Test Bank for Essentials of Paramedic Care - Volume II, Canadian Edition Bryan E. Bledsoe

If you want to buy this Solution Manual Or Any Other Solution Manual Or Test Bank Contact us at. Premiumbiz379@gmail.com Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1 A major advance in the development of EMS as a true health care profession was: 1) _______ A) the National Occupational Competency Profiles.

B) Emergency Incident Management.

C) Emergency!

D) Basic Trauma Life Support.

E) Our Bodies, Our Selves.

2 The paramedic must be able to function ________ at an optimum level in a non-structured, constantly changing environment.

2) _______ A) occasionally B) thoroughly C) independently D) fully E) aggressively

To practice, paramedics must be approved not only by a regulatory agency, but also by: 3)

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_______ A) a professional organization.

B) local authorities.

C) hospital administrators.

D) a federal bureau.

E) the EMS system's medical director.

The primary concern of the paramedic is:

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4) _______ A) the emergency patient.

B) the ability to practice invasive skills.

C) the orders of the medical director.

D) following system protocols.

E) the integrity of the unit.

Many traditional EMS treatments and practices have been abandoned or refined as a result of:

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5) _______ A) research.

B) court orders.

C) lawsuits.

D) legislation.

E) litigation.

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Ensuring that your patient receives the best possible care describes the characteristic of 6) _______ A) empathy.

B) patient advocacy.

C) integrity.

D) leadership.

E) compassion.

One result of the increasing specialization of health care facilities has been expansion of the paramedic role in:

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7) _______ A) BTLS. B) BCLS. C) critical care transport.

D) ACLS. E) neonatal care.

8 Paramedics working in close contact with medical direction to provide care to patients in their homes and to treat patients at emergency scenes without transport are examples of: 8) _______ A) palliative health care.

B) tertiary health care.

C) dependent health care.

D) primary health care.

E)

managed health care.

9 Safety inspections, accident prevention programs, medical screenings, and vaccination and/or immunization programs are some of the responsibilities of paramedics working in: 9) _______ A) ACLS. B) trauma care.

C) neonatal intensive care programs.

D) sports medicine.

E) industrial medicine.

Many professional sports teams have found paramedics to be effective complements to their:

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10) ______ A) athletic trainers.

B) chiropractors.

C) HMOs. D) physician assistants.

E) players.

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

Paramedics are only permitted to work for ambulance services.

11) ______

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12) The NOCP is the key to defining a national scope of practice for EMS in Canada.

12) ______

Participation in research projects relevant to EMS is an important part of your profession as a paramedic.

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13) ______

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Paramedics are required, by scope of practice, to transport all patients.

14) ______

1 The ability of the paramedic to think and work independently lends itself well to functioning in non-traditional roles.

15) ______

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1 List and briefly describe three characteristics of a paramedic.

16) _____________

List and briefly describe three areas into which paramedic scope of practice has expanded.

17) _____________

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List and briefly describe two goals of the National Occupational Competency Profiles.

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18) _____________

Briefly explain the importance of a code of professional ethics and etiquette for paramedics.

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19) _____________

Briefly explain "Patient Advocacy".

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20) _____________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

2 A comprehensive network of personnel, equipment, and resources established to deliver aid and emergency medical care to the community is a(n): 21) ______ A) HMO. B) EMD organization.

C) trauma system.

D) BTLS. E) EMS system.

2 The process by which an agency or association grants recognition to an individual who has met its qualifications is known as:

22) ______ A) licensure.

B) registration.

C) authorization.

D) reciprocity.

E) certification.

2 The process by which a regulatory agency grants permission to engage in a given occupation to an applicant who has attained the degree of competency required to ensure the public's protection is called: 23) ______ A) registration.

B) reciprocity.

C) licensure.

D) certification.

E) authorization.

________ is accomplished by entering a person's name and essential information within a particular record.

24) ______ A) Licensure B) Authorization C) Certification D) Registration E) Reciprocity

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2 An occupation in which the practitioners have a competence in a specialized body of knowledge or skills that has been recognized by some organization or agency is called a: 25) ______ A) craft.

B) vocation.

C) career.

D) profession.

E) career.

The rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession are:

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26) ______ A) morals.

B) codes.

C) protocols.

D) ethics.

E) guidelines.

2 EMS systems can improve the quality of their service and paramedics can improve their knowledge and skills through an evaluation conducted by others of equal rank and skills. This evaluation is known as: 27) ______ A) debriefing.

B) continuous quality improvement.

C) discovery.

D) peer review.

E) tenure tracking.

2 The established policies and procedures of an EMS system that provide a standardized approach to common patient problems and a consistent level of medical care are known as: 28) ______ A) standing orders.

B) ethics.

C) scope of practice.

D) protocols.

E) codes.

The highest level of prehospital care provider is:

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29) ______ A) critical care paramedic.

B) advanced care paramedic.

C) primary care paramedic.

D) nurse practitioner.

E) physician's assistant.

The publication that FIRST focused attention on the problem of emergency medical services was: 30)

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______ A) "KKK-A-1822."

B) "National Occupational Competency Profiles."

C) "Injury in America: A Continuing Public Health Problem."

D) "A Leadership Guide to Quality Improvement for Emergency Medical Services Systems."

E) "Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society."

3 The national EMS organization that represents prehospital practitioners and has worked to establish standardized levels of training for prehospital care is the: 31) ______ A) National Association of Paramedics.

B) Paramedic Association of Canada.

C) National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians.

D) National Association of EMS Physicians.

E) National Council of Provincial EMS Training Coordinators.

3 The EMS-trained provider who is trained in advanced airway management, IV therapy, advanced pharmacology, cardiology, trauma management, and assessment skills among other subjects is the: 32) ______ A) PCP. B) ECP. C) ACP. D) EMR. E) nurse practitioner.

Which of the following is an EMR NOT permitted to do?

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33) ______ A) Perform spinal stabilization.

B) Assist in childbirth.

C) Perform a primary assessment.

D) Perform CPR. E) Perform endotracheal intubation.

3 The process by which an agency in one province grants automatic certification or licensing to a paramedic who is certified or licensed by an agency in another province is called: 34) ______ A) immunity.

B) refraction.

C) reciprocity.

D) authorization.

E) professional courtesy.

3 The organization responsible for establishing national standardization within the didactic and clinical portion of paramedic education programs is the: 35) ______ A) Canadian EMS Education Chancellory.

B) Paramedic Association of Canada.

C) National Council of State Paramedic Training Coordinators.

D) Joint Review Committee on Educational Programs for the EMT-Paramedic.

E) National Association of EMS Physicians.

3 In 1988, the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration defined 10 elements necessary to all EMS systems. Which of the following items is NOT one of those elements?

36) ______ A) consumer participation B) evaluation C) regulation and policy D) medical direction E) transport

3 Which of the following National Highway Traffic Safety Administration elements of EMS systems deals with issues of equal access to acceptable emergency care for all patients?

37) ______ A) evaluation B) resource management C) trauma systems D) public information and education E) facilities

One area of EMS that will rely especially heavily on research in the future is: 38) ______

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A) transportation.

B) communications.

C) medical direction.

D) public education.

E) funding.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic elements of citizen involvement in EMS?

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39) ______ A) initiating basic life support procedures B) accessing the EMS system C) recognizing an emergency D) providing financial support for EMS agencies

The person who is legally responsible for all clinical and patient-care aspects of an EMS system is the:

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40) ______ A) resource director.

B) system manager.

C) system administrator.

D) ombudsman.

E) medical director.

Which of the following is NOT normally a role of the medical director in an EMS system?

41)

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______ A) participating in personnel and equipment selection B) developing fund-raising strategies C) develop clinical protocols D) participating in quality improvement and problem resolution E) educating and training personnel

4 Direct and immediate access to medical consultation for the paramedic and the use of telemetry are two of the benefits of:

42) ______ A) on-line medical direction.

B) intervener physician access.

C) the incident command system.

D) a tiered response system.

E) off-line medical direction.

4 The medical policies, procedures, and practices that have been set up in advance of calls by a system physician are all elements of: 43) ______ A) on-line medical direction.

B) a tiered response system.

C) the incident command system.

D) medical management guidelines.

E) off-line medical direction.

4 EMS systems develop standardized approaches to common patient problems and medical care around the four "Ts" of emergency care. Which of the following is NOT one of the four "Ts"?

44) ______ A) training B) triage C) transfer D) treatment E) transport

Which of the following are likely subjects of protocols?

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45) ______ A) which procedures can only be done with direct orders from medical direction B) when to use air transport vs. ground transport C) how to handle DNR orders D) A and B only E) all of the above

Paramedics carry out their tasks in the prehospital setting as designated agents of the: 46)

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______ A) EMS system's medical director.

B) EMS system's personnel director.

C) EMS system manager.

D) head of the facility to which the patient is transported.

E) EMS system's CEO.

4 A physician not affiliated with the EMS system who takes part in patient care with system paramedics at an emergency scene is referred to as a(n): 47) ______ A) Good Samaritan physician.

B) intervener physician.

C) on-site medical director.

D) intrusive physician.

E) altruistic physician.

4 If the treatment provided by a non-affiliated physician differs from system standards, paramedics can NOT surrender responsibility for patient care unless the physician agrees to identify him-/herself, demonstrates a willingness to accept responsibility, documents the action as required by the EMS system, and: 48) ______ A) accompanies the ambulance and patient to the hospital.

B) leaves his/her phone or pager number.

C) contacts the receiving facility.

D) provides a written rationale for the difference in treatment.

E) provides a copy of his/her license to the paramedics.

4 The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration has set guidelines for quality improvement in EMS. Which of the following is NOT a component of those guidelines?

49) ______ A) strategic quality planning B) leadership C) human resources development and management D) financing E) information and analysis

5 The program designed to refine and improve an EMS system with a special emphasis on customer satisfaction is: 50) ______ A) CQI. B) QID C) QPI. D) QA. E) PDQ.

5 One element of EMS quality improvement requires following rigorous rules of evidence before a new medication, process, or procedure is adopted. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for rules of evidence?

51) ______ A) The change must be clinically important.

B) There must be ample scientific human research to support the idea.

C) It must be practical, affordable, and teachable.

D) There must be a theoretical basis for the change.

E) The cost of the change should not be a factor when considering it.

The first component in starting a research project is:

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52) ______ A) collecting raw data.

B) getting approval for patient-consent procedures.

C) outlining the logistics affecting the research.

D) assess and evaluate results.

E) identifying the problem and stating a hypothesis.

The results of a research study written for publication in a medical journal are usually subjected to: 53) ______ A) legal analysis.

B) literary competency analysis.

C) Internet posting.

D) corporate review.

E) peer review.

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5 The type of ambulance that has a forward cab with an integral body and a passageway from the driver's compartment to the patient's compartment is known as: 54) ______ A) Type I. B) Type II. C) Type III. D) Type IV. E) Type V.

The goal of an effective EMS dispatching system is to have the first responding units on the site in:

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55) ______ A) 8 minutes.

B) 4 minutes.

C) 12 minutes.

D) 16 minutes.

E) 20 minutes.

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

5 The organization responsible for accrediting prehospital care training programs is the Paramedic Association of Canada.

56) ______

5 In case of a disagreement between on-line medical direction and an intervener physician, the paramedic must take orders from the on-line physician.

57) ______

5 A tiered response system refers to a system that uses an escalating level of care provider as determined by dispatch or protocols.

58) ______

Protocols are designed to reduce the paramedic's ability to improvise.

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59) ______

6 Priority dispatching involves EMDs asking a series of protocol driven questions to determine the acuity of the call and dispatch resources accordingly.

60) ______

An effective EMS dispatching system places ALS care on scene in less than 12 minutes.

61) ______

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A paramedic may perform any skill included in their training program.

62) ______

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A type I ambulance consists of a standard van, body, and cab to form an integral unit.

63) ______

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The highest level of trauma centre is the Primary Trauma Centre (PTC).

64) ______

6 A program designed to maintain continuous monitoring and measurement of the quality of clinical care delivered to patients is a continuous quality improvement program.

65) ______

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

6 List and briefly describe the four Ts of emergency care.

66) _____________

List and briefly describe 3 components of an EMS system's communications plan.

67)

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_____________

List and briefly explain three benefits of active paramedic membership in professional organizations.

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68) _____________

List and briefly describe the three levels of recognized trauma facilities in Canada.

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69) _____________

Briefly describe the difference between quality assurance and continuous quality improvement.

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70) _____________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

7 A professional paramedic is responsible for acting in a professional manner: 71) ______ A) when in contact with a patient.

B) when on duty.

C) when conducting public education programs.

D) when on or off duty.

E) when in contact with a patient and hospital personnel.

A properly trained or licensed provider of health service to patients, such as a paramedic, is a(n):

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72) ______ A) allied health professional.

B) health associate.

C) auxillary health employee.

D) medical associate.

E) health-trade worker.

Professionalism is a(n):

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73) ______ A) correlative to pay.

B) elective.

C) attitude.

D) impression.

E) avocation.

7 Self-confidence, inner strength, ability to communicate, and willingness to make a decision are all elements of the paramedic professional attribute of: 74) ______ A) empathy.

B) respect.

C) patient advocacy.

D) leadership.

E) integrity.

The use of continuing education programs is one way a paramedic can:

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75) ______ A) achieve practitioner status.

B) avoid lawsuits.

C) maintain certification.

D) be classified Level II. E) achieve intervener status.

Which of the following is/are the benefit(s) of taking continuing education programs?

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76) ______ A) keeping up with technological advances in EMS B) expansion of knowledge and skills C) having opportunities for practicing skills D) A and C only E) all of the above

7 A basic rule of thumb that can be applied to taking EMS continuing education programs is that as the volume of calls decreases, training should: 77) ______ A) correspondingly increase.

B) correspondingly decrease.

C)

remain at its initial level.

D) focus only on frequently used skills.

E) none of the above

7 Paramedics are often put in charge of a patient's wallet or other personal possessions. Treating these things properly is an illustration of the professional attribute of: 78) ______ A) patient advocacy.

B) integrity.

C) leadership.

D) respect.

E) empathy.

7 A paramedic's offering of consolation and support to a person who has just seen a loved one die is an example of the professional attribute of: 79) ______ A) empathy.

B) patient advocacy.

C) integrity.

D) leadership.

E) respect.

8 Making lists and keeping a personal calendar are two ways in which the paramedic can demonstrate the professional attribute of: 80)

______ A) time management skills.

B) communication skills.

C) careful delivery of service.

D) teamwork.

E) self-motivation.

8 Defending patients, protecting them, and in general acting in their best interests are all examples of the professional attribute of: 81) ______ A) respect.

B) patient advocacy.

C) empathy.

D) integrity.

E) leadership.

8 A paramedic's participation in "prudent heart living" campaigns and seat-belt awareness and child safety-seat programs are examples of his/her: 82) ______ A) patient advocacy.

B) community involvement.

C) integrity.

D) ethical behavior.

E) time management.

A way for paramedics to determine appropriate injury prevention programs for a community is the use of:

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83) ______ A) a trunking system.

B) a tiered response.

C) injury risk surveys.

D) trauma triage criteria.

E) telemetry.

8 When considering the addition of a new EMS service or enhancement of an existing one, paramedics should be sure to include a role for: 84) ______ A) the media.

B) attorneys.

C) intervener physicians.

D) community members.

E) nurses.

8 Which of the following is an example of a way in which paramedics support primary care for patients in the out-ofhospital setting?

85) ______ A) assess and aid B) lock and load C)

load and go D) treat and release E) stay and play

Which of the following is NOT one of the paramedic's primary responsibilities?

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86) ______ A) scene assessment B) rehabilitation C) response D) preparation E) treatment and management

Which of the following is one of the paramedic's primary responsibilities?

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87) ______ A) reconstruction B) finance collection C) disposition and transfer D) public relations E) crowd control

During the response, one of the paramedic's chief responsibilities is: 88) ______ A)

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decontaminating the unit.

B) assessing the patient's responsiveness.

C) familiarizing herself with the local geography D) identifying the mechanism of injury or nature of illness.

E) anticipating risks based on dispatch information.

During the return to service, one of the paramedic's chief responsibilities is:

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89) ______ A) identifying the mechanism of injury or nature of illness.

B) decontaminating the unit.

C) providing a clear and concise patient report D) anticipating risks based on dispatch information.

E) assessing the patient's responsiveness.

The conduct or qualities that characterize a practitioner in a particular field or occupation are referred to as:

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90) ______ A) ethics.

B) scope of practice.

C) etiquette.

D) standards.

E) professionalism.

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

9 The paramedic's first priority during transfer of a patient from a hospital to another receiving facility is documenting the

verbal report given by the primary-care provider at the hospital.

91) ______

At the scene of an emergency, the paramedic is only responsible for the safety of himself and the patient.

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92) ______

9 The implementation of primary care initiatives would allows paramedics to transport patients to facilities other than hospital emergency departments as a means of cost containment.

93) ______

Your appearance, as well as your behaviour, is vital to establishing credibility and instilling confidence.

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94) ______

9 Completing tasks without direct supervision, completing paperwork in a timely manner, and taking advantage of learning opportunities are all examples of self-motivation.

95) ______

9 The paramedic must employ superior communications skills in order to effectively interact with patients, their families, bystanders, and fellow care providers.

96) ______

9 Self-confident paramedics are less likely to require assistance from co-workers than paramedics who are less self-assured.

97) ______

9 Paramedics are entitled to relax the same as any other person; as such their off-duty conduct will not reflect on their onduty professionalism.

98) ______

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Key attributes of diplomacy include listening to others, respecting their opinions, and being flexible.

99) ______

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To show-and feel-deferential regard, consideration, and appreciation for another is to display respect.

100) _____

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1 List three examples where a paramedic must function as a patient advocate.

101) ____________

List the primary responsibilities of a paramedic and briefly summarize each in your own words.

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102) ____________

List, and in your own words describe, 4 professional attributes of a paramedic.

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103) ____________

List and briefly describe three benefits of paramedics teaching in their communities.

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104) ____________

1 List and briefly describe two methods by which paramedics may enhance primary care initiatives in their community.

105) ____________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1 Which of the following is NOT a physical benefit of achieving acceptable physical fitness?

106) _____ A) decreased blood pressure B) increased resistance to illness and injury C) increased oxygen-carrying capacity D) decreased resting heart rate E) decreased metabolism

Benefits associated with physical fitness include all of the following EXCEPT:

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107) _____ A) enhanced anxiety levels.

B) improved mental outlook.

C) maintenance of sound motor skills.

D) improved self-image.

E) enhanced quality of life.

Which of the following is NOT one of the core elements of physical fitness?

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108) _____ A) speed B) cardiovascular endurance C) muscular strength D) flexibility E) none of the above

The major food groups that assure sound nutrition include all of the following EXCEPT: 109) _____ A) oils.

B) dairy products.

C) fruits.

D) grains/breads.

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E) meat and alternatives.

The number of major food groups is:

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110) _____ A) 6 B) 7 C) 5 D) 8 E) 4

A healthy diet includes approximately what percentage of carbohydrates?

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111) _____ A) 40 B) 10 C) 30 D) 50

E) 20

As part of a healthy diet to control weight, you should:

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112) _____ A) reduce the "serving size" on a food label by half.

B) cut back on fluids.

C) eat one "fast food" meal a day.

D) eat low-calorie snacks.

E) increase caffeine intake.

1 If you want to build cardiovascular endurance, at least how many times a week must you exercise to raise your pulse to its target heart rate?

113) _____ A) 3 B) 6 C) 5 D) 2 E) 4

114) When developing muscular strength, you may use the form of exercise in which muscles are worked through their full range of motion. This is known as: 114) _____ A) hypertonic exercise.

B) isotonic exercise.

C) iatrogenic exercise.

D) isoscelian exercise.

E) isometric exercise.

Biological cycles that occur approximately every 24 hours are called:

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115) _____ A) circadian rhythms.

B) spenserian rhythms.

C) kubler rhythms.

D) cartesian rhythms.

E) mendelian rhythms.

To minimize the stress of shift work, on days off a worker should stick to sleeping at his/her: 116) _____ A) anchor time.

B) control time.

C) standard time.

D) shelter time.

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E) baseline time.

Which of the following is NOT one of the standard warning signs of cancer?

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117) _____ A) unexplained chronic fatigue B) lumps C) change in a mole D) blood in the stools E) weight gain

All of the following are proper principles to follow when lifting EXCEPT:

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118) _____ A) Always avoid twisting and turning.

B) Lift with your legs, not your back.

C) Keep your palms down when possible.

D) Ask for help when you need it.

E) Move a load only if you can safely handle it.

One of the keys to preventing a potentially hostile situation is: 119) _____ A) assertion of your authority.

B) effective communication.

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C) rapid and aggressive movements.

D) moving into the personal space of bystanders.

E) maintaining a closed stance.

1 Scenario: Your ambulance arrives at a scene where a car has run into a ditch alongside a two-lane country highway that runs through a corn field. Where should you park the ambulance before proceeding to the car?

120) _____ A) behind the car on the same side of the street B) in front of the car on the same side of the street C) in front of the car on the opposite side of the street D) behind the car on the opposite side of the street E) none of the above

Which members of an EMS ambulance crew should use seat belts?

1

121) _____ A) none, because the requirements of medical care take priority B) only those riding in the back C) only those seated in the front D) all crew members, front and back

1 Scenario: You are responding to a call for a "person slumped behind wheel of car" on a quiet side street at 1 A.M. How should you approach this car?

122) _____

A) Pull up in front of it, turn on all lights, and stay in the ambulance until you determine the scene is safe.

B) Pull up in front of it, turn on all lights and siren, and dash rapidly to the vehicle.

C) Pull up behind the car, use spotlights to "blind" the occupant, and approach cautiously if you perceive no hostile intent.

D) Park behind the car and remain in the ambulance and wait for law enforcement back-up.

E) Both C and D are appropriate.

A major responsibility when operating an emergency vehicle is to show due regard for the safety of:

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123) _____ A) the paramedic him- or herself.

B) the patient.

C) others, that is, the public in general.

D) the EMS crew members.

E) none of the above.

What personal protective equipment should be worn if you are attending a childbirth?

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124) _____ A) gloves, protective eyewear, N-95 respirator B) no PPE is required as newborns pose no risk of infection C) gloves, protective eyewear, gown D) gloves, mask, gown, protective eyewear E) gloves and mask

Which of the following is appropriate PPE when treating a suspected TB patient?

1

125) _____ A) HEPA respirator B) surgical mask C) nonrebreather mask D) self-contained breathing apparatus E) venturi mask

Which of the following is NOT one of the phases of the stress response?

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126) _____ A) alarm B) resistance C) withdrawal D) exhaustion E) none of the above

1 The stage of the stress response in which the pituitary gland releases a flood of adrenocorticotropic hormones is: 127) _____ A) withdrawal.

B) alarm.

C) adaptation.

D) resistance.

E) exhaustion.

1 Which of the following is one of the categories of stressors that may trigger a stress response in EMS personnel?

128) _____ A) emotional B) scene-related C) administrative D) all of the above E) none of the above

1 Into which of the following categories of warning signs of excessive stress do suspiciousness, exaggerated humor, and crying spells fall?

129) _____ A) physical B) behavioural C) emotional D) cognitive E) affectual

When coping mechanisms can no longer buffer stressors on the job, the result is likely to be: 130) _____ A) burnout.

B) death.

C) fugue.

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D) eustress.

E) withdrawal.

Which of the following is NOT a normal part of the "fight-or-flight" response?

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131) _____ A) digestion slows B) blood pressure increases C) increased blood sugar D) pupils constrict E) heart rate increases

Shift work and loud pagers are examples of:

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132) _____ A) on-scene stressors.

B) administrative stressors.

C) physical stressors.

D) behavioral stressors.

E) emotional stressors.

1 Scenario: Your EMS partner has been through some hard times lately. He broke up with his wife a couple of months ago, and his father died last month. After not smoking for years, he's taken it up again and chain smokes now. He's sometimes rude to patients, and when you try to talk with him about this, he cuts you off. Your partner is probably using stress management techniques that are described as: 133)

_____ A) regressive.

B) beneficial.

C) detrimental.

D) synergistic.

E) administrative.

The stress management technique of controlled breathing works by:

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134) _____ A) reducing adrenaline levels.

B) speeding digestion.

C) increasing blood pressure.

D) reducing internal airway pressures.

E) increasing ACTH levels.

Which of the following is NOT a component of critical incident stress management?

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135) _____ A) preincident stress training B) demobilization C) deferral D) defusing E) CISD

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During what phase of the CISM process do crews get a chance to vent their feeling about an incident?

136) _____ A) CISD B) defusing C) deferral D) preincident stress training E) demobilization

Which of the following is NOT likely to be classified as a critical incident?

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137) _____ A) death of a geriatric CHF patient in the ambulance B) extreme threat to an EMS worker C) a prolonged incident D) a building collapse E) injury or death of an infant or child

When you are in a stressful situation and find yourself thinking "I can't do this," one effective strategy is: 138) _____ A) deferring.

B) reframing.

C) devolving.

D) withdrawing.

E) substituting.

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Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of loss described by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross?

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139) _____ A) denial B) bargaining C) retraction D) anger E) depression

1 Which of the Kübler-Ross stages of loss grows out of the patient's frustration related to his inability to control the situation?

140) _____ A) anger B) bargaining C) denial D) depression E) retraction

Body substance isolation practices are based on the assumption that: 141) _____ A) paramedics are mainly threatened by airborne pathogens.

B) hemorrhage is the precipitating factor for donning protective gear.

C)

1

they reduce the likelihood that the paramedic will communicate disease from one patient to another.

D) the blood and body fluids of all patients are infectious.

E) none of the above

Which of the following should paramedics use with every patient?

1

142) _____ A) mask and gown B) mask and protective eyewear C) gloves D) A and B E) all of the above

Probably the most important infection-control practice is:

1

143) _____ A) proper immunizations.

B) reverse isolation.

C) handwashing.

D) proper sterilization.

E) proper disposal of gloves.

1 Scenario: You have transferred a patient to the Emergency Department. The long spine board on which you transported the patient came in direct contact with her unbroken skin. How would you clean the board?

144) _____

A) Discard it.

B) Disinfect it with a solution of 1 part bleach to 100 parts of water.

C) Sterilize it using an autoclave.

D) Sterilize it with an EPA-approved solution.

E) Wash it with soap and water.

1 Any occurrence in which blood or body fluids come in contact with non-intact skin or mucous membranes is considered a(n): 145) _____ A) contamination.

B) significant incident.

C) infection.

D) emergency.

E) exposure.

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1 The elements of personal well-being involve mental and emotional well-being, in addition to physical well-being.

146) _____

The core elements of physical fitness include cardiovascular strength, anaerobic endurance, and back safety.

1

147) _____

1

Isotonic exercise involves muscles exercised in a motionless manner.

148) _____

The four major food groups are grain products, milk products, vitamins, and supplements.

1

149) _____

When lifting objects, use the large muscles in your legs, not your back.

1

150) _____

When moving heavy objects, if given the choice pull, do not push.

1

151) _____

1 The best way to remain safe from infectious diseases when dealing with patients is to consider the blood and body fluids of every patient you treat as infectious.

152) _____

1 When you care for a patient with suspected or confirmed TB or SARS you should wear a HEPA or N-95 respirator.

153) _____

1

The highest level of decontamination for medical equipment is disinfecting.

154) _____

1

According to Kubler-Ross, the first stage of loss is depression.

155) _____

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1 List and briefly describe the three phases of the stress response 156) ____________

1 Briefly describe the three methods of decontaminating and provide examples of where each might be appropriate.

157) ____________

Briefly contrast CIS defusing and CIS debriefing.

1

158) ____________

Briefly describe the five stages of loss according to Kubler-Ross.

159) ____________

1

List and cite examples of the core elements of physical fitness.

1

160) ____________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1 The study of the factors that influence the frequency, distribution, and causes of injury, disease, and other health-related events in a population is known as: 161) _____ A) pathophysiology.

B) otolaryngology.

C) toxicology.

D) sociology.

E) epidemiology.

Injury is the number ________ killer of Canadians under the age of 45 years.

1

162) _____ A) one B) two C) three D) four

E) five

The second-leading cause of injury-related deaths among seniors aged 65 and older is:

1

163) _____ A) falls.

B) burns.

C) motor-vehicle collisions.

D) shootings.

E) suicide.

Years of productive life lost are determined by subtracting the age at death from

1

164) _____ A) 78 for men and 83 for women.

B) 55.

C) 83 for men and 87 for women.

D) 65.

E) 75.

The most frequent cause of death in children is: 165) _____ A) MVCs.

1

B) shootings.

C) burns.

D) falls.

E) drowning.

The largest number of preventable injuries in people over age 75 result from:

1

166) _____ A) burns.

B) MVCs. C) burns.

D) falls.

E) drug reactions.

1 The policies adopted by many managed-care organizations and HMOs that have led to increased calls to EMS involve: 167) _____ A) medication errors.

B) early discharges.

C) immunizations.

D) prenatal clinics.

E) elder-care clinics.

Which of the following factors is a key indicator of potentially poor health in newborns?

168)

1

_____ A) respiratory rate of 30 to 60 B) systolic blood pressure of 60 to 90 C) low birth weight D) heart rate of 100 to 180 E) oxygen saturation of 95 to 98%

1 If a paramedic suspects a pregnant patient may be having emotional problems adjusting to her pregnancy, he should: 169) _____ A) submit a report to his department.

B) refer her to an outside agency.

C) say nothing.

D) provide her with his personal contact information and advise her to call him anytime.

E) transport her immediately to the emergency room.

Programs that focus on keeping injuries from ever occurring are examples of: 170) _____ A) primary prevention.

B) secondary prevention.

C) quaternary prevention.

D) anticipatory prevention.

E) tertiary prevention.

1

171) Medical care after an injury or illness that helps prevent further problems from occurring is referred to as: 171) _____ A) tertiary prevention.

B) anticipatory prevention.

C) primary prevention.

D) secondary prevention.

E) quaternary prevention.

Rehabilitation after an injury or illness that helps prevent further problems from occurring is referred to as:

1

172) _____ A) quaternary prevention.

B) secondary prevention.

C) primary prevention.

D) tertiary prevention.

E) anticipatory prevention.

1 To assure the success of prevention programs, EMS managers have the responsibility to provide EMS personnel with: 173) _____ A) health check-ups.

B) instruction in basics of epidemiology.

C) instruction in fundamentals of primary prevention.

D) open-ended funding.

E)

immunizations.

1 On a response to a call, paramedics can help patients and onlookers decrease chances of future emergency calls through the use of: 174) _____ A) a conference call with medical direction.

B) a teachable moment.

C) injury-surveillance programs.

D) the PCR. E) a CISD.

1 Items that paramedics can document on patient forms to help implement future injury prevention programs include: 175) _____ A) scene conditions at the time of EMS arrival.

B) use or non-use of protective devices.

C) risks that EMS personnel had to overcome.

D) all of the above E) none of the above

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

"Years of productive life" refers to the age at death subtracted from 85.

176) _____

1

177) Injuries result from interaction with potential hazards in the environment, as such they may be both predictable and preventable.

177) _____

1 The time frame shortly after an injury occurs when patients and observers may be more receptive to teaching about how similar injuries may be prevented in the future is known as an injury surveillance program.

178) _____

Primary prevention involves keeping an illness or injury from ever occuring.

1

179) _____

1 It is the responsibility of EMS personnel to prevent illness and injury only amongst those persons involved in similar professions.

180) _____

Low birth weight is a key indicator of poor health at the time of birth.

1

181) _____

Most children killed in motor-vehicle collisions are pedestrians or cyclists.

182)

1

_____

1

Falls are the most frequent cause of injury to children younger than six years old.

183) _____

It is always appropriate to capitalize on "teachable moments" regardless of the nature of illness or injury.

1

184) _____

1

Nearly half of all motor-vehicle collision fatalities involve alcohol.

185) _____

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

1 List and briefly explain three areas where EMS provider commitment is required to prevent responder illness and injury.

186) ____________

Briefly explain why injury prevention programs should specifically target the elderly.

1

187) ____________

1 List three potential illness and injury prevention programs that EMS professionals in your community might undertake.

188) ____________

List three injury prevention strategies that every paramedic may undertake.

1

189) ____________

Briefly explain the difference between primary, secondary, and tertiary injury prevention.

1

190) ____________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1 The rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession are known as: 191) _____ A) morals.

B) ethics.

C) protocols.

D) codes.

E) prerequisites.

Social, religious, or personal standards of right and wrong are called: 192) _____ A) ethics.

B)

1

morals.

C) protocols.

D) prerequisites.

E) codes.

Which of the following have the widest focus?

1

193) _____ A) criminal laws B) statutory laws C) prerequisites D) ethics E) administrative laws

1 The idea that each person must decide how to behave and that whatever decision that person makes is okay is known as:

194) _____ A) moral positivism.

B) the deontological method.

C) consequentialism.

D) individual morality.

E) ethical relativism.

The most important question a paramedic should ask him- or herself when faced with an ethical challenge is: 195)

1

_____ A) "What is in the patient's best interest?"

B) "What does the family want done?"

C) "What legal liability will I face as a result of this action?"

D) "What do system protocols say?"

E) "Have I consulted with medical direction?"

1 The four fundamental principles or values used in resolving problems in bioethics today include all of the following EXCEPT: 196) _____ A) beneficence.

B) nonmaleficence.

C) justice.

D) egalitarianism.

E) autonomy.

1 The right of a competent person to determine what happens to his or her own body is one example of the principle of: 197) _____ A) license.

B) autonomy.

C) self-governance.

D) libertarianism.

E) latitude.

The obligation of a paramedic to treat all patients fairly is an example of the principle of:

1

198) _____ A) beneficence.

B) sovereignty.

C) justice.

D) libertarianism.

E) secular equality.

1 When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask yourself whether you can vindicate your actions to others is known as the: 199) _____ A) interpersonal justifiability test.

B) impartiality test.

C) Good Samaritan test.

D) universalizability test.

E) ethical efficacy test.

2 When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask yourself whether you would be willing to undergo a procedure or action if you were in the patient's place is known as the: 200) _____ A) interpersonal justifiability test.

B) Good Samaritan test.

C) impartiality test.

D) universalizability test.

E) ethical efficacy test.

2 When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask whether you would want an action performed in all relevantly similar circumstances is known as the: 201) _____ A) interpersonal justifiability test.

B) impartiality test.

C) ethical efficacy test.

D) universalizability test.

E) Good Samaritan test.

2 Territorial or provincial laws requiring the reporting of births, deaths, certain infectious diseases, and child and elder abuse and neglect may require the paramedic to breach the obligation to protect the patient's: 202) _____ A) confidentiality.

B) refusal of consent.

C) right of discretion.

D) autonomy.

E) well-being.

2 The MOST common situations involving allocation of scarce resources that paramedics will usually face are those that involve: 203)

_____ A) automated external defibrillators.

B) drug overdoses.

C) hypoglycemia.

D) anaphylaxsis.

E) triage.

2 Scenario: Your ambulance is parked outside the hospital when you see a woman leap from a third floor window and land in the parking lot not far from your vehicle. You and your partner rush to her and find her bleeding, unresponsive, and having difficulty breathing. You are about to begin to administer emergency care, when a hospital aide rushes up and says, "Don't do anything. This patient has a DNR order." The aide, however, does not have the order in his possession.

You should: 204) _____ A) begin treating the patient immediately because you have not seen the DNR order.

B) not intervene as you have not been assigned to the incident by dispatch.

C) package the patient and move her to the emergency department, but make no resuscitative efforts.

D) call medical direction and wait for guidance on how to proceed.

E) send the aide back to get the DNR order and begin treatment when he returns.

2 If you receive a copy of a valid DNR order after you have begun resuscitation attempts, you are ethically obligated to: 205) _____ A) check the patient's breathing and pulse before ceasing resuscitation efforts.

B) cease resuscitation efforts.

C) continue resuscitation until ordered to stop by medical direction.

D) continue resuscitation attempts until the patient is transported to an emergency department.

E) perform a "slow code" for the benefit of family and bystanders.

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

2 A common approach to resolving problems in bioethics today is to employ four fundamental principles or values: beneficence, nonmalfeasance, autonomy, and justice.

206) _____

2 An Impartiality Test - asks whether you would want this action performed in all relevantly similar circumstances.

207) _____

2 The general principle for paramedics to follow when confronted with an ethical conflict regarding a life or death intervention is "When in doubt, resuscitate."

208) _____

2 The Impartiality test - asks whether you would be willing to undergo this procedure or action if you were in the patient's place.

209) _____

The Interpersonal Justifiability test - asks whether you can defend your actions to others.

2

210) _____

2

Beneficence is defined as the obligation not to harm the patient.

211) _____

Autonomy refers to a competent adult patient's right to determine what happens to his own body.

2

212) _____

Justice refers to the paramedic's obligation to treat all patients fairly.

2

213) _____

Nonmalfeasance means not doing harm.

2

214) _____

2 The single most important question a paramedic has to answer when faced with an ethical challenge is, "What is in the patient's best interests?"

215) _____

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

2 Briefly explain the difference between ethics and morals.

216) ____________

List and briefly describe the four fundamental principles used to resolve problems in bioethics.

2

217) ____________

2 Briefly describe the difference between ethics and law as it pertains to the provision of prehospital care.

218) ____________

List the steps in resolving an ethical problem.

2

219) ____________

List and briefly describe three quick methods of testing ethics.

2

220) ____________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

2 The basic principles of lifting safely include all of the following EXCEPT: 221) _____ A) Keep the weight of the object as close to your body as possible.

B) Reduce the height or distance you need to move the object.

C) Keep the muscles of your back and abdomen relaxed to prevent straining.

D) Stack your posture.

E) Use your legs, not your back, to lift.

Instances where emergency moves should be considered include all of the following EXCEPT:

2

222) _____ A) when life-saving care cannot be given because of the patient's location or position.

B) inability to protect the patient from other hazards at the scene.

C) fire or threat of fire.

D) inability to gain access to other patients who need life-saving care.

E) patient with potentially limb-threatening injuries and a significant MOI.

Which of the following is a two-rescuer move?

2

223) _____ A) blanket drag B) cradle carry C) shirt drag D) extremity lift E) piggyback carry

The device intended to be used to move a patient from a confined area to a standard stretcher is a: 224) _____ A) short backboard.

B) stair chair.

2

C) vest-type immobilization device.

D) scoop stretcher.

E) long backboard.

2 The most appropriate patient moving equipment to use for a patient with a suspected spine injury who is lying down is a:

225) _____ A) standard stretcher.

B) long backboard.

C) short backboard.

D) stair chair.

E) vest-type immobilization device.

The extremity lift should NOT be used if:

2

226) _____ A) there are only two rescuers available.

B) a patient is to be moved from the floor or a chair to a stretcher.

C) the patient has an altered mental status.

D) the patient does not require spinal immobilization.

E) the patient has injuries to his arms or legs.

An unconscious patient who is not injured should be placed in which position?

227)

2

_____ A) supine B) recovery C) trendelenberg D) high-fowler E) prone

Which of the following would be an indication to use a direct ground lift?

2

228) _____ A) patient is unable to sit and a stretcher cannot be brought close to the patient B) the patient is combative or uncooperative C) the patient's location prevents access to other patients requiring life-saving care D) the patient weighs in excess of 75kg and only one rescuer is available E) the patient is on the ground or some other low surface

Which of the following is NOT considered an emergency move?

2

229) _____ A) cradle carry B) blanket drag C) one-rescuer crutch D) shirt drag E) extremity lift

2

In order to minimize the risk of worsening a spinal injury while performing an emergency move, patients should be moved: 230) _____ A) in such a way as to apply traction to the head and neck B) along the long axis of the body.

C) only by rolling.

D) diagonally.

E) laterally.

The most appropriate device to immobilize a seated patient with a suspected or potential spinal injury is a:

2

231) _____ A) vest-type immobilization device.

B) pole stretcher.

C) scoop stretcher.

D) long backboard.

E) stair chair.

The safest way to move a seated patient up or down stairs is to use a: 232) _____ A) Smith cot.

B) stair chair.

C) standard stretcher.

D) long backboard.

E)

2

scoop stretcher.

2 In order to allow for optimum monitoring of an unconscious patient enroute to the hospital, a patient should be placed in:

233) _____ A) the Trendelenberg position.

B) the prone position.

C) the recovery position on his right side.

D) the semi-Fowler position.

E) the recovery position on his left side.

The shock position involves positioning the patient with:

2

234) _____ A) the hips and legs flexed in a right side-lying position.

B) the patient's head and legs elevated 20 to 30 cm.

C) the supine patient's head elevated 20 to 30 cm.

D) the supine patient's legs elevated 20 to 30 cm.

E) the hips and legs flexed in a left side-lying position.

A proactive, well-balanced physical fitness program should include all of the following EXCEPT: 235) _____ A) strength training.

B) cardiovascular conditioning.

2

C) nutrition.

D) flexibility training.

E) performance enhancing drugs.

A patient with abdominal pain typically finds comfort when positioned:

2

236) _____ A) side-lying with legs extended.

B) side-lying with knees drawn up.

C) prone with leg extended.

D) supine with legs elevated.

E) supine with legs extended.

A power grip involves:

2

237) _____ A) the palms and fingers in complete contact with the object and all fingers bent at the same angle.

B) the weight distributed only on the palm of the hand with the fingers extended.

C) the load resting on the proximal joint of the fingers and the thumbs extended laterally.

D) the load suspended on the distal phalanges and the palms down.

E) the load supported between the thumb, index finger, and middle finger only.

In order to reduce the risk of injury when lifting as a member of a team, 238) _____

2

A) all coordination should be done using only the eyes and slight nods of the head.

B) verbal signals that are clear to all members of the team should be employed throughout.

C) all members should take turns being in charge.

D) all lifts should be done by one person.

E) extensive use of hand and arm signals should be employed.

Which of the following is NOT an emergency move?

2

239) _____ A) cradle carry B) firefighter's drag C) blanket drag D) piggyback carry E) direct ground lift

Which of the following devices will provide in-line immobilization of the patient's axial skeleton?

2

240) _____ A) portable ambulance stretcher B) stair chair C) smith cot D) pole stretcher E) short backboard

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

2

Body mechanics refers to the safest and most efficient methods of using your body to gain mechanical advantage.

241) _____

2 Unless there is a life-threatening emergency, a patient who has been injured should not be moved until a primary assessment is completed.

242) _____

The greatest danger in an emergency move is the possibility of worsening a spine injury.

2

243) _____

A medically appropriate term for swayback is kyphosis.

2

244) _____

2 When performing the power lift you should raise yourself onto your toes to pre-tighten the hamstring muscles.

245) _____

Whenever possible it is safer to slide or drag your patient rather than lift them.

246) _____

2

2

A spotter should be used when using a stair chair to help guide and support.

247) _____

A conscious patient who is vomiting or nauseated should be allowed to remain in a position of comfort.

2

248) _____

2

A slight outward curve should be maintained in the lower back when lifting.

249) _____

When carrying heavy objects, the rescuer should attempt to keep the weight as far from the body as possible.

250) _____

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

2 List three principles of sound body mechanics.

251) ____________

List three examples of when emergency moves would be necessary.

252) ____________

2

2

1) A

2) C

3) E

4) A

5) A

6) B

7) C

8) D

9) E

10) A

11) FALSE

12) TRUE

13) TRUE

14) FALSE

15) TRUE

16) confident, excellent judgement, good communication skills, decisive, patient advocate

17) critical care transport, primary health care, tactical EMS, industrial medicine, sports medicine, heavy urban search and rescue, hazmat

18) standardize paramedical education across Canada; serve as a reference point to promote paramedic mobility between provinces and territories; become a blueprint for a national registry exam

19) Adherence to a code of ethics ensures that the patient's and the public's interests are always placed above personal, corporate, or financial interests.

20) Being a patient advocate refers to ensuring that the patient is well informed and involved as reasonably as possible in the direction of their own care. Being a patient advocate means ensuring that the patient receives the best possible care, and that their rights and privileges are respected and protected throughout their interaction with the EMS system.

21) E

22) E

23) C

24) D

25) D

26) D

27) D

28) D

29) A

30) E

31) B

32) C

33) E

34) C

35) B

36) A

37) B

38) E

39) D

40) E

41) B

42) A

43) E

44) A

45) E

46) A

47) B

48) A

49) D

50) A

51) E

52) E

53) E

54) C

55) B

56) FALSE

57) TRUE

58) TRUE

59) FALSE

60) TRUE

61) FALSE

62) FALSE

63) FALSE

64) FALSE

65) FALSE

66) Triage - assigning the appropriate resources to each patient Treatment - providing care based upon patient advocacy, online medical direction, and protocols Transport - the selection of an appropriate means of transport (air vs. ground) dependent upon factors such as mechanism of injury, patient acuity, level of care required, transport time Transfer - the selection of an appropriate receiving facility capable of providing the most definitive care

67) Citizen Access - universal access (911) with automatic caller locating (E-911) Single Control Center - one call coordination center that dispatches all emergency resources within a large geographical area Operational communications capabilities - has the ability to communicate with all emergency agencies within a given region, including mutual aid and disaster resources Medical communications capabilities - has the ability to communicate with receiving facilities, medical control, and in many cases provide telemetry and data transfer Communications hardware - a plan exists to provide, utilize, and maintain the required radios, phones, pagers, computers, and towers to ensure reliable communications Communications software - the computer programs, radio frequencies, and policies that ensure seamless integration of communications system components

68) It allows the paramedic to remain current and informed, to share ideas, to assist in the development of educational programs and curricula, to provide input on operational policies and procedures, and to bring forward ideas on means of advancing the profession.

69) Tertiary Trauma Centre - a pediatric or adult trauma facility with a 24-hour trauma response team, associated with a university and partaking in trauma research District Trauma Centre - provides a dedicated 24-hour trauma response team capable of resuscitation and treatment Primary Trauma Centre - provides initial triage for all trauma situations

70) Quality assurance monitors and measure the quality of 'clinical' care delivered to patients.

Continuous quality improvement focuses on customer satisfaction.

71) D

72) A

73) C

74) D

75) C

76) E

77) A

78) B

79) A

80) A

81) B

82) B

83) C

84) D

85) D

86) B

87) C

88) E

89) B

90) E

91) FALSE

92) FALSE

93) TRUE

94) TRUE

95) TRUE

96) TRUE

97) FALSE

98) FALSE

99) TRUE

100) TRUE

101) Suspected child abuse.

Suspected elder abuse.

Patients who are unable to cope/live independently.

Patients who are not receiving fair treatment by other health-care providers.

Patients whose quality of life may benefit from accessing social assistance agencies.

102) Preparation - Knowledge of protocols, policies, procedures, geography, telecommunications equipment, support agencies and resource access as well as maintenance of the ambulance and essential equipment.

Response - Safe and timely response to an incident using available time and dispatch information request additional resources.

Scene Assessment - Determination of hazards associated with the scene, MoI, # of patients, additional resources required, as well as challenges to access/egress and patient care.

Patient Assessment - To search for conditions that are immediately life-threatening and to identify conditions that are not or may become life-threatening utilizing MoI, history taking, physical exam, and diagnostics.

Patient Management - To remedy, within the paramedic's scope, those conditions that are immediately life-threatening as well as those conditions that are not or may become life-threatening utilizing BLS and/or measures that are highly invasive or pharmaceutical in nature.

Disposition and Transfer - Transporting patients to the most appropriate facility for treatment and providing for a continuum of care through appropriate reporting to the receiving facility.

Documentation - Summary data recording to provide for administrative and medical requirements.

Clean-up, maintenance, and review - Decontamination of ambulance and equipment, reparation or replacement of any defective or disposable equipment, and constructive critique of prior call with emphasis on "areas for improvement", not assigning blame.

103) Leadership - self-confident, credible, able to communicate ideas clearly, decisive, accountable Integrity - honest and trustworthy Empathetic - recognize and appreciate the circumstances, feelings, and motives of others Self-motivated - able to work and initiate work without direct supervision Professional appearance and personal hygiene - well presented in appropriate uniform, subdued make-up and scents; instill confidence through appearance Self-confident - well-prepared, diligent, and therefore prepared for any challenge presented; maintains an awareness of not only one's strengths, but weaknesses as well, and works to improve Superior communication skills - able to clearly communicate ideas with patients, paramedics, and other health care providers; effectively employs active listening skills

Time management - able to prioritize tasks and organize activities to efficiently utilize available time Teamwork and Diplomacy - places the success of the team ahead of personal success, respects the patient, other careproviders, and the community Respect - shows and feels deferential regard, consideration, and appreciation of others Patient advocacy - represents the best interests of the patient Careful delivery of service - attention to detail, maintenance of knowledge and skills to the point of mastery

104) Lay rescuer education and training saves lives.

Promotes positive health practices.

Enhances EMS visibility.

Promotes a positive image.

Puts forth EMS personnel as positive role models.

Creates opportunities to improve integration of EMS with other health-care and public safety agencies.

105) Promote wellness as well as illness and injury prevention programs.

Establish protocols to provide for the transport of non-emergency patients.

Re-direct patients to the most appropriate care facility (not necessarily the ED).

Implement "treat and release" protocols for stable, field-treatable conditions.

106) E

107) A

108) A

109) A

110) E

111) A

112) D

113) A

114) B

115) A

116) A

117) E

118) C

119) B

120) B

121) D

122) E

123) C

124) D

125) A

126) C

127) B

128) D

129) B

130) A

131) D

132) B

133) C

134) A

135) C

136) B

137) A

138) B

139) C

140) A

141) D

142) C

143) C

144) B

145) E

146) TRUE

147) FALSE

148) FALSE

149) FALSE

150) TRUE

151) FALSE

152) TRUE

153) TRUE

154) FALSE

155) FALSE

156) Alarm - characterized by the autonomic (sympathetic) physical response including increased heart rate and blood pressure, pupil dilation, increased blood sugar, and bronchodilation. This reaction ends when the event is recognized as not dangerous.

Resistance - occurs when the individual begins to cope with stress. Physiological parameters may return to normal.

Exhaustion - results when prolonged exposure to the same stressors leads to exhaustion of an individual's ability to resist and adapt.

157) Cleaning - refers to washing an object with soap and water. After caring for a patient, wash down work areas with approved soaps.

Disinfecting - includes cleaning with an agent capable of killing many microorganisms on the surface of an object.

Disinfect equipment that had direct contact with the intact skin of a patient.

Sterilizing - is the use of a chemical, or physical method-such as pressurized steam-to kill all microorganisms on an object.

Items that were inserted into the patient's body should be sterilized by heat, steam, or radiation.

158) Defusing is typically held two to four hours, but not more than 12 hours after the event. It is a short, informal meeting that allows responders to voice or vent their feelings about the incident. Usually conducted by a CISM trained peer.

Debriefing is a formal, structured, and carefully planned intervention. It occurs 24 to 72 hours after the event by a trained CISM team that includes mental health workers and peer supporters.

159) Denial - Inability or reffusal to believe the reality of the event.

Anger - Frustration related to the lack of control.

Bargaining - Attempts to make a deal or buy time to change the expected outcome.

Depression - The patient is overcome with sadness and despair.

Acceptance - The patient achieves a reasonable level of comfort with anticipated outcomes.

160) Cardiovascular endurance - walking, jogging, swimming, biking, cross-country skiing, any activity performed at least three times per week that raises one's pulse to it's target heart rate.

Muscular strength - may include isotonic (active exercise through a muscle's range of motion) or isometric (active exercise against stable resistance). May include the use of free weights, universal or nautilus type equipment.

Flexibility - is the stretching of major muscle groups and should be accomplished daily. All stretches should be held for at least 60 seconds.

161) E

162) A

163) A

164) D

165) A

166) D

167) B

168) C

169) B

170) A

171) D

172) D

173) C

174) B

175) D

176) FALSE

177) TRUE

178) FALSE

179) TRUE

180) FALSE

181) TRUE

182) TRUE

183) TRUE

184) FALSE

185) TRUE

186) BSI precautions - providers should use appropriate PPE on every call and at every potential exposure Physical fitness - reduces the likelihood of injury from daily activities and reduces cardiovascular risk factors Stress management - reduces the chance of "burnout" occuring Professional care and counseling - seeking professional consultation when faced with overwhelming physical, emotional, or mental manifestations of job related stressors Safe driving - avoiding injuries associated with MVCs through techniques that ensure due regard for the safety of others Proper lifting techniques - reducing the likelihood of "lost time injuries" due to repetitive strain back injuries

187) Falls account for the largest number of preventable injuries for persons over 75 years of age.

The aging process also places the elderly at greater risk of serious head injury as well as many other injuries.

Many elderly persons suffer some degree of dementia that may contribute to dangerous behaviours such as wandering away.

Elderly patients are at greater risk of medication errors.

188) Childhood and flu immunization clinics Prenatal and well-baby clinics Eldercare clinics Defensive driving classes Workplace safety courses Health clinics (in partnership with other health-care organizations) Prevention information on your agency's website First aid and CPR classes Car seat safety clinics and inspections

189) Preserve the safety of the response team.

Recognize scene hazards.

Document findings/collect data.

Engage in on-scene education.

Know community resources.

Conduct a community needs assessment.

190) Primary prevention aims to keep injuries or illness from ever occurring.

Secondary prevention involves the medical care after an injury or illness that helps prevent further problems from occurring.

Tertiary prevention is rehabilitation after an injury or illness that helps prevent further problems from occurring.

191) B

192) B

193) D

194) E

195) A

196) D

197) B

198) C

199) A

200) C

201) D

202) A

203) E

204) A

205) B

206) TRUE

207) FALSE

208) TRUE

209) TRUE

210) TRUE

211) FALSE

212) TRUE

213) TRUE

214) TRUE

215) TRUE

216) Ethics are the rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession.

Morals are social, religious or personal standards of right and wrong.

217) Beneficence - the principle of doing good for the patient; all actions taken should be directed at improving patient outcomes

Nonmalfeasance - the obligation to not harm the patient; prophylactic actions that cause injury or discomfort to the patient must be avoided Autonomy - acknowledgement that a competent adult patient has the right to determine what happens to his or her own body Justice - the obligation to treat all persons fairly; regardless of gender, race, religion, etc.

218) Ethics focuses on what is right and good. Laws define what is wrong in the eyes of society.

219) 1. State the action in a universal form. Describe what should be done, who should do it, and under what conditions.

2. List the implications, or consequences, of the action.

3. Compare the consequences with relevant values.

220) Impartiality test - would you be willing to undergo the procedure if you were in the patient's place Universalizability test - would you want this action performed in all similar circumstances Interpersonal justifiability test - can you justify your actions to others

221) C

222) E

223) D

224) D

225) B

226) E

227) B

228)

A

229) E

230) B

231) A

232) B

233) E

234) D

235) E

236) B

237) A

238) B

239) E

240) E

241)

TRUE

242) TRUE

243) TRUE

244) FALSE

245) FALSE

246) TRUE

247) TRUE

248) TRUE

249) FALSE

250) FALSE

251) Use your legs, not your back, to lift.

Keep the weight of the object as close to your body as possible.

Stack your posture.

Reduce the height or distance you need to move the object.

252) Fire or threat of fire.

Explosion or the threat of explosion.

Inability to protect the patient from hazards at the scene.

Inability to gain access to other patients who need life-saving care.

When life-saving care cannot be provided because of the patient's location or position.