TEST BANK fo rORGB 6th Edition. by Debra L. Nelson and James Campbell Quick. ISBN 9781337671859, 133

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Chap 01_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The study of organizational behavior is only concerned with the psychosocial dynamics in organizations. a. True b. False 2. Nonprofit organizations are important to our collective well-being because they meet needs that other sectors do not address. a. True b. False 3. Total quality management is a total dedication to continuous improvement. a. True b. False 4. The manufacturing sector includes transportation, financial services, insurance, and retail sales. a. True b. False 5. Skill development is facilitated by structured practice and feedback. a. True b. False 6. Management is especially important to our understanding of organizational culture. a. True b. False 7. Early research of individuals, groups, and organizations found that people become open and responsive in the midst of change. a. True b. False 8. A complete understanding of organizational behavior requires only an understanding of the organizational context within which human behavior is acted out. a. True b. False 9. Total quality management is an employee-driven philosophy of management. a. True b. False 10. Global competition is a leading force driving change at work. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

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Chap 01_ORGB6 11. An insurance company is modifying its outsourcing strategies to keep both talent and information within the organization. Which of the following factors is influencing the company's outsourcing strategy? a. Intergroup dynamics b. Potential for data loss c. Increasing popularity of ergonomics d. Organizational hierarchy 12. Lindock Corp., an electronics manufacturer, emphasizes human productivity and efficiency through the application of organizational goal-setting programs and differential piece-rate systems. The management at Lindock Corp. is borrowing ideas from the discipline of _____. a. psychology b. anthropology c. sociology d. engineering 13. The internal perspective understands human behavior in terms of the: a. work load of an individual. b. past experiences of an individual. c. consequences and environmental forces. d. organization communication channels.

14. In the context of understanding human behavior, Kurt Lewin combined internal and external perspectives with his claim that behavior is a function of: a. the individual preferences for leadership style. b. compliant and deviant behavior within social groups. c. the organizational culture and group dynamics. d. both the person and the environment.

15. To ensure that skill development does occur and that the learning is self-correcting as it occurs, a student: a. must rely primarily on the group process. b. should not experiment with new ideas and information. c. must passively accept the direction of others with more knowledge. d. must accept responsibility for his or her own behavior, actions, and learning.

16. Kantone Corp. is a producer of cars and motorcycles. Kantone Corp is part of the _____. a. manufacturing sector b. public sector c. service sector d. nonprofit sector 17. Which of the following best defines a challenge? a. It is the mastery of abilities essential to successful functioning in organizations. b. It is the unofficial and less visible part of a system. c. It is the transformation or modification of an organization and/or its stakeholders. d. It is the call to competition, contest, or battle.

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Chap 01_ORGB6 18. Managing organizational behavior during changing times is challenging because of the: a. emergence of small-scale industries. b. increasing employment opportunities provided by organizations. c. decreasing diversity of organizational workforces. d. continuing demand for higher levels of moral behavior at work.

19. Lucy, Daisy's manager, feels that Daisy is an exceptional performer at work because she desires accomplishment and has a high need for achievement. Which of the following perspectives is Lucy using to explain Daisy's behavior? a. Internal perspective b. External perspective c. Interactive perspective d. Cultural perspective 20. Which of the following statements is true of total quality? a. It has direct effects on the behavior of employees at all levels in an organization. b. It is the transformation or modification of an organization and/or its stakeholders. c. It encourages instructors and students of organizational behavior to think critically. d. It focuses on factors outside the person to understand behavior.

21. Which of the following statements is true of the service sector of the economy? a. It includes the production of basic materials as well as the production of finished products. b. It includes transportation, financial services, insurance, and retail sales. c. It provides essential infrastructure to all other sectors. d. It is important to collective well-being because it meets needs that are not addressed by other sectors.

22. _____ is the first discipline to take the modern corporation as the unit of analysis and emphasize the design, implementation, and coordination of various administrative and organizational systems. a. Engineering b. Sociology c. Management d. Anthropology 23. _____ is a leading force driving change at work that has increased significantly during the past few decades, especially in industries such as banking, finance, and air transportation. a. Global competition b. Politics c. Employee attrition d. Process management 24. _____ leads to competitive advantage through results acceleration and resource effectiveness. a. High employee turnover b. Quality improvement c. Objective knowledge d. Skill development Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_ORGB6 25. The internal or external perspectives offer: a. change and challenge for people at work. b. an organization its mission, purpose, or goal. c. the human resources of an organization. d. alternative explanations for human behavior.

26. _____ research has been used to examine the effects of efficient organizational cultures on organizational performance and the ways pathological personalities may lead to dysfunctional organizational cultures. a. Psychological b. Sociological c. Anthropological d. Managerial 27. The specific setting within which organizational behavior is enacted is called the _____. a. organizational structure b. external environment c. organizational context d. formal organization 28. In the context of interdisciplinary influences, _____ is the science of human behavior. a. anthropology b. sociology c. engineering d. psychology 29. Which of the following is a formal element of an organization? a. Values b. Group norms c. Communication channels d. Perceptions and attitudes 30. A questioning, probing attitude is at the core of _____. a. job analysis b. organizational reality c. critical thinking d. personal interaction skills 31. _____ are elements of an informal organization. a. Communication channels b. Authority structures c. Beliefs and assumptions d. Policies and procedures 32. One of the advantages of structured, experiential learning is that: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_ORGB6 a. it explains people's actions and behavior in terms of their histories and personal value systems. b. a person can explore new behaviors and skills in a comparatively safe environment. c. it focuses on factors outside the person to understand behavior. d. the behavior of employees at all levels in an organization is affected.

33. In the context of interdisciplinary influences, _____ is the science of human learned behavior. a. management b. anthropology c. sociology d. psychology 34. In any field of study, objective knowledge is developed through: a. valuable experience. b. intensive training. c. application of skills. d. basic and applied research.

35. Martha, Ben's manager, feels that Ben is an outstanding performer at work because the company pays him well.

Which of the following perspectives is the manager using to explain Ben's behavior? a. Internal perspective b. External perspective c. Interactive perspective d. Cultural perspective 36. Which of the following is an informal element of an organization? a. Goals and objectives b. Job descriptions c. Perceptions d. Policies 37. According to Eric Brown, CEO of Johnson Products Company, Inc., one of the action steps for adapting to change is: a. being apathetic to success. b. not asking questions. c. having a positive attitude. d. having a non-responsive attitude.

38. In the context of interdisciplinary influences, _____ is the applied science of energy and matter. a. psychology b. engineering c. sociology d. medicine 39. Which of the following disciplines has shifted to issues involved in occupational health and well-being? a. Medicine Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_ORGB6 b. Psychology c. Sociology d. Engineering 40. Which of the following organizational variables affects human behavior at work? a. Performance appraisal b. Technology utilization c. Data interpretation d. Objective knowledge 41. In the context of organizations as open systems, _____ involves the systems of communication, authority and roles, and workflow. a. task b. technology c. structure d. machinery 42. In the context of behavior in times of change, people become _____ in the midst of environmental change. a. open and responsive b. more productive c. dependent on others d. rigid and reactive 43. In the context of human behavior in organizations, change is: a. the transformation or modification of an organization and/or its stakeholders. b. the unofficial and less visible part of a system. c. the call to competition, contest, or battle. d. the official, legitimate, and most visible part of a system.

44. Federal regulators are part of an organization's: a. formal structure. b. labor market. c. external task environment. d. transformation technology.

45. The Hawthorne studies, conducted during the 1920s and 1930s, first suggested the importance of the _____. a. functional elements b. formal elements c. informal elements d. central elements 46. In the context of human behavior in organizations, _____ are favorable times or chances for progress and advancement. a. opportunities b. challenges Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_ORGB6 c. changes d. technologies 47. Which of the following statements is true of quality improvement? a. It can always be optimized. b. It enhances the probability of organizational success. c. It leads to the stagnation of customer needs and expectations. d. It decreases customer responsiveness and resource effectiveness.

48. Briefly explain the forces driving change at work.

49. Distinguish between informal and formal organizations. Which of these affects organizational behavior?

50. Explain organizations as open systems.

51. Describe the activities involved in learning about organizational behavior.

52. Define organizational behavior and name the organizational variables that affect human behavior at work.

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Chap 01_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. b 12. d 13. b 14. d 15. d 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. b 25. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_ORGB6 26. c 27. c 28. d 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. b 34. d 35. b 36. c 37. c 38. b 39. a 40. a 41. c 42. d 43. a 44. c 45. c 46. a 47. b 48. Answers will vary.

Global competition, which is a leading force driving change at work, has increased significantly during the past few decades, especially in industries such as banking, finance, and air transportation. As a result, change has accelerated and, with it, both opportunities and risks. Corporate competition creates performance and cost pressures, changes that have a ripple effect on people and their behavior at work. Although one such risk for employees is the marginalization of parttime professionals, good management practice can ensure their integration. Furthermore, although competition may lead to downsizing and restructuring, it also provides the opportunity for revitalization. And small companies don't necessarily Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_ORGB6 lose in this competitive environment. Please see the section "Change Creates Opportunities" for more information.

49. Answers will vary.

The formal organization is the official, legitimate, and most visible part of the organization, and this is the part that enables people to think of organizations in logical and rational ways. The informal organization is unofficial and less visible. The formal and informal elements of an organization can sometimes conflict. It is the informal elements involving people's feelings, thoughts, and attitudes about their work that most affect their behavior and performance, but individual behavior plays out in the context of both the formal and informal elements of the system, becoming, in the process, organizational behavior. Please see the section "The Formal and Informal Organization" for more information.

50. Answers will vary.

Just as two different perspectives offer complementary explanations for human behavior, two views shape complementary explanations of organizations. Organizations are open systems of interacting components, including people, tasks, technology, and structure. These internal components also interact with components in the organization's task environment. Please see the section "The Organizational Context" for more information.

51. Answers will vary.

Learning about organizational behavior includes at least three activities. First, the science of organizational behavior requires the mastery of a certain body of objective knowledge. Objective knowledge results from research, experimentation, and scientific observation. Second, the practice of organizational behavior requires skill development based on knowledge and an understanding of oneself in order to master the abilities essential to success. Third, both objective knowledge and skill development must be applied in real-world settings. Please see the section "Learning about Organizational Behavior" for more information.

52. Answers will vary.

Organizational behavior is defined as the study of individual behavior and group dynamics in organizations. The study of organizational behavior is primarily concerned with the psychosocial, interpersonal, and behavioral dynamics in organizations. The organizational variables that affect human behavior at work include jobs, the design of work, communication, performance appraisal, organizational design, and organizational structure. Please see the section "Human Behavior in Organizations" for more information.

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Chap 02_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Firms that are seen as socially responsible do not have a competitive advantage in attracting applicants. a. True b. False 2. In cultures characterized by traditional femininity, assertiveness and materialism are valued. a. True b. False 3. In corporations that shatter the glass ceiling, upper managers demonstrate support for the advancement of women. a. True b. False 4. Sexual harassment is more likely to occur in some organizations than in others—for example, in male-dominated workplaces. a. True b. False 5. Corporate social responsibility is an organization's obligation to behave ethically in its social environment. a. True b. False 6. Organizations can manage whistleblowing by explaining the conditions that are appropriate for disclosing wrongdoing. a. True b. False 7. The ethical questions in procedural justice examine the process by which an organization distributes its resources. a. True b. False 8. Consequential theories of ethics emphasize the character of the act itself, not its effects, in arriving at universal moral rights and wrongs. a. True b. False 9. Ethical theories help us understand, evaluate, and classify moral arguments. a. True b. False 10. The glass ceiling is the degree to which a culture tolerates ambiguity and uncertainty. a. True b. False 11. Cultures characterized by individualism are tightly knit social frameworks in which individual members depend strongly on others and group decisions are valued and accepted.

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Chap 02_ORGB6 a. True b. False 12. A profession's code of ethics becomes a standard against which members can measure themselves in the absence of internalized standards. a. True b. False 13. In countries with a high power distance, people believe in minimizing inequality. a. True b. False 14. An organization in which the national viewpoint supersedes the global viewpoint is a transnational organization. a. True b. False 15. Mr. Okazaki, a Japanese manager employed at the Honda plant in Marysville, Ohio, is an expatriate. a. True b. False 16. In societies with low power distance, bosses are afforded more authority, which is seldom bypassed, titles are used, and formality is the rule. a. True b. False 17. Distributive justice is the fairness of the process by which outcomes are allocated in an organization. a. True b. False 18. Sexual coercion includes crude comments or behaviors that convey hostility toward a particular gender. a. True b. False 19. Drug testing, free speech, downsizing and layoffs, and due process are but a few of the employee rights issues that managers face. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

20. _____ includes crude comments or sexual jokes and behaviors that convey hostility toward a particular gender. a. Gender coercion b. Sexual exploitation c. Gender harassment d. Sexual abuse Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_ORGB6 21. The _____ eliminated many of the tariffs, such as the heavy tariffs Mexico placed on U.S. exports, and provided that the remaining tariffs be phased out over time. a. G-3 Free Trade Agreement b. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade c. North American Free Trade Agreement d. ASEAN Free Trade Area 22. Which of the following is a benefit of diversity? a. It results in better communication. b. It enhances organizational flexibility. c. It leads to faster decision making. d. It helps in solving interpersonal conflicts.

23. Diversity has garnered increasing attention in recent years largely because: a. understanding diversity results in more profits. b. the global viewpoint supersedes national issues. c. of guanxi, the Chinese practice of building networks for social exchange. d. of demographic changes in the working population.

24. _____ involves unwanted touching or repeated pressures for dates. a. Sexual coercion b. Unwanted sexual attention c. Gender harassment d. Sexual abuse 25. Which of the following statements is true of women in the workforce? a. Their representation on standing committees is accurate. b. Their share of authority is increasing commensurately with their education. c. Majority of them occupy line positions in business. d. They receive fewer benefits because benefits are tied to compensation.

26. _____ is a cultural orientation in which people belong to loose social frameworks and their primary concern is for themselves and their families. a. Collectivism b. Individualism c. Communitarianism d. Socialism 27. The globalization of business and changing demographic trends present organizations with a culturally diverse workforce, creating the challenge: a. to prepare women to contribute in organizations. b. to utilize the talents of the workforce. c. to harness the wealth of differences provided by cultural diversity. d. to take a more activist position regarding employee rights.

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Chap 02_ORGB6 28. Which of the following is a similarity between prejudice and discrimination? a. Both diminish organizational productivity. b. Both help in minimizing inequality. c. Both value assertiveness and materialism. d. Both are characterized by traditional masculinity.

29. _____ is a cultural orientation in which individuals belong to tightly knit social frameworks and depend strongly on extended families or clans. a. Collectivism b. Individualism c. Communitarianism d. Socialism 30. In the context of age diversity, which of the following statements is true of the baby boomers? a. They are also called the silent generation. b. They tend to strive for moral rights in the workplace. c. They are people born from 1965 through 1976. d. They struggle to integrate into a cohesive group.

31. Which of the following statements is true of Smith's doctrine of natural liberty? a. The self-interest of human beings is the government's providence. b. People should be allowed to pursue what is in their economic self-interest. c. An individual's inner character is the main focus of this ethical concept. d. The character of an act is the main focus of this ethical concept.

32. Which of the following statements is true of cultural relativism? a. People should not be allowed to pursue what is in their economic self-interest. b. Local standards guide ethical behavior. c. Good is the ultimate moral value. d. Good consequences do not always follow right actions.

33. Which of the following statements is true of cultures characterized by traditional masculinity? a. Achievement is admired. b. Quality of life is very important. c. People and the environment are emphasized. d. Relationships are valued.

34. In the context of ethical dilemmas facing the modern organization, whistle-blowing is: a. an example of white-collar crime. b. a powerful influence on the corporate world. c. an illustration of distributive justice. d. unethical.

35. In the context of valuing diversity, which of the following is a difference between prejudice and discrimination? a. Prejudice is a cultural orientation in which people belong to loose social frameworks, whereas discrimination Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_ORGB6 is a cultural orientation in which individuals belong to tightly knit social frameworks. b. Prejudice relates to the acceptance of the unequal distribution of power, whereas discrimination relates to the tolerance of ambiguity and uncertainty. c. Prejudice emphasizes results of behavior, whereas discrimination emphasizes the character of an individual. d. Prejudice is an attitude, whereas discrimination describes behavior.

36. Corporations and business enterprises tend to subscribe to _____. a. cultural relativism b. universal moralism c. consequential ethics d. rule-based ethics 37. Procedural justice concerns: a. creativity and innovation. b. organizational flexibility. c. the fairness of the process by which outcomes are allocated. d. the fairness of outcomes individuals receive.

38. In the context of age diversity, which of the following statements is true of young workers? a. They may view older workers as resistant to change. b. They are more satisfied with their jobs. c. They are more committed to their organization. d. They strive for moral rights in the workplace.

39. Minority workers are less likely to be prepared to face severe economic difficulties and high crime rates in large cities because: a. their share of authority and compensation does not increase. b. they have not had satisfactory schooling. c. they only have basic training skills. d. they are the underutilized talents of the workforce.

40. Which of the following statements is true of people in cultures with low uncertainty avoidance? a. They are less threatened by and more willing to trust one another. b. They are more willing to take risks and are more comfortable with individual differences. c. They are concerned with security and tend to avoid conflict. d. They tend to seek consensus in an effort to moderate the threat of life's inherent uncertainty.

41. _____ is the degree to which a culture accepts unequal distribution of power. a. Glass ceiling b. Uncertainty avoidance c. Power norms d. Power distance 42. Which of the following statements is true of people in cultures with high uncertainty avoidance? a. They are less threatened by and more willing to trust one another.

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Chap 02_ORGB6 b. They are more willing to take risks and are more comfortable with individual differences. c. They accept dissenting viewpoints. d. They tend to seek consensus in an effort to moderate the threat of life's inherent uncertainty.

43. Which of the following statements is true of corporate social responsibility? a. Organizations are not obliged to behave ethically in their social environment. b. Ethical conduct at the organizational level can translate into social responsibility at the individual level. c. Multiple stakeholders expect organizations to engage in communally accountable actions. d. Firms that are seen as socially responsible do not have a competitive advantage.

44. Managers feel that dealing with diversity is a paramount concern because: a. they have low uncertainty avoidance. b. they must value respect for tradition. c. they must communicate with employees who have different values. d. they are given authority only if they have expertise.

45. Which of the following is a major challenge that managers must overcome to remain competitive? a. Globalizing their firm's operations b. Managing a person's finances and daily activities c. Managing a uniform workforce d. Anticipating changes in foreign currency valuations 46. In societies with low power distance, _____. a. bosses are afforded more authority b. managers and employees judge each other on a basis of equality c. managers and employees see one another as fundamentally different kinds of people d. titles are used and formality is the rule 47. Which of the following is a risk created by the changing demographic trends that present organizations with a culturally diverse workforce? a. Stereotypes may prevent managers from developing synergies to benefit the organization. b. Women's share of compensation may not increase commensurately with their education. c. The aging workforce may decrease intergenerational contact at work. d. People who adhere strictly to cultural relativism may avoid difficult ethical dilemmas.

48. In the context of competing in the global economy, globalization suggests that the: a. presence of a uniform workforce curtails competition. b. world is divided by borders and diverse cultures. c. world is free from national boundaries and is borderless. d. organization's nationality is held strongly in consciousness.

49. Many Chinese use guanxi, or personal connections, to: a. reward employees at work. b. conduct business or obtain jobs.

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Chap 02_ORGB6 c. evaluate the performance of individual group members. d. understand the global work environment.

50. In countries with a high power distance, _____. a. formality is the rule b. titles are not used c. people trust one another d. employees judge each other on a basis of equality 51. Which of the following statements is true of managing diversity? a. It makes companies less competitive. b. It decreases intergenerational contact at work. c. It is a cultural orientation in which relationships and concern for others are valued. d. It requires a painful examination of employees' hidden assumptions.

52. Provide a brief explanation for the character theories of ethics.

53. Briefly discuss the issues an organization would want to understand if it were interested in a business venture in China.

54. Mention the benefits and problems of diversity.

55. Explain distributive justice and procedural justice and distinguish between them.

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Chap 02_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. False 12. True 13. False 14. False 15. True 16. False 17. False 18. False 19. True 20. c 21. c 22. b 23. d 24. b 25. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_ORGB6 26. b 27. c 28. a 29. a 30. b 31. b 32. b 33. a 34. b 35. d 36. c 37. c 38. a 39. b 40. b 41. d 42. d 43. c 44. c 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. c 49. b 50. a 51. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_ORGB6 52. Answers will vary.

Virtue ethics, of which character theories of ethics are a type, offer an alternative to understanding behavior in terms of self-interest or rules. Character theories of ethics emphasize the character of the individual and the intent of the actor instead of the character of the act itself or its consequences. These virtue-ethics theories are based on an Aristotle's view of ethics, which focused on an individual's inner character and virtuousness rather than on outward behavior. Thus, the good person who acted out of virtuous and right intentions was one with integrity and ultimately good ethical standards.

Robert Solomon is the best known advocate of this Aristotelian approach to business ethics. He advocates a business ethics theory centered on the individual within the corporation, emphasizing personal virtues as well as corporate roles.

Solomon's six dimensions of virtue ethics are community, excellence, role identity, integrity, judgment, and holism. Please see the section "Ethics, Character, and Personal Integrity" for more information.

53. Answers will vary.

Chinese managers' business practices have been shaped by the Communist party, socialism, feudalistic values, and guanxi, the practice of building networks for social exchange. Once guanxi is established, individuals can ask favors of each other with the expectation that the favor will be returned. Thus, many Chinese use guanxi, or personal connections, to conduct business or obtain jobs. Americans can learn to build their own guanxi in order to interact effectively with Chinese managers. This would involve understanding the Chinese chain of command and negotiating slow, general agreements. Please see the section "Competing in the Global Economy" for more information.

54. Answers will vary.

The benefits of diversity are: 1. It attracts and retains the best talent.

2. It improves marketing efforts.

3. It promotes creativity and innovation.

4. It results in better problem solving.

5. It enhances organizational flexibility.

The problems of diversity are: 1. It is resistant to change.

2. It lacks cohesiveness.

3. It consists of communication problems.

4. It results in interpersonal conflicts.

5. It slows the decision making process. Please see the section "The Diverse Workforce" for more information.

55. Answers will vary.

Distributive justice concerns the fairness of outcomes individuals receive. For example, during former President George H.W. Bush's 1992 visit, Japanese CEOs questioned the distributive justice of keeping American CEOs' salaries so high while many companies were struggling and laying off workers.

Procedural justice concerns the fairness of the process by which outcomes are allocated. The ethical questions in procedural justice examine the process by which an organization distributes its resources.

One study of work scheduling found that advance notice and consistency, two dimensions of procedural justice, reduced voluntary turnover. Some research suggests cultural differences in the effects of distributive and procedural justice. Please see the section "Ethical Dilemmas Facing the Modern Organization" for more information.

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Chap 03_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The process by which individuals try to control the impressions others have of them is called impression management. a. True b. False 2. Behavioral measures of personality examine an individual's behavior in a controlled situation. a. True b. False 3. Perceivers prefer flexible and spontaneous lives and like to keep options open. a. True b. False 4. Self-report questionnaires suffer from potential biases as it is difficult to view your own personality objectively. a. True b. False 5. People with high self-esteem and internal locus of control tend to be higher performers and are more satisfied with their jobs. a. True b. False 6. The integrative approach to personality emphasizes individual growth and improvement. a. True b. False 7. Primacy effect occurs when we observe a very brief bit of a person's behavior in our first encounter and infer that this behavior reflects what the person is really like. a. True b. False 8. Self-monitoring is the extent to which people base their behavior on cues from other people and situations. a. True b. False 9. Self-serving bias is the tendency to attribute one's successes to internal causes and one's failures to external causes. a. True b. False 10. Mood is a state that has been found to be relatively stable and therefore contributes to the objective accuracy of perception. a. True b. False 11. An individual with a positive self-concept tends to notice positive attributes in another person.

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Chap 03_ORGB6 a. True b. False 12. High self-monitors pay attention to what is appropriate in particular situations and to the behavior of other people, and they behave accordingly. a. True b. False 13. High achievers are more likely to attribute their success to others and good luck. a. True b. False 14. General mental ability is the psychological approach to understanding human behavior that involves knowing something about the person and about the situation. a. True b. False 15. The Extraversion/Introversion preference represents perception or information gathering. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

16. Which of the following statements is true of employees with high general self-efficacy? a. They may express doubts about performing new tasks well. b. They don't react well to close supervision. c. They have more confidence in their job-related abilities. d. They prefer not to participate in decision making.

17. Which of the following is a determinant of personality? a. Projection b. Time orientation c. Diversity d. Heredity 18. _____ allows a person to perceive multiple characteristics of another person rather than attending to just a few traits. a. Attention span b. Self-concept c. Cognitive weighting d. Cognitive complexity 19. In the Big Five personality traits, _____ means a person is calm, self-confident, and cool as opposed to insecure, anxious, and depressed. a. emotional stability b. agreeableness Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_ORGB6 c. conscientiousness d. openness to experience 20. Which of the following is one of the most important determinants of self-efficacy? a. Negative affect b. High self-esteem c. Previous success d. Self-monitoring 21. _____ is our tendency to prefer information that supports our viewpoints. a. Selective perception b. Stereotype c. Projection d. Self-fulfilling prophecy 22. According to Charles Spearman, which of the following is the single best predictor of work performance across many occupations and across different cultures? a. General mental ability b. Cognitive behavioral approach c. Psychoanalysis d. Interactional psychology 23. Ritchie and Maddox are students pursuing a course in organizational behavior. Ritchie outperforms Maddox in the first exam. Maddox believes that their exam performances cannot be compared as Ritchie is a psychology major and Maddox has a major in accounting. Which of the following best explains Maddox's reaction? a. He has a high self-esteem. b. He has a positive affect. c. He has an external locus of control. d. He has an inflated generalized belief of his capabilities.

24. Which of the following statements is true of failure-oriented individuals? a. They attribute their failures to lack of effort. b. They behave consistently across situations. c. They attribute their failures to lack of ability. d. They pay less attention to situational cues.

25. In the context of personality measurement tools, the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory: a. elicits an individual's response to abstract stimuli. b. measures the Big Five traits. c. measures Carl Jung's theory of individual differences. d. helps diagnose several neurotic or psychotic disorders.

26. In an organization, people with an internal locus of control: a. appreciate more structured work settings. b. prefer not to participate in decision making.

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Chap 03_ORGB6 c. prefer participative management styles. d. react well to close supervision.

27. The interactional psychology approach points out the need to study both persons and situations. The situation includes _____. a. work group b. personality c. perception d. emotions 28. In the context of Myers-Briggs Type Indicator of personality, the _____ preference describes the way we prefer to make decisions. a. Extraversion/Introversion b. Sensing/Intuition c. Thinking/Feeling d. Judging/Perceiving 29. A(n) _____ is a situation that overwhelms the effects of individual personalities by providing strong cues for appropriate behavior. a. weak situation b. integrative situation c. rigid situation d. strong situation 30. In the context of barriers to social perception, _____ are also called the Pygmalion effect. a. projections b. self-fulfilling prophecies c. first-impression errors d. selective perceptions 31. In the context of the Big Five personality traits, _____ people are more motivated and perform better than others. a. emotionally stable b. agreeable c. conscientious d. extraverted 32. The three major categories of factors that influence our perception of another person include: a. characteristics of ourselves, the target person, and the situation. b. availability of information, the target person, and the situation. c. timing, availability, and consistency of information. d. characteristics of ourselves, the target person, and consistency of information.

33. In the context of personality measurement tools, the _____ elicits an individual's response to abstract stimuli. a. behavioral test b. projective test Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_ORGB6 c. self-report questionnaire d. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator 34. Which of the following best defines behavioral measures of personality? a. They are an individual's tendency to accentuate the positive aspects of herself or himself. b. They help people base their behavior on cues from other people and situations. c. They elicit an individual's response to abstract stimuli. d. They examine an individual's behavior in a controlled situation.

35. Which of the following statements is true of introverted and conscientious employees? a. They are less motivated and perform poorly. b. They tend to rate others more leniently on peer evaluations. c. They are calm, self-confident, and cool. d. They are less likely to be absent from work.

36. Which of the following statements is true of low self-monitors? a. They offer emotional help to people dealing with work-related anxiety. b. They respond appropriately to changes in the organizational situation. c. They appear more unpredictable. d. They behave consistently across situations.

37. In the context of characteristics of a perceiver, which of the following factors will affect social perception? a. Physical appearance b. Verbal communication c. Self-concept d. Nonverbal cues 38. In the context of personality characteristics in organizations, which of the following statements is true of employees with positive affect? a. They have fewer absentee days. b. They base their behavior on cues from others. c. They behave consistently across situations. d. They focus only on the bad aspects of themselves.

39. Managers should encourage employees to raise their self-esteem by: a. measuring the results of employees' tasks. b. providing continual positive feedback to the entire workforce. c. exercising control in their work environments. d. giving them appropriate challenges and opportunities for success.

40. In the context of Myers-Briggs Type Indicator of personality, the _____ preference represents where you find energy. a. Extraversion/Introversion b. Sensing/Intuition c. Thinking/Feeling Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_ORGB6 d. Judging/Perceiving 41. People with an internal locus of control don't react well to close supervision, so managers should: a. control their work environments. b. provide them with a more structured work setting. c. give them considerable voice in how work is performed. d. keep a close watch on all their actions.

42. Carl Jung's theory holds that the _____ preference reflects the most important distinction among individuals. a. Extraversion/Introversion b. Sensing/Intuition c. Thinking/Feeling d. Judging/Perceiving 43. Individuals who focus on the good aspects of themselves, other people, and the world in general are said to have _____. a. high general self-efficacy b. cultural intelligence c. low self-esteem d. positive affect 44. The discounting principle is a characteristic of _____. a. the situation b. a perceiver c. a target d. an introvert 45. The tendency to make attributions to internal causes when focusing on someone else's behavior is called _____. a. fundamental attribution error b. self-serving bias c. discounting attribution error d. self-fulfilling prophecy 46. Which of the following is a proposition of interactional psychology? a. Behavior is a function of a discontinuous, unidirectional interaction of a person in a situation. b. A person is inactive in the interactional process and is unaffected by the situation he or she is in. c. Two aspects of a situation are important: the objective situation and the person's subjective view of the situation. d. People's cognitive, affective, motivational, and ability factors do not vary.

47. Describe individuals with an internal locus of control.

48. Identify the most common errors that affect the attribution process.

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Chap 03_ORGB6 49. Identify the basic propositions of interactional psychology.

50. Identify and explain barriers to social perception.

51. How would a manager use self-fulfilling prophecies to improve a work group?

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Chap 03_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. False 14. False 15. False 16. c 17. d 18. d 19. a 20. c 21. a 22. a 23. a 24. c 25. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_ORGB6 26. c 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. b 31. c 32. a 33. b 34. d 35. d 36. d 37. c 38. a 39. d 40. a 41. c 42. a 43. d 44. a 45. a 46. c 47. Answers will vary.

An individual's generalized belief about internal versus external control is called locus of control. People who believe they control what happens to them have an internal locus of control, whereas people who believe that circumstances or other people control their fate have an external locus of control. In an organization, people with an internal locus of control often report higher job satisfaction, exhibit superior job performance, are more likely to assume managerial positions, and tend to prefer participative management styles more than those with an external locus of control. Because internals believe they control what happens to them, they will want to exercise control in their work environments. Internals don't react well to close supervision, so managers should give them considerable voice in how work is performed. Please see the section "Personality and Organizations" for more information.

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Chap 03_ORGB6 48. Answers will vary.

The attribution process may be affected by two very common problems: The first is the tendency to make attributions to internal causes when focusing on someone else's behavior, known as the fundamental attribution error. The other error, self-serving bias, occurs when focusing on one's own behavior. Individuals tend to make internal attributions for their own successes and external attributions for their own failures. In other words, when we succeed, we take credit for it; when we fail, we blame the situation on other people. Please see the section "Attribution in Organizations" for more information.

49. Answers will vary.

There are four basic propositions of interactional psychology: (1) Behavior is a function of a continuous, multidirectional interaction between the person and the situation.

(2) The person is active in this process, both changing situations and being changed by them.

(3) People vary in many characteristics, including cognitive, affective, motivational, and ability factors.

(4) Two aspects of a situation are important: the objective situation and the person's subjective view of the situation. Please see the section "Individual Differences and Organizational Behavior" for more information.

50. Answers will vary.

Five barriers to social perception are selective perception, stereotyping, first- impression error, projection, and selffulfilling prophecies. Stereotyping stems from generalizing about a group of people. Selective perception involves using only information that supports one's preconceived view of someone. One's initial interaction with another may lead to an incorrect conclusion or first-impression error. A self-fulfilling prophecy occurs in a situation where one's expectations about people affect interaction with them in such a way that expectations are fulfilled. Please see the section "Barriers to Social Perception" for more information.

51. Answers will vary.

If a supervisor is told that a work group contains individuals with high achievement potential, this information may get translated into high expectations of the supervisor and he or she may set high goals and objectives for the group, that is, higher goals and objectives than would otherwise be set. With high expectations and goals, group members may respond with unusually strong effort and meet the high goals and objectives. Please see the section "Barriers to Social Perception" for more information.

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Chap 04_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Today's high-intensity business environment decreases the need for strong ethics programs. a. True b. False 2. The tension produced by a conflict between attitudes and behavior is emotional dissonance. a. True b. False 3. Machiavellianism is a personality characteristic involving one's willingness to do whatever it takes to get one's own way. a. True b. False 4. Substantial social learning occurs through cognitive dissonance. a. True b. False 5. Individuals with high negative affectivity are more likely to be satisfied with their jobs. a. True b. False 6. The longer the time is between the attitude measurement and the observed behavior, the stronger the relationship. a. True b. False 7. Messages are more persuasive if managers frame them with the same emotion as that felt by the employees. a. True b. False 8. Andrew, a manager, is a high-Mach individual as he always threatens his employees into following his orders because he believes that it is better to be feared than loved. a. True b. False 9. Three major characteristics of the source affect persuasion: expertise, trustworthiness, and attractiveness. a. True b. False 10. Externals are more likely than internals to take personal responsibility for the consequences of their ethical or unethical behavior. a. True b. False 11. Behavior that is above and beyond the call of duty is called organizational citizenship behavior.

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Chap 04_ORGB6 a. True b. False 12. Ethical behavior involves acting in ways consistent with one's personal values and the commonly held values of an organization and society. a. True b. False 13. Job Descriptive Index asks employees to respond to statements about their jobs using a five-point scale that ranges from very dissatisfied to very satisfied. a. True b. False 14. Individuals with high self-esteem are more likely to change their attitudes in response to persuasion than are individuals with low self-esteem. a. True b. False 15. Internals are more resistant to social pressure and are less willing to hurt another person even if ordered to do so by an authority figure. a. True b. False 16. Organizational citizenship behavior is defined as any voluntary, attitude-driven, counterproductive behavior that violates organizational norms and causes some degree of harm to organizational functioning. a. True b. False 17. Firms with better reputations attract more applicants. a. True b. False 18. Attitudes derived from direct experience are powerful because they are active in our cognitive processes. a. True b. False 19. Those with an internal locus of control believe that outside forces such as fate, chance, or other people control what happens to them. a. True b. False 20. In the context of the elaboration likelihood model, the target's level of involvement with an issue is not important in determining the most effective route to persuasion. a. True b. False

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Chap 04_ORGB6

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21. Asterix Solutions, an IT firm, is downsizing to reduce its fixed costs. Erin, an employee at the firm, observes that several competent employees are being laid off while those who are incompetent are being retained. Erin decides to take revenge against her manager and sabotages the project reports on her manager's computer. Erin is engaging in _____. a. ethical behavior b. workplace deviance behavior c. organizational citizenship behavior d. altruistic behavior 22. Positive moods at work: a. decrease deviance. b. decrease organizational citizenship behavior. c. lead to more turnover intentions. d. increase altruistic behavior.

23. _____ are those values that influence individuals' perceptions of right and wrong on the job. a. Work values b. Terminal values c. Cultural values d. Instrumental values 24. The key to influencing both satisfaction and performance through rewards is that the: a. rewards are not valued by employees. b. managers use a non-participative style of management. c. rewards are tied directly to performance. d. work should not be challenging.

25. Abraham is a salesman who sells used cell phones as new ones. The phones have been repackaged to make them look new. Abraham knows that this is unethical and faces a conflict between concealing information from his customers and selling them the used phones. The tension created by this conflict between his attitude and his behavior is known as _____. a. peripheral route b. emotional contagion c. emotional dissonance d. cognitive dissonance 26. _____ is a component of an attitude that reflects a person's perceptions or beliefs. a. Cognition b. Behavioral intent c. Self-monitoring d. Affect 27. Syntax & Co., a waste management firm, announces that it has invented an environment-friendly machine for nuclear waste treatment. Julie, a junior employee at the company, discovers that the waste is not being treated, but instead, it is being dumped in a river outside the city. Julie believes that this is unethical and is not sure whether she should reveal this Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_ORGB6 information to the public. The tension caused by this conflict is called _____. a. emotional contagion b. cognitive dissonance c. peripheral route d. emotional dissonance 28. Which of the following best describes a person–organization fit? a. It is the ability of employees to control their feelings and expression of emotions in the workplace. b. It is the desire of an employee to remain in an organization. c. It is the match between an individual's values and an organization's values. d. It is the strength of an individual's identification with an organization.

29. In the context of ethical behavior, which of the following is an instrumental value identified by Rokeach? a. Self-sufficiency b. Freedom c. Self-respect d. Happiness 30. _____ encompasses loyalty and a deep concern for an organization's welfare. a. Emotional dissonance b. Continuance commitment c. Affective commitment d. Cognitive dissonance 31. _____ is a type of emotional labor that involves attempting to feel the emotion one is displaying. a. Deep acting b. Emotional dissonance c. Surface acting d. Workplace deviance 32. _____ is made up of several types of abilities: perceiving, understanding, facilitating, and regulating emotion. a. Emotional dissonance b. Emotional intelligence c. Emotional labor d. Emotional contagion 33. Which of the following cognitive routes to persuasion involves direct cognitive processing of a message's content? a. The central route b. The direct route c. The peripheral route d. The major route 34. _____ is the willingness of an individual to make decisions when all that needs to be known cannot be known and when the ethical issue has no established, unambiguous solution. a. Tough-mindedness Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_ORGB6 b. Organizational citizenship behavior c. Cognitive dissonance d. Emotional intelligence 35. The attitude–behavior link is stronger when: a. rewards are valued by employees and are tied directly to performance. b. the time between the attitude measurement and the observed behavior is short. c. organizational citizenship behavior is directed at different facets of an organization. d. the social context does not reinforce the attitudes and cultural belief systems.

36. To prevent and manage workplace deviance behavior, managers should: a. increase the power distance in the organization. b. give all employees high performance ratings. c. terminate employees who show deviance. d. encourage positive attitudes among employees.

37. In the context of persuasion and attitude change, individuals with _____ are more likely to change their attitudes in response to persuasion. a. low self-esteem b. positive affect c. negative affect d. high general self-efficacy 38. Which of the following is a characteristic of high-Machs? a. They value loyalty and relationships. b. They have a cynical view of human nature. c. They are less willing to manipulate others for personal gain. d. They are concerned with others' opinions.

39. Which of the following statements is true of dissatisfied workers in an organization? a. They do not engage in workplace deviance behavior. b. They do not report any psychological and medical problems. c. They see a misfit between their values and the organization's values. d. They lead to the reduction of the organization's cost of turnover.

40. Derek, a manager at a multinational investment firm in France, is transferred to the Indian office of the firm. He holds a negative view of the work environment there as the office hours stretch beyond 6 p.m. This is inconsistent with his attitude because in France, people work only till 6 p.m. Despite this, he is compelled to work beyond 6 p.m. as his colleagues have a positive attitude toward it. In the context of attitude–behavior correspondence, the factor that leads to Derek's compliant behavior is _____. a. attitude specificity b. social constraints c. personality factors d. attitude relevance Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_ORGB6 41. Which of the following best defines organizational commitment? a. It is the strength of an individual's identification with an organization. b. It is acting in ways consistent with one's personal values and the commonly held values of an organization and society. c. It is the behavior that is above and beyond the call of duty. d. It is the process of deriving attitudes from family, peer groups, religious organizations, and culture.

42. Attitudes are an important factor in organizational behavior because: a. they influence performance evaluations of managers. b. they are easily accessed. c. they are closely linked to behavior. d. they last longer than emotions.

43. _____ is a discrepancy between one's felt emotion and one's expressed emotion. a. Emotional dissonance b. Emotional labor c. Emotional contagion d. Emotional intelligence 44. Which of the following best defines emotional intelligence? a. It is the ability to recognize and manage emotion in oneself and in others. b. It is the discrepancy between one's felt emotion and one's expressed emotion. c. It is the process through which emotions of one person are transferred to another through nonverbal channels. d. It is the work that employees do to control their feelings and expression of emotions in the workplace.

45. In the context of the ABC Model, affect can be measured by: a. asking a person's intentions. b. attitude scales. c. self-report questionnaires. d. observing behavior.

46. Which of the following statements is true of low-Mach individuals? a. They value loyalty and relationships. b. They manipulate others for personal gain. c. They are not concerned with others' opinions. d. They are more likely to engage in unethical behavior.

47. _____ is the process of deriving attitudes from family, peer groups, religious organizations, and culture. a. Social learning b. Cognitive moral development c. Direct experience d. Cognitive dissonance 48. _____ motivates individuals to change either their attitudes or their behavior to maintain consistency. a. Dissonance Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_ORGB6 b. Competence c. Consonance d. Cognition 49. Which of the following statements is true of people with an internal locus of control? a. They believe that outside forces such as fate, chance, or other people control what happens to them. b. They are less resistant to social pressure. c. They take personal responsibility for the consequences of their ethical or unethical behavior. d. They are willing to hurt another person when ordered to do so by an authority figure.

50. Through the process of _____, one individual tries to change the attitude of another person in regard to a certain issue. a. persuasion b. dissonance c. behavioral intent d. cognition 51. Sophie, an employee at Dandrill Corp., comes to office about an hour late. Morgan, Sophie's manager, asks her to inform him the next time she would be late. Sophie immediately starts ranting angrily at him. Which of the following will help Sophie avoid such an emotional response? a. Emotional intelligence b. Emotional labor c. Emotional contagion d. Emotional dissonance 52. Unlike the baby boomers, the baby busters: a. value family life and time off from work. b. have a work-oriented value system. c. place a huge emphasis on achievement values at work. d. embrace a live-to-work approach.

53. Substantial social learning occurs through _____, in which individuals acquire attitudes by observing others. a. modeling b. cognitive moral development c. direct experience d. emotional intelligence 54. Which of the following statements is true of a behavioral intent? a. It can be measured by physiological indicators such as blood pressure. b. It may not actually lead to a particular behavior. c. It reflects a person's perceptions or beliefs. d. It is the emotional component of an attitude.

55. What are the three major characteristics of the source affect persuasion?

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Chap 04_ORGB6 56. What are the advantages of displaying ethical behavior for a firm?

57. Briefly discuss the relationship between job satisfaction and performance.

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Chap 04_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. False 14. False 15. True 16. False 17. True 18. True 19. False 20. False 21. b 22. a 23. a 24. c 25. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_ORGB6 26. a 27. b 28. c 29. a 30. c 31. a 32. b 33. a 34. a 35. b 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. c 40. b 41. a 42. c 43. a 44. a 45. c 46. a 47. a 48. a 49. c 50. a 51. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_ORGB6 52. a 53. a 54. b 55. Answers will vary.

Three major characteristics of the source affect persuasion: expertise, trustworthiness, and attractiveness. A source who is perceived as an expert is particularly persuasive. Testimonials, for example, are the third most effective technique in advertising, after corporate responsibility and emotional appeal. Endorsers of a product are effective when they are perceived as trustworthy, attractive, or similar to the consumer, or when they represent an image the consumer would like to adopt. Please see the section "Persuasion and Attitude Change" for more information.

56. Answers will vary.

Doing the right thing can have a positive effect on an organization's performance. Ethical behavior in firms can also lead to practical benefits, particularly by attracting new talent. Firms with better reputations attract more applicants, creating a larger hiring pool, and evidence suggests that respected firms can choose higher-quality applicants. For example, Timberland's strong value system helps the company attract and recruit the best talent and maintain a solid reputation with investors. Please see the section "Ethical Behavior" for more information.

57. Answers will vary.

Managers and employees believe that happy or satisfied employees are more productive at work. But research on the relationship between job satisfaction and performance has shown it to be more complex than that. If job satisfaction always improved performance, then the manager's job would simply be to keep workers happy. Although this may be the case for certain individuals, research has shown that job satisfaction for most people is only one of several causes of good performance. Another view holds that good performance causes satisfaction, yet some high performers are not satisfied with their jobs. It is important to consider all of the potential variables when considering job satisfaction. Please see the section "Job Satisfaction" for more information.

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Chap 05_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Theory X assumptions apply to employees motivated by higher-order needs. a. True b. False 2. Theory Y assumptions are appropriate for employees motivated by lower-order needs. a. True b. False 3. Adam Smith argued that a person's self-interest was determined by the government. a. True b. False 4. Frederick Taylor's goal was to change the relationship between management and labor from one of conflict to one of cooperation. a. True b. False 5. Work conditions related to satisfaction of the need for psychological growth were labeled hygiene factors. a. True b. False 6. Distress is a positive response to challenges that generates energy and motivates an individual to achieve. a. True b. False 7. Alderfer classified Maslow's physiological and physical safety needs in a growth need category. a. True b. False 8. Organizations with high levels of employee engagement do not perform well financially in volatile economic times. a. True b. False 9. Theory X assumptions have inspired employee participation programs. a. True b. False 10. Security is the pinnacle need for Americans in Maslow's need hierarchy. a. True b. False 11. Eustress is a negative response such as frustration or fear which leads to unhealthy and unproductive results. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_ORGB6 12. There are no cultural differences with regard to Maslow's, McClelland's, and Herzberg's theories. a. True b. False 13. Self-actualization may be the most important need for people in cultures with a high need to avoid uncertainty. a. True b. False 14. ERG theory explains both progressive need gratification and regression when people face frustration. a. True b. False 15. Expectancy theory does not hold up well in cultures that value individualism. a. True b. False 16. Work conditions related to dissatisfaction caused by discomfort or pain were labeled motivation factors. a. True b. False 17. External theories of motivation give primary consideration to variables within an individual that lead to motivation and behavior. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

18. The _____ can help explain irrational and self-destructive behaviors such as suicide or workplace violence. a. behaviorist perspective b. psychoanalytic approach c. humanistic approach d. sociocultural perspective 19. Which of the following statements is true of benevolents? a. These people may be thought of as takers. b. These people may be thought of as givers. c. They are comfortable only with an equity ratio greater than that of their comparison other. d. They prefer equity based on the originally formed theory.

20. In the context of Herzberg's two-factor theory, which of the following is true of hygiene factors? a. They relate to job satisfaction. b. They directly affect a person's drive to do a good job. c. They challenge people to grow and invest themselves in an organization. d. They are important to a certain level but unimportant beyond that threshold.

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Chap 05_ORGB6 21. Expectancy theory attributes motivational problems to: a. disbelief in a relationship between effort and performance. b. a desire for the rewards offered. c. belief in a relationship between performance and rewards. d. one's own self-interest.

22. In the context of expectancy theory of motivation, which of the following is true of evaluation systems? a. They are meant to enhance a person's belief that effort will improve performance and therefore lead to better pay. b. They are based on the notion of social exchange in which each party in the relationship demands certain things of the other. c. They stress the role of energy recovery in overall performance. d. They consider power and exchange important in understanding human behavior.

23. In the context of Maslow's need hierarchy, the progression hypothesis suggests that: a. people progress up the hierarchy as they successively gratify each level of need. b. people with a high need for achievement seek performance excellence. c. it is more crucial to gratify the needs at the highest level and then the ones below it. d. the lowest level of needs represents the external incentives of employees.

24. Which of the following statements is true of equity theory? a. It stresses the role of energy recovery in overall performance. b. It challenges people to grow and invest themselves in an organization. c. It is concerned with the social processes that influence motivation and behavior. d. It assumes that people expect certain outcomes of behavior and performance.

25. Frederick Taylor, the founder of scientific management, examined labor efficiency and effectiveness. His goal was to change: a. the relationship between technology and labor efficiency. b. the relationship between management and labor from one of conflict to one of cooperation. c. the work conditions related to satisfaction of the need for psychological growth. d. the motivation factors that relate to job satisfaction and the hygiene factors that relate to job dissatisfaction.

26. Clayton Alderfer's regression hypothesis suggests that: a. as one level of need is met, a person regresses to the next lower level of need as a source of motivation. b. people with a high need for achievement seek performance excellence, enjoy difficult and challenging goals, persevere, and are competitive. c. people are frustrated by their inability to meet needs at the next higher needs in the hierarchy; hence, they regress to the next lower category of needs. d. the presence of motivation factors is not essential to enhancing employee motivation to excel at work.

27. According to Herzberg, which of the following is a difference between motivation factors and hygiene factors? a. Motivation factors include security and status, whereas hygiene factors include advancement and responsibility. b. Motivation factors lead to negative mental health, whereas hygiene factors lead to positive mental health.

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Chap 05_ORGB6 c. Motivation factors include extrinsic factors, whereas hygiene factors include intrinsic factors. d. Motivation factors relate to job satisfaction, whereas hygiene factors relate to job dissatisfaction.

28. Which of the following is true of the expectancy theory of motivation? a. It takes into account the irrational choices that individuals may make. b. It is easy to test because of its simplicity. c. It is time-consuming, and the values for each construct change over time for an individual. d. It ignores individuals' perception of the relationship between effort and performance.

29. In the context of Amitai Etzioni's categories of exchange relationships, which of the following statements is true of alienated relationships? a. They have high positive intensity. b. They have low negative intensity. c. They have low positive intensity. d. They have high negative intensity.

30. _____ organizes human needs into three basic categories: existence, relatedness, and growth. a. The ERG theory of motivation b. Expectancy theory c. The two-Factor theory d. McClelland's need theory 31. McGregor's Theory X assumptions are appropriate for: a. people with a high need for affiliation. b. people who are not by nature resistant to organizational needs. c. employees motivated by lower-order needs. d. individuals motivated by higher-order needs.

32. Managers can make the most of Maslow's need hierarchy for success in their teams by: a. recognizing that each individual has a unique set of needs and therefore gearing incentives to meet various needs. b. organizing each individual's needs into the categories of existence, relatedness, and growth. c. recognizing individual's needs for achievement, power, and affiliation. d. focusing on each individual's needs or the rewards or punishment meted out in the work environment.

33. _____ is a negative response such as frustration or fear, which leads to unhealthy and unproductive results. a. Distress b. Inequity c. Eustress d. Valence 34. A(n) _____ is an individual who is comfortable with an equity ratio greater than that of his or her comparison other. a. equity sensitive b. benevolent c. entitled Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_ORGB6 d. inequity sensitive 35. A distinguishing feature of Maslow's need hierarchy is the _____. a. need for achievement b. need for power c. regression hypothesis d. progression hypothesis 36. According to McClelland's research, the best managers have a high need for _____. a. personalized power b. achievement c. affiliation d. socialized power 37. Adams's theory of inequity suggests that people are motivated when they: a. find themselves in situations of equity. b. have a very high need for socialized power as opposed to personalized power. c. satisfy organizational demands through a range of contributions. d. find themselves in situations of unfairness.

38. _____ are based on the notion of social exchange in which each party in the relationship demands certain things of the other and contributes accordingly to the exchange. a. Committed involvements b. Alienated involvements c. Calculated involvements d. Dedicated involvements 39. According to McClelland, which of the following is true of people with a high need for achievement? a. They set goals that are moderately difficult yet achievable. b. They like having external events interfere with their progress. c. They always prefer to work alone, irrespective of their task. d. They set goals that are very simple and easily achievable.

40. In the context of external incentives, _____ considers both psychological needs and external incentives to motivate workers. a. psychodynamic theory b. industrial psychology c. psychological ownership d. organizational behavior 41. According to Adams's theory of inequity, which of the following is a strategy for restoring equity? a. Rationalize the equity b. Alter a person's inputs c. Include a hierarchy d. Stay in the organizational situation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_ORGB6 42. The idea of encouraging eustress is to focus on an individual's: a. negative response such as frustration. b. interpretation of or response to events. c. ability to meet the need of achievement. d. perception of the performance process.

43. Joe has a keen interest in his present job, but he does not get along with his boss, Martin. Martin never appreciates Joe's achievements and gives him unreasonable targets to meet. This has made Joe unhappy with his job. According to Herzberg's Theory, which of the following is a reason for Joe's job dissatisfaction? a. Motivation factors b. Manifest needs c. Hygiene factors d. Existence needs 44. The _____ encouraged hard work on the grounds that prosperous workers were more likely to find a place in heaven. a. psychoanalytic approach b. Spirit of Socialism c. Protestant ethic d. sociocultural perspective 45. Which of the following best describes eustress? a. It is the value, or importance, one places on a particular reward. b. It is a negative response such as frustration, which leads to unhealthy and unproductive results. c. It is a positive response to challenges that generates energy and motivates an individual to achieve. d. It is the belief that performance is related to rewards.

46. Alderfer's growth need category encompasses Maslow's _____. a. interpersonal love needs b. safety needs c. physiological needs d. self-actualization needs 47. According to McClelland's need theory, the _____ is interpersonal because it involves influence over other people. a. need for achievement b. need for affiliation c. need for safety d. need for power 48. _____ of motivation give primary consideration to variables within an individual that lead to motivation and behavior. a. External theories b. Process theories c. Internal theories d. Route theories Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_ORGB6 49. Victor Vroom's _____ of motivation is a cognitive process theory that assumes that people expect certain outcomes of behavior and performance, which may be thought of as rewards, or consequences of behavior. a. two-factor theory b. expectancy theory c. equity theory d. inequity theory 50. _____ of motivation focus on the elements in an environment, including the consequences of behavior, as the basis for understanding and explaining people's behavior at work. a. External theories b. Process theories c. Internal theories d. Route theories 51. Adam Smith formulated the invisible hand and the free market to explain the motivation for individual behaviors. The invisible hand refers to: a. the variables within an individual that lead to motivation and behavior. b. the desire to influence others, the urge to change people or events, and the wish to make a difference in life. c. the work conditions related to satisfaction of the need for psychological growth. d. the unseen forces of a free market system that shape the most efficient use of people, money, and resources for productive ends.

52. Drake, a technical support executive at Zenk Corp., has good managerial skills and a keen interest in organizing team strategies. This earns him a promotion to a senior position where he manages a team of 40 people. According to Maslow's need hierarchy theory, which of the following needs is fulfilled for Drake? a. The need for power b. The need for affiliation c. Physiological needs d. Self-actualization needs 53. According to McClelland, high achievers: a. prefer to work alone, irrespective of their task. b. often hope and plan for success. c. set goals that are very simple. d. like having external events interfere with their progress.

54. Briefly identify and explain the two new ideas in motivation.

55. What are some of the characteristics of high achievers?

56. Identify the seven basic strategies provided by Adam's theory for restoring equity.

57. Briefly explain McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y.

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Chap 05_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. False 12. False 13. False 14. True 15. False 16. False 17. False 18. b 19. b 20. d 21. a 22. a 23. a 24. c 25. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_ORGB6 26. c 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. a 31. c 32. a 33. a 34. c 35. d 36. d 37. d 38. c 39. a 40. c 41. b 42. b 43. c 44. c 45. c 46. d 47. d 48. c 49. b 50. a 51. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_ORGB6 52. d 53. b 54. Answers will vary.

Two new ideas in motivation have emerged in the past decade. One centers on eustress, strength, and hope. A second new idea centers on positive energy and full engagement.

Eustress is healthy, normal stress. Stress is the energy we experience when confronted with challenging or difficult situation. Such situations can produce distress, a negative response such as frustration or fear, which leads to unhealthy and unproductive results, or eustress, a positive response to challenges that generates energy and motivates an individual to achieve. Eustress leads us to invest in strengths, find meaning in work, display courage and principled action, and draw on positive emotions at work.

The second new concept in motivation, Jim Loehr's full engagement idea, uses lessons learned from professional athletes.

The central tenets are that an individual should manage energy rather than time and should strategically disengage from certain activities to balance the power of full engagement. Please see the section "Two New Ideas in Motivation" for more information.

55. Answers will vary.

McClelland found that people with a high need for achievement perform better than those lacking such a need. Such individuals share these three characteristics: First, they set goals that are moderately difficult yet achievable. Second, they like to receive feedback on their progress toward these goals. Third, they do not like having external events or other people interfere with their progress toward the goals. In addition, high achievers often hope and plan for success; may be quite content to work alone or with other people, whichever is more appropriate to their task; and like being very good at what they do so and, accordingly, tend to develop expertise and competence in their chosen endeavors. Please see the section "McClelland's Need Theory" for more information.

56. Answers will vary.

Once a person establishes the existence of an inequity, she might use a number of strategies to restore equity. Adams's theory provides seven basic strategies for restoring equity: alter the person's outcomes, alter the person's inputs, alter the comparison other's outcomes, alter the comparison other's inputs, change who is used as a comparison other, rationalize the inequity, and leave the organizational situation. Each of the first four strategies could involve a wide variety of tactics. Please see the section "Social Exchange and Equity Theory" for more information.

57. Answers will vary.

Maslow's need hierarchy has been applied to organizational behavior in two key ways. Douglas McGregor strove to explain motivation by grouping the physiological and safety needs as lower-order needs and the social, esteem, and selfactualization needs as upper-order needs. According to McGregor's theory, managers can make one of two sets of assumptions about an individual depending on the factors that motivate his or her behavior. McGregor's Theory X assumptions are appropriate for employees motivated by lower-order needs, while Theory Y assumptions apply to employees motivated by higher-order needs. Please see the section "Maslow's Need Hierarchy" for more information.

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Chap 06_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Poor performance may also stem from an employee's displaced anger or conflict with the organization or supervisor. a. True b. False 2. Reward allocation involves sequential decisions about which people to reward, how to reward them, and when to reward them. a. True b. False 3. Mentor relationships go through three phases: initiation, cultivation, and separation. a. True b. False 4. The planning component of goal setting consists of interim reviews conducted by managers and employees and formal performance evaluation. a. True b. False 5. Executive coaching is increasingly used to outsource the business mentoring functions. a. True b. False 6. Individual reward systems indirectly affect individual behavior and encourage competition within a work team. a. True b. False 7. Distinctiveness is a cue indicating the frequency of behavior over time. a. True b. False 8. The 360-degree feedback method provides a well-rounded view of performance from superiors, peers, followers, and customers. a. True b. False 9. Punishment is a strategy to cultivate desirable behavior by either bestowing positive consequences or withholding negative ones. a. True b. False 10. 360-degree feedback is based on a single source of information to improve accuracy of performance appraisals. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_ORGB6 11. The notion of entitlement at work enhances the power of earning. a. True b. False 12. Because punishment is discomforting to the individual being punished, it can bring about negative psychological, emotional, performance, or behavioral consequences, especially when applied too often. a. True b. False 13. Performance management is the evaluation of a person's performance. a. True b. False 14. Success in the mentoring relationship depends on openness and trust. a. True b. False 15. In the context of the key characteristics of an effective appraisal system, reliability means capturing multiple dimensions of a person's job performance. a. True b. False 16. Reward and punishment decisions affect only the people receiving the consequence. a. True b. False 17. Individual reward systems encourage cooperation, joint efforts, and the sharing of information and expertise. a. True b. False 18. Formally assigned mentors from higher up in the organizational hierarchy are always more effective guides than supervisors and coworkers. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

19. The first step in the performance measurement process is: a. rewarding positive performance behaviors. b. measuring performance. c. defining performance in behavioral terms. d. assessing the impact of performance behaviors.

20. The notion of entitlement at work: a. engenders active, responsible behavior. b. engenders passive, irresponsible behavior.

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Chap 06_ORGB6 c. rests on a direct link between performance and rewards. d. increases the positive value in the organizational reward system.

21. In the context of Albert Bandura's social learning theory, Bandura asserts that learning: a. is central to the design and administration of organizational reward systems. b. is the process of modifying behavior by following specific behaviors with positive consequences. c. indirectly guides and motivates behavior. d. occurs when we observe other people and model their behavior.

22. Ali, a manager at Westfort Inc., reduces the pay of his subordinates when they fail to achieve their targets. Which of the following approaches does he use? a. Reinforcement b. Punishment c. Extinction d. Contingency 23. Validity, one of the key characteristics of an effective performance appraisal system, means: a. capturing multiple dimensions of a person's job performance. b. staying open to modification based on new information. c. allowing the person being evaluated to have some input. d. evaluating fairly against established criteria, regardless of individual differences.

24. In the context of rewarding performance, reward allocation: a. involves sequential decisions about which people to reward, how to reward them, and when to reward them. b. can bring about negative psychological, emotional, performance, or behavioral consequences, especially when applied too often. c. provides opportunities for feedback about goal progress. d. focuses attention on exactly what people have accomplished and how to reward them.

25. _____ is the most effective when used in conjunction with the positive reinforcement of desirable behaviors. a. Extinction b. Reinforcement c. Punishment d. Contingency 26. The behaviorist approach to learning assumes that: a. punishment and extinction enhance desirable behavior. b. learning begins with cognitive activity. c. observable behavior is a function of its consequences. d. behaviors followed by positive consequences are less likely to recur.

27. _____ emphasizes collective performance rather than individual performance and is enhanced by employee involvement programs. a. Management by objectives b. Management by exception Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_ORGB6 c. Organizational citizenship behavior d. Task accomplishment 28. Which of the following is true of 360-degree feedback? a. It deteriorates the accuracy of performance appraisals. b. It is based on multiple sources of information. c. It involves feedback from peers instead of superiors. d. It fails when the management and performance feedback components are separated.

29. Which of the following statements is true of reinforcement theory? a. It holds that punishment and extinction diminish undesirable behavior. b. It minimizes the need for performance evaluations. c. It emphasizes collective performance rather than individual performance. d. It is the best method to improve the accuracy and validity of performance evaluation.

30. In the context of defining performance, performance appraisal: a. involves defining and measuring performance. b. is the result that a person finds attractive or pleasurable. c. does not influence promotion or demotion. d. is the evaluation of a person's performance.

31. The _____ is central to the design and administration of organizational reward systems, which are a key factor in attracting and retaining top employees. a. equity theory b. contingency theory c. reinforcement theory d. goal setting theory 32. Attributions are formed based on: a. feedback from coworkers. b. whether informational cues are low or high. c. objective and accurate opinions provided by managers. d. openness and trust in the workplace.

33. Which of the following is true of goal setting? a. It helps improve customer relations. b. It leads to increased employee engagement. c. It improves role clarity. d. It minimizes the need for performance evaluations.

34. _____ means evaluating fairly against established criteria, regardless of individual differences. a. Validity b. Reliability c. Flexibility Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_ORGB6 d. Equitability 35. _____ employs three types of consequences: financial reinforcement, nonfinancial reinforcement, and social reinforcement to shape behavior in a variety of organizations. a. Organizational citizenship behavior b. Task-specific self-efficacy c. Management by exception d. Organizational behavior modification 36. Aisha, a manager at Zappo Inc., rewards her subordinates for consistent good performance. Which of the following approaches does she use? a. Positive reinforcement b. Observational learning c. Classical conditioning d. Organizational citizenship behavior 37. Which of the following is a criticism of self-evaluations? a. They decrease the commitment to goals. b. They make the evaluation interviews more defensive. c. They often conflict with supervisory evaluations. d. They make the evaluation interviews less constructive.

38. _____ builds on the natural reaction of an unconditioned response to an unconditioned stimulus. a. Operant conditioning b. Classical conditioning c. Reinforcement d. Learning 39. In the context of reinforcement theory, _____ are the results that a person finds attractive or pleasurable. a. theoretical frameworks b. positive consequences c. negative consequences d. learning models 40. Which of the following statements is true of the planning component? a. Interim reviews are conducted by managers and employees and formal performance evaluation. b. Employees challenge the supervisor's ideas about future development and expressing their own goals. c. Effective performance reviews must be tailored specifically to the business. d. Individuals and departments develop operational and tactical plans to support the corporate objectives.

41. Which of the following statements is true of measurable, quantitative goals? a. They provide opportunities for feedback about goal progress. b. They focus attention on exactly what will be accomplished and inspire peak performance. c. They enhance measurability. d. They concentrate on an individual's internal expectancy to perform a specific task effectively.

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Chap 06_ORGB6 42. Which of the following statements is true of specific and challenging goals? a. They provide opportunities for feedback about goal progress. b. They focus attention on exactly what will be accomplished and inspire peak performance. c. They enhance measurability. d. They use measures like the number of complaints or the frequency of compliments.

43. Classical conditioning has limited applicability to human behavior in organizations because: a. humans are more amenable to simple cause-and-effect conditioning. b. humans are less complex than other animals that respond to classical conditioning. c. the human capacity for decision making can override simple conditioning. d. the behavioral environments in organizations are very amenable to single stimulus–response manipulations.

44. Which of the following is a source of task-specific self-efficacy? a. Persuasion from other people b. Positive consequences c. Assessment of past emotional capabilities d. Low self-confidence 45. Which of the following best describes intuitors? a. They are individuals that prefer analysis of data and information. b. They are individuals that prefer interpersonal involvement. c. They are individuals that prefer specific, empirical data. d. They are individuals that prefer theoretical frameworks.

46. The _____ component consists of organizational and individual goal setting, two essential and interdependent processes. a. assessment b. forecasting c. planning d. evaluation 47. Individuals with high self-efficacy believe that they: a. have the ability to get things done. b. control what happens to them. c. compliment individuals who give them positive feedback. d. engage in more organizational citizenship behaviors.

48. Mike, the CEO of SwifTech, rewards and punishes his employees based on their performance. Which of the following behavior modification approaches does Mike follow? a. Classical conditioning b. Observational learning c. Modeling learning d. Operant conditioning Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_ORGB6 49. _____ is a cue indicating the frequency of behavior over time. a. Consistency b. Consensus c. Distinctiveness d. Similarity 50. At Bling Clothing, the managers and employees regularly interact with each other. They carry out negotiations to ensure that the goals of the organization and the goals of the employees are met. This approach is an instance of _____. a. management by exception b. organizational behavior modification c. intermittent scheduling d. management by objectives 51. Supervisors should start coaching and counseling sessions: a. with critical feedback. b. that begin with the core concern. c. with something positive. d. that are general and non-specific.

52. Which of the following statements is true of learning? a. It helps improve customer relations. b. It helps guide and direct motivated behavior. c. It leads to increased employee engagement. d. It minimizes the need for performance evaluations.

53. Briefly explain internal and external attributions.

54. Briefly describe individual reward systems and team reward systems.

55. Briefly describe the informational cues based on which attributions are made.

56. Briefly describe the attribution theory.

57. Briefly distinguish between positive and negative reinforcement with the help of a job-related example.

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Chap 06_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. False 12. True 13. False 14. True 15. False 16. False 17. False 18. False 19. c 20. b 21. d 22. b 23. b 24. a 25. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_ORGB6 26. c 27. c 28. b 29. a 30. d 31. c 32. b 33. c 34. d 35. d 36. a 37. c 38. b 39. b 40. d 41. a 42. b 43. c 44. a 45. d 46. c 47. a 48. d 49. a 50. d 51. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_ORGB6 52. b 53. Answers will vary.

Internal attributions might include low effort, lack of commitment, or lack of ability. External attributions are outside the employee's control and might include equipment failure or unrealistic goals. Supervisors may choose from a wide range of responses. They can, for example, express personal concern, reprimand the employee, or provide training. Supervisors who attribute the cause of poor performance to a person (an internal cause) will respond more harshly than supervisors who blame the work situation (an external cause). Please see the section "Correcting Poor Performance" for more information.

54. Answers will vary.

Individual reward systems directly affect individual behavior and encourage competition within a work team. Too much competition, however, may create a dysfunctional work environment.

Team reward systems solve the problems caused by individual competitive behavior in that they encourage cooperation, joint efforts, and the sharing of information and expertise.

Some organizations have experimented with individual and group alternative reward systems. At the individual level, these include skill-based and pay-for-knowledge systems that emphasize skills or knowledge possessed by an employee beyond the requirements for the basic job. At the group level, gain-sharing plans emphasize collective cost reduction by allowing workers to share in the gains achieved by reducing production costs. Please see the section "Rewarding Performance" for more information.

55. Answers will vary.

Kelley's attribution theory proposes that individuals make attributions based on information gathered in the form of three informational cues: consensus, distinctiveness, and consistency. Consensus is an informational cue indicating the extent to which peers in the same situation behave in a similar fashion. Distinctiveness is a cue indicating the degree to which an individual behaves the same way in other situations. Consistency is a cue indicating the frequency of behavior over time.

We form attributions based on whether these cues are low or high. Please see the section "Correcting Poor Performance" for more information.

56. Answers will vary.

According to Harold Kelley's attribution theory, managers make attributions, or inferences, concerning employees' behavior and performance. The attributions may not always be accurate. Supervisors and employees who share perceptions and attitudes tend to evaluate each other highly. Those who do not share perceptions and attitudes are more likely to blame each other for performance problems. Kelley's attribution theory proposes that individuals make attributions based on information gathered in the form of three informational cues: consensus, distinctiveness, and consistency. Please see the section "Correcting Poor Performance" for more information.

57. Answers will vary.

Positive reinforcement occurs when a positive consequence (like a bonus) follows a desirable behavior (like a successful business year). Marriott International provides positive reinforcement by honoring ten to twenty employees each year with its J. Willard Marriott Award of Excellence. Each recipient receives a medallion engraved with the words that express the basic values of the company: dedication, achievement, character, ideals, effort, and perseverance. Negative reinforcement occurs when managers withhold a negative consequence after an employee demonstrates a desirable behavior. For example, a manager who reduces an employee's pay (negative consequence) if the employee comes to work late (undesirable behavior) refrains from doing so when the employee is on time (desirable behavior). The employee avoids the negative consequence (a reduction in pay) by exhibiting the desirable behavior (being on time to work). Please see the section "Behavioral Models of Learning in Organizations" for more information.

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Chap 07_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The stress response is inherently bad and destructive. a. True b. False 2. Primary prevention is a stage in preventive stress management designed to reduce, modify, or eliminate the demand or stressor causing stress. a. True b. False 3. People who have hardy personalities resist strain reactions when subjected to stressful events more effectively than do people who are not hardy. a. True b. False 4. George, a line cook at a fast-food restaurant, has been flipping burgers for more than 5 years at the same place. The management does not wish to change his position or give him a promotion. Due to this, George begins to experience apathy, and his job performance suffers. In this scenario, George is experiencing a psychological response to job stress called burnout. a. True b. False 5. In the context of the stress response, adrenaline activates the sympathetic nervous system and the endocrine (hormone) system. a. True b. False 6. The sympathetic nervous system and the endocrine (hormone) system work together to trigger four mind–body changes that prepare a person for fight or flight. a. True b. False 7. Type B behavior pattern includes social status insecurity and aggression. a. True b. False 8. Whether activated by an ego-ideal/self-image discrepancy, a poorly defined social role, a cognitive appraisal suggesting threat, or a lack of balance, the resulting stress response is characterized by a predictable sequence of mind and body events. a. True b. False 9. Healthy stress does not exist. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_ORGB6 10. The cognitive appraisal approach to stress emphasized the idea that confusing and conflicting expectations of a person in a social role create stress for that person. a. True b. False 11. Dramatic changes at work and lack of control are some of the major causes of work stress. a. True b. False 12. Clara has always been very competitive. She finds it important to be popular and well liked and always wishes to achieve more. She gets aggressive when disturbed and hates being late in general. Due to these personality characteristics, Clara is likely to be at risk for coronary heart disease. a. True b. False 13. Nonwork demands may broadly be identified as impositions from an individual's personal life environment and selfimposed restrictions. a. True b. False 14. Counterdependence, a healthy, secure interdependent pattern of behavior, is a personality attribute strongly related to social relationships. a. True b. False 15. Women's behavioral responses to stress are very similar to men's responses to stress. a. True b. False 16. The final result of the role negotiation process should be a clear, well-defined focal role with which the incumbent and organizational members are all comfortable. a. True b. False 17. Lisa and Mark work for the same company, have the same designation, and report to the same manager.

Unfortunately, both Lisa and Mark experienced sexual harassment at the work place. This caused them a significant amount of stress. Research indicates that Mark is more likely than Lisa to abuse alcohol as a coping method. a. True b. False 18. According to the homeostatic/medical approach to stress, stress occurs when deep emotions or environmental demands upset an individual's natural steadystate balance. a. True b. False 19. Interrole conflict is caused by opposing expectations related to a single role. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_ORGB6 b. False 20. Every person has the same threshold as to the amount of stress he or she can take before they break down. a. True b. False 21. Flexibility training is an important type of exercise because muscular contractions are associated with the stress response. a. True b. False 22. According to Harry Levinson, self-image is the embodiment of a person's perfect self. a. True b. False 23. Psychological counseling, career counseling, physical therapy, medical treatment, surgical intervention, and other therapeutic techniques are available to people who need help. a. True b. False 24. Martina, an employee at a tailor shop, can stitch up to 2 good-quality shirts per day. However, her employer insists that she complete a bulk order within a very short period of time without error or delay. In this scenario, Martina is stressed due to an interrole conflict at work. a. True b. False 25. Problem-focused coping emphasizes managing the stressor. a. True b. False 26. Type B people often recognize Type A behavior and can help Type A individuals judge situations realistically. a. True b. False 27. Role ambiguity and role conflict are two major categories of role stress at work. a. True b. False 28. Work stress is caused by factors in the work environment as well as by nonwork (external) pressures that spill over into the workplace. a. True b. False 29. Individual differences, such as gender and Type A behavior pattern, enhance vulnerability to strain under stressful conditions. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_ORGB6 b. False 30. Damian is a professional gymnast and ranks number 5 in his country. However, he considers his short temper to be a terrible flaw and thinks it makes him a bad person. He believes the only way to be considered successful is to be the number 1 gymnast in the country. This makes Damian feel very stressed. According to one of the four approaches to stress, Damian is feeling stressed due to factors such as perception and cognitive appraisal. a. True b. False 31. Stress is a great asset in managing legitimate emergencies and achieving peak performance. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

32. An employee with a major sales presentation due on Monday and a sick child at home Sunday night is likely to experience _____. a. interrole conflict b. intrarole conflict c. person–role conflict d. role ambiguity 33. Which of the following is a difference between counterdependence and overdependence? a. Counterdependence is as a desperate attempt to achieve a sense of security through relationships, whereas overdependence is a rigid, dismissing denial of the need for other people. b. Counterdependence is an unhealthy, insecure pattern of behavior in relationships, whereas overdependence can be healthy for a relationship. c. When faced with stressful situations, counterdependent people withdraw, whereas overdependent people cling to other people in any way possible. d. Counterdependence is more common among women, whereas overdependence is seen most often in men.

34. Which of the following organizational stress prevention methods is a type of secondary prevention? a. Job redesign b. Role negotiation c. Goal setting d. Team building 35. Aerobic exercise: a. increases adrenaline levels in the blood, while at rest. b. enhances a person's ability to manage stressful demands. c. improves a person's time management skills. d. slows down a person's recovery from stressful events.

36. Secondary prevention is intended to: a. reduce, modify, or eliminate the demand that is causing stress. b. modify an individual's or an organization's response to a demand.

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Chap 07_ORGB6 c. heal individual or organizational symptoms of distress and strain. d. eliminate key environmental sources of stress or provide direct intervention to reduce the source of stress.

37. The job strain model suggests that: a. people participate in determining their work goals. b. low self-determination and self-reliance lead to a low-strain job. c. points of confusion and conflict become opportunities for clarification and resolution. d. the combination of stringent demands and restricted control leads to a high-strain job.

38. Most organizational prevention is _____, including job redesign, goal setting, role negotiation, and career management. a. tertiary prevention b. primary prevention c. reduction prevention d. secondary prevention 39. Three major costs of organizational distress are: a. participation problems, performance decrements, and compensation awards. b. functional turnover, high performance, and compensation awards. c. functional turnover, increased production quality, and compensation awards. d. performance variation, participation problems, and compensation awards.

40. Devon was in a plane crash and suffered quite a few injuries. For months afterward, he had nightmares about the event, and he was too scared to fly again. He avoided air travel after the accident as well as any discussions about flying or plane crashes. This helped him cope with the incident and prevent panic attacks. In the context of personality hardiness, which of the following characterizes Devon's behavior? a. Transformational coping b. Regressive coping c. Preventive stress management d. Self-reliance 41. A manager's decision to increase worker control in a given task is an example of: a. individual prevention. b. secondary prevention. c. primary prevention. d. tertiary prevention.

42. In the context of the cognitive appraisal approach to stress, problem-focused coping emphasizes: a. managing the gap between the ego-ideal and the real self-image. b. managing the stressor. c. managing the response to stress. d. managing the set of role expectations.

43. An important secondary stress prevention activity for individuals is: a. time management.

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Chap 07_ORGB6 b. leisure time pursuits. c. learned optimism. d. physical exercise.

44. _____ was one of the first people to identify the relaxation response as the natural counterresponse to stress. a. Kenneth Cooper b. Dean Ornish c. Joyce Adkins d. Herbert Benson 45. Which of the following is a leading cause of work stress? a. Work–family conflicts b. Technological innovation c. Productive capacity d. Personal beliefs 46. Who among the following is most closely associated with the homeostatic/medical approach to stress? a. Richard Lazarus b. Harry Levinson c. Walter B. Cannon d. Robert Kahn 47. Which of the following is the last step of the GP3 method of time management? a. Prioritizing goals in terms of their relative importance b. Praising oneself for specific achievements along the way c. Setting goals that are challenging yet attainable d. Planning for goal attainment through specific tasks 48. The Yerkes-Dodson law indicates that: a. initial stress (or the onset of stress) causes performance to drop significantly. b. the greatest performance benefits from stress are achieved in the mid-range of the Yerkes-Dodson curve. c. stress and performance are unrelated. d. stress and performance are inversely related.

49. Psychosomatic disorders: a. are a form of burnout. b. are a form of rust-out. c. are physical ailments with mental origins. d. can always be traced to a work situation.

50. A manager who presses employees for both very fast and high-quality work would likely cause: a. interrole conflict. b. intrarole conflict. c. person–role conflict.

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Chap 07_ORGB6 d. role ambiguity.

51. _____, a way of managing stressful events, may lead to short-term stress reduction at the cost of healthy, long-term life adjustment. a. Transformational coping b. Counterdependence c. Regressive coping d. Stress avoidance 52. Learned optimism is: a. a secondary individual stress prevention method. b. the planning and prioritizing of tasks. c. is one of the five dimensions of positive organizational behavior. d. a strong Type A personality characteristic.

53. Strain is also known as _____. a. stress b. distress c. eustress d. stressor 54. Which of the following is a task demand that causes stress? a. Globalization b. Dramatic changes at work c. Outdated technologies d. Organizational commitment 55. Role conflict results from: a. lack of control and poor leadership b. emotional toxins and role ambiguity. c. civic and volunteer work overload. d. inconsistent or incompatible expectations.

56. According to Walter B. Cannon's _____ to stress, the body is designed with natural defense mechanisms to keep it in homeostasis. a. medical approach b. psychoanalytic approach c. cognitive appraisal approach d. person–environment fit approach 57. Which of the following statements is true of the person–environment fit approach to stress? a. The stress response is ineffective in preparing a person to handle legitimate emergencies through peak performance. b. Students planning and preparing for exams would more likely use emotion-focused coping. c. The human body is designed with natural defense mechanisms to keep it in homeostasis.

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Chap 07_ORGB6 d. Stress occurs when the role expectations are confusing and/or conflict with one's skills and abilities.

58. People who have _____ resist strain reactions when subjected to stressful events more effectively than do people who are not sturdy. a. overdependent personalities b. Type A personalities c. counterdependent personalities d. hardy personalities 59. Role ambiguity is: a. caused by opposing expectations related to a single role. b. results from inconsistent or incompatible expectations. c. concerned with the social psychology of stress. d. the confusion a person experiences in relation to the expectations of others.

60. Self-reliance is a healthy, secure _____ pattern of behavior. a. overdependent b. counterdependent c. self-dependent d. interdependent 61. Which of the following approaches would a supervisor follow to effectively manage an employee who has Type A behavior pattern? a. The supervisor would frequently remind the employee about schedules and deadlines. b. The supervisor would try to maintain a certain level of conflict with the employee because this will stimulate higher performance. c. The supervisor would keep the employee very busy by adding tasks and projects to the person's workload. d. The supervisor would provide some training to the employee on working harmoniously in a team.

62. Which of the following is true of positive thinking? a. The power of positive thinking is often appreciated. b. When one cultivates an optimistic frame of mind, bad life events are bathed in a positive light. c. An optimistic style of thought does not have to be practiced habitually in order to be effective. d. No person is predisposed to an optimistic style of thought.

63. Which of the following is true of optimistic people? a. They avoid distress by framing the difficult times in their lives as temporary. b. They are unable to face adversity with hope. c. They refuse to take credit for the good events in their lives. d. They are less likely to use proactive coping skills to achieve goals.

64. Which of the following is true of individuals who possess Type A personality? a. They are socially secure. b. They are less prone than Type B personalities to heart attacks. c. They are aggressive, hostile, and demonstrate a quest for achievements.

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Chap 07_ORGB6 d. They tend to be relatively calm when faced with difficult situations at work.

65. Which of the following approaches to stress is the fight-or-flight response most closely associated with? a. The homeostatic/medical approach b. The cognitive appraisal approach c. The person-environment fit approach d. The psychoanalytic approach 66. The stage in preventive stress management designed to heal individual or organizational symptoms of distress and strain is called: a. primary prevention. b. secondary prevention. c. tertiary prevention. d. job redesign.

67. Which of the following is a self-imposed personal demand? a. Child rearing b. Workaholism c. Civic duties d. Parental care 68. Which of the following is a gender-related source of stress for working women? a. Sexual harassment b. Time pressure c. Alcohol abuse d. Type A personality 69. The person–environment fit approach to stress emphasized the: a. idea that confusing and conflicting expectations of a person in a social role create stress for that person. b. belief that effort will lead to performance. c. idea that stress is mostly determined by perception. d. idea that the fit between a person's self-image or concept and his ideal generates a huge amount of stress.

70. Males are more vulnerable at an earlier age to: a. sexual harassment in the workplace. b. fatal health problems such as cardiovascular disorders. c. nonfatal but long-term health issues. d. post-traumatic stress disorder.

71. The _____ appears to use commitment, control, and challenge actively to engage in transformational coping when faced with stressful events. a. Type A personality b. overdependent personality c. hardy personality d. Type B personality Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_ORGB6 72. Costs of organizational distress such as absenteeism, tardiness, strikes, work stoppages, and turnover are known as _____. a. performance decrements b. participation problems c. interrole problems d. intrarole conflicts 73. The two major categories of role stress at work include: a. temporal pressure and career progress. b. role conflict and role ambiguity. c. lack of control and emotional toxins. d. person-role conflict and ethics violations.

74. Which of the following is an early warning sign of workaholism? a. The inability to enjoy vacations and respites from work b. Choosing to work an extra job to earn more money c. Disinterest in home and family life d. A preference to be in the presence of co-workers instead of family 75. Why does role negotiation have value as a stress-management method? a. It lets individuals negotiate for a much higher salary. b. It allows individuals to modify their work roles. c. It gives individuals the illusion of control over their roles. d. It ensures there is no discrimination between men and women.

76. In the context of preventive stress management, _____ are designed to increase task motivation while reducing role conflict and ambiguity. a. role negotiations b. goal-setting activities c. social support systems d. team building sessions 77. Healthy, normal stress is known as _____. a. distress b. strain c. eustress d. acute stress 78. The key elements in a person's work and nonwork social support system provide _____. a. evaluative feedback b. self-disclosure c. organizational wellness d. relaxation training Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_ORGB6 79. A manager instructs an employee to ship an item with a minor defect to a customer in violation of the employee's personal values. This is an example of: a. role ambiguity. b. person–role conflict. c. interrole conflict. d. non-role conflict.

80. A person or event that triggers the stress response is known as _____. a. the Type A personality b. the Achilles' heel c. a demand d. a workaholic 81. An employee assistance program is: a. an individual prevention approach to stress reduction. b. a self-reliance approach to combating stress. c. an organizational approach to stress reduction. d. used by organizations to encourage Type A behavior pattern among employees.

82. Briefly describe the psychophysiology of the stress response.

83. Describe interpersonal demands as a source of stress.

84. Describe the person–environment fit approach to stress.

85. Describe behavioral problems as a form of individual distress.

86. Briefly describe the phenomenon of stress with respect to the workplace.

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Chap 07_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. False 16. True 17. True 18. True 19. False 20. False 21. True 22. False 23. True 24. False 25. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_ORGB6 26. True 27. True 28. True 29. True 30. False 31. True 32. a 33. c 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. d 38. b 39. a 40. b 41. c 42. b 43. d 44. d 45. a 46. c 47. b 48. b 49. c 50. b 51. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_ORGB6 52. c 53. b 54. b 55. d 56. a 57. d 58. d 59. d 60. d 61. d 62. b 63. a 64. c 65. a 66. c 67. b 68. a 69. a 70. b 71. c 72. b 73. b 74. a 75. b 76. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_ORGB6 77. c 78. a 79. b 80. c 81. a 82. Answers will vary. Whether activated by an ego-ideal/self-image discrepancy, a poorly defined social role, a cognitive appraisal suggesting threat, or a lack of balance, the resulting stress response is characterized by a predictable sequence of mind and body events. The stress response begins with the release of chemical messengers, primarily adrenaline, into the bloodstream. These messengers activate the sympathetic nervous system and the endocrine (hormone) system. These two systems work together to trigger four mind–body changes that prepare the person for fight or flight. Please see the section ''The Stress Response'' for more information.

83. Answers will vary. Emotional toxins, such as sexual harassment and poor leadership in an organization, are examples of interpersonal demands, often generated at work by abrasive personalities. Employees' ability to recharge and replace physical and psychological resources depleted during the work day is necessary for wellbeing. This recovery of resources often takes place once employees leave the workplace. Though considered less severe than other forms of interpersonal demands, workplace incivility experienced one day often remains with the individual and negatively affects the employee's ability to detach from the work and replenish resources needed for the next work day. Please see the section ''Sources of Work Stress'' for more information.

84. Answers will vary. Robert Kahn was concerned with the social psychology of stress, so his person−environment fit approach emphasized the idea that confusing and conflicting expectations of a person in a social role create stress for that person. He extended the approach to consider a person's fit in the environment. A good person–environment fit occurs when one's skills and abilities match a clearly defined, consistent set of role expectations. Stress occurs when the role expectations are confusing and/or conflict with one's skills and abilities. After a period of this type of stress, one can expect to experience symptoms of strain such as depression. Please see the section ''Four Approaches to Stress'' for more information.

85. Answers will vary. Behavioral problems are another form of individual distress. These problems include workplace aggression, substance abuse, and accidents. Workplace aggression may be triggered by perceptions of injustice in the workplace. Interpersonal conflicts can be a form of nonphysical aggression. One study found that conflicts with workmates, neighbors, and other "nonintimates" account for about 80 percent of our bad moods. Ethnic and cultural differences are too often a basis for interpersonal conflicts and may escalate into physical violence in the workplace. For example, some U.S. employees of Arab descent experienced ethnic slurs and bullying at work after the terrorist attacks of 9/11. Please see the section ''The Consequences of Stress'' for more information.

86. Answers will vary. Stress is an important topic in organizational behavior, due in part to its influence on competitive pressures that impact workers and managers alike. Poor leadership, work–family conflicts, and sexual harassment are among the leading causes of work stress. Although experts do not always agree on its definition, stress, or the stress response, can be described as the unconscious preparation to fight or flee that a person experiences when faced with any demand. A stressor, or demand, is a person or event that triggers the stress response. Please see the section ''What is Stress?'' for more information.

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Chap 08_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. When a person from one culture views people from another culture through the lens of a stereotype, he or she discounts the individual differences that exist within that foreign culture. a. True b. False 2. Effective supervisors refrain from voicing their opinions in meetings. a. True b. False 3. Proxemics consists of variations in speech, such as pitch, loudness, tempo, tone, duration, laughing, and crying. a. True b. False 4. Professional jargon may serve only to confuse and derail any attempt at clear understanding of a message by those unfamiliar with the profession. a. True b. False 5. One gateway through the communication barrier of diversity is to frequently use jargon or technical language in a message. a. True b. False 6. Communicative disease refers to loneliness and social isolation resulting from the absence of heartfelt communication in relationships. a. True b. False 7. Dominant defensiveness is characterized by passive or submissive behavior. a. True b. False 8. A memo from a company's president to all employees is an example of one-way communication. a. True b. False 9. Transparency in supervisors leads to increased trust among employees, which in turn, results in increased employee engagement. a. True b. False 10. Two-way communication is faster than one-way communication and should be used in an emergency situation. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_ORGB6 11. Communicative disease is not a physiological disease and, hence, has no adverse effects on the heart. a. True b. False 12. Kinesics is the study of an individual's perception and use of space, including territorial space. a. True b. False 13. Men and women tend to have similar conversational styles. a. True b. False 14. The use of new communication technologies discourages polyphasic activity. a. True b. False 15. In the context of communication technologies, the term flame refers to one's tendency to multitask. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

16. Which of the following is appropriate channel etiquette when using YouTube? a. Do no acknowledge any comments in the review page. b. Never use video replies to comments, as that will escalate the problem. c. Avoid all self-promotion, because YouTube is purely a knowledge-sharing platform. d. Avoid reacting defensively to inappropriate comments as it will only make it worse.

17. Molly, the store manager of a bakery, never fails to voice her opinions to her employees on various matters of the store. Expressive supervisors like Molly: a. leave their employees wondering about their opinions. b. tend toward extroversion. c. do not support interpersonal communication. d. lack perceptual screens.

18. In the context of defensive tactics, restricting the choices of employees is an example of _____. a. a put-down b. a power play c. labeling d. screening 19. In an emergency situation, like a life-threatening trauma in an emergency room, a supervisor must be: a. sensitive to employees' feelings. b. an empathetic listener. c. an apprehensive communicator.

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Chap 08_ORGB6 d. directive and assertive.

20. Seating arrangements and dynamics can be examined in a _____ study. a. paralanguage b. proxemics c. kinesics d. language 21. Friends typically interact within the: a. intimate space zone. b. personal distance zone. c. social distance zone. d. public distance zone.

22. Selena, the head architect of a government firm, is called for a meeting with her boss. Her boss expresses his concern about a collapsing dam at one of the hydroelectric power plants. Using reflective listening, when responding to her boss, Selena should avoid: a. paraphrasing the concern being expressed. b. too much direct eye contact with him. c. even brief periods of silence. d. asking questions for clarification.

23. An effect of computer-mediated communication is that: a. the verbal cues that help to decipher a message are absent. b. interpersonal skills tend to be less blunt. c. the likelihood to flame, or make rude comments, is increased. d. polyphasic activity is discouraged.

24. A(n) _____ is an example of computer-mediated communication. a. policy manual b. e-mail c. operation manual d. form 25. In the context of reflective listening, the practice of silence: a. ensures the accuracy of the communication process. b. helps the listener to shift the speaker's focus from the main problem. c. enables the speaker and the listener to build greater empathy and openness in their relationship. d. gives the listener time to sort his or her own thoughts and feelings from those of the speaker.

26. Janice feels uncomfortable working late hours in office every day. She decides to discuss the matter with her boss, Merwyn. Being a recent hire, she is hesitant and nervous to complain so early in her tenure. As she begins to speak, Merwyn notices anxiety and discomfort in her facial expression and body language. Using reflective listening, in response to Janice's concerns, Merwyn should first: a. paraphrase Janice's expressed concerns.

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Chap 08_ORGB6 b. clarify Janice's implicit thoughts and feelings. c. reflect Janice's core feelings. d. make affirming contact with Janice.

27. One gateway through the communication barrier of diversity is: a. avoiding face-to-face communication. b. frequently using jargon or technical language. c. increasing cultural awareness and sensitivity. d. accepting gender-specific differences in conversational style.

28. Which of the following is an example of a passive-aggressive defensive tactic? a. Refusing a lunch invite because of a busy schedule b. Making a hostile joke about someone c. Cursing in a social environment d. Yelling at someone in front of other people 29. _____ is at the core of personal integrity and managerial success, as is evident in the lives of most successful executives. a. Healthy communication b. Kinesics c. Proxemics d. Defensive communication 30. In which of the following communication situations can nonverbal communication be utilized? a. Committee meeting b. E-mail c. Voice mail d. Telephone call 31. In the context of barriers to communication, which of the following statements is true of gender differences? a. Men and women tend to have similar conversational styles. b. Women generally initiate eye contact in India. c. Men prefer to use telephone calls to communicate. d. Women often prefer to converse face to face.

32. Which of the following media is considered high in information richness? a. Formal written report b. Formal numeric report c. Telephone d. Flyer 33. Sania is conducting a survey to determine the average social distance in corporate offices in her city. By conducting this survey, Sania is engaging in _____. a. proxemics b. kinesics Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_ORGB6 c. labeling d. power play 34. Information overload for employees is most likely caused when supervisors: a. fail to filter and disseminate information selectively to them. b. tend to use media of communication that lack information richness. c. do not support two-way communication. d. want to withhold details from them.

35. A four-foot-wide desk pushes business interactions into the _____. a. intimate space zone. b. personal distance zone. c. social distance zone. d. public distance zone.

36. Which of the following statements is true of reflective listening? a. It emphasizes the personal elements of the communication process. b. It requires the receiver to influence the speaker with his or her personal opinion. c. It stresses more strongly on the role of the speaker rather than the receiver. d. It ignores the feelings communicated in the message.

37. People who are egotistical are likely to exhibit: a. nondefensive communication. b. dominant defensiveness. c. passive behavior. d. submissive behavior.

38. Rita has a naturally loud voice. Even when she is happy, her colleagues mistake her to be angry or upset. In this scenario, Rita's colleagues evidently make assumptions about her based on _____ cues. a. proxemics b. kinesics c. paralanguage d. feedback 39. Which of the following statements is true about paralanguage? a. It enables people to make assumptions about a communicator. b. It is a form of verbal communication. c. It consists of the use of jargons or technical language in a message. d. It is the study of body movement and posture.

40. E-mail, teleconferencing, and Wi-Fi are all classified as _____. a. proxemics b. intra-cognitive communication c. information communication technology Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_ORGB6 d. kinesics 41. Which of the following practices must a supervisor avoid in order to reduce communication barriers in the workplace? a. Minimizing jargon and technical language b. Encouraging formation of nonhierarchical working relationships c. Providing cross-cultural training d. Encouraging men and women to interact the same way 42. A manager says to her secretary, "Nancy is a slacker. She is always hard to find when there is a deadline." In this scenario, the manager is indulging in _____. a. power play b. jargon usage c. screening d. labeling 43. Passive-aggressive behavior ends up as: a. dominant defensiveness. b. nonassertive behavior. c. accommodative behavior. d. nondefensive communication.

44. Which of the following statements is true of kinesics? a. It is the study of body movement and posture. b. It is a form of verbal communication. c. It is the study of an individual's use of space. d. It is not bound to culture.

45. _____ is a barrier to communication. a. Cultural similarity b. Regular feedback c. Physical separation d. Common dialect 46. Polyphasic activity is: a. the study of space in nonverbal communication. b. the study of seating arrangements. c. conducting face-to-face conversations with at least two people. d. doing more than one thing at a time, or multitasking.

47. _____ is an interpersonal communication skill identified by the Department of Labor as necessary for success in the workplace. a. Memorizing b. Writing c. Reading d. Screening Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_ORGB6 48. Which of the following is a communication medium that is moderate in both information richness and data capacity? a. Telephone b. Blog c. Face-to-face discussion d. Formal numeric report 49. _____ is one of the four basic types of nonverbal communication that managers need to understand. a. Paralanguage b. Phonetics c. Onomatopoeia d. Elocution 50. Ralph, an FBI agent, interrogates a criminal suspect. Ralph carefully observes the suspect's body movements and notices him clenching his teeth, drumming his fingers, and profusely perspiring. Given this information, it is evident that Ralph is engaging in _____. a. power play b. proxemics c. labeling d. kinesics 51. Roberta, the supervisor of a fund-raising project, needs to discuss with her teammates about their unsatisfactory performance in the project. In order to maximize information richness in her message, Roberta will most likely: a. send each teammate a personal e-mail. b. post a flyer on a bulletin board for all teammates to see. c. make telephone calls to each teammate. d. organize face-to-face meetings with each teammate.

52. To facilitate direct and open communication with another person, _____. a. one should seat the other person beside oneself, facing the same direction b. one should seat the other person at right angles to oneself c. one must position the other person directly across from oneself d. one must position the other person inside one's intimate space zone 53. _____ are a form of written communication that establish guidelines for decision making and codes of conduct. a. Memorandums b. Electronic mails c. Policy manuals d. Letters 54. A balance between head and heart is achieved when a person displays _____. a. defensive communication b. submissive behavior c. communicative disease d. emotional competence Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_ORGB6 55. Which of the following statements is an example of nondefensive communication? a. Mary is always late to meetings! She lacks professionalism! b. I sent the memo through intracompany mail. The postman must have lost it. c. Dan's report is good, but I need to make one recommendation before I approve it. d. The check is in the mail. Don't call me again!

56. Malcolm, a senior editor at a publishing house, often loudly criticizes his subordinates in front of the other colleagues even when the subordinates are not at fault. This leaves them embarrassed and humiliated. He also unnecessarily swears and talks at elevated tones while expressing himself. It is evident that Malcolm exhibits _____ at his workplace. a. nondefensive communication b. passive behavior c. submissive behavior d. dominant defensiveness 57. In contrast with two-way communication, one-way communication: a. is more suitable for complex tasks. b. requires feedback from the listener. c. allows for reflective listening. d. is faster but often less accurate.

58. Defensive communication includes messages that are: a. assertive. b. aggressive. c. direct. d. powerful.

59. Identify a true statement about perceptual screens. a. They influence the quality, accuracy, and clarity of a message. b. They are the uninterpreted, unanalyzed elements of a message. c. They are uninfluenced by the sender and the receiver's individual attributes. d. They emphasize the role of the receiver over the sender.

60. A gateway through the gender barrier to communication is to: a. frequently use metaphors. b. avoid the use of jargon or technical language. c. actively seek clarification of a person's meaning. d. avoid face-to-face communication.

61. Barbra has a meeting with a coworker about a project. She wants to encourage cooperation from her coworker so that he, too, feels committed to the project. Given this information, which of the following seating arrangements will most likely help Barbra achieve her purpose? a. Barbra must sit directly across from her coworker. b. Barbra must seat her coworker at a right angle to herself. c. Barbra must seat her coworker within her zone of intimate space.

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Chap 08_ORGB6 d. Barbra must sit next to her coworker, facing the same direction.

62. Which of the following statements is true of using eye contact in reflective listening? a. Too much direct eye contact can have an intimidating effect. b. Rules of appropriate eye contact are the same in all cultures. c. In India, direct eye contact initiated by women and children is encouraged. d. Even a periodic aversion of eyes can be a barrier to effective communication.

63. Seek & Swipe, a website for online shopping, decides to inform its ten most loyal customers about discounts offered on its latest product offerings. In order to maximize information richness in its message, which of the following communication media will Seek and Swipe most likely use? a. Bulletins b. Flyers c. Face-to-face discussions d. Formal numeric reports

64. How do communication technologies affect behavior in the work environment?

65. Explain how language is a potential barrier to communication.

66. Describe the significance of paralanguage in nonverbal communication.

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Chap 08_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. False 13. False 14. False 15. False 16. d 17. b 18. b 19. d 20. b 21. b 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_ORGB6 26. d 27. c 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. d 32. c 33. a 34. a 35. c 36. a 37. b 38. c 39. a 40. c 41. d 42. d 43. a 44. a 45. c 46. d 47. c 48. b 49. a 50. d 51. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_ORGB6 52. b 53. c 54. d 55. c 56. d 57. d 58. b 59. a 60. c 61. d 62. a 63. c 64. Answers will vary.

Computer-mediated communication influences virtually all behavior in the work environment. It is impersonal in nature and the nonverbal cues we rely on to decipher a message are absent. Communication via technology also changes group dynamics by equalizing participation. The potential for information overload is particularly great when individuals are first introduced to new communication technologies. An individual can easily become overwhelmed by information and must learn to be selective about its access. While modern information communication technology may make work easier and increase employees' productivity, it can also prove precarious for managers. Many new technologies encourage polyphasic activity, or multitasking (i.e., doing more than one thing at a time). Finally, the new technologies may make people less patient with face-to-face communication. Please see the section "Communicating through New Technologies and Social Media" for more information.

65. Answers will vary.

Language can be a barrier to communication. Growing numbers of business men and women are bilingual or multilingual, but even subtle distinctions in dialects within the same language can be barriers. For example, the word chemist means a molecular scientist in the United States and a drugstore worker in Great Britain. Language barriers are created across disciplines and professional boundaries by technical terminology. Although acronyms and professional jargon may be very useful tools of communication within in a discipline, they may serve only to confuse and derail any attempt at clear understanding by those unfamiliar with the profession. When doing business, it's best to use simple, direct, declarative language. One should speak in brief sentences and employ terms or words already used by one's audience. As much as possible, one should speak in the language of the listener. Above all else, one should not use jargon or technical language except with those who are already familiar with it. Please see the section ''Barriers and Gateways to Communication'' for more information.

66. Answers will vary.

Paralanguage consists of variations in speech, such as pitch, loudness, tempo, tone, duration, laughing, and crying. People make assumptions about the communicator by deciphering paralanguage cues. A female's high-pitched, breathy voice Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_ORGB6 may lead coworkers to stereotype her as a "dumb blonde." Rapid, loud speech may be taken as a sign of nervousness or anger. Interruptions such as "mmm" and "okay" may be used to speed up the speaker so that the receiver can get in a few words. Clucking of the tongue and the tsk-tsk sound are used to shame someone. All these cues relate to how something is said. Please see the section ''Nonverbal Communication" for more information.

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Chap 09_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The task of seeking information involves asking for ideas, suggestions, information, or facts. a. True b. False 2. Competence norms are more important than morality norms when it comes to making decisions about improving the status of one's work group. a. True b. False 3. Upper echelon theory argues that the background characteristics of the top management team cannot predict organizational characteristics and unique characteristics throughout an organization. a. True b. False 4. Whereas psychological intimacy is based more in behavior and activity, integrated involvement is based in emotion. a. True b. False 5. From an organizational health standpoint, diversity and depth in the top management team enhance a CEO's well-being. a. True b. False 6. Organizational performance of a CEO peaks toward the end of his or her tenure. a. True b. False 7. All groups are work teams. a. True b. False 8. The presence of a wild turkey in the upper echelons is always a negative force. a. True b. False 9. Failure to achieve psychological intimacy may result in social isolation. a. True b. False 10. Because task activities build tension within teams or groups, tension-reduction activities are important to drain off negative or destructive feelings. a. True b. False 11. Different task functions vary in importance throughout the life cycle of a group.

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Chap 09_ORGB6 a. True b. False 12. Team creativity and divergent thinking can be enhanced through greater diversity in teams, electronic brainstorming, training facilitators, and building a playground. a. True b. False 13. Team members might exercise care in timing the insertion of their novel ideas into the team process so as to maximize the positive impact and benefits. a. True b. False 14. Task functions enhance togetherness, cooperation, and teamwork, enabling members to achieve psychological intimacy while furthering the success of the team. a. True b. False 15. Communication gatekeepers within a group ensure balanced contributions from all members. a. True b. False 16. Diversity within a group may increase the uncertainty, complexity, and inherent confusion in group processes, making it more difficult for the group to achieve its full productivity. a. True b. False 17. Groups emphasize shared leadership, mutual accountability, and collective work products. a. True b. False 18. Maintenance functions are those activities directly related to the effective completion of a team's work. a. True b. False 19. Individual dissimilarity in age and performance, as well as functional diversity within a team, negatively affects individual employees' creative behavior. a. True b. False 20. Integrated involvement is emotional and psychological closeness to other team or group members. a. True b. False 21. The interpersonal glue that makes the members of a group stick together is social loafing. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_ORGB6 b. False 22. Psychological intimacy is closeness achieved through tasks and activities. a. True b. False 23. Task functions are those activities essential to the effective, satisfying interpersonal relationships within a group or team. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

24. In the context of work team processes, cooperative teamwork skills: a. include the ability to enjoy competition, play fair, and be a good winner or loser. b. are those activities directly related to the effective completion of the team's work. c. are those activities essential to the effective interpersonal relationships within a group or team. d. include open communication, trust, personal integrity, positive interdependence, and mutual support.

25. Self-managed teams are teams that: a. make decisions that were once reserved for managers. b. have a flat structure due to low power distance among them. c. have few members and simple functions that do not require supervision. d. are in the nascent stage of formation where a specific managerial function has not been established.

26. In the context of empowerment skills, _____ include self-expression skills and skills in reflective listening. a. process skills b. competence skills c. cooperative teamwork skills d. communication skills 27. _____ argues that the background characteristics of the top management team can predict organizational characteristics and set standards for values, competence, ethics, and unique characteristics throughout an organization. a. Upper echelon theory b. Bounded rationality theory c. Cognitive dissonance theory d. Classic economy theory 28. In the context of factors that influence group effectiveness, _____ is often thought of in an individual context rather than a team context. a. structure b. cohesion c. creativity d. dissimilarity Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_ORGB6 29. In the context of diversity, a challenger is a team member who: a. is the devil's advocate who questions everything from the group's mission, purpose, and methods to its ethics. b. listens well, facilitates the group's process, and humanizes the collective effort. c. sees the big picture and is constantly focused on the mission and urges other members to join efforts for mission accomplishment. d. is data driven, supplies necessary information, and adheres to high performance standards.

30. In the norming stage, a group's focus will turn from interpersonal relations to: a. decision making and task accomplishment. b. power struggles. c. skill enhancement. d. evaluation of the group's performance.

31. In the context of groups and work teams, groups emphasize: a. collective work products. b. mutual accountability. c. individual leadership. d. shared leadership.

32. _____ include the ability to enjoy competition, play fair, and be a good winner or loser; and to have access to information for monitoring where the team and members are in the competition. a. Positive competitive teamwork skills b. Competence skills c. Competition skills d. Cooperative teamwork skills 33. Which of the following statements is true of self-managed teams? a. They have a flat structure due to low power distance among them. b. They have few members and simple functions that do not require supervision. c. They have a positive impact on employee attitudes. d. They create a real drag on the group's efforts and achievements.

34. Which of the following statements is true of group cohesion? a. It results in feelings of emotional isolation and loneliness. b. It emphasizes individual leadership, personal accountability, and exclusive work. c. It includes the purpose of a group and the methods the group employs. d. It can enhance job satisfaction for members and improve organizational productivity.

35. According to the group development model proposed by Warren Bennis and Herbert Shepard, which of the following issues does a group address? a. Interpersonal issues, task issues, and authority issues b. Cultural issues, moral issues, and growth issues c. Inequity issues, self-actualization issues, and psychological issues d. Financial issues, social issues, and efficiency issues Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_ORGB6 36. _____ issues include goals and objectives, operating guidelines, performance measures, and role specification. a. Self-managed team b. Virtual team c. Status structure d. Work team structure 37. In the context of empowerment skills, _____ are motivated to act autonomously, though not necessarily to maximize their personal gains. a. individualistic people b. egalitarian people c. competitive people d. cooperative people 38. _____ enhance togetherness, cooperation, and teamwork, enabling members to achieve psychological intimacy while furthering the success of a team. a. Emergent groups b. Maintenance functions c. Task functions d. Behavioral norms 39. The advantages of culturally diverse groups appear to include the generation of more and better ideas while limiting the risk of _____. a. groupthink b. confusion c. complexity d. uncertainty 40. In the context of empowerment skills, _____ engage in encouraging, helpful behavior to maximize the gains for everyone on a team. a. egalitarian people b. individualistic people c. cooperative people d. competitive people 41. Social loafing: a. includes matters of trust, personal comfort, and security. b. preserves the potentially valuable resources of a group. c. may create a drag on a group's efforts and achievements. d. enhances job satisfaction for members.

42. In the context of social benefits to individuals, _____ is closeness achieved through tasks and activities. a. integrated involvement b. emotional satisfaction c. self-actualization d. psychological intimacy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_ORGB6 43. In the context of diversity, the effect of _____ within a team is often studied in relation to social identity theory and self-categorization theory. a. creativity b. structure c. cohesion d. dissimilarity 44. Two of the important process issues in work teams are the managing of cooperative behaviors and the managing of _____. a. competitive behaviors b. task functions c. maintenance functions d. behavioral norms 45. In the context of empowerment skills, the most critical _____ include negotiating skills, especially with allies, opponents, and adversaries. a. process skills b. competence skills c. cooperative teamwork skills d. communication skills 46. A wild turkey in a top management team is: a. one who increases the homogeneity within the executive group. b. a devil's advocate who challenges the thinking of the CEO and other top executives. c. someone who does not agree with most of the company policies. d. a member of the executive team that retards the executive team's performance.

47. In the context of Bruce Tuckman's five-stage model of group development, moving from the _____ stage requires that team members feel they are part of the team. a. forming b. storming c. norming d. performing 48. In the context of Bruce Tuckman's five-stage model of group development, dependence on guidance and direction is the defining characteristic of the _____ stage of group development. a. adjourning b. forming c. norming d. performing 49. An effective group must have a(n) _____, especially when the group is a cross-functional one, where different perspectives carry the seeds of conflict. a. integrator Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_ORGB6 b. communicator c. challenger d. collaborator 50. In the context of groups and work teams, work teams emphasize: a. individual leadership. b. personal accountability. c. exclusive work products. d. shared leadership.

51. Which of the following statements is true of teams? a. They do not know what performance measures are used to assess its task accomplishment. b. They are unclear about individual roles and responsibilities and tend to rely heavily on the leader to answer questions about the team's purpose. c. They lead to poor social benefits for the individual members involved. d. They make the most significant contributions to organizations when members can put aside individual interests in favor of unity.

52. Which of the following statements is true of work teams? a. They emphasize personal accountability. b. They only work face-to-face. c. They do not put aside individual interests in favor of unity. d. They emphasize collective work products.

53. _____ are groups in which members represent three or more ethnic backgrounds. a. Homogeneous groups b. Token groups c. Bicultural groups d. Multicultural groups 54. _____ are groups in which two or more members represent each of two distinct cultures. a. Homogeneous groups b. Token groups c. Bicultural groups d. Multicultural groups 55. According to the group development model proposed by Warren Bennis and Herbert Shepard, the task issues that are addressed by a group include: a. decisions about who is in charge. b. matters of trust. c. the mission of the group. d. matters of security.

56. Which of the following statements is true of groups? a. They emphasize personal accountability.

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Chap 09_ORGB6 b. They only work face-to-face. c. They include decisions about who is in charge. d. They emphasize collective work products.

57. Describe self-managed teams.

58. Identify and briefly discuss the four distinguishing characteristics of a mature (well-functioning) group.

59. Identify the stages of group development in Bruce Tuckman's five-stage model.

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Chap 09_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. True 17. False 18. False 19. False 20. False 21. False 22. False 23. False 24. d 25. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_ORGB6 26. d 27. a 28. c 29. a 30. a 31. c 32. a 33. c 34. d 35. a 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. c 41. c 42. a 43. d 44. a 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. b 49. a 50. d 51. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_ORGB6 52. d 53. d 54. c 55. c 56. a 57. Answers will vary.

Self-managed teams, also called self-directed teams or autonomous work groups, are teams that make decisions that were once reserved for managers. Self-managed teams are one way to implement empowerment in organizations. Even though self-managed teams are self-directed, that fact does not negate the influence of managers. In fact, managers have an important role in providing leadership and influence. There is strong support for the use of soft-influence tactics in managers' communication with self-directed teams, which yields more positive results. Please see the section "Empowerment and Self-Managed Teams" for more information.

58. Answers will vary.

A mature group has four characteristics: a clear purpose and mission, well-understood norms and standards of conduct, a high level of group cohesion, and a flexible status structure.

The group's purpose and mission may be assigned or emerge from within the group. The mission statement is converted into a specific agenda, clear goals, and a set of critical success factors. Stating the purpose and mission in the form of specific goals enhances productivity and performance far more effectively than individual goal setting.

Behavioral norms, which evolve over time, are well-understood standards of behavior within a group. They are benchmarks against which team members are evaluated by other team members.

Group cohesion enables a group to exercise effective control over its members in relation to its behavioral norms and standards. Mature teams have the capacity to share the deep acting strategies employed by individual team members, resulting in members behaving more similarly when expressing emotions.

Status structure is the set of authority and task relations among a group's members. It may be hierarchical or egalitarian, depending on the group. Successful resolution of the authority issue within a team results in a well-understood status structure of leader–follower relationships. Please see the section "Group Formation and Development" for more information.

59. Answers will vary.

Bruce Tuckman's five-stage model of group development proposes that team behavior progresses through five stages: forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.

Dependence on guidance and direction is the defining characteristic of the forming stage. At this point, team members are unclear about individual roles and responsibilities and tend to rely heavily on the leader to answer questions about the team's purpose, objectives, and external relationships.

Team members compete for position in the storming stage. As the name suggests, this is a period of considerable conflict as power struggles, cliques, and factions within the group begin to surface.

Agreement and consensus are characteristic of team members in the norming stage. It is during this period that roles and responsibilities become clear and are accepted.

As a team moves into the performing stage, it becomes more strategically aware of its mission and purpose. In this stage of development, the group has successfully worked through interpersonal, task, and authority issues and can stand on its own with little interference from the leader.

The final stage of group development is the adjourning stage. When the task is completed, everyone on the team can move on to new and different things. Please see the section "Group Formation and Development" for more information.

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Chap 09_ORGB6

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Chap 10_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Illumination is conducted to determine if a solution or idea is valid. a. True b. False 2. Power distance does not affect decision making. a. True b. False 3. Those prone to making risky decisions are less likely to take the lead in group discussions. a. True b. False 4. When individuals in a group are racially dissimilar, they engage in less open information sharing. a. True b. False 5. Research indicates that men are more risk averse than women and that younger, less experienced managers are more risk averse than older managers. a. True b. False 6. Over optimism is one of the reasons for escalation of commitment. a. True b. False 7. The capability to become physically involved in participative activities is an individual prerequisite for participative decision making. a. True b. False 8. Participation buffers employees from the negative experiences of organizational politics. a. True b. False 9. Strategic decision making in firms can vary widely by culture. a. True b. False 10. Devil's advocacy or dialectical inquiry facilitates groupthink. a. True b. False 11. According to the Z model, Intuiting is used to gather information about a problem. a. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_ORGB6 b. False 12. Feminine cultures value quick, assertive decisions. a. True b. False 13. A quality circle is a team that is part of an organization's structure and is empowered to act on its decisions regarding product and service quality. a. True b. False 14. Managers never use their intuition to make decisions. a. True b. False 15. Individuals with higher self-esteem and those who are given an opportunity to affirm an important value are less likely to de-escalate. a. True b. False 16. Styles of decision making remain uniform among cultures. a. True b. False 17. As an economy becomes increasingly based on knowledge work, participative decision making decreases. a. True b. False 18. Incubation means seeking out new experiences and opportunities to learn because creativity grows from a base of knowledge. a. True b. False 19. The United States is a culture with high uncertainty avoidance. a. True b. False 20. Time orientation does not affect the frame of reference of a decision. a. True b. False 21. By using the Z problem-solving model, managers can use only their preferences to make decisions. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

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Chap 10_ORGB6 22. The _____ rests on the idea that there are constraints that force a decision maker to be less than completely rational. a. rational model b. truth-wins rule c. bounded rationality model d. two-thirds-majority rule 23. Which of the following preferences is used in the final step of the Z problem-solving model to determine how the people involved will be affected? a. Feeling b. Sensing c. Intuiting d. Thinking 24. One of the reasons managers face limits to their rationality is that they: a. are aware of all the possible alternatives. b. must make decisions under risk and time pressure. c. have a consistent system of preferences. d. do not calculate the probability of success for each alternative.

25. Which of the following is true of quality teams? a. They emphasize the generation of ideas. b. They operate in parallel fashion to an organization's structure. c. They extend participative decision making into teams. d. They make data-based decisions about improving product and service quality.

26. A _____ is a small group of employees who work voluntarily on company time, typically one hour per week, to address work-related problems such as quality control, cost reduction, production planning and techniques, and even product design. a. quality circle b. quality team c. social group d. planning team 27. Participative decision making is associated with: a. the ability to know the possibilities of a situation. b. less creativity among employees. c. reduced productivity. d. employee job satisfaction.

28. Which of the following is an assumption of the bounded rationality model? a. Managers are aware of all the possible alternatives. b. Managers have a consistent system of preferences, which is used to choose the best alternative. c. Managers can calculate the probability of success for each alternative. d. Managers develop shortcuts, called heuristics, to make decisions in order to save mental activity.

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Chap 10_ORGB6 29. Jake, the CEO of WinWest Inc., decided to launch a high-risk product. Despite the product's persistent failure, he was unwilling to withdraw it from the market. This scenario is an example of _____. a. path dependency b. risk aversion c. escalation of commitment d. participative decision making 30. _____ are new and complex decisions that require considerable judgment. a. Programmed decisions b. Routine decisions c. Simple decisions d. Nonprogrammed decisions 31. The rational model of decision making assumes that the: a. decision maker has an inconsistent system of preferences. b. decision maker is not aware of all the possible alternatives. c. outcomes will be completely irrational. d. decision maker can calculate the probability of success for each alternative.

32. Which of the following is an assumption of intuition? a. It involves learned patterns of information. b. It is used at a level above consciousness. c. It is a negative force in decision making. d. It is slow.

33. In the rational model, the decision maker strives to: a. satisfice. b. optimize. c. support a failing course of action. d. develop shortcuts.

34. Which of the following encourages groupthink? a. Low cohesiveness b. Diversity among group members c. Domination of the group by one forceful member d. Time constraints 35. Recent research examining the effects of cultural diversity on decision making has found that when individuals in a group are racially dissimilar, _____. a. they engage in less open information sharing b. they discourage dissenting perspectives c. they arrive at better decisions than racially similar groups d. they tend to make decisions slower than racially similar groups Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_ORGB6 36. The use of intuition may lead to more _____ as intuition allows an individual to take on another's role with ease. a. effective decisions b. heuristics c. creativity d. ethical decisions 37. Which of the following is an assumption of the rational model of decision making? a. The outcome will be completely irrational. b. The decision maker is aware of all the possible alternatives. c. The decision maker cannot calculate the probability of success for each alternative. d. The decision maker has an inconsistent system of preferences, which is used to choose alternatives.

38. The advantages of group decision making include: a. no pressure within the group to conform and fit in. b. more knowledge through the pooling of group member resources. c. less amount of time required. d. decreased acceptance of and commitment to the decision.

39. In the context of creativity, _____ occurs when an individual senses an insight for solving a problem. a. incubation b. illumination c. verification d. preparation 40. In the context of personality, attitudes, and values, the left side of the brain is the center for _____. a. creative functions b. planning c. incubation d. innovative ideas 41. Cognitive style is defined as an individual's: a. preferred method for gathering information and evaluating alternatives. b. tendency to choose options that entail fewer risks and less uncertainty. c. tendency to continue to support a failing course of action. d. new, complex decision that requires a creative solution.

42. In the context of the decision-making process, after a solution is implemented, the next step is to: a. monitor the situation. b. calculate the probability of success. c. evaluate alternatives. d. evaluate data.

43. The organizational foundations include a _____ that is essential because of the uncertainty within the organization. a. nominal group technique Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_ORGB6 b. social organizational scheme c. supportive organizational culture d. social comparison approach 44. One social decision scheme is the _____, in which a group supports whatever position is taken by most of its members. a. majority-wins rule b. truth-wins rule c. two-thirds-majority rule d. first-shift rule 45. Bounded rationality assumes that managers _____ because the costs of optimizing in terms of time and effort are too great. a. satisfice b. optimize c. examine facts and details d. reject heuristics 46. In situations characterized by _____, individuals who make decisions that turn out to be poor choices tend to hold fast to those choices, even when substantial costs are incurred. a. escalation of commitment b. path dependency c. group polarization d. participative decision making 47. Which of the following is true of programmed decisions? a. They are new and complex decisions. b. They require creative solutions. c. They have an established decision rule. d. They require detailed judgement.

48. Which of the following is a symptom of groupthink? a. Illusions of group immorality b. Illusions of vulnerability c. Low cohesiveness d. Peer pressure 49. Using the _____ can help an individual develop his nonpreferences. a. truth-wins rule b. two-thirds-majority rule c. bounded rationality model d. Z problem-solving model 50. _____ are simple rules used to determine final group decisions. a. Heuristics Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_ORGB6 b. Social decision schemes c. Nominal group techniques d. Mindguards 51. Alex, a manager at WizzWare Inc., is in charge of making a decision about merging with another company. This decision is a _____. a. programmed decision b. simple decision c. routine decision d. nonprogrammed decision 52. Which of the following statements is true in the context of risk aversion? a. Women are more risk averse than men. b. Younger managers are more risk averse than more experienced managers. c. Successful managers are more risk averse than unsuccessful managers. d. Men are more risk averse than women.

53. The bounded rationality model assumes that managers: a. select the alternative that is rational. b. always select the best possible alternative. c. recognize that their conception of the world is complex. d. are comfortable making decisions without identifying all the options.

54. Which of the following is true of quality circles? a. They extend participative decision making into teams. b. They are included in total quality management. c. They are empowered to act on their own recommendations. d. They are generated from the top down.

55. Which of the following is an individual prerequisite for participative decision making? a. The capability to prevent critical analysis of decisions b. The motivation to act autonomously c. The motivation to protect a group from negative feedback d. The capability to become psychologically detached in participative activities 56. _____ has been described as the ability to know or recognize quickly and readily the possibilities of a situation. a. Preparation b. Intuition c. Verification d. Illumination

57. Describe the advantages of group decision making.

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Chap 10_ORGB6 58. What are the elements of the decision making process?

59. Describe the effect of diversity and culture on decision making.

60. Describe the foundations for participation and empowerment.

61. Describe the individual and organizational influences on creativity.

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Chap 10_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. False 12. False 13. False 14. False 15. False 16. False 17. False 18. False 19. False 20. False 21. False 22. c 23. a 24. c 25. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_ORGB6 26. a 27. d 28. d 29. c 30. d 31. d 32. a 33. b 34. d 35. c 36. d 37. b 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. a 43. c 44. a 45. a 46. a 47. c 48. d 49. d 50. b 51. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_ORGB6 52. a 53. d 54. a 55. b 56. b 57. Answers will vary.

The advantages of group decision making include (1) more knowledge and information through the pooling of group member resources, (2) increased acceptance of and commitment to the decision because the members had a voice in it, and (3) greater understanding of the decision because members were involved in the various stages of the decision process. Please see the section "The Group Decision-Making Process" for more information.

58. Answers will vary.

Decision making is a process involving a series of steps. The first step is recognizing the problem; that is, the manager realizes that a decision must be made. Identifying the real problem is important; otherwise, the manager may be reacting to symptoms rather than dealing with the root cause of the problem. Next, a manager must identify the objective of the decision. In other words, the manager must determine what is to be accomplished by the decision. The third step in the decision-making process is gathering information relevant to the problem. The manager must accumulate sufficient information about why the problem occurred. This involves conducting a thorough diagnosis of the situation and going on a fact-finding mission. The fourth step is listing and evaluating alternative courses of action. During this step, a thorough "what-if" analysis should be conducted to determine the various factors that could influence the outcome. It is important to generate a wide range of options and creative solutions in order to be able to move on to the next step. Next, the manager selects the alternative that best meets the decision objective. If the problem has been diagnosed correctly and sufficient alternatives have been identified, this step is much easier. After the solution is implemented, the situation must then be monitored to see whether the decision met its objective. Consistent monitoring and periodic feedback are essential parts of the follow-up process. Please see the section "The Decision-Making Process" for more information.

59. Answers will vary.

Styles of decision making vary greatly among cultures. In the United States, a culture with low uncertainty avoidance, decisions are seen as opportunities for change. Power distance also affects decision making. The individualist/collectivist dimension has implications for decision making. Japan, with its collectivist culture, favors group decisions. The United States has a more difficult time with group decisions because it is an individualistic culture. The time orientation and masculine/feminine dimensions have an impact on decision making as well. Recent research examining the effects of cultural diversity on decision making has found that when individuals in a group are racially dissimilar, they engage in more open information sharing, encourage dissenting perspectives, and arrive at better decisions than racially similar groups. Please see the section "Diversity and Culture in Decision Making" for more information.

60. Answers will vary.

The organizational foundations for participation and empowerment include a supportive organizational culture and a team-oriented work design. A supportive work environment is essential because of the uncertainty within the organization. A second organizational foundation for participative decision making concerns the design of work. A teamoriented work design is a key organizational foundation because it leads to broader tasks and a greater sense of responsibility. Please see the section "Participation in Decision Making" for more information.

61. Answers will vary.

Several individual variables are related to creativity. One group of factors involves the cognitive processes that creative Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_ORGB6 individuals tend to use. One such cognitive process is divergent thinking, meaning the individual's ability to generate several potential solutions to a problem. In addition, associational abilities and the use of imagery are associated with creativity. Unconscious processes such as dreams are also essential cognitive processes related to creative thinking.

Personality factors have also been related to creativity in studies of individuals from several different occupations.

The organizational environment in which people work can either support creativity or impede creative efforts. Creativity killers include focusing on how work is going to be evaluated, being closely monitored while you are working, and competing with other people in win–lose situations. In contrast, creativity facilitators include feelings of autonomy, being part of a team with diverse skills, and having creative supervisors and coworkers. High-quality, supportive relationships with supervisors are related to creativity. Plus, high-quality, cohesive social networks can have a positive impact on creative decision making. Such social networks encourage creative decision making by facilitating shared sense-making of relevant information and consensus building. In addition, flexible organizational structures and participative decision making have been associated with creativity. Please see the section "Individual Influences on Decision Making" for more information.

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Chap 11_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The positive face of power is personal power. a. True b. False 2. Coercive power is power based on an agent's ability to control rewards that a target wants, such as salary increases, bonuses, and promotions. a. True b. False 3. When both men and women witness political behavior, they view it negatively if the agent is of their gender and the target is of the opposite gender. a. True b. False 4. Sean, a manager, threatens Will, his employee, with a decrement in salary if Will reveals the embezzling habits of Sean to the auditor. In this scenario, Sean is using his coercive power. a. True b. False 5. For an agent to have referent power over a target, the agent should be superior to the target. a. True b. False 6. A guideline for the ethical use of legitimate power is that managers should inform subordinates of rules and penalties. a. True b. False 7. When employees perceive that there are dominant interest groups or cliques at work, they are less satisfied with pay and promotions. a. True b. False 8. Referent power is the power that exists when an agent has specialized knowledge or skills that a target needs. a. True b. False 9. Reward power leads to better performance, but only as long as the employee sees a clear and strong link between performance and rewards. a. True b. False 10. Influence is only exercised upward within an organization. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_ORGB6 11. Expert power has the strongest relationship with performance and satisfaction in comparison to the other forms of power. a. True b. False 12. Women tend to view political behavior more favorably than do men. a. True b. False 13. To use reward power effectively, employees must believe that a manager has the right to tell them what to do. a. True b. False 14. Empowerment should begin with job context and proceed to job content. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

15. Which of the following is true of self-managed teams? a. They take on decisions and activities that traditionally belong to managers. b. They have the ability to control rewards that a target wants. c. They believe that the institution is important and that its authority system is valid. d. They are comfortable influencing and being influenced.

16. Managers using coercive power may: a. maintain credibility. b. exercise power consistently or engage in role modeling. c. verbally abuse employees or withhold support from them. d. be cordial and polite.

17. In the context of influence tactics, _____ is particularly effective for gaining support and resources for a new project. a. consultation b. rational persuasion c. pressure d. principled dissent 18. In the context of interpersonal forms of power, charismatic individuals are often thought to have _____ power. a. reward b. legitimate c. referent d. expert 19. Which of the following best defines competence? a. It is a fit between work roles and employees' values and beliefs.

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Chap 11_ORGB6 b. It is the belief that one has the ability to do a job well. c. It is the belief that one's job makes a difference within an organization. d. It is having control over the way one does work.

20. In _____, individuals use influence tactics to control others' impressions of them. a. impression management b. zone of indifference c. organizational politics d. high degree of centrality 21. In the context of political behavior in organizations, _____ encourages political activity. a. clear goals b. definitive lines of authority c. abundant resources d. autocratic decision making 22. Which of the following is an advantage of negative feedback? a. It is the engine of empowerment through which employees become energized about their jobs. b. It can bring about a closer employee–boss relationship if given in a problem-solving format. c. It boosts the morale of employees by drawing attention to their work. d. It has the strongest relationship with performance and satisfaction.

23. Which of the following is the first step that employees should take in managing their relationship with their boss? a. They should try to understand as much as they can about their boss. b. They should assess their own needs differently from the way they analyze their boss's needs. c. They should not be dependent on their boss. d. They should remember that their boss is not on the same team they are.

24. In the context of positive versus negative power, which of the following is true of dissenters? a. They can serve as checks on powerful people outside an organization. b. They can prevent the exposure of wrongdoings within an organization. c. They can sway employees in favor of an organization. d. They can create a climate conducive to the ethical use of power.

25. For expert power to work, _____. a. a target must trust that the expertise given is accurate. b. the knowledge involved must be relevant and useful to an agent. c. an agent and a target must agree that the agent has the right to influence the target. d. an agent's perception of a target as an expert is crucial.

26. The effects of political behavior in organizations can be negative when the political behavior is: a. seen as the only means by which to accomplish something. b. strategically undertaken to maximize self-interest. c. used for impression management.

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Chap 11_ORGB6 d. aligned with organizational goals.

27. In the context of power, the person using power is known as a(n) _____. a. agent b. target c. philanthropist d. altruist 28. Enlarging an individual's zone of indifference is best accomplished with _____. a. authority b. ingratiation c. power d. consultation 29. In the context of influence tactics, _____ is used most often to get support from peers and superiors to change company policy. a. rational persuasion b. consultation c. inspirational appeal d. pressure 30. To coerce someone into doing something means to: a. engage in role modeling. b. exercise power consistently. c. threaten his or her selfesteem. d. force the person to do it.

31. According to Jay Conger, which of the following is a guideline on how managers can empower employees in an organization? a. Managers should set low performance expectations. b. Managers should exclude employees from decision-making processes. c. Managers should reinstate bureaucratic constraints in the organization. d. Managers should set inspirational or meaningful goals.

32. In the context of information power, _____ is the spin that managers put on information. a. ingratiation b. altruism c. networking d. framing 33. Which of the following statements is true of reward power? a. It is effective when managers are not explicit about the behavior being rewarded and do not make the connection clear between the behavior and the reward. b. It is based on interpersonal interaction. c. It can lead to better performance, but only as long as an employee sees a clear and strong link between Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_ORGB6 performance and rewards. d. It has the strongest relationship with performance and satisfaction.

34. According to Kanter, which of the following is true of executives feeling powerless? a. They exceed budget limitations. b. They use dictatorial, top-down communication. c. They have access to early information. d. They procure above-average raises for employees.

35. A symptom of powerlessness that a first-line manager displays is: a. an overly close supervision of employees. b. a focus on budget expansion. c. the ability to intercede for someone in trouble. d. flexible adherence to the rules.

36. Anne, a manager, increases the salary of Susan, one of her employees, by 30 percent because she likes Susan. But for the others, she increases the salary by only 20 percent. In this scenario, Anne's behavior is unethical as it violates the criteria of: a. individual rights. b. utilitarian outcomes. c. distributive justice. d. principled dissent.

37. Which of the following is true of Kanter's symbols of power? a. They can only identify weak people in organizations. b. They have an active, other-directed element. c. They are used for budget cutting. d. They are used to create motivation.

38. Which of the following statements is true of information power? a. It has the strongest relationship with performance and satisfaction. b. It is the power that exists when an agent has specialized knowledge or skills that a target needs. c. It may flow upward from subordinates to managers as well as downward from managers to subordinates. d. It can lead to better performance, but only as long as an employee sees a clear and strong link between performance and rewards.

39. Which of the following is true of people who use referent power? a. They are most often individualistic and respected by a target. b. They internalize what they observe. c. They learn from managers they perceive to be experts. d. They influence their top management teams in ways that are profitable for their firm.

40. In the context of using power ethically, managers should _____ for the ethical use of legitimate power. a. make only ethical requests b. be cordial and polite Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_ORGB6 c. maintain credibility d. engage in role modeling 41. Which of the following powers has the strongest relationship with performance and satisfaction? a. Reward power b. Legitimate power c. Referent power d. Expert power 42. In the context of power, the recipient of the attempt to use power is known as a(n) _____. a. target b. Machiavellian c. agent d. altruist 43. According to Korda, which of the following is true of managers who are really secure in their power? a. They believe that nothing important can happen without them. b. They have a fairly free calendar. c. They take a favorable view of political behavior. d. They are dissatisfied with their jobs.

44. Which of the following is a guideline for the ethical use of legitimate power? a. Managers should act confident and decisive. b. Managers should fit punishment to the infraction. c. Managers should enforce compliance. d. Managers should be oblivious to subordinates' concerns.

45. According to McClelland, the two faces of power are: a. coercive power and reward power. b. legitimate power and illegitimate power. c. personal power and social power. d. interpersonal power and intrapersonal power.

46. In the context of interpersonal power, _____ is called the power of future. a. legitimate power b. referent power c. expert power d. social power 47. In the context of empowerment, _____ is the belief that one's job makes a difference within an organization. a. impact b. competence c. self-determination d. meaning Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_ORGB6 48. According to McClelland, people who approach relationships with an exchange orientation often use _____ to ensure that they get at least their fair share—and often more—in the relationship. a. personal power b. social power c. legitimate power d. expert power 49. If a manager makes a request to his or her employee and the employee thinks that the manager has no right to make that request, then the request falls outside the employee's: a. political behavior. b. zone of indifference. c. referent power. d. job content.

50. In the context of empowerment, _____ consists of the tasks and procedures necessary for doing a particular job. a. job content b. competence c. job context d. meaning 51. To use reward power effectively, a manager should: a. make the connection clear between the behavior being rewarded and the reward. b. not be explicit about the behavior being rewarded. c. inform subordinates of rules and penalties. d. not select subordinates similar to himself/herself .

52. How can political behavior in organizations be managed effectively? Explain briefly.

53. Identify the characteristics of powerful people in organizations provided by Kanter.

54. Identify and briefly discuss the factors that can give a group control over a strategic contingency.

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Chap 11_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. False 13. False 14. False 15. a 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. d 22. b 23. a 24. d 25. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_ORGB6 26. b 27. a 28. c 29. a 30. d 31. d 32. d 33. c 34. b 35. a 36. c 37. b 38. c 39. a 40. b 41. d 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. c 46. c 47. a 48. a 49. b 50. a 51. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_ORGB6 52. Answers will vary.

Politics cannot and should not be eliminated from organizations. Managers should, however, take a proactive stance and manage the political behavior that inevitably occurs. The first step in managing political behavior is to recognize it. Some behaviors to watch for include networking, finding key players to support initiatives, making friends with powerful people, bending the rules, and self-promoting. Lesser-used tactics include misinformation, spreading rumors, and blackmailing. To diffuse these behaviors, open communication is an important tool. Uncertainty tends to increase political behavior, and communication that reduces uncertainty is important. One way to open communication is to clarify the sanctioned and nonsanctioned political behaviors in the organization. Another key is to clarify expectations regarding performance. Participative management is yet another key. Managing scarce resources well is also important. Please see the section "Managing Political Behavior in Organizations" for more information.

53. Answers will vary.

Kanter offers a scholarly approach to determining who has power and who feels powerless, providing several characteristics of powerful people in organizations: ability to intercede for someone in trouble; ability to get placements for favored employees; exceeding budget limitations; procuring above-average raises for employees; getting items on the agenda at meetings; access to early information; and having top managers seek out their opinion. Please see the section "Symbols of Power" for more information.

54. Answers will vary.

Three factors can give a group control over a strategic contingency. One is the ability to cope with uncertainty. If a group can help another group deal with uncertainty, it has power. One group that has gained power in recent years in most organizations is the legal department. Faced with increasing government regulations and fears of litigation, many other departments seek guidance from the legal department.

Another factor that can give a group control power is a high degree of centrality within the organization. If a group's functioning is important to the organization's success, it has high centrality. The sales force in a computer firm, for example, has power because of its immediate effect on the firm's operations and because other groups depend on its activities.

The third factor that can give a group power is nonsubstitutability—the extent to which a group performs a function that is indispensable to an organization. A team of computer specialists may be powerful because of its expertise with a system.

It may have specialized experience that another team cannot provide. Please see the section "Forms and Sources of Power in Organizations" for more information.

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Chap 12_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. A tenet of charismatic leadership is that work exists for the person as much as the person exists for work and that charismatic leaders try to find out the will of the group and lead based on that. a. True b. False 2. Transactional leaders inspire and excite followers to high levels of performance. a. True b. False 3. Good leaders never make good followers. a. True b. False 4. Alienated followers perpetually sample the wind, and their motto is "better safe than sorry." a. True b. False 5. Transformational leadership results when a leader uses the force of personal abilities and talents to have profound and extraordinary effects on followers. a. True b. False 6. Early evidence shows that men tend to use a more people-oriented style that is inclusive and empowering than do women. a. True b. False 7. Effective followers practice self-management and self-responsibility. a. True b. False 8. The path–goal theory suggests that the leader's behavior should be adjusted to the maturity level of the followers. a. True b. False 9. The first studies of leadership attempted to identify what physical attributes, personality characteristics, and abilities distinguished leaders from other members of a group. a. True b. False 10. Alienated followers do not think independently or critically, yet are very active in their behavior. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_ORGB6 11. Corporate leaders play a central role in setting the ethical tone and moral values for their organizations. a. True b. False 12. The glass cliff represents a trend in organizations wherein more women are placed in difficult leadership situations. a. True b. False 13. From the perspective of the Situational Leadership model, the basic role of the leader is to clear the follower's path to the goal. a. True b. False 14. Kotter believes that effective leadership controls complexity in the organization and its environment. a. True b. False 15. Effective followers need close supervision. a. True b. False 16. With regard to leader abilities, attention has been devoted to such constructs as social skills, intelligence, scholarship, speech fluency, cooperativeness, and insight. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

17. Which of the following is true of the laissez-faire leadership style? a. It requires a hands-on approach. b. It helps leaders clearly define goals and outcomes. c. It leads to lower interpersonal conflicts at work. d. It causes role ambiguity for followers.

18. The basic idea behind leader–member exchange theory is that: a. followership is based on member perceptions of equity. b. leaders form two groups of followers: in-groups and out-groups. c. leadership effectiveness is determined by the degree of fit between the leader and the situation. d. leaders adapt their behavior to fit the characteristics of the work environment.

19. In the context of Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership, _____ are primarily gratified by accomplishing tasks and getting work done. a. task-oriented leaders b. relationship-oriented leaders c. achievement-oriented leaders Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_ORGB6 d. task structure-oriented leaders 20. _____ are the most dangerous to a leader because they are the most likely to give a false positive reaction and give no warning of potential pitfalls. a. Yes people b. Survivors c. Alienated followers d. Sheep 21. With regard to leader _____, attention has been devoted to such constructs as social skills, intelligence, scholarship, speech fluency, cooperativeness, and insight. a. personalities b. abilities c. relationships d. attitudes 22. Which of the following is true of women managers? a. They are less likely to use a people-oriented style. b. They are dependent on position power to be effective leaders. c. They make poor decisions and lose their effectiveness in stressful situations. d. They tend to use a more people-oriented style that is inclusive and empowering.

23. Which of the following statements is true of a democratic leadership style? a. Leaders do not have ultimate authority and responsibility. b. Leaders fail to clearly define goals, responsibilities, and outcomes. c. Followers have a high degree of discretionary influence. d. Followers have little discretionary influence over the nature of the work.

24. The _____ involves planning and budgeting, organizing and staffing, and controlling and problem solving. a. specialization process b. management process c. leadership process d. functional process 25. According to John Kotter, which of the following is true of leadership and management? a. Both involve planning and budgeting. b. Both involve setting organizational direction. c. Both deal with problem solving. d. Both are complementary systems of action in organizations.

26. Which of the following statements is true of leaders with high emotional intelligence? a. They look for challenges and ways in which to add to their talents. b. They use a more people-oriented style that is empowering. c. They lose their effectiveness. d. They make better decisions under high stress.

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Chap 12_ORGB6 27. In the context of followership, effective followers: a. are courageous and credible. b. are self-aggrandizing. c. uncritically reinforce leaders' ideas. d. require close supervision.

28. _____ refers to how much concern the leader displays for each follower's needs and acts as a coach or a mentor. a. Intellectual stimulation b. Individualized consideration c. Individual consultation d. Emotional intelligence 29. In the context of leader–member exchange theory, _____ tend to be similar to the leader and are given greater responsibilities, more rewards, and more attention. a. transactional leaders b. transformational leaders c. out-group members d. in-group members 30. In the context of the Situational Leadership model, which of the following is true of a telling style? a. It involves providing instructions and closely monitoring performance. b. It helps leaders determine the appropriate level of employee participation in decision making. c. It determines the team's effectiveness in work accomplishment. d. It attempts to balance a concern for people and production without a commitment to either.

31. In the context of inspirational leadership, transformational leaders: a. rely on their personal attributes instead of their official position to manage followers. b. use rewards and punishment to strike deals with followers and shape their behavior. c. have great concern for people and little concern for production. d. attempt to balance a concern for people and production without a commitment to either.

32. A tenet of _____ is that work exists for the person as much as the person exists for work. a. transactional leadership b. abusive leadership c. servant leadership d. charismatic leadership 33. _____, the quality of interpersonal relationships among a leader and the group members, is measured by the GroupAtmosphere Scale. a. Nonprogrammed decisions b. Reality-distortion fields c. Programmed decisions d. Leader–member relations Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_ORGB6 34. In the context of inspirational leadership, _____ consists of the following four subdimensions: charisma, individualized consideration, inspirational motivation, and intellectual stimulation. a. autocratic leadership b. laissez-faire leadership c. transformational leadership d. transactional leadership 35. _____ are potentially disruptive and a threat to the health of the organization. a. Alienated followers b. The yes people c. Sheep d. Survivors 36. In the context of situational favorableness, _____ refers to the authority associated with the leader's formal position in the organization. a. transactional leadership b. transformational leadership c. position power d. task structure 37. When a follower is unable but willing and confident to do a task, the leader can use the _____, in which there is high task behavior and high relationship behavior. a. telling style b. selling style c. delegating style d. participating style 38. In _____, the leader always chooses the leader behavior style that helps followers achieve their goals. a. trait theory b. inspirational leadership theory c. path–goal theory d. leader–member exchange theory 39. In the context of the Leadership Grid, the _____ is a middle-of-the-road leader who has a medium concern for people and production. a. impoverished manager b. organization man manager c. authority-compliance manager d. country club manager 40. In the context of the Vroom-Yetton-Jago normative decision model, the term _____ means that a manager makes the decision alone and either announces it or "sells" it to the group. a. decide b. facilitate c. consult Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_ORGB6 d. delegate 41. The _____ assumes that leaders adapt their behavior and style to fit the characteristics of the followers and the environment in which they work. a. path–goal theory b. trait theory c. inspirational leadership theory d. leader–member exchange theory 42. _____ refers to the willingness to be vulnerable to the actions of another and is an essential element in leadership. a. Facilitation b. Supervision c. Patience d. Trust 43. _____ in organizations is the process of guiding and directing the behavior of people in the work environment. a. Principled dissent b. Strategic contingency c. Management d. Leadership 44. _____ recognizes the benefits of authoritative, democratic, and consultive styles of leader behavior. a. The situational decision making model b. Vroom-Yetton-Jago normative decision model c. The rational decision making model d. Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership 45. The key to the _____ is that a manager should use the decision method most appropriate for a given decision situation. a. situational decision making model b. normative decision model c. rational decision making model d. contingency theory of leadership 46. Leader _____ characteristics that have been examined include originality, adaptability, introversion– extroversion, dominance, self-confidence, integrity, and conviction. a. personality b. ability c. insight d. speech fluency 47. An employee-oriented leadership style leads to a work environment: a. that focuses on relationships. b. that focuses on getting things done. c. that uses strong, directive actions to control the rules. d. that is characterized by low task behavior and low relationship behavior.

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Chap 12_ORGB6 48. A(n) _____ of behavior is used when a leader must set challenging goals for followers and show strong confidence in those followers. a. supportive style b. directive style c. participative style d. achievement-oriented style 49. Hersey & Blanchard's Situational Leadership model suggests that: a. leaders determine the appropriate level of employee participation in decision making. b. leaders adapt their behavior to fit the characteristics of the environment in which they work. c. the leader's behavior style helps followers achieve their goals. d. the leader's behavior should be adjusted to the maturity level of the followers.

50. A(n) _____ of behavior is used when a leader needs to express concern for followers' well-being and social status. a. supportive style b. directive style c. participative style d. achievement-oriented style 51. In the context of the Vroom-Yetton-Jago normative decision model, the term _____ means that a manager presents the problem to the group members individually, gets their input, and then makes the decision. a. decide individually b. consult individually c. facilitate d. delegate 52. In the context of Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership, _____ are primarily gratified by developing good, comfortable interpersonal relationships. a. task-oriented leaders b. relationship-oriented leaders c. achievement-oriented leaders d. laissez-faire leaders 53. According to the guidelines for leadership, which of the following influence organizational performance? a. Consideration and initiating structure b. Concern for people and concern for products c. Position power and task structure d. Environmental factors and technological factors 54. In the context of leader–member exchange theory, _____ are outside the circle and receive less attention and fewer rewards. a. transactional leaders b. transformational leaders c. out-group members Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_ORGB6 d. in-group members

55. Briefly explain the characteristics of an alienated follower.

56. What are the characteristics of an effective follower?

57. Briefly explain the five guidelines for leadership.

58. Explain the role of emotional intelligence in leadership.

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Chap 12_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. False 14. False 15. False 16. True 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. d 23. c 24. b 25. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_ORGB6 26. d 27. a 28. b 29. d 30. a 31. a 32. c 33. d 34. c 35. a 36. c 37. b 38. c 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. d 43. d 44. b 45. b 46. a 47. a 48. d 49. d 50. a 51. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_ORGB6 52. b 53. d 54. c 55. Answers will vary.

Alienated followers think independently and critically, yet are very passive in their behavior. As a result, they become psychologically and emotionally distanced from their leaders. These alienated followers are potentially disruptive and a threat to the health of the organization. Please see the section "Followership" for more information.

56. Answers will vary.

Effective followers share four essential qualities. First, they practice self-management and self-responsibility. A leader can delegate to an effective follower without anxiety about the outcome. Second, they are committed both to the organization and a purpose, principle, or person outside themselves. Effective followers are not self-centered or selfaggrandizing. Third, effective followers invest in their own competence and professionalism and focus their energy for maximum impact. Effective followers look for challenges and ways in which to add to their talents or abilities. Fourth, they are courageous, honest, and credible. Please see the section "Followership" for more information.

57. Answers will vary.

Five useful guidelines appear to emerge from the extensive leadership research of the past sixty years: 1. Leaders and organizations should appreciate the unique attributes, predispositions, and talents of each leader. No two leaders are the same, and there is value in this diversity.

2. Although there appears to be no single best style of leadership, there are organizational preferences in terms of style.

Leaders should be chosen who challenge the organizational culture, when necessary, without destroying it.

3. Participative, considerate leader behaviors that demonstrate a concern for people appear to enhance the health and wellbeing of followers in the work environment. This does not imply, however, that a leader must ignore the team's work tasks.

4. Different leadership situations call for different leadership talents and behaviors.

5. Good leaders are likely to be good followers. Although there are distinctions between their social roles, the attributes and behaviors of leaders and followers may not be as distinct as is sometimes thought. Please see the section "Guidelines for Leadership" for more information.

58. Answers will vary.

Emotional intelligence is made up of several competencies, including self-awareness, empathy, adaptability, and selfconfidence. While most people gain emotional intelligence as they age, not everyone starts with an equal amount.

Fortunately, emotional intelligence can be learned. With honest feedback from coworkers and ongoing guidance, almost any leader can improve emotional intelligence, and with it, the ability to lead in times of adversity. Emotional intelligence affects the way leaders make decisions. Under high stress, leaders with higher emotional intelligence tend to keep their cool and make better decisions, while leaders with low emotional intelligence make poor decisions and lose their effectiveness. Please see the section "Emerging Issues in Leadership" for more information.

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Chap 13_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Cross-cultural negotiations can be more effective if each party learns as much about the other cultures as possible. a. True b. False 2. The high versus middle versus low power network illustrates the conflict felt by middle managers. a. True b. False 3. The major behavioral tendency associated with the high versus middle versus low power relationship is suboptimization. a. True b. False 4. Administrative orbiting and secrecy are very effective conflict reduction techniques. a. True b. False 5. Conflict between groups leads to decreased competition. a. True b. False 6. Managers should work to stimulate functional conflict when they suspect their group is suffering from groupthink. a. True b. False 7. Developing trust within a group can prevent the misattribution of task conflict for personal conflict. a. True b. False 8. When negotiators begin to act based on emotions rather than on cognitions, they are less likely to resolve a conflict. a. True b. False 9. A key to recognizing functional conflict is that it is often cognitive in origin. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

10. Which of the following is true of distributive bargaining? a. It causes negotiators to focus on their similarities. b. It is a competitive, win–lose approach to negotiations. c. It allows members from different departments to work together. d. It is a style low on both assertiveness and cooperativeness.

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Chap 13_ORGB6 11. Which of the following styles of conflict management is used to achieve temporary settlements to complex issues? a. Negotiating b. Avoiding c. Accommodating d. Compromising 12. In the context of intrapersonal conflicts, the individuals who place expectations on a person are _____. a. role producers b. role delegators c. role incumbents d. role senders 13. Jack, a sales manager, is confronted by Jessica, a dissatisfied customer. Jessica claims that she has received a defective piece of merchandise and wants to make a complaint. Jack tells her that she needs to fill out a complaint form, which will be reviewed by the frontline staff, and recorded into the complaint-handling system. After that, the senior management would conduct an investigation on her complaint and give her a response within 20 working days. The conflict resolution technique used by Jack in this situation is called _____. a. distributive bargaining b. administrative orbiting c. due process nonaction d. character assassination 14. _____ is a compromise mechanism whereby an individual patterns his or her behavior after another's. a. Rationalization b. Fantasy c. Fixation d. Identification 15. Competition between groups must be managed carefully so that it does not escalate into a(n): a. intragroup conflict. b. dysfunctional conflict. c. functional conflict. d. interorganizational conflict.

16. When intrapersonal conflicts challenge individuals to choose between right and right, the decision presents _____. a. bending moments b. defining moments c. functional conflicts d. dysfunctional conflicts 17. _____ is a withdrawal mechanism that provides an escape from a conflict through daydreaming. a. Flight b. Fantasy c. Withdrawal Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_ORGB6 d. Displacement 18. Which of the following statements is true of intragroup conflict? a. Conflicts within a team can never be functional. b. Face-to-face interactions hinder the development of trust. c. Virtual teams are not immune to conflict. d. Telephone conversations early on cannot eliminate later conflicts in virtual teams.

19. In the context of intergroup conflict, managers should encourage social interactions across groups so that: a. trust can be developed. b. resources can be shared. c. employees can perform better. d. human resource activities can be held.

20. In the context of ineffective techniques for dealing with conflict, _____ is attempting to hide a conflict or an issue that has the potential to create conflict. a. flight b. secrecy c. nonaction d. fantasy 21. Which of the following is a cause of conflict related to an organization's structure? a. Authority relations b. Skills and abilities c. Values and ethics d. Perceptions 22. To diagnose a conflict as functional or dysfunctional, a manager must look at: a. the employees' ability to adapt to change and manage adversity. b. the issue, the context of the conflict, and the parties involved. c. the expenses that will be borne by the company to solve the conflict. d. the views of the top-level decision takers.

23. Aaron is studying in elementary school. He falls sick, and Martin, Aaron's father is immediately called to take Aaron home. Martin has an important meeting to attend at work and there is no one else available to take Aaron home. This is an example of _____. a. interrole conflict b. intrarole conflict c. person–role conflict d. interpersonal conflict 24. Actions that are effective in managing intrapersonal conflict include: a. role analysis and identifying values of an organization. b. identification of the power networks in an organization. c. field analysis and personality inventory analysis.

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Chap 13_ORGB6 d. identification of functional and dysfunctional conflict.

25. Which of the following statements is true of negotiation? a. It is a way of opening dialogue between groups that have difficulty communicating. b. It helps groups realize their similarities rather than their differences. c. It involves an open discussion of problem solutions. d. It is delaying action on a conflict by buying time.

26. Which of the following statements is true of defining moments? a. They help people crystallize their values and serve as opportunities for personal growth. b. They reduce the potential for conflict within a role or between roles. c. They create healthy, constructive disagreements between two or more people. d. They can arise from many individual differences, including personalities and perceptions.

27. _____ is the ability to see life from another person's perspective. a. Attribution b. Empathy c. Displacement d. Rationalization 28. As organizations move toward the team approach and empowerment, there should be less potential for conflict from _____. a. cultural differences b. goal differences c. authority relationships d. status inconsistencies 29. Which of the following is a structural factor of conflict in an organization? a. Skills and abilities b. Personalities c. Interdependence d. Perception 30. In the context of changing structure of an organization, a(n) _____ is a liaison between groups with very different interests. a. integrator b. role incumbent c. team sender d. investigator 31. Which of the following is a positive consequence of conflict in an organization? a. It provides a healthy distraction from work. b. It is emotional or behavioral in origin. c. It breaks down group cohesion. d. It leads to the generation of new ideas.

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Chap 13_ORGB6 32. _____ is an approach in which the parties' goals are not seen as mutually exclusive, but the focus is on both sides achieving their objectives. a. Distributive bargaining b. Accommodating c. Integrative negotiation d. Compromising 33. One of the causes of conflict related to an organization's structure is _____. a. personalities b. perceptions c. cultural differences d. common resources 34. Which of the following structural conflicts occurs when individuals do not have knowledge of another department's objectives? a. Interdependence b. Goal differences c. Status inconsistency d. Jurisdictional ambiguity 35. In which of the following situations should the avoiding style of conflict management be used? a. When an issue is trivial or more important issues are pressing b. When quick, decisive action is vital c. When the objective is to learn d. When opponents with equal power are committed to mutually exclusive goals 36. Managers should stimulate functional conflict when their group: a. is acting aggressively with peers. b. exceeds any potential gain from the conflict. c. relies on threats and verbal abuse to communicate. d. is suspected to be suffering from groupthink.

37. Which of the following is a difference between distributive bargaining and integrative negotiation? a. Distributive bargaining is a win–lose approach to negotiations, whereas integrative negotiation is a win–win approach to negotiations. b. Distributive bargaining is collaborative in nature, whereas integrative negotiation is competitive in nature. c. Distributive bargaining works as a conflict management tool, whereas integrative negotiation intensifies a conflict. d. Distributive bargaining requires all the parties to act as allies to one another, whereas integrative negotiation requires that every party views every other party as a competitor.

38. In the context of conflict management strategies, the _____ is founded on different assumptions: the potential for win– win outcomes, honest communication, trust, openness to risk and vulnerability, and the notion that the whole may be greater than the sum of the parts.

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Chap 13_ORGB6 a. competitive strategy b. cooperative strategy c. compensating strategy d. complaisant strategy 39. A key to recognizing a dysfunctional conflict is that: a. it arises from thinking of new ways to approach problems. b. it arises from someone challenging old policies. c. it is often cognitive in origin. d. it is often emotional or behavioral in origin.

40. _____ is a conflict evident for middle managers in which conflicting expectations are placed on the manager from bosses and employees. a. Negativism b. Functional conflict c. Role conflict d. Displacement 41. Using a _____ made up of members from different departments improves coordination and reduces delays by allowing many activities to be performed at the same time rather than sequentially. a. functional team b. cross-functional team c. resource oriented team d. self-directed team 42. Which of the following is a negative consequence of conflict in an organization? a. It breaks down group cohesion. b. It translates into increased productivity. c. It is cognitive in origin. d. It motivates change.

43. In the context of ineffective techniques for dealing with conflict, _____ is delaying action on a conflict by buying time, usually by telling the individuals involved that the problem is being worked on. a. administrative orbiting b. jurisdictional ambiguity c. due process nonaction d. character assassination 44. Uma's department head asks her to socialize less with nonmanagement employees. Uma is also told by her project manager that she can be a better team member by socializing more with other nonmanagement team members. This is an example of _____. a. interrole conflict b. intrarole conflict c. person–role conflict d. interpersonal conflict Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_ORGB6 45. NateCare is a public hospital in the city of Greycliff. The hospital has only one specialist for neurology, one for cardiology, and another for orthopedics. The structural cause for conflict among these specialists will be _____. a. authority relationships b. status inconsistencies c. interdependence d. emotions 46. Which of the following statements is true of functional conflict? a. It can often lead to aggressive acts specifically directed at peers. b. It is emotional and behavioral in origin. c. It helps individuals develop a better awareness of themselves. d. It takes the focus away from the work to be done.

47. Personal factors of conflict in an organization arise from: a. the nature of organizations. b. differences among individuals. c. dependence on other people to get work done. d. a traditional boss–employee relationship.

48. For integrative negotiation to be successful, parties should: a. change the structure of an organization. b. have a common goal. c. determine whether a conflict will have a positive outcome. d. achieve superordinate goals.

49. An organizational goal that is more important to both parties in a conflict than their individual or group goals is a(n) _____. a. superordinate goal b. strategic goal c. intermediate goal d. operational goal 50. In the context of confronting and negotiating, sometimes _____ causes negotiators to focus so much on their differences that they ignore their common ground. a. distributive bargaining b. nonaction c. integrative negotiation d. secrecy 51. Emotional intelligence is: a. an aggressive mechanism in which an individual directs his or her anger toward someone who is not the source of the conflict. b. a compromise mechanism whereby an individual patterns her behavior after another's. c. the emotion of love, cooperation and the common good.

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Chap 13_ORGB6 d. the power to control one's emotions and perceive emotions in others.

52. In the context of managing intrapersonal conflicts, political skills can: a. help people crystallize their values and serve as opportunities for personal growth. b. help understand power networks in organizations. c. help resolve conflicts by enabling an individual to direct anger toward someone who is not the source of the conflict. d. help buffer the negative effects of stress that stem from role conflicts.

53. In the context of power networks, which of the following is true of an equal versus equal relationship? a. Conflict in this network can lead to job dissatisfaction. b. Conflict in this network can lead to low organizational commitment. c. Conflict in this network can lead to low turnover. d. Conflict in this network can lead to depression.

54. The key to conflict management is: a. to prevent or resolve dysfunctional conflict. b. to discourage functional conflict. c. to enhance creativity in an organization. d. to improve work relationship between two parties.

55. A defense mechanism in which a person responds with pessimism to any attempt at solving a problem is known as _____. a. negativism b. rationalization c. displacement d. withdrawal 56. One way of classifying styles of conflict management is to examine the styles': a. cooperativeness and assertiveness. b. resources and negotiation approaches. c. degree of competition. d. credibility and integrity.

57. A win–win style that is high on both assertiveness and cooperativeness is known as _____. a. competing b. accommodating c. compromising d. collaborating 58. Shayla is a dissatisfied customer who feels she has been cheated by Martin, a salesman. She confronts him angrily and demands a refund. This scenario is an example of a(n) _____. a. person-role conflict b. interpersonal conflict c. work-role conflict Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_ORGB6 d. interrole conflict 59. Which of the following best defines due process nonaction? a. It is the delaying of action on a conflict by buying time, usually by telling the individuals involved that the problem is being worked on or that the boss is still thinking about the issue. b. It is an attempt to label or discredit an opponent. c. It is a procedure set up to address conflicts that is so costly, time-consuming, or personally risky that no one will use it. d. It is an attempt to hide a conflict or an issue that has the potential to create conflict.

60. Explain functional and dysfunctional conflict.

61. What are the different power networks as described by W.F.G. Mastenbroek?

62. Briefly explain the types of intrapersonal conflict.

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Chap 13_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. b 11. d 12. d 13. c 14. d 15. b 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. b 21. a 22. b 23. a 24. a 25. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_ORGB6 26. a 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. a 31. d 32. c 33. d 34. b 35. a 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. d 40. c 41. b 42. a 43. a 44. b 45. d 46. c 47. b 48. b 49. a 50. a 51. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_ORGB6 52. d 53. d 54. a 55. a 56. a 57. d 58. b 59. c 60. Answers will vary.

Functional conflict is a healthy, constructive disagreement between two or more people. New ideas, learning, and growth among individuals can result from functional conflict. Such conflict is constructive conflict; individuals can develop a better awareness of themselves and others through it. In addition, functional conflict can improve working relationships because when two parties work through disagreements, they feel they have accomplished something together. By releasing tensions and solving problems in working together this way, they experience improved morale. Functional conflict can lead to innovation and positive change for an organization. Because it tends to encourage creativity among individuals, this positive form of conflict often translates into increased productivity. A key to recognizing functional conflict is that it is often cognitive in origin; that is, it arises from someone challenging old policies or thinking of new ways to approach problems.

Dysfunctional conflict is an unhealthy, destructive disagreement between two or more people. Its danger is that it takes the focus away from the work to be done and places it on the conflict itself and the parties involved. Excessive conflict drains energy that could be used more productively. A key to recognizing a dysfunctional conflict is that its origin is often emotional or behavioral. For example, disagreements that involve personalized anger and resentment directed at specific individuals rather than specific ideas are dysfunctional. Individuals involved in dysfunctional conflict tend to act before thinking, and they often rely on threats, deception, and verbal abuse to communicate. Moreover, dysfunctional conflict can often lead to aggressive acts or retaliation directed at supervisors, peers, subordinates, or even service providers. Please see the section "The Nature of Conflicts in Organizations" for more information.

61. Answers will vary.

According to W.F.G. Mastenbroek, individuals in organizations are organized into three basic types of power networks.

The first relationship is equal versus equal, in which there is a horizontal balance of power among the parties. The behavioral tendency is toward suboptimization; that is, the focus is on a win–lose approach to problems, and each party tries to maximize its power at the expense of the other party. The second power network is high versus low, or a powerful party versus a less powerful party. Conflicts that emerge here take the basic form of the powerful individuals trying to control others, with the less powerful people trying to become more autonomous. The third power network is high versus middle versus low. This power network illustrates the classic conflicts, role conflict and role ambiguity, felt by middle managers. Please see the section "Individual Conflict in Organizations" for more information.

62. Answers will vary.

There are several types of intrapersonal conflict, including interrole, intrarole, and person–role conflicts. Interrole conflict occurs when a person experiences conflict among the multiple roles in his or her life. One interrole conflict that many employees experience is work−home conflict, in which their role as worker clashes with their role as spouse or parent.

Intrarole conflict is conflict within a single role. It often arises when a person receives conflicting messages from role Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_ORGB6 senders about how to perform a certain role. Person–role conflict occurs when an individual in a particular role is expected to perform behaviors that clash with his personal values. Please see the section "Individual Conflict in Organizations" for more information.

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Chap 14_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. While the design of work is important, the human spirit's response to job characteristics and work design features is equally important. a. True b. False 2. Scientific management emphasizes job enrichment. a. True b. False 3. The Scandinavian approach to work design discourages worker control. a. True b. False 4. Task significance in the Job Characteristics Model is the degree to which one's job requires completion of a whole task. a. True b. False 5. Herzberg believed that only certain jobs should be enriched and that the first step is to select the jobs appropriate for job enrichment. a. True b. False 6. Job rotation involves increasing the number of activities in a job. a. True b. False 7. The technocentric approach to work design places human considerations at the center of job design decisions. a. True b. False 8. The social information-processing model emphasizes objective core job characteristics. a. True b. False 9. The meaning of work is the way a person interprets and understands the value of work as part of life. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

10. Which of the following statements is true of the social information-processing model of job design? a. It emphasizes the social context of work. b. It is based on the job characteristics theory. c. It is an ergonomics-based model of job design.

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Chap 14_ORGB6 d. It says that what a person thinks of his or her own job is important.

11. The _____ was developed to diagnose jobs by measuring five core job characteristics and three critical psychological states in the Job Characteristics Model. a. Job Diagnostic Survey b. Motivating Potential Survey c. Career Growth Survey d. Organizational Position Survey 12. According to the Job Characteristics Model, _____ is the degree to which a job provides an employee with substantial freedom, independence, and discretion in scheduling work. a. feedback b. task identity c. task significance d. autonomy 13. In comparison with other approaches to job design, which of the following is most likely a negative outcome of the motivational approach? a. Lower motivation b. Lower job involvement c. Increased training time d. Higher absenteeism 14. The process of connecting jobs and departments into a coordinated, cohesive whole is known as: a. differentiation. b. job enlargement. c. job rotation. d. integration.

15. According to Frederick Taylor, the role of a worker in an organization is to: a. carefully calibrate each task of the organization. b. constantly challenge the decisions made by the top management. c. think or deliberate what needs to be done. d. execute tasks defined by the management.

16. A problem with job enrichment as a strategy for work design is that it: a. overemphasizes individual differences. b. is inapplicable to higher levels of management. c. quickly results in boredom. d. is based on an oversimplified motivational theory.

17. Which of the following statements is true of sociotechnical systems (STS)? a. STS emphasizes teamwork and self-managed and autonomous work groups. b. STS is completely different from lean production methods. c. STS discourages social considerations in job design.

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Chap 14_ORGB6 d. STS is based on Taylor's scientific management approach to job design.

18. Flextime, an alternative work pattern, _____. a. allows employees to work at locations other than their company's main location b. is a technocentric approach to work design c. provides employees with a three-day weekend d. is designed to ease traffic and commuting pressures 19. Which of the following is a feature of the German approach to work? a. Emphasis is laid on a worker's personal identity. b. Hierarchy and authority relationships are valued. c. Management–labor cooperation is considered unimportant. d. Unionism among workers is discouraged.

20. The _____ of job design emphasizes the interpersonal aspects of work design. a. Job Characteristics Inventory b. Job Characteristics Model c. social information-processing model d. scientific management model 21. According to the six patterns people follow in defining work, Pattern A people define work as an activity: a. in which value comes from performance and for which a person is accountable. b. that is physically and mentally strenuous. c. a person must do that is directed by others and generally performed in a working place. d. constrained to specific time periods that does not bring positive affect through its performance.

22. According to the six patterns people follow in defining work, _____ people define work as primarily a physical activity a person must do that is directed by others and generally performed in a working place. a. Pattern F b. Pattern E c. Pattern A d. Pattern D 23. Mass production jobs: a. tend to be nonrepetitive. b. require surface mental attention. c. are self-paced. d. require highly skilled workers.

24. Job enrichment increases the amount of job responsibility through: a. horizontal loading. b. neutral loading. c. vertical loading. d. aligned loading.

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Chap 14_ORGB6 25. Contrary to the famous statement made by Harold Geneen, former chairman of ITT: "If I had enough arms and legs and time, I'd do it all myself," all organizations must divide work. This statement reflects the understanding that jobs result from: a. job enlargement. b. differentiation. c. multitasking. d. cross-training.

26. Which of the following statements is true of job rotation? a. It is a variation of work simplification. b. It results in overspecialization. c. It requires strong multitasking skills. d. It horizontally enlarges jobs.

27. Which of the following is a person–job fit model rather than a universal job design model? a. Job Enrichment Model b. Job Characteristics Model c. Social information-processing model d. Scientific management model 28. The social information-processing model of job design has four basic premises about the work environment. One such premise is that: a. other people provide cues we use to understand the work environment. b. self-evaluation is the only way to judge what is important in our jobs. c. objective job characteristics are unimportant and do not affect organizational workers' motivation. d. other people's feedback, both positive and negative, should be ignored.

29. _____ is when employees work at home or in other locations geographically separate from their company's main location. a. Telecommuting b. Job enlargement c. Flextime d. Job sharing 30. _____ is defined as designing or redesigning a job by incorporating motivational factors into it. a. Job enrichment b. Work simplification c. Job rotation d. Cross-training 31. Jenny is hired as an assistant at a local drug store. On Mondays and Wednesdays, she is in charge of managing the store's stock. On other days of the week, she is asked to handle the cash register and attend to customers. This is an example of _____. a. job enrichment b. job rotation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_ORGB6 c. work simplification d. scientific management 32. In comparison with other approaches to job design, which of the following is most likely a positive outcome of the motivational approach? a. Lesser chance of mental stress b. Higher personnel utilization levels c. Decreased training time d. Greater job involvement 33. Katie has just been promoted to the position of senior engineer at Timolin Industries. Knowing that the company needs to be up to date with the latest engineering methods to maximize profits, she decides to conduct training programs for the junior engineers. In this scenario, it is evident that Katie is implementing a(n) _____ to job design. a. lean production approach b. anthropocentric approach c. technocentric approach d. job rotation approach 34. The ergonomics-based motivational approach to job design is grounded in: a. experimental psychology. b. mechanical engineering. c. chemical biology. d. industrial psychology.

35. Which of the following is true of a job? a. It refers to a sequence of organizational positions over time. b. It is not the same as an organizational position. c. It is not related to work in any way. d. It refers to a specific mental or physical activity that has productive results.

36. _____, which can be defined as mental or physical activity that has productive results, is organized into jobs. a. Occupation b. Livelihood c. Career d. Work 37. _____ is an alternative work arrangement that is responsive to individual biorhythms. a. Work simplification b. Job enlargement c. Ergonomics d. Flextime 38. According to the Work Value Scales study, the two common basic work dimensions across cultures are: a. work content and job context. b. career aspiration and organizational path.

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Chap 14_ORGB6 c. job growth and work scope. d. living status and business value.

39. Which of the following is a variation of job enlargement? a. Job rotation b. Departmentalization c. Work simplification d. Scientific management 40. In the context of adjusting work design parameters, which of the following methods can be used to reduce uncertainty? a. Designing machines and tasks with optimal response times and/or ranges b. Having sufficient resources available to meet work demands c. Giving workers the opportunity to control several aspects of the work and the workplace d. Providing employees with timely and complete information needed for their work 41. The _____ to job design emphasizes a person's interaction with physical aspects of the work environment and is concerned with the amount of physical exertion required. a. biological approach b. scientific management approach c. job enlargement approach d. motivational approach 42. An analysis of medical claims was conducted at Broil Technologies. The analysis identified neck and lower back problems due to uncomfortable seating arrangements as the most common health ailment experienced by the software developers of the company. In this scenario, the interdisciplinary approach to job design most appropriate to solve these problems is the: a. scientific management approach. b. biological approach. c. job enlargement approach. d. motivational approach.

43. Job enlargement was developed to overcome: a. technostress resulting from job enrichment. b. the ambiguity associated with the Job Characteristics Model. c. the difficulty of coordinating work within an organization. d. employees' lack of motivation due to job rotation.

44. In comparison with other approaches to job design, which of the following is most likely a negative outcome of the mechanistic approach? a. Lower job satisfaction b. Greater chance of errors c. Greater chance of mental stress d. Higher financial costs due to changes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_ORGB6 45. Scientific management, an approach to work design, emphasizes: a. work simplification. b. job context. c. job enlargement. d. work ethics.

46. A major disadvantage of the _____ work pattern is that longer workdays may be a drawback for employees with many family or social activities on weekday evenings. a. four-day workweek b. task simplification c. job enlargement d. weekday job sharing 47. According to the Job Characteristics Model, _____ is the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. a. autonomy b. task significance c. feedback d. task identity 48. Telecommuting results in: a. reduced opportunities for workers with disabilities. b. decreased productivity. c. decreased ability to attract and retain talent. d. reduced absenteeism.

49. Which of the following statements is true of telecommuting? a. Telecommuting is neither a cure-all nor a universally feasible alternative. b. Managers who use telecommuting place a greater emphasis on the worker than the work. c. Telecommuting eliminates any chances of feeling a sense of social isolation. d. Teamwork is not possible through telecommuting.

50. Identify a true statement about job sharing. a. It is common among senior executives. b. It enables employees to set their own daily work schedules. c. It is a way of addressing demographic and labor pool concerns. d. It helps ease traffic and commuting pressures.

51. Which of the following statements is true of the Japanese approach to job design? a. It emphasizes the positive affect, personal identity, and social benefits of work. b. It is very similar to the approach to job design used in North America. c. It encourages collective and cooperative working arrangements. d. It is dependent on a high degree of worker control.

52. Employees may experience technostress when: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_ORGB6 a. flextime is implemented. b. electronic performance monitoring is used. c. they are not given enough credit for their work. d. they are forced into job sharing.

53. Identify and briefly describe a few recently developed alternative work patterns.

54. Distinguish between job enlargement and job enrichment with an example of each.

55. Discuss the scientific management approach to work design as advocated by Frederick Taylor.

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Chap 14_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. a 11. a 12. d 13. c 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. a 18. d 19. b 20. c 21. a 22. d 23. b 24. c 25. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_ORGB6 26. d 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. a 31. b 32. d 33. c 34. d 35. b 36. d 37. d 38. a 39. a 40. d 41. a 42. b 43. c 44. a 45. a 46. a 47. d 48. d 49. a 50. c 51. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_ORGB6 52. b 53. Answers will vary.

Job sharing is an alternative work pattern in which more than one person occupies a single job. It is found throughout a wide range of managerial and professional jobs as well as production and service jobs. It is, however, not common among senior executives.

The four-day workweek is a second type of alternative work schedule. This arrangement provides the benefit of more time for those who want to balance work and family life through weekend travel. However, the longer workdays may be a drawback for employees with many family or social activities on weekday evenings.

In flextime, a third alternative work pattern, employees set their own daily work schedules. This arrangement is designed to ease traffic and commuting pressures. It is also responsive to individual biorhythms, allowing early risers to go to work early and nighthawks to work late. Flextime has been applied in numerous ways in work organizations, but may be offered more often to high performers who assure their bosses that work quality and productivity will not suffer. Please see the section "Contemporary Issues in the Design of Work" for more information.

54. Answers will vary.

Job enlargement is a method of job design that increases the number of activities in a job to overcome the boredom of overspecialized work. It is a traditional approach to solving not only the problem of boredom but also the difficulty of coordinating work. For example, job enlargement for a lathe operator in a steel plant might include selecting the steel pieces to be turned and performing all of the maintenance work on the lathe in addition to running it.

Job enrichment is designing or redesigning a job by incorporating motivational factors into it. Whereas job enlargement increases the number of job activities through horizontal loading, job enrichment increases the amount of job responsibility through vertical loading. For example, enlarging the lathe operator's job means adding maintenance activities, and enriching the job means having the operator meet with customers who buy the products. Please see the section "Traditional Approaches to Job Design" for more information.

55. Answers will vary.

Scientific management, an approach to work design first advocated by Frederick Taylor, emphasizes work simplification.

Work simplification is the standardization and the narrow, explicit specification of task activities for workers. Jobs designed through scientific management have a limited number of tasks, and each task is scientifically designed so that the worker is not required to think or deliberate. According to Taylor, the role of management and the industrial engineer is to calibrate and define each task carefully. The role of the worker is to execute the task. Elements of scientific management, such as time and motion studies, differential piece-rate systems of pay, and the scientific selection of workers, all focus on the efficient use of labor to the economic benefit of the corporation. Please see the section "Traditional Approaches to Job Design" for more information.

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Chap 15_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Three key ingredients for the development of trust in virtual organizations are technology that can communicate emotion; a sharing of values, vision, and organizational identity; and a high standard of ethics. a. True b. False 2. Generally, the flatter an organization, the more vertical integration mechanisms are needed. a. True b. False 3. As an organization's size increases, its complexity decreases. a. True b. False 4. Formalization, specialization, and standardization all tend to be greater in larger organizations because they are necessary to control activities within the organization. a. True b. False 5. Horizontal differentiation is the difference in authority and responsibility in an organizational hierarchy. a. True b. False 6. Besides the obvious geographic differences associated with globalization, there may be deep cultural and value-system differences between the various countries that an organization operates in. a. True b. False 7. According to Mintzberg's organizational structures, the simple structure is a decentralized form of organization. a. True b. False 8. In weak or deficient organizations, a great deal of conflict is evident as some departments work against one another rather than for the strategies and goals of the organization as a whole. a. True b. False 9. The adhocracy emphasizes the support staff and mutual adjustment among people. a. True b. False 10. When a new organization or subunit is born, the structure is mechanistic and formal. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_ORGB6

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

11. _____ is the degree of differentiation between organizational subunits and is based on employees' specialized knowledge, education, or training. a. Horizontal differentiation b. Spatial differentiation c. Vertical differentiation d. Departmental differentiation 12. In the context of Mintzberg's organizational structures, which of the following is a difference between the simple structure and the machine bureaucracy? a. The simple structure is a centralized form of organization, whereas the machine bureaucracy is a moderately decentralized form of organization. b. The simple structure emphasizes a support staff differentiated from the line operations of the organization, whereas the machine bureaucracy emphasizes a small technical and support staff. c. The simple structure has limited horizontal decentralization of decision making, whereas the machine bureaucracy has a minimum of vertical differentiation of authority and minimal formalization. d. The simple structure achieves coordination through the standardization of work processes, whereas the machine bureaucracy achieves coordination through direct supervision by the upper echelon.

13. Identify a true statement about Woodward's classification schemes for technology. a. Mass technology is classified as the least complex. b. Beer making is an example of mass technology. c. Process technology is classified as the most complex. d. Unit technology is large-batch manufacturing technology.

14. In the context of Mintzberg's organizational structures, which of the following statements is true of the simple structure? a. It emphasizes strong centralization of decision making in the upper echelon. b. It has powerful technical and support staff. c. It has extensive vertical differentiation. d. It achieves coordination through the standardization of work processes.

15. The strongest method of horizontal integration is through: a. liaison roles. b. integrators. c. task forces. d. teams.

16. An organizational structure may be weak or deficient if it is out of alignment with its contextual variables, in which case: a. employees are suspicious of each other. b. managers' personal, cognitive biases affect their good judgment. c. decision making is delayed due to the hierarchy being overloaded. d. the chief executive fails to affect the structure of the organization.

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Chap 15_ORGB6 17. _____ makes spatial differentiation even more of a reality for organizations. a. Routineness b. Globalization c. Decentralization d. Downsizing 18. To meet the conflicting demands of efficiency and customization, organizations need to: a. strategically choose one or the other. b. adopt a tall organizational structure. c. minimize routineness. d. become dynamically stable.

19. _____ has the potential to give an organization political and legal advantages in a country because the organization will be identified as a local company. a. Spatial differentiation b. Departmental differentiation c. Horizontal differentiation d. Vertical differentiation 20. An organization that is high in formalization, centralization, specialization, standardization, and complexity and has a tall hierarchy of authority is said to be highly _____. a. flexible b. anthropocentric c. simplified d. bureaucratic 21. The paranoid, the depressive, the dramatic, the compulsive, and the schizoid are: a. matrix structure types. b. hybrid structure types. c. personality–organization constellations. d. employee–employer constellations.

22. The _____ is the appropriate measure of an organization's size when discussing the design of organizational structure. a. number of units produced b. total assets c. sales volume d. total number of employees 23. The demands placed on managers and on process capabilities in turn place demands on organizational: a. structures. b. domains. c. technologies. d. strategies.

24. Magical Cloves is a cake shop. It is co-owned by Sarah and Zeba, professional chefs, who create all the cake recipes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_ORGB6 themselves and directly supervise the staff at the store. No decisions can be made by the staff without prior approval from Sarah or Zeba. Given this information, it is evident that Magical Cloves is an example of a(n) _____. a. professional bureaucracy b. simple structure c. machine bureaucracy d. adhocracy 25. International businesses generally base their structures on certain factors. To achieve vertical differentiation, _____. a. a hierarchy of authority must be created that clarifies the responsibilities of both domestic and foreign managers b. foreign and domestic operations should be grouped in such a way that the company effectively serves the needs of all customers c. the global structure must allow decisions to be made in the most appropriate area of the organization d. controls must be in place that reflect the strategies and goals of the parent firm 26. As the level of formalization increases in an organization, the probability of _____ also increases. a. environmental uncertainty and risk b. strategic moves being incremental and precise c. the decision process being goal-oriented and rational d. the strategic process being constrained by the limitations of top managers 27. An organization chart shows: a. formal lines of authority and responsibility. b. the number of people working in the organization. c. the list of task activities for each job. d. the number of positions in each department.

28. The level of an organization's environment that includes stakeholders such as unions, customers, suppliers, competitors, government regulatory agencies, and trade associations is called the: a. task environment. b. operational environment. c. mechanistic environment. d. organic environment.

29. As the level of complexity increases in an organization, the probability of _____ also increases. a. recognizing environmental opportunities and threats b. adopting a flatter organizational structure c. the strategic decision process becoming more politicized d. the strategic process being constrained by the limitations of top managers 30. The strength of the machine bureaucracy is: a. its fast responsiveness to external changes. b. its fast responsiveness to individual employee ideas. c. efficiency of operation in stable, unchanging environments. d. ease of coordination achieved through direct supervision by the upper echelon.

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Chap 15_ORGB6 31. Reutiko Inc., a private detective agency, has experts from different fields. These experts work in small teams on different cases based on the requirements of the case. In the context of Mintzberg's organizational structures, Reutiko Inc. is an example of a(n) _____. a. simple structure b. professional bureaucracy c. machine bureaucracy d. adhocracy 32. As the level of centralization increases in an organization, the probability of _____ also increases. a. the upper echelon losing power b. the strategic decision process being initiated by lower-level managers c. adopting a flatter organizational structure d. the decision process being goal-oriented and rational 33. The _____ departments in many organizations are often more flexible than other departments in order to stimulate creativity. a. logistics b. finance c. research and development d. human resources 34. Which of the following statements is true of the divisionalized form of organizational structure? a. The middle level of management is the key part of the organization. b. Coordination is achieved through direct supervision by the upper echelon. c. It is designed to fuse interdisciplinary experts into smoothly functioning ad hoc project teams. d. It is a centralized form of organization that emphasizes a small technical and support staff.

35. In the context of Mintzberg's structural configurations for organizations, an automobile plant with routinized operating tasks is most likely to use a(n) _____. a. simple structure b. machine bureaucracy c. professional bureaucracy d. adhocracy 36. Which of the following is a planned strategy to reduce the size of an organization? a. Merger b. Fusion c. Decentralization d. Downsizing 37. In which of the following ways has the basic design dimensions been affected by advanced information-processing technologies? a. The hierarchy of authority has been heightened. b. More standardization is needed.

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Chap 15_ORGB6 c. The basis of centralization has been changed. d. More specialization is needed.

38. In the context of structural dimensions in organizations, _____ refers to the extent to which work activities are described and performed routinely in the same way. a. centralization b. standardization c. specialization d. formalization 39. A temporary set of organizations designed to come together swiftly to exploit an apparent market opportunity is called a: a. cellular organization. b. circle organization. c. virtual organization. d. network organization.

40. The three organizational parts of the _____ are those that create demand, produce product, and provide support. a. network organization b. virtual organization c. cellular organization d. circle organization 41. Which of the following is most likely a reason why decision making is of poor quality in a weak or deficient organizational structure? a. The hierarchy is overloaded. b. Too much information is funneled through one or two channels. c. The organization is not responding innovatively to a changing environment. d. Information linkages do not provide the correct information to the right person.

42. In the context of design dimensions, which of the following is most likely an important organizational variable for flexible structures? a. Complexity b. Humility c. Trust d. Control 43. The area an organization claims for itself with respect to how it fits into its relevant environments is known as its _____. a. life cycle b. liability c. task identity d. domain 44. One potential problem with _____ is that corporations can become pitted against sovereign nations when rules and Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_ORGB6 laws conflict across national borders. a. specialization b. globalization c. decentralization d. formalization 45. Which of the following statements is true of organizational strategies and goals? a. They are independent of an organization's structure. b. They do not influence organizational design. c. They provide legitimacy to an organization. d. They remove the scope for any environmental uncertainty.

46. The _____ of organizational structure is a loosely coupled, composite structural configuration composed of units, each of which may have its own structural configuration. a. professional bureaucracy b. machine bureaucracy c. divisionalized form d. simple structure 47. The geographic dispersion of an organization's offices, plants, and personnel is referred to as: a. vertical differentiation. b. horizontal differentiation. c. departmental differentiation. d. spatial differentiation.

48. The _____ of an organization is most easily defined as anything outside the boundaries of that organization. a. complexity b. technology c. environment d. configuration 49. The machine bureaucracy emphasizes: a. the support staff and mutual adjustment among people. b. the expertise of the professionals in the operating core of the organization. c. limited horizontal decentralization of decision making. d. strong centralization of decision making in the upper echelon.

50. According to Perrow's classification schemes for technology, problem analyzability examines the: a. types of search procedures followed to find ways to respond to task exceptions. b. degree of interrelatedness of an organization's various technological elements. c. number of exceptions encountered in doing the tasks within a job. d. total profits earned by an organization in a particular financial year.

51. In the context of horizontal differentiation, _____ refers to the particular grouping of activities performed by an individual.

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Chap 15_ORGB6 a. centralization b. standardization c. specialization d. formalization 52. The _____ of an organization includes economic factors, political considerations, ecological changes, sociocultural demands, and government regulation. a. internal environment b. corporate culture c. general environment d. upper echelon 53. Which of the following is a form of differentiation? a. Matrix differentiation b. Spatial differentiation c. Circular differentiation d. Lateral differentiation 54. Short organizational life cycles put more pressure on the organization to: a. be mechanistic in its design. b. avoid formalization. c. adopt a tall organizational structure. d. be both flexible and efficient.

55. Unlike managers today, managers of the future will most likely: a. have a narrow functional focus. b. get things done by giving employees orders. c. have broad cross-functional collaboration. d. strictly adhere to boss–employee relationships.

56. In the context of Woodward's classification schemes for technology, custom shoemaking involves: a. the use of unit technology. b. process production. c. the use of mass technology. d. large-batch production.

57. According to Mintzberg's organizational structures, the _____ is designed to fuse interdisciplinary experts into smoothly functioning temporary project teams. a. simple structure b. adhocracy c. divisionalized form d. bureaucracy 58. International businesses generally base their structures on certain factors. To achieve horizontal differentiation, _____. a. a hierarchy of authority must be created that clarifies the responsibilities of both domestic and foreign Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_ORGB6 managers b. the global structure must allow decisions to be made in the most appropriate area of the organization c. controls must be in place that reflect the strategies and goals of the parent firm d. foreign and domestic operations should be grouped in such a way that the company effectively serves the needs of all customers 59. According to Mintzberg's organizational structures, hospitals and universities are examples of a: a. simple structure. b. professional bureaucracy. c. divisionalized form. d. machine bureaucracy.

60. The _____ is a decentralized form of organization that emphasizes the expertise of the employees in the operating core of the organization. a. professional bureaucracy b. machine bureaucracy c. adhocracy d. simple structure 61. _____ is the design process of linking tasks together to form an organizational structure that supports goal accomplishment. a. Standardization b. Formalization c. Differentiation d. Integration 62. In the context of Mintzberg's organizational structures, the simple structure achieves coordination through _____. a. the standardization of the professionals' skills b. extensive empowerment of middle-level managers c. direct supervision by the upper echelon d. the standardization of work processes 63. In a _____ personality–organization constellation, people are suspicious of each other, hence distrust in working relationships may interfere with effective communication and task accomplishment. a. schizoid b. paranoid c. compulsive d. depressive 64. _____ is defined as the tools, techniques, and actions used by an organization to transform inputs into outputs. a. Technology b. Throughput c. Environment d. Complexity Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_ORGB6 65. _____ ensures that all essential organizational tasks are assigned to one or more jobs and that the tasks receive the attention they need. a. Integration b. Coordination c. Differentiation d. Charting 66. _____ help individuals understand their roles in an organization, especially in times of crisis. a. Vertical linkages b. Horizontal linkages c. Spatial linkages d. Departmental linkages

67. Describe how the personalities of an organization's managers may adversely affect the structure of the organization.

68. What are the variables Joan Woodward, Charles Perrow, and James Thompson considered in their approaches to understand traditional organizational technologies?

69. For each of the five structural configurations described by Mintzberg, discuss an appropriate integrative mechanism.

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Chap 15_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. a 12. a 13. c 14. a 15. d 16. c 17. b 18. d 19. a 20. d 21. c 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_ORGB6 26. b 27. a 28. a 29. c 30. c 31. d 32. d 33. c 34. a 35. b 36. d 37. c 38. b 39. c 40. d 41. d 42. c 43. d 44. b 45. c 46. c 47. d 48. c 49. c 50. a 51. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_ORGB6 52. c 53. b 54. d 55. c 56. a 57. b 58. d 59. b 60. a 61. d 62. c 63. b 64. a 65. c 66. a 67. Answers will vary.

The personality of an organization's chief executive may adversely affect the structure of the organization. Managers' personal, cognitive biases and political ideologies may affect their good judgment and decision making. Five dysfunctional combinations of personality and organization have been identified: the paranoid, the depressive, the dramatic, the compulsive, and the schizoid. Each of these personality–organization constellations can create problems for the people who work in the organization. For example, in a paranoid constellation, people are suspicious of each other, hence distrust in working relationships may interfere with effective communication and task accomplishment. Please see the section "Factors That Can Adversely Affect Structure" for more information.

68. Answers will vary.

Joan Woodward used a technical complexity scale to classify organizational technology into unit, mass, or process technology. Woodward classified unit technology as the least complex, mass technology as more complex, and process technology as the most complex. Charles Perrow proposed an alternative to Woodward's scheme based on two variables: task variability and problem analyzability. Task variability considers the number of exceptions encountered in doing the tasks within a job. Problem analyzability examines the types of search procedures followed to find ways to respond to task exceptions. James Thompson offered yet another view of technology and its relationship to organizational design. This view is based on the concept of technological interdependence, which is the degree of interrelatedness of the organization's various technological elements, and the pattern of an organization's work flows. Please see the section "Contextual Variables" for more information.

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Chap 15_ORGB6 69. Answers will vary.

The process of coordinating the different parts of an organization is known as integration. The simple structure achieves coordination through direct supervision, often by the chief executive in the upper echelon. The machine bureaucracy achieves coordination through the standardization of work processes. The professional bureaucracy is integrated through the standardization of the professionals' skills. The divisionalized form uses standardization of outputs as its coordinating mechanism. In the adhocracy, liaison devices are the primary mechanism for integrating ad hoc project teams through a process of mutual adjustment. Please see the section "Five Structural Configurations" for more information.

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Chap 16_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Values reflect a person's inherent beliefs of what should or should not be. a. True b. False 2. Norms that guide behavior are part of culture. a. True b. False 3. Assumptions are at the deepest and most fundamental level of an organization's culture. a. True b. False 4. Stories that aren't backed by reality can lead to cynicism and mistrust. a. True b. False 5. The fit perspective argues that a culture is good only if it matches the style of the leader of a team. a. True b. False 6. Enacted values are what the members of an organization say they value. a. True b. False 7. A retirement dinner is a good example of a rite of enhancement. a. True b. False 8. A nonadaptive culture is a culture that encourages confidence and risk taking among employees. a. True b. False 9. A company's espoused values are known as its enacted values. a. True b. False 10. Newcomers whose values match a company's values are more satisfied with their new jobs. a. True b. False 11. Symbols of organizational culture are called assumptions. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_ORGB6

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

12. Which of the following statements is true of organizational ceremonies and rites? a. They reflect the essence of organizational culture. b. They primarily involve the deeply held beliefs that guide behavior and tell members of an organization how to perceive situations and people. c. They provide opportunities to reward and recognize employees whose behavior is congruent with the values of a company. d. They are best described as everyday, repetitive, organizational practices.

13. Identify a true statement about strong cultures. a. Strong cultures typically lead a firm down the wrong path. b. Strong cultures are deeply held and widely shared. c. Strong cultures provide control with the oppressive effects of a bureaucracy. d. Strong cultures create a low level of motivation among employees.

14. The underlying dimensions of the Kilmann-Saxton Culture-Gap Survey are: a. task/people and job security/job satisfaction in an organization. b. behavior and task specifications. c. artifacts and assumptions. d. technical/human orientation and short-term versus long-term time.

15. Which of the following is a reason that leads to less ethical behavior among employees even after the institution of formal ethics codes? a. Employees see the code of ethics as simply a management showpiece. b. Employees believe that only top-level managers should portray ethical behavior. c. Employees are self-centered and do what they believe is right. d. Employees tend to work better when they do not have rules to follow.

16. The strong-culture perspective states that organizations with strong cultures: a. promote different individual goals for each employee. b. have low turnover. c. facilitate performance. d. tend to be bureaucratic.

17. Leaders should pay attention to the _____ more so than structural positions in leading organizational change. a. formal network channels b. informal social networks c. personal motivation factors of employees d. job profile of employees 18. When employees internalize the values of a company, they: a. tend to spend less hours at work. b. find their work intrinsically rewarding. c. identify themselves as individual workers rather than team players.

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Chap 16_ORGB6 d. get demotivated easily.

19. The key to understanding culture through artifacts lies in: a. analyzing how values are consciously articulated in conversations. b. identifying the unconscious assumptions of people. c. figuring out the meaning of the symbols. d. figuring out how values are communicated through culture.

20. Kimi, the president of a corporation, upholds the organization's belief in corporate philanthropy. During a corporate blood drive, she is the first employee to donate blood. This is an example of: a. a ritual. b. symbolism. c. a rite of integration. d. personal enactment.

21. An early fall semester picnic can be considered a: a. rite of integration. b. rite of renewal. c. rite of enhancement. d. rite of success.

22. _____ are the most visible and accessible level of culture. a. Values b. Artifacts c. Assumptions d. Socialization processes 23. Which of the following is a type of congruence between an individual and an organization at the anticipatory socialization step in the socialization process? a. Congruence between the individual's values and the authenticity of the job b. Congruence between the individual's adaptive nature and the changing external environment c. Congruence between the individual's abilities and the demands of the job d. Congruence between the individual's past experience and the salary offered for the new job 24. Which of the following is a perplexing question about the strong-culture perspective? a. What can happen when strong cultures provide control without the oppressive effects of a bureaucracy? b. What can hold true when motivation is not enhanced even if values are shared by the members of an organization? c. What can be said about evidence showing that strong economic performance can create strong cultures, rather than the reverse? d. What can result in goal alignment when all the employees of an organization share common goals?

25. Which of the following is a challenge to managers in their pursuit of positive, cohesive cultures? a. Recession b. Triangulation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_ORGB6 c. Ethics d. Role demand 26. Which of the following statements is true of stories? a. Stories are very specific and do not allow listeners to draw differing conclusions. b. Stories are typically part of rites of degradation. c. Stories help in orienting new employees. d. Stories are always based on myths.

27. In the context of the fit perspective, which of the following industry characteristics affects culture? a. The variable assets b. The number of managers c. The number of subordinates d. The competitive environment 28. Which of the following statements is true of artifacts? a. They are the least visible level of culture. b. They are the least accessible level of culture. c. They are the most frequently studied manifestation of organizational culture. d. They are unconscious assumptions that guide a firm's actions and decisions.

29. An adaptive organizational culture is one that: a. changes its environment to fit its organizational strategies. b. encourages confidence and risk taking among employees. c. believes a strong economic performance is the only factor that determines the culture of an organization. d. values an orderly management process more highly then leadership initiatives.

30. In terms of core values, which of the following is a difference between adaptive organizational cultures and nonadaptive organizational cultures? a. In adaptive organizational cultures, most managers care deeply about customers, while in nonadaptive organizational cultures, most managers care mainly about themselves. b. In adaptive organizational cultures, managers value the orderly and risk-reducing management process, while in nonadaptive organizational cultures, managers strongly value people and processes that can create useful change. c. In adaptive organizational cultures, managers are often corrupt, while in nonadaptive organizational cultures, managers are mostly honest. d. In adaptive organizational cultures, managers are reluctant to change their strategies to adjust to changes, while in nonadaptive organizational cultures, managers initiate change when needed.

31. To be effective cultural tools, stories must: a. be credible. b. have a single interpretation. c. be based on myths. d. be cynical.

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Chap 16_ORGB6 32. Grievance hearings and the negotiation of union contracts are examples of: a. rites of renewal. b. rites of enhancement. c. rites of integration. d. rites of conflict reduction.

33. _____ serves to unleash employees' creativity and productivity. a. Triangulation b. Acquisition c. Socialization d. Empowerment 34. The focus of the Organizational Culture Inventory is on: a. artifacts. b. behaviors. c. values. d. assumptions.

35. Stories give meaning and identity to organizations as they: a. are retold. b. are based on myths. c. do not transcend political boundaries. d. do not transcend cultural boundaries.

36. Which of the following is an example of perception-shaping mechanisms? a. Profits b. Strategies c. Fixed costs d. Policies 37. Managers can encourage ethical behavior in an organization by: a. controlling instances of whistle-blowing. b. listening to rationalizations for unethical behavior. c. promoting the philosophy that ethical behavior makes good business sense. d. promoting the belief that the impact of implementing a code of ethics is always positive.

38. In the context of the Kilmann-Saxton Culture-Gap Survey, which of the following areas is an example of long-term human orientation norms? a. Personal freedom b. Task innovation c. Social relationships d. Task support 39. _____ is the degree to which a newcomer to an organization holds realistic expectations about the job and organization.

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Chap 16_ORGB6 a. Competence b. Realism c. Mutuality d. Congruence 40. _____ involve the expectations placed on newcomers in an organization. a. Role demands b. Rituals c. Rites of passage d. Task analyses 41. In the context of developing an ethical organizational culture, which of the following statements is true? a. Managers who preach ethical behavior witness more instances of whistle-blowing and consequently increasing incidents of unethical behavior. b. Managers who tolerate unethical behavior make good role models for employees. c. Managers can encourage ethical behavior by communicating that rationalizations for unethical behavior are not tolerated. d. Impact of implementing a code of ethics is always positive.

42. Which of the following statements is true of triangulation? a. It is used by behavioral scientists to study organizational culture. b. It is used solely in the quantitative research method. c. It involves the exclusive use of obtrusive observations by eight trained observers for an outsider perspective. d. It involves the exclusive use of self-administered questionnaires to provide quantitative insider information.

43. Which of the following steps would enable organizations to develop an effective global organizational culture? a. Management should award employees who support the global view. b. Management should ensure that their global strategies are flexible enough to be emulated by their competitors. c. Management should keep altering its attitude toward a global organizational culture. d. Management should only appreciate the employees who support the global view but not reward them.

44. In the context of changing organizational culture, which of the following is a step that a manager should take after he or she has examined the justifications for the changed behavior of the employees? a. The manager should send a consistent message about the new values and beliefs. b. The manager should hire and socialize members who fit in with the new culture. c. The manager should find out if the employees are buying into the new set of values. d. The manager should remove members who reject the new culture.

45. Which of the following statements is true of crisis management? a. All leaders quickly institute major layoffs at the first signal of an economic crisis. b. Leaders' reactions toward a crisis do not reflect organizational culture. c. Leaders have different ways of dealing with a crisis. d. Organizations with an adaptive perspective avoid laying off workers at all costs.

46. The use of multiple methods to measure organizational change is known as: Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_ORGB6 a. convergence. b. the multitrait-multimethod matrix. c. triangulation. d. the two-layered study.

47. Individuals may change their behavior but not the: a. values that drive it. b. focus of their behavior. c. comfort zone that they are used to. d. norms associated with it.

48. The fit perspective argues that: a. a culture is good only if it fits an industry or a firm's strategy. b. a culture is appropriate when it fits market characteristics. c. an organization adapts its strategy to fit its culture. d. a lean or flat organization is the best fit in the current market.

49. _____ begins with the careful selection of newcomers who are likely to reinforce a firm's organizational culture. a. Cultural socialization b. Culture reinforcement c. Cultural adaptation d. Culture assessment 50. Qualitative methods, such as interviews and observations, are valuable because of their _____. a. objectivity b. uniqueness c. precision d. comparability 51. Leaders can use _____ to help employees understand the changing nature of their organizational identity. a. rites of conflict reduction b. organizational assumptions c. enacted values d. organizational symbols 52. _____ are characterized by cautious management that tries to protect its own interests. a. Linear organizations b. Adaptive cultures c. Matrix organizations d. Nonadaptive cultures 53. Cultural change effort in an organization can be deemed successful if: a. employees who do not conform to the new values are removed. b. the change in the behavior of employees persists only in the presence of rewards.

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Chap 16_ORGB6 c. newcomers are not required to go through the anticipatory socialization process. d. employees automatically respond to a crisis in ways consistent with the corporate culture.

54. _____ are examples of the qualitative method of assessing organizational culture. a. Observations b. Statistical surveys c. Graphical analyses d. Questionnaires 55. A heavy reliance on a strict set of rules may: a. reduce the perceived need for employees to be involved in ethical decision making. b. lead to strong and superior choices in the long run. c. lead to increase in instances of whistle-blowing. d. institute the philosophy that ethical behavior makes good business sense.

56. Which of the following statements is true of stories about how a company deals with crisis situations? a. These stories may reflect whether the boss in the company is "human" or how he or she reacts to mistakes. b. These stories relate to the company's attitude toward employees who have to move to another company. c. These stories describe a person who started out at the bottom and eventually became the CEO of the company. d. These stories show how the company overcomes obstacles.

57. Companies that value _____ and continuous improvement have cultures that promote high product and service quality. a. triangulation b. empowerment c. acquisition d. socialization 58. In Kotter and Heskett's study, compared to nonadaptive firms, adaptive firms: a. showed greater success in changing the business environment to align with their firm's strategies. b. were less likely to encourage risk taking among employees. c. showed significantly better long-term economic performance. d. were more keen on protecting their own interests.

59. In which of the following stages of socialization do newcomers begin to master the demands of a job? a. Encounter b. Change and acquisition c. Anticipatory socialization d. Realistic socialization 60. Corporate leaders can greatly influence and shape organizational culture by: a. delegating crisis management authority and instituting layoffs during crises. b. rewarding behavior that is consistent with the values of the organization. c. discouraging employees from undertaking risks.

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Chap 16_ORGB6 d. employing a nonadaptive approach.

61. The dean of a university awards scholarships to the honor students of the university at a banquet every year. This is an example of: a. personal enactment. b. a ritual. c. anticipatory socialization. d. a ceremony.

62. In the context of the current business environment, managers must focus on: a. a nonadaptive culture. b. a bureaucratic approach. c. maintaining rigidity in the work environment. d. reinforcement of ethical behavior.

63. Which of the following is involved in the last step of the process of changing the organizational culture of a firm? a. It involves changing the external behavior of existing employees within the organization. b. It involves the use of multiple methods to measure organizational culture. c. It involves assessing whether current members in the organization buy into a new set of values. d. It involves shaping the workforce to fit the intended culture of the organization.

64. Identify a true statement about organizational culture. a. It is overwhelming and has an adverse effect on the productivity of an employee. b. It can lead to dysfunctional conflict in an organization. c. It serves as a safety valve to indicate problems in an organization. d. It provides a sense of identity to members of an organization.

65. Even when behavior in an organization changes, the change is not sufficient for cultural change to occur because: a. individuals may change their behavior but not the values that drive it. b. behavior is an assumption of culture and it keeps fluctuating. c. human behavior is extrinsically motivated. d. change in organizational behavior always results in chaos.

66. Changing an organization's culture is difficult because: a. attitudes cannot be changed. b. culture is deeply ingrained. c. norms are determined by the top management. d. individuals cannot change their behavior.

67. Which of the following reinforces the values of empowerment and quality in the organizational culture? a. Discouraging delegation of decision-making powers among employees b. Promoting a global view c. Discouraging instances of whistle-blowing d. Communicating the value of product quality to the employees Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_ORGB6 68. According to Edgar Schein, the three levels of organizational culture are: a. behavior, rights, and beliefs. b. artifacts, values, and assumptions. c. adaptations, consequences, and faith. d. demands, communications, and informal groups.

69. Briefly discuss the three perspectives or theories about the relationship between organizational culture and performance.

70. Briefly explain anticipatory socialization and how an organization can facilitate one's entry into the organization.

71. Provide an organizational example of each of the following artifacts: ceremony and story.

72. List a few ways how leaders deal with crises.

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Chap 16_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. a 16. c 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. d 21. a 22. b 23. c 24. c 25. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_ORGB6 26. c 27. d 28. c 29. b 30. a 31. a 32. d 33. d 34. b 35. a 36. d 37. c 38. a 39. b 40. a 41. c 42. a 43. a 44. a 45. c 46. c 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. b 51. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_ORGB6 52. d 53. d 54. a 55. a 56. d 57. b 58. c 59. b 60. b 61. d 62. d 63. d 64. d 65. a 66. b 67. d 68. b 69. Answers will vary. The strong-culture perspective states that organizations with strong cultures perform better than other organizations. This type of culture is also highly resistant to change. The strong-culture hypothesis is based on three arguments. First, strong cultures are characterized by goal alignment. Second, strong cultures create a high level of motivation because of the values shared by the members. Third, strong cultures provide control without the oppressive effects of a bureaucracy.

The fit perspective argues that a culture is good only if it fits the industry or the firm's strategy. For example, a culture that values a traditional hierarchical structure and stability would not work well in the computer manufacturing industry, which demands fast response and a lean, flat organization.

The third theory about culture and performance is the adaptation perspective. Its theme is that only cultures that help organizations adapt to environmental change are associated with excellent performance. An adaptive culture is a culture that encourages confidence and risk taking among employees, has leadership that produces change, and focuses on the changing needs of customers. Please see the section "The Relationship of Culture to Performance" for more information.

70. Answers will vary. The first stage of the socialization process, anticipatory socialization, encompasses all of the learning that takes place prior to the newcomer's first day on the job, including the newcomer's expectations. The two key concerns at this stage are realism and congruence. Please see the section "Organizational Socialization" for more Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 16_ORGB6 information.

71. Answers will vary. Ceremony: A firm may issue longevity awards (cash or some gift) every five years during one's tenure with an organization in a formal event.

Story: A corporate story about a company's founder's first sale to someone in a parking lot becomes corporate folklore and functions to acculturate new employees. Please see the section "Levels of Organizational Culture" for more information.

72. Answers will vary. The way leaders deal with crises communicates a powerful message about culture. Emotions are heightened during a crisis, and learning is intense. Difficult economic times present crises for many companies and illustrate their different values. Some organizations avoid laying off workers at all costs. Others, despite their claim that employees are important, quickly institute major layoffs at the first signal of an economic downturn. Please see the section "The Leader's Role in Shaping and Reinforcing Culture" for more information.

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Chap 17_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Employers want employees who have demonstrated competence in dealing with change. a. True b. False 2. An intentional and purposeful commitment to taking charge of one's professional life will be necessary in managing the new career that has replaced the old career. a. True b. False 3. A career lattice is an approach that builds competencies by moving individuals vertically through different levels of an organization. a. True b. False 4. Psychological contracts are commonly written as provisions of personal employment agreements. a. True b. False 5. Project allegiance means that individuals are more committed than organizations to the successful completion of a project. a. True b. False 6. Occupational excellence means continually honing skills that can be marketed across organizations. a. True b. False 7. The transition from school to work is a part of the advancement stage. a. True b. False 8. Employees are required to negotiate effective psychological contracts during the establishment stage. a. True b. False 9. The career paths of many women have moved from starting their own businesses to working in large organizations. a. True b. False 10. Offering flexible work schedules is a method that can help individuals deal with work–home conflict. a. True b. False 11. Older workers have higher rates of tardiness and absenteeism, are less safety conscious, and are less satisfied with Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_ORGB6 their jobs than are younger workers. a. True b. False 12. With their level of experience, older workers can serve as mentors to other employees in an organization. a. True b. False 13. The old career is giving way to a new career characterized by discrete exchange, occupational excellence, organizational empowerment, and project allegiance. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

14. According to Carolyn Smith Paschal, in which of the following stages should companies give employees sabbaticals instead of bonuses? a. The maintenance stage b. The advancement stage c. The withdrawal stage d. The establishment stage 15. In the context of realistic job preview, when candidates are given both positive and negative information, they: a. make more effective job choices. b. have low job satisfaction. c. have unrealistic expectations. d. are more likely to turn down a job offer.

16. _____ involves knowing what to expect, both good and bad, which gives a newcomer in a company a sense of control that is important to job satisfaction and performance. a. Open mindedness b. Job stabilization c. Uncertainty reduction d. Satisficing 17. When psychological contracts are broken or breached, employees experience negative emotional reactions that can lead to: a. increased whistle-blowing instances. b. lower turnover intentions. c. loss of trust. d. increased job sackings.

18. James Dyson, the CEO of Dyson Inc., believes strongly in mentoring newcomers. He has made it his priority to mentor future generations of engineers. The Dyson Foundation where Dyson mentors engineering graduates and Jeremy Fry Memorial Scholarship are two examples of Dyson's involvement in the field of mentoring. In the context of the career stage model, Dyson is in the _____.

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Chap 17_ORGB6 a. withdrawal stage b. maintenance stage c. establishment stage d. competitive stage 19. Which of the following is an autonomous career? a. Professor b. Accountant c. Bank manager d. Store owner 20. The top-down firm meant: a. technical or functional development is overlooked in favor of firm specific learning. b. being loyal to one's work group can be more important than the project allocated to the group. c. competitiveness and added value are the responsibility of corporate experts. d. business units are free to cultivate their own markets.

21. Which of the following is the first stage in a career stage model? a. The advancement stage b. The maintenance stage c. The establishment stage d. The withdrawal stage 22. Which of the following types of support does the aspect of psychological contracting concerned with empathy, caring, and esteem provide for a newcomer in an organization? a. Informational support b. Emotional support c. Modeling support d. Evaluative support 23. In the _____, a mentoring relationship becomes more meaningful than the previous stages, and the protégé shows rapid progress because of the career support and psychosocial support provided by the mentor. a. initiation phase b. separation phase c. redefinition phase d. cultivation phase 24. Corporate allegiance meant: a. promoting shared employer and employee commitment to the goal of a project. b. distributing financial and reputational rewards based on project outcomes. c. being loyal to one's work group can be more important than the project allocated to the group. d. constant rearrangement of reporting relationships based on project requirements.

25. Which of the following is a conflict that might occur during an employee's entry into an organization? a. The conflict between an organization's effort to attract candidates and an individual's choice of an organization Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_ORGB6 b. The conflict between an organization's efforts to retain employees and employees' demand for pay hikes c. The conflict within an organization to decide whether to hire new employees during recessions d. The conflict within an organization to retain the old employees by paying a bonus and to hire new employees with an attractive package 26. According to Levinson, during the _____, an individual begins to separate from his or her parents and becomes less emotionally and financially dependent on them. a. maintenance stage b. advancement stage c. establishment stage d. separation stage 27. Freedom is the key to the _____ career anchor. a. stability b. functional competence c. creativity d. autonomy 28. The advancement stage is a period when: a. individuals strive for job stability rather than upward mobility. b. newcomers in an organization no longer require a mentor. c. newcomers in an organization shy away from responsibility. d. many individuals strive for achievement.

29. Most people in the advancement stage of the career stage model: a. remain in the same job until the maintenance stage. b. experience a period of stagnancy in their career graph. c. seek greater responsibility and authority and strive for upward mobility. d. drop out of the workforce once or twice to go back to college to achieve an advanced degree.

30. In the context of mentoring, which of the following is the phase that comes after a successful separation phase? a. The cultivation phase b. The independence phase c. The redefinition phase d. The initiation phase 31. Almost 40 percent of new managers fail within the first 18 months on the job because of: a. a high emotional intelligence quotient. b. a stagnant work environment. c. a lack of interpersonal skills. d. an adaptive approach.

32. Following the age-fifty transition is a fairly stable period. During this time, _____. a. most people continue to grow in their careers b. individuals begin to plan seriously for withdrawing from their careers Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_ORGB6 c. employees begin to face work–home conflicts d. employees need a mentor 33. In the context of the establishment stage, working out the _____ with an organization begins with entry into a new job, but the contract is modified as an individual proceeds through the career. a. nondisclosure act b. psychological contract c. corporate allegiance d. union contract 34. An essential activity of the withdrawal career stage is: a. mentoring a newcomer. b. planning for change. c. identifying one's strengths. d. undergoing job training.

35. Sustaining performance and becoming a mentor are two issues individuals in an organization need to address during the: a. maintenance stage. b. advancement stage. c. withdrawal stage. d. establishment stage.

36. Which of the following statements is true of people with high emotional intelligence? a. They work efficiently with other team members. b. They tend to provide slow customer services. c. They depend on their peers to help them with skill development. d. They have slow promotion rates.

37. In the context of becoming one's own career coach, the best attitude toward change in the new work environment is: a. to adopt a nonadaptive approach when dealing with the change. b. to think of organizational change as the central focus of work and not a disruption. c. to ignore the emotional quotient while taking decisions during the change. d. to employ the one-employer focus and stay loyal to a particular company.

38. The people who will be most successful in the new career paradigm are individuals who: a. are rigid in their thinking. b. resist sudden change in the work environment. c. have high needs for control. d. are tolerant of ambiguity.

39. During the _____, one's own mortality becomes a major concern, and the loss of family members and friends becomes more frequent. a. adulthood transition b. late adulthood transition Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_ORGB6 c. elderly transition d. age-fifty transition 40. A mentor who tells a new employee about the informal political climate in an organization is providing _____ support. a. emotional b. modeling c. informational d. evaluative 41. Flextime, compressed workweeks, work-at-home arrangements, part-time hours, job sharing, and leave options: a. can be expensive but are mandatory in today's working environment. b. lead to greater turnover rates in organizations. c. are all considered alternative work arrangements necessary to manage work–home conflicts. d. are exclusively directed toward women employees.

42. Which of the following is the final stage in the career stage model? a. The advancement stage b. The maintenance stage c. The establishment stage d. The withdrawal stage 43. During the advancement stage, _____ involves providing advice in both career and job performance to protégés. a. sponsorship b. coaching c. counseling newcomers d. facilitating exposure and visibility 44. During _____, individuals can make a contribution by sharing their wealth of knowledge and experience with others. a. maintenance b. establishment c. advancement d. withdrawal 45. Daniel Goleman argues that _____ is a constellation of the qualities that mark a star performer at work. a. technical know-how b. emotional intelligence c. problem analyzability skill d. intelligence quotient 46. Executives succumb to the temptation of fraud because: a. they feel pressure to keep up with changes in cultural norms. b. of the lack of responsibility in the workplace. c. of the lack of training. d. they feel the top management places low levels of expectations on them.

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Chap 17_ORGB6 47. To prevent conflicts during the organizational choice and entry process, an individual should: a. choose the highest paying organization. b. conduct a careful self-analysis. c. reveal minimal personal details in a job interview. d. request for a friendly interviewer.

48. One of the important attributes that a person should possess if he or she wants to climb the corporate ladder in the present age is _____. a. nonadaptive skill b. emotional intelligence c. the one-employer focus d. corporate allegiance 49. During the maintenance stage, an: a. employee's primary concern is related to maintaining a work-life balance. b. employee is often mentored by a senior colleague. c. employee transitions to nonsupervisory positions. d. employee's probability of moving up the hierarchy is low.

50. Which of the following factors differentiates corporate allegiance from project allegiance? a. In the case of corporate allegiance, keeping a group together is often a more important goal than project completion. b. In the case of corporate allegiance, dividing tasks equally among employees is more important than task completion. c. In the case of corporate allegiance, maintaining project deadlines is often more important than quality of work. d. In the case of corporate allegiance, earning huge profits is more important than quality of service provided.

51. According to John Holland's theory of occupational choice, which of the following is an example of a realistic occupation? a. Counselor b. Voice coach c. Mechanic d. Physicist 52. In the _____ career anchor, individuals want to see their efforts have an impact on organizational effectiveness. a. functional competence b. stability c. managerial competence d. creativity 53. The old one-employer focus meant: a. forgoing technical or functional development in favor of firm specific learning. b. focusing on technical and functional development of employees. c. acquiring skills that can be marketed across organizations. d. focusing on the strategies of competing firms.

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Chap 17_ORGB6 54. An example of the subjective element of a career is: a. the number of jobs in a chosen occupation. b. a person's perception of potential in a chosen occupation. c. a person's eligibility for a job. d. the application for and receipt of an occupational license.

55. In which of the following career stages do individuals reassess their goals and feel the need to make changes in their career dreams? a. The withdrawal stage b. The maintenance stage c. The advancement stage d. The establishment stage 56. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act prohibits: a. discrimination against workers under twenty-years of age. b. discrimination against workers under thirty-years of age. c. discrimination against new entrants. d. discrimination against older workers.

57. Levinson's life stages are characterized by: a. a continuous stage of stagnancy. b. a continuous stage of stability in career. c. an alternating pattern of stability and transition. d. the study of child psychology.

58. _____ can be thought of as inoculation against disappointment during the organizational choice and entry process. a. Temporary staffing b. Bridge employment c. Flexible work schedules d. Realistic job previews 59. According to John Holland's theory of occupational choice, which of the following is an example of a social occupation? a. Counselor b. Voice coach c. Mechanic d. Physicist 60. A person with a technical/functional competence anchor is likely to be most efficient working: a. as a machine operator. b. as an accountant. c. as a freelance photographer. d. as an assembly line worker.

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Chap 17_ORGB6 61. Which of the following statements is true of older workers? a. They are more productive and less resistant to change. b. They may face discrimination and stereotyping. c. They have higher rates of tardiness and absenteeism and are less safety conscious. d. They are less satisfied with their jobs than are younger workers.

62. A person's most significant career achievements are most likely to occur in the _____ career stage. a. establishment b. apprenticeship c. advancement d. withdrawal 63. The concept of the career is undergoing a paradigm shift. The old career is giving way to a new career characterized by: a. corporate allegiance. b. discrete exchange. c. a nonadaptive perspective. d. a strict bureaucracy.

64. How are career anchors modified?

65. Discuss the role played by older workers in a workforce.

66. How can the stress and strains of a dual-career situation be reduced?

67. Is it advisable for employees in the withdrawal stage to serve as mentors to an organization?

68. How are companies helping employees transition to retirement in innovative ways?

69. Why are mentors important in an organization?

70. Briefly describe the four-stage career model and indicate one or more important activities in each stage.

71. Briefly discuss the differences between the new and old meaning of career.

72. Why is it important to know one's career anchor?

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Chap 17_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. a 15. a 16. c 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. c 21. c 22. b 23. d 24. c 25. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_ORGB6 26. c 27. d 28. d 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. a 36. a 37. b 38. d 39. b 40. c 41. c 42. d 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. a 47. b 48. b 49. d 50. a 51. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 17_ORGB6 52. c 53. a 54. b 55. c 56. d 57. c 58. d 59. a 60. b 61. b 62. c 63. b 64. Answers will vary. Career anchors emerge over time and may be modified by work or life experiences. Please see the section "Career Anchors" for more information.

65. Answers will vary. Older workers are one of the most undervalued groups in the workforce. They can provide continuity in the midst of change and can serve as mentors and role models to younger generations of employees. Please see the section "The Withdrawal Stage" for more information.

66. Answers will vary. Working out a dual-career partnership takes careful planning and consistent communication between the partners. Each partner must serve as a source of social support for the other. In addition, couples may need to turn to other family members, friends, and professionals for support. Please see the section "The Advancement Stage" for more information.

67. Answers will vary. The option to serve as a mentor or consultant to an organization helps diminish the fear of loss some people have about retirement. Please see the section "The Withdrawal Stage" for more information.

68. Answers will vary. Some companies are helping employees transition to retirement in innovative ways. For example, retired individuals can continue their affiliation with the organization by serving as mentors to employees who are embarking on retirement planning or other career transitions. Please see the section "The Withdrawal Stage" for more information.

69. Answers will vary. A mentor is an individual who provides guidance, coaching, counseling, and friendship to a protégé. Mentors are important to career success because they perform both career and psychosocial functions. Please see the section "The Advancement Stage" for more information.

70. Answers will vary. The four-stage model begins with career establishment, moves to the advancement stage, followed by maintenance, and finally withdrawal.

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Chap 17_ORGB6 In the establishment stage, an individual begins a career as a newcomer to an organization. Job and occupational learning and technical experience are very important at this stage.

The advancement stage is a period when many individuals strive for achievement. They seek greater responsibility and authority and strive for upward mobility.

The maintenance stage may require some training and additional learning to sustain performance as promotional opportunities are fewer.

The late maintenance and early withdrawal stage involve careful planning for retirement. Please see the section "The Career Stage Model" for more information.

71. Answers will vary. The time of the fast track to the top of the hierarchical organization is past. Also gone is the idea of lifetime employment in a single organization. The paternalistic attitude that organizations take care of employees no longer exists. Individuals now take on more responsibility for managing their own careers. The old career is giving way to a new career characterized by discrete exchange, occupational excellence, organizational empowerment, and project allegiance. Please see the section "Occupational and Organizational Choice Decisions" for more information.

72. Answers will vary. The importance of knowing your career anchor is that it can help you find a match between you and an organization. Please see the section "Career Anchors" for more information.

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Chap 18_ORGB6

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Kurt Lewin's change model is based on the idea of diagnosis and needs analysis. a. True b. False 2. One popular leadership training and development program is to send future leaders to off-site training classes. a. True b. False 3. The term diagnosis comes from two Greek words, dial (through) and gnosis (knowledge). a. True b. False 4. Health promotion programs are a group-focused technique for organization development intervention. a. True b. False 5. Coaching is always done in a one-on-one manner. a. True b. False 6. When both parties in a working relationship have a mutual disagreement on expectations, there is less ambiguity in the process of working together. a. True b. False 7. The notion of reactance refers to a positive reaction that occurs when individuals feel that their personal freedom is preserved. a. True b. False 8. Process consultation is often used as a sole organization development method. a. True b. False 9. Job redesign is one of the group-focused techniques for organization development intervention. a. True b. False 10. The final step in Kurt Lewin's change model is moving. a. True b. False 11. According to Kurt Lewin's change model, managers should ensure that the organizational culture and formal reward systems encourage the old behaviors.

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Chap 18_ORGB6 a. True b. False 12. The power players in the global market are the organizations that can capitalize on emerging markets throughout the world. a. True b. False 13. One of the key principles on which the famed Toyota Way of doing business is focused on is respect for processes. a. True b. False 14. One popular technique for job redesign is the use of outdoor challenges. a. True b. False 15. Skills training is accomplished either in formal classroom settings or on the job. a. True b. False 16. The organization development practitioner in team building serves as a facilitator. a. True b. False 17. Unplanned change is incremental and results from a deliberate decision to alter an organization. a. True b. False 18. Effective coaching relationships depend on a professional, experienced coach, an executive who is motivated to learn and change, and a good fit between the two. a. True b. False 19. As an organization development intervention method, job rotation alters jobs to improve the fit between individual skills and the demands of the job. a. True b. False 20. The protesting of a work group against an increase in working hours is an internal force for change. a. True b. False 21. In Lewin's change model, refreezing involves encouraging individuals to discard old behaviors by shaking up the equilibrium state that maintains the status quo. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_ORGB6 22. Change in which an organization moves to a radically different, and sometimes unknown, future state is known as incremental change. a. True b. False 23. Team building is a widely used intervention method whereby employee attitudes are solicited using a questionnaire. a. True b. False 24. Telecommuting is a form of process consultation. a. True b. False

Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

25. Before any organization development intervention is planned, _____. a. force field analysis should be used for decision making b. a thorough organizational diagnosis should be conducted c. individuals should be encouraged to discard old behaviors d. new attitudes, values, and behaviors should be established as the new status quo 26. Identify a true statement about globalization. a. Globalization is an internal force for change. b. Globalizing an organization requires changes in the minds of employees. c. Globalizing an organization does not require structural changes. d. Globalization decreases workforce diversity in organizations.

27. Which of the following is true of globalization? a. Globalizing an organization requires only structural changes in organizations. b. Globalization gives less importance to changes in the minds of employees. c. Globalization is an internal force for change in organizations. d. Globalizing an organization means rethinking the most efficient ways to use resources.

28. In _____, an organization moves to a radically different, and sometimes unknown, future state. a. strategic change b. transactional change c. transformational change d. incremental change 29. Which of the following statements is true of action learning? a. In action learning, leaders take on familiar problems or unfamiliar problems in familiar settings. b. In action learning, leaders meet annually in large groups. c. The outcome of action learning is that leaders learn about themselves through the challenges of their comrades.

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Chap 18_ORGB6 d. Techniques that provide action learning for participants are executive coaching, role negotiation, and job redesign.

30. Individuals can meet and clarify their expectations of each other using the technique of _____ for organization development intervention. a. career planning b. team building c. role negotiation d. survey feedback 31. When employees question their competence to deal with changes that might result in increased workloads or increased task difficulty, they are experiencing: a. the fear of loss. b. the fear of failure. c. the fear of disruption. d. the fear of the unknown.

32. Leadership training and development, job redesign, and executive coaching are _____ techniques for organization development intervention. a. diagnostic b. quantitative c. group-focused d. individual-focused 33. When an organization makes a large-scale change, such as organizational restructuring, the change is: a. strategic. b. transactional. c. incremental. d. operational.

34. Which of the following is a similarity between internal and external change agents in an organization? a. Both are preferred by employees for their impartiality. b. Both know everything about the organization's culture and history. c. Both try to bring an outsider's objective view to the organization. d. Both specialize in adaptability as a key skill.

35. Which of the following is true of management by objectives? a. It involves separate goal setting for employees and managers. b. It leads to increased role conflict and ambiguity. c. It negatively affects communication. d. It provides knowledge of results.

36. _____ results in a better understanding between the two parties in a work relationship. a. Process consultation b. Executive coaching Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_ORGB6 c. Action learning d. Role negotiation 37. _____ is the second step in Lewin's change model in which new attitudes, values, and behaviors are substituted for old ones. a. Unfreezing b. Moving c. Refreezing d. Motivating 38. Which of the following is true of survey feedback? a. Survey feedback is a widely used individual-focused technique for organizational development intervention. b. The effectiveness of survey feedback decreases substantially when this method is combined with other interventions. c. Survey feedback is always used as a sole organization development intervention method. d. The effectiveness of survey feedback is contingent upon trust between management and subordinates.

39. Emerald Inc. sponsors a corporate outing for its employees annually wherein employees participate in activities such as scavenger hunts and laser tag. This scenario illustrates that Emerald Inc. is using outdoor challenges to: a. improve leadership skills. b. improve team building. c. obtain feedback. d. improve role negotiation skills.

40. Which of the following is an example of unplanned change in an organization? a. Installing a computer-controlled machine tool b. Responding to an increase in excise tax on gasoline c. Preparing materials and making arrangements for a workforce diversity-training workshop d. Scheduling production runs for the peak vacation period of June through August 41. Which of the following is true of globalization? a. Global business carries unique risks not found by firms competing within a single nation. b. Globalization decreases workforce diversity in organizations. c. Globalization decreases competition among firms. d. Global business involves a single government and a single legal system.

42. In Kurt Lewin's change model, the maintenance of status quo can be viewed as a(n): a. state of equilibrium. b. restraining force. c. immovable object. d. potential element for agitation.

43. Which of the following is true of leadership training and development programs? a. Leadership training and development programs do not include off-site training. b. All leadership training and development programs are group-focused techniques for organization development Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_ORGB6 intervention. c. Leadership training and development programs require little time and effort. d. Some leadership training and development programs combine classroom learning with on-the-job experiences.

44. Management by objectives, team building, and survey feedback are _____ techniques for organization development Intervention. a. group-focused b. individual-focused c. diagnostic d. quantitative 45. Which of the following is true of external change agents? a. They know about the organization's history and culture. b. They are not preferred by employees because of their partiality. c. They have no power in directing changes. d. They bring an outsider's objective view to the organization.

46. _____ results from a deliberate decision to alter an organization. a. Planned change b. Unplanned change c. Spontaneous change d. Accidental change 47. Which of the following is true of change leaders within organizations? a. They are more task oriented than general managers. b. They operate in only one leadership style. c. They are uncomfortable with uncertainty. d. They use a balance of technical and interpersonal skills.

48. Identify a true statement about management by objectives. a. It involves separate goal setting for employees and managers. b. It leads to role conflict and ambiguity. c. It clarifies what is expected of employees. d. It negatively affects communication.

49. Communicado Inc., a cell phone manufacturer, has technologically modified all its existing products. It has also improved its customer service. As a result, the company has become very popular among customers. In this scenario, which of the following group-focused techniques for organization development intervention has Communicado used? a. Quality program b. Skills training c. Team building d. Management by objectives 50. Which of the following is a key strategy for managing resistance to change that establishes a feeling of ownership in the change process among employees?

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Chap 18_ORGB6 a. Delegation b. Empathy c. Communication d. Participation 51. An employee's resistance to change that introduces ambiguity into what was once a comfortable situation is the result of: a. fear of failure. b. fear of disruption of interpersonal relationships. c. fear of loss. d. fear of the unknown.

52. When an organization fine-tunes its operations, it is going through a(n): a. incremental change. b. strategic change. c. transformational change. d. transactional change.

53. _____ is a crucial step in managing change that measures the skills and competencies that employees must have to achieve the goals of the change. a. Brainstorming b. Process consultation c. A needs analysis d. A systematic survey 54. Identify a guideline that should be followed by organizations to make survey feedback effective. a. Feedback should be reported in a group format. b. Management should not disclose the purpose of the survey. c. Survey responses should not be confidential. d. Responses to the questionnaire should be publicly announced.

55. The most massive scope of change in an organization is known as: a. incremental change. b. strategic change. c. transitional change. d. transformational change.

56. Which of the following is an essential first step for any organization development intervention? a. Diagnosis b. Force field analysis c. Brainstorming d. Process consultation 57. Which of the following is the first step of Harry Levinson's diagnostic analysis? a. Analysis of an organization as a whole to obtain data about its structure and processes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_ORGB6 b. Gathering interpretive data about attitudes, relationships, and current organizational functioning c. Analysis of gathered organizational data d. Achieving an understanding of an organization's history 58. Which of the following processes is most often targeted in process consultation? a. Conflict resolution b. Technological innovation c. Job redesign d. Performance rating 59. Fear of loss occurs when: a. an employee's status is threatened. b. an employee questions his or her competence to deal with changes. c. an employee fears his or her own failure as a result of changes. d. an employee's interpersonal relationships are threatened.

60. Which of the following is true of managing ethical behavior? a. Ethical issues are always public and monumental. b. Organizations must create a culture that discourages ethical behavior. c. Ethical behavior is a major internal force for change in an organization. d. Society expects organizations to maintain ethical behavior in relationships with customers.

61. Identify a true statement about coaching. a. Coaching should never be carried out in groups. b. Coaches make suggestions to clients rather than elicit ideas. c. Coaches clarify an individual's psychological contract. d. Coaching is typically a special investment in top-level managers.

62. Identify an individual-focused technique for organization development intervention. a. Role negotiation b. Survey feedback c. Process consultation d. Management by objectives 63. _____ focus on helping employees manage their stress. a. Role negotiation programs b. Health promotion programs c. Leadership training and development programs d. Process consultation programs 64. _____ can be used to identify and nurture talented employees for potential promotion. a. Role negotiation b. Survey feedback c. Process consultation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_ORGB6 d. Career planning 65. Which of the following is an example of an internal force for change in an organization? a. An increased grievance rate b. Technological advancement c. A shrinking applicant pool d. Government regulations 66. In process consultation, the ownership of a successful outcome rests with the _____. a. outside consultant b. employees c. chief executive officer d. trainers 67. Identify a group-focused technique for organization development intervention. a. Leadership training and development programs b. Product and service quality programs c. Health promotion programs d. Career-planning activities 68. In the context of group-focused techniques for organization development intervention, which of the following statements is true of process consultation? a. It cannot be used for conflict resolution. b. It uses an inside consultant. c. It is an interactive technique. d. It encourages individuals to discard old behaviors.

69. Which of the following methods can be used for gathering data in each stage of Harry Levinson's diagnostic analysis? a. Action learning b. Archival record c. Process consultation d. Job redesign 70. Identify a true statement about organization development. a. It seeks to improve only individual well-being and effectiveness. b. It does not emphasize intervention at any level of an organization. c. It utilizes behavioral science theory and research to increase effectiveness. d. It undermines the reciprocal relationship between individuals and organizations.

71. _____ involves the setting of initial objectives, periodic progress reviews, and problem solving to remove any obstacles to goal achievement. a. Management by objectives b. Management by exception c. Survey feedback d. Process consultation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_ORGB6 72. One of the key principles on which the famed Toyota Way of doing business is focused on is: a. globalization of business. b. force field analysis for change management. c. continuous improvement dedicated to innovation. d. process consultation in the workplace.

73. An adjustment in the price of gasoline by an oil company in response to an excise tax increase is a(n): a. incremental change. b. nonreversible change. c. strategic change. d. transactional change.

74. Which of the following is a key strategy for managing resistance to change in which employees must be engaged and involved in order for change to work? a. Participation b. Empathy c. Support d. Communication 75. Which of the following is a disadvantage that internal change agents have in managing the change process in an organization? a. They do not know about the organization's history and political system. b. They are careless about managing change. c. They do not understand the organization's culture. d. They are too close to the situation to have an objective view of what needs to be done.

76. Which of the following is an internal force that can stimulate the need for change in an organization? a. The diversity of the labor force b. The pricing decision of a competitor c. The resignation of a key decision maker d. The effective date of a new federal employment law 77. Which of the following is an organization development intervention that is targeted at individuals? a. Survey feedback b. Skills training c. Management by objectives d. Process consultation 78. Which of the following is a key strategy for managing resistance to change that involves conveying accurate and timely information that can help prevent unfounded fears and potentially damaging rumors from developing? a. Support b. Communication c. Participation d. Empathy Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_ORGB6

79. Briefly describe the characteristics of organization development (OD).

80. Why is management by objectives (MBO) considered a valuable intervention?

81. Distinguish between incremental, strategic, and transformational changes.

82. Briefly explain Kurt Lewin's change model.

83. Discuss how health promotion programs are used for organization development intervention.

84. Briefly explain the external and internal forces for change in organizations.

85. What are some of the reasons for people resisting change in organizations?

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Chap 18_ORGB6 Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. False 12. True 13. False 14. False 15. True 16. True 17. False 18. True 19. False 20. True 21. False 22. False 23. False 24. False 25. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_ORGB6 26. b 27. d 28. c 29. c 30. c 31. b 32. d 33. a 34. d 35. d 36. d 37. b 38. d 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. a 43. d 44. a 45. d 46. a 47. d 48. c 49. a 50. d 51. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_ORGB6 52. a 53. c 54. a 55. d 56. a 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. d 61. d 62. a 63. b 64. d 65. a 66. b 67. b 68. c 69. b 70. c 71. a 72. c 73. a 74. a 75. d 76. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_ORGB6 77. b 78. b 79. Answers will vary.

As a systematic approach to planned change, OD is a structured cycle of diagnosing organizational problems and opportunities and then applying expertise to them. OD is grounded in solid research and theory. It involves the application of behavioral science knowledge to the challenges that organizations face. OD recognizes the reciprocal relationship between individuals and organizations. It acknowledges that for organizations to change, individuals must change. OD is goal oriented. It is a process that seeks to improve both individual and organizational well-being and effectiveness. Please see the section ''Determining the Need for Organization Development Interventions" for more information.

80. Answers will vary.

MBO is a valuable intervention because it meets three needs. First, it clarifies what is expected of employees. This reduces role conflict and ambiguity. Second, MBO provides knowledge of results, an essential ingredient in effective job performance. Finally, MBO provides an opportunity for coaching and counseling by the manager. Please see the section ''Group-Focused Techniques for OD Intervention" for more information.

81. Answers will vary.

Change of a relatively small scope, such as making small improvements, is called incremental change. Such changes are a fine-tuning of an organization. Change of a larger scale, such as organizational restructuring, is called strategic change.

Change in which an organization moves to a radically different, and sometimes unknown, future state, is called transformational change. Please see the section ''The Scope of Change" for more information.

82. Answers will vary.

Kurt Lewin's change model is a three-step process. The process begins with unfreezing, which is a crucial first hurdle in the change process. Unfreezing involves encouraging individuals to discard old behaviors by shaking up the equilibrium state that maintains the status quo. The second step in the change process is moving. In the moving stage, new attitudes, values, and behaviors are substituted for old ones. Refreezing is the final step in the change process. In this step, new attitudes, values, and behaviors are established as the new status quo. The new ways of operating are cemented in and reinforced. Please see the section ''Lewin's Model for Managing Change" for more information.

83. Answers will vary.

As organizations have become increasingly concerned with the costs of distress in the workplace, health promotion programs have become a part of larger organization development efforts. The American Psychological Association recognizes companies for innovative programs that support psychologically healthy work environments. Although companies have long recognized the importance of maintenance on their machinery, many are only recently learning that their human assets need maintenance as well, and they are supplying that need in the form of employee wellness and health promotion activities. These programs focus on helping employees manage their stress and prevent health problems.

Please see the section ''Individual-Focused Techniques for OD Intervention" for more information.

84. Answers will vary.

The major external forces for change in organizations are globalization, workforce diversity, technological change, and managing ethical behavior.

Pressures for change that originate inside an organization are generally recognizable by symptoms such as declining effectiveness. A crisis may stimulate change in an organization. Changes in employee expectations can trigger change in organizations as well. Another pressure is a change in the work climate that produces a workforce that is lethargic, unmotivated, and dissatisfied. Please see the section ''Forces for Change in Organizations" for more information.

85. Answers will vary.

People often resist change in a rational response based on self-interest. However, there are countless other reasons people Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 18_ORGB6 resist change. Many of these center around the notion of reactance—that is, a negative reaction that occurs when individuals feel that their personal freedom is threatened. Common reasons people resist change include fear of the unknown, fear of loss, fear of failure, fear of disruption of interpersonal relationships, personality factors, politics, and cultural assumptions and values. Please see the section ''Resistance to Change" for more information.

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