjustment involves removing and reinstalling subframe bolts. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1547; 1556) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X 317 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8. Which alignment procedure may be done using self-calibration? (Text page 1559) a. Toe b. Camber c. Caster d. Steering angle sensor (SAS) X 9. Technician A says that a vehicle with modified suspension may need an aftermarket kit installed to achieve the specified alignment settings. Technician B says that the radar cruise control may have to be recalibrated if aligning a vehicle equipped with an electronic suspension. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1557) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technician A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. Structural damage may be discovered by measuring______________ . (Text page 1559) a. tire wear b. frame diagonals X c. with a carpenter’s level d. toe-in

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CHAPTER 126 Clutches REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the parts of a typical clutch assembly? (Text pages 1565-1566) A clutch assembly consists of the pressure plate, friction disc, and release bearing.

2. What happens when the driver depresses the clutch pedal? (Text page 1566) When the driver depresses the clutch pedal, the release bearing is forced toward the flywheel pressing against the pressure plate, which in turn releases the force on the friction disc.

3. Which of the following is the cause of a noise: pilot bearing, throwout (release) bearing, and input shaft bearing. (Text page 1574) With the engine running and the transmission/transaxle in neutral and the clutch engaged (clutch pedal up), the input shaft bearing is the cause of any growl or grinding noise heard. If a chirping sound is heard as the clutch pedal is depressed, a worn fork or pivot is indicated. If the noise gets louder as you depress the clutch, the release bearing is the problem.

4. Why is a dual-mass flywheel used on some vehicles? (Text page 1570) A dual mass flywheel is used on many luxury vehicles and vehicles equipped with diesel engines to dampen engine firing impulses that can cause a vibration in the shift lever.

5. What is meant by clutch pedal freeplay? (Text page 1576) Clutch pedal freeplay is the amount of clutch pedal movement that does not result in any movement of the release bearing. This freeplay is often specified to be sure that the clutch is fully released.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the purpose and function of a clutch? (Text page 1565) a. To disconnect the engine from the transmission/transaxle b. To connect and transmit engine torque to the transmission/ transaxle c. To dampen and absorb engine impulses and drive train vibration d. All of the above X 2. A What is the purpose and function of a dual-mass flywheel? (Text page 1570) a. Dampen engine vibrations X b. Increase the torque of the engine c. Decrease the amount of force needed to depress the clutch pedal d. Eliminates the need for a throwout (release) bearing 3. Which part does not rotate when the engine is running and the clutch pedal is depressed?

(Text page 1566) a. Clutch disc X b. Pilot bearing c. Pressure plate d. Flywheel 319 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4. What part is often not used on a front-wheel-drive vehicle with a manual transaxle?

(Text page 1566) a. Flywheel b. Throwout (release bearing) c. Clutch fork d. Pilot bearing X 5. What should be done to check to see if a clutch is slipping? (Text page 1574) a. Release the clutch at idle speed in gear to see if it causes the engine to stall. b. Rapidly accelerate the vehicle in first or second gear and rapidly shift the transmission into a higher gear. X c. Shift from first to reverse with the clutch pedal depressed and see if it goes into gear. d. Place the shifter into second gear and start the engine with the clutch pedal depressed.

6. A manual transmission is difficult to shift or get into gear, especially reverse. Technician A says that the clutch may not be fully releasing. Technician B says that too much clutch pedal freeplay could be the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1574) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Before removing the transmission to replace a clutch, the ______________ must be disconnected. (Text page 1574) a. battery b. shift linkage c. reverse light switch wires d. all of the above X 8. Technician A says that too much clutch pedal freeplay can cause the clutch to slip during acceleration. Technician B says that too little clutch pedal freeplay can cause the clutch to slip. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1576) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 9. What needs to be done before attaching the pressure plate to the flywheel? (Text page 1575) a. Align the clutch disc to the pilot bearing. X b. Have an assistant depress the clutch pedal. c. Bleed the hydraulic clutch. d. Adjust the freeplay.

10. Two technicians are discussing bleeding a hydraulic clutch. Technician A says to open the bleeder and allow the fluid to gravity bleed. Technician B says to have an assistant slowly depress the clutch pedal as the bleeder valve is opened at the actuator cylinder to bleed the air out of the system. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1576) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 320 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

CHAPTER 127 Manual Transmissions/Transaxles REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Calculate the gear ratio if the driven gear has 36 teeth and the driving gear has 12 teeth.

(Text page 1584) 3:1

2. What is meant by an overdrive ratio? (Text page 1585) An overdrive ratio means that the output (driven gear) rotates faster than the input (driving gear).

3. What are the parts of a manual transmission? (Text page 1586) A manual transmission consists of the following major components: transmission case, extension housing, input shaft, front bearing retainers, output shaft, countershaft, and shifting mechanism.

4. How is a synchronizer assembly able to allow a clash-free shift? (Text page 1587) A synchronizer allows clash-free shifting by using the synchronizer ring (blocking ring) against the speed gear to match the speeds of the gear before the shift is completed.

5. What are the possible lubricants that a manual transmission/transaxle may require?

(Text page 1597) A manual transmission/transaxle may require any one of the following lubricants: gear lube, engine oil, ATF, or Synchromesh transmission fluid (STF).

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the purpose and function of a transmission? (Text page 1582) a. Allows the engine to accelerate the vehicle b. Allows the engine speed to be reduced at higher speeds to save fuel c. Allows the vehicle to accelerate up a hill d. All of the above X 2. The type of gears used in a transmission include? (Text pages 1582-1583) a. Spur gear b. Helical gear c. External gears d. All of the above X 3. What is the relationship between sped, torque and power? (Text page 1585) a. Torque and speed have an inverse relationship. b. As speed increases, torque increases. c. With a constant input speed, transmission torque decreases as output speed increases. d. Both a and c X 4. Which part is splined to the clutch disc? (Text page 1587) a. Main shaft b. Countershaft (lay shaft) 321 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. Cluster shaft d. Main gear X 5. In a manual transmission, engine torque is applied to the ______________ when the engine is running and the clutch is engaged. (Text page 1587) a. input shaft b. main gear c. cluster gear d. all of the above X 6. The free rotating gears on the main shaft of a RWD manual transmission are called ______________ gears. (Text page 1587) a. floating b. fixed c. hypoid d. speed X 7. Which part of a synchronizer is splined to a shaft? (Text page 1588) a. Synchronizer sleeve b. Hub X c. Synchronizer ring (blocking ring) d. Speed gear 8. A rear-wheel-drive 5-speed manual transmission is being discussed. What is the gear ratio when the transmission is in 4th gear? (Text page 1591) a. 1.5 to 1 b. 1 to 1 X c. 3 to 1 d. 8 to 1 9. A front-wheel-drive 5-speed manual transmission is being removed from the vehicle? What needs to be supported before removing the transaxles? (Text page 1593) a. The engine X b. The flywheel c. The throw-out bearing d. All of the above 10. A manual transmission is difficult to shift but only when the outside temperature is below freezing (32°F or 0°C). Technician A says that the brass blocking ring could be defective.

Technician B says that incorrect gear lubricant could be the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1597) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 128 Drive Shafts and CV Joints REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Why must Cardan-type U-joints on a drive shaft be within ½ degree working angles?

(Text page 1607) Cardan-type U-joints on a drive shaft must be within ½ degree working angles to prevent excessive drive line vibration.

2. What makes a constant velocity joint able to transmit engine torque through an angle at a constant velocity? (Text page 1608) A constant velocity joint is designed to always split the working angle of the joint exactly in half resulting in no change of speed between the input and the output of the joint assembly.

3. What type of grease must be used in CV joints? (Text page 1612) CV joints require specific grease as supplied by the vehicle or CV joint manufacturer.

CV joint grease is usually molybdenum disulfide-type commonly called "moly" grease.

4. Why is necessary to replace a dented drive shaft? (Text page 1605) The surface is tension, and cracks can develop on the outside surface of the driveshaft due to metal fatigue. Driveshaft tubing can bend and, if dented, can collapse. A dented driveshaft should be replaced and no attempt should be made to repair the dent.

5. What is the purpose of the weight found on some drive axle shafts? (Text page 1610) Some drive axle shafts are equipped with what looks like a balance weight. It is actually a dampener weight used to dampen out certain drive line vibrations. The weight is not used on all vehicles and may or may not appear on the same vehicle depending on engine, transmission, and other options.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Two technicians are discussing a dented driveshaft. Technician A says that it should be repaired. Technician B says that it should be replaced. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1605) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. All driveshafts are balanced to within _____. (Text page 1605) a. one oz b. 10 oz c. 15 oz. d. 0.5% of the driveshaft weight X

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3. Drive axle shafts are also called ______________. (Text page 1610) a. double-Cardan shafts b. half shafts X c. driveshafts d. propeller shafts 4. The name most often used to describe the universal joints on a conventional rear-wheel-drive vehicle driveshaft is ______________. (Text page 1606) a. trunnion b. Cardan X c. CV d. spider 5. A rear-wheel-drive vehicle vibrates when first accelerating from a stop. The vibration is less noticeable at higher speeds. The most likely cause is ______________. (Text page 1607) a. driveshaft unbalance b. excessive U-joint working angles c. unequal U-joint working angles X d. brinelling of the U-joint 6. The maximum difference between the front and rear working angle of a driveshaft is ______________. (Text page 1606) a. 1/4 degree b. 1/2 degree X c. 1 degree d. 3 degrees 7. Which series U-joint has the greatest torque capacity? (Text page 1609) a. 1260 b. 1310 c. 1350 d. 1480 X 8. Two technicians are discussing torque steer on a front-wheel-drive vehicle. Technician A says that equal-length drive axle shafts help reduce torque steer. Technician B says that equal drive axle shaft angles help reduce torque steer. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1610) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 9. The outer CV joints used on front-wheel-drive vehicles are ______________.

(Text page 1609) a. fixed type X b. plunge type c. double Cardan d. either b or c depending on the vehicle

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10. The proper grease to use with a CV joint is ______________. (Text page 1612) a. black chassis grease b. dark blue EP grease c. red moly grease d. the grease that is supplied with the boot kit X

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CHAPTER 129 Drive Shafts and CV Joint Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What two items should be checked when inspecting a drive shaft? (Text page 1615) The two items that should be checked when inspecting a drive shaft include checking for dents or creases, and undercoating or grease buildup.

2. What steps are necessary to measure drive shaft U-joint working angles? (Text page 1618) Use an inclinometer on the rear U-joint and record the angle, then rotate the driveshaft 90 and record the angle again. Subtract the larger from the smaller to determine the working angle of the U-joint.

3. What is the procedure for replacing a Cardan-type U-joint? (Text page 1616) A Cardan-type U-joint is replaced by first removing any snap rings and using a press to separate the U-joint from the yoke. After removing any dirt or burrs from the yoke, press in a new joint.

4. How is an a CV joint replaced? (Text pages 1619-1623) The steps needed to replace a CV joint include: Step 1 - Remove the front wheel and hub nut.

Step 2 - Separate the ball-joint or strut to allow the steering knuckle room to move outward.

Step 3 - Remove the splined end of the axle from the hub bearing, then remove the inner joint from the transaxle.

Step 4 - Disassemble, clean, and inspect all CV joint parts and replace any worn parts.

Step 5 - Fill the CV joint with the specified grease and "burp" out any trapped air.

Tighten the boot retainer and reinstall the drive axle shaft.

5. What is a prevailing torque nut? (Text page 1621) Prevailing torque nuts are slightly deformed or contain a plastic insert that holds the nut tight (retains the torque) to the shaft without loosening.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Two technicians are discussing U-joints. Technician A says that a defective U-joint could cause a loud clunk when the transmission is shifted between drive and reverse. Technician B says a worn U-joint can cause a clicking sound only when driving the vehicle in reverse.

Which technician is correct? (Text page 1614) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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2. A Cardan-type U-joint may require what tool(s) to replace? (Text page 1617) a. A special tool b. A torch c. A press or a vise d. May require any of the above X 3. Incorrect or unequal U-joint working angles are most likely to be caused by _______________. (Text page 1619) a. a bent driveshaft b. a collapsed engine or transmission mount X c. a dry output shaft spline d. defective or damaged U-joints 4. Front and rear driveshaft U-joint working angles should be within _______________ degrees of each other. (Text page 1618) a. 0.5 X b. 1.0 c. 3.0 d. 4.0 5. What could be a symptom of a defective U-joint? (Text page 1614) a. A vibrations at highway speed b. A clicking sound c. A clunking sound d. Any of the above X 6. A defective outer CV joint will usually make a _______________. (Text page 1619) a. rumbling noise b. growling noise c. clicking noise X d. clunking noise 7. The last step after installing a replacement CV boot is to _______________.

(Text page 1620) a. “burp the boot” X b. lubricate the CV joint with chassis grease c. mark the location of the boot on the drive axle shaft d. separate the CV joint before installation 8. What needs to be removed to replace a drive axle shaft from a front-wheel-drive vehicle?

(Text page 1619-1620) a. Tie rod end b. Lower control arm or ball joint c. Hub nut d. All of the above X 9. The splines of the driveshaft yoke should be lubricated to prevent _______________.

(Text page 1621) a. a vibration b. spline bind X 327 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. rust d. transmission fluid leaking from the extension housing 10. What is recommended to install the drive axle shaft to avoid damage to the hub bearing?

(Text page 1620; 1623) a. Torque wrench X b. Cordless impact wrench c. Pickle fork d. Hub bearing puller

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CHAPTER 130 Drive Axles and Differentials REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Explain how to determine the axle ratio without removing the housing cover.

(Text page 1635) After hoisting the vehicle, mark the rear tires and the drive shaft. Have an assistant hold one drive wheel and slowly rotate the other wheel exactly 10 revolutions. Multiply the drive shaft revolution by 2 and then, move the decimal point one place to the left to get the final ratio.

2. Describe how to perform a ring gear tooth contact pattern test. (Text page 1636) To perform a ring gear tooth contact pattern test, coat the ring gear with marking grease and apply a torque to the ring gear as an assistant rotates the pinion gear.

3. What are three methods that may be used to determine the proper drive pinion gear depth.

(Text pages 1638-1639) Proper drive pinion gear depth can be determined by the wear pattern, markings on the pinion gear, or with a gauging set.

4. Explain how to achieve proper drive pinion gear bearing preload. (Text page 1639) To achieve proper drive pinion gear bearing preload, use an inch-pound torque wrench and measure the turning torque.

5. Describe how to adjust the position of the ring gear to achieve the proper backlash. (Text pages 1639-1941) Shims or adjusting collars are used to adjust the relationship between the ring gear and drive pinion gear to achieve the proper backlash.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Inside the drive axle of a rear-wheel-drive vehicle, the ring gear is attached to the ________.

(Text page 1627) a. drive shaft b. pinion gear c. differential case X d. spider gears 2. A limited-slip differential has ________ on the side gears that a standard (open) differential does not have _______. (Text page 1631) a. sliders b. clutch packs X c. slip teeth d. slipper rings

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3. A collapsible spacer is used in some differentials to provide ______________.

(Text page 1638) a. a lubrication path to the drive pinion bearing b. the proper preload for the side bearings c. the proper preload for the drive pinion bearings X d. the proper amount of slippage in a limited-slip differential 4. The shim used on a drive pinion gear is used to properly position the gear so that it can correctly mesh with the ______________. (Text page 1638) a. ring gear X b. side gear c. differential pinion gears d. both b and c 5. Technician A says that the convex side of the ring gear is the drive side on most rear axle assemblies. Technician B says that the convex side of the ring gear is the drive side on differentials used in the front of many four-wheel-drive vehicles. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1637) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. A growling sound is heard from the rear of a rear-wheel-drive vehicle during cornering only.

Technician A says that defective rear axle bearings may be the cause. Technician B says that defective drive pinion bearings may be the cause. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1635) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Technician A says that if the backlash is okay, then the side bearing preload is also okay.

Technician B says that a ring gear tooth pattern check will indicate if the drive pinion depth is correct. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1638) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. The backlash exceeds specifications. The technician should position the ring gear ______________. (Text page 1641) a. closer to the drive pinion gear X b. farther from the drive pinion gear c. toward the heel d. toward the toe 9. The backlash is less than specifications (too low). This will cause the ring gear tooth pattern to be too close to the ______________. (Text page 1637) a. heel b. flank 330 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. toe X d. face 10. Two technicians are discussing which lubricants are used in a limited-slip differential.

Technician A says to use SAE 80W-140. Technician B says that most vehicle manufacturers usually specify SAE 80W-90 be used with or without special limited-slip additives. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1642) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 131 Four-Wheel-Drive and All-Wheel Drive REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What is the difference between four-wheel drive and all-wheel drive? (Text page 1646-1647) Four-wheel-drive vehicles use a transfer case with a low range with or without a differential. An all-wheel-drive vehicle uses a center differential, but without a low range in the transfer case.

2. Why do part-time four-wheel drive vehicles use locking front hubs? (Text page 1646) Locking hubs are required on part-time four-wheel-drive vehicles to lock the wheels to the front axle. Otherwise, the front wheels simply free wheel.

3. What is the difference between a mode shift and a range shift in a transfer case?

(Text page 1648) A mode shift is the selection of two wheel-drive or four-wheel drive, whereas a range shift selects low or high range in the transfer case.

4. How does a viscous coupling work? (Text page 1647) A viscous coupling uses silicon fluid that stiffens to reduce the speed difference between the front and rear drive shafts.

5. What are the elements of the planetary gear set used in many transfer cases?

(Text page 1650) The elements of a typical planetary gear set include a ring gear (annulus or internal gear), sun gear, and a planet carrier with planetary pinion gears attached.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that the gear ratios of both differentials are the same in a four-wheel-drive vehicle. Technician B says that the rear differential has a slightly higher ratio (lower number) than the front differential. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1648) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. Technician A says that a vehicle equipped with part-time four-wheel drive should be driven in four-wheel drive only on slippery surfaces. Technician B says that full-time four-wheeldrive vehicles use a center differential in the transfer case. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1646- 1647) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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3. Two technicians are discussing the towing of a four-wheel-drive vehicle. Technician A says that the vehicle should be transported on a flatbed truck to avoid the possibility of doing damage to the drive train. Technician B says that the wheels not lifted off the ground by the tow truck should be placed on a dolly to prevent doing damage to the drive train. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1646) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. Two technicians are discussing the front axle disconnect mechanism. Technician A says that the front axles are only disconnected if the vehicle is being towed. Technician B says that this unit is only used on all-wheel-drive vehicles. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1650) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X 5. Which type of system uses a one-speed transfer case and a center differential with a viscous coupling? (Text page 1647) a. Part-time four-wheel drive b. Full-time four-wheel drive c. Full-time four-wheel drive with automatic locking front hubs d. All-wheel drive X 6. A customer complained that the front wheel would skip, hop and shake while cornering and accelerating at the same time. Technician A says that a fault in the transfer case is the most likely cause. Technician B says that the vibration may be normal if the vehicle is equipped with Cardan U-joints at the front wheels. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1652) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Technician A says that most transfer cases have a built in oil pump. Technician B says that most transfer cases use a heavy grease as a lubricant. Which technician is correct?

(Text page 1653-1654) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Technician A says that a transfer case may use GL-4 gear lube, such as SAE 80W-90.

Technician B says that a transfer case may use automatic transmission fluid (ATF). Which technician is correct? (Text page 1653) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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9. A transfer case is extremely noisy in all selections whenever the vehicle is moving.

Technician A says the drive chain may be stretched, causing the noise as it hits the inside of the case. Technician B says that one or more of the transfer case bearings could be defective.

Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1653- 1654) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 10. Technician A says that a range shift is used to select high or low gear ratios within transfer case. Technician B says that a mode shift is used to select two-wheel drive or four-wheel drive. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1648) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 132 Vibration and Noise Diagnosis and Correction REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How can you tell if the source of a vibration is at the front or the rear of a vehicle during a test-drive? (Text page 1663) If the vibration is felt or seen in the steering wheel, dash, or hood of the vehicle, the problem is most likely to be caused by defective or out-of-balance front wheels or tires.

If the vibration is felt in the seat of the pants or seems to be all over the vehicle, the problem is most likely to be caused by defective or out-of-balance rear wheels or tires.

In a rear-wheel- drive vehicle, the driveshaft (propeller shaft) and related components might also be the cause.

2. What are the steps to perform a neutral run-up test? (Text page 1663) With the transmission in Neutral or Park, slowly increase the engine RPM and with a tachometer, observe the RPM at which the vibration occurs.

3. What are two types of frequency-measuring instruments? (Text page 1667) Vibration can be measured using a reed tachometer or an electronic vibration analyzer (EVA).

4. Why is the balance of a driveshaft on a rear-wheel-drive vehicle more important than the balance of a front-wheel-drive axle shaft. (Text page 1670) Driveshaft balance is more important than front drive axle shaft balance because a driveshaft rotates much faster. A typical driveshaft rotates about three times faster than the drive wheels due to the gear reduction in the differential. Drive axle shafts rotate at the same speed as the drive wheels.

5. Explain how to check and balance a driveshaft on a rear-wheel-drive vehicle.

(Text page 1670) Using a strobe balancer to check for driveline vibration requires that an extension be used on the magnetic sensor. Tall safety stands are used to support the rear axle to keep the driveshaft angles the same as when the vehicle is on the road.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 1. A vibration or noise can be caused by all of the following except______ (Text page 1662) a. exhaust system b. wheels and tires c. incorrect driveshaft angles d. exhaust smoke X 2. An engine related vibration can be best detected by performing a __________.

(Text page 1663) a. neutral run-up test X b. test drive on a rough road c. hard acceleration from a stop d. any of the above 335 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3. Driveline vibrations due to a bent or out-of-balance driveshaft on a rear-wheel-drive vehicle usually produce a vibration that is______________ . (Text page 1663) a. felt in the steering wheel b. seen as a vibrating dash or hood c. felt in the seat or all over the vehicle X d. felt by the rear passengers only 4. A vibration is felt in the steering wheel during braking only. A common cause of the vibration is ______________. (Text page 1665) a. worn idler arm b. out-of-balance front tires c. loose or defective wheel bearing(s) d. warped or nonparallel front disc brake rotors X 5. The rolling circumference of both tires on the same axle of a four-wheel-drive vehicle should be within_____. (Text page 1667) a. 0.1 inch (2.5 mm) b. 0.3 inch (7.6 mm) c. 0.6 inch (15 mm) X d. 1.2 inch (30 mm) 6. Wheel/tire imbalance is the most common source of vibrations that occur in what frequency range? (Text page 1667) a. 5–20 Hz X b. 20–50 Hz c. 50–100 Hz d. 100–150 Hz 7. The maximum allowable driveshaft runout is_________ . (Text page 1669) a. 0.030 inch (0.8 mm) X b. 0.10 inch (2.5 mm) c. 0.50 inch (13 mm) d. 0.015 inch (0.4 mm) 8. Measuring driveshaft U-joint phasing involves checking to see if the front and rear U-joints are ________with each other. (Text page 1669) a. parallel X b. crossed c. at an angle d. opposite phased 9. A driveshaft can be checked for proper balance by marking the circumference of the shaft in four places and running the vehicle drive wheels to spot the point of imbalance using a__________ . (Text page 1670) a. Reed tachometer b. strobe light X c. electronic vibration analyzer d. scan tool

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10. A defective clutch release (throw-out) bearing is usually heard when the clutch is __________. (Text page 1672) a. engaged in neutral b. disengaged in a gear c. depressed to take up any freeplay X d. engaged in first gear or reverse

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CHAPTER 133 Automatic Transmission/Transaxle Principles REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. How can torque converters double engine torque? (Text page 1679) A torque converter can double engine torque by using the stator inside the torque converter. The stator redirects hydraulic flow against the turbine section of the torque converter.

2. What are the three elements of a planetary gear set? (Text page 1682) The elements of a typical planetary gear set include a ring gear (annulus or internal gear), sun gear, and a planet carrier.

3. How can various gear ratios and reverse be obtained by using a compound planetary gear set?

(Text page 1683) Driving one element and holding another element of a planetary gear set results in various gear ratios, as well as reverse.

4. How does a continuously variable transmission provide variable ratios? (Text page 1686) A continuously variable transmission provides for variable ratios by using a steel belt between two pulleys whose width, and therefore, the diameter can be hydraulically changed.

5. How does a dual clutch automatic transmission shift gears? (Text page 1689) A dual clutch automatic transmission shifts gears by either applying or releasing either of the clutches. The mechanical selection of the gear is performed hydraulically, and then a shift is made when one clutch is applied and the other clutch is released.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Two technicians are discussing automatic transmissions/transaxles. Technician A says that it is normal for a vehicle to move slightly when the gear selector is in the drive position with the brakes released. Technician B says that the stator may be defective if the vehicle moves while in gear when the engine is at idle speed. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1679) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 2. How much is engine torque increased or multiplied when a typical torque converter is at stall speed? (Text page 1679) a. Double X b. Four times c. Eight times d. Ten times

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3. What is the purpose and function of a lock-up part of the torque converter? (Text page 1680) a. Improve fuel economy by eliminating slippage. X b. Increases vehicle performance by allowing more torque multiplication. c. Allows the transmission/transaxle to shift faster. d. Increases fluid pressure in the transmission/transaxle.

4. Technician A says that all dual clutch automatic transmissions use two dry clutches.

Technician B says that some automatic transmissions do not use planetary gear sets. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1685) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 5. Technician A says that a held member is also called the reaction member. Technician B says that if any two elements are locked together then the output will be 1:1. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1682-1683) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 6. Technician A says that when an automatic transmission/transaxle shifts into overdrive, the output shaft is rotating faster (higher RPM) than the engine crankshaft. Technician B says that an overdrive ratio is a ratio where the first number is less than 1. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1685) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. Technician A says that one planetary gear set can provide gear reduction, overdrive, and reverse. Technician B says that most transmissions today use compound (multiple) planetary gear sets. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1683-1684) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 8. Automatic transaxles include a ______________ in addition to the planetary gear sets.

(Text page 1685) a. transversal b. dry clutch c. differential assembly X d. spur gear 9. A CVT-type transaxle uses a ______________ instead of planetary gear sets.

(Text page 1686) a. belt and pulley system X b. helical gear set 339 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

c. spur gear set d. dry clutch 10. Technician A says that all dual clutch automatic transmissions use two dry clutches.

Technician B says that some automatic transmissions do not use planetary gear sets. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1685) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 134 Hydraulic Components and Control Systems REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are three planetary gear set apply devices? (Text page 1696) The three holding devices include bands, clutches, and one-way clutches.

2. How are shift points achieved with a hydraulically controlled automatic transmission/transaxle? (Text pages 1703-1704) Shift points are achieved with a hydraulically-controlled automatic transmission/transaxle by using a governor to monitor vehicle speed and a throttle valve or vacuum modulator valve to determine engine load.

3. How are solenoids used to control the shifting on electronically controlled automatic transmissions/transaxles? (Text page 1706) Solenoids allow passages to be opened or closed so that shift valves can be used to send hydraulic fluid pressure to the clutches/bands.

4. What are the parts of a typical clutch pack assembly? (Text page 1697) A typical clutch pack assembly includes the friction plates, steel plates (reaction plates), wavy plate, backing plate, clutch piston, spring assembly, and snap ring(s).

5. What are the solenoids used in a typical electronically controlled automatic transmission/transaxle? (Text page 1705) Electronically-shifted automatic transmissions/transaxles typically use two shift solenoids, a pressure control solenoid, and a torque converter clutch solenoid.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. All current-model automatic transmissions are designed to use ______________.

(Text page 1692) a. non-friction modified ATF b. friction modified ATF c. SAE 0W-20 engine oil dyed red d. highly friction modified ATF X 2. Two technicians are discussing automatic transmission/transaxle oil pumps. Technician A says that many automatic transmissions/transaxles use a variable displacement pump.

Technician B says that the pump is driven by the torque converter. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1694-1695) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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3. Technician A says that the automatic transmission/transaxle fluid (ATF) cooler is designed to cool the automatic transmission fluid. Technician B says that the cooler also warms the ATF when the fluid is cold. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1693-1694) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 4. Technician A says that the governor is used to measure vehicle speed in an hydraulically-controlled automatic transmission. Technician B says that the difference between hydraulically controlled and electronically controlled automatic transmissions is the way that the shift points are controlled. Which technician is correct? (Text pages 1704-1705) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 5. Force motors are controlled by the computer by ______________. (Text page 1695) a. increasing/decreasing current (amperes) b. PWM X c. increasing/decreasing voltage d. changing the resistance in the circuit 6. Two technicians are discussing one-way clutches. Technician A says that a sprag and a roller are two types of one-way clutches. Technician B says that a one-way clutch could be installed upside down and cause the automatic transmission/transaxle to not function correctly. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1700) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. What is the part of the planetary gear set called that is being held by a band?

(Text page 1696) a. Reaction member X b. Compound gear set c. Simple gear set d. Held member 8. What is the purpose and function of an accumulator? (Text page 1698) a. To apply a clutch b. To apply a band c. To cushion or dampen pressure surges X d. Either a or b 9. Check balls used in the valve body are constructed of ______________. (Text page 1702) a. steel b. nylon c. rubber d. any of the above X 342 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

10. Technician A says the default or limp-in gear is usually second or third gear. Technician B says that a transmission clutch, band and solenoid chart shows the technician what is being applied in each gear. Which technician is correct? ? (Text pages 1706-1707) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 135 Automatic Transmission/Transaxle Diagnosis and In-Vehicle Service REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What tests can be performed on an automatic transmission/transaxle to determine any faults while the unit is still in the vehicle? (Text pages 1711-1714) The tests that can be performed to check an automatic transmission/transaxle for faults include: fluid level check, pan removal and inspection, pressure tests, as well as TV cable adjustment, manual linkage adjustment, and modulator valve checks.

2. How does a defective torque converter clutch solenoid cause the vehicle to stall when the vehicle is slowing to a stop? (Text page 1715) If a torque converter clutch solenoid becomes stuck in the applied position, the engine will stall when the vehicle slows to a stop because the torque converter clutch does not disengage.

3. How is the ATF level determined on a transmission/transaxle that does not have a dipstick?

(Text page 1712) To check transmission fluid level on a vehicle without a dipstick, perform the following steps: STEP 1 Check service information for the correct checking procedure.

STEP 2 Check the transmission temperature using a scan tool. This is very important and the vehicle will usually need to be driven for several miles before the specified fluid temperature is achieved.

STEP 3 Locate and carefully remove the fluid level plug. Note that the level plug can be small, like a pressure check plug, or large, like a conventional plug. The plug can be located in the transmission case or on the bottom or side of the pan.

STEP 4 If fluid drips or seeps from the hole, the level is correct.

4. How is a pressure test of the mainline and other pressures of an automatic transmission/transaxle performed? (Text page 1718) Pressure taps are provided on the case of most automatic transmissions/transaxles that allow a pressure gauge to be installed to check mainline and other pressures.

5. What precautions have to be used when stall testing? (Text page 1715) Some vehicle manufacturers do not recommend performing a stall test because it can be dangerous if the brakes were to fail during the test, and it places stress on the engine.

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Technician A says that the PCM should be checked for any stored diagnostic trouble codes when diagnosing a transmission fault. Technician B says that technical service bulletins (TSBs) should be checked whenever there is a transmission-related customer concern. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1713) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only 344 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B A vehicle is being tested using a scan tool. Technician A says that the throttle position (TP) sensor should, read between 0 and 1 volt. Technician B says that the a factory or factory level scan tool is needed to check for proper voltage and current of the shift solenoids. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1713) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B An electronically controlled overdrive automatic transmission is equipped with a transmission fluid temperature sensor. Technician A says that the shifts may be changed if the fluid temperature is too high. Technician B says that overdrive may be disabled if the transmission fluid temperature is too high. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1717) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B A scan tool can be used to ______________. (Text page 1713) a. check for stored diagnostic trouble codes b. command a shift c. check for transmission-related sensor information d. all of the above X Caution should be used when performing a stall test because ______________.

(Text page 1715) a. it could increase the temperature of the ATF. b. it could be hazardous if the brakes fail. c. it puts a strain on the engine. d. all of the above X An electronically controlled automatic transmission was tested using a pressure gauge and the pressures were below specifications. Technician A says that a defective torque converter is the likely cause. Technician B says that a defective shift solenoid could be the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1718) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B X Technician A says that two bolts should be loosened and the other bolts removed when removing the pan of an automatic transmission. Technician B says that if there is any friction material found in the pan, the transmission needs to be overhauled. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1719) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 345 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8. Fluid leaks can be checked using_______(Text page 1716) a. visual inspection b. dye added to the ATF c. a black light d. all of the above X 9. Fluid exchange can be performed using ______________. (Text page 1720) a. drain and refill three times b. a machine that replaces the ATF through the cooler lines c. a machine that forces the old fluid out, using a pump inside the machine that is attached to the fluid inlet after removing the transmission pan and filter d. any of the above X 10. Two technicians are discussing inspection of the transmission pan. Technician A says that some friction material at the bottom of the pan is normal. Technician B says that if any metal parts stick to a magnet, further investigation is needed to determine the cause. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1719) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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CHAPTER 136 Automatic Transmission/Transaxle Unit Repair REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. What are the typical operations needed when disassembling an automatic transmission/transaxle? (Text pages 1726-1728) Disassembling an automatic transmission/transaxle from a vehicle requires that the vehicle be hoisted and the drive shaft(s) be removed, as well as the ball housing, mounts, cooler lines, and electrical connectors be removed.

2. What are two methods of checking a clutch pack? (Text page 1729) A clutch pack can be checked using a feeler (thickness) gauge and can be air checked using regulated compressed air and a rubber tip nozzle.

3. Why is it important to perform an end play check of an automatic transmission/transaxle during the reassembly process. (Text page 1730) End play checks are critical to be sure that all components have the necessary clearances and are also used to double check that all components have been properly assembled.

4. Why is it important to flush the automatic transmission fluid cooler when a rebuilt or replacement automatic transmission/transaxle is being installed in a vehicle.

(Text page 1732) The cooler must be flushed after the replacement or overhaul of any automatic transmission/transaxle to make sure that debris does not flow into the new unit and to check that the cooler and lines are not restricted.

5. Why should assembly lube NOT be red in color? (Text page 1731) It looks like an ATF leak when it melts .

CHAPTER QUIZ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: 1. Slide hammers or special pullers are used to remove what component? (Text page 1726) a. Extension housing b. Filter c. Pump X d. Rear seal 2. Technician A says that the sharp edges of spool valves should be rounded, using 400 grit sandpaper. Technician B says that all valve body parts should be cleaned and dried using low-pressure, filtered compressed air. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1727) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B X d. Neither Technician A nor B

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3. Friction discs should be ______________ before being installed. (Text page 1729) a. sanded b. soaked in ATF X c. surface roughed up d. all of the above 4. Technician A says that the torque converter should be separated from the flex (drive) plate before removing the automatic transmission/transaxle. Technician B says that the clutches should be installed “dry” when replacing the frictions and steels in a clutch pack. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1723) a. Technician A only X b. Technician B only c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 5. Air pressure checking is used to test ______________. (Text page 1729) a. clutch packs X b. TV adjustment c. vacuum modulators d. governors 6. Technician A says that all friction and steel plates in a clutch pack should be replaced during an overhaul. Technician B says that the automatic transmission fluid cooler should always be flushed when a unit is rebuilt or replaced. Which technician is correct? (Text page 1732) a. Technician A only b. Technician B only X c. Both Technicians A and B d. Neither Technician A nor B 7. What part must be replaced if dropped? (Text page 1733) a. Pump b. Torque converter X c. Extension housing d. Pan 8. Clutch pack clearance can be changed if not correct by using selective ______________.

(Text page 1729) a. piston b. pressure plate c. snap ring d. one of the above depending on the unit X 9. How much transmission fluid should flow through the cooler? (Text page 1732) a. 2 quarts every 30 seconds X b. 1 quart per minute c. 2 quarts per minute d. 2 pints per minute

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10. Why should red assembly lube be avoided? (Text page 1731) a. Can harm friction disks b. Too slippery c. Clogs filters d. Looks like an ATF leak when it melts X

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