TEST BANK for Nursing Research: Generating and Assessing Evidence for Nursing Practice 11th Edition

Nursing Research Generating and Assessing Evidence for Nursing Practice 11th Edition Polit Beck Test Bank Chapter 1 Introduction to Nursing Research in an Evidence-Based Practice Environment What is the highest priority for the 1. importance of research in the nursing profession?

A)

Research findings provide evidence for informing nurses' decisions and actions.

B)

Conduct research to better understand the context of nursing practice.

C)

Document the role that nurses serve in society.

D)

Establish nursing research areas of study.

2.

Which group would be best served by clinical nursing research?

A)

Nursing administrators

B)

Practicing nurses

C)

Nurses' clients

D)

Healthcare policymakers

3.

In the United States, in what area does research play an important role in nursing?

A)

Chronic illness

B)

Credentialing and status

C)

Nurses' personalities

D)

Nurses' education

4.

What is the role of a consumer of nursing research?

A)

Read research reports for relevant findings.

B)

Participate in generating evidence by doing research.

C)

Participate in journal club in a practice setting.

D)

Solve clinical problems and make clinical decisions.

5.

What was the concern of most nursing studies in the early 1900s?

A)

Client satisfaction

B)

Clinical problems

C)

Health promotion

D)

Nursing education

Which topic most closely conforms to the 6. priorities that have been suggested for future nursing research?

A)

Attitudes of nursing students toward smoking.

B)

Promotion of excellence in nursing science.

C)

Nursing staff morale and turnover.

D)

Number of doctorate prepared nurses in various clinical specialties.

7.

What is the process of deductive reasoning?

A)

Verifying assumptions that are part of our heritage.

B)

Developing specific predictions from general principles.

C)

Empirically testing observations that are made known through our senses.

D)

Forming generalizations from specific observations.

8.

What is the ontological assumption of those espousing a naturalistic paradigm?

A)

Objective reality and those natural phenomena are regular and orderly.

B)

Phenomena are not haphazard and result from prior causes.

C)

Reality is multiply constructed and multiply interpreted by humans.

D)

Reality is not fixed, but is rather a construction of human minds.

9.

What is the epistemological assumption of those espousing a positivist paradigm?

A)

The researcher is objective and independent of those being studied.

B)

Phenomena are not haphazard, but rather have antecedent causes.

C)

The researcher instructs those being studied to be objective in providing information.

Reality is not fixed, but is rather a construction of human minds.

D)

10.

Which is not a characteristic of traditional scientific method?

A)

Control over external factors.

B)

Systematic measurement and observation of natural phenomena.

C)

Deductive reasoning.

D)

Emphasis on a holistic view of a phenomenon, studied in a rich context.

11. What is empiricism?

A)

Making generalizations from specific observations.

B)

Deducing specific predictions from generalizations.

C)

Gathering evidence rooted in reality.

D)

Verifying the assumptions on which the study was based.

12.

What is a hallmark of the scientific method?

A)

Infallible

B)

Holistic

C)

Systematic

D)

Flexible

Which of the following limits the power of 13. the scientific method to answer questions about human life?

A)

The necessity of departing from traditional beliefs.

B)

The difficulty of accurately measuring complex human traits.

C)

The inability to control potential biases.

D)

The shortage of theories about human behavior.

14.

What is a criticism of the scientific method?

A)

Deductive

B)

Deterministic

C)

Empirical

D)

Reductionist

15.

What is involved in naturalistic qualitative research?

A)

Involves deductive processes

B)

Takes places in the field.

C)

Focuses on the idiosyncrasies of those being studied.

D)

Attempts to control the research context to better understand the phenomenon being studied.

A researcher wants to investigate the effect of patients' body position on blood 16. pressure. This is an example of what type of study?

A)

Qualitative

B)

Constructivist inquiry

C)

Quantitative

D)

Researcher preference of either quantitative or qualitative

A researcher is studying the effect of massage on the alleviation of pain in 17. cancer patients. This is an example of what type of study?

A)

Descriptive

B)

Exploratory

C)

Applied

D)

Basic

A researcher wants to study the process by which people make decisions about 18. seeking treatment for infertility. What is the researcher's paradigmatic orientation?

A)

Positivism

B)

Determinism

C)

Empiricism

D)

Naturalism

19.

What is the continuum of participation on research?

A)

Academics to practitioners

B)

Consumers to producers

C)

Journalists to educators

D)

Mentors to novice nurses

20. What is the goal of explanatory research?

A)

Understand the underpinnings of natural phenomena and to explain systematic relationships among them.

B)

Begins with the phenomenon of interest, but rather than simply observing and describing it, exploratory research investigates the full nature of the phenomenon, the manner in which it is manifested, and the other factors to which it is related.

C)

Study phenomena about which little is known.

D)

Make predictions and to control phenomena based on research findings.

Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. B 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. A Chapter 2 Evidence-Based Nursing: Translating Research Evidence into Practice Research utilization begins with empirical findings for consideration in practice 1. settings. Where does evidence-based practice begin?

A)

Integration of clinical judgments with research evidence

B)

A desire to abandon decisions based on custom and authority opinion

C)

A search for the best possible information for addressing a clinical problem

D)

A critique of existing practices

2. What is indirect research utilization?

A)

Involves changes in nurses' thinking

B)

Involves the direct use of findings in giving patient care

C)

Involves use of findings to persuade others

D)

Involves changes in patient thinking toward nurses

The student nurse is constructing a presentation on evidence-based practice.

3. Which statement should be included in the introduction about evidence-based practice?

A)

Conscientious integration of current best evidence with clinical expertise

B)

Utilization of nursing preferences in making clinical decisions

C)

Theoretical problem-solving strategy

D)

Emphasis on decision making based on custom

Evidence-based practice typically involves weighing various types of evidence in an 4. effort to determine best evidence. Most evidence hierarchies put which systematic review at the pinnacle?

A)

Randomized controlled trials

B)

Program evaluations

C)

Clinical practice guidelines

D)

Meta-analyses of multiple clinical trials

The terms research utilization and evidence-based practice are sometimes 5. used synonymously. The two concepts are distinct. Where does research utilization start?

A)

Uses findings of a study that are related to the previous research of the topic.

B)

Emphasis is on translating historical knowledge into real-world applications.

C)

Use of a set of studies in a practical application unrelated to the original research.

D)

Critique of existing practical applications unrelated to historical research.

Which activity will limit researchers to 6. improve the prospect for evidence-based practice and research utilization?

A)

Conducting high-quality, methodologically sound studies

B)

Disseminating results to a broad audience

C)

Providing periodical available supports during regular work hours

D)

Discussing the clinical implications of their study results in their research reports

7.

Which is not a major barrier to evidencebased practice in nursing?

A)

The fact that many clinical nurses are not academically prepared to critically evaluate nursing research studies

B)

The support of organizations that reward nurses who engage in research utilization efforts

C)

The low number of replication of nursing studies that show promise for utilization

D)

The absence of quality, clinically relevant nursing studies

There are several resources to support 8. evidence-based practice. What are care bundles?

A)

Rigorous integrations of research evidence from multiple studies of a topic

B)

Evidence-based clinical practice guidelines that combine a synthesis and appraisal of research evidence

C)

Set of interventions to treat or prevent a cluster of symptoms

D)

Meta-analysis or quantitative methods that integrate findings statistically

There are several resources to support 9. evidence-based practice. What is metasynthesis?

A)

Qualitative, narrative approach to integration of a study

B)

Quantitative method that integrate findings statistically

C)

Synthesis and appraisal of research evidence with specific recommendations

D)

Set of interventions to treat or prevent a cluster of symptoms

Several models of evidence-based practice have been developed. Which model 10. focuses on the use of research from the perspective of individual clinicians?

A)

ARCC Model

B)

Clinical Nurse Scholar Model

C)

Iowa Model

D)

Stetler Model

A RN is putting research into practice.

11. What step of the process is involved with the validity of study findings?

A)

Framing an answerable clinical question

B)

Searching for relevant research evidence

C)

Appraising the evidence

D)

Integrating evidence with other factors

A student nurse is trying to find out what a 12. mixed methods synthesis is. What is a mixed methods synthesis?

A)

Integrate and synthesize both quantitative and qualitative evidence.

B)

Integrate quantitative evidence.

C)

Integrate and synthesize qualitative evidence.

D)

Integrate qualitative evidence.

Systematic reviews are published in professional journals. Which database 13. contains thousands of systematic reviews related to healthcare interventions?

A)

Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews

B)

Campbell Collaboration

C)

Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality

D)

Joanna Briggs Institute

Clinical practice guidelines distill a large body of evidence into a manageable form.

14.

Which describes clinical practice guidelines?

A)

Give general recommendations for evidence-based decision making.

B)

Address all of the issues relevant to a clinical decision.

C)

Guide clinical practice when there are a number of published articles.

D)

Completed by researchers.

Which reference is a comprehensive reference resource that provides an array of clinical information for nurses, 15. including evidence-based care sheets, best practice guidelines, and point-of-care drug information?

A)

Clinical Evidence

B)

Evidence-based Nursing

C)

Worldviews on Evidence Based Nursing

D)

Nursing Reference Center

Evidence-based practice writers distinguish between background and 16. foreground questions. What is a background question?

A)

Based on current best research evidence.

B)

Specific, detailed questions about a clinical problem.

C)

General, foundational questions about a clinical issue.

D)

Questions located on websites.

Fineout-Overholt and Johnston recommended a 5-component scheme for formulating evidence-based practice 17. questions, using the acronym PICOT as a guide. Which two components are not always needed in this model?

A)

P and C

B)

I and O

C)

C and T

D)

P and O

A nurse is putting research into practice.

18. What is the first step that should be considered in the process?

A)

Framing an answerable clinical question

B)

Searching for relevant research evidence

C)

Appraising and synthesizing the evidence

D)

Integrating evidence with other factors

19.

Which occurs with individual evidencebased practice efforts?

A)

Tend to be less formalized approach than organizational evidence-based practice.

B)

Must take organizational factors into account.

C)

Must take interpersonal factors into account.

D)

Triggers for an individual project include pressing clinical problems.

Appraisal of Guidelines Research and 20. Evaluation (AGREE) Instrument consists of ratings of quality on what type of scale?

A)

4-point scale

B)

5-point scale

C)

6-point scale

D)

7-point scale

Answer Key 1. C 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. D 16. C 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. A Chapter 3 Key Concepts and Steps in Qualitative and Quantitative Research

A pediatric RN undertakes a study of the effect of low birth weight on infants' cognitive development. A developmental psychologist collaborates on the study. A 1. second RN helps by recruiting families into the study. A graduate student is asked to give statistical advice in analyzing the data. This is an example of what type of study?

A)

Multisite research

B)

Qualitative research

C)

Funded research

D)

Collaborative research

Which term is not used by qualitative 2. researchers to refer to people who participate in a study?

A)

Informants

B)

Key informants

C)

Study participants

D)

Subjects

Which term is used by both qualitative and 3. quantitative researchers to refer to the abstractions under study?

A)

Concept

B)

Construct

C)

Phenomenon

D)

Variable

The RN is reading a research article. The 4. article talks about constructs. Which would most likely be called a construct?

A)

Gender

B)

Body temperature

C)

Uncertainty in illness

D)

Blood type

What is the dependent variable(s) in the research question “Is the quality of life of 5. nursing home residents affected by their functional ability or hearing acuity”?

A)

Quality of life

B)

Functional ability

C)

Hearing acuity

D)

Nursing home residents

What is the independent variable in the hypothesis “Baccalaureate degree prepared nurses will practice more rehabilitative 6. nursing measures on a client in an ICU than will associate degree prepared nurses”?

A)

Associate degree prepared nurses

B)

Baccalaureate degree prepared nurses

C)

Rehabilitative nursing measures

D)

Type of educational background of nurses

7.

What is the purpose of an operational definition in a quantitative study?

A)

State the theoretical meaning of the concept.

B)

Specify how a variable will be defined and measured.

C)

State the expected relationship between the variables under investigation.

D)

Designate the conceptual underpinnings of the variable.

Which is a datum from a quantitative 8. study of the labor and delivery experiences of women over age 40?

A)

Length of time in labor

B)

107 ounces

C)

Infant's Apgar score

D)

Vaginal versus cesarean delivery

Which is a datum from a qualitative 9. research study on the labor and delivery experiences of women over age 40?

A)

14.6 hours in labor

B)

60-minute interviews 1 day after delivery

C)

“It was a lot more painful than I ever imagined.”

D)

15 women with a vaginal delivery

Which pair of variables is there most 10. likely to be a relationship that could be described as causal?

A)

Degree of physical activity and heart rate

B)

Stress and coping style

C)

Age and health beliefs

D)

Parity and postpartum depression

11.

What is the basic distinction in quantitative studies?

A)

Quantitative and qualitative research

B)

Empirical and nonempirical research

C)

Experimental and nonexperimental research

D)

Population-based and sample-based research

12.

Which is widely used by quantitative nurse researchers?

A)

Ask research questions

B)

Phenomenological

C)

Ethnographic

D)

Grounded theory

What is the research tradition that focuses 13. on understanding phenomena within a cultural context?

A)

Experimental

B)

Phenomenological

C)

Ethnographic

D)

Grounded theory

What is the research tradition that is an 14. approach to understanding people's life experiences?

A)

Experimental

B)

Phenomenological

C)

Ethnographic

D)

Grounded theory

What is the statement of the researcher's 15. expectations or predictions about relationships among study variables?

A)

Hypothesis

B)

Framework

C)

Research question

D)

Conceptual definition

16.

What is the overall plan for answering the research question?

A)

Sampling plan

B)

Proposal

C)

Problem statement

D)

Research design

What is the aggregate of those to whom a 17. researcher wishes to generalize study results called?

A)

Gate keepers

B)

Population

C)

Sample

D)

Consumers

18.

What is the research design in qualitative studies called?

A)

Experimental

B)

Narrative

C)

Interpretive

D)

Emergent

19.

Where are registered nurses most likely to find research results?

A)

Conference presentations

B)

Journal articles

C)

Books

D)

Dissertations

20.

What is included in the methods section of a study?

A)

Review of the literature.

B)

Names of the statistical tests that are going to be used.

C)

Strategies used to address the problem.

D)

Discussion including recommendations for the research.

Answer Key 1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. A 16. D 17. B 18. D 19. B 20. C Chapter 4 Research Problems, Research Questions, and Hypotheses 1. What is a research problem?

A)

Situation involving an enigmatic or disturbing situation amenable to disciplined inquiry

B)

Articulation of the problem and description of the need for a study through the development of an argument

C)

Specific queries researchers want to answer in addressing the problem

D)

Specific accomplishments that will be achieved by conducting the study

The nature of the research question is closely allied to paradigms. What is the 2. focus of research questions for a quantitative study?

A)

Undertaken because some aspect of a phenomenon is poorly understood

B)

Developed within a rich and context bound understanding of the problem

C)

Initiated to heighten awareness and create a dialogue about a phenomenon

D)

Identified major variables in the study and populations under investigation are present.

Which is correct about the research question “What is the decision making 3. process among intensive care unit nurses who decide to assist terminally ill patients to die?”

A)

Most likely to be addressed using a quantitative approach

B)

Most likely to be addressed using a qualitative approach

C)

Not researchable

D)

Not appropriately worded

4.

Where is the nurse likely to have difficulty getting an idea for research problems?

A)

Theories of conceptual frameworks

B)

Clinical experience

C)

Nursing code of ethics

D)

Nursing literature

5.

Which is not considered in determining the feasibility of a research question?

A)

Cooperation of participants

B)

Ethical concerns

C)

Relevant theories

D)

Researcher experience

Researchers communicate their aims as problem statements, statements of 6. purpose, research questions, or hypotheses. What are hypotheses?

A)

Essential to the conduct of respectable scientific enquiry

B)

Needed only when there is an explicit theoretical framework

C)

Useful in giving direction to quantitative studies

D)

Not appropriate for many nursing research studies

“Women who jog regularly are more likely to have amenorrhea than those who do not 7. jog regularly” is an example of what type of hypothesis?

A)

Null

B)

Not corrected stated

C)

Directional

D)

Nondirectional

8. What is a moderator variable?

A)

Affect the strength or direction of a relationship between independent variables

B)

Affect the strength or direction of a relationship between the independent and dependent variables

C)

Intervene between the independent and dependent variable

D)

Help to explain why the relationship exists

9. What is a complex hypothesis?

A)

Predicted relationship between one independent variable and one dependent variable

B)

Predicted direction of the relationship

C)

Anticipated existence of relationships, not their direction

D)

Anticipated relationship between two independent variables and two dependent variables

What is the type of hypothesis for “a 10. person's emotional status is not affected by relocation to a nursing home”?

A)

Directional

B)

Nondirectional

C)

Research

D)

Null

Researchers communicate their aims as problem statements, statements of 11. purpose, research questions, or hypotheses. What is the statement of purpose?

A)

Summarizes the overall study goal.

B)

Specific query researchers want to answer in addressing the research problem.

C)

Articulate the nature, context, and significance of the problem.

D)

Statement of predicted relationships between two or more variables.

The registered nurse knows that which is 12. correct about hypotheses in research reports?

A)

Hypotheses derived from theory are generally nondirectional in wording.

B)

Hypotheses are more abstract than purpose statements.

C)

Qualitative research proceeds with hypotheses.

D)

Hypotheses must express the expected relationship among at least three variables.

Researchers communicate their aims as problem statements, statements of purpose, research questions, or 13. hypotheses. What does “subjects receiving antiemetic therapy by a patient controlled pump will be less nauseous” represent?

A)

Hypothesis

B)

Problem statement

C)

Statement of purpose

D)

Research question

What type of hypothesis is represented by the statement “the fewer social supports an 14. elderly person has, the more likely the individual will be institutionalized.”?

A)

Directional

B)

Nondirectional

C)

Research

D)

Null

What type of hypothesis is represented by the statement “women who smoke are as 15. likely to have low-birth-weight babies as women who do not”?

A)

Directional

B)

Nondirectional

C)

Research

D)

Null

16.

What intervenes between the independent and dependent variable?

A)

Moderator variable

B)

Mediating variable

C)

Hypothesis

D)

Simple hypothesis

Researchers communicate their aims as problem statements, statements of purpose, research questions, or hypotheses. What does the following statement represent, “Nausea and vomiting 17. are common side effects among patients on chemotherapy, and interventions to date have been only moderately successful in reducing these effects? New interventions that can reduce or prevent these side effects need to be identified.”

A)

Hypothesis

B)

Problem statement

C)

Statement of purpose

D)

Research question

Not all problems are amendable to 18. research inquiry. Which question cannot be researched?

A)

Should voluntary tubal ligations be performed on women without children?

B)

What are nurses' attitudes toward voluntary tubal ligations?

C)

What moral dilemmas are perceived by nurses who might be involved in assisted suicide?

D)

Do terminally ill patients living with high levels of pain hold more favorable attitudes toward assisted suicide than those with less pain?

19. What is a nondirectional hypothesis?

A)

Predicted relationship between one independent variable and one dependent variable

B)

Predicted direction of the relationship

C)

Anticipated existence of relationships, not their direction

D)

Anticipated relationship between two independent variables and two dependent variables

20. What is a simple hypothesis?

A)

Predicted relationship between one independent variable and one dependent variable

B)

Predicted direction of the relationship

C)

Anticipated existence of relationships, not their direction

D)

Anticipated relationship between two independent variables and two dependent variables

Answer Key 1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. D 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. A Chapter 5 Literature Reviews: Finding and Critiquing Evidence Which electronic database is widely recognized as the premier source for 1. bibliographic coverage of the biomedical literature?

A)

CINAHL

B)

Health Source: Nursing/Academic Edition

C)

ProQuest

D)

MEDLINE

The RN is doing a basic search of articles on nurses' stress in the ICU. In conducting 2. a subject search in an electronic database, what should the nurse type to initiate the search?

A)

An author's name

B)

Restrictions to the search

C)

A topic or keyword

D)

A mapping procedure

In an electronic literature search, what is the researcher doing when she does not 3. know the precise keywords for retrieving information on a topic?

A)

Mapping

B)

Searching

C)

Restricting focus

D)

Copying

4.

What is a primary source for a research literature review?

A)

A description of a study written by researchers who did the study

B)

A summary of relevant research on the topic of interest

C)

A thesaurus that directs readers to subject headings germane to the topic

D)

Any journal article on a topic of interest

There are several strategies for finding 5. studies on a topic. What is the ancestry approach?

A)

Search for articles that summarize prior research.

B)

Read the accompanying abstract to determine whether the article is pertinent to the topic.

C)

Tracking down earlier studies cited in a reference list of a report.

D)

Using a pivotal study to search forward to subsequent studies that cited it.

There are several strategies for finding 6. studies on a topic. What is the descendancy approach?

A)

Search for articles that summarize prior research.

B)

Read the accompanying abstract to determine whether the article is pertinent to the topic.

C)

Track down earlier studies cited in a reference list of a report.

D)

Use a pivotal study to search forward to subsequent studies that cited it.

7.

What is a secondary source for a research literature review?

A)

A description of a study written by researchers who did the study

B)

A summary of relevant research on the topic of interest

C)

A thesaurus that directs readers to subject headings germane to the topic

D)

A description of the study by an individual unconnected with it

The nurse is conducting a literature 8. review. Which will not assist the nurse when conducting a literature review?

A)

One major purpose of a literature review is to learn what research has already been done in the area.

B)

A text word search allows searchers to look for specific words in all test fields of records in the electronic database.

C)

The literature review section should conclude with a critical evaluation of knowledge on the problem of interest.

D)

Information from anecdotal and opinion articles is usually included in research literature.

There are several major steps in preparing 9. a written research review. What is the first step?

A)

Formulating a question

B)

Devising a search strategy

C)

Conducting a search

D)

Retrieving relevant sources

When doing a literature review, what type of information will a researcher 10. undertaking a new study find as an undesirable attribute?

A)

Available research findings

B)

Descriptions of an expert's opinions about the phenomenon

C)

How the variables of interest have been operationally defined in prior studies

D)

What research approaches have been used to study similar problems

Qualitative researchers have varying opinions about reviewing the literature before doing a new study. What group of 11. researchers is represented when collection of data occurs before reviewing the literature?

A)

Grounded theory researchers

B)

Phenomenologists

C)

Ethnographogists

D)

Grounded theory researchers and phenomenologist

Qualitative researchers have varying opinions about reviewing the literature 12. before doing a new study. What group of researchers often undertakes a search for relevant materials at the onset of a study?

A)

Grounded theory researchers

B)

Phenomenologists

C)

Ethnographogists

D)

Grounded theory researchers and phenomenologist

Qualitative researchers have varying opinions about reviewing the literature before doing a new study. What group of 13. researchers does a more thorough literature review during data analysis and interpretation so that findings can be compared with previous findings?

A)

Grounded theory researchers

B)

Phenomenologists

C)

Ethnographogists

D)

Grounded theory researchers and phenomenologist

Matrices are a convenient means of abstracting and organizing information for 14. a literature review. How many dimension arrays are present?

A)

Two

B)

Three

C)

Four

D)

Five

Matrices are a convenient means of abstracting and organizing information for 15. a literature review. When would a reviewer use an evaluation matrix?

A)

Record methodological features of a set of studies.

B)

Record research findings.

C)

Record quality assessment information.

D)

Facilitate thematic analysis of the retrieved information.

Matrices are a convenient means of abstracting and organizing information for 16. a literature review. When would a reviewer use a results matrix?

A)

Record methodological features of a set of studies.

B)

Record research findings.

C)

Record quality assessment information.

D)

Facilitate thematic analysis of the retrieved information.

Written literature reviews are undertaken for many different purposes. In a quantitative research report, what section 17. of the report would a review of prior research on the problem under study be located?

A)

Introduction

B)

Methods

C)

Results

D)

Discussion

Written literature reviews are undertaken for many different purposes. In a research 18. report, what section of the report would limitations of the study be located?

A)

Introduction

B)

Methods

C)

Results

D)

Discussion

Written literature reviews are undertaken for many different purposes. In a 19. qualitative research report, what section of the report would the thematic analysis of the data be presented?

A)

Introduction

B)

Methods

C)

Results

D)

Discussion

Some features of an electronic search are 20. similar across databases. Which is an example of a wildcard symbol?

A)

And

B)

Not

C)

Or

D)

Question mark

Answer Key 1. D 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. D 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. A 18. D 19. C 20. D Chapter 6 Theoretical Frameworks

1.

What is a broad abstract characterization of phenomena?

A)

Theory

B)

Descriptive theory

C)

Grand theory

D)

Middle-range theories

2.

The power of theories lies in the ability to do what?

A)

Capture the complexity of human nature by the richness of the operational definitions associated with the variables.

B)

Minimize the number of words required to explain phenomena and, thereby, eliminate semantic problems.

C)

Prove conclusively that relationships exist among the phenomena studied.

D)

Specify the nature of the relationships that exist among phenomena and offer explanations.

3.

What thoroughly describes a phenomenon?

A)

Theory

B)

Descriptive theory

C)

Grand theory

D)

Middle-range theories

4.

What attempt to describe large segments of the human experience?

A)

Theory

B)

Descriptive theory

C)

Grand theory

D)

Middle-range theories

5. What are the building blocks of theory?

A)

Propositions

B)

Relationships

C)

Hypotheses

D)

Concepts

6.

What is the major similarity between theories and conceptual models?

A)

Use concepts as their building blocks.

B)

Use the deductive reasoning process almost exclusively.

C)

Contain a set of logically interrelated propositions.

D)

Provide a mechanism for developing new propositions from the original propositions.

7. What are conceptual maps?

A)

Stimulate new research with the use of a schematic model.

B)

Explain phenomena and relationships among them with a map.

C)

Map the integration of knowledge into coherent systems to explain the key relationships that exist.

Graphic, theory-driven representations of phenomena and their relationships using symbols or diagrams and a minimal use of words.

D)

8.

Which model explains and predicts the health promotion component of lifestyle?

A)

Adaptation Model

B)

Conservation Model

C)

Health Promotion Model

D)

Self-Care Model

Several conceptual models and grand theories of nursing have been developed.

9.

Which concept is not central to models for nursing?

A)

Human beings

B)

Environment

C)

Health

D)

Social support

Which model finds humans as adaptive 10. systems that cope with change through adaptation?

A)

Adaptation Model

B)

Conservation Model

C)

Health Promotion Model

D)

Self-Care Model

11.

Whose major conceptual model of nursing is used by researchers?

A)

Rogers' Science of Unitary Human Beings

B)

Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory

C)

Watson's Theory of Caring

D)

Rizzo's Theory of Human Becoming

12.

Which is an example of a borrowed theory?

A)

Rogers' Science of Unitary Human Beings

B)

Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory

C)

Watson's Theory of Caring

D)

Rizzo's Theory of Human Becoming

13. What did the nurse theorist Roy develop?

A)

Adaptation Model

B)

Theory of Caring

C)

Science of Unitary Human Beings

D)

Health Care Systems Model

14.

What did the nurse theorist Neuman develop?

A)

Adaptation Model

B)

Theory of Caring

C)

Science of Unitary Human Beings

D)

Health Care Systems Model

15.

Which type of theory is often a precursor to predictive theories?

A)

Explanatory theory

B)

Grand theory

C)

Middle-range theory

D)

Situation-specific theory

16.

What is an example of a nursing theory that has been described as a grand theory?

A)

Adaptation Model

B)

Theory of Caring

C)

Science of Unitary Human Beings

D)

Theory of Human Becoming

Theories differ in their level of generality and abstraction. What type of theory 17. purports to describe and explain large segments of the human experience?

A)

Explanatory theory

B)

Grand theory

C)

Middle-range theory

D)

Situation-specific theory

Theories differ in their level of generality and abstraction. What type of theory 18. attempts to explain such phenomena as decision making, stress, comfort, health promotion, and unpleasant symptoms?

A)

Explanatory theory

B)

Grand theory

C)

Middle-range theory

D)

Situation-specific theory

All research studies have a framework.

19. What type of framework is used in a research study based on a theory?

A)

Schematic framework

B)

Practice framework

C)

Theoretical framework

D)

Conceptual framework

The key to Rogers' conceptual framework are her principles of homeodynamics, which represent a way of viewing unitary 20. human beings and provide guidance to nursing practice. The principles include integrality, helicy, and resonancy. What is resonancy?

A)

Nonlinear domain without temporal or spatial attributes

B)

Concerns the continuous and mutual processes between human and environmental fields

C)

Continuous and innovative diversity of human and environmental field patterns

D)

Continuous change from lower- to higherfrequency wave patterns in human and environmental energy fields.

Answer Key 1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. A 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. A 16. D 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. D Chapter 7 Ethics in Nursing Research What serves as the basis for regulations 1. affecting research by the U.S. government?

A)

The Nuremberg Code

B)

The Declaration of Helsinki

C)

The Belmont Report

D)

The Code of Ethics of the American Psychological Association

In response to human rights violations, various codes of ethics have been developed. What was developed after Nazi 2. atrocities were made public as an international effort to establish ethical standards?

A)

The Nuremberg Code

B)

The Declaration of Helsinki

C)

The Belmont Report

D)

The Code of Ethics of the American Psychological Association

What document covers primarily ethical 3. issues for practicing nurses and includes principles that apply to nurse researchers?

A)

Code of Ethics for Nurses with Interpretative Statements

B)

Ethical Research Guidelines for Registered Nurses

C)

Ethical Guidelines in the Conduct, Dissemination, and Implementation of Nursing Research

D)

ICN Code of Ethics for Nurses

The Belmont Report articulated broad principles on which standards of ethical 4. conduct in research are based. Which is not considered an ethical principle for protecting study participants in the report?

A)

Beneficence

B)

Respect for human dignity

C)

Informed consent

D)

Justice

5. What is beneficence?

A)

Performance of some good

B)

Protection from physical and psychological harm and exploitation

C)

Participants right to self-determination

D)

Freedom to control their own actions

6. What is justice?

A)

Right to fair treatment

B)

Protection from physical and psychological harm and exploitation

C)

Participants right to self-determination

D)

Freedom to control their own actions

Which ethical principle may be violated if a researcher unobtrusively studies 7. interactions among patients in a psychiatric hospital?

A)

Confidentiality

B)

Freedom from harm

C)

Right to self-determination

D)

Right to privacy

What is the safeguard mechanisms by 8. which even the researcher cannot link the participant with the information provided?

A)

Confidentiality

B)

Anonymity

C)

Informed consent

D)

Right to privacy

What provides prospective participants 9. with information needed to make a reasoned decision about participation?

A)

Confidentiality

B)

Anonymity

C)

Informed consent

D)

Right to privacy

10.

How can confidentiality of study participants be increased?

A)

Avoiding the collection of any identifying information

B)

Avoiding introducing the participants to any of the research personnel

C)

Placing all identifying information on computer files rather than in manual files

Placing all identifying information on manual files rather than in computer files

D)

11. What is an example of a vulnerable group?

A)

Women hospitalized for a mastectomy

B)

Members of a senior citizen group

C)

People who do not speak English

D)

Pediatric clients

12.

What is a major potential risk of research to participants?

A)

Monetary gains

B)

Access to a new and potentially beneficial treatment

C)

Opportunity to discuss personal feelings and experiences with an objective listener.

D)

Physical boredom

Researchers can often show their respect for participants—and proactively minimize emotional risks—by carefully 13. attending to the nature of the interactions they have with them. What are debriefing sessions?

A)

Discussions with prospective participants to obtain informed consent

B)

Discussions with participants after a study to explain various aspects of the study

C)

Discussions with a human subjects committee before a study to obtain permission

D)

Discussions before a study that findings will be shared after data have been analyzed

In a qualitative study that involves multiple contacts between the researcher 14. and study participants, what can the researcher negotiate?

A)

Implied consent

B)

Stipend

C)

Process consent

D)

Risk/benefit ratio

15. When is informed consent not obtained?

A)

Researcher pays a stipend to study participants.

B)

Researcher collects information covertly.

C)

Risk/benefit ratio is low.

D)

Study is determined exempt by Institutional Review Board.

Most institutions where research is conducted have formal committees for 16. reviewing proposed research plans. In the United States, what will the committee likely be called?

A)

Research Ethics Board

B)

Institutional Review Board

C)

Ethical Advisory Board

D)

Human Subject Committee

17. What is an expedited review?

A)

The committee must consist of five members to carry out the review.

B)

Research involving no more than minimal risk can use this procedure.

C)

The researcher must have an affiliation with an institution.

D)

The research is exempt from the review board process.

What is an important consideration when 18. nurses choose to use animals as research subjects?

A)

Must obtain informed consent from the animal's owner.

B)

Recognize that it is more convenient to use an animal.

C)

Recognize that it is less costly to use animals than humans.

D)

Recognize that animals need humane care and treatment.

When can the researcher omit informed 19. consent, when existing data from records and/or specimens are used?

A)

The study does not involve an intervention.

B)

The researcher is gathering data anonymously.

C)

Health professional students are used as subjects.

D)

The study is gathering data from records over 10 years old.

Under HIPAA regulations, a covered entity such as a hospital can disclose individually identifiable health information from its 20. records if the patient signs an authorization granting access. What does this include?

A)

Who will receive the information

B)

Why they need the information

C)

The Social Security number of the patient

D)

If the data is not specifically obtained for the research

Answer Key 1. C 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. D 13. B 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. B 18. D 19. B 20. A Chapter 8 Planning a Nursing Study

1.

What criteria do qualitative researchers use to assess the quality of a study?

A)

Validity

B)

Reliability

C)

Accuracy

D)

Dependability

What criteria do quantitative researchers 2. use to assess the accuracy and consistency of information obtained in a study?

A)

Reliability

B)

Trustworthiness

C)

Dependability

D)

Confirmability

3.

What refers to evidence of the researcher's objectivity?

A)

Reliability

B)

Trustworthiness

C)

Dependability

D)

Confirmability

A thermometer measured a child's temperature as 98.1°F one minute and as 4.

98.1°F the next minute. What can we assume about the thermometer?

A)

Valid instrument

B)

Reliable instrument

C)

Trustworthy instrument

D)

Dependable instrument

What is achieved when the research methods engender confidence in the truth 5. of the data and the researchers' interpretations?

A)

Trustworthiness

B)

Dependability

C)

Confirmability

D)

Credibility

Qualitative researchers discuss methods of 6. enhancing the study's data by what method?

A)

Trustworthiness

B)

Dependability

C)

Confirmability

D)

Credibility

7. Which can cause bias in a study?

A)

Participants' truthful responses

B)

Researcher subjectivity

C)

Consistent methods of data collection

D)

Adequate study design

A researcher finds that a small number of subjects did not provide accurate information because they had just 8. completed a rigorous session with the physical therapist. What is this an example of?

A)

Sample bias

B)

Systematic bias

C)

Random bias

D)

Absolute bias

A spring scale consistently measures people's weights 4 pounds lighter than 9. their true weight. What type of bias would this data be on the weight?

A)

Sample bias

B)

Systematic bias

C)

Random bias

D)

Absolute bias

The researcher wants to explore the extent to which qualitative findings can be 10. transferred to other settings. What is this called?

A)

Reflexivity

B)

Generalizability

C)

Transferability

D)

Thick description

What is the process of reflecting critically 11. on the self and of scrutinizing personal values that could affect interpretation?

A)

Reflexivity

B)

Generalizability

C)

Transferability

D)

Thick description

The researcher wants to explore the extent to which quantitative findings can be 12. applied to other groups and settings. What is this called?

A)

Reflexivity

B)

Generalizability

C)

Transferability

D)

Thick description

What is concealing information from participants, research agents such as data 13. collectors, care providers, or data analysts to enhance objectivity called?

A)

Comparing

B)

Relative timing

C)

Masking

D)

Transferring

A researcher uses multiple sources or 14. referents to draw conclusions about what constitutes the truth. What is this called?

A)

Triangulation

B)

Dependability

C)

Confirmability

D)

Credibility

A researcher designs a study to determine if a new teaching modality will benefit a particular group of special education 15. students that the researcher has been working. Which design would the researcher be most likely to use?

A)

Comparison between two or more groups.

B)

Comparison of one group's status at two or more points in time.

C)

Comparison of one group's status under different circumstances.

D)

Comparison based on relative rankings.

What technique is the researcher using to 16. control extraneous variables to the study purpose that can obscure understanding?

A)

Confounding

B)

Reflexivity

C)

Generalizability

D)

Transferability

Researchers often incorporate comparisons into their designs to enhance 17. interpretability. What occurs when different groups of people are compared?

A)

Between-subjects design

B)

Within-subjects design

C)

Mixed design

D)

Cross-sectional design

18.

What type of research design involves collecting data at one point in time?

A)

Between-subjects design

B)

Within-subjects design

C)

Longitudinal design

D)

Cross-sectional design

A study addressing quality of life of a group of patients who had undergone various treatments for coronary artery 19. disease was gathered 1 year and 8 years after their treatment. What type of study is this called?

A)

Panel

B)

Follow-up

C)

Trend

D)

Cohort

A researcher is conducting a small-scale trial run designed to test methods to be 20. used in a larger, more rigorous study. What type of study is this called?

A)

Panel

B)

Feasibility

C)

Trend

D)

Cohort

Answer Key 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. A 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. B Chapter 9 Quantitative Research Design What type of research design occurs when researchers start with a presumed cause 1. and then go forward in time to the presumed effect?

A)

Cohort

B)

Counterfactual

C)

Randomized controlled

D)

Factorial

What type of design occurs when the 2. researcher simultaneously manipulates two independent variables?

A)

Crossover

B)

Factorial

C)

Single-blind

D)

Cluster randomization

3.

What is a limitation of the research design for a quantitative study?

A)

Whether there will be a theoretical context

B)

Whether there will be an intervention

C)

What types of comparisons will be made

D)

How many times data will be collected

What does the using random numbers 4. tables for assigning subject to groups eliminate?

A)

Systematic bias

B)

Ethical problems

C)

Need for a control group

D)

Unnecessary manipulation

What would happen to the same people simultaneously exposed and not exposed 5. to the casual factor in an idealized research model?

A)

Confounding

B)

Counterfactual

C)

Causality

D)

Manipulation

Various criteria are used to establish causality. One criterion is that an observed relationship between a presumed cause 6. and an effect cannot be explained as being caused by other variables. What is the observed relationship between a presumed cause called?

A)

Confounding

B)

Independent variable

C)

Dependent variable

D)

Counterfactual

What type of design occurs in retrospective studies with data on both the 7. dependent and independent variables collected at a single point in time?

A)

Cross-sectional

B)

Case control

C)

Prospective

D)

Correlational

What is occurring when the nurse researcher manipulates the independent 8. variable by introducing a treatment or intervention?

A)

Control

B)

Counterfactual

C)

Randomization

D)

Manipulation

What is occurring when the nurse researcher assigns people to experimental 9. and control groups at random to make the groups comparable at the outset?

A)

Control

B)

Counterfactual

C)

Randomization

D)

Manipulation

Everyone in the experimental group usually gets the same intervention as 10. delineated in formal protocols. What occurs when the study is tailored to meet individual needs or characteristics?

A)

Placebo

B)

Patient-centered intervention

C)

Attention control

D)

Stratification

The nurse researcher wants to avoid bias stemming from participants' awareness of group status or study hypotheses. What is this called?

11.

1. Attention control 2. Stratification 3. Masking 4. Blinding A)

1, 2

B)

1, 3

C)

2, 4

D)

3, 4

What type of study occurs when a sample of both users and nonusers of oral 12. contraceptives over a 20-year period are followed to determine if there were any long-term side effects?

A)

Controlled

B)

Retrospective

C)

Prospective

D)

Crossover

What type of correlational study begins with the outcome and looks back in time 13. for antecedent causes by comparing individuals that have a disease with controls who do not have the disease?

A)

Case control

B)

Retrospective

C)

Prospective

D)

Crossover

The nurse researcher is dividing research participants into groups of men and 14. women before equating the groups on all characteristics that could affect study outcomes. What is this technique called?

A)

Placebo

B)

Patient-centered intervention

C)

Attention control

D)

Stratification

What is occurring when the nurse researcher documents the frequency of 15. new research cases over a given time period?

A)

Prevalence

B)

Incidence

C)

Relative risk

D)

Self-selection

16.

What is one weakness of correlational studies?

A)

Prevalence of cases

B)

Incidence of cases

C)

Relative risk of groups

D)

Self-selection of groups

The nurse researcher is describing how phenomena are interrelated without 17. invoking a casual explanation. What type of study is occurring?

A)

Descriptive correlational

B)

Univariate descriptive

C)

Path analytic

D)

Cohort

The nurse researcher is documenting the frequency with which middle-aged women 18. performed breast self-examination. What type of study is occurring with the documentation?

A)

Descriptive correlation

B)

Univariate descriptive

C)

Prevalence

D)

Incidence

What type of research design occurs when the nurse researcher gives the comparison 19. group the experimental intervention at a later point in time?

A)

Propensity matching

B)

Switching replication

C)

Time series

D)

Nonequivalent control group pretest– posttest

What type of research design involves an experimental intervention but no 20. randomization and supports causal inferences?

A)

Quasi-experimental

B)

Crossover

C)

Factorial

D)

Experimental

Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. C 13. A 14. D 15. B 16. D 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. A Chapter 10 Rigor and Validity in Quantitative Research How do nurse researchers strive for 1. constancy of conditions in implementing a treatment?

A)

Having standard written research protocols

B)

Using a randomized block design

C)

Maximizing the internal validity of the study

D)

Avoiding contamination of treatments

What is the implication of using the 2. principle of homogeneity to control for extraneous variables?

A)

Statistical conclusion validity

B)

Generalizability of the findings

C)

Contamination of treatments

D)

Precision of the design

3.

What is the most effective method of controlling extraneous variables?

A)

Analysis of covariance

B)

Matching

C)

Randomization

D)

Homogeneity

4.

Which research design do subjects serve as their own controls?

A)

Factorial

B)

Randomized block

C)

Crossover

D)

Balanced

The nurse researcher must know in 5. advance the extraneous variables that are to be controlled for which procedure?

A)

Matching

B)

Randomized groups

C)

Factorial design

D)

Crossover design

6. Which is a method of statistical control?

A)

On-protocol analysis

B)

Analysis of covariance

C)

Pair matching

D)

Counterbalancing

What is the threat of internal validity that 7. occurs when external events or conditions affect one group more than another?

A)

Maturation

B)

Selection

C)

Testing

D)

History

What it the most serious threat to internal 8. validity in a nonequivalent control group design?

A)

Testing

B)

Selection

C)

Maturation

D)

History

9. When is a study internally valid?

A)

Alternative explanations of the results can be ruled out.

B)

An experimental design was used.

C)

A repeated measures design was used.

D)

Precision has been maximized.

There are four types of validity that affect the rigor of a quantitative study. What 10. concerns the validity of inferences that there is an empirical relationship between variables?

A)

Statistical conclusion validity

B)

Internal validity

C)

Construct validity

D)

External validity

There are four types of validity that affect the rigor of a quantitative study. What concerns inferences from the particular 11. exemplars of a study to the higher-order constructs that they are intended to represent?

A)

Statistical conclusion validity

B)

Internal validity

C)

Construct validity

D)

External validity

There are four types of validity that affect the rigor of a quantitative study. What 12. concerns inferences about the extent to which study results can be generalized?

A)

Statistical conclusion validity

B)

Internal validity

C)

Construct validity

D)

External validity

13.

What is a threat to statistical conclusion validity?

A)

Ability to detect true relationships among variables.

B)

Exactness of the relationships identified before controlling confound variables.

C)

Undermining a strong operationalization of the dependent variable.

D)

High precision of relationships revealed among relationships in variables.

Which technique is helpful in maintaining 14. treatment fidelity in an exercise plan for clients with joint replacement?

A)

Providing a detailed training manual that illustrates the exercises

B)

Writing a plan that allows for variation in doing the prescribed exercises

C)

Asking the participants if they liked doing the exercises

Allowing staff nurses to monitor calendars used to document adherence to the exercises

D)

15.

Which is a characteristic of a method to enhance statistical power?

A)

Small sample size

B)

Definition of the dependent variable

C)

Increased variability of the extraneous variables

D)

Precise measuring tool

Qualitative description is often a powerful 16. means of enhancing this type of validity of settings?

A)

Statistical conclusion validity

B)

Internal validity

C)

Construct validity

D)

External validity

17.

What threat is reduced by obtaining contact information?

A)

Selection

B)

Maturation

C)

Mortality

D)

Instrumentation

18.

What threat is a one group pretest–posttest design especially susceptible to?

A)

Testing

B)

Selection

C)

Maturation

D)

History

19.

What is affected by the sampling plan for a research study?

A)

Statistical conclusion validity

B)

Internal validity

C)

Construct validity

D)

External validity

What effect can occur when subjects' behaviors are affected not by the treatment 20. per se, but by their knowledge of participating in a study and the generalizability of the results is limited?

A)

Experimenter

B)

Hawthorne

C)

Measurement

D)

Novelty

Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. D 13. A 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. C 18. C 19. D 20. B Chapter 11 Specific Types of Quantitative Research 1. What occurs in a sequential clinical trial?

A)

Data are continuously analyzed as they become available.

B)

The first half of the subjects is assigned to the experimental group and the second half is assigned to the control group.

C)

Preference is used to assign subjects to either the experimental or control condition.

D)

Stopping rules are only used if subjects are exposed to risk of harm or discomfort.

2.

Which phase of a clinical trial requires an experimental design?

A)

I

B)

II

C)

III

D)

IV

Which phase of a clinical trial involves 3. seeking opportunities for refinements and preliminary evidence of efficacy?

A)

I

B)

II

C)

III

D)

IV

What type of research would occur if a nurse researcher wanted to determine how 4. well a prenatal program was meeting its objectives?

A)

Delphi survey

B)

Evaluation

C)

Needs assessment

D)

Survey

5.

When is an experimental design most likely to be used?

A)

Impact analyses

B)

Outcome analyses

C)

Process evaluations

D)

Formative evaluations

6.

When are qualitative data most likely to be collected?

A)

Impact analysis

B)

Outcome analysis

C)

Process analysis

D)

Cost-benefit analysis

Which factor is not utilized in 7. Donabedian's framework for outcomes research?

A)

Outcomes

B)

Interactions

C)

Processes

D)

Structures

What would the nurse researcher who is interested in learning whether self8. administered health history questionnaires yielded results comparable to a personal interview health history form be doing?

A)

Secondary analysis

B)

Content analysis

C)

Methodologic study

D)

Survey

9. What is the U.S. Census?

A)

Survey

B)

Evaluation

C)

Needs assessment

D)

Secondary analysis

A nurse researcher used the U.S. Census data to examine the relationship between 10. women's labor force participation and fertility. What does this represent?

A)

Survey

B)

Evaluation

C)

Needs assessment

D)

Secondary analysis

The nurse researcher is conducting a needs assessment to estimate the needs of a 11. cardiac support group. What does a needs assessment often use?

A)

Behavioral objectives

B)

Stopping rules

C)

Key informants

D)

Cost-benefit analysis

The nurse researcher is interested in this type of research to assess the effectiveness 12. of clinical interventions that often involve a series of phases. What type of research can provide this information?

A)

Clinical trials

B)

Sequential clinical trials

C)

Practical clinical trials

D)

Pragmatic clinical trials

This type of research aims to reduce the gap between efficacy and effectiveness 13. studies, such as between internal and external validity.

A)

Clinical trial

B)

Evaluation design

C)

Hybrid design

D)

Sequential clinical trial

Which type of analysis would the nurse researcher use to test whether a program 14. caused net impacts relative to the counterfactual?

A)

Process

B)

Implementation

C)

Outcome

D)

Impact

What type of research examines the 15. quality and effectiveness of healthcare and nursing services?

A)

Evaluation

B)

Outcomes

C)

Survey

D)

Delphi

The nurse researcher is reading about a 16. replication study. What is a systematic extension replication?

A)

Exact duplication of methods of an earlier study

B)

Close approximation but not exact duplication of methods

C)

Deliberate attempts to test the implications of the original research

D)

Concerned with the development, validation, and assessment of methodologic tools of strategies

The nurse researcher is reading about a 17. replication study. What is virtual replication?

A)

Exact duplication of methods of an earlier study

B)

Close approximation but not exact duplication of methods

C)

Deliberate attempts to test the implications of the original research

D)

Concerned with the development, validation, and assessment of methodologic tools of strategies

The nurse researcher is reading about a 18. replication study. What is identical replication?

A)

Exact duplication of methods of an earlier study

B)

Close approximation but not exact duplication of methods

C)

Deliberate attempts to test the implications of the original research

D)

Concerned with the development, validation, and assessment of methodologic tools of strategies

19. What is a black box?

A)

Concerned with the development, validation, and assessment of methodologic tools or strategies

B)

Designed to obtain information about the prevalence, distribution, and interrelations of phenomena within a population

C)

Constructs of interest to nurse researchers that have defied measurement efforts

D)

The underlying, unmeasured causes or mediators of the observed effects of an intervention

20.

Which phase do randomized clinical trials take place?

A)

I

B)

II

C)

III

D)

IV

Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. B 16. C 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. C Chapter 12 Sampling in Quantitative Research

Sampling is familiar to us all. In the course of daily activities, we make decisions and draw conclusions through sampling. A 1. nursing student may select an elective course by sampling two or three classes on the first day of the semester. What is sampling?

A)

Identification of a set of elements used for selecting study participants

B)

Established population characteristics to determine who could participate in a study

C)

Process of selecting a subset of the population to represent the entire population

D)

Technique for ensuring that every element in the population has an equal chance of being included in the study

2. What is bias sampling?

A)

Elements are selected by nonrandom methods.

B)

Most readily available or convenient group of people for the sample.

C)

Referrals for potential participants are made by those already in the sample.

D)

Systematic over- or under-representation of an attribute vis-à-vis the population.

What type of sampling occurs in which 3. referrals for potential participants are made by those already in the sample?

A)

Convenience

B)

Snowball

C)

Quota

D)

Consecutive

4.

Which type of sampling are strata incorporated into the design?

A)

Convenience

B)

Snowball

C)

Quota

D)

Consecutive

The nurse researcher is collecting information about the population sample.

5.

What is the basic population unit about which information is collected called?

A)

Population

B)

Element

C)

Inclusion criteria

D)

Exclusion criteria

The nurse researcher knows it is important to make a distinction between target and 6. accessible populations. What is the target population?

A)

Aggregate of cases that conform to designated criteria and that are accessible for a study.

B)

Aggregate of cases about which the researcher would like to generalize.

C)

Characteristics of individuals that must not be included in the research sample.

D)

Characteristics of individuals that meet the specific population characteristics.

The nurse researcher knows it is important to make a distinction between target and 7. accessible populations. What is a population?

A)

Aggregate of cases that conform to designated criteria and that are accessible for a study

B)

Aggregate of cases about which the researcher would like to generalize

C)

Entire aggregation of cases in which a researcher is interested

D)

Characteristics of individuals that meet the specific population characteristics

The nurse researcher knows that samples and sampling plans vary in quality. What 8. is a key consideration in assessing a sample in a quantitative study?

A)

Representativeness

B)

Probability

C)

Nonprobability

D)

Strata

The nurse researcher wants to use a probability sample in the research study.

9.

Which is an example of a probability sampling method?

A)

Convenience

B)

Cluster

C)

Purposive

D)

Quota

The nurse researcher is using a sampling design that is especially likely to yield a 10. representative sample. What type of sample is this called?

A)

Systematic

B)

Convenience

C)

Purposive

D)

Quota

11.

Which type of sample is considered to be the weakest for quantitative studies?

A)

Convenience

B)

Quota

C)

Purposive

D)

Systematic

The nurse is hand picking the sample based on the researcher's knowledge about 12. the population. What type of sample is this called?

A)

Purposive

B)

Snowball

C)

Network

D)

Chain

The nurse researcher is trying to yield a 13. representative sample. What type of nonprobability design should be utilized?

A)

Quota

B)

Snowball

C)

Network

D)

Chain

The nurse researcher has to consider the procedure of weighing in the sample.

14.

What type of sampling design would be considered?

A)

Proportionate

B)

Disproportionate

C)

Simple random

D)

Quota

A nurse research used a probability type systematic sampling plan. The sample size 15. was 200. The sampling interval was 250.

The first element drawn was 196. What would the second element be?

A)

396

B)

446

C)

496

D)

646

A nurse researcher used a systematic sampling design. The known population 16. size is 3200, and the desired sample size is 160. What is the sampling interval?

A)

16

B)

20

C)

160

D)

320

What type of sampling divides the 17. population into homogeneous strata from which elements are selected at random?

A)

Probability sampling

B)

Simple random sampling

C)

Stratified random sampling

D)

Cluster sampling

The nurse researcher is reviewing a 18. research article that used a cluster sample.

What is a cluster sample?

A)

Selection of every kth case from a list

B)

Standard distance between the selected elements in the sample

C)

Multistaged selection of random samples from larger units

D)

Divides the population into homogeneous strata to ensure representation of subgroups

19.

What type of analysis do nurse researchers use to estimate sample size needs?

A)

Power

B)

Systematic

C)

Interval

D)

Multistage

The nurse researcher is reviewing a 20. research article that used systematic sampling. What is systematic sampling?

A)

Selection of every kth case from a list

B)

Standard distance between the selected elements in the sample

C)

Multistaged selection of random samples from larger units

D)

Divides the population into homogeneous strata to ensure representation of subgroups

Answer Key 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. B 16. B 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. A Chapter 13 Data Collection in Quantitative Research Quantitative nurse researchers typically 1. develop a detailed data collection plan. At one point is this plan implemented?

A)

Before beginning data collection

B)

During data collection

C)

After data collection

D)

Before beginning and during data collection

A nurse researcher documents the number of times a mother made positive, 2. encouraging comments to the toddler. This is an example of what?

A)

Structured self-report

B)

Unstructured self-report

C)

Structured observation

D)

Unstructured observation

What is the first step in the development 3. of a data collection plan in a quantitative study?

A)

Locating existing instruments for key constructs

B)

Identifying and prioritizing data needs

C)

Developing suitable forms for data collection

D)

Pretesting data collection instruments

When a nurse researcher is selecting an 4. instrument for a research project, what is the primary consideration?

A)

Conceptual relevance

B)

Data quality

C)

Cost

D)

Reputation

What is advisable for a nurse researcher 5. who is administering a questionnaire to a highly disadvantaged population?

A)

Pretest the questionnaire with a less disadvantaged sample.

B)

Collect data about the study participants' reactions to the study.

C)

Determine the readability level of the questionnaire.

D)

Use mostly open-ended questions in the questionnaire.

When would a nurse researcher not 6. consider the use of a pretest in a quantitative research design?

A)

Assess whether the sequencing of questions or instruments is sensible.

B)

Determine if the measures yield data with sufficient variability.

C)

Identify questions that participants find objectionable or offensive.

D)

Prioritize data collection requirements.

The nurse researcher has finalized the instrument package and has to develop 7. various forms. Which form will not be necessary at this time?

A)

Screening

B)

Informed consent

C)

Administrative logs

D)

Referral

Nurse researchers develop data collection protocols to ensure accurate, valid, and 8. meaningful data. What is a data collection protocol?

A)

Spells out procedures to be used in data collection

B)

Very important in qualitative research to minimize subjectivity

C)

Developed after research staff is trained

D)

Varies only marginally from one study to another study

9.

What method of data collection is most widely used by nurse researchers?

A)

Structured self-report

B)

Unstructured self-report

C)

Structured observation

D)

Unstructured observation

The nurse researcher is using a structured self-report instrument with open- and 10. closed-ended questions. What is an openended question?

A)

Permits respondents to reply in narrative fashion

B)

Offers response alternatives from which respondents must choose

C)

Offers a range of alternatives

D)

Requires a choice between two options

The nurse researcher is using a structured self-report instrument with dichotomous 11. questions. What is a dichotomous question?

A)

Permits respondents to reply in narrative fashion

B)

Offers response alternatives from which respondents must choose

C)

Offers a range of alternatives

D)

Requires a choice between two options

The nurse researcher is using a structured self-report instrument with forced-choice 12. questions. What is a forced-choice question?

A)

Requires a choice between two options

B)

Offers a range of alternatives

C)

Respondents are asked to rank concepts on a continuum

D)

Requires respondents to choose between two competing positions

The nurse researcher is using the FACES 13. pain scale instrument. What is this an example of?

A)

Forced-choice question

B)

Rating question

C)

Checklist

D)

Visual analog scale

The nurse researcher is using a composite 14. psychosocial scale. What is a composite psychosocial scale?

A)

Several questions with the same response format

B)

Multiple-item self-report tool for measuring the degree to which individuals possess target attributes.

C)

Comprises a series of statements about a phenomenon

D)

Consists of a series of bipolar rating scales on which respondents indicate reactions toward a phenomenon

15.

The nurse researcher reads about Q sort in a research article. What is Q sort?

A)

Sorts a set of card statements into piles according to specified criteria

B)

Several questions with the same response format

C)

Comprises a series of statements about a phenomenon

D)

Consists of a series of bipolar rating scales on which respondents indicate reactions toward a phenomenon

What type of research activity is used to 16. assess respondents' perceptions, hypothetical behaviors, or decisions?

A)

Q sorts

B)

Semantic differentials

C)

Event history calendar

D)

Vignettes

Structured self-reports are vulnerable to the risk of reporting biases. What type of bias is occurring when the tendency of 17. some people is to respond to questions in characteristic ways, independent of content?

A)

Response set

B)

Social desirability

C)

Extreme response

D)

Acquiescence

18.

The nurse researcher is involved in time sampling. What is time sampling?

A)

Captures data about the occurrence of events

B)

Specification of the duration and frequency of observational periods and intersession intervals

C)

Selects integral behaviors or events of a special type for observation

D)

Observers rate phenomena along a dimension that is typically bipolar

The nurse researcher reads that the halo 19. effect occurred during data collection.

What is the halo effect?

A)

Tendency for observers to rate everything positively

B)

Tendency for observers to rate everything harshly

C)

Tendency of observers to be influenced by one characteristic in judging other, unrelated characteristics

D)

Occurs when extreme events are distorted toward middle ground

Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. D 8. A 9. A 10. A 11. D 12. D 13. D 14. B 15. A 16. D 17. A 18. B 19. C Chapter 14 Measurement and Data Quality

Quantitative studies derive data through 1. the measurement of variables. What is measurement?

A)

Involves assigning numbers to represent the amount of an attribute present in an object or person, using a specified set of rules

B)

Capacity of a numeric expression signifying how much of an attribute is present

C)

Signifies equivalence or similarity between two phenomena

D)

The consistency with which it measures the target attributes

Researchers try to link numeric values to reality. Measurement procedures are 2. ideally isomorphic to reality. What is isomorphism?

A)

Involves assigning numbers to represent the amount of an attribute present in an object or person, using a specified set of rules

B)

Capacity of a numeric expression signifying how much of an attribute is present

C)

Signifies equivalence or similarity between two phenomena

D)

The consistency with which it measures the target attributes

3.

What is the difference between a true score and an obtained score?

A)

Situational contaminant

B)

Response set bias

C)

Transitory personal factor

D)

Error of measurement

Many factors contribute to errors of measurement. Some errors are random 4. while others are systematic, reflecting bias. What is one source of measurement error in social psychological scales?

A)

Situational contaminant

B)

Response set bias

C)

Transitory personal factor

D)

Error of measurement

Scales and tests that involve summing item scores are typically evaluated. The 5. nurse research would use Cronbach's alpha to determine which attribute of an instrument?

A)

Stability

B)

Internal consistency

C)

Equivalence

D)

Sensitivity

6.

What aspect of reliability for which interobserver reliability is appropriate?

A)

Stability

B)

Internal consistency

C)

Equivalence

D)

Sensitivity

Which value obtained by the nurse 7. research reflects the highest internal consistency?

A)

.00

B)

.99

C)

1.00

D)

10.0

8.

What type of validity employs logical analysis and hypothesis tests?

A)

Content

B)

Face

C)

Criterion

D)

Construct

What type of validity refers to whether the 9. instrument appears to be measuring the appropriate construct?

A)

Content

B)

Face

C)

Criterion

D)

Construct

The nurse researcher is identifying unitary 10. clusters of items or measures. What measurement does this represent?

A)

Known-groups technique

B)

Factor analysis

C)

Predictive validity

D)

Concurrent validity

The nurse researcher knows that there are 11. two primary criteria for assessment of an instrument. What is reliability?

A)

Degree of consistency or accuracy with which an instrument measures an attribute

B)

Magnitude and direction of a relationship between two variables

C)

Extent to which an instrument yields the same results on repeated administrations

D)

Extent to which an instrument's items are measuring the same attribute

12.

Which statement accurately describes an instrument's reliability?

A)

The lower an instrument's reliability, the lower the amount of error in obtained scores.

B)

The lower an instrument's reliability, the higher the amount of error in obtained scores.

C)

The higher an instrument's reliability, the lower the amount of error in obtained scores.

The higher an instrument's reliability, the higher the amount of error in obtained scores.

D)

When ratings are dichotomous, which 13. equation would be used to calculate the proportion of agreements?

A)

Number of disagreement/Number of agreement plus disagreements

B)

Number of agreements/Number of agreements in the population

C)

Number of agreement/Number of agreement plus disagreements

D)

Number of disagreements/Number of agreements in the population

What is the correct formula for the nurse 14. researcher to use to identify the observed total variability in scores?

A)

VO = VT + VE

B)

VT = VO + VE

C)

VE = VT + VO

D)

VV = VT + VE

15.

What type of validity uses a multitrait– multimethod matrix technique?

A)

Content

B)

Face

C)

Criterion

D)

Construct

The validity approach of multitrait– multimethod matrix technique is based on 16. the concepts of convergence and discriminability. What is convergence?

A)

Different method of measuring the same attributes yielding similar results

B)

Ability to differentiate the construct being measured from other similar concepts

C)

Instrument's ability to identify a case correctly

D)

Instrument's ability to identify noncases correctly

Sensitivity and specificity are important 17. criteria for screening and diagnostic instruments. What is sensitivity?

A)

Different method of measuring the same attributes yielding similar results

B)

Ability to differentiate the construct being measured from other similar concepts

C)

Instrument's ability to identify a case correctly

D)

Instrument's ability to identify noncases correctly.

Sensitivity and specificity are important 18. criteria for screening and diagnostic instruments. What is specificity?

A)

Different method of measuring the same attributes yielding similar results

B)

Ability to differentiate the construct being measured from other similar concepts

C)

Instrument's ability to identify a case correctly

D)

Instrument's ability to identify noncases correctly.

The validity approach of multitrait– multimethod matrix technique is based on 19. the concepts of convergence and discriminability. What is discriminability?

A)

Different method of measuring the same attributes yielding similar results

B)

Ability to differentiate the construct being measured from other similar concepts

C)

Instrument's ability to identify a case correctly

D)

Instrument's ability to identify noncases correctly

20.

When is the Spearman-Brown prophecy formula used?

A)

To estimate how reliable a scale would be with more items

B)

To estimate how reliable a scale would be with fewer items

C)

To estimate how valid a scale would be with more items

D)

To estimate how valid a scale would be with fewer items

Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. D 16. A 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. B Chapter 15 Developing and Testing Self-Report Scales

1.

Where do items for a new scale come from?

A)

Researcher's intuition

B)

Research literature

C)

Construct analysis

D)

Nursing examination questions

2.

What variable does scale development begin?

A)

Latent

B)

Content

C)

Independent

D)

Dependent

3.

What is the first step in scale development?

A)

Deciding on the type of scale

B)

Developing an item pool.

C)

Preliminary evaluation of the items

D)

Conceptualizing the construct

Why do some authors prefer to have an 4. even number of item responses on a Likert scale?

A)

Provides respondents with an opportunity to be neutral

B)

Forces even mild leanings and avoids equivocation

C)

Minimizes the possibility of an acquiescence response set

D)

Ensures generating a fairly exhaustive set of item possibilities

Most Likert scales have 5 to 7 options, with verbal descriptors attached to each 5. option. What is the advantage to an odd number of item responses on a Likert scale?

A)

Provides respondents with an opportunity to be neutral

B)

Forces even mild leanings and avoids equivocation

C)

Minimizes the possibility of an acquiescence response set

D)

Ensures generating a fairly exhaustive set of item possibilities

6.

What is an appropriate item on a Likert scale?

A)

Good health is important.

B)

People who do not take care of themselves should be shot.

C)

Eating well will ensure that I live to be 100.

D)

I would be very happy to eat more vegetables every day.

7.

What is an appropriate guideline for wording questions on a scale?

A)

Aim for a reading level at the 6th- to 7thgrade reading level.

B)

Use long sentences or phrases to ensure clarity.

C)

Use double negatives to word questions in a positive way.

D)

Put two or more ideas in a single item to save reading.

8. What is a double-barreled item?

A)

I am usually happy.

B)

I am usually not sad.

C)

I am not usually unhappy.

D)

I am afraid of insects and snakes.

9. What is a double negative item?

A)

I am usually happy.

B)

I am usually not sad.

C)

I am not usually unhappy.

D)

I am afraid of insects and snakes.

10.

What type of analysis is used for data collected from the development sample?

A)

Item

B)

Trend

C)

Readability

D)

Content

What type of validity should be built into 11. the scale through careful efforts to conceptualize the construct?

A)

Construct

B)

Content

C)

Concurrent

D)

Concordant

A nurse researcher wants a good mix of experts to review a survey addressing RNs' knowledge about nutritional assessment 12. and support. The nurse researcher should be sure to invite which group of individuals to participate?

A)

The faculty from the nearest school of nursing

B)

A group of bench researchers from the medical school

C)

Three RNs who belong to the national gastrointestinal nurses association

D)

Clergy who work with hospice patients and their families

Once content validity has been established at a satisfactory level, the scale must be administered to a development sample.

13.

What is the typical number or more of respondents who are representative of the target population?

A)

150

B)

200

C)

250

D)

300

14. What does exploratory factor analysis do?

A)

Reduce a small set of variables into a smaller set of underlying dimensions

B)

Reduce a large set of variables into a larger set of underlying dimensions

C)

Reduce a small set of variables into a larger set of underlying dimensions

D)

Reduce a large set of variables into a smaller set of underlying dimensions

15.

What is the second phase of exploratory factor analysis?

A)

Factor extraction

B)

Factor rotation

C)

Principal components analysis

D)

Principal axis factor analysis

What phase of exploratory factor analysis identifies clusters of items that are 16. strongly intercorrelated and is used to define the number of underlying dimensions in the items empirically?

A)

Factor extraction

B)

Factor rotation

C)

Orthogonal

D)

Oblique

What type of factor of the items on the 17. rotated factor matrix is used to interpret and name the factors?

A)

Analysis

B)

Extraction

C)

Rotation

D)

Loading

What is the gold standard translation for semantic equivalence in which the scale is first translated from the source language 18. into the target language and then translated back to the source language by translators blind to the original wording?

A)

Measurement

B)

Structural

C)

Decentered

D)

Back

This type of equivalence occurs when each item's meaning is the same in the target 19. culture after translation as it was in the original language?

A)

Conceptual

B)

Semantic

C)

Back

D)

Decentered

20.

There are several steps to a backtranslation. What is the first step?

A)

Selecting and preparing translators

B)

Undertaking an iterative process

C)

Testing the translated version

D)

Critiquing the translated version

Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. A Chapter 16 Descriptive Statistics

1.

A)

There are four levels of measurement.

What is ordinal measurement?

Classification of characteristics into mutually exclusive categories

B)

Ranking of objects based on their relative standing on an attribute

C)

Indicating not only the ranking of objects but the amount of distance between them

D)

Distinguished from interval measurement by having a rational zero point

2.

Which is an example of an interval measurement?

A)

Gender

B)

Fahrenheit temperature scale

C)

Blood type

D)

Marital status

3.

There are four levels of measurement.

What is nominal measurement?

A)

Classification of characteristics into mutually exclusive categories

B)

Ranking of objects based on their relative standing on an attribute

C)

Indicating not only the ranking of objects but the amount of distance between them

D)

Distinguished from interval measurement by having a rational zero point

4. What is the highest measurement level?

A)

Nominal

B)

Ordinal

C)

Interval

D)

Ratio

5.

Which is an example of a ratio measurement?

A)

Weight

B)

Married

C)

B positive blood

D)

Female

It is not always easy to identify a variable's 6. level of measurement. Which measures usually are discernible?

A)

Nominal and ordinal

B)

Ordinal and interval

C)

Ratio and interval

D)

Ratio and nominal

What type of data can researchers 7. summarize and describe with descriptive statistics?

A)

Qualitative

B)

Quantitative

C)

Qualitative and quantitative

D)

Neither qualitative or quantitative

8.

What type of distribution is used to organize numeric data?

A)

Frequency

B)

Unimodal

C)

Multimodal

D)

Normal

What is the name for the shape of distribution that occurs when the nurse 9. researcher has a bell-shaped curve distribution?

A)

Frequency

B)

Unimodal

C)

Multimodal

D)

Normal

10.

What does a layperson call the center of a distribution?

A)

Average

B)

Central tendency

C)

Median

D)

Mean

11.

What is the value that occurs most frequently in a distribution?

A)

Average

B)

Mode

C)

Median

D)

Mean

12.

What is the preferred measure of central tendency?

A)

Average

B)

Mode

C)

Median

D)

Mean

The nurse researcher is examining how 13. spread out the data is. Which are measures of variability?

A)

Range and deviation scores

B)

Standard deviation and variance

C)

Standard deviation and deviation scores

D)

Range and variance

14.

The nurse researcher has scores from 62 to 98 on the exam. What is the range?

A)

36

B)

62

C)

98

D)

160

The nurse researcher is calculating the 15. standard deviation. What is the standard deviation?

A)

The average amount of deviation of values from the mode and is calculated for every other score

B)

The average amount of deviation of values from the median and is calculated for every other score

C)

The average amount of deviation of values from the mean and is calculated for every score

D)

The average amount of deviation of values from the median and is calculated for every score

The nurse researcher is reading about bivariate descriptive statistics. Bivariate 16. descriptive statistics describe how many relationships between variables?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

17.

What systems of measurement are crosstabulated on a contingency table?

A)

Nominal and ordinal

B)

Ordinal and interval

C)

Ratio and interval

D)

Ratio and nominal

Correlation coefficients describe the 18. direction and magnitude of a relationship between how many variables?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

The nurse researcher knows that the most frequently used correlation coefficient is 19. the product–moment correlation coefficient (Pearson's r). What measurement variables are used?

A)

Nominal and ordinal

B)

Ordinal and interval

C)

Ratio and interval

D)

Ratio and nominal

Several risk indexes describe outcomes in relation to exposures for a two-group situation with dichotomous outcomes.

These indexes provide useful information 20. for making clinical decisions. What index expresses the estimated proportion of people who would be spared from an adverse outcome through exposure to an intervention?

A)

Absolute risk reduction

B)

Relative risk reduction

C)

Odds ratio

D)

Number needed to treat

Answer Key 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. D 13. D 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. A Chapter 17 Inferential Statistics

1.

A)

What does inferential statistics permit the researcher to do?

Generalize to a population based on data from a sample.

B)

Describe information from empirical observation.

C)

Interpret descriptive statistics.

D)

Reject the null hypothesis.

The nurse researcher is reading about the 2. standard deviation of a sampling distribution. What is this called?

A)

Sampling error

B)

Standard error

C)

Variance

D)

Mean square

3.

What is a major factor affecting standard error of the mean?

A)

Value of the score range

B)

Shape of the sampling distribution

C)

Sample size

D)

Value of the mean

What is a theoretical distribution of the 4. means of an infinite number of samples drawn from a population called?

A)

Sampling error

B)

Sampling distribution of the mean

C)

Standard error of the mean

D)

Point estimation

Statistical inference consists of two approaches: estimating parameters and 5. testing hypotheses. What is point estimation?

A)

Provides an estimate of a population parameter

B)

Provides a single descriptive value of the population estimate

C)

Provides the upper and lower limits of a range of values

D)

Provides the ability to make objective decisions about hypothesis validity

6.

A 95% confidence level is associated with how many standard deviation units?

A)

1.96

B)

2.58

C)

Depends on the test statistic

D)

Depends on the sample size

What is the statistical procedure that is used to determine whether a significant 7. difference exists between any numbers of group means?

A)

t-test

B)

ANOVA

C)

Correlation coefficient

D)

Mann Whitney U test

What test would a nurse researcher use to 8. test hypotheses about group differences in proportions?

A)

t-test

B)

ANOVA

C)

Correlation coefficient

D)

Chi-square

The independent variable is weight gain during pregnancy. The dependent variable 9. is the infant's birth weight. What is the appropriate test statistic?

A)

t-test

B)

ANOVA

C)

Chi-square

D)

Pearson's r

The independent variable is marital status.

The dependent variable is whether or not 10. the person had been hospitalized in the preceding 12 months. What is the appropriate statistical test?

A)

t-test

B)

ANOVA

C)

Chi-square

D)

Pearson's r

The independent variable is treatment group. The dependent variable is an 11. infants' length of stay in the hospital after birth. What is the appropriate statistical test?

A)

t-test

B)

ANOVA

C)

Correlation coefficient

D)

Mann Whitney U test

12.

What must the nurse researcher estimate in power analysis?

A)

Significance level

B)

Effect size

C)

Power criterion

D)

Type I error

Statistical inference consists of two approaches: estimating parameters and 13. testing hypotheses. What is interval estimation?

A)

Provides an estimate of a population parameter

B)

Provides a single descriptive value of the population estimate

C)

Provides the upper and lower limits of a range of values

D)

Provides the ability to make objective decisions about hypothesis validity

What does hypothesis testing through 14. statistical procedures enable researchers to do?

A)

Make objective decisions about the validity of the hypotheses.

B)

Make objective decisions about the reliability of the hypotheses.

C)

Make subjective decisions about the validity of the hypotheses.

D)

Make subjective decisions about the reliability of the hypotheses.

15. What is a null hypothesis?

A)

There is a positive relationship between research variables.

B)

There is a negative relationship between research variables.

C)

There is a false positive relationship between research variables.

D)

There is no relationship between research variables.

16. What occurs with a Type I error?

A)

There is a positive relationship between research variables.

B)

There is a negative relationship between research variables.

C)

There is a false positive relationship between research variables.

D)

There is a false negative relationship between research variables.

17. What occurs with a Type II error?

A)

There is a positive relationship between research variables.

B)

There is a negative relationship between research variables.

C)

There is a false positive relationship between research variables.

D)

There is a false negative relationship between research variables.

18. Most testing involves which type of test?

A)

One tailed

B)

Two tailed

C)

Parametric

D)

Nonparametric

What is the statistical test to measure the magnitude of bivariate relationships and to 19. test whether the relationship is significantly different from zero for interval-level data?

A)

Pearson's r

B)

Spearman's rho

C)

Kendall's tau

D)

phi coefficient

What is the statistical test to measure the magnitude of bivariate relationships and to 20. test whether the relationship is significantly different from zero for nominal-level data?

A)

Pearson's r

B)

Spearman's rho

C)

Kendall's tau

D)

phi coefficient

Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. C 11. B 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. D 18. B 19. A 20. A Chapter 18 Multivariate Statistics Multivariate statistical procedures are increasingly being used in nursing 1. research to untangle complex relationships among a minimum of how many variables?

A)

One

B)

Two

C)

Three

D)

Four

The nurse researcher is reviewing a simple 2. regression equation (Y = a + bX). What does the a stand for?

A)

Predicted value of variable Y

B)

Intercept constant

C)

Regression coefficient

D)

Actual value of variable X

The nurse researcher is reading about 3. linear regression. What is linear regression?

A)

Make predictions about the values of one variable based on values of a second variable

B)

Make predictions about the values of two variables based on values of a third and fourth variables

C)

Method of predicting a continuous dependent variable on the basis of two or more independent variables

D)

Method of predicting a continuous independent variable on the basis of two or more predictor variables

The nurse researcher is reading about 4. multiple regression. What is multiple regression?

A)

Make predictions about the values of one variable based on values of a second variable

B)

Make predictions about the values of two variables based on values of a third and fourth variables

C)

Method of predicting a continuous dependent variable on the basis of two or more independent variables

D)

Method of predicting a continuous independent variable on the basis of two or more predictor variables

The nurse researcher knows that the basic null hypothesis in multiple regression is 5. that the population multiple correlation coefficient is equal to what number?

A)

0

B)

.50

C)

.75

D)

1.00

6.

The nurse researcher student is reviewing key terminology. What is a beta weight?

A)

Standardized regression coefficient

B)

Effect size

C)

Equivalent of the intercept constant

D)

Square of R

Analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) removes the effect of what type of 7. variables before testing whether mean group differences on the outcome variable are statistically significant?

A)

Independent

B)

Mediating

C)

Confounding

D)

Dichotomous

8.

What is a simultaneous multiple regression?

A)

Enters all predictor variables into the regression equation at the same time

B)

Enters predictors into the equation in a series of steps controlled by researchers

C)

Enters predictors in steps using a statistical criterion for order of entry

D)

Enters all predictor variables into the regression using a statistical criterion for order of entry

9. What is a stepwise multiple regression?

A)

Enters all predictor variables into the regression equation at the same time

B)

Enters predictors into the equation in a series of steps controlled by researchers

C)

Enters predictors in steps using a statistical criterion for order of entry

Enters all predictor variables into the regression using a statistical criterion for order of entry

D)

What is the statistical procedure when a nurse researcher wants to predict whether 10. pressure ulcers develop in clients with fractured hips using age, gender, and hemoglobin levels as predictors?

A)

Least squares estimation

B)

Maximum likelihood estimation

C)

Analysis of covariance

D)

Discriminant analysis

11.

What is the dependent variable of interest for survival analysis?

A)

Age

B)

Gender

C)

Time

D)

Vital signs

What is the statistical procedure used when a nurse researcher wants to test a 12. causal model to explain smoking habits in teenagers?

A)

Path analysis

B)

Survival analysis

C)

Discriminant analysis

D)

Multivariate analysis of variance

13. What is a hierarchical multiple regression?

A)

Enters all predictor variables into the regression equation at the same time

B)

Enters predictors into the equation in a series of steps controlled by researchers

C)

Enters predictors in steps using a statistical criterion for order of entry

D)

Enters all predictor variables into the regression using a statistical criterion for order of entry

14. When is discriminant analysis used?

A)

Make predictions about dependent variable that are categorical on the basis of one predictor variable

B)

Make predictions about dependent variables that are categorical on the basis of two or more predictor variables

C)

Make predictions about independent variable that are categorical on the basis of one predictor variable

D)

Make predictions about independent variables that are categorical on the basis of two or more predictor variables

The nurse researcher knows that the correlation between two variables is rarely 15. perfect. Researchers try to improve predictions by including what type of variables?

A)

Multiple independent variables or predictor variables

B)

Multiple dependent variables or predictor variables

C)

Multiple independent and dependent variables

D)

Multiple social and time variables

The nurse researcher is reviewing a multiple regression equation.

16.

Y' = a + b1X1 + b2X2 + . . . bkXk What does the k stand for?

A)

Intercept constant

B)

Number of predictor (independent) variables

C)

Regression coefficients for the k variables

D)

Scores or values on the k independent variables

With two or more independent variables, the index is the multiple correlation 17. coefficient or R. What is the range of the R value?

A)

–0.1 to 0.0

B)

–0.1 to 1.5

C)

0.0 to .50

D)

0.0 to 1.0

Small samples are especially problematic in multiple regression and other 18. multivariate procedures. What type of errors can inadequate sample size lead to?

A)

Type I

B)

Type II

C)

Type III

D)

Type IV

One approach to estimating sample size needs the ratio of predictor variables to 19. total number of cases. Some experts recommend a ratio of 20 to 1 for which regressions?

A)

Stepwise and simultaneous

B)

Stepwise and hierarchical

C)

Simultaneous and hierarchical

D)

Stepwise

20. What is an adjusted means?

A)

Group means on the independent variable before adjusting for covariates

B)

Group means on the dependent variable before adjusting for covariates

C)

Group means on the independent variable after adjusting for covariates

D)

Group means on the dependent variable after adjusting for covariates

Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. D 11. C 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. D 18. B 19. C 20. D Chapter 19 Processes of Quantitative Data Analysis

Researchers who collect quantitative data typically progress through a series of steps in the analysis and interpretation of their 1. data. Careful researchers lay out a data analysis plan in advance to guide that progress. What phase involves various clerical and administrative tasks?

A)

Preanalysis

B)

Preliminary assessments and actions

C)

Principal analysis

D)

Interpretation of quantitative results

Careful researchers lay out a data analysis plan in advance to guide that progress.

2.

What phase involves collection of data on numerous variables?

A)

Preanalysis

B)

Preliminary assessments and actions

C)

Principal analysis

D)

Interpretation of quantitative results

3. How must quantitative data be coded?

A)

Missing values

B)

Letter codes

C)

Numerical values

D)

Wild codes

4. What is a wild code?

A)

Numerical value

B)

Missing value

C)

Values that lie outside the normal range of values

D)

Codes that are not legitimate

5.

What is the error prone process that requires verification?

A)

Outliers

B)

Data cleaning

C)

Data entry

D)

Consistency checks

Decisions on handling missing values must be based on the amount of missing 6. data and how missing data are patterned.

When is addressing missing data especially important?

A)

Sensitivity analyses

B)

Intention-to-treat analyses

C)

Missing completely at random values pattern

D)

Missing at random values pattern

Steps must almost always be taken to evaluate missing data problems. What 7. occurs with a missing completely at random values pattern?

A)

Missing values are just a random sample of all cases in the population.

B)

Missing values are just a random subsample of all cases in the sample.

C)

Missingness is related to other variables but not related to the value of the variable that has the missing values.

D)

A pattern in which the value of the variable is missing is related to its missingness.

There are two missing values strategies that involve deletion or imputation. What 8. is the analysis of those cases for which there are no missing data?

A)

Listwise deletion

B)

Pairwise deletion

C)

Available case analysis

D)

Data transformations

There are two missing values strategies that involve deletion or imputation. What 9. is the most widely used approach to delete cases selectively on a variable-by-variable basis?

A)

Listwise deletion

B)

Pairwise deletion

C)

Complete case analysis

D)

Data transformations

There are two missing values strategies that involve deletion or imputation. What 10. is occurring with a regression-based estimation of missing values?

A)

Mean substitution

B)

Expectation maximization imputation

C)

Complete case analysis

D)

Available case analysis

11.

What is an activity that is completed during the preanalysis phase?

A)

Entering, verifying, and cleaning data

B)

Assessing and handling missing values problems

C)

Assessing data quality

D)

Assessing bias

A data cleaning procedure involves 12. consistency checks. What does this focus on?

A)

Internal data consistency

B)

External data consistency

C)

Checking for outliers

D)

Checking for wild codes

13.

What is the best method for addressing missing value problems?

A)

Expectation maximization

B)

Multiple imputations

C)

Mean substitution

D)

Subgroup mean substitution

14.

What is the simplest imputation procedure?

A)

Expectation maximization

B)

Multiple imputations

C)

Mean substitution

D)

Subgroup mean substitution

Assessing data quality is an early analytic task. A value is considered an extreme 15. outlier when if it is how many times greater than the interquartile range above the third quartile?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

Researchers often undertake preliminary analyses to assess biases. What type of bias should nurse researchers check for 16. when nonrandomized comparison groups are used and compared to the groups' baseline characteristics?

A)

Nonresponsive

B)

Volunteer

C)

Selection

D)

Attrition

Researchers often undertake preliminary analyses to assess biases. What type of 17. bias should nurse researchers check for when there are multiple points of data collection?

A)

Nonresponse

B)

Volunteer

C)

Selection

D)

Attrition

18.

What is occurring with the KolmorogovSmirnov test?

A)

Tests that the distribution deviates significantly from a normal distribution.

B)

Tests that the median deviates significantly from a normal distribution.

C)

Tests that the distribution does not deviate significantly from a normal distribution.

D)

Tests that the median does not deviate significantly from a normal distribution.

What effect can occur when a nurse researcher accumulates a sample over an 19. extended period of time to achieve adequate sample sizes?

A)

Overt effect

B)

Cohort effect

C)

Ordering effect

D)

Carryover effect

What type of analysis occurs when test 20. research hypotheses using different assumptions or different strategies?

A)

Substantive

B)

Descriptive

C)

Supplementary

D)

Sensitivity

Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. C 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. D Chapter 20 Clinical Significance and Interpretation of Quantitative Results 1. Which type of research design focuses on implementation of a treatment by the researcher? a.

Correlational

b.

Descriptive

c.

Experimental

d.

Longitudinal

ANS: C Feedback

A

Correlational and descriptive designs are nonexperimental studies that focus on examining variables as they naturally occur and not on the implementation of a treatment by the researcher.

B

Correlational and descriptive designs are nonexperimental studies that focus on examining variables as they naturally occur and not on the implementation of a treatment by the researcher.

C

Quasi-experimental and experimental studies are designed to examine causality between a researcher-implemented treatment and a study outcome.

D

Longitudinal design refers to data collection from the same subjects at different points in time and may or may not be used with experimental or nonexperimental studies.

2. A researcher administers a written test to evaluate knowledge of insulin administration and glucose monitoring to a group of subjects at annual intervals over the next decade. This is an example of which type of study design? a.

Correlational

b.

Cross-sectional

c.

Descriptive

d.

Longitudinal

ANS: D Feedback A

Correlational studies seek to examine relationships among variables without manipulation of a treatment by the researcher.

B

Cross-sectional designs examine a group of subjects simultaneously in various stages of development, illness severity, or recovery to identify changes in a phenomenon across stages.

C

A descriptive study is used to examine variables as they occur naturally without manipulation of variables.

D

Longitudinal design refers to data collection from the same subjects at different points in time.

3. A nurse researcher wishes to identify rates of pertussis infection in children less than one year of age and then again at 6 years of age to examine the relationship of immunization status on infection rates in this population. This is an example of which type of study design? a.

Correlational, longitudinal

b.

Correlational, cross-sectional

c.

Descriptive, longitudinal

d.

Descriptive, cross-sectional

ANS: A Feedback

A

A correlational study design looks at predictive relationships between variables. A longitudinal study design refers to data collection from the same subjects at different points in time.

B

Cross-sectional designs examine a group of subjects simultaneously in various stages of development, illness severity, or recovery to identify changes in a phenomenon across stages.

C

A descriptive study is used to examine variables as they occur naturally without manipulation.

D

Cross-sectional designs examine a group of subjects simultaneously in various stages of development, illness severity, or recovery to identify changes in a phenomenon across stages. A descriptive study is used to examine variables as they occur naturally without manipulation.

4. Which statement is true about a descriptive study design? a.

It is not possible to operationally define variables in this type of study.

b.

Sample selection and size cannot be controlled in descriptive studies.

c.

This type of design is used to identify problems occurring in practice.

d.

Variables may be manipulated to avoid bias in this type of study.

ANS: C Feedback A

Descriptive designs may involve operational definitions of variables, but variables are not manipulated in descriptive studies.

B

Protection against bias in a descriptive design is achieved through conceptual and operational definition of variables, sample selection and size, valid and reliable instruments, and data collection procedures that partially control the environment.

C

Descriptive designs may be used to develop theories and identify problems with current practice.

D

Protection against bias in a descriptive design is achieved through conceptual and operational definition of variables, sample selection and size, valid and reliable instruments, and data collection procedures that partially control the environment.

5. A nurse conducts a study to see whether there are differences in the number of books Latino parents and the number of books African-American parents read to their toddlers each week.

Which type of study will this researcher utilize? a.

Comparative descriptive

b.

Correlational

c.

Cross-sectional

d.

Longitudinal

ANS: A Feedback

A

A comparative descriptive design is used to describe variables and to examine differences in variables in two or more groups that occur naturally in a setting that may have been formed using gender, age, or socioeconomic status.

B

A correlational study design looks at predictive relationships between variables.

C

Cross-sectional designs examine a group of subjects simultaneously in various stages of development, illness severity, or recovery to identify changes in a phenomenon across stages.

D

Longitudinal design refers to data collection from the same subjects at different points in time.

6. A researcher wishes to conduct a correlational study to determine whether there is a relationship between stress levels and relapse rates among patients who have chronic conditions.

In order to determine the existence of a relationship between these two variables, the researcher will attempt to: a.

manipulate the level of stress in study subjects.

b.

obtain a large range of possible scores.

c.

provide lengthy descriptions of subjects behaviors.

d.

randomly assign subjects to study groups.

ANS: B Feedback A

Correlational studies do not involve manipulation of a variable.

B

In correlational designs, a large range in the variable scores is necessary to determine the existence of a relationship.

C

Providing lengthy descriptions of subjects behaviors is a necessary part of the discussion of the results, but it does not determine the existence of a relationship.

D

Subjects in correlational studies are not randomly assigned to study groups.

7. If a researcher wishes to describe variables and to examine many relationships in a study, which type of study design will the researcher employ? a.

Correlational

b.

Descriptive

c.

Descriptive correlational

d.

Descriptive cross-sectional

ANS: C Feedback A

Correlational studies seek to examine relationships among variables without manipulation of a treatment by the researcher.

B

A descriptive study is used to examine variables as they occur naturally without manipulation of variables.

C

A descriptive correlational design is used to describe variables and examine relationships among these variables. Using this design facilitates the identification of many interrelationships in a situation.

D

Cross-sectional designs examine a group of subjects simultaneously in various stages of development, illness severity, or recovery to identify changes in a phenomenon across stages.

8. A nurse researcher conducts a study to determine whether women who breastfeed their infants experience better sleep in the first two postpartum months. This study will employ which type of research design? a.

Correlational

b.

Descriptive

c.

Descriptive correlational

d.

Predictive correlational

ANS: D Feedback A

Correlational studies seek to examine relationships among variables without manipulation of a treatment by the researcher.

B

A descriptive study is used to examine variables as they occur naturally without manipulation of variables.

C

A descriptive correlational design is used to describe variables and examine relationships among these variables.

D

A predictive correlational design is used to predict the value of one variable based on the values obtained for another variable or variables.

9. A researcher theorizes a set of relationships among concepts used to describe why patients with chronic illness are often depressed. To test the accuracy of these hypothesized relationships, which type of study will be used? a.

Descriptive correlational

b.

Grounded theory

c.

Model testing

d.

Predictive correlational

ANS: C Feedback A

A descriptive correlational design is used to describe variables and examine relationships among these variables.

B

Grounded theory research is designed to generate theory and to develop new concepts.

C

The model testing design requires all concepts relevant to the model be measured and the relationships among these concepts examined.

D

A predictive correlational design is used to predict the value of one variable based on the values obtained for another variable or variables.

10. A researcher conducts a study to examine possible contributors to glycemic control in a group of subjects who have type 2 diabetes mellitus in a local community. A convenience sample of patients includes patients from 28 to 65 years old who range in weight from normal to obese, with time since diagnosis ranging from several months to several years. To determine causality in this study, the researcher will: a.

discuss outcomes in terms of the probability that education will improve glycemic control.

b.

increase the manipulation of the independent variable to allow greater control by the researcher.

c.

identify multicausal variables that may influence the outcome of glycemic control measures.

d.

limit the study to younger persons only to minimize the effects of extraneous variables.

ANS: C Feedback A

Probability addresses relative and not absolute causality and may be used when given effects are not produced consistently.

B

In this case, increasing the manipulation of the independent variable does not alter the influence of multiple causes.

C

Multicausality is the presence of multiple causes for an effect. In this study, patient age, weight, and length of time of diagnosis may all influence the outcome and should be addressed as factors that may alter the results.

D

Limiting the study to patients of a certain age only controls for one extraneous variable.

11. A study in which subjects are assigned by the researcher into experimental and control groups increases: a.

bias.

b.

control.

c.

manipulation

d.

validity.

ANS: A Feedback

A

Bias occurs when the attitudes or motivations of the researcher cause a deviation from a true measurement of the study variables. This may occur when researchers control assignment to study groups.

B

Control is used to manage manipulation of variables and to reduce extraneous factors in the environment that might alter outcomes.

C

Manipulation of independent variables is used to evaluate changes in dependent variables.

D

Researcher control over assignment into groups does not increase a studys validity.

12. In a quasi-experimental study examining the effects of nonpharmacologic treatments on postoperative pain management, the researcher trains nursing staff so that all experimental group subjects receive the same types of treatments. This is an example of: a.

bias.

b.

manipulation.

c.

reliability.

d.

validity.

ANS: B Feedback A

Bias refers to interference by the researcher that influences the outcome of a study.

B

Manipulation is a form of control used in quasi-experimental and experimental studies and may involve control of the intervention so that it is applied consistently.

C

Reliability and validity are related to consistency and trustworthiness of measurement tools.

D

Reliability and validity are related to consistency and trustworthiness of measurement tools.

13. A researcher conducts a quasi-experimental study to determine whether there is appropriate weight gain among premature infants who are fed according to cue-based protocols. The researcher trained neonatal intensive care nurses to apply cue-based feeding to orally fed infants

and notes a statistical difference in weight gain between infants fed according to cue-based protocols and those fed according to standard protocols. The reviewer critiquing the study notes that not all nurses completed the cue-based feeding module. This would affect which type of validity? a.

Construct validity

b.

External validity

c.

Internal validity

d.

Statistical conclusion validity

ANS: D Feedback A

Construct validity is concerned with the fit between conceptual and operational variables and requires adequate conceptual and operational definitions.

B

External validity is concerned with the extent to which findings can be generalized beyond the study sample.

C

Internal validity looks at the influence of extraneous variables on study outcomes.

D

Statistical conclusion validity is concerned with whether the conclusions based on statistical analyses are an accurate reflection of the real world. This can be threatened by anything interfering with consistent implementation of a variable, including inadequate training of individuals who implement the intervention.

14. A researcher conducts a quasi-experimental study to determine whether there is improved weight gain among premature infants who are fed according to cue-based protocols. The researcher trained neonatal intensive care nurses to apply cue-based feeding to orally fed infants and notes a statistical difference in weight gain between infants fed according to cue-based protocols and those fed according to standard protocols. The reviewer notes that components of cue-based feedings are not clearly identified. This is a threat to: a.

construct validity.

b.

external validity.

c.

internal validity.

d.

statistical conclusion validity.

ANS: A Feedback

A

Construct validity is concerned with the fit between conceptual and operational variables and requires adequate conceptual and operational definitions.

B

External validity is concerned with the extent to which findings can be generalized beyond the study sample.

C

Internal validity looks at the influence of extraneous variables on study outcomes.

D

Statistical conclusion validity is concerned with whether the conclusions based on statistical analyses are an accurate reflection of the real world.

15. A researcher conducts a quasi-experimental study to determine whether there is improved weight gain among premature infants who are fed according to cue-based protocols. The researcher trained neonatal intensive care nurses to apply cue-based feeding to orally fed infants and notes a statistical difference in weight gain between infants fed according to cue-based protocols and those fed according to standard protocols. Which might be a threat to internal validity in this study? a.

The concept of cue-based feeding is not well defined.

b.

The study sample is homogeneous.

c.

Some infants developed gastroenteritis.

d.

Not all nurses received cue-based protocol education.

ANS: C Feedback A

Inadequate definitions of constructs are threats to construct validity.

B

External validity is concerned with the extent to which findings can be generalized beyond the study sample. A study with a more homogenous sample is less likely to have findings that can be generalized to other populations.

C

Internal validity looks at the influence of extraneous variables on study outcomes.

D

Statistical conclusion validity is concerned with whether the conclusions based on statistical analyses are an accurate reflection of the real world. If not all nurses received cue-based education, the intervention implementation will be unreliable.

16. A researcher conducts a quasi-experimental study to determine whether there is improved weight gain among premature infants who are fed according to cue-based protocols. The researcher trained neonatal intensive care nurses to apply cue-based feeding to orally fed infants and notes a statistical difference in weight gain between infants fed according to cue-based protocols and those fed according to standard protocols. The reviewer notes that parents who

gave consent to participate in the study were from a higher socioeconomic class than the population as a whole. This is a threat to: a.

construct validity.

b.

external validity.

c.

internal validity.

d.

statistical conclusion validity.

ANS: B Feedback A

Construct validity is concerned with the fit between conceptual and operational variables and requires adequate conceptual and operational definitions.

B

External validity is concerned with the extent to which findings can be generalized beyond the study sample.

C

Internal validity looks at the influence of extraneous variables on study outcomes.

D

Statistical conclusion validity is concerned with whether the conclusions based on statistical analyses are an accurate reflection of the real world.

17. A researcher develops a 7-point Likert scale to evaluate feelings of well-being in patients who are undergoing chemotherapy. The researcher administers this measure to other, similar patients in other medical centers. This is done in order to: a.

decrease mono-operation bias.

b.

improve the test-retest reliability.

c.

increase interrater reliability.

d.

strengthen the operational definition of constructs.

ANS: B Feedback A

Mono-operation bias occurs when only one measure is used to evaluate an outcome.

B

To improve the reliability of the measurement tool, it should be tested in various settings to determine whether it gives consistent measures each time it is used.

C

Interrater reliability refers to consistent results that occur when various people administer study measures.

D

Evaluating the consistency of a measurement tool does not affect the operational definition of constructs.

18. In a research study, ambulatory clinic nurses teach children with asthma how to monitor peak expiratory flow volumes and how to use metered-dose inhalers to determine whether asthma control scores improve. The researcher discovers inconsistencies in how these measures were taught and how well the children understood the concepts. This represents a lack of: a.

control of extraneous variables.

b.

internal validity.

c.

intervention fidelity.

d.

precision of measurement.

ANS: C Feedback A

To control for extraneous variables, the researcher would identify characteristics of subjects or settings that might influence outcomes.

B

Internal validity looks at the influence of extraneous variables on study outcomes.

C

Consistent implementation of the treatment is referred to as intervention fidelity. If the method of administering a research intervention varies from one person to another, the chance of identifying a true difference based on the independent variables decreases.

D

Precision of measurement refers to whether or not the tools yield the same readings or findings from one test to another.

19. A researcher wishes to conduct a study of a small number of subjects on a large hospital intensive care unit. To minimize problems associated with extraneous variables in the study setting, the researcher will: a.

ensure double-blind data collection methods.

b.

randomly assign subjects to treatment and control groups.

c.

test the reliability of study measures.

d.

train a small number of nurses to administer the intervention.

ANS: D Feedback

A B

Double-blind data collection, random assignment of subjects, and reliability of test measures are important to improve control and reduce bias.

Extraneous variables in complex settings can influence scores on the dependent variable.

C

Double-blind data collection, random assignment of subjects, and reliability of test measures are important to improve control and reduce bias.

D

One way to reduce the effect of extraneous variables is to train a small number of staff to administer the intervention to improve consistency.

20. A researcher reviews demographic characteristics of potential study subjects, such as age and gender, to determine whether these characteristics may influence the outcome of the study. This is done to help ensure: a.

construct validity.

b.

external validity.

c.

internal validity.

d.

statistical conclusion validity.

ANS: C Chapter 21 Qualitative Research Design and Approaches Qualitative studies use an emergent 1. design. When does the research design evolve?

A)

During the conduct of the literature review.

B)

While the researcher develops a conceptual framework.

C)

During the process of doing constant comparisons.

D)

While the researcher is in the field collecting and analyzing data.

2.

Which design feature can apply to both a qualitative and quantitative study?

A)

Manipulation of the independent variable.

B)

Cross sectional versus longitudinal data collection.

C)

Control over extraneous variables.

D)

Random assignment of study participants.

3.

What discipline does the research tradition known as ethnoscience have its roots?

A)

Anthropology

B)

Philosophy

C)

Psychology

D)

Sociology

What discipline does the research tradition 4. known as ethnomethodology have its roots?

A)

Anthropology

B)

Philosophy

C)

Psychology

D)

Sociology

The research tradition known as 5. hermeneutics is closely allied with what other research tradition?

A)

Ethnography

B)

Phenomenology

C)

Ethology

D)

Symbolic interaction

6. What do ethnographers strive to acquire?

A)

Emic perspective of a culture

B)

Etic perspective of a culture

C)

Link the etic and emic perspectives into a unified whole

D)

Review the hermeneutic of the culture

7.

What is one method of facilitating bracketing?

A)

Tacit knowledge

B)

Bricolage

C)

Emic perspective

D)

Reflexive journals

8.

What are ethnographers conducting when they study their own culture or group?

A)

Autoethnography

B)

Microethnology

C)

Macroethnology

D)

Institutional ethnology

9.

A)

Which approach aims to discover theoretical precepts grounded in the data?

Grounded theory

B)

Ethnography

C)

Phenomenology

D)

Ethology

The product of ethnographic research is a holistic description of the culture, but 10. sometimes the products are performance ethnographies. What is performance ethnography?

A)

Interpretive scripts that can be performed

B)

Focus on the organization of professional services from the perspective of the frontline worker

C)

Focus on the group or culture to which the researcher belongs

D)

Putting together an array of data drawn from many sources to arrive at a holistic understanding of a phenomenon

11.

What type of qualitative research uses stories as center stage?

A)

Discourse analysis

B)

Narrative analysis

C)

Descriptive qualitative analysis

D)

Qualitative content analysis

12. What is one type of action research?

A)

Participatory

B)

Discourse analysis

C)

Descriptive qualitative analysis

D)

Qualitative content analysis

13.

What is the greatest strength of a case study?

A)

Generalize

B)

Obtain depth

C)

Use anecdotal material

D)

Describe peripheral material

14.

What can be located in archives that are used by historical researchers?

A)

Primary and secondary sources

B)

Primary and tertiary sources

C)

Secondary and tertiary sources

D)

Primary secondary and tertiary sources

What discipline does the research tradition 15. known as symbolic interaction have as its roots?

A)

Anthropology

B)

Philosophy

C)

Ethology

D)

Sociology

16.

Which approach is associated with symbolic interaction?

A)

Grounded theory

B)

Ethnology

C)

Phenomenology

D)

Ethology

What type of research tradition seeks to 17. understand the rules, mechanisms, and structure of conversations and tests?

A)

Semiotic analysis

B)

Ethnoscientific analysis

C)

Hermeneutics analysis

D)

Discourse analysis

There are three broad types of information 18. sought by ethnographers. What is cultural behavior?

A)

What members of the culture do

B)

What people make and use

C)

What people say

D)

Where people work

Many nurse researchers have undertaken ethnographic studies. What is the first 19. phase of Leininger's observation– participation–reflection enabler model?

A)

Primary observation and active listening

B)

Primary observation with limited participation

C)

Primary participation with continuing observation

D)

Primary reflection and reconfirmation of results with informants

20.

What type of phenomena do phenomenologists investigate?

A)

Subjective

B)

Objective

C)

Cognitive

D)

Psychomotor

Answer Key 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. D 16. A 17. D 18. A 19. A 20. A Chapter 22 Sampling in Qualitative Research Qualitative researchers use the conceptual demands of the study to select articulate 1. and reflective informants with certain types of experience in an emergent way.

What is a typical qualitative sample?

A)

Large, random

B)

Small, random

C)

Large, nonrandom

D)

Small, nonrandom

Qualitative researchers often begin with a sample where potential participants come 2. forward and identify themselves. What type of sample is being used?

A)

Convenience

B)

Snowball

C)

Purposive

D)

Purposeful

Qualitative researchers, like quantitative researchers, sometimes ask early 3. informants to refer to other study participants. What type of sample is being used?

A)

Convenience

B)

Snowball

C)

Purposive

D)

Purposeful

Many qualitative studies eventually evolve 4. to selecting cases that will most benefit the study. What type of sample is being used?

A)

Convenience

B)

Volunteer

C)

Snowball

D)

Purposive

The broad category of purposive sampling 5. involves general goals. What is one of the broad general goals?

A)

Find examples that are representative or typical of a specific group on some dimension of interest.

B)

Sampling to set up the possibility of comparisons or replications across similar types of cases on a dimension of interest.

C)

Find examples that are representative or typical of a broader group on some dimension of interest.

D)

Sampling to set up the possibility of comparisons or replications across random cases on a dimension of interest.

Various purposive sampling strategies have been used by qualitative researchers.

6. What is an important purposive strategy for sampling for representativeness or comparative value?

A)

Maximum variation sampling

B)

Critical case sampling

C)

Criterion sampling

D)

Sampling politically important cases

Although many qualitative sampling strategies unfold while in the field, purposive sampling in the sequential 7. category involves deliberative emergent efforts. What is an example of this category of purposive sampling?

A)

Opportunistic sampling

B)

Reputational case sampling

C)

Critical case sampling

D)

Stratified purposeful sampling

What type of sample involves selecting 8. cases that are especially important or illustrative?

A)

Critical case sampling

B)

Maximum variation sampling

C)

Homogeneous sampling

D)

Typical case sampling

What type of sample identifies and gains access to a case representing a 9. phenomenon that was previously inaccessible to research scrutiny?

A)

Critical case sampling

B)

Criterion sampling

C)

Revelatory case sampling

D)

Sampling politically important cases

What type of sample adds new cases based on changes in research circumstances or in 10. response to new leads that develop in the field?

A)

Theory-based sampling

B)

Opportunistic sampling

C)

Sampling confirming and disconfirming cases

D)

Sampling politically important cases

What type of sample selects cases based 11. on a recommendation of an expert or key informant?

A)

Homogeneous sampling

B)

Typical case sampling

C)

Extreme case sampling

D)

Reputational case sampling

12.

What type of sample selects cases that are intense but not extreme?

A)

Typical case sampling

B)

Extreme case sampling

C)

Intensity sampling

D)

Stratified purposeful sampling

What type of sample occurs when only 13. average, above average, or below average cases are selected?

A)

Typical case sampling

B)

Extreme case sampling

C)

Intensity sampling

D)

Stratified purposeful sampling

14.

What main qualitative tradition is theoretical sampling guided by?

A)

Ethnography

B)

Phenomenological studies

C)

Grounded theory studies

D)

Sociology

15.

Which type of sample may require more cases to reach data saturation?

A)

Convenience sample

B)

Purposive sample

C)

Theoretical sample

D)

Extreme case sample

16. What is data saturation?

A)

Sampling to the point at which new information is continually obtained

B)

Sampling to the point at which new information is continually obtained with no redundancy

C)

Sampling to the point at which no new information is obtained with any redundancy

Sampling to the point at which no new information is obtained and redundancy is achieved

D)

What type of researcher often uses key 17. informants who serve as guides and interpreters of the culture?

A)

Ethnographers

B)

Phenomenologists

C)

Grounded theory researchers

D)

Sociologists

Phenomenologists typically work with what size sample who meets the criterion 18. of having lived the experience under study?

A)

10 or fewer

B)

11–15

C)

16–19

D)

20–30

19.

Grounded theory researchers typically work with what size sample?

A)

10 or fewer

B)

11–15

C)

16–19

D)

20–30

Generalizability in qualitative research is controversial. What widely used model of generalizability involves judgments about 20. whether findings from an inquiry can be extrapolated to a different setting or group of people?

A)

Analytic generalization

B)

Transferability

C)

Thick description

D)

Proximal similarity

Answer Key 1. D 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. A 8. A 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. A 16. D 17. A 18. A 19. D 20. B Chapter 23 Data Collection in Qualitative Research 1. What role does qualitative research play in evidence-based practice (EBP)? a.

Because it does not involve random-controlled trials (RCTs), it does not contribute directly to EBP.

b.

It offers a systematic approach for yielding insights into human experience and behavior.

c.

It provides a way to measure and evaluate quality outcomes that affect patient care.

d.

It provides the basis for most EBP guidelines and patient care protocols.

ANS: B Feedback A

Many insights gained through qualitative studies are used to develop theories on which RCTs may be based.

B

Qualitative research offers a systematic approach for collecting data about and evaluating human perception and experience that cannot be achieved through experimental research.

C

Qualitative research is not concerned solely with outcomes research, which looks at the effects of nursing interventions on patient care outcomes.

D

RCTs are the basis for most EBP guidelines and protocols

2. A researcher identifies a socioeconomic group of people to study. After developing a rapport with key members of the group, getting information about group members from the key members, and spending time working among group members, the researcher develops theories about the group based on this experience. Which type of qualitative research does this represent? a.

Ethnographic

b.

Grounded theory

c.

Historical

d.

Phenomenological

ANS: A Feedback

A

Ethnographic research was developed by anthropologists as a mechanism for studying cultures and involves immersion in the group in order to make observations and get information.

B

Grounded theory research is an inductive technique that emerged from the discipline of sociology. Ethnographic research was developed by anthropologists as a mechanism for studying cultures.

C

Historical research examines events of the past. Ethnographic research was developed by anthropologists as a mechanism for studying cultures.

D

Phenomenological research describes experiences as they are lived. Ethnographic research was developed by anthropologists as a mechanism for studying cultures.

3. What is true about phenomena in qualitative research? a.

Human behavior is generally the result of the direct influence of independent variables.

b.

Knowledge gained by qualitative research is concrete and derived from statistical data.

c.

Multiple realities are possible based on meanings created by individuals and groups.

d.

Time and context have very little influence on individual or group perspectives.

ANS: C Feedback A

Human behavior is complex and not just the result of the influence of independent variables.

B

Knowledge gained in qualitative research is less concrete than that gained through quantitative research.

C

The understanding of phenomena in qualitative research is not the same as in quantitative research. In qualitative research, multiple realities, based on individual and group meanings, may be derived from research data.

D

Phenomena in qualitative research are considered unique to the individual and in the time and the context that they occur.

4. A researcher conducts a qualitative study and learns that individuals have a variety of reactions to an event. What can the researcher conclude from this finding? a.

The findings are interesting, but are not useful for theory development.

b.

The reactions described in this study may be generalized to a larger population.

c.

The study has little significance since there is no well-defined single outcome.

d.

The variety of reactions is expected since perception varies with individuals.

ANS: D Feedback A

Findings in qualitative studies are often used to guide initial theory development whose constructs are later tested through experimental studies.

B

Reactions in qualitative studies do not have statistical significance and cannot be generalized to a larger population.

C

Even without a well-defined outcome, the results do have significance and contribute to the larger body of scientific knowledge.

D

Because meaning is subjective, there can be multiple realities in qualitative research, which seeks to learn how individuals and groups respond to experiences.

5. A researcher develops a study to examine various phenomena that contribute to theory development. This is an example of which type of research? a.

Ethnographic research

b.

Grounded theory research

c.

Historical research

d.

Phenomenological research

ANS: B Feedback A

Ethnographers observe and document interactions within a culture.

B

Grounded theory develops theory directly from the research data.

C

Historical research examines events of the past.

D

Phenomenological research attempts to capture the lived experience of study participants.

6. A researcher conducts a study to examine the feelings of cancer patients at various points during their disease, including at diagnosis, when beginning chemotherapy, and during remission. Which type of study will the researcher use for this study? a.

Ethnographic

b.

Grounded Theory

c.

Historical

d.

Phenomenological

ANS: D Feedback

A

Ethnographers observe and document interactions within a culture.

B

Grounded theory develops theory directly from the research data.

C

Historical research examines events of the past.

D

Phenomenological research attempts to capture the lived experience of study participants.

7. What is true about scientific rigor in qualitative nursing research? a.

Studies are rigorous only when results are quantifiable.

b.

Study findings are considered trustworthy when rigor is applied.

c.

Scientific rigor is not applicable with qualitative studies.

d.

Scientific rigor is only used with random-controlled trials.

ANS: B Feedback A

Rigor can be applied to qualitative research.

B

Rigor is valued because the findings of rigorous studies are seen as being more credible and of greater worth.

C

Rigor can be applied to both qualitative and quantitative research.

D

Rigor is used with qualitative research.

8. When designing a study, which has the greatest influence as a researcher decides which type of qualitative study design to use? a.

Funding and resources

b.

Literature review

c.

Population

d.

Research question

ANS: D Feedback A

Funding and resources influence the size of the population and the types of measures that may be employed.

B

The literature review and the population do not influence the study design directly.

C

The literature review and the population do not influence the study design directly.

D

Deciding which qualitative approach to use depends on the research question and the purpose of the study.

9. A researcher wishes to learn about the experiences that women have when breastfeeding their infants in the workplace. Which type of study design will the researcher employ? a.

Ethnographic

b.

Exploratory-descriptive

c.

Grounded theory

d.

Historical

ANS: B Feedback A

Ethnographers observe and document interactions within a culture.

B

Exploratory-descriptive studies are used when researchers are exploring a new topic or describing a situation.

C

Grounded theory develops theory directly from the research data.

D

Historical research examines events of the past.

10. A researcher who bases phenomenological research on Husserls philosophy will: a.

incorporate personal biases into conclusions and discussion of the research.

b.

interpret subjects experiences according to the researchers own biases.

c.

place personal biases aside when considering and reporting research findings.

d.

use personal biases to look for hidden meanings in research data.

ANS: C Feedback A

This is not an accurate statement.

B

This is not an accurate statement.

According to Husserl, to capture the lived experience of study participants, the researcher must set aside personal biases to describe the phenomena in a nave way.

C

Heidegger describes ways that personal biases are incorporated into qualitative research.

D

This is not an accurate statement.

11. What is a key element of hermeneutics in research? a.

Analysis of documents and interviews to identify themes and subthemes in data

b.

Bracketing of the researchers own perceptions for the duration of the study

c.

Description of phenomena without interpretation by the researcher

d.

Focusing solely on phenomena themselves without consideration of biases

ANS: A Feedback

A

Hermeneutics is a type of interpretive phenomenological research method that involves textual analysis and identification of themes and subthemes present in interviews and published documents in light of the studys research questions.

B

Husserl suggested that the researcher must bracket personal biases in order to examine the research data. Husserl differs from Heidigger in this regard.Heidigger argued that it is impossible to set aside beliefs and biases.

C

Heidiggers approach is interpretive and is part of hermeneutics.

D

Heidigger believed that researchers cannot set aside their biases.

12. When performing an external criticism of the documents used in historical research, the reviewer must determine whether the documents are: a.

genuine or fraudulent.

b.

interesting or dull.

c.

well known or obscure.

d.

written by authors who are still living.

ANS: A Feedback A

External criticism determines the validity of source material.

B

Whether or not the document is interesting has little to do with the importance of the document.

C

As long as the document is genuine and of interest to the study, whether it is well known or not is irrelevant.

D

Although it might be useful to know whether or not the writers of the document are living, this does not relate to external criticism.

13. What is true about grounded theory research? a.

It is a method used to quantify theoretical constructs in theory development.

b.

It is used to further research in areas where much concrete data is already known.

c.

Study designs use a theoretical basis to develop the research questions.

d.

Theory is developed from the data collected during the research.

ANS: D Feedback A

Experimental studies are used to quantify theoretical constructs to test theories.

B

Grounded theory research is preliminary and is often used when little is known about a subject.

C

Theory is developed from the research findings of grounded theory research.

D

Grounded theory develops theory directly from the research data.

14. A researcher wishes to understand how inner-city Somali immigrants adapt health care practices into their experiences with the U.S. health care system. Which type of study approach will the researcher use? a.

Descriptive-qualitative

b.

Ethnographic

c.

Grounded theory

d.

Phenomenological

ANS: B Feedback

A

Exploratory-descriptive studies are used when researchers are exploring a new topic or describing a situation.

B

Ethnographic research involves observation and documentation of interactions within a culture.

C

Grounded theory develops theory directly from the research data.

D

Phenomenological research attempts to capture the lived experience of study participants.

15. Which is an example of an etic approach in an ethnographic study? a.

A longitudinal study examining individual immigrants attitudes about health care

b.

A study about African tribal women and their feelings about HIV prevention

c.

A study comparing various ethnic groups folk health practices

d.

A study of differences between BSN- and AND-prepared nurses attitudes about health care

ANS: C Feedback A

A study of immigrants attitudes about health care is a phenomenological study.

B

A study examining a particular cultural group is an ethnographic study.

C

The etic approach involves studying behavior from outside the culture and examining similarities and differences across cultures.

D

A study of attitudes about health care is a phenomenological study.

16. Which qualitative study will call for an exploratory-descriptive study approach? a.

An evaluation of clinical outcomes of standard nursing interventions

b.

An examination of the effects of a treatment on various ethnic groups

c.

A review of data in order to evaluate theoretical constructs

d.

A study on a topic about which little is known or understood

ANS: D Feedback A

Outcomes research is concerned with clinical outcomes of standard interventions.

B

Comparing the effects of a treatment on two groups of subjects is a quasi-experimental design.

C

Theory testing uses data to evaluate theoretical constructs.

D

Exploratory-descriptive studies are used when researchers are exploring a new topic or describing a situation.

17. A researcher utilizes an emic approach in a research study in order to: a.

gather data about lived experiences of individuals.

b.

trying to understand behaviors from within a culture.

c.

examine individual human behavior according to personal biases.

d.

use techniques such as bracketing and intuiting.

ANS: B Feedback Phenomenological research attempts to capture the lived experience of study participants. The emic approach involves studying behaviors from within a culture.

A B

The emic approach involves studying behaviors from within a culture.

C

The etic perspective studies behaviors from outside the culture and examines similarities and differences across cultures. (The emic approach involves studying behaviors from within a culture.) The ethnographic approach looks at groups, not individual behaviors.

D

Bracketing and intuiting are techniques used rather than the focus of a study. The emic approach involves studying behaviors from within a culture.

18. The goal of grounded theory research is to: a.

develop theories and hypotheses based on research findings.

b.

establish an ethnographic perspective on subjects.

c.

provide validity checks for constructs.

d.

test theoretical constructs and hypotheses.

ANS: A Feedback

A

Theory developed from grounded theory research is grounded in the data from which it was derived.

B

An ethnographic perception of research is part of an ethnographic perspective.

C

Validity checks for constructs are not the concern of grounded theory research.

D Theory testing uses data to evaluate theoretical constructs.

19. A researcher wishes to examine the experiences and feelings of siblings of children who have cancer in order to gain information about this population. Which type of qualitative study method will the researcher use? a.

Ethnographic

b.

Exploratory-descriptive

c.

Grounded theory

d.

Historical

ANS: B Feedback A

Ethnographic research involves observation and documentation of interactions within a culture.

B

Exploratory-descriptive studies are used when researchers are exploring a new topic or describing a situation.

C

Grounded theory develops theory directly from the research data.

D

Historical research uses historical documents to describe events.

20. When conducting historical research about the experiences of women refugees from the Sudan, the researcher interviews women who served as nurses among this population. These nurses represent: a.

control group subjects.

b.

experimental group subjects.

c.

primary data sources.

d.

secondary data sources.

ANS: D

Chapter 24 Qualitative Data Analysis What is the first major step that a nurse 1. researcher must undertake in a qualitative analysis?

A)

A search for major themes

B)

Entering information into files

C)

The use of quasi-statistics

D)

Developing a system for organizing and indexing the data

Before the advent of computer programs 2. for qualitative analysis, what was the main procedure for managing qualitative data?

A)

Conceptual files

B)

Core categories

C)

Memos

D)

Themes

3.

What does the actual analysis of data usually begin with?

A)

A search for major themes

B)

Entering information into files

C)

The use of quasi-statistics

D)

Developing a system for organizing and indexing the data

Some qualitative analysts use figurative 4. comparisons to evoke a visual and symbolic analogy. What is this called?

A)

Themes

B)

Categories

C)

Metaphors

D)

Quasi-statistics

5.

What does the process of constant comparison involve?

A)

Comparing two researchers' interpretation of the data

B)

Comparing the researchers' interpretation of the data against study participants' interpretation

C)

Comparing data segments against other segments for similarity

D)

Comparing data from the study with data and categories from other similar studies

6. What is quasi-statistics?

A)

Statistical analysis

B)

Validation

C)

Thematic generation

D)

Analytic induction

One approach to analyzing ethnographic 7. data is Spradley's method, which involves how many levels of data analysis?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

8.

What type of analysis uncovers cultural themes?

A)

Domain

B)

Taxonomic

C)

Componential

D)

Theme

9.

What type of analysis compares and contrasts terms in a domain?

A)

Domain

B)

Taxonomic

C)

Componential

D)

Theme

10.

What type of analysis selects key domains and constructs systems of classification?

A)

Domain

B)

Taxonomic

C)

Componential

D)

Theme

Leininger and McFarland provided ethnographers with a four-phase ethno 11. nursing data analysis guide. What is the first phase?

A)

Collecting and recording data

B)

Categorizing descriptors

C)

Searching for repetitive patterns

D)

Abstracting major themes

In Van Manen's approach, this involves efforts to grasp the essential meaning of 12. the experience being studied, researchers search for themes. What is the holistic approach?

A)

Find common patterns of experiences shared by particular instances.

B)

Viewing text as a whole.

C)

Pulling out key statements and phrases.

D)

Analyzing every sentence in the analysis

Central to analyzing data in a hermeneutic 13. study is the notion of the hermeneutic circle. What is a hermeneutic circle?

A)

Find common patterns of experiences shared by particular instances.

B)

Continual movement between the parts and the whole of the text.

C)

Pulling out key statements and phrases.

D)

Analyzing every sentence in the analysis

Hermeneutics has several choices for data analysis. One approach is the discovery of 14. a pattern that expresses the relationships among themes. What is this pattern called?

A)

Constitutive

B)

Constant comparison

C)

Similarity comparison

D)

Dissimilarity comparison

Benner offers another analytic approach for hermeneutic phenomenology. The 15. interpretative analysis consists of how many interrelated processes?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

One approach to grounded theory is the Glaser and Strauss (Glaserian) method, in 16. which there are two broad types of codes.

What is theoretical code?

A)

Empirical substance of the topic is conceptualized.

B)

Relationships among the substantive codes are conceptualized.

C)

Capture what is going on in the data.

D)

Only variables relating to a core category are coded.

17.

Substantive coding involves open coding.

What is open coding?

A)

Empirical substance of the topic is conceptualized.

B)

Relationships among the substantive codes are conceptualized.

C)

Capture what is going on in the data.

D)

Only variables relating to a core category are coded.

18.

Substantive coding involves selective coding. What is selective coding?

A)

Empirical substance of the topic is conceptualized.

B)

Relationships among the substantive codes are conceptualized.

C)

Capture what is going on in the data.

D)

Only variables relating to a core category are coded.

19.

What are level III codes in the Glaser and Strauss approach?

A)

Axial codes

B)

In vivo codes

C)

Open codes

D)

Theoretical constructs

Strauss and Corbin's method is an alternative grounded theory method whose 20. outcome is a full preconceived conceptual description. What is an axial code?

A)

Categories are generated.

B)

Categories are linked with subcategories.

C)

Findings are integrated.

D)

Findings are refined.

Answer Key 1. D 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. B Chapter 25 Trustworthiness and Integrity in Qualitative Research What is one contentious issue in the debate 1. about quality concerns in qualitative research?

A)

The sameness of the two methods

B)

Criteria to use as indicators of validity and reliability

C)

The place of imagination in qualitative research

D)

The need for high-quality research in both traditions

The most-often used framework of quality criteria is that of Lincoln and Guba. How 2. many criteria are identified for evaluating trustworthiness of the inquiry?

A)

2

B)

3

C)

4

D)

5

3.

What is credibility in the often-used framework of quality criteria?

A)

Confidence in the truth value of the findings

B)

Stability of data over time and conditions

C)

Objectivity or neutrality of the data

D)

Analog of external validity and the extent to which findings from the data can be transferred to other settings or groups

4.

A)

What is authenticity in the often-used framework of quality criteria?

Confidence in the truth value of the findings

B)

Stability of data over time and conditions.

C)

Objectivity or neutrality of the data.

D)

Extent to which researchers fairly and faithfully show a range of different realities and convey the feeling tone of lives as they are lived.

The qualitative study has a lot of stability of data over time and conditions. What 5. term is somewhat analogous to reliability in quantitative studies?

A)

Credibility

B)

Dependability

C)

Confirmability

D)

Transferability

6.

What term is the analog of external validity in quantitative studies?

A)

Credibility

B)

Dependability

C)

Confirmability

D)

Transferability

7.

What is confirmability in the often-used framework of quality criteria?

A)

Confidence in the truth value of the findings

B)

Stability of data over time and conditions

C)

Objectivity or neutrality of the data

D)

Analog of external validity and the extent to which findings from the data can be transferred to other settings or groups

In the view of Whittemore and colleagues' framework, four primary criteria are 8. essential to all quality inquiry. What is one of the primary criteria?

A)

Credibility

B)

Creativity

C)

Congruence

D)

Explicitness

In the view of Whittemore and colleagues' framework, four primary criteria are essential to all quality inquiry. The 9. terminology overlaps with Lincoln and Guba's framework regarding two criteria.

Which two criteria overlap?

A)

Authenticity and criticality

B)

Creativity and congruence

C)

Integrity and creativity

D)

Credibility and authenticity

An alternative framework, representing a synthesis of 10 qualitative validity 10. schemes by Whittemore and colleagues, proposed four primary criteria and six secondary criteria. What is criticality?

A)

Researcher's critical appraisal of every research decision

B)

Demonstrated by ongoing self-scrutiny to enhance the likelihood that interpretations are valid and grounded in the data

C)

Ability to follow the researcher's decisions through careful demonstration

D)

Involves rich and vivid descriptions

An alternative framework, representing a synthesis of 10 qualitative validity 11. schemes by Whittemore and colleagues, proposed four primary criteria and six secondary criteria. What is explicitness?

A)

Researcher's critical appraisal of every research decision

B)

Demonstrated by ongoing self-scrutiny to enhance the likelihood that interpretations are valid and grounded in the data

C)

Ability to follow the researcher's decisions through careful demonstration

D)

Involves rich and vivid descriptions

An alternative framework, representing a synthesis of 10 qualitative validity 12. schemes by Whittemore and colleagues, proposed four primary criteria and six secondary criteria. What is integrity?

A)

Researcher's critical appraisal of every research decision

B)

Demonstrated by ongoing self-scrutiny to enhance the likelihood that interpretations are valid and grounded in the data

C)

Ability to follow the researcher's decisions through careful demonstration

D)

Involves rich and vivid descriptions

An alternative framework, representing a synthesis of 10 qualitative validity 13. schemes by Whittemore and colleagues, proposed four primary criteria and six secondary criteria. What is sensitivity?

A)

Degree to which an inquiry reflects respect and compassion for those being studied.

B)

Interconnectedness between parts of the inquiry and the whole, and between study findings and external contexts

C)

Comprehensive data and the full development of ideas

D)

Reflects challenges to traditional ways of thinking

Strategies for enhancing the quality of qualitative data as they are being collected 14. include prolonged engagement. What is prolonged engagement?

A)

Vivid recording of information including maintenance of an audit trail of key decisions

B)

Strives at achieving adequate depth of data coverage

C)

Strives for adequate scope of data coverage

D)

Process of using multiple referents to draw conclusions about constitutes the truth

15. What is triangulation?

A)

Use of multiple data sources to validate conclusions

B)

Use of multiple methods to collect data about the same phenomenon

C)

Process of using multiple referents to draw conclusions about constitutes the truth

D)

Independent coding and analysis of at least a portion of the data by two or more researchers

What is a strategy for enhancing quality 16. during the coding and analysis of qualitative data?

A)

Investigator triangulation

B)

Data triangulation

C)

Method triangulation

D)

Research credibility

17. What is theory triangulation?

A)

Use of multiple data sources to validate conclusions

B)

Use of multiple methods to collect data about the same phenomenon

C)

Use of competing theories or hypotheses in the analysis and interpretation of data

D)

Independent coding and analysis of at least a portion of the data by two or more researchers

18. What is the purpose of a peer briefing?

A)

Internal validity of data

B)

Reliability of data

C)

External validity of data

D)

Reliability and validity of data

A formal scrutiny of the research process and audit trial documents occurs by an 19. independent external auditor. What is the term for this process?

A)

Negative case analysis

B)

Peer debriefing

C)

Inquiry audit

D)

Research credibility

There is widespread agreement that qualitative researchers need to devote time and energy to analyzing and documenting 20. their presuppositions, biases, and ongoing emotions. What commitment does this represent?

A)

Transparency

B)

Absorption and Diligence

C)

Verification

D)

Reflexivity

Answer Key 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. A 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. C 16. A 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. D Chapter 26 Basics of Mixed Methods Research Mixed methods research involves the 1. collection, analysis, and integration of what type of data?

A)

Qualitative only

B)

Quantitative only

C)

Both qualitative and quantitative

D)

Neither qualitative or quantitative

Mixed methods studies involve at least 2. how many questions that require different types of data?

A)

One

B)

Two

C)

Three

D)

Four

In terms of sequencing, mixed method 3. designs can either be concurrent or sequential. What is a sequential design A)

Both strands occurring in one simultaneous phase.

B)

Both strands occurring prior to informing the third and fourth strand.

C)

One strand occurring prior to and informing the second strand.

D)

Two strands occurring prior to and informing the third and fourth strand.

In terms of sequencing, mixed method 4. designs can either be concurrent or sequential. What is a concurrent design?

A)

Both strands occurring in one simultaneous phase.

B)

Both strands occurring prior to informing the third and fourth strand.

C)

One strand occurring prior to and informing the second strand.

D)

Two strands occurring prior to and informing the third and fourth strand.

Notation for mixed method research designates both priority and sequence.

5.

How is priority identified for the dominant strand?

A)

All capital letters

B)

All lower-case letters

C)

An arrow

D)

Plus sign

Notation for mixed method research designates both priority and sequence.

6.

How is sequence identified for the concurrent designs?

A)

All capital letters

B)

All lower-case letters

C)

An arrow

D)

Plus sign

Notation for mixed method research designates both priority and sequence.

7.

How is sequence identified for the nondominant strand?

A)

All capital letters

B)

All lower-case letters

C)

An arrow

D)

Plus sign

Notation for mixed method research designates both priority and sequence.

8.

What type of research is identified by QUAN(qual)?

A)

Sequential, qualitative-dominant design

B)

Sequential, qualitative-nondominant design

C)

Qualitative component embedded within a quantitative study

D)

Quantitative component embedded within a qualitative study

There are specific mixed method designs 9. in the Creswell–Plano Clark taxonomy.

What do (QUAL + QUAN) represent?

A)

Triangulation

B)

Embedded

C)

Explanatory

D)

Exploratory

There are specific mixed method designs in the Creswell–Plano Clark taxonomy.

10.

What does (QUAN → qual or quan → QUAL) represent?

A)

Triangulation

B)

Embedded

C)

Explanatory

D)

Exploratory

There are specific mixed method designs in the Creswell-Plano Clark taxonomy.

11.

What does (QUAL → quan or qual → QUAN) represent?

A)

Triangulation

B)

Embedded

C)

Explanatory

D)

Exploratory

What type of sampling strategy occurs 12. when some of the participants from one strand are in the other strand?

A)

Identical

B)

Nested

C)

Parallel

D)

Multilevel

What type of sampling strategy occurs when some of the participants are either in 13. one strand or the other, but drawn from a similar population?

A)

Identical

B)

Nested

C)

Parallel

D)

Multilevel

Data collection in mixed methods research can involve all methods of structured and 14. unstructured data. In sequential designs, how are decisions about data collection made?

A)

Second phase are based on findings from the first phase.

B)

Third phase are based on findings from the first phase.

C)

Fourth phase are based on findings from the second phase.

D)

Fifth phase are based on findings from the fourth phase.

Methods of integration of qualitative and quantitative data during analysis include 15. data conversions. What is the use of metamatrices mean?

A)

Qualitizing of quantitative data

B)

Quantitizing of qualitative data

C)

Both qualitative and quantitative data are arrayed in a spreadsheet type of matrix.

D)

Assessment of congruence and exploration of complementarity.

Creswell and Plano Clark identified broad types of research situations that are 16. especially well suited to mixed methods research. What is one of these types of research situations?

A)

Concepts are new and poorly understood and there is a need for quantitative exploration.

B)

The qualitative results are puzzling and difficult to interpret and quantitative data can help to explain the results.

C)

The findings from both approaches can be greatly enhanced with a third source of data.

D)

Neither a qualitative nor a quantitative approach by itself is adequate in addressing the complexity of the research problem.

The purpose of this design is to obtain different, but complementary data about 17. the central phenomenon under study. What type of design has this purpose?

A)

Triangulation

B)

Embedded

C)

Explanatory

D)

Exploratory

What type of research design involves the separate but concurrent collection of 18. qualitative and quantitative data, followed by qualitative and quantitative analysis?

A)

Convergence model

B)

Data transformation model

C)

Multilevel model

D)

Correlational model

19.

What type of research design would use a correlational model?

A)

Triangulation

B)

Embedded

C)

Explanatory

D)

Exploratory

Criteria that have been proposed for enhancing the integrity of mixed methods 20. studies included inference quality and inference transferability. What is inference transferability?

A)

The believability and accuracy of inductively derived conclusions.

B)

The believability and accuracy of deductively derived conclusions.

C)

The degree to which conclusions can be applied to different people or contexts.

D)

The degree to which conclusions can be applied to similar people or contexts.

Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. D 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. D Chapter 27 Developing Complex Nursing Interventions Using Mixed Methods Research 1. What is nursing intervention research?

A)

Integrated process of developing, implementing, testing, and disseminating nursing interventions—particularly everyday interventions

B)

Distinctive process of developing, implementing, testing, and disseminating nursing interventions—particularly everyday interventions

C)

Integrated process of developing, implementing, testing, and disseminating nursing interventions—particularly complex interventions

D)

Distinctive process of developing, implementing, testing, and disseminating nursing interventions—particularly complex interventions

Several frameworks for developing and testing complex interventions have been 2. proposed. In what phase does the pilot tests of the intervention occur?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

Several frameworks for developing and testing complex interventions have been 3. proposed. What phase does the controlled trial to assess efficacy occur?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

Several frameworks for developing and testing complex interventions have been 4. proposed. What phase do studies to assess effectiveness of interventions in real-world clinical settings rarely occur in nursing?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

Conceptualization and in-depth understanding of the problem and the 5. target population are key issues in what phase of the framework?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

A mixed methods approach can strengthen 6. the test of the intervention during what phase of a controlled trial?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

The preliminary intervention is tested 7. usually using what type of research design?

A)

Descriptive

B)

Correlational

C)

Experimental

D)

Quasi-experimental

Mixed methods are appropriate in all phases of an intervention project. Broadly speaking, the design is sequential, but each 8. phase can involve the use of various mixed methods designs. What phase is qualitative design often given priority?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

There are several features of an ideal 9. nursing intervention. What does salient mean in the ideal nursing intervention?

A)

Addressing a pressing problem

B)

Leading to improved client outcomes

C)

Avoiding any adverse outcomes, burdens, or stress

D)

Demonstrating sensitivity to various groups

There are several features of an ideal nursing intervention. What is the term for 10. when a nursing intervention can be tailored to local contexts?

A)

Accessible

B)

Acceptable

C)

Adaptable

D)

Readily disseminated

There are several features of an ideal nursing intervention. What is the term for 11. when it can be implemented in real-world settings and integrated into current models of care?

A)

Conceptually sound

B)

Cost-effective

C)

Feasible

D)

Developmentally appropriate

What group of individuals does the 12. common pitfall in intervention research of language barrier apply?

A)

Participants who do not want to receive the intervention or participate in research

B)

Participants who do not want to be randomized

C)

Participants who do not adhere to protocols

D)

Participants who drop out of the study

What groups of individuals does the common pitfall in intervention research of lack of incentive apply?

1. Participants who do not want to receive the intervention or participate in research 13.

2. Participants who do not want to be randomized 3. Participants who do not adhere to protocols 4. Participants who drop out of the study A)

1, 2

B)

2, 3

C)

1, 4

D)

3, 4

What groups of individuals does the common pitfall in intervention research of lack of trust apply?

1. Participants who do not want to receive the intervention or participate in research 14.

2. Participants who do not want to be randomized 3. Participants who do not adhere to protocols 4. Participants who drop out of the study A)

1, 2

B)

2, 3

C)

1, 4

D)

3, 4

A common pitfall in intervention research for agents delivering the intervention is 15. staff who do not want to recruit participants. What is a common cause for this pitfall?

A)

Inadequate time

B)

Strong commitment to the status quo

C)

Inadequate training

D)

Inadequate incentive to change

A common pitfall in intervention research is for intervention agents who offer intervention to control group members and 16. contaminate the research design. What is one common cause and contributor to this pitfall?

A)

Low salience of problem

B)

Misgivings about the intervention or about research more generally

C)

Inadequate incentive to cooperate in the research design

D)

Inability to forget intervention protocols when caring for nonintervention patients

There are several key issues, activities, and products of Phase I developmental 17. work for nursing interventions. What is an example of a key issue?

A)

Conceptualization of the problem

B)

Critical synthesis of the relevant literature

C)

Concept and theory development

D)

Exploratory and descriptive research

There are several key issues, activities, and products of Phase I developmental 18. work for nursing interventions. What is an example of a product and outcome?

A)

Building the intervention

B)

Critical synthesis of the relevant literature

C)

Concept and theory development

D)

Preliminary identification of key outcomes

What is a question to ask for which evidence can be sought in a literature 19. review for the issue of conceptualizing the problem?

A)

What it the content of other similar interventions?

B)

Is the presence of certain types of components linked to better outcomes?

C)

What is known about the nature and causes of this problem and possible solutions?

D)

Are interventions general or individualized?

What is a question to ask for which evidence can be sought in a literature 20. review for the issue of making decisions about dose?

A)

When have data for this type of intervention typically been controlled?

B)

Does the literature suggest that effects deteriorate?

C)

Does the literature suggest that there are delayed effects?

D)

How intense have other similar interventions been?

Answer Key 1. D 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. A 13. D 14. A 15. A 16. D 17. A 18. D 19. C 20. D Chapter 28 Feasibility Assessments and Pilot Tests of Interventions Using Mixed Methods

What would researchers do in developing a dissemination plan?

1. Select a communication outlet 2. Identify the audience whom they 1. wish to reach 3. Decide on the content that can be effectively communicated.

4. How to obtain financial support for the study A)

1, 2, 3

B)

1, 2, 4

C)

1, 3, 4

D)

2, 3, 4

2.

When there are multiple authors of a report, what is the lead author?

A)

Always listed as the first author

B)

Is the person whose name is first alphabetically

C)

Is the individual who has overall responsibility for the manuscript

D)

Author with whom the journal communicates

3.

When there are multiple authors of a report, what is the corresponding author?

A)

Always listed as the first author

B)

Is the person whose name is first alphabetically

C)

Is the individual who has overall responsibility for the manuscript

Author with whom the journal communicates

D)

4.

The reader is acquainted with the research problem in which section of the report?

A)

Introduction

B)

Methods

C)

Results

D)

Discussion

Evidence for the reliability of measuring 5. instruments used in a study appears in which section of the report?

A)

Introduction

B)

Methods

C)

Results

D)

Discussion

6.

Hypotheses are generally presented in which section of the report?

A)

Introduction

B)

Methods

C)

Results

D)

Discussion

Findings from the analyses are 7. summarized in what section of the research report?

A)

Introduction

B)

Methods

C)

Results

D)

Discussion

Recommendations for future research are 8. generally included in which section of the research report?

A)

Introduction

B)

Methods

C)

Results

D)

Discussion

9.

What format do quantitative reports and many qualitative reports follow?

A)

IMRAD

B)

CONSORT

C)

STROBE

D)

TREND

Standards for reporting methodologic elements are increasingly used.

10.

Researchers reporting an RCT follow which guidelines?

A)

IMRAD

B)

CONSORT

C)

STROBE

D)

TREND

Standards for reporting methodologic elements are increasingly used.

11.

Researchers reporting an observational study follow which guidelines?

A)

IMRAD

B)

CONSORT

C)

STROBE

D)

TREND

Standards for reporting methodologic elements are increasingly used.

12. Researchers reporting a nonrandomized evaluation of interventions follow which guidelines?

A)

IMRAD

B)

CONSORT

C)

STROBE

D)

TREND

13.

Theses and dissertations normally follow what format?

A)

IMRAD

B)

CONSORT

C)

STROBE

D)

TREND

Most nursing journals that publish research reports are refereed journals with 14. a policy of basing publication decisions on what type of review?

A)

Impact

B)

Public

C)

Blind

D)

Healthcare leaders

One proxy for a journal's prestige is the ratio between citations to a journal and 15. recent citable items published. What is the name of this ratio?

A)

Impact

B)

Trend

C)

Validity

D)

Reliability

In a dissertation or technical report, a copy 16. of the data collection instrument would normally be included in which section?

A)

Introduction

B)

Methods

C)

Appendix

D)

Bibliography

17. What is the purpose of a query letter?

A)

Determine whether a journal editor has interest in a proposed manuscript.

B)

Ask permission to submit a manuscript to multiple journals simultaneously.

C)

Inquire about the publication status of submitted manuscript.

D)

Ask for the maximum page length of the manuscript to be submitted for publication.

18.

How many nursing journals are indexed in CINAHL?

A)

More than 200

B)

More than 300

C)

More than 400

D)

More than 500

Care should be taken in using and preparing citations. Some nursing journals 19. suggest that there be not more than how many references?

A)

3

B)

5

C)

10

D)

15

The mechanism for submitting a presentation to a conference is simpler than for journal submission. The 20. association sponsoring the conference ordinarily issues a Call for Abstracts in how many months before the meeting date?

A)

1 to 2

B)

3 to 5

C)

6 to 9

D)

10 to 12

Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. D 19. D 20. C Chapter 29 Systematic Reviews of Research Evidence: Meta-Analysis, Metasynthesis, and Mixed Studies Review

1.

A)

What is similar in the steps for both quantitative and qualitative integration?

Searching for a problem to solve

B)

Searching the literature for primary studies

C)

Reviewing the summary data

D)

Developing a statistical model

Evidence-based practice relies on rigorous integration of research evidence on a topic 2. through systematic reviews. What is a systematic review?

A)

Use of carefully developed sampling and data collection procedures that are spelled out during data collection

B)

Use of methodically integrated data collection procedures that are spelled out during data collection in a protocol

C)

Use of carefully developed sampling and data collection procedures that are spelled out in advanced in a protocol

D)

Use of methodically integrated data collection procedures that are spelled out during data collection

3.

What is a criterion for using meta-analytic technique in a systematic review?

A)

The evidence among the studies is highly conflicting with many variables.

B)

The hypotheses vary in their predictions; both null and directional hypotheses are used.

C)

The number of studies can be varied from few to many.

The independent variable and the dependent variable should be similar enough to merit integration.

D)

4.

What is a common scenario for metaanalysis in a nursing study?

A)

Comparing the percentage of adolescents using hard drugs to the percentage using alcohol

B)

Comparing two groups on a continuous outcome

C)

Predicting health-related behavior from five different variables

D)

Providing descriptions of caring for the chronically ill

5.

What is considered an advantage of a meta-analysis?

A)

Use for broad research questions

B)

Use for substantial inconsistency of findings

C)

Subjectivity

D)

Enhanced power

6.

What is the most common effect size index used in nursing?

A)

Standardized deviation

B)

Variance

C)

Odds ratio

D)

Sensitivity index

7. How can heterogeneity be examined?

A)

Inverse variance

B)

Fixed effects model

C)

Random effects model

D)

Forest plot

Statistical heterogeneity is an issue in meta-analysis and affects decisions about 8. using a single true effect size. What is the name for this single true effect size?

A)

Inverse variance

B)

Fixed effects model

C)

Random effects model

D)

Forest plot

Statistical heterogeneity is an issue in meta-analysis and affects decisions about a 9. distribution of effects. What is the name for this distribution of effects?

A)

Inverse variance

B)

Fixed effects model

C)

Random effects model

D)

Forest plot

Effects from individual studies are pooled to yield an estimate of the population 10. effect size by calculating a weighted average of effects. What is often used as the weight?

A)

Inverse variance

B)

Fixed effects model

C)

Random effects model

D)

Forest plot

11. What is the purpose of subgroup analyses?

A)

Random heterogeneity

B)

Nonrandom heterogeneity

C)

Sensitivity analysis

D)

Nonrelated effects

Constructing a funnel plot will assist in determining how many studies with what 12. type of results to reverse the conclusion of a significant finding?

A)

Significant

B)

Nonsignificant

C)

Clinically significant

D)

Clinically specific

There is no consensus on whether 13. systematic reviews should include the grey literature. What is grey literature?

A)

Published in a nonpeer review journal

B)

Published in a peer review journal

C)

Published report

D)

Unpublished report

14. What is a publication bias?

A)

Stems from over representation of significant findings in the published literature

B)

Stems from underrepresentation of significant findings in the published literature

C)

Stems from over representation of nonsignificant findings in the published literature

D)

Stems from underrepresentation of nonsignificant findings in the published literature

15.

What is an issue with which metasynthesists have grappled?

A)

Combining studies with findings from different research traditions.

B)

Including some quantitative analysis of the demographics of the participants.

C)

Omitting any study that has questionable quality.

D)

Using studies with subjects form many different populations

Paterson and colleagues' meta-study 16. method integrates three components. What are the three components?

A)

Metadata, metaeffect, metatheory

B)

Metadata, metamethod, metaeffect

C)

Metatheory, metamethod, metaeffect

D)

Metadata, metamethod, metatheory

17.

What is a summary according to Sandelowski and Barroso?

A)

Interpretative explanation of the data

B)

Statistical explanation of the data

C)

Descriptive synopsis of the data

D)

Preliminary explanation of the data

18.

What is a synthesis according to Sandelowski and Barroso?

A)

Interpretative explanation of the data

B)

Statistical explanation of the data

C)

Descriptive synopsis of the data

D)

Preliminary explanation of the data

A metasummary involves developing a list 19. of abstracted findings from the primary studies and calculating what effect size?

A)

Intensity

B)

Frequency

C)

Specific

D)

Manifest

A metasummary involves developing a list of abstracted findings from the primary 20. studies. What is the percentage of studies that contain a given findings called?

A)

Intensity

B)

Frequency

C)

Specific

D)

Manifest

Answer Key 1. B 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. D 14. D 15. A 16. D 17. C 18. A 19. D 20. B Chapter 30 Disseminating Evidence: Reporting Research Findings

What would researchers do in developing a dissemination plan?

1. Select a communication outlet 2. Identify the audience whom they 1. wish to reach 3. Decide on the content that can be effectively communicated.

4. How to obtain financial support for the study A)

1, 2, 3

B)

1, 2, 4

C)

1, 3, 4

D)

2, 3, 4

2.

When there are multiple authors of a report, what is the lead author?

A)

Always listed as the first author

B)

Is the person whose name is first alphabetically

C)

Is the individual who has overall responsibility for the manuscript

D)

Author with whom the journal communicates

3.

When there are multiple authors of a report, what is the corresponding author?

A)

Always listed as the first author

B)

Is the person whose name is first alphabetically

C)

Is the individual who has overall responsibility for the manuscript

Author with whom the journal communicates

D)

4.

The reader is acquainted with the research problem in which section of the report?

A)

Introduction

B)

Methods

C)

Results

D)

Discussion

Evidence for the reliability of measuring 5. instruments used in a study appears in which section of the report?

A)

Introduction

B)

Methods

C)

Results

D)

Discussion

6.

Hypotheses are generally presented in which section of the report?

A)

Introduction

B)

Methods

C)

Results

D)

Discussion

Findings from the analyses are 7. summarized in what section of the research report?

A)

Introduction

B)

Methods

C)

Results

D)

Discussion

Recommendations for future research are 8. generally included in which section of the research report?

A)

Introduction

B)

Methods

C)

Results

D)

Discussion

9.

What format do quantitative reports and many qualitative reports follow?

A)

IMRAD

B)

CONSORT

C)

STROBE

D)

TREND

Standards for reporting methodologic elements are increasingly used.

10.

Researchers reporting an RCT follow which guidelines?

A)

IMRAD

B)

CONSORT

C)

STROBE

D)

TREND

Standards for reporting methodologic elements are increasingly used.

11.

Researchers reporting an observational study follow which guidelines?

A)

IMRAD

B)

CONSORT

C)

STROBE

D)

TREND

Standards for reporting methodologic elements are increasingly used.

12. Researchers reporting a nonrandomized evaluation of interventions follow which guidelines?

A)

IMRAD

B)

CONSORT

C)

STROBE

D)

TREND

13.

Theses and dissertations normally follow what format?

A)

IMRAD

B)

CONSORT

C)

STROBE

D)

TREND

Most nursing journals that publish research reports are refereed journals with 14. a policy of basing publication decisions on what type of review?

A)

Impact

B)

Public

C)

Blind

D)

Healthcare leaders

One proxy for a journal's prestige is the ratio between citations to a journal and 15. recent citable items published. What is the name of this ratio?

A)

Impact

B)

Trend

C)

Validity

D)

Reliability

In a dissertation or technical report, a copy 16. of the data collection instrument would normally be included in which section?

A)

Introduction

B)

Methods

C)

Appendix

D)

Bibliography

17. What is the purpose of a query letter?

A)

Determine whether a journal editor has interest in a proposed manuscript.

B)

Ask permission to submit a manuscript to multiple journals simultaneously.

C)

Inquire about the publication status of submitted manuscript.

D)

Ask for the maximum page length of the manuscript to be submitted for publication.

18.

How many nursing journals are indexed in CINAHL?

A)

More than 200

B)

More than 300

C)

More than 400

D)

More than 500

Care should be taken in using and preparing citations. Some nursing journals 19. suggest that there be not more than how many references?

A)

3

B)

5

C)

10

D)

15

The mechanism for submitting a presentation to a conference is simpler than for journal submission. The 20. association sponsoring the conference ordinarily issues a Call for Abstracts in how many months before the meeting date?

A)

1 to 2

B)

3 to 5

C)

6 to 9

D)

10 to 12

Answer Key 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. D 19. D 20. C Chapter 31 Writing Proposals to Generate Evidence

1.

Preparing proposals for what type of studies is especially challenging?

A)

Quantitative

B)

Qualitative

C)

Mixed research

D)

Quantitative and qualitative

What type of proposals needs to persuade 2. reviewers that the proposed study is important and a good risk?

A)

Quantitative

B)

Qualitative

C)

Mixed research

D)

Research

What branch of government is the largest 3. source of research funds for health researchers in the United States?

A)

Local

B)

State

C)

Legislative

D)

Federal

The National Institutes of Health announce 4. special opportunities in what form for contracts?

A)

Parent Announcements

B)

Program Announcements

C)

Requests for Applications

D)

Requests for Proposals

The National Institutes of Health announce special opportunities in what forms for grants?

1. Parent Announcements 5.

2. Program Announcements 3. Requests for Applications 4. Requests for Proposals A)

1, 2

B)

1, 4

C)

2, 3

D)

3, 4

What is the type of written document 6. specifying what a researcher intends to study called?

A)

Grantsmanship

B)

Research

C)

Parent Announcements

D)

Program Announcements

Nurses can apply for a variety of grants from NIH. What is the most common type of grant?

1. Research Project Grants 7.

2. AREA Grants 3. Small Grants 4. Exploratory/Developmental Grants A)

1

B)

1, 2

C)

1, 2, 3

D)

1, 2, 3, 4

Grant applications to NIH are submitted online using the SF424, which has a series 8. of special forms that require what type of uploaded attachments?

A)

Word

B)

Excel

C)

Power Point

D)

PDF

The heart of an NIH grant application is 9. the research plan component, which includes how many major sections?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

The heart of an NIH grant application is the research plan component, which 10. includes a section on research strategy.

What is the maximum number of pages for a research project grant?

A)

3

B)

6

C)

9

D)

12

The heart of an NIH grant application is the research plan component, which 11. includes a section on research strategy.

What is the maximum number of pages for a training fellowship?

A)

3

B)

6

C)

9

D)

12

NIH grant applications require budgets, which can be an abbreviated modular 12. budget if requested funds for R01 grants do not exceed how many dollars in direct costs per year?

A)

$150, 000

B)

$200, 000

C)

$250,000

D)

$300,000

Grant applications to NIH are reviewed 13. how many times a year in a dual review process?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

In NIH's review procedure, the study section assigns priority (intensity) scores only to applications judged to be in the top 14. half of proposals based on a preliminary appraisal by assigned reviewers. What is the most meritorious ranking?

A)

1

B)

10

C)

50

D)

90

In NIH's review procedure, the study section assigns priority (intensity) scores only to applications judged to be in the top 15. half of proposals based on a preliminary appraisal by assigned reviewers. What is the lowest possible ranking?

A)

1

B)

10

C)

50

D)

90

16.

What is a suggestion for writing a strong proposal for the planning stage?

A)

Building a persuasive case

B)

Justifying methodologic decisions

C)

Beginning and ending with flourish

D)

Selecting an important topic

17.

What is a suggestion for writing a strong proposal for the writing stage?

A)

Adhering to proposal instructions

B)

Starting early

C)

Creating a strong team

D)

Reviewing a successful proposal

Specific requirements regarding the length and format of dissertation proposals vary in different settings, and it is important to 18. know at the outset what is expected.

Typically, dissertation proposals are how many pages in length?

A)

10–20

B)

20–30

C)

20–40

D)

30–50

19.

What is the most important section of a dissertation proposal?

A)

Literature review

B)

Theoretical framework

C)

Hypothesis formulation

D)

Bibliography

A seasoned researcher from a small liberal arts college that had not received much 20.

NIH support would be eligible for which award?

A)

Research Project Grants

B)

AREA Grants

C)

Small Grants

D)

Exploratory/Developmental Grants

Answer Key 1. B 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. D 16. D 17. A 18. C 19. A 20. B