TEST BANK For My Psychology 3rd Edition By Andrew Pomerantz. Complete Chapters

TEST BANK For My Psychology 3rd Edition By Andrew Pomerantz.

Complete Chapters.

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Chapter 1 - Essay 1. Defend the statement, "Psychology is about normal people." Describe what psychology is as well as what it is not in your answer.

ANSWER: To understand what psychology is, you have to understand what it is not. Psychology is not exclusively about people with mental disorders. Most of the research that psychologists do focuses on normal processes that occur in all of us, such as how we think, how we learn, how we develop, how we remember, how we speak, and how we interact. To be able to understand the abnormal, we must first have a solid understanding of the normal and have a standard to measure against.

2. Compare and contrast the fields of clinical psychology and counseling psychology. Describe each specialization. In what ways are they similar? In what ways do they differ? Include three similarities and three differences in your answer.

ANSWER: Clinical psychology is a specialization that is applied and primarily focuses on psychological disorders. Clinical psychologists mostly engage in psychotherapy and assessments. Counseling psychology is also an applied specialization in which the psychologists focus on improving the daily functioning of people who might be going through difficult times in their lives. Counseling psychologists help people to adjust to temporary situations. Both specializations conduct psychotherapy, often in private practice, with individuals, groups, families, and couples. Clinical comes from the same root as recline, which can help you remember that the person is so impaired that they need bedside care. Counseling comes from the root word to consult, meaning a person needs guidance or advice.

3. Compare and contrast the fields of philosophy and psychology. Describe each field while listing their similarities and differences. Include three similarities as well as three differences in your answer.

ANSWER: Philosophers talked and wrote about the inner workings of the mind and the reasons for human behaviors. Their answers to those questions traditionally came from their opinions and experiences, not scientific inquiry. Many of their questions could not even be tested using science. Thus, psychology has that advantage over philosophy. Psychologists study the human mind and human behavior that is grounded in science, rather than just speculation or opinion.

4. Describe psychoanalysis and briefly describe its founding father. Was psychoanalysis well received when it was originally founded?

ANSWER: Psychoanalysis is a perspective in psychology that was created by Sigmund Freud. It focused on the unconscious mind and the long-lasting effects of childhood. Freud discovered the "talking cure," which paved the way for psychotherapy. He noticed in his medical practice that when people discussed their nervous disorders and symptoms, they began to reveal thoughts and feelings from childhood that had been previously hidden. Once they brought those experiences to the surface, the patient usually felt better. Freud talked about the existence of an "unconscious," which he described as thoughts and feelings of which the person is unaware but yet have the power to strongly affect the person's life. Then the person can go through the process of psychoanalysis to bring the unconscious thoughts and feelings to the conscious mind. Psychoanalysis drew a lot of attention from academia and physicians as well as the general public. Freud was elevated to a level of fame that was new to the field of psychology. This also elevated psychology to a new-found fame. Freud helped to spread his ideas beyond Europe to the United States. Psychoanalysis popped up in scholarly journals, training institutions, and professional associations. Freud's ideas and popularity continued to rise even after his death.

5. Describe the school of thought known as behaviorism, including its founding fathers. How did this particular .

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Chapter 1 - Essay school of thought change the field of psychology?

ANSWER: Behaviorism is a perspective in psychology that focuses on observable and measurable behavior rather than on internal thought. Behavior can be observed and measured, whereas mental thoughts and processes cannot. Behaviorists pushed for psychology to be a science by focusing on observable behaviors rather than on the inner workings of the mind. John Watson was the founder of behaviorism, and he worked to discredit introspection and replace it with measuring observable behaviors. Thanks to Pavlov and Skinner, behaviorism flourished and continued to gain popularity for many years. In fact, Skinner became as famous and influential as Freud, if not more so, and helped to promote behaviorism. Behaviorists helped to establish psychology as a science by conducting experiments and relying on the environment for consequences that would increase or decrease behaviors.

6. Contrast the beliefs and approach of psychoanalysis to those of behaviorism. Who were the approaches' founding fathers?

ANSWER: Sigmund Freud created psychoanalysis as the "talking cure" that focused on bringing events that occurred in childhood out of the "unconscious" and back to a level of consciousness where the feelings surrounding the childhood event could be discussed. Once those experiences were brought to the surface, the patient usually felt better. While psychoanalysis paved the way for psychotherapy, the scientific method was not used during the practice. The behavioral perspective arose largely as a reaction against the psychoanalytic perspective. Behaviorism is a perspective in psychology that focuses on observable and measurable behavior rather than on internal thought.

Behavior can be observed and measured, whereas mental thoughts can only be measured based on the objective behaviors they produce. Pavlov, Watson, and Skinner all helped usher in behaviorism.

7. Explain why humanism came about. Describe the main ideas of humanism, including its founding fathers.

How does this school of thought differ from psychoanalysis and behaviorism?

ANSWER: The humanistic perspective was born out of frustration. The humanists were fed up with Freud's negativity in his theories, and they were also frustrated with the mechanical nature of the behaviorists. Humanism wanted to shine a light on the personality and all that is good within a person. It is a perspective in psychology that focuses on the notion that human nature is generally good and people are naturally motivated to grow toward their fullest potential. Carl Rogers was the founding father of humanism, and he discovered in his experiences that most people who experienced psychological difficulties were not struggling with internal unconscious drives toward unrestrained aggression or self-gratification. Rogers believed people just wanted to grow and be the best versions of themselves, recognizing that sometimes there are obstacles preventing this from happening. Humanism focused on ideas like conditions of worth, which are imposed by others and force people to choose between being true to themselves and being someone their loved ones would accept. Humanism is in direct opposition to psychoanalysis and behaviorism as it truly focuses on the positive views about human nature. It provided a more positive approach to psychology and left people with hope and optimism.

8. Compare cognitive psychology to behaviorism. How are these perspectives alike? How are they different?

How do they approach psychology differently?

ANSWER: The cognitive perspective arose largely as a reaction against the behavioral perspective, which came first. Behaviorism is a perspective in psychology that focuses on observable and measurable behavior rather than on internal thought. Behavior can be observed and measured, whereas mental .

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Chapter 1 - Essay thoughts can only be measured based on the objective behaviors they produce. Behaviorists pushed for psychology to be a science by focusing on the behaviors rather than the mind. The behaviorists focused on issues outside of the mind, like observable behaviors and external conditions. Cognitive psychologists focus on the fact that what happens inside the mind is essential and necessary to understand humans and their behaviors. Cognitive psychologists tend to focus on inside-the-mind questions such as how we solve problems, how we make decisions, how we learn languages, what stimulates creative thought, and what influences intelligence. To really answer and examine these questions, a cognitive psychologist would need to consider the behaviors as well.

9. Multiculturalism challenges the strongly held belief found in older schools of psychology that an explanation of human behavior is equally true for all human beings. Describe how multiculturalism challenges this belief and provide an example to support your answer.

ANSWER: Multiculturalism emphasizes the influence of culture on behavior and mental processes. Cultural variables, including race or ethnicity, gender, religion or spirituality, age, socioeconomic status, sexual orientation, geographic region, and disability status, can have a powerful and valuable impact on what we think, feel, and do. This wider understanding of culture means that we all have quite a few cultural characteristics that make up who we are. Even American culture is comprised of many different cultures and exhibits increasing diversity in other areas. An example could be a transgender college student who might have depressive symptoms. When receiving treatment, the psychologist would have to take a multicultural approach and not just assume the demands of college are solely behind the depression.

10. Consider Darwin's assumption that getting our genes into the next generation is what drives us. Explain evolutionary psychology using this assumption. Then describe how being altruistic to a family member helps get a person's genes into the next generation.

ANSWER: Evolutionary psychology explains psychological traits (and other things) as adaptations or functional products that have been sustained across evolutionary time. It is used to explain and predict behaviors. Altruism is when a person helps another despite receiving no immediate benefit.

Evolutionary psychology would explain altruism by saying that people who helped others were more likely to receive help later on in life. This leads to a better chance of survival, especially if that help was life-saving. Helping a family member is even better because family members carry genes similar to your own.

11. Jasha has been diagnosed with anxiety. How would their psychiatrist who believes strongly in the biopsychosocial theory explain the possible causes of Jasha's diagnosis?

ANSWER: The biopsychosocial theory is a comprehensive perspective that emphasizes biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors as influences on behavior. In the case of Jasha, if the psychiatrist treating them believes in the biopsychosocial theory, they would explain that a wide range of factors could and should be considered as potential causes. Biologically, genetic inheritance and chemical imbalances in the brain could be contributing to the Jasha's symptoms of anxiety. Regarding Jasha's internal mental workings, Jasha may have a tendency to focus on the worst possible outcomes, even if they're not really realistic, which can cause and maintain elevated levels of stress. Socially, Jasha may be going through a period of their life where they have to make a lot of difficult and important decisions about their future, which would impact their family and other relationships. The culture in which they were raised may also not be supportive of indecision or seeking advice, adding to Jasha's stress about life choices. Other examples of biological, .

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Chapter 1 - Essay psychological, and social factors could be present in any given patient's case, and according to the biopsychosocial theory, not all three factors need to be given equal weight, and one factor may outweigh the others.

12. Why is critical thinking so important to the field of psychology? Explain three of the common errors in thinking that can be overcome with critical thinking, and provide examples of each from your own personal experience.

ANSWER: Critical thinking is an inquisitive, challenging approach to ideas and assumptions. It is essential to any advancement in science because it questions ideas. Critical thinking helps to debunk pseudopsychologies and encourages psychologists to generate new ideas. Critical thinking allows us to become less dependent on "commonsense" ideas, especially when those ideas contradict each other. When we critically think about a subject matter, we can better avoid and/or overcome common errors in thinking, such as the confirmation bias, belief perseverance, bandwagon fallacy, emotional reasoning, authority fallacy, antiquity fallacy, and black-or-white fallacy. Confirmation bias is where someone tends to prefer and focus on information that confirms what they already believe. Belief perseverance is where someone maintains a belief even when there is ample evidence suggesting it is incorrect. Bandwagon fallacy is evident when someone believes something simply because many other people believe it. Sometimes, people may believe something because of how it makes them feel rather than how logical or factual it is; this is called emotional reasoning. When someone believes something simply because an expert or authority figure believes it, this is referred to as the authority fallacy. Antiquity fallacy occurs when someone believes something just because people have believed it for a long time. Last, the black-or-white fallacy is where someone takes an extreme belief or polarized position on a matter when a more moderate belief/position would be more accurate. Student examples will vary.

13. When psychologists conduct scientific studies, they have one of the three goals: to describe, to correlate, or to experiment. Describe each goal, including how they differ from one another. Include an example of each goal.

ANSWER: Descriptive research is research in which the goal is simply to describe a characteristic of the population in terms of a particular variable. The researcher would specify a group of people and then measure some quality, behavior, or other feature within that group. In correlational studies the goal is to see how variables correlate (or relate) with each other. Whereas descriptive research focuses on variables in isolation, correlational research focuses on how variables interact.

Experimental research is research in which the goal is to experiment by manipulating one variable while measuring how another variable responds. An example of descriptive research could be describing aggressiveness in 5-year-old males as opposed to aggressiveness in 10-year-old males.

An example of a correlational study could be looking at the relationship between student attendance and student grades. An example of experimental research could be a double-blind experiment, testing out a new antidepressant medication versus the current leading medication with clinically depressed patients.

14. When would you use an experimental research design? Provide an example of an experiment, and be sure to identify the critical components such as the independent variable, dependent variable, experimental group, control group, and random assignment.

ANSWER: An experimental research design would be used when the goal is to determine the cause-and-effect relationship between two variables by manipulating one and observing changes in the other. Here is .

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Chapter 1 - Essay an example: Let's say a researcher wanted to study the effects of violent video game playing on aggressiveness in children. The type of video game would be the independent variable (what is manipulated), and the levels of aggression would be the dependent variable (what is measured). The researcher could design an experiment with 100 children. The children would be randomly assigned into two groups: the experimental group of 50 children who will play the violent video games, and the control group of 50 children who will play an educational video game. The dependent variable (aggression) would be measured at the beginning of the study and then again at the end to see if changes in the independent variable (type of video game—violent or educational) affected the dependent variable (level of aggression).

15. The scientific method is a way of asking and answering questions in psychology. List and describe the steps involved in the scientific method. Provide an example of a question that could be examined using the scientific method, and explain what would happen at each step.

ANSWER: 1. Pose a question. 2. Conduct a literature review. 3. Develop a hypothesis. 4. Test the hypothesis by collecting data. 5. Analyze the data and draw conclusions. Let's say a researcher wanted to study the effects of violent video game playing on aggressiveness in children. 1. Does playing violent video games contribute to children's aggression? 2. The researcher would read journal articles written about this topic and see what other researchers have found. 3. The hypothesis could be: Playing violent video games increases aggression in children. 4. An experiment could be designed with 100 children. There could be an experimental group of 50 children (randomly selected) who are exposed to the independent variable (playing the violent video games) and a control group of 50 children who are exposed to a placebo (maybe playing an educational video game). The researcher would measure the dependent variable (aggression) at the beginning of the study and then again at the end to see if the independent variable affected the dependent variable. 5. The researcher would determine the results and share them with the psychological community.

16. Suppose you are a researcher proposing a new study in which you will have human participants. You are in the process of getting approval from the Institutional Review Board at your university. Describe at least three important things you must do and at least three important things you should not do to ensure that your research will be conducted in an ethical manner.

ANSWER: According to the APA Code of Ethics, psychologists must conduct research that upholds ethical standards. Before beginning any study, researchers must get approval from their IRB and ensure that no participants will be harmed in any way. Standard "dos" include obtaining informed consent from participants before they participate in any study; allowing participants to withdraw from the study at any time without penalty if they feel uncomfortable; keeping any identifying information confidential; and debriefing the participants about the purpose of the study after they have finished their participation. There are also "don'ts" when it comes to research, such as not forcing people to participate, not fabricating any data, and not plagiarizing anyone else's ideas or words. Deception should be used only if doing so will not cause participants any harm or distress, is essential to the study, and is disclosed to the participants after the study is over.

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 1. Psychology is the scientific study of: a. the brain and observable behaviors. b. only observable behaviors. c. all behavior and mental processes. d. the brain and the mind.

ANSWER: c 2. The definition of psychology includes two components. One component consists of thoughts and feelings, and the other component consists of: a. the brain. b. observable behaviors. c. the scientific method. d. movements.

ANSWER: b 3. The definition of psychology includes two components. One component consists of observable behaviors, and the other component consists of: a. the brain. b. thoughts and feelings. c. the scientific method. d. actions.

ANSWER: b 4. The word scientific is important when defining psychology because: a. it makes the definition sound more professional. b. experiments are always conducted in psychology. c. it makes the field of psychology less credible. d. the scientific method is used to verify psychological research.

ANSWER: d 5. Swagata would like to improve his self-esteem. Swagata has learned in his psychology course that it is important to pay attention to his behaviors, such as how much he shies away from conversations in groups.

Swagata also knows it is just as important to pay attention to his mental processes, such as: a. thoughts and feelings about his self-worth. b. his other social mannerisms. c. his inability to look people in the eyes. d. his self-destructive behaviors.

ANSWER: a 6. Which of these statements is true? a. Psychology exclusively focuses on therapy. b. Psychology only studies people with mental disorders. .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. Psychology and psychiatry are the same things. d. Enduring ideas in psychology are supported by research.

ANSWER: d 7. Psychiatry, a medical specialization, focuses on: a. providing drug-free therapy. b. development of the mind. c. disorders of brain function. d. the limitations of psychology.

ANSWER: c 8. Meeta was diagnosed with depression and was given a prescription for medication MOST likely by a: a. clinical psychologist. b. psychiatrist. c. clinical social worker. d. counseling psychologist.

ANSWER: b 9. Dr. Assani went to medical school, has a medical degree, and works with patients with severe mental health disorders. What type of professional is Dr. Assani MOST likely? a. clinical psychologist b. psychiatrist c. clinical social worker d. counseling psychologist ANSWER: b 10. Siham started to have trouble focusing on their work after they began taking a mood-stabilizing medication.

They are also experiencing more difficulty sleeping than before. Siham would MOST likely speak to a _____ about their new issues regarding the effects of their prescribed medication. a. clinical psychologist b. psychiatrist c. forensic psychologist d. counseling psychologist ANSWER: b 11. Psychiatrists focus on physical and biological systems, while psychologists focus on: a. behavior and mental processes. b. therapy and psychosurgery. c. medication and illnesses. d. medication and therapy.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 12. The training of psychologists focuses on behavior and mental processes, while the training of psychiatrists focuses on: a. physical and biological systems. b. therapy and counseling. c. mental and mood disorders. d. cognitive and emotional processes.

ANSWER: a 13. Which statement about psychiatrists and psychologists is false? a. There exists controversy about prescription privileges for psychologists. b. Most psychiatric medications are prescribed by psychiatrists rather than other physicians. c. Some states have approved legislation for psychologists to prescribe medications. d. There is a shortage of psychiatrists in many states, particularly in rural areas.

ANSWER: b 14. Dr. Zhao is studying whether intelligence comes from our genes or from our experiences with the environment. Which big question in psychology is Dr. Zhao trying to answer? a. cognitive or behavioral b. universal or unique c. change or stability d. nature or nurture ANSWER: d 15. Dr. Santos has a developmental psychology research program that asks whether a person's coping with death changes as they age. Which big question in psychology is Dr. Santos exploring? a. cognitive or behavioral b. universal or unique c. change or stability d. nature or nurture ANSWER: c 16. Dr. Mwangi is studying children and their tendency to create imaginary friends. Some researchers believe the creation of imaginary friends is a behavior most if not all children engage in, while other researchers feel it is abnormal or not common. Which big question in psychology is Dr. Mwangi addressing? a. cognitive or behavioral b. universal or unique c. change or stability d. nature or nurture ANSWER: b 17. Dr. Lopez is conducting research to compare the effectiveness of psychotherapy across different minority groups in America. Which big question in psychology is Dr. Lopez addressing? .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice a. nature or nurture b. cognitive or behavioral c. change or stability d. universal or unique ANSWER: d 18. Three big questions underlie the field of psychology. These questions include nature or nurture, change or stability, and: a. cognitive or behavioral. b. universal or unique. c. inherited or learned. d. cultural or social.

ANSWER: b 19. Three big questions underlie the field of psychology. These questions include change or stability, universal or unique, and: a. cognitive or behavioral. b. nature or nurture. c. ethnic or cultural. d. cultural or social.

ANSWER: b 20. Three big questions underlie the field of psychology. These questions include nature or nurture, universal or unique, and: a. cognitive or behavioral. b. change or stability. c. inherited or learned. d. cultural or social.

ANSWER: b 21. When developmental psychologists discuss traits being inherited or learned, which big question are they addressing? a. cognitive or behavioral b. change or stability c. nature or nurture d. cultural or social ANSWER: c 22. The two major specializations in psychology are _____ specializations and basic research specializations. a. expert b. investigative .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. applied d. exploratory ANSWER: c 23. As a field and as a profession, psychology is _____ and _____. a. specialized; small b. immense; diverse c. opinionated; specialized d. specialized; judgmental ANSWER: b 24. What is the name of the largest organization of psychologists in the United States? a. American Psychiatric Association b. Psychologists of America c. Association of American Psychologists d. American Psychological Association ANSWER: d 25. According to a 2020 survey by the American Psychological Association, which of these statements is MOST accurate? a. There are far more women earning graduate degrees in psychology than men. b. People of color now comprise a majority of those earning doctoral degrees in psychology. c. Men continue to outnumber women as psychology graduate students. d. Psychology is a small field with few people earning doctoral degrees in any given year.

ANSWER: a 26. Generally speaking, applied psychologists _____, whereas basic research psychologists _____. a. conduct real-world studies; conduct therapy b. practice; run studies c. prescribe medications; conduct assessments d. teach classes; practice counseling ANSWER: b 27. Psychologists who do psychological assessments and psychotherapy are called: a. industrial/organizational psychologists. b. community psychologists. c. clinical psychologists. d. forensic psychologists.

ANSWER: c 28. Dr. Spivey spends the majority of his workday conducting psychotherapy with individuals and families. Dr. .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice Spivey is MOST likely a: a. clinical psychologist. b. forensic psychologist. c. educational psychologist. d. industrial/organizational psychologist.

ANSWER: a 29. Ibrahim is struggling with his grades, and he is at odds with his boyfriend. Ibrahim feels the stress he is experiencing is overwhelming, and he wants to seek out professional help. Ibrahim should make an appointment with a(n): a. educational psychologist. b. forensic psychologist. c. counseling psychologist. d. industrial/organizational psychologist.

ANSWER: c 30. LaToria feels extremely depressed and is having a hard time functioning. She does not know what type of psychologist to make an appointment with. Because you are well-versed in the specializations within psychology, you recommend that she see a(n) _____ psychologist. a. developmental b. educational c. forensic d. clinical ANSWER: d 31. Carianne has started hearing voices that are not her own, and she is beginning to have delusions, such as thinking she is the princess of a country. The professional that is BEST suited to conduct her psychological evaluation is a: a. forensic psychologist. b. counseling psychologist. c. clinical psychologist. d. social psychologist.

ANSWER: c 32. A _____ psychologist typically works as a consultant with a focus on the workplace. a. counseling b. industrial/organizational c. forensic d. educational ANSWER: b 33. A large corporation is trying to boost workplace morale and decrease employee turnover. The company .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice decides to hire a consultant to implement strategies to increase employee satisfaction. This company would MOST likely hire a consultant specializing in _____ psychology. a. clinical b. biological c. industrial/organizational d. forensic ANSWER: c 34. The CEO of a large corporation has hired a consultant to help her figure out why production has decreased.

The type of psychologist she has MOST likely hired is a(n) _____ psychologist. a. industrial/organizational b. physiological c. clinical d. counseling ANSWER: a 35. _____ psychology is an applied specialization which focuses on the wellness of large segments of the population. a. Clinical b. Forensic c. Educational d. Community ANSWER: d 36. The local high school wants to present a program to the students and the local neighborhood about healthy eating and exercising. The psychologists who would MOST likely lead this type of program are _____ psychologists. a. clinical b. industrial/organizational c. community d. forensic ANSWER: c 37. The city recreation center wants to implement a new wellness program for their members and the people in the surrounding neighborhoods. They decide to consult with some psychologists to better understand different behaviors that would be considered "wellness." Those psychologists would MOST likely be _____ psychologists. a. forensic b. community c. industrial/organizational d. educational ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 38. Psychologists who focus on legal and criminal justice issues are typically _____ psychologists. a. forensic b. clinical c. community d. educational ANSWER: a 39. A defense attorney hired Dr. Hidayat to assist with jury selection in a high-profile criminal case. Dr. Hidayat's specialty is MOST likely in _____ psychology. a. clinical b. forensic c. counseling d. physiological ANSWER: b 40. Child protective services hire psychologists to conduct evaluations on parents they are investigating, for example, during a custody dispute. These psychologists are MOST likely _____ psychologists. a. clinical b. forensic c. industrial/organizational d. educational ANSWER: b 41. Which psychological specialization focuses on learning and teaching? a. clinical b. community c. counseling d. educational ANSWER: d 42. Dr. Nguyen works with various school districts to determine effective teaching strategies. Dr. Nguyen is MOST likely a(n) _____ psychologist. a. community b. forensic c. educational d. clinical ANSWER: c 43. Psychologists who come into schools and determine which teaching styles and classroom arrangements are conducive to learning are MOST likely _____ psychologists. a. community .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice b. forensic c. educational d. clinical ANSWER: c 44. Psychologists who implement their expertise in a way that directly improves real-world problems would MOST likely fall into which area of psychology? a. basic research b. applied c. physiological d. exploratory ANSWER: b 45. Dr. Nilsen conducts experiments with mice specially bred to be used in the laboratory. They then publish their findings in journals to share what they have learned. Dr. Nilsen would MOST likely fall into which area of psychology? a. basic research b. applied c. therapeutic d. practicing ANSWER: a 46. In general, applied psychologists _____, while basic research psychologists run studies. a. practice b. experiment c. study d. teach ANSWER: a 47. In general, applied psychologists practice, while basic research psychologists: a. conduct therapy. b. run studies. c. write books. d. teach classes.

ANSWER: b 48. Many psychologists hold academic jobs in universities and run studies to enhance the understanding of behavior and mental processes. Into which category of specialization in psychology would these educators MOST likely fall? a. education b. applied c. clinical .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice d. basic research ANSWER: d 49. The specialization that explores how the various parts of the brain communicate with each other and how the brain communicates with the rest of the body is called _____ psychology. a. physiological b. developmental c. health d. social ANSWER: a 50. Dr. Kovalenko studies the brain scans of psychiatric patients with severe disorders to gain insight into the biological conditions of the disorders. Dr. Kovalenko is MOST likely what type of psychologist? a. developmental b. personality c. physiological d. social ANSWER: c 51. The research specialization in which psychologists focus on how people change throughout the lifespan is known as _____ psychology. a. personality b. developmental c. industrial/organizational d. health ANSWER: b 52. Dr. Varga studies how resilience changes as people age. Dr. Varga's research MOST aligns with which basic research specialization? a. personality b. educational c. clinical d. developmental ANSWER: d 53. Dr. Homayoun is conducting a study in which they are addressing the question, "Do 10-year-olds watch more television than 8-year-olds?" Dr. Homayoun is MOST likely which type of psychologist? a. personality b. social c. health d. developmental ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 54. When research psychologists focus on people's traits, they are MOST likely known as _____ psychologists. a. personality b. health c. developmental d. physiological ANSWER: a 55. Samira is in a psychology doctoral program and is focusing her research on the factors that influence people's traits such as extraversion, agreeableness, and openness to experience. Samira is MOST likely studying to become what type of psychologist? a. developmental b. physiological c. health d. personality ANSWER: d 56. Imani is about to graduate from college, but she is still unsure about what kind of occupation she should pursue. She visits a psychologist who administers a test to help determine her strengths, interests, and traits.

What type of psychologist would MOST likely conduct a test like this? a. developmental b. physiological c. clinical d. personality ANSWER: d 57. _____ psychology is one of the research specializations where psychologists focus on how people relate to one another. a. Physiological b. Social c. Health d. Comparative ANSWER: b 58. Genji wants to study attitudes about racism and whether people's self-reported attitudes will be different in the presence of a group predominantly made up of people of color versus a group of predominantly white individuals. Genji would MOST likely be a _____ psychologist. a. social b. personality c. physiological d. comparative ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 59. Jadyn is reading an article for their research paper on group work. The paper supports group work and states that college students learn better alongside their peers than they do when they work on a project alone. This article was MOST likely written by which type of psychologist? a. community b. personality c. physiological d. social ANSWER: d 60. Psychologists who focus on the relationship between body and mind, as well as on other issues such as eating, exercise, and stress-related diseases are MOST likely _____ psychologists. a. developmental b. comparative c. personality d. health ANSWER: d 61. Dr. Leu is conducting a study to determine if loneliness and lack of a support system could be contributing factors to a compromised immune system. Dr. Leu MOST likely has a research specialization in _____ psychology. a. health b. comparative c. developmental d. clinical ANSWER: a 62. When researchers focus on the psychological and physical effects of stress on the mind and body, they are MOST aligned with the focus of _____ psychology. a. health b. industrial/organizational c. comparative d. developmental ANSWER: a 63. _____ psychology strives to increase understanding about the behavior of animals and applying that understanding to other animals, including human beings. a. Clinical b. Developmental c. Comparative d. Physiological ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 64. Dr. Pereira is developing strategies to teach chimpanzees to use basic hand signs to let them make requests.

Dr. Pereira feels this will help her to understand how the basics of language can be taught to chimpanzees as well as to young children. Dr. Pereira is MOST likely a research specialist in _____ psychology. a. developmental b. social c. comparative d. physiological ANSWER: c 65. A psychologist studying a behavior, such as aggressiveness in monkeys, and researching to see how pervasive this behavior is across species would MOST likely be a _____ psychologist. a. health b. social c. comparative d. physiological ANSWER: c 66. Psychology emerged from two older academic fields: philosophy and: a. sociology. b. physiology. c. history. d. neuroscience.

ANSWER: b 67. Psychology emerged from two older academic fields: physiology and: a. sociology. b. philosophy. c. history. d. neuroscience.

ANSWER: b 68. Psychology emerged from two older academic fields. They are: a. philosophy and sociology. b. philosophy and physiology. c. sociology and science. d. history and sociology.

ANSWER: b 69. Psychology is different from philosophy in that psychology: a. is grounded in opinions and insights. b. cannot be tested in objective experiments. .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. does not ask questions about human behavior. d. is grounded in science rather than speculation.

ANSWER: d 70. We need to study the human brain to understand the human mind. _____ is the contributing academic field that enables psychologists to do just that. a. Physiology b. Philosophy c. Physics d. Sociology ANSWER: a 71. The boundary or landmark event that separates old-school psychology from new-school psychology is: a. the formation of the American Psychological Association. b. not clear-cut or definable. c. Freud's discovery of psychoanalysis. d. the creation of behaviorism.

ANSWER: b 72. Which statement is true about the history of psychology? a. Psychology is a global science with a global history. b. Psychology was confined to Europe until it traveled to the United States. c. Psychology is recognized in only a few countries around the world. d. Psychology historically has always been a small field.

ANSWER: a 73. Which statement does NOT correctly match the person from a diverse population with their contribution to psychology in the United States? a. Inez Beverly Prosser became the first Black woman to earn a PhD in psychology. b. Mamie Phipps and Kenneth Clark's research revealed the harmful impact of racism on children. c. Robert Williams coined the term and pioneered the study of ebonics, the Black vernacular of English. d. Carolyn Lewis became the first Latinx person to earn a PhD in psychology.

ANSWER: d 74. Which statement is true about Wilhelm Wundt? a. He was the founder of the American Psychological Association. b. He devoted his career to studying mental health needs among diverse communities. c. He became famous for introducing the approach known as functionalism. d. He is widely considered to be the father of psychology.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 75. _____ established the first psychology research lab and is widely considered to be the father of psychology. a. Sigmund Freud b. William James c. Wilhelm Wundt d. B. F. Skinner ANSWER: c 76. _____ created the first laboratory to be used for psychological experiments. a. Wilhelm Wundt b. Sigmund Freud c. B. F. Skinner d. William James ANSWER: a 77. _____ is defined as looking inside oneself and describing what is going on inside one's own mind. a. Investigation b. Introspection c. Discovery d. Psychology ANSWER: b 78. Dr. Long is conducting research with some of his patients. He asks them to keep a journal and write about mental activities that they participate in, as well as their reactions to certain events going on around them. This process is closely related to Wundt's approach known as: a. psychological confessions. b. literary analysis. c. journaling. d. introspection.

ANSWER: d 79. As a school of thought, _____ focused on the breaking down of mental processes into their most basic parts. a. functionalism b. structuralism c. psychoanalysis d. behaviorism ANSWER: b 80. Which statement does NOT correctly describe the view on women's involvement in psychology around the time of structuralism? a. Women could take classes on psychology at universities but could not be granted a PhD. b. Women could teach psychology, but their names would not be listed alongside their male faculty colleagues. .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. Only the career of Christine Ladd-Franklin was stifled by the chauvinistic attitude of a male psychologist. d. Societal norms pushed women away from higher education careers and toward marriage.

ANSWER: c 81. Edward Titchener is to _____ as William James is to _____. a. functionalism; structuralism b. psychoanalysis; behaviorism c. structuralism; functionalism d. behaviorism; psychoanalysis ANSWER: c 82. Who is considered to be the father of American psychology? a. Sigmund Freud b. Wilhelm Wundt c. William James d. B. F. Skinner ANSWER: c 83. _____ is a perspective that emphasizes the unconscious mind as well as the long-lasting influence of childhood experiences. a. Behaviorism b. Psychoanalysis c. Humanism d. Functionalism ANSWER: b 84. Psychoanalysis was created by: a. Wilhelm Wundt. b. William James. c. John Watson. d. Sigmund Freud.

ANSWER: d 85. Juan Pablo asked his therapist why he seems to only be romantically interested in women who don't want to commit to a relationship. Juan Pablo's therapist told him he might be unaware of his choices and is possibly being controlled by his _____ mind. a. unconscious b. conscious c. introspective d. cognitive .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 86. _____ psychotherapy is another name for the "talking cure" that Freud emphasized. a. Subjective b. Psychoanalytic c. Behavioral d. Humanistic ANSWER: b 87. Which statement about psychoanalysis is false? a. It emphasizes the unconscious mind and the influences of childhood experiences. b. It is a psychological perspective created by Sigmund Freud. c. Its form of psychotherapy is designed to make the unconscious conscious. d. It is currently at its peak levels of popularity and interest worldwide.

ANSWER: d 88. In which country were Freud's ideas MOST embraced? a. Argentina b. Turkey c. China d. the United States ANSWER: d 89. _____ is a psychological perspective that emphasizes measuring observable actions. a. Psychoanalysis b. Functionalism c. Humanism d. Behaviorism ANSWER: d 90. _____ was a professor who is credited for being the founder of behaviorism. a. William James b. John Watson c. Sigmund Freud d. Wilhelm Wundt ANSWER: b 91. _____ is the school of thought in psychology that paved the way for experimental research and further emphasized scientific roots. a. Psychoanalysis b. Behaviorism .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. Humanism d. Functionalism ANSWER: b 92. Which psychologists are MOST associated with the behaviorist perspective in psychology? a. William James and Edward Titchener b. John Watson and B. F. Skinner c. Sigmund Freud and Wilhelm Wundt d. Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow ANSWER: b 93. _____ is a perspective in psychology that focuses on the idea that human nature is generally good and humans are naturally motivated to grow to their fullest potential. a. Humanism b. Psychoanalysis c. Behaviorism d. Functionalism ANSWER: a 94. One major founder of humanism was: a. B. F. Skinner. b. Sigmund Freud. c. Carl Rogers. d. William James.

ANSWER: c 95. The need to be true to yourself to achieve ultimate happiness would be a belief of which school of thought? a. humanism b. behaviorism c. functionalism d. psychoanalysis ANSWER: a 96. Also known as third force psychology, _____ was the school of thought that directly rivaled two other schools of thought that came before it. a. psychoanalysis b. humanism c. functionalism d. behaviorism ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 97. A humanistic psychologist would MOST likely believe that children: a. should be raised with positive and negative reinforcement. b. should be loved unconditionally and without judgment. c. need to observe positive behaviors in order to grow into good people. d. need to have strict discipline to become good people.

ANSWER: b 98. _____ is a psychological perspective that focuses on the influence of shared lifestyle and values on behavior and mental processes. a. Humanism b. Multiculturalism c. Neuroscience d. Behaviorism ANSWER: b 99. A shared lifestyle with its own unique norms, expectations, and values is called: a. ethnicity. b. religion. c. culture. d. cohort.

ANSWER: c 100. Yawei recently moved to the United States from China and is struggling to adjust to his new workplace, so he begins seeking help from a psychologist. Yawei tells his psychologist that he is very stressed and anxious because he does not understand many of the social values of his new workplace, and he also fears that he may be offending some of his coworkers without even knowing it. Yawei's psychologist will MOST likely take a _____ approach to Yawei's therapy. a. humanistic b. behavioral c. psychoanalytic d. multicultural ANSWER: d 101. Maria's family is from Mexico, where they use art, such as community mural painting, as a form of stress relief and socialization. As a school counselor, Maria decides to implement a form of therapy that incorporates art and feels it will have very positive and successful results on the children. Maria's approach matches closest with which type of psychology? a. evolutionary b. multicultural c. neuroscience d. cognitive ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 102. Which contemporary psychological perspective can be traced back to functionalism and is heavily influenced by Charles Darwin's ideas? a. multicultural b. neuroscience c. humanism d. evolutionary ANSWER: d 103. When Dakila went to a psychologist for help with his phobia of snakes, the psychologist explained that his phobia was a result of our ancestors' fears. This explanation would MOST likely come from what type of psychologist? a. behavioral b. humanistic c. evolutionary d. multicultural ANSWER: c 104. Dr. dela Cruz is conducting research on how our preferences for certain kinds of food can be traced back to our ancestors. Dr. dela Cruz is MOST likely what type of psychologist? a. multicultural b. evolutionary c. personality d. developmental ANSWER: b 105. As an evolutionary psychologist, Dr. Shein would MOST likely posit that aggression: a. is a trait that may have increased our ancestors' chances of survival. b. is learned from one's family and peers. c. results from conflict deep in one's unconscious mind. d. is due to unusually high activity of certain brain regions.

ANSWER: a 106. When psychologists focus on thinking, language, attention, memory, and intelligence, they are probably _____ psychologists. a. multicultural b. personality c. cognitive d. evolutionary ANSWER: c 107. Which activity would MOST likely be studied by a cognitive psychologist? .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice a. studying the steps in problem solving b. exploring the role of the unconscious mind c. investigating attitudes toward diversity d. improving the well-being of communities ANSWER: a 108. Studying the link between behavior and the biological functions of the brain is MOST emphasized in: a. neuroscience. b. behaviorism. c. psychoanalysis. d. humanism.

ANSWER: a 109. Dr. Solara uses functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), computed tomography (CT), and positron emission tomography (PET) to look at the brain. Dr. Solara is MOST likely a: a. cognitive psychologist. b. evolutionary psychologist. c. neuroscientist. d. behaviorist.

ANSWER: c 110. Hamid sustained a traumatic brain injury while riding their bicycle on an icy road. Hamid is working with a psychologist who monitors the activity levels within Hamid's brain to better understand the impact of their injury and to help improve Hamid's recall and recognition. Under which specialty would this psychologist's work MOST likely fall? a. social psychology b. evolutionary psychology c. neuroscience d. cognitive psychology ANSWER: c 111. _____ psychologists focus on using psychology to help people to flourish and be happy, instead of focusing on disorders, weaknesses, and failures. a. Clinical b. Evolutionary c. Cognitive d. Positive ANSWER: d 112. Marty describes himself as a positive psychologist. As such, he MOST likely sees psychology as a(n): a. field that recognizes the impacts of cultural variables on people's behavior. b. way to understand the adaptive nature of traits across people. .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. opportunity to help people flourish and be happy. d. tool for helping people overcome misery and impairment.

ANSWER: c 113. Susan decides to hire a life coach to help motivate her to engage in healthy relationships, make good decisions, and stay focused in her career. Her life coach MOST likely has a background in _____ psychology. a. health b. evolutionary c. positive d. clinical ANSWER: c 114. There is a theory in psychology that recognizes that your brain and genetic inheritance and your thoughts and feelings and your family and culture all interact to explain your behavior. This theory is called the _____ theory. a. neurological b. evolutionary c. biopsychosocial d. positive ANSWER: c 115. _____ theory enables psychologists to consider multiple factors when explaining anxiety, rather than just one. This enables a more accurate and complete explanation of the anxiety. a. Biopsychosocial b. Neurological c. Clinical d. Evolutionary ANSWER: a 116. Dr. Weis uses multiple tools to diagnose Alzheimer's disease, including MRI scans, behaviors reported by family, and social symptoms. This suggests that Dr. Weis uses a(n) _____ approach when diagnosing Alzheimer's disease. a. cognitive b. biopsychosocial c. evolutionary d. technological ANSWER: b 117. The pseudopsychology known as _____ attests that bumps on the skull revealed personality characteristics and mental abilities. a. spiritualism b. phrenology .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. physiognomy d. mesmerism ANSWER: b 118. Ideas that the general public believes, but that have no basis in science, are called: a. pseudopsychology. b. physics. c. psychology. d. sociology.

ANSWER: a 119. The pseudopsychology known as _____ stated that features of the face such as your eyelids, cheekbones, and shape of your lips revealed personality characteristics and mental abilities. a. phrenology b. physiognomy c. mesmerism d. spiritualism ANSWER: b 120. _____ is the pseudopsychology in which a healer moves magnets or their hands over a person's body to adjust the balance of fluids or induce a hypnotic trance. a. Phrenology b. Physiognomy c. Mesmerism d. Spiritualism ANSWER: c 121. Layla decides to visit a fortuneteller to help her decide her major in college. Her parents should tell her this is not a great idea because fortunetellers: a. belong to a pseudopsychology and have no basis in scientific research. b. are paid to tell what the client wants to hear. c. are paid by universities and colleges to guide students with their future. d. are very expensive, although they are reliable in their findings.

ANSWER: a 122. According to psychologists' research on academic success in college students, _____ is positively correlated with GPAs. a. time spent on social media b. engagement in extracurricular activities c. cramming for tests d. a focus on getting rich quick .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 123. When psychologists take an inquisitive, open-minded approach to assumptions and ideas, they are employing: a. confirmation bias. b. critical thinking. c. common sense. d. belief perseverance.

ANSWER: b 124. Gaurikka heard her friends discussing how home schooling is more effective than public school. Gaurikka wanted to learn more about this and did some research before she came to a decision. Gaurikka used an approach fueled by _____ to help her decide. a. critical thinking b. confirmation bias c. common sense d. belief perseverance ANSWER: a 125. The tendency to prefer information that validates what a person believed in the first place is called: a. critical thinking. b. confirmation bias. c. common sense. d. belief perseverance.

ANSWER: b 126. D'Shawna is in favor of gun control. Whenever she hears a media report about a shooting, she interprets the report in a way that reaffirms her beliefs. This is an example of: a. critical thinking. b. scientific evidence. c. confirmation bias. d. belief perseverance.

ANSWER: c 127. As scientists, psychologists work hard to be open to ideas different from their own in order to overcome: a. critical thinking. b. common sense. c. judgmental bias. d. confirmation bias.

ANSWER: d 128. The tendency to maintain a belief even when evidence suggests it is incorrect is called: .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice a. critical thinking. b. confirmation bias. c. belief perseverance. d. common sense.

ANSWER: c 129. _____ is standing by a belief that is crumbling under the weight of evidence to the contrary. a. Confirmation bias b. Critical thinking c. Common sense d. Belief perseverance ANSWER: d 130. Which example illustrates the thinking error known as authority fallacy? a. While shopping for a new bicycle helmet, you start with a popular brand, and you seek out positive reviews of that brand. b. You change your beliefs about bicycle helmet laws in your state after hearing the opinion of an expert on the subject. c. You believe a particular bicycle helmet must be worth buying because lots of professional cyclists wear it. d. You decide it is safe to not wear a bicycle helmet while riding because your parents and grandparents never saw the need.

ANSWER: b 131. You believe that using chemical pesticides labeled as toxic in your home garden is perfectly safe for the environment because that is what people in your parents', grandparents', and great-grandparents' generations believed. Your belief BEST exemplifies which kind of thinking error? a. antiquity fallacy b. bandwagon fallacy c. black-or-white fallacy d. emotional reasoning ANSWER: a 132. Taking an absolute or extreme belief about something when a more moderate belief would be more accurate is considered a thinking error known as: a. emotional reasoning. b. antiquity fallacy. c. black-or-white fallacy. d. confirmation bias.

ANSWER: c 133. Which statement BEST exemplifies the bandwagon fallacy? .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice a. "This feels right, so don't try to confuse me with facts and logic." b. "Let's all listen to what the expert has to say." c. "It's been this way for ages, so it must be right." d. "Everyone in town believes it, so it must be true."

ANSWER: d 134. Psychologists are conducting _____ research when they are conducting scientific studies simply to describe a characteristic of the population. a. correlational b. experimental c. descriptive d. nondescriptive ANSWER: c 135. Dr. Frkovic is conducting research on preteens and how much they play video games online. They are keeping track of how many hours per day the preteen spends playing online. This research is MOST likely an example of _____ research. a. descriptive b. nondescriptive c. correlational d. experimental ANSWER: a 136. A researcher trying to determine the relationship between two variables is doing _____ research. a. descriptive b. nondescriptive c. correlational d. case study ANSWER: c 137. Researchers have made the link that people who have higher levels of education tend to have fewer children. This was MOST likely discovered by doing _____ research. a. descriptive b. nondescriptive c. naturalistic observation d. correlational ANSWER: d 138. The statistic that measures the strength and direction of a relationship between two variables is called the: a. standard deviation. b. correlation coefficient. .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. absolute deviation. d. variation coefficient.

ANSWER: b 139. A _____ correlation coefficient means that as one variable goes up, the other variable goes up with it. a. positive b. negative c. direct d. weak ANSWER: a 140. A _____ correlation coefficient means that as one variable goes up, the other variable goes down and vice versa. a. positive b. negative c. direct d. weak ANSWER: b 141. The correlation coefficient that represents the strongest relationship is: a. –0.92. b. –0.87. c. +0.87. d. +1.02.

ANSWER: a 142. Dr. Gammal studied the effects of video game playing on attention deficits in children. They found a correlation coefficient of +0.72. This number MOST likely tells us that: a. as video game playing decreases, attention deficits increase. b. as video game playing increases, attention deficits decrease. c. as video game playing increases, attention deficits increase. d. there is no relationship between video game playing and attention deficits.

ANSWER: c 143. If a study comparing height and sense of humor reveals a correlation coefficient of zero, what does this say about the relationship between height and sense of humor? a. As height increases, sense of humor increases. b. As height increases, sense of humor decreases. c. These variables are strongly related. d. There is no relationship between these two variables.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 144. Which example illustrates a positive correlation? a. The more you exercise, the lower your weight. b. The less you smoke, the better your health. c. The less you study, the lower your grades. d. The more you binge watch TV, the less you read.

ANSWER: c 145. Which example illustrates a negative correlation? a. The more you eat, the more weight you gain. b. The fewer hours you work, the lower your stress. c. The less you socialize, the more you work on homework. d. The more you study, the higher your exam grades.

ANSWER: c 146. _____ is the mistaken belief that when two variables correlate strongly with each other, one variable is responsible for the other variable changing. a. Confirmation bias b. Correlation–causation fallacy c. Authority fallacy d. Black-or-white fallacy ANSWER: b 147. The goal of _____ research is to determine the cause-and-effect relationship between two variables by manipulating one and observing changes in the other. a. correlational b. experimental c. descriptive d. nondescriptive ANSWER: b 148. A group of researchers is conducting a study to test if a specific type of therapy causes a reduction of anxiety symptoms. This type of research is: a. observational. b. psychodynamic. c. correlational. d. experimental.

ANSWER: d 149. In experimental research, the _____ variable is manipulated and controlled by the experimenter. a. independent b. dependent .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. confounding d. correlational ANSWER: a 150. In experimental research, the _____ variable is measured to see if it changes due to changes in another variable. a. independent b. dependent c. confounding d. correlational ANSWER: b 151. In experimental research examining the effects of two different kinds of therapy for adults diagnosed with depression, which item would MOST likely serve as the independent variable? a. number of times depressive symptoms are measured b. level of depression before and after treatment c. age of the participants d. type of therapy given to the adults ANSWER: d 152. In experimental research examining the effects of two different kinds of therapy for adults with depression, which item would MOST likely serve as the dependent variable? a. change in depression pre- to post-treatment b. number of times therapy is provided c. age of the participants d. type of therapy given to the adults ANSWER: a 153. Dr. Nkosi is studying the effects of exercise on depression. He hypothesizes that people who exercise more experience fewer depressive thoughts throughout the day. He designs a study where one group of participants is instructed to exercise 30 minutes a day for 3 days a week, and the other group is instructed not to exercise. He then has the two groups journal their depressive thoughts throughout the day, and he compares the results. In this study, the independent variable is the: a. number of depressive thoughts a participant journals. b. amount of exercise a person engages in. c. time of day when the depressive thoughts happen. d. age of the participant.

ANSWER: b 154. Dr. Nkosi is studying the effects of exercise on depression. He hypothesizes that people who exercise more experience fewer depressive thoughts throughout the day. He designs a study where one group of participants is instructed to exercise 30 minutes a day for 3 days a week, and the other group is instructed not to exercise. He .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice then has the two groups journal their depressive thoughts throughout the day, and he compares the results. In this study, the dependent variable is the: a. number of depressive thoughts a participant journals. b. amount of exercise a person engages in. c. time of day when the depressive thoughts happen. d. age of the participant.

ANSWER: a 155. In experimental research, the group of participants who receive the treatment that is the focus of the study is the _____ group. a. independent b. dependent c. experimental d. control ANSWER: c 156. In experimental research, the group of participants who do not receive the treatment that is the focus of the study is called the _____ group. a. independent b. dependent c. experimental d. control ANSWER: d 157. Dr. Nkosi is studying the effects of exercise on depression. He hypothesizes that people who exercise more experience fewer depressive thoughts throughout the day. He designs a study where one group of participants is instructed to exercise 30 minutes a day for 3 days a week, and the other group is instructed not to exercise. He then has the two groups journal their depressive thoughts throughout the day, and he compares the results. In this study, the experimental group consists of the participants who: a. were not allowed to exercise. b. had the most depressive thoughts. c. did not have any depressive thoughts. d. were instructed to exercise.

ANSWER: d 158. Dr. Nkosi is studying the effects of exercise on depression. He hypothesizes that people who exercise more experience fewer depressive thoughts throughout the day. He designs a study where one group of participants is instructed to exercise 30 minutes a day for 3 days a week, and the other group is instructed not to exercise. He then has the two groups journal their depressive thoughts throughout the day, and he compares the results. In this study, the control group consists of the participants who: a. were not allowed to exercise. b. had the most depressive thoughts. .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. did not have any depressive thoughts. d. were instructed to exercise.

ANSWER: a 159. In experimental research, a study when a participant is assigned to the experimental or the control group, entirely by chance, is called: a. random assignment. b. systematic assignment. c. varied procedure. d. systematic procedure.

ANSWER: a 160. In experimental research, a study where neither the participants nor the researchers are aware of which participants are in the experimental group and which are in the control group is called a _____ study. a. correlational–causation b. placebo effect c. double-blind d. random assignment ANSWER: c 161. There are instances when a patient's condition may improve after receiving an injection simply because the patient has the expectation that the injection will be helpful, even though the injected solution actually contains no active ingredient. This is an example of the: a. black-or-white fallacy. b. expectancy effect. c. placebo effect. d. double-blind belief.

ANSWER: c 162. Dr. Su is conducting a study on a new antidepressant. Half of the participants are given the new drug and the other half are given a placebo. The participants are not told which treatment they receive, and neither are the nurses handing out the treatment, so that the nurses do not offer the participants any clues. As such, Dr. Su is using a _____ procedure to minimize the placebo effect. a. random selection b. double-blind c. confirmation d. limited exposure ANSWER: b 163. Dr. Suki was conducting a study on a new antidepressant. Half of the participants were given the new drug and the other half were given an inactive drug. Dr. Suki found that the group given the new antidepressant was reporting less depression, and the group given the inactive drug was also reporting less depression. That the .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice group given the inactive drug was also reporting less depression, MOST likely due to: a. a mistake. b. trickery. c. random assignment. d. the placebo effect.

ANSWER: d 164. Psychologists employ the _____ method when conducting research. a. scientific b. pseudopsychological c. random control d. naturalistic ANSWER: a 165. When scientists use an organized way to answer a question and follow a predetermined series of steps when they conduct research, they are using what is BEST known as: a. the scientific method. b. an experiment. c. a psychological approach. d. the descriptive research process.

ANSWER: a 166. _____ is the first step when following a predetermined series of steps to conduct research. a. Conducting a literature review b. Developing a hypothesis c. Testing the hypothesis d. Posing a question ANSWER: d 167. The steps of the scientific method follow a certain order. The correct order is: a. Conducting a literature review → Posing a question → Developing a hypothesis → Analyzing the data and drawing conclusions b. Posing a question → Developing a hypothesis → Collecting data → Drawing conclusions c. Posing a question → Conducting a literature review → Developing a hypothesis → Testing the hypothesis by collecting data → Analyzing the data and drawing conclusions d. Developing a hypothesis → Testing the hypothesis by collecting data → Posing a question → Conducting a literature review → Analyzing the data and drawing conclusions ANSWER: c 168. When a researcher wants to discover what other researchers have already learned about their topic, the researcher conducts a(n): a. operational review. .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice b. random assignment. c. literature review. d. hypothetical development.

ANSWER: c 169. When Dr. Rao decides they are going to do a study on the reasons for impulsivity in older adults, they decide to read what other researchers have previously studied and discovered. This is called a _____ review. a. research b. literature c. replication d. scientific ANSWER: b 170. A proposed explanation for observed events is called a: a. theory. b. review. c. idea. d. definition.

ANSWER: a 171. A prediction, typically based on a theory, that can be tested in a study is known as a(n): a. idea. b. definition. c. hypothesis. d. observation.

ANSWER: c 172. A specific, measurable definition of a variable for the purpose of a scientific study is known as a(n): a. idea definition. b. theory. c. hypothesis. d. operational definition.

ANSWER: d 173. Dr. Tasuna is conducting a study to see if stories that have conflict in the plot cause fear in young children.

Dr. Tasuna recruits 30 children to be in his study, and he has the parents of half of the children read them a story that has conflict in the plot. The other half of the children are read a book that summarizes different kinds of vehicles. Dr. Tasuna measures the heart rate of the children as an indication of fear. In this study, heart rate is: a. negatively correlated with fear. b. an independent variable. c. an operational definition of fear. .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice d. a confounded variable.

ANSWER: c 174. When conducting research, the whole range of people on which the research is focused is called the: a. participants. b. sample. c. population. d. patients.

ANSWER: c 175. In psychological research, the subset of the population that actually participates in the research is called the: a. people. b. trials. c. sample. d. testers.

ANSWER: c 176. In psychological research, the _____ consists of the individuals who actually participate in the research, whereas the _____ is the whole range of people on whom the research is focused. a. experimental group; control group b. sample; population c. independent selection; random sample d. dependent variable; independent variable ANSWER: b 177. A(n) _____ is when each person in the population has an equal chance of being chosen to participate in a research study. a. random sample b. strategic sample c. clinical trial d. organized population ANSWER: a 178. Dr. Petroff conducted a study with 300 third-grade students. She wanted to see if watching episodes of a certain educational TV show would increase the critical thinking levels of the students. In this study, what is the independent variable? a. fourth-grade students b. levels of critical thinking c. episodes of the TV show d. time of day ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 179. Restaurants often ask customers to go online and answer questions about their dining experiences and with their servers. This type of research is MOST likely a(n): a. experiment. b. survey. c. naturalistic observation. d. interview.

ANSWER: b 180. A student answering questions about herself, including her opinions, feelings, and experiences, is called a _____ format. a. self-report b. self-analysis c. self-esteem d. self-diagnosis ANSWER: a 181. In psychological research, a study whereby the experimenter collects data from multiple participants by watching them in the real-world location where their behavior happens typically is called: a. naturalistic observation. b. a case study. c. laboratory observation. d. experimental observation.

ANSWER: a 182. Sanjay wanted to study the behaviors of members of their university's cyber security team. In order to conduct this research, they decided to visit several meetings of the team and watch the members interact. This type of research would be considered: a. a case study. b. laboratory observation. c. naturalistic observation. d. experimental observation.

ANSWER: c 183. Dr. McShane studies the eating patterns of individuals who have undergone weight-loss surgery. These patients stay for two full days and nights at the hospital where they are allowed to eat as much or as little as they want, and Dr. McShane monitors what, when, and how much the patients eat. This is an example of a(n): a. naturalistic observation. b. case study. c. laboratory observation. d. exploratory observation.

ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 184. In-depth research in which the sample consists of just one person, or a small group, is called a(n): a. naturalistic observation. b. case study. c. laboratory observation. d. experimental observation.

ANSWER: b 185. When conducting research, the last step in the scientific method is: a. conducting the literature review. b. developing a hypothesis. c. analyzing the data and drawing conclusions. d. collecting the data to test the hypothesis.

ANSWER: c 186. _____ is when a researcher conducts a study again for the purpose of confirming or disconfirming the results a. Reverification b. Theory verification c. Reanalysis d. Replication ANSWER: d 187. In psychological research, replication means: a. finding mistakes in the collected data. b. revising the results of the study. c. conducting the study again. d. collecting more support from the literature.

ANSWER: c 188. The purpose of replication is to: a. modify one's thinking. b. add credibility to the results. c. publish the findings in a scientific journal. d. add variety to the study.

ANSWER: b 189. The process when a researcher's results are reviewed by people who are experts in the field is known as: a. critical thinking analysis. b. peer review appraisal. c. replication studies. .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice d. critical review appraisal.

ANSWER: b 190. After completing a 1-year-long research project, Dr. Singh is ready to make his research findings known to others. To determine whether Dr. Singh's research is worthy to be shared with the professional community, his next step would MOST likely involve the: a. peer review process. b. critical thinking analysis. c. hypothesis generation. d. critical appraisal.

ANSWER: a 191. Psychologists can share their research with the psychological community in two main outlets. They can present their research at a professional conference or they can: a. publish it on a website. b. write an article for a peer-reviewed journal. c. send out emails to psychologists and other professionals. d. present to academic classrooms.

ANSWER: b 192. Which statement about sharing research results is true? The peer review process: a. motivates researchers to produce high-quality studies. b. favors studies that are replication studies. c. attempts to discredit other psychologists. d. motivates researchers to use a statistical analysis.

ANSWER: a 193. Which statement about sharing results is true? a. To present at a professional conference, a psychologist just shows up and claims a spot. b. To present at a professional conference, a psychologist must submit a proposal in advance. c. If a psychologist has presented at a professional conference once, he cannot present again. d. To present at a professional conference, a psychologist's research needs not be evaluated.

ANSWER: b 194. Psychological research must be conducted ethically. This requirement comes from multiple sources, including the: a. psychologist conducting the research. b. American Psychological Association. c. peer review board. d. American Sociological Association.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice 195. The name of the organization at each university or research center that protects research participants from harm is called the: a. American Psychological Association. b. Psychologists' Union. c. Institutional Review Board. d. American Psychiatric Association.

ANSWER: c 196. In order for a researcher to get approval from an Institutional Review Board, the researcher must: a. have a hypothesis that has never been tested before. b. ensure that participants will not be harmed. c. have over 50 participants in the research study. d. create a double-blind study to conduct.

ANSWER: b 197. Researchers tell their possible participants enough about the study beforehand to enable them to make an educated decision about whether to participate. This is an ethical requirement called: a. debriefing. b. voluntary participation. c. involuntary participation. d. informed consent.

ANSWER: d 198. According to the American Psychological Association Code of Ethics, if a research participant becomes uncomfortable during the conduction of a study, that person: a. cannot do anything until the study is complete. b. withdraw without any penalty. c. withdraw but with a penalty. d. submit a request in order to withdraw.

ANSWER: b 199. Which statement about ethical standards in research is true? a. Researchers can force people to participate if the study is for the good of science. b. Researchers can fabricate data as long as it supports the main desired findings. c. Researchers must keep personally identifying information confidential. d. Researchers must pay the participants for their service.

ANSWER: c 200. _____ is when a researcher explains the real purpose of the study to the participants. a. Debriefing b. Informed consent .

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Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice c. Explanation process d. Consenting ANSWER: a 201. Which statement about the use of nonhuman animal subjects in ethical research is true? a. Nonhuman animals cannot be used for psychological research. b. If nonhuman animals are used as subjects, they have to be treated humanely. c. If nonhuman animals are used as subjects, it is no longer psychological research. d. There are no ethics for conducting research with nonhuman animals.

ANSWER: b 202. Dr. Yim wants to assess in which situations do people help and not help others. Her study involves having actors pretend to suddenly faint as they enter a classroom and observing if the participants who are bystanders will come to their aid. In this study, the ethical concern Dr. Yim should keep in mind relates to: a. peer review. b. fabrication. c. deception. d. explanation.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 2 - Essay 1. Describe how Phineas Gage's brain injury and Paul Broca's discovery of language deficits after a patient's stroke provide evidence that certain traits or abilities are localized to specific brain areas. Provide specific examples from each case study.

ANSWER: Phineas Gage was working on a railroad construction project and sustained a brain injury when an explosion sent a rod through the roof of his mouth and into his head. While he survived, his behavior changed dramatically; previously, he was very mild-mannered and responsible but, after the accident, he became hot-headed and impulsive. Paul Broca performed an autopsy on a patient who, after a stroke, could not speak fluently, and he found that the stroke had damaged a very specific part of the patient's left frontal lobe. Both of these behavior changes after brain injury suggest that these specific parts of the brain were necessary for certain behaviors or traits, and, in uninjured brains, control certain traits or behaviors.

2. What is a reflex? Define the roles of afferent and efferent neurons in a reflex. Provide an example to illustrate the roles.

ANSWER: A reflex is an automatic motor response to a sensory event. Information from the outside environment is received by and travels from afferent neurons to the central nervous system (e.g., pain from touching a hot stove). Once the information is processed in the central nervous system, an efferent neuron carries the command to move the body away from the stimulus (e.g., pull hand away from stove).

3. Detail the functions of a neuron's dendrites, axon, and axon terminals to describe how information is received and sent by a neuron. Also describe the space between neurons that the message must cross.

ANSWER: Information is received by the dendrites of a neuron. If this stimulates an action potential in that neuron, the message will be sent down the axon, which ends in the axon terminals. These terminals release neurotransmitters, the chemical messengers in the nervous system, that will be received by the next neuron in the communication chain. Neurotransmitters must cross the synapse to be received on receptor sites on the dendrites of the next neuron in line.

4. Explain how and why deterioration of the myelin sheath in multiple sclerosis would impact sensation and movement.

ANSWER: The myelin sheath is a fatty substance that helps electrical messages travel down a neuron's axon.

When it breaks down, the message may not reach the next neuron. If this happens between the central nervous system and motor neurons, that means a command from the brain to move will not reach the muscles. If this happens between sensory neurons, it means a message received from the outside world will not make it to the brain to be perceived.

5. Describe the process of reuptake. Give an example of how drugs that affect this process can be used in the treatment of disease.

ANSWER: Reuptake is the process through which a neurotransmitter that does not make it to receptor sites on the next neuron is returned to the neuron that released it. Drugs that block reuptake of certain neurotransmitters—mostly serotonin and norepinephrine—are often used in the treatment of depression. By allowing a neurotransmitter to remain in the synapse, rather than reuptake, the neurotransmitter is more likely to activate receptor sites on the next neuron.

6. What happens when a neuron at rest is stimulated to a level that reaches threshold? Can this process happen continuously? Why or why not? .

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Chapter 2 - Essay ANSWER: When a neuron's resting potential changes to the point that it reaches threshold, the neuron will fire an action potential. This cannot happen continuously because, after an action potential fires, the neuron enters a refractory period during which it cannot fire again until the resting potential resets.

7. Describe what it means that brain function is localized. Discuss the limitations of this localization.

ANSWER: Localization of brain function means that specific parts are specialized to perform certain behaviors.

Thus, a certain behavior may no longer happen if a certain part of the brain is damaged. However, this doesn't mean that a behavior or trait would still exist if the part of the brain specialized for it was the only part that was working.

8. Compare and contrast the locations and functions of the brainstem, thalamus, and cerebrum. Describe how this structural organization supports the notion that a larger proportion of brain material at the top and front of the head supports functions that make us "uniquely human."

ANSWER: The brainstem is at the very bottom of the brain, and it performs functions that are basic but necessary for survival. It contributes to primarily automatic and unconscious responses. The thalamus caps the brainstem and performs the somewhat more complex function of processing and relaying sensory information. This information is sent to final processing in the cerebrum, where higher-order thinking, planning, and decision making occurs. The cerebrum—especially the outermost cortex of the frontal lobe—supports executive function and are things that make us "uniquely human."

9. Name the three main parts of the limbic system and their main functions. What is similar about all their functions? Why are they considered a single system?

ANSWER: The three main parts of the limbic system are the hypothalamus, the hippocampus, and the amygdala. The hypothalamus maintains steadiness of bodily function. The hippocampus is important in memory. The amygdala is necessary for emotion, especially fear. All parts of the limbic system work together to motivate behavior and contribute to emotional responses.

10. Compare and contrast the dominant functions of the left versus the right hemispheres of the cerebrum. What part of the brain controls movement on the right side of the body, and what part of the brain processes things you see in your left visual field?

ANSWER: The right cerebral hemisphere is dominant for the recognition of objects and faces, whereas the left cerebral hemisphere is dominant for language tasks, such as word reading. The motor cortex in your left hemisphere would control movement of the right side of the body, whereas the occipital lobe of your right hemisphere processes information in your left visual field.

11. Why might a person have split-brain surgery, and what happens during this surgery? Give one example of a unique behavior that can occur after split-brain surgery.

ANSWER: Split-brain surgery may be used to treat severe epilepsy. Because electrical signals in the brain can get out of control as they move from cerebral hemisphere to hemisphere, cutting the corpus callosum can stop the onset of seizures. However, because the ability of one hemisphere to talk to the other is removed, a person's hands may act independently of one another. One example is that, after a person puts an item from the grocery into a shopping cart, the other hand will remove it without the person's awareness.

12. The cerebrum is divided into 4 lobes—name them and describe their primary functions. Additionally, state .

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Chapter 2 - Essay which lobe you would expect to find damage in if a person had difficulty producing speech and which lobe you would expect to find damage in if a person had difficulty understanding speech—explain why.

ANSWER: The frontal lobe contains the motor cortex and association areas responsible for initiating and planning voluntary movement. One of these frontal association areas, Broca's area, controls speech.

Damage to this area of the frontal lobe would result in difficulty producing speech. A large portion of the frontal lobe is also dedicated to executive function, like decision making. The parietal lobe contains the somatosensory cortex and association cortex involved in visual and auditory processing. The temporal lobe contains auditory cortex involved in hearing, as well as association areas involved in visual processing and long-term memory for verbal material. It also contains Wernicke's area, which, if damaged, results in a person's inability to understand speech as well as produce speech with meaning. The occipital lobe is involved in vision, and damage to it results in sight-related problems.

13. Where on the brain are the somatosensory cortex and the motor cortex located? How is the amount of brain material on them allocated? Explain and give an example.

ANSWER: The somatosensory cortex is located on the parietal lobes, and the motor cortex is located on the frontal lobes. Brain material amount is allocated not in proportion to how big the body part is, but rather to how sensitive the part is to a sensation or how delicate a movement it can execute. For example, the torso is bigger than the fingertips, but more brain material on the somatosensory cortex is allocated to the fingertips, which is why the fingertips are much more sensitive to touch than the torso.

14. Discuss the role of stem cells in neurogenesis and brain plasticity. Give one example of plasticity that can occur after brain damage.

ANSWER: Plasticity—the ability of the brain to change structure and function—often is assisted through the creation of new neurons through the process of neurogenesis. New neurons form from stem cells, which are undifferentiated cells that don't specialize until they are needed. In the case of brain damage, new neurons can be created to replace some (but not all) that have been lost.

15. Differentiate between the central and peripheral nervous systems in terms of composition and function.

Name and, using examples, describe the functions of the two parts of the peripheral nervous system.

ANSWER: The central nervous system is composed of the brain and the spinal cord, which receive messages from the rest of the body, process the information, and send replies in the form of motor commands back to the body. The peripheral nervous system consists of all the other neurons of the body, which receive the information from the outside environment, send it to the central nervous system, and execute the commands of the central nervous system. The peripheral nervous system can be further divided into the somatic and autonomic systems. The somatic system controls voluntary movement, like running a marathon, and the autonomic system controls involuntary behaviors, like stomach contractions during the digestion of food.

16. Name and describe the functions of the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Provide examples to illustrate the functions.

ANSWER: The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary movement and is composed of two divisions: the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. The sympathetic division is responsible for the fight-or-flight response and mobilizes the body to react to stress by doing things like stopping digestion, widening the pupils, and making a person sweat. Once the stressor is gone, the .

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Chapter 2 - Essay parasympathetic calms the person down and "resets" the body by doing things like resuming digestion, constricting the pupils, and stopping one from sweating.

17. You're in the library studying when someone two tables over suddenly shrieks in alarm. You jump out of your seat and turn to look at the person who shrieked. They apologize, embarrassed, and explain that they just got a paper cut and there is no emergency. You calm down and go back to studying. Name and explain the roles of the divisions of the autonomic nervous system in your responses.

ANSWER: The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for your startled jump and preparation to flee in response to an unexpected stressor (the shriek). This system mobilizes your "fight-or-flight" response. Once the person who shrieked explained what happened and you understood there was no emergency, the parasympathetic division of your nervous system took over to calm you down and allow you to return to studying.

18. Compare and contrast the type of signals used by the nervous and endocrine systems and how they differ in terms of speed.

ANSWER: Both the endocrine and nervous systems use chemicals to communicate. In the nervous system, neurons release neurotransmitters, which cross a synapse and bind to receptors on other neurons to continue the message. In the nervous system, glands release hormones into the bloodstream, and these impact many organs. Information sent via neurotransmitters is very fast, whereas hormones take a longer time to reach their destination.

19. Describe what electroencephalography measures, how it does it, and why it is well suited for assessing seizure-based disorders like epilepsy.

ANSWER: Electroencephalography measures differences in electrical activity between different parts of a person's brain via electrodes that are stuck to the scalp. Seizures are the result of disproportionate activity across the brain, and so EEG can detect and potentially diagnose such disorders.

20. Compare and contrast how computed tomography and positron emission tomography work to provide information about the brain. What type of information does each provide? Give an example of what each would be BEST used for.

ANSWER: Computed tomography works by taking multiple X-ray pictures of the brain from different angles to create a three-dimensional image of the brain. It does not provide any information about activity occurring in the brain, but rather provides a very detailed picture. This is helpful to localize damage, for example, after a stroke or to assess the size of a brain tumor. Positron emission tomography assesses how quickly certain parts of the brain use a radioactive sugar that is injected into the bloodstream. It does not provide as detailed a spatial picture as computed tomography, but it gives information on the activity of a brain area. This is helpful to see if blood flow is interrupted to a certain brain area and how drugs affect activity in the brain.

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 1. Phineas Gage's brain injury and the autopsy on Paul Broca's stroke patient provided evidence for the idea of: a. localization. b. association areas. c. phrenology. d. the nervous system.

ANSWER: a 2. After Phineas Gage's brain injury, his basic abilities remained intact but his _____ changed significantly. a. ability to form new memories b. ability to produce fluent speech c. personality characteristics d. coordination and balance ANSWER: c 3. Jorgen was in a motorcycle accident, which caused damage to their brain similar to the damage sustained by Phineas Gage. As a result, you would predict that Jorgen would MOST likely demonstrate changes in their: a. ability to move their limbs. b. personality characteristics. c. ability to learn new things. d. level of intelligence.

ANSWER: b 4. The brain area damaged in Phineas Gage's accident was MOST responsible for: a. decision making and managing emotion. b. storing new and recalling old memories. c. producing fluent and meaningful speech. d. allowing the production of movement.

ANSWER: a 5. Damage to _____ impairs a person's ability to speak. a. Broca's area b. the occipital cortex c. the hippocampus d. Gage's area ANSWER: a 6. Yvonne was involved in a horse-back riding accident that damaged the part of their brain called Broca's area.

This means that Yvonne will MOST likely have: a. difficulty speaking. b. significant personality changes. c. issues making new memories. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. decreased intelligence.

ANSWER: a 7. Broca's area is associated with the ability to: a. see. b. speak. c. hear. d. taste.

ANSWER: b 8. In your psychology class, you learned about the famous case in which railroad worker Phineas Gage sustained a severe head injury. An iron rod he was using hit blasting powder, causing the rod to shoot up and through his head. Phineas Gage survived with his basic abilities intact, although his personality underwent a profound change. Phineas Gage's case BEST illustrates the idea that: a. specific parts of the brain correspond to specific functions. b. the brain adapts its functioning in response to damage. c. new neurons are created after the brain has been damaged. d. damage to the brainstem can cause personality change.

ANSWER: a 9. Scientists who believe that specific parts of the brain are responsible for specific functions and abilities are supported in this belief by: a. the inability of split-brain surgery to treat severe epilepsy. b. Phineas Gage's change in personality after sustaining a severe head injury. c. the ability of the brain to adapt its structure or function in response to damage. d. the discovery that new neurons are created by the brain after injury.

ANSWER: b 10. In an abnormal psychology class, you had a guest speaker from a local rehabilitation center that specializes in patients with brain injuries. The speaker discussed the case of a patient who had a stroke and lost the ability to speak. However, all of this patient's other abilities remained entirely intact. It is MOST likely that the stroke damaged which part of the patient's brain? a. corpus callosum b. hypothalamus c. Broca's area d. Wernicke's area ANSWER: c 11. Dr. Tsoi is a neurologist who studies how the brain functions after damage. Dr. Tsoi is particularly interested in the part of the brain that affects a person's ability to speak after damage. The part of the brain Dr. Tsoi is interested in is: a. the corpus callosum. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice b. the hippocampus. c. Wernicke's area. d. Broca's area.

ANSWER: d 12. Your psychology instructor suggests that you first learn the microscopic activity of the brain. Which topic would fall in this category? a. the role of the amygdala in expressing emotion b. how the endocrine and nervous systems interact c. how neurons send and receive information d. how the hippocampus participates in memory ANSWER: c 13. A neuron is: a. a cell that facilitates communication. b. a chemical that is used for signaling. c. the gap between connecting cells. d. the substance that insulates the signaling portion of cells.

ANSWER: a 14. Cells that facilitate communication within the nervous system are called: a. dendrites. b. neurons. c. axons. d. action potentials.

ANSWER: b 15. _____ are the building blocks of the brain. a. Hormones b. Synapses c. Neurons d. Neurotransmitters ANSWER: c 16. A life form similar to animals on Earth was discovered on another planet. Unlike an Earth-based animal, this life form has no cells that facilitate communication within its nervous system. It can be assumed that this life form has no: a. hormones. b. neurons. c. glands. d. ability to communicate. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 17. In a recent study, scientists analyzed how the brain develops in people diagnosed with schizophrenia compared to people who have not been diagnosed with schizophrenia. The scientists were specifically interested in the development of _____, which are cells that are responsible for communication within the brain. a. neurons b. glia c. synapses d. axons ANSWER: a 18. Lknarf Industries is a large, multinational corporation with hundreds of employees. The employees of Lknarf Industries use an internal messaging system which allows them to communicate quickly, easily, and efficiently with one another. The company's approach to communication operates MOST similarly to the: a. nervous system. b. corpus callosum. c. cerebral hemispheres. d. endocrine system.

ANSWER: a 19. At a busy intersection, a police officer directs traffic. The movement of the cars is controlled by the police officer, who is responsible for communicating to drivers how to proceed. The role of the police officer is MOST similar to the role of _____ in brain functioning. a. plasticity b. neurons c. glands d. the endocrine system ANSWER: b 20. Your brain contains approximately _____ billion neurons. a. 1 b. 10 c. 100 d. 500 ANSWER: c 21. The majority of the neurons in your brain: a. receive sensory input. b. connect other neurons. c. send motor commands. d. facilitate reflexes.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 22. The role of interneurons is BEST described as: a. receiving sensory information. b. producing and secreting hormones. c. protecting other neurons in the area. d. connecting neurons to each other.

ANSWER: d 23. A neuron that connects only to nearby neurons is a(n): a. sensory neuron. b. interneuron. c. motor neuron. d. glial cell.

ANSWER: b 24. During football games, coaches use signs to communicate with players on the field. These signs would not be used to communicate with other coaches who are in a booth high above the field. The use of signs by coaches is similar to the use of _____ in the brain. a. hormones b. glial cells c. interneurons d. synapses ANSWER: c 25. When Richa smells dinner cooking, neurons send that information to their thalamus, where it is processed before traveling onward to their olfactory cortex and amygdala. This processing of information within Richa's thalamus is MOST likely due to the activity of: a. glial cells. b. interneurons. c. endocrine hormones. d. motor neurons.

ANSWER: b 26. Sensory neurons are also called: a. afferent neurons. b. interneurons. c. efferent neurons. d. motor neurons.

ANSWER: a 27. _____ send information to your brain from your senses. a. Efferent neurons .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice b. Motor neurons c. Afferent neurons d. Glial cells ANSWER: c 28. When Kureha heard thunder rumbling, neurons carried the information about the sound to their brain. This information was MOST likely carried by: a. afferent neurons. b. motor neurons. c. efferent neurons. d. glial cells.

ANSWER: a 29. When walking across your bedroom floor, you accidentally step on the bottle cap that you dropped earlier.

The pain you feel when this happens is sent to your brain by your: a. glial cells. b. efferent neurons. c. motor neurons. d. sensory neurons.

ANSWER: d 30. When walking across your bedroom floor, you accidentally step on the bottle cap that you dropped earlier.

You immediately lift your foot up and away from the source of pain. The command to move away when pain is felt is communicated to your muscles from your brain through: a. afferent neurons. b. glia cells. c. motor neurons. d. sensory neurons.

ANSWER: c 31. Motor neurons are also called: a. afferent neurons. b. interneurons. c. efferent neurons. d. sensory neurons.

ANSWER: c 32. _____ send information from your brain to your muscles. a. Sensory neurons b. Motor neurons c. Afferent neurons .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. Glial cells ANSWER: b 33. Supdeep pulled back the curtains of their dark room and bright sunlight streamed in, making Supdeep flinch and close their eyes. Their ability to close their eyes so quickly is MOST directly due to the activity of their: a. afferent neurons. b. glial cells. c. efferent neurons. d. sensory neurons.

ANSWER: c 34. Paula has multiple sclerosis, and she has trouble feeling the temperature and texture of any item she touches with her hands. Her inability to feel the things she touches suggests that the multiple sclerosis is MOST directly affecting her: a. glia cells. b. interneurons. c. efferent neurons. d. sensory neurons.

ANSWER: d 35. In amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (also known as Lou Gehrig's disease), the cells that send messages from the brain to muscles, also known as _____, begin to break down, resulting in progressive movement impairments. a. glial cells b. interneurons c. efferent neurons d. sensory neurons ANSWER: c 36. As you were riding to school with your roommate one day, a bobble-head doll your roommate had on the dashboard fell when the car stopped suddenly at a red light. Without thinking, you reached out and caught the bobble-head before it fell to the floorboard. You were able to catch the bobble-head by using your: a. motor neurons. b. glial cells. c. interneurons. d. sensory neurons.

ANSWER: a 37. _____ carry messages to your brain, whereas _____ carry messages from your brain. a. Sensory neurons; motor neurons b. Motor neurons; sensory neurons c. Interneurons; glial cells d. Glial cells; interneurons .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 38. A(n) _____ is an automatic motor response to sensory input. a. efferent movement b. afferent reaction c. action potential d. reflex ANSWER: d 39. When Jun Han's ophthalmologist shines a light in his eyes, Jun Han's pupil involuntarily contracts. The involuntary movement of Jun Han's pupil is a: a. spasm. b. contraction. c. neurotransmitter. d. reflex.

ANSWER: d 40. Which statement is true about reflexes? a. Reflexes take anywhere from a few seconds to a minute to begin. b. Reflexes are involuntary, automatic motor responses to sensory input. c. Reflexes are voluntary, controlled motor responses to sensory input. d. Reflexes are learned reactions to sensory stimuli.

ANSWER: b 41. The _____ is the part of the neuron that performs basic cellular activities. a. dendrite b. soma c. axon d. axon terminal ANSWER: b 42. The soma of a neuron: a. performs basic cellular activities. b. carries information toward other neurons. c. forms connections with the next neuron. d. receives information from a previous neuron.

ANSWER: a 43. The _____ is the central region of the neuron, and it performs the basic activities that keep the neuron functioning properly. a. axon .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice b. cell body c. myelin sheath d. synapse ANSWER: b 44. The cell body, or soma, of a neuron: a. performs basic activities that keep it functional. b. receives signals sent from other neurons. c. sends information to other neurons. d. supports and protects the neurons around it.

ANSWER: a 45. In your body, the digestive system absorbs food to provide the energy necessary for the basic functions that allow your body to function. The part of the neuron that corresponds BEST to the digestive system of your body is the: a. axon. b. cell body. c. myelin sheath. d. synapse.

ANSWER: b 46. In a car, the motor or engine provides the energy necessary for the basic functions that allow the car to be operated. The part of the neuron that corresponds BEST to a car motor or engine is the: a. axon. b. cell body. c. myelin sheath. d. synapse.

ANSWER: b 47. The _____ is the part of the neuron that carries information toward other neurons. a. cell body b. dendrite c. soma d. axon ANSWER: d 48. The axon of a neuron: a. performs basic activities that keep it functional. b. receives signals from other neurons. c. surrounds and protects other neurons near it. d. carries information toward other neurons. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 49. The small branches that form connections with the next neuron are called: a. dendrites. b. cell bodies. c. neurotransmitters. d. axon terminals.

ANSWER: d 50. The axon terminals of a neuron: a. perform basic cellular activities. b. surround and protect the neuron. c. form connections with the next neuron. d. receive information from another neuron.

ANSWER: c 51. Neurons send information via their _____ and receive information via their _____. a. axon terminals; dendrites b. dendrites; axon terminals c. synapse; dendrites d. dendrites; cell body ANSWER: a 52. Information being sent to other neurons travels along the _____ before reaching the _____, which form connections with the next neuron. a. dendrites; axon terminals b. axon; dendrites c. axon; axon terminals d. cell body; dendrites ANSWER: c 53. The myelin sheath of a neuron: a. speeds its communication. b. slows its communication. c. covers the dendrites and soma. d. restricts the reuptake process.

ANSWER: a 54. _____ cover(s) the axons of a neuron, helping messages travel quickly and efficiently. a. Dendrites b. Axon terminals .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. Receptors d. Myelin ANSWER: d 55. Multiple sclerosis breaks down a neuron's _____, which is a fatty material that surrounds a neuron's axon. a. synapse b. histamine c. threshold d. myelin ANSWER: d 56. Multiple sclerosis causes deterioration of a neuron's _____, which results in problems with movement and sensation. a. dendrites b. axon terminals c. myelin sheath d. neurotransmitters ANSWER: c 57. Shana has multiple sclerosis. This means that her neurons' _____ will deteriorate over time. a. dendrites b. axon terminals c. myelin d. neurotransmitters ANSWER: c 58. Danielle has a disease that decreases both incoming messages from the senses and her ability to move. She MOST likely has: a. multiple sclerosis. b. Broca's aphasia. c. anterograde amnesia. d. Wernicke's aphasia.

ANSWER: a 59. The main function of glial cells is to: a. break down a neuron's myelin sheath. b. receive and send information. c. support and protect neurons. d. release neurotransmitters.

ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 60. Which statement about glial cells is true? a. Glial cells create myelin sheaths. b. Glial cells send information to the next neuron. c. Glial cells release neurotransmitters. d. Glial cells produce action potentials.

ANSWER: a 61. The main role of the dendrites of a neuron is to: a. perform basic cellular activities. b. release neurotransmitters. c. form connections with the next neuron. d. receive information from other neurons.

ANSWER: d 62. _____ are branches at one end of a neuron that receive signals from other neurons. a. Axon terminals b. Synapses c. Dendrites d. Myelin sheaths ANSWER: c 63. Palomi sent an email to the hiring manager of a company she was seeking employment at to ask a question about qualifications for an open position. The hiring manager received Palomi's question in their email inbox.

The hiring manager's reception of the message from Palomi is MOST analogous to the role of the _____ of a neuron. a. synaptic vesicles b. myelin sheath c. dendrites d. axon terminals ANSWER: c 64. Your letter carrier delivers mail to the mailbox where you live. Your mailbox functions in the same way as the _____ of the neuron. a. synaptic vesicles b. soma c. dendrites d. axon terminals ANSWER: c 65. Neurotransmitters must travel across _____ to reach the next neuron. a. glial cells b. the synapse .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. receptor sites d. the soma ANSWER: b 66. A synapse is: a. a saclike container packed with neurotransmitters. b. a neurotransmitter receptor. c. the gap between neurons. d. a space between myelin on the axon.

ANSWER: c 67. Dr. Björke is characterizing a new species of flatworm. In this species, the axon terminals and the dendrites of the neurons communicate via direct contact. Unlike humans, these flatworms do not have _____ between its neurons. a. glial cells b. synapses c. glands d. axons ANSWER: b 68. _____ are the chemical messengers in the nervous system that travel across the synapses between neurons. a. Synaptic vesicles b. Action potentials c. Neurotransmitters d. Hormones ANSWER: c 69. Neurotransmitters are: a. cells that carry information to the brain. b. chemical messengers that travel across synapses from one neuron to the next. c. electrical impulses that cause a neuron to fire. d. chemical messengers sent throughout the body via the bloodstream.

ANSWER: b 70. Dr. Cochavi studies the effect of chemicals that allow one neuron to communicate to the next across the synapse between them. Dr. Cochavi MOST likely studies: a. synaptic vesicles. b. plasticity. c. neurotransmitters. d. hormones.

ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 71. Endorphins are: a. saclike containers for storing neurotransmitters. b. sites on dendrites at which neurotransmitters act. c. spaces that neurotransmitters must cross between neurons. d. chemical messengers involved in reducing pain and increasing pleasure.

ANSWER: d 72. Cevillia runs long-distance races, and, just when their muscles start hurting, they often feel "high" and in less pain. Cevillia's experience during running is MOST likely due to the release of: a. histamine. b. endorphins. c. GABA. d. glutamate.

ANSWER: b 73. Abdel's uncle was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease, which results in tremors and slow movement. The medicine Abdel's uncle takes increases his levels of _____, which is low in people with Parkinson's disease. a. dopamine b. GABA c. glutamate d. serotonin ANSWER: a 74. Which neurotransmitter is MOST involved in sleep? a. dopamine b. acetylcholine c. glutamate d. serotonin ANSWER: d 75. As individuals age, they need fewer hours of sleep. This is MOST likely due to changes in the levels of the neurotransmitter: a. dopamine. b. acetylcholine. c. glutamate. d. serotonin.

ANSWER: d 76. The neurotransmitter that is MOST involved in the fight-or-flight response is: a. dopamine. b. GABA. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. epinephrine. d. serotonin.

ANSWER: c 77. Bailey just went skydiving with her girlfriend. Bailey loved the experience, but her heart is pounding, and she feels shaky and breathless. The neurotransmitter that is MOST likely responsible for Bailey's physical response to skydiving is: a. GABA. b. acetylcholine. c. epinephrine. d. glutamate.

ANSWER: c 78. Scientists would MOST likely manipulate the signaling of _____ in order to make a mouse learn faster and remember better. a. GABA b. glutamate c. epinephrine d. serotonin ANSWER: b 79. When they are in social situations, Riaz feels really anxious to the point where it affects their functioning. If a psychiatrist prescribed Riaz a medication to help with their social anxiety, that medication would MOST likely have an impact on which neurotransmitter? a. dopamine b. GABA c. acetylcholine d. glutamate ANSWER: b 80. An _____ is a drug that enhances the impact of a neurotransmitter. a. efferent b. agonist c. afferent d. antagonist ANSWER: b 81. Parkinson's disease causes tremors and slow movement due to the brain's inability to produce enough dopamine. Thus, to treat Parkinson's, doctors would MOST likely prescribe a dopamine: a. efferent. b. agonist. c. afferent. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. antagonist.

ANSWER: b 82. Major depressive disorder is caused in part due to the brain's inability to maintain high enough levels of serotonin. Thus, to treat major depressive disorder, doctors would MOST likely prescribe a serotonin: a. efferent. b. agonist. c. afferent. d. antagonist.

ANSWER: b 83. A drug that interferes with the impact of a neurotransmitter is called an: a. efferent. b. agonist. c. afferent. d. antagonist.

ANSWER: d 84. Schizophrenia is partially caused by an overabundance of dopamine signaling in the brain. Thus, to treat schizophrenia, doctors would MOST likely prescribe a dopamine: a. efferent. b. agonist. c. afferent. d. antagonist.

ANSWER: d 85. Morphine is a drug that acts in the same way that the body's natural endorphins do. This suggests that morphine acts as an _____ for endorphin. a. efferent b. agonist c. afferent d. antagonist ANSWER: b 86. Narcan is a drug that can block heroin's ability to act on the body's natural endorphin system. This suggests that Narcan acts as an _____ for endorphin. a. efferent b. agonist c. afferent d. antagonist ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 87. The tiny, saclike containers containing neurotransmitters are called: a. receptor sites. b. synaptic vesicles. c. axon terminals. d. dendrites.

ANSWER: b 88. A synaptic vesicle is: a. a saclike container for neurotransmitters. b. an opening for neurotransmitters in dendrites. c. the space neurotransmitters must cross between neurons. d. a receptor site on dendrites for neurotransmitters.

ANSWER: a 89. Pills are often kept in plastic containers until they are used. A plastic container for pills is similar to a(n) _____ for neurotransmitters. a. synaptic vesicle b. myelin sheath c. axon terminal d. receptor ANSWER: a 90. A receptor site is: a. a saclike container for neurotransmitters. b. a spot where specific neurotransmitters bind on dendrites. c. the space neurotransmitters must cross between neurons. d. a space between the myelin on the axon.

ANSWER: b 91. _____ are locations on dendrites that match specific neurotransmitters. a. Receptor sites b. Synaptic vesicles c. Axon terminals d. Somas ANSWER: a 92. Neurotransmitter action at the next neuron is sometimes described as acting like a lock-and-key system, with neurotransmitters being the key and _____ being the lock. a. synaptic vesicles b. myelin sheaths c. axon terminals .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. receptor sites ANSWER: d 93. What is the correct order of neurotransmitter activity from one neuron to the next? a. axon terminal, synapse, receptor site b. axon terminal, receptor site, synapse c. synapse, axon terminal, receptor site d. receptor site, synapse, refractory period ANSWER: a 94. The process of reuptake: a. increases the amount of neurotransmitters in the synapse. b. aids in getting neurotransmitters to receptor sites. c. returns neurotransmitters to the neuron that released them. d. releases neurotransmitters into the synapse.

ANSWER: c 95. The process that occurs when a neurotransmitter is taken back up by the neuron that sent it is called: a. neurogenesis. b. reuptake. c. firing. d. refraction.

ANSWER: b 96. Reuptake is the: a. waiting time during which a neuron is reset. b. firing of an electrical impulse through the axon. c. reabsorption of a neurotransmitter by the neuron that released it. d. creation of new neurons by the brain after it has been damaged.

ANSWER: c 97. Selena baked cookies to celebrate her girlfriend's birthday. Selena had dough left over after filling the sheet, which she returned to the refrigerator. Returning the excess dough to the refrigerator is MOST similar to the _____ of a neuron. a. receptor site b. reuptake process c. action potential d. refractory period ANSWER: b 98. Which statement is true about the reuptake process? Reuptake: .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. occurs when neurotransmitters do not successfully release into the synapse. b. happens when neurotransmitters return to the sending neuron. c. is the process by which neurotransmitters attach to receptor sites. d. causes the firing of an electrical impulse that travels through the axon.

ANSWER: b 99. Some antidepressant drugs act by blocking the reuptake of serotonin. The result of these drugs is: a. a decrease in the amount of serotonin released. b. an increase in the amount of serotonin in the synapse. c. more serotonin available to act on glial cells. d. less serotonin to act on neuron receptor sites.

ANSWER: b 100. The firing of an electrical impulse that travels through the neuron's axon is called the: a. action potential. b. resting potential. c. refractory period. d. reuptake process.

ANSWER: a 101. A neuron's ability to communicate with the next neuron begins with the: a. action potential. b. pituitary gland. c. refractory period. d. reuptake process.

ANSWER: a 102. An action potential is the: a. chemical transmission of information between neurons. b. low-level electrical charge of an inactive neuron. c. firing of an electrical impulse in a neuron. d. waiting time during which a neuron resets.

ANSWER: c 103. Wendell wants to replace the light switches in their house. Currently, Wendell can only turn the lights all the way on or all the way off. Wendell plans to install switches that allow them to adjust the level of the lights instead of just turning the lights on or off. The way Wendell's current light switches operate is MOST similar to a neuron's: a. action potential. b. plasticity. c. refractory period. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. reuptake process.

ANSWER: a 104. The low-level electrical charge a neuron has when it is not firing is called the: a. action potential. b. resting potential. c. refractory period. d. reuptake process.

ANSWER: b 105. The resting potential of a neuron is defined as the: a. low-level electrical charge in a neuron when it is not firing. b. minimum level of electrical change necessary to fire a neuron. c. level of electrical charge present necessary to reset a neuron. d. electrical charge needed to begin the release of neurotransmitter.

ANSWER: a 106. Rashaad enjoys playing lacrosse. While playing, Rashaad uses a significant amount of energy. He uses much less energy when not playing, but some is required to keep him going throughout the day. Rashaad's energy level between lacrosse games is MOST similar to the _____ of a neuron. a. action potential b. resting potential c. refractory period d. reuptake process ANSWER: b 107. The threshold of a neuron is the: a. level of electrical charge required for a neuron to fire. b. low-level electrical charge of an inactive neuron. c. firing of an electrical impulse in a neuron. d. waiting time during which a neuron resets its charge.

ANSWER: a 108. When the _____ of a neuron is reached, an action potential is triggered. a. resting potential b. reuptake c. refractory period d. threshold ANSWER: d 109. When a person has a heart attack, doctors often use a defibrillator to deliver a jolt of electricity to the person's heart. After the defibrillator is used, a period of time is needed for it to recharge. The period of time a .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice defibrillator needs to recharge is MOST similar to the _____ of a neuron. a. action potential b. resting potential c. refractory period d. reuptake process ANSWER: c 110. When you flush a toilet, you must wait a period of time before the toilet can fully flush again. That waiting period is MOST similar to the _____ of a neuron. a. action potential b. resting potential c. refractory period d. reuptake process ANSWER: c 111. The _____ of a neuron is the time during which a neuron resets its electrical charge. a. resting potential b. threshold c. action potential d. refractory period ANSWER: d 112. What is the correct order of electrical activity of a neuron? a. resting potential, action potential, refractory period b. resting potential, refractory period, action potential c. refractory period, action potential, resting potential d. action potential, resting potential, refractory period ANSWER: a 113. Which statement about a neuron's electrical activity is true? a. The strength of an action potential depends on the strength of what triggered it. b. When neurons are not firing action potentials, they have no electrical charge. c. Neurons can fire multiple action potentials one immediately after the other. d. Each action potential is followed by a waiting period before another one can happen.

ANSWER: d 114. Which statement about how neurons develop and connect in different species is false? a. In humans, brain connections depend heavily on experience, especially early in life. b. In nonhuman animal species, many brain connections are established by birth. c. Compared to other animals, the human brain is overdeveloped at birth. d. Compared to other animals, human brains are more customizable. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 115. _____ is the idea that specific parts of the brain are responsible for specific behaviors or abilities. a. Plasticity b. Neurogenesis c. Localization d. Association ANSWER: c 116. Localization refers to the idea that _____ particular behaviors or abilities. a. specific parts of the brain are responsible for b. the lobes of the brain work together to perform c. the two hemispheres of the brain are primarily responsible for d. each lobe of the brain is solely responsible for ANSWER: a 117. Dr. Sengvoravong recently conducted a study in which they examined how the basal ganglia of people with motor dysfunction functioned as compared to people without motor dysfunction. Dr. Sengvoravong theorized that the basal ganglia is responsible for specific aspects of motor dysfunction. Dr. Sengvoravong's approach corresponds MOST closely to the concept of: a. localization. b. plasticity. c. reuptake. d. redundancy.

ANSWER: a 118. You work at a large factory that manufactures farm equipment. The factory has different areas responsible for manufacturing specific parts of the equipment. The way the different areas of the factory operate is MOST similar to the concept of brain: a. localization. b. plasticity. c. association. d. specialization.

ANSWER: a 119. Each app on your phone has a certain function—one takes pictures, another sends messages. The way the different apps on your phone operate is MOST similar to the concept of brain: a. localization. b. plasticity. c. association. d. specialization.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 120. Relatively speaking, the _____ of the human brain is (are) larger in humans than in other species. a. top and front b. brainstem c. top and back d. hindbrain ANSWER: a 121. Which statement about brain size across species is true? a. Human brains are bigger at the back and bottom than other species' brains. b. Humans have larger forebrains than other species. c. Reptiles have larger forebrains than birds and mammals. d. Species that evolved more recently have larger brainstems.

ANSWER: b 122. Which statement about the brain is false? a. The back and bottom control basic functions. b. The top and front control advanced functions. c. Specific parts of the brain are responsible for specific activities and behaviors. d. Some parts of the brain can function entirely independently from the rest of the brain.

ANSWER: d 123. Which statement about the brain is true? a. The back and bottom control advanced functions. b. The top and front control basic functions. c. Specific parts of the brain are responsible for specific activities and behaviors. d. Some parts of the brain can function entirely independently from the rest of the brain.

ANSWER: c 124. The main function of the brainstem is to: a. relay sensory information to other brain areas. b. regulate movement and control coordination. c. maintain basic functions necessary for life. d. facilitate motivation and emotion.

ANSWER: c 125. Which function is NOT controlled by the brainstem? a. breathing b. heartbeat c. memory d. swallowing .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 126. Which functions are NOT controlled by the brainstem? a. breathing and heartbeat b. attention and arousal c. deciding and planning d. sneezing and vomiting ANSWER: c 127. If a person sustains severe damage to their brainstem, which would be the MOST likely outcome? a. impaired memory b. death c. sensory processing deficits d. blindness ANSWER: b 128. Which is NOT a part of the brainstem? a. thalamus b. reticular activating system c. pons d. medulla ANSWER: a 129. During surgery, patients are often placed on machines to control their breathing and heartbeat. These machines function MOST similarly to which part of the brain? a. cerebellum b. brainstem c. corpus callosum d. limbic system ANSWER: b 130. The _____ is the collection of neurons in the brainstem that are involved in alertness, attention, sleep, and waking. a. reticular activating system b. limbic system c. hippocampus d. cerebellum ANSWER: a 131. Your professor is discussing the part of the brainstem that is involved in alertness, attention, sleep, and waking. Your professor is MOST likely discussing the: a. limbic system. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice b. hippocampus. c. cerebellum. d. reticular activating system.

ANSWER: d 132. Which part of the brainstem is MOST involved in arousal, alertness, and attention? a. thalamus b. reticular activating system c. pons d. medulla ANSWER: b 133. Isaiah sustained damage to his brainstem and now has difficulty staying alert and maintaining attention.

What part of Isaiah's brainstem was MOST likely injured? a. thalamus b. reticular activating system c. hippocampus d. medulla ANSWER: b 134. The _____ is the part of the brainstem involved in sleeping, breathing, and the maintenance of equilibrium. a. thalamus b. reticular activating system c. pons d. medulla ANSWER: c 135. Maya sustained damage to her brainstem and now has problems swallowing. What part of Maya's brainstem was MOST likely injured? a. thalamus b. reticular activating system c. pons d. hippocampus ANSWER: c 136. After a car accident, Sunil experienced problems swallowing. What part of the brain did Sunil's car accident MOST likely damage? a. thalamus b. reticular activating system c. pons d. hippocampus .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 137. The part of the brainstem primarily responsible for heartbeat and breathing is the: a. thalamus. b. reticular activating system. c. pons. d. medulla.

ANSWER: d 138. Amanti took a medication that slowed his breathing. The medication is MOST likely acting on his: a. cortex. b. cerebellum. c. hippocampus. d. medulla.

ANSWER: d 139. The part of the brainstem primarily responsible for heartbeat and breathing is the: a. thalamus. b. reticular activating system. c. pons. d. medulla.

ANSWER: d 140. Which two parts of the brain work together to control swallowing? a. thalamus and hypothalamus b. amygdala and hippocampus c. pons and medulla d. cortex and corpus callosum ANSWER: c 141. The main function of the _____ is to regulate movement and control coordination. a. amygdala b. hippocampus c. cerebellum d. brainstem ANSWER: c 142. The cerebellum is hypothesized to be involved in all these functions EXCEPT: a. balance. b. emotion. c. attention. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. memory.

ANSWER: b 143. The cerebellum is located near the _____ of the brain. a. front b. top c. base d. middle ANSWER: c 144. The _____ is involved in the regulation of movement. a. occipital lobe b. brainstem c. reticular activating system d. cerebellum ANSWER: d 145. Mallik sustained damage to his cerebellum. Mallik is MOST likely to have difficulty: a. using the correct amount of pressure to write without tearing his paper. b. producing coherent speech in response to a question. c. maintaining appropriate blood sugar levels throughout the day. d. being able to sleep continuously through the night.

ANSWER: a 146. After a stroke, Sakura's ability to walk without stumbling was impaired. The _____ is the area of the brain that was MOST likely damaged by Sakura's stroke. a. medulla b. cerebellum c. hippocampus d. amygdala ANSWER: b 147. Which statement about the cerebellum is false? The cerebellum: a. is located at the bottom and back of the brain. b. is necessary for muscle movements to start. c. may play a role in attention and memory. d. contains 50% of the brain's total neurons.

ANSWER: b 148. Saddiq is a top-level gymnast. As a gymnast, Saddiq has good balance and coordination of movement. The _____ is the area of Saddiq's brain MOST responsible for their balance and coordination. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. hippocampus b. pons c. cerebellum d. amygdala ANSWER: c 149. The _____ is the brain's main sensory processing center. a. limbic system b. thalamus c. cerebellum d. pons ANSWER: b 150. The thalamus is located _____ of the brain. a. in the middle b. at the top and front c. at the back and bottom d. at the front and bottom ANSWER: a 151. The main function of the thalamus is to: a. process sensory information. b. regulate movement coordination. c. maintain basic life functions. d. process motivation and emotion.

ANSWER: a 152. The _____ processes and relays sensory information. a. brainstem b. endocrine system c. limbic system d. thalamus ANSWER: d 153. Which is NOT true about the thalamus? The thalamus: a. works with the basal ganglia to help control movement. b. passes along sensory information to other brain areas. c. is located near the center of the brain. d. is one of the structures that make up the brainstem.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 154. Which statement is true about the thalamus? a. The thalamus is involved in motivation. b. The thalamus is involved in sensory processing. c. The thalamus surrounds the limbic system. d. The thalamus is part of the cerebrum.

ANSWER: b 155. If a person sustained damage to their thalamus, which ability would MOST likely be impaired? a. coordination and movement b. understanding and producing speech c. processing of sensory information d. regulating emotions ANSWER: c 156. Cade sustained a head injury that made it difficult for him to process information from the senses. The _____ is the part of Cade's brain MOST likely responsible for this difficulty. a. cerebellum b. hippocampus c. thalamus d. hypothalamus ANSWER: c 157. The _____ is a collection of brain areas found near the center of the brain that is involved primarily in emotion. a. limbic system b. reticular activating system c. endocrine system d. cerebrum ANSWER: a 158. The main function of the limbic system is to: a. pass along sensory information to other brain areas. b. regulate movement and control coordination. c. maintain basic functions necessary for life. d. facilitate motivation and emotion.

ANSWER: d 159. Which is NOT true about the limbic system? The limbic system: a. is surrounded by the thalamus. b. is involved in the production of emotion. c. initiates feelings of motivation. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. includes the amygdala.

ANSWER: a 160. Fathima sustained damage to her limbic system. She now has difficulty: a. walking in a straight line. b. producing speech. c. seeing red light. d. feeling motivated.

ANSWER: d 161. A type of zebrafish has been genetically engineered to have a limbic system that functions at a level below average. The zebrafish MOST likely have difficulty: a. swimming through a narrow tunnel. b. remembering the area of the tank where food is located. c. differentiating between hot and cold water. d. performing behaviors that require motivation.

ANSWER: d 162. Recently, one of your favorite artists released a new song. This song is about the happiness and sadness of two people who fell in love but eventually broke up. After taking an introductory psychology course, you know that the feelings described in the song are MOST likely regulated by the: a. cerebellum. b. thalamus. c. limbic system. d. reticular activating system.

ANSWER: c 163. Which of these is NOT part of the limbic system? a. amygdala b. hippocampus c. medulla d. hypothalamus ANSWER: c 164. What is the main function of the hypothalamus? a. maintenance of homeostasis b. formation and storage of memory c. relay of sensory information d. initiation of movement ANSWER: a 165. A brain aneurysm sustained by Saben damaged his hypothalamus. He is now MOST likely unable to: .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. form new memories. b. regulate his feelings of hunger. c. feel emotions, especially fear. d. make coordinated movements.

ANSWER: b 166. The hypothalamus: a. is controlled by the pituitary gland. b. influences the autonomic nervous system. c. regulates breathing and movement. d. controls development of new memories.

ANSWER: b 167. The hypothalamus achieves steadiness in bodily functions by directly regulating the activity of the: a. pituitary gland and autonomic nervous system. b. reticular activating system and brainstem. c. cortical hemispheres and corpus callosum. d. rest of the limbic system and thalamus.

ANSWER: a 168. In his research studies on eating behavior, Dr. Olynyk uses a genetically engineered mouse model that do not seek food when hungry or stop eating even when they are full. Dr. Olynyk is MOST likely interested in study the behaviors regulated by the: a. cerebellum. b. medulla. c. hypothalamus. d. hippocampus.

ANSWER: c 169. The _____ is the part of the limbic system involved in memory, especially spatial memory and long-term memory. a. hypothalamus b. amygdala c. hippocampus d. thalamus ANSWER: c 170. Jamorko had a head injury that damaged his hippocampus. Jamorko MOST likely now has difficulty: a. localizing sounds. b. forming new memories. c. controlling eye movements. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. feeling full after eating.

ANSWER: b 171. Severe damage to the hippocampus may result in: a. anterograde amnesia. b. Broca's aphasia. c. personality change. d. blindness.

ANSWER: a 172. Caris recently sustained a head injury during a boating accident. Although Caris can remember events that happened before their accident, they cannot form new memories. Caris MOST likely has: a. Wernicke's aphasia. b. Broca's aphasia. c. anterograde amnesia. d. receptive aphasia.

ANSWER: c 173. Which statement about the hippocampus is false? a. The hippocampus can be damaged by high levels of stress and the hormone cortisol. b. The hippocampus allows short-term memory to be stored as long-term memory. c. Damage to the hippocampus can result in inability to recall past events. d. The hippocampus is especially important for your memory of physical spaces.

ANSWER: c 174. You are at a furniture store shopping for a new couch. You really like one couch in particular and can picture exactly where in your house it will go best. To do this, you are using a mental map of your house's layout. The part of the brain that you MOST relied upon to create this mental map in your memory is the: a. cerebellum. b. medulla. c. hypothalamus. d. hippocampus.

ANSWER: d 175. Dr. Lopez works with people who are unable to form new long-term memories. Dr. Lopez is MOST likely studying the: a. cerebellum. b. thalamus. c. hypothalamus. d. hippocampus.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 176. The _____ is the part of the limbic system involved most directly in emotion, especially fear. a. hippocampus b. hypothalamus c. amygdala d. thalamus ANSWER: c 177. _____ is almost exclusively controlled by the amygdala. a. Joy b. Fear c. Disgust d. Sadness ANSWER: b 178. Cedi sustained damage to his amygdala after being thrown from a horse. Cedi would MOST likely have difficulty: a. regulating negative emotions. b. forming new memories. c. interpreting written information. d. understanding speech.

ANSWER: a 179. The function of the amygdala can BEST be described as: a. converting short-term to long-term memories. b. direct involvement in emotion, especially fear. c. turning off the fight-or-flight response. d. relaying sensory information to the rest of the brain.

ANSWER: b 180. Dr. Okoro tests if people are able to recognize when a person in a picture has a fearful facial expression.

Dr. Okoro is MOST likely studying people who have sustained damage to their: a. cerebellum. b. amygdala. c. thalamus. d. hippocampus.

ANSWER: b 181. The front and upper part of the brain that is made up of two hemispheres and is involved in complex human abilities is the: a. cerebrum. b. brainstem. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. corpus callosum. d. hippocampus.

ANSWER: a 182. The cerebrum is also known as the: a. forebrain. b. brainstem. c. corpus callosum. d. limbic system.

ANSWER: a 183. The cerebrum is the: a. bundle of neurons that connects the two cerebral hemispheres. b. front and upper part of the brain involved in complex human abilities. c. brain material devoted to synthesizing and interpreting information. d. part of the limbic system involved most directly in emotion.

ANSWER: b 184. Fiona's dog, Buddy, always lays under the dinner table when Fiona is eating there. Buddy has learned that Fiona tends to drop food and lets Buddy eat it off the ground. Although Fiona thinks that Buddy is very clever, she knows that Buddy is less able to think, plan, and reason than a human because: a. dogs only have one cerebral hemisphere. b. humans have larger cerebrums than dogs. c. humans have larger brainstems than dogs. d. dogs do not have a forebrain.

ANSWER: b 185. The cerebral cortex is where: a. sensory information is processed. b. memories are formed and stored. c. basic vital functions are maintained. d. emotion and motivation are initiated.

ANSWER: a 186. The cerebrum is divided into two: a. lobes. b. hemispheres. c. association areas. d. cortices.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 187. Eloise is studying in the library with Calvin. Calvin asks Eloise to hand him a pencil. Eloise picks up the pencil and hands it to Calvin with her right hand. The use of Eloise's right hand to complete these actions is controlled by the _____ of her brain. a. parietal lobe b. right hemisphere c. left hemisphere d. limbic system ANSWER: c 188. Beckett is on their university's baseball team. Beckett always uses their left hand to throw the baseball.

Beckett's use of their left hand to throw the ball is controlled by the _____ of Beckett's brain. a. temporal lobe b. right hemisphere c. left hemisphere d. parietal lobe ANSWER: b 189. Matteo is a physical therapist. One of his patients has weakness on the left side of their body after having a stroke. The patient's stroke MOST likely occurred in the patient's: a. brainstem. b. left hemisphere. c. right hemisphere. d. parietal lobe.

ANSWER: c 190. Which statement BEST represents how the cerebral hemispheres operate? The _____ side of the brain controls the _____. a. left; right arm and left leg b. left; left arm and left leg c. right; right arm and left leg d. right; left arm and left leg ANSWER: d 191. _____ is a task dominated by the right hemisphere. a. Reading written words b. Moving the body's right side c. Recognition of faces d. Seeing objects in one's right field of view ANSWER: c 192. The left hemisphere of the brain is dominant in the task of: a. reading written words. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice b. moving the body's left side. c. recognizing faces and objects. d. seeing objects focusing on the left.

ANSWER: a 193. The role of the corpus callosum is BEST described as: a. synthesizing and interpreting information from the senses. b. connecting and allowing communication between the cerebral hemispheres. c. initiating and regulating emotions, especially fear. d. forming and storing spatial and long-term memories.

ANSWER: b 194. The _____ connects and facilitates communication between the two cerebral hemispheres. a. hypothalamus b. hippocampus c. frontal lobe d. corpus callosum ANSWER: d 195. At work, you are responsible for assigning tasks needed to complete various projects your company is handling. When choosing who to assign to a task, you have to consider how the task should be completed in relation to the overall project goal. To assign responsibility, you are using the left and right hemispheres of your brain, which communicate via the: a. cerebral cortex. b. parietal lobe. c. association areas. d. corpus callosum.

ANSWER: d 196. Which brain structure is cut during split-brain surgery? a. corpus callosum b. hypothalamus c. brainstem d. amygdala ANSWER: a 197. Split-brain surgery is typically used as a last-resort effort to treat: a. paralysis. b. aphasia. c. epilepsy. d. amnesia. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 198. A person who has medication-resistant epilepsy may have surgery on their _____ to reduce the number and severity of their seizures. a. corpus callosum b. frontal lobe c. cerebellum d. cerebral cortex ANSWER: a 199. When she was very young, Harlow had brain surgery to reduce the severity and number of epileptic seizures she was having. It is MOST likely that the _____ is the structure of Harlow's brain that was operated on. a. corpus callosum b. thalamus c. brainstem d. cerebral cortex ANSWER: a 200. Destiny had split-brain surgery as a teenager. She is now participating in an experiment where she looks at a dot on a screen and words are flashed either to the right or left of the dot. Destiny is asked to report what word she saw. Which statement MOST likely accurately represents her response? When a word is flashed to: a. the right of the dot, Destiny can verbally report the word. b. the left of the dot, Destiny can verbally report the word. c. either the right or the left of the dot, Destiny cannot verbally report the word. d. either the right or the left of the dot, Destiny can verbally report the word.

ANSWER: a 201. The _____ lobe of the brain is MOST responsible for vision. a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital ANSWER: d 202. Which of these would be MOST likely to result from damage to the occipital lobe of the brain? a. complete blindness b. auditory hallucinations c. incoherent speech d. difficulty feeling texture ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 203. Kaden has a brain tumor. Because of the location of the tumor, Kaden has difficulty seeing certain colors and movements. Kaden's tumor is MOST likely located on his _____ lobe. a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital ANSWER: d 204. The _____ lobe of the brain contains the area MOST responsible for understanding speech. a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital ANSWER: c 205. The area of the brain MOST responsible for understanding speech is: a. Broca's area. b. Wernicke's area. c. the occipital lobe. d. the parietal lobe.

ANSWER: b 206. When she was a toddler, Tallulah had a very high fever that damaged parts of her brain. Since then, Tallulah has had difficulty understanding speech. This suggests that the damage to Tallulah's brain MOST likely included damage to the _____ lobe. a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital ANSWER: c 207. Tiana was in an accident that damaged part of her brain. Since the accident, Tiana has had difficulty with her perception of sound. Tiana's accident MOST likely affected her _____ lobe. a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital ANSWER: c 208. Impairment in the ability to understand speech is called: a. Wernicke's aphasia. b. Broca's aphasia. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. anterograde amnesia. d. expressive aphasia.

ANSWER: a 209. Leopold often cannot understand what other people are saying and, although he can speak, his sentences often make little sense. Leopold most likely has _____ aphasia. a. Wernicke's b. Broca's c. receptive d. anterograde ANSWER: a 210. Which of these would MOST likely result from damage to the temporal lobe of the brain? a. complete blindness b. visual hallucinations c. incoherent speech d. difficulty moving ANSWER: c 211. Which is NOT a function of the temporal lobe of the brain? a. hearing b. speech c. memory d. decision making ANSWER: d 212. Dr. Ogden works at a Veterans Administration hospital with veterans who have sustained brain injuries.

One of the veterans Dr. Ogden worked with developed problems with processing feelings of pain and temperature. The area of the brain MOST likely damaged was the _____ lobe. a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital ANSWER: b 213. _____ is a cortical brain area located on the parietal lobe that receives information about contact, pressure, pain, temperature, and itching. a. Wernicke's area b. The motor cortex c. The somatosensory cortex d. Broca's area .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 214. The _____ of the body part does NOT match the amount of space it takes up on somatosensory cortex; instead, each spot corresponds to the _____ of that part of your body. a. size; sensitivity b. sensitivity; size c. location; size d. sensitivity; location ANSWER: a 215. Which animal's body part would MOST likely have the proportionally largest amount of somatosensory cortex devoted to it? a. horse's back b. camel's hump c. rat's whisker d. elephant's leg ANSWER: c 216. The _____ lobe of the brain is responsible for complex thinking tasks, planning, purposeful actions, and other advanced functions. a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital ANSWER: a 217. Which is NOT a function of the frontal lobe of the brain? a. producing movement b. executive control c. storing memory d. making decisions ANSWER: c 218. Which is an example of executive function under the control of the frontal lobe? a. feeling temperature b. regulating hunger c. forming memories d. making decisions ANSWER: d 219. The _____ lobe of the brain contains the motor cortex, which is responsible for initiating voluntary movement. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital ANSWER: a 220. _____ is a strip of brain matter in the frontal lobe that is involved in voluntary movement. a. The motor cortex b. Wernicke's area c. The somatosensory cortex d. Broca's area ANSWER: a 221. Ryder plays football for his university's team. During practice, a teammate tackled Ryder in a way that caused damage to Ryder's brain. For several months after the incident, Ryder had significant trouble with problem solving, weighing multiple solutions, and forming strategies. Fortunately, Ryder recovered most of his functioning, although he still has minor trouble with these skills. It is MOST likely that Ryder's _____ lobe sustained damage. a. frontal b. parietal c. visual d. occipital ANSWER: a 222. Someone who is unable to produce speech MOST likely has: a. multiple sclerosis. b. Broca's aphasia. c. anterograde amnesia. d. receptive aphasia.

ANSWER: b 223. When Cora tries to speak, she has trouble getting out the words needed to express her thoughts. Cora MOST likely has: a. a split brain. b. Broca's aphasia. c. anterograde amnesia. d. receptive aphasia.

ANSWER: b 224. Which statement is NOT true about the frontal lobe? The frontal lobe contains: a. the motor cortex. b. the somatosensory cortex. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. the areas necessary for executive function. d. Broca's area.

ANSWER: b 225. _____ is responsible for understanding speech, whereas _____ is responsible for producing speech. a. The somatosensory cortex; the motor cortex b. The frontal lobe; the temporal lobe c. Wernicke's area; Broca's area d. Broca's area; Wernicke's area ANSWER: c 226. The area of the brain that receives information from parts of the body is _____ and the area that sends information to parts of the body is _____. a. the frontal lobe; the temporal lobe b. Wernicke's area; Broca's area c. the motor cortex; the somatosensory cortex d. the somatosensory cortex; the motor cortex ANSWER: d 227. An association area is BEST described as: a. the bundle of neurons that connects the two cerebral hemispheres. b. the front and upper part of the brain involved in complex human abilities. c. brain material devoted to synthesizing and interpreting information. d. the part of the limbic system involved most directly in emotion.

ANSWER: c 228. Association areas in the brain are responsible for: a. taking in sensory information. b. initiating motor movements. c. synthesizing and interpreting. d. maintaining arousal and attention.

ANSWER: c 229. Association areas are found in the: a. cerebrum. b. brainstem. c. limbic system. d. cerebellum.

ANSWER: a 230. Which statement about association areas is false? Association areas: .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. are where information is integrated. b. do more than just take in information. c. process individual bits of information. d. are spread across the cerebrum.

ANSWER: c 231. Which statement about association areas is true? Association areas: a. break down information into individual components. b. send individual components of information. c. synthesize the meaning of information. d. are spread across the brainstem and thalamus.

ANSWER: c 232. A part of the brain that is devoted to both synthesizing and assigning meaning to information is: a. an association area. b. the somatosensory cortex. c. the reticular activating system. d. Broca's area.

ANSWER: a 233. Which function would be performed by an association area? a. perceiving the sound that a baby is crying b. moving your head away from an oncoming ball c. feeling hungry after going a day without food d. understanding to pick up the phone when it rings ANSWER: d 234. The ability of the brain to adapt its structure and function in response to damage or experience is called: a. reuptake. b. plasticity. c. aphasia. d. localization.

ANSWER: b 235. Plasticity is the ability of the brain to: a. adapt its structure and function in response to damage or experience. b. recycle neurotransmitters back to the neuron that released it. c. synthesize and interpret information rather than merely take it in. d. send information from one neuron to the next in line.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 236. Which statement about plasticity is false? Plasticity: a. occurs exclusively in the frontal cortex. b. occurs more in young people. c. is an adaptation of structure and function. d. involves neurogenesis.

ANSWER: a 237. Neurogenesis is the: a. creation of new neurons. b. crossing of the synapse by neurotransmitters. c. revision of the purpose of existing neurons. d. result of damage to Wernicke's area.

ANSWER: a 238. _____ is the creation of new neurons. a. Reuptake b. Localization c. Neurogenesis d. Specialization ANSWER: c 239. New evidence suggests that adults as well as children undergo _____, which is the creation of new neurons. a. reuptake b. split-brain surgery c. neurogenesis d. plasticity ANSWER: c 240. Stem cells are: a. unspecialized cells. b. cells created during neurogenesis. c. cells damaged by strokes. d. specialized cells.

ANSWER: a 241. Cells that do not yet have a specialized structure or function are: a. glial cells. b. interneurons. c. stem cells. d. brain cells. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 242. Sydney is a sculptor whose medium is clay. When starting a project, Sydney uses a lump of clay that can be molded into any type of shape she wants. What the lump of clay eventually becomes is based on what Sydney needs to make for her customers. The lump of clay Sydney uses is MOST similar in function to: a. glial cells. b. interneurons. c. stem cells. d. efferent neurons.

ANSWER: c 243. Which is NOT an example of plasticity? a. a larger than usual amount of the somatosensory cortex dedicated to the hands and fingers in a person with a visual disability b. a larger than usual amount of the motor cortex dedicated to the forelimbs of rats without whiskers c. increased motivation by the limbic system to seek food when a person is hungry d. change in the limbic system of a person with a phobia after undergoing psychotherapy ANSWER: c 244. While fixing the electrical system in his house, Bruce accidentally shocked himself. This caused him to fall and hit his head. When he fell, Bruce sustained permanent damage to parts of his brain. Over time, other areas of Bruce's brain partially took over the function of the damaged areas. This is an example of the concept of: a. split-brain function. b. plasticity. c. localization. d. myelination.

ANSWER: b 245. Gerrie was in an accident that damaged her visual cortex and left her blind. What type of plasticity would MOST likely happen to help Gerrie recover function? a. The amount of somatosensory cortex dedicated to her Braille-reading finger would increase. b. The size of her hippocampus, occipital lobe, and prefrontal cortex would decrease. c. The amount of somatosensory cortex dedicated to her Braille-reading finger would decrease. d. The size of her hippocampus, occipital lobe, and prefrontal cortex would increase.

ANSWER: a 246. The _____ consists of the full set of structures including the brain and the nerves that connect the brain with all other parts of the body. a. corpus callosum b. nervous system c. glial system d. cerebral cortex .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 247. The nervous system is BEST defined as the nerves that: a. connect the brain to the parts of the body controlled voluntarily. b. stimulate the body in response to stressors. c. include the brain and connect it with all other parts of the body. d. calm the body after exposure to stressors.

ANSWER: c 248. At a local hospital, all patients with cardiac issues are housed on one floor of the hospital. On this floor is a nurses' station, which is connected to each patient room. From their station, the nurses can send and receive messages from patients as well as control the equipment in the patients' rooms. The nurses' station on this floor and its connections to the patients' rooms would be MOST comparable to which part of the human body? a. corpus callosum b. nervous system c. glial cells d. cerebral cortex ANSWER: b 249. The nervous system: a. connects your brain and all parts of your body. b. controls only voluntary movement. c. regulates only involuntary movement. d. uses hormones instead of neurotransmitters.

ANSWER: a 250. Which statement about the nervous system is NOT true? The nervous system: a. connects your brain and all parts of your body. b. is made up of neurons. c. sends and receives messages from all over your body. d. sends hormones through the body.

ANSWER: d 251. The _____ nervous system is made up of the brain and the spinal cord. a. central b. peripheral c. autonomic d. parasympathetic ANSWER: a 252. The central nervous system: a. regulates only the parts of the body controlled involuntarily. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice b. is made up of the brain and the spinal cord. c. regulates only the parts of the body controlled voluntarily. d. stimulates the body in response to stressors.

ANSWER: b 253. In the early days of the telephone, all calls were routed through a switchboard. The switchboard was controlled by an operator. The operator connected the incoming calls to their intended location via telephone wires. The part of the body that operates MOST similarly to a telephone switchboard operator is the: a. brainstem. b. corpus callosum. c. peripheral nervous system. d. central nervous system.

ANSWER: d 254. A researcher who studies how communication is controlled by the brain and the spinal cord is focusing on the _____ nervous system. a. central b. peripheral c. autonomic d. somatic ANSWER: a 255. The _____ is made up of the neurons that connect the central nervous system to other parts of the body. a. central nervous system b. peripheral nervous system c. reticular activating system d. endocrine system ANSWER: b 256. The peripheral nervous system: a. is activated only when the body is under stress. b. regulates only the parts of the body controlled involuntarily. c. regulates only the parts of the body controlled voluntarily. d. connects the central nervous system to other parts of the body.

ANSWER: d 257. The _____ connects the central nervous system to the parts of the body that are under voluntary or involuntary control. a. endocrine system b. peripheral nervous system c. reticular activating system .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. endocrine system ANSWER: b 258. The _____ nervous system connects the central nervous system to the parts of the body that are controlled voluntarily. a. somatic b. autonomic c. parasympathetic d. sympathetic ANSWER: a 259. The somatic nervous system: a. connects the central nervous system to the parts of the body that are controlled voluntarily. b. connects the central nervous system to the parts of the body that are controlled involuntarily. c. consists of the brain and the spinal cord. d. calms the body down when stressors decrease.

ANSWER: a 260. Giving someone a high-five would be controlled by the _____ system. a. somatic nervous b. autonomic nervous c. endocrine d. sympathetic nervous ANSWER: a 261. Dr. Yakan is an athletic trainer. He is interested in improving the performance of elite baseball pitchers.

Dr. Yakan helps players to improve their curveball and fastball. Dr. Yakan is concentrating on the athletes' actions that are controlled by the: a. autonomic nervous system. b. endocrine system. c. parasympathetic division. d. somatic nervous system.

ANSWER: d 262. The autonomic nervous system: a. connects the central nervous system to the parts of the body that are controlled voluntarily. b. connects the central nervous system to the parts of the body that are controlled involuntarily. c. consists of the brain and the spinal cord. d. regulates all communication with the brain.

ANSWER: b 263. Which statement about the autonomic nervous system is false? The autonomic nervous system: .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. is part of the peripheral nervous system. b. is separated into two divisions. c. includes the brain and spinal cord. d. controls involuntary movement.

ANSWER: c 264. Which of these is NOT controlled by the autonomic nervous system? a. hiccupping b. walking c. sneezing d. breathing ANSWER: b 265. Dr. LeVert is the physician for a college volleyball team. Before members of the team are cleared to play, Dr. LeVert conducts a physical examination. Part of Dr. LeVert's examination involves checking players' heartbeat, pulse, and blood pressure, which are controlled by the _____ nervous system. a. autonomic b. central c. glial d. somatic ANSWER: a 266. The autonomic nervous system is responsible for _____, whereas the somatic nervous system is responsible for _____. a. stimulating the body in response to stressors; calming the body when stressors decrease b. voluntary movement; involuntary functions c. involuntary functions; voluntary movement d. calming the body when stressors decrease; stimulating the body in response to stressors ANSWER: c 267. The _____ is the part of the autonomic nervous system that stimulates the body in response to stressors. a. somatic nervous system b. sympathetic division c. parasympathetic division d. central nervous system ANSWER: b 268. You jump involuntarily in response to a sudden loud noise. This is controlled by the: a. endocrine system. b. cerebral cortex. c. parasympathetic division. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. sympathetic division.

ANSWER: d 269. After you eat, your body works to digest your food. The part of the nervous system that is MOST responsible for your digestion is the: a. sympathetic division. b. central nervous system. c. parasympathetic division. d. somatic nervous system.

ANSWER: c 270. You are sitting in the cafeteria texting when a classmate unexpectedly taps your shoulder. This startles you and causes you to jump, although you quickly calm down when you see who it is. Which of your behaviors is the result of activation of the sympathetic division of your autonomic nervous system? a. sitting b. texting c. jumping d. calming down ANSWER: c 271. A seagull swoops down as you walk across the beach, nearly colliding with your head. This causes your heart and breathing rates to increase, which are controlled by the _____ division of your autonomic nervous system. a. somatic b. glial c. sympathetic d. parasympathetic ANSWER: c 272. The _____ is the part of the autonomic nervous system that calms the body once a stressor has been removed. a. somatic nervous system b. sympathetic division c. parasympathetic division d. central nervous system ANSWER: c 273. You are sitting in the cafeteria texting when a classmate unexpectedly taps your shoulder. This startles you and causes you to jump although you quickly calm down when you see who it is. Which of your behaviors is the result of activation of the parasympathetic division of your autonomic nervous system? a. sitting b. texting .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. jumping d. calming down ANSWER: d 274. When you were crossing the road to get to class, a car turns in front of you unexpectedly. At first you were startled, but then became calm when the car went by without hitting you. The _____ division of your autonomic nervous system was responsible for you calming down. a. somatic b. sympathetic c. parasympathetic d. central ANSWER: c 275. You just came home after a long day in class and put your feet up on the couch. Soon, your heart and breathing rates decreased. Which division of your autonomic nervous system was MOST active while you relaxed? a. peripheral b. central c. sympathetic d. parasympathetic ANSWER: d 276. Which is a response that results from activation of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? a. pupils widening b. digesting food c. heart rate increasing d. sweating ANSWER: b 277. Dr. Drogoti studies the sympathetic nervous system. Which type of response is he MOST likely to be interested in? a. sweating b. seeing c. speaking d. deciding ANSWER: a 278. The _____ is made up of the glands that produce and release hormones into the bloodstream where they can travel to affect many parts of the body. a. central nervous system b. somatic nervous system .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice c. peripheral nervous system d. endocrine system ANSWER: d 279. The endocrine system: a. sends hormones throughout the body. b. breaks down into the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions. c. specifically controls voluntary movement. d. consists of the brain and spinal cord.

ANSWER: a 280. Which statement about the endocrine system is NOT true? The endocrine system: a. is made up of many glands. b. sends hormones through the blood. c. operates as quickly as the nervous system. d. influences sexual development.

ANSWER: c 281. The chemicals made by the glands of the endocrine system are called: a. neurotransmitters. b. hormones. c. agonists. d. antagonists.

ANSWER: b 282. Hormones are: a. signaling chemicals made by the endocrine system. b. what neurotransmitters are called after reuptake. c. synonymous with action potentials. d. support materials made by glial cells.

ANSWER: a 283. Lamar sent a birthday party invitation through the mail to their friend Dylan, and it took 5 days to reach him. When he received the invitation, Dylan e-mailed Lamar to say he would attend their party. Lamar received the e-mail almost immediately after Dylan sent it. In this example, Lamar's approach to communication is similar to the _____ and Dylan's is similar to the _____. a. central nervous system; peripheral nervous system b. peripheral nervous system; central nervous system c. nervous system; endocrine system d. endocrine system; nervous system ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 284. Which behavior is LEAST influenced by hormones? a. vision b. sex drive c. appetite d. sleep ANSWER: a 285. The _____ glands are located on top of the kidneys and produce hormones to arouse the body in response to stress. a. thyroid b. pineal c. adrenal d. pituitary ANSWER: c 286. Javier often feels stressed. The _____ gland is MOST likely involved in Javier's stress. a. thymus b. pineal c. thyroid d. adrenal ANSWER: d 287. The _____ glands produce adrenaline and the "stress hormone" cortisol. a. adrenal b. pituitary c. pineal d. thyroid ANSWER: a 288. The _____ gland plays an important role in sleeping and waking. a. adrenal b. pituitary c. pineal d. thyroid ANSWER: c 289. The reproductive organs produce: a. estrogen and testosterone. b. adrenaline and cortisol. c. melatonin and histamine. d. growth hormone and cortisol. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 290. Ayoub is having trouble falling asleep at bedtime, and he is consistently waking up at 4 o'clock in the morning. The gland that is MOST likely affecting Ayoub's sleep cycle is the _____ gland. a. glia b. thymus c. pineal d. thyroid ANSWER: c 291. Paloma has lost a lot of weight even though they have been eating even more than usual and not exercising as much as normal. Paloma is concerned because in addition to their decreased body weight, their blood pressure is not stable. Paloma thinks there might be a problem with their _____ gland, and they plan to see their physician. a. adrenal b. thymus c. pineal d. thyroid ANSWER: d 292. The _____ gland plays an important role in sleeping and waking, whereas the _____ gland influences metabolism, blood pressure, and body temperature. a. pineal; thyroid b. pituitary; adrenal c. adrenal; pituitary d. thyroid; pineal ANSWER: a 293. Your pituitary gland is directly or indirectly involved in all of these EXCEPT: a. sensing touch on the back of your hand. b. determining how tall you will grow. c. your blood pressure and body temperature. d. the rate of your metabolism.

ANSWER: a 294. The pituitary gland is located: a. on top of the kidneys. b. on reproductive organs. c. in the brain. d. by the throat.

ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 295. The pituitary gland produces: a. adrenaline. b. cortisol. c. melatonin. d. growth hormone.

ANSWER: d 296. The _____ gland is considered the "master gland" of the endocrine system. a. adrenal b. pituitary c. pineal d. thyroid ANSWER: b 297. The _____ gland produces human growth hormone and also controls all of the other glands in the body. a. adrenal b. pituitary c. pineal d. thyroid ANSWER: b 298. If a person has below expected growth during childhood, their doctor may suspect that their _____ gland is not functioning properly. a. pituitary b. adrenal c. pineal d. thyroid ANSWER: a 299. The supervisor at a fast-food restaurant controls the schedule and tasks assigned to employees. This supervisor is functioning MOST similarly to the _____ gland. a. adrenal b. pineal c. pituitary d. thyroid ANSWER: c 300. _____ is a technique in which sensors are placed on the scalp to record activity in the brain. a. Electroencephalography b. Computed tomography c. Magnetic resonance imaging .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. Positron emission tomography ANSWER: a 301. _____ measures the difference in the activity of neurons between two points on the brain via sensors placed on the scalp. a. Computed tomography b. Electroencephalography c. Magnetic resonance imaging d. Positron emission tomography ANSWER: b 302. _____ is the tool BEST suited for assessing the occurrence of seizures in disorders like epilepsy. a. Computed tomography b. Magnetic resonance imaging c. Electroencephalography d. Positron emission tomography ANSWER: c 303. Which technique would NOT be suited for assessing damaged brain tissue or larger-than-normal spaces in the brain? a. computed tomography b. magnetic resonance imaging c. positron emission tomography d. electroencephalography ANSWER: d 304. Susan was in a boating accident and is undergoing tests at the emergency room to see if a specific location of her brain was damaged. Which technique would be LEAST suited for this assessment? a. computed tomography b. magnetic resonance imaging c. positron emission tomography d. electroencephalography ANSWER: d 305. Which technique does NOT produce a picture of the brain? a. electroencephalography b. computed tomography c. magnetic resonance imaging d. positron emission tomography ANSWER: a 306. _____ produces images of the brain whereas _____ does not. .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice a. Electroencephalography; computed tomography b. Computed tomography; electroencephalography c. Magnetic resonance imaging; positron emission tomography d. Positron emission tomography; magnetic resonance imaging ANSWER: b 307. _____ is a technique in which multiple X-rays are combined to make a 3D image of the brain. a. Electroencephalography b. Computed tomography c. Magnetic resonance imaging d. Positron emission tomography ANSWER: b 308. The first brain imaging procedure developed that allowed psychologists to detect brain lesions and other diseases was: a. electroencephalography. b. computed tomography. c. magnetic resonance imaging. d. positron emission tomography.

ANSWER: b 309. Computed tomography takes _____ time than magnetic resonance imaging and produces brain images with _____ resolution. a. more; higher b. more; lower c. less; higher d. less; lower ANSWER: d 310. The _____ technique uses X-rays, whereas the _____ technique uses magnetic fields and radio waves to image the brain. a. magnetic resonance imaging; computed tomography b. magnetic resonance imaging; positron emission tomography c. electroencephalography; magnetic resonance imaging d. computed tomography; magnetic resonance imaging ANSWER: d 311. _____ is a technique in which magnetic fields and radio waves are used to make images of brain structure. a. Electroencephalography b. Computed tomography c. Magnetic resonance imaging .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice d. Positron emission tomography ANSWER: c 312. _____ is a technique in which activity in various brain structures is illustrated by a radioactive sugar injected into the body. a. Electroencephalography b. Computed tomography c. Magnetic resonance imaging d. Positron emission tomography ANSWER: d 313. Dr. Nye is interested in the brain areas that are active when a person feels anxious. She uses a technique in which she injects a radioactive sugar into the body and tracks where it is used in the brain. Dr. Nye is MOST likely using: a. electroencephalography. b. computed tomography. c. a split-brain procedure. d. positron emission tomography.

ANSWER: d 314. _____ is the technique BEST suited for making connections between particular activities and specific parts of the brains. a. Electroencephalography b. Computed tomography c. Positron emission tomography d. Magnetic resonance imaging ANSWER: c 315. _____ and _____ are techniques that show both brain activity and the location of parts of the brain. a. Electroencephalography; computed tomography b. Functional magnetic resonance imaging; positron emission tomography c. Positron emission tomography; electroencephalography d. Functional magnetic resonance imaging; computed tomography ANSWER: b 316. _____ is a technique in which magnetic fields are used to make images of brain activity. a. Electroencephalography b. Computed tomography c. Functional magnetic resonance imaging d. Positron emission tomography ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice 317. What is NOT a limitation of functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)? a. The fMRI technique has poor resolution in comparison to other techniques. b. Research using fMRI is more exploratory than hypothesis-based. c. Many fMRI results are not stable across time and/or are due to chance. d. Conclusions from fMRI results are often exaggerated and oversimplified.

ANSWER: a

.

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Chapter 3 - Essay 1. Define and differentiate between sensation and perception. Use an example to illustrate your descriptions. Be sure to use the term that describes the conversion of environmental energy into neural signals. Give an example to demonstrate how the perception capabilities of a given species have evolved and/or specialized for them to optimally integrate with their environment.

ANSWER: Sensation is a passive process by which specialized organs receive information from the environment. This received energy actively becomes perceptions when it is transduced into a neural signal and the brain draws an interpretation from it. For example, light energy comes into your eye, is transduced to a neural signal by your eye, and is sent to your brain via the optic nerve. Your brain interprets this sensation and you experience a perception. Perceptions experienced by a species match with the type of energies they find in their environment that increase their chances of survival. For example, primates subsist mostly on fruit, and so their ability to perceive the color of ripe fruit increases their likelihood of gaining necessary calories from it.

2. Define as well as compare and contrast absolute threshold and difference threshold. Give examples that describe each.

ANSWER: Absolute threshold is the minimum level of a stimulus necessary for you to detect its presence at least half the time, whereas the difference threshold is the smallest change in a stimulus necessary for you to detect it at least half the time. Both are based on being able to report something half the time, but the absolute threshold is when you are detecting something from nothing and the difference threshold is when you are discriminating a change in something to something else. For example, the lowest amount of light necessary for you to see a light in a dark room would be the absolute threshold. The difference threshold would be how much lighting would need to be increased in an already lit room for a person to notice that it is brighter.

3. Using two different sensory modalities, give two examples that describe how factors like sex, age, and health status can affect perception.

ANSWER: On average, younger individuals generally hear, taste, smell, and see better than older individuals.

Hearing is also often less sensitive in people who smoke or who have diabetes. Women have a more sensitive sense of smell (especially during ovulation) than men and typically hear better, though potentially not at lower frequencies. People diagnosed with depression can show decreased sensitivity to smell.

4. Differentiate between sensory adaptation and perceptual constancy. Use an example of each concept to illustrate the difference.

ANSWER: Sensory adaptation is the tendency to experience a change in perception (typically a decrease) of a present but unchanging stimulus. For example, you may notice the weight of your glasses on your nose when you first put them on, but you probably won't think about them the rest of the day as long as their position doesn't shift. In contrast, perceptual constancy is the brain's ability to maintain an unchanging perception despite a changing stimulus. For example, you can identify your friend by looking him in the eyes, at his profile, or even at the back of his head, even though your eyes are receiving very different "images."

5. Define and provide examples of the "cocktail party effect" and the "McGurk effect." Which sense tends to dominate human perception? Provide an example illustrating this.

ANSWER: The "cocktail party effect" is the tendency to attend to auditory stimuli that are personally relevant, such as suddenly paying attention when you hear your name spoken among the chatter during a .

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Chapter 3 - Essay noisy party. The "McGurk effect" occurs when there is a mismatch between what you hear and what you perceive as the sound the lips should be making based on their shape and movement. This happens when American viewers watch foreign films, where the actors are speaking their native language but the sound has been dubbed over by English-speaking voices. The sense of vision dominates human perception. For example, if given a cherry-flavored beverage that has been colored orange, participants will, on average, report the flavor as orange.

6. Define and differentiate between bottom-up and top-down processing. Give an example of each in a single sensory experience.

ANSWER: Bottom-up processing is the translation of a sensation to a perceptual experience that is not influenced at all by past experience, whereas, in top-down processing, what a person experiences perceptually is influenced by expectations. For example, if you are riding a roller coaster, you experience the sensation of falling just as you would if your chair suddenly and unexpectedly broke; this is bottom-up processing. However, you understand that this fall is controlled and part of a ride; this is top-down processing.

7. Compare and contrast change blindness and inattentional blindness. What implications do these phenomena have on eyewitness testimony?

ANSWER: Change blindness is a failure to notice changes in your visual field because you expect things to appear a certain way, whereas inattentional blindness is a failure to notice changes in your visual field because your attention was focused elsewhere. While both types of blindness result in one's failure to notice something, the reason for the failure is different. In change blindness, expectation results in perception different from reality. In inattentional blindness, there is no perception—the information is not attended to. Both can undermine the validity of eyewitness testimony. Change blindness brings bias to a person's perception, so they may be more willing to report that an individual of a certain gender, age, and/or race perpetrated a crime. In inattentional blindness, the "witness" would not have truly perceived what happened.

8. Detail the path that light takes through the eye, what each part does to or in reaction to the light, where and through what structures light is transduced, and how and where light-based neural information is sent to in the brain.

ANSWER: Light first passes through the clear cornea and enters the eye through the pupil, the size of which is controlled by the iris. The iris dilates the pupil in low light and constricts the pupil when a lot of light is present. Behind the pupil, the lens focuses the light onto the sheet of tissue at the back of the eye, the retina. On the retina, rods and cones transduce the light into neural energy. This signal is sent via the optic nerve to the thalamus and from there to the visual cortex of the occipital lobe.

9. You're on a bumpy bus trying to read your phone, and it falls out of your hand. You look around for it and spot it by your feet, at which point you bend down to pick it up and then resume reading. Describe how the three different types of eye movements allow these behaviors.

ANSWER: Reading and tracking a scene (in this case for your dropped phone) is accomplished though (1) saccades, which are "jumps" that take your gaze from one particular point to another, between which you fixate on certain things. (2) Vergence movements allow both of your eyes to focus on the item of interest (in this case your phone as you bring it back toward your face to read). A bumpy bus would jostle your head and phone around, so (3) compensatory movements of your eyes are necessary to keep the image smooth. .

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Chapter 3 - Essay 10. What is hue, and what receptors are necessary for a human to experience it? Use the trichromatic theory of color vision to explain color blindness; give a specific example. How does the opponent process theory of color vision differ from the trichromatic theory, especially in terms of presumed location of processing?

ANSWER: Hue is the visual perception of color that is based on transduction of different wavelengths of light by three different types of cones, which are "color" receptors found on the retina and necessary for humans to experience hue. The trichromatic theory of color vision states that there are three types of cones, which are each sensitive to a certain range of wavelengths, and that the blending of the activity of these cone types is what allows us to perceive a full range of color. Color blindness is the inability to perceive a certain range of color; for example, people who lack "S" cones, which are sensitive to short wavelengths of light and what we perceive as blue, have green–blue color blindness. The opponent process theory of color vision states that our perception of colors is arranged in pairs of colors that cannot be mixed. This may be how our brain processes color, and the retina processes color based on the trichromatic theory.

11. What is meant by visual figure–ground orientation? Describe two features of a scene that make it likely that you will perceive them as a gestalt. Give two examples of how culture can affect visual perception of figure versus ground.

ANSWER: Figure–ground orientation is the tendency to be able to perceive a separation between focal objects and the background. The likelihood of perceiving separate items as a whole, or a gestalt, increases if the items: (1) are close in proximity; (2) are similar in color, size, and orientation; (3) change together or have a common fate; (4) are touching or connected in a way; and (5) indicate closure.

Whether you come from an individualistic or collectivist culture can affect how you perceive figure versus ground. Individuals from collectivist cultures have a harder time completing the "rod and frame" task in which you're supposed to make a rod vertical within a tilted frame. Similarly, people from individualistic cultures spend more time looking at figure objects rather than scanning the background.

12. Detail the path that sound takes through the ear, what each part does to or in reaction to the sound, where sound is transduced, and how and where sound-based neural information is sent to the brain.

ANSWER: Sound is funneled into the ear by the pinna, after which it hits the tympanic membrane. The movement of the tympanic membrane in response to sound moves the ossicles, which help to amplify the sound vibrations so they can activate the oval window. The movement of the oval window activates the cochlea, which contains hair cells that transduce sound information to a neural signal. This sound-based neural signal is sent via the auditory nerve to the thalamus and ultimately to the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe.

13. What is pitch? How is it affected by loudness? Describe the two theories that describe how and where different pitches are processed.

ANSWER: Pitch is the perception of how high or low a sound is based on the frequency of the vibration hitting the ear. Pitch is processed completely differently from loudness and so how loud a sound is does not affect the pitch you perceive. Place theory states that different frequencies of sound hit receptors in different places on the cochlea and that most of the processing is done in the cochlea before the information is sent to the brain. Conversely, the frequency theory, which states that neural impulses travel down the auditory nerve based on the frequency of the incoming sound, posits that the information isn't processed until it reaches the brain.

14. Compare and contrast the stimulus features that lead to the perception of hue in the visual system and pitch .

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Chapter 3 - Essay in the auditory system.

ANSWER: Hue is the visual perception of color that is based on transduction of different wavelengths of light by three different types of cones. Pitch is the perception of how high or low a sound is based on the frequency of the vibration hitting the ear. Both perceptions are based on the wavelength of the stimulus—longer light waves are perceived as red hues, and longer sound waves are perceived as lower pitches.

15. Describe how olfactory ability can vary between individuals. Give one example for each that is based on health status, age, gender, and race.

ANSWER: An individual's olfactory ability can be temporarily impaired by illnesses like the flu or sinus infections, which lead to hyposmia or anosmia. More serious health conditions like Parkinson's or Alzheimer's disease can result in diminished olfaction. The likelihood of these conditions increases with age, but olfactory acuity also lessens even in healthy individuals as they age. Women, on average, are able to identify smells better than men, and this is independent of familiarity with the odor they are smelling. Finally, white people tend to identify smells better than individuals of Hispanic or African American decent.

16. What are the four primary tastes? Provide examples of foods that represent these primary tastes. What flavor does umami represent? Use at least one food example to describe umami. Describe two gustation-based reasons why one person may like a food more than another person.

ANSWER: The four primary tastes are salty (potato chips), sweet (fruit), sour (vinegar), and bitter (leafy green vegetables). Umami is the Japanese word for "delicious" and is used to describe the savory flavor of proteins, like MSG, mushrooms, and meat. Preferences for tastes vary based on age (older people have less acuity than younger), biologic sex (men have less acuity than women), and taste bud density/supertaster status (supertasters prefer bitter foods less and sweet foods more than nontasters).

17. Touch is only one aspect of somatosensory ability; name two other perceptions that fall under the category of "somatosenses." Describe two tests that can be used to assess a person's tactile ability.

ANSWER: Perceptions of temperature, pain, itch, tickle, and tingle all originate from the somatosenses. Tactile ability can be assessed with the grating orientation discrimination test and the two-point threshold task. In the grating task, you are to report in what direction grooves are running; as the grooves get smaller, the task gets harder. In the two-point task, you are to report if you can feel one of the two points of contact from an instrument put on your skin; the closer the two parts of the instrument get, the more difficult it is to perceive them as individual contacts.

18. Jamal was injured in an accident, and the injury required the amputation of one of their legs. They are now experiencing a tingling sensation in the region where their leg used to be. What condition would Jamal be MOST likely to be diagnosed with? Explain what might be going on in their brain that results in this condition.

Describe one way that Jamal's perception might be lessened.

ANSWER: Jamal most likely is experiencing phantom limb pain. This is thought to be the result of the somatosensory cortex in the brain reorganizing itself in response to a discrepancy between the sensations it expects to be coming in and the lack thereof. Use of a prosthetic limb allows continued interaction with the environment as a substitute for Jamal's now-missing limb and can "trick" the brain in a way that lessens or removes the perception of pain. .

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Chapter 3 - Essay 19. Nadeem collided with a football teammate, and the collision bruised Nadeem's ribs. Their ribs feel very sore, and they are very discouraged about it, but they decide to ignore the pain and continue to play football.

Using the gate control theory of pain, categorize each of Nadeem's experiences and responses into its proper system.

ANSWER: The sensory–discriminative system guides Nadeem's awareness of where the pain is (along their ribs) and how painful it feels. The motivational–affective system is what underlies their emotions (being discouraged) about it. The cognitive–evaluative system allows Nadeem's interpretation to ignore it and prompts their response to continue to play football.

20. What is meant by kinesthetic senses and vestibular senses? Together, what do they achieve? Give an example of a time you noticed your kinesthetic senses and vestibular senses or relied on your kinesthetic senses to find something or move somewhere.

ANSWER: Kinesthetic senses are those that allow you to know your position in space and the orientation of your body. Vestibular senses underlie your sense of balance. Thus, together these senses give moment-to-moment feedback about where your body is and how it's moving. An example of experiencing or using these senses is knowing that the platform you just sat on is tilting or falling, or hitting the snooze button on your alarm without first having to look for the alarm clock.

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 1. The ability of specialized organs to acquire environmental energy is called: a. sensation. b. transduction. c. perception. d. extrasensory perception.

ANSWER: a 2. The conversion of environmental energy into neural activity is called: a. sensation. b. transduction. c. perception. d. extrasensory perception.

ANSWER: b 3. _____ is the ability of your brain to interpret the information it receives. a. Sensation b. Transduction c. Perception d. Extrasensory perception ANSWER: c 4. _____ is the ability of specialized organs to acquire environmental energy, whereas _____ is the ability of your brain to interpret the information it receives. a. Perception; sensation b. Extrasensory perception; transduction c. Sensation; perception d. Transduction; extrasensory perception ANSWER: c 5. Yasmina tastes homemade marinara sauce, and it reminds them of a restaurant they ate at while studying abroad in Florence, Italy. Tasting the sauce is an example of _____, and it reminding Yasmina of their trip is an example of _____. a. perception; sensation b. threshold; transduction c. sensation; perception d. transduction; threshold ANSWER: c 6. You hear the shrill sound of the fire alarm go off while you're in class. You get up out of your chair, exit the room, and leave the building. Hearing the shrill sound of the alarm is an example of _____, whereas recognizing it as coming from a fire alarm and knowing to exit the building is an example of _____. a. perception; sensation .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. threshold; transduction c. sensation; perception d. transduction; threshold ANSWER: c 7. Which is the BEST example of a perception as opposed to a sensation? a. thinking about Christmas when you smell peppermint b. not finishing your soup because it's too salty c. differentiating between a red car and a black car d. realizing that the milk you're about to drink smells bad ANSWER: a 8. Which of these BEST exemplifies sensation as opposed to perception? a. understanding that a green traffic light means go b. pulling over when you see a police car's lights behind you c. discriminating between a sweet and a bitter food d. knowing that a brown peel means a banana is overripe ANSWER: c 9. As opposed to perception, sensation: a. produces a meaningful product. b. is a not an active process. c. involves translating information. d. this occurs primarily in the brain.

ANSWER: b 10. As opposed to sensation, perception: a. is a passive process. b. is an interpretation. c. stops at detection. d. does not require the brain.

ANSWER: b 11. Which statement is NOT a scientifically supported example of how sensation and perception have specialized in certain species? a. Elephants are suited to hear low-frequency sounds indicative of the approach of a rival. b. Humans can discriminate between colors to differentiate levels of ripeness of fruit. c. Insect ears are tuned to hear high-frequency sounds like those of another nearby bug. d. Some people can perceive the presence of ghosts that can't be sensed by others.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 12. Quinn claims they have _____ and can sense when something bad is going to happen before it does. a. psychokinesis b. sensory adaptation c. perceptual constancy d. extrasensory perception ANSWER: d 13. Which statement is a scientifically supported example of how sensation and perception has specialized in certain species? a. Clairvoyance allows knowing what will happen in the future by concentrating on it. b. Humans can discriminate between colors to differentiate levels of ripeness of fruit. c. It is possible through mental telepathy to know what another person is thinking. d. Some people can perceive the presence of ghosts that can't be sensed by others.

ANSWER: b 14. Which statement about parapsychology is false? a. Most psychologists reject the notion of perception without sensation. b. Parapsychology is very different from pseudopsychology or pseudoscience. c. Parapsychology is not supported by science even though it may appear to be. d. Mental telepathy and clairvoyance are topics explored in parapsychology.

ANSWER: b 15. Dr. Salinas studies people who believe they can predict the future, perceive ghosts, and read other people's thoughts. Dr. Salinas most likely studies: a. sensation. b. parapsychology. c. perception. d. transduction.

ANSWER: b 16. The minimum level of a stimulus necessary for detection of its presence at least half the time is: a. difference threshold. b. absolute threshold. c. perceptual constancy. d. sensory adaptation.

ANSWER: b 17. Which is an example of absolute threshold? a. identifying when a dim light has turned on in a pitch-black room b. distinguishing between a greenish-blue and a bluish-green paint c. feeling the softness of a shirt when you put it on but not noticing it by lunchtime .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. understanding that the car you're in is moving, not the houses that you're passing ANSWER: a 18. Absolute threshold is the minimum level of a stimulus necessary for detection of its presence _____ time. a. every single b. at least half of the c. once every 10th d. once every 100th ANSWER: b 19. Jericho is mixing paint to make the lightest blue he can manage to make. He adds one drop of dark blue paint at a time to a cup of white paint. After 22 drops, he begins to see blue instead of white; therefore, 22 drops achieves his "blue." This is BEST described as an example of: a. perceptual set. b. absolute threshold. c. perceptual constancy. d. sensory adaptation.

ANSWER: b 20. The minimum change in a stimulus necessary for detection at least half the time is: a. difference threshold. b. absolute threshold. c. perceptual constancy. d. sensory adaptation.

ANSWER: a 21. About 10 minutes after putting on a soft scarf, Callum no longer notices how soft it is. This is because he has experienced: a. perceptual set. b. sensory adaptation. c. perceptual constancy. d. extrasensory perception.

ANSWER: b 22. Which is an example of difference threshold? a. identifying when a dim light has turned on in a pitch-black room b. distinguishing between a greenish-blue and a bluish-green paint c. feeling the softness of a shirt when you put it on but not noticing it by lunchtime d. understanding that the car you're in is moving, not the houses that you're passing ANSWER: b 23. Distinguishing between a greenish-blue and a bluish-green paint is an example of _____, whereas .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice identifying when a dim light has turned on in a pitch-black room is an example of _____. a. absolute threshold; difference threshold b. difference threshold; absolute threshold c. perceptual constancy; sensory adaptation d. sensory adaptation; perceptual constancy ANSWER: b 24. Which of these about diversity in absolute threshold is NOT generally true? a. Women are more sensitive to sound than men. b. Younger people hear better than older people. c. Ovulation often increases sensitivity to smells. d. Depression often increases sensitivity to smells.

ANSWER: d 25. The Weber–Fechner law is MOST related to the concept of: a. the difference threshold. b. the absolute threshold. c. perceptual constancy. d. parapsychology.

ANSWER: a 26. The _____ law states that the difference threshold is proportional to the amount of the stimulus present in the first place. a. extrasensory perception b. Weber–Fechner c. perceptual constancy d. sensory adaptation ANSWER: b 27. According to the Weber–Fechner law, you would MOST likely be unable to notice: a. a pinch of salt added to a 5-pound bag of potato chips. b. 20 packs of sugar added to a mug of black coffee. c. a flashlight turning on in a pitch-black department store. d. adding 5 pounds to your 5-pound medicine ball.

ANSWER: a 28. Luis usually bench presses 120 pounds added to a 45-pound bar. Unexpectedly, the gym changes their bars to ones weighing 50 pounds. According to _____, it's likely that Luis will not notice the difference. a. extrasensory perception b. the Weber–Fechner law c. perceptual constancy .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. sensory adaptation ANSWER: b 29. Which concept describes the change in our perception of a stimulus when that stimulus stays the same? a. absolute threshold b. transduction c. sensory adaptation d. perceptual constancy ANSWER: c 30. _____ is the tendency of the perception of a sensation to decrease when the stimulus is actually unchanging. a. Absolute threshold b. Difference threshold c. Sensory adaptation d. Perceptual constancy ANSWER: c 31. Which is an example of sensory adaptation? a. identifying when a dim light has been turned on in a pitch-black room b. differentiating between a greenish-blue and a bluish-green paint c. feeling the softness of a shirt when you put it on but not noticing it by lunchtime d. understanding that the car you're in is moving, not the houses that you're passing ANSWER: c 32. Adaption differs from habituation in that adaptation deals with _____ stimuli, and habituation deals with _____ stimuli. a. changing; unchanging b. sensing; responding to c. unchanging; changing d. responding to; sensing ANSWER: b 33. _____ is the concept that allows your brain to maintain stable perception despite changing sensation. a. Absolute threshold b. Difference threshold c. Sensory adaptation d. Perceptual constancy ANSWER: d 34. Which statement is an example of perceptual constancy? a. identifying when a dim light has been turned on in a pitch-black room .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. differentiating between a greenish-blue and a bluish-green paint c. feeling the softness of a shirt when you put it on but not noticing it by lunchtime d. understanding that the car you're in is moving, not the houses that you're passing ANSWER: d 35. Perceptual constancy allows your brain to _____ a perception despite _____ sensation. a. ignore; changing b. generate; no c. change; maintained d. maintain; changing ANSWER: d 36. When you pay more attention to one sense than another, you are experiencing _____ attention. a. absolute b. differential c. selective d. perceptual ANSWER: c 37. Ainsley closes their eyes so they can concentrate more fully on the wonderful taste of the food they are eating and enjoying. Ainsley's behavior is BEST described as an example of: a. extrasensory perception. b. sensory adaptation. c. selective attention. d. perceptual constancy.

ANSWER: c 38. Which is an example of selective attention? a. distinguishing between two brands of cola by taste alone b. differentiating between sips of sweetened and unsweetened iced tea c. tasting a mint when you first pop it in your mouth but forgetting it in a few minutes d. noticing that there are tomatoes in your burrito when you asked for one without ANSWER: d 39. Which is an example of the cocktail party effect? a. perceiving sound coming from the actors' mouths on the movie screen rather than the speakers on the side of the theater b. noticing that the speech coming from the actor's mouth in a dubbed foreign film does not match the shape that his lips are making c. hearing the buzz of the speakers when you first sit down in the theater but noticing it less and less as the movie progresses .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. starting to fall asleep during the movie but waking up when you hear your name, which happens to be the name of a character ANSWER: d 40. The "cocktail party effect" occurs when information that is particularly _____ grabs your attention. a. personal b. loud c. quiet d. irrelevant ANSWER: a 41. Which is an example of the McGurk effect? a. perceiving sound coming from the actors' mouths on the movie screen rather than the speakers on the side of the theater b. noticing that the speech coming from the actor's mouth in a dubbed foreign film does not match the shape that his lips are taking c. hearing the buzz of the speakers when you first sit down in the theater but noticing it less and less as the movie progresses d. starting to fall asleep during the movie but waking up when one actor says your name, which happens to be the name of a character ANSWER: b 42. Chaim went to a meeting of a student group where he didn't know anyone. He stayed near the door not really paying attention to anyone's conversation until he heard someone talking about a class he had just registered for in the next semester. What phenomenon MOST likely explains Chaim's change in perception? a. the McGurk effect b. the cocktail party effect c. sensory adaptation d. perceptual constancy ANSWER: b 43. When sensations are processed into perceptions without any influence of expectations, the processing is considered: a. top-down. b. bottom-up. c. selective attention. d. sensory integration.

ANSWER: b 44. When sensations are processed into perceptions and are influenced by expectations, the processing is considered: a. top-down. .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. bottom-up. c. selective attention. d. sensory integration.

ANSWER: a 45. Top-down processing requires: a. expectations. b. no past experience. c. selective attention. d. sensory conflict.

ANSWER: a 46. Bottom-up processing requires: a. expectations. b. no past experience. c. selective attention. d. sensory conflict.

ANSWER: b 47. Elian bought tickets to take his mother to a ballet. Elian has never been to a ballet before and doesn't know what to expect. He will MOST likely experience: a. bottom-up processing. b. top-down processing. c. sensory adaptation. d. the McGurk effect.

ANSWER: a 48. Graham is preparing to play trombone in the marching band during a football game at a high school he hasn't been to before. However, he's played at many high schools, so he expects this one will be similar. He will MOST likely experience: a. bottom-up processing. b. top-down processing. c. selective attention. d. the McGurk effect.

ANSWER: b 49. Your tendency to perceive things in a certain way due to your past experience is called: a. perceptual set. b. bottom-up processing. c. selective attention. d. sensory integration. .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 50. Which is NOT an example of behavior influenced by perceptual set? a. understanding that explosions going off on July 4 are just fireworks b. expecting a red-colored drink to have a cherry or strawberry flavor c. being surprised when a bride wears a black rather than a white dress d. missing a stop sign because you were reading a text from a friend ANSWER: d 51. Honor attended the wedding of her friend, Anaya, which was performed in a traditional Indian style but took place in the United States. Honor was surprised when Anaya came out in a red dress, which is common for brides in India, but not for those in American culture. Honor's perception was MOST likely influenced by: a. selective attention. b. transduction. c. the McGurk effect. d. perceptual set.

ANSWER: d 52. Corwin is startled by the sound of the tornado alarm but quickly calms down because they realize it's the first Saturday of the month, and that's when the city tests their tornado alarm. This is BEST described as an example of: a. the McGurk effect. b. sensory adaptation. c. perceptual set. d. change blindness.

ANSWER: c 53. Which is an example of behavior influenced by inattentional blindness? a. understanding that explosions going off on July 4 are just fireworks b. expecting a red-colored drink to have a cherry flavor c. being surprised when a bride wears a black rather than a white dress d. missing a stop sign because you were reading a friend's text ANSWER: d 54. Fulton was so focused on watching an entertaining commercial that he completely missed the announcement posted on the screen that the show he wanted to watch was starting. Fulton's experience was MOST likely the result of: a. inattentional blindness. b. perceptual constancy. c. bottom-up processing. d. sensory adaptation.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 55. Which sense MOST often dominates human perception? a. vision b. hearing c. taste d. smell ANSWER: a 56. Which does NOT support the concept that the visual sense MOST often dominates human perception? a. More brain matter is dedicated to vision than to any other sense. b. We use visual metaphors in language to a great extent. c. The blending of "what" and "where" streams into one pathway. d. People vote that vision is the sense they would least likely give up.

ANSWER: c 57. In vision, the _____ stream controls identification of an object, and the _____ stream controls action toward the object. a. ventral; dorsal b. dorsal; ventral c. inferior; superior d. superior; inferior ANSWER: a 58. In vision, the _____ stream controls identification of an object. a. inferior b. dorsal c. ventral d. superior ANSWER: c 59. In vision, the _____ stream controls action toward the object. a. inferior b. dorsal c. ventral d. superior ANSWER: b 60. Tammi is playing basketball. When her teammate turns to pass her the ball, she can identify her teammate and the ball by using the _____ stream of visual processing and put her hands out to catch it using the _____ stream. a. ventral; dorsal b. dorsal; ventral .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. sensory; perceptual d. perceptual; sensory ANSWER: a 61. The _____ is the part of the eye light first hits. a. lens b. iris c. pupil d. cornea ANSWER: d 62. The _____ is a thin transparent sheet over the eye. a. lens b. iris c. pupil d. cornea ANSWER: d 63. When someone gets refractive surgery on their eyes, which part of their eye is being operated on? a. lens b. iris c. pupil d. cornea ANSWER: d 64. Niko wears contact lenses, which he places on the _____ of his eye. a. retina b. iris c. pupil d. cornea ANSWER: d 65. Javier experienced an eye injury when a window shattered in his face. The glass MOST likely scratched his: a. lens. b. iris. c. pupil. d. cornea.

ANSWER: d 66. The _____ is the circular muscle situated in the center of the eye. a. lens .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. iris c. pupil d. cornea ANSWER: b 67. Orson says that his boyfriend has green eyes. Orson is referring to the color of the _____ of his boyfriend's eyes. a. lenses b. irises c. pupils d. corneas ANSWER: b 68. The _____ is the colored part of the eye. a. lens b. iris c. pupil d. cornea ANSWER: b 69. The _____ is the muscle that opens the _____ of the eye. a. lens; pupil b. iris; pupil c. pupil; lens d. pupil; iris ANSWER: b 70. The _____ is the black hole in the center of the eye. a. lens b. iris c. pupil d. cornea ANSWER: c 71. Linh says that part of her cat's eyes gets larger when the lights go off. You know Linh is specifically talking about the _____ of her cat's eyes. a. lens b. blind spot c. pupil d. cornea ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 72. The pupil of the eye does NOT: a. change size based on arousal. b. get larger in dim light. c. get smaller in bright light. d. control the size of the iris.

ANSWER: d 73. The _____ is a clear layer under the eye's surface that changes shape to help focus light. a. lens b. iris c. pupil d. retina ANSWER: a 74. There are two transparent sheets of tissue in the eye, but only the _____ can change shape. a. lens b. iris c. pupil d. cornea ANSWER: a 75. You walk into a lecture a little late, and the speaker is explaining that he studies the transparent sheet of tissue in the eye that can change shape. You know this means that the speaker MOST likely studies the: a. lens. b. blind spot. c. pupil. d. cornea.

ANSWER: a 76. There are two parts of the eye that can actively change their shape: the _____, to control how much light enters the eye, and the _____, to focus that light. a. lens; iris b. iris; lens c. pupil; cornea d. cornea; pupil ANSWER: b 77. Cataracts are a condition in which the _____ of the eye begins to develop cloudy spots. a. lens b. iris .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. pupil d. cornea ANSWER: a 78. Which statement is false about the lens of the eye? a. It is the first part of the eye that light hits. b. It engages in visual accommodation. c. It tends to get less elastic with age. d. Its shape is why you may need glasses.

ANSWER: a 79. You may need glasses or contact lenses when you get older because the lens of your eye loses _____ with age. a. elasticity b. clarity c. transduction ability d. color ANSWER: a 80. The process by which your lens changes shape to focus on objects at varying distances from your eyes is called: a. visual accommodation. b. perceptual constancy. c. inattentional blindness. d. visual transduction.

ANSWER: a 81. The very back of the eye contains a thin sheet of tissue called the: a. retina. b. iris. c. blind spot. d. cornea.

ANSWER: a 82. The _____ is the part of the eye where visual transduction takes place. a. retina b. iris c. blind spot d. cornea ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 83. When patients who have damaged the part of the eye where visual transduction takes place come to the hospital, they are sent to Dr. Palumbo because Dr. Palumbo's expertise deals with the: a. retina. b. blind spot. c. lens. d. cornea.

ANSWER: a 84. The _____ is the part of the eye that processes light information, which is sent to the brain via the _____. a. retina; blind spot b. retina; optic nerve c. blind spot; retina d. optic nerve; retina ANSWER: b 85. The _____ is the part of the eye where light information CANNOT be processed because of interruption caused by the _____. a. retina; blind spot b. blind spot; retina c. blind spot; optic nerve d. optic nerve; blind spot ANSWER: c 86. Visual information carried by the optic nerve stops first in the _____ before proceeding to the _____. a. thalamus; occipital lobe b. thalamus; frontal lobe c. hypothalamus; occipital lobe d. hypothalamus; frontal lobe ANSWER: a 87. Rods and cones are part of the: a. blind spot. b. iris. c. retina. d. cornea.

ANSWER: c 88. Rods allow perception _____, and cones allow perception _____. a. of movement; of form b. in bright light; in dim light c. in dim light; in bright light .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice d. of form; of movement ANSWER: c 89. Which statement is false about rods and cones? a. They are both found as part of the retina. b. Rods are specialized for dim light. c. Cones allow us to see color. d. There are more cones than rods.

ANSWER: d 90. The human eye contains: a. only rods and no cones. b. more rods than cones. c. more cones than rods. d. neither cones nor rods.

ANSWER: b 91. The fovea is the part of the retina that: a. processes only color vision. b. is composed entirely of rods. c. is interrupted by the optic nerve. d. has the least visual acuity.

ANSWER: a 92. The _____ is a pit on the retina that contains only cones. a. blind spot b. iris c. fovea d. cornea ANSWER: c 93. Dr. Saadeh is interested in studying the role of cones in visual processing. It would make the MOST sense for him to study the: a. blind spot. b. iris. c. fovea. d. cornea.

ANSWER: c 94. The _____ is a part of the retina that contains no rods or cones. a. blind spot .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. iris c. fovea d. cornea ANSWER: a 95. A hawk can see distant animals in a way that humans can't, because a hawk's _____ takes up more space on its eye, proportionally, than a human's. a. blind spot b. iris c. fovea d. cornea ANSWER: c 96. _____ are movements of your eyes that take your gaze from one point to another. a. Fixations b. Saccades c. Vergences d. Compensations ANSWER: b 97. _____ movements are NOT a type of eye movement. a. Fixation b. Saccadic c. Vergence d. Compensatory ANSWER: a 98. _____ are pauses between brief movements of your eyes. a. Fixations b. Saccades c. Vergences d. Compensations ANSWER: a 99. _____ movements of your eyes allow a stable image despite head movements. a. Fixated b. Saccadic c. Vergence d. Compensatory ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 100. _____ are movements of both eyes toward a single chosen image. a. Fixations b. Saccades c. Vergences d. Compensations ANSWER: c 101. Tiva hit her head in a car accident, and now she can't focus both of her eyes on a single stimulus. It's MOST likely that how Tiva hit her head disrupted her eyes' ability to make _____ movements. a. vergence b. saccadic c. disparity d. fixated ANSWER: a 102. If your ability to make vergence eye movements was damaged, you would NOT be able to: a. move your two eyes in unison to focus on a single chosen image. b. keep your eyes focused on an image during head movements. c. move your gaze smoothly from one particular point to another. d. stop moving your eyes when reading an unfamiliar word.

ANSWER: a 103. Jamis sustained a concussion after a car accident, and now his saccadic eye movement is interrupted. He is MOST likely having trouble: a. moving his two eyes in unison to focus on a single chosen image. b. keeping his eyes focused on an image during head movements. c. moving his gaze smoothly from one particular point to another. d. stopping his eyes from moving when reading an unfamiliar word.

ANSWER: c 104. When you read, _____ eye movement allows you to follow the words across the page, whereas _____ eye movements let you focus on a picture. a. vergence; saccadic b. saccadic; vergence c. compensatory; saccadic d. saccadic; compensatory ANSWER: b 105. Dion experienced an injury that resulted in his inability to make compensatory eye movements. This means he is unable to: a. move both of his eyes toward a single image. b. see a stable image when he moves his head. .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. pause between brief movements of his eyes. d. take his gaze from one point to another.

ANSWER: b 106. Jemma experienced an injury that resulted in her inability to make vergence eye movements. This means she is unable to: a. move both of her eyes toward a single image. b. see a stable image when she moves her head. c. pause between brief movements of her eyes. d. take her gaze from one point to another.

ANSWER: a 107. Greyson experienced an injury that resulted in his inability to track one word to the next as he reads a line in a book. The injury MOST likely interrupted his _____ eye movements. a. vergence b. saccadic c. compensatory d. fixation ANSWER: b 108. _____ allows you to perceive distance. a. Compensatory eye movement b. Color perception c. Saccadic eye movement d. Depth perception ANSWER: d 109. Kai was born without the ability to judge the distance of one object relative to another, which means they cannot: a. transduce light. b. move his eyes. c. perceive depth. d. perceive color.

ANSWER: c 110. Which is NOT used as a monocular depth cue? a. shading b. relative size c. linear perspective d. retinal disparity ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 111. Retinal disparity is: a. an explanation of color vision that focuses on pairs of opposite colors. b. the tendency to visually distinguish between an object and its background. c. an organized whole that is perceived as more than the sum of its parts. d. your brain's measurement of the difference between images from each eye.

ANSWER: d 112. Which is false about retinal disparity? a. The more retinal disparity there is, the more distant objects are perceived. b. Retinal disparity is greater for objects close up than it is for those far away. c. Animals whose eyes face forward can use retinal disparity cues. d. You need two functioning eyes in order to use retinal disparity as a depth cue.

ANSWER: a 113. Which is false about color vision? a. The perception of hue is influenced by surrounding colors. b. Color perception is based on the wavelength of light. c. Humans cannot perceive some wavelengths of light. d. Sensory adaptation does not influence hue perception.

ANSWER: d 114. Hue refers to the _____ of light. a. color b. intensity c. contrast d. transduction ANSWER: a 115. Hue is our perception of the _____ of light. a. wavelength b. intensity c. contrast d. convergence ANSWER: a 116. Wiyot remarks that grass is finally turning green after a long winter. They are describing the _____ of the grass, which is based off of the _____ of light hitting them. a. wavelength; hue b. brightness; intensity c. hue; wavelength d. intensity; brightness .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 117. Human eyes contain _____ types of cones. a. two b. three c. four d. five ANSWER: b 118. The _____ theory of color vision states that color vision is based on the inputs of different cone types that are specialized to specific wavelength ranges. a. trichromatic b. monocular c. binocular d. opponent process ANSWER: a 119. Which is false about color blindness? a. Red–green color blindness occurs when both the M and L cones don't work. b. Red–green color blindness is the most prevalent form of color blindness. c. Blue–green color blindness occurs when S cones don't work. d. Complete color blindness results in a person seeing only shades of gray.

ANSWER: a 120. John has blue–green color blindness. This means _____ cones may be defective. a. his M b. all of his c. his L d. his S ANSWER: d 121. The _____ theory of color vision states that color vision is based on the inputs of cone types that are specialized to see color pairs. a. trichromatic b. monocular c. binocular d. opponent process ANSWER: d 122. Which is false about the theories of color vision? a. Trichromatic theory applies near the beginning of visual processing (in the eye). .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. The fact that certain colors can't be blended disproves the opponent process theory. c. Color blindness supports the trichromatic theory of color vision. d. Opponent process theory applies near the end of visual processing (in the brain).

ANSWER: b 123. Dr. Hira's line of research focuses on how color vision is perceived once processing in the eye is finished.

She MOST likely focuses on: a. color constancy. b. inattentional blindness. c. trichromatic theory. d. opponent process theory.

ANSWER: d 124. Figure–ground organization allows us to: a. perceive different colors of objects and the background. b. distinguish between an object and the background. c. understand that a smaller object is probably more distant. d. assimilate matching objects into a group of figures.

ANSWER: b 125. Which is NOT typical in figure–ground organization? a. The figure is larger than the ground. b. The figure is more symmetrical than the ground. c. The figure appears closer than the ground d. The figure is more convex than the ground.

ANSWER: a 126. Trenton is looking at a piece of modern art and trying to figure out which aspect is the figure and which is the background. The cue LEAST likely to guide his decision is if the figure _____ than the ground. a. is larger b. is more symmetrical c. appears closer d. is more convex ANSWER: a 127. Figure–ground organization allows us to _____ objects. a. separate b. group c. perceive d. attend to ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 128. Gestalt organization allows us to _____ objects. a. separate b. group c. perceive d. attend to ANSWER: b 129. _____ organization allows us to separate objects while _____ organization allows us to group objects. a. Figure–ground; gestalt b. Gestalt; figure–ground c. Opponent-process; trichromatic d. Trichromatic; opponent-process ANSWER: a 130. Which feature does NOT cause us to make a gestalt out of a collection of things we see? a. synchronization b. similar colors c. lots of space d. closure ANSWER: c 131. Teena is looking at a piece of modern art and trying to figure out if the shapes depicted are supposed to be separate or part of a collective whole. She would MOST likely decide that the shapes were meant to be separate if the shapes were: a. similar colors. b. close together. c. facing opposite directions. d. touching.

ANSWER: c 132. An organized whole that is perceived as more than the sum of its parts is called a: a. hue. b. monocular cue. c. binocular cue. d. gestalt.

ANSWER: d 133. Which is an example of modular perception? a. a smartphone's ability to distinguish a QR code from random line groupings b. a hawk's ability to identify and focus on a prey animal that is a mile away .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. a person's tendency to group objects if they are in close proximity to each other d. the brain's ability to measure the difference between images from each eye ANSWER: a 134. The _____ face area is a part of the brain that specifically receives and processes information about faces that you see and is strong evidence of modular perception. a. fusiform b. occipital c. retinal d. vergent ANSWER: a 135. Humphrey cannot differentiate between faces and hats. He is MOST likely to be diagnosed with: a. alexia. b. color blindness. c. prosopagnosia. d. dyslexia.

ANSWER: c 136. Rickie cannot perceive words. He is MOST likely to be diagnosed with: a. alexia. b. color blindness. c. prosopagnosia. d. change blindness.

ANSWER: a 137. The Margaret Thatcher effect demonstrates: a. modular perception. b. depth perception. c. figure–ground organization. d. gestalts.

ANSWER: a 138. Which is NOT true about culture's effect on perception? a. Language, such as specific names for specific colors, can impact perception. b. The "rod and frame test" is often more difficult for people from collectivist cultures. c. People from individualistic cultures tend to notice context more than feature objects. d. Children tend to learn color words in the same order independent of their culture.

ANSWER: c 139. Piper is from Australia, which is an individualistic culture, so they are MOST likely to notice the _____ .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice more so than the _____ of a visual scene. a. context; featured objects b. featured objects; context c. color; brightness d. brightness; color ANSWER: b 140. Individuals from _____ cultures find the "rod and frame test" more difficult than individuals from _____ cultures. a. collectivist; individualistic b. individualistic; collectivist c. gestalt; contextual d. contextual; gestalt ANSWER: a 141. Lorenzo is from Brazil, which is a collectivist culture. Based on findings from cross-cultural research studies, Lorenzo would MOST likely find the "rod and frame test": a. more difficult than a person from an individualistic culture would. b. easier than a person from an individualistic culture would. c. no more of less difficult than a person from an individualistic culture. d. impossible to perform, but a person from an individualistic culture could.

ANSWER: a 142. Audition refers to the sense of: a. vision. b. hearing. c. touch. d. taste.

ANSWER: b 143. Clyde is enjoying the roar of the crowd and the sound of the play calling while he is at a football game. His enjoyment is primarily based on his use of his _____ sense. a. auditory b. olfactory c. tactile d. visual ANSWER: a 144. In which example is audition the primary sense being used? a. Justin appreciating a lovely sunset at the park. b. Wang Xiu Ying being startled by an unexpected alarm. .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. Amir wrinkling his nose after raising spoiled milk to his face. d. Darna shivering upon entering a chilly pool.

ANSWER: b 145. As a stimulus, sound can BEST be described as: a. a wavelength. b. a vibration. c. noxious. d. a chemical.

ANSWER: b 146. Loudness is measured in: a. wavelength. b. gestalts. c. hues. d. decibels.

ANSWER: d 147. When a guitar string vibrates, our perception occurs primarily through the use of our _____ sense. a. auditory b. visual c. gustatory d. olfactory ANSWER: a 148. The part of the ear that funnels in sound from the environment is called the _____. a. ossicles b. cochlea c. pinna d. tympanic membrane ANSWER: c 149. The pinna is the part of the ear that: a. acts as a lever to amplify sounds. b. transduces sound into hearing. c. vibrates when it is hit by sound. d. funnels in sound from outside.

ANSWER: d 150. Jenna cups her hands around her ears so she can better hear in a noisy room. She is MOST directly increasing the functionality of her: .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice a. ossicles. b. cochleas. c. pinnas. d. tympanic membranes.

ANSWER: c 151. Nocturnal animals often have large and moveable _____ so they hear softer sounds and can more effectively locate where a sound is coming from. a. ossicles b. cochleas c. pinnas d. tympanic membranes ANSWER: c 152. The tympanic membrane is the part of the ear that: a. acts as a lever to amplify sounds. b. transduces sound into neural activity. c. separates the outer and middle ear. d. funnels in sound from outside.

ANSWER: c 153. The boundary between the outer and middle ear is the: a. oval window membrane. b. cochlea. c. pinna. d. tympanic membrane.

ANSWER: d 154. Penny refers to part of her ear as the "eardrum." You know Penny is talking about the _____ of the ear. a. ossicles b. cochlea c. pinna d. tympanic membrane ANSWER: d 155. Luis has a hole in his tympanic membrane. This means that now when he goes swimming, water may get past his outer ear and into his: a. middle ear. b. cochlea. c. pinna. d. inner ear. .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 156. Nia damaged the part of her ear that separates the outer ear from the middle ear. She MOST likely damaged her: a. tympanic membrane. b. cochlea. c. pinna. d. ossicles.

ANSWER: a 157. The tympanic membrane separates the _____ and the _____. a. middle ear; inner ear b. outer ear; middle ear c. pinna; cochlea d. ossicles; cochlea ANSWER: b 158. The oval window membrane separates the _____ and the _____. a. middle ear; inner ear b. outer ear; middle ear c. pinna; cochlea d. ossicles; cochlea ANSWER: a 159. Which structure of the ear is NOT correctly matched with its ear location? a. middle ear → cochlea b. inner ear → tympanic membrane c. middle ear → ossicles d. outer ear → pinna ANSWER: a 160. Dr. Hartswick's practice specifically focuses on patients who have inner ear problems. Which part of the ear is Dr. Hartswick MOST likely to specialize in? a. cochlea b. tympanic membrane c. ossicles d. pinna ANSWER: a 161. The _____ sends transduced sound information to the brain via the auditory nerve. a. oval window membrane .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. cochlea c. pinna d. tympanic membrane ANSWER: b 162. Antonio experienced an injury that made it impossible for sound information to be transduced and sent to the brain via the auditory nerve. The injury MOST likely damaged his: a. oval window membrane. b. cochlea. c. pinna. d. tympanic membrane.

ANSWER: b 163. Which statement about cochlear implants is true? a. They are the same as hearing aids. b. They use electrodes connected to the middle ear. c. People can only have them in one ear. d. They include parts inside and outside the ear.

ANSWER: d 164. How "high" or "low" a sound is perceived can be described as its: a. hue. b. wavelength. c. pitch. d. intensity.

ANSWER: c 165. Which is false in regard to the pitch of sound? a. High-pitched hearing is the first to decline with age. b. Some species can perceive pitches that others can't. c. Without pitch, loudness could still be perceived. d. The longer a vibration, the higher the pitch.

ANSWER: d 166. At low pitches, the _____ at which sound hits the cochlea is most important for perception. a. frequency b. place c. intensity d. angle ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 167. At a concert, Anna is listening to the booming of a low-pitched bass drum. The _____ at which that sound hits her cochlea is MOST important for her perception. a. frequency b. place c. intensity d. direction ANSWER: a 168. Samuel hears a high-pitched siren. The _____ at which that sound hits his cochlea is MOST important for perception. a. frequency b. place c. intensity d. direction ANSWER: b 169. At high pitches, the _____ at which sound hits the cochlea is most important for perception. a. frequency b. place c. intensity d. angle ANSWER: b 170. At high pitches, the _____ at which sound hits the cochlea is most important for perception, and, at low pitches, the _____ at which sound hits the cochlea is most important for perception. a. frequency; place b. place; frequency c. intensity; angle d. angle; intensity ANSWER: b 171. According to _____ theory, pitches are processed and perceived by the cochlea before the signal reaches the brain. a. frequency b. place c. trichromatic d. opponent process ANSWER: b 172. According to _____ theory, pitches are not processed in the cochlea, but rather remain unprocessed until they reach the brain. a. frequency .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. place c. trichromatic d. opponent process ANSWER: a 173. Ivan hears a clap of thunder a few moments before Elsa does. Ivan is MOST likely _____ the storm than Elsa is. a. closer to b. farther from c. attending more to d. attending less to ANSWER: a 174. Your brain can figure out from which direction a sound is coming by: a. determining the frequency at which the cochlea vibrates. b. assessing what place in the cochlea the sound hits. c. measuring the timing discrepancy between ears. d. proportionately reacting to different wavelengths.

ANSWER: c 175. Which statement is false about sound localization? a. The brain needs only a microsecond difference to determine location. b. If it is directly behind you, a sound will hit both ears at the same time. c. It is based on the discrepancy between sound arrival at each ear. d. Sound coming from the left will be louder in the right ear than the left.

ANSWER: d 176. Which statement is false about speech perception? a. The brain may be specialized to speech in the way that vision is to faces. b. When listening to music, people tend to listen primarily with their left ear. c. When listening to speech, people tend to listen equally with both ears. d. Special brain areas of 3-month-old babies are active when they hear speech.

ANSWER: c 177. On average, female infants hear _____ than male infants, and female adults hear _____ than male adults. a. better; better b. worse; worse c. worse; better d. better; worse ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 178. Olfaction is the sense of: a. vision. b. hearing. c. smell. d. taste.

ANSWER: c 179. Which statement is true about olfaction? a. It is only in multi-cellular organisms. b. There are four types of receptor cells for odors. c. Humans have a total of 6–10 million receptor cells. d. Humans can detect more tastes than smells.

ANSWER: c 180. Lorraine's sense of olfaction is impaired, which means she does not _____ well. a. see b. hear c. smell d. taste ANSWER: c 181. Which is the correct order of odor processing? a. cilia → olfactory bulbs → olfactory cortex b. olfactory cortex → cilia → olfactory bulbs c. olfactory bulbs → olfactory cortex → cilia d. olfactory bulbs → cilia → olfactory cortex ANSWER: a 182. _____ are scent-seeking threads found on receptor cells in the nose. a. Olfactory bulbs b. Cilia c. Olfactory cortexes d. Rods ANSWER: b 183. Prashanti had a virus that damaged the tiny scent-seeking threads that extend from olfactory receptor cells in their nose. Prashanti's _____ were damaged. a. olfactory bulbs b. cilia c. cones d. rods .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 184. _____ are structures on the underside of the brain that receive scent information directly from receptor cells. a. Olfactory bulbs b. Cilia c. Olfactory cortexes d. Rods ANSWER: a 185. _____ are a collection of brain regions involved in smell. a. Olfactory bulbs b. Cilia c. Olfactory cortexes d. Rods ANSWER: c 186. _____ are found in the nose, whereas _____ are found in the brain. a. Olfactory bulbs; cilia b. Cilia; olfactory bulbs c. Olfactory cortexes; olfactory bulbs d. Olfactory bulbs; olfactory cortexes ANSWER: b 187. Lexi was hit in the nose by a fly ball during a baseball game. They've since noticed their sense of smell is much less sensitive than before. The ball to the nose MOST likely damaged Lexi's: a. cilia. b. olfactory bulbs. c. rods. d. olfactory cortexes.

ANSWER: a 188. Regina began to lose her sense of smell and went to her doctor to find out why. Her doctor ordered a brain scan, and it showed that Regina had a tumor on the underside of her brain. The tumor was MOST likely affecting Regina's smell by impinging on her: a. cilia. b. olfactory bulbs. c. rods. d. olfactory cortexes.

ANSWER: b 189. Stella smells a cologne that reminds her of her boyfriend. This perception is MOST likely due to activation .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice of her: a. cilia. b. olfactory bulbs. c. cochlea. d. amygdala.

ANSWER: d 190. The _____ is the brain area that is considered part of the olfactory cortex and facilitates emotional responses to smells. a. taste bud b. olfactory bulb c. thalamus d. amygdala ANSWER: d 191. Grace is attracted to Frankie but is not consciously aware of why. The reason behind this is MOST likely due to: a. odors. b. audition. c. pheromones. d. gustation.

ANSWER: c 192. _____ are chemical signals detected by your nose that have an effect on your emotions and behavior without your conscious awareness. a. Odors b. Hues c. Cilia d. Pheromones ANSWER: d 193. Which statement is false about pheromones? a. A person must be consciously aware of a pheromone for it to have an effect on behavior. b. They can be used by some species to identify how many times a female has mated. c. Those found in men's sweat can be sexually attracting to women who are attracted to men. d. Those found in men's sweat can be sexually attracting to men who are attracted to men.

ANSWER: a 194. Which statement is false about variations in olfactory ability? a. People who develop Parkinson's or Alzheimer's disease become more sensitive to smells. b. Individuals with olfactory impairment are more likely to die than those with intact smell. .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. Regular exercise can maintain or even improve the sense of smell of older adults. d. Most anosmia and hyposmia are temporary and caused by the flu or sinus infections.

ANSWER: a 195. Which statement is false about the impact of COVID on olfactory ability? a. COVID often results in anosmia or micronosmia in people. b. COVID impairs the ability to smell unpleasant, but not pleasant odors. c. After recovery from COVID, many people still experience parosmia. d. Loss of smell is a hallmark indicator of at least some strains of COVID. ANSWER: b 196. The onset of Parkinson's or Alzheimer's disease may be accompanied by diminished ability to: a. see. b. touch. c. hear. d. smell.

ANSWER: d 197. Jin is developing Parkinson's disease. He would be MOST likely to notice a decline is his sense of: a. sight. b. touch. c. hearing. d. smell.

ANSWER: d 198. On average when compared to men, women are _____ at smelling items that are on average associated with the female construct of gender, like fingernail polish, and _____ at smelling items that are on average associated with the male construct of gender, like motor oil. a. better; worse b. worse; better c. better; better d. worse; worse ANSWER: c 199. Which statement is false about variations in olfactory ability? a. The chance of becoming anosmic or hyposmic increases as people age. b. Women detect a wide range of smells with better accuracy than do men. c. Older Hispanic adults have worse senses of smell than older white adults. d. African Americans have better senses of smell than white Americans.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 200. Gustation is the sense of: a. vision. b. hearing. c. smell. d. taste.

ANSWER: d 201. Taste receptor cells are found on taste: a. rods. b. cilia. c. buds. d. bulbs.

ANSWER: c 202. Which statement is false about gustation? a. Taste receptor cells are replaced every 10 days. b. There are four definite tastes and a possible fifth. c. Supertasters are very sensitive to bitter tastes. d. Men have more taste buds than women.

ANSWER: d 203. Mohan, a man, is _____ likely than Zora, a woman, to be a supertaster, and Mohan likely has _____ taste buds than Zora. a. less; fewer b. less; more c. more; more d. more; fewer ANSWER: a 204. Maddie is a supertaster. Which foods are they LEAST likely to consume? a. kale, broccoli, cabbage b. milk, cheese, yogurt c. lemon, orange, pineapple d. carrots, peas, corn ANSWER: a 205. Which statement is false about supertasters? a. They have more taste buds than regular tasters. b. They are more likely to be men than women. c. They detect the burn of alcohol more than tasters. d. They are less likely to eat green leafy vegetables. .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 206. Which is NOT a primary taste? a. sweet b. sour c. spicy d. salty ANSWER: c 207. Jeanette says she likes how spicy foods taste. Her statement is technically incorrect because spicy: a. activates the cochlea. b. is a mix of bitter and salty. c. is not a taste. d. activates cilia.

ANSWER: c 208. Researchers agree on the existence of four primary tastes, but it is debated whether _____ is a singular taste or a combination of other tastes. a. sweet b. bitter c. umami d. salty ANSWER: c 209. Dr. Yamamoto studies taste, and he focuses on the savory flavor of protein. He MOST likely studies _____ taste. a. sweet b. bitter c. umami d. salty ANSWER: c 210. The savory flavor of protein, like that found in monosodium glutamate (MSG), is often described as: a. sour. b. bitter. c. umami. d. spicy.

ANSWER: c 211. If a candy is more acidic than sugary, its primary taste would MOST likely be: a. sweet. .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice b. bitter. c. umami. d. sour.

ANSWER: d 212. Eli does not like broccoli or Brussels sprouts. He reads that this may be because these vegetables contain alkaloids, which make these vegetable's primary taste: a. spicy. b. bitter. c. umami. d. sweet.

ANSWER: b 213. The MOST likely reason people come to like certain foods is due to: a. high exposure to them. b. liking them as kids. c. disliking them as kids. d. low exposure to them.

ANSWER: a 214. If you eat healthier foods consistently for a long time, your taste preferences will eventually change, too.

You will like the healthier foods _____ and like the unhealthy foods _____. a. more; less b. more; more c. less; less d. less; more ANSWER: a 215. Your _____ are the senses you experience through your skin, like touch, temperature, and pain. a. kinesthetic senses b. vestibular senses c. chemical senses d. somatosenses ANSWER: d 216. Jan feels a breeze cool their skin on a hot day. Jan is MOST likely experiencing this through their: a. kinesthetic senses. b. vestibular senses. c. chemical senses. d. somatosenses.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 217. As Genji walks across the floor of their younger nephew's room, they accidentally step on a small building block that uncomfortably pressed into their skin. They are MOST likely experiencing this discomfort through their: a. kinesthetic senses. b. vestibular senses. c. visual senses. d. somatosenses.

ANSWER: d 218. Which of the somatosenses are researchers MOST likely to study? a. itch b. tickle c. tingle d. pain ANSWER: d 219. The top layer of the skin is called the _____, and the layer underneath is the _____. a. rods; cones b. cones; rods c. dermis; epidermis d. epidermis; dermis ANSWER: d 220. Pablo sustained burns that damaged the top layer of the skin. Which statement about his burns is MOST likely true? a. Neither his epidermis nor dermis were burned. b. Both his epidermis and dermis were burned. c. His dermis but not his epidermis was burned. d. His epidermis but not his dermis was burned.

ANSWER: d 221. Which is NOT a type of receptor found in the skin? a. photoreceptors b. mechanoreceptors c. thermoreceptors d. nociceptors ANSWER: a 222. Which type of receptor found in the skin is activated by pain? a. photoreceptors b. mechanoreceptors .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice c. thermoreceptors d. nociceptors ANSWER: d 223. Which type of receptor found in the skin is activated by light touch? a. photoreceptors b. mechanoreceptors c. thermoreceptors d. nociceptors ANSWER: b 224. When Manaia burned his hand on an iron, the two types of somatosensory receptors he MOST likely activated were _____ and _____. a. mechanoreceptors; nociceptors b. mechanoreceptors; photoreceptors c. thermoreceptors; photoreceptors d. nociceptors; thermoreceptors ANSWER: d 225. Which statement about somatosensation is false? a. Common household items can typically be recognized through touch within only 3 seconds with an accuracy rate of 95%. b. The grating orientation discrimination test evaluates the ability to discriminate between rough and smooth objects. c. The limit of being able to detect when grooves are present or not in an object is when the grooves are narrower than 1 mm. d. Accuracy for a small distance on the two-point threshold test would be greater on the fingertips than on the back.

ANSWER: b 226. Which statement about detecting temperature is true? a. Nociceptors detect small changes in temperature. b. There are separate receptors for hot and cold. c. Your skin has an equal distribution of temperature receptors. d. There are over 20 types of temperature receptors.

ANSWER: b 227. Which of the somatosenses is considered by researchers to be the MOST difficult to objectively study? a. pain b. touch c. temperature d. audition .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 228. The gate control theory of pain posits that there are _____ dimensions of pain. a. two b. three c. four d. five ANSWER: b 229. The gate control theory of pain posits that the _____ system identifies where the pain is and how bad it is, whereas the _____ system produces the emotions you have about the pain. a. sensory–discriminative; motivational–affective b. sensory–discriminative; cognitive–evaluative c. motivational–affective; sensory–discriminative d. cognitive–evaluative; sensory–discriminative ANSWER: a 230. The gate control theory of pain posits that the _____ system determines your interpretation and response to the pain, whereas the _____ system produces the emotions you have about the pain. a. sensory–discriminative; motivational–affective b. motivational–affective; cognitive–evaluative c. motivational–affective; sensory–discriminative d. cognitive–evaluative; motivational–affective ANSWER: d 231. Yuusuf sustained a painful injury during a sporting event. He knows it's limited to his wrist, but he also feels that the pain is affecting his entire life and mood. The gate control theory of pain would posit that Yuusuf perceiving pain in his wrist is determined by the _____ system, and that his emotions about the pain are produced by the _____ system. a. sensory–discriminative; motivational–affective b. motivational–affective; cognitive–evaluative c. motivational–affective; sensory–discriminative d. cognitive–evaluative; motivational–affective ANSWER: a 232. Which statement is true about phantom limb pain? a. It can be fully explained by gate control theory. b. It is not experienced by people with paralyzed limbs. c. It may be due to the brain's attempts at reorganizing. d. There are no treatments available to decrease it.

ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice 233. Chad was in an accident that required amputation of one of his legs, and now he feels pain in the site where his leg used to be. He is MOST likely experiencing: a. gate control. b. phantom limb pain. c. the sensory–discriminative system. d. depth perception.

ANSWER: b 234. Your _____ allow you to perceive your position and the movement of your body in space. a. somatosenses b. kinesthetic senses c. vestibular senses d. chemical senses ANSWER: b 235. Your sense of balance is achieved through your: a. somatosenses. b. kinesthetic senses. c. vestibular senses. d. chemical senses.

ANSWER: c 236. Receptors for your kinesthetic senses are found in your_____, and receptors for your vestibular senses are found in your _____. a. skin; ears b. ears; skin c. muscles; ears d. muscles; skin ANSWER: c 237. Rachelle sustained a concussion and has been feeling dizzy and off-balance for the past week. This is MOST likely due to an impact on receptors found in Rachelle's: a. eyes. b. skin. c. ears. d. muscles.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 4 - Essay 1. Describe three theories which try to explain why humans sleep.

ANSWER: The inactivity theory posits that, by staying still at night, sleeping helped humans avoid predators that can see better in darkness than can we. The energy conservation theory explains sleep as a way to conserve calories, as we spend far fewer calories when asleep than when awake. This would be especially crucial when food is difficult to find and store. The restorative theory suggests that sleep is time necessary for the body to recharge and strengthen itself. The brain plasticity theory states that sleep allows the brain to change, grow, and reorganize itself. The evolutionary theory points out that sleep is a time where memories can be consolidated and the vision system can rest.

2. Define sleep deprivation and describe how it affects a person's performance. Then consider the following scenario: Kirisa is about to defend their research thesis to attain honors in their major, and they stayed up all night to practice. How might Kirisa's mood and performance be affected by sleep deprivation?

ANSWER: Sleep deprivation is the failure to get enough sleep, regardless of the reason. Sleep deprivation can negatively affect a person's mood and can lead to outcomes such as irritability, moodiness, and anxiety. There are four major ways sleep deprivation can affect performance. One such way is cognitive slowing. A person's neurons and the connections between them just do not function as fast when they are sleep deprived. The second way is cognitive rigidity. Cognitive rigidity means that a person will suffer a lack of originality and creativity of thought. The third way sleep deprivation affects a person is it decreases motivation. A person will be less driven to do well as well as have less concern when they do not do well. The fourth and final way is likelihood of unintended sleep the next day. A person is more likely to doze off or to daydream or space out the day after a sleepless night.

[Actual student answers will vary but will include information such as what is described below.]

Kirisa's mood may be negatively affected the day of the performance. The defense is important and, due to sleep deprivation, Kirisa could feel more anxious than usual during the presentation and discussion. Kirisa also may not respond as quickly as needed during the defense discussion while also having less motivation than usual to try and do well. Kirisa may be less attentive because they are daydreaming or spacing out. This could affect how well they pay attention to instructions or attends to what is going on around them. Finally, Kirisa may not be as able to deal with surprises (e.g., need to change rooms, unanticipated questions) or other needed adjustments that might arise during their presentation (e.g., having to backtrack due to information they forgot to explain).

3. Describe the circadian rhythm, including how it can be affected by external cues. Provide an example that was not included in your textbook to illustrate your answer.

ANSWER: The circadian rhythm is a 24-hour cycle that controls our body's functioning, including the sleep cycle. The circadian rhythm affects when we wake up and go to sleep and different levels of alertness throughout the day. This cycle is affected by external cues like lightness and darkness.

Lightness and darkness can affect what time we wake and sleep, as well as how many hours we sleep. The time of day a person works can also affect the cycle. People who work shift work, especially overnight, have significant problems with their sleep–wake cycle. Eating at unusual times, the time of year, and sleeping during the day can also disrupt our sleep cycle.

[Student examples will vary].

4. Imagine a person is a participant in a research study on the circadian rhythm. In this study, this person will spend 2 weeks in a specially made building. In this building, all cues about the time of day are removed and the lights in the building remain on at all times. Explain the circadian rhythm and how it may be affected by the study environment. .

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Chapter 4 - Essay ANSWER: The circadian rhythm is a 24-hour cycle that controls our body's functioning, including the sleep cycle. The circadian rhythm affects when we wake up and go to sleep and different levels of alertness throughout the day. This cycle is affected by external cues like lightness and darkness. A person who is exposed to the study's environment would likely maintain close to a 24-hour cycle.

However, a person could also have disruption in when they sleep and wake because our bodies tend to try to stay awake when it is light and sleep when it is dark. If it is always light, a person can experience sleep deprivation.

[Student examples will vary.]

5. Give three examples of how sleep differs across different groups of people—base your answers on gender, ethnicity, age, and/or sexual orientation.

ANSWER: Women sleep for longer periods than do men, as well as experience more slow-wave sleep. Women experience insomnia more frequently than do men, and this can be exacerbated by pregnancy, nursing, PMS, or menopause. Men more often present with sleep apnea. In certain ethnic groups, monophasic sleep is the norm, during which sleep is almost exclusively limited to a single period at night. Other ethnic groups engage in biphasic or polyphasic sleep such that sleep occurs across the day. In the United States, White children go to bed earlier, have more consistent bedtimes, sleep longer, and nap less than Black or Latinx children; however, this may be due to socio-economic status as opposed to race or ethnicity. Children—especially when very young—sleep more than adults. The sleep schedule of high school-aged youth tends to shift to a later waking time and bedtime. Older adults sleep in similar amounts and patterns as they did as young adults, as long as they are healthy. The increased frequency of illness and injury in older adults often results in less sleep of lesser quality. People who are straight sleep longer, have better quality sleep, and have fewer sleep problems than people who are gay, lesbian, or bisexual. Some studies suggest that people who are bisexual have more sleep problems than do people who are gay or lesbian.

6. Define insomnia. Discuss three causes or sources of insomnia. Give a real-life example to illustrate your answer.

ANSWER: Insomnia is a common sleep disorder in which a person consistently has significant difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep. Insomnia can also cause a person to wake up too early as well as not be able to get back to sleep. A person with insomnia often does not feel rested after they awaken.

Attempts to fall asleep are often unsuccessful. Insomnia is more common in women than men.

There are several identifiable causes of insomnia, although for many, there is no identifiable reason for the disorder. Insomnia can be caused by mental health or physical health problems, use of substances like caffeine and alcohol, unhealthy sleep habits, and uncontrolled movement of the arms and legs.

[Example: A person has poor sleep habits. He drinks caffeine in the evening and rarely falls asleep before 2:00 A.M. He also has a lot going on at school and has been very anxious, causing him to have even more trouble falling asleep than usual.]

[Student examples will vary.]

7. Compare and contrast sleep terrors and nightmares. Cite at least four specific examples of how they differ in your answer.

ANSWER: Sleep terrors occur when a person awakens very suddenly from non-REM sleep, often by screaming.

The person feels a strong sense of fear and panic. Sleep terrors differ from nightmares. Nightmares are frightening dreams that occur during REM sleep, and they do not involve intense fear. Sleep .

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Chapter 4 - Essay terrors are essentially panic attacks that begin while a person is asleep, causing the person to suddenly wake in terror. Sleep terrors usually occur within the first hour and a half of sleep and are relatively uncommon, whereas nightmares are a relatively common occurrence. Sleep terrors tend to run in the family but are seen more commonly in children than adults. People who have sleep terrors often do not remember them later. People who have nightmares are more likely to remember them than those who have sleep terrors.

[Student examples will vary.]

8. Compare and contrast narcolepsy and insomnia. Provide an example for each to illustrate your answer.

Define narcolepsy and insomnia. Describe two ways they are similar and two ways they are different.

ANSWER: Narcolepsy is when a person has periods in which they suddenly and unexpectedly fall asleep. The person will go from being awake directly to REM sleep. Insomnia occurs when a person consistently has significant difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep. Attempts to fall asleep are often unsuccessful. Narcolepsy and insomnia are both sleep disorders. Both impair a person's ability to experience a normal sleep–wake cycle and quality of sleep. Both disorders involve a lack of control by the sufferer.

The two disorders affect different times of the day. Narcolepsy involves unexpected and unwanted sleep during the day. Insomnia typically occurs when people sleep, which is usually at night. There is no conscious effort by a person with narcolepsy to move into the sleep state, whereas a person with insomnia usually expends a significant amount of effort to fall asleep. For both disorders, the person who has it has difficulty alleviating the symptoms.

[Student examples will vary.]

9. Giyang is a nurse practitioner at the campus health center, and he is working with a student who is consistently having trouble getting to and staying asleep. Describe five behaviors the student could change or adopt that might help with her sleep problems.

ANSWER: The textbook discusses several behaviors that are helpful in developing good sleep hygiene. Sleep hygiene involves routine behaviors that promote healthy sleep. The behaviors focus on what can be avoided that keeps a person awake and what can be done to allow a person to sleep well. The behaviors to be avoided will stimulate a person or produce a state (e.g., being too full) that makes it difficult to sleep. The behaviors to engage in are those that allow a person to wind down, relax, and fall asleep.

Many behaviors contribute to a good sleep routine. One behavior is maintaining a consistent sleep schedule. This involves waking up and going to sleep at the same time each day. Another behavior is exercising only during daytime hours. Exercising later in the day can make it difficult to wind down and fall asleep, especially if done directly before bed. Heavy meals should also be avoided before bed, as should smoking and drinking alcohol. All of these things can cause a person to have more trouble falling asleep, staying asleep, or having restful sleep. Caffeine should also be avoided after 12:00 P.M. for the same reasons. The sleep environment should also be conducive to good sleep. A quiet, dark environment provides the best atmosphere to fall asleep and to have a restful sleep. A person's sleep cycle can also be affected by naps in the afternoon and evening, causing difficulty in falling asleep. Finally, using devices with bright screens close to bedtime should be avoided. The light from these screens can affect a person's circadian rhythm, causing less sleep than needed.

[Student examples will vary.]

10. Compare and contrast the nonsense theory of dreams and the message theory of dreams. Provide an example .

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Chapter 4 - Essay of a dream to illustrate how each theory would interpret that dream.

ANSWER: Nonsense theory proposes that dreams hold no meaning and are only random images from the brain.

The "nonsense" refers to the idea that the content of dreams makes no sense. Dreams are there to experience and enjoy for what they are but no more than that. The message theory of dreams holds that dreams impart meaningful information to us. This information could come from others, such as family members, or it can come from our unconscious. The information is important in some way and is intended to relay information to the person having the dream, potentially for that person to act upon. The two theories are similar in that they provide an explanation for the function of our dreams. They differ significantly in what that function is. The two are on opposite sides regarding the function. The nonsense theory says dreams have no meaning and the message theory says that dreams have significant meaning to a person.

[Student examples will vary.]

11. Identify and describe the dream theory discussed in your textbook that most closely matches Freud's theory of dreaming.

ANSWER: The message theory of dreams most closely relates to Freud's theory of dreams. Freud's theory says that dreams reveal what is in a person's unconscious mind. This includes deeply hidden wishes that a person is unaware of while awake. These wishes are disguised in symbolism. The actual wish is called the latent or hidden content. The wish is transformed into the manifest content, which is the actual story or dream experienced. Therapy can help identify the manifest content's latent meaning.

The message theory of dreams holds that dreams impart meaningful information to people. This information could come from others, such as family members, or it can come from the unconscious.

The information is important in some way and is intended to relay information to the person having the dream, potentially for that person to act upon. Both theories assume that a dream is meaningful and is intended to convey information. However, the message theory does not assume that the information is hidden in symbols that require interpretation. It also does not assume the information must be acted upon.

[Student examples will vary.]

12. Describe the visitation theory of dreams. Provide an example of a dream to illustrate your answer. Discuss how a person who subscribes to this theory would interpret the dream.

ANSWER: Visitation theory holds that a person's dreams are visits from supernatural spirits. These spirits are using dreams to make contact with a person. A visitation dream typically feels real to a person, as if they are being visited by a loved one who passed away or from another spirit. Visitation dreams are often seen as comforting and loving, offering reassurance to the person dreaming. They often follow the death of a loved one.

[Student examples will vary.]

13. Describe the message and generative theories of dreams. Provide an example of a dream and explain how the two theories would differ in their interpretations of the dream. Also explain how these two theories would be similar in their interpretations of the dream.

ANSWER: The message theory of dreams holds that dreams contain important messages. The messages can be from ourselves or from others. The generative theory says that dreams predict the future and can help to generate or determine it.

The similarity in interpretation would be that important information is imparted through the dream.

The information comes from something or someone outside the person, or from a part of the person .

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Chapter 4 - Essay that is inaccessible. The difference would be how each theory sees the purpose and meaning of the dream. The message itself has no particular theme or focus with message theory. In generative theory, the focus of the dream is narrower—the future.

[Student examples will vary.]

14. Define hypnosis. Also, describe the procedure of hypnotism. Give an example that was not included in your textbook to illustrate your answer.

ANSWER: Hypnosis is an altered state of consciousness in which one person, the participant, becomes very suggestible to another person, the hypnotist. The procedure of hypnotism begins with an induction, which is an attempt to change the consciousness of the participant. The hypnotist typically conducts induction by reading or reciting a script that instructs the person to unwind and calm themselves to a point that approaches sleep (but does not drift into sleep). During induction, the participant either focuses their eyes on a target or feels their muscles relax. Once the induction is complete, the next step in the hypnosis procedure is a suggestion, in which the hypnotist tells the participant to perform a certain behavior. The hypnotist may offer suggestions about how a participant will think, feel, or behave after hypnosis has been concluded as well. This is called posthypnotic suggestion. Once the suggestions are complete, the hypnotist terminates the hypnosis.

[Student examples will vary].

15. Describe addiction, withdrawal, and dependence. Explain how the three are related to one another as well as how they differ. Provide an example to illustrate your answer.

ANSWER: Each concept is intertwined with the others. Addiction is problematic drug use that persists in spite of negative consequences. Withdrawal and dependence may be experienced by a person with addiction. Mental and physical dependence are major contributors to addiction. Dependence is a need for a drug because a person feels they need it to function normally. However, addiction involves more than just dependency. It also involves the behaviors and outcomes of a person who takes a drug. Dependence is a part of the foundation of addiction, but not the sole cause.

Dependence can also contribute to withdrawal. Withdrawal occurs when a person stops taking a drug habitually taken, resulting in many uncomfortable symptoms. Feeling a need to use a drug drives a person to use it, creating the potential for withdrawal when the drug is stopped. A person has a need for the drug but also wants to avoid the uncomfortable symptoms that come when the drug is stopped. Withdrawal can happen at any point for a person with addiction, but it is not a constant state. The pattern of drug use will affect when and how withdrawal happens. Also, dependence can occur whether or not a person experiences symptoms of withdrawal.

[Student examples will vary.]

16. Compare and contrast stimulants and depressants. Discuss how each affects a person's body and behavior.

Provide an example of a drug that falls in each category to illustrate your answer.

ANSWER: Depressants and stimulants have contrasting effects on a person's body. Stimulants are drugs that speed up a person's bodily functioning, whereas depressants slow bodily functioning. Stimulants increase energy and alleviate fatigue. However, they also cause increased heart rate, blood pressure, and muscle tension. Depressants slow the central nervous system function, lowering a person's heart rate, blood pressure, and muscular tension. With depressants a person's reasoning and judgment can become impaired. Stimulants include substances like caffeine and nicotine. Depressants include substances such as alcohol and benzodiazepines.

[Student examples will vary.] .

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Chapter 4 - Essay 17. Compare and contrast stimulants and opiates/opioids. Provide an example of a drug that falls in each category to illustrate how they affect the body and a person's behavior.

ANSWER: Stimulants are drugs that speed up a person's bodily functioning. They increase energy and alleviate fatigue. Stimulants include caffeine, nicotine, methamphetamine, and ADHD drugs containing amphetamine and methylphenidate. Opiates and opioids are drugs that relieve pain and produce feelings of euphoria and pleasure. They operate on the same neuron receptors as endorphins and cause a similar, although enhanced, feeling. Opiates are made from poppy plants, and opioids are made synthetically. Examples of these are heroin, codeine, and oxycodone.

Both types of drugs have an effect on the functioning of the mind and body. There are legal and illegal versions of each type of drug. Both stimulants and opiates are addictive and can be dangerous to take. The drugs differ in the type of effect they have on the body. Stimulants increase a person's mental and physical functioning and opiates decrease that functioning.

[Student examples will vary.]

18. Describe meditation and mindfulness. Explain the relationship between the two concepts. Also explain how the two concepts differ from one another. Provide an example for each to support your answer.

ANSWER: Meditation is an activity that is designed to increase a person's focused attention with the purpose of improving one's mental state. Meditation is practiced in different ways, but it typically involves emptying the mind of thoughts and activity to allow a person to focus awareness on that person's mental state. With some types of meditation, focus is placed on a word, sound, or phrase that a person can say over and over to assist in emptying the mind. Mindfulness is a mental state in which a person is aware of moment-to-moment experiences fully, deliberately, and without distraction.

Both concepts involve awareness of a person's experiences as those experiences happen in the present. Both also involve engaging in that awareness without distraction. Meditation is a practice that can vary according to who is doing it; mindfulness is a mental state. Mindfulness is a foundational belief incorporated into meditation. Meditation takes the idea of mindfulness and puts it into practice.

[Student examples will vary.]

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 1. A common thread across various definitions of consciousness is that it: a. is the ability to recognize and be responsive to what's happening in and around you. b. is only present in humans, and no other animals or machines could attain it. c. can only be achieved if the organism understands the intention of others. d. is only present when one can think about what others are thinking.

ANSWER: a 2. Some animals sleep with one eye open to keep a look out for predators. This type of sleep is called _____ sleep. a. monophasic b. polyphasic c. unihemispheric d. bihemispheric ANSWER: c 3. Unlike some other animals, human beings sleep with both eyes closed. Some animals sleep with one eye open to keep a look out for predators. This type of sleep is called _____ sleep. a. monophasic b. polyphasic c. unihemispheric d. bihemispheric ANSWER: c 4. Dr. Bakin is a neuroscientist who performs research showing that sleep helps to consolidate memories and rest the vision system. The theory regarding the purpose of sleep that Dr. Bakin MOST likely supports is the _____ theory. a. inactivity b. restorative c. energy conservation d. evolutionary ANSWER: d 5. Kirsten almost always gets ill when cold and flu viruses are going around campus. Kirsten believes they are often sick because they are under a lot of stress and don't sleep well. The _____ theory of sleep BEST supports Kirsten's belief. a. inactivity b. restorative c. brain plasticity d. evolutionary ANSWER: b 6. Which theory regarding why we sleep is NOT correctly described? .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice a. Inactivity: helps keep humans out of danger at times when they can't see well. b. Energy conservation: since sleeping uses a lot of calories, we only do it periodically. c. Restorative: sleep helps the body prevent and recover from illness. d. Brain plasticity: sleep allows the brain to change, grow, and reorganize itself.

ANSWER: b 7. Which statement about sleep is true? a. Human sleep patterns have changed very little over evolutionary time. b. Sleep theories tend to emphasize the role of evolution. c. Humans of the current era spend over 50% of their lives sleeping. d. Researchers generally agree energy conservation is the sole reason humans sleep.

ANSWER: b 8. _____ is a person's awareness of themselves and their surroundings. a. Consciousness b. Mindfulness c. Meditation d. Déjà vu ANSWER: a 9. Anago learned in their psychology class that there may be many reasons why humans and other animals sleep. Anago relates most with the theory that proposes that the reason why we sleep is to allow the body to recharge and strengthen, which is known as the _____ theory of sleep. a. circadian b. energy conservation c. brain plasticity d. restorative ANSWER: d 10. Dr. Pao wants to link if failure to get enough sleep impacts athletic performance. Dr. Pao chooses to include any participant if they failed to get enough sleep, regardless of the reason for the lack of sleep. The focus of this study is MOST likely on: a. circadian rhythms. b. somnambulism. c. sleep deprivation. d. sleep apnea.

ANSWER: c 11. Kadence is writing a paper on sleep for her psychology class. The focus of her paper will be on failure to get enough sleep, regardless of the reason for the lack of sleep. The focus of Kadence's paper is MOST likely: a. biphasic sleep. b. sleep hygiene. .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. sleep deprivation. d. polyphasic sleep.

ANSWER: c 12. _____ is the failure to get enough sleep, regardless of the reason. a. Insomnia b. Somnambulism c. Sleep deprivation d. Solitary sleeping ANSWER: c 13. Sleep deprivation is the failure to get enough sleep: a. due to a sleep disorder. b. regardless of the reason. c. not due to a sleep disorder. d. due to poor sleep hygiene.

ANSWER: b 14. Sleep deprivation can cause all of these outcomes, EXCEPT for: a. cognitive inflexibility. b. sleep disorders. c. unintended sleep. d. poor motivation.

ANSWER: b 15. Changying stayed up all night studying and did not sleep. In class the next day, Changying finds it more difficult to link concepts discussed in class, and they feel like they can't add to class discussions like they normally do. Changying is MOST likely experiencing _____ as a result of their sleep deprivation. a. cognitive rigidity b. unintended sleep c. decreased motivation d. sleep apnea ANSWER: a 16. Sleep deprivation can affect the functioning of neurons and the connections between them. This effect is evident in tasks that require repetitive, fast responsive actions, such as that done in some games. This effect of sleep deprivation is called: a. cognitive rigidity. b. cognitive slowing. c. decreased motivation. d. unintended sleep. .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 17. Maya spent a sleepless night cramming for an exam. When Maya took her exam the next day, she noticed that it took her longer than usual to process information on the exam. Maya had to reread questions several times and had trouble deciding on the correct answer for many questions. A sleep researcher would likely say Maya is experiencing _____ due to sleep deprivation. a. cognitive slowing b. cognitive rigidity c. decreased motivation d. cognitive impairment ANSWER: a 18. For the past week, Li Na was very busy and slept very little. Li Na spent the entire week studying for an important exam. Li Na's grade on the exam would significantly affect her course grade, driving her to study hard. However, when Li Na took the exam, she felt she did not do as well as she should have given the amount of studying she did. For Li Na, her performance was likely MOST affected by: a. lack of interest in the material being assessed. b. poorer memory and reasoning than usual. c. increased irritability and moodiness. d. having less motivation to do well than usual.

ANSWER: b 19. Sleep deprivation is MOST associated with which of these outcomes? a. paradoxical sleep b. poor sleep hygiene c. decreased motivation d. more bad dreams ANSWER: c 20. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, approximately _____% of adults in the United States get less than 7 hours of sleep a day on a regular basis. a. 15 b. 25 c. 35 d. 45 ANSWER: c 21. Which is NOT a researched consequence of sleep deprivation? a. A bad night's sleep promotes higher levels of anxiety the following day. b. Partial sleep deprivation night after night is never as bad as full sleep deprivation. c. Sleep-deprived drivers are much more likely to be involved in a car crash. d. Fully sleep-deprived people perform worse but believe that they perform better. .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 22. A person's _____ makes them predictably sleepy at certain times of day and predictably alert at others. a. circadian rhythm b. sleep hygiene c. consciousness d. REM sleep ANSWER: a 23. The circadian rhythm of humans is on a _____ cycle. a. 12-hour b. 18-hour c. 24-hour d. 30-hour ANSWER: c 24. The 24-hour cycle that controls the function of the brain and body is the: a. peripheral body clock. b. sleep cycle. c. circadian rhythm. d. dream cycle.

ANSWER: c 25. Alma asked her professor when an assignment was due. Her professor jokingly told Alma, "At the end of two human circadian rhythm cycles." Alma knew that her professor meant that assignment was due in _____ hours. a. 12 b. 24 c. 36 d. 48 ANSWER: d 26. Tatiyana wants to schedule a Saturday study session at the time she would be most alert. Based on what she has learned in her psychology class, Tatiyana would MOST likely schedule her study session: a. early in the morning. b. around noon. c. in the mid-afternoon. d. in late evening.

ANSWER: b 27. In _____ sleep studies, circadian rhythms are studied by placing people in environments devoid of time cues. .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice a. tightly controlled b. free-running c. non-REM d. REM ANSWER: b 28. Zara recently completed a sleep study in which they spent 2 weeks in a room where they had no clues about the time of day. There were no clocks or windows, and the light levels inside remained the same during the entire study. At the end of the study, Zara's sleep and wake cycle would MOST likely average about _____ hours. a. 18 b. 21 c. 24 d. 27 ANSWER: c 29. What would be the expected outcome of damage to the suprachiasmatic nucleus? a. shortening of the circadian rhythm b. lengthening of the circadian rhythm c. developing sleep-related problems d. eliminating the ability to dream ANSWER: c 30. All of these statements about the sensitivity of human sleep patterns to environmental cues such as lightness and darkness are true EXCEPT that: a. treatment of circadian rhythm disorders often includes bright light therapy. b. people in rural areas tend to have circadian rhythms that match natural sunrise–sunset patterns. c. people in urban areas tend to have circadian rhythms that match natural sunrise–sunset patterns. d. circadian rhythm responds to light-producing stimuli in day-to-day life.

ANSWER: c 31. _____ refers to the relationship between a person's eating schedule and the natural highs and lows in their energy levels. a. REM rebound b. Somnambulism c. Chrononutrition d. Sleep hygiene ANSWER: c 32. Marcus recently started working the overnight shift at his job. When he switched to the night shift, Marcus changed when he ate breakfast, lunch, and dinner. Marcus's new eating patterns place him at risk for developing health problems because when he eats now does not match the natural highs and lows in his energy levels. The .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice correspondence of eating patterns with natural energy levels is called: a. REM rebound. b. somnambulism. c. chrononutrition. d. sleep hygiene.

ANSWER: c 33. Which worker would be expected to have the most disruption to their circadian rhythm? The worker who works: a. 10-hour 7:00 A.M. to 5:00 P.M. shifts 4 days per week. b. the first shift, from 7:00 A.M. to 3:00 P.M. c. the second shift, from 3:00 P.M. to 11:00 P.M. d. the third shift, from 11:00 P.M. to 7:00 A.M. ANSWER: d 34. Intense brain activity and vivid dreams are MOST likely to occur during which stage of sleep? a. non-REM b. stage 1 c. stage 2 d. REM ANSWER: d 35. REM sleep is the stage of sleep in which _____ is/are MOST likely occur. a. sleep terrors b. sleepwalking c. vivid dreams d. sleep inertia ANSWER: c 36. A person who was awakened in the midst of having a dream would MOST likely have been in which stage of sleep? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 4 d. REM ANSWER: d 37. If you were in _____ sleep, it would be difficult to wake you up, and, upon waking, you would probably feel disoriented and confused. a. stage 1 b. stage 2 .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. stage 3 d. REM ANSWER: c 38. Dimitar's mom knocked on his door and woke him up when Dimitar was in the stage of sleep in which his body temperature had dropped and his heart rate had slowed. Dimitar did not wake immediately after the knock, but he awoke relatively easily. Dimitar was MOST likely in the _____ stage of sleep. a. REM b. second c. third d. fourth ANSWER: b 39. Sleep inertia is MOST likely to occur upon waking from _____ sleep. a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 d. REM ANSWER: c 40. Temporary immobility during sleep is called _____. a. somnambulism b. REM paralysis c. paradoxical sleep d. sleep inertia ANSWER: b 41. Henry did not get enough sleep last night. In addition to feeling tired, Henry noticed he had not dreamed as much as he usually does. When Henry goes to sleep tonight, he is MOST likely to experience _____, which happens after a period of sleep deprivation. a. REM paralysis b. REM rebound c. sleep inertia d. slow-wave sleep ANSWER: b 42. When a person wakes from slow-wave sleep, he is likely to experience the following condition for a short time: a. REM paralysis. b. paradoxical sleep. c. sleep inertia. d. REM rebound. .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 43. On average, women _____ than men. a. have less slow-wave sleep b. sleep for shorter periods of time c. spend more time in REM sleep d. experience more sleep problems ANSWER: d 44. Timothy is moving to Spain from the United States. When preparing for his move, Timothy learned that taking an afternoon nap is common in Spain. Timothy is looking forward to trying the practice of napping in the afternoon after moving, although he currently only sleeps at night. The practice of only sleeping at night, common in the United States, is called _____ sleep. a. diurnal b. monophasic c. polyphasic d. biphasic ANSWER: b 45. Nathan wants to study abroad in Spain during his senior year. Nathan is learning about Spanish culture to prepare himself before he goes. He has learned that in Spain, taking a siesta, or afternoon nap, is common.

Nathan is looking forward to trying out the tradition of the siesta, although at home in the United States he only sleeps at night. Nathan's native pattern of sleep, only sleeping at night, is called _____ sleep. a. slow-wave b. solitary c. monophasic d. biphasic ANSWER: c 46. A sleep pattern in which a person sleeps more than twice per day is called: a. siesta. b. biphasic. c. polyphasic. d. co-sleeping.

ANSWER: c 47. A sleep pattern in which a person sleeps twice per day is called: a. monophasic. b. biphasic. c. polyphasic. d. co-sleeping.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 48. Which of these is NOT a reason why high schools might want to consider having later starting times than what has been typical? Later start times: a. correlate with better attendance and grades. b. would allow teens to stay up later. c. increase weekend sleep d. reduce car accident rates.

ANSWER: b 49. Typically, teenagers who get a sufficient amount of sleep _____ than those who do not. a. use marijuana more frequently b. attend school less frequently c. engage in sexual intercourse more frequently d. use alcohol less frequently ANSWER: d 50. Which statement about sexual orientation and sleep is false? People who are: a. straight have more sleep than people who are gay, lesbian, or bisexual. b. bisexual have better quality sleep than people who are gay or lesbian. c. lesbian, gay, or bisexual have about the same amount of sleep problems. d. lesbian, gay, or bisexual have more sleep problems than people who are straight.

ANSWER: b 51. The childhood norm in the United States is: a. solitary sleeping. b. unihemispheric sleeping. c. co-sleeping. d. restricted sleeping.

ANSWER: a 52. The childhood norm outside of the United States—especially in Asia—is: a. solitary sleeping. b. unihemispheric sleeping. c. co-sleeping. d. restricted sleeping.

ANSWER: c 53. Which of the statements is true about co-sleeping? Co-sleeping: a. can increase the risk of injury or sudden death in children. b. is less common worldwide than solitary sleeping. c. is more common worldwide than solitary sleeping. .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice d. fosters excessive dependence in children.

ANSWER: c 54. Which of the statements is false about co-sleeping? Co-sleeping: a. does not significantly increase the risk of injury in children. b. is less common worldwide than solitary sleeping. c. is more common worldwide than solitary sleeping. d. does not foster excessive dependence in children.

ANSWER: b 55. A scientist hoping to study the sleeping behaviors of Japanese parents and children would MOST likely find which type of sleeping situation? a. solitary sleeping for children of any age b. co-sleeping for children of any age c. solitary sleeping for children up to the age of 6 d. co-sleeping for children up to the age of 6 ANSWER: d 56. A family that lives in the United States and typically follows mainstream American customs just had a baby.

Therefore, the parents and the new baby would MOST likely sleep in: a. the same room until the baby was 6 years of age. b. different rooms until the baby was 6 years of age. c. the same room, regardless of age. d. different rooms, regardless of age.

ANSWER: d 57. Two families that live in the United States just had babies. One family has always lived in the United States, and one family is originally from China and follow the mainstream cultural customs of their native country. The parents and the new baby of the family that has always lived in the United States would MOST likely sleep in _____, and the parents and the new baby of the family that moved to the United States from China would MOST likely sleep in _____. a. the same room; a different room b. a different room; a different room c. a different room; the same room d. the same room; the same room ANSWER: c 58. Dr. Zahratski wants to investigate the effects of sleep problems on the likelihood to graduate college. Dr. Zahratski wants to include only individuals who consistently have trouble falling or staying asleep, despite their best efforts. Thus Dr. Zahratski should include people who: a. have insomnia. b. experience somnambulism. .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. are occasionally sleep deprived. d. have slow-wave sleep.

ANSWER: a 59. For as long as he can remember, Alexi has had problems falling and staying asleep. Alexi has tried many things to help him sleep, but nothing has improved his ability to get good sleep. Alexi would MOST likely be described as having: a. insomnia. b. narcolepsy. c. somnambulism. d. unihemispheric sleep.

ANSWER: a 60. Meryem has consistently been having difficulty falling asleep, and, when she wakes up, she does not feel rested. The nurse practitioner at the campus health center asks Meryem about her sleeping habits, medical issues, and work stresses. Meryem understands that the nurse practitioner is asking about these factors because they contribute to the development of: a. circadian rhythms. b. sleepwalking. c. insomnia. d. narcolepsy.

ANSWER: c 61. Insomnia is BEST defined as: a. consistent bouts of walking while asleep and not remembering it. b. immediate and unexpected shifts from wakefulness to REM sleep. c. consistent difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, or achieving high-quality sleep. d. interruptions of breathing that cause repeated wakening.

ANSWER: c 62. Consistent difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, or achieving high-quality sleep is defined as: a. somnambulism. b. narcolepsy. c. insomnia. d. sleep apnea.

ANSWER: c 63. According to your textbook, approximately _____ of people experience some symptoms of insomnia. a. one-half b. one-third c. one-quarter d. one-fifth .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 64. Approximately _____% of people have full-blown cases of insomnia. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANSWER: b 65. Which statement regarding contributors to insomnia is false? a. Disorders of the mind and body are common sources of sleeplessness. b. Job insecurity increases your odds of having insomnia. c. People of high socioeconomic status are more likely to have insomnia. d. Caffeine and cigarette use can disrupt sleep.

ANSWER: c 66. A person who walks while asleep is experiencing: a. lucid dreaming. b. narcolepsy. c. somnambulism. d. night terrors.

ANSWER: c 67. This morning, Hamish woke up on the living room couch. Hamish was confused by this as he knows he went to sleep as usual in his bed. Hamish's roommate told him that he saw Hamish come out of his bedroom and lie down on the couch during the night. After speaking to his roommate, Hamish believed he experienced: a. somnambulism. b. biphasic sleep. c. narcolepsy. d. sleep apnea.

ANSWER: a 68. Brief, sudden awakenings in which a person feels frightened and confused are: a. nightmares. b. sleep terrors. c. sleep apnea. d. narcolepsy.

ANSWER: b 69. Sleep terrors are defined as: a. walking while asleep. .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. immediate and unexpected shifts from wakefulness to REM sleep. c. consistent difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, or achieving high-quality sleep. d. brief, sudden awakenings in which a person feels frightened or confused.

ANSWER: d 70. For as long as she can remember, Imane has had episodes where she suddenly wakes in her bed feeling frightened and confused. Surprisingly, Imane never remembers the episodes the next morning. Imane MOST likely experiences: a. nightmares. b. insomnia. c. somnambulism. d. sleep terrors.

ANSWER: d 71. Which statement about sleep terrors is false? a. Sleep terrors are just another way to describe nightmares. b. Genetics seem to contribute to the likelihood of having sleep terrors. c. People often "grow out of" sleep terrors and only have them in childhood. d. When experiencing a sleep terror, the individual remains asleep.

ANSWER: a 72. Over the past 5 years, Thomas has developed problems sleeping. After falling asleep, Thomas experiences interruptions in his breathing, causing him to wake up frequently. The sleep abnormality that BEST describes Thomas's sleeping pattern is: a. sleep apnea. b. narcolepsy. c. somnambulism. d. lucid dreaming.

ANSWER: a 73. Sleep apnea is defined as: a. walking while asleep. b. immediate and unexpected shifts from wakefulness to REM sleep. c. consistent difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, or achieving high-quality sleep. d. interruptions in breathing that can cause repeated wakening.

ANSWER: d 74. Interruptions in breathing that can cause repeated wakening results in a disorder called: a. somnambulism. b. narcolepsy. c. insomnia. .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice d. sleep apnea.

ANSWER: d 75. _____ is a sleep disorder caused by interruptions of breathing that result in repeated wakefulness. a. Sleep apnea b. Narcolepsy c. Somnambulism d. Lucid dreaming ANSWER: a 76. About _____% of people experience serious levels of breathing problems and daytime sleepiness due to sleep apnea. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANSWER: a 77. A person who has sleep apnea is MOST likely to use _____ to treat the disorder. a. a continuous positive air pressure machine b. medication c. a sleep journal d. sleep studies ANSWER: a 78. Which statement about contributors to the development of sleep apnea is false? a. Women experience sleep apnea more often than do men. b. Low socio-economic status increases the odds of having sleep apnea. c. Older adults experience sleep apnea more often than do young adults. d. Obesity is the biggest risk factor for the development of sleep apnea.

ANSWER: a 79. Nightmares occur during _____ sleep, whereas sleep terrors occur during _____ sleep. a. stage 1; stage 2 b. stage 2; stage 1 c. non-REM; REM d. REM; non-REM ANSWER: d 80. The disorder characterized by immediate and unexpected shifts from wakefulness to REM sleep is: a. sleep apnea. .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. sleepwalking. c. insomnia. d. narcolepsy.

ANSWER: d 81. Which statement about narcolepsy is false? a. Some medications are available to reduce the frequency of narcoleptic attacks. b. Narcoleptic attacks are usually brief, only 15–20 minutes in duration. c. Narcoleptic attacks are sometimes triggered by situations that provoke strong emotions. d. A person's muscles violently contract and become rigid during a narcoleptic attack.

ANSWER: d 82. Which statement about COVID-19 and sleep problems is false? a. High school students may have gotten better sleep when classes shifted online. b. The sale of melatonin as a sleep aid rose by over 42% in 2020. c. Sleep problems are a physical symptom of COVID-19 infection. d. Insomnia was the only sleep problem that increased in frequency.

ANSWER: d 83. _____ consists of routine behaviors that promote healthy sleep patterns. a. Stimulus control b. Sleep restriction c. Sleep hygiene d. Mindfulness ANSWER: c 84. A person who wants to develop good sleep hygiene practices should: a. get up at 7:00 A.M. and go to sleep at 10:00 P.M. every day. b. go to sleep shortly after having dinner. c. watch TV in bed to unwind before sleeping. d. exercise in the evening.

ANSWER: a 85. Kubra took on a new job, but she made sure to talk to her boss and construct her class schedule such that she is able to get up and go to bed at the same time every day. The consistency of Kubra's schedule is an example of how to: a. maintain good sleep hygiene. b. decrease lucid dreaming. c. increase narcoleptic events. d. develop sleep problems.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 86. After they get into bed each night, Arturo scrolls through social media on their smartphone before going to sleep. Staring at a phone screen at bedtime is an example of how to: a. disrupt sleep hygiene. b. decrease lucid dreaming. c. increase narcoleptic events. d. prevent sleep problems.

ANSWER: a 87. Which statement is false regarding smartphone use as it relates to sleep? a. A majority of people use smartphones within an hour of going to bed. b. Most teens use a smartphone as they try to fall asleep. c. About half of people check their smartphones during the night. d. Smartphone usage at night typically does not affect a person's sleep.

ANSWER: d 88. Studies have found that the presence of a TV in the bedroom correlates with a: a. lower total screen time. b. lower level of daytime sleepiness. c. higher rate of sleep-related problems. d. higher level of happiness.

ANSWER: c 89. A person who wants to develop good sleep hygiene practices should: a. exercise in the evening. b. eliminate naps in the late afternoon. c. read a book in bed to unwind. d. watch TV in bed to unwind.

ANSWER: b 90. All of these are popular treatments for sleep problems EXCEPT for: a. smartphone apps. b. melatonin tablets. c. prescription medication. d. herbal substances.

ANSWER: a 91. Addo told their therapist that they recently had trouble falling asleep. Their therapist suggests that Addo only use their bed for sleep, which is a sleep-improving technique known as: a. stimulus control. b. sleep restriction. .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice c. bihemispheric sleep. d. unihemispheric sleep.

ANSWER: a 92. An example of stimulus control that may be used to improve sleep is: a. using the bed only for sleep. b. taking medication at bedtime. c. exercising before bedtime. d. meditating before bedtime.

ANSWER: a 93. A person who believes that dreams contain important information either from others or from ourselves supports the _____ theory of dreams. a. nonsense b. message c. soul travel d. generative ANSWER: b 94. The _____ theory states that dreams contain important information sent by others or from parts of yourself that need to be heard. a. message b. nonsense c. generative d. visitation ANSWER: a 95. A person who believes that dreams not only predict the future but also determine it supports the _____ theory of dreams. a. nonsense b. message c. soul travel d. generative ANSWER: d 96. The _____ theory states that dreams not only predict the future but can create it or determine it. a. message b. nonsense c. generative d. visitation ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 97. Last night, Tallia had a dream, which she described to her girlfriend, Sasha. Sasha explains to Tallia that she had the dream because it contains meaningful and important information that Tallia needs to hear. Tallia disagreed, as she believes that her dream predicts the future. Sasha's belief about dreams BEST supports the _____ theory, and Tallia's belief about dreams BEST supports the _____ theory. a. visitation; generative b. generative; visitation c. message; generative d. message; visitation ANSWER: c 98. A person who has a dream and believes the dream is an appearance made by a supernatural spirit supports the _____ theory of dreams. a. nonsense b. message c. soul travel d. visitation ANSWER: d 99. _____ theory holds that dreams are interesting stories containing random images but that they hold no special meaning. a. Nonsense b. Generative c. Soul travel d. Message ANSWER: a 100. The _____ theory states that dreams consist of random images, content that has no meaning, or are stories to be enjoyed for what they're worth before being forgotten. a. message b. nonsense c. generative d. soul travel ANSWER: b 101. Which statement about Freud's theory of dreaming is false? a. It had a tremendous impact on society in the 1900s that continues to a lesser extent today. b. It argued that dreams reveal the unconscious mind, especially deep-down wishes. c. Translating the latent and manifest content of dreams was called dream work. d. The practices it promotes are still commonly used as a therapy tool.

ANSWER: d 102. Early neuropsychological research that examined dreaming and brain function led to the _____ hypothesis, .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice which states that dreams are initiated by the pons, a structure in the brainstem. a. generative b. non-REM c. activation–synthesis d. REM ANSWER: c 103. Zeno has just begun therapy for posttraumatic stress disorder, especially because he has been particularly bothered by recurring nightmares. Zeno's therapist suggests that Zeno retells his nightmares during therapy, but that he tells them with a different and more positive ending. The therapist also suggests that Zeno review the new version of his nightmare several times a day, including before bedtime. This type of therapy is BEST described as: a. imagery rehearsal. b. lucid dreaming. c. activation–synthesis. d. sleep hygiene.

ANSWER: a 104. Some sleep experts believe that people can control their dreams while dreaming through training and practice. What is this called? a. imagery rehearsal b. lucid dreaming c. activation–synthesis d. hypnosis ANSWER: b 105. A dream experience in which a person has some control over the dream while remaining asleep is called: a. imagery rehearsal. b. activation–synthesis. c. lucid dreaming. d. hypnosis.

ANSWER: c 106. Santiago wants to learn how to control his dreams while he is asleep and dreaming. Santiago MOST likely seeks to learn about: a. imagery rehearsal. b. sleep hygiene. c. hypnosis. d. lucid dreaming.

ANSWER: d 107. Dr. Vargas seeks to investigate what personality characteristics are linked to the ability to control dreams .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice while asleep and dreaming. Dr. Vargas is MOST likely interested in: a. imagery rehearsal. b. sleep hygiene. c. lucid dreaming. d. hypnosis.

ANSWER: c 108. Lucid dreaming happens most often during _____ sleep. a. REM b. stage 1 c. stage 2 d. stage 3 ANSWER: a 109. An altered state of consciousness in which one person becomes very suggestible to another person is called: a. hypnosis. b. mindfulness. c. déjà vu. d. lucid dreaming.

ANSWER: a 110. A psychologist who includes a technique to alter the consciousness of their patients in therapy is using: a. meditation. b. lucid dreaming. c. imagery rehearsal. d. hypnotism.

ANSWER: d 111. Which statement about hypnotism is true? a. Hypnotism is commonly used by psychologists. b. Modern hypnotism is very similar to hypnotism performed in the past. c. Hypnotism is a practice only people with certain personality traits can perform. d. Hypnotism has been a part of psychology's history since psychology began.

ANSWER: d 112. Which statement about hypnotism is false? a. Psychologists seldom use hypnosis today. b. Modern hypnotism bears little resemblance to hypnotism performed in the past. c. Hypnotism has been a part of psychology's history since psychology began. d. Hypnotism is successfully performed only by people with certain personality traits. .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 113. The procedure of hypnotism begins with _____, which is an attempt to change the consciousness of a person receiving the technique. a. induction b. suggestion c. initiation d. mesmerism ANSWER: a 114. The second step in hypnotism is _____, in which the person receiving the technique is told to perform a certain behavior. a. induction b. initiation c. suggestion d. submission ANSWER: c 115. In the second step of hypnotism, the person receiving the technique is told to perform a certain behavior.

This step is called: a. induction. b. suggestion. c. mesmerism. d. resolution.

ANSWER: b 116. Alvarez is undergoing hypnosis during therapy, and his therapist has told him to calm himself to a point that approaches sleep. Alvarez is in the _____ stage of hypnotism. a. induction b. lucid c. submission d. suggestion ANSWER: a 117. Haniya is undergoing hypnosis during therapy, and her therapist has told her to lift her hand and imagine it is weightless. Haniya is in the _____ stage of hypnotism. a. induction b. suggestion c. lucid d. submission ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 118. Jessie is working with a therapist to stop smoking. Jessie's therapist is using hypnosis to help Jessie with this issue. During Jessie's hypnosis, her therapist took Jessie through a typical day and asked her to imagine that she had no desire to smoke during that typical day. What is this stage of hypnosis called? a. induction b. suggestion c. initiation d. submission ANSWER: b 119. Jason is working with a therapist to stop smoking. Jason's therapist is using hypnosis to help Jason with this issue. During Jason's hypnosis, his therapist recited a script instructing Jason to unwind and calm himself almost to the point of sleep. The therapist also asked Jason to focus his eyes on a pencil the therapist was holding. What is this stage of hypnosis called? a. induction b. suggestion c. initiation d. submission ANSWER: a 120. Which of these people would typically be the MOST difficult to hypnotize? a. a person who is not certain that hypnosis will work b. a female individual who tends to get wrapped up in immediate sensory experiences c. a male individual who tends to get wrapped up in immediate sensory experiences d. a person who is against undergoing hypnosis ANSWER: d 121. Which statement about gender and hypnotism is true? a. Men are less likely to be hypnotized than women. b. Men and women are equally likely to be hypnotized. c. Women are more likely to follow posthypnotic suggestion than men. d. Men are more likely to follow posthypnotic suggestion than women.

ANSWER: b 122. Which of these people would typically be the LEAST difficult to hypnotize? A person who: a. believes that hypnosis will work. b. is skeptical but willing to try hypnosis. c. has family members susceptible to hypnosis. d. is against undergoing hypnosis.

ANSWER: a 123. The _____ theory of hypnosis emphasizes the pressure to play the role assigned to a person being hypnotized. .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice a. social-cognitive b. activation–synthesis c. generative d. imagery rehearsal ANSWER: a 124. In the past, Maggie was skeptical about hypnosis. Maggie believed that a "hypnotized" person was not really hypnotized. She believed that people who underwent hypnosis were only behaving in the way they thought a hypnotized person would behave. Maggie supports the _____ theory of hypnosis. a. activation–synthesis b. generative c. social-cognitive d. imagery rehearsal ANSWER: c 125. Zahra believes that hypnosis is a valid experience, and that the behavior during and after hypnosis is not just because the hypnotized person is only behaving how that person thinks a hypnotized person would behave.

Zahra would likely NOT support the _____ theory of hypnosis. a. activation–synthesis b. lucid dreaming c. social-cognitive d. imagery rehearsal ANSWER: c 126. The social-cognitive theory of hypnosis emphasizes the pressure to play the role assigned to a person being hypnotized. This theory suggests that a person is not truly hypnotized, but rather is acting in a way that person believes a hypnotized person would act. Studies on the brain during hypnosis: a. do not support this theory, finding that hypnosis does not activate any part of the brain. b. do not support this theory, finding that hypnosis and acting while not hypnotized activate different parts of the brain. c. support this theory, finding that hypnosis and acting while not hypnotized activate the same parts of the brain. d. find that it is impossible to study the effect of hypnosis on parts of the brain.

ANSWER: b 127. Substances that alter mental functioning are called: a. psychoactive drugs. b. neurotransmitters. c. hormones. d. reuptake inhibitors.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 128. Psychoactive drugs are MOST likely to affect: a. mental functioning. b. innate behavioral characteristics. c. physical attributes. d. the unconscious mind.

ANSWER: a 129. Victoria needs to work through the night to finish a project for class. Victoria is concerned she will be too sleepy, so she drinks energy drinks throughout the night to keep her alert and awake. The energy drinks are psychoactive drugs because they affect: a. mental functioning. b. behavioral ability. c. physical attributes. d. personality.

ANSWER: a 130. Which statement is true about psychoactive drugs? Psychoactive drugs can: a. only be prescribed by a physician. b. only be purchased over the counter. c. only be obtained illegally. d. be obtained either legally or illegally.

ANSWER: d 131. Psychoactive drugs can be: a. only prescribed by a physician. b. only purchased over the counter. c. obtained only illegally. d. obtained either legally or illegally.

ANSWER: d 132. Psychoactive drugs can affect neurotransmitter activity in all of these ways EXCEPT to: a. increase neurotransmitter release. b. block or activate neurotransmitter receptors. c. inhibit neurotransmitter reuptake. d. increase enzyme activity to enhance neurotransmission.

ANSWER: d 133. June recently began therapy for addiction to nicotine and stopped smoking cigarettes altogether. Right after she stopped smoking, June has had many withdrawal symptoms including fatigue and headaches. June also has been craving nicotine and frequently wants to begin smoking again. In therapy, June learned that her withdrawal symptoms are due to her dependence on nicotine, and that her fatigue and headaches are examples of her _____ dependence on alcohol. .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice a. mental b. psychoactive c. psychological d. physical ANSWER: d 134. Min recently began therapy for addiction to nicotine and stopped smoking cigarettes altogether. Right after they stopped smoking, Min has had many withdrawal symptoms including fatigue and headaches. Min also has been craving nicotine and frequently wants to begin smoking again. In therapy, Min learned that their withdrawal symptoms are due to their _____ dependence on nicotine, and that their fatigue and headaches are examples of their _____ dependence on nicotine. a. psychological; psychological b. physical; psychological c. psychological; physical d. physical; physical ANSWER: c 135. When used repeatedly, the effectiveness of a particular amount of a drug can decrease. This is called: a. tolerance. b. withdrawal. c. dependence. d. addiction.

ANSWER: a 136. Shava habitually used a psychoactive drug. When they discontinue using the drug, it is likely that they will experience stressful and uncomfortable _____ symptoms. a. tolerance b. withdrawal c. circadian d. psychological ANSWER: b 137. When a person feels that they need a particular drug in order to function normally, but the drug use doesn't cause serious negative consequences, the person is said to be _____ the drug. a. tolerant to b. withdrawing from c. addicted to d. dependent on ANSWER: d 138. Dr. Wilson is a psychologist working with patients enrolled in a new treatment program at the local hospital. The treatment program is for patients who have used alcohol habitually. Dr. Wilson's area of focus will .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice be on the stressful and uncomfortable symptoms patients experience caused by discontinuing their alcohol use.

Dr. Wilson's focus is on: a. tolerance. b. withdrawal. c. dependence. d. addiction.

ANSWER: b 139. Dr. Hastings is a psychologist working with patients enrolled in a new treatment program at the local hospital. The treatment program is for patients who have used alcohol for quite some time. Dr. Hastings's area of focus will be on the need for alcohol the patients have in order to function normally. Dr. Hastings's focus is on: a. tolerance. b. withdrawal. c. dependence. d. addiction.

ANSWER: c 140. People who stop using a drug they had been using habitually can experience _____ symptoms, such as fatigue and trouble sleeping. a. withdrawal b. addictive c. psychological d. tolerance ANSWER: a 141. People who stop using a drug they had been using habitually can experience _____, which is a strong desire and perceived need for the drug. a. withdrawal b. addiction c. psychological dependence d. physical dependence ANSWER: c 142. A person who uses drugs and continues to do so regardless of the problems and negative consequences that occur due to the drug use is demonstrating: a. tolerance. b. withdrawal. c. dependence. d. addiction.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 143. Problematic drug use that persists in spite of serious negative consequence is called: a. tolerance. b. withdrawal. c. dependence. d. addiction.

ANSWER: d 144. Dr. Rogers is a psychologist working with patients enrolled in a new treatment program at the local hospital. The treatment program is for patients who have used alcohol habitually. Dr. Rogers's area of focus will be on the persistent use of the alcohol, despite the serious negative consequences the patients have experienced.

Dr. Rogers's focus is on: a. tolerance. b. withdrawal. c. dependence. d. addiction.

ANSWER: d 145. Irene first tried methamphetamine a few months ago but, since then, has been using it more frequently. She was fired from her job because she needed to take methamphetamine to physically function normally, but despite this, she's continued to use the drug. Irene's relationship with methamphetamine is BEST described as: a. addictive. b. tolerant. c. psychological. d. dependent.

ANSWER: a 146. Rayan has been drinking alcohol regularly and heavily for many months. His wife took their children to her mother's house because Rayan kept coming home stumbling and yelling incoherently. She says she won't bring the kids home until he gets treatment, but instead of seeking help, Rayan just drinks more. What Rayan is demonstrating with alcohol is BEST described as: a. tolerance. b. addiction. c. withdrawal. d. dependence.

ANSWER: b 147. The need for a particular drug in order to function properly is called _____ and is a major contributor to _____, which is the problematic and persistent use of a drug regardless of the consequences. a. addiction; dependence b. dependence; addiction c. withdrawal; dependence d. dependence; withdrawal .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 148. Finn has been extremely anxious recently, causing her significant emotional distress. This anxiety has affected Finn's ability to sleep well for weeks. To help, Finn's doctor prescribed _____. The doctor believes this treatment will lessen Finn's anxiety as well as treat her related sleep problems. a. hydrocodone b. benzodiazepines c. oxycodone d. methylphenidate ANSWER: b 149. Drugs that _____ bodily function are classified as depressants. a. maintain b. speed c. slow d. both speed and slow ANSWER: c 150. Drugs that slow bodily function are classified as: a. antagonists. b. stimulants. c. depressants. d. hallucinogens.

ANSWER: c 151. Alcohol, barbiturates, and benzodiazepines are examples of: a. depressants. b. stimulants. c. opiates. d. hallucinogens.

ANSWER: a 152. Which drug is an example of a depressant? a. alcohol b. cocaine c. caffeine d. nicotine ANSWER: a 153. A person who experiences impaired coordination, reasoning, and reaction time has likely used what type of psychoactive drug? a. depressants .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. stimulants c. opiates d. hallucinogens ANSWER: a 154. Josefa feels relaxed and pleasant. Josefa would describe this feeling as a "buzz." Josefa is also starting to show a decline in her coordination, reasoning, and speech skills. What type of psychoactive drug has Josefa likely used? a. depressant b. stimulant c. opiate d. hallucinogen ANSWER: a 155. If a woman drinks during pregnancy, her child will be at risk for: a. future addiction. b. fetal alcohol syndrome. c. future dependence. d. psychological dependence.

ANSWER: b 156. _____ use has been identified as a factor in half of all sexual assaults. a. Opiate b. Benzodiazepine c. Barbiturate d. Alcohol ANSWER: d 157. The amount of alcohol in one 5 oz. glass of wine is equivalent to the amount of alcohol in: a. 12 oz. of beer. b. 3 oz. of liquor. c. 5 oz. of beer. d. 0.5 oz. of liquor.

ANSWER: a 158. Blood alcohol concentration is affected by _____ but not by _____. a. rate of alcohol consumption; size of the person b. size of the person; rate of alcohol consumption c. size of the person; amount of alcohol consumed d. rate of alcohol consumption; quality of alcohol consumed ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 159. Mark, who is male, and Isabella, who is female, go out drinking together. Mark has seven shots, and Isabella also has seven shots. How will the alcohol likely affect each of them? a. Mark's blood alcohol content will be lower than Isabella's. b. Isabella's blood alcohol content will be lower than Mark's. c. Mark's and Isabella's blood alcohol content will be equal. d. Their blood alcohol content will vary according to the quality of alcohol consumed.

ANSWER: a 160. Drugs that speed up bodily functions, enhance energy, and overcome fatigue are classified as: a. opiates. b. stimulants. c. depressants. d. hallucinogens.

ANSWER: b 161. Cocaine, caffeine, nicotine, and methamphetamines are types of: a. depressants. b. stimulants. c. opiates. d. hallucinogens.

ANSWER: b 162. Mahmoud just took a drug, after which his heart began racing, he started sweating excessively, and he began to feel paranoid. The drug Mahmoud took was MOST likely: a. amphetamine. b. heroin. c. alcohol. d. a barbiturate.

ANSWER: a 163. A person who takes or uses _____ will MOST likely feel more energized and less fatigued than before.

However, the person also runs the risk of negative side effects such as insomnia, headaches, and irregular heartbeat. a. cocaine b. alcohol c. opiates d. barbiturates ANSWER: a 164. A recent meta-analysis found what percentage of college students misuse or abuse stimulant medications? a. 7 .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. 17 c. 27 d. 37 ANSWER: b 165. According to a recent meta-analysis, which student would be MOST likely to misuse or abuse medication prescribed to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? a. Angus, who is a perfectionist b. Saffy, who is outgoing and energetic c. Charlie, who has a diagnosis of depression d. Maggie, who has substantial symptoms of ADHD ANSWER: d 166. The leading cause of preventable death in the United States is associated with which substance? a. alcohol b. oxycodone c. nicotine d. heroin ANSWER: c 167. Research suggests that adverse effects from caffeine typically emerge when daily caffeine intake is above _____ mg per day. a. 200 b. 300 c. 400 d. 500 ANSWER: c 168. One night, Michael and his friends were out on the town. Michael and his friends did not smoke, but they spent a significant amount of time in a local restaurant that allows smoking inside the restaurant. The next day, Michael's hair and clothes smelled strongly of smoke even though he did not himself smoke and he didn't sit next to anyone who was smoking. What is this leftover sign of nicotine use called? a. nicotine residue b. secondhand smoke c. thirdhand smoke d. smoke residue ANSWER: c 169. The cancer-causing residue that smoke leaves behind is called: a. thirdhand smoke. b. nicotine. c. secondhand smoke. .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice d. barbiturates.

ANSWER: a 170. Nicole just moved into a new apartment. The person who rented the apartment before her was a smoker.

Studies suggest that Nicole will have higher levels of nicotine in her blood than if the previous tenant had not been a smoker. The increased levels of nicotine can be attributed to: a. thirdhand smoke. b. psychological dependence. c. secondhand smoke. d. physical dependence.

ANSWER: a 171. Which statement about thirdhand smoke is true? a. Thirdhand smoke remains only a short time after the smoke itself is gone. b. Far fewer people recognize the dangers of secondhand smoke than thirdhand smoke. c. Evidence about thirdhand smoke has been long established. d. Thirdhand smoke is linked to higher levels of nicotine in people exposed to it.

ANSWER: d 172. _____ drugs relieve pain and enhance pleasure. a. Opiate b. Stimulant c. Depressant d. Hallucinogenic ANSWER: a 173. Heroin, morphine, and codeine are types of: a. depressants. b. stimulants. c. opiates. d. hallucinogens.

ANSWER: c 174. Monique experienced severe shoulder pain after a car accident they were involved in. They took a drug that relieved their pain but also gave them an intense rush of pleasure and made them relaxed and drowsy.

Monique MOST likely took: a. oxycodone. b. cocaine. c. a barbiturate. d. a benzodiazepine.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 175. A person who takes or uses _____ will MOST likely feel an intense rush of pleasure and become very relaxed. However, the person also runs the risk of negative outcomes such as addiction, overdose, and death, especially when the substance is used excessively. a. cocaine b. alcohol c. heroin d. nicotine ANSWER: c 176. Opiates and opioids are pain-relieving drugs that activate the same receptors in the brain as endorphins.

The difference between the two is that opiates are _____ and opioids are _____. a. illegally made; legally made b. legally made; illegally made c. plant-based; synthetic d. synthetic; plant-based ANSWER: c 177. Opiates and opioids are drugs that activate the same receptors in the brain as do: a. serotonin. b. GABA. c. endorphins. d. glutamate.

ANSWER: c 178. Cannabis, LSD, and MDMA are BEST classified as _____ drugs. a. depressant b. stimulant c. opiate d. hallucinogenic ANSWER: d 179. _____ are drugs that produce unrealistic sensations and dreamlike "trips." a. Opiates b. Stimulants c. Depressants d. Hallucinogens ANSWER: d 180. Cale took a drug that altered their perceptions. They began to see colors in the air and other images that weren't actually there. Cale also was convinced they could communicate with animals, and they spent several hours discussing philosophy with their roommate's hamster. It is MOST likely that the drug Cale took was: a. codeine. .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice b. LSD. c. a benzodiazepine. d. methamphetamines.

ANSWER: b 181. The hallucinogen _____ also has some stimulant qualities. a. cannabis b. MDMA c. LSD d. oxycodone ANSWER: b 182. _____ may or may not chemically qualify as a hallucinogen because it doesn't always have hallucinogenic effects. a. Nicotine b. Caffeine c. Cannabis d. LSD ANSWER: c 183. One way that cannabis is different from other hallucinogens is that it: a. does not always produce hallucinations. b. can enhance a person's energy and reduce fatigue. c. does not impair a person's driving ability. d. is not addictive.

ANSWER: a 184. An activity designed to focus attention with the ultimate purpose of improving one's mental state is: a. hypnosis. b. mindfulness. c. meditation. d. awareness.

ANSWER: c 185. The ultimate purpose of mediation is to allow a person to: a. focus attention and improve their mental state. b. detach their awareness from reality. c. gain awareness of their moment-to-moment experiences. d. learn how to allow the soul to travel outside the body.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 186. Logan has been practicing a type of meditation for many years. When she first began learning the practice of meditation, she found it difficult to achieve the goal of emptying her mind of all thoughts. Achieving this goal allowed Logan to work on the second stage of this type of meditation, which is: a. experiencing the sensations of life as they arrive. b. achieving a hypnotic state. c. bringing the mind's awareness to one's feelings. d. engaging one's awareness with reality.

ANSWER: a 187. A person practicing a certain type of meditation has the ultimate goal of a transcendent, transformative state. They would MOST likely start by: a. taking psychoactive drugs. b. focusing on a specifically chosen stimulus. c. detaching awareness from reality. d. achieving a hypnotic state.

ANSWER: b 188. This spiritual leader of Tibetan Buddhism wrote a book on how to practice meditation, offering many insights and suggestions on the practice. a. Thich Nhat Hanh b. Pope Francis c. Dalai Llama d. Mahatma Gandhi ANSWER: c 189. _____ is the awareness of one's moment-to-moment experiences fully, deliberately, and without distraction. This awareness is integrated with _____, which is designed to increase focused attention with the ultimate purpose of improving one's mental state. a. Meditation; mindfulness b. Mindfulness; hypnosis c. Hypnosis; mindfulness d. Mindfulness; meditation ANSWER: d 190. _____ is the awareness of one's moment-to-moment experiences fully, deliberately, and without distraction. a. Hypnosis b. Detachment c. Meditation d. Mindfulness ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice 191. Lydia is making changes in her life to improve her psychological well-being, including engaging in the practice of _____, which means experiencing what is happening only in the present moment. a. meditation b. mindfulness c. hypnosis d. addiction ANSWER: b 192. The essence of _____ is experiencing what is happing only in the present moment. a. hypnosis b. detachment c. meditation d. mindfulness ANSWER: d 193. _____ is a mental state in which a person intentionally focuses awareness on his moment-to-moment experiences. In this state, a person will also intentionally avoid focusing awareness on both the past and future. a. Hypnosis b. Detachment c. Meditation d. Mindfulness ANSWER: d 194. There is evidence to suggest that the practice of mindfulness _____ many psychological diagnoses. a. can interfere with therapy for b. can be beneficial in treating c. is not useful in the treatment of d. is detrimental to those with ANSWER: b 195. Which of these statements about mindfulness is false? The practice of mindfulness is: a. an effective therapeutic tool. b. beneficial to those with psychological disorders. c. associated with lower levels of relationship satisfaction. d. associated with lower levels of stress.

ANSWER: c

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Chapter 5 - Essay 1. Define memory and discuss how it relates to identity. Provide three examples of how memory affects your day-to-day functioning and/or overall identity.

ANSWER: Memory is defined by psychologists as the process of taking in information (encoding), saving it over time (storage), and calling it to mind later (retrieval). Your memories define who you are as a person. Your memories of your own past personal experiences shape who you are as a unique individual. In other words, memory is the core feature of our personality. Based on our memories, we understand who we are, which influences the ways in which we think, feel, behave, and react to situations. Examples provided may tap into the ways memories provide continuity in your thoughts, feelings, and behaviors (including how they impact your relationships with others) over time or from day to day, or even moment to moment.

2. Describe the information processing model and provide a real-life example for each of the three steps.

ANSWER: The information processing model suggests that memory involves three major steps: encoding, storage, and retrieval. Encoding refers to taking in information and getting it into our minds. Storage is about holding onto information and saving it over time. Retrieval refers to pulling information out of storage and using it. Examples for encoding could relate to information entered into memory in the form of sensory memory (e.g., echoic, iconic). Examples for storage could be in the form of short-term or long-term memory. Examples for retrieval could be in the form of recall or recognition.

3. Compare and contrast shallow processing versus deep processing. Imagine yourself given the task of memorizing a list of 40 words. Describe the types of questions you would consider about the words if you were processing them at a shallow versus deep level. Also discuss which level of processing would lead to better recall later and why.

ANSWER: Both kinds of processing seek to encode information, but they approach information differently and yield different long-term results. Shallow processing is a superficial level of processing, whereas deep processing involves attaching meaning to the information being processed. When memorizing a long list of words, shallow processing of the words around you would involve asking questions such as: Are the words in capital or lowercase letters? What size font are they? What color is the text? Deep processing would involve questions such as: What is the meaning of the word? What is the significance of the word? How is the word used in a sentence? What does this word mean to me personally? Processing the words at a deep level would lead to longer-lasting memories than shallow processing because deep processing (i.e., relating the words to other information in your memory or connecting it to emotion) embeds it more in your memory.

4. Describe the ways in which human memory resembles that of a computer. Also, in what ways does human memory differ from how a computer stores and processes information?

ANSWER: The three steps of memory according to the information processing model are encoding, storage, and retrieval. This is very similar to how we understand the workings of computer memory: information is first entered into your computer; it is then saved as a file in the available memory; and then the file can be retrieved later from the memory stores. Human memory also differs from computer memory in a number of ways. Whether information is even encoded and then the level at which it is processed (shallow or deep) depends largely on a person's current focal point of attention, their past experiences, and their motivation to engage in effortful processing. Once a memory is stored on a computer, it remains there in the same form it was saved until it is retrieved or modified; storage and retrieval in human memory is often influenced by the context (e.g., culture, emotion, .

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Chapter 5 - Essay priming, encoding specificity, retrieval cues, position effects, misinformation effect). There are also a number of other common memory mistakes and psychological conditions that can affect the accuracy of human memories being encoded, stored, and retrieved. The concepts of memory decay and interference can also be discussed and related to the corruption of computer files.

5. Define retrieval and differentiate between the two main forms of it—recall and recognition. Discuss two factors that retrieval depends on.

ANSWER: Retrieval—the third and final step of the information processing model—is pulling information out of memory. Memory can be retrieved through recall or recognition. In recall, you access stored memory without any comparison to external stimuli, whereas, in recognition, you determine whether stored information matches external information. Regardless of if retrieval is recall or recognition, it depends on things like retrieval cues, priming, and encoding specificity. Retrieval cues are reminders that prompt you to remember stored information. When sights, sounds, or smells 'jog' your memory, you're more likely to be able to retrieve further information. Encoding specificity is related in that you can retrieve information better if the contextual information present when the memory is encoded is present at the time of retrieval. Priming is when recent experiences increase the likelihood of you being able to retrieve information.

6. Compare and contrast explicit versus implicit memory. Also compare and contrast the two types of explicit memory (semantic versus episodic). Provide real-life examples of each subtype of memory.

ANSWER: Explicit memory, also known as declarative memory, consists of conscious memories that you know. The two basic types of explicit memory are semantic (your factual knowledge) and episodic (memories you have about your own personal experiences). Some examples of semantic memory could include book knowledge that you learned in fourth grade, or general knowledge about the world around you like the name of the current U.S. president. Episodic memory entails your autobiographical record of experiences; examples might include significant events like your first dinner date, or small everyday events like what you ate last night. Implicit memory, also known as nondeclarative memory, consists of memories that are outside your conscious awareness; the most common type of implicit memory is procedural memory. Procedural memory is your memory for how to do things. Examples include your memory for how to drive a car or how to ride a bicycle.

7. There is a common saying, "Use it or lose it." How does this saying relate to the concept of memory decay?

Describe how two other factors besides time, such as context, the order in and how often information is presented, and emotions might influence what is remembered and what is not.

ANSWER: Decay is the process by which time erodes memory. Decay occurs most often when information is not used, hence the saying "Use it or lose it." Your ability to remember something depends on what other information surrounds it. For example, retrograde interference is when it is difficult to encode and/or remember older information because you're trying to learn and remember new information, and that gets in the way. Conversely, proactive interference is when it is difficult to remember new information because old information gets in the way. You're also more or less likely to remember things based on the position in which the information is presented to you. If you experience the primacy effect, you will be more likely to remember information presented early on, whereas, if you experience the recency effect, the information presented last will be more likely to be retained. The more often you experience information—or relearn—also increases the likelihood of remembering.

Finally, emotionally charged material is more likely to be recalled and can at times form flashbulb memories that are often excessively vivid and detailed. .

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Chapter 5 - Essay 8. Differentiate between retroactive interference and proactive interference. Provide an example of each as it relates to your own personal life.

ANSWER: Retroactive interference occurs when the acquisition of new information interferes with your ability to remember older information. Proactive interference occurs when your prior memories interfere with your ability to remember newer information. An example of retroactive interference: You study Chapters 1 and 2 at the beginning of the semester and take a test covering those two chapters. You then study Chapters 3 and 4, and you find yourself struggling when trying to recall the information that was covered in Chapters 1 and 2. An example of proactive interference: You follow the same route home from work every day. You move to a different home which is in the opposite direction from your previous home. After work, you find yourself heading in the direction of your old home, even though it's already been a week since you moved into your new home.

9. Your roommate is trying to perform better on his tests at school. You notice that he tends to cram the night before each test. Based on the serial position effect and the spacing effect, what advice would you give your roommate to help improve his study habits? Be sure to describe the various components of these effects and how they inform your advice.

ANSWER: The serial position effect is the tendency to remember the first and last items in a series better than the items in the middle. There are two effects that make up the serial position effect: the primacy effect (tendency to have better recall for items at the beginning of a series) and the recency effect (tendency to have better recall for items at the end of a series). The spacing effect is defined as the tendency to have better long-term memory for information when your attempts to study are spread apart over time. To take advantage of the serial position effect, you should advise your friend to take frequent breaks while studying to create more beginnings and more ends, thereby increasing his likelihood of remembering more information. Given the spacing effect, you should advise him not to cram, but instead to engage in distributed practice, which means having multiple study sessions and spreading them out over time.

10. Research has found that culture tends to have a relatively strong influence on one's memory. Describe three examples where differences in cultural background (e.g., individualistic versus collectivistic) have been found in research to play a role in memory.

ANSWER: Research has found that people from individualistic cultures, which are more self-focused than the more other-focused collectivistic cultures, tend to recall memories that are more focused on themselves versus social interactions or group activities. The language one speaks also influences the type of memory remembered. Bilingual individuals when interviewed in a certain language will tend to remember more memories from a time in their life when they were primarily speaking in that particular language. Moreover, when interviewed in English, individuals tend to recall more memories about themselves, whereas those interviewed in Russian tend to recall more memories about other people and relationships. Culture also influences how events are remembered. People of European descent tend to recall events and tell stories from their own perspective, whereas people of Asian descent tend to tell stories from the point of view of other people.

11. Discuss the often-overlooked influence of sleep on memory. What do researchers believe are the two primary functions related to memory that sleep serves? If a friend of yours is debating whether to pull an allnighter before a test, what advice might you provide, given the research findings on sleep and memory?

ANSWER: Researchers believe that sleep: (1) allows for consolidation of memories and (2) prevents interference from taking place. Sleep has more of an effect on memory consolidation if it takes place .

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Chapter 5 - Essay shortly after encoding than if it takes place closer to the time of retrieval. Sleep deprivation hurts memory. Pulling an all-nighter, therefore, leads to poorer memory retention; information that is encoded right before a sleepless night is frequently forgotten. So, the best advice for improving memory for certain information is to "sleep on it."

12. Imagine that a person gets into a skiing accident, sustains a head injury, and loses memory. Describe amnesia and discuss what symptoms this person would likely experience if this person were to develop retrograde amnesia versus anterograde amnesia.

ANSWER: Often due to physical head trauma, amnesia is the inability to remember some or all information, either temporarily or permanently. Retrograde amnesia is the inability to remember information that took place before a certain time. Anterograde amnesia is the inability to form new memories after a certain point in time. If someone were to sustain a head injury and experience retrograde amnesia, they would experience difficulty in remembering some or all of the past prior to the accident. The person would likely retain implicit memories but forget some of their explicit memories from the past. If this person were to, instead, experience anterograde amnesia, they would remember their personal history and retain past knowledge, but experience difficulty in forming new memories since the time of the accident.

13. Given the research on the misinformation effect, discuss which populations may be particularly prone to making memory errors and thus cause concern when they serve as eyewitnesses in a courtroom trial.

ANSWER: The misinformation effect is the tendency of false or misleading information presented after the fact to alter the original memory or to become mistakenly incorporated into memory. This phenomenon suggests that human memory is highly malleable and subject to reconstruction and, hence, error, even after it has been initially encoded into memory. The accuracy of eyewitness testimony, therefore, should be questioned due to its high-stakes nature and potential for error due to the influence of the misinformation effect. Research suggests that children, elderly adults, and people with psychological disorders (e.g., schizophrenia, PTSD, and alcohol abuse) tend to be especially prone to the misinformation effect and commit more memory errors, which could compromise the accuracy of their eyewitness testimony in a court trial.

14. Human memory appears to be rather fallible, and psychologists have identified a number of common memory mistakes. Describe three such mistakes based on the misinformation effect and provide examples of each from your own personal experience.

ANSWER: The Moses illusion is named after the question "How many animals of each kind did Moses take on the ark?" Most people recall two, but that's an incorrect answer. Moses didn't take animals on the ark; it was Noah. In this memory mistake, the information provided in the question misinforms people's memories and influences them to recall a false memory. The orientation illusion is where someone incorrectly remembers the physical attributes of an item. The association illusion is where someone falsely remembers items or ideas because they are associated with what was actually presented. People are also susceptible to labeling effects, where they remember things differently simply because of the labels or words used by others to describe them. Finally, hindsight bias is the phenomenon where the accuracy of people's memories of their initial predictions is adversely influenced by the outcome of the situation.

15. Julian is diagnosed with an anxiety disorder. Discuss the ways in which Julian's memory is most likely affected by this disorder. Compare and contrast Julian's experiences with those of Gwendolyn, who is diagnosed with depression. .

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Chapter 5 - Essay ANSWER: Julian is likely to remember his life events with relative accuracy. However, his working memory capacity is lower compared to others who are not suffering from anxiety. Furthermore, Julian's memory, particularly for verbal information, can be poor, especially when he feels pressure to respond quickly. Gwendolyn, on the other hand, has a less accurate recall of her life events than someone not diagnosed with depression because her memories tend to be disproportionately centered on the depressing things in her life. She tends to ruminate and dwell on the negative events and emotions, while failing to recall the positive stuff.

16. Arelis was in a terrible head-on car accident that caused her to be in a coma for several weeks, followed by disfigurement, a tremendous amount of physical pain, and guilt over the death of the other driver. After this traumatic event, she is diagnosed with PTSD. What types of memory symptoms likely led to Arelis's diagnosis?

How is her diagnosis likely to affect her upon exposure to future traumatic events?

ANSWER: After the accident, for Arelis to be diagnosed with PTSD, she likely experienced involuntary memories of the traumatizing event. Even in the absence of any intention to retrieve memories about the accident, it is likely that various external cues (e.g., sights, sounds) or internal cues (e.g., feelings, thoughts) may have triggered sudden flashbacks or vivid and frightening memories (sometimes in the form of dreams) as if she were reliving the event. On a day-to-day basis, Arelis has very little control over these involuntary memories and may have trouble functioning when such emotional, anxiety-provoking memories occur. According to research, it is likely that Arelis will be predisposed to experiencing involuntary memories when she encounters additional negative events.

Compared to other people who have no previous history of trauma, Arelis may remember subsequent traumatic events in a more emotional way and with less accuracy.

17. Compare and contrast maintenance rehearsal versus elaborative rehearsal. Provide an example of each and discuss which type of rehearsal leads to longer-lasting memories and why.

ANSWER: Both maintenance and elaborative rehearsal are types of effortful processing where you deliberately repeat information to enhance memory. Maintenance rehearsal involves repeating information in the same form as it was originally encoded (e.g., saying a shopping list over and over again), whereas elaborative rehearsal involves adding meaning to the information (e.g., thinking about the use of each product on your shopping list and times you've used that product in the past). Because elaborative rehearsal entails a deep level of processing (as opposed to maintenance rehearsal, which is shallow), it leads to more enhanced and longer-lasting memories.

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 1. Which statement would psychologists agree is the BEST definition of memory? a. Memory involves grouping pieces of information together in a meaningful way. b. Memory is the process of deliberately repeating information to store it in our brains. c. Memory is achieved through effortful and deep processing of information that we encounter. d. Memory is the process of taking in information, saving it over time, and calling it to mind later.

ANSWER: d 2. _____ is the process of taking in information, saving it over time, and calling it to mind later. a. Encoding b. Memory c. Rehearsal d. Retrieval ANSWER: b 3. Which statement about human memory is true? a. Memory is essential to human life, our identities, and everyday functioning. b. Memory is completely separate from personality. c. Memory allows us to recall every important event in our lives. d. Memory is limited to filing away facts about our everyday lives.

ANSWER: a 4. Which statement is true about research on the extremes of memory impairment and memory excellence? a. Research has found that memory impairment is due primarily to Alzheimer's disease. b. Much of the research that psychologists conduct on memory falls between the two extremes. c. Research reveals that memory excellence depends primarily on inborn ability. d. Memory impairment and memory excellence are the primary focal points of memory research.

ANSWER: b 5. Memory excellence can stem from: a. attributes other than inborn abilities or training. b. training only. c. only inborn abilities. d. training and inborn abilities.

ANSWER: d 6. Throughout most of her life, Farah did not readily and easily remember information. One day, though, she saw a social media post about the USA Memory Championship and was impressed by the long lists of words contestants could remember. Farah signed up for an online course in memory enhancement techniques and began training. A year later, she entered a memory competition and won. Farah's experience demonstrates that: a. an extremely strong memory depends entirely on inborn ability. b. memory excellence and memory impairment must coexist in individuals. .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. you can train yourself to excel in memory. d. memory achievement cannot change over time.

ANSWER: c 7. According to the information processing model, the three steps of memory occur in this order: a. encoding retrieval storage. b. storage retrieval acquisition. c. encoding storage retrieval. d. acquisition encoding retrieval.

ANSWER: c 8. A model of memory that involves the three steps of encoding, storage, and retrieval is the _____ model. a. information processing b. level of processing c. working memory d. effortful rehearsal ANSWER: a 9. The information processing model states that _____ is about holding onto information, whereas _____ is about taking the information back out later. a. retrieval; encoding b. storage; encoding c. storage; retrieval d. rehearsal; retrieval ANSWER: c 10. Mattias studied his notes from class and that he made in his text, but, at the time of the test, Mattias is unable to pull the information out from his memory. According to the information processing model, Mattias is struggling with: a. storage. b. retrieval. c. encoding. d. rehearsal.

ANSWER: b 11. Entering information into memory is referred to as: a. chunking. b. storage. c. elaboration. d. encoding.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 12. Encoding is defined as: a. grouping pieces of information together in a meaningful way. b. adding meaning to information to enhance meaning. c. entering information into memory. d. retaining information in memory.

ANSWER: c 13. Which BEST exemplifies encoding? a. reading a book for the first time b. thinking about your first day at work c. repeating someone's telephone number d. singing a song stuck in your head ANSWER: a 14. You enter a restaurant for the first time and notice the arrangement of the tables, the friendliness of the waitstaff, and the general ambience of the place. As you take in the information around you, you are engaging in the first step of the memory process known as: a. retrieving. b. encoding. c. elaborating. d. storing.

ANSWER: b 15. Auditory sensory memory is known as _____ memory. a. iconic b. short-term c. working d. echoic ANSWER: d 16. Echoic memory is BEST described as: a. your visual sensory memory over the past fraction of a second. b. all the information your ears take in during the past few seconds. c. information repeatedly shown to you. d. the earliest part of the memory process.

ANSWER: b 17. Sensory memory that is taken in by your eyes is called _____ memory, whereas sensory memory taken in by your ears is called _____ memory. a. echoic; iconic b. short-term; working .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. working; short-term d. iconic; echoic ANSWER: d 18. Which of these BEST exemplifies echoic memory? a. the way you can remember a song you haven't heard since childhood b. your brief memory for the color of the bird that just flew by your window c. the memory you have about your first study-abroad trip to a foreign country d. your brief sensory memory for the sound of your dog barking at a stranger ANSWER: d 19. Your best friend says something to you while you are in the middle of a task. You don't quite catch what he says, so you immediately ask him, "What?" He begins to repeat himself, but then you suddenly realize that you did hear what he said. You say, "Never mind, I heard you." Your friend is puzzled, wondering why you asked him to repeat himself if you had understood what he said the first time. Which statement BEST explains your behavior? a. Visual sensory memory helps to inform your auditory sensory memory. b. Iconic memory lasts for only fractions of a second. c. Echoic memory lasts for up to several seconds. d. Working memory is crucial to learning.

ANSWER: c 20. Iconic memory is: a. visual information retrieved from long-term memory. b. information taken in by your ears. c. a very temporary holding area for incoming visual information. d. sensory memory about taste and smell.

ANSWER: c 21. Which BEST exemplifies iconic memory? a. brief memory for the size of the bag the person who passed you was carrying b. long-term memory for the name of your first pet you had while growing up c. brief memory of the sound of the plan flying overhead d. distinguishing the sound of your phone's ringtone from background noise ANSWER: a 22. Iconic memory is to _____ memory as echoic memory is to _____ memory. a. short-term; long-term b. visual sensory; auditory sensory c. working; short-term d. auditory sensory; visual sensory .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 23. As Maria rides on the bus and looks out the window, her iconic memory takes in all the _____ as her echoic memory takes in all the _____. a. sights; sounds b. smells; sights c. sounds; smells d. sounds; sights ANSWER: a 24. The likelihood that information moves past sensory memory and becomes encoded, stored in long-term memory, and retrieved depends mostly upon its: a. long-term potentiation. b. conscious processing. c. retroactive interference. d. level of processing.

ANSWER: d 25. Based on our understanding of levels of processing, _____ processing tends to lead to rather speedy forgetting, whereas _____ processing tends to lead to longer-lasting memories. a. intermediate; shallow b. shallow; deep c. iconic; echoic d. meaningful; superficial ANSWER: b 26. A deep level of processing is BEST reflected by: a. noticing the chirping of a fire alarm. b. saying the name of a store. c. appreciating the meaning of a song. d. paying attention to the color of someone's shirt.

ANSWER: c 27. Which question is LEAST likely to be asked by someone who is engaging in deep processing of written text? a. How does it affect my life? b. How many words does it contain? c. What are its most important points? d. How does it relate to information I already know?

ANSWER: b 28. Which question would MOST likely be asked by someone engaging in shallow processing of written text? .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice a. What does it mean? b. How does it relate to information I already know? c. What are its most important points? d. What color are the letters?

ANSWER: d 29. Tania reads a flyer on the bulletin board of the hall by her classroom. The next day, it's been removed, and Tania cannot seem to remember what the flyer was about, but she does recall that it was written in black type on bright blue paper. Tania MOST likely processed the information at a _____ level. a. shallow b. deep c. effortful d. rehearsal ANSWER: a 30. In a research study, two participants took a memory test where 15 words were projected sequentially onto a screen. Charlotte was told to look at all the letters in each word as it appeared on the screen, whereas Theodore was instructed to think of ways each word could be used in a sentence. Based on levels of processing theory, you would predict that: a. Charlotte will have better recall of the words because she used deep processing. b. Charlotte will have poorer recall of the words because she used elaborative rehearsal. c. Theodore will have better recall of the words because he used deep processing. d. Theodore will have poorer recall of the words because he used shallow processing.

ANSWER: c 31. Mikaere is a native Mãori speaker trying to learn a few English phrases in preparation for an upcoming conference in Canada. What is the BEST advice should Mikaere follow to commit these phrases to long-term memory? a. Gain understanding and appreciation for what the phrases mean. b. Focus very carefully on the way your mouth needs to move to pronounce the words. c. Repeat the phrases slowly word for word. d. Practice saying the words as quickly as possible.

ANSWER: a 32. Which statement about research on PET scans and levels of processing is NOT true? a. Deep processing leads to greater memory compared to shallow processing. b. Shallow processing and deep processing appear to be distinct functions. c. Different levels of processing take place in the same areas of the brain. d. The prefrontal cortex is used more during deep processing than in shallow processing.

ANSWER: c 33. Which is NOT a type of effortful processing? .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice a. maintenance rehearsal b. priming c. chunking d. elaborative rehearsal ANSWER: b 34. _____ is a type of effortful processing where pieces of information are grouped together in a meaningful way to boost memory. a. Chunking b. Rehearsal c. Misinforming d. Elaboration ANSWER: a 35. Which statement about chunking is true? a. Deliberate chunking worsens our memories. b. Chunking can happen only without conscious awareness. c. Experts in chess and other fields often perform worse when they engage in chunking. d. Chunking involves grouping pieces of information together in a meaningful way.

ANSWER: d 36. Which is an example of chunking? a. learning a country line dance as a series of individual steps b. repeating a long list of about 20 separate items to buy at the store c. remembering a shopping list as taco ingredients, laundry items, and toiletries d. seeing a chess game as a collection of isolated pieces and moves ANSWER: c 37. Akenehi rearranges the seemingly meaningless letters RSWMCOFLLTPA into RSW MCO FLL TPA, which are airport codes for cities in Florida. This helps Akenehi make the long string of letters easier for her to remember. In doing so, Akenhio is using a type of effortful processing called: a. chunking. b. encoding. c. rehearsal. d. retrieval.

ANSWER: a 38. _____ is a type of effortful processing where a person deliberately repeats information to enhance memory. a. Storage b. Chunking c. Rehearsal .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. Elaboration ANSWER: c 39. Yindi is engaging in maintenance rehearsal to remember a list of names. They would MOST likely: a. repeat the list of names over and over again either aloud or silently. b. immediately write the list of names down so as to not forget it. c. alphabetize the list of names. d. think of rhymes of each of the names.

ANSWER: a 40. _____ rehearsal involves shallow processing, whereas _____ rehearsal involves deep processing. a. Maintenance; elaborative b. Short-term; maintenance c. Sensory; long-term d. Maintenance; deliberative ANSWER: a 41. In a research study, two students are given the number 1295174 to remember. Ryan repeats the number over and over, whereas Mitch remembers certain series of numbers as jersey numbers of football players. Ryan is engaging in _____ while Mitch is engaging in _____. a. chunking; long-term potentiation b. maintenance rehearsal; chunking c. long-term potentiation; elaborative rehearsal d. elaborative rehearsal; chunking ANSWER: b 42. Susie is trying to learn the order of the stops on the train line from her house to work. Instead of simply repeating the names of each stop over and over again, she thinks about landmarks that are present at each stop and also her own experiences visiting places at the stops. Susie's memory is likely to be enhanced due to her use of: a. chunking. b. sensory memory. c. elaborative rehearsal. d. maintenance rehearsal.

ANSWER: c 43. Which statement is false about maintenance rehearsal and elaborative rehearsal? a. Maintenance rehearsal involves deep processing, whereas elaborative rehearsal involves shallow processing. b. Maintenance rehearsal involves repeating information in the same form as it was originally encoded. c. Elaborative rehearsal involves adding meaning or associations to information. d. Elaborative rehearsal can help enhance memory a lot more than maintenance rehearsal. .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 44. The increased connectivity between simultaneously stimulated neurons that forms the biological basis of memory is called: a. short-term memory. b. long-term potentiation. c. working memory. d. long-term memory.

ANSWER: b 45. Long-term potentiation is defined as: a. a seemingly limitless amount of information being held for extensive periods of time. b. the decrease in the connectivity between neurons in the brain that correlates with memory fading. c. a limited amount of new information being held briefly but which has the potential to be encoded into long-term memory d. the increased connectivity between simultaneously stimulated neurons that forms the biological basis of memory.

ANSWER: d 46. At the neuron level in the brain, if long-term potentiation were to occur, you would see: a. no changes in the short-term but potential for long-term decay. b. increased activity and connectivity between certain neurons. c. decreased neural activity in the hippocampus. d. deterioration of connections between axons and cell bodies.

ANSWER: b 47. Oftentimes people take shortcuts across the grass instead of walking along the longer paved concrete path.

The shortcuts worn into the grass over time is MOST similar to the concept of _____ in memory. a. long-term depression b. chunking c. elaborative rehearsal d. long-term potentiation ANSWER: d 48. Which statement is false about long-term depression as it relates to the biological basis of memory? a. It may be the basis of forgetting. b. It can be functional when applied to unimportant information. c. It occurs mostly when people experience long periods of sadness. d. It is the opposite of long-term potentiation.

ANSWER: c 49. The decreased connectivity between neurons in the brain that is thought to be a basis for memory fading is .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice known as: a. long-term depression. b. source amnesia. c. encoding specificity. d. anterograde amnesia.

ANSWER: a 50. Based on terminology used by memory researchers, a person experiencing long-term depression would MOST likely show signs of: a. hopelessness. b. forgetting. c. extreme sadness. d. memory enhancement.

ANSWER: b 51. _____ is correlated with enhanced memory, whereas _____ is correlated with forgetting. a. Long-term potentiation; long-term depression b. Decreased neural connectivity; increased neural connectivity c. Maintenance rehearsal; elaborative rehearsal d. Shallow processing; deep processing ANSWER: a 52. Benji started working out at his campus gym and, after consistently going, began to notice an improvement in his memory performance on tests. Benji's improved ability to remember information is consistent with research demonstrating that physical exercise helps: a. long-term potentiation. b. sensory memory. c. effortful processing. d. automatic processing.

ANSWER: a 53. Which statement is true about memory storage? It is: a. the third and final step of the information processing model. b. the taking in and processing of information. c. the first of the three steps of the information processing model. d. what happens to information between encoding and retrieval.

ANSWER: d 54. Short-term memory and long-term memory are two basic forms of memory: a. processing. b. storage. .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. encoding. d. retrieval.

ANSWER: b 55. The BEST example of memory storage is: a. posting from your phone to social media. b. searching for a contact on your phone. c. saving a person's contact information. d. deleting an app from your phone.

ANSWER: c 56. Short-term memory features _____ duration and _____ capacity. a. limited; limited b. unlimited; limited c. limited; unlimited d. unlimited; unlimited ANSWER: a 57. _____ memory features limited duration and limited capacity. a. Flashbulb b. Short-term c. Explicit d. Long-term ANSWER: b 58. A sales rep for an Internet provider knocks on your door while you're home studying. You open the doors, and the rep introduces himself and then immediately shares a lot of information about a new deal the Internet provider is offering. According to research findings regarding short-term memory, it is MOST likely that 30 seconds after ending the conversation, you will: a. be able to remember every detail about the encounter. b. recall the sales rep's name but none of the sales pitch. c. forget that the encounter ever occurred. d. be unable to recall the sales rep's name and some of the sales pitch details.

ANSWER: d 59. According to Ebbinghaus's "forgetting curve," the steepest decline in memory retention occurs within: a. 1 hour. b. 1 day. c. 1 week. d. 1 month.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 60. You pay attention in class and enjoy learning. In fact, you find the lectures rather enjoyable, but since everything the professor teaches seems to make complete sense to you while in class, you question the necessity of studying outside of class. You don't study for the first test and are disappointed with your very low grade.

Which statement about Ebbinghaus's "forgetting curve" BEST explains your experience? a. Short-term memory slowly and gradually fades over the course of time. b. The steepest decline in retention of information occurs within the first hour. c. An initial steep decline in retention of information occurs only if the presented information is confusing. d. Retention of information initially remains high over several days followed by a steep decline after 30 days.

ANSWER: b 61. Some early memory research found that most of us can hold seven plus or minus two items of information in our short-term memory. This concept is known as the: a. primacy effect. b. forgetting curve. c. recency effect. d. magic number.

ANSWER: d 62. David is given a list of 20 items to remember. According to Miller's (1956) "magic number" of memory capacity, what will David MOST likely remember? a. the first few items on the list b. between 5 and 9 of the items c. more than 10 of the items d. the last few items on the list ANSWER: b 63. Your friend Lydia tells you the phone number of a nearby restaurant. You're easily able to remember the 7digit number long enough to enter it into your phone and call. However, for a restaurant that is out of state, she gives you the number with area code, and you have trouble remembering it and making the call. Your inability to remember the 10-digit phone number is an example of: a. the serial position effect. b. long-term potentiation. c. the magic number. d. chunking.

ANSWER: c 64. Nataleigh is starting a new pest control business. Instead of leaving it up to the phone company, she requests a phone number that translates to 1-800-NOBUGZZ. Nataleigh's request BEST reflects an understanding of the importance of both the _____ and _____ when it comes to people's memory capacity. a. long-term potentiation; what rehearsal entails b. magic number; how information is chunked .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. serial position effect; how working memory functions d. forgetting curve; what automatic processing requires ANSWER: b 65. A type of memory in which processing is done on briefly held information is called: a. short-term memory. b. encoding. c. automatic processing. d. working memory.

ANSWER: d 66. Working memory is a type of memory: a. that is important for retrieving old memories but not creating new ones. b. that merely serves as a holding cell for information passively waiting to be processed. c. in which processing is actively done on briefly held information. d. that operates primarily at night while you sleep.

ANSWER: c 67. Which statement is false about working memory? a. It serves as a holding cell for information passively waiting to be processed or forgotten. b. It is crucial to learning and academic performance. c. It is a type of memory in which processing is done on briefly held information. d. It operates during almost all of your waking hours.

ANSWER: a 68. As you listen to a professor's lecture in class, you find yourself relating the information to your own life, considering how the information connects to the last lecture, and thinking about what questions the professor might put on the test. The type of memory MOST responsible for this type of thinking is _____ memory. a. sensory b. working c. long-term d. rehearsed ANSWER: b 69. Siobhan is far better at multitasking than is Tariq. It is likely that Siobhan: a. is more intelligent than Tariq. b. engages in more encoding than does Tariq. c. has greater working memory capacity than does Tariq. d. utilizes retrieval cues better than does Tariq.

ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 70. Multitasking ability has been found to be heavily dependent upon: a. working memory capacity. b. intelligence. c. automatic processing. d. encoding specificity.

ANSWER: a 71. The capacity of long-term memory is assumed by most experts to: a. depend entirely on one's age. b. depend on one's gender. c. be finite like a computer memory storage device. d. be limitless.

ANSWER: d 72. Sometimes information can enter into our long-term memory without any conscious processing. This is known as _____ processing. a. shallow b. deep c. automatic d. effortful ANSWER: c 73. As Rocco and his boyfriend, Chase, discuss where to get take-out from for dinner, Chase asks, "How often do you think we get take-out every month?" Rocco hadn't counted and kept track of the exact number of times, but he replies, "Probably 6 to 8 times?". Rocco's ability to provide at least an approximation is mostly due to his _____ of the frequency of events. a. automatic encoding b. long-term potentiation c. effortful processing d. elaborative rehearsal ANSWER: a 74. Retrieval is defined as: a. entering information into memory. b. taking in information through your senses. c. pulling information out of memory. d. processing information as it sits in short-term memory.

ANSWER: c 75. _____ is defined as pulling information out of memory. a. Retrieval b. Encoding .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. Storing d. Priming ANSWER: a 76. Which statement is false about retrieval? a. It is the third and final step of the information processing model. b. Recall and recognition are two kinds of retrieval. c. It involves pulling information out of memory. d. It is the passage through short-term memory into long-term memory.

ANSWER: d 77. Which concept is LEAST related to retrieval? a. recognition b. priming c. rehearsal d. encoding specificity ANSWER: c 78. Which concept is MOST related to retrieval? a. maintenance rehearsal b. recognition c. chunking d. interference ANSWER: b 79. Which of these BEST exemplifies retrieval? a. noticing the people walking past you on the sidewalk b. recalling the name of the street you grew up on c. going to tutoring so you'll be better prepared for the test d. repeating the name of a person you just met so you don't forget it ANSWER: b 80. A person relying on _____ is retrieving information from storage without any comparison to external information. a. recognition b. priming c. recall d. relearning ANSWER: c 81. A type of retrieval in which stored information is compared to external information to determine if it .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice matches is called _____. a. recognition b. priming c. recall d. relearning ANSWER: a 82. Recall is a type of retrieval in which stored information is: a. compared to external information to determine if it matches. b. entered into long-term memory without any conscious processing. c. forgotten due to lack of rehearsal. d. accessed without any comparison to external information.

ANSWER: d 83. Typically, multiple-choice questions test for _____, whereas essay questions test for _____. a. retrieval; recognition b. recognition; recall c. priming; recall d. recall; recognition ANSWER: b 84. Fill-in-the-blank test questions can sometimes be challenging for students because these types of questions require students to _____ information. a. store b. encode c. recognize d. recall ANSWER: d 85. Which occurrence is an example of recall? a. having trouble remembering someone's name at a meeting, but being able to pick it out from a list on the agenda b. going to a restaurant and at first being unable to remember the name of your favorite dish, but then remembering after you see it on the menu c. someone asking you the name of your kindergarten teacher, and then your being able to respond after briefly thinking about it d. needing to make an appointment for your pet, but having to search "local veterinarians" on the Internet to retrieve the name of the vet's office ANSWER: c 86. Which occurrence is NOT an example of recognition? a. having trouble remembering someone's name at a meeting, but being able to pick it out from a list on .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice the agenda b. going to a restaurant and at first being unable to remember the name of your favorite dish, but then remembering after you see it on the menu c. someone asking you the name of your kindergarten teacher, and then your being able to respond after briefly thinking about it d. needing to make an appointment for your pet, but having to search "local veterinarians" on the Internet to retrieve the name of the vet's office ANSWER: c 87. Which occurrence is an example of recognition? a. having trouble remembering someone's name after an event, but being able to pick it out from the guest list b. when asked, being able to tell someone the name of the burger joint you used to frequent while living in another city several years ago c. struggling a bit to remember your home address from childhood, but being able to produce it after a few moments of thinking d. telling someone your business phone number without having to look it up ANSWER: a 88. Which occurrence is NOT an example of recall? a. having trouble remembering someone's name after an event, but being able to pick it out from the guest list b. when asked, being able to tell someone the name of the burger joint you used to frequent while living in another city several years ago c. struggling a bit to remember your home address from childhood, but being able to produce it after a few moments of thinking d. telling someone your business phone number without having to look it up ANSWER: a 89. "What are the two types of atoms in a water molecule?" If this question were presented on a test with just two blanks for you to fill in, what type of retrieval would you have to rely on? a. recognition b. recall c. long-term potentiation d. automatic encoding ANSWER: b 90. A class of second-graders just finished learning about the different kinds of rock. If the question "Obsidian is which type of rock?" were presented on a test, followed by answer options (a) igneous, (b) metamorphic, and (c) sedimentary, what type of retrieval would MOST of the children have to rely on to answer this kind of question? a. recognition b. recall .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. state-dependent learning d. automatic encoding ANSWER: a 91. _____ are reminders that facilitate your ability to pull information out of memory. a. Orientation illusions b. Retrieval cues c. Association illusions d. Spacing effects ANSWER: b 92. A retrieval cue is BEST described as: a. a reminder that facilitates retrieval of information from memory. b. the spontaneous recall of information without any intention to retrieve it. c. a memory that you can declare to another person as factual. d. a distinctively clear memory of an emotionally charged event.

ANSWER: a 93. At your 20th high school reunion, a group of your friends asks you if you remember a former classmate named Mike Parks. The name doesn't ring a bell, but as your friends begin to tell funny stories about the kind of things Mike used to do at school, you suddenly remember who he was. Your friends' stories of Mike served as a(n) _____ that prompted you to remember. a. flashbulb memory b. recency effect c. retrieval cue d. association illusion ANSWER: c 94. _____ explains how information present at the time of memory encoding can serve as an effective cue at the time of retrieval. a. Proactive interference b. Priming c. Encoding specificity d. Relearning ANSWER: c 95. Encoding specificity is BEST defined as: a. the tendency of false information presented after the fact to become mistakenly incorporated into memory. b. the dwindling of specific information from memory due to the passage of time. c. recent experiences causing an increased likelihood of recalling certain memories. d. the effect of contextual information present when memory was encoded on retrieval. .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 96. Which statement is false about encoding specificity? a. It explains how if you're in the same place where you learned certain information, you have a better chance of recalling it. b. It is the effect of contextual information present when memory was encoded on retrieval. c. It applies only to physical locations and cues present in that place. d. It is also known as context-dependent memory.

ANSWER: c 97. Encoding specificity is MOST related to which concept? a. state-dependent learning b. priming c. explicit memory d. relearning ANSWER: a 98. Using the principle of encoding specificity to your advantage is BEST reflected by: a. going to bed early to avoid sleep deprivation prior to taking a test. b. rehearsing vocabulary words for a class so you will recognize them on a midterm. c. studying in an environment similar to the classroom where you will be taking the exam. d. taking a deep breath before a test to reduce the negative impact of anxiety on memory.

ANSWER: c 99. All of these students' behaviors show they are taking advantage of the idea of encoding specificity EXCEPT: a. Harry, who typically goes to bed early but stays up late to study the night before the exam. b. Brennon, who smiles and puts himself in a good mood before studying and before testing. c. Joel, who decides to chew a particular kind of gum while he is studying and during the test. d. Alex, who is studying in the same lecture hall where he will be taking his exam.

ANSWER: a 100. You get up from your study room to get something from the kitchen. Once you get to the kitchen, you can't seem to remember what you were going to get. Frustrated, you give up and head back to study. As soon as you enter your study room, you suddenly remember what you were going to get from the kitchen! Which concept BEST explains what you just experienced? a. retroactive interference b. context-dependent learning c. rich false memory d. involuntary memory ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 101. Priming is where: a. recent experiences increase the likelihood of certain memories being recalled. b. specific techniques are used to deliberately enhance memory. c. long-term memories are enhanced because of distributed practice. d. consolidation of memory occurs due to increased sleep.

ANSWER: a 102. The type of influence on retrieval where recent experiences increase the likelihood of recalling certain memories is known as: a. chunking. b. decay. c. interference. d. priming.

ANSWER: d 103. Research suggests that participants are more likely to correctly recognize and recall the name of a person if they had previously been asked a question that included a portion of the person's name, compared to those participants who were asked a question about something unrelated to the person's name—for example, asking a question about chimney-dwelling birds (i.e., swifts) and then being asked to identify a certain singer (i.e., Taylor Swift). This research BEST exemplifies the efficacy of: a. priming. b. chunking. c. mnemonics. d. rehearsal.

ANSWER: a 104. Hiro is instructed to say the word "sat" five times out loud. He is then asked to name the first animal that comes to mind. His greater likelihood of replying "cat" than someone who was not first instructed to repeat the word "sat" reflects the influence of: a. rehearsal. b. priming. c. interference. d. mnemonics.

ANSWER: b 105. Memory of which you are consciously aware is known as _____ memory. a. explicit b. procedural c. implicit d. flashbulb ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 106. Explicit memory is defined as: a. memory of which you are not consciously aware. b. your recollection of how to do things. c. memory of which you are consciously aware. d. memory that has been lost due to the passage of time.

ANSWER: c 107. Which statement is false about explicit memory? a. It is also known as declarative memory. b. Much of it is procedural memory. c. There are two basic types: semantic memory and episodic memory. d. It is memory of which you are consciously aware.

ANSWER: b 108. Which statement is true about explicit memory? a. It is memory of which you are consciously aware. b. It is also known as nondeclarative memory. c. Much of it is procedural in nature. d. It is your recollection of "how" rather than "what."

ANSWER: a 109. The BEST example of explicit memory is: a. the way your pupils constrict in bright light. b. how you can carry a bike without much thought. c. factual knowledge you have learned in classes. d. your ability to get better at a game on your smartphone.

ANSWER: c 110. Explicit memory is to _____ memory as implicit memory is to _____ memory. a. procedural; nonprocedural b. declarative; nondeclarative c. semantic; declarative d. nondeclarative; procedural ANSWER: b 111. Declarative memory is to _____ memory as nondeclarative memory is to _____ memory. a. flashbulb; working b. procedural; nonprocedural c. semantic; episodic d. explicit; implicit ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 112. _____ memory consists of facts, figures, and other general information about the world, whereas _____ memory consists of personal information about oneself and firsthand experiences. a. Implicit; explicit b. Declarative; nondeclarative c. Semantic; episodic d. Episodic; semantic ANSWER: c 113. Which statement is false about episodic memory? a. It is a type of implicit memory. b. It consists of your personal firsthand experiences. c. It is a type of declarative memory. d. It is your recollection of what happens to you.

ANSWER: a 114. Research on the regions of the brain responsible for explicit memory supports that: a. episodic memory and semantic memory are both formed in the same region of the brain. b. damage to the hippocampus is most associated with impaired semantic memory. c. the hippocampus is much more involved in episodic memory than in semantic memory. d. episodic memory relies more heavily on the prefrontal cortex than on the hippocampus.

ANSWER: c 115. Which BEST exemplifies episodic memory? a. what you ate during your first trip to the dormitory cafeteria b. how you type when texting on your smartphone c. all the words to the Emancipation Proclamation that you learned in grade school d. being able to ride a bike despite not doing it for a while ANSWER: a 116. Episodic memory is MOST like your: a. common sense. b. book smarts. c. autobiography. d. encyclopedia.

ANSWER: c 117. Kenisha was watching a baseball game from the stands when they were hit in the head by a fly ball. They were unconscious for a few minutes. When Kenisha regained consciousness, they could answer questions about themself, like their name, phone number, and their last name. However, they had difficulty recalling which month it was and the year the United States was founded. Based on this evidence, it is MOST likely that the blow to Kenisha's head impaired their _____ memory, while their _____ memory remained intact. .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice a. episodic; procedural b. episodic; implicit c. semantic; episodic d. implicit; explicit ANSWER: c 118. Contestants on the game show Jeopardy! are most successful when they have a strong memory for facts, figures, and other general information. In other words, the contestants with the strongest _____ memory tend to be the most successful. a. semantic b. procedural c. episodic d. implicit ANSWER: a 119. Memory outside of conscious awareness is known as _____ memory. a. explicit b. declarative c. implicit d. flashbulb ANSWER: c 120. Procedural memory is a type of _____ memory. a. flashbulb b. implicit c. declarative d. explicit ANSWER: b 121. Procedural memory is LEAST required for: a. turning a doorknob to open a door. b. filling a car with gas. c. reading a story out loud. d. washing your hands.

ANSWER: c 122. Procedural memory is MOST required for: a. riding a bicycle. b. completing fill in the blank questions on a test. c. writing an essay for an assignment. d. listing the United States and their capital cities. .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 123. Simeon wants to do well on their final exam in their Botany lab and so is studying the shapes of leaves of different trees. If their brain was being monitored by an fMRI scan, high levels of activity would MOST likely be seen in Simeon's: a. cerebellum and basal ganglia. b. frontal lobes and hippocampus. c. basal ganglia and cerebellum. d. hippocampus and basal ganglia.

ANSWER: b 124. Ava is the assistant coach of her college's women's lacrosse team. At the start of the season, she spends most of her time teaching the team about the rules of lacrosse. As the season continues, she spends more time encouraging the players as they practice skills on the field. The players on the team Ava help coach first improve their _____ memory about lacrosse, and then they work on improving their _____ memory on the field. a. semantic; episodic b. procedural; semantic c. episodic; semantic d. semantic; procedural ANSWER: d 125. The fading or loss of information from memory due to the passage of time is called: a. interference. b. decay. c. spacing. d. amnesia.

ANSWER: b 126. Which statement is false about memory decay? a. It is the process by which time erodes memory. b. It happens most often when information is not used. c. Once memory enters your long-term memory, it is immune to decay. d. Using information in long-term memory lessens chances of decay.

ANSWER: c 127. Which statement is true about memory decay? a. It occurs when newer information causes problems remembering older information. b. It happens most often when trying to remember recently learned information. c. Using information in long-term memory lessens chances of decay. d. Once memory enters your long-term memory, it is immune to decay.

ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 128. The BEST way to prevent decay of long-term memories would be to: a. not worry or stress over them. b. leave them untouched for long periods of time. c. refresh those memories every once in a while. d. focus on learning new things to keep your mind sharp.

ANSWER: c 129. Karelis spends a semester abroad in Brazil immersing themselves in the culture and taking intensive language classes. By the end of the trip, Karolis becomes very proficient in Portuguese and is eager to continue practicing their Portuguese conversation skills. However, a few years after returning home and not having been around anyone who speaks Portuguese, Karolis unfortunately can barely remember any of the Portuguese they previously learned. Karolis's experience BEST reflects: a. retroactive amnesia. b. proactive interference. c. anterograde amnesia. d. memory decay.

ANSWER: d 130. Eugene receives certification in specialized medical terminology, but they end up taking a job in which they do not get the chance to use any of the terminology. They eventually forget the information they learned in the certification course. Eugene's experience BEST exemplifies: a. memory decay. b. retrograde amnesia. c. anterograde amnesia. d. interference.

ANSWER: a 131. Which statement is true about context and memory? a. Context plays an important role in your ability to remember certain pieces of information. b. Contextual information has no bearing on your ability to remember target information. c. Interference affects only people with short attention spans. d. People with high intelligence are immune to memory problems due to interference.

ANSWER: a 132. Interference is the process by which: a. people forget information because of competition from other information. b. forgetting occurs due to the inevitable passage of time. c. information is committed to memory for a second time after it has been forgotten. d. forgetting occurs due to ineffective, superficial encoding.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 133. Problems remembering older information caused by the introduction of newer information is called: a. the recency effect. b. retroactive interference. c. anterograde amnesia. d. proactive interference.

ANSWER: b 134. An example of retroactive interference is: a. calling your current significant other by your ex's name. b. forgetting how to do a calculus problem because you haven't done one in a long time. c. learning a new song and forgetting lyrics to a song you previously knew. d. moving to a new house but driving to your old house out of habit.

ANSWER: c 135. Problems remembering newer information caused by competition from older information is called: a. the primacy effect. b. retroactive interference. c. retrograde amnesia. d. proactive interference.

ANSWER: d 136. An example of proactive interference is: a. gaining basic skills in sign language but losing them because you don't practice them. b. being so used to a certain style of play in rugby that you cannot learn a new style. c. reading a new book and having trouble remembering the story line from another book. d. learning new plays in basketball and forgetting the old ones.

ANSWER: b 137. Gabija spends the first half of the evening studying for her music theory class and then studies for her psychology class for the rest of the evening. If Gabja were to experience retroactive interference, she would MOST likely: a. remember a lot more of the music theory while having difficulty recalling parts of the chemistry she studied. b. remember a lot more of the psychology while having difficulty recalling parts of the music theory she studied. c. have equal recall for both the music theory and psychology material. d. experience overload and have difficulty recalling both the music theory and psychology.

ANSWER: b 138. You are taking both a Biology and a Chemistry course this semester. As you study the concepts for your Chemistry test, you begin to realize that remembering the Chemistry concepts seems harder because you studied them shortly after reviewing the concepts from your biology class. This is BEST described as an example of: .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice a. source monitoring errors. b. the spacing effect. c. proactive interference. d. retroactive interference.

ANSWER: d 139. Vasare sings in their school choir. They typically sing baritone, and so they learned the baritone part for a song Vasare's choir is currently learning. However, a few tenor-singing members left the choir, and so the choir director asks if Vasare can sing the tenor part instead. Vasare notices they have much more trouble learning the tenor part than they normally would have learning a new song. This BEST exemplifies: a. the recency effect. b. the primacy effect. c. proactive interference. d. retroactive interference.

ANSWER: c 140. When presented with a series of items, the tendency to remember the first and last items better than the items in the middle is called: a. the recency effect. b. the primacy effect. c. the serial position effect. d. retroactive interference.

ANSWER: c 141. Both the primacy effect and the recency effect represent different parts of: a. the associative illusion. b. global amnesia. c. the spacing effect. d. the serial position effect.

ANSWER: d 142. The _____ effect is the tendency to remember the last items in a series particularly well, whereas the _____ effect is the tendency to remember the first items in a series particularly well. a. recency; primacy b. spacing; serial position c. serial position; interference d. primacy; recency ANSWER: a 143. If you wanted your cake to win a baking competition with 15 contestants, it would be best for your cake to be judged _____ because the _____ effect often influences food preferences. a. 1st; primacy .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice b. 15th; primacy c. 1st; recency d. 7th; recency ANSWER: a 144. Research has found that on the widely broadcasted singing competition American Idol, contestants who perform later in the show are more likely to receive enough votes to make it to the next week. This finding may BEST be explained by the _____ effect a. primacy b. spacing c. recency d. misinformation ANSWER: c 145. You are presented with 20 classmate names to remember. On the first day of class, you can confidently recall only the first 3 names presented to you. This is BEST explained by the _____ effect. a. primacy b. recency c. labeling d. flashbulb ANSWER: a 146. During a research study on memory, Jaya was told to remember this list of words: opossum, emu, raccoon, skunk, kangaroo, ostrich, manatee, dolphin, penguin, fruit bat. If Jaya demonstrates the recency effect, which words would they be MOST likely to easily recall? a. emu, ostrich, penguin b. opossum, emu, raccoon c. dolphin, penguin, fruit bat d. skunk, kangaroo, ostrich ANSWER: c 147. The process of committing information to memory for a second time after it has been forgotten is called: a. interference. b. elaboration. c. long-term potentiation. d. relearning.

ANSWER: d 148. Marija is studying for her upcoming cumulative final exam in history, and she's reviewing information from the beginning of the semester. Marija finds that it is taking her much less time to understand the material than it did when the information was first presented. This BEST describes which memory process? a. long-term potentiation .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice b. relearning c. retroactive interference d. retroactive interference ANSWER: b 149. A(n) _____ memory is a distinctly clear and vivid memory of an emotionally charged and novel event. a. semantic b. iconic c. procedural d. flashbulb ANSWER: d 150. Which statement is false about flashbulb memories? a. They are distinctly clear and vivid memories of emotionally charged events. b. They are produced as a result of negative, perhaps tragic events, but not positive ones. c. They are often shared by many people who experienced or witnessed the same event. d. They can be produced due to society-wide events as well as personal events.

ANSWER: b 151. Which statement is true about flashbulb memories? a. They involve heightened emotional reactions and fade shortly after the emotions subside. b. They are produced as a result of negative, perhaps tragic events, but not positive ones. c. They are often shared by many people who experienced or witnessed the same event. d. They are longer lasting when experienced as personal events rather than with others.

ANSWER: c 152. A person who experiences an emotionally charged event and is particularly aroused by it is more likely to store that event as a(n) _____ memory than someone who is not sufficiently moved by it. a. procedural b. iconic c. echoic d. flashbulb ANSWER: d 153. Oftentimes, American adults can barely recall what they were doing at a certain time even just a week ago.

However, they can clearly recall details of the moment when they first heard about the terrorist attacks in the United States on 9/11, which happened over two decades ago. Which statement BEST explains this phenomenon? a. 9/11 can be considered a society-wide flashbulb memory. b. People tend to mentally rehearse tragic events like 9/11. c. Individuals are primed to think of 9/11 on a regular basis. .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. Information related to tragic events is stored as implicit memory.

ANSWER: a 154. Carlton has been a huge fan of Rams football, both when they were in St. Louis and now in Los Angeles.

He watched every game on television and, in 2022, watched his team win the Super Bowl. While every other game is pretty much a blur to Carlton, it is probable that he will be able to vividly recall details and exciting moments from this particular Super Bowl for decades to come because it has formed a(n) _____ memory. a. iconic b. procedural c. flashbulb d. echoic ANSWER: c 155. Which statement about culture's influence on the probability of forming a flashbulb memory is true? a. Collectivist and individualistic cultures have a similar probability of forming a flashbulb memory if the event is of national importance. b. Collectivist cultures have a higher probability of forming a flashbulb memory if the event is of personal importance than do individualistic cultures. c. Collectivist cultures have a higher probability of forming a flashbulb memory if the event is of national importance than do individualistic cultures. d. Individualistic cultures have a higher probability of forming a flashbulb memory if the event is of national importance than do collectivist cultures.

ANSWER: a 156. A(n) _____ is a specific technique or strategy deliberately used to enhanced memory. a. mnemonic b. iconic memory c. position effect d. flashbulb memory ANSWER: a 157. The BEST definition of mnemonic is: a. the inability to retrieve information that took place before a certain time. b. the tendency to have better memory for information that is deeply processed. c. a specific technique or strategy deliberately used to enhance memory. d. a vivid memory of an emotionally powerful event.

ANSWER: c 158. Which is NOT a type of mnemonic? a. method of loci b. distributed practice c. acronym .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. peg word method ANSWER: b 159. Which statement is false about mnemonics? a. They can rely on letters and words, rhythm and rhyme, and visual imagery. b. They are specific techniques or strategies deliberately used to enhance memory. c. They are mental tricks commonly used by successful memory championship competitors. d. They are excellent for short-term memories but ineffective for storing long-term memories.

ANSWER: d 160. If you asked a memory researcher for advice on how to improve your memory, which piece of advice would MOST likely NOT be given to you? a. Multitask while learning to keep your mind busy. b. Engage in deep processing of information. c. Organize your ideas into some kind of structure. d. Use context cues to encode and retrieve information.

ANSWER: a 161. Vivian suggests, "To remember the names of the Great Lakes (Huron, Ontario, Michigan, Erie, Superior), just remember the word HOMES." In giving this advice, Vivian demonstrates her belief in _____ to improve memory. a. using context cues b. deep processing c. using mnemonics d. visualizing information ANSWER: c 162. Acronyms are mnemonic devices that rely on associating information with _____, whereas _____ is a mnemonic that relies on associating information with visual imagery. a. a catchy song; the peg word method b. letters and words; the method of loci c. rhythm and rhyme; the peg word method d. a series already committed to memory; iconic memory ANSWER: b 163. Learning the order of the musical notes on a scale by memorizing the sentence "Every good boy deserves fudge" reflects a variation on which type of mnemonic? a. peg word method b. context cues c. acronym d. method of loci ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 164. The spacing effect is the tendency to: a. deliberately use a specific technique or strategy to enhance memory. b. have better long-term memory for information when your study attempts are not crammed. c. engage in massed practice of information in order to store it quickly. d. remain in one physical space while studying to produce better long-term memories.

ANSWER: b 165. The tendency to have better long-term memory for information when you learn it through consistent, repeated exposures spread out over time is known as: a. the primacy effect. b. massed practice. c. encoding specificity. d. the spacing effect.

ANSWER: d 166. Compared to massed practice, a person familiar with memory research would expect distributed practice to be a(n) _____ method of learning and remembering information long term. a. shorter but more intense b. equally effective c. less effective d. more effective ANSWER: d 167. _____ involves many repetitions or short training sessions spread out over time, whereas _____ involves fewer but longer training sessions. a. Spacing; distributed practice b. Maintenance rehearsal; spacing c. Distributed practice; massed practice d. Relearning; spacing ANSWER: c 168. Which statement BEST explains why the spacing effect makes sense for improving test performance? a. Shallow processing from distributed practice results in less likelihood of confusion for the learner. b. Cramming helps people with high levels of intelligence and motivation to stay focused. c. People engaging in massed practice often predict higher levels of performance on tests. d. Information learned through repeated exposures spread out over time allows for deeper processing to occur.

ANSWER: d 169. Based on findings from memory research, which student would you expect to MOST likely deliver the highest performance on an exam? The student who: .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice a. learns and studies via distributed practice. b. learns and studies via massed practice. c. consciously decides to cram prior to the exam. d. initially forgot about the test but becomes motivated to cram.

ANSWER: a 170. Aaron decides to use research findings on spacing effects to his advantage. The next time he studies for a test, it is likely that he will: a. continue to cram in one major session. b. engage in distributed practice over time. c. try to find a large room to study in. d. engage in massed practice of information.

ANSWER: b 171. Which statement related to culture and memory is false? a. Culture can affect how you remember events. b. People in collectivistic cultures will tend to recall more memories about themselves than people in individualistic cultures. c. Language can influence which types of events you tend to recall. d. Compared to Asian counterparts, Americans will be less likely to focus on and recall events that involve social interaction.

ANSWER: b 172. Klaus is of European descent. Waiyin is of Asian descent. According to research on cultural influences on memory, which statement would Klaus be more likely than Waiyin to make when telling a story about the time their soccer team won the national championship? a. The fans were at the edge of their seats when the match was close at half-time, but they stuck with us and were thrilled to support the winning team! b. The moment the winning goal was scored, the coaches and players all jumped with joy and excitement! c. I was worried at first when we were behind at halftime, but I was so excited and very proud of our victory in the end! d. There were so many of our fans in the stadium, and they were all incredibly happy for our victory!

ANSWER: c 173. Memory research suggests that sleep may serve two important functions: strengthening the formation of memory through _____ of memories, and preventing _____ from taking place. a. encoding; decay b. consolidation; interference c. processing; consolidation d. encoding; learning-related disorders ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 174. Suhail returned to their dorm room after learning new material in their chemistry class. Based on memory research, what would MOST likely help them to remember this new information? a. Get a good night's rest. b. Study material for another class. c. Pull an all-nighter to study. d. Don't look at the material again until the day of the test.

ANSWER: a 175. Amnesia is BEST defined as: a. the tendency of misleading information presented after the fact to become incorporated into memory. b. problems remembering older information caused by storing of newer information. c. the inability to remember some or all information, either temporarily or permanently. d. the tendency to remember the first items in a series particularly well.

ANSWER: c 176. When amnesia occurs due to psychological trauma as opposed to a physical cause, it is called _____ amnesia. a. dissociative b. retrograde c. anterograde d. source ANSWER: a 177. As a second-grader, Chia-Hao's family home was destroyed by a tornado. Chia-Hao was not physically injured, but it was a very traumatic experience, and they are unable to recall any details of the storm that destroyed their house. Chia-Hao's lack of memory is BEST explained as an example of _____ amnesia. a. dissociative b. global c. anterograde d. proactive ANSWER: a 178. Which statement is false about amnesia? a. People with amnesia often lose explicit memory while retaining implicit memory. b. Amnesia can be temporary or permanent. c. Amnesia is the inability to remember some or all information. d. Most cases of amnesia occur as a result of psychological trauma.

ANSWER: d 179. The inability to retrieve information that took place prior to a certain point in time is called: a. retroactive interference. .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice b. proactive interference. c. anterograde amnesia. d. retrograde amnesia.

ANSWER: d 180. Anterograde amnesia is the inability to: a. retrieve information that took place prior to a certain point in time. b. remember how you obtained a particular memory. c. form new memories after a certain point in time. d. recall anything related to a particularly traumatic event.

ANSWER: c 181. The inability to form new memories after a certain point in time is known as _____, whereas the inability to retrieve information that took place before a certain point in time is called _____. a. anterograde amnesia; retrograde amnesia b. retroactive interference; proactive interference c. dissociative amnesia; source amnesia d. global amnesia; situation-specific amnesia ANSWER: a 182. Retrograde amnesia relates to the inability to _____, whereas anterograde amnesia relates to the inability to _____. a. retain implicit memories; retain explicit memories b. form new memories; retrieve old memories c. retrieve old memories; form new memories d. retrieve stressful memories; form procedural memories ANSWER: c 183. Which statement would be the MOST likely to be made by a person experiencing global retrograde amnesia? a. Last week, I heard a story, but I can't remember who told it. b. I can't remember anything from before the accident. c. Ever since the accident, I can't seem to create new memories. d. I can't remember where I was when I had my first kiss.

ANSWER: b 184. Kostadin was hit in the head by a piece of metal flying off of a rollercoaster at an amusement park. He was unconscious for a few days after. When Kostadin regained consciousness, he was confused to find himself in the hospital and also couldn't remember anything that happened to him during the 3 weeks leading up to his head injury. Kostadin MOST likely is experiencing a form of _____ amnesia. a. proactive b. retrograde .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice c. dissociative d. anterograde ANSWER: b 185. A person experiencing anterograde amnesia would LEAST likely remember: a. a conversation they just had. b. how to play a video game. c. the home where they grew up. d. their pet's name.

ANSWER: a 186. Which statement would be the MOST likely to be made by a person experiencing anterograde amnesia? a. I have no recollection of anything from before the surgery. b. I can't remember the fastest route to the hospital. c. I know where the event is but I have no idea who told me. d. I can't seem to form new memories since the accident.

ANSWER: d 187. Eli was in a serious car accident and fell into a coma for a few days. When he woke up, he was able to remember his childhood, his family, and other personal information about himself. However, he was never again able to remember new conversations he just had, nor remember people he just met or even what he just ate for his last meal. Eli is MOST likely experiencing _____ amnesia. a. anterograde b. situation-specific c. retrograde d. global ANSWER: a 188. Source amnesia is the inability to: a. form new memories after a certain point in time. b. remember information, but not how you obtained the memory. c. recall anything related to a particularly traumatic event. d. retrieve information that took place prior to a certain point in time.

ANSWER: b 189. _____ is the inability to remember how you obtained a particular memory, but not the memory itself. a. Source amnesia b. Retroactive interference c. Anterograde amnesia d. Situation-specific amnesia ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice 190. Which statement BEST exemplifies someone exhibiting source amnesia? a. "I can't remember anything that happened before my accident." b. "My boyfriend told me when the fundraiser is, but I can't remember the date." c. "I read something in the school newspaper today but can't remember the details." d. "I know my mom's favorite flower is tulips, but I can't remember who told me that."

ANSWER: d 191. The _____ effect is the tendency of false or misleading information presented after the fact to become mistakenly incorporated into memory. a. recency b. misinformation c. serial position d. interference ANSWER: b 192. The misinformation effect is the tendency: a. to remember your initial predictions incorrectly after the outcome has been determined. b. to not remember the source of a particular memory, while being able to remember the memory itself. c. of the presentation of false post-event information to become mistakenly incorporated into memory. d. to remember the items presented at the beginning and end of a series particularly well.

ANSWER: c 193. The misinformation effect suggests that: a. human memory is often reconstructed. b. our memories are much like camera recordings. c. honest people have accurate memories. d. elderly adults provide the most accurate eyewitness testimonies.

ANSWER: a 194. Based on memory research, which individual would be MOST likely to provide the most accurate and reliable eyewitness testimony? a. an emotionally aroused person b. an honest, young child c. a calm, rational person d. an elderly adult ANSWER: c 195. In a classic research study, two groups of participants watched the same video of a car accident where two cars collided. One group was asked to describe the scene of the accident after the two cars bumped into each other, while the other group was asked to describe the scene of the accident after the two cars smashed into each other. Researchers found that compared to the other group, the group asked about the cars smashing into each other tended to recall seeing broken glass, when in fact there was no broken glass. These results are BEST .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice explained by: a. anterograde amnesia. b. the misinformation effect. c. source amnesia. d. the hindsight bias.

ANSWER: b 196. "Push polls" are a specific technique used to increase belief in fake news. Push polls present questions like, "If Candidate A was seen attending a pro-choice rally, how would that affect your likelihood to vote for them?."

What would MOST likely be reported by a person who participated in a push poll and was asked if they remember a fake news story about Candidate A's attendance at a pro-choice rally? They would be: a. less likely to remember who Candidate A was. b. more likely to believe the fake news story. c. less likely to believe the fake news story. d. more likely to believe Candidate A is pro-life.

ANSWER: b 197. Which of these is NOT commonly identified by psychologists as a type of memory mistake related to the misinformation effect? a. primacy effect b. orientation illusion c. Moses illusion d. labeling effect ANSWER: a 198. Remembering things that are related to something you saw or heard, even though you did not actually see or hear those particular things, is known as the: a. Moses illusion. b. recency effect. c. labeling effect. d. association illusion.

ANSWER: d 199. "Thomas Jefferson's head appears on the nickel. Does he face right or left?" Many people will mistakenly answer, "right," which BEST reflects the: a. Moses illusion. b. hindsight bias. c. orientation illusion. d. association illusion.

ANSWER: c 200. While participating in a research study, you are asked to remember the following list of words: tulip, .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice spring, warm, rain, flower, garden, iris. The next day, you and every other participant are given a list of 20 words and asked to circle only the words that were on the list. You and more than half of the other participants circle the word 'bloom' even though the word 'bloom' was not on the list you were asked to remember. This BEST exemplifies: a. the labeling effect. b. the Moses illusion. c. hindsight bias. d. the association illusion.

ANSWER: d 201. A rich false memory is BEST exemplified by: a. Lynda, who forgets to complete a simple assignment even though it is clearly on their planner, so they check the syllabus but still turn in the wrong assignment. b. Manny, who tries really hard to remember the name of their crush in eighth grade but can only think of the name of their current crush. c. Shauna, who remembers elaborate details about going on a childhood vacation with her grandmother even though that would be highly unlikely since her grandmother has been home-bound since Shauna's birth. d. Raj, who goes to the store for a friend who tells him he needs chocolate, flour, oil, sprinkles, and honey; Raj, who didn't make a list, also buys sugar, even though it wasn't needed.

ANSWER: c 202. Research on repressed memory suggests that some experiences may be so unpleasant or traumatic that people may unconsciously choose to forget them. This phenomenon is known as: a. automatic encoding. b. hindsight bias. c. source monitoring. d. motivated forgetting.

ANSWER: d 203. At the end of college football season, your buddy says, "I knew Clemson was going to win the national football championship all along. I said it from the start!" You remember otherwise and reply, "Uh, no, for the first couple months of the season, you predicted that Alabama would be national champions!" You are calling your friend out on his: a. orientation illusion. b. hindsight bias. c. motivated forgetting. d. source monitoring error.

ANSWER: b 204. Both mild and neurocognitive disorder, as well as dissociative amnesia, include _____ as a defining feature. a. anxiety .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice b. memory c. depression d. hallucinations ANSWER: b 205. People diagnosed with _____ tend to have relatively accurate memories of their life events, whereas people diagnosed with _____ tend to have greater memory for negative life events and poorer memory for the positive life events. a. anxiety disorders; depression b. mild neurocognitive disorder; anxiety disorders c. depression; major neurocognitive disorder d. anxiety; dissociative amnesia ANSWER: a 206. Anxiety in children has _____ impact on memory and _____ on school performance. a. little; little b. little; a large c. a large; little d. a large; a large ANSWER: d 207. The tendency to recall one's negative, unfortunate circumstances, while failing to recall the positive events in one's life, is called: a. dissociative amnesia. b. rumination. c. anxiety. d. source amnesia.

ANSWER: b 208. As a treatment for depression, what advice would a memory researcher be MOST likely to provide? a. deliberately focus on positive memories b. downplay your uplifting experiences c. ruminate about unfortunate past events d. avoid dwelling on your positive emotions ANSWER: a 209. Susan has been diagnosed with depression. She is presented with this long list of words: happy, sad, gloomy, sunny, bright, tearful, joyful, sorrow, radiant, dismal, buoyant, melancholy, heartbroken, and glee.

According to research findings on depression and memory, which word is Susan LEAST likely to recall? a. dismal b. gloomy c. heartbroken .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice d. sunny ANSWER: d 210. Ilana has been diagnosed with depression. Based on results from numerous studies, without treatment or intervention, Ilana's memories would MOST likely tend to reflect: a. a concerted effort to focus on positive events. b. accurate recall of both positive and negative events. c. her negative emotions and unfortunate experiences. d. high ability to recall verbal but not visual information.

ANSWER: c 211. Typically, people who have been diagnosed with the psychological disorder known as _____ tend to experience heightened levels of involuntary memory. a. PTSD b. anxiety c. depression d. dissociative amnesia ANSWER: a 212. Involuntary memory is defined as: a. the tendency to ruminate about the negative events in one's life. b. inaccurate memory for things because of the labels others use for them. c. the spontaneous retrieval of information without any intention of retrieving it. d. the unconscious choice to forget particularly unpleasant experiences.

ANSWER: c 213. When a person has PTSD, involuntary memories can be triggered by: a. internal cues like feelings or thoughts. b. external cues like sights, sounds, or smells. c. both internal and external cues. d. neither internal nor external cues.

ANSWER: c 214. A person with PTSD often experiences involuntary memories and relives them in the form of: a. depression. b. flashbacks. c. decay. d. amnesia.

ANSWER: b 215. Which statement is false about the relationship between PTSD and memory? .

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Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice a. People with PTSD can be described as typically remembering too much, too often. b. Most people who experience trauma will inevitably experience PTSD. c. Involuntary memories commonly occur for days or weeks after a traumatic event, but fade over time. d. PTSD may predispose people to experience involuntary memories of additional negative events they encounter.

ANSWER: b 216. People with schizophrenia typically show considerably low levels of _____ memory but normal levels of _____ memory. a. procedural; semantic b. semantic; episodic c. implicit; explicit d. episodic; procedural ANSWER: d 217. Darrah has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. On average, he is more likely to remember _____ than _____. a. events in his life; skills he once learned b. how to do things; what he did c. book knowledge; his personal history d. his childhood; how to do things ANSWER: b 218. Data suggest _____ between working memory capacity and the likelihood of social distancing during the COVID-19 pandemic. a. an inverse relationship b. no relationship c. a negative correlation d. a positive correlation ANSWER: d

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Chapter 6 - Essay 1. Using examples, define and differentiate between learning and maturation. Explain how these two concepts fit within the nature–nurture debate.

ANSWER: Learning is a change in behavior or thinking based on the association of events and/or behavior and its consequences. For example, you will learn to grab your umbrella before going outside if the sky looks gloomy and gray. Maturation, on the other hand, is something that cannot occur until the timing is right based on an organism's internal clock. For example, a child can be toilet trained only once they reach a certain age where they are able to understand and are physically able to do it.

Maturation is on the "nature" side of the nature–nurture debate, and learning is the essence of the nurture side.

2. Explain Pavlov's classic research that demonstrated classical conditioning. Be sure to identify and define the (1) neutral stimulus, (2) unconditioned stimulus, (3) unconditioned response, (4) conditioned stimulus, and (5) conditioned response.

ANSWER: Pavlov was assessing salivation in dogs during food ingestion. This is a reflex—the contact of food with the tongue produces salivation—and no learning is involved. Thus, the food is the unconditioned stimulus and salivation in response to the food is the unconditioned response. The sound of a bell does not automatically produce salivation; a bell is a neutral stimulus in this scenario. However, Pavlov reliably rang the bell prior to delivering food to the dogs. After repeated pairings, the dogs associated the sound of the bell with the food and began to salivate in response to the bell alone, in anticipation of the food. As such, the bell then became a conditioned stimulus that produced the conditioned response of salivation.

3. Explain Watson's Little Albert study. Identify the (1) neutral stimulus, (2) unconditioned stimulus, (3) unconditioned response, (4) conditioned stimulus, and (5) conditioned response, as well as (6) an example of what the conditioned response generalized to. Name one ethical failure of this study.

ANSWER: When Little Albert was playing with a white rat—a previously neutral stimulus—Watson made a loud noise. This was an unconditioned stimulus that caused a startle reflex, which is the unconditioned response. After repeated pairing of the loud noise and the white rat, Little Albert started crying and acting fearfully around the rat; his fear was a conditioned response to the conditioned stimulus of the rat. This conditioned response then generalized to a white rabbit, a dog, fur coats, and even Watson's hair. This study would not pass ethical review boards today because it did more harm to Little Albert than could be justified, and no procedures were conducted afterward to lessen Little Albert's fears.

4. Dante is irrationally afraid of dogs and freezes when they see one. What might this fear be diagnosed as, and why? Give an example of a situation in which this response might produce generalization and another situation where it may produce discrimination. Be sure to define the concepts of generalization and discrimination in your answer.

ANSWER: Dante's fear of dogs may be diagnosable as a phobia because it is both irrational and specific to a certain stimulus. Generalization is the process by which stimuli similar enough to a conditioned stimulus produce the same or a similar conditioned response. For example, if Dante saw a pygmy goat that they mistook for a dog because it looked like one, they might freeze or at least feel a little nervous. However, Dante would probably not shriek if they saw a horse since its much larger and different looking than a dog. Discrimination is the process by which stimuli that are different from the conditioned stimulus fail to produce the conditioned response. Since it is a stimulus different enough from a conditioned stimulus, Dante would demonstrate discrimination, and the horse would .

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Chapter 6 - Essay not produce a response similar to the conditioned response as does the dog.

5. What is operant conditioning and how does it relate to the law of effect? Compare and contrast Thorndike's puzzle boxes with Skinner boxes.

ANSWER: Operant conditioning is a form of learning in which the consequences of a voluntary behavior affect the likelihood that the behavior will recur. Operant contingencies are propelled by the law of effect; behaviors are more likely to be repeated if their effects are desirable and less likely if their effects are undesirable. Edward Thorndike demonstrated the law of effect by putting cats in boxes in which the cat had to operate on something in the box (e.g., pull a chain, step on a button) in order to escape and get food. The cats continued and repeated effective behaviors and stopped performing ineffective ones. B. F. Skinner created new and improved versions of Thorndike's puzzle boxes by wiring them with electricity to automatically record the frequency of the animals' behavior, and allowing animals (e.g., pigeons or rats) to receive food or water by pressing a lever or button. As such, Skinner was able to study various components of operant conditioning.

6. What is a reinforcement schedule? Differentiate between partial and continuous reinforcement. Provide an example of each. How does each type of these two schedules impact acquisition and the probability of extinction?

ANSWER: A reinforcement schedule is a pattern by which reinforcers are delivered following the occurrence of a certain behavior. In continuous reinforcement, a consequence follows a particular behavior every single time that it occurs. During partial reinforcement, only some of the behaviors produce a consequence. Continuous reinforcement allows a response to be easily acquired, but, if the consequences stop, so does the behavior because it extinguishes quickly. With partial reinforcement, on the other hand, a behavior may take longer for an organism to acquire, but, once it is learned, it will persist and be resistant to extinction.

7. Give two examples of how diversity affects reinforcement. Be sure that one example compares and contrasts people from individualistic versus collectivistic cultures.

ANSWER: Something that is reinforcing to one person may not be reinforcing to another, and this difference is compounded by culture. For example, an American child would most likely not find it reinforcing to be paid in Indian rupees, but an Indian child probably would. On average, people from collectivistic cultures do not like to be singled out, and so rewarding them for individual effort is not very reinforcing in the same way it is for people from individualistic cultures.

8. Compare and contrast negative reinforcement and positive reinforcement. Give examples of each to illustrate.

Is negative reinforcement the same as positive punishment? Explain why or why not.

ANSWER: With negative reinforcement, a certain behavior increases because it results in the removal of an undesirable stimulus. For example, people may donate to their college in an attempt to stop the persistent calls from their college asking for donations. Positive reinforcement involves a certain behavior increasing because it results in the presentation of a desirable stimulus—for example, a child who works harder to get good grades because his/her parents give him toys for each good grade. Positive punishment is when a behavior will decrease in frequency because it results in the presentation of an undesired stimulus. For example, a child may stop asking for candy if the parent yells at the child for doing so. While both negative reinforcement and positive punishment involve undesired stimuli, they are not all the same. Positive punishment results in decreased behavior due to presentation of the undesired stimulus, whereas negative reinforcement results in increased .

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Chapter 6 - Essay behavior to removal of the undesired stimulus.

9. Describe the difference between a primary reinforcer and a secondary reinforcer. Provide an example of each type of reinforcer.

ANSWER: A primary reinforcer is an innate reinforcer that satisfies a biological need. As such, it requires no learning to have a reinforcing effect. Examples include food, water, physical touch, sex, and reduction in pain or discomfort. A secondary reinforcer is one that requires a learned association with a primary reinforcer in order to have a reinforcing effect. Examples include things like money and gift cards, which require learning through one's experience to understand the meaning and value of the reinforcer. Additional examples of secondary reinforcers include grades, trophies, and awards.

10. Differentiate between ratio and interval schedules of reinforcement and what it means for a schedule to be fixed or variable. Provide an example of each of the four main types of partial reinforcement schedules.

ANSWER: In a ratio schedule, reinforcement occurs after the completion of a specific number of responses.

This can be either fixed (i.e., reinforcement comes after a behavior is performed a consistent/predictable number of times), such as after every five responses, or variable (i.e., reinforcement comes after a behavior is performed an inconsistent/unpredictable number of times), perhaps after two or perhaps after seven, but averaging around five responses. In an interval schedule, reinforcement occurs after the first response that occurs after the passage of a certain amount of time. The amount of time required to pass can be either fixed (e.g., after every 5 minutes) or variable (perhaps after 2 minutes or perhaps after 7, but averaging around 5 minutes). An example of a fixed-ratio schedule is a child getting a prize every time she recites 10 multiplication tables. An example of a variable-ratio schedule is hitting the jackpot after pulling the lever on a slot machine. An example of a fixed-interval schedule is getting your paycheck every Friday after a week's worth of work. An example of a variable-interval schedule is checking social media to see if someone posted. [Examples may vary.]

11. What is punishment? Describe two potential drawbacks with the use of punishment. Describe two things that should be done anytime punishment is used to change behavior.

ANSWER: Punishment is the process through which behavior will decrease in frequency because it results in the presentation of either an undesired stimulus or the removal of a desired stimulus. While it can be effective, punishment only teaches what behaviors to avoid, rather than what could/should be done instead. It can also model aggressiveness, encourage lying, and/or create fear or anxiety that can interfere with desired behavior change. If punishment is to be used, the specific undesired behavior should be explicitly identified. Punishment should happen immediately after the behavior and anytime the behavior occurs. Also, an alternative behavior should be provided and the occurrence of that behavior should be reinforced.

12. Suppose you want to teach your cat to go to the bathroom in the toilet rather than in a litter box. Describe the steps you would go through to operantly condition this behavior. What is this process called?

ANSWER: You would want to reinforce small components of the behavior sequence one at a time, so that the cat could gradually learn the complex behavior. For example, first you might give the cat a treat for being near the toilet, then maybe wait until he jumps on the toilet before giving it a treat, and then wait until the cat positions himself accordingly on the toilet, and so forth. Finally, over time, you would only reinforce instances where the cat does his business on the toilet. The process through which you reinforce successive approximations of the desired behavior is called shaping. .

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Chapter 6 - Essay 13. Describe the main findings of Bandura's Bobo doll studies with children and the main type of learning these studies illustrated. Also explain how vicarious learning and latent learning took place in the follow-up studies.

ANSWER: Bandura's classic series of Bobo doll studies illustrated the power of observational learning.

Bandura found that children who watched an adult model act aggressively toward a large inflatable clown doll were more likely to act aggressively toward the doll themselves. In follow-up studies, Bandura examined the effects of having the children who observed the adult model receive either reinforcement of punishment for their aggressive behavior. When the children saw the adult models get rewarded for aggressive behavior, they acted more aggressively themselves than did the children who saw the model get punished. This difference in the children's behavior based on what they observed shows that vicarious learning took place. Among the children who saw the adult models get punished for their aggressive behavior, if they were later prompted and promised reinforcement for aggressive behavior, they had no trouble acting aggressively. This suggests that the children had learned the aggressive behavior but did not demonstrate it until the situation was favorable for them to do so, hence latent learning.

14. Explain how attention, memory, imitation, and motivation are essential for observational learning. Use an example to illustrate each of these four concepts.

ANSWER: In order for someone to learn a behavior from watching someone else, he or she must not only have the opportunity to see the behavior, but must also pay attention to it. In other words, focused awareness is required to pick up on the behavior. Next, the person will have to remember important aspects of the behavior in order to imitate it. In addition to memory of the behavior, the person will have to have the ability or skills to actually imitate and perform the behavior. Last, the person must have the motivation or desire to perform the behavior. Let's say that Anna wants to shoot hoops like her older brother, Sven. That means she must have seen Sven play and became interested. She must also remember the behavior and all the aspects necessary for its performance. For example, she'd need to know that she needs a basketball (not a football) and access to the hoop (not when the car is in the driveway). She must also be able to produce the behavior and have enough coordination to complete all the steps. Anna would have to be able to hold the ball and jump while hurling it with enough force to make it to the basket. Finally, there must be some contingency in place that drives her to perform the behavior that she observed. If Sven encourages Anna's efforts and praises her successes, Anna is more likely to continue trying.

15. Garcia's experiments showed that rats would develop a taste aversion when they got sick after tasting sugar water but not if they received an electric shock to their feet after tasting sugar water. Explain how this demonstrates biological preparedness.

ANSWER: In Garcia's study, if a rat got sick after drinking a specific flavor, the rat would avoid consuming that flavor in the future because, in nature, eating something bad may cause nausea. However, in the wild, eating something bad is never followed by a painful shock to the feet, and so the rats had no reason, evolutionarily speaking, to make this association. Biological preparedness is an animal's evolutionary predisposition to learn that which is most relevant to its survival and the survival of the species. Learning how to avoid flavors that in the past resulted in illness makes an organism more likely to survive and thus demonstrates biological preparedness for the behavior.

16. Detail how a researcher can experimentally induce learned helplessness in dogs by using a shuttle box.

ANSWER: A shuttle box consists of a chamber separated into two halves by a short wall. Electricity can be passed through the floor of one of the chamber halves to deliver a shock to the feet of a dog that is in .

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Chapter 6 - Essay the chamber and serving as the experimental subject. The dog can escape the shock by jumping the wall and moving to the "safe" half of the chamber. However, in a different condition, the dog is restrained on the "unsafe" half of the chamber so that it cannot escape the shock. Afterward, when that particular dog is put back into the original condition where it is no longer restrained and could potentially jump the wall to avoid the shock, learned helplessness is instead demonstrated, whereby it huddles and whines on the shocked side as if it were still restrained.

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 1. _____ is the process by which life experience causes change in the behavior or thinking of an organism. a. Maturation b. Instinct c. Learning d. Adaptation ANSWER: c 2. Learning is BEST defined as the process by which: a. stimuli that are different from the conditioned stimulus fail to cause a similar response. b. life experience causes change in the behavior or thinking of an organism. c. stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus cause the conditioned similar response. d. behaviors occur based on biological timing and readiness.

ANSWER: b 3. _____ is the process by which behaviors occur based on biological timing and readiness. a. Maturation b. Instinct c. Learning d. Adaptation ANSWER: a 4. Which of these BEST describes learning? a. a behavior change that occurs based on maturation b. a process by which events influence future behavior c. an automatic response that occurs without thinking d. the behavior set with which an organism is born ANSWER: b 5. Though only 4 years old, Sabir has learned through experience that there is a connection between two events that occur together. In other words, Sabir has learned to _____ certain stimuli. a. associate b. discriminate c. generalize d. extinguish ANSWER: a 6. Through some learning processes, you adjust your _____ based on _____. a. consequences; associations b. insight; maturation c. behavior; consequences d. behavior; maturation .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 7. Three-year-old Saleem screams and runs whenever he sees a bee outside. When he does this, his dad takes Saleem back inside to watch a television show. Now, whenever Saleem's dad starts to take him outside, Saleem shouts, "Bee!" and then asks, "Show?" Saleem's behavior is MOST likely due to: a. maturation. b. punishment. c. extinction. d. learning.

ANSWER: d 8. That 2-year-old Connor is now starting to toilet train is MOST likely due to: a. maturation. b. insight. c. instinctual drift. d. learning.

ANSWER: a 9. That 14-year-old Shayla is starting to become interested in certain people as "more than friends" is MOST likely due to: a. maturation. b. instinct. c. adaptation. d. learning.

ANSWER: a 10. The time at which a toddler starts to toilet train is MOSTLY based on _____, but it can be influenced by _____. a. maturation; learning b. instinct; maturation c. learning; instinct d. maturation; instinct ANSWER: a 11. Which situation is NOT an example of learning? a. After hearing a high-pitched tone, a rat will move to a different part of a chamber because, in the past, a tone preceded a shock in that part of the cage. b. Seeing the logo of a popular fast-food chain makes a hungry person's stomach rumble even before the person gets food. c. A 13-year-old girl begins to have "more than friends" interest in boys, but a 6-year-old girl sees boys just as other playmates. d. When a cat is swatted and shouted at after jumping on the kitchen counter, the cat is less likely to get .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice on the counter in the future.

ANSWER: c 12. Learning is NOT: a. the association of stimuli and events that occur. b. the "nature" part of the "nature–nurture" debate. c. able to influence behavior guided by maturation. d. able to be modeled in experimental animal subjects.

ANSWER: b 13. Which statement of these is true about learning? a. Learning only occurs in mammals, birds, and fish. b. Learning can also be described as the "nurture" influence. c. Learning is basically the same thing as maturation. d. Learning affects overt behavior but not covert thinking.

ANSWER: b 14. Which physiologist is MOST associated with experimentally establishing the concept of classical conditioning? a. Ivan Pavlov b. John B. Watson c. B. F. Skinner d. Edward L. Thorndike ANSWER: a 15. Ivan Pavlov originally did not study psychological processes, but rather was a: a. physiologist. b. geologist. c. chemist. d. sociologist.

ANSWER: a 16. Ivan Pavlov made an accidental discovery about psychological processes when he was studying: a. the ways in which a dog would try to escape from a puzzle box. b. how to make a dog hungrier and work harder to receive food. c. how he could train a dog to model another dog's behavior. d. the amount of saliva produced when food touched a dog's mouth.

ANSWER: d 17. As Ivan Pavlov's physiological study of saliva production progressed, he unexpectedly discovered that dogs _____ the presentation of food. .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. produced more saliva after b. produced more saliva before c. stopped producing saliva after d. stopped producing saliva before ANSWER: b 18. After a few initial trials during his original study, Pavlov noticed the dogs soon began salivating _____ the food. a. in direct response to tasting b. after the presentation of c. in anticipation of d. only upon arrival of ANSWER: c 19. After his accidental discovery, Pavlov changed the focus of his research from digestion to what he called: a. operant conditioning. b. conditioned reflexes. c. observational learning. d. maturation.

ANSWER: b 20. Classical conditioning occurs when there is a connection between two _____ that occur together such that one predicts the other. a. stimuli b. responses c. behaviors d. organisms ANSWER: a 21. _____ is a form of learning in which an organism makes a connection between two stimuli that have occurred together, such that one predicts the other. a. Classical conditioning b. Operant conditioning c. Instinct d. Observation ANSWER: a 22. Classical conditioning is a form of learning in which: a. observations of others' life experiences, rather than one's own, results in conditioning over time. b. the consequences of a voluntary behavior affect the likelihood that the behavior will recur in the future. .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. some behaviors take place because the animal's biological clock says it is time for them to occur. d. an organism makes a connection between two stimuli that have occurred together, such that one predicts the other.

ANSWER: d 23. At the start of Pavlov's studies, the dogs showed no response to a bell and did not salivate until the food was in their mouths. At this point, the bell was a: a. conditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. neutral stimulus. d. neutral response.

ANSWER: c 24. At the start of Pavlov's studies, the dogs showed no response to a bell and did not salivate until the food was in their mouths. At this point, the salivation was a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response.

ANSWER: d 25. At the start of Pavlov's studies, the dogs showed no response to a bell and did not salivate until the food was in their mouths. At this point, the food was a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response.

ANSWER: c 26. In the middle of Pavlov's studies, the dogs started salivating when the bell sounded rather than just when food was in their mouths. At this point, the bell became a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response.

ANSWER: a 27. In the middle of Pavlov's studies, the dogs started salivating when the bell sounded rather than just when food was in their mouths. At this point, the salivating became a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice d. neutral response.

ANSWER: b 28. When Antonia walks past their favorite restaurant, the smells wafting outside makes them feel hungry, even though they just ate lunch. In this situation, the smell of the food is MOST likely a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response.

ANSWER: a 29. When Nagisa enters the doctor's office, the sight of syringes and sharps boxes makes their heart rate increase, even though they're not getting a shot and don't currently feel any pain. In this situation, their increased heart rate is MOST likely a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response.

ANSWER: b 30. Claudio's little sister loves chips, and they are in the pantry that Claudio must open to get his breakfast. Now whenever Claudio opens the pantry to get breakfast, his little sister comes running in and starts asking, "Snack?

Chips?" excitedly. In this situation, the sound of the pantry opening is serving as a(n) _____ for Claudio's little sister. a. conditioned stimulus b. conditioned response c. unconditioned stimulus d. unconditioned response ANSWER: a 31. In order to feed his cat, Mitchell has to open the kitchen drawer. Now whenever Mitchell opens the kitchen drawer—even if he's getting something other than cat food—his cat comes running in and starts meowing loudly while circling its food bowl. In this situation, the cat's behavior of running into the kitchen upon hearing the sound of the kitchen drawer is considered a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response.

ANSWER: b 32. In order to feed her cat, Terique has to use a can opener. Now whenever Terique uses a can opener to open anything—even if he's getting something other than cat food—his cat comes running in and starts pawing at Terique excitedly. In this situation, what was MOST likely the unconditioned stimulus that set up this learning .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice process? a. the sound of can opener b. the cat food c. Terique petting his cat d. the cat pawing at Terique ANSWER: b 33. A(n) _____ stimulus causes no response at all. a. conditioned b. unconditioned c. neutral d. reflexive ANSWER: c 34. A(n) _____ stimulus causes a response without the need for learning. a. conditioned b. unconditioned c. neutral d. operant ANSWER: b 35. A(n) _____ response is the automatic response to a stimulus that occurs naturally, without any need for learning. a. conditioned b. unconditioned c. neutral d. operant ANSWER: b 36. Before learning occurs through classical conditioning, a conditioned stimulus MUST be a(n) _____ stimulus. a. important b. unconditioned c. neutral d. operant ANSWER: c 37. A(n) _____ response only occurs after learning. a. conditioned b. unconditioned c. neutral .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice d. reflexive ANSWER: a 38. A conditioned response only occurs after the pairing of a(n) _____ stimulus and a(n) _____ stimulus. a. discriminative; neutral b. unconditioned; neutral c. unconditioned; conditioned d. operant; conditioned ANSWER: b 39. What type of learning is MOST likely being utilized in advertising? a. classical conditioning b. operant conditioning c. insight d. instinctual drift ANSWER: a 40. Hat companies often pair their logos with popular television shows in order to get you excited about buying their hats. Which could be BEST described as the unconditioned stimulus in this scenario? a. the hat company's logo b. the popular television show c. your excitement about the popular television show d. your excitement about the hat ANSWER: b 41. Shoe companies often pair their logos with successful athletes in order to get you excited about buying their shoes. Which could be BEST described as the unconditioned response in this scenario? a. the shoe company's logo b. the successful athletes c. your excitement about athletes d. your excitement about the shoes ANSWER: c 42. Shoe companies often pair their logos with successful athletes in order to get you excited about buying their shoes. Which could be BEST described as the conditioned stimulus in this scenario? a. the shoe company's logo b. the successful athletes c. your excitement about athletes d. your excitement about the shoes ANSWER: a 43. Shoe companies often pair their logos with successful athletes in order to get you excited about buying their .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice shoes. Which could be BEST described as the conditioned response in this scenario? a. the shoe company's logo b. the successful athletes c. your excitement about athletes d. your excitement about the shoes ANSWER: d 44. Shoe companies often pair their logos with successful athletes in order to get you excited about buying their shoes. Prior to the advertising and branding process, the shoe company's logo would be considered a(n) _____ in classical conditioning terms. a. unconditional stimulus b. neutral stimulus c. conditioned stimulus d. neutral response ANSWER: b 45. Insulin is produced by the body when sugar is ingested. Research has found that insulin starts being produced just when sugar is put on the tongue—before it actually gets into the stomach and, ultimately, the bloodstream. In this scenario, sugar actually entering the stomach and bloodstream would be a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response.

ANSWER: c 46. Insulin is produced by the body when sugar is ingested. Research has found that insulin starts being produced just when sugar is put on the tongue—before it actually gets into the stomach and, ultimately, the bloodstream. In this scenario, sugar just touching the tongue would be a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response.

ANSWER: a 47. Insulin is produced by the body when sugar is ingested. Research has found that insulin starts being produced just when sugar is put on the tongue—before it actually gets into the stomach and, ultimately, the bloodstream. In this scenario, the production of insulin after sugar enters the stomach and bloodstream would be a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response. .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 48. Insulin is produced by the body when sugar is ingested. Research has found that insulin starts being produced just when sugar is put on the tongue—before it actually gets into the stomach and, ultimately, the bloodstream. In this scenario, insulin being produced after sugar just touches the tongue would be a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned response.

ANSWER: b 49. Which of these would be considered an unconditioned response to an unconditioned stimulus? a. becoming aroused by the smell of certain perfumes b. salivating when around the smell of freshly cooked fries c. ducking when someone says, "Heads up!" d. sneezing when you accidently inhale a bunch of ground pepper ANSWER: d 50. Which behavior BEST exemplifies a conditioned response? a. salivating after hearing a soda can open b. tensing up during a painful dental procedure c. pulling your hand away from a hot stove d. breathing heavily after sprinting ANSWER: a 51. _____ is the process by which stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus might cause a similar response. a. Extinction b. Discrimination c. Generalization d. Acquisition ANSWER: c 52. The classical conditioning process known as generalization is characterized by: a. an automatic response to a stimulus occurring naturally without any need for learning. b. stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus causing a similar conditioned response. c. a formerly neutral stimulus now causing a response because of its direct link to an unconditioned stimulus. d. stimuli that are different from the conditioned stimulus failing to cause a similar conditioned response.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 53. _____ is the process by which stimuli that are different from the conditioned stimulus fail to cause a similar response. a. Extinction b. Discrimination c. Generalization d. Acquisition ANSWER: b 54. The classical conditioning process known as discrimination is characterized by: a. stimuli that are different from the conditioned stimulus failing to cause a similar conditioned response. b. a formerly neutral stimulus now causing a response because of its direct link to an unconditioned stimulus. c. stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus causing a similar conditioned response. d. an automatic response to a stimulus occurring naturally without any need for learning.

ANSWER: a 55. Four-year-old Aiden is scared of bees ever since one stung him. When outside, he avoids bees, but shows interest in other flying insects, like butterflies and dragonflies. Aiden shows _____ between the types of flying insects. a. discrimination b. generalization c. both discrimination and generalization d. neither discrimination nor generalization ANSWER: a 56. Three-year-old Hans has run away from horses ever since one bit him. To what animal would Hans MOST likely generalize this conditioned response? a. dogs b. cats c. donkeys d. sheep ANSWER: c 57. Generalization tends to occur more readily when a stimulus is _____ a conditioned stimulus, and discrimination tends to occur more readily when a stimulus is _____ a conditioned stimulus. a. different from; similar to b. different from; different from c. similar to; different from d. similar to; similar to ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 58. When Támas enters the doctor's office, the sight of the syringes and sharps boxes makes him wince, even though he is not getting an injection and doesn't feel any pain. He also sees gauze and boxes of bandages, but these sights do not make him wince. Támas not wincing in response to the sight of gauze and bandages is BEST described as an example of: a. spontaneous recovery. b. discrimination. c. generalization. d. reinforcement.

ANSWER: b 59. Abuud grew up in Syria and often heard bombs going off near his home, which scared him and made him worry for his safety. He moved to the United States, and during his first Fourth of July celebration, he was very startled by the loud sounds of fireworks being set off. Abuud's startled reaction in response to the exploding fireworks is BEST described as an example of: a. extinction. b. discrimination. c. generalization. d. acquisition.

ANSWER: c 60. In the "Little Albert study", Little Albert was originally _____ of a rat, and the researchers _____ a fear response through pairing the rat with a loud noise. a. frightened; extinguished b. unafraid; conditioned c. frightened; conditioned d. unafraid; extinguished ANSWER: b 61. Which statement about the "Little Albert study" is false? a. Little Albert's fear of the rat generalized to furry objects. b. Little Albert discriminated between the rat and toy blocks. c. Little Albert's fear of the rat generalized to toy blocks. d. Little Albert acquired fear of the rat and furry objects.

ANSWER: c 62. Which statement about the ethical implications of the "Little Albert study" is false? a. The methods used would most likely not be approved by ethics boards today. b. The results of the study most likely justified the potential harm to the subject. c. The researchers should have done something after the study to reduce the fear. d. The study sparked the movement toward institutional boards that review studies.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 63. In the famous case of "Little Albert," the crying that Albert showed in response to the loud noise is considered the: a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. conditioned response. d. unconditioned response.

ANSWER: d 64. Which psychologist is MOST associated with the "Little Albert study"? a. Ivan Pavlov b. John B. Watson c. B. F. Skinner d. Edward L. Thorndike ANSWER: b 65. _____ is the moment when the association between the unconditioned and the neutral stimulus is learned. a. Acquisition b. Extinction c. Generalization d. Discrimination ANSWER: a 66. A conditioned response will only occur after: a. acquisition. b. extinction. c. generalization. d. discrimination.

ANSWER: a 67. Acquisition can be said to have occurred when a(n) _____ stimulus produces a(n) _____ response. a. unconditioned; unconditioned b. unconditioned; conditioned c. conditioned; unconditioned d. conditioned; conditioned ANSWER: d 68. Acquisition can be said to have occurred when a(n) _____ stimulus becomes a(n) _____ stimulus. a. neutral; unconditioned b. neutral; conditioned c. unconditioned; neutral d. conditioned; neutral .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 69. Acquisition is based on the ability of a stimulus to _____ another stimulus. a. elicit b. mimic c. predict d. extinguish ANSWER: c 70. In acquisition, a(n) _____ stimulus predicts the occurrence of a(n) _____ stimulus. a. unconditioned; unconditioned b. unconditioned; conditioned c. conditioned; unconditioned d. conditioned; conditioned ANSWER: c 71. In order for acquisition to occur, the _____ stimulus must occur before and close in time to the occurrence of the _____ stimulus. a. neutral; unconditioned b. unconditioned; neutral c. conditioned; neutral d. neutral; conditioned ANSWER: a 72. To increase the likelihood of acquisition, the neutral stimulus must occur _____ the onset of the unconditioned stimulus. a. at the same time as b. before c. after d. far apart in time from ANSWER: b 73. If there is a long delay between the presentation of a neutral stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus _____, will MOST likely _____. a. acquisition; occur b. acquisition; not occur c. extinction; occur d. extinction; not occur ANSWER: b 74. Pavlov's dogs acquired their conditioned response because the _____ predicted the _____. a. bell; food .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. food; bell c. food; salivating d. bell; salivating ANSWER: a 75. In which scenario would acquisition of a classically conditioned response be MOST likely to occur? a. When the dog tracks in mud from outside, Tavish cleans off its paws. b. Kayla always wears a vanilla-scented lotion, but one time when they wore it, they got a cold. c. As a surprise after a doctor's appointment, Ritvik takes his son for ice cream. d. Every time Huan sees lightening, it is followed by loud booming thunder.

ANSWER: d 76. Gábor went to the ear, nose, and throat doctor to test if their sense of smell has recovered after a viral infection. The doctor inserts a small tube into Gábor's nose and puffs an odor into his nostril. While it doesn't hurt, it reflexively makes Gábor sneeze. When the doctor says it's time to check the other nostril, Gábor's nose starts itching, and they feel like they have to sneeze as soon as the tube is inserted. What is the MOST likely explanation for Gábor's behavior? a. Gábor's conditioned response to the odorant puff generalized to the feeling of the tube in their nose. b. Gábor acquired a conditioned response to the feeling of the tube in their nose due to its pairing with the odorant puff. c. Gábor's unconditioned response to the odorant puff extinguished their response to the feeling of the tube in their nose. d. Gábor discriminated between the odorant puff and the feeling of the tube in their nose.

ANSWER: b 77. Seven-year-old Angelo is going to the eye doctor for the first time. One of the tests performed by the eye doctor is one that checks for pressure in the eye. To take this test, Angelo sits in a chair, places his forehead against an apparatus, and waits for instructions from the doctor. Then his eye is hit with a puff of air! While it doesn't hurt, it sure is startling and reflexively causes Angelo to blink. When the doctor says it's time to check the other eye, Angelo begins to blink as soon as he rests his head against the apparatus. What is the unconditioned stimulus in this acquisition scenario? a. Angelo himself b. Angelo's blinking c. the puff of air in Angelo's eye d. the feeling of the apparatus against Angelo's forehead ANSWER: c 78. Joel went to the ear, nose, and throat doctor to test if their sense of smell has recovered after they broke their nose in an accident. The doctor inserts a small tube into Joel's nose and puffs an odor into their nostril. While it doesn't hurt, it reflexively makes Joel sneeze. When the doctor says it's time to check the other nostril, Joel's nose starts itching, and they feel like they have to sneeze as soon as the tube is inserted. What is the conditioned stimulus in this acquisition scenario? a. Joel's other nostril itching .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. Joel sneezing c. the puff of odor in Joel's nostril d. the feeling of the tube in Joel's nostril ANSWER: d 79. Aaminah went to the ear, nose, and throat doctor to test if her sense of smell has recovered after discontinuing a medication. The doctor inserts a small tube into Aaminah's nose and puffs an odor into her nostril. While it doesn't hurt, it reflexively makes Aaminah sneeze. When the doctor says it's time to check the other nostril, Teresa's nose starts itching, and she feels like she has to sneeze as soon as the tube is inserted.

What is the conditioned response in this acquisition scenario? a. Teresa's other nostril itching b. Teresa sneezing c. the puff of odor in Teresa's nostril d. the feeling of the tube in Teresa's nostril ANSWER: a 80. Seven-year-old Paul is going to the eye doctor for the first time. One of the tests performed by the eye doctor is one that checks for pressure in the eye. To take this test, Paul sits in a chair, places his forehead against an apparatus, and waits for instructions from the doctor. Then his eye is hit with a puff of air! While it doesn't hurt, it sure is startling and reflexively causes Paul to blink. When the doctor says it's time to check the other eye, Paul begins to blink as soon as he rests his head against the apparatus. What is the unconditioned response in this acquisition scenario? a. Paul being startled b. Paul's blinking after the feeling of the apparatus against his forehead c. the puff of air in Paul's eye d. Paul's blinking after the air puff ANSWER: d 81. _____ is the moment at which the conditioned stimulus no longer produces a conditioned response. a. Acquisition b. Extinction c. Generalization d. Discrimination ANSWER: b 82. Extinction occurs when the _____ stimulus no longer produces a(n) _____ response. a. unconditioned; unconditioned b. unconditioned; conditioned c. conditioned; unconditioned d. conditioned; conditioned ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 83. Extinction occurs when the _____ stimulus no longer predicts a(n) _____ stimulus. a. unconditioned; unconditioned b. unconditioned; conditioned c. conditioned; unconditioned d. conditioned; conditioned ANSWER: c 84. For Pavlov to extinguish salivation in his dogs, he had to present the bell _____ the food. a. after b. at the same time as c. without d. before ANSWER: c 85. Jaron is highly allergic to dog hair. Jaron's friend, Ghani, has a roommate who has a dog that sheds a lot.

Whenever Jaron visits Ghani, Jaron's nose starts itching and they rub their watery eyes even before they enter Ghani's house. Jaron's symptoms persist even after Ghani's roommate and his dog moves out and the house is free of dog hair. After a while, Jaron stops having an itchy nose and watery eyes before they enter Ghani's house. The point at which Jaron's symptoms stopped is BEST described as an example of: a. spontaneous recovery. b. generalization. c. discrimination. d. extinction.

ANSWER: d 86. Which statement MOST accurately describes the result of extinction? a. The unconditioned stimulus no longer causes the conditioned response. b. The unconditioned stimulus no longer causes the unconditioned response. c. The conditioned stimulus no longer causes the conditioned response. d. The conditioned stimulus no longer causes the unconditioned response.

ANSWER: c 87. When extinction takes place, the _____ stops occurring. a. unconditioned stimulus b. unconditioned response c. conditioned stimulus d. conditioned response ANSWER: d 88. Which statement about the conditioned response after extinction is true? a. It will never again occur in response to the conditioned stimulus. b. It becomes the same as the unconditioned response. .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. It may spontaneously recover after a period of inactivity. d. It is more likely to generalize to other similar stimuli.

ANSWER: c 89. _____ is the return of a previously extinguished conditioned response after a period of inactivity. a. Acquisition b. Discrimination c. Spontaneous recovery d. Vicarious conditioning ANSWER: c 90. Jamison does not like confrontation. Jamison's friend, Luis, has a roommate who loves to argue and will pick fights with Jamison. Whenever Jamison visits Luis, Jamison starts to feel worried and anxious even before he enters Luis's home. Jamison's worried feelings persist even after Luis's roommate moved out. After a while, Jamison stops feeling worried before he enters Luis's home. Then, one day after not visiting Luis for some time, Jamison begins to feel worried and anxious as he walks up to Luis's home. The recurrence of Jamison's worry is BEST described as: a. reinforcement. b. generalization. c. extinction. d. spontaneous recovery.

ANSWER: d 91. A behavior that is spontaneously recovered is BEST described as one that: a. stops. b. reemerges. c. decreases. d. increases.

ANSWER: b 92. If Pavlov's dogs suddenly started salivating to the bell after they hadn't responded to it for some time, it is MOST likely that the response was: a. extinguished. b. spontaneously recovered. c. generalized. d. discriminated.

ANSWER: b 93. After a bad breakup, Ruchi was angry, and seeing the restaurant where their former girlfriend broke up with them made them even angrier. For the next few months, whenever they saw the restaurant, Ruchi would start to fume and feel angry. Finally, after about 4 months, Ruchi would no longer react angrily when they saw the restaurant. A year and a half later, however, they drove past the restaurant, and suddenly Ruchi felt themselves .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice get a little cranky again. This final response is BEST described as: a. acquisition. b. spontaneous recovery. c. generalization. d. extinction.

ANSWER: b 94. If a behavior spontaneously recovers, the response will MOST likely be _____ than it was before it was extinguished. a. stronger b. weaker c. different d. more frequent ANSWER: b 95. Higher-order conditioning involves: a. a single stimulus. b. three or more stimuli. c. only two stimuli. d. a single response.

ANSWER: b 96. Higher-order conditioning is also known as _____ conditioning. a. vicarious b. second-order c. operant d. observational ANSWER: b 97. Higher-order conditioning is a learning process in which a(n) _____ stimulus from a previous learning process serves as a(n) _____ stimulus for a new learning process. a. unconditioned; unconditioned b. unconditioned; conditioned c. conditioned; unconditioned d. conditioned; conditioned ANSWER: c 98. In anticipation of going outside, Tara's dog started to wag his tail at the sound of the leash being picked up.

Now Tara's dog has also started to wag his tail at the sound of the closet door being opened, where the leash is stored. The dog wagging his tail in response to the closet door being opened BEST exemplifies: a. discrimination. b. spontaneous recovery. .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. vicarious conditioning. d. higher-order conditioning.

ANSWER: d 99. If Pavlov flashed a bright light before ringing the bell, and the bright light began to elicit salivation among the dogs, it could be said that _____ took place. a. operant conditioning b. spontaneous recovery c. vicarious conditioning d. higher-order conditioning ANSWER: d 100. _____ is conditioning that takes place via observation of others' life experiences rather than one's own. a. Operant conditioning b. Higher-order conditioning c. Spontaneous recovery d. Vicarious conditioning ANSWER: d 101. Vicarious conditioning is BEST defined as: a. conditioning that takes place via observation of others' life experiences rather than one's own. b. a form of learning in which the consequences of a voluntary behavior affect the likelihood of that behavior recurring. c. the observation that a behavior is more likely to be repeated if its effects are desirable but less likely if its effects are undesirable. d. conditioning that occurs when a reinforcer requires a learned link to a primary reinforcer to have a reinforcing effect.

ANSWER: a 102. In which situation would vicarious conditioning MOST likely occur? a. Harry is rewarded for doing well on his science project and brings home the highest grade he's ever gotten. b. Riley salivates as she drives by a bakery, smells the wonderful aroma of desserts, and sees a neon sign that says, "Freshly baked!" c. Sally watches as Joe gets excited over a certain ring tone because it signifies his friends are inviting him out. d. Wesley is punished for coming home way after curfew and decides to never break curfew again.

ANSWER: c 103. Two-year-old Corwin sees his cousin Alexis get excited when hearing the theme song for an animated movie she likes. Now when Corwin hears that song, he starts jumping up and down excitedly. What MOST likely happened? .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. operant conditioning b. observational conditioning c. spontaneous recovery d. vicarious conditioning ANSWER: d 104. Which learning concept is MOST often used in the treatment of phobias? a. operant conditioning b. observational learning c. classical conditioning d. vicarious conditioning ANSWER: c 105. A(n) _____ is a strong, irrational fear of a specific object or situation. a. phobia b. instinct c. placebo d. discriminative stimulus ANSWER: a 106. A(n) _____ may be learned by pairing a specific thing with an extremely unpleasant feeling. a. phobia b. insight c. placebo d. discriminative stimulus ANSWER: a 107. Which statement is false about the applications of classical conditioning? a. Phobias may result from the pairing of certain stimuli with unpleasant emotions. b. The best way to get rid of a phobia is to avoid the stimulus that causes the fear. c. Classical conditioning can be used to treat physical problems as well as fears. d. The placebo effect may be based on pairing medicine's effects with the smell of medicine.

ANSWER: b 108. Compared to classical conditioning, operant conditioning is more: a. passive. b. active. c. involuntary. d. reflexive.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 109. _____ conditioning is a form of learning in which the consequences of a voluntary behavior affect the likelihood that a behavior will recur. a. Classical b. Operant c. Vicarious d. Higher-order ANSWER: b 110. _____ are "if–then" statements that explain past events and govern future behavior. a. Reflexes b. Stimulus associations c. Contingencies d. Discriminative stimuli ANSWER: c 111. "If I study multiple times this week, then I will do well on the exam on Friday" is an example of a(n): a. unconditioned stimulus. b. reflex. c. contingency. d. discriminative stimulus.

ANSWER: c 112. Which statement BEST exemplifies a contingency? a. I cannot help that I am a very anxious person especially in social situations. b. If I set my alarm clock 10 minutes fast, then I am on time for my meetings. c. When I see lightening, I know I will hear thunder. d. When it is allergy season, I sneeze a lot.

ANSWER: b 113. Operant behavior is based on: a. if–then statements that guide behavior. b. stimulus pairings that elicit reflexes. c. natural unlearned responses. d. mimicking another person's actions.

ANSWER: a 114. When hiking in the forest, Dario has learned that if they walk very quietly down the trail, then they're much more likely to see wildlife. Dario MOST likely learned this through _____ conditioning. a. classical b. operant c. reflexive .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice d. vicarious ANSWER: b 115. Which psychologist is MOST associated with the law of effect? a. Ivan Pavlov b. John B. Watson c. B. F. Skinner d. Edward L. Thorndike ANSWER: d 116. The law of _____ is the observation that behavior is more likely to be repeated if its effects are desirable but less likely if the effects are undesirable. a. effect b. discrimination c. generalization d. action ANSWER: a 117. Thorndike demonstrated the law of effect by showing that: a. cats would repeat actions that got them out of a puzzle box. b. dogs would salivate to a bell if the sound was paired with food. c. pigeons would peck a red, but not a blue, light to get grain. d. children would be more likely to hit a doll if they saw an adult do it.

ANSWER: a 118. Students in class were given extra credit whenever they raised their hand to ask a question. According to the law of effect, the students will MOST likely: a. refuse to accept the extra credit from the instructor. b. continue raising their hand to ask questions. c. ask for more extra credit in order to boost their grade. d. never again raise their hand to ask a question.

ANSWER: b 119. Which psychologist is MOST associated with operant conditioning and posited that humans have no free will? a. Ivan Pavlov b. John B. Watson c. B. F. Skinner d. Edward L. Thorndike ANSWER: c 120. Which statement about B. F. Skinner is false? .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. He believed that humans have no free will over their behavior. b. He believed that human behavior was different from that of other animals. c. He was more associated with operant conditioning than was Thorndike. d. He conducted many studies with animals demonstrating the law of effect.

ANSWER: b 121. _____ boxes, also known as operant chambers, are containers that allow for observation and measurement of animal behavior in response to consequences. a. Skinner b. Effect c. Punishment d. Puzzle ANSWER: a 122. Which approach would make the MOST sense if a researcher wished to observe and measure a specific operant response of a rat? a. watch the rat's behavior in a Skinner box b. pair a stimulus with a reflex of the rat c. imitate the behavior in front of the rat d. assess it in the rat's natural environment ANSWER: a 123. _____ is the process by which consequences of a behavior increase the likelihood that the behavior will happen again. a. Vicarious conditioning b. Higher-order conditioning c. Reinforcement d. Punishment ANSWER: c 124. Tanner typically throws the last bit of their bread from his lunchtime sandwich on the ground for the birds to eat. Now whenever Tanner sits down at the bench where they usually eat lunch outside—even if they're not eating—birds will come and peck the ground around their feet. The bird's behavior is MOST likely due to the learning process of: a. vicarious conditioning. b. extinction. c. reinforcement. d. punishment.

ANSWER: c 125. In reinforcement, a behavior _____ due to stimulus that _____ it. a. increases; follows .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. increases; precedes c. decreases; follows d. decreases; precedes ANSWER: a 126. Which statement is false about reinforcement? a. It can involve adding something good or taking away something bad. b. What reinforces one person's behavior may not alter another's. c. Negative always means something bad is added to the situation. d. Its purpose is to help an organism avoid pain or experience pleasure.

ANSWER: c 127. In positive reinforcement, a behavior increases due to the _____ of a(n) _____ stimulus. a. presentation; desirable b. presentation; undesirable c. removal; desirable d. removal; undesirable ANSWER: a 128. When Mezo got a headache from staring at the computer too long, their partner suggested that Mezo wear special glasses that minimize screen glare. Since using the glasses got rid of their headaches, Mezo now wears the glasses anytime they are on the computer. This BEST exemplifies: a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive punishment. d. negative punishment.

ANSWER: b 129. When Nigel landed his first job after graduation, his entire family got together and took him out for a special dinner. Nigel is now even more motivated to keep his new job. This scenario is BEST considered an example of: a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive punishment. d. negative punishment.

ANSWER: a 130. A _____ reinforcer requires no learning to have a reinforcing effect. a. positive b. negative c. primary .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice d. secondary ANSWER: c 131. Water when thirsty is BEST described as a: a. conditioned stimulus. b. negative reinforcer. c. primary reinforcer. d. secondary reinforcer.

ANSWER: c 132. Receiving _____ is an example of primary reinforcement. a. a stack of $20 bills b. food when hungry c. a high five d. a new smartphone ANSWER: b 133. The credit card you use to buy a drink from a vending machine when you're thirsty is BEST described as a(n): a. unconditioned stimulus. b. negative reinforcer. c. primary reinforcer. d. secondary reinforcer.

ANSWER: d 134. _____ is an example of a secondary reinforcer. a. Water b. Physical touch c. A gift card d. Food ANSWER: c 135. A _____ reinforcer requires learning to have a reinforcing effect. a. positive b. negative c. primary d. secondary ANSWER: d 136. A _____ reinforcer is only reinforcing because it has been paired with a _____ reinforcer. a. positive; negative .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. negative; positive c. primary; secondary d. secondary; primary ANSWER: d 137. Elementary school teachers pair a gold star sticker with more activity time in class so they can increase the listening behavior of their students without having to interrupt learning by giving the students activity time each time they appropriately listen. In this situation, the extra activity time serves as a _____ and the gold star sticker serves as a _____ to influence the class's behavior. a. primary punisher; secondary punisher b. secondary reinforcer; primary reinforcer c. primary reinforcer; secondary reinforcer d. secondary punisher; primary punisher ANSWER: c 138. Dog trainers pair the sound of a clicker with treats so they can influence a dog's behavior without having to provide a treat every time. In this situation, the association between the clicker and a treat is an example of _____, and the clicker serves as a _____ to influence the dog's behavior. a. operant conditioning; primary reinforcer b. classical conditioning; primary reinforcer c. operant conditioning; secondary reinforcer d. classical conditioning; secondary reinforcer ANSWER: d 139. Which situation does NOT exemplify the concept of reinforcement? a. Mary eats a balanced diet because it will ultimately lead to a healthier, longer life. b. Martino buys scratch-off lottery tickets because he may hit a $10,000 jackpot. c. Brenda ends her camping trip early because she can't stand the mosquitoes. d. Joshua washes the dishes as he cooks so they don't become a big pile at the end.

ANSWER: c 140. Compared to Ensha, who grew up in China, Kelley, who grew up in the United States, is _____ likely to find an award for individual achievement as reinforcing. a. just as b. more c. less d. not at all ANSWER: b 141. Which statement about cultural differences in reinforcement is true? a. People from individualistic cultures find higher pay more reinforcing than people from collectivistic cultures. .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. People from individualistic cultures may find awards that single them out as more reinforcing than people from collectivistic cultures. c. Women from individualistic cultures may place more importance on convenient working hours than women from collectivistic cultures. d. People from individualistic cultures may find the ability to get relatives jobs more reinforcing than people from collectivistic cultures.

ANSWER: b 142. A _____ describes the patterns by which reinforcers are presented after the execution of a behavior. a. positive reinforcer b. negative reinforcer c. schedule of reinforcement d. contingency ANSWER: c 143. On a _____ schedule of reinforcement, a behavior is reinforced each time it occurs, and on a _____ schedule of reinforcement, a behavior is reinforced some of the times that it occurs. a. positive; negative b. negative; positive c. partial; continuous d. continuous; partial ANSWER: d 144. Partial reinforcement is also known as _____ reinforcement. a. intermittent b. negative c. operant d. positive ANSWER: a 145. Jörg gives his 3-year-old daughter a hug every time she goes to the bathroom on the toilet during their potty-training sessions. This is BEST described as a(n) _____ schedule of reinforcement. a. intermittent b. unconditioned c. partial d. continuous ANSWER: d 146. Allie does her household chores every day of the week, but her mother gives Allie her allowance money only on Saturday. This is BEST described as a(n) _____ schedule of reinforcement. a. unconditioned b. negative .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. partial d. continuous ANSWER: c 147. A _____ schedule of reinforcement promotes the fastest acquisition of operant behavior, and a _____ schedule of reinforcement results in operant behavior that is the most resistant to extinction. a. positive; negative b. negative; positive c. partial; continuous d. continuous; partial ANSWER: d 148. Quentin wants to teach his 3-year-old daughter to say "please" when she asks for things, and he wants her to start doing this as soon possible. Based on what you know about schedules of reinforcement, you tell him it would be BEST to use a(n) _____ schedule of reinforcement. a. unconditioned b. negative c. partial d. continuous ANSWER: d 149. Markel wants to teach his dog to sit, but he doesn't want his dog to gain too much weight from getting too many treats. Based on what you know about schedules of reinforcement, you tell him it would be BEST to use a(n) _____ schedule of reinforcement. a. extinction b. negative c. partial d. continuous ANSWER: c 150. When using a partial schedule of reinforcement, acquisition of behavior happens _____ and extinction occurs _____. a. slowly; quickly b. quickly; slowly c. slowly; slowly d. quickly; quickly ANSWER: c 151. When using a continuous schedule of reinforcement, acquisition of behavior happens _____ and extinction occurs _____. a. slowly; quickly b. quickly; slowly .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. slowly; slowly d. quickly; quickly ANSWER: d 152. Reinforcers are delivered after _____ on ratio schedules of reinforcement, and reinforcers are delivered after _____ on interval schedules of reinforcement. a. a number of responses; the first response after a period of time b. a number of responses; a number of responses c. the first response after a period of time; a number of responses d. the first response after a period of time; the first response after a period of time ANSWER: a 153. Which example BEST reflects a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement? a. pushing a button to get a snack from a vending machine b. getting your paycheck at the end of the work week c. checking your e-mail multiple times to see if you have new mail d. putting your trash bin out the night before the garbage trucks come ANSWER: a 154. Which example BEST reflects a variable-ratio schedule of reinforcement? a. getting a candy bar from a vending machine b. playing a slot machine for the jackpot c. getting your paycheck at the end of the work week d. studying for a possible pop quiz ANSWER: b 155. Which example is MOST associated with a fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement? a. giving your dog a treat each time he obeys b. playing a slot machine for the jackpot c. working for a biweekly paycheck d. earning frequent-flyer miles ANSWER: c 156. Which situation BEST exemplifies a variable-interval schedule of reinforcement? a. getting a candy bar from a vending machine b. pulling a slot machine handle for the jackpot c. putting your trash bin out the night before the garbage trucks come d. checking your phone for text message ANSWER: d 157. Cienna gets paid weekly on Thursdays, and on Friday she checks her bank account to make sure the money .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice is there. Cienna's behavior is BEST described as being influenced by which type of reinforcement schedule? a. fixed-ratio b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable-interval ANSWER: c 158. Chiara is a potter who gets paid for each piece of pottery she creates. Chiara's behavior is BEST described as being influenced by which type of reinforcement schedule? a. fixed-interval b. variable-ratio c. continuous d. partial ANSWER: c 159. A karate sensei praises their student after she executes four forms correctly. The student's behavior is BEST described to be under the control of a _____ schedule of reinforcement. a. fixed-ratio b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable-interval ANSWER: a 160. Kalama just got a job in an office. She never knows when her boss may come by her cubicle, so she makes sure to always be working, just in case. Which schedule of reinforcement is MOST influencing her behavior? a. fixed-ratio b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable-interval ANSWER: d 161. Jermelle is guiding her 7-year-old brother through helping chop vegetables for dinner. She praises him when he successfully makes between three and seven chops. What BEST describes the schedule of reinforcement Jermelle is using to control her brother's chopping? a. fixed-ratio b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable-interval ANSWER: b 162. Which schedule of reinforcement results in the slowest extinction? a. fixed-ratio .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice b. variable-ratio c. fixed-interval d. continuous ANSWER: b 163. Which statement accurately describes how the processes of punishment and reinforcement differ? a. There is positive and negative reinforcement, but only negative punishment. b. Punishment decreases behavior and reinforcement increases a response. c. Punishment teaches what behaviors to avoid as well as alternative responses. d. Reinforcers, but not punishers, must be specific and immediate to be effective.

ANSWER: b 164. _____ is the process by which the consequence of a behavior decreases the likelihood that the behavior will happen again. a. Vicarious conditioning b. Higher-order conditioning c. Reinforcement d. Punishment ANSWER: d 165. In positive punishment, presentation of a(n) _____ stimulus _____ the likelihood that the behavior will happen again. a. undesirable; increases b. undesirable; decreases c. desirable; increases d. desirable; decreases ANSWER: b 166. In negative punishment, removal of a(n) _____ stimulus _____ the likelihood that the behavior will happen again. a. undesirable; increases b. undesirable; decreases c. desirable; increases d. desirable; decreases ANSWER: d 167. The BEST example of negative punishment is: a. having your phone taken away for getting poor grades. b. being called an insulting name for disagreeing with someone. c. being called by a bill collector until the bill is paid. d. having someone laugh at you when you ask a question. .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 168. Positive punishment is BEST reflected by: a. getting smacked on the shoulder when you make a snide remark. b. having to put money in a jar every time you swear. c. being ignored until you apologize. d. having your phone taken away for being disrespectful.

ANSWER: a 169. When Priyanka types on her smartphone, she gets a sharp shooting pain in her right elbow, so she has stopped typing and uses voice-to-text instead. Priyanka's pain is serving as a: a. positive reinforcer. b. negative reinforcer. c. positive punisher. d. negative punisher.

ANSWER: c 170. When Marion's father caught them vaping, he would not allow Marion to hang out with their friends for a week. Now Marion has decided to stop vaping. Marion's change in behavior is MOST influenced by: a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive punishment. d. negative punishment.

ANSWER: d 171. Which is NOT an important factor for punishment to be effective? a. Punishment should be provided on a variable-ratio or interval schedule. b. Punishment must happen immediately after the offensive behavior. c. Another behavior should be suggested to replace the undesired one. d. The behavior that is being punished needs to be explicitly specified.

ANSWER: a 172. A(n) _____ is a signal that indicates that a particular behavior will be followed by a particular consequence. a. discriminative stimulus b. primary reinforcer c. unconditioned stimulus d. neutral stimulus ANSWER: a 173. A discriminative stimulus allows people to act when the chances of obtaining a reinforcer are _____ and the chances of obtaining a punisher are _____. .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice a. greatest; greatest b. greatest; lowest c. lowest; greatest d. lowest; lowest ANSWER: b 174. Which statement about discriminative stimuli is false? a. They are important for both punishment and reinforcement. b. They can be based on any sense, including taste and smell. c. They can be used by humans but not by other animals. d. They act as signals for the consequences of behavior.

ANSWER: c 175. When driving, you only go through a traffic signal when it is green, not when it's red. The color of the light is BEST described as serving as a(n): a. discriminative stimulus. b. primary reinforcer. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. neutral stimulus.

ANSWER: a 176. When Amadi comes to class alone, Tyrone sits by and talks to her. However, when Amadi's boyfriend joins her in class, Tyrone sits somewhere else because her boyfriend is rude to him. What serves as a discriminative stimulus for a reinforcement contingency of Tyrone's behavior in this scenario? a. Amadi b. Amadi's boyfriend c. sitting d. talking ANSWER: a 177. Seven-year-old Thien only asks his grandmother if he can have a treat after school; his grandmother always says yes, whereas his grandfather always says no. What BEST describes the role that Thien's grandmother plays in this contingency? a. positive reinforcer b. negative reinforcer c. discriminative stimulus d. unconditioned stimulus ANSWER: c 178. _____ is the process of gradually learning a complex behavior. a. Reinforcement b. Punishment .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. Shaping d. Discriminating ANSWER: c 179. Sam is teaching his dog to sit up and beg. First, he gives his dog a treat for just sitting. Then he makes the dog raise up one paw after it sits before giving it a treat. Finally, he gives the dog a treat only when the dog sits up and raises both paws. What term BEST describes this process? a. negative reinforcement b. positive punishment c. shaping d. discriminating ANSWER: c 180. In which scenario would shaping MOST likely need to be used? a. teaching a cat to use a toilet rather than a litter box b. teaching a child to enjoy watching a television show c. teaching a dog to eat pieces of meat out of a bowl d. teaching an adult to leave when a fire alarm sounds ANSWER: a 181. An initial increase in behavior that occurs when a reinforcer is removed from a contingency is called: a. an extinction burst. b. punishment. c. shaping. d. discrimination.

ANSWER: a 182. During an extinction burst, a behavior first _____ and then _____. a. decreases; stabilizes b. decreases; increases c. increases; stabilizes d. increases; decreases ANSWER: d 183. When Florian shows a funny social media post to their roommate, their roommate laughs. Florian keeps showing posts, but their roommate (who needs to study) stops laughing. Florian will MOST likely: a. immediately stop showing their roommate posts. b. show a few more posts and then give up. c. show posts until their roommate gets up and walks away. d. keep showing posts all night.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 184. Four-year-old Salina is playing with a battery-operated bubble gun. Suddenly, the batteries fail and the gun no longer produces bubbles. She rapidly hits the trigger a few times, shakes it and tries again, and finally discards the gun to search for something else to play with. What is the MOST likely explanation for this behavior series? a. Salina acquired bubble gun-operating behavior. b. Salina generalized bubble gun-playing to other toys. c. Salina found bubble gun-playing negatively reinforcing. d. Salina's bubble gun-playing underwent extinction.

ANSWER: d 185. Operant conditioning can be used in a therapeutic way when people want to reduce unwanted behaviors through the process of: a. learned helplessness. b. contingency management. c. stimulus generalization. d. stimulus discrimination.

ANSWER: b 186. Victoria has been drinking alcohol for many years, and she's worrying that it's going to negatively impact her life soon. While she wants to quit, she's having trouble doing so. A therapist would MOST likely suggest _____, which involves changing consequences in order to change behavior. a. vicarious conditioning b. contingency management c. shaping d. generalization ANSWER: b 187. _____ is a type of learning that occurs as a result of seeing other people's behavior and its consequences. a. Classical conditioning b. Contingency management c. Shaping d. Observational learning ANSWER: d 188. To learn something through _____, you have to personally execute a behavior, but through _____, you learn by seeing other people's behavior and its consequences. a. shaping; classical conditioning b. classical conditioning; shaping c. observational learning; operant conditioning d. operant conditioning; observational learning ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 189. Which is an example of observational learning? a. Alexandra avoids cats because they make her sneeze. b. Xavier gets a large bottle of water because they are very thirsty. c. Darren tells a joke that he heard Julie tell and get laughs from. d. Jorge doesn't roll their eyes when they know their mother can see.

ANSWER: c 190. Which is NOT true about observational learning and violence? a. Correlation studies reveal that video game violence causes aggression. b. Meta-analyses find definitive links between media violence and violent behavior. c. Experiments show that exposure to violent media desensitizes people to real violence. d. Longitudinal studies show that TV violence exposure predicts violent behavior.

ANSWER: a 191. Which psychologist is MOST associated with observational learning studies? a. Ivan Pavlov b. Edward Thorndike c. B. F. Skinner d. Albert Bandura ANSWER: d 192. How did Albert Bandura study observational learning? a. in children, using an inflatable clown doll b. in dogs, measuring salivation during feeding c. in pigeons, using a Skinner box d. in cats, using a puzzle box ANSWER: a 193. If an adult model acted aggressively toward the Bobo doll in Albert Bandura's classic study, children acted _____ aggressively toward it. If the model didn't act aggressively, then the child acted _____ aggressively toward it. a. more; more b. more; less c. less; more d. less; less ANSWER: b 194. Six-year-old Andre just yelled at kids walking home from school to stay off her lawn. How would Albert Bandura MOST likely explain this behavior? a. Andre heard her parents yell that at kids before. b. Andre's yelling behavior was reinforced in the past. .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. Kids walking across a lawn in an unconditioned stimulus. d. Andre is experiencing an extinction burst.

ANSWER: a 195. Ten-year-old Stuart just picked up a piece of trash from the trail and threw it away. How would Albert Bandura MOST likely explain Stuart's behavior? a. Picking up trash is a conditioned response for Stuart. b. Stuart saw an adult pick up trash that wasn't theirs. c. Stuart is experiencing an extinction burst. d. Stuart was reinforced for doing it in the past.

ANSWER: b 196. Which statement is NOT true about the results of Albert Bandura's Bobo studies? a. When an adult model was aggressive to the Bobo doll, children were more likely to also act aggressively toward the doll. b. If the model who acted aggressively toward the Bobo doll got rewarded, children who saw it were more likely to act aggressively toward the doll. c. If the model who acted aggressively toward the Bobo doll got punished, children who saw it were less likely to act aggressively toward the doll. d. If the model who acted aggressively toward the Bobo doll got punished, children who saw it would not act aggressively toward the doll even if rewarded.

ANSWER: d 197. _____ is imitation of observed behavior. a. Modeling b. Shaping c. Discriminating d. Generalizing ANSWER: a 198. Which of these is NOT an ability that Bandura identified as necessary in order for an observer to learn from a model? a. attention b. concentration c. imitation d. motivation ANSWER: b 199. _____ neurons are activated when a person performs or observes a particular behavior. a. Observational b. Shaping c. Imitative .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice d. Mirror ANSWER: d 200. _____ neurons may underlie empathy and imitation. a. Observational b. Shaping c. Imitative d. Mirror ANSWER: d 201. Nu-Chu hates getting shots and always cringes when a hospital show on TV shows a doctor giving a patient an injection. This set of behaviors would MOST likely be controlled by: a. operant conditioning. b. classical conditioning. c. shaping. d. mirror neurons.

ANSWER: d 202. _____ is your predisposition to learn what is most relevant to the survival of your species. a. Observational learning b. Classical conditioning c. Biological preparedness d. Instinctual drift ANSWER: c 203. Calvin ate at the new Cambodian restaurant in town and tried a dish with ingredients and flavors he'd never had before. A few hours later, he felt incredibly nauseous. Now his stomach feels sour even when he smells the food from the restaurant when he walks by. Calvin has MOST likely developed a(n): a. taste aversion. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. biological preparedness. d. primary reinforcer.

ANSWER: a 204. If you get sick after eating a new food, you will MOST likely develop a(n) _____, which is an example of a(n) _____. a. taste aversion; instinctual drift b. instinctual drift; taste aversion c. taste aversion; biological preparedness d. biological preparedness; taste aversion ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice 205. That John Garcia's rats would develop a taste aversion to sugar water paired with nausea but not to sugar water paired with an electric shock is an example of: a. instinctual drift. b. operant conditioning. c. biological preparedness. d. observational learning.

ANSWER: c 206. When John Garcia made rats nauseous after they tasted sugar water, they drank _____ sugar water. When he gave rats an electric shock after they tasted sugar water, they drank _____ sugar water. a. less; the same amount of b. the same amount of; less c. more; the same amount of d. the same amount of; more ANSWER: a 207. Which psychologist is MOST associated with studies of biological preparedness by inducing taste aversions in rats? a. Ivan Pavlov b. B. F. Skinner c. Albert Bandura d. John Garcia ANSWER: d 208. How did John Garcia demonstrate biological preparedness? a. in dogs, that salivated upon food presentation b. in rats, that pressed levers for food delivery c. in cats, that had to find a way out of a puzzle box d. in rats, that were induced with taste aversions ANSWER: d 209. _____ is the tendency for an animal's behavior to return to innate patterns. a. Shaping b. Biological preparedness c. Instinctive drift d. Operant conditioning ANSWER: c 210. Even though you feed your cat more than sufficiently, your cat still hunts and kills birds if he gets outside.

This is MOST likely an example of: a. extinction. b. classical conditioning. .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice c. instinctive drift. d. operant conditioning.

ANSWER: c 211. In instinctive drift, an animal's behavior: a. increases based on the reinforcers that follow it. b. is elicited by stimuli associated with a reflex. c. returns to genetically programmed patterns. d. mimics that of another member of its species.

ANSWER: c 212. Cognitive influences on learning can also be described as how _____ affects learning. a. thinking b. behavior c. motivation d. biology ANSWER: a 213. A(n) _____ is a mental representation of the physical environment. a. thought map b. cognitive map c. instinctual drift d. discriminative stimulus ANSWER: b 214. Having prior information about the physical environment _____ learning. a. disrupts b. stabilizes c. slows down d. speeds up ANSWER: d 215. _____ is learning that has taken place but cannot yet be directly observed. a. Operant conditioning b. Classical conditioning c. Latent learning d. Observational learning ANSWER: c 216. When Maggie's little brother got his first bicycle, Maggie read the bike's manual, which included directions on how to raise the handle bars. When their brother had grown taller the next year and needed the handle bars .

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Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice raised, Maggie was able to raise much more quickly than their parents who hadn't previously read the manual.

Maggie was exhibiting: a. operant conditioning. b. insight. c. latent learning. d. observational learning.

ANSWER: c 217. _____ is the perception of a solution to a problem that results from cognitive understanding rather than from trial and error. a. Insight b. Shaping c. Latent learning d. Observational learning ANSWER: a 218. The "Aha!" moment is often referred to as: a. insight. b. shaping. c. latent learning. d. observational learning.

ANSWER: a 219. _____ is the absence of any attempt to get away from a bad situation because that situation was, in the past, inescapable. a. Insight b. Learned helplessness c. Latent learning d. Observational learning ANSWER: b 220. Marla moved to a new school and hasn't had much luck making friends. Another new girl in her class smiled at her in first period, so Marla considered saying "hi," but didn't, thinking, "Why bother? No one likes me." Marla's behavior BEST exemplifies: a. learned helplessness. b. shaping. c. latent learning. d. observational learning.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 7 - Essay 1. Define cognition. Be sure to include and comment on the three main areas of thinking, language, and intelligence. Provide three examples (one for each area) of how cognition is often taken for granted in our everyday lives.

ANSWER: Cognition focuses on what your brain does with information—how that knowledge or information is understood, organized, analyzed, and communicated. The three main areas of cognition covered in this chapter include thinking, language, and intelligence. Thinking involves stringing together concepts to form simple and complex thoughts. Language is the ability to communicate with others using words or symbols that are arranged according to rules. Intelligence is the ability to gain knowledge and learn from experience. Since cognition is something that is essentially second nature, we often take it for granted, and we tend to notice it most when we experience cognitive problems. Examples provided may tap into the ways thinking, language, and intelligence often occur automatically without our awareness until we encounter problems related to each area (e.g., talking about certain concepts with people from another region or generation [thinking]; recognizing the importance of syntax when speaking with a nonnative speaker of English who makes some mistakes [language]; appreciating the many different types of specific and/or multiple intelligences that may exist when you may be performing poorly in one course but excelling in another [intelligence]).

2. Define the term concept. Then compare and contrast the three main types of concepts and provide a real-life example of each.

ANSWER: As the most basic building block of thinking, a concept is a mental representation of a category of similar things, actions, or people. Concepts are often used to string together thoughts and serve to facilitate thinking and communication. Three main types of concepts are featured-based, goal-based, and relationship-based. Featured-based concepts are held together by similar features or characteristics (e.g., flounder, grouper, trout, and red snapper are all fish). Goal-based concepts are understood as sharing the same goal or purpose (e.g., buses, boats, airplanes, and trains are all forms of transportation that share the goal of getting you from one place to another). Relationship-based concepts are held together by similar kinds of relationships or connections between people or things (e.g., rugby, cross country, ultimate frisbee, and lacrosse are all team sports).

3. Describe how concepts are often organized into subordinate, basic, and superordinate levels. Provide a personal example of how either your cultural background or your expertise in an area has affected the conceptual level at which you typically think about a certain topic, compared to someone else not sharing the same cultural background or expertise.

ANSWER: The concepts we use most often in our thinking are considered "basic concepts." These middle-sized concepts fall within much broader ones known as "superordinate concepts," while also containing many more specific concepts called "subordinate concepts." Culture and expertise can influence the knowledge you have about a topic and the conceptual level at which you typically think about it. As an example, for someone who does not dance and who has little knowledge about belly dancing, "belly dance" may be a subordinate concept that falls under the basic concept of "dance." For someone with years of experience performing in belly dancing competitions and teaching it, "belly dance" would likely be a basic concept containing more specific subordinate concepts like "Egyptian Baladi," "Turkish Oriental," "Tribal Fusion," and "American Tribal Style."

4. Compare and contrast problem solving and decision making. Then imagine a typical day of getting ready for school, and describe an example of where you have to engage in problem solving versus one where you engage in decision making. .

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Chapter 7 - Essay ANSWER: Both problem solving and decision making involve using cognition, but there are distinctions between them. Problem solving is about figuring out a way to achieve a goal, whereas decision making is about choosing between available options. In other words, problem solving requires you to create and come up with solutions from scratch, whereas in decision making, the possible answers are usually already presented to you. Another difference is that with problem solving, there is a sense of urgency or need, whereas with decision making, the need may be less urgent or perhaps even absent. Examples of problem solving may relate to figuring out how to overcome a problem of your car breaking down or locking your keys in your house. Examples of decision making may relate to picking out an outfit to wear or deciding what to pack for lunch.

5. Define mental set, framing, and confirmation bias, and provide examples of how they influence problem solving.

ANSWER: Your mental set is the limits you place on your approach to problem solving. If you've always done something a certain way, it's hard to think otherwise, although it might not be the best option at the time. For example, if you've always called your mom when you locked yourself out of your childhood home, calling her when you've locked yourself out of your dorm room at a college that is 400 miles away is probably not the most effective approach. Confirmation bias is the tendency to prefer information that confirms what you thought in the first place. If you didn't think highly of a certain college, but it was the only one you were admitted to, you might still be more willing to believe bad things you read about it rather than good, even if there are more instances of good than bad. Framing is the particular way a problem is presented, which can influence how you respond to it. Saying your school is ranked in the top 100 in the country sounds better than saying it's in 99th place.

6. Describe the difference between an algorithm and a heuristic as they relate to problem solving. Also, differentiate between the four types of heuristics (representative, availability, anchoring, affect), and provide a real-life example of each.

ANSWER: Algorithms are formula-like methods of problem solving. When solving problems, though, we often rely on heuristics, which are simple educated guesses or quick mental shortcuts. Compared to algorithms that are time-consuming but will produce more accurate answers, heuristics are quick but can be premature or logically flawed. The representativeness heuristic is at play when we draw conclusions about something based on how similar it is to a prototype. The availability heuristic is an educated guess based on the most salient information that comes to mind. With the anchoring heuristic, the starting point has a strong influence on the conclusion ultimately reached. The affect heuristic is apparent when your judgment about the worth of something is strongly influenced by your feelings toward it.

7. Compare and contrast Type 1 and Type 2 thinking. Think of a situation where you were presented with an exciting new opportunity (socially or professionally). Describe the scenario and explain both your Type 1 and Type 2 thinking in response to this opportunity.

ANSWER: Both Type 1 and Type 2 thinking are part of the dual-process theory. Type 1 thinking is fast, automatic, outside of your awareness, more emotional, and based on your immediate impulse. Type 2 thinking is slow, deliberate, effortful, under your control, more logical, and based on your careful analysis. Each type of thinking has its benefits and downsides. Type 1 can be persuasive. It can also produce rapid responses when needed—for example, in situations of danger. Although Type 2 thinking takes more time and effort than Type 1, it emphasizes reason over emotion and can lead to .

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Chapter 7 - Essay better, more reasonable solutions. Examples provided should demonstrate understanding of the combination of emotion with reason in response to a problem or decision, and how it unfolds with time.

8. How does the durability bias impact affective forecasting? Provide an example when either (or both) of these concepts impacted how you felt about the result of a decision you made.

ANSWER: Affective forecasting is predicting how you will feel about the outcomes of your decisions. We tend to overestimate how long that feeling will persist—that's the durability bias. Examples provided should demonstrate understanding of the prediction of emotion in response to a decision to be made and how that emotion and its impact change over time.

9. Describe the ways in which divergent thinking versus convergent thinking are said to facilitate or hinder creativity. How is creativity related to overcoming functional fixedness, and what are three examples of someone doing so?

ANSWER: Creativity is the capacity to think outside of the box and generate original ideas or approaches to a problem. Divergent thinking is a problem-solving strategy in which a person comes up with many different possible solutions, whereas convergent thinking is where a person uses logic to deduce the single best solution. Divergent thinking is more innovative and imaginative and, therefore, linked more to creativity. Convergent thinking has the opposite effect, where a person tends to focus on identifying a single solution. Functional fixedness, defined as thinking about something only in the way it is most typically used, hinders creativity. Thus, overcoming functional fixedness requires divergent thinking, which leads to creativity. Examples should demonstrate uses of objects for purposes other than what they are typically intended for (e.g., using a pen as an instrument, as a back scratcher, to extend your reach, as a weapon).

10. Define creativity. Describe one way in which culture can influence it, and describe one way creativity helped people manage the challenges that the COVID-19 pandemic brought. Provide a personal example of how you used creativity to navigate the challenges of the COVID-19 pandemic.

ANSWER: Creativity is the capacity to think outside of the box and generate original ideas or approaches to a problem. People who experience multiple cultures and/or speak multiple languages tend to be relatively high in creativity, and this may be due to their diverse experiences. People from individualistic Western cultures may tend to think more divergently, which promotes creativity, as opposed to collectivistic Eastern cultures. The COVID-19 pandemic brought many challenges, but these challenges may have spurred creativity in people. For example, data suggest that creativity regarding common household and family-centered tasks increased during the pandemic, especially those who were low in everyday creativity. Creativity was positively correlated with feeling of the extent to which the pandemic impacted a person, suggesting that those hardest hit by COVID-19 responded the most creatively at work, which correlated to assessment of professional growth.

Parents also faced many challenges regarding at-home schooling during the pandemic, and those who responded more creatively were less stressed by the circumstances. (Personal examples will vary, but may include anecdotes about making masks, using technology to keep in touch with people, or strategies during the shift to online learning.)

11. Define and compare the nativist theory of language development with the nonnativist theories. Describe one research finding that supports each position.

ANSWER: The nativist theory of language development suggests that you're simply born with the ability to .

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Chapter 7 - Essay acquire language. In other words, humans have an innate disposition to develop and use their linguistic abilities. Supporters of this perspective tend to believe that every person is born with a language acquisition device, which is a specific capacity within the brain that provides the ability to use language from day 1. Evidence that supports this includes that deaf children will often develop "home signs" with their family or the instance of the development of Nicaraguan Sign Language.

The nonnativist theories suggest that language acquisition and development is not just about nature but also about nurture. Supporters of this perspective might align with the formalist theory of language development which suggests that children learn language through hearing others speak it.

The social-pragmatic theory suggests that a child's use of language develops primarily from a desire to interact with others. This is supported by evidence that use of language increases with exposure.

12. Describe the stages of a child's language development, including parentese, babbling, how language expands from single words to sentences, and the development of figurative language. Provide information regarding when these stages begin and an example for each stage.

ANSWER: A child's language development begins in the earliest days of life when parents/caregivers speak to babies in a sing-songy, high-pitched way with elongated vowel sounds and lots of repetition. This form of communication is called parentese—more commonly known as baby talk. The next stage, beginning a few months after birth, is called babbling, where a baby vocalizes a wide variety of nonword, single-syllable sounds that are soon reduplicated, and then different sounds become strung together within a few months. The one-word stage begins around the child's first birthday and is marked by use of a single word as a full sentence. Within a few months, the use of single words expands to two- and three-word utterances. By age 3, the child is likely forming full sentences, and the ability to accurately form complex sentences continues throughout childhood. From about age 9 through the teenage years, the child gains understanding of figurative language—figures of speech where metaphors, idioms, and proverbs mean something different from what they literally say.

13. Define grammar, and describe how its complexity progresses from phonemes, morphemes, syntax, and semantics; be sure to provide an example of each level.

ANSWER: Grammar is the set of rules within a language. The first level is the phoneme—the smallest distinct unit of speech. These are speech sounds that are combined to make words; for example, the phoneme [p] starts the word "post-apocalyptic." The next level is the morpheme, at which meaning begins. These include words or things like prefixes and suffixes that convey timing; for example, the morpheme "post" in "post-apocalyptic" conveys that the time period is after the apocalypse. Syntax is the rules by which words are put together to make phrases and statements and sentences in way others will understand. You would say, "This book is urban fantasy set in a post-apocalyptic war zone," not "post-apocalyptic war zone urban fantasy this book is." Semantics is the rule set by which you extract meaning from words and sentences; for example, you'd know that the person who said the sentence described above was talking about a fictional tale found in a book, not something happening in reality.

14. "It's not what you say, it's how you say it." Discuss what is meant by this common saying as it relates to extralinguistic information. Also provide an example of a time you encountered a miscommunication due to misunderstanding of extralinguistic information.

ANSWER: Extralinguistic information refers to components of language other than the literal meaning of the words. Such information can include tone of voice, volume, pitch, speed of speech, and other nonverbal cues. Even though the words literally spoken may mean one thing, the way in which those .

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Chapter 7 - Essay words are spoken could convey an entirely different message. For example, someone could say, "It's OK, don't worry about it" and actually mean that everything is OK, but if those words are said with an abrupt tone of frustration or exasperation, it could mean that everything is, in fact, not OK. Extralinguistic information has been found to have a powerful influence on communication, so there is no doubt a plethora of real-life examples where people may end up miscommunicating due to misinterpretation of various cues such as facial expressions, gestures, body language, and tone, speed, and volume of speech.

15. Define linguistic relativity. Provide two examples that support and two that oppose its claim.

ANSWER: Linguistic relativity posits that language influences thought. Opponents of the theory argue that your language could never keep up with your thoughts. Also, independent of language and culture, people around the world tend to think similarly and language develops in a similar way. However, proponents of linguistic relativity would argue that the more people experience or use a concept, the more it influences use of certain language or comparison among other concepts. For example, individuals who live near the Arctic Circle have many more words for snow than individuals who live in temperate zones. Furthermore, words that are gendered "male" in one language will evoke concepts considered "male," but if they are gendered "female" in another language, they will evoke feminine concepts.

16. Compare Spearman's notion of general intelligence with Thurstone's notion of specific intelligences. How do these two notions relate to the hierarchical model of intelligence?

ANSWER: Intelligence is the ability to gain knowledge or learn from experience, and there is debate about whether intelligence is a single ability or many separate abilities. Spearman argued that intelligence is one thing, meaning that there is such a thing as overall, general intelligence (g) that applies across all tasks and situations. According to Spearman, there is an underlying factor g that explains the connectedness of someone's mental abilities across the board. Thurman, on the other hand, believed that there are different specific intelligences (s) that tend to show up as clusters in a factor analysis, and some of these specific intelligences may be stronger than others for different people. In other words, someone may have high verbal ability but low math ability, rather than being high on both or low on both. The hierarchical model of intelligence is a blend of the models proposed by Spearman and Thurman. It suggests that we each have a general intelligence (g) that is comprised of several specific intelligences (s) that can be further broken down into more specific abilities.

17. Apply Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences to your own life. Describe and provide examples of the intelligences that you believe you possess in the highest degrees. Also discuss the intelligences that you possess in lesser degrees. Be sure to mention all nine intelligences.

ANSWER: Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences outlines nine different intelligences. Linguistic intelligence relates to the ability to write, speak, and understand language. Logico-mathematical intelligence relates to math, science, logic, and problem solving. Spatial intelligence facilitates reasoning about physical objects in three-dimensional space. Musical intelligence is about playing instruments, singing, and creating and appreciating music. Bodily–kinesthetic intelligence has to do with dancing, sports, and movement-related tasks. Interpersonal intelligence refers to interacting with others, as well as understanding other people's thoughts and emotions. Intrapersonal intelligence is about self-awareness. Naturalistic intelligence relates to understanding and appreciating plants, animals, weather, and other aspects of the environment and natural world.

Existential intelligence lends to contemplating the meaning of life and other deep philosophical .

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Chapter 7 - Essay topics.

18. What is emotional intelligence and what are its four branches? Describe a scenario at school or work in which high emotional intelligence would be critical for success. Also describe a scenario at school or work in which low emotional intelligence would likely lead to failure.

ANSWER: Emotional intelligence is the ability to sense, understand, and manage emotions in yourself and others. The four branches of emotional intelligence include the ability to: (1) accurately perceive emotions in yourself and others, (2) use emotions to facilitate thinking, (3) understand emotions, and (4) manage emotions. These abilities have been found to have significant impacts on day-to-day functioning as they relate to many areas of our lives, including work, school, relationships, etc.

Examples where emotional intelligence (or lack thereof) may influence the likelihood of success or failure could involve interactions between people in situations of teamwork, interview settings, everyday management of workers, etc.

19. Consider the case of Jimmy and John, who are identical twins raised together, compared to Kyle and Toby who are identical twins raised apart. Based on findings from twin and adoption studies, what differences might we expect to find between the two pairs of twins in terms of correlation between the siblings' intelligence levels? Discuss the importance and interplay of genetic and environmental factors in the determination of one's intelligence.

ANSWER: Based on findings from twin and adoption studies, we expect to find that Jimmy and John, who are identical twins raised together, are more similar in intelligence levels than Kyle and Toby, who are identical twins raised apart. In fact, research has found that the correlation between siblings' intelligence levels among identical twins raised together to be .86, compared to .72 among identical twins raised apart. Given that identical twins share all of their genes, the fact that those who are raised apart tend to be less similar in intelligence than those who are raised together shows that there is room for environmental influence. Furthermore, the correlation between siblings' intelligence levels among nontwin siblings raised together is .47, and it is even lower among nontwin siblings raised apart (.24). Compared to the correlations among identical twins, these results further suggest that genes play a powerful role in intelligence levels, but that environmental factors also play a role.

Overall, research has found that the heritability of intelligence is in the 50 to 75% range, that there are many environmental variables (e.g., socioeconomic level, education, nutrition, social interactions) affecting intelligence, and that genes and environment interact in complex ways.

20. Critically discuss the major ways in which intelligence tests may give certain cultural groups an advantage while putting other groups at a disadvantage. What steps can be taken to minimize such test bias?

ANSWER: Test bias is the tendency of a test to produce scores in a consistently inaccurate way for members of particular groups. Historically, critics of intelligence testing have argued that certain items included on the test tap into aspects of life and information that some groups (typically middle- to upper-class Whites) have more access to and familiarity with than others (typically racial minorities and people of lower socioeconomic status). As such, intelligence tests can be unfair to entire cultural groups.

Efforts to reduce test bias include creating culture-fair intelligence tests that remove any cultural factors potentially leading to bias. One such strategy involves minimizing the use of words (since words are considered the primary source of test bias) and instead using items that involve puzzles, mazes, visual memory games, and other similar tasks.

21. Discuss the difference between intelligence tests and achievement tests. What is IQ? Describe how IQ is used to differentiate between individuals who possess giftedness and individuals who possess an intellectual .

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Chapter 7 - Essay disability.

ANSWER: While both intelligence and achievement tests are assessment techniques used by psychologists, intelligence tests numerically measure intelligence, whereas achievement tests measure the level of learning a person has attained. Intelligence tests measure what a person can accomplish, whereas intelligence tests measure what a person has accomplished. Intelligence quotient, or IQ, is the primary result of an intelligence test, and it is a single number in reference to a median of 100 that is used to represent a person's overall intelligence. A person is said to possess giftedness— significantly above average intelligence—when their IQ is 2 or more standard deviations above the mean. In contrast, a person who possesses an intellectual disability has significantly below-average intelligence, as well as impaired day-to-day functioning. Their IQ would be expected to be 2 or more standard deviations below the mean.

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 1. Cognition is BEST defined as: a. a mental representation of a category of similar things, actions, or people. b. the limits a person places on an approach to problem solving based on what has worked in the past. c. an educated guess in which the starting point has a strong influence on the conclusion that is ultimately reached. d. what your brain does with information, including understanding, organizing, analyzing, and communicating it.

ANSWER: d 2. Cognition is BEST summarized as how we deal with: a. language. b. dementia. c. sensation. d. knowledge.

ANSWER: d 3. _____ is how you understand, organize, analyze, and communicate information. a. Memorizing b. Cognition c. Anchoring d. Framing ANSWER: b 4. Daisuke is watching a trilogy of an action-adventure series. As they complete each episode, they find themselves increasingly engaged by the plot as they process the information, seeks to understand it, and piece together the various story lines. Daisuke can be BEST described as engaging in: a. memorizing. b. anchoring. c. cognition. d. attribution.

ANSWER: c 5. The three main areas psychologists who study cognition focus on are: a. motivation, emotion, and perception. b. thinking, language, and intelligence. c. intelligence, perception, and learning. d. language, memory, and emotion.

ANSWER: b 6. Dr. Mikami is a cognitive psychologist. He MOST likely focuses on the topic of: a. motivation. b. thinking. .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. sensation. d. physiology.

ANSWER: b 7. Dr. Matsushita is a cognitive psychologist. They would be MOST likely to study how the ability to _____ changes across the life span. a. process information b. smell faint odors c. manage emotions d. remain motivated ANSWER: a 8. The term _____ refers to a mental representation of a category of similar things, actions, or people. a. intuition b. prototype c. concept d. attitude ANSWER: c 9. A concept refers to a mental representation of a category of things, actions, or people that are: a. different. b. opposite. c. similar. d. identical.

ANSWER: c 10. A concept is BEST defined as a(n): a. mental representation of a category of similar things, actions, or people. b. educated rule-of-thumb method of problem solving. c. assessment technique used to numerically measure intelligence. d. specific capacity within a person's brain that allows for language development.

ANSWER: a 11. A concept is a(n) _____ representation of a category of similar things, actions, or people. a. mental b. educated c. assessable d. physiological ANSWER: a 12. Arianna receives a package in the mail and is delighted to find that her mother sent her a copy of the family .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice cookbook. The fact that Arianna immediately recognized the cookbook as something containing recipes, she could use to cook familiar meals demonstrates that Arianna understands the _____ of a cookbook. a. cognition b. syntax c. heuristic d. concept ANSWER: d 13. Kitaro just starting learning martial arts. They are learning that there are different types of kicks and punches, as well as styles and people associated with martial arts. By learning more, Kitaro has expanded their _____ of martial arts. a. heuristic b. syntax c. dialect d. concept ANSWER: d 14. Psychologists study three major types of concepts called: a. Feature-, relationship-, and goal-based. b. Goal-, meaning-, and intelligence-based. c. Meaning-, purpose-, and future-based. d. Action-, people-, and item-based.

ANSWER: a 15. A prototype is BEST defined as: a. an educated guess based on easily accessible information. b. the most typical or best example within a concept. c. a formula-like method of problem solving. d. a mental representation of a category of similar things.

ANSWER: b 16. A _____ is the most typical or best example within a concept. a. prototype b. heuristic c. dialect d. morpheme ANSWER: a 17. Zorah is asked to think of a vacation. Instead of thinking of a specific trip they've taken or heard about, Zorah combines examples of various aspects of where one would go and what one would do on a vacation. The abstract blend of vacations that Zorah forms in their mind is called a(n): a. phoneme. .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice b. heuristic. c. prototype. d. algorithm.

ANSWER: c 18. _____-based concepts are held together by the same purpose, whereas _____-based concepts are held together by similar characteristics. a. Goal; feature b. Relationship; goal c. Feature; goal d. Relationship; feature ANSWER: a 19. _____-based concepts are held together by the connection between people or things, whereas _____-based concepts are held together by the same purpose. a. Goal; feature b. Relationship; goal c. Feature; goal d. Relationship; feature ANSWER: b 20. _____-based concepts are held together by similar characteristics, whereas _____-based concepts are held together by the same connection between people or things. a. Feature; relationship b. Relationship; goal c. Feature; goal d. Relationship; feature ANSWER: a 21. Which statement BEST exemplifies a feature-based concept? a. Registrar, reference librarian, professor, and IT specialist are all university employees. b. Brining, dry rubbing, marinating, and applying sauce are all forms of seasoning. c. Watering can, trowel, protective gloves, and hand rake are all gardening equipment. d. Peonies, lilacs, irises, and tulips are all types of flowers.

ANSWER: d 22. Which statement BEST exemplifies a goal-based concept? a. Sunglasses, hats, prom dresses, and rain boots are all things you wear. b. Strip steak, tenderloin, chuck roast, and sirloin are all cuts of beef. c. Bullfrogs, cattails, baby ducklings, and lily pads are all things you see at the pond. d. Violins, trumpets, saxophones, and flutes are heard during a symphony orchestra. .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 23. Which statement BEST exemplifies a relationship-based concept? a. Tigers, jaguars, lions, cougars, and lynxes are all big cats. b. Basil, oregano, thyme, mint, and marjoram are all herbs. c. Aunt, father, brother, uncle, and niece are all family members. d. Wood, steel, plastic, aluminum, and brick are all building materials.

ANSWER: c 24. When three students are asked to give an example of a concept, Jules's example of a concept is held together by similar characteristics, Alex's example is held together by the same purpose, and Brody's example is held together by the connection between people or things. Jules, Alex, and Brody provide examples that are _____based, _____-based, and _____-based, respectively. a. feature; relationship; goal b. relationship; goal; feature c. feature; goal; relationship d. relationship; feature; goal ANSWER: c 25. Psychologists often organize concepts into _____ levels. a. feature, goal, and relationship b. availability, affect, and anchoring c. phoneme, morpheme, and semantic d. superordinate, basic, and subordinate ANSWER: d 26. Our basic concepts fall within broader _____ concepts and also contain more specific _____ concepts. a. superordinate; subordinate b. relationship-based; feature-based c. subordinate; superordinate d. goal-based; relationship-based ANSWER: a 27. The BEST example of a subordinate concept for the basic concept of a "car" is a(n): a. automobile. b. vehicle. c. sedan. d. airplane.

ANSWER: c 28. The BEST example of a superordinate concept for the basic concept of a "cat" is a: a. fish. .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice b. mammal. c. tiger. d. wolf.

ANSWER: b 29. Indira is an expert on different types of apples. Compared to their colleagues who do not share the same level of expertise in apple varieties, "sweet apple" would likely be a _____ concept for Indira that contains the _____ concept of "Fuji." a. subordinate; superordinate b. superordinate; basic c. basic; subordinate d. superordinate; subordinate ANSWER: c 30. Research on the influence of culture on concept formation suggests that people in Asian cultures tend to take a(n) _____ approach, compared to people in European cultures who tend to take a _____ approach. a. relationship-based; feature-based b. individualistic; collectivist c. feature-based; relationship-based d. subordinate; basic ANSWER: a 31. Haruto is from Japan and Filip is from Poland. According to research on the influence of culture on concept formation, it is MOST likely that Filip would tend to take a more _____ approach to organizing items into concepts than Haruto would. a. feature-based b. collectivist c. goal-based d. relationship-based ANSWER: a 32. Kumail is from India and Astrid is from Sweden. They are asked to group a picture of a fish with either the aquarium it lives in or with other swimming animals. According to research on the influence of culture on concept formation, it is MOST likely that: a. Kumail would tend to group the fish with the aquarium it lives in, while Astrid would group the fish with other swimming animals. b. both Kumail and Astrid would tend to group the fish with the aquarium it lives in. c. Kumail would tend to group the fish with other swimming animals, while Astrid would group the fish with the aquarium it lives in. d. both Kumail and Astrid would tend to group the fish with other swimming animals.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 33. _____ is about using cognition to find a way to achieve a goal, whereas _____ is about using cognition to choose between available options. a. Decision making; problem solving b. Problem solving; decision making c. Thinking; framing d. Framing; thinking ANSWER: b 34. Which is the BEST example of problem solving, as opposed to decision making? a. going to a mechanic versus changing your car's oil yourself b. choosing between soup or salad for lunch c. pushing your broken-down vehicle versus getting a tow d. figuring out how to put out a fire in your kitchen ANSWER: d 35. Tuva is thinking about having pizza delivered or eating leftovers from her fridge. Amol is thinking about what to do now that he burned the lasagna he was planning to eat. Tuva is engaging in ____, and Amol is engaging in _____. a. problem solving; decision making b. decision making; problem solving c. insight; creativity d. creativity; insight ANSWER: b 36. Which statement is true about problem solving and decision making? a. Problem solving is typically less urgent than decision making. b. In decision making, one must generate multiple options. c. Problem solving and decision making are based solely on reason. d. In decision making, the possible answers are already presented to you.

ANSWER: d 37. An algorithm is defined as a: a. formula-like method of problem solving. b. problem-solving strategy involving deductive logic. c. rule-of-thumb method of problem solving. d. rule by which a person extracts meaning from words.

ANSWER: a 38. While Dr. Embrie studies many facets of problem solving, she primarily focuses on problems that people solve using formula-like methods. Dr. Embrie MOST often studies: a. algorithms. b. heuristics. .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. creativity. d. confirmation bias.

ANSWER: a 39. An algorithm is BEST exemplified by which action? a. going sky diving with your boyfriend even though you're scared b. choosing what kind of outfit to wear to your first day at a new job c. using a navigation app to find the quickest route d. asking your friend for advice on which laptop computer you should buy ANSWER: c 40. Your _____ is the limit you place on your approach to problem solving based on what has previously worked for you. a. confirmation bias b. heuristic c. algorithm d. mental set ANSWER: d 41. Finnian missed class today. When they've missed class before, they've always gotten notes from Sabine.

However, Sabine is not answering Finnian's texts. Instead of contacting the professor or a different student in their class, Finnian continues to spend time trying to find Sabine. Finnian's actions are MOST likely limited by their: a. algorithm. b. mental set. c. creativity. d. heuristic.

ANSWER: b 42. The tendency to prefer information that supports what you thought or believed in the first place is called: a. confirmation bias. b. the availability heuristic. c. framing. d. the representativeness heuristic.

ANSWER: a 43. _____ is what MOST likely plays a role in the acceptance of the "fake news" that fills social media feeds, and the rejection of fact-checkers who refute it, when it validates what was originally believed. a. Confirmation bias b. The availability heuristic c. Framing d. The representativeness heuristic .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 44. Prior to Andree's trip to Portugal, his friend tells him about a bakery there and raves about the fresh bread and pastries. Andree looks it up once he gets to Portugal, and he finds that there are a number of negative reviews about it. Nevertheless, he focuses on the few positive reviews he comes across, convinces himself they are probably more valid than the negative ones, and decides to go to the bakery after all. Andree has likely been influenced by: a. an algorithm. b. confirmation bias. c. the representativeness heuristic. d. the availability heuristic.

ANSWER: b 45. Framing is defined as: a. a mental representation of a category of similar actions, things, or people. b. the notion that every person possesses two separate types of thinking, one automatic and the other deliberate. c. a tendency to prefer information that confirms what you thought to be true in the first place. d. the particular way a question or problem is presented, which can influence how you respond to it.

ANSWER: d 46. A nursing program that celebrates its 90% certification test-passing success rate among students, rather than presenting it as a 10% failure rate, is taking advantage of the concept of: a. confirmation bias. b. creativity. c. convergent thinking. d. framing.

ANSWER: d 47. A popular disinfectant claims that it kills 99% of germs, not that it only fails to kill 1% of germs. This BEST exemplifies the concept of: a. confirmation bias. b. the availability heuristic. c. convergent thinking. d. framing.

ANSWER: d 48. Someone who supports the notion that vaccines shouldn't be mandatory often describes themselves as profreedom rather than anti-safety. This is BEST described as an example of: a. an algorithm. b. heuristics. c. convergent thinking. .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice d. framing.

ANSWER: d 49. _____ are based entirely on reason and logic, whereas _____ are based on mental shortcuts that are sometimes logically flawed. a. Heuristics; algorithms b. Mental sets; heuristics c. Algorithms; heuristics d. Heuristics; mental sets ANSWER: c 50. A heuristic is: a. an educated guess by which to solve a problem. b. a particular way of presenting a problem. c. a formula-like way of solving a problem. d. the best example within a concept.

ANSWER: a 51. Which statement is true regarding how most people approach problem solving? a. If given the option, people will more often choose to use an algorithm over a heuristic so they can guarantee the most rational solution. b. Psychologists have found that when it comes to problem solving, people are all about reason and logic. c. Even though algorithmic problem-solving yields more accurate answers, we more often rely on faster, logically flawed processes when solving problems. d. People are generally aware of when they are swayed from reason and logic in problem solving by contextual factors and heuristics.

ANSWER: c 52. The _____ heuristic is an educated guess based on similarity to a prototype, whereas the _____ heuristic is an educated guess based on information that most easily and quickly comes to mind. a. representativeness; anchoring b. affect; representativeness c. anchoring; affect d. representativeness; availability ANSWER: d 53. There's an old expression, "If it looks like a duck, swims like a duck, and quacks like a duck, then it's probably a duck." This expression is BEST understood as an example of the _____ heuristic. a. availability b. anchoring c. representativeness .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice d. affect ANSWER: c 54. In a study, a researcher had you listen to the words "bat, hat, mat, pat, sat". Then the researcher asked you to name an animal, and you said, "cat". Your animal choice is MOST likely due to your use of the _____ heuristic. a. availability b. anchoring c. representativeness d. affect ANSWER: a 55. In a study, a researcher had you listen to the words "bat, hat, mat, pat, sat". Then the researcher asked you to name an animal. Based on the availability heuristic, you would be MOST likely to answer: a. "cat." b. "pig." c. "dog." d. "bird."

ANSWER: a 56. Iain is at the train station to pick up a professor who is going to give a talk in the Chemistry Department's speaker series at his university. Based on the representativeness heuristic, which person would he be MOST likely to approach? a. the older man in the tweed sport coat b. the younger woman wearing jeans c. the couple with a small child d. the toddler throwing a temper tantrum ANSWER: a 57. Petra and Moosa are at an art show. They split up to look at different pieces but come back together at the end to look at a central piece. On the side of the gallery that Petra looked at, the average cost of the art was $2,500, whereas, on the side that Moosa looked at, the art was priced $250 on average. According to the anchoring heuristic, what guesses would Petra and Moosa MOST likely make about the price of the central piece they are both viewing? a. Moosa estimates the art is worth more than what Petra estimates. b. Petra estimates the art is worth more than what Moosa estimates. c. There is no significant difference between the estimates given by Petra or Moosa. d. Petra and Moosa both state there's no way to make an estimate on the art's worth.

ANSWER: b 58. Which heuristic BEST exemplifies the impact emotion can have on thinking? a. availability b. anchoring .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. representativeness d. affect ANSWER: d 59. Wynona is a huge fan of the local amateur hockey team. Since she was a kid, she has gone to every home game and was always excited to be there. This year the team has not yet won any of their games, but Wynona is still convinced they will make it to the championship. Wynona is being influenced by which heuristic? a. availability b. affect c. framing d. anchoring ANSWER: b 60. The _____ is the notion that each of us possesses two separate types of thinking: one that is fast and automatic and one that is slow and deliberate. a. nativist theory b. durability bias c. dual-process theory d. availability heuristic ANSWER: c 61. Type 1 thinking is _____, whereas Type 2 thinking is _____. a. automatic; fast b. purposeful; slow c. fast; effortless d. effortless; deliberate ANSWER: d 62. An example of Type 1 thinking is deciding to eat because: a. you need to maintain your blood sugar. b. because you're feeling down it sounds pleasant. c. you know you won't be able to in the next 2 hours. d. it's been 5 hours since breakfast.

ANSWER: b 63. An example of Type 2 thinking is: a. investing in certain stocks after careful analysis of the stock market. b. buying stocks in a company because the company's mission inspires you. c. trading your stock market shares one day because you are feeling very lucky. d. selling your stocks because you have a gut feeling that the market is about to crash.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 64. Mara is not enjoying their new job as much as they thought they would, and they are considering quitting it.

Instead of immediately putting in their notice, though, they give some time to consider if they could afford being without work for a while, the difficulties in getting a new job, and what might be available for them to apply to. Mara is demonstrating: a. Type 1 thinking. b. Type 2 thinking. c. confirmation bias. d. framing.

ANSWER: b 65. Affective forecasting is defined as: a. predicting how you will feel about the outcomes of your decisions. b. thinking about something in only the way it is most typically used. c. presenting a problem in a particular way to influence how someone responds to it. d. brainstorming in an open-minded way to generate many solutions to a problem.

ANSWER: a 66. _____ is defined as predicting how you will feel about the outcomes of your decisions. a. Convergent thinking b. Problem framing c. Affective forecasting d. Perceptual reasoning ANSWER: c 67. All of these statements about affective forecasting are true, EXCEPT that: a. it is defined as predicting how you will feel about the outcome of a decision. b. the durability bias often influences the accuracy of your affective forecasting. c. it emphasizes the subjective results of decisions rather than the objective results. d. research suggests that we tend to be very good at it.

ANSWER: d 68. Which statement is an example of affective forecasting? a. Winning the lottery would increase how much is in my savings account. b. My chances of hitting the lottery jackpot are 1 in 14,072,209. c. I'm not going to buy a lottery ticket because chances are I won't win. d. The lottery jackpot is at a record high, so I would regret it if I didn't play.

ANSWER: d 69. Overestimation of the expected length of the feeling produced by the outcome of a decision is called the: a. durability bias. b. affect heuristic. .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. confirmation bias. d. anchoring heuristic.

ANSWER: a 70. Which statement is an example of the durability bias? a. I've worked multiple jobs over the past 20 years. b. This is the car I've had in for 5 years. c. I will continue to rent this apartment as long as my rent doesn't increase. d. Finding a significant other would make me happy for the rest of my life.

ANSWER: d 71. Rheanne spent a lot of money to go to culinary school because she felt that being a chef would keep her happy and satisfied for the rest of his life. When she graduated and landed her first job at a restaurant, Rheanne was extremely excited and felt fulfilled. A few years later, however, Rheanne found that she was no longer excited about her job and considered going back to school for certification in massage therapy. Rheanne's initial thought that she'd be happy forever after achieving success in the culinary arts is BEST described an example of: a. emotional intelligence. b. functional fixedness. c. the durability bias. d. confirmation bias.

ANSWER: c 72. _____ is the capacity to generate original ideas or approaches to a problem. a. Cognition b. Convergent thinking c. Creativity d. Type 1 thinking ANSWER: c 73. Creativity is defined as the: a. capacity to generate original ideas or approaches to a problem. b. ability to communicate with others using words or other symbols. c. ability to gain knowledge and learn from experience. d. capacity to achieve goals and set new ones.

ANSWER: a 74. When they come across a problem, Raquel typically comes up with multiple original ideas for solving the problem. In doing so, Raquel demonstrates a great deal of: a. Type 1 thinking. b. convergent thinking. c. framing. .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice d. creativity.

ANSWER: d 75. _____ is about using logic to arrive at the single best solution, whereas _____ is about coming up with many different possible solutions. a. Anchoring; framing b. Convergent thinking; divergent thinking c. Confirming; forecasting d. Type 1 thinking; Type 2 thinking ANSWER: b 76. When asked what a plastic gallon jug could be used for, what would a convergent thinker MOST likely reply? a. storing milk or juice in the refrigerator b. filling it with water and then lifting it for exercise c. cutting off the top and using the base as a flower pot d. filling it with liquid and then using it as a doorstop ANSWER: a 77. Functional fixedness is defined as: a. a problem-solving strategy in which a person produces a lot of different possible solutions. b. the overestimation of the expected length of the feeling produced by the outcome of a decision. c. thinking about something in only the way it is most typically used rather than other possible uses. d. a problem-solving strategy in which a person uses logic to deduce the single best solution.

ANSWER: c 78. Only thinking about how an object is most typically used rather than other possible uses is called: a. affective forecasting. b. confirmation bias. c. divergent thinking. d. functional fixedness.

ANSWER: d 79. An example of functional fixedness is: a. using chopsticks to fill a hole with putty. b. extending your reach with a chopstick. c. thinking of chopsticks only as eating utensils. d. putting one's hair up in a bun with chopsticks.

ANSWER: c 80. At a deli, a young woman finishes her sandwich and appears to have something stuck between her teeth. She pulls out a mirror and uses her fingernails to try to dislodge the food, but to no avail. Swishing water around in .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice her mouth also doesn't work, and she becomes frustrated. Suddenly, as if a light bulb goes off in her head, the young woman reaches for a strand of her own hair and successfully uses it as floss! The young woman has demonstrated an ability to overcome _____. a. divergent thinking b. functional fixedness c. stereotype threat d. durability bias ANSWER: b 81. Moira ate only half of her hamburger and would like to take the rest of it home. Her waiter informs her, though, that the restaurant is currently out of take-away boxes. Moira is frustrated that she can't take her leftovers home, but then she comes up with the idea to wrap her burger in some notebook paper she has in her backpack and put the burger in her pencil case. Moira has demonstrated an ability to overcome: a. divergent thinking. b. functional fixedness. c. framing. d. durability bias.

ANSWER: b 82. Which statement about the link between creativity and culture is true? a. People who speak multiple languages tend to think more convergently than people who speak only one language. b. People from Eastern cultures tend to think more divergently than people from Western cultures. c. Individualism facilitates both the development and the implementation of creative ideas. d. People who experience multiple cultures tend to be higher in creativity than people without diverse cultural experiences.

ANSWER: d 83. Research assessing the interaction of creativity and culture would suggest that what often produces the best results is a team of people from _____ cultures who tend to facilitate creative ideas, along with people from _____ cultures who tend to promote the teamwork necessary to implement those new ideas. a. convergent; divergent b. worker bee; idea-generating c. Eastern; Western d. individualistic; collectivist ANSWER: d 84. _____ is your ability to communicate with others using words, motions, or symbols combined and arranged according to rules. a. Language b. Creativity c. Grammar .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice d. Cognition ANSWER: a 85. Language is BEST defined as: a. your ability to communicate with others using words or other symbols combined and arranged according to rules. b. your capacity to come up with original ideas or approaches to a problem. c. what your brain does with information, including understanding, organizing, analyzing, and communicating it. d. your ability to gain knowledge and learn from experience.

ANSWER: a 86. An example of using language is: a. solving a puzzle. b. crossing the street. c. texting a friend. d. driving to school.

ANSWER: c 87. The _____ theory of language development asserts that the ability to use language is inborn. a. formalist b. nativist c. social-pragmatic d. nonnativist ANSWER: b 88. The nativist theory of language development suggests that: a. children learn language through hearing others speak it. b. language influences thought. c. the ability to use language is inborn. d. a child's use of language develops from a desire to interact socially.

ANSWER: c 89. Which concept is LEAST related to the nativist theory of language development? a. linguistic universalism b. language acquisition device c. social pragmatism d. universal grammar ANSWER: c 90. _____ theory of language development is to nature as _____ theories of language development are to nurture. .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice a. Nativist; nonnativist b. Nonnativist; social-pragmatic c. Social-pragmatic; formalist d. Formalist; nativist ANSWER: a 91. Which statement would be made by a nonnativist theory proponent? a. Learning language is about nurture just as much as it is about nature. b. Language acquisition and development is an inborn ability. c. Every person is born with a language acquisition device. d. Humans have an innate disposition to use their linguistic abilities.

ANSWER: a 92. Research on the development of sign language among children who are born deaf provides supporting evidence for which theory of language development? a. social-pragmatic b. nonnativist c. formalist d. nativist ANSWER: d 93. Sandra was born deaf to hearing parents. Before she and her parents learned American Sign Language, Sandra communicated with her parents in a type of sign language that she created. This BEST provides supporting evidence for which theory of language development? a. social-pragmatic b. nonnativist c. formalist d. nativist ANSWER: d 94. The _____ theory of language suggests that children learn language through the process of hearing others speak it. a. social-pragmatic b. social-cognitive c. formalist d. nativist ANSWER: c 95. The social-pragmatic theory of language development suggests that: a. children are born with the ability to acquire and use language. b. a child's use of language develops from a desire to interact with others. .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. a child's linguistic ability is influenced by both nature and nurture. d. children learn language through the process of hearing others speak.

ANSWER: b 96. Another name for "baby talk" is: a. universal grammar. b. figurative language. c. babbling. d. parentese.

ANSWER: d 97. Dawn recently became a new mother. She will MOST likely communicate with her newborn infant using: a. universal grammar. b. babbling. c. figurative language. d. parentese.

ANSWER: d 98. Myra is using parentese to speak with her newborn baby. Myra is MOST likely: a. using single words as full sentences to express her feelings. b. speaking in a sing-songy, high-pitched way with elongated vowel sounds. c. using a series of single isolated sounds similar to delicate grunting. d. vocalizing a wide variety of meaningless nonword sounds.

ANSWER: b 99. Starting in the earliest days of a baby's life, a parent will speak to the baby with _____, to which the baby will soon respond with _____. a. parentese; babbling b. babbling; infant-directed speech c. motherese; baby talk d. baby talk; infant-directed speech ANSWER: a 100. _____ is an early stage of speech development during which a baby vocalizes a wide variety of nonword sounds. a. Babbling b. Universal grammar c. Figurative language d. Parentese ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 101. Three-month old Mihai begins vocalizing, "ba-ba-ba-ba." This is an example of _____ babbling. a. reduplicated b. variegated c. figurative d. parentese ANSWER: a 102. Alma is a 3-month-old baby. It is likely that Alma is beginning to respond to her caretaker's voice by using: a. universal grammar. b. parentese. c. babbling. d. figurative language.

ANSWER: c 103. Riley is 4 months old. In terms of language development, research suggests that she will learn the most from: a. interacting with other babies of the same age. b. listening to adult and child conversations on the TV. c. overhearing parental conversations in the same room. d. having direct face-to-face interactions with an adult caregiver.

ANSWER: d 104. At what age are babies typically in the one-word stage of speech development? a. at birth b. 6 months c. 12 months d. 18 months ANSWER: c 105. Christian is celebrating his first birthday with his family. As a typical 1-year-old child, which exclamation would Christian MOST likely make? a. a sing-songy, high-pitched, "Happy birthday to me!" b. "cake for Christian!" indicating what he wants to eat c. "ca!" referring to cake, and meaning, "I want some birthday cake!" d. "ba-goo-ca-nu" and other similar babbles ANSWER: c 106. Regan is celebrating her third birthday with her family and preschool friends. As a typical 3-year-old child, which exclamation would Regan MOST likely make? a. "You can have your cake and eat it too!" expressing her happiness with her party b. "Regan want birfday cake!" indicating her desire to have birthday cake .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. "ca!" referring to cake, and meaning, "I want some birthday cake!" d. "ba-goo-ca-nu" and other similar babbles ANSWER: b 107. Which statement about the development of a child's language abilities is true? a. The meaning of the first words spoken by babies around the world are very different. b. The first words spoken by babies around the world are typically verbs. c. Babies in more collectivist cultures produce more family-related words. d. Babies in more individualistic cultures produce more adjectives.

ANSWER: c 108. Metaphors, idioms, and figures of speech all fall under the category of: a. syntax. b. universal grammar. c. morphemes. d. figurative language.

ANSWER: d 109. As a typical 11-year-old, Ronald is likely at the stage of language development where he is mastering the challenges of: a. universal grammar. b. extralinguistic information. c. figurative language. d. social pragmatism.

ANSWER: c 110. Isadora tends to be very decisive and not very cautious when making a decision and acting on it. Her closest friends understand how Isadora acts, and they often say to her, "Don't put all your eggs in one basket."

Isadora's friends are using _____ to point out when she is making a big deal about nothing. a. figurative language b. extralinguistic information c. universal grammar d. parentese ANSWER: a 111. Janis thinks her cat is the most special cat in the entire world. Her friend, Sammie (who happens not to be very fond of cats), says that all cats are "a dime a dozen." Sammie is using _____ to suggest that Janis's cat isn't very special. a. figurative language b. extralinguistic information c. indirect language d. linguistic relativity .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 112. Grammar is: a. primarily learned by native speakers through rulebooks. b. the smallest distinct unit of speech. c. the set of rules within a language. d. the smallest meaningful unit of a language.

ANSWER: c 113. Sounds that serve as the smallest distinct unit of speech are called: a. semantics. b. morphemes. c. dialects. d. phonemes.

ANSWER: d 114. An example of a phoneme is: a. the sound made by the two-letter combination "tr" as in the word "trap." b. the prefix "ant" meaning against, as in the word "antagonist." c. the pronunciation of the word "clear" in English versus in French. d. how "biscuit" means a salty baked good in the United States versus a sweet one in the United Kingdom.

ANSWER: a 115. The most basic components of grammar are called: a. semantics. b. morphemes. c. dialects. d. phonemes.

ANSWER: d 116. The smallest meaningful unit of a language is called a: a. morpheme. b. prototype. c. phoneme. d. dialect.

ANSWER: a 117. An example of a morpheme is the: a. pronunciation of the English word "aluminum" in the United States versus the United Kingdom. b. sound made by the three-letter combination "str" as in the word "strap." .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. prefix "pre" meaning before, as in the word "prerequisite." d. order in which you meaningfully string together words, as in "Are you tired?"

ANSWER: c 118. _____ are to sounds as _____ are to meaning. a. Morphemes; phonemes b. Dialects; morphemes c. Phonemes; morphemes d. Phonemes; dialects ANSWER: c 119. The levels of grammar, beginning with the smallest level, follow which order? a. morphology phonology semantics syntax b. phonology morphology syntax semantics c. semantics syntax morphology phonology d. phonology morphology semantics syntax ANSWER: b 120. _____ refers to the rules by which words are put together in a certain order to make statements that are understandable to others. a. Phonology b. Syntax c. Morphology d. Semantics ANSWER: b 121. When revealing his favorite color to others, Sydnee says, "My favorite color is orange" rather than "Orange my favorite color is." Sydnee's sentence structure demonstrates her understanding of _____ in the English language. a. syntax b. morphology c. semantics d. extralinguistic information ANSWER: a 122. The rules by which you extract meaning from words and sentences is called: a. phonology. b. morphology. c. syntax. d. semantics.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 123. You are having a conversation with your friend Clay about his ideal romantic partner. He begins by saying that he needs to be with "someone who is intrinsic." As a good listener, you try to understand what he means; perhaps he meant to say "intrinsically motivated" or perhaps he simply misused the term "intrinsic." You listen further and then realize that what Clay really meant to say was "introspective." Your grasp of _____ is what allowed you to understand what Clay was trying to convey. a. syntax b. phonology c. semantics d. morphology ANSWER: c 124. _____ is about deriving meaning from words and sentences, whereas _____ is about putting together words in a certain order to make phrases and sentences. a. Morphology; syntax b. Phonology; semantics c. Semantics; syntax d. Morphology; phonology ANSWER: c 125. Components of language other than the literal meaning of the words are called: a. emotional intelligence. b. extralinguistic information. c. linguistic relativity. d. affective forecasting.

ANSWER: b 126. Which is the BEST example of extralinguistic information? a. the emphasis placed on certain spoken words b. the order in which words are spoken to produce meaning c. the specific words used during a presentation d. the sounds produced by "ough" in the word "rough" versus "through" ANSWER: a 127. Makenna asks her classmate Kendall what he thinks about a student who's new to the program, Kassidy.

Kendall responds, "Hmmm, I actually don't know Kassidy very well; but they seem . . . different," and then quickly walks away. Makenna is left unsure whether Kendall was describing Kassidy in a positive or negative way. Makenna's uncertainty of how Kendall actually feels about Kassidy is due to the _____ he provided. a. extralinguistic information b. dialect c. linguistic relativity d. figurative language ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 128. A group's particular version of a language with its own unique characteristics such as the way sentences are structured, the expressions that are used, and word choice is called: a. grammar. b. semantics. c. syntax. d. dialect.

ANSWER: d 129. Studies suggest that texting may: a. make it more difficult for adults to become bilingual. b. decrease reading accuracy and fluency in college students. c. reduce the amount of time spent reading traditional books. d. help 9- to 10-year-old kids develop their spelling skills.

ANSWER: d 130. In the United Kingdom, "plaster" means a covering for a small wound that those in the United States would typically call a "bandage." This example represents a difference in English: a. dialects. b. grammar. c. semantics. d. syntax.

ANSWER: a 131. Linguistic relativity is defined as the: a. correlation between personality and language. b. ability to manage emotions through communication. c. theory that language influences thought. d. understanding that language and dialect usage depends on location.

ANSWER: c 132. A research study compared speakers of German and Spanish, two languages where most nouns are considered either feminine or masculine. When asked to describe the word "bridge" (which is feminine in German and masculine in Spanish), Germans tended to describe bridges with adjectives like beautiful, elegant, and fragile, whereas Spanish speakers tended to describe bridges as strong, sturdy, and dangerous. These results provide evidence in support of: a. general intelligence. b. linguistic relativity. c. emotional intelligence. d. affective forecasting.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 133. Intelligence is the ability to: a. sense and manage emotions in yourself and others. b. gain knowledge and learn from experience. c. use language to facilitate thinking. d. manage emotions through communication.

ANSWER: b 134. _____ is BEST defined as the ability or abilities to gain knowledge and learn from experience. a. Intelligence b. Affective processing c. Creativity d. Linguistic relativity ANSWER: a 135. Which statement about intelligence is true? a. Psychologists unanimously agree that intelligence is a singular ability that applies across all tasks and situations. b. There is unanimous agreement among psychologists that intelligence is made up of many different abilities. c. There is no major difference between psychologists who believe in general versus specific intelligences. d. There is ongoing debate about whether intelligence is a single overall ability or many separate abilities.

ANSWER: d 136. Dr. Ron believes that there is one overall intelligence that applies across all tasks and situations. Dr. Ron supports the notion of _____ intelligence(s). a. emotional b. general c. multiple d. specific ANSWER: b 137. Charles Spearman is to _____ as Louis Thurstone is to _____. a. emotional intelligence; multiple intelligences b. general intelligence; specific intelligences c. multiple intelligences; emotional intelligence d. specific intelligences; general intelligence ANSWER: b 138. An example supporting the notion of specific intelligences is a(n): a. third-grader who scores quite low on an IQ test. .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice b. eighth-grader who performs poorly across all her school subjects. c. fifth-grader who scores rather high on an IQ test. d. seventh-grader who performs poorly in reading but excels in math.

ANSWER: d 139. An example supporting the notion of general intelligence is a(n): a. eighth-grader who is excelling in certain classes but struggling terribly in others. b. second-grader who scores quite low on an IQ test but demonstrates high math ability. c. seventh-grader who shows a strong positive correlation among all her various mental abilities. d. fourth-grader who performs poorly in math but excels in reading and writing.

ANSWER: c 140. The hierarchical model of intelligence suggests that: a. there are numerous specific intelligences, each of which is considered a part of a single general intelligence. b. there is only a single factor g of general mental ability that applies across all tasks and situations. c. the ability to sense and manage emotions in oneself and others is critical in facilitating thinking. d. there is a need to acknowledge more real-world kinds of intelligence such as practical intelligence.

ANSWER: a 141. All are versions of the hierarchical model of intelligence EXCEPT: a. Cattell–Horn–Carroll (CHC) theory of intelligence. b. Carroll's three-stratum theory. c. Cattell's fluid and crystallized intelligence. d. Spearman's general intelligence factor g.

ANSWER: d 142. Cattell argued that general intelligence is made up of which two primary specific intelligences? a. 10 broad abilities and 70 narrow abilities b. general intelligence (g) and specific intelligences (s) c. fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence d. big s and little s ANSWER: c 143. According to James Cattell, _____ intelligence(s) is the ability to solve new problems, whereas _____ intelligence(s) is stored knowledge. a. fluid; crystallized b. emotional; multiple c. general; specific d. practical; logico-kinesthetic ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 144. Which is the BEST example of crystallized intelligence being used? a. answering trivia questions b. learning to ride a bicycle c. solving a new problem d. remembering to set your alarm ANSWER: a 145. Which example requires the use of fluid intelligence? a. making your bed b. solving a new problem c. answering trivia questions d. taking a psychology test ANSWER: b 146. Your dog has fleas. You've never before encountered this situation and feel a sense of urgency to address it. According to Cattell's model of intelligence, you must rely on your _____ to solve this problem. a. crystallized intelligence b. emotional intelligence c. fluid intelligence d. multiple intelligences ANSWER: c 147. In a game of trivia with your friends, you surprise yourself with how many questions you get correct.

According to Cattell's model of intelligence, you have a higher amount of _____ intelligence than you had realized. a. fluid b. crystallized c. emotional d. existential ANSWER: b 148. According to John Carroll's three-stratum theory of intelligence: a. there are three distinct intelligences that include practical intelligence, academic intelligence, and emotional intelligence. b. there is a strong positive correlation among all mental abilities like reading, writing, and math. c. there is a single general intelligence that contains 10 broad abilities with over 70 more narrow abilities. d. overall intelligence (g) contains some broad specific intelligences (big s) that contain much more specific intelligences (little s).

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 149. According to Howard Gardner's multiple intelligences approach: a. there are distinct intelligences that are separate and should not be viewed as subsumed under overall intelligence. b. there is a single general intelligence that contains 10 broad abilities with over 70 more narrow abilities. c. overall intelligence (g) contains some broad specific intelligences (big s) that contain much more specific intelligences (little s). d. emotional intelligence is a distinct intelligence that is critical to managing emotions and facilitating thinking.

ANSWER: a 150. According to Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences, _____ intelligence relates to academic success, whereas _____ intelligence relates more to nonacademic ability. a. bodily–kinesthetic; linguistic b. logico-mathematical; naturalistic c. linguistic; logico-mathematical d. musical; existential ANSWER: b 151. An example of bodily–kinesthetic intelligence is a(n): a. audience member appreciating the grace of a ballerina. b. songwriter formatting her next song. c. author creating a fantasy universe. d. golfer executing a perfect drive.

ANSWER: d 152. According to Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences, authors of best-selling books would MOST likely excel at _____ intelligence, while effective social workers would MOST likely excel at _____ intelligence. a. linguistic; interpersonal b. naturalistic; intrapersonal c. existential; logico-mathematical d. spatial; existential ANSWER: a 153. According to Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences, a professional ballerina would MOST likely excel at _____ intelligence, while a world-renowned philosopher would MOST likely excel at _____ intelligence. a. spatial; linguistic b. bodily–kinesthetic; existential c. existential; logico-mathematical d. linguistic; intrapersonal ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice 154. Vincenzo and Ravenna are siblings who spent their whole lives helping tend their family's vineyard. At college, they struggled in the classroom and found it difficult to pass their biology, chemistry, and food science classes. However, at home, they had a special knack for understanding the growth patterns of the grape vines, appraising soil conditions, and knowing when to harvest the grapes. According to Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences, Vincenzo and Ravenna would MOST likely be described as having high _____ intelligence. a. linguistic b. existential c. general d. naturalistic ANSWER: d 155. Academic intelligence is to book smarts as _____ intelligence is to street smarts. a. abstract b. naturalistic c. practical d. existential ANSWER: c 156. Tyr performs in orchestra ensembles all around the world. They have many collaborators in both Western and non-Western parts of the world. Which type of intelligence might BEST explain Tyr's success in their professional life? a. existential b. cultural c. linguistic d. intrapersonal ANSWER: b 157. The ability to sense and manage your own feelings as well as those of others is called _____ intelligence. a. interpersonal b. cultural c. intrapersonal d. emotional ANSWER: d 158. Emotional intelligence is defined as a person's ability to: a. interact with others in any environment. b. sense and manage one's own emotions as well as those of others. c. gain knowledge and learn from experience. d. excel at one mental ability while struggling in another.

ANSWER: b 159. Which statement about emotional intelligence is true? .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice a. It is a relatively recent development in psychology, but is receiving lots of attention. b. Research suggests it is correlated with personal relationships but not job performance. c. Former advocates of emotional intelligence now recognize that it is an overrated factor. d. It is one of the more traditional types of intelligence proposed by researchers.

ANSWER: a 160. You are going out of town in a couple of days and need someone to water your plants. You approach your friend after class to ask her if she could, but, as you walk up to her, it seems like she's not feeling well. You ask her if she's OK, and she tells you she's been really busy and not sleeping well. You let her know you're available to help and decide to ask another friend to water your plants. Your _____ intelligence is what MOST likely helped you achieve the best outcome in this situation. a. existential b. intrapersonal c. emotional d. general ANSWER: c 161. Which statement about the influence of nature versus nurture on intelligence is true? a. Environmental variables have no effect on intelligence levels between identical twins. b. Genes and environment interact in complex ways across a person's life span. c. Twin studies show that environment plays a much greater role than genetics. d. Regardless of age, a person's intelligence will match that of his or her parents.

ANSWER: b 162. Research results from twin and adoption studies have found that intelligence levels between _____ tend to be the MOST correlated. a. nontwin siblings raised together b. identical twins raised apart c. nonidentical twins raised together d. identical twins raised together ANSWER: d 163. Research results from twin and adoption studies have found that intelligence levels between _____ tend to be the LEAST correlated. a. nontwin siblings raised apart b. identical twins raised apart c. nonidentical twins raised together d. nontwin siblings raised together ANSWER: a 164. Research results from twin and adoption studies have found that intelligence levels between _____ tend to be MORE correlated than between _____. .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice a. nontwin siblings raised apart; nontwin siblings raised together b. dizygotic twins raised together; nontwin siblings raised together c. monozygotic twins raised apart; monozygotic twins raised together d. dizygotic twins raised together; monozygotic twins raised together ANSWER: b 165. Jacob and Jackson are nontwin siblings raised together. Statistically speaking, their intelligence levels would be MORE correlated than: a. Ivy and Cora who are identical twins raised together. b. Gregory and Christalyn who are nontwin siblings raised apart. c. Bradley and Braden who are identical twins raised apart. d. John and Rachael who are nonidentical twins raised together.

ANSWER: b 166. Consistent with research findings, which person's intelligence is LEAST likely to follow predictions based on genetic inheritance? a. a 3-year-old girl b. an 18-year-old man c. a 25-year-old adult d. a 40-year-old woman ANSWER: a 167. Which statement about intelligence tests professionally administered by psychologists is true? a. They are most often administered as proctored paper-and-pencil tests at a formal testing site. b. They are face-to-face interactions, and the psychologist is trained to administer, score, and interpret them. c. Nowadays, intelligence tests are most often administered online by psychologists through the Internet. d. They are administered by psychologists mostly in the form of written tests that take less than 30 minutes.

ANSWER: b 168. A(n) _____ is an assessment technique used by psychologists to numerically measure intelligence. a. achievement test b. intelligence quotient c. normal curve d. intelligence test ANSWER: d 169. The intelligence quotient (IQ) is a(n): a. number indicating the percentage of a person's intelligence that is inherited. b. graph showing a population's test scores divided into subgroups. .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice c. single number used to represent a person's overall intelligence. d. assessment technique used by psychologists to numerically measure intelligence.

ANSWER: c 170. When intelligence scores of the population are graphed, the resulting graph is in the form of a _____ curve. a. normal bell b. bimodal c. negatively skewed d. positively skewed ANSWER: a 171. A student takes an intelligence test and scores approximately two standard deviations below the mean.

Which score would be MOST representative of this student's IQ? a. 53 b. 72 c. 100 d. 124 ANSWER: b 172. After taking an intelligence test, Tyrone is informed that he has an IQ of 145. It can be concluded that Tyrone's IQ score is: a. three standard deviations above average. b. slightly above average. c. in the average range. d. two standard deviations below average.

ANSWER: a 173. A school psychologist administers an intelligence test to fifth-graders at all elementary schools across the state. Statistically speaking, which would be the LEAST likely result? a. Ninety-five percent of the children score within one standard deviation from the mean. b. The average IQ score among the children is around 100. c. Most of the children score within 15 points of average IQ. d. A very small percentage of children score above 130.

ANSWER: a 174. Which statement about the Wechsler Intelligence Tests is true? a. It is a single test for clients across the lifespan ages 2 to 85. b. The hardest items are harder and the easiest items are easier on the Wechsler than on the StanfordBinet. c. There are three separate versions of the test to cover nearly the entire life span. d. The test produces only a single full-scale IQ score that reflects what Spearman called g. .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 175. Part of the Wechsler Intelligence Tests assesses verbal comprehension. Items on this subtest would test your ability to: a. quickly scan and accurately make decisions about simple visual information. b. solve visual problems such as designs and puzzles. c. hold, manipulate, and retrieve information from short-term memory. d. understand and use words and sentences.

ANSWER: d 176. Part of the Wechsler Intelligence Tests assesses processing speed. Items on this subtest would test your ability to: a. quickly scan and accurately make decisions about simple visual information. b. solve visual problems such as designs and puzzles. c. hold, manipulate, and retrieve information from short-term memory. d. understand and use words and sentences.

ANSWER: a 177. Robyn recently took the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS), and they remember certain questions that seemed to test their ability to hold, manipulate, and retrieve information. These questions were designed to assess Robyn's: a. verbal comprehension. b. working memory. c. emotional intelligence. d. perceptual reasoning.

ANSWER: b 178. At school, Tao took the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC). When Tao got home, he told his grandma about all the different kinds of puzzles that he had to work on and how cool he thought it was. These types of questions were MOST likely designed to assess Tao's: a. verbal comprehension. b. emotional intelligence. c. processing speed. d. perceptual reasoning.

ANSWER: d 179. A(n) _____ is an assessment technique used by psychologists to numerically measure the level of learning a person has attained. a. educational evaluation b. intelligence test c. hierarchical challenge d. achievement test .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 180. A(n) _____ measures what a person has accomplished, whereas a(n) _____ measures what a person can accomplish. a. achievement test; capacity evaluation b. intelligence test; achievement test c. achievement test; intelligence test d. educational evaluation; capacity test ANSWER: c 181. Kahla is a junior in high school who scores very high on an intelligence test. Statistically speaking, it can be expected that Kahla will MOST likely: a. also perform well on an achievement test. b. perform poorly on an achievement test. c. show inconsistent results on a series of achievement tests. d. lag behind in achievement but catch up over time.

ANSWER: a 182. Which statement about giftedness is false? a. It is commonly defined as an IQ score two standard deviations above the mean. b. It is officially defined as significantly above-average intelligence. c. The designation is obtained by only the top 2 to 3% of students. d. Gifted students will inevitably succeed at school and in their careers.

ANSWER: d 183. Taryn takes the Stanford–Binet test at her elementary school and scores a 142 on it. She is subsequently placed into a program with just a few other kids at her school where they participate in activities that are cognitively engaging and challenging. It is MOST likely that Taryn is now part of a program for children with: a. specific learning disorders. b. giftedness. c. intellectual disability. d. specific intelligence.

ANSWER: b 184. Which statement about specific learning disorders is true? a. Many people can overcome specific learning disabilities and achieve success. b. There is one national cutoff for achievement "significantly below age expectations." c. A diagnosis of a specific learning disability is not correlated with other diagnoses. d. Educational resources to help children with learning disorders are almost nonexistent.

ANSWER: a 185. A specific learning disorder is defined as a mental disorder: .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice a. characterized by significantly impaired day-to-day functioning. b. based on significantly below-average intelligence. c. in which achievement in reading, writing, or math is significantly below age expectations. d. where one's perceptual reasoning and processing speed is significantly impaired.

ANSWER: c 186. Lana is an eighth-grader who has been diagnosed with a specific learning disorder. It is likely that Lana will: a. have less of a likelihood of being diagnosed with other disorders such as ADHD, depression, and anxiety. b. be given access to supplemental educational resources and accommodations intended to help maximize her achievement. c. recover on her own without requiring any special accommodations from her school. d. continue to encounter long-term hardship regardless of whether or not she has access to special educational resources and accommodations.

ANSWER: b 187. An intellectual disability is defined as a mental disorder: a. in which achievement in reading, writing, or math is significantly below age expectations. b. where one's spatial ability and perceptual reasoning are significantly impaired. c. characterized by extreme emotional distress and inability to interact with others. d. based on significantly below-average intelligence and impaired daily functioning.

ANSWER: d 188. _____ is to consistency as _____ is to accuracy. a. Reliability; validity b. Validity; reliability c. Test bias; stereotype threat d. Stereotype threat; test bias ANSWER: a 189. An example of reliability is: a. taking a quiz that measures marital satisfaction. b. retaking a personality test and getting the same results. c. taking two different intelligence tests on the same day. d. getting different scores on the same intelligence test.

ANSWER: b 190. Shilo takes a personality test titled "What Dessert Are You?" As she takes the test, she notices some items that she could answer honestly in different ways. So, she takes the test numerous times, answering with different combinations of honest responses. Each time, the results reveal that she is a "fruit sorbet." She reads the description and finds it to be a surprisingly accurate portrayal of her personality. In this situation, the test .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice appears to be: a. low in reliability but high in validity. b. high in reliability but low in validity. c. high in both reliability and validity. d. low in both reliability and validity.

ANSWER: c 191. _____ is the tendency of a test to produce scores in a consistently inaccurate way for members of particular groups. a. Validity b. Test bias c. Stereotype threat d. Confirmation bias ANSWER: b 192. Test bias is defined as the: a. tendency for differences in test scores within a group to be larger than between groups. b. expectation that others may judge you according to generalizations about a group to which you belong. c. extent to which an assessment technique provides consistent, replicable results. d. tendency of a test to produce scores in a consistently inaccurate way for members of particular groups.

ANSWER: d 193. What kinds of items would culture-fair intelligence tests MOST likely include? a. mazes, puzzles, and visual memory games b. sentence completion tasks c. multiple choice with verbal analogies d. reading comprehension tasks ANSWER: a 194. What do culture-fair intelligence tests seek to achieve? a. introduce a positive self-fulfilling prophecy among minority groups b. eliminate the impact associated with stereotype threat c. reduce or remove any cultural factors that may lead to test bias d. increase the reliability of traditional intelligence tests ANSWER: c 195. Nathan is taking an intelligence test at school and is surprised to find that there are no words involved.

Even the instructions are given with hand gestures, and he had to respond by pointing to answers or arranging items in particular ways. It is likely that Nathan is taking: a. the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test. .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice b. the UNIT, which is a culture-fair intelligence test. c. a version of the Wechsler Intelligence Tests. d. the Black Intelligence Test of Cultural Homogeneity.

ANSWER: b 196. Why do more recently created culture-fair intelligence tests minimize the use of words? a. Puzzles are the best way to measure multiple intelligences. b. They aim to measure general intelligence as opposed to specific intelligences. c. Words are the primary source of test bias. d. Visual memory games tap into perceptual reasoning.

ANSWER: c 197. Trevor is a 16-year-old boy who grew up in a poor neighborhood, living with his single mom who worked three part-time jobs and still barely managed to pay the bills. On an intelligence test, Trevor struggles with understanding many of the words that he is asked to use in a sentence. Afterward, he asks his English teacher about some of these words, and it turns out they relate to types of food, vacations, and luxury items he had never heard of. It is MOST likely that _____ played a role in Trevor's poor performance on this test. a. durability bias b. stereotype threat c. low test reliability d. test bias ANSWER: d 198. Which statement about stereotype threat is true? a. Stereotype threat occurs only when the prejudgment is actually accurate. b. Stereotypes are common misconceptions and have no real impact on test scores. c. Research has continued to demonstrate how real stereotype threat is. d. It has an effect on racial minorities but not on other demographic groups.

ANSWER: c 199. Sam receives an e-mail invitation to interview for a job at an engineering firm. When she arrives, she is struck by the very male-dominated culture. Sam begins to wonder whether it was originally assumed that she was a male candidate. Prior to taking a Wechsler intelligence test that they administer to all job candidates, Sam overhears someone whisper, "No woman has ever scored high on this test here before." Although Sam is highly intelligent and wanted the job, what is the MOST likely explanation for her poor test performance that day? a. Sam experienced the negative impact of stereotype threat. b. The intelligence test was low in reliability and validity. c. The test was culturally biased against women. d. Sam was bothered by the amount of test bias.

ANSWER: a 200. Statistically speaking, men tend to slightly but consistently outperform women on tests of: .

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Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice a. interpersonal communication. b. writing and grammar. c. reading comprehension. d. visual or spatial orientation.

ANSWER: d 201. Statistically speaking, women tend to slightly but consistently outperform men on tests of: a. verbal abilities. b. mathematics. c. spatial ability. d. visual orientation.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 8 - Essay 1. Define the terms "motivation" and "emotion" and briefly discuss how the two are related. Then imagine yourself in the midst of a busy final exam week and describe how your motivation to succeed and your emotions may influence your behaviors. Also discuss how your motivations and emotions during this stressful time may influence each other.

ANSWER: Motivation is a desire that stimulates and steers behavior to act with purpose toward a goal. Emotion refers to all aspects of feeling, which include changes to the body, behavior, and consciousness.

Both terms have the same root, "mot," which means "to move." In other words, motivation and emotion both move and stir you to action. During final exam week, examples of motivation may include being stimulated to get a good grade, so you get up earlier or stay up later than usual to study, you study harder and put forth more effort, and you study differently. While studying you may begin to feel sleepy, which may motivate you to drink something caffeinated, get up and move around, or perhaps take a power nap. Emotionally, you may feel stressed and nervous, happy and excited about finishing the semester, or perhaps even sad because you enjoyed your classes so much that you do not want them to end. Your emotions such as feeling scared and nervous may cause you to study harder to finish on a strong note. On the other hand, exerting a great deal of effort in your studies may cause you to feel even more anxious about your performance, or, on a more positive note, confident about potentially doing well.

2. Discuss the difference between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation. Provide an example of each in your personal life. Additionally, describe a situation where a behavior either began as intrinsically motivated and later became extrinsically motivated, or vice versa. Based on research findings in this area, what would be the expected impact of this change on performance and enjoyment regarding the behavior?

ANSWER: Intrinsic motivation is the desire to perform a behavior because the behavior itself is rewarding and brings pleasure. Extrinsic motivation is the desire to perform a behavior in order to acquire some kind of external reward. Research has found that intrinsic and extrinsic motivations produce different patterns of behavior. Intrinsic motivation is linked to higher self-esteem and well-being, and less anxiety and depression over time. If a behavior begins as intrinsically motivated and becomes extrinsically motivated, research has found that the behavior is likely to decrease in quality, frequency, and duration. On the other hand, an extrinsically motivated behavior can become intrinsically motivated, resulting in that behavior having a better chance of being sustained over the long term. Examples can relate to involvement in various activities, hobbies, sports, relationships, organizations, social groups, chores, family traditions, career choices, etc.

3. Compare and contrast the three classic theories of motivation. Describe an example of motivated behavior, and explain the behavior in the context of each theory.

ANSWER: Instinct theory of motivation states that humans, like all animals, are motivated primarily by biologically innate instincts like eating and reproducing. Drive reduction theory suggests that unmet biological drives cause unpleasant sensations that motivate you to satisfy those drives and regain homeostasis. Arousal theory states that humans are motivated to obtain and maintain an optimal level of general excitement or attentiveness. Examples will vary, but one would be seeking a romantic partner. Instinct theory would attest that all humans are driven to find social contact to reduce predation and to potentially reproduce. Drive reduction would say that not having a romantic partner would cause unpleasant sensations like a sense of isolation and unmet sexual needs, and those unpleasant feelings would drive seeking a partner. Arousal theory would explain that having a partner would provide an optimum level of arousal, and that seeking one would be a moderately exciting activity. .

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Chapter 8 - Essay 4. Describe the two motivation systems—promotion versus prevention—that comprise the regulatory focus theory. Now imagine a class that has to shift from in-person meetings to an online format. How would a student who is promotion-oriented tend to respond to these changes, and how would a prevention-oriented student tend to respond?

ANSWER: Promotion motivation is focused on advancing, accomplishing, acquiring, maximizing, and getting more of something positive. Prevention motivation is about being careful, staying vigilant, avoiding risk, preventing loss, and holding on to what you have. According to the regulatory focus theory, different people have different tendencies toward promotion and prevention, and the key is achieving regulatory fit between their lifestyle and motivation tendencies. If a class were to have to shift from meeting in-person to an online format, a promotion-oriented student might see the change as an opportunity to stay in bed longer and develop a new way to learn. A prevention-oriented student, on the other hand, might worry that they can't learn in that format or they won't be able to focus with the other distractions they face at home.

5. Explain the difference between a mastery goal and a performance goal; provide a real-life example of each.

Also, describe the ways in which mastery goals are said to produce better outcomes than performance goals.

ANSWER: Mastery goals involve actually doing something well, whereas performance goals involve merely demonstrating (often for others) that you can do something well. For example, a student taking a French class with a mastery goal would seek to actually learn the language and to be able to speak it meaningfully and perhaps even travel to French-speaking nations for immersion in the culture. By contrast, a student in the same French class with a performance goal would be motivated to study just enough to perform well on exams and earn a good grade. Research shows that compared to performance goals, mastery goals tend to result in deeper understanding, more persistent interest, greater self-improvement, and higher self-esteem.

6. Apply Maslow's hierarchy of needs to your own life. Describe and provide examples of ways in which you have satisfied certain needs. Also discuss the needs that you are currently working on satisfying, as well as the ones you have yet to fulfill. Be sure to mention all six needs.

ANSWER: Maslow's hierarchy of needs outlines six needs that arguably must be fulfilled in a certain sequence, from the most basic physiological needs to the highest level of self-transcendence needs.

Physiological needs are the most primary needs and include hunger, thirst, sleep, and sex, which, according to Maslow, must be met before any others. Safety needs come next and include security and stability in daily life; you must feel protected and free of danger before proceeding to the next need, of belongingness and love. This need involves feeling connected and having a sense of togetherness with other people. Next, esteem needs involve feeling positive about yourself and having a good sense of self-worth and confidence; these can be met through activities and accomplishments that make you feel proud. Self-actualization needs involve being your authentic self and fully becoming the person you have the potential to become. Engaging in activities that produce flow and having peak experiences are related to achieving self-actualization. Selftranscendence needs involve connecting to something beyond the self; these can be met in a variety of ways such as through spiritual activity, dedication to a social or political cause of deep importance to oneself, or selfless service to others in need.

7. Describe the concept of flow and how it relates to peak experiences. Describe an example of experiencing flow.

ANSWER: Flow is often described as being "in the zone." It occurs when you are intrinsically motivated and .

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Chapter 8 - Essay performing a behavior with complete immersion and enjoyment. The activity must be one in which you are quite skilled and also optimally challenged, as opposed to feeling overwhelmed or bored. It is during these periods of flow when you become fully absorbed in the activity, lose track of time and space, and possibly have a peak experience. According to Maslow, a peak experience is a moment of self-actualization that produces strong feelings of personal fulfillment. Examples could relate to a range of experiences including those pertaining to sports, art, hobbies, learning, competitions, social interactions, and excelling at work.

8. Describe how culture, age, and gender may influence motivation—be sure to provide a research-based example for each.

ANSWER: Esteem needs and levels of optimism for the future tend to differ between individuals from collectivist and individualistic cultures. For example, individuals from collectivist cultures tend to focus on a more accurate view of the self and their future, whereas individuals from individualistic cultures desire a positive view of self and many have unrealistic optimism. Individuals from individualistic cultures tend to have a self-enhancing strategy where they work harder on tasks they know they can do well. This contrasts with individuals from collectivist cultures who use a selfimproving strategy and tend to work hardest on tasks that they know they don't do well; they also persist more when given feedback that their performance is unsatisfactory. Women tend to be more motivated by goals that emphasize group work and providing aid to others, whereas men tend to be motivated by things that enhance their personal identity and power. Younger adults often act in ways that provide gains and greatly value the outcome, whereas older adults tend to act in ways that prevent loss and appreciate the process.

9. Define the terms "obese" and "overweight" as defined by body mass index (BMI). Consider the case of Rasheed, who has a BMI of 32. Based on research, what physical conditions and social consequences would Rasheed be at heightened risk of facing?

ANSWER: Body mass index (BMI) is a number calculated from a person's height and weight that indicates body fat and overall fitness level. A BMI below 18.5 is considered underweight, and between 18.5 and 24.9 is considered normal/healthy weight. Overweight is defined as a BMI between 25 and 29.9, while obese is defined as a BMI that is 30 or higher. Rasheed, with a BMI of 32, is categorized as obese. As such, he is at greater risk for a number of physical health problems (e.g., diabetes, cardiovascular disease, cancer, hypertension, arthritis, high cholesterol, gallbladder disease, and stroke) and mental health problems (e.g., depression, anxiety, and dementia). Socially, Rasheed is at risk of encountering the stigma commonly associated with overweight and obese persons. Even in the workplace, Rasheed is more likely than his normal-weight colleagues to experience discrimination when applying for jobs, and he is also more likely to be viewed and rated negatively on performance evaluations.

10. Consider the case of Gracie and Avie who are identical twins, Olivia and Sophie who are nonidentical twins, and Elizabeth and Taryn who are second cousins. Based on findings from twin and family studies, what differences in BMI correlation might we expect to find between the three pairs? Discuss the biological and genetic influences on eating and weight that might relate to these differences.

ANSWER: Twin and family studies reveal that genes play a significant role in BMI. Roughly half or more of the variability in one's BMI is due to genetic rather than environmental factors. In the case of identical twins, Gracie and Avie, the correlation between their BMI is expected to be around .75, which is significantly higher than the expected BMI correlation between nonidentical twins, Olivia .

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Chapter 8 - Essay and Sophie (around .30). Both pairs of twins would have a much higher BMI correlation than what we would expect to find between distant cousins, Elizabeth and Taryn (around .05). The more genes shared between two people, the higher the BMI correlation between them. Genes play an influential role in one's hunger-related hormones (leptin and ghrelin, which affect how one experiences hunger and fullness), set point of weight, and metabolic rate.

11. Critically discuss the role that socioeconomic status plays in obesity rates.

ANSWER: Socioeconomic status influences one's ability to both afford and access healthy food such as fresh fruit, vegetables, nuts, and fish. The price of healthy food is higher than the cost of unhealthy foods (e.g., sugary, processed, and junk foods), and this has been found to correlate with higher BMI in children from lower-income families. Additionally, the limited access to healthy foods (i.e., food deserts) is more common in low-income areas, compared to more affluent areas where there is likely to be a higher concentration of supermarkets, high-end specialty stores, and markets providing access to healthy foods. For low-income families, lack of reliable transportation may also present problems in commuting to areas where healthy food is readily available. Consequently, people living in food deserts tend to have higher BMIs. 12. Your friend Leslie has been struggling with weight problems and asks you for advice. What are three research-supported individual strategies for promoting healthy eating that you might suggest to her?

ANSWER: There are a number of individual strategies for promoting healthy eating related to portion size, shopping habits, lifestyle changes, and professional help. For starters, you could suggest to Leslie that she be more mindful in managing her portion size, letting her know that oftentimes people are not aware of how much they actually eat. When eating out, she should pay attention to how much is served on her plate and she should not automatically feel pressured to "clean her plate." Likewise, at home, she should carefully portion out her serving sizes and also pay attention to the size of the bowls, plates, and cups she tends to use, recognizing that larger containers often lead to greater food consumption. Another strategy is shopping smart and purchasing healthy food items rather than unhealthy ones. With more healthy items on her shelves at home, Leslie will likely make healthier choices when she gets cravings. You could also suggest that Leslie focus on making lifestyle changes that integrate healthy eating, social support, and exercise into her daily routine. Such changes would be more sustainable and have longer impact than quick-fix, crash diets and shortterm exercise programs. Finally, you might consider recommending professional help (e.g., therapies based on behavioral change, goal setting, and changing thought patterns around food, weight, and exercise) if Leslie continues to struggle with her weight.

13. Imagine you are a consultant contracted by the state government to develop a large-scale plan to promote healthy eating. Discuss at least four social strategies for promoting healthy eating that you should include in your plan.

ANSWER: There are many social strategies for promoting healthy eating related to food labeling practices, food advertising, tax policies on food, community-wide interventions, and educational programs.

Requiring more prominent and realistic food labeling is one way to make consumers more aware of the nutrition information and serving sizes of packaged foods as well as foods served in restaurants.

This information may help consumers make healthier eating choices. Limiting advertising of unhealthy foods is another social strategy that may be effective in changing eating behaviors, especially among children. Taxing unhealthy foods and offering tax incentives to supermarket chains to open stores in food deserts could alter the supply and demand of unhealthy versus healthy .

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Chapter 8 - Essay foods. Increasing community-wide interventions such as exercise and recreation classes, workshops on healthy food and cooking, and health education campaigns could also be an effective social strategy. Last, healthy eating should be promoted with greater emphasis at schools and workplaces through educational programs, incentive programs, and opportunities for physical activity.

14. Compare and contrast the James–Lange, Cannon–Bard, Schacter–Singer, and cognitive appraisal theories of emotion. Apply each of the theories to the scenario where you are working on an important paper for class when suddenly the power flickers and your computer freezes.

ANSWER: The James–Lange theory of emotion states that you experience emotion first by noticing bodily changes and then interpreting them as particular feelings. The Cannon–Bard theory also emphasizes the role of bodily changes in the experience of emotions, but states that these bodily changes and feelings occur simultaneously. The Schachter–Singer theory states that there are two factors involved in your experience of emotion—your bodily reaction followed by your cognitive labeling of it. Finally, the cognitive appraisal theory deemphasizes the role of bodily reactions altogether, focusing instead on the cognitions or thoughts you have about a stimulus, which are what determine your emotional experience. In the given scenario of your computer suddenly freezing up, the James– Lange theory might suggest that you immediately notice your increase in heart rate, which automatically triggers a sense of alarm and fear. The Cannon–Bard theory would suggest that your heart leaps and you sense fear at the same time. The Schachter–Singer theory suggests that after you gasp for air and your heart is racing, you cognitively label these bodily reactions as fear and sadness over losing your work. The cognitive appraisal theory suggests that how you interpret the situation will determine your emotional response—you may think about how you had only just started writing, so not too much has been lost, and therefore you don't experience much emotion beyond surprise; you may remember that you had recently saved your document right before your computer froze, so there is no reason to be upset; or you may be running up against a tight deadline, hadn't saved anything for the past hour, and now you've lost your work and will fail the course, so you feel sadness and disappointment.

15. "Fake it 'til you make it." Discuss what is meant by this common saying as it relates to the facial feedback theory of emotion. What is a situation where you have either witnessed this phenomenon, or can imagine a useful application of it?

ANSWER: The facial feedback theory of emotion states that your brain can influence your emotions by monitoring and sensing your facial expressions. In other words, your facial expressions are not the result of emotion, but rather cause you to feel emotion. The common saying, "Fake it 'til you make it" is supported by research on forcing your face into a genuine smile position in order to lift your mood and improve your mental state. Examples of this phenomenon could be drawn from the times when you have experienced pain or stress in the workplace, school, during sports, in social situations, etc.

16. Describe the five strategies for emotion regulation and provide a personal example for each of the three strategies that you tend to use most often.

ANSWER: Emotion regulation is your ability to manage and exert some control over the type, intensity, duration, and expression of your own emotions. The five strategies for emotion regulation are situation selection, situation modification, attentional deployment, cognitive change, and response modulation. Situation selection involves being discerning in your choice of situations to put yourself in, gravitating toward the ones that will likely cause positive emotions while avoiding ones that will .

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Chapter 8 - Essay likely cause negative emotions (e.g., screening someone's phone calls, continually postponing a meeting, or politely declining a date). Situation modification is about intentionally structuring a situation in such a way that you can minimize your experience of negative emotions (e.g., scheduling a meeting during a time when you know the other person has another meeting immediately afterward so as to ensure your meeting does not drag on indefinitely). Attentional deployment involves being in a potentially bad situation but distracting yourself from the negative aspects and concentrating instead on more positive aspects (e.g., daydreaming about something else, or choosing to sit outdoors during a lunch meeting because you can at least people-watch, which is something you enjoy doing). Cognitive change involves rethinking and reshaping a situation into one that is more bearable and perhaps even positive (e.g., having dinner with a colleague whom you really don't like, but reminding yourself that it is a good strategic move for business purposes).

Response modulation is about suppressing your emotions about something (e.g., holding in your anger when someone says something insulting to you, or holding back tears when you've received sad news, but you don't want to be seen crying in public).

17. Discuss at least three different techniques that psychologists have found to be effective for most people in increasing positive emotions. Also discuss the documented benefits of maximizing positive emotions in your everyday life.

ANSWER: Through research, psychologists have found at least four different techniques that work for most people to increase positive emotions. These include: performing acts of kindness, writing letters of gratitude, counting your blessings, and visualizing a bright future. More specifically, doing nice things for others and the idea of "paying it forward" generally makes people feel happier themselves. Writing letters of gratitude heightens one's positive emotions as they express appreciation for things that made them feel grateful. Furthermore, people who count their blessings tend to appreciate what they have, rather than focusing on what they don't have. Last, people who visualize a bright future tend to experience happiness in the present. Positive emotions have been found to improve long-term quality of life. Research studies have found positive emotions to be correlated with better physical health and wellness, greater creativity, and more helpful connections to people around you.

18. Discuss the importance of understanding display rules when interacting with people of different ethnic groups, age groups, and gender-based groups. Describe a situation where you have either noticed a display rule different from one you are accustomed to, or suddenly realized you were inadvertently in violation of a display rule.

ANSWER: Display rules are norms within a group about the acceptable verbal and nonverbal expression of emotion. These rules can vary greatly across different groups along ethnic, age, and gender lines, and more. As humans, we begin to notice, acquire, and incorporate display rules in infancy, and this continues throughout life. Display rules have a strong influence on how individuals regulate and express their emotions, how they make attributions about their emotions, and in turn how they fit into the particular group in question. Examples can relate to display rules across a range of crosscultural experiences, interactions with groups of people representing a different age group or generation, as well as typical (perhaps stereotypical) gender differences in emotional experience.

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 1. Motivation is BEST defined as: a. the ability to manage the type, intensity, length, and expression of one's emotions. b. all aspects of feeling, including changes to the body, behavior, and consciousness. c. a steadiness or balance in a person's bodily state. d. a desire that stimulates you to act with purpose toward a goal.

ANSWER: d 2. _____ is BEST described as a desire that stimulates and steers behavior. a. Emotion b. Motivation c. An incentive d. A drive reduction ANSWER: b 3. Zain calls time-out during the pick-up basketball game they're playing in so they can tie their shoe. Zain's desire to tie their shoe is an example of: a. motivation. b. an instinct. c. arousal. d. the Yerkes–Dodson law.

ANSWER: a 4. _____ is the desire to perform a behavior because the behavior itself is rewarding. a. Intrinsic motivation b. Homeostasis c. Extrinsic motivation d. Response modulation ANSWER: a 5. _____ is the desire to perform a behavior to obtain an external reward. a. Intrinsic motivation b. Homeostasis c. Extrinsic motivation d. Self-determination ANSWER: c 6. A person who does something because they simply enjoy doing it is an example of: a. regulatory fit. b. intrinsic motivation. c. prevention motivation. d. extrinsic motivation. .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 7. A person who does something because they enjoy what it brings or delivers as an outcome is an example of: a. homeostasis. b. intrinsic motivation. c. self-determination. d. extrinsic motivation.

ANSWER: d 8. The scenario that BEST illustrates intrinsic motivation is: a. Peyton, who studies law because she loves the challenge. b. Regan, who joins drama club because she wants to be with her friends. c. Karim, who learns a programming language because he wants to be more competitive in the job market. d. Ahmed, who plays baseball because he received an athletic scholarship.

ANSWER: a 9. The scenario that BEST illustrates extrinsic motivation is: a. Keyara, who house-sits because she loves peace and quiet. b. Em, who volunteers in a retirement community because she connects with the residents. c. Cate, who serves as a scuba instructor because it pays really well. d. Shayna, who paints because she loves creating art.

ANSWER: c 10. Which comment BEST reflects extrinsic motivation? a. I'm doing this because I enjoy it. b. I love how reading stimulates my mind. c. I get such a thrill from working with people. d. I love how much I get paid for my job.

ANSWER: d 11. Which comment BEST reflects intrinsic motivation? a. The money I get for doing this makes it worthwhile. b. I love how much I get praised for my work. c. I get so much pleasure from creating new things. d. I hope this internship will lead to a job offer.

ANSWER: c 12. Kalin works hard woodworking because he knows he can sell the figurines he makes at the upcoming craft fair. Uzair spends a lot of time woodworking because of his sheer passion for crafting interesting art. Kalin is demonstrating _____, whereas Uzair is demonstrating _____. a. drive reduction; self-determination .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. extrinsic motivation; intrinsic motivation c. self-determination; drive reduction d. intrinsic motivation; extrinsic motivation ANSWER: b 13. _____ is an external reward. a. An incentive b. Homeostasis c. An instinct d. Esteem ANSWER: a 14. An incentive is BEST defined as a(n): a. motivation that is biologically innate. b. object or situation outside yourself that you are motivated to acquire. c. desire to perform a behavior because the behavior itself is rewarding. d. moment of self-actualization that produces strong feelings of fulfillment.

ANSWER: b 15. An example of an incentive is: a. increased happiness. b. recognition from your boss. c. decreased hunger pains. d. pleasure from eating dessert.

ANSWER: b 16. Yoshi works for a cable company and goes door-to-door selling plans, which is not an activity they enjoy.

Nevertheless, Yoshi plans to continue selling for the next few years because the pay is good and it offers a flexible schedule. In this scenario, the pay is considered an: a. instinct. b. intrinsic motivator. c. incentive. d. esteem need.

ANSWER: c 17. Which statement about intrinsic and extrinsic motivation is true? a. Extrinsic motivation is linked to higher self-esteem and well-being. b. Intrinsic motivation often undermines extrinsic motivation. c. Behavior on an intrinsically motivated task may decrease with extrinsic motivation. d. Intrinsic motivation is linked to higher rates of depression and anxiety over time.

ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 18. Someone who is doing something to gain an incentive outside of themselves is said to be _____ motivated. a. extrinsically b. intrinsically c. instinctively d. homeostatically ANSWER: a 19. A motivation that is biologically innate is called a(n): a. settling point. b. extrinsic motivator. c. incentive. d. instinct.

ANSWER: d 20. _____ theory states that animals are driven primarily by biologically innate motivations. a. Drive reduction b. Instinct c. Self-determination d. Arousal ANSWER: b 21. An example of an instinct that is common across species is: a. climbing. b. bathing. c. reproducing. d. cooking.

ANSWER: c 22. In a lecture about healthy eating around the world, Dr. Daoud asserts her belief about the primary reason that humans engage in food intake is because they are driven primarily by motivations that are biologically innate. Dr. Daoud's position is MOST aligned with the _____ theory. a. instinct b. extrinsic motivation c. arousal d. achievement goal ANSWER: a 23. _____ theory states that unmet biological urges and needs cause unpleasant sensations that motivate you to meet those needs. a. Drive reduction b. Instinct .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. Self-determination d. Arousal ANSWER: a 24. Drive reduction theory suggests that you are motivated mostly by a need to: a. obtain an optimal level of arousal. b. fulfill basic instincts. c. maintain homeostasis. d. achieve regulatory fit.

ANSWER: c 25. Homeostasis refers to a(n): a. desire that stimulates and steers behavior. b. steadiness or balance in your bodily state. c. external object that you are motivated to acquire. d. stimulus that causes emotion.

ANSWER: b 26. _____ is defined as a steadiness or balance in your bodily state. a. Homeostasis b. Incentive c. Instinct d. Arousal ANSWER: a 27. An example of the drive reduction theory is someone eating: a. for pleasure. b. to try new foods. c. as a way to connect socially. d. to reduce hunger.

ANSWER: d 28. According to the drive reduction theory, your behavior of drinking water is MOST motivated by a: a. desire to keep your skin hydrated. b. drive to perform better athletically. c. need to be perceived as healthy. d. desire to satisfy thirst.

ANSWER: d 29. Drive reduction theory does not explain curiosity because curiosity: a. is simple and can be biologically explained. .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. can't be intrinsically motivating. c. can't be extrinsically motivating. d. doesn't stem from a biological need.

ANSWER: d 30. Dr. Hsu's lecture is focused on drive reduction theory, so she would MOST likely to discuss how people's behaviors are primarily motivated by a desire to: a. obtain and maintain an optimal level of arousal. b. fulfill biological instincts such as eating and reproduction. c. satisfy biological needs in order to reach and maintain homeostasis. d. not only achieve but master certain kinds of goals.

ANSWER: c 31. _____ theory states that you are motivated to obtain an optimal level of general excitement or attentiveness. a. Drive reduction b. Instinct c. Self-determination d. Arousal ANSWER: d 32. Arousal is BEST defined as a: a. biologically innate motivation. b. general excitement or attentiveness. c. steadiness in your bodily state. d. desire that stimulates and steers behavior.

ANSWER: b 33. Which statement about arousal and arousal theory is true? a. People tend to perform best at extreme levels of arousal. b. Like drive reduction theory, it does not account for the motivating role of curiosity. c. The focus is on achieving a steadiness or balance in your biological state. d. The optimal level of arousal differs across people and situations.

ANSWER: d 34. The Yerkes–Dodson law is the finding that: a. people are mostly motivated by instinct and unmet biological drives. b. humans have the desire to perform behaviors to obtain external rewards. c. your best performance occurs when you are moderately aroused. d. the strongest and healthiest motivations are those that come from within yourself.

ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 35. According to the Yerkes–Dodson law, _____ levels of arousal are generally the most beneficial for achieving high performance. a. minimal b. moderate c. maximum d. either minimal or maximum ANSWER: b 36. Which theory of motivation accounts for the role of curiosity in motivating human behavior? a. arousal b. drive reduction c. instinct d. cognitive appraisal ANSWER: a 37. Donnie has been preparing for months to take a standardized test for college admissions. On the day of the test, she feels well-prepared but also quite nervous. According to the Yerkes–Dodson law, which level of arousal would be MOST beneficial for Donnie's test performance? a. minimal b. moderate c. maximum d. alternating high and low ANSWER: b 38. Reid is trying out to be the kicker for a football team. At practice throughout the past week, Reid made just about every kick. At tryouts, however, he gets so nervous that he misses every kick and doesn't get a starting spot on the team. According to the Yerkes–Dodson law, what BEST explains Reid's poor performance at tryouts? a. He became overly aroused and lost focus. b. His anxiety caused him to be underaroused. c. His overarousal caused him to lose interest so he hardly tried. d. He was optimally aroused, but his lack of ability showed through.

ANSWER: a 39. According to the Yerkes–Dodson law, which diver would MOST likely earn the best score during a diving competition? a. Ethan, who is underaroused but confident in their skills b. Kamyra, who is so aroused that it is impacting their focus c. Lukea, who is moderately aroused and wants to put forth effort d. Sal, who starts off underaroused but gets overly aroused as they ready their dive ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 40. _____ theory states that the strongest and healthiest motivations are those that are autonomous and come from within yourself. a. Drive reduction b. Instinct c. Self-determination d. Arousal ANSWER: c 41. Research on self-determination theory shows that _____ is linked to higher performance in terms of quantity and quality. a. autonomous motivation b. moderate levels of arousal c. extrinsic motivation d. achievement of homeostasis ANSWER: a 42. According to research on self-determination theory, which scenario would MOST likely yield the healthiest motivations and best performance results? a. Aspen, who works as a server rather than in retail because it pays more money b. Sabrin, who studies medicine in college because they know it will make their family proud c. Wenjin, who volunteers on a mission trip because their friends at church all do d. Gabe, who works on their car because they find it naturally rewarding ANSWER: d 43. According to the self-determination theory, a student who is _____ would be MOST likely to learn the material covered in their courses in a deep and long-lasting. a. given high incentives b. achieving homeostasis c. extrinsically motivated d. autonomously motivated ANSWER: d 44. Dr. Meiss is a prominent researcher. Even though Dr. Meiss wants to start a new line of work, she feels obligated to continue the work she is currently doing because she has grant support for her work. Dr. AbuSaleh, on the other hand, is also a prominent researcher, but his work has not achieved funding. Nevertheless, Dr. Abu-Saleh is passionate about his research topics and continues it because he's naturally interested in it.

Which statement would be MOST supported by research on self-determination theory? a. Dr. Meiss's extrinsic motivation will result in higher levels of psychological wellness. b. Dr. Abu-Saleh's autonomous motivation will result in higher levels of psychological wellness. c. Dr. Meiss and Dr. Abu-Saleh are both autonomously motivated and will have the same outcomes. d. Dr. Meiss and Dr. Abu-Saleh are motivated in different ways, but this has no impact on wellness.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 45. According to research findings on the self-determination theory, a person who is trying to live a healthier lifestyle would MOST likely make more significant improvements that last longer if they are making the changes because: a. they personally want to do so. b. of doctor's orders. c. they want to fit in with others. d. of increasing health care costs.

ANSWER: a 46. According to self-determination theory, a person is MOST likely to feel strongly motivated if the source of motivation feels: a. autonomous. b. controlling. c. instinctual. d. arousing.

ANSWER: a 47. _____ theory states that promotion and prevention are two primary motivation systems that affect different people in different ways. a. Achievement goal b. Drive reduction c. Arousal d. Regulatory focus ANSWER: d 48. _____ motivation is about accomplishing, getting more, and advancing. _____ motivation, on the other hand, is about avoiding risk and holding on to what you have. a. Intrinsic; Extrinsic b. Extrinsic; Intrinsic c. Promotion; Prevention d. Prevention; Promotion ANSWER: c 49. When confronted by change at work, a person motivated by promotion would MOST likely say: a. "What if this doesn't work?" b. "This might improve our processes!" c. "We should have a back-up plan." d. "Last time we tried this, it failed!"

ANSWER: b 50. When going to a professional sports game, a person motivated by prevention would MOST likely say: .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice a. "This will be such a great bonding experience for everyone." b. "I've always wanted to see this team play live." c. "Let's be sure to leave by the 3rd quarter so we don't hit traffic." d. "I can't wait to eat a hot dog and have a soda in the stands."

ANSWER: c 51. Consistent with the regulatory focus theory, which person would be MOST likely to participate in a raffle? a. Youssra, who is prevention-oriented b. Jenna, who is promotion-oriented c. Hudil, who finds raffles naturally rewarding d. Gustavo, who is trying to achieve homeostasis ANSWER: b 52. Linda tends to be heavily motivated by prevention, whereas Hank tends to be extremely motivated by promotion. Consistent with research findings about regulatory focus theory, you might expect that: a. Linda will be vulnerable to anxiety disorders, while Hank will be vulnerable to depression. b. Hank will be vulnerable to anxiety disorders, while Linda will be vulnerable to depression. c. Linda and Hank are both equally vulnerable to anxiety disorders and depression because they fall on extreme ends of the motivation spectrum. d. Linda and Hank balance each other on the motivation spectrum, and so long as they are together neither will be vulnerable to anxiety or depression.

ANSWER: a 53. Which antismoking message would be MOST effective with people who are prevention-oriented? a. Enjoy a healthier lifestyle without cigarettes. b. No smoke, no tar, better breath, whiter teeth. c. Add years to your life with smoke-free lungs. d. Smoking will make you ugly and smell bad.

ANSWER: d 54. Which message on a healthy eating campaign ad would be MOST effective with people who are promotionoriented? a. Healthy eating is the best way to prevent diabetes and heart disease. b. Boost your energy and productivity with some healthy food. c. Don't let yourself feel down, make healthy choice about what to eat. d. Choose your food wisely to stop those holiday pounds from adding up.

ANSWER: b 55. _____ theory states that when you are motivated to do something, the desire to do it well rather than the desire to simply do it produces better outcomes. a. Achievement goal b. Drive reduction .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. Arousal d. Regulatory focus ANSWER: a 56. _____ goals are about demonstrating that you can do something well and showing others that you can achieve it, whereas _____ goals are about doing something well and actually achieving it. a. Performance; mastery b. Prevention; promotion c. Mastery; performance d. Incremental; fixed ANSWER: a 57. According to achievement goal theory, a person who is motivated by _____ goals will likely sustain better overall outcomes than a person who is motivated by _____ goals. a. fixed; incremental b. mastery; performance c. extrinsic; intrinsic d. prevention; promotion ANSWER: b 58. Which is the BEST example of motivation by a mastery goal? a. Myla, who is learning Spanish so that she can have a better connection with her roommate from Mexico b. Ivy, who is studying Spanish conjugations so she can pass her Spanish class c. Zaira, who is taking a Spanish class to fulfill the international requirement for their undergraduate degree program d. Makayla, who is working hard to ace their Spanish class so they can graduate summa cum laude ANSWER: a 59. Divjot and Imane are both high-performing students and are earning high grades in their chemistry class.

Divjot is motivated by performance goals, whereas Imane is motivated by mastery goals. It is MOST likely that: a. Divjot will learn chemistry through rote memorization of chemical processes. b. Divjot will develop a deeper understanding of chemistry than Imane. c. Imane will understand chemistry more deeply than Divjot. d. Imane will be more likely to cheat on exams than Divjot.

ANSWER: c 60. In terms of sustaining better overall outcomes, mastery goals in achievement goal theory are MOST similar to: a. prevention motivation in regulatory focus theory. b. autonomous motivation in self-determination theory. c. maximum arousal levels in the Yerkes–Dodson law. .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice d. extrinsically controlled motivation in regulatory focus theory.

ANSWER: b 61. According to research related to achievement goal theory, people who see their own abilities as changeable tend to have more of a(n) _____ mindset, whereas people who see their abilities as fixed tend to have more of a(n) _____ mindset. a. extrinsic; intrinsic b. fixed; incremental c. prevention; promotion d. mastery; performance ANSWER: d 62. According to achievement goal theory, people with a _____ mindset, see their abilities as _____. a. fixed; instincts b. fixed; incremental c. growth; entities d. growth; incremental ANSWER: d 63. Abraham Maslow created an explanation of motivation known as the: a. self-determination theory. b. self-transcendence of needs. c. achievement goal theory. d. hierarchy of needs.

ANSWER: d 64. The hierarchy of needs is an explanation of motivation that: a. asserts the dominance of mastery over performance goals. b. focuses on many motivations working in a particular order. c. distinguishes between promotion and prevention motivation. d. emphasizes the importance of autonomous motivation.

ANSWER: b 65. Which statement about Maslow's hierarchy of needs is true? a. According to Maslow, our fulfillment of basic needs in a certain order happens automatically. b. Maslow's theory originally included six basic needs, which was later reduced to five. c. Even though Maslow's theory is presented as a hierarchy, he argued that we oftentimes skip the first level. d. Once a person reaches self-transcendence, it is no longer necessary for that person to focus on basic needs.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 66. What is the correct order of Maslow's hierarchy of needs, starting with the most basic level after physiological needs? a. Safety, Esteem, Belongingness and Love, Self-Actualization, Self-Transcendence b. Safety, Belongingness and Love, Esteem, Self-Transcendence, Self-Actualization c. Belongingness and Love, Safety, Esteem, Self-Transcendence, Self-Actualization d. Safety, Belongingness and Love, Esteem, Self-Actualization, Self-Transcendence ANSWER: d 67. According to Maslow's theory, physiological needs include: a. security and stability. b. food, water, sleep, and sex. c. feelings of self-worth and confidence. d. connections with other people.

ANSWER: b 68. According to Maslow's theory, which needs must be met BEFORE connections with other people can be a priority? a. esteem and self-actualization b. physiological and safety c. physiological and self-actualization d. safety and esteem ANSWER: b 69. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, hunger, thirst, sleep, and sex represent _____ needs. a. esteem b. safety c. physiological d. belongingness and love ANSWER: c 70. The person who BEST illustrates a pressing physiological need is: a. Nila, who needs to drink after playing basketball. b. Carley, who is moving away from home for school. c. Christian, who is having difficulty keeping up with their schoolwork. d. Kiera, who is locked out of their dorm room.

ANSWER: a 71. Destinie has been studying all day and forgot to eat. At this point, they are MOST likely driven primarily by _____ needs. a. safety b. self-transcendence .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. belongingness and love d. physiological ANSWER: d 72. According to Maslow's theory, safety needs include: a. security and stability in your daily life. b. food, water, sleep, and sex. c. feelings of self-worth and confidence. d. connections with other people.

ANSWER: a 73. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, security and stability in daily life represent _____ needs. a. belongingness and love b. esteem c. safety d. self-actualization ANSWER: c 74. Which scenario would be MOST likely to threaten the safety needs of persons involved? a. rejection from a friend b. not deciding on a career c. solitary confinement d. hazardous weather conditions ANSWER: d 75. Consistent with Maslow's hierarchy of needs, a person with a safety need is BEST exemplified by: a. Karas, who failed their chemistry exam. b. E'lysha, who was evicted from their apartment. c. Paige, who went hiking without any water. d. Colton, who does not feel loved by their family.

ANSWER: b 76. According to Abraham Maslow, a person whose home has recently been destroyed by a hurricane would MOST likely be driven primarily by _____ needs. a. safety b. self-transcendence c. esteem d. self-actualization ANSWER: a 77. According to Maslow's theory, belongingness and love needs include: .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice a. security and stability in your daily life. b. food, water, sleep, and sex. c. feelings of self-worth and confidence. d. social bonds and connections with other people.

ANSWER: d 78. According to Maslow's theory, social bonds and connections with other people represent _____ needs. a. self-transcendence b. esteem c. safety d. belongingness and love ANSWER: d 79. Solitary confinement can be an effective form of punishment because it deprives a person of their basic need for: a. safety. b. belongingness and love. c. esteem. d. self-transcendence.

ANSWER: b 80. A person would MOST likely experience a heightened need for belongingness and love after: a. moving away from their friends. b. struggling in their biology course work. c. only sleeping a few hours the past two nights. d. being disqualified during a gymnastics competition.

ANSWER: a 81. According to Maslow's theory, esteem needs include: a. security and stability in your daily life. b. food, water, sleep, and sex. c. positive feelings of self-worth and confidence. d. social bonds and connections with other people.

ANSWER: c 82. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, feeling positive about yourself and having a good sense of selfworth represent _____ needs. a. esteem b. safety c. self-actualization d. belongingness and love .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 83. Keaura is putting in extra time studying biology and chemistry over the summer so they can score well on the medical school entrance exam. According to Maslow's theory, Keaura is working on _____ needs. a. self-actualization b. physiological c. esteem d. self-transcendence ANSWER: c 84. An example of satisfying your esteem needs is: a. forging new friendships in a new city. b. being recognized as the most valuable employee. c. seeking shelter when a tornado siren sounds. d. becoming totally absorbed in an activity.

ANSWER: b 85. According to Maslow's theory, self-actualization is BEST defined as: a. having a good balance of promotion and prevention motivation. b. a feeling of connection with the universe and a sense of unity with all beings within it. c. fully becoming the person you have the potential and personal desire to become. d. the ability to be motivated by mastery goals despite society's focus on performance goals.

ANSWER: c 86. A(n) _____ is a blissful moment of self-actualization that produces a strong feeling of personal fulfillment. a. optimal arousal b. achievement peak c. self-transcendent episode d. peak experience ANSWER: d 87. Burak is talking about a time when he was in a moment of self-actualization and experienced a peak experience. During this peak experience, it is MOST likely that he: a. had to continually refocus his attention. b. lost track of time and space. c. was extrinsically motivated. d. felt overwhelmed by the activity.

ANSWER: b 88. Performing a behavior with complete immersion and enjoyment is known as: a. regulatory fit. .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. flow. c. extrinsic motivation. d. a settling point.

ANSWER: b 89. Flow is BEST defined as: a. performing a behavior with total absorption and enjoyment. b. a period of religious or mystical transformation. c. a unique connection between you and the universe. d. feeling positive about yourself and your abilities.

ANSWER: a 90. Mina is a professional modern dancer who thoroughly enjoys dancing on their own or in front of an audience. Whenever Mina dances at a show, they feel like they are completely immersed in the experience.

Mina's feeling while dancing can be BEST described as: a. prevention motivation. b. homeostasis. c. self-transcendence. d. flow.

ANSWER: d 91. Flow would MOST likely be experienced by: a. Zafar, who is extremely nervous. b. Pedro, who is distracted. c. Manny, who is extrinsically motivated. d. Min-Jun, who is optimally challenged.

ANSWER: d 92. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, _____ needs involve needs beyond the self that arise only when all of the other needs are met. a. self-actualization b. self-transcendence c. regulatory focus d. self-determination ANSWER: b 93. According to Abraham Maslow, _____ needs involve connections with other people, whereas _____ needs involve connections with the larger universe and all beings in it. a. self-actualization; self-transcendence b. belongingness and love; self-transcendence c. safety; peak experience .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice d. self-transcendence; belongingness and love ANSWER: b 94. Meeting self-transcendence needs is BEST reflected by: a. making enough money to provide for yourself. b. being in a profession that makes you feel needed. c. dedicating your life to selflessly serving others. d. losing yourself while listening to a song.

ANSWER: d 95. Well into her seventies now, Anna Grace has led a rather fulfilling life and now spends most of her time selflessly engaging in volunteer work to help others in need. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, Anna Grace would BEST be described as meeting _____ needs. a. belongingness and love b. self-actualization c. spiritual d. self-transcendence ANSWER: d 96. Based on research, which statement about motivation and ethnicity is true? a. Maslow's hierarchy of needs applies consistently and in the same way across all cultures. b. Compared to people from Eastern cultures, people from Western cultures tend to be unrealistically optimistic about their own futures. c. People from Eastern cultures tend to focus more on maintaining self-esteem, whereas people from Western cultures tend to focus more on self-improvement. d. In the face of failure, people from individualistic cultures tend to persist much longer than people from collectivist cultures.

ANSWER: b 97. Hiroshi is from Japan, which values collectivism, whereas Daniel is from the United States, which values individualism. Consistent with research findings on motivation and ethnicity, when Hiroshi and Daniel are presented with a challenging task and given periodic feedback that they are failing, what can we MOST likely expect as a result? a. Hiroshi will tend to persist much longer on the task than will Daniel. b. Daniel will tend to persist much longer on the task than will Hiroshi. c. There will be no difference between Hiroshi and Daniel in their persistence on the task. d. Daniel will initially perform better on the task than Hiroshi, but Hiroshi will later outperform Daniel.

ANSWER: a 98. Statistically, which subgroup(s) tend(s) to be more motivated by goals that focus on relationships rather than on the self? a. older people from individualistic cultures .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. younger people from individualistic cultures c. both women and people from collectivist cultures d. both men and people from collectivist cultures ANSWER: c 99. According to research findings on motivation and age, younger adults tend to be more _____ while older adults tend to be more _____. a. prevention-oriented; promotion-oriented b. promotion-oriented; prevention-oriented c. focused on mastery goals; focused on performance goals d. self-transcendent; self-actualized ANSWER: b 100. Statistically, which person would tend to be the MOST motivated to avoid loss? a. a teenager b. a young adult c. a middle-age adult d. an older adult ANSWER: d 101. Billy and his grandfather decide to join a local fishermen's club that goes fishing every weekend.

Consistent with research findings on motivation and age, which statement is MOST likely to be true? a. Billy is motivated by the possible outcome of catching lots of fish, whereas his grandfather is more interested in the process of fishing itself and the fun of fishing. b. Billy is motivated by the process of fishing itself and the fun of it, whereas his grandfather is more interested in the possible outcome of catching lots of fish. c. Billy is more likely than his grandfather to persist and continue trying in the event they don't catch any fish. d. Billy is more likely than his grandfather to work together and help others to catch fish.

ANSWER: a 102. _____ is a number calculated from a person's height and weight that indicates body fat and overall fitness level. a. Set point b. Body mass index c. Flow index d. Body metabolic rate ANSWER: b 103. Which factor is NOT one that directly affects your body mass index? a. the number of calories you consume b. your feelings about your weight .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. the number of calories you burn d. your height ANSWER: b 104. Brit goes to her doctor's office for an annual physical exam. The nurses begin by calculating Brit's body mass index (BMI). In order to do so, they will need to measure Brit's: a. heart rate and height. b. weight and heart rate. c. height and weight. d. blood pressure and height.

ANSWER: c 105. Which body mass index (BMI) would be considered normal/healthy weight? a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30 ANSWER: b 106. A body mass index (BMI) between 18.5 and 24.9 is considered: a. underweight. b. normal/healthy weight. c. overweight. d. obesity.

ANSWER: b 107. Riz pays a visit to his doctor's office where the nurses determine that his BMI is 19.8. This puts him in the _____ category. a. underweight b. normal/healthy weight c. overweight d. obesity ANSWER: b 108. A body mass index (BMI) below 18.5 is considered: a. underweight. b. normal/healthy weight. c. overweight. d. obesity.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 109. A person whose BMI is 15 would be considered: a. underweight. b. normal/healthy weight. c. overweight. d. obese.

ANSWER: a 110. Marcus is concerned about how his clothes are fitting and thinks going on a diet would help. When he brings this up to his coach, his coach expresses concern that Marcus is already very thin. Marcus decides to consult his doctor who tells him that his BMI is 18. It turns out that Marcus falls into the category of: a. underweight. b. normal/healthy weight. c. overweight. d. obesity.

ANSWER: a 111. A body mass index (BMI) between 25 and 29.9 is considered: a. underweight. b. normal/healthy weight. c. overweight. d. obesity.

ANSWER: c 112. A person with a BMI of 29 would be considered _____, whereas a person with a BMI of 33 would be considered _____. a. underweight; normal/healthy weight b. normal/healthy weight; overweight c. overweight; obese d. obese; overweight ANSWER: c 113. A body mass index (BMI) of _____ would be considered overweight. a. 17 b. 22 c. 27 d. 32 ANSWER: c 114. A body mass index (BMI) of 30 or higher is considered: a. underweight. b. normal/healthy weight. .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. overweight. d. obesity.

ANSWER: d 115. A body mass index (BMI) _____ falls into the category of obesity. a. below 18.5 b. between 18.5 and 24.9 c. between 25 and 29.9 d. of 30 or higher ANSWER: d 116. Cash is 5 feet 10 inches tall and weighs 226 pounds. Their BMI is 32.4, which puts them in the _____ category. a. underweight b. normal/healthy weight c. overweight d. obese ANSWER: d 117. The Health at Every Size movement: a. asserts that BMI sufficiently summarizes a person's health status. b. is very well supported and has received little to no criticism. c. views health as defined by healthy behaviors even if they don't result in thinness. d. has produced mostly negative outcomes related to body image and self-esteem.

ANSWER: c 118. Which person's viewpoint aligns BEST with the goals of the Health at Every Size movement? a. Charlene, who exercises every day so they can wear a size 4 b. Benita, who never eats ice cream because it may make her gain weight c. Jaxson, who eats vegetables because they're filling and nutritious d. Waymond, who runs on the weekend to keep his weight under 180 lbs.

ANSWER: c 119. Compared to people of normal weight, people who are overweight or obese are at greater risk for all of these conditions EXCEPT: a. higher medical costs. b. increased metabolic rate. c. dementia as older adults. d. mental health problems.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 120. Which statement about the consequences of overweight or obese is true? a. People who are overweight or obese are at greater risk for a long list of medical problems. b. There is no relationship between obesity and mental health problems. c. Medical costs tend to be higher among people of healthy weight than people who are overweight or obese. d. Research has found that people in the United States have generally positive attitudes toward people who are overweight.

ANSWER: a 121. Hector would be MOST likely to experience more physical and mental health problems, as well as be stigmatized as "weak-willed" and receive negative performance evaluations in the workplace, if he: a. is underweight. b. is of normal/healthy weight. c. is obese. d. used to be underweight/overweight but is now normal/healthy weight.

ANSWER: c 122. _____ is a hormone that signals feelings of fullness, whereas _____ is a hormone that signals feelings of hunger. a. Ghrelin; leptin b. Adrenaline; ghrelin c. Leptin; adrenaline d. Leptin; ghrelin ANSWER: d 123. Around mealtime, ghrelin sends a message to the brain telling it to _____, and then leptin sends a message telling it to _____. a. stop eating; start eating b. start eating; stop eating c. cool down before eating; warm up to digest d. warm up to digest; cool down before eating ANSWER: b 124. After studying all night, Miles is extremely hungry and goes to the all-you-can-eat cafeteria on his campus.

Miles fills his tray and begins to eat the food rapidly. However, he begins to feel full after his third bowl of cereal and doesn't feel hungry enough to eat the yogurt he got. What BEST explains Miles's sudden decrease in appetite? a. Leptin was released and received by his brain. b. His brain released large amounts of ghrelin. c. Miles must be overweight. d. Miles must be underweight.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 125. The message, "Start eating because your stomach is empty" is conveyed by the hormone: a. cortisol. b. leptin. c. insulin. d. ghrelin.

ANSWER: d 126. In lab experiments, researchers have found that injecting extra _____ into mice caused them to eat less. a. ghrelin b. adrenaline c. leptin d. cortisol ANSWER: c 127. Your _____ is the particular weight to which your body tends to return after increases or decreases. a. metabolism b. BMI c. peak experience d. set point ANSWER: d 128. Your set point is defined as the: a. number calculated from your height and weight that indicates overall fitness level. b. point at which your body efficiently burns the most energy. c. particular weight to which your body tends to return after increases or decreases. d. label you assign to your bodily reactions that determines your mental reaction.

ANSWER: c 129. Set point is to nature as _____ is to nurture. a. ethnicity b. settling point c. genetics d. homeostasis ANSWER: b 130. How does set point differ from settling point? a. Set point suggests that environmental factors play a role in weight gain. b. Settling point suggests that environmental factors play a role in weight gain. c. Settling point is only applicable in times when food is not readily available. d. Set point is only applicable in times when food is not readily available. .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 131. Even though we live in a time of food abundance, the _____ suggests that we have inherited the propensity to overeat and build up fat whenever possible in order to safeguard against famine. a. thrifty gene hypothesis b. regulatory focus theory c. hierarchy of needs d. Cannon–Bard theory ANSWER: a 132. The thrifty gene hypothesis explains why we, as humans, have a natural tendency to: a. ration our food portion sizes. b. stock up on calories. c. limit our exercise levels. d. monitor the calories we consume.

ANSWER: b 133. The heritability of being overweight is estimated at: a. less than 10%. b. 10 to 40%. c. 40 to 70%. d. 70 to 100%.

ANSWER: c 134. Which pair of individuals would have the highest BMI correlation? a. parent and offspring b. nontwin siblings c. nonidentical twins d. identical twins ANSWER: d 135. Which pair of individuals would have the lowest BMI correlation? a. parent and offspring b. nontwin siblings c. nonidentical twins d. identical twins ANSWER: a 136. Aiyana and Aponi are identical twin sisters raised apart. Kele and Chayton are brothers born 2 years apart but raised together. Based on adoption and twin studies, what can we expect to be true? a. Kele and Chayton have a much higher BMI correlation than Aiyana and Aponi. .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. Aiyana and Aponi have a much higher BMI correlation than Kele and Chayton. c. There is no way to predict how these situations would impact BMI. d. There would be no difference in BMI between the two pairs.

ANSWER: b 137. Metabolism is defined as: a. a steadiness or balance in your bodily state. b. the rate at which your body burns energy. c. a motivation that is biologically innate. d. a desire that stimulates and steers behavior.

ANSWER: b 138. _____ is defined as the rate at which your body burns energy. a. Flow b. Drive reduction c. Metabolism d. Homeostasis ANSWER: c 139. Sean and Calian eat similar amounts of foods with similar nutritional quality. They exercise at similar levels, and yet Sean stays quite fit while Calian gains weight easily and has trouble losing it. One likely explanation is a difference in _____ between the two men. a. metabolic rate b. drive reduction c. homeostasis d. ghrelin ANSWER: a 140. Which statement about sex differences, food consumption, and body weight is true? a. Women tend to have faster resting metabolism than men. b. On average, women tend to eat more than men. c. Generally, men care more about eating healthy than women. d. Both men and women change their eating habits depending on who they are with.

ANSWER: d 141. Statistically speaking, which person would be MOST likely to be concerned about looking gluttonous while eating? a. Haley, who is a child b. Kevin, who is an older adult c. Nadine, who is a woman d. Frank, who is a young man .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 142. Individuals experiencing moderate levels of stress tend to eat _____ food and make food choices that are _____ healthy than they do in nonstressed situations. a. less; less b. less; more c. more; more d. more; less ANSWER: a 143. Claudia is experiencing a high amount of stress due to major changes at work and having to juggle a lot of family obligations. According to research findings about stress and eating, it is MOST likely that Claudia's stress levels will influence: a. only how much she eats. b. only what she eats. c. both how much and what she eats. d. neither how much nor what she eats.

ANSWER: c 144. All of these factors are positively correlated with BMI EXCEPT: a. poverty levels. b. price of healthy food. c. access to nutritious food. d. concentration of fast-food restaurants.

ANSWER: c 145. Elijah lives in an area with very few stores and restaurants that offer healthy food options. Even though Elijah can afford healthy food, he has trouble accessing it. Elijah lives in what is BEST described as a(n): a. affluent area. b. fast-food zone. c. food desert. d. built environment.

ANSWER: c 146. Which factor MOST contributes to increased rates of obesity? a. TV watching b. affluence c. exercise opportunities d. taxes on unhealthy foods ANSWER: a 147. Willa and Leslie both like to drink iced tea. At home, Willa uses short, wide glasses for drinking, whereas .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice Leslie uses tall, narrow glasses. Based on research findings regarding portion size, we would expect: a. Willa to typically consume more iced tea than Leslie. b. Leslie to typically consume more iced tea than Willa. c. no difference in average juice consumption between Willa and Leslie. d. to be able to predict any difference in juice consumption between Willa and Leslie.

ANSWER: a 148. Which strategy would be MOST likely to promote healthy eating? a. limiting nutritional information on menus b. making unhealthy food less expensive c. limiting advertising of unhealthy foods d. only considering healthy choices at home ANSWER: c 149. An example of a lifestyle change that promotes health is: a. integrating exercise into your regular schedule. b. going on a crash diet for a few days. c. motivating yourself for an intense short-term exercise program. d. being sure to "clean your plate" so as to not waste food.

ANSWER: a 150. One large-scale social strategy for promoting healthy eating is: a. repealing taxes on unhealthy foods to equalize the market. b. shifting the responsibility for food education from schools to individuals. c. reducing the limits on advertising of unhealthy foods. d. requiring more prominent and realistic food labeling.

ANSWER: d 151. Emotion is BEST defined as: a. a desire that stimulates and prompts you to act with purpose toward a goal. b. one's drive to maintain a certain level of bodily steadiness or balance. c. personal awareness of how the built environment affects your lifestyle. d. all aspects of feeling, including bodily, behavioral, and mental changes.

ANSWER: d 152. _____ refers to all aspects of feeling, including changes to the body, behavior, and consciousness. a. Motivation b. Emotion c. Homeostasis d. Instinct ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 153. Which statement about motivation and emotion is true? a. Both words come from the same root, which means to move. b. Emotion and motivation are separate and unrelated concepts. c. Emotion has to do with feelings that emerge only after behavior. d. Motivation always comes first, so without motivation there is no emotion.

ANSWER: a 154. The BEST example of an emotion is: a. remembering a name. b. feeling envious. c. eating food. d. caring for a pet.

ANSWER: b 155. Clara was by herself late one night and turned her car onto a quiet side street to stop for a moment and check a message on her phone. Suddenly, she was startled by a loud noise behind her. Without even looking to see what caused the noise, Clara's _____ prompted her to quickly step on the gas and drive away. a. homeostasis b. physiological need c. emotion d. prevention motivation ANSWER: c 156. Emotions are ____ experiences. a. only mental b. only physical c. both mental and physical d. neither mental nor physical ANSWER: c 157. The _____ theory of emotion states that you experience emotion by first noticing bodily changes and then interpreting them as particular feelings. a. cognitive appraisal b. Schachter–Singer c. Cannon–Bard d. James–Lange ANSWER: d 158. The James–Lange theory states that you experience emotion: a. by simultaneously becoming aware of bodily changes and feelings. b. by first noticing bodily changes and then interpreting them as particular feelings. .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice c. as a product of both your bodily reaction and your label for it. d. as a result of your thoughts about a specific stimulus or event.

ANSWER: b 159. Emiliano is driving to work when the car immediately in front of him comes to a sudden stop, causing Emiliano to slam on his brakes and swerve in order to avoid a major collision. According to the James–Lange theory, Emiliano would: a. first notice his heart racing, palms sweating, and muscles tensing up, which would then trigger his feeling of fear. b. experience fear simply because he interprets the situation as potentially causing great harm and damage to all persons involved. c. simultaneously experience the changes in heart rate, perspiration, and muscular tension in his body, as well as the conscious experience of fear in his mind. d. experience a feeling of fear only after labeling his physical reactions of increased heart rate, perspiration, and muscular tension as being due to fear.

ANSWER: a 160. The _____ theory of emotion states that you experience emotion by simultaneously becoming aware of bodily changes and feelings. a. cognitive appraisal b. Schachter–Singer c. Cannon–Bard d. James–Lange ANSWER: c 161. The Cannon–Bard theory states that you experience emotion: a. by simultaneously becoming aware of bodily changes and feelings. b. by first noticing bodily changes and then interpreting them as particular feelings. c. as a product of two factors, your bodily reaction and your label for it. d. as a result of your thoughts about a specific stimulus or event.

ANSWER: a 162. When experiencing emotion, the _____ theory states that bodily reactions come first, whereas the _____ theory states that the physical and mental parts happen at the same time. a. facial feedback; cognitive appraisal b. Schachter–Singer; James–Lange c. James–Lange; Cannon–Bard d. Cannon–Bard; Schachter–Singer ANSWER: c 163. Ivanna is driving to work when the car immediately in front of her comes to a sudden stop, causing Ivanna to slam on her brakes and swerve in order to avoid a major collision. According to the Cannon–Bard theory, .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice Ivanna would: a. first notice her heart racing, palms sweating, and muscles tensing up, which would then trigger her feeling of fear. b. experience fear simply because she interprets the situation as potentially causing great harm and damage to all persons involved. c. simultaneously experience the changes in heart rate, perspiration, and muscular tension in her body, as well as the conscious experience of fear in her mind. d. experience a feeling of fear only after labeling her physical reactions of increased heart rate, perspiration, and muscular tension as being due to fear.

ANSWER: c 164. The _____ theory of emotion states that you experience emotion depending on the label you assign to your bodily reaction to a situation. a. cognitive appraisal b. Schachter–Singer c. Cannon–Bard d. James–Lange ANSWER: b 165. The Schachter–Singer theory states that you experience emotion: a. by simultaneously becoming aware of bodily changes and feelings. b. by first noticing bodily changes and then interpreting them as particular feelings. c. as a product of two factors, your bodily reaction and your label for it. d. as a result of your thoughts about a specific stimulus or event.

ANSWER: c 166. The major difference between the two earlier theories of emotion (James–Lange and Cannon–Bard) and the two that came later historically (Schachter–Singer and cognitive appraisal) is that the: a. later two focused on how thinking influences the experience of emotion. b. earlier two deemphasized the role of physical reactions in the experience of emotion. c. later two described emotions as happening automatically. d. earlier two emphasized the role of thought processes in determining feeling.

ANSWER: a 167. Zara is about to perform a dance routine in front of a large crowd when they notice their heart rate increase and their palms getting sweaty. According to the Schachter–Singer theory, Zara might: a. then experience a feeling of nervousness that was automatically triggered by their bodily reactions. b. force themself to smile, which then causes them to experience a feeling of happiness. c. simultaneously experience the conscious experience of nervousness in their mind. d. label their bodily responses as nervousness about the stakes involved in their performance.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 168. The _____ theory of emotion states that you experience emotion depending on how you interpret any given event, stimulus, or circumstance. a. cognitive appraisal b. Schachter–Singer c. Cannon–Bard d. James–Lange ANSWER: a 169. The cognitive appraisal theory states that you experience emotion: a. by simultaneously becoming aware of bodily changes and feelings. b. by first noticing bodily changes and then interpreting them as particular feelings. c. as a product of two factors, your bodily reaction and your label for it. d. as a result of your interpretation of the specific stimulus or event that caused it.

ANSWER: d 170. Herb is really interested in and attracted to Carol, but he has not had any luck when asking her out on a date. According to the cognitive appraisal theory, when Herb finds out a few weeks later that Carol has begun a new romantic relationship with someone else, he: a. notices tears well up in his eyes, which then triggers a feeling of sadness and disappointment. b. experiences a feeling of sadness because he interprets this event as rejection and an assault on his self-esteem. c. labels his bodily response of crying as sadness over not getting the woman of his dreams. d. simultaneously experiences a feeling of sadness and the physical reaction of crying.

ANSWER: b 171. The key difference between the cognitive appraisal theory and other theories of emotion is that it: a. focuses on facial expressions. b. deemphasizes physical reactions. c. introduced the idea of cognitive labeling. d. downplays one's interpretation of events.

ANSWER: b 172. The _____ theory of emotion states that your brain can influence your emotions by monitoring expressions such as smiles, frowns, squints, raised eyebrows, and more. a. Schachter–Singer b. cognitive appraisal c. facial feedback d. Cannon–Bard ANSWER: c 173. The facial feedback theory states that you experience emotion: a. that can be caused by your brain's monitoring of expressions such as a smile or a frown. .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. as a product of two factors, your bodily reaction and your label for it. c. as a result of your interpretation of the specific stimulus or event that caused it. d. by simultaneously becoming aware of bodily changes and feelings.

ANSWER: a 174. According to the facial feedback theory, facial expressions _____ emotions. a. result from b. cause c. occur simultaneously with d. respond to ANSWER: b 175. A proponent of the facial feedback theory would argue that the BEST way for a person can experience disgust is by: a. first noticing a change in their bodily reaction. b. openly exclaiming that they are grossed out. c. interpreting an event as gross and to be avoided. d. squinting their eyes and wrinkling their nose.

ANSWER: d 176. During a cross-country championship race, Coach Tam cheers on her runners at various locations on the 3mile course. Toward the middle of the race, Coach Tam shouts out to her runners, "Chin up and smile!" Even though the runners were physically exhausted and in pain, they admitted afterward that smiling actually helped them feel more positive. Coach Tam's strategy is informed by the: a. cognitive appraisal theory. b. arousal theory. c. facial feedback theory. d. self-determination theory.

ANSWER: c 177. The tendency to identify and perhaps even experience the emotions of others is called: a. gratitude. b. empathy. c. modulation. d. sympathy.

ANSWER: b 178. When shown photos of happy faces, a low-empathy person is likely to _____, and a high-empathy person is likely to_____. a. smile slightly; hold a straight face b. smile slightly; frown slightly c. hold a straight face; frown slightly .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice d. hold a straight face; smile slightly ANSWER: d 179. Based on his classic studies conducted in the early 1970s, Paul Ekman concluded that: a. people from collectivist and individualistic cultures show different emotions. b. there are six basic human emotions that are expressed by people around the world. c. the basic emotions that people show depend greatly on both their age and culture. d. babies show basic emotions, but their expression changes as they age.

ANSWER: b 180. All are considered by Paul Ekman to be a basic human emotion EXCEPT: a. surprise. b. sadness. c. empathy. d. disgust.

ANSWER: c 181. Successful communication of emotions depends on your ability to both express them yourself and _____ them in others. a. overlook b. control c. influence d. recognize ANSWER: d 182. A baby would be MOST likely crawl across the deep end of a visual cliff when: a. their caretaker is standing across from the baby making happy facial expressions. b. the baby sees their caretaker looking fearful and wants to get to them as soon as possible. c. the caretaker is standing behind the baby coaxing and encouraging the baby to crawl across. d. the baby sees their caretaker looking sad because they are far away.

ANSWER: a 183. Much research supporting Ekman's work has found that recognition of basic emotions: a. is better among people with schizophrenia. b. varies significantly depending on age. c. depends largely upon culture. d. is rather universal around the world.

ANSWER: d 184. Based on research findings, we can safely conclude that emoticons: a. have the same meaning in diverse cultures when used in texts and e-mails. .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. should be used carefully when communicating cross-culturally. c. should never be used in surveys, rating systems, and questionnaires. d. are interpreted in the same universal way across cultures.

ANSWER: b 185. Emotion regulation is BEST defined as: a. accurately assessing situations in order to have the appropriate emotional response. b. strengthening the bonds you have with other people by communicating your emotions. c. the ability to manage the type, intensity, length, and expression of one's own emotions. d. monitoring one's facial expressions in order to influence one's own emotions.

ANSWER: c 186. An example of emotion regulation is: a. crying when you hear bad news. b. taking a deep breath instead of yelling. c. panicking because you're running late. d. talking very fast because you're nervous.

ANSWER: b 187. Cienna does not enjoy interacting with their roommate. After a semester of simply putting up with their roommate's stories of drama and woe, Cienna now puts their earbuds in when they expect their roommate to be in and tells their roommate that they're about to study and can't talk. This BEST exemplifies the _____ strategy of emotional regulation. a. attentional deployment b. situation modification c. cognitive change d. response modulation ANSWER: d 188. Iman took an online class and found that they had a lot of trouble concentrating and understanding the material. Now Iman makes sure that every class they take meets in-person. This BEST exemplifies the _____ strategy of emotional regulation. a. cognitive change b. situation selection c. attentional deployment d. response modulation ANSWER: b 189. Azhar is not a fan of baseball but always feels pressured to join his friends when they invite him over to watch the games on television. To make the event more tolerable, Azhar always brings his crochet hooks and focuses on working on the blanket he's making for his dog while sitting with his friends as they cheer on their team. This BEST exemplifies the _____ strategy of emotional regulation. .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice a. situation selection b. situation modification c. attentional deployment d. response modulation ANSWER: c 190. Which popular saying BEST reflects using cognitive change to regulate emotion in a bad situation? a. Keep calm and carry on. b. Every cloud has a silver lining. c. Fake it 'til you make it. d. Suck it up, Buttercup.

ANSWER: b 191. "I know you're really upset, but would you please not make a scene in front of everyone?" This request suggests the use of which emotion regulation strategy? a. cognitive change b. situation modification c. attentional deployment d. response modulation ANSWER: d 192. A friend of yours is extremely frustrated with the feedback she's been getting from her professor on the assignments she's turned in, and she has gotten very close to unleashing her pent-up anger in class. Your friend knows that causing a scene in class would not help, so she asks you for advice on how to manage her negative emotion during class. If you were to propose response modulation as a strategy for emotional regulation, you would MOST likely suggest that she: a. just hold the anger in. b. distract herself during class. c. think about how it could be worse. d. start not attending class.

ANSWER: a 193. Research indicates that among the five emotion regulation strategies, _____ does not work well and may actually worsen a situation, whereas _____ tends to be the most effective overall. a. response modulation; cognitive change b. situation modification; situation selection c. cognitive change; attentional deployment d. attentional deployment; response modulation ANSWER: a 194. Research has found all of these to be benefits of positive emotions EXCEPT: a. increased response modulation. .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice b. long-term physical health. c. creative problem solving. d. better interactions with others.

ANSWER: a 195. Research findings suggest that people who _____ are MOST likely to experience the greatest risk of death from heart disease. a. often express hostility and use negative words in social media posts b. have been smoking regularly for at least a decade c. take medication to control high blood pressure d. regularly writes letters of gratitude to friends and family ANSWER: a 196. Which is NOT a research-supported technique to increase positive emotions? a. visualizing a bright future b. writing letters of gratitude c. focusing on what you don't have d. performing acts of kindness ANSWER: c 197. Norms within a group regarding acceptable verbal and nonverbal emotional expressions are called: a. cognitive appraisals. b. social strategies. c. response modulations. d. display rules.

ANSWER: d 198. Statistically, who is MOST likely to experience the greatest degree of positive emotions? a. Yasmeen, who is 19 years old b. Mohan, who is 29 years old c. Travina, who is 72 years old d. Anjali, who is 97 years old and very near death ANSWER: c 199. Yuko is Japanese, and Elizabeth is American. Statistically, Yuko is more likely than Elizabeth to: a. experience negative consequences from suppression. b. express embarrassment when she is successful at a task. c. attribute her happiness to personal achievements. d. set a life goal of maximizing her happiness.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice 200. Which statement about emotion and gender is true? a. Compared to men, women tend to pick up on others' emotions more accurately. b. Men tend to express their emotions more freely than do women. c. Feelings tend to be of greater intensity and longer duration in men than in women. d. There is very little difference between men and women in their emotional experiences.

ANSWER: a

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Chapter 9 - Essay 1. Define developmental psychology. What is its focus of study, and how has that focus changed over time?

Describe a research question that would fall under the purview of developmental psychology.

ANSWER: Developmental psychology is the study of the physical, mental, and social changes that a person experiences across their entire life. Its analysis is across the life span, meaning it is interested at behavior and mental processes that happen at every age. This emphasis on the entire lifespan differs from the focus that developmental psychology held in the early history of the field, at which time the focus was almost entirely on the period of childhood. Research questions that would fall under the purview of developmental psychology would include studies about how physical features and ability (sensorimotor abilities, reproductive function), cognitive processing (thinking, language, problem solving, decision making, memory), personality (identity, moral reasoning), and social interactions (attachments, friends, relationships) are different between people of different ages (cross-sectionally) and how they change in individual persons over time (longitudinally).

2. Compare and contrast cross-sectional research design with longitudinal research design. List two advantages for each design, then create a research topic that could be studied using either cross-sectional research design or longitudinal research design and decide how the research topic would be set up.

ANSWER: A cross-sectional design is a research design in which people of different ages are compared to each other at the same point in time. By contrast, a longitudinal design is a research design in which the same group of people is compared to itself in different points of time. Two advantages of a crosssectional design are that it is a design that can be done quickly and there is no concern with dropout, since data are collected only once from each participant. Two advantages of a longitudinal design are that it provides higher validity and there is no risk of cohort effects negatively affecting the validity. An example may be how age relates to memory capacity. In a cross-sectional study, a group of one hundred 25-year-old people, a group of one hundred 50-year-old people, and a group of 75-year-old people would be presented with a list of words and then tested with a recall test. In a longitudinal study, the same group of 100 people would be presented with lists and given a recall test at age 25, again at age 50, and finally at age 75.

3. State the three big questions covered in developmental psychology and provide an example of a research topic that would be covered by each.

ANSWER: Developmental psychology focuses on three big questions: (1) the role of nature versus nurture in development, (2) whether development happens in stages or is continuous, and (3) how much of who we are remains stable across development versus how much we may change. The question of nature versus nurture seeks to understand how much of our development is programmed by our genes and how much results from things that happen within our environment. An example of this is that someone may not have any genetic predisposition to develop obesity, but if they are raised in a home where high-fat food is the norm and exercise is not modeled by their parents and peers, they may eventually develop obesity due to an unhealthy lifestyle. A developmental stage that happens rather suddenly is puberty, whereas a decline in memory ability across middle and older adulthood happens gradually, exemplifying differences in stage versus continuous development. The question of stability versus change can be exemplified by an infant who has a slow-to-warm-up temperament and who, in adulthood, continues to have trouble establishing meaningful friendships and intimate relationships versus a person who becomes warmer and more approachable as an adult.

4. Define and differentiate between the three developmental stages that follow human conception. Also explain how monozygotic and dizygotic twins develop. .

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Chapter 9 - Essay ANSWER: A zygote forms during conception when a sperm fertilizes an ovum. The zygote stage lasts about 2 weeks. During this time, the zygote may split into two zygotes, which form monozygotic (identical) twins. If at conception, two eggs are fertilized by two sperm, dizygotic (fraternal) twins will form.

From there the zygote progresses to an embryonic stage, which lasts to about 2 months after fertilization. During this time, the brain, spinal cord, and heart develop, along with the beginnings of facial features and limbs, although it ends the stage at only about 1 inch long and weighing 1 ounce.

During the last 7–8 months and before birth, the organism is considered a fetus. It is during this stage that the most growth occurs, with a length of 20 inches and a weight of 7–8 pounds on average. Organs begin to operate independently, and the organism moves on its own even before birth.

5. Define and describe what a teratogen is. The most studied teratogen is alcohol – describe the most hazardous consequence on prenatal development following excessive alcohol use during pregnancy and describe three physical, psychological, or behavioral features of individuals experiencing this consequence. Provide two other different examples of teratogens. Conclude with three steps that a pregnant woman can take to minimize her exposure to and risk from teratogens.

ANSWER: A teratogen is any substance, chemical, or virus that can harm an embryo or fetus. Excessive alcohol use during pregnancy can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which can be identified by distinct physical features like small size-for-age and facial characteristics (small eyes, thin upper lip, absent philtrum), as well as school-related difficulties and/or increased prevalence of diagnosable mental disorders like ADHD, anxiety, and depression. Other examples of teratogens include other drugs of abuse like nicotine and methamphetamine, as well as environmental pollutants like lead and viruses like Zika. The first step for a woman to minimize her risk of teratogens is education. A pregnant woman should be aware of the risks, consult with her doctor, take steps to eliminate, remove, or minimize her exposure to the teratogen, and do healthy things to combat the impact of teratogens, like take prenatal vitamins and exercise.

6. Newborns are born with reflexive behaviors, some of which are linked to survival instincts. Discuss three reflexes that babies display and explain how each behavior is linked to survival. What happens if a baby does not display the reflexive behavior?

ANSWER: The reflexes that babies are born with include sucking, grasping, stepping, rooting, and the Moro reflex. The sucking and rooting reflexes are both related to eating, and eating leads to survival. The grasping reflex is linked to gratifying interaction between a parent and child, while the Moro reflex occurs in reaction to startling stimuli. These primitive reflexes are quite basic, but they are vital. If there is an absence of these reflexes or if they continue for too long, it could mean that something is wrong, most likely developmental delays or learning challenges.

7. Define and describe the three stages of physical development through which babies predictably progress.

Provide one example of how this progression can be influenced by the environment.

ANSWER: The three stages of physical development are: (1) brain development, (2) sensory development, and (3) motor development. A baby's brain is the first and most exuberant organ to develop, tripling in weight by the age of 3. Synapses increase first in the visual cortex, then in other sensory and the motor cortices, and finally in frontal areas. This development can be influence by the environment – the brains of babies who grow up in an impoverished and/or unenriched environment develop significantly less fully than those of babies raised in an enriched environment. As connections in sensory areas increase, babies become better at perceiving things in their environment like facial .

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Chapter 9 - Essay expressions and speech. After this stage, babies begin to roll, sit up, crawl, stand, cruise, and finally walk.

8. Explain what Piaget meant by the following concepts: schema, assimilation, and accommodation. Provide an example of a child learning about a new animal and the thought process the child would go through.

ANSWER: A schema is a concept or a mental representation that guides the way a person makes sense of new information. When learning new information, a person may use the process of assimilation, which is a classification process that makes sense of new information by sorting it into already existing schemas. If that does not work, then the person will move on to accommodation, which is another type of classification process that makes sense of new information by revising or creating new schemas. For example, let's imagine a 2-year-old boy learns the word for chicken, and he associates it with a picture of a chicken. He now has a schema for a chicken. Later on, his mother takes him for a walk around a lake and he sees a duck. He points to this new bird, and says "Chicken!" The little boy is attempting to assimilate this new bird into his existing schema for a chicken. His mother explains that this new bird is a duck, and she points out all of the new differences. As the little boy listens, he is accommodating, or rather modifying, his existing schema to now include birds that can fly.

9. Define and describe the stages in Piaget's theory of cognitive development. Include the ages at which each stage occurs. Discuss and define the significant challenges that occur during each stage.

ANSWER: The sensorimotor stage occurs between birth and 2 years of age. Babies use sensory experiences to understand and learn about the world. The challenge they must overcome during this stage is object permanence – the ability to realize that an object still exists even when the baby can't see it. Next is the preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 through 7 years of age. This is when children use language and other symbols to communicate, but they are still limited in their mental operations.

The challenges they face are pretend play, theory of mind, and egocentrism. The child will use objects and symbols in their pretend play. Theory of mind is the understanding of the thoughts, feelings, intentions, and other mental activities of oneself and others. Egocentrism is the inability to understand a situation from a point of view other than your own. A child in the preoperational stage will learn to overcome or achieve all of these. The next stage is the concrete operational stage, and a child is in this stage from 7 to 11 years of age. During this stage, children learn to think logically about concrete things, but not abstract things yet. The challenges they learn to overcome are reversibility – which involves an understanding of how certain pairs of mathematical calculations are opposite, and transitive reasoning – which is a way to compare two things by comparing something in the middle. The fourth and final stage occurs from age 12 and on, and this is when an individual learns to think logically about abstract things and ideas. A significant challenge is learning to think hypothetically.

10. Vygotsky believed that social interaction was the primary force behind cognitive development. Comparing Vygotsky's perspective to Piaget's perspective, how did Vygotsky's ideas surrounding cultural influences and peer influences differ from Piaget's ideas? Provide an example of how a teacher might use the principles of these two theories to illustrate the differences.

ANSWER: Piaget believed that biology was the driving force of cognitive development, and Vygotsky felt it was social interaction. He felt children's interactions with older children and adults were the main force for the changes in thinking. He further argued that children's thinking changes because the adults around those children foster the change. He felt children's thinking was pushed by scaffolding .

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Chapter 9 - Essay – which is a process by which a person learns new words, new ideas, and new ways of thinking by interacting with a more advanced person who provides guidance. He also emphasized the idea of the zone of proximal development – which is essentially the range of learning just above what a child can do alone. That way, a tutor, a teacher, or even an older sibling could offer challenges a bit beyond what the child can do. They can also offer support and guidance to help the child reach those challenges. Piaget's ideas were much different in that he felt children's thinking was biological and stage-like. Once they achieved a certain age, their thinking would advance. If a teacher believed in Vygotsky's way of thought, they might present a brain teaser that is challenging for a child, yet offer hints and guidance to help the child achieve success. A teacher who believes in Piaget's thinking might never introduce a brain teaser like that because the child would be considered not old enough to be successful.

11. Define attachment and explain why it could be considered a critical period. Using the strange situation as a guide, explain the different attachment bonds that a caregiver could form with a child. Which attachment bond is considered the best and why?

ANSWER: Attachment is a close emotional bond between two people, particularly a young child and a caregiver. In order for children to achieve optimal development, they must have this attachment bond with someone in their life. It should occur early on, during the first year. If it does not, it becomes harder to form that bond, especially with more and more time passing by. There were three attachment bonds that came about from the strange situation. The secure bond, considered the best type of bond to have with a child, is the most stable and the child seems to be the most welladjusted. These children are comfortable exploring their environment and trying new things. They know their caregiver is close by and always will be. The second type of bond is the insecureavoidant bond, and the babies in this bond do not seem to care much when the caregiver leaves, and the children will even ignore the caregiver when he or she returns. The final bond is the insecureresistant bond, and these babies usually get quite upset when the caregiver leaves, but they do not entirely welcome them back either. They typically have a mixed reaction and it can be quite confusing.

12. Discuss the different parenting styles. What are some common features found in each distinct style? Which parenting style produces the most well-adjusted kids? Describe how the children typically turn out with each parenting style.

ANSWER: There are three types of parenting styles discussed in this chapter. The first is called the authoritarian parenting style. This approach has parents requiring children to be obedient, and they use strict, harsh punishment. They are typically cold, distant, and uncommunicative. These children will typically be well-behaved and follow rules; however, they may rebel later in life. The second style of parenting is called the permissive parenting style. These parents place minimal demands on their children and let their children make the rules. These parents think the rule enforcing will come from someplace else, such as school. These children tend to not have a good sense of right and wrong behaviors and have issues with self-control. The final parenting style is the authoritative parenting style. This approach is probably the best, since the parents set rules, but also explain and negotiate those rules with their children. They are the best at discipline because they use a teaching style. They are also seen as warm, loving, and supportive. Children who are parented with this style tend to turn out the most well-adjusted. They tend to be more independent, autonomous, socially competent, and academically successful.

13. Explain how parenting is a relationship between the child and an adult caregiver. Define what temperament .

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Chapter 9 - Essay is, including the different temperament types. Can temperament affect the attachment bond? Conclude by discussing how a child's temperament can impact the parenting style.

ANSWER: Parenting is seen as a relationship between two people. That means it is not just the parent's behavior that determines the quality; the child's behavior matters in the relationship as well. A major factor in that relationship is the child's temperament. Temperament is the basic emotional responsiveness that characterizes a person throughout his or her life span. The different temperament styles that have been identified are easy, difficult, and slow-to-warm-up. A child with an easy temperament is easy-going, positive, and optimistic. They can be calmed quickly and can easily adapt to new situations. A child with a difficult temperament is quick to react negatively to change and unfamiliar places or things. They are difficult to soothe or calm down. Children with a slow-to-warm-up temperament take a long time to get used to new things and new people. Their first reaction is to shy away, and they are generally quiet, with low levels of activity. Life experiences, including parenting style, can alter a child's temperament, or at least loosen it up a little. The best parent–child relationships will have a goodness-of-fit, or an interaction between the natural ways of parents and their children.

14. Define adolescence. In your definition, include three physical changes that might occur, as well as three changes found specifically in the brain. Last, touch on three psychosocial changes that are likely to occur during the time of adolescence. Conclude with why this time period may or may not be viewed as a time of turmoil in family structures.

ANSWER: Adolescence is the development period that encompasses the transition from childhood to adulthood. Even though there is no official start time or end time for adolescence, most people refer to the teenage years as the adolescent years. Three physical changes that can occur during adolescence are: puberty; the growth of secondary sex characteristics, such as (in females) hips widen, breasts develop, body fat increases, and (in males) shoulders broaden, facial hair grows, muscles develop, and the voice deepens. In both males and females, height increases, underarm and pubic hair grow, and acne can appear. Three changes found in the brain are: an increase in size, as well as a marked increase in myelination of axons and pruning, which will strengthen neural connections. Finally, three examples of psychosocial changes include: developing an identity, developing morally, and changing relationships with parents and peers. This period of time may include some conflicts between parents and adolescents because, for a decade, children have been depending on their parents to do everything for them. Now, adolescents are starting to do things for themselves, but they still need some help and guidance. There is a constant push and pull that is affecting this relationship. But usually this does not develop into a relationship of turmoil, and the relationship should not be threatened.

15. During adolescence, moral thinking is also developing. Using Kohlberg's theory of moral development as a guide, explain the different levels of moral development. Then, using an example, such as stealing or defacement of public property, describe how the different levels would explain the moral decisions surrounding the behavior.

ANSWER: The first level of morality is the preconventional level. In this level, the decisions are motivated by potential rewards or punishments of the decision. A person makes a decision in this level to benefit themselves. The second level is the conventional level of moral development. In this level, the decision-making strategy is driven by the desire to follow society's norms and laws. A person makes decisions about morality to ensure that others will approve of them. The third level of moral development is the postconventional level of moral development. In this stage the moral decisionmaking strategy is motivated by fundamental human rights and ethical principles. If you use the .

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Chapter 9 - Essay example of defacement of public property, a person in the preconventional level might say, "I won't do that because I could get caught and arrested and my parents would kill me." A person in the conventional level might say "I won't do that behavior because my parents would be disappointed in me and that would make me a bad kid." A person in the postconventional level might say "Even though it appears this is a victimless crime, I won't do it, because it will cost the taxpayers money and it will violate their rights. It is just not right to destroy something that does not belong to me."

16. A primary obstacle of adolescence is finding an identity. Define what is meant by the term identity. Using Erikson's psychosocial stages of development as a guide, discuss the stage most relevant to adolescence and describe how identity can be formed during this stage. Conclude with an example of an obstacle that makes forming an identity difficult.

ANSWER: Identity is a part of Erikson's psychosocial theory of development referring to a person's stable sense of who he or she is; it is addressed in the crisis stage of identity versus role confusion and can successfully produce the virtue of fidelity. Adolescence is a time during which individuals begin figuring out who they are. They will do this during the identity versus role confusion stage of psychosocial development. An adolescent will try to answer the question, "Can I determine who I am?" This is a difficult question to answer, at least initially. They will explore different hobbies, religions, politics, social groups, and others. They may even try out different ideas and roles to see if they like them or not. Sometimes, parents can make this developmental task difficult to complete.

For example, let's imagine that an adolescent wants to color her hair to determine if she will like it.

If the parents forbid this behavior, the teen may never figure out if she likes it or not. The parent is preventing that person from exploring and figuring it out. It is possible the teen may grow into an older adult who will still want to explore the wild hair color.

17. When a person gradually moves from adolescence to adulthood, this time period has recently been referred to as emerging adulthood. Explain this time period and the rationale for the distinction. Describe why emerging adults are NOT young adults. Likewise, explain why emerging adults are NOT adolescents.

ANSWER: Emerging adulthood is a relatively new term that developmental psychologists have begun to use.

This stage allows the person to move gradually from adolescence to adulthood, without too much pressure. This means we become adults slowly, little by little, rather than abruptly when we hit a certain age or achieve a particular milestone. This also allows adolescence to fade slowly, thus giving teens more time to figure out who they are. Emerging adults are not quite young adults yet because they may not have achieved some of the things that traditionally come with becoming a young adult. In fact, emerging adults may still live at home, or still depend on their parents for money and food. Emerging adults are not exactly adolescents anymore because their viewpoints are different. Emerging adults, although not fully independent, have significantly more freedom than do adolescents, mostly because of their age. In the job force, adolescents typically have a job for recreational purposes or to earn some pocket money. An emerging adult would typically have a job to learn more about a particular field or use the job as a stepping stone toward another job in the same industry.

18. Highlight some of the areas in which the functioning of our bodies and brains changes from young adulthood to middle adulthood, and then again when we reach older adulthood. List two physical changes that occur as we age, and list two cognitive changes that occur as we get older.

ANSWER: During young adulthood, the body and the brain tend to peak. The health-related habits of young adults are extremely important because they are setting up some habits for the rest of their lives. .

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Chapter 9 - Essay When people reach middle adulthood, the functioning of their brains and bodies gradually declines.

A middle-aged adult might lose muscle tone and develop skin spots, wrinkles, thinning hair, and creaky joints. Unfortunately, middle adults lose some height and do not recover from illnesses and injuries as quickly anymore. Women will lose estrogen and experience menopause, while men will begin to lose testosterone. When these middle adults reach older adulthood, the physical abilities that began to decline in middle adulthood continue to decline. The brain also begins to shrink and the senses weaken and do not function as effectively. Cognitive performance also changes from young adulthood to middle adulthood. Once again, the peak is in young adulthood, and once we reach middle adulthood, we process information more slowly and our reaction times slow a bit.

Those changes can continue to occur through older adulthood. If there is no significant disease or disorders affecting the brain, an older person will not start to see significant changes until much later in life.

19. According to developmental psychologists, there are psychosocial highlights we encounter across adulthood that allow us to develop through the stages of intimacy versus isolation, generativity versus stagnation, and ego integrity versus despair. Provide one example of a highlight for each question/crisis stage and describe how the highlight helps overcome the crisis and gain the related virtue.

ANSWER: Many events during adulthood strengthen our identity, and these events have a hand in reaching our developmental milestones. Becoming part of a couple and/or getting married is significant because it aids in the intimacy versus isolation stage and promotes the virtue of love. Becoming parents, as well as succeeding and advancing in a career, helps us to achieve our generativity and promotes the virtue of care. Grandparenting is a fun time for many people, as they do not have the stress or responsibility of raising children again, but can help with grandchildren and can share the wisdom they have acquired along the way. Grandparenting as well as retirement are tasks that help older adults acquire ego integrity. They are able to look back on their lives and see what they have accomplished, attaining the virtue of wisdom. This virtue also helps older adults learn to prepare for death and accept death as a natural part of life.

20. Define empty nest syndrome its potentially negative and positive impacts on individuals in middle adulthood. Describe how the impacts of an empty nest may differ based on culture.

ANSWER: In empty nest syndrome, parents may feel down or struggle emotionally to adjust with their children having left home. However, negative emotions are not universal, as some adults feel primarily pride when their children leave home and celebrate their newfound freedom. Parents in collectivist cultures may be more prone to experience empty nest syndrome, especially if their children left unexpectedly or under less-than-ideal circumstances.

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 1. Developmental psychology is the study of the changes to body, mind, and interpersonal interaction that people experience: a. across the life span. b. in adulthood. c. only at certain ages. d. in childhood.

ANSWER: a 2. "Across the life span" means that development: a. happens at every age. b. is completed by adulthood. c. skips certain ages. d. happens only in childhood.

ANSWER: a 3. Dr. Shaikh is studying the changes in thinking, interpersonal communication, emotion, and memory as people age from younger to older adults. Given the different domains she is focusing on, Dr. Shaikh is MOST likely a _____ psychologist. a. social b. physiological c. multicultural d. developmental ANSWER: d 4. The focus of developmental psychology has changed drastically in recent decades, because: a. children are now the primary focus. b. older adults are now the primary focus. c. adults are now studied as much as children are. d. children now have fewer developmental issues.

ANSWER: c 5. The current focus of developmental psychology: a. assumes that development ends by adulthood. b. completely focuses on infants and children. c. is the same now as it was in past decades. d. examines change across the entire life span.

ANSWER: d 6. Developmental psychology focuses on how individuals _____ over time. a. interact b. change .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. think d. sustain ANSWER: b 7. A _____ design is a research design in which people of different ages are compared to each other at the same point in time. a. correlational b. cross-sequential c. longitudinal d. cross-sectional ANSWER: d 8. A _____ design is a research design in which the same group of people is compared to itself at different points in time. a. longitudinal b. cross-sectional c. cross-sequential d. correlational ANSWER: a 9. A _____ design is a research design in which people of different ages are compared to each other at the same point in time, whereas a _____ design is a research design in which the same group of people is compared to itself at different points in time. a. correlational; cross-sectional b. longitudinal; cross-sectional c. cross-sectional; longitudinal d. cross-sectional; correlational ANSWER: c 10. One of the advantages of a cross-sectional research design is: a. higher validity. b. higher reliability. c. quick results. d. no bias.

ANSWER: c 11. One of the advantages of a longitudinal research design is: a. higher validity. b. higher reliability. c. quick results. d. larger population. .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 12. One of the advantages of a longitudinal research design is that they minimize _____ effects, which are unique influences on certain groups because of their common age. a. validity b. reliability c. cohort d. bias ANSWER: c 13. Dr. Bhimani sought to assess whether the problem-solving abilities of adolescents changed across age. He asked parents of 13-year-olds, 15-year-olds, and 17-year-olds to bring their children to his laboratory, where the teenagers were asked to get out of an escape room. Dr. Bhimani then compared the time it took each age group, on average, to complete the escape room. This BEST illustrates a(n): a. neuropsychiatric battery. b. cross-sectional research design. c. experimental research design. d. longitudinal research design.

ANSWER: b 14. Dr. Usman assesses language skills of the same individuals over 20 years, when they are 6, 11, 16, 21, and 26 years old. Dr. Usman is conducting _____ research. a. cohort b. cross-sectional c. longitudinal d. experimental ANSWER: c 15. Dr. Verrengia studies how the development of social skills progresses in children who take stimulant medication for ADHD. She decides to test 250 children when they are 10 years of age, 15 years of age, and then again when they reach 20 years of age. This type of research illustrates a _____ design. a. longitudinal b. cross-sectional c. experimental d. cohort ANSWER: a 16. What big question in developmental psychology focuses MOST on how things stay the same and how they alter across development? a. nature versus nurture b. stage versus continuous c. stability versus change .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice d. cross-sectional versus longitudinal ANSWER: c 17. A child who enjoys trying new things while in kindergarten and who has become less willing to try new things in middle school would MOST likely be an example of which developmental research question? a. continuous versus discontinuous b. stability versus change c. nature versus nurture d. cross-sectional versus longitudinal ANSWER: b 18. Dr. Sasaki is conducting a study to see whether the creativity of children comes about suddenly or gradually. Dr. Sasaki is MOST likely focusing on the _____ question of developmental psychology. a. stability versus change b. nature versus nurture c. stage development versus continuous development d. cross-sectional versus longitudinal ANSWER: c 19. Explaining how teenagers go through the many changes of puberty is BEST described as _____ development. a. stage b. continuous c. slow d. external ANSWER: a 20. When we enter into the latter half of our adulthood, our intelligence and processing speed may decline slowly. This is BEST described as an example of _____ development. a. stage b. continuous c. under d. nurture ANSWER: b 21. When researchers study whether development is due to an inborn blueprint or the environment, they are attempting to answer a research question concerning: a. stage development versus continuous development. b. stability versus change. c. continuous versus discontinuous. d. nature versus nurture.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 22. If you were doing a research study looking at culture and the age that children begin to sleep in their own bed, what developmental research question would you be attempting to answer? a. stability versus change b. nature versus nurture c. continuous versus discontinuous d. stage development versus continuous development ANSWER: b 23. Conception occurs when a(n): a. fetus is fully formed. b. sperm is fertilized by an egg. c. egg is fertilized by a sperm. d. egg is fertilized by an ovum.

ANSWER: c 24. The earliest stage of prenatal development, after an egg is fertilized by a sperm, results in a(n): a. fetus. b. embryo. c. zygote. d. ovum.

ANSWER: c 25. The prenatal human organism from approximately 2 weeks to approximately 2 months after conception is called a(n): a. embryo. b. zygote. c. fetus. d. ovum.

ANSWER: a 26. A(n) _____ is a prenatal human organism from about 2 months after conception to birth. a. embryo b. zygote c. fetus d. ovum ANSWER: c 27. Another name for identical twins is _____ twins. a. dizygotic b. fraternal .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. monozygotic d. longitudinal ANSWER: c 28. _____ twins form from the splitting of one zygote, whereas _____ result from two zygotes. a. Dizygotic; monozygotic b. Fraternal; identical c. Monozygotic; fraternal d. Monozygotic; identical ANSWER: c 29. Another name for fraternal twins is _____ twins. a. dizygotic b. monozygotic c. identical d. cohort ANSWER: a 30. The spinal cord, brain, and heart begin to form in the _____ stage. a. fetal b. embryonic c. germinal d. zygotic ANSWER: b 31. During the _____ stage of prenatal development, there is an exponential growth and the organism's internal organs begin to function more independently. a. germinal b. embryonic c. conception d. fetal ANSWER: d 32. In the same way that an adult might ignore a dog repeatedly barking outside, a fetus tends to respond less to stimuli that repeat or remain constant. This behavior is called: a. adaptation. b. habituation. c. familiarization. d. conditioning.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 33. A _____ is any substance that can harm the embryo or fetus during development. a. syndrome b. contaminate c. pollutant d. teratogen ANSWER: d 34. The teratogen that is studied and researched most often is: a. alcohol. b. nicotine. c. cocaine. d. mercury.

ANSWER: a 35. A pattern of physical and behavioral abnormalities common in people whose mothers drank alcohol excessively during pregnancy is called: a. alcohol dependence. b. fetal alcohol syndrome. c. alcoholism. d. alcohol abuse.

ANSWER: b 36. Lukas is physically small for his age and is much weaker and slower than his same-aged peers. He also struggles with learning disabilities in the classroom. Lukas also has small eyes and a thin upper lip, making him an easy target for classroom bullies. These physical and behavioral abnormalities are MOST likely the result of: a. cerebral palsy. b. conduct disorder. c. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. d. fetal alcohol syndrome.

ANSWER: d 37. Teratogens can enter a woman's body through many forms, EXCEPT: a. drugs. b. environmental pollution. c. viruses. d. prenatal vitamins.

ANSWER: d 38. A distorted face with small eyes, intellectual disability, and hyperactivity are MOST likely signs of: a. fetal alcohol syndrome. b. HIV infection. .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. conduct disorder. d. cerebral palsy.

ANSWER: a 39. As Zayra planned for her pregnancy, she was careful to stay away from pollutants, drugs, and infectious diseases that could cause fetal abnormalities. She was avoiding: a. folic acid. b. cohort effects. c. conception. d. teratogens.

ANSWER: d 40. A typical feature seen in children diagnosed with fetal alcohol syndrome includes: a. behavioral abnormalities. b. low resistance to infection. c. partial limb development. d. respiratory difficulty.

ANSWER: a 41. When a full-term baby is born, typically _____ of their five senses are working well. a. three b. four c. five d. two ANSWER: c 42. In a study on newborn preferences, researchers determined that a newborn preferred their mother's face over another woman's face by observing that the newborn: a. tried to grab their mother's face. b. looked only at the researcher's faces. c. stared longer at their mother's face than another woman's face. d. fell asleep in their mother's arms.

ANSWER: c 43. In a study on newborn preferences, researchers determined that a newborn preferred their mother's scent over another woman's scent by observing that the newborn would: a. nuzzle up to a gauze pad with the mother's scent on it longer than another woman's gauze pads. b. nuzzle up to the mother's shoulders longer than to another woman's shoulder. c. stare at the mother's face longer than they stared at another woman's face. d. fall asleep in the mother's arms but not in another woman's arms.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 44. If a newborn is presented with a gauze pad that their mother kept under her arm while she slept, the newborn will MOST likely: a. turn its head toward the gauze pad. b. turn away from the gauze pad. c. turn toward a gauze pad worn by another woman. d. begin to cry.

ANSWER: a 45. Which statement is TRUE about a newborn's preferences? A newborn baby: a. does not have vision sharp enough to have a preference for individuals. b. prefers the scent of a new woman over the scent of their mother. c. can show preference for their mother's voice over other women's voices. d. will suck faster on a pacifier when the baby hears a new voice.

ANSWER: c 46. Newborn babies will engage in the _____ reflex when a nipple or a pacifier is placed in the baby's mouth. a. rooting b. grasping c. righting d. sucking ANSWER: d 47. Newborn babies will engage in the _____ reflex when an object brushes their cheek. a. rooting b. grasping c. swallowing d. righting ANSWER: a 48. Newborn babies will engage in the _____ reflex when a finger is placed in the baby's palm. a. righting b. Moro c. grasping d. rooting ANSWER: c 49. Newborn babies will engage in the _____ reflex when their feet touch the ground. a. sucking b. stepping c. grasping d. rooting .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 50. Micha, who is 2 and a half weeks old, flung his arms out in surprise when his family's dog suddenly barked loudly. This behavior is the _____ reflex. a. Moro b. rooting c. sucking d. grasping ANSWER: a 51. Which statement about brain development is TRUE? a. It takes 5 years for a child's brain to double in size. b. In the first 3 years of life, a child's brain triples in weight. c. Between a child's first and second birthdays, synapse formation slows. d. A child's brain has completed development by age 10.

ANSWER: b 52. Your inability to recall any memories before the age of 2 is due to: a. overactive brain development. b. too much sleep. c. infantile amnesia. d. the soft spot.

ANSWER: c 53. In an infant, brain development occurs in this predictable order: a. prefrontal cortex, visual cortex, hearing and language. b. hearing and language, visual cortex, prefrontal cortex. c. visual cortex, prefrontal cortex, hearing and language. d. visual cortex, hearing and language, prefrontal cortex.

ANSWER: d 54. Children are much better at learning a new language than adults because: a. children's brains have not completed the pruning process yet. b. children have more free time to devote to learning something new. c. children's brains do not have as much information in them yet. d. children are more motivated to learn than adults.

ANSWER: a 55. Dr. Boykin is studying the impact of an enriched environment or an impoverished environment on synaptic connections in the brains of rats. Which developmental research question are they MOST likely trying to address? a. stability versus change .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice b. nature versus nurture c. stage versus continuous d. internal versus external ANSWER: b 56. Tess is a 3-month-old baby. She has started to smile and coo at people. Her ability to recognize people and mimic facial expressions is MOST likely a result of: a. her being able to see, which babies are unable to do at birth. b. the increased synaptic connections that allow for sensory skill improvement. c. her caretakers intentionally teaching her to smile and coo. d. sleeping less and spending more time noticing the world around her.

ANSWER: b 57. The typical order of motor development in an infant is: a. rolling, sitting up, crawling, standing, walking. b. sitting up, crawling, rolling, standing, walking. c. sitting up, rolling, crawling, standing, walking. d. rolling, crawling, sitting up, standing, walking.

ANSWER: a 58. Which statement about exercise's impact on human brain function is FALSE? a. Some brain parts increase in size following aerobic exercise by older adults. b. Engaging in stretching results in the same benefits as aerobic exercise. c. A regular exercise regimen boosts memory and attention in older adults. d. Exercise accompanied by social stimulation may be more beneficial than exercise alone.

ANSWER: b 59. The changes in the way children think about and understand the world around them is known as _____ development. a. motor b. cognitive c. brain d. thinking ANSWER: b 60. A(n) _____ is a concept or mental representation that guides the way a person makes sense of new information. a. thought b. cognition c. schema d. idea .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 61. Priya sees a small, feathered creature perched on a branch. They readily identify the animal as a bird because they are: a. able to make an informed guess. b. accommodating information into existing schemas. c. forming new schemas. d. assimilating information into an existing schema.

ANSWER: d 62. The process of _____ is when you make sense of new information by sorting it into already existing schemas. a. scaffolding b. assimilation c. accommodation d. conservation ANSWER: b 63. When 3-year-old Akira visits the fair with her aunt, she calls a Ferris wheel a "carousel." Her aunt corrects her and explains how a Ferris wheel differs from a carousel but is still a fair ride that goes in a circle. Akira's aunt is helping her to: a. assimilate information. b. form a schema. c. accommodate information. d. engage in conservation.

ANSWER: c 64. When you make sense of new information by revising or creating a new schema, you are engaging in: a. assimilation. b. accommodation. c. scaffolding. d. conservation.

ANSWER: b 65. Piaget argued that the stages of cognitive development were biologically predetermined and only minimally influenced by the environment or experience. He believed this idea because: a. children around the world move through the stages in the same order and around the same ages. b. children around the world still learn despite having different types of impoverished environments. c. the brains of children develop exactly the same, at every age, all around the world. d. he conducted experiments that proved cognitive development was a result of nature and had nothing to do with nurture.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 66. Which is the correct order through which Piaget described children's stages of development? a. preoperational → formal operational → concrete operational → sensorimotor b. sensorimotor → preoperational → concrete operational → formal operational c. concrete operational → formal operational → preoperational → sensorimotor d. sensorimotor → preoperational → formal operational → concrete operational ANSWER: b 67. The _____ stage is when babies understand the world by seeing, hearing, touching, smelling, and tasting it. a. formal operational b. sensorimotor c. concrete operational d. preoperational ANSWER: b 68. When 1-year-old Darla is presented with applesauce, which is her favorite food, she gets very excited at the sight of it and readily touches it to put it in her mouth. Darla is MOST likely in the _____ stage of cognitive development. a. concrete operational b. preoperational c. formal operational d. sensorimotor ANSWER: d 69. The ability to realize that an item continues to exist, even when you can no longer see it, is called: a. conservation. b. object permanence. c. reversibility. d. egocentrism.

ANSWER: b 70. Nine-month-old Nadeem was playing with a car, and it rolled into the other room out of sight. Nadeem began to cry and did not know to crawl to the other room to get his car. This is because Nadeem has not yet achieved: a. the sensorimotor stage. b. assimilation. c. object permanence. d. accommodation.

ANSWER: c 71. Hank is in the sensorimotor stage of development. He is MOST likely: a. 50 years old. .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice b. just conceived. c. 5 months old. d. 5 years old.

ANSWER: c 72. The _____ stage of cognitive development is when children can use language and other symbols for real objects but still cannot complete many mental operations. a. sensorimotor b. concrete operational c. preoperational d. formal operational ANSWER: c 73. Which is NOT an indication that a child has reached the preoperational stage of development? a. exploring the world around them using their hands and mouth b. engaging in pretend play and assigning fictional roles to playmates c. using an object in a manner other than that for which it is intended d. understanding and reacting to the feelings and intentions of other people ANSWER: a 74. Four-year-old Benita is making flat discs out of soft clay and putting smaller circle-shaped pieces on it. He then asks his father if he would like some pizza! Benita is MOST likely in the _____ stage of development. a. preoperational b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. sensorimotor ANSWER: a 75. Four-year-old Amir puts his stuffed bear into a box and tells his mother that he is, "taking his doggy to the vet." Amir is MOST likely in the _____ stage of cognitive development. a. sensorimotor b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. preoperational ANSWER: d 76. _____ is a mental operation in which an amount or quantity remains the same regardless of the shape it takes. a. Object permanence b. Conservation c. Egocentrism .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice d. Reversibility ANSWER: b 77. Peter takes his two nephews, Connor and Alex, out for lunch. They both order chicken nuggets, but Peter cuts 3-year-old Alex's into bite-sized pieces. Six-year-old Connor says, "Alex has more than me!" because Connor has not yet achieved: a. conservation. b. object permanence. c. egocentrism. d. theory of mind.

ANSWER: a 78. The understanding of the thoughts, feelings, intentions, and other mental activities of oneself and others is known as: a. theory of mind. b. conservation. c. egocentrism. d. object permanence.

ANSWER: a 79. The false-belief task involves telling children a story in which Sally puts a toy in Box A, but, while she is away, Anne moves it to Box B. The task is for the children to report where Sally will look for the toy when she returns. Research suggests that children diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder will MOST likely report that: a. the toy is gone. b. the toy is in Box A. c. the toy is in Box B. d. Sally won't know where to look.

ANSWER: c 80. During which stage of cognitive development does object permanence occur? a. preoperational b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. sensorimotor ANSWER: d 81. During which stage of cognitive development is conservation achieved? a. preoperational b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. sensorimotor ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 82. During which stage of cognitive development does egocentrism occur? a. preoperational b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. sensorimotor ANSWER: a 83. During which stage of cognitive development does theory of mind occur? a. preoperational b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. sensorimotor ANSWER: a 84. _____ is the inability to understand a situation from a point of view other than the person's own. a. Conservation b. Object permanence c. Egocentrism d. Theory of mind ANSWER: c 85. Erika is telling her son, Emmanuel, a story from her past about her brother, John. When Erika is done telling the story, Emmanuel asks, "But Mommy, who is your sister?" Erika explains that she does not have a sister but only a brother. Emmanuel rolls his eyes and says, "Oh Mommy, everyone has a sister!" This is largely because Emmanuel has a sister. What developmental concept is Emmanuel demonstrating? a. object permanence b. conservation c. egocentrism d. theory of mind ANSWER: c 86. When children acquire the ability to think logically about tangible things, they have entered the _____ stage of cognitive development. a. preoperational b. formal operational c. concrete operational d. sensorimotor ANSWER: c 87. In math, when a child understands that certain pairs of mathematical calculations (like addition and subtraction) are opposites, the child has mastered: .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice a. object permanence. b. reversibility. c. egocentrism. d. theory of mind.

ANSWER: b 88. Ten-year-old Ava accompanied her father on a business trip to Italy. They had pizza in a local restaurant, and Ava declared that the pizza was even better than the pizza at a small shop near her house, which she likes even better than the pizza of a major national chain. If Ava is able to realize that this must mean that the Italian pizza is also better than that from the national chain, she would be demonstrating: a. object permanence. b. reversibility. c. transitive reasoning. d. theory of mind.

ANSWER: c 89. When a child can think logically about abstract ideas, that child has reached the _____ stage of cognitive development. a. preoperational b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. sensorimotor ANSWER: c 90. _____ believed that social interaction was the primary force behind cognitive development. a. Piaget b. Vygotsky c. Erikson d. Harlow ANSWER: b 91. Vygotsky believed that _____ was the primary force behind cognitive development, and Piaget believed that _____ was the primary force behind cognitive development. a. biology; social interaction b. social interaction; biology c. biology; biology d. social interaction; social interaction ANSWER: b 92. _____ is a process by which a person learns new words, ideas, and ways of thinking by interacting with a more advanced person who provides decreasing levels of help. a. Scaffolding .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice b. Theory of mind c. Egocentrism d. Transitive reasoning ANSWER: a 93. Mrs. Huang explains to their first-grade students that a good way to find the word "spring" in a search-aword puzzle is to look at each "s" and see if it has a "p" next to it. Mrs. Huang's comments illustrate: a. egocentrism. b. scaffolding. c. theory of mind. d. accommodation.

ANSWER: b 94. The range of learning that is just above what a child can master alone is called the zone of: a. assimilation. b. accommodation. c. scaffolding. d. proximal development.

ANSWER: d 95. Wesley has mastered subtraction with one-digit numbers. His teacher is encouraging him to try to subtract two-digit numbers. Subtracting two-digit numbers would MOST likely be in Wesley's: a. theory of mind. b. preoperational stage. c. zone of proximal development. d. scaffolding plan.

ANSWER: c 96. The _____ method is based on the idea that babies will stare longer at events that surprise them, and it showed that babies may develop object permanence earlier than predicted by Piaget. a. scaffolding b. cross-sectional c. longitudinal d. violation-of-expectations ANSWER: d 97. The violation-of-expectations method is based on the idea that babies will stare for a _____ time at events that surprise them, and it showed that babies may develop object permanence _____ than predicted by Piaget. a. longer; earlier b. longer; later c. shorter; earlier .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice d. shorter; later ANSWER: a 98. All are limitations to Piaget's theory of cognitive development EXCEPT: a. Piaget's original methods and experiments may have underestimated the cognitive ability of infants. b. Piaget's theory emphasizes stages too much, thus identifying children by levels and not by continuous growth. c. Piaget believed cognitive development was biological, leaving very little room for environmental influences. d. Piaget believed cognitive development was environmental, leaving very little room for biological influences.

ANSWER: d 99. Recent research about screen time and kids' development suggests that: a. there are only negative influences from screen time. b. there are only positive influences from screen time. c. screen time can have both positive and negative influences. d. screen time has no influence on development.

ANSWER: c 100. One area of growth that focuses on relationships with other people, including the immediate family, is known as _____ development. a. psychosocial b. sociocognitive c. cognitive d. physiological ANSWER: a 101. A close emotional bond between a young child and a caregiver is called: a. conservation. b. attachment. c. temperament. d. synchrony.

ANSWER: b 102. A period of time during which a particular developmental task is especially likely to be influenced by outside events is known as a(n) _____ period. a. sensitive b. critical c. delicate d. influential ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 103. Tessa was born five weeks ago. These first few months of life represent a(n) _____ period during which attachment to her caregivers will develop. a. scaffolded b. assimilation c. accommodation d. critical ANSWER: d 104. The strange situation method is used by researchers to study: a. object permanence. b. temperament. c. schemas. d. attachment.

ANSWER: d 105. Babies who appear to be the most stable and use their caregiver as a home base, MOST likely have a(n) _____ attachment bond with their caregiver. a. secure b. insecure-avoidant c. insecure-resistant d. disorganized ANSWER: a 106. When using the strange situation research technique, a baby who didn't seem to care when their mom left, and evaded her when she returned, MOST likely had a(n) _____ attachment bond. a. secure b. disorganized c. insecure-avoidant d. insecure-resistant ANSWER: c 107. In the strange situation, the babies who got quite upset when their mom left the room, and did not entirely welcome her return, MOST likely had a(n) _____ attachment bond. a. secure b. insecure-avoidant c. disorganized d. insecure-resistant ANSWER: d 108. José is a 5-year-old boy who exhibits self-confidence and self-reliance. He is generally a happy child with many friends. The attachment bond that José MOST likely has with his caretakers is: .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice a. secure. b. insecure-avoidant. c. disorganized. d. insecure-resistant.

ANSWER: a 109. Teekhayu is 9 months old and is meeting his extended family for the first time at a large reunion. He shows distress as his mother introduces him to new person after new person. Teekhayu cries if he is held or cuddled by each new relative. Teekhayu is MOST likely experiencing: a. assimilation. b. stranger anxiety. c. accommodation. d. separation anxiety.

ANSWER: b 110. Harry Harlow performed an experiment in which infant monkeys were housed with two artificial "mothers": one that was made of cold mesh and provided food, and one that was made of cozy cloth but didn't provide food. Harlow found that the monkey infants: a. preferred the mesh "mother." b. preferred the cloth "mother." c. showed no preference for either "mother." d. avoided both "mothers."

ANSWER: b 111. When parents require children to obey strict rules unquestionably, their approach to parenting is to use a(n) _____ parenting style. a. permissive b. authoritative c. neglectful d. authoritarian ANSWER: d 112. When parents place minimal demands on children and allow the children to run their own lives, their approach to parenting is to use a(n) _____ parenting style. a. permissive b. authoritative c. neglectful d. authoritarian ANSWER: a 113. An approach to parenting in which parents set rules, but also explain and negotiate those rules with their children, is known as: .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice a. authoritarian. b. permissive. c. authoritative. d. neglectful.

ANSWER: c 114. Reginald asks his mother if he can go over to his friend's house for a few hours. His mother agrees and reminds Reginald to be home by 6 P.M. for dinner. Reginald later asks if he can stay until 7 P.M. because they will need the extra time to finish a school project. His mother lets him, but reminds him that 7 P.M. is the latest he can stay. This parenting style is BEST described as: a. authoritative. b. authoritarian. c. permissive. d. neglectful.

ANSWER: a 115. Adam, who is 15 years old, wants to download an R-rated movie. When he asks his mom, she replies, "Sure, whatever it is, it's probably fine." This parenting style is MOST likely: a. authoritarian. b. permissive. c. authoritative. d. disorganized.

ANSWER: b 116. Gaby wants to stay out past her curfew on Saturday night, but she knows that if she asks, she will have to go home even earlier than her curfew, just for asking. Her parents are MOST likely _____ parents. a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. permissive d. neglectful ANSWER: a 117. On average, which type of parenting style produces the most well-adjusted children? a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. permissive d. neglectful ANSWER: b 118. _____ is the basic emotional responsiveness that characterizes a person throughout his or her life span. a. Personality b. Temperament .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. Character d. Synchrony ANSWER: b 119. Children who have a(n) _____ temperament are generally calm, optimistic, and positive. a. difficult b. slow-to-warm-up c. easy d. fussy ANSWER: c 120. Babies who tend to cry and scream with unfamiliar people and who are generally hard to comfort MOST likely have a(n) _____ temperament. a. difficult b. slow-to-warm-up c. easy d. reactive ANSWER: a 121. Children who shy away from others and are generally quiet MOST likely have a _____ temperament. a. difficult b. slow-to-warm-up c. normal d. reactive ANSWER: b 122. The tendency to quickly respond with negative emotions such as irritability and anxiety is referred to as: a. self-regulation. b. temperament. c. attachment. d. reactivity.

ANSWER: d 123. _____ is the control one has over his or her own moods and behaviors. a. Self-regulation b. Temperament c. Attachment d. Reactivity ANSWER: a 124. Research suggests that _____ and _____ are influential in determining a temperament type. .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice a. intelligence; parenting b. reactivity; self-regulation c. parenting; self-regulation d. reactivity; personality ANSWER: b 125. Amelia has a 2-year-old son who seems to have a slow-to-warm-up temperament. Amelia is very patient and nurturing with her son and is sure not to rush him or make him uncomfortable. This match between Amelia's parenting style and her son's temperament is known as: a. self-regulation. b. synchrony. c. goodness-of-fit. d. reactivity.

ANSWER: c 126. Which of these would MOST likely lead indirectly to improvements in attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder symptoms in children? a. more video game playing b. more friendships c. stricter parenting d. fewer social skills ANSWER: b 127. In most cultures around the world, young male children prefer to play with: a. dolls. b. toy trucks. c. puzzles. d. video games.

ANSWER: b 128. In most cultures around the world, young female children prefer to play with: a. dolls. b. toy trucks. c. puzzles. d. video games.

ANSWER: a 129. _____ is the developmental period that encompasses the transition from childhood to adulthood. a. Emerging adulthood b. Adolescence c. Young adulthood .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice d. Preteenager ANSWER: b 130. All of these are true statements about adolescence EXCEPT: a. The period of adolescence has no official beginning or end time. b. The cognitive and psychosocial changes are less obvious than the physical changes. c. Some girls may show signs of puberty while still in elementary school. d. Once a person reaches the twenties, that person will definitely be through with puberty.

ANSWER: d 131. Regardless of when the adolescent years begin, decision making and _____ emerge. a. independence b. conflict c. isolation d. dependence ANSWER: a 132. Marcus has decided that he likes country music and wants to learn line dancing. He has also become much more independent and talks much less than he used to. George is MOST likely in the _____ stage of development. a. emerging adult b. adolescent c. preoperational d. preteen ANSWER: b 133. _____ is the time period featuring physical changes that mark the onset of adolescence and enable sexual reproduction. a. Puberty b. Menopause c. Menarche d. Perimenopause ANSWER: a 134. Stephanie has noticed that her 13-year-old niece's breasts are getting larger and her hips are widening.

Stephanie assumes her niece is MOST likely going through: a. puberty. b. menopause. c. infancy. d. perimenopause.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 135. Stephanie has noticed that her 13-year-old niece's breasts are getting larger and her hips are widening.

Stephanie assumes her niece is MOST likely going through puberty because of the presence of these _____ sex characteristics. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. multiple ANSWER: b 136. John has noticed that his 13-year-old nephew's voice is getting deeper and he is beginning to develop facial hair. John assumes his nephew is MOST likely going through: a. puberty. b. menopause. c. infancy. d. perimenopause.

ANSWER: a 137. John has noticed that his 13-year-old nephew's voice is getting deeper and he is beginning to develop facial hair. John assumes his nephew is going through puberty because of the presence of these _____ sex characteristics. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. multiple ANSWER: b 138. The parts of the body that characterize sexual maturation but are not directly involved in reproduction are called _____ sex characteristics. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. multiple ANSWER: b 139. Examples of secondary sex characteristics include all of these EXCEPT: a. facial hair growing in men. b. hips widening in women. c. height stabilizing. d. underarm hair appearing.

ANSWER: c 140. The parts of the body directly involved in sexual reproduction, such as the genitals, ovaries, and testes, are .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice known as _____ sex characteristics. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. multiple ANSWER: a 141. Changes occurring during puberty that are often not obvious to an outside observer because they are directly involved in sexual reproduction are called _____ sex characteristics. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. multiple ANSWER: a 142. _____ is a girl's first menstrual period and often signifies the onset of puberty. a. Menopause b. Menarche c. Perimenopause d. Labia ANSWER: b 143. Girls typically begin puberty about _____ years before boys. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 ANSWER: a 144. All of these are true about why many girls are reaching puberty earlier than in the past EXCEPT: a. the presence of their father at home. b. an increased incidence of obesity. c. exposure to certain chemicals. d. an increased incidence of stress.

ANSWER: a 145. The length of puberty varies, but generally it is complete in _____ years. a. 1–2 b. 3–4 c. 4–5 d. 6–7 .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 146. Lisa is hanging out with girls who are a few years older than she is. Even though her parents try to dissuade her, she continues to hang out with those friends because she feels they are similar to her. The MOST likely explanation for Lisa's behavior could be that she: a. has a mental disorder that is preventing her from thinking logically. b. has reached puberty before her same-aged peers. c. is trying to get back at her parents. d. is struggling in school.

ANSWER: b 147. Cognitive ability is improving in adolescents because there are faster connections between neurons. This is largely due to: a. pruning. b. myelination. c. memory. d. disintegration.

ANSWER: b 148. The _____ process began in infancy and childhood and continues in adolescence. This process eliminates neural pathways that are rarely used. a. maturation b. selective c. myelination d. pruning ANSWER: d 149. Pruning results in the adolescent brain having _____ neural connections, and myelination results in the adolescent brain having _____ connections. a. more; weaker b. more; stronger c. fewer; weaker d. fewer; stronger ANSWER: d 150. Dana and Dina are identical twins. Dana enjoys painting and spends a great deal of time in the art studio.

Dina spends her time practicing martial arts and competing in tournaments. Which conclusion about their adolescent brains could you draw? a. Their brains would have identical neural connections and pathways. b. Their brains would have drastic differences. c. Comparisons cannot be made because they are adolescents. d. Their brains are still growing, so they would still look the same. .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 151. According to Piaget, by adolescence, many individuals have entered the final stage of cognitive development. The _____ stage enables adolescents to think logically about tangible and abstract ideas. a. formal operational b. concrete operational c. preoperational d. sensorimotor ANSWER: a 152. The _____ is a common way of thinking among adolescents in which they believe their lives are continuously being watched and evaluated by others. a. personal fable b. imaginary audience c. life story d. invincibility fallacy ANSWER: b 153. When an adolescent has thoughts like "What will my friends think?" and "I hope no one sees!" they are engaging in _____ type of thinking. a. imaginary audience b. personal fable c. invincibility fallacy d. object permanence ANSWER: a 154. Stefanie does not want to go to the neighborhood pool with her family until she finishes fixing her hair.

Stefanie's father becomes frustrated with her because he points out her hair is only going to get wet at the pool.

Stefanie's mother explains this is typical adolescent thinking, called: a. life story. b. invincibility fallacy. c. imaginary audience. d. personal fable.

ANSWER: c 155. A(n) _____ is a common way of thinking among adolescents in which they believe themselves to be special or invulnerable. a. invincibility fallacy b. personal fable c. life story d. imaginary audience ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 156. Sal, who is of short stature and rather uncoordinated, brags to his friend, Raphael, that he will make the basketball team and Raphael will not despite the fact that Raphael is tall, coordinated, and has participated in a basketball camp for the past three summers. Sal's belief is MOST likely because Sal is engaging in the _____ way of thinking. a. logical b. imaginary audience c. invincibility fallacy d. personal fable ANSWER: d 157. During the adolescent years, _____ thinking develops. a. immoral b. moral c. illogical d. abnormal ANSWER: b 158. The stages, in order, of Kohlberg's theory of moral development are: a. preoperational, preconventional, conventional. b. preoperational, conventional, postconventional. c. preconventional, conventional, postconventional. d. conventional, preconventional, postconventional.

ANSWER: c 159. _____ morality is a moral decision-making strategy driven by potential rewards and punishments of the decision. a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Preoperational ANSWER: a 160. _____ morality is a moral decision-making strategy driven by the desire to follow society's norms and laws. a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Preoperational ANSWER: b 161. _____ morality is a moral decision-making strategy driven by fundamental rights and ethical principles. .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Preoperational ANSWER: c 162. Most moral decisions that Jasmine makes are focused on serving her own needs and maximizing benefits while minimizing hardships. Jasmine is MOST likely in the _____ level of morality. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. formal operational ANSWER: a 163. Most moral decisions that Jacob makes are focused on ensuring that others will approve, and that his decisions are in line with cultural expectations. Jacob is MOST likely in the _____ level of morality. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. formal operational ANSWER: b 164. Most moral decisions that Gwen makes are based on ethical principles surrounding justice, dignity, and equality. Gwen is MOST likely in the _____ level of morality. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. formal operational ANSWER: c 165. Charat's cousins want to sneak into the theatre of an R-rated movie even though they got tickets for a PGrated movie. Charat told them, "Someone could stop us and kick us out." Charat's response BEST illustrates the _____ level of moral development. a. preconventional b. assimilation c. postconventional d. preoperational ANSWER: a 166. Shruti's partner wants to use an extra-large cup for their self-serve soft drink at a fast-food restaurant even though they only paid for a small. Shruti told them, "We have to follow the rules. What if everyone stole?"

Shruti's response BEST exemplifies the _____ level of moral development. .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. accommodation ANSWER: b 167. Whitney's brother wants Whitney to lie to her parents about him going to a party. Whitney told him, "Lying to our parents undermines our respect to them and isn't right." Whitney's response BEST exemplifies the _____ level of moral development. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. scaffolding ANSWER: c 168. _____ is a person's stable sense of who he or she is. a. Self-efficacy b. Identity c. Identification d. Self-esteem ANSWER: b 169. A primary challenge of adolescence is figuring out who we are and discovering our: a. schemas. b. attachment. c. temperament. d. identity.

ANSWER: d 170. Fifteen-year-old Seth spends a great deal of time drawing and submitting their art to competitions. When someone asks Seth how things are going, Seth always talks about their life in terms of their art. Seth sees themself as an artist, and they seem to have a stable sense of: a. attachment. b. temperament. c. identity. d. accommodation.

ANSWER: c 171. In Erikson's psychosocial theory of development, each of the eight stages is characterized by a(n): a. stage. b. crisis. .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. unknown. d. step.

ANSWER: b 172. In Erikson's psychosocial theory of development, during a stage, a _____ must be successfully met to produce a _____ that can benefit the person from that point forward. a. crisis; virtue b. virtue; conflict c. conflict; virtue d. virtue; crisis ANSWER: a 173. In Erikson's psychosocial theory of development, during a stage, if the crisis is successfully met, it produces a _____ that can benefit the person from that point forward. a. virtue b. conflict c. question d. solution ANSWER: a 174. Hope is the virtue that is achieved during which stage of Erikson's psychosocial theory of development? a. autonomy versus shame and doubt b. industry versus inferiority c. trust versus mistrust d. identity versus role confusion ANSWER: c 175. Will is the virtue that is achieved during which stage of Erikson's psychosocial theory of development? a. initiative versus guilt b. industry versus inferiority c. trust versus mistrust d. autonomy versus shame and doubt ANSWER: d 176. Purpose is the virtue that is achieved during which stage of Erikson's psychosocial theory of development? a. identity versus role confusion b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. initiative versus guilt d. ego integrity versus despair ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 177. Competence is the virtue that is achieved during which stage of Erikson's psychosocial theory of development? a. industry versus inferiority b. ego integrity versus despair c. identity versus role confusion d. initiative versus guilt ANSWER: a 178. Fidelity is the virtue that is achieved during which stage of Erikson's psychosocial theory of development? a. industry versus inferiority b. identity versus role confusion c. generativity versus stagnation d. intimacy versus isolation ANSWER: b 179. Love is the virtue that is achieved during which stage of Erikson's psychosocial theory of development? a. ego integrity versus despair b. generativity versus stagnation c. identity versus role confusion d. intimacy versus isolation ANSWER: d 180. Care is the virtue that is achieved during which stage of Erikson's psychosocial theory of development? a. generativity versus stagnation b. ego integrity versus despair c. intimacy versus isolation d. identity versus role confusion ANSWER: a 181. Wisdom is the virtue that is achieved during which stage of Erikson's psychosocial theory of development? a. generativity versus stagnation b. ego integrity versus despair c. industry versus inferiority d. initiative versus guilt ANSWER: b 182. Which stage of Erikson's psychosocial theory of development is presented in the appropriate order? a. generativity versus stagnation → industry versus inferiority → trust versus mistrust b. trust versus mistrust → intimacy versus isolation → ego integrity versus despair c. industry versus inferiority → autonomy versus shame and doubt → generativity versus stagnation d. initiative versus guilt → trust versus mistrust → ego integrity versus despair .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 183. Babies' experiences during the first few months of life teach them whether they can rely on others for their needs or not. Babies, therefore, are in the _____ stage of psychosocial development. a. autonomy versus shame and doubt b. initiative versus guilt c. trust versus mistrust d. identity versus role confusion ANSWER: c 184. When adolescents go through identity versus role confusion, the fundamental question they are trying to answer is: a. can I be in a relationship? b. can I determine who I am? c. can I keep up with my peers? d. can I contribute something valuable?

ANSWER: b 185. A _____ is a tolerance for rapidly shifting identities that adolescents may go through. a. diffusion b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. delay ANSWER: c 186. To avoid a state of role confusion, an adolescent must find the ability to stay true to who he or she is, even when life circumstances change. This is known as: a. consistency. b. stableness. c. fidelity. d. identity.

ANSWER: c 187. _____ is a long-term emotional closeness with a romantic partner. a. Identity b. Relationship c. Isolation d. Intimacy ANSWER: d 188. Johan never wanted to settle down. He enjoyed going out with many different people and having a lot of fun. He then met Kayla and all of his ideals changed. Suddenly, Johan was thinking about marriage and a family .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice with Kayla. Erikson would say that Johan has achieved a sense of: a. identity. b. generativity. c. intimacy. d. inferiority.

ANSWER: c 189. Erikson believed that success at the young adult stage depended heavily on success at the _____ stage. a. adolescent b. preschool c. elementary school d. infancy ANSWER: a 190. _____ is a time when relationships with parents are often tense but not usually overwhelmingly difficult. a. Young adulthood b. Adolescence c. Elementary school years d. Emerging adulthood ANSWER: b 191. Starting in adolescence, girls show an increase in _____ symptoms of psychological disorders, while boys show an increase in _____ symptoms of psychological disorders. a. healthy; unhealthy b. externalizing; internalizing c. unhealthy; healthy d. internalizing; externalizing ANSWER: d 192. All of these are major differences between friendships in the adolescent years and friendships in childhood, EXCEPT that in adolescent friendships: a. much of the time is spent unsupervised. b. there tend to be larger groups of friends than in childhood. c. there is a lot of rough-and-tumble play. d. boys and girls will now hang out together.

ANSWER: c 193. Camilla has just started dating a boy in her class. He is very popular, and Camilla hopes that she will become popular now too. Whenever they go out on dates, it is always with a large group of people. Camilla is MOST likely what age? a. 12 b. 14 .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. 16 d. 18 ANSWER: b 194. Juan has been dating Amelia for 5 months. They have enjoyed many dates alone at the movies and amusement parks, but they still enjoy being part of dates with multiple couples. They were set up together by Juan's friend. Juan is MOST likely what age? a. 12 b. 14 c. 16 d. 18 ANSWER: c 195. Roberta and Maxwell are in a serious relationship. They spend all of their free time together and rarely see their friends anymore. What age is Roberta MOST likely to be? a. 12 b. 14 c. 16 d. 18 ANSWER: d 196. In modern Western cultures, the time period when a person gradually moves from adolescence to adulthood is called: a. young adulthood. b. middle adulthood. c. emerging adulthood. d. adulthood.

ANSWER: c 197. Torrie wanted to go away for college when she graduated high school, but she decided to live with her parents for a few more years. She still relies on them for housing, cooked meals, and laundry, but she has a parttime job and is working toward moving out. The developmental period that BEST describes Torrie would be: a. adolescence. b. preoperational. c. adulthood. d. emerging adulthood.

ANSWER: d 198. _____ is the developmental stage that covers a lot of years and includes a lot of variety in development through those years. a. Adulthood b. Emerging adulthood .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. Adolescence d. Youth ANSWER: a 199. In _____ adulthood, the body and the brain will peak, with many people reaching their prime. a. emerging b. middle c. older d. young ANSWER: d 200. During _____ adulthood, the functioning of our brains and bodies gradually declines. We may develop age spots, wrinkles, and lose some height. a. emerging b. young c. middle d. older ANSWER: c 201. _____ is when women stop having their menstrual periods. a. Menarche b. Menopause c. Premenopause d. Perimenopause ANSWER: b 202. Kantha has been experiencing frequent hot flashes, fatigue, and depression. Since Kantha is 56 years of age, her friend suggests she may be experiencing: a. menarche. b. andropause. c. puberty. d. menopause.

ANSWER: d 203. Which statement would BEST support the idea that the interaction of nature and nurture (particularly experience) continues to shape the brain through middle adulthood? a. Jirada, an ER doctor, is better at making quick decisions than they were as an inexperienced resident. b. Zane, a massage therapist, has decided to teach massage due to his sore back. c. Malti, a scientist, gives a presentation on their new research findings. d. Shaquana, a manager, earned a promotion at her job for continuing to perform well.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice 204. Which one of the developmental stages extends further today than it ever has in the past? a. childhood b. emerging adulthood c. middle adulthood d. older adulthood ANSWER: d 205. Which of these is LEAST likely to occur during older adulthood? a. decreased sensory abilities b. arthritis c. increased physical strength d. osteoporosis ANSWER: c 206. Which habit can reduce the chances of serious medical problems during older adulthood? a. trying new foods b. regular exercise c. drinking wine d. attending religious services ANSWER: b 207. All of these are examples of how cognitive functioning changes in middle adulthood, EXCEPT: a. we process information a bit more slowly. b. we take more time to make decisions and solve problems. c. our reaction time slows a bit. d. our working memory fails completely.

ANSWER: d 208. _____ is a term used to explain any brain disorder in which the main symptom is a steep decline in overall mental functioning. a. Alzheimer's disease b. Dementia c. Senility d. Parkinson's disease ANSWER: b 209. Sofia is 82 years old, and she is showing signs of disrupted cognitive processes. She forgets where she is going and often gets lost just on the way to the grocery store. Sofia will MOST likely be diagnosed with: a. major depressive disorder. b. Parkinson's disease. c. Alzheimer's disease. .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice d. separation anxiety.

ANSWER: c 210. All of these are risk factors for Alzheimer's disease, EXCEPT: a. genes. b. unhealthy lifestyle. c. age. d. sleeping too much.

ANSWER: d 211. One of the reasons that young adults are getting married later in life is MOST likely due to: a. the rise of cohabitation. b. people having multiple careers. c. improved finances. d. lack of commitment.

ANSWER: a 212. All of these are risk factors for divorce, EXCEPT: a. psychological problems. b. unfair division of household labor. c. promotion at work with increased income. d. divorced parents.

ANSWER: c 213. By middle adulthood, when we have moved into the generativity versus stagnation stage of development, our _____ becomes our primary focus. a. self b. relationship c. work d. identity ANSWER: c 214. Parents in middle adulthood can become depressed or otherwise struggle emotionally to adjust to a home without kids. This idea has become known as: a. empty nest syndrome. b. sandwich generation. c. fly-away syndrome. d. graduation mourning.

ANSWER: a 215. Terri and Todd have opened their home to Todd's parents. Todd's parents need significant help with daily tasks as well as rides to doctor appointments. Terri and Todd are engaging in: .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice a. compassion outreach. b. eldercare. c. caretaking. d. service outreach.

ANSWER: b 216. One of the milestones that is MOST likely to happen in middle adulthood that brings great joy is: a. becoming a grandparent. b. children graduating high school. c. experiencing empty nest syndrome. d. becoming part of the sandwich generation.

ANSWER: a 217. When we move beyond middle adulthood and into older adulthood, we enter the _____ stage of psychosocial development. a. intimacy versus isolation b. identity versus role confusion c. generativity versus stagnation d. integrity versus despair ANSWER: d 218. Henrietta loves to visit with her grandchildren, especially when they want Henrietta to reminisce and tell stories from her past. This looking-back process is called: a. story-telling. b. life review. c. powerful memories. d. sharing the past.

ANSWER: b 219. In our older years, we develop _____, a sense of expertise and good judgment about life decisions that come from the lessons of our own experiences. a. intelligence b. common sense c. wisdom d. memory ANSWER: c 220. According to the common five-stage sequence of the awareness of dying, when a person says, "No, that doctor is wrong. I want a second opinion," that person is MOST likely in which stage? a. bargaining b. acceptance .

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Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice c. anger d. denial ANSWER: d 221. According to the common five-stage sequence of the awareness of dying, when a person says, "This is so unfair! Why do I have to die?" they are MOST likely in which stage? a. bargaining b. acceptance c. anger d. denial ANSWER: c 222. According to the common five-stage sequence of the awareness of dying, when a person says, "I will do the chemo, but then can I stay alive?" they are MOST likely in which stage? a. bargaining b. acceptance c. anger d. denial ANSWER: a 223. According to the common five-stage sequence of the awareness of dying, when a person says, "It's no use.

Nothing ever works out anyway," they are MOST likely in which stage? a. depression b. acceptance c. anger d. denial ANSWER: a 224. According to the common five-stage sequence of the awareness of dying, when a person says, "I am ready and I understand," they are MOST likely in which stage? a. bargaining b. acceptance c. anger d. denial ANSWER: b

.

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Chapter 10 - Essay 1. Describe what a statistically typical citizen of the United States is like along three dimensions of diversity.

Explain intersectionality and give an example of a combination of three diversity factors that are different from those you used above and that may result in discrimination or unequal treatment.

ANSWER: People are diverse across dimensions such as race, ethnicity, language, religion, age, sexual orientation, education, income, where they are from, and ability/disability status. The "typical" American is White, speaks English, is Christian, is under the age of 60, identifies as heterosexual, is educated at a high school level, has a household income of about $58,000 a year, is from a city, and is not disabled. Intersectionality describes the way any one person's unique combination of social and cultural categories interact, and it is especially related to discrimination or unequal treatment.

For example, a person who is Black, transgender, and from a poor rural area may find it more difficult to navigate the college application process than a more "typical" American.

2. Define the concept of culture and discuss how dynamic sizing relates to successfully interacting with people of cultures that differ from your own. Experiences can be quite different for people of different cultures – discuss three examples of how people with a culture different from your own might experience the college application process differently that you did.

ANSWER: A culture is a set of shared beliefs, values, and patterns of behavior within a group of people.

Dynamic sizing is understanding the beliefs, values, and patterns of behavior that are the norm for a group but also understanding that those norms may not apply to every person in that group.

Applying for college may be different for people of different socioeconomic status (can I afford this university or get scholarships there?), disability status (is the campus accessible?), race or ethnicity and gender and/or sexuality (will I experience discrimination on the campus or the city it is in?), religion (is the university I'm interested in have a religious affiliation that I must subscribe to?), and support from family based on education levels (is going to college really worth it?).

3. What is a worldview? Provide one example each for when you experienced culture shock (a) in a culture outside of your own and (b) within a subculture of your own culture.

ANSWER: A worldview is a comprehensive, culturally influenced way of approaching and understanding the world around you. However, even someone with a diverse and sensitive worldview can experience culture shock – feeling disoriented or bewildered in an unfamiliar situation. An example of experiencing culture shock in a situation outside of one's set of shared beliefs, values, and patterns of behavior would be if a straight man went to a gay bar in the middle of a drag show. An example of experiencing culture shock within a subculture would be a neuroscience major talking with an art design major about the experiments with rats that she is performing for her thesis project; since they are both students completing thesis projects, she'd expect him to be intrigued, but if he is also a vegan opposed to animal use for human benefit, he may have a very different reaction to animal research and may even feel disoriented by the discussion.

4. Compare and contrast the deficit model of multiculturalism and the culturally disadvantaged model of multiculturalism. Discuss how each model would interpret this scenario: a kindergarten teacher assigned sight words for their students to memorize and be tested on. On the spelling test, a group of students with similar characteristics performed significantly below average on the test. The other students performed at the average or above range.

ANSWER: In both the deficit model and the culturally disadvantaged model of multiculturalism, one culture is perceived as the standard by which all other cultures are judged. Any differences from the standard culture are thought to be shortcomings of the comparison culture. However, in the deficit model, the .

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Chapter 10 - Essay shortcomings are thought to be due to innate characteristics, whereas, in the culturally disadvantaged model, the shortcomings are thought to be due to social and environmental factors.

The deficit model of multiculturalism would say that the group that performed significantly below average lack the ability to do well on this type of task. This lack of ability is due to genetic differences within the group. The group's lack of ability is viewed as an inborn shortcoming. The culturally disadvantaged model will also say that the group lacks the ability to do well on this type of task. However, in this model, the reason for the lack of ability is attributed to social and environmental factors, although it is still considered a shortcoming.

5. Compare and contrast the cultural pluralism model of multiculturalism and the positive psychology model of multiculturalism. Discuss how each model would interpret this scenario: A researcher conducts a study examining problem-solving skills in two groups. One group performed significantly better than the other on the problem-solving task.

ANSWER: In both the cultural pluralism and positive psychology models, no one culture is perceived as the standard by which all other cultures are judged. In the cultural pluralism model, differences are not considered to be shortcomings but rather naturally occurring variations between cultures. In the positive psychology model, cultural differences are viewed even more strongly as strengths and virtues that should be celebrated. The cultural pluralism model would say that the two groups in the study have different problem-solving abilities but that this did not suggest one group's abilities were superior or inferior to the other. Rather, their abilities were natural variations that occur in problemsolving ability. They might also say that if examined with a different task, each group may show a different level of aptitude in solving problems. The positive psychology model would also say the groups have different problem-solving abilities but neither group has inherently better or worse skills than the other. This model would go a step further and say that the different types of abilities should be viewed in a positive way. The differences are strengths for each group.

6. Define the psychological approach of multiculturalism and why it is sometimes described as the "fourth force" in psychology. Describe two ways that multiculturalism has been infused into the practice of modern psychology.

ANSWER: Multiculturalism is a psychological approach that highlights the importance and value of multiple cultural groups within a society. It is a dominant movement in psychology that enhances other facets of psychology like psychoanalysis, behaviorism, and humanism; thus, it can be considered psychology's "fourth force." An appreciation for multiculturalism can be seen in psychology based on the change in models of how cultural differences are understood (e.g., deficit model vs. positive psychology); APA divisions devoted to multicultural or diversity-related topics; journals that publish specifically on these topics; revisions to the profession's Code of Ethics that require sensitivity to cultural issues during research, assessment, and practice; culture-fair revisions to assessment tests; and information added to the DSM-5 that provides information on how various disorders can be experienced differently by members of different cultures.

7. Define acculturation and the four strategies for approaching it. Consider this scenario: Dena is from a small rural town where she has not told anyone that she is a lesbian because she has reason to believe it would not be viewed as acceptable. She received a scholarship to the university located in a large, diverse city a 4-hour drive from her hometown. Describe how Dena might use each strategy to acculturate to college life in a big city, and what behaviors and feelings she might have in doing so.

ANSWER: Acculturation is how one manages a life that involves the coexistence of more than one culture. .

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Chapter 10 - Essay Acculturation involves determining how much of the old culture is maintained and how much of the new is adopted. There are four acculturation strategies: integration, separation, marginalization, and assimilation. Integration occurs when a person retains the old culture and also adopts the new culture. If Dena integrates her hometown and city culture, she might participate in some of the LGBTQ+ associations on her campus, perhaps come out as lesbian to a few people, but hide her identity as a sexual minority when she visits her hometown. Separation is when a person rejects the new culture and maintains the old culture. If Dena separates, she may not come out and reject any association with the LGBTQ+ community on campus. Assimilation occurs when a person rejects the old culture and adopts the new culture. If Dena assimilates into city life, she might completely come out as lesbian despite the feelings toward it in her hometown and become president of the LGBTQ+ society on her campus. Marginalization is when a person rejects both the new culture and the old culture. If Dena chooses marginalization, she might try to ignore her sexuality and instead focus on other aspects of her identity both when on campus and in her hometown.

8. Compare and contrast the acculturation strategies of assimilation and separation. Give a real-life example of each.

ANSWER: Assimilation and separation are essentially opposite one another, but both involve choosing one culture over another. Assimilation occurs when a person adopts the values, beliefs, and behaviors of a new culture, abandoning those of the culture of origin. A person will associate more strongly with the new culture than the old. Separation occurs when a person rejects the values, beliefs, and behaviors and retains those of the culture of origin. Involvement with the new culture is typically unwanted or minimized.

[Example for assimilation: A girl moves from Brazil to the United States when she is 15. She is now 25 years old. Today, she only speaks English and rarely, if ever, speaks Portuguese. In fact, she cannot remember much of the Portuguese language. She dresses in a typically American way and has interests similar to many other 25-year-old Americans. Often, she has issues with her parents because they believe she has become too American and has abandoned her culture of origin.]

[Example for separation: An American man moved to China for work a year ago. Although he speaks Chinese, the man only does so when necessary. His friends are all other Americans living in China. He rarely eats Chinese food and primarily eats traditionally American meals. He does not feel connected to the Chinese culture and only engages with it when he has to.]

[Actual student examples will vary.]

9. Differentiate between the acculturation strategies of integration and marginalization. Define acculturative stress. Which acculturation strategy is associated with the worst management of acculturation stress and with the poorest mental health outcomes? Identify two factors besides acculturation strategy that predict good adjustment to acculturation.

ANSWER: Marginalization and integration are essentially opposites of one another. Marginalization occurs when a person rejects the values, beliefs, and behaviors of both the new culture and the culture of origin. A person who uses this strategy does not identity with either culture. Integration is an acculturation strategy in which the person adopts the values, beliefs, and behaviors of the new culture while also retaining the values, beliefs, and behaviors of the culture of origin. In this strategy, the person has melded the two cultures and identifies with both. Acculturative stress is the stress associated with the process of managing old and new cultures. Different acculturation strategies have been found to be more successful in the management of acculturative stress, with marginalization typically being the worst. Other factors that predict good adjustment include personality factors (extroversion, agreeableness, stability), younger age, high education, high .

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Chapter 10 - Essay socioeconomic status, and high levels of social support from people in both the new and old cultures.

10. Hofstede and other researchers posit that there are six fundamental value sets that diverse cultures hold – name them. Describe attributes of three of these value sets that best describe the majority culture of the United States.

ANSWER: The six value sets seen across diverse cultures are: (1) individualism vs. collectivism, (2) large vs. small power distance, (3) assertiveness vs. caring, (4) avoidance vs. acceptance of uncertainty, (5) indulgence vs. restraint, and (6) long- vs. short-term orientation. The United States, according to this profile, has a culture high in individualism, which means that members are more focused on the well-being of the individual over that of the group. The United States is also higher in indulgence, which means that Americans are generally more hedonistic and take pleasure in life rather than acting in a more controlled or reserved manner. Members of U.S. culture also tend to have a shorterterm orientation, meaning that they see quick results as important and goals that bring immediate results are the priority.

11. Compare and contrast individualism and collectivism. Then explain what a person from an individualistic culture and one from a collectivistic culture would likely do in this situation: a person is working on a group project and thinks she has an idea that is very helpful, but the others in the group do not agree. Their preference is for another idea, one that she does not think is helpful.

ANSWER: Individualism is a worldview that emphasizes the well-being of the individual over the well-being of the group. Independence and self-sufficiency are expected. The wishes of the individual are more important than the wishes of the group. Collectivism is the opposite of individualism. Instead of the focus on the individual, the focus is on the group. The well-being of the group is emphasized over the well-being of the individual. Dependence on others and providing care to others is expected. The needs and wishes of the group are more important than those of an individual. People from an individualistic society would be much more likely to push for their own idea than people from a collectivistic society. They would hold the view that their own idea was preferable to the other idea and would not go along with it just because that's what the rest of the group preferred. The focus is on what is best for the person. On the other hand, people from a collectivistic society would most likely go along with the wishes of the group for the other idea. Even though people may feel their own idea is better, they will feel that the wishes of the group are more important than their own. The focus is on what is best for the group.

12. How might two cultural groups differ in meaningful ways that impact day-to-day life? Define along four different dimensions how specific thoughts, behaviors, and feelings might differ between people of two cultural groups. Provide four specific examples along those four different dimensions explained by the text.

ANSWER: Diversity impacts how people define their identity. For example, members of collectivist cultures describe themselves in the context of a group rather than based on individual attributes, like members of individualistic cultures more often do. Diversity impacts how people raise their children. For example, parents with low levels of education are more likely to use physical punishment. Diversity impacts how people report their feelings. For example, members of individualistic cultures report feeling happy more frequently across the day than do members of collectivist cultures, who report feeling more neutral. Diversity impacts reported memory. For example, members of individualistic cultures report more childhood memories than do members of collectivist cultures. Diversity impacts perception, especially that related to vision. For example, .

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Chapter 10 - Essay people whose surroundings are less "carpentered" have less trouble with the Müller–Lyer illusion than do people whose surroundings are full of right angles. Diversity affects help-seeking behavior, especially in relation to mental health issues. For example, African American individuals seek help less frequently and end treatment earlier than do White individuals. Diversity impacts sex life. For example, members of individualistic cultures report more knowledge about and experience with sex than do members of collectivist cultures. Diversity impacts social media use. For example, African American students reveal more about themselves on social media than do White students.

13. Define cultural intelligence and describe how you might show cultural intelligence along three diversity variables that are labeled in the ADDRESSING model. Define cultural humility and describe why it is important to have alongside cultural intelligence.

ANSWER: Cultural intelligence is your ability to live and interact effectively in a multicultural society where individuals differ in Age/generation, Disabilities present since birth, Disabilities acquired later in life, Religion/spiritual orientation, Ethnicity/race, Socioeconomic status, Sexual orientation, Indigenous heritage, National origin, and Gender; these variables make up the ADDRESSING model.

Examples: a culturally intelligent person may make sure a restaurant is wheelchair accessible before inviting their friend who is a wheelchair user, may ask a man if he has a partner rather than a girlfriend, and not serve pork to their friend who is of Jewish decent. Actual student examples and explanations will vary.

Cultural humility is the recognition that no one can know everything about or appreciate the impact of cultural factors on another person's experience. Cultural humility is important as an attitude that promotes self-reflection and a growth mindset regarding multiculturalism.

14. Define the concept of microaggressions. Give three real-life examples of microaggressions and explain how they are microaggressions.

ANSWER: Microaggressions are behaviors or comments that are hostile or demeaning. Typically, the focus of the microaggression is toward a nondominant group. This includes ethnic minorities, women, and sexual minorities. Microaggressions can be intentional or unintentional and tend to be relatively minor actions compared to larger ones such as discrimination and violence. However, the cumulative effects of microaggressions can be serious. They include physical and mental health issues.

[Examples: saying "that's so gay"; asking an African American person if you can touch their hair; calling a transgender person by their dead name. The explanations for how each example qualifies as a microaggression will depend on the example. For example, "that's so gay" suggests that being gay is bad or undesirable. Calling a transgender person by their dead name suggests that their gender is invalid. Actual student examples and explanations will vary.]

15. Define sex, gender, and gender identity. What term describes an individual whose sex matches their gender identity, and what describes an individual whose sex does not match their gender identity? Give two specific examples of how an individual whose sex does not match their gender identity may transition to the gender that matchers their identity.

ANSWER: Sex is your biological assignment at birth and is typically based on genitals, chromosomes, and hormones. Gender refers to your culture's social, psychological, and behavioral expectations related to the sex you were assigned at birth. Gender identity is one's internal sense of oneself as a man, woman, both, or neither. Sex and gender identity are not interchangeable, as sex assigned at birth .

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Chapter 10 - Essay does not always match a person's gender identity. If a person's sex matches their gender identity, they are referred to a cisgender. A person whose gender identity differs from the sex they were assigned at birth would be referred to as transgender. A transgender person may choose to take steps to live as the gender that matches their identity rather than their sex assigned at birth, which is known as transitioning. A person may undergo name and pronoun changes, clothing and appearance changes, and hormonal and surgical alterations to transition.

16. Describe three factors that heavily influence gender development. Give specific examples of how each could influence.

ANSWER: Parents influence gender development; for example, some parents will not let boy children play with dolls or with anything pink, whereas girl children may not be allowed to play with cars and would be presented with toy kitchens. Peers influence gender development, especially in the preteen years; for example, negative feedback would be provided by peers if a girl wanted to play football, or a boy wanted to start a knitting club. The media also influences gender development; for example, men on TV shows are typically portrayed as the experts whereas the women are helpless and concerned mostly about attractiveness.

17. What is sexual orientation? Describe three different sexual orientations. What does it mean for a person to "come out" about their sexual orientation? Describe one positive and one negative impact that "coming out" may have on mental health.

ANSWER: Sexual orientation is a person's patterns of sexual and/or romantic attraction to a particular group or groups of other people. A heterosexual orientation means a person is attracted to people with a sex or gender different from their own; it's also called being straight. A person who is gay or lesbian is attracted to people with a sex or gender the same as their own. A bisexual orientation means a person is attracted to people of more than one sex or gender. Sexual orientations also include pansexual (attracted to anyone, regardless of the other person's gender), sex fluid (attracted to different people at different times), questioning (still in the process of examining or reexamining who they find attractive), and asexual (sexually attracted to no one). An individual whose sexual orientation is a minority may or may not choose to "come out," which means to reveal their sexual orientation to themselves and/or others. Being "out" can allow a person to be authentic and find partners with whom they wish to be with, but it can also expose them to prejudice and discrimination. Research suggests that people who have not "come out" have a higher risk of depression and anxiety, but also a lower risk of substance use issues.

18. A new reality competition show recently premiered on TV. The show consists of several teams of people who had to develop and launch a new business within one week. The business that earned the most money after a month won the competition. Each team consisted of two people. The people chosen for each team were different from one another to see how they would work together. For example, one team consisted of an older adult and a young adult. The winning team was a man named Matt and a woman named Meghan. Neither had previous business experience. None of the participants knew each other prior to the show. Considering the research findings on gender differences, how would you predict the man and woman would interact with one another as they worked together on their business?

ANSWER: The way Matt and Meghan approach the task and each other will likely differ in several ways. One key way in which they differ is in how they communicate. Meghan will likely interact with Matt in a way that emphasizes listening and compassion in order to solve the tasks needed to win the competition. Matt will be more likely than Meghan to interrupt her and others while they are .

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Chapter 10 - Essay speaking. He may try to dominate the conversation by speaking loudly. Matt will probably also speak at more length than Meghan. Matt's approach will be more likely than Meghan's to focus on problem solving. Another way Meghan and Matt may differ is in how they express their emotions.

Reality shows such as these try to get emotional reactions from the contestants, both happy and sad.

Although women and men both feel the same types of emotions, Matt will likely show his less openly than Meghan. For instance, Meghan's facial expressions will likely be more reflective of her emotions than Matt's will be. Meghan is also more likely to cry at both the happy and the challenging moments of the competition. A final way the two may differ is in their personality.

When approaching tasks and when working with one another, Meghan may have a tendency to be more cooperative and compliant, although she may also be more prone to experiencing anxiety and sadness. Matt could show more receptiveness to the unfamiliar challenges the two will face.

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 1. The U.S. Census Bureau reports that the majority of the American population is: a. White. b. African American. c. people of color. d. Native American.

ANSWER: a 2. The largest minority group in the United States is: a. African American. b. Hispanic. c. Asian. d. Native American.

ANSWER: b 3. A person who identifies as _____ is part of the largest minority group in the United States. a. African American b. Asian c. Hispanic d. Native American ANSWER: c 4. The second largest minority group in the United States is: a. Hispanic. b. Asian. c. Native American. d. African American.

ANSWER: d 5. Approximately what percentage of people in the United States speak a language other than English at home? a. 40 b. 30 c. 20 d. 10 ANSWER: c 6. After English, the language most people speak in the United States at home is: a. French. b. Spanish. c. Tagalog. d. Arabic.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 7. In a classroom exercise, you are asked to pair up with another person for an activity. For the activity, you both will discuss the languages spoken in your homes. Based on the characteristics of residents of the United States, you would expect the language(s) spoken in your partner's home to MOST likely be: a. Spanish. b. French. c. Arabic. d. English.

ANSWER: d 8. During first-year student orientation, you are asked to pair up with another person for an activity in which you discuss your home life. You learn that English is not the language that your partner speaks at home. Based on the characteristics of residents of the United States, you would expect the language spoken in your partner's home to MOST likely be: a. Spanish. b. French. c. Japanese. d. Arabic.

ANSWER: a 9. It is _____ likely to meet someone who speaks a language other than English at home in a large city as compared to a rural area. a. less b. more c. not at all d. equally ANSWER: b 10. In the United States, the most common religious affiliation is: a. Christianity. b. Judaism. c. Islam. d. Buddhism.

ANSWER: a 11. Sandra is a citizen of the United States. Her religious affiliation is MOST likely: a. Christianity. b. Judaism. c. Islam. d. Hinduism.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 12. Statistically speaking, an American will MOST likely identify with which religion? a. Judaism b. Islam c. Buddhism d. Christianity ANSWER: d 13. During a back-to-school picnic put on by your university, a student starts talking about their religious affiliation. Because your university is in the United States, the student is MOST likely to describe their religious affiliation as: a. Christian. b. Islamic. c. Buddhist. d. agnostic.

ANSWER: a 14. In recent years, the trends among the United States' religious diversity have included a(n) _____ in the number of Christians and a(n) _____ in the number of non-Christians and nonreligious people. a. increase; decrease b. increase; increase c. decrease; decrease d. decrease; increase ANSWER: d 15. An average American is _____ years old. a. 27 b. 37 c. 47 d. 58 ANSWER: b 16. The older demographic (age 60+) of Americans has _____ in recent decades and is projected to _____ in the future. a. increased; decrease b. decreased; decrease c. increased; increase d. decreased; increase ANSWER: c 17. Approximately what percentage of Americans identify as gay, lesbian, or bisexual? a. 2–4 b. 6–8 .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. 9–11 d. 13–15 ANSWER: a 18. It is _____ likely to meet someone who identifies as gay, lesbian, or bisexual in some cities as compared to rural areas. a. less b. more c. not at all d. equally as ANSWER: b 19. The United States has a high school graduation rate of approximately _____%. a. 68 b. 78 c. 88 d. 98 ANSWER: c 20. The United States has a college graduation rate of approximately _____%. a. 23 b. 33 c. 43 d. 53 ANSWER: b 21. Approximately what percentage of Americans earn a graduate degree? a. 2 b. 12 c. 22 d. 32 ANSWER: b 22. Dr. Nyguen has received funding to conduct a study assessing the mental health status of college graduates.

Dr. Nyguen wants to sample people in the city they live near, but they know that it may be difficult to find participants because only about _____% of Americans have graduated from college. a. 13 b. 23 c. 33 d. 43 ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 23. Dr. Paraiso proposes to the Institutional Review Board to conduct a study assessing the stress levels of Native American people. The Institutional Review Board approves his study, but raises concerns about finding participants because only about _____% of Americans are Native American. a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 ANSWER: a 24. The median family income in the United States is $: a. 18,000. b. 38,000. c. 58,000. d. 78,000.

ANSWER: c 25. About _____% of the United States population lives in urban areas of the country. a. 21 b. 31 c. 41 d. 51 ANSWER: b 26. In the United States, approximately _____% of the citizens has been diagnosed with a disability. a. 7 b. 17 c. 27 d. 37 ANSWER: c 27. Sensory and movement challenges, difficulties with personal care, and psychological issues contribute to a person's: a. religious affiliation. b. ethnicity. c. disability status. d. culture.

ANSWER: c 28. How a person's unique combination of social and cultural categories overlap is called _____, and it is especially related to situations where people are discriminated against or treated unequally. a. socioeconomic status b. intersectionality .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. culture d. disability status ANSWER: b 29. Intersectionality is BEST defined as: a. a set of shared beliefs, values, and patterns of behavior within a group of people. b. the way any one person's unique combination of social and cultural categories overlap. c. knowing the norm for a group yet realizing it may not apply to all members of the group. d. a comprehensive culturally influenced way of approaching and understanding the world.

ANSWER: b 30. Dr. Matilda's research program studies the way any one person's unique combination of social and cultural categories overlap, especially as related to discrimination or unequal treatment. Dr. Matilda's research MOST likely focuses on: a. ethnicity. b. intersectionality. c. culture. d. disability status.

ANSWER: b 31. Dr. Rowland studies how being of Asian descent, female, and nonreligious leads to higher levels of discrimination than does being of Asian descent, male, and religious. Dr. Rowland's research MOST likely focuses on: a. socioeconomic status. b. intersectionality. c. culture. d. disability status.

ANSWER: b 32. When the psychological study of intersectionality began, it focused on the experience of being: a. African American and female. b. Asian and gay. c. from a rural area and nonreligious. d. White and male.

ANSWER: a 33. A set of shared beliefs, values, and patterns of behavior within a group of people is called: a. diversity. b. intersectionality. c. worldview. d. culture. .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 34. Culture is BEST defined as: a. a set of shared beliefs, values, and patterns of behavior within a group of people. b. the way any one person's unique combination of social and cultural categories overlap. c. knowing the norm for a group yet realizing it may not apply to all members of the group. d. a comprehensive culturally influenced way of approaching and understanding the world.

ANSWER: a 35. Dr. Weisl's research program studies the beliefs, behaviors, and values of a particular group of people. The topic of Dr. Weisl's research program can be summarized as studying: a. worldview. b. culture. c. intersectionality. d. dynamic sizing.

ANSWER: b 36. Dr. Esty defines herself as a psychologist who studies culture, which means she focuses MOST on studying: a. the sets of shared beliefs, values, and patterns of behavior within a group of people. b. the way any one person's unique combination of social and cultural categories overlap. c. the norms for groups and how they apply or do not apply to all members of the group. d. a comprehensive culturally influenced way of approaching and understanding the world.

ANSWER: a 37. At a new job orientation, employees were asked to introduce themselves. Julietta mentioned she was a woman, 27 years old, Korean, and from Michigan. Julietta went on to explain the values and beliefs important to her as a 27-year-old Korean woman and a Michigander. In her introduction, Julietta described her: a. worldview. b. socioeconomic status. c. culture. d. multiculturalism.

ANSWER: c 38. A comprehensive way in which a person approaches and understands their environment and experiences within it is called: a. worldview. b. dynamic sizing. c. culture. d. multiculturalism.

ANSWER: a 39. Worldview is BEST defined as: .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice a. a set of shared beliefs, values, and patterns of behavior within a group of people. b. the way any one person's unique combination of social and cultural categories overlap. c. knowing the norm for a group yet realizing it may not apply to all members of the group. d. a comprehensive culturally influenced way of approaching and understanding the world.

ANSWER: d 40. A political candidate who wants to know how a person approaches and understands the environment and experiences within that environment is interested in that person's: a. culture. b. intersectionality. c. worldview. d. multiculturalism.

ANSWER: c 41. In a class discussion, students were asked to share their ideas and beliefs about a controversial subject.

William discussed what he believed quite strongly about one aspect of the subject. When asked why, William said that it was because of the influence of how he was raised, the people around him, and who he was as a person. The BEST description of what William is talking about is: a. collectivism. b. multiculturalism. c. worldview. d. intersectionality.

ANSWER: c 42. Dynamic sizing is BEST defined as: a. a set of shared beliefs, values, and patterns of behavior within a group of people. b. the way any one person's unique combination of social and cultural categories overlap. c. knowing the norm for a group yet realizing it may not apply to all members of the group. d. a comprehensive culturally influenced way of approaching and understanding the world.

ANSWER: c 43. The ability to simultaneously know the norm for a group and to recognize that the norm might not apply to every member of that group is called: a. dynamic sizing. b. multiculturalism. c. intersectionality. d. worldview.

ANSWER: a 44. Dynamic sizing refers to the ability to simultaneously _____ the norm for the group while _____. a. not know; recognizing that that norm might not apply to every group member b. know; understanding how that norm shapes a group's worldview .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. know; not understanding how that norm shapes a group's worldview d. know; recognizing that that norm might not apply to every group member ANSWER: d 45. Mark's friend recently introduced him to Nate. Nate is from a rural area, and Mark is from the neighboring big city. Mark, who is nonreligious, realizes that people from rural areas are less likely to be nonreligious.

However, Mark is unsure if Nate himself is religious or nonreligious. Mark is demonstrating: a. worldview. b. dynamic sizing. c. subculture. d. intersectionality.

ANSWER: b 46. When the field of psychology first began to address the concept of culture, it was primarily defined as people's: a. race/ethnicity. b. worldview. c. nationality. d. orientation.

ANSWER: a 47. Dr. Yu is a psychologist who began studying culture in the 1970s. Today, Dr. Yu's definition of culture is different from what it was when she first began studying it. In her early work, Dr. Yu MOST likely equated culture with: a. worldview. b. race/ethnicity. c. intersectionality. d. orientation.

ANSWER: b 48. Dr. Suleman is away from her home institution in Zambia to pursue research at the Florida State University during a year-long fellowship. Dr. Suleman has integrated in the research lab at the Florida State University after a couple of days, but she still finds herself feeling not all together comfortable while navigating the college town of Tallahassee, Florida. What Dr. Suleman is experiencing in Tallahassee is BEST described as: a. dynamic sizing. b. intersectionality. c. culture shock. d. assimilation.

ANSWER: c 49. Dr. Gusset works in the Study Abroad office and leads a study assessing the disorientation and bewilderment students may experience when encountering unfamiliar settings during their first week of a .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice semester away. The experience that Dr. Gusset is studying can BEST be described as: a. dynamic sizing. b. assimilation. c. marginalization. d. culture shock.

ANSWER: d 50. Feeling disoriented or bewildered in an unfamiliar situation that involves a significant change in some fundamental aspect of daily life is BEST described as: a. culture shock. b. acculturation. c. assimilation. d. marginalization.

ANSWER: a 51. A group within a larger culture that has specific norms or beliefs that often differs from the larger culture is called a(n): a. association. b. subculture. c. society. d. aggregation.

ANSWER: b 52. Since a minority of 18–21-year-olds attend college, the specific norms or beliefs typical of college students could be considered a(n): a. association. b. subculture. c. society. d. aggregation.

ANSWER: b 53. _____ is an approach in psychology that highlights the importance and value of different groups within a society. a. Acculturation b. Diversity c. Multiculturalism d. Assimilation ANSWER: c 54. Multiculturalism is an approach in psychology that highlights the _____ multiple cultural groups within a society. a. impact of .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice b. similarities among c. concerns of d. importance and value of ANSWER: d 55. Dr. Levin's research program examines how different cultural groups affect a society. Dr. Levin MOST likely studies: a. acculturation. b. dynamic sizing. c. multiculturalism. d. assimilation.

ANSWER: c 56. The focus on _____ in psychology is sometimes called the "fourth force" in psychology's history. a. multiculturalism b. gender c. cultural pluralism d. acculturation ANSWER: a 57. In the current decade, as compared to previous decades, multiculturalism as a focus in psychology: a. is more of a dominant movement. b. has less of an influence. c. has remained the same. d. is not studied at all.

ANSWER: a 58. Multiculturalism as a force in psychology _____ other approaches to psychology, like psychoanalysis, behaviorism, and humanism. a. blends with b. dominates c. negates d. diminishes ANSWER: a 59. In a cognitive psychology class, students learned about several studies on perceptual reasoning ability. In one study, there was little diversity in the study participants; the participants were all White men. In all of the other studies, the study participants were more diverse and representative. Based on what you know about the field of multiculturalism, in which year was the study that included only White males MOST likely done? a. 1950 b. 1980 c. 2000 .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice d. 2020 ANSWER: a 60. The earliest model used by psychologists to understand cultural differences was the _____ model. a. deficit b. culturally disadvantaged c. intersectionality d. positive psychology ANSWER: a 61. In the _____ model of multiculturalism, one culture is perceived as the standard by which all other cultures are judged. Any differences from the standard culture are thought to be shortcomings due to innate characteristics of the comparison culture. a. culturally disadvantaged b. cultural pluralism c. deficit d. positive psychology ANSWER: c 62. Gregg is very set in his ways about how children should be raised. Gregg feels that his views are typical of those held by people around him, and he thinks that the beliefs of anyone who thinks differently from him are inferior. Gregg's perspective aligns BEST with the _____ model of multiculturalism. a. intersectionality b. cultural pluralism c. deficit d. positive psychology ANSWER: c 63. In the _____ model of multiculturalism, one culture is perceived as the standard by which all other cultures are judged. Any differences from the standard culture are thought to be shortcomings of the comparison culture due to social and environmental factors. a. culturally disadvantaged b. cultural pluralism c. deficit d. positive psychology ANSWER: a 64. Dr. Anastasiadis's research program focuses on cultural differences. Dr. Anastasiadis specifically wants to examine the belief that differences in one culture from another are shortcomings due to social and environmental factors. Dr. Anastasiadis's research question BEST aligns with the _____ model of multiculturalism. a. culturally disadvantaged .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice b. cultural pluralism c. deficit d. intersectionality ANSWER: a 65. In the _____ model of multiculturalism, differences displayed by a culture are attributed to innate shortcomings, whereas in the _____ model, differences are attributed to social and environmental factors. a. culturally disadvantaged; cultural pluralism b. deficit; cultural pluralism c. culturally disadvantaged; deficit d. deficit; culturally disadvantaged ANSWER: d 66. In the _____ model of multiculturalism, differences between one culture and another are seen as naturally occurring variations rather than as shortcomings in either culture. a. culturally disadvantaged b. cultural pluralism c. deficit d. positive psychology ANSWER: b 67. Bisha has worked in a research lab since her freshman year and is excited for the opportunity to present a poster on what she's worked on at an upcoming conference. Bisha is working with other students who contributed to the project, and she is getting frustrated because the group cannot agree on the best way to arrange the ideas and data on the poster. Bisha tries to explain to the group that even though they have differing approaches, the data they are presenting are still the same. Bisha's viewpoint corresponds BEST to the _____ model of multiculturalism. a. culturally disadvantaged b. cultural pluralism c. deficit d. positive psychology ANSWER: b 68. In the _____ model of multiculturalism, differences among cultures are considered to be strengths that should be celebrated rather than shortcomings that need correction. a. culturally disadvantaged b. cultural pluralism c. deficit d. positive psychology ANSWER: d 69. A professor assigned group presentations in one of her classes. The professor told the class that in the past, .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice groups have given very different presentations on the same subjects, but that each presentation was unique and valuable. Each presentation had a different perspective that was thoughtful and interesting. The professor's viewpoint on the presentations is MOST similar to which model of multiculturalism? a. culturally disadvantaged b. cultural pluralism c. deficit d. positive psychology ANSWER: d 70. In the _____ model of multiculturalism, differences between cultures are thought to be naturally occurring variations, whereas in the _____ model, differences are thought to be strengths rather than problems. a. cultural pluralism; positive psychology b. positive psychology; cultural pluralism c. cultural pluralism; culturally disadvantaged d. culturally disadvantaged; positive psychology ANSWER: a 71. Psychologists have used different models to understand cultural differences. The most current model is the _____ model. a. deficit b. culturally disadvantaged c. cultural pluralism d. positive psychology ANSWER: d 72. Which two models of multiculturalism posit that differences between cultures are shortcomings compared to standards set by a superior comparison group? a. cultural pluralism and positive psychology b. positive psychology and deficit model c. culturally disadvantaged model and deficit model d. culturally disadvantaged model and cultural pluralism ANSWER: c 73. Which two models of multiculturalism posit that differences between cultures are NOT shortcomings, but rather naturally occurring variations that may even be strengths? a. cultural pluralism and positive psychology b. positive psychology and deficit model c. culturally disadvantaged model and deficit model d. culturally disadvantaged model and cultural pluralism ANSWER: a 74. Which is the correct order of the emergence of models of multiculturalism? .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice a. cultural pluralism → positive psychology → culturally disadvantaged model → deficit model b. positive psychology → deficit model → culturally disadvantaged model → cultural pluralism c. deficit model → culturally disadvantaged model → cultural pluralism → positive psychology d. culturally disadvantaged model → cultural pluralism → positive psychology → deficit model ANSWER: c 75. The walking gait of gay men may differ from those of straight men. The deficit model of multiculturalism would state that: a. both gaits are equally legitimate and worthy. b. the difference is due to an inferior environment. c. the difference is due to an innate deficiency. d. the less typical pattern is a naturally occurring variation.

ANSWER: c 76. The speech patterns of Asian American women may differ from those of White women. The cultural deficiency model of multiculturalism would state that: a. both styles are uniquely impressive and worthy. b. the difference is due to an inferior environment. c. the difference is due to an innate deficiency. d. the less typical pattern is a naturally occurring variation.

ANSWER: b 77. The way in which a neurotypical person approaches a problem may differ from the way a neurodiverse person may approach it. The cultural pluralism model of multiculturalism would state that: a. both styles are uniquely impressive and worthy. b. the difference is due to an inferior environment. c. the difference is due to an innate deficiency. d. the less typical pattern may be a natural variation.

ANSWER: d 78. Individuals who are nonreligious may find different things humorous than individuals who are religious.

The positive psychology model of multiculturalism would state that: a. both styles are naturally occurring variations. b. the difference is due to an inferior environment. c. the difference is due to an innate deficiency. d. the less typical humor style is applaudable.

ANSWER: d 79. Sharmeen is an 8-year-old Indian American child who will be starting third grade next year. Recently, Sharmeen's teacher referred her to be evaluated for her school's gifted program. As a part of that evaluation, Sharmeen took an intelligence test. Compared to intelligence tests in the past, the modern test Sharmeen took is likely: .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice a. more culturally fair. b. highly influenced by Sharmeen's culture. c. less culturally fair. d. as culturally fair as older tests.

ANSWER: a 80. Dr. Alphona wants to study personality facets of African American women. Dr. Alphona chooses to use the most current version of their chosen personality test. The MOST likely reason for this choice is because: a. modern versions are typically easier to use. b. older versions are easier for African American women. c. older versions use concepts not supported by research. d. modern versions are more culturally fair.

ANSWER: d 81. Managing a life that involves the coexistence of more than one culture is BEST defined as: a. dynamic sizing. b. culture shock. c. acculturation. d. cultural intelligence.

ANSWER: c 82. Sabir is from India, but he is currently living in Canada. Sabir will MOST likely experience _____, which is defined as managing a life that involves the coexistence of more than one culture. a. dynamic sizing b. individualism c. cultural pluralism d. acculturation ANSWER: d 83. Benito recently moved from the United States to Colombia. Benito's experience after moving, during which he managed living in a culture different from his own, is called: a. dynamic sizing. b. individualism. c. culture shock. d. acculturation.

ANSWER: d 84. Acculturation is defined as: a. managing a life that involves the coexistence of more than one culture. b. a comprehensive, culturally influenced way of dealing with the world. c. knowing the norm for one group and recognizing that it does not always apply. .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice d. understanding the importance and value of multiple cultural groups within a society.

ANSWER: a 85. Denis is from Turkey, but she just moved to the United States for graduate school. After being in the United States for a few weeks, Denis found that being a Turkish woman in the United States required managing the coexistence of two cultures. Denis's experience in the United States is BEST described as: a. dynamic sizing. b. cultural pluralism. c. worldview. d. acculturation.

ANSWER: d 86. Landry is a sailor in the U.S. Navy. Landry was recently deployed overseas on a tour of duty for 6 months.

Landry will live and work on an aircraft carrier during those 6 months. After being on the ship for a few weeks, Landry found that life onboard was very different than what he was used to. This meant he had to find ways to manage living in this new and unfamiliar setting. Landry's experience is called: a. dynamic sizing. b. individualism. c. worldview. d. acculturation.

ANSWER: d 87. Dr. Riggens is studying the ways in which people manage living in a culture that is not their own. Dr. Riggens is studying: a. dynamic sizing. b. individualism. c. culture shock. d. acculturation.

ANSWER: d 88. The person LEAST likely to undergo acculturation is one who: a. just permanently moved from Canada to China. b. transfers from a college in the Midwest to one in the South. c. travels to an international conference for 5 days. d. is a Fulbright recipient who will teach English in India for a year.

ANSWER: c 89. Peggy just moved to New Zealand from the United States. Peggy studied acculturation and she knows that the acculturation strategy she uses will depend upon her willingness to embrace the culture of New Zealand as well as the extent she _____ her culture of origin. a. understands b. accepts .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. likes d. retains ANSWER: d 90. Which of these is an acculturation strategy? a. separation b. adjustment c. orientation d. adaptation ANSWER: a 91. The acculturation strategy in which a person adopts the new culture and rejects the old is called: a. separation. b. marginalization. c. assimilation. d. integration.

ANSWER: c 92. Bo moved to the United States from Singapore to attend graduate school. Since being in the United States, Bo has largely adopted American customs and abandoned many aspects of his home culture. For example, Bo no longer speaks Malay or prepares meals like in his native Singapore. Bo's acculturation strategy is BEST defined as: a. separation. b. marginalization. c. assimilation. d. integration.

ANSWER: c 93. If a person moved to another culture and, once there, adopted the new culture but rejected their old culture, that person used the acculturation strategy of: a. separation. b. marginalization. c. assimilation. d. integration.

ANSWER: c 94. The acculturation strategy in which a person retains their old culture and rejects the new culture is called: a. separation. b. marginalization. c. assimilation. d. integration. .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 95. Hamish is a native of Scotland who is a student at a university in Germany. Hamish strongly identifies with Scottish culture and he identifies very little with German culture. The German culture has had little influence on Hamish's clothing, food, and friend choices. Hamish's lifestyle in Germany is very similar to his lifestyle in Scotland because Hamish interacts little with German people outside of the university. Hamish's acculturation strategy is BEST described as: a. separation. b. marginalization. c. assimilation. d. integration.

ANSWER: a 96. After moving to a new culture, a person who retains their culture of origin but rejects the new culture is using the acculturation strategy of: a. separation. b. marginalization. c. assimilation. d. integration.

ANSWER: a 97. The acculturation strategy in which a person rejects both their new culture and their old culture is called: a. separation. b. marginalization. c. assimilation. d. integration.

ANSWER: b 98. Hanka and her family moved from Slovakia to the United States 4 years ago. Hanka's family seems to have acculturated well, but Hanka has had trouble. Hanka feels she is no longer connected to her Slovakian culture, but she also does not feel a new connection to U.S. culture. Hanka's acculturation strategy is BEST described as: a. separation. b. marginalization. c. assimilation. d. integration.

ANSWER: b 99. A person who moves to a new culture and does NOT identify either with their old culture or the new culture is using the acculturation strategy of: a. separation. b. marginalization. .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. assimilation. d. integration.

ANSWER: b 100. The acculturation strategy in which a person adopts both the new culture as well as the old culture is called: a. separation. b. marginalization. c. assimilation. d. integration.

ANSWER: d 101. Yada grew up in Thailand but moved to Australia with her family when she was 12. Since moving, Yada has adapted well to the Australian culture but has also maintained a strong connection to her Thai heritage.

Yada now considers herself to be both Thai and Australian. Yada's acculturation strategy is BEST defined as: a. separation. b. adaptation. c. assimilation. d. integration.

ANSWER: d 102. If a person moves to a new country and eventually identifies with both the culture of that country as well as their culture of origin, that person is using the acculturation strategy of: a. separation. b. marginalization. c. assimilation. d. integration.

ANSWER: d 103. _____ is when a person adopts the new culture but rejects the old one, whereas _____ is when a person retains the old culture and rejects the new one. a. Integration; assimilation b. Separation; marginalization c. Assimilation; separation d. Marginalization; integration ANSWER: c 104. Jalena and Dragan moved from Serbia to Canada. Jalena struggles. She no longer identifies with Serbian culture, but neither does she feel connected to Canadian culture. On the other hand, Dragan adapted well. He identifies both with his native Serbian culture as well as Canadian. Jalena's acculturation strategy is _____, whereas Dragan's acculturation strategy is _____. a. integration; assimilation .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice b. integration; marginalization c. assimilation; integration d. marginalization; integration ANSWER: d 105. Leonor and Ines moved from Portugal to Singapore. Leonor has rejected any culture associated with Singapore and identifies only with Portuguese culture. Ines, on the other hand, has completely rejected her native Portuguese culture and considers herself to be Singaporean. Leonor's acculturation strategy is _____, whereas _____ is Ines's acculturation strategy. a. separation; assimilation b. integration; marginalization c. assimilation; separation d. marginalization; integration ANSWER: a 106. Research suggests that, over time, people's acculturation strategies are MOST likely to move from _____ to _____. a. separation; integration b. integration; marginalization c. integration; separation d. marginalization; integration ANSWER: a 107. A physical or psychological reaction to living between two cultures is called: a. marginalization. b. microaggression. c. dynamic sizing. d. acculturative stress.

ANSWER: d 108. Acculturative stress is defined as: a. feeling disoriented or bewildered with an unfamiliar situation. b. feeling disconnected from your new culture. c. feeling disconnected from your culture of origin. d. the physical or psychological effects that come from living between two cultures.

ANSWER: d 109. Olive moved from her small hometown to a very large city. After her move, Olive found that she dressed, spoke, and behaved very differently than people in her new city. Olive felt pressure from her friends in the new city to be more like them. When Olive visited her small hometown, her family and friends frequently told her that she was changing and acting differently than what they were used to. These experiences likely caused Olive to experience _____, which is a physical or psychological reaction to living between two cultures. .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice a. marginalization b. microaggression c. dynamic sizing d. acculturative stress ANSWER: d 110. Dr. Nicolic works as a telehealth mental health practitioner to support the employees of a large corporation because the corporation's workers often have to move overseas for years at a time. Dr. Nicolic MOST likely helps employees who are experiencing: a. acculturative stress. b. microaggressions. c. intersectionality. d. dynamic sizing.

ANSWER: a 111. The acculturation strategy of _____ has been linked with the best adaptation to stress, whereas the acculturation strategy of _____ has been linked to the worst adaptation to stress. a. integration; separation b. integration; marginalization c. assimilation; marginalization d. assimilation; separation ANSWER: b 112. The acculturation strategy of _____ has been linked to the best adaptation to stress and the fewest psychological problems than other strategies. a. assimilation b. marginalization c. separation d. integration ANSWER: d 113. _____ is the acculturation strategy that typically produces the poorest stress management strategies and overall mental health than other strategies. a. Assimilation b. Marginalization c. Separation d. Integration ANSWER: b 114. Good adjustment to acculturative stress includes each of these factors EXCEPT: a. high level of social support. b. level of intelligence. .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. extraversion. d. level of education.

ANSWER: b 115. The researcher who is associated with identifying the six fundamental values held by diverse cultures is: a. Hofstede. b. Leong. c. Sue. d. Berry.

ANSWER: a 116. In the 1960s, Hofstede first studied underlying fundamental cultural values in which group of people? a. college students b. IBM employees c. recent immigrants d. employees at an auto parts factory ANSWER: b 117. How many fundamental cultural values did Hofstede and his colleagues ultimately identify? a. five b. six c. seven d. eight ANSWER: b 118. _____ is the worldview that emphasizes a person's own well-being over the well-being of others. a. Assertiveness b. Individualism c. Collectivism d. Indulgence ANSWER: b 119. _____ is the worldview that emphasizes the well-being of the group over the well-being of one's own person. a. Assertiveness b. Individualism c. Collectivism d. Restraint ANSWER: c 120. The _____ worldview emphasizes a particular person's well-being over the well-being of the group, .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice whereas the _____ worldview emphasizes the well-being of the group over a particular person. a. assertiveness; caring b. individualistic; collectivistic c. indulgence; restraint d. assertiveness; collectivistic ANSWER: b 121. The _____ worldview emphasizes the question, "what's best for me?" whereas the _____ emphasizes the question, "what's best for us?" a. indulgence; restraint b. individualistic; collectivistic c. collectivistic; individualistic d. restraint; indulgence ANSWER: b 122. After high school, Connor wanted to go to college to be an engineer. His parents, however, thought it best if Connor go to trade school and become an electrician. Ultimately, Connor decided to pursue his dream of getting a degree in engineering. Connor's decision would be MOST likely supported if he and his parent's worldview was: a. avoidant of uncertainty. b. individualistic. c. collectivistic. d. indulgent.

ANSWER: b 123. For as long as she could remember, Fatima wanted to be a veterinarian. Her parents, however, wanted her to take the more lucrative path to a medical degree. Ultimately, Fatima agreed to working toward getting into medical rather than veterinary school while she was in college. Fatima's worldview and that of her parents is MOST likely defined as: a. assertive. b. individualistic. c. collectivistic. d. indulgent.

ANSWER: c 124. Dr. McCain recently completed a large-scale study assessing factors that affect decision making in different cultures. Dr. McCain is specifically interested in determining how much influence a family has on a person's life decisions. Dr. McCain is MOST likely studying which concepts? a. assertiveness and caring b. indulgence and restraint c. individualism and collectivism d. long-term and short-term orientation .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 125. Your student organization just held elections, and you were elected president. You and the rest of the executive board of the organization will be making many decisions in the upcoming year. Although the organization members have input on these decisions, ultimately you and the rest of the executive board will have the final say. Your organization is an example of a culture with: a. high uncertainty avoidance. b. large power distance. c. high assertiveness. d. low indulgence.

ANSWER: b 126. The faculty in the Psychology department at your university rotate being department chair every 3 years.

While the department chair is the voice of the department and represents them at meetings with the deans and the Provost, the department chair only voices decisions unanimously agreed upon by all of the faculty members of the department. Your university's Psychology department is an example of a culture with: a. high uncertainty avoidance. b. small power distance. c. high assertiveness. d. low indulgence.

ANSWER: b 127. The degree to which decision making and authority differ among members of a culture is called: a. uncertainty avoidance. b. individualism. c. power distance. d. assertiveness.

ANSWER: c 128. Which is NOT an example of a characteristic of an assertive culture? a. respect toward those viewed as inferior b. interactions are seen as competitions c. strangers are not to be helped or trusted d. remain vigilant and protect yourself ANSWER: a 129. Cultures in which people are self-protective and competitive are identified as _____, whereas those in which people are trusting and accepting are identified as _____. a. avoidant; accepting of uncertainty b. individualistic; collectivistic c. assertive; caring d. restrained; indulgent .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 130. Cultures that welcome new ideas and have fewer restrictions on people's behaviors than do other cultures demonstrate: a. short-term orientation. b. indulgence. c. caring. d. acceptance of uncertainty.

ANSWER: d 131. In a culture that is accepting of uncertainty: a. tradition is everything. b. there are more laws and guidelines. c. debate is not appreciated. d. novel situations are welcomed.

ANSWER: a 132. A student who maps out all the classes they have to take to graduate in 4 years demonstrates the cultural trait of: a. indulgence. b. restraint. c. long-term orientation. d. caring.

ANSWER: c 133. A culture that has a short-term orientation: a. saves rather than spends. b. prioritizes future rewards over immediate ones. c. will adapt when the going gets tough. d. prioritize immediate results.

ANSWER: d 134. A person who lives in the moment and does whatever feels good to them in that moment demonstrates the cultural trait of: a. individualism. b. restraint. c. indulgence. d. short-term orientation.

ANSWER: c 135. Hedonism is a way of life in which happiness is the primary goal in life. Hedonism is MOST similar to the cultural trait of: .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice a. individualism. b. restraint. c. indulgence. d. short-term orientation.

ANSWER: c 136. In collectivistic cultures, people tend to describe themselves: a. in relation to others. b. in terms of personal characteristics. c. more positively than those in individualistic cultures. d. less positively than those in individualistic cultures.

ANSWER: a 137. Generally, individuals from collectivistic cultures: a. describe themselves in relation to others. b. report more strong feelings. c. experience pride as a good feeling. d. remembering many childhood memories.

ANSWER: a 138. Which statement about culture and feelings is true? a. Persons in individualistic cultures tend to report feeling unhappy in most areas of their lives. b. The majority of cultures tend to report feeling happy in most areas of their lives. c. Some cultures do not have the concept of happiness. d. Some cultures perceive happiness as an undesirable feeling.

ANSWER: b 139. Ahmed lives in a collectivistic society. Ahmed would be LEAST likely to report remembering: a. the birthday party of his best friend. b. his classmates in his favorite class. c. winning the school talent show. d. his hockey team making the playoffs.

ANSWER: c 140. Bella's worldview aligns with those of the average citizen of the United States. Bella would be LEAST likely to report remembering: a. making the dean's list during a college semester. b. receiving the highest grade in the class on an assignment. c. making the winning goal in a volleyball game. d. her cyber security team winning the national championship.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 141. People of different cultures interpret what they see in different ways. This has been demonstrated by _____, the perception that identical lines are actually of different lengths. a. dynamic sizing b. cultural intelligence c. the Müller–Lyer illusion d. long-term orientation ANSWER: c 142. Which ethnicity is the MOST likely to seek mental health treatment? a. Latinx b. African American c. Native American d. White ANSWER: d 143. Cultural influences on sex life include all of these EXCEPT: a. level of knowledge about sex. b. enjoyment of sex. c. age of becoming sexually active. d. motivation for having sex.

ANSWER: b 144. In one study examining the Facebook pages of college students, Black students _____ than White students. a. were less likely to have a Facebook page b. listed less extensive self-descriptions c. listed more group affiliations d. posted fewer selfies ANSWER: c 145. Tyrone, who is Black, and Trevor, who is White, are best friends. Research suggests that on social media: a. Tyrone is more likely to post selfies than Trevor. b. Trevor is more likely to post selfies than Tyrone. c. Tyrone is more likely to post pictures of Trevor. d. Trevor is more likely to post pictures of Tyrone.

ANSWER: a 146. Which statement about cultural influences on social media use is false? a. Faces are more prominent in pictures posted by individuals in individualistic cultures. b. Individuals in collectivistic cultures post more positive self-presentations. c. Women tend to disclose more to their social media friends than do men. .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice d. Older social media users focus more on posts made by family members.

ANSWER: b 147. The ability to live and interact effectively in a multicultural society is called: a. cultural intelligence. b. intersectionality. c. acculturation. d. dynamic sizing.

ANSWER: a 148. Another term for cultural intelligence that is often used by mental health professionals is: a. cultural competence. b. integration. c. acculturation. d. dynamic sizing.

ANSWER: a 149. Cynthia and her book club read a novel in which an Irish widower moved to an island in the Mediterranean with his five sons. The family found their new culture to be very different from their native culture. The food, language, religion, and customs were different than what they were used to. In the book club discussion, Cynthia commented on how effectively the family in the book lived and interacted within their new culture.

Cynthia is referring to the fictional family's: a. intersectionality. b. cultural intelligence. c. culture shock. d. dynamic sizing.

ANSWER: b 150. Dr. Stanley worked with an organization that wanted to develop a course in multiculturalism for their employees. In one part of the course, Dr. Stanley specifically addressed the importance of knowing information about different cultural groups as well as correctly applying that information. What concept is Dr. Stanley specifically focusing on? a. dynamic sizing b. uncertainty avoidance c. cultural intelligence d. microaggressions ANSWER: c 151. To demonstrate cultural intelligence with someone, both of you should know information about each other's culture and: a. correctly apply that information. b. communicate that knowledge to others. .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. not treat that person any differently based on that information. d. verify the correctness of that information with that person.

ANSWER: a 152. Belinda recently started a new job and has made new friends with a few colleagues. Belinda invites her new friends over after work. Belinda knows that her colleague Ashtyn is Mormon and her colleague Raed is Muslim, so neither will drink alcohol. Belinda decides to make a pitcher of a "mocktail," which is a fun tasty drink that has no alcohol. Belinda is demonstrating appropriate: a. dynamic sizing. b. uncertainty avoidance. c. intersectionality. d. cultural intelligence.

ANSWER: d 153. Audrina lives in a diverse neighborhood. Audrina gets along well with her neighbors, and they all are able to work together to keep their neighborhood safe and welcoming. Audrina demonstrates: a. dynamic sizing. b. uncertainty avoidance. c. integration. d. cultural intelligence.

ANSWER: d 154. You recently heard a news story about a diverse group of college students who helped a local community after a hurricane. Although they all attended the same school, they were diverse in terms of ethnicity, gender, and even primary language spoken. The students worked very well together and formed friendships with each other easily. The students demonstrated: a. dynamic sizing. b. uncertainty avoidance. c. integration. d. cultural intelligence.

ANSWER: d 155. Intentional or unintentional behaviors that are demeaning to another culture are called: a. acculturative stress. b. marginalization. c. microaggressions. d. separation.

ANSWER: c 156. Joao is a gay man. His friend, Jahmir, asks Joao to go shopping at the mall for an outfit to wear on a first date because, Jahmir says, "Gay men have such impeccable fashion sense!" Joao tells his friend that this is a stereotype, although he is sure Jahmir meant no harm. Jahmir immediately apologizes, explaining that he wasn't .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice intending to be offensive. Jahmir's statement would be considered a(n): a. cultural pluralism. b. example of dynamic sizing. c. microaggression. d. acculturation strategy.

ANSWER: c 157. A store begins selling a t-shirt for young girls that reads, "I'm too pretty to do math." The store eventually stopped selling the shirt because of complaints from customers. Which reason BEST explains why the message of this t-shirt would be considered a microaggression? a. The t-shirt is sold only to girls. b. The message reinforces a sexist stereotype. c. The message indirectly suggests that boys are less important than girls. d. The t-shirt can potentially cause adults to assume a girl is not smart.

ANSWER: b 158. A researcher asks people to share stories about times people have said negative or insulting things to them based on their ethnicity, gender, or age. This researcher is asking for examples of: a. microaggressions. b. acculturative stress. c. marginalization. d. separation.

ANSWER: a 159. Lana is lesbian. When she mentioned this to one of her coworkers, her coworker said, "Aww, that's too bad—the boys are really missing out." The statement made by Lana's coworker is an example of: a. marginalization. b. intersectionality. c. acculturative stress. d. microaggression.

ANSWER: d 160. Hannah is an overweight high-school student. She tells her teacher she wants to try out for the cheerleading squad, but her teacher tells her, "only thin girls can be cheerleaders." The teacher's response is an example of: a. marginalization. b. intersectionality. c. acculturative stress. d. microaggression.

ANSWER: d 161. Antiracism is: a. discrimination based on skin darkness. .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice b. believing one race is inferior to another. c. denying any differences between different races. d. a more active confrontation of racist actions.

ANSWER: d 162. Which is the BEST example of colorism? a. Angel tells Jo, who is transgender, that Jo almost passes for a real woman. b. Roel tells Amaris he'll drive because men are better drivers than women. c. Jin tells Kinsey that he'll do the math part of the project because he's Asian. d. Tina tells Tawnya she won't get a role in a play because Tawnya's skin is too dark.

ANSWER: d 163. Your _____ is your culture's social, psychological, and behavioral expectations related to the sex you were assigned at birth. a. identity b. sexual orientation c. gender d. cultural pluralism ANSWER: c 164. Wynne identifies as male. To Wynne, this means his perception of himself as well as his presentation of himself, which includes things such as his behavior, clothing, and interests. Wynne's identification as male is his: a. gender. b. sex. c. sexual orientation. d. culture.

ANSWER: a 165. Dr. Avant studies how cultures differ in their expectations of a person's social, psychological, and behavioral experiences related to the sex that person was assigned at birth. Dr. Avant is MOST likely studying the construct of: a. cultural pluralism. b. gender. c. sexual orientation. d. microaggression.

ANSWER: b 166. A person's _____ is that person's biological assignment at birth. a. identity b. sexual orientation c. gender .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice d. sex ANSWER: d 167. Russell was assigned male at birth. This means that "male" is Russell's: a. culture. b. sexual orientation. c. gender. d. sex.

ANSWER: d 168. Dr. Burdeshaw conducts research on differences in the progression of critical thinking skills between children assigned male at birth and children assigned female at birth. Dr. Burdeshaw assigns his participants to the different groups based on: a. gender. b. sex. c. critical thinking skills. d. culture.

ANSWER: b 169. Hal was assigned male at birth. His perception of himself is also male. Hal's birth assignment of male is his _____, and his perception of himself as male is his _____. a. sexual orientation; gender b. gender; sex c. sex; gender d. gender; sexual orientation ANSWER: c 170. A person's sex is based on: a. the gender of people to whom they are sexually attracted. b. their biological assignment at birth. c. their sense of self as a man, woman, both, or neither. d. the social expectations their culture places on them.

ANSWER: b 171. A(n) _____ individual born with a combination of male or female traits. a. homosexual b. gendered c. intersex d. nonbinary ANSWER: c 172. Which statement about gender is false? .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice a. Gender is based on perception, not biological sex. b. Gender is one of the first things we perceive about each other. c. Gender always matches the sex a person is born with. d. Gendered language influences our perceptions.

ANSWER: c 173. The Christies have two children. For the children's birthdays and other holidays, the Christies make sure to choose toys for their children that are for both boys and girls. Research findings suggest that parents' choices such as these influence the _____ of their children. a. gender development b. sexualization c. long-term orientation d. cultural competence ANSWER: a 174. Tony is a boy who has mostly boys for friends, and Saul is a boy who has mostly girls for friends. Both boys perform gymnastics and get teased about being in a "girl's sport". Research would predict that due to the teasing and their friend groups, Tony will demonstrate _____ than Saul. a. more stereotypically male behavior b. less stereotypically male behavior c. an equal amount of stereotypically male behavior d. more behaviors inconsistent with gender stereotypes ANSWER: a 175. Sonya, who is 4, watches 9 or more hours of television a day, whereas Bridget, who is 5, watches 1 or 2 hours a day. When asked if people think boys are better than girls: a. both would be as likely to say "boys." b. Bridget would be more likely to say "boys" than Sonya. c. Sonya would be more likely to say "boys" than Bridget. d. both would be as likely to say "girls".

ANSWER: c 176. Research suggests that there is a correlation between the number of hours teens spend watching TV and: a. increased use of condoms during sex. b. decreased likelihood of having sex. c. an increased number of sexual partners. d. less acceptance of promiscuity.

ANSWER: c 177. A person whose sex they were assigned at birth and gender identity match is BEST described as: a. heterosexual. b. cisgender. .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice c. transgender. d. bisexual.

ANSWER: b 178. Karim was assigned male sex at birth. Karim also perceives himself to be a man, and the way he dresses and the pronouns he uses for himself correspond with him as male. Based on this description, Karim is BEST described as: a. heterosexual. b. cisgender. c. transgender. d. transitioning.

ANSWER: b 179. A person is cisgender when: a. the sex they were assigned at birth and their sense of gender match. b. the sex they were assigned at birth and their sense of gender do not match. c. they are attracted to people with a sex or gender different from their own. d. they are attracted to people with a sex or gender the same as their own.

ANSWER: a 180. Carmine was assigned female sex at birth. Carmine also perceives herself to be a woman, and the way she dresses and the pronouns she uses to describe herself correspond with that perception. Based on this description, Carmine is BEST described as: a. heterosexual. b. cisgender. c. transgender. d. transitioning.

ANSWER: b 181. A person whose sex they were assigned at birth and their sense of gender do NOT match is BEST described as: a. homosexual. b. cisgender. c. transgender. d. bisexual.

ANSWER: c 182. A person is transgender when: a. the sex they were assigned at birth and their sense of gender match. b. the sex they were assigned at birth and their sense of gender do not match. c. they are attracted to people with a sex or gender different than their own. d. they are attracted to people with a sex or gender the same as their own. .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 183. Itmar was assigned female sex at birth. However, Itmar does not identify as a woman but as a man. Itmar dresses how one would typically expect a man to dress, and, when Itmar describes himself, he uses the pronoun "he" instead of "she." Based on this description, Itmar is BEST described as: a. homosexual. b. heterosexual. c. transgender. d. cisgender.

ANSWER: c 184. A person who is unhappy identifying with being one gender while being assigned a different sex at birth may _____, which means they would take steps to live as the gender that matches their perception rather than that which aligns with the sex they were assigned at birth. a. become cisgender b. become bisexual c. transition d. assimilate ANSWER: c 185. Fahed was assigned female sex at birth. However, Fahed does not identify as woman but as a man, and Fahed is taking steps to live as a man instead of a woman. Fahed is MOST likely undergoing: a. assimilation. b. microaggression. c. transition. d. intersectionality.

ANSWER: c 186. The sexual orientation in which a person is attracted to members of a sex or gender different from their own is: a. heterosexual. b. homosexual. c. bisexual. d. transgender.

ANSWER: a 187. Adrian is a man who is attracted to women, but not to men. Adrian's sexual orientation is BEST described as: a. heterosexual. b. homosexual. c. bisexual. d. cisgender. .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 188. Vivian is a woman who is attracted to men, but not to women. Vivian's sexual orientation is BEST described as: a. heterosexual. b. homosexual. c. bisexual. d. cisgender.

ANSWER: a 189. The sexual orientation of a person who is attracted to people with a sex or gender the same as their own is: a. heterosexual. b. homosexual. c. cisgender. d. transgender.

ANSWER: b 190. Seiji is a man who is attracted to men, but not to women. Seiji's sexual orientation is BEST described as: a. heterosexual. b. homosexual. c. cisgender. d. transgender.

ANSWER: b 191. Stacy is a woman who is attracted to women, but not men. Stacy's sexual orientation is BEST described as: a. heterosexual. b. homosexual. c. cisgender. d. transgender.

ANSWER: b 192. Annie is a woman and Gilbert is a man. Both are romantically attracted to women and neither is attracted to men. Annie's sexual orientation is _____, and Gilbert's sexual orientation is _____. a. homosexual; heterosexual b. heterosexual; homosexual c. transgender; cisgender d. cisgender; transgender ANSWER: a 193. The sexual orientation of a person who is attracted to people of more than one sex or gender is: a. heterosexual. .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice b. homosexual. c. bisexual. d. transitioning.

ANSWER: c 194. Antoine is a man who is attracted to both other men and to women. Antoine's sexual orientation is BEST described as: a. heterosexual. b. homosexual. c. bisexual. d. cisgender.

ANSWER: c 195. Sofia is a woman who is attracted to both other women and to men. Sofia's sexual orientation is BEST described as: a. heterosexual. b. homosexual. c. bisexual. d. cisgender.

ANSWER: c 196. Lance is attracted to men and women. Their friend Mihai is a man who is only attracted to man. Lance's sexual orientation is _____, and Mihai's sexual orientation is _____. a. homosexual; bisexual b. heterosexual; homosexual c. bisexual; homosexual d. homosexual; heterosexual ANSWER: c 197. When a person says they are _____, it means they are romantically attracted to everyone, regardless of the other person's gender, sexual orientation, or other factors. a. sex fluid b. heterosexual c. pansexual d. homosexual ANSWER: c 198. When a person says they are _____, it means they are romantically attracted to different people at different times. a. sex fluid b. asexual c. heterosexual .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice d. homosexual ANSWER: a 199. A person who is still in the process of examining or reexamining who they find romantically attractive is said to be: a. asexual. b. transitioning. c. questioning. d. sex fluid.

ANSWER: c 200. When a person says they are sexually attracted to no one, their sexual orientation is BEST described as: a. asexual. b. transitioning. c. questioning. d. pansexual.

ANSWER: a 201. People who have a sexual orientation or gender identity that differs from the majority of the population often identify as part of the _____ community. a. homosexual b. LGBTQ+ c. cisgender d. APAGS ANSWER: b 202. A woman who identifies as a lesbian could also consider herself a part of the large, diverse community known as: a. transgender. b. fluid. c. LGBTQ+. d. SRS. ANSWER: c 203. Most research estimates that approximately _____% of people identify as gay, lesbian, or bisexual. a. 1–1.5 b. 2–4 c. 4–6 d. 7–10 ANSWER: b 204. Women tend to identify as _____ more often than as _____. .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice a. lesbian; cisgender b. transgender; lesbian c. lesbian; bisexual d. bisexual; lesbian ANSWER: d 205. Women are more likely to identify as _____ than men. a. transgender b. cisgender c. heterosexual d. bisexual ANSWER: d 206. Men tend to identify as _____ more often than _____. a. gay; cisgender b. transgender; gay c. gay; bisexual d. bisexual; gay ANSWER: c 207. When a person of the LGBTQ+ community decides to "come out", they are: a. trying to align their sexuality and gender. b. choosing to take steps to live as they perceive themselves. c. concealing their identity to themselves and others. d. revealing their identity to themselves and eventually to others.

ANSWER: d 208. Research shows that, in the United States, people who define their ethnicity as _____ are MOST likely to hold favorable attitudes toward sexual minorities. a. Black b. Latinx c. Native American d. White ANSWER: d 209. Research shows that in the United States _____ make up the age and gender group MOST likely to hold favorable attitudes toward sexual minorities. a. young women b. young men c. older women d. older men .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 210. Your friend Kurush is a gay man, and your friend China is a lesbian woman. You learned by reading your introduction to psychology textbook that negative views of same-sex relationships vary depending on the gender and sexual orientation of the person judging the relationship. Based on what you have learned, you expect that Kurush will draw _____ disapproval than China, especially from _____ men. a. less; straight b. more; straight c. less; gay d. more; gay ANSWER: b 211. A straight person is MOST likely to have more positive attitudes toward people who are sexual minorities when the straight person has _____ people who are sexual minorities. a. a high-quality friendship with b. decreased exposure to c. increased awareness of discrimination against d. increased awareness of victimization of ANSWER: a 212. Gay–straight alliances in high schools have resulted in: a. discomfort with diverse sexual orientations. b. decreased academic performance among members of sexual minorities. c. fewer suicide attempts by members of sexual minorities. d. less critical thinking and self-reflection.

ANSWER: c 213. Research suggests that men tend to _____ more often than women. a. offer compliments b. speak to hold others' attention c. focus on emotion in speech d. apologize ANSWER: b 214. Research suggests that women tend to _____ more often than men. a. demonstrate visual dominance b. speak with the goal of solving problems c. use verbal reinforcers of others' speech d. interrupt others ANSWER: c 215. Megan, who is a woman, and Tomas, who is a man, are working together on a chemistry lab report. They .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice are discussing the report's general organization and how they will divide writing. Research would suggest that, during their conversation, Megan will _____ and Tomas will _____. a. emphasize a problem-solving approach; emphasize listening and compassion b. emphasize listening and compassion; emphasize a problem-solving approach c. interrupt more frequently; make more eye contact when speaking than listening d. make more eye contact when speaking than listening; interrupt more frequently ANSWER: b 216. Jana just learned that she was accepted into medical school. Jana thought getting into the program was unlikely and is both surprised and happy about being accepted. When she heard the news, Jana was so happy that she cried. Research suggests that Jana's reaction is a(n): a. common one for most women around the world. b. uncommon one for most women around the world. c. uncommon one for most women, but common for men. d. uncommon one for women and for men.

ANSWER: a 217. Mikayla, who is a woman, and Chad, who is a man, just got out of a class where they took an exceptionally tiring and difficult exam. They both look distressed as they plod into their next class. They pass their mutual friend, Cynthia, on the way to class. Research findings suggest that Cynthia is likely to think that: a. both Mikayla and Chad are just having a bad day. b. Chad is being emotional, but Mikayla is just having a bad day. c. Mikayla is being emotional, but Chad is just having a bad day. d. both Mikayla and Chad are being emotional.

ANSWER: c 218. Which statement BEST describes differences in personality traits between men and women? Men and women: a. are similar on some traits, but on others have small but consistent differences. b. are similar on some traits, but on others have large and consistent differences. c. have no differences on any traits. d. have large differences on most traits.

ANSWER: a 219. Which explanation BEST describes why women are underrepresented in the fields of science, technology, engineering, and math? a. There are inherent gender differences in the abilities needed in these fields. b. Women prefer to go into fields such as nursing, humanities, and the social sciences. c. Women generally do not earn the grades necessary for advanced education in these fields. d. Women have traditionally been steered away from these fields.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice 220. Sanji is going to a cookout and will meet his friend Patricia there. Patricia asked Sanji for directions to the cookout since she has not been to that park before. Research suggests that Sanji would MOST likely give which set of directions? a. From your house, take I-80 west to exit 172. Go south off the interstate. The park is on the southwest corner 3 miles past the interstate exit. b. Get on the interstate, and get off at the exit just after you'd get off to go to the mall. Take a left off the exit and drive for a bit. You'll pass a big bank and an ice cream shop. The park is just a bit further down, on the right, across from the gas station. c. From your house, take I-80 going toward the mall until exit 172. Turn left off the exit and drive for 3 miles. The park is down on the right across from a gas station. d. Get on the interstate heading west until you pass the mall. Get off at the next exit and go south for 3 miles. You'll pass a big bank and an ice cream shop. The park is on the southwest corner.

ANSWER: a 221. Yolanda is going to a party and will meet her friend Davit there. Davit asked Yolanda for directions to the party since he was not familiar with the location. Research suggests that Yolanda would MOST likely give which set of directions? a. From your dorm, take I-71 south to exit 27. After getting off the interstate, go west for 3 miles. The house will be the fourth on the right. b. From your dorm, take I-71 until you see the new sporting goods store on your left. Take the first exit after the new store. Go west for 3 miles. The house is the fourth on the right. c. From your dorm, take I-71. Go west after you get off the interstate. You'll drive for a while and pass two convenience stores. After the second store, it's the fourth house on the right. You will have gone a total of 3 miles. d. Get on the interstate until you see the new sporting goods on your left. Get off at the next exit, turn toward the row of fast-food restaurants, and drive for a bit. You'll pass two convenience stores. After the second store, it's the house with the purple door.

ANSWER: d 222. Which statement is true about differences in sex for men and women? a. Gay men report having less sex than women of all orientations. b. Men and women report masturbating and using pornography at similar rates. c. Men and women both typically have sex for the purpose of seeking emotional connection. d. Men report more interest in sex and have higher rates of sexual activity than women.

ANSWER: d

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Chapter 11 - Essay 1. Describe how the sympathetic nervous system is related to stress. Describe what happens physically during a fight-or-flight response. Additionally, describe how stress, over time, can damage health. Provide an example to illustrate your description.

ANSWER: The sympathetic nervous system is the body's fight-or-flight system. When the body is alerted to danger or presented with a stressor, the body responds with an increased heart rate, an increased sense of awareness, and increased adrenaline and glucose to enable a person to fight or run if the person needs to. If the body uses the consolidated energy when this happens, the stress is dealt with and then the body returns to conserving energy. However, if a person's fight-or-flight response is activated frequently, and nothing is done with the energy, this can cause unnecessary wear and tear on the body. This repeated frustration of the fight-or-flight response can damage the heart, weaken the immune system, and generally break down health. When a person has an explosive temper and overreacts to situations, the person is unnecessarily activating the sympathetic nervous system, which in turn puts tremendous stress on the body. This can cause long-term damage and compromise the immune system, further adding more stress to the person's life.

2. Define stress. How do stressors differ from stress? Provide an example of a situation that would produce stress, and define which part is a stressor and which is stress.

ANSWER: Stress is an unpleasant physical or psychological reaction to circumstances perceived as challenging.

A stressor is any event or change in life that can cause a person stress, which is the reaction to the stressor. Anything can be a stressor, depending upon what a person perceives to be a challenge.

Examples of common stressors are divorce or the breakup of a relationship, death of a loved one, job loss, promotion, and moving. A student might feel stressed because he or she has a class presentation coming up. The nervous feeling is the stress, and the presentation is the stressor.

3. Define digital stress. Researchers suggest that digital stress falls into two categories: one that focuses on hostility and cruelty and one that focuses on managing the closeness of relationships. Give two examples of activities that would fall under each category. What kind of advice is given for dealing with digital stressors that fall into each of these categories?

ANSWER: Digital stress is stress that results from online interactions or other uses of Internet-based technology. Examples that fall under the category of digital stress focusing on hostility or cruelty are (1) mean and harassing personal attacks, (2) public shaming and humiliation, and (3) impersonation.

Advice for dealing with this type of digital stress is typically to seek help from others. Examples that fall under the category of digital stress focusing on managing the closeness of relationships are (1) feeling smothered, (2) pressure to comply with requests, and (3) breaking into accounts and devices.

Advice for dealing with this type of digital stress is typically to cut ties with those involved.

4. Stressors do not cause the same levels of stress in every person. Explain the importance of appraisal, including primary appraisal and secondary appraisal. Provide an example to illustrate the connection between stress, appraisal, and stressors.

ANSWER: Before a stressor results in stress, the impact of the stressor is appraised. Appraisal means that you evaluate how bad the stressor is and how capable you are of handling it. A primary appraisal is when you determine how stressful an event is to you. Primary appraisal is a cognitive process that occurs when a person is deciding if an event is stressful or relevant. A decision is made about whether the event poses a threat, will cause harm or loss, or presents a challenge. A secondary appraisal is when you determine how capable you are of coping with the event. Secondary appraisal is a cognitive process that occurs when one is figuring out how to cope with a stressful event. .

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Chapter 11 - Essay Appraisal is very important because the individual's evaluation of the event is more important than the event per se. An example could be Joe, who has lost his job of 15 years. Most people would see this as an extremely stressful event; however, during primary appraisal Joe determines he was unhappy at his job and was looking for a change anyway. So, he determines this stressor is not too bad. During secondary appraisal, Joe decides to research some other job opportunities and contacts people he knows who could help him. He also cashes in some IRAs to help pay the bills until he is working again.

5. Use the following scenario to define, describe, and differentiate between primary appraisal and secondary appraisal: Murray and Shiva have been selected this year to represent their company at a high-profile conference. Murray thinks about the plane ride and how anxiety-producing and uncomfortable it will be, but he thinks he can do it if he books a flight that's a good fit for him. Shiva feels very excited about the opportunity, but she wonders if she's going to be able to network effectively.

ANSWER: Primary appraisal is a cognitive process that occurs when a person is deciding if an event is stressful or relevant and so helps you determine how stressful an event is to you. Murray's primary appraisal of being selected to attend the conference is to worry about the plane ride. Shiva's primary appraisal is excitement about the opportunity. Secondary appraisal is a cognitive process that occurs when one is figuring out how to cope with a stressful event and you determine how capable you are of coping with the event. Murray's primary appraisal about the plane ride resulted in high stress, but Murray's secondary appraisal resulted in his determination to find a good flight where he could be as comfortable as possible. Shiva's primary appraisal also produced high stress—albeit more optimistic—but her secondary appraisal leaves her feeling unprepared to face the stress since she is worrying about networking.

6. Explain the research results about how appraisal can influence physical health. Describe 2 ways in which diversity factors such as age, ethnicity, or gender may impact appraisal.

ANSWER: When 3 sessions with a psychologist were added to the treatment regimens of individuals 65 years of age or older who were hospitalized and conventionally treated for their first heart attack, those individuals viewed their heart condition as more controllable and less stressful, had fewer heartrelated symptoms, and returned to work faster than individuals who did not receive sessions with a psychologist. Events that have a large basis in academic achievement can be especially stressful for individuals from Asian cultures. Health is typically a larger stressor in older individuals as compared to younger individuals.

7. Define hassles and describe how they can be a major source of stress for people. Name and describe five hassles in your own life that cause you stress.

ANSWER: Hassles are the common yet minor aggravations of living day-to-day life. The main reason hassles become a source of major stress for people is that they add up, and cumulatively they can add significant stress to your life. Most people have numerous hassles throughout their day, and often the hassles get repeated day after day, with no end in sight. A life full of hassles can provide high stress and health risks, even in the absence of major stressors. Some common hassles include finances/bills, deadlines in school or work, long to-do lists, losing keys or wallet, long lines, traffic, or car trouble.

8. The idea that stress can affect your physical health has been around for a long time. In recent years, psychological research has identified several ways in which stress can make you sick. Define and describe the three general categories of ways in which stress can damage your health. Provide an example for each category. .

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Chapter 11 - Essay ANSWER: The first category is when stress damages your health directly. Repeatedly revving up your fight-orflight response, without addressing the stress, causes excessive wear and tear on your heart, cardiovascular system, and other important parts of your body. An example would be someone with a quick temper, who could suffer from high blood pressure. The second category is when reactions to stress can damage your health directly. This focuses on how a person handles the stress, rather than the stress itself. A person can drink too much, use illicit drugs, work too much, or sleep too little. All of these behaviors can have serious health risks for illness or injury. Last, the final category is when reactions to stress can damage your health indirectly. This particularly refers to a person who ignores stress, denies stress, or refuses help in a time of need. An example of this that could lead to health issues would be a person developing insomnia or sleeping very restlessly, but they refuse to talk to their physician about it.

9. The general adaptation syndrome is the predictable way in which our bodies respond to ongoing stress.

Describe the stages of this pattern. How does the general adaptation syndrome differ in the face of an acute versus a chronic stressor?

ANSWER: The general adaptation syndrome consists of three stages: the alarm stage, the resistance stage, and the exhaustion stage. During the alarm stage, the people are first alerted to the stress or the danger and they respond with an adrenaline rush. Initially, they may lose their breath, but then they jump into action with this burst of energy they have. The second stage, the resistance stage, is when people are resisting the stress. They are fighting the stress, using all of their resources. It is almost as if your fight-or-flight response is activated, but at a lower level, and it never lets up. This is very exhausting on the body, and eventually the body will run out of resources. When that happens, the body enters the third stage, which is the exhaustion stage. During this time, the body has run out of fight, the stress has won, and the person can become ill or injured. When facing an acute stressor, your body progresses through the alarm and resistance stages, at which point the acute stressor is dealt with. With chronic stressors, however, the stressor is never dealt with, and your body enters the exhaustion stage, leaving you vulnerable to illness and disease.

10. Define chronic stress and provide three example of situations that would likely cause chronic stress. Provide a description of research evidence that suggests a link between chronic stress—especially that experienced during childhood—and poor health outcomes.

ANSWER: Chronic stress is stress that is unrelenting. It is not short-term. Chronic stress can be caused by things like an unstable living environment, living in poverty and being unsure about your basic needs being met, living with someone who may hurt you at any time, and working in a job where you witness and manage traumatic events. Experiencing chronic stress during childhood is linked to poor health outcomes like heart disease, lung disease, diabetes, and cancer. Indeed, the incidence may increase 2–4× the normal rate as compared to individuals who did not experience high levels of chronic stress during childhood. Chronic stress based on exposure to violence may increase stressrelated asthma symptoms, and asthma is more likely to develop in kids exposed to violence. Stressrelated exhaustion may have contributed to a high percentage of medical evacuations due to illness experienced by soldiers during Operation Iraqi Freedom. Men who experience chronic stress typically have a lower sperm count than men who do not experience chronic stress, and pregnant women who experience chronic stress have higher blood pressure and higher probability of preterm birth with a baby of low birthweight.

11. Psychophysiological illnesses are any illnesses that stress can cause, worsen, or maintain. List three illnesses that would be considered a psychophysiological illness and describe how stress contributes to the illness. .

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Chapter 11 - Essay ANSWER: The disease with the strongest connection to stress would be coronary heart disease, which is a common and often fatal disease in which the arteries of the heart become clogged. However, any heart condition could be caused, worsened, or maintained because of stress, including high blood pressure. When the sympathetic nervous system is activated, the heart has to work harder, thus putting stress on the heart. Second, wounds can also be affected by stress. There are numerous studies to support that stress slows down healing. Insomnia is another condition that could worsen with stress. Sometimes it is stress causing the insomnia, but when the person begins to stress about not sleeping, they are maintaining the insomnia. Asthma and other breathing-related problems, as well as arthritis and irritable bowel syndrome, can worsen. Psoriasis and other skin-related issues are more likely in times of high stress. Depression and other psychological disorders are also more common in individuals with high levels of stress.

12. Compare and contrast Type A, Type B, Type C, and Type D personalities. Describe how each personality type interprets and handles stress.

ANSWER: People with Type A personality engage in high levels of competition, show high levels of drive and impatience, and they can be very cutthroat. The constant rivalry and attitudes of anger and aggression that are seen in this personality type are linked to high stress and health risks. Type A personalities seem to thrive on stress. People with Type B personality are noncompetitive, much nicer, easygoing, and pretty patient. They are not stressed easily and are actually pretty "chill." Type B personalities do not seem to pay attention to stress. People with Type C personality tend to be people-pleasers, with a high level of agreeableness. They have a low level of emotional expression and a tendency to feel helpless. This can actually leave the person feeling quite stressed, since they do not feel as if they have control. People with Type D personality feature high levels of negative emotions, like depression and anxiety, and a reluctance to share those emotions with others. This can also lead to high stress and a vulnerability to illnesses.

13. Define the "Big Five" personality factors and describe how three of them contribute to the relationship between stress and health.

ANSWER: The "Big Five" personality factors are neuroticism, extraversion, openness to experience, conscientiousness, and agreeableness. Neuroticism is the tendency to experience negative emotions.

Extraversion is the tendency to be socially outgoing. Openness to experience is the tendency to be receptive to new ideas. Conscientiousness is the tendency to be organized, responsible, and deliberate. Agreeableness is the tendency to cooperate with others. High levels of conscientiousness and extraversion are generally correlated with positive health outcomes. High extraversion is commonly found in people with good health, but it can lead to hazardous social behaviors. High levels of openness to experience tend to be correlated with lower levels of cardiovascular disease.

Neuroticism has been repeatedly linked to illness, perhaps because it correlates negatively with healthy behaviors and positively with unhealthy behaviors.

14. Stress can contribute to almost any psychological disorder, and any of them can worsen in times of high stress. Define and describe the three disorders that are built around the concept of stress, including how high stress can worsen the symptoms of the disorder. Provide an example for each disorder.

ANSWER: Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) focuses on lingering stress and the aftereffects caused by traumatic events. This disorder has symptoms that last at least a month, and the person continuously feels on edge, avoids reminders of the trauma, has difficulty sleeping and concentrating, and relives the event frequently. An example might be a driver who was in a near-death accident, and will not .

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Chapter 11 - Essay get into a car almost 2 months after the accident. The second disorder is acute stress disorder.

Essentially, this disorder is just like PTSD, but it occurs immediately following the trauma. The person feels dazed and anxious. An example might be a victim of a violent crime. Initially, they feel nervous and anxious, but as they heal, the symptoms and stress from the trauma lessen. The third disorder is an adjustment disorder. This disorder is defined by an excessively disruptive stress reaction to an identifiable stressor. Adjustment disorders are different from PTSD and acute stress disorder because they do not require a trauma. Usually, this diagnosis is used when a person has a reaction to a nontraumatic or common stressor that is way out of proportion to what it should be. An example could be a person who slips into a deep depression after losing a job.

15. What does posttraumatic growth mean? Define and provide examples for each of the two types of posttraumatic growth. How do these techniques change distress to eustress?

ANSWER: Posttraumatic growth is when people who experience trauma find a way to benefit, improve, or enrich themselves from that point forward. Individuals can do this through benefit finding, which is deliberately looking for advantages of the experience of the trauma. An example of this would be someone who was physically abused as a child and who now takes in foster children because she knows, based on her experiences, she will ensure they will not be abused in her home. Individuals can also find posttraumatic growth through meaning making, which is when people try to create some sense out of why they experience trauma. An example of this would be the aforementioned woman who feels that she had to experience childhood trauma in order to find her life's mission to help foster children. By finding benefit or meaning from a traumatic experience, people can change the bad and threatening distress into eustress, which views stress as an opportunity rather than a threat.

16. Explain two research findings from studies that assess stress and resiliency during the COVID pandemic.

Describe one factor that was shown to contribute to increased resilience during the COVID pandemic.

ANSWER: The COVID pandemic increased the stress of many. People rating themselves as in the highest category ("serious distress") rose significantly (3–28%). Four out of every five Americans said the pandemic contributed a significant amount of stress, and nearly half said their stress level increased from prior to the pandemic. However, stress decreased across the pandemic, especially stress about money, daily activities, and COVID itself, suggesting resilience. Resilience was higher in people who were older, more mindful, and had more social support.

17. Define how men and women differ in terms of the types of stressors they experience, their self-reported levels of stress, and the things they get stressed about.

ANSWER: Men are more likely to experience traumatic stressors like war-related trauma and physical assault than women, but women are more likely to experience traumatic stressors like sexual assault during adulthood and childhood. Women tend to report higher levels of stress than men, and women are more likely to present with PTSD. Women stress more about pregnancy and childbirth, whereas men stress about impotence. Women tend to experience more caregiving-related and houseworkrelated stressors, whereas men tend to experience stress more often over money and work. Men display more stress in response to achievement stressors, as opposed to women, who show more stress after social stressors.

18. Define and describe the differences between a collectivistic ethnicity and an individualistic ethnicity in regard to how individuals representative of each ethnicity would experience stress. Provide an example of each. .

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Chapter 11 - Essay ANSWER: Collectivistic ethnicities emphasize the well-being of the group over the individual, or us over me.

Individualistic ethnicities emphasize the well-being of the individual over the group, or me over us.

People from collectivistic and individualistic cultures often have different expressions of stress.

Individualistic cultures typically feel stress about personal achievements, like school or job challenges. People from collectivistic cultures are more likely to feel stress about family harmony, how well they get along, or how much support they give. Additionally, there is a cultural difference between standing out and standing in. In individualistic cultures, it is ideal to stand out, to distinguish yourself by your accomplishments. In collectivist cultures, standing out is considered extremely stressful. They prefer to fit in with others and not stand out. Examples will vary.

19. In American culture, there are certain sources of stress that are more likely to impact us at various stages.

Describe the most common stress an individual might experience during these stages: preschool, elementary school, middle school, high school, young adulthood, and middle-aged to older adulthood.

ANSWER: During preschool, children will experience the stress of the behavioral demands of preschool or day care, as well as power struggles with their parents over developmental milestones. During elementary school, children will feel stress from academic achievement and making friends. During middle school, children will continue to feel stress about academic achievements, dating (if they have started dating), and popularity issues. During high school, adolescents will feel stress about grades, dating, arguing with parents, popularity, and family finances. When those adolescents have become young adults, they will feel stress about finishing school, relationships, work, money, and possibly raising kids. When people reach middle-aged to older adulthood, the stress focuses on health issues, health problems of loved ones, work, financial issues, divorce, caregiver burdens, and the death of parents and others.

20. Discuss the differences between men and women in how they each tend to cope with stress. Explain why tend-and-befriend is a more accurate description of handling stress for women, while fight-or-flight is more accurate for men.

ANSWER: Regarding gender, women tend to cope with stress by talking about their feelings, often repeatedly, with other women. Men tend to cope with their stress by problem solving and avoid talking about their feelings with anyone. For men, fight-or-flight is a good fit for them because they are usually fighting the stress alone and fixing a problem. According to the tend-and-befriend theory, evolution would have favored a coping strategy for women that would incorporate their families, especially their children, since they are historically the primary caregivers. Tending, or nurturing relationships with sons and daughters, and befriending, or building social connections, especially with other women, creates a safety net big enough to protect women and their children in times of high stress.

21. Compare and contrast the similarities and differences between problem-focused coping and emotionfocused coping. Which strategy is better in what types of situations? Provide an example where each strategy can be used.

ANSWER: Problem-focused coping is a style of coping with stress that emphasizes changing the stressor itself.

This style of coping involves tackling the problem head-on in an attempt to solve or minimize it. By contrast, emotion-focused coping is a style of coping with stress that emphasizes changing a person's emotional reaction to the stressor, rather than changing the stressor itself. The stressor is basically accepted as unchangeable, so instead the person focuses on changing the way he or she feels when facing the stress. Problem-focused coping seems to work best in situations where the stressor is controllable whereas emotion-focused coping seems to work best when the stressor is .

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Chapter 11 - Essay uncontrollable. Switching from one style to the next is probably the most effective way to handle stress. An example could be having a stressful job because of a demanding and degrading boss.

Problem-focused coping would focus on finding a new job. Emotion-focused coping would focus on the person's personal emotions, such as not letting the boss bother or insult the employee. It helps to realize the boss will not change who he or she is.

22. Prolonged social isolation is one of the most toxic stressors of all. Define what is meant by social support and describe the three categories that demonstrate the forms it takes. Give an example for each category.

ANSWER: Social support is defined as the relationships you have with family and friends that can benefit you when you experience stress. Informational social support occurs when you gain knowledge or understanding from others. An example of this would be talking with your older sister who has graduated from college about how to fill out the FAFSA. Instrumental social support occurs when you gain something tangible from others. An example of this would be allowing a friend to stay in your home when his girlfriend (and roommate) threw him out. Emotional social support occurs when you receive warmth and reassurance from others. An example of this would be someone letting you vent about a particularly bad day and reassuring you that tomorrow will be better.

23. People can learn to decrease stress by behaving differently. Define proactive coping, hardiness, and optimism. Discuss how each behavioral change can help alleviate stress, and give an example of each.

ANSWER: Proactive coping is a coping style that focuses on future goals and the stressors that could impede them. The major advantage to proactive coping is that it emphasizes stressors that haven't happened yet, and that gives a person a chance to either avoid them or prepare for them. Hardiness is a behavior set that reflects resilience under stressful situations. People who possess hardiness welcome stress because they see it as an opportunity for improvement and success rather than failure and pain. Hardiness is made up of control, commitment, and challenge. Optimism is an attitude toward the future that is characterized by hope or an expectation of a positive outcome. An example of proactive coping could be a college student who has three papers due on the same day.

The student creates a to-do list and calendar, breaking up the work ahead of time, so she is not trying to complete all the three papers the night before they are due. An example of hardiness could be a person who is applying for a high-powered, highly competitive job. He feels excitement about the interview because he sees it as an opportunity to shine. And finally, an example of optimism could be a person who loses a job, but remains hopeful and positive that she will quickly find another one.

24. Define the stages of change model. List each stage and use a health-related topic to show an example of the thinking at each stage.

ANSWER: The stages of change model is a way psychologists think about the readiness to make big changes, especially when the focus is health-related issues and major life improvements. There are five stages: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance. Take, for example, that your doctor told you that you were showing signs of pre-diabetes and so they want you to limit your sugar intake. In the precontemplation stage, you may think, "But no one in my family has diabetes, and I eat more healthily than many of my relatives." In the contemplation stage, you may think, "I do feel better when I don't eat a lot of sweets. Maybe I should take this advice seriously, especially since I don't want to have to start taking medications for diabetes." In the preparation stage, you may think, "Let me take these snack packs into work next week and, when I grocery shop, I'll buy more healthy snacks." In the action stage, you may think, "I've cut nearly all sources of .

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Chapter 11 - Essay sugar out of my diet, but I'm still enjoying what I eat and I feel loads better!" In the maintenance phase, you may think, "My doctor says the changes I made pushed me out of the pre-diabetic diagnosis, but I plan to keep this up because I feel so much better."

25. Taking care of your body is crucial in terms of reducing stress and maintaining physical and mental health.

Describe how physical exercise can improve your psychological, physical, mental, and emotional health in the long run.

ANSWER: Exercising reduces stress and the health risks associated with it. Aerobic exercise is physical exercise that maintains an increased heart rate for a prolonged period of time. This is related to what happens to your body during fight-or-flight, so studies have found that exercise has immediate and long-term benefits. Exercise increases your overall health and your sense of well-being, which makes the day-to-day stress much more bearable. It also helps people sleep better. Most importantly, physical activity increases the production of endorphins, which make us feel good and combat stress.

26. Define complementary medicine and alternative medicine. Describe why the CAM model is successful, and specifically describe the practices of acupuncture, meditation, homeopathic medicine, and biofeedback.

ANSWER: Complementary medicine is health care that complements, or is used along with, conventional medicine. Alternative medicine is health care that is used instead of conventional medicine.

Together, complementary and alternative medicine are called CAM. When the best of CAM is combined with the best of conventional medicine, it can be very successful. This is because it tends to be more preventive and targets what underlies the illness. The practice of acupuncture involves a technique that inserts needles into the skin at specific points to alleviate stress or pain. The practice of meditation deliberately brings the mind to a peaceful state characterized by heightened awareness and minimal thought. The practice of homeopathic medicine is health care based on the idea that the human body has the ability to heal itself when kick-started with low doses of medicine derived from natural sources. The practice of biofeedback is the use of a monitor that provides information about physiological functions, such as heartbeat or muscle tension, with the intention of influencing those functions in a healthy direction.

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 1. _____ is an unpleasant physical or psychological reaction to circumstances you perceive as challenging. a. Stress b. Mental illness c. Illness d. Hassle ANSWER: a 2. Stress is an unpleasant reaction to circumstances you perceive as challenging that can be _____ in nature. a. both physical and psychological b. only physical c. only psychological d. neither physical nor psychological ANSWER: a 3. Rhys has a lab report due tonight. The muscles of his shoulders are tense, his stomach is churning, his heart is racing, and he feels very nervous. The reaction Rhys is experiencing is BEST defined as: a. homeostasis. b. stress. c. a stressor. d. mental illness.

ANSWER: b 4. _____ is experienced physically, such as having an upset stomach or tense muscles, and it can be experienced psychologically, such as feeling irritable or anxious. a. Stress b. Homeostasis c. Emotional regulation d. Appraisal ANSWER: a 5. Vico keeps telling their partner that their stomach is upset and they don't feel like going out. Their partner knows that Vico has been trying to find a new job, and the work involved in that while maintaining their current job could be the reason Vico is anxious, ill, and tired. The reaction Vico is experiencing is BEST described as: a. trauma. b. a stressor. c. weakness. d. stress.

ANSWER: d 6. Stress is an unpleasant physical or psychological reaction to circumstances you perceive as: a. traumatic. b. challenging. .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. unnecessary. d. impossible.

ANSWER: b 7. When psychologists talk about _____, they are talking about the unpleasant reaction, not the event or situation that caused it. a. stressors b. emotions c. stress d. illness ANSWER: c 8. The events or situations that cause an unpleasant reaction are referred to as: a. stress. b. emotions. c. behaviors. d. stressors.

ANSWER: d 9. Amir is on a flight that is experiencing turbulence, and they notice that they have started breathing so quickly that they are getting lightheaded. What is the stressor? a. breathing more quickly b. getting lightheaded c. turbulence d. being on a flight ANSWER: c 10. Claudia is in a very large and very crowded airport terminal, and she can't find where she should check in.

She notices that she is feeling anxious, and her stomach has started churning. _____ is an example of stress, and _____ is an example of a stressor. a. The crowded airport terminal; Claudia's feeling of anxiety b. Claudia's upset stomach; Claudia's feeling of anxiety c. Claudia's feeling of anxiety; the crowded airport terminal d. The crowded airport terminal; Claudia's inability to find her check in ANSWER: c 11. _____ describes a reaction, while _____ describes a situation. a. Stress; stressor b. Stressor; stress c. Stress; illness d. Illness; stress .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 12. Rohan failed his chemistry exam, mostly because he was sleep deprived. Rohan was unable to get enough sleep because his roommate played his guitar all night despite Rohan asking him not to. Rohan now feels depressed and worried about his future in his chemistry class. Which of these is an example of the stress Rohan is experiencing? a. failing the chemistry exam b. not getting enough sleep c. worrying about his class grade d. his roommate not letting him sleep ANSWER: c 13. The _____ response is an automatic emotional and physical reaction to a perceived threat that prepares us to either attack it or run away from it. a. tend-or-befriend b. rest-and-digest c. fight-or-flight d. run-and-fight ANSWER: c 14. The _____ branch of the nervous system mediates the "fight-or-flight" response. a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. stress d. central ANSWER: a 15. When your body responds to a perceived threat by preparing you to either attack it or to run away from it, you are engaged in: a. the survival instinct. b. the rest-and-digest response. c. an evolutionary reflex. d. the fight-or-flight response.

ANSWER: d 16. _____ is experienced during the fight-or-flight response. a. Decreased heart rate b. Sweating c. Muscle relaxation d. Deep breathing ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 17. The sound of a gunshot wakes Tripti in the middle of the night, and they hear screaming from their nextdoor neighbors. Tripti's body will MOST likely respond by: a. producing a feeling of relaxation. b. readying to run or fight. c. ignoring the sound and returning to sleep. d. freezing and being unable to move.

ANSWER: b 18. _____ stress results from online interactions and other uses of Internet-based technology. a. Sympathetic b. Digital c. Appraised d. Physiological ANSWER: b 19. Digital stress results from: a. online interactions. b. everyday hassles. c. physical illness. d. major catastrophes.

ANSWER: a 20. One study of digital stress defined the two foci of digital stress as: a. public shaming and humiliation and feeling smothered. b. impersonation and breaking into digital accounts and devices. c. harassing personal attacks and pressure to comply with requests. d. hostility and cruelty and closeness of relationships.

ANSWER: d 21. One study of digital stress defined two focuses of digital stress. Which example falls into the category that focuses on managing the closeness of relationships? a. public shaming and humiliation b. feeling smothered c. mean and harassing personal attacks d. impersonation ANSWER: b 22. When a peer is experiencing digital stress such as _____, teens tend to advise their peer to cut ties with people involved. a. public shaming and humiliation b. feeling smothered .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. mean and harassing personal attacks d. impersonation ANSWER: b 23. When a peer is experiencing digital stress such as _____, teens tend to advise their peer to seek help from others. a. pressure to comply with requests b. feeling smothered c. breaking into digital accounts or devices d. impersonation ANSWER: d 24. Problematic social media use is correlated with: a. lower stress. b. increased closeness in relationships. c. depressive symptoms. d. lower levels of burnout.

ANSWER: c 25. _____ is the way you evaluate the things that happen to you. a. Interpretation b. Appraisal c. Perception d. Analysis ANSWER: b 26. Which is the correct order of the occurrence of stress? a. stressor -> appraisal -> stress b. stress -> appraisal -> stressor c. appraisal -> stressor -> stress d. appraisal -> stress -> stressor ANSWER: a 27. Psychologists break down the stress appraisal process into two parts, _____ appraisal and _____ appraisal. a. major; minor b. primary; secondary c. first; second d. prime; central ANSWER: b 28. _____ appraisal is determining how stressful an event is to you. .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. Secondary b. Major c. Minor d. Primary ANSWER: d 29. _____ appraisal is determining how capable you are of coping with a stressful event. a. Secondary b. Major c. Minor d. Primary ANSWER: a 30. _____ appraisal is determining how stressful an event is to you, and _____ appraisal is determining how capable you are of coping with a stressful event. a. Secondary; primary b. Major; minor c. Minor; major d. Primary; secondary ANSWER: d 31. Primary appraisal is determining _____, and secondary appraisal is determining _____. a. how stressful an event is to you; how capable you are of coping with a stressful event b. how capable you are of coping with a stressful event; how stressful an event is to you c. if the stressor is a hassle or a catastrophe; how you will deal with the stressor d. how you will deal with the stressor; if the stressor is a hassle or a catastrophe ANSWER: a 32. Which statement BEST exemplifies a primary appraisal? a. "Being president of a student organization is just too much work!" b. "If I am vice president first, I can learn how to be the president of a student organization." c. "I am not enough of a leader to be the president of a student organization." d. "If I only take 13 credits, I will have enough time to be the president of a student organization."

ANSWER: a 33. Which statement BEST exemplifies a secondary appraisal? a. "Taking on a double major is just too much work!" b. "If I take on a double major, I won't be able to see my friends as much." c. "Taking on a double major may help me get into medical school." d. "If I tutor, I can quit my job as a server and have more time for a double major."

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 34. The common, minor annoyances or aggravations of day-to-day life are called: a. stress. b. irritants. c. hassles. d. frustrations.

ANSWER: c 35. Hassles can add significantly to your stress level because: a. there is no way to deal with them. b. they are impossible to fix. c. you cannot control them. d. they add up.

ANSWER: d 36. Lucinda is feeling overwhelmed and stressed. She does not understand why this is so because she has no major stressors in her life. However, she does work a full-time job and has a long, difficult commute. She is also taking evening and weekend classes at the local college. Lucinda tries to make time for her family and friends but is always exhausted and lately has been feeling like she's coming down with a cold. Which is the BEST explanation you can provide Lucinda to explain why she is feeling the way she is feeling? You can explain to her that she: a. does not handle stress well. b. has many hassles that add up and cause stress. c. is experiencing a catastrophe. d. is imagining all of the stress.

ANSWER: b 37. Which situation is a hassle? a. a tornado that destroys an entire neighborhood b. a life-threatening illness that has no cure c. having two exams in the same week d. the unexpected death of a caretaker ANSWER: c 38. _____ psychology is the psychological specialization that focuses on the relationship between the mind and the body. a. Developmental b. Social c. Health d. Forensic ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 39. Health psychology is the psychological specialization that focuses on: a. only the health of the mind. b. only the health of the body. c. the relationship between the mind and the body. d. how the mind works independent of the body.

ANSWER: c 40. Health psychology is also known as: a. behavioral medicine. b. psychoanalysis. c. personality psychology. d. behavioral neuroscience.

ANSWER: a 41. _____ psychology has become increasingly influential in how people are treated for stress-related problems. a. Developmental b. Social c. Health d. Forensic ANSWER: c 42. Health psychology has become increasingly influential in how people are treated for: a. severe mental disorders. b. traumatic brain injury. c. stress-related problems. d. personality disorders.

ANSWER: c 43. The relationship between mind and body is a two-way street, or: a. bilateral. b. binomial. c. multidirectional. d. bidirectional.

ANSWER: d 44. The consequences of stress affect: a. both the body and the mind. b. neither the body nor the mind. c. the body but not the mind. d. the mind but not the body.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 45. Your friend Jerimiah notices that he always gets sick during finals week. You tell Jerimiah: a. that getting sick at this time is a rare phenomenon. b. there is a connection between stress and the functioning of our bodies. c. that would not happen if he ignored the stress of finals. d. that he probably was going to get sick anyway, even if there were no finals.

ANSWER: b 46. A widely accepted understanding of the way our bodies respond to ongoing stress is known as: a. fight-or-flight. b. general adaptation syndrome. c. stress theory. d. stress-coping explanation.

ANSWER: b 47. The sequence of the general adaptation syndrome is: a. resistance, alarm, exhaustion. b. alert, alarm, exhaustion. c. alarm, exhaustion, resistance. d. alarm, resistance, exhaustion.

ANSWER: d 48. When you face an acute stressor, such as a presentation in class, which two stages of the general adaptation syndrome help you handle the resulting stress? a. alarm and alert b. resistance and exhaustion c. exhaustion and alarm d. alarm and resistance ANSWER: d 49. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome leaves you vulnerable to disease? a. exhaustion b. alarm c. alert d. resistance ANSWER: a 50. When you face an acute stressor, your body will go through the _____ of the general adaptation syndrome.

When you face chronic stress, your body will go through the _____ of the general adaptation syndrome. a. exhaustion and alarm stages; resistance stage b. exhaustion and resistance stages; alarm stage .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. exhaustion stage; alarm and resistance stages d. alarm and resistance stages; exhaustion stage ANSWER: d 51. When you face a(n) _____ stressor, your body will go through the alarm and resistance stages of the general adaptation syndrome. When you face a(n) _____ stressor, your body will go through the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome. a. unrecognized; recognized b. recognized; unrecognized c. chronic; acute d. acute; chronic ANSWER: d 52. Guz grew up and still lives in a very violent neighborhood. He fears being harassed or even shot even if he just walks to his mailbox. Guz is MOST likely in the _____ stage of the general adaptation syndrome. a. alarm b. exhaustion c. appraisal d. resistance ANSWER: b 53. Which statement about stress is true? a. There is no correlation between stress levels and serious medical diseases, such as cancer and heart disease. b. Living in a violent neighborhood will not influence your physical health if you remain tough. c. Children with asthma who were exposed to violence experience a greater amount of stress-related asthma symptoms. d. People living in war zones do not have higher levels of chronic stress than those in non-war zones.

ANSWER: c 54. When Maxwell was suddenly face-to-face with a bear on his hike, he was in the _____ stage of the general adaptation syndrome. a. alert b. alarm c. resistance d. exhaustion ANSWER: b 55. Your body's _____ system innately defends against bacteria, viruses, infections, injuries, and anything else that could cause illness or death. a. nervous b. endocrine .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. immune d. digestive ANSWER: c 56. When ongoing stress outlasts your resistance and exhaustion sets in, your _____ system gets compromised. a. nervous b. endocrine c. immune d. digestive ANSWER: c 57. _____ is the study of the relationship between psychological factors, including stress, and the immune system. a. Immunology b. Neurology c. Psychoneuroimmunology d. Psychopathology ANSWER: c 58. Researchers who study the relationship between stress and the immune system focus on certain hormones, like cortisol, epinephrine, and norepinephrine, that increase with stress and interfere with the production of _____, which are the cells that fight off disease in your body. a. antibodies b. antioxidants c. antibiotics d. antiseptics ANSWER: a 59. Any illness that is caused by, can worsen, or is maintained by stress is called a _____ illness. a. psychological b. physiological c. psychophysiological d. psychopathological ANSWER: c 60. The illnesses that psychoneuroimmunologists focus on are called _____ illnesses. a. psychological b. physiological c. psychophysiological d. psychopathological ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 61. _____ is a common and often fatal disease in which the arteries that lead to the heart are clogged or blocked. a. Rheumatic heart disease b. Coronary heart disease c. Congenital heart disease d. Chronic lung disease ANSWER: b 62. Samba has a burn on their wrist that they got while cooking. Samba notices that it is taking a long time to heal and wonders why this is. You know that Samba has recently been having trouble in their classes and has been arguing with their parents. You tell Samba that it is possible that: a. they did not use the correct medicine on the wound and this is why it is not healing. b. they are feeling stressed, which would increase the time it takes them to heal. c. they need to just be patient with the healing. d. it is all in their head, and they are healing just fine.

ANSWER: b 63. Type _____ is a personality type that features high levels of competitiveness, drive, impatience, and hostility. a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: a 64. Dr. Schaal is a scientist who is very driven to produce findings in his field. He is very competitive with his colleagues, some of whom suspect he manipulates his own findings or sabotages theirs. Dr. Schaal shows many characteristics of a Type _____ personality. a. A b. B c. C d. D ANSWER: a 65. The features of Type A personality include: a. high levels of competitiveness, drive, impatience, and hostility. b. little competitiveness, being easygoing, relaxed, and rarely angry. c. low emotionality, a high agreeableness, and a tendency to feel helpless. d. high levels of negative emotion and reluctance to share those emotions.

ANSWER: a 66. When a person is noncompetitive, easygoing, relaxed, and rarely angry, they are said to have a _____ personality type. .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D ANSWER: b 67. The features of Type B personality include: a. high levels of competitiveness, drive, impatience, and hostility. b. little competitiveness, being easygoing, relaxed, and rarely angry. c. low emotionality, a high agreeableness, and a tendency to feel helpless. d. high levels of negative emotion and reluctance to share those emotions.

ANSWER: b 68. Lilliana teaches yoga and appears to be a generally "chill" person. She would MOST likely be labeled with which personality type? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D ANSWER: b 69. A personality featuring a low level of emotional expression, a high level of agreeableness with other people, and a tendency to feel helpless is: a. Type A. b. Type B. c. Type C. d. Type D. ANSWER: c 70. The features of Type C personality type include: a. high levels of competitiveness, drive, impatience, and hostility. b. little competitiveness, being easygoing, relaxed, and rarely angry. c. low emotionality, a high agreeableness, and a tendency to feel helpless. d. high levels of negative emotion and reluctance to share those emotions.

ANSWER: c 71. Phyllis works with a group of people who constantly take advantage of her kindness. Phyllis always has to complete the tasks that no one else wants to do. She never complains, though, and feels helpless to change her circumstances. Phyllis MOST likely has _____ personality. a. Type A b. Type B .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. Type C d. Type D ANSWER: c 72. Another name for Type D personality is _____ personality. a. antisocial b. distressed c. depressed d. avoidant ANSWER: b 73. When a person has high levels of negative emotions, like depression and anxiety, and a reluctance to share those emotions with others, they would be labeled with _____ personality type. a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D ANSWER: d 74. The features of Type D personality include: a. high levels of competitiveness, drive, impatience, and hostility. b. little competitiveness, being easygoing, relaxed, and rarely angry. c. low emotionality, a high agreeableness, and a tendency to feel helpless. d. high levels of negative emotion and reluctance to share those emotions.

ANSWER: d 75. Carol always seems down in the dumps, but she does not share those emotions or reasons with her family and friends. Carol MOST likely has a _____ personality. a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D ANSWER: d 76. Research supports that having either Type _____ or Type _____ personality increases the risk of heart disease. a. A; D b. A; B c. B; C d. C; D ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 77. The dominant way in which psychologists understand an individual's disposition and explore its link to stress is by using the _____ theory. a. psychosocial b. five-factor model of personality c. developmental d. sociocultural ANSWER: b 78. _____ describes the tendency to experience negative emotions such as anxiety and depression. a. Extraversion b. Introversion c. Neuroticism d. Agreeableness ANSWER: c 79. _____ is the tendency to be socially outgoing. a. Agreeableness b. Conscientiousness c. Neuroticism d. Extraversion ANSWER: d 80. _____ is the tendency to be receptive to new or unconventional ideas. a. Conscientiousness b. Neuroticism c. Extraversion d. Openness to experience ANSWER: d 81. _____ is the tendency to be organized, responsible, and deliberate. a. Extraversion b. Openness to experience c. Agreeableness d. Conscientiousness ANSWER: d 82. _____ is the tendency to cooperate and comply with other people. a. Openness to experience b. Conscientiousness c. Agreeableness d. Extraversion .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 83. Research suggests that the traits of _____ and _____ correlate with positive health outcomes. a. conscientiousness; extraversion b. neuroticism; extraversion c. introversion; conscientiousness d. agreeableness; neuroticism ANSWER: a 84. Research suggests that the trait of _____ correlates with negative health outcomes. a. openness to experience b. neuroticism c. agreeableness d. extraversion ANSWER: b 85. The psychological disorder lasting at least a month, characterized by feeling continuously on edge, having difficulty sleeping and concentrating, and frequently recalling or reliving the event, is known as _____ disorder. a. acute stress b. major depressive c. adjustment d. posttraumatic stress ANSWER: d 86. Which is NOT one of the symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder? a. constantly feeling on edge b. ignoring reminders of the trauma c. having frightening dreams d. having difficulty sleeping ANSWER: b 87. A _____ involves exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence. a. nightmare b. trauma c. hassle d. disorder ANSWER: b 88. If a person experiences trauma _____, they _____ develop posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). a. indirectly; will certainly b. directly or indirectly; will certainly .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. directly; will not d. directly or indirectly; may or may not ANSWER: d 89. The psychological disorder that takes place in the days and weeks immediately after a trauma in which the person feels dazed or anxious and experiences flashbacks is called _____ disorder. a. posttraumatic stress b. acute stress c. major depressive d. adjustment ANSWER: b 90. The only difference between posttraumatic stress disorder and acute stress disorder is: a. which symptoms are displayed. b. how strong the symptoms are. c. how many of the symptoms are displayed. d. when the symptoms begin to appear.

ANSWER: d 91. The psychological disorder that is defined by an excessively disruptive stress reaction to an identifiable but nontraumatic stressor is called _____ disorder. a. posttraumatic stress b. adjustment c. major depressive d. acute stress ANSWER: b 92. The MOST appropriate diagnosis for a person whose reaction to a nontraumatic or common stressor is excessively disruptive is _____ disorder. a. adjustment b. acute stress c. major depressive d. anxiety ANSWER: a 93. Wolfgang was in California when a powerful earthquake hit. They were not injured during the quake, but they were very frightened by the shaking building and objects falling around them. Wolfgang felt better once they returned home, but, even 2 months later, they would have distressing nightmares and became very nervous if a building shook even a little bit. Wolfgang would be MOST likely to be given a diagnosis of _____ disorder. a. acute stress b. posttraumatic stress c. adjustment .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. major depressive ANSWER: b 94. Mario was on a plane that experienced major turbulence. At certain points of the flight, it felt as if the plane was going to crash. When the plane landed, Mario was relieved to be on the ground and did not want to get on another plane. He was scheduled to board another flight that evening, but Mario could not get on the plane. In fact, he could not bring himself to board another plane for weeks. What would be the MOST likely diagnosis for Mario? a. posttraumatic stress disorder b. adjustment disorder c. acute stress disorder d. anxiety disorder ANSWER: c 95. Maduenu's family dog, which Maduenu had had since she was four, passed away in its sleep when it was very old. Although the whole family was sad to lose their much-loved dog, they soon got on with their lives, except for Maduenu, who was devastated. She cried every day and refused to do anything that might make her happy, and this behavior continued for weeks after everyone else had moved on. It is MOST likely that Maduenu is experiencing _____ disorder. a. posttraumatic stress b. acute stress c. adjustment d. anxiety ANSWER: c 96. A situation where people experience trauma, but find a way to benefit, improve, or enrich themselves from that point forward is called _____ by psychologists. a. posttraumatic growth b. psychological growth c. psychological adjustment d. posttraumatic adjustment ANSWER: a 97. People can show resilience to trauma through _____, which is deliberately looking for the advantages of the experience of the trauma. a. meaning making b. hardiness c. hopefulness d. benefit finding ANSWER: d 98. People show resilience to trauma through _____, which is trying to create some sense out of what may not have made sense at first. .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. benefit finding b. hopefulness c. meaning making d. optimistic thinking ANSWER: c 99. When Tyra survived a violent crime, she decided she wanted to volunteer to help other victims of violent crimes to heal. Tyra is showing posttraumatic growth through: a. meaning making. b. hopefulness. c. optimistic thinking. d. benefit finding.

ANSWER: a 100. People show resilience to trauma with the notion of _____, which is defined as the interpretation of stress as an opportunity instead of a threat. a. meaning making b. eustress c. optimism d. benefit finding ANSWER: b 101. Gunther was promoted to chair the chemistry department at the university he worked at. At first, he was irritated that he had to do more work and take time away from his teaching and research. However, Gunther decided to turn the distress into _____, which means he interpreted stress as an opportunity instead of a threat.

Then Gunther was able to grow in his position as chair and perform all the necessary tasks. a. trauma b. eustress c. optimism d. hopefulness ANSWER: b 102. In studies assessing the impact of the COVID pandemic on the stress levels of Americans, participants who _____ were more likely to show resilience or decreasing stress over time. a. were younger b. had more social support c. were less mindful d. in serious distress ANSWER: b 103. Men experience traumatic stressors _____ often than women, and women experience posttraumatic stress disorder _____ often than do men. .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. more; less b. more; more c. less; more d. less; less ANSWER: b 104. Male individuals are more likely to experience trauma related to _____, while female individuals are more likely to experience trauma related to _____. a. war; sexual assault b. sexual assault; physical assault c. war; physical assault d. sexual assault; war ANSWER: a 105. Women tend to be uniquely vulnerable to stressors related to _____, while men tend to be uniquely vulnerable to stressors related to _____. a. career; fertility b. pregnancy; impotence c. career; pregnancy d. career; impotence ANSWER: b 106. Social norms play a significant role in what men and women experience as stressful. Women tend to experience more _____-related stress, while men tend to experience more stress related to _____. a. caregiving; money b. money; housekeeping c. housekeeping; caregiving d. career; money ANSWER: a 107. According to research on stress and ethnicity, who is more likely to experience more stress? a. Gustavo, who is a Mexican immigrant and cannot find a job after recently moving b. Laura, who is about to attend college in her hometown on an academic scholarship c. John, who is the CEO of a Fortune 500 company in a city he has lived for 20 years d. Amelia, who is not an ethnic minority and is a stay-at-home mom with three children ANSWER: a 108. _____ ethnicities emphasize the well-being of the group over the individual. a. Individualistic b. Collectivistic c. Sociocultural .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. Majority ANSWER: b 109. _____ ethnicities emphasize the well-being of the person over the group. a. Individualistic b. Collectivistic c. Sociocultural d. Majority ANSWER: a 110. An individual from a collectivistic culture would MOST likely feel stress about: a. personal academic achievements. b. more responsibility at work. c. conflict in family relationships. d. personal health issues.

ANSWER: c 111. An individual from an individualistic culture would MOST likely feel stress about: a. ailing parents. b. being up for promotion at work. c. conflicts in family relationships. d. providing enough support to family members.

ANSWER: b 112. When people from individualistic cultures get stressed, they tend to feel it _____, while when individuals from collectivistic cultures get stressed, they tend to feel it _____. a. mentally; emotionally b. physically; emotionally c. physically; mentally d. mentally; physically ANSWER: d 113. Xiu is from China, a collectivistic culture. They are MOST likely to get stressed about _____ and to feel it _____. a. personal achievement; mentally b. personal achievement; physically c. family harmony; mentally d. family harmony; physically ANSWER: d 114. Thea is from the United States, an individualistic culture. They are MOST likely to get stressed about _____ and to feel it _____. .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. personal achievement; mentally b. personal achievement; physically c. family harmony; mentally d. family harmony; physically ANSWER: a 115. Botan is from Japan, a collectivist culture. He was expecting a promotion at the job he's been at for 5 years, but the position was given to a more junior colleague. Studies on stress and culture would suggest Botan would MOST likely: a. experience no stress from the situation. b. accept it if fighting it would threaten harmony. c. fight for the promotion despite threatening harmony. d. be unwilling to sacrifice personal gains.

ANSWER: b 116. Kaia is from New Zealand, an individualistic culture. She was expecting an award from the job she's been at for 10 years, but the company announced another winner. Studies on stress and culture would suggest Kaia would MOST likely: a. experience no stress from the situation. b. accept the decision if fighting it would threaten harmony. c. speak up about the decision despite threatening harmony. d. be willing to sacrifice her personal goals to preserve harmony.

ANSWER: c 117. Binna is Korean, which is a collectivist culture. Binna was expecting to be the maid of honor at her sister's wedding, but her sister chose another bridesmaid. Studies on stress and culture would suggest Binna would MOST likely: a. experience no stress from the situation. b. experience less stress than someone from an individualistic culture. c. feel mental stress and report about unpleasant thoughts and emotions. d. feel stress physically and report headaches and bodily pain.

ANSWER: d 118. Aadan is from the United Kingdom, an individualistic culture. They were expecting a high score on the essay they wrote in English class, but they received only an average one. Studies on stress and culture would suggest Aadan would MOST likely: a. experience no stress from the situation. b. experience less stress than someone from a collectivistic culture. c. feel mental stress and report about unpleasant thoughts and emotions. d. feel stress physically and report headaches and bodily pain.

ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 119. During the preschool years, _____ is a common source of stress. a. making friends b. a power struggle with parents c. health problems d. academic achievement ANSWER: b 120. Dion is in preschool, whereas his sister, Fay, is in middle school. Dion is MOST likely to experience stress related to _____, and Fay is MOST likely to experience stress related to _____. a. power struggles with parents; academic achievement b. academic achievement; power struggles with parents c. health problems; popularity d. popularity; health problems ANSWER: a 121. During the elementary school years, _____ is a common source of stress. a. academic achievement b. a power struggle with parents c. health problems d. finishing school ANSWER: a 122. Ritu is in elementary school, whereas her brother, Javon, is in high school. Ritu is MOST likely to experience stress related to _____, and Javon is MOST likely to experience stress related to _____. a. making friends; popularity b. popularity; making friends c. health problems; money d. money; health problems ANSWER: a 123. Cazzie is in elementary school, whereas her sister, Emmy, is in high school. While many of their stressors are quite different, the sisters are both likely to experience stress related to _____ despite their age differences. a. academic achievement b. dating c. health problems d. money ANSWER: a 124. During the middle school years, _____ is a common source of stress. a. a power struggle with parents b. making friends .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. starting to date d. money ANSWER: c 125. During the high school years, _____ is a common source of stress. a. dating b. saving money c. athletics d. making friends ANSWER: a 126. Ari is a young adult just entering the workforce, and at their new job they befriend Gallagher, who is an older adult. Ari is MOST likely to experience stress related to _____, and Gallagher is MOST likely to experience stress related to _____. a. raising young kids; caregiver burdens b. caregiver burdens; raising young kids c. health problems; divorce d. money; finishing school ANSWER: a 127. Which is the BEST example of a common source of stress unique to the young adult years? a. academic achievement b. dating c. making friends d. finishing school ANSWER: d 128. During the middle-aged to older-adult years, a common source of stress is: a. a committed relationship. b. making friends. c. finding a career. d. the death of parents.

ANSWER: d 129. Studies suggest that women who experienced major stressors during their childhood are more likely to have their first period at a(n) _____ age and have their first baby at a(n) _____ age compared to women who were less stressed in childhood. a. older; older b. older; younger c. younger; older d. younger; younger .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 130. Studies suggest that older adults experience _____ stress than younger adults and that stress impacts older adults _____ negatively than younger adults. a. less; less b. more; more c. more; less d. less; more ANSWER: d 131. _____ is making efforts to reduce or manage your experience of stress. a. Resistance b. Coping c. Strategizing d. Tolerating ANSWER: b 132. Meghan has a very stressful job. Which strategy would be the healthiest for coping with her stress? a. going out drinking with her friends b. going to a yoga class c. going home to sleep for as long as she can d. skipping meals to catch up on work ANSWER: b 133. Which coping strategy would MOST likely be used by a woman? a. fixing the issue b. problem solving c. talking about the problem d. ignoring the issue ANSWER: c 134. Based on studies on the diversity of coping style across genders, which person is MOST likely a woman?

The person who: a. identifies and immediately fixes the problem. b. engages in problem solving about the issue. c. calls their friend to talk about a problem. d. ignores the problem as it becomes worse.

ANSWER: c 135. Which coping strategy would MOST likely be used by a man? a. talking about the stress with friends .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice b. fixing the issue that is causing the stress c. talking about the emotions surrounding the stress d. befriending people to help with the issue and the stress ANSWER: b 136. Based on studies on the diversity of coping style across genders, which person is MOST likely a man? The person who: a. calls their friend to talk about the problem. b. immediately identifies and fixes the problem. c. talks through their emotions surrounding the problem. d. asks people around them to help with the problem.

ANSWER: b 137. Which coping strategy would a person from a collectivist ethnicity MOST likely employ? a. trying to change something internal to help with the stress b. accepting help from family and friends c. discussing the emotions surrounding the stress with family members d. ignoring the issue and the stress ANSWER: a 138. Based on studies on the diversity of coping style across ethnicities and cultures, which person is MOST likely from a collectivist ethnicity? The person who: a. tries to change something within themselves to help manage the problem. b. accepts help from family and friends to address the problem. c. discusses their emotions surrounding the problem. d. ignores the issue as the problem grows.

ANSWER: a 139. Which coping strategy would a person from an individualistic ethnicity MOST likely employ? a. change something internal to fix the stress b. ignore the issue and the stress surrounding it c. directly ask family and friends for help d. fix the issue independently ANSWER: c 140. Based on studies on the diversity of coping style across ethnicities and cultures, which person is MOST likely from an individualistic ethnicity? The person who: a. changes something within themselves to fix the stress. b. ignores the issue and the stress surrounding it c. directly asks family and friends for help. d. fixes the issue independently. .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 141. A form of psychotherapy that is based on the notion of thinking about the things that happen in more realistic and logical ways is referred to as _____ therapy. a. behavioral b. sociocultural c. cognitive d. intellectual ANSWER: c 142. In a form of psychotherapy called cognitive therapy, the focus is to change one's _____ stress such that a stressor would be evaluated in a more realistic and logical way. a. behavioral response to b. coping with c. appraisal of d. mindfulness regarding ANSWER: c 143. An awareness of your moment-to-moment experience fully, deliberately, and without distraction is known as: a. mindfulness. b. trauma. c. appraisal. d. coping.

ANSWER: a 144. People who have an awareness of their moment-to-moment experiences rather than acting on autopilot would be said to have a higher level of: a. mindfulness. b. trauma. c. appraisal. d. coping.

ANSWER: a 145. Adverse impacts of stress are highest in people who have _____ levels of stress and believe that stress _____ health. a. high; decreases b. high; doesn't affect c. low; decreases d. low; doesn't affect ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 146. _____-focused coping is a style of coping with stress that emphasizes changing the stressor itself. a. Problem b. Emotion c. Cognitive d. Behavior ANSWER: a 147. When Cyndi encounters a problem and feels stress, they typically engage in _____-focused coping, where they decide to face the stress head-on in an attempt to solve the issue and decrease their stress. a. emotion b. trauma c. behavior d. problem ANSWER: d 148. Which person is engaging in behavior that serves as the BEST example of problem-focused coping strategy? a. Byn, who is talking to his partner about how he feels b. Sandra, who is working more hours to pay off debt c. Dina, who shouts at her partner when he comes home late d. Pat, who goes out for drinks with coworkers after a long day ANSWER: b 149. A style of coping with stress that emphasizes changing one's expressive reaction to the stressor, rather than changing the stressor itself, is called _____-focused. a. problem b. behavior c. cognitive d. emotion ANSWER: d 150. Toni finds her boss to be really demanding and mean. Toni accepts this stressor as unchangeable and instead focuses on changing how she feels about her boss. This style of coping is an example of _____-focused coping. a. cognitive b. behavior c. emotion d. problem ANSWER: c 151. You have a huge exam on Friday, and that is also the day your 10-page research paper is due. Which is a problem-focused coping method to deal with this stress? .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. go out with your friends to blow off steam b. set up a schedule for studying and working on the paper c. call your best friend and spend an hour venting about your stress d. work extra hours at your part-time job ANSWER: b 152. Levi has a midterm exam on Monday, and that is also the day his 25-page term paper is due. Which is an emotion-focused coping method he might use to deal with these stressors? a. convince himself that grades are not such a big deal b. set up a schedule for studying and working on the paper c. schedule times at the tutoring and writing centers on campus d. work extra hours at his part-time job ANSWER: a 153. Using _____ coping strategies works BEST when stressors are controllable, whereas using _____ coping strategies works BEST when stressors are uncontrollable. a. no; problem-focused b. problem-focused; emotion-focused c. emotion-focused; problem-focused d. no; emotion-focused ANSWER: b 154. Psychologists refer to _____ as an increased awareness of what is going on inside of you. a. mindfulness b. critical thinking c. meta-analysis d. cognition ANSWER: a 155. _____ is your moment-to-moment physical and psychological experiences, with an emphasis on just feeling it, rather than analyzing it or avoiding it. a. Meta-analysis b. Cognition c. Mindfulness d. Critical thinking ANSWER: c 156. A person high in mindfulness: a. lives on autopilot, numbly going through the motions of life. b. actively pays attention to what is happening to him or her. c. represses emotions or evades stress through distractions. .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice d. stays active and engaged in activities to avoid stress.

ANSWER: b 157. As mindfulness _____, stress _____. a. increases; increases b. increases; decreases c. decreases; decreases d. increases; stays the same ANSWER: b 158. Which person is the BEST example of someone who is practicing mindfulness? a. Amanda recognizes that she feels very uncomfortable going on a blind date but decides to go anyway. b. Jose works overtime at his job to help with the family finances. c. LaToya tells her family and friends that she is doing fine dealing with her husband's illness. d. Matthew decides to sleep late and skip his hardest class, since he is failing the class anyway.

ANSWER: a 159. Researchers have found that prolonged _____ is the most toxic stressor of all, often producing serious physical and psychological health problems. a. drinking b. avoidance c. social isolation d. sadness ANSWER: c 160. Loneliness is the result of: a. drinking alcohol. b. avoiding problems. c. social isolation. d. emotion-based coping.

ANSWER: c 161. Who is MOST likely experiencing harmful stress? a. Vanya, whose family died when they finished college and who has no close friends b. Diego, who works two jobs, with no energy for relationships, but has friends at work c. Klaus, who hasn't found a job since graduating but has encouragement from his family d. Jordan, who has major depressive disorder and is seeing a therapist once a week ANSWER: a 162. Men experience social isolation _____ often than women, and younger individuals experience social isolation _____ often than older individuals. .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. less; less b. less; more c. more; more d. more; less ANSWER: c 163. Older individuals experience social isolation _____ often than younger individuals, and individuals from collectivistic cultures experience social isolation _____ often than individuals from individualistic cultures. a. less; less b. less; more c. more; more d. more; less ANSWER: a 164. Your _____ is defined by the relationships you have with friends, family, and others that can be beneficial when experiencing stress. a. emotion-based coping b. instrumental appraisal c. problem-based coping d. social support ANSWER: d 165. You gain knowledge or understanding from your family and friends who make up your _____ social support. a. instrumental b. informational c. emotional d. intellectual ANSWER: b 166. You gain something tangible, like use of a car or money to attend college, from your family or friends that make up your _____ social support. a. instrumental b. informational c. emotional d. intellectual ANSWER: a 167. You receive warmth, reassurance, or other expressions of feeling from family and friends who make up your _____ social support. a. instrumental b. informational .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. emotional d. intellectual ANSWER: c 168. Colm is taking their first trip to a different country. They are not sure what they should pack or what to expect at the airport. Colm's cousin emails Colm a list of packing suggestions, and Colm's uncle suggests a show on a travel channel to watch. Colm's cousin and uncle are providing Colm with _____ social support. a. instrumental b. informational c. emotional d. problem-based ANSWER: b 169. Ritu's motorcycle needs an oil change, but she doesn't have the tools she needs to perform the oil change.

She asks her coworker, Dave, if she could borrow his tools. Dave is providing Ritu with _____ social support. a. instrumental b. informational c. emotional d. tangible ANSWER: a 170. Yusuf had broken up with his boyfriend and was very depressed. Yusuf's friend, Marin, went to see Yusuf, let him cry on her shoulder, and took him out to have a fun night out. Marin provided _____ social support to Yusuf. a. instrumental b. informational c. emotional d. intangible ANSWER: c 171. People with high levels of social support are _____ likely to develop physical ailments and are _____ likely to develop mental health problems than people with low levels of social support. a. more; less b. more; more c. less; less d. less; more ANSWER: c 172. Especially in times of high stress, women are _____ likely than men to provide social support and _____ likely than men to receive social support. a. more; less b. more; more .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. less; less d. less; more ANSWER: b 173. _____ coping is a coping style that focuses on future goals and the stressors that could impede them. a. Emotional b. Behavioral c. Proactive d. Intellectual ANSWER: c 174. The major advantage to proactive coping is that it: a. does not involve emotions. b. builds stronger relationships. c. eliminates unhealthy behaviors. d. emphasizes stressors that have not yet happened.

ANSWER: d 175. Who is BEST exemplifying proactive coping? a. Brielle, who researched the best time to travel to Portugal before making vacation plans b. Rumi, who is running late because they forgot that they had an empty gas tank c. Julien, who calls his mother back after hanging up on her during an argument on the phone d. Stephen, who is writing a 25-page research report the day before it's due ANSWER: a 176. Behaviors that reflect resilience during stressful situations are called _____, and a coping style that focuses on future goals and the stressors that could impede them is called _____ coping. a. problem-focused; emotion-focused b. proactive; hardiness c. hardiness; proactive d. emotion-focused; problem-focused ANSWER: c 177. A person who demonstrates behaviors that reflect resilience during stressful situations is said to have: a. optimism. b. positivism. c. hardiness. d. trauma.

ANSWER: c 178. Hardiness is described by psychologists as consisting of: .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. removing oneself from challenge, being passive, and avoiding problematic situations. b. committing to involvement in the situation, controlling the situation, and seeing the situation as a challenge. c. committing to involvement in the situation, being passive, and fearing the situation. d. removing oneself from challenge, controlling the situation, and seeing the situation as a challenge.

ANSWER: b 179. In hardiness, _____ is staying involved in a tough situation even when it gets stressful, as opposed to looking for an easy escape. a. control b. commitment c. consistency d. challenge ANSWER: b 180. In hardiness, it is important to _____ the situation as much as possible and exert whatever influence you can, rather than remaining passive. a. control b. commit to c. show consistency in d. challenge ANSWER: a 181. In hardiness, it is important to see a stressor as a _____ to face courageously rather than a threat to be avoided fearfully. a. control b. commitment c. consistency d. challenge ANSWER: d 182. Who is demonstrating the MOST hardiness? a. Alina, who broke up with her girlfriend so she could focus on herself b. Javon, who decided not to take a new job because they didn't feel qualified c. Fei, whose mother just died and feels unsure of how to process her emotions d. Sean, who is staying in a job he dislikes because he doesn't want to search for another ANSWER: a 183. _____ is an attitude toward the future characterized by hope or expectation of a positive outcome. a. Mindfulness b. Positivism .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice c. Optimism d. Idealism ANSWER: c 184. Who is demonstrating the MOST optimism? a. Dov, who broke up with his boyfriend because he wants to be with someone who shares more of his values b. Callum, who decided not to take a new job because they didn't feel ready for more responsibility c. Ishak, whose mother just died and is worried about how it's going to impact her father's health and wellbeing d. Yusof, who is staying in a job he dislikes because he feels that no one would hire him at his age ANSWER: a 185. A perspective in psychology that emphasizes people's strengths and successes is called _____ psychology. a. positive b. optimistic c. mindful d. cognitive ANSWER: a 186. As good as optimism is for handling stress, being hardy may be a little bit better. The BEST reason for this is because hardy people: a. do not face stressful situations as often as less hardy people. b. work to make sure positive outcomes happen, rather than just thinking they will. c. tend to be more patient and wait for the results to happen. d. are more proactive and tend to avoid stressful situations before they happen.

ANSWER: b 187. Psychologists who focus on health-related issues tend to use a(n) _____ model with their patients so they can think about their readiness to make adjustments. a. hardiness b. optimistic readiness c. cognitive behavioral d. stages of change ANSWER: d 188. Aerobic exercise _____ stress and _____ stress-associated health risks. a. increases; decreases b. decreases; decreases c. increases; increases d. decreases; increases .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 189. Calem was advised by his doctor to eat more protein and take iron supplements. Using the stages of change model, which stage would Calem MOST likely be in if he was thinking, "I'm in good health with my current diet and without supplements, why do I need to change?" a. contemplation b. precontemplation c. resistance d. maintenance ANSWER: b 190. Oscar was advised by his physician to consume less sugar. Using the stages of change model, which stage would Oscar be in if he thought, "I have had quite a few cavities in the last few years, and I have gained weight.

Maybe cutting back on soda and candy would help." a. contemplation b. precontemplation c. resistance d. maintenance ANSWER: a 191. Odessa was advised by their doctor to get regularly screened for colon cancer. Using the stages of change model, which stage would Odessa be in if they were thinking, "Because of my family history, I really should get checked regularly. I'll make an appointment in the next month" a. precontemplation b. contemplation c. preparation d. resistance ANSWER: c 192. Mouna was advised by her doctor to perform back-strengthening exercises after childbirth. Using the stages of change model, which stage would Mouna be in if she was thinking, "I am doing my exercises three times a day—before breakfast, after lunch, and right before sleep!" a. contemplation b. preparation c. resistance d. action ANSWER: d 193. Carissa was advised by her doctor to add some exercise into her life. Using the stages of change model, which stage would Carissa be in if she was thinking, "I feel so much better since I started exercising. I need to keep this up!" a. preparation .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice b. action c. maintenance d. contemplation ANSWER: c 194. What is the correct order of the stages in the stages of change model? a. precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance b. preparation, precontemplation, contemplation, action, maintenance c. maintenance, precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action d. preparation, maintenance, precontemplation, contemplation, action ANSWER: a 195. A particularly beneficial form of exercise is _____ exercise, which is physical exercise that maintains an increased heart rate for an extended period of time. a. anaerobic b. aerobic c. cardiovascular d. strength building ANSWER: b 196. The standard, mainstream Western health care system with doctors, nurses, and hospitals is referred to as _____ medicine. a. preconventional b. conventional c. complementary d. alternative ANSWER: b 197. Health care that supplements conventional medicine is called _____ medicine. a. preconventional b. alternative c. complementary d. traditional ANSWER: c 198. _____ medicine is health care that is used in place of conventional medicine. a. Preconventional b. Alternative c. Complementary d. Traditional ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice 199. When complementary and alternative medicine are used together, this is called: a. AMC. b. MAC. c. ACM. d. CAM. ANSWER: d 200. When the best of CAM is combined with the best of conventional medicine, the term _____ medicine is often used. a. integrative b. collaborative c. intertwined d. immiscible ANSWER: a 201. In which pair are both practices considered conventional medicine? a. acupuncture, acupressure b. meditation, homeopathic medicine c. psychotherapy, prescription medicine d. biofeedback, meditation ANSWER: c 202. Kanya has been feeling shooting pains in their wrist when they hold their phone. Their friend suggests trying _____, a technique involving the insertion of needles into the skin at specific points to alleviate stress or pain. a. meditation b. psychotherapy c. biofeedback d. acupuncture ANSWER: d 203. A person who deliberately brings the mind to a peaceful state characterized by heightened awareness and minimal thought is practicing: a. mindfulness. b. meditation. c. biofeedback. d. critical thinking.

ANSWER: b 204. _____ meditation involves a focus on a single stimulus, often coming from within the person, such as breathing patterns or a repeated sound. .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. Homeopathic b. Mindfulness c. Concentrative d. Concerted ANSWER: c 205. _____ meditation involves increased attention to all stimuli in the internal and external environment. a. Homeopathic b. Mindfulness c. Concentrative d. Concerted ANSWER: b 206. Cathy has been attending yoga for several months and has learned to focus on her breathing. When she is not in yoga, she spends 20 minutes a day reflecting on her breathing and quieting her mind. This is BEST described as: a. homeopathic medicine. b. concentrative meditation. c. biofeedback. d. mindfulness meditation.

ANSWER: b 207. Dewshane is meditating by focusing on a single stimulus—in this case, their breathing. Berva's meditation involves their increased attention to all stimuli in the internal and external environment. Dewshane's style of meditation is BEST described as _____, and Berva's style of meditation is BEST described as _____. a. concentrative; concentrative b. concentrative; mindfulness c. mindfulness; concentrative d. mindfulness; mindfulness ANSWER: b 208. _____ medicine is health care based on the idea that the human body has the ability to heal itself and is characterized by low-dose medications made from natural sources. a. Homeopathic b. Traditional c. Conventional d. Customary ANSWER: a 209. Crystal practices _____ medicine, which means she believes that the body has an impressive and often underestimated ability to heal itself, but it may need just a little push from a small dose of medication from a natural source to kick-start the healing process. .

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Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice a. traditional b. conventional c. homeopathic d. customary ANSWER: c 210. Critics of _____ medicine, which is characterized by taking low-dose medications made from natural sources, argue that any effects of this kind of health care are most likely due to the placebo effect. a. homeopathic b. traditional c. conventional d. customary ANSWER: a 211. Mitchell went to his doctor because he had been feeling anxious. His doctor hooked him up to a monitor to detect information about his heartbeat and muscle tension. Mitchell ran on a treadmill while this information was monitored. Mitchell's doctor was using _____ to procure diagnostic information. a. sports medicine b. biofeedback c. meditation d. exercise physiology ANSWER: b 212. _____ can be an important tool, allowing people to see or hear what their heart is doing through a graph on a screen or through beeps from a machine. In addition, it can prompt people to take up _____ to lower their heart rates. a. Acupuncture; biofeedback b. Homeopathic medicine; acupuncture c. Biofeedback; meditation d. Homeopathic medicine; biofeedback ANSWER: c

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Chapter 12 - Essay 1. Compare the nature versus nurture view of personality. How does behavior genetics use twin/adoption studies to support its claims? Why is it that psychologists use the word theory to explain personality?

ANSWER: Personality is a person's distinctive and stable way of thinking, feeling, and behaving. There are rarely changes in who the person is because personality is stable. Some researchers believe you are born with your personality, supporting the nature perspective. You can witness the genetic influence in babies. Researchers who believe the situations around a person affect the way a person thinks, feels, and acts would support the nurture perspective. Behavior genetics is defined as the study of the impact of genes (nature) and environment (nurture) on personality and behavior. Many of the studies researchers have completed have found that identical twins, who share all of the same genes, have a much higher likelihood of matching each other on personality traits than fraternal twins, who share only some of the same genes. Many adoption studies also support that genes influence personality. Because psychologists are still figuring out everything that contributes to personality and not all of it can be scientifically evaluated, experts use the term theory rather than fact.

2. Explain the structure of personality as described by Freud. Describe how the id, superego, and ego work together to form a personality. How does the unconscious mind fit into the structure of personality?

ANSWER: Freud described the unconscious as mental activity of which the person is unaware. These unconscious activities, such as thoughts, impulses, and wishes, drive us, influence our thoughts and behaviors, and affect our lives. Freud believed that personality was a by-product of the interaction of three components of the mind: the id, the ego, and the superego. He believed these three components lie in the unconscious mind, at least partially, with the id being totally hidden in the unconscious mind. These components are engaged in constant battle with each other, and it is those battles that determine our personalities. The id is the primal part of the mind that generates animalistic, biologically based impulses such as sex and aggression. The superego is the part of the mind that opposes the id, enforcing rules, restrictions, and morality. The ego is the part of the mind that serves as a realistic mediator between the id and the superego. Its task is to find ways to satisfy both the id and the superego, while also meeting the demands of the outside world.

3. Define and describe what a defense mechanism is. Pick three defense mechanisms to discuss in detail.

Explain how they differ from one another and provide an example of each.

ANSWER: Student examples will differ. A defense mechanism is a technique used by the ego to manage conflict between the id and the superego. The defense mechanisms are: Repression—when you hide your id impulse in the unconscious to keep you unaware of it. Denial—when you block external events from consciousness because they are too threatening. Regression—when you retreat to an earlier time in your life when the current stressor was absent. Projection—when you "project" your id impulse onto others, so it appears they have it rather than you. Rationalization—when you come up with seemingly acceptable explanations for behaviors actually based on id impulses. Reaction formation—when you overreact against the id impulses by doing the exact opposite, as if overcompensating. Displacement—when you redirect the id impulse toward a safer target in order to minimize the consequences to you. Sublimation—when you redirect the id impulse in a way that actually benefits others.

4. Describe the psychosexual stages of development as theorized by Freud. Explain how experiences in these childhood stages, including fixations, may serve to shape one's personality as an adult.

ANSWER: According to Freud, each psychosexual stage centers on a particular body part that is the focus of the child's life during that period. Kids will typically move successfully through each psychosexual .

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Chapter 12 - Essay stage; however, fixation may also occur, which translates to a lingering psychological problem directly related to unsuccessful transition from a particular psychosexual stage. The first stage is the oral stage, which takes place from birth to about 18 months and focuses on the psychological consequences of feeding behavior. Babies experience much of the world through their mouths, and feeding is a primary activity. This is where they learn about trust and dependency. The second stage is the anal stage, which lasts from about 18 months to about age 3 years, and focuses on the psychological consequences of toilet training. This stage is about control and puts self-control demands on the child. The third stage is the phallic stage, which happens between ages 3 and 6. This stage focuses on the psychological consequences of attraction to the opposite-sex parent. Freud believed that preschool-aged children strive to have a special relationship with the opposite-sex parent, and they see the same-sex parent as a rival. Next is the latency stage, when the child basically just rests. That means the child's energy is focused on tasks that have little or nothing to do with sexual or bodily issues. The final stage is the genital stage, which lasts from puberty through adulthood and focuses on mature, adult sexual relationships. Freud believed that successful completion of these stages leads to a healthy personality and that personality is already set by the time the person reaches the genital stage.

5. Freud had many followers, including Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erikson, and Karen Horney. Pick two of these followers and describe their ideas and how they relate to the ideas of Freud and psychodynamic theory.

Compare and contrast the ideas of the theorists.

ANSWER: Alfred Adler believed children developed an inferiority complex that profoundly influenced their development. He believed our primary motivation is to strive for superiority over our own perceived weaknesses. He also believed that birth order affects personality development. Carl Jung was very much in agreement with Freud's thinking, until they differed on their ideas of the unconscious. Jung believed in a collective unconscious, whereas Freud believed in a personal, individual unconscious.

Jung also focused on archetypes and was the first person to use the terms introvert and extravert.

Erik Erikson based his well-known theory on the teachings of Freud. However, Freud's emphasis on biology and sex was replaced with social interaction with significant others. He also extended the theory throughout adulthood, making it more of a developmental theory, and disagreeing that personality is set by the time puberty hits. Karen Horney focused on the differences between males and females and pointed out that it would be a mistake to assume that Freud's theories applied equally to both men and women.

6. Compare and contrast the psychodynamic theory versus the humanistic theory of personality. Explain which theory is better aligned with your personal views on personality development, and support your explanation with an example.

ANSWER: The humanistic theory of personality is based on the ideas of Carl Rogers and emphasizes people's inherent tendencies toward healthy, positive growth and self-fulfillment. By contrast, the psychodynamic theory of personality is based on the ideas of Sigmund Freud and emphasizes the powerful role that unconscious forces and early childhood experiences play in shaping people's personalities. Freud's view of human nature is rather negative, asserting that people are primarily driven by biological, id-based urges and desires such as sex, aggression, and immediate gratification of pleasure. Rogers became a psychologist at a time when the psychodynamic view was dominant, but Rogers had a much more positive, optimistic view of human nature. He thus developed the humanistic theory of personality, guided by the belief that people are driven by an inborn tendency and desire to reach their full potential, much as a seedling sprouts from the ground with a natural tendency to grow, blossom, and bloom. .

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Chapter 12 - Essay 7. Describe the humanistic concepts of self-actualization, positive regard, conditions of worth, congruence, and incongruence. Provide examples to highlight each of these terms.

ANSWER: Self-actualization is fully becoming the person one has the potential to become and is an idea proposed by Abraham Maslow. An example of self-actualization could be a woman who has dreamed of becoming a mother, and when she does, reflects that she is living the life she is meant to live. Positive regard is the warmth, acceptance, and love of people around us, while conditions of worth are the requirements that a person must meet to earn positive regard. An example of positive regard would be the unconditional love a mother has for her child. An example of conditions of worth would be when a parent shows love to a child only when the child is behaving obediently and making high grades in school. A parent who loves a child despite the child's shortcomings would be giving positive regard. The root of mental wellness and a healthy personality is called congruence, when the real self matches the ideal self. In other words, the person is being true to who he or she is.

An example would be a parent providing love and positive regard to a child despite the child's desire to pursue a musical career instead of the parents' goal of college. Incongruence is a mismatch between the real self and the ideal self. This typically leads to unhappiness and mental illness. An example of this would be a teenager who chooses to smoke, even though he does not want to, in order to impress his friends.

8. Explain what is meant by self-concept. How does your self-concept relate to your self-esteem and self-worth?

Provide an example to highlight how people in your life can influence your self-concept.

ANSWER: Your self-concept is your view of who you are. It is influenced by the way in which important people in your life treat you, and how they respond to your self-actualizing behaviors. Your selfconcept is related to conditions of worth, because typically you will place the same conditions of worth on yourself that others have placed on you. Likewise, if you receive unconditional positive regard, then you will most likely develop unconditional positive self-regard. The ways we think about ourselves are not inborn, but molded by the opinions of the most important people in our lives. These opinions and evaluations can become part of our self-concept over time and could greatly affect our self-esteem and self-worth. An example could be a worker, constantly called "lazy" by her superiors, who may start to incorporate that message into her own self-concept.

9. Humanistic theory continues to be influential, especially in the way in which many psychotherapists practice.

Provide an example. Discuss the two strengths and two criticisms of the humanistic theory.

ANSWER: Humanistic theory helped to bring popularity to the positive psychology movement and continues to significantly influence the way that many therapists practice. Humanistic theory set the stage for the emphasis on self-concept and self-esteem, which were largely neglected before the 1960s. Now selfconcept and self-worth are building blocks in parenting, education, and family therapy. An increasing number of therapists are utilizing positive interventions and strength-based counseling.

These treatments differ from traditional styles, which focus on clients' problems and disorders.

These newer treatments focus on emphasizing and building on clients' assets and abilities. An example could be a woman seeking therapy to deal with anxiety. Traditional therapy might include focusing on the anxiety, the causes, and medication for dealing with the symptoms. Humanistic therapy, instead, might focus on meditation tactics, problem-solving skills, and some other strengths the woman could learn. Humanistic theory has been criticized for being too optimistic and lacking in scientific validity. It is difficult to empirically prove or disprove humanism's core concepts, such as the self-actualization tendency, the real and ideal selves, congruence, and incongruence. Humanistic theory is also criticized today for its strong endorsement of individualism. We are individuals, of .

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Chapter 12 - Essay course, but we are also members of close-knit groups (couples, families, communities, etc.), and we have obligations to balance what fosters our own personal growth with what fosters the well-being of the group.

10. Describe the behavioral theory of personality and explain why behaviorists think there is no such thing as personality.

ANSWER: The behavioral theory of personality emphasizes the influence of the environment and the importance of observable, measurable behavior. This perspective is much more grounded in science than either psychodynamic or humanistic theory. Behaviorists believe there is no such thing as personality because the definition of personality states it is "a person's distinctive and stable way of thinking, feeling, and behaving." Thinking and feeling are both activities that take place within the mind and therefore cannot be directly observed or measured. Behaviorists conclude that it is impossible to study personality empirically, and therefore, it should not receive any attention. Also, the word stable is a word that behaviorists are uncomfortable with. Stable implies that there is, deep within the person, a trait, a characteristic, a quality that causes them to consistently behave in a certain way. Behaviorists believe that our behavior changes when the environmental conditions change, not because of something internal.

11. Explain Bandura's concept of reciprocal determinism as it relates to the social-cognitive theory of personality. Provide an example.

ANSWER: The social-cognitive theory of personality emphasizes the interaction of environment, thought processes, and social factors. Rather than just letting reinforcements and punishments shape us, we think and talk about our experiences with other people, and even change our behaviors based on what we observe. We form expectations, interpretations, beliefs, and plans rather than just responding automatically to what goes on around us. According to Bandura's concept of reciprocal determinism, our thoughts, our environment, and our behavior all continually influence each other.

In other words, it's not just your environment that influences your behavior; rather, your behavior also influences the environment you choose to be in, and your cognitions play an influential role as well. An example could be someone who decides to go back to school to further their education. By attending class, the person puts herself in an environment where she receives support and encouragement from classmates and the instructor. This person also can see other students and the instructor as role models, and that can affect cognitions such as increased self-efficacy, as well as other behaviors. If the person has a positive experience, she will be more likely to believe she can succeed, continue to attend class, and progress with her education. If the person has a bad experience, this might negatively influence her desire to attend class, causing her to fall behind and feel as though she cannot succeed, and in turn stop pursuing further education.

12. Compare and contrast the ideas of internal locus of control and external locus of control. Provide an example of how a person who has an external locus of control versus a person who has an internal locus of control would explain being fired from a job.

ANSWER: Locus of control is a person's belief about how much control they have over what happens in their lives. There are two locations for locus of control: within the person and outside the person. An internal locus of control is the belief that one's life is under the control of forces inside of the person, and an external locus of control is the belief that one's life is under the control of forces outside of the person. If a person who has an internal locus of control was fired from their job, they would most likely explain it as due to internal forces, such as that they didn't work hard enough, were not a .

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Chapter 12 - Essay good fit for the position, or they're not responsible enough to keep a job. If a person who has an external locus of control was fired from their job, they would most likely explain it as due to external forces, such as that their boss had it out for them, their boss and their coworkers were too demanding, or the expectations were not made clear to them.

13. Describe in detail the five-factor model of personality. How do trait theories differ from other theories of personality?

ANSWER: The five-factor model of personality emphasizes five fundamental traits present in all people to varying degrees. These five fundamental traits are neuroticism, extraversion, openness to experience, conscientiousness, and agreeableness. Neuroticism is the tendency to experience negative emotions such as anxiety, depression, and stress. Extraversion is the tendency to be socially outgoing. Openness to experience is the tendency to be receptive to new or unconventional ideas.

Conscientiousness is the tendency to be organized, responsible, and deliberate. Agreeableness is the tendency to cooperate and comply with other people. These factors all exist on a continuum and can range from low scoring to high scoring. Each one serves as its own separate dimension of personality. Trait theories of personality emphasize the discovery and description of the basic components of personality. All other personality theories attempt to explain why and how personality develops the way it does. By contrast, trait theory attempts to explain what personality is made of.

14. Since the Big Five have been established as fundamental traits of personality, there have been many studies connecting the Big Five to a wide assortment of behaviors and characteristics—provide two examples of such connections.

ANSWER: The Big Five correlate with physical and mental health. People with high conscientiousness have the lowest levels of physical illness, and people with high neuroticism have the highest rate. High neuroticism also correlates with increased rates of some mental illnesses. The Big Five also correlate with grades. Conscientiousness, agreeableness, and openness positively correlate with grades. The Big Five correlate with job performance. An optimal level of conscientiousness correlates with high performance, but too much may interfere. People with high levels of extraversion perform especially well at professions that require social interaction, and these people, plus those high in openness, are the easiest to train for new jobs. The Big Five correlate with satisfaction in romantic relationships, with those who are low in neuroticism and high in agreeableness, conscientiousness, and extraversion being the best predictors; the opposite are the best predictors of divorce. The Big Five correlate with popularity and likability, with those who are low in neuroticism and high in agreeableness and extraversion being the most liked. The Big Five correlate with prejudice with low openness and agreeableness being the best predictors. The Big Five correlated with following 'shelter-in-place' orders during the COVID-19 pandemic, with those with higher levels of agreeableness and conscientiousness being more likely to follow safety guidelines. The Big Five correlate with problematic use of social media, with high levels of extraversion and neuroticism and low levels of conscientiousness correlating with problematic Facebook use. Finally, the Big Five correlate with the way people use their smartphones. People high in openness take the most photos and type the longest text messages, people high in conscientiousness check the weather and health-monitoring apps, and people high in extraversion make and receive more calls.

15. Is the five-factor model of personality a good fit for people around the world? Describe what type of people the model is a best fit for and how the model has to be modified to better fit people of other cultures and .

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Chapter 12 - Essay languages. Describe one way that it has been shown that multicultural experiences can influence personality traits.

ANSWER: The five-factor model of personality is somewhat of a good fit for people around the world. It works best for people in Western countries who speak English. In many non-Western countries, and especially in those where English is less used, there are often additional traits that need to be included. Studies have shown that multicultural experiences can influence personality traits.

Students who spent 1–2 semesters abroad had higher levels of openness and agreeableness and lower levels of neuroticism than they did when they left home. Students who watched a slideshow of people from a culture different from their own engaging in everyday activities had higher levels of openness that student who saw a slideshow of people from their own culture. Young women who immigrated from Japan to the United States tended to have personality scores more similar to people of the United States than Japan.

16. Discuss the reasons why trait theory dominates current research on personality and is generally viewed as a scientifically well-grounded explanation of personality. Provide three criticisms of trait theory as well.

ANSWER: The trait theory emphasizes the discovery and description of the basic components of personality.

All other theories attempt to explain why personality develops the way that it does, and trait theory attempts to explain what personality is made of. Many of the other theories rely heavily on speculation about the inner workings of the mind that cannot be empirically proven or disproven.

Trait theory has thus emerged in recent decades as a more scientific alternative. For that reason, while research on other theories has dwindled, research on trait theory has flourished. Trait theory also receives criticism, such as trait theories may not grasp all of the components of personality, especially with the Big Five theory. Second, there is an argument that traits do not endure for a lifetime, as trait theory suggests. Last, critics argue that there is an overemphasis on traits that leaves out the importance of external circumstances.

17. Describe three reasons why a psychologist may conduct a formal personality assessment. Give an example for each reason. Discuss why multimethod assessment is the preferred method to evaluate personality.

ANSWER: Psychologists assess personality for a variety of purposes. In many cases, the person being assessed is seeking treatment, and the personality assessment helps the psychologist determine the client's issues or diagnosis, which can lead to the appropriate course of treatment. An example of this might be a woman seeking the help of a psychologist for depression. Sometimes assessment is part of a legal process, such as in forensic psychology. An example of this might be a person pleading not guilty by reason of insanity. The psychologist would determine whether the defendant was insane.

Additionally, some psychologists assess personality as part of an employment process. This can help employers to hire or make placement decisions. An example of this might be using a personality test to determine whether or not to grant a promotion to an employee. Psychologists prefer multimethod assessment (an approach to personality assessment that emphasizes the use of multiple methods rather than only one method) mostly because no single personality assessment is perfect. Using more than one assessment tool allows the methods to offset the weaknesses of any individual method. This would ideally allow the multiple methods to converge upon similar results.

18. Compare and contrast projective personality tests to objective personality inventories. Use examples to highlight the differences. Discuss advantages and disadvantages of each method.

ANSWER: Psychologists use a wide variety of personality tests, and they are generally characterized as either objective or projective tests. In objective personality tests, the client responds to a standardized set .

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Chapter 12 - Essay of questions, usually in multiple-choice or true-false format. The scoring of objective tests is straightforward and can often be done by a computer. An example would be the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 (MMPI-2), which is a true-false type format with 567 selfdescriptive statements. The primary disadvantage of objective-type tests is their self-report method, which means clients answer questions about themselves. Some clients may give inaccurate answers to fake a personality. In projective personality tests, clients respond to ambiguous stimuli in a freeform way. Projective tests are based on the assumption that the way you interpret what you see reveals something about your personality. Rather than forcing clients into a multiple-choice or truefalse response, projective tests allow them to respond however they choose, with no restrictions.

Projective tests are not as popular or respected as they once were, however, primarily because they lack the validity and reliability of the objective tests. Psychologists cannot be completely confident that projective tests really measure the personality characteristics they claim to measure. It also means that psychologists cannot be sure that the conclusions that one psychologist would make about a client's projective test would match the conclusions another psychologist would make. An example of this would be the Rorschach inkblot technique, where psychologists might interpret the answers differently. This lack of standardization draws significant criticism and controversy for projective tests.

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 1. When you describe your stable way of thinking, feeling, and behaving, you are describing your: a. emotions. b. current state. c. personality. d. mood.

ANSWER: c 2. Your roommate is telling you about a podcast that was talking about any given individual's stable way of thinking, feeling, and behaving. The podcast MOST likely is about: a. emotions. b. situation. c. personality. d. mood.

ANSWER: c 3. _____ is a unique set of characteristics that differentiates you from other people. a. Personality b. Mood c. Self-concept d. Self-esteem ANSWER: a 4. Your personality can be predictable, largely because it is considered _____ and _____. a. variable; long-term b. stable; long-term c. variable; short-term d. stable; short-term ANSWER: b 5. The psychological equivalent of your fingerprint is your: a. mood. b. self-concept. c. self-esteem. d. personality.

ANSWER: d 6. Rashmi is meeting up with her cousin, Padmaj, who she has not seen in 12 years. When the cousins meet, they start talking as if they'd seen the other yesterday. According to research on personality stability, this is because their personalities are _____, and they know how the other will behave. a. stable b. variable .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. inconsistent d. indescribable ANSWER: a 7. Which is a true statement about personality? a. The situation in which you find yourself is irrelevant to the way in which you will behave. b. Your personality is a strong influence on what you do and how you do it. c. Your behavior depends on the situation around you, and not because of your personality. d. Your personality will change frequently when you experience different types of situations.

ANSWER: b 8. An example of a research study that MOST likely studies personality is a study that examines: a. how children of different ages recover from trauma. b. how forgiving a person can be in different situations. c. how language develops in different cultures. d. the chemicals released in the brain when you're hungry.

ANSWER: b 9. Psychologists explain personality with _____ because it is a concept that is_____. a. theory; firmly established b. theory; still being defined c. fact; firmly established d. fact; still being defined ANSWER: b 10. _____ is the study of the impact of genes and environment on personality and behavior. a. Ethnology b. Genetic engineering c. Environmental biology d. Behavioral genetics ANSWER: d 11. The focus of Dr. Xiao's research is behavioral genetics. As such, they MOST likely study the impact of _____ on personality and behavior. a. both nature and nurture b. nature but not nurture c. nurture but not nature d. neither nature nor nurture ANSWER: a 12. According to behavioral genetics, who has the highest likelihood of having similar personality traits? .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. identical twins raised together b. fraternal twins raised together c. fraternal twins raised apart d. nontwin siblings raised together ANSWER: a 13. Identical (monozygotic) twins share _____ of the same genes, while fraternal (dizygotic) twins share _____ of the same genes. a. some; most b. all; most c. all; none d. some; none ANSWER: b 14. Researchers consistently find that adopted children have personalities that are _____that of their biological parents compared to that of their adoptive parents. a. less similar to b. more similar to c. the same as d. not at all similar to ANSWER: b 15. Arya was adopted at birth. His personality is MOST likely to be _____ the personality of his birth parents as compared to that of his adoptive parents. a. less similar to b. more similar to c. the same as d. not at all similar to ANSWER: b 16. Approximately what percentage of personality is thought to be explainable by genetics? a. 0 b. 25 c. 50 d. 100 ANSWER: c 17. An explanation of personality based on the ideas of Sigmund Freud that emphasize unconscious forces and early childhood experiences is the _____ theory of personality. a. humanistic b. trait .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. psychodynamic d. social-cognitive ANSWER: c 18. The psychodynamic theory of personality focuses on: a. early childhood experiences and unconscious forces. b. self-concept and self-actualization. c. environment and culture. d. genetics and brain development.

ANSWER: a 19. The study of personality was founded on the theory of: a. Maslow. b. Freud. c. Horney. d. Erikson.

ANSWER: b 20. In addition to psychodynamic, the term _____ is also widely used to refer to Freud's ideas. a. psychosexual b. unconscious c. self-efficacy d. psychoanalytic ANSWER: d 21. The _____ mind contains the mental activity of which the person is unaware. a. conscious b. unconscious c. preconscious d. active ANSWER: b 22. Freud believed our _____ mind strongly drives and influences our thoughts and actions, which affects our lives. a. unconscious b. conscious c. preconscious d. psychic ANSWER: a 23. According to Freud, the impact of the unconscious is so great that it can explain our actions that are .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice otherwise: a. determined. b. predictable. c. unexplainable. d. calculated.

ANSWER: c 24. The belief that accidental, arbitrary, or random behavior is determined by psychological forces is called: a. behavioral genetics. b. psychic determinism. c. behavioral genetics. d. displacement.

ANSWER: b 25. Hojjat recently started dating Rolf. Hojjat accidently called Rolf "Arnab," which is the name of Hojjat's former partner who Hojjat had a hard time getting over. This situation BEST exemplifies a(n): a. repression. b. psychological mishap. c. unconscious moment. d. Freudian slip.

ANSWER: d 26. Freud believed that personality was a by-product of the interaction of three components of the mind: the id, the ego, and the: a. superego. b. unconscious. c. conscious. d. subconscious.

ANSWER: a 27. Freud believed that personality was a by-product of the interaction of three components of the mind: the _____, the ego, and the superego. a. unconscious b. conscious c. id d. subconscious ANSWER: c 28. Freud believed that personality was a by-product of the interaction of three components of the mind: the id, the _____, and the superego. a. unconscious b. subconscious .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. conscious d. ego ANSWER: d 29. Freud proposed the _____ as the animalistic part of the mind that generates our most primal and biologically based impulses, such as sex and aggression. a. ego b. superego c. id d. collective unconscious ANSWER: c 30. Heithem wanted to go to a party where he knew a person he was attracted to would be, but he knew his parents wouldn't let him go. If Heithem goes anyway, without permission, he is MOST likely following the wishes of his: a. superego. b. id. c. ego. d. traits.

ANSWER: b 31. The force that guides the id toward immediate gratification is the _____ principle. a. morality b. reality c. unconscious d. pleasure ANSWER: d 32. The _____ is the part of the mind that enforces rules, restrictions, and morality. a. id b. ego c. superego d. unconscious ANSWER: c 33. The superego is also commonly known as one's: a. defenses. b. reality principle. c. unconscious. d. conscience.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 34. The _____ is the internal monitor that tells us how acceptable our actions are. a. superego b. ego c. id d. unconscious ANSWER: a 35. Kari wanted to go to a party where she knew a person she was attracted to would be, but she knew her parents wouldn't let her go. If Kari decides that she won't go because she doesn't have permission, she is MOST likely following the wishes of her: a. superego. b. id. c. ego. d. traits.

ANSWER: a 36. _____ is to gratification as _____ is to restraint. a. Ego; superego b. Id; superego c. Superego; ego d. Superego; id ANSWER: b 37. The _____ is the part of the mind that serves as a realistic mediator between the id and the superego, while meeting the demands of the real world. a. subconscious b. unconscious c. conscious d. ego ANSWER: d 38. Balveen walked into a cellular phone store and immediately wanted to purchase the newest model of phone available with all the latest technology. Balveen then saw the price tag and realized it was way over their budget. Balveen ultimately decided to purchase a different phone that was cheaper in price but still met their needs. They MOST likely listened to their: a. id. b. ego. c. defense mechanisms. d. conscious.

ANSWER: b 39. Which part of the mind makes compromises? .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. id b. ego c. superego d. unconscious ANSWER: b 40. Chang-Hyuk was taking his final exam in chemistry and could not determine the correct answer on one of the multiple-choice questions. Chang-Hyuk could clearly see the answer sheet of the person in front of him, but he decided to look away and try to answer the test questions on his own. Chang-Hyuk was MOST likely being directed by his: a. ego. b. traits. c. id. d. superego.

ANSWER: d 41. Benedetta was fed up with Dana, who constantly teases them. Benedetta had a strong urge to slap Dana across the face to make her stop, but Benedetta knew that slapping is not acceptable. Benedetta decided to ignore Dana and walk away. Benedetta MOST likely listened to their: a. traits. b. superego. c. id. d. preconscious.

ANSWER: b 42. Kirk took a $20 bill from his mother's purse so he could play games at the arcade. Kirk selfishly believed it was no big deal to steal the money, especially since his mother had other $20 bills in there. Kirk MOST likely listened to his: a. ego. b. traits. c. id. d. superego.

ANSWER: c 43. The id operates according to the _____ principle, whereas the ego operates according to the _____ principle. a. reality; morality b. pleasure; reality c. morality; reality d. pleasure; morality ANSWER: b 44. Sergio works at a bakery, and his mouth watered every time he smelled a freshly baked batch of cookies. He .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice craved a cookie so badly, but he didn't have any money to pay for it and didn't want to deduct the price of it from his next paycheck. So, when no one was looking, he snuck away with one of the cookies and ate it in private. Sergio's actions were MOST likely driven by his: a. id. b. ego. c. preconscious. d. superego.

ANSWER: a 45. Freud and his followers identified a number of _____, which are techniques used by the ego to manage conflicts between the id and superego. a. ego mechanisms b. defense mechanisms c. primary masteries d. ego methods ANSWER: b 46. When your ego hides your id impulse in the unconscious to keep you unaware of it, this is the defense mechanism of: a. denial. b. sublimation. c. projection. d. repression.

ANSWER: d 47. Repression is a defense mechanism characterized by the ego: a. redirecting the id impulse toward a safer target. b. hiding your id impulse in the unconscious to keep you unaware of it. c. overreacting against the id impulse by doing the opposite. d. redirecting the id impulse in a way that benefits others.

ANSWER: b 48. When your ego blocks external events from consciousness because they are too threatening, this is the defense mechanism of: a. denial. b. repression. c. reaction formation. d. displacement.

ANSWER: a 49. Denial is a defense mechanism characterized by the ego: a. blocking external events from consciousness because they are too threatening. .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice b. overreacting against the id impulses by doing the exact opposite. c. retreating to an earlier time in your life when the current stressor was absent. d. hiding your id impulse in the unconscious to keep you unaware of it.

ANSWER: a 50. When your ego retreats to an earlier time in your life when the current stressor was absent, you are exhibiting the defense mechanism of: a. denial. b. regression. c. reaction formation. d. sublimation.

ANSWER: b 51. Regression is a defense mechanism characterized by the ego: a. redirecting the id impulse toward a safer outlet in order to minimize the consequences to you. b. retreating to an earlier time in your life when the current stressor was absent. c. hiding your id impulse in the unconscious to keep you unaware of it. d. overreacting against the id impulses by doing the exact opposite.

ANSWER: b 52. When your ego places your id impulse onto others, so it appears they have the impulse and not you, this is MOST likely the defense mechanism of: a. projection. b. denial. c. sublimation. d. repression.

ANSWER: a 53. Projection is a defense mechanism characterized by the ego: a. coming up with seemingly acceptable explanations for behaviors actually based on id impulses. b. blocking external events from consciousness because they are too threatening. c. retreating to an earlier time in your life when the current stressor was absent. d. placing your id impulse onto others, so it appears they have the impulse rather than you.

ANSWER: d 54. When your ego comes up with seemingly acceptable explanations for behaviors actually based on id impulses, you are exhibiting the defense mechanism of: a. denial. b. rationalization. c. reaction formation. d. sublimation. .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 55. Rationalization is a defense mechanism characterized by the ego: a. coming up with seemingly acceptable explanations for behaviors actually based on id impulses. b. overreacting against the id impulses by doing the exact opposite, as if overcompensating. c. placing your id impulse onto others, so it appears they have the impulse rather than you. d. redirecting the id impulse toward a safer outlet in order to minimize the consequences to you.

ANSWER: a 56. When your ego overreacts against the id impulses by doing the exact opposite, as if overcompensating, you are exhibiting the defense mechanism of: a. denial. b. rationalization. c. sublimation. d. reaction formation.

ANSWER: d 57. Reaction formation is a defense mechanism characterized by the ego: a. hiding your id impulse in the unconscious to keep you unaware of it. b. redirecting the id impulse toward a safer outlet in order to minimize the consequences to you. c. overreacting against the id impulses by doing the exact opposite, as if overcompensating. d. blocking external events from consciousness because they are too threatening.

ANSWER: c 58. When your ego redirects the id impulse toward a safer outlet in order to minimize the consequences to you, this is MOST likely the defense mechanism of: a. sublimation. b. displacement. c. denial. d. projection.

ANSWER: b 59. Displacement is a defense mechanism characterized by the ego: a. blocking external events from consciousness because they are too threatening. b. redirecting the id impulse toward a safer outlet in order to minimize the consequences to you. c. redirecting an id impulse in a way that actually benefits others. d. overreacting against the id impulses by doing the exact opposite, as if overcompensating.

ANSWER: b 60. When your ego redirects an id impulse in a way that actually benefits others, you are exhibiting the defense mechanism of: a. denial. .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice b. rationalization. c. projection. d. sublimation.

ANSWER: d 61. Sublimation is a defense mechanism characterized by the ego: a. redirecting the id impulse toward a safer outlet in order to minimize the consequences to you. b. hiding your id impulse in the unconscious to keep you unaware of it. c. blocking external events from consciousness because they are too threatening. d. redirecting an id impulse in a way that actually benefits others.

ANSWER: d 62. Ichiro was abandoned by their mother when Ichiro was 9 years old, and they were raised by their grandparents. As an adult, Ichiro has no recollection of their birth mother and being abandoned. This BEST exemplifies the defense mechanism of: a. projection. b. repression. c. rationalization. d. regression.

ANSWER: b 63. Idris buys new clothes and shoes nearly every day, and he has gotten into serious credit card debt because of it. When his family confronts him about the problem, he acts shocked, saying he doesn't have a problem and can stop making purchases whenever he wants. Idris is MOST likely exhibiting the defense mechanism of: a. sublimation. b. projection. c. denial. d. displacement.

ANSWER: c 64. Lilly and Emmanuel just had their first newlywed argument. Lilly has decided to go home to her parents' house and stay there for a few days. Psychologists would say that Lilly is MOST likely exhibiting the defense mechanism of: a. regression. b. repression. c. rationalization. d. reaction formation.

ANSWER: a 65. Ruchika has been dismissed from several jobs this year because she yells at her boss and coworkers over very small things. Her wife, Leah, is generally calm and kind, but Ruchika constantly accuses Leah of having an anger management problem. Ruchika's ego is MOST likely using the defense mechanism of: .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. repression. b. regression. c. rationalization. d. projection.

ANSWER: d 66. Ning failed their sociology class because they never attended class and did not turn in important assignments. However, they say they failed because the course instructor was unfair and unclear in the course expectations. This BEST exemplifies the defense mechanism of: a. reaction formation. b. rationalization. c. regression. d. sublimation.

ANSWER: b 67. Deep inside, Amoena cannot stand their new mother-in-law, yet they find themselves showering her with love and affection. As if overcompensating for their true feelings, Amoena is showing the defense mechanism of: a. displacement. b. repression. c. rationalization. d. reaction formation.

ANSWER: d 68. Andrej had an upsetting day at school. Instead of yelling at his teachers during class, he yells at his younger sister once he comes home. Andrej is exhibiting the defense mechanism of: a. displacement. b. projection. c. sublimation. d. reaction formation.

ANSWER: a 69. Throughout her childhood and adolescence, Jan often got in trouble for starting fights. As a young adult, she decided to pursue a career as a mixed martial artist and opened her own dojo. Jan is exhibiting the defense mechanism of: a. displacement. b. sublimation. c. regression. d. projection.

ANSWER: b 70. If Freud's concepts of the id, ego, and superego had been translated directly to English, the "id" would have .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice been translated as: a. "me". b. "above-me". c. "they". d. "it".

ANSWER: d 71. If Freud's concepts of the id, ego, and superego had been translated directly to English, the "ego" would have been translated as: a. "me". b. "above-me". c. "they". d. "it".

ANSWER: a 72. If Freud's concepts of the id, ego, and superego had been translated directly to English, the 'super ego' would have been translated as: a. 'me'. b. 'above-me'. c. 'they'. d. 'it'.

ANSWER: b 73. Freud believed events from our childhood, particularly our relationships with our _____, helped shape our personalities. a. friends b. siblings c. parents d. teachers ANSWER: c 74. Freud believed that we all go through five biologically based developmental stages of childhood during which personality characteristics are formed. He divided these early years into phases called _____ stages. a. psychosexual b. self-actualization c. esteem-building d. fixation ANSWER: a 75. According to Freud's theory, each psychosexual stage centers on a particular _____ that is the focus of the child's life during that period. a. relationship .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice b. body part c. cognition d. motor skill ANSWER: b 76. A _____ is a lingering psychological problem directly related to an unsuccessful experience of a particular psychosexual stage. a. disorder b. dysfunction c. mental illness d. fixation ANSWER: d 77. Luisa, a 17-year-old girl, chews her nails and bites on her pens and pencils, particularly when she is stressed, nervous, or uncomfortable. Freud would say Luisa is _____ in the oral stage. a. involved b. fixated c. overdeveloped d. experimenting ANSWER: b 78. The _____ stage is the first stage in Freud's psychosexual stages and focuses on the psychological consequences of feeding behavior. a. anal b. phallic c. oral d. genital ANSWER: c 79. Breastfeeding or bottle-feeding is the primary activity during what Freud defined as the _____ stage of psychosexual development. a. oral b. anal c. latency d. phallic ANSWER: a 80. Gerald has difficulty trusting people, and he has developed a pessimistic personality. Freud would say that Gerald was fixated in the _____ stage. a. phallic b. genital c. anal .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. oral ANSWER: d 81. The _____ stage is the second stage in Freud's psychosexual stages that focuses on the psychological consequences of toilet training. a. oral b. anal c. phallic d. latency ANSWER: b 82. Control tends to be the primary focus in the _____ stage. a. oral b. anal c. phallic d. genital ANSWER: b 83. Harald was raised by very permissive parents who did not teach Harald about the importance of organization and control. As a result, Harald is very messy, sloppy, and disorganized. Freud would say Harald experienced fixation in the _____ stage. a. oral b. phallic c. anal d. genital ANSWER: c 84. The _____ stage is the third stage in Freud's psychosexual stages and focuses on the psychological consequences of attraction to the opposite-sex parent. a. oral b. anal c. latency d. phallic ANSWER: d 85. According to Freud, for boys, the childhood experience of desiring your mother and resenting your father is called the: a. genital stage. b. Oedipus complex. c. Electra complex. d. self-efficacy complex.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 86. According to Freud, for girls, the childhood experience of desiring your father and resenting your mother is called the: a. genital stage. b. Oedipus complex. c. Electra complex. d. self-efficacy complex.

ANSWER: c 87. Reid seems to be having psychological trouble based on his overinflated view of himself. He comes across as incredibly conceited and arrogant, which also causes him to struggle with friendships and other kinds of relationships. Freud would say that Reid is fixated in the _____ stage. a. anal b. phallic c. latency d. genital ANSWER: b 88. Donald has an overinflated sense of self, and often comes across as conceited. Alexander lacks confidence, undervalues himself, and comes across as insecure. According to Freud, it is MOST likely that: a. Donald is fixated in the phallic stage, while Alexander is fixated in the latency stage. b. Alexander is fixated in the phallic stage, while Donald is fixated in the latency stage. c. both Donald and Alexander are fixated in the phallic stage. d. both Donald and Alexander are fixated in the latency stage.

ANSWER: c 89. The _____ stage is the fourth stage in Freud's psychosexual stages and the child's energies are focused primarily on school rather than anything sexual. a. oral b. anal c. phallic d. latency ANSWER: d 90. In Freud's latency psychosexual stage, _____ experiences of psychological consequence take place. a. all of the b. few c. many d. no ANSWER: b 91. The _____ stage is the final stage in Freud's psychosexual stages and focuses on mature, adult sexual .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice relationships. a. oral b. anal c. latency d. genital ANSWER: d 92. The correct order of stages in Freud's psychosexual stages is: a. oral, anal, latency, phallic, genital. b. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital. c. genital, latency, anal, phallic, oral. d. latency, oral, anal, phallic, genital.

ANSWER: b 93. Freud believed that the personality is _____set by the time a person enters the genital stage. a. not at all b. already c. partially d. beginning to ANSWER: b 94. Freud believed that the personality is already set by the time a person enters the _____ stage. a. latency b. genital c. phallic d. oral ANSWER: b 95. The _____ theories of psychology are theories that revised, but did not entirely reject, the basics of Freud's original psychodynamic theory. a. behavioral b. neo-Freudian c. psychoanalytical d. humanistic ANSWER: b 96. When creating revised theories, Freud's followers held on to his core ideas, but let go of the: a. unconscious mind, and it containing the id, ego, and superego. b. biology, like the id's bodily drives and sexuality of the phallic stage. c. basics of psychodynamic theory. d. importance of childhood experiences. .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 97. Which follower of Freud's proposed the idea of an inferiority complex? a. Carl Jung b. Erik Erikson c. Alfred Adler d. Karen Horney ANSWER: c 98. Who believed our primary motivation is to strive for superiority over our own perceived weaknesses? a. Alfred Adler b. Sigmund Freud c. Karen Horney d. Erik Erikson ANSWER: a 99. As a neo-Freudian theorist, Alfred Adler believed that our primary motivation is to strive for: a. immediate gratification of primal impulses. b. enforcement of rules, restrictions, and morality. c. superiority over our own perceived weaknesses. d. a sense of security from basic anxiety.

ANSWER: c 100. Gage, who has always felt rather stupid compared to his friends, has decided to go back to school and earn an advanced degree in computer engineering to prove his intelligence. Gage's behavior MOST matches the ideas of: a. Sigmund Freud. b. Carl Jung. c. Alfred Adler. d. Erik Erikson.

ANSWER: c 101. Alfred Adler believed that personality is influenced by: a. the collective unconscious. b. self-actualization. c. birth order. d. archetypes.

ANSWER: c 102. According to research on the birth order of siblings, the _____ tends to be more conservative and conventional. a. firstborn .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice b. laterborn c. middleborn d. secondborn ANSWER: a 103. In sports, research suggests _____ is more likely to be a risk-taker, such as playing a dangerous sport, or stealing bases in baseball. a. the firstborn b. an only child c. the laterborn d. an adopted child ANSWER: c 104. Mariano is about 6 years older than her younger brother, Lane. According to Alfred Adler's theories on the influence of birth order on personality, we can MOST likely expect: a. Mariano to be more liberal, unconventional, and risk-taking than Lane. b. Lane to be more liberal, unconventional, and risk-taking than Mariano. c. both Mariano and Lane to be equally liberal, unconventional, and risk-taking. d. both Mariano and Lane to become more conservative and conventional over time.

ANSWER: b 105. Carl Jung proposed the existence of a _____: common, inherited memories that are present in the minds of people of every culture. a. collective unconscious b. shared conscious c. dignified memory d. particular subconscious ANSWER: a 106. According to Jung, _____ are specific symbols or patterns within the collective unconscious that appear consistently across cultures and time periods. a. logographics b. pictographics c. hieroglyphics d. archetypes ANSWER: d 107. According to Jung, archetypes are: a. people who tend to focus inward and need little interaction with others. b. people who tend to focus outward and need lots of interaction with others. c. common, inherited memories that are present in the minds of people of every culture. .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. specific symbols or patterns that appear consistently across cultures and time periods.

ANSWER: d 108. According to Jung, _____ are people who tend to focus inward and need little interaction with others. a. extraverts b. introverts c. intellectuals d. scholars ANSWER: b 109. According to Jung, _____ are people who tend to focus outward and need lots of interaction with others. a. extraverts b. introverts c. intellectuals d. scholars ANSWER: a 110. _____ disagreed with the Freudian idea that personality is completely shaped by the time childhood ends, but rather believed that personality development continues through adulthood. a. Carl Jung b. Erik Erikson c. Karen Horney d. Alfred Adler ANSWER: b 111. The neo-Freudian who believed it would be a mistake to assume Freud's theories applied equally to men and women is: a. Karen Horney. b. Erik Erikson. c. Carl Jung. d. Alfred Adler.

ANSWER: a 112. Karen Horney believed that: a. Freud's theories applied differently to men and women. b. Freud's theories applied equally to men and women. c. the phallic psychosexual stage was the most influential. d. men's and women's personalities develop in the same way.

ANSWER: a 113. One of the most damaging criticisms aimed at psychodynamic theory is that it is: .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. not thorough enough. b. not scientific enough. c. easily defined. d. not generalizable.

ANSWER: b 114. Contemporary psychologists would agree with Freud's basic idea that early childhood experiences: a. influence adult personality. b. determine adult personality. c. do not influence adult personality. d. are not as important as adult experiences.

ANSWER: a 115. Which statement would follow closely with the thinking of neo-Freudians today? a. Freud's ideas hold true for men and women, and these ideas easily generalize all over the world. b. Attraction to the same sex is unhealthy, while attraction to the opposite sex is considered healthy. c. Sexuality is not considered a key element in human motivation, but aggression is considered a key element. d. The unconscious is an important force and it has numerous roles, including some that Freud did not identify.

ANSWER: d 116. The humanistic theory of personality is based on the ideas of: a. Sigmund Freud. b. Carl Rogers. c. Abraham Maslow. d. Carl Jung.

ANSWER: b 117. The _____ theory of personality emphasizes our inherent tendencies toward healthy, positive growth and self-fulfillment. a. psychodynamic b. behavioral c. humanistic d. social-cognitive ANSWER: c 118. Psychologists who have an optimistic view of human nature and believe that people are driven by the desire to reach their full potential are MOST likely _____ psychologists. a. psychodynamic b. humanistic .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. behavioral d. cognitive ANSWER: b 119. Lucinda is seeing a therapist who is very optimistic, encouraging, and nurturing. This therapist is focusing on helping Lucinda develop a healthy personality. Lucinda's therapist is MOST likely following the ideas of _____ theories in personality. a. behavioral b. psychodynamic c. humanistic d. cognitive ANSWER: c 120. One of the reasons Carl Rogers was motivated to develop the humanistic theory of personality is that he: a. grew weary of Freud's negative view of human nature. b. believed human beings were fueled by biological desires. c. felt there were no theories that addressed self-fulfillment. d. believed a pessimistic approach needed to be developed.

ANSWER: a 121. _____ is defined as fully becoming the person you have the potential to become. a. Self-concept b. Self-actualization c. Self-esteem d. Self-efficacy ANSWER: b 122. According to Carl Rogers, a plant needs water and sunlight to grow. Likewise, a person needs warmth, acceptance, and love to: a. self-actualize. b. mature. c. succeed. d. live.

ANSWER: a 123. Receiving warmth, acceptance, and love from the people around you is what Carl Rogers called: a. conditions of worth. b. self-efficacy. c. positive regard. d. self-concept.

ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 124. DeLiang adores their nephew, simply because he is family. According to Carl Rogers, DeLiang _____ their nephew. a. is fixating on b. is incongruent with c. represses d. prizes ANSWER: d 125. Deanna prizes her grandson, Emmanuel; according to Carl Rogers, this means she cherishes him without any type of: a. emotion. b. affection. c. evaluation. d. reward.

ANSWER: c 126. Positive regard is BEST exemplified by: a. Baldwin, who appreciates their coworkers for who they are. b. Dima, who helps his coworkers so they will take his shifts. c. Tova, who judges the attitudes of her coworkers. d. Min, who speaks well of their coworkers when they work hard.

ANSWER: a 127. According to Carl Rogers, when those around you have requirements that you must meet to earn their warmth, love, and acceptance, they are imposing: a. positive regard. b. conditions of worth. c. unconditional self-regard. d. incongruence.

ANSWER: b 128. Miro's group of friends tend to include him in their plans and make him feel included if he brings along his sister. According to Carl Rogers, the requirements that Miro's friends imposed on him are called: a. prizing. b. congruences. c. incongruences. d. conditions of worth.

ANSWER: d 129. The _____ is the version of yourself that you actually experience in your day-to-day life. a. ideal self b. real self .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. valued self d. self-concept ANSWER: b 130. The _____ is the self-actualized version of yourself that you naturally strive to become. a. ideal self b. real self c. valued self d. self-concept ANSWER: a 131. The _____ self is the self-actualized version of yourself that you naturally strive to become, whereas the _____ self is the version of yourself that you actually experience in your day-to-day life. a. real; ideal b. ideal; real c. congruent; incongruent d. incongruent; congruent ANSWER: b 132. Mawusi has long wanted to study art history and pursue and academic career. However, her parents have told her she is too smart for that and needs to pursue a career that will pay her a higher salary. Mawusi insists that art is her passion, but her parents have made it clear they will not pay for her education unless she pursues a career in business, law, or information technology. Mawusi is very unhappy but will pursue the dreams her parents have created for her. According to humanistic theory, Mawusi will likely experience: a. self-actualization. b. congruence. c. incongruence. d. fixation.

ANSWER: c 133. Carl Rogers believed that _____, which is a mismatch between your real self and your ideal self, can lead to unhappiness and mental illness. a. self-actualization b. incongruence c. congruence d. self-efficacy ANSWER: b 134. Which situation would MOST likely lead to congruence? a. the third-grader who plays hockey to win dad's affection when he would much rather be practicing his violin b. the teenager who does drugs to impress her friends, even though she does not want to .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. the actor who auditions not because they enjoy acting but because their family pushed them into the field d. the new mom who always dreamed of becoming a mom and having a large family to care for ANSWER: d 135. Carl Rogers defines mental wellness as _____, which is a match between your real self and your ideal self. a. congruence b. incongruence c. self-efficacy d. self-actualization ANSWER: a 136. When you get unconditional positive regard from important people in your life no matter how you behave, these are conditions of: a. incongruence. b. congruence. c. self-efficacy. d. fixation.

ANSWER: b 137. According to Carl Rogers, _____ is the root of mental wellness, whereas _____ leads to unhappiness and mental illness. a. incongruence; congruence b. internal locus of control; external locus of control c. congruence; incongruence d. self-actualization; reciprocal determinism ANSWER: c 138. Ali decides to join a sorority during her first year of college, and her parents do not agree with this decision. However, her parents continue to value and appreciate Ali as a person despite her making a decision of which they do not approve. Ali's parents are showing _____, which will help Ali achieve _____. a. conditions of worth; incongruence b. conditions of worth; congruence c. unconditional positive regard; congruence d. unconditional positive regard; incongruence ANSWER: c 139. Who believed that self-actualization is a primary motivation? a. Bandura b. Maslow c. Freud d. Erikson .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 140. Moments in which we are overcome with transcendent joy and fulfillment are called: a. milestones. b. conditions of worth. c. memories. d. peak experiences.

ANSWER: d 141. Which would be the BEST example of a peak experience? a. the birth of a sibling b. going to college c. being in love with someone d. being fired from a job ANSWER: c 142. A peak experience would MOST likely to be described as: a. mystical. b. ordinary. c. damaging. d. confusing.

ANSWER: a 143. Your _____ is your view of who you are. a. self-concept b. self-esteem c. self-efficacy d. self-actualization ANSWER: a 144. Which statement is true about your self-concept? a. The way in which important people treat you has no bearing in shaping your view of yourself. b. The conditions of worth that others place on you become conditions of worth that you place on yourself. c. How people respond to your self-actualizing tendencies has little power in shaping your view of yourself. d. If you receive unconditional positive regard, you will internalize that and turn it into positive conditional self-regard.

ANSWER: b 145. Treatments that differ from traditional styles and instead focus on building clients' assets and abilities are called: .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. strength-based counseling. b. psychodynamic therapy. c. cognitive-behavioral therapy. d. interpersonal therapy.

ANSWER: a 146. Which is the MOST common criticism of humanistic theory? a. People are incapable of living simple, true lives. b. It is too scientific and therefore too complex. c. The theory is too optimistic and naïve. d. It is a strong supporter of collectivism.

ANSWER: c 147. The _____ theory of personality emphasizes the influence of the environment and the importance of observable, measurable behavior. a. psychodynamic b. humanistic c. behavioral d. social-cognitive ANSWER: c 148. When it comes to personality, behaviorists believe that: a. there is no such thing as personality. b. unconscious forces are the main determinants of behavior. c. we have stable traits deep within ourselves that explain behavior. d. our behaviors are controlled by internal conditions.

ANSWER: a 149. Behaviorists believe that only _____ can be observed and measured, so that is what should define personality. a. thoughts b. actions c. feelings d. ideas ANSWER: b 150. With which statement would a behaviorist MOST likely agree? a. Cleo works hard at their job so they'll get promoted, which comes with a raise. b. Leliani always does their best because of their internal drive to do well and succeed. c. Tesia is successful because of the genes they inherited from their biological father. d. Rene is often lazy because of the incongruence between their real self and ideal self. .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 151. Behaviorists believe that personality traits are _____, which come about and are controlled because of external conditions. a. habits b. fixations c. congruences d. incongruences ANSWER: a 152. The _____ theory of personality emphasizes the interaction of the environment, thought processes, and communal factors. a. psychodynamic b. humanistic c. behavioral d. social-cognitive ANSWER: d 153. According to social-cognitive theory, which three things have the MOST influence on personality? a. the environment, social factors, and thought processes b. the environment, social factors, and archetypes c. unconscious urges, psychosexual stages, and social factors d. unconscious urges, psychosexual stages, and archetypes ANSWER: a 154. Which theorist believed that your personality involves an ongoing interaction between your behavior, your environment, and your cognitions? a. Carl Rogers b. Sigmund Freud c. Albert Bandura d. Abraham Maslow ANSWER: c 155. _____ is the idea that three factors—your behavior, your environment, and your cognitions—continually influence each other to shape your personality. a. Reciprocal determinism b. Openness to experience c. Behaviorism d. Self-actualization ANSWER: a 156. Which example BEST reflects reciprocal determinism? .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. a child who refrains from throwing a temper tantrum because of fear of punishment b. a man who succeeds in a class because he is encouraged by classmates, puts in more effort, and starts believing in himself c. a young woman who dates an older gentleman because he reminds her of her father d. a teenager who goes to therapy to improve his sense of self-worth ANSWER: b 157. Your beliefs about your own capabilities comprise your: a. self-esteem. b. self-efficacy. c. self-concept. d. self-actualization.

ANSWER: b 158. Which statement BEST represents self-efficacy? a. "I studied for this exam and I know I can pass it." b. "I am not sure that I can finish this exercise class." c. "I work hard and deserve a raise." d. "If I think positively, good things will probably happen."

ANSWER: a 159. _____ is the theorist who emphasized the idea of self-efficacy, or the belief in your ability to do something. a. Julian Rotter b. Abraham Maslow c. Carl Rogers d. Albert Bandura ANSWER: d 160. _____ emphasized the idea of locus of control, or your belief about how much control you have over what happens to you. a. Julian Rotter b. Abraham Maslow c. Carl Rogers d. Albert Bandura ANSWER: a 161. Your belief about how much control you have over circumstances in your life is called: a. self-efficacy. b. self-actualization. c. locus of control. d. self-concept. .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 162. The Latin word locus is the root of the word: a. focus. b. change. c. control. d. location.

ANSWER: d 163. If you believe that your life is under the control of forces inside of you, you have a(n) _____ locus of control. a. fixated b. actualized c. external d. internal ANSWER: d 164. If you believe that your life is under the control of forces outside of you, you have a(n) _____ locus of control. a. fixated b. actualized c. external d. internal ANSWER: c 165. Someone with an internal locus of control is MOST likely to believe in the powerful influence of: a. luck. b. fate. c. effort. d. genes.

ANSWER: c 166. Anjanette believes that if they study every night and read the textbook before going to class, they can achieve a high grade in a difficult class. Anjanette's thinking demonstrates: a. low self-efficacy. b. an external locus of control. c. an internal locus of control. d. unconditional self-regard.

ANSWER: c 167. Heidi just saw that she received a failing grade on her test. She blames her grade on the instructor, the textbook, and that the class was so early in the morning. Heidi is likely to have a(n): .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. high level of self-efficacy. b. internal locus of control. c. external locus of control. d. congruent self-concept.

ANSWER: c 168. Selma believes if she works hard and invests her money wisely, she can become wealthy. Selma is demonstrating a(n): a. internal locus of control. b. external locus of control. c. neutral self-concept. d. low level of self-efficacy.

ANSWER: a 169. Keira blames their bad luck for their inability to find a job. Keira is demonstrating a(n): a. internal locus of control. b. external locus of control. c. high level of self-efficacy. d. fixation.

ANSWER: b 170. Annika is crushed when her girlfriend breaks up with her. Annika blames it on her own lack of confidence and inability to communicate her needs. Annika is demonstrating: a. an internal locus of control. b. an external locus of control. c. fixation. d. self-actualization.

ANSWER: a 171. Tau is angry that his girlfriend broke up with him. He blames the breakup on the pressure her family put on the relationship. He also blames the breakup on his girlfriend's lack of affection. This blaming behavior reflects Tau's: a. high self-efficacy. b. low self-esteem. c. internal locus of control. d. external locus of control.

ANSWER: d 172. Diego credits his acceptance to college to his dedication and hard work in high school. Diego is explaining his behavior with a(n): a. humanistic approach. b. external locus of control. .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. internal locus of control. d. cognitive approach.

ANSWER: c 173. Hadden was not promoted at the job he's been at for 7 years. Hadden blamed his boss for not providing a shining enough recommendation for him. This is an example of: a. an external locus of control. b. an internal locus of control. c. fixating. d. congruence.

ANSWER: a 174. Jason has an internal locus of control. When he does well on an exam in class, he is MOST likely to believe his success was due to: a. how easy the test questions were. b. his teacher's engaging teaching style. c. the moral support from his parents. d. his effective study habits.

ANSWER: d 175. Tabitha is described as having an internal locus of control. When she performs poorly in a lacrosse match, she would MOST likely explain it by saying: a. "The referee made really bad calls!" b. "I really have to work harder." c. "The other team cheated!" d. "We need a better coach."

ANSWER: b 176. Which wise old saying is MOST indicative of an external locus of control? a. "With hard work, anything's possible." b. "Life is what you make it." c. "Whatever will be, will be." d. "Pull yourself up by your bootstraps."

ANSWER: c 177. People with an _____ locus of control are more likely to experience symptoms of depression, especially if the person belongs to a(n) _____ culture. a. external; collectivistic b. internal; collectivistic c. external; individualistic d. internal; individualistic .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 178. Which is an advantage of the diversified approach of the social-cognitive theory of personality? a. It appears to be simplified compared to other theories. b. It focuses on the environment and unconscious thinking. c. There is empirical literature to support some of the concepts. d. It is a very focused theory, focusing on only one aspect of personality.

ANSWER: c 179. Which is a disadvantage of the diversified approach of the social-cognitive theory of personality? a. The social-cognitive theory is particularly comprehensive. b. It does not have concepts that are supported by empirical evidence. c. It can be less focused than some other theories of personality. d. It considers factors other than environment as influences on personality.

ANSWER: c 180. The _____ theory of personality emphasizes the discovery and description of the basic components of personality. a. social-cognitive b. behavioral c. trait d. humanistic ANSWER: c 181. Most theories of personality attempt to explain why it develops the way it does, but the _____ theory explains what personality is made of. a. trait b. social-cognitive c. psychodynamic d. behavioral ANSWER: a 182. The trait theory of personality emphasizes: a. aligning one's real self with one's ideal self to achieve a healthy personality. b. explaining personality as the result of reciprocal determinism. c. understanding the role of the unconscious mind on personality. d. identifying and describing the basic components of personality.

ANSWER: d 183. In recent decades, research on the _____ theory of personality has flourished. a. psychodynamic .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice b. humanistic c. behavioral d. trait ANSWER: d 184. According to trait theorists, traits are: a. characteristics of one's personality that may vary from situation to situation. b. stable elements of personality that influence one's thoughts, feelings, and behavior across most situations. c. motives that drive one's personality due to unconscious forces stemming from childhood events. d. challenges that emerge as an interaction between the environment and one's cognition and that impact personality.

ANSWER: b 185. What do trait theorists believe accounts for differences in personality? a. experiencing different environments b. more cognitive advances c. varying expression of each trait d. more challenging experiences ANSWER: c 186. When Gordon Allport, an early trait theorist, identified descriptive words for personality in the dictionary, he discovered approximately _____ words. a. 1000 b. 8000 c. 10,000 d. 18,000 ANSWER: b 187. Raymond Cattell is well known for using a statistical procedure called _____ to form clusters of personality traits that are correlated with each other. a. chi-square analysis b. analysis of variance c. factor analysis d. multivariate regression ANSWER: c 188. Which group of words would BEST exemplify the outcome of a factor analysis? a. shy, withdrawn, reserved b. competitive, bashful, confused c. outgoing, anxious, irresponsible .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. honest, stubborn, sociable ANSWER: a 189. The five-factor model of personality: a. focuses on identifying which of the five traits different individuals have. b. emphasizes five fundamental traits present in all people to varying degrees. c. strives to explain how five underlying traits develop over the course of a person's life. d. explores the environmental determinants of the five major dimensions of personality.

ANSWER: b 190. _____ is the trait that describes the tendency to experience negative emotions such as anxiety, depression, and stress. a. Openness to experience b. Extraversion c. Conscientiousness d. Neuroticism ANSWER: d 191. The trait that describes the tendency to be socially outgoing is known as: a. introversion. b. extraversion. c. agreeableness. d. openness to experience.

ANSWER: b 192. _____ is the trait that describes the tendency to be receptive to new or unconventional ideas. a. Extraversion b. Openness to experience c. Conscientiousness d. Agreeableness ANSWER: b 193. When you are organized, responsible, and deliberate, you are said to possess a high level of the trait of: a. conscientiousness. b. agreeableness. c. extraversion. d. introversion.

ANSWER: a 194. When you comply and cooperate with other people, you demonstrate high levels of the trait of: a. extraversion. .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice b. agreeableness. c. neuroticism. d. openness to experience.

ANSWER: b 195. Isaiah is a calm individual who seems to stay emotionally secure and stable even under stressful situations.

Isaiah would MOST likely score low on which scale of the Big Five? a. extraversion b. neuroticism c. conscientiousness d. openness to experience ANSWER: b 196. Sony has a tendency to be anxious in a lot of situations. They often come across as negative and sad. Sony would MOST likely score high on which scale of the Big Five? a. neuroticism b. extraversion c. agreeableness d. conscientiousness ANSWER: a 197. Avonda prefers to spend large quantities of time alone. She is also shy, reserved, and quiet. Avonda would MOST likely score low on which scale of the Big Five? a. agreeableness b. neuroticism c. openness to experience d. extraversion ANSWER: d 198. Narasimha is very outgoing, and they enjoying being around other people as they are very sociable.

Narasimha would MOST likely score high on which scale of the Big Five? a. agreeableness b. neuroticism c. extraversion d. conscientiousness ANSWER: c 199. Selena is often teased by her younger brother who calls her a "stick in the mud" because Selena thinks and behaves in a very traditional and conventional manner. Selena blows off the teasing, saying she just prefers routine and familiar things. Selena would MOST likely score low on which scale of the Big Five? a. extraversion b. neuroticism .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. openness to experience d. conscientiousness ANSWER: c 200. Weiyoung has just moved to a new city and is eager to try new things and explore new ideas. Even though she is a bit shy, she is planning to join several local meetup groups and may even go on a sightseeing tour.

Weiyoung would MOST likely score high on which scale of the Big Five? a. extraversion b. conscientiousness c. agreeableness d. openness to experience ANSWER: d 201. Nadia is often late to work and was written up last week because they hadn't submitted a report on its due date. Nadia's desk is disorganized, and their planner is blank. Nadia is laid-back about due dates and details of projects for work. Nadia would MOST likely score low on which scale of the Big Five? a. extraversion b. neuroticism c. openness to experience d. conscientiousness ANSWER: d 202. Kevin has a group project in his speech class to complete for a major grade. His group members are not really taking the assignment seriously, so Kevin decides to create an outline for them all to follow. He comes up with a completion plan and highlights the important dates. Kevin would MOST likely score high on which scale of the Big Five? a. conscientiousness b. openness to experience c. agreeableness d. neuroticism ANSWER: a 203. Lori teases her brother Devan that he will never have a girlfriend because he is hard-headed, stubborn, and argumentative. Devan would MOST likely score low on which scale of the Big Five? a. extraversion b. conscientiousness c. agreeableness d. neuroticism ANSWER: c 204. For the fifth month in a row, Tim has won the employee-of-the-month award. He gets along with his coworkers and he is very accommodating to the customers. Tim would MOST likely score high on which scale .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice of the Big Five? a. agreeableness b. extraversion c. neuroticism d. openness to experience ANSWER: a 205. An upside to scoring high in neuroticism is that it could foster: a. agreeableness. b. vigilance. c. good physical health. d. good mental health.

ANSWER: b 206. According to research, people high in _____ have the lowest rates of physical illness, while people high in _____ have the highest rates of physical illness. a. conscientiousness; neuroticism b. extraversion; openness to experience c. neuroticism; conscientiousness d. agreeableness; neuroticism ANSWER: a 207. According to research, which Big Five trait is the BEST predictor of grades and motivation to succeed? a. agreeableness b. conscientiousness c. extraversion d. openness to experience ANSWER: b 208. According to research, employees who score high on the _____ scale of the Big Five will MOST likely perform especially well at jobs with lots of social interaction, such as in sales. a. openness to experience b. neuroticism c. agreeableness d. extraversion ANSWER: d 209. Consistent with research findings on the Big Five, a person who scores low in openness to experience and low in agreeableness may be more likely to _____ than someone who scores high on both of those factors. a. be dissatisfied in romantic relationships b. travel frequently around the world .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice c. hold prejudices against other groups of people d. use social media on a regular basis ANSWER: c 210. The five-factor model of personality is a good fit for people in _____ countries, especially those who speak _____. a. Western; Mandarin b. Eastern; Mandarin c. Western; English d. Eastern; English ANSWER: c 211. What has to be changed about the five-factor model of personality for it to be a good fit for people in nonWestern countries? a. it cannot be used in non-Western cultures b. fewer than five traits have to be used c. more than five traits need to be used d. nothing needs to be changed for its use in non-Western cultures ANSWER: c 212. Research found that when students spent 1–2 semesters abroad in a study abroad or international exchange program, the students scored higher in _____ and lower in _____ after they returned in comparison to before they left. a. extraversion; agreeableness b. agreeableness; extraversion c. openness; neuroticism d. neuroticism; openness ANSWER: c 213. Research found that when students watched a slideshow of students from a culture different than their own engaging in everyday behaviors, the students scored higher in: a. extraversion. b. agreeableness. c. openness. d. neuroticism.

ANSWER: c 214. Among contemporary psychologists, which theory dominates current research on personality? a. social-cognitive b. psychodynamic c. trait d. humanistic .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 215. Which statement is a VALID criticism of the trait theory of personality? a. The Big Five may not capture all of the traits associated with personality. b. There is no empirical evidence to support the findings of trait theory. c. Trait theory asserts that our personalities tend to change through our lifetime. d. Trait theory overemphasizes the role of the environment in the development of personality.

ANSWER: a 216. What separates the professional assessment tools used by psychologists from amateur "personality tests" posted on random Internet sites? a. the professional assessment tools charge a fee b. validity and reliability c. the person scoring the results d. length of the tests ANSWER: b 217. Psychologists' methods for assessing personality are extensive and formal because their methods must be _____, which means the methods are measuring what they claim to be measuring. a. honest b. reliable c. valid d. strict ANSWER: c 218. Psychologists' methods for assessing personality are extensive and formal because their methods must be _____, which means the methods produce consistent results. a. honest b. valid c. reliable d. strict ANSWER: c 219. _____ assessment is an approach to personality assessment that emphasizes the use of multiple methods rather than only one method. a. Multifactorial b. Multimethod c. Multimodal d. Multitest ANSWER: b 220. When Dr. Han uses personality assessments during someone's therapeutic treatment, they strive to use .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice _____, which is an approach to personality assessment that emphasizes the use of more than one method. a. factor analysis b. multimethod assessment c. psychoanalysis d. unconditional positive regard ANSWER: b 221. When assessing personality, it is important for a psychologist to possess _____, which is the ability to work sensitively and expertly with members of a culturally diverse society. a. open-mindedness b. cultural competence c. cultural awareness d. critical thinking ANSWER: b 222. When Dr. Nowaci uses personality assessments during someone's therapeutic treatment, they strive to use _____, which is the ability to work sensitively and expertly with members of a diverse society. a. cultural competence b. multimethod assessment c. psychoanalysis d. unconditional positive regard ANSWER: a 223. A psychologist decides to use a clinical interview to assess his client's personality. This psychologist will MOST likely: a. administer the MMPI-2. b. have his client respond to ambiguous stimuli. c. ask his client to create stories in response to pictures of people. d. engage in conversation with his client.

ANSWER: d 224. Eliza decides to see a therapist after a traumatic breakup. She likes the fact that her therapist does not follow a set of scripted questions. In fact, Eliza's therapist allows her to elaborate on whatever she wants. Eliza feels very comfortable and finds herself opening up more and more each session. The therapist is MOST likely following a(n) _____ clinical interview. a. structured b. unstructured c. semistructured d. thematic ANSWER: b 225. A(n) _____ personality test consists of a standardized set of questions, either in multiple-choice or true.

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice false format. a. projective b. clinical c. objective d. thematic ANSWER: c 226. Brent is taking a personality test prior to placement in an internship. It is a pencil-and-paper test full of brief statements about Brent's thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Brent is instructed to pick the answer that BEST describes them, and when they are done, their answers will be scored by a computer. Brent is MOST likely taking a(n) _____ personality test. a. objective b. congruent c. structured d. semistructured ANSWER: a 227. The _____ is a widely used and respected objective personality test that emphasizes mental disorders rather than normal personality traits. a. NEO-Personality Inventory-3 (NEO-PI-3) b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 (MMPI-2) c. Rorschach inkblot technique d. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) ANSWER: b 228. Some psychological tests are created using a process called _____ test construction, which is a way to create objective personality tests in which items are included only if different groups respond differently to them. a. sensitive b. cultural c. empirical d. differential ANSWER: c 229. The personality test that has been used by the U.S. military since the 1940s and is the most frequently used test for hiring decisions is the: a. Rorschach inkblot technique. b. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 (MMPI-2). d. NEO-Personality Inventory-3 (NEO-PI-3).

ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice 230. Kara is applying for a job in the U.S. military. The personality test they will MOST likely be required to take is the: a. Rorschach inkblot technique. b. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 (MMPI-2). d. NEO-Personality Inventory-3 (NEO-PI-3).

ANSWER: c 231. The _____ is an objective personality test that emphasizes normal personality traits rather than problematic characteristics. a. NEO-Personality Inventory-3 (NEO-PI-3) b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 (MMPI-2) c. Rorschach inkblot technique d. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) ANSWER: a 232. Objective personality tests are _____, which means they are tests that produce results that are not affected by who administers them, or where or when they are taken. a. congruent b. incongruent c. standardized d. fixated ANSWER: c 233. Which statement is true about objective personality tests? a. The primary downside is that the tests are in a self-report format, which means clients answer questions about themselves. b. The tests are highly valid and reliable, allowing there to be great flexibility on when and where they are given. c. The tests are very accurate tools for describing your own behavior, particularly in the work place. d. There is no way to fool this type of test, or to appear to have a better or worse personality than a person actually does.

ANSWER: a 234. A(n) _____ personality test involves a client responding to ambiguous stimuli in a free-form way. a. objective b. standardized c. projective d. informal ANSWER: c 235. The _____ is a personality assessment instrument that MOST resembles an abstract art interpretation. .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice a. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) b. Rorschach inkblot technique c. NEO-Personality Inventory-3 (NEO-PI-3) d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 (MMPI-2) ANSWER: b 236. When using projective tests, it is important to look for and focus on _____ in a client's responses. a. aggression b. signs of paranoia c. complex ideas d. themes and patterns ANSWER: d 237. Which personality test has the client create stories in response to cards that show people in undefined situations? a. Rorschach inkblot technique b. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 (MMPI-2) d. NEO-Personality Inventory-3 (NEO-PI-3) ANSWER: b 238. Anushka decides to see a therapist to better understand herself. Anushka's therapist has her create stories in response to cards that show people in undefined situations. Anushka's therapist is using the: a. Rorschach inkblot technique. b. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 (MMPI-2). d. NEO-Personality Inventory-3 (NEO-PI-3).

ANSWER: b 239. What is one advantage of projective tests? a. They lack the validity and reliability of objective tests. b. There is a lack of standardization among projective tests. c. Projective tests are not as fakeable as objective tests. d. Psychologists may not interpret results exactly the same.

ANSWER: c 240. _____ is an approach to assessment that assumes client behaviors are themselves the problem, rather than signs of deeper problems. a. Projective testing b. Behavioral assessment c. Psychoanalytic therapy .

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Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice d. Behavioral cognitive testing ANSWER: b

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Chapter 13 - Essay 1. Define the term "attribution" and discuss the two different categories of attributions that are specified by attribution theory. Provide an example of each category.

ANSWER: An attribution is an explanation of the cause of a person's behavior. According to attribution theory, there are two categories of attributions: those that relate to internal factors within an individual such as one's personality or disposition, and those that relate to external factors such as the situation surrounding the individual. For example, if you were to encounter a cashier who behaved very abruptly toward you, you could explain the cashier's abrupt behavior in a number of ways. If you attribute his/her behavior to enduring qualities within him/her (e.g., "He/she is rude or mean"), then you are focusing on internal, dispositional personality traits as the cause. By contrast, if you attribute the cashier's behavior to some external influence (e.g., "He/she must be having a bad day. I wonder how many difficult customers and problems he/she has had to deal with today"), then you are focusing on the situation as the cause.

2. Explain the fundamental attribution error and why it is considered an error. Then imagine yourself at a 4-way stop where someone proceeds across the intersection before their turn. Consistent with the fundamental attribution error, describe what your immediate reaction might be in explaining the person's behavior. Describe how your culture may influence if you commit the fundamental attribution error.

ANSWER: The fundamental attribution error is our tendency to overestimate the importance of traits and underestimate the importance of the situation when explaining the behavior of other people. It is considered an error because in any given scenario, situational factors may play an important and even dominant role in causing a person's behavior. Thus, it may be a mistake in judgment to focus on the personality traits of the person involved as the primary reason for their behavior. Consistent with the fundamental attribution error, if someone were to cross the intersection at a 4-way stop out of turn, you might immediately think, "What a rude and dangerous person!" pointing to internal dispositional traits of the person as the cause of the behavior. The fundamental attribution error is more likely to be committed by someone from an individualistic culture compared to someone from a collectivistic culture.

3. Discuss the difference between explicit and implicit attitudes. According to research, which type of attitude serves as a better predictor of behavior? Why are attitudes—internal phenomena—important to the study of social psychology?

ANSWER: An attitude is a viewpoint that is often influenced by thoughts and emotions, and that affects our responses to people, things, or situations. Explicit attitudes are ones that we can easily and accurately describe; they are correlated to activity in the frontal cortex of the brain. Implicit attitudes are much more automatic and involuntary, and hence a bit more unconscious and difficult to acknowledge; these tend to be correlated with activity in the amygdala, a part of the brain that processes emotion. Social psychology research has found that the two types of attitudes are roughly equal in predicting actual behavior. While implicit attitudes are expected to be more valid indicators of a person's true inner thoughts and feelings toward a topic, though, there are times (such as those related to the area of racial attitudes and discrimination) when implicit attitudes are better predictors than explicit attitudes or nonverbal behaviors. Attitudes are important to social psychologists because of how they influence behavior, especially behavior that occurs in the presence of other people, and because people spend a lot of time and effort trying to change the attitudes of other people.

4. Compare and contrast the two attitude persuasion strategies—central route versus peripheral route. Provide an example of each as it relates to advertising, and discuss which approach is likely to be more effective in the .

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Chapter 13 - Essay long run.

ANSWER: Central route persuasion and peripheral route persuasion are both strategies that are used in attempts to change the attitudes of people, but they each take a different approach. Central route persuasion is a strategy that focuses on facts and the content of a message. Peripheral route persuasion, by contrast, emphasizes factors other than the message's content. Students' examples of advertising that uses central route persuasion will vary, but should focus on presentation of actual facts and qualities of the product itself. Examples of advertising that use peripheral route persuasion should focus on cues besides the strength and quality of the product itself, such as use of a celebrity to deliver the message, pairing the product with trendy music, or perhaps use of images that are intended to trigger a certain emotional feeling toward the product. The central route is likely to be more effective in the long run, especially if the facts presented are strong and it gets the viewer to think about the advantages mentioned in the message. Such thinking and elaboration are more likely to result in long-lasting attitude change, compared to the minimal thinking prompted by a focus on the periphery of a message, which in turn results in only superficial and short-term change, if any at all.

5. Describe the foot-in-the-door, door-in-the-face, and lowball techniques as persuasion strategies. Imagine yourself trying to convince a friend to donate money to a charity or volunteer for a good cause that you are organizing, and provide an example of each persuasion technique.

ANSWER: The foot-in-the-door technique is a persuasion strategy in which a person gets another person to agree to a small request before asking for a larger one. The goal is to get the larger request fulfilled, but you start with the small request just to at least get your foot in the door. For example, when asking a friend to donate to your cause, you may start by asking if he/she would be willing to donate $1, hinting that every small contribution makes a big difference. Once he/she agrees, this allows you the opportunity to talk about the virtues of this cause, after which you ask if he/she would possibly consider contributing a bit more, perhaps $10. The door-in-the-face technique is where a person gets another person to reject a large request before making a smaller one. The goal all along is to get the smaller request, but the large request is presented first to make the smaller one seem much more reasonable by contrast. For example, you may ask someone if they'd be willing to donate $5000 to your charitable cause (even if you know that $5000 is clearly beyond that person's budget); when they refuse, you suggest a smaller donation, perhaps in the amount of $100. The $100 may have appeared high if you started there, but after the $5000 request, $100 seems reasonable and doable.

The lowball technique is where one person quotes another person a low price or commitment level to get an initial agreement, and then raises the price or commitment level. For example, you ask a friend to help volunteer at an event for a couple of hours, indicating that you simply need someone to supervise a table and distribute info. Once your friend arrives, you ask if he/she would also help set up, carry boxes, reorganize all the tables, manage the other volunteers, and take down the event as well. Your friend likely complies and ends up doing a lot more work than he/she originally expected.

6. Discuss how our social roles can powerfully influence our attitudes and actions. Describe how the power of social roles was demonstrated in Phillip Zimbardo's classic Stanford Prison Study.

ANSWER: Our social role is defined as a title, position, or status that carries expectations for what is considered acceptable behavior. Such expectations powerfully influence how we think and behave, especially right after our social role changes and we gain a new title, position, or status. Phillip Zimbardo's classic Stanford Prison Study showed how study participants assigned to the role of prison guard readily assumed the expectations for how a prison guard ought to behave and followed suit; the guards' behavior became degrading, humiliating, and abusive toward the study participants, who .

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Chapter 13 - Essay were randomly assigned to be prisoners.

7. Define cognitive dissonance and describe the three ways it can be resolved. Provide a real-life example of cognitive dissonance and discuss what the three different solutions might entail.

ANSWER: Cognitive dissonance is the discomfort caused by having an attitude that contradicts another attitude or behavior. This inner feeling of hypocrisy can be resolved in three ways. If a person has two conflicting attitudes (i.e., Attitude A and Attitude B), the person could reduce his/her cognitive dissonance by (1) changing Attitude A, (2) changing Attitude B, or (3) coming up with an Attitude C that would resolve the tension or conflict between A and B. The real-life examples will vary, but they can involve either two conflicting attitudes, or a situation where someone's attitude is at odds with a behavior.

8. Define conformity and obedience, and draw the distinction between the two concepts. Describe which of and how the concepts were exemplified in studies by Solomon Asch and Stanley Milgram.

ANSWER: Conformity is a type of social influence that involves changes in an individual's behavior to correspond to the behavior of a group of other people. People may conform due to a number of reasons, including the desire to achieve a sense of belongingness, to fit in with the norm of the group (normative conformity), and to behave in a "correct" way (informational conformity). Obedience involves changes in an individual's behavior to comply with demands of an authority figure. The distinction is that we obey superiors whom we perceive to hold power over us, whereas we conform to groups of peers. (Solomon Asch's study showed the impact of conformity. In the study, participants were asked to choose which of the three sample lines matched the target line. Some of the participants were actually confederates who were instructed to provide the incorrect answer.

When the confederates answered incorrectly, the actual participant was more likely to go along with the incorrect answer provided by the confederates. Stanley Milgram's shock study showed the influence of obedience. In the study, an authority figure told a participant to shock another participant—actually a confederate—in a different room when that participant answered incorrectly.

The participants shocked the confederate much more and to a higher level than they or the experimenters would have thought, and it was concluded that this was because of the influence of the authority figure.

9. Describe five situational and/or personal factors that make it more likely for a person to conform to a group.

Describe how being part of a collectivistic or individualistic culture can influence the likelihood to conform and be obedient.

ANSWER: Conformity is a type of social influence that involves changes in an individual's behavior to correspond to the behavior of a group of other people. People are more likely to conform if: (1) they have low self-esteem, (2) the behaviors that they would engage in would be visible to the group, (3) they have low status in the group, and (4) they have minimal alternatives outside the group. People are also more likely to conform if the group: (1) includes at least 3–5 members, (2) contains no dissenting members, (3) is highly valued by the person, and (4) is working together toward a single, shared goal. Individuals from collectivistic cultures highly value group harmony and compliance, so they are more likely to conform than individuals from individualistic cultures. This cultural influence is the same for obedience, which involves changes in an individual's behavior to comply with demands of an authority figure.

10. Think of a time when being in the company of others has helped your performance, and also a time when it has hindered your performance. Describe those times and discuss how they relate to the concepts of social .

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Chapter 13 - Essay facilitation and social loafing.

ANSWER: Student examples will vary, but they should illustrate how performing a behavior alone can be different from performing the same behavior in front of or in the company of other people. Social facilitation is when the presence of others leads to an increase in individual performance. This is more likely to occur when the task is easy and simple. Social loafing, on the other hand, is a decrease in individual performance when a task is done in a group. This is more likely to occur when the group is collectively responsible for the task and the individual does not feel that his/her personal contribution is distinguishable from those of others in the group.

11. Explain the difference between prejudice, stereotypes, and discrimination, and provide a real-life example of each.

ANSWER: Prejudice is an unjustified and often negative attitude toward a social group that is prematurely formed before getting to know members of that group. Examples could include prejudices against a group of people based on race, gender, age, socioeconomic status, sexual orientation, etc. For example, someone may have a prejudice about people of a particular ethnicity being lazy.

Stereotypes are beliefs about a group's characteristics that are applied generally, and often inaccurately, to group members. While prejudice is a general bias toward the group as a whole, a stereotype is a specific application of that bias to an individual within the group. For example, someone may stereotype a specific person as being lazy simply because he/she is of a certain ethnic background. While prejudice and stereotypes are attitudes and beliefs, discrimination is an action.

The act of discrimination is based on prejudice or stereotypes toward a social group. For example, an employer is engaging in discrimination if he/she decides not to hire a job applicant for the sole reason that the job applicant is of a certain ethnic background.

12. Describe the just-world hypothesis and explain how it can deepen prejudices and also lead to victim blaming.

ANSWER: The just-world hypothesis suggests that people have a tendency to want to believe that we live in a world that is just and fair—that good things happen to good people, and bad things happen to people who do bad things. This thought process is often used to rationalize or justify prejudices that individuals hold by explaining that unfortunate events happen to those who deserve them.

Essentially, the just-world hypothesis suggests that "people get what they deserve" and "people deserve what they get." As such, victims of unfortunate events (e.g., sexual assault, crimes, or even poverty, discrimination, and terminal illness) may be blamed for their own misfortunes, as opposed to the actual perpetrator of the crime or larger external cause of the situation. In turn, the focus and blame stay on the victim, and unfortunately nothing is done to change or correct the actual cause of the problem.

13. Describe four of the strategies that social psychologists have generated to help people overcome prejudice.

Which one(s) do you believe is/are most effective in combating prejudice, and why? Provide an example for at least one of the strategies that you have either personally experienced or witnessed.

ANSWER: To overcome prejudice, intergroup contact is a strategy that is based on direct interpersonal interaction between members of multiple groups. Oftentimes, people who hold strong prejudices against certain groups have had very limited contact with members of that group; when personal interaction occurs, the prejudices tend to dissolve. Common group identity is another strategy for reducing prejudice that is based on the creation of a larger group that includes multiple smaller groups. As such, the different smaller groups come together for a common cause, share a new .

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Chapter 13 - Essay common group identity, and learn to cooperate and work together. Education can also help to reduce prejudice; providing straightforward, unbiased, and accurate information about an outgroup can help enhance knowledge, challenge negative assumptions, and foster understanding. Last but not least, jigsaw classroom exercises can be an effective strategy for fighting prejudice by giving each student in a diverse group an essential part of the solution to a problem that must be solved as a group. The interdependence and collaboration required in this assignment will force students to work together and see and treat one another as individuals as opposed to members of outgroups.

14. Critically evaluate the nature versus nurture debate as it relates to aggression. In other words, what kinds of influences provide support for the role of nature versus that of nurture in explaining aggression? In your response, discuss the various biological, psychological, situational, and diversity-related influences on aggression.

ANSWER: Evidence that aggression is part of our nature comes from studies of aggression in young toddlers that support the idea that aggression is innate in human beings. Life span studies further show that aggressive children tend to become aggressive adults, which suggests that aggression may be due to a stable, biologically influenced trait. Twin and adoption studies also find that genes account for up to 50% of a person's aggressiveness. The psychological influences on aggression bridge some of the gap between the nature versus nurture sides of the debate. Personality traits (e.g., low empathy, high impulsivity) that are linked to aggression may be genetically based, but they could also be learned.

Some studies have found evidence for the influence of observational learning on aggressive behavior. The situational influences on aggression focus on the external circumstances that play a role in aggression, and hence the nurture side. Unpleasant events such as minor nuisances, social rejection, weather, presence of weapons, alcohol, and violence in the media have all been cited as possible causes of increased aggression. Finally, various diversity-related influences on aggression can be viewed as supporting both sides of the nature versus nurture debate and are open to interpretation. Demographic differences in aggression such as between men (more direct forms of aggression) and women (more relational forms of aggression) could be due to genetic predispositions, or they could be due to learned and societally accepted ways of behaving. Crossnational comparisons of homicide rates and violent crimes tend to provide more environmental explanations for aggression.

15. Some say, "Absence makes the heart grow fonder." Others say, "Out of sight, out of mind." Discuss which common saying is most supported by social psychological research on interpersonal attraction, and why.

ANSWER: The common saying "Out of sight, out of mind" is more supported by social psychology research on interpersonal attraction, compared to the saying "Absence makes the heart grow fonder." This is because proximity has been found to be one of the major factors that influence the attractiveness of one person to another. In fact, physical closeness produces emotional closeness in both friendships and romantic relationships. Furthermore, many studies have found support for the mere exposure effect, which is an increase in the attractiveness of a person or an object resulting from nothing more than repeated contact or exposure. This suggests that proximity or nearness produces familiarity, and familiarity breeds positive feelings and increased attractiveness. Distance or absence would thus yield lower levels of familiarity and attractiveness.

16. Imagine a happily married couple that has been together for over 30 years. What types of love have they likely experienced and at what times in their relationship? Also, describe the two important ingredients identified by researchers as keys to lasting romantic relationships. .

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Chapter 13 - Essay ANSWER: It is likely that this couple experienced passionate love in the early part of their relationship. Such love is characterized by arousal and desire, and couples are smitten and consumed by the thought of each other and being together. Over time, this love likely evolved into a more mature love called companionate love. Companionate love is characterized by deep commitment and affection, and a sense of stability and security that is more typical of long-term relationships. According to researchers, two important ingredients of lasting romantic relationships are equity and selfdisclosure. Equity is the belief by each partner that he or she is being treated fairly, and giving and receiving a fair amount in the relationship. Self-disclosure is about openly sharing your private thoughts and feelings with your partner.

17. Compare and contrast the four theories of helping behavior put forth by social psychologists. Then briefly describe a prosocial behavior that either you recently did yourself or you witnessed in someone else. Also describe which theory or theories you believe best explain(s) why that particular prosocial deed was done.

ANSWER: The social exchange theory asserts that people engage in prosocial behavior depending on the comparison of costs and benefits to the individual for helping. The reciprocity norm explains that helping occurs because there is an expectation that those who provide help will receive help in the future; this relates to the notion that what goes around comes around. Another theory of helping is the social responsibility norm, which focuses on the notion of duty to help those who need it (i.e., you help because you simply feel as though you are supposed to do so). Finally, the kinship theory is evolutionary in nature and emphasizes the importance of passing your genes onward to future generations. This theory suggests that we have a tendency to help family first, over strangers, because our kin carry at least some of our genes. Each of these theories suggests that there is some selfish payoff in helping another person—an immediate benefit, a possible return in the future, a sense of obligation, or an innate impulse to ensure survival of your genes.

18. Describe the five steps that are necessary for bystander intervention. Consider the famous case of Kitty Genovese and discuss what most likely prevented the bystanders from helping.

ANSWER: The five steps necessary for a bystander to intervene are: (1) notice the event, (2) interpret the event as an emergency, (3) assume responsibility to intervene, (4) decide how to intervene, and (5) take action. Failure to take any of these steps will prevent a bystander from helping. In the case of Kitty Genovese, a brutal murder took place over a half-hour period during which many neighbors witnessed the event, but none of these bystanders intervened until it was too late. In this case, the neighbors noticed the event, and they also interpreted it as an emergency after hearing Kitty scream and cry for help. A failure in step (3) ("assume responsibility to intervene") is what stopped the bystanders (neighbors in this case) from helping. The main reason may have involved diffusion of responsibility, which is a decreased sense of obligation to help when others are present. In this case, each individual neighbor likely assumed that some other neighbor would help, or that someone else would call the police. As the number of bystanders increases, the diffusion of responsibility increases and the likelihood of any one of the bystanders helping decreases, hence the bystander effect.

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 1. Social psychology is BEST defined as the: a. notion that the world is a fair and just place with norms of social responsibility. b. way in which the presence of other people may affect your thoughts and actions. c. exploration of how people explain the cause of behavior in various situations. d. scientific study of how people think about, influence, and relate to each other.

ANSWER: d 2. Social _____ refers to a person's thoughts about other people and the social world, which can strongly influence their own feelings and behavior. a. cognition b. persuasion c. psychology d. attribution ANSWER: a 3. Which set contains the three forms of social cognition that social psychologists have studied extensively? a. id, ego, superego b. attitudes, attributions, cognitive dissonance c. obedience, conformity, compliance d. attributions, congruence, incongruence ANSWER: b 4. An attribution is BEST defined as a(n): a. person's thoughts about other people. b. explanation of the cause of behavior. c. viewpoint that affects your responses to situations. d. ill feeling caused by having a conflict.

ANSWER: b 5. You make a(n) _____ to explain the cause of your behavior. a. attribution b. congruence c. stereotype d. impression ANSWER: a 6. When developing an attribution, a person focuses on asking and answering the question: a. "What?" b. "Who?" c. "Why?" d. "How?" .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 7. An example of a question asked by someone developing an attribution is: a. "Why didn't the guest inform the homeowner that she was bringing her dog with her?" b. "What was the homeowner's response when he found out his guest snuck a pet into the house?" c. "How did the homeowner greet the guest upon arrival?" d. "Who is traveling with the guest that made the reservation?"

ANSWER: a 8. Attribution theory specifies _____ distinct categories of causes for behaviors. a. two b. three c. four d. five ANSWER: a 9. _____ states that behavior is caused either by traits within an individual or by the situation surrounding the individual. a. Cognitive dissonance b. Scapegoat hypothesis c. Impression formation d. Attribution theory ANSWER: d 10. Attribution theory states that behavior is caused: a. only by traits within an individual. b. only by the situation surrounding an individual. c. either by traits within an individual or by the situation surrounding the individual. d. neither by traits within an individual nor by the situation surrounding the individual.

ANSWER: c 11. When someone overestimates the importance of traits while underestimating the importance of the situation when explaining the behavior of other people, that person is: a. resorting to lowballing. b. using the door-in-the-face technique. c. committing the fundamental attribution error. d. using the foot-in-the-door technique.

ANSWER: c 12. Which statement would MOST likely be made by someone committing the fundamental attribution error? a. They failed the test because the test was poorly written. .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. They received a low score on the exam because they are careless. c. She did poorly on the quiz because the instructions were unclear. d. He got the lowest score on the assignment because others cheated.

ANSWER: b 13. Navneet was walking to their next class when they saw a person trip and stumble somewhat when walking.

Although there could be a number of reasons for the person's stumble, Navneet assumes the person must be very clumsy. In doing so, Navneet has just: a. used central route persuasion. b. committed the fundamental attribution error. c. applied the door-in-the-face technique. d. formed an explicit attitude.

ANSWER: b 14. A stoplight was out at an intersection on Yueming's drive home from the gym. Yueming came to a complete stop, then began to drive through, but they had to screech to a halt as another driver came speeding through the other side of the intersection without having stopped. If they make the fundamental attribution error, which statement is Yueming MOST likely to think? a. "What a dangerous situation." b. "That person is such a careless jerk!" c. "Is the light working on that side?" d. "I'm going to have to be more careful."

ANSWER: b 15. Much research has found that people _____ are more likely to commit the fundamental attribution error than people _____. a. in collectivistic cultures; in individualistic cultures b. in individualistic cultures; in collectivistic cultures c. who conform; who are nonconformists d. who engage in social loafing; affected by groupthink ANSWER: b 16. Slade is from the United States, which is an individualistic culture, and Renshu is from Hong Kong, which is a collectivistic culture. Which statement is MOST likely to be true about the use of their performance of the fundamental attribution error? a. Renshu would make the fundamental attribution error more often than Slade. b. Slade would make the fundamental attribution error more often than Renshu. c. Neither Renshu nor Slade would ever make the fundamental attribution error. d. Renshu would make the fundamental attribution error just as much as Slade.

ANSWER: b 17. If a crime is reported in the news of an individualistic culture, the cause of the crime is likely to be attributed .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice to the _____. If a crime is reported in the news of a collectivistic culture, the cause of the crime is likely to be attributed to the _____. a. situation; personality of the criminal b. personality of the criminal; situation c. personality of the criminal; personality of the criminal d. situation; situation ANSWER: b 18. A(n) _____ is a viewpoint that is often influenced by both thoughts and emotions, and which affects your responses to people, things, or situations. a. persuasion b. attitude c. diffusion d. attribution ANSWER: b 19. An attitude is BEST defined as: a. an overestimation of the importance of traits and underestimation of the importance of the situation when explaining a person's behavior. b. a title, position, or status that carries expectations for acceptable behavior within one's own culture. c. any way in which the presence of other people influences one's thoughts, feelings, or behavior. d. a viewpoint that is often influenced by both thoughts and emotions, and which affects your responses to people, things, or situations.

ANSWER: d 20. The BEST example of an attitude is your: a. emotional gut reaction to a news story that has gotten much attention. b. knowledge of certain facts about current world events. c. informed thoughts and feelings about a hot topic. d. action taken in response to an awkward conversation.

ANSWER: c 21. Attitudes and behaviors: a. are related in that attitudes only predict behaviors. b. are related in that behaviors only predict attitude. c. influence each other in a reciprocal way. d. are unrelated to each other.

ANSWER: c 22. Chan feels very strongly that it's every individual's responsibility to get the COVID-19 vaccine. Rei doesn't really care one way or another if people get the COVID-19 vaccine or not. What would research predict is MOST likely to happen? .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. Neither Chan nor Rei is likely to get the COVID-19 vaccine. b. Chan and Rei are just as likely to get the COVID-19 vaccine. c. Chan is more likely to get the COVID-19 vaccine than Rei. d. Rei is more likely to get the COVID-19 vaccine than Chan.

ANSWER: c 23. _____ attitudes are ones that we are aware of and that we can easily and accurately describe, whereas _____ attitudes are more difficult to acknowledge because they are automatic, involuntary, and often exist outside of our conscious awareness. a. Explicit; implicit b. Implicit; explicit c. Central; peripheral d. Peripheral; central ANSWER: a 24. Explicit attitudes come from the _____ of the brain, whereas implicit attitudes come from the _____. a. amygdala; orbitofrontal cortex b. hippocampus; thalamus c. limbic system; reticular formation d. frontal cortex; amygdala ANSWER: d 25. _____ persuasion is a strategy that emphasizes a message's content. a. Foot-in-the-door b. Peripheral route c. Explicit d. Central route ANSWER: d 26. _____ persuasion is a strategy that emphasizes factors other than a message's content. a. Foot-in-the-door b. Peripheral route c. Explicit d. Central route ANSWER: b 27. A commercial using central route persuasion to advertise a certain brand of dog food would MOST likely draw your attention to the: a. full-nutrition and health benefits of the ingredients. b. images of adorable dogs running in the background. c. famous singer who says they give their dog the food. .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. sound of the popular hit song playing.

ANSWER: a 28. A TV commercial for cologne that shows a handsome man attracting all the attention of beautiful women at a fancy gala BEST exemplifies the use of _____ in advertising. a. the lowball technique b. peripheral route persuasion c. the social loafing approach d. central route persuasion ANSWER: b 29. Which statement about elaboration is true? a. Elaboration describes "thinking about others." b. The more elaboration, the more effective the message. c. The less elaboration, the more effective the message. d. Elaboration has no effect on the efficacy of the message.

ANSWER: b 30. The foot-in-the-door technique is a persuasion strategy in which one person: a. emphasizes all of the factors that are directly related to a message's content. b. gets another person to agree to a small request before asking for a bigger one. c. quotes another person a low price to get an initial agreement and then raises the price. d. gets another person to agree to reject a large request before making a smaller one.

ANSWER: b 31. The persuasion strategy where you get someone to agree to something little before asking for something big is called: a. the lowball technique. b. central route persuasion. c. the foot-in-the-door technique. d. peripheral route persuasion.

ANSWER: c 32. A person selling a mattress using the foot-in-the-door technique would MOST likely say: a. "This mattress is rated highly by doctors and users alike." b. "If you buy this mattress today, we'll throw in two free pillows." c. "We have some nice mattresses in the store for $5K. There are also some for $1K." d. "You can try it in your home for 30 days. No penalty to return it!"

ANSWER: d 33. You want your partner to start cooking dinner every other night. A proponent of the foot-in-the-door technique would suggest that you: .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. be upfront and ask if they will cook every other night. b. start by asking if they will cook once a week. c. emphasize how much you love their cooking. d. promise to clean up the kitchen after they cook.

ANSWER: b 34. The door-in-the-face technique is a persuasion strategy in which one person: a. emphasizes all of the factors that are directly related to a message's content. b. gets another person to agree to a small request before asking for a bigger one. c. quotes another person a low price to get an initial agreement and then raises the price. d. gets another person to agree to reject a large request before making a smaller one.

ANSWER: d 35. "Would you be interested in donating $5000 to a charitable cause?" When this opening question results in a definitive "No, thanks!" the subsequent question, "Well, how about a $100 contribution?" seems like a much more acceptable option. This scenario illustrates use of: a. the foot-in-the-door technique. b. peripheral route persuasion. c. the door-in-the-face technique. d. the lowball technique.

ANSWER: c 36. The lowball technique is a persuasion strategy in which one person: a. emphasizes all of the factors that are directly related to a message's content. b. gets another person to agree to a small request before asking for a bigger one. c. quotes another person a low price to get an initial agreement and then raises the price. d. gets another person to agree to reject a large request before making a smaller one.

ANSWER: c 37. The persuasion strategy in which one person quotes another person a low price to get an initial agreement and then raises the price is called: a. the lowball technique. b. central route persuasion. c. the foot-in-the-door technique. d. peripheral route persuasion.

ANSWER: a 38. "Get them to agree, then jack up the price!" This advice is an example of: a. central route persuasion. b. the lowball technique. c. the foot-in-the-door technique. .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. the door-in-the-face technique.

ANSWER: b 39. Yuet is part of a student club and is convinced by the outgoing president, Wenquian, that they should step up as the next club president. Wenquian tells Yuet that it's really not that much work and there are a lot of perks that come with the leadership position. Within the first month as club president, however, Yuet finds that the president position involves a lot more duties than they were previously informed. Yuet realizes that they're going to put in a lot more time than expected to do a decent job. Which strategy did Wenquian use to persuade Yuet? a. foot-in-the-door technique b. social cognition c. door-in-the-face technique d. lowball technique ANSWER: d 40. Social role is BEST defined as: a. a title, position, or status that carries expectations for acceptable behavior. b. the way in which the presence of other people influences our thoughts and behaviors. c. the determination of how we measure up to other people. d. an initial appraisal that others make of us as a member of a group.

ANSWER: a 41. Which person would BEST be described as experiencing a change in social role? a. Tendai, who is retiring from the workforce b. Gwey, who bought a new car c. Caya, who wants to go to college d. Jada, who is renovating their house ANSWER: a 42. As a college student, Tabitha often had her hair dyed different colors ranging from bright red to blue, and she regularly wore cut-off jean shorts and t-shirts with offensive slogans. Once she graduated and accepted a job at an engineering firm, she reconsidered her appearance and changed it to look more professional. This pressure to change was MOST likely due to changes in Tabitha's: a. attribution. b. intergroup contact. c. social role. d. obedience.

ANSWER: c 43. In the 1970s, Phillip Zimbardo's famous Stanford Prison Experiment demonstrated the power of: a. social roles. b. attributions. .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. obedience. d. dissonance.

ANSWER: a 44. Which statement is true about Phillip Zimbardo's famous Stanford Prison Experiment? a. It went on for 2 weeks as originally planned by the experimenter. b. The participants got to choose whether they played the role of prisoner or guard. c. It demonstrated the power that social roles can have on our attitudes and behavior. d. Fortunately, nothing like the experiment has ever happened in real life.

ANSWER: c 45. _____ is the discomfort caused by having an attitude that contradicts another attitude or a behavior. a. Group polarization b. Social loafing c. Informational conformity d. Cognitive dissonance ANSWER: d 46. Cognitive dissonance is BEST defined as: a. one's beliefs about a group's characteristics that are applied generally and often inaccurately. b. changes in an individual's behavior to correspond to the behavior of a group of people. c. discomfort caused by having an attitude that contradicts another attitude or a behavior. d. the way in which the presence of other people influences your thoughts and attitudes.

ANSWER: c 47. Cognitive dissonance is MOST associated with an inner feeling of: a. harmony. b. hypocrisy. c. pleasure. d. aggression.

ANSWER: b 48. When Cadi says one thing but actually believes another, it is MOST likely that she will experience unpleasant feelings associated with: a. cognitive dissonance. b. social facilitation. c. stereotype threat. d. diffusion of responsibility.

ANSWER: a 49. Shoa is very active with the LGBTQ+ community at his college. However, his parents don't know and often .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice make hateful remarks against members of the LGBTQ+ community. Each time Shoa hears his parents' remarks but chooses not to respond, he is MOST likely to experience: a. central route persuasion. b. attribution error. c. social loafing. d. cognitive dissonance.

ANSWER: d 50. Savita considers herself to be a strong feminist who values equal rights for both men and women. Which behavior would MOST likely cause Savita to experience cognitive dissonance? a. raising awareness about sexism b. participating in women's rights march c. protesting against the gender pay gap d. telling a sexist joke to a friend ANSWER: d 51. Tamara is strongly against the use of animal products of any kind. Tamara recently experienced great discomfort when their family pointed out that, since Tamara has Type I diabetes, they take insulin, which is from an animal source. What is an effective way for Tamara to resolve their cognitive dissonance? a. Ignore their family and continue taking their life-sustaining insulin. b. Make sure they only buy and use insulin that is made synthetically. c. Tell their family that they don't understand inappropriate use of animal products. d. Use a different brand of insulin that is still animal-based.

ANSWER: b 52. As a teenager, Napatti became a vegetarian for environmental reasons. At a college party, however, Napatti ate a hamburger and immediately felt hypocritical. According to social psychologists, what might Napatti do to effectively resolve their cognitive dissonance? a. Offer burgers to other people at the party. b. Pretend that they did not actually eat the burger. c. Convince themself that eating one burger won't destroy the environment. d. Give up vegetarianism and continue to eat burgers.

ANSWER: c 53. The long history of studying cognitive dissonance traces back to the classic work of _____ in the 1950s. a. Stanley Milgram b. Solomon Asch c. Leon Festinger d. Phillip Zimbardo ANSWER: c 54. In Festinger and Carlsmith's (1959) classic study on cognitive dissonance, which involved participants .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice engaging in a boring task with wooden pegs, one group was paid $1 to lie about how fun the task was. This group subsequently changed their attitude about the task to one that was much more positive, compared to another group that was paid $20 to lie. What BEST explains the more positive attitude of the group that was paid $1? a. They were unable to otherwise rationalize their lying behavior. b. They tended to describe themselves as liars to begin with. c. They thought that the experimenter would pay them more for being positive. d. They truly enjoyed the task throughout the entire experiment.

ANSWER: a 55. Self-perception theory states that our attitudes _____ our actions. a. form before b. form after c. form at the same time as d. are unrelated to ANSWER: b 56. Which common saying BEST exemplifies the self-perception theory? a. "Be all that you can be." b. "Great things take time." c. "Fake it till you make it." d. "Listen to your heart."

ANSWER: c 57. Your new roommate, Raj, doesn't have a car and asks you for several rides to places during the first week after moving in together. Even if you are in the middle of something when he asks, you agree to give him a ride to wherever he needs to go. Realizing how often you find yourself helping Raj, you conclude, "I must really like and appreciate Raj." Your attitude formation can be BEST explained by the: a. self-perception theory. b. ingroup bias. c. cognitive dissonance theory. d. just-world hypothesis.

ANSWER: a 58. Researchers examined if participant experience of cognitive dissonance would increase mask wearing during the COVID-19 pandemic. They found that: a. cognitive dissonance increased mask wearing. b. cognitive dissonance decreased mask wearing. c. there was no relationship between cognitive dissonance and mask wearing. d. only people who never experienced cognitive dissonance ever wore masks.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 59. _____ is defined as any way in which the presence of other people affects one's thoughts, feelings, or behavior. a. Cognitive dissonance b. Social influence c. Social cognition d. Outgroup homogeneity ANSWER: b 60. Social influence is BEST reflected by: a. cleaning your house only when you're having guests over. b. hiring a maid service to clean your house on a regular basis. c. cleaning your house because you can't stand the clutter. d. having your parents help you clean your house.

ANSWER: a 61. When Adonica is at home alone, they often eat while sitting on the couch; however, they set the dinner table and eat there when they have house guests. The difference in Adonica's behaviors in the presence of other people BEST illustrates: a. groupthink. b. social cognition. c. cognitive dissonance. d. social influence.

ANSWER: d 62. Conformity is BEST defined as changes in an individual's behavior to: a. correspond to the behavior of a group of other people. b. preserve the harmony in a group rather than finding the best solution. c. decrease one's personal identity and accountability. d. comply with the demands of an authority figure.

ANSWER: a 63. _____ refers to changes in an individual's behavior to correspond to the behavior of a group of other people. a. Obedience b. Dissonance c. Persuasion d. Conformity ANSWER: d 64. Which researcher conducted the classic 1950s-line study examining conformity? a. Stanley Milgram b. Solomon Asch .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. Leon Festinger d. Phillip Zimbardo ANSWER: b 65. Solomon Asch's classic line study was conducted in the 1950s to examine: a. obedience. b. attitude change. c. conformity. d. attributions.

ANSWER: c 66. In Asch's classic line study, participants conformed with the group giving the incorrect answer about _____% of the time, and only _____% of the participants never conformed with the group answering incorrectly. a. 17; 15 b. 27; 20 c. 37; 25 d. 47; 30 ANSWER: c 67. Which basic human need from Maslow's hierarchy serves as a primary explanation for conformity? a. physiological b. esteem c. security d. belongingness ANSWER: d 68. Conformity is BEST reflected by: a. obeying the law. b. going along with the crowd. c. following directions from your teacher. d. listening to your parents.

ANSWER: b 69. _____ conformity is about wanting to fit in and be liked, whereas _____ conformity is about wanting to be correct. a. Normative; informational b. Informational; normative c. Outgroup; ingroup d. Ingroup; outgroup ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 70. An example of informational conformity is: a. drinking at a party because of peer pressure. b. saying you liked a movie because everyone else liked it. c. using headphones when listening to music on your phone. d. buying a new phone based on ratings and reviews.

ANSWER: d 71. If you were the first person to get onto an elevator and about seven other strangers who get on after you face the rear of the elevator, you may feel awkward, out of place, and decide to also turn around and face the rear.

What social psychological phenomenon would BEST explain your change in behavior? a. informational conformity b. obedience c. normative conformity d. social loafing ANSWER: c 72. A person is MOST likely to conform to a group if the group: a. includes fewer than three members. b. contains dissenting members. c. is highly valued to the person. d. is working toward multiple goals.

ANSWER: c 73. If a person _____, they are more likely to conform to a group. a. engages in behaviors not visible to the group b. has high status in the group c. has low self-esteem d. has alternatives outside the group ANSWER: c 74. Which statement about cultural differences in conformity is true? a. Conformity levels are higher in individualistic countries than collectivist countries. b. Conformity rates in the United States have risen since the 1950s. c. Although conformity is a universal human need, it varies across cultures. d. Cultures that emphasize group harmony tend to downplay the value of conformity.

ANSWER: c 75. According to cross-cultural research findings, conformity levels tend to be: a. higher in collectivist countries than individualistic countries. b. higher in individualistic countries than collectivist countries. c. consistently high in both collectivist and individualistic countries. .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. consistently low in both collectivist and individualistic countries.

ANSWER: a 76. Obedience is BEST defined as changes in an individual's behavior to: a. correspond to the behavior of a group of other people. b. preserve the harmony in a group rather than finding the best solution. c. decrease one's personal identity and accountability. d. comply with the demands of an authority figure.

ANSWER: d 77. _____ refers to changes in an individual's behavior to comply with the demands of an authority figure. a. Obedience b. Social loafing c. Groupthink d. Conformity ANSWER: a 78. Obedience is BEST exemplified by: a. paying attention to critical feedback from clients. b. following instructions from a teacher. c. agreeing to go somewhere with friends. d. going above and beyond the call of duty.

ANSWER: b 79. "I am just following orders!" This statement would MOST likely be made by a person who is demonstrating: a. conformity. b. loafing. c. obedience. d. facilitation.

ANSWER: c 80. Which researcher conducted a famous study on obedience involving a "shock generator" in the 1960s? a. Stanley Milgram b. Solomon Asch c. Leon Festinger d. Phillip Zimbardo ANSWER: a 81. Stanley Milgram's famous study involving a "shock generator" was conducted in the 1960s to examine: a. attributions. .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. obedience. c. attitude change. d. conformity.

ANSWER: b 82. Why is Milgram's study conducted in the 1960s considered controversial and unethical? a. Participants were hurt by the painful shocks they received. b. Its results showed that people often obey authority figures. c. It promoted the perpetration of violence against others. d. Participants were deceived and experienced a great deal of stress.

ANSWER: d 83. What was the primary finding from Milgram's famous study in the 1960s? a. Painful shocks help to improve a person's memory and learning of word pairs. b. People often obey authority figures even when their behaviors appear to hurt other people. c. Most people will refuse to hurt an innocent person once that person says they are in pain. d. People tend to willingly accept responsibility for their own actions that harm other people.

ANSWER: b 84. In Milgram's famous study, _____% of the participants went all the way up to the maximum voltage, purportedly shocking the "learner" with 450 volts of electricity. a. 17 b. 38 c. 62 d. 93 ANSWER: c 85. If the participants in Milgram's study all had high scores on Kohlberg's moral development scale, what would have been expected? a. less conformity by the participants b. more conformity by the participants c. more obedience by the participants d. less obedience by the participants ANSWER: d 86. If the authority figure in Milgram's study had been challenged by another authority figure, what would have been expected? a. less conformity by the participants b. more conformity by the participants c. more obedience by the participants d. less obedience by the participants .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 87. Which statement about obeying lockdown orders during the COVID-19 pandemic is true? a. Lockdown order only occurred in individualistic countries. b. There were no differences between collectivist and individualistic countries in terms of compliance with lockdown orders. c. Countries with higher levels of collectivism were less likely to comply with lockdown orders. d. Countries with higher levels of individualism were less likely to comply with lockdown orders.

ANSWER: d 88. Social facilitation is BEST defined as a(n): a. action based on prejudice or stereotypes toward a social group. b. increase in individual performance due to the presence of other people. c. loss of identity and accountability experienced by individuals in groups. d. decrease in individual performance when tasks are done in groups.

ANSWER: b 89. _____ occurs when the presence of other people causes an increase in an individual's performance. a. Groupthink b. Social facilitation c. Deindividuation d. Social loafing ANSWER: b 90. Under which circumstance would social facilitation MOST likely occur? a. when the task is challenging b. your first time doing something c. when the task is easy and simple d. with lack of proper preparation ANSWER: c 91. Cross-country runners often run faster when they are surrounded by other runners and cheering spectators than when they are on solo training runs. This improved performance in the presence of others is known as: a. social facilitation. b. groupthink. c. social loafing. d. deindividuation.

ANSWER: a 92. Astella is known for their acting ability, so their director was surprised and concerned when Astella messed up many lines and entrances during rehearsal. However, at opening night of the show and in front of an audience, Astella hits every line perfectly and never misses an entrance. Astella's enhanced performance in front .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice of a crowd can be explained by the concept of: a. deindividuation. b. conformity. c. groupthink. d. social facilitation.

ANSWER: d 93. Social loafing is BEST defined as a(n): a. action based on prejudice or stereotypes toward a social group. b. increase in individual performance due to the presence of other people. c. loss of identity and accountability experienced by individuals in groups. d. decrease in individual performance when tasks are done in groups.

ANSWER: d 94. _____ occurs when tasks are done in groups, resulting in a decrease in individual performance. a. Groupthink b. Social facilitation c. Deindividuation d. Social loafing ANSWER: d 95. In which circumstance is social loafing MOST likely to occur? a. when individual performance is measured b. when performance is measured at the group level c. when we feel we are being watched and evaluated d. when we are cheered on by supporters ANSWER: b 96. For a community service project, about 50 high school students were given gloves and trash bags to pick up garbage at a park. Consistent with research findings on social loafing, what would be the best way to maximize the amount of garbage picked up by each student? a. Give each student his/her own trash bag to collect garbage and weigh at the end. b. Divide the students into groups of five and give one trash bag to each group. c. Provide one trash bag to each group of 10 students and replenish as needed. d. Announce that the total amount of garbage collected by the whole group will be measured.

ANSWER: a 97. When assigning group projects, what would be the BEST way to minimize social loafing? a. increase the number of group members b. give all group members the same grade c. make members collectively responsible for the task .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. measure performance of each individual member ANSWER: d 98. Deindividuation is BEST defined as a(n): a. action based on prejudice or stereotypes toward a social group. b. increase in individual performance due to the presence of other people. c. loss of identity and accountability experienced by individuals in groups. d. decrease in individual performance when tasks are done in groups.

ANSWER: c 99. _____ occurs when individuals are in groups and they experience a loss of identity and accountability that can lead them to act in ways they never would otherwise. a. Groupthink b. Social facilitation c. Deindividuation d. Social loafing ANSWER: c 100. Which situation is MOST likely to produce deindividuation? a. seeing a reflection of yourself b. disguising yourself with a mask c. being introduced at an event d. wearing a name tag at work ANSWER: b 101. When we perceive ourselves as an indistinguishable member of a crowd, our increased likelihood of behaving in an atypical way is MOST likely due to: a. obedience. b. group polarization. c. social facilitation. d. deindividuation.

ANSWER: d 102. When soldiers come together as a large group all wearing the same uniform and with the same buzz haircut, they are more likely to behave aggressively than they would by themselves. This change in behavior is BEST explained by the concept of: a. deindividuation. b. group polarization. c. social facilitation. d. groupthink.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 103. Which statement about deindividuation and crime is MOST true? Violent criminals who are in disguise are _____ violent criminals whose identities are visible. a. less likely to hurt multiple victims than b. less likely to inflict severe injuries than c. more likely to victimize multiple people and hurt them severely than d. likely to behave the same way as ANSWER: c 104. Groupthink is BEST defined as: a. a phenomenon that occurs when group members value getting along with each other more than finding the best solution. b. the tendency for a group's attitudes to become more extreme as a result of the group's discussions. c. the assumption that all members of an outgroup are essentially similar and threatening to one's own group. d. the tendency to hold a more positive attitude toward the ingroup than the outgroup.

ANSWER: a 105. _____ is a phenomenon that occurs when a group values harmony among its members more than accurate analysis and wise decision making. a. Stereotyping b. Ingroup bias c. Scapegoating d. Groupthink ANSWER: d 106. Groupthink is MOST likely to occur in groups that emphasize: a. wise decision making. b. group harmony. c. strong leadership. d. interpersonal conflict.

ANSWER: b 107. When groupthink occurs, _____ is valued over _____. a. accurate analysis; a poor decision b. group cooperation; the best solution c. disagreement; a flawed plan d. wise decision making; group harmony ANSWER: b 108. Groupthink is BEST described as _____ for wise decision making. a. problematic b. beneficial .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. required d. unnecessary ANSWER: a 109. What is an effective way to combat the potential problems of groupthink? a. Reward cooperation. b. Praise group unity. c. Shun opposing viewpoints. d. Encourage disagreement.

ANSWER: d 110. In a recent meeting at work, Claude was surprised that all members of his finance committee approved every line item proposed in the new budget. Even though Claude was uncomfortable with some of the proposals, he was more concerned with avoiding conflict with the members and therefore did not raise any points of disagreement. It is likely that Claude was influenced by: a. group polarization. b. obedience. c. groupthink. d. ingroup bias.

ANSWER: c 111. Group polarization is BEST defined as: a. the tendency to hold a more positive attitude toward the ingroup than the outgroup. b. the tendency for a group's attitudes to become more extreme as a result of the group's discussions. c. a phenomenon that occurs when group members value getting along with each other more than finding the best solution. d. the assumption that all members of an outgroup are essentially similar and threatening to one's own group.

ANSWER: b 112. The tendency for a group's attitudes to become more extreme as a result of group discussions is known as: a. common group identity. b. groupthink. c. social comparison. d. group polarization.

ANSWER: d 113. "Conservatives get more conservative, and liberals get more liberal." This statement highlights the concept of: a. group polarization. b. common group identity. c. outgroup homogeneity. .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. social comparison.

ANSWER: a 114. Making an initial appraisal of another person is called: a. social facilitation. b. self-perception. c. social comparison. d. impression formation.

ANSWER: d 115. When forming impressions, humans can process the image of another person's face in as little as: a. one-hundredth of a second. b. one-hundredth of a second but only if the face is attractive. c. one-tenth of a second. d. one-tenth of a second but only if their face indicates danger.

ANSWER: c 116. Lakisha meets someone on a date for the first time. Which factor is likely to have the greatest influence on Lakisha's first impression of her date? a. conversation that occurs during the date b. physical attractiveness of her date c. location of the date d. her past dating experiences ANSWER: b 117. In general, the physical attractiveness of a face depends upon _____, whereas bodily attractiveness depends greatly upon _____. a. bilateral symmetry; culture b. size and shape; age c. culture; bilateral symmetry d. subjectivity standards; objective standards ANSWER: a 118. Which statement about the influence of physical attractiveness is true? a. The definition of bodily attractiveness varies across cultures. b. Obese and overweight people are rated high in conscientiousness. c. Obese and overweight people are rated high in extraversion. d. Men with a masculine gait are viewed less favorably.

ANSWER: a 119. Attempts to improve the way we seem to other people when we meet them for the first time is known as: .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. impression formation. b. social facilitation. c. impression management. d. social comparison.

ANSWER: c 120. Tinisha is nervous about their upcoming violin performance. The night before, they carefully think through everything from what they are going to wear and the notes of the music they are going to play, to how they will bow and calmly walk off at the end. In their effort to appear competent and likeable as a violinist, Tinisha is engaging in: a. impression formation. b. groupthink. c. impression management. d. social comparison.

ANSWER: c 121. A negative attitude toward a social group that is based on preconceived ideas about the group prior to actually getting to know the group members is known as: a. a stereotype. b. aggression. c. discrimination. d. prejudice.

ANSWER: d 122. LaQuenta believes that all obese people have no will power. LaQuenta's belief is an example of: a. prejudice. b. stereotyping. c. groupthink. d. discrimination.

ANSWER: a 123. _____ involve(s) beliefs about a group's characteristics that are applied generally, and often inaccurately, to individual members of that group. a. Stereotypes b. Aggression c. Discrimination d. Prejudice ANSWER: a 124. Shibu is starting their first job, and they believe that all older employees are intolerant and narrow-minded.

When Shibu meets their boss whose greying hair shows his age, Shibu immediately assumes that their boss will not appreciate Shibu's work and will make tasteless jokes about their gender identity. Shibu's assumption about .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice their boss is an example of: a. groupthink. b. stereotyping. c. scapegoating. d. discrimination.

ANSWER: b 125. Action that is based on prejudice or stereotypes toward a social group is called: a. a stereotype. b. diffusion. c. discrimination. d. prejudice.

ANSWER: c 126. An employer who does not hire women even if they are qualified and more experienced for the job than any man who applies is engaging in the behavior of _____, which is based on his own personal belief that women are not capable of doing the job. a. discrimination b. social comparison c. prejudice d. stereotyping ANSWER: a 127. Johnny is a landlord who will not rent to couples if he knows they are gay. Johnny's behavior is an example of: a. prejudice. b. stereotyping. c. scapegoating. d. discrimination.

ANSWER: d 128. _____ is a general bias toward the group as a whole, whereas _____ is an assumption about a specific person because of his or her membership within a given group. a. A stereotype; prejudice b. Discrimination; a stereotype c. Aggression; discrimination d. Prejudice; a stereotype ANSWER: d 129. _____ is an attitude, whereas _____ is an action. a. A stereotype; prejudice b. Prejudice; discrimination .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. Discrimination; prejudice d. Aggression; a stereotype ANSWER: b 130. Prejudice is a way of _____, and discrimination is a way of _____. a. thinking; thinking b. thinking; acting c. acting; thinking d. acting; acting ANSWER: b 131. A(n) _____ is a social group to which you believe you belong, whereas a(n) _____ is a social group to which you do not believe you belong. a. ingroup; outgroup b. common group; intergroup c. outgroup; ingroup d. subgroup; common group ANSWER: a 132. The _____ is about "them" while the _____ is about "us." a. ingroup; outgroup b. common group; intergroup c. outgroup; ingroup d. subgroup; common group ANSWER: c 133. Tamra graduated from college about 20 years ago, travels a lot due to having recently started her own technology company, and is happily married to a man with whom she is raising two teenage kids. Tamra likely considers herself part of all the following ingroups EXCEPT: a. wives. b. business owners. c. stay-at-home moms. d. college graduates.

ANSWER: c 134. The natural tendency for people to favor the groups to which they belong is called: a. outgroup homogeneity. b. discrimination. c. impression management. d. ingroup bias.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 135. An example of ingroup bias is: a. appreciating people from other countries. b. rooting for your hometown's sports team. c. inviting other people to join your group. d. cheering for an opposing team to lose.

ANSWER: b 136. Outgroup homogeneity is the assumption that all members of an outgroup are essentially: a. similar. b. aggressive. c. different. d. altruistic.

ANSWER: a 137. Which statement about the forming of prejudice is true? a. The tendency to negatively prejudge unfamiliar people is a conscious decision. b. People tend to hold more positive attitudes toward outgroups than ingroups. c. Prejudice occurs when people recognize that all individuals are unique. d. In order for prejudice to form, there must be an ingroup–outgroup distinction.

ANSWER: d 138. One factor that enables prejudice is the natural human tendency to think: a. aggressively. b. categorically. c. altruistically. d. open-mindedly.

ANSWER: b 139. The notion that it is better to be oversensitive and produce many "false alarms" than to be undersensitive and allow even one catastrophe to take place is called the _____, and is a factor that fosters prejudice. a. smoke detector principle b. scapegoat hypothesis c. fundamental attribution error d. just-world hypothesis ANSWER: a 140. According to the smoke detector principle, humans have tendencies deeply rooted in evolution to err on the side of: a. acceptance. b. cooperation. c. empathy. .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. prejudice.

ANSWER: d 141. When meeting someone from a different racial subgroup for the first time, the smoke detector principle suggests that humans have a tendency to: a. tend and befriend. b. judge first and ask questions later. c. make a lasting impression. d. be curious and open-minded.

ANSWER: b 142. Fenimore took his son, Erikson, to a local playground. Erikson immediately befriended and started playing with another young boy whose clothes were stained, had unkempt hair, and whose nose was running. If Fenimore allows his behavior to be influenced by the smoke detector principle, he will MOST likely: a. try to clean the other child up. b. take Erikson away from the other child. c. encourage Erikson to play with the other child. d. ignore Erikson and pay attention to the other child.

ANSWER: b 143. Ivonne, who is White, notices a Black man in the backyard of her White neighbor, so she calls the police.

When the police arrive and learn that the Black man was hired by the neighbor to fix their roof, they ask Ivonne why she didn't just call her neighbor first. It's MOST likely that Ivonne's behavior was based on: a. groupthink. b. the smoke detector principle. c. social comparison. d. the foot-in-the-door technique.

ANSWER: b 144. When engaging in social _____, you assess yourself by determining how you measure up to other people. a. loafing b. cognition c. comparison d. categorization ANSWER: c 145. An example of social comparison is: a. assuming that all members of another group are the same compared to your own group. b. blaming others for your own misfortune after you lose your job for being consistently late. c. feeling more depressed after seeing how happy your friends are on their social media posts. d. believing that life is fair and that unfortunate things happen to those who deserve them.

ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 146. According to social psychologists, both the just-world hypothesis and scapegoating can be used by individuals to rationalize: a. intergroup contacts. b. obedience. c. their prejudices. d. the fundamental attribution error.

ANSWER: c 147. "People get what they deserve, and they deserve what they get." This statement BEST exemplifies the: a. smoke detector principle. b. just-world hypothesis. c. social role theory. d. scapegoat hypothesis.

ANSWER: b 148. The _____ is the notion that prejudice can be fueled by the need to find someone to blame. a. fundamental attribution error b. just-world hypothesis c. social role theory d. scapegoat hypothesis ANSWER: d 149. Believing in the just-world hypothesis and scapegoating are common ways for individuals to _____ their prejudices. a. question b. rationalize c. reduce d. eliminate ANSWER: b 150. Some American politicians blame undocumented immigrants as being solely responsible for the high levels of unemployment and economic instability in the United States. Such political positions, however, overlook the complexity of the U.S. economy, promote prejudice toward certain groups of immigrants, and serve as a prime example of the: a. scapegoat hypothesis. b. fundamental attribution error. c. social role theory. d. just-world hypothesis.

ANSWER: a 151. Which is a strategy for reducing prejudice? .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice a. social categorization b. thinking categorically c. the smoke detector principle d. intergroup contact ANSWER: d 152. In many cases, people who hold strong prejudices against certain groups have never even met anyone from that group, but when they do, those prejudices often dissolve. One strategy for fighting prejudice that takes this reality into account is called: a. social categorization. b. common group identity. c. education. d. intergroup contact.

ANSWER: d 153. Social psychology researchers have found that first-year students with more outgroup friendships showed _____ anxiety about outgroups and _____ ingroup bias by the end of their college experience. a. less; less b. more; less c. more; more d. less; more ANSWER: a 154. Using the intergroup contact approach to fighting prejudice is much like a psychologist treating which kind of disorder? a. schizophrenia b. posttraumatic stress c. depression d. phobias ANSWER: d 155. The intergroup contact strategy helps individuals overcome fear of outgroups primarily through: a. avoidance. b. punishment. c. exposure. d. reinforcement.

ANSWER: c 156. You are a consultant hired to help a company promote intergroup contact between members of different ethnic backgrounds. You are asked whether the intergroup contact has to take place in person in order to be effective. What is your response based on recent research findings? a. Yes, intergroup contact must take place in person to have an effect. .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. No, common online interactions under the right circumstances may produce similar outcomes. c. Yes, but you need to have both in-person and online interactions to yield desired outcomes. d. No, any kind of online interaction between groups will naturally decrease prejudice.

ANSWER: b 157. _____ is a strategy for fighting prejudice that is based on the creation of a larger group that includes multiple smaller groups. a. Social comparison b. Common group identity c. Education d. Intergroup contact ANSWER: b 158. Common group identity is a strategy for fighting prejudice that is based on: a. providing straightforward information about an outgroup. b. direct interpersonal interaction between members of multiple groups. c. the creation of a larger group that includes smaller groups. d. giving each person in a diverse group essential information to solve a problem.

ANSWER: c 159. In a community that was experiencing increased tension between religious groups, a nonprofit organization decided to host a series of interfaith community service opportunities to help underprivileged children. After a year of coming together for this faith-based cause, there was a noticeable decrease in religious conflict in the community. This outcome was due to successful implementation of the _____ strategy for fighting prejudice. a. social comparison b. intergroup contact c. groupthink d. common group identity ANSWER: d 160. You are a facilitator for a seminar on overcoming prejudice. What research-supported piece of advice will you offer seminar participants to apply to their everyday lives? a. Spend time and develop relationships with people different from yourself. b. Nurture relationships with your closest friends and family. c. Join organizations that you are passionate about supporting. d. Engage in deep conversations about prejudice with your best friend.

ANSWER: a 161. _____ is behavior that is intended to cause harm or death. a. Facilitation b. Aggression c. Diffusion .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice d. Conformity ANSWER: b 162. Donald is a highly aggressive 8-year-old boy. Based on research findings, we can MOST likely expect Donald to: a. naturally grow out of his aggressive tendencies before puberty. b. become a highly aggressive adult. c. also be highly aggressive as a teenager, but be less aggressive as an adult. d. be aggressive only in temporary states caused entirely by outside factors.

ANSWER: b 163. Twin and adoption studies have revealed that genes account for up to _____% of a person's level of aggressiveness. a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100 ANSWER: b 164. Twin and adoption studies have revealed that genes account for up to 50% of a person's level of aggressiveness in situations that are: a. premeditated only. b. impulsive only. c. premeditated or impulsive. d. neither premeditated nor impulsive.

ANSWER: c 165. Researchers have documented that about _____% of interaction between kids during their toddler years are aggressive. a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 35 ANSWER: c 166. During which life stage are humans the most aggressive? a. infancy b. the toddler years c. adolescence d. adulthood ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 167. Stevie is low in empathy. As such, Stevie is also likely to: a. conform. b. socially loaf. c. be aggressive. d. help others.

ANSWER: c 168. If a person is able to feel compassion for another person, they are said to be: a. conforming. b. engaging in socially loafing. c. highly aggressive. d. high in empathy.

ANSWER: d 169. Rae bullies all his coworkers. Personality tests would likely show that Rae scores low in _____ and high in _____. a. conscientiousness; extraversion b. extraversion; conscientiousness c. impulsivity; empathy d. empathy; impulsivity ANSWER: d 170. A highly impulsive person would MOST likely be described as lacking: a. the smoke detector principle. b. common group identity. c. prejudice. d. self-control.

ANSWER: d 171. When it comes to personality features involved in if a person will engage in bullying, impulsivity is _____ empathy. a. the opposite of b. not related to c. positively related to d. inversely related to ANSWER: d 172. "Monkey see aggression, monkey do aggression." This statement is consistent with Albert Bandura's studies, which found that aggressive behavior is influenced by: a. low empathy. b. observational learning. .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. high impulsivity. d. genetics.

ANSWER: b 173. Research has found that people who simply hold a gun for 15 minutes tend to behave significantly more aggressively than people who hold a children's game for the same amount of time. This finding provides evidence for the role of _____ influences on aggression. a. biological b. psychological c. situational d. cultural ANSWER: c 174. Which situational factor is MOST likely to increase aggression? a. hotter temperatures b. social acceptance c. little background noise d. a bad smell ANSWER: d 175. Research has found that children who play violent video games tend to behave much more aggressively than children who only watch as others play the games. This finding provides evidence for the role of _____ influences on aggression. a. cultural b. biological c. psychological d. situational ANSWER: d 176. Which statement about situational influences on aggression is true? a. Over half of violent crimes are committed by people who are under the influence of alcohol. b. There is no documented relationship between violence in the media and aggressive behavior. c. Exposure to violence in the media makes people more sensitive to real-world aggression. d. The mere sight of weapons has not been found to encourage aggressive behavior.

ANSWER: a 177. Boys and men tend to behave with more _____ aggression, whereas girls and women tend to behave with more _____ aggression. a. indirect; direct b. direct; physical c. physical; relational d. relational; physical .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 178. _____ is the desire to enhance a relationship with another person. a. Social facilitation b. Interpersonal attraction c. Social influence d. Reciprocal liking ANSWER: b 179. An increase in the attractiveness of a person resulting from nothing more than repeated contact is called the: a. bystander effect. b. fundamental attribution error. c. mere exposure effect. d. common group identity.

ANSWER: c 180. The mere exposure effect relies upon producing _____ to increase attraction. a. novelty b. excitement c. similarity d. familiarity ANSWER: d 181. You hear a song for the first time and don't think much of it. Then, after hearing it several more times on the radio, you start becoming familiar with the beat and lyrics. In fact, the more you hear the song, the more you seem to like it. Your positive feelings toward the song in this situation is BEST explained by the: a. fundamental attribution error. b. bystander effect. c. just-world hypothesis. d. mere exposure effect.

ANSWER: d 182. Lakeitria has found both of her good friends, Muriel and Farrell, attractive for years. Unfortunately, Muriel had to move away 6 months ago, while Farrell still lives close to Lakeitria, and they get together quite often.

Lakeitria now feels more attracted to Farrell than Muriel. What BEST explains Lakeitria's increased attraction to Farrell? a. bystander effect b. groupthink c. mere exposure effect d. common group identity ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 183. LaDavia has found both of her good friends, Gerri and Levi, attractive for years. LaDavia and Gerri attend the same college, but Levi goes to one farther away, which has meant that LaDavia and Gerrie get together more often than do LaDavia and Levi. Which is MOST likely to be true about LaDavia's attraction to Gerrie and Levi? LaDavia's attraction to: a. both Gerrie and Levi will increase. b. both Gerrie and Levi will decrease. c. Gerrie will increase. d. Levi will increase.

ANSWER: c 184. Which statement about male–female differences in what is considered physically attractive is supported by research? a. Women tend to emphasize physical appearance above all in men—preferring those who appear youthful, healthy, and have appealing figures. b. The primary explanation for the male–female difference in what is deemed most physically attractive in the opposite sex is cultural. c. Men tend to prefer women who have wealth, status, and power—all features that suggest the ability to help provide resources in supporting a family. d. In addition to physical attractiveness and resourcefulness, both men and women highly value other qualities such as intelligence, kindness, honesty, and sense of humor.

ANSWER: d 185. Wes met a young woman in one of his classes and was assigned to be in a group with her. Initially, Wes was not particularly interested in her as far as dating was concerned. However, once he found out that she was physically attracted to him, he suddenly felt very attracted to her as well. Wes's increased attraction toward this young woman is BEST explained by the influence of: a. proximity. b. similarity. c. reciprocal liking. d. common group identity.

ANSWER: c 186. Which common saying is MOST consistent with social psychology research findings on interpersonal attraction? a. "Birds of a feather flock together." b. "Absence makes the heart grow fonder." c. "Opposites attract." d. "Unrequited love is better than no love at all."

ANSWER: a 187. _____ love and _____ love are two distinct types of romantic love identified by social psychologists. a. Proximal; reciprocal .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice b. Companionate; passionate c. Reciprocal; passionate d. Proximal; companionate ANSWER: b 188. _____ love is characterized by deep commitment and affection, whereas _____ love is characterized by arousal and desire. a. Companionate; passionate b. Proximal; reciprocal c. Reciprocal; passionate d. Proximal; companionate ANSWER: a 189. Passionate love is MOST akin to a: a. raging fire. b. steady warm flame. c. flickering light. d. burned-out candle.

ANSWER: a 190. Stef and Yemi have been in a serious relationship for the past 12 years. They still kiss and hold hands occasionally, but they are no longer highly aroused and as physically loving as they were when they first started dating. Stef and Yemi's attraction for each other now can be BEST described as _____ love. a. passionate b. aggressive c. peripheral d. companionate ANSWER: d 191. Self-disclosure in a romantic relationship is exemplified by: a. resolving disputes in a timely fashion. b. giving and taking in fair amounts. c. sharing private feelings and thoughts. d. being unselfish in helping each other.

ANSWER: c 192. Equity in a romantic relationship is exemplified by: a. resolving disputes in a timely fashion. b. giving and taking in fair amounts. c. sharing private feelings and thoughts. d. being unselfish in helping each other. .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 193. Andres is complaining to you that he has not had much luck in his past relationships. He says his partners often criticize that instead of sharing what he's thinking, he stops talking if his partner says something he doesn't like. Based on what you've learned in your introductory psychology class, it seems that Andres could use help with _____ in his relationships. a. self-disclosure b. equity c. reciprocal liking d. proximity ANSWER: a 194. Ramcess is complaining to you that she has not had much luck in her past relationships. She says her partners often criticize that she wants more attention, affection, and support from her partner than she is willing to give. Based on what you've learned in your introductory psychology class, it seems that Ramcess could use help with _____ in her relationships. a. self-disclosure b. equity c. reciprocal liking d. proximity ANSWER: b 195. Prosocial behavior is behavior intended to _____ others. a. inform b. help c. influence d. harm ANSWER: b 196. Behavior that is intended to help others is called: a. prosocial behavior. b. social comparison. c. diffusion of responsibility. d. social facilitation.

ANSWER: a 197. An example of prosocial behavior is: a. following orders of whoever is in charge. b. being extra careful when walking across a wet floor. c. minding your own business when someone cries for help. d. donating money to a charitable cause.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 198. _____ is defined as completely unselfish concern for others. a. Responsibility b. Self-disclosure c. Reciprocity d. Altruism ANSWER: d 199. An example of altruism is: a. donating blood to get the free movie tickets being offered. b. volunteering because it makes you feel good about yourself. c. helping someone without expecting anything in return. d. organizing a charity event to gain public recognition.

ANSWER: c 200. The _____ is an explanation of prosocial behavior that emphasizes the comparison of benefits and costs to the individual for helping. a. social exchange theory b. reciprocity norm c. social responsibility norm d. kinship theory ANSWER: a 201. The social exchange theory is an explanation of prosocial behavior that emphasizes the: a. notion of duty to help those who need it, regardless of any potential payback to the helper. b. expectation that those who provide help will receive help in the future. c. importance of passing your genes on to future generations. d. comparison of costs and benefits to the individual for helping.

ANSWER: d 202. Devin is offered the opportunity to volunteer as a peer tutor at his college. He kindly accepts the offer and spends half of his limited free time during the rest of the semester helping numerous students improve academically. His roommate asks him why he's spending so much time volunteering, and he replies that he just wants to help, but that he also knows it will help him get in the good graces of his professors. Devin's reason for helping is consistent with the: a. social exchange theory. b. reciprocity norm. c. social responsibility norm. d. kinship theory.

ANSWER: a 203. The _____ is an explanation of prosocial behavior that emphasizes the expectation that those who provide .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice help will receive help in the future. a. social exchange theory b. reciprocity norm c. social responsibility norm d. kinship theory ANSWER: b 204. The reciprocity norm is an explanation of prosocial behavior that emphasizes the: a. notion of duty to help those who need it, regardless of any potential payback to the helper. b. expectation that those who provide help will receive help in the future. c. importance of passing your genes on to future generations. d. comparison of costs and benefits to the individual for helping.

ANSWER: b 205. "What goes around comes around." This wise old saying illustrates which theory of helping? a. social exchange theory b. reciprocity norm c. social responsibility norm d. kinship theory ANSWER: b 206. Ben-Saba's credit card won't work as they're trying to pay and leave a busy parking structure. The person behind Ben-Saba gets out of their car and slides their card to pay for Ben-Saba's parking. Ben-Saba is pleasantly surprised by the goodwill of this stranger. According to research on the reciprocity norm, Ben-Saba will now: a. experience diffusion of responsibility for helping strangers. b. be less likely to help a relative over a stranger. c. expect others to help them more often in the future. d. be more likely to help someone else in the near future.

ANSWER: d 207. The _____ is the notion of duty to help those who need it, regardless of any potential payback to the helper. a. social exchange theory b. reciprocity norm c. social responsibility norm d. kinship theory ANSWER: c 208. The social responsibility norm is an explanation of prosocial behavior that emphasizes the: a. notion of duty to help those who need it, regardless of any potential payback to the helper. b. expectation that those who provide help will receive help in the future. .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. importance of passing your genes on to future generations. d. comparison of costs and benefits to the individual for helping.

ANSWER: a 209. Which statement BEST exemplifies the social responsibility norm of helping? a. "Blood is thicker than water. Help your family first." b. "It's our duty to help. If we don't do it, who will?" c. "Pay it forward. What goes around comes around." d. "In helping others, we help ourselves."

ANSWER: b 210. The _____ is an explanation of prosocial behavior that emphasizes the importance of passing your genes on to future generations. a. social exchange theory b. reciprocity norm c. social responsibility norm d. kinship theory ANSWER: d 211. The kinship theory is an explanation of prosocial behavior that emphasizes the: a. notion of duty to help those who need it, regardless of any potential payback to the helper. b. expectation that those who provide help will receive help in the future. c. importance of passing your genes on to future generations. d. comparison of costs and benefits to the individual for helping.

ANSWER: c 212. According to the kinship theory of helping, we can expect that someone would be MOST willing to donate a kidney to which person? a. a complete stranger b. their best friend c. a distant relative d. their own child ANSWER: d 213. The decrease in likelihood that you will help another person due to the presence of others also available to help is called the: a. bystander effect. b. social responsibility norm. c. intergroup contact effect. d. social exchange theory.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice 214. The bystander effect suggests that the likelihood of a person helping another person: a. increases as the number of bystanders increases. b. decreases as the number of bystanders increases. c. remains the same regardless of how many other people are around. d. depends largely on the personalities of various bystanders.

ANSWER: b 215. You are running a bit late to your psychology class, and as you walk in, the professor is talking about the famous case of Kitty Genovese. You immediately realize that the professor is covering the topic of: a. the social responsibility norm. b. cognitive dissonance. c. the bystander effect. d. situational influences on aggression.

ANSWER: c 216. Audra considers themself to be a generally helpful person. One day, Audra comes across a person sitting on the curb with their head in their hands, moaning. According to the bystander effect, Audra will be MOST likely to stop and inquire whether the person needs aid if: a. they don't think there is an emergency. b. they see other people walk by without helping. c. the person ignores them. d. they are the only person around to help.

ANSWER: d 217. Which concept BEST accounts for why the bystander effect occurs? a. situational aggression b. cognitive dissonance c. diffusion of responsibility d. outgroup homogeneity ANSWER: c 218. Diffusion of responsibility is BEST defined as: a. selfish motives for helping others who are in need. b. a decreased sense of obligation to help when others are present. c. feeling obligated to help only those who are closely related to you. d. the notion of duty to help those who need it most.

ANSWER: b 219. _____ is a decreased sense of obligation to help when others are present. a. Diffusion of responsibility b. Social responsibility .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice c. Reciprocity d. Deindividuation ANSWER: a 220. The greater the _____, the lower the chances that a person will _____. a. deindividuation; be aggressive b. social responsibility; help c. reciprocity; discriminate d. diffusion of responsibility; help ANSWER: d 221. Which statement MOST reflects diffusion of responsibility? a. "Maybe this is not really an emergency." b. "I need to do something about this." c. "Someone else will step up and take care of it." d. "This kind of thing happens all the time."

ANSWER: c 222. Research has resulted in a list of the _____ steps necessary for a bystander to intervene. a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10 ANSWER: b 223. For a bystander to intervene, they must: a. notice the event. b. not see the situation as an emergency. c. assume someone else will do something. d. not do anything.

ANSWER: a 224. You are in your car waiting to make a right-hand turn at an intersection. The drivers ahead of you begin honking at a stopped vehicle blocking the turning lane, and then start driving around it. As you drive by the stopped vehicle as well, you notice the driver has his eyes closed. Although your first inclination is to continue driving by just as many other people did, you start to believe that this particular person needs immediate medical attention. Your assessment is an example of which necessary step for bystander intervention? a. Notice the event. b. Interpret the situation as an emergency. c. Assume responsibility to intervene. d. Take action. .

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Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 225. In the case of Kitty Genovese, which necessary step for bystander intervention did most of Kitty's neighbors first fail to take, ultimately preventing them from calling the police? a. Notice the event. b. Interpret the situation as an emergency. c. Assume responsibility to intervene. d. Decide how to intervene.

ANSWER: c 226. Which statement about attributions and prosocial behavior is true? a. A bystander is more likely to help if he or she feels the need for help is deserved. b. In the event of an emergency, a bystander will assume that a victim deserves help. c. A bystander is less likely to help someone who had no control over the problem. d. Bystanders are immune to the fundamental attribution error when it comes to helping.

ANSWER: a 227. Based on research findings regarding attributions and prosocial behavior, which person would be MOST likely to receive help if needed? a. a drunk person b. a drug-addicted person c. a patient with Alzheimer's disease d. a person who is obese due to lifestyle choices ANSWER: c 228. Based on research on the relationship between attributions and prosocial behavior, which group would be MOST likely to help tsunami victims? A group that was told the victims: a. were advised ahead of time to evacuate—weather forecasts predicted something terrible. b. had no idea that the tsunami was going to happen—it was a very sudden natural disaster. c. knew they lived in an area that was prone to tsunamis—they chose to put themselves at risk. d. ignored the forecasts and warnings—they just didn't think it would actually happen to them.

ANSWER: b

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Chapter 14 - Essay 1. What is a psychological disorder? Why is it difficult to distinguish between behavior associated with a psychological disorder and behavior that is not? Describe the four factors that psychologists often use to diagnose a psychological disorder. Which two of these are typically given more weight when diagnosing a psychological disorder?

ANSWER: A psychological disorder is a pattern of behavior that interferes with a person's life by causing significant distress or dysfunction. The ability to categorize behavior associated and not associated with a psychological disorder is not always cut-and-dried because behavior can vary based on situation and culture. The four factors that psychologists have used to make the distinction are infrequency, deviation from social norms, personal distress, and impairment in daily functioning.

Infrequency refers to how often a behavior happens in the population—if it doesn't happen very often, it may be associated with a psychological disorder. Deviation from social norms refers to whether a behavior does not align with culturally defined acceptable behavior. Personal distress refers to whether a person suffers from a disorder—if they want to overcome a pattern of behavior, the behavior is most likely associated with a psychological disorder. Impairment in daily functioning refers to whether a behavior makes it hard to do what most people would consider typical on a dayto-day basis. Personal distress and impairment are typically given the most weight during a diagnosis, as reflected in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.

2. Define the concept of deviation from social norms as it relates to the diagnosis of psychological disorders.

Also discuss how a behavior may deviate from social norms but not be considered associated with a psychological disorder. Give an example of a behavior that deviates from social norms that would be considered to be associated with a psychological disorder and an example of behavior that deviates from social norms that would not be considered associated with a psychological disorder.

ANSWER: Social norms are the rules that govern a society. These norms dictate what is acceptable behavior as well as how a person is expected to behave. These norms influence our thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Deviation from social norms means that a person is thinking, feeling, or behaving in a way that goes against what is expected from society. Some norm violations simply differ from what society expects but are not necessarily associated with a psychological disorder. Some norm violations, however, differ from what society expects but are associated with a psychological disorder.

[Student examples will vary, but one example should specifically be a thought, feeling, or behavior that is a deviation from social norms that is not associated with a psychological disorder and one example should specifically be a thought, feeling, or behavior that is a deviation from social norms that is not associated with a psychological disorder. For example: A person who always eats dessert at the beginning of a meal instead of at the end (not associated with a psychological disorder). A person who talks loudly to themselves in a rambling manner while walking in a quiet store (associated with a psychological disorder).]

3. Explain the concept of personal distress as it relates to the diagnosis of psychological disorders. Also discuss how and why a person may not experience personal distress, and yet may still meet the criteria for a psychological disorder. Give an example to illustrate how this may be so.

ANSWER: When people have a psychological disorder or symptoms of a psychological disorder, they often experience distress as a direct result of the symptoms. Personal distress includes the negative feelings and thoughts we have about our disorder and the psychological discomfort it causes us. In short, the disorder is upsetting to them in some way. With some disorders, however, people may experience no distress at all. This is largely due to the nature of the disorder. For example, a person with antisocial personality disorder will rarely experience personal distress, although it will cause .

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Chapter 14 - Essay distress in others. With some disorders, even though people may not experience distress, others in their lives often will. Therefore, if a person does not experience personal distress, this does not mean that person does not have a psychological disorder, as he or she may have maladaptive functioning in the other areas that contribute to psychological disorders (e.g., deviation from social norms).

Personal distress is only one of several factors that contribute to the diagnosis of psychological disorders because they are complex and multifaceted. [Student examples will vary.]

4. Compare and contrast the main factors of the four major theories of why people develop psychological disorders. Discuss briefly how each would explain why a person would develop major depressive disorder.

ANSWER: All theories of why people develop psychological disorders explain the cause of psychological disorders, but the explanations differ. The biological theory of psychological disorders states that psychological disorders are the result of biologically based factors within the brain. The psychological approach states that emotions, thoughts, behaviors, and traits are the primary causes of psychological disorders. The sociocultural approach asserts that social and cultural factors surrounding a person, rather than factors within a person, are the primary causes of psychological disorders. The biopsychosocial theory of psychological disorders acknowledges that a combination of biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors contributes to psychological disorders.

Psychologists who align with the biological theory of psychological disorders would likely explain a person's major depressive disorder as an issue with the neurotransmitters, genes, or brain structures.

The psychological approach would likely explain a person's major depressive disorder as an issue with the inner workings of the mind—perhaps the person is dealing with the unconscious consequences of past trauma, has an altered history of reinforcement of punishment, often thinks illogically, or has a high level of a personality trait like neuroticism. A sociocultural explanation of major depression would focus on issues like a history of poverty or a person's experience with prejudice. The biopsychosocial approach would comprehensively include all of these factors in its explanation of major depression.

5. Describe two research findings showing how the COVID pandemic affected feelings of mental distress and/or the diagnosis of psychological disorders, and describe two groups of individuals whose mental wellness was disproportionately negatively impacted by COVID. The impact of COVID on mental health was not always negative—describe one personal example of how adjustment during the height of the COVID pandemic may have positively benefited your mental health.

ANSWER: COVID is not typically a direct cause of psychological disorders, but it interacted with other factors to increase the likelihood that people would experience symptoms associated with and/or be diagnosed with a psychological disorder. One study found that in the early months of the pandemic, adults in the United States and other countries were much more likely to report serious mental distress than they were 2 years earlier. Specifically, usually high rates of depression and anxiety manifested. The chances of the diagnosis of a psychological disorder increased in the 3 months following a COVID diagnosis, and it was at a level higher than what would be expected to follow any other serious medical problem. Some groups were disproportionately negatively impacted by the pandemic, specifically people whose lives were seriously affected by the employment and/or financial implications of COVID. This disproportionately included people of lower socioeconomic status, those who identify as BIPOC, and essential workers. Further, the symptoms of individuals previously diagnosed with a psychological disorder became worse during the pandemic, especially individuals diagnosed with OCD or generalized anxiety disorder. Having a psychological disorder also made the experience of COVID infection more severe—COVID patients with a comorbid diagnosis of a psychological disorder were more likely to require hospitalization or death due to .

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Chapter 14 - Essay COVID infection.

Despite these findings, instances of remarkable resilience occurred during the pandemic. [Student examples will vary, but could include things like thriving in online classes, reconnecting with friends through online interactions, learning a new skill, or other examples.]

6. What does stigma toward psychological disorders mean? Describe the four categories of stigma and three categories of antistigma strategies.

ANSWER: Stigma is a judgment of shame or disgrace directed toward a person because of a particular characteristic a person has, such as a psychological disorder. Stigma comes in four primary forms: public stigma, self-stigma, structural stigma, and courtesy stigma. Public stigma is a shared, societal endorsement of stigma toward people with psychological disorders. Self-stigma is the internalized endorsement of that public (and other) stigma by a person who themselves has been diagnosed with a psychological disorder. Structural stigma is that embedded in policies or practices that restrict opportunities for people with psychological disorders. Courtesy stigma is "stigma by association" experienced by people who closely interact with people with psychological disorders. To overcome stigma, one can use education antistigma strategies, protest antistigma strategies, or contact antistigma strategies. Education antistigma strategies teach people about psychological disorders to combat ignorance and misinformation. Protest antistigma strategies call out and directly oppose stigma. Contact antistigma strategies use direct interactions between people who have been diagnosed with psychological disorders and those who have not to humanize people and make willful ignorance more difficult to rationalize.

7. Compare and contrast the four explanations within the psychological theory of psychological disorders.

Discuss how each would explain why a person would develop major depressive disorder.

ANSWER: The psychological approach states that psychological factors are the primary causes of psychological disorders. These factors include our emotions, thoughts, behaviors, and personality traits. Within the psychological approach are different explanations of psychological disorders.

These are the psychodynamic, behavior, cognitive, and trait explanations.

From the psychodynamic perspective, major depressive disorder would be explained by the influence of a person's unconscious thoughts and feelings. These thoughts and feelings stem primarily from our development during childhood, although they are also influenced by our basic instincts (e.g., aggression). From this perspective, a person's major depressive disorder might be explained by that person's unresolved feelings toward parents or from issues experienced during childhood.

Major depressive disorder would be explained as the result of learning and conditioning from the behavioral perspective. Behaviors associated with the development of major depressive disorder are reinforced and/or punished, which results in the development of the disorder. For example, a person with major depressive disorder may lack motivation or feel sad, resulting in canceling plans with friends and family. As a result, that person's friends and family may provide increased attention and kindness, which reinforces the person's behavior.

From the cognitive perspective, major depressive disorder would be explained by a person's illogical thought processes. For example, a person may always blame herself for situations or occurrences that were not her fault. She may also minimize positive aspects and magnify negative aspects of herself. From this approach, major depression may also be explained as stemming from a person's irrational and pessimistic thoughts about the future and about interactions with others or the world.

From the trait perspective, major depressive disorder would be explained by excessively high and/or low manifestations of certain personality traits. These traits include openness, extraversion, .

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Chapter 14 - Essay conscientiousness, agreeableness, and neuroticism. From this perspective, a person's major depressive disorder might be explained by their having a high level of neuroticism and a low level of openness.

8. Compare and contrast the sociocultural theory of psychological disorders and the biopsychosocial theory of psychological disorders. Discuss how each would explain the causes of generalized anxiety disorder.

ANSWER: The sociocultural theory of psychological disorders states that people's culture and society in combination can affect them in such a way that they develop a psychological disorder. Culture and society are external to a person, which is an important aspect of this theory. In other words, psychological problems are due to one's culture and society rather than due to a person's internal functioning. In contrast, the biopsychosocial model states that psychological disorders are a function of a combination of factors rather than just one, as is stated in the sociocultural model. The biopsychosocial model is a more comprehensive and complex model that incorporates the ideas of three separate models. The sociocultural model focuses primarily on a culture and society and deemphasizes a person's biology or psychological factors.

The sociocultural model would interpret generalized anxiety disorder as being a function of the society and culture in which a person lives. A person's environment may be traumatic or stressful, leading to this disorder. If a person lives in poverty, or if that person has family dysfunction, or if there are few resources available, they could develop generalized anxiety disorder. The more negative social and cultural factors a person is exposed to, the higher the risk for developing this disorder.

The biopsychosocial model would also see sociocultural factors as contributing to generalized anxiety disorder; however, biological factors and psychological factors would also be thought to contribute to the development of the disorder. For example, a person may have a genetic predisposition to generalized anxiety disorder or may have issues with neurotransmission (e.g., GABA). Additionally, the biopsychosocial model would also expect that a person's psychological characteristics, such as personality traits or cognitive thinking style, would contribute to the development of the disorder. For example, if a person is high on the trait of neuroticism, that person may be more likely to develop this disorder, especially in conjunction with social, cultural, and biological factors.

9. Explain the categorical model of psychopathology and the dimensional model of psychopathology, and then compare the two. From each approach, discuss how a psychologist would approach a client who exhibits symptoms of schizophrenia.

ANSWER: The categorical model of psychopathology takes the approach that a psychological disorder is either absent or present; there is no in-between. This is similar to the medical model of identifying physical disorders. For example, a person either has a broken leg or not. The dimensional model of psychopathology, on the other hand, does not take an all-or-nothing approach. Instead, symptoms of psychological disorders occur on a continuum and can range from mild to severe.

With the categorical approach, a psychologist would evaluate the client and determine if the client meets the necessary criteria for schizophrenia. This would include the number and type of symptoms experienced and how long the symptoms have persisted. The psychologist would also need to determine if the client has experienced distress or impairment. If the client's symptoms are consistent with what is required for a diagnosis of schizophrenia, then the client would be determined to have the disorder.

A psychologist taking the dimensional approach would instead look at what symptoms the client has and how severe the symptoms are. The psychologist would assess how much the symptoms have .

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Chapter 14 - Essay affected the client. This would include assessing how much of an impact the symptoms had on the client's ability to function in the major areas of life, such as the client's relationship with others, the ability to hold a job, and the ability to take care of him- or herself.

10. What are obsessions, what are compulsions, and how do they interact to manifest as obsessive-compulsive disorder? Describe two psychological factors that may underlie the development of obsessive-compulsive disorder; provide an example of how each factor could contribute.

ANSWER: Obsessions are unwanted, intrusive, anxiety-provoking thoughts. Compulsions are actions done, often uncontrollably, with the intention of reducing the anxiety caused by the obsession. Obsessivecompulsive disorder (OCD) is a psychological disorder characterized by this cycle—the unwanted thoughts intrude, and the compulsive actions temporarily relieve the anxiety they produce. By definition as a psychological disorder, this cycle interrupts daily functioning and often causes personal distress. Suggestions for the causes of OCD include psychological factors such as illogical thinking, learned reinforcements and punishments, the personality trait of neuroticism, and having experienced overprotective parenting. For example, it's illogical to think that many people you encounter are carrying a horrible disease that you will certainly contract, but this situation may cause a person with OCD significant anxiety and motivate them to go home and shower. However, the shower will reduce the anxiety—thus the person has learned that the compulsion will result in relief, and so the process of negative reinforcement will motivate this behavior to occur more often in the future in similar contexts. Neuroticism is a personality trait that focuses on the negative and can influence and propel illogical thinking; going outside when there is a slight chance of a storm may mean you're risking getting a little wet, but someone with a high degree of neuroticism may focus on the possibility that they could get struck by lightning, although there is a very slim chance of that. Overprotective parents often don't give their children the chance to see that they can handle minor hassles or anxiety-provoking situations, leading their children to avoid and be anxious rather than experiencing any anxiety that might actually help them to learn and develop resilience.

[Student examples will vary.]

11. Compare and contrast social anxiety and specific phobia. Give a real-life example of each to illustrate your answer.

ANSWER: Social anxiety disorder and specific phobia are alike in that they are both disorders that are based on an unreasonable yet significant degree of anxiety. However, the two disorders differ significantly on what causes that anxiety. With specific phobia, the unreasonable fear is directed toward a specific object or situation (e.g., thunderstorms, snakes, needles, cats). Specific phobias could be caused by a negative experience with the feared stimulus or may be due to evolutionary fears gone amiss.

Although people with specific phobias often fear things that are unpleasant to others, their fear is out of proportion to the actual threat the object or situation poses. Also, when not exposed to the feared object or situation, a person with specific phobia will experience no anxiety. The anxiety caused by social anxiety disorder, however, tends to be much broader and often less focused than is the case for specific phobia. The person with social anxiety disorder experiences significant and unreasonable anxiety that is related specifically to interactions that are socially based. The anxiety is based on fear of being judged or scrutinized by others in an overly negative way. Social interactions are a large part of daily life, whereas the specific objects and situations in a specific phobia are less likely to be. However, some people with social anxiety disorder only fear narrowly focused social situations like speaking or eating in front of others. For those people, the anxiety they experience is somewhat similar to the anxiety of a specific phobia because it is more narrowly focused. [Student examples will vary.] .

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Chapter 14 - Essay 12. Compare and contrast major depressive disorder and persistent depressive disorder. Give a real-life example of each to illustrate your answer. In your example, make sure to discuss how the two disorders affect a person's day-to-day life.

ANSWER: Major depressive disorder occurs when a person has a period of 2 weeks or more of a severely depressed mood or a significant loss of pleasure in life. Depressive disorder can include things such as fatigue, impaired concentration, weight changes, problems with sleep, appetite changes, thoughts of suicide or death, low self-esteem, hopelessness, and guilt. The symptoms experienced are severe and cause significant impairment in a person's life. With persistent depressive disorder, a person will have the same types of symptoms of depression; however, they are less severe and less impairing.

The symptoms of persistent depressive disorder are much longer lasting than those of major depressive disorder. A person with persistent depressive disorder will have the low-intensity symptoms of depression for a minimum of 2 years. The two disorders are similar in that they involve depressive symptoms. The major difference between the two disorders is the duration and severity of the symptoms. They both cause distress and impairment, but the way the symptoms are experienced will affect how that distress and impairment are experienced. [Student examples will vary.]

13. How does major depressive disorder differ from the bipolar disorders? Describe why a person may be diagnosed with bipolar I disorder versus bipolar II disorder.

ANSWER: In major depressive disorder (or unipolar disorder), a person experiences intense and disruptive emotions on one side of the pole—sadness. In the bipolar disorders, a person also experiences the other pole—mania. Mania is an emotional state of excessively elated mood and overabundant energy.

Bipolar I disorder and bipolar II disorder are disorders in which a person cycles between these two extremes in mood. The main differences between the two disorders are the severity and length of the elevated mood period and the impairment it causes.

Bipolar I disorder occurs when a person experiences a major depressive episode plus a manic episode. A major depressive disorder is when a person has a severely depressed mood or a significant loss of pleasure in life for at least 2 weeks. Other symptoms can include fatigue, impaired concentration, weight changes, problems with sleep, appetite changes, thoughts of suicide or death, low self-esteem, hopelessness, and guilt. In a manic episode, a person has an extremely high level of energy or activity for a period of a week or more. A person in a manic episode often is indiscriminately talkative, feels little need for sleep, and demonstrates uninhibited behavior. In bipolar II, a person also experiences the major depressive episodes that occur in bipolar I. However, the manic symptoms in bipolar II are different. In bipolar II, a person experiences hypomania. In hypomania, the same symptoms of mania occur but they are less severe, less impairing, and last for shorter periods of time than in full-fledged mania.

14. Compare and contrast bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa.

ANSWER: Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa are both eating disorders. These disorders are similar in that those who have them are extremely concerned about gaining weight and typically have a distorted sense of their body weight. They will see themselves as larger than they are. The disorders differ in two key areas: how weight gain is avoided and the actual weight of the person with the disorder.

With anorexia, most people typically restrict their intake of food, whereas people with bulimia will have periods in which they binge on a large quantity of food. People with bulimia compensate for the calories consumed in various ways. This could include vomiting, overexercising, or laxative use. .

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Chapter 14 - Essay Although it is less typical, sometimes people with anorexia will also do these things, although their calorie intake is not due to binges.

The second way in which these disorders differ is that people with anorexia will weigh significantly less than what would be expected given their height and age, whereas people with bulimia are typically at an average or slightly above average weight. However, with both disorders people will see themselves as weighing more than they actually do.

15. Define schizophrenia. Describe, differentiate between, and give examples of positive, negative, and cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia.

ANSWER: Schizophrenia is a severe psychological disorder in which a person exhibits bizarre disturbances in thinking, perception, feelings, and behavior. The symptoms of schizophrenia are classified in three categories: positive, negative, and cognitive. Positive, negative, and cognitive symptoms describe the different ways in which a person with schizophrenia will demonstrate symptoms. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are symptoms that are pathological and excessive as compared to those without schizophrenia. Positive in this case does not mean good but rather that a symptom is added or present that is not usual. These symptoms often are not present in people without schizophrenia.

Examples of positive symptoms include hallucinations and delusions. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia are symptoms that are pathological and reflect an absence of something that should be there. Negative symptoms include loss or reduction of pleasure in everyday life, a flat affect, absence of speech, and lack of initiative. Cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia involve the disturbed, illogical ways that people with schizophrenia think. Their behavior and speech are disorganized, and they demonstrate loose mental associations between thoughts. Examples of cognitive symptoms include word salad and neologisms.

16. Your friend knows you learned about schizophrenia in your introductory psychology class, and they ask you why schizophrenia develops and who is most likely to get it. Discuss how you would respond to these questions.

ANSWER: I would explain to my friend that there are many causes of schizophrenia, but the most prominent ones are biological. Schizophrenia has a genetic component. People are more likely to develop schizophrenia if someone they are related to has it as well, even when they are adopted into a family where no one has schizophrenia. Also, the brains of people with schizophrenia often are physically different from those without schizophrenia. Many scientists also think that dopamine, which is a chemical in the brain, plays a part in the development or expression of schizophrenia. Even the time of year you are born is linked to the development of schizophrenia. Mothers who are pregnant when the flu is more common tend to have higher rates of children with schizophrenia. Biological reasons do not explain all of the reasons someone develops schizophrenia, though. Families that are overinvolved in each other's lives and are openly hostile are linked to higher rates of schizophrenia than families that do not operate in this way.

17. Define ADHD and describe the key symptoms of hyperactivity, impulsivity, and inattention. Consider this scenario: Mr. Sanov is concerned that his 14-year-old son Andrei has ADHD and takes him to their doctor.

What must the doctor take into account when considering a diagnosis of ADHD for Andrei?

ANSWER: ADHD is a disorder that first comes about in childhood. It is a neurodevelopmental disorder, meaning that it is neurologically based and develops as a person grows through childhood and adolescence, though it persists in adulthood. ADHD is composed of three types of symptoms: inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. With inattention, people may become easily distracted .

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Chapter 14 - Essay and sidetracked and be forgetful and disorganized. Hyperactivity often manifests as an inability to be still. Examples of impulsive symptoms are having trouble waiting your turn and interrupting.

To diagnose ADHD, a doctor will assess if Andrei's symptoms began at least prior to the age of 12.

The symptoms also must not just be present in one setting, but rather in two or more. The doctor would have to determine if Andrei's behaviors were developmentally appropriate or not for someone Andrei's age. If they are not, then they may be an indicator of ADHD. Finally, the symptoms would have to cause Andrei impairment and most likely personal distress.

18. Describe autism spectrum disorder and describe how this disorder affects social functioning. Explain what you would say if someone asked you what it means that autism exists on a spectrum.

ANSWER: Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is a disorder that first comes about in childhood. It is a neurodevelopmental disorder, meaning that it is neurologically based and that it affects a person's developmental processes during childhood and adulthood. Its main features are significant impairment in social functioning and rigid, repetitive patterns of behavior. People with ASD have a hard time communicating with other people in many ways, including being able to start or maintain a conversation. Nonverbal cues, such as body language and eye contact, are problematic for people with ASD to engage in or interpret. People with ASD also have restricted or rigid patterns of behavior. They may make the same physical movements over and over or have a very focused and intense area of interest. Also, people with ASD typically prefer very rigid and restricted routines and patterns of behavior, and they can become upset when the patterns are disrupted.

Autism is said to exist on a spectrum because symptoms range in severity. Also, not all people with ASD will have the exact same symptoms. For example, one person may have significant trouble with eye contact and nonverbal communication, whereas another does not have much trouble in these areas. Another example is that one person with ASD may engage in behaviors such as spinning in circles or other repetitive behaviors, while another does so only minimally or demonstrates completely different repetitive behaviors.

19. Describe dissociative identity disorder and explain how memory is affected with this disorder. Is this disorder the same as schizophrenia? Explain your response.

ANSWER: Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is a psychological disorder in which a person has two or more personalities. These personalities are entirely separate from one another although they are "housed" in the same person. The personalities can have different abilities and interests, and will also have different memories. Only one personality will be present at a time, shifting from one to the other (switching) at different times. Many times, the different personalities will have no idea about the existence of each other. The personalities often have no memory of what happened while the other personality (or personalities) were in charge. For all of the personalities, they may have little memory of events that happened prior to the development of the DID. While both are debilitating disorders, DID is not the same as schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder in which a person's entire "self" is disconnected from reality. The different personalities within an individual with DID all function within the plane of reality, but they do not associate with each other.

20. Describe borderline personality disorder. Consider this scenario: Your roommate Gerardo has borderline personality disorder. Recently, they came to the dorm and declared that they had met the love of their life, Pradeep. Based on what you know about borderline personality disorder, how might you expect Gerardo's relationship with Pradeep to progress?

ANSWER: Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is a psychological disorder that is based on instability in .

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Chapter 14 - Essay many areas of a person's life, including interpersonal relationships, mood, and self-image. Those with BPD are unpredictable and have rapidly and drastically changing views of themselves and others. Their lives are chaotic, and they frequently are impulsive and excitable.

As a person with BPD, Gerardo will probably idealize Pradeep at the beginning of their relationship, even after knowing them only a brief time. They will feel that Pradeep is the best thing that ever happened to them and will have unrealistic expectations of Pradeep. They will have an intense attachment to Pradeep and expect Pradeep to feel the same as they do, even though this is unreasonable. Inevitably, Gerardo will feel let down by Pradeep because they do not have the same level of attachment to Gerardo or act as Gerardo wishes them to act. Gerardo will likely feel as if Pradeep is turning on them or abandoning them. Because of this, Gerardo will probably have a dramatic shift from idealizing Pradeep to hating them. Gerardo's view of Pradeep as all bad or all good is called splitting. Gerardo's relationship with Pradeep may go from good to bad very quickly and will probably be confusing for Pradeep, although it is typical for a person with BPD. 21. In a local community, there has been a string of serious, violent crimes. A psychologist working with the local police department suggested that the person committing the crimes may have antisocial personality disorder. Describe what antisocial personality disorder is and explain some reasons why the psychologist believes that the person committing the crimes may have the disorder.

ANSWER: Antisocial personality disorder (APD) is a psychological disorder based on the disregard for, and violation of, the rights of other people. People with APD are threats to society, meaning that their behaviors will hurt others in a variety of ways, such as theft and aggression. People with APD rarely show empathy for others or concern for the hurt they cause. They lack remorse and guilt for their actions and are only concerned with satisfying their own needs and wants. People with APD care about themselves but care very little, if at all, for others. They tend to be manipulative and deceitful to get what they want.

In this scenario, the serious, violent crimes being committed disregard and violate the rights of others. The person committing the crime is clearly a threat to society as he is harming others by his actions. This person also demonstrates that he cares mostly (if not solely) for himself and not others by committing these crimes as the crimes only benefit himself. If this person cared about others or had guilt or remorse, he would most likely not continue to commit these crimes.

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 1. The BEST definition for a psychological disorder is: a. a pattern of maladaptive occupational functioning. b. a pattern of behavior that causes significant distress or dysfunction. c. repeated impaired social functioning that becomes problematic. d. recurrent patterns of maladaptive cognitive functioning.

ANSWER: b 2. A pattern of behavior that interferes with a person's life by causing significant distress or dysfunction is BEST defined as: a. dangerous behavior. b. a psychological disorder. c. medical student syndrome. d. normal behavior.

ANSWER: b 3. _____ syndrome is an experience in which a person begins to believe she has an illness she is learning about. a. Psychological b. Third-year c. Medical student d. Intern's ANSWER: c 4. Medical student syndrome occurs when a student learns about an illness and: a. actually develops that illness. b. temporarily overdiagnoses that illness in others. c. comes to believe the illness is uncommon. d. develops a belief that they have the illness.

ANSWER: d 5. Chapin is taking an introductory psychology class and has started the chapter on psychological disorders. In their class, Chapin reads about generalized anxiety disorder, which is characterized by excessive feelings of anxiety in situations where it is not justified. Chapin is nearing graduation and doesn't know what they'll do upon graduating, and so they have been feeling very anxious. They start to believe that they should be diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder. Chapin's thought process is BEST described as: a. a psychological disorder. b. psychotic thinking. c. medical student syndrome. d. dissociative amnesia.

ANSWER: c 6. Which of these descriptors is one of the standard ways by which psychologists define a behavior as stemming from a psychological disorder? .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. occurs infrequently in society b. in line with social norms c. causes little distress d. dangerousness ANSWER: a 7. One factor in determining if a behavior stems from a psychological disorder is _____, which relates to how often a particular behavior occurs in a population. a. infrequency b. deviation from social norms c. personal distress d. distress of others ANSWER: a 8. Dr. Mendoza, a clinical psychologist, is starting therapy with a new patient. The new patient's culture is not one that Dr. Mendoza is very familiar with, so they look up background information on that culture. One thing Dr. Mendoza is interested in determining is if the new patient's behaviors are experienced and expected by most people, especially in the context of that person's culture. Which factor associated with psychological disorders is Dr. Mendoza attempting to assess? a. dangerousness b. personal distress c. impairment in daily functioning d. deviation from social norms ANSWER: d 9. A psychologist who is interested in examining the extent to which a person's thoughts, feelings, or behaviors differ from what is common to most other people is interested in the concept of: a. deviation from social norms. b. personal distress. c. impairment in daily functioning. d. dangerousness.

ANSWER: a 10. Roni grew up in the city of Pittsburgh where it is common to use the phrase "youz guys" to refer to a group of people independent of their gender identity. Roni's friend Chas grew up elsewhere and thinks this language is strange. Where Chas grew up, no one ever uses the phrase "youz guys." The differences between Roni's and Chas's behavior and perceptions BEST demonstrate the concept that _____ can be complicated in determining what is and what is not a psychological disorder. a. dangerousness b. deviation from social norms c. personal distress d. impairment in daily functioning .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 11. Taylen is an affectionate and giving partner to Pascal, but for the past month, Taylen has rarely gone out with Pascal. Pascal does not find this unusual, however, because Taylen is an accountant and tax season just started so they are working many more hours. Taylen's story BEST demonstrates that _____ is not always problematic. a. behavior being dangerous b. deviation from social norms c. personal distress d. impairment in daily functioning ANSWER: b 12. Jamis feels he must wash his hands so frequently that the behavior often makes him late for work. As a result, Jamis is worried he's going to lose his job. Drew is a surgeon and, while he must wash his hands multiple times a day, he sees it as just part of the job. The differences between Jamis's and Drew's behaviors and perceptions BEST demonstrate the concept that _____ is often an important part of determining who has a psychological disorder and who does not. a. infrequency b. deviation from social norms c. personal distress d. dangerousness ANSWER: c 13. In therapy, a counselor will often focus on the client's suffering. This suffering is called: a. infrequency. b. deviation from social norms. c. personal distress. d. impairment in daily functioning.

ANSWER: c 14. Lonny has a psychological disorder, and their symptoms worry them significantly. Lonny is in therapy to help deal with these symptoms because they find them upsetting. Lonny is BEST described as seeking therapy to address the _____ their psychological disorder. a. infrequency of b. dangerousness of c. personal distress resulting from d. impairment in daily functioning resulting from ANSWER: c 15. A psychologist who is interested in studying how a psychological disorder negatively affects a person's work, school, and relationships is interested in studying the concept of: a. infrequency. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. deviation from social norms. c. personal distress. d. impairment in daily functioning.

ANSWER: d 16. Nolan has been experiencing a lot of anxiety. He finds it hard to leave the house in the morning and often misses class. Nolan hasn't felt like going out with his friends and avoids interaction when possible. Although his friends understand, it has caused strain between them and Nolan. What aspect of behavior related to psychological disorders BEST describes what Nolan is experiencing? a. infrequency b. deviation from social norms c. dangerousness d. impairment in daily functioning ANSWER: d 17. Which statement is true about the criteria used to determine who has a psychological disorder and who does not? a. All of the criteria are considered when making a diagnosis, but none is perfect. b. All of the criteria must be present to diagnose a psychological disorder. c. Infrequency and deviation from social norms are given more weight than the other criteria. d. At least three of the criteria must be present to diagnose a psychological disorder.

ANSWER: a 18. _____ and _____ are the factors typically given the most weight when diagnosing psychological disorders. a. Personal distress; deviation from social norms b. Deviation from social norms; infrequency c. Personal distress; impairment in daily functioning d. Impairment in daily functioning; infrequency ANSWER: c 19. _____ is NOT a factor typically linked to psychological disorders. a. Personal distress b. Deviation from social norms c. Dangerousness d. Impairment in daily functioning ANSWER: c 20. The _____ theory of psychological disorders states that factors within the body, such as a person's brain structure and genes, are the primary cause of psychological disorders. a. biological b. psychological c. sociocultural .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. biopsychosocial ANSWER: a 21. The biological theory of psychological disorders states that psychological disorders are caused by: a. factors such as neurochemicals and genes. b. factors such as behaviors and traits. c. social and cultural factors surrounding a person. d. the inner workings of a person's mind.

ANSWER: a 22. Dr. Geib is a scientist whose research program studies how depression manifests as a result of how chemicals act in a person's brain. Dr. Geib MOST likely subscribes to the _____ theory of psychological disorders. a. biological b. psychological c. sociocultural d. psychodynamic ANSWER: a 23. Psychiatrists and other medical experts are MOST likely to agree with the _____ theory of psychological disorders. a. biological b. psychological c. sociocultural d. psychodynamic ANSWER: a 24. The biological theory of psychological disorders fits well with a _____ approach. a. medical b. psychological c. cultural d. social ANSWER: a 25. Chipo was diagnosed with autism at age 6. Chipo's mother believes that Chipo has autism primarily because of his genes, especially since several of his family members have also been diagnosed with autism. What Chipo's mother believes about the cause of his diagnosis with autism aligns MOST with the _____ theory of psychological disorders. a. psychological b. sociocultural c. psychodynamic d. biological .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 26. A practitioner whose beliefs align with the _____ theory of psychological disorders would be MOST likely to prescribe medication for treatment. a. biological b. psychological c. sociocultural d. psychodynamic ANSWER: a 27. A clinician who supports the biological theory of psychological disorders would be MOST likely to _____ to treat a psychological disorder. a. prescribe medication b. suggest talk therapy c. recommend social support d. use an eclectic approach ANSWER: a 28. The _____ theory of psychological disorders states that factors such as a person's thoughts and emotions are the primary cause of psychological disorders. a. biological b. psychological c. sociocultural d. biopsychosocial ANSWER: b 29. The psychological theory of psychological disorders states that psychological disorders are caused by: a. factors such as neurochemicals and genes. b. factors such as emotions, behaviors, and traits. c. social and cultural factors surrounding a person. d. a combination of factors such as a person's genes and environment.

ANSWER: b 30. In a classroom discussion on anxiety disorders, many students said they felt that people who are introverted and shy were more likely to develop anxiety disorders than people who were extroverted and outgoing. The explanation for anxiety disorders these students proposed corresponds BEST with the _____ theory of psychological disorders. a. biological b. psychological c. sociocultural d. biopsychosocial ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 31. Anya believes that the way people think about their problems can cause them to develop anxiety and depression. She also thinks that some people have personality traits that put them at risk for these disorders.

Anya's beliefs about the causes of anxiety and depression correspond BEST with the _____ theory of psychological disorders. a. biological b. psychological c. sociocultural d. biopsychosocial ANSWER: b 32. Psychodynamic explanations of psychological disorders emphasize: a. the influence of unconscious thoughts and feelings, as well as childhood experiences. b. learning and conditioning, such as the processes of punishment and reinforcement. c. the way we think and process information, especially when we do so illogically. d. specific aspects of a person's personality or long-standing behavior patterns.

ANSWER: a 33. Trait explanations of psychological disorders emphasize: a. the influence of unconscious thoughts and feelings, as well as childhood experiences. b. learning and conditioning, such as the processes of punishment and reinforcement. c. the way we think and process information, especially when we do so illogically. d. specific aspects of a person's personality or long-standing behavior patterns.

ANSWER: d 34. Behavioral explanations of psychological disorders emphasize: a. the influence of unconscious thoughts and feelings, as well as childhood experiences. b. learning and conditioning, such as the processes of punishment and reinforcement. c. the way we think and process information, especially when we do so illogically. d. specific aspects of a person's personality or long-standing behavior patterns.

ANSWER: b 35. Cognitive explanations of psychological disorders emphasize: a. the influence of unconscious thoughts and feelings, as well as childhood experiences. b. learning and conditioning, such as the processes of punishment and reinforcement. c. the way we think and process information, especially when we do so illogically. d. specific aspects of a person's personality or long-standing behavior patterns.

ANSWER: c 36. Murray has been diagnosed with social anxiety. His therapist's practice aligns closely with the psychological theory of psychological disorders that focuses on psychodynamic explanations of psychological disorders.

Which explanation is Murray's therapist MOST likely to give to explain Murray's social anxiety? .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. Murray's interactions with people were punished when they resulted in embarrassment. b. Murray expresses an unusually high level of neuroticism and introversion. c. Murray subconsciously expects people to leave him since he was abandoned by his father. d. Murray's thought process is illogical in that he believes no one will find him likeable.

ANSWER: c 37. Mick has been diagnosed with social anxiety. His therapist's practice aligns closely with the psychological theory of psychological disorders that focuses on trait explanations of psychological disorders. Which explanation is Mick's therapist MOST likely to give to explain Mick's social anxiety? a. Mick's interactions with people were punished when they resulted in embarrassment. b. Mick expresses an unusually high level of neuroticism and introversion. c. Mick subconsciously expects people to leave him since he was abandoned by his father. d. Mick's thought process is illogical in that he believes no one will find him likeable.

ANSWER: b 38. Matilda has been diagnosed with social anxiety. Her therapist's practice aligns closely with the psychological theory of psychological disorders that focuses on behavioral explanations of psychological disorders. Which explanation is Matilda's therapist MOST likely to give to explain Matilda's social anxiety? a. Matilda's interactions with people were punished when they resulted in embarrassment. b. Matilda expresses an unusually high level of neuroticism and introversion. c. Matilda subconsciously expects people to leave her since she was abandoned by her father. d. Matilda's thought process is illogical in that she believes no one will find her likeable.

ANSWER: a 39. Moira has been diagnosed with social anxiety. Her therapist's practice aligns closely with the psychological theory of psychological disorders that focuses on cognitive explanations of psychological disorders. Which explanation is Moira's therapist MOST likely to give to explain Moira's social anxiety? a. Moira's interactions with people were punished when they resulted in embarrassment. b. Moira expresses an unusually high level of neuroticism and introversion. c. Moira subconsciously expects people to leave her since she was abandoned by her father. d. Moira's thought process is illogical in that she believes no one will find her likeable.

ANSWER: d 40. The _____ theory of psychological disorders holds that factors surrounding a person, rather than factors within the person, are the primary causes of psychological disorders. a. biological b. psychological c. sociocultural d. biopsychosocial ANSWER: c 41. The sociocultural theory of psychological disorders states that psychological disorders are caused by: .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. factors such as neurochemicals and genes. b. factors such as behaviors and traits. c. factors external to a person, such as where they live and work. d. a combination of factors such as a person's genes and environment.

ANSWER: c 42. According to the _____ theory of psychological disorder, a person who grew up in a rough neighborhood and who did not have good role models for handling difficult problems is at risk for developing psychological disorders. a. biological b. psychological c. sociocultural d. biopsychosocial ANSWER: c 43. A proponent of the sociocultural theory of psychological disorders would MOST likely cite _____ as causes of psychological disorder. a. genes, brain anatomy, and neurochemicals b. learning, unconscious drives, and thinking c. poverty, relationships, and prejudice d. internal states and the environment ANSWER: c 44. While studying the chapter on psychological disorders in an introductory psychology class, students were assigned to debate the causes of psychological disorders. One team of students argued that people's life circumstances caused them to develop psychological disorders. To support their argument, the students cited studies that found that people who are socially isolated, have few financial resources, and are unemployed have higher rates of depression and anxiety. The students' arguments support the _____ theory of psychological disorders. a. biological b. psychological c. sociocultural d. biopsychosocial ANSWER: c 45. The _____ theory is a contemporary theory of psychological disorders that asserts that a combination of factors within the person and surrounding a person contribute to psychological disorders. a. biological b. psychological c. sociocultural d. biopsychosocial ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 46. The _____ theory is the most comprehensive theory of psychological disorders, and it has become widely accepted by psychologists in the recent decades. a. biological b. psychological c. sociocultural d. biopsychosocial ANSWER: d 47. The World Health Organization states that psychological disorders are caused by a combination of factors such as a person's individual characteristics and genetic makeup as well as exposure to environmental hazards and social, cultural, and economic factors. This explanation of psychological disorders corresponds MOST closely to the _____ theory psychological disorders. a. categorical b. dimensional c. DSM d. biopsychosocial ANSWER: d 48. Cellas recently started therapy for depression. Cellas's therapist believes that their depression is the result of several factors. For example, depression seems to run in Cellas's family—their sister and uncle both have been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Cellas also tends to think exclusively about negative things that happen to them and not remember happy events. Cellas also lives in a society that shows off how happy everyone is on social media. The therapist's beliefs about the causes of Cellas's depression correspond MOST closely to the _____ theory of psychological disorders. a. biological b. psychodynamic c. sociocultural d. biopsychosocial ANSWER: d 49. When describing how biological, psychological, and social factors interact to produce psychological disorders, _____ is the term used by psychologists referring to a vulnerability with which a person is born, and _____ is an event (or series of events) that turns that vulnerability into a full-blown psychological problem. a. traits; cognition b. genetics; learning c. the subconscious; culture d. diathesis; stress ANSWER: d 50. Which is true about the influence of COVID on the prevalence of psychological disorders? a. The number of people with anxiety and depression increased during the pandemic in the United States but not in China. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. The number of people with anxiety and depression increased during the pandemic in China but not in the United States. c. Chances of a diagnosis of a psychological disorder were lowest 3 months after a COVID diagnosis. d. Chances of a diagnosis of a psychological disorder were highest 3 months after a COVID diagnosis.

ANSWER: d 51. Stress and suicidal thoughts experienced by essential workers _____ during the pandemic and occurred more often in_____ individuals. a. increased; BIPOC b. increased; White c. decreased: BIPOC d. decreased; White ANSWER: a 52. A judgment of shame or disgrace directed toward a person because of a particular characteristic that person has is known as: a. stigma. b. diathesis. c. the medical student syndrome. d. deviation for social norms.

ANSWER: a 53. Which statement about stigma regarding psychological disorders is true? a. Stigma includes the perception that a person diagnosed with a psychological disorder will always display symptoms of that disorder. b. Stigma is based on facts rather than being a social construction. c. Stigma depicts people who have psychological disorders as being a very diverse heterogeneous group. d. Stigma provides motivation for people to overcome psychological disorders and improves treatment.

ANSWER: a 54. In a recent study about the stigma surrounding psychological disorders, researchers asked participants to read brief descriptions of a person with schizophrenia, and the participants reported that they believed that a person diagnosed with schizophrenia would: a. be acceptable to have as an in-law. b. exhibit unpredictable behavior. c. be acceptable to teach children. d. be no more violent than other people.

ANSWER: b 55. Which list contains all the four types of stigma that experts have identified that impact people with psychological disorders? .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. public stigma, self-stigma, structural stigma, courtesy stigma b. biological stigma, psychological stigma, sociocultural stigma, biopsychosocial stigma c. private stigma, outsider stigma, instinctual stigma, cultural stigma d. internal stigma, external stigma, intrinsic stigma, extrinsic stigma ANSWER: a 56. Public stigma is BEST described as: a. shared, societal endorsement of stigma toward people with psychological disorders. b. internalized endorsement of stigma, by a person with a psychological disorder, toward people with psychological disorders. c. stigma embedded in policies or practices, making them discriminatory toward people with psychological disorders. d. stigma experienced by family members of a person with a psychological disorder.

ANSWER: a 57. Self-stigma is BEST described as: a. shared, societal endorsement of stigma toward people with psychological disorders. b. internalized endorsement of stigma, by a person with a psychological disorder, toward people with psychological disorders. c. stigma embedded in policies or practices, making them discriminatory toward people with psychological disorders. d. stigma experienced by family members of a person with a psychological disorder.

ANSWER: b 58. Structural stigma is BEST described as: a. shared, societal endorsement of stigma toward people with psychological disorders. b. internalized endorsement of stigma, by a person with a psychological disorder, toward people with psychological disorders. c. stigma embedded in policies or practices, making them discriminatory toward people with psychological disorders. d. stigma experienced by family members of a person with a psychological disorder.

ANSWER: c 59. Courtesy stigma is BEST described as: a. shared, societal endorsement of stigma toward people with psychological disorders. b. internalized endorsement of stigma, by a person with a psychological disorder, toward people with psychological disorders. c. stigma embedded in policies or practices, making them discriminatory toward people with psychological disorders. d. stigma experienced by family members of a person with a psychological disorder.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 60. When a person diagnosed with a psychological disorder internally endorses stigma toward people with psychological disorders, they are engaging in: a. public stigma. b. self-stigma. c. structural stigma. d. courtesy stigma.

ANSWER: b 61. The first thing most people think of when they think of stigma toward people with psychological disorders is _____, which is the shared, societal endorsement of stigma toward people with psychological disorders. a. public stigma b. self-stigma c. structural stigma d. courtesy stigma ANSWER: a 62. Stigma that is embedded in policies or practices in a way that makes them discriminatory toward people with psychological disorders is known as: a. public stigma. b. self-stigma. c. structural stigma. d. courtesy stigma.

ANSWER: c 63. "Stigma by association" that is experienced by friends and family of a person with a psychological disorder is known as: a. public stigma. b. self-stigma. c. structural stigma. d. courtesy stigma.

ANSWER: d 64. The _____ self-stigma a person experiences, the _____ likely they are to seek treatment for a psychological disorder, which then worsens the impact of the psychological disorder. a. more; more b. less; more c. more; less d. less; less ANSWER: c 65. A person with a psychological disorder who is experiencing the 'why try effect' would be MOST likely to: a. engage in and contribute to society. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. seek treatment for their symptoms. c. believe it's hopeless to overcome the disorder's symptoms. d. feel they deserve to overcome the disorder's symptoms.

ANSWER: c 66. An antistigma initiative using educational strategies would MOST likely: a. provide opportunities for people with and without psychological disorders to meet. b. issue a press release opposing media that mocks psychological disorders. c. call out stigma and be directly oppositional. d. create a website containing facts about psychological disorders.

ANSWER: d 67. An antistigma initiative using contact strategies would MOST likely: a. provide opportunities for people with and without psychological disorders to meet. b. issue a press release opposing media that mocks psychological disorders. c. call out stigma and be directly oppositional. d. create a website containing facts about psychological disorders.

ANSWER: a 68. Contact antistigma strategies try to combat stigma against psychological disorders by _____, whereas protest antistigma strategies try to combat stigma by _____. a. calling out stigma and directly condemning it; providing opportunities for people with and without psychological disorders to meet b. teaching people and combating ignorance; calling out stigma and directly condemning it c. providing opportunities for people with and without psychological disorders to meet; calling out stigma and directly condemning it d. calling out stigma and directly condemning it; teaching people and combating ignorance ANSWER: c 69. Many studies support that _____ antistigma strategies are the most effective at combating stigma against psychological disorders, followed by _____ antistigma strategies. a. protest; contact b. contact; protest c. education; contact d. contact; education ANSWER: d 70. The book in which mental disorders are officially defined is the _____, or DSM for short. a. Diagnostic Subtype Manual of Mental Disorders b. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders c. Diagnostic and Statistical Measure of Mental Disorders .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. Diagnosis and Statistical Measures of Mental Disorders ANSWER: b 71. If a student in the United States wanted to look up the official definitions for mental disorders, they would MOST likely use the: a. International Classification of Diseases. b. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. c. Chinese Classification of Mental Disorders. d. Diagnosis and Statistical Measures of Mental Disorders.

ANSWER: b 72. In the United States, a health professional who diagnoses or treats psychological disorders is MOST likely to use the: a. ICD. b. DSM. c. APA. d. CCMD. ANSWER: b 73. Dr. Orozco is a clinical psychologist practicing in the United States. Dr. Orozco uses the _____ to determine the type of psychological disorder their clients have, as well as how common the disorder is and how it develops over time. a. ICD b. DSM c. WHO d. CCMD ANSWER: b 74. A psychiatrist in the United States has worked with a client diagnosed with major depressive disorder. The therapist suspects their client may also have a personality disorder in addition to major personality disorder. To determine if this is so, the psychiatrist will consult the _____, which contains the criteria for all psychological disorders and the rules for diagnosing each. a. ICD b. WHO c. CCMD d. DSM ANSWER: d 75. In your introductory psychology class, you learned about how psychological disorders are diagnosed in the United States: mental health professionals use a book that outlines the criteria for disorders, as well as how common they are, cultural considerations, and the development of disorders over time. The book you learned about is the: .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. WHO. b. APA. c. DSM. d. CCMD. ANSWER: c 76. In the current edition of DSM, psychological disorders are organized into approximately _____ categories. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANSWER: d 77. The current edition of DSM is: a. V. b. IV. c. IV TR. d. 5 TR. ANSWER: d 78. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders categorizes psychological disorders by similar: a. treatments. b. causes. c. characteristics. d. social perceptions.

ANSWER: c 79. DSM provides information: a. about the names and diagnostic criteria for psychological disorders. b. about how dangerous a psychological disorder is. c. only about psychological disorders that present the same across cultures. d. about the primary treatment methods for psychological disorders.

ANSWER: a 80. DSM was originally published in: a. 1939. b. 1946. c. 1952. d. 1960.

ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 81. The original DSM included how many disorders? a. 52 b. 85 c. 106 d. 152 ANSWER: c 82. The first revision of the definitions of mental disorders in almost 20 years that produced the DSM 5 occurred in: a. 1993. b. 2003. c. 1983. d. 2013.

ANSWER: d 83. The latest edition of DSM was published in _____ and is called the _____. a. 2013; DSM-5 b. 2003; DSM-5 c. 2019; DSM-5-TR d. 2022; DSM-5-TR ANSWER: d 84. A disorder new to the current DSM-5 when it was published was _____, which is a combination of severe emotional and physical symptoms that some women experience on a regular basis during the time of their period. a. prolonged grief disorder b. premenstrual dysphoric disorder c. posttraumatic stress disorder d. binge eating disorder ANSWER: b 85. A disorder new to the DSM-5-TR is _____, which involves intense bereavement after the death of a loved one that continues to be disruptive for a long time after the death. a. prolonged grief disorder b. premenstrual dysphoric disorder c. posttraumatic stress disorder d. gender dysphoria ANSWER: a 86. The _____ model of psychopathology states that psychological problems are either totally present or totally absent, as opposed to existing on a continuum. a. dimensional .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. biopsychosocial c. categorical d. sociocultural ANSWER: c 87. The categorical model of psychopathology states that psychological problems are: a. on a continuum. b. either fully present or absent. c. diagnosed differently depending on the type of disorder. d. reflective of a society's standards of disordered and not disordered.

ANSWER: b 88. Dr. Soto is a psychiatrist who believes that diagnosing psychological disorders is binary—you either have one or you don't. Their approach to diagnosing psychological disorders is similar to how physicians diagnose physical problems. Dr. Soto's beliefs correspond BEST to the _____ model of psychopathology. a. biopsychosocial b. psychodynamic c. categorical d. dimensional ANSWER: c 89. The dimensional model of psychopathology states that psychological problems are: a. on a continuum. b. either fully present or absent. c. diagnosed differently depending on the type of disorder. d. straightforward deviations from a society's norms.

ANSWER: a 90. The _____ model states that psychological problems exist on a continuum, as opposed to being fully present or absent. a. dimensional b. biopsychosocial c. categorical d. sociocultural ANSWER: a 91. Dennisha learned about two different models of psychopathology in her introductory psychology class. The one that made the MOST sense to Dennisha was the _____ model, which states that psychological disorders exist on a continuum, rather than being totally absent or totally present. a. dimensional b. biopsychosocial c. categorical .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. psychodynamic ANSWER: a 92. The categorical model of psychopathology is MOST like _____, and the dimensional model of psychopathology is MOST like _____. a. a blood-typing test; measurement of blood glucose levels b. a blood pressure test; determining if you have the flu c. assessing if you have cancer; determining if a woman is pregnant d. measuring your shoulder's range of motion; measuring blood oxygen levels ANSWER: a 93. _____ disorders are characterized by a person's natural alarm system being excessively active in unjustified situations. a. Anxiety b. Mood c. Psychotic d. Personality ANSWER: a 94. The prevailing symptom associated with anxiety disorders is that a person experiences: a. significant alarm in response to danger. b. nervousness before important life events. c. fear that is out of proportion to a situation. d. daily worry that doesn't impact their functioning.

ANSWER: c 95. Which disorder is classified as an anxiety disorder in the DSM-5-TR? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. specific phobia c. posttraumatic stress disorder d. acute stress disorder ANSWER: b 96. Which disorder used to be classified as an anxiety disorder but is now classified into its own category in the DSM-5-TR? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. specific phobia c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. panic disorder ANSWER: c 97. _____ is an anxiety disorder in which symptoms of unjustified apprehension persists for a long time across a .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice wide range of situations. a. Generalized anxiety disorder b. Specific phobia c. Social anxiety disorder d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder ANSWER: a 98. The symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder: a. are characterized by excessive fear regarding a specific object or situation. b. persist for a long time across a wide range of situations and activities. c. are characterized by intense and irrational fear of situations where one may be judged. d. occur as sudden, intense, and unpredictable brief bursts of fear.

ANSWER: b 99. A person diagnosed with _____ has problematic anxiety that persists for a long time and applies to many types of situations and activities. Often, a person with this disorder will feel fatigued and restless. a. specific phobia b. generalized anxiety disorder c. social anxiety disorder d. panic disorder ANSWER: b 100. The symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder are: a. exclusively physical. b. exclusively psychological. c. both physical and psychological. d. neither physical nor psychological.

ANSWER: c 101. Over the past year, Jerildy has felt on edge and seems to always be worried or afraid. Jerildy is worried about their job, their health, their home life, and their financial situation. Jerildy has difficulty sleeping and complains about how tense all of their muscles are. Jerildy's family is concerned about them and wants them to seek help. The anxiety disorder Jerildy MOST likely has is: a. specific phobia. b. social anxiety disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. panic disorder.

ANSWER: c 102. _____ is an anxiety disorder characterized by excessive anxiety toward a particular object or situation. a. Generalized anxiety disorder b. Panic disorder .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. Specific phobia d. Bipolar disorder ANSWER: c 103. A specific phobia is characterized by: a. an intense and irrational fear of situations in which one may be judged or scrutinized. b. excessive anxiety toward a particular object or situation. c. sudden, intense, unpredictable brief bursts of anxiety. d. unwanted, repetitive thoughts and uncontrollable actions done in response to those thoughts.

ANSWER: b 104. Shiani has an intense and persistent fear of horses. They avoid going anywhere they might see a horse, and they even change the channel if they see a horse on television. What disorder does Shiani MOST likely have? a. posttraumatic stress disorder b. panic disorder c. specific phobia d. generalized anxiety disorder ANSWER: c 105. Isobel and her family love swimming in their local river. However, Isobel is intensely afraid of snakes and is worried about encountering them when they are at the river. Increasingly, Isobel has spent less and less time at the river with her family due to her fear of snakes. What disorder does Isobel MOST likely have? a. social anxiety disorder b. social phobia c. specific phobia d. generalized anxiety disorder ANSWER: c 106. A recent study focused on people who had developed intense, unreasonable anxiety over dogs and the distress caused by that anxiety. The study was MOST likely focusing on: a. social anxiety disorder. b. panic disorder. c. specific phobia. d. generalized anxiety disorder.

ANSWER: c 107. The anxiety disorder characterized by an intense and irrational fear of situations in which one may be judged or scrutinized is called: a. social anxiety disorder. b. panic disorder. c. specific phobia. d. generalized anxiety disorder. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 108. Social anxiety disorder is defined as: a. excessive anxiety toward a specific object or situation. b. intense and irrational fear of situations in which one may be judged or scrutinized. c. anxiety that persists for a long time across a wide range of situations and activities. d. sudden, intense, unpredictable brief bursts of anxiety.

ANSWER: b 109. Another name for social anxiety disorder is social: a. trauma. b. phobia. c. stigma. d. depression.

ANSWER: b 110. Kailyn has to lead the discussion of a research paper in one of their classes. Kailyn is excessively worried about leading the discussion because they intensely fear speaking in front of classes. They fear that people will judge them and think that they don't know what they're talking about. Kailyn's perceptions align BEST with those of _____ disorder. a. panic b. posttraumatic stress c. obsessive-compulsive d. social anxiety ANSWER: d 111. At the first meeting of an organization Katy joined, new members were asked to share something about themselves. This caused Katy significant anxiety, and she was extremely worried about speaking in front of the group. Katy feels that she will be judged and scrutinized, although she knows this is irrational. The disorder Katy MOST likely has is: a. specific phobia. b. panic disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. social anxiety disorder.

ANSWER: d 112. When people have an intense and irrational fear when they must perform in front of others, they MOST likely have: a. a specific phobia. b. panic disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. social anxiety disorder. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: d 113. _____ involves an irrational and intense fear about being judged and scrutinized, whereas _____ involves an irrational and intense fear of an object or situation. a. Specific phobia; social anxiety disorder b. Social anxiety disorder; generalized anxiety disorder c. Generalized anxiety disorder; social anxiety disorder d. Social anxiety disorder; specific phobia ANSWER: d 114. Psychologists have debated if social anxiety disorder is a psychological disorder or just a very high level of the personality trait of: a. conscientiousness. b. neuroticism. c. extroversion. d. introversion.

ANSWER: d 115. An anxiety disorder characterized by sudden, intense, unpredictable brief bursts of anxiety is called _____ disorder. a. social anxiety b. generalized anxiety c. panic d. obsessive-compulsive ANSWER: c 116. Panic disorder is characterized by: a. excessive anxiety toward a specific object or situation. b. intense and irrational fear of situations in which one may be judged or scrutinized. c. anxiety that persists for a long time across a wide range of situations and activities. d. sudden, intense, unpredictable brief bursts of anxiety.

ANSWER: d 117. One day at work, Hecmarie began to feel dizzy and like they couldn't catch their breath. They were suddenly afraid they were going to or maybe that they were having a heart attack, despite being healthy. There seemed to be nothing that triggered Hecmarie having this experience. The disorder that BEST describes what Hecmarie is experiencing is: a. social anxiety disorder. b. panic disorder. c. posttraumatic stress disorder. d. specific phobia.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 118. One day, Latoya was going to work when she noticed she was sweating slightly and her heart was beating a bit faster than normal. Latoya became alarmed, fearing something was wrong. Soon, Latoya experienced an intense burst of anxiety that caused her to feel as if she were going to pass out. The disorder that BEST describes what Latoya is experiencing is: a. social anxiety disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. specific phobia. d. panic disorder.

ANSWER: d 119. Having _____, in which a person has sudden, unpredictable attacks of anxiety and paralyzing fear, can sometimes lead to _____, in which a person avoids situations from which escape might be difficult or impossible. a. Social anxiety disorder; agoraphobia b. Panic disorder; agoraphobia c. Social anxiety disorder; claustrophobia d. Panic disorder; claustrophobia ANSWER: b 120. A disorder characterized by unwanted, repetitive thoughts and uncontrollable actions in response to those thoughts is _____ disorder. a. social anxiety b. generalized anxiety c. panic d. obsessive-compulsive ANSWER: d 121. Obsessive-compulsive disorder is characterized by: a. excessive anxiety toward a specific object or situation. b. intense and irrational fear of situations in which one may be judged or scrutinized. c. anxiety that persists for a long time across a wide range of situations and activities. d. unwanted, repetitive thoughts and uncontrollable actions done in response to those thoughts.

ANSWER: d 122. Dr. Melendez is a psychiatrist who has been working with Paola for over a year. When Paola first came to therapy, they reported constantly thinking about their dog getting loose from their house. This caused Paola so much anxiety that they'd often have to leave campus to check that their dog was still inside. Paola had missed so many classes that they were in danger of failing out of college. Paola's symptoms align BEST with those of _____ disorder. a. social anxiety b. generalized anxiety .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. posttraumatic stress d. obsessive-compulsive ANSWER: d 123. Destiny did an assignment for class on anxiety disorders. Destiny included a case study of a person who had repeated, unwanted thoughts that caused them significant anxiety. In response to those thoughts, the person would repeatedly perform certain behaviors. The person in Destiny's case study MOST likely has which disorder? a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. social anxiety disorder c. specific phobia d. generalized anxiety disorder ANSWER: a 124. Ever since they were a teenager, Yamil has struggled with repeated, intrusive thoughts that their house will burn down. These thoughts cause Yamil such distress that they find themselves doing things at work such as looking out the window that faces the direction of their house to see if they see smoke. Yamil's symptoms align BEST with _____ disorder. a. obsessive-compulsive b. social anxiety c. generalized anxiety d. posttraumatic stress ANSWER: a 125. The single most common category of psychological disorders is: a. anxiety disorders. b. depressive disorders. c. dissociative disorders. d. disorders of childhood.

ANSWER: a 126. If you have a(n) _____, you have the most common type of psychological disorder. a. anxiety disorder b. depressive disorder c. dissociative disorder d. intellectual disability ANSWER: a 127. The two most common anxiety disorders are: a. social phobia and specific phobia. b. generalized anxiety disorder and social phobia. c. specific phobia and panic disorder. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. specific phobia and generalized anxiety disorder.

ANSWER: a 128. A person who is diagnosed with _____ disorder has one of the two most common anxiety disorders. a. generalized anxiety b. social anxiety c. panic d. obsessive-compulsive ANSWER: b 129. Anxiety disorders are _____ common in women and girls compared to men and boys, but only _____ the age of 10. a. more; after b. more; before c. less; after d. less; before ANSWER: a 130. In many non-Western cultures, the experience of anxiety emphasizes _____ discomfort, and, in Western cultures, the experience of anxiety emphasizes _____ discomfort. a. physical; mental b. mental; physical c. mental; mental d. physical; physical ANSWER: a 131. For a person who lives in the United States, the lifetime prevalence for anxiety disorders is approximately: a. 10%. b. 20%. c. 30%. d. 40%.

ANSWER: c 132. Psychologists suggest that many factors, including _____ parenting and a _____ level of the trait of neuroticism, contribute to anxiety disorders. a. overprotective; low b. overprotective; high c. uninvolved; high d. uninvolved; low ANSWER: b 133. Even though Tawanda consistently scores above average, they are convinced that if they speak up in any of .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice their classes, all of their classmates will think they are stupid. If Tawanda were to be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder, their therapist may try to address their _____, which are these if-then statements that are unlikely to be true and lead to unnecessary anxiety. a. history of reinforcements and punishments b. history of overprotective parents c. neurotic personality trait d. illogical thoughts ANSWER: d 134. Chloe was recently diagnosed with an anxiety disorder. In therapy, Chloe has been working with her therapist on changing her interpretation of situations and events. In particular, Chloe tends to imagine the worst possible outcomes and only focuses on the negative aspects of a situation. Chloe and her therapist are MOST likely working on Chloe's: a. learned reinforcements and punishments. b. history of overprotective parents. c. neurotic personality trait. d. perceived lack of control.

ANSWER: c 135. When Yasmine was 7 years old, they nearly drowned in a friend's pool. This experience was terrifying to Yasmine, and they believe this is why they developed a phobia of water. Yasmine's belief corresponds to the general idea that _____ contribute(s) to the development of anxiety disorders. a. illogical thoughts b. overprotective parenting c. learned reinforcements and punishments d. behavioral traits ANSWER: c 136. Cecily took a personality test for one of her psychology classes. The test results suggested that Cecily was high on _____, a personality trait that is closely associated with the development of anxiety disorders. a. introversion b. neuroticism c. pessimism d. openness to experience ANSWER: b 137. Seven-year-old Serena stays with her grandparents every summer. She enjoys her time there, but they often limit where and how much she gets to play because they are afraid she will get hurt. Although they mean well, Serena's grandparents may contribute to the development of anxiety due to: a. learned reinforcements and punishments. b. neuroticism. c. overprotective parenting. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. illogical thoughts.

ANSWER: c 138. Research suggests that individuals with anxiety disorders have an _____ amygdala and an _____ prefrontal cortex. a. overactive; overactive b. underactive; underactive c. underactive; overactive d. overactive; underactive ANSWER: d 139. The _____ is an explanation specific to anxiety disorder that emphasizes the interaction of biological factors, general psychological factors, and specific psychological factors. a. diathesis–stress model b. biopsychosocial theory of psychological disorders c. triple vulnerability theory d. sociocultural theory of psychological disorders ANSWER: c 140. _____ fall into a category of psychological disorders based on extreme moods or emotional states. a. Anxiety disorders b. Depressive and bipolar disorders c. Eating disorders d. Disorders of childhood ANSWER: b 141. Depressive and bipolar disorders are psychological disorders that: a. are based on extreme moods or emotional states. b. involve excessive, unjustified fear and worry. c. involve significant disturbances in behaviors related to eating or food. d. include bizarre disturbances in thinking, perception, feelings, and behavior.

ANSWER: a 142. _____ disorder is a depressive disorder in which a person experiences at least 2 weeks of depressed mood and a loss of interest in most activities. a. Bipolar b. Major depressive c. Obsessive-compulsive d. Cyclothymic ANSWER: b 143. Major depressive disorder is characterized by: .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. at least 2 weeks of depressed mood and a loss of interest in most activities. b. a chronic, relatively low-intensity depressed mood present for at least 2 years. c. alternating between extremely high moods and extremely low moods. d. unwanted, repetitive thoughts and uncontrollable actions done in response to those thoughts.

ANSWER: a 144. For the past 3 months, Sabine has been feeling worthless and empty. Sabine has been sleeping poorly but still feels like they can't get out of bed. Sabine usually is very focused on academic success, but their interest in schoolwork and their grades has disappeared. Sabine is not eating consistently and has lost weight even though they weren't trying to. Sabine MOST likely would be diagnosed with _____ disorder. a. persistent depressive b. major depressive c. cyclothymic d. bipolar ANSWER: b 145. Agatha quit school 6 months ago and, while she found a job, she finds it unfulfilling. During this time, Agatha has felt sad and worthless. Agatha knows she should probably re-enroll in school, but she has no energy to start that process. She also lacks any interest in going out, and her inability to enjoy companionship has resulted in lost friendships and loss of potential relationships. Agatha would MOST likely be diagnosed with _____ disorder. a. bipolar b. cyclothymic c. obsessive d. major depressive ANSWER: d 146. Over the past 2 months, your roommate has been feeling very down although she has no realistic reason to.

She has had no energy and is not sleeping well; this is causing her to miss classes and work. You suggest that your roommate go to the campus counseling center because you suspect she may have _____ disorder. a. obsessive-compulsive b. major depressive c. panic d. bipolar ANSWER: b 147. The cornerstone symptom of major depressive disorder is that of: a. anxiety. b. sadness. c. sleep changes. d. thoughts of death.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 148. Persistent depressive disorder is characterized by: a. 2 weeks of depressed mood and a loss of interest in most activities. b. a chronic, relatively low-intensity depressed mood present for at least 2 years. c. alternating between extremely high moods and extremely low moods. d. unwanted, repetitive thoughts and uncontrollable actions done in response to those thoughts.

ANSWER: b 149. _____ disorder is a depressive disorder characterized by a chronic, relatively low-intensity depressed mood that has persisted for at least 2 years. a. Bipolar b. Persistent depressive c. Cyclothymic d. Major depressive ANSWER: b 150. Maynard has felt generally sad for as long as they can remember. When asked to provide a happy memory, they can't remember one. Maynard's friends tease them and call them Moody Maynard, although Maynard doesn't really find it funny. Maynard's symptoms BEST align with _____ disorder. a. bipolar b. persistent depressive c. panic d. major depressive ANSWER: b 151. A researcher wants to examine the relationship between personality and depression that is chronic and relatively low-intensity. This type of depression is called: a. persistent depressive disorder. b. cyclothymia. c. major depressive disorder. d. bipolar disorder.

ANSWER: a 152. Two years ago, Ashley was diagnosed with a depressive disorder. For many years prior to her diagnosis, Ashley felt sad and hopeless nearly every day. During this time, she also had trouble sleeping and always felt tired. The disorder Ashley was diagnosed with is MOST likely: a. bipolar disorder. b. cyclothymia. c. major depressive disorder. d. persistent depressive disorder.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 153. Symptoms of persistent depressive disorder must occur for _____, whereas symptoms of major depressive disorder must occur for _____. a. 2 days; 2 weeks b. 2 weeks; 2 months c. 2 years; 2 months d. 2 years; 2 weeks ANSWER: d 154. In the context of depressive disorders, the term _____ refers to two extremes of mood. a. unipolar b. bipolar c. dysthymic d. mania ANSWER: b 155. _____ is a psychological disorder in which a person alternates between extremely high moods and extremely low moods. a. Unipolar depression b. Bipolar disorder c. Dysthymic disorder d. Persistent depressive disorder ANSWER: b 156. Bipolar disorder is defined as: a. a chronic, relatively low-intensity depressed mood. b. excessively elated mood and overabundant energy. c. periods of extremely high moods and extremely low moods. d. 2 or more weeks of extremely low mood and a loss of interest in most activities.

ANSWER: c 157. If a person has experienced periods of extremely elated moods and extremely low moods, then that person would MOST likely be diagnosed with _____ disorder. a. major depressive b. bipolar c. dysthymic d. persistent depressive ANSWER: b 158. _____ is an emotional state of excessively elated mood and overabundant energy. a. Hypomania b. Mania .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. Obsession d. Psychosis ANSWER: b 159. People who have periods in which they have an overabundance of energy along with an extremely elevated mood are MOST likely experiencing: a. hypomania. b. mania. c. obsession. d. psychosis.

ANSWER: b 160. For the past 3 days, Asla has had boundless energy. Asla's thoughts feel like they are racing, and they can't get their ideas and words out fast enough. Asla has gotten little to no sleep during this time. Yesterday, Asla decided on a whim to take a vacation to a fancy resort, even though they were scheduled to work during the same time. Asla's behavior over the past 3 days is MOST consistent with a _____ episode. a. hypomanic b. manic c. panic d. dissociative ANSWER: b 161. Compared to mania, hypomania: a. is more severe than mania. b. lasts longer than mania. c. is less severe than mania. d. involves intense fear.

ANSWER: c 162. The symptoms of bipolar I disorder typically are of _____ duration and are _____ severe than those of bipolar II disorder. a. shorter; more b. shorter; less c. longer; more d. longer; less ANSWER: c 163. Maria wrote a paper on bipolar disorders. One point that Maria focused on in her paper was the long-term outcomes for someone with bipolar I disorder versus bipolar II disorder. Maria specifically addressed the fact that those with bipolar II had better outcomes because they have milder symptoms of _____ than those with bipolar I. a. mania .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. depression c. unipolar depression d. dysthymia ANSWER: a 164. Over the past week, Paige has felt highly energized and active. She has slept very little and doesn't feel tired. Without giving it much thought, Paige decided to take a cross-country road trip even though she would miss days of school and important assignments. If Paige has also had periods of depression in the past, Paige would MOST likely be diagnosed with: a. unipolar depression. b. bipolar I disorder. c. dysthymic disorder. d. bipolar II disorder.

ANSWER: b 165. Last year, Emanuel had a period of time during which they were severely depressed. Recently, Emanuel also had mild symptoms of mania for a day or two. The diagnosis that BEST fits Emanuel's symptoms is _____ disorder. a. posttraumatic stress b. major depressive c. bipolar I d. bipolar II ANSWER: d 166. Bipolar I disorder is distinguished from bipolar II by the: a. length of the symptoms of depression. b. length and severity of the symptoms of mania. c. severity of the symptoms of depression. d. number of depressive and manic episodes.

ANSWER: b 167. _____ is a long-term, lower-intensity version of bipolar disorder. a. Dysthymia b. Cyclothymic disorder c. Persistent depressive disorder d. Bipolar II disorder ANSWER: b 168. Cyclothymic disorder is defined as: a. a disorder characterized by a chronic, relatively low-intensity mood. b. a disorder characterized by extremely high moods and extremely low moods. c. a long-term, lower-intensity version of bipolar disorder. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. periods of hypomania alternating with periods of major depression.

ANSWER: c 169. For the past 7 years, Edda has had periods during which their mood is elevated more than usual, as well as periods when their mood is depressed more than usual. Between these periods, Edda's emotional state is stable.

Edda does not feel that these up-and-down periods are out of control, although the up-and-down cycle still interfered with daily life on occasion, particularly when the ups or downs continued for a prolonged period.

Edda would MOST likely be diagnosed with: a. dysthymia. b. bipolar I disorder. c. cyclothymic disorder. d. posttraumatic stress disorder.

ANSWER: c 170. Heiman has periods in which they have low-intensity symptoms of both depression and mania. Heiman has had these symptoms for 4 years. What disorder does Heiman MOST likely have? a. dysthymia b. cyclothymic disorder c. bipolar I d. posttraumatic stress disorder ANSWER: b 171. Those with bipolar disorder and depressive disorder are at least 20 times more likely to: a. be male. b. die by suicide. c. have a co-occurring dissociative disorder. d. develop schizophrenia.

ANSWER: b 172. Approximately _____% of people living in the United States have been diagnosed with a depressive or bipolar disorder at some point in their lives. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANSWER: d 173. _____ is more common than _____. a. Major depressive disorder; bipolar disorder b. Bipolar disorder; major depressive disorder c. Bipolar disorder; specific phobia d. Major depressive disorder; specific phobia .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 174. Major depressive disorder is twice as common in _____ as in _____. a. girls; women b. men; women c. boys; men d. women; men ANSWER: d 175. Bipolar disorder is diagnosed: a. more in women than men. b. more in men than women. c. more in children than adults. d. equally in women and men.

ANSWER: d 176. Non-Western cultures tend to experience the symptoms of depression as more _____, and Western cultures tend to experience the symptoms of depression as more _____. a. physical; psychological b. psychological; physical c. physical; physical d. psychological; psychological ANSWER: a 177. A practitioner who prescribes drugs for the treatment of depressive disorders MOST likely views _____ to be the main factor underlying why people get depressive disorders. a. depressive schema b. genetics c. brain differences d. chemical imbalance ANSWER: d 178. A practitioner who addresses stopping pessimistic illogical thoughts for the treatment of depressive disorders MOST likely views _____ to be the main factor underlying why people get depressive disorders. a. depressive schema b. genetics c. brain differences d. chemical imbalance ANSWER: a 179. Disorders like anorexia and bulimia are defined by significant disturbances related to: a. mood. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. eating or food. c. psychosis. d. the stress response.

ANSWER: b 180. _____ is an eating disorder based on a refusal to eat enough food to maintain a minimally normal body weight based on the person's height and age. a. Bulimia nervosa b. Anorexia nervosa c. Binge eating disorder d. Purging disorder ANSWER: b 181. Anorexia nervosa is defined as: a. recurring periods of purging behavior to influence weight or shape. b. a refusal to eat enough food to maintain a minimally normal body weight. c. a pattern of overeating followed by drastic attempts to prevent weight gain. d. a pattern of overeating that does not involve purging.

ANSWER: b 182. Anorexia nervosa is fatal in about _____% of cases. a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 50 ANSWER: b 183. Recently, Jahan went on a diet to lose 10 pounds. Jahan lost the weight they wanted to, but then they became increasingly focused on losing weight. Jahan began to look extremely thin, and their weight dropped well below what was average for someone their age and height. It is likely that Jahan has developed: a. bulimia nervosa. b. anorexia nervosa. c. binge eating disorder. d. a depressive disorder.

ANSWER: b 184. Jacob is a wrestler on his college wrestling team. Jacob has been very concerned about his weight. He knows that if he gains even 5 pounds, he will move into a higher weight class with larger and stronger opponents. To stay in the lower weight class, Jacob began eating much less than he had been eating and lost a significant amount of weight. Even after wrestling season was over, Jacob continued this behavior. Eventually, Jacob became much thinner than what would be expected for someone of his age and height. It is likely that Jacob has developed: .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. bulimia nervosa. b. anorexia nervosa. c. binge eating disorder. d. purging disorder.

ANSWER: b 185. One day in an introductory psychology class, the class discussed a case study in which a person had lost a significant amount of weight and was well below the weight someone of that person's age and height should be.

In the case study, the person severely restricted calorie consumption due to an intense fear of gaining weight.

The disorder the person in the case study MOST likely had was: a. purging disorder. b. binge eating disorder. c. anorexia nervosa. d. bulimia nervosa.

ANSWER: c 186. Jenny has an eating disorder in which she restricts how much she eats, has a very low body weight, and an intense fear of gaining weight. Jenny sees herself as weighing more than she does, even though she is clearly very thin. Which disorder does Jenny MOST likely have? a. purging disorder b. binge eating disorder c. anorexia nervosa d. bulimia nervosa ANSWER: c 187. _____ is an eating disorder in which an individual exhibits a pattern of overeating followed by drastic attempts to prevent weight gain. a. Bulimia nervosa b. Anorexia nervosa c. Binge eating disorder d. Purging disorder ANSWER: a 188. Bulimia nervosa is defined as a pattern of: a. purging behavior that does not involve overeating. b. refusing to eat enough food to maintain a minimally normal body weight. c. overeating followed by drastic attempts to prevent weight gain. d. overeating that does not involve purging.

ANSWER: c 189. Which statement about bulimia nervosa is true? a. The toll bulimia takes on the body is only psychological. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. People with bulimia are overly concerned about their weight. c. Bulimia is a variation of anorexia nervosa. d. Bulimia involves the flat refusal of food.

ANSWER: b 190. Jason has an eating disorder in which he overeats and then immediately takes steps to compensate for the overeating. Jason's weight is average for someone of his age and height. The disorder Jason MOST likely has is: a. bulimia nervosa. b. anorexia nervosa. c. binge eating disorder. d. purging disorder.

ANSWER: a 191. Recently, Stephen confided to a friend that sometimes he eats a lot of food in a short period of time that makes him feel guilty afterward. He told his friend that he tries to compensate for what he eats by exercising for hours. Stephen also admitted that he sometimes takes a lot of laxatives when he overeats. Which disorder does Stephen MOST likely have? a. bulimia nervosa b. anorexia nervosa c. binge eating disorder d. purging disorder ANSWER: a 192. Vadim has been concerned lately with how much they weigh, although they weigh about what someone their age and height should. Although it upsets Vadim, there are times when they will eat a significant amount of food at one sitting but they make themself throw up to avoid gaining weight from the food they ate. The disorder that BEST matches Vadim's behaviors is: a. bulimia nervosa. b. anorexia nervosa. c. binge eating disorder. d. stress disorder.

ANSWER: a 193. _____ is an eating disorder that involves overeating but not purging. a. Bulimia nervosa b. Anorexia nervosa c. Binge eating disorder d. Purging disorder ANSWER: c 194. Binge eating disorder is defined as a pattern of: a. purging behavior that does not involve overeating. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. refusing to eat enough food to maintain a minimally normal body weight. c. overeating followed by drastic attempts to prevent weight gain. d. overeating that does not involve purging.

ANSWER: d 195. Which statement is true about binge eating disorder? a. It involves a lack of control over eating. b. People typically binge eat in public. c. It is a variation of bulimia nervosa. d. It involves a pattern of bingeing and purging.

ANSWER: a 196. In his introductory psychology class, Sage learned about a new eating disorder. This disorder occurs when a person eats a significant amount of food in a short period of time but does not try to compensate afterward for the food eaten. What disorder did Sage MOST likely learn about? a. bulimia nervosa b. anorexia nervosa c. binge eating disorder d. purging disorder ANSWER: c 197. Over the past 6 months, Jahan has struggled with their eating. At least once a week, Jahan eats more food than they need—so much that it makes them uncomfortable—and they eat it in a short period of time. Jahan thinks they would feel better if they could throw up the food, but they don't do it. The disorder with which Jahan would MOST likely be diagnosed is: a. bulimia nervosa. b. anorexia nervosa. c. binge eating disorder. d. stress disorder.

ANSWER: c 198. Saadia's friends are concerned about her. They don't see her as much as they used to. Saadia wants to hang out with her friends but she has become increasingly focused on her weight and how much she eats. Saadia sees herself as overweight and tries to diet but frequently ends up breaking her diet by eating a large amount of food, usually very quickly. After these periods, Saadia doesn't take steps to compensate for the food she's eaten, although she is embarrassed by eating so much. Saadia MOST likely has which disorder? a. bulimia nervosa b. anorexia nervosa c. purging disorder d. binge eating disorder ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 199. Which statement is true about eating disorders? a. They typically develop in older age. b. They are more often in men than women. c. Bulimia and binge eating disorder are more common than anorexia. d. They are more common than most other psychological disorders.

ANSWER: c 200. A practitioner who works with individuals diagnosed with anorexia nervosa would MOST likely describe _____ as a common personality trait among people who develop this disorder. a. depressive schema b. extraversion c. impulsivity d. perfectionism ANSWER: d 201. A practitioner who works with individuals diagnosed with bulimia nervosa and binge eating disorder would MOST likely describe _____ as a common personality trait among people who develop these disorders. a. depressive schema b. extraversion c. impulsivity d. perfectionism ANSWER: d 202. _____ is a severe psychological disorder in which a person exhibits bizarre disturbances in thinking, perception, feelings, and behavior. a. Schizophrenia b. Multiple personality disorder c. Dissociative amnesia d. Dissociative identity disorder ANSWER: a 203. Schizophrenia is defined as a(n): a. psychological disorder alternating between extremely high moods and extremely low moods. b. psychological disorder in which a person exhibits two or more distinct personalities. c. inability to recall important information from one's past, often triggered by a stressful event. d. severe disorder in which a person exhibits bizarre disturbances in thinking, perception, feelings, and behavior.

ANSWER: d 204. Two years ago, Kiara was diagnosed with a psychological disorder. One of Kiara's symptoms is that she believes that she was replaced with an exact copy of herself by aliens. Another of Kiara's symptoms is her speech. It is difficult to follow what Kiara is trying to say. For instance, Kiara recently told her doctor, "You are .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a spackle moggie. I know because the president of the world was elected to terminate the space aliens. They're pepper pots and they built the Empire State Building and turned people into pigs when they were done." The disorder Kiara was MOST likely diagnosed with is: a. bipolar disorder. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. dysthymia. d. schizophrenia.

ANSWER: d 205. One evening while walking home from the bus stop, you saw a person behaving unusually. He appeared to be having a conversation with no one, and then he began cowering in terror although there seemed nothing around to be scared of. When you walked by him, he asked you if you were aware that aliens were coming that night to take over the government. Since you just took an introductory psychology class, you suspect that this person may be experiencing the symptoms of: a. schizophrenia. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. a dissociative fugue.

ANSWER: a 206. You recently learned about a disorder in class in which a person has symptoms such as delusions, hallucinations, and unusual speech patterns. In this disorder, people often have a problematic excess or deficit of behaviors. The disorder you learned about is MOST likely: a. schizophrenia. b. dissociative identity disorder. c. bipolar disorder. d. dissociative fugue.

ANSWER: a 207. _____ is a significant overall impairment in the basic ability to tell the difference between the real world and imagination. a. Psychosis b. Dissociative amnesia c. A delusion d. Dissociative fugue ANSWER: a 208. Psychosis is defined as: a. a significant impairment in the basic ability to tell the difference between the real world and the imagination. b. completely false beliefs that a person with schizophrenia believes to be reality. c. an inability to recall important information from one's past, often triggered by a stressful event. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. false sensations or perceptions.

ANSWER: a 209. When a person has difficulty knowing what is real and what is not, and appears to be disconnected from reality, they are MOST likely experiencing: a. psychosis. b. mania. c. negative symptoms. d. a dissociative fugue.

ANSWER: a 210. Experiences that are present or excessive in people with schizophrenia, but largely absent in people without it, are called: a. depressive episodes. b. manic episodes. c. negative symptoms. d. positive symptoms.

ANSWER: d 211. Positive symptoms are defined as: a. completely false beliefs that a person with schizophrenia believes to be reality. b. false sensations or perceptions. c. behaviors that are lacking in people with schizophrenia. d. behaviors that are present or excessive in people with schizophrenia.

ANSWER: d 212. Delusions are defined as: a. completely false beliefs that a person with schizophrenia believes to be reality. b. false sensations or perceptions. c. behaviors that are lacking in people with schizophrenia. d. behaviors that are present or excessive in people with schizophrenia.

ANSWER: a 213. _____ are completely false beliefs that a person with schizophrenia believes to be reality. a. Hallucinations b. Loose associations c. Negative symptoms d. Delusions ANSWER: d 214. Kyung believes that their roommate has implanted a microphone in their brain and has been telling them lies about people around them. What is Kyung MOST likely experiencing? .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. a delusion b. a negative symptom c. flat affect d. a fugue ANSWER: a 215. Peter believes he is from a distant planet and is on Earth to save humans from alien attacks that most people don't even realize have happened. Peter also believes it is his duty to serve as humankind's protector.

What is Peter MOST likely experiencing? a. a delusion b. a hallucination c. flat affect d. a fugue ANSWER: a 216. _____ are symptoms of schizophrenia in which an individual believes that random events have personal meaning intended just for them. a. Hallucinations b. Delusions of persecution c. Delusions of grandeur d. Delusions of reference ANSWER: d 217. _____ are symptoms of schizophrenia in which an individual believes that others are out to get them. a. Hallucinations b. Delusions of persecution c. Delusions of grandeur d. Delusions of reference ANSWER: b 218. _____ are symptoms of schizophrenia in which an individual believes that they are of great importance, like they have superhuman powers or are a famous person. a. Hallucinations b. Delusions of persecution c. Delusions of grandeur d. Delusions of reference ANSWER: c 219. _____ is a false sensation or perception. a. A hallucination b. Alogia .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. A negative symptom d. A delusion ANSWER: a 220. Hallucinations are defined as: a. completely false beliefs that a person with schizophrenia believes to be reality. b. false sensations or perceptions. c. behaviors that are lacking in people with schizophrenia. d. behaviors that are present or excessive in people with schizophrenia.

ANSWER: b 221. Smaranda was recently diagnosed with schizophrenia. One of the reasons they were diagnosed was because they were hearing people who were not there, which is an example of a: a. delusion. b. negative symptom. c. flat affect. d. hallucination.

ANSWER: d 222. Bill hears voices frequently. They tell him what to do and try to control his behavior. No one else can hear these voices. When Bill hears voices, he is experiencing: a. a delusion. b. flat affect. c. a fugue. d. a hallucination.

ANSWER: d 223. Sri was diagnosed with schizophrenia because they experienced hallucinations and delusions. Sri's hallucinations and delusions are _____ symptoms. a. positive b. negative c. depressive d. cognitive ANSWER: a 224. Nicos was diagnosed with schizophrenia. One of their symptoms is believing they have to perform a ritual every night in order for the world not to end at sunset. Another symptom Nicos experiences is that they hear voices that are constantly criticizing what they are doing. Nicos's symptoms would be defined as _____ symptoms of schizophrenia. a. positive b. negative c. dissociative .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice d. stress-related ANSWER: a 225. _____ are behaviors that are lacking in people with schizophrenia, but that are usually present in people without the disorder. a. Delusions b. Hallucinations c. Negative symptoms d. Positive symptoms ANSWER: c 226. Negative symptoms are defined as: a. completely false beliefs that a person with schizophrenia believes to be reality. b. false sensations or perceptions. c. behaviors that are lacking in people with schizophrenia. d. behaviors that are present or excessive in people with schizophrenia.

ANSWER: c 227. A reduction or absence of appropriate emotion is called: a. psychosis. b. flat affect. c. a positive symptom. d. a hallucination.

ANSWER: b 228. Elias was diagnosed with schizophrenia. One of their symptoms is that they show little emotion in response to events that would typically trigger emotional responses in other people. This symptom that Elias experiences is an example of a _____ symptom. a. positive b. negative c. stress-related d. cognitive ANSWER: b 229. If a person with schizophrenia has little or no facial expression and seems unresponsive to situations that typically cause others to respond with emotion, that person is MOST likely demonstrating: a. psychosis. b. flat affect. c. positive symptoms. d. hallucinations.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 230. Alogia, avolition, anhedonia, and flat affect are _____ symptoms of schizophrenia. a. positive b. negative c. dissociative d. cognitive ANSWER: b 231. Although hallucinations and delusions are obvious signs of schizophrenia, the first sign of schizophrenia is typically: a. social impairment. b. low cognitive ability. c. psychosis. d. dissociation.

ANSWER: a 232. The disturbed, illogical ways in which people with schizophrenia perceive and process information are _____ symptoms. a. cognitive b. negative c. positive d. psychotic ANSWER: a 233. Cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia are defined as: a. completely false beliefs that a person with schizophrenia believes to be reality. b. disturbed, illogical ways in which people with schizophrenia perceive and process information. c. behaviors that are lacking in people with schizophrenia. d. behaviors that are present or excessive in people with schizophrenia.

ANSWER: b 234. Your professor comes to class one morning and starts the lecture by saying, "I identify with the brontosaurus's salutation. The main line of artificial sweeteners don't involve cardiac arrest. Why is this moonbeam so frustrated?" Your professor's statements can BEST be described as: a. neologisms. b. negative symptoms. c. word salad. d. delusions.

ANSWER: c 235. A person who says, "I like to work but doctors don't know why the sun orbits the earth so I always run 5 miles a day" is demonstrating: a. neologisms. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. negative symptoms. c. loose associations. d. delusions.

ANSWER: c 236. Someone whose thoughts are not logically connected is MOST likely experiencing: a. neologisms. b. negative symptoms. c. loose associations. d. delusions.

ANSWER: c 237. Loose associations, word salad, and neologisms are all evidence of the _____ symptoms of schizophrenia. a. positive b. negative c. cognitive d. delusional ANSWER: c 238. Schizophrenia occurs in approximately _____% of the population. a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 10 ANSWER: a 239. Which statement about schizophrenia is true? Schizophrenia is: a. about equally common in women and men. b. more common in men than in women. c. more prevalent in rural areas. d. diagnosed more among White than Black Americans.

ANSWER: a 240. Which person is MOST at risk for a diagnosis of schizophrenia? One who: a. is a White American. b. lives in a rural area. c. is a Black American. d. is a man.

ANSWER: c 241. Research that has explored the causes of schizophrenia suggests that _____ factors are the most prominent. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. psychological b. sociocultural c. biological d. environmental ANSWER: c 242. You are taking a test on schizophrenia in your introductory psychology class. Several questions focus on how the brain of a person diagnosed with schizophrenia may differ from the brain of a person who does not have schizophrenia. Because you studied this material, you know that the brain of a person with schizophrenia is likely to have: a. larger than normal ventricles. b. a larger than normal amygdala and hippocampus. c. smaller than normal ventricles. d. a smaller than normal cerebellum and brainstem.

ANSWER: a 243. A neuropsychologist who studies the neurochemical most associated with schizophrenia is studying: a. serotonin. b. GABA. c. dopamine. d. norepinephrine.

ANSWER: c 244. Surya was diagnosed with schizophrenia. They and their family have been going to therapy to work on ways to effectively manage Surya's symptoms as well as to address other family issues. One area the therapist recommends Surya and their family work on is how they interact with one another. Surya and their family tend to be overinvolved in one another's lives and are often openly hostile with one another. This pattern of interaction is called _____ emotion. a. cognitive b. psychotic c. expressed d. categorical ANSWER: c 245. ADHD and autism spectrum disorder are classified as _____ disorders. a. neurodevelopmental b. dissociative c. psychotic d. neurocognitive ANSWER: a 246. By definition, ADHD and autism spectrum disorder first emerge: .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. during childhood. b. during early adulthood. c. during middle adulthood. d. between the ages of 18 and 25.

ANSWER: a 247. Symptoms of ADHD must be present prior to the age of: a. 5. b. 7. c. 12. d. 14.

ANSWER: c 248. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder is defined as: a. deficits in life skills and cognitive ability. b. significant social interaction deficits and rigid, repetitive patterns of behavior. c. problems with activity level, impulsivity, and/or attending to tasks. d. persistent difficulties in the acquisition and use of language.

ANSWER: c 249. To be diagnosed with ADHD, a person must show symptoms in at least _____ setting(s). a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: b 250. In class, Frank has difficulty following his teacher's instructions and staying focused on what he should be working on during class. Frank's behavior in class is disruptive because he often interrupts the teacher and will not remain seated. Frank's symptoms are MOST consistent with a diagnosis of: a. a conduct disorder. b. ADHD. c. oppositional defiant disorder. d. autism spectrum disorder.

ANSWER: b 251. Ever since Oleg was 9 years old, they've had problems focusing and is easily distracted. In school and now in their career, Oleg often forgets about or gets bored when trying to finish tasks. What disorder would Oleg MOST accurately be diagnosed with? a. autism spectrum disorder b. dissociative amnesia .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. ADHD d. psychosis ANSWER: c 252. Which statement about children with ADHD is true? Children with ADHD often: a. develop personality disorders as adults. b. develop psychosis by adolescence. c. experience academic struggles. d. have low cognitive ability.

ANSWER: c 253. _____ is a disorder emerging in childhood that features significant social interaction deficits and rigid, repetitive patterns of behavior. a. ADHD b. Oppositional defiant disorder c. Schizophrenia d. Autism spectrum disorder ANSWER: d 254. Autism spectrum disorder is defined as a disorder characterized by: a. deficits in life skills and cognitive ability. b. significant social interaction deficits and rigid, repetitive patterns of behavior. c. bizarre disturbances in thinking, perception, feelings, and behavior. d. persistent difficulties in the acquisition and use of language.

ANSWER: b 255. A psychologist conducts assessments on children suspected of having autism spectrum disorder. Many of her tests are designed for younger children because she knows that symptoms of autism spectrum disorder typically appear before a child turns _____ old. a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 1 year d. 2 years ANSWER: d 256. Riya recently started college, but it has been a frustrating experience for her. For example, if one of her professors alters an assignment or cancels class, Riya becomes extremely upset and has difficulty dealing with the changes. When Riya is upset, she tends to flap her hands or cover her ears because she feels overwhelmed.

Riya also finds it hard to make friends with other students. She feels as if she doesn't understand how to approach or talk to them. What disorder BEST corresponds to Riya's symptoms? a. mild neurocognitive disorder b. dissociative identity disorder .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. intellectual disability d. autism spectrum disorder ANSWER: d 257. A person who has problems understanding relationships and responding to social situations, and who also demonstrates repetitive patterns of behavior, MOST likely has which disorder? a. mild neurocognitive disorder b. dissociative identity disorder c. intellectual disability d. autism spectrum disorder ANSWER: d 258. According to DSM, approximately _____% of children are diagnosed with ADHD. a. 5–7 b. 8–10 c. 11–13 d. 15–17 ANSWER: a 259. According to DSM, approximately 5–7% of children are diagnosed with ADHD, although the actual rate of diagnosis in the community is approximately _____% overall. a. 7–10 b. 11–15 c. 17–20 d. 21–24 ANSWER: b 260. The person MOST likely to receive a diagnosis of ADHD is one who is: a. female. b. from the northern region of the United States. c. male. d. bilingual.

ANSWER: c 261. Approximately _____% of children are diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder, and the majority of those diagnosed are _____. a. 1–2; female b. 1–2; male c. 5–6; male d. 5–6; female ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 262. Boys are diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder at _____ times the rate of girls. a. 1.5 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5 ANSWER: d 263. Which of these factors is hypothesized to be a cause of ADHD? a. excessive video game use b. abusive parenting styles c. brain differences d. excessive TV watching ANSWER: c 264. Genetic factors _____ hypothesized to be a cause of autism spectrum disorder, and vaccine _____ hypothesized to be a cause of autism spectrum disorder. a. are; are b. are not; are c. are; are not d. are not; are not ANSWER: c 265. In _____ disorders, a person loses awareness of, or becomes disconnected from, essential parts of the self.

This can include a person's memories, emotions, or identity. a. personality b. dissociative c. schizophrenia spectrum d. autism spectrum ANSWER: b 266. Dissociative disorders are defined as: a. significant social interaction deficits and rigid, repetitive patterns of behavior. b. patterns of hallucinations, delusions, or perceptual disturbances that are obvious but change rapidly. c. periods in which there is a major mood episode with symptoms of schizophrenia. d. ones in which a person loses awareness of, or disconnection from, essential parts of the self.

ANSWER: d 267. You recently heard a story on the news about a person who walked into a police station asking for help because she had no idea who she was or how she got there. She did not know her name and had no memory of her previous life. The person in this story is MOST likely experiencing: a. a personality disorder. b. a dissociative disorder. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice c. schizophrenia. d. autism spectrum disorder.

ANSWER: b 268. The psychological disorder in which a person exhibits two or more distinct personalities is: a. dissociative identity disorder. b. dissociative fugue. c. dissociative amnesia. d. brief psychotic disorder.

ANSWER: a 269. Dissociative identity disorder occurs when a person: a. becomes unable to recall important information from their past. b. is unable to recall important information from their past and unexpectedly and without planning travels to a new location. c. experiences persistent or recurrent feelings of being detached from one's body, usually with a feeling of being an outside observer of one's life. d. exhibits two or more distinct personalities.

ANSWER: d 270. Your introductory psychology instructor discussed a case of a person who had four different personalities.

The personalities began developing after the person experienced severe trauma as a young child. Each of their personalities behaved differently from the others and had different abilities. For example, one personality liked to smoke, but the others did not. The disorder the person in the case study would MOST likely be diagnosed with is: a. dissociative identity disorder. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. dissociative amnesia. d. schizophreniform disorder.

ANSWER: a 271. You were assigned to do a paper on a psychological disorder of your choice. You chose to write your paper on the disorder in which a person has more than one distinct personality. These personalities are distinct from one another and often have different abilities and memories. What disorder did you choose to write about? a. dissociative identity disorder b. dissociative fugue c. dissociative amnesia d. schizophreniform disorder ANSWER: a 272. _____ is BEST defined as a condition that occurs when a person becomes unable to recall important information from the past, typically when it was preceded by a traumatic event. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice a. Psychosis b. Dissociative fugue c. Dissociative amnesia d. Schizophrenia ANSWER: c 273. Dissociative amnesia is defined as: a. persistent or recurrent feelings of being detached from one's body or mental processes. b. having two or more personalities that are distinct from one another. c. sudden, unexpected travel to a new location accompanied by an inability to recall important information. d. the inability to recall important information from one's past.

ANSWER: d 274. When he was a child, Vihaan experienced a traumatic event. However, Vihaan has no memory of that event, although he can remember events that happened before it as well as events that happened after it.

Vihaan's experience of forgetting this period of his life is BEST described as: a. psychosis. b. dissociative fugue. c. dissociative amnesia. d. dissociative identity disorder.

ANSWER: c 275. A recent study examined the effect of trauma on the ability to remember information. The study focused on a person's inability to recall information during a specific period of time and how trauma may trigger this period of forgetting. What concept did this study focus on? a. dissociative fugue b. depersonalization-realization c. dissociative amnesia d. dissociative identity disorder ANSWER: c 276. _____occurs when a person is unable to remember important information from the past and travels to a new location unexpectedly and without planning to do so. a. Psychosis b. Dissociative fugue c. Dissociative amnesia d. Schizophrenia ANSWER: b 277. Dissociative fugue is defined as: a. persistent or recurrent feelings of being detached from one's body or mental processes. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice b. having two or more personalities that are distinct from one another. c. sudden, unexpected travel to a new location accompanied by an inability to recall important information. d. the inability to recall important information from one's past.

ANSWER: c 278. On a popular podcast, unusual disappearances are discussed. In a recent episode, the podcasters discussed a person who walked into a library in a small town, asking for help because they didn't know where they were.

They had no memory of the events of the last week, including how they'd gotten to the town. The experience of this person is BEST described as: a. a dissociative fugue. b. a cognitive symptom. c. schizophrenia. d. dissociative identity disorder.

ANSWER: a 279. In your introductory psychology class, you learned about an experience people can have after they experience a traumatic event in which they cannot remember information about themselves for a period of time.

In some cases, these people will also suddenly travel to a new location without any memory of doing so. What is this experience called? a. a dissociative fugue b. psychosis c. a cognitive symptom d. dissociative identity disorder ANSWER: a 280. When people cannot recall information about themselves for a period of time, they have experienced _____. When this occurs and they also suddenly and unexpectedly travel to a new location, they have experienced _____. a. psychosis; dissociative amnesia b. dissociative amnesia; dissociative identity disorder c. dissociative fugue; dissociative amnesia d. dissociative amnesia; dissociative fugue ANSWER: d 281. Which statement about dissociative disorders is true? a. Dissociative disorders are extremely rare. b. Psychologists generally agree that dissociative identity disorder is a valid disorder. c. Verifiable cases of dissociative disorders increased significantly beginning in the 1970s. d. The prevalence of dissociative disorders affects approximately 10% of the population.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice 282. _____ disorders are based on an enduring pattern of inflexible and maladaptive behavior that appears across a wide range of situations and interferes with interpersonal interactions. a. Dissociative b. Autism spectrum c. Anxiety d. Personality ANSWER: d 283. Personality disorders are: a. persistent or recurrent experiences of an inability to recall important information from one's past. b. periods of psychosis, cognitive dysfunction, and delusions. c. disorders that involve distressing, chronic anxiety that is inappropriately severe. d. enduring patterns of inflexible and maladaptive behavior that appears across a wide range of situations and interferes with interpersonal interactions.

ANSWER: d 284. Natsuki recently began a new job. She likes most of her coworkers, although she finds her coworker Stan difficult to work with. With everyone, even their boss, Stan is arrogant and critical. Stan is frustrating to work with because he insists on doing things his way, even when his way clearly will not work. Stan also blames everyone except himself for his problems at work. Although Natsuki may not realize it, Stan MOST likely has: a. schizophrenia. b. an anxiety disorder. c. a dissociative disorder. d. a personality disorder.

ANSWER: d 285. A person whose behavior is rigid and inflexible and therefore has difficulty with interpersonal interactions MOST likely has: a. a personality disorder. b. an anxiety disorder. c. schizophrenia. d. a dissociative disorder.

ANSWER: a 286. Borderline personality disorder is a psychological disorder: a. based on instability in many areas of a person's life, including interpersonal relationships, mood, and self-image. b. in which a person is socially fearful, self-conscious, easily embarrassed in front of others, and sees self as incompetent. c. based on a pattern of egotistical, entitled, and self-important behaviors in which a person sees self as superior to others. d. based on a disregard for, and violation of, the rights of other people. .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 287. _____ personality disorder is based on instability in many areas of a person's life, including interpersonal relationships, mood, and self-image. a. Antisocial b. Borderline c. Histrionic d. Narcissistic ANSWER: b 288. Susumu has always had trouble with their personal relationships. While they make friends quickly, their friendships usually don't last because Susumu tends to demand to be with their new friend all the time. When the new friend resists, Susumu suddenly gets angry with them because they feel the person is neglecting or abandoning them. Susumu's thought and behavior patterns BEST align with _____ personality disorder. a. antisocial b. borderline c. avoidant d. narcissistic ANSWER: b 289. A person who has extreme mood changes, an unstable self-image, and chaotic or unstable relationships MOST likely has _____ personality disorder. a. antisocial b. borderline c. histrionic d. narcissistic ANSWER: b 290. _____ personality disorder is a disorder based on a disregard for, and violation of, the rights of other people. a. Antisocial b. Borderline c. Histrionic d. Narcissistic ANSWER: a 291. Antisocial personality disorder is a disorder: a. based on instability in many areas of a person's life, including interpersonal relationships, mood, and self-image. b. in which a person is socially fearful, self-conscious, easily embarrassed in front of others, and sees self as incompetent. c. based on a pattern of egotistical, entitled, and self-important behaviors in which a person sees self as .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice superior to others. d. based on a disregard for, and violation of, the rights of other people.

ANSWER: d 292. A person who lies, exploits others, lacks remorse, and has no empathy for people that person hurts would MOST likely be diagnosed with _____ personality disorder. a. antisocial b. borderline c. histrionic d. narcissistic ANSWER: a 293. Arieh was recently convicted of embezzling money from their aging relatives. During their trial, Arieh said that they deserved the money more than their relatives and that what they did was not wrong. Arieh would MOST likely be diagnosed with _____ personality disorder. a. antisocial b. borderline c. avoidant d. narcissistic ANSWER: a 294. Collectively, about _____% of the population could be diagnosed with a personality disorder. a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 ANSWER: c 295. Approximately _____% of those diagnosed with borderline personality disorder are women. a. 100 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 ANSWER: d 296. The prevalence rate of borderline personality disorder is approximately _____%, and of those diagnosed with the disorder, _____% are women. a. 1; 50 b. 1; 75 c. 5; 65 d. 10; 75 .

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Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 297. Approximately _____% of those diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder are men. a. 25 b. 45 c. 66 d. 75 ANSWER: c

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Chapter 15 - Essay 1. Describe the history of the treatment of psychological disorders. First, discuss when the treatment of psychological issues began, what was thought to cause the symptoms of psychological disorders, and how the disorders were treated. Name and describe one person who and their efforts that helped move toward better understanding of and treatment of people with psychological disorders.

ANSWER: Treatment of the symptoms associated with psychological disorders has been around since ancient times. People presenting with psychological disorders were thought to be possessed by evil demons.

The treatments of these symptoms included imprisonment and torture like bloodletting. At the close of the 1700s, sentiment toward people with psychological disorders began to change for the better.

English philanthropist Willian Turke opened York retreat that provided people with mental illness far better living conditions. French physician Phillipe Pinel helped improve policy of the treatment of people with psychological disorders. U.S. physician Eli Todd rallied for improved treatment of people with mental illness, and his efforts resulted in the opening of a mental hospital. U.S. teacher Dorothea Dix worked toward the creation of more institutions for people with mental illness, especially to rehome individuals in the prison system.

2. Compare and contrast biomedical therapy and psychotherapy. For each approach, discuss how a person would be treated after a diagnosis of major depressive disorder.

ANSWER: Biomedical therapy and psychotherapy both seek to treat psychological disorders. The two therapies differ in how treatment is administered and conceptualized; however, they are often used in conjunction with one another. In biomedical therapy, psychological disorders are thought to be due to dysfunction of the brain's biology or functioning. Therefore, treatment focuses on directly altering the brain. These treatments include medications, psychosurgery, or brain stimulation. For treatment of major depressive disorder, there are several biomedical options. A client may be prescribed antidepressant medications, antianxiety medications, or both. Electroconvulsive therapy and transcranial magnetic stimulation are sometimes used for drug-resistant major depression.

In psychotherapy, the goal is to improve some aspect of emotional, cognitive, or behavioral functioning. There are many approaches to therapy including psychodynamic therapy, cognitive therapy, person-centered therapy, and behavior therapy. Treatment of major depressive disorder with psychotherapy will vary depending on the type of therapy used by a counselor. A psychodynamic therapist would seek to uncover a client's unconscious material that could be causing the depressive disorder and bring it to the client's awareness to be dealt with. A cognitive therapist would focus on the illogical thoughts a client has about life events that cause the depression and seek to change the client's thinking to be more logical. A behavior therapist would focus on the client's behaviors that result in symptoms of depression and use classical or operant conditioning to change those behaviors. A person-centered therapist would help the client unblock the client's actualizing tendency, which they believe causes psychological problems like depression.

3. Consider this scenario: A friend of yours is about to start therapy with a psychodynamic therapist. She tells you that she is not sure what therapy will be like and what the therapist will do. Describe how you would explain psychodynamic therapy to your friend.

ANSWER: I would explain to my friend that psychodynamic therapy is one of many types of therapy. With this type of therapy, based on the theories of Sigmund Freud, the therapist's primary focus will be to uncover the client's unconscious material and bring it to her awareness so that it can be dealt with consciously. To do so, the therapist will use techniques such as free association and dream analysis.

Free association is when a therapist encourages the client to say whatever comes to mind without censoring at all. Dream analysis is when a client and therapist attempt to find the underlying meaning of the client's dreams. I would also explain that the therapist will also identify any .

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Chapter 15 - Essay resistance and transference she may have. Resistance is any client behavior that blocks discussion or conscious awareness of anxiety-provoking topics. Transference is when a client has unconscious and unrealistic expectations for the therapist to behave like an important person from the client's past.

Finally, I would tell my friend that the key to her therapy will be her therapist making interpretations. These interpretations are connections between her unconscious material and current behavior, thoughts, or feelings. The interpretations will be used in her working through phase of therapy. In this phase, her therapist's interpretations will be repeated, reconsidered, and given a chance to gradually sink in.

4. Your friend knows you learned about psychological disorders and their treatment in a psychology class. They are particularly interested in the person-centered approach and ask how therapy is conducted from this approach. Describe how you would explain the traditional approach to person-centered therapy, the required therapist characteristics, and any techniques used.

ANSWER: I would explain to my friend that person-centered therapy is one of many types of therapies used to treat psychological disorders. This approach is based on the theories of Carl Rogers, and it emphasizes a person's inherent tendency toward healthy growth. This tendency is called selfactualization. Person-centered therapists believe that psychological problems are caused by the selfactualization tendency being blocked. Therefore, therapy focuses on helping clients return to their own self-actualization tendencies. This will guide the client back to happiness and psychological health. To encourage unblocking the self-actualization tendency, therapists must have three essential characteristics that they bring to the therapeutic relationship: empathy, unconditional positive regard, and genuineness. Empathy is a therapist's ability to sense the client's emotions just as the client would, and to then respond compassionately. Unconditional positive regard is a therapist's full acceptance of the client without any conditions or limitations. Genuineness is a therapist's truthfulness, realness, and honesty, as opposed to falsely playing the therapist role.

I would tell my friend that person-centered therapists do not rely heavily on techniques, per se, but do use the technique of reflection. With this technique, a therapist listens closely and actively, then restates the client's words in a way that highlights the client's feelings.

5. Compare and contrast psychodynamic therapy and person-centered therapy. Choose a psychological disorder (e.g., depression, addiction, anxiety) or a difficulty with emotional, cognitive, or behavioral functioning (e.g., problems with a relationship, work, or a major life event), and explain how the disorder or difficulty would be treated with psychodynamic therapy and with person-centered therapy.

ANSWER: Psychodynamic therapy and person-centered therapy are both types of psychotherapies. The two types of therapy share the common goal of helping clients overcome a psychological disorder or improve some aspect of emotional, cognitive, or behavioral functioning. However, the therapies conceptualize the cause of disorders differently and use different techniques in the therapy process.

In the psychodynamic approach, the primary focus is to uncover clients' unconscious material and bring it to their awareness so that it can be dealt with consciously. To do so, their therapist will use techniques such as free association and dream analysis. Free association is when a therapist encourages the client to say whatever comes to mind without censoring at all. In dream analysis, a client and therapist attempt to find the underlying meaning of the client's dreams. Therapists will also work with any resistance and transference the client may have. Resistance is any client behavior that blocks discussion or conscious awareness of anxiety-provoking topics. Transference is when a client has unconscious and unrealistic expectations for the therapist to behave like an important person from the client's past. Therapists also will make interpretations, which are connections .

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Chapter 15 - Essay between clients' unconscious material and current behavior, thoughts, or feelings. These interpretations are used in the clients' working through phase of therapy. In this phase, the therapist's interpretations are repeated, reconsidered, and given a chance to gradually sink in.

Person-centered therapists believe that psychological disorders are caused by the self-actualization tendency being blocked. Therefore, the primary focus of person-centered therapy is to help clients unblock their self-actualization tendencies. By doing so, clients will be able to return to happiness and psychological health. Person-centered therapy tends to be nondirective, where the client, rather than the therapist, takes the lead and determines the course of therapy. As such, the nature of the relationship that the therapist forms with the client is of utmost importance. To be effective, therapists must have three essential characteristics: empathy, unconditional positive regard, and genuineness. Empathy is a therapist's ability to sense the client's emotions just as the client would, and to then respond compassionately. Unconditional positive regard is a therapist's full acceptance of the client without any conditions or limitations. Genuineness is a therapist's truthfulness, realness, and honesty, as opposed to falsely playing the therapist role. A technique used in person-centered therapy is reflection. Reflection involves a therapist listening to a client closely and actively, then restating their words in a way that highlights their feelings.

[Examples will vary. The student answers should contain the key therapeutic techniques and concepts for each therapy approach as applied to their chosen example.]

6. Imagine a person has a phobia of blood. Explain how a behavior therapist would use systematic desensitization to help this person. Discuss how relaxation training and an anxiety hierarchy are used in this process.

ANSWER: Systematic desensitization is a form of exposure therapy in which a client experiences the pairing of relaxation with something that causes the patient anxiety. A client undergoing systematic desensitization for blood phobia would therefore pair relaxation with exposure to blood. By doing so, the trigger for the client's negative reaction to blood is paired with relaxation, which prevents the client's negative reaction to blood from occurring. In other words, the feeling of relaxation will prevent the anxiety about blood from occurring.

The first step of systematic desensitization is relaxation training. Relaxation training can take a variety of forms (e.g., instructing the client to tense and release various muscles in the body). Once clients can relax themselves during the session, the therapist exposes them to the items on their anxiety hierarchy while they remain in that relaxed state. An anxiety hierarchy is a list of anxietyproducing situations from least anxiety-producing to most anxiety-producing. For a blood phobia, the least anxiety-producing situation might be something similar to discussing blood with another person and the most anxiety-producing holding blood in a sealed test tube. As the client progresses through the anxiety hierarchy in a relaxed state, the anxiety caused by exposure to blood will steadily decrease.

7. A person is receiving REBT therapy for severe test anxiety. Describe how the person's therapist would conceptualize the cause of the person's test anxiety and how the therapist would treat the anxiety.

ANSWER: An REBT therapist would conceptualize the test anxiety as being caused by how the person thinks about life events (e.g., tests). How people think about things that happen to them has a major impact on how they feel. A person's anxiety is not caused by events in their life but rather how they think about those events.

In REBT, therapists challenge their clients' illogical beliefs and encourage them to adopt more logical ones. Therapists also point out how those illogical beliefs contribute to clients' symptoms and encourage them to challenge their own thoughts and develop new ones. REBT does so using the .

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Chapter 15 - Essay ABCDE model of cognitive therapy. In the ABCDE model, therapists work with clients to identify the sequence that leads from a client's illogical thinking to logical thinking about particular life events. In this model, each letter stands for a step in the therapeutic sequence: activating event, belief, consequence (emotional), dispute, and effective new belief. To treat the test anxiety, the therapist and client would identify what triggers the client's thinking processes leading to the irrational thoughts about tests and test taking (activating event). They would then determine how the client thinks about the triggering event (belief), and the emotional outcomes from that thinking (consequence). Then the therapist would provide evidence refuting the client's beliefs about tests and test-taking (dispute), and help generate new beliefs (effective new belief). The overall goal is for the person to develop new, logical beliefs about tests and test-taking so that their symptoms of test anxiety are decreased.

8. Compare and contrast aversive conditioning and token economy. Also describe how behavioral activation and participant modeling are used to change behaviors in the treatment of psychological disorders.

ANSWER: Aversive conditioning and token economy are both strategies used in behavior therapy. The two types of techniques share the common goal of helping clients overcome a psychological disorder or improve some aspect of their behavioral functioning, and they both operate on the fundamentals of operant conditioning. However, aversive conditioning utilizes punishment to decrease a behavior and token economy uses positive reinforcement to increase a behavior. Behavioral activation increases behaviors by encouraging people who are depressed to perform actions they do more frequently when not depressed. Participant modeling allows a client to watch someone else perform the target behavior to increase the likelihood that the client will properly perform the target behavior.

9. Compare and contrast the eclectic approach to therapy and the integrative approach to therapy. Give an example illustrating each approach.

ANSWER: The eclectic approach to therapy is one in which a psychotherapist does not have a preference for a particular type or types of psychotherapy. In this approach, a psychotherapist will select the best type of treatment for a particular client based on evidence from studies of similar clients. For example, a psychotherapist treating a person with a phobia might choose to use exposure therapy as this approach has been proven to work well in treating phobias.

The integrative approach to therapy is one in which a psychotherapist believes that two or more therapies are valuable and that a valuable new type of therapy can be created by blending them together. For example, cognitive-behavioral therapy is an approach that blends the styles and techniques of cognitive therapy and behavior therapy. This approach has been used by many psychotherapists who believe that each type of therapy has elements that work well and may work even better together.

10. Compare and contrast a self-help group and group therapy. Give an example to illustrate each type of therapy.

ANSWER: Group therapy is psychotherapy conducted with a group of clients and with an emphasis on interpersonal interaction. Group therapy gives clients the chance to relate to new people (fellow group members), get feedback from them about the interaction, and then decide if they want to change it. Groups can vary in size and can be made up of people with similar characteristics or disorders, or they can be varied. Groups can also vary in the number of therapists present (either one or two). An example of group therapy is a group run by a social worker at a local hospice for people .

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Chapter 15 - Essay who have recently lost a loved one. In this group, people all have a similar issue and the group is run by a mental health professional. A self-help group also involves a small group of people working with different types of issues, but with a self-help group, there is no professional therapist leading the group. Groups are often organized and run by a veteran member of the group who has the experience to do so. Self-help groups typically center around a particular problem (e.g., alcohol use) and often consist of low-cost or free meetings. An example of a self-help group is one in which the family and friends of a person who has an alcohol addiction meet once a week or more to discuss challenges they face. Groups such as these are often community-based and run by people who have attended or run meetings before.

11. Discuss what is meant by "common factors" and describe the three best-supported common factors in psychotherapy.

ANSWER: Common factors are the elements found in all forms of effective psychotherapy that play an important role in client improvement. They are much like the active ingredient in toothpaste. In psychotherapy, rather than the type of therapy being conducted or the level of experience of the therapist, the most active ingredient appears to be the therapeutic alliance, which is a trusting and collaborative relationship in which the therapist and client work toward shared goals. Other important common factors include positive expectations and attention to problems. In other words, effective therapists will provide clients with a sense of hope, and they also focus their attention on a client's problem rather than ignoring, neglecting, or avoiding it.

12. Imagine you are a therapist and have your first session with a new client. In your first session, the client tells you they are worried that what they discuss will not be private. They are also unclear on how therapy works.

Discuss how you would explain the therapy process and confidentiality to your client. Include the process of informed consent in your discussion.

ANSWER: As a therapist, I would explain that therapy is a collaborative process between the client and myself.

I would discuss that the goal of therapy is to help a client with a psychological problem or difficulty with emotional, behavioral, or cognitive functioning. I would also take time to explain my theoretical approach to therapy and how that kind of therapy is conducted. For example, if I were a psychodynamic therapist, I would explain that our goal is to bring a client's unconscious material to that person's awareness so that they can deal with it consciously. I would also explain the types of techniques I would use as a psychodynamic therapist. I would additionally talk to a client about how often we would meet and how long therapy would be expected to last.

Before beginning therapy, I would get permission from my client to proceed. By explaining what therapy entails and then getting the client's permission to proceed, I have obtained informed consent.

Informed consent (often both in written form and verbal) is necessary whenever treating a client.

As a part of my explanation of therapy, I would explain confidentiality to my client—that what they say in the therapy sessions will not be shared with anyone except in certain situations, where I'd be obligated to break confidentiality in order to protect the well-being of the client or someone else.

One of those situations is if the client reports ongoing child abuse. Other situations include if a client has threatened to harm themselves or others. Except in these types of cases, I would not reveal what a client has discussed in a therapy session.

13. Recently, you have been considering going to therapy and are thinking of doing so via the Internet. You are debating if you would prefer telepsychology over face-to-face therapy. What advantages and disadvantages of telepsychology should you consider before deciding? .

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Chapter 15 - Essay ANSWER: One advantage of telepsychology is that it can be delivered in multiple ways. Telepsychology can be done on a phone, computer, or tablet. It can also be delivered using videoconferencing, text, e-mail, or through apps. Another advantage of telepsychology is that a person may be able to see therapists specializing in a particular disorder even when they do not live near them. For people who have difficulty leaving home due to a physical or mental disorder, telepsychology allows them to still be able to receive therapy. Finally, research suggests that traditional forms of therapy and telepsychology work equally well for the same diagnoses.

One drawback of telepsychology is that a person must possess the technological skills needed to participate in therapy. Also, if a person does not have the type of technology needed, they may not be able to access or afford to buy it. Another drawback of telepsychology is that people are able to disguise their identity on the Internet, making it possible for imposters to present themselves as legitimately trained therapists. Even when telepsychologists are legitimate, they must be expert enough in the technology to deal with computer problems when they arise. Another potential drawback is with nonverbal communication. Nonverbal communication can be more difficult when using telepsychology.

14. Discuss the types of biomedical therapies discussed in your text that would MOST likely be used to treat schizophrenia. Include how these treatments work in your discussion.

ANSWER: The biomedical treatments that would most likely be used for schizophrenia are antipsychotic medications and electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Antipsychotic drugs are medications used to reduce psychotic symptoms. Antipsychotics reduce the positive symptoms of schizophrenia by changing dopamine levels.

In more severe cases of schizophrenia where medications have failed to work, ECT is an option that involves passing an electric current through the brain of the client. The current is delivered via electrodes attached to the client's head as the person lies in a hospital bed. The current causes a seizure or a convulsion. Although ECT works well in alleviating severe symptoms of schizophrenia, researchers are not sure why this happens. Unfortunately, TMS, during which a weak electric current repeatedly pulses through a paddle-shaped magnetic coil just outside a client's head, does not seem to work for schizophrenia as ECT does.

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice 1. According to your textbook, treatment for psychological problems has existed in one form or another since: a. the early 1800s. b. ancient times. c. the 1950s. d. the Middle Ages.

ANSWER: b 2. Prior to the mid-1700s, psychological disorders were thought to be caused by: a. brain damage. b. sinful behavior. c. possession by the devil or evil spirits. d. undiagnosed medical problems.

ANSWER: c 3. In your psychology class, your professor discussed a discovery by a team of archaeologists of several skulls with holes cut in them at a prehistoric burial site in southern Russia. Your professor explained that the holes in these skulls were MOST likely made in an effort to: a. relieve the pressure on the brain, which was thought to make a person behave immorally. b. create space for the brain to expand in people with severe fevers. c. decrease children's disobedient and disruptive behaviors. d. allow the evil spirits thought to cause mental illnesses to escape the brain.

ANSWER: d 4. In the late 1700s and early 1800s, people with psychological problems began to be: a. recognized as deserving real treatment and humane living conditions. b. shunned and kept away from society in mental institutions. c. believed to be possessed by the devil or evil spirits. d. thought to have caused their problems due to their sinful behavior.

ANSWER: a 5. In the late 1700s and early 1800s, the English philanthropist _____ opened the York Retreat, a home for the mentally ill. a. Sigmund Freud b. William Tuke c. Philippe Pinel d. Eli Todd ANSWER: b 6. In France, the physician _____ was responsible for early efforts to institute long-lasting changes to improve the treatment of the mentally ill. a. Eli Todd b. William Tuke .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice c. Dorothea Dix d. Philippe Pinel ANSWER: d 7. The first mental hospital in Connecticut opened in 1824 due to the efforts of the American physician _____, who was inspired by progress in the treatment of the mentally ill in Europe. a. William Tuke b. Dorothea Dix c. Philippe Pinel d. Eli Todd ANSWER: d 8. In the United States, 30 state institutions for the mentally ill were created due to the efforts of _____, a Sunday school teacher working in a Boston jail. a. Eli Todd b. William Tuke c. Philippe Pinel d. Dorothea Dix ANSWER: d 9. Dorothea Dix was responsible for the creation of 30 state institutions for the mentally ill in the United States.

Dix's efforts were primarily inspired by: a. placement of the mentally ill in jails because of a lack of facilities to care for them. b. the use of electroshock therapy on the mentally ill without their consent. c. the inhumane treatment of the mentally ill in existing mental institutions. d. her own inadequate treatment while in a mental institution.

ANSWER: a 10. Collectively, the efforts of reformers like _____ changed society's attitude toward the treatment of the mentally ill. a. Rogers, Freud, Ellis, and Beck b. Benjamin, Alexander, Cautin, and Dix c. Tuke, Pinel, Todd, and Dix d. Freud, Pinel, Todd, and Alexander ANSWER: c 11. _____ is a treatment in which mental health professionals use various techniques to help a person overcome a psychological disorder or improve emotional, cognitive, or behavioral functioning. a. Psychotherapy b. Psychosurgery c. Personalization d. Psychopharmacology .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 12. Psychotherapy is BEST described as a treatment in which mental health professionals _____ to help them overcome a psychological disorder or improve emotional, cognitive, or behavioral functioning. a. perform surgery directly on a person's brain b. use various techniques with a person c. prescribe medications to a person d. send electrical signals through a person's brain ANSWER: b 13. Dakota has a depressive disorder. Dakota's therapist uses various techniques to help them overcome their depressed mood and improve their cognitive functioning. What type of treatment is Dakota MOST likely undergoing? a. biomedical therapy b. psychotherapy c. electroconvulsive shock therapy d. psychopharmacology ANSWER: b 14. A therapist who uses various techniques to help clients overcome their psychological disorders or to improve their emotional, cognitive, or behavioral functioning is MOST likely using: a. psychotherapy. b. biomedical therapy. c. psychosurgery. d. culturally competent therapy.

ANSWER: a 15. In _____, psychological problems are treated using medications or medical procedures that directly change the biology of the brain. a. nondirective therapy b. exposure therapy c. biomedical therapy d. counterconditioning ANSWER: c 16. Biomedical therapy involves medications or medical procedures that treat psychological problems by directly changing: a. the biology of the brain. b. a person's cognitive functioning. c. one's emotional reactions. d. the problematic behaviors of a person.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice 17. Psychotherapy often goes by the name _____ therapy to distinguish it from treatments that involve medications. a. group b. biomedical c. talk d. individual ANSWER: c 18. Psychotherapy is often also called: a. group therapy. b. biomedical therapy. c. talk therapy. d. pharmacotherapy ANSWER: c 19. Over _____ of Americans undergo some form of psychotherapy in their lifetimes. a. one-eighth b. one-quarter c. one-third d. one-half ANSWER: d 20. According to research findings about the range of problems for which college students seek counseling, the MOST common concern is: a. depression. b. stress. c. anxiety. d. family.

ANSWER: c 21. Dane just started college and was referred to the counseling center. Consistent with research findings about the range of problems for which college students seek counseling, it is MOST likely the case that Dane is experiencing: a. anxiety and/or depression. b. sleep disturbances. c. self-esteem and/or confidence issues. d. relationship problems.

ANSWER: a 22. Sigmund Freud was responsible for developing which approach to psychotherapy? a. psychoanalysis .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice b. person-centered therapy c. behavior therapy d. cognitive therapy ANSWER: a 23. Which theorist developed psychoanalysis? a. Carl Rogers b. Sigmund Freud c. Albert Ellis d. Aaron Beck ANSWER: b 24. _____ is an approach to psychotherapy in which the main goal is to help clients become more aware of thoughts and feelings of which they were unaware at the start of therapy. a. Cognitive therapy b. Behavior therapy c. Psychoanalysis d. Person-centered therapy ANSWER: c 25. Psychoanalysis is an approach to psychotherapy: a. that emphasizes the tendency toward healthy growth inherent in each person. b. that applies operant and classical conditioning to change outward behavior. c. in which therapists help clients change the way they think about life events. d. in which the main goal is to make the unconscious conscious.

ANSWER: d 26. _____ therapy is a type of therapy that includes the goal of making the unconscious conscious, but is briefer and more focused on the client's current life than psychoanalysis. a. Psychodynamic b. Cognitive c. Person-centered d. Behavior ANSWER: a 27. Both Dr. Pelletier's and Dr. DiLiegro's approach to therapy is to help clients become more aware of the thoughts and feelings of which they were previously unaware. Dr. Pelletier focuses mostly on the past life of their clients, whereas Dr. DiLiegro focuses mostly on the current life of their clients. Dr. Pelletier tends to take a longer time with their clients than does Dr. DiLiegro. It is MOST likely that Dr. Pelletier's approach to therapy is _____ and Dr. DiLiegro's approach to therapy is _____. a. psychoanalysis; psychoanalysis b. psychoanalysis; psychodynamic .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice c. Psychodynamic; psychoanalysis d. psychodynamic; psychodynamic ANSWER: b 28. A therapist who focuses on a clients' present life instead of their past and who helps clients become more aware of thoughts and feelings of which they were unaware at the start of therapy MOST likely practices: a. REBT. b. psychoanalysis. c. psychodynamic therapy. d. person-centered therapy.

ANSWER: c 29. _____ is a Freudian term often used to describe the process of looking inside oneself and seeing something that had previously gone unnoticed. a. Free association b. Insight c. Dream analysis d. Transference ANSWER: b 30. Your sibling tells you that they decided to major in chemistry because they suddenly realized that they wanted to understand the basics of what matter is composed of and how things react together. In making this realization, your sibling demonstrated what Freud called the process of: a. insight. b. reflection. c. transference. d. generalization.

ANSWER: a 31. _____ is a psychodynamic technique that involves attempting to find the underlying meaning of a client's thoughts, emotions, and images that occur during sleep. a. Pharmacotherapy b. Working through c. Transference d. Dream analysis ANSWER: d 32. In therapy, Tymon and their therapist are discussing the underlying meaning of a nightmare Tymon had two nights prior. Tymon's therapist is MOST likely using which therapeutic technique? a. pharmacotherapy b. dream analysis c. reflection .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice d. transference ANSWER: b 33. As a psychodynamic therapist, Dr. Cohen tries to understand clients' unconscious material. One technique Dr. Cohen finds particularly useful is _____, in which the symbolic expressions of a client's unconscious wishes are explored. a. behavior modification b. dream analysis c. reflection d. transference ANSWER: b 34. When a client blocks discussion or conscious awareness of anxiety-producing topics, psychodynamic therapists call this: a. transference. b. reflection. c. resistance. d. mental filtering.

ANSWER: c 35. The psychodynamic concept of resistance is BEST reflected by a client demonstrating: a. acceptance. b. openness. c. avoidance. d. awareness.

ANSWER: c 36. In therapy, Huppi often gets angry and refuses to talk further when their therapist brings up certain topics.

Huppi's therapist believes that when Huppi does this, they are demonstrating the concept of: a. transference. b. personalization. c. dream analysis. d. resistance.

ANSWER: d 37. Paaka has seen Dr. Crowfoot for therapy for just over a month. Recently, Paaka and Dr. Crowfoot started discussing Paaka's childhood experience of the loss of their mother. Since then, Dr. Crowfoot noticed that Paaka makes jokes when the topic comes up and abruptly changes the subject. Paaka also seems less open in therapy and hesitant to tell Dr. Crowfoot anything, leading Dr. Crowfoot to believe that Paaka is MOST likely demonstrating: a. personalization. b. resistance. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice c. insight. d. empathy.

ANSWER: b 38. _____ happens when a client unconsciously and unrealistically expects the client's therapist to behave like an important person from the client's past. a. Transference b. Resistance c. Reflection d. Working through ANSWER: a 39. The psychodynamic concept of transference is MOST characterized by: a. hallucinations. b. false beliefs. c. rational thoughts. d. evidence-based conclusions.

ANSWER: b 40. Dr. Beaudoin is a psychodynamic therapist. Recently, Dr. Beaudoin noticed that their client Yvonne has started interacting with them in the same way Yvonne describes interacting with their aunt who raised them.

Yvonne seems unaware that they are treating Dr. Beaudoin in this manner. What concept is Yvonne MOST likely demonstrating? a. insight b. working through c. transference d. interpretation ANSWER: c 41. In psychodynamic therapy, _____ is a therapist's attempt to make the connection between a client's unconscious material and the client's current behavior, thoughts, or feelings. a. transference b. interpretation c. reflection d. free association ANSWER: b 42. A primary task for psychodynamic therapists is to help clients recognize their unconscious material by making connections between the material and their current behaviors, thoughts, or feelings. Therapists often approach this task by using a technique called: a. transference. b. countertransference. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice c. personalization. d. interpretation.

ANSWER: d 43. Liliana is the lead singer in a popular band. Lately, she has been experiencing severe anxiety before concerts. Liliana is seeing Dr. Alvarez to work on her anxiety. Throughout therapy, Dr. Alvarez has helped Liliana recognize the ways in which her unconscious beliefs have resulted in her increased feelings of anxiety.

In doing so, Dr. Alvarez is using the psychoanalytic technique of: a. insight. b. resistance. c. transference. d. interpretation.

ANSWER: d 44. _____ is a lengthy phase of psychodynamic therapy in which interpretations are repeated, reconsidered, and given a chance to gradually sink in. a. Working through b. Reflection c. Insight d. Motivational interviewing ANSWER: a 45. Maiko has been in therapy with Dr. Gomyo for nearly a year. During the therapy process, Dr. Goymo has made connections between Maiko's unconscious material and their thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Over time, Maiko processed and accepted Dr. Goymo's interpretations, incorporating them into their views of themself and their disorder. Maiko's processing of Dr. Goymo's interpretations is called: a. transference. b. personalization. c. working through. d. insight.

ANSWER: c 46. _____ therapy is a particular form of psychodynamic therapy where the therapist attempts to improve the client's ability to form healthy relationships. a. Person-centered b. Traditional c. Group-centered d. Interpersonal ANSWER: d 47. Person-centered therapy is based on the theories of: a. Sigmund Freud. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice b. Albert Ellis. c. Aaron Beck. d. Carl Rogers.

ANSWER: d 48. _____ therapy is also known as humanistic theory. a. Psychodynamic b. Behavioral c. Person-centered d. Rational-emotive ANSWER: c 49. The approach to therapy that emphasizes the tendency toward healthy growth inherent in each person and is based on the theories of Carl Rogers is: a. person-centered therapy. b. psychoanalysis. c. exposure therapy. d. rational-emotive behavior therapy.

ANSWER: a 50. Person-centered therapy is an approach to therapy: a. that applies operant and classical conditioning to change outward behavior. b. that emphasizes the tendency toward healthy growth inherent in each person. c. in which therapists help clients change the way they think about life events. d. in which the main goal is to make the unconscious conscious.

ANSWER: b 51. A person-centered therapist would MOST likely say people's psychological problems are due to: a. how they think about life events. b. their limited awareness of their thoughts and feelings. c. the biology of their brain. d. their self-actualization tendency being blocked.

ANSWER: d 52. In therapy, Dr. Gurevitch focuses on helping their clients return to their own self-actualization tendencies, which they believe will guide their clients back to happiness and psychological health. Which approach to therapy is Dr. Gurevitch MOST likely using? a. psychodynamic therapy b. psychoanalysis. c. person-centered therapy d. behavioral therapy .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: c 53. As a therapist, Dr. Alvarado considers himself a facilitator who helps his clients help themselves by reconnecting with their own tendencies toward healthy growth. Dr. Alvarado believes that his clients have the capacity within themselves to overcome their own psychological problems. Dr. Alvarado MOST likely identifies as a _____ therapist. a. psychodynamic b. cognitive c. person-centered d. behavioral ANSWER: c 54. _____ is a style of therapy in which the client, rather than the therapist, determines the course of therapy. a. Nondirective therapy b. Rational-emotive behavior therapy c. Interpersonal therapy d. Motivational interviewing ANSWER: a 55. Tomasz has just started therapy with Dr. Zaseybida. In their first session, Tomasz asks Dr. Zaseybida what they should start talking about, but Dr. Zaseybida says that Tomasz should determine the course of their therapy. Dr. Zaseybida feels that by doing so, Tomasz's self-actualizing tendency will effectively guide them.

Dr. Zaseybida is MOST likely using _____ therapy. a. nondirective b. interpersonal c. behavioral d. psychodynamic ANSWER: a 56. The three characteristics Carl Rogers theorized were necessary to effective therapy are: a. empathy, reflection, and personalization. b. genuineness, unconditional positive regard, and empathy. c. unconditional positive regard, reflection, and personalization. d. genuineness, unconditional positive regard, and reflection.

ANSWER: b 57. _____ is a therapist's ability to sense a client's emotions just as the client would and to then respond compassionately. a. Empathy b. Unconditional positive regard c. Reflection d. Genuineness .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 58. In person-centered therapy, a therapist must bring three essential characteristics to the therapy relationship.

One of those characteristics is _____, in which the therapist works to understand and respond compassionately to a client's thoughts and feelings. a. unconditional positive regard b. empathy c. reflection d. genuineness ANSWER: b 59. Empathy is BEST reflected by: a. congruence. b. full acceptance. c. deep understanding. d. close listening.

ANSWER: c 60. You and your grandfather are very close to one another. One reason for this sense of closeness is that he seems to have a deep, nonjudgmental understanding of you and how you feel. It is as though your grandfather understands what it is like to be you. The understanding your grandfather demonstrates is MOST similar to the therapist characteristic of: a. empathy. b. confidentiality. c. unconditional positive regard. d. genuineness.

ANSWER: a 61. A therapist's full acceptance of a client without any conditions or limitations is called: a. empathy. b. unconditional positive regard. c. reflection of feeling. d. genuineness.

ANSWER: b 62. Unconditional positive regard is defined as a therapist's: a. ability to sense clients' emotions as the client would and to respond compassionately. b. truthfulness, realness, and honesty, as opposed to falsely playing the therapist role. c. process of listening closely and actively, then restating the client's words. d. full acceptance of a client without any limitations.

ANSWER: d .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice 63. In person-centered psychotherapy, three essential characteristics must be brought to the therapy relationship by the therapist. One such characteristic is _____, in which a therapist is warm and caring to a client and accepts the client without limitations. a. genuineness b. empathy c. reflection d. unconditional positive regard ANSWER: d 64. Unconditional positive regard is BEST reflected by: a. close listening. b. congruence. c. deep understanding. d. full acceptance.

ANSWER: d 65. When working with a client, Dr. Irvine strives to provide an atmosphere of warmth and acceptance. Dr. Irvine tries to convey a sense of caring to her clients, which she has without any limitations or exceptions. By doing so, Dr. Irvine is displaying the characteristic of: a. genuineness. b. empathy. c. reflection. d. unconditional positive regard.

ANSWER: d 66. When Habib needs someone to talk to, they typically call their brother because they know that their brother loves and accept them for who they are no matter what the circumstances. In this regard, Habib's brother is providing _____ to Habib. a. empathy b. reflection c. unconditional positive regard d. insight ANSWER: c 67. A therapist who does not falsely play the therapist role and is truthful, real, and honest has the characteristic of: a. genuineness. b. empathy. c. reflection. d. unconditional positive regard.

ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice 68. Therapists exhibit genuineness when they: a. can sense a client's emotions as the clients would and respond compassionately. b. are truthful, real, and honest, as opposed to being false by playing the therapist role. c. listen closely and actively, then restate a client's words in a way that highlights the client's feelings. d. accept a client without any conditions or limitations.

ANSWER: b 69. Genuineness is BEST reflected by: a. deep understanding. b. congruence. c. close listening. d. full acceptance.

ANSWER: b 70. A person-centered therapist brings three essential characteristics to the therapy relationship. One characteristic is _____, in which a therapist strives to be sincere and honest with clients and to avoid falsely playing the role of a therapist. a. genuineness b. empathy c. reflection d. unconditional positive regard ANSWER: a 71. Dr. Abaoub is a person-centered therapist. Dr. Abaoub works with many types of clients, but with all of them, they strive to be authentic and honest and to avoid being insincere by playing the role of a therapist. The therapist characteristic Dr. Abaoub is MOST likely striving to achieve is: a. genuineness. b. empathy. c. insight. d. unconditional positive regard.

ANSWER: a 72. You recently took a personality test. These results indicated that you are a sincere and honest person. The results also suggested that you are unlikely to be fake with others because being authentic is important to you.

The traits you demonstrate are MOST like the essential therapist characteristic of: a. empathy. b. reflection. c. unconditional positive regard. d. genuineness.

ANSWER: d 73. Santino recently began therapy but is not sure whether they want to continue with this particular therapist. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice Santino feels that their new therapist completely understands what they are going through and thoroughly accepts them as a person, but Santino also feels that the therapist is acting rather than being their real self.

According to Carl Rogers, the therapist is lacking the essential characteristic of: a. empathy. b. insight. c. unconditional positive regard. d. genuineness.

ANSWER: d 74. Person-centered therapists believe _____ is the primary source of benefit in psychotherapy. a. how they are with clients rather than what they do to them b. the use of particular techniques rather than their attitudes toward clients c. the application of operant and classical conditioning d. that their ability to help clients come to terms with their unconscious thoughts ANSWER: a 75. _____ is when a therapist listens closely and actively, then restates the client's words in a way that highlights the client's feelings. a. Genuineness b. Empathy c. Reflection d. Unconditional positive regard ANSWER: c 76. In person-centered therapy, the technique of reflection allows a therapist to: a. communicate empathy, unconditional positive regard, and genuineness. b. help clients understand how their unconscious material affects their current functioning. c. help clients understand and change their illogical beliefs. d. increase clients' awareness of their internal experiences without trying to analyze them.

ANSWER: a 77. As a person-centered therapist, Dr. Mestas strives to actively listen to her clients. She pays close attention to what her clients say so she can accurately understand their feelings. Dr. Mestas often restates her clients' words to highlight their feelings. Dr. Mestas is using the therapeutic technique of: a. unconditional positive regard. b. reflection. c. reframing. d. genuineness.

ANSWER: b 78. In class, your psychology professor assigned an activity where you and a classmate had to take turns in creating and describing a fictional problem to each other. During the other person's problem description, you .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice were asked to pay close attention and actively listen to what that person said. You were then to try restating what was said in way that highlighted how the person felt. The therapeutic technique you practiced for this activity was: a. genuineness. b. empathy. c. reflection. d. unconditional positive regard.

ANSWER: c 79. Ehsan just started therapy, and they have begun talking to their therapist about how unhappy they are with their life right now and list various reasons. When Ehsan is finished, Ehsan's therapist replies, "So it sounds like you feel trapped in your job and that you're unfulfilled by your relationship with your partner. Is that how you're feeling?" Ehsan's therapist is MOST likely using _____ as a therapeutic technique. a. transference b. empathy c. reflection d. insight ANSWER: c 80. _____ is a relatively recent variation of person-centered therapy that taps into a client's desire to change. a. Transference b. Motivational interviewing c. The eclectic approach d. The integrative approach ANSWER: b 81. Motivational interviewing was originally developed to help people with: a. mood disorders. b. addiction problems. c. schizophrenia. d. anxiety disorders.

ANSWER: b 82. Dr. Klymchuk is a therapist who believes that her job is to identify clients' own reasons for wanting to change their behaviors and helping them to do so. Dr. Klymchuk MOST likely practices: a. behavior therapy. b. motivational interviewing. c. cognitive therapy. d. psychodynamic therapy.

ANSWER: b 83. Delayne is seeing a therapist to help overcome their cigarette addiction problem. The therapist Delayne is .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice seeing explained to them that an important part of therapy is to understand the reasons clients have to change their behaviors. Delayne's therapist is MOST likely practicing: a. rational-emotive behavior therapy. b. motivational interviewing. c. transference. d. psychodynamic therapy.

ANSWER: b 84. Behavior therapy is an approach to therapy: a. that applies operant and classical conditioning to change outward behavior. b. that emphasizes the tendency toward healthy growth inherent in each person. c. in which therapists help clients change the way they think about life events. d. in which the main goal is to make the unconscious conscious.

ANSWER: a 85. _____ therapy involves the application of operant and classical conditioning to change outward behavior, with little to no emphasis on the mental processes affecting that behavior. a. Person-centered b. Behavior c. Psychodynamic d. Eclectic ANSWER: b 86. With which statement would a behavior therapist MOST likely agree? Behavior therapists: a. focus on observable, measurable behaviors. b. emphasize core concepts such as resistance and transference. c. use techniques to make the unconscious conscious. d. focus on the mental processes affecting a problem behavior.

ANSWER: a 87. In one of his psychology classes, Adrian learned about a type of therapy in which classical conditioning and operant conditioning are used to change a person's outward behavior. This therapy places little or no emphasis on the mental processes affecting that behavior. The type of therapy Adrian MOST likely learned about was _____ therapy. a. behavior b. cognitive c. psychodynamic d. person-centered ANSWER: a 88. As a behavior therapist, Dr. Phippen's first step when working with clients is to: a. use a variety of techniques to change their behavior. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice b. help them change the way they think about their behaviors. c. define their problem in observable, measurable terms. d. make a connection between their unconscious material and current functioning.

ANSWER: c 89. Gerin is seeing a behavior therapist to help them cut back on the number of alcoholic drinks they consume each week. One of the first things Gerin's therapist did was determine how many drinks Gerin has in any given week on average. By doing so, Gerin's therapist is determining _____ of Gerin's drinking. a. the contingencies b. the consequences c. a baseline d. insight ANSWER: c 90. Parth is seeing a behavior therapist to help him quit smoking. One of the first things Parth's therapist would MOST likely do is: a. show empathy and genuineness to build a strong therapeutic relationship with Parth. b. ask Parth about the childhood events that may have influenced his smoking habits. c. determine the number of cigarettes Parth smokes in any given week on average. d. have Parth describe the feelings and thoughts he has when he smokes.

ANSWER: c 91. _____ is a form of behavior therapy based on classical conditioning in which anxiety is treated by gradually exposing a client to the thing or situation that causes the anxiety. a. Aversive conditioning b. Rational-emotive behavior therapy c. Exposure therapy d. Mental filtering ANSWER: c 92. Exposure therapy is a form of behavior therapy in which: a. anxiety is treated by gradually exposing a client to what causes the anxiety. b. items or points are earned in exchange for rewards when a client performs target behaviors. c. unwanted behaviors are paired with an unpleasant experience. d. a client watches a model perform the target behavior with the intent of imitating the model.

ANSWER: a 93. Dr. Gomez is a therapist who believes that clients do best when they face their fears instead of avoiding them. The type of therapy Dr. Gomez would MOST likely use is: a. cognitive. b. integrative. c. psychodynamic. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice d. behavior.

ANSWER: d 94. Exposure therapy is a form of therapy that is based on the principles of: a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. observational learning. d. free association.

ANSWER: a 95. _____ is a form of behavior therapy, primarily for phobias, in which the client experiences the pairing of relaxation with the thing or situation that causes the person anxiety. a. Participant modeling b. Systematic desensitization c. Rational-emotive behavior therapy d. Aversive conditioning ANSWER: b 96. Systematic desensitization is a technique in which _____ is paired with _____. a. relaxation; a desirable behavior b. an unpleasant experience; an unwanted behavior c. relaxation; something that causes anxiety d. an unpleasant experience; something that causes anxiety ANSWER: c 97. Stevie has an extreme fear of spiders. Her therapist is using systematic desensitization to treat the fear. With this technique, Stevie's therapist will pair _____ with _____. a. relaxation; gradual exposure to spiders b. relaxation; exposure to spiders all at once c. an unpleasant experience; gradual exposure to spiders d. an unpleasant experience; exposure to lots of spiders all at once ANSWER: a 98. When Dr. Ferreira teaches their introductory psychology class about types of psychotherapies, they present a case study of an adult who developed a phobia of dogs. The therapist in the case study gradually exposed the adult to an anxiety hierarchy of situations involving dogs while the adult was in a relaxed state. Eventually, dogs no longer caused fear in the adult. The therapist in the case study was MOST likely using: a. aversive conditioning. b. systematic desensitization. c. nondirective therapy. d. transference.

ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice 99. Since he was a teenager, Jonathan has had a phobia of being in tight, enclosed spaces. Recently, Jonathan has started working with a therapist to help with his phobia. In therapy, Jonathan's therapist exposes him to various situations that involve imagining and being in enclosed spaces while he is in a relaxed stated. The type of therapy Jonathan's therapist is MOST likely using is: a. participant modeling. b. aversive conditioning. c. rational-emotive behavior therapy. d. systematic desensitization.

ANSWER: d 100. Counterconditioning is BEST defined as a technique in which: a. therapists help clients change the way they think about life events. b. clients watch models perform target behaviors with the intent of imitating the behaviors. c. therapists challenge clients' illogical behavior and encourage adoption of more logical beliefs. d. triggers for unwanted responses are paired with new stimuli that prevent those responses.

ANSWER: d 101. With systematic desensitization, relaxation is paired with a thing or situation that causes anxiety. This pairing is a type of _____, in which a trigger for an unwanted response is paired with a new stimulus that prevents that response. a. counterconditioning b. aversive conditioning c. transference d. participant modeling ANSWER: a 102. Dr. Kantor is a behavior therapist who specializes in treating phobias. For many of their clients, Dr. Kantor uses a technique in which the trigger for client's fear is paired with a new stimulus that prevents the fear from occurring. This technique is called: a. countertransference. b. aversive conditioning. c. counterconditioning. d. transference.

ANSWER: c 103. Dr. Lichowit is using systematic desensitization to treat a specific phobia in one of their patients. As the first step of this technique, Dr. Lichowit will have their patient engage in: a. counterconditioning. b. relaxation training. c. flooding. d. psychodynamic therapy. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 104. The token economy is defined as a technique in which clients: a. earn items or points that are exchangeable for rewards when they perform target behaviors. b. watch models perform target behaviors with the intent of imitating the behaviors. c. learn to recognize cognitive distortions and learn to think about life events logically. d. use electronic means to experience simulations of the situations that cause them anxiety.

ANSWER: a 105. A therapist who wants to reinforce a target behavior that a client performed may use _____. With this technique, a client earns items or points for performing a particular behavior. a. counterconditioning b. transference c. a token economy d. classical conditioning ANSWER: c 106. Ms. Kaminski is a first-grade teacher. Each day, each student in Ms. Kaminski's class can earn bubble stickers that get added to a chart on the wall if they spell all of that week's spelling words correctly on their test.

Once the chart is filled with 10 stickers, the class gets to chew gum during their spelling test the following week. Ms. Kaminski is using _____ to encourage correct spelling on the tests she gives. a. flooding b. transference c. a token economy d. aversive conditioning ANSWER: c 107. Dr. Gardner is a psychologist at a state prison. Dr. Gardner instituted a program in which prisoners can earn points for certain behaviors such as keeping their cells clean and walking quietly to and from meals. The program Dr. Gardner created is BEST described as: a. counterconditioning. b. a token economy. c. aversive conditioning. d. participant modeling.

ANSWER: b 108. In _____, unwanted behavior is reduced by pairing it with an unpleasant experience. a. systematic desensitization b. a token economy c. aversive conditioning d. participant modeling ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice 109. Aversive therapy is BEST described as a form of behavior therapy in which: a. triggers for unwanted responses are paired with new stimuli that prevent those responses. b. therapists help clients change the way they think about life events. c. clients watch models perform target behaviors with the intent of imitating the behaviors. d. therapists challenge clients' illogical behavior and encourage adoption of more logical beliefs.

ANSWER: a 110. Aversive conditioning is a technique where _____ is paired with _____. a. relaxation; a desirable behavior b. an unpleasant experience; an unwanted behavior c. relaxation; something that causes anxiety d. an unpleasant experience; something that causes anxiety ANSWER: b 111. In _____, an unpleasant experience is paired with an unwanted behavior, whereas in _____, something that causes anxiety is paired with relaxation. a. aversive conditioning; systematic desensitization b. in vivo exposure; systematic desensitization c. systematic desensitization; mindfulness d. imaginal exposure; aversive conditioning ANSWER: a 112. Kesar and their therapist are working to reduce the number of cigarettes Kesar smokes per day. To do this, Kesar's therapist has Kesar snap their wrist with a rubber band any time Kesar has the urge to smoke. The technique Kesar's therapist is using is MOST likely: a. behavioral activation. b. a token economy. c. flooding. d. aversive conditioning.

ANSWER: d 113. "Get up, smile, and find something fun to do!" This advice would MOST likely be given by a therapist who is applying the technique of: a. behavioral activation. b. systematic desensitization. c. flooding. d. aversive conditioning.

ANSWER: a 114. Participant modeling is a technique in which: a. relaxation is paired with a thing or situation that causes a client anxiety. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice b. clients watch models perform target behaviors with the intent of imitating the behaviors. c. therapists challenge clients' illogical behavior and encourage adoption of more logical beliefs. d. triggers for unwanted responses are paired with new stimuli that prevent those responses.

ANSWER: b 115. _____ is a technique in which a client watches another person perform a target behavior with the intent of the client imitating that person's behavior. a. Systematic desensitization b. Counterconditioning c. Participant modeling d. Aversive conditioning ANSWER: c 116. When helping clients learn how to perform a behavior, a therapist may demonstrate that behavior. The client will then imitate the behavior they observed the therapist perform. This technique is called: a. systematic desensitization. b. counterconditioning. c. participant modeling. d. aversive conditioning.

ANSWER: c 117. You just started working as a server at a local restaurant. As a part of your training, you are expected to shadow an experienced server in order to learn how to perform the job properly. This is MOST similar to which therapeutic technique? a. transference b. counterconditioning c. working through d. participant modeling ANSWER: d 118. Anya has difficulty asking questions if they don't understand something, and this is negatively impacting their academics. In therapy, Anya's therapist uses a technique in which Anya watches their therapist demonstrate asking a question. Later, Anya will imitate what the therapist demonstrated. The technique Anya's therapist is MOST likely using is: a. counterconditioning. b. psychodynamic therapy. c. working through. d. participant modeling.

ANSWER: d 119. The psychotherapy approach in which therapists help clients change the way they think about life events is called _____ therapy. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice a. cognitive b. behavior c. person-centered d. psychodynamic ANSWER: a 120. Cognitive therapy is a type of psychotherapy: a. that applies operant and classical conditioning to change outward behavior. b. that emphasizes the tendency toward healthy growth inherent in each person. c. in which therapists help clients change the way they think about life events. d. in which the main goal is to make the unconscious conscious.

ANSWER: c 121. A cognitive therapist would MOST likely say a person's psychological problems are due to: a. how they think about life events. b. their limited awareness of their thoughts and feelings. c. the biology of their brain. d. their self-actualization tendency being blocked.

ANSWER: a 122. Dr. Stiopon is a therapist who specializes in treating depressive disorders. Dr. Stiopon believes that their clients can combat their depressive disorders by changing their perspective about their life events. Dr. Stiopon is MOST likely a _____ therapist. a. behavioral b. cognitive c. psychodynamic d. nondirective ANSWER: b 123. Marlis sees a therapist for a social anxiety. The therapist has worked with Marlis to help them understand that how they think about and interpret life events causes their anxiety, rather than the events themselves. Marlis is MOST likely working with a _____ therapist. a. person-centered b. cognitive c. psychodynamic d. behavioral ANSWER: b 124. Since losing her job, Debra has grown increasingly angry and sad, so she decides to seek therapy. The therapist emphasizes that Debra could improve her psychological well-being by changing her thought processes.

Debra is MOST likely receiving _____ therapy. a. humanistic .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice b. cognitive c. psychodynamic d. behavior ANSWER: b 125. In _____ therapy, therapists focus on clients' outward behaviors, whereas in _____ therapy, therapists focus on how clients think about life events. a. person-centered; cognitive b. cognitive; behavior c. behavior; cognitive d. behavior; person-centered ANSWER: c 126. _____ are two leading pioneers of cognitive therapy. a. Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow b. Albert Ellis and Aaron Beck c. Ivan Pavlov and B. F. Skinner d. Sigmund Freud and Carl Jung ANSWER: b 127. _____ therapy is a hybrid approach that combines an emphasis on logical thinking with the use of conditioning principles to directly change behavior. a. Cognitive-behavioral b. Person-centered c. Psychodynamic d. Integrative ANSWER: a 128. In cognitive-behavioral therapy, therapists: a. challenge clients' illogical beliefs and encourage them to adopt more logical beliefs. b. emphasize logical thinking and use conditioning principles to directly change behavior. c. pair clients' unwanted behaviors with unpleasant experiences to reduce the unwanted behavior. d. make connections between clients' unconscious material and their current behavior, thoughts, or feelings.

ANSWER: b 129. In psychology class, you learned about several types of psychotherapy. Of the types you learned about, _____ therapy appealed to you the most. You feel this therapy is best because it not only emphasizes logical thinking, but also uses conditioning principles to directly change behavior. a. psychodynamic b. biomedical c. cognitive-behavioral .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice d. person-centered ANSWER: c 130. Dr. Griner is a therapist who believes that a person's thoughts influence their feelings. In therapy, Dr. Griner challenges clients' illogical beliefs, encouraging them to adopt more logical ways of thinking. Dr. Griner also integrates principles of classical and operant conditioning into his therapeutic practice. The approach with which Dr. Griner MOST likely identifies is _____ therapy. a. psychodynamic b. biomedical c. cognitive-behavioral d. person-centered ANSWER: c 131. Rational-emotive behavior therapy is a form of therapy in which therapists: a. emphasize logical thinking and use conditioning principles to directly change behavior. b. pair clients' unwanted behaviors with unpleasant experiences to reduce the unwanted behavior. c. challenge clients' illogical beliefs and encourage them to adopt more logical beliefs. d. make connections between clients' unconscious material and their current behavior, thoughts, or feelings.

ANSWER: c 132. In _____ therapy, a therapist challenges the client's illogical beliefs and encourages the client to adopt more logical beliefs. a. person-centered b. psychodynamic c. integrative d. rational-emotive behavior ANSWER: d 133. The theorist associated with REBT is: a. Sigmund Freud. b. Aaron Beck. c. Carl Rogers. d. Albert Ellis.

ANSWER: d 134. A friend of yours decides to go to therapy. She tells you that the therapist she chose works with clients to change illogical thinking and also helps them to develop more logical thinking patterns. Your friend has MOST likely chosen a _____ therapist. a. person-centered b. rational-emotive c. psychodynamic .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice d. integrative ANSWER: b 135. _____ therapy is a type of rational-emotive behavior therapy in which the therapist and client identify the sequence that leads from logical thinking to illogical thinking about particular life events. a. The ABCDE model of b. The eclectic approach to c. The integrative approach to d. Person-centered ANSWER: a 136. In the ABCDE model of cognitive therapy, therapists: a. teach their clients terminology to label their cognitive distortions. b. help clients identify the sequences that lead from illogical thinking to logical thinking. c. encourage clients to simply allow irrational thoughts to sequentially run their course. d. challenge their clients to take responsibility for unfortunate events.

ANSWER: b 137. In the ABCDE model of cognitive therapy, therapists work with clients to determine the sequence that has led the client to think illogically about particular life occurrences. In one step, the situation that began the illogical sequence is identified. This situation is called the: a. activating event. b. consequence. c. belief. d. antecedent.

ANSWER: a 138. Many of Dr. Kreibaum's clients seek therapy for relationship problems. As a rational-emotive behavior therapist, Dr. Kreibaum believes it is important to challenge clients' illogical beliefs about their relationships so that more logical beliefs can be developed. To fully understand her clients' illogical thinking, Dr. Kreibaum first identifies the situation that triggered their illogical thought patterns. This is called the: a. activating event. b. consequence. c. belief. d. antecedent.

ANSWER: a 139. One step of the ABCDE model of cognitive therapy involves determining a client's thoughts or cognitions about an adverse situation. In this step, the client's _____ are identified. a. assumptions b. beliefs c. decisions .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice d. insights ANSWER: b 140. Roni has significant social anxiety for which they see a psychiatrist on campus. In order to understand the sequence that has led Roni to think illogically about social situations, Roni and their psychiatrist first determined that the activating event for Roni's anxiety was meeting a group of three or more people Roni didn't know. Working together, Roni and their psychiatrist also identified the types of thoughts Roni had when meeting new people. In the ABCDE model of cognitive therapy, these thoughts are called: a. assumptions. b. beliefs. c. decisions. d. insight.

ANSWER: b 141. One step in the ABCDE model of cognitive therapy involves a therapist working with a client to determine the emotional outcomes of the client's beliefs about a particular life event. In this step, the _____ are identified. a. activating events b. developments c. consequences d. effects ANSWER: c 142. Neeti recently began therapy for depression. Neeti told their therapist that their depression began when they didn't get into medical school despite good grades and test scores. Neeti told their therapist that not getting into medical school meant that they were stupid and could never accomplish their dream. These beliefs made Neeti feel very sad and hopeless. In the ABCDE model of cognitive therapy, Neeti's feelings of sadness and hopelessness represent their: a. transference. b. developments. c. consequences. d. effects.

ANSWER: c 143. In the ABCDE model of cognitive therapy, therapeutic change begins when evidence challenging a client's illogical beliefs is presented. This step of the model is called the: a. argument. b. exception. c. dispute. d. debate.

ANSWER: c 144. As a rational-emotive behavior therapist, Dr. Parsons uses the ABCDE model to address her clients' irrational thinking. After identifying a client's irrational thoughts, Dr. Parson challenges clients with evidence .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice that does not support their irrational thoughts. This step in the model is called the: a. argument. b. exception. c. dispute. d. debate.

ANSWER: c 145. Taylen failed the first exam in their chemistry course. Taylen tells their roommate, Pascal, that this means Taylen will never make it in college and they should just quit now. Pascal points out that Taylen got very high scores on their psychology and biology exams and says he's sure that if Taylen puts a little more time into studying chemistry, they can still earn a very high grade in the course. In pointing out evidence that does not support Taylen's illogical thoughts, Pascal is demonstrating the _____ step in the ABCDE model of cognitive therapy. a. belief b. resistance c. dispute d. transference ANSWER: c 146. Therapeutic change occurs in the ABCDE model of cognitive therapy when a client changes their illogical interpretations of a particular life event. At this step, a client has developed _____ new beliefs. a. effective b. expert c. capable d. adequate ANSWER: a 147. Last semester, Alwyn failed two of his classes. At the time, Alwyn thought of himself as unintelligent and unlikely to succeed in life. This made Alwyn feel very down on himself. After talking with his friends, Alwyn realized that he was successful and showed intelligence in many other ways. He came to understand that while he might not be successful at everything he does, he does some things very well. In REBT, Alwyn's new thinking about himself is called the _____ new belief. a. effective b. expert c. capable d. adequate ANSWER: a 148. In some types of therapy, clients learn to label their _____, which are descriptive, memorable names for various kinds of irrational thinking. a. resistances b. reflections .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice c. contingencies d. cognitive distortions ANSWER: d 149. _____ is a cognitive distortion in which a client mistakenly evaluates events as either absolutely flawless or absolutely awful, with no middle ground in between. a. All-or-none thinking b. Overgeneralization c. Catastrophizing d. Mental filtering ANSWER: a 150. A novelist who believes that if they are not able to publish their very first novel, they will never succeed as a novelist is MOST likely demonstrating: a. transference. b. overgeneralization. c. all-or-none thinking. d. catastrophizing.

ANSWER: c 151. When Daysen makes a mistake at work, they feel they will never be good enough to be promoted and will probably be fired. When they perform well at work, Daysen believes they will be promoted in no time and soon become top of the company. The type of cognitive distortion MOST demonstrated by Daysen is: a. mental filtering. b. all-or-nothing thinking. c. transference. d. catastrophizing.

ANSWER: b 152. Spiro applied for a competitive scholarship when applying for college, but they were not awarded it. Spiro then decided not to write any more applications for scholarships because they thought to themself, "I've already failed, why bother failing more." Spiro's thoughts are MOST representative of: a. mental filtering. b. all-or-none thinking. c. personalization. d. insight.

ANSWER: b 153. The cognitive distortion of _____ occurs when a person comes to a broad-based conclusion based on just a single, unfortunate event. a. mental filtering b. all-or-none thinking .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice c. overgeneralization d. catastrophizing ANSWER: c 154. Your friend Evan frequently makes very broad conclusions based only on a single incident, usually negative. Evan's overly broad conclusions exemplify the cognitive distortion called: a. mental filtering. b. all-or-none thinking. c. overgeneralization. d. catastrophizing.

ANSWER: c 155. One semester, you got a bad grade on one class presentation. Despite previous good grades, you assume there is no point in trying to stay in school because you're a terrible student and will never do well again. Your assumption is an example of the cognitive distortion: a. mindfulness. b. all-or-none thinking. c. overgeneralization. d. personalization.

ANSWER: c 156. _____ is a cognitive distortion that occurs when a person exaggerates the negative consequences of an event or sees a minor event as a disaster. a. Catastrophizing b. Personalization c. Mental filtering d. All-or-none thinking ANSWER: a 157. When something happens Rees does not like, he often overreacts and exaggerates how terrible the outcome is. When he does so, Rees is demonstrating the cognitive distortion: a. catastrophizing. b. personalization. c. overgeneralization. d. all-or-none thinking.

ANSWER: a 158. Umesh wants to ask out their friend Surae but will not because they are afraid that Surae will say no, and in Umesh's mind, that would be the end of the world! Umesh is demonstrating the cognitive distortion called: a. catastrophizing. b. personalization. c. overgeneralization. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice d. mental filtering.

ANSWER: a 159. With the cognitive distortion of _____, a person ignores the positive while focusing excessively on the negative. a. all-or-none thinking b. mental filtering c. personalization d. catastrophizing ANSWER: b 160. Suresh is often told that they often focus on the negative while ignoring the positive. When they do so, Suresh demonstrates the cognitive distortion known as: a. mental filtering. b. overgeneralization. c. personalization. d. catastrophizing.

ANSWER: a 161. Gyula made a cake for their friend's birthday, which everyone said was delicious. However, even though the cake tasted great, Gyula believed the cake was a failure because they thought they could have decorated it better. Gyula is demonstrating the cognitive distortion known as: a. transference. b. mental filtering. c. personalization. d. catastrophizing.

ANSWER: b 162. You wrote a paper for one of your classes. The instructor gave you overwhelmingly positive feedback, with only minor corrections suggested. You believe your paper was a disaster because you were overly focused on the minor corrections. The cognitive distortion you are demonstrating is MOST likely: a. personalization. b. mental filtering. c. overgeneralization. d. emotional reasoning.

ANSWER: b 163. _____ is a cognitive distortion in which a person takes too much blame and responsibility for unfortunate events. a. All-or-none thinking b. Overgeneralization c. Personalization .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice d. Catastrophizing ANSWER: c 164. Denise has a tendency to believe that she is responsible when bad things happen, even when she is clearly not to blame. This is an example of the cognitive distortion called: a. all-or-none thinking. b. mental filtering. c. magnification. d. personalization.

ANSWER: d 165. Celein and Satoshi decided to eat out at a new restaurant. When they got to the restaurant, there was over an hour wait. Celein became very upset, telling Satoshi that it was their fault they wasted Satoshi's time and that they should have known it would be so crowded. Even though Satoshi assured Celein that they had done nothing wrong, Celein continued to blame themself. The cognitive distortion Celein is MOST demonstrating is called: a. transference. b. mental filtering. c. personalization. d. magnification.

ANSWER: c 166. As a cognitive therapist, Dr. Lalli has to constantly remind himself that when he is determining what is logical versus illogical, he should consider his patients': a. imaginal exposures. b. self-actualization. c. unconscious thoughts. d. cultural backgrounds.

ANSWER: d 167. The most recent versions of cognitive therapy are collectively known as _____ therapies. a. first-wave b. second-wave c. third-wave d. fourth-wave ANSWER: c 168. Dr. Cunningham identifies as a traditional cognitive therapist, whereas her colleague Dr. Kelley identifies as a third-wave therapist. Compared to Dr. Cunningham, Dr. Kelley is more likely to: a. dispute irrational thoughts to prevent unpleasant emotions. b. focus on the past instead of the future. c. emphasize clients' unconscious functioning. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice d. encourage clients to allow irrational thoughts to run their course.

ANSWER: d 169. _____ therapy is a therapeutic approach that is considered a third-wave therapy. a. Acceptance and commitment b. Rational-emotive behavior c. Exposure d. Person-centered ANSWER: a 170. _____ therapy is a therapeutic approach that is considered a third-wave therapy. a. Dialectical behavior b. Rational-emotive behavior c. Exposure d. Person-centered ANSWER: a 171. _____ therapy is a therapeutic approach that helps people regulate and tolerate intense emotional experiences. a. Dialectical behavior b. Rational-emotive behavior c. Exposure d. Person-centered ANSWER: a 172. Acceptance and commitment therapy is a therapeutic approach used primarily for _____ disorders, and dialectical behavior therapy is a therapeutic approach used primarily for _____ disorders. a. anxiety; personality b. personality; anxiety c. depressive; psychotic d. psychotic; depressive ANSWER: a 173. In the _____ approach to therapy, a therapist selects the best treatment for a client based on evidence from studies of similar clients. a. psychoanalytic b. eclectic c. cognitive-behavioral d. person-centered ANSWER: b 174. The eclectic approach to therapy is also called the _____ approach. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice a. integrative b. psychoanalytic c. prescriptive d. person-centered ANSWER: c 175. Ciera is a school counselor in an elementary school. When counseling students, Ciera takes the approach that it is best to choose a treatment based on what has been found to work in research studies of similar cases.

Ciera is MOST likely using the _____ approach to therapy. a. common factors b. assimilative c. eclectic d. integrative ANSWER: c 176. Dr. Aguilante is a therapist who works primarily with clients who have borderline personality disorder. In their practice, Dr. Aguilante uses the best treatment for a client with borderline personality disorder based on evidence from studies of similar clients. Dr. Aguilante is MOST likely using the _____ approach to therapy. a. common factors b. flooding c. eclectic d. integrative ANSWER: c 177. When making a pan of brownies, you see different sets of directions based on cooking times and oven temperatures depending on the size of the brownie pan used. You also see a different set of directions for mixing the brownies for those who live at high altitudes. You know that the different directions are based on what research has shown will produce the best-tasting brownies. This is similar to the _____ approach to therapy, in which the best treatment is selected based on evidence from studies of similar clients. a. common factors b. theoretical c. eclectic d. integrative ANSWER: c 178. Therapists who adopt the _____ approach to therapy blend styles or techniques to create a new form of psychotherapy. a. technical b. theoretical c. integrative d. eclectic ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice 179. In your marketing and business class, you learned that American golfer Arnold Palmer was responsible for creating a popular drink in which lemonade and iced tea are mixed together. He reasoned that by combining lemonade and iced tea, a tasty new drink would result. Arnold Palmer's approach to developing his signature drink is MOST similar to the _____ approach to therapy. a. technical b. theoretical c. integrative d. eclectic ANSWER: c 180. Dr. Davies is a therapist who has developed a new form of therapy that blends person-centered therapy with cognitive therapy. In doing so, Dr. Davies is using the _____ approach to therapy. a. technical b. common factors c. integrative d. eclectic ANSWER: c 181. In _____, one or more therapists provide therapy to several clients at the same time, with an emphasis on interpersonal interaction. a. group therapy b. telepsychology c. virtual reality therapy d. psychodynamic therapy ANSWER: a 182. Twice a month, a group of seven people meet together for 90 minutes to participate in therapy led by Dr. Batul Ali and Dr. Ameli. This type of therapy is an example of: a. group therapy. b. telepsychology. c. psychoanalysis. d. flooding.

ANSWER: a 183. Dr. Anbu is a therapist focusing on people grieving and recovering from loss. Dr. Anbu typically conducts therapy with several people at once who are struggling to overcome the impact of their loss. Dr. Anbu gives feedback to their, clients and the clients also give feedback to one another. The therapy Dr. Anbu is conducting can be described as _____ therapy. a. group b. self-help c. dialectical behavior .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice d. flooding ANSWER: a 184. Abin is in therapy for substance use disorder. They attend therapy sessions with four other people, and they all discuss their substance use issues with each other and the therapist. The therapy that Abin is participating in can be described as _____ therapy. a. group b. family c. dialectical behavior d. acceptance and commitment ANSWER: a 185. _____ is a type of group therapy in which the group members run the session without a professional therapist leading them. a. A self-help group b. Dialectical behavior therapy c. Flooding d. Acceptance and commitment therapy ANSWER: a 186. Once a month, people who have trouble managing their anger meet to provide support, advice, and encouragement to one another at a local place of worship. These meetings are run by those in attendance, rather than by a professional therapist. This BEST describes an example of: a. a self-help group. b. telepsychology. c. flooding. d. couples therapy.

ANSWER: a 187. In _____, the aim is to improve how a group of closely related people functions, which in turn improves the problems of its individual members. a. cognitive therapy b. family therapy c. group therapy d. the integrative approach to therapy ANSWER: b 188. Dr. Brown is a therapist whose practice focuses on improving the functioning of a related group of people.

Dr. Brown believes that by doing so, the issues faced by the members of the group will also be improved. Dr. Brown MOST likely practices: a. telepsychology. b. an electric approach to therapy. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice c. an integrative approach to therapy. d. family therapy.

ANSWER: d 189. Renato, their sibling Sekh, and their grandmother Ramine are seeing Dr. Araya for therapy. Dr. Araya focuses on how Renato, Sekh, and Ramine interact with one another to understand the problems each of them is experiencing. Dr. Araya is MOST likely conducting: a. a self-help group. b. family therapy. c. telepsychology. d. flooding.

ANSWER: b 190. Rajesh and their parents are in therapy together. Rajesh's parents are concerned because Rajesh is normally responsible and enjoyable to be around, but over the past month they have been very moody and shirking their schoolwork and chores. The type of therapy Rajesh and their parents are doing is MOST likely: a. telepsychology. b. flooding. c. a self-help group. d. family therapy.

ANSWER: d 191. Which statement about testing studies on how well psychotherapy works is accurate? a. Studies should always include outside observers. b. There are few modern studies assessing how well psychotherapy works. c. Numerous questions must be considered when designing and conducting studies. d. Studies should be completed immediately after psychotherapy is completed.

ANSWER: c 192. In 1952, _____ summarized the small amount of research on the outcome of psychotherapy available at that time and concluded that psychotherapy didn't work. a. Carl Rogers b. Albert Ellis c. Salvador Minuchin d. Hans Eysenck ANSWER: d 193. Researcher Hans Eysenck evaluated the small number of studies evaluating how well psychology works in 1952. From his analysis of these studies, Eysenck concluded that when dealing with psychological problems, psychotherapy was _____ working through one's problems without therapy. a. much less effective than b. no more effective than .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice c. equally effective as d. much more effective than ANSWER: b 194. The average person who receives psychotherapy for a particular psychological issue will have better functioning than approximately _____% of those who did not receive therapy for that issue. a. 50 b. 60 c. 70 d. 80 ANSWER: d 195. In an _____ study, researchers examine how well psychotherapy works in controlled studies. a. effectualness b. efficacy c. effectiveness d. efficiency ANSWER: b 196. In an _____ study, researchers examine how well psychotherapy works in real-life settings. a. effectualness b. efficacy c. effectiveness d. efficiency ANSWER: c 197. Efficacy studies examine how well psychotherapy works in _____, whereas effectiveness studies examine how well psychotherapy works in _____. a. real-world settings; controlled studies b. both real-world settings and controlled studies; real-world settings only c. real-world settings only; both controlled studies and real-world settings d. controlled studies; real-world settings ANSWER: d 198. A team of researchers at a university completed a controlled study examining how well a particular psychotherapy approach works with a specific disorder. Therapists in the study used a manual directing their actions in conducting therapy. The researcher's study is BEST described as an _____ study. a. effectualness b. efficacy c. effectiveness d. efficiency .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 199. For your psychology class, you read about a study that examined how well a specific type of psychotherapy worked for people with panic disorder. The study participants were carefully selected to ensure they met the criteria for panic disorder. The study's therapists used a manual that specifically outlined each aspect of therapy. This study is BEST described as an _____ study. a. effectualness b. efficacy c. effectiveness d. efficiency ANSWER: b 200. The approach to psychotherapy in which the therapist makes decisions based on a combination of research, therapist expertise, and client characteristics is known as: a. the eclectic approach. b. the integrative approach. c. evidence-based practice. d. the common factors approach.

ANSWER: c 201. As a therapist, Dr. Rodriguez believes that the best approach to therapy is to make decisions based on the characteristics of each individual client, his own experience, and research evidence. Dr. Rodriguez's approach to therapy is BEST described as: a. the eclectic approach. b. the integrative approach. c. evidence-based practice. d. the common factors approach.

ANSWER: c 202. Aditya works with clients diagnosed with a bipolar disorder. Although each client has the same diagnosis, Aditya's approach is to make therapeutic decisions based on the characteristics of each client, their own experience, and research evidence. Aditya's approach to therapy is BEST described as: a. the eclectic approach. b. the integrative approach. c. person-centered therapy. d. evidence-based practice.

ANSWER: d 203. _____ refers to the research finding that different forms of psychotherapy are equally effective. a. Therapeutic alliance b. The eclectic approach c. The integrative approach .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice d. The dodo bird verdict ANSWER: d 204. The dodo bird verdict refers to the finding that: a. different forms of psychotherapy are generally equally effective. b. some forms of psychotherapy are more effective than others. c. most, but not all, forms of psychotherapy are generally effective. d. any form of psychotherapy will be effective with all types of psychological problems.

ANSWER: a 205. _____ refers to elements found in all forms of effective psychotherapy that play an important role in client improvement. a. Common factors b. Evidence-based practice c. The eclectic approach d. The integrative approach ANSWER: a 206. In a recent study, researchers examined the role of empathy as it relates to clients' psychotherapy outcomes. The researchers believe that certain elements such as empathy that are found in all forms of effective psychotherapy can play an important role in client improvement. Empathy is an example of _____ in psychotherapy. a. cohesion b. a common factor c. flooding d. resistance ANSWER: b 207. The therapeutic alliance is a: a. counselor's ability to work sensitively and expertly with clients from diverse backgrounds. b. trusting, collaborative relationship in which the client and counselor work toward shared goals. c. situation in which a counselor has a professional and nonprofessional relationship with a client. d. decision-making approach based on a combination of research, counselor expertise, and client characteristics.

ANSWER: b 208. Beginning with Habini's first therapy session with Dr. Bae, a trusting, collaborative relationship was formed. This relationship allowed Habini and Dr. Bae to work on the issues that brought Habini to therapy. The relationship Habini and Dr. Bae have is BEST described as: a. person-centered therapy. b. acceptance and commitment therapy. c. a self-help group. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice d. the therapeutic alliance.

ANSWER: d 209. The best-supported common factor in psychotherapy is: a. having positive expectations. b. the therapeutic alliance. c. positive expectations. d. a therapist's training and expertise.

ANSWER: b 210. The single best predictor of success in psychotherapy is: a. having positive expectations. b. attention to a problem. c. the therapeutic alliance. d. a therapist's training and expertise.

ANSWER: c 211. Dr. Charles is a highly experienced therapist. Dr. Charles typically has trusting, collaborative relationships with his clients. His clients often tell him they are relieved to be finally dealing with their problems. They also tell him they feel as if their life will start to get better. For Dr. Charles's clients, their best predictor of success is: a. their positive expectations. b. the therapeutic alliance. c. attention to their problems. d. Dr. Charles's experience.

ANSWER: b 212. _____ is a therapist's ability to work sensitively and expertly with clients from diverse backgrounds. a. The therapeutic alliance b. Cultural self-awareness c. Cultural competence d. Informed consent ANSWER: c 213. Dr. Banyahl and their client are from different cultural backgrounds. Dr. Banyahl understands this and is able to work sensitively and expertly with their client in therapy. Dr. Banyahl possesses cultural: a. competence. b. transference. c. confidentiality. d. resistance.

ANSWER: a 214. Dr. Baker is a 65-year-old White woman who grew up in the United States. Her client Nikhil is an 18-year.

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice old person who identifies as non-binary and is from a traditional Indian family. Dr. Baker recognizes that she and Nikhil are from different cultural backgrounds, but she feels confident that she will be able to work sensitively and expertly with her client. Dr. Baker believes she possesses what is defined in the field of psychotherapy as cultural: a. competence. b. transference. c. resistance. d. capability.

ANSWER: a 215. A therapist's recognition that her perspective is not necessarily that of others is called cultural: a. capability. b. competence. c. practice. d. self-awareness.

ANSWER: d 216. Dr. Milliken has spent her entire life in the United States, but sees clients from a variety of cultural backgrounds. Dr. Milliken recognizes that she and her clients will not necessarily share the same perspectives, values, and beliefs. In recognizing that her own perspective is not necessarily that of others, Dr. Milliken is demonstrating cultural: a. competence. b. self-awareness. c. self-actualization. d. transference.

ANSWER: b 217. A therapist's ability to recognize that their perspective may differ from others is cultural _____, whereas cultural _____ is their ability to work sensitively and expertly with clients from diverse backgrounds. a. competence; self-awareness b. self-awareness; competence c. self-awareness; capability d. capability; competence ANSWER: b 218. _____ occur(s) when a therapist maintains the privacy of client information. a. Informed consent b. Confidentiality c. Boundaries of competence d. The therapeutic alliance ANSWER: b .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice 219. A therapist who does not maintain the privacy of his client's information is violating patient's: a. informed consent. b. confidentiality. c. anonymity. d. ethics.

ANSWER: b 220. Client confidentiality: a. must be upheld under all circumstances. b. is not necessary during psychotherapy. c. can be broken if a client intends to harm anyone. d. is only necessary during biomedical therapy.

ANSWER: c 221. A teenager informs her therapist she intends to bring a gun to school because she is being bullied. Patient confidentiality should be broken in this situation because: a. it involves a client who is not yet an adult. b. the client intends to harm other people or herself. c. the client would be negatively impacted. d. confidentiality is not important in psychotherapy.

ANSWER: b 222. Before beginning therapy, Dr. Adams explains to her clients how the therapy process works. She answers any questions they have and clarifies points that are unclear. If clients provide permission, Dr. Adams can proceed with therapy. This procedure is called: a. the therapy contract. b. the therapeutic alliance. c. confidentiality. d. informed consent.

ANSWER: d 223. It is against the ethical code for mental health professionals to have _____ with clients, which occurs when a therapist has both a professional and a nonprofessional association with a client. a. a therapeutic alliance b. a multiple relationship c. transference d. insight ANSWER: b 224. James is a therapist. He lives in a small town with few therapy providers. James sometimes finds it difficult to avoid _____ in which he holds both a professional and a nonprofessional association with a client. a. the therapeutic alliance .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice b. multiple relationships c. violation of patient confidentiality d. patient contact ANSWER: b 225. Divyansh is a therapist who recently began dating Santanu. During a date, Santanu expressed dissatisfaction with their current therapist and asks Divyansh if they would be their new therapist. To maintain high ethical standards in this situation, Divyanish should tell Santanu that they cannot be Santanu's therapist because it is unethical to have _____ with a client. a. a therapeutic alliance b. a multiple relationship c. confidentiality d. insight ANSWER: b 226. Psychotherapy that takes place via technological devices over the Internet is called: a. virtual reality exposure therapy. b. psychopharmacology. c. telepsychology. d. the integrative approach to psychotherapy.

ANSWER: c 227. Ana Pau only meets with their therapist online, which means Anu Pau receives which type of therapy? a. evidence-based therapy b. psychopharmacology c. telepsychology d. person-centered therapy ANSWER: c 228. Dr. Schwanbeck is a therapist who works for a community mental health agency. The agency is located in a large city but serves several other cities, some of which are several hours away. For his patients who live far from his office, Dr. Schwanbeck provides therapy via a secure Internet site. This type of therapy is called: a. virtual reality exposure therapy. b. integrative therapy. c. eclectic therapy. d. telepsychology.

ANSWER: d 229. One major benefit of telepsychology is that it: a. decreases the likelihood a person will drop out of therapy. b. is less pricey than traditional therapy. c. decreases a person's time spent in therapy. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice d. increases access to therapists specializing in a person's problem.

ANSWER: d 230. A specific type of therapy in which clients use electronic means to experience simulations of the situations that cause them anxiety is called: a. telepsychology. b. the eclectic approach to therapy. c. the integrative approach to therapy. d. virtual reality exposure therapy.

ANSWER: d 231. At a prominent university, people with certain phobias have the option to receive treatment in a computergenerated replication of the world. Various techniques are used to give clients a feeling of being within the simulated world. This type of therapy is called: a. the rational-emotive approach. b. the eclectic approach to therapy. c. the integrative approach to therapy. d. virtual reality exposure therapy.

ANSWER: d 232. Valmik has been going to therapy for social anxiety. Their therapist recommended a treatment approach for social anxiety that uses computers and an artificially created environment that mimics the real world. The type of therapy Valmik's therapist has recommended is: a. psychopharmacology. b. the eclectic approach to therapy. c. the integrative approach to therapy. d. virtual reality exposure therapy.

ANSWER: d 233. Drug therapy, psychosurgery, and brain stimulation are all forms of _____ therapy. a. person-centered b. biomedical c. eclectic d. integrative ANSWER: b 234. Medical doctors who specialize in the treatment of mental disorders and can prescribe medication are: a. psychologists. b. pharmacologists. c. psychiatrists. d. pediatricians.

ANSWER: c .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice 235. Medicine used to treat mental disorders is prescribed the MOST by which group? a. medical doctors who are psychiatrists b. psychologists who have prescription privileges c. medical doctors who are not psychiatrists d. psychotherapists ANSWER: c 236. Psychiatrists prescribe medicine to treat mental disorders _____ medical doctors who are not psychiatrists. a. less than b. more than c. an equal amount compared to d. an unknown amount compared to ANSWER: a 237. _____ is the treatment of psychological disorders with medications. a. Psychopharmacology b. Psychotherapy c. Psychosurgery d. Person-centered therapy ANSWER: a 238. Delusions, hallucinations, and bizarre behavior are treated with _____ drugs. a. antianxiety b. antipsychotic c. antidepressant d. mood-stabilizing ANSWER: b 239. Yi-Wen was diagnosed with schizophrenia. Their symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, and bizarre behavior. The psychiatrist that diagnosed Yi-Wen will MOST likely prescribe a(n) _____ medicine. a. antianxiety b. antipsychotic c. stimulant d. mood-stabilizing ANSWER: b 240. Lachlan often has difficulty knowing what is real and what is not because they are always hearing whispers from people they are not sure exist or not. Lachlan is sure that what these voices tell them will help Lachlan save the world. The type of medicine Lachlan would MOST likely be prescribed is a(n) _____ drug. a. antianxiety b. stimulant .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice c. antipsychotic d. mood-stabilizing ANSWER: c 241. _____ medications led to a drastic drop in the population of American mental hospitals when they were first discovered. a. Antianxiety b. Antidepressant c. Mood-stabilizing d. Antipsychotic ANSWER: d 242. When _____ medications were discovered in the 1950s, the lives of many with severe schizophrenia were transformed. a. antianxiety b. antidepressant c. antipsychotic d. mood-stabilizing ANSWER: c 243. _____ medications are the treatment of choice for schizophrenia. a. Antianxiety b. Antipsychotic c. Antidepressant d. Mood-stabilizing ANSWER: b 244. Documented drawback of antipsychotic medications includes: a. that they are not effective in the treatment of schizophrenia. b. that improvement is often limited to the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. c. spastic, repetitive movements of the mouth, face, trunk, or extremities. d. significant weight loss when these medications are taken long-term.

ANSWER: c 245. _____ medications work quickly to reduce symptoms of worry or nervousness. a. Antianxiety b. Antidepressant c. Mood-stabilizing d. Antipsychotic ANSWER: a .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice 246. A person with social phobia or panic disorder would MOST likely be treated with _____ drugs. a. mood-stabilizing b. antidepressant c. antianxiety d. antipsychotic ANSWER: c 247. A few times a week, Hasalina's worry and nervousness become excessive, so Hasalina takes a type of medication that works quickly to reduce their symptoms. Hasalina MOST likely takes a(n) _____ medication. a. antianxiety b. antidepressant c. stimulant d. antipsychotic ANSWER: a 248. A limitation of antianxiety drugs is that they: a. reduce symptoms slowly. b. tend to be ineffective at low doses. c. have a highly energizing effect on the body. d. can lead to addiction.

ANSWER: d 249. Antidepressants work to improve a person's mood by increasing the activity of which neurotransmitters? a. serotonin and norepinephrine b. GABA and monoamine oxidase c. serotonin and monoamine oxidase d. norepinephrine and GABA ANSWER: a 250. For the past 2 weeks, Renato has felt completely hopeless. They have no energy despite hardly ever leaving their bed. Renato has lost interest in all activities and cries frequently. If they sought biomedical therapy, Renato would MOST likely be prescribed a(n) _____ drug. a. stimulant b. mood-stabilizing c. antipsychotic d. antidepressant ANSWER: d 251. In addition to treating depression, antidepressants can also be effective in reducing _____ symptoms. a. psychotic b. manic .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice c. anxiety d. cognitive ANSWER: c 252. The first class of antidepressants were: a. TCAs. b. MAOIs. c. SSRIs. d. SNRIs. ANSWER: b 253. The antidepressant drug that Merav takes requires them to be careful about what they eat and drink because it is a type of antidepressant that causes a serious interaction when certain foods or drinks are consumed. The type of antidepressant Merav MOST likely takes is a: a. REBT. b. MAOI. c. SSRI. d. SNRI. ANSWER: b 254. Winston takes an antidepressant medication for his major depressive disorder. Winston must be careful with this medication as it can cause heart irregularities. This medication can also be toxic if too much is taken.

The type of antidepressant Winston takes is MOST likely a: a. TCA. b. MAOI. c. SSRI. d. SNRI. ANSWER: a 255. In the late 1980s and early 1990s, which type of antidepressant became available in America? a. TCA b. MAOI c. SSRI d. SNRI ANSWER: c 256. Potential side effects of SSRIs include: a. increased suicidal thinking in youth. b. weight loss. c. development of involuntary motor movements. d. increased sexual desire. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice ANSWER: a 257. Medications used to lessen the extreme emotional highs and lows of a bipolar disorder are called _____ drugs. a. mood-stabilizing b. antianxiety c. antipsychotic d. antidepressant ANSWER: a 258. Which type of medication would MOST likely be prescribed to a person diagnosed with bipolar disorder? a. antidepressant b. antipsychotic c. mood-stabilizing d. antianxiety ANSWER: c 259. Marguerite has periods of time when she is extremely low and unhappy. She also had periods in which she is overly active and energetic. Marguerite's doctor diagnosed her with bipolar disorder and prescribed a medication to keep her emotions balanced. This medication was MOST likely a(n) _____ drug. a. antidepressant b. antipsychotic c. mood-stabilizing d. antianxiety ANSWER: c 260. The most common type of mood-stabilizer is: a. Prozac. b. Elavil. c. Ativan. d. lithium.

ANSWER: d 261. Lithium is a mood stabilizer that affects: a. sodium neurons. b. serotonin. c. potassium ions. d. norepinephrine.

ANSWER: a 262. Side effects of lithium include: a. lack of thirst. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice b. mania. c. hand tremors. d. weight loss.

ANSWER: c 263. Medications used to treat children and adults with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder are called _____ drugs. a. mood-stabilizing b. stimulant c. antipsychotic d. antidepressant ANSWER: b 264. Stimulant drugs _____ attention and _____ impulsive behaviors in children and adults with attentiondeficit/hyperactivity disorder. a. increase; increase b. increase; decrease c. decrease; increase d. decrease; decrease ANSWER: b 265. _____ is a biomedical therapy in which an electrical current passes through a person's brain to cause a seizure. This treatment is used to treat schizophrenia or depression that has not been successfully treated by numerous attempts at treatment with medication and psychotherapy. a. Transcranial magnetic stimulation b. Electroconvulsive therapy c. Psychosurgery d. Positron emission tomography ANSWER: b 266. Anje has been severely depressed for several years. Anje has taken numerous medications and has repeatedly undergone psychotherapy to no effect. Since psychotherapy and medication have been unsuccessful, Anje may benefit from _____, which consists of sending an electrical current through a person's brain in order to trigger a seizure. a. magnetic resonance imaging b. electroconvulsive therapy c. positron emission tomography d. transcranial magnetic stimulation ANSWER: b 267. _____ is a treatment for depression in which a weak current repeatedly pulses through a paddle-shaped magnetic coil just outside a person's head. .

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Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice a. Electroconvulsive therapy b. Positron emission tomography c. Transcranial magnetic stimulation d. Magnetic resonance imaging ANSWER: c 268. Reid has severe depression. He recently tried a type of treatment called transcranial magnetic stimulation.

As such, Reid MOST likely experienced: a. pain and memory loss as a result. b. surgical implantation of a device that delivers electricity to his brain. c. a weak electrical current pulsing through coil placed outside his head. d. a strong electrical current passing through his brain.

ANSWER: c 269. In an effort to improve severe psychological disorders, doctors may operate directly on a person's brain.

This is called: a. electroconvulsive therapy. b. transcranial magnetic stimulation. c. positron emission tomography. d. psychosurgery.

ANSWER: d 270. In _____, the prefrontal lobes are disconnected from the inner regions of the brain that control emotions. a. a lobotomy b. electroconvulsive therapy c. split-brain surgery d. transcranial magnetic stimulation ANSWER: a 271. One of the original forms of psychosurgery was the lobotomy, which involved: a. disabling or completely removing one cerebral hemisphere of a patient's brain. b. severing the left and right hemispheres of a patient's brain. c. drilling a hole in a patient's skull to release evil spirits that cause abnormal behaviors. d. disconnecting a patient's prefrontal lobes from the inner regions of their brain that control emotions.

ANSWER: d

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Appendix A - Essay 1. Why do psychologists use measures of central tendency? Name and define the three most commonly used measures. Also, explain the circumstances in which each measure would make the most sense to use in psychological research.

ANSWER: Psychologists use measures of central tendency to generate a single number that can be used to summarize or represent a group of numbers. In other words, a psychologist may collect data on any given phenomenon, and then use a measure of central tendency to describe the general midpoint or main characteristics of the data set with one number. The most frequently used measure of central tendency is the mean, which is the arithmetic average of a set of numbers. It makes sense for a researcher to calculate the mean to get a sense for the most typical value in general, or what the given sample of data looks like on average. Also used is the median, which is the midpoint of a data set such that, when ordered sequentially, there are as many numbers greater than the median as there are fewer. This measure makes most sense to use when the data set includes some extreme outliers on one end or another (i.e., a skewed data set), which pull the mean in one direction and make it a deceptive indicator of what the most common data value is. The mode, or most frequently occurring number, is not used as frequently, but can be useful to identify when the distribution of data points is bimodal, meaning there may be more than one most commonly occurring data value.

2. What does it mean for the result of a study to reach statistical significance? Provide a numerical example.

Describe a situation in which a statistically significant result does not also mean a practically significant result.

ANSWER: When the results of a study reach statistical significance, there is a high probability that the results are not just due to chance. For example, if a study's statistical p value equaled 0.05, then there's only a 5% chance that the result could have happened by chance. Statistical significance does not always mean practical significance; if researchers found that a cancer treatment drug increased life span, but only by 2 days, the results may reach statistical significance but not be very clinically relevant.

3. Discuss where the placement of the mean, median, and mode fall on a graph that depicts a normal, a positively skewed, and a negatively skewed distribution. Be sure to describe why.

ANSWER: In a normal distribution, the data fall evenly to either side of the center, which could be represented as the mean, median, or mode, since they would all be the same. In a positively skewed distribution, the data are skewed to the right since there are more high than low numbers (and hence a longer tail on the right side). In this case, the mean would be the highest value of the three measures (because the more extreme high numbers pull the mean up and to the right), followed by the median, with the mode being the lowest value at the peak of the graph. In a negatively skewed distribution, the data are skewed to the left since there are more low than high numbers (and hence a longer tail on the left side). That means the mean would be the lowest value of the three measures (because the more extreme low numbers pull the mean down and to the left), followed by the median, with the mode being the highest value at the peak of the graph.

4. Describe what a normal, a positively skewed, and a negatively skewed distribution would look like on a graph. Provide a real-life example for each type of distribution.

ANSWER: A normal distribution is also known as a bell curve because on a graph, it resembles a perfectly symmetrical bell with one peak and numbers symmetrically distributed around that midpoint. IQ is an example of a normal distribution. In a skewed distribution, the numbers are not symmetrically distributed around the mean. A positively skewed distribution would have a peak more on the left side of the graph and a longer "tail" of data points on the right side of the peak. An example of a positively skewed distribution might be the prices of homes in a relatively poor part of town with a .

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Appendix A - Essay few very nice, newer, modern homes that cost a lot more than the vast majority of the other homes.

A negatively skewed distribution would have a peak more on the right side of the graph and a longer "tail" of data points on the left side of the peak. An example of a negatively skewed distribution might be test scores in a class of gifted students who are given a very easy test.

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Appendix A - Multiple Choice 1. The mean is defined as the: a. number that falls at the midpoint in a group of numbers listed in order. b. number that occurs the most often in a group of numbers. c. average of a group of numbers. d. difference between the highest and the lowest score in a list of numbers.

ANSWER: c 2. Malcom is timing how long he can hold his breath. So far, he has values of 1, 2, 2, and 3 minutes. What is the mean time that he can hold his breath? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes ANSWER: b 3. If Jude wanted to find the median of a group of numbers, he would: a. add all the numbers and divide the sum by the number of numbers in the data set. b. identify the number that falls in the middle when the numbers are listed in order. c. figure out which number occurs the most frequently. d. subtract the lowest number from the highest number.

ANSWER: b 4. Sai is measuring how many sit-ups she can do in a minute. So far, she has values of 40, 40, 41, 42, and 46.

What is the mode of this preliminary data set? a. 6 b. 40 c. 41 d. 42 ANSWER: b 5. Measures of _____ describe the degree to which numbers in a group differ from the mean. a. central tendency b. variability c. statistical significance d. practical significance ANSWER: b 6. The _____ is the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a list of numbers. a. mean b. median c. standard deviation .

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Appendix A - Multiple Choice d. range ANSWER: d 7. The mean is defined as the: a. number that falls at the midpoint in a group of numbers listed in order. b. number that occurs the most often in a group of numbers. c. average of a group of numbers. d. difference between the highest and the lowest score in a list of numbers.

ANSWER: c 8. The range is defined as the: a. number that occurs the most often in a group of numbers. b. difference between the highest and lowest scores in a list of numbers. c. number that falls at the midpoint in a group of numbers listed in order. d. degree to which numbers in a group differ from the mean.

ANSWER: b 9. Malcom is timing how long he can hold his breath. So far, he has values of 1, 2, 2, and 3 minutes. What is the mean time that he can hold his breath? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes ANSWER: b 10. Tammy is timing how long she can hold her breath. So far, she has values of 1, 2, 2, and 3 minutes. What is the range of the amounts of time that she can hold her breath? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes ANSWER: b 11. If Jude wanted to find the median of a group of numbers, he would: a. add all the numbers and divide the sum by the number of numbers in the data set. b. identify the number that falls in the middle when the numbers are listed in order. c. figure out which number occurs the most frequently. d. subtract the lowest number from the highest number.

ANSWER: b 12. _____ is a rather sophisticated measure of the variability around a mean. .

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Appendix A - Multiple Choice a. Mode b. Median c. Standard deviation d. Range ANSWER: c 13. Sai is measuring how many sit-ups she can do in a minute. So far, she has values of 40, 40, 41, 42, and 46.

What is the mode of this preliminary data set? a. 6 b. 40 c. 41 d. 42 ANSWER: b 14. When calculating the standard deviation, the difference between each number and the mean has to be: a. negative. b. squared. c. divided. d. multiplied.

ANSWER: b 15. Measures of _____ describe the degree to which numbers in a group differ from the mean. a. central tendency b. variability c. statistical significance d. practical significance ANSWER: b 16. _____ is the probability that a statistic could have been obtained by random chance. a. Statistical significance b. Practical significance c. Standard deviation d. Correlation ANSWER: a 17. The _____ is the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a list of numbers. a. mean b. median c. standard deviation d. range ANSWER: d .

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Appendix A - Multiple Choice 18. In descriptive research, it is important to describe the main characteristic of your population with _____ number(s). a. no b. one c. two d. more than two ANSWER: b 19. The range is defined as the: a. number that occurs the most often in a group of numbers. b. difference between the highest and lowest scores in a list of numbers. c. number that falls at the midpoint in a group of numbers listed in order. d. degree to which numbers in a group differ from the mean.

ANSWER: b 20. The _____ is the arithmetic average of a group of numbers. a. mode b. median c. range d. mean ANSWER: d 21. Tammy is timing how long she can hold her breath. So far, she has values of 1, 2, 2, and 3 minutes. What is the range of the amounts of time that she can hold her breath? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes ANSWER: b 22. The median is defined as the: a. number that falls at the midpoint in a group of numbers listed in order. b. number that occurs the most often in a group of numbers. c. degree to which numbers in a group differ from the mean. d. difference between the highest and the lowest scores in a list of numbers.

ANSWER: a 23. _____ is a rather sophisticated measure of the variability around a mean. a. Mode b. Median .

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Appendix A - Multiple Choice c. Standard deviation d. Range ANSWER: c 24. The median is typically the BEST choice for a measure of central tendency when: a. the data set is very skewed, but only if to the right. b. the data set has normally distributed values. c. there are a handful of high and low numbers. d. the data set is very skewed, but only if to the left.

ANSWER: c 25. The mean is defined as the: a. number that falls at the midpoint in a group of numbers listed in order. b. number that occurs the most often in a group of numbers. c. average of a group of numbers. d. difference between the highest and the lowest score in a list of numbers.

ANSWER: c 26. Malcom is timing how long he can hold his breath. So far, he has values of 1, 2, 2, and 3 minutes. What is the mean time that he can hold his breath? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes ANSWER: b 27. If Jude wanted to find the median of a group of numbers, he would: a. add all the numbers and divide the sum by the number of numbers in the data set. b. identify the number that falls in the middle when the numbers are listed in order. c. figure out which number occurs the most frequently. d. subtract the lowest number from the highest number.

ANSWER: b 28. The mean is defined as the: a. number that falls at the midpoint in a group of numbers listed in order. b. number that occurs the most often in a group of numbers. c. average of a group of numbers. d. difference between the highest and the lowest score in a list of numbers.

ANSWER: c 29. Malcom is timing how long he can hold his breath. So far, he has values of 1, 2, 2, and 3 minutes. What is .

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Appendix A - Multiple Choice the mean time that he can hold his breath? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes ANSWER: b 30. If Jude wanted to find the median of a group of numbers, he would: a. add all the numbers and divide the sum by the number of numbers in the data set. b. identify the number that falls in the middle when the numbers are listed in order. c. figure out which number occurs the most frequently. d. subtract the lowest number from the highest number.

ANSWER: b 31. Sai is measuring how many sit-ups she can do in a minute. So far, she has values of 40, 40, 41, 42, and 46.

What is the mode of this preliminary data set? a. 6 b. 40 c. 41 d. 42 ANSWER: b 32. Measures of _____ describe the degree to which numbers in a group differ from the mean. a. central tendency b. variability c. statistical significance d. practical significance ANSWER: b 33. The _____ is the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a list of numbers. a. mean b. median c. standard deviation d. range ANSWER: d 34. The range is defined as the: a. number that occurs the most often in a group of numbers. b. difference between the highest and lowest scores in a list of numbers. c. number that falls at the midpoint in a group of numbers listed in order. d. degree to which numbers in a group differ from the mean. .

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Appendix A - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 35. Tammy is timing how long she can hold her breath. So far, she has values of 1, 2, 2, and 3 minutes. What is the range of the amounts of time that she can hold her breath? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes ANSWER: b 36. _____ is a rather sophisticated measure of the variability around a mean. a. Mode b. Median c. Standard deviation d. Range ANSWER: c 37. When calculating the standard deviation, the difference between each number and the mean has to be: a. negative. b. squared. c. divided. d. multiplied.

ANSWER: b 38. _____ is the probability that a statistic could have been obtained by random chance. a. Statistical significance b. Practical significance c. Standard deviation d. Correlation ANSWER: a 39. In descriptive research, it is important to describe the main characteristic of your population with _____ number(s). a. no b. one c. two d. more than two ANSWER: b 40. The _____ is the arithmetic average of a group of numbers. a. mode .

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Appendix A - Multiple Choice b. median c. range d. mean ANSWER: d 41. The median is defined as the: a. number that falls at the midpoint in a group of numbers listed in order. b. number that occurs the most often in a group of numbers. c. degree to which numbers in a group differ from the mean. d. difference between the highest and the lowest scores in a list of numbers.

ANSWER: a 42. The median is typically the BEST choice for a measure of central tendency when: a. the data set is very skewed, but only if to the right. b. the data set has normally distributed values. c. there are a handful of high and low numbers. d. the data set is very skewed, but only if to the left.

ANSWER: c 43. If Karla wanted to find the mode of a group of numbers, she would: a. add all the numbers and divide the sum by the number of numbers in the data set. b. identify the number that falls in the middle when the numbers are listed in order. c. figure out which number occurs the most frequently. d. subtract the lowest number from the highest number.

ANSWER: c 44. If Karla wanted to find the range of a group of numbers, she would: a. add all the numbers and divide the sum by the number of numbers in the data set. b. identify the number that falls in the middle when the numbers are listed in order. c. figure out which number occurs the most frequently. d. subtract the lowest number from the highest number.

ANSWER: d 45. A(n) _____ is a number in a list that falls far from the mean. a. mode b. median c. outlier d. range ANSWER: c 46. An outlier is defined as a(n): .

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Appendix A - Multiple Choice a. statistic that measures the variability around a mean. b. average of a group of numbers with great variability. c. single number used to summarize a group of numbers. d. number in a list that falls far from the mean.

ANSWER: d 47. A _____ distribution is also called a bell curve. a. positively skewed b. negatively skewed c. normal d. statistical ANSWER: c 48. A _____ distribution has more high numbers than low. a. positively skewed b. negatively skewed c. normal d. statistical ANSWER: b 49. A _____ skewed distribution is said to be skewed to the left. a. positively b. negatively c. normally d. statistically ANSWER: b 50. A _____ skewed distribution is said to be skewed to the right. a. positively b. negatively c. normally d. statistically ANSWER: a 51. In a normal distribution, the mean and median are _____ the mode. a. equal to b. greater than c. less than d. close to ANSWER: a .

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Appendix A - Multiple Choice 52. If the results of a study reach _____ significance, it can be said that the hypothesis was supported. a. statistical b. practical c. normal d. skewed ANSWER: a 53. Indri's study reached statistical significance. She can now conclude that her data set: a. has a positively skewed distribution. b. has a standard deviation that is too large. c. supported her study's hypothesis. d. has a negatively skewed distribution.

ANSWER: c 54. A measure of _____ is a single number used to summarize or represent a group of numbers. a. central tendency b. variability c. statistical significance d. practical significance ANSWER: a 55. A psychological researcher would use a measure of _____ to determine one number that represents how much time college students tend to spend studying per week during the school year. a. central tendency b. normal distribution c. statistical significance d. standard deviation ANSWER: a 56. The _____ is the number that falls at the midpoint in a group of numbers listed in order. a. mode b. median c. range d. mean ANSWER: b 57. In a sequential list of numbers, half of the numbers are greater in value than the _____ and half are less. a. mode b. median c. range d. mean .

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Appendix A - Multiple Choice ANSWER: b 58. Vinay is timing how fast he can run a 100-meter dash. So far, he has times of 11.5, 11.8, 12.3, 13.2, and 13.2 seconds. What is Vinay's median time thus far? a. 1.7 seconds b. 12.3 seconds c. 12.4 seconds d. 13.2 seconds ANSWER: b 59. The _____ is the number that occurs most frequently in a group of numbers. a. mode b. median c. range d. mean ANSWER: a 60. Which list has the lowest variability? a. 1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5, 6, 6, 7, 7 b. 1, 5, 10, 10, 10, 15, 25, 35 c. 100, 200, 300, 400, 500, 600 d. 101, 102, 201, 202, 301, 302 ANSWER: a 61. Which list contains an outlier? a. 1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5, 6, 6, 7, 7, 39 b. 1, 5, 10, 10, 10, 15, 25, 35, 45 c. 100, 200, 300, 400, 500, 600 d. 101, 102, 201, 202, 301, 302 ANSWER: a 62. Which data set would MOST accurately depict a normal distribution? a. 1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5, 6, 6, 7, 7, 39 b. 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 15, 25, 35, 45 c. 100, 200, 300, 400, 500, 600 d. 101, 102, 201, 202, 301, 302 ANSWER: c 63. Which phenomenon is MOST likely to be normally distributed? a. scores in a class where a lot of students are struggling b. the height and IQ levels of women in the United States .

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Appendix A - Multiple Choice c. scores in an easy class of gifted students d. prices of cars in a used car lot that has two luxury cars ANSWER: b 64. A _____ distribution has more low numbers than high. a. positively skewed b. negatively skewed c. normal d. statistical ANSWER: a 65. Which data set would MOST accurately depict a positively skewed distribution? a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 6, 19, 20, 20, 20, 28, 28, 39 b. 0, 0, 0, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 c. 100, 200, 300, 400, 500, 600 d. 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65 ANSWER: b 66. Which phenomenon is MOST likely to depict a negatively skewed distribution? a. scores in a class where a lot of students are struggling b. the height and IQ levels of women in the U.S. c. scores in an easy class of gifted students d. prices of cars in a used car lot that has two luxury cars ANSWER: c 67. In a _____ distribution, the mean can be a misleading measure of central tendency. a. skewed b. bell c. normal d. statistical ANSWER: a 68. In a negatively skewed distribution, the median is _____ the mode. a. equal to b. greater than c. less than d. close to ANSWER: c 69. A p value of 0.05 means that there is a _____ percent chance the result is occurring due to chance. a. 0.05 .

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Appendix A - Multiple Choice b. 0.5 c. 5 d. 50 ANSWER: c 70. The impact of a statistic on the real lives of real people is known as _____ significance. a. impressive b. practical c. sample d. statistical ANSWER: b 71. The _____ is also known as the average. a. mode b. medianh c. range d. mean ANSWER: d 72. In a positively skewed distribution, the mean is _____ the mode. a. equal to b. greater than c. less than d. close to ANSWER: b

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