Liberty Study Guide and Answers 8

4. Anticipation guides are recommended for: 5. The three broad categories of reading materials are core instructional programs, supplemental materials, and 6. Which of the following does not make sense to utilize when encouraging students to annotate text?

7. Teachers should question themselves when making decisions about textbook difficulty. Which one of the following questions is least important in the decision making process?

8. Kristine loves children’s literature and brings in a wide variety for instruction in all of her content classes. She loves to read a narrative related to a topic of study and her students enjoy it, too.

However, she has been told to strictly adhere to the Common Core State Standards’ criteria for using text across disciplines. This means she will need to 9. Rozlyn believes students should interact with text and share the experience with others by reacting to text. This supports 10. Abbey has been using literature journals in her sixth grade classroom for years and likes the freedom it gives her students to communicate their thoughts about what they have read.

However, she wants to update her technique. What would you suggest she do?

11. Which of the following is a category for types of reading materials described by the text?

12. Which of the following steps is NOT necessary for QtA lessons?

13. Today’s basals still misunderstand the importance of 14. Peabody asked his class to brainstorm everything they know about World War II and then asked them what they wanted to know about World War II prior to reading. What strategy is Mr. Peabody utilizing in his classroom?

15. are collections of stories and poems that are usually organized by theme.

16. In a community of readers, all of the following are stressed EXCEPT 17. Circular story maps 18. The term __________ refers to books written for the general public, as opposed to books written specifically for classroom use.

19. Which of the following is NOT important to consider when determining what makes a good collection of books?

20. programs in basal readers emphasize reading and writing connections, writing activities, listening, and speaking.

21. Which of the following is meant to help students become aware of the purposes of a reading assignment?

22. The set of technological and communication skills needed to be productive citizens in today’s world is known as: 23. help(s) specify parts of a story and how they tie together to form a well-constructed story.

24. Textually implicit questions are 25. Which of the following is not particularly a benefit of curriculum-based reader’s theater?

FNLT 101 Quiz Who Owns It https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/fnlt-101-quiz-who-owns-it/ FNLT 101 Quiz Who Owns It? Covers the Textbook material from Module 1: Week 1.

1. Which of the following is not one of the key lessons of the parable of the talents?

2. What does the Bible say is enough for us to have in order to be content?

3. When someone’s faith journey and money decisions become intertwined, they often find that: 4. God uses money in our lives in each of the following ways except: 5. Blue teaches that changing the trajectory of a person’s “number story” begins with: 6. The issues that money creates are not just issues of the wealthy; they are issues of 7. Applying the belief that God owns it all takes Christians on a journey of ___________ in their financial lives: 8. One of the most powerful things about wisdom is: 9. True or False: God’s word on the topic of money is true, timeless, and transferrable.

10. The Iceberg teaches the following about our finances:

FNLT 101 Quiz Transformed Heart https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/fnlt-101-quiz-transformed-heart/ FNLT 101 Quiz Transformed Heart, Money, and World Covers the Textbook material from Module 7: Week 7.

1. In most of our financial situations, we do not have enough.

2. Working out financial goals along with God happens best when people take the necessary time to engage the process.

3. The first step in a “Know, Believe, Do” journey of financial transformation is always to become more generous.

4. As we move from believing to doing, our convictions become actions.

5. According to the reading on money and marriage, which of the following is NOT true regarding conflict in marriage related to money: 6. According to Blue, Christ’s choice to lay down riches and take on poverty as a human: 7. Money is a vehicle for becoming “salt and light” because how we use it: 8. Budgeting helps with which of the following in marriage: 9. Which of the following issues can create communication troubles in marriage, according to the reading by Blue?

10. After Pam’s divorce she took her pastors advice and began to _____ first.

FNLT 101 Quiz Owe https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/fnlt-101-quiz-owe/ FNLT 101 Quiz Owe (Debt) & Owe (Taxes) Covers the Textbook material from Module 5: Week 5.

1. According to Ron Blue, taxes represent: 2. What was Paul’s main teaching about taxes?

3. Which of the following statements about the biblical teaching on debt is not true: 4. Which of the following statements is not true regarding debt?

5. All tax deductions ultimately cost the taxpayer something.

6. It is always a poor use of money to hire help when preparing one’s taxes.

7. How often does the United States government release a debt analysis based in its census data?

8. True or False: Your home is a good investment and as a result it is wise to stretch yourself as much as you possibly can.

9. Remembering _______ is the first step to get over resentment about paying taxes.

10. Economically speaking, which of the following causes debt to be dangerous?

FNLT 101 Quiz Live https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/fnlt-101-quiz-live/ FNLT 101 Quiz Live Covers the Learn material from Module 6: Week 6.

1. According to Blue, which of the following is tied to answering the “How much is enough?” question?

2. What question might we ask ourselves to determine what provision means in our lives?

3. Hebrews 13:5 reveals that contentment is a(n): 4. Answering “How much is enough?” helps you to: 5. Contentment should be the hallmark of a mature believer’s financial life.

6. In Never Enough?, examples of what it looks like to answer “ahead of time” questions about the Live wedge does not include: 7. What two things did Paul encourage believers to find to be “enough” in their lives?

8. Provision, Contentment, and Enjoyment are three guide rails used to make decisions 9. One of the most generic questions Ron Blue has found that people have about money for people is: 10. It is biblically legitimate to use our resources to enjoy life.

FNLT 101 Quiz Give Grow https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/fnlt-101-quiz-give-grow/ FNLT 101 Quiz Give Grow Covers the Learn material from Module 4: Week 4.

1. Two of the main reasons that the Bible tells us that we are given material blessing are: 2. God’s Word affirms that cycles are inevitable, whereas the world teaches that the future is usually bright, when it comes to investments.

3. When we are in the surplus category, we have met all of our long – term financial goals and we can’t “afford” to lose money.

4. Saving using an IRA is a way to: 5. God wants us to be good stewards of his resources and use them for 6. The world tell us that living simply is: 7. According to Blue, a Christian’s giving ought to reflect God’s heart for: 8. A stable financial situation means that we are beginning to weigh our priorities and make choices about how ___________ will be used.

9. What does financial freedom lead to according to the Bible?

10. The first step in the Sequential Investing Diagram is to open a savings account at the bank.

AVIA 448 Quiz 1 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/avia-448-quiz-1/ 1. Positive law is law that is recorded by a legislature, court, or other human institution and is bound only to the authority of its authors, where ____________ is the concept that there is certain preexisting, and immutable laws that form the basis of morality and human conduct.

2. The _________________ law, is law developed by courts and prior case precedent and is not created by law-making entities.

3. In the federal court system, the lowest tier court where evidence is generally introduced during the fact-finding stage of a lawsuit is called the ___________________ court.

4. In the Federal system, if a case is appealed, it is first appealed to the corresponding court of _________ in the respective judicial circuit.

5. There are (#) __ regional judicial circuits in total in the United States federal appellate system.

6. The state court systems generally follow a similar format of the federal courts in that there will be a trial court, appellate court, and state supreme court. If a party wishes to appeal a state supreme court decision it may petition the United States Supreme Court by filing a 7. In order for a Court to exercise authority over someone, the Court must first have: 8. Powers not specifically enumerated to the federal government in the Constitution are generally understood to be reserved to the States: 9. When federal laws are passed that are typically so sweeping in their impact of a particular field or area of law or requires such uniformity of regulation, but fails to expressly state that it is occupying the specific field or area of law, this type of preemption is called 10. What are the three branches of government in the order they appear in the

HIWD 341 Quiz 4,5,6 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hiwd-341-quiz-456/ HIWD 341 Quiz 4 World War One 1. Kemalism led to the deportation and removal of all the following large minorities from Turkey EXCEPT: 2. In what way did Reza Kahn NOT limit religion in Persia?

3. Fill in the blank: “Any assessment of _____________ democracy must balance a dynamic public sphere and parliamentary tradition with a history that includes repression and military intervention into politics.”

4. The Tanzimat reforms in 19th century Ottoman Empire is an example of: 5. The Balfour Declaration stated: 6. The Paris Peace Conference and the Mandates created states in the Middle East based on: 7. All of the following describe British Imperialism EXCEPT: 8. The Arab revolt against the Ottoman Empirewas led by: 9. Which of the following rulers was not set up by the British and their allies after World War One? 10. What was the name of the British agent that inspired the Arabs to revolt against the Ottomans?

11. The state of the Levant at the beginning of the 20th century could best be described as: 12. All of the following are reasons why the Ottomans joined the Central Powers in World War One EXCEPT: 13. What large Islamic region came under the dominion of Dutch Imperialism?

14. Amir Faysal was: 15. The “creeping Islamization” of Turkey has not led to: 16. Which of President Wilson’s Fourteen Points stated: “nationalities which are now under Turkish rule should be assured … an absolutely unmolested opportunity of autonomous development”?

17. The Ottoman losses in the First World War range in what percentages of their total population?

18. Which Middle Eastern leader ended polygamy and granting women equal rights in divorce, inheritance, voting and education?

19. Who was assassinated in Sarajevo on June 28th, 1914, thereby beginning the First World War? 20. What ethnicity suffered genocide (1.5 million deaths) at the hands of the Ottomans during the First World War? HIWD 341 Quiz 5 World War Two 1. Nazi allies in the Muslim world actually included more __________, __________, and ________ than Arabs.

2. The primary contact and sympathizer with the Nazi’s in the Arabic world was Amin alHusaini.What prestigious position did he hold in the Islamic religion?

3. Rashid Ali al-Kailani was a Nazi sympathizer that represented what Arab country?

4. Al-Husaini played a role in the development of the Final Solution because: 5. Which Nazi pamphlet, distributed to Muslims, declared that “Palestine, an Arab land, shall remain for ever Arab”?

6. at German propaganda lm convinced Al-Husaini that the Germans had no long-term interests on the Middle East?

7. How many Jews did Himmler tell Al-Husaini that the Nazis had killed by 1943?

8. All of the following were names used for the Arabic unit of Nazi trained ghters EXCEPT: 9. Which of the following men did Al-Husaini NOT send for training in the SS in order to create death camp in the Middle East?

10. What is the single, global community of Muslims called?

11. Al-Husaini’s opinion of the Jews could best be described as:

12. Aga Khan, who was a major Nazi sympathizer and met Hitler directly in 1937, was a key contact representing what group of Muslims?

13. What was the legacy of the Nazi ideology that was introduced by Muslim Nazi sympathizers upon the Middle East?

14. Who did Muslim leaders who supported the Nazis NOT list as their joint enemies?

15. Which Muslim country’s military urged Hitler to use Muslims for a jihad against the “godless Soviet regime”?

16. What was the name of the Nazi Arab radio broadcaster, known for his famous opening line “Huna Barlin”?

17. Who stated that if Germans had become Muslims –rather than being restrained by Christian morality- they would have conquered the world?

18. Which Nazi sympathizing Turk advocated for a German-backed independent Turkestan?

19. Which Muslim unit participated in the massacre of thousands of Bosnian Jews, Christian Serbs and Roma (Gypsies)?

20. To whom did Al-Husaini propose an “Islamic Army” to ght America?

HIWD 341 Quiz 6 Postcolonialism and the Birth of Israel 1. According to Hillenbrand, Sufism can be best described as “a pathway to God or Allah”. While not implying that no other ways may exist, it does emphasize that Sufism is a better way. What made the Sufi 2. According to Hillenbrand, Islamic teachings would indicate that suicide bombers are not martyrs bound for paradise because: 3. The five Tariqas discussed at length in Hillenbrand are: 4. A 2008 global Gallup poll found what percentage of Muslims were in favor of militant extremism?

5. What two slogans expressed the Jewish settlers’ quest to make the Holy Land protable, fertile and workable for all immigrants?

6. What is the percentage of Palestinians living in Israel today?

7. Which Muslim scholar, known as “the most famous intellectual of his time,” was one of the primary founders of the Sufi faith?

8. Which woman is mentioned more in the Qur’an than in the Bible?

9. Who did the UN General Assembly recognize as the “sole legitimate representative of the Palestinian people” in 1974?

10. What is the difference between a “sober” and “intoxicated” Sufi?

11. What is a “Tariqa”?

12. What female Muslim celebrity is known as the “Star of the East” 13. The first Zionist immigrants to the Levant arrived in what year?

14. From where did the first wave of Jewish immigrants to the Holy Land originate?

15. All of the following were early Sufi Muslims EXCEPT: 16. All of the following are ways that Arabs resisted Zionist settlement policies EXCEPT: 17. The two greatest Sufi influences on Al-Ghazali’s scholarship were: 18. Each wave of Jewish immigration was known as: 19. What war resulted in the Israeli capturing all of Jerusalem, the West Bank, the Sinai Peninsula, the Gaza Strip and the Golan Heights?

20. The British responded to the Great Revolt in 1936 by:

EVAN 101 Quiz Final https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/evan-101-quiz-final/ 1. According to Pace & Wheeler, because a divine calling is from God, submitting is always easy.

2. According to Pace & Wheeler, a genuine calling may or may not result in change.

3. According to Earley & Wheeler, there are some believers who are just not called to share their faith.

4. Earley & Wheeler cite the fulllment of prophecy as proof of Jesus’ claims.

5. According to Earley & Wheeler, sympathy and empathy are the same thing.

6. According to Earley & Wheeler, Christians reject pluralism because because of the lack exposure to other views.

7. According to Pace & Wheeler, God can use uncomfortable, inconvenient, and even awkward conversations to bring people to Himself, but He cannot use our silence.

8. Salvation is tied to: 9. According to Pace & Wheeler, suffering is never part of God’s will.

10. According to Pace & Wheeler, even when Christians adopt service as an intentional lifestyle, it can still be dicult to initiate spiritual conversations.

11. In the Bible, Jesus sent out disciples for the purpose of evangelism before the Great Commission.

12. Despite Jesus’ example, His disciples did not carry on the practice of Servant Evangelism.

13. According to Chapter 8, because the Gospel is a universal message cultural barriers do not need to be crossed.

14. According to Pace & Wheeler, having a divine calling means a believer never has to struggle.

15. According to Pace & Wheeler, believers should not adore God and admit sin in the same prayer.

16. Thompson’s Concentric Circles of Concern model shows that the Gospel ows through relationships.

17. According to Pace & Wheeler, it is clear from Paul’s prayer for the Colossians that we can know and understand God’s will for our lives.

18. According to Earley & Wheeler, Old Testament stories such as creation and the fall cannot teach New Testament Christians about evangelism.

19. According to Earley & Wheeler, not every Christian has a story to tell.

20. Pace & Wheeler caution that if the need is too big, then do not try to meet it.

21. Jesus did not always explain the meaning of a parable.

22. Pace & Wheeler described Biblical disciple making as multiplication.

23. According to Pace & Wheeler, Colossians 3:16 shows a connection between the Bible and worship.

24. The 4 steps of True Salvation from the textbook are Curious, Convicted, Convinced, and 25. Earley & Wheeler taught believe that the Holy Spirit can: 26. Earley & Wheeler taught that a testimony should have: 27. The Great Commission is Christ’s command to His followers to make disciples of all people.

28. Servant Evangelism should have: 29. According to Pace & Wheeler, using a prayer schedule destroys spontaneity.

30. According to Pace & Wheeler, Servant Evangelism is never fun.

31. According to Earley & Wheeler, True Conversion means: 32. According to Pace & Wheeler, Incarnational Ministry means to be the hands and feet of Jesus here on earth.

33. The empathy of Jesus is seen in: 34. According to Pace & Wheeler all believers are commissioned to be: 35. Because you will have trouble nding a specic technique or method, Pace and Wheeler recommend that you do not follow Jesus’ witnessing example with the woman at the well.

36. Early & Wheeler use the story of Jesus washing the disciple’s feet as a picture of servant evangelism.

37. According to Pace & Wheeler, while the Bible describes what God does, It does not express what God desires.

38. Will McRaney shared that we cannot harvest where no seed has been planted.

39. According to Earley & Wheeler, empathetic living is never forgetting how it feels to be lost.

40. While servant evangelism can do practical chores, it cannot open doors to share the Gospel.

41. Pace & Wheeler advise to read the Bible daily.

42. In its nontechnical sense the term missionary is simply “a person with a mission.”

43. God’s plan of salvation not only includes humans but also His entire creation.

44. Early and Wheeler teach that if you have been saved then you also have been sent to tell others the Good News.

45. According to Pace & Wheeler, the Christian calling is a calling to salvation and not a call to serve.

46. Evangelism is: 47. According to Earley & Wheeler, high-pressure evangelism can be well meaning.

48. The book of 1 John has more than a dozen tests to offer assurance of salvation.

49. Pace & Wheeler noted that with apps on phones memorizing the Bible is no longer really necessary.

JURI 560 Quizzes 1,2,3 https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/juri-560-quizzes-123/ JURI 560 Quiz 1,2,3 JURI 560 Quiz 1 Intro and Intentional Tort 1. Lisa buys a high powered 3000 Lumen flashlight. She takes it to the end of her street and shines it into the eyes of pedestrians and motorists who walk by. Lisa has committed which of the following torts?

2. Children are not capable of committing an intentional tort.

3. Compensatory damages and punitive damages are available remedies in every tort case.

4. The defendant is given the first opportunity to present evidence in a trial, because our legal system emphasizes the importance of innocence until proven guilty.

5. A tort is: 6. The elements off false imprisonment include all of the following EXCEPT: 7. Trespass to Chattels can be distinguished from Conversion by: 8. Susan was taking piano lessons from Charles. Susan and her family invited Charles to a social event at their home. That evening, while Susan was seated at her desk writing, Charles walked up behind her and touched her back with both of his hands in a movement later described as one a pianist would make in striking and lifting the fingers from a keyboard. The resulting contact generated unexpected harmful injuries, including a thoracic outlet syndrome requiring the removal of the first rib on Susan’s right side. Which of the following would best explain a finding of a battery in this case?

9. Which of the following could not constitute battery if done with the requisite intent?

10. When asserting a general defense, the defendant admits to committing the tort, but asserts a legal excuse or justification for his/her actions.

11. Motive is an evil state of mind, while intent means that one is aware of the consequences of their actions.

12. Joe pushes Rachel into a room and tells her that he is going to leave her locked into the room until she dies of starvation. The room has a single door, which Joe locks upon leaving. The room also has a window. Outside the window, there is a fire escape ladder attached to the building.

Which of the following torts has Joe committed against Rachel?

13. At the end of a beauty pageant, the winner and the runner-up were standing side by side. As the winner was preparing to make an acceptance speech, the runner-up made a crude and insulting comment under her breath regarding the winner. In anger, the winner pushed the runner-up and she fell off the stage. If the runner-up brings an action for battery against the winner, who will prevail?

14. The elements for criminal assault and battery are distinct from the elements of the tort of assault and battery.

15. The Case of the Thorns adopted a strict liability approach that is quite different from much of modern tort law.

16. When a case is decided by an appellate court, and a written opinion is published, which of the following is a term for the binding rule of law to come from the case: 17. Rebecca has problems with sleep. She decides to take a new herbal remedy that purports to help with sleep. Rebecca has never taken this medicine before. After taking the medicine, In the middle of the night, Rebecca begins sleep-walking. While sleep walking, she retrieves a knife from her kitchen and chases Jeff, her neighbor. Which of the following torts has Rebecca committed?

18. John is a new student at Liberty University. It is a violation of university policy to smoke cigarettes on university property. John is a smoker and doesn’t agree with the university policy.

John’s roommate also does not like the smell of cigarette smoke. John thinks it would be funny

to blow cigarette smoke into his roommate’s face to make him angry. John waits on the other side of the door for his roommate to enter their dorm room. When the door opens, John blows a big puff of smoke, intending to anger his roommate. To his surprise, the person entering was Sam, a friend of his roommate. Did John commit a battery on Sam? 19. Mary, drives a bus for the Brookdale elementary school. Gary, a 1st grader, rides the bus each day. Gary normally gets off the bus with his older brother. One day after school, neither Gary nor his older brother got off the bus at the stop. Thinking that both were home sick, Mary finished her route. Mary did not know that Gary was on the bus, had fallen asleep curled up in a back seat, and wasn’t visible from the front of the bus. Upon completing her route, Mary parks the bus in the garage and locks it, and the garage, trapping Gary inside. When Gary awakes, he cannot get free until the next morning. Is Mary liable for false imprisonment?

20. Tom is flying his new helicopter over the land of Barry, his neighbor. Barry does not like the noise of the helicopter as he believes that it scares his cow. Barry files a lawsuit against Tom for intentional trespass to his land. Which of the following is true?

21. The “egg-shell” plaintiff rule can result in a defendant being held liable for the unforeseen harm inflicted as the result of an intentional tort.

22. The Alien Tort Claims Act confers jurisdiction only over suits by aliens and is inapplicable to suits

by U.S. Citizens.

23. Additur increases the damages awarded by a jury while remittitur decreases the damages awarded.

24. James and Michael get into an argument. James is a former professional boxer and has a terrible temper. Michael insults James and James loses his cool. James assumes a boxing stance and throws a right hook at Michael, barely missing Michael’s nose. Which of the following is true?

25. After leaving a bar one night, Jennifer (who was extremely intoxicated) parked her car in the driveway of her neighbor, Seamus. The next morning, Seamus could not leave his garage because Jennifer’s car was blocking his exit. It took him about an hour to rouse Debra into removing her car.

Which of the following torts did Jennifer commit against Seamus?

JURI 560 Quiz 2 Defenses and Negligence 1. Consenting to engage in a fight is a valid defense to a claim for battery.

2. Absent a medical emergency, consent can be gained from a minor.

3. Ben and Wyatt are both varsity members of the basketball team. One day, during gym class, Ben and Wyatt get into a fight. During the fight, Ben suffers a broken nose. If Ben sues the school, would the school be liable?

4. Mike and Tom are arguing after having drinks outside bar. Tom clinches his fist and starts to move toward Mike in an aggressive manner. Mike pulls a knife from his pocket and stabs Tom in the arm. Tom later sues Mike for assault and battery.

5. A government actor may interfere with private property for the public good, and the public actor is not liable for any damage caused.

6. The reasonably prudent person standard is subjective and difficult to apply.

7. Jack owns a large boat that he keeps at a local dock. The boat can easily be tied down with a large tow rope, but Jack prefers to use a much smaller rope because it allows him to set sail more quickly when he wants to take the boat out. One day, the boat breaks loose in a storm and crashes into several other boats that were also kept at the dock. Using the Hand Formula, which of the following is true?

8. Jared is a difficult young boy. He often throws rocks at his neighbor’s windows and disobeys his parents. One day, after rudely insulting his mother, she smacks him on his behind. Which of the following is true?

9. The shopkeepers privilege allows a merchant to detain someone if they have probable cause to believe that the person is stealing. Thus, the merchant will be protected from a claim of false imprisonment.

10. Rachel and Tim have a three-year old child. One day, the child comes down with a severe illness. The parents take their daughter to the hospital. After being examined, the doctors explain to the parents that their child will die if the blood transfusion is not performed. The doctor does not inform the parents that there is a small risk that the child can develop a negative reaction to the blood transfusion. Rachel and Tim consent to the procedure, but their child develops a severe reaction to the blood transfusion and requires a significant and expensive hospital stay.

Which of the following is true?

11. B < PL was invented in the case of: 12. According to the Third Restatement, compliance with community custom is conclusive evidence that the behavior was not negligent.

13. Joe and Sam agree to fight each other in a boxing match. After a long back and forth match, Joe defeats Sam on the judge’s scorecard. As Joe is raising his arms in victory, Sam punches Joe in the side of the head, knocking him to the ground. Sam never saw the punch coming. Which of the following is true?

14. Jurisdictions vary as to whether consent is treated as a privilege or an absence of an elements.

15. The majority of states assess specialists in the medical field through a national standard of care.

16. A negligence claim has which of the following elements: 17. Tom places a ladder outside a window. The ladder is old and worn. Tom has previously glued the ladder together in places. The makeshift repairs cannot be seen. Tom then asks Joe to use the ladder to fix the window. Joe climbs the ladder, but one of the makeshift repairs fails. Joe falls to the ground and his arm is injured. A firefighter who responds to treat Joe, negligently applies a sling to Joe, causing his arm to injured further. Which of the following is true?

18. John goes to the doctor for the treatment of a cold. He signs a form which purports to permit the doctor to perform treatment for the cold and to perform “any necessary medical procedure.”

While John is waiting to see a doctor, the nurse comes into the room and hooks John up to an IV. John soon falls asleep. When John wakes, he finds that his pinky finger had been removed.

The doctor explained to John that his pinky finger was infected with a rare skin cancer and that amputation of the finger was necessary to save his life. Which of the following is true?

19. Children are incapable of committing negligence.

20. Courts are more willing to apply a subjective standard of care with respect to physical characteristics as compared to mental characteristics.

21. Rhonda is a trained Judoka. While she is walking on the street one day, she sees Tom yanking on a purse that Sally is holding. Rhonda immediately runs to the rescue of Sally and executes a perfect judo throw on Tom. Tom hits the ground hard and breaks his arm. Tom then explains that he was only trying to retrieve his wife’s stolen purse from Sally.

22. Jonas has a mountain cabin in which he stores several valuable tools. After several break ins, Jonas sets up a spring gun trap for the next burglars foolish enough to break in.

23. Consent may be given: 24. Rick is the captain of a fishing vessel that offers charter trips to paying fishermen. It is a custom in the local area for the fishing boats to take a particular route through the local inlet on the way to the ocean. One day, Rick decides to take an alternate route and he runs the ship aground, injuring several of the fishermen on his vessel. Which of the following is true?

25. A jury will decide whether a duty exists.

JURI 560 Quiz 3 Negligence 1. Reckless behavior is: 2. Jimmy carelessly failed to clear ice from the sidewalk in front of her house despite a city ordinance that required her to do so. Harry, was operating a motor vehicle on the street in front of Jimmy’s house while intoxicated. Harry swerved off the road, onto the icy sidewalk, and into a nearby tree, causing him injuries. At trial, the finder of fact found that Harry’s negligence was 70% responsible for his own injury and that Jimmy was 30% at fault.

3. A person is liable for any and all harms that result from a negligent act.

4. The town of Greenville, North Carolina has enacted an ordinance prohibiting any business from offering an item for sale on a Sunday. Thomas runs a retail store in the town. In violation of the local ordinance, Thomas keeps his store open on Sunday and sells a bow and arrow set to Junior. The next day, Junior takes the bow and arrow set out and is injured while playing with it.

Which of the following is true?

5. Briefly explain and discuss the differences between “proximate cause” and “cause-in-fact.”

6. Jeff is walking down a busy street in New York City. Suddenly, and without warning, a large 2×4 falls on Jeff as he is walking past a building that is undergoing renovation work. Jeff is seriously injured. Which of the following is true?

7. Gross negligence is synonymous with reckless behavior.

8. Susan was traveling down a dark stretch of roadway one evening. As she approached a fourway intersection, she failed to stop for the stop sign at the intersection and struck another vehicle that was crossing the road at the time. Which of the following is true?

9. A criminal statute can never substitute for the common law standard of care.

10. John is walking in a grocery store. He slips on a banana peel that is in the middle of an aisle.

The doctrine of Res ipsa loquitur will allow John to move forward on a claim of negligence, even if John cannot prove who dropped the banana peel.

11. In which of the following cases did Justice Cardozo formulate a rule related to proximate cause.

12. There are times where a judge may be required to determine the “reasonably prudent conduct” by which a particular defendant may be judged.

13. A Plaintiff bears the burden to show that an affirmative defense asserted by a defendant is inapplicable.

14. Which of the following literally means “the thing speaks for itself”.

15. Tom is driving a cement mixer in a negligent manner. Tom collides with a semi-trailer hauling a Load of artillery shells to a local army base. The collision causes a terrible explosion. The explosion sends several shells into the air, one of which lands a mile away, knocking a tree into a house. Which of the following is true?

16. Briefly explain the distinction between the burden of persuasion and the burden of production in a civil case.

17. If two negligent acts are committed, either of which, on their own, would have been sufficient to cause a harm, each act may be a cause-in-fact.

18. Driving his mini-van negligently, Winnie crashes into a telephone pole. The pole snaps in half and falls, smashing through the roof of a house, killing Rabbit instantly. But for Winnie’s negligence, Rabbit would not have died. Regarding the death, the crash is the: 19. Which of the following is NOT an element of Res ipsa loquitur.

20. A court is more likely to award pain and suffering and emotional damages in a medical malpractice case than other cases of professional liability.

21. Legal malpractice injuries tend to be primarily economic in nature.

22. Briefly explain the differences between the “but for test” and the “substantial factor” test as each relate to causation.

23. Joy, while negligently operating her motor vehicle, caused a serious injury to Bobby. While Bobby was recovering in the hospital, a thief saw that Bobby’s house was vacant and stole his laptop computer. Bobby sued Joy for causing the theft of his laptop.

24. Most jurisdictions have not adopted the Ybarra rule.

25. The Third Restatement of Torts limits liability to the harm that results from risks that made the actor’s conduct tortious.

SOWK 431 Quizzes https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/sowk-431-quizzes/ SOWK 431 Quiz 1 Social Work Assessment to Depressive Disorders 1. A mental status exam examines all of the following except…

2. When a social worker is unsure of a diagnosis the social worker should give a “provisional” qualifier indicating that the social worker needs more time or information to make a certain diagnosis.

3. A _______ is a process by which a social worker or other human services professional systematical examines the quality of a client’s mental functioning.

4. Any classification of mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders is likely to be flawed, because it is difficult for any system to capture the complexity of human life.

5. The biopsychosocial framework holds only one advantage which is the provide theoretical basis for social workers to conceptualize human behavior at several levels.

6. Heritability for major depression ranges from: 7. Why is it important to find out the birth history of your client?

8. The diagnosis features for ______ include persistent impairment in reciprocal social communication and social interaction, and restricted, repetitive patterns of behaviors, interests, or activities. These symptoms are present from early childhood and limit or impair everyday.

9. ADHD is more frequent in females than in males in the general population, with a ratio of approximately 2:1 in children and 1.6:1 in adults.

10. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is equal in men and women although bipolar II disorder is more common in women up to 6%.

11. Women with bipolar disorder are more likely then men to have a comorbid disorder, because more of them are diagnosed with PTSD, eating, personality, and sleep disorders.

12. What is the first line intervention for bipolar disorder, given the inability of persons at either end of the mood spectrum to effectively manage their thoughts and behaviors?

13. What role does psychosocial interventions play in treating someone with bipolar disorder?

14. Of all the disorders that may be experience in one’s lifetime, depression is the most common.

15. The extent of variance that heritability explains for major depression ranges from?

16. Adolescence is a period of risk for depression because it is the time when people develop formal operational thinking; they can reflect upon causality for events in their lives and assume a future orientation in which they may experience hopelessness about the future.

17. Many people, particularly older adults, do not see depression as a health problem that can be treated but rather as a character weakness or a sign of being “crazy”.

18. The initial stage of intervention for persons who are depressed is to assess for suicidal risk, which is associated with which of the following factors: 19. When is it appropriate for a practitioner to recommend inpatient treatment for depression?

20. What are some of the barriers to getting psychotherapy?

21. What types of psychotherapies are appropriate and discussed in our text for treating depression?

22. In studies conducted around effective treatment for depression, CBT performed as well as medication.

23. Name one of the major critiques to the changes in the DSM V for depressive disorders.

24. The following symptom fits with which diagnosis: A distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive or irritable mood and abnormally and persistently increased activity or energy, lasting at least 4 consecutive days and present most of the day, nearly every day.

25. The following symptoms fits predominantly with which diagnosis: Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all, activities most of the day, nearly every day.

26. The following symptoms fits predominantly with which diagnosis:

27. Catherine is a 38 year old married female with no children. ordered to attend treatment at the outpatient mental health clinic for individual or group anger management services. Two months ago, Catherine was charged with assault after stabbing her husband in the shoulder with a steak knife during an argument at a restaurant. She is also awaiting incarceration as a result of reckless driving without a license. She has been in jail on 5 different occasions for similar incidents. Catherin reports her mood is often irritable, but also “up and down”. Which of the following disorders would you evaluate Catherine for?

28. Federal law mandates the provision of an Individualized Education Plan (IEP) for all children with Autism Spectrum Disorder.

29. Medication for Autism Spectrum Disorder assists in changing the core features of the disorder.

30. Which of the following behavior management interventions are recommended for a child diagnosed with Autism Spectrum Disorder?

31. Children with ____ behave in a way that purposely annoys and antagonizes others, whereas ____ symptoms are displayed without regard to others.

32. Some of the symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) may mimic those with ADHD. 33. Which of the following are possible genetic indicators of ADHD? 34. ADHD does not pose as a risk factor for self-harm and suicidality, including ideation and attempts.

35. A part of psychoeducation for parents of children with ADHD includes all the following except: 36. Assessing a client’s spirituality is important because it identifies some of the client’s strengths.

37. A client comes in your office and is acting depressed through diminished interest and feeling hopelessness. As a social worker always assessing your client you: 38. Low social economic status is associated with the development of a number of mental disorders such as oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder, ADHD, anxiety disorders, depression, and schizophrenia.

39. Which of the following mental health care system includes mental hospitals, residential treatment facilities, psychiatric units of general hospitals, and specialized community agencies and programs?

40. Which of the following mental health care system is responsible for regular prenatal care, childhood immunizations, and routine developmental screenings that protect against developmental disorders, such as intellectual disability and for the early determination of others, such as ASD? 41. Which of the following mental health care system is comprised of social welfare, criminal justice, educational, religious, and charitable services?

42. Which of the following mental health care system includes self-help groups and organizations devoted to education, communication, and support?

43. Why is having a strength’s perspective important when working with mental health disorders?

44. The client’s orientation to time, person, place, and situation; quality of general intellect; memory; ability to think abstractly; and quality of concentration is considered to be a part of: 45. When completing a MSE the person’s thought is considered: 46. A client’s appearance judges all of the following except: 47. A syndrome characterized by clinically significant disturbance in an individuals cognition, emotion regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological, or developmental processes underlying mental function is the definition of: 48. Competent use of the DSM V is beneficial for social workers because of the following reasons except: 49. The biopsychosocial framework holds a number of advantages for the assessment of mental disorders.

50. Brain imaging studies indicate that Autism Spectrum Disorder is associated with an enlarged overall brain size.

SOWK 431 Quiz 2 Anxiety to Eating Disorders

1. Andrew is a 15 year old male enrolled in the 9th His mother has contacted an outpatient mental health agency because of his extreme fears of going to school. She stated that he has bot been able to attend a single day in the past 2 months. During your intake, Andrew was nervous and sweating profusely, but was friendly and mature. He smiled a lot, even when discussing painful subjects. He had minimal contact, however, focused instead on the floor. He identifies that he is afraid of larger class sizes in high school and large crowds. Which of the following disorders would you evaluate Andrew for?

2. When assessing for anxiety in children, it is recommended that interviews should be conducted together with parents 3. Separation anxiety in children have about ___ percent that persist into adulthood.

4. When assessing for anxiety disorders the following should be a part of the assessment except: 5. Typically, people who are diagnosed with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) have not experienced a history of uncontrollable stress.

6. Anxiety disorders also increase the risk of suicidality.

7. Which of the following therapies have been studied to assist with anxiety?

8. What is a disadvantage to using medication to treat anxiety?

9. The following are common themes found in obsessive-compulsive disorder except: 10. The social worker’s information-gathering about OCD should include: 11. Families with children who have OCD tend to provide excessive reassurance, assist by avoiding triggers, and catering to the obsessions and compulsions, sometimes participating in rituals. This is important to assess and target as a reduction results in better treatment response.

12. Obsessive-compulsive disorder typically develops in late adulthood.

13. What is psychoeducation?

14. In treating OCD which of the following could be a part of that treatment?

15. OCD and hoarding disorders have their own groups in the DSM V. 16. Which of the following develop when a person has PTSD? 17. Increased arousal is a part of PTSD 18. PTSD is the only disorder that is a result of trauma.

19. Which of the following methods are appropriate treatment options for PTSD? 20. Cognitive interventions aim to modify a client’s problematic cognitions involving self-blame, lack of safety, inability to trust, powerlessness, and loss of control.

21. Crisis debriefing has been found to be helpful in working with children who have PTSD. 22. People with eating disorders tend to be underdiagnosed and undertreated.

23. Although eating disorders are more prevalent in females, males represent about 25% of cases.

24. Bulimia is moderately heritable and more so then anorexia.

25. Having a mental disorder puts one at risk for having an eating disorder.

26. Goals for treating eating disorders include all of the following except: 27. Treatment for eating disorders can only take place in inpatient facilities.

28. is the emotional response to real or perceived imminent threat, where as _____ is the anticipation of future threat.

29. If a client presents with an excessive anxiety and worry, occurring more days then not for at least 6 months, about a number of events or activites, you would assess them for what type of disorder?

30. You can meet criteria for posttraumatic stress disorder if you have learned that a traumatic event occurred to a close family member or close friend when the event was violent or accidental.

31. PTSD can only be diagnosed within 3 months of the event.

32. What is the rate of recovery for generalized anxiety disorder?

33. What is the probability of generalized anxiety reoccurring?

34. Anxiety disorders are often comorbid with one another and with _____.

35. Obsessive compulsive disorder has common comorbid disorders with all of the follow except: 36. In adulthood, females are at a heightened risk for OCD than do males, although in childhood, rates between gender groups are similar.

37. Obsessive-compulsive disorder typically develops in late adulthood.

38. What is mindfulness?