TEST BANK for Criminal Investigation 12th Edition by Charles Swanson, Neil Chamelin and Leonard Terr

Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 1 The Evolution of Criminal Investigation and Forensic Science 1) The first modern detective force was: A) the Bow Street Runners.

B) established by the Metropolitan Police Act of 1829.

C) created by Patrick Colquhoun.

D) the London Metropolitan Police.

2) The London Metropolitan Police was established in 1829. At first, the British public was suspicious of, and at times even hostile toward, it because: A) King Edward II had supported its creation.

B) Rowan and Mayne had intimate ties to the royal family.

C) social reformers such as Jeremy Bentham had long argued that it was a danger to personal liberty.

D) French citizens had experienced oppression under centralized police.

3) In 1833, ________ passed an ordinance creating America's first paid, daylight police force.

A) Philadelphia B) Chicago C) New York City D) Baltimore 4) Which of the following is a reason for the absence of reliable detectives in America during the 1800's?

A) Graft and corruption were common among America's big city police officers.

B) Police jurisdictions were limited.

C) There was little information sharing by law enforcement agencies.

D) All of the above.

5) Which city was the first to create a unified police force in the United States?

A) New Orleans B) New York C) Baltimore D) Philadelphia 6) After the Civil War, Pinkerton's National Detective Agency engaged in the two broad areas of: A) locating war criminals and investigating the KKK. B) protecting members of Congress and the Supreme Court.

C) following up on initial reports of interstate crimes and locating offenders who fled to a foreign country.

D) controlling a discontented working class and pursuing bank and railroad robbers.

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7) What municipal agency was the first to establish a Criminal Identification Bureau?

A) Chicago B) Atlanta C) Philadelphia D) New Orleans 8) Which of the following statements about a rogues' gallery is true?

A) It is only practical in cities with populations of 100,000 or more.

B) It consists of photographs of known criminals arranged by criminal specialty and height.

C) Its use was abandoned because of the cost of maintaining it.

D) All of the above.

9) What was the original mission of the Secret Service when created by Congress in 1865?

A) combat counterfeiting B) providing protection for the President C) preventing drug importation into the country D) All of the above 10) Which agency was the prototype for modern state police organizations?

A) New York State Police B) Georgia State Police C) Pennsylvania State Police D) Pinkerton International Detective Agency 11) The Harrison Act of 1914 made the distribution of nonmedical drugs a crime. The agency currently charged with enforcing its provisions is the ________.

A) Federal Bureau of Investigations B) Narcotics Bureau C) Drug Enforcement Administration D) Bureau of Narcotics and Dangerous Drugs 12) During 1961-1966, the U.S. Supreme Court became unusually active in hearing cases involving the rights of criminal suspects and defendants. This period is referred to as the ________.

A) radical court era B) leftist court decisions C) due process revolution D) ex-post facto period 13) The first major book describing the application of scientific disciplines to criminal investigation was written in 1893 by Hans Gross. Translated into English in 1906, it remains highly respected today as a seminal work in the field. What is the book's title?

A) Criminal Investigation B) The Scientific Method of Criminal Inquiry C) Science and Criminals D) Forensic Science and Crime 2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

14) An early method of criminal identification was based on the thought that every human being differs from every other one in the exact measurements of their body. Also, the sum of those measurements was thought to yield a characteristic formula for each individual. What was this method of criminal identification?

A) Dactylography B) Ectomorphism C) Anthropometry D) Accutron 15) The father of criminal identification is: A) Hans Gross.

B) Alphonse Bertillon.

C) Edward Henry.

D) William Herschel.

16) The first country to use fingerprints as a system of criminal identification was: A) Germany.

B) France.

C) China.

D) England.

17) In 1892, who published the first definitive book on dactylography, Finger Prints?

A) Sir Francis Galton B) Henri Lacassagne C) Henry Balthazard D) Calvin Goddard 18) Which 1903 case was the most important incident to advance the use of fingerprints in the United States?

A) Lindberg B) Fauld C) West D) Vucetich 19) In 1985, research by ________ and his colleagues at Leicester University, England, led to the discovery that portions of the DNA structure of certain genes are as unique to individuals as are fingerprints.

A) James Watson B) Dawn Ashworth C) Francis Crick D) Alec Jeffreys

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20) What is the significance of the Enderby cases?

A) They questioned the scientific validity of fingerprint evidence.

B) Those trials were the first use of "voice prints" to convict a criminal.

C) The precedent of using DNA in a criminal case was established.

D) None of the above.

21) The 1992 palo verde seedpod case is significant because it: A) excluded case evidence because of police misuse of plant pathology procedures.

B) involved the use of plant DNA in a criminal case.

C) established the scientific basis for identifying suspects from their fingerprints on flora.

D) None of the above.

22) Who made the first successful attempt to identify a murderer from a bullet recovered from the body of a victim?

A) Paul Jeserich B) Henri Lacassagne C) Henry Balthazard D) Henry Goddard 23) ________ is considered most responsible for raising firearms identification to a science and for perfecting the bullet comparison microscope.

A) Paul Jeserich B) Henri Lacassagne C) Henry Balthazard D) Calvin Goddard 24) Lattes developed a procedure that: A) suggested an eye iris might have characteristics for individual identification.

B) established when DNA was left on an object recovered from a crime scene.

C) allowed evidence gathered from touch DNA to be preserved for over a span of 10 years.

D) permitted blood typing from a dried bloodstain.

25) Identify a true statement about touch DNA. It: A) helps determine how an object was used.

B) analysis of it is only successful in 5 percent of all cases.

C) does not leave a visible residue.

D) cannot be accumulated.

26) Which of the following provides a genomic-based, probabilistic estimation of the image of a person of interest?

A) DNA phenotyping.

B) Touch DNA. C) Biometrics.

D) None of the above.

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27) Forensic science draws from diverse disciplines, such as geology, physics, chemistry, biology, and mathematics, to study physical evidence related to crime.

28) The Metropolitan Police Act was enacted in 1829, the first time a strong central professional police force for London was considered by England's Parliament.

29) The Metropolitan Police headquarters came to be known as "Scotland Yard" because the building formerly had housed Scottish royalty.

30) After Prohibition was adopted nationally in 1920, the Bureau of Internal Revenue was responsible for its enforcement.

31) When Prohibition was repealed by the 18th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution in 1933, many former bootleggers turned to bank robbery and kidnapping.

32) The Bureau of Narcotics and Dangerous Drugs (BNDD) was an offshoot organization from the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) that was formed to handle national terroristic drug use.

33) Edmond Benet produced the portrait parlé or "speaking picture," which combines full-face and profile photographs of each criminal with his or her exact body measurements and other descriptive data onto a single card.

34) DNA is a chemical "blueprint" that determines everything from hair color to susceptibility to diseases.

35) The Orlando cases set the stage for the first use of DNA in criminal investigations in the United States.

36) In 1913, Professor Balthazard published an article on firearms identification in which he noted that the firing pin, breechblock, extractor, and ejector all leave marks on cartridges, and that they vary among weapons.

37) The time it takes for touch DNA to be deposited is constant.

38) Currently, the age of a person of interest in a case can be determined by phenotyping.

39) ________ efforts led to the establishment of the London Metropolitan Police in 1829.

40) Stephen Girard bequeathed $33,190 to ________ to develop a competent police force.

41) The major private detective agency of the 19th century was formed by ________.

42) To supplement the rogues' gallery, Thomas Byrnes instituted the:

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43) In 1967 ________ was made operational by the Federal Bureau of Investigation, providing data on wanted persons and property stolen from all 50 states.

44) Locard established the first ________ in Lyon in 1910.

45) All crime scenes are searched on the basis of Locard's ________, which asserts that when perpetrators come into contact with the scene, they will leave something of themselves and take away something from the scene.

46) The first foreigner trained in the use of the Henry classification system was New York City Detective Sergeant ________ in 1904.

47) The ________ cases involved testing blood samples from about 5,500 men living in the area in an attempt to identify a rape suspect.

48) ________ helped produce the first workable polygraph in 1921 and established America's first full forensic laboratory in Los Angeles in 1923.

49) ________ refers to the measurable and automated physiological or behavioral characteristics that can be used to verify the identity of an individual.

50) Who were the Bow Street Runners, and what is their historical importance?

51) What parallels can be drawn between Allan Pinkerton and J. Edgar Hoover?

52) What did the "due process revolution" and subsequent Supreme Court decisions change with respect to the police?

53) Why does the Henry classification enjoy greater use than Vucetich's system?

54) What are seven different human sources of DNA material?

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 2 Legal Aspects of Investigation 1) Which of the following statements is true about substantive criminal law?

A) It deals with those elements that describe and define a crime.

B) It involves understanding how things need to be done with the people involved in an investigation, be it a victim, a witness, an informant, or a suspect.

C) It defines what can and cannot be done with, or to, people.

D) It changes much more rapidly than procedural criminal law.

2) Procedural law deals with all of the following except ________.

A) process of arrest B) admissibility of evidence C) search and seizure D) elements of a crime 3) In the context of the Bill of Rights, which of the following statements is true about Amendment X? A) It recognizes that the powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people.

B) It recognizes that the enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people.

C) It recognizes that excessive bail shall not be required, nor excessive fines imposed, nor cruel and unusual punishments inflicted.

D) It recognizes that no soldier shall, in time of peace be quartered in any house, without the consent of the owner, nor in time of war, but in a manner to be prescribed by law.

4) Identify a true statement about the landmark 1963 case of Brady v. Maryland.

A) The Court held that if there was sufficient probable cause to get a warrant, but, because the vehicle was moveable, it might be gone if time were taken to get a warrant, a warrantless search was justified.

B) The defendant urged the Supreme Court to declare that the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment incorporated all the guarantees of the first eight amendments to the Bill of Rights.

C) The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the suppression of any evidence by the prosecution favorable to the accused violates the premise of fundamental fairness through the due process clauses of the Fourth and Fourteenth Amendments of the Constitution.

D) The U.S. Supreme Court held that the state court judges were free to determine the reasonableness of searches but that in making those determinations they would now be guided by the same standards as had been followed in the federal courts.

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5) In which Amendment of the Bill of Rights is the due process clause found?

A) The First Amendment B) The Fourth Amendment C) The Fifth Amendment D) The Tenth Amendment 6) Which of the following protects citizens from unreasonable searches and seizures?

A) The First Amendment B) The Fifth Amendment C) The Eighth Amendment D) The Fourth Amendment 7) Identify the 1884 case where the defendant urged the Supreme Court to declare that the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment incorporated all the guarantees of the first eight amendments to the Bill of Rights.

A) Sibron v. New York B) Hudson v. Michigan C) Chimel v. California D) Hurtado v. California 8) The ingredients of an arrest include all of the following except ________.

A) force B) intention C) authority D) custody 9) ________ is a temporary and limited interference with the freedom of a person for investigative purposes.

A) An arrest B) A detention C) An affidavit D) Charging 10) The "stop-question-and-frisk" program was built around the landmark 1968 court cases of ________, in which the Supreme Court granted approval to frisks conducted by officers lacking probable cause for an arrest to search for weapons.

A) Wolf v. Colorado, Mapp v. Ohio, and Hudson v. Michigan B) Terry v. Ohio, Sibron v. New York, and Peters v. New York C) Herring v. United States, Weeks v. United States, and Ker v. California D) Chimel v. California, Maryland v. Buie, and Muehler v. Mena 11) A judicial order commanding a person to whom it is issued or some other person to bring a person promptly before a court to answer a criminal charge is: A) an arrest warrant.

B) an affidavit.

C) a court order.

D) All of the answers are correct.

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12) Which of the following is not usually required to be in the contents of a valid arrest warrant?

A) The authority under which the warrant is issued B) The identity of the person to be arrested C) The designation of the offense D) The authority to search the person arrested 13) A written statement of the information known to the officer that serves as the basis for the issuance of a warrant is: A) an arrest warrant.

B) an affidavit.

C) a court order.

D) All of the answers are correct.

14) A "John Doe" warrant is valid: A) if a crime has been committed.

B) if there is a particular description of the perpetrator but the person's name is not known.

C) in all cases.

D) only at the federal level.

15) ________ is defined as suspicion plus facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonable person exercising ordinary caution to believe that a crime has been, is being, or is about to be committed.

A) In-presence arrest B) Probable cause C) Investigative detention D) The requirements of an arrest warrant 16) Which of the following can be used to establish probable cause?

A) Personal knowledge of the investigator B) Suspicion C) Crime rates D) Occupation of the suspect 17) Until 1914, federal law enforcement officers conducting an illegal search that produced incriminating evidence were allowed to use that evidence in court. What happened that changed the use of illegal evidence by federal officers?

A) The president of the United States signed an order prohibiting its use.

B) J. Edgar Hoover, Director of the FBI, signed an executive order prohibiting the use of illegally obtained evidence.

C) Mapp v. Ohio forbids the use of illegally obtained evidence by federal officers.

D) Weeks v. United States forbids the use of illegally obtained evidence by federal officers.

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18) Circumventing the intent of Weeks v. United States whereby federal officers received illegally obtained evidence from state officers and used it in federal court was referred to as: A) the "fruits of the poisonous tree" doctrine.

B) the "unreasonable search" doctrine.

C) the "Silver Platter" Doctrine.

D) None of the answers is correct.

19) Which of the following cases established the rule that any evidence unreasonably searched and seized could no longer be admissible in any court?

A) Weeks v. Ohio B) Roe v. Wade C) Mapp v. Ohio D) Gideon v. Wainwright 20) Which of the following is not an exception to the legal requirement of having a warrant to conduct a search and seizure?

A) With consent B) Incident to an unlawful arrest C) When exigent circumstances exist D) To conduct an inventory 21) The ________ exception recognizes that a warrantless entry by law enforcement officials may be legal when there is a compelling need for official action and no time to get a warrant.

A) emerging situational need B) emergency situational requirement C) exigent circumstances D) emergency exigent circumstances 22) A warrant to search must be based upon ________.

A) reasonable suspicion B) probable cause C) preponderance of the evidence D) proof beyond a reasonable doubt 23) In 2005, in ________, the Supreme Court held that officers executing a search warrant of a house seeking weapons and evidence of gang membership in the wake of a drive-by shooting acted reasonably by detaining the occupants of the house in handcuffs during the search, especially since there were only two officers to watch over four people.

A) Hudson v. Michigan B) Mapp v. Ohio C) Terry v. Ohio D) Muehler v. Mena

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24) In ________, the Court created the "moveable vehicle" rule.

A) Carroll v. United States B) Chambers v. Maroney C) Maryland v. Dyson D) Chimel v. California 25) Which of the following is not a requirement for a plain view search to be legal?

A) Officer is where he has a legal right to be.

B) Evidence is in plain view.

C) Evidence is inadvertently discovered.

D) Evidence is found after a limited search.

26) The landmark Supreme Court ruling that allows stop and frisk procedures is ________.

A) Miranda v. Arizona B) Terry v. Ohio C) Mapp v. Ohio D) Escobedo v. Day 27) In Minnesota v. Dickerson, why was the defendant not convicted?

A) The officer felt a substance in the suspect's pocket, subsequently determined to be cocaine, during a pat down and manipulated it to determine what it was.

B) The defendant pled guilty before trial.

C) The judge declared a mistrial.

D) The charges were dropped by the prosecutor before trial.

28) Evidence obtained from an unreasonable search and seizure cannot be used as the basis for learning about or collecting new admissible evidence not known about before is the ________.

A) "bad evidence" doctrine B) "fruits of the poisonous tree" doctrine C) "illegal seizure" doctrine D) "unreasonable search" doctrine 29) According to the courts, any new evidence seized resulting from unreasonably seized evidence is also tainted and is not admissible in court. This is based on the ________.

A) "bad evidence" doctrine B) "fruits of the poisonous tree" doctrine C) "illegal seizure" doctrine D) "unreasonable search" doctrine 30) Procedural law deals with processes of arrest, search and seizure, interrogations, confessions, admissibility of evidence, and testifying in court and therefore changes less frequently than does substantive law.

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31) Final ratification of the Constitution of the United States was delayed because some states wanted guarantees that individual liberties would be safeguarded from potential oppression by the newly formed government. These guarantees came in the form of the first ten amendments to the Constitution known as the Bill of Rights.

32) The Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth Amendments were all designed to guarantee the freedoms and equal protection of the laws for all citizens, especially the former slaves.

33) The liberties protected by the specific clauses of the Bill of Rights are exhaustive.

34) The Hurtado v. California case attempted the process of the "shorthand doctrine," but instead ratified the "fruits of the poisonous tree" doctrine.

35) Formally charging a suspect with a crime does not automatically flow from an arrest.

36) The preferred method of effecting an arrest is under the authority of a warrant.

37) The two major benefits derived from securing prior judicial approval for arrests are that the approval relieves the law enforcement officer of the burden of proving the legality of the arrest and it provides for automatic approval of evidence to be used during the trial for the crime the person was arrested for.

38) Blank warrants are constitutionally valid.

39) An offense committed in the presence of an officer can be the basis of an arrest without a warrant. "In the presence of" includes the use of any or all of the five senses—sight, hearing, taste, touch, or smell.

40) The law allows an officer to make warrantless arrests in felony cases provided reasonable grounds or probable cause exists to make the arrest.

41) Probable cause is a difficult term to define because in no two instances are circumstances identical.

42) A search warrant is a written order, in the name of the judge, signed by a district attorney, exercising proper authority, and directing a law enforcement officer to search for specific property and bring it before the court.

43) A vehicle search is not reasonable if conducted pursuant to stopping a vehicle for a traffic violation and writing a citation.

44) Among the many unanswered questions created by the Mapp v. Ohio decision, the crucial question revolved around the definition of the word "________."

45) A(n) ________ is a written order, in the name of the state, signed by a judicial officer, exercising proper authority, and directing a law enforcement officer to search for certain specific property and bring it before the court.

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46) A(n) ________ must particularly describe the place to be searched. Although the Constitution does not define "particularly," the description must be sufficient to distinguish the place from all others.

47) If the affidavit and search warrant are for the search and seizure of ________, the search can be pretty extensive. It is permissible to search closets, under beds, in dresser drawers, in medicine cabinets, and in kitchen cupboards.

48) In ________, the Supreme Court ruled that violation of the knock and announce requirement for the service of a search warrant will no longer result in the suppression of evidence found during the execution of the search warrant.

49) In 1969, the United States Supreme Court limited the scope of a search when it ruled in ________ that a warrantless search of the defendant's entire house, following his lawful arrest in the house on a burglary charge, was unreasonable.

50) The Supreme Court ruled in the 1981 case of ________ that when a police officer makes a lawful custodial arrest of the occupant of an automobile, the officer may search the vehicle's passenger compartment as a contemporaneous incident of arrest. It does not include the trunk.

51) In ________, the Supreme Court held that law enforcement officers may enter a home without a warrant when there is an objectively reasonable basis to believe that an occupant is seriously injured or imminently threatened with serious injury.

52) A(n) ________ search is done for the purpose of protecting the property of the person arrested and documenting what was found with a receipt given to the person arrested. In this manner, law enforcement can prevent accusations of stealing an offender's money or property.

53) Terry v. Ohio allows for the ________ of the outer clothing of a suspect for a weapon if the officer is concerned about his own safety.

54) The Supreme Court in 2004 upheld a conviction under a Nevada statute that requires a person to identify himself when so requested during a(n) ________ stop. Twenty states have this identification requirement.

55) The ________ doctrine provides that evidence obtained from an unreasonable search and seizure cannot be used as the basis for learning about or collecting new admissible evidence not known about before.

56) Explain how the laws of arrest and search and seizure flow from the Bill of Rights.

57) Distinguish between the impacts of the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments on defendants in criminal cases.

58) What are the benefits to a police officer and the case if an arrest is made under the authority of a warrant?

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59) List the requirements of a valid arrest warrant.

60) Is a "John Doe" arrest warrant valid under any circumstances? Explain.

61) Define and describe "probable cause."

62) What is the Exclusionary Rule, and how did it evolve?

63) Describe the "Silver Platter" Doctrine. Is it still followed? Why or why not?

64) What limitations have judicial cases placed on the search of a motor vehicle incident to a lawful arrest?

65) What is meant by a plain view seizure, and what are the requirements for conducting such a seizure by a law enforcement officer?

66) Explain the "fruits of the poisonous tree" doctrine.

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 3 Investigators, the Investigative Process, and the Crime Scene 1) A felony is an act usually punishable by imprisonment for: A) one or more years and/or a $500 fine.

B) six months and/or a $1,000 fine.

C) a term of one or more years, or death.

D) six months and/or a $500 fine.

2) A misdemeanor is a lesser offense that may be punishable by: A) a fine, ordinarily not to exceed $500.

B) imprisonment for no more than a year.

C) more than one year in prison.

D) a fine, ordinarily not to exceed $500 and/or imprisonment for no more than a year.

3) After interviewing the victim of a crime and two witnesses and examining the crime scene and the physical evidence, you use all of this information as a basis for developing a unifying and internally consistent explanation of the event. You have ________.

A) used inductive reasoning B) committed Locard's Fallacy C) used deductive reasoning D) proceeded in an unobjective manner 4) Identify a true statement about successful investigators.

A) They know that investigation is a systematic method of inquiry that is more science than art.

B) They refrain from self-monitoring and rely on inductive and deductive reasoning because these methods are difficult to be distorted.

C) They realize that successful investigations are always produced by rote application of the appropriate steps.

D) They sometimes use illegal and unethical methods that are used to solve a case.

5) The actions taken by the first officer to arrive at the scene of a crime after its detection and reporting are collectively termed the "________."

A) essential part of police work B) follow-up investigation C) cold search D) preliminary investigation 6) A(n) ________ is the police effort expended after the initial incident report is completed until the case is ready for prosecution.

A) advanced investigation B) cold investigation C) collateral investigation D) follow-up investigation

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7) If there is a chance the victim may die, the investigator should always get ________.

A) the name of the suspect B) a dying declaration C) the address of the victim D) victim's next of kin 8) Which of the following is a step involved in a preliminary investigation?

A) Reviewing the offense/incident report B) Securing the crime scene and evidence C) Re-interviewing the witnesses D) All of the answers are correct.

9) Which of the following terms is defined as a systematic approach to interviewing residents, merchants, and others who were in the immediate vicinity of a crime and may have useful information?

A) Cross-examination B) Neighborhood canvass C) Redirect examination D) Vehicle canvass 10) Identify the three major functions to be executed at the scene of a crime.

A) Overall coordination, forensic services, investigative services B) Arrest, search, seizure C) Coordination, arrest, interrogation D) Observation, supervision, technical assistance 11) Which type of evidence serves to substantiate the distinct set of elements whose commission or omission must be demonstrated to have occurred in order to prove a criminal offense?

A) Crime scene documentation B) Associative evidence C) The rule of detail D) Corpus delicti evidence 12) ________ is bidirectional in that it connects the perpetrator to the scene or victim, or connects the scene or victim to the suspect.

A) Corpus delecti evidence B) Associative evidence C) Tracing evidence D) May be any of the preceding depending on the facts of the case 13) Which of the following types of trace evidence may react (fluoresce) from an alternate light system?

A) Fingerprints and bodily fluids B) Hairs, fibers, and drugs C) Bite marks, bruises, and human bone fragments D) All of the answers are correct.

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14) The rule of ________ requires that standard samples and elimination prints always be obtained when appropriate.

A) caution B) conceptualization C) acceptance D) inclusiveness 15) Which of the following statements defines an administrative log?

A) It is a written record of lifted-prints evidence that contains the same type of information as that listed in the evidence recovery log.

B) It is a chronological record of each item of evidence, listing who collected it, where and when it was collected, who witnessed the collection, and whether it was documented by photos or diagrams.

C) It is a written record of the actions taken by the crime scene coordinator, including assignments and release of the scene.

D) It is a written chronological record of all persons who enter and leave the crime scene and the times they do so, along with their reason for entering.

16) How does the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), a blood-borne pathogen, spread?

A) Through casual contact B) Through sweat, tears, saliva or urine C) Through toilet seats, telephones, swimming pools, or drinking fountains D) None of the answers is correct.

17) Which of the following crime scene search patterns is usually employed in outdoor scenes and is normally executed by a single person?

A) Spiral B) Strip/line C) Grid D) Zone/quadrant 18) Identify the three basic methods of documenting a crime scene.

A) Audio recording, video recording, and sketching B) Audio recording, video recording, and photography C) Digital video recording, digital still photography, and audio recording D) Videography, digital still photography, and sketching and mapping 19) A ________ is a basic diagram of the scene showing important points, such as the locations where various pieces of physical evidence were located.

A) forensic map B) strip search C) coordinate D) crime scene sketch

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20) Which of the following is not one of the four types of sketches listed in the textbook?

A) Birds-eye sketch B) Elevation sketch C) Forensic mapping sketch D) Cross projection sketch 21) Which search pattern has the searchers doubling back perpendicularly across the area being examined?

A) Spiral B) Strip/line C) Grid D) Zone/quadrant 22) In the context of the common methods of forensic mapping, which of the following is the best method to use with scenes having clear and specific boundaries, such as interior walls?

A) Triangulation B) Baseline coordinates C) Grid system D) Rectangular coordinates 23) The advantage of using the ________ method is that when there are multiple points of interest in several different walls, they can be displayed simultaneously in one sketch, as opposed to having to make and refer to multiple elevation sketches.

A) elevation view B) triangulation C) cross-projection D) perspective sketch 24) In the context of the common methods of forensic mapping, which of the following was used by archaeologists for many years to record where artifacts and other notable discoveries were made?

A) Grid system B) Triangulation C) Baseline coordinates D) Rectangular coordinates 25) Which of the following would constitute a basis for assigning a "cleared by exceptional means" classification to a case?

A) The suspect is known to the police, but they can't find him/her to serve a warrant.

B) The suspect is in custody, but invokes his/her rights under the Miranda ruling after being formally charged.

C) The suspect attends the local college as an exchange student.

D) The suspect is known to the police, but the victim refuses to cooperate with the prosecution.

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26) Misdemeanors are lesser offenses that may be punishable by a fine, ordinarily not to exceed $500, and/or imprisonment for no more than one year.

27) At a crime scene, if there are no satisfactory options in causing or allowing the contamination or destruction of evidence, saving the victim's life has a higher value than preserving physical evidence.

28) In defining a crime scene, officers must make sure that they also identify possible or actual lines of approach to, and flight from, the scene and protect them also.

29) The chain of custody is the witnessed, unbroken, written chronological history of who had the evidence when.

30) The investigator assigned to a call must prepare an incident/offense report so the district attorney will have all the facts of the case.

31) The primary crime scene is the location where the initial offense was committed, whereas the locations of all subsequent connected events are secondary scenes.

32) Forensic services is the responsibility of the senior representative of the department's central crime laboratory or a crime scene processing unit.

33) Crime scene coordination includes interviewing witnesses, conducting and documenting the neighborhood canvass, and a field interrogation of the suspect if he/she is in custody.

34) The identification and location of the suspect are the goals of tracing evidence; corpus delicti and associative evidence may also serve these purposes.

35) Human behavior is rich in its variety; in reconstructing a crime, investigators must be alert to the danger of imparting their own probable motives or actions to the perpetrator unless there are solid grounds for doing so.

36) Elimination prints are useful in determining whether a latent fingerprint found at a crime scene belongs to the suspect.

37) Blood-splattered wall and bullet holes in windows are examples of a cross-projection sketch.

38) A perspective sketch is the easiest to make because it requires drawing an object of interest in only one dimension.

39) Often ________ is located using alternative light systems (ALSs).

40) Portable ________ are quite useful in locating very small items of evidence. These units are particularly effective in gathering hairs, fibers, and certain types of drug evidence.

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41) ________ is defined as a written chronological record of all persons who enter and leave the crime scene and the times they do so, along with their reason for entering.

42) A list of each item of evidence; the names of the collector and witnesses; and the location, date, and time of the collection are contained in the ________ log and in the lifted prints log.

43) The ________ is a blood-borne pathogen that is also present in many other body fluids and most commonly spread through vaginal and anal intercourse.

44) ________ is a chronic bacterial infection that is spread by air and is accountable for more deaths worldwide than any other infectious disease.

45) The ________ search entails dividing an area into a number of pie-shaped sections that are then searched, usually though a variation of the strip method.

46) Using ________ to document a crime scene offers several advantages: cameras are relatively inexpensive, they incorporate audio, their use can be quickly learned, and the motion holds the attention of viewers.

47) A basic diagram of the scene showing important points, such as the locations where various pieces of physical evidence were located is the ________.

48) ________ is the process of taking and recording the precise measurements of items of evidence to be drawn or "fixed" on a sketch.

49) ________ are the sketches that are made in the field and/or at the crime scene.

50) The textbook refers to five major forensic mapping methods. These include: rectangular coordinates, triangulation, ________, polar coordinates, and the grid system.

51) Define felony, misdemeanor, and violation.

52) Contrast inductive and deductive reasoning.

53) What are the preliminary and follow-up investigations?

54) Define primary and secondary scenes.

55) What are macroscopic and microscopic scenes?

56) Identify and explain the three major crime scene functions.

57) State and explain the three broad categories of evidence in which investigators have a particular interest.

58) What are the rules for crime scene investigators and what do they mean?

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59) There are many measures police officers can take to protect themselves at scenes from health risks from blood-borne pathogens, such as HIV/AIDS. Identify a minimum of twelve.

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 4 Physical Evidence 1) Which of the following characteristics can be identified as originating from a particular person or source?

A) Class B) Primary C) Latent D) Individual 2) Which of the following is a salient feature of forensic palynology?

A) It is labor intensive.

B) It requires little expertise and experience.

C) It is a weak investigative tool.

D) It is extremely overutilized.

3) Which of the following guidelines is used in handling soil evidence?

A) Gather soil as quickly as sound action permits.

B) Collect soil samples where there are noticeable changes in composition, color, and texture.

C) Collect soil samples from a depth that is consistent with the depth at which the questioned soil may have originated.

D) All of the answers are correct.

4) In the context of categories of impression evidence, which of the following is a salient feature of surface impressions?

A) They are likely to be found impressed into soil.

B) They lack any appreciable height.

C) They lack length and width.

D) They are three-dimensional.

5) A fracture match occurs when: A) it is established that two or more pieces were formerly co-joined.

B) multiple items are compared to each other.

C) multiple items share the same chemical consistency.

D) None of the answers is correct.

6) The direction of a shot through a glass window can be determined by ________.

A) concentric cracks B) radial cracks C) a cone-shaped area on the opposite side from impact D) All of the answers are correct.

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7) In which of the following types of crimes is a rope, cord, string, and tape more likely to be found?

A) Car theft B) Extortion C) Sexual assault D) None of the answers is correct.

8) Which of the following have friction ridges that are commonly referred to as "fingerprints"?

A) Soles of the feet B) Toes C) Fingers D) All of the answers are correct.

9) Which of the following is a major fingerprint pattern?

A) Double central B) Looped arch C) Depressed loop D) Plain whorl 10) ________ has been defined as the intersection of dentistry and criminal laws.

A) Forensic podiatry B) Forensic optometry C) Forensic odontology D) Forensic limnology 11) Many victims are bitten during an attack. What is the primary significance of a bite mark to the investigator?

A) Can provide the M.O. of the perpetrator B) Can provide sites for DNA collection of saliva from the suspect, which can lead to the identification of the suspect C) Can aid in deciding what charges to apply when the suspect is arrested D) Can aid in determining whether or not the suspect should be charged as a sexual criminal 12) Which is used as a presumptive or preliminary field test for blood?

A) Hemident B) Limpit C) Dolcet D) Nodocen 13) In the context of locating blood evidence, which of the following is a salient feature of Hexagon OBTI? A) It is a water-based spray that creates a blue glow after the lights are turned out.

B) It produces a glow that is short lasting.

C) It reacts to copper, some alloys, and certain bleaches.

D) It distinguishes between animal and human blood in two to three minutes.

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14) Which of the following should be used to collect fresh blood evidence at a crime scene?

A) Clean cotton cloth B) Paper C) Tape D) All of the answers are correct.

15) Under ordinary conditions, laboratory examination of blood evidence can determine all of the following except ________.

A) the sex of the person B) the blood type of the person and his or her DNA profile C) the race of the person D) whether the person was a smoker 16) In the context of laboratory determinations of firearm evidence, the term "________" refers to the low side of a gun barrel's interior.

A) groove B) caliber C) bore D) land 17) Which of the following statements is true about the laboratory examination of a firearm?

A) Bore is the correct term to apply to the radius of the interior of a weapon's barrel.

B) In a rifled bore, the bore is measured from one groove to an opposing groove.

C) With a rifled bore, the projectile usually rotates in a left-hand direction.

D) It is possible to fire a smaller-caliber bullet through a larger-bore weapon.

18) Which of the following is not a determination that can be made from a cartridge case?

A) Marks made on the cartridge case as it is loaded into the chamber for firing B) A pin impression made on the base of the cartridge case, which is caused by the firing of the weapon C) Striations made when expanding gases force the cartridge case against the chamber wall and marks left by the same gases when they force the cartridge case back against the breach D) Bullet residue from the fired bullet that is "shaved" off as it exits the gun barrel 19) Any impression, cut, gouge, or abrasion made when a tool comes into contact with another object, for forensic purposes, is ________.

A) a tool mark B) an element of burglary C) the modus operandi of the suspect D) possibly any of the preceding depending on the circumstances of the case 20) In which of the following types of crimes is tool marks most commonly found?

A) Burglary B) Robbery C) Assault D) None of the answers is correct.

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21) Loosely defined, a document is anything ________.

A) to which a notary seal has been affixed B) with legal meaning C) on which a mark has been made for the purpose of conveying a message D) officially used 22) Which of the following types of crime is more likely to have disputed or questioned documents?

A) Assault B) White-collar crimes C) Burglary D) Car theft 23) Laboratory examination may be able to determine which of the following for questioned documents?

A) Establish the source of the paper through watermarks B) Determine if the document is authentic or fake C) Determine the age of the document D) All of the answers are correct.

24) What evidentiary information is obtained when the ink used to write a message involved in a crime is compared with the ink recovered from a suspect?

A) It identifies the suspect.

B) It identifies the pen used in writing the note.

C) It determines whether or not the inks have consistent characteristics.

D) None of the answers is correct.

25) Characteristics of physical evidence that are common to a group of objects or persons are termed individual characteristics, whereas class characteristics can be identified, with a high degree of probability, as originating with a particular person or source.

26) Collect soil samples from a depth that is consistent with the depth at which the questioned soil may have originated.

27) The Shoeprint Image Capture and Retrieval (SICAR) is a software package that classifies, archives, identifies, and names the shoe store that sold the shoes.

28) Three-dimensional impressions (3DI) are often called "prints" or "residual prints."

29) Usually, paint is class-characteristic evidence, although in some cases it reaches the level of individual evidence.

30) It is possible to determine the direction from which a bullet penetrated glass: on the same side of the surface of initial impact, there will be a characteristic cone-shaped area. The larger area of the cone shape indicates the area from which the bullet was fired.

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31) Cord and rope have essentially the same characteristics as string, and all have some characteristics of fibers.

32) Latent prints are created when the small amounts of body perspiration and oil that are normally found on the ridges are deposited on surfaces that are touched.

33) Patent prints become latent prints when the fingerprint is not formed by residue, but by the body's natural oils and sweat on the skin that are deposited onto another surface.

34) ________ is the discipline that studies pollen and spores.

35) ________ is the identification of individuals based on the pattern of wrinkles on their lips, which has individual characteristics.

36) Blood stains, known as ________, may take many forms at a crime scene and are produced by such factors as the type, location, and number of wounds inflicted.

37) When analyzing blood evidence, the more elliptical the stain, the more ________ the angle of impact.

38) The ________ is the diameter of a bullet, whereas the bore is the diameter of a barrel's interior between its opposing high sides, or lands.

39) For forensic purposes, a(n) ________ is any impression, cut, gouge, or abrasion made when a tool comes into contact with another object.

40) A(n) ________ document is one whose origin or authenticity is in doubt.

41) What are class and individual characteristics?

42) How are unknown or questioned samples and known samples alike or different?

43) Discuss the importance of geoforensics. Explain how it aids in determining whether a suspect was at a crime scene or not.

44) Identify and discuss the three broad categories of latent fingerprints.

45) What is forensic odontology? How does it contribute toward criminal investigations?

46) It may be possible to reconstruct a crime based on the analysis of bloodstains. Identify six determinations that may be made from this type of analysis.

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 5 Interviewing and Interrogation 1) Which of the following is not one of the four commonly recognized objectives in the interrogation process?

A) To obtain valuable facts B) To identify the innocent C) To eliminate the innocent D) To obtain a confession 2) Once witnesses have been identified, they should be separated from one another and, as much as possible, isolated from other people who may be nearby. Why? A) To prevent witnesses from seeing or hearing irrelevant matters that may taint their actual knowledge B) To prevent witnesses from leaving the area before they have been released by the police investigator C) To prevent outsiders from hearing what witnesses tell the police D) All of the answers are correct.

3) As a rule, cold, sleepy, hungry, or physically uncomfortable, or intoxicated people prove to be: A) highly satisfactory witnesses because of the pressure an interviewer is able to put them under.

B) somewhat satisfactory witnesses.

C) unsatisfactory witnesses.

D) impossible to interview.

4) Which of the following is a good characteristic of a traditional interrogation room?

A) The room should be sparsely furnished.

B) A working telephone should be included.

C) A large, physically imposing room should be used.

D) A two-way mirror should be included.

5) When conducting an interrogation, the interrogator should: A) ensure that few or no objects are present between them and the suspect.

B) talk loudly and rudely to the suspect.

C) ask leading questions to get the suspect to confess.

D) All of the answers are correct.

6) Which of the following is one of the best practices to be followed when interviewing individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing?

A) Refraining from conversing in a well-lit area B) Refraining from using gestures such as a tap on the shoulder to gain attention before speaking C) Facing the person and not turning away while speaking to him or her D) Assuming that a person can hear you well if he or she is wearing a hearing aid

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7) The term ________ refers to a witness's personal qualifications for testifying in court.

A) credibility B) trustworthiness C) competency D) intelligence 8) Identify a true statement about the competency of a witness.

A) It is closely related to the believability of a witness's information.

B) It is not determined by the relationship of a witness to individuals involved in the case.

C) It is not determined by the age of a witness.

D) It must be established before a witness is permitted to give any testimony.

9) Which of the following factors influences a person's ability to give a complete account of an event or to identify people accurately?

A) The significance or insignificance of the event B) The length of the period of observation C) Lack of ideal conditions D) All of the answers are correct.

10) Which of the following is the best form of documenting an interview?

A) Reliance on the investigator's memory B) Reliance on notes taken by the investigator C) A handwritten and signed statement prepared by the witness D) Electronic sound recording or sound-and-visual recording 11) Prior to 1936, the test for the validity and admissibility of a confession or admission was its: A) compliance with the Miranda requirements.

B) voluntariness.

C) compliance with the Escobedo case.

D) compliance with the fruits of the poisonous tree doctrine.

12) The first notable incidence of U.S. Supreme Court intervention into interrogation practices came about in Brown v. Mississippi, in 1936. The decision of the Supreme Court in this case was that: A) the right of a defendant to have an attorney present during interrogation must be upheld.

B) a confession received as a result of physical brutality and violence by the police was not admissible in court.

C) the right of the defendant to be brought before a committing magistrate within 72 hours must be respected.

D) the right of the defendant to remain silent must be upheld.

13) Which of the following constitutional guarantees is addressed in the Escobedo and Miranda cases?

A) Right to counsel and self-incrimination B) Right-to-confrontation and cross-examination C) Double jeopardy and trial by jury D) Fair trial and free press 2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

14) Which of the following is a right contained in the Miranda decision?

A) The right to remain silent B) The right to be told that anything the suspect says can and will be used against him or her in court C) The right to consult with an attorney prior to answering any questions and to have an attorney present during interrogation D) All of the answers are correct.

15) What are the possible responses when a suspect is asked if they wish to talk to the police?

A) To remain silent B) To request for an attorney C) To waive their rights against self-incrimination D) All of the answers are correct.

16) In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court emphatically state that once a suspect has invoked the right to remain silent, interrogation must terminate?

A) Michigan v. Mosley B) United States v. Lee C) Manson v. Braithwaite D) Miranda v. Arizona 17) It is important for an investigator to create a(n) ________ for the witnesses and suspects that they are questioning.

A) intimidating environment B) comfort zone C) stressful situation D) None of the answers is correct.

18) Which of the following is a specific behavior that interrogators must consider when detecting deception?

A) Using highly animated hand gestures B) Swearing to the truthfulness of statements C) Using a derogatory position D) Exhibiting more steepling of the fingers 19) The polygraph measures: A) cardiovascular changes, respiratory changes, and changes in skin resistance.

B) cardiovascular changes, respiratory changes, and aerobic changes.

C) respiratory changes, changes in skin resistance, and aerobic changes.

D) rapid changes in eye movement.

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20) The primary purpose of a polygraph examination according to the textbook is to: A) determine if victims, suspects, and informants are being truthful or untruthful about what they say.

B) elicit a confession from a suspect.

C) eliminate the innocent from consideration during a criminal investigation.

D) corroborate the suspect's alibi.

21) The three most common findings by a polygraph examiner are: A) lying, truthful, and unsure.

B) deceptive, truthful, and unsure.

C) deception indicated, no deception indicated, and inconclusive.

D) deception indicated, truth indicated, and inconclusive.

22) What device notes microvariations in the audible and nonaudible portions of speech?

A) A polygraph B) A kinesiological brain-wave analyzer C) A Computer Voice Stress Analysis (CVSA) D) A Neuron Voice Sensor Detector 23) In interviewing, establishing rapport with the person to be questioned is important, but its importance wanes when interrogating a suspect.

24) Eyewitness testimony is heavily used in criminal proceedings but research has found it to be very unreliable.

25) Eyewitness identifications take place in a social context in which a witness's own personality and characteristics, along with those of the target observed, are as critical as factors relating to the situation or environment in which the action takes place.

26) Interrogation by an investigator must stop after a suspect requests counsel.

27) A suspect who has waived his or her rights is not free to withdraw that waiver at any time.

Answer: 28) In Duckworth v. Eagen (1989), the Supreme Court held that it was not necessary that Miranda warnings be given in the exact form described in the Miranda decision.

29) Custody occurs when a person is deprived of his or her freedom in any significant way or is not free to leave the presence of law enforcement.

30) The Supreme Court ruled in Berkemer v. McCarty that Miranda requirements apply to the interrogation of an arrested person regardless of whether the offense is a felony or a misdemeanor.

31) Interrogation includes any express questioning or any verbal or nonverbal behavior by a law enforcement officer that is designed to elicit an incriminating statement or response from the suspect of a crime.

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32) Miranda warnings must always precede routine booking questions that are asked in order to obtain personal-history data necessary to complete the booking process.

33) Research on the accuracy of the polygraph varies, roughly from 64% (laboratory studies) to 98% ("real world" use).

34) A(n) ________ is designed to match acquired information to a particular suspect in order to secure a confession.

35) The reluctance of victims to report incidents to the police or to assist in the prosecution of offenders may be the result of ________, or the belief that the criminals might retaliate against them for cooperating with police.

36) Two primary concerns are raised by ________ during an interview: it may occasionally be distracting or suspicious to a witness; and witnesses may be reluctant to give information knowing that it is being documented.

37) ________ laws allow the police to record without informing the suspects.

38) ________ are those in which innocent but vulnerable suspects confess and come to believe they committed the crime in question.

39) In order for a confession to be acceptable in court, it must be ________ and voluntarily given.

40) The McNabb-Mallory cases set forth the ________ rule that is only applicable in federal prosecutions.

41) In the context of specific behaviors to consider while detecting deception, when people place their outstretched arms in front of their bodies, with palms up, this is known as the ________ position.

42) Discuss the similarities and differences between interviews and interrogations.

43) What are the qualifications required of an effective interviewer or interrogator?

44) How does an investigator prepare for an interview or an interrogation?

45) What factors motivate witnesses to give or withhold information?

46) Identify some of the best practices to be followed while interviewing individuals with mobility impairments and cognitive disabilities.

47) What criteria will affect the competency of a witness?

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48) Despite the amount of reliance placed on information supplied by eyewitnesses, what are the facts as it relates to their reliability? Why? 49) Define competency and how it could impact a witness's testimony.

50) What are the response strategies for addressing witness intimidation?

51) Discuss why people confess to crimes.

52) What requirements are imposed on law enforcement by Miranda v. Arizona?

53) What is the evidentiary test for admissibility of confessions and admissions?

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 6 Field Notes and Reporting 1) Which statement about body-worn cameras (BWCs) is most accurate?

A) Releasing BWC recordings to the news media or public creates the risk that they could be misinterpreted.

B) A study of mock juries showed that regardless of their prior opinion about a case, showing a BWC recording of the crimes involved converted a majority of jurors who initially doubted a person's guilt to guilty votes.

C) Despite the use of BWCs by officers, frivolous complaints against them did not reduce.

D) None of the answers are correct.

2) Which statement is true?

A) The senior officer responding to a crime writes the incident report. All other officers who respond write supplemental reports.

B) There is no advantage to recording field notes with pencil and pen versus audio recorders, body-worn cameras, or tablets.

C) Hearsay statements made by witnesses can be included in field notes or the incident report.

D) None of the answers are correct.

3) A small study of police officers' field notes from witness interviews showed that they failed to include ________% of crime-relevant information in their reports.

A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50 4) A 2015 national study showed that ________% of large cities and counties had fully implemented body-worn camera (BWC) programs.

A) 6 B) 13 C) 19 D) 23 5) The use of public online reporting systems did not become widespread: A) until federal grants to fund them became available.

B) until citizen advocacy groups began demanding them.

C) during and after the Great Recession.

D) none of the answers are correct.

6) In State v. Samander V. Dabas, the New Jersey Supreme Court ruled that: A) officers should add short narrations about what is happening when recording with body-worn cameras (BWCs).

B) field notes cannot be destroyed and are subject to discovery by attorneys.

C) officers should be able to view their own body-worn camera (BWC) recordings when writing reports.

D) none of the answers are correct.

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7) A police car with a computer on which to write an incident is a major asset. What percentage of officers have vehicles with such computers?

A) 93 B) 86 C) 78 D) 67 8) According to law enforcement agencies using eCitations, the shift from using handwritten traffic citations is from 16 minutes to ________ minutes.

A) 11 B) 10 C) 9 D) 8 9) An often-quoted figure is that handwritten incident reports take ________ minutes to complete, depending on their complexity.

A) 60-75 B) 45-60 C) 30-45 D) 15-30 10) There are about nine million people in the transgender community. They are the victims of 18.7% of all reported single-bias crimes. What percentage of the transgender community perceives hostility toward them by law enforcement officers?

A) 11 B) 21 C) 31 D) 41 11) From a sampling of police policies, which statement is true about officers interacting with transgender people/persons?

A) Use the pronouns appropriate to their preferred gender or gender expression.

B) Assume that at a traffic stop, the operator produces a driver's license but requests to be addressed by a name different from the one on the license. The officer should politely address the person by the name on the government-issued driver's license.

C) Another appropriate term for a transgender person is transsexual.

D) All of the answers are correct.

12) Which of the following should be routinely recorded in a report?

A) Physical and email addresses.

B) Telephone, cell-phone, and pager numbers.

C) Occupation.

D) All of the answers are correct.

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13) Regarding the value of stolen property, which statement is true?

A) It may determine whether the offense is a felony or a misdemeanor.

B) For articles subject to depreciation, the fair market value should be used, unless the property is new, in which case the replacement cost should be used.

C) Nonnegotiable instruments should be valued at their replacement cost rather than at their face value.

D) All of the answers are correct.

14) Which of the following are guidelines for officers writing incident reports?

A) When referring to yourself, use the first person.

B) Write short sentences.

C) Edit what you write.

D) All of the answers are correct.

15) Law enforcement policies often state that certain types of crimes must be reported to the appropriate investigative unit supervisor for determination whether a detective will be sent to the scene. Which of the following is an example of a crime that requires notification of the supervisor of the appropriate investigative unit?

A) Significant injuries to a child that occur under suspicious circumstances.

B) Nonparental kidnappings.

C) Assaults that produce injuries likely to result in death.

D) All of the answers are correct.

16) Field notes can be made with any writing instrument.

17) Field notes can be used to defend the accuracy and integrity of an incident report by showing a link between the field notes and the content of the report.

18) Assume a person was present at a crime scene but left before the responding officer arrived.

The officer should gather information about that person, such as what period was the person present, what did the person say or do while there, what relationship the person has with the victim or suspect, and did the person leave or take anything from the scene.

19) When taking field notes, an officer can use nonverbal cues to encourage a person to continue speaking.

20) Incident reports are a secondary source of investigative information.

21) An estimated ________% of police contacts in jurisdictions of 100,000 people or more involve the mentally ill.

22) The human field of vision is 180 degrees. The field of attention is 50-60 degrees. Under stress, this field narrows to ________.

23) In addition to narrowing the field of attention, stress induces distortions of ________.

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24) Police searches may not be made for the sole purpose of establishing ________ or be any more intrusive than for other persons.

25) Assume the victim or a witness can provide a description of the suspect. It is an imperative to get it and make a preliminary pickup order or ________ broadcast as soon as possible. This may prevent an officer from unknowingly approaching a dangerous subject.

26) Define "field notes" made by police officers.

27) Detailed field notes compensate for the fact crime scenes can be chaotic. There are six examples of chaotic crime scene conditions in the text. State any four of those six examples.

28) Some police agencies do not allow officers to review their own body-worn camera videos before writing the related incident report. There are two views on this: 1) the "no access" agencies and 2) the "access" agencies. Discuss these two views. Be sure to include the views of officers in the "no access" section.

29) What are the six basic investigative questions?

30) What are three advantages of having an in-car computer in police vehicles?

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 7 The Follow-Up Investigation and Investigative Resources 1) Which of the following is included in the investigative solvability factors?

A) Is the suspect's identity known?

B) Can the suspect's identity be established even if unknown to the victim?

C) Was important physical evidence recovered, for example, DNA or usable fingerprints?

D) All of the above 2) What source of information reveals personal information about a suspect, including his or her current aliases, health and mental condition, scars, marks, and tattoos, as well as other information.

A) crime lab report B) traffic citation C) incident report D) jail booking report 3) The National Drug Pointer Index promotes what?

A) identification of international drug traffickers and their routes B) agent safety and prevents duplication of effort C) detection of drug smuggling tunnels and ultralight aircraft landing sites D) combating drug rings that pirate boats and planes 4) Determining whether suspected criminal activity exists, obtaining probable cause for a search warrant, and preventing crime by allowing suspects to become aware they are being closely watched are all considered effective uses of ________.

A) drones B) grid maps C) crime analysis D) surveillance 5) Which of the following statements is true about casual surveillance?

A) It includes taking note of cars present, persons seen, and so forth each time an officer happens to drive by the surveillance area.

B) It requires some planning and lasts from a few hours to a longer period.

C) It is an ongoing, indefinite proposition whose end is often determined by the value of what raw intelligence is being collected.

D) It is often used when intelligence has to be accumulated in a short time.

6) Which agency maintains the National Counter-Improvised Explosives Device Capabilities Analysis Database?

A) DHS B) ATF C) DEA D) FBI 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

7) What drives the intelligence/analytical cycle?

A) community needs B) end-user needs C) the Chief Executive's needs D) the system's needs 8) In the context of the intelligence/analytical cycle, ________ is immediately actionable and often results in arrests.

A) strategic intelligence B) evidential intelligence C) tactical intelligence D) indicative intelligence 9) The gathering and reporting of the raw information that is needed to produce finished intelligence is called ________.

A) scanning B) implementing C) planning D) collection 10) Which of the following statements is true about tactical crime analysis?

A) deals with immediate criminal offenses, such as burglaries or robberies.

B) focuses on entrenched crime problems and emerging crime/criminal trends.

C) is primarily used to inform relevant audiences with a summary about crime conditions, including neighborhood/crime watch groups, the general public, the city/county manager, city councils/county commissions, the news media, and other law enforcement officials.

D) is used for providing information for annual reports, meeting grant requirements, recalculating the deployment of the patrol force, cost-benefit analysis of police programs, and maintaining transparency.

11) The same type of crime being committed over a short period of time, probably by the same offender, is referred to as a ________.

A) series B) sprees C) patterns D) hot spots 12) Geographic profiling is an investigative strategy that uses the locations of a series of crimes to determine the most probable area of the ________.

A) next robbery B) most likely escape route C) location of gangs D) offender's residence

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13) The police have been quick to use the Internet for: A) investigative purposes.

B) public information purposes.

C) administrative purposes.

D) All of the answers are correct.

14) How many photographs are usually in a photo array/photo lineup?

A) 12 B) 9 C) 6 D) 3 15) Which is an accurate statement about a "live lineup?"

A) The suspect should be allowed to pick the order in which he/she appears.

B) A suspect's attorney is not allowed to attend one.

C) A suspect may be asked to speak some exact words, but cannot be compelled to walk or make gestures.

D) All of the above are false.

16) Which type of fusion center has the highest priority for the allocation of available federal resources?

A) central B) recognized C) wheel D) primary 17) Which is an example of a crimogen?

A) a felony offender who specializes in eight or more types of crime.

B) a convenience store operator who reports gas drive-offs, shoplifting, robberies, assaults, and thefts of entire ATM machines.

C) a criminal who begins with an extensive juvenile record and in adulthood is suspected of many violent crimes, but seldom arrested because of a lack of evidence or intimidation of victims and witnesses.

D) None of the above 18) Which of the following activities illustrates aerial remote sensing?

A) over the horizon intelligence B) identify possible clandestine grave sites C) rescue lost hikers and mountain climbers D) all of the above 19) Although many federal agencies maintain databases to serve their own agents, as well as state and local law enforcement officers, the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) provides access to the most comprehensive set of databases.

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20) Whereas surveillance is thought of as "following," it actually means the continued observance, both overt and covert, of people, places, and things to obtain information of investigative significance.

21) A live lineup is a process in which a series of "real people" are shown to an eyewitness to establish whether he or she can pick out the suspect.

22) Participants in live lineups may appear sequentially or may all appear simultaneously.

23) The most common type of cold case investigation is armed robbery.

24) Evidential intelligence, which is gathered and analyzed over time, usually confirms new or newly discovered patterns of criminal activity.

25) ________ are defined as mutually voluntary contacts that can be made by the police at any time from wherever they can legally be made.

26) A ________ is a form on which a patrolling officer notes details about a person or vehicle that seems suspicious but is not connected with any particular offense.

27) ________ provide information that is of investigative significance. They may expect to be paid or to receive consideration on charges pending against them.

28) A ________ is defined as a process by which the police conduct an immediate eyewitness identification of someone they have temporarily detained.

29) General tendencies in the occurrence of crime across large geographic areas over extended periods of time are referred to as ________.

30) A ________ is a location where various crimes are committed on a regular basis, usually by different perpetrators.

31) ________ is an investigative strategy that uses the locations of a series of crimes to determine the most probable area of the offender's residence.

32) Incident reports are screened to determine the presence or absence of solvability factors.

There are 17 common solvability factors. Identify at least five of these factors.

33) Briefly discuss the steps in the intelligence/analytical cycle.

34) What are sprees?

35) State five ways in which the Internet can be helpful to investigators.

36) Incident reports are screened to determine the presence or absence of solvability factors.

Identify at least nine of these factors.

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37) Identify five database files included in the NCIC.

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 8 The Crime Laboratory 1) A crime laboratory can help in answering which of the following questions?

A) How was the crime committed?

B) Who committed the crime?

C) Who could not have committed the crime?

D) All of the answers are correct.

2) Forensic science is defined as ________.

A) the study of physical evidence related to a crime B) that part of science applied to answering legal questions C) a reconstruction of crimes D) science in action 3) Which of the following terms deals with the study of physical evidence related to crime?

A) Criminology B) Criminal justice C) Practitioners D) Criminalistics 4) The National Forensic Science Technology Center was established in 1995. Its primary function is to: A) help crime laboratories prepare for accreditation.

B) improve the techniques of decoding DNA evidence.

C) offer continuing education programs for crime laboratory personnel.

D) help crime laboratories prepare for accreditation and to offer continuing education programs for crime laboratory personnel.

5) Which of the following was one of the findings of the congressional report submitted by the National Academy of Sciences (NAS)?

A) Many forensic science and crime laboratories are seriously underfunded and understaffed.

B) The broader research community is invested in conducting research relevant to advancing the forensic science disciplines.

C) Forensic scientists are currently subject to rigorous and mandatory certification programs.

D) There are strong standards and protocols in place for analyzing and reporting on evidence.

6) The effectiveness of crime laboratory services can be measured in terms of ________.

A) quality, proximity, and timeliness B) proximity, timeliness, and quantity C) timeliness, quantity, and quality D) leads, arrests, and convictions

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7) The Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals, Inc. case stands for the proposition that for scientific evidence to be admissible in court, it must be ________.

A) generally acceptable in the scientific community B) proven beyond any doubt C) scientifically valid D) published 8) Mitochondrial DNA is found in ________.

A) rhesus monkeys B) the body of the cell C) females who have recently given birth D) blood 9) What does the effectiveness of DNA evidence in court depend on?

A) The ability of the witness to explain the probability that no other person, except an identical twin, has the same DNA type as that discovered at the crime scene B) The quality of the evidence analysis that was performed in the crime lab C) The qualifications of the crime lab and the crime lab personnel D) The jurisdiction, the lab technician, and the quality of the equipment used in the analysis 10) Which of the following statements is true about CODIS? A) It is a computer system linking local, state, and federal agencies to share DNA analysis information.

B) It is a computer system of the ATF allowing the identification of bullets and shell casings.

C) It is a computer system of the FBI allowing the identification of bullets and shell casings.

D) It is the computer system supporting the Human Genome Program.

11) The National Integrated Ballistic Information Network (NIBIN) program compares images of which type of evidence?

A) Blood alcohol related B) Blood related C) Ballistic D) Identification 12) Which of the following, for laboratory purposes, is not a category of examinations that crime laboratories perform?

A) Chemical examinations B) Physical examinations C) Documentary examinations D) Videography examinations 13) The FBI Crime Laboratory is one of the largest and most comprehensive forensic laboratories and is the only full-service forensic laboratory. When was it established?

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14) The unit of the FBI laboratory that conducts examinations of soils and safe insulation, concrete, plaster, mortar, glass, oil, and other abrasives is the ________.

A) documents unit B) metallurgy unit C) firearms unit D) mineralogy unit 15) A technical manual that includes validation studies performed by the lab itself and sets forth standardized methodologies for performing routine tests in the laboratory is a ________.

A) standard operating procedure B) procedure manual C) lab-testing protocol D) Daubert certification rule 16) What organization is the primary credentialing organization for crime labs?

A) American Society of Crime Laboratory Directors (ASCLD) B) American Crime Laboratory Accreditation Society (ACLAS) C) Commission on Crime Laboratory Accreditation (CCLA) D) North American Crime Laboratory Association (NACLA) 17) While formal education that scientists receive provides a foundation for learning and understanding the techniques of forensic science, for the most part, courts rely on ________.

A) additional training B) years of experience C) mentoring by the courts D) additional training and years of experience 18) Problems identified in crime labs in the United States involve all of the following except ________.

A) a lack of training B) thorough accreditation C) DNA contamination D) a backlog of cases 19) Which of the following statements is true about DNA evidence?

A) It can identify criminals with amazing accuracy when biological evidence exists.

B) It can be used to clear suspects.

C) It can exonerate persons who have been mistakenly accused or convicted of crimes.

D) All of the answers are correct.

20) Public crime laboratories are overwhelmed by backlogs of DNA samples. Which of the following is a problem that may be associated with these backlogs?

A) Increasing amounts of new DNA evidence B) Lack of storage space for DNA samples C) Limited resources D) All of the answers are correct.

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21) Which of the following has been identified as the most significant blunder to date in any crime lab within the United States?

A) The March 2004 arrest of Portland attorney Brandon Mayfield for the Madrid bombing B) The failure to identify the 9/11 hijackers prior to their attack on the United States C) The misidentification or non-identification of victims from the bombings in New York City D) None of the answers is correct.

22) In a recent case, the Supreme Court concluded that latent fingerprint identification evidence as produced by the FBI's procedures met the requirements for admissibility established by Dauber v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals, Inc. What was the name of the case?

A) Robinette v. Michigan B) United States v. Mitchell C) United States v. Mahoney D) Carroll v. United States 23) Which of the following organizations has established a code of ethics for forensic science?

A) The American Society of Crime Laboratory Directors B) The American Board of Criminalistics C) The Council for the Registration of Forensic Practitioners D) All of the answers are correct.

24) Which of the following is not a requirement of the code of ethics for forensic science?

A) Integrity B) Competence C) Trustworthiness D) Training 25) Which of the following statements is true about fingerprint evidence?

A) There is a definite lack of quality control relating to fingerprint examiners themselves.

B) Fingerprint examiners are compelled in court to testify with "probability" about a match between two fingerprints.

C) The potential error rate for fingerprint identification in actual practice has been systematically studied.

D) There is a uniform approach to deciding what counts as a match between two fingerprints.

26) DNA is generally found in cells that have a nucleus, hence the name nuclear DNA. However, some biological cells do not have nuclei, such as those forming ________.

A) feces B) hair shafts C) bone marrow D) tissue

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27) In the context of the Next Generation Identification (NGI) program, identify a true statement about Rap Back.

A) It is a system to evaluate technology and challenges relating to the development of a system capable of performing iris image recognition services.

B) It is a system to search millions of photos via facial recognition software, algorithms that offer enhanced searches for cold cases, and a pilot program for a repository of photos of the irises of criminals.

C) It is a service that gives authorized agencies the ability to be notified if someone under criminal justice supervision has a status change in their criminal history.

D) It is a mobile fingerprint device that offers a 10-second response to on-scene inquiries.

28) Which of the following measures suggested by justice scholars can help reform crime labs?

A) Lab analysts should know the context of the evidence that they are examining.

B) Indigent defendants should be prohibited from having access to their own experts.

C) Crime labs and medical examiners should be a part of the same agency or bureaucracy that houses district attorney's offices or law enforcement agencies.

D) Match rates that routinely exceed what is expected on a national average should be flagged, triggering further examination.

29) The terms "forensic science" and "criminalistics" are often used together. Forensic science is that part of science applied to answering legal questions, whereas criminalistics deals with the study of physical evidence related to a crime.

30) A morgue is another crime lab that is critical to the forensic scene as it is the place where the cause of death is determined.

31) There are three primary purposes of a digital crime lab. They are to examine and collect relevant digital evidence and secure evidence that directly involve computer crimes such as money laundering, possessing child pornography, embezzlement, fraud, and identity theft and to prevent and investigate terrorist plots.

32) Frye v. United States (1923) ruled that the results of a "deception test," an early version of the polygraph, could be used in court if the operator personally testified to the veracity of the results.

33) Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals, Inc. applies only to federal courts even though some states have adopted the Daubert standard.

34) Fingerprint evidence is no longer accepted in the court without the testimony of an examiner that can pass the rigors of Daubert as a scientific expert.

35) Mitochondrial DNA is found in the mitochondria, which are only in the body of a female who has given birth to a child.

36) Collecting DNA evidence requires special consideration. Among these considerations, for long-term storage, keep biological evidence in a refrigerator with the temperature between 40 and 55 degrees Fahrenheit.

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37) DNA evidence was first used in court in a trial in England in 1985.

38) Contamination is a big issue in the collection and packaging of evidence containing DNA. Coughing or sneezing while handling DNA evidence can cause contamination.

39) The Anonymous Letter File used by the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) is a collection of original checkwriter impressions and permits classification of questioned checkwriter impressions as to make and model.

40) The FBI's ________ contains over 3,500 handguns and 2,000 shoulder weapons and is used for identifying gun parts and locating serial numbers.

41) In addition to problems with backlogs of cases at crime labs, both state and local labs reported that their main concern for their DNA programs was the ________.

42) ________ consists of molecules that carry the body's genetic information and establish each person as separate and distinct.

43) In a recent case, the court concluded that latent fingerprint identification evidence, as produced by the FBI's procedures, met the requirements of admissibility established by Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals, Inc. 44) The ________ is used in the national, state, and local index-system networks to link typing results from unresolved crimes with cases in multiple jurisdictions or persons convicted of offenses specified in the data-banking laws passed by local jurisdictions.

45) A(n) ________ search is conducted when a DNA sample collected from a crime does not match any of the samples in the database.

46) The ________, founded in 1992, is a nonprofit legal organization founded for the purpose of exonerating wrongfully convicted people through DNA testing.

47) As a joint program of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms (ATF), and the FBI, the ________ integrates all the elements of Ceasefire and Brasscatcher (both former ATF programs) and Drugfire (an FBI program).

48) The Next Generation Identification (NGI) program employs the ________ to search millions of photos via facial recognition software, algorithms that offer enhanced searches for cold cases, and a pilot program for a repository of photos of the irises of criminals.

49) The ________ Crime Laboratory is one of the largest and most comprehensive forensic laboratories and is the only full-service forensic laboratory.

50) The ________ unit of the FBI laboratory is called on to restore obliterated or altered numbers on such things as firearms, sewing machines, outboard motors, etc.

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51) Define "forensic science" and "criminalistics."

52) Describe the measures of effectiveness of crime laboratories.

53) Discuss some of the important reasons why there is underutilization or total neglect of crime laboratories.

54) Distinguish the Frye test from the Daubert test regarding the admissibility of scientific evidence.

55) What are the primary DNA analysis techniques that have been used since 1985?

56) Describe AFIS. 57) Describe NIBIN and CODIS. 58) When body fluids are submitted to a laboratory for analysis, how are the specimens handled in light of concerns about the transmittal of hepatitis and AIDS? 59) What limitations are placed on the submission of evidence to the FBI laboratory?

60) Discuss the five factors due to which labs are finding it difficult to meet the increased demand for DNA analysis.

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 9 Injury and Death Investigations 1) Homicides are divided into two broad categories: A) murder and attempted murder.

B) felonious and nonfelonious homicides.

C) murder and homicide.

D) None of the answers is correct.

2) The individual best suited to conduct autopsies is a(n): A) endocrinologist.

B) pediatrician.

C) forensic pathologist.

D) toxicologist.

3) After death, the body cools from its normal internal temperature of ________ the surrounding environmental temperature.

A) 97.6E B) 98.6E C) 99.3E D) 99.7E 4) Which of the following statements is true of rigor mortis?

A) The process is accelerated in cooler environmental temperatures and retarded in warmer ones.

B) The process is retarded in cooler environmental temperatures and accelerated in warmer ones.

C) Body temperature and metabolic rate have no effect on how quickly rigor mortis sets in.

D) Once the body becomes stiff with rigor mortis, it remains stiff indefinitely.

5) Livor mortis is caused by: A) blows from a blunt object.

B) poisoning.

C) gunshot wounds.

D) accumulation of blood in the small vessels of the dependent areas secondary to gravity.

6) Which of the following statements is true of livor mortis?

A) Livor mortis develops rapidly, usually reaching its maximum coloration within an hour.

B) Areas supporting the weight of the body show the maximum amount of livor mortis.

C) Liver mortis can indicate whether a body has been moved after death.

D) If an individual dies lying on his or her back, livor mortis develops on the front of the body.

7) A cadaveric spasm typically involves a decedent's hand tightly clutching a weapon, usually a gun, a knife, or a razor at the moment of death. Cadaveric spasm is also commonly called a ________.

A) "livor mortis extendus" B) "death grip" C) "postmortem muscle collapse" D) "rigor mortis extendus" 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

8) The study of the insects associated with a dead body, which is used to determine the elapsed time since death, is called ________.

A) forensic serology B) forensic toxicology C) forensic entomology D) forensic odontology 9) Which of the following statements is true of a bullet entry wound?

A) The entry opening is smaller than the diameter of the bullet.

B) The slower the bullet speed, the smaller the entry opening.

C) In a favorable case, rifling marks on the bullet leave such a distinct mark in the contusion ring that the number of groves in the rifling can be counted.

D) All of the answers are correct.

10) Which metallic component of firearm discharge residues could be detected using chemical spot tests?

A) Barium B) Antimony C) Lead D) All of the answers are correct.

11) Which of the following statements is true of firearm residues?

A) The paraffin test for detecting firearm residues distinguishes between nitrates of gunpowder origin and those from other sources.

B) When a handgun is discharged, discrete particulate matter containing barium and lead are deposited on the thumb and the forefinger.

C) If a person has discharged a handgun, firearm discharge residues should appear only on the palm of the hand that fired the weapon.

D) Determining whether an individual fired a gun is primarily based on absolute quantities of primer residue on the hands.

12) Incised wounds are inflicted by: A) blunt objects.

B) gunshots.

C) ice picks.

D) sharp-edged instruments.

13) Which type of wounds typically bleeds freely and characteristically is accompanied by bruising around the edges?

A) Puncture wounds B) Lacerations C) Defense wounds D) Any of the above wounds, depending on the type of weapon that was used to cause the injury

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14) Ice picks, leather punches, and screwdrivers are capable of producing ________ that are normally small, have little or no bleeding, and can be easily overlooked.

A) puncture wounds B) lacerations C) defense wounds D) incised wounds 15) Which of the following statements is true of ligature strangulation?

A) Females predominate as victims.

B) Suicides and accidents involving death by the use of a ligature are quite common.

C) This mechanism of death is quite different from that of hanging.

D) Consciousness is lost in 45 to 60 seconds.

16) According to the textbook, there are nine methods most commonly employed in suicides.

Which of the following is not one of the methods?

A) Shooting B) Jumping from high places C) Cutting and piercing D) Electrocution 17) When death occurs as a result of suicidal hanging, livor mortis is most pronounced: A) in the lower portion of the arms and legs.

B) around the jaw.

C) around the face and lips.

D) All of the answers are correct.

18) Which of the following can serve as evidence in establishing drowning as the cause of death?

A) The mastoid cells of the ear have hemorrhaged.

B) There may be water in the stomach and duodenum.

C) Algae and other marine particles may be found in the stomach and adhering to the sides of the air passages.

D) All of the answers are correct.

19) Which of the following is a characteristic of an ideal poison?

A) It is chemically unstable.

B) It has a delayed onset of action.

C) It has a strong odor and dark color.

D) It is generally insoluble in water.

20) The gas most frequently involved in medico-legal investigations is: A) carbon dioxide.

B) carbon monoxide.

C) nitrogen.

D) hydrogen.

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21) Identify a characteristic of victims of opiate overdose.

A) Their heart rate and breathing increase rapidly.

B) Their pupils are maximally dilated due to opiate stimulation.

C) Their extremities, as well as the lips and tongue, frequently turn pale.

D) Their lungs have fluid accumulation, inhibiting oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange.

22) Which of the following statements about suicide is incorrect?

A) Suicides notes are not left in most suicides.

B) In the United States, the attempted suicide rate is higher for women than men.

C) There is no difference between note writers and non-note writers in the methods used to kill themselves.

D) If women use a firearm to commit suicide, the fatal wound is usually in the body rather than the head.

23) During a fire death, the victim's skull may be fractured. The investigator must do a careful examination to determine if the fracture is implosive or explosive. What does an implosive fracture indicate?

A) It may have been caused by a fall.

B) It may be evidence of a previous felonious assault or homicide.

C) It may result from a collapsed structural member.

D) It may have been any of the preceding.

24) The so-called pugilistic attitude of the body is: A) a natural result of the dehydrating effect caused by the heat from a fire.

B) an indicator that the victim was attempting to fight off his or her attacker when he or she died.

C) commonly seen in older victims but less common in those under the age of 45.

D) dependent on the temperature of the fire and how long the victim was alive after the fire began.

25) Identify a true statement about spree killers.

A) They are aware of the consequences and control their emotions.

B) They are highly organized and plan their killing.

C) They kill within a given period of time or time breaks.

D) They choose victims who are similar in age.

26) Which of the following is a myth about serial killers?

A) Serial killers are all white males.

B) Serial killers are all dysfunctional loners.

C) Serial killers are only motivated by sex.

D) All of the answers are correct.

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27) Which of the following is not a type of offense reported to the National Center for the Analysis of Violent Crime (NCAVC) for analysis?

A) Sexually oriented murder or assault by mutilation or torture, dismemberment, violent sexual trauma, or asphyxiation B) Mass murder C) Robbery murder and nonfatal robbery with extreme violence D) Bank robbery in which the teller was murdered 28) Misadventure is death occurring during the commission of a lawful or an unlawful act when the slayer has no intent to hurt and there is not criminal negligence.

29) Using a dead body evidence checklist will help both the investigator and the medical examiner in systematically following all the steps necessary to be certain that no physical evidence is overlooked.

30) Within 1-3 hours of death, the muscles of the body become increasingly rigid and the joints freeze. This condition is called algor mortis.

31) Bacteria are normal inhabitants of the body, and they proliferate after death. The different rates and types of decomposition a body undergoes depend on the environment, and all areas may not deteriorate at the same rate.

32) The maggot-infested remains of a body can still provide an estimate of the time of death.

This is accomplished by inspection of the blow flies on the body and an analysis of the oldest insect stage.

33) When a bullet strikes a body, the skin is first pushed in and then perforated while in the stretched state. The entrance wound will be larger than the exit wound because the bullet deforms after stretching the skin, and there will not be as much of the bullet to exit the body.

34) A contact bullet wound is made when the muzzle of the weapon is pressed against the body when the shot is fired.

35) In a close shot, powder residues occur on the object fired at in the form of incompletely and completely burned powder.

36) Shotgun pellets very rarely exit the body except when used as instruments of suicide in the chest region.

37) Contrary to random killings, mass murder involves the killing of several innocent people (four or more) at an unknown, unexpected moment and at or about the same time.

38) At one time the weapon most frequently used in assaults resulting in ________ was the ice pick.

39) ________ are suffered by victims attempting to protect themselves from an assault, often by a knife or club.

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40) In most cases of ________, the assailant uses more force than is necessary to subdue and kill the victim, resulting in marks of violence being frequently present on the skin of the neck.

41) For an investigator, a major concern in an apparent suicide case is to make certain that the death was self-induced and not the result of a ________.

42) Hangings are sometimes accidental and not suicidal. An individual could be in a modified hanging position while masturbating and accidentally slip and knock over the object on which he or she is standing, resulting in an accidental death known as ________.

43) ________ hemorrhaging in the eyes occurs when vessels in the eye bleed because blood pressure increases in response to compression around the neck.

44) A(n) ________ is concerned with the identification and recognition of poisons, with their physiological effects on humans and animals, and with their antidotes.

45) Burns are medically classified into four types. ________ are superficial and limited to the outer layers of skin.

46) The so-called ________ of a body is a natural result of the dehydrating effect caused by the heat from a fire and is not related to the cause or manner of death.

47) ________ is described as a number of murders (four or more) occurring during the same incident, with no distinctive time period between the murders.

48) Discuss the differences between felonious and nonfelonious homicides.

49) What is the purpose of an autopsy? What other information can be obtained from an autopsy?

50) Discuss why estimating the time of death can be problematic.

51) What is forensic entomology and how do entomologists help in estimating time of death?

52) Describe the scientific methods employed to detect firearm residues.

53) Describe an incised wound, a stab wound, and a laceration.

54) How does manual strangulation result in death?

55) Discuss the sexual differences in suicidal behavior between men and women.

56) How are burns classified?

57) What are the common motives in fire deaths?

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58) What are the types of offenses and incidents that must be reported to the National Center for the Analysis of Violent Crime (NCAVC) for examination?

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 10 Sex-Related Offenses 1) Which statement about the type and sequence of sexual acts occurring during an assault is accurate?

A) A rapist reveals a great deal about himself and the motivation behind the assault through verbal activity with the victim.

B) Rapists are never polite nor do they ever express concern for the victim.

C) The attitude of the suspect is of no importance unless he/she was under the influence of alcohol and/or drugs at the time of the assault.

D) Most rapists take no action to keep them from being identified by their victims.

2) During a rape, how does the rapist signal an attitudinal change?

A) Verbally B) Physically C) Sexually D) All of the answers are correct.

3) Which of the following should investigators do when dealing with transgender victims of sexual assault?

A) Investigators should document the assault using consistent and appropriate gender pronouns while addressing the transgender victim to maximize cooperation and minimize further trauma.

B) Police should consider a transgender person's reticence to cooperate with police in sexualassault investigations as defensiveness or as an indication of deception.

C) Police should include questions about the appearance or gender identity of the victim even if they are unrelated to the assault.

D) When interviewing transgender victims, investigators should call them by a legal name even if it is no longer in use.

4) Which of the following is a reason why women do not report rape to the police?

A) Embarrassment B) Apprehension C) Fear of reprisal D) All of the answers are correct.

5) Which of the following is a police officer's first responsibility when responding to a report of a rape call?

A) Attending to the victim's well-being, including medical attention if required B) Preserving evidence before obtaining medical attention in order to prevent the evidence from being contaminated C) Establishing the crime scene and keeping all unnecessary people out to protect the evidence D) Preserving evidence before obtaining medical attention in order to prevent the evidence from being contaminated, and establishing the crime scene and keeping all unnecessary people out to protect the evidence

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6) Which of the following statements is true about semen?

A) It is a grayish white fluid, produced in the male reproductive organ, that is ejaculated at the time of orgasm.

B) It is a tadpole-like organism that fertilizes the female egg.

C) It is a body fluid produced by females during sexual intercourse.

D) It is pubic hair found on the suspect and the victim.

7) In the context of the victim of a sexual assault and the physical evidence, which of the following statements is true about semen?

A) The presence of semen is evidence that a rape occurred, and its absence means a rape never occurred.

B) In liquid form, semen has a chlorinelike odor, and when dried it has a starch like consistency.

C) If a rape was committed by a male who is sterile, then sperm rather than semen will be present.

D) DNA typing is conducted on semen, not the sperm.

8) Which of the following statements is true about sperm?

A) It is a viscid whitish fluid, produced in the male reproductive organ, that is ejaculated at the time of orgasm.

B) It is a tadpole-like organism that fertilizes the female egg.

C) It is a body fluid produced by females during sexual intercourse.

D) It is pubic hair found on the suspect and the victim.

9) Which of the following statements is true about the collection of a rape victim's clothing?

A) If the victim is still wearing the clothes worn during the incident, she should undress over a clean cloth or large paper mat so that any evidence that may be dislodged from her clothes is not lost.

B) If the victim was forced to disrobe before the attack, it is not necessary to collect the clothing.

C) When collecting the victim's clothing, the underwear is most important as it is worn closest to the body where the attack occurred.

D) The evidence most frequently obtained from the victim's clothing is DNA from semen.

10) Which of the following statements is true about the collection of a sexual assault victim's clothing?

A) Underpants are the only item of a victim's clothing that should be recovered for a forensic examination.

B) If a victim was forced to disrobe before the sexual attack, it is highly unlikely that hair, semen, or fibers from the suspect's clothing would have been deposited on her clothing.

C) The evidence most frequently obtained from a victim's clothing consists of fibers from the suspect's clothing and loose pubic hairs.

D) Underpants are unlikely to be contaminated with stains that interfere with a laboratory examination.

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11) Developments in DNA technology within the past 15 years have added a new dimension to rape investigation. How can DNA analysis, combined with careful hair and fiber analysis, assist a rape investigation?

A) It can describe the clothes worn by the suspect.

B) It can give an idea of the suspect's stature, age, hair color, or similar information.

C) It can significantly limit the officer's search for the suspect.

D) All of the answers are correct.

12) Manufacturers produce many types of condoms with latex rubber condoms being the largest number in existence due to the lesser cost associated with them. Manufacturers add other substances known as exchangeable traces. Which of the following is not an exchangeable trace?

A) Particulates B) Lubricants C) Powder D) Spermicide 13) Many condom brands contain a liquid lubricant and are classified as either wet or dry. What, if any, major difference exists between the two types of condoms?

A) Wet condoms use water-based lubricants, whereas dry condom lubricants are not waterbased.

B) Wet condoms are made from lamb membranes, whereas dry condoms are latex rubber.

C) Wet condoms are made from polyurethane plastic, whereas dry condoms are latex rubber.

D) There is no significant difference between wet and dry condoms.

14) How can condom trace evidence assist investigators in a rape case?

A) By helping prove corpus delicti B) By providing evidence of penetration C) By linking the acts of serial rapists D) All of the answers are correct.

15) The side effects of the date-rape drug Rohypnol include all of the following except ________.

A) muscle relaxation B) increased excitation C) sedation D) reduction in anxiety 16) Rohypnol, also known as flunitrazepam, belongs to a class of drugs called ________.

A) benzodiazepines B) barbiturates C) amphetamines D) delirants

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17) Which of the following describes the effects of Rohypnol?

A) Skeletal muscle relaxation B) Sedation and reduction in anxiety C) Eight to ten times more potent than Valium D) All of the answers are correct.

18) Which of the following is not a street name for gamma hydroxybutyrate or GHB as listed in the textbook?

A) Tarboy B) Georgia home boy C) Goop D) Liquid ecstasy 19) When laboratories conduct drug screening tests in order to identify drugs that might have been used in a sexual assault, which category of drugs should they be screening for?

A) Benzodiazepine, muscle relaxants, and sleep aids B) Antihistamines, cocaine, and marijuana C) Ketamines, opiates, and other substances that could depress the central nervous system D) All of the answers are correct.

20) According to the textbook, what is the most common mode of sexual expression among homosexual men?

A) Anal intercourse B) Fellatio (mouth to penis oral sex) C) Mutual masturbation D) Bestiality 21) ________ is noncoital sex—usually anal or oral sex.

A) Bestiality B) Oral copulation C) Sodomy D) Insertion 22) Psychosexual wounds may be present in homosexual or heterosexual homicides. Which of the following is an example of a psychosexual wound?

A) Cutting the throat of a victim B) Stabbing wounds to the throat and chest of a victim C) Attacks to the breasts of females and to genitalia D) All of the answers are correct.

23) A male is chained to a rack to be whipped by a master who is dressed in a special leather suit, while the slave might wear a leather discipline mask in a display of submission. This is an example of ________.

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24) What is the major purpose of a psychological autopsy in suicides?

A) To form a logical understanding of death from tangible physical evidence B) To form a logical understanding of death from documented life events C) To form a logical understanding of death from intangible, often illusive, emotional factors D) All of the answers are correct.

25) ________ is defined as an analysis of a decedent's thoughts, feelings, and behavior, conducted through interviews with persons who knew him or her, to determine whether a death was an accident or suicide.

A) Clinical autopsy B) Academic autopsy C) Anatomical autopsy D) Psychological autopsy 26) Sex is a major motivator and modifier of human behavior.

27) When theft occurs during a rape, the items taken fall into three categories: evidentiary, valuables, and vehicles.

28) Many deaf victims may be reluctant to reach out to agencies that serve sexual assault victims because most of the providers are hearing and do not have systems for effectively communicating with deaf people.

29) Semen that contains sperm as well as hair that has the root attached can now be identified, through DNA typing, as coming from a specific individual.

30) The motility of sperm in the vagina is long, measured in days rather than hours.

31) Manufacturers of condoms add substances to their product, and these are known as exchangeable traces.

32) The term "vivisection" is usually associated with postmortem examination of human remains to determine the cause of death.

33) A(n) ________ is, simply, a law enforcement investigation that focuses on the actions and choices of the offender—not the actions or inactions of the victim.

34) A(n) ________ seeks to reduce the physical and psychological trauma to the victim of sexual violence by responding in a compassionate, sensitive, and non-judgmental manner.

35) Police officers use a ________ as the easiest and most efficient way to collect DNA from a suspect.

36) Exchangeable traces, substances that have been added to condoms by the manufacturer, include particulates, lubricants, and ________.

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37) Both wet and dry condoms may contain the spermicide ________.

38) Sexual offenders' increasing use of ________, such as Rohypnol and gamma hydroxybutyrate, as tools of submission accounts for much of the complexity surrounding these cases.

39) ________ is often marketed as an antidepressant and a bodybuilding and weight control supplement. The drug's intoxicating effects have led to its increasing popularity at parties and nightclubs where in some cases it becomes the tool of sexual offenders.

40) There may be certain ________ wounds present in homosexual and heterosexual homicides.

For example, this may include cutting of the throat, attacks to the breasts of females, and attack to the genitals.

41) ________ is noncoital sex—usually anal or oral sex.

42) A masochistic practice associated with sexual asphyxia is the practice of ________, or masochism involving the genitals.

43) A(n) ________ autopsy is an analytical statement prepared by a mental health professional based upon the deceased's thoughts, feelings, and behavior.

44) What are some of the major reasons that women do not report rape?

45) Why is the discovery of semen, sperm, and hair valuable in rape investigations?

46) Why is the absence of semen fairly common in rape cases?

47) What are condom exchangeable traces composed of?

48) How can condom trace evidence be of value in linking acts of serial rapists?

49) What are the effects of Rohypnol?

50) In executing a search warrant in the investigation of a possible drug-facilitated sexual assault, what kinds of evidence should be collected?

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 11 Crimes Against Children 1) While abusers use a wide variety of instruments to assault children, the two most common are ________.

A) belt and electric cord B) hairbrush and clothes hanger C) clothes hanger and electric cord D) electric cord and hairbrush 2) Identify a true statement about assaults against children.

A) Children who have been abused display observable bruises during all seasons as opposed to warm months.

B) Bruises among physically abused children are less likely to be clustered.

C) According to research, bruises indicative of physical abuse were located on bony prominences, such as knees and elbows.

D) Fractures, in particular, are the most common signs of physical abuse against children.

3) Which type of burn injury is a partial-thickness burn, with part of the skin being damaged, blisters containing clear fluid, and pink underlying tissue?

A) First degree B) Second degree C) Third degree D) Fourth degree 4) ________ are the most common type of burn injury to a child.

A) Spill injuries B) Scald burns C) Contact burns D) Immersion burns 5) Which of the following is not one of the commonly recognized deliberate immersion burn characteristics?

A) Doughnut pattern in the buttocks B) Sparing of the soles of the feet C) A nonuniform depth of burn pattern D) Stocking or glove pattern burns 6) The most common type of instrument used to inflict contact burns in child abuse cases is ________.

A) caustic chemicals B) cigarettes C) hot food D) brush burns

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7) Which of the following is not usually a characteristic external appearance of a sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) victim?

A) State of malnutrition and dehydration B) Wet diaper full of stool C) Bruise-like marks found on the head or body limbs D) Vomitus on the face 8) The severe intentional application of violent force, in one or more episodes, that results in intracranial injuries to the child is called ________.

A) sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) B) shaken-baby syndrome (SBS) C) baby inguinal trauma (BIT) D) preterm birth 9) Which of the following statements most accurately describes Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy (MSBP)?

A) It is a form of child abuse in which the abuser fabricates an illness in a child.

B) It is a form of sex abuse typically perpetrated by a sibling.

C) Most offenders are fathers.

D) The mortality rate for victims of MSBP is quite low.

10) Which of the following statements is true about situational child molesters?

A) The number of situational child molesters is smaller and increasing slower than that of preferential child molesters.

B) Situational child molesters have a true sexual preference for children.

C) For situational child molesters, sex with children may range from a once-in-a-lifetime act to a long-term pattern of behavior.

D) Members of lower socioeconomic groups tend to be underrepresented among situational child molesters.

11) Which of the following characteristics most aptly applies to situational child molesters?

A) They have a true sexual preference for children.

B) They usually have fewer number of different child victims.

C) They never abuse anyone except children.

D) They are always members of higher socioeconomic groups.

12) Situational child molesters tend to follow certain patterns of behavior. Which of the following in not one of these patterns?

A) Seduction B) Regressed C) Morally indiscriminate D) Inadequate

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13) Which of the following behavioral patterns of a situational child molester is the most difficult to define?

A) Morally indiscriminate B) Regressed C) Inadequate D) Sexually indiscriminate 14) Which type of child molester has a sexual preference for children, focuses his or her sexual fantasies and erotic imagery on children, and engages in highly predictable sexual behavior?

A) Preferential child molesters B) Regressed child molesters C) Inadequate child molesters D) Sexually indiscriminate child molesters 15) A(n) ________ child molester is similar to the inadequate situational child molester, except that he has a definite sexual preference for children and his selection of only children as victims is more predictable.

A) introverted B) sexually indiscriminate C) sadistic D) morally indiscriminate 16) There are three developmental issues that are important when allegations of sexual abuse arise. Which of the following is not one of these issues?

A) A child's developmental level relative to other children in his or her age group B) A child's ability to describe the offenses against him or her C) A child's developmental level with regard to sexuality D) A child's ability to respond adequately to interviews and to testify in court 17) Anatomically detailed dolls, when used properly, can facilitate and enhance interviews with children. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) They can help establish rapport with the interviewer and reduce stress.

B) They can reduce vocabulary problems.

C) They can establish competency and enhance the quality of information received from the child.

D) All of the answers are correct.

18) Sexually abused children are more likely to demonstrate certain behaviors. Which of the following is not one of those behaviors?

A) Poor self-esteem B) Aggressive behaviors C) Extroverted behaviors D) Fearfulness

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19) Which of the following is a legal description of child pornography?

A) The sexually explicit reproduction of a child's image, including sexually explicit photographs.

B) The permanent record of the sexual abuse or exploitation of an actual child.

C) The visual depiction of a minor (as defined by statute) that is sexually explicit (not necessarily obscene unless required by state law).

D) All of the answers are correct.

20) Where does much of the commercial child pornography distributed in the United States originate from?

A) Underground child pornography rings, primarily on the West Coast of the United States B) Mexico C) Foreign countries D) Producers in New York City 21) Which of the following is a use of child pornography?

A) Sexual arousal and gratification of pedophiles.

B) To lower a child's inhibitions and for blackmail.

C) A medium of exchange and for profit.

D) All of the answers are correct.

22) Which federal law deals with child pornography and the Internet?

A) The Child Pornography Prevention Act (CPPA).

B) The USA Patriot Act (USAPA).

C) The Federal Mann Act. D) All of the answers are correct.

23) Which statement about the AMBER Plan is the most accurate?

A) The AMBER Plan is a voluntary partnership between law enforcement agencies and broadcasters to activate an urgent news bulletin in child abduction cases.

B) The AMBER Plan is a mandatory partnership between law enforcement agencies and broadcasters to activate an urgent news bulletin in the most serious child abduction cases.

C) It is a system to alert police officers when a pedophile is seen lurking around schools.

D) It is a plan in which all hospitals have to prevent infant abduction.

24) Sixty-five years ago, surveys of public school teachers indicated the most pressing classroom problems were ________.

A) tardiness, talkative students, and gum chewing B) drugs and sexual assaults C) drugs and weapons on campus D) drugs, sex offenses, and assaults against teachers

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25) A threat is an expression of the intent to do harm or act out violently against someone or something. Threat assessment rests on two critical principles: that all threats and all threateners are not equal and that ________.

A) all threats must be treated equally B) all threats must be evaluated to determine what action, if any, should be taken C) most threateners are unlikely to carry out their threats D) all threats must be treated equally and most threateners are unlikely to carry out their threats 26) In the context of threat assessment, leakage occurs when: A) a threatener has low tolerance for frustration.

B) a student reveals clues to feelings that may signal an impending act.

C) there is a sign of depression in a student prior to a violent act.

D) a student uses masks his or her low self-esteem.

27) Threats can be classified into four categories: a direct threat, an indirect threat, a veiled threat, and ________.

A) an immediate threat B) an impending threat C) an incidental threat D) a conditional threat 28) What is meant by the term "rapid response deployment" or "quick action deployment"?

A) It refers to training patrol officers in responding to incidents of school violence.

B) It refers to a new method of training SWAT teams to deal with school violence.

C) It refers to training school personnel on how to defuse a potentially violent situation.

D) It refers to teaching students how to extricate themselves safely from a violent situation.

29) The most common cause of child deaths is physical abuse, often perpetrated by their own parents.

30) Spill/splash injuries occur when a child falls or is placed into a container of hot liquid.

31) A contact burn occurs when a child's skin comes into contact with a flame or a hot solid object.

32) Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is a crime.

33) The phrase "shaken-baby syndrome" was coined to explain instances in which severe intracranial trauma occurs in the absence of signs of external head trauma.

34) Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy is a psychological disorder in which a parent or caretaker attempts to elicit sympathy for himself or herself by injuring or inducing illness in a child.

35) Kenneth V. Lanning, supervisory special agent of the Federal Bureau of Investigation, divides child molesters into two categories: situational and preferential.

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36) A regressed offender usually has high self-esteem and high coping skills and turns to children as a sexual substitute.

37) A preferential child molester engages children in sexual activity by seducing them—courting them with attention, affection, and gifts.

38) The sadistic pattern of behavior characterizes the offender who has a sexual preference for children but who, in order to be aroused or gratified, must inflict pain or suffering on the victim.

39) Social media apps such as Facebook lack built-in safeguards against child predators.

40) Bullying is defined as "aggressive behavior or intentional harm by an individual or group repeated over time that involves an imbalance of power."

41) An aid in interviewing children who have been sexually abused or have witnessed such abuse are ________ dolls with all body parts.

42) ________ can be behaviorally (not legally) defined as the sexually explicit reproduction of a child's image and includes sexually explicit photographs.

43) Tourism organized with the primary purpose of facilitating the effecting of a commercialsexual relationship with a child is called ________.

44) The ________ (CPPA) makes it a crime to sell, possess with intent to sell, download, or produce child pornography or any visual depiction that is intended to represent or resemble child pornography.

45) The best tool to protect children from Internet crime is ________ and parental involvement.

46) ________ is defined as using the Internet, cellular phone, or other technology to harass another person.

47) Sending by cell phone or posting sexually explicit photos, images, or videos is defined as ________ in the digital age, and it is a common part of many romantic relationships.

48) The most egregious of child pornography cases have often involved ________, or threats to expose a sexual image in order to make a person do something (most often pay money) or for other reasons, such as revenge or humiliation.

49) ________ is the taking of a child less than one year of age by a nonfamily member.

50) The ________ is a voluntary partnership between law enforcement agencies, state transportation officials, and radio, television, and Internet broadcasters to activate an urgent news bulletin in child abduction cases.

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51) A threat is an expression of the intent to do harm or act out violently against someone or something, and threat assessment rests on two critical principles: that all threats and threateners are not equal and that most threateners are ________ to carry out their threats.

52) ________ occurs when a student intentionally or unintentionally reveals clues to feelings, thoughts, fantasies, attitudes, or intentions that may signal an impending violent act.

53) List the characteristics of a sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) victim's appearance.

54) What is the mechanism of injuries of shaken-baby syndrome (SBS)?

55) What role does the physician play in child abuse cases?

56) Three types of developmental issues are important when allegations of sexual abuse arise.

What are they?

57) In the context of interviewing molested children, what are some of the important principles that people working with young children should be aware of?

58) What are some of the benefits of using anatomically detailed dolls in interviewing children?

59) List some of the important behavioral indicators of child sexual abuse.

60) How is child pornography behaviorally defined?

61) During the parental interview in a child abduction case, what information should responding officers seek to locate the missing child?

62) What appears to be the major motivating factor that drives female offenders to abduct infants?

63) What are the major features of the Jacob Wetterling Crimes Against Children and Sexually Violent Offender Registration Act?

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 12 Human Trafficking 1) Identify the accurate statement about the Mann Act. A) It prohibits the transportation of individuals across state lines for purposes of engaging in prostitution or other criminal sexual activity.

B) It is a legislation requiring that states disclose information about registered sex offenders to the public.

C) It federalizes the crime of operating a prostitution business.

D) It provides for the monetary repayment of victims by the defendant in an amount commensurate with the servitude into which they were forced.

2) The ________ is available to immigrants who are victims of a wide range of serious crimes and provides victims with a means to stabilize their legal status.

A) T visa B) gold visa C) U visa D) platinum visa 3) Which type of visa is available to victims of trafficking who can prove that they have complied with reasonable requests to assist in the investigation or prosecution of their case and would suffer severe hardship if repatriated?

A) The T visa B) The R visa C) The Z visa D) The platinum visa 4) Which program involves a collaboration of federal and state law enforcement authorities and victim-assistance provider and focuses on combating the prostitution of children?

A) Child Advocate Victim Exchange (CAVE).

B) The Innocence Lost Initiative.

C) Kids Involved in Prostitution Prevention (KIPP).

D) All of the answers are correct.

5) Which of the following statements defines the term "seasoning"?

A) It is a robbery that involves a minimal amount of casual planning and may be repeated several times in rapid succession.

B) It is a computerized-theft technique in which dollar amounts are automatically rounded down and the difference is diverted to the perpetrator's special account.

C) It is a process by which the police conduct an immediate eyewitness identification of someone they have temporarily detained.

D) It is a technique employed to break a victim's will and separate the victim from his or her previous life so that he or she does not know where to turn for help.

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6) The key difference between trafficking and smuggling is ________.

A) who the victim is B) an individual's freedom of choice C) who initiated the illegal entry D) who stands to profit from the activity 7) ________ occurs when someone is paid to assist another in the illegal crossing of borders.

A) Smuggling B) Trafficking C) Bootlegging D) Peddling 8) When smuggling a person into a country, the activity ends: A) after the border is crossed.

B) once the person reaches his or her destination.

C) only when the smuggler says it does.

D) once the time of service is completed.

9) Which of the following statements is true about trafficking?

A) It entails forced exploitation of a person for labor or services.

B) It is voluntary.

C) It is always international in nature.

D) It is voluntary, and an individual typically contracts to be taken across the border.

10) Which of the following statements is true about smuggling?

A) It need not entail the physical movement of a person.

B) It is a crime against the nation's sovereignty.

C) It is not voluntary.

D) It is always local in nature.

11) Which of the following is the most effective way to market trafficked women in the United States?

A) Door-to-door sales B) Advertisements in personal columns C) Internet chat rooms D) Flyers on windshields 12) ________ is defined as a police special operation using female officers serving as decoys who pose as prostitutes and wait for men to approach them for the purpose of purchasing sex.

A) Honey trapping B) The third degree C) A reverse sting D) Strip searching 13) Early childhood abuse or neglect is a strong predictor of prostitution for boys.

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14) Pornography is also often used to normalize the practice of prostitution during the "seasoning" process by weakening a child's resistance.

15) Smuggling is a crime against the right of each person to be free from involuntary servitude.

16) Congress enacted the ________ in 1970 to "seek the eradication of organized crime."

17) The ________ is a collaboration of federal and state law enforcement authorities and victimassistance providers focused on combating the prostitution of children.

18) The ________ provides for the monetary repayment of victims by defendants in an amount commensurate with the servitude into which they were forced.

19) ________ occurs when someone is paid to assist another in the illegal crossing of borders.

20) A ________ is defined as a house or structure that is used primarily for the business of prostitution.

21) Discuss the psychological impact of sex trafficking and post-traumatic stress disorder.

22) Discuss the differences between human smuggling and trafficking.

23) Discuss how women are recruited for the sex trade.

24) Discuss the indicators of a venue where sex trafficking may be found.

25) Discuss the interview considerations when interviewing a sex-trafficking victim.

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 13 Robbery 1) Where does the importance of robbery reside?

A) It resides in its economics.

B) It resides in its frequency and the potential for violence.

C) It resides in its resistance to investigative efforts.

D) All of the answers are correct.

2) Robbery is a face-to-face confrontation between the victim and the perpetrator. Why is it then that many times witnesses are unable to provide much descriptive information about the perpetrator?

A) The perpetrator wore a mask of some type.

B) The witnesses are able to provide information about the suspect.

C) The witnesses are often upset and may have seen the perpetrator only briefly.

D) The witnesses observe the perpetrator but are reluctant to describe him/her for fear of reprisals.

3) Which of the following statements is true about trespassory?

A) It is the illegal taking of property.

B) It is the carrying away of the property taken.

C) It is the taking of property.

D) None of the answers is correct.

4) Which of the following statements is true about robbery?

A) The property taken in a robbery must be taken illegally by the robber.

B) It is necessary to show that a great distance was involved in the carrying away of property.

C) The object of a robbery must be real estate or things attached to a land as opposed to personal property.

D) The fact that force or the threat of force was used to secure a property from a victim often falls short of convincing a jury of an accused's intent to deprive a victim of the use of that property.

5) In the context of the three styles of robberies, a prime example of the ________ is a robbery in which victims are physically overpowered by sudden, crude force and in which "scores" are generally small.

A) selective raid B) ambush C) planned operation D) stealth raid 6) Which of the following statements is true?

A) A primary tactical objective of an officer responding to a robbery-in-progress call is perpetrator apprehension.

B) In 40 percent of robberies, weapons are used.

C) Robbery is basically an interracial crime.

D) None of the answers are correct.

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7) Identify the three styles of robbery.

A) Ambush, selective raid, and planned operation B) Cowboy, group, and professional C) Unplanned, simple plan, and detailed plan D) Cowboy, simple plan, and selective raid 8) The ________ is a style of robbery that involves no planning and depends almost entirely on the element of surprise.

A) ambush B) selective raid C) planned operation D) stealth raid 9) A minimal amount of casual planning is indicative of the ________.

A) ambush B) selective raid C) planned operation D) stealth raid 10) Which of the following statements is true about the victim in 93 percent of visible street robberies?

A) He or she is alone.

B) He or she is going to or from a leisure activity.

C) He or she is within five miles of his or her home.

D) All of the answers are correct.

11) Youthful robbers are particularly likely to commit strong-armed robberies—also referred to as ________—in which no weapons are involved and in which they suddenly physically attack and beat the victim, taking cash, jewelry, wallets, purses, and other valuables.

A) kidnap assaults B) muggings C) felony assaults D) aggravated battery 12) The term "carjacking" originated in ________.

A) Detroit B) Chicago C) New Orleans D) Los Angeles 13) Which of the following statements is true about home-invasion robberies?

A) They typically target the residence.

B) They typically target the person.

C) They typically target the potential for "gain."

D) They typically target only those homes with large amounts of opioid drugs.

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14) Which of the following statements is true about automated teller machine (ATM) robberies?

A) The victim is with an acquaintance 96 percent of the time.

B) Typically, the suspect is unarmed.

C) Typically, the victim is a lone woman who is using the machine between 8 p.m. and midnight.

D) They typically involve the theft of large amounts of cash.

15) Truck hijacking is most often committed by ________.

A) juveniles B) experienced armed robbers C) ex-truckers D) inexperienced armed robbers 16) Which of the following statements is true about truck hijacking?

A) A number of truck hijackings involve collusion on the part of the driver with those committing this specialized form of robbery.

B) Hijackers take what is valuable, with a preference for cargoes that are easy to dispose of and hard to trace.

C) Many truck hijackings happen in or near large cities because it is easy to dispose of the goods there.

D) The number one product of choice of truck hijackers involves trucks carrying large amounts of legal opioid drugs being delivered to pharmacies.

17) In the context of the three styles of robberies, which of the following is a characteristic of the planned operation?

A) It depends almost entirely on the element of surprise.

B) The likelihood of apprehension is more than that in the ambush and in the selective raid.

C) Scores are usually larger than the ambush and the selective raid.

D) There is always planned use of force.

18) In the context of bank robberies, professional bank robbers are likely to: A) target banks near closing or on Friday.

B) target banks when numerous customers are present, such as around midday.

C) be solitary offenders.

D) employ intimidation or physical or verbal threats.

19) In the context of bank robberies, amateur bank robbers are likely to: A) try and escape on foot or bicycle.

B) target banks when few customers are present, such as at opening time.

C) target banks early in the week.

D) display weapons, especially guns.

20) What is the main purpose of a greeter at a bank?

A) To welcome customers and aid them in conducting their bank business in the most efficient and effective manner and to promote goodwill.

B) To remotely trigger the dye pack as the robber leaves the bank with the money.

C) To welcome customers and reduce the anonymity of a would-be robber.

D) None of the answers is correct.

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21) Cash with sequential serial numbers that are recorded by the bank is ________.

A) a tracking device B) bait money C) a bandit barrier D) limiting cash access 22) ________ occurs when an officer's expectations are set to see one thing and this closes his or her mind to other eventualities.

A) Action stereotyping B) Physical stereotyping C) Situational stereotyping D) Racial stereotyping 23) An officer's previous experience with, and knowledge of, a particular location increases their vulnerability and susceptibility to ________.

A) action stereotyping B) physical stereotyping C) situational stereotyping D) racial stereotyping 24) ________ is an officer's expectations that the robber will be of a particular description.

A) Action stereotyping B) Physical stereotyping C) Situational stereotyping D) Racial stereotyping 25) Which of the following is the purpose of running a file check on robbery victims?

A) To see if there are any outstanding warrants on them.

B) To see if they gave their true identity.

C) To see if they have a history of making criminal complaints.

D) All of the answers are correct.

26) Due to its personal and often violent nature, robbery is one of the crimes most feared by the public, a fear that may be heightened by perceptions of police inability to deal effectively with robberies.

27) Robbery consists of the following elements: the (1) taking and (2) carrying away of (3) personal property of (4) another, with (5) the intent to deprive permanently, without (6) the use of force, fear, or threat of force.

28) Taxicab drivers and convenience-store personnel in particular are easy targets for robbery, because they often work alone at all hours of the day and night, with minimal or no protection from robbers, and a large part of the business they conduct is on a cash basis.

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29) In approximately 85 percent of robberies, the perpetrator is armed, primarily with either a gun or a knife.

30) The objective of the confrontation between a robber and a victim is to get the victim's immediate compliance.

31) The penalty for larceny is generally much higher than that for the crime of robbery.

32) Home-invasion robberies typically target those residences wherein the suspect believes there is a lot of "loot."

33) Convenience-store workers are among the occupational groups having the lowest risk for workplace violence.

34) Convenience stores account for approximately 50 percent of all reported robberies as these stores do a lot of business in cash, are open 24 hours per day, have many locations, and have little or no protection from robberies.

35) Truck hijacking is normally committed by experienced armed robbers acting on inside information.

36) To a great extent, bank robbers can be classified as amateur or professional based on known characteristics of the robbery—the number of offenders, use of weapons and disguises, efforts to defeat security, timing of the robbery, target selection, and means of getaway.

37) Bank robberies and, for that matter, most robberies appear to be well-planned offenses committed by professional criminals.

38) Research suggests that many bank robberies are spontaneous and opportunistic crimes that are often acts of desperation.

39) Getaway vehicles are more prevalent when there are ________ or more offenders.

40) Some banks use ________ to prevent stolen money from being used as they stain both the money and the robber.

41) Some banks conceal electronic ________ with the robbery money, thus aiding police in locating offenders.

42) Ninety-eight percent of robbed banks have interior surveillance cameras, but this does not appear to deter bank robbers. The reason for their perceived ineffectiveness is that they do not believe they will be ________.

43) The FBI recommends that banks install bullet-resistant glass, referred to as ________, between tellers and customers.

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44) Banks have employed a wide variety of ________ strategies that are designed to make the bank interior appear inhospitable to would-be robbers.

45) The primary tactical objectives of officers responding to a robbery call are ________ safety, officer protection, and tactical control of the scene.

46) ________ stereotyping occurs when an officer's expectations are set to see one thing and this closes his or her mind to other eventualities.

47) ________ stereotyping is an officer's expectations that the robber will be of a particular description.

48) Another aspect of ________ stereotyping is that the investigator may have difficulty in believing witnesses' descriptions.

49) What are the elements of the crime of robbery?

50) When is purse snatching a robbery?

51) Give a profile of visible street robberies.

52) Discuss how home invaders operate.

53) List some of the reasons why taxicab drivers have a higher homicide victimization rate than any other occupation in the United States.

54) In the context of guidelines set forth by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), discuss the best course of action for pharmacists and citizens to take should they find themselves in the middle of a robbery.

55) How are drivers confronted in truck-hijacking robberies?

56) List some of the actions banks can take to reduce the likelihood of robberies and minimize their losses.

57) In the context of robberies, what are action, physical, and situational stereotyping?

58) What considerations are required as you approach the scene of a robbery?

59) Why is it important to have a standard operating procedure (SOP) for robbery investigations?

60) Why should a file check be made of a robbery victim?

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 14 Burglary 1) Which of the following is a purpose of a sting operation?

A) Combating fences.

B) Identifying active criminals.

C) Recovering stolen property.

D) All of the answers are correct.

2) Most residential burglaries are characterized by entry through ________.

A) a window B) the roof C) an unlocked entry point D) a door 3) Which of the following best describes those persons most often arrested for burglary?

A) Males under 25 years of age who are on probation or parole.

B) Middle-aged males between 45 and 54 years of age.

C) White males under 15 years of age.

D) Males between 30 and 40 years of age.

4) Amateur burglars often operate on the basis of ________.

A) need B) information C) surveillance D) impulse 5) Which of the following statements is true about organized burglars?

A) Burglaries are usually their only source of income.

B) They pay "spotters" a 5% commission for information about a household.

C) They usually leave no physical evidence.

D) They usually operate in 3-4 person teams.

6) ________ burglaries occur when offenders select a target and quickly strike because they perceived that some type of immediate opportunity exists.

A) Instant B) Disorganized C) Opportunistic D) Disjointed

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7) Which of the following statements is true about disorganized burglars?

A) They generally live within walking, skateboarding, or bicycling distance from their targets.

B) They often accumulate several arrests for theft or burglary between adolescence and midadulthood.

C) They often have a legitimate job in a hands-on, flexible hours vocation such as tree trimming, delivery, or construction.

D) They are likely to be young and impulsive, and the offense is usually a type of social activity committed by several teenagers after school.

8) In ________ burglaries, the actual purpose of the burglaries is to instill fear in the victim and to display the offender's power over him/her.

A) organized B) targeted C) commissioned D) interpersonal 9) A method of burglary in which the offenders steal a car and drive it though the front door of a business, grab what they can, and leave is called a ________ burglary.

A) crash-and-go B) slash-and-cash C) smash-and-grab D) get-and-go 10) A burglary occurred, but no apparent force was used, and a point of entry or exit cannot be established. This type of burglary is called a(an) ________ entry.

A) mysterious B) insurance C) surreptitious D) accomplice 11) Which of the following is defined as the act of using a credit card or a similar plastic item to slip open or shim a spring-bolt lock that does not have an anti-shim device?

A) Lock picking B) Loiding C) Manual manipulation D) Flash 12) In most states, breaking into cars, recreational vehicles, and trailers constitutes burglary.

Which categories of burglars tend to target these vehicles?

A) Juveniles B) Amateurs C) Drug addicts D) Professionals

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13) Which of the following is indicative of a juvenile burglar?

A) Destructive acts of vandalism B) Removal of most valuable items C) After the burglary is complete, the burglars steal a car associated with the premises D) A semiorganized crime scene 14) Which of the following will help homeowners reduce the risk of residential burglary?

A) Stopping delivery of mail and newspaper when out of town.

B) Putting up "Beware of Dog" signs.

C) Using traditional timers to turn lights, radios, and televisions on/off/on at various times to make a home appear it is occupied.

D) All of the answers are correct.

15) The two most striking aspects of burglary are its frequency and economic impact.

16) Seeing lockpicking tools in plain view on the backseat of a car stopped for a traffic charge cannot be taken as evidence of intent to commit a burglary.

17) Female burglars generally spend more time planning a break-in than their male counterparts.

18) Males who plan burglaries are less likely than women to attempt disabling an alarm.

19) Unlike the other types of burglaries, disorganized burglaries are deliberately committed when some particular person is present.

20) Houses on cul-de-sacs are less likely to be burglarized except when there are farms or wooded land at their rear.

21) The weight or dimensions of property taken in a burglary may suggest the number of people involved in the offense.

22) A burglary with people on the premises is sometimes called a(n) ________.

23) ________ occurs when homes or businesses are attacked multiple times, usually within 30 days.

24) ________ discretely buy goods from burglars and other thieves in what is largely an underground/invisible economy, and they resell the stolen goods for a profit.

25) Describe the dimensions of the crime of burglary.

26) Discuss the elements of the crime of burglary.

27) Explain two investigative approaches to locating fences.

28) With respect to the possible illegal receiving of stolen property, what are the six indicators of bad-faith purchasing?

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 15 Larceny/Theft and White-Collar Crime 1) Which of the following is an example of tangible personal property?

A) Jewelry B) Stocks C) Bonds D) Copyrights 2) The primary federal agency responsible for investigating counterfeiting is the ________.

A) FBI B) Secret Service C) DEA D) CIA 3) The removal of a price sticker from one item for sale and replacing it with a less expensive sticker is an example of ________.

A) theft by trick B) theft of services C) theft by fraud D) theft by deception 4) The unauthorized use of another's credit card, using someone else's medical insurance card or Social Security number to get benefits are examples of ________.

A) theft by fraud B) theft of services C) theft by trick D) theft by receiving stolen property 5) Which of the following terms refer to the problem of significant losses to retailers caused by crews or rings of often mobile professional shoplifters?

A) Organized retail theft (ORT) B) Organized retail thrill seekers (ORTS) C) Organized retail crime (ORC) D) Organized gypsy gangs (OGG) 6) In the context of shoplifters, which of the following groups represents the majority of shoplifters?

A) Kleptomaniacs B) Amateurs C) Professionals D) Drug addicts

7) In the context of the five categories of shoplifters, identify a true statement about kleptomaniacs.

A) They usually steal merchandise in order to return it for cash, or sell to a "fence."

B) They often steal to exist and may be under the influence of alcohol.

C) They have a psychological compulsion to steal.

D) They generally take food items, alcoholic beverages, or clothing needed for personal use.

8) There are five types of shoplifters. Which of the following is not one of those types?

A) Kleptomaniac B) Thrill seekers C) Amateurs D) Vagrant 9) What has been referred to as the "crime of the new millennium"?

A) Identity theft B) Terrorism C) Organized crime D) Shoplifting 10) Scamming victims out of personal information on the Internet is accomplished by a technique known as ________.

A) smurfing B) shoulder smurfing C) skimming D) phishing 11) Once armed with enough stolen personal identification data, the process of identity theft is executed and follow-on crimes are committed. What term refers to the practice of the thief calling credit card companies, asking them to change the address "your" bill is mailed to and quickly running up charges on accounts?

A) Establishing a new life B) Phishing C) Account takeover D) Identity cloning 12) Which of the following is not one of the three most common ways identity thieves obtain personal information?

A) Stolen wallet B) Friends/relatives with access to the information C) Corrupt employees with access to the information D) Pickpockets 13) According to your textbook, which of the following may be the fastest growing sector of credit card fraud?

A) Asian gangs who obtain credit cards in your name and run up bills rapidly and leave the area B) Counterfeiting of credit cards C) Terrorist organizations that use credit card fraud to finance their operations D) Individuals who are unable to keep up with monthly payments on their credit cards and have to file bankruptcy, requiring other holders to make up the loss to the companies

14) A person who opens accounts at several banks, knowingly, issues a check that overdraws their account at bank 1, and then deposits a check in that account from their bank 2 account to cover the first worthless check is a ________.

A) thief B) check floater C) check kiter D) check forger 15) There are approximately 70,000 charities. Unfortunately, a very small number are frauds and create problems for legitimate charities. Which of the following is not one of the problems related to bogus charities as cited in the textbook?

A) People are scammed out of their money.

B) Public confidence in charities is undermined, making it harder for legitimate charities to raise funds for important causes.

C) People who donate to bogus charities run the risk of being in violation of the law.

D) People do not get a tax deduction.

16) Insurance frauds can be hard or soft. Which of the following statements is correct in reference to insurance fraud?

A) Soft fraud is also called opportunity fraud.

B) Soft fraud involves normally honest people who tell "little white lies" to collect reimbursements to which they are not entitled.

C) Soft fraud involves billing for services that was never rendered.

D) Soft fraud is also called opportunity fraud and involves normally honest people who tell "little white lies" to collect reimbursements to which they are not entitled.

17) Which of the following is a staged automobile accident with fraudulent intent?

A) Scooping B) Sudden impact C) Swoop and squat D) Bang-bang 18) An employee who fraudulently claims he or she was injured on the job would be committing: A) employee fraud.

B) employer fraud.

C) workers compensation fraud.

D) employee larceny.

19) What scam begins with a potential victim getting an unsolicited fax, email, or letter that purports to be from a current or former Nigerian governmental official or a relative of such, and requests assistance in getting money into the United States?

A) Pigeon drop scheme B) Nigerian 419 scheme C) Black Money/Wash Wash scheme D) Nigerian 419 scheme and Black Money/Wash Wash scheme

20) Why do criminals want to launder money?

A) To avoid prosecution.

B) To increase their profits.

C) To appear legitimate.

D) All of the answers are correct.

21) Money laundering involves three distinct steps: layering, integration, and ________.

A) displacement B) placement C) disintegration D) initiation 22) Placement is often done by ________, or making multiple deposits of cash, or buying multiple bank drafts, which are checks issued by one bank against funds deposited in the bank that authorize a second bank to make payment to the entity named in the draft.

A) smurfing B) shoulder smurfing C) check kiting D) a type of black market peso exchange 23) Any manipulation or deception that affects the purchase or sale of a security and usually includes the misrepresentation or omission of significant information is ________.

A) integration B) layering C) securities fraud D) a confidence game 24) A process that involves the touting of a company's stock through false and misleading statements to the marketplace often by using the Internet with the intent of driving up the price of the stock is called a(n) ________.

A) pump and dump scheme B) pump and jump scheme C) affinity fraud D) guaranteed winner for the stock holder 25) A process that was developed in the 1980s, in part to help dying AIDS patients pay their bills and was later extended to others, especially the elderly, is known as ________.

A) prime bank note B) cramming C) viatical settlements D) major fraud 26) The practice of placing unauthorized, misleading, inaccurate, or deceptive charges on the victims' phone bills is an example of ________.

A) a prime bank note B) cramming C) viatical settlements D) major fraud

27) Which of the following is not one of the top 10 telemarketing scams?

A) Prizes/sweepstakes B) Credit card offers C) Scholarship/educational grants D) Employment in Europe offers 28) Tangible property means things that have both a physical existence that can be touched and intrinsic value, whereas intangible property has value, but is more abstract.

29) The U.S. Department of Justice defines blue-collar crime as nonviolent, illegal activities that rely on deceit, deception, concealment, manipulation, and breach of trust, subterfuge, or illegal circumvention.

30) The elements of embezzlement are the same as the traditional larceny charge, with the addition that a person who has been entrusted with something valuable converts it to his/her own purpose or use in contravention of his/her legal obligation.

31) Organized retail theft (ORT) has emerged as the broader term and includes not only professional shoplifters but also other associated problems: theft from merchandise distribution centers, truck hijacking, credit card fraud, counterfeit goods, and the fences and other outlets for stolen merchandise.

32) A kleptomaniac often steals to exist and may be under the influence of alcohol.

33) Amateur shoplifters operate in a very smooth manner and are the most difficult to detect.

34) Identity theft, which began to emerge as a problem in the 1990s, has been called the "crime of the new millennium."

35) Skimmers are pager-sized data collection devices that cost roughly $300 and are placed in locations where they can observe victims identify themselves and use credit cards or write checks and/or punch in their long-distance calling card numbers.

36) Most identity thefts and the follow-up crimes come to light only one to six months after they begin.

37) Check fraud is the forgery, alteration, counterfeiting, or knowing issuance of a check on an account that is closed or has insufficient funds to cover the amount for which the check is written.

38) There are approximately 70,000 charities. Unfortunately, a very small number are frauds and create two type of problems: people are scammed out of their money and do not get a tax refund, and secondly, public confidence in charities is undermined, making it harder for legitimate charities to raise funds for important causes.

39) "Unbundling charges" is the practice of using billing codes for more expensive tests or longer office visits than actually occurred.

40) ________ is defined as the misappropriation or misapplication of money or property entrusted to one's care, custody, or control.

41) Rummaging through the victims' trash, or the trash of businesses, to "mine" for personal data is a practice described as ________.

42) ________ is when a person fakes an injury, loss, accident, theft, arson, or other loss to illegally collect from an insurance company.

43) ________ accidents are exactly that: no accident has occurred. Collusion is required by a body shop operator, who may even provide a wrecked car for the adjuster to inspect.

44) An act was passed in 2006 by Congress, essentially making all forms of gambling via the ________ illegal.

45) ________ is what Nigerian cons call the black money scheme. It is also an advanced fee scam.

46) Money laundering involves three distinct steps: placement, ________, and integration.

47) ________ is the illegal practice of filtering "dirty" money or ill-gotten gains through a series of transactions until the money is "clean," appearing to be proceeds from legal activities.

48) ________ is a sophisticated method of money laundering that is typically operated to convert drug or other illicitly gained money into funds that appear to be from legitimate sources.

49) In reference to money laundering, in ________, the illegal funds that have been placed and layered are now clean and are virtually indistinguishable from wholly legal money and are then used to buy luxury items or to invest in legitimate businesses.

50) A(n) ________ is essentially a short-term written I.O.U. that promises to pay its holder, the investor, the fixed amount invested plus a fixed amount of interest at some specified date in the future.

51) Unrelated to telemarketing fraud are three scams related to ________, such as 1-900 and foreign exchange numbers, the Mexican collect call scam, and cramming.

52) The practice of placing unauthorized, misleading, inaccurate, or deceptive charges on the victims' telephone bills, which may be accidental but is often intentional, is called ________.

53) Give two definitions of white-collar crime.

54) List at least eight ways identity thieves can get a victim's personal information.

55) Describe smurfing and shoulder surfing.

56) After identity theft is committed, follow-on crimes occur. Identify five types of follow-on crimes.

57) What are upcoding and unbundling charges used for?

58) How are bank examiner and pigeon-drop cons run?

59) What are pump and dump schemes?

60) How are prime bank and promissory note frauds operated?

61) Identify and discuss two telephone/pager scams.

62) The missing person fraud is cruel. How is it run?

Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 16 Vehicle Thefts and Related Offenses 1) Which of the following categories of motor vehicle thefts is most often engaged in by juveniles, those between the ages 15 to 19 years, who steal a car simply to drive it around before abandoning it?

A) Temporary theft B) Joyriding C) Professional theft D) Fraud 2) In the context of the most common means of disposing stolen motor vehicles, a chop shop is a place where vehicles are: A) cut into pieces for easy delivery to recyclers.

B) disassembled for resale of their parts.

C) disposed of for insurance purposes.

D) recycled.

3) In ________, a vehicle is stolen and stripped mainly for valuable accessories that do not contain any identifying numbers, thus making them difficult to identify and easy to dispose of.

A) quick strip B) cloning C) joyriding D) salvage switch 4) In order for a successful salvage switch operation to work, the thief must be able to acquire a salvaged vehicle that: A) has all the identifying numbers removed.

B) is no more than three model years old.

C) has all major component parts even if some of those parts are severely damaged.

D) is accompanied by the VIN plate and title.

5) In the context of fraudulent theft schemes, which of the following statements best describes a false-vehicle scheme?

A) It is an insurance fraud in which the owner of a vehicle reports it stolen but has actually hidden it.

B) It is an insurance fraud in which a person insures a vehicle that does not exist, has already been salvaged, or belongs to someone else and later reports the vehicle stolen.

C) It is an insurance fraud in which the owner of a stolen vehicle reports a greater financial loss—based on alleged current value, damage, or stolen parts—than is the case.

D) It is the crime of rolling back a vehicle's odometer so that it shows a lower mileage than is the case and obtaining or altering paperwork to support the fraud.

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6) Which of the following statements is true about a "paper vehicle"?

A) It is an insured vehicle that does not exist.

B) It is a cheaply manufactured vehicle.

C) It is an import vehicle.

D) It is a vehicle that is involved in an accident and leaves the scene without being identified.

7) ________ is an insurance fraud in which the owner of a vehicle reports it stolen but has actually hidden or disposed it.

A) Inflated-theft-loss scheme B) Salvage switch C) Quick strip D) False-theft scheme 8) According to the textbook, what is the primary reason an owner would file a phony theft-loss claim?

A) To avoid liability for some conduct that resulted from the use of the vehicle.

B) To reduce his/her financial loss.

C) To avoid liability for some conduct that resulted from the use of the vehicle and reduce his/her financial loss.

D) None of the answers is correct.

9) A vehicle exists, actually belongs to the insured, and is actually stolen. How does fraud occur in this type of situation?

A) The fraud occurs when the insured makes a false claim concerning the physical or mechanical condition of the vehicle when it was stolen.

B) The fraud occurs when the owner initially purchased the vehicle and insured it for more than it was worth.

C) The vehicle that exists is not the vehicle that is on the insurance policy.

D) None of the answers is correct.

10) ________ is an insurance fraud in which the owner of a stolen vehicle reports a greater financial loss—based on alleged current value, damage, or stolen parts—than is the case.

A) Inflated-theft-loss scheme B) False-vehicle scheme C) Salvage switch D) Quick strip 11) ________ is defined as the theft of items from, or in, commercial vehicles.

A) False-theft scheme B) Inflated-theft-loss scheme C) Cargo theft D) Marine theft

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12) Cargo crime involves all of the following except ________.

A) smuggling B) counterfeiting C) product piracy D) product burglary 13) Which of the following statements is true about the National Insurance Crime Bureau?

A) It is an agency in the U.S. Justice Department.

B) It is a branch of the FBI. C) It is an information gathering and dissemination body and a law enforcement assistance agency.

D) It is a division of the U.S. Department of Transportation.

14) Which of the following statements about the National Insurance Crime Bureau (NICB) is correct?

A) The National Automobile Theft Bureau was formed in 1912 and is the forerunner of NICB. B) The NICB is not a government organization.

C) The NICB assists in the identification of vehicles and helps educate law enforcement officers in investigative techniques of vehicle identification, fraud, and theft.

D) All of the answers are correct.

15) What does the National Motor Vehicle Title Information System (NMVTIS) provide to its users?

A) It provides information on whether a vehicle was stolen.

B) It provides information on whether a vehicle is incapable of being transferred.

C) It provides a system whereby a potential purchaser of a used vehicle will be able to inquire about the status of a vehicle before a final commitment to purchase.

D) All of the answers are correct.

16) After 9/11, the U.S. Customs was moved from the Treasury Department. Customs inspectors are not part of ________.

A) the Department of Homeland Security B) the Bureau of Customs and Border Protection C) the Department of Justice D) the Immigration and Naturalization Service 17) All of the following identifiers are part of the 17-character standardized VIN except ________.

A) engine type B) color C) body style D) country of origin

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18) Which of the following systems was implemented in 1981 to provide positive, individualized means of identifying a motor vehicle?

A) The Motor Vehicle Theft Law Enforcement Act B) The 17-character standardized VIN C) The confidential engine number D) The acid restoration system 19) What is a "gray-market vehicle"?

A) A vehicle that is not manufactured for sale or operation in the United States B) A vehicle that was "scrapped" and is now back in the marketplace C) A gray-market vehicle refers to the "paint scheme" of a vehicle D) A vehicle whose VIN plate and the VIN numbers on parts are not in agreement 20) Which of the following is a purpose of the Motor Vehicle Theft Law Enforcement Act of 1984?

A) To provide a system of permanent identification numbers for most unmarked major component parts.

B) To discourage theft.

C) To ease the identification of recovered vehicles and parts.

D) All of the answers are correct.

21) Vehicles most likely to be the object of odometer fraud are ________.

A) older-model high-mileage vehicles B) newer-model high-mileage vehicles C) older-model low-mileage vehicles D) newer-model low-mileage vehicles 22) Which of the following statements is true about the Federal Boating Safety Act of 1971?

A) It required all boats to be registered.

B) It required boats to have a 12-character hull identification number.

C) It required boats to have a 17-character hull identification number.

D) It required a minimum prison sentence for anyone convicted of driving a boat under the influence of alcohol or drugs.

23) Which of the following is a reason why the theft of avionics is lucrative?

A) Lack of security at airports.

B) Lack of concern by sales outlets about the identification and source of used equipment.

C) Ease of removing identifying numbers.

D) All of the answers are correct.

24) When referring to aircraft identification, what is the significance of the "N" number?

A) The "N" number is found on each side of the aircraft or on the vertical tail.

B) The "N" number designates a plane as being registered in the United States.

C) Most registered aircraft receive their "N" number when they are manufactured.

D) All of the answers are correct.

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25) The term "temporary theft" is not used to imply that the crime is not serious but rather to distinguish joyriding from something more ominous.

26) The major category of vehicle fraud as described in the textbook usually involves the theft of vehicles by professionals or strangers.

27) Generally, a salvage vehicle is one that has been damaged or wrecked to such an extent that the cost of repairing is beyond its fair market value.

28) Quick strip is a crime in which stolen vehicles receive the identity of nonstolen, legally owned vehicles of the same make and model.

29) According to the National Insurance Crime Bureau (NICB), cloned vehicles are also used to facilitate drug trafficking, money laundering, and for transportation to and from crime scenes by organized crime.

30) Heavy construction equipment is commonly referred to as off-road equipment.

31) The National Insurance Crime Bureau (NICB) is organized into nine geographic areas, with its headquarters in the Chicago suburb of Palos Hills, Illinois, serving as the Area 1 office.

32) The Stolen Auto Recovery (STAR) System can scan storage containers in less than 6 seconds while they continue to move and can identify and compare cargo to the bill of lading without impeding the flow of commerce.

33) The scope of the theft of heavy construction equipment has led manufacturers, dealers, and insurers to support the development of a national database of stolen equipment and provide the services of law enforcement specialists in the recovery of stolen equipment.

34) An active system is a type of vehicle antitheft device in which the driver does not need to do anything to activate the system, though he or she may be required to do something to deactivate the system.

35) ________ is defined as the process of fabricating a vehicle's sale to a purchaser in a jurisdiction that does not issue salvage titles or carry title brands forward, thereby obtaining a clean title on the vehicle.

36) Since 1954, American automobile manufacturers have used a(n) ________ instead of an engine number as the primary means of identification.

37) ________ is the process, mandated by law, of attaching VIN labels to the major parts of vehicles in high-theft lines.

38) A short circuit in the ________ is the most common excuse offered for automobile fires.

39) Theft deterrent devices are of two types—passive and active. A(n) ________ system requires that the operator do something every time the vehicle is driven or parked.

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40) In 1977, ________ became the first state to enact legislation mandating photographic inspection prior to issuance of a policy.

41) One of the most costly consumer frauds of modern times is ________ fraud, also known as rollbacks and clocking.

42) Effective November 1, 1972, the Federal Boating Safety Act of 1971 required boats to have a 12-character ________.

43) A boat that is registered by the U.S. Coast Guard is referred to as a(n) ________.

44) Ownership and financial disputes over ________ vessels can be resolved in the federal courts.

45) The theft of aircraft electronic equipment, or ________, can be a highly lucrative enterprise for thieves.

46) Distinguish false-vehicle schemes, false-theft schemes, and inflated-theft-loss schemes.

47) Describe a chop-shop operation.

48) How does a salvage switch work?

49) What are some of the factors contributing to the theft of off-road equipment?

50) Why is vehicle identification the most difficult and time-consuming task faced by an investigator in an auto theft case?

51) What was the purpose behind the passage of the Motor Vehicle Theft Law Enforcement Act of 1984?

52) Describe some of the principal investigative steps in determining whether a vehicle fire is accidental or arson.

53) What is odometer fraud and why is it a significant offense?

54) Discuss the nature and seriousness of marine theft.

55) What is avionics and why is avionics theft prevalent?

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 17 Cybercrime 1) Identify the two prerequisites for the emergence of cybercrime.

A) Computers had to be commonplace and had to be linked in a network.

B) Large corporations had to use computers for business and financial transactions.

C) Government had to create laws, and businesses had to create the software.

D) None of the answers is correct.

2) ________ developed email.

A) Al Gore B) Ray Tomlinson C) Bill Gates D) Steve Jobs 3) The first personal computer was the ________.

A) IBM PC B) Kenbak-1 C) Apple MacIntosh D) Radio Shack/Tandy TRS-80 4) The first online service provider for consumers was ________.

A) America Online (AOL) B) Time Warner Cable C) Netzero D) Delphi 5) Cybercrime tools and services are being mass marketed on the Internet. They are found on publicly accessible web forums, such as Internet Relay Chat (IRC) as well as on the Deep Web. Where are the major vendors principally located?

A) Russia B) Eastern Europe C) Malaysia D) All of the answers are correct.

6) Computer hackers or computer security experts who may violate the law or at least violate ethical business standards, but who do not have the malicious or criminal intent of a black hatter, are often called ________.

A) keyloggers B) botmasters C) gray hatters D) herders

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7) Which statement about the typical computer hacker is not correct?

A) Hackers are typically male.

B) Hackers tend to be very socially active.

C) Hackers are usually between the ages of 14 and 30.

D) All of the answers are correct.

8) Which of the following types of cybercriminals is not listed in the taxonomy of cybercriminals?

A) Phisherman B) Novice C) Cyberpunk D) Old guard hacker 9) In the context of the taxonomy of criminals, which of the following is a characteristic of "insiders"?

A) They are often information technology (IT) professionals.

B) They are often referred to as "script kiddies" or "script bunnies."

C) They generally have little or no criminal intent.

D) They generally commit simple cybercrimes like virus attacks.

10) Which of the following types of cybercriminals is more likely to cause the greatest losses?

A) Phisherman B) Internal/Insider C) Petty crook D) None of the answers is correct.

11) Which of the following types of hackers may work for a national government to destroy the operational capabilities of the target?

A) Novices B) Information/Espionage Warfare C) Cyberpunks D) All of the answers are correct.

12) A ________ uses malware to hijack hundreds to tens of thousands of computers and is able to remotely control them all, including the ability to update the malware and to introduce other programs such as spyware.

A) script kiddie B) keylogger C) black hatter D) botmaster 13) Which of the following terms refers to a computer that has been hijacked or taken over by another?

A) Jacked computer B) RAT (remote accessed terminal) C) Zombie D) None of the answers is correct.

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14) Which of the following is the primary purpose of a virus?

A) To replicate itself as many times as possible B) To cause mischief or damage to the infected computer C) To make the computer "sick" D) To replicate itself as many times as possible and cause mischief or damage to the infected computer 15) Which of the following is not a type of computer intrusion?

A) Virus B) Trojan Horse C) Shlumping D) Spyware 16) A ________ is defined as a malicious program that attacks a computer system directly, rather than infecting a host program, and spreads rapidly through the Internet or email.

A) virus B) malicious mobile code C) Trojan horse D) worm 17) An attack that is intended to overwhelm a person's email account by surreptitiously subscribing it to dozens or even hundreds of mailing lists is called ________.

A) buffer overflow attack B) email bomb attack C) malware attack D) Trojan horse attack 18) Which of the following statements is true about a cryptovirus?

A) It uses encryption methods that can be cracked easily.

B) It holds the data on a computer or the use of the computer hostage until a payment is made.

C) It encrypts its replicant into an alternate form, but it must then decrypt itself back into its original form to execute.

D) It completely rewrites itself each time it reproduces.

19) ________ is a broad term that sometimes is used to mean the same thing as malware but more narrowly is thought of as a surveillance tool, such as the infostealer form of a Trojan horse.

A) Spyware B) Black hatter C) White hatter D) Scareware

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20) In which of the following situations is parents' ability to give consent to search the room of their child not valid?

A) If the child in question is 18 years old or older B) If the child in question pays rent C) If the child in question has asserted his or her right to deny access into his or her room D) All of the answers are correct.

21) If persons of interest are located at a computer-assisted or cybercrime scene, which of the following should an investigator do?

A) Use them to help locate all of the possible evidence B) Allow them to access the computer so that the officers can examine its contents C) Keep them in separate rooms D) None of the answers is correct.

22) When conducting the preliminary interview about a computer-assisted crime or cybercrime, which of the following should investigators establish?

A) Who owns the computers?

B) Do the owners prefer broadband, DSL, or T1 connection?

C) How often do the owners visit illicit/illegal websites?

D) All of the answers are correct.

23) If no destructive processes are running and no items of evidentiary value on the screen, one step in seizing computer crime evidence is to ________.

A) type c B) boot the computer C) unplug the computer D) record the serial number of all equipment 24) The first electronic computer was built in 1942.

25) While computer-assisted crimes are may be thought of as any crime that uses a computer, in cybercrime, the computer itself is the target.

26) The term "social engineering" refers to the process of deceiving people into giving away access or confidential information.

27) Oftentimes the would-be buyers of cybercrime tools are themselves scammed out of their money.

28) One motivation for the activities of an old guard hacker is the need for a challenge.

29) In the context of the taxonomy of cybercriminals, cyberpunks are known to have a high tolerance for risk.

30) An infostealer Trojan horse can also be categorized as spyware.

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31) A virus is a small program that sends itself to other computers, rather than relying on user actions.

32) A metamorphic virus, such as Virut, encrypts its replicant into an alternate form, but it must then decrypt itself back into its original form to execute.

33) The denial-of-service (DoS) attack occurs when the service provider suspends service after the subscriber's email account is flooded by thousands of emails in a short period of time.

34) The investigator should put digital evidence in regular plastic bags to protect it from moisture.

35) There were two prerequisites for the emergence of cybercrime: (1) computers had to be commonplace, and (2) they had to be ________ in a network.

36) Hackers/crackers who use their skills to illegally make money are called ________.

37) A(n) ________ is a network of zombies or bots.

38) A(n) ________ is programmed to "go off" at a particular time or date, such as April Fool's Day, Halloween, or Friday the 13th.

39) A(n) ________ is "detonated" when a specific event occurs—for example, all personnel records are erased when an electronic notation is made that a particular person was fired.

40) A(n) ________ occurs when a botnet herder uses all of his/her zombies to overwhelm even the largest servers.

41) To avoid personal contact, intelligence agents use a location called a(n) ________ to leave and pick up messages.

42) The existence of a(n) ________ should alert investigators to the possibility that evidence may also be located on devices located away from the primary crime scene, such as in another room or a garage.

43) Discuss the creation of the cybercriminal, a new breed of criminals, and how cybercriminals differed from past criminals.

44) Discuss the differences between black hatters and white hatters.

45) Discuss the professional criminal typology of cybercriminal, including their characteristics, motivations, and skill level.

46) Name the types of cybercriminals described in the taxonomy of cybercriminals.

47) Discuss the various types of computer intrusions.

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48) Discuss polymorphic and metamorphic viruses.

49) Discuss how scareware attacks are executed.

50) Discuss the issues relating to cybercrime/computer/high technology/electronic crime units at the state and local level.

51) Discuss the physical evidence that an investigator should consider when investigating cybercrime.

52) What are the eight steps in documenting the computer crime scene?

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 18 Agricultural, Wildlife, and Environmental Crimes 1) Fossil hunters who invade public and private lands are known as ________.

A) fossil rustlers B) fossil wranglers C) bone rustlers D) bone diggers 2) What is "Operation Rockfish"?

A) A fossil common in Australia B) A successful joint federal, state, and local law enforcement fossil-poaching investigation C) A national fugitive "round-up" conducted by the U.S. Marshall Service that resulted in the arrest of more than 2,000 fugitives D) A long-term operation that was responsible for bringing the Rockfish back from the edge of extinction 3) Forest economists believe that thieves are stealing trees worth $1 billion annually and that ________ trees is cut down illegally.

A) 1 in every 10 B) 5 in every 10 C) 7 in every 10 D) 9 in every 10 4) Which of the following statements is true about arson/incendiary wildfires?

A) They are often set in locations where detection is limited.

B) They are often set in areas that are less frequently traveled.

C) They are often started by persons 12 years of age or younger.

D) They are often set in one location.

5) Which of the following cause indicators point toward a campfire?

A) The presence of burn barrels or incinerators B) Blow holes in the ground and possible presence of fulgurites C) Circles of rocks or pits with a large amount of ash and coals, or a pile of wood D) Welding cart wheel impressions or fire extinguisher residue 6) ________ result from a conductor failure or faulting, insulator failure, hardware failure, birds, small animals, and Mylar balloons, which are helium-filled balloons typically used for special occasions, such as "Happy Birthday," "Happy Anniversary," "Happy Valentine's Day," etc.

A) Cutting, welding, and grinding-caused wildfires B) Power line fires C) Equipment use fires D) Debris burning-caused wildfires

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7) Which of the following would least likely be the object of a major theft of agrichemicals?

A) Pesticides B) Herbicides C) Fertilizers D) Anhydrous ammonia 8) Which of the following statements is true about livestock and tack theft?

A) Hogs are included within the meaning of livestock.

B) Harnesses are included within the meaning of tack.

C) Horse thieves also tend to be tack thieves.

D) All of the answers are correct.

9) What is a "freezer crime"?

A) A freezer stolen along with its contents.

B) Livestock stolen where the motivation was to obtain food.

C) A refrigerated truck loaded with meat is stolen and resold.

D) None of the answers is correct.

10) Surveillance methods that work well in urban areas are generally difficult to execute in rural areas. Given this, on which of the following factors will rural success depend?

A) The topography of the area.

B) The availability of cover for concealment.

C) The number and position of access roads.

D) All of the answers are correct.

11) Approximately 80 percent of all stolen tack is ________.

A) horse blankets B) bridles C) saddles D) flank skirts or cantles 12) What type of livestock identification involves the use of liquid nitrogen or dry ice and alcohol?

A) Hot-iron B) Ear tag C) Freeze brands D) Tattoos 13) Which of the following is the correct way to read a brand?

A) Left to right.

B) Top to bottom.

C) Outside to inside.

D) All of the answers are correct.

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14) Which of the following is not one of the major methods of marking horses and cattle for identification as outlined in the textbook?

A) Electronic microchip B) Tattoos C) Ear tags D) DNA 15) Artificial light used by poachers at night to take game is known as ________.

A) spotlighting B) illegal sportsman-like conduct C) jacklighting D) poor gamesmanship 16) What is the approximate number of major federal environmental laws that form the basis for Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) programs?

A) 7 B) 12 C) 18 D) 27 17) Which of the following is a characteristic of waste?

A) Ignitability.

B) Reactivity.

C) Toxicity.

D) All of the answers are correct.

18) ________ waste substances most likely create fires, those that readily catch fire, and frictionsensitive substances (for example, paints, degreasers, linseed oil, and gasoline).

A) Ignitable B) Corrosive C) Reactive D) Toxic 19) ________ waste substances are unstable under normal conditions and can create explosions and/or toxic fumes, gases, and vapors when mixed with water (for example, sulphur-bearing wastes and cyanides).

A) Erosive B) Ignitable C) Corrosive D) Reactive

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20) Which of the following is not one of the patterns of enforcement of Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) laws, as listed in the textbook?

A) Acts over which federal, state, and local agencies have concurrent jurisdiction B) Acts over which only the federal government has jurisdiction C) Acts for which there is concurrent federal and state jurisdictional D) Acts for which there is unique state and/or local jurisdiction 21) Which of the following statements is true about the most frequent violators of hazardous waste regulations and laws?

A) They are located in the northeast.

B) They are small to midsize generating firms.

C) They are pharmaceutical companies.

D) All of the answers are correct.

22) Which of the following terms is not part of the acronym T/S/D? A) Treatment B) Spoilage C) Storage D) Disposal 23) How are treatment, storage, and disposal (T/S/D) crimes committed?

A) Companies treat hazardous waste without a permit.

B) Companies improperly identify the nature of the waste or store it under inadequate conditions.

C) Companies mix it with regular waste for cheaper disposal, or store incompatible chemicals or amounts.

D) All of the answers are correct.

24) Which of the following is not a sign of illegal dumping of hazardous waste?

A) Suspicious discharge into waterways B) Suspicious vapors in the air C) Discolored and dying vegetation that is unusual for the season D) Unusual and persistent odors 25) Patrol officers should approach suspected hazardous-waste spills and toxic-waste sites ________ and from the highest ground reasonably available.

A) with weapons drawn B) with the wind at their back C) from low-lying grounds D) with the wind at their front 26) Which of the following statements is true about the investigation of most environmental crimes?

A) It is necessary to use helicopters.

B) It is necessary to consult with the local mayor.

C) It is necessary to use only federal law enforcement.

D) It is necessary to form a team that includes an attorney.

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27) Private and public lands are being invaded by stealthy fossil hunters, who are also described as bone pirates.

28) Unlike thieves who must sell what they steal to fences for pennies on the dollars, thieves involved in timber theft get full value for their efforts.

29) One of the conditions that must occur for a cigarette to start a wildfire is that the RH is more than 22 percent.

30) Debris burning-caused wildfires are defined as wildland fires that result from the operation of mechanical equipment that range from heavy construction equipment to small portable engines.

31) Cutting, welding, and grinding-caused wildfires are defined as those caused by an industrial or agricultural operation, but may also result from an individual or residential activity.

32) Agrichemical is a broad term whose meaning encompasses a variety of products used on farms, including pesticides, fertilizers, and herbicides.

33) The majority of cattle-rustling thefts are committed by one or two people who take the animal for their own use.

34) Freezer-crime rustlers are easy to capture because they have the meat (evidence) located in their freezers in their residences.

35) To transport cattle legally, certain written documents may be required, such as a bill of sale, a certificate of consignment, a brand inspector's certificate, and/or a shipping or transportation permit among others.

36) Unfortunately, tack is not always marked for identification, making tracing a very difficult proposition. Some owners have injected a small microchip inside tack to facilitate its recovery.

37) In its most base state, the purpose of livestock identification is to establish that a particular animal is the property of a specific owner.

38) Because of the dangers associated with hazardous-waste sites, investigators must wear ________ suits to protect themselves.

39) ________ are criminals who attack orchards and groves after dark, sometimes picking entire stocks of fruit and then selling them to local farmers' markets.

40) When used to identify horses, a(n) ________ is applied to the inside of the top lip.

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41) ________ profiles of expensive horses and bulls are common as a theft deterrent. They are required by some breed associations and mandated by some insurance companies to prevent insurance scams.

42) Do not use ________ to protect your property as they are often illegal and frequently injure innocent people or animals.

43) Poachers are categorized into two types: ________ poachers take much more game because they kill for profit.

44) At night, aircraft can also be useful in pinpointing places where it appears that artificial light is being used by poachers to take game. This tactic is known as ________.

45) ________ are the individuals who mount the heads and antlers of game animals for hunters.

46) ________ is defined as the selective hunting of those animals that are particularly prized for display in homes and typically dens in homes.

47) ________ may be solids, liquids, sledges, or byproducts of manufacturing processes.

48) A waste is hazardous if it has one or more of the following characteristics: ignitability, corrosiveness, ________, or toxicity.

49) ________ substances are substances that are harmful or fatal when ingested or absorbed and that, when improperly disposed of on land, may eventually pollute groundwater.

50) ________ crimes are committed by companies that treat hazardous waste without a permit or treat it inadequately, store it without a permit to do so, improperly identify the nature of the waste or store it under inadequate conditions, discharge it into sewers, simply abandon it, mix it with regular waste for cheaper disposal, or store incompatible chemicals or amounts of chemicals beyond their permitted level.

51) What specialized knowledge is required by an investigator with respect to the theft of agrichemicals?

52) What generalizations can be made about livestock and tack theft?

53) State and describe the five major methods of marking horses and cattle.

54) What are the two major categories of poachers, and how do they differ?

55) Identify and briefly discuss different investigative programs or techniques used by wildlife officers.

56) Identify and briefly discuss the characteristics of hazardous waste.

57) Identify and describe the three major components of the waste cycle.

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58) Identify the common provisions of Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) state laws.

59) Explain Treatment, storage, and disposal (T/S/D) crimes.

60) List the signs of illegal dumping.

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 19 Arson and Explosives Investigations 1) Which of the following statements is true about arson investigations?

A) They are clearly the responsibility of the police service.

B) They are clearly the responsibility of the fire service.

C) They fall between police and fire department responsibilities.

D) They are clearly the sole responsibility of the insurance companies.

2) When one refers to the "layer-checking technique" in arson investigation, what is being described is the: A) process of checking through the layers of materials stacked on top of each other after a fire.

B) analysis of materials for the presence of an accelerant.

C) investigation of all suspects beginning with the prime suspect and working down to the least likely suspect.

D) method used to identify the most likely motive.

3) Which of the following is not involved in spontaneous heating and ignition?

A) Chemical action B) Matches C) Fermentation D) Oxidation 4) Which of the following is most reliable for evaluating fire spread?

A) Analysis of the depth of char B) Establishing specific burn times C) Establishing the intensity of heat from adjacent materials D) Analysis of crazing pattern 5) Which of the following are burn indicators?

A) Alligatoring.

B) Depth of char.

C) Breaking of glass.

D) All of the answers are correct.

6) When a flame suddenly contacts one side of a glass pane while the unexposed side is relatively cool, a stress can develop between the two faces and the glass can fracture between the faces. ________ is a term used in the fire investigation community to describe a complicated pattern of short cracks in glass arising from this condition.

A) Charring B) Crazing C) Spalling D) Alligatoring

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7) Which of the following statements describes the term "spalling"?

A) It refers to the breaking off the surface of concrete, cement, or brick due to intense heat.

B) It refers to the boundary between charred and uncharred material.

C) It refers to the depth of the burning of wood.

D) It refers to the formation of irregular cracks in glass due to rapid, intense heat.

8) The material placed around the ignition device to feed and accelerate the initial flame in arson is referred to as a(n) ________.

A) trailer B) accelerant C) plant D) pyro-enhancement device 9) When certain items such as photo albums, valuables, furniture, clothing, or pets are apparently missing from the scene of a fire, the most likely possibility is that the: A) firefighters stole the items.

B) owner removed these items before starting the fire.

C) items were stolen by burglars who then set the house on fire.

D) items were completely destroyed by the fire.

10) Perhaps the most dangerous of the revenge-motivated arsonists is the one who: A) focuses on such institutions as government, education, religion, or any other entity reflecting and representing the establishment.

B) uses fire to strike at an individual owing to a personal grievance.

C) feels he or she has been betrayed by society in general.

D) feels anger toward a religious, racial, or fraternal group or members of the group collectively, rather than anger at a specific individual within the group.

11) What is the technical name for the "sniffer"?

A) Chemical color test detector B) Catalytic combustion detector C) Gas liquid chromatograph D) Infrared spectrophotometer 12) Which of the following is a portable equipment available to an arson investigator for detecting residues of flammable liquids at fire scenes that consists of illuminating the darkened fire scene with an ultraviolet lamp?

A) Ultraviolet fluorescence B) Infrared spectrophotometers C) Gas liquid chromatograph D) Flame ionization detector

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13) The insurance industry maintains a modern computerized data bank, the Property Insurance Loss Register (PILR). Which of the following is maintained in this database?

A) Fire claims.

B) Burglary claims.

C) Theft claims.

D) All of the answers are correct.

14) When developing an arson suspect, what factors must be proven to eliminate all others?

A) Motive and opportunity B) Motive and means to commit the crime C) Motive, opportunity, and means to commit the crime D) Motive, "payoff," and means to commit the crime 15) A physical reaction characterized by the presence of four major elements—high-pressure gas; confinement or restriction of the pressure; rapid production or release of the pressure; and change or damage to the confining (restricting) structure, container, or vessel that is caused by the pressure release—is a(n) ________.

A) arson B) explosion C) implosion D) violent arson eruption 16) The earliest explosive was ________, made of sulfur, charcoal, and potassium nitrate.

A) trinitrotoluene B) dynamite C) nitroglycerin D) gunpowder 17) ________ is the standard for measuring the destructive power of other compounds and weapons.

A) Trinitrotoluene (TNT) B) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate (PETN) C) Dynamite D) Nitroglycerin 18) Which of the following statements is true about chemical explosions?

A) These are explosions in which high-pressure gas is produced by purely physical reactions.

B) The most common type of explosions in this category is the bursting of steam pipes.

C) The most common type of explosions in this category is caused by the burning of combustible hydrocarbon fuels.

D) All of the answers are correct.

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19) Which of the following statements is true about the scene of an explosion?

A) Explosion scenes are often larger and more disturbed than fire scenes.

B) Explosion scenes are almost never as large as fire scenes.

C) The investigative objectives of the explosion scene are quite different than those of a regular fire.

D) As a general rule, the outer perimeter of the incident scene should be established at five times the distance of the farthest piece of debris.

20) Which of the following precautions should be followed when encountering a suspicious package or letter?

A) If delivered by carrier, inspect for lumps, bulges, or protrusions, without applying pressure.

B) If delivered by carrier, do a balance-check to determine if package is lopsided or heavy-sided.

C) If there is a handwritten address or label from a company, check to see if the company exists and if it sent the package or letter.

D) All of the answers are correct.

21) Because of the potentially dangerous nature of suspicious letters and packages, police have started to use which of the following methods for handling and disposal?

A) Rookie officer B) Robots C) Refer to the fire department D) None of the answers is correct.

22) The fire service has taught firefighters that fire loss is less and public relations are better if they clean the premises; but if arson is suspected, moving debris, even window glass, may destroy valuable physical evidence.

23) During a fire investigation, it should be borne in mind that a fire always has three causes: a source of heat, material, and ignition.

24) Spontaneous heating is produced in three major ways: chemical action, fermentation, and oxidation (the most common way).

25) Spontaneous ignition is fairly common in residences and small businesses.

26) Burn indicators are the effects of heat or partial burning that indicate a fire's rate of development, points of origin, temperature, duration, and time of occurrence, as well as the presence of flammable liquids.

27) Contrary to previous and erroneous assumptions, the presence of large, shiny blisters is strong evidence that a liquid accelerant was present during a fire or that a fire spread rapidly or burned with greater intensity.

28) Spalling is the breakdown in the surface tensile strength of concrete, masonry, or brick that occurs when exposure to high temperatures and rates of heating produces mechanical forces within the material.

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29) Spalling is characterized by distinct lines of striation and the loss of surface material, resulting in cracking, breaking, and chipping or in the formation of craters on the surface.

30) An incendiary mechanism may be mechanical or chemical, and consists of an ignition device, possibly a timing device, one or more "plants" to feed or accelerate the initial flame, and, frequently, "trailers" to spread the fire about the building or from plant to plant.

31) Most chemical ignition units leave some residue, have a distinctive odor, or both.

32) Trinitrotoluene or TNT and dynamite are the same things.

33) It is necessary that a temperature of ________ be reached before furniture springs collapse from their own weight.

34) Identifiable temperatures achieved in structural fires rarely remain above 1,900°F for long periods of time. These temperatures are sometimes called ________, because they reflect physical effects that can be defined by specific temperature ranges.

35) In a fire setting, a(n) ________ refers to any flammable fluid or compound that speeds the progress of a fire.

36) The term ________ refers to arsonists who lack conscious motivation for setting fire.

37) A(n) ________ is used to spread a fire. It is ignited by the blaze from a plant.

38) In a broad category of arson for profit, the beneficiary of the fire is not the owner-insured but a(n) ________ who arranges for the fire out of some economic incentive.

39) ________ fires are set in retaliation for some injustice, real or imagined, perceived by the offender.

40) The ________ is as sensitive as any of the currently available detecting equipment, but there are flammable liquids to which it is not sensitive.

41) The insurance industry maintains a modern computerized data bank, the ________, to keep track of fire, burglary, and theft claims.

42) In ________ explosions, high-pressure gas is produced by purely physical reactions.

43) In December 2009, a bomber tried to use an IED (improvised explosive device) hidden in his ________.

44) If arson is suspected, why should firefighters not disarrange the premises by mopping up or overhauling the scene of the fire, especially at the point of origin?

45) What is the "layer-checking" technique, and how can it assist in determining the cause and origin of a fire?

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46) List some of the common causes of accidental or natural fires.

47) What types of burn indications can be examined by the arson investigator to assist in determining whether a fire is accidental or incendiary in nature?

48) What are some of the most commonly used ignition and timing devices employed in the commission of arsons?

49) Why should uncoated metal paint cans (or similar containers) and not plastic bags or containers be used for the storage of material suspected of containing flammable liquids?

50) There are basically two types of explosions. What are they? Briefly describe each type.

51) What is the first duty of the investigator at the scene of an explosion?

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 20 Recognition, Control, and Investigation of Drug Abuse 1) Which of the following is not an opium-derived drug?

A) Morphine B) Heroin C) Atropine D) Codeine 2) Which of the following statements is true about morphine?

A) Morphine is obtained from raw opium.

B) Morphine is the most effective pain reliever known to man.

C) The use of morphine increased considerably with the invention of the hypodermic syringe.

D) All of the answers are correct.

3) Which of the following is an example of a schedule I drug?

A) Heroin B) Valium C) Xanax D) OxyContin 4) Which of the following statements is true about heroin?

A) Heroin is a white crystalline powder with a strong sulfur smell.

B) Heroin was advertised as a cure for morphine dependence, but it was soon determined that heroin dependence was more difficult to cure.

C) Heroin was developed in 1974.

D) The darker the color of heroin, the more potent the drug is.

5) What does the textbook cite as a significant factor in recent heroin overdoses?

A) The ready availability of heroin on the streets B) The mixture of heroin and morphine injected into the arms of the drug user C) The high-purity concentration of new heroin derivatives (chiva and black tar) from Columbia D) The ready availability of heroin on the streets combined with the mixture of heroin and morphine injected into the arms of the drug user 6) Which of the following statements is true about fentanyl?

A) It is an antidote countering the effects of opium-based narcotics, like heroin.

B) It a powerful synthetic opioid, 30 times more powerful than heroin itself and 100 times more potent than morphine.

C) It is a naturally occurring stimulant that is extracted from the leaves of the coca plant.

D) It is a highly pure methamphetamine pill originating from Southeast Asia.

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7) Which of the following statements about OxyContin is incorrect?

A) OxyContin is a time-released formulation that is effective for up to 12 hours.

B) OxyContin's active ingredient is morphine.

C) OxyContin is usually prescribed for cancer patients and has become the drug of choice for addicts and teenage abusers.

D) With the abuse of OxyContin on the rise, police in at least three states are reporting a record number of pharmacies being broken into.

8) What is the commercial name for meperidine?

A) Methadone B) Demerol C) Cocaine D) Percodan 9) Which of the following statements is true about methadone?

A) Next to morphine, it is probably the most widely used drug for the relief of intense pain.

B) It was the first synthetic narcotic.

C) It is known by the commercial name Dolophine Hydrochloride.

D) It is an alkaloid that is found in raw opium in concentrations from 0.7% to 2.5%.

10) Cocaine is most commonly ________.

A) inhaled or "snorted" through the nose B) taken orally C) taken intravenously D) absorbed through the skin by using moist applicators 11) What type of drug is involved in freebasing?

A) Heroin B) Cocaine C) Methamphetamine D) Barbiturate 12) What is the current method of using crystallized methamphetamine?

A) Taking as a pill B) Injected C) Smoked D) Injected and smoked 13) What is the name of the drug that is a psychomotor stimulant with a chemical structure similar to methamphetamine and was originally patented in Germany in 1928?

A) Bayer Aspirin B) Methcathinone C) Cat or goob D) Methcathinone or cat or goob

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14) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a depressant?

A) Increases energy B) Reduces restlessness and emotional tension C) Induces sleep D) Depresses the central nervous system 15) Speedballing is a slang word used to describe the simultaneous ingestion, usually through injection, of ________.

A) heroin and PCP B) PCP and cocaine C) cocaine and LSD D) heroin and cocaine 16) Phencyclidine (PCP) is used legally ________.

A) by psychiatrists treating psychotic patients B) by dentists as a local anesthetic C) in veterinary medicine as a large-animal immobilizing agent D) as a medication for skin disorders 17) The primary active ingredient of the peyote cactus is the hallucinogen ________.

A) LSD B) psilocybin C) phencyclidine D) mescaline 18) The principal psychoactive substance in marijuana is thought to be ________.

A) LSD B) THC C) DCT D) DOM 19) Liquid hashish is produced by concentrating the basic active ingredient in ________.

A) cocaine B) heroin C) mescaline D) marijuana 20) ________ refers to "any equipment, product, or material of any kind which is primarily intended or designed for use in manufacturing, compounding, converting, concealing, producing, processing, preparing, injecting, ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing into the human body a controlled substance."

A) Drug equipment B) Drug paraphernalia C) A drug warehouse D) Drug equipment and a drug warehouse 3 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

21) The history of drug abuse in the United States is intertwined with trends and patterns of not only use but also illicit traffic. The Golden Crescent is the moniker adopted for three countries in Southwest Asia: A) Burma, Laos, and Thailand.

B) Bolivia, Peru, and Columbia.

C) Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Iran.

D) Western Europe, Belgium, and Netherlands.

22) What type of drug informants offer their services in order to identify undercover agents and learn the department's methods, targets, and intelligence?

A) Problem informants B) Egoistical informants C) Perversely motivated informants D) Informants with "James Bond syndrome" 23) The most dangerous and disruptive informants in drug law enforcement are ________.

A) informants with James Bond syndrome B) problem informants C) wannabe informants D) perversely motivated informants 24) ________ are people who, for whatever reason, failed to qualify for a law enforcement position and now seek to become involved in law enforcement as informants.

A) Wannabe informants B) Restricted-use informants C) Egotistical informants D) Problem informants 25) The surreptitious observation of persons, places, objects, or conveyances for the purpose of determining criminal involvement is ________.

A) surveillance B) good police work C) covert operations D) overt operations 26) Which statement regarding chemical field tests for narcotics and dangerous drugs is accurate?

A) A field test should be performed even if there is only a small amount of a suspected matter available.

B) The best chemical field tests are presumptive and may produce false positives.

C) It is an acceptable practice for narcotics officers to taste a drug in order to determine if it is, in fact, a controlled substance.

D) The best place to conduct the final analyses for drugs should be in the evidence/property room.

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27) Which rule states that courts will exclude any evidence that is obtained in violation of the Fourth Amendment's provisions against unreasonable searches and seizures, no matter how pertinent it is to the case at hand?

A) Illegal search warrant rule B) Fourteenth Amendment C) Terry v. Ohio D) Exclusionary Rule 28) Which of the following is not one of the exceptions to searching without a search warrant?

A) Consent search B) Open-field searches C) Protected-view searches D) Stop-and-frisk search 29) Most illegal drug laboratory operations are closed as a result of: A) police raids following investigative work.

B) an accidental fire started in drug laboratories.

C) neighbors in the area acting as vigilantes and setting laboratories on fire.

D) rival drug gangs.

30) Normally, when conducting a raid on an illegal crime laboratory, which of the following groups should be involved?

A) Police tactical unit B) Bomb squad C) Hazardous material or chemical waste disposal personnel D) All of the answers are correct.

31) One of the first drugs of abuse was opium. Its pleasurable effects were known as early as 1500 B.C.E. 32) "Cheese" heroin is a combination of heroin and a large quantity of Tylenol-PM® tablets.

33) Compared to morphine, codeine produces more analgesia, sedation, and respiratory depression.

34) Methadone is a maintenance drug and is used to get the methamphetamine user off drugs and back into society as a productive citizen.

35) Crack or rock cocaine is made by mixing ordinary cocaine with baking soda and water and then heating the solution in a pot.

36) Phenmetrazine is related chemically to the amphetamines, and its abuse produces similar effects.

37) Amphetamines stimulate certain areas of the nervous system that control blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory and metabolic rates, all of which are increased.

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38) Strawberry Quick meth is reportedly popular among new users who snort it because the flavoring can cut down on the drug taste.

39) Khat (pronounced "cot") is a leafy import from northeast Africa whose active ingredients are cathinone and cathine.

40) Methaqualone when administered orally in large doses will produce a coma that may be accompanied by thrashing or convulsions.

41) Hallucinogenic drugs, natural or synthetic, distort the perception of objective reality. The unpredictability of their effects is the greatest danger to the user.

42) A common misconception about inhalant sniffing, snorting, bagging, or huffing is that it is deadly serious and one of the most dangerous of "experimental behaviors."

43) ________ is a naturally occurring stimulant that is extracted from the leaves of the coca plant.

44) ________ is a slang term that refers to the simultaneous ingestion, usually through injection, of heroin (a depressant) and cocaine (a stimulant).

45) ________, a commonly abused drug, is a hallucinogen in powder, tablet, liquid, leafy mixture, and "rock" crystal forms that produces unpleasant effects and can cause the user to be extremely violent and almost superhumanly strong.

46) ________ is a semisynthetic compound produced from lysergic acid, a natural substance found in ergot fungus, a disease that affects rye and wheat.

47) ________ and ________ are obtained from mushrooms generally grown in Mexico.

48) ________ hydrochloride is a synthetic drug that was developed in the mid-1960s and is an anesthetic agent that has legitimate uses, mostly in veterinary medicine.

49) The principal psychoactive substance in marijuana is thought to be ________, a chemical found nowhere else in nature.

50) A drug-rich resinous secretion from the flowers of the cannabis plant, ________ is processed by drying to produce a drug several times as potent as marijuana.

51) The term ________ is still widely used, often to include inhalation of a broad range of common products besides glue.

52) Burma, Laos, and Thailand make up the area referred to as the ________, known mainly for heroin and marijuana production.

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53) The most prominent method of electronic surveillance is ________, using third-party eavesdropping devices placed on telephone lines to capture conversations.

54) The Supreme Court has held that ________ searches outside the curtilage surrounding buildings or homes are not constitutionally protected and are therefore allowable without a search warrant.

55) A(n) ________ is defined as two or more people entering into an agreement to violate the law with a commission of one or more overt acts in furtherance of the agreement.

56) Discuss OxyContin abuse.

57) What role does the drug methadone play in treating heroin addicts?

58) What are the effects of cocaine, and how is it used?

59) What are some of the effects of PCP? 60) Discuss methylenedioxy methamphetamine (MDMA or ecstasy) and its popularity on the party scene and at raves.

61) A number of categories of drug-related confidential informants were discussed in the text.

What were these categories?

62) Identify and discuss the four major categories of drug buy operations.

63) What are the major exceptions to searching without a search warrant?

64) How are clandestine drug laboratory operations identified?

65) Define a conspiracy, and give examples of the types of conspiracy cases.

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 21 Terrorism 1) Unlike mainstream Muslims, which of the following beliefs is a characteristic of radical Islamic groups?

A) Violence is a means to an end.

B) Western culture poses an imminent threat to the sanctity of the Muslim religion.

C) Western culture is corrupting morals and threatening to overtake the Muslim way of life.

D) All of the answers are correct.

2) What does the term Jihad mean?

A) It is interpreted as an obligation for all Muslims to engage in a "holy war" against the West.

B) It is interpreted as an obligation for all Muslims to engage in a "holy war" against the United States.

C) It is one of the books of the Holy Koran.

D) It is interpreted as an obligation for all Muslims to engage in a "holy war" against the United States and is one of the books of the Holy Koran.

3) Identify a true statement about Abu Musab al-Zarqawi.

A) He was a militant Islamist from Jordan who operated a large training camp for al-Qaeda in Afghanistan during the last 1990s.

B) He set up the organization known as "the base," or al-Qaeda, in order to track the movements of fighters and money coming into the Afghan resistance.

C) He was the founder of the Wahhabi movement, and his teachings are referred to as salafi.

D) He became the celebrity of the Al-Shabab group in Somalia, promoting Jihad and his group to youth through the Internet, video, and hip-hop lyrics.

4) ________ ("the base") has its basis in the mujahedin, or "holy warriors," who fought against the Russians when they invaded Afghanistan in 1979.

A) Al-Qaeda B) Islamic State C) Jemaah Islamiyah D) Hezbollah 5) ________ began when two radical Indonesian clerics named Abdullah Sungkar and Abu Bakar Ba'asyir established a pirate (unauthorized) radio station in 1960, which advocated Shari'a, strict Muslim law.

A) Hizbollah B) Jemaah Islamiyah (JI) C) Al-Qaeda D) The Islamic State in Iraq and Syria (ISIS)

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6) What is the name of the group that was formed after it split from the Palestinian Liberation Organization as a result of perceived moderation on the part of Yassir Arafat in 1972?

A) HAMAS B) Hizbollah C) Abu-Nidal Organization D) The Popular Front for the Liberation of Palestine (PFLP) 7) The unlawful use, or threatened use, of violence by a group of individuals within the United States without foreign direction best describes ________.

A) agroterrorism B) domestic unionism C) domestic terrorism D) ecoterrorism 8) Which of the following statements is true about right-wing terrorist groups?

A) They were the most serious domestic terrorist threat in the United States from the 1960s to the 1980s.

B) They advocate revolution as the means of transforming society.

C) They often adhere to the principles of racial supremacy and embrace antigovernment, antiregulatory beliefs.

D) They are often staunch opponents of survivalist views and the need for paramilitary training in "militias."

9) Individuals become members of the Animal Liberation Front by simply engaging in direct action against those who utilize animals for research or economic gain. Which of the following constitutes direct action?

A) A boycott of the companies involved.

B) A letter-writing campaign aimed at the managers of the companies.

C) A criminal activity aimed at causing economic loss or destroying company operations.

D) All of the answers are correct.

10) Which of the following is not a source of funding for terrorist organizations?

A) Drug smuggling.

B) Arms smuggling.

C) Charitable organizations.

D) None of the answers is correct.

11) According to the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA), there are three critical elements to attacking narco-terrorism. Which of the following is not one of the elements?

A) Law enforcement efforts B) Intelligence gathering C) Wiretaps D) International cooperation

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12) One of the five pillars of Islamic faith is known as ________, or charitable giving.

A) hawala B) fasalaw C) hawak D) zakat 13) ________ provides free terrorist investigation and intelligence-related training for street officers as well as officers assigned to narcotics, organized crime, and terrorism task forces.

A) SLATT (State and Local Anti-Terrorism Training) B) ATAP (Anti-terrorist and Prevention) Training C) TPAA (Terrorism Prevention and Arrest) Training D) SLOT (Surveillance, Licensure, and Orwellian Training) 14) Joint terrorism task forces (JTTFs) usually consist of representatives from all the following except ________.

A) Interpol B) federal law enforcement C) state law enforcement D) local law enforcement 15) The process whereby you rigorously challenge your own views and those of others is called ________.

A) redesigning B) probing C) reflective action D) critical thinking 16) If terrorists attempted to use anthrax against the United States as a weapon, it would be an example of a ________.

A) chemical attack B) limited biological attack C) HAZMAT attack D) limited chemical attack 17) Biological agents include both living microorganisms and the toxins produced by organisms.

Which of the following is a biological agent that can be used in a terrorist attack?

A) Botulism.

B) Tularemia.

C) Hemorrhagic fevers.

D) All of the answers are correct.

18) Anthrax is an acute infectious disease caused by a bacterium. Which type of anthrax is caused by a cut or abrasion in the skin that allows the anthrax bacterium to enter the body?

A) Biological anthrax B) Cutaneous anthrax C) Intestinal anthrax D) Inhalation anthrax 3 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.

19) Which of the following is a characteristic of cutaneous anthrax?

A) It enters the body through the respiratory system.

B) It produces an acute inflammation of the intestines.

C) It frequently results in death even with antibiotic treatment, and without it, there is an 85% mortality rate.

D) The incubation period of the bacteria can be one to seven days but is usually two to five days.

20) Anthrax is an acute infectious disease caused by a bacterium. Which type of anthrax is caused by eating anthrax-contaminated meat that has been insufficiently cooked?

A) Biological anthrax B) Cutaneous anthrax C) Intestinal anthrax D) Inhalation anthrax 21) Which type of anthrax is extremely unlikely to occur through person-to-person contact, so communicability is not a concern?

A) Biological anthrax B) Cutaneous anthrax C) Intestinal anthrax D) Inhalation anthrax 22) Chemical attacks may be accomplished with V agents. Which of the following is not one of the V agents listed in the textbook?

A) Mustard gas B) Tear gas C) Sarin D) Soman 23) Which of the following terms is used to describe the deliberate and malicious use of biological agents as weapons against the agricultural and food supply industries?

A) High-energy radio frequency (HERF) B) Electromagnetic pulse (EMP) weapons C) Ecoterrorism D) Agroterrorism 24) What type of weapon, made from medical X rays or commercial, low-level nuclear material with high explosives, will render an isolated area inhabitable for a period of time?

A) Anthrax B) Nuclear bomb C) Chemical bomb D) Dirty bomb 25) Followers of the Sunni tradition believe that Ali (the son-in-law of the Prophet Muhammad) was given a divine right of successorship to lead the Muslim community after the 7th century.

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26) In July 2014, the leader of ISIS, Osama bin Laden, declared himself "caliph" over the area he controlled and announced the establishment of the new "caliphate."

27) Hate crimes are harms inflicted on a victim by an offender whose motivation derives primarily from hatred directed at a perceived characteristic of the victim.

28) As defined by the FBI, domestic terrorism is the unlawful use, or threatened use, of violence by a group or an individual based and operating entirely within the United States or its territories, without foreign direction, committed against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government in furtherance of political or social objectives.

29) The FBI defines ecoterrorism as the use, or threatened use, of violence of a criminal nature against innocent victims or property by an environmentally oriented, national group for environmental-political reasons, or aimed at an audience beyond the target, which is often chosen for its symbolic nature.

30) The nativist movement's primary concern is the right of Native Americans.

31) Terrorist organizations in as many as 30 different countries have financed a significant portion of their organizations through narco-terrorism.

32) One of the five pillars of Islamic faith is known as hawala, or charitable giving.

33) The U.S. PATRIOT Act authorizes an Internet surveillance program that was formerly designated as "Carnivore."

34) HMRTs are composed of special agents uniquely trained and equipped to collect evidence in hazardous environments.

35) Anthrax is an acute infectious disease caused by a bacterium with a 1-6 day incubation period that sometimes may take as long as 8 weeks to develop.

36) Chemical attacks may be accomplished with V agents, mustard gas, sarin, soman, and tabun.

With some chemical agents, incapacitation of victims occurs in only 1 to 10 minutes.

37) Agroterrorism is the deliberate and malicious use of biological agents as weapons against the municipal water supplies.

38) ________ involves violent acts or acts dangerous to human life that are the violation of the criminal laws of the United States or any state, or that would be a criminal act if committed within the jurisdiction of the United States or any state.

39) The basic concept of the ________ is that the teachings of Islam were corrupted after the time of the Prophet Muhammed. The group is centered in Saudi Arabia.

40) In July 2014, the leader of ISIS, Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi, declared himself "caliph" over the area he controlled and announced the establishment of the new "________."

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41) ________ is "the Party of God." 42) The ________ is a Christian-led Marxist-Leninist group founded in 1967 by George Habash as a direct response to the Six-Day War of 1967. This group essentially established the concept of skyjacking an airplane back in the late 1960s.

43) ________, a radical fundamentalist organization, came to prominence as the foremost opponent of the Oslo peace accords. Its primary modus operandi is suicide bombings against civilian targets.

44) In general, right-wing militias believe there will be a "showdown" with the ________, so they stockpile weapons and food.

45) Left-wing terrorists generally profess a revolutionary ________ doctrine and view themselves as protectors of the people against the "dehumanizing effects" of capitalism and imperialism.

46) In order to help combat the financing of terrorism, the United States created ________.

47) ________ is the term that defines the linkage between the illegal drug trade and terrorism.

48) The ________ is responsible for protecting and investigating unlawful acts against U.S. computer and information technologies and unlawful acts, both physical and electronic, that threaten or target critical U.S. infrastructures.

49) ________ is defined as a premeditated, politically or ideologically motivated attack against information systems, networks, programs, and/or data and often includes the use of electronic tools to disrupt or shut down critical infrastructure components, such as energy, transportation, or other government operations.

50) ________ are certain microorganisms and toxins produced by organisms (e.g., smallpox, anthrax, plague, and botulism) that cause human illness or death and could be used as terrorist weapons.

51) How does the FBI define terrorism?

52) What are the three major radical or fundamental movements within Islam?

53) How did Osama bin Laden vault to power in Afghanistan? Name some of the important terrorist incidents that al-Qaeda has conducted.

54) What does Hizbollah mean?

55) What types of events are associated with the Palestinian group known as HAMAS? 56) Discuss the nativist movement and how it relates to right-wing terrorism.

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57) Discuss how terrorist organizations are financed. Give examples.

58) List several steps that every police agency and its officers can do to help prevent terrorism.

59) What is anthrax, and how does it relate to terrorism?

60) List some of the signs that a chemical attack may have taken place. How can officers protect themselves from such attacks?

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Criminal Investigation, 12e (Swanson) Chapter 22 The Trial Process and the Investigator as a Witness 1) Which of the following statements is true about probable cause?

A) Once probable cause has been established, an arrest must be made.

B) Once probable cause has been established, proof beyond a reasonable doubt must be affirmed before an arrest is made.

C) The fact that probable cause exists does not require an arrest to be made at that moment.

D) Absent probable cause, an arrest warrant must be obtained prior to making an arrest.

2) Which of the following should an investigator ponder prior to making an arrest?

A) Is the suspect likely to flee if left in the community?

B) What is the potential danger to others if the suspect is allowed to remain free?

C) What hardships will be imposed on the suspect by early incarceration?

D) All of the answers are correct.

3) Once questioning of potential jurors has been completed, what is the challenge that may be used for any reason, except race or gender, to excuse a prospective juror?

A) Challenge for cause B) Challenge for bias C) Peremptory challenge D) Executive challenge 4) While the prosecution is presenting its case, the questioning of witnesses it calls to testify on behalf of the prosecution is called ________.

A) examination B) direct examination C) cross-examination D) rebuttal examination 5) In the context of a trial, which of the following terms is defined as the questioning of a witness who was initially called by the opposing party?

A) Cross-examination B) Redirect examination C) Rebuttal D) Surrebuttal 6) In the context of a trial, which of the following terms is defined as the re-questioning of a witness initially called by the opposing party?

A) Redirect examination B) Re-cross-examination C) Rebuttal D) Surrebuttal

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7) After the defense rests its case, the prosecution has an opportunity for ________.

A) rebuttal B) surrebuttal C) cross-examination D) re-cross-examination 8) At what point in the trial process does the judge have the responsibility of instructing the jury on the law applicable to the case and of advising the jury of its responsibilities?

A) After the jurors have been sworn in but before opening statements B) After the prosecution and defense have presented their case C) Before closing statements D) After closing statements 9) What is the first rule of evidence?

A) Proof is not evidence, but the combination of individual facts is proof.

B) Keep a jury from hearing or seeing improper evidence.

C) Evidence must be relevant to the case at hand.

D) Determine the importance of the evidence.

10) ________ is the essence of the rules of evidence.

A) Disclosure B) Testimony C) Admissibility D) Confession 11) In a criminal trial, the requirement that the prosecution establish the defendant's guilt beyond, and to the exclusion of, every reasonable doubt is referred to as ________.

A) burden of proof B) burden of going forward with evidence C) preponderance of evidence D) order of proof 12) Who carries the burden of going forward with evidence in a trial?

A) Prosecution B) Defense C) Judge D) Court officials 13) In a civil suit, the party wronged is the plaintiff. What is the burden of proof necessary to win a civil case?

A) Proof beyond a reasonable doubt B) Preponderance of evidence C) Probable cause D) Reasonable suspicion

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14) Which of the following terms is defined as an evidentiary shortcut whereby the necessity of formally proving the truth of a particular matter is eliminated when that truth is not in dispute?

A) Evidentiary privilege B) Preponderance of evidence C) Peremptory challenge D) Judicial notice 15) A combination of all the elements of a crime is referred to as ________.

A) judicial notice B) order of proof C) corpus delicti D) direct evidence 16) Which of the following statements is true about direct evidence?

A) It is based on the firsthand knowledge of a witness regarding the guilt of the defendant.

B) It consists of maps, diagrams, sketches, photographs, tape recordings, videotapes, X rays, and visual tests and demonstrations produced to assist witnesses in explaining their testimony.

C) It is used in a criminal case by inferring from a series of known facts the existence of an unknown fact.

D) It includes items of physical evidence found at a crime scene, such as a weapon used to commit a homicide, a crowbar used to pry open a window, and fingerprints.

17) There are five types of evidence identified in the textbook. Which type introduces tangible objects even though they are not identical to real evidence?

A) Direct evidence B) Real evidence C) Circumstantial evidence D) Demonstrative evidence 18) An individual who testifies in court and who possesses special skills or knowledge not ordinarily possessed by others, acquired through experience, study, observation, or education and who is permitted to interpret such information for the jury, give opinions, and draw conclusions is called ________.

A) a lay witness B) a police officer C) an expert witness D) a forensic scientist 19) Which of the following is a reason why hearsay evidence is inadmissible?

A) It is unreliable and untrustworthy.

B) It violates two provisions of the Eighth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.

C) There is a tendency of information to be fabricated as it becomes secondhand information.

D) It carries little weight with juries.

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20) Which of the following statement(s) about Crawford v. Washington (2004) is/are correct?

A) Some hearsay evidence, that which contains "testimonial" statements, is inadmissible in a criminal prosecution if the original declarant is unavailable to testify.

B) With this decision, the Court unraveled many years of judicial precedents that justified many of the exceptions on the basis of trustworthiness and reliability.

C) In the years since the Crawford decision, many federal and state cases have been decided and many of the decision have conflicted with each other.

D) All of the answers are correct.

21) A(n) ________ is an acknowledgment by a person accused of a crime that he/she is guilty of that crime.

A) disclosure B) admissibility C) admission D) confession 22) A command to an individual to appear in court and to bring certain records or documents in his or her possession is called a ________.

A) subpoena B) subpoena duces tecum C) summons D) complaint 23) Which of the following terms is defined as a formal attestation in which a witness swears to tell the truth on the basis of his or her belief in a supreme being and acknowledges a realization of the penalties for perjury?

A) Oath B) Affirmation C) Declaration D) None of the answers is correct.

24) The most important characteristic of a good witness is to ________.

A) not show nervousness B) adequately investigate the case C) be prepared D) anticipate the kind of tactics the defense attorney will use in cross-examination 25) According to the textbook, for a law enforcement witness, what is the first step in preparation for testifying in court?

A) Ensure that a complete investigation was conducted.

B) Ensure that all investigative leads were followed and all avenues explored.

C) Review all notes, reports, electronic recordings, and physical evidence prior to testifying.

D) All of the answers are correct.

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26) Regarding the proper clothing to wear while testifying in court, all authorities agree that: A) a uniform should always be worn while testifying.

B) civilian clothes should always be worn while testifying.

C) an investigator should wear what he or she was wearing at the time of the arrest.

D) regardless of what is worn it should be neat and clean.

27) In the event that a witness cannot remember the facts of the case but used notes or reports as the sole basis of testimony without any independent recall, the term applied is: A) report reading.

B) past recollection recorded.

C) past recollection read.

D) past recollection refreshed.

28) The courtroom process begins with the selection and swearing in of a jury.

29) There is no limit on the number of peremptory challenges, but each side has a specific number of challenges for cause.

30) A language barrier is never a basis for a challenge for cause.

31) While the prosecution is presenting its case, the questioning of witnesses the prosecution calls to testify on behalf of the prosecution is called direct examination.

32) The prosecution has the opportunity to conduct a redirect examination of the defendant after completion of cross-examination.

33) Proof can be defined as anything that tends logically to prove or disprove a fact at issue in a judicial case or controversy.

34) The rules of admissibility protect the trier of fact, generally a jury, from hearing improper evidence that may be unreliable or untrustworthy and that may prejudice a case unjustifiably against the defendant.

35) One of the rules governing the admissibility of evidence allows evidence that is not relevant to a case to be admitted if the defense does not object to it.

36) Weight of evidence deals with the elements of persuasion and believability.

37) An inference is similar to a presumption but differs in that the jury has more latitude in accepting or rejecting an inference.

38) It is a myth that one cannot be convicted of a crime based solely on circumstantial evidence.

39) Judicial confessions fall within the hearsay rule.

40) The jury panel from whom the jurors in a trial are eventually picked is called a(n) ________.

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41) In a civil case, the party allegedly wronged is called the ________.

42) The ________ is the combination of all the elements of a crime.

43) Sometimes referred to as physical evidence, ________ evidence is connected with the commission of a crime and can be produced in court.

44) ________ is derived from "heard said" and is inadmissible in court because of it inaccuracy, unreliability, and untrustworthiness.

45) One who makes a(n) ________ does not acknowledge all the facts surrounding the crime necessary to constitute guilt but does admit to certain facts or circumstances from which guilt may be inferred by the jury.

46) ________ refer to certain matters of communication that defendants and other witnesses can rightfully have barred from disclosure in court.

47) A(n) ________ concerning the facts and circumstances of the fatal injury made by the victim of a homicide who is about to die and does not hope to recover is admissible as an exception to the hearsay rule.

48) Some of the more common evidentiary privileges fall into four categories. The ________ privileges include those that exist between attorney and client, physician and patient, priest and penitent, and journalist and informant.

49) The type of evidentiary privilege that involves communication between an attorney and his or her client is referred to as ________.

50) ________ is the process used before testimony by individuals who for personal reasons refuse to take an oath.

51) ________ is the process of discrediting or contradicting the testimony of a witness to show that the witness is unworthy of belief.

52) In the rules of evidence, using notes and reports simply to refresh the memory is referred to as ________.

53) During an ongoing criminal investigation, what factors must a criminal investigator consider in deciding whether to make an arrest and when to make it?

54) Define the following concepts: (1) evidence, (2) proof, (3) testimony, (4) admissibility, (5) materiality, (6) competency of evidence, (7) competency of witnesses, and (8) weight of evidence.

55) Distinguish "burden of proof" from "burden of going forward with evidence."

56) Describe the manner in which circumstantial evidence is used in a criminal prosecution.

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57) What is the hearsay rule, and why does it exist?

58) Discuss the exceptions to the hearsay rule: confessions, admissions, spontaneous and excited utterance, dying declaration, and former testimony.

59) For what proposition does the U.S. Supreme Court case of Crawford v. Washington stand?

60) What factors affect the credibility of the investigator as a witness?

61) How important are a witness's appearance and demeanor to credibility?

62) When and how may a witness use notes on the witness stand?

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