TEST BANK for Emergency Care in the Streets 8th edition by Nancy Caroline.

Nancy Caroline’s Emergency Care in the Streets – 8th edition Test Bank CHAPTER 1 1. EMS stands for: a. b. c. d.

Evolve Medical Service Emergency Medical Services Emergency Medical School European Medical Services ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg. 4

2. The first recorded use of an ambulance was by the military during the Siege of Malaga in: a. b. c. d.

At the beginning of 1400 In the mid of 1400 At the start of 1500 At the end of 1400 ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: pg. 4

3. (CoAEMSP) is the only accrediting body for paramedic programs which stands for: a. b. c. d.

Committee on Accreditation of Educational Programs for the EMS Professions Committee on Association of Educational Programs for the EMS Professions Conference on Accreditation of Educational Programs for the EMS Professions Committee on Accreditation of Educational Programs for the EMS People ANS: A

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg. 10

4. A registry system which is used to test and establish licensure is: a. b. c. d.

NREMT NREMS NREMP NREMR ANS: A

DIF: Moderate REF: Pg. 9

5. What is Reciprocity?

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a. b. c. d.

Granting certification to a provider from same state or agency Granting certification to a provider from another state or agency Granting certification to a provider both from same or another state No need of granting certification from any state ANS: B

DIF: Easy REF: Pg. 10

6. Select the correct ranking: a. b. c. d.

The Dispatcher, EMT, Paramedic, Advanced EMT, Emergency Medical Responder Emergency Medical Responder, Paramedic, EMT, Advanced EMT, The Dispatcher Paramedic, Advanced EMT, EMT, Emergency Medical Responder, The Dispatcher The Dispatcher, Emergency Medical Responder, EMT, Advanced EMT, Paramedic ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg. 12, 13

7. Who launched the first rescue squad called Roanoke Life Saving in 1928? a. b. c. d.

Nancy Lee Caroline Baron Dominique-Jean Larrey Julian Stanley Wise Dr. David Boyde ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg. 6

8. The first National Standard Curriculum for paramedics was developed by: a. b. c. d.

NHTSA US DOT AHRQ EMS ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg. 8

9. At the emergency scene, what would be the initial assessment of patient? a. b. c. d.

Respiration, Pulse, Blood pressure Pulse, Skin, Blood test Pupil, Respiration, Temperature Blood pressure, Allergen test, Pulse

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ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Pg. 15 10.If a patient is facing diminished breath sounds and distented necks veins and his radial pulses are weakening and increasing in rate and you insert an oral airway and starts ventilating him with bag-mask device and 100% oxygen but still the patient is feeling difficult to breath. So with further findings, you assessed that he is facing tension pneumothorax, what would you do? a. b. c. d.

Rushed him to hospital Perform chest compressions Perform needle thoracotomy Mouth to mouth breathing ANS: C

DIF: Hard REF: Pg. 15

11. Choose the correct sequence of procedures for each emergency call? a. b. c. d.

Preparation, Response, Scene Management, Patient Assessment Response, Preparation, Scene Management, Patient Assessment Scene Management, Preparation, Response, Patient Assessment Patient Assessment, Scene Management, Response, Preparation ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg. 19

12. A treatment plan for specific illness or injury: a. b. c. d.

Direct Medical Control Standing order Protocol Indirect Medical Control ANS: C

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg. 21

13. CQI stands for: a. b. c. d.

Control Quality Improvement Continuous Quality Improvement Control Quantity Improvement Continuous Quantity Improvement ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg. 22

14. How many points are there for good CQI process? a. 5

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b. 8 c. 9 d. 10 ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg. 22

15. The first step in conducting EMS research: a. b. c. d.

Research domain Research agenda Research consortium Research area ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg. 25

16. Which board approval is required before starting the research? a. b. c. d.

Institutional Review Board Institutional Research Board International Review Board International Research Board ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: 25

17. Types of Survey research: a. b. c. d.

2 3 4 5 ANS: 3

DIF: Easy

REF: 26

18. Which research uses available data? a. b. c. d.

Retrospective Research Prospective Research Cohort Research Case study

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ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Pg. 26 19. Which is called snapshot of events and information? a. b. c. d.

Longitudinal design Cross-sectional design Case study Literature Review ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg. 26

20.A form of research in which the existing literature is reviewed, and the researcher analyzes the collection of research to draw a conclusion. a. b. c. d.

Prospective Research Cohort Research Case Study Literature Review ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg27

21. Types of sampling: a. b. c. d.

2 3 4 5 ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: 27

22.Tool in which investigators are unaware of the study arm into which the subject being interviewed has been enrolled: a. b. c. d.

Unblinded Study Case study Descriptive study Blinded study ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg27

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23. Where all parties are blinded, study is: a. Single-blinded b. Double-blinded c. Triple-blinded d. Blinded ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg. 27

24. ILCOR stands for: a. b. c. d.

International Liaison Committee on Resuscitation International Liaison Conference on Resuscitation International Liaison Committee of Resuscitation International Liaison Conference of Resuscitation ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg29

25. In adults, chest compressions should be delivered at a rate of: a. b. c. d.

120 to 140 per minute and at a depth between 2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6 cm) 100 to 120 per minute and at a depth between 3 to 3.4 inches (7 to 8 cm) 100 to 120 per minute and at a depth between 2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6 cm) 110 to 120 per minute and at a depth between 2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6 cm) ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: 29

26. An early title given to an ambulance-style unit: a. b. c. d.

mobile intensive care units medical intensive care units mandatory intensive care units mobile intensive care services ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg34

27.Guideline that is a written document signed by the EMS system’s medical director that outlines specific directions, permissions, and sometimes prohibitions regarding patient care that is rendered prior to contacting medical control: a. Protocol

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b. Standing order c. Indirect control d. Direct control ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg21

28. When the documentation is required in procedures for each emergency call? a. b. c. d.

After the patient assessment and care After the patient transfer and report After the management and disposition After the Scene management ANS: B

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg19

29. What makes you a health care professional? a. b. c. d.

Empathy and integrity Injury prevention Time management All of the above ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg18

30. Normal Blood pressure range a. 120/80 mm Hg b. 100/80 mm Hg c. 120/100 mm Hg d. 110/80 mm Hg ANS: A

DIF: Moderate REF: Pg. 16

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CHAPTER 2 31. How many hours being awake is equal to being legally intoxicated? a. b. c. d.

18hr 10hr 21hr 24hr ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg39

32. Components of wellness: a. b. c. d.

2 3 4 5 ANS: C

DIF: Moderate REF: Pg. 39

33.The Life’s Simple list from the American Heart Association (AHA) includes factors that have been found to improve heart health: a. b. c. d.

Reduce blood sugar Control cholesterol Manage blood pressure All of the above ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg. 39

34. How many calories a moderately active woman age 19 to 30 years requires? a. b. c. d.

1500kcal 1800kcal 2000kcal None of the above ANS: C

DIF: Easy REF: Pg40

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35. Which eatable is used in least quantity in maintaining diet? a. b. c. d.

Apple Cucumber Milk Nuts ANS: D

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg39

36. The amount you need from each of food groups is directly dependent to: a. b. c. d.

Age Sex Physical activity All of the above ANS: D

DIF: Easy REF: Pg40

37.If a man age 25 with height 5’2 and weighs 80kg, what would be the best strategy to have healthy weight? a. b. c. d.

Crash dieting Exercise/Walking Controlled Portions of meal Both b and c ANS: D

DIF: Moderate REF: Pg41

38. A man having age 30years, what would be his target heart rate? a. b. c. d.

90 to 124 beats/min 92 to 128 beats/min 95 to 131 beats/min 98 to 135 beats/min ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg42

39. A 40-year-old man has a resting heart rate of60 beats/min. Calculate his target heart rate? a. 121 to 157 beats/min b. 118 to 154 beats/min c. 122 to 158 beats/min

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d. None of the above ANS: D (120 to 156 beats/min) DIF: Hard REF: Pg. 42

40. E-cigarettes or electronic cigarettes are also called: a. b. c. d.

Alternative to tobacco cigarette Electronic nicotine delivery system Personal vaporizes All of the above ANS: D

DIF: Easy REF: Pg. 43

41. The sleep wake cycle is an example of: a. b. c. d.

Circadian rhythm Ultradian rhythm Exogenous zeitgeber Infradian rhythm ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg. 43

42. Circadian rhythms are controlled by special area of brain: a. b. c. d.

Hypothalamus Cerebrum Suprachiasmatic nuclei Cerebellum ANS: C

DIF: Moderate Pg. 43

43. When lifting, head should be kept upright and facing forward with legs spread about: a. b. c. d.

10inches 12inches 15inches 17inches ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

Pg. 44

44. Which is the correct statement? a. All contagious diseases are infectious diseases

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b. All infectious diseases are contagious diseases c. Some infectious diseases are contagious diseases d. Both a and c ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

pg. 46

45. Pneumonia caused by pneumococcus bacteria, which statement fits this example a. b. c. d.

Some infectious diseases are contagious diseases All infectious diseases are contagious diseases Both None ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg46

46. If the baby is born and tested positive with HIV, it indicates: a. b. c. d.

Airborne transmission Direct contact transmission Indirect contact transmission None of the above ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg.46

47. Tetanus-diphtheria boosters immunization is performed every: a. b. c. d.

Year 5 years 10 years 7 years ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg48

48. Which mask is effective in preventing TB bacillus? a. b. c. d.

Surgical mask Fabric/cloth mask N95 P100 ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg49-50

49.If you have been exposed to a patient’s blood or body fluids, what would be first guideline you would follow?

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a. b. c. d.

Follow your department’s infection control plan Obtain proper immunization boosters Wash the affected area immediately with soap and water Turn patient care over to another EMS provider ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg51

50.If you are in a hostile situation and comes in contact with a hostile patient, what would be you best strategy? a. b. c. d.

You will talk him out of the situation and convinced him to cooperate with you You will review surroundings and listen to him You will listen to him by de-escalating his emotions with tactful reasoning and empathy You will just follow your instincts according to the situation ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg51

51.If there is a road accident of an oil tanker hit with a car and 3 people critically injured, what would be you best strategy to act? a. b. c. d.

You will park the ambulance near the incident area and rush to the injured people You will review the surrounding and hazards and then act according to them You will wait for the traffic obstacles to be solved You will wait for the other units to arrive as there is oil leaking ANS: B

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg52

52. Select the situation which fits the eustress: a. b. c. d.

You lost a loved one and tried to suicide You faced poverty in early childhood and overcome it by becoming successful entrepreneur You failed in marriage and never try again You lost your ability to walk in accident and blame it on people ANS: B

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg53

53.If a house caught fire and you manage to make out safe with all family members but after that you feel fear and trembling, what would be the situation: a. b. c. d.

Acute stress reaction Delayed stress reaction Cumulative stress reaction None of the above

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ANS: B

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg55

54.If a woman lost his spouse and doing all the norms in routine without grieving and also don’t talk about it, it would be: a. b. c. d.

Denial Regression Projection Displacement ANS: A

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg56

55. A patient subconsciously converts anxiety into a bodily dysfunction is called: a. b. c. d.

Depression Overreaction Displacement Conversion hysteria ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg57

56.If a paramedic after 5-6 years of his work feels exhausted in the morning while waking up for work and easily gets irritated during work. Moreover, not enjoying his hobbies and favorite food, it suggests: a. b. c. d.

Conversion hysteria Depression Burnout Stress ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg59

57. Select the correct sequence of grieving process: a. b. c. d.

Denial, Anger, Depression, Bargaining, Acceptance Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance Depression, Denial, Bargaining, Anger, Acceptance Anger, Depression, Denial, Bargaining, Acceptance ANS: C

DIF: Moderate REF: Pg61

58.If a man has cancer and he has accept that he is going to die soon but still hope to see his daughter child who is going to be born soon, is stage of:

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a. b. c. d.

Acceptance Hope Bargaining None of the above ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg61

59.If a child wants to know the details of the incident that results in the loss of loved one, what would be his/her age? a. b. c. d.

9 to 11 year 9 to 10 year 9 to 12 year 6 to 9 year ANS: C

DIF: Moderate REF: Pg63

60. EAP stands for: a. b. c. d.

Emergency Assistance Program Employee Assistance Program Employee Authority Program Employee Assistance Practice ANS: B DIF: Easy

REF: Pg63

61. If a paramedic is experiencing flashbacks of horrific event and disturbed sleep, it indicates: a. b. c. d.

Depression Anxiety PTSD Burnout ANS: C

DIF: Moderate REF: pg63

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CHAPTER 3: 62.The American Heart Association suggests the limited use of iodine, controlled diet and regular exercise for hypertensive patients, indicates: a. b. c. d.

Public health Community nutrition Emergency Medical Service Clinical Nutrition ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg. 72

63.If a person is standing on the top floor and is not responding to the people who are calling him/her out to get down and suddenly he falls, it indicates: a. b. c. d.

Unintentional injury Intentional injury Suicide Accident ANS: B

DIF: Hard REF: Pg. 72

64. Recently, which is the leading cause of death after cancer and heart disease in United States? a. b. c. d.

Unintentional injuries Diabetes COVID-19 Alzheimer Disease ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg. 72

65. Calculate the YPLL of 28 year old: a. b. c. d.

35 36 37 38 ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg. 74

66.If a man hits with the car while crossing the road but luckily he survived without any injuries. What would you do as EMSparamedic?

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a. b. c. d.

You will make sure that no injury happened and document and leave You will make him feel responsible for the accident You will give him a positive reinforcement without being judgmental You will check him making sure that no injury happened by giving him positive advice ANS: D

DIF: Hard REF: Pg77

67.Education Environment Economic incentives Select the 4th E of prevention: a. b. c. d.

Public Health Safety guidelines Education Laws and Regulations ANS: C

DIF: Easy REF: Pg77

68.Those preventive measures that do not require conscious effort on the part of a potential victim are called: a. b. c. d.

Economic incentive prevention Environment intervention Passive intervention Intervention ANS: C

DIF: Moderate REF: Pg78

69. How many states of US has the rule of wearing motorcycle helmets? a. b. c. d.

16 17 18 19 ANS: D DIF: Moderate

REF: pg80

70. Which state has no rule of wearing seat belts for adults? a. b. c. d.

Puerto Rico US Virgin New Hampshire District of Columbia

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ANS: C

DIF: Moderate REF: Pg80

71. Administering epinephrine to a patient having an allergic reaction to a bee sting, is example of: a. b. c. d.

Passive intervention Primary prevention Secondary prevention None of the above ANS: C

DIF: Easy REF: pg81

72. Who started the awareness campaign called ‘Stop Heroin’? a. Lisa Cassidy b. Hardy Charles c. Frank Cassidy d. Thomas Saint ANS: A

DIF: Easy REF: Pg82

73.Information regarding the number and nature of medical cases is compared with an expected volume of calls for the community at a given time and place, is called: a. b. c. d.

Injury surveillance Epidemiology Case study Syndromic surveillance ANS: D

DIF: Moderate REF: pg83

74. Who was the first director of National Highway Traffic Safety Administration’s? a. b. c. d.

Charles Haddon William Haddon Thomas Haddon Franklin Haddon ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg83

75. How many components are in Haddon matrix to analyze injury? a. 6 b. 7 c. 8

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d. 9 ANS: D

DIF: Easy REF: Pg84

76. The steps to develop prevention program is advocated by: a. b. c. d.

Emergency Medical Services for Children (EMSC) Emergency Medical Services for Adults (EMSA) Emergency Medical Services for Teenagers (EMST) None of the above ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg86

77. Choose the correct sequence of five steps to develop preventive program: a. Define the problem, Conduct community assessment, Set goals and objectives, Plan and test, Implement and evaluate b. Conduct community assessment, Set goals and objectives, Define the problem, Plan and test, Implement and evaluate c. Conduct community assessment, Define the problem, Set goals and objectives, Plan and test, Implement and evaluate d. Set Goals and Objectives, Define the problem, Conduct community assessment, Plan and test, Implement and Evaluate ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: 86-87

78. Which includes in the community? a. b. c. d.

Law enforcement The media EMS groups All of them ANS: D

DIF: Easy REF: Pg86-87

79. Which one is the objective in preventive program? a. b. c. d.

Decrease preventable injuries to children on the community’s roadways Increase number of helmets to prevent bicycle injuries in children Increase number of influenza vaccines to prevent influenza in young children 1,000 child safety seats distributed to low income families within 18 months ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg87

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80. Which one is the best funding system in prevention program? a. b. c. d.

Partnering with the local media Seeking grants from regional, state, or national sources Seeking sponsorships Networking with other organizations interested in prevention programs ANS: D

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg88

81. Which includes the Haddon matrix to apply? a. b. c. d.

Pre-event Post- event Event All of them ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg89

82. If an infant is ejected from vehicle as a result of accident and mother is distressed, what it would be? a. b. c. d.

A teachable moment Non-teachable moment Emergency moment Both b and c ANS: D

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg. 89

83. Which are secondary injury preventions? a. b. c. d.

IV access Warning systems Monitoring vital signs Both a and c ANS: D

DIF: Easy REF: Pg89

84. MVC stands for: a. b. c. d.

Motor vehicle collision Motor vehicle counter None of them Both of them

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ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg75

85. Out of 10, how many American die each year from chronic diseases? a. b. c. d.

6 7 5 8 ANS: B DIF: Easy

REF: Pg74

86. Cause of death by unintentional injury: a. b. c. d.

Choking and suffocation Self-harm by knife Sleeping pills Assault ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg72

CHAPTER 4 87. HIPAA stands for: a. b. c. d.

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Health Insurance Policy and Accountability Act Health Insurance Policy and Account Act Health Insurance Portability and Account Act ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg. 96

88.The branch of philosophy that deals with the study and understanding of the distinction between right and wrong and the manner in which people apply concepts of right and wrong to their personal and professional lives is called: a. b. c. d.

Morality Ethics Both a and b Applied ethics

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ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg. 97

89.As EMS paramedic, if you are treating a person who is not of your race and against your beliefs. What would you choose? a. b. c. d.

Personal ethics Medical ethics Professional ethics None of them ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg97

90. When was The Declaration of Geneva, first drafted by the World Medical Association? a. 1945 b. 1946 c. 1947 d. 1948 ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg97

91.When Code of Ethics was for EMS Practitioners, was issued by the National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians (NAEMT)? a. b. c. d.

1976 1977 1978 1979 ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg. 98

92. How many code of ethics are pledged by EMS practitioner? a. b. c. d.

8 9 10 11 ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg. 98

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93. The ethical principles are: a. b. c. d.

Be professional Do no harm Always act in patient’s best interest Both b and c ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg98

94. The practitioner who falsely represents himself or herself will face charges: a. b. c. d.

Suspension and revocations of licensure Criminal charges Civil charges All of them ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg99

95. Each level of Government has: a. b. c. d.

The legislative branch The judicial branch The executive branch All of them ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg100

96.The branch which —reports to the president or the governor and is made up of various cabinets and agencies (the bureaucrats) that carryout and administer the laws is: a. b. c. d.

The legislative branch The administrative branch The judicial branch None of them ANS: B

DIF: Moderate REF: Pg. 100

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97.A decision that has been made by a judge through a court case based on his or her interpretation of the statutes and constitutions is: a. b. c. d.

Common law Case law Both a and b None of them ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg100

98.Court decisions, that establish precedent and become the law of the state in which you live and practice as a paramedic are issued by: a. Trial courts b. Appellate courts c. Civil courts d. Common law ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

DIF: Pg100

99. If as a paramedic, you have sexually assault a patient. Which law would apply? a. b. c. d.

Common law Civil law Criminal law Tort law ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg100

100. Type of consent in which a patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment: a. b. c. d.

Due process Abandonment Compensatory damages Implied consent ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg100

101. What is the age of consent?

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a. b. c. d.

14 16 18 20 ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg100

102. An action instituted by a private person or entity: a. b. c. d.

Liability Comes under criminal law The plaintiff None of them ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg100

103. If a paramedic has neglected the patient’s pulse which is indicating that his pulse are dropping and he needs oxygen mask device. It would come under: a. b. c. d.

Tort Intentional tort Unintentional tort Civil lawsuit ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg100

104. if the misconduct of the EMS provider was intentional or constituted a reckless disregard for the safety of the public, then court awarded: a. b. c. d.

Punitive damage Monetary compensation Both a and b None of them ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg100

105. Threatening to restrain a patient who does not want to be transported is considered: a. Assault

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b. Defamation c. Battery d. Criminal prosecution ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg101

106. If EMS provider touches a 18year old conscious injured girl without her consent, is considered: a. b. c. d.

False imprisonment Defamation Battery Assault ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg101

107. If EMS provider write in a document that the patient was drunk, and patient was just dizzy due to some allergic response to any food, is considered: a. b. c. d.

Libel Slander Battery False imprisonment ANS: A

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg101

108. If EMS provider uses the judgmental and offensive statements in speaking to the patient, is considered: a. b. c. d.

False imprisonment Assault Battery Slander ANS: D

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg102

109. When the civil lawsuit begins? a. When dissatisfied patient files complaint against EMS provider b. When summons happens c. When discovery period begins

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d. When legal action is been taken ANS: A

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg102

110. Time period for discovery period: a. b. c. d.

10day-1month 1month-1year 1year-2year More than 2 year ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg103

111. Who is attorney? a. b. c. d.

Dissatisfied patient EMS provider Complaint filer Judge ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg102

112. As a paramedic, you have lines of authority to answer to within the EMS system but which one of these is not that line? a. b. c. d.

The Medical director The employer The physician The licensing agency ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg103

113. Which statement is true about ‘borrowed service doctrine’: a. b. c. d.

When you follow physician order which doesn’t falls under your training When conflict happens between you and physician When you take action which doesn’t fall under your training/practice When you don’t follow physician order which doesn’t falls under your training/practice ANS: D

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg103

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114. As a paramedic, once you have license to work but the service for which you are seeking work may impose additional requirements as part of its eligibility standards like CPR. It comes under: a. b. c. d.

Certification License by State Credentialing None of them

ANS: C DIF: Hard REF: Pg104 115. Components of due process: a. b. c. d.

Notice Action Opportunity to be heard Both a and c ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg104

116. Which statement is true about HIPAA policy: a. b. c. d.

Patient information shared to the people who are not involved in care of patient Patient information shared to the media and public Patient information shared for medical need and for betterment of society as whole Patient information shared to other paramedics ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg105

117. EMTALA stands for: a. b. c. d.

Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Agency Evolved Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Authority ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg106

118. Policy of EMTALA: a. Paramedic should do his duty considering patient health insurance

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b. Paramedic should treat patient as his financial status c. Paramedic should do his duty regardless of any financial issues of patient d. Paramedic should transfer patient to nearest hospital regardless of patient’s need ANS: C

DIF: Moderate REF: Pg106

119. If a 20year old young girl is raped and murdered and you reached the scene as paramedic. What would you do? a. b. c. d.

You will inform the police You will examine the body by removing blood and any liquid You will remove the furniture and stuff from her body and examine her You will inform police, check if she is alive without disturbing any potential evidence ANS: D

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg108

CHAPTER 5 120. The final step in effective communication which gives clarification about message is: a. b. c. d.

Establish trust Never assume anything Learn how to talk business Feedback ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg135

121. The EMS dialing number in USA is: a. b. c. d.

911 112 311 211 ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg135

122. What was the cause of airline crash in 1980s that was investigated by airline industry? a. Lack of communication b. Management issue

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Internal affair d. Engine fault ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg136

123. Calls to 911 for emergency medical assistance are answered in most EMS systems by a program called: a. EMS b. EMD c. CRM d. PSAP ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg136

124. The system which is used by most of the EMS systems for the use of linked dispatch center computer consoles is: a. CAD b. MDT c. MOI d. ERS ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg137

125. The most suitable communication system used by EMS is: a. Two-way radio system b. Sophisticated radio system c. Landline d. Cell phone

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg138

126. The basic radio wave onto which a signal is encoded is called a: a. Transverse wave b. Longitudinal wave c. Carrier wave d. Sound wave

ANS: C

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg139

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127. Number of oscillations of carrier wave is usually measured in: A. Hertz B. Coulomb C. Henry D. Ohm

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg139

128. One megahertz (MHz) equals to: a. 1 billion cycles per second b. 1 micro cycles per second c. 1 million cycles per second d. 1 trillion cycles per second

ANS: C

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg139

129. The typical operation frequency band of EMS and public safety communication systems is a. 30 MHz to 300 MHz b. 35 MHz to 200 MHz c. 20 MHz to 150 MHz d. 40 MHz to 400 MHz

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg139

130. Ultra-High Frequency Band (UHF) ranges from: a. 200 MHz to 2 GHz b. 300 MHz to 3GHz c. 150 MHz to 1.5 MHz d. 400 MHz to 3 GHz

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg139

131. The higher frequency bands generally have: A. Moderate Interference B. Less Interference

NURSING TEST BANK

C. High Interference D. High Distortion

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg139

132. The public safety radio spectrum frequency is assigned with a spacing of: a. 11 KHz b. 12 KHz c. 13 KHz d. 12.5 KHz

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg139

133. Which is the limiting factor affecting radio signals? a. Output power b. Line of sight c. Range d. Location of antenna

ANS: C

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg139

134. Radio receivers are equipped with a filtering system known as: a. Filter circuit b. Squelch c. Low pass filter d. Amplifier

ANS: B

DIF: EASY REF: Pg139

135. The transmitter output power of base station radios is: a. 275 watts b. 300 watts c. 375 watts d. 250 watts

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg139

136. The 911 caller reporting the collision is agitated and yelling. What should the dispatcher do to obtain the necessary information from the caller? a. Ask the caller to put someone else on the phone. b. Ignore the caller and attempt to determine the location of the call using GPS data. c. Ask specific questions in calm voice, such as exact location of the incident and number of vehicles involved. d. Send a law enforcement officer to the location to confirm the collision before dispatching the ambulance.

ANS: D

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg167

137. Any system that relies on technology has the potential to fail. What would be the important step that you take to overcome this problem? a. Backup communication system b. Alternative system c. Helper organization d. None of these

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg143

138. Which terminology is used in EMS to utilize specialized onboard computers in motor vehicles to send data to a monitoring station in the event of crash? a. Automatic Crash Notification (ACN) b. GIS c. PASP d. All of these ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg142

139. Which is the best method that provides direct access to hospitals and other services that may not have direct radio communications? a. Cell phones b. Two-way radio system c. GPS d. Walkie-talkie

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg142

140. Trunked Radio Systems are sophisticated communication networks usually operating in the frequency range of: a. 800 and 900 MHz b. 500 to 600 MHz c. 400 to 500 MHz d. All of these

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg141

141. Which radio signals allow multiple users to share frequencies and repeaters? a. Compressed radio signals b. Encoded radio signals c. Resonating radio signals d. Ordinary radio signals

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg141

142. In the career of a paramedic, one can likely be involved in such large scale events like natural disasters.

What would you do in that situation? a. Mutual aid b. Follow protocols c. Wait for orders d. None of these

ANS: A DIF: HARD REF: Pg141 143. The transmitter output power can vary from 5to 50 watts having a line range of up to: a. 11 miles b.

12 miles c.

33 miles d.

15 miles

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg140

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144. Portable Transceivers have a low output power typically between: a. 1 and 5 watts b. 2 and 4 watts c. 5 and 7 watts d. 3 and 6 watts

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg140

145. Portable Transceivers have short antennas that limits the range of signal to: A. 3 to 5 km B. 4 to 5 km C. 2to 3 km D. 5 to 8 km

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg140

146. In circumstances when frequency of radio systems are not operating in visible range, which radio system will be most suitable for that condition? a. Simplex radio system b. Two-way radio system c. Mobile transceivers d. Multiplex radio system

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg140

147. In medical terminology communication ‘’yes’’ and ‘’no’’ may be easily missed during talk. Which pair will you use to overcome this problem? a. ‘’True’’ and ‘’false’’ b. ‘’Affirmative’’ and ‘’negative’’ c. ‘’Confirm’’ and ‘’discard’’ d. All of these

ANS: B

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg146

148. The ten codec system in EMS communication was phased out due to one biggest drawback which was: A. Same code often has different meanings in different jurisdictions

NURSING TEST BANK

B. Difficult to understand C. Lack of accessibility D. All of these

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: 146

149. You send a 12-lead ECG to the medical control physician. The technology used to send this tracing is called: a. b. c. d.

Biotelemetry Biophysics Tele-cardiology Direct media control

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg168

CHAPTER 6 150. What is an EMS report called? a. b. c. d.

Patient Care Report Pre-hospital care report Both a and b None ANS: C

DIFF: Easy

REF: Pg. 170

151. The Objective information in the report include? a. b. c. d.

Information that is told to you, but cannot be seen Information that can be observed and recorded Information that is neither told, observed or recorded Information that is told, observed and recorded ANS: B

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg. 170

152. The Subjective information in the report include?

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Information that is told to you, but cannot be seen Information that can be observed and recorded Information that is neither told, observed or recorded Information that is told, observed and recorded ANS: A

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg. 170

153. From 0 to 10, at what scale of the patient’s pain, you should record both subjective and objective information? a. b. c. d.

6 7 8 9 ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg. 170

154. Which of the following systems store standardized EMS data from each individual state? a. Emergency Medical Dispatch (EMD) b. National Emergency Medical Services Information System (NEMSIS) c. Both a and b d. None ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg. 172

155. Patient data includes which of the following patient information? a. b. c. d.

Chief complaint Assessment Level of consciousness All of the above ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg. 173

156. The care prior to arrival is called a. b. c. d.

Emergency Medical Care Emergency Medical School Emergency Medical Dispatch Emergency Medical Service

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: C

DIFF: DIF

REF: Pg. 174

157. EMS is a --------- element of patient care. a. b. c. d.

Optional Fun Required and necessary All of the above ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg. 179

158. How many methods of narrative documentation exist? a. b. c. d.

3 4 5 6 ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg. 179

159. Chronological method is explained as a. b. c. d.

Explain the call in story format Subjective and objective info. , assessment and plan Chief complaint, history, assessment, treatment, transport and exceptions Documentation of each body system ANS: A

DIFF: HARD

REF: 179

160. Soap Method includes a. b. c. d.

Subjective and objective info. , assessment and plan Chief complaint, history, assessment, treatment, transport and exceptions Explain the call in story format Assessment and Documentation of each body system ANS: A

DIFF: HARD

REF: PG 179

161. CHARTE Method includes

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Assessment and Documentation of each body system Explain the call in story format Subjective and objective info. , assessment and plan Chief complaint, history, assessment, treatment, transport and exceptions ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg. 179

162. Body systems/ parts approach a. b. c. d.

Explain the call in story format Subjective and objective info. , assessment and plan Assessment and Documentation of each body system Chief complaint, history, assessment, treatment, transport and exceptions ANS: C

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg.179

163. The accuracy of documentation depends on a. b. c. d.

Clean uniform of paramedics Completeness and precision of report Proper sanitization Accurate body language ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: PG 181

164. The ink of handwritten report should be of a. b. c. d.

Red and blue Blue and pink Black and blue Black and red ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg. 182

165. A false statement in written form that could be harmful to a person’s current or future reputation is called:

a. b. c. d.

Flattery Complement Libel Laud ANS: C

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg. 182

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166. Which of the following adversely affects the quality of care received by patients after arrival at the hospital?

a. b. c. d.

Proper care and insufficient medication Proper reporting and care Improper reporting but sufficient care Inaccurate and proper documentation ANS: D

DIFF: HARD

REF: 183

167. Well written report shows: a. b. c. d.

Inaccurate skills and mishandling Improper intellectual skills Organizational skills Poor documentation ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: 184

168. The paramedics is advised: a. b. c. d.

To erase the information Scribble through the error Not to erase but scribble the information Not to erase information or scribble the error ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg. 184

169. The error in handwritten report should be

a.

Underlined and bold b.

Italicized c.

Underlined with different color ink d.

None ANS: C DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg. 184

170. An analysis published in 2016 suggests -------------- is the third leading cause of death in U.S. annually

a. b. c. d.

Medical errors Driving errors Food poisoning All of the above

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg. 184

171. The EMS Voluntary Event Notification Tool is an anonymous and confidential system whose aim is to

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Identify flawed processes and systems that require improvement Understand the paramedics and describe their financial issues Treat the patients and deal with their health disorders Take care of the incidents of accidents DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg. 185

172. If you forgot to include important information then you need to write

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Complete story Rewrite the report Addendum Drawback DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg. 185

173. Lost reports pose huge legal implications for

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Patients and paramedics EMS agencies and departments EMS agencies and medical directors Both b and c DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg. 185

174. . Your report is a reflection of your

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

Actions Professionalism Financial stability Both a and b DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg. 185

175. What should be your first consideration regarding the patient

a. b.

Whether the patient is looking presentable If the patient is responding with smile

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c. d.

If the patient is well enough to stand up If the patient is courageous to describe his injury

ANS: C DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg. 186

176. One of your most important jobs is to

a. b. c. d.

Ensure that your patient is fully informed about his current situation Ensure that the patient is temporarily fine Make sure your life is out of danger Make sure you are stable

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg. 174

177. Unresponsive patients may be treated under

a. b. c. d.

Their consent Their implied consent Without their consent Irrespective of their attitude

ANS: B

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg. 174

CHAPTER 7 178. The medical terms for bursitis and tongue are derived from: a. b. c. d.

Gloss and lingua Hepatic and Ren Lingua and bruso Bruso and dorso ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg193

179. How can one identify LASA medications like magnesium sulfate and morphine [MS and MS04])? a. Improved handwriting b. Electronic prescriptions c. Separating LASA medications into different storage areas

NURSING TEST BANK

d. All of them ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg193

180. Which one is eponym? a. b. c. d.

Celiac disease Crohn disease Cast saw COVID-19 ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg193

181. What are words for breast in mammogram and mastectomy? a. b. c. d.

Reno and masto Mammo and corono Mammo and masto Masto and angio ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg194

182. There is a woman age 25year old, who is feeling dizzy with severe headache and you checked her pulse which is 90beats/min and her blood pressure 150/100mmhg. What would be the correct medical term for her condition? a. b. c. d.

Hyperglycemia Hypervolemia Hypertension Blood pressure is high ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg195

183. What would be the color for following terms: Poliomyelitis Cirrhosis a. Black and Yellow b. White and Orange c. Blue and Green d. Gray and yellow-orange ANS: D

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg197

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184. If a patient has fallen from a bike and after examining him, you diagnose bruises on gluteal, popliteal injury and inflammation on volar. What parts these medical terms present? a. b. c. d.

Shoulder, Buttocks, Hands Skull, Knee, Feet Buttocks, Knee, Sole of hand and feet Sole of foot, Lowest portion of spine, Skull ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg201

185. If a person fingers form the hand into fist, what range of motion it is? a. b. c. d.

Flexion Extension Abduction Apex ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg203

186. A patient having a stroke in the right hemisphere of the brain will usually have facial drooping on the same side. Which lateral it represents? a. b. c. d.

Bilateral Unilateral Contralateral Ipsilateral ANS: D

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg204

187. If a patient has pain in its right lower quadrant. Which organs are involved? a. b. c. d.

Liver Appendix Gallbladder Both a and c ANS: B DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg205

188. If a patient is diagnosed with tumor retroperitoneal. What does it mean? a. Tumor near the sternum

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Tumor at top of the sternum c. Area above the peritoneum d. None of them ANS: D

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg206

189. What is left lateral recumbent position? a. b. c. d.

Supine Fowler Recovery Prone ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg207

190. If a paramedic has reached the hospital with patient and has abbreviations in documentation like IVPB and SVN. What does these stand for: a. b. c. d.

Intra venous push, Set volume nebulizer Intra venous piggyback, Small Nebulizer Intra venous piggyback, Small-Volume Nebulizer None of them ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg210

191. If a patient has injury in infra area. What does it mean? a. b. c. d.

Below Above Top Bottom ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg211

192. If a paramedic use pur- in documentation to explain the infected surgical wound. What does it represent: a. Pertaining to disease b. Pertaining to eating c. Pertaining to pus

NURSING TEST BANK

d. Pertaining to rectum ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg212

193. If a person has tracheostomy, what would it mean simply? a. b. c. d.

Surgical creation of opening or hole Surgical incision Both of them None of them ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg213

194. What does these word root define: Callus Digit a. b. c. d.

Hip and Toe Sac and finger Hard thick skin and Finger/toe Fever and Hand ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg214

195. Select the aspirin abbreviation: a. b. c. d.

SAS ASA ASS SSA ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg216

196. AICD stands for: a. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome b. Automated implantable circulator defibrillator c. Automatic implantable cardioverter defibrillator d. Automated implantable cardioverter defibrillator ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg. 216

NURSING TEST BANK

197. Possible meanings of CA: a. b. c. d.

Cancer, chronologic age Coronary artery bypass Cardiac arrest, Circulation Coronary artery disease ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg216

198. Alert and oriented to person is abbreviated as: a. AO × 4, A/O × 4 b. A/O × 4, A&O × 4 c. AO × 4 d. A&O × 4 ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg216

199. If a patient has to go through a surgery, he needs anesthesia which is given by: a. b. c. d.

NA RNA CRNA AS ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg217

200. Symbol for family history: a. b. c. d.

Hx Fx FHx FH ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg218

201. How many pounds are equal to 5.5kg? a. 12lb

NURSING TEST BANK

b. 12.0lb c. 11.5lb d. 12.1lb ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg209

202. According to location, in how many regions abdomen is divided? a. b. c. d.

4 6 8 9 ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg205

203. In fowler position, what is angle at which head is positioned to control airway? a. 45° b. 60° c. 90° d. 0° ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg206

204. In examining and documenting, which right and left is used to present their injury: a. b. c. d.

Paramedic right/left Patients right/left Both of them Not necessary ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg202

205. According to superior and inferior position, thigh is ……………. To knee and ............to waist: a. b. c. d.

Inferior and superior Both superior Superior and inferior Both inferior

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg201

206. The ventral cavity encloses: a. b. c. d.

Cranial cavity Abdominopelvic cavity Retroperitoneal cavity Both b and c ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg201

207. The patient’s blood pressure is 92/60 mm Hg. What is the appropriate term for this reading? a. b. c. d.

Hypotensive Normotensive Hypertensive Hemotensive ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg205

CHAPTER 8 208. Which elements make up 96% of a human’s body weight? a. b. c. d.

Carbon, Copper, Oxygen Hydrogen, Iron, Carbon Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen Oxygen, Nitrogen, Fluorine ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg232

209. The atomic weight of an atom of an element equals the number of: a. b. c. d.

Protons and electrons Electrons and neutrons Protons and neutrons All of them ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg232

NURSING TEST BANK

210. Which mineral has the daily dietary requirement of 100 milligrams (mg) or more: a. b. c. d.

Calcium Iron Zinc Iodine ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg233

211. Which is called blue-print of cell? a. b. c. d.

Ribosomes DNA Cytosol Mitochondria ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg233

212. Which polysaccharide provides bulk (fiber, or roughage) that helps the muscular digestive system walls to push food through its tubes? a. b. c. d.

Cellulose Starch Glycogen None of them ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg233

213. Which one of these is example of partially complete protein? a. b. c. d.

Corn Egg Meat Wheat ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg234

214. Which of these lipids are not good for health?

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Saturated fats Unsaturated fats LDL HDL ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg234

215. Which vitamin convert folacin to folinic acid? a. b. c. d.

Vitamin C Thiamine Riboflavin Folate ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg234

216. Which part has the encoded and genetic information to build further protiens? a. b. c. d.

RNA Genes DNA mRNA ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg235

217. RBCs carry the largest amount of oxygen to the tissues, are also called: a. Leukocytes b. Erythrocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Monocytes ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg236

218. Potassium ions play role in: a. b. c. d.

Assists in maintaining water balance Used in formation of bone tissue Assists in acid-base balance Used in cell membrane polarization

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg236

219. The enzymes inactivation and denaturation temperature: a. b. c. d.

37°C and 40°C 40°C and 42°C 45°C and 55°C 47°C and 50°C ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg238

220. AB + CD → AD + CB, symbol used for: a. b. c. d.

Decomposition reaction Exchange reaction Synthesis reaction Reversible reaction ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg238

221. Which is the powerful energy source of the body and is used to drive chemical reactions? a. b. c. d.

ATP Glucose FADH NADH ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg239

222. The unit of measurement for electrolytes: a. b. c. d.

mmol/L mg/dL ng/mL mEq ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg239

NURSING TEST BANK

223. The sodium-potassium pump is helped by presence of: a. b. c. d.

Insulin Cortisol Adrenaline Dopamine ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg239

224. pH of stomach acid: a. b. c. d.

0 1 2 3 ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg240

225. pH of blood: a. b. c. d.

5.5 6.6 7.5 7.8

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Pg240 226. If the pH of human body falls below 7, what could happen? a. b. c. d.

Abnormal psychological state Coma Alter cell functions Sustained skeletal muscles and contraction ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg240

227. Number of functions, a cell perform: a. b. c. d.

5 6 7 8 ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg240

NURSING TEST BANK

228. The substances which are able to pass through cell membrane: a. b. c. d.

CO₂ Water Sugar Proteins ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg241

229. Which one of these is calcium channel blocker? a. b. c. d.

Lidocaine Amlodipine Tocainide Moricizine ANS: B

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg242

230. The process glycolysis, the first step in cellular respiration occurs in: a. b. c. d.

Cytoplasm Cell membrane Nucleus Organelles ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg242

231. Which cells are incapable of dividing: a. b. c. d.

Sperm cells Nerve cells Skin cells Cancer cells ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg242

232. Which organelle perform house-keeping tasks? a. Ribosomes

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Golgi apparatus c. Centrioles d. Lysosomes ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg243

233. The nucleolus is dense with: a. b. c. d.

DNA RNA Chromosomes None of them ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg244

234. Choose the correct sequence of life cycle of cell: a. b. c. d.

Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis, Differentiation Mitosis, Interphase, Cytokinesis, Differentiation Mitosis, Cytokinesis, Interphase, Differentiation Cytokinesis, Interphase, Differentiation, Mitosis ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg244

235. How many number of chromosomes reduced during meiosis? a. 20 b. 21 c. 22 d. 23 ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg244

236. Choose the correct sequence of mitosis: a. b. c. d.

Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase, Anaphase Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase, Anaphase ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg244

237. Oncogenes occur after mutation and it happens in:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Tumor Benign tumor Malignant tumor Neoplasm ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg245

238. The net result of glycolysis: a. 4 ATP, 2 Pyruvic acid b. 2 ATP, 2 Pyruvic acid c. 2 ATP, 4 Pyruvic acid d. 4 ATP, 4 Pyruvic acid ANS: B

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg246

239. At the end of cellular respiration, total number of ATP molecules: a. b. c. d.

32 34 36 38 ANS: D

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg246

240. At birth, the total percentage of fluid in the body is: a. b. c. d.

60%-65% 65%-70% 70%-75% 75%-80% ANS: D

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg248

241. How many sodium ions are removed to push potassium back in the cell in sodium-potassium pump? a. b. c. d.

1 2 3 4 ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg252

NURSING TEST BANK

242. Which type of tissues are around lines of trachea and lining of fallopian tubes? a. b. c. d.

Simple cuboidal Stratified cuboidal Pseudostratified columnar Transitional ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg254

243. Histamine is secreted from: a. b. c. d.

Fibroblasts Macrophages Mast cells None of them ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg257

244. Which of these following contains nervous tissues? a. b. c. d.

Brain Peripheral nerves Spinal cord All of these

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg260

245. Which of these membrane lines body cavities that lack openings to the outside of the body? a. b. c. d.

Serous membrane Mucous membrane Cutaneous membrane Synovial membrane

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg260

NURSING TEST BANK

246. Which of these processes help the body reduce excess temperature? a. b. c. d.

Convection Conduction None of these Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg261

247. Which of these is considered as the largest system in the body? a. b. c. d.

Skeletal system Muscular system Nervous system Integumentary system

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg262

248. The largest organ of the integumentary system is: a. b. c. d.

Liver Skin Brain Kidney

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg264

249. The stratum corneum are dead cells that have their cytoplasm replaced with: a. b. c. d.

Glucose Keratin Protein Fat

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg264

NURSING TEST BANK

250. Which of these elements is responsible for color variation in blood vessels? a. b. c. d.

Oxygen Hydrogen Carbon-dioxide Nitrogen

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg265

251. Which of these structures mediate the senses of touch? a. b. c. d.

Blood vessels Sebaceous glands Nerves endings Neurons

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg265

252. Which of the following is present between dermis and underlying muscle and bone? a. b. c. d.

Subcutaneous tissue Superficial fascia Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ Connective tissue

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg265

253. Each follicle is surrounded by: a. b. c. d.

Arrector pili Fascia Lipids Protein

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg265

NURSING TEST BANK

254. In which region of the nail, epithelial cells divide and become keratinized? a. b. c. d.

Crescent moon shaped nebula Upper nail Outer region of nail None of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg265

255. Which of these glands secrete earwax? a. b. c. d.

Ceruminous glands Adrenaline glands Pituitary gland Thyroid gland

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg266

256. What is the function of mammary glands? a. b. c. d.

To secrete milk To produce cerumen To make vasopressin None of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg266

257. The matrix that gives the bone its strength is mainly composed of: a. b. c. d.

Calcium phosphate Calcium super-phosphate Phosphorous Magnesium

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg266

NURSING TEST BANK

258. Which of these hormone stimulates the release of calcium from bones when it becomes low in blood and tissue fluid? a. b. c. d.

Vasopressin Estrogen Androgen Parathyroid hormone

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg266

259. Which of the following connective tissues that work with bones to provide frame work of the skeleton? a. b. c. d.

Cartilage Tendons Ligaments All of these

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg266

260. Which shaft of the long bone that is composed of compact bone tissue? a. Diaphysis b. Epiphysis c. Metaphysis d. None of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg268

261. Which of these form bone and maintain the strength of existing bone? a. b. c. d.

Osteoblasts Osteoclasts Osteocytes Calcium

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg267

NURSING TEST BANK

262. After how much time bones begin to form in utero after fertilization? a. b. c. d.

5 weeks 8 weeks 7 weeks 6 weeks

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg268

263. The total number of joints in the human body are: a. 206 b. 207 c. 210 d. 230

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg271

264. The number of bones which skull is composed of are: a. b. c. d.

30 28 29 31

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg273

265. Which of these divisions of regions of vertebrae is not correct? a. b. c. d.

7 cervical vertebrae 11 thoracic vertebrae 5 lumbar vertebrae 5 sacral vertebrae

ANS: B

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg278

NURSING TEST BANK

266. The central region of the thorax is known as: a. b. c. d.

Mediastinum Medulla Cervix None of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg280

267. Which of these is strongest bone of the body? a. b. c. d.

Ribs Femur Fibula Skull bone

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg284

268. The number of bones present in tarsus is: a. b. c. d.

7 8 10 None of these

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg285

269. The process by which cells activate in response to the action potential is referred as: a. b. c. d.

Depolarization Repolarization None of these Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg290

NURSING TEST BANK

270. The amount of blood glucose metabolizes by brain in in the portion of: a. b. c. d.

60mg/min 80mg/min 100mg/min 45mg/min

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg297

271. Which of the following receptors primarily cause vasoconstriction? a. b. c. d.

Alpha1 receptors Alpha2 receptors Beta1 receptors Beta2 receptors

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg313

272. Which of these hormones are considered as derivatives of cholesterol? a. b. c. d.

Steroid hormones Growth hormone Amine hormones Local hormones

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg325

273. The length of the esophagus is about: a. b. c. d.

10 inches 25cm 15 inches Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg378

NURSING TEST BANK

274. Which of the following is considered function of vagina? a. b. c. d.

Holds the spermatozoa Serves as the passageway for childbirth Serves as the passageway for the elimination of menstrual fluids All of these

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg396

CHAPTER 9 275. The reversible cellular adaptation in which one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type is called: a. b. c. d.

Metaplasia Dysplasia Hyperplasia Hypertrophy ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg. 420

276. Edema is caused by: a. b. c. d.

Arteriolar dilation Venous obstruction Pregnancy All of them ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg. 421

277. A serum sodium level greater than or equal to 143 mEq/Lis: a. b. c. d.

Hyponatremia Hypernatremia A hypotonic fluid deficit Both a and c ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg422

278. Hypophosphatemia symptoms include:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Rhabdomyolysis Tremor Paresthesia Seizures ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg425

279. Signs and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis: a. b. c. d.

Vertigo Bradypnea CNS depression Tachypnea ANS: A

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg427

280. Higher level carbon mono-oxide is fatal in: a. b. c. d.

1hr 2hr 3hr 4hr

ANS: B DIF: Moderate DIF: Pg430 281. Apoptosis activated prematurely by: a. b. c. d.

Death of hepatocytes Aging Menses Thymus involution ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg433

282. Areas of necrosis where the gross and microscopic tissue and some of the cells are recognizable and caused by acute ischemia, acute toxicity: a. b. c. d.

Caseation necrosis Dry gangrene Fat necrosis Simple necrosis ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg433

NURSING TEST BANK

283. The hormones released in response to hypo perfusion: a. b. c. d.

Aldosterone Dopamine Serotonin Epipherine ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg434

284. Tension pneumothorax is also called: a. b. c. d.

Blood clot in lung Vena cava syndrome Lung collapse Clot in vessels ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg436

285. Types of disruptive shock: a. b. c. d.

2 3 4 5 ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: 437

286. To test the capillary refill time, briefly squeeze the toenail or fingernail, and then observe the time it takes for color to return. If a person has shock, how much time will it take to return : a. b. c. d.

More than 1 sec More than 2 sec More than 3 sec More than 4 sec ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg438

287. MODS stand for and described in: a. b. c. d.

Multi Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, 1978 Multi Organ Disruption Syndrome, 1976 Multiple Organ Disruption Syndrome, 1977 Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, 1975

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg438

288. Function of kallikrein-kinin system: a. b. c. d.

Influence cardiac remodeling Contracts smooth muscle Hypotension Sepsis ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg438

289. Stomach acid include in body’s line of defense: a. b. c. d.

Inflammatory barrier Anatomic barrier Immune barrier All of them ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg439

290. A type of white blood cell that phagocytizes bacteria, dead cells, and cellular debris: a. b. c. d.

Basophil Macrophage Mast cells Monocytes ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg440

291. Cells that are produced in the bone marrow and mature in the thymus and destroy antigens: a. b. c. d.

Plasma cells T cells Killer T cells B cells ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg440

292. The trans placental passage of antibodies and the passage of antibodies in colostrum which protects the infant until his or her immune system matures sufficiently to take over is an example of: a. Natural immunity b. Adaptive immunity

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Hormonal response d. Cell-mediated immunity ANS: B

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg441

293. Prostaglandins comprise a group of lipids: a. b. c. d.

5 10 15 20 ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg447

294. Serum prothrombin conversion accelerator has a factor number: a. b. c. d.

5 6 7 8

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Pg448 295. If a person is suffering from tuberculosis, which type of hypersentivity reaction would activate: a. b. c. d.

Delayed hypersensitivity Immune complex disease Cytotoxic hypersensitivity Immediate hypersensitivity ANS: A

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg451

296. Bleeding is the main symptom of: a. b. c. d.

Graves’ disease Neutropenia ITP Myasthenia gravis ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg453

297. If a person is taking corticosteroids and having compromised immune system would indicate: a. Nutritional deficiency b. Trauma stress

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Iatrogenic immunodeficiency d. None of them ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg455

298. Which one of them is uncontrollable risk factor diseases? a. b. c. d.

Genetics Smoking Stress Alcohol consumption ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg455

299. Inflammation of the lungs, ranging from mild to severe; cough and fever, shortness of breath at rest, chills, sweating, chest pain, blood-tinged mucus indicates: a. b. c. d.

Emphysema Sinusitis Asthma Pneumonia ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg457

300. Tay-Sach’s disease trait includes in: a. b. c. d.

Autosomal dominant Autosomal recessive Both of them None of them ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg458

301. A floppy mitral valve, mitral valve prolapse (MVP) is relatively common, affecting male and female: a. 2.5% and 7.6% b. 3.5% and 7.0% c. 2.0% and 7.5% d. 3.0% and 8.2% ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg461

302. Biliary colic pain occurs in the area:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Upper left quadrant Lower left quadrant Upper right quadrant Lower right quadrant ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg463

303. An adult who is 5 feet 9 inches tall (2 m), weighs more than 270 pounds categorize in: a. b. c. d.

Overweight Obesity Morbid obesity Both b and c ANS: C

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg463

304. The neuromuscular disorder which only affects male: a. b. c. d.

Duchenne muscular dystrophy Huntington disease Multiple sclerosis Alzheimer disease ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg466

305. Correct the sequence of general adaptation syndrome: a. b. c. d.

Alarm, Exhaustion, Resistance Exhaustion, Alarm, Resistance Resistance, Alarm, Exhaustion Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg467

CHAPTER 10 306. The time duration of an infant ranges from: a. 1 month to 2 years b. 2 months to 3 years c. 4 months to 2.5 years

NURSING TEST BANK

d. 1 month to 1 year

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg477

307. At the time of birth, the average pulse rate of born baby is: a. b. c. d.

100 beats/min 120 beats/min 130 beats/min 140 beats/min

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg478

308. The normal oxygen saturation rate in infant is: a. 94% b. More than 90% c. 91% d. 94% or greater

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg478

309. Which of the following best matches the normal blood glucose level of new born baby? a. b. c. d.

45mg/dl 55mg/dl 34mg/dl 60mg/dl

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg478

310. At birth, systolic blood pressure of an infant is usually in the range of: a. 67 to 84 mm Hg b. 65 to 85 mm Hg c. 60 to 75 mm Hg

NURSING TEST BANK

d. None of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg478

311. You respond to a call for an infant who is choking, what would you analyze first? a. b. c. d.

Nasal passages Chest analysis Blood pressure Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

ANS: D

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg478

312. You provided bag-mask ventilation to an infant, mistakenly you have applied excessive force. Which of the following you can’t rule out? a. b. c. d.

Barotrauma Heart attack Seizures Epilepsy

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg479

313. Which of these statements best matches with the Moro-reflex? a. b. c. d.

Happens when infant is caught off Occurs when an object is placed in infant’s hand Occurs when something touches an infant’s cheek None of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg479

314. Which of the following is suitable statement for rooting reflex? a. When something touches an infant’s cheek b. When infant’s lips are stroked c. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

NURSING TEST BANK

d. None of above

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg479

315. Which of these durations is correct for early infant’s teething? a. b. c. d.

4 and 7 months 8 and 9 months 3 and 4 months 11 and 13 months

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg479

316. The child keeps the set of ‘baby teeth’ until around the age of about: a. b. c. d.

8 years 9 years 11 years 6 years

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg480

317. Which of the following is a phase of situational crisis of an infant’s reaction? a. b. c. d.

Protest phase Despair phase With-drawl All of these

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg481

318. In most children, ages from 3 to 5 years, the systolic blood pressure is approximately: a. 105 mm Hg b. 100 mm Hg c. 140 mm Hg

NURSING TEST BANK

d. 120 mm Hg

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg482

319. At what age, the child’s brain develop weight 90% of its final adult weight? a. b. c. d.

5 years 4 years 7 years 3 years

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg483

320. A child is of 3 years age. How much words are possible for him to use in his sentence? a. b. c. d.

Three-word sentences Two-word sentences Can’t make sentence Can make whole sentence

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg483

321. Which of these parenting style demands absolute obedience from child no matter what the situation? a. b. c. d.

Authoritarian Permissive Easy going None of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg484

322. ‘’ Parents doesn’t impose many rules, if any, on the child. The child is in control and the parent takes a tolerant approach to the child’s behavior ’’. Which type of parenting style is this? a. Authoritarian b. Insecure c. Permissive

NURSING TEST BANK

d. None of these

ANS: C

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg484

323. ‘’ Children act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want’’. Which type of reasoning best matches the above statement? a. b. c. d.

Pre-conventional reasoning Conventional reasoning Post-conventional reasoning All of above

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg485

324. The systolic blood pressure in adolescents in within the range of: a. 110-131 mm Hg b. 120-130 mm Hg c. 130-150 mm Hg d. 90-100 mm Hg

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg485

325. Which of the following phases includes the change in blood chemistry? a. b. c. d.

Adolescence Infant Early adults None of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg485

326. In early adults, the pulse rate is around: a. 80 beats/min b. 90 beats/min

NURSING TEST BANK

c. 100 beats/min d. 70 beats/min

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg487

327. Which of the following disease affects coronary vessels, cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of blood vessels? a. b. c. d.

Atherosclerosis Arthritis Delirium Diabetes

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg488

328. The condition aneurysm involves which of the following statement? a. b. c. d.

Weakening of blood vessel wall High cholesterol level Lack of insulin None of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg488

329. Which of these are considered as capillaries and responsible for basic filtering in the kidneys? a. b. c. d.

Alveoli Nephrons Hadrons Leptons ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg490

330. An adolescent is classified as: a. 12 to 18 years b. 10 to 19 years c. 13 to 21 years

NURSING TEST BANK

d. 8 to 18 years

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg496

331. Which of the following characteristics describe the development of an adolescent? a. b. c. d.

Permanent teeth come in and remain Privacy issues arise especially regarding parents and siblings The human body is functioning at its peak performance A decreased interest in sexual relations occurs

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg496

332. Adolescents typically struggle with creating their own identities, and which of the following psychosocial concerns? a. b. c. d.

Public image Career success Education Family

ANS: D

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg496

333. Hormonal changes in adolescent girls cause which of the following developments? a. b. c. d.

Beginning of menopause Production of testosterone Menarche Release of gonadotropin ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg496

334. Adolescents are at a higher risk than other population groups for: a. Pneumonia and bronchitis b. Cardiovascular disease c. Prostate and breast cancer

NURSING TEST BANK

d. Suicide and depression

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg496

335. Personal ethics are usually developed during the adolescent phase, and are often primarily influenced by: a. b. c. d.

Childhood friends Siblings Teachers Parents

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATEREF: Pg496

336. By the age of 80, in CNS, brain weight may shrink up to: a. 10% to 20% b. 40% to 50% c. 20% to 25% d. None of these

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg496

CHAPTER 11 337. In patient’s assessment, differential diagnosis based upon: a. b. c. d.

Scene safety Patient’s examination Treatment plan Reassessment

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg501

338. Which of the function is not a part of scene size-up? a. b. c. d.

Ensure scene safety Take standard precautions Determine number of patients Physical exam

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg502

339. Which critical system balance the body like a legged stool? a. b. c. d.

Respiratory Cardiovascular system Neurologic system All of these

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg503

340. As you are a paramedic, how would you start the dynamic scene management? a. b. c. d.

Scene size-up Primary survey History taking Reassessment

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg505

341. What would you do as a paramedic when scene doesn’t appear safe before you begin the patient care? a. b. c. d.

Secure the scene Call additional resources Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: C

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg505

342. What is the possible value of certified high visibility safety vest according to (ANSI) American National Standard Institute?

A. 107 or 207 B. 207or 307 C. 109 or 605 D. 104 or 405

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg506

343. Methamphetamine stimulates a condition accompanied by: a. b. c. d.

Anxiety Vomiting Fatigue Sleepless

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg507

344. Delirium is characterized by acute sudden change in: a. b. c. d.

Mental status Heart condition Lungs infection Tuberculosis ANS: A DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg507

345. Examination technique included in primary survey is: a. b. c. d.

Inspection Palpation Auscultation All of these

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg510

346. In how much time will you get the general impression of a patient in primary survey? a. b. c. d.

1 minute 2 minutes 50 seconds 60 to 90 seconds

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg510

347. Which of the following usually follows the ABCDE (Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure) ? a. b. c. d.

History taking Primary survey Secondary assessment Re-assessment

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg510

348. You are examining a patient having respiratory airway problem, which problem will happen if you are suctioning for too long? a. b. c. d.

Hypoxia Delirium Tuberculosis Bronchitis ANS: A DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg512

349. If you determine as a paramedic that patient’s airway is not maintaining by other means, then what would you do as an alternative? a. b. c. d.

Suctioning Endotracheal intubation Oxygen Invasive technique

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg512

350. The normal pulse rate in resting adults is: a. b. c. d.

60 to 100 beats/min 50 to 90 beats/min 100 to 150 beats/min None of these

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg513

351. You experience that the patient’s skin color is red (flushed), what would be the possible cause of this? a. b. c. d.

Hypertension Excessive blood loss Liver dysfunction Anxiety

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg514

352. The patient’s skin is warm and dry, what is the cause of this? a. b. c. d.

Fever Exposure to cold Shock Excessive body heat ANS: A DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg514

353. A quick assessment for neurological deficits is done by: a. b. c. d.

GCS ( Glasgow coma scale) Ventilator Stoichiometry None of these

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg515

354. As a paramedic, how would you control the angry situation of the patient who is not responding to you calmly? a. b. c. d.

Control your anger Ask for help Call another paramedic Leave the patient un-attended

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg528

355. How would you obtain the patient’s present illness history? a. b. c. d.

Open-ended questions What prescription medicines are you taking?

Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg533

356. Severe diplopia is a condition accompanied by: a. b. c. d.

Double vision Sensitivity to light Myopia Night-blindness ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg537

357. What is photophobia? a. b. c. d.

Sensitivity to light Ringing in the ears Blood in vomit None of these

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg537

358. Rhinorrhea is a condition accompanied by: a. b. c. d.

Sensitive epilepsy Deafness Runny nose Trauma

ANS: C

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg537

359. Which one of these is similar to polyuria? a. b. c. d.

Increased frequency of urination Swelling of hands and feet Weight changes Increased thirst

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg538

360. Dysuria is a condition in which person feels: a. b. c. d.

Painful urination Sudden need to urinate Waking in the middle of night for urination Increased appetite

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg538

361. What question would you ask first from the neurologically effected patient? a. b. c. d.

History of seizures Loss of sensation Historical paralysis Current illness

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg539

362. Secondary assessment involves the following except: a. b. c. d.

Baseline vital signs Monitoring device Full body scan Reassessment

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg540

363. Rapid full body scan of a patient requires time about: a. b. c. d.

60 to 90 seconds 1 to 2 minutes 90 to 120 seconds 4 minutes

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg541

364. During full body scan, a series open wounds are examined. Which is not a part of this examination? a. b. c. d.

Abrasions Lacerations Punctures Burns ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg541

365. The grinding sensation or sound made when two pieces of broken bone rub together is known as: a. b. c. d.

Crepitus Arthritis Delirium None of these

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg541

NURSING TEST BANK

366. Arterial oxygen saturation is determined via : a. b. c. d.

Pulse oximetry Stethoscope Blood pressure monitor Sphygmomanometer

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg547

367. You are examining some patients, on which patient will you perform a focused assessment? a. b. c. d.

Neurologically damaged patient Patient having epilepsy Patient having seizures Responsive patient

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg549

368. What’s the function of skin referred to as largest organ? a. b. c. d.

Transmit information from environment to brain Protect the body from environment Regulate body temperature All of these ANS: D DIF: EASY REF: Pg554

369. Anisocoria is accompanied by asymmetric pupils with greater than: a. b. c. d.

2-mm difference 1-mm difference 3-mm difference None of these

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg558

NURSING TEST BANK

370. Which of the following systolic blood pressure in mm of Hg represents stage 2 hypertension? a. <120 b. 120-139 c. 140-159 d. Greater than and equal to 160

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg570

371. What would you do as a paramedic when a patient feels shortness of breath in certain position? a. b. c. d.

Elevate back of stretcher to a 30 degree angle Give sudden oxygen mask Pumping and suctioning All of these

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg591

372. As a paramedic, after how much time would you come to see unstable patients? a. b. c. d.

Every 10 minutes Every 5 minutes Every 3 minutes Every 2 minutes

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg593

373. You are examining a patient having chest. As a part of your secondary assessment you should obtain: a. b. c. d.

A blood glucose test A 12-lead ECG Prehospital Stroke Scale Complete assessment of bowel sounds

ANS: B

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg602

NURSING TEST BANK

374. Which method is used to check neurological function? a. b. c. d.

Babinski Dialysis MRI None of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg584

375. When taking the patient’s history having chest pain, what is the best phrase questions about pain? a. b. c. d.

Use open-ended questions Begin with yes or no questions Pose indirect questions Focus on location, not severity

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg602

CHAPTER 12 376. Which of the following crucial steps are involved in cookbook medicine? a. b. c. d.

Identify problems Set patient care priorities Develop treatment plan All of these

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg603

377. As a paramedic, which step would you follow first in the cornerstone of your paramedic practice? a. Evaluating

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Synthesizing c. Gathering d. Making hypothesis

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg603

378. What would you do in a situation where a patient with a minor sprained ankle asks you for morphine for pain? a. Deny his/her demand b. Ask about its knowledge of medications c. Make decision and tell that why the drug can’t be administered d. None of these

ANS: C

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg604

379. Comorbidity is severe condition happen when: a. b. c. d.

The patient have bowel movements Epilepsy Seizures The patient has two or more diseases

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg604

380. Diabetes often leads to the condition of: a. b. c. d.

Vascular diseases Trauma Heart attack High cholesterol level

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg604

381. High Blood glucose level can cause which condition to diabetic patient? a. Thickening blood stickier

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Heart attack c. Heat stroke d. None of these

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg604

382. In your paramedic practice, which is the third cornerstone involving in practice? a. b. c. d.

Independent decision making React Working under pressure Clear thinking process

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg606

383. You see a substantial amount of blood gushing from the area of his femoral artery with every contraction of his heart. What would you do to the patient in this condition? a. b. c. d.

Recognize severe artery and apply pressure Put hemostatic dressing to ensure bleeding control Call another paramedic for help Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

ANS: D

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg606

384. You are a paramedic and see a patient who is in cardiac arrest on her front porch. What you should immediately do to handle the scene? a. b. c. d.

Take patient to the hospital Do suctioning Perform high quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation Perform cardiac shocks

ANS: C

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg606

385. Which is the fourth and final cornerstone of your paramedic practice?

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Ability to think Work under pressure Analyze range of patient conditions Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg606

386. Patients in critical condition need immediate care and transport to survive. With what tags they are indicated by? a. Green tags b. Red tags c. White tags d. Black tags

ANS: B

DIF: MODERTE

REF: Pg606

387. Patients in unstable conditions are second priority and are indicated by: a. b. c. d.

Yellow tags Green tags Red tags Black tags

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg606

388. The groups of patients who are left with nonsurvivable injuries or the obviously dead are termed in: a. b. c. d.

Black tags Green tags White tags None of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg606

389. The patients who are minimally injured are considered in:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Green tags White tags Red tags Yellow tags

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg606

390. Which is not the example of patients having diseases that may cause life threats? a. b. c. d.

Major multisystem trauma Devastating single system trauma End stage disease presentation Simple abrasions

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg607

391. In your paramedic practice, during the second stage of critical thinking, you must evaluate all the information and form a conclusion. This is called: a. b. c. d.

Final survey Data interpretation Conclusion History making

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg608

392. If your patient is having considerable difficulty breathing then you would apply non-rebreathing mask with oxygen flowing at: a. b. c. d.

15L/min 20L/min 16L/min 22L/min

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg609

NURSING TEST BANK

393. To effectively read the scene, which following would you must evaluate? a. b. c. d.

Overall safety Environmental conditions Immediate surroundings All of these

ANS: D DIF: EASY REF: Pg611 394. As a paramedic, what will you feel after making a mistake? a. b. c. d.

Feel successful Learn how to avoid repeating a mistake Certain feels good None of these

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg614

395. Which of the following is not involved in reading the scene? a. b. c. d.

Evaluating the scene safety Evaluating environmental conditions Evaluating the location of the ambulance Evaluating access and egress issues

ANS: C

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg618

396. After reading the desired scene, the next step in the Six RS of clinical decision making is: a. b. c. d.

Relieving the patient of worry Reading the ambulance for transport Requesting advance life support Read the patient

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg618

397. The third step of critical thinking called react involve which of the following steps as your first priority in patient care is:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Correct life threats Consider the worst-care scenario Complete a full-body scan Establish command of the scene

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg618

398. If you arrived on a scene and found the fight occurring and no police presence, using your best judgement what would you do? a. b. c. d.

Stop your vehicle and remain inside Get out of your vehicle and stop the fight Stop the vehicle and yell for them to stop Leave the scene until police arrive

ANS: B

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg618

399. The chest pain of the 58-year old man having no history of cardiac disease can be relieved by: a. b. c. d.

Simply sitting Give him nitroglycerine Give him oxygen therapy Both ‘b’ and ‘c’

ANS: D

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg618

CHAPTER 13 400. According to, Controlled Substances Act cocaine comes under the category/schedule: a. b. c. d.

1 2 3 4 ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg623

401. The medication streptokinase and morphine comes from the source:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Animal, Plant Micro-organism, Mineral Plant, Micro-organism Animal, Mineral ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg624

402. Tetra Caine comes in form of: a. b. c. d.

Tablet Droplet Parenteral Solution Suppository ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg624

403. The number of components of medication profile: a. b. c. d.

5 8 10 12 ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg626

404. Which class indicates that the evidence does not support that there is a benefit and may support that there is a harmful consequence; the treatment is not helpful and may be harmful? a. b. c. d.

Class 1 Class 2a Class 2b Class 3 ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg627

405. Which drug when binds to the receptor site, blocks cellular activity? a. b. c. d.

Natural chemical Antagonist drug Agonist drug None of them ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg629

NURSING TEST BANK

406. Which receptor is present at neuromuscular junction, allowing acetylcholine to stimulate muscle contraction? a. b. c. d.

Alpha-2 Beta-2 Nicotinic Opioid ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg630

407. If a medication is water-soluble, higher weight-based doses must be administered to: a. b. c. d.

Adults Older people Infants All of them ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg632

408. Which medication precipitate hemolysis in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency? a. b. c. d.

Aspirin Lasix Lidocaine Esalgan ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg633

409. Studies in animals or humans have demonstrated fetal abnormalities, there is evidence of fetal risk based on human experience, or both, and the risk of the use of the drug in pregnant women clearly outweighs any possible benefit. The drug is contraindicated in women who are or may become pregnant, this implication is categorized by letter: a. b. c. d.

A C X D ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg634

410. Certain antibiotics and anti-seizure medications are known to cause possibly fatal medication reaction that mimics a burn and cause syndrome called:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Lyell’s syndrome Steven-Johnson syndrome Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis All of them ANS: D

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg637

411. Repeated doses of medication within a short time rapidly cause tolerance, making the medication virtually ineffective is called: a. b. c. d.

Cross-tolerance Anaphylaxis Tolerance Tachyphylaxis ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg638

412. Fluconazole (Diflucan), an antifungal medication, inhibits the function of cytochrome P-450 enzyme CYP3A4 is an type of interaction: a. b. c. d.

Altered absorption Altered metabolism Altered distribution Altered elimination ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg640

413. A single dose of aspirin is rapidly eliminated by the body, usually within several hours, but can cause an inhibition of platelet activity lasting for: a. b. c. d.

3-10days 5-12days 8-15days 10-15days ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg641

414. Midazolam is administered through the route: a. b. c. d.

Endotracheal Intranasal Intravenous Intramuscular

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg642

415. The intraosseous site proximal humerus has a targeted vein: a. b. c. d.

Popliteal vein Femoral vein Great saphenous vein Axillary vein ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg643

416. Xopenex is administered through the route: a. b. c. d.

Transdermal Sublingual Inhaled Ophthalmic

ANS: C DIF: Hard REF: Pg644 417. For larger medication molecules, cells use a process called: a. b. c. d.

Pinocytosis Osmosis Facilitated diffusion Active transport ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg645

418. The cytochrome in the liver uses a complex, enzyme-based process to alter the chemical structure of a medication or other chemical: a. b. c. d.

P-420system P-430 system P-440 system P-450 system ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg646

419. Ethanol is an example of: a. First-order elimination b. Zero-order elimination c. Half life

NURSING TEST BANK

d. None of them ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg648

420. What would be the first step in medication administration? a. b. c. d.

Right time Right route Right dose Right patient ANS: D

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg648

421. Correct the sequence of rights of medication Administration: a. b. c. d.

Right patient education, Right to refuse, Right assessment, Right evaluation, Right reporting Right reporting, Right Assessment, Right to refuse, Right evaluation, Right patient education Right Assessment, Right Evaluation, Right patient education, Right to refuse, Right reporting Right patient education, Right to refuse, Right evaluation, Right assessment, Right reporting ANS: B

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg648

422. In the word SC, what could be the possible misinterpretation? a. b. c. d.

Subcutaneous Sublingual Sodium chloride All of them ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg650

423. Which receptor type cause sympathetic stimulation in heart? a. b. c. d.

Alpha Beta -1 Beta – 2 Alpha – 1 ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg650

424. Which one is parasympathetic blocker? a. Atropine b. Levophed

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Isuprel d. Adrenalin ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg653

425. Vermox lies under the medication class: a. b. c. d.

Antacids AntIhelmintics Antidiarrheals Antiflatulents ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg654

426. Which medication class has the primary body affection on endocrine and immune system? a. b. c. d.

Corticosteroids Cholinergics Beta-agonists Diuretics ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg655

427. Which diuretic comes under vasodilator category? a. b. c. d.

Furosemide Triamterene Chlorothiazide hydralazine ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg667

428. Benazepril comes under the category of anti-hypertensive agents: a. b. c. d.

Alpha blocker Alpha agonist ACE inhibitors Nonselective beta-blockers ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg668

429. In cardiac arrest situations, magnesium sulfate can be given by slow IV push during 1 to 2 minutes: a. 1-2 g

NURSING TEST BANK

b. 2-3g c. 3-4g d. 4-5g ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg676

CHAPTER 14 430. If the provider 1 says that he is going to give dose, drug name, route, rate, reason then what would be the response of provider 2? a. b. c. d.

Ready Volume Contraindications Sounds good ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg688

431. The cardinal sign of over hydration is : a. b. c. d.

Shortness of breath Puffy eyelids Edema Acute weight gain ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg691

432. In lactate ringer, the quantity of sodium and calcium: a. b. c. d.

135 meq/L , 8meq/L 130meq/L, 3meq/L 513meq/L, 0meq/L 154meq/L, 0meq/L ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg693

433. Which blood type is universally compatible? a. b.

A negative AB positive

NURSING TEST BANK

c. d.

O negative O positive ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg694

434. Micro drip sets allow (drops) per milliliter (mL) through the needlelike orifice inside the drip chamber: a. b. c. d.

60gtt 80gtt 90gtt 100gtt ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg696

435. In preparing administration set, once you set the precautionary standard and ensure everything, what would be the next step? a. b. c. d.

Squeezing the drip and running the fluid into line to flush air out Removal of protective coverings Twist the protective cover of the opposite end of the IV tubing to allow air to escape Check the drip chamber ANS: B

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg697

436. The largest gauge in over-the-needle catheters: a. b. c. d.

14-guage 22guage 25guage 27guage ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg699

437. The constricting band above the intended IV site should be placed approximately: a. b. c. d.

2 to 4 inches 4 to 8 inches 8 to 10 inches 10 to 12 inches ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg703

438. the physical blockage of a vein or catheter is called:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Occlusion Infiltration Vein irritation Thrombophlebitis ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg710

439. If the hematoma develops as a result of discontinuing the IV line, then apply direct pressure with: a. b. c. d.

2-inch × 2-inch gauze pad to the site 4-inch × 4-inch gauze pad to the site 6-inch × 6-inch gauze pad to the site 4-inch × 4-inch gauze pad to the site ANS: B

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg710

440. The lavender blood tube top contains: a. b. c. d.

Clot activator used for serum-based tests Heparin used for some plasma-based determinations Anticoagulant EDTA used for blood count Citrate required for blood clotting ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg712

441. The FAST devices stands for: a. b. c. d.

First Access for Shock and Trauma Fast Access for Shock and Trauma First Ability for Shock and Trauma Fast Ability for Shock and Trauma ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg715

442. To attach the FAST1 device, apply approximately ................. of pressure until you feel the infusion tube separate from the FAST1 introducer: a. b. c. d.

5kg 10kg 15kg 20kg ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg719

NURSING TEST BANK

443. The IO needle should be inserted in bone at an angle of: a. b. c. d.

30° 45° 60° 90° ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg720

444. The formula to calculate fluid infusion rate: a. b. c. d.

Volume to be infused × gtt/mL of administration set/ total time of infusion in minutes = gtt/min Volume to be infused/gtt/mL of administration set/ total time of infusion in minutes= gtt/min Volume to be infused ×gtt× mL of administration set / total time of infusion in minutes = gtt/min Volume to be infused×gtt/mL of administration set× total time of infusion in minutes= gtt/min ANS: A

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg727

445. Drugs taken by mouth are absorbed at a slow rate from the stomach and intestines—usually somewhere between: a. b. c. d.

20-30 mins 30-60mins 30-90mins 90-120mins ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg729

446. The saline solution that goes directly into the digestive tract with a temperature of: a. b. c. d.

90°F 94°F 96°F 98°F ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg730

447. When the paramedic administered the medication through nasogastric tube, draw 30-60ml of saline solution and irrigate the gastric tube, what would be the next step? a. b. c. d.

Taking standard precautions Drawing up the appropriate amount of medication and it’s slow injection Injecting 30-60ml ensuring tube is flushed and patient received the medication Clamping off the proximal end of the gastric tube

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg731

448. Hypodermic needle lengths vary from: a. b. c. d.

0.9 to 5cm 1 to 5cm 0.5 to 1 cm 0.2 to 0.5 cm ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Pg733 449. Small glass or plastic bottles with a rubber stopper top; that contain single or multiple doses of a medication are called:

a. b. c. d.

Ampules Vials Prefilled syringes None of them ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg736

450. For intradermal injection, the syringe used is of: a. b. c. d.

0.2 – 0.5cm 0.4 – 0.6cm 0.9- 3cm 1 – 5cm ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg737

451. The buttocks, specifically the upper lateral aspect of either side area comes in: a. b. c. d.

Gluteal area Deltoid muscle Rectus femoris muscle Vastus lateralis muscle ANS: A

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg739

452. Nitroglycerin medication comes under the class:

a. b.

Nasal route Ocular route

NURSING TEST BANK

c. d.

Buccal route Transdermal route ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg750

453. Earwax removal preparations—are administered via the mucous membranes of: a. b. c. d.

Intranasal Aural Both of them None of them ANS: B DIF: Easy

REF: 753

454. Patients with respiratory emergencies may be breathing inadequately, in this case will use: a. b. c. d.

Beta-agonist medication via nebulizer MDI Small-volume nebulizer in-line with the assistive device All of them ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg755

455. Devices that have been inserted by direct venipuncture through the skin directly into a selected vein are called: a. b. c. d.

Tunneling devices Non-tunneling devices Implanted devices None of them ANS: B

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg759

456. The rate of absorption of intravenous route: a. b. c. d.

10-20 sec 20-30 sec 30-60 sec 1-2min ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg762

457. The rate of absorption of sublingual route: a.

1-2min

NURSING TEST BANK

b. c. d.

2-3min 3-5min 5-6min ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg762

458. The drug naloxone through IV route has absorption duration: a. b. c. d.

20-40min 20-60min 20-80min 20-120min ANS: D

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg762

459. The drug sublimaze through IM route take duration: a. b. c. d.

72h 20-40min 1-2hr 60min ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg762

CHAPTER 15 460. How much time can brain survive without oxygen before permanent damage occurs to it? a. b. c. d.

8 minutes 6 minutes 7 minutes 12 minutes

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg776

461. Which of the following can be a part of pharynx? a. Nasopharynx b. Oropharynx c. Laryngopharynx

NURSING TEST BANK

d. All of these

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg776

462. Which side of the thyroid cartilage lies the cricoid ring? a. b. c. d.

Inferior Posterior Frontal Anterior

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: 776

463. You are performing ET intubation, which of the following you must visualize before inserting ET tube? a. b. c. d.

Epiglottis Abdomen Nasal cavity Oropharynx

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg777

464. Oxygenation process can’t take place without: a. b. c. d.

Ventilation Suctioning Oximetry None of these

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg777

465. Hypoxia is a dangerous condition usually accompanied by: a. Low blood sugar b. Inadequate hemoglobin c. Excess carbon-dioxide

NURSING TEST BANK

d. Lack of oxygen

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg778

466. How much time is enough to cause cardiac irritability due to lack of oxygen in blood? a. b. c. d.

0-1 min 2-3 minutes 4-6 minutes 10 minutes

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg779

467. Which of these is termed as the early symptoms of hypoxia? a. b. c. d.

Irritability Weak pulse Dyspnea Change in mental status

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg779

468. The normal resting minute ventilation in most people is: a. b. c. d.

7L/min 6L/min 9L/min 10L/min

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg779

469. The resting alveolar volume is: a. 4L/min b. 5L/min c. 6L/min

NURSING TEST BANK

d. None of these

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg779

470. In pulmonary artery, blood flow is approximately 5L/min with overall ventilation to perfusion ratio of: e. f. g. h.

8:9 L/min 4:5 L/min 6:9 L/min 2:3 L/min

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg779

471. Medications that depress the central nervous system (CNS) include: a. b. c. d.

Opioids Benzodiazepines Aspirin Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg779

472. Which of the following is a neuromuscular disorder and affect the ability of nervous system to control breathing? a. b. c. d.

Poliomyelitis Hypoxia Hypercapnia Hypoventilation

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg779

473. You are assessing a patient having excess carbon-dioxide production in his body. Which of these terms fit correct on his condition? a. Hyperventilation

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Hypoventilation c. Delirium d. Hypoxia

ANS: B

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg780

474. What would happen when carbon-dioxide elimination exceeds than normal from a body? a. b. c. d.

Hyperventilation Acidosis Heart attack None of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg780

475. How much times the affinity of CO is more than O2 in binding to hemoglobin? a. b. c. d.

200 times 300 times 100 times 250 times

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg780

476. What’s the effect of excess lactic acid in blood? a. b. c. d.

Cardiac dysrhythmias Coma Hypoglycemia All of these

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg781

477. If the levels of hormone insulin decrease in the body then the cellular uptake of glucose will decrease and this results the condition which is accompanied by:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Ketoacidosis Delirium Adrenaline rush Heart attack

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg781

478. Which is the best and quick technique to eliminate excess acid from the body? a. b. c. d.

Dialysis MRI Eliminate it through respiratory system All of these

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg782

479. As a paramedic, you are assessing a patient having respiratory problem. What would you do first of all? a. b. c. d.

Suctioning Intubation Remove carbon-dioxide from lungs Determine that airway is patent

ANS: D

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg782

480. Vomitus is the term related to: a. b. c. d.

Stomach contents Airway patency Bronchitis Lack of exhaled carbon-dioxide

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg783

481. The normal breathing rate in an adult who is at rest is:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

13-25 breaths/min 12-20 breaths/min 16-35 breaths/min None of these

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg783

482. Respiratory distress may cause by which of the mentioned statements?? a. b. c. d.

Upper airway obstruction Lower airway obstruction Respiratory muscle impairment All of these

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg783

483. Which of these statements urged you to declare a patient as apneustic? a. b. c. d.

Ineffective exhalation Deep respirations Irregular pattern of breathing None of these

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg785

484. The normal inspiratory/expiratory (I/E) ratio is: a. 1:2 b. 2:3 c. 4:5 d. 4:7

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg786

485. A patient is having asthma. Which is the value of (I/E) ratio is correct?

NURSING TEST BANK

a. 1:4 or 1:5 b. 2:3 c. 1:9 d. 4:5

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg786.

486. You are assessing a patient’s ventilation process and don’t know about the hemoglobin saturation of his body. Which device will you use to obtain it? a. b. c. d.

Pulse oximeter Sphygmomanometer ET tube Suctioning device

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg787

487. The peak expiratory flow rate in healthy adults is: a. b. c. d.

300-700 ml 320-650 ml 300-600 ml 350-750 ml

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg790

488. Which is the best device that you will use to check the exhaled carbon-dioxide levels of a patient? a. b. c. d.

Capno-meter Capnographer Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these

ANS: B

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg791

NURSING TEST BANK

489. In assessing a patient who has not sustained trauma, and you have to open his airway. Which is the best technique for this type of patient? a. b. c. d.

Jaw-thrust maneuver Head tilt-chin lift maneuver Tongue-jaw lift maneuver All of above can be performed

ANS: B

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg795

490. Which of the following technique you wouldn’t use to open the patient’s airway when his mouth or throat is filled with vomitus, blood and secretions? a. b. c. d.

Suctioning Ventilating Intubation None of these

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg797

491. As we know nasal airways are measured in French catheter scale which ranges in size from: a. 12-36 Fr b. 25-80 Fr c. 15-45 Fr d. 30-50 Fr

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg801

492. You are in a condition where a patient is having severe airway obstruction and becoming unresponsive. What will you do now? a. b. c. d.

Ask another paramedic for help Perform 30 chest compressions Face to face ventilation Arrange oxygen cylinder immediately

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg804

CHAPTER 16 493. Which of these diseases are included in top 10 chronic condition that causes restricted activity? a. b. c. d.

Asthma COPD None of these Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg904

494. How much Americans have COPD? a. b. c. d.

15 million 20 million 25 million 10 million

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg904

495. How many people are suffered to death due to asthma in USA? a. 3500 b. 3000 c. 2000 d. 1000 ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg904

496. Which person described pneumonia? a. b. c. d.

Hippocrates Ibn-e-Nafees William Harvey None of these

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg904

497. Hippocrates described pneumonia in: a. b. c. d.

400 BC 121 BC 122BC 341 BC

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg904

498. Which of these diseases have a genetic cause? a. b. c. d.

Cystic fibrosis Asthma Delirium Pneumonia

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg904

499. The typical length of the trachea is: a. 4-5 inches b. 10-13 cm c. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d. 5m ANS: C DIF: MODERATE REF: Pg905 500. The ridge like point at which the tracheal cartilage bifurcates is known as: a. b. c. d.

Bolus Cervix Carina None of these

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg905

NURSING TEST BANK

501. Two parts of the lungs named bronchioles and alveoli are collectively known as? a. b. c. d.

Lung parenchyma Parenchyma Carina Sphincter

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg907

502. The people with which of these conditions often cause a surplus of red blood cells overtime? a. b. c. d.

Hypoxia Delirium Asthma Pneumonia

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg907

503. The patients having which condition can have thickened blood? a. b. c. d.

Polycythemia Hypoxia Delirium Heart attack

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg907

504. Which chronic lung disease can cause right-sided heart failure? a. b. c. d.

TB Asthma Corpulmanole None of these

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg907

NURSING TEST BANK

505. Severe hypoxia can cause a condition known as: a. b. c. d.

Tachycardia Bradycardia Delirium Seizures

ANS: B

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg908

506. Which of the following condition is caused by lower airway obstruction? a. b. c. d.

Trauma Pneumothorax Flail chest Pleural effusion

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg909

507. The condition which is the result of chest wall impairment is considered as: a. b. c. d.

Pneumothorax Narcosis Overdose All of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg909

508. Which bacteria can cause botulism? a. b. c. d.

Cyano Clostridium Serous None of these

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg909

NURSING TEST BANK

509. Which of the following ailments can cause rapid-onset dyspnea? a. b. c. d.

Bronchospasm Delirium Asthma Hypoxia

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg911

510. What we call to a wheezing sound which have many notes vibrating? a. b. c. d.

Monophonic sound Polyphonic sound Shrill sound Grave sound

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg916

511. The term snoring indicates which part of obstructed airway? a. b. c. d.

Lower airway Upper airway Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg917

512. A patient is having blood-tinged sputum, this is the warning sign of: a. b. c. d.

TB Severe asthma Lung cancer Hypoxia

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg918

NURSING TEST BANK

513. The hemoglobin level of healthy adults is: a. b. c. d.

12-14g/dl 10-12g/dl 8-9g/dl 8-13g/dl

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg918

514. What causes the pale skin of the patient? a. b. c. d.

Increased blood flow to the vessels Decreased blood flow to the vessels Lack of oxygen Increased glucose level

ANS: B

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg920

515. The blood pressure in distended jugular veins of a trauma patient is usually: a. b. c. d.

80/40mm Hg 40/80mm Hg 120/60mm Hg All of above

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg924

516. The diaphragm of stethoscope is designed for which type of sounds? a. b. c. d.

High pitched sounds Low pitched sounds Shrill sound Grave sound

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg925

NURSING TEST BANK

517. Which device would you use to check patient’s hemoglobin percentage? a. b. c. d.

Pulse oximeter Stethoscope MRI Ultra-sound

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg926

518. Why asthma is considered a reactive airway disease? a. b. c. d.

Patient reacts poorly to asthma It occurs when a person is exposed to some trigger Asthma interacts with other diseases Patient experiences asthma only in response to environmental triggers

ANS: B

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg957

519. Which of the following best defines status asthmaticus? a. b. c. d.

A short asthma attack A long asthma attack Pseudo asthma attack A severe prolonged asthma attack

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg957

520. The breathing treatment you administer to asthmatic patient is primarily to help: a. b. c. d.

Reduce mucous Eliminate the response to trigger Reduce bronchospasm Reduce anxiety

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg958

NURSING TEST BANK

521. The wheezing you hear during an asthma attack is due to: a. b. c. d.

Air trapped in the lungs Air forced through constricted tubes which causes them to vibrate Air moving normally Air moving through mucous

ANS: B

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg958

522. Which other medication can help the asthmatic patient during the next few hours? a. b. c. d.

Antibiotics Corticosteroids Epinephrine Oxygen

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg958

523. As the asthmatic patient is woman, you know which of the following is true? a. b. c. d.

Her asthma attacks are normally self-limiting She is more likely than a man to have asthma She is at less risk than a man to have asthma She has a greater risk than a man of having a severe attack

ANS: D

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg958

CHAPTER 17 524. Acute myocardial infraction is a severe heart condition accompanied by: a. b. c. d.

Sudden narrowing of coronary arteries Low blood supply to the heart Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ Damage to the aorta

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg961

525. Dysrhythmias is a condition related to: a. b. c. d.

Heart rhythm disturbances Heart pumping problem Damage to vessels Damage to coronary artery

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg961

526. The point at which the heartbeat is most strongly felt is known as: a. b. c. d.

Point of minimal impulse Point of maximal impulse Carina Point nemo

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg961

527. The internal wall of connective tissue is called: a. b. c. d.

Septum Septa Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg961

528. What is the function of coronary arteries? a. b. c. d.

To supply blood to the tissues of heart To supply blood to the epithelial tissue Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg963

529. Angina pectoris is the condition happens when: a. b. c. d.

When heart muscles doesn’t receive enough oxygen When coronary arteries dilate When coronary arteries block None of these

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg964

530. Which type of patients may have dyspnea? a. b. c. d.

Patients with chronic heart failure Patients with asthma Patients with delirium Patients with TB

ANS: A

a. b. c. d.

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg965

531. Orthopnea is caused by dyspnea due to: Change in position Sudden attack Heart failure Exposed to cold

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg965

532. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea begins after how much hours of onset of sleep? a. b. c. d.

2-4 hours 1-2 hours 1-5 hours 6-7 hours

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg965

NURSING TEST BANK

533. The symptom of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is: a. b. c. d.

Coughing Wheezing Sweating All of these

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg965

534. Pre-hypersensitive patients have a systolic blood pressure of: a. b. c. d.

120-139 mm Hg 100-120 mm Hg 90-110 mm Hg None of these

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg968

535. Which of the following is the process of discharging resting cardiac muscle fibers by means of electrical impulse? a. b. c. d.

Depolarization Repolarization Ventilation None of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg968

536. What is the role of Na+ electrolyte in cardiac function? a. b. c. d.

Flows into the cell to initiate depolarization Hypokalemia Hyperkalemia To increase blood flow

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg970

537. Role of potassium in cardiac function is: a. b. c. d.

Hypokalemia Hyperkalemia Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg970

538. Role of magnesium in cardiac function is: a. b. c. d.

Hypomagnesemia Hypocalcemia Hypercalcemia Hyperkalemia

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg970

539. The period during which the cell is depolarized or in the process of repolarizing is known as: a. b. c. d.

Refractory period Absolute refractory period Relative refractory period All of these

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg970

540. The network of cardiac tissue that initiates and conducts electrical impulses is called: a. b. c. d.

Electrical system Electrical conduction system Autonomous conduction system ABO blood group system

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B

a. b. c. d.

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg971

541. In how much time electrical impulses generated in the node spread across the atria?

0.08 seconds 1 second 3 seconds 0.5 seconds

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg971

542. SA node pacemaker have an intrinsic rate of: a. b. c. d.

60-100 beats/min 100-185 beats/min 50-60 beats/min 20-40 beats/min

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg972

543. AV junction pacemaker have an intrinsic rate of: a. b. c. d.

40-60 beats/min 20-40 beats/min 60-100 beats/min None of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg973

544. ECG representation is showing P wave. Which of the following statement is true? a. b. c. d.

Depolarization of the atria Delay at the AV junction ST segment Ventricular polarization

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg985

NURSING TEST BANK

545. ECG representation is PRI. Which of the cardiac event statement is correct? a. b. c. d.

Delay at the AV junction Depolarization of the ventricles Beginning of repolarization Ventricular repolarization

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg985

546. ECG is showing T wave. This matches which cardiac arrest statement? a. b. c. d.

Time between two successive ventricular depolarizations Rr interval Ventricular repolarization Depolarization of atria

ANS: C

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg985

547. ECG representation is indicating QRS complex. Which statement matches its cardiac event? a. b. c. d.

Depolarization of the ventricles Beginning of repolarization Depolarization of the atria Period between ventricular depolarization

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg985

548. Sinus dysrhythmia is a slight variation in cycling of a sinus rhythm, usually exceeding the time interval of: a. b. c. d.

0.12 seconds 0.51 seconds 2 seconds 3.15 seconds

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg992

549. You are experiencing that QRS is narrow in ECG. What would you conclude that the patient is: a. b. c. d.

Having severe heart failure Stable Un-stable None of these

ANS: B

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg995

550. AV junction takes over as the pacemaker of the heart at a rate of: a. b. c. d.

50-60 beats/min 40-60 beats/min 30-35 beats/min All of above

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1002

551. What is the function of wearable cardioverter defibrillator? a. b. c. d.

Designed for patients at a risk of sudden cardiac death For delirium For asthma For AMI

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1014

552. When you are at the scene of management of adult cardiac arrest, which devices you should have? a. b. c. d.

Defibrillator Portable oxygen cylinder Drug box All of above

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1015

553. Which of the following is the indication for using a 12-lead ECG? a. b. c. d.

Chest pain Epilepsy Seizures Asthma ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1023

CHAPTER 18

554. Which of the following is not a symptom of depressed nervous system? a. b. c. d.

The eye lids do not blink The tongue goes slack The larynx causes gagging Limb does seek comfortable position ANS: D

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1082

555. The central nervous system (CNS), is responsible for a. b. c. d.

Thought Feeling Perception None of these ANS: A

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1085

556. The peripheral nervous system (PNS), is responsible for a. b. c. d.

Thought Feeling Perception None of these ANS: C

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1087

NURSING TEST BANK

557. The brainstem is one of the portions of the brain that .......... the cerebral cortex for higher activities a. Frees b. Enables c. Disables d. Detects ANS: A

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1089

558. The ...... is the most sensitive organ within the body a. b. c. d.

Brain Heart Stomach Tongue ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1091

559. When you are trying to determine whether your patient has a neurologic condition, you need to look for ........ changes. a. b. c. d.

Obvious Hidden Both of above None of above ANS: C

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1093

560. Which one among following is responsible for airway control? a. b. c. d.

Trigeminal nerves Glossopharyngeal nerves Vagus nerves All of above ANS: D

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1095

561. Trismus can occur in a. Responsive patients b. Unresponsive patients

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Both of above d. None of above ANS: C

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1097

562. Delusions are ……… to hallucinations. a. b. c. d.

Similar Different Neither similar nor different Sometimes similar, sometimes different ANS: A

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1099

563. The patient becomes so minimal that he can no longer determine what is real and what is inside his or her mind. This state is called a. Psychosis b. Hemiparesis c. Hemiplegia d. None of above ANS: A

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1102

564. Weakness of one side of the body is called a. Psychosis b. Hemiparesis c. Hemiplegia d. None of above ANS: C

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1104

565. The left side of the brain controls the a. b. c. d.

Right side of the body and the left eye.

Left side of the body and the left eye Right side of the body and the right eye Left side of the body and the right eye ANS: A

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1106

NURSING TEST BANK

566.............. is the term used to describe alteration of a person’s ability to perform coordinated motions such as walking. a. b. c. d.

Ataxia Jerk Dystonia None of above ANS: A

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1108

567..............is a form of bizarre movement in which a part of the body contracts and remains contracted: a. b. c. d.

Ataxia Jerk Dystonia None of above ANS: B

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1110

568. Tremors are example of an alteration in smooth motion and involve the motion of: a. b. c. d.

Joints Bones Muscles Tissues ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1112

569.......... activity is characterized by rhythmic contraction and relaxation of muscle groups. a. b. c. d.

Tonic Clonic Bizarre None of above ANS: A

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1114

570.......... is a serious medical condition in which blood supply to areas of the brain is interrupted, causing ischemia. a. Stroke

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) c. Both of above d. None of above ANS: C

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1115

571. The MAP, or mean arterial pressure, is the average (mean) pressure within the blood vessels at any given time. Typically, MAP is about: a. b. c. d.

80 to 90 mmHg 90 to 120 mmHg 60 to 90 mmHg 60 to 80 mmHg ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1118

572. Coughing, vomiting, or bearing down, tends to a. Increase ICP b. Decrease ICP c. Maintain ICP d. None of above ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1119

573. The common signs and symptoms of diminished LOC and imminent coma are a. b. c. d.

Cognitive effects Speech effects Movement effects All of above ANS: D

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1120

574. A seizure can be limited to the: a. Shaking of one hand b. A metallic taste c. The movement of every limb d. A and B ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1122

575. Which of the following is not the cause of headache?

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Tumor Inflammation of the temporal artery Stroke All of above are causes of headache ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1123

576........... is a rare disease in which the immune system attacks portions of the nervous system: a. b. c. d.

Guillain-Barre syndrome Parkinson disease Postural Instability Rigidity ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1123

577. Infectious causes for encephalitis and meningitis are the result of……gaining access to the body which then reproduce and cause damage. a. b. c. d.

Bacteria Viruses Fungi All of above ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1123

578. Poliomyelitis is a.......... infection transmitted by the fecal–oral route. Its incidence peaked in the United States in the1950s. Since then, an effective vaccine has been developed. a. b. c. d.

Viral Bacterial Fungal Algal ANS: A

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1124

579. Fibrinolytic (clot-busting) agents need to be administered within ........... hours of the onset of a stroke for the agents to be effective. a. 1-2.5 b. 2-3.5

NURSING TEST BANK

c. 3-4.5 d. 4-5.5 ANS: C

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1124

580............ is caused by a brief interruption in cerebral blood flow that can be traced to cardiac rhythm disturbances, other cardiac causes, or non-cardiac causes. a. b. c. d.

Syncope Headache Migraine Seizure ANS: C

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1125

581. Polio is a viral infection that can cause long-term damage to the brain and brainstem (postpoliosyndrome), leading to: a. b. c. d.

Muscle weakness Paralysis Both of above None of above ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1126

582....... is a progressive, organic condition in which neurons in the brain die, causing dementia. a. b. c. d.

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) Alzheimer disease Ataxia Dementia ANS: A

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1127

583. Hemorrhagic stroke, one of the two main types of stroke; occurs as a result of bleeding: a. b. c. d.

Inside the brain Outside the brain Near the brain Far from brain ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1128

NURSING TEST BANK

584. …is the process by which cells from a malignant neoplasm break away from the site of origin, such as the lung, and move through the bloodstream or lymphatic system to other body sites, such as the brain. a. Alzheimer disease b. Multiple sclerosis (MS) c. Metastasis d. Parkinson disease ANS: C

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1129

585............... is severe renal failure resulting in the buildup of waste products within the blood a. b. c. d.

Uremia Tremor Jaundice Sugar ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1130

CHAPTER 19 586. Whenever an object is lodged in the eye, ear, nose, or throat, the patient must be: a. b. c. d.

Treated at home Treated with 1st aid Transported to hospital All of the above ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg1140

587. Lasik surgery is a procedure related to a. b. c. d.

Eye surgery Ear surgery Nose surgery Neck surgery ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1141

NURSING TEST BANK

588.............. is the leading cause of new cases of blindness in adults. a. b. c. d.

Hepatitis Tiredness Viral action Diabetes ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1140

589. According to the CDC, the prevalence of diabetic retinopathy is expected to increase from ........ million cases (all levels of severity) in 2005 to 9.9 million cases by 2050 among Americans 65 years. a. 1.5 b. 2.5 c. 3.5 d. 4.5 ANS: B

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1142

590. While forming a general impression of the patient, one most note: a. Environmental clues at the scene b. The approximate age and sex of the patient, c. Degree of distress. d. All of above ANS: D

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1143

591. Eye drops can be used for: a. Conjunctivitis b. Glaucoma c. Itchy eyes d. All of above ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1143

592............ Is a condition in which the pupils are not of equal size, is a significant finding in patients with ocular injuries or closed head trauma: a. Anisocoria b. Orbital rim

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Conjunctivae d. Abnormal pigmentation ANS: A

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1144

593. The .......... consists of a concave mirror and a battery-powered light, which is usually contained in the device’s handle: a. b. c. d.

Ophthalmoscope Stethoscope Telescope Anemoscope ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1145

594. The monocular eyepiece is usually equipped with a ....... disk of lenses. a. b. c. d.

Rotating Sliding Light Transparent ANS: A

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1146

595........... is also known as “pink eye,” is a condition in which the conjunctiva becomes inflamed and red. a. b. c. d.

Anisocoria Orbital rim Conjunctivitis Abnormal pigmentation ANS: C

DIF: Moderate

REF: Pg1146

596. In open-angle glaucoma, the aqueous fluid drains too slowly. Over time, pressure builds up within the eye (intraocular pressure) and damages the optic nerve. a. b. c. d.

Open-angle glaucoma Narrow-angle glaucoma Secondary glaucoma Wide-angle glaucoma

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg1146

597. Possible causes of central retinal artery occlusion include: a. An embolus from the carotid artery b. Valvular heart disease c. Drug abuse d. All of above ANS: D

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1147

598. If a branch of the central retinal artery is blocked, then the patient will likely develop: a. Partial loss of vision in one eye b. Complete loss of vision in one eye c. Partial loss of vision in both eyes d. Complete loss of vision in both eyes ANS: A

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1147

599. Periorbital and orbital cellulitis are most commonly caused by: a. Staphylococcus bacterial infections b. Streptococcus bacterial infections c. Both of above d. None of above ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1148

600. Which of the following increases the patient’s risk of developing per orbital cellulitis? a. b. c. d.

Insect bites Upper respiratory disorders Trauma All of the above ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1148

601. Papilledema results from ............ at the rear part of the eye.

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Swelling of the optic nerve Inflammation of the optic nerve Both of the above None of the above ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1149

602. A tumor that grows on the eighth cranial nerve (acoustic neuroma) can affect the inner ear and balance. Such a tumor is usually slow growing, but if it grows larger, other cranial nerves can be affected, including the fifth, sixth, and seventh cranial nerves. This kind of damage can affect: a. b. c. d.

Facial sensation Eye movement Facial movement All of the above ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1150

603. Otitis is more common in children than in adults partially because as humans grow, the angle of the Eustachian tube becomes: a. b. c. d.

Vertical Horizontal Inclined All of the above ANS: A

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1150

604. Auditory canal blockage from excessive cerumen or lack of enough cerumen can lead to …… growth that can cause infection. a. b. c. d.

Bacterial Viral Algal Fungal ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1151

605. Meniere Disease Meniere disease is a chronic condition of the inner ear disorder characterized by symptom of:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. Dizziness described as spinning vertigo b. Low-frequency hearing loss c. Tinnitus d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1152

606. Loss of smelling sensation may have causes of: a. b. c. d.

Aging Smoking Allergies All of the above ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1153

607. One of the most common causes of nosebleeds is: a. b. c. d.

Digital trauma Dryness Hypertension All of the above ANS: A

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg1154

608........... have the greatest incidence of exploring their nasal cavities with foreign objects. a. b. c. d.

Youngsters Elders Young Children Old aged men ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1155

609. Acute rhinitis most commonly occurs as a result of a.......... infection and is accompanied by symptoms of the “common cold:” a. b. c. d.

Viral Bacterial Microbial Intestinal

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg1156

610. The weaker immune systems of older adults, coupled with a diminished cough and gag reflex, make them generally more prone to ........... infections. a. b. c. d.

Respiratory Digestive Visual Intestinal ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1157

611. Throat infections (pharyngitis) are particularly common among: a. Children b. Adults c. Women d. Men ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1158

612. Diabetes, leukemia, cancer, heart disease, and kidney disease may manifest with: a. Mouth ulcers b. Swollen gums c. Dry Mouth d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg11158

613. Which of the following is a yeast infection that causes white patches on the oral mucosa involving the mouth, tongue, palate, gums, and sometimes the throat. a. b. c. d.

Cold sores Canker sores Oral candidiasis Vascular candidiasis ANS: C

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1158

NURSING TEST BANK

614. Symptoms of Ludwig angina may include: a. b. c. d.

Difficulty in breathing Difficulty in swallowing Neck pain All of the above ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1159

615. The nose is a highly vascular structure, which contains nasal mucosa that provides a short route to the a. Head b. Forehead c. Brain d. Eyes ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1160

CHAPTER 20 616. Which of the following statements is not correct about GI disorders. a. b. c. d.

Most of these are deadly These are related to a generalized infection of the bloodstream GI disorders are not among the top 10 diseases that cause death within the United States.

At one time or another, everyone has had abdominal pain or GI distress ANS: A

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1171

617. If the pressure of ventilation is too great, the esophagus will: a. b. c. d.

Dilate Contract Sometimes it will dilate and sometimes it will contract Neither dilates nor contracts ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1172

618. Air follows the path of least resistance. Given the choice of moving through a broad tube into a large open space—the stomach—or winding its way down through a series of progressively smaller tubes, from a.

The trachea into the bronchi

NURSING TEST BANK

b. The bronchi into the trachea c. The trachea into the bronchioles d. The bronchioles into the trachea ANS: A

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1173

619. The liver promotes carbohydrate a. b. c. d.

Metabolism Catabolism Both of the above None of the above ANS: A

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1174

620. If the blood glucose level falls, the liver can convert a. Glycogen into glucose b. Glucose into glycogen c. Fructose into glucose d. Glycogen into fructose ANS: A

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1175

621. Dramatic decreases in glucose stores will prompt the liver to convert a. b. c. d.

Fats into glucose Proteins into glucose Fats and proteins into glucose None of the above ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1176

622. The large intestine, or colon, contains the remaining waste products, called a. Feces b. Facets c. Facies d. Faces ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1177

623. A patient who is vomiting has a greater chance of

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Aspiration Respiration Diarrhea Viral infection ANS: A

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1178

624. A patient who has been bleeding internally may have a severely decreased level of hemoglobin. The oxygen saturation may read ………, but if the hemoglobin level is low, oxygen is still needed. a. 93 % b. 94% c. 95% d. 96% ANS: D

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1179

625. Decreased bowel sounds can indicate ……… peristalsis of the intestines (hypoperistalsis) a. b. c. d.

Decreased Increased Sometimes increased and sometimes decreased Neither decreased nor increased ANS: A

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1180

626. When you are providing pain management for GI conditions, the goal should be a. To make the patient more comfortable b. To abolish the pain c. Both of above d. None of above ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1181

627. Enough medication to completely remove the pain may result in severe hemodynamic compromise.

Which of the the following medication provides tools to manage abdominal pain? a. b. c. d.

Intraosseous Demerol Toradol All of the above

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: D

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1182

628. Which of the following medication may be administered to address nausea? a. Zofran b. Benadryl c. Vistaril d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1183

629. Which of the following medication is typically used for allergic reactions, but also has antiemetic properties? a. b. c. d.

Diphenhydramine Hydroyzine Promethazine None of the above ANS: A

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1184

630. Which of the following medication is more sensitive to patients who have taken any medication that has CNS depressive effects? a. b. c. d.

Hydroyzine Diphenhydramine Promethazine None of above ANS: A

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1185

631. The guidelines for emergent filling of the vascular space and refilling the vascular space due to hemorrhage are the a. b. c. d.

Same Different Sometimes same and sometimes different Neither same nor different ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1186

632. As blood pressure falls, the amount of bleeding

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Decreases Increases Sometimes decreases and sometimes decreases Remains same ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1187

633. As the patient loses fluid, the body continues to shift water from inside the cells to interstitial space and finally into the vascular space to maintain adequate fluid volume in the blood vessels, until the patient has reached the limits of effectively fluid. a. b. c. d.

Moving Constant Thick Thin ANS: A

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1188

634. The ....... is the first organ to show the effects of shock, and the patient becomes anxious and restless a. b. c. d.

Brain Heart Stomach Liver ANS: A .

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1189

635. If a patient is bleeding from a gastric ulcer and transit time of the blood to the rectum is short, instead of melena, the patient will have a. Hematochezia b. Melena c. Both of above d. None of above ANS: A

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1190

636. Which of the following is an example of medication that affects bleeding? a. Aspirin b. Warfarin

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Clopidogrel d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1191

637. In most patients, even those with stable vital signs, it is prudent to establish an IV line, providing …… of normal saline solution or lactated Ringer solution using a macro drip tubing. a. b. c. d.

1000 mL 2000 mL 3000 mL 4000 mL ANS: A

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1192

638. If the liver is damaged and blood cannot flow through it easily, the blood will begin to back up into the portal vessels, which can ultimately lead to …… of the vessels. a. b. c. d.

Rupture Dilation Contraction None of the above ANS: A

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1192

639. Ulcers caused by the stress related to burns are called …… ulcers. a. b. c. d.

Curling Cushing Both of above None of above ANS: A

DIF: Medium

REF: Pg1193

640. An opening between two portions of the body or between a body part and the outside of the body is called a a. Fistula b. Trachea c. Esophagus d. None of the above

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1194

641. If an infectious agent causes the inflammation, the peritonitis can be a sign of movement of .......... Into the abdomen and eventually into the bloodstream (sepsis). a. b. c. d.

Bacteria Virus Both of above None of above ANS: A

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1195

642. Though the elderly experience appendicitis less often, they have a ........ mortality rate. a. b. c. d.

Higher Lower Zero None of above ANS: A

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg1196

643. Which of the following statement is correct regarding rectal abscess? a. Men are twice as likely to have this condition as women. b. Women are twice as likely to have this condition as men. c. Children are twice as likely to have this condition as adults. d. Adults are twice as likely to have this condition as children.

ANS: A

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1199

644. The liver is a very resilient and important organ. Beyond its role in the metabolism of fats, proteins, and glucose, the liver is responsible for .......... the blood, creating coagulation factors, recycling dead red blood cells, storing vitamins, and creating hormones needed in growth. a. b. c. d.

Detoxifying Oxygenating Deoxygenating None of the above ANS: A

DIF: Hard

REF: Pg1200

645. Which of the following is the main cause of mesenteric ischemia?

NURSING TEST BANK

a. Acute arterial embolism b. Acute arterial thrombus c. Both of above d. None of above ANS: C

DIF: Difficult

REF: Pg1203

Chapter 21 646. UTIs occur in women: a. b. c. d.

More than 50% More than 60% More than 70% More than 80% ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg. 1214

647. ---------- surrounds the glomerulus: a. b. c. d.

Bowman capsule Glomerular capsule Loop of Henle Both a & b ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg. 1214

648. Patients who are experiencing renal and genital conditions may exhibit many of the same symptoms as a patient with other abdominal conditions: a. b. c. d.

Flank pain Abdominal pain Constipation All of these ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg. 1217

649. Excessive amounts of urea and other waste products in blood: a. Testicular torsion b. Hyperkalemia

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Uremia d. All of them ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg. 1217

650. Visceral pain is defined as: a. b. c. d.

Deep pain caused by activation of pain receptors in outer areas of body enclosed within a cavity Deep pain caused by activation of pain receptors in internal areas of body enclosed within a cavity Pain that feels as if it is originating from a body part other than the side being stimulated All of them ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg. 1218

651. Question about when pain started and what person was doing at that time. This comes under: a. b. c. d.

Onset Provocation Severity Timing ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg. 1218

652. Severity of pain is evaluated by: a. b. c. d.

Scale of 0 to 5 Scale of 0 to 10 Scale of 0 to 15 Scale of 0 to 20 ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg. 1218

653. Polynephritis is: a. b. c. d.

Inflammation of kidney lining Collection of pus around the kidney Inflammation of liver All of these ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1220

654. Conditions that may cause urinary retention don’t include: a.

Kidney stones

NURSING TEST BANK

b. c. d.

Nerve damage Muscle damage Urinary tract infections ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1221

655. Incomplete emptying of the bladder: a. b. c. d.

Urinary retention Urinary obstruction Acute kidney injury None of these ANS: A

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1221

656. Person having history of gout and gastric bypass surgery have chances of developing: a. b. c. d.

Arthritis Calcium phosphate stones Calcium oxalate stones Both b & c ANS: D

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 1222

657. Complete cessation of urine production: a. b. c. d.

Oliguria Anuria Both a & b None of them ANS: B

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg. 1223

658. Thirst is seen in : a. b. c. d.

Pre renal Intra renal Post renal All of them ANS: A

Dive: Hard

REF: Pg. 1223

659. Confusion is seen in:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Pre renal Intra renal Post renal All of them ANS: B

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg. 1223

660. Injury that is caused by obstruction of urine flow from the kidneys. The source of this obstruction is often a blockage of urethra by an enlarged prostate, kidneys stones, blood clots or strictures. a. b. c. d.

Post renal acute kidney injury Pre renal acute kidney injury Intra renal acute kidney injury Post renal chronic kidney injury ANS: D

Diff: Easy

REF: Pg. 1224

661. Oliguria is a condition in which urine output is: a. b. c. d.

500 ml/ day 400 ml/ day 300 ml/ day 200 ml/ day ANS: A Diff: Easy 662. Azotemia is :

a. b. c. d.

REF: Pg. 1223

Increased concentration of urea Increased concentration of chlorine Increased concentration of nitrogenous waste Increased concentration of sodium ANS: C

Diff: Easy

REF: Pg. 1225

663. 50 ml of saline is administered in patient of dialysis facing: a. b. c. d.

Hypotension Potassium imbalance Air embolism Hemorrhage from the fistula or shunt ANS: A

Diff: Easy

REF: Pg. 1228

664. Painful , tender and persistent erection can result from:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Fournier gangrene Priapism Disequilibrium syndrome Air embolism ANS: B

Diff: Easy

REF: Pg. 1229

665. Inability to retract the distal foreskin over the glans penis: a. b. c. d.

Phimosis Para phimosis Orchitis None of them ANS: A

Diff: Easy

REF: Pg. 1229

666. Infection causing inflammation of epididymis: a. b. c. d.

Epididymitis Orchitis Phimosis Para phimosis

ANS: A

Dif: EASY

REF: Pg. 1229

667. Urine is stored in: a. b. c. d.

Urethra Urinary bladder Both of them None of them ANS: B

Diff: Easy

REF: Pg. 1214

668. By age 50 years, how many men are prone to enlargement of prostate: a. b. c. d.

50% 60 % 70% 80%

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B

Diff: Easy

REF: Pg. 1214

669. Referred pain is defined as: a. b. c. d.

Pain that feels as if it is originating from a body part other than the site being stimulated Deep pain caused by activation of pain receptors in internal areas of body enclosed within a cavity Deep pain caused by deactivation of pain receptors in internal areas of body enclosed within a body All of these ANS: A

Diff: Easy

REF: Pg. 1218

670. During renal failure, if renal failure is suspected, you should obtain vital signs for : a. b. c. d.

Every 20 minutes Every 15 minutes Every 10 minutes Every 5 minutes ANS: D

Diff: Easy

REF: Pg. 1218

671. The route by which urine exit the body: a. b. c. d.

Urethra Urinary bladder Ureter None of them ANS: A

Diff: Easy

REF: Pg. 1214

672. Peri-nephric abscess is : a. b. c. d.

Inflammation of kidney linings Collection of pus around the kidney Both of them None of them ANS: B

Diff: Moderate

REF: Pg. 1220

673. Urge incontinence is : a. b. c.

Sudden intense urge to urinate followed within second to minutes by in voluntary urine loss A constant continual flow of urine due to medical causes such as damage bladder blocked urethra Both of them

NURSING TEST BANK

d.

None of them ANS: A

Diff: Easy

REF: Pg. 1221

674. Latex or plastic tube through the urethra and in to the bladder : a. b. c. d.

Bladder catheterization Ureter catheterization Both of them None of them ANS: A

Diff: moderate

REF: Pg. 1221

675. Which type of injury involve damage to the small blood vessels and cells of kidney tubules : a. b. c. d.

Acute kidney injury Intra renal acute kidney injury Pre renal acute kidney injury None of these ANS: B

Diff: Easy

REF: Pg. 1223

676. High energy shock waves break up stones from outside of the body, resulting in uch smaller stone fragments and dust that can pass easily: a. b. c. d.

Extra corporeal lithotripsy Cystoscopy with stent replacement Percutaneous nephrostomy tube replacement All of these ANS: A

Dif: hard

REF: Pg 1223

677. Increased concentration of uremia and nitrogenous wastes in blood : a. b. c. d.

Uremia Azotemia Both a & b None of them ANS: C

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1225

NURSING TEST BANK

Chapter 22

678. Pear shaped organ where embryo implants and grow: a. b. c. d.

Uterus Fallopian tube Cervix None of these ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1238

679. Which of the following shed during menstruation? a. b. c. d.

Myometrium Endometrium Perimeum Mons pubis ANS: B

Dif: B

REF: Pg 1238

680. The onset of first menses : a. b. c. d.

Menarche Menopause Amenorrhea None of them ANS: A

a. b. c. d.

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1239

681. The absence or cessation of menses due to pregnancy: Amenorrhea Menarche Perimeum Menopause ANS: A

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1239

682. Inflammation of vagina that is caused by infection:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Vagina yeast infection Vulvovaginitis Vaginitis None of then ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1243

683. Vaginal yeast infections are typically caused by: a. b. c. d.

Candida albicans Trychophytan mentagrophyte T. rubrum None of these ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1243

684. Bladder infection caused by bacteria that ascend from the perineum through the genital tract into urethral opening: a. b. c. d.

Vulvovaginitis Cystitis Polynephritis None of these ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1243

685. Fluid filled sac within an ovary: a. b. c. d.

Ovarian cyst Ovarian torsion Cystitis None of them ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1244

686. Twisting of ovary: a. b. c. d.

Ovarian cyst Ovarian torsion Cystitis None of them ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1244

NURSING TEST BANK

687. Inflammation of endometrium: a. b. c. d.

Endometritis Endometriosis Uterine prolapsed All of these ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1245

688. Fever, chills, vomiting are symptoms of: a. b. c. d.

Uterine prolapse Endometritis Endometriosis None of them ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1245

689. Possible cause of traumatic vaginal bleeding: a. b. c. d.

pelvic fracture direct blow to perineum abortion attempts all of these ANS: D

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 1246

690. women that experience brown or dark red intermittent vaginal bleeding: a. b. c. d.

60% 70% 80% 90% ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1247

691. A rounded pad of fatty tissue that overlies the symphysis pubis and is anterior to urethral and vaginal openings a. b. c. d.

Labia minora Mons pubis Ovarian torsion None of these

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1253

692. A pair of organs that release eggs: a. b. c. d.

Ovaries Fallopian tube Cervix All of these ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1238

693. Tissue between vaginal opening and anus: a. b. c. d.

Endometrium Perineum Both a & b None of them ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1238

694. The uterine wall consists of muscular layer: a. b. c. d.

Myometetrium Endometrium Perimeum None of these ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1238

695. The region of sexual stimulation: a. b. c. d.

Labia minora Clitoris Hymen All of these ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1239

696. Ovulation occurs after : a.

14 days of the previous menstrual cycle

NURSING TEST BANK

b. c. d.

15 days of the menstrual cycle 16 days of the menstrual cycle None of them ANS: A Dif: Easy REF: Pg 1239 697. In menstruation, blood loss is:

a. b. c. d.

25 to 65 ml 65 to 75 ml 25 to 75 ml All of these ANS: A

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1239

698. Average time for mittelschmerz is: a. b. c. d.

Few minutes to 48 hours One day 6- 8 hours 3-4 hours ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1239

699. Luteal phase is: a. b. c. d.

Day 14 to day 28 Day 1 to day 13 Day 5 to 14 Day 15 to 28 ANS: A

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 1239

700. The cessation of ovarian function and of menstrual cycle: a. b. c. d.

Female climacteric Menopause Menarche Both a & b ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1239

701. Imperforate hymen is a condition in which :

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Hymen partially covers the vaginal orifice Hymen completely covers the vaginal orifice Both of then None of then ANS: B

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1239

702. The most common cause of amenorrhea : a. b. c. d.

Emotional problems Extreme stress Pregnancy None of them ANS: C

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1239

703. When you access gynecologic history of patients, you ask patient for: a. b. c. d.

LMP Gravidity Parity All of them ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1240

704. Ecchymosis at the umbilicus: a. b. c. d.

Cullen sign Grey turner sign Both a & b None of them ANS: A

Dif: Easy REF: Pg 1241

705. Infection of the woman’s reproductive organs: a. b. c. d.

PID STD Both a & b None of these A NS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1242

NURSING TEST BANK

706. Vaginitis can spread upward to; a. b. c. d.

Cervix Uterus Fallopian tubes All of these ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1243

Chapter 23

707. Calcitonin is secreted by: a. Thymus gland b. Thyroid gland c. Parathyroid gland d. None of these ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1259

708. Decrease in body’s water content triggers the release of: a. b. c. d.

Calcitonin Anti diuretic hormone Thymus gland None of these ANS: B

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1259

709. Help the immune system identify and destroy the foreign intruders is function of: a. b. c. d.

Thymus gland Pituitary gland Parathyroid gland Thyroid gland ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1259

710. Concentration of salt in body fluids is sensed by:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Thymus gland Parathyroid gland Hypothalamus Pituitary gland ANS:C

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 1259

711. Prolactin is component of:

a. b. c. d.

Thymus gland Pituitary gland Hypothalamus Parathyroid gland ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1259

712. . insulin is secreted from:

a. b. c. d.

Alpha cells Beta cells Delta cells None of these ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1260

713. Body changes associated with sexual development including growth spurts, deepening of the voice, growth of facial and public hair, and muscle growth and strength

a. b. c. d.

Androgens Estrogens Progesterone Testosterone ANS: A

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1260

714. --------- signals the anterior pituitary gland to secrete ---------- when an egg is developing in an ovarian follicle

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Estrogens, LH Progesterone, LH Oxytocin, LH None of these ANS: A

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 1260

715. A toxic condition caused by excessive levels of circulating thyroid hormone: a. b. c. d.

Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia Thyrotoxicosis None of these ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1261

716. An auto immune disorder that causes thyroid gland hypertrophy and severe hyperthyroidism

a. b. c. d.

Graves disease Crushing syndrome Panhypopituitarism All of these ANS: A

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 1261

717. A form of acidosis in uncontrolled diabetes in which certain acids accumulate when insulin is not available:

a. b. c. d.

Diabetes type 1 Diabetes type 2 DKA All of these ANS: C

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1263

718. Diabetes that develop during pregnancy:

a. Diabetes mellitus b. Diabetes type 1

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Diabetes type 2 d. Gestational diabetes ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1264

719. An increased appetite caused by the inability of glucose to be transported across the cell membrane:

a. b. c. d.

Polyuria Polyphagia Polydipsia All of them ANS:B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1265

720. A significant thirst cause by dehydration brought about by increase in dieresis

a. b. c. d.

Polyphagia Polydipsia Polyphagia None of these ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1265

721. Dislipidemia is:

a. b. c. d.

Reduced fat level Raised fat level Reduced carbs Raised fats ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1265

722. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome :

a. Blood glucose level greater than 500mg/dl

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Blood glucose level greater than 600mg/dl c. Blood glucose level greater than 700mg/dl d. None of then ANS:B

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1274

723. Excess amount of ketone bodies in blood: a. b. c. d.

Ketosis Ketonemia None of these All of these ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1275

724. In hypoglycemia, insulin dosage is:

a. b. c. d.

Insufficient Excessive Normal Low ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1276

725. . HHS is: a. type 1 diabetes b. type 2 diabetes c. both of then d. none of them

ANS: B

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 1278

726. . The type of diabetic disease that usually starts in childhood and requires daily injections of supplemental synthetic insulin to control blood glucose formerly called juvenile diabetes: a. type 1 diabetes

NURSING TEST BANK

b. type 2 diabetes c. hypoglycemia d. adult onset diabetes

ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1290

Chapter 24 728. Bleeding and clotting abnormalities: a. b. c. d.

Hematologic disorder Hemolytic disorder Hemostatic disorder None of these ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1294

729. Disease processes that cause break down of RBCs : a. b. c. d.

Hematologic disorder Hemolytic disorder Hemostatic disorder None of above ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1294

730. Plasma accounts for total blood volume: a.45% b. 50% c. 55% d. 60% ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1294

731. Blood accounts for body weight: a. 8% b. 5% c. 9% d. 10%

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1294

732. Normal value of RBCs count in children : a. 3.5 – 4.0 b. 3.5-4.5 c. 3.5-5 d. 3.5-5.5

ANS: D

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 1295

733. Neutropenia is abnormal low number of: a. b. c. d.

Basophils Neutrophils Both a & b None of them ANS:B

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1296

734. Mast cells are: a. b. c. d.

Basophils Neutrophils Eosinophils None of then ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1296

735. The condition in which body produces too much platelets that can lead to dangerous body conditions: a. b. c. d.

Thrombocytosis Thrombosis Coagulopathy None of them ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1297

736. The process by which clotting factors work together to ultimately form fibrin called: a. Coagulopathy b. Clotting cascade

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Thrombosis d. None of these ANS: B

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1297

737. Common findings with blood disorders related to cardio vascular system may not be: a. b. c. d.

Tachycardia Chest pain Dyspnea Uncontrolled bleeding ANS: D

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 1300

738. The body temporarily stops RBCs production: a.leukocytosis b. aplastic crises c. hemolytic crises d. none of them ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1301

739. When blood flow to an organ becomes restricted causing pain, ischemia and often organ damage a. b. c. d.

Vasooclusive crises Leuko cytosis Hemolytic crises Aplastic crises ANS: A

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1301

740. Symptoms of acute chest syndrome include: a. b. c. d.

Chest pain Fever Cough All of these ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1302

741. Reduction in WBCs: a. Thrombocytopenia

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Leucopenia c. Iron deficiency anemia d. Leukocytosis ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1303

742. In ---------------------------, abnormal mature lymphoid cells accumulate in bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen and peripheral blood . a. Acute leukemia b. Chronic leukemia c. Sub chronic leukemia d. Sub acute leukemia ANS: B

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 1304

743. The number of plasma in the bone marrow increases abnormally, leading to formation of tumors in the bone : a. b. c. d.

Myolema Multiple myolema Both a & b None of these ANS: B

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1307

744. Infection that is result of poor blood product handling, or contamination during the infusion process: a. b. c. d.

Febrile reaction Allergic reaction Bacterial infection Hemolytic reaction ANS: C Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1308

745. A simple ------------------------------ is most common transfusion complication a. b. c. d.

Febrile reaction Allergic reaction Hemolytic reaction Bacterial infection ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1308

NURSING TEST BANK

746. Any disorder of blood : a. b. c. d.

Hematologic disorder Hemolytic disorder Hemostatic disorder All of these ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1294

747. Simple study of blood: a. b. c. d.

Hematology Hemostatic Hemolytic All of these ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1294

748. The RBCs take time to mature: a. b. c. d.

4 days 5 days 6 days 7 days ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1294

749. Plasma is water : a. b. c. d.

90% 91% 93% 94% ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1294

750. Percentage of hematocrit in children includes: a. 40- 50 b. 35- 45 c. 32-55 d. None of these

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: C

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 1295

751. The normal value of neutrophils ranges from: a. 50- 60 % b. 60- 70% c. 70-80% d. 90-100%

ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1296

752. The normal level of monocytes ranges from:

a. 1-4% b. 2-4% c. 2-6% d.

6-8%

ANS: C

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 1296

753. Clotting factors found in blood is produced by:

a. Liver b. Kidney c. Head d. All of them

ANS: A

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1298

754. In patients suspected with hemophilia, be alert for signs of:

a. Weak pulse

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Hypotension c. Hypertension d. Both a & b

ANS: D

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1299

755. Common findings with blood disorders related to skeleton include:

a. Tachycardia b. Chronic joint or bone pain c. Hematuria d. Uncontrolled bleeding

ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1300

756. Sickle cell disease lead to:

a. Aplastic crises b. Hemolytic crises c. Vaso occulusive crises d. Both a & b

ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1301

757. Crises when acute RBCs destruction leads to jaundice:

a. Vaso occulusive crises b. Hemolytic crises c. Aplastic crises d. None of them

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF : Pg 1301

Chapter 25

758. Anaphylactic reaction has incidence of about: a. b. c. d.

5% 6% 7% 8% ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1316

759. Antibody responsible for allergic reaction: a. b. c. d.

Ig G IgM Ig E None of these ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1317

760. Anaphylaxis symptoms that continue over time, with time frame anywhere from 5 to 72 hours: a. b. c. d.

Allergic reaction Biphasic reaction Prolonged reaction None of these ANS: C

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1317

761. The final way allergens enter the body is through the gastro intestinal tract via: a. b. c. d.

Inhalation Ingestion Absorption Injection ANS: B

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1317

NURSING TEST BANK

762. Foods that cause allergies in children don’t include: a. b. c. d.

Wheat Soy Eggs Tree nuts ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1318

763. The first encounter with foreign substance begin the: a. b. c. d.

Primary response Secondary response Sensitivity response All of them ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1320

764. Histamine as a mediator does not cause: a. b. c. d.

Systemic vasodilation Broncho constriction Attract neutrophils None of these ANS: C

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 1321

765. Pruritus is : a. b. c. d.

Rashes Edema Itching Urticaria ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1323

766. Risk factor for severe anaphylaxis include: a. b. c. d.

Asthma Tree nut allergy Mast cell disease All of these ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1324

NURSING TEST BANK

767. If you encounter a patient with allergic reaction, look for: a. b. c. d.

Patients anxiety level Increasing work of breathing Wheezing All of these ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1326

768. Hypo perfusion and hypoxia commonly cause: a. b. c. d.

Bronchospasm Abdominal cramping Dysrhythmias Laryngospasm ANS: C

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 1326

769. Symptoms in anaphylaxis related to respiratory symptoms: a. b. c. d.

Shortness of breadth Dyspnea Tightness in throat and chest All of them ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1327

770. Sign and symptoms of anaphylaxis related to skin don’t include: a. b. c. d.

Swollen, red eyes Hives Warm Crackles ANS: D

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1328

771. Severe anxiety and respiratory distress is associated with: a. Flushing b. Panic attacks c. Heart attacks d. All of them

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1328

772. Headache, hives, numbness around the mouth, sweating and upset stomach is seen in person with: a. b. c. d.

Wheezing and respiratory distress Monosodium glutamate poisoning Scrombroid fish poisoning Lung injury ANS: B

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1328

773. The condition which can mimic food induced anaphylactic reactions: a. b. c. d.

Monosodium glutamate poisoning Scrombroid fish poisoning Wheezing Lung injury ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1328

774. The typical dose of Benadryl is: a. b. c. d.

25 to 50 mg 50 to 100 mg 100 to 150 mg 150 to 200 mg ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1330

775. Auto immune disease which means the body perceives its own tissue or cells , in this case, collagen tissue as a dangerous invader and attacks that tissue . the attack can be chronic , causing long term inflammation or severe enough to result in death. a. b. c. d.

Collagen vascular disease Systemic lupus erythematosus Both of them None of these ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1331

776. Which one of the following is an autoimmune disorder? a. Myositis

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Restless legs syndrome c. Crohn disease d. All of them ANS: D

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1331

777. Sclera mean: a. b. c. d.

Soft Hard Rigid None of these ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1332

778. Liver transplant patients have tendency to develop: a. b. c. d.

Hepatitis C Hepatitis A Hepatitis B None of these ANS: A

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 1334

779. Encouragement of patients to monitor themselves for signs of infection and take these signs seriously includes in: a. b. c. d.

Self-monitoring Immunosuppressive regimen Knowing the signs of life threatening concerns All of these ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1335

780. In reactions, foreign substance are breadthed in through the respiratory system: a. b. c. d.

Ingestion Inhalation Injection All of these ANS: B

Dif: Easy REF: Pg 1339

781. Incidence of biphasic reactions includes:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. 1- 10 % b. 10- 20 % c. 1- 23% d. None of them ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1317

782. A foreign substance that produce allergic symptoms in patients: a. b. c. d.

Allergen Anti body Anti gen None of them ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1317

783. Allergic reaction involving single, two or more body systems: a. b. c. d.

Prolonged reactions Anaphylaxis Biphasic reaction None of them ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1317

784. Sensitivity is : a. b. c. d.

Ability to recognize the antigen the next time it is encountered Ability t recognize the anti body the next time it is encountered Both a & b None of them ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1320

785. Effects of platelet activating factor include: a. Pulmonary vasoconstriction b. Broncho constriction c. Histamine release d. Systemic vasodilation ANS: C

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 1321

NURSING TEST BANK

786. Signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis related to: a. b. c. d.

Warm Flushed Itching All of these ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1328

787. Addison disease is : a. b. c. d.

Auto immune disorder Respiratory disorder Cardiac disorder None of them ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 1331

CHAPTER 26 788. ‘’We can become as much slaves to precaution as we can to fear’’. Who said this statement relative to EMS? a. b. c. d.

Randolph borne Ibn-e-Nafees William Harvey Karl Landsteiner

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1345

789. Which of these methods is essential to protect patient from health care associated infections? a. b. c. d.

Bleach water Disinfectants Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1346

NURSING TEST BANK

790. Semi-critical equipment are cleaned with bleach water with the dilution ratio of: a. 1:10 b. 1:100 c. 2:50 d. 3:90

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1346

791. Which of these is included in non-critical equipment? a. b. c. d.

Cleaning surfaces Floors Ambulance seats All of above

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1346

792. Which of the following pathogenic micro-organisms causes infectious diseases? a. b. c. d.

Bacteria Virus Parasite All of above

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1347

793. Pathogens transmitted by airborne transmission can travel up to: a. b. c. d.

5 feet 2m 6 feet 2.5m

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1347

NURSING TEST BANK

794. To which diseases type, droplet precautions are applied? a. b. c. d.

Medium to large sized particles Tuberculosis Chicken-pox Measles

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1348

795. Which of the following statement is included in list of exposure to blood-borne pathogens? a. b. c. d.

A contaminated needle-stick injury Blood or OPIM spattered into the eye Cuts with a sharp object covered with blood All of these

ANS: D

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1352

796. Which of these numbers of colonies of bacteria per mm is considered not indicating infection? a. 150000 b. 200000 c. 180000 d. Equal toor less than 100000

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1355

797. The time duration of multiplication of bacteria like Salmonella is: a. b. c. d.

15-20 minutes 30 minutes 45 minutes 1 hour

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1355

NURSING TEST BANK

798. How much time will it take from a susceptible person’s exposure to the mumps virus until the person begins to feel feverish? a. b. c. d.

12 days 12 to 26 days 10 days approx.

Not defined

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1356

799. The incubation period for influenza virus is: a. b. c. d.

24 hours 24 to 72 hours 4 days 15 hours

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1356

800. Which of these pairs of cells type work together to fight infection? a. b. c. d.

B and T cells C and T cells A and T cells None of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1357

801. Which of the following is the symptoms of sepsis? a. b. c. d.

Shortness of breath Elevated heart rates Confusion All of these

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1357

802. Which of these is not a component of qSOFA score in assessment of sepsis? a. b. c. d.

Respiratory rate Altered mentation Blood pressure Suctioning

ANS: D

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1357

803. Which type of membranes cover brain and spinal cord? a. b. c. d.

Meninges Epithelial Mucous Serous

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1357

804. The incubation period for meningococcal meningitis is between: a. b. c. d.

1-2 days 3-4 days 5-10 days 2-10 days

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1358

805. After how much time the micro-organisms disappear from respiratory tract after antibiotic treatment begins? a. b. c. d.

1 hour 15 hours 24 hours None of these

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1358

806. Symptoms of meningitis includes: a. b. c. d.

Fever Severe headache Stiff neck All of above

ANS: D

a. b. c. d.

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1358

807. Which of the following is not a symptom of influenza?

Headache Muscle pain Malaise Stiff neck

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1359

808. Which type of bacteria causes pertussis? a. b. c. d.

Cyano-bacteria Aquificae Bordetella Fuso

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1359

809. The incubation period of pertussis disease is: a. b. c. d.

7-10 days 3-5 days 1-2 days None of these

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1359

810. The incubation period for mumps virus is: a. b. c. d.

16-18 days 12-13 days 20-25 days 3-5 days

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1360

811. The incubation period for TB is : a. b. c. d.

3-4 weeks 4-12 weeks 3-6 weeks 5-6 weeks

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1361

812. Which of these viruses is caused by cotton rat? a. b. c. d.

Hanta-virus Corona virus Influenza virus Zika virus

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1378

813. As a paramedic, before you physically assess the hepatitis patient, what type of precautions should be taken? a. b. c. d.

Standard precautions Special precautions Barrier precautions Cutaneous precautions

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: 1396

814. The yellow coloring of patient’s skin in hepatitis is caused by: a. b. c. d.

Decrease in red blood cell count Increase in bilirubin level in blood Decrease in bilirubin level Increase in red blood cell count

ANS: B

a. b. c. d.

DIF: HARD

REF: 1396

815. The most common blood-borne infection and reason for liver transplant in USA is: Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis C None of these

ANS: C

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1396

816. Which of the following type of hepatitis is enteric? a. b. c. d.

A B C D

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1396

817. The ability of an organism to invade and create disease in a host is called : a. b. c. d.

Indirect transmission Direct transmission Vector transmission Virulence

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1396

CHAPTER NO 27 818. Which substance damage structures or impair function when introduced in a body? a. b. c. d.

Drug Toxin Poison Bacteria

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1398

819. Which of these is a harmful substance produced by bacteria? a. b. c. d.

Toxin Poison Drug None of these

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1398

820. Which one of these is the heading of toxicologic emergencies? a. b. c. d.

Intentional Un-intentional Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ Alert

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1399

821. According to the National Capital Poison Center, 79.4% of all poison exposures reported in 2014 were: a. Intentional b. Un-intentional c. Out of order

NURSING TEST BANK

d. None of these

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1399

822. Which of these drugs is used to facilitate sexual assault? a. b. c. d.

Flunitrazepam Cipro Anti-biotic Methyl alcohol

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1399

823. Which of these is a primary method of route of entry? a. b. c. d.

Ingestion Inhalation Injection All of above

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1400

824. A person ingested a toxin accidentally, what will you do to eliminate toxin from body? a. b. c. d.

Suctioning Activated charcoal Gastric decontamination None of these

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1401

825. What would be the first general management will you do when dealing with inhalation incident? a. b. c. d.

Scene safety Primary survey Reassessment Call for another paramedic

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1402

826. Which of these followings is not an example of narcotic? a. b. c. d.

Morphine Codeine Heroin Atropine

ANS: D

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1404

827. Which of the followings is cholinergic toxidrome? a. b. c. d.

Parathion Phenylephrine Zolpidem Atropine

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1404

828. Which of the following is considered as sedative-hypotonic? a. b. c. d.

Phenobarbital Seco-barbital Lorazepam All of above

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1404

829. Sarin drug is considered as: a. b. c. d.

Cholinergic Sedative Anticholinergic Narcotic

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1404

830. Propofol drug falls in the category of: a. b. c. d.

Cholinergic Anticholinergic Sedative Narcotic

ANS: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1404

831. Which of the following is not a part of basic terms and concepts of substance abuse? a. b. c. d.

Drug abuse Habituation Tolerance Seizure

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1404

832. The bitter almonds odor is present in: a. b. c. d.

Cyanide Arsenic Methyl salicylate Camphor

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1405

833. Which of the following best matches with Turpentine? a. b. c. d.

Violets Camphor Alcohol Pears

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1405

834. Which agent causes tachycardia? a. b. c. d.

Digitalis Gasoline Lead Amphetamines

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1405

835. Which of these agents causes seizures? a. b. c. d.

Camphor Atropine Mushrooms Botulism

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1405

836. Bradycardia is a condition related to: a. b. c. d.

Cardiovascular Respiratory Skin Mouth

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1405

837. A molecule that blocks the ability of a given chemical to bind to its receptor is considered as: a. b. c. d.

Antagonist Potentiation Synergism None of these

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1405

838. Hypoglycemia is the result of: a. b. c. d.

Inflammation Secretion of enzymes Burns Damage to the liver

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1411

839. The contributing factors to the pancreatitis condition is: a. b. c. d.

Secretion of enzymes Irritation of stomach lining Gastritis None of these

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1411

840. The symptoms of delirium tremens usually starts after: a. b. c. d.

1-2 hours 48-72 hours 4-5 days All of above

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1412

841. Which of these is the symptom of delirium tremens? a. b. c. d.

Confusion Tremors Fever All of these

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1412

842. What would you do to treat the patient of delirium tremens? a. b. c. d.

Protecting the patient from injury Scene safety Reassessment Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1412

843. Which of the following drug is extremely addictive? a. b. c. d.

Methamphetamine Morphine Propofol Cipro

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1414

844. The amount of ketamine that is given intravenously is of amount: a. b. c. d.

2mg/kg 1mg/kg 5mg/kg 10mg/kg

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1415

845. Ketamine given intramuscularly is of amount: a. b. c. d.

4mg/kg 3mg/kg 1mg/kg None of these

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1415

846. Smoking marijuana usually causes euphoria and relaxation that can last up to: a. b. c. d.

2-3 days 1-2 hours 4-5 hours 4-6 hours

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1416

847. Lysergic acid diethylamide is derived from: a. b. c. d.

Fungus Bacteria Virus All

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1417

CHAPTER NO 28 848. Which of the following statement matches with the covert behavior? a. b. c. d.

Open and generally understood Hidden meanings or intentions Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1452

849. Which of the following terms is correct for delusions? a. True beliefs

NURSING TEST BANK

b. False beliefs c. Super-sticious beliefs d. All of these

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1452

850. Which of these symptoms is not suitable for toxic and deficiency states? a. b. c. d.

Digitalis Disulfiram Amphetamines Parasites

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1454

851. Which of these doesn’t cause neurologic disease? a. b. c. d.

Syphilis Dementia Stroke Closed head injury

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1454

852. Which of these causes endocrine disorders? a. b. c. d.

Thyroid hyper-function Adrenal hyper-function Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ Low cardiac output

AND: C

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1454

853. Which of these is considered responsible for metabolic orders? a. Electrolyte imbalances

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Hypoglycemia c. Diabetic ketoacidosis d. All of above

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1454

854. Which of these can’t be held responsible for infections? a. b. c. d.

Seizures Syphilis Parasites Brain abscess

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1454

855. Which of the following is an alternative for a person who is facing threats by his crisis? a. b. c. d.

Cope with it Attempt to alleviate the discomfort All above None of these

ANS: C

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1454

856. Which of these medical conditions cause abnormal behaviors? a. b. c. d.

Severe infections Electrolyte imbalances Stress copying All of above

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1455

857. Which of these symptoms doesn’t affect function of consciousness? a. Delirium

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Stupor and coma c. Confusion d. Slow movements

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1455

858. Which of the following is a psychiatric sign of function of motor activity? a. b. c. d.

Restlessness Stereotyped movements Compulsions All of these

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1455

859. A person is having amnesia and confabulation, which of the function of him will be affected? a. b. c. d.

Memory Motor activity Speech Perception ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1455

860. A patient is experiencing illusions and hallucinations, which of the following matches these symptoms? a. b. c. d.

Intelligence Perception Mood and effect Motor activity

ANS: B

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1455

861. Which is the best time for reassessment to further explore your patient’s mental status? a. During transport b. While asking open-ended questions

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Scene-size up d. None of these

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1460

862. Which of the following guidelines should be apply to the care of patient with a psychiatric emergency? a. b. c. d.

Be as calm and direct as possible Exclude disruptive people Sit down All of these

ANS: D

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1462

863. The best position in which to secure the patient to the stretcher is: a. b. c. d.

Supine position Prone position Sims position Lateral position ANS: A DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1464

864. Which of the following conditions is caused by dementia? a. b. c. d.

Severe deficits in memory Abstract thinking Judgement All of these

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1470

865. Suicide is considered the second leading cause of death among people ages from: a. b. c. d.

10 to 25 years 11 to 21 years 20 to 31 years 10 to 34 years

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1470

866. In which of the following scenarios violence is more likely include: a. b. c. d.

Situations where alcohol or illicit drugs are being consumed Incidents involving large crowds Incidents in which violence is already occurring All of these

ANS: D

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1471

867. What percentage of the US population experience a mood disorder? a. 10% b. 12% c. 15% d. 20%

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1472

868. Patients who experience either depression or mania have a mood disorder of type: a. b. c. d.

Unipolar Bipolar Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ None of these

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1472

869. How the patients of GAD are often treated with: a. b. c. d.

Counselling Medicine Anxiety disorder centers Rehabilitation

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1474

870. The world population having schizophrenia is estimated to be in percentage of: a. 0.2 to 1.5% b. 1 to 5% c. 0.5 to 3% d. 0.6 to 2%

ANS: A

DIF: EASY

REF: Pg1474

871. Which of these is not a symptom of panic attack? a. b. c. d.

Sweating Fear of dying Chills or hot flashes None of these

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1475

872. What is the trade name of citalopram antidepressant? a. b. c. d.

Lexapro Prozac Effexor Celex

ANS: D

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1479

873. Which of the four causes of behavioral emergencies fits to a women patient having mood swings problem? a. Biologic b. Environment c. Acute injury or illness

NURSING TEST BANK

d. Substance related

ANS: B

DIF: MODERATE

REF: Pg1491

874. What is always your first step in the assessment and treatment of the patient having a behavioral emergency? a. b. c. d.

Determine the patient’s mental status Obtain vital signs Assess the scene carefully Contact medical control for orders

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1491

875. Which term best describes a state of delusion in which the person is out of touch with reality? a. b. c. d.

Depression Panic disorder Organic brain syndrome Psychosis

ANS: D

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1491

876. Which is the safest type of medication to use for chemical restraint? a. b. c. d.

Antipsychotics Benzodiazepines Opiates Antidepressants

ANS: B

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1491

877. Which of the following is not typically a cause of agitated delirium? a. Alzheimer disease b. Drug toxicity

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Sepsis d. Metabolic disorders

ANS: A

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1491

878. Which interview technique would not be appropriate to use with a patient experiencing a behavioral emergency? a. b. c. d.

Ask open-ended questions Don’t argue with the patient Allow silence Ask closed-ended questions

ANS: B

DIF: HARD

REF: Pg1491

CHAPTER 29

879. Trauma is physiological and structural change that occurs in patient’s body when an external source of energy affects the body beyond its ability to dissipate and sustain it. a.

Acute b.

Chronic c.

Subacute d.

Subchronic ANS: A DIFF: MODERATE

REF: PG 1542

880. Mechanical energy is subdivided into categories: a. b. c. d.

2 3 4 5 ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: PG 1543

881. Barometric energy can result from sudden and radial changes in:

NURSING TEST BANK

a.

Temperature b.

Pressure c.

Volume d.

Heat ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: PG 1543

882. The way of analyzing the mechanics and results of trauma sustained by human body is provided by: a. b. c. d.

Kinetics Mechanics Biomechanics Biochemistry

ANS: C

DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1543

883. External factors determine the type of injuries include: a. force and pressure b. force and mass c. pressure and energy d. force and energy ANS: D DIFF: HARD REF: 1543

884. Which one has greater effect on KE than mass: a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

Velocity Pressure Both a & b None DIFF: MODERATE

REF: 1544

885. The speed at which object travels in given unit of time: a. b. c. d.

Acceleration Gravity Velocity None

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: 1544

NURSING TEST BANK

886. Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed, it can change form: a. b. c. d.

Law of conservation of Energy Law of conservation of Mass Newton’s First Law of Motion Newton’s Second Law of Motion

ANS: A DIFF: EASY

REF: 1544

887. According to Newton’s Second Law, Force is directly proportional to: a. b. c. d.

Mass Acceleration Both a & b Gravity

ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1545 888. The human limit to deceleration is about: a. b. c. d.

10g 20g 30g 40g

ANS: C DIFF: HARD REF: 1545 889. Difference in the speed between two vehicles: a.

Moving speed b.

Closing speed c.

Velocity d.

None ANS: B DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1545 890. Trauma to head and spine is an example of: a. b. c. d.

Blunt trauma Multisystem trauma Penetrating trauma All of these

ANS: B

DIFF: HARD REF: 1545

NURSING TEST BANK

891. Injuries in which body tissues are not affected by external object: a. b. c. d.

Blunt trauma Multisystem trauma Penetrating trauma All types

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: 1546

892. The severity of injuries may be increased by : A. B. C. D.

Secondary collisions Additional impacts Deceleration of vehicle Deceleration of internal organs

ANS: B DIFF: HARD REF: 1547 893. Lateral or side impacts imparts energy to the near side occupant directly to the: a. b. c. d.

Pelvis & chest Head & spine Shoulder & rib Clavicle and spine

ANS: A DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1550 894. The chance of death increases when occupant is ejected from vehicle: a. b. c. d.

Two times Three times Eight times Four times ANS: C DIFF: HARD REF: 1552

895. The part of vehicle which stops the forward motion of any vehicle’s occupant who is travelling at the same speed as the vehicle: a.

Seat belts b.

Steering c.

Seats d.

Breaks ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: 1552

NURSING TEST BANK

896. Airbags reduces deaths in direct frontal MCVs by; a. 0% b.30% c. 40% d.50% ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: 1553 897. Helmets are designed to protect against impact forces to: a.

Head b.

Throat c.

Jaws d.

Face ANS: A DIFF:EASY REF: 1554

898. Organs susceptible to pressure changes: a.

Heart b.

Lungs c.

Middle ear d.

All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: 1563

899. Long term damage from biologic contaminants results from: a. b. c. d.

Primary blast injuries Secondary blast injuries Tertiary blast injuries Quinary blast injuries

ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1561 900. TNT stands for: a. b. c. d.

Tetranitrotoluene Trinitrotoluene Benzenetrinitrotoluene None

ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: 1562

NURSING TEST BANK

901. CPR stands for: a. b. c. d.

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation Cardiopulmonary rescue Cardiopulmonary receptors Cardiopulmonary receivers

ANS: A DIFF: EASY

REF: 1565

902. Patients suffering from trauma should have thorough physical examination: a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

Blunt trauma Penetrating trauma Multisystem trauma All of these DIFF: HARD

REF: 1567

903. The scoring system used to determine the likelihood of patient survival: a. b. c. d.

Trauma score CGS score Revised Trauma Score None of these

ANS: A DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1568 904. Standardize trauma related data is collected by: a. b. c. d.

National trauma data standard National trauma registry Both a & b National trauma data bank

ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1573 905. Coagulopathy refers to: a. b. c. d.

Poor blood clotting Sodium clotting Fluid imbalances in veins Sugar clotting ANS: A DIFF: EASY

REF: 1569

NURSING TEST BANK

906. A physiologic scoring system used to assess injury severity patients with head trauma: a.

RTS b.

CGS c.

TS d.

None ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: 1568 907. The patient survival is calculated on scale of range: a. 1-16 b. 1-17 c. 1-18 d. 1-19 ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: 1568 908. Common causes of death from blast injuries are due to: a. b. c. d.

Neurologic injuries and head trauma Head and spinal injuries Limb injuries Lung injuries

ANS: A DIFF: HARD REF: 1563

CHAPTER 30

909. A metabolic system which doesn’t require oxygen is : a. Aerobic metabolism b. anaerobic metabolism c. photosynthesis d. cellular respiration ANS: B DIFF: EASY

REF: 1582

910. In the lungs, the blood unloads: a. b. c. d.

Carbon dioxide Oxygen Nitrogen Urea

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: 1582

911. Blood unloads oxygen in: a. b. c. d.

Lungs Peripheral tissues Kidneys Heart

ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: 1582 912. CO is expressed in : a. b. c. d.

ml/mint mg/mint l/mint all of these

ANS:C DIFF:MODERATE REF: 1583 913. Myocardial contraction results in pressure changes causing the blood to flow from: a. b. c. d.

High pressure to low pressure Low pressure to high pressure Pressure don’t affect the flow None of these

ANS: A DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1583 914. Hematocrit values for women range from: a. 40.7-50.3 % b. 36.1-44.3% c. 35.1-42.4% d. 37.2-45% ANS: B DIFF: HARD REF: Pg1584 915. The component of blood involved in most of the coagulation: a. b. c.

WBCs RBCs Platelets

NURSING TEST BANK

d.

All of these

ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Pg1584 916. The loss of total blood volume resulting in death: a. b. c. d.

Blood tissue trauma Hemorrhage Exsanguination Muscle tearing

ANS: C DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg1586

917. An artery doesn’t recoil and continues to bleed if: a.

Cut vertically along its length b.

Partially transected c.

Incised directly or in transverse manner d.

Both a & b ANS: D DIFF: HARD REF: 1586 918. Blood from an open vein is much darker because of: a. b. c. d.

Low oxygen content High oxygen content Low carbon content High oxygen and carbon content ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: 1587

919. Hemostasis proceeds through steps: a. b. c. d.

One Two Three Four ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: 1587

920. Anxiety, agitation and restlessness are symptoms of: a. b. c.

Compensated shock Decompensated shock Irreversible shock

NURSING TEST BANK

d.

None of these

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: 1589

921. The signs of non-traumatic internal bleeding in older adults patients include: a. b. c. d.

Dizziness, faintness, fatigue Dizziness, faintness, weakness Faintness and fatigue Nervousness and unconsciousness ANS: B DIFF: HARD

REF: 1590

922. Which acid is used in controlling internal bleeding: a.Tranexamic acid b. EDTA c. Tranquilizers d. Hydrochloric acid ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: 1591

923. A mass of blood in soft tissues beneath the skin; it indicates bleeding into soft tissues and may be the result of minor and severe injuries. a. hematemesis b. hematauria c. hemoptysis d. hematoma ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE

REF: 1592

924. Coughed up blood usually bright red: a. b. c. d.

Hemoptysis Hematoma Melena Hematuria ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: 1592

925. To measure the cardiac rhythm of patient, most appropriate method will be: a.

Oximeter

NURSING TEST BANK

b. c. d.

Electrograph Electrocardiography Pulse meter

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: 1593

926. To confirm that you have fund all patient’s problem and injuries quickly use: a. b. c. d.

Secondary assessment Primary assessment Reassessment Physical examination

ANS: A DIFF: HARD REF: 1593 927. If you are dealing a patient who is showing symptoms of skull fracture, what you will do: a. b. c. d.

Stop the blood flow by applying pressure Not try to stop the blood flow Cover the bleeding site loosely Both b & c

ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE REF: 1595 928. CSF has higher: a. b. c. d.

Protein content Fat content Glucose content Calcium content

ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: 1595 929. While applying tourniquet, keep in mind that don’t apply directly on: a. b. c. d.

Muscles Limbs Joints Proximal to the zone of injury

ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: 1597 930. To prevent damage to tissues and vessels by broken bones, which one of the following is used?

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Tourniquets Splints Hemostatic agents Compression devices

ANS: b DIFF: EASY REF: 1599 931. In junctional areas, which technique is suitable: a.

Splints b.

Wound packing c.

Tourniquets d.

Regular bandaging ANS: B DIFF: HARD REF: 1600 932. Which one isn’t the function of hemostatic agents? a. b. c. d.

Absorbs water component of blood Contracting the clotting factors Deactivating platelets Enhancing the coagulation cascade

ANS: C DIFF; MODERATE REF: 1600 933. Titration of systolic blood pressure preferred for hemorrhagic shock is: a. b. c. d.

80 to 90mmHg 90 to 100mmHg 100 to 110mmHg 110 to 120 mmHg

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: 1602

934. TBI stands for: a. b. c. d.

Traumatic Brain Injury Tick borne illness Total body irradiation To be inactivated

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: 1602

935. Hypo perfusion (shock) occurs when the level of tissue perfusion:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b.

C. d.

Decreases Increases Remains same Sometimes increase and sometimes decrease below normal

ANS: A

DIFF: MOODERATE REF: 1605

936. Hemorrhage simply means: a.

Bleeding b.

Leaking c.

Professing d.

All of them ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: 1605 937. Splints design to stabilize femur fractures: a. b. c. d.

Air splints Rigid splints Traction splints None of above

ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: 1599 938. Tachycardia is sign of hypo perfusion suggesting: a. b. c. d.

External hemorrhage Internal hemorrhage Spine damage Muscle damage

ANS: B DIFF: HARD REF: 1591

Chapter 31 939. Injury occurs when an object, such as bullet or knife breaks through the skin and enters the body creating an entrance wound and possibly an exit wound. a. b. c. d.

Blunt injury Penetrating injury Soft tissue injury Infection

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B

DIFF: Easy REF: Pg 1610

940. The skin is composed of layers: a. b. c. d.

1 2 3 4 ANS: B DIFF: Easy REF: Pg 1611

941. Desquamation is the process in which: a. Shedding of soft living cells b. Shedding of soft non-living cells c. Shedding of hard living cells d. Shedding of hard non-living cells ANS: D DIFF: Moderate

REF: Pg 1612

942. Stratum Corneum have their cytoplasm replaced with: a. b. c. d.

Keratin Actin Mysosin Fibrin ANS: A

DIFF: Easy REF: Pg1612

943. Subcutaneous tissue stores energy in the form of: a. b. c. d.

Fat Protein Carbohydrates Minerals

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg1612

NURSING TEST BANK

944. Granulocytes and macrophages engulf: a. b. c. d.

Bacteria through phagocytosis Bacteria through hydrolysis Viruses through hydrolysis Viruses through phagocytosis

ANS: A DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1614

945. Histamine is released by: a. b. c. d.

Platelets Lymphocytes Mast cells None of these

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1614

946. Tough, fibrous protein found in scar tissue: a. b. c. d.

Actin Myosin Fibrin Fibroblast

ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 1614

947. Dressing high risk wounds and allowing them to heal from inside out:

a. b. c. d.

Primary closure Secondary intention Delayed primary closure Delayed secondary closure

ANS: B

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 1615

NURSING TEST BANK

948. The correct sequence is: a. b. c. d.

Exposure, disability, circulation ,breathing ,airway Disability, breathing, airway, circulation, exposure Airway, circulation, disability, breathing, exposure Airway, breathing, circulation, disability, exposure

ANS: D DIFF: HARD REF: Pg 1616 949. Ice or cold pack helps: a. Dilate blood vessels b. Promotes bleeding c. Slows bleeding d. Constrict blood vessels, slowing the bleeding

ANS:D DIFF:EASY REF: Pg1617

950. A bandage: a. b. c. d.

Covers the wound Controls bleeding Covers wound and controls bleeding Keeps the dressing in place

ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 1618

951. Methods to control external bleeding: a. b. c. d.

Direct/even pressure Pressure dressings or splints Tourniquets All of these

ANS: D DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1618

952. In case of arterial bleeding, it is best to use:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. Air splints b. Any type of splints c. Tourniquets d. Any bandage ( sterile)

ANS: C DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 1619

953. It is important to remove all other dressings before applying: a. b. c. d.

Splints Tourniquets Hemostatic agents Bandages

ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1621

954. Blood tends to be heavy on facial areas because of: a. Rich blood supply b. Less blood supply c. Blood with more oxygen d. Blood with less oxygen

ANS: A DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 1622

955. A superficial wound that occurs when the skin is rubbed or scraped over a rough surface and part of epidermis is lost is: a. b. c. d.

Lacerations Incisions Abrasions Infection

ANS:C DIFF:EASY REF: Pg 1623

NURSING TEST BANK

956. Which of them is intentional: a. b. c. d.

Lacerations Incisions Abrasions All of these

ANS: B DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1623

957. The first priority in treating lacerations Is to control bleeding by: a. b. c. d.

By applying direct manual pressure Loose dressing Reducing pressure Applying chemicals

ANS: A

DIFF: HARD REF:Pg 1624

958. Serosanguineous drainage ( serum and blood) has hue: a. b. c. d.

Red Pink Purple Brown

ANS:B

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 1626

959. Partial or complete blood loss of body part: a. Amputation b. Avulsion c. Hemorrhage d. Wounds

ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1626

NURSING TEST BANK

960. Open wounds can be irrigated by: a. b. c. d.

Saline water Sterile water Distilled water Both a & b

ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 1628

961. Myositis is: a. b. c. d.

Tearing of muscle Weakening of muscle Inflammation of muscle Internal bleeding

ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1630

962. Gangrene is: a. b. c. d.

Live tissues Dead tissues Live cells Dead cells

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1630

963. Tetanus is caused by: a. b. c. d.

C. tetani C. botulinum S. aureus Salmonella

ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1630

NURSING TEST BANK

964. Necrotizing fecitis is caused by: a. b. c. d.

Viral infection Bacterial infection Fungal infection Molds

ANS: B DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1630

965. Paronychia is infection of: a. hairs b. hands c. face d. eyes

ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1630

966. Bruise is an example of: a. b. c. d.

Open wound Closed wound Infection None

ANS: B DIFF: HARD REF: Pg 1633

967. Inflammation is the stage of healing: a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1633

NURSING TEST BANK

968. Rabies is caused by: a. Dog bite b. Cat bite c. None d. Both a & b

ANS:D DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1634 969. Inner layer of skin containing hair follicles roots, sweat glands, blood vessels, nerve endings and sebaceous glands a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Sebum d. Endodermis

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1634

Chapter 32 970. Function of nerve endings include: a. b. c. d.

Mediate the sense of touch Mediate the sense of pain Mediate the sense of temperature and pressure All of these

ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 1640

971. Ocular damage is injury which is: a. Alkali based b. Acid base c. Salt based

NURSING TEST BANK

d. Carbon based

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1640

972. Thermal burns occurs when skin is exposed to temperature more than: a. b. c. d.

44c 34c 35c 40c ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1641

973. Scald burns are caused by: a. b. c. d.

Hot metals Hot liquids Hot solid foods All of these

ANS: B

DIFF:EASY

REF: Pg 1642

974. Exposing a person to very intense heat may be the reason for: a. b. c. d.

Flash burns Steam burns Contact burns Scald burns

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1642

975. Zone of coagulation is the area which suffers: a. b. c. d.

Least damage Most damage Moderate damage No damage

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1642

976. Zone of hyperemia: a. b. c. d.

Least affected area Most affected area Decreased blood flow area None

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1643

977. You are dealing with a person whose skin is red and swollen. When you touch the skin, color of skin blanch and become normal. What type of burn it is? a. b. c. d.

Superficial burn Partial thickness burn Full thickness burn None

ANS: A

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 1644

978. Which type of burn destroys both layers of skin: a. b. c. d.

Superficial burn Partial thickness burn Full thickness burn All of these

ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1644

979. Hydrogen cyanide has odor similar to: a. b. c. d.

Bitter almonds Olive oil Palm oil Hydrogen fluoride

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1645

NURSING TEST BANK

980. Cyanide is produced by incomplete combustion of: a. carbon and hydrogen b. carbon and nitrogen c. nitrogen an hydrogen d. hydrogen and carbon

ANS: B DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 1645

981. Hydrogen chloride is a by-product of combustion of: a. b. c. d.

PVC Vinyl chloride PET Polystyrene ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1645

982. Level of CO in heavy smokers: a. b. c. d.

4-5% 4-6% 4-7% 4-8% ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 1646

983. Anyone suspected of having a burn to the upper airway may benefit from the administration of humidified, cool: a. b. c. d.

Carbon Nitrogen Oxygen Chlorine

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1647

984. Rule of nines is based on dividing body into: a. b. c. d.

Nine sections 10 sections 11 sections 12 sections ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1648

985. Rule of Palm represents patient’s TBSA ( total body surface area): a. b. c. d.

1% 2% 3% 4%

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1648

986. Full thickness burns covering less than 2% of TBSA: a. b. c. d.

Major burns Minor burns Partial burns Complete burns

ANS: B

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 1649

987. A person is transferred to burn unit when he is suffering from: a. Chemical burns b. Inhalation burns c. Burns involving face, hand, feet d. All of these

ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 1650

NURSING TEST BANK

988. Airways are secured in: a. b. c. d.

First 72 hours Day 1 through 7 Day 7 through week 6 Entire hospitalization ANS: A

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 1651

989. Consensus formula measures: a. Degree of burn b. Amount of blood c. Amount medicines d. Amount of fluid

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1652

990. In any patient with burns, medication is best given via: a. b. c. d.

Intravenous Intramascular Intraperitoneal All of these

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1653

991. Applying ice to burns may lead: a. b. c. d.

Organ damage Muscle damage Tissue injury Hypothermia

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1654

992. Hydrogen peroxide applied on cuts is solution:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. 6-10% b. 10-20% c. 6-9% d. 3-6% ANS:D

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1655

993. In which type f burning, a layer of dead tissue is formed: a. b. c. d.

Acid burn Akali burn Cold burn Flash burn

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1656

994. Which one is used for etching glass and plastic: a. b. c. d.

Hydrochloric acid Hydrofluoric acid Sodium metals Dry lime

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1657

995. Immersed the affected area in cold water in case of: a. b. c. d.

Chemical burn Alkali burn Hot tar None of these

ANS: C DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1567

996. Tingling sensation/ perception is received when amount of current is:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. 1 b. 5 c. 6-25 d. more than 25 ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1660 997. The temperature of arc- type: a. 3000c -20000c b. 3000c – 10000c c. 10000c-20000c d. 2000c-5000c ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1661 998. Hypoxia causes: a. b. c. d.

Cardiac arrest Respiratory muscle contraction Respiratory muscle relaxation None

ANS: A

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 1662

999. Lightning strikes when a massive discharge of electricity occurs between two bodies that have: a. b. c. d.

Same charges Different charges Neutral charge Charge at rest ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1663

1000. There are types of radiation: a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: C DIFF:EASY

REF: Pg 1664

Chapter 33 1001. There are bones in structure of face: a. b. c. d.

12 13 14 15

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1677

1002. Motion of eyeballs and upper eyelids relates to: a. b. c. d.

Globe Oculomotor nerve Optic nerve First cranial nerve

ANS: B

DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1677

1003. Ophthalmoscope is used to evaluate: a. b. c. d.

Retina Cornea Sclera Iris

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1678

1004. Major arteries of the neck supply blood to brain which: a. Oxygenated b. Deoxygenated c. Carbonated d. Decarbonated ANS: A

DIFF: HARD

REF:Pg 1679

1005. Brachial plexus is responsible for: a. Functioning of hand b. Functioning of arm c. Both a & b d. Function of brain

ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 1680

1006. A Patient’s oxygen saturation level is maintained at: a. 91% b. 92% c. 93% d. 94%

ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1680

1007. Blunt Force Trauma to the lower third of the face: a. b. c. d.

TMJ dislocations Lee Fort fractures Nasal fractures Mandibular Fractures ANS: A

DIFF: HARD

REF:Pg 1684

NURSING TEST BANK

1008. Le Fort fractures are classifies into: a. b. c. d.

One Two Three Four ANS: C DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1684

1009. A horizontal fracture of maxilla that involves the hard palate and inferior maxilla: a. Le Fort 1 fracture b. Le Fort 2 fracture c. Le Fort 3 fracture d. All of these

ANS: A DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1684

1010. Zygomatic fracture is a fracture of: a. b. c. d.

Nose Hand Leg Cheekbones

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1686

1011. Massive facial swelling is a result of: a. b. c. d.

Multiple facial bone fractures Zygomatic and orbital fractures Nasal fractures Mandibular fractures

ANS: A DIFF: HARD

REF:Pg 1686

NURSING TEST BANK

1012. Medications that stimulate alpha adrenergic receptors causing localized vasoconstriction in the nasal mucosa include: a. b. c. d.

Oxymetazoline hydrochloride Phenylnephrine hydrochloride Both a & b None ANS: C DIFF: MODEATE

REF: Pg 1687

1013. Applying pressure to the damaged eye may: a. b. c. d.

Lessen pain Lessen the damage Increase the damage No effect ANS: C

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 1688

1014. Eye injuries my cause by: a. Blunt trauma b. Penetrating trauma c. Burns d. All of these ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1688

1015. Patients with hyphema reports: a. b. c. d.

Blurred vision Photophobia Pain All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1690

1016. Symptoms of ocular injury include: a. Vision loss b. Double vision

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Severe eye pain d. All of these

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1692

1017. Photophobia means: a. b. c. d.

Sensitivity to heat Sensitivity to light Sensitivity to temperature None

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1693

1018. For irrigating eyes, use: a. Sterile water b. Saline water c. Vinegar d. Both a & b ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1694

1019. If burn is caused by alkali or acid, irrigate the eye for: a. b. c. d.

10 minutes 20 minutes 30 minutes 40 minutes ANS: B

DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1694

1020. During the process of cooking methamphetamine: a. b. c. d.

ammonia is used anhydrous ammonia is used nitrogen is used carbon is used

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 1694

1021. contact lenses are of:

a. b. c. d.

One type Two types Three types Four types ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1696

1022. Pinna tends to heal poorly because of: a. b. c. d.

Poor blood supply Poor oxygen supply Excess oxygen supply Excess blood supply ANS: A DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 1697

1023. Otoscope is used to: a. b. c. d.

Look into ear Look into mouth Look into eyes All of these ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1698

1024. Leakage of gastric contents into thoracic cavity results in: a. b. c. d.

Vascular injury Esophagul perforation Neurologic impairment Mediatinitis

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 1702

1025. Fractures of first rib are associated with: a. 50% b. 60% c. 70% d. 80% ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1702

1026. Stretching and tearing of ligaments is: a. b. c. d.

sprains strains cramps none ANS: A DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1704

1027. Stretching and tearing of muscles or tendons: a. b. c. d.

Strains Sprains Cramps None ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1704

1028. Whiplash is common form of: a. b. c. d.

cervical sprain cervical strain both a & b none ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1707

NURSING TEST BANK

1029. The part of the tooth that is external to gum: a. b. c. d.

Crown Dentin Cusps None

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1707

1030. Following help to prevent injuries: a. b. c. d.

Helmets Face shields Mouth guards All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1704

Chapter 34

1031. Injury to soft tissue of scalp and bones of skull: a. b. c. d.

Head trauma Head injury Traumatic brain injury None of them ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1713

1032. Skull is composed of bones: a. b. c. d.

25 26 27 28

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1713

1033. Which one is not the brain region? a. Cerebrum b. Brainstem c. Cerebellum d. Fosa

ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1714

1034. The largest portion of brain is: a. b. c. d.

Cerebrum Brainstem Cerebellum Frontal lobe ANS: A DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1714

1035. Speech center is located in: a. b. c. d.

Parietal lobe Occipital lobe Temporal lobe Frontal lobe

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1715

1036. Which part of brain is “Athlete’s Brain”? a. b. c. d.

cerebrum cerebellum brainstem frontal lobe ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1716

NURSING TEST BANK

1037. Which part of brain connects spinal cord to brain? a. b. c. d.

Brainstem Cerebrum Cerebellum Frontal lobe ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1716

1038. Second meningeal layer is transparent, delicate membrane called: a. b. c. d.

Dura mater Tentorium Arachnoid Pia meter ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1716

1039. Hemorrhage occur between dura mater and skull is caused by rupture of: a. b. c. d.

Rupture of middle meningeal artery Rupture of bridging veins Below the arachnoid membrane Above the arachnoid membrane ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1716

1040. The vertebral column can extend and flex up to: a. 60-70% b. 70-80% c. 80-90% d. 90-100% ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1717

NURSING TEST BANK

1041. Cervical plexus includes vertebral levels: a. C1 through C5 b. C5 through T1 c. L1 through L4 d. L4 through S4 ANS: A

DIFF: HARD

REF:Pg 1718

1042. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for: a. b. c. d.

Sweating Pupil dilation Temperature regulation All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1719

1043. Seeing stars ( flashes of light) is a symptom of : a. Brain trauma b. Head injury c. Traumatic brain injury d. None of them ANS: C DIFF : MODERATE REF: Pg 1720

1044. Cerebral perfusion pressure is defined as: a. Pressure of blood flow through veins b. Pressure of blood flow thorough lungs c. Pressure of blood flow through bones d. Pressure of blood flow through brain ANS: D DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1722

NURSING TEST BANK

1045. Recommended rates of hyperventilation for adults: a. b. c. d.

20 breaths/ mint 30 breaths / mint 25 breaths mint 20-30 breaths/ mint ANS: A DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1722

1046. Patients with closed head injury may become: a. Hypotensive b. Hypertensive c. Both a & b d. None of them ANS: B DIFF: MODERTE

REF:Pg 1723

1047. In a non- critical patient, you may apply the immobilization after: a. b. c. d.

Primary assessment Secondary assessment Tertiary assessment Quaternary assessment ANS: B DIFF: HARD

REF:Pg 1725

1048. If patients exhibits diaphragmatic breathing, use: a. b. c. d.

Comforter Foam Mattress Vacuum mattress ANS: D DIFF: HRD REF:Pg 1726

1049. Bruising behind the ears: a. Drainage of ear

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Retroauricular ecchymosis c. Battle sign d. Both b & c ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1727 1050. Increased blood pressure and decreased pulse rate is shown in level of intracranial pressure: a. Moderate elevation b. Mild elevation c. Marked elevation d. e. None of them ANS: C DIFF: HARD REF:Pg 1728

1051. Hyperesthesia is: a. b. c. d.

Abnormal sensation Electric shock Hyper acute pain to touch All of these ANS: D DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1730

1052. Babinski reflex is positive when: a. b. c. d.

Toes move upward Toes move downward Don’t move All of them ANS: A DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1730

1053. Impairment of brain function by external force such as fall: a. b. c. d.

Head trauma TBI Head injury All of these

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1732

1054. Intentional self harm is done by people between age: a. 65 years and older b. 50 years and older c. 25 to 64 years d. No specific age ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1732

1055. Skull fractures are of : a. b. c. d.

Two types Three types Four types Five types ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1734

1056. Fracture in which skull displays no gross physical signs: a. b. c. d.

Linear skull fractures Basilar skull fractures Depressed skull fractures Open skull fractures ANS: A DIIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1734

1057. Of depressed skull fractures, open fractures are: a. 75-80% b. 60-70% c. 75-90% d. 90-100% ANS: C DIFF: HARD REF:Pg 1734

NURSING TEST BANK

1058. Brain tissues are exposed to environment in: a. b. c. d.

Linear skull fractures Basilar skull fractures Open skull fractures Depressed skull fractures ANS: C DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1734

1059. TBI is divided into: a. b. c. d.

Two categories Three categories Four categories Five categories ANS: A DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1736

1060. The bran receives cardiac output: a. 10% b. 15 % c. 20 % d. 25 % ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1736

CHAPTER 35

1061. Functions of thorax and its contents include: a. maintain oxygenation b. maintain ventilation c. maintain circulation

NURSING TEST BANK

d. all of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1789

1062. Thoracic trauma may: a. b. c. d.

Increase blood pressure Decrease blood pressure Increase blood loss Decrease blood loss

ANS: B DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1790

1063. The delicate issue arises due to thoracic injury: a. Blood issue b. Ventilation c. Muscle tear d. All of these ANS: B DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1794

1064. Mortality rates associated with flial chest: a. 40% b. 50 % c. 60% d. 70% ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1794

1065. Principle of golden period: a. Shock injuries are critical b. Traumatic injuries are critical c. Shock or traumatic injuries are critical d. Shock or traumatic injuries are least painful ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1794

NURSING TEST BANK

1066. Flial segments threats the patient’s ability to: a. b. c. d.

Walk Sit Sleep Breath ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1796

1067. Accumulation of air or gas in pleural cavity occurs in: a. b. c. d.

Pneumothorax Clavicle fracture Sternum fracture Rib fracture ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1797

1068. PPV stands for: a. b. c. d.

Positive pressure ventilation Positive predictive value Points plus value Proportionimg valve ANS: A DIFF: HARD REF: Pg 1798

1069. Inability to eliminate carbon dioxide: a. b. c. d.

Hypertension Hycercapnia Pneumothorax Open pneumothorax

ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1798

NURSING TEST BANK

1070. Continued air accumulation within inter-pleural space: a. b. c. d.

Open pneumothorax Tension pneumothorax Hypoxia Hypercapnia

ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1800 1071. A condition when potential space between the parietal and visceral pleura is violated and blood begins to accumulate within this space: a. Hypothermia b. Tension pneumothorax c. Hemothorax d. Open pneumothrax ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1804

1072. When blood and air are present in pleural space: a. b. c. d.

Hemopneumothorax Hemothorax Tension pneumothorax Open pneumothrax ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1805

1073. You are dealing with patient who upon physical assessment shows signs of ventilatory insufficiency and hypovolemic shock with the lack of tracheal deviation possible bloody sputum. He/ she is suffering from: a. Hemoptysis b. Hemothorax c. Open pneumonothorax d. Tension pneumonothorax ANS: B DIFF: HARD REF: Pg 1805

NURSING TEST BANK

1074. Hypoxia and carbon dioxide retention leads to: a. Respiratory distress b. Dyspnea c. Agitation d. All of these ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1806 1075. Upon physical findings, we may see that person suffering from breathing sounds:

tension pneumothorax have

a. Equal on both sides b. Increased c. Decreased or absent on side of injury d. Decreased ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 1807

1076. Pericardiocentesis is a treatment of: a. b. c. d.

Cardiac temponade Hemothorax Pneumothorax None ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1807

1077. Sharp, retrosternal chest pain is common in patients of: a. b. c. d.

Myocardial rupture Myocardial contusion Pneumonia Tuberculosis ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1808

1078. A patient present with acute pulmonary edema and showing signs of cardiac temponade is suffering from:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Myocardial contusion Blunt trauma Myocardial rupture All of them ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1808

1079. Patients who are unresponsive, apniec, and pulseless may experience: a. b. c. d.

Traumatic aortic disruption Diaphragmatic injuries Commotio cordis Myocardial infarction ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1809

1080. The aorta include layers: a. b. c. d.

Two Three Four Five ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1809

1081. A patient showing signs of hypovolemic shocks, hemothorax and cardiac temponade if bleeding is not prevented. He is suffering from: a. Great vessel injury b. Diaphragmatic injuries c. Commotion cortis d. Traumatic aortic disruption ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1809

1082. If hematoma is formed in area of esophagus, the patient may present with: a. Stridor b. Hoarseness

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Dysphagia d. All of these ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1810

1083. Liver protects diaphragm from:

a. Right side b. Left side c. Center d. All sides ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1811 1084. A patient experiencing pleuritic chest pain, and particular pain that is worsen by swallowing or flexion on the neck. He is suffering from: a. b. c. d.

Great vessel injury Brain traumatic injury Traumatic Asphyxia Esophageal injury ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1812

1085. The injury to carina: a. b. c. d.

Great vessel injury Esophageal injury Tracheobronchial injury Traumatic asphyxia ANS: C

DFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 1812

1086. Bleeding into anterior surface of eye: a. subconjunctival hematoma b. exophthalmos

NURSING TEST BANK

c. asphyxia d. none of them ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1813

1087. A patient with asphyxia comes to you, you will treat him by: a. Oxygen via breathing mask b. Nitrogen via breathing mask c. Nitrogen via non- breathing mask d. Supplemental oxygen via breathing mask ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1813

1088. By ventilation, we mean: a. b. c. d.

Delivery of oxygen Removal of oxygen Delivery of carbon dioxide Removal of carbon dioxide ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1815

1089. A condition in which heart becomes compressed and stroke volume is compromised: a. b. c. d.

Cardiac failure Cardiac temponade’ Cardiac arrest Hematoma ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1815

1090. A grating sensation when two broken bones rub together: a. b. c. d.

crepitus hemothrax flails needle decompression ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1816

NURSING TEST BANK

CHAPTER 36

1091. The abdominal cavity contains:

a. b. c. d.

Digestive tract Urinary tract Genitourinary systems All of these ANS: D

DIFF:EASY REF: Pg 1820

1092. Which one is not a part of genitourinary system? a. b. c. d.

Kidneys Ureter Bladders Heart ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1821

1093. The area in abdomen encased in peritoneum: a. Reperitoneal space b. Peritoneal cavity c. Perium bilical area d. Epidermis ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1821

1094. Diaphragm curves at : a. b. c. d.

9th rib 10th rib 11th rib 12th rib ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1824

NURSING TEST BANK

1095. Chemical peritonitis caused by: a. b. c. d.

Release of bacteria in abdomen Release of feces in abdomen Release of stomach acid in abdomen Release of viruses in abdomen ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1824

1096. Mortality caused by abdominal injury: a. 10-20% b. 10-30% c. 30-40% d. 40-50% ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1824

1097. In the rapid deceleration of a patient during motor vehicle crash or fall from height, a shearing force can be created which results the internal organs to move forward. This MOI results in damage of: a. b. c. d.

Spleen Kidney Liver All of these ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 1825

1098. An accident in which an un-belt driver or front seat passenger often is pushed down and under the dash board. This is : a. Lateral impact b. Frontal impact c. Rear d. Rollover ANS: B

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 1826

1099. Diaphragm, liver, spleen are injured in:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. Rollover b. Lateral c. Rotational d. Rear ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1826

1100. Hemoperitoneum is: a. Collection of blood in lungs b. Collection of blood in heart c. Collection of blood in brain d. Collection of blood in peritoneal cavity ANS: D DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1829

1101. Tenderness on palpation and percussion of the abdomen along with abdominal pain is a symptom of: a. b. c. d.

Hetroperitoneum Hemoperitoneum Cardiac arrest Cardiac contusion ANS: B

DIFF: SAME

REF: Pg 1829

1102. Blood in the urine: a. b. c. d.

Hematauria Mensentery Both a & b None of them

ANS: A

DIFF: SAME

REF: Pg 1830

1103. Somatic pain comes from: a. Joints

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Muscle c. Ligaments d. All of these ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1831

1104. There are main areas where abdominal pain is felt: a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1831

1105. In absence of traumatic brain injury, the goal of fluid replacement is: a. b. c. d.

Maintain blood sugar level Maintain systolic blood pressure Maintain diastolic blood pressure None of these ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1832

1106. Over the top of evisceration, apply: a. b. c. d.

Splints Tourniquets Saline soaked dressing Sterile soaked sterile dressing ANS: D DIFF: HARD REF: Pg 1832

1107. The amount of circulatory blood filters through spleen: a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20%

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1833

1108. The intestines are most commonly injured from: a. b. c. d.

Penetrating trauma Blunt trauma Both a & b None of them ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: 1834 1109. The stomach is rarely injured from: a. Penetrating trauma b. Blunt trauma c. Both a & b d. None of them ANS: B

DIFF: easy REF: Pg 1834

1110. Which structure is not present in reperitoneal cavity: a. Pancreas b. Small intestine c. Large intestine d. Kidneys

ANS: C

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 1834

1111. Which part of body require more force to damage: a. Pancreas b. Spleen c. Liver d. Heart

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1834

1112. The first part of small intestine:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Duodenum Jejunum Ileum All of these

ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1835

1113. In active hemorrhage, patient experience: a. Hypotension b. Tachycardia c. Shock d. All of these ANS: D DIFF: HARD REF:Pg 1836 1114. Patients usually experience vague upper and mid abdominal pain that radiates to back. It is a sign of injury of: a. b. c. d.

Spleen Pancreas Kidney Liver ANS: B

DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1836

1115. Bladder injury may be suspected if: a. Person is unable to urinate 1116. b. Blood is noted at penile opening 1117. c.Trauma to the lower abdomen or pelvis 1118. d. All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1836

1119. Pressure necrosis: a. Cell death b. Tissue death c. Vital organs failure

NURSING TEST BANK

d. None of above ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1837

1120. Signs of vaginal trauma may include: a. hematomas b. bleeding from vagina c. tenderness on palpitation of lower pelvis d. all of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1837

1121. Signs and symptoms of pelvic fractures include: a. b. c. d.

Pain in pelvis groin and hips Hematomas Both a & b None of these ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1838

1122. Solid organs has large blood supply and cen be easily crushed by: a. b. c. d.

Penetrating trauma Blunt trauma Gunshot injury None of these ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1840

1123. Blunt trauma to penis cause: a. b. c. d.

Hematoma Pain Both a & b None of these ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1840

NURSING TEST BANK

Chapter 37

1124. Skeleton is divided into: a. b. c. d.

Two distinct portions Three distinct portions Four distinct portions Five portions ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1845

1125. Decrease in bone density: a. b. c. d.

Osteoposrosis Osteomalacia Rickets Arthritis ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1846

1126. Repetitive stress causes: a. Twisting injuries b. Stress fractures c. Fatigue fractures d. Dislocation ANS: B & C DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1847 1127. Each end of fracture is not aligned in a straight line and that an angle has formed between them. This is: a. b. c. d.

Closed fracture Open fracture Angulation Deformity ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1848

NURSING TEST BANK

1128. Injuries encountered together because of the way causative forces are transmitted: a. b. c. d.

fatigue fractures associated fractures twisting injuries dislocation ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1847

1129. when broken ends of the bond override one another a. b. c. d.

shortening deformity angulation closed fracture ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1850

1130. Partial dislocation of joint is: a. b. c. d.

Crepitus subluxation luxation diastasis ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1851

1131. A sound or sensation caused by bone end touching:

a. b. c. d.

Crepitus Diastasis Luxation Subluxation ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1851

1132. Injuries in which ligaments are stretched or torn:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Dislocation Luxation Subluxation Sprains ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1851

1133. Pale or delayed capillary refill in children: a. b. c. d.

Pulseness Pain Paralysis Pallor ANS: D DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1854

1134. While looking for point tenderness, identify the points which are: a. b. c. d.

More painful Less painful Senseless All of above ANS: A

DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1854

1135. RICES stands for: a. Rest, ice, Compression, elevation, splinting b. Rest, ice, complicate, elevation, splinting c. Race , ice, complicate, elevation, splinting d. Rest, ice, compression ,elevation, splinting

ANS: A

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 1857

1136. Cooling the injured area: a. Increases the rate of inflammation

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Decreases the rate of inflammation c. Decreases the rate of inflammatory mediators d. Increases the rate of inflammatory mediators

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1858

1137. Heating during initial phase of injury is avoided because: a. b. c. d.

Increase pain Decrease pain Increase pain & swelling Decrease pain & swelling ANS: C

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 1858

1138. Sling is not used when patient has: a. b. c. d.

Arm injury Neck injury Hand injury All of these ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1860

1139. Air splints expands when: a. b. c. d.

Going to higher altitude When it gets warmer When is gets colder Both a & b

ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1861

1140. The splint in which the suction pump is attached to splint which is used to evacuate the air. This characteristics is present in:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. Air splints b. Vacuum splints c. Pneumatic splints d. Rigid splints ANS: B DIFF: HARD REF:Pg 1861

1141. Which type is used for femur fracture? a. b. c. d.

Air splints Traction splints Vacuum splints Buddy splints ANS: B

DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1862

1142. A patient having injury to toe require to apply a splint. Which type will you prefer? a. b. c. d.

Traction splints Buddy splints Vacuum splints Air splints ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1863

1143. Which one of the following is not a symptom of compartment syndrome? a. Severe pain b. Tenderness c. Sensory changes d. Nausea and vomiting ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1864

1144. Prolonged compressive force that impairs muscle metabolism and circulation and presents following the extrication or release of an entrapped limb. This condition is called: a. Compartment syndrome b. Crush syndrome

NURSING TEST BANK

c. De-vascularization d. None of these ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1864

1145. The process in which toxins and waste products are removed from circulating blood: a. b. c. d.

Glomerular filtration Rhabdomylosis Hyperphosphatemia Kidney filtration ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1865

1146. A condition in which fat droplets become lodged in vasculature of lungs. a. Hyperkalemia b. Hyperphosphatemia c. Pulmonary embolism d. Fat embolism ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1865

1147. Fracture of the neck of fifth meta carpal: a. Scaphoid b. Ulna fracture c. Boxer’s fracture d. Mallet finger fracture ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1867

1148. Pelvis fracture accounts for: a. 1% b. 2%

NURSING TEST BANK

c. 3% d. 4% ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1868

1149. Injuries occur when a major force is applied to pelvis from above or below, such as when a person falls from significant height and lands on the feet. a. Straddle fracture b. Open pelvis fracture c. Vertical Shear fracture d. Scaphoid ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1869

1150. Large volume bleeding from pelvic cavity leads to a blood loss of: a. 2L b. 3L c. 4L d. 5L ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1871

1151. The bone of foot that articulates with the tibia: a. fibula b. femur c. Talus d. None of these ANS: C DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1873

1152. Thompson test can be used to identify:

a. Achilles tendon rupture b. Achilles ligament rupture

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Achilles joint rupture d. All of these ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1877

1153. A condition in which significant bone erosion at the effected joints makes them more susceptible to fractures and dislocation: a. b. c. d.

Arthritis Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid arthritis Gout ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1878

CHAPTER 38

1154. A process that balance the supply and demand of body needs: a. Thermoregulation b. Homeostasis c. Metabolism d. Respiration ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1889

1155. The human body maintain a constant core temperature of: a. b. c. d.

37c 38c 39c 37F ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1890

1156. Decreased core body temperature: a. Hyperthermia

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Hypothermia c. Thermoregulation d. All of above ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1890

1157. The thermolytic tissues are mediated by: a. Sympathetic nervous b. Para sympathetic nervous system c. body muscles d. Body organs ANS: B DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1890

1158. Transfer of heat from hotter object to cooler object by physical means: a. b. c. d.

Convection Conduction Radiation Evaporation ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1891

1159. Sweating and heat dissipation by evaporation accounts for cooling:

a. b. c. d.

10% 20% 30% 40% ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1891

1160. The production of heat and energy for the body:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. Photosynthesis b. Thermo -paralysis c. Hyperthermia d. Thermogenesis ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1892

1161. Old age group respond more to heat stress because: a. b. c. d.

They perspire less They feel thirst less readily in response to dehydration They acclimatize more slowly All of these ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 1892

1162. Acute, involuntary painful muscle spasms, usually in lower extremities, the abdomen or both that occurs because of the profuse sweating and sodium losses in sweat: a. b. c. d.

Heat strokes Hypothermia Heat syncope heat cramps ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1893

1163. Severe disturbance in body’s thermoregulation: a. b. c. d. e.

Heat stroke Heat syncope Heat cramps Hyperthermia ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1896

1164. In a heat stroke, the body temperature is elevated upto: a. 104K b. 103c

NURSING TEST BANK

c. 104F d. 104c ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1897

1165. Permanent cell death: a. b. c. d.

Permanent cell death Permanent tissue death’ Permanent organ dysfunction None of above ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1901

1166. Trench foot can occur at temperature: a. b. c. d.

60F 16c 17c Both a & b ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 1901

1167. Which factor does not decrease heat production: a. Age b. Hypoglycemia c. Malnutrition d. Wet clothes ANS: D

DIFF: HARD

REF:Pg 1902

1168. People have risk for hypothermia: a. Decreased thermogenesis b. Increased thermogenesis c. Increased thermolysis

NURSING TEST BANK

d. Both a & c ANS: D

DIFF: HARD

REF:Pg 1902

1169. Moderate hypothermia ranges between: a. b. c. d.

34 c and 30c 24c and 20c 24f and 20f 34f and 30f ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1903

1170. Primary hypothermia is caused by: a. b. c. d.

Heat exposures Cold exposures Exposure to pressure All of above ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1903

1171. Cooling of tissues induces a flow of water from: a. b. c. d.

Intravascular to extravascular spaces Extrvascular to intravascular spaces Flow is reversible None of above ANS: A

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 1904

1172. During transport, the ideal patient compartment temperature:

a. b. c. d.

25c 26c 27c 28c

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1904

1173. Initial therapy for patients include: a. b. c. d.

Remove wet garments Maintain horizontal position Monitor CBT All of these ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 1905

1174. The process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid. a. b. c. d.

Drowning Pneumonia Asphyxia None of these ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1907

1175. The accumulation of carbon dioxide and inability to oxygenate the lungs: a. Acute lung Injury b. Laryngospasm c. Hypoxemia d. None of above ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1908

1176. CAB stands for:

a. Circulation, airway, breathing b. Citizen advisory board c. Cellulose acetate butyrate d. None of above

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1909

1177. Which type of diving does not require any equipment? a. b. c. d.

Surface tended diving Scuba diving Breadth hold diving Saturation diving ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1911

1178. At constant temperature, the volume of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. This is: a. b. c. d.

Charles’ law Boyle’s law Dalton’s law Henry’s law ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1912

1179. Amount of gas dissolved in liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid. This is: a. b. c. d.

Charles’ law Boyle’s law Henry’s law Dalton’s law ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1912

1180. The injury results from pressure imbalances between gas filled spaces inside the body and the external atmosphere: 1181. a. Barotraumas b. Hematoma c. Hematocysts d. Pulmonary overpressurization syndrome

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1913 1182. Symptoms of arterial gas embolism include: a. Seizure activity b. Unresponsiveness c. Uncontrolled ascent d. All of above ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1916

1183. Illness caused by affect on CNS and pulmonary system due to effect of low atmospheric pressure: a. b. c. d.

Acute mountain sickness Altitude illness Chronic mountain sickness Illness is temperature related not of the pressure ANS: A

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 1919

1184. A valuable resource for emergency medical personnel dealing with underwater diving accidents is: a. b. c. d.

DAN NAD DANN None of above ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 1918

1185. Most venomous spider is:

a. Brown recluse spider b. Brown widow spider c. Black widow spider

NURSING TEST BANK

d. Hobo spiders ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 1927

1186. Loxoscelism is caused by: a. b. c. d.

Brown recluse spider Black widow spider Hobo spiders None of above ANS: A

DIFF: MODERATE REF:Pg 1928

1187. Tick bite may be life threatening if: a. b. c. d.

Bite on neck Bite on back Bite on spine All of above ANS: D DIFF: HARD

REF:Pg 1929

CHAPTER 39

1188. The objectives of developing out of hospital program include: a. Specific, measureable, attainable, realistic and relevant, timely b. Specific, measureable, attainable and achievable, realistic and relevant ,timely c. Specific, measureable, attainable, realistic, timely d. Specific, measureable, attainable and achieve able , relevant, timely ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1945 1189. Resuscitation pyramid is built on a strong base of high quality CPR based on: a. Drugs b. ET tube c. Single shock for VT/VF

NURSING TEST BANK

d.

High quality compressions ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF :Pg 1947

1190. The device which is used to reduce excessive pressure within chest: a. b. c. d.

Automatic transport ventilator Automatic ventilator Impedance threshold device CPR ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1947

1191. Compression of sternum raises the pressure in entire chest cavity: a. b. c. d.

Thoracic pump theory Heart pump theory Active compression Active compression decompression ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1948

1192. Brain damage begins after some time when patients experience cardiac arrest:

a. 2-3 minutes b. 3-4 minutes c. 4-6 minutes d. 8-10 minutes ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1948

1193. To perform high quality CPR, compression rate is maintained between: a. b. c. d.

100 and 120 compressions per hour 100 compressions per minute 100 and 120 compressions per minute None of these ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1950

NURSING TEST BANK

1194. When you use two or more rescuers, ventilators should rotate every : a. Two minutes b. Three minutes c. Four minutes d. Five minutes ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1951

1195. An infant within first month after birth: a. b. c. d.

Newly born Neonate Infant Child ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1953

1196. Causes to cardio pulmonary arrest in children :

a. b. c. d.

Submersion Electrocution Poisoning or drug overdose All of these ANS: D DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1953

1197. Defibrillation is: a. b. c. d.

A process by which surge of electric energy is delivered to kidneys A process by which surge of electric energy is delivered to lungs A process by which a surge of electric energy is delivered to pelvis A process by which a surge of electric energy is delivered to heart ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1957

NURSING TEST BANK

1198. AED unit is used for: a. b. c. d.

Infants Children Adults Newborn ANS:C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1958

1199. Selected dose for manual defibrillation is: a. 100 J b. 200 J c. 300 J d. 400 J ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1959

1200. Rescuers in CPR include:

a. b. c. d.

Ventilator Active compressor On deck compressor All of these ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 1966

CHAPTER 40 1201. A tendency to gather and rely on information that confirms your existing views and avoids or downplays information that does not confirm your pre existing hypothesis or differential diagnosis. a. Anchoring bias b. Confirmation bias

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Both a & b d. None of them ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1985

1202. The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cell’s current need for oxygen, nutrients and waste removal: a. Perfusion b. Hypoperfusion c. Stroke volume d. Cardiac output ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1988

1203. The volume of blood that the heart pumps per minute: a. Stroke volume b. Myocardial contractility c. Cardiac output d. Preload ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1988 1204. The force or resistance against which the heart pumps:

a. Preload b. After load c. Myocardial contractility d. Cardiac output ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1988

1205. Difference between SBP and DBP is: a. Mean arterial pressure b. Pulse pressure

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Both a & b d. None of these ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1989

1206. Increased salvation and motility is a function of ( The parasympathetic system) a. Heart b. Lungs c. GI tract d. Arteries ANS : C

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 1990

1207. According to Fick principle, movement and use of oxygen in body depend on: a. Proper tissue perfusion b. Adequate number of red blood cells c. Adequate concentration of inspired oxygen d. All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1990

1208. To form carbonic acid, carbon dioxide combine with:

a. Hydrogen b. Oxygen c. Water d. None of these ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1991 1209. Which one of following is not a cause of shock? a. Inadequate cardiac output

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Decreased systemic vascular resistance c. Ability of red blood cells to deliver oxygen to tissue d. inability of red blood cells to deliver oxygen to tissue ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1991

1210. Tissues with similar functions: a. Tissues b. Organs c. Organ system d. All of these ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1992

1211. Shifts in amount of carbon dioxide in blood is measured by: a. b. c. d.

Baro receptors Chemo receptors Sensory organs All of above ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1993

1212. Capillary sphincters that regulate blood flow through capillary beds are under control of:

a. b. c. d.

Sympathetic nervous system Parasympathetic nervous system Autonomic nervous system None of above ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1994

1213. MODS stands for:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. Multiple organ disease syndrome b. Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome c. Microscopic observation drugs susceptibility d. None of above ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1996 1214. The system in which plasma proteins system to eliminate invading bacteria, that is, these components are the part of immune response:

a. The coagulation system b. The complement system c. The kallikrein – kinin system d. None of above ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1997

1215. Oliguria is a condition in which urine output is: a. More than 20 mL/ h b. Less than 20 mL/ h c. More than 30 mL/h d. Less than 30 mL/ h ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 1997

1216. The stage of shock in which blood pressure is falling:

a. b. c. d.

Irreversible shock Compensated shock De-compensated shock None of above ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 1999

1217. Type of shock which occurs when there is widespread dilation of resistance vessels, the capacitance vessels or both:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Irreversible shock Septic shock Distributive shock Neurogenic shock ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2009

1218. Cardiac temponade causes accumulation of blood within: a. b. c. d.

Pericardium Pericardial sac Pancreas Lungs ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2009

1219. The type of shock which results from spinal cord injury: a. b. c. d.

Neurogenic shock Septic shoock Distributive shock Irreversible shock ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2010

1220. A shock in which there is no loss of blood, no vascular damage and only a slight possibility of direct cardiac muscle injury: a. Neurogenic shock b. Psychogenic shock c. Anaphylactic shock d. Hypovolemic shock ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2011

1221. A person experiencing dehydration, burn injury, crush injury, anaphylaxis. He is suffering from: a. Anaphylactic shock b. Hypovolemic shock c. Non hemorrhagic shock

NURSING TEST BANK

d. Hemorrhagic shock ANS: C

DIFF: MODEARTE REF:Pg 2013

1222. Anemia occurs when there is: a. b. c. d.

Abnormally low number of RBCs Abnormally high number of RBCs Abnormally low number of WBCs Abnormally high number of WBCs ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2014

Chapter 41 1223. The hormone which stimulates the release of egg: a. b. c. d.

Follicle stimulating hormone Oxytocin Luteinizing Hormone None of them ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2027

1224. If ovum is not fertilized, it dies and degenerate between: a. 20 to 40 hours b. 36 to 40 hours c. 36 to 42 hours d. 36 to 48 hours ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2027

1225. Muscular, inverted, pear shaped organ that lies between urinary bladder and rectum: a. b. c. d.

Uterus Fetus Uterine cavity Cervical canal ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2027

NURSING TEST BANK

1226. The placenta begin to develop after: a. b. c. d.

First week After four week Around four week Second week ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 2028

1227. The due date can be obtained by: a. Identifying the first day of last menstrual cycle b. Identifying last day of last menstrual cycle, adding one year, subtracting 3 months, and adding 7 days c. Identifying the first day of last menstrual cycle, adding one year, subtracting 3 months, and adding 7 days d. Identifying date of last menstrual cycle, subtracting one year, adding 3 months and subtracting 7 days ANS: C

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 2029

1228. In a non- pregnant patient, the uterus weighs up to:

a. b. c. d.

50g 60g 70g 80g ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2030

1229. Parity means: a. b. c. d.

Total number of times a woman has been pregnant Number of live births Current pregnancy Previous pregnancy excluding current pregnancy ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2030

NURSING TEST BANK

1230. Women may lose blood during vaginal delivery: a. 200mL b. 300mL c. 500mL d. 1000mL ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2030

1231. Maternal oxygen consumption increase by: a. 10- 20 % b. 20- 30% c. 30-40% d. 20-40%

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF :Pg 2031

1232. Fetal growth leads to weight gain of:

a.

2 pounds

b. 3 pounds c. 5 pounds d. 7 pounds

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2032

1233. A woman who has two or more deliveries:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. Primigravida b. Multigravida c. Multipara d. Nullipara

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2032

1234. If signs of shock are apparent in pregnant woman, what should be done?

a. Control the bleeding b. Give oxygen c. Keep patient warm d. All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2033

1235. Which occurs in true labor?

a. Irregularly spaced contractions b. Contractions remains long c. Intensity of contractions remain same d. Contractions gradually shortens

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2034

1236. If a pregnant patient faces seizures, which one of the following is used as a treatment?

a. Valium b. Phenol barbital c. Magnesium sulfate d. Magnesium carbonate

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: C

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 2037

1237. Women facing severe and persistent vomiting in excess of three to four times daily. Vomiting is usually projectile and generally consist of bile and blood. This condition is:

a.

Hyperemesis gravidarum

b. Hypertension c. Respiratory distress d.

Gestational hypertension

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2038

1238. Rh factor is a:

a. Carbohydrate b. Protein c. Lipid d. Minerals

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2038

1239. An infection caused by a parasite that a pregnant women may get from handling or eating contaminated food or exposure from handling cat litter.

a. HIV b. CMV c. Cholestasis d. Toxoplasmosis

ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2039

NURSING TEST BANK

1240. Abortion carried out intentionally:

a. Spontaneous abortions b. Elective abortions c. Habitual abortions d. Threatened abortions

ANS: B DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2040

1241. A fetus died in first 20 weeks but remains in utero. This is a case of:

a.

Incomplete abortion

b. Complete abortion c. Missed abortion d. Septic abortion

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2041

1242. Thinning and shortening of cervix: a. Lightning b. Effacement c. Bloody show d. None of above

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: 2043

1243. The duration of second stage of multipara: a. 6 to 8 hours b. 5 to 30 minutes c. 5 to 60 minutes d. 8 to 12 hours

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: 2044

1244. The position which ensures that the uterus and fetus are moved away from inferior aorta. a.

Side lying position

b. Kneeling birth c. Standing birth d. Lithotomy position

ANS: A

DIFF: HARD

REF: 2046

1245. A component used to treat nausea and vomiting: a. Oxytocin b. Valium c. Zofran d. Calcium chloride

ANS: C DIFF: MODERATE REF: 2050 1246. A mature oocyte: a. Ovary b. Ovum c. Uterus d. None of these ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2064

1247. The state of pregnant woman before birth:

a. Prenatal b. Lightning c. First stage of labor d. Placenta

ANS: A DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2064

NURSING TEST BANK

1248. The stage of labor in which placenta is expelled:

a.

First stage of labor

b. Second stage of labor c. Third stage of labor d. All of these

ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2065

1249. The interior of body of uterus:

a. Umbilical cord b. Uterine cavity c. Lochia d. None of above

ANS: B DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2065

1250. The delivery in which buttocks comes out first:

a. Breech presentation b. Crowning c. Episiotomy d. Ectopic pregnancy

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2063

1251. In case of vaginal bleeding, which of the measure is not accurate to do? a.

Keep the woman lying on her left side

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Keep the woman lying on her right side c. Administer supplemental oxygen d. Intravenous fluids

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2062

1252. Complications related to high risk pregnancy include:

a. Post term pregnancy b. Multiple gestation c. Fetal macrosomia d. All of these

ANS: D DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2062

CHAPTER 42

1253. Infant within first month after birth:

a. Newborn b. Premature c. Neonate d. Toddler

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2070

1254. A newborn delivered fewer than 37 completed weeks of gestation:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. Preterm b. Term c. Post term d. None of above

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2071

1255. If a newborn is delivered in ambulance and more extensive resuscitation is needed, what should be done?

a. Cover baby with clean warm blanket b. Confirm adequate patency of airway, breathing c. Covered with a cold blanket d. Shift to an ambulance equipped with neonatal transport incubator to allow maintenance of thermo neutral environment ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE REF: Pg 2072

1256. If umbilical cord comes out ahead of new born, the blood supply through umbilical cord may be cut off. What would be most appropriate in this case?

a. Relieving pressure on the cord b. Relieving pressure on fetus c. Providing pressure on the cord d. Providing pressure on fetus

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2074

1257. Examination of newborn or neonate include:

a. Inspect skin for any abnormalities

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Examine the head for symmetry and abnormalities c. Examine the eyes of neonate for irregularities d. All of above

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2074

1258. According to Apgar Score, if skin of baby is completely pink, it will carry score:

a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. None of above ANS: C

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 2075

1259. If ventilation and chest compression don’t improve bradycardia, epinephrine is administered preferably via:

a. Intravenous line b. Intramuscular line c. Intra peritoneal line d. All of these

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF :Pg 2077

1260. In 10 minutes, oxygen saturation level ranges from:

a.

60-65%

b. 75-80% c. 85-95% d. 80-85%

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: C

DIFF: HARD REF: Pg 2077

1261. If a newborn is cyanotic or pale:

a.

Provide supplemental oxygen

b. Provide supplemental carbon c. Provide supplemental nitrogen d. Provide supplemental carbon dioxide

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2078

1262. Which of the following device don’t need an oxygen source? a. Self inflating bag with an oxygen reservoir b. Flow inflating bag c. T – piece resuscitator d. All of above

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2079

1263. In resuscitation, the concentration & time combination for oxygen includes:

a. 21% for 100 seconds b. 100% for 100 seconds c. 100% for 21 seconds d. 21% for 90 seconds

ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 2080

1264. Which of the following signs shows that newborn is depressed?

NURSING TEST BANK

a. No respiratory effort b. Poor muscle tone c. Inadequate ventilation d. All of these

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2088

1265. Overall survival of infants born with diaphragmatic hernia is:

a.

67%

b. 68% c. 69% d. 70%

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2089

1266. If respiratory depression is a result of mother being treated acutely with narcotics, and there is no chronic narcotic exposure, which would be appropriate to administer to newborn and through which route?

a. Amoxillin via intra muscular b. Narcotics via intra vascular c. Naloxone via intra venous d. Naloxone via intra peritoneal

ANS: C

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 2090

1267. Which one may be the cause of premature birth?

NURSING TEST BANK

a. Maternal illness leading to dehydration b. Urinary tract infection c. Placental insufficiency d. All of these

ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 2090

1268. Application of gentle pressure to limb:

a. Stop jitteriness b. Stop seizures c. Effective on both conditions d. Not effective at all

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2091

1269. The persistent posturing of one limb, the neck, or the trunk with horizontal eye deviation is a characteristic of:

a.

Subtle seizure

b. Tonic seizure c. Myo clonic seizure d. Spasms

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2092

1270. Hypoglycemia is a blood glucose level less than:

a. 60 mg/ dl b. 50 mg/ dl c. 45 mg/ dl

NURSING TEST BANK

d. 40 mg/ dl

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2093

1271. A new born having symptoms of irritability, poor sucking and feeding, limpness or floppiness, hypothermia and decreased response to stimuli. This new born is suffering from:

a. Respiratory distress b. Hypoglycemia c. Hypertension d. None of these

ANS: B

DIFF: HARD

REF:Pg 2094

1272. Vomitus indicates bleeding in: a.

Gut

b. Intestine c. Stomach d. Oral cavity

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2094

1273. Congenital anomaly or rotation of midgut:

a. Intestinal atresia b. Intestinal stenosis c. Diarrhea d. Malrotation

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2095

NURSING TEST BANK

1274. The most common cause of diarrhea in children is due to:

a. S. aureus bacteria b. Mycobacterium c. Rota virus d. Salmonella

ANS: C

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 2095

1275. Which one of the following is not a cause of cholestasis?

a. Hepatitis b. Metabolic disorders c. Prolonged total parenteral nutrition d.

Fever ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2096

1276. Fever is a rectal temperature greater than:

a.

35C

b. 35F c. 38F d. 38C

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2096

1277. The drop in body temperature:

a. Hypothermia

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Hyperthermia c. Fever d. All of these

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2097

1278. An abnormal opening present in the wall separating the atrial chambers of heart. This condition is:

a. Ventricular septal defect b. Arterial septal defect c. Patent ductus arteriosus d. None of them

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2101

1279. The patient lacks tricuspid valve, which normally separates the right atrium and right ventricle.

a.

Truncus arteriosus

b. Tricuspid atresia c. Congenital heart disease d. None of them

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2102

1280. The condition in which pulmonary valve located near the right ventricle of the heart becomes damaged:

a.

Tricuspid atresia

b.

Truncus arteriosus

c. Pulmonary stenosis

NURSING TEST BANK

d. Ventricular septal defect

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2101

1281. The complete under development of left side of heart:

a.

Tetralogy of Fallot

b. Hypoplastic heart syndrome c. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome d. None of them

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2102

1282. Which one is not included in Tetralogy of Fallot? a. Pulmonary stenosis b. Ventricular septal defect c. Right ventricular hypertrophy d. Tricuspid atresia

ANS: D

DIFF: MODEATE

REF:Pg 2102

CHAPTER 43

1283. Physical development from birth to two months:

a.

Makes eye contact

b. Uses both hands c. Most sleep through the night d. Turns head

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2118

1284. Cognitive development between 12 to 18 months include:

a. Begin to understand cause and effect b. Knows 4 to 6 words c. Labels objects d. Speech picks up to approximately 100 words by 24 months e.

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2119

1285. If you are facing sick or injured infant, sunken fontanels suggest:

a.

Increased intra cranial pressure

b. Decreased intra cranial pressure c. Dehydration d. None of these

ANS: C

DIFF: HARD

REF:Pg 2121

1286. Infants during respiratory distress are susceptible to hypoxia because of:

a. Decreased functional residual capacity b. Increased oxygen demand c. Easily fatigued respiratory muscles d. All of these

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2122

1287. The kidneys of children are vulnerable to injury for following reasons:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. They are more mobile and less well supported in adults than in children b. They are large in proportion to the abdomen c. The lower ribs do not shield them from injury d. All of these

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2124

1288. Many burns that are classified as minor or moderate in adults are classified as severe in children. This is due to: a. Higher ratio of body surface area b. More elastic skin c. Less subcutaneous tissue d. All of these

ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 2124

1289. Musical tone caused by air being forced through constricted or partially blocked airways:

a. Grunting b. Wheezing c. Sniffing d. None of these

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2127

1290. A child snoring, grunting or wheezing, in this case characteristics may be:

a. Abnormal airway sounds b. Abnormal posturing

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Retractions d. Flaring

ANS: A

DIFF: HARD

REF:Pg 2127

1291. The exaggerated opening of nostrils during labored inspiration and indicates moderate to severe hypoxia:

a. Retractions b. Abnormal posturing c.

Nasal flaring

d. None of these

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2128

1292. Blue hands and feet in infant younger than two months:

a. Cyanosis b. Acro cyanosis c. Blue baby syndrome d. True cyanosis

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2129

1293. A child having abnormal appearance, abnormal work of breathing and abnormal circulation to skin.

He is suffering from:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. Decompensated shock b. Respiratory distress c. Cardiopulmonary failure d. Respiratory failure

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2129

1294. To access patient level of perfusion in conjunction with other assessment of circulation which test is preferred?

a. PAT test b. Blanching test c. Both a & b d. None of these

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2130

1295. The breathing component of primary survey involves:

a. Calculating the respiratory rate b. Checking pulse oximetry for oxygen saturation c. Auscultating breath sounds d.

All of these

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2130

1296. Which one of the following indicate harsh breadth sounds or sounds that may be transmitted from upper airways?

NURSING TEST BANK

a. Inspiratory crackles b. Wheezes c. rhonchi d. all of these

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2130

1297. Which one of the following indicate tachycardia?

a. Early hypoxia b. Shock or less serious condition c. Fever anxiety pain d. All of these ANS: D

DIFF: MODEARTE

REF:Pg 2131

1298. Poor peripheral circulation is indicated when capillary refill takes time more than:

a. 1 second b.

2 seconds

c. 3 seconds d. 4 seconds

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2131

1299. To access the brainstem response, we do not note for:

a.

Dilated pupils

b. Constricted pupils c. Blood sugar levels d. Reactive pupils

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: C

DIFF: HARD REF: Pg 2132

1300. During pediatric history taking, which feature is not looked in medication as a major?

a.

Exact names and doses of ongoing drugs

b. Timing and amount of last dose c. Immunization d. Time and dose of analgesics ANS: C

DIFF: MODEATE

REF:Pg 2133

1301. A sunken fontanel suggest:

a. Dehydration b. Nasal flaring c.

Leaking blood

d. None of them

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2134

1302. Tenting is a condition in which:

a. Skin immediately retracts after being pinched and pulled away slightly from the body b. Skin don’t retracts after being pinched and pulled away slightly from the body c.

Skin slowly retracts after being pinched and pulled slightly away from the body

d. All of them

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2134

NURSING TEST BANK

1303. Diastolic blood pressure for neonate:

a.

67 to 84 mmHg

b. 35 to 53 mmHg c. 72 to 104 mmHg d. 37 to 56 mmHg

ANS: B

DIFF:HARD REF: Pg 2135

1304. Systolic blood pressure for pre schoolers:

a.

72 to 104 mmHg

b.

37 to 56 mmHg

c.

89 to 112 mmHg

d. 46 to 72 mmHg

ANS: C

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 2135

1305. The Wong Baker pain rating scale suggests that point 10 shows that:

a. Hurts little more b. Hurts worst c. Hurts whole lot d. Hurts even more

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2135

NURSING TEST BANK

1306. Which one of following route is more effective for reducing pain?

a. Intramuscular b. Intraperitoneal c. Dermal d. Intravenous

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2135

1307. The patient is nor breathing spontaneously. This is:

a. Respiratory arrest b. Respiratory distress c.

Respiratory failure

d. None of them

ANS: A

DIFF: 2137 REF: Pg 2137

1308. Which one the following is classified as mild moderate or severe?

a.

Respiratory arrest

b. Respiratory distress c.

Respiratory failure

d. None of them

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2137

1309. A condition that causes epiglottis to swell:

a. Epiglottitis

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Bacterial tracheitis c. Anaphylaxis d. Croup

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2141

1310. Which one is not included in lower airway emergencies?

a.

Asthma

b. Croup c. Bronchiolitis d. Respiratory syncytial virus infection

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2142

1311. A genetic disease that affect the respiratory and digestive system:

a. Cystic fibrosis b. Pneumonia c. Pertussis d. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2144

1312. Which technique is used when only small amount of supplemented oxygen is needed:

a.

Airway management

b.

Bag mask ventilation

c.

Blow- by technique

NURSING TEST BANK

d. None of them

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2147

1313. Seizures that involve entire brain:

a. Partial seizures b. Simple partial seizures c.

Tonic clonic seizures

d. Generalized seizures

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2168

1314. Larger purple or black spots in meningitis:

a. Sepsis b. Petechial c. Purpuric d. None of them

ANS: C

DIFF: MODEARTE

REF: Pg 2170

1315. Inflammation of peritoneum which lines the abdominal cavity:

a. Appendicitis b. Peritonitis c. Viral gastroenteritis d. All of them

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2172

1316. Antidote for beta blockers include:

a. Calcium b.

Oxygen

c. Naloxone d. Glucagon

ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 2181

1317. Antidote for carbon monoxide include:

a. Oxygen b. Calcium c. Glucagon d. Bicarbonate ANS: A

DIFF: MODEATE

REF:Pg 2181

1318. Improper or excessive action that injures or otherwise harms a child or infant:

a. Child abuse b. Neglect c. Abandonment d. All of them

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2183

1319. The sudden death of infant younger than one year because of suffocation by soft bedding:

NURSING TEST BANK

a.

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

b. Unknown cause c. Accidental suffocation and strangulation in bed d. None of them

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2186

1320. Component that are placed directly into stomach through patients skin:

a. Central Venous catheters b. G tubes c. Ventricular shunts d. All of them

ANS: B

DFF: EASY REF: Pg 2194

CHAPTER 44

1321. Geriatrics is the assessment and treatment of disease and injury in someone with age of :

a. 40 years b. 50 years c. 60 years d. 65 years or older

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2207

NURSING TEST BANK

1322. Organ and tissue related aging may be accelerated due to:

a. genetic qualities b. pre existing diseases c. diet d. all of them

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2208

1323. A person’s respiratory capacity decreases with age due to:

a. Decrease in elasticity of lungs b. Decrease in size of respiratory muscles c. Decrease in strength of respiratory muscles d. All of these

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2208

1324. The PaO2 is the amount of oxygen in:

a. Blood b. Heart c. Kidneys d. Liver ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2209

1325. In older adults during exercise, cardiac outputs may decline by as much as:

a. 20 – 30% b. 30- 40% c. 40- 50%

NURSING TEST BANK

d. 50- 60%

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2209

1326. The brain weight by 80 years shrink up to:

a. 10- 20 % b. 20-30 % c. 30-40% d. 40-50%

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2210

1327. Presbycusis:

a. Muscle functioning loss b. Blood loss c.

Hearing loss

d. None of them

ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2210

1328. With increasing age, the acid present in stomach may cause heart burn, indigestion or acid reflux.

This is due to: a. b. c. d.

Esophageal sphincter’s weakening Decreased ability to hold back stomach contents Both a & b Rigidity of esophageal sphincter ANS: C

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 2211

NURSING TEST BANK

1329. As aging proceeds:

a. b. c. d.

Insulin production increases Insulin production decreases Glucose metabolism increases Insulin production decreases and glucose metabolism decreases ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2212

1330. Which one of the following don’t occur as aging proceed? a. Skin become thinner b. Skin become less elastic c. Skin become more fragile d. Subcutaneous fat becomes more thick as aging proceeds ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2212

1331. Menopause results in: a. b. c. d.

Decreased estrogen Increased estrogen Decreased anti diuretic hormone Increased diuretic hormone ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2212

1332. Which one of the does not happen in aging? a. b. c. d.

Increase of muscle mass Decrease in height Ligaments began to lose elasticity Narrowing of intervertebral disc ANS: A

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 2213

NURSING TEST BANK

1333. Older people face problems:

a. b. c. d.

Medical Psychologic Social All of them ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2214

1334. Which of the following is not included in GEMS assessment? a. Recognition of geriatric patient b. Environmental assessment c. Psychological assessment d. Medical assessment ANS: C DIFF: MODEARTE

REF: Pg 2215

1335. Which one of following may contribute to breathing problems? a. b. c. d.

Weakening of airway musculature Increased chest wall stiffness Both a & b None of them ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2215

1336. Which one of following is not a component of social assessment? a. b. c. d.

Present atypically Assess activities of daily living Does the patient have social network Are their delays in obtaining food, medication or toileting?

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 2216

1337. Elements of comprehensive patient’s history: a. b. c. d.

Present illness or injury the patient’s chief complaint pertinent medical history all of above ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2217

1338. While obtaining past medical history, which component you will not consider much important? a. b. c. d.

Previous illness or injuries Timing of the last food or drink Immunizations Important family history ANS: B

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 2218

1339. COPD don’t include: a. Chronic bronchitis b. Asthma c. Emphysema d. Pulmonary embolism ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2221

1340. To minimize intracranial pressure, the patient’s head should placed at angle: a. b. c. d.

40 30 20 60 ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2222

1341. The weakness in artery that produces a balloon defect:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Dysrhythmias Hypertension Aneurysms all of them ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2222

1342. Which one of following is not a disease? a. b. c. d.

Acute brain syndrome Delirium Dementia Both a & b ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 2223

1343. Irreversible brain failure is produced by: a. b. c. d.

Dementia Delirium Alzheimer disease Acute brain syndrome ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2225

1344. Which one of the following is a symptom of Parkinson’s disease? a. b. c. d.

Resting tremor of an extremity Slowness of movement Poor balance All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2226

1345. Which one of the following is not a cause of large bowel obstruction? a. Gallstones b. Cancer

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Impacted stool d. Sigmoid volvulus ANS: A

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 2226

1346. Jaundice is more profound in paler patients because:

a. b. c. d.

More melanin Less melanin Both of conditions may cause jaundice None f them ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2227

1347. The most common presenting symptom of GI bleeding include: a. Hematemesis b. Melena c. Hypotension d. Agitation ANS: B

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 2228

1348. Cystocele is : a. b. c. d.

Prolapsed bladder into the vagina Prolapsed urethra into the vagina Kidney obstruction Indwelling urinary catheters ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2229

1349. Hyperglycemia occurs when: a. Blood glucose drops to 45 mg/ dl b. Blood glucose rise from 60mg /dl

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Blood glucose drops to 50 mg/dl d. Blood glucose rise from normal range ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2230

1350. Signs of dehydration in older adults include: a. Dry tongue b. Strong upper body musculature c. Sunken eyes d. Both a & c ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 2231

1351. A partial thickness of skin is lost and may appear as an abrasion, blister or shallow crater. The stage of pressure ulcer is: a. b. c. d.

Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3 Stage 4 ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF:pg 2235

CHAPTER 45 1352. The person with age of 85 years and more use long term care service : a. 16 % b. 18% c. 29% d. 37% ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2251

1353. Which one of following does not require on going medication to control the disease process? a. Typhoid b. Diabetes

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Hypertension d. AIDS

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2252

1354. Throwing, striking, hitting, burning and biting a child comes under: a. b. c. d.

Sexual abuse Physical abuse Emotional abuse Neglect ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2254

1355. Threats, blaming, humiliation comes under category of: a. b. c. d.

Sexual abuse Emotional abuse Abandonment Physical abuse ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2254

1356. HIPAA stands for: a. b. c. d.

Health insurance portability and accountability act Heparin induced platelets activation assay Heparin induced platelet aggregation assay None of these ANS: A

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 2257

1357. Terminal illness is expected to cause death in: a. 2 months b. 3 months c. 4 months d. 6 months

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: D DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2258

1358. Patients with terminal illness often receive continued medical care. Some continue aggressive medical treatment, hoping for a statistically improbable medical recovery or attempting to prolong life as much as possible. This approach is known as: a. b. c. d.

Comfort care Palliative care Curative care None of these ANS: C DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2258

1359. Causes of obesity include: a. b. c. d.

Hormonal changes Inadequate sleep Lack of exercise All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2259

1360. People having morbid obesity is considered to have BMI of: a. b. c. d.

30 kg per meter squared 40 kg per meter squared 50 kg per meter squared Between 40 and 49 kg per meter squared ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 2259

1361. Heads and shoulders are elevated to which degrees to ensure successful airway management? a. 35 to 40 b. 25 to 30

NURSING TEST BANK

c. 20 to 30 d. 30 to 40 ANS: B

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 2260

1362. The disease that can be transferred from one person to another by variety of modes: a. b. c. d.

Communicable disease Non- communicable disease Contagious diseases All of them ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2260

1363. The largest part of tracheostomy tube that passes from anterior neck surface: a. b. c. d.

Inner cannula Outer cannula Flange None of these ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2262

1364. Tracheostomy tubes may be fenestrated which means: a. b. c. d.

Holes or opening are present in outer cannula Holes or opening are present in inner cannula Holes or opening are present in both outer and cannula None of these

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2262

1365. Which of them in following is not associated with long term ventilator use? a. Spinal cord injury b. Neuromuscular disease

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Lung injury d. All of these

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2264

1366. The catheter is placed into upper extremity and is not as long as PICC not reaching central circulation: a. b. c. d.

Midline catheter Double or triple lumen central catheter Implanted ports Peripheral inserted central catheter ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2266

1367. Devices are thick walled high volume catheter, usually placed into patients neck or groin for dialysis. a. b. c. d.

Implanted ports Midline catheter Dialysis catheter PICC ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2266

1368. Vascular devices can not be used for long term due to: a. b. c. d.

Devices can be clogged with blood clots Limited life span Cause infection All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2268

1369. Colostomy bag is a plastic bag with a hard, circular opening that is attached around: a. Stoma b. Intestines

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Pancreas d. Appendix ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2269

1370. Kidney function declines due to accumulation of: a. b. c. d.

Fluids Electrolytes Toxins All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2272

1371. Digoxin increase: a. Serum potassium level b. Serum glucose level c. Serum sodium level d. None of them ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2273

1372. Increased ICP leads to: a. b. c. d.

Headaches Visual disturbances Nausea All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: pg 2274

1373. In hemodynamic monitoring, electrical impulses are interpreted by: a. b. c. d.

Transducer Monitor Waveforms Numerical

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2275

1374. Intra aortic balloon pump is not used for:

a. b. c. d.

Decrease cardiac workload Increase cardiac workload Structural abnormalities in heart Myocardial infarction ANS: B DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2276

1375. The function of ICP monitor do not includes: a. b. c. d.

Evaluate the appearance of CSF Allow the drainage of CSF to maintain lower ICP Allow the accumulation of CSF to maintain higher ICP All of them ANS: C

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 2277

1376. A genetic disorder that is responsible for developmental delay, cognitive impairment and a pattern of unusual physical features: a. Down syndrome b. Intellectual disability c. Autism and autism spectrum disorders d. Emotional impairment ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2279

1377. Which one of the following are types of hearing aids: a. Conventional body b. Behind the ear c. In the ear

NURSING TEST BANK

d. All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2280

1378. Visual impairment caused by brain abnormality:

a. b. c. d.

Amblyopia Blindness Cortical visual impairment Myopia ANS: C

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 2283

1379. Area missing from the visual field: a. b. c. d.

Scotoma Hyperopia Myopia Blindness ANS: A

DIFF: HARD

REF:Pg 2283

1380. Muscle in affected areas of body become flaccid or fail to move because of continued spasm known as: a. b. c. d.

Quadriplegia Paraplegia Spastic paralysis None of above ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2284

1381. A birth defect caused by improper development of fetal neural tube consisting of brain and spinal cord :

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Spina bifida Myasthenia gravis Postpolio syndrome All of these ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2289

CHAPTER 46 1382. Standard van, forward control integral cab body comes under the category of:

a. b. c. d.

Type 1 emergency medical vehicle Type 2 emergency medical vehicle Type 3 emergency medical vehicle Type 4 emergency medical vehicle

ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2305

1383. Which one of the following is not a component of four ? a. Start b. Steer c. Stop d. Straight ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2306

1384. A sensation that emergency vehicle has lost its power brakes a. b. c. d.

Brake fade Belt noise Brake pull Drift ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2307

NURSING TEST BANK

1385. The sensation of looseness or sloppiness in vehicle’s steering: a. Wheel bounce b. Steering pull c. Steering play d. Drift ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2308

1386. Common finding at low speed when vehicle has bent wheel:

a. Wheel wobble b. Drift c. Steering pull d. Steering play ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2308

1387. System status management was developed in: a. 1981 b. 1982 c. 1983 d. 1984 ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2309

1388. The objectives of directing traffic includes: a. b. c. d.

Warn other drivers Prevent other crashes To keep vehicle moving in orderly fashion All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2310

NURSING TEST BANK

1389. The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or visible contaminants from surface: a. Cleaning b. Disinfection c. High level disinfection d. Sterilization ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2311

1390. The cleaning of pathogenic agents by using potent means of disinfection.

a. Cleaning b. Disinfection c. High level disinfection d. Sterilization ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2311

1391. Safe driving practices include: a. Use of safety restraints b. Route planning and navigation c. The cushion of safety d. All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2313

1392. Which of the following is a risk while driving emergency vehicle? a. b. c. d.

Fatigue Driver anticipation Safety restraints All of them

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 2313

1393. Road positioning refers to: a. b. c. d.

Position of the vehicle on the roadway Position of vehicle on roadway relative to inside edge of paved surface Position of vehicle on roadway relative to inside and outside edge of paved surface None of these ANS: C DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2317

1394. The brakes of which emergency vehicle are more heavy?

a. b. c. d.

Type 1 Type 2 Type 3 Type 1 and type 3 ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2317

1395. Most emergency vehicle have tendency to tip over if curves or turns are taken at too great of a speed. a. Because of lower center of gravity b. Because of higher center of gravity c. Because of low friction d. Because of high friction ANS: B

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 2317

1396. At night, use light with: a. Visibility with reflection b. Visibility without reflection c. Visibility with little reflection

NURSING TEST BANK

d. None of above ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2318

1397. Which one of the following don’t include in the principle which governs the use of warning lights and signs: a. The unit must be on true emergency call to the best of their knowledge b. The unit must be operated with due regard for safety of all others c. Both audible and visual warning devices can not be used simultaneously d. Both audible and visual warning devices must be used simultaneously ANS:C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2318

1398. Intersection hazards occurs approximately:

a. 70% b. 71% c. 72% d. 73% ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2319

1399. Emergency vehicles are operated at lower speed when facing conditions such as: a. Passing through school zones b. Near school buses c. Unpaved roadways and rural settings d. All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2319

1400. Transport of patients over long distance is commonly done by: a. Fixed winged aircraft b. Rotor wing aircraft

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Both of them d. None of them ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2320

1401. Which one of the following is not an advantage of using helicopter transport? a. b. c. d.

Reduced transport time Airspeed limitations Ability to access patients in remote areas Availability of medical crew with advance skills and equipment ANS:B

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 2320

1402. Disadvantages for helicopter include:

a. b. c. d.

Weather or environment related challenges Aircraft cabin size limitation Potential for crash All of them ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2321

1403. Medevac is exclusively performed by: a. Airplanes b. Helicopters c. Submarines d. Trains ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2321

1404. A bed sheet tightly secured to tree or pole mat be used to help determine crew:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Wind direction Wind strength Landing zone Both a & b ANS: D

DIFF:HARD

REF: Pg 2323

1405. Smoking open lights or flames are prohibited within: a. 10m to aircraft b. 15m to aircraft c. 20 m to aircraft d. 25 m to aircraft ANS: B DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2324

1406. The DO’s of night landing include: a. b. c. d.

shine spotlight, flashlight or any other light in air to help pilot Direct light beam towards the ground at landing site Keep light flames near the plane at night times All of above ANS: B DIFF: MODERATE REF: pg 2325

1407. An area of road that is blocked from your sight by your own vehicles or mirror: a. b. c. d.

Blind spot Faded spot Both of them None of them ANS:A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2328

1408. A finding that when operator lets go of the steering wheel, a vehicle consistently vanders left or right. a. b. c. d.

Brake pull Brake fade Drift None of them

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2328

1409. Aircraft transport is used to evaluate: a. b. c. d.

Medical patients Trauma patients Both of them None of them ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2328

1410. To remove or neutralize radiation, chemical or other hazardous material from clothing equipment vehicles and personnel. a. Cleaning b. Disinfection c. Sterilization d. Decontamination ANS: D DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2328 1411. Specialty van, forward control integral cab body a. b. c. d.

Type 1 emergency vehicle Type 2 emergency vehicle Type 3 emergency vehicle Type 4 emergency vehicle ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2329

CHAPTER 47 1412. Any situation with more than one patient, but which will not overwhelm available resources. a. Multiple casualty incident b. Mass casualty incident c. Disaster

NURSING TEST BANK

d. None of them ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2334

1413. Important features of NIMS include: a. Standardization b. Flexibility c. Both a & b d. None of them ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2334

1414. National fire service incident management system consortium is created in: a. 1973 b. 1990 c. 1987 d. 2003 ANS: B

DIFF: MODEARTE

REF: Pg 2334

1415. Organizing principles of ICS is:

a. duplication of effort and freelancing b. Span of control c. Communication and information management d. Both a & b ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2335

1416. Which one is not included in command function? a. b. c. d.

Accounts officer Public information officer Safety officer Liaison officer ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2336

NURSING TEST BANK

1417. The procedures which allow responders to return to their facilities when event has ended: a. b. c. d.

Termination Demobilization Transfer of command None of these ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2337

1418. Oral airways, nasal airways, are used in: a. b. c. d.

Airway control Breathing Circulation Exposure ANS: A

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 2338

1419. Rigid collars, head beds, wide tape, backboard straps are used in:

a. b. c. d.

Circulation Breathing Disability Exposure ANS: C

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 2338

1420. If an agency is nit represented in the command structure, questions should be asked from: a. b. c. d.

Safety officer Public information officer Joint information center Liaison officer

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2339

1421. The decision made and basic planning done before an incident occurs: a. b. c. d.

Preparedness Establishing command Mobilization and deployment Communications ANS: A

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2340

1422. Which is not the component of EMS branch? a. Triage b. Treatment c. Transportation d. Therapy ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REFPg : 2342

1423. In charge of counting and prioritizing patients: a. b. c. d.

Triage unit leader Treatment unit leader Transportation unit leader Staging area manager ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: pg 2342

1424. When MCIs or scenes require response by numerous emergency vehicle or agencies. What should be assigned? a. Triage unit leader b. Treatment unit leader c. Transportation unit leader d. Staging area manager

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2343

1425. An incident in which patients are found in one focal location and the situation is not expected to produce more patients than initially present. a. b. c. d.

Contained incident Uncontained incident Closed incident Both a & c ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2344

1426. A type of patient sorting used to rapidly categorize patient, the focus is on speed as you work on locating all patients and determining an initial priority as their condition warrants. a. b. c. d.

Primary triage Secondary triage Tertiary triage None of these ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2346

1427. According to triage, patients of third categories marked as:

a. b. c. d.

Red tag Yellow tag Green tag Black tag ANS: C

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 2346

1428. The intermediate category between critical and non critical , non- ambulatory categories of patients: a. Orange tag category b. Red tag category

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Yellow tag category d. None of them ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2346

1429. Burns without airway problems, major or multiple joint or bone injuries comes under: a. Red tag b. Yellow tag c. Green tag d. Black tag ANS: B

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 2347

1430. Minor fractures, minor soft tissue injuries comes under: a. Red tag b. Yellow tag c. Green tag d. Black tag ANS: C

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 2347

1431. Jump start triage is intended to use in patients younger than: a. b. c. d.

10 yr 8yr 5 yr 4 yr ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2349

1432. CISM stands for: a. b. c. d.

Critical incident stress management Critical immediate stress management Critical intermediate service management None of them

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIFF: HARD

REF:Pg 2350

1433. In incident command, the position in an incident responsible for accounting of all expenditures: a. Extrication task force leader b. Finance section chief c. Command d. All of these ANS: B

DIFF: EASY REF: Pg 2355

CHAPTER 48 1434. At which level, you are directly involved in rescue operation itself. a. b. c. d.

Awareness Operations Technicians All of them ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2361

1435. Technical rescue team responds in: a. b. c. d.

Rescue squad Ambulance Fire engine All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2363

1436. The area that is only for entry teams and rescue teams. This zone immediately surrounds the site or incident and its size is proportional to its hazard. a. Hot zone b. Warm zone c. Cold zone d. None

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2364

1437. The cold zone is outer perimeter in which vehicles and equipment staged and the command post is located. a. Cold zone b. Warm zone c. Hot zone d. All of these ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2364

1438. This may require special tools such as reciprocating saw, hydraulic arm, spreader or cutter: a. Simple access b. Complex access c. Accountability d. None of these ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2366

1439. Back boards are helpful for patients with: a. Spine injury b. Cramps c. Brain injury d. Bone injury

ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2367

1440. Uni body construction: a. Body of vehicle are fused into single component b. Body and frame of vehicle are fused into single component c. Body of vehicle are joined as multiple components d. Body and frame of vehicle are joined as multiple components ANS: B DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2369

NURSING TEST BANK

1441. Electric vehicles are powered by: a. b. c. d.

Hydrogen fuel cells All electric batteries Combination of gasoline and electric power All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2369

1442. Auto gas is a mixture of: a. Propane and butane b. Hexane and butane c. Propane and hexane d. Hexane propane and butane ANS: A

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 2369

1443. The percentage of ethanol blended with gasoline: a. 70% b. 80% c. 85% d. 90% ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2369

1444. The alternative fuels for gasoline and diesel engine is: a. Flex fuel b. Biodiesel c. Both of them d. None of them ANS: C

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 2369

1445. Hooks , piles and poles are categorized as: a. Striking tools b. Cutting tools c. Lifting tools

NURSING TEST BANK

d. Spreading tools ANS: C

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 2370

1446. Tapered shaft of wood or other material used to snug loose cribbing under a load or fill a void. a. Step chocks b. Wedges c. Box cribs d. Shims ANS:B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2371

1447. Similar to wedges but slimmer profile: a. b. c. d.

Cribbing Step chocks Wedges Shims ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2371

1448. Side and rear windows are typically made of glass which is easily break into small pieces: a. tampered glass b. laminated glass c. both of them d. None of them ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2374

1449. Which of the following is true? a. b. c. d.

An airbag that has deployed during crash present safety hazards for rescuers An airbag that has deployed during crash present no safety hazards for rescuers Place a hard object between patient and un deployed bag Attempt to cut a steering wheel if steering column contains an un deployed airbag ANS:B

DIFF: HARD

REF: Pg 2376

1450. Which of the following is used to make dry ice?

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide Methane Ethyl alcohol ANS: A

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 2378

1451. The principle compon3ent of natural gas: a. b. c. d.

Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide Methane Hydrochloric acid ANS: C

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 2378

1452. The gas released as bacteria breakdown organic matter: a. b. c. d.

Hydrogen sulfide Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide Methane ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2378

1453. A collapse that occurs after the initial collapse: a. Primary collapse b. Secondary collapse c. Tertiary collapse d. None of them ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2379

1454. The HELP position can decrease body heat loss by: a. 40% b. 50%

NURSING TEST BANK

c. 60% d. 70% ANS: C

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2380

1455. Cold protective response is a response when temperature of water is colder than: a. 70 F b. 21 C c. 21 F d. Both a & b ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2380

1456. Submersion in cold water: a. Slows heart rate b. Fast heart rate c. No effect d. All of these ANS: A

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2381

1457. The hydraulics of moving water change with variables such as: a. Depth b. Velocity c. Obstruction of flow d. All of these ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2381

1458. Low angle operations are situations in which slope of ground over which the rescuers are working is less than : a. 30 degree b. 45 degree c. 40 degree

NURSING TEST BANK

d.

50 degree ANS: B DIFF: EASY

REF: 2382

1459. A method used to ascend rocky faces and ridges, can be describes as cross between hill climbing and rock climbing.

a. b. c. d.

Rappelling Scrambling Scrapping None of these ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2384

1460. The term wilderness can cover: a. Forest b. Mountain c. Deserts d. All of them ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2384

1461. SWAT stands for:

a. Special warriors and tactics team b. Special weapons and tactics teams c. Strength weakness analysis threats d. None of them ANS: B

DIFF: HARD

REF:Pg 2386

1462. Supplies for off road medical pack do not include: a. b. c. d.

Face mask Hand sanitizer Clothing Blanket

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: C

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 2388

1463. A circumstance in which a patient is unable to extricate himself or herself from an impediment such as debris or soil a. b. c. d.

Cribbing Entrapment Disentanglement None of them ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2394

CHAPTER 49 1464. The primary regulation for hazardous material response are put forth by : a. b. c. d.

OSHA EPA Both a & b None of them ANS: C

DIFF: EASY REF:Pg 2398

1465. Which one of the following is not included in OSHA HAZWOPER regulation?

a. An understanding of what hazardous substances are and risk associated with them b. Ability to recognize the potential outcomes of an incident c. To ability to determine the hazardous substances if possible d. To ability to determine the need for additional resources is not necessary ANS: D

DIFF: MODERATE

REF: Pg 2399

1466. Hazardous material incidents are not limited to:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. A highway or railroad accident in which substance is leaking from a cargo tank or railroad tank car b. A leak or rupture of underground natural gas pipe c. An incident with criminal intent in which a suspected hazardous material is intentionally released d. All of them ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2400

1467. Gases comes under DOT class: a. Class 1 b. Class 2 c. Class 3 d. Class 4 ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF:Pg 2401

1468. Radioactive materials comes under DOT class: a. b. c. d.

Class 5 Class 6 Class 7 Class 8 ANS: C

DIFF: MODERATE

REF:Pg 2402

1469. DOT class 9 contains: a. b. c. d.

Oxidizing substances Toxic substances Corrosive substances Miscellaneous hazard ANS: D

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2402

1470. Intermodal tanks hold between: a. 4000-5000 gallons

NURSING TEST BANK

b. 5000- 6000 gallons c. 6000-7000 gallons d. All of these ANS: B

DIFF: EASY

REF: Pg 2406

1471. Materials used for construction of drums is: a. Cardboard b. Stainless steel c. Nickel d. All of these ANS: D

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg 2407

1472. Cement powder may be stored in: a. b. c. d.

Carboys Cylinders Bags Drums ANS: C

DIF: Easy

REF: Pg 2407

1473. Corrosive chemicals are stored in :

a. b. c. d.

Carboys Cylinders Drums None of them ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2407

1474. MC- 306 / DOT 406 flammable liquid tanker carry: a. Gasoline b. Flammable liquids

NURSING TEST BANK

c. Food grade products d. All of them ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2408

1475. Concentrated sulfuric acid, phosphoric acid are carried in: a. MC-306/ DOT 406 flammable liquid tanker b. MC -307 / DOT 407 chemical hauler c. MC- 312 / DOT 412 corrosive tanker d. MC – 331 pressure cargo tanker ANS: C

Dif: hard

REF: Pg 2409

1476. Cryogens are carried in: a. MC – 331 pressure cargo tanker b. MC- 338 cryogenic tanker c. MC 312/ DOT 412 corrosive tanker d. None of them ANS: B

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 2409

1477. Compressed gases are carried in: a. b. c. d.

Dry bulk cargo container Corrosive tankers Tube trailers All of them ANS: C Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 2410

1478. Protective clothing standards to provide guidance of the performance of certain types of chemical protective garments are given by: a. OSHA b. EPA c. NFPA

NURSING TEST BANK

d. None of them ANS: C Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2411

1479. When responder needs high level respiratory protection, but the released substances don’t pose a lethal threat via skin absorption a. Level A ensemble b. Level B ensemble c. Level C ensemble d. Level D ensemble ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2414

1480. Ensemble designed to protect against known substance: a. b. c. d.

Level A Level B Level C Level D ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2414

1481. This level of protection is worn where there is little nor no threat posed by released substance and the responder is wearing no respiratory protection other than perhaps a dust mask. a. Level A b. Level B c. Level C d. Level D ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2414

1482. Direct exposure of material to hazardous material: a. b. c. d.

Primary Combination Secondary Combination Local effect Systemic effect ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2415

NURSING TEST BANK

1483. The greater the length of time or greater the concentration of material, the greater the effect will probably be on the human body. This is: a. Local effect b. Systemic effect c. Dose effect d. None of them ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2415

1484. Expression of temperature at which a liquid fuels give off sufficient vapors that when an ignition source is present, will result in flash fire. a. b. c. d.

Flash point Ignition temperature Smoke point None of them ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2415

1485. Lower flammable limit is: a. 2% b. 1.9% c. 1.5% d. 1.4% ANS: D

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 2416

1486. A single dose that causes the death of a specified number of groups of test animals exposed by any route other than inhalation. a. b. c. d.

Lethal concentration Lethal dose Threshold limit value None of these ANS: B Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2417

1487. The use of chemicals to change hazardous material into less harmful substances. a. Absorption

NURSING TEST BANK

b. Neutralization c. Disposal d. Dilution ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2418

1488. Which one of following use copious amount of water? a. Absorption b. Neutralization c. Disposal d. Dilution ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2418

1489. A process used by responders to clean PPE, tools and equipment: a. b. c. d.

Technical decontamination Emergency decontamination Mass decontamination None of these ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: 2420

1490. The substances that are capable of dissolving other substances: a. Acids b. Bases c. Solvents d. Solutes ANS: C Dif: Easy REF: Pg 2420 1491. Anti dote for cyanide poisoning is: a. b. c. d.

Cobalamin Hydroxocobalamin Cobalt NaOH ANS: B

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 2420

1492. Type of de contamination that is done with larger pads that the hazardous material team uses to soak up liquid and remove it from patient

NURSING TEST BANK

a. Absorption b. Neutralization c. Dilution d. None of them ANS: A

Dif:

Easy

REF: Pg 2427

1493. LD 50 is a dose that would be lethal to: a. b. c. d.

100% population 50% population 75 % population 25% population ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2427

CHAPTER 50 1494. Cross- border terrorism is also called: a. Domestic terrorism b. International terrorism c. Terror committed by foreign agents d. Both b & c ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2434

1495. Terrorism originating within the borders of the country : a. Domestic terrorism b. International terrorism c. Inter border terrorism d. None of these ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2435

1496. These groups often represents a violent fringe or splinter group of a legitimate non- violent group or movement that seeks to effect change through legal or socially acceptable means. a. Religious extremist b. Right wing extremist c. Issue oriented groups d. Left wing extremist

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2436

1497. Systematic use of terror by an established government to control all parts of its populace. a. Religious extremist b. State terrorists c. Issue oriented groups d. Pathologic terrorist ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2436

1498. The use of terror to take control of a region, its politics, or government with goal of manufacturing, distributing and selling drugs> a. Narco terrorism b. Religious extremist c. Issue oriented group d. State terrorism ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2436

1499. Terrorist with no motivation beyond their own desire to control and terrorize others. a. b. c. d.

Religious extremist State terrorism Pathologic terrorists Left wing extremist ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2436

1500. Which one of the following is an example of potential high value targets for terrorist include the following: a. b. c. d.

Locations where attack provoke extreme emotional reactions such as day care centers, schools Location that are crucial to transportation such as airports, tunnels or bridges Power plants, water treatment plants, shipping facilities All of these ANS: D

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 2437

1501. In determining the potential for terrorist attack, we should observe:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

Pre incident indicators Type of location Type of call All of these ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2438

1502. Cross contamination is also called: a. Primary contamination b. Secondary contamination c. Tertiary contamination d. None of them ANS: B

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 2439

1503. In a triage, black tag shows: a. b. c. d.

Walking wounded Urgent Immediate Deceased ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2440

1504. In a triage, orange tag means: a. Immediate b. Urgent c. Delayed d. Deceased ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2440

1505. The region for law enforcement may include: a. b. c. d.

Ro canvass witness who may have valuable information To provide site security To monitor all victims in the event All of these ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2440

NURSING TEST BANK

1506. Phosphene or chlorine is used as: a. b. c. d.

Nerve agents Choking agents Metabolic or blood agents All of these ANS: B

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 2441

1507. Hydrogen cyanide or cyanogens chloride are: a. b. c. d.

Blister agents Metabolic or blood agents Irritating agents Nerve agents ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2441

1508. Vesicants include: a. b. c. d.

Sarin, soman Mustard gas Mace Chlorine ANS: B

Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 2441

1509. Agents with vapor hazard enters the body through: a. Digestive tract b. Respiratory tract c. Oral cavity d. Dermal route ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2442

1510. Skin irritation, burning, reddening occurs when person is exposed to: a. b. c. d.

Mustard gas Mace Samon Phosphene ANS: A

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 2442

NURSING TEST BANK

1511. The military abbreviation of Sarin is: a. b. c. d.

GB CL GC All of these ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2443

1512. Which of the following looks like a baby oil? a. b. c. d.

Soman Tabun VX nerve agents Sarin ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2444

1513. GA is a military abbreviation of : a. b. c. d.

Soman Tabun VX nerve agent Sarin ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2444

1514. Which of the following is not included in killer B’s? a. b. c. d.

Bradycardia Bronchospasm Bronchorrea Bronchitis ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2445

1515. Which one of the following has high volatility ? a. b. c. d.

Sarin Tabun Soman VX nerve agent

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2446

1516. Which one of the following has no odor? a. b. c. d.

Sarin Soman Tabun VX nerve agent

ANS: D Dif: Easy REF: Pg 2446 1517. The period between person exposure to agent and onset of symptoms is: a. b. c. d.

Dissemination Vector Incubation None of these ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2447

1518. Biologic agent that may come in contact during biologic event: a. Viruses b. Bacteria c. Neurotoxins d. All of these ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2447

1519. Nerve agents has odor: a. b. c. d.

Fruity or none Garlic Almonds Irritating ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2448

1520. In smallpox, body temperature ranges from: a. 101 -104F b. 95-98 F c. 101-104C

NURSING TEST BANK

d. 95-98 C ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2448

CHAPTER 51 1521. A way to maintain communications with all of the members as well as backup methods of communication with all involved parties. a. b. c. d.

Training standards Infrastructure Internal communications All of these ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF : Pg 2469

1522. Considerations during a disaster include: a. b. c. d.

Inventory Patient tracking Hospital updates All of these ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2470

1523. Recording every patient you see or assist with help of triage tag. This comes under: a. b. c. d.

Patient tracking Equipment resupply Triage and classification Personal protective and safety equipment ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2471

1524. Considerations after the event include: a. b. c. d.

Accountability Brainstorm Stress reaction review All of them ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2473

NURSING TEST BANK

1525. A strong concerned unit commander can do a lot to bolster morale by listening the field pulse. This is: a. b. c. d.

Legal issues Inventory Unit leadership reinforcement Stress reaction review ANS: C

Dif: Hard

REF: Pg 2473

1526. Official internal report to entire event. It should contain a chronologic and accurate description of the facts of the incidents. a. b. c. d.

Acknowledgement After action report Stress reaction review All of them ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2473

1527. Examples of natural disaster include: a. b. c. d.

Snow and ice storms Hurricanes Cave-ins All of these A NS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2475

1528. APR stands for: a. b. c. d.

Air plug respirator Air purifier relief Air purifying respirator None of these ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2475

1529. Tsunamis can hit the shore at speed of: a.

400-500mph

NURSING TEST BANK

b. 500-600mph c. 600-700mph d. 700-800mph ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2477

1530. Dust suffocation can occur during: a. b. c. d.

Earth quack Tsunamis Hurricanes Ice storms ANS: A

Dif: Easy REF: Pg 2478

1531. Component of forward surgical team is: a. b. c. d.

Physicians Nurses EMS providers All of them ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2479

1532. Cause of cave in: a. b. c. d.

Rapid freezing and thawing Heavy rain Excess vibration All of them ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2479

1533. Ash fall is residue left behind from: a. Volcanic eruption b. Flooding c. Cave ins d. Earth quacks ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2480

NURSING TEST BANK

1534. ARPs and N 95 are used during: a. Volcanic eruptions b. Flooding c. Sandstorms and dust storms d. All of them ANS: C Dif: Moderate

REF: Pg 2481

1535. Lack of water available to public causes: a. Drought b. Famine c. Flooding d. Tsunami ANS: A

Dif: Easy REF: Pg 2482

1536. Heat injury can be categorized: a. Heat cramps b. Heat exhaustion c. Heat stroke d. All of them ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2482

1537. Power failure or disruptions is an example of: a. Natural disaster b. Man made disaster c. Man made natural disaster d. None of them ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2483

1538. An illness or disease that affects high proportion of population over a broad or potentially worldwide geographic area. a. b. c. d.

Epidemic Pandemic Both a & b None of them

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2483

1539. Which one of the following cause ECG abnormalities ? a. b. c. d.

Carbon dioxide CO Cyanide poisoning Both b & c ANS: D

Dif: Moderate REF: Pg 2484

1540. Internet technology has helped EMS : a. b. c. d.

You can transmit ECGs Send real time ECGs Visual patients presentations All of these ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2487

CHAPTER 52 1541. vest that protect you from knife or blade attack: a. Stab proof b. Spike proof c. Both a & b d. None of them ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2495

1542. Tunnel vision is: a. b. c. d.

you must completely involve in patient care that you failed to see the possibility of physical harm to patients or other EMS providers you must not completely involve in patient care that you failed to see the possibility of physical harm to patients or other EMS providers both a & b none of them ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2496

1543. weapon locations may be:

NURSING TEST BANK

a. b. c. d.

glove box arm rest in the center console all of these

ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2497

1544. When you exit the unit with the jump kit, move away from the passenger side of the van:

a. 3-5 m b. 5-7m c. 7-9m d. 9-11m ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF : Pg 2498

1545. The door that was used to enter the building: a. primary exit b. secondary exit c. both a & b d. none of them ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2500

1546. Youth usually join gangs for: a. b. c. d.

identity love money all of them

ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2501

1547. A gunman who has begun to fire on people and is still at large : a. b. c. d.

active shooter passive shooter both a & b none of these

NURSING TEST BANK

ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2503

1548. Don’t change your position of cover just for sake of changing. This is included in:

a. b. c. d.

Using walls as cover Evasive tactics Concealment techniques None of these ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2507

1549. Which one of following is considered as area of concealment? a. b. c. d.

tall grass dark shadows shrubberies all of these ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2508

1550. Oral documentation by a witness of a criminal act: a. testimonial evidence b. physical evidence c. both a & b d. none of these ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2509

1551. Your documentation includes that what were you told?

a. b. c. d.

by the patient by police or fire personnel by family or care givers all of these

ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF : Pg 2511

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1552. Protection from being seal:

a. b. c. d.

contact and cover concealment cover all of these

ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2514

1553. Windows and rear doors comes under: a. primary exit b. secondary exit c. both a & b d. none of them ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2514

1554. Situational awareness:

a. b. c. d.

knowing the surroundings knowing people of groups climate or violence or strife all of these

ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2515

CHAPTER 53 1555. CPs stands for: a. Control points b. Community paramedics c. Critical points d. None of them ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2521

1556. MIHPs stands for:

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a. b. c. d.

Mobile integrated horizon care providers Mobility integration health care providers Mobile integrated health care providers None of them ANS: C

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2521

1557. CCP stands for: a. Critical control points b. Critical care paramedic c. Critical care programs d. Critical care points ANS: b

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2522

1558. Responsibility of MIHP/ CP are to: a. Advance life support care activities b. Monitor or manage chronic diseases c. Provide wellness checks d. All of these ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2522

1559. Paramedics that work as a part of an air rescue team that provides either on scene care in remote field settings or interfacility transports from one clinical settings to another: a. b. c. d.

Flight paramedic Tactical paramedic Wilderness paramedics None of them ANS: A

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2523

1560. Which one is not included in tactical paramedics:

a. Combat casualty assessment

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b. Flight physiology c. Rescue techniques d. Weapons training and management ANS: B

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2523

1561. Responsibility of wilderness paramedics include: a. b. c. d.

Survival skills Expedition medicine Toxic exposure management Both a & b ANS: D

Dif: Easy

REF: Pg 2524

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