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ĐỀ THI HSG TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG MÔN TIẾNG ANH

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Tổng hợp đề chính thức và đề xuất kì thi hsg trại hè Hùng Vương môn Tiếng Anh khối 10 năm 2019 có đáp án và phần nghe WORD VERSION | 2020 EDITION ORDER NOW / CHUYỂN GIAO QUA EMAIL TAILIEUCHUANTHAMKHAO@GMAIL.COM Tài liệu chuẩn tham khảo Phát triển kênh bởi Ths Nguyễn Thanh Tú Đơn vị tài trợ / phát hành / chia sẻ học thuật : Nguyen Thanh Tu Group Hỗ trợ trực tuyến Fb www.facebook.com/DayKemQuyNhon Mobi/Zalo 0905779594

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XV - SƠN LA 2019

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI: 10

ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC KẠN

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm có 13 trang

PART I. LISTENING (50p) Section 1. You will hear a science student enquiring about English courses at a University language center. For questions from 1 to 7, fill in each gap with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER. (14p) (ACHIEVE IELTS) Courses Available writing in first term 1. __________ in second term 2. __________ throughout the year 3.__________ during long vacation Class sizes: 4. _________ maximum Course costs often paid by the 5. __________ Exams available in 6. __________ Must enroll by 7.__________ Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. Section 2. Listen to the recording and complete each of the following sentences with NO MORE THAN two words AND/ OR a number (16p) (FCE practice tests) Sky high Gina dislike her first job as a (1)_______________________ The airline that Gina works for insists on at least (2)________________________ hours of flying experience from their captains. Gina says that because her husband is a travel writer he is tolerant of her job. The " Notice to Pilots' provides information about any (3) _______________________that are experiencing problems. Gina says that if she has extra (4)_______________________she will need more fuel for her flight. Gina explains that many pilots she works with did a degree in (5)______________ at university. Gina says that all the (6)_______________________________must be within reach of the two pilots in the cockpit. The pilots look at a (7)___________________________ to check if anyone is standing at the cockpit entrance. 1

Gina gets information from a (8)___________________________ about any small problem on the plane. Gina says what she really appreciates is night flight. Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. Section 3: You will hear a man called Dan Pearman talking on the radio about Pedal Powera UK charity which sends bicycles to developing countries. Listen and decide the following sentences True (T) or False (F). (10p) 1. In 1993 Dan Pearman went to Ecuador as part of his studies. 2. Danâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s neighbor was successful in business because he found it easy to reach customers. 3. Dan says charities rely on getting enough bicycles to send regularly. 4. The town of Rivas has almost as many bikes as Amsterdam. 5. In August 2000, the charity was criticized in the British media. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Section 4: You will hear two psychologists talking about modern childhood. For questions 1 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 5, choose the answer (A, B, C, or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10 points) 1. What does Daniel imply about past images of childhood? A. They are entirely fictional. B. They all show the misfortunes of childhood. C. They are diverse. D. They represent the innocence of childhood. 2. When mentioning the children throwing bags on the bus-stop, Louise is _____. A. critical B. amused C. angry D. sarcastic 3. According to Daniel, ______. A. children are failing to learn adequate social skills B. children do not eat a balanced diet C. children are becoming involved in political scandals D. children are far more sociable than they used to be 4. Louise believes that ________. A. parents are no longer interested in their children B. children should study harder to pass school exams C. modern life has a negative effect on children D. most parents are emotionally unstable 2

5. Daniel implies that _______. A. children would be happier if their parents taught them at home B. machines are more of a menace to children than people are C. teachers aren’t helping children to be competitive enough D. most teenage problems stem from an unbalanced diet Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. PART 2. LEXICO-GRAMMAR ( 40 points) Section 1: Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 1. When she puts her mind to it, she is always capable of _____ sarcasm. A. biting B. sharpening C. slicing D. striking 2. Fred has a__________ of staying out of trouble at the office - he never gets involved. A. trait B. ability C. skill D. knack 3. It is ________that the Minister of Justice should be accused of corruption A. sarcastic B. sardonic C. ironic D. cynical 4. You can’t believe a word that woman says –she is a ________liar. A. committed B. compulsive C. impulsive D. devoted 5. The judge show that the murderer had shown a callous ________for human life. A. disregard B. ignorance C. omission D. neglect 6. It was ________ whether the operation would go ahead because so many staff were on sick leave that week. A. safe and sound B. touch-and-go C. pros and cons D. grin and bear 7. Anna’s friend knew the casting director, so she pulled a few ________ to arrange an audition. A. ropes B. wires C. threads D. strings 8. The play is simply a vehicle for its stars and falls ________ of having a decent plot. A. fast B. short C. quick D. thin 9. Although he’s shy, it certainly hasn’t _______ his career in any way. A. restricted B. obstructed C. cramped D. impeded 10. She was caught cheating in the race. _______, she was disqualified. A. Explicitly B. Accordingly C. Equally D. Fundamentally 11. Burglar alarms on cars and houses may act as a _______ to the casual thief. A. prevention B. precaution C. stopper D. deterrent 12 The ________ are against her winning a fourth consecutive gold medal. A. chances B. bets C. prospects D. odds 13. Hardship and hard work are very much part and ________ of student life. A. package B. section C. province D. parcel 14. I’m sorry to have bothered you. I was under the ____ that you wanted me to call you. A. mistake B. miscalculation C. misconception D. misapprehension 3

15. ____ we went swimming. A. Being a hot day, B. It was a hot day, C. The day being hot, D. Due to a hot day, 16. Iâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;ve yet ________ a person as Theo. A. to meet as infuriating B. to have met such infuriating C. been meeting as infuriating D. been meeting such infuriating 17. Sniffer dogs are able to locate survivors beneath the rubble with ________ . A. precision B. correctness C. meticulousness D. exactitude 18. The preparations for the Olympic Games are on ________ according to the committee in charge. A. goal B. progress C. target D. aim 19. A ________ number of mothers with young children are deterred from undertaking paid work because they lack access to childcare. A. substantial B. bleak C. thoughtless D. quaint 20. As I waited on the pavement, a black Mercedes __________beside me. A. pulled up B. pulled down C. pulled off D. pulled through Your answers: 1. ____ 2. ____ 3. ____ 4. ____ 5. ____ 6. ____ 7. ____ 8. ____ 9. ____ 10. ____ 11. ___ 12. ___ 13. ___ 14. ___ 15. ___ 16. ___ 17. ___ 18. ___ 19. ___ 20. ____ Section 2. Fill each gap with the correct form of the words in brackets. (10p) 1. George gave the child a _____________of sweets. ( HAND) 2. Our class team has won five ________________football match. ( SUCCEED) 3. The _____________have discovered the laws of inheritance ( GENE) 4. Thousands of patients' lives have been made ________________ better by the application of cloning genes. ( MEASURE) 5. His actions in destroying the tapes were _________________. ( DEFEND) 6. This margarine is full of _____________ - just look at the label! ( ADD) 7. That one kiss had left her ________________ with excitement.( BREATH) 8. She is employed by the president in an ______________ capacity.( ADVISE) 9. She was charged with _________________ bank records.( FALSE) 10. Nobody wants to make friends with a/ an __________________ person ( HEART) Section 3. The passage below contains TEN mistakes. Underline the mistakes and provide the corrections in the spaces below. (10p) Line 1 Line 2 Line 3 Line 4 Line 5

Plastics are among the most ubiquitous materials in our economy, our lives, and our environment. They are also among the most pervasive and persistent pollution on Earth. In recent years, stark images of beaches, waterways and wildlife filling with plastic have spurred demands on action to address plastic pollution. These 4

Line 6 Line 7 Line 8 Line 9 Line 10 Line 11 Line 12 Line 13 Line 14 Line 15

calls are coupled with grown concern that plastic and its toxic additives pose serious risks to human health at every stages of the plastic lifecycle. Far more attention has been paid to the impacts of this same lifecycle on the Earth’s climate. This is a dangerous oversight. From catastrophic wildfires in California to searing heat waves and record drought in India, the scale and growing severe of the climate crisis are undeniable. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change warns that humanity must limit warming below 1.5C or face far greater and potential irreversible climate chaos. Achieving this, we must cut global emissions 45% in 2030 and reach zero net emissions by 2050.

Answers 1. Line 2. Line 3. Line 4. Line 5. Line

6. Line 7. Line 8. Line 9. Line 10. Line

PART III. READING (60p) I. Choose the words that best complete the sentences in the text. Write your answers in the box provided (15 pts) The knowledge and eloquence that people gain through travelling is usually perceived as the best (2) ________ in life. It is the inquisitive human nature that (3) ________ people to seek thrilling experiences and to set out on an exploration trip. Those who travel frequently and to (5) ________ places benefit from establishing new relationships and acquire a better knowledge about other cultures and lifestyles. However, there is a (7) ________ of truth in the assumption that people are prone to (8) ________ clichés and unfounded prejudices about other nations and their characteristics. Sometimes, it is only the first-hand encounter that can help change the (9) ________ towards the so-called ‘inferior communities’. This direct contact with a different civilization enables travelers to drop their baseless assumptions and get (11) ________ with the real concept of life in all four corners of the globe. (12) ________ question, travelling (13) ________ friendship and makes it easier for many individuals to acknowledge the true value of different traditions and customs. Yet, it does not always mean enjoyment. It may also involve coming close with the atrocities of real existence as well as becoming aware of the challenges and hardships that other people have to struggle with. Hence, a true voyage is the one with a good deal of experience to (15) ________ about, very often combined with exposure to abhorrent sights and incredible ordeals. The learning to 5

be complete, thus, requires an ability to observe and analyze the surroundings, both their glamour and brutality. 1. A. completion B. fulfillment C. conclusion D. resolution 2. A. impels B. involves C. entails D. pursues 3. A. reverse B. averse C. diverse D. converse 4. A. speck B. grain C. scrap D. tip B. cherishing C. indulging D. persisting 5. A. persevering B. manner C. outlook D. approach 6. A. prejudice 7. A. informed B. realized C. acquainted D. defined B. Beyond C. Unfailing D. Beneath 8. A. Apart B. affords C. elicits D. incites 9. A. facilitates 10. A. commemorate B. reminisce C. resemble D. remind Answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Section 2. Fill in each gap with one suitable word. Write your answer in the box provided. (10 points) QUEST â&#x20AC;&#x201C; THE NEXT BIG THING? How often do you go along to a gig and see (1)_________ new? Well, Quest's Friday night gig at the City Hall certainly caught my (2)_________. Having heard one or two tracks online, I was (3)_________ a group of about six musicians. Imagine my surprise when just three young men walked on stage. It was clear that the band already have a small but (4)_________ following. A group of fans in front of the small stage were singing (5)_________ to at least half of the songs. And it was easy to see why. Quest have a clever combination of catchy (6)_________, an irresistible beat, and very much their own sound. All three of the band members play with great energy and expertise (7)_________ their age. The only downside was when it came to the encores. They (8)_________ up repeating some of their material and giving us cover (9)_________ of early rock classics. A bit disappointing, but give them time and I'm sure they'll be writing a lot more. I'm sure we'll be hearing a lot more from Quest. Check them out every Friday at the City Hall until the end of the month. It's well (10)_________ it. Answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Secton 3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the following questions. Write your answers in the box provided. (10p)

Ethology is concerned with the study of adaptive, or survival, value of behavior and its Evolutionary history. Ethological theory began to be applied to research on children in the 1960’s but has become even more influential today. The origins of ethology can be traced to the work of Darwin. Its modern foundations were laid by two European zoologists, Konrad Lorenz and Niko Tinbergen. Watching the behaviors diverse animal species in their natural habitats, Lorenz, and Tinbergen observed behavior patterns that promote survival. The most well-known of these is imprinting, the early following behavior of certain baby birds that ensures that the young will stay close to their mother and be fed and protected from danger. Imprinting takes place during an early, restricted time period of development. If the mother goose is not present during this time, but an object resembling her in important features is, young goslings may imprint on it instead. Observations of imprinting led to major concept that has been applied in child Development” the critical period. It refers to a limited times span during which the child is biologically prepared to acquire certain adaptive behaviors but needs the support of suitably stimulating environment. Many researchers have conducted studies to find out whether complex cognitive and social behaviors must be learned during restricted time periods. For example, if children are deprived of adequate food or physical and social stimulation during the early years of life, will their intelligence be permanently impaired? If language is not mastered during the preschool years, is the child’s capacity to acquire it reduced? Inspired by observations of imprinting, in 1969 the British psychoanalyst John Bowl by applied ethological theory to the understanding of the relationship between an infant and its parents. He argued that attachment behaviors of babies, such as smiling, babbling , grasping, and crying, are built-in social signals that encourage the parents to approach, care for, and interact with the baby. By keeping a parent near, these behaviors help ensure that the baby will be fed, protected from danger, and provided with the stimulation and affection necessary for healthy growth. The development of attachment in human infants is a lengthy process involving changes in psychological structures that lead to a deep affectional tie between parent and baby. 1. What was Darwin’s contribution to ethology? (A) Darwin improved on the original principles of ethology. (B) Darwin was the professor who taught Lorenz and Tinbergen. (C) Darwin’s work provided the basis for ethology. (D) Darwin was the first person to apply ethological theory to children. 2. The word “diverse” is closest in meaning to (A) small (B) varied (C) wild (D) particular 7

3. The word “ensures” is closest in meaning to (A) guarantees (B) proves (C) teaches (D) assumes 4. According to the passage, if a mother goose is not present during the time period when imprinting takes place, which of the following will most likely occur? (A) The gosling will not imprint on any object. (B) The gosling may not find a mate when it matures. (C) The mother will later imprint on the gosling. (D) The gosling may imprint on another object. 5. The word “it” refers to (A) development (B) goose (C) time (D) object 6. The word “suitably” is closest in meaning to (A) willingly (B) moderately (C) appropriately (D) emotionally 7. The author mentions all of the following as attachment behaviors of human infants EXCEPT (A) grasping (B) crying (C) eating (D) smiling 8. According to the passage, attachment behaviors of infants are intended to (A) get the physical, emotional and social needs of the infant met (B) allow the infant to become imprinted on objects that resemble the parent (C) provide the infant with a means of self-stimulation (D) prepare the infant to cope with separation 9. The phrase “affectional tie” is closest in meaning to (A) cognitive development (B) emotional attachment (C) psychological need (D) behavioral change 10. It can be inferred from the passage that ethological theory assumes that (A) to learn about human behavior only human subjects should be studied (B) failure to imprint has no influence on intelligence (C) the notion of critical periods applies only to animals (D) there are similarities between animal and human behavior Section 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (20p) A. In the late 1890s, while travelling as an itinerant salesperson for the Crown Cork and Seal Company, King C.Gillette observed how his corked bottle caps were discarded immediately after opening. Nevertheless, his company turned a healthy profit and there was immense business value. Gillette soon came to realise, in a product that was used only a few times. Gillette had his own personal breakthrough while struggling with a straight-bladed razor – a slow, fiddly, and potentially dangerous instrument that required sharpening on a regular basis. A simple, disposable blade that could be thrown away when it dulled would meet a real need and generate strong profits, he correctly reasoned. After founding the American Safety Razor Company in 1901, his sales leapt from 168 blades in 1903 to 123,648 blades only a year later.

B. What King C. Gillette pioneered is far more than a convenient and affordable way for men to shave, however, it is the business practice now known as “freebie marketing” that has inspired many more companies over the years. Gillette’s approach was contrary to the received wisdom of his era, which held that a single, durable, high-quality and relatively expensive consumer item with a high profit margin was the best foundation for a business. Freebie marketing involves two sets of items: a master product that is purchased once, and a consumable product that is frequently disposed of and repurchased on an ongoing basis. In this instance, the master product is often sold with little to no profit margin and is sometimes oven dispensed at a loss. As the consumables are purchased over months and years, however, this can yield a much greater overall profit. C. Freebie marketing only works if the producer of the master item is also able to maintain control over the creation and distribution of the consumables. If this does not happen, then cheaper versions of the consumable items may be produced, leaving the original company without a source of profit. The video game company Atari, for example, initially sold its Atari 2600 consoles at cost price while relying on game sales for profit. Several programmers left Atari, however, and began a new company called Activision which produced cheaper games of a similar quality. Suddenly, Atari was left with no way to make money. Lawsuits to block Activision failed, and Atari survived only by adding licensing measures to Its subsequent 5200 and 7800 consoles. D. In other instances, consumers sometimes find that uses for a master product circumvent the need to purchase consumables. This phenomenon is well known to have afflicted the producers of CueCat barcode readers. These were given away free through Wired magazine with the intention that they would be used by customers to scan barcodes next to advertisements in the publication and thus generate new revenue flows. Users discovered, however, that the machines could be easily modified and used for other purposes, such as building a personal database of book and CD collections. As no licensing agreement was ever reached between Wired and its magazine subscribers, CueCat were powerless to intervene, and after company liquidation, the barcode readers soon became available in quantities over 500.000 for as little as US$0.30 each. E. Not all forms of freebie marketing are legal. One notable example of this is the use of freebie marketing to “push” habit-forming goods in areas where there is otherwise no market. For illegal substances, this is already restricted on the basis of the product’s illegality, but the use of freebie marketing to promote legal goods such as tobacco, alcohol, and pharmaceuticals is also outlawed because the short-term gain to a small number of commercial outlets is not deemed worth the social cost of widespread substance abuse.

F. Another practice that is prohibited under antitrust laws Is a form of freebie marketing known as “tying”. This is when a seller makes the sale of one good conditional on the acquisition of a second good. In these instances, the first good is typically important and highly desirable, while the second is inferior and undesirable. A music distributor who has the rights to an album that it is in high demand, for example, might only allow stores to purchase copies of this album if they also buy unpopular stock that does not sell very easily. Because this typically relies on the manipulation of a natural monopoly on the part of the distributor, such practices are widely understood to constitute anti-competitive behaviour. Choose the correct headings for sections A-F from the list of headings below. Write the correct number i-x in boxes 1-6 on the numbered spaces. List of headings i. No give-aways for addictive products ii. Sales of razor blades increase astronomically iii. Monopoly of consumables is vital for success iv. Video gaming – a risky business v. A novel method of dual marketing ruled out vi. Freebie marketing restricted to legal goods vii. Buyer ingenuity may lead to bankruptcy viii. A marketing innovation ix. A product innovation x. More money to be made from high – quality products 1. Section A ___________ 2. Section B ___________ 3. Section C ___________ 4. Section D ___________ 5. Section E ___________ 6. Section F ___________

Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 7-10 on the numbered spaces. Freebie marketing is not permitted by law for either illegal or legal (7) ______________products. This type of promotion of goods such as tobacco and alcohol is not considered worth the (8)______________ and has consequently been outlawed. “Tying” is also prohibited. This is when the sale of an attractive product is(9)__________________on the purchase of another. It tends to occur when the seller takes advantage of a natural monopoly and is generally considered to be(10)___________________ Part 5. You are going to read a newspaper article about a young professional footballer. For Questions 1-10, choose from the people (A-D). Rising Star 10

Margaret Garelly goes to meet Duncan Williams, who plays for Chelsea Football Club A It's my first time driving to Chelsea's training ground and I turn off slightly too early at the London University playing fields. Had he accepted football's rejections in his early teenage years, it is exactly the sort of ground Duncan Williams would have found himself running around on at weekends. At his current age of 18, he would have been a bright first-year undergraduate mixing his academic studies with a bit of football, rugby and cricket, given his early talent in all these sports. However, Duncan undoubtedly took the right path. Instead of studying, he is sitting with his father Gavin in one of the interview rooms at Chelsea's training base reflecting on Saturday's match against Manchester City. Such has been his rise to fame that it is with some disbelief that you listen to him describing how his career was nearly all over before it began. B Gavin, himself a fine footballer - a member of the national team in his time - and now a professional coach, sent Duncan to three professional clubs as a 14 year-old, but all three turned him down. 'I worked with him a lot when he was around 12, and it was clear he has fantastic technique and skill. But then the other boys shot up in height and he didn't. But I was still upset and surprised that no team seemed to want him, that they couldn't see what he might develop into in time. When Chelsea accepted him as a junior, it was made clear to him that this was more of a last chance than a new beginning. They told him he had a lot of hard work to do and wasn't part of their plans. Fortunately, that summer he just grew and grew, and got much stronger as well.' C Duncan takes up the story: 'The first half of that season I played in the youth team. I got lucky the first-team manager came to watch us play QPR, and though we lost 3-1, I had a really good game. I moved up to the first team after that performance.' Gavin points out that it can be beneficial to be smaller and weaker when you are developing - it forces you to learn how to keep the ball better, how to use 'quick feet' to get out of tight spaces. 'A couple of years ago, Duncan would run past an opponent as if he wasn't there but then the other guy would close in on him. I used to say to him, ''Look, if you can do that now, imagine what you'll be like when you're 17, 18 and you're big and quick and they won't be able to get near you.'' If you're a smaller player, you have to use your brain a lot more.' D Not every kid gets advice from an ex-England player over dinner, nor their own private training sessions. Now Duncan is following in Gavin's footsteps. He has joined a national scheme where young people like him give advice to ambitious young teenagers who are hoping to become 11

professionals. He is an old head on young shoulders. Yet he's also like a young kid in his enthusiasm. And fame has clearly not gone to his head; it would be hard to meet a more likeable, humble young man. So will he get to play for the national team? 'One day I'd love to, but when that is, is for somebody else to decide.'' The way he is playing, that won't be long. (Source: FCE Handbook. Reproduced with permission from Cambridge English) Which paragraph 1) states how surprised the writer was at Duncan's early difficulties? 2) says that Duncan sometimes seems more mature than he really is? 3) describes the frustration felt by Duncan's father? 4) says that Duncan is on course to reach a high point in his profession? 5) suggests that Duncan caught up with his team-mates in terms of physical development? 6) explains how Duncan was a good all-round sportsperson? 7) gives an example of how Gavin reassured his son? 8) mentions Duncan's current club's low opinion of him at one time? 9) mentions a personal success despite a failure for the team? 10) explains how Duncan and his father are fulfilling a similar role? Your answer: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. PART 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 points) 1. I am absolutely sure he took the money on purpose. ->He couldnâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t_________________________________________________. 2. Advanced technology cannot operate without special glass. -> Were it _________________________________________________________. 3. People became aware of the damage to the zone layer when an enormous hole was discovered over the South Pole. -> It was the __________________________________________________________. 4. Mass tourism has been one of the causes of the environmental problems. -> Mass tourism is _______________________________________________________. 5. I was strongly determined to complete my dissertation by the end of the month. -> I had ____________________________________________________________________. Part 2. Rewrite the following sentences with the given word. The given words canâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t be changed. (10 points) 1. Being her only niece, Ann is very precious to her. (APPLE) Being her only niece____________________________________________. 2. The new musical has delighted theatre audiences throughout the country. (STORM) 12

The new musical has taken ____________________________________ 3. The villagers prepared themselves to withstand the coming storm. (BRACED) The villagers______________________________________________________. 4. She told Arthur exactly what she thought of what he had done. ( TICKING -OFF) She________________________________________________________________ 5. Graham took back his words on noticing there were fresh strawberries on the menu. (TUNE) Graham sang _________________________________________________________. Part 3: Write a paragraph about 150 words What should be done to reduce plastic wastes in the world?

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TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XV - SƠN LA 2019

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI: 10 Ngày thi: 28 tháng 7 năm 2019 Hướng dẫn chấm gồm có 7 trang

ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC KẠN

A. LISTENING (50 points) Section 1 (14 points - 2.0 points/correct answer) (ACHIEVE IELTS) 1. listening

2. vocabulary and grammar 6. May

5. department

3. general classes

4. 15

7. week five

Section 2 (16 points - 2.0 points/correct answer) (FCE practice tests) 1. teacher

2. 3,000/ three thousand 3. airports

4. passengers

5. science

6. controls

8. report

7. monitor

Section 3 (5 points - 2.0 points/correct answer) 1. F 2.T 3. T 4. F 5. F Section 4 (10 points - 2.0 points/correct answer) (FCE practice tests) 1. C 2.D 3. A B. LEXICO- GRAMAR: 40 points

4. C

5. B

Section 1: 20 points 1. A 11. D

2. D 12. D

3. C 13. D

4. B 14. D

5. A 15. C

6. B 16. A

7. D 17. A

8. B 18. C

9. D 19. A

10. B 20. A

Section 2: 10 points 1. handful 2. successive 6. additives 7. breathless Section 3: 10 points 1. Line 3: pollution-> pollutants 2. Line 4: filling-> filled 3. Line 5: on -> for 4. Line 6: grown-> growing

3. geneticists 8. advisory

4. immeasurably 5. indefensible 9. falsifying 10. hard- hearted

6. Line 7: more - > less 7. Line 11: severe -> severity 8. Line 13: potential- potentially 9. Line 14: Achieving -> To achieve 1

5. Line 7: stages -> stage C. READING Section1: (10 points) 1. B 2. A

10. Line 14: in -> by

3. C

4. B

5. B

6. D

8. B

9. A

10. B

7. C

Section2: (10 points) 1. something

2. attention

3. expecting

4. loyal

5. along

6. lyrics

7. despite

8. ended

9. versions

10. worth

Section 3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the following questions. (10 points) 1.C 2.B 3. A 4. D 5. D 6. C

7. C

8. A

9. B

10. D

Section 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (20 points) 1. ix 6. V

5.i 10. anti-competitive behaviour Section 5. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (10 points -1.0 points/correct answer) 1. A 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. A

2. viii 7. habit-forming

7. C

3.iii 8. social cost

8. B

4. vii 9. conditional

9. C

10. D

WRITING: 50 points PART 1. (10 points) 1. He couldnâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t (possibly) have taken the money by mistake/ chance/ accident/ coincidence. 2. Were it not for special glass advanced technology could not operate. 3. It was the discovery of an enormous hole over the South Pole that made people aware of the damage to the ozone layer. 4. Mass tourism is partly responsible for/ to blame for the environmental problems. 5. I had a strong determination to complete my dissertation by the end of the month. PART 2. (10 points) 1. Being her only niece, Ann is the apple of her eyes. 2. The new musical has taken theatre audiences by storm. 3. The villagers braced themselves for the coming storm. 4. She gave Arthur a ticking-off 5. Graham sang a different tune when noticing there were fresh strawberries on the menu. Part 3: 30 points 2

TAPESCRIPT

Part 3 My name's Dan Pearman and Id like to talk about the work of Pedal Power, a small charity based mainly in the UK. I'll be giving our contact details at the end, if anyone would like to find out more about how to support us. But first, how the charity began. I got the idea of exporting bicycles to developing countries while I was in Ecuador. I went there in 1993 just after graduating from university. After three years of studying, I wanted adventure. I loved travelling, so I decided to join a voluntary organisation and was sent to Ecuador to carry out land surveys. The project came to an end after five years and when I returned to the UK in 1998, I started planning Pedal Power. Where I lived in Ecuador was a very rural area. My neighbour had the only bicycle in the village, whereas everyone else walked everywhere. My neighbour's business was unusually successful, and for years I couldn't understand why. Then I realised having a bike meant he could get where he wanted to go without much trouble. Other local carpenters could only accept jobs in a threekilometre radius, so no matter how skilled they were, they could never do as many jobs as my neighbour. At Pedal Power, we collect second-hand bikes in the UK and send -them to some of the poorest regions in the world. When we distribute bikes overseas we don't give them away for free. We'd like to, but long term that doesn't really help the local economy. The demand for bikes is enormous, which makes them very expensive locally. So we sell them for 5% of the normal price. But in order to continue operating we need to have a constant supply of bikes which we send out every six months. One example of a town that's received bicycles from Pedal Power is Rivas. It was the first place I sent a full container of bicycles to. Most people there now own a bicycle. The local economy has developed so much, you wouldn't recognise it as the same place. In fact, there are more bikes than on the streets of Amsterdam, if you've ever been there. 5

But Pedal Power still needs your help. You may have read about some of our recent problems in the British media. In August 2000, we simply ran out of money. We had containers of bikes ready to send, but no money to pay the bills. It was a terrible situation. We managed to ensure the bikes went out on time, but the other problems carried on for several months. Part 4: Daniel: I hope this isn’t going to deteriorate into a “What is childhood?” discussion – the one about solemn little miniature adults in old portraits and infants who toiled from dawn to dusk in the fields, and poor unfortunates whipped within an inch of their lives by sadistic schoolteachers. Or, alternatively, a debate about the adventures of Huck Finn and the Famous Five, and apparent carefree innocence. There have been many versions of childhood in fact and fiction, and I dare say there’ll be many more. Louise: Well, according to a recent newspaper report, childhood is dying. So those cheeky little scamps I saw challenging each other to throw their school bags on top of a bus-stop must have been a figment of my imagination. Or perhaps they were making a political stand against the rigidities of the formal curriculum. Who knows? Apparently a group of adults too. Academics and professionals have put their signatures to a letter, subsequently championed by the Daily Telegraph newspaper and the Tory Party, articulating the fall of childhood innocence. My heart is with the sentiments of this campaign, but I worry that it loses sight of practical wisdom. Daniel: At birth, all children are distractible, impulsive, egocentric creatures, but by the time they reach teenage years we expect them – as a result of their experiences, environment and education – to have acquired a degree of self-control, an ability to see other people’s points of view and the basic skills needed to enjoy their life ahead. It’s the development from babyhood to adolescence that I investigated for my book, Toxic Childhood, and my conclusion was that many children in Britain today are indeed being robbed of the chance of a healthy childhood. Many reach adolescence with poor attention spans and self-control and a distinct lack of empathy for the people around them. Their main and major basic skill is ticking boxes on tests, and this is scandalous. Louise: As one of the richest, most highly developed nations in the world, we really should be able to provide the sort of childhood that allows the next generation to grow up happy, healthy, and civilised. Instead many of our children have developed a taste for unhealthy food, a couch-potato lifestyle and have related problems with sleeping.

An unacceptable number suffer from inadequate early emotional bonding, lack of interaction with their parents and a high level of emotional instability. Rather than stimulating, real-life experiences, children have TV and computer games at home and a narrow test-and-target driven curriculum at school. Moral guidance has suffered as societies have become increasingly confused, while children are constantly exposed to manipulative advertising and the excesses of celebrity culture. In a recent survey of children’s well-being among the countries of the European Union, the UK came 21st out of 25. We should be ashamed of ourselves. Daniel: Yes, I believe we are robbing our children of something we could provide: the conditions in which we grow up bright, balanced and well-behaved. Somehow in the turmoil of rapid social, cultural, and technological change over the last 20 years or so, our society has lost sight of essential truths about child development and education. As a nation, we need to provide parents with information on children’s developmental needs, including real food, real play, first-hand experience and real-life interaction with the significant adults in their lives. Since parents are terrified by media hysteria about “stranger danger” and the fevered imaginings of the health and safety lobby, they also need information about the real dangers from which children should be protected – for instance, TVs, and other technological paraphernalia in their bedrooms. As a profession, teachers should refuse to participate in the drive to accelerate childhood with an ever-earlier start to formal education and a competitive winners-and-losers approach to primary education. We should boycott the tests, targets and league tables and do what we as professionals know is best for children. It’s time we stopped robbing the next generation of their right to grow up healthy, happy and whole. Người ra đề: Nguyễn Thị Việt Hà SĐT: 0963 559 260

SỞ GD & ĐT CAO BẰNG

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ NGHỊ

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN

THAM DỰ TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG NĂM 2019 ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 10 Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) --------------------------------------------------(Đề thi gồm 18 trang)

A. LISTENING (50 pts) Part 1:You will hear a conversation between a Scottish student called John and a Finish student called Pirkko about the Tampere Student Games in Finland. For questions 1-5, complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes.(10 pts)

Tampere Student Games - Dates of the games: (1) ______________ - Cost of taking part (2) ______________ euros per day each - Entry fee includes competition entrance, meals and (3) ______________ - Hotel (4) ______________ has a special rate during the games - Hotel is close to (5) ______________ - Website address: www.sellgames.com Your answers: 1.

Part 2. Listen and complete the sentences below. Write no more than three words for each answer. (20 pts) 1. Governments have been mistaken to ...................... slums. 2. There is often a lack of .................... concerning housing projects. 3. Housing policies which are based on principles of .................... are particularly effective. 1

4. Some ......................... should always be provided by governments. 5. Migrants will only ........................ in housing if they feel secure. 6. Governments often underestimate the importance of ...................... to housing projects. 7. The availability of ..................... is the starting point for successful housing development. 8. Urbanisation can have a positive effect on the ......................... of individuals. 9. The population size of cities enables a range of ........................... to occur. 10. City living tends to raise the level of .................................... to occur. Part 3. You will hear an extract from a radio programme and decide whether the statements are true or false. (10 pts) 1.Mrs Kent is worried about the weather in the near future. 2. According to Tom Sheridan, people donâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t talk about the weather any more. 3. Paul Spenser does the production of a cookery programme. 4. Jane thinks that students should be given free books. 5. An elderly listener doesnâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t think young people should have to pay in the discos. Your answers 1.

Part 4: You will hear a radio discussion about children who invent imaginary friends. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) 1. In the incident that Liz describes, A. her daughter asked her to stop the car. B. she had to interrupt the journey twice. C. she got angry with her daughter. D. her daughter wanted to get out of the car. 2. What does the presenter say about the latest research into imaginary friends? A. It contradicts other research on the subject. 2

B. It shows that the number of children who have them is increasing. C. It indicates that negative attitudes towards them are wrong. D. It focuses on the effect they have on parents. 3. How did Liz feel when her daughter had an imaginary friend? A. always confident that it was only a temporary situation B. occasionally worried about the friend’s importance to her daughter C. slightly confused as to how she should respond sometimes D. highly impressed by her daughter’s inventiveness 4. Karen says that one reason why children have imaginary friends is that A. they are having serious problems with their real friends. B. they can tell imaginary friends what to do. C. they want something that they cannot be given. D. they want something that other children haven’t got. 5. Karen says that the teenager who had invented a superhero is an example of A. a very untypical teenager. B. a problem that imaginary friends can cause. C. something she had not expected to discover. D. how children change as they get older. Your answers: 1.

B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (40pts) Part 1. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each blank in the following sentences. (20pts) 1. The police say they have some important clues ____ the murderer. A. on B. about C. to D. in 2. Camels have either one hump or two humps. The Arabian camel has one hump. The Bactrian camel, ____ has two humps. A. nevertheless B. however C. therefore D. otherwise 3. I’ll be with all of you in ____ hour. 3

A. a quarter of an B. one quarter of an C. a quarter of oneD. a quarter of 4. ____ any other politician would have given way to this sort of pressure years ago. A. Really B. Practically C. Actually D. Utterly 5. Private printing was simply a means ____ he could increase his income. A. whereupon B. whereby C. wherewithal D. whereabout 6. Buying shares in this company is as safe as ____. There’s no way you can lose your money. A. houses B. a bank C. gold bars D. a vault 7. I’m sorry to have bothered you. I was under the ____ that you wanted me to call you. A. mistake B. miscalculation C. misconception D. misapprehension 8. When he examined the gun, the detective’s suspicion turned into ____. A. certainty B. confirmation C. realityD. conclusion 9. The management are making ____ to increase the company’s efficiency. A. measures B. steps C. moves D. deeds 10. Tim: “Will you come for a walk with me?” Mary: “____”. A. No, I won’t, thanks B. No, I shan’t, thanks C. No, I’d prefer not, thanks D. No, I’d prefer not to, thank you 11. Kate: “It seems to me that spring is the most beautiful time of the year.” Tony: “____! It’s really lovely!” A. You’re exactly right B. You could be right C. You are wrong D. I couldn’t agree less 12. She said that she would be punctual for the opening speech, ____ she were late? A. but what if B. how aboutC. and what about D. so if 13. In a money-oriented society, the average individual cares little about solving ____ problem. A. any other B. any other’s C. anyone else’s D. anyone’s else 14. Would you please leave us details of your address ____ forwarding any of your mail to come? A. for the purpose of B. as a consequence of C. for the sake of D. by means of 15. ____ of the Chairman, the Executive Director will be responsible for chairing the meeting. A. For the absence B. On the absence C. In the absence D. To the absence 16. ____ we went swimming. A. Being a hot day, B. It was a hot day, C. The day being hot, D. Due to a hot day, 17. The web of the common house spider is an ingenious trap that catches small insects. A. simple B. useful C. fragile D. clever 4

18. For most male spiders courtship is a perilous procedure, for they may be eaten by females. A. complicated B. peculiar C. dangerous D. ordinary 19. These two essays are word ____ word the same. A. for B. from C. with D. in 20. “What time is it ____ your watch?” A. at B. with C. by D. from 1. …………....... 6. …………....... 11. .…………...... 16. .………….......

2. …………....... 7. …………....... 12. .…………...... 17. .………….......

3. …………....... 8. …………....... 13. .…………...... 18. .………….......

4. …………....... 9. …………....... 14. .…………...... 19. .………….......

5. …………....... 10. .…………...... 15. .…………...... 20. .………….......

Part 2.The passage below contains 10 mistakes. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. Write your answers in the space provided in the column. (10pts) LINE 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

Leonardo Dicaprio is one of the hotter young film stars around at the moment. His face has been on the covers of all the top movies and young magazines over the last few months and he has been the subject of countless articles, rumours and showbiz gossip. Leonardo doesn’t like reading about him because “I read things about me that I’ve never said in my life and never did”. Leonardo Dicaprio was born in Los Angeles on 11 November, 1974. He’s a Scorpio. His full name is Leonardo Wilhelm Dicaprio. His mother is Germany and his father Italian-American. They called him Leonardo because when his mother was still pregnant, he started kicking while she was stood in front of a painting by Leonardo De Vinci. His friends call him Leo. He has a scar from when he was stinging by a Portuguese man-of-war. His parents separated before he was born, so his mother moved to a poor neighborhood of Hollywood there Leo grew up. At school he was very good at imitating people, especially Michael Jackson. This made him very popularly. His childhood hero was Poseidon, the Greek god of the sea. After appearance in TV commercials and episodes of Roseanne, he played the cast 5

16 17

of Roseanne, the TV sitcom starring Kirk Cameron. Leonard played the part of Luke, a homeless boy. Lately, he played the part of Jim Carroll in The Basketball Diaries. But he has really become famous since he acted in the film Titanic.

Your answers: Ex: Line 1: hotter =>hottest

LINE MISTAKE

CORRECTION

LINE MISTAKE

CORRECTION

Part 3. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered spaces provided. (10pts) appropriate essence

great direct

improvisation instrument

compel fuse

intensely intelligent

When jazz began to lose its reputation as “low-down” music and to gain well-deserved acclaim among (1), musicians began to feature many instruments previously considered (2) for jazz. Whereas before 1950s, jazz musicians played only eight basic (3) in strict tempo, in this decade, they started to (4) on the flute, Electric organ, piccolo, accordion, cello, and even bagpipes, with the rhythm section composed for strings or piano. Big bands no longer dominated jazz, and most changes emerged from small combos. Jazz continued to move in new (5) during the 1960s. And in the 1970s, musicians blended jazz and rock music into (6) jazz which combined the melodies and the improvisations of jazz with the rhythmic qualities of rock ‘n’ roll. The form of jazz music was (7) affected by electric instruments and electronic implements to (8), distort, or amplify their sounds. However, the young musician of the time felt (9) to include a steady, swinging rhythm which they saw a permanent and (10) element in great jazz. 1.

5. 6

…………........ …………........ …………........ …………........ …………........ 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. …………....... …………....... …………....... …………...... .…………...... C. READING COMPREHENSION (60pts) Part 1: Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. (10 pts) In Europe, Midsummer Night's Eve, also known as St John's Eve, occurs on June 23rd. It originates from the pagan celebrations of the summer solstice which were held on June 21st. On that night throughout Europe bonfires were lit along hillsides to (1)_____ the shortest night of the year. It must have looked as if some kind of violent insurrection was taking place down the coast of Scotland and England, but these signal fires in fact had a very important purpose. Bones of farm animals (2)_____ the previous autumn were burned and, when the fires had (3)_____, the remaining ash was put to good use: it was spread on the fields to enrich the land and ensure a good harvest. The word 'bonfire' is (4)_____ from 'bone fire'. In Brazil too St John's Eve means bonfires and fireworks. Another quaint tradition involves the (5)_____ of small paper hot-air balloons, although they are prohibited by law in the cities because of the fire (6)_____. Bonfires mark the beginning of spring rather than the summer in Sweden and are lit on the last night of April. In the Swedish Midsummer's Eve (7)_____, held on June 24th, a large pole, decorated with flowers and leaves, is placed in the ground. Thistles also have a significant role in the celebration of Midsummer's Night in Europe. In the past they were thought to (8)_____ witches. The pretty, prickly plant was nailed over barn doors and used in wreaths, the circular shape being a symbol of the turning of the seasons. Wheels laced with straw and soaked in pitch were lit from the bonfires and then rolled down hills. There is less risk of fire in a (9)_____ tradition to many Slavic countries. Young women and girls float little baskets of flowers and lighted candles down streams. Local boys swim out to (10)_____ a basket, find the girl it belongs to and claim a dance at the town's Midsummer's Eve Party. 1. A. celebrate 2. A. revised 3. A. doused 4. A. derived 5. A. landing 6. A. certainty

B. honour B. assassinated B. extinguished B. developed B. launching B. peril

C. commemorate C. slaughtered C. smothered C. evolved C. propelling C. jeopardy

D. commiserate D. sacrificed D. gone out D. decayed D. ejecting D. hazard 7

7. A. tradition 8. A. deflect 9. A. unique 10. A. salvage

B. custom B. ward off B. common B. rescue

C. ceremony C. attract C. mutual C. set free

D. practice D. avert D. prevalent D. liberate

Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.(10 pts) The origin of language The truth (0).___is __ nobody really knows how the language first began. Did we all start talking at around the same time 1._______ of the manner in which our brains had begun to develop? Although there is a lack of clear evidence, people have come up with various theories about the origins of language. One recent theory is that human beings have evolved in 2._______ a way that we are programmed for language from the moment of birth. In 3.________ words, language came about as a result of an evolutionary change in our brains at some stage. Language 4._________ well be programmed into the brain but, 5._________ this, people still need stimulus from others around them. From studies, we know that 6. ________ children are isolated 7.________ human contact and have not learnt to construct sentences before they are ten, it is doubtful they will ever do 8._________. This research shows, if 9. __________ else, that language is a social activity, not something invented 10._________isolation. Your answers: 1.

10.

Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions. (10 pts) How I found my true voice As an interpreter, Suzanne Glass could speak only for others – but the work provided terrific material for her first novel. ‘No, no, no! You’ve got to get away from this or you’re going to lose it.’ The voice reverberating in my head was my own. I was at an international conference. My throat was killing me and my headphones were pinching. I had just been interpreting a speaker 8

whose last words had been: ‘We must take very seriously the standardization of the length of cucumbers and the size of tomatoes.’ You can’t afford to have your own thoughts when you’re interpreting simultaneously, so, of course, I missed the speaker’s next sentence and lost his train of thought. Sitting in a darkened booth at the back of a huge conference hall, I was thrown. Fortunately, my colleague grabbed my microphone and took over. This high-output work was not quite the dream profession I had hoped for. Although I had fun with it in the beginning – occasionally being among the first to hear of medical and political breakthroughs would be exciting for any 25-year-old –I realized that this was a job in which I would never be able to find my own voice. I had always known that words would be my life in one form or another. My mother thought she’d given birth to an alien when I began to talk at the age of seven months. That momentous day, she had placed my playpen in the hallway and gone into the bedroom. In imitation of the words she had repeated to me again and again, I apparently called out towards the bedroom door: ‘I see you. I see you.’ I was already in training for a career as a professional parrot. But how mistaken I was to think that international interpreting would be glamorous. The speaker rarely stops to think that there’s someone at the back of the room, listening to his words, absorbing their meaning, and converting them into another language at the same time. Often I was confronted with a droner, a whisperer or a mumbler through my headphones. The mumblers were the worst. Most of the time, an interpreter is thought of as a machine – a funnel, a conduit, which, I suppose, is precisely what we are. Sometimes, when those we are translating for hear us cough or sneeze, or turn round and look at us behind the smoky glass of the booth, I think they’re surprised to see that we’re actually alive. Ironically, part of the secret of interpreting is non-verbal communication. You have to sense when your partner is tired, and offer to take over. At the same time, you have to be careful not to cut him short and hog the microphone. Interpreters can be a bit like actors: they like to show off. You do develop friendships when you’re working in such close proximity, but there’s a huge amount of competitiveness among interpreters. They check on each other and sometimes even count each other’s mistranslations. Translating other people’s ideas prevented me from feeling involved and creative as an interpreter. Actually, you can’t be a creative interpreter. It’s a contradiction in terms. Sometimes, when I disagreed with a speaker, I wanted to rip off my headphones, jump up and run out of the booth, shouting: ‘Rubbish. Rubbish. You’re talking a lot of nonsense, and this is what I think about it.’ Instead, I had to sit there and regurgitate opinions in violent contradiction with my own. Sometimes, I’d get my revenge by playing games with the

speaker’s tone of voice. If he was being serious, I’d make him sound jocular. If he was being light-hearted, I’d make him sound earnest. Eventually, I wanted to find a career where my own words would matter and where my own voice would be heard. So, to redress the balance, I decided to write a novel. While I was writing it, I did go back and interpret at a few conferences to get inside the head of Dominique, my main character. At first, I was a little rusty and a couple of the delegates turned round to glare at me, but after twenty minutes, I was back into it, playing that old game of mental gymnastics. Interpreting is like learning to turn somersaults: you never forget how to do it. But for me, sitting in the booth had a ghost-like quality to it – as though I had gone back into a past life - a life that belonged to the time before I found my own voice. 1. In the first paragraph, the writer says she discovered that_______. A. there were some subjects she had no interest in dealing with. B. the standard of her work as an interpreter was getting lower. C. her mind was wandering when she should have been doing her job. D. she could no longer understand subjects she had previously covered. 2. What does the writer say about being an interpreter in the second paragraph ? A. It was the kind of job her parents had always expected her to do. B. It turned out to be more challenging than she had anticipated. C. It was what she had wanted to be ever since she was a small child. D. It gave her access to important information before other people. 3. What does the writer say about speakers she interpreted for ? A. Some of them had a tendency to get irritated with interpreters. B. She particularly disliked those she struggled to hear properly. C. They usually had the wrong idea about the function of interpreters. D. Some of them made little attempt to use their own language correctly. 4. The writer says that relationships between interpreters_______. A. can make it difficult for interpreters to do their jobs well. B. are affected by interpreters’ desires to prove how good they are. C. usually start well but end in arguments. D. are based on secret resentments. 5. The writer says that when she disagreed with speakers, she would sometimes_______. A. mistranslate small parts of what they said. B. make it clear from her tone of voice that she did not agree. C. exaggerate their point of view. D. give the impression that they did not really mean what they said. 6. The writer says that when she returned to interpreting, _______. 10

A. she did not start off very well. B. she briefly wished she had not given it up. C. she thought that two of the delegates recognized her. D. she changed her ideas about the main character in her novel. 7. What is the writer’s main point in the article as a whole ? A. It is not always a good idea to go into a profession because it looks glamorous. B. Most interpreters eventually become disillusioned with the work. C. Being an interpreter did not allow her to satisfy her need to be creative. D. Most interpreters would actually like to do something more creative. 8. Which is the closest in meaning to momentous in ‘That momentous day’? A. unimportant B. historic C. momentary D. hard 9. Which is the closest in meaning to ‘to glare’? A. to glower B. to caress C. despise D. wonder 10. Which is the closest in meaning to ‘simultaneously’? A. all again B. all at once C. once and for all D. once too often Your answers: 1. 2. 6. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

Part 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (20 pts) THE PROBLEM OF SCARCE RESOURCES Section A The problem of how health-care resources should be allocated or apportioned, so that they are distributed in both the most just and most efficient way, is not a new one. Every health system in an economically developed society is faced with the need to decide (either formally or informally) what proportion of the community’s total resources should be spent on health-care; how resources are to be apportioned; what diseases and disabilities and which forms of treatment are to be given priority; which members of the community are to be given special consideration in respect of their health needs; and which forms of treatment are the most costeffective. Section B 11

What is new is that, from the 1950s onwards, there have been certain general changes in outlook about the finitude of resources as a whole and of health-care resources in particular, as well as more specific changes regarding the clientele of health-care resources and the cost to the community of those resources. Thus, in the 1950s and 1960s, there emerged an awareness in Western societies that resources for the provision of fossil fuel energy were finite and exhaustible and that the capacity of nature or the environment to sustain economic development and population was also finite. In other words, we became aware of the obvious fact that there were ‘limits to growth’. The new consciousness that there were also severe limits to health-care resources was part of this general revelation of the obvious. Looking back, it now seems quite incredible that in the national health systems that emerged in many countries in the years immediately after the 1939-45 World War, it was assumed without question that all the basic health needs of any community could be satisfied, at least in principle; the ‘invisible hand’ of economic progress would provide. Section C However, at exactly the same time as this new realization of the finite character of health-care resources was sinking in, an awareness of a contrary kind was developing in Western societies: that people have a basic right to health-care as a necessary condition of a proper human life. Like education, political and legal processes and institutions, public order, communication, transport and money supply, health-care came to be seen as one of the fundamental social facilities necessary for people to exercise their other rights as autonomous human beings. People are not in a position to exercise personal liberty and to be self-determining if they are poverty-stricken, or deprived of basic education, or do not live within a context of law and order. In the same way, basic health-care is a condition of the exercise of autonomy. Section D Although the language of ‘rights’ sometimes leads to confusion, by the late 1970s it was recognized in most societies that people have a right to health-care (though there has been considerable resistance in the United Sates to the idea that there is a formal right to healthcare). It is also accepted that this right generates an obligation or duty for the state to ensure 12

that adequate health-care resources are provided out of the public purse. The state has no obligation to provide a health-care system itself, but to ensure that such a system is provided. Put another way, basic health-care is now recognized as a ‘public good’, rather than a ‘private good’ that one is expected to buy for oneself. As the 1976 declaration of the World Health Organisation put it: ‘The enjoyment of the highest attainable standard of health is one of the fundamental rights of every human being without distinction of race, religion, political belief, economic or social condition’. As has just been remarked, in a liberal society basic health is seen as one of the indispensable conditions for the exercise of personal autonomy. Section E Just at the time when it became obvious that health-care resources could not possibly meet the demands being made upon them, people were demanding that their fundamental right to health-care be satisfied by the state. The second set of more specific changes that have led to the present concern about the distribution of health-care resources stems from the dramatic rise in health costs in most OECD countries, accompanied by large-scale demographic and social changes which have meant, to take one example, that elderly people are now major (and relatively very expensive) consumers of health-care resources. Thus in OECD countries as a whole, health costs increased from 3.8% of GDP in 1960 to 7% of GDP in 1980, and it has been predicted that the proportion of health costs to GDP will continue to increase. (In the US the current figure is about 12% of GDP, and in Australia about 7.8% of GDP.) As a consequence, during the 1980s a kind of doomsday scenario (analogous to similar doomsday extrapolations about energy needs and fossil fuels or about population increases) was projected by health administrators, economists and politicians. In this scenario, ever-rising health costs were matched against static or declining resources. Notes: - OECD: Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development - GDP: Gross Domestic Products

Questions 1-5: (10pts) Choose the correct heading for the five sections A-E of the Reading Passage from the list of headings below. List of Headings

i The connection between health-care and other human rights ii The development of market-based health systems. iii The role of the state in health-care iv A problem shared by every economically developed country v The impact of recent change vi The views of the medical establishment vii The end of an illusion viii Sustainable economic development 1. Section A:

……………

2. Section B:

……………

3. Section C:

……………

4. Section D:

……………

5. Section E:

……………

Questions 6-10: (10 pts) Do the following statements agree with the view of the writer in the Reading Passage? Write YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this 6. ………… Personal liberty and independence have never been regarded as directly linked to health-care. 7. ………… Health-care came to be seen as a right at about the same time that the limits of health-care resources became evident. 14

8. ………… In OECD countries population changes have had an impact on health-care costs in recent years. 9. ………… OECD governments have consistently underestimated the level of health-care provision needed. 10. ………… In most economically developed countries the elderly will to make special provision for their health-care in the future. Section 5. You are going to read four different opinions from leading scientists about the future of fuel. For questions 1-10, choose from the writers A-D. The writers may be chosen more than once. (10 pts) A. Howard Bloom, Author Even though most people are convinced that peak oil has already passed, to me, peak oil is just a hypothesis. There is a theory that carbon molecules can be found in interstellar gas clouds, comets and in space ice, and if this is the case, our planet could ooze oil for ever. And even if we stay earthbound, those who say we have raped the planet of all its resources are wrong. There's a huge stock of raw materials we haven't yet learned to use. There are bacteria two miles beneath our feet which can turn solid granite into food. If bacteria can do it, surely we creatures with brains can do it better. As far as the near future of energy is concerned, I believe the most promising alternative fuels are biofuels, such as ethanol. It's an alcohol made from waste products such as the bark of trees, woodchips, and other 'waste materials'. And that's not the only waste that can create energy. My friend in the biomass industry is perfecting an energy-generation plant which can run on human waste. We produce that in vast quantities, and it's already gathered in centralised locations. B. Michael Lardelli, Lecturer in Genetics at The University of Adelaide Nothing exists on this planet without energy. It enables flowers and people to grow and we need it to mine minerals, extract oil or cut wood and then to process these into finished goods. So the most fundamental definition of money is as a mechanism to allow the exchange and allocation of different forms of energy. Recently, people have been using more energy than ever before. Until 2005 it was possible to expand our energy use to meet this demand. 15

However, since 2005 oil supply has been in decline, and at the same time, and as a direct result of this, the world's economy has been unable to expand, leading to global recession. With the world's energy and the profitability of energy production in decline at the same time, the net energy available to support activities other than energy procurement will decrease. We could increase energy production by diverting a large proportion of our remaining oil energy into building nuclear power stations and investing in renewable forms of energy. However, this is very unlikely to happen in democratic nations, because it would require huge, voluntary reductions in living standards. Consequently, the world economy will continue to contract as oil production declines. With energy in decline, it will be impossible for everyone in the world to become wealthier. One person's increased wealth can only come at the expense of another person's worsened poverty. C. Jeroen van der Veer, chief executive of Royal Dutch Shell People are understandably worried about a future of growing energy shortages, rising prices and international conflict for supplies. These fears are not without foundation. With continued economic growth, the world's energy needs could increase by 50% in the next 25 years. However, I do not believe that the world is running out of energy. Fossil fuels will be able to meet growing demand for a long time in the future. Taking unconventional resources into account, we are not even close to peak oil. The priority for oil companies is to improve efficiency, by increasing the amount of oil recovered from reservoirs. At present, just over a third is recovered. We can also improve the technology to control reservoir processes and improve oil flow. However, these projects are costly, complex and technically demanding, and they depend on experienced people, so it is essential to encourage young people to take up a technical career in the energy industry. Meanwhile, alternative forms of energy need to be made economically viable. International energy companies have the capability, the experience and the commercial drive to work towards solving the energy problem so they will play a key role. But it is not as simple as merely making scientific advances and developing new tools; the challenge is to deliver the technology to people worldwide. Companies will need to share knowledge and use their ideas effectively. 16

D. Craig Severance, blogger What will it take to end our oil addiction? It's time we moved on to something else. Not only are world oil supplies running out, but what oil is still left is proving very dirty to obtain. The Deepwater Horizon oil spill occurred precisely because the easy-to-obtain oil is already tapped. If we don't kick oil now, we will see more disasters as oil companies move to the Arctic offshore and clear more forests. The cheap petroleum is gone; from now on, we will pay steadily more and more for our oil - not just in dollars, but in the biological systems that sustain life on this planet. The only solution is to get on with what we will have to do anyway end our dependence on it! There are many instances in which oil need not be used at all. Heat and electricity can be produced in a multitude of other ways, such as solar power or natural gas. The biggest challenge is the oil that is used in transportation. That doesn't mean the transportation of goods worldwide, it's the day-to-day moving around of people. It means we have to change what we drive. The good news is that it's possible. There are a wide range of fuel efficient cars on offer, and the number of all-electric plug-in cars is set to increase. For long distance travel and freight, the solution to this is to look to rail. An electrified railway would not be reliant upon oil, but could be powered by solar, geothermal, hydro, and wind sources. There is a long way to go, but actions we take now to kick our oil addiction can help us adapt to a world of shrinking oil supplies.

Which writer: believes that from now on, less oil is available

1. …………..

believes there are ways to obtain energy that we have not

2. …………..

yetdiscoveredbelieves that people need to be attracted to working in the

3. …………..

energy industry

4. …………..

sees a great potential in natural fuels

5. …………..

believes that future oil recovery will lead to more environmental disasters

6. …………..

believes the fuel crisis will cause the poor to become poorer

7. …………..

believes that better technology can help to maintain oil production levels

8. …………..

believes there may be sources of oil outside our planet thinks that oil companies are responsible for developing other types of

9. …………..

energy recognises that inventions that can help to prevent an energy crisis are

10. …………

already available D. WRITING (40 pts) Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the one printed before it. Write your answers in the space provided. (10 points) 1. They believe that Oliver failed his exam because he was nervous. -->Oliver’sfailure _______________________________________________________ 2. The inhabitants were far worse-off twenty years ago than they are now. --> The inhabitants are nowhere ___________________________________________ 3. If you don't know the art market, there's a risk you will spend a lot of money on rubbish. --> If you don't know the art market, you are _____________________________________ 4. Whatever the methods used to obtain the result, drugs were definitely not involved. ->Therewasnoquestion ___________________________________________ 5. Those terrapins which survive their first year may live to be twenty. 18

-> Should _________________________________________ Part 2. Rewrite the sentences below in such a way that their meanings stay the same. You must use the words in capital without changing their forms. Write your answers in the space provided (5 points) 6. Every student will get good marks to express their gratitude towards teachers.

(lengths)

_________________________________________ 7

I am determined to become a teacher of maths.

(heart)

_________________________________________ 8

Some of the patients taken to the hospital have got an infectious disease. (diagnosed) _________________________________________

This contract is as important and confidential as that one.

(equally)

_________________________________________ 10

He has called the meeting in order to raise money for the latest storm.

(purpose)

_________________________________________

Part 3: Write an paragraph of about 200 words on the following topic. (30 pts) “Is online education as effective as traditional on-campus schooling?” ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI ĐỀ NGHỊ

SỞ GD & ĐT CAO BẰNG TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN

THAM DỰ TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG NĂM 2019 ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 10 -----------------------------------------(Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 09 trang)

A. LISTENING (50pts) Part 1: 5 x 0.2 = 10 pts 1. 20-23 May

2. 18

3. floor space

4. Hermica 5. University of Technology

Part 2. Listen and complete the sentences below. Write no more than three words for each answer. 10 x 0.2 = 20 pts 1. demolish

2. real consultation

3. self-help

4. services

5. invest money

6. community values

7. employment

8. freedom

9. specialist activities

10. Understanding

Part 3. You will hear an extract from a radio programme and decide whether the statements are true or false. ( 5 x 0.2 = 10 pts) 1.F

2. T

3. T

4. F

5. F

Part4.You will hear a radio discussion about children who invent imaginary friends. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. ( 5 x 0.2 = 10 pts) 1.

2. C

3. A

4. C

5. C

B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50pts) Part 1. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each blank in the following sentences. ( 20 x 1 = 20pts) 1. C 6. A

2. B 7. D

3. A 8. A

4. B 9. C

5. B 10. D 1

11. A 16. C

12. A 17. D

13. C 18. C

14. A 19. A

15. C 20. C

Part 2.The passage below contains 10 mistakes. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. Write your answers in the space provided in the column. (10 x 1 = 10pts) Line Mistake

Correction

Line Mistake

Correction

young

youth

stinging

stung

him

himself

there

where

did

done

popularly

popular

Germany

German

appearance

appearing

stood

standing

Lately

Later

Part 3.Complete each sentence with a suitable preposition or particle. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided. ( 10 x 1 = 10pts) 1. through 6. with

2. on 7. to

3. back 8. with

4. out 9. on

5. to 10. aside

Part 4. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered spaces provided. (10 x 1 = 10pts) 1. 2. 3. 4. improvise 5. directions intellectuals inappropriate instruments 6. fusion 7. greatly 8. intensify 9. compelled 10. essential C. READING COMPREHENSION (50pts) Part 1: Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. ( 10 x 1 = 10 pts) 1. A 6. D

2. C 7. C

3. D 8. B

4. A 9. B

5. B 10. B

Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes.(10 x 1 = 10pts)

1. because

2. such

3. other

4. could/may/might

5. despite

7. from

8. so

9. nothing/little

10. in

if/when/whenever Part 3: Read the passage and choose the correct answer (10X1 = 10pts) 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. A

7. C

8. B

9. A

10. B

Part 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. ( 1 x 10 =10 pts) 1. iv

2. viii

3. i

4. iii

5. v

6. N

7. Y

8. Y

9. NG

10. NG

Part 5. You are going to read four different opinions from leading scientists about the future of fuel. For questions 1-10, choose from the writers A-D. The writers may be chosen more than once. (10 x 1 = 10 pts) 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. D D. WRITING (40 points) Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the one printed before it. Write your answers in the space provided. (10 points) 1. Oliverâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s failure in his exam was put down to the fact that he was nervous. Or / Oliverâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s failure in his exam is believed to have resulted from his nerve. 2. The inhabitants are nowhere near as badly-off as they were twenty years ago. 3. If you don't know the art market, you are in danger of spending a lot of money on rubbish 4. There was no question of drugs being involved, whatever the methods used to obtain the result 3

5. Should terrapins survive their first year, they may live to be twenty.

Part II. Rewrite the sentences below in such a way that their meanings stay the same. You must use the words in capital without changing their forms. Write your answers in the space provided (5 points) 6. Every student will go to any lengths to express …. 7. My heart is set on becoming a teacher of maths. I have set my heart on becoming… 8. An infectious diseases has been diagnosed in this hospital. 9. Both contracts are equally important and confidential. 10. His purpose in calling the meeting is to raise… He has called the meeting for the purpose of raising… TAPE SCRIPTS Section 1 John: Hello, Pirkko. I’m phoning to let you know that my college basketball team are very keen to come over to Finland to take part in the Tampere Student Games. Pirkko: Well, that’s great. We’re hoping to make it a really special event this year, as it’s the 80th anniversary of Finnish Student Sport! John: Fantastic! We’re all looking forward to coming. Let me just check - the games start on May 19th, right? Pirkko: Oh, that was the provisional plan when you first contacted me, that they’d run from the 19th to the 23rd. But we’ve cut the programme by a day, so now it’ll begin on the 20th, still ending on the 23rd (1). There’s going to be an opening ceremony on the first evening. John: We don’t want to miss that, do we! And how much is the entry fee for the Games? Pirkko: This year it's gone up from 16 to 18 euros(2) a day per person. I’m afraid, but you get a lot for that. John: How do you mean?

Pirkko: Well, of course it covers the competition entrance, but you also get three meals a day and even floor space (3) if you want it - we can’t manage beds for everyone! John: Sounds a bit basic to me. Can you recommend a hotel? Pirkko: Well, Tampere is quite a big city, so there are a lot of hotels. The Homeland would be convenient if you come by train, or maybe you’d prefer the Hermica, as it’s offering a reduced rate for participants in the games. It’s spelt HE-R-M-I-C-A (4). Its a very nice hotel. John: And where is it exactly? Pirkko: Well, that’s the other good thing from your point of view, it’s in the Hervanta district of Tampere, near the University of Technology (5) John: And why is that good for us? Pirkko: Because all the basketball matches are taking place near there. John: Oh, I see Pirkko: Look, why don’t you give the website address, and then you can look up the programme and find anything else you need to know. John: Good idea. So, what is it? Pirkko: OK, it’s www dot sellgames – that’s S-E-doublei-G-A-M-E-S dot com John: Brilliant! I’ll have a look now. Thanks, Pirkko. Pirkko: See you soon, then. Bye, John. Section 2. Lecturer: Now, a key issue in the ability of cities to grow is the question of housing. However, quality is as important as quantity here. But that isn't to say that this is easy to guarantee, and the development, or at least the spread , of many modern cities is marked by the sprawl of slum or shanty town housing. Governments are, of course, keen to address this, but the tendency to demolish (1)them has often proved disastrous, as it doesn't solve the problem, unless satisfactory replacements are ready for the inhabitants. What I'm s a ying is th at suit able hous ing p ro je cts hav e to b e lin ed up to accommodate these otherwise displaced people. And suitable is the key word here. All too frequently, there isn't real consultation (2),only token gestures. If the residents aren't fully involved, they are unlikely to find the resulting development appropriate to their needs. People need to feel reasonably independent, and strategies for providing accommodation 5

schemes work much better if an approach rooted in self-help(3)is applied. People value things more when they have been part of bringing them into being. At the same time, residents can't do everything for themselves, or not well enough anyway, and so governments need to accept that a number of services (4)will always have to be laid on. These would include electricity and water and so on. From the other side, residents need to feel able to commit. Migrants are essential to the growth of cities, bringing rapid increases in population, skills and income. But they need to have a sense of security, of long-term commitment to the city if they are to invest money(5)in building or buying houses. Developing this sense of commitment isn't straightforward, and it takes time. It's complex and involves several factors. People need to feel they belong and, unfortunately, too many governments fail to appreciate that community values (6)are a crucial component of that. Sadly, there are too many housing schemes which don't work – people drift away, or the whole place becomes crimeridden. It's easy to be wise after the event, but it is worrying that a lot of housing is put up without analysis having been carried out to examine how much employment(7)is going to be available for people. But I don't want to labour the negatives too hard. Such difficulties as there are challenges, and challenges that can be, and often are, overcome. And cities are, I believe, a good thing. Urbanisation – the process of developing cities and the societies that comprise them – may not be everyone's dream, but is has a huge impact on the economy and also benefits each and every person's freedom (8).Furthermore, the sheer volume of people means that work can be differently distributed. In villages, people need to be multi-skilled in order to be autonomous, but in cities you can see the evolution of a variety of specialist activities (9)and this means people live in a more sophisticated way. It's not only tangible phenomena – there are all sorts of other, equally important benefits, too. Residing in cities brings us face to face with many different ways of thinking or going about things, and this increases our degree of understanding(10)–something which is hard to measure in scientific terms, but which surely makes better people of us all. Right, well, now I'd like to turn our attention to ... Section 3. A = Jim Adams

R = Reader

PS = Paul Spenser

JA: Hi, this is “Say it like it is”, the programme in which your comments about what’s been on Radio One for the last week are read. And for today ... Well, we 6

had many listeners writing in about last Tuesday’s science programme which is based on weather this time. John Holmes from Oxford says: R: Your “Climate changes” turned out to be quite an interesting programme. Professor Jones’ theory that we’re slowly going towards another Ice Age was quite astounding. I was taught that the earth was moving nearer the sun! JA: You could be right. But I don’t think that it will happen in our lifetime. Mrs Kent from Brighton talks about weather problems which could affect us in the near future (1). R: Some experts may tell us what the weather may be like in the next century but I’m more concerned about the present day situation. I think that tax money and scientific studies should try to focus on short-term weather forecasts and try to make them more precise and accurate. JA: Many listeners have the same point of view. On the other hand, Tom Sheridan from Manchester has a different opinion. R: I hear that experiments are being made to change the weather in Britain. But, who wants it? Nobody would like a set weather pattern. All those conversations about the weather would disappear (2). JA: We’d find something else to talk about. I’m sure. Food, for example. It seems to be a favourite of our readers judging from the letters we receive ... R: Dear Jim, I’m writing in objection to the Cookery Series on Wednesdays. JA: Tim Saunders, from Coventry writes; R: Most men already know how to do things like making toast so our time shouldn’t be wasted by such programmes. JA: Tim would like more challenging cooking tips. We’ve got the producer of our cookery show here today, Mr. Paul Spenser (3).What about more difficult cookery on your show? PS: I can relate to what Mr. Saunders is saying. Up to now we’ve been doing basic things to help beginners but we’ll be moving on to more difficult recipes in the next few weeks. I hope that the programme will be more interesting for Mr. Saunders in the future. JA: I hope so! To finish off we have a few letters referring to the rumours that lending libraries won’t be free to the public anymore. Jane from Bournemouth has a few things to say about this. R: For students like me, books are too expensive to buy and we depend on libraries for our books! 20p is too much to pay for every book we take out (4). JA: Don’t worry Jane. It’s only a rumour so far. And our last letter comes from one of the elderly in our community. 7

R: The elderly have to pay for their needs so why shouldn’t others pay for theirs? They pay in pubs and discos, why not at libraries (5). JA: Well, that’s all for today. More for you to think about. If there’s something you’d like to comment on write to Jim Adams, “Say It Like It Is” Radio One. Section 4: You will hear a radio discussion about children who invent imaginary friends. Presenter: Today we’re talking about children and their tendency to have imaginary friends. Liz McManus has a daughter called Caitlin, who’s eight now. When she was three, she had an imaginary friend called Tytner. Liz, tell us about Caitlin and Tytner. Mother: Well, I’ll give you an example. One day I was driving Caitlin and Greg, her baby brother, home, when she solemnly informed me that Tytner was hitting the baby. So I said: ‘You tell Tytner that if he does that again, he’ll be walking home.’ Fifteen seconds later cam the inevitable news: ‘He’s just done it again, Mummy.’ So I found myself in the embarrassing position of having to pull over, open the back door and say to this imaginary little boy. ‘Tytner, out, now!’ And of course, as we drove off, Caitlin started crying because her friend was standing on the pavement all alone. I had to turn back and go through the rigmarole of pulling over and opening the door to pick him up again. Presenter: Wow, that’s some story! But in fact Caitlin is no different from many children and her invented, make-believe friend is far from unusual. As many as 65% of children have had an imaginary friend at some point in their lives. The latest research suggests that invisible friends, far from being a cause for concern, should be welcomed by parents because they can help children to be more creative, confident and articulate, and have more advanced communication skills. It is thought that these findings will help reverse misconceptions about children with imaginary friends and that they will come to be seen as having an advantage, rather than a problem that needs to be worried about. Did it worry you, Liz? Mother: I know it does lots of parents but I never fretted about it, I think I was just amused. I’d be reading to her and I’d say, ‘Is Tytner around?’ and she’d say, ‘Yes, he’s just sitting at the end of the bed.’ He became the centre of her life. She’d have tea parties with him, and he’d go to bed with her. She was shy and this was her answer. I knew she would grow out of it. Presenter: Now Liz is one of 15 people taking part in a study of imaginary friends at the Institute of Education in London, run by Karen Majors, an education psychologist and lecturer at the institute. Karen, should parents worry about it? 8

Expert: Well, parents sometimes think, ‘Is this healthy and how long should it go on for?’ But it is a normal phenomenon for normal children. And it’s very healthy. Presenter: Why do children invent imaginary friends? Expert: I think that children create pretend friends for many reasons; as safe, trustworthy best friends at a time when they are just starting to make real friends; as someone to confide in; and as someone to play with. Sometimes it is about wish fulfilment; children who cannot have a pet, for example, will invent one. I interviewed one little girl, aged six, who had a pony called Minty for several years. It went to school with her and the teachers knew all about it. It was a really strong relationship. Presenter: Presumably, when they get older, children no longer have these imaginary friends, Karen? Expert: Well, my most surprising finding is that children don’t always stop having these made-up playmates when they start school. The imaginary friends often stay with them through their teenage years, providing comfort and escape – although in secret. One teenager I talked to had invented a superhero to help him through tricky patchers. When things hadn’t gone well at school, he would come home and play with the superhero, for whom everything always went well. Presenter: How should parents treat these invisible people, Karen?

Giáo viên ra đề: Lưu Thị Thúy Ngà Số điện thoại: 0392.366.888

Tổng điểm bài thi Bằng số

Giám khảo

Bằng chữ

Giám khảo 1

Giám khảo 2

(kí, ghi rõ họ tên)

Số phách (Do chủ tịch HĐ chấm thi ghi)

Lưu ý: Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp trên tờ giấy thi. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm. ------------------------------------------------------------------

PART I. LISTENING (50p) HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU Bài nghe gồm 4 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 05 giây; mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. Thí sinh có 15 giây để đọc mỗi phần câu hỏi. • Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. • Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe. Section 1. You will hear a man asking a woman the information about a family excursion. For questions from 1 to 7, fill in each gap with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER. (14p) •

FAMILY EXCURSIONS Cruise on a lake • Travel on an old(1)______________. • Can take photos of the mountains that surround the lake Farm visit • Children can help feed the sheep • Visit can include a 40-minute ride on a horse. • Visitors can walk in the farm’s (2)_______________ by the lake • Lunch is available at extra cost Cycling trips • Cyclists explore the Back Road • A (3)______________ is provided • Only suitable for cyclists who have some (4)______________ - Bikes can be hired from (5) ________________________ (near the Cruise Ship Terminal) • Cyclists need: - a repair kit - food and drink - a (6)_______________ (can be hired) Cost • Total cost for whole family of cruise and farm visit: (7) $_____________

Page 1 of 16

Write your answers here: 1.

Section2. Listen to the recording and complete each of the following gaps with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER (16p) 1. Unlike crowded jets, the Aircruise will allow passengers to travel in___________________ 2.The Aircruise can travel at low altitudes if there is something_________________________ 3. Hydrogen fuels the airship and also provides __________________ for the people on board. 4. The Hindenburg airship disaster killed____________________________________ people. 5. Scientists are keen to develop transport options which are both ____________________and environmentally friendly. 6. The luxury features on board include private apartments, a bar and a _________________ 7. Compared to airports, the Aircruise has the potential to land closer to_________________ 8. The concept is getting a lot of attention from a Korean company which makes_________ Write your answers here: 1.

Section 3. Listen to a teacher giving a lesson on the effects of tourism. For questions 1 â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 5, decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). (10p) 1. According to the teacher, tourism damages the things that tourists come to see. 2. Most people who visited Goa before 1986 were poor. 3. Local people welcomed the increase in tourism. 4. Local people benefit from all-inclusive holiday packages. 5. The removal of mangrove swamps increases the risk of coastal flooding. Write your answers here: 1.

Section4.You will hear a radio interview with a ghost hunter called Carlene Belfort. For questions 1-5, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D). (10 pts) 1 How did Carlene become a ghost hunter? A. She wanted to contact her dead grandmother. B. She grew up in a haunted house. C. Her parents encouraged her. D. She was often alone at home at night. Page 2 of 16

2. Who does Carlene mostly work for? A. people who want reassurance B. people who want to contact loved ones C. people who want to find a ghost D. people who call him 3.

How does Carlene detect when ghosts are present? A. She feels cold. B. She gets evidence from her equipment. C. She feels them touching her hair. D. She sees the ghosts in photos.

What does Carlene think about people who don’t believe her? A. She doesn’t understand why they think that. B. She thinks they don’t have enough evidence. C. She wants them to experience it for themselves. D. She thinks most of them are scientists.

5. What does Carlene feel about her business? A. She realizes she is taking advantage of customers. B. She doesn’t think it is a business. C. She wants to expand and make more money. D. She feels she is providing a service. Write your answers here: 1.

PART II: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (40p) Section 1. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each blank in the following sentences. (20 p) 1. _______ is imperative in your new job. The director disapproves of being late. A. Having time

B. Keeping time

C. Being on time

D. Taking time

2. Two students are talking about an upcoming test. - Mary: “The sociology test seems to be very difficult. I am still not confident about my performance this Friday. I’ve gone through all the materials, though!” - Alexis: “_______” A. You’ve read all the materials, it’s OK for you. B. I have read all the chapters, but I have not studied the notes from the lectures. C. That is correct! You are doing really well too, Mary! D. I do not think that is your problem. It is probably a case of anxiety.

Page 3 of 16

3. _______, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather. A. Left uncovered

B. Having left uncovered

C. Leaving uncovered

D. Been left uncovered

4. Why do you have such a _______ with model railways? A. desire

B. love

C. fascination

D. preference

5. Small companies may take their goods abroad for trade shows without paying foreign value-added taxes by acquiring _______ an ATA carnet. A. a document calls

B. a document called C. calls a document

D. called a document.

6. She walked in _______, as if nothing had happened. A. as cool as a cucumber

B. as clear as mud

C. as dead as a doornail

D. as dry as a bone

7. Ever since we quarreled in the office, Janice and I have been _______ enemies. A. assured

B. confirmed

C. defined

D. guaranteed

8. I can accept criticism in general, but George really _______ it too far, so I had no other option but to show my disapproval. A. carried

B. pushed

C. put

D. made

9. One of the organization’s aims is to _______ information about the disease so that more people know about its symptoms. A. disentangle

B. deride

C. dwindle

D. disseminate

10. Luckily, I _______ a new pair of sunglasses as I found mine at the bottom of a bag. A. needn’t have bought

B. needed not to buy

C. didn’t need to buy

D. hadn’t to buy

11. Take the doctor’s advice into consideration. He’s in _______ earnest about the epidemic. A. mortally

B. fatally

C. deadly

D. gravely

12. Hotel rooms must be _______ by 10 a.m., but luggage may be left with the porter. A. vacated

B. evacuated

C. abandoned

D. left

13. Mary: “Do you want to watch this or the news?” Linda: “Oh, _______. It’s up to you.” A. I agree

B. I couldn’t agree more C. Don’t mention it D. I’m easy

14. It's difficult for a teacher to _______ her students' interest for a whole semester. A. sustain

B. resist

C. account for

D. recognize

15. This cheese isn’t fit for eating. It’s _______ all over after lying in the bin for so long. A. rusty

B. mouldy

C. spoiled

D. sour

16. We should all _______ when advertisers attempt to use unfair practices. A. make a stand

B. make a deal

C. make amends

D. make a comeback

17. Katie O'Donovan, public policy manager at Google UK, said the company had shown its ______ to protecting children by developing its resources - such as an online safety course which has been taught to 40,000 schoolchildren. A. commitment

B. enthusiasm

C. interest

D. keenness Page 4 of 16

18. The realization of our holiday plans has had to be _______ because of my motherâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s sudden illness. A. prevented

B. shelved

C. expired

D. lingered

19. The new situation has _______ a lot of anger and dissatisfaction. Our duty now is to encounter it in the most sensible way. A. devised

B. established

C. originated

D. provoked

20. Education should be a universal right and not a _______. A. deliverance

B. enlightenment

C. privilege

D. liberty

Write your answers here: 1.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Section 2. Fill each gap with the correct form of the words in brackets. (10 p) 1. It would be a _______ decision to stop supporting the arts. (RUTH) 2. In the not-too-distant past farm, animals were able to live _______ lives in what we would now term 'free-range' conditions. (NATURE) 3. Forests from an integral component of the _______ are essential to the stabilization of global climate and the management of water and land. (SPHERE) 4. Mr. Brown was the _______ at the meeting. (CHAIR) 5. He was _______ of making her acquaintance. (DESIRE) 6. As young women _______, they may perceive sex as an assertion of independence and gender equality. (CULTURAL) 7. She is very efficient and _______ polite to the customers. (FAIL) 8. She found him arrogant and _______. (DOMINATE) 9. An anonymous _______ donated $2 million. (BENEFIT) 10. _______ of course, Iâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;m much better off than I used to be. (MONEY) Write your answers here: 1.

10.

Page 5 of 16

Section 3. The passage below contains TEN mistakes. Identify the mistakes and provide the corrections in the spaces below. (10 p) Line 1

One of the most amazing marathon races in the world is the Marathon of the Sands. It takes

places every April in the Sahara Desert in the south of Morocco, a part of the world when

temperatures can reach fifty degrees centigrade. The standard length of the marathon is 42.5

kilometers but this one is 240 kilometers long and spends seven days to complete. It began in

1986 and now attracts about two hundred runners, the majority of their ages range from

seventeen to forty-seven. About half of them come from France and the rest to all over the

world. From Britain, it costs 2,500 pounds to enter, this includes return air fares. The race is

rapidly getting more and more popular despite, and perhaps because of, the harsh conditions

that runners must endure. They have to carry food and something else they need for seven

days in a rucksack weighing no more than twelve kilograms. In addition to this, they are given

a liter and a half of water every ten kilometers. Incredibly, near all the runners finish the

course. One man, Ibrahim EI Joual, took part in every race from 1986 to 2004. Runners do

suffer terrible physical hardships. Sometimes they lose toenails and skin peels on their foot.

However, doctors are always on hand to deal with minor injuries and to make sure that

runners do not push themselves too far.

Write your answers here: Mistakes Corrections

Line

Mistakes Corrections

Line

10.

PART III. READING (50p) Section 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 p) As time (1) ________, the power of newspapers seems to be on the increase. This is odd because in the relatively (2) ________ past people were predicting that the influence of the written word would diminish in direct proportion to the rate of increase of the spoken word and moving image through TV and video. The Internet, cable and satellite television, Tele text and multi-media computers in (3) ________ other home should surely have (4) ________for newspapers by now, particularly alongside a perceptible resurgence in the audiences for news-carrying radio stations. Page 6 of 16

How have these organs survived, let alone flourished, particularly on a Sunday? Why do people who ________live or on the small screen rush the next day to read a have seen a football or tennis (5) ________live potted version of it in four or five columns which surely cannot mean more to the reader than that self-same viewer of the previous afternoon or evening? Why would anyone who has seen a film and formed a (6) ________ impression of it the following day read a review of the aforesaid film in a newspaper? To see if he/ she is right? Isn’t that what friends are for? Don’t we have colleagues for just that purpose – to see if our ideas on any (7) ________ song, film or programme tally with others? What is this product that (8) ________ of not much more than outrageous headlines, wayward comment, subjective editorials and hyperbolic ssports ports pages still doing in our lives? It seems for the time (9) ________ to be leading a charmed life. When it finally goes, though, many may come to mourn its (10) _________. B. passes

A. flies

A. latest

B. distant

C. immediate

D. recent

A. all

B. any

C. every

D. one

A. done

B. gone

C. stood

D. set

A. player

B. set

A. direct

B. coloured

C. bright

D. vivid

A. given

B. taken

C. subjected

D. written

A. comprises

B. contains

C. consists

D. informs

A. out

B. being

C. given

D. present

B. dying

C. falling

D. passing

10. A. perishing

C. goes

D. drags

D. meeting

C. match

Write your answers here: 1.

10.

Section 2. Read the passage and fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10 p) In British English this standard accent is known as R.P. or Received Pronunciation. This coupled with the sort of English described in grammar books is the accepted (1) _____. Its use, however, is restricted (2) _____ geographically and socially; it is most (3) _____ used among the middle classes in the south of England. Its speakers, (4) _____, carry both a geographical and (5) _____ label, as do the speakers of all its variants, although the more socially mobile someone is the more complex his accent becomes, and so the more (6) _____ he is to label. Attitudes towards this vary, from the parents (7) _____ train their children not to speak with a local (8) _____ so that “they will have a better chance in life”, to the liberal, trendy young manager who adopts a local accent (9) _____ a form of inverted snobbery. But these stances are extreme, extreme, but, nevertheless, the (10) _____ between language and social status is a potentially explosive subject in British society. Write your answers here: 1.

10.

Section 3: Read the following passage and complete the statements that follow by choosing A, B, C or D to indicate your answer which you think fits best. (10 pts) [1] Charles Darwin’s Theory of Evolution is known as one of the most important and controversial scientific theories ever published. Darwin was an English scientist in the 19th century best known for his book “On the Origin of Species.” In his book, Darwin postulated different species shared characteristics of common ancestors, that they branched off from common ancestors as they evolved, and that new traits and characteristics were a result of natural selection. The theory is based on the assumptions that life developed from non-life and progressed and evolved in an indirect manner.Therefore, the Theory of Evolution, while controversial, has shaped and influenced the modern scientific world's thinking on the development of life itself. Darwin was born February 12, 1809 in England. Although initially entering into medicine, Darwin chose to pursue his interest in natural science and embarked on a five-year journey aboard the H.M.S. Beagle, a British sloop belonging to the Royal Navy. Because of his experience aboard the Beagle, he laid the foundation for his Theory of Evolution while also establishing himself within the scientific community. Specifically, Darwin's keen observation of the fossils and wildlife he saw during his time on the Beagle served as the basis for the cornerstone of his theory: natural selection. [2] Natural selection contributes to the basis of Darwin's Theory of Evolution. One of the core tenets of Darwin's theory is that more offspring are always produced for a species than can possibly survive. Yet, no two offspring are perfectly alike. As a result, through random mutation and genetic drift, over time offspring develop new traits and characteristics. Over time beneficial traits and characteristics that promote survival will be kept in the gene pool while those that harm survival will be selected against. Therefore, this natural selection ensures that a species gradually improves itself over an extended duration of time. On the other hand, as a species continues to 'improve' itself, it branches out to create entirely new species that are no longer capable of reproducing together. [3] Through natural selection, organisms could branch off of each other and evolve to the point where they no longer belong to the same species. Consequently, simple organisms evolve into more complex and different organisms as species break away from one another. Natural selection parallels selective breeding employed by humans on domesticated animals for centuries. Namely, horse breeders will ensure that horses with particular characteristics, such as speed and endurance, are allowed to produce offspring while horses that do not share those above-average traits will not. Therefore, over several generations, the new offspring will already be pre-disposed towards being excellent racing horses. [4] Darwin's theory is that 'selective breeding' occurs in nature as 'natural selection' is the engine behind evolution. Thus, the theory provides an excellent basis for understanding how organisms change over time. Nevertheless, it is just a theory and elusively difficult to prove. One of the major holes in Darwin's theory revolves around “irreducibly complex systems.” An irreducibly complex system is known as a system where many different parts must all operate together. As a result, in the absence of one, the system as a whole collapses. Consequently, as modern technology improves, science can identify these “irreducibly complex systems” even at microscopic levels. These complex systems, if so inter -reliant, would be resistant to Darwin's supposition of how evolution occurs. As Darwin himself admitted, “To suppose that the eye with all its inimitable contrivance for adjusting the focus for different distances, for admitting different amounts of light, and for the correction of spherical and chromatic aberration, could have been formed by natural selection, seems, I free confess, absurd in the highest degree". Page 8 of 16

[5] In conclusion, “On the Origin of Species” is known as one of the most consequential books ever published. Darwin's Theory of Evolution remains, to this day, a lightning rod for controversy. The theory can be observed repeatedly, but never proven, and there are a plethora of instances that cast doubt on the processes of natural selection and evolution. Darwin's conclusions were a result of keen observation and training as a naturalist. Despite the controversy that swirls around his theory, Darwin remains one of the most influential scientists and naturalists ever born due to his Theory of Evolution. Questions: 1. The word 'postulated' in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to… A. disagreed

B. proved

C. opposed

D. hypothesized

2. Which sentence is most similar to the following sentence from paragraph 1? The theory is based on the assumptions that life developed from non-life and progressed and evolved in an indirect manner. A. The Theory of Evolution is founded on evidence that non-organic compounds are the basis of life, developed in an unguided way. B. Based on certain assumptions, we can prove that evolution occurs in all living and non-living entities. C. According to Darwin, if we assume that life at its origin was created from nonorganic compounds and developed in an unguided manner, his theory holds true. D. Due to the controversy, it is hard to make assumptions about the Theory of Evolution. 3. According to paragraph 2, what are the causes for species developing new traits and characteristics? A. medicine and longevity

B. survival and selection

C. mutation and genetic drift

D. tenets and theory

4. According to paragraph 3, what is natural selection most comparable to as a process? A. branching trees

B. selective breeding

C. irreducibly complex systems

D. the human eye

5. What is the purpose of paragraph 3 in the passage? A. To show the simple-to-complex nature of natural selection in context B. To create doubt as to the validity of the theory C. To contrast with the ideas presented in paragraph 2 D. To segue into the main point presented in paragraph 4 6. The word 'contrivance' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to: A. organization

B. retention

C. absurdity

D. systems

7. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 4 as a viewpoint to state that natural selection is difficult to prove EXCEPT … A. The belief that the complexity of the human eye could have been formed by natural selection seems highly unlikely. B. The presence of irreducibly complex system contradicts how evolution occurs. C. Modern technology has been used to prove that irreducibly complex systems exists. D. Selective breeding is the major hole in the theory of natural selection. Page 9 of 16

8. Examine the four [█] in the selection below and indicate at which block the following sentence could be inserted into the passage: The five-year voyage proved to be a major turning point in his life. █ [A] Darwin was born February 12, 1809 in England. █ [B] Although initially entering into medicine, Darwin chose to pursue his interest in natural science and embarked on a five-year journey aboard the H.M.S. Beagle, a British sloop belonging to the Royal Navy █ [C] Because of his experience aboard the Beagle, he laid the foundation for his Theory of Evolution while also establishing himself within the scientific community. █ [D] A. [A]

B. [B]

C. [C]

D. [D]

9. In paragraph 4, what was the author's purpose of including a quote that the belief that the complexity of the human eye could have been formed by natural selection seems highly unlikely? A. To provide evidence that irreducibly complex systems exists B. To prove that the natural selection contradicts the basis of Darwin's Theory of Evolution C. To support that the natural selection contributes to the basis of Darwin's Theory of Evolution D. To support the claim that natural selection is just a theory and difficult to prove 10. These sentences express the most important ideas in the passage EXCEPT… A. Natural selection explains how species change gradually over time. B. The Theory of Evolution describes how species 'branch out' from a common ancestor. C. Creationists strongly object to the premise of the Theory of Evolution D. Both Darwin and “On the Origin of Species” are among the most influential things to happen to naturalist science. Write your answers here: 1.

10.

Section 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (20p) Flying tortoises An airborne reintroduction programme has helped conservationists take significant steps to protect the endangered Galapagos tortoise. A Forests of spiny cacti cover much of the uneven lava plains that separate the interior of the Galapagos island of Isabela from the Pacific Ocean. With its five distinct volcanoes, the island resembles a lunar landscape. Only the thick vegetation at the skirt of the often cloud-covered peak of Sierra Negra offers respite from the barren terrain below. This inhospitable environment is home to the giant Galapagos tortoise. Some time after the Galapagos’s birth, around five million years ago, the islands were colonised by one or more tortoises from mainland South America. As these ancestral tortoises settled on the individual islands, the different populations adapted to their unique environments, giving rise to at least 14 different subspecies. Island life agreed with them. In the absence of significant predators, they grew to become the largest and longest-living tortoises on the planet, weighing more than 400 kilograms, occasionally exceeding 1.8 metres in length and living for more than a century. Page 10 of 16

B Before human arrival, the archipelago's tortoises numbered in the hundreds of thousands. From the 17th century onwards, pirates took a few on board for food, but the arrival of whaling ships in the 1790s saw this exploitation grow exponentially. Relatively immobile and capable of surviving for months without food or water, the tortoises were taken on board these ships to act as food supplies during long ocean passages. Sometimes, their bodies were processed into high- grade oil. In total, an estimated 200,000 animals were taken from the archipelago before the 20th century. This historical exploitation was then exacerbated when settlers came to the islands. They hunted the tortoises and destroyed their habitat to clear land for agriculture. They also introduced alien species ranging from cattle, pigs, goats, rats and dogs to plants and ants - that either prey on the eggs and young tortoises or damage or destroy their habitat. C Today, only 11 of the original subspecies survive and of these, several are highly endangered. In 1989, work began on a tortoise-breeding centre just outside the town of Puerto Villamil on Isabela, dedicated to protecting the island’s tortoise populations. The centre’s captive-breeding programme proved to be extremely successful, and it eventually had to deal with an overpopulation problem. D The problem was also a pressing one. Captive-bred tortoises can’t be reintroduced into the wild until they’re at least five years old and weigh at least 4,5 kilograms, at which point their size and weight and their hardened shells - are sufficient to protect them from predators. But if people wait too long after that point, the tortoises eventually become too large to transport. E For years, repatriation efforts were carried out in small numbers, with the tortoises carried on the backs of men over weeks of long, treacherous hikes along narrow trails. But in November 2010, the environmentalist and Galapagos National Park liaison officer Godfrey Merlin, a visiting private motor yacht captain and a helicopter pilot gathered around a table in a small cafe in Puerto Ayora on the island of Santa Cruz to work out more ambitious reintroduction. The aim was to use a helicopter to move 300 of the breeding centre’s tortoises to various locations close to Sierra Negra. F This unprecedented effort was made possible by the owners of the 67-metre yacht White Cloud, who provided the Galapagos National Park with free use of their helicopter and its experienced pilot, as well as the logistical support of the yacht, its captain and crew. Originally an air ambulance, the yacht’s helicopter has a rear double door and a large internal space that’s well suited for cargo, so a custom crate was designed to hold up to 33 tortoises with a total weight of about 150 kilograms. This weight, together with that of the fuel, pilot and four crew, approached the helicopter’s maximum payload, and there were times when it was clearly right on the edge of the helicopter’s capabilities. During a period of three days, a group of volunteers from the breeding centre worked around the clock to prepare the young tortoises for transport. Meanwhile, park wardens, dropped off ahead of time in remote locations, cleared landing sites within the thick brush, cacti and lava rocks. G Upon their release, the juvenile tortoises quickly spread out over their ancestral territory, investigating their new surroundings and feeding on the vegetation. Eventually, one tiny tortoise came across a fully grown giant who had been lumbering around the island for around a hundred years. The two stood side by side, a powerful symbol of the regeneration of an ancient species.

Page 11 of 16

For questions 1 – 5, choose correct heading for sections B – F from the list of headings below. List of Headings i

The importance of getting the timing right

Young meets old

iii

Developments to the disadvantage of tortoise populations

Planning a bigger idea

Tortoises populate the islands

Carrying out a carefully prepared operation

vii

Looking for a home for the islands’ tortoises

viii

The start of the conservation project

Example: Section A: v 1. Section B

___________

2. Section C

___________

3. Section D

___________

4. Section E

___________

5. Section F

___________

For questions 6 –10, fill in each blank with ONE WORD from the passage. The decline of the Galapagos tortoise •

Originally from mainland South America

•

Numbers on Galapagos islands increased, due to lack of predators

•

17th century: small numbers taken onto ships used by (6.) _________________

• 1790s: very large numbers taken onto whaling ships, kept for food and also used to produce (7.) _______________ •

Hunted by (8.) ___________________ on islands

• Habitat destruction: for the establishment of agriculture and by various (9.) ____________ not native to the islands, which also fed on baby tortoises and tortoises (10.) ______________. Write your answers here: 6.

10. Page 12 of 16

Section 5. Read the following passage and choose from people A-D. The people may be chosen more than once. (10p) A Sundance by Teresa Wilson Kerry: I really don't know why this book is so popular. I mean, I suppose it is going to appeal to young girls who want danger and romance, but I found this book really tedious. For a start, the characters were really unconvincing. The author went out of her way to add lots of details about the characters, but I found these details really pointless. I thought that some of the facts she presented about the main characters would become significant in some way later in the novel, but they didn't. They were just worthless bits of information. I also was disappointed that, although this book is meant to be about kids at high school, the writer seems to have no recollection at all about what it's like to be 17. The main character thought and acted like a 32-year old. It just wasn't believable. I'm not saying Teresa Wilson is a bad writer. She can obviously string words together and come up with a story that is appealing to a large number of people, but she lacks anything original. There is no flair. It just uses the same sort of language as you can see in many other mediocre novels. B Wild Ways by Margery Emerson Liz: I have to say that I won't forget this book for a long time. I was hooked from the very first chapter. The devastating story affected me so much that I don't know if I'll ever feel the same again. I was close to tears on several occasions. I've got images in my brain now that I don't think will ever leave me. It's incredibly well-researched and, although it is fiction, is based on shocking real-life events. I learned an awful lot about things that went on that I never knew before. Margaret Emerson has a brilliant way with words and I really felt real empathy towards the characters, although I was sometimes irritated by the choices they made. However, the parallel story, the part that is set in the present, is not quite so good. I found myself just flicking through that part so that I could get back to 1940s Paris. C Orchid by Henry Rathbone Imogen: This is a delightful novel full of wonderful imagery, a paints a remarkable picture of life in a distant Page 13 of 16

time and a far-away place. If you're looking to learn about Eastern culture in great detail, then this is probably not the book for you, as the writer skims over most of the more complicated aspects of the country's etiquette. The historical aspects are also not covered in much depth. However, I wonder whether this was the writer's intention. By doing this, he symbolise the superficiality of the girl's life. She, like the book, is beautiful and eager to please, but remains too distant from us, the readers, to teach us much. Although I loved the book and read it in one sitting, the ending was a bit of a disappointment. A story which involves so much turmoil, in a place where the future is uncertain, should not have a happy-ever-after fairy-tale ending. D High Hills by Mary Holland Hannah: I read this book for a literature class. I know it's a classic, and I did try to like it, but I just didn't get into it. I kept persevering, hoping that I'd start to enjoy it, but no such luck. The famous scene out on the moors was definitely the best bit of the book, but even that I found ridiculous when it is clearly supposed to be passionate. As I approached the end of the book, I figured there must be some kind of moral to the story, something that I would learn from the experience of trudging through seven hundred long pages, but there was nothing worthwhile. I don't know why the literary world sees this book as such a masterpiece. The characters are portrayed as being intelligent, but they do such stupid things! And as for it being a love story - marrying someone you don't love and then being abused by them - that doesn't spell love to me.

Which person read a book which... 1. was set in an Oriental country 2. had characters that the reader could sympathise with 3. is well-known and was written a long time ago 4. contained two stories 5. was historically accurate 6. made the reader cry 7. contained insignificant details 8. is written for teenagers 9. is classed as romantic fiction 10. has an attractive but shallow heroine Write your answers here: 1.

10. Page 14 of 16

PART IV: WRITING (50 points) Section 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence before it. (10 p) 1. I really enjoy getting thoroughly absorbed in this good book. I am losing ________________________________________________________________ . 2. He’s partially deaf so he finds it difficult to communicate on the phone. Were it ____________________________________________________________________. 3. Sally distrusts modern technology strongly. Sally has ___________________________________________________________________. 4. If the weather is fine, we may go camping at the weekend. Weather ___________________________________________________________________. 5. “There’s no point in writing it all out in longhand if you can use a typewriter, isn’t there?” She dissuaded ________________________________________________________________. Section 2: Rewrite these sentences using the words in CAPITAL. You must not change the given words. (10 p) 1. Do you think we can stew this kind of meat? (LEND) Do _______________________________________________________________________? 2. Normally, the money is released within about three months. (COURSE) In ________________________________________________________________________. 3. We can’t possibly imagine how we are going to afford a new car. (REMOTEST) We ________________________________________________________________________. 4. That medicine was very effective and I started to feel better immediately. (MAGIC) That medicine __________________________________________________________. 5. I’m sure Nancy is still presuming that the party starts at nine. (IMPRESSION) I’m sure _____________________________________________________________.

Page 15 of 16

Section 3: Paragraph writing (30 p) Recently, there have been an increasing number of school students choosing to take standardized English examinations like TOEFL, IELTS or TOEIC. What are the causes of this trend? Write a paragraph of 200 words to express your viewpoint. Write your paragraph here: ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Page 16 of 16

--THE END----

Page 17 of 16

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

LẦN THỨ XV –SƠN LA 2019

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI 10 Ngày thi: 27 tháng 7 năm 2019 Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) HDCgồm có4 trang

PART I. LISTENING (50p) Section 1. You will hear a man asking a woman about the information about a family excursion. For questions from 1 to 7, fill in each gap with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER. (14p) 1. steamship

2. garden(s)

3. map

5. Ratchesons

6. helmet

7. 267

4. experience

Section2. Listen to the recording and complete each of the following gaps with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER (16p) 1. comfort and style

2. interesting to see

3. power and water

4. 35

5. sustainable

6. glass floor

7. urban centres

8. electrical goods

Section 3. Listen to a teacher giving a lesson on the effects of tourism. For questions 1 – 5, decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). (10p) 1. T

2. F

3. F

4. F

5. T

Section4.You will hear a radio interview with a ghost hunter called Carlene Belfort. For questions 1-5, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D). (10 pts) 1. B

2. A

3. B

4. C

5. D

PART II: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (40p) Section 1. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each blank in the following sentences. (20 p) 1. C

2. D

3. A

4. C

5. B

6. A

7. B

8. A

9. D

10. C

11. C

12. A

13. D

14. A

15. B

16. A

17. A

18. B

19. D

20. C Page 1 of 4

Section 2. Fill each gap with the correct form of the words in brackets. (10 p) 1. ruthless

6. acculturate

2. natural

7. unfailingly

3. biosphere

8. domineering

4. chairman

9. benefactor

5. desirous

10. Moneywise

Section 3. The passage below contains TEN mistakes. Identify the mistakes and provide the corrections in the spaces below. (10 p) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Line 1. places → place Line 2. when → where Line 4. spends → takes Line 5. their → whose Line 6. to → from

Line 7. this → which Line 8. and → or Line 9. something → anything Line 11. near → nearly Line 13. foot → feet

PART III. READING (50p) Section 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in corresponding numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an example. (10 p) 1. B 6. D

2. D 7. A

3. C 8. C

4. A 9. B

5. C 10. D

Section 2. Read the passage and fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10 p) 1. pronunciation

2. both

3. commonly

4. British

5. social

6. difficult

7. who/that

8. accent

9. with

10. link/ relation

Section 3: Read the following passage and complete the statements that follow by circling A, B, C or D to indicate your answer which you think fits best. (10 pts) 1. D

2. C

3. C

4. B

5. A

6. D

7. D

8. C

9. D

10. C

Section 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (10p) 1. Section B: iii

6. pirates

2. Section C:viii

7. oil

3. Section D:i

8. settlers

4. Section E:iv

9. species Page 2 of 4

5.Section F: vi

10. eggs

Section5. Read the following passage and choose from people A-D. The people may be chosen more than once. (10p) 1. C

2. B

3. D

4. B

5. B

6. B

7. A

8. A

9. D

10. C

PART IV: WRITING (50 points) Section 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence before it. (10 p) 1. I am losing myself in this good book. 2. Were it not for his partial deafness, he wouldn’t find it difficult to communicate on the phone. 3. Sally has a strong distrust of modern technology. 4. Weather permitting, we may go camping at the weekend. 5. She dissuaded me from writing it all out in longhand (and told me to use a typewriter). Section 2: Rewrite these sentences using the words in CAPITAL. You must not change the given words. (10 p) 1. Do you think this kind of meat can lend itself to stewing? 2. In the normal course of events, the money is released within about three months. 3. We haven’t got / don’t have the remotest idea how we aregoing to afford a new car. 4. That medicine worked like magic and I started to feel better immediately. 5. I’m sure Nancy is still under the impression that the party starts at nine.

Điểm tối đa

1. Bố cục o Câu dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc o Bố cục hợp lý rõ ràng, phù hợp với yêu cầu của đề bài o Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận

2. Phát triển ý o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic o Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ,… đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình

6 Page 3 of 4

3. Sử dụng ngôn từ o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp với nội dung o Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong, thể loại o Sử dụng từ nối cho các ý uyển chuyển

4. Nội dung o Đủ thuyết phục người đọc o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hoặc ít hơn quy định 10%

5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu, chính tả o Sử dụng đúng dấu câu o Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu lầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính một lỗi o Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu lầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) Tổng

THE END

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TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XV TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN - ĐIỆN BIÊN ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT Môn: Tiếng Anh khối 10 PART I: LISTENING Listen 1. Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. Fitness centre Example

Answer

Current class

aerobics

Facilities:

Body building equipment Keep – fit studio 1. ______________

Special course:

2. ______________

Refreshments after exercising:

3. _____________ shop 4. _____________ and oil-free 5. _____________ food

Membership scheme

Super Time:

At any time (both weekdays and weekend)

Charge:

6. ____________ for the annual subscription fee

Under super Time:

Monday to Sunday (except 7._____________)

Charge:

£ 500.00 for the annual subscription fee

Answers: 1.

Listen 2. You will hear a wildlife photographer called Leanna Marson talking about her work. Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 1. Leanna describes __________________ she experiences when she takes a good wildlife photograph as _____________________ . 2. She feels that photography is not simply about ___________________ . 3.

Leanna

says

her

work

involves

________________

animal's

____________________ . 4. She considers it a(n) _____________________ to be able to take pictures of wildlife. 5. She says that she needed to be __________________ on one particular occasion. 6. On a recent trip, Leanna was away for __________________ . Answers: 1.

6. Listen 3. For questions 1-5, listen to a short talk and decide the statements are True (T) or False (F). T 1. At the beginning of the conversation about traveling overseas, the man felt relaxed. 2. You could bargain over the price with shopkeepers to get the best deal. 3. People stared at him out of a distrust of foreigners. 4. The people seem to pass through traffic as if unaffected by everything around them. 5. Some countries share some similar characteristics that bind them together. Answers: 1.

Listen 4. You will hear part of a radio interview in which a travel writer, Owen Grifiths, is talking about his career. For questions 1 - 5, choose the best answer which fits best according to what you hear. 1. Why does Owen feel well suited to a career as a travel writer? A. He believes ha has the desire and determination to succeed B. He finds it easy to adjust to living in different places C. He feels he has both the right character and skills D. He doesn't feel ready to settle down in one place 2. Why did Owen work for a newspaper after leaving university? A. to gain writing experience B. to follow in his mother's footsteps C. to finance his novel writing D. to please his parents 3. Why was Owen's first travel piece published? A. The paper had been planning a piece on that region B. He was the only writer able to meet the deadline C. It solved a problem for his boss D. His boss wanted to reward him 4. According to Owen, what quality must a travel piece possess? A. It needs a balance between information and opinion B. It has to appeal to all readers of the newspaper C. It should be constructed like a short story D. It must convey the writer's enthusiasm for the place 5. What criticism does Owen make of his own writing? A. He sometimes struggles to produce original pieces B. He often ands up leaving out the best part of his journeys C. He believes his ideas could be better organized D. He sometimes writes to please himself more than his teachers. Answers: 1.

PART II: LEXICO â&#x20AC;&#x201C; GRAMMAR A. Choose the correct answer A, B, C, D to each of the following questions. 1. The boxer hit his opponent so hard that he was ___________ for ten minutes. A. asleep

B. knocked about C. unconscious

D. stopped

2. Because of an unfortunate ______ your order was not dispatched by the date requested. A. hindrance

B. oversight

C. negligence

D. transgression

3. The death ___________ in the earthquake has been put at over one thousand. A. damage

B. toll

C. rate

D. loss

4. Donâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t be __________ by false advertisements. If something looks too good to be true, it probably is. A. put off

B. given up

C. taken in

D. put down

5. By next Saturday you ___________ with us for 6 months. A. will have stayed

B. will stay

C. have stayed

D. are staying

6. The child sat in the middle of the floor and ___________ refused to move. A. distinctively

B. decisively

C. flatly

D. totally

7. The manager told his assistant to ___________ the mistake immediately. A. rectify

B. maltreat

C. sanction

D. banish

8. After a six-year relationship, Martha and Billy have decided to ___________. A. break the bank

B. turn the page

C. tie the knot

D. make the grade

9. Not until the seventeenth century ___________ to measure the speed of light. A. anyone did even attempt

B. did anyone even attempt

C. even did anyone attempt

D. did even attempt anyone

10. The director retired early ___________ ill health. A. on behalf of

B. ahead of

C. on account of

D. in front of

11. Little did I imagine The Amazing Race would entail long-winded journeys and ups and downs __________ . A. aplenty

B. inexhaustibly C. profusely

D. superabundant

12. It stands to reason that a touch of humor and optimism can work ____________ .

A. on all cylinders

B. spectacles

C. wonders

D. your fingers to the bone

13. I admit that I am late for the conference, but by _______________ of excuse let me explain: my plane was delayed for 6 hours in Hanoi. A. courtesy

B. dint

C. means

D. way

14. A lot of criticism and scorn has been heaped _____________ his opinions. A. above

B. beyond

C. on

D. up

15. At first, she was ____________ dumbfounded to hear that he wanted to break up, and then came the stirrings of auto-hypnotic perturbation. A. exceedingly

B. out-and-out

C. somewhat

D. utterly

16. What stands out from The Voice Kids is that many young children are ___________ with natural talent for music. A. bestowed

B. conferred

C. endowed

D. vouchsafed

17. With the economic situation looming large, many families find it difficult to rear their ________. A. descendant

B. lineage

C. offspring

D. successor

18. Researchers have made a(n) __________ plea for more sponsorship so that they can continue their project. A. compassionate

B. dispassionate

C. encompassed

D. impassioned

19. That Mary is an ______ liar: you must take what she says with a small grain of salt. A. incorrigible

B. incurable

C. irredeemable

D. irremediable

20. Unanswered, the demands for nuclear deterrents have _________ fears of civil war. A. flashed up

B. prognosticated

C. sidetracked

D. stoked up

Answers: 1.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

B. Fill in the bracket with the correct form of the words 1. Many teachers expressed serious ___________ about the new tests.

GIVE

2. The price of property in the city is ____________

PROHIBIT

CONSUME

3. ____________ is an economic theory which states that a progressively greater level of consumption is beneficial to the consumers.

SHOP

4. If your credit card debt is mounting and yet you can't stop spending, you could be a _______________

TAKE

5. The number of people suffering from shopping addiction has _____________ the number of drug and drink addicts combined. 6. He gained ___________ for being difficult to work with as an actor.

NOTORIOUS

7. The Transformer is quite intriguing. It is ___________ one of the

DOUBT

best movies of the year. 8. Her hip has been ___________ for quite a while, and she'll probably TROUBLE need surgery on it. FUTURE

9. Her latest novel is a _____________ thriller, set some time in the late 21st century.

ACCENT

10. The new policy only serves to ____________ the inadequacy of help for the homeless. Answers: 1.

10.

C. There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. Line 1

Skiing is one of the most popular sports in the world. According to recent

Line 2

estimation, about one hundred millions of people ski regularly or

Line 3

occasionally.

Line 4

Sliding across the snow on skis is also one of the most ancient methods of

Line 5

transport known to the man. It has demonstrated that men were already

Line 6

travelling across the snow by means of primitive skis before the invention of

Line 7

the wheel. In the Asiatic region of Altai and in Scandinavia, for example ,

Line 8

the remains of skis have been found which dated back to 4,000 BC. Further

Line 9

evidence is supplied by ancient cave paintings which depict people skiing,

Line 10

and a Norway saga which tells the story of an invasion of its territory 8,000

Line 11

years ago by a tribe of skiers who came from the north.

Line 12

Nowadays, skiing, apart from a sport, has become a big industry and

Line 13

a notable feature of leisure culture. Ski resorts and all the activity that they

Line 14

generate is the main source of wealth in many mountain regions, which were

Line 15

previously remote and accessible. And far from its once elitist image, skiing

Line 16

is now enjoyed by an increasingly broader spectra of society.

Mistakes

Correction

1. ……………………..…. Line: ….. 2. …………………..……. Line: ….. 3. …………………..……. Line: ….. 4. …………………..……. Line: ….. 5. …………………..……. Line: ….. 6. …………………..……. Line: ….. 7. …………………..……. Line: ….. 8. …………………..……. Line: ….. 9. …………………..……. Line: ….. 10. …………………....…. Line: ….. PART III: READING A. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage. A POWERFUL INFLUENCE There can be no doubt at all that the Internet has made a huge difference to our lives. Parents worry that their children spend too much time browsing the Internet or playing computer games, hardly (1) …….. doing anything else in their spare time. Naturally, parents are (2) ……. to find out why the Internet is so attractive, and they want to know if it can be harmful for their children. Should parents worry if their children are spending that

much

time

(3)

…………

their

computers.

Obviously, if children are bent over their computers for hours, (4)…………... in some game , instead of doing their homework, then something is wrong. Parents and children could decide how much use the child should (5)……….…. of the Internet, and the child should give his or her (6)………….. that it don’t interfere with homework. If the child is not (7)……….… to this arrangement, parents can take more drastic steps. Dealing with a child’s use of the Internet is not much different from negotiating any other sort of bargain about

behavior.

Any parents who is seriously alarmed about a child’s behavior should make an appointment to discuss the matter with a teacher. Spending time in front of a computer screen does not (8) ….…… affect a child’s performance at school. Even if a child is (9)……..…. crazy about using the Internet, he or she is probably just (10)……….… through a phase, and in a few months there will have something else to worry about! 1. A. always

B. rarely

C. never

D. ever

2. A. worried

B. concerned

C. curious

D. hopeful

3. A. staring at

B. glancing at

C. looking

D. watching

4. A. supposed

B. occupied

C. interested

D. absorbed

5. A. do

B. have

C. make

D. create

6. A. word

B. promise

C. vow

D. claim

7. A. holding

B. sticking

C. following

D. accepting

8. A. possibly

B. necessarily

C. probably

D. consequently

9. A. absolutely

B. more

C. quite

D. a lot

10. A. going

B. passing

C. travelling

D. walking

Answers: 1.

10.

B. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in each gap. WHAT ARE YOU DOING TO DO WITH YOUR LIFE?

At some time or another, each and every young person must provide themselves with the necessary skills - "What can I do with my life". It seems easy to (1) ………….. the big question down into a few smaller ones. For example, "Where do I want to live?" "How much time can I (2) ……………. myself over to achieving my goals? or "What kind of qualifications will I need to acquire? But two of paramount (3) …………… are "What are my interests?" and "What are my strengths?" When you start to make (4) ………….. for interests and strengths, it makes sense to consider the (5) …………… first. After all, a successful career is best measured in how satisfying you find (6) …………….. , and it's easer to develop strengths and skills than to actually have to force yourself (7) …………….. loving what you're supposed to do. You're probably thought a lot about what you like and don't like, and what kinds of jobs would (8) ……………. your interest. But the more clearly you (9) …………….out those interests, the closer you'll be to (10) ……………… smart career choices. Answers: 1.

10.

READING PASSAGE 1 C. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the following questions The Underground Railroad Slavery was legal for over 200 years in some parts of North America, particularly the southern states of the United States, where the plantation system of agriculture depended on the labor of slaves, most of whom came from Africa. Slaves had no rights or freedoms because they were thought of as property. From the time of its origin, slavery had opponents. The abolitionist movement began in the 1600s when the Quakers in Pennsylvania objected to slavery on moral grounds and wanted to abolish the institution. In 1793, Canada passed a law abolishing slavery and declared that any escaped slaves who came to Canada would be free citizens. Slavery was already illegal in most northern states; however, slaves captured there by slave hunters could be returned to slavery in the South. Canada refused to return runaway slaves or to allow American slave hunters into the

country. It is estimated that more than 30,000 runaway slaves immigrated to Canada and settled in the Great Lakes region between 1830 and 1865. The American antislavery movement was at the height of its activity during the 1800s, when abolitionists developed the Underground Railroad, a loosely organized system whereby runaway slaves were passed from safe house to safe house as they fled northwards to free states or Canada. The term was first used in the 1830s and came from an Ohio clergyman who said, “They who took passage on it disappeared from public view as if they had really gone to ground”. Because the Underground Railroad was so secret, few records exist that would reveal the true number of people who travelled it to freedom. The most active routes on the railroad were in Ohia, Indiana, and western Pennsylvania. Runaway slaves usually traveled alone or in small groups. Most were young men between the ages of 16 and 35. (A) The fugitives hid in wagons under loads of hay or potatoes, or in furniture and boxes in steamers and on rafts. (B) They traveled on foot through swamps and woods, moving only a few miles each night, using the North Star as a compass. Sometimes they moved in broad daylight. (C) Boys disguised themselves as girls, and girls dressed as boys. In one well-known incident, twenty-eight slaves escaped by walking in a funeral procession from Kentucky to Ohio. (D) The railroad developed its own language. The trains were the large farm wagons that could conceal and carry a number of people. The tracks were the backcountry roads that were used to elude the slave hunters. The stations were the homes and hiding places where the slaves were fed and cared for as they moved north. The agents were the people who planned the escaped routes. The “conductors” were the fearless men and women who led the slaves toward freedom. The “passengers” were the slaves who dared to run away and break for liberty. Passengers paid no fare and conductors received no pay. The most daring conductor was Harriet Tubman, a former slave who dedicated her life to helping other runaways. Tubman made 19 trips into the South to guide 300 relatives, friends and strangers to freedom. She was wanted dead or alive in the South, but she was never captured and never lost a passenger. A determined worker, she carried a gun for protection and a supply of drugs to quiet the crying babies in her rescue parties.

A number of white people joined the effort, including Indiana banker Levi Coffin and his wife Catherine, who hid runaways in their home, a “station” conveniently located on three main escape routes to Canada. People could be hidden there for several weeks, recovering their strength and waiting until it was safe to continue on their journey. Levi Coffin was called the “president of the Underground Railroad” because he helped as many as 3,000 slaves to escape. The people who worked on the railroad were breaking the law. Although the escape network was never as successful or as well organized as Southerners thought, the few thousand slaves who made their way to freedom in this way each year had a symbolic significance out of proportion to their actual numbers. The Underground Railroad continued operating until slavery in the United States was finally abolished in 1865. 1. Why did thousands of runaways slaves immigrate to Canada? A. They preferred the climate of the Great Lakes region. B. Working conditions for slaves were better in Canada. C. Canada had no laws restricting immigration. D. Former slaves could live as free citizens in Canada. 2. The phrase “the term” in paragraph 3 refers to ______ A. Antislavery movement

C. Underground Railroad

B. Abolitionist

D. free state

3. The word “fugitives” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______ A. Leaders

B. old men

C. runaways

D. brave ones

4. All of the following are mentioned as methods of escape on the Underground Railroad EXCEPT ______ A. Hiding in a hay wagon

C. riding in a railcar

B. Wearing a disguise

D. walking in a procession

5. The author discusses the language of the Underground Railroad in paragraph 5 in order to ______ A. Trace the history of American English words B. Illustrate the secret nature of the escape network C. Point out that some words have more than one meaning.

D. Compare the Underground Railroad to other railways. 6. The word â&#x20AC;&#x153;eludeâ&#x20AC;? in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______ A. avoid

B. follow

C. find

D. assist

7. Which of the following statements is true about passengers on the Underground Railroad? A. Their destination was in the northern states or Canada. B. They were not allowed to make stops during the journey. C. Their babies were disguised to look like baggage. D. They paid the conductors at the end of the journey. 8. Why was Harriet Tubman wanted dead or alive in the South? A. She was a criminal who carried a gun and sold drugs. B. She refused to return the runaway slaves that she captured. C. She was an escaped slave who led others to freedom D. She became the president of the Underground Railroad. 9. It can be inferred from paragraph 8 that the author most likely believes which of the following about the Underground Railroad? A. The people who worked on the railroad should have been arrested. B. The railroad was unsuccessful because it could not help every slave. C. Southerners did not know about the railroad until after it closed. D. The railroad represented a psychological victory for abolitionists. 10. Where would the following sentence best fitted into paragraph 4? (A)

(B)

(C)

(D) Women and children also escaped, but they were more easily captured. Answers: 1.

10.

READING PASSAGE 2 D. Read the following passage and do as required. A. The need for a satisfactory education is more important than ever before. Nowadays, without a qualification from a reputable school or university, the odds of

landing that plum job advertised in the paper are considerably shortened. Moreover, oneâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s present level of education could fall well short of future career requirements. B. It is no secret that competition is the driving force behind the need to obtain increasingly higher qualifications. In the majority of cases, the urge to upgrade is no longer the result of an insatiable thirst for knowledge. The pressure is coming from within the workplace to compete with ever more qualified job applicants, and in many occupations one must now battle with colleagues in the reshuffle for the position one already holds. C. Striving to become better educated is hardly a new concept. Wealthy parents have always been willing to spend the vast amount of extra money necessary to send their children to schools with a perceived educational edge. Working adults have long attended night schools and refresher courses. Competition for employment has been around since the curse of working for a living began. Is the present situation so very different to that of the past? D. The difference now is that the push is universal and from without as well as within. A student at a comprehensive school receive low grades is no longer as easily accepted by his or her peers as was once the case. Similarly, in the workplace, unless employees are engaged in part-time study, they may be frowned upon by their employers and peers and have difficulty even standing still. In fact, in these cases, the expectation is for careers to go backwards and earning capacity to take an appreciable nosedive. E. At first glance, the situation would seem to be laudable; a positive response to the exhortations of politicians for us all to raise our intellectual standards and help improve the level of intelligence within the community. Yet there are serious ramifications according to at least one educational psychologist. Dr. Brenda Gatsby has caused some controversy in academic circles by suggesting that a bias towards what he terms â&#x20AC;&#x153;paper excellenceâ&#x20AC;? might cause more problems than it is supposed to solve. Gatsby raises a number of issues that affect the individual as well as society in general. F. Firstly, he believes the extra workload involved in resulting I abnormally high stress levels in both students at comprehensive schools and adults studying after working hours. Secondly, skills which might be more relevant to the undertaking of a sought-after

job are being overlooked by employers not interviewing candidates without qualifications on paper. These two areas of concern for the individual are causing physical as well as emotional stress. Questions 1-5: Match the headings to the paragraphs in the passage. The first paragraph has been done for you. Eg: Paragraph A - iii 1. Paragraph B _____

4. Paragraph E _______

2. Paragraph C _____

5. Paragraph F _______

3. Paragraph D _____ i. The struggle for better education results in parents sending children to costlier schools ii. Doubts as to whether competition is a modern phenomenon. iii. The value of education in securing employment. iv. Questions raised concerning the over-emphasis placed on paper qualifications. v. Causes of concern for the individual vi. Comprehensive school students no longer receive low grades. vii. Competition in the workplace increasing the need for higher qualifications. viii. Pressure to perform well at school and continue study while working. Answers: 1.

Questions 6-10: Following is a summary of a part of the passage. Fill in the gaps with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage. Dr. Gatsby, an educational psychologist, has suggested that there are problems affecting the individual and society when the workplace is biased towards hiring personnel only on the basis of their (6) _________________________. He claims that an over-emphasis placed on (7) _____________ is causing stress in students at school and in working adults studying part-time. Also, more practical skills might be overlooked by employers hiring applicants for jobs. However, the most (8) _________________________ consequence of this preference for ever more highly qualified applicants, apart from a possible drop in university (9) _________________________ is that those who are unable to afford a

higher level of education are disadvantaged. (10) ___________________ have not met with universal acceptance. Answers: 6.

10.

READING PASSAGE 3 E. You are going to read an article about groups run by volunteers in their local community. For questions 1-10, choose from the groups (A-D). The groups may be chosen more than once . Which of the groups 1. ______

has a name that might give people a wrong idea of its activities?

2. ______

wants to respond to feedback from users of a service it provides?

3. ______

has put the results of its work on show to the public?

4. ______

has found it hard to finance its activities?

5. ______

offers advice to beginners in an activity?

6. ______

provides a pick-up service for its users?

7. ______

plans to start selling things to make money?

8. ______

would use the prize money to publicize its activities?

9. ______

noticed that something that was still useful was going to waste?

10. ______

provides a service for people all over the country?

Future-Friendly Awards Four local community groups run by volunteers have been nominated to win a cash prize. Who do you think should win? A. CycleStreets

You're keen to get on your bike, but you're not so keen on bumping over poor roads, sweating up hills or riding between all the large trucks on the main roads. Where can you go? The answer is to ask www.cyclestreets.net, a journey-planning website for cyclists. 'We aim to give newcomers the confidence to start cycling with all its environmental and health benefits - and to improve routes for those who already cycle,' says spokesperson Martin Lucas-Smith. The not-for-profit group is based in Cambridge, but routes are available in all regions nationwide. Cyclists can

get involved, too, by contributing photographs and reporting obstructions or other issues. 'We've done years of unpaid work and winning this award would help us make some major improvements, which the cyclists who contact us have been asking for,' says Martin. B. Sefton Green Gym

If you visit Sefton Green Gym in Liverpool, don't go expecting to see weights or rowing machines - this 'gym' just has rows of lovingly tended organic fruit and vegetables. The gym was set up to help local people improve their skills, make new friends and enjoy the health benefits of gardening. Members range from young people with learning difficulties to elderly people with health problems. 'My dad went along after a serious illness to get fit and make new friends, ' says Joanne Woods . 'He's worked hard to raise funds but with limited success, and the gym faces closure if we don't get any more.' The award would help the gym to expand by installing eco-friendly solar heating, as well as advertising for new members and extending its links with the community. C. The Project Group The Project Group, from the small town of Oswestry, helps people with health problems and learning disabilities to build their self-esteem through creativity. This year, the group has focused on using recycled materials, including making vases from waste paper and pictures from recycled glass. Last year, it helped stage an exhibition of sculptures entirely created from rubbish such as cri sp packets, plastic bags and odd shoes.

It has also created posters for the local Wildlife Trust, and helped other

community groups. 'The whole organization is user-led, and our artwork can now be

admired in many public buildings and spaces in our region,' says spokeswoman Jo Davis. 'We also hope to use the award to develop a retail range of recycled products to help fund our activities.' D. Clean stream Carpets Every year, an astonishing three-and-a-half million carpet tiles are thrown away in South Wales and south-west England. Recognizing that many tiles could be reused, a group of volunteers formed Clean stream Carpets to collect and supply them at affordable prices to local organizations and community groups . Volunteers collect and grade tiles before selling them from Clean stream's premises near Rhondda. Satisfied customers range from local schools to a community furniture bank in Bedfordshire, and the tiles have even been used to build refuges for endangered animals such as great crested newts. 'Our unique selling point is the guarantee that the product is diverted from landfill,' says one volunteer. 'Winning the award would give us encouragement to explore other ways of using other recycled material.'

PART IV: WRITING A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence before it. 1. The boy was about to cry when he was reprimanded by his mother. The boy was on………………………………………………………………………. 2. In terms of economy, Vietnam has been developing very quickly over the last 20 years. When it ……………………………………………..…..………………………….. 3. He is very good at cooking spaghetti. He is a dab ……………………………………………….……………….…………. 4. The students’ rebellious behaviors should have been severely punishment. The students deserved …………………………………………………….…………. 5. There’s no one available in this moment to take her class. There’s no one ………………………………………………….…………………….

B. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence, but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way. 1. Don’t you regret not learning to swim? (DON’T …....... SWIM ?) ……………………………………………………………..…………………… 2. I can’t often afford to spend my holiday abroad. (SELDOM) ……………………………………………………………..……………………… 3. The two young men introduced a virus into the computer system. (ALLEGED) ……………………………………………………………..……………………… 4. I would like to express my thanks for everything you have done for me. (I …SAY … THANKFUL.…) ……………………………………………………………..……………………………… …………………………………………………………………………..………………… 5. Since the company’s methods were exposed in a newspaper, people have lost their good opinion of it. (DISREPUTE) ……………………………………………………………..……………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………..………… C. WRITING PARAGRAPH Write a paragraph of about 200 words on the following topic: On June 1st, 2019, in the first enrollment, secondary school of the University of Foreign Languages (National University of Hanoi) recruited only 100 indicators, but more than 3,000 registration documents. Why did too many parents want their children to study at this school? ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XV TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN - ĐIỆN BIÊN ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT Môn: Tiếng Anh khối 10 PART I. LISTENING Listen 1. (14 points ) 1. Badminton 2.

Judo 3. (a) diet

court

(classes)

6. £ 700.00

7. Fridays

Listen 2. (16 points) 1. the 2. (the) technical emotion/ magical elements 6. 7 months

4. caffeine

5. low - calorie

3. predicting/ movements

4. privilege

5. (very) trusting

Listen 3. (10 points) 1. T 2. T

3. T

4. T

5. F

Listen 4. (10 points) 1. B 2. C

3. C

4. A

5. A

PART II: LEXICO – GRAMMAR A. (20 points) 1. C

2. B

11. A 12. C

3. B

4. C

5. A

6. C

7. A

8. C

9. B

10. C

13. D

14. C

15. D

16. C

17. C

18. D

19. A

20. D

B. (10 points) 1. misgivings

2. prohibitive

3. consumerism 4. shopaholic

5. overtaken

6. notoriety

7. undoubtedly

8. troublesome

10. accentuate

9. futuristic

C. (10 points) Mistakes

Correction

1. estimation - Line: 2

estimates

2. millions of - Line: 2

million

3. the man - Line: 5

man

4. has - Line: 5

has been

5. dated - Line: 8

date

6. Norway - Line: 10

Norwegian

7. a sport - Line: 12

being a sport

8. is - Line: 14

are

9. accessible - Line: 15

inaccessible

10. spectra - Line: 16

spectrum

PART III: READING A. (10 points) 1. D 6. A B. (10 points) 1. break 6. it C. (10 points) 1. D 6. A D. (20 points) 1. vii

2. C

3. A

4. D

5. C

7. A

8. B

9. A

10. A

2. give

3. importance

4. allowance(s)

5. former/ first

7. into

8. hold

9. set

10. making

2. C

3. C

4. B

5. B

7. A

8. C

9. D

10. A

2. ii

3. viii

4. iv

5. v

6. qualification

7. academic

paper

success

8. undesirable

9. standards

view

2. A

3. C

4. B

5. A

E. (10 points) 1. B

10. Gatsbyâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s

6. D

7. C

8. B

9. D

10. A

PART IV: WRITING A. (10 points) 1. The boy was on the point of crying when he was reprimanded by his mother. 2. When it comes to economy, Vietnam has been developing very quickly over the last 20 years. 3. He is a dab hand at cooking spaghetti. 4. The students deserved severe punishment for their rebellious behaviors. 5. Thereâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s no one available at such short notice to take her class. B. (10 points) 1. Don't (you wish you had learnt) swim? 2. I' m seldom able to afford to spend my holiday abroad. 3. The two young men are alleged to have introduced a virus into the computer system. 4. I ('d like to) say (how) thankful (I am for everything you have done for me.) 5. Since the companyâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s methods were exposed in a newspaper, it has fallen into dispute. C. (30 points) 1. Organization: (5 points) + Three parts (topic sentence, supporting sentences, concluding sentence) + Topic sentence: consists of topic and controlling idea. + Concluding sentence: summarizes the main supporting ideas / restates the topic sentence and gives personal opinion. 2. Content, coherence and cohesion: (15 points) + Supporting sentences: support directly the main idea stated in the topic sentence and provide logical, persuasive examples. + Use of transition signals appropriately. 3. Language use and accuracy: (10 points)

+ Variety of structures, expressions and good use of vocabulary + No spelling or grammar mistakes.

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XII TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN TỈNH HÀ GIANG ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10 (Đề này có 15 trang, gồm 15 câu)

PART I- LISTENING (50 POINTS) Question 1. Listen and fill the missing words in the blanks. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (14 points) THE URBAN LANDSCAPE Two areas of focus: 1. the effect of vegetation in the urban climate 2. ways of planning our (1) __________ better Large-scale impact of trees: 1. they can make cities more or less (2) __________ 2. in summer they can make cities cooler. 3. they can make inland cities more (3) __________ Local impact of tress: 1. they can make local areas - more (4) __________ - cooler - more humid - less windy - less dangerous Comparing tress and buildings Temperature regulation: 2. trees (5) __________ water through their leaves 3. building surfaces may reach high temperatures Wind force: 1. tall buildings cause more wind at ground level 2. trees (6) __________ the wind force Noise: 1. trees have a small effect on traffic noise 2. (7) __________ noise passes through trees Important points to consider: 1. trees require a lot of sunlight, water and space to grow. 1

Your answers 1. ………………. 2. ………………. 3. ………………. 4. ………………. 5. ………………. 6. ………………. 7. ………………. Question 2. You will hear an interview with a man called Daren Howarth, who works as a carbon coach. Listen and complete the sentences. (16 points) The Carbon Coach Daren says that a carbon coach works full-time as a (1) ____________ with various clients. Before becoming a carbon coach, Daren trained to be an (2) ___________. When assessing a family's carbon footprint, Daren looks first at their (3) __________. Daren uses what's called a (4) ________ to see how much electricity things use. Daren points out that the government will help pay for roof insulation. Daren feels that using (5) __________ of the old type is the worst waste of energy he sees. Daren helped to reduce a band's carbon footprint at their concerts as well as on its CDs. Daren mentions a new type of green home called an (6) ________ . The new green home uses both the sun and (7) _______ to produce electricity. Daren suggests buying a (8) ________ which gives more information about the new green home.. Your answers 1. ………………. 2. ………………. 3. ………………. 4. ………………. 5. ………………. 6. ………………. 7. ………………. 8. ………………. Question 3. You will hear a woman asking a tutor for more information about a Media Studies course at a university. Listen and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). (10 points) 1. Louise worked at a radio station for about 4 years. 2. Louise wants to do a Masters because employers like post-graduate qualifications. 3. It will take 4 years to do the Masters part-time rather than the modular route. 4. To join the course, Louis must have research experience and a completed thesis 5. Students can find the details on funding on the university website. Your answers 1. …………… 2. …………… 3. …………… 4. …………… 5. …………… Question 4. You will hear an interview with the television actress Donna Denton. Choose the best answer (A, B, or C) for each of the following questions. (10 points) 1. As a child, Donna started going to dancing classes because_________. A. her mother persuaded her to B. they were relatively expensive C. she wanted to be with friends 2

2. What did Donna do to get a place at Knightswell Stage School? A. She took part in a musical show. B. She got her parents to pay in advance. C. She gave a demonstration of her skills. 3. Donna believes that she won the school singing competition because_________. A. she had learnt to be less nervous when performing. B. she had chosen to perform her favourite song. C. she had been practicing one particular song for years. 4. What does Donna say about her first parts on television? A. A private teacher helped her find them. B. They were useful in developing her career. C. It was easy enough for students to get them. 5. When talking about near future, Donna says that_________. A. she has agreed to record a music CD soon. B. she has accepted an unexpected invitation. C. she has had to make a difficult choice. Your answers 1. …………… 2. …………… 3. …………… 4. …………… 5. …………… PART II – LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (40 POINTS) Question 1. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences. (20 points) 1. One problem for teacher is that each student has his/ her own ________ needs. A. separate B. divided C. individual D. distinctive 2. They talked for three days before finally ________ to a decision. A. reaching B. coming C. bringing D. arriving 3. The workers decided to _______ until their demands were met. A. stand up B. lie behind C. sit in D. sleep out 4. I must take this watch to be repaired; it _______________ over twenty minutes a day. A. increases B. progresses C. accelerates D. gains 5. John has ________ painting since he retired. A. taken up B. taken off C. taken over D. take in 6. ________ stay the night if it’s too difficult to get home. A. At all costs B. By all means C. In all D. On the whole 7. Robert and his wife ________ to my house for tea yesterday evening. A. came round B. came about C. came down D. came away 8. Each of the guests ________ a bunch of flowers. A. are given B. is given C. were given D. give 9. To everyone’s surprise, Mr. Brown ________ at the Trade Union meeting. 3

A. turned in B. turned over C. turned up D. turned round 10. The company directors asked the government to _________________ in the dispute and prevent a strike. A. intervene B. interact C. intercept D. interpose 11. Don’t worry. We _______ the report by 11 o’clock. A. will be finishing B. will have finished C. are going to finish D. finish 12. _______the ball, we would have won the game. A. Should Thomson catch B. Were Thomson to catch C. If Thomson catches D. Had Thomson caught 13. Fred was pleased _______to the college. A. admitting B. to admit C. being admitted D. to be admitted 14. My decision to leave university after a year is one I now ____ regret. A. harshly B. painfully C. keenly D. heavily 15. I enjoy going to school by bike. But on rainy days, I_______ to going by bus. A. prefer B. would rather C. would like D. resort 16. He spoke to me as if he _______ my father. A. is B. would be C. were D. had been 17. She pleaded_______ him not to take her child_______. A. to – off B. with – away C. at – off D. about – out 18. My mother goes to _______church every ______ Sunday morning. B. the – every C. the – the A. Þ – Þ D. a – Þ 19. It took us quite a long time to get here. It was ______ journey. A. 3 hour B. a 3-hours C. a 3-hour D. 3-hours 20. Mary bought______ hat yesterday. A. a red big plastic hat B. a big red plastic hat C. a plastic big red hat D. a bit plastic red hat Your answers: 1. …………….. 2. ……………. 3. ……………. 4. ……………. 5. ……………. 6. ……………. 7. ……………. 8. ……………. 9. …………….. 10. ……………. 11. ……………. 12. ……………. 13. ……………. 14. ……………. 15. ……………. 16. ……………. 17. ……………. 18. ……………. 19. ……………. 20. ……………. Question 2. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each sentence to form a word that fits in the space in the sentence. There is an example. (10 points) Example: 0. admirable

0. Mr. Brown has a great many ______qualities. ADMIRE 1. Deaths caused by reckless driving are ______. AVOID 2. The coat was ______ in shades of blue and green. PATTERN 3. Most tinned fruits contain ______amounts of sugar. EXCESS 4. He fell off the bike, but his______ were not serious. INJURE 5. In electronics, we learn to repair______ appliances. HOUSE 6. Trung's sense of humor______ him from other students. DISTINCT 7. People use first-aid to ease the victim's pain and______. ANXIOUS 8. The scenery was really ______ beautiful. BREATHE 9. You don't respond well to positive______, which is only made to CRITIC help you. 10. ______as it may seem, mammoths were alive only five CREDIBLE thousand years ago. Your answers: 1. …………. 2. …………. 3. …………. 4. …………. 5. …………. 6. …………. 7. …………. 8. …………. 9. …………. 10. …………. Question 3. Each line of the following passage contains ONE mistake. Identify and correct them. Write your answer in the space given. (10 points) Sport in society The position of sport in today’s society has changed out of all recognization. People no longer seem to think about sport as ‘just a game’ – to be watched or played for the sake of enjoyment. Instead, it has become large business worldwide. It has become accepted practice for heading companies to provide sponsorship. TV companies pay large sums of money to screen important matches. The result has been huge financial awards for athletes, some of them are now very wealthy, particularly top football players, golfers and tennis players. In addition, it is not usual for some athletes to receive large fees on top of their salary, for advertising products or making individual appearances. A trend towards shorter working hours mean that people generally tend to have more free time, both to watch and to take part in sport activity. Your answers: Mistake Correction Mistake Correction 1. ………………… ………………… 6. ………………… ………………… 2. ………………… ………………… 7. ………………… ………………… 3. ………………… ………………… 8. ………………… ………………… 4. ………………… ………………… 9. ………………… ………………… 5. ………………… ………………… 10. ………………… …………………

PART III – READING (60 POINTS) Question 1. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage. (10 points) Proof that silence is golden for studying The combination of music and study has long been a source of disagreement between adults and children. Parents and teachers alike maintain that silence is important when learning, (1) ________ youngsters insist that their favourite sounds help them concentrate. Now a study shows the grown-ups have been right all along. Psychologists in Florida tested how fast students wrote essays with and without music in the (2) ________. They found that the sounds (3) ________ progress down by about sixty words per hour. 'This demonstrates clearly that it is difficult to (4) ________ with listening and writing at the same time,' said Dr Sarah Randall. She also (5) ________ to conclusion that it is a myth that instrumental music is less distracting that vocals. 'All types of music had the same (6) ________,' she said in her report. 'One's ability to pay attention and write fluently is likely to be (7) ________ by both vocal and instrumental music,' she added. Dr Randall claimed the research demonstrated that the idea that music could improve performance was wrong. 'Writing an essay is a complex (8) ________. You are (9) ________ information and putting it in order. An additional stimulus in the form of music is bound to distract. But music is not the only distractor. What is (10) ________ worrying is that more and more teenagers are studying in front of the television. B. unlike C. besides D. despite 1. A. whereas B. background C. surrounding D. circumstances 2. A. setting B. reduced C. lowered D. decreased 3. A. slowed B. support C. cope D. stand 4. A. manage B. drew C. arrived D. came 5. A. reached B. effect C. consequence D. result 6. A. affect B. interfered C. bothered D. shocked 7. A. disturbed B. concern C. scheme D. task 8. A. project B. memorizing C. remembering D. organizing 9. A. recalling B. largely C. particularly D. mainly 10. A. partly Your answers: 1. …………. 2. …………. 3. …………. 4. …………. 5. …………. 6. …………. 7. …………. 8. …………. 9. …………. 10. …………. Question 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (10 points)

SHARKS For anyone who wants either to film or study great white sharks, Australian expert, Rodney Fox, is the first contact. Fox knows exactly (1) ________the sharks will be at different times of the year; and can even predict (2) ________ they will behave around blood, divers and other sharks. He understands them as well as anyone else alive. In fact, he’s lucky to be alive; a ‘great white’ once (3) ________ to bite him in half. Three decades (4) ________this near-fatal attack, Fox still carries the physical scars, but feels no hate for his attacker. Instead he organizes three or four trips (5) ________ year to bring scientists and photographers to the kingdom of the great white shark. The main aim of these trips is to improve people’s understanding of an animal (6) ________ evil reputation has become an excuse for killing it. Great white sharks are not as amusing as dolphins and seals, (7) ________their role in the ocean is critical. They kill off sick animals, helping to prevent the spread of disease and to maintain the balance in the ocean’s food chains. Fox feels a responsibility to act (8) ________ a guardian of great white sharks. (9) ________ the scientists, film makers and photographers can communicate their sense of wonder (10) ________ other people, he is confident that understanding will replace hatred. Your answers: 1. …………. 2. …………. 3. …………. 4. …………. 5. …………. 6. …………. 7. …………. 8. …………. 9. …………. 10. …………. Question 3. Read the passage and choose the option (A, B,C or D) that best answer each of the following questions. (10 points) Printmaking is the generic term for a number of processes, of which woodcut and engraving are two prime examples. Prints are made by pressing a sheet of paper (or other material) against an image-bearing surface to which ink has been applied. When the paper is removed, the image adheres to it, but in reverse. The woodcut had been used in China from the fifth century A.D. for applying patterns to textiles. The process was not introduced into Europe until the fourteenth century, first for textile decoration and then for printing on paper. Woodcuts are created by a relief process; first, the artist takes a block of wood, which has been sawed parallel to the grain, covers it with a white ground, and then draws the image in ink. The background is carved away, leaving the design area slightly raised. The woodblock is inked, and the ink adheres to the raised image. It is then transferred to damp paper either by hand or with a printing press. Engraving, which grew out of the goldsmith's art, originated in Germany and northern Italy in the middle of the fifteenth century. It is an intaglio process (from Italian intagliare, "to carve"). The image is incised into a highly polished metal plate, usually copper, with a cutting instrument, or burin. The artist inks the plate and wipes it clean so

that some ink remains in the incised grooves. An impression is made on damp paper in a printing press, with sufficient pressure being applied so that the paper picks up the ink. Both woodcut and engraving have distinctive characteristics. Engraving lends itself to subtle modeling and shading through the use of fine lines. Hatching and crosshatching determine the degree of light and shade in a print. Woodcuts tend to be more linear, with sharper contrasts between light and dark. Printmaking is well suited to the production of multiple images. A set of multiples is called an edition. Both methods can yield several hundred good-quality prints before the original block or plate begins to show signs of wear. Mass production of prints in the sixteenth century made images available, at a lower cost, to a much broader public than before. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The origins of textile decoration B. The characteristics of good-quality prints C. Two types of printmaking D. Types of paper used in printmaking 2. The word "prime" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to __________. A. principal B. complex C. general D. recent 3. The author's purposes in paragraph 2 is to describe __________. A. the woodcuts found in China in the fifth century B. the use of woodcuts in the textile industry C. the process involved in creating a woodcut D. the introduction of woodcuts to Europe 4. The word "incised" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________. A. burned B. cut C. framed D. baked 5. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage? A. "patterns" (paragraph 2) B. "grain" (paragraph 2) C. "burin" (paragraph 3) D. "grooves" (paragraph 3) 6. According to the passage, all of the following are true about engraving EXCEPT that it __________. A. developed from the art of the goldsmiths B. requires that the paper be cut with a burin C. originated in the fifteenth century D. involves carving into a metal plate 7. The word "yield" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________. A. imitate B. produce C. revise D. contrast 8. According to the passage, what do woodcut and engraving have in common? A. Their designs are slightly raised. B. They achieve contrast through hatching and cross-hatching. C. They were first used in Europe. 8

D. They allow multiple copies to be produced from one original. 9. According to the author, what made it possible for members of the general public to own prints in the sixteenth century? A. Prints could be made at low cost. B. The quality of paper and ink had improved. C. Many people became involved in the printmaking industry. D. Decreased demand for prints kept prices affordable. 10. According to the passage, all of the following are true about prints EXCEPT that they __________. A. can be reproduced on materials other than paper B. are created from a reversed image C. show variations between light and dark shades D. require a printing press Your answers: 1. …………. 2. …………. 3. …………. 4. …………. 5. …………. 6. …………. 7. …………. 8. …………. 9. …………. 10. …………. Question 4. Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. Task 1. Choose the correct heading for section A-E from the list of headings below. Write the correct number i-viii in the space provided. (10 points) List of Headings i. The connection between health-care and other human rights ii. The development of market-based health systems. iii. The role of the state in health-care iv. A problem shared by every economically developed country v. The impact of recent change vi. The views of the medical establishment vii. The end of an illusion viii. Sustainable economic development

1. Section A 2. Section B 3. Section C 4. Section D 5. Section E

…………………. …………………. …………………. …………………. ………………….

The Problem of Scarce Resources Section A The problem of how health-care resources should be allocated or apportioned, so that they are distributed in both the most just and most efficient way, is not a new one. Every health system in an economically developed society is faced with the need to decide (either formally or informally) what proportion of the community’s total resources should be spent on health-care; how resources are to be apportioned; what diseases and disabilities and which forms of treatment are to be given priority; which members of the community are to be given special consideration in respect of their health needs; and which forms of treatment are the most cost-effective. Section B What is new is that, from the 1950s onwards, there have been certain general changes in outlook about the finitude of resources as a whole and of health-care resources in particular, as well as more specific changes regarding the clientele of health-care resources and the cost to the community of those resources. Thus, in the 1950s and 1960s, there emerged an awareness in Western societies that resources for the provision of fossil fuel energy were finite and exhaustible and that the capacity of nature or the environment to sustain economic development and population was also finite. In other words, we became aware of the obvious fact that there were ‘limits to growth’. The new consciousness that there were also severe limits to health-care resources was part of this general revelation of the obvious. Looking back, it now seems quite incredible that in the national health systems that emerged in many countries in the years immediately after the 1939-45 World War, it was assumed without question that all the basic health needs of any community could be satisfied, at least in principle; the ‘invisible hand’ of economic progress would provide. Section C However, at exactly the same time as this new realization of the finite character of health-care resources was sinking in, an awareness of a contrary kind was developing in Western societies: that people have a basic right to health-care as a necessary condition of a proper human life. Like education, political and legal processes and institutions, public order, communication, transport and money supply, health-care came to be seen as one of the fundamental social facilities necessary for people to exercise their other rights as autonomous human beings. People are not in a position to exercise personal liberty and to be self-determining if they are poverty-stricken, or deprived of basic

education, or do not live within a context of law and order. In the same way, basic health-care is a condition of the exercise of autonomy. Section D Although the language of ‘rights’ sometimes leads to confusion, by the late 1970s it was recognized in most societies that people have a right to health-care (though there has been considerable resistance in the United Sates to the idea that there is a formal right to health-care). It is also accepted that this right generates an obligation or duty for the state to ensure that adequate health-care resources are provided out of the public purse. The state has no obligation to provide a health-care system itself, but to ensure that such a system is provided. Put another way, basic health-care is now recognized as a ‘public good’, rather than a ‘private good’ that one is expected to buy for oneself. As the 1976 declaration of the World Health Organisation put it: ‘The enjoyment of the highest attainable standard of health is one of the fundamental rights of every human being without distinction of race, religion, political belief, economic or social condition’. As has just been remarked, in a liberal society basic health is seen as one of the indispensable conditions for the exercise of personal autonomy. Section E Just at the time when it became obvious that health-care resources could not possibly meet the demands being made upon them, people were demanding that their fundamental right to health-care be satisfied by the state. The second set of more specific changes that have led to the present concern about the distribution of health-care resources stems from the dramatic rise in health costs in most OECD countries, accompanied by large-scale demographic and social changes which have meant, to take one example, that elderly people are now major (and relatively very expensive) consumers of health-care resources. Thus in OECD countries as a whole, health costs increased from 3.8% of GDP in 1960 to 7% of GDP in 1980, and it has been predicted that the proportion of health costs to GDP will continue to increase. (In the US the current figure is about 12% of GDP, and in Australia about 7.8% of GDP.) As a consequence, during the 1980s a kind of doomsday scenario (analogous to similar doomsday extrapolations about energy needs and fossil fuels or about population increases) was projected by health administrators, economists and politicians. In this scenario, ever-rising health costs were matched against static or declining resources. Task 2. Decide if the following statements are True (T), False (F) or Not given (NG) according to the information in the passage. (10 points)

6. Personal liberty and independence have never been regarded as directly linked to health-care. 7. Health-care came to be seen as a right at about the same time that the limits of healthcare resources became evident. 8. In OECD countries population changes have had an impact on health-care costs in recent years. 9. OECD governments have consistently underestimated the level of health-care provision needed. 10. In most economically developed countries the elderly will have to make special provision for their health-care in the future. Your answers: 6. …………. 7. …………. 8. …………. 9. …………. 10. …………. Question 5. You are going to read an article in which four people comment on a book they have read recently. Choose from the people A-D to answer the questions that follow. The people may be chosen more than once. (10 points) A.

Kerry: Sundance by Teresa Wilson

I really don't know why this book is so popular. I mean, I suppose it is going to appeal to young girls who want danger and romance, but I found this book really tedious. For a start, the characters were really unconvincing. The author went out of her way to add lots of details about the characters, but I found these details really pointless. I thought that some of the facts she presented about the main characters would become significant in some way later in the novel, but they didn't. They were just worthless bits of information. I also was disappointed that, although this book is meant to be about kids at high school, the writer seems to have no recollection at all about what it's like to be 17. The main character thought and acted like a 32-year old. It just wasn't believable. I'm not saying Teresa Wilson is a bad writer. She can obviously string words together and come up with a story that is appealing to a large number of people, but she lacks anything original. There is no flair. It just uses the same sort of language as you can see in many other mediocre novels. B.

Liz: Wild Ways by Margery Emerson

I have to say that I won't forget this book for a long time. I was hooked from the very first chapter. The devastating story affected me so much that I don't know if I'll ever feel the same again. I was close to tears on several occasions. I've got images in my brain now that I don't think will ever leave me. It's incredibly well-researched and, although it is fiction, is based on shocking real-life events. I learned an awful lot about things that 12

went on that I never knew before. Margaret Emerson has a brilliant way with words and I really felt real empathy towards the characters, although I was sometimes irritated by the choices they made. However, the parallel story, the part that is set in the present, is not quite so good. I found myself just flicking through that part so that I could get back to 1940s Paris. C.

Imogen: Orchid by Henry Rathbone

This is a delightful novel full of wonderful imagery, a paints a remarkable picture of life in a distant time and a far-away place. If you're looking to learn about Eastern culture in great detail, then this is probably not the book for you, as the writer skims over most of the more complicated aspects of the country's etiquette. The historical aspects are also not covered in much depth. However, I wonder whether this was the writer's intention. By doing this, he symbolizes the superficiality of the girl's life. She, like the book, is beautiful and eager to please, but remains too distant from us, the readers, to teach us much. Although I loved the book and read it in one sitting, the ending was a bit of a disappointment. A story which involves so much turmoil, in a place where the future is uncertain, should not have a happy-ever-after fairy-tale ending. D.

Hannah: High Hills by Mary Holland

I read this book for a literature class. I know it's a classic, and I did try to like it, but I just didn't get into it. I kept persevering, hoping that I'd start to enjoy it, but no such luck. The famous scene out on the moors was definitely the best bit of the book, but even that I found ridiculous when it is clearly supposed to be passionate. As I approached the end of the book, I figured there must be some kind of moral to the story, something that I would learn from the experience of trudging through seven hundred long pages, but there was nothing worthwhile. I don't know why the literary world sees this book as such a masterpiece. The characters are portrayed as being intelligent, but they do such stupid things! And as for it being a love story - marrying someone you don't love and then being abused by them - that doesn't spell love to me. Which person reads a book whichâ&#x20AC;Ś 1. was set in an Oriental country? 2. finished in an unrealistic way? 3. had characters that the reader could sympathize with? 4. is well-known and was written a long time ago? 5. contained two stories? 6. was not set in the past? 7. made the reader cry? 13

8. had unbelievable characters? 9. contains nothing new in the way of writing? 10. has an attractive but shallow heroine? Your answers: 1. …………. 2. …………. 3. …………. 4. …………. 5. …………. 6. …………. 7. …………. 8. …………. 9. …………. 10. …………. PART IV – WRITING (50 POINTS) Question 1. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the words given. (10 points) 1. Martin may not be very well but she still manages to enjoy life. Martin’s poor……………………………………………………………………………… 2. The Pacific Ocean is on average deeper than the Atlantic. The average ……………………………………………………………………………… 3. The fire led to the setting up of a public enquiry. As a …………………………………………………………………………………… 4. Vitamin intake and intelligence are not connected. There is …………………………………………………………………………… 5. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended. Had it …………………………………………………………………………………… Question 2. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original one, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE the word given. (10 points) 1. A rise in temperature in the next century seems likely. (CHANCE) …………………………………………………………………………………………… 2. You must accept the fact that she has left you. (RESIGN) …………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. They arrived at the station with only a minute to spare. (NICK) …………………………………………………………………………………………… 4. They sent him to prison for three years. (SENTENCED) …………………………………………………………………………………………… 5. I don’t intend to tell you my plans. (INTENTION) …………………………………………………………………………………………… Question 3. Write a paragraph (120-150 words) on the following topic. (30 points) ‘Books are the best source of knowledge’ To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give example and explanation to justify your viewpoint. …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… 14

…………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… _______________ THE END_______________

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XII TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN TỈNH HÀ GIANG ĐỀ THI ĐÈ XUẤT

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH, LỚP 10

TOTAL MARK: 200 POINTS PART I- LISTENING (50 POINTS) Question 1. You will hear part of a talk about dolls. Fill the missing information into the blanks. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each blank. (14 points) * 2.0 points for each correct answer. 1. environment/cities 2. Windy 3. Humid 4. Shady 5. Evaporate 6. filter/reduce/decrease 7. Low frequency Question 2. On a travel programme, you will hear a man, Jeremy Clark, reporting from Mapé, a tropical island where people go on holiday. Listen and complete the sentences. (16 points) * 2.0 points for each correct answer. 1. consultant 2. Ecologist 3. Bills 4. Carbon meter 5. light bulbs 6. Earthship 7. (the) wind (power) 8. handbook Question 3. You will hear a woman asking a tutor for more information about a Media Studies course at a university. Listen and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). (10 points) * 2.0 points for each correct answer. 1. F 2. T 3. F 4. F 5. T Question 4. You will hear an interview with the television actress Donna Denton. Choose the best answer (A, B, or C) for each of the following questions. (10 points) * 2.0 points for each correct answer. 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C PART II – LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (40 POINTS) Question 1. Choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best complete the following sentences. (20 points) * 1.0 point for each correct answer. 1. C 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. D 13. D 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. B

Question 2. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each sentence to form a word that fits in the space in the sentence. (10 points) * 1.0 points for each correct answer. 1. unavoidable 2. patterned 3. excessive 4. injuries 5. household 6. distinguishes 7. anxiety 8. breathtakingly 9. criticism 10. incredible Question 3. Each line of the following passage contains ONE mistake. Identify and correct them. Write your answer in the space given. (10 points) * 1.0 point for each correct answer. Mistake Correction Mistake Correction 1. recognization recognition 6. them whom 2. about of 7. usual unusual 3. large big 8. individual personal 4. heading leading 9. mean means 5. awards rewards 10. sport sporting PART III â&#x20AC;&#x201C; READING (60 POINTS) Question 1. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in the following passage. (10 points) *1.0 point for each correct answer. 1. A 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. C Question 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (10 points) *1.0 point for each correct answer. 1. where 2. how 3. seemed 4. after 5. a/per/one 6. whose 7. but 8. as 9. If 10. like Question 3. Read the passage and choose the option (A, B,C or D) that best answer each of the following questions. (10 points) *1.0 point for each correct answer. 1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. A Question 4. Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. (20 points) Task 1. Choose the correct heading for section A-E from the list of headings below. * 2.0 points for each correct answer. 1. iv 2. viii 3. i 4. iii 5. v Task 2. Decide if the following statements are True (T), False (F) or Not given (NG) according to the information in the passage. 2

* 2.0 points for each correct answer. 8. T 9. NG 10. NG 6. F 7. T Question 5. You are going to read an article in which four people comment on a book they have read recently. Choose from the people A-D to answer the questions that follow. The people may be chosen more than once. (10 points) * 1.0 points for each correct answer. 1. C 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. C PART IV – WRITING (50 POINTS) * Lưu ý: Các cách giải khác hướng dẫn chấm, giám khảo cân nhắc, nếu đúng cho điểm tối đa theo thang điểm đã định. Question 1. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the words given. (10 points) * 2.0 points for each correct answer. 1. health doesn’t prevent her from enjoying life. 2. depth of the Pacific Ocean is much greater than that of the Atlantic. 3. result of the fire, a public enquiry was set up. 4. no connection between vitamin intake and intelligence. 5. not been for the attendance of a famous film star, the part would not have been successful/would not have succeeded. Question 2. For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original one, using the word given. DO NOT CHANGE the word given. (10 points) * 2.0 points for each correct answer. 1. There is a chance that the temperature in the next century may rise. 2. You must resign yourself to the fact that she has left you. 3. They arrived at the station in the nick of time. 4. He was sentenced three-year imprisonment. 5. I have no intention of telling you my plans. Question 3. Write a paragraph (120-150 words) on the following topic. (30 points) No.

Criteria for judgment

Mark

Task completion - Consist of three parts: topic sentence, supporting sentences and concluding sentence. - Length: only 5 % less or more than the required number of words is acceptable.

4.0

Organization - Topic sentence is clearly stated. - Present the right form of a paragraph. - The ideas are well-organized and developed with unity, cohesion and coherence. Language use - Use wide range of vocabulary and structures. - Convey precise meanings with appropriate use of vocabulary and grammatical structures. - Use appropriate linking words or connectors. Content

6.0

8.0

- Provide relevant and convincing ideas, supported by specific examples and/or reasonable justification. 5

Punctuation and spelling TOTAL

4.0 30 POINTS

TAPESCRIPT Question 1. Good day, ladies and gentlemen. I have been asked today to talk to you about the urban landscape. There are two major areas that I will focus on in my talk: how vegetation can have a significant effect on urban climate, and how we can better plan our cities using trees to provide a more comfortable environment for us to live in. Trees can have a significant impact on our cities. They can make a city, as a whole, a bit less windy or a bit more windy, if that's what you want. They can make it a bit cooler if it's a hot summer day in an Australian city, or they can make it a bit more humid if it's a dry inland city. On the local scale - that is, in particular areas within the city - trees can make the local area more shady, cooler, more humid and much less windy. In fact trees and planting of various kinds can be used to make city streets actually less dangerous in particular areas. How do trees do all that, you ask? Well, the main difference between a tree and a building is a tree has got an internal mechanism to keep the temperature regulated. It evaporates water through its leaves and that means that the temperature of the leaves is never very far from our own body temperature. The temperature of a building surface on a hot sunny day can easily be 4

twenty degrees more than our temperature. Trees, on the other hand, remain cooler than buildings because they sweat. This means that they can humidify the air and cool it - a property which can be exploited to improve the local climate. Trees can also help break the force of winds. The reason that high buildings make it windier at ground level is that, as the wind goes higher and higher, it goes faster and faster. When the wind hits the building, it has to go somewhere. Some of it goes over the top and some goes around the sides of the building, forcing those high level winds down to ground level. That doesn't happen when you have trees. Trees filter the wind and considerably reduce it, preventing those very large strong gusts that you so often find around tall buildings. Another problem in built-up areas is that traffic noise is intensified by tall buildings. By planting a belt of trees at the side of the road, you can make things a little quieter, but much of the vehicle noise still goes through the trees. Trees can also help reduce the amount of noise in the surroundings, although the effect is not as large as people like to think. Low-frequency noise, in particular, just goes through the trees as though they aren't there. Although trees can significantly improve the local climate, they do however take up a lot of space. There are root systems to consider and branches blocking windows and so on. It may therefore be difficult to fit trees into the local landscape. There is not a great deal you can do if you have what we call a street canyon - a whole set of high-rises enclosed in a narrow street. Trees need water to grow. They also need some sunlight to grow and you need room to put them. If you have the chance of knocking buildings down and replacing them, then suddenly you can start looking at different ways to design the streets and to introduce ... Question 2. Interviewer: Tonight my guest is Daren Howarth who works as a carbon coach. What exactly does that mean Daren? Daren Howarth: Well, most people know about global warming and would like to do something to reduce the amount of carbon they send out into the atmosphere, but they don't always know the best way of doing this. What I do as a carbon coach is give them advice about how to achieve environmentally friendly living. I'm now a full-time consultant, and my clients include both companies and private individuals. Interviewer: What made you decide to become a carbon coach? 5

Daren Howarth: Well it all started about fifteen years ago. I'd always been interested in energy-saving and the environment and I trained as an ecologist. At that time, people were talking about very technical things like greenhouse gas emissions, then someone came up with the term 'carbon footprint', which is much easier for people to understand. Interviewer: And you can tell ordinary families what their carbon footprint is, can't you? Daren Howarth: That's right. I work out how much carbon dioxide the family's generated over a year; firstly by studying their bills, then finding out how much waste they produce, how much they use the car, and so on. Adding together all these figures, I calculate their total carbon footprint in tonnes of carbon dioxide. Then I take a look around their home and suggest ways of reducing their carbon footprint. Interviewer: How do you work out how much carbon each machine around the house emits? Daren Howarth: By switching off all the things that use electricity, then turning each one on one at a time, you can see the amount of energy each one uses. I use something known as a 'carbon meter' which measures the amount of electricity being used in the house at any one time. It also shows how much carbon dioxide this represents. Interviewer: What's the least energy efficient thing you've seen in homes? Daren Howarth: I go into so many places where I look in the roof and there's no insulation, so there's nothing stopping all the heat just going straight out into the outside air. Insulation massively reduces your carbon footprint; it's cheap and the government will help with the cost of it. Interviewer: So is that the worst thing? Daren Howarth: Well, central heating systems can be very inefficient and people use things like electric knives and mixers which are unnecessary, but the thing I really can't stand is when people are still using old-fashioned light bulbs. People can't resist them because they're so cheap, but up to ninety percent of the energy they produce is lost as heat. If you have one, put it in a box and smash it up, so no one else can use it. Interviewer: What other type of clients do you have? Daren Howarth: We work with both individuals and businesses - and even some celebrities, such as the band Supergrass. For one of their albums about three years ago, the band decided to minimise their carbon footprint at their concerts and then also cut the amount of carbon produced when making a CD. The carbon footprint for a disc is just a few grams, but a big band like Supergrass will produce thousands of copies, which means several tonnes of carbon. Interviewer: And what are your plans for the future? 6

Daren Howarth: I'm working hard on introducing a really green type of home in this country known as an Earthship. It's a building that creates its own energy, heats and cools itself, collects its own water and deals with its own waste. It's also built from recycled materials. It doesn't need electricity or gas for heating, as it captures and stores energy by using wind power, and solar panels on the roof charge up batteries which provide power. Interviewer: Any disadvantages? Daren Howarth: You have to change your lifestyle and keep an eye on changes in the weather. There are thousands of examples around the world and there's a handbook on sale that explains everything about it - you'll find the details on my website - and it's something you can do for yourself - you don't have to employ someone to do the work for you. Question 3. Loius: I’m looking for some advice about doing a Master’s Degree in Media Studies. Am I at the right place? Mark: Yes, my name’s Mark, I’m head of the Media Studies course. Nice to meet you, and you are… Louis: I’m Louise, nice to meet you too. Mark: So how can I help you? Louis: Well I’ve seen the prospectus for the course but I’m still a bit confused about a few things and about some of the options for studying. Mark: What’s your situation at the moment? Are you working? Louis: Yes, I’ve been working as a journalist for a local newspaper for the last 3 months. Prior to that I had two jobs in the media – at a small local radio station for about 2 years and at a TV station for about 4 years. So I’ve worked in media for about six years in total. Mark: Ok well that’s useful if you want to do the course. What is your motivation to do further study? Louis: I enjoy my job a lot at the moment but I feel the opportunities for promotion are quite limited. It’s not that I think a masters will help with this though. I’ll probably leave my job, maybe to go into TV or something, but basically I think wherever I end up going in the future, employers prefer to see someone with post-graduate qualifications these days. Mark: And are you intending to study full-time? Louis: Well I’d really like to keep working as I need an income. What are the options for me if I want to work whilst studying?

Mark: You could do certain modules over a number of years you like. It’s up to you how many you do. Basically you get credits for the ones you complete. People usually do the Masters in anything from 18 months up until 4 years. It depends on your time. If you wanted a fixed schedule and attendance and did it part time then that would be a total of 3 years. Louis: So what is the admission criteria to join the course? Mark: Well there are a few things that are useful but not essential, but there are some requirements. Usually to join a Masters people must have a bachelor’s degree, but we are prepared to overlook this if someone has enough work experience. But you must have one or the other. It’s useful if you have research experience as you have to complete a thesis but we can train you on this if not. It’s essential that you have motivation if you want to join the course as it is very demanding. Louis: What about the costs for the course? Mark: The fees for a year if you are studying part-time are £2250. No sorry, they have gone up this year – £2400. Of course you are paying for all other living costs. Louis: Is there any kind of bursary or scholarship available to help with the fees? Mark: Yes there are things available but you have to meet the criteria to get funding. Often though the university will actually contact you about funding. Universities have a certain budget available to provide funds so they will look for the best students and offer them something if they think they will be suitable. You would have to have a firm offer in place to join the course though before you’d be considered for any funding. Louis: Where can I go to find out more about it? Mark: The best place to look for information about funding is on our university website. All the details about whether you’re eligible, what help is on offer, and how to apply will be there. If you can’t find the information you’re looking for, you can always come and speak to us again and there will be a number you can ring. Louis: Ok thanks for that. And is it easy to get hold of you if I need to speak to you further? Mark: Yes, I’m here most days, but you can always phone the office first to check. It’s best to book an appointment in case I’m not around. Question 4:

SỞ GD&ĐT HÒA BÌNH TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HOÀNG VĂN THỤ

ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ: MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10 Ngày thi: Tháng 08 năm 2019 Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm: 12 trang (Thí sinh viết câu trả lời vào bảng cho sẵn trong đề) ĐỀ ĐỀ NGHỊ

• • •

LISTENING (50 pts) There is a piece of music at the beginning and at the end of the listening part There are three parts, each will be played twice Before each part, students have 30 seconds to look at the questions

PART 1. Complete the form below (14pts)

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND OR A NUMBER for each answer PACK HAM’S SHIPPING AGENCY – customer quotation form Example Country of destination:

Kenya ..........…..

Name: Jacob 1 ………… Address to be collected from: 2 ………… College, Downlands Rd Town: Bristol Postcode: 3 ……… Size of container:

Length: 1.5m

Width: 4 …………

Height: 5 …………

Contents:

clothes books 6 ………… Total estimated value: 7 £………… Page 1 of 13

Your answers 1.

PART 2. You will hear a radio programme about the history of roller skating and complete the sentences. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND OR A NUMBER for each answer. (16pts) HISTORY OF ROLLER SKATING The country where the first roller skates were probably made was Holland. In 1760, John Merlin went to a ball in London playing a violin whilst on roller skates. Unfortunately, John Merlin injured himself when he broke a (1) __________ at the ball. In Germany, roller skating was used in a ballet called (2) ________ . Plimpton's invention helped roller skaters to control the (3) _______ of their skates. The first team sport to be played on roller skates was (4) __________ . In Detroit in 1937, the first (5) ________ in the sport took place. The use of plastics meant that both the (6) ________ and ________ of roller skates improved. The musical Starlight Express was seen by as many as (7) _______ in London. The speaker says that modern roller skates are now (8) ________ than ever before. Your answers 1.

PART 3. You will hear an introduction to a radio phone-in programme about modern lifestyles. Listen and indicate true (T) or false (F) statements. (10pts) 1. Ron is a record-breaking athlete. 2. Ron thinks an accountant can lead a health and fulfilled life. 3. “Total Living” is believed to be good for athletes. 4. “Total Living” means that we should develop one aspect of our life to the full. 5. According to Ron Clarke, some current health trends are harming us. Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4.

PART 4. Listen to the recording. (10pts) You are going to hear two women talking about a holiday in France. Read the sentences, and choose the best option: A, B, or C, to complete the statements about the recording. 1. Paula's friend says that A. she has been ill. B. Paula doesn't look very well. C. she's pleased to see Paula. 2. Before the trip, Paula Page 2 of 12

A. was enthusiastic about it. B. wanted to go to the Lake District. C. didn't tell anybody she was going. 3. Before Mark and Paula went to Paris, A. Mark's boss didn't want him to go. B. Paula arranged for somebody to look after the hamster. C. Paula's sister promised to look after the children. 4. The journey across the Channel A. was very smooth. B. was unpleasant for Paula. C. lasted eight hours. 5. The return trip from Paris was A. disturbed by a flood. B. an enjoyable experience. C. earlier than planned. Your answers 1. 2.

LEXICO â&#x20AC;&#x201C; GRAMMAR (40 pts) PART 1: Choose the best option to complete each of the following questions. (20 pts) 1. After several hours on the road they became ______ to the fact that they would never reach the hotel by nightfall. A. dejected B. resigned C. depressed D. disillusioned 2. One of the organizationâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s aims is to ______ information about the disease so that more people know about its symptoms. A. disentangle B. deride C. dwindle D. disseminate 3. Dealing with ______ refusal from an employee is easier than dealing with false compliance. A. an offset B. a remedial C. an agile D. an outright 4. Did you see Jonathan this morning? He looked like ______. It must have been quite a party last night. A. a wet blanket B. a dead duck C. a death warmed up D. a bear with a sore head 5. In the ______ of security, personnel must wear their identity badges at all time. A. requirement B. demands C. assistance D. interests 6. I must ______ my Spanish before I go to Seville. A. make up for B. break out of C. brush up on D. cut out for 7. She has scrawled me a note in her familiar ______ handwriting. A. scratchy B. scruffy C. rusty D. sloppy 8. Education should be a universal right and not a ______ A. deliverance B. enlightenment C. privilege D. liberty 9. I know you're upset about breaking up with Tony but there are plenty more ______ A. horses in the stable B. cows in the field C. tigers in the zoo D. fish in the sea 10. On Sunday, Vivian studied for seven hours ______ A. on end B. at once C. in full D. at length 11. Stephen really lost his ______ when his dental appointment was cancelled again. A. head B. voice C. calm D. rag 12. We were working overtime to cope with a sudden ______ in demand. A. boost B. impetus C. surge D. thrust Page 3 of 13

13. It was decided that the cost of the project would be ______ so it was abandoned. A. repressive B. prohibitive C. restrictive D. exclusive 14. She was determined to become wealthy and to that ______ she started her own company. A. view B. aim C. end D. object 15. He made a number of ______ remarks about my cooking, which upset us. A. slashing B. stabbing C. chopping D. cutting 16. She is afraid she is rather ______ about the existence of the ghost. A. skeptical B. partial C. adaptable D. incapable 17. I am sorry to have bothered you, I was under the ______ that you wanted me to call you. A. mistake B. miscalculation C. misconception D. misapprehension 18. Many children who get into trouble in their early teens go on to become ______ offenders. A. persistent B. insistent C. inverted D. innate 19. ______, Americans eat a light breakfast. They usually don’t eat a lot of food in the morning. A. By and large B. Fair and square C. Ins and outs D. Odds and ends 20. If that boy doesn’t stop stealing, he will ______ in jail. A. end up B. bring about C. get round D. go by Your answers 1.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

PART 2. WORD FORM (10pts) Complete the following passage with the correct forms of the bold words given in the bracket. 1. When we arrived at the hotel, we were amazed at the _____ hospitality of the staff. (COMPARE) 2. He is the bad manager in the factory and everyone is in attempt to _____ him. (FAME) 3. The _____ of an epidemic will be unavoidable unless measures are taken to prevent the rural population from drinking the contaminated water. (BREAK) 4. Please keep the email short. _____ makes everyone’s lives easier. (BRIEF) 5. With the help of the computer, checking information has become less _____. (LABOR) 6. You mustn’t leave your luggage ______ for even a moment on the train. (ATTEND) 7. She looked in on the baby _____ to check that it was all right. (PERIOD) 8. They were totally _____ by the girl’s disappearance. (MYSTERY) 9. The talks were totally ____. We didn’t reach agreement on anything at all. (PRODUCT) 10. The boy was very violent and his parents found him _____. (MANAGE) Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

10.

PART 3. ERROR CORRECTION (10pts) There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Write them down and give the correct answers in the space provided. (10ps) 1 Of the many unexplained phenomenon which continue to puzzle scientists and laymen like, the 2 corn circles of Southern England remain one of the most mysterious. These perfect-formed circles, 3 which, when they see from the air appear to have been inscribed with an enormous carving tool, Page 4 of 12

4 5 6 7 8 9

Line

seem to be a part of significant message; so far, however, nobody managed to decipher it, and it is doubtful if anyone will ever be able to. But the main question â&#x20AC;&#x201C; how the circles came to be there â&#x20AC;&#x201C; are just as far from being solved. Although several people have come forward claiming to have made the circles ourselves, scientists declare that it would be impossible for even a large group to create shapes of such precision on so a large scale. These circles have become one of the strongest arguments in support of the existing of intelligent extra-terrestrial life forms.

mistakes 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Correction

READING (60pts) PART 1. Read the passage below and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (10pts) Until about 250 years ago, households did not take dirt as (1)______ as they do now - it was a fact of life, and that was that. Cleaning often consisted of an annual (2)______called 'spring cleaning' when the furniture was moved aside, and all the linen products in the house were cleaned. Carpets and rugs were taken outside, hung on ropes and had the dust (3)______out of them - an exhausting and messy process. The industrial revolution brought about a major change - as new products became available to make homes cleaner, a corresponding interest in 'domestic hygiene' appeared in households. This in turn led to the (4)______of further products, one of which was the vacuum cleaner. (5)______has it that when one of the first vacuum cleaners was demonstrated, a kindly scientist took the proud inventor aside, and offered a bit of (6)______ that was to become (7)______to the future evolution of the product - 'make it suck, not blow'. The first vacuum cleaners appeared in the 1860s in the United States. They were operated by hand pumps and were almost as (8)______as spring cleaning. It was only when electric motors had become sufficiently advanced to become portable that vacuum cleaners became common household items. Most of today's major (9)______- including Electrolux and Hoover - were born in the 1920s. The household dirt that vacuum cleaners suck up is mostly dead skin cells - humans (10)______millions of cells every day. A much smaller proportion comes from dust and soil carried into the house from outside. 1. A. importantly B. crucially C. considerately D. seriously 2. A. ritual B. result C. resolution D. scrub 3. A. cleaned B. taken C. beaten D. sucked 4. A. fabrication B. appearing C. recreation D. development 5. A. Story B. Epic C. Legend D. Tale 6. A. advise B. advice C. courage D. encouragement 7. A. standard B. crucial C. regular D. esteemed 8. A. laborious B. hard C. nefarious D. straining 9. A. brands B. marks C. makes D. trademarks 10. A. lose B. outgrow C. omit D. shed Your answers Page 5 of 13

10.

PART 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. (10pts) Flamingos, those beautiful long-legged pink birds, rub the reddish pigments, released in oil from a gland near their tail, into their feathers to bring (1) __________ their vibrant colour. The result, according to researchers studying the birds in Spain, (2) __________ that the birds seem to become far (3) __________ likely to find themselves a mate. Scientists noticed that, (4)__________ they were arranging their feathers, many flamingos scraped their cheeks across the gland before rubbing their face against their breast, back and neck (5)__________ the aim of spreading the colour. In a journal article, the experts explained that (6) __________ so helped the birds appear extra attractive to potential mates – not so (7) __________ because of their eye-catching colour, but because other flamingos could tell they had made an effort with their appearance. One of the researchers says: “The rubbing is time-consuming. And the more frequently the birds practice it, the pinker they become. “If the birds stop rubbing, their colour fades in a few days because the pigments bleach quickly in the sunlight” Rubbing the pigment into the feathers takes time and effort, and, as a results, colorful feathers are a sign to the opposite sex that a flamingo is healthy and well-fed, because it can afford to spend time on (8) __________ it looks. “The behavior is more common in female flamingos than in males,” the researchers said. They added that the brightest coloured birds also took the best breeding sites, (9)__________ gives them a reproductive advantage (10)__________ their paler rivals. Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

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PART 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts) Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does not begin until well into the day. Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to rehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication. The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and farflung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely Page 6 of 12

dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst. 1. What is the main topic of the passage? A. Weather variations in the desert. B. Adaptations of desert animals. C. Diseased of desert animals. D. Human use of desert animals. 2. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals? A. It helps them hide from predators. B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors. C. It helps them see their young at night. D. It keeps them cool at night. 3. The word "maintaining" is closest in meaning to _________. A. measuring B. inheriting C. preserving D. delaying 4. The author uses of Grant's gazelle as an example of A. an animal with a low average temperature B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature 5. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower? A. Just before sunrise B. In the middle of the day C. Just after sunset D. Just after drinking 6. The word "tolerate" is closest in meaning to _________. A. endure B. replace C. compensate D. reduce 7. What causes water intoxication? A. Drinking too much water very quickly. B. Drinking polluted water. C. Bacteria in water. D. Lack of water. 8. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph? A. To show how they use camels. B. To contrast them to desert mammals. C. To give instructions about desert survival. D. To show how they have adapted to desert life. 9. The word "obtain" is closest in meaning to _________. A. digest B. carry C. save D. get 10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals? A. Variation in body temperatures. B. Eating while dehydrated. C. Drinking water quickly. D. Being active at night. Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

10.

PART 4. (20pts) Part V. Read the following passage. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i- ix, in blanks.

i. ii. iii. iv. v.

List of headings The reaction of the Inuit community to climate change Understanding of climate change remains limited Alternative sources of essential supplies Respect for Inuit opinion grows A healthier choice of food Page 7 of 13

vi. vii. viii. ix.

A difficult landscape Negative effects on well-being Alarm caused by unprecedented events in the Arctic The benefits of an easier existence

Paragraph A: viii 1. Paragraph B 4. Paragraph E Your answers 1.

2. Paragraph C 5. Paragraph F

3. Paragraph D

Climate Change and the Inuit A. Unusual incidents are being reported across the Arctic. Inuit families going off on snowmobiles to prepare their summer hunting camps have found themselves cut off from home by a sea of mud, following early thaws. There are reports of igloos losing their insulating properties as the snow drips and refreezes, of lakes draining into the sea as permafrost melts, and sea ice breaking up earlier than usual, carrying seals beyond the reach of hunters. Climate change may still be, a rather abstract idea to most of us, but in the Arctic it is already having dramatic effects – if summertime ice continues to shrink at its present rate, the Arctic Ocean could soon become virtually ice-free in summer. The knock-on effects are likely to include more warning, cloudier skies, increased precipitation and higher sea levels. Scientists are increasingly keen to find out what’s going on because they consider the Artic the ‘canary in the mine’ for global warming – a warning of what’s in store for the rest of the world. B. For the Inuit the problem is urgent. They live in precarious balance with one of the toughest environments on earth. Climate change, whatever its causes, is a direct threat to their way of life. Nobody knows the Artic as well as the locals, which is why they are not content simply to stand back and let outside experts tell them what’s happening. In Canada, where the Inuit people are jealously guarding their hand-won autonomy in the country’s newest territory, Nunavut, they believe their best hope of survival in this changing environment lies in combining their ancestral knowledge with the best of modern science. This is a challenge in itself. C. The Canadian Arctic is a vast, treeless polar desert that’s covered with snow for most of the year. Venture into this terrain and you get some idea of the hardships facing anyone who calls this home. Farming is out of the question and nature offers meager pickings. Humans first settled in the Arctic a mere 4,500 years ago, surviving by exploiting sea mammals and fish. The environment tested them to the limits: sometimes the colonists were successful, sometimes they failed and vanished. But around a thousand years ago, one group emerged that was uniquely well adapted to cope with the Arctic environment. These Thule people moved in from Alaska, bringing kayaks, sleds, dogs, pottery and iron tools. They are the ancestors of today’s Inuit people. D. Life for the descendants of the Thule people is still harsh. Nunavut is 1.9 million square kilometers of rock and ice, and a handful of islands around the North Pole. It’s currently home to 2,500 people, all but a handful of them indigenous Inuit. Over the past 40 years, most have abandoned their nomadic ways and settled in the territory’s 28 isolated communities, but they still rely on nature to provide food and clothing. Provisions available in local shops have to be flown into Nunavut on one of the most costly air networks in the world, or brought by supply ship during the few ice-free weeks of summer. It would cost a family around £ 7,000 a year to replace meat they obtained themselves through hunting with imported meat. Economic opportunities are scarce, and for many people state benefits are their only income. Page 8 of 12

E. While the Inuit may not actually starve if hunting and trapping are curtailed by climate change, there has certainly been an impact on people’s health. Obesity, heart disease and diabetes are beginning to appear in a people for whom these have never before been problems. There has been a crisis of identity as the traditional skills of hunting, trapping and preparing skins have begun to disappear. In Nunavut‘s ‘igloo and email’ society, where adults who were born in igloos have children who may never have been out on the land, there‘s high incidence of depression. F. With so much at stake, the Inuit are determined to play a key role in teasing out the mysteries of climate change in the Arctic. Having survived there for centuries, they believe their wealth of traditional knowledge is vital to the task. And Western scientists are starting to draw on this wisdom, increasingly referred to as ‘Inuit Qaujimajatuqangit’, or IQ. ‘In the early days scientists ignored us when they came up here to study anything. They just figured these people don’t know very much so we won’t ask them,’ says John Amagoalik, an Inuit leader and politician. ‘ But in recent years IQ has had much more credibility and weight.’ In fact it is now a requirement for anyone hoping to get permission to do research that they consult the communities, who are helping to set the research agenda to reflect their most important concerns. They can turn down applications from scientists they believe will work against their interests, or research projects that will impinge too much on their daily lives and traditional activities. G. Some scientists doubt the value of traditional knowledge because the occupation of the Arctic doesn’t go back far enough. Others, however, point out that the first weather stations in the far north date back just 50 years. There are still huge gaps in our environmental knowledge, and despite the scientific onslaught, many predictions are no more than best guesses. IQ could help to bridge the gap and resolve the tremendous uncertainty about how much of what we’re seeing is natural capriciousness and how much is the consequence of human activity. Questions 6-10: Choose no more than two words from paragraphs C and D to complete their following summary. If you visit the Canadian Arctic, you immediately appreciate the problems faced by people for whom this is home. It would clearly be impossible for the people to engage in farming as a means of supporting themselves. For thousands of years they have had to rely on catching (6)…………………….and fish as a means of sustenance. The harsh surroundings saw many who tried to settle there pushed to their limits, although some were successful. The Inuit people were an example of the latter and for them the environment did not prove unmanageable. For the present inhabitants, life continues to be a struggle. The territory of Nunavut consists of little more than ice, rock and a few (7)………………….. .In recent years, many of them have been obliged to give up their (8)………………….lifestyle, but they continue to depend mainly on (9)………………….. for their food and clothes. (10)……………..produce is particularly expensive Your answers 6.

10.

PART 5: You are going to read an article containing reviews of recently-published books. For questions 1-10, choose from reviews (A-F). The reviews may be chosen more than once. (10pts) BOOK CORNER A round-up of the latest fiction and non-fiction from Beth Young A. Reading a new novelist is a bit like asking a stranger out on a date. You never quite know if this is the start of a beautiful relationship. You check the blurbs, the publicity photograph, and flick through the book to look for the two essentials: entertainment and substance. Beginner’s Greek by James Collins is certainly big on the latter, weighing in at 400-plus pages. And the quotes on the back cover have the effect of a bunch of friends saying to you, ‘Go on, you’ll get on brilliantly’. Early indications are that this blind Page 9 of 13

date could lead to a deeper relationship. Beginner’s Greek is described by The New York Times as a “great big sunny lemon chiffon pie of a novel” about romantic love amongst the American middle classes. It is indeed delicious. B. In Manil Suri’s second outing The Age of Shiva we have a broad-sweeping, epic novel with an unforgettable heroine so willful yet flawed that it calls to mind that other famous leading lady, Scarlett O’Hara in Gone With the Wind. The story begins at a firework party in Delhi where Meera falls disastrously in love. We follow her journey to Bombay, marriage and obsessive motherhood, with occasional flashbacks to a childhood that was marred by political turmoil. Mathematics professor, Suri, captures the fluidity of the role of women with a beautiful kind of precision. C. Devotees of playwright David Mamet, whose screen work includes Wag The Dog and the award-winning Glengarry Glen Ross may be less than enamoured of Ira Nadel’s new biography, David Mamet: A Life in the Theatre. It may seem churlish to question the minutia of incidents that abound in this comprehensive tone, but whilst Nadel is clearly striving for accuracy one feels there ought to have been more sifting, more mining for the gold amongst the biographical trivia. In addition, Nadel’s tone is somewhat dry and academic and seems at odds with the brilliance of David Mamet’s own writing. That said, the book offers a sound introduction to the life and career of the man hailed as one of America’s most outstanding writers. D. Can any Mother help me? is the true story of a desperately lonely mother who, in 1935, appealed to other women through the letters page of a women’s magazine. Writing under a pseudonym, the woman known as Ubique (meaning ‘everywhere’) little realised that she would be the trigger for the launch of a new and private magazine that would last for the next fifty years. The Cooperative Correspondence Club was formed to offer comfort and support to wives, often well-educated women, who craved stimulation beyond the drudgery of family life. Jenna Bailey has done a superb job of organising and editing this compendium, adding her own insightful commentary. E. Subtitled, The Life and Times of Henry Howard, Earl of Surrey, Jessie Child’s debut historical biography, Henry VIII's Last Victim, was the worthy winner of last year’s Elizabeth Longford Prize. Henry Howard’s victim status is owing to the fact that he was the final person to be executed by King Henry VIII, a mere nine days before the king himself expired. Although killed ostensibly for treason, the Earl of Surrey’s only real crime it seems was leading an unsuccessful army campaign in France. Only 29, he was also a distinguished poet with a fine literary voice, a persona which refutes his reputation as the spoilt son of the Duke of Norfolk. F. This is the 25th outing for T. Keneally but he’s lost none of his writing powers. The Widow and Her Hero take real life events during the Second World War as its inspiration and builds a tale of love and intrigue. Grace looks back on her life to recall her courtship with the hero of the title, the handsome Captain Leo Waterhouse. Leo is tragically killed whilst on a secret mission but it is many years before Grace discovers the facts about his death. Keneally made fans galore when Schindler’s Ark was published and later made into the award-winning Steven Spielberg film, Schindler’s List. The Widow and Her Hero will bring him even more fans. In which section is the following mentioned? 1. A story in which someone is unaware of the impact of their action. 2. A description of the opening scene. 3. An author who exemplifies source material with their own analysis. 4. A humorous comparison with a real-life situation. 5. A character who finds out the truth about a situation. 6. A hint that the author’s future writing career will be positive. 7. A book that would be appreciated by people without much previous knowledge of the subject. Page 10 of 12

8. A book which has already won critical acclaim. 9. A book which includes too much factual detail. 10. A mention of the profession of the author. Your answers: 1.

10.

WRITING PART 1. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (10pts) 1. I won’t go all that way to visit him again on any account! On no account ___________________________________________________ 2. I wasn’t surprised when they refused to pay me. As I ___________________________________________________________ 3. We have credited the money to your current account at this bank. We have placed __________________________________________________ 4. Your silly questions distracted me. You drove ______________________________________________________ 5. Edward eventually organised himself and started work. Edward eventually got his __________________________________________ 2. Rewrite the sentences below using the words in brackets without changing their original form. (10pts) 1. I don’t think this record will ever be popular. (CATCH) ............................................................................................. 2. Mike is never reluctant to make tough decisions as a manager. (SHRINKS) ............................................................................................ 3. You can’t possibly expect me to have supper ready by eight o’clock. (QUESTION) ............................................................................................. 4. It is my opinion that there is no advantage in further discussion. (SEE) Page 11 of 13

............................................................................................. 5. Please excuse Jane’s poor typing: she’s only been learning for a month. (ALLOWANCES) ............................................................................................. PART 2. PASSAGE WRITING (30 pts) Creativity is considered an essential factor to spur development in all aspects of life. In about 250 words, write a passage to suggest ways to promote creativity at school. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… Page 12 of 12

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SỞ GD&ĐT HÒA BÌNH

ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN

LẦN THỨ: MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10

HOÀNG VĂN THỤ

Ngày thi: tháng 08 năm 2019 ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ NGHỊ

LISTENING PART 1. Complete the form. 1. MKERE (Mkere)

2. Westall

3. BS8 9PU

4. 0.75 m/metre(s)/meter(s) (wide) / three(-)quarter(s) (of) (a) metre/meter (wide) / ¾ m (wide) / 75 cm(s) (wide) 5. 0.5 m/metre(s)/meter(s) (high/deep) / (a) half (a) metre/meter (high/deep) / / 50 cm(s) (high/deep) 6. (some) toys 7. 1,700 Words in brackets are optional - they are correct, but not necessary. Alternative answers are separated by a slash (/). PART 2. You will hear a radio programme about the history of roller skating and complete the sentences. 1. (large) mirror

2. Winter Pleasures

3. Direction

4. (roller) hockey

5. championships

6. design/performance (in either order)

7. eight million/8.000,000 people

8 lighter/safer (in either order)

PART 3 You will hear an introduction to a radio phone-in programme about modern lifestyles. Listen and indicate true (T) or false (F) statements. 1. T 2. F 3. F 4. F 5. T PART 4 1. C

2. A

3. B

4. B

5. C

LEXICO - GRAMMAR PART 1 1.B

2.D

3.D

4.C

5.D

6.C

7.A

8.C

9.D

10.A

11.D

12.C

13.B

14.C

15.D

16.A

17.D

18.A

19.A

20.A

PART 2 1

1. incomparable

2. defame

3. outbreak

4. Brevity

5. laborious

6. unattended

7. periodically

8. mystified

9. unproductive

10. unmanageable

PART 3. There are TEN mistakes in this paragraph. Write them down & give the correction. (10 ps) Line 1 1 2 3 4 4 6 7 8 9

mistakes 1. phenomenon 2. like 3. perfect-formed 4. see 5. significant message 6. managed 7. are 8. ourselves 9. so 10. existing

correction phenomena alike perfectly-formed are seen a significant message has managed Is themselves such existence

READING PART 1 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. D PART 2. 1. out 2. is 3. more 4.while/when/as 5. with 6. doing 7. much 8. how 9. which 10. over PART 3. Read the passage and choose A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions (15ps) 1.B

2.B

3.C

4.C

5.A

6.A

7.A

8.B

9.D

10.D

PART 4. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i- ix, in blanks. 1. i

2. vi

3. iii

4. vii

5. iv

6.sea mammals

7. islands

8. nomadic

9. nature

10. Imported

PART 5 1.D 6.A

2.B 7.C

3.D 8.E

4.A 9.C

SECTION 4. WRITING PART 1. 1. On no account will I go all that way to visit him again! 2. As I (had) expected, they refused to pay me. 3. We have placed the money to the credit of your current account at this bank. 4. You drove me to distraction with your silly questions. 5. Edward eventually got his act together and started work 2

5.F 10.B

II. Use the word given in bold and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given word. (7.5p.) 1. I don’t think this record will ever catch on. 2. Mike never shrinks from making tough decisions as a manager. 3. It is out of the question (for me) to have/ get supper ready by eight o’clock. There is no question of supper being ready by eight o’clock. 4. I do not/ cannot see any advantage/point/sense in further discussion. I (can) see no advantage/point/sense in further discussion. As far as I can see, there is no advantage/point/sense in further discussion. As I see it, there is no advantage/point/sense in further discussion. 5. Please make allowances for Jane’s poor typing: she’s only been learning for a month. Paragraph writing Marking criteria: 1. Task response (7 points) The writer clearly states their point of view (agree/disagree) and provides a well-supported paragraph related to the topic. 2. Lexical resource (7 points) -

The writer uses synonyms and paraphrases flexibly.

The writer uses topic-related vocabulary.

3. Coherence and cohesion (10 points) -

The paragraph has a topic sentence with controlling idea.

The topic is well-developed with relevant supporting evidence, examples and facts.

Ideas are well connected with suitable cohesive devices.

The paragraph shows a certain organization pattern (for example: by order of importance, etc.)

The writer uses pronouns consistently and coherently, with third-person pronouns (They, this, these, one/ones) gaining higher scores.

4. Grammatical range and accuracy (6 points) -

The writer uses a wide range of sentence structures (simple, compound and complex)

The writer uses verb tense and forms accurately.

The writer shows good control of spelling and punctuation.

TAPESCRIPTS Tapescript for Part 1 Listening. You will hear a telephone conversation between a customer and an agent at a company which ships large boxes overseas. 3

A B A B A B A B A B A B A B A B A B A B A B A B A B A B A B A B A B A B

Good morning Packham’s Shipping Agents. Can I help you? Oh yes, I’m ringing to make enquiries about sending a large box, a container, back home to Kenya from the UK. Yes, of course. Would you like me to try and find some quotations for you? Yes, that’d be great. Thank you. Well first of all, I need a few details from you. Fine. Can I take your name? It’s Jacob Mkere. Can you spell your surname, please? Yes, it’s M-K-E-R-E. Is that ‘M’ for mother? Yes. Thank you, and you say that you will be sending the box to Kenya? That’s right. And where would you like the box picked up from? From college, if possible. Yes, of course. I’ll take down the address now. It’s Westall College. Is that W-E-S-T-A-L-L? Yes, ... college. Westall College. And where’s that It’s Downlands Road, in Bristol. Oh yes, I know it. And the postcode? It’s BS8 9PU. Right ... and I need to know the size. Yes, I’ve measured it carefully and it’s 1.5m long ... Right. 0.75m wide ... OK. And it’s 0.5m high or deep. Great. So I’ll calculate the volume in a moment and get some quotes for that. But first can you tell me, you know, very generally, what will be in the box? Yes there’s mostly clothes. OK. [writing down] And there’s some books. OK. Good. Um ... Anything else? Yes, there’s also some toys.

A B

OK and what is the total value, do you think, of the contents? Well the main costs are the clothes and the books – they’ll be about £1500 but then the toys are about another two hundred – so I’d put down £1700. PART 2 You will hear a radio programme about the history of roller skating. For questions 9-18, complete the sentences. In today's programme, I'm going to be talking about roller skating: how the sport started and how it has developed over the years. So who was the first person to come up with the idea of attaching wheels to the feet in order to get about more quickly and easily? Well, roller skates are not a new invention. In fact, roller skating developed out of the much older activity of ice-skating, which has existed in Scandinavia and other northern countries for centuries. The actual inventor of the first roller skates is not known, but it's generally thought that they originated in Holland in the early 1700s. 4

Roller skates first arrived in Britain in 1760 when the Belgian clockmaker John Merlin wore some to a formal ball in London. Merlin was known as something of a mad inventor, but he surprised everybody at the ball when he whizzed past them on wheels, playing the violin at the same time. Unfortunately, Merlin did not manage to persuade people that roller skating was a good idea. His skates had no brakes and he ended up crashing into a large mirror. Merlin was quite seriously injured in the accident and, as a result, roller skating did not immediately become popular in Britain. In Germany, however, roller skates made a better impression. They were used in a ballet with the name Winter Pleasures, which included a scene where the dancers skated on ice. Because they couldn't produce the ice on stage, the organisers decided to use roller skates instead. After this, the sport gradually became more popular, but it was only thanks to technical advances that it became safer. In 1863, an American named James Plimpton solved the problem of controlling direction when skating by fitting them with rubber springs. His design is widely regarded as the origin of the modern roller skate, although rubber toe brakes, another important safety feature didn't come in until the 1870s. The late nineteenth century saw the beginnings of events such as speed contests, artistic displays and roller dancing as well as the first team sport on roller skates, roller hockey. During the first decades of the twentieth century, hundreds of indoor and outdoor roller skating rinks opened, especially in the USA, and the sport became really established as a popular pastime. The first roller skating championships were held in Detroit in 1937. The real development of the modern roller skate only began in the second half of the twentieth century. From the 1950s onwards, the use of plastics led to improvements in the design and performance of roller skates, and roller disco movies of the 1970s and 1980s increased the popularity of the sport, with roller discos opening in many parts of the world. Meanwhile, the stage musical Starlight Express, which features roller skating, ran for seventeen years and was seen by eight million people. The sport of roller skating has also been gaining a more serious following, especially in southern Europe and South America. The biggest modern change to roller skates came in 1983 with the introduction of inline skates, also known as rollerblades. Then during the 1990s, new materials, brakes and boot fastenings all combined to make skates both lighter and safer than they had ever been in the past. So why is roller skating so popular? I went to talk to some fans at a rink in Huddersfield ... PART 3 Good morning and welcome to our programm “Modern lifestyle”. Regular listeners will remember the Health and Diet Programme we broadcast earlier in the year featuring Ron Clark, an Australian accountant turned record breaking athlete. Ron’s now Managing Director of the five successful Cannons Health Clubs in London and he’s a firm believer in being positive about life. His philosophy is that in order to have a healthy and fulfilled life (which he obviously felt being an accountant, even in Australia, did not offer him!), you have to enjoy everything you do. He advocates a healthy diet and exercise as a means of supporting one’s work, family ans social life. With this in mind, he devised the term “Total Living”. It certainly stood him in good stead during his successful career as an athlete – and it’s an obvious feature of the health clubs Ron runs in the city- but he believes it can help everybody. His latest venture’s a book he’s just written, also entitled “Total Living”, which isn’t just another book of physical exercises, but a guide to how physical exercise can augment a timetable already filled with a pressurized job and hectic social life. As the term “Total Living” implies, we should see our lives as a whole, not in the isolated compartments- and this means integrating all the different aspects of our lives. Ron thinks that too often we don’t build in time for what we need most – in this case, physical exercise!

You may think that combining work, play and exercise sounds daunting, but Ron also argues very much against some current health trends; for example, assuring us that the sun is beneficial for our health and not the danger to our health and longevity which the anti- sun lobby would have us believe! And then, there’s dieting. How many of you can honestly say you’ve never considered going on a diet? If you talk to Ron, he will insist that slimming diets should be avoided at all costs. Well, we’re fortunate to have Ron back in the studio with us today and he’s going to answer some of your questions during the next half an hour or so but before ... PART 4 Paula Hi Meg! Meg Paula! It's great to see you! You look fantastic! Paula Oh. do I? That's strange. I should be looking awful. Meg Why? Have you been ill? Paula No. Not that. It's just that trip to Paris. It was a nightmare'. Meg Really? You must be joking! Don't tell me you didn't have a good time. When you told me you were going I was green with envy. Paula No wonder, I was so excited I just couldn't wait to go. Now I wish we'd gone to the Lake District or even just stayed at home. Meg But what was so bad about it? Paula Well, in the beginning everything looked all right. Mark's boss gave him two weeks off without too much trouble, the children went to stay with Mark's mother, and Sheila - you know, my younger sister-promised to come over to our place to feed the hamster. So we packed our suitcases and set off. Meg Sounds all right so far. Paula Yes, but in Dover it turned out that the ferry terminal workers had gone on strike, and we had to wait over eight hours before we could board a ferry. Meg Oh no! Paula And that was just the beginning. During the passage the weather turned stormy, and I was terribly sea-sick all the way across the Channel. Meg Oh, poor you! Paula Yeah, it was horrid. Then, when we arrived in Calais, it was so late that we had to look for somewhere to spend the night. Meg Oh dear! Paula Yes, but that's not all! On the way to Paris the next day we had a puncture, so Mark had to change the tyre, the hotel where we'd booked a room turned out to be terribly noisy, it was pouring with rain most of the time, and some of the galleries I wanted to visit were closed. Meg Oh no! So what did you do, then? Paula Well, I ended up shopping for clothes. That's about the only thing I can't complain about, but, obviously, it wasn't cheap, so Mark go t furious. Meg No surprise there! Paula Hmmm so in the end we decided to shorten our stay and left after just ten days. You can imagine our return trip - I was unhappy. Mark was mad at me because of the money, and," when we got home, the flat was flooded. Meg Flooded? 6

Paula Yes, we couldn't believe it! When we were away, Sheila let the hamster out of the cage for a while, and the horrid creature bit through the fridge cable. Of course, she didn't even notice, but when we got back, there was water all over the kitchen floor and all the food in the fridge had gone off. Meg What a nightmare! Người ra đề thi đề xuất: Vũ Thị Kim Thanh Số điện thoại: 094802112

Page 10 of 10

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN LAI CHÂU MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------SECTION A. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1.Complete the notes below.For question 1-7, write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.(14 points) Notes on Island Hotel Type of room required: double room Time •

The length of stay: approx (1 )_________

•

Starting date: 25th April

Temperature •

Daytime: up to (2)___________ °C

•

Erratic weather

Transport •

Free (3)___________

•

Normally transferring to the airport takes about (4)___________en-suite

facilities and a (5)___________ • gym and spa facilities • a large outdoor (6 ) ____________ • three standard (7)___________ Your answers: 1.

Part 2.You will hear an interview with a man called Richard Porter who is a maker of musical instruments called organs. For questions 1 - 8, complete the sentences. 1

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER. Write your answers in the answer box below. (16 points) Richard’s first ambition was to be a ________________ (1). Richard makes organs which are used in (2) _______________ and churches worldwide. It cost £ (3) ___________ to buy one of the organs which Richard makes. According to Richard, personal (4) _____________ provide him with most of his oversea clients. Richard says he is involved in (5) ______________ organs, as well as building and selling them. In terms of raw materials, only the (6) _____________ that Richard uses comes from Britain. Richard’s new workshop will be in a building that was once used as a (7) __________. Richard will have to work in a (8) __________ as well as in his new workshop. Your answers: 1.

Part 3.You will hear a talk about the program named Focus on the Arts. For questions 1-5, decide whether the statement is TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes (10 points) 1.The National Arts Center is a well-known place for music performances of different types. 2. The National Arts Center provides a variety of entertainment choices. 3. The Center has been situated in the heart of the city since 1940. 4. The City Council, the National Symphony Orchestra and National Theatre Company are based in the Center. 5. There are 2-3 days a year when visitors cannot go to the Center.

Your answers: 1.

4. 2

Part 4.You will hear an interview with a man called Oâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;Toole, who works as a teacher trainer. For questions 1-10, listen to the conversation carefully and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each question. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points). 1. Why are many teachers leaving the profession, according to Mike? A. They donâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t feel it is financially rewarding any more. B. They are not being given the respect they once were. C. They are investing too much in it without getting enough back. D. They find the subject matter they have to teach too difficult. 2. Mike believes that without radical changes _______ A. education in the UK will begin to get worse. B. UK schools will lose their ability to compete with one another. C. the UK will soon no longer be a leader in education. D. the educational system in the UK can be transformed. 3. The main failing of the UK education system is _______ A. the inability of students to use computers. B. the resistance within schools to the introduction of technology. C. the failure of government to invest in hardware for schools. D. the lack of training for teachers in the use of technology in the classroom. 4. Why is teacher training failing teachers, according to Mike? A. It is not helping them to keep pace with developments. B. It does not use technology in its training classrooms. C. It uses hardware and software that are out of date. D. It is suffering from a lack of trainers with specialist knowledge. 5. Teachers can only benefit from technology if _______ A. they cease to see it as a threat. B. they can combine it with traditional methods. C. they are allowed to use it in their own way. D. they are willing to research its possibilities on their own.

Your answers: 1.

SECTION B. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (40 points) Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points) 1. Without additional funds from the government, the principal cannot ___________ the issue of overcrowding in his school. A. rectify

B. banish

C. sanction

D. maltreat

2. Salt intake may lead to raised blood pressure in __ _________ adults. A. susceptible

B. dangerous

C. futile

D. feasible

3. No one appreciated his work during his lifetime, but ___________ it is clear that he is a great artist. A. in the aftermath

B. by the time

C. in retrospect

D. in this

eventuality 4. All things ________, she is the best student to represent our school. A. considered

B. involved

C. taken

D. dealt with

5. The little children watched the performance in _________ amazement. A. wide-eyed

B. open-eyed

C. eagle-eyed

D. hawk-eyed

6. The Prime Minister gave a press conference to deny the charges ________ at him. A. leveled

B. accused

C. targeted

D. blamed

7. Don’t trust what you hear on the grapevine. It’s best to hear it straight from the ___________ mouth so you know it’s true. A. dog’s

B. horse’s

C. camel’s

D. cat’s

8. When Tet Holiday comes, Vietnamese people often feel inclined to ________ their houses. A. do over

B. do in

C. do through

D. do up

9. ________, modelling is actually hard work. A. Even it may seem glamorous

B. Yet it may seem glamorous 4

C. However glamorous it may seem

D. Glamorous as though it is

10. You can’t tell what someone is like just from their ________. A. character

B. looking

C. appearance

D. personality

11. After so many years, it is great to see him ________ his ambitions. A. get

B. realise

C. possess

D. deserve

12. Archaeology is one of the most interesting scientific _______. A. divisions

B. disciplines

C. matters

compartments

13. Don’t worry: this is nothing that ________ you. A. matters

B. entails

C. concerns

D. complicates

14. As always, I am ________ with everything you say. A. agree

B. agreeing

C. agreeable

D. in

agreement 15. It may be raining, but I’m ________ enjoying myself. A. thoroughly

B. highly

C. extremely

D. desperately

16. The report claimed the Internet currently _______ 9% of the electricity demand of the whole city, and predicted that it will grow to 40% in the next five years. A. pursues

B. accounts for

C. estimates

D. consists of

17. In the end, I just lost my ________ and started gabbling incoherently. A. head

B. mind

C. brain

D. intelligence

18. He had such a bad stomach that he was _________ with pain. A. bent down

B. folded over

C. snapped off

D. doubled up

19. I read the contract again and again _____ avoiding making spelling mistakes. A. in terms of

B. by means of

C. with a view to

D. in view of

20. That’s exactly what I mean, Tom. You’ve _________! A. put your foot in it

B. killed two birds with one stone

C. put two and two together

D. hit the nail on the head 5

Answers:

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

Part 2.Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the spaces provided below. (10 points)

1. Our teacher told us not to include ______information in our essay.

RELEVANCE

2. __________ is one of the qualities required of a social worker

FLEXIBLE

3. The new leisure centre doesnâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t quite come up to my __________

EXPECT

4. Caffeine is very ____________, which is why people drink much Addict coffee. 5. It is an ____________fact that children watch too much television

deny

6. Swimming can be one of the most __________ forms of exercise.

BENEFIT

7. Flooding is ___________ rare in this part of the world.

compare

8. One of the guests began to show signs of _________ at Tomâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s non- IRRITATE stop joke telling. 9. The record of 47 hours for watching TV without stopping was set BREAK last year is still ____________. 10. I find the driver over the mountain very __________

Your answers: 1.

6. 6

FRIGHT

10.

Part 3.Read the passage below which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really more sophisticated than that of a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a variation of viewpoints have all concluded that there is a great deal more storing in our minds than has been generally supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgery, proved that by stimulating their brains electrically, he can elicit the total recall of specific events in his subjectsâ&#x20AC;&#x2122; lives. Even dreams and another minor events supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in details. Although the physical basic for memory is not yet understood, one theory is how the fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is the result of an almost unlimited combination of interconnections between brain cell, stimulated by patterns of activity. Repeated references with the same information support recall. In other words, improved performance is the result of strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory. Your answers: Line

Mistakes

Corrections

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTIONC. READING (60 points)

1. Read the text below and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer which best fits each space from 1 to 10. (10 points) The paintings of Leonardo da Vinci have always attracted controversy. Only 14 works have ever been attributed to him and experts have (1)……..the authenticity of several. Not even the Mona Lisa is above (2)…….. . The painting is neither signed nor dated and no (3)…….. of payment to Leonardo has ever been found . Believed to be the portrait of the wife of Florentine merchant Francesco del Giaconda dating from 1502, it has been on public display in the Louvre since 1804. Now housed in a bullet(4)……..glass case, it has always been surrounded by (5)……..security. Even so, on 24th August 1911, it was stolen. Initial leads came to nothing and no (6)…….. to the thief's motives or the whereabouts of the picture materialized for 15 months. In November 1913, Florentine art dealer Alfredo Geri received a letter from someone (7)……..they had the Mona Lisa and were prepared to sell it back to Italy for 500,000 lire. Geri contacted the director of the Uffizi museum who arranged a meeting with the alleged vendor. He turned out to be an Italian carpenter Vicenza Perugia , who made the painting's protective wooden box for the Louvre and was able to steal it because he knew the museum's (8)……... The Mona Lisa he produced was proclaimed genuine by the Uffizi and sent back to Paris. But a British con man, Jack Dean, later insisted that he had helped Peruggia steal the painting but (9)……..a copy before Peruggia took it to Italy. Could it be that the painting seen by thousands of visitors every day in the Louvre museum is a total (10)……..? 1. A. asked

B. questioned

C. wondered

D. enquired

2. A. query

B. question

C. suspicion

D. doubt

3.A. bill

B. document

C. record

D. receipt

4.A. proof

B. secure

C. guard

D. strong

5. A. tight

B. safe

C. careful

D. accurate

6. A. tips

B. hints

C. clues

D. indications

7. A. pretending

B. persuading

C. claiming

D. arguing

8. A. working

B. routine

C. doors

D. security

9. A. copied

B. replaced

C. taken over

D. substituted

10.A. counterfeit

B. substitute

C. false

D. fake

YOUR ANSWER: 1.

10.

2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) HERBS AND SPICES There is nothing (1) ________in the use of herbs and spices. They have enriched human life for thousands of years, providing (2) _______comfort and luxury. They have flavored our food, cured our ailments and surrounded us with sweet scents. They have also played their (3)______in our folklore and magic. It (4)_______be a very different world without them. Nobody really knows who first used herbs and spices, or for (5) ______ purpose. All their properties were known to the ancient Greeks and Egyptians as well as those (6) ______ in early Biblical times. The knowledge that they employed, and that we still use today, must have been based on the trial and (7) ______ of early human, who was originally drawn to the plants (8)______ of their tantalizing aroma. He gradually discovered their individual effects on his food and well-being and our use of them comes from those early experiments. For centuries herbs and spices were appreciated to the (9)_______ but in modern times the arrival of the convenience foods and new medicines of the twentieth century almost made us forget them. But anything that has been so much loved and valued will never be completely neglected. The knowledge 9

has been (10) ______ alive and in our present-day search for all things natural, herbs and spices have come into their own again. Your answers 1.

10.

Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the questions below. (10 points)

SURFACE WATER AND GROUND WATER Ensuring the reliability and purity of the water supply is one of the more significant challenges facing an ever growing world population. Unfortunately, only about 3% of the worldâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s total water supply is fresh; the rest is sea water and is unusable for most of our purposes. Furthermore, of that 3%, three fourths are largely inaccessible because it exists as frozen ice locked in the polar ice caps or as glaciers high in mountains. The remaining percentage of fresh water that is available for human use exists in two forms: surface water and ground water. Surface water is found in rivers, lakes, and man-made reservoirs fad by either rainfall or snowmelt. Surface water makes up nearly 80% of all the water utilized by humans, primarily due to its accessibility. Nearly every river or lake in the world contains one or more pumping stations to divert a portion of its flow to nearby population centers. However, surface water supplies present several disadvantages. First, surface water is easily polluted. Chemical pollution from the air enters surface water in the form of rain, and ground pollution is either dumped directly into lakes and rivers or washed into them by rainwater. In addition, biological pollution caused by the dumping of raw sewage into a water source, can lead to dangerous levels of bacteria. Another problem is relying on surface water is that its supply is highly variable. Water levels in lakes and rivers can fall drastically in periods of severe drought. In places that are prone to extended dry periods, such as Australia or much 10

of California, some rivers are even known to occasionally run dry due to a combination of drought and overuse. The other primary source of fresh water is ground water. Although ground water is estimated to be as much as 50 times more abundant than surface water, it constitutes only 20% of all the fresh water used by human s, and much of this usage occurs in rural areas. This is a reflection of the relative difficulty in obtaining ground water. Ground water exists in underground deposits known as aquifers, layers of porous rock in the Earth. As rainwater sinks into the ground it eventually reaches the aquifer where it is absorbed, much as a kitchen sponge absorbs water. To obtain ground water, a well must be drilled down to the level of the aquifer, and then the water must be pumped to the surface. Aquifers occur at different depths in different areas, and the deeper the aquifer, the more difficult and more expensive it is to extract its water. Furthermore, if water is taken from an aquifer at a higher rate than it is recharged naturally, its level will drop, necessitating ever deeper wells. This also creates problems with ground stability. As water is drained out of an aquifer, the ground naturally tends to sink and compress, leading to greater risk of subsidence and landslides. Since aquifers are fed through a slow acting system of drainage, they have much slower recharge rates than surface water resources and are easily overtaxed. Therefore, ground water is generally only used when surface water is unavailable, even though ground water is far more abundant. Like surface water, ground water can also become polluted, although not as easily. The soil that water sinks through before reaching the aquifer acts as a natural filter, leaching out some of the pollutants. Furthermore, the lack of oxygen in the aquifer generally restricts the growth of bacteria, so most ground water can be utilized safely without treatment. However, pollution can enter an aquifer when pollution sources are buried underground, such as they are in landfills. In other areas, the presence of heavy metal, nearly all of which are highly toxic in the human body, may render ground water undrinkable.

1. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of fresh water EXCEPT: A. It makes up a minute proportion of the worldâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s total water supply. 11

B. Much of it is unavailable for human use. C. Its supply is endangered by the melting of the ice caps. D. Its reliable supply is a growing problem in the world. 2. What is the source of most surface water? A. Melting glaciers B. Underground springs C. Precipitation D. Filtration of seawater 3. Based on the information in paragraph 2, what can be inferred about most population centers? A. They have grown to sixes unsustainable by current water resources. B. They generally can be found in close proximity to a source of surface. C. They always contribute to great levels of pollution in surface water. D. They are unable to cope with rising levels of bacteria in surface water. 4. The wordprone in the passage is closest meaning to A. inclined

B. experienced

C. recognized

D. associated

5. According to paragraph 2, what causes increases in bacteria in surface water? A. Increased industrial pollution B. The dumping of human and animal waste C. Overexploitation of a surface water source D. Drops in the overall level of a surface water source 6. The word porous in the passage is closest meaning to A. sodden

B. absorptive

C. permeable

D. submerged

7. In paragraph 3, the author mentions the abundance of the ground water in order to A. suggest that it may offer a solution to the worldâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s water needs B. contrast with its relatively low usage by humans C. explain the lack of surface water in many areas 12

D. explain why it is only used in rural areas 8. According to paragraph 4, increased danger of subsidence is caused by A. excessive drops in the level of an aquifer B. the holes created by large numbers of wells C. the compression of water in an aquifer D. landsides beneath an aquifer 9. According to paragraph 5, bacteria are generally not a concern in ground water because A. heavy metals prevent their growth B. they is not enough air to support them C. they are filtered out before they reach the aquifer D. bacteria would make the water undrinkable 10. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5 about heavy metals? A. They only occur in aquifers. B. They cannot be filtered out of water. C. They are generally water soluble. D. They can be detected by their foul taste. Your answer: 1.

10.

Part 4: The Reading Passage has five paragraphs (A-E). Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-vi) in boxes 1-5 on your answer part. (5 points) NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them. PAPER RECYCLING

A. Paper is different from other waste produce because it comes from a sustainable resource: trees. Unlike the minerals and oil used to make plastics and metals, trees are replaceable. Paper is also biodegradable, so it does not pose as much threat to the environment when it is discarded. While 45 out of every 100 tones of wood fibre used to make paper in Australia comes from waste paper, the rest comes directly from virgin fibre from forests and plantations. By world standards this is a good performance since the world-wide average is 33 per cent waste paper. Governments have encouraged waste paper collection and sorting schemes and at the same time, the paper industry has responded by developing new recycling technologies that have paved the way for even greater utilization of used fibres. As a result, industryâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s use of recycled fibres is expected to increase at twice the rate of virgin fibres over the coming years. B. Already, waste paper constitutes 70% of paper used for packaging and advances in the technology required to remove ink from the paper have allowed a higher recycled content in newsprint and writing paper. To achieve the benefits of recycling, the community must also contribute. We need to accept a change in the quality of paper products; for example stationery may be less white and of a rougher texture. There also needs to be support from the community for waste paper collection programs. Not only do we need to make the paper available to collectors but it also needs to be separated into different types and sorted from contaminants such as staples, paperclips, string and other miscellaneous items. C. There are technical limitations to the amount of paper which can be recycled and some paper products cannot be collected for re-use. These include paper in the form of books and permanent records, photographic paper and paper which is badly contaminated. The four most common sources of paper for recycling are factories and retail stores which gather large amounts of packaging material in which goods are delivered, also offices which have unwanted business documents and computer output, paper converters and printers and lastly households which discard newspapers and packaging material. The paper manufacturer pays a price for the paper and may also incur the collection cost.

D. Once collected, the paper has to be sorted by hand by people trained to recognise various types of paper. This is necessary because some types of paper can only be made from particular kinds of recycled fibre. The sorted paper then has to be repulped or mixed with water and broken down into its individual fibres. This mixture is called stock and may contain a wide variety of contaminating materials, particularly if it is made from mixed waste paper which has had little sorting. Various machineries are used to remove other materials from the stock. After passing through the repulping process, the fibres from printed waste paper are grey in colour because the printing ink has soaked into the individual fibres. This recycled material can only be used in products where the grey colour does not matter, such as cardboard boxes but if the grey colour is not acceptable, the fibres must be de-inked. This involves adding chemicals such as caustic soda or other alkalis, soaps and detergents, waterhardening agents such as calcium chloride, frothing agents and bleaching agents. Before the recycled fibres can be made into paper they must be refined or treated in such a way that they bond together. E. Most paper products must contain some virgin fibre as well as recycled fibres and unlike glass, paper cannot be recycled indefinitely. Most paper is down-cycled which means that a product made from recycled paper is of an inferior quality to the original paper. Recycling paper is beneficial in that it saves some of the energy, labour and capital that go into producing virgin pulp. However, recycling requires the use of fossil fuel, a non-renewable energy source, to collect the waste paper from the community and to process it to produce new paper. And the recycling process still creates emissions which require treatment before they can be disposed of safely. Nevertheless, paper recycling is an important economical and environmental practice but one which must be carried out in a rational and viable manner for it to be useful to both industry and the community. (Cambridge IELTS) i.

Process of paper recycling

ii.

Less threat of waste paper to the environment

iii.

Collection of paper for recycling

iv.

Sources of paper for recycling 15

Bad sides of paper recycling

vi.

Contribution of community to recycling paper

Your answer 1. Paragraph A

__________

2. Paragraph B

__________

3. Paragraph C

__________

4. Paragraph D

__________

5. Paragraph E

__________

SUMMARY Complete the summary below of the first two paragraphs of the Reading Passage. Choose ONE OR TWO WORDS from the Reading Passage for each answer. Write your answers inboxes 1-5 on your answer part. (5 points) From the point of view of recycling, paper has two advantages over minerals and ...........oil.......... in that firstly it comes from a resource which is ........ (1) ........ and secondly it is less threatening to our environment when we throw it away because it is ....... (2) ...... Although Australiaâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s record in the re-use of waste paper is good, it is still necessary to use a combination of recycled fibreand ........ (3) ........ to make new paper. The paper industry has contributed positively and people have also been encouraged by .........(4) ......... to collect their waste on a regular basis. One major difficulty is the removal of ink from used paper but ......... (5) ......... are being made in this area. 1.

Part 5:You are going to read an article in which four people are talking about sport. For questions 1 -10, choose from the people (A- D). The people may be chosen more than once.( 10 points) A. Luke Hazelton 16

My mum is the team manager for the Olympic diving team and when I was a baby I used to go with her to the pool and jump in and out- now I practice diving every day after school and on Saturdays. I’m really too tall to be a great diver and my long legs make it difficult to do somersaults, so I don’t think I’ll ever make it to the top. But nevertheless, I find it exhilarating when I’m diving well. If it is a complicated dive, I have to concentrate very hard, which is difficult if I feel nervous. My dad’s support is very motivating for me. I take part in about ten competitions a year, both national and international. The best thing about it is that you make new friends from different countries. I do trampolining for the regional team, which prepares me for diving- the moves are similar but you don’t land in water! The one thing I don’t like about it is that doing my homework takes up my spare time and I don’t have much time to go out with my friends from school. B. Natalie Harris Last year our netball team was promoted to the top league and so the coach became very strict. At that level, every move is scrutinized and discussed, which makes everyone feel very pressurized. There’s a lot of competition to get chosen for the team and sometimes I got substituted. When I played last year, I would look at the subs sitting on the sidelines and not really care, but when I started to become one myself I had a whole new perspective on the game. Now I realize that when you’re not the best at a sportit doesn’t seem as much fun as when you’re a top player. I left the team earlier this year, as the pressure of playing in matches was too much; it was becoming a frustration instead of a recreation. I still enjoy playing netball with my friends in gym classes, when I can relax without worrying about impressing my coach all the time. C. Joanne Whittaker I was good at football and I really enjoyed playing left back in the school team. Then one Saturday when I was 14, I went to watch the local ice hockey team play. It was so exciting and became a real turning point in my life. School football seemed so dull in comparison. I discovered that there was a local women’s ice hockey team just being set up. At first, the coach thought I was too young and too inexperienced as I’d only done occasional fun skating on Saturday afternoons. But she agreed to give me a 17

trial and I have been playing for three years now. I’ll really find out what I can do in June when we go to take part in a women’s international ice hockey competition in Prague. D. James Spiers I knew I was serious about rugby when I scored a try in my first game. I was named “player of the year” at my club last year and I’m also captain of my school team. My uncle often comes to watch me play. He’s very competitive so that is probably why I am too. Losing makes me feel that I’ve done something wrong. It doesn’t happen very often, though. I’m not normally an aggressive person but, on the rugby pitch, I am. I don’t think girls should play rugby as it’s so aggressive and they could easily get injured. Most of my schoolmates play rugby and all of them are sporty. I can’t imagine my life without rugby! I’m going to agricultural college when I leave school and eventually will take over my uncle’s farm, but I hope there’ll still be time for lots of rugby. If I have a son, I’ll want to help coach his team and I’d be disappointed if he wasn’t interested in sports. I’ll definitely be a competitive dad! (First Certificate in English 4) Your answer: Which person thinks winning is the most important thing?

was inspired by seeing others take part in the sport?

feels their sport has both a positive and negative impact on their social life?

thinks that their sport may be inappropriate for a particular group of

people? was nearly refused a place on a team?

has changed their mind about participating in competitive sport?

has long –term plans which include continued involvement in their sport?

is realistic about their chances of being very successful?

feels that there is too much emphasis on analyzing performance?

has learnt to be more sympathetic to less successful competitors?

10.

SECTIOND. WRITING (50 points) Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. (10 points) 1. The boy wasn't allowed to have any friends, so he became an introvert. => Deprived............................................................................................................... 2. What a pity these shops close at lunch-time. => I wish......................................................................................................................... 3. I wasn't surprised when they refused to pay me. => As I............................................................................................................................. 4. It probably takes at least six hours to drive to Glasgow from here. => It’s............................................................................................................................. 5. It was such an appalling sight that we reeled back in horror. => So........................................................................................................................... Part 2.Rewrite the following sentences with the given word. The given words can’t be changed. (10 points) 1. Most people know that Britain’s economy is heavily dependent on North Sea oil. (COMMON) ……………………………………………………………………………………… 2. The police arrived as the thieves were committing the crime. ( RED-HANDED) ……………………………………………………………………………………… 3. We were lucky to find somewhere to park so quickly. (STROKE) ………………………………………………………………………………… 4. The house shouldn’t be left unlocked for any reason. (ACCOUNT) …………………………………………………………………………………… 5. I preferred to take a course in psychology instead of wasting my time at the mathematics department. (RATHER) …………………………………………………………………………………………. Part 3. In about 150 words, write a paragraph to suggest measures governments and individuals can take to reduce the global warming. ( 30 points)

Ngườirađề: NguyễnThịHoa ĐT: 0964332925

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN LAI CHÂU MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10 ……………………………………………………………………………………… A. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1.( 14 points) Each correct answer scores 2.0 points

1. 2 weeks

2. 19

3. pick-up service

5. balcony

6. swimming pool

7. tennis courts

4. 40 minutes

Part 2.( 16 points) Each correct answer scores 2.0 points

1.composer

5.mending

2.concerts/concert halls

6. wood

3. £ 9500

7.shool/schoolroom

4. contacts

8. (small) museum

Part 3.( 10 points) Each correct answer scores 2.0 points 1.F

2.T

3.F

4.T

5.T

Part 4.( 10 points) Each correct answer scores 2.0 points

1. C

2. C

3. D

4. A

5. A

B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (40 points) Part 1. (20 points) 1. A

5. A

9. C

13. C

17. A

2. A

6. A

10. C

14. D

18. D

3. C

7. B

11. B

15. A

19. C

4. A

8. A

12. B

16. B

20. D

4.addictive

5. undeniable

Part 2: ( 10pts) 1 pt for each correct answer. 1. irrelevant

2. Flexibility

6.beneficial

3.expectation

7. comparatively

8.irritation

9.unbroken

10.frightening

Part 3. (10 points) 1 pt for each correct answer. Mistake

Correction

variation

variety

storing

stored

neurosurgery

neurosurgeon

can

could

another

other

details

detail

basic

basis

how

that

cell

cells

reference with

Reference to

C. READING (60 points) Part 1.(10 points â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 1.0 point /correct answer) 1.B

2.C

3.C

4.A

5.A

6.C

7.C

8.D

9.D

10.D

Part 2:(10 points â&#x20AC;&#x201C; 1.0 point /correct answer) 1. new

2. both

3. part

4. would

5. what

6. living

7. error

8. because

9. full

10. kept

Part 3.Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the questions below. (10 points – 1.0 point /correct answer)

SURFACE WATER AND GROUND WATER Answers: 1. C

2. C

3. B

4. A

5. B

6. B

7. B

8. A

9. B

10. C

Part 4.(10 points – 2.0 points /correct answer) 1. Paragraph A: ii 2. Paragraph B: vi 3. Paragraph C: iv 4. Paragraph D: i 5. Paragraph E: v

Summary: (10 points – 2.0 points /correct answer)

1. replaceable 2. bio degradable 3. virgin fibre 4. governments 5. Advances

Part 5. (10 points – 1.0 points /correct answer)

1. D

2. C

3. A

4. D

5. C

6. B

7. D

8. A

9. B

10. B

D. WRITING

Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence.(10 points) 1. Deprived of friends, the boy became an introvert. 2. I wish these shops opened at lunch-time. 3. As I (had) expected, they refused to pay me. 4. It's probably at least a six-hour drive to Glasgow from here. 5. So appalling was the sight that we reeled back in horror. Part 2: Rewrite the following sentences with the given word. The given words canâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t be changed. (10 points) 1. It's common knowledge that Britain's economy is heavily dependent on North Sea oil. 2. The police caught the thieves red-handed. 3. It was a stroke of luck that we found somewhere to park so quickly/ Finding somewhere to park so quickly was a stroke of luck. 4. On no account/Not on any account should the house be left unlocked. 5. Rather than waste my time at the mathematics department, I preferred to take a course in psychology. Part 3: Writing a paragraph: (30 points) a. Organization: ( 7 points) + Three parts (topic sentence, supporting sentences, concluding sentence) + Topic sentence: consists of topic and controlling idea. + Concluding sentence: summarizes the main supporting ideas / restates the topic sentence and gives personal opinion.

b. Content, coherence and cohesion: (13 points) + Supporting sentences: support directly the main idea stated in the topic sentence and provide logical, persuasive examples. + Use of transition signals appropriately. b. Language use and accuracy: (10 points) + Variety of structures, expressions and good use of vocabulary + No spelling or grammar mistakes. ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------TAPESCRIPT PART 1: Reception:Good afternoon, you're through to reception at The Island Hotel in Crete, how may I help you today? Mr. Schifter: Yes. hello there, I’m hoping to book a double room for my wife and myself for about two weeks from the 25th April of this year. Firstly, could you tell me whether it’s particularly hot during this time? Example Reception: Yes. of course Sir, during late April and early May, the daytimetemperature shouldn't exceed 19 degrees Celsius, but the weather has been rather erratic and difficult to predict in recent years, so I am unable to say for certain. Mr. Schifter: Okay, that sounds good, my wife doesn’t like going outside when it's very hot! I haven’t booked flights yet. but I must say that I’m unfamiliar with Crete and its transport system. Does the hotel provide an airport shuttle service? Reception: Yes Sir, we provide a complementary airport pick-up servicefor all our guests. It takes about 40 minutes to get here from the airport, but it’s at least 60 minutes at rush hours and you will be provided with a fully air-conditioned shuttle bus. Mr. Schifter: Okay, excellent. In that case, do you have any rooms available for the dates I gave you? Reception: I shall have a look on the system now for you Sir. bear with mejust a moment, [brief pause] Yes Sir. I can see now that we have several rooms available. Would you prefer a garden view or a sea view? Mr. Schifter: Well, ideally I would like a sea-view room with a balcony, but of course that depends on the difference in price.

Reception: Not to worry Sir, all of our standard double rooms have en-suite facilities and a balcony. If you would

like one of our sea-view rooms, there is a

premium of €60 per night. Mr. Schiffer: Okay, so could you tell me the total nightly rate tor a standard double room with a sea view? Reception: Yes, of course Sir, for the spring months, our rate is €216 per night. For 14 nights, altogether this will come to €3,024. Mr. Schiffer: Perfect. I also read on your website that the hotel has gym and spa facilities. Are there any other facilities on offer? Reception. Yes, we have a large outdoor infinity pool overlooking the ocean, with luxury sun beds and a poolside bar. We also have 3 full-sized tennis courts, where we run a popular doubles tournament, with the winner receiving 2 all-inclusive spa day vouchers. Mr. Schifler: Goodness, I shall have to brush up on my tennis skills! PART 2: Interviewer: Good evening and welcome to the programme where, as you know, we go out and talk to people who run their own companies. Today, we’re talking to Richard Porter, who makes large concert organs as a profession. Richard, tell us, just how did you get into this area of work? Richard: Well, I play the piano and, as a child, I had a good teacher who wrote her own music, and I always wanted to be a composer too. However, my parents persuaded me that what I needed to do was go to college and study how to make musical instruments, rather than play them, because they saw more of a future in that. And now, I make the organs which are played in churches and concert halls all around the world. The one thing that I never intended to do was become a businessman, which is what I am now really, as well as being an instrument maker. Interviewer: So, when did you start making organs? Richard: About five years ago. I started from a room in my house, but now I have my own workshop. Interviewer: So, it must pay.

Richard: Well, an organ sells at £9500, which means around £3500 profit for me I suppose. Interviewer: And how long does it take to build one? Richard: It might take me three months to complete one, and when I say three months, I mean three months of working seventy hours a week. Although

that sounds a lot, I have to say I don’t mind because I love the work and I get to meet lots of interesting people. Most of my commissions are from overseas clients and they’re nearly all the result of personal contacts. I rarely use advertising these days. Interviewer: So, you make a living out of it? Richard: Not really. The most profitable part of my business is actually mending organs, generally old large ones so they can be used for concerts and recording sessions. That can earn me up to £300 each time. Which is just as well, because I do need to have money available to buy the raw materials for the larger organs. There’s a lot of investment to make before I can start to build. I get the wood from Britain, but most of the other components come from France or Germany. Interviewer: And I understand you’ve made a big decision recently? Richard: Yes. I’ve decided to take the opportunity to move my workshop to a former schoolroom that has become available in Lincolnshire, about a hundred miles away. Interviewer: So, you’re moving house as well? Richard: Yes. We’re moving there in three months’ time. Interviewer: Tell me about the new workshop. Richard: It is a lovely old building attached to the Town Hall in a small market town. In return for using the workshop, I’ve agreed to spend forty days a year working as a museum attendant. There’s a small museum in the town that has visiting exhibitions, but is only open on certain days in the year. Interviewer: And is that something you’re looking forward to?

Richard: Not really, but it means that I save around £4000 a year because apart from paying the heating bill the workshop is rent free. That’s the great thing about the place. It’s also very close to our new house, so I’ll have the luxury of walking to work each morning, which is nice. Interviewer: Is it easy to find a building that is suitable as a workshop? Richard: No it isn’t. It’s very easy for the instruments to get damaged so the environment must be dry. None of the buildings I’ve worked in so far have been dry enough. The new workshop is perfect in that respect. Interviewer: Oh right. Well, best of luck to you in that new project. Now, I think you’re going to play us a piece on an organ which you built yourself...

PART 3: Hello, and welcome to Focus on the Arts. I’m your host - Dave Green - and this is your very own local radio programme. Every Friday evening we put the spotlight on different arts and culture facilities, and look at the shows and events that are on offer in the coming week. And today the focus is on The National Arts Centre. Now, if you don’t already know it yourself, I'm sure you’ve all heard of it. It’s famous throughout the world as one of the major venues for classical music. But did you know that it is actually much more than just a place to hear concerts? The Centre itself is a huge complex that caters for a great range of arts. Under a single roof it houses concert rooms, theatres, cinemas, art galleries and a wonderful public library, as well as service facilities including three restaurants and a bookshop. So at any one time, the choice of entertainment there is simply enormous. So, how did they manage to build such a big arts complex right in the heart of the city? Well, the area was completely destroyed by bombs during the war in 1940. So the opportunity was taken to create a cultural centre that would be, what they called: ‘the City’s gift to the Nation’. Of course it took a while for such a big project to get started, but it was planned in the 60s, built in the 70s and eventually opened to the

public in 1983. Ever since then it has proved to be a great success. It is not privately owned, like many arts centres, but is still in public hands - it's run by the City Council. Both our National Symphony Orchestra and National Theatre Company were involved in the planning of the project, and they are now based there - giving regular performances every week - and as the Centre is open 363 days of the year, there are plenty of performances to choose from. PART 4: Interviewer: Today, I have with me Mike O’Toole, a leading teacher trainer, and he’s going to be talking to us about the challenges – and the rewards – that a graduate considering teaching as a career path can expect, Good morning, Mike, Mike: Good morning, Judy. And let me say that you chose two extremely appropriate words: challenges and rewards I don’t think there’s been a more challenging time to be a teacher, And the truth of the matter is that many are saying, ‘This is no longer worth the energy I have to out into it, and are leaving the in droves. But the ones that persevere, will, I believe, find that teaching In the twenty-first century will have both the prestige and the results of the golden days of education. Interviewer: Teaching is often described as being at a crossroads, though, isn’t it? What makes today a real moment of decision? Mike: I think the fact that it’s a crunch moment for everyone; potential teachers, teacher trainers, schools and the government. If everyone seizes the opportunities offered, we could see a system transformed from the slow decline we saw over the past decades, If not. the UK will no longer be seen around the world as an education destination. But rather as a Quaint anachronism. A piece of living history, interesting only to academics, Interviewer: What makes it crunch time? Why are we at this ominous-sounding place? Mike: One word: technology. Technology is the key. We have a world that has changed beyond recognition due to technology – and one that is continuing to change – and our educational system risks being left behind. Everyone should be able to use a computer, but almost no school has IT as a compulsory subject, Computers and the

internet should play a part in every lesson, but they don’t. And one of the main reasons is the inability of the teacher to use technology, to integrate it into the lesson. Interviewer: In teacher training colleges, how much emphasis is placed on classroom technology and e-learning? Mike: You’ve come right to the point, Judy, The answer is, not enough! And not only that: if I become a teacher today, completely up to date with the latest in educational software, hardware, electronic resources and so on, in ten years’ time I’ll need retraining so that what I’ve learned won’t become obsolete in twenty. Teachers today are being asked to do more and more without the support they need. We have a very high rate of teachers quitting the profession in this country, and we’ve got to ask why. Interviewer: So teachers need to go back to school themselves. How do they feel about that? Mike: There’s resistance sometimes. Teachers can be very traditional. But it’s with the new wave of teachers that we can affect the greatest change. If the interactive whiteboard, for example, is seen for what it is – an extraordinary tool in a teacher’s toolbox – then it can be utilized. We can train the teacher where to use it, where not to use it, what new software is available and so on. If there’s mistrust, suspicion, ignorance, then the technology will not be used to its full potential. Quite the contrary. Interviewer: And what are the implications for teachers, schools, education systems, even, that don’t exploit this technology? Mike: You used the analogy of a crossroads earlier, but I would say, rather, that we are at a fork in the road. We’re in a deep forest at the side of a mountain, and what we don’t realise is that one gath leads down into a dead-end ravine and the other leads up to the too of the mountain and the sunshine of knowledge. And, interestingly enough, what technology is allowing schools in developing countries to do, is to leapfrog right ahead of the developed countries so that, in comparison, we are starting to look primitive.

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XX ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN CHU VĂN AN TỈNH LẠNG SƠN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – KHỐI 10 (Đề thi có 13 trang)

SECTION 1. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1. Listen to a conversation and complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER. (14 pts)

Type of event: example

Event Details Dragon Boat Race

Race details Day and date: (1) ______________________________ Place: Brighton Marina Registration time: (2) _____________________________ Sponsorship - aim to raise over (3) _____________________________ as a team and get a free t-shirt - free Prize Draw for trip to Hongkong Team details - must have crew of 20 and elect a (4) ______________________________ - under 18s need to have (5) _______________________________ to enter - need to hire (6) _______________________________ - advised to bring extra (7) ______________________________ - must choose a name for the team. (IELTS Practice Tests Plus 1, p91) Part 2. (16 pts) You will hear an interview with a woman called Juliet Mills, who talks about drinking and alcohol. For each question, complete the sentence with a word or short phrase. Juliet Mills says we started drinking alcohol (1) ___________________ ago. Juliet says alcohol helps people relax and become more sociable and (2) ___________________. Every year, several thousand British people die from (3) ____________________. Alcohol produces a feeling of well-being because it provides a rush of (4) ___________________. The effects become noticeable as soon as alcohol in your bloodstream gets to your (5) ___________________. Occasional drinking is unlikely to cause permanent (6) ____________________. Since alcohol affects the immune system, (7) ____________________ are less protected against various infections. Alcohol is a leading cause of (8) ____________________ in Britain. (FCE Listening and Speaking Skills 1, p28)

Đề thi đề xuất – Hùng Vương 2019 – Môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 – Trang 1

Part 3. You will hear an interview with a woman called Jennie Thorpe, who is a trapeze artist in a circus. For each question, decide whether the information is true (T) or false (F). (10 pts) Answer 1. Jennie got her present job when her manager saw her performing at a gymnastics competition. 2. Jennie says it’s unlikely to earn a living as a trapeze artist after a certain age. 3. Jennie finds having to get up early every day the most difficult thing to get used to. 4. In Jennie’s opinion, circus skills have helped some school students by making them physically stronger. 5. Jennie wants to do a training course next. (FCE Practice Tests Plus, 2008, p122) Part 4. You will hear an interview with Dr Peter Ludwig about sugar in our diet. For each question, choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (10 pts) 1. Dr Ludwig is surprised that parents ______ A. buy the sweet food sold at Hershey Park. B. use sugary snacks as part of their children’s diet. C. see sugary snacks as a special treat. D. rely on sugar snacks for nutritions 2. The number of cases of obesity and diabetes is increasing ______ A. by 23% a year B. by 25% a year C. quite slowly D. very quickly 3. Food companies in France and Germany ______ A. have reduced the amount of sugar in their products. B. use an unnecessary amount of sugar. C. use sugar to make their food crisp and textured. D. use sugar as an essential ingredient. 4. In 19th century, British factory workers were given sugar ______ A. because their work was long and tiring. B. as a quick, cheap form of medicine. C. because many of them were very young children. D. because it was much more important than fish and chips. 5. Dr Ludwig thinks that parents should ______ A. watch their children’s behaviour more carefully. B. stop giving their chidren extra sugar for a week or two. C. try to find ways to make their children feel better. D. give their children foods without sugar to improve their behaviour. (FCE Listening and Speaking Skills 2, p22) SECTION 2. LEXICO-GRAMMAR Part 1. For question 1-20, read the following sentences and then decide which word A, B, C or D best fits each space. Circle the correct answer. 1. For a team to be successful, all members have to ________ their weight. A. take B. make C. get D. pull 2. You really will have to be able to ________ down a job for more than six weeks. Đề thi đề xuất – Hùng Vương 2019 – Môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 – Trang 2

A. keep B. turn C. take D. hold 3. It took him a long time to come to ________ with the fact that he was homeless. A. terms B. acceptance C. tabs D. agreement 4. Simon has a very strong ________ of duty so he will always carry out his promises. A. sense B. idea C. mind D. thought 5. The birth of their first child caused a lot of ________ in Angela Ken’s lives. A. uproar B. upheaval C. outcry D. overthrow 6. The interviewer’s warm smile soon put Jill at her ________. A. comfort B. leisure C. rest D. ease 7. No ________ how long it takes, I will keep trying to find an answer. A. way B. matter C. worry D. mind 8. I ________ to think how you’re going to cope all by yourself with two babies. A. fear B. avoid C. dread D. worry 9. However at the last training session there was a very poor ________. A. turn-up B. turnover C. turnout D. turn-off 10. The old lady ________ on going to court to give evidence. A. demanded B. urged C. begged D. insisted 11. We all know that you are guilty so why don’t you ________ up? A. give B. turn C. own D. say 12. How could we have been so gullible- it was all a ________ of lies. A. pack B. heap C. bunch D. pile 13. They were caught because their sudden wealth gave the ________ away. A. fact B. game C. idea D. match 14. Kate ________ Tim that he had an appointment after lunch. A. remembered B. recalled C. reminded D. recollected 15. Police are trying to ________ the stolen goods. A. trace B. track C. shadow D. stalk 16. I am ________ my brother is. A. nowhere like ambitious as B. nothing near as ambitious as C. nothing as ambitious like D. nowhere near as ambitious as 17. ________ are considered humorous is mainly due to his characters’ use of slang. A. That Myan’s stories B. Myan’s stories, which B. Myan’s stories D. Because Myan’s stories 18. After a six-year relationship, Martha and Billy have decided to ________. A. break the bank B. turn the page C. tie the knot D. make the grade 19. After the accident, there was considerable doubt ________ exactly what had happened. A. in the question of B. as to C. in the shape of D. for 20. Most discounts have been dramatically ________ in the final days of our clearance sale from 15% to 5%. A. declined B. diminished C. slashed D. taken down Part 2. For question 1-10, use the word in capitals at the end of the sentence to form one word that fits in the space. There is an example at the beginning (0). 0. We really must look for staff who have good ___qualification_____. QUALIFY 1. ________ is much more effective than aggression. ASSERT Đề thi đề xuất – Hùng Vương 2019 – Môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 – Trang 3

2. The singer’s ________ lifestyle attracts the attention of the press. CONVENTION 3. When she passed 30, Sue became increasingly ________ for a baby. DESPAIR 4. The unresponsive audience made the lecturer somewhat ________ .What a shame. HEAR 5. My brother’s a comedian who specializes in doing ________ of famous people. PERSON 6. Michael Spencer’s ________ book is likely to be a huge success. COME 7. Some ________ now have their own nursery facilities for staff with children. WORK 8. He won’t get angry with you- he has a very calm ________. TEMPER 9. Sam was very grateful to his ________ parents for their generosity. ADOPT 10. The subtle photography and music make the film very ________. ATMOSPHERE Part 3. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Identify and correct the mistakes. Write your answers in the answer box below. Line (0) has been done for you as an example. (10 points) Line 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13

THE EIGHTH WONDER OF THE WORLD The Thames Barrier is a major part of the flood defending scheme for protecting London against rise water levels. The defenses also include raised river embankments and additional flood gates at strategic points, including the Barking Barrier. The unique structure that are the Barrier spans the 520-metre wide Woolwich reach and consist of 10 separate movable gates, each pivoting and supported between concrete structures which house the operating machinery. When raising, the four main gates each stands as high as a five-storey building and as wide as the opening of Tower Bridge. Each weights 3700 tonnes. During the first twelve years of operation, the Barrier has closed twenty-nine times to protect London. View the Barrier from the comfortable cafeteria. Picnic at the riverside embankment. Enjoy beautiful views from the riverside walk. Visit the shop stocks a large selection of souvenirs, books and Barrier information. There is a children play area suitable for 4-to-12-year olds, located adjacent near the riverside walk. A visit to the spectacular Thames Barrier is a memorable experience.

Source: FCE successful practice tests Your answers e.g. Line 0: defending defence Line Mistake Correction

Line

Mistake

Correction

SECTION 3. READING Part 1. Choose which answer best fits each gap. (10 points) FRIENDSREUNITED.CO.UK Have you ever looked into what happened to your old friends? Friends Reunited is a website which puts old school and college friends back in (1) ________ with one another. It was (2) ________ Đề thi đề xuất – Hùng Vương 2019 – Môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 – Trang 4

by a husband and wife team when the wife, Julie Pankhurst, decided she wanted to track (3) ________ some of her own school friends. The website now has over five million (4) ________ and is one of the most popular websites in the UK. You pay a small (5) ________ to join, and then add your name and email address to a list. This list is (6) ________ by school and year, so it is easy to find people. Thousands of reunions have now (7) ________ place across the UK and the idea has spread to many other countries. So if you join Friends Reunited, you can find the person who was your best friend when you were eight, even if he or she's now living on the other side of the world! There may even be some surprises (8) ________ for you! You might (9) ________ that the quiet boy who everyone used to tease in school has now become a professor of Physics, and the tall shy girl has now become a top fashion model with her picture in Vogue magazine. Or, (10) ________, you might find that no one you knew has changed much at all! 1. A. connection B. association C. meeting D. touch 2. A. set up B. made out C. put on D. got off 3. A. for B. down C. in D. out 4. A. players B. holders C. users D. consumers 5. A. price B. fare C. expense D. fee 6. A. organized B. demonstrated C. managed D. controlled 7. A. made B. taken C. given D. done 8. A. in store B. on order C. in place D. en route 9. A. investigate B. identify C. discover D. invent 10. A. in particular B. in effect C. on the whole D. on the other hand (FCE-Use of English) Part 2. This following reading passage has nine paragraphs, A-I. (10 points) List of Headings i A fresh and important long-term goal ii Charging for roads and improving other transport methods iii Changes affecting the distances goods may be transported iv Taking all the steps necessary to change transport patterns v The environmental costs of road transport vi The escalating cost of rail transport vii The need to achieve transport rebalance viii The rapid growth of private transport ix Plans to develop major road networks x Restricting road use through charging policies alone xi Transport trends in countries awaiting EU admission Example: Paragraph F

Answer: vii

What have been the trends and what are the prospects for European transport systems? It is difficult to conceive of vigorous economic growth without an efficient transport system. Although modern information technologies can reduce the demand for physical transport by facilitating teleworking and teleservices, the requirement for transport continues to increase. There are two key factors behind this trend. For passenger transport, the determining factor is the spectacular Đề thi đề xuất – Hùng Vương 2019 – Môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 – Trang 5

growth in car use. The number of cars on European Union (EU) roads saw an increase of three million cars each year from 1990 to 2010, and in the next decade the EU will see a further substantial increase in its fleet. As far as goods transport is concerned, growth is due to a large extent to changes in the European economy and its system of production. In the last 20 years, as internal frontiers have been abolished, the EU has moved from a ”stock” economy to a ”flow” economy. This phenomenon has been emphasised by the relocation of some industries, particularly those which are labour intensive, to reduce production costs, even though the production site is hundreds or even thousands of kilometres away from the final assembly plant or away from users. The strong economic growth expected in countries which are candidates for entry to the EU will also increase transport flows, in particular road haulage traffic. In 1998, some of these countries already exported more than twice their 1990 volumes and imported more than five times their 1990 volumes. And although many candidate countries inherited a transport system which encourages rail, the distribution between modes has tipped sharply in favour of road transport since the 1990s. Between 1990 and 1998, road haulage increased by 19,4%, while during the same period rail haulage decreased by 43,5%, although – and this could benefit the enlarged EU – it is still on average at a much higher level than in existing member states. However, a new imperative-sustainable development – offers an opportunity for adapting the EU's common transport policy. This objective, agreed by the Gothenburg European Council, has to be achieved by integrating environmental considerations into Community policies, and shifting the balance between modes of transport lies at the heart of its strategy. The ambitious objective can only be fully achieved by 2020, but proposed measures are nonetheless a first essential step towards a sustainable transport system which will ideally be in place in 30 years‟ time, that is by 2040. In 1998, energy consumption in the transport sector was to blame for 28% of emissions of CO2，the leading greenhouse gas. According to the latest estimates, if nothing is done to reverse the traffic growth trend, CO2 emissions from transport can be expected to increase by around 50% to 1,113 billion tonnes by 2020，compared with the 739 billion tonnes recorded in 1990. Once again, road transport is the main culprit since it alone accounts for 84% of the CO2 emissions attributable to transport. Using alternative fuels and improving energy efficiency is thus both an ecological necessity and a technological challenge. At the same time greater efforts must be made to achieve a modal shift. Such a change cannot be achieved overnight, all the less so after over half a century of constant deterioration in favour of road. This has reached such a pitch that today rail freight services are facing marginalisation, with just 8% of market share, and with international goods trains struggling along at an average speed of 18km/h. Three possible options have emerged. The first approach would consist of focusing on road transport solely through pricing. This option would not be accompanied by complementary measures in the other modes of transport. In the short term it might curb the growth in road transport through the better loading ratio of goods vehicles and occupancy rates of passenger vehicles expected as a result of the increase in the price of transport. However, the lack of measures available to revitalise other modes of transport would make it impossible for more sustainable modes of transport to take up the baton. The second approach also concentrates on road transport pricing but is accompanied by measures to increase the efficiency of the other modes (better quality of services, logistics, technology). However, this approach does not include investment in new infrastructure, nor does it Đề thi đề xuất – Hùng Vương 2019 – Môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 – Trang 6

guarantee better regional cohesion. It could help to achieve greater uncoupling than the first approach, but road transport would keep the lion’s share of the market and continue to concentrate on saturated arteries, despite being the most polluting of the modes. It is therefore not enough to guarantee the necessary shift of the balance. The third approach, which is not new, comprises a series of measures ranging from pricing to revitalising alternative modes of transport and targeting investment in the trans-European network. This integrated approach would allow the market shares of the other modes to return to their 1998 levels and thus make a shift of balance. It is far more ambitious than it looks, bearing in mind the historical imbalance in favour of roads for the last fifty years, but would achieve a marked break in the link between road transport growth and economic growth, without placing restrictions on the mobility of people and goods. Questions 1 – 5: Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-E from the list of headings below. 1. Paragraph A _______ 2. Paragraph B _______ 3. Paragraph C _______ 4. Paragraph D _______ 5. Paragraph E _______ Questions 6 – 10 Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading Passage? In boxes 610, write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information FALSE if the statement contradicts the information NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this 6. _______ The need for transport is growing, despite technological developments. 7. _______To reduce production costs, some industries have been moved closer to their relevant consumers. 8. _______ Cars are prohibitively expensive in some EU candidate countries. 9. _______ The Gothenburg European Council was set up 30 years ago. 10. _______ By the end of this decade, CO2 emissions from transport are predicted to reach 739 billion tonnes. (IELTS 10- Test 2 – Reading Passage 2, p 22) Part 3. Read the following passage extracted from www.asiatravel.com and select the best answer to each question below. (10 points) Culture Shock is not something that people generally get on a holiday but as soon as your boss calls you into the office and says "Hi John, we value you so much we want you to head our Hong Kong operations!" you really need to start thinking about the implications and how you are going to avoid this condition. It is not so much as a life threatening disease, but it can lead to some very serious problems if you do not take a few precautions. Culture shock is definitely a serious condition that needs to be watched, and checked upon. I personally have suffered from it on numerous occasions and sleep deprivation, mood swings, and depression are all in there. Đề thi đề xuất – Hùng Vương 2019 – Môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 – Trang 7

Travelling to a new destination with unusual habits and traditions can be a very traumatic experience. A little research before you leave will help tremendously but the most important thing is to actually leave with an open mind. A lot of people fly off without any research and expect things to be done in exactly the same way and at the same speed as they were at home. Well this just isn't going to happen. And it is very important to try to understand the culture religion and people of the country that you are travelling to. The culture shock selection of books are a very good starting place, but one that you will not really understand fully until you are actually in the country mingling with the locals. One interesting point of this can be found in the book Culture Shock Thailand. Thai people are among the nicest people in the world but it is a very different world from, let's say, the UK. The book explains a good deal about Thai culture and traditions and it explains how Thais smile their way out of an embarrassing situation and look down on those that don't. The book then puts this into a couple of different examples to try to ensure that the reader understands. One such example is that if you are walking down the street and someone throws dirty water over you from a doorway, you should smile at the person that did this, showing your forgiveness. This should help clear the air and the person will most likely go out of their way to help you clean up. Imagine this happening in London! Thais shy away from confrontation, and this is one of the many aspects that make them such a happy and kind nation. If as an expatriate you are moving to a country with severe Culture Shock such as perhaps Cambodia, or Vietnam, then even more research would be needed. Nowadays you can possibly do a lot more research than ever with the growth of the internet. You can see pictures of pretty much every destination in the world and even read restaurant, hotel and bar reviews without having even left your office. It is also advisable to stay away from a lot of the other expats especially before you leave and while after you arrive in the destination. A lot of expats can be very negative about a country, even though they continue to stay there and this is not something that you need when you have just travelled half way around the world. Instead, leave with an open mind and make your own judgments about the place after you have started to understand it a little. One of the biggest causes, though, of Culture Shock is language. It will make an enormous amount of difference to you if you learn a little or as much as possible of the local language before you leave. Take up classes and practice it as much as you can; if you are studying Thai, eat out at Thai restaurants and try to practice your Thai. This small step will make your life a lot simpler and will also give you immediate respect when you arrive in the foreign country, not to mention open many new doors. If you show an interest in the other person’s language and culture they will show an interest in you. If you are being relocated by your company, try to find out a little about the living conditions in that country and the package that the company offers you. Will they supply you with hotel accommodation or will you be straight into an apartment or house? Are you given a housing allowance and allowed to choose the accommodation yourself? Will the company pay the deposits that the landlord requires? Will you have maids? What about a car? How many return trips will you have a year to your home country? Will they be in economy or business class? What about your family rights - the wife - the husband - the children? How long is the posting for? Will the company pay for repatriation due to illness, or unemployment? Do they have limits to the amount of furniture that you can send over but most importantly bring back? Will they cover these charges? Do they have any restrictions as to how you send these things? Do they offer you insurance that is suitable for the country that you are travelling to? Đề thi đề xuất – Hùng Vương 2019 – Môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 – Trang 8

When you arrive it is important to fit in, get a feel for the place, the smells and the sounds. I would suggest just walking for a day or two experiencing the mystique of the new land you have just discovered. After a while when you are feeling a little more at home join a club, and make friends socially outside of your regular work patterns, and try to meet and befriend as many locals a you can, so that you will really get a deeper understanding of where you and most probably appreciate the differences in culture a lot more. Culture Shock basically comes from a lack of understanding and built up anxiety, and can be caused by the most minute things, building up. One time in Hong Kong a colleague seemed to be literally screaming at the waitress in Cantonese, I was very anxious and asked what was wrong, my colleague looked very confused as to why I was asking the question and she simply replied that she was ordering some water! All in all every expat has had his or her bad days, and there are times you just want to get on a plane and fly back, however these days are minimal compared to the fun, and amazing discoveries that you will make. Once you are bitten by the spirit and feeling of adventure you are about to embark on, you will have more difficulty believe it or not, returning "home" than you imagined especially the longer you stay away. 1. What is the main idea of the reading passage? A. Travelling abroad has some specific negative effects on your feelings due to culture shock. B. It is believed that every expat is certain to encounter culture shock during the overseas trip. C. There are always some things one can do to get over anger and confusion when traveling abroad. D. There is no point in worrying about culture shock in other countries since it is not as serious as people thought. 2. It can be inferred from the third paragraph that _____. A. people’s expectation that the destination country will bear the similarity to their home one is useless B. Most of the countries have unusual habits as one characteristic to help building up culture shock. C. More research should be carried out before the trip so as to avoid understanding unusual habits in a new country. D. People should be open-minded since what they are going to experience will not have much difference to that in their country. 3. Which of the following can best replace the word “traumatic” in the third paragraph? A. fantastic B. upsetting C. unavoidable D. resembling 4. According to the passage, what should people do when Thais cause some annoyance to them? A. Buy a book called Culture Shock Thailand to learn more about the trouble. B. Try to talk to them about the problem in order to clear the air. C. Clean up yourself and continue to walk down the street so as not to have any trouble with them. D. Give them a smile and be tolerant of the situation. 5. What does the writer advise people to do when they arrive in a new country? A. People should arrange a short trip a few days earlier in order to get accustomed to restaurants, hotels and bars in the new place. Đề thi đề xuất – Hùng Vương 2019 – Môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 – Trang 9

B. It’s best not to talk to people who arrived there since they may give irrelevant and negative comments. C. People should make their own judgements right before the trip. D. People should understand the new place a little by staying away from expats because of their negative points. 6. What does the word “it” in the sixth paragraph refer to? A. culture shock B. difference C. classes D. language 7. It can be inferred from the seventh paragraph that ______. A. Shelters should be first considered when people have plans to travel to a country. B. Being aware of the situation in which you live and other services is essential for people’s abroad relocation. C. As soon as people are relocated by their company, they should ask themselves some necessary questions in order to prepare for culture shock. D. People should look down on the offers from the company for the relocation since all questions have already been dealt with. 8. Which of the following phrases can best replace the word “fit in” in the eighth paragraph? A. become involved B. feel the similarity \ C. control feelings D. see the point 9. What can be inferred from the writer’s experience in the restaurant with his colleague during the trip in Hong Kong? A. He felt very annoyed about his colleague. B. The waitress in the restaurant was shocked at her colleague’s screaming. C. A lack of understanding is a cause to culture shock. D. His anxiety was built up during the trip. 10. In the last paragraph, what does the writer mean by saying “you will have more difficulty believe it or not, returning "home" than you imagined especially the longer you stay away”? A. Once people underwent culture shock, they would find it hard to leave the destination country due to its extreme annoyance. B. People would like to stay longer to understand more about the culture shock since they think it is more interesting than annoying. C. Culture shock is inevitable and may cause people to want to return home since the longer people stay the more trouble they have. D. The difficulty in returning home will make people stay longer in the destination country than you expected. Part 4. For questions 1-10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. use only one word in each space. (10 points) Men and women are often considered to be completely at odds with each other, in terms of their attitudes and behaviour. Not so when they are in love, new research has discovered. As far as their hormone levels are (1) _______, when men and women are in love, they are more similar to each other than at any other time. It has (2) _______ been known that love can (3) _______ havoc with hormone levels. For example the hormone cortisol, which is known for its calming effect on the body, dips dramatically when one person is attracted to (4) _______ putting the love-struck on a par with sufferers of obsessive compulsive disorder. Đề thi đề xuất – Hùng Vương 2019 – Môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 – Trang 10

But a new study has found that the hormone testosterone, commonly associated with male aggression, also falls when he is in love. In women, it's quite the (5) _______ Testosterone levels, which (6) _______ to be lower among females, rise towards (7) _______ of the male. Donatella Marazziti of the University of Pisa, Italy, (8) _______ this down to nature attempting to eliminate the differences between the sexes. By doing so, they can concentrate fully on reproduction. This suggestion seems to be supported by the fact that (9) _______couples in a long (10) _______relationship, nor participants in the study who were single at the time of the experiment, exhibited such changes. Part 5. The article is about people who stayed in tree houses. Choose from the people (A- D) to answer the questions. The people may be chosen more than once. (10 points) Which person Question Answer says they probably would not stay in a tree house again? 1 was sometimes keen to get back to the tree house? 2 was glad there was protection from insects? 3 enjoyed the view from the tree house? 4 did not have to walk up to the house? 5 took part in water sports? 6 liked the fact that local people benefit from the tree houses? 7 immediately accepted an unexpected offer? 8 spent a lot of time walking? 9 was pleasantly surprised by the local food? 10 Holidays in a tree house Primary-school teacher Anisha Kapoor went to the Green Magic Nature Resort in Kerala, A south-west India. “It wasn’t my first experience of tree house living,” she says, “but it was certainly the best. I was pleased to see that in a region where there aren’t many jobs, the houses are entirely built and maintained by workers from the area, using traditional techniques and local materials. For instance, the lifts up to the front doors are made of cane grown in nearby fields. They work fine, by the way, and I was glad there was no stairs to climb – the houses are 25 metres up! That’s good, though, because at the height there’s often a cool breeze blowing through the branches. For power there’s solar energy and the taps in the kitchen and bathroom are supplied by pollution-free natural springs in the nearby hills. There’s even a pretty good shower. B

Ever since TV researcher Whitney Martin worked on a programme about tree houses, she’d dreamt about staying in one. So when her neighbours happened to mention they had just such a place in Alaska, and asked whether she’d like to spend a fortnight there in July, she said “yes” without a moment’s hesitation. “I couldn’t believe it when I saw it,” she says, “it had everything: even hot running water and cable TV. Though I rarely watched that because I was out most of the time. Just a few steps from the house there were trails that seemed to go on forever through the forests to some really fantastic rivers and lakes. And of course that far north the days are really long summer, so I could keep going until very late. I hardly ever felt cold, though, and on those occasions when I did, I had a nice warm place of my own to Đề thi đề xuất – Hùng Vương 2019 – Môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 – Trang 11

look forward to. The only disadvantage of being there at that time of the year was the huge number of mosquitoes. I must have been bitten a hundred times.” C

Australian technician Richie O’Hara was a guest at the Hinchinbrook Island Wilderness Lodge, on an island off the north coast of tropical Queensland. “The wooden tree house was quite comfortable,” he says, “and they had all the advertised facilities such as running water and a fridge. Actually, I hadn’t fully read the brochure, so when I arrived, I was surprised to find an internet connection in the house and I wished I’d brought my computer with me. Still, I found plenty of healthy things to do, like canoeing and diving, and in the evening I could sit in the living room looking out above the rainforest to the Pacific beyond. That was great. After a week or so, though, I was a little tired of the climb to and from the house, so I doubt whether I’d repeat the tree-top experience. But I’m sure kids would love it – it’s just a pity I didn’t go there when I was about ten!”

Medical student Kirsty Hammond spent a week in Tanzania’s Lake Manyara National Park, at the Lake Manyara Tree Lodge. “As we approach it,” she says, “we glimpsed the buildings up among the branches, with the Great Rift Valley in the background. It was a wonderful sight. The houses were comfortable, too, with running water, a well-equipped bathroom and, fortunately, large mosquito nets above the beds – I’m very aware of the dangers if they bite you. I also liked the fact that almost everything was above ground, even the restaurant. To be honest, I’d had my doubts about some of the traditional meals I’d seen people eating, but once I tasted them, I realized how good they were. The only problem there was the high night-time temperature: although my bedroom had an overhead fan, I didn’t sleep very well. But generally I had a great time. There’s some fantastic wildlife around, including tree-climbing lions – though perhaps luckily I didn’t actually see any of those.”

SECTION 3. WRITING Part 1. For questions 1-5, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. (10 points) 1. I fully intended to find out who is responsible for the graffiti.

INTENTION

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 2. Absolute secrecy was crucial to the success of the mission.

SUCCESS

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 3. He would never agree to sell his business, even if he received a very temping offer.

OFFER

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 4. Something must be done quickly to solve the problem of homelessness.

ACTION

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 5. Philip’s inability to make decisions dates from his accident.

UNABLE

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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Part 2. For questions 1-5, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. (10 points) 1. Apparently, the restaurant in town has been bought out by someone else. I hear the restaurant in town is ....................................................................................................... 2. Sarah cried her eyes out immediately she was told she'd failed her driving test. Sarah broke..................................................................................................................................... 3. The Government recently said our problems are the fault of the worldwide economic slowdown. The Government have placed......................................................................................................... 4. You led me to believe the job was mine if I wanted it. I was left......................................................................................................................................... 5. He would never have guessed that at the age of 17 he would be playing for his country. Little..................................................................................................................................................... Part 3. Write a paragraph. (30 points) Write a paragraph of at least 200 words about the folloing topic: Learning to play team sport is an important part of a child’s education. Do you agree or disagree? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. (IELTS PRACTICE EXAMS_ PRACTICE TEST 4_ BARRON) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… Đề thi đề xuất – Hùng Vương 2019 – Môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 – Trang 13

Đề thi đề xuất – Hùng Vương 2019 – Môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 – Trang 14

TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XX

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – KHỐI 10 (Hướngdẫnchấmgồmcó 5trang)

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

SECTION 1. LISTENING (50 points) Part 1. (14 points) Items Correct answers

Points

Sun(day) 2nd July

2 3 4 5

9.30 (am) £1,000/one/a thousand pounds (team) captain parents’ permission

2 2 2 2

6 7

(20/twenty) life jackets clothes/clothing/set of clothes

2 2

Part 2. (16 points) Items Correct answers

Points

1 2 3 4

2 2 2 2

thousands of years cheerful alcohol abuse energy

Part 3. (10 points) Items Correct answers

Points

1 2 3

2 2 2

F T F

Part 4. (10 points) Items Correct answers

Points

1 2 3

2 2 2

B D A

Items 5 6 7 8

Items 4 5

Items

4 5

Correct answers

Points

brain damage heavy drinkers heart disease

2 2 2 2

Correct answers

Points

F T

2 2

Correct answers

Points

A B

2 2

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SECTION 2. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40/200) Part 1. (20 points) Items Correct answers Points

Items

Correct answers

Points

1 2 3 4 5 6

D D A A B D

1 1 1 1 1 1

11 12 13 14 15 16

C A B C A D

1 1 1 1 1 1

7 8 9 10

B C C D

1 1 1 1

17 18 19 20

A C B C

1 1 1 1

Part 2. (10 points) Items Correct answers

Points

Items

Correct answers

Points

ASSERTIVENESS

UPCOMING

2 3 4

UNCONVENTIONAL 1 DESPERATE 1 DISHEARTENED 1

7 8 9

WORKPLACES TEMPRAMENT ADOPTIVE

1 1 1

IMPERSONATION

ATMOSPHERIC

Part 3. (10 points) Lines 1 3 4 5 9 7 8 10 12 12

Mistake

rise are consist raising at weights has closed shop stocks children adjacent near

Correction

Points

rising is consists raised on weighs has been closed shop which/that stocks children’s adjacent to

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

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SECTION 3. READING (60/200) Part 1. (10 points) Items Correct answers Points

1 2 3 4 5

Correct answers

Points

1 1 1 1 1

6 7 8 9 10

A B A C D

1 1 1 1 1

Points

Items

Correct answers

Points

2 2 2 2 2

6 7 8 9 10

TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN NOT GIVEN FALSE

2 2 2 2 2

D A B C D

Part 2. (20 points) Items Correct answers

1 2 3 4 5

Items

Paragraph A Paragraph B Paragraph C Paragraph D Paragraph E

viii iii xi i v

Part 3. (10 points) Items Correct answers

Points

1 2 3 4 5

1 1 1 1 1

B A B D B

Items

6 7 8 9 10

Part 4. (10 points) Items Correct answers

Points

1 2 3 4 5

1 1 1 1 1

6 7 8 9 10

Part 5. (10 points) Items Correct answers

Points

Items

1 2 3 4 5

1 1 1 1 1

concerned long play another reverse

C B D C A

Items

6 7 8 9 10

Correct answers

Points

D B A C B

1 1 1 1 1

Correct answers

Points

tend those puts neither terms

1 1 1 1 1

Correct answers

Points

C A B B D

1 1 1 1 1

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SECTION 4. WRITING (50/200) Part 1. (10 points) Items Correct answers 1 2 3 4 5

3 4 5

2 2 2 2 2

I had every intention of finding out who is responsible for the graffiti. Without absolute secrecy the mission wouldn’t have been a success. However tempting the offer was he would never agree to sell his business. Urgent action must be taken to solve the problem of homelessness. Phillip has been unable to make decisions ever since his accident.

Part 2. (10 points) Items 1 2

Points

Correct answers

Points

I hear the restaurant in town is under new management Sarah brokedown in tears as soon as she heard she'd failed her driving test. The Government have placedthe blame on the worldwide economic slowdown for our problems. I was left with the impressionthat the job was mine if I wanted it. Little did he guess/know/realizethat at the age of 17 he would be playing for his country.

2 2 2 2 2

Part 3. (30 points) Môtảtiêuchíđánhgiá

Điểmtốiđa

1. Bốcục o Câudẫnchủđềmạchlạc o Bốcụchợplýrõràng, phùhợpvớiyêucầucủađềbài o Bốcụcuyểnchuyểntừmởbàiđếnkếtluận 2. Pháttriển ý o Pháttriển ý cótrìnhtự logic o Códẫnchứng, vídụ,… đủđểbảovệ ý kiếncủamình 3. Sửdụngngôntừ o Sửdụngngôntừphùhợpvớinội dung o Sửdụngngôntừđúngvănphong, thểloại o Sửdụngtừnốichocác ý uyểnchuyển 4. Nội dung o Đủthuyếtphụcngườiđọc o Đủdẫnchứng, vídụ, lậpluận o Độdài: Sốtừkhôngnhiềuhoặcíthơnquyđịnh 10%

HDC- ĐềxuấtHùngVương 2019- Tiếng Anh lớp 10 - Trang 4

5. Ngữpháp, dấucâu, chínhtả o Sửdụngđúngdấucâu o Chínhtả: Viếtđúngchínhtả Lỗichínhtảgâyhiểulầm/ sailệch ý sẽbịtínhmộtlỗi (trừ 1% điểmcủabàiviết) Cùngmộtlỗichínhtảlặplạichỉtínhmộtlỗi o Sửdụngđúngthời, thể, cấutrúccâuđúngngữpháp. (Lỗingữphápgâyhiểulầm/ sailệch ý sẽbịtrừ 1% điểmcủabàiviết) Tổng

HDC- ĐềxuấtHùngVương 2019- Tiếng Anh lớp 10 - Trang 5

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN THÁI NGUYÊN

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI 10 Ngày thi: …. tháng …. năm 2019 Thời gian: 180 phút Đề thi gồm: 13 trang

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

I. Part 1- LISTENING (50 points) : HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU - Bài nghe gồm 4 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. - Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe. - Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

1. Complete the following notes using NO MORE THAN THREE words/ number for each answer. (14 points) Borchester University Example: Where to get …food…on campus PLACE

CAPACITY

Main Refectory Hall Open: (2) ________

REGULAR MENU

COST

Vegetarian, fish, (1) _______________.

(3) _________ £3

Arts Building Café Open: 9 - 6

tea, coffee, hot chocolate, sandwiches

(5) _________ £1.30

(6) _________ Bar Open: 10 - 4

tea, coffee, (7) ________ sandwiches

Your answers: 1. 5.

space for about (4) _____ people

2. 6.

3. 7.

2. You will hear part of a radio talk about how to choose houseplants. For questions 8-1, complete the sentences that summarize what the speaker says with NO MORE THAN THREE words. You will hear the recording twice. Write your answer in the box provided. (16 points) Before you get the plant, choose the (8)____________________. You must make sure there is enough (9)____________________. Check that plants have been well looked after at the garden centre. Plants in poor condition mean the garden centre might not be (10)_______________. Choose plants with healthy green (11)____________________. It could take months or years for a plant to reach the size you want. It may be better to buy a large plant even if it is (12)____________________. Do not buy plants that have just been put (13)____________________. It is not a good idea to buy plants in (14) _____________________. 1

You should look under the leaves for unwanted (15)_____________________. Your answers: 8. 12.

9. 13.

10. 14.

11. 15.

3. Listen to a nutritionist called Penny Flack talking about the effects of health and diet in some countries around the world. Are these statements True (T) or False (F)? (10 points) EATING FOR HEALTH 1 A quarter of Europeans and Americans are now said to be obese. 2 American politicians have been discussing how to tackle the causes and consequences of obesity. 3 High-fat cheese and meat is causing the French to become obese. 4 Heart disease is becoming more common in Japan and Greenland. 5 Scientists have discovered that a number of spices used in Indian cooking can improve brain health. Your answers: 1.

4. You are going to listen to a journalist called Max Wilson talking about a book about luck in sport by Matthew Syed. Listen to the whole interview and choose the best answer A, B, or C. (10 points) 1. Max says that top sportspeople usually believe their success is due to A. good fortune B. hard work C. natural skill 2. According to Max, the examples of recent sporting achievements prove A. that people in general have become stronger and fitter B. that standards are getting higher C. that technology is responsible for improved performance 3. In the book Matthew Syed says he had a greater chance of success because of A. his parentsâ&#x20AC;&#x2122; love of table tennis. B. his competitive brother. C. his own ambition. 4. That advantage is mentioned of the Omega Club when Matthew joined? A. It was open all the time. B. It had a lot of good players. C. It had great facilities. 5. Max says that a ten-year investigation has shown that lucky people A. believe they will succeed. B. look for good opportunities. C. depend less on talent. Your answers: 2

1. 2. 3. Part II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR: 40/200

1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.(20 points)

1. I always take my lucky _________with me into an exam. A. sign B. item C. charm D. spell 2. I didn’t know my guess was going to be right – It was just __________ A. pot luck B. odds C. draw D. gamble 3. Why are all your clothes in a __________on the floor? A. bulk B. heap C. batch D. sum 4. Sending out e-mails that people haven’t asked for to ______addresses is often known. A. sufficient B. countless C. widespread D. multiple 5. We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is ________ the law. A. beyond B. over C. above D. onto 6. We are pleased to inform you that we have decided to _________your request for British citizenship. A. give B. grant C. permit D. donate 7. We can only _______ as to the causes of the disaster. A. think B. consider C. speculate D. ponder 8. The professor’s _______ theory is that singing preceded speech. A. preferable B. pet C. fond D. fancied 9. I’m not sure if I’m doing it right, but I’ll try to ___________ahead with it anyway. A. drive B. bang C. touch D. press 10. Could you lend me some money to _____________ me over to the end of the month? A. hand B. tide C. get D. make 11. I’m not a serious investor, but I like to _______ in the stock market. A. splash B. splatter C. paddle D. dabble 12. Who else is of the ______ that we should break the camp? A. conclusion B. opinion C. remark D. theory 13. The local press has been pouring ______ on the mayor for dissolving the council. A. blame B. hatred C. disapproval D. scorn 14. I’m ______ too keen on visiting the Parkers again so soon. A. that B. none C. such D. very 15. If I make a fool of myself in front of my friends, I’ll never ________ it down. A. let B. give C. settle D. live 16. Because of his poor health, it took him along time to ________ his bad cold. A. throw off B. throw away C. throw down D. throw over 17. In spite of his poor education, he was the most ________ speaker. A. articulate B. ambiguous C. attentive D. authoritarian 18. “Another cup of coffee?” — “No, but thanks __________. A. not at all B. for all C. all the same D. you for all 19. He said he would contribute money, but later he backed ___________of it. A. down B. away C. off D. out 3

20. Can you recite the alphabet___________? A. reverse B. around C. backwards Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4.

D. returned

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

2. Give the correct form of the word in the brackets. (10 pts) 1. Deforestation and excessive farming have _____________ the soil. (POOR) 2. In his _____________, Mike smashed all the breakable items in the kitchen. (FURIOUS) 3. The building looks a bit ______________ from the outside but itâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s quite traditional inside. (FUTURE) 4. I sat completely ____________as the spider crawled along my arm. (MOTION) 5. The heavy snow meant that the mountain roads were ____________for over a week. (PASS) 6. She was charged with being disorderly and ____________. (INTOXICANT) 7. The damage caused by the terrible storm two days ago was____________ by the government. The real figures go up every minute. (ESTIMATE) 8. They exchanged ____________ for a few minutes before saying goodbye. (PLEASANT) 9. There is a decline in the ____________ of cigarette smoking among young men. (PREVAIL) 10. They are planning for an advertising campaign to ____________the new film. (PUBLIC) Your answers: 1.

10.

3. There are 10 mistakes in the passage. Find out and correct them. (10 points) Line After inventing dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became very rich man. Therefore, he foresaw its universally destructive powers too late. Nobel preferred not to remember as the inventor of dynamite, so in 1895, just two weeks before his death, he created a fund to be used 5 for rewarding prizes to people who had made worthwhile contributions to mankind. Originally there were five awards: literature, physics, chemistry, medicine, and peace. Economy was added in 1968, just sixty-seven years after the first award ceremony. Nobelâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s original legacy of nine millions dollars was invested, and the interest in this 4

sum is used for the awards which vary from 30,000 to 125,000. Every year on December 10, the anniversary of Nobelâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s death, the awards (gold medal, illuminated diploma, and money) is presented to the winners. Sometimes politics plays an important role in the judges decisions. Americans have won numerous science awards, but relatively few literature prizes. No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of World War II. Some people have won two prizes, but this is scarce; others have shared their prizes.

Your answers: Line 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Mistakes

Corrections

Part III. READING (60 pts) 1. Fill the blanks with one of four options to complete the passage (10 points) Romaniaâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s name itself suggests what makes it different from its neighbours. The connection is with the Imperial Rome and coming from that is the language which sounds like Italian. The country is about the (1)_________ of Great Britain and has a population of 23 million, of whom ninety percent are Romanians. The scenery is (2) _________: mountainous areas with summer and winter resorts, a marvellous stretch of the Danube as it descends towards the Iron Gates, not to mention castles, palaces and monasteries with impressive frescoes. There are also historic towns from the 13th of century, Black Sea beach resorts and the astonishing bird-life of the (3)_________ Danube delta. And if this is not enough, there are no (4) _________ than 160 spas offering cures for nearly every illness (5)_________ to man. Romania is perhaps most famous abroad for being the home of Dracula the famous creation of the Irish writer, Bram Stoker. However, while the story is (6)_________, the character is based on a Romanian prince called Vlad Dracula (son of Dracul) or Tepes (the Impaler) because of such cruelty (7) _________ his enemies. On one occasion he is supposed to have sat down to a meal to enjoy the spectacle of some prisoners (8)_________ their arms and legs cut off. He asked for their blood to be collected and brought to him as a dip for his bread.

So, when you visit Romania you may like to visit Bran Castle which was built in 1377 and is the castle most (9)_________ identified with Dracula. But, if you do, don’t forget how much (10)_________ there is to see in Romania. 1. A. size B. area C. proportion D. extent 2. A. different B. various C. varied D. diverse 3. A. tremendous B. vast C. huge D. gigantic 4. A. better B. less C. more D. fewer 5. A. belonging B. familiar C. known D. accustomed 6. A. false B. fiction C. fake D. unauthentic 7. A. regarding B. with C. for D. towards 8. A. when B. while C. having D. with 9. A. tightly B. closely C. nearly D. strictly 10. A. else B. more C. remaining D. left Your answers: 1. 2. 6. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

2. Fill each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. (10 pts) THE CUCKOO ROLLER OF MADAGASCAR This bird is about the same size as the European roller, and has many features in common (1)________ its near relatives. (2) ________ the European family, however, the cuckoo roller can reverse its outer toes, (3) ________ it to perch by gripping a branch with two toes forward and two back. Its eating habits are also quite different. (4) ________ nearly all other rollers take food on the wing or pluck reptiles or large insects from the ground, the cuckoo roller stays high up in the forest canopy, (5) ________ on caterpillars, stick insects and, most important of all, chameleons. Subtly blending its colours to the forest backcloth, and (6) ________ leaving the safety of the branches except to cross from one tree to another, the chameleon is an elusive prey. Even on open ground, (7) ________ myriad dangers it normally avoids, the chameleon’s slow, swaying walk makes it difficult to see against the leaves. (8) ________ good is it camouflage that the cuckoo roller has to put up with long periods of watching and waiting, (9) ________ a tell-tale movement betrays its victim’s presence. At least, experts assume this is what happens, because despite the fact that this bird is widespread throughout Madagascar, (10) ________ observer has yet seen it in the process of catching its prey. Your answers: 1. 2. 6. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

3. Read the passage and choose one of four options to answer the questions (10 pts) It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What causes extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a change 6

environment, it may perish. The exact causes of a species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be adapt. Food resources may be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources. Other species may become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the death of a species. The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same time - a mass extinction. One of the best - known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago, when approximately 95 percent of all species died. Mass extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction. One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million years have tended to be more intense every 26 million years. The periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also speculated that extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no particular reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of revolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events. 1: The underlined word “ ultimately “ is closest in meaning to A. exceptionally B. unfortunately C. eventually D. dramatically 2: What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history? A. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes. B. They have caused rapid change in the environment . C. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms D. They are no longer in existence. 3: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological change? A. Availability of food resources B. Introduction of new species C. Temperature changes D. Competition among species 4: The word “demise” is closest in meaning to A. help B. death. C. recovery D. change 5: Why is “ plankton” mentioned in the second paragraph? A. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction B. To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in the ocean 7

C. To point out that certain species could never become extinct D. To demonstrate the interdependence of different species 6: According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that A. There has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history. B. Extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history. C. Extinctions on Earth have generally been massive. D. Dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed. 7: The underlined word “ finding” is closest in meaning to A. published information B. research method C. scientific discovery. D. ongoing experiment 8: Which of the following can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction mentioned in paragraph 3? A. The theory is no longer seriously considered. B. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate. C. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it. D. Evidence to support the theory has recently been found. 9: In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species’ survival? A. It is associated with astronomical condition B. It may depend on chance events. C. It does not vary greatly from species to species D. It reflects the interrelationship of may species. 10: According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of the species occurred A. 65 million years ago B. 250 million years ago C. 225 million years ago D. 26 million years ago Your answers: 1. 2. 6. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

4. Read the following passage then do the tasks that follow. (10 pts) HOW DOES THE BIOLOGICAL CLOCK TICK? A Our life span is restricted. Everyone accepts this as 'biologically' obvious. ‘Nothing lives for ever!’ However, in this statement we think of artificially produced, technical objects, products which are subjected to natural wear and tear during use. This leads to the result that at some time or other the object stops working and is unusable ('death' in the biological sense). But are the wear and tear and loss of function of technical objects and the death of living organisms really similar or comparable? B Our ‘dead’ products are ‘static’, closed systems. It is always the basic material which constitutes the object and which, in the natural course of things, is worn down and becomes 'older’. Ageing in this case must occur according to the laws of physical chemistry and of thermodynamics. Although the same law holds for a living 8

organism, the result of this law is not inexorable in the same way. At least as long as a biological system has the ability to renew itself it could actually become older without ageing; an organism is an open, dynamic system through which new material continuously flows. Destruction of old material and formation of new material are thus in permanent dynamic equilibrium. The material of which the organism is formed changes continuously. Thus our bodies continuously exchange old substance for new, just like a spring which more or less maintains its form and movement, but in which the water molecules are always different. C Thus ageing and death should not be seen as inevitable, particularly as the organism possesses many mechanisms for repair. It is not, in principle, necessary for a biological system to age and die. Nevertheless, a restricted life span, ageing, and then death are basic characteristics of life. The reason for this is easy to recognise: in nature, the existent organisms either adapt or are regularly replaced by new types. Because of changes in the genetic material (mutations) these have new characteristics and in the course of their individual lives they are tested for optimal or better adaptation to the environmental conditions. Immortality would disturb this system - it needs room for new and better life. This is the basic problem of evolution D Every organism has a life span which is highly characteristic. There are striking differences in life span between different species, but within one species the parameter is relatively constant. For example, the average duration of human life has hardly changed in thousands of years. Although more and more people attain an advanced age as a result of developments in medical care and better nutrition, the characteristic upper limit for most remains 80 years. A further argument against the simple wear and tear theory is the observation that the time within which organisms age lies between a few days (even a few hours for unicellular organisms) and several thousand years, as with mammoth trees. E If a lifespan is a genetically determined biological characteristic, it is logically necessary to propose the existence of an internal clock, which in some way measures and controls the aging process and which finally determines death as the last step in a fixed programme. Like the fife span, the metabolic rate has for different organisms a fixed mathematical relationship to the body mass. In comparison to the life span this relationship is ‘inverted’: the larger the organism the lower its metabolic rate. Again this relationship is valid not only for birds, but also, similarly on average within the systematic unit, for all other organisms (plants, animals, unicellular organisms). F Animals which behave ‘frugally’ with energy become particularly old for example, crocodiles and tortoises. Parrots and birds of prey are often held chained up. Thus they are not able to ‘experience life’ and so they attain a high life span in captivity. Animals which save energy by hibernation or lethargy (e.g. bats or hedgehogs) live much longer than those which are always active, The metabolic rate of mice can be reduced by a very low consumption of food (hunger diet) They then may live twice as long as their well fed comrades. Women become distinctly (about 10 per cent) older than men. If you examine the metabolic rates of the two sexes you establish that the higher male metabolic rate roughly accounts for the lower male life span. That means that they live life ‘energetically’ - more intensively, but not for as long. 9

G It follows from the above that sparing use of energy reserves should tend to extend life. Extreme high performance sports may lead to optimal cardiovascular performance, but they quite certainly do not prolong life. Relaxation lowers metabolic rate, as does adequate sleep and in general an equable and balanced personality. Each of us can develop his or her own ‘energy saving programme’ with a little self observation, critical self-control and, above all, logical consistency. Experience will show that to live in this way not only increases the life span but is also very healthy. This final aspect should not be forgotten. The Reading Passage has seven paragraphs, A-G, For question 1-6, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i-x, in the corresponding numbered boxes. LIST OF HEADINGS i ii iii iv v vi vii viii ix x

The biological clock Why dying is beneficial The ageing process of men and women Prolonging your life Limitations of life span Modes of development of different species A stable life span despite improvements Energy consumption Fundamental differences in ageing of objects and organisms Repair of genetic material

Example answer: Paragraph A: v Your answers 1. Paragraph B 2. Paragraph C 3. Paragraph D …............. …............. …............. 4. Paragraph E 5. Paragraph F 6. Paragraph G …............. …............. …............. Questions 7-10, complete the notes below Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 7-10 • Objects age in accordance with principles of (7) __________ and of (8) _________ • Through mutations, organisms can (9) __________ better to the environment • (10) __________ would pose a serious problem for the theory of evolution Your answers 7. 8.

10.

5. You are going to read an article in which four people comment on a book they have read recently. For questions 1-10, choose from the people A-D. The people may be chosen more than once (10pts) A - Sundance by Teresa Wilson Kerry: I really don't know why this book is so popular. I mean, I suppose it is going to appeal to young girls who want danger and romance, but I found this book really tedious. For a start, the characters were really unconvincing. The author went out of her way to add lots of details about the characters, but I found these details really pointless. I thought that some of the facts she presented about the main characters would become significant in some way later in the novel, but they didn't. They were just worthless bits of information. I also was disappointed that, although this book is meant to be about kids at high school, the writer seems to have no recollection at all about what it's like to be 17. The main character thought and acted like a 32-year old. It just wasn't believable. I'm not saying Teresa Wilson is a bad writer. She can obviously string words together and come up with a story that is appealing to a large number of people, but she lacks anything original. There is no flair. It just uses the same sort of language as you can see in many other mediocre novels. B - Wild Ways by Margery Emerson Liz: I have to say that I won't forget this book for a long time. I was hooked from the very first chapter. The devastating story affected me so much that I don't know if I'll ever feel the same again. I was close to tears on several occasions. I've got images in my brain now that I don't think will ever leave me. It's incredibly well-researched and, although it is fiction, is based on shocking real-life events. I learned an awful lot about things that went on that I never knew before. Margaret Emerson has a brilliant way with words and I really felt real empathy towards the characters, although I was sometimes irritated by the choices they made. However, the parallel story, the part that is set in the present, is not quite so good. I found myself just flicking through that part so that I could get back to 1940s Paris. C - Orchid by Henry Rathbone Imogen: This is a delightful novel full of wonderful imagery, a paints a remarkable picture of life in a distant time and a far-away place. If you're looking to learn about Eastern culture in great detail, then this is probably not the book for you, as the writer skims over most of the more complicated aspects of the country's etiquette. The historical 11

aspects are also not covered in much depth. However, I wonder whether this was the writer's intention. By doing this, he symbolise the superficiality of the girl's life. She, like the book, is beautiful and eager to please, but remains too distant from us, the readers, to teach us much. Although I loved the book and read it in one sitting, the ending was a bit of a disappointment. A story which involves so much turmoil, in a place where the future is uncertain, should not have a happy-ever-after fairy-tale ending. D - High Hills by Mary Holland Hannah: I read this book for a literature class. I know it's a classic, and I did try to like it, but I just didn't get into it. I kept persevering, hoping that I'd start to enjoy it, but no such luck. The famous scene out on the moors was definitely the best bit of the book, but even that I found ridiculous when it is clearly supposed to be passionate. As I approached the end of the book, I figured there must be some kind of moral to the story, something that I would learn from the experience of trudging through seven hundred long pages, but there was nothing worthwhile. I don't know why the literary world sees this book as such a masterpiece. The characters are portrayed as being intelligent, but they do such stupid things! And as for it being a love story - marrying someone you don't love and then being abused by them - that doesn't spell love to me. Which person read a book whichâ&#x20AC;Ś. 1. was set in an Oriental country _______________ 2. finished in an unrealistic way _______________ 3. had characters that the reader could sympathise with _______________ 4. is well-known and was written a long time ago _______________ 5. contained two stories _______________ 6. was not set in the past _______________ 7. was historically accurate _______________ 8. made the reader cry _______________ 9. contained insignificant details _______________ 10. has a well-known scene _______________ Your answers: 1. 2. 6. 7.

Part IV

3. 8.

4. 9.

WRITING: 50/200 1. Rewriting sentences (Beginning with the given words) 12

5. 10.

2. Rewriting sentences (Key words given) 3. Writing a paragraph

5 1

10 30

PART IV: WRITING ( 50 pts) 1/ Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given. Don’t change the word given. You must use between three and eight words including the word given. (10pts) 1. Carol has trouble communicating her ideas to other. (ACROSS) Carol …………………………………………….............. 2. Tom’s presence at parties adds to everyone’s enjoyment. (SOUL). Tom………………………………………………………………… parties. 3. His colleague will do anything to avoid confrontation. (LENGTHS) His colleague ………………………………………………to avoid confrontation. 4. Margaret is said to be a very good cook. (REPUTATION) -> Margaret……………………………………………………very good cook.

5. I think this word comes from ancient Greece. (DERIVED) -> …………………………………………………………………………………… b/ Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence.(10 pts) 1. Whatever the methods used to obtain the result, drugs were definitely not involved. -> There was no question ............................................................................................. 2. She chooses the kinds of the hotels she stays in very carefully. -> She is very fussy………………………………………………………………… 3. Although the papers claim that they are going to get divorced, they are not. -> Contrary ……………………………………………………………………….. 4. I have been told that you have been late for work every day this week. -> It has been brought ……………………………………………………. 5. The fund-raisers haven’t officially decided where to send the proceeds of the concert. -> No ………………………………………………………………………… 3. Write a paragraph of about 150 -180 words to express your opinion on the following topic (30 points) “Modern technology has increased our material wealth but not our happiness”

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ĐÁP ÁN 1. Complete the following notes using NO MORE THAN THREE words/ number for each answer. (14 points) Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. pasta and salad 11.30-2.30 £1.50 50 5. 6. 7. £1.15 Theatre toasted 2. You will hear part of a radio talk about how to choose houseplants. For questions 8-1, complete the sentences that summarize what the speaker says with NO MORE THAN THREE words. You will hear the recording twice. Your answers: 8. location 9. sunlight 10. very trustworthy 11. leaves and stems 12. more expensive 13. in pots 14. plastic bags 15.insects or diseases 3. Listen to a nutritionist called Penny Flack talking about the effects of health and diet in some countries around the world. Are these statements True (T) or False (F)? (10 pts) Your answers: 1. T

2. F

3. F

4. F

5. T

4. You are going to listen a journalist called Max Wilson talking about a book about luck in sport by Matthew Syed. Listen to the whole interview and choose the best answer A, B, or C.(10 pts) Your answers: 1. B 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. B Part II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR: 40/200 Your answers: 1. C 2. A 3. B 6.B 7.C 8.B 11.D 12.B 13.D 16.A 17.A 18.C

4. D 9.D 14.B 19.D

5. C 10.B 15.D 20.C

2. Give the correct form of the word in the brackets. Your answers: 1. impoverished 2. fury 3. futuristic 4. motionless 5. impassable 6. intoxicated 7. underestimated 8. pleasantries 9. prevalence 10. publicize 3. There are 10 mistakes in the passage. Find out and correct them. (10 3. There are 10 mistakes in the passage. Find out and correct them. (10 points) Line Mistakes Corrections 1. 1 very -> a very 2. 2 Therefore -> However 3. 3 remember -> be remembered 4. 5 rewarding -> awarding 5. 7 Economy -> Economics 6. 9 millions -> million 7. 9 in -> on 8. 12 is -> are 9. 13 judges -> judges’ 1

10.

scarce

-> rare

C. READING 1. Fill the blanks with one of four options to complete the passage (10 points) 1. A 2.C 3.B 4.D 6.B 7.D 8.C 9.B 2. Fill each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. 1. with 2. Unlike 3. enabling/ allowing 6. seldom/rarely/ 7. whose 8. so never

4. While/ Whereas/ Although 9. until/ before

5.C 10.A

5. feeding 10. no

3. Read the passage and choose one of four options to answer the questions (10 pts) 1. C 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. B 7.C 8. C 9. B 10. C 4. Read the following passage then do the tasks that follow. (10 pts)

1. ix 2. ii 3. vii 4. i 5. viii 6. iv

7. physical chemistry 8. thermodynamics 9. adapt 10. immortality (7 and 8 can be in either order)

5. You are going to read an article in which four people comment on a book they have read recently. For questions 1-10, choose from the people A-D. The people may be chosen more than once Which person read a book which... 1. was set in an Oriental country _____ Imogen __________ 2. finished in an unrealistic way _____ Imogen __________ 3. had characters that the reader could sympathise with ______ Liz _________ 4. is well-known and was written a long time ago ______ Hannah:_________ 5. contained two stories _______ Liz ________ 6. was not set in the past _______ Kerry ________ 7. was historically accurate ____ Liz ___________ 8. made the reader cry ______ Liz _________ 9. contained insignificant details ____ Kerry ___________ 10. has a well-known scene ______ Hannah:_________ PART IV: WRITING ( 60 pts) 1/ Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given. Donâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t change the word given. You must use between three and eight words including the word given. 1. Carol has trouble getting her ideas across 2. Tom is (always) the life and soul of parties 3. His colleague will go to any lengths to avoid confrontation 4.Margaret has a reputation for being a very good cook 2

5. I think this word is derived from ancient Greek. 2/ Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence. 1.There was no question of drugs being involved, whatever the methods used to obtain the result 2. she is very fussy about the kind of the hotels she stays in. 3. Contrary to what the papers claim, they are not going to get divorced. 4. It has been brought to my attention that you have been late for work every day this week. 5. No official decision(s) on where to send the proceeds of the concert has (/have) been made by the fund-raisers.

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN TUYÊN QUANG --------------Đề thi gồm: 14 trang

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT TRẠI HÈ HÙNG VƯƠNG LẦN THỨ XV MÔN: TIẾNG ANH. LỚP 10 Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

PART I. LISTENING (50p) Section 1. You will hear an interview to do a quesstionaire on the residency on the north. For questions from 1 to 7, fill in each gap with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER. (14p) North Residency Questionaire Example Age of the interview 19 Current occupation: 1. ___________________ Length of living in the North 9 years Exact living area: 2. ___________________ Type of accommodation: A shared 3. ___________________ Private transport: On foot and by bike Public transport: Take the 4. ___________________ or a taxi. Frequency of eating out 5. ___________________ Preferred exercises: Go swimming Go to the gym Go 6. ___________________ Part-time course: 7. ___________________ Your answers 1. 5.

2. 6.

3. 7.

Section 2. Listen to the recording and complete each of the following sentences with NO MORE THAN two words AND/ OR a number (16p) Janet can now do voluntary work because she is free of 1. ______________. Most of Janet’s friends were 2. ______________ by her decision to volunteer. Janet disagrees with people who say that she is 3. __________ the people whe is trying to help. Janet advised on a project to improve 4. ______________ in a farming community. The villagers had been dependent on 5. ______________ from charities to survive. The scheme aimed to make the villagers 6. ______________ in agricultural production. Janet’s job was to help the villagers sell any 7. ______________ crops. She believes that the 8. ________ of the village have been changed dramatically by the scheme.

Your answers 1. 5.

2. 6.

3. 7.

4. 8.

Section 3. You are going to listen to Martin talking about his journey from London to Avignon by car. Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F). Check (√) the appropriate boxes. You will hear the talk TWICE. T F 1. The man claimed he invented the idea of wrapping cars with advertisement. 2. People interested in having their cars wrapped must take a survey. 3. Ads on the Move will pay car owners over $300 a month to wrap their car. 4. The cost of advertising on billboards is going up. 5. The woman is interested in having her car wrapped. Section 4: You will hear part of a radio interview in which David Evans, a chef in a British school, is talking about his work. Choose the answer (А, В, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10p) 1.What was the students’s initial reaction to the food they were served? A. They didn’t like being the subjects of an experiment. B. They would rather have eaten traditional British food. C. They were not sure whether it was good or bad. D. They felt that it was an adventure for them. 2. According to David, why do some students have difficulty in accepting the “restaurant system”? A. They are uncomfortable eating meals with adults. B. They are not used to having meals with others. C. They don’t like talking about food. D. It takes too long to be served their food. 3. What main role do the staff play in the school restaurant? A. They check that students are eating their meals. B. They learn about the students’ home lives. C. They deal with students’ complaints about the food. D. They help students learn about a balanced diet. 4. In David’s view, which of his previous jobs prepared him best for his work as a school chef? A. teacher B. manager C. waiter D. cook 5. Why does David think that his approach could be difficult to introduce on other schools? A. Many students are resistant to change. B. Not all students see healthy eating as important. 2

C. Other schools don’t see healthy eating as a priority. D. Parents would be unwilling to accept it. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4.

PART II. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (40p) Section 1. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each blank in the following sentences. (20p) 1. Simon has a very strong _____ of duty so he will always carry out his promises. A. sense B. idea C. mind D. thought 2. I slept badly last night and am feeling particularly _______ this morning. A. far-reaching B. slow-witted C. off-hand D. top-heavy 3. My older brother is extremely fond of astronomy, he seems to ______ a lot of pleasure from observing the stars. A. possess B. seize C. reach D. derive 4. I’m sorry to _______ to your conversation but there’s an urgent message for you. A. come in B. bump in C. butt in D. pop in 5. I’m not keen on ______ control of the project to a relative newcomer. A. undertaking B. charging C. entrusting D. allowing 6. She went under ________ as a waitress to write an article on tipping. A. cover B. act C. pose D. mask 7. Even at that early state the school felt that she ________ a good chance of passing her exams. A. possessed B. stood C. gained D. took 8. His speech ________ little or no relation to the topic given. A. gave B. reflected C. bore D. was 9. He ______ in me on the understanding that I wouldn’t tell anyone else. A. intimated B. confessed C. disclosed D. confided 10. We intend to ________ with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one. A. do up B. do away C. do in D. do down 11. There is a huge amount of _______ associated with children’s TV nowadays. A. produce B. manufacturing C. merchandising D. sales 12. As the order to abandon the ship was given, hundreds of people _________ into the icy water. A. plunged B. emerged C. drowned D. submerged 13. Not once did I see him _______ a finger to help in the home. A. shift B. move C. click D. lift 14. The engineers won’t be able to repair the telephone system until they can _________ the cause of the fault. A. separate B. isolate C. estimate D. concentrate 3

15. He was ________ writer because he persuaded many people to see the truth of his ideas. A. an exceptionally B. a prolific C. an unlimited D. an influential 16. They are happily married although, of course, they argue ________. A. most times B. from day to day C. every now and then D. on the occasion 17. It is physically impossible for any human being to ________ such extreme cold for long. A. endure B. persist C. withhold D. last 18. Terry is an old _____ of mine. We split up nine years ago but we’ve stayed friends. A. fire B. flame C. spark D. blaze 19. You know how I worry about you driving at night. Call me when you arrive to set my mind ________ . A. easy B. at peace C. calm D. at rest 20. I slept badly last night and I am feeling particularly _________ this morning. A. far-reaching B. off-hand C. slow-witted D. top-heavy Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. Section 2. Fill each gap with the correct form of the words in brackets. (10p) 1. Be careful. You may be ________ to put all your eggs in one basket. (ADVICE) 2. The cancellation of the ccase resulted from the ________ in court of the defendant resulted in. (APPEAR) 3. I’ve never met such a strong girl. Her energy seems ________. (EXHAUST) 4. It is very diffcult to find Mrs. Pie’s shop, for it was ________ from all others in the street. (DISTINGUISH) 5. Students hate their classmates who get ________ treatment form their teachers. (PREFER) 6. The educational program we are launching is to ________ teenage girls in rural areas. (POWER) 7. Doesn’t she know that her good result will make her parents ________ proud of her? (MEASURE) 8. A list of ________ events for the autumn is being prepared. (COME) 9. Most people who work feel that they are ________ (PAY) 10. She was the only visitor ________ into the sick room. (ADMISSION) Your answers: 1. 6.

2. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

Section 3. The passage below contains TEN mistakes. Underline the mistakes and provide the corrections in the spaces below. (10p) Crime preventing is as crucial in the workplace as it is in the home or neighbourhood. Reducing crime is as much a part of good management as prompt delivery, good staff relations, and other acceptable management functions. Losses from shops through shoplifting are extremely high and utimately, those losses are payment for by all of us in high prices. There are many opportunities for shopkeepers themselves to reduce shoplifting. As with all types of criminal, prevention is better than cure. The best deterrent is the present of staff properly trained in how to identify potential shoplifters. There are also many secure devices now available. Video camera surveillance is a popular system, even with quite small retailers. In clothes shopping, magnetic tag marking systems that set off an alarm if they are taken out of the shop have proved their worthless. However, there are many simpler measures that retailers should consider. Better lighting and ceiling-hung mirrors can help staff to watch all parts of the display area. Similarly, simply arrangement shelves and display units to allow clear fields of visible is a good deterrent

Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Line 1 Line 2 Line 3 Line 4 Line 5 Line 6 Line 7 Line 8 Line 9 Line 10 Line 11 Line 12

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

PART III. READING (60p) Section 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in corresponding numbered boxes. (10p) Homestay When studying a foreign language abroad, a large majority of students choose “homestay” accommodation, living with a host family while they (1)_____ classes in a nearby language school. Very (2)_____, however, once lessons have finished, students speak their mother tongue with other class members of the same nationality. On a Homestay Language International study trip, we ensure total immersion in the target language environment by arranging accommodation and one-to-one tuition in your teacher’s home, (3)_____ you are surrounded by the language during every moment of your (4)_____. As you are the (5)_____ student, you can learn at your own pace, and lessons are tailormade to (6)_____ your individual interests and objectives. You will also have the chance to (7)_____ fully in your host teacher’s family and social life, including trips to places of interest in the local area. All of our teachers have a university degree and a relevant teaching qualification, and most hav spent time abroad so understand the needs and concerns of their student guests. Homestay Language International offers a wide (8)_____ of general or business courses for young and old alike, with a choice of over 80 (9)_____ throughout the world. Whether it’s 5

English in New Zealand, French in Canada or German in Austria you can (10)_____ a warm welcome in a relaxed home environment and an unforgettable study experience. 1.A. assist B. present C. attend D. go 2. A. more B. often C. much D. well 3. A. because of B. in case C. in order D. so that 4. A. halt B. pause C. stop D. stay 5. A. only B. alone C. unique D. lonely 6. A. agree B. adapt C. suit D. adjust 7. A. enjoy B. involve C. participate D. include 8. A. sort B. kind C. type D. range 9. A. terminals B. destinations C. stations D. destinies 10. A. expect B. wait C. reach D. hope Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Section 2. Read the passage and fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10p ) FUNCTIONAL FOODS st In the 21 century food will do more than just feed you. A new range of products appearing (1) _____ shelves in shops and supermarkets is designed to give you specific health benefits. The demands of modern life make these foods very attractive. Not only do they provide proven ways to improve health, but they are also very attractive (2) _____ a quick and convenient way of making sure we enjoy a healthy diet. In some countries it is already possible to buy crisps that make you feel (3) _____ depressed, chewing gum that increases your brain power and tea that helps you (4) _____ over the tiredness associated with long-distance air travel. (5) _____ the future, experts promise biscuits that will keep your heart healthy, and a hot chocolate drink to give you strong bones. Despite the fact that these “functional” foods cannot replace a balanced diet and regular exercise they can help the body perform at (6) _____ best a lot of the time. At present, these foods are more expensive than other foods, but that is due to the ingredients they (7) _____ of and the way they are made. All the foods contain probiotics (8) _____ increase the number of “good” bacteria in your stomach, helping to keep your digestive system healthy. There may even (9) _____ a functional food to protect eyesight, so keep an eye out as you never know (10) _____ you might be eating tomorrow. Your answers: 1. 6.

2. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

Section 3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the following questions. Write your answers in the box provided. (10p) Population ecology is the science that measures changes in population size and composition and identities the causes of these fluctuations. Population ecology is not concerned solely with the human population. In ecological terms, a population consists of the individuals of one species that simultaneously occupy the same general area, rely on the same resources, and are affected by similar environmental factors. The characteristics of a population are shaped by its size and by the interactions among individuals and between individuals and their environment. Population size is a balance between factors that increase numbers and factors that decrease numbers. Some factors that increase populations are favorable light and temperature, adequate food supply, suitable habitat, ability to compete for resources, and ability to adapt to environmental change. Factors that decrease populations are insufficient or excessive light and temperature, inadequate food supply, unsuitable or destroyed habitat, too many competitors for resources, and inability to adapt to environmental change. Another important characteristic of any population is its density. Population density is the number of individuals per unit, such as the number of maple trees per square kilometer in a county. Ecologists can rarely determine population size by actually counting all individuals within geographical boundaries. Instead, they often use a variety of sampling techniques to estimate densities and total population sizes. For example, they might estimate the number of black bears in a national park by counting individuals in a few sample plots representative of the whole park. In some cases, they estimate population size through indirect indicators, such as the number of nests or burrows, or signs such as tracks or droppings. Another important population characteristic, dispersion, is the pattern of spacing among individuals within the populationâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s geographical boundaries. Various species are distributed in their habitats in different ways to take better advantages of food supplies and shelter, and to avoid predators or find prey. Within a populationâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s range, densities may vary greatly because not all areas provide equally suitable habitat, and also because individuals space themselves in relation to other members of the population. Three possible patterns of dispersion are clumped, uniform, and random. A clumped dispersion pattern means that individuals are gathered in patches throughout their habitat. Clumping often results from the irregular distribution of resources needed for survival and reproduction. For example, fallen trees keep the forest floor moist, and many forest insects are clumped under logs where the humidity is to their liking. Clumping may also be associated with mating, safety, or other social behavior. Crane flies, for example, swarm in great numbers, a behavior that increase mating chances, and some fish swim in large schools so they are less likely to be eaten by predators. A uniform or evenly spaced distribution results from direct interactions among individuals in the population. For example, regular spacing of plants may result from shading and competition for water. In animal populations, uniform distribution is usually caused completion for some resource or by social interactions that set up individual territories for feeding, breeding, or resting.

Random spacing occurs in the absence of strong attraction or repulsion among individuals in a population. Overall, random patterns are rare in nature, with most populations showing a tendency toward either clumped or uniform distribution. Populations change in size, structure, and distribution as they respond to changes in environmental conditions. Four main variables- births, deaths, immigration, and emigrationdetermine the rate of change in the size of the population over time. A change in the birth rate or death is the major way that most populations respond to changes in resource availability. Members of some animal species can avoid or reduce the effects of environmental stress by emigrating from one are and immigrating to another with more favorable environmental conditions, thus altering the populationâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s dispersion. 1.Which sentence best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 1? A. Any species of life can be studied in population ecology. B. Population ecologists care about the future of humanity C. The growth of the human population is a major concern. D. Population ecology does not consider humans worthy of study. 2. According to the passage, which factors might cause the population of a species to decrease in size? A. A favorable amount of light and water B. An ability to hide from or defend against predators C. A large number of other species competing for food D. A greater number of births than deaths 3. Which of the following is an indirect indicator of a populationâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s density? A. The distribution of food in a given area B. The number of nests in a given area C. The number of births in a given period of time D. The number of individuals counted in a given area 4. The distribution pattern of individuals within a populationâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s geographical boundaries is known as____________ A. population ecology B. population density C. population change D. population dispersion 5. The word range in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to___________. A. territory B. control C. history D. shelter 6. The word their in paragraph 5 refers to___________. A. resources B. trees C. insects D. logs 7. All of the following are given as reasons for clumping EXCEPT_________. A. uneven resource distribution B. territorial disputes C. mating behavior D. safety from predators 8. The phrase set up in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to __________. A. forbid B. establish C. increase D. conceal

9. Which of the following situations would be most likely to result in a uniform dispersion pattern? A. Birds compete for a place to build their nests. B. Fish swim in large schools to avoid predators. C. Whales develop strong bonds among relatives. D. Elephants form a circle to protect their young. 10. Why does the author mention immigration and emigration in paragraph 8? A. To identify factors affecting population dispersion B. To give examples of territorial behavior in animals C. To show that population balance themselves over time D. To explain why animals populations are uniformly dispersed Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Section 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (20p) What is Personality? A We are all familiar with the idea that different people have different personalities, but what does this actually mean? It implies that different people behave in different ways, but it must be more than that. After all, different people find themselves in different circumstances, and much of their behavior follows from this fact. However, our common experience reveals that different people respond in quite remarkably different ways even when facced with roughly the same circumstances. Alan might be happy to live alone in a quiet and orderly cottage, go out once a week, and stay in the same job for thirty years, whilst Beth likes nothing better than exotic travel and being surrounded by vivacious friends and loud music. B In cases like these, we feel that it cannot be just the situation which is producing the differences in behaviour. Something about the way the person is â&#x20AC;&#x153;wired upâ&#x20AC;? seems to be at work, determining how they react to situations, and more than that, the kind of situations they get themselves into in the first place. This is why personality seems to become stronger as we get older; when we are young, our situation reflects external factors such as the social and family environment we were born into. As we grow older, we are more and more affected by the consequences of our own choices (doing jobs that we were drawn to, surrounded by people like us whom we have sought out). Thus, personality differences that might have been very slight at birth become dramatic in later adulthood. C Personality, then, seems to be the set of enduring and stable dispositions that characterizze a person. These dispositions come partly from the expression of inherent features of the nervous system, and partly from learning. Researchers sometimes distinguish between temperament, which refers exclusively to characteristics that are inborn or directly caused by biological factors, and personality, which also includes social and cultural learning. 9

Nervousness, for example, might be a factor of temperament, but religious piety is an aspect of personality. D The discovery that temperamental differences are real is one of the major findings of contemporary psychology. It could easily have been the case that there were no intrinsic differences between people in temperament, so that given the same learning history, the same dilemmas, they would all respond in much the same way. Yet we now know that this is not the case. E Personality measures turn out to be good predictors of your health, how happy you typically are- even your taste in paintings. Personality is a much better predictor of these things than social class or age. The origin of these differences is in part innate. That is to say, when people are adopted at birth and brought up by new families, their personalities are more similar to those of their blood relatives than to the ones they grew up with. F Personality differences tend to manifest themselves through the quick, gut-feeling, intuitive and emotional systems of the human mind. The slower, rational deliberate system show less variation in output from person to person. Deliberate rational strategies can be used to override intuitive patterns of response, and this is how people wishing to change their personalities or feelings have to go about it. As human beings, we have the unique ability to look in at our personality from the outside and decide what we want to do with it. G So what are the major ways personalities can differ? The dominant approach is to think of the space of possible personalities as being defined by a number of dimensions. Each person can be given a location in the space by their scores on all the different dimensions. Virtually all theories agree on two of the main dimensions, neuroticism (or negative emotionality) and extroversion (or positive emotionality). However, they differ on how many additional ones they recognize. Among the most influential proposals are openness, conscientiousness and agreeableness. In the next section I will examine these five dimensions. For questions 1 – 5, choose correct heading for sections B – F from the list of headings below. List of Headings A degree of control i Where research has been carried out into the effects of family on personality ii Categorising personality features according to their origin iii A variety of reactions in similar situations iv A link between personality and aspects of our lives that aren’t chosen v A possible theory that cannot be true vi Measuring personality vii Potentially harmful effects of emotions viii How our lives can reinforce our personalities ix Differences between men’s and women’s personalities x 10

Example: Section A: iv, Section G: vii 1. Section B ___________ 3. Section D ___________ 5. Section F ___________

2. Section C 4. Section E

___________ ___________

For quesions 6 – 10, write in the corresponding numbered boxes. YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this 6. Alan and Beth illustrate constrating behavior in similar situations. 7. As we grow older, we become more able to analyse our personalities. 8. Nervousness is an example of a learned characteristic. 9. The discovery of differences in temperament has changed the course of psychological research. 10. The rational behavior of different people shows greater similarity than their emotional behavior. Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Section 5. You are going to rea an article in which four writers talk about the first book they wrote. For questions 1-10, choose from the people (A-D). The writers may be chosen more than once. (10p) Which writer A. Harry Holden I remember my first book very clearly; I suppose evevry writer does. But I also remember it because I’ve changed so much since then. It was a biography of the Duke of Wellington, which I’d been asked to write by a friend of mine, a publisher, who knew I was very interested in the subject. I’d had no experience of writing but I have to say the book was actually quite good. In fact, I was awarded the General Haig Memorial Prize for the book the year it was published, I was completely exhausted. I’d been working on it more or less full time for five years. So since then, I’ve concentrated on detective stories. They’re far easier! B. Marcia Onslow My first book was quite successful, although to be completely frank, looking back, I think I was very lucky. I attended a creative writing course at university, intending to concentrate on short stories for magazines, which is quite a lucrative market. As a project in my final year, I was asked to write a long work of fiction, and I decided to write a love story set in America during the California gold rush. Anyway, I’d been advised to establish a strict schedule, so I would write ten pages every morning and correct them every evening. Then I left university, started writing stories for publication, and more or less forgot about the book for about ten years, until my publisher suggested I might try writing a novel. So I just handed it to her, all finished, and she published it right away! 11

C. Maria Delangelo When I wrote the first draft of my first novel, Chasing William, it wasn’t much like the version that was eventually published; my editor told me I would have to make some changes to the hero, William, because he wasn’t interesting enough. Naturally, I was pretty offended at the time, but I’m glad to say I had the good sense to listen to my editor, who was completely right. The problem was that I had based the whole story on the real adventures of my uncle, William Hargreaves, simply describing my uncle’s character. When you write a work of fiction, you have to make the main character intriguing, but describing a real person isn’t always the best way to do that. Funnily enough, in the short stories I’d published previously I never tried to use real people. I’m glad my editor talked me out of doing it in the novel. D. John Hopkins I learnt a few important lessons from my first book, one of which is that you have to leave certain things to the publisher. For instance, the editor gave me a lot of advice about how to structure my book, a study of the Industrial Revolution. I was a bit hesistant in the beginning, but then I decided to follow his advice and I haven’t regretted it. It was the same with the artistic work on the cover, which I really hated at first. But in the end the book was very successful, and I suppose the design must have been right. The other lesson I learnt was about working methods. I’m quite an impetuous person, and I don’t like being tied down to fixed ways of doing things. I discovered I had to be strict about how long I would work for and not write any more than that, even though it meant I spent half a year writing it. Otherwise I’d have been completely exhausted and never actually finished it! Your answers took six months to write the book? 1. _______ was upset at something their editor said?

2. _______

did not like part of the book design?

3. _______

had written the book years before it was published?

4. _______

has never written that type of book since then?

5. _______

produced a certain amount of writing each day?

6. _______

revised the manuscript because the main character was boring?

7. _______

wrote for a set amount of time each day?

8. _______

wrote short stories before the first book?

9. _______

won something for the first book?

10. _______

Your answers 1. 6.

2. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

PART IV. WRITING (50 points) Section 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence before it. (10p) 1. One advantage of living in the city is the range of clothes shops. One point in________________________________________________________________. 2. We have credited the money to your current account at this bank.. We have placed ____________________________________________________________. 3. You may be disqualified if you donâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;t obey the regulations. Failure ____________________________________________________________________. 4. The policeâ&#x20AC;&#x2122;s prejudice against foreigners could not be recorded in the official files. The fact that _______________________________________________________________. 5. As people grow older, they become more and more forgetful. The ______________________________________________________________________. Section 2: Rewrite these sentences using the words in CAPITAL. You must not change the given words. (10p) 1. We did not think that canceling the order was a good idea . (INADVISABLE) We thought _______________________________________________________. 2. We will ultimately all feel the effects of pollution. (END) In __________________________________________________________________ us all. 3. He finally accepted the situation, although he was concerned. (TERMS) Despite his _________________________________________________________________. 4. Being inexperienced was a disadvantage to her when she applied for promotion . (COUNTED) Her _____________________________________________when she applied for promotion. 5. This medicine will relieve the pain, but it will not cure everything. (MIRACLES) This medicine ____________________________________________ bring some pain relief. Section 3: Paragraph writing (30p) Nowadays, there is a trend that reports of media focus on problems and emergencies rather than positive developments. Do you think it is harmful to individuals and to society? You should write a paragraph of 150-180 words to express your viewpoint.

----THE END----

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HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10 PART I. LISTENING (50p) 2.0 points/correct answer Section 1. You will hear an interview to do a quesstionaire on the residency on the north. For questions from 1 to 7, fill in each gap with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER. (14p) 1. salesman 2. Spring Park 3. apartment 4. train 5. once a month

6. sailing

7. Japanese

Section 2. Listen to the recording and complete each of the following sentences with NO MORE THAN two words AND/ OR a number (16p) 1. commitments

2. impressed

3. patronising

4. irrigation

5. handouts

6. self-sufficient

7. surplus

8. prospects

Section 3. You are going to listen to a conversation about certain type of advertising . Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or False (F). Check (√) the appropriate boxes. You will hear the talk TWICE. 1. F 2. T 3. F 4. T 5. F Section 4: You will hear part of a radio interview in which David Evans, a chef in a British school, is talking about his work. Choose the answer (А, В, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10p) 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. A PART II. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (40p) 1.0 points/correct answer Section 1. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each blank in the following sentences. (20p) 1.A 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. C 11. C 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. D 16. C 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. C Section 2. Fill each gap with the correct form of the words in brackets. (10p) 1. ill-advised 2. non-appearance 3. inexhaustible 4. indistinguishable 6. empower 7. immesuarably 8. forthcoming 9. underpaid

5. preferential 10. admitted

Section 3. The passage below contains TEN mistakes. Underline the mistakes and provide the corrections in the spaces below. (10p) 1. preventing->prevention 6. secure -> security 2. acceptable-> accepted 7. shopping -> shops 3. payment -> paid 8. worthless -> worth 4. criminal -> crime 9. arrangement -> arranging 5. present - > presence 10. visible ->vision/visibility 15

PART III. READING (60p) Section 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in corresponding numbered boxes. (10p) 1.0 points/correct answer 1. C 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A Section 2. Read the passage and fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (10p) 1.0 points/correct answer 1. on 2. as 3. less 4. get 5. in 6. its 7. consist 8. which/that 9. be 10. what Section 3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the following questions. Write your answers in the box provided. (10p) 1.0 points/correct answer 1.A 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. A Section 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (20p) 2.0 points/correct answer 1. ix 2. iii 3. vi 4. v 6. YES 7. NOT GIVEN 8. NO 9. NOT GIVNE

5. i 10. YES

Section 5. You are going to rea an article in which four writers talk about the first book they wrote. For questions 1-10, choose from the people (A-D). The writers may be chosen more than once. (10p) 1.0 points/correct answer 1. D 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. A PART IV. WRITING (50 points) Section 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence before it. (10p) 2.0 points/correct answer 1. One point in favor of living in the city is the range of clothes shops. 2. We have placed the money to the credit of your current account at this bank. 3. Failure to obey the regulations may cause your disqualification. 4. The fact that the policemen were prejudiced against foreigners could not be recorded in the official files. 5. The older people grow, the more forgetful they become. Section 2: Rewrite these sentences using the words in CAPITAL. You must not change the given words. (10p) 2.0 points/correct answer 1. It was ( would be) inadvisable to cancel the order. 16

2. In the end, pollution will affect us all. 3. Despite his concern, he finally came to terms with the situation. 4. Her lack of experience/ inexperience counted against her when she applied for promotion. 5. This medicine will not work/perform miracles, but it will bring some pain relief. Section 3: Paragraph writing (30p) Nowadays, there is a trend that reports of media focus on problems and emergencies rather than positive developments. Do you think it is harmful to individuals and to society? You should write a paragraph of 150-180 words to express your viewpoint. Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá Điểm tối đa 1. Bố cục o Câu dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc o Bố cục hợp lý rõ ràng, phù hợp với yêu cầu của đề bài o Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận 2. Phát triển ý o Phát triển ý có trình tự logic o Có dẫn chứng, ví dụ,… đủ để bảo vệ ý kiến của mình 3. Sử dụng ngôn từ o Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp với nội dung o Sử dụng ngôn từ đúng văn phong, thể loại o Sử dụng từ nối cho các ý uyển chuyển 4. Nội dung o Đủ thuyết phục người đọc o Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận o Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hoặc ít hơn quy định 10% 5. Ngữ pháp, dấu câu, chính tả o Sử dụng đúng dấu câu o Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu lầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính một lỗi o Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu lầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm của bài viết) Tổng