Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10+12 tỉnh Hải Dương năm 2016-2017

UBND TỈNH HẢI DƯƠNG SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 10 THPT NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề thi có 08 trang)

Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết đáp án A, hoặc B, C, D Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài (Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì.)

A. LISTENING:

Hướng dẫn làm bài Nghe: Bài Nghe gồm có 04 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 02 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.

Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài.

I. Listen to five short conversations and choose the correct answer to each question (5.0 points):

e.g. Where did the man leave his camera?

1. Which sport will the woman learn on her holiday?

2. What did the man forget to buy?

A

B

C Page 1/2

3. Which musical instrument is the girl learning to play?

4. What should the girl avoid eating?

A

B

C

5. What does the boy decide to buy for his grandmother?

II. Listen to the recording and choose the correct answer to each question (5.0 points): 6. Toby got a job with Atkins Engineering ________.

A. when he was a university student B. as soon as he finished university C. six months after he finished university 7. What is Toby working on at the moment?

A. a new motorway

B. houses and flats

C. a new airport

8. When Toby began working, he was surprised to spend so much time ________.

A. talking to other people

B. sitting in an office

C. designing buildings

9. Young people often don’t choose engineering because they think ________.

A. it’s hard to get a job

B. it’s probably boring

10. What is a disadvantage of the job for Toby?

A. He finds it difficult to take holidays B. He can’t organize his spare time C. He works too many hours.

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C. it’s not very well-paid

III. Listen to the recording and fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS (6.0 points):

HOT AIR BALLOON FLIGHTS Children (11) ________must be with an adult.

All passengers need to be fit.

Balloon flights are the best when there are (12) ________, no rain and a clear sky.

Passengers need to wear (13) ________and boots.

Flights travel between (14) ________kilometers Passengers return to the (15) ________ in a minibus.

Flights are available from the month of March each year.

For booking and information, phone (16)________or visit www.hotairballoons.com IV. Listen to the recording and state whether the statements are true (T) or false (F) (4.0 points): T 17. Mr. John hasn’t been feeling very well because of a stomach ache.

18. Doctor Benson advises Mr. John to drink a lot of water.

19. Doctor Benson asks Miss Davies to take the painkillers 4 times a day.

20. Doctor Benson also advises Miss Davies not to put ice on the ankle for too long at a time.

B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (8.0 points): 21. “Jack, could you please ________ for the night? It’s too late now to go home,” said Peter.

A. let me off

B. turn me down

C. put me up

D. bring me up

22. Jane: “Kathy is really upset about losing her job.”

David: “Well, ________ twice myself, I can understand.”

A. firing

B. having been fired

C. having fired

D. having been firing

23. It was essential that the President ________ immediate action to help the victims of the earthquake.

A. take

B. took

C. must take

D. should be taken

24. ________, they would have got lost in the jungle.

A. If the villagers didn’t help the explorers

B. If only the villagers had helped the explorers

C. Had it not been for the villagers’ help

D. If the explorers didn’t get help from the villagers

25. We all hope the Earth will be a place where human beings, animals and plants live in peaceful ________.

A. coordination

B. cooperation

C. corporation

26. Mary: “Do you work in a bank, Henry?”

D. coexistence

Henry: “________”

A. Not anymore. I have my own business now.

B. Yes, I am. But I hate it C. No, I am going to change my major D. Yeah, but I’m out of work now 27. What an excellent student! Sarah almost had no ________ the test.

A. difficult finishing

B. difficulty to finish

C. difficult to finish

D. difficulty in finishing

28. Laura: “Hi, Bob! How are you now? Have you got over your flu?”

Bob: “Thanks, Laura. I am as right as ________.”

A. wind

B. rain

C. snow Page 3/2

D. cloud

F

II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (5.0 points): 29. It is undeniable that the (DIAGNOSE) ________ of the local incompetent healer was responsible for Mr. Johnson’s sudden death.

30. The UN is launching a campaign to help severely (NOURISH) ________ children in Ethiopia.

31. All the committee members are (HEART) ________ in favor of the scheme to renovate the city management system.

32. Teachers should never (DIFFERENT) ________ between their students on the basis of their background or ethnic origin.

33. Scientists claim that the (ADD)________ the producers put in food are sometimes bad for our health.

III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (3.0 points): 34. The various parts of the body require so different surgical skills that many surgical specialties have developed A

B

C

D

35. The Prime Minister, accompanied by his assistants and bodyguards, are present at the press conference.

A

B

C

D

36. Computers are often used to control, adjustment, and connect complex industrial operations.

A

B

C

D

IV. Choose the word / phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word / phrase in the following questions (2.0 points): 37. For reasons of personal safety, the informant wished to remain anonymous.

A. publicized

B. identified

C. revealed

D. unknown

38. Sally was asked to account for her absence from class last week.

A. explain

B. apologize

C. arrange

D. complain

V. Choose the word / phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the following questions (2.0 points): 39. Medical techniques are becoming more sophisticated all the time.

A. simple and easy

B. complicated

C. expensive

D. difficult

40. Many people were taken to court because they defaulted on hire-purchase payments.

A. failed to pay

B. paid much money

C. paid in full

D. refused to get

C. READING: I. Study the following pieces of information and choose the option that is SIMILAR in meaning to the given one (10 points): 41.

A. This glass will break in a fire.

IN CASE OF FIRE

BREAK GLASS!

B. Anyone who breaks the glass will be fired.

C. Break this glass if there is a fire.

D. This is the case of a fired glass.

42.

NOTICE!

A. The shop’s most popular products will cost less after Sunday.

Discount Day next Sunday! B. Everything in this shop will be cheaper on Sunday.

Hundreds of our most popular C. The shop will reduce the price of all products for one day. products will be reduced for one D. There will be a discount on many items on Sunday. day only! Don’t miss it!

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SECURITY

43.

A. You must show your security card at all times.

ALL EMPLOYEES MUST CARRY

B. The company insists you always have your identity card with you.

THEIR IDENTITY CARDS WITH

C. You can get your identity card from security.

THEM AT ALL TIMES

D. The company will collect your identity card.

44.

A. Work will be finished soon.

B. People are doing their job well.

C. Work hard if you want to make progress.

D. People are working here at the moment.

45.

STUDENTS WITHOUT MEAL TICKETS FOR TODAY MUST PAY FOR ALL FOODS, SNACKS AND DRINKS

46.

A. You can use a ticket to pay for your meal today.

B. If you need a meal ticket, you can pay for it here.

C. You have to pay for meals if you don’t have a ticket.

D. You haven’t to pay for meals if you don’t have a ticket.

To: Jenny From: Sam Re: Lecture notes

A. Bad weather prevented Sam from going to the lecture.

Hi Jenny, can you email me the B. Sam went to the theatre instead of the lecture. history notes from Monday C. Sam wants Jenny to give him the lecture notes on Saturday. afternoon’s lecture? I was under D. Sam was too ill to go to the lecture. the weather and missed it.

See you at the theatre Saturday.

Sam

47.

WARNING

A. There will be delays for the next four weeks.

Road works starting next month. B. You should stop using this road from next month.

Please use other routes where C. You should start planning to travel a different way.

D. There are traffic problems in this route today. possible

48.

CITY BUS SERVICE

A. All City Bus journeys cost the same.

PLEASE HAVE THE EXACT FARE

B. You must have the correct money when you get on the bus.

READY FOR YOUR JOURNEY AS

C. You must keep your ticket ready for checking.

THE DRIVER IS UNABLE TO GIVE

D. Your journeys cost a lot of money

ANY CHANGE!

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49.

RESERVED FOR ELDERLY OR HANDICAPPED! SPORTS HALL

50.

A. Please give up your seat for elderly or handicapped people.

B. Elderly or handicapped people must leave their seats.

C. This seat is not for elderly or handicapped people.

D. You can reserve seats for elderly or handicapped people.

A. You must remove your clothes from the lockers by the end of the day.

Do not leave clothes in lockers

B. You mustn’t leave keys in the lockers after taking your clothes out.

overnight.

C. Any clothes left overnight can be collected from the reception desk.

Keys

for

lockers

available at reception desk.

D. You can leave your clothes in lockers if you have keys.

II. Read the passage below and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space (10 points): Can you (51) ________what it would be like working at night? You would start your day when everyone else was going to bed, and you would go to bed when everyone else was getting up. Is that really a (52) ________way to live?

These days more and more jobs need (53)________at night. Most big hotels offer 24-hour room service, and need staff at reception and working in the bars. Many companies have 24-hour call centers to cope (54) ________ emergency enquiries. There are 24-hour supermarkets, and of course, there are the workers for the emergency services such as fire fighters, the police and hospital workers.

(55) ________, few people can work well at night. This is partly because we cannot easily change our sleeping habits. Some people can manage on as little as three hours' sleep while others need as many as eleven hours - you are (56) ________ a “short sleeper” or a “long sleeper”. If working at night stops you from getting (57) ________of sleep you need, you will damage your health.

The best part of the day for everyone is around lunchtime and the worst point is between 2 a.m. and 4 a.m. So if you are driving home at this time or doing something (58) ________ at work, things are far more likely to go wrong!

Humans (59) ________sleeping at night and being awake during the day, and they will never be able to do things the other way round. The problem is that today's 24-hour society is not going to slow down, (60) ________ means that night-workers will remain.

51.

A. think

B. imagine

C. understand

D. dream

52.

A. natural

B. naturally

C. naturalist

D. nature

53.

A. to be doing

B. to be made

C. to be done

D. to be making

54.

A. at

B. for

C. about

D. with

55.

A. Therefore

B. Moreover

C. Furthermore

D. However

56.

A. both

B. either

C. neither

D. not only

57.

A. the amount

B. the number

C. a number

D. a great deal of

58.

A. simple

B. severe

C. important

D. superior

59.

A. used to

B. are used to

C. were familiar with

D. got accustomed to

60.

A. it

B. this

C. whichever

D. which

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question (10 points): Sea otters dwell in the North Pacific. They are the largest mustelids, a group that also includes freshwater otters, weasels and badgers. They are from 4 to 5 feet long and most weigh from 60 to 85 pounds. Large males may weigh 100 pounds or more.

Page 6/2

Unlike most marine mammals, such as seals or dolphins, sea otters lack a layer of blubber, and therefore have to eat up to 30% percent of their body weight a day in clams, crabs, fish, octopus, squids, and other delicacies to maintain body heat. Their voracious appetites do not create food shortages, though, because they are

picky eaters, each animal preferring only a few food types. Thus no single type of food source is exhausted. Sea otters play an important environmental role by protecting forests of seaweed called kelp, which provide shelter and nutrients for many species. Certain sea otters feast on invertebrates like sea urchins and abalones that destroy kelp.

Sea otters eat and sleep while floating on their backs, often on masses of kelp. They seldom come on shore. Sea otters keep warm by means of their luxuriant double-layered fur, the densest among animals. The soft outer fur forms a protective cover that keeps the fine underfur dry. One square inch of underfur contains up to 1 million hairs. Unfortunately, this essential feature almost led to the extinction, as commercial hunters drastically reduced their numbers.

Under government protection, the sea otter population has recovered. While elated by the otters return, scientists are concerned about the California sea otter population growth of 5 percent a year, lagging behind the 18 percent a year rate among Alaska otters. Sea otters are extremely sensitive to pollution. In 1989, up to 5,000 sea otters perished when the Exxon Valdez spilled oil in Prince William Sound, Alaska.

61. According to the passage, mustelids are ________.

A. a family of marine mammals that have blubber B. a type of sea otter C. a kind of sea animals that includes clams, crabs, and many other creatures D. a group of mammals that contains sea otters 62. It can be inferred from the passage that if a large male sea otter weighs 100 pounds, it must eat approximately how many pounds of food a day to maintain its body heat?

A. 5 pounds B. 15 pounds C. 30 pounds D. 60 pounds 63. The author refers to sea otter as “picky eaters” because ________.

A. all sea otters eat many types of foods B. each sea otter eats only one type of food C. all sea otters have voracious appetites D. each sea otter eats only a few kinds of food 64. The word “exhausted” in paragraphs 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to ________.

A. needed B. used up C. desired D. tired out 65. According to the passage, which of the followings best describes the sea otters’ relationship with kelp forests?

A. The otters protect the kelp by eating animals that destroy it.

B. The kelp serves as a food for otters.

C. The otters eliminate the kelp’s source of nutrients.

D. The kelp is destroyed when otters build shelters.

66. Which of the followings could best replace the word “luxuriant” in paragraph 3?

A. expensive B. soft C. abundant D. attractive 67. According to the passage, the otter fur of sea otters ________.

A. keeps the underfur from getting wet B. seems finer than the underfur C. is more desirable to hunters than the underfur D. is not as soft as the underfur 68. The word “elated” in paragraph 4 is CLOSEST in meaning to ________.

A. disappointed B. shocked C. concerned D. overjoyed

Page 7/2

69. According to the passage, scientists are concerned about the population of California sea otters because ________.

A. it has been growing at too fast a rate B. its growth rate has been steadily decreasing C. Its growth rate is not as fast as that of the Alaska sea otters D. it has been greatly reduced by oil spills and other forms of pollution 70. The tone of the author is ________.

A. humorous B. serious C. sarcastic D. suspicious D. WRITING: I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before (5.0 points): 71. Immediately after his resignation from the board of directors, Mr. Adamson fell seriously ill.

No sooner………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

72. You can try to persuade Mike to take part in the competition, but you won’t succeed.

There’s no ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……..

73. These measures have been taken in order to increase the company’s profits.

With a ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……….

74. We were impressed by the great richness of detail in the picture, but we couldn’t afford it.

No matter …………………………………………………….………………………………………………………………………………………….

75. Why didn’t you pay attention to the safety instructions?

You should………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

II. Imagine that you have just bought an item from an online shop. However, you find that it is not as good as it was advertised. In about 80 - 100 words, write a letter of complaint to the shop owner, beginning and ending your letter as followed (10 points):

Dear Sir / Madam, ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

Yours faithfully, Tran Lam III. That many students are far too dependent on computers for their study may have some negative effects. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? In about 180 - 220 words write an essay to support your opinion (15 points). === THE END ===

Họ và tên thí sinh:……………………………………………………. Số báo danh:……………………

Họ và tên giám thị 1:…………………………………………………. Chữ ký:………………………….

Họ và tên giám thị 2:…………………………………………………. Chữ ký:………………………….

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UBND TỈNH HẢI DƯƠNG SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 10 THPT NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH

ĐÁP ÁN CHÍNH THỨC

A. LISTENING: I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. A II. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. B III. (6.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 11. under 12 / twelve 12. light winds 13. casual outdoor clothes 14. 5 / five and 30 / thirty 15. airfield 16. 0125288492 IV. (4.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 17. F 18. T 19. F 20. T B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS I. (8.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 21. C 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. D 28. B II. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 29. DIAGNOSIS 30. UNDERNOURISHED / MALNOURISHED 31. WHOLEHEARTEDLY 32. DIFFERENTIATE 33. ADDICTIVES III. (3.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 34. B 35. C 36. B IV. (2.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 37. D 38. A V. (2.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 39. A 40. C C. READING: I. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 41. C 42. D 43. B 44. D 45. C 46. D 47. B 48. B 49. A 50. A II. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 51. B 52. A 53. C 54. D 55. D 56. B 57. A 58. C 59. B 60. D III. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 61. D 62. C 63. D 64. B 65. A 66. C 67. A 68. D 69. C 70. B D. WRITING: I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer: 71. No sooner had Mr. Adamson / he resigned from the board of directors than he / Mr. Adamson fell seriously ill.

72. There’s no point (in) persuading Mike to take part in the competition.

73. With a view to increasing the company’s profits, these measures have been taken.

74. No matter how impressed we were by the great richness of detail in the picture, we couldn’t afford it.

75. You should have paid attention to the safety instructions II. II. (10 points): 1. Form:

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- Correct form of a formal letter (1.0 point) 2. Task fulfillment:

- Task completed with relevant information (2.0 points) - Well-organized (1.0 point) 3. Language:

- Accurate grammar (2.0 points) - Appropriate vocabulary (2.0 points) - Correct spelling and punctuation (1.0 point) III. (15 points): Score of 14-15: An essay at this level: • • • • •

shows very effective writing skills is very well organized and well developed uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas displays consistent ability in the use of language demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice

Score of 11 - 13: An essay at this level: • • • • •

shows effective writing skills is well organized and well developed uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas displays consistent ability in the use of language demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice

Score of 9 - 10: An essay at this level: • • • • •

may address some parts of the task more effectively than others is generally well organized and developed uses details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea displays ability in the use of the language shows some variety in sentence structure and range of vocabulary

Score of 7 - 8: An essay at this level: • • • • •

addresses the writing topic adequately but does not meet all of the goals of the task is adequately organized and developed uses some details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea shows adequate but possibly inconsistent ability with sentence structure may contain some usage errors that make the meaning unclear

Score of 5 - 6: An essay at this level may reveal one or more of the following weaknesses: • • • •

inadequate organization or development poor choice of details or does not provide enough details to support or illustrate generalizations a noticeably improper choice of words or word forms numerous errors in sentence structure and/or usage

Score of 3 - 4: An essay at this level is seriously flawed by one or more of the following weaknesses: • • • •

serious disorganization or underdevelopment little or no detail, or irrelevant specifics serious and frequent errors in sentence structure or usage serious problems with focus

Score of 1- 2: An essay at this level: • • •

may be incoherent may be undeveloped may contain severe and persistent writing errors

Score of 0: An essay will be rated 0 if it: • •

contains no response merely copies the topic Page 10/2

•

is off-topic, written in a foreign language or consists only of keystroke characters

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UBND TỈNH HẢI DƯƠNG SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI TỈNH LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH

Ngày thi: 8/10/2016

ĐỀ CHÍNH THƯC

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (Đề thi có 08 trang)

Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi Phần trắc nghiệm: Chỉ cần viết đáp án A, hoặc B, C, D Phần tự luận: Viết đầy đủ theo yêu cầu của bài (Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì)

A. LISTENING: Hướng dẫn làm bài Nghe: Bài Nghe gồm có 04 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 02 lần.

Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.

Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài.

I. Listen to five short conversations and choose the correct answer to each question (5.0 points).

1. Where will the friends meet?

A

B

C

2. What has the girl forgotten to bring?

A

B

C

Page 1/8

3. Which TV program is on at 9 o’clock?

A

B

C

4. How will the man book tickets for the show?

A

B

C

5. What will the man do this winter?

A

B

C

II. Listen to the recording and choose the correct answer to each question (6.0 points).

6. The Railway Princess is on television from ________.

A. 9.00 to 10.00

B. 9.00 to 10.30

C. 9.30 to 11.00

7. There is a music program for teenagers ________.

A. early in the morning

B. at lunchtime

C. before lunch

8. You can see a football match between ________.

A. Brazil and Ireland

B. Spain and Italy

C. Ireland and Spain

9. If the weather is bad, there will be no ________.

A. cycling

B. skiing

C. tennis

10. In the quiz program, teams have to guess ________.

A. the place

B. the year

C. the person

11. I Could Live Forever is a ________.

A. thriller

B. comedy

C. musical

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III. Listen to the recording and fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS (5.0 points).

HOLIDAY IN NORTHUMBERLAND Useful information: Read Peter’s Green Book called (12) “________ Northumberland.”

Lots of things to do, for example, visiting castles.

Accommodation in flats, hotels, cottages or bed and breakfast places.

Best time to go is (13) ________ .

Bike Hire: One week - £ 35 Two weeks - (14) ________.

Local Events: June - Food Festival August - International (15) ________.

National Park Activities: Guided Walks Photography (16) ________.

IV. Listen to the recording and state whether the statements are true (T) or false (F) (4.0 points).

T F 17. There are four different age groups that play water polo.

18. The under 16s train on Monday and Thursday evenings.

19. Training for the water polo team starts this week.

20. You have to pay to join the water polo classes for under 18s.

B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (12 points).

21. Most of the victims died painfully because they ________ poisonous fumes leaking from the chemical factory.

A. suffocated B. grasped C. inhaled D. inspired 22. Orbiting from 2.7 to 3.6 billion miles from the sun ________.

A. the astronomer Clyde Tombaugh discovered Pluto in 1930 B. the discovery of Pluto was made by Clyde Tombaugh in 1930 C. Pluto was discovered by the astronomer Clyde Tombaugh in 1930 D. it was in 1930 that the astronomer Clyde Tombaugh discovered Pluto 23. Geometry is a branch of mathematics ________ with the properties of lines, curves, shapes, and surfaces.

A. that concerns B. concerning C. that are concerning D. concerned 24. Centuries of erosion have exposed________ rock surfaces in the Painted Desert of northern Arizona.

A. in colors of the rainbow B. colored like a rainbow C. rainbow-colored D. a rainbow’s coloring 25. Top fashion models often spend thousands of dollars ________.

A. getting straightened their teeth B. getting their teeth straightened C. straightening their teeth D. having got their teeth straighten

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26. The President came ________ a lot of criticism for refusing to resign from office.

A. over B. in for C. off D. out of 27. ________ is a general category that includes all mental states and activities.

A. What do psychologists call cognition B. Psychologists call it cognition C. What psychologists call cognition D. Cognition, as it is called by psychologists, which 28. “Jack, why don’t you have a night out? It would take your ________ off your worries,” said Mary.

A. thoughts B. mind C. head D. heart 29. Nothing ever seems to bother Alan. No matter what happens, he always seems to remain as cool as ________.

A. a cucumber B. ice-cream C. frost D. an Eskimo 30. Catherine: “Thank you very much for your kind donation, Mr. Johnson.” Mr. Johnson: “________.”

A. Absolutely, Miss B. You are right C. Well, it’s enough D. Delighted I was able to help 31. Boss: “Laura, keep working until you finish the report, will you?”

Laura: “ ________.”

A. Hang on a minute B. Thanks. It’s really encouraging C. It sounds great D. Hang it all. You can’t expect me to work overnight 32. Patient: “What shall I do when I want to call you?”

Nurse: “________” A. You can find the red button on the right B. Please stay here and enjoy yourself C. Press the red button on the right D. I’d come every fifteen minutes II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (5.0 points).

33. Personally, his latest novel is entertaining, but full of (ACCURATE) ________.

34. “Tom, I’m afraid your plan is (WORK) ________. Forget it,” the foreman said.

35. Sarah was aware of the threat of being made redundant, but she remained (DETERMINE) ________ optimistic.

36. Deforestation and excessive farming have (POOR) ________ the soil.

37. In many developing countries, the shortage of food is the major cause of (NUTRITIOUS) ________.

III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (4.0 points).

38. Unlike other architects of the early modern movement, Alva Alto stressed informality, personal expression, A B C romantic, and rationality in his work.

D 39. Doctors point out that the increase in respiratory diseases are directly related to air pollution.

A B C D 40. There are over twenty species of wild roses in this area, all of which have prickly stems, pinnate leaves, and A B C large flowers, which usually smell sweetly.

D 41. Every candidate under considering for a federal job must undergo a thorough medical examination.

A B C D IV. Choose the word / phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the following questions (2.0 points).

42. They consider themselves as benevolent employers, providing sick pay and pensions for all the workers.

A. generous B. naïve C. innovative D. stingy 43. Tests are regularly conducted in this area to ascertain whether pollution levels have dropped.

A. contemplate B. behold C. consider D. determine

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V. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the following questions (2.0 points).

44. The teacher gave such a succinct explanation about the matter that all the students could understand it properly.

A. clear and brief B. detailed and informative C. simple and precise D. lengthy and confusing 45. Since the officers knew little themselves of the matter, their reassurances were necessarily vague.

A. ill-defined B. indistinct C. apparent.

D. imprecise D. READING: I. Study the following pieces of information and choose the option that is SIMILAR in meaning to the given one (10 points).

46.

LOCKERS IN THIS AREA ARE RESERVED FOR USE

BY VISITING TEAM ONLY

A. Anyone who takes part in a swimming competition may use these lockers.

B. Lockers are used in this area only C. Swimmers from visiting teams needn’t pay to use lockers.

D. Members of the local swimming team cannot use these lockers.

47.

Mum, Tom wants you to call him. I said you’d be back very late but he didn’t mind. I’ve gone out. Back about midnight.

Jenny

A. Jenny wanted to go out with Tom. B. Jenny’s mother will arrive home late.

C. Tom and Jenny would be back at midnight.

D. Tom didn’t agree with Jenny’s suggestion.

48.

NOTICE To order your class photo, sign below. $6.0 each, 15% discount on four or five copies (payment to office immediately, please)

A. There will be a class photo if enough people sign here.

B. Your photo will cost less if you pay the office in advance.

C. The price per photo is reduced if several are ordered at once.

D. If you sign here, you will only have to pay $ 6.0 for all your photos.

49.

AFTERNOON PERFORMANCE Refreshments are served only during the interval.

A. Help yourself to drinks after performance.

B. You can have a drink during the break.

C. Snacks are available before the performance.

D. Refresh yourself with the afternoon performance.

50.

PLEASE GO TO CUSTOMER SERVICES ON GROUND FLOOR IF YOU WISH TO EXCHANGE GOODS

A. You can change things you do not want at Customer Services.

B. You can try on clothes on the ground floor.

C. You can change your money at Customer Services.

D. You can resell things you do not want at Customer Services

51.

WELCOME TO A. School reports are available in the office.

TRI-STAR SCHOOL B. Staff must tell the office when they arrive.

All visitors to report to school C. People visiting the school should inform the office. office on second floor.

D. Tri-Star School greets all visitors on the second floor.

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52.

WAIT OUTSIDE AIRPORT BUS MINUTES

STATION FOR – EVERY 10

A. It takes 10 minutes from the station to the airport.

B. The airport bus stops regularly at the station.

C. Passengers wait outside the airport bus for 10 minutes.

D. The bus waits to collect passengers from the station.

53.

To: Prof. Edward’s students From: College secretary Prof. Edward would like to remind you that Wednesday’s lecture is to take place in Room 5.9 (this week only).

Start time unchanged

A. The location of Wednesday’s lecture will be different from usual.

B. Students should check when this Wednesday’s lecture begins.

C. Prof. Edward had forgotten to announce the change on Wednesday.

D. As planned last week, the place to hold the lecture will be unchanged.

54.

DO NOT CLIMB CASTLE WALLS DANGER OF FALLING STONES

A. Do not climb the walls as they are dangerous.

B. Stones are in danger of falling on castle walls.

C. There is a danger of falling on the stones.

D. Check for loose stones before you climb.

55.

Job applications to be left at reception not with security guard

A. There is a job available as a security guard.

B. Give your application form to the receptionist.

C. Reception can pass a message to the security guard.

D. Applicants as security guards must be available at the reception.

II. Read the passage below and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space (10 points).

Researchers in the field of psychology have found that one of the best ways to make an important decision, such as choosing a university to attend or a business to (56) _______ in, involves the utilization of a decision worksheet. Psychologists who study optimization compare the actual decisions made by people (57) _______ theoretical ideal decisions to see how similar they are. Proponents of the worksheet procedure believe that it will yield optimal, that is, the best decisions. (58) _______ there are several variations on the exact format that worksheets can take, they are all similar in their essential aspects.

Worksheets require defining the problem in a clear and concise way and then listing all possible (59) _______ to the problem. Next, the pertinent considerations that will be affected by each decision are listed, and the relative importance of each consideration or consequence is determined. Each consideration is assigned a numerical value to reflect its relative importance. A decision is (60) _______ calculated by adding these values together. The alternative with the highest number of points emerges (61) _______ the best decision.

Since most important problems are multifaceted, there are several alternatives to choose (62) _______, each with unique advantages and disadvantages. One of the benefits of a pencil and paper decision-making procedure is that it permits people to deal with more variables than their minds can generally comprehend and remember. (63) _______, people can keep about seven ideas in their minds at once. A worksheet can be especially useful when the decision (64) _______ a large number of variables with complex relationships. A realistic example for many college students is the question "What will I do after graduation?" A graduate might seek a (65) _______ that offers specialized training, pursue an advanced degree, or travel abroad for a year.

56.

A. invest B. trade C. work D. persist 57.

A. from B. about C. to D. of 58.

A. Thus B. Yet C. So D. Although

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A. consequences A. mathematical A. among A. about A. By contrast A. makes A. position

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

B. findings B. mathematically B. like B. of B. On the average B. suggests B. location

C. solutions C. mathematics C. as C. for C. As a result C. produces C. place

D. recommendations D. mathematic D. into D. from D. At most D. involves D. field

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question (10 points).

Lines

5

10

15

20

About 20,000 years ago, the last Ice Age was at its height. Outside the tropics, temperatures were as much as 150C lower than today, and vast ice-sheets covered almost one-quarter of the earth’s present land surface. In the northern hemisphere, they reached as far south as Chicago and London.

These severe conditions persisted for several thousand years, but at length the ice-sheets began to retreat as average temperatures slowly rose. As the ice-sheets and glaciers melted, the sea rose again, and by 5000 B.C. it had reached almost its present height. In the process, large areas of formerly dry land were drowned, but the milder temperatures more than compensated for this, in human terms, by encouraging an increasing abundance of plant and animal food. Forests, with their accompanying wildlife, re-colonized much of the former arctic wastes while grasslands, likewise teeming with game, replaced the deserts around the equator. For mankind, this was a period of new possibilities, and in several parts of the world human societies grasped these opportunities by developing a completely new way of life, based on farming.

This had two aspects. On the one hand, there was agriculture - the deliberate alteration of natural systems in order to produce an abundance of a particular variety of plants. On the other came the domestication of useful animal species to produce milk, meat, hide or wool, and a vital source of power for plowing and other agricultural processes. Thus, full-scale agriculture developed and many of the species domesticated by the early farmers have remained the mainstay of agricultural economies to this day - such as wheat and barley, rice and millet, corn, beans, and the potato.

These changes were revolutionary, for they marked the development of a completely new way of life. The immense impact of agriculture, vastly increasing the number of people who could be fed and clothed, and in the process transforming the face of the earth, makes it one of the most important developments in the history of mankind.

66. The word “they” in line 3 refers to _______.

A. 20,000 years B. the tropics C. temperatures D. ice-sheets 67. According to the passage, the effect of a rise in temperature was to _______.

A. increase the height of the glaciers B. drown some of the humans C. produce many more animals D. submerge some of the land 68. The phrase “in the process” in line 6 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. as a consequence B. over and over C. in the act D. by the same token 69. The author mentions all of the following as important for the development of agriculture EXCEPT the _______.

A. change of temperatures B. growth of the deserts C. increase of birds and animals D. spread of woodlands 70. The word “teeming” in line 10 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. satisfying B. abounding C. redundant D. saturated 71. The word “mainstay” in line 17 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. fundamentals B. realities C. requirements D. concerns Page 7/8

72. It can be inferred from the passage that agriculture was developed mainly to _______.

A. domesticate animals for food and use B. introduce a new way of life C. produce a wide variety of plants D. provide food and clothing for society 73. According to the passage, agricultural development has brought about all of the followings EXCEPT_______.

A. better nourishment B. novel lifestyle C. swifter development in mankind’s history D. abundance in clothing 74. The passage primarily discusses _______.

A. obstacles to agricultural societies B. agriculture - the development of a new way of life C. two aspects of agricultural development D. the development of agriculture 75. The tone of the author in the passage is _______.

A. humorous B. neutral C. pessimistic D. ironic E. WRITING: I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before (5.0 points).

76. The only thing that prevented the passing of the bill was the death of the Speaker of the House.

Had it …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

77. The protection of the animal world is pointless unless we take steps to protect our planet as well.

It is not worth…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

78. It was Walter Raleigh who introduced potatoes and tobacco into England.

The English owe …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

79. He was unable to make both ends meet though he worked very hard.

Hard-working…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

80. Many people have suggested regulating the green belt development carefully.

It ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

II. Imagine you are planning to spend your holiday in Hue City. Write a letter of about 80 - 100 words to one of your friends to tell him / her about your plan (5.0 points).

III. Family plays a very important part in forming and developing a person’s personality. What do you think about the statement? In about 220 - 250 words, write an essay to express your opinion (15 points).

--------THE END--------

Họ và tên thí sinh:……………………………………………………. Số báo danh:……………………

Họ và tên giám thị 1:…………………………………………………. Chữ ký:………………………….

Họ và tên giám thị 2:…………………………………………………. Chữ ký:………………………….

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