Liberty Study Guide Homeworksimple 57

26. Which of the following themes is, in many respects, the defining feature of environmental policy?

27. Environmental law is comprised of three distinct fields – pollution law, natural resources law, and animal protection law.

28. The idea that the needs of the present generation can be met without compromising the ability of future generations to do the same is reflective of which of the following general frameworks for evaluating environmental decisions?

29. ___________ concerns how agencies operate and the separation of powers.

30. The process of forcing factories to recognize environmental and social costs is known as externalizing internalities.

PLST 206 Final Comprehensive https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/plst-206-final-comprehensive/ PLST 206 Comprehensive Final 1. The definition of the practice of law: 2. The state that has the most progressive rules about non lawyer legal service providers is: 3. Lawyers cannot generally accept gifts from clients: 4. Several studies about lawyer advertising have been done. Which of the following is NOT one of the findings?

5. ABA Guidelines for the Utilization of Paralegal Services: 6. Ethics rules on conflicts involving family members: 7. Which of the following constitutes the practice of law?

8. The work product rule is part of which of the following rules?

9. Voluntary certification: 10. Which of the following pieces of information is protected by the rule of confidentiality and not by the privilege?

11. What is the exception to the ethics rule against making unmeritorious claims and defenses?

12. Under most state ethics codes or statutes, a lawyer’s duty to supervise nonlawyer employees includes what obligation?

13. What is the most accurate statement about the rules concerning a lawyer who criticizes a judge?

14. The unqualified privilege protects what kind of work product?

15. The ethics rule about candor and honesty requires: 16. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the proportion of lawyers and paralegals who do litigation work?

17. A lawyer can circumvent the ethics rules on referral fees by: 18. Informed consent: 19. Which of the following is typically prohibited by state ethics rules?

20. Which of the following practices is typically prohibited by ethics rules?

21. The two major paralegal associations: 22. The ethics rules for prosecutors: 23. The paralegal role in communicating with clients is: 24. The privilege can be lost in which of the following circumstances?

25. In the landmark case of Missouri v. Jenkins, the US Supreme Court decided that attorney fee awards under a federal statute: 26. The rules against fee splitting have been interpreted to mean that: 27. Which of the following is the most likely to violate the ethics rules on advertising?

28. The need for legal services in the U.S.: 29. What is most accurate statement about the paralegal’s ethical duty if a person is not represented by counsel?

30. Which of the following is a reason that a fee petition will be reduced by a court?

31. Which of the following areas of practice is NOT one that has an unmet need for legal services?

32. What best describes the ethical situation when a prospective client sends an email with confidential client information to a lawyer?

33. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary arguments against licensing of paralegals?

34. Which of the following groups has been allowed to represent clients in cases of successive representation with screening in place?

35. The crime-fraud exception to the privilege generally: 36. Which of the following is NOT one of the designations for voluntary certification by a national paralegal association?

37. Simultaneous representation is:

38. Electronic programs, such as software and web-based portals, that guide persons through a series of questions and facilitate the preparation of legal forms: 39. Paralegals in firms with guidelines or goals on annual billing are usually expected to bill about how many hours a year?

40. Which of the following statements about lawyers and substance abuse is true?

41. Solicitation is defined as: 42. What is most likely to happen if a paralegal is negligent?

43. Which of the following technology protections is most likely to be required under the lawyer’s duty of confidentiality?

44. Since the changes in the ethics rules about lawyer advertising, 45. Legal malpractice is: 46. The US Supreme Court has decided several cases on lawyer advertising. Which is NOT one of the rules that have come out of those cases?

47. What can happen if a lawyer has improper communications with a juror?

48. The federal rule that allows for sanctions for unwarranted claims and discovery abuse is: 49. Confidentiality agreements between a law firm and a paralegal employee: 50. Which of the following should be on a law firm website?

PLST 206 All Quizzes https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/plst-206-all-quizzes/ PLST 206 Quiz: Legal Relationships and the Business of Law 1. Fee-shifting statutes: 2. The changes in the ethics rules about advertising were brought about because: 3. The program of Interest on Lawyers’ Trust Accounts: 4. The rules against fee splitting have been interpreted to mean that: 5. While partnerships between lawyers and nonlawyers for the practice of law are generally prohibited: 6. Because of problems with billing abuses, some corporate clients now: 7. The rules against solicitation by lawyers: 8. Lawyers cannot generally accept gifts from clients: 9. Which of the following best describes the general rules about client funds?

10. The principles of vicarious disqualification are based on: 11. In what kinds of cases are contingency fees prohibited?

12. The rules on screens in conflict situations: 13. Exceptions against solicitation are provided for: 14. The rules prohibiting lawyers from engaging in business transactions with clients: 15. Which of the following is a reason that a fee petition will be reduced by a court?

16. A lawyer can circumvent the ethics rules on referral fees by: 17. Some states have not followed the reasoning of Missouri v. Jenkins as they interpret and apply state fee award statutes based on which argument?

18. Lawyers often refrain from serving on the board of directors of corporations that they represent because: 19. In Bates v. State Bar of Arizona: 20. The most common method of billing clients is: 21. Commingling is: 22. Which of the following should be included in a fee petition to the court?

23. When should a law firm conduct a conflicts check?

24. Which of the following is a concurrent conflict?

25. Unbundling legal services means: PLST 206 Quiz 1. ABABA Model Rules require that fee agreements: 2. Which of the following best describes the general rules about client funds?

3. Which of the following practices is typically prohibited by ethics rules?

4. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic ethical duties about client property?

5. Commingling is: 6. The most common method of billing clients is: 7. A lawyer can circumvent the ethics rules on referral fees by: 8. Vicarious disqualification means that: 9. Lawyers often refrain from serving on the board of directors of corporations that they represent because: 10. A lawyer cannot generally lend money to a client: 11. Flat fees are typically used in what kind of legal matters?

12. The rules against solicitation by lawyers: 13. If a law firm does not honor the rules on conflicts of interest, which of the following can happen?

14. In what kinds of cases are contingency fees prohibited?

15. Conflicts of interest are based on what principle or principles of ethics?

16. The principles of vicarious disqualification are based on: 17. Because of problems with billing abuses, some corporate clients now: 18. Which of the following groups has been allowed to represent clients in cases of successive representation with screening in place?

19. The rules prohibiting fee splitting are based on which of the following ethical principles: 20. Some states have not followed the reasoning of Missouri v. Jenkins as they interpret and apply state fee award statutes based on which argument?

21. Which of the following is a concurrent conflict?

22. What best describes the ethical situation when a prospective client sends an email with confidential client information to a lawyer?

23. Rules prohibiting solicitation: 24. Ethics rules on conflicts involving family members: 25. Which of the following is NOT another name for a screen?

PLST 206 Quiz 1. In Bates v. State Bar of Arizona: 2. Which of the following is a reason that a fee petition will be reduced by a court?

3. Simultaneous representation is: 4. Lawyers often refrain from serving on the board of directors of corporations that they represent because: 5. The most common method of billing clients is: 6. What proportion of firms offer alternative forms of billing?

7. The practice of billing clients for paralegal time: 8. In the landmark case of Missouri v. Jenkins, the US Supreme Court decided that attorney fee awards under a federal statute: 9. A lawyer cannot generally lend money to a client: 10. Under rules about fee splitting: 11. As a result of Missouri v. Jenkins: 12. The rules against fee splitting have been interpreted to mean that: 13. A retainer is: 14. The typical contingency fee is: 15. Several studies about lawyer advertising have been done. Which of the following is NOT one of the findings?

16. Vicarious disqualification means that: 17. Because of problems with billing abuses, some corporate clients now: 18. The program of Interest on Lawyers’ Trust Accounts: 19. Rules prohibiting solicitation: 20. Which of the following is a concurrent conflict?

21. If a law firm does not honor the rules on conflicts of interest, which of the following can happen?

22. While partnerships between lawyers and nonlawyers for the practice of law are generally prohibited: 23. Which of the following best describes the general rules about client funds?

24. Which of the following is one of the elements typically required in order for a screen to be effective?

25. The rules prohibiting fee splitting are based on which of the following ethical principles:

PLST 206 Essay Assignments https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/plst-206-essay-assignments/ PLST 206 Essay Assignments *4 essays attached The student will write 4 research-based essays in current Bluebook format that focus on prompts provided in the course. Each essay must be 450–500 words, and each essay must include at least 2 primary resources in addition to the course textbook and the Bible.

GOVT 220 Quiz Congress https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/govt-220-quiz-congress/ GOVT 220 Quiz Congress 1. Which of the following best describes the typical member of Congress?

2. A temporary legislative committee established for a limited time period and for a special purpose is known as which of the following?

3. The complexity of the procedure for enacting a law gives the advantage to which of these?

4. The drawing of legislative district boundaries to give one side an advantage is known as which of the following?

5. The Seventeenth Amendment allowed which of the following positions to be elected by the people?

6. When the president is a Republican and the Senate is also controlled by Republicans, but the House of Representatives is controlled by Democrats, it demonstrates which of the following?

7. The conservative coalition in Congress from the post-World War II era until the 1980s consisted of whom?

8. The original purpose of the General Accounting Office (GAO), now the Government Accountability Office, was to perform what?

9. A concurrent resolution passed by Congress seeks to do what?

10. Selection of committee chairpersons in each chamber of Congress is most often based on which of the following?

11. Since the 1980s, why has the conservative coalition become less important?

12. How is the Speaker of the House chosen?

13. The power of advice and consent on treaties and presidential nominations was given only to which of the following?

14. What is one proposed explanation for why congressional seats have become less marginal?

15. How can Congress pass a bill over a presidential veto?

16. A discharge petition is used by the House to do what?

17. The people whom a legislator represents and spends considerable time and effort serving are known as which of the following?

18. In order to fund programs established by authorization bills, Congress must pass which of the following?

19. The most important committees in Congress are permanent bodies that possess expertise resulting from their jurisdiction over certain policy areas. These are known as what kind of committees?

20. The typical public opinion poll shows which of the following?

21. Which of the following statements concerning term limits is incorrect?

22. What is a typical example of pork-barrel legislation?

23. What kind of committee is most likely to deal with a bill near the end of its legislative process?

24. Why was the Office of Compliance created to oversee the law, rather than have the president execute the law?

25. Which of the following is the committee in the House that proposes time limitations on debate for bills?

26. How many members are in the U.S. House of Representatives?

27. Who primarily serves as the day-to-day leader of the Senate?

28. Article I, Section 8 of the U.S. Constitution confers on Congress all but which of the following powers?

29. Most of the Founders of the American republic believed that most of the power that would be exercised by a national government should be in the hands of which of the following?

30. The seniority system provides which of the following?

GOVT 220 Quiz Elections https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/govt-220-quiz-elections/ GOVT 220 Quiz Elections and Campaigns 1. Which of these is an example of a positional issue?

2. What has been the effect of the conventions being held in close proximity to each other?

3. After party caucuses were replaced by national nominating conventions, who wielded the real power in selecting presidential nominees?

4. Most demographic groups favor one party or the other by about what percent?

5. Why do presidential candidates generally see a positive bump in polls after their party’s convention?

6. The Constitution spells out in detail the workings of which institution that chooses the president?

7. Soft money is obtained by whom or what?

8. In the 1980 presidential election, many people voted for Ronald Reagan over Jimmy Carter as a vote against Carter’s job performance. This is an example of what?

9. The campaign finance law created in the 1970s was the direct byproduct of what?

10. An important part of presidential campaigning is activating voters’ latent partisanship. What does this entail?

11. The federal government provides matching funds, dollar for dollar, for money raised by small donors for what types of elections?

12. Debates have the most influence on which group?

13. How can most political ads be described?

14. Which of the following observations illustrates the concept of surge and decline?

15. Why are demographic trends in partisan support important for candidates to understand?

16. In Federal Election Commission v. Wisconsin Right to Life, what did the Supreme Court hold?

17. Which of the following statements best describes super PACs? 18. Since 1911, the size of the House of Representatives has been fixed at how many members?

19. Which group, until more recent elections, has been about as loyal to the Democratic Party as African Americans?

20. Which of the following best describes what is allowed because of the 2010 Supreme Court decision in Citizens United v. FEC? 21. When a district is drawn in a bizarre or unusual shape to assist or benefit a candidate, it is called what?

22. Which of the following statements about the role of elections in the enactment of public policy is true?

23. Approximately what percentage of political ads in 2016 were negative?

24. Which of the following statements about campaign advertisements is true?

25. When is the media’s influence greatest on voters?

26. Since the mid-1960s, the incumbent reelection rate has never dropped below what percent in the Senate?

27. What differences are there in the support of young voters and African American voters for the Democratic Party?

28. Originally, how were presidential candidates chosen?

29. What is unlimited money given to political parties but not used to back candidates directly called?

30. What is the most important factor in winning the presidency?

GOVT 220 Quiz Interest Groups https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/govt-220-quiz-interest-groups/ GOVT 220 Quiz Interest Groups 1. Which of the following best describes an interest group?

2. The Federal Regulation of Lobbying Act of 1946 required groups and individuals seeking to influence legislation to do which of the following?

3. Why do Americans participate in civic associations more frequently than citizens of other countries?

4. Members of a farm bureau are most likely to have joined as a result of what type of incentives?

5. A benefit that comes from something that could be quantified in monetary terms is known as what kind of incentive?

6. A lobbying firm securing federal money for a university to construct a nutrition center would be an example of what?

7. The free-rider problem increases the difficulty of attracting which of the following?

8. Which of the following is true of most people who are sympathetic to the aims of a massmembership interest group?

9. When we talk about a lobbyist, we are talking about a person who is which of the following?

10. In recent years, what grassroots lobbying strategy do interest groups frequently use?

11. Which type of organization would be the least likely to take a firm stance on abortion?

12. Which of these statements best describes today’s lobbying laws?

13. Since 1983, labor union membership has declined due to what?

14. Some argue that the interest group system is most likely to leave out which of the following groups?

15. What are organizations that attract members by appealing to a coherent set of usually controversial principles called?

16. Every organization that benefits other people, even if they are not part of the organization, suffers from what problem?

17. Which of the following is an example of a legislator following a political cue?

18. Successful interest groups and their representatives try to cultivate long-term relationships with which of the following?

19. Which of these can remove the tax-exempt status of an organization?

20. People who join an interest group for solidary incentives are joining for which of the following reasons?

21. Which of these is the fastest-growing type of political action committees (PACs)?

22. Since 1960, the greatest growth in unionization has occurred among which of the following groups?

23. Purposive incentives are most likely to motivate people who join which of the following groups?

24. Which of the following statements about a social movement is generally true?

25. Americans are more likely than citizens of other western democracies to join which of the following?

26. Most issues lobbied in Congress are lobbied by how many lobbyists?

27. Many interest groups employ which of the following, who are hired to represent the group’s interests to the government?

28. Who are the dominant players in the lobbying market?

29. What is the single most important activity of interest groups in the eyes of many lobbyists and academic students of lobbying?

30. The National Organization for Women (NOW) is an example of a feminist organization whose membership incentives are primarily what?

GOVT 220 Quiz The Presidency https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/govt-220-quiz-the-presidency/ GOVT 220 Quiz The Presidency 1. A president can issue a pardon in which of the following circumstances?

2. Which of the following best describes signing statements?

3. Presidential powers expressly given to the president by the Constitution are called which of the following?

4. The president, in his capacity as head of state, is responsible for which of the following?

5. In which method of White House staff organization, used by President Jimmy Carter, do cabinet secretaries and assistants report directly to the president?

6. Which method of staff organization causes confusion and conflict among cabinet secretaries and assistants?

7. Presidents must rely heavily on the power of persuasion because they have what?

8. When no presidential candidate receives a majority of the electoral vote, which of the following occurs?

9. Presidents are now limited to two terms by which amendment?

10. Which of the following statements about a president serving more than two terms is correct?

11. Which of the following is true of executive privilege?

12. The Constitution gives the vice president which of the following?

13. Which method of staff organization poses the risk of isolating or misinforming the president?

14. The president has the power to appoint all of the following positions, except for which one?

15. George Washington limited himself to two terms, and no president served more until whom?

16. Which amendment to the Constitution requires the president and the vice president to be chosen separately by the electoral college?

17. Which of the following amendments to the U.S. Constitution establishes procedures for filling presidential and vice-presidential vacancies and makes provisions for presidential incapacity?

18. When the Constitutional Convention met in 1787, which of these describes the power of most state governors?

19. Which president was the only U.S. president to resign from office?

20. Who brings charges in the impeachment process, and where is the impeachment trial held?

21. Which of the following is true of a pocket veto?

22. As commander-in-chief, the president has which of the following roles?

23. In the history of the United States, which of the following has never occurred?

24. The rule of propinquity states what?

25. From the time of winning office to the time of leaving it, what can be said about the popularity of most recent presidents?

26. Which president was very successful at getting legislation through Congress during the “honeymoon” days of his presidency?

27. Today, senior White House staff members are often drawn from which of the following?

28. Which of the following is true of executive orders?

29. The main function of the president’s cabinet is to do which of the following?

30. The position of “acting president” was created by what?

GOVT 220 Quiz The Bureaucracy https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/govt-220-quiz-the-bureaucracy/ GOVT 220 Quiz The Bureaucracy 1. What is the key group of a president’s advisers, who are responsible for the areas under their jurisdiction, known as?

2. What was the purpose of the Pendleton Act of 1883?

3. What is the basis for hiring decisions made under the civil service system?

4. Which of the following statements about the civil service is accurate?

5. Fundamental to the core of the federal bureaucracy is the presumption that the people who hold bureaucratic positions have which of the following?

6. Why does conflict among agencies exist?

7. During the early years of the federal government, which of these was the only department to hold significant power?

8. By definition, a bureaucracy must have all but which of the following?

9. What do critics of government-by-proxy system argue is problematic about this system?

10. Many of the problems of bureaucracy in the government arise from what?

11. The discretionary authority of appointed officials is their authority to do which of the following?

12. The number of civilians working for the federal bureaucracy has not increased much since 1960.

This observation fails to account for which of the following?

13. If members of Congress disagree with the operations of a particular department within the federal bureaucracy and want to force changes, what means do they have to exercise some control over that department?

14. Which of the following describes the representation of African Americans and other minorities in the federal civil service?

15. Which of these is the ability of a congressional committee to review and approve certain agency decisions in advance and without passing a law?

16. Which of the following best describes how the major cabinet departments of the federal government were created?

17. In response to the assassination of President Garfield, Congress passed which of the following acts that established a merit- and performance-based system for federal employment?

18. A federal employee who was appointed by the president with the explicit task of carrying out the president’s political and partisan agenda would be known as which of the following?

19. Which of the following was created in 1978 to give the president more flexibility in dealing with high-level bureaucrats?

20. During most of the nineteenth and twentieth centuries, appointments to the civil service were based primarily on what?

21. How has the growth of subcommittees in Congress affected the iron triangles of government?

22. Bureaucratic inefficiency may be desirable in that it might help to do what?

23. What is one major difference between the United States and other countries with respect to private industries?

24. If you want to see the information the federal government has about you or about certain other subjects, how can you make the government release that information to you?

25. The “buddy system” allows an agency to circumvent the usual Office of Personnel Management (OPM) search process by doing what?

26. In the First Congress, it was decided that appointed federal officials would be removable by whom?

27. Between 1816 and 1861, the number of federal employees increased eightfold, in large part because of which of the following?

28. Bureaucratic imperialism is the tendency of agencies to do what?

29. If it were necessary to create a new cabinet-level department today, which of the following has the authority to do that?

30. When an agency like the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) makes an important decision, it is quite likely to be taken to court. This would be an example of which of the following?

GOVT 220 Quiz Federalism https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/govt-220-quiz-federalism/ GOVT 220 Quiz Federalism 1. William H. Riker concluded that the main effect of federalism since the Civil War was that it supported which of these?

2. What is the process of passing on many federal programs to the states called?

3. What are federal mandates?

4. Which of the following entities settles conflicts related to power sharing between the states and the national government?

5. During the 1960s, federal grants to states were increasingly based on what?

6. Which of the following metaphors best describes cooperative federalism?

7. Which of the following forms of federalism involves state governments and the national government working together to solve the nation’s problems?

8. Which of the following is the transfer of government power from the national government to state governments?

9. The necessary and proper clause of Article I, Section 8, of the Constitution is also known as which one of the following?

10. How has the Supreme Court ruled regarding mandates?

11. Which of the following is a requirement in federal legislation that forces state and local governments to comply with certain rules?

12. The Framers did not include an explicit statement of state powers in the U.S. Constitution. In which amendment was it later added?

13. What was the first form of grants-in-aid from the national government to the states?

14. Which of these is a procedure that enables voters to reject a measure adopted by the legislature?

15. Which of the following best describes police power?

16. What was the central question in the McCulloch v. Maryland case?

17. The push toward devolution has resulted in what?

18. In the last sixty years, the fastest-growing grants to states have been what?

19. Which of the following gives Congress the power to regulate trade among the states?

20. When did the grants-in-aid system begin to grow rapidly?

21. What does the doctrine of nullication refer to?

22. The advantages of a federal system of government include which of the following?

23. California’s Governor Gray Davis was replaced by Arnold Schwarzenegger in 2003 by what method?

24. Which of the following modern political ideologies has traditionally favored state governments over the federal government?

25. As it applies to the states, what does the full faith and credit clause mean?

26. What is one challenge of the devolution revolution for state governments?

27. Which of the following powers is not given to the federal government by the Constitution, nor reserved to the states?

28. What does the phrase laboratories of democracy mean?

29. Much of President Trump’s controversial response to the COVID-19 pandemic was to leave the decisions to the fifty states’ governors. Upon reflection, his reasoning would demonstrate which of the following beliefs?

GOVT 220 Quiz The Constitution https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/govt-220-quiz-the-constitution/ 1. How did Pennsylvania’s government, which was considered “radically democratic,” differ from other state governments?

2. Originally, the Constitutional Convention’s purpose was to do which of the following?

3. In the Declaration of Independence, Thomas Jefferson’s statement that “all men are created equal” is similar to which of the following theorist’s belief that government is based on the “consent of the governed”?

4. What was true for amendments under the Articles of Confederation?

5. During the constitutional deliberations, Alexander Hamilton, John Jay, and James Madison, to sway public opinion, wrote 85 essays known as which of the following?

6. What was one primary feature of most early state constitutions?

7. Madison’s confidence in the usefulness of the separation of powers rested on what assumption?

8. Each state would have had an equal number of votes in the national legislature under which plan?

9. How many special state conventions had to ratify the U.S. Constitution before it took effect?

10. The goal of the Framers of the U.S. Constitution was to create what type of system?

11. Which delegates tended to vote in favor of ratifying the Constitution?

12. What is one important consequence of the separation of powers in the American political system?

13. The Great Compromise resolved the impasse between which of the following two groups?

14. The Declaration of Independence listed grievances against which person for violations against political liberties?

15. Which of the following was true of the delegates to the Constitutional Convention?

16. The rights and liberties enjoyed in the United States are primarily stated in which of the following documents?

17. Shays’s Rebellion plays an important role in American history for which of the following reasons?

18. During the ratification process, which group favored decentralization to preserve liberty from an overpowering central government?

19. Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes the motives behind the support that different Framers gave to the U.S. Constitution?

20. Dividing power between the states and the national government is referred to as what?

21. The scope and authority of power that Congress was granted under the Articles of Confederation can best be described as which of the following?

22. The Constitutional assignment of lawmaking, law-enforcing, and law- interpreting functions to the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, respectively, is known as which of the following?

23. Which of the following is true with regard to the Great Compromise?

24. The Declaration of Independence was necessary for which of the following reasons?

25. States were granted extra representation based on the number of slaves they held under which of the following?

26. The president of the United States is selected by which of the following?

27. Which of the following was true of the Federalists?

28. Which group was entirely excluded from ratification of the Constitution?

29. “We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal” are the first words of which of the following documents?

30. Which of the following was the chief obstacle to the ratification of the Constitution by the states?

PSYC 565 Quiz 4 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-565-quiz-4/ PSYC 565 Quiz 4 1. Correlational studies examining commercials have looked for associations between familiarity with the content of commercials and drinking behavior. Such studies have shown that: 2. When Derrick first arrived in Thailand, he found it very difficult to adapt. Fifteen years later, his family has come to see him, and they are having a hard time recognizing him. He has not only learned the language, but also adapted his attire and personality to his new home. This is an example of: 3. Researchers hypothesized that mirror neurons provide a basic mechanism for true _____ of simple actions, allowing researchers to directly examine the mechanisms better.

4. Mirror neurons are rarely identified in humans because: 5. The tendency to adopt the behavior of the group is known as: 6. Children with autism: 7. In songbirds, what part or parts of the brain control the production of songs?

8. A theory of human behavior proposing that the kinds of reinforcement an individual has experienced in past social contexts will determine how that individual will act in a given situation is known as _____ theory.

9. Which scenario is the BEST example of social conformity?

10. Neurons in _____ respond when a bird hears a song and when it produces the song.

11. Which statement is TRUE regarding people with frontal-lobe damage who exhibit deficits in the ability to imitate?

12. Which statement is TRUE? 13. If one wanted to encourage 8-year-old Alice to read, who would be the BEST person to serve as a model?

14. One of the most important elements in copying a behavior is having a reason to repeat the observed action. Bandura referred to this as: 15. In studies of spontaneous imitation in patients with lesions in the frontal cortex or posterior cortex, or control participants, who were MOST likely to make a mistake when finger movements were inconsistent with the movement corresponding to the displayed numeral?

16. Marie has never been afraid of bees, but she constantly sees her mom scream at the sight of one. Eventually, Marie develops a fear of bees; this is an example of: 17. In the basic process to explain how people copy what they see, it is very important that what is being observed is encoded correctly so that it can be accessible and reproduced at a later time.

This step in the process is known as: 18. When chimpanzees were trained to copy a behavior whenever a researcher said, “Do this!” the chimpanzees could: 19. In a paired-associate learning test, elderly adults: 20. Which type of memory seems to be MOST vulnerable to decline as adults age?

21. Each human language uses about _____ speech sounds, which are referred to as phonemes.

22. The MOST important hormone among the principal class of male sex hormones is: 23. A person’s digit span: 24. When young versus old rats learned locations in a maze, it was found that: 25. In women, the _____ is proportionately larger than in men, and this is reflected in women’s superior performance on _____ tasks.

26. Which gene has been implicated in both early-onset Alzheimer’s disease and Down syndrome?

27. Myelination: 28. Which is NOT a reason communicating with gestures facilitates the development of verbal language in babies?

29. Individuals with Down syndrome:

30. When Tryon (1940) bred “maze-bright” rats together, he found that: 31. Eyeblink conditioning: 32. Amyloid plaques: 33. Which statement is TRUE regarding synaptogenesis?

34. What does NOT occur in the brain in old age?

35. In studies of emotion and episodic memory, elderly adults typically remember: 36. In women, the _____ is proportionately larger than in men, and this is reflected in women’s superior performance on _____ tasks.

PSYC 565 Quiz 3 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-565-quiz-3/ PSYC 565 Quiz 3 1. Which stage of Fitts’s three-stage model of skill learning would act in setting up a tent while carrying on a discussion about politics?

2. Neuroimaging studies of experts suggest that one should see increased cortical activation in brain areas associated with a: 3. Which statement is TRUE regarding expert performance?

4. When a rat learns to turn the correct way in a T-shaped maze, one finds that in the basal ganglia: 5. After the events of Columbine, certain video games came under heavy criticism for their violent content, especially the use of guns. The perpetrators spent hours playing specific video games as “practice.” If the criticism is true and video games played a role, which learning ability would explain what the shooters were doing by playing the video game?

6. Individuals with anterograde amnesia can: 7. Which disorder involves a reduction in the number of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta that control activity in the basal ganglia?

8. Someone with damage to the basal ganglia would have the MOST trouble with which task?

9. Suppose a child is learning to swim. If a person measures how long it takes the child to swim from one end of the pool to the other each day, the person will typically find that the child’s speed will: 10. Practice of a skill that is spread out over several sessions is known as _____ practice 11. According to Thorndike’s identical elements theory, if one learns to swim in an indoor pool, one will swim the BEST in: 12. Which statement is TRUE about research on perceptual-motor skills?

13. In Baddeley’s working-memory model, which system monitors and manipulates the two workingmemory buffers?

14. Research suggests that phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad processes take place in the _____ prefrontal cortex, while central executive functions take place in the _____ prefrontal cortex.

15. April takes a dance class in which the first exercise the class does is always the same. But one day, the dance instructor changed the first exercise. Out of habit, April persisted in doing the exercise she was used to, until she realized everyone else was doing something different. The task her central executive is MOST concerned with in this example is: 16. Brain imaging studies show that people with _____ copies of the COMT allele show _____ prefrontal cortex activity during a 2-back task.

17. People with damage to the frontal lobes are impaired on all EXCEPT: 18. Suppose Yulia’s mother asks her to pick up six items at the grocery store on her way home, but she has no place to write the items down. She keeps repeating the items over and over in her mind until she can get a pencil and piece of paper to write them down. In this example, Yulia would be relying primarily on her _____ memory.

19. In Brooks’s task involving visualizing a block letter F, it was reasoned that: 20. In Baddeley’s working-memory model, which system maintains auditory memories through internal speech rehearsal?

21. The research relating working memory to intelligence has shown that: 22. How many independent short-term memory buffers are included in Baddeley’s working-memory model?

23. When George Sperling (1960) used the partial report procedure, he found that participants could report about _____ of the letters in the array.

24. Patients with damage to the _____ side of the frontal lobe are MOST likely to show specialized deficits in _____ tasks.

25. While attending a funeral, Krista begins to cry; her husband Neil feels just as sad but manages to suppress the urge to cry or express his sadness in front of his wife and other people. Neil is likely using his _____ to inhibit expression of emotion.

26. Strong and vivid memories for highly emotional events are called: 27. Lesions of the central nucleus of the amygdala disrupt the ability to respond to _____ in a conditioned emotional response paradigm.

28. A classical conditioning explanation for PTSD suggests that the: 29. Neurons in the _____ have been shown to increase their response to a CS after it is paired with a fear- invoking US. 30. The classical-conditioning explanation for PTSD suggests that patients with PTSD: 31. Studies using MRI and twins have suggested that: 32. A(n) _____ refers to a fear of a particular object or social situation.

33. Holding a pencil between one’s teeth so that one is “smiling” can increase feelings of happiness.

This is consistent with the predictions of which theory?

34. A rat that is placed in a pool of water can learn to locate and climb onto a submerged platform in order to get out of the water. This is an example of: 35. Which statement is TRUE regarding phobias?

36. The psychological syndrome that can develop after a person is exposed to a horrific event is called:

PSYC 565 Quiz 2 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-565-quiz-2/ PSYC 565 Quiz 2 1. People with long-term addictions to cocaine or amphetamines: 2. Suppose a child whines continuously until his parents give him a cookie. The cessation of the child’s whining would be _____ of the parents’ behavior of giving the cookie.

3. Taylor needs help moving into her new apartment. She asks her friend Drew to help. Drew decides to help Taylor since he might need help from her someday. This is an example of: 4. Which statement is TRUE regarding the orbitofrontal cortex?

5. Cocaine and amphetamines work by: 6. If a pigeon is allowed to peck at a switch in order to receive food whenever it chooses, this is an example of which type of paradigm?

7. Gail is trying to stop biting her nails. Whenever she gets the urge to bite her nails, she forces herself to count to 100 before giving in to her urge. This is an example of: 8. A man would be considered to have a pathological addiction to alcohol if he: 9. A rat with a dorsal striatum lesion would have trouble learning to: 10. Parents who decide to use punishment on a misbehaving child should: 11. Skinner’s method of studying learning is known as a: 12. Which statement demonstrates the free-operant paradigm?

13. If a business owner continues for years to hire people who have Harvard degrees, never realizing that he would have done better if he had hired a brilliant summa cum laude from a local university who he didn’t bother to interview, what is the business owner exhibiting?

14. The theory stating that the probability of a response will increase or decrease depending on the outcome that follows is: 15. The set of all stimuli that have the same consequence as the training stimulus is called the: 16. Errorless discrimination learning does have some significant drawbacks. While it produces _____ and _____ learning of discriminations, later studies have shown that it is rigid and inflexible.

17. Training in which presentation of two stimuli together as a compound results in a later tendency to generalize what is known about one of these stimuli to the other is known as: 18. Which statement is TRUE of stereotypes?

19. is a tendency to ignore information that conflicts with prior belief and focuses on information that is consistent with that belief.

20. In a _____ representation, stimuli are represented by overlapping sets of nodes or stimulus elements.

21. Which model(s) can account for generalization?

22. Uma studied hard for her calculus test and found that she learned some study habits that could help her study for her physics test and other tests in the future. This is an example of: 23. In a single-layer network using a discrete-component representation, negative patterning: 24. Which statement is FALSE regarding the primary sensory cortices?

25. Providing highly detailed yet false memories is known as: 26. The phenomenon of transfer-appropriate processing effect suggests that: 27. People who have extraordinary memory abilities: 28. According to the phenomenon of transfer-appropriate processing, if Brandon encodes a list of words by thinking about whether they rhyme with other words, he will recall the list BEST if the test requires him to recognize words that _____ the words he learned.

29. Functional amnesia may be associated with: 30. What did Davachi et al. find when they used fMRI to examine brain activity during a levels-ofprocessing task?

31. According to Endel Tulving, which type of memory stores specific autobiographical events?

32. The frontal cortex: 33. The hippocampus: 34. Which theory states that the medial temporal lobe structures are needed initially for encoding and retrieval, but their role diminishes over time?

35. Mere exposure to visual details on coins: 36. Severe memory impairment is referred to as: