Liberty Study Guide Homeworksimple 52

HLTH 640 Quiz 3 Vitamins, Minerals https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-640-quiz-3-vitamins-minerals/ HLTH 640 Quiz 3: Vitamins, Minerals, and Water Module 5: Week 5 – Module 6: Week 6.

1. Food sources from preformed vitamin A (in milk, cereals, cheese, egg yolks, and liver) have better absorption than food sources which are rich in provitamin A (carrots, spinach, and sweet potatoes).

2. John is taking the anticoagulant medication Coumadin so he needs to monitor his vitamin K intake from 3. John started taking a multivitamin and noticed that his urine was yellow. This is because an excess of ________ was being excreted.

4. Excesses of water-soluble vitamins are excreted from the body in urine and therefore they rarely accumulate to toxic levels.

5. When foods are exposed to air, water, UV light, changes in pH, or heat, nutrient content of foods typically 6. are substances found in foods that are not in a form directly usable by the body, but that can be converted into an active form once they are absorbed; however vitamins found in foods that are already in the active form, called ________ vitamins, do not undergo conversion.

7. As long as a supplement has the USP label, it is safe to consume any amount of the supplement.

8. Vitamin A is essential for vision, cell growth and development, reproduction, and a healthy immune system.

9. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are the ________ vitamins, but the B vitamins are the ________ vitamins.

10. Most water-soluble vitamins are not toxic because excesses are excreted in the 11. Vision problems and increased infections result from vitamin A 12. Vitamin A is stored in the liver and this increases the likelihood of toxicity symptoms.

13. Vitamin K is the “sunshine vitamin” can be made in the body with the help of ultraviolet rays from the sun.

14. Vitamin D deficiency symptoms include 15. Green leafy vegetables and vegetable oils are rich in vitamin A. 16. Hypercalcemia, abnormalities in the nervous system, and severe depression may result from 17. Antioxidants, such as vitamins E and C, and carotenoids, ________ the damaging effects of free radicals, atoms or molecules with an unpaired electron.

18. Which of the following nutrients are not stored in the body?

19. No food contains every nutrient, but every food group has specific nutrients.

20. Vitamin A is stored in the liver until needed and is not easily excreted from the body.

21. Vitamins provide kilocalories, and are therefore considered to be a source of energy.

22. Dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea, and death may result from inadequate intake of 23. In most cases of macrocytic anemia, the true cause is a B12 deficiency, not a folate deficiency.

24. functions as part of the phospholipid that makes up cell membranes; it functions in liver metabolism; it participates in nerve transmission; it assists in the transport of lipids as part of the VLDL; and it plays a key role in fetal development.

25. Fortification of cereal grains has resulted in fewer cases of 26. Fruits and vegetables which are ________ have been linked to lower rates of cancer of the lung, mouth and esophageal, stomach, and colon.

27. Who among the following is most likely to experience vitamin B12 deficiency symptoms? A 28. Consuming too much folic acid from supplements can obscure a vitamin B12 deficiency.

29. Individuals who are underconsuming B vitamins are likely to feel

30. Choline is a conditionally essential nutrient that is needed for the integrity of cell membranes, nerve transmission, lipid transport, and liver health.

31. The B vitamins thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, pantothenic acid, biotin, and vitamin B6 act as ________ in the process of breaking down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats to ATP. 32. Inadequate folate intake may result in abnormally large and immature red blood cells which have diminished oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to weakness, irritability and shortness of breath.

33. Permanent birth defects in which a portion of the spinal cord and its protective membranes protrude from the vertebral column is called 34. Taking large amounts of vitamin B6 supplements has been linked to reversible nerve damage.

35. Folate needs vitamin B12 to stop in cell division.

36. Without the B vitamins, energy production would come to a halt.

37. This B vitamin is likely to lead to deficiency symptoms in vegans because it is found only in animal foods 38. Thiamin in lean pork and whole grains is necessary for energy metabolism and plays a role in nerve transmission.

39. Folate coenzymes accept and donate one-carbon compounds in DNA and amino acid synthesis.

40. Folic acid is more easily absorbed than folate.

41. Alcohol may not lead to dehydration because it is a liquid.

42. Usually, the darker the color of the urine, the more ________ the person is.

43. Water serves as an acid—base buffer, transports oxygen and fat- soluble nutrients throughout the body.

44. Because water is a ________ molecule, it attracts other charged molecules and helps maintain acid-base balance in the body.

45. Water that is formed in the body as a result of metabolic reactions is called 46. The most abundant substance in the body is 47. The best way to assess water needs is to wear cotton clothing while exercising and to regularly examine the level of sweat in workout clothes.

48. Experts recommend that the type of water which Americans should drink and which benefits the environment is 49. According to the American College of Sports Medicine, for every pound of weight lost during exercise, drink at least ________ cups of water to rehydrate.

50. Physical activity, diet, gender, air temperature and humidity all determine the ________ of water that an individual should drink.

51. Jose does not like the taste of water. Which of the following would you recommend?

52. When Maria has finished urinating, the water in the toilet bowl is clear. What does this indicate about her level of hydration? She is likely to be 53. To ensure adequate hydration, individuals should drink as much water as possible.

54. Adults and adolescents have the same daily water needs.

55. A measured water bottle may help to achieve daily hydration goals.

56. Hard water contains 57. Excess water ingestion can result in water intoxication.

58. Muscle tissue has ________ water than fat tissue.

59. The thirst mechanism is ________ by increased ECF osmolality, dry mouth, and hypovolemia.

60. Persons who use anti-hypertensive medication which lead to hypokalemia would benefit from eating foods which are rich in 61. Animal protein from meat, fish, and poultry enhances zinc absorption; and vitamin D enhances calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium absorption.

62. Deli meats and canned soups are often high in sodium.

63. Hypophosphatemia symptoms include: muscle weakness, bone pain, rickets in children, confusion, and, at the extreme, death.

64. Minerals that are needed in amounts greater than 100 milligrams per day–sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, phosphorus, magnesium, and sulfur–are classified as 65. Cooking legumes that contain phytates, can help increase the bioavailability of its minerals by breaking the bonds between the minerals and the binders.

66. Calcium and phosphorous are needed for the process of 67. Which mineral provides shape to proteins and is part of the vitamins thiamin and biotin and the amino acids cysteine and methionine?

68. Excessive magnesium from foods such as leafy green vegetables, and legumes are not likely to lead to toxicity symptoms.

69. Hyperkalemia symptoms—nausea, fatigue, muscle weakness, irregular heartbeat, and tingling in feet and hands–are likely to result from 70. Individuals who consume diets which are adequate in ________ have optimal muscle function, nerve conduction, fluid and pH balance, bone health, recommended blood and are unlikely to have kidney stones.

71. The mineral which helps maintain fluid balance, transmits nerve impulses, participates in muscle contraction, and helps transport some nutrients across cell membranes is 72. The most overconsumed sodium source is 73. The degree to which a nutrient is absorbed and ultimately available to be used in the body is called its 74. Inorganic elements that are essential to the nutrition of humans are called 75. Oxalates in tea can inhibit the body’s absorption of some minerals, deceasing bioavailability.

76. Minerals are classified as major minerals or as trace minerals depending on the amount found in the body and the amount needed on a weekly basis.

77. It is not possible to experience mineral toxicity symptoms because the body adjusts mineral absorption and excretion, according to the body’s need for minerals.

78. The DASH diet is recommended to lower blood pressure because it is rich in 79. Mineral toxicity symptoms are likely to emerge from 80. Dark green leafy vegetables are rich in 81. Zinc is part of the ________ and DNA structure, functions in taste acuity, and helps prevent agerelated macular degeneration.

82. Postmenopausal women and men have the same RDA for iron.

83. Menke’s disease and Wilson’s disease are 84. Selenium deficiency is linked to heart damage as in 85. Manganese deficiency symptoms are widespread.

86. In children too much fluoride can result in skeletal fluorosis; in adults it can cause fluorosis.

87. Phytates in legumes and cereals ________ copper and iron.

88. Iron functions in energy metabolism and is needed for a healthy immune system and brain function.

89. Foods which contain heme iron are ________ non-heme iron foods.

90. Which of the following is likely to contain fluoride?

91. A pregnant women who underconsumes iodine during pregnancy is likely to have a baby who suffers from 92. Although grains have higher iron contents than other food groups, the iron in proteins is 93. Chromium may improve insulin function, the metabolism and storage of carbohydrates and fats, and metabolic syndrome and 94. Fluorosis creates teeth that are extremely resistant to caries but 95. The bioavailability of trace minerals can be affected by the quality of the mineral in the body and whether the mineral competes with other substances for absorption.

96. Adding a vitamin C-rich food (citrus, many fresh vegetables) at a meal ________ iron absorption.

97. Menstruating women need ________men.

98. Who among the following needs to avoid iron and vitamin C supplements? Persons who have been diagnosed with 99. Chromium content of foods is related to the chromium content of the soil in which they were grown.

100. Who among the following persons has the highest need for iron? A female who is

HLTH 640 Quiz Protein Lipids https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-640-quiz-protein-lipids/ HLTH 640 Quiz: Protein, Lipids, Alcohol, Metabolism, and Global Nutrition Module 3: Week 3 – Module 4: Week 4 1. Antioxidants like vitamins C and E ________ the oxidation process by bonding with the free radicals by preventing oxygen from attacking the double bonds.

2. The best approach to meeting the need for fats is to use fat- substitutes because they are nutritionally superior to omega-3 fats in oily fish (salmon, mackerel, herring).

3. Stored triglycerides cushion and protect bones, organs, and nerves and help maintain body temperature. Dietary fat provides essential fatty acids and is needed for the absorption of fatsoluble vitamins and carotenoids.

4. High LDL blood cholesterol, low HDL blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, excess body weight, inactivity, type 2 diabetes, and smoking represent uncontrollable risk factors for heart disease.

5. Cholesterol is needed for which of the following functions?

6. High concentrations of triglycerides in the blood and in adipose tissue are 7. Trans fats in processed foods pose a greater risk for heart health than saturated fats.

8. Regular exercise and maintaining a healthy body weight can help lower LDL cholesterol concentrations and raise HDL cholesterol concentrations.

9. The flakiness of pie crusts, tenderness in meat, and the freshness of foods are associated with 10. Long-chain fatty acids take ________ to digest and absorb than do short- or medium-chain fatty acids 11. Features such as a longer shelf-life, improved texture of pastries, crispier fried foods, and providing a “mouthfeel” like butter at a lower cost are characteristic of foods which have been 12. Consumption of antioxidant-rich fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and nuts is recommended to reduce the risk of atherosclerosis.

13. Fats that are liquid at room temperature are called 14. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols are the three main types of 15. A plant-based diet with minimal amounts of high-saturated-fat, high-sugar foods, coupled with daily physical activity, reflects the healthy habits of the Mediterranean lifestyle.

16. Dietary cholesterol and phospholipids are both made in the body and are not essential nutrients.

17. Which of the following foods is more likely to become rancid?

18. Exercise is linked to high HDL levels.

19. Lipids that consists of two fatty acids and a phosphate group attached to a glycerol backbone are called 20. Cholesterol is found mostly in animal-based foods, whereas plant- based foods contain mostly phytosterols.

21. If a chain consists of two joined amino acids it is called a dipeptide; three joined amino acids form a tripeptide; more than 10 amino acids joined together is called a polypeptide; and a polypeptide chain that contains 50 or more amino acids is called a 22. amino acids contain a central carbon surrounded by a side chain carboxylic acid (COOH), a hydrogen, and an amine group (NH2).

23. Vegetarians would benefit from eating complete proteins such as 24. The more protein Americans consume, the better.

25. Dipeptidases and tripeptidases hydrolyze the tripeptides and dipeptides into single amino acids that are readily absorbed through the enterocytes via the portal vein to the 26. As long as a protein which has all the essential amino acids, it should be consumed liberally.

27. How many grams of protein should adults consume for each kilogram of body weight?

28. Most Americans have met their protein needs by the time that they have finished breakfast.

29. Amino acid pools act as a reservoir for 30. Individuals who have marasmus are starving and need to be fed.

31. How is nitrogen in the amine group processed?

32. The specific sequence of amino acids determines the specific ________ of the protein.

33. The large molecules which are made up of chains of amino acids and found in all living cells are called 34. Between amino acids, the ________ bonding causes the straight chain to fold, twist, and coil.

35. A peptide bond forms by condensation when the acid group (COOH) and amine group of two different amino acids join and ________ a molecule of water.

36. Chemical digestion of protein begins in the 37. A high-protein diet may increase the risk of heart disease, kidney problems, and calcium loss from bone.

38. During absorption, excess amino acids are 39. Amino acids are linked into unique chains by ________ bonds.

40. A severe deficiency of protein results in kwashiorkor; a severe deficiency of kilocalories causes marasmus.

41. Alcoholics Anonymous offers ________ for recovering alcoholics.

42. Where is alcohol absorbed?

43. After fermentation, the alcoholic liquids are heated, causing the ethanol to vaporize. The vapor is collected, cooled, and condensed into a concentrated beverage called liquor or distilled spirits.

This process is called 44. Binge drinking and underage drinking are common forms of alcohol abuse on college campuses.

45. Damage to the fetus of a pregnant Mom who consumes alcohol can be reversed by eating right.

46. During beer production, the dried flowers of a plant which add flavor and antibacterial properties are called 47. Oliver typically drinks excessive quantities of alcohol in a short amount of time. He would be classified as a 48. Since women have about 20—30 percent less ________ secreted from their gastric mucosa than men, more ethanol enters the blood through a female’s gastric lining.

49. The only cure for a hangover is time.

50. A person who has passed out after drinking should never be left to “sleep it off, someone needs to intervene and call 9-1-1 immediately.

51. Alcohol poisoning can be fatal.

52. Vodka production begins with potatoes or grains, and production of rum begins with 53. Compared to beer, an individual is more likely to get drunk if they have consumed 54. Most of the alcohol which has been consumed is absorbed in the 55. If food is in the stomach, when alcohol arrives there, the food blocks the alcohol from the stomach wall and this blocking action ________ the amount of alcohol that diffuses through the gastric lining.

56. The state in which the BAC rises to the point that a person’s central nervous system is affected and his or her breathing and heart rate are interrupted is called tolerance.

57. Alcohol use disorder includes alcohol abuse and alcoholism.

58. Excessive quantities of alcohol can shut down the reticular activating system, causing loss of consciousness. This reaction to excessive alcohol intake is beneficial in that it prevents further drinking.

59. A hypothetical group of female students, who all have the same weight have been drinking the same amount of alcohol. Who is more likely to feel alcohol effects sooner? The student who is 60. Congeners are compounds which are produced during fermentation. Although they contribute to the taste and appearance of the drink, they make hangover symptoms more severe.

61. When you need energy to do work, your body hydrolyzes one of the phosphate bonds, releasing one phosphate and energy.

62. Aerobic metabolism can continue 63. Fatty acids are ketogenic and cannot be used to form glucose.

64. Red blood cells do not contain mitochondria and therefore produce energy ________ in the cytoplasm.

65. What is the site of the liver systems which are responsible for alcohol metabolism? The 66. After the fat-soluble nutrients (vitamins A, D, E, K) have been absorbed through the small intestine, they can enter a metabolic pathway and be converted to energy or be stored as fat for later use.

67. If ketogenesis is prolonged, ketoacidosis–an excessive level of ketones in the blood–can develop, leading to 68. Creatine phosphate (PCr) is a compound that provides a reserve of phosphate to regenerate ADP to ATP. 69. Cells use ATP to provide energy for metabolic reactions.

70. Metabolism takes place in 71. The powerhouse of the cell which generates most of the cell’s energy through aerobic metabolism is called the 72. Insulin and glucagon are produced in the pancreas, cortisol and epinephrine are produced in the adrenal glands.

73. Cells only have 3-5 seconds’ worth of 74. With the release of one phosphate from ATP, a new molecule with only two phosphates is formed, adenosine diphosphate, or ADP. A phosphate group is added back to ADP to reform ATP during anabolism, a reaction that requires energy.

75. In chronic alcoholics, excess fatty deposits in the liver can eventually result in 76. Which meal improves energy levels throughout the course of the day? A 77. Catabolic reactions ________ energy as they break down large molecules into simple structures.

78. The most metabolically active organ in the body is the 79. An excessive level of ketones in the blood is 80. Excess kilocalories from alcohol which are not used for ATP production are converted to fatty acids and stored as 81. To prevent undernutrition, women should nurse their babies for the first ________ of life and to continue nursing with supplemental foods into the child’s second year of life 82. Community organizations have eliminated hunger permanently by providing free food and meals, and non-nutrition services such as job training.

83. Marginal food security is defined as one or two reported indications–typically of anxiety over food sufficiency or shortage of food in the house.

84. Disease, disability, mental illness, and/or drug and alcohol abuse can lead to food insecurity, and sometimes contribute to homelessness, are linked to 85. Food insecurity is most common in states in the 86. The leading worldwide cause of severe food shortages is 87. Uncertain access to adequate food is similar to 88. Chronically ill people may have malabsorption or metabolic problems or a reduced appetite.

89. If an individual is overweight, that individual cannot be undernourished.

90. Because iron, iodine, and vitamin A deficiencies are common, these nutrients have been fortified in staple foods such as flour, oil, and salt.

91. Effects of undernutrition include stunted growth, wasting, and impaired cognitive development, immune function, and academic performance.

92. Undernourished people exist because the world does not produce enough food.

93. Overnutrition is a form of malnutrition.

94. The majority of the world’s people live in developing countries.

95. Mothers with ________ risk passing the condition to their infants through breast milk, and therefore should be encouraged to use formula that is either canned or made from powder mixed with boiled, cool water, or to employ a non-infected wet nurse to feed their babies.

96. Overnutrition and undernutrition may coexist, as when an individual consumes a diet high in refined carbohydrates and low in micronutrients.

97. A food desert is an impoverished area, where fresh fruits, vegetables, and other healthful whole foods are scarce, largely due to a lack of grocery stores, farmers’ markets, and healthy-food

providers.

98. Unpredictable access to food may lead to apathy, which may lead to weight loss, anemia, decreased growth, malabsorption, and ultimately loss of muscle mass.

99. Food deserts make it difficult for locals to get access to nutrient- dense foods and good quality fruits and vegetables.

100. Undernourished children are more likely to die than well-nourished children.

HLTH 640 Quiz 1 Food Choices https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/hlth-640-quiz-1-food-choices/ HLTH 640 Quiz 1: Food Choices and Guidelines, Digestion, and Carbohydrates 1. Minerals contain a single element.

2. Most Americans need to increase of fruits and vegetables to improve health.

3. Which of the following represents an anthropometric measurement?

4. One gram of carbohydrate and one gram of protein provide 4 kilocalories.

5. The best approach to meeting nutritional needs is the take the highest quality nutritional supplements.

6. Healthy People 2020 describes the current and ideal eating patterns of Americans.

7. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fat are all organic.

8. Water is a component of every body cell.

9. The National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey is conducted to 10. Non-communicable diseases include conditions such as 11. Mary has passed a national exam after four years of nutrition training at a university. Her name tag reads 12. Most Americans overconsume 13. The study of food and the nutrients needed to sustain life and for reproduction is called 14. Although most Americans agree that breakfast is important, 25% routinely skip breakfast.

15. Energy-yielding nutrients include carbohydrates, fats and proteins.

16. To accurately assess the information on a website, its funding source should always be identified.

17. Minerals are 18. Juan knows that he only eats a small number of foods and that he mostly eats junk foods.

Therefore he needs 19. Biochemical and laboratory data are similar.

20. Overweight persons may need to ________ their fat consumption in order to lose weight.

21. Carbohydrates, fats and proteins 22. The American diet contains too much added sugars, sodium, and saturated fat.

23. Since most Americans do not eat enough fiber, the best solution would be to take fiber supplements.

24. Clinical assessment of hair, fingernails, and lips best provides insight in a person’s 25. One gram of carbohydrate, protein, fat and alcohol provide calories as follows 26. Ana wants to lose weight so she should try to eat more ________ foods.

27. The quantity of food which is usually eaten at one sitting is a 28. Men have a higher RDA for iron than women because of womens’ monthly menstruation.

29. In recent years, America’s incidence of overweight and obesity has been 30. The ________ are designed to help individuals age 2 and over improve the quality and content of their diet and make other lifestyle choices to lower their risk of chronic diseases and conditions, such as diabetes mellitus, cardiovascular disease, certain cancers, osteoporosis, and obesity.

31. Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDRs) recommend that ________ should provide more calories than either proteins or fats.

32. Dried fruits and nuts are high in fat and calories, but they are also 33. The RDAs are 34. If a serving provides 20 percent or more of the %DV for a nutrient, it is considered high in that nutrient.

35. On the new food label, serving sizes and calories per serving are larger.

36. A food label can carry a nutrient content claim using descriptive terms such as free, high, or extra lean, as long as it ________ strict FDA criteria.

37. A meal that contains foods from ________ is part of a balanced, and healthy diet.

38. Individuals who are providing reasonable but not excessive amounts of foods and nutrients are meeting the diet principle of 39. Which of the following should be limited to maintain health 40. Fatty foods are usually energy-dense because 1 gram of fat provides more than twice as many calories as one gram of protein or carbohydrate 41. Apple pie is ________, but a fresh apple is ________.

42. Recommendations such as 1) measure your foods until you recognize a healthy portion size, 2) use smaller glasses and plates, 3) divide larger packages of food into individual portion sizes, and 4) share meals when eating out would be helpful to Americans who wish to 43. Nutrient-dense foods contain ________ nutrients and ________ calories.

44. The recommended size of approximately 3 ounces of cooked meat, chicken, or fish is equivalent to 45. Portion ________, or perceiving larger portions of food as appropriate sizes, may be contributing to obesity 46. A meal that contains foods from every food group is part of a ________ diet.

47. Americans should aim to meet the RDA or AI and to be ________ for each nutrient daily while maintaining sufficient energy intake.

48. Many people overestimate the correct portion size.

49. Dried fruit (apple rings) and whole fruit (apple) are nutritionally superior to fruit pies (apple pie) because unprocessed fruit is 50. The DRIs, the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, MyPlate, the Nutrition Facts Panel, and the Exchange List for Healthy Eating are designed to help ________ to eat healthy.

51. The ________ receives bile from the liver through the common hepatic duct.

52. The three components of the ________ are ascending, descending, transverse 53. The villi and microvilli are the site of nutrient 54. Once a bolus of food mixes with gastric juices in the stomach, it becomes 55. A college student, has just been diagnosed with IBS needs to eat a low FODMAP diet–foods which are fermented, oligosaccharides, disaccharides, monosaccharides, and polyols.

56. The process of excreting or removing undigested and unabsorbed food components from the body is called 57. The large intestine absorbs 58. GI flora are 59. are circular muscular rings which open and close in response to nerve input.

60. Carbohydrates, proteins, and the fat-soluble vitamins are transported in the bloodstream through the hepatic portal vein to the liver.

61. The duodenum, jejunum, and ileum represent the 62. Each ________ contains capillaries and a lacteal for picking up nutrients absorbed through the enterocytes and transporting them throughout the body.

63. The LES contracts to prevent stomach contents from returning to the 64. GI disorders such as ulcers, GERD, and irritable bowel syndrome are life- threatening because they block nutrient digestion and absorption.

65. Peristalsis is repeated waves of contractions of circular muscles which help prevent food from moving backward in the esophagus.

66. Individuals who produce less saliva than usual are likely to have trouble 67. Longtitudinal, circular and diagonal muscles are needed to facilitate contraction and expansion of the 68. Yogurt is a probiotic because it contains live cultures.

69. Nondigestible starch found in plant foods that promotes the growth and health of your GI flora are 70. The fingerlike projections which line the small intestine increase the surface area to maximize absorption and help mix the partially digested chyme with intestinal secretions are 71. The only site for absorption of water is the small intestine.

72. The ________ of food in the GI tract involves ingestion, mechanical digestion, chemical digestion, propulsion, absorption, and elimination.

73. Probiotics are live microorganisms that, when consumed in adequate amounts, confer a health benefit on the host, but prebiotics are non- digestible starch found in plant foods that promotes the growth and health of your GI flora.

74. Fat-soluble vitamins and long-chain fatty acids are transported via the lymphatic system, and eventually drains into the subclavian vein.

75. The process of moving nutrients from the GI tract into the circulatory system.

76. The purpose of carbohydrate digestion is to produce 77. The longer a food is chewed, the longer the action of amylase.

78. The more diverticula a person has, the better.

79. The more fiber that is eaten, the better.

80. The key function of carbohydrates is to provide energy.

81. Ketone bodies are the incomplete breakdown products of fat.

82. Carbohydrates contain 83. Sugar alcohols do not cause tooth decay but they provide kilocalories.

84. Excess glucose is converted and stored as body fat.

85. The RDA for carbohydrates is 86. Cellulose, hemicellulose and lignins represent 87. Hypoglycemia symptoms include dizziness, shaking, and weakness which results from the release of too much 88. One of the best ways to reduce sugar is to consume less soft drinks and more water.

89. There are different tolerance levels to a variety of lactose containing foods, and individuals may need to determine their own tolerance for eating some portions of lactose containing foods.

90. Prediabetes symptoms are ________.

91. For persons with diabetes, the higher the Glycemic Index of a food, the better.

92. Pectins, beta-glucan, gums and psyllium represent 93. Diverticulitis is the formation of pouches in the pancreas.

94. Which of the following represents storage sites of glycogen?

95. Which of the following travels to the colon undigested and most of it is eliminated from the body?

96. Functional fiber is more nutritious than soluble or insoluble fiber.

97. The primary function of carbohydrates is to provide 98. Most plant foods contain both soluble and insoluble fibers.

99. Carbohydrates provide energy and spare protein.

100. Which of the following contributes bulk to the food mass in the gut?

PSYC 515 Quiz Non-parametric Tests https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-515-quiz-non-parametric-tests/ PSYC 515 Quiz: Non-parametric Tests Concepts 1. Which of the following is not an assumption of the χ2 goodness-of-t test?

2. The nonparametric equivalent to the one-way repeated measures ANOVA is the _____ test.

3. Which of the following is not an assumption of the Wilcoxon matched- pairs signed-ranks T test?

4. Nonparametric is to parametric as _____ is to _____.

5. The Wilcoxon tests are used with _____ data.

6. Which of the following is true regarding the χ2 test of independence?

7. The _____ is a nonparametric inferential test for comparing sample medians of two dependent or related groups of scores.

8. The _____ is a nonparametric inferential test for comparing sample medians of two independent groups of scores.

9. The nonparametric equivalent to the one-way randomized ANOVA is the _____ test.

10. Chi-square tests are to _____ data as Wilcoxon tests are to _____ data.

11. Wilcoxon rank-sum test is to _____ as Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed- ranks T test is to _____.

12. Chi-square is calculated by summing the [(_____ – _____)2 divided by _____].

13. Imagine you wanted to examine dating site preferences to see if the category gender (male / female) influences the category variable of target age of dating match (younger, same age, or older). Calculate the degrees of freedom needed to look up the critical value.

14. Which test is most appropriate for nominal data?

15. The nonparametric equivalent to the correlated groups t-test is: 16. The nonparametric equivalent to the One-way repeated measures ANOVA is: 17. If you wanted to examine dating site preferences to see if the category gender (male / female) influences the category variable of target age of dating match (younger, same age, or older), which statistical test would be most appropriate?

18. Which of the following statements is TRUE about chi square tests?

19. If you wanted to see if pet preference in your region is similar to the state averages, which test would you conduct?

20. If you wanted to see if pet preference in your region is similar to widely available state averages for the following categories: dog, cat, rodent, bird, horse, calculate your degrees of freedom.

21. Which of the following statements is true about nonparametric tests?

22. Which of the following statements is true about nonparametric tests?

23. If parametric test assumptions are violated for a study in which 20 participants completed an attention task twice — once after consuming a sugar pill and once after consuming a pill that contained 25 mg nicotine, which test would be most appropriate?

24. If parametric assumptions are violated for a study in which 30 participants are randomly assigned to one of three caffeine conditions (none, moderate, or high caffeine) before completing a memory task, which test is most appropriate?

25. What test compares observed nominal data against what we would expect based on previous knowledge)?

PSYC 515 Quiz Final Considerations https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-515-quiz-final-considerations/ PSYC 515 Quiz: Final Considerations Concepts 1. Being a good consumer of research includes: 2. Which one of Cook and Campbell’s (1979) four big validities best addresses whether a study used appropriate operational definitions for their variables of interest?

3. Which one of Cook and Campbell’s (1979) four big validities best addresses potential confounds in a study?

4. Based on your assigned readings, if you want to be a better consumer of research information, you should: 5. Which one of Cook and Campbell’s (1979) four big validities best addresses whether the sample was of sufficient size?

6. Which one of Cook and Campbell’s (1979) four big validities best addresses random assignment?

7. Which one of Cook and Campbell’s (1979) four big validities best addresses random selection?

8. Which of the following is NOT one of Cook and Campbell (1979) four big validities?

9. If the alpha level is set at .01, this implies: 10. In general, the ____________ the expected effect, the ________________ the required sample size.

11. If a researcher concluded that his new protocol improved employee morale when in fact it did not, what can we say about his conclusion?

12. If a researcher concluded that his new protocol had no effect on employee morale when in fact it improved morale, what can we say about his conclusion?

13. Which of the following statements is true if when using null hypothesis testing, our p value (in the “sig” column of SPSS output) is 0.069?

14. If power is 90%, this implies that you have: 15. If power is set to .80, this implies: 16. If you are unsure of what effect size to use when calculating the sample size, what is considered standard in the eld (per your assigned readings / presentations this week)?

17. Using Cohen’s conventions, an effect size of .50 is interpreted as: 18. Which of the following should begin on a new page?

19. Which of the following statements is true if when using null hypothesis testing, our p value (in the “sig” column of SPSS output) is 0.051?

20. Which of the following statements is true if when using null hypothesis testing, our p value (in the “sig” column of SPSS output) is 0.048?

21. What is the current suggested word count range for an abstract?

22. If a researcher’s statistical test supports the conclusion that their manipulation improved worker morale, what is the likelihood the researcher made the wrong decision if alpha is set to .01?

23. Which of the following can best help a researcher determine if a statistically significant result is clinically meaningful?

24. False report probabilities are rather large in research papers published in our eld. Authors such as Cohen (1962) and Szucs and Loannidis (2017) argue that low power in such studies is primarily due to what?

25. If a researcher’s statistical test supports the conclusion that their manipulation did not improve worker morale, what is the likelihood the researcher made the wrong decision if power is set to 0.70?

Set 2

1. Which one of Cook and Campbell’s (1979) four big validities best addresses whether a study used appropriate operational definitions for their variables of interest?

2. Which of the following is NOT one of Cook and Campbell (1979) four big validities?

3. According to your assigned reading this week, the four validities approach improves: 4. Which one of Cook and Campbell’s (1979) four big validities best addresses random assignment?

5. Which one of Cook and Campbell’s (1979) four big validities best addresses random selection?

6. If a journalist does not include all of the information needed to fully evaluate a claim using the four validities, a consumer should: 7. Which one of Cook and Campbell’s (1979) four big validities best addresses whether the sample was of sufficient size?

8. Being a good consumer of research includes: 9. Which of the following can best help a researcher determine if a statistically significant result is clinically meaningful?

10. If power is 90%, this implies that you have: 11. In general, the ____________ the expected effect, the ________________ the required sample size.

12. If a researcher’s statistical test supports the conclusion that their manipulation improved worker morale, what is the likelihood the researcher made the wrong decision if alpha is set to .01?

13. Which of the following provides an estimate of the effect the variables of interest have on one another regardless of sample size?

14. Using Cohen’s conventions, an effect size of .50 is interpreted as: 15. Which of the following should begin on a new page?

16. Which of the following represents the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis — typically set at 0.8?

17. If power is set to .80, this implies: 18. If the alpha level is set at .01, this implies: 19. Which of the following statements is true if when using null hypothesis testing, our p value (in the “sig” column of SPSS output) is 0.048?

20. False report probabilities are rather large in research papers published in our eld. Authors such as Cohen (1962) and Szucs and Loannidis (2017) argue that low power in such studies is primarily due to what?

21. Which of the following statements is true if when using null hypothesis testing, our p value (in the “sig” column of SPSS output) is 0.051?

22. Which of the following belong on the Abstract page in a professionally formatted paper?

23. If a researcher’s statistical test supports the conclusion that their manipulation did not improve worker morale, what is the likelihood the researcher made the wrong decision if power is set to 0.70?

24. If a researcher concluded that his new protocol had no effect on employee morale when in fact it improved morale, what can we say about his conclusion?

25. If you are unsure of what effect size to use when calculating the sample size, what is considered standard in the eld (per your assigned readings / presentations this week)?

PSYC 515 Quiz Factorial Design https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-515-quiz-factorial-design/ PSYC 515 Quiz: Factorial Design Concepts 1. For a 2 x 4 factorial design, there is the possibility of _____ main effect(s) and _____ interaction effect(s).

2. Two variables interact when 3. A main effect indicates 4. In a study examining the effects of gender (male or female) and major (psychology, computer science, philosophy, or biology) on college students’ willingness to perform community service work, how many main effects are possible?

5. In a study examining the effects of time of day (morning or afternoon) and temperature (cool, normal, warm) on worker productivity, how many interaction effect(s) are possible?

6. A two-way ANOVA means that the experimental design includes 7. A 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 design has _____ potential main effects.

8. In a study examining the effects of gender (male or female) and major (psychology, computer science, philosophy, or biology) on college students’ willingness to perform community service work, how many interaction effects are possible?

9. A 2 x 3 x 4 factorial design has _____ potential main effects 10. An experiment with four variables each with two levels is a _____ design.

11. Scenario: Researchers were interested in how social situations can influence stress-induced eating. They grouped participants according to self-reported stress-induced eating habits: consistently eating more (hyperphagics) or eating less (hypophagics) when stressed. Each participant was then exposed to one of three social situations: (1) a social inclusion condition, where subjects were told that a confederate partner had approved of a video they had made answering some questions and was looking forward to meeting them, (2) a neutral condition, where they were told their partners could not meet them because their partners had to cancel their participation, or (3) a social exclusion condition, where they were told that their partner had decided not to meet them after viewing their video. Subjects were then given an ice cream taste test and the amount of ice cream consumed was measured. Question: Which of the following best describes the scenario?

12. Scenario: A therapist wanted to examine marital happiness in couples participating in therapy at her clinic. Couples were randomly assigned to participate in individual, couples, or group therapy. She measured marital happiness using a standardized scale ranging from 0 — 100, with higher numbers indicating greater marital bliss. She measured marital happiness at three time points from the start of therapy sessions (1, 6, and 12 weeks) and compared those across the three types of therapies offered. Question: If p < .001 for the main effect of time, what should the researcher conclude?

13. Scenario: A sports psychologist studied the effect of a motivational program on number of injuries in one year among players of three different sports (baseball, football, and basketball).

Players were randomly assigned to one of two conditions: either participate in a motivational program or none (control). Data was collected on the number of injuries sustained by each athlete that season. Question: What is the dependent variable in this scenario?

14. Scenario: Researchers were interested in how social situations can influence stress-induced eating. They grouped participants according to self-reported stress-induced eating habits: consistently eating more (hyperphagics) or eating less (hypophagics) when stressed. Each participant was then exposed to one of three social situations: (1) a social inclusion condition, where subjects were told that a confederate partner had approved of a video they had made answering some questions and was looking forward to meeting them, (2) a neutral condition, where they were told their partners could not meet them because their partners had to cancel their participation, or (3) a social exclusion condition, where they were told that their partner had

decided not to meet them after viewing their video. Subjects were then given an ice cream taste test and the amount of ice cream consumed was measured. Question: As taught in 510/515, what is the most appropriate graph if the only signicant finding in this scenario is the main effect of eating habits?

15. Scenario: What influences the likelihood of whether a person will assist a stranger? In this study, participants were shown four conditions and asked to provide the percent likelihood that they would be willing to help in each condition. The researcher wanted to see if likelihood of helping varies based on the number of bystanders (0 or 10), and/or the gender of the stranger (male or female). Each participant participated in all four conditions (0 bystanders with a female; 0 bystanders with a male; 10 bystanders with a female; 10 bystanders with a male). Question: As taught in 510/515, what is the most appropriate graph if the only significant nding in this scenario is the main effect of number of bystanders?

16. Scenario: A therapist wanted to examine marital happiness in couples participating in therapy at her clinic. Couples were randomly assigned to participate in individual, couples, or group therapy. She measured marital happiness using a standardized scale ranging from 0 — 100, with higher numbers indicating greater marital bliss. She measured marital happiness at three time points from the start of therapy sessions (1, 6, and 12 weeks) and compared those across the three types of therapies offered. Question: If p = .02 for the main effect of therapy type, what should the researcher conclude?

17. Scenario: A sports psychologist studied the effect of a motivational program on number of injuries in one year among players of three different sports (baseball, football, and basketball).

Players were randomly assigned to one of two conditions: either participate in a motivational program or none (control). Data was collected on the number of injuries sustained by each athlete that season. Question: As taught in 510/515, what is the most appropriate graph if the only significant finding in this scenario is the main effect of condition (“motivational program” or “control”).

18. Scenario: Researchers were interested in how social situations can influence stress-induced eating. They grouped participants according to self-reported stress-induced eating habits: consistently eating more (hyperphagics) or eating less (hypophagics) when stressed. Each participant was then exposed to one of three social situations: (1) a social inclusion condition, where subjects were told that a confederate partner had approved of a video they had made answering some questions and was looking forward to meeting them, (2) a neutral condition, where they were told their partners could not meet them because their partners had to cancel their participation, or (3) a social exclusion condition, where they were told that their partner had decided not to meet them after viewing their video. Subjects were then given an ice cream taste test and the amount of ice cream consumed was measured. Question: As taught in 510/515, what is the most appropriate graph if every main effect and interaction is significant?

19. Scenario: A guidance counselor wanted to know if anxiety differs based on time (first day of class in relation to the last day of class), and if this differs based on year in school (as a freshman, sophomore, junior, or senior). She collected data on a single group of students across their entire high school career at these eight time points — first and last day of freshman, sophomore, junior, and senior year. Anxiety was measured using a standardized scale ranging from 0 — 50, with higher scores indicating greater anxiety. Question: As taught in 510/515, what is the most appropriate graph if the only significant finding in this scenario is the main effect of time?

20. Scenario: Researchers were interested in how social situations can influence stress-induced eating. They grouped participants according to self-reported stress-induced eating habits: consistently eating more (hyperphagics) or eating less (hypophagics) when stressed. Each participant was then exposed to one of three social situations: (1) a social inclusion condition, where subjects were told that a confederate partner had approved of a video they had made answering some questions and was looking forward to meeting them, (2) a neutral condition, where they were told their partners could not meet them because their partners had to cancel their participation, or (3) a social exclusion condition, where they were told that their partner had decided not to meet them after viewing their video. Subjects were then given an ice cream taste

test and the amount of ice cream consumed was measured. Question: If p = .84 for the main effect of social situation, what should the researcher conclude?

21. Scenario: Researchers were interested in how social situations can influence stress-induced eating. They grouped participants according to self-reported stress-induced eating habits: consistently eating more (hyperphagics) or eating less (hypophagics) when stressed. Each participant was then exposed to one of three social situations: (1) a social inclusion condition, where subjects were told that a confederate partner had approved of a video they had made answering some questions and was looking forward to meeting them, (2) a neutral condition, where they were told their partners could not meet them because their partners had to cancel their participation, or (3) a social exclusion condition, where they were told that their partner had decided not to meet them after viewing their video. Subjects were then given an ice cream taste test and the amount of ice cream consumed was measured. Question: What is the dependent variable in this scenario?

22. Scenario: A sports psychologist studied the effect of a motivational program on number of injuries in one year among players of three different sports (baseball, football, and basketball).

Players were randomly assigned to one of two conditions: either participate in a motivational program or none (control). Data was collected on the number of injuries sustained by each athlete that season. Question: If p = .024 for the main effect of sports, what should the researcher conclude?

23. Scenario: Researchers were interested in how social situations can influence stress-induced eating. They grouped participants according to self-reported stress-induced eating habits: consistently eating more (hyperphagics) or eating less (hypophagics) when stressed. Each participant was then exposed to one of three social situations: (1) a social inclusion condition, where subjects were told that a confederate partner had approved of a video they had made answering some questions and was looking forward to meeting them, (2) a neutral condition, where they were told their partners could not meet them because their partners had to cancel their participation, or (3) a social exclusion condition, where they were told that their partner had decided not to meet them after viewing their video. Subjects were then given an ice cream taste test and the amount of ice cream consumed was measured. Question: What is the most appropriate statistical test to conduct given this scenario?

24. Scenario: What influences the likelihood of whether a person will assist a stranger? In this study, participants were shown four conditions and asked to provide the percent likelihood that they would be willing to help in each condition. The researcher wanted to see if likelihood of helping varies based on the number of bystanders (0 or 10), and/or the gender of the stranger (male or female). Each participant participated in all four conditions (0 bystanders with a female; 0 bystanders with a male; 10 bystanders with a female; 10 bystanders with a male). Question: What is the dependent variable in this scenario?

25. Scenario: Researchers were interested in how social situations can influence stress-induced eating. They grouped participants according to self-reported stress-induced eating habits: consistently eating more (hyperphagics) or eating less (hypophagics) when stressed. Each participant was then exposed to one of three social situations: (1) a social inclusion condition, where subjects were told that a confederate partner had approved of a video they had made answering some questions and was looking forward to meeting them, (2) a neutral condition, where they were told their partners could not meet them because their partners had to cancel their participation, or (3) a social exclusion condition, where they were told that their partner had decided not to meet them after viewing their video. Subjects were then given an ice cream taste test and the amount of ice cream consumed was measured. Question: If p = .035 for the main effect of eating habits, what should the researcher conclude?

PSYC 515 Quiz ANOVA Concepts https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-515-quiz-anova-concepts/ PSYC 515 Quiz: ANOVA Concepts 1. Scenario: Does amount of caffeine affect memory? This study was conducted using 30 participants who report they do not regularly consume caffeine. The researcher randomly assigned the participants to one of three conditions (none, moderate, or high caffeine) before completing a memory task. The memory task was quantied as number of items correctly recalled. Assume data meets all assumptions for a parametric test. Question: What is the independent variable in this scenario?

2. Scenario: Does emotional intelligence change across the lifespan? A researcher conducts a longitudinal study by collecting data on the same people across 20 years. Emotional intelligence was quantied at ages 4, 14, 24, and 34 years of age. Emotional intelligence was quantied using the self-report Bar-On EQ-I, which ranges from 0 — 110, and is considered “scale” in nature.

Assume data meets all assumptions for a parametric test. Question: What is the null hypothesis for this scenario?

3. Scenario: Does emotional intelligence vary based on the type of preschool a child attends? A researcher collects data on 300 four- year-olds who attend different local types of preschools.

The researcher was able to collect data from four different types of preschools – Montessori, Waldorf, Parent Co-ops, and religious preschools. Emotional intelligence was quantied using the self- report Bar-On EQ-I, which ranges from 0 — 110, and is considered “scale” in nature.

Assume data meets all assumptions for a parametric test. Question: As taught in 510/515, what is the most appropriate graph to illustrate this scenario?

4. Scenario: Does amount of caffeine affect memory? This study was conducted using 30 participants who report they do not regularly consume caffeine. The researcher randomly assigned the participants to one of three conditions (none, moderate, or high caffeine) before completing a memory task. The memory task was quantied as number of items correctly recalled. Assume data meets all assumptions for a parametric test. Question: What is the most appropriate statistical test to conduct given this scenario?

5. Scenario: If 20 participants completed an attention task twice — once after consuming a sugar pill and once after consuming a pill that contained 25 mg nicotine, which test would be most appropriate? Assume data meets all assumptions for a parametric test, and that participant exposure to the sugar pill vs. nicotine pill were counterbalanced. Question: What is the independent variable in this scenario?

6. Scenario: Does emotional intelligence change across the lifespan? A researcher conducts a longitudinal study by collecting data on the same people across 20 years. Emotional intelligence was quantied at ages 4, 14, 24, and 34 years of age. Emotional intelligence was quantied using the self-report Bar-On EQ-I, which ranges from 0 — 110, and is considered “scale” in nature.

Assume data meets all assumptions for a parametric test. Question: What is the research / alternate hypothesis for this scenario?

7. Scenario: Does emotional intelligence vary based on the type of preschool a child attends? A researcher collects data on 300 four- year-olds who attend different local types of preschools.

The researcher was able to collect data from four different types of preschools – Montessori, Waldorf, Parent Co-ops, and religious preschools. Emotional intelligence was quantied using the self- report Bar-On EQ-I, which ranges from 0 — 110, and is considered “scale” in nature.

Assume data meets all assumptions for a parametric test. Question: What is the research / alternate hypothesis for this scenario?

8. Scenario: If 20 participants completed an attention task twice — once after consuming a sugar pill and once after consuming a pill that contained 25 mg nicotine, which test would be most appropriate? Assume data meets all assumptions for a parametric test, and that participant

exposure to the sugar pill vs. nicotine pill were counterbalanced. Question: Which of the following best describes the scenario?

9. Scenario: An I/O researcher wants to know if there is a difference among management types (authoritative, persuasive, or 10. paternalistic) on average length of time employees stay with a company (measured in years). He collects this information from 100 companies. Assume the data meets assumptions for a parametric test. Question: What is the null hypothesis for this scenario?

11. Scenario: An HR manager wants to know if there is a difference between sexes (males and females) on number of years employed at his rm. Assume the data meets assumptions for a parametric test. Question: What is the null hypothesis for this scenario?

12. Scenario: An HR manager wants to know if there is a difference between sexes (males and females) on number of years employed at his rm. Assume the data meets assumptions for a parametric test. Question: What is the dependent variable in this scenario?

13. Scenario: An HR manager wants to know if there is a difference between sexes (males and females) on number of years employed at his rm. Assume the data meets assumptions for a parametric test. Question: What is the research / alternate hypothesis for this scenario?

14. Scenario: Does amount of caffeine affect memory? This study was conducted using 30 participants who report not regularly consuming caffeine. The researcher has those 30 participants complete a memory task on three separate days (counterbalanced among participants). All participants complete the memory task after having none, moderate, and high levels of caffeine. The memory task was quantied as number of items correctly recalled. Assume data meets all assumptions for a parametric test. Question: What is the research / alternate hypothesis for this scenario?

15. Scenario: Does emotional intelligence change across the lifespan? A researcher conducts a longitudinal study by collecting data on the same people across 20 years. Emotional intelligence was quantied at ages 4, 14, 24, and 34 years of age. Emotional intelligence was quantied using the self-report Bar-On EQ-I, which ranges from 0 — 110, and is considered “scale” in nature.

Assume data meets all assumptions for a parametric test. Question: What is the most appropriate statistical test to conduct given this scenario?

16. Scenario: Does emotional intelligence vary based on the type of preschool a child attends? A researcher collects data on 300 four- year-olds who attend different local types of preschools.

The researcher was able to collect data from four different types of preschools – Montessori, Waldorf, Parent Co-ops, and religious preschools. Emotional intelligence was quantied using the self- report Bar-On EQ-I, which ranges from 0 — 110, and is considered “scale” in nature.

Assume data meets all assumptions for a parametric test. Question: What is the dependent variable in this scenario?

17. If 30 participants each completed a memory task three times — once each after having no, moderate, or high levels of caffeine, calculate the total degrees of freedom.

18. If 30 participants each completed a memory task three times — once each after having no, moderate, or high levels of caffeine, calculate the degrees of freedom for between groups.

19. Conducting multiple independent samples t-tests as opposed to a single One-way ANOVA increases the chances of: 20. If the independent variable in an experiment had an effect this would contribute to _____ variance in the F-ratio.

21. Post hoc tests are used to 22. The between-groups variance is comprised of _____ variance and _____ variance.

23. The alternative hypothesis for a two-tailed one-way randomized ANOVA states 24. The F-ratio is a ratio of _____ variance over _____ variance.

25. When the variance _____ the groups is _____ and the variance _____ the groups is _____, we can expect a large F-ratio.

26. Which of the following is not an assumption of the one-way repeated measures ANOVA?

PSYC 515 Quiz Alternative Research https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/psyc-515-quiz-alternative-research/ PSYC 515 Quiz: Alternative Research Designs Concepts 1. A design in which a single group of subjects is given a treatment and then tested is a(n) _____ design.

2. Which of the following is an advantage of small-n designs, according to Sidman (1960)?

3. Ethnicity, gender, and age are all examples of _____ variables.

4. In _____ designs, many measures are taken so that the effect of the treatment can be seen over time.

5. Which of the following is true concerning the nonequivalent control group pretest/posttest design?

6. Students in two of Mr. Lewis’s classes are given a test to assess their knowledge of world geography. Then, students in one of the classes participate in Mr. Lewis’s new interactive geography learning modules. Students in the other class learn geography using the traditional lecture method. After three months, all students once again take a test to assess their knowledge of world geography. What kind of design did Mr. Lewis use?

7. A design in which at least two nonequivalent groups are measured both before and after treatment is a(n) _____ design.

8. Which of the following is NOT a type of multiple-baseline design?

9. A design in which a single group of participants is measured repeatedly before and after a treatment is a(n) _____ design.

10. A design in which measures are taken at baseline and after the introduction of the independent variable at different times across multiple situations is a multiple-baseline across_____ design.

11. What type of quasi-experimental design best ts the following scenario: A school counselor decided to assess effectiveness of a SAT prep course on high school student SAT scores. She compares SAT scores for students who elected to take the SAT prep course to the students who opted out of the SAT prep course.

12. In two-group quasi-experimental designs, the two groups are considered: 13. A researcher wanted to systematically investigate the effectiveness of restraint on reducing challenging behaviors in a student with intellectual disabilities. She used a standardized scale to quantify challenging behaviors at three time points — she recorded number of challenging behaviors before beginning a restraint protocol, used the restraint protocol and measured the behaviors a second time, then stopped using the restraint protocol and measured challenging behaviors one last time. Which type of design best describes this scenario?

14. What type of quasi-experimental design best ts the following scenario: A school counselor decided to assess effectiveness of a SAT prep course on high school student SAT scores. She compares the SAT scores of students before and after they took a SAT prep course.

15. The two main types of developmental designs are: 16. What type of quasi-experimental design best ts the following scenario: A school counselor wanted to see if interest in seeking a college degree changes across one’s high school career.

She measures interest in a group of students across all four years to see if there is a measurable change.

17. What type of quasi-experimental design best ts the following scenario: A school counselor wanted to see if interest in seeking a college degree changes across one’s high school career.

She measures interest in a group of students across all four years to see if there is a measurable change.

18. Which of the following is a recognized down-side of most qualitative research?

19. Which of the following is an advantage most likely to be associated with a cross-sectional design compared to a longitudinal design?

20. Which of the following typically answers questions such as “why?” or “how”?

21. Which of the following is an approach used in qualitative research?

22. How does qualitative research method differ from quantitative methods?

23. Which of the following disadvantages are more associated with longitudinal designs compared to cross-sectional designs?

24. Which of the following typically answers questions such as “how many?” “how often”, or “who”?

25. Which term best describes the concern regarding the generalizability of developmental research conducted during the COVID-19 pandemic given that these children are experiencing something specic to this time period?