ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ TIẾNG ANH 9 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 1 - NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 CÓ FILE NGHE VÀ ĐÁP ÁN

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ TIẾNG ANH 8 THÍ ĐIỂM

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ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ TIẾNG ANH 9 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 1 - NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 CÓ FILE NGHE VÀ ĐÁP ÁN BY TUAN NGUYEN WORD VERSION | 2021 EDITION ORDER NOW / CHUYỂN GIAO QUA EMAIL TAILIEUCHUANTHAMKHAO@GMAIL.COM

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Tan Hung Town Junior High School

45-MINUTE TEST No 1 SUBJECT: ENGLISH 9 (NEW)

Full name: ……………………………………

Class: 9A… Points

Comment

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen and match. There is one example (1,25pts).

Listen to Laura talking to a friend about places to go. What is the problem with each place?

For questions 1-5, write a letter A-H. You will listen twice.

0. cinema 1. restaurant 2. disco 3. swimming pool 4. theatre 5. sport field

F

Your answer 1. …..

2. …..

3. …..

4. …..

5. …..

A. closed B. cold C. dirty D. expensive E. full F. hot G. noisy H. wet Question 2: You will hear some information about a tour for young people. Listen and complete each question. There is one example (1,25pts).

HOLLYWOOD TOUR FOR YOUNG PEOPLE Name:

I love Hollywood

Date:

(1) …………………..………….

Place to meet:

(2) at………………….……….Hollywood Boulevard.

Food for luch:

(3)……………………………..

Stadium tour includes:

(4) a……………………………match.

Cost for children:

(5) $...........................................

Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Complete the sentences using the correct form of a phrasal verb given (1,25pts). set up

take off

find out

get over

look forward to

turn down

1. Where did you………………………..the information about Disneyland Resort?

2. You should …………………………..your shoes before entering the pagoda.

3. I invited her to join my trip to Hue, but she………..…….……………my invitation.

4. When did your parents……………………………….this workshop?

5. I’m………………..………….the trip to Suoi Tien Amusement Park next week.

Question 4: Circle A, B, C or D to choose the correct answer (1,25pts).

1. He _________ his name on a tree and left.

A. cut B. embroidered C. carved D. knit 2. How _________! The roads are crowded and I’m stuck in a traffic jam.

A. historic B. annoying C. easy-going D. unemployed 3. Nhieu Loc canal in Ho Chi Minh City is much less ______ than before..

A. stressful B. fashionable C. modern D. polluted 4. Kate: ‘I will get the highest score in this exam. I want to be the best student in the class!’

Linda: ‘__________’.

A. If I were you, I would stop.

B. Well done! You did a great job.

C. Talk to someone about this.

D. Go on! I know you can do it!

5. Linh is feeling a bit ______about her study. She’s failed the exam once again!

A. depressed B. confident C. relaxed D. calm Part 3: READING Question 5: Complete the passage with the words given. There is one extra word (1,25pts). vehicles

pollution

natural

their

pesticides

with

Environmental pollution is a term that refers to all the ways by which man pollutes his surroundings. Man dirties the air (1)...................................gases and smoke, poisons the water with chemicals and other substances, and damages the soil with too many fertilizers and (2)...................................... Man also pollutes his surroundings in various other ways. For examples, people ruin (3)…………….……..............beauty by scattering junk and litter on (4)....................................land and in the water. They operate machine and motor (5)…………..…………..that fill the air with disturbing noise.

Question 6: Read the passage and circle the best answer A, B or C (1,25pts).

I was born in Ha Noi, the capital of Viet Nam. Ha Noi is famous for its natural beauty, with lots of rivers and lakes. There are many historical places to visit in Ha Noi. The Literature Temple (Van Mieu – Quoc Tu Giam) is the country’s first ever historical university. Teenagers often come here to pray for high results in their upcoming examinations. As Viet Nam is a Buddhism-oriented nation, its capital has also been the centre of Buddhism for centuries. In Ha Noi alone, there are about 600 temples and pagodas. It also has a big church in the city centre, a popular place for the few Christians living here. With a population of nearly eight million, the city is quite crowded. However, the public transportation is not adequate, so visitors find it hard to safely cross the roads. The city is packed with universities and enterprises, making it the top destination for higher education students and labour workers. Many people from rural areas reside in Ha Noi so that they can get well paid jobs. This makes the city become more crowded than ever before.

1. What is the passage about?

A. a city

B. The Literature Temple

2. What does 'pray for' means?

A. pass B. hate 3. What is the most popular religion in Ha Noi? A. Buddhism B. Christianity 4. What does 'adequate' mean?

A. satisfactory B. abundant 5. Which among this is NOT mentioned about Ha Noi? A. historical places B. nightlife

C. public transportation C. wish C. both A and B

C. much C. education

Part 4: WRITING Question 7: Join the sentences using the words given (1,25pts).

1. It was raining hard. They cancelled the trip to Ha Long Bay. (because) ...................................................................................................................................................

2. The train had left. I got to the station. (by the time) ...................................................................................................................................................

3. She was tired. She finished knitting the scarf for her son. (although) ...................................................................................................................................................

4. They can study abroad. Many students learn English. (so that) ...................................................................................................................................................

5. Thanh’s mom got home. He was playing computer games. (while) ...................................................................................................................................................

Question 8: Rewrite the following sentences as suggested (1,25pts).

1. “What should I wear to the fancy dress party?” Mary wondered.

Mary wondered what...............................................................................................................

2. Don’t leave the lights on when you leave the classroom.

Turn...........................................................................................................................................

3. “We will visit you next Monday.” my parents told me.

My parents told me that............................................................................................................

4. “Do you do morning exercise?” the doctor asked him.

The doctor asked him if.............................................................................................................

5. London is more exciting than any other cities in Europe.

London is the......................................................................................................city in Europe.

The end. / Good luck!

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ TIẾNG ANH 9 THÍ ĐIỂM LẦN 1 – HỌC KÌ 1 – NH: 2019-2020 ĐỀ A - 0,25 point for one correct answer from Question 1 – 8.

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen and match. There is one example (1,25pts).

1. E 4. D 2. A 5. H 3. G Question 2: You will hear some information about a tour for young people. Listen and complete each question. There is one example (1,25pts).

1. July 23rd 4. basketball 2. 6000 5. 27 3. burger Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Complete the sentences using the correct form of a phrasal verb given (1,25pts).

1. find out

4. set up

2. take off

5. looking forward to

3. turned down Question 4: Circle A, B, C or D to choose the correct answer (1,25pts).

1. C 4. D 5. A 2. B 3. D Part 3: READING Question 5: Complete the passage with the words given. There is one extra word (1,25pts).

1. with 4. their 2. pesticides 5. vehicles 3. natural Question 6: Read the passage and circle the best answer A, B or C (1,25pts).

1. A 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. B Part 4: WRITING Question 7: Join the sentences using the words given (1,25pts).

1. Because it was raining hard, they cancelled the trip to Ha Long Bay. 2. By the time I got to the station, the train had left.

3. Although she was tired, she finished knitting the scarf for her son.

4. Many students learn English so that they can study abroad.

5. Thanh’s mom got home while he was playing computer games.

Question 8: Rewrite the following sentences as suggested (1,25pts).

1. Mary wondered what she should wear to the fancy dress party.

2. Turn off the lights when you leave the classroom.

3. My parents told me that they would visit me next Monday.

4. The doctor asked him if he did morning exercise.

5. London is the most exciting city in Europe.

MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ LẦN 1 TIẾNG ANH 9 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 1 – NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 Tên Chủ đề

Nhận biết TL

Part 1: Listening Listen and complete.

Listen and choose the correct answer A, B, C.

Số câu: 2 Số điểm: 0,5

Thông hiểu TN

Số câu: 2 Số câu: 3 Số điểm: 0,5 Số điểm: 0,75

Phrasal verbs Part 2: Use of English Choose the correct answer A, B, C, D. Write the correct form of Số câu: 3 phrasal verbs Số điểm: 0,75 Part 3: Reading comprehension Choose the correct answer for each Số câu: 2 question.

Số điểm: 0,5 Choose the correct answer for each blank.

TL

Số câu: 3 Số điểm: 0,75

TN

- Phrasal verbs

-Word forms -Vocabulary

-Conversational exchanges -Vocabulary

Số câu: 2 Số điểm: 0,5

Số câu: 3 Số điểm: 0,75

Số câu: 2 Số điểm: 0,5

Số câu: 2 Số điểm: 0,5

Số câu: 3 Số điểm: 0,75

Số câu: 16 Số điểm: 4,0 40%

Tổng

Số câu: 10 Số điểm: 2,5 Tỉ lệ: 25%

Số câu: 10 Số điểm: 2,5 Tỉ lệ: 25%

Số câu: 10 Số điểm: 2,5 Tỉ lệ: 25% Reported speech Phrasal verbs Wh-Q Comparation Số câu: 5 Số điểm: 1,25

Số câu: 12 Số điểm: 3,0 30%

Vận dụng (Cấp độ cao) TL TN

Số câu: 3 Số điểm: 0,75

Part 4: Writing Rewrite as suggested.

Make complete sentences.

Tổng số câu: Tổng số điểm: Tỉ lệ:

Vận dụng (Cấp độ thấp) TL TN

Số câu: 7 Số điểm: 1,75 17,5%

Reported speech Phrasal verbs Wh-Q Comparation Số câu: 5 Số điểm: 1,25 Số câu: 5 Số điểm: 1,25 12,5%

Số câu: 10 Số điểm: 2,5 Tỉ lệ: 25% Số câu: 40 Số điểm: 10,0 Tỉ lệ: 100%

Tan Hung Town Junior High School

45-MINUTE TEST No 2 SUBJECT: ENGLISH 9 (NEW)

Full name: ………………………………

Class: 9A4 Points

Comments

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen to a girl called Melanie talking about a school trip to Paris. Choose the correct answers. (1,25pts) 1. Number of days in Paris:

A. 2

B. 5

2. Coach left school at:

A. 5.00 a.m

B. 5.30 a.m

3. Cost of trip:

A. £ 340

B. £ 314

4. Name of hotel in Paris:

A. BERRI

B. VERRY

5. Really enjoyed:

A. shopping

B. boat trip

Question 2: Listen to a conversation about a festival. Listen and write the information. (1,25pts)

FESTIVAL 1. Day of festival:

…………………………………………..

2. Festival starts at:

……………………………………p.m…

3. Name of band:

…………………………………………..

4. Cost of festival T-shirt:

£………………………..………………..

5. Travel there by:

…………………………………………..

Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (1,25pts) 1. I wish I (can/ speak)………………………..……..English fluently.

2. The farmers in my village (not/ use/ transport)……………….…………….. rice home on trucks.

3. I suggest (go)……………………………… to Hue Citadel by train.

4. It (believe)………………………………. that the Po Nagar Cham Towers were built in A.D. 774.

5. I wish the weather (be)…………………..………..not very hot today.

Question 4: Circle A, B, C or D to choose the correct answers. (1,25pts) 1. Hoi An town gained UNESCO’s……………………….as a World Heritage Site in 1999.

A. recognition B. structures C. setting D. complex 2. Nam: Would you like to participate in this ‘Preserving the past’ project?

Nick: ……………………

A. How cool!

B. I wish I could go back to that time.

C. Wow, I can’t imagine that.

D. Sure.

3. This book is about …………………………. features of Viet Nam. A. administrative B. situated C. geological D. original 4. The pagoda is located in a rural…………………………

A. complex B. structure C. measures D. setting 5. Should we try to…………… every custom or tradition which is in danger of dying out?

A. die out B. preserve C. act out D. collect Part 3: READING Question 5: Read the passage and write True or False for the statements. (1,25pts) The Temple of Literature is about 10 minutes away from Hoan Kiem lake. It was constructed in 1070 under Ly Thanh Tong’s dynasty, first to honor Confucius and nowadays to celebrate the doctorates and high rank scholars of Vietnam.

The temple is divided into five court yards, each with its own significance and history. The first courtyard stretches from the main gate to Dai Trung gate; the second stands out with Khue Van Cac pavilion. The third courtyard is where doctor names was listed on a tombstone above tortoise backs.

There are a total of 82 tombstones, with names and origins of 1307 doctors. If you visit the temple at the beginning of the year or in May when many important examinations take place, you will catch sights of students who come and rub the tortoise head. Such an act is believed to bring them luck to pass the test.

The fourth courtyard is dedicated for Confucius and his 72 honoured students, as well as Chu Van An - a famous teachers known for his devotion to teaching. The last and also furthest courtyard is Thai Hoc house, which used to be Quoc Tu Giam - the first university of Vietnam. If you are keen on architecture, the Temple of Literature has one of the most typical architecture style for centuries in Vietnam. Along the pass way is hundred-year-old trees that have witnessed ups and downs of history. *Statements: 1. The Temple of Literature was first constructed in 1076.

……………

2. The temple has five court yards.

……………

3. Names and origins of 82 doctors were carved on the tombstones.

……………

4. Many students come and rub the tortoise head to wish for luck to pass the test.

……………

5. The Temple of Literature has one of the most typical architecture style for centuries in Vietnam.

……………

Question 6: Read the passage and choose the correct answers. (1,25pts) Over the last century, there have been many significant changes in the way we live. People in the past were not able to travel such long distances (1)_________ such a short period of time.

Nowadays, we have become very mobile. We have fast and (2)_______cars. In addition, more and more people travel by plane. Moreover, in the past people had to work harder as they did not have (3)______ and machines to make their work easier. Today, most of the difficult and dangerous work is done by computers and other powerful machines. In the past (4)_______ of living were not as comfortable as they are now. Another difference between living now and in the past is the fact that nowadays education is accessible to everyone. In the past men were mainly the only ones educated and women were not (5)__________into public or private schools.

1. A. within B. during C. for D. to 2. A. skillful B. difficult C. comfortable D. historical 3. A. rules B. tools C. teams D. ideas 4. A. conditions B. performances C. stories D. conflicts 5. A. appeared B. attended C. agreed D. allowed Part 4: WRITING Question 7: Make complete sentences using the words and phrases given. (1,25pts) 1. I wish/ there/ be/ no more family violence in the world ......................................................................................................................................................

2. My father/ used/ smoke/ a lot of cigarettes .......................................................................................................................................................

3. Bao suggests/ go to school / bike/ instead of by motorbike ........................................................................................................................................................

4. It /claim/ that/ Po Nagar Cham Towers / be built in the 8th century .......................................................................................................................................................

5. It/ expect/ that/ more than 100,000 people / attend the Perfume Pagoda festivals this year .......................................................................................................................................................

Question 8: Rewrite the following sentences as suggested. (1,25pts) 1. People know that Ha Long Bay was recognized as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO. It................................................................................................ a World Heritage Site by UNESCO. 2. Why don’t we control the deforestation?

I suggest...........................................................................................................................................

3. I don’t know how to paint on ceramic pots.

I wish...............................................................................................................................................

4. There aren’t four seasons in my area.

I wish……………………...............................................................................................................

5. My brother doesn’t play computer games any more.

My brother used…………………………………………………………………………………...

The end. / Good luck!

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ TIẾNG ANH 9 THÍ ĐIỂM LẦN 2 – HỌC KÌ 1 – ĐỀ A - 0,25 point for one correct answer from Question 1 – 8.

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen to a girl called Melanie talking about a school trip to Paris. Choose the correct answers. (1,25pts) 1. B 4. A 2. B 5. B 3. A Question 2: Listen to a conversation about a festival. Listen and write the information.

(1,25pts) 1. Sunday 4. 5 2. 3.30 p.m.

5. coach 3. SCARLLETT Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (1,25pts) 1. could speak 4. is believed 2. didn’t use to transport 5. were/ was 3. going Question 4: Circle A, B, C or D to choose the correct answers. (1,25pts) 1. A 4. D 2. D 5. B 3. C Part 3: READING Question 5: Read the passage and write True or False for the statements. (1,25pts) 1. False 4. True 2. True 5. True 3. False Question 6: Read the passage and choose the correct answers. (1,25pts) 1. A 4. A 2. C 5. D 3. B Part 4: WRITING Question 7: Make complete sentences using the words and phrases given. (1,25pts) 1. I wish there were no more family violence in the world.

2. My father used to smoke a lot of cigarettes.

3. Bao suggests going to school by bike instead of by motorbike.

4. It is claimed that Po Nagar Cham Towers were built in the 8th century.

5. It is expected that more than 100,000 people attend the Perfume Pagoda festivals this year.

Question 8: Rewrite the following sentences as suggested. (1,25pts) 1. It is known that Ha Long Bay was recognized as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO. 2. I suggest controlling the deforestation.

3. I wish I knew how to paint on ceramic pots.

4. I wish there were four seasons in my area.

5. My brother used to play computer games.

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ TIẾNG ANH 9 THÍ ĐIỂM LẦN 2 – HỌC KÌ 1 – ĐỀ B - 0,25 point for one correct answer from Question 1 – 8.

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen to a girl called Melanie talking about a school trip to Paris.

Choose the correct answers. (1,25pts) 1. B 4. B 2. A 5. A 3. B Question 2: Listen to a conversation about a festival. Listen and write the information.

(1,25pts) 1. Sunday 4. 5 2. 3.30 p.m.

5. coach 3. SCARLLETT Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (1,25pts) 1. were/was 4. didn’t use to transport 2. is believed 5. recycling 3. could communicate Question 4: Circle A, B, C or D to choose the correct answers. (1,25pts) 1. D 4. A 2. B 5. D 3. A Part 3: READING Question 5: Read the passage and write True or False for the statements. (1,25pts) 1. True 4. True 2. False 5. True 3. False Question 6: Read the passage and choose the correct answers. (1,25pts) 1. C 4. A 2. C 5. B 3. D Part 4: WRITING Question 7: Make complete sentences using the words and phrases given. (1,25pts) 1. I wish there were/would be no more family violence in the world.

2. It is claimed that Po Nagar Cham Towers were built in the 8th century.

3. It is expected that more than 100,000 people attend the Perfume Pagoda festivals this year.

4. My father used to smoke a lot of cigarettes.

5. Bao suggests going to school by bike instead of by motorbike.

Question 8: Rewrite the following sentences as suggested. (1,25pts) 1.

I suggest controlling the deforestation.

2.

My brother used to play computer games.

3.

I wish I knew how to paint on ceramic pots.

4.

I wish there were four seasons in my area.

5.

It is known that Ha Long Bay was recognized as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.

MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ LẦN 2 TIẾNG ANH 9 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 1 – NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 Skills and Language

CHỦ ĐỀ (THEMES)

Bài nghe 1 về:

CẤP ĐỘ (LEVEL OF DIFFICULTIES) Nhận biết

Thông hiểu

Vận dụng thấp

CỘNG

Vận dụng cao

Me and My Friends

Listen and choose the correct answers

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Listening Bài nghe 2 về:

Listen and write

Me and My Friends Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Bài kĩ năng ngôn ngữ 1 về: Verb forms

Use of English

Write the correct form of the verbs

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Bài kĩ năng ngôn ngữ 2 về:

Choose the correct answers

Choose the correct answers

Số câu hỏi:

2

3

5

Số điểm:

0,5đ

0,75đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Vocabulary

Bài đọc hiểu số 1 về:

Write Yes, No, or Not Given

Me and The World Around Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Reading Bài đọc hiểu số 2 về:

Choose the correct answers

Choose the correct answers

Số câu hỏi:

3

2

5

Số điểm:

0,75đ

0,5đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Me and the World Around

Writing

Bài viết số 1 về: Wish sentences Passive Used to Vo Suggest Số câu hỏi: Số điểm: Bài viết số 2 về: Wish sentences Passive Used to Vo Suggest Số câu hỏi: Số điểm: Tổng số câu Tổng số điểm Tỷ lệ %

Make complete sentences 5 1,25đ

5 1,25 đ (12,5%) Rewrite the sentences

12 câu 3,0 điểm 30 %

16 câu 4,0 điểm 40 %

7 câu 1,75 điểm 17,5 %

5 1,25đ

5 1,25 đ (12,5%)

5 câu 1,25 điểm 12,5 %

40 câu 10 điểm 100%

Tan Hung Town Junior High School Full name: ………………………………

Class: 9A… Points

45-MINUTE TEST No 3 SUBJECT: ENGLISH 9 (NEW) Comments

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen to Jake talking to Sally about his holiday and choose A or B (1,25pts).

1. Jake is going away with...............

A. his parents B. his friend’s family 2. Jake is staying...................

A. in the mountains B. on the coast 3. Jake is planning to.................

A. go sightseeing B. do water sports 4. Jake will be home on................

A. 7th August B. 18th August 5. The prize money is.................

A. $ 1,000 B. $ 400 Question 2: You will hear a headteacher talking to the school. Listen and complete (1,25pts).

SCHOOL COOKING CLUB 0. Begins:

Monday, 3rd March

1. Start time:

…………………………………p.m.

2. Room:

……………………………………

3. Learn to make:

…………………., pasta, and bread

4. Cost of club:

£………………………..……per week.

5. More information from: Mrs…………………………………………..

Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Circle A, B, C or D to choose the correct answers (2,5pts).

1. We need a ......................of cauliflower and a........................of celery A. head/stick B. head/ carton C. loaf/ stick 2. If I have freetime tonight, I………………….to visit you.

A. would come B. will come C. could come 3. She’d like..........................olive oil on her pizza.

A. a B. an C. some 4. My mother usually ..................... fish because she doesn’t like oil.

A. steams B. stirs C. fries

D. slice/ stick D. came D. any D. drains

5. Ha Long Bay is one of the most famous tourist…………………in Vietnam.

A. attract B. attractions C. attractive 6. The ..........................time is 12 noon at this hotel.

A. check-out B. touchdown C. mix-up

D. attracted D. check-in

7. My bes friend is good………………….Math and English.

A. in B. for C. on

D. at

8. Ho Chi Minh city is....................... biggest city in Vietnam.

A. a B. an C. the

D. X

9. English has borrowed many words ................... come from other languages.

A. when B. where C. who

D. which

10. If English had fewer words, it .........................easier for us to master.

A. will be B. were C. would be

D. is

Part 3: READING Question 4: Read the passage and do the following tasks. (1,0pt) Every year, students in many countries learn English. Some of these students are young children.

Others are teenagers. Many are adults. Some learn at school, others study by themselves. A few learn English just by hearing the language in films, on television, in the office or among their friends. But not many are lucky enough to do that. Most people must work hard to learn another language.

Many boys and girls learn English at school because it is one of their subjects. They study their own language, mathematics, and English. In England, America, or Australia, many boys and girls study their native language, which is English, mathematics, and another language, perhaps French, or German or Spanish.

Many adults learn English because it is useful for their work. Teenagers often learn English for their higher studies, because some of their books are in English at college or university. Others learn English because they want to read newspapers or magazines in English. *Complete the answers with information from the passage (WRITE NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS) 1. Which language do students in many countries learn?

They learn…………..……..

2. According to the writer, how do most people do to learn another language?

Most people must………………………… to learn another language. *Write full answer to the questions with the information from the passage 3. What subjects do many boys and girls in England, America, or Australia study? ……………………………………………………………………………………..……………….. ………………………………………….……………………………………………..………………..

4. Why do many adults learn English? ……………………………………………………………………………………..……………….. ………………………………………….……………………………………………..………………..

Question 5: Read the passage and complete it with the words given. There is ONE extra word.

(1,5pts)

dictionary / speak / listening / accent / their / improve / English It is not easy for adult students of English to improve their pronunciation. Unlike children, adults often find it hard to change the way they (1)................................. This is why adult students have more difficulties in developing speaking skills than children. First of all, don’t worry about not having a native-English (2)...................................... It’s more important to be able to speak clearly, so that people can understand you. Then there are several things that international students of English can do to improve (3)...................................pronunciation and to learn English well. An English (4).................................helps you a lot in that it shows you the phonetic pronunciation of every word, which part of the word is stressed. You can also join an English pronunciation class, or practise speaking and (5)..................................to native-English speakers as much as possible. Watching TV programmes in English is another good way of improving your pronunciation. Above all, the best way to (6)................................your pronunciation is to learn English in an English-speaking country where you can learn the language as well as its culture.

Part 4: WRITING Question 6: Make complete sentences using the words and phrases given (1,25pts).

1. If my English/ be/ good enough, I/ find /a good job in the future .............................................................................................................................................................

2. It/ be/ useful/ us/ learn English with a good dictionary .............................................................................................................................................................

3. If you want/ stay healthy,/ you/ eat less junk food/ take more exercise .............................................................................................................................................................

4. English/ be easy to master if it/ not have/ such a large vocabulary ............................................................................................................................................................

5. There / be/ a shop where you/ can buy English books / CDs ............................................................................................................................................................

Question 7: Rewrite the following sentences with suggested words (1,25pts).

1. He failed the English test because he was lazy. (SO) He was……………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. The weather was bad, so we cancelled the trip to the beach. (BECAUSE) Because................................................................................................................................................

3. Nam learned a few words of Chinese last month. (UP) Nam......................................................................................................................................................

4. We should study English better. We can communicate with people around the world. (IF) If we study….……………..................................................................................................................

5. The girl is Mai. She is wearing a blue shirt. (WHO) The girl who is wearing……………………………………………………………………………...

The end. /

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ TIẾNG ANH 9 THÍ ĐIỂM LẦN 3 – HỌC KÌ 2 – NH: 2019-2020 - 0,25 point for one correct answer from Question 1 – 8.

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen to Jake talking to Sally about his holiday and choose A, B (1,25pts).

1. B 4. B 2. A 5. A 3. B Question 2: You will hear a headteacher talking to the school. Listen and complete (1,25pts).

1. 3.45 4. 2 2. 135 5. YULE 3. pizza Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Circle A, B, C or D to choose the correct answers (2,5pts).

1. A 6. A 2. B 7. D 3. C 8. C 4. A 9. D 5. B 10. C Part 3: READING Question 4: Read the passage and do the following tasks. (1,0pt) 1. English 2. work hard 3. In England, America, or Australia, many boys and girls study their native language, which is English, mathematics, and another language, perhaps French, or German or Spanish.

They study their native language, which is English, mathematics, and another language, perhaps French, or German or Spanish.

4. Because it is useful for their work.

Question 5: Read the passage and complete it with the words given. There is ONE extra word. (1,5pts) 1. speak 4. dictionary 2. accent 5. listening 3. their 6. improve Part 4: WRITING Question 6: Make complete sentences using the words and phrases given (1,25pts).

1. If my English is good enough, I will/can find a good job in the future.

2. It is useful for us to learn English with a good dictionary.

3. If you want to stay healthy, you should/ will eat less junk food and/or take more exercise.

4. English would be easy to master if it did not have such a large vocabulary.

5. There is a shop where you can buy English books and CDs. Question 7: Rewrite the following sentences with suggested words (1,25pts).

1. He was lazy, so he failed the English test.

2. Because the weather was bad, we cancelled the trip to the beach.

3. Nam picked up a few words of Chinese last month.

4. If we study English better, we can communicate with people around the world.

5. The girl who is wearing a blue shirt is Mai. THE END./

MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ LẦN 3 TIẾNG ANH 9 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 2 – NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 Nhận biết

Tên Chủ đề TL Part 1: Listening Listen and complete.

Listen and choose the correct answer A, B, C.

Số câu: 2 Số điểm: 0,5

Thông hiểu TN

TL

TN

Số câu: 2 Số điểm: 0,5

Số câu: 3 Số điểm: 0,75

Số câu: 3 Số điểm: 0,75

-Preposition -Relative Pro. -If sentences -Articles -Quantifiers Số câu: 4 Số điểm: 1,0

Part 2: Use of English Choose the correct answer A, B, C, D.

Part 3: Reading comprehension Số câu: 4 Choose the correct answer for each question. Số điểm: 1,0 Choose the correct answer for each blank.

TL

Tổng

Số câu: 10 Số điểm: 2,5 Tỉ lệ: 25%

Số câu: 10 Số điểm: 2,5 Tỉ lệ: 25%

Số câu: 6 Số điểm: 1,0

Số câu: 4 Số điểm: 1,0

Số câu: 2 Số điểm: 0,5

-If sentences - Because/so -Relative clauses Số câu: 5 Số điểm: 1,25

Số câu: 12 Số điểm: 3,0 30%

Vận dụng (Cấp độ cao) TL

-Word forms -Vocabulary -Compound nouns

Part 4: Writing Rewrite as suggested.

Make complete sentences.

Tổng số câu: Tổng số điểm: Tỉ lệ:

Vận dụng

Số câu: 16 Số điểm: 4,0 40%

Số câu: 7 Số điểm: 1,75 17,5%

Số câu: 10 Số điểm: 2,5 Tỉ lệ: 25% -If sentences -Because/so -Relative clauses Số câu: 5 Số điểm: 1,25

Số câu: 5 Số điểm: 1,25 12,5%

Số câu: 10 Số điểm: 2,5 Tỉ lệ: 25% Số câu: 40 Số điểm: 10,0 Tỉ lệ: 100%

Tan Hung Town Junior High School

45-MINUTE TEST No 4 – CODE A SUBJECT: ENGLISH 9 (NEW)

Full name: ………………………………

Class: 9A4 Points

Comments

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen and complete the information about a museum (1,25pts).

AIR MUSEUM 0.

Museum has:

140 planes

1.

Museum is near village of:

……………………….........…………

2.

From the village get bus number:

……………………….............………

3.

Summer opening times:

...........………………………………..

4.

Price of family ticket:

£………………………..……..............

5.

Day for plane trip:

………………………………………..

Question 2: Listen to the description of some changes in the roles of women in Kenya and fill the blanks with the correct information (1,25pts).

Percentage of women in Kenya staying at home as housewives in 1. 1995: ________________% 2. 2010: ________________% 3. 2025: ________________% Percentage of women in Kenya attending colleges and universities in 4. 1995: ________________% 5. 2025: ________________% Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Circle A, B, C or D to choose the correct answers (2,5pts).

1. A group of biologists ______ come from different countries are studying the penguin in Antarctica.

A. which B. who C. they D. whose 2. This syllabus is quite theoretical. I want to see something more ______.

A. hands-on B. individually-oriented C. male-dominated D. financial 3. Teachers will become ______ rather than information providers.

A. facilities B. facilitates C. facilitators D. facilitating

4. Vinasat-1 is Viet Nam’s first telecommunication______, which was launched in 2008.

A. telescope B. meteorize C. spacecraft D. satellite 5. Have you heard of Kepler-186f? It’s a planet_______is similar in size to Earth.

A. which B. who C. whom D. where 6. The spacecraft was_______two weeks ago.

A. experienced B. launched C. trained D. operated 7. I had such a good time last summer in Da Nang. It was a(n)_______ holiday!

A. once in a blue moon B. over the moon C. out of this world D. the sky‛s the limit 8. My father_______the dinner when I_______home.

A. had already cooked/ came B. cooked/ had already came C. had already cooked/ had already come D. cooked/ came 9. She decided to ______ for a job as an engineer.

A. applying B. application C. apply D. applicant 10. He has a strong ______. You can always rely on him.

A. sense of humour B. sense of responsibility C. sense of time D. sense of style Part 3: READING Question 4: Choose the best answer for each question from the passage (1,25pts).

The changing roles of the modern father Fathers used to act as the ‘breadwinner’ of their family, and as the teacher of moral and religious values. Today, however, those roles are gradually changing.

More and more women are going out to work and earn money. This increases the budget of the family. Apart from that, there are various social welfare programmes which financially assist mothers in supporting their children. Both these changes have greatly impacted the role of fathers because they make paternal financial support less essential for many families.

With the burden of financial support reduced, and with a changing concept of a father’s role, modern day fathers tend to be more involved in children’s caregiving. They are now spending more time and energy on their children.

Psychological research across families from all ethnic backgrounds suggests that the influence of a father’s love and attention is as great as that of a mother’s. Fatherly love helps children develop a sense of their place in the world, which helps their social and emotional development. Moreover, children who receive more love from their fathers are less likely to have behavioural problems.

This trend is still increasing and its effects will become clearer and clearer in the future, especially in traditionally male-dominated societies.

1. Which of these is NOT the traditional role of a father?

A. financial supporter B. teacher of moral values C. religious educator D. caregiver 2. Social welfare programmes ___________.

A. support families financially B. help mothers with domestic abuse C. educate fathers about their responsibilities D. train caregivers 3. The influence of a mother’s love is ___________ that of the father’s.

A. more important than B. less important than C. much greater than D. as important as 4. The changing roles of the father will be seen more clearly in ___________.

A. ethnic groups B. developed countries C. economically independent societies D. traditionally male-dominated societies 5. The word ‘who’ in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.

A. development B. fathers C. mothers D. children

Question 5: Choose the correct answers to complete each blank in the passage (1,25pts).

Earth, our beautiful home planet, is the only astronomical object to accommodate life (1) .............. we know it. Scientists believe Earth was (2)................approximately 4.5 billion years ago. It is the fifth-largest (3) ................ in our solar system. Its equatorial diameter is about 12,074 kilometres.

Earth is the third-closest planet to the sun. The distance from Earth to the sun is roughly 149,600,000 kilometres. It (4).................... 365,3 days for Earth to orbit the sun, and 24 hours to rotate on its axis. The surface temperature ranges from -88 to 580C. Nearly 70 percent of Earth’s surface is covered by ocean, (5).................... has an average depth of about 4 kilometres. In 2015 it was estimated that 7,3 billion humans are living on Earth.

1.

A. as B. so C. because D. that 2.

A. find B. formed C. found D. built 3.

A. system B. planet C. star D. sun 4.

A. has B. takes C. gets D. begins 5.

A. what B. that C. which D. where Part 4: WRITING Question 6: Make complete sentences using the words and phrases given (1,25pts).

1. Classes will also/ hold in places/ like restaurants/ supermarkets ............................................................................................................................................................

2. Jack London / be the author of The Call of the Wild / be / famous American writer ............................................................................................................................................................

3. Could we meet/ the café where we /see each other last time? ............................................................................................................................................................

4. More flyovers will/ build/ to reduce traffic/ the city ...........................................................................................................................................................

5. When the USA/ put the first human/ the moon, Russia already send/ the first human into space ...........................................................................................................................................................

Question 7: Rewrite the following sentences with suggested words (1,25pts).

1. Many tourists visit Ha Noi. Ha Noi is the capital of Viet Nam. (WHICH) Many tourists........................................................................................................................................

2. New York is a famous city. Everybody wants to live in this city. (WHERE) New York is..........................................................................................................................................

3. High technology will free women from most housework. (BE) Women.................................................................................................................................................

4. Some women get a university degree. They can get a well-paid job. (WHO) Some women..………………...............................................................................................................

5. Gagarin flew into space eight years. Armstrong walked on the moon. (BEFORE) Gagarin had......…………………......………………………………………………………………...

The end. /

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ TIẾNG ANH 9 THÍ ĐIỂM LẦN 4 – HỌC KÌ 2 – ĐỀ A - 0,25 point for one correct answer from Question 1 – 8.

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen and complete the information about a museum (1,25pts).

1. CHERFORD 4. 18 2. 51 5. Sunday 3. 10 AM Question 2: Listen to the description of some changes in the roles of women in Kenya and fill the blanks with the correct information (1,25pts).

1. 65% 4. 22% 2. 47% 5. 48% 3. 30% Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Circle A, B, C or D to choose the correct answers (2,5pts).

1. B 6. B 2. A 7. C 3. C 8. A 4. D 9. C 5. A 10. B Part 3: READING Question 4: Choose the best answer for each question from the passage (1,25pts).

1. D 4. D 2. A 5. D 3. D Question 5: Read the passage and choose the correct answers (1,25pts).

1. A 4. B 2. B 5. C 3. B Part 4: WRITING Question 6: Make complete sentences using the words and phrases given (1,25pts).

1. Classes will also be held in places like restaurants and/or supermarkets.

2. Jack London, who is the author of The Call of the Wild, is a famous American writer.

3. Could we meet the café where we saw each other last time?

4. More flyovers will be built to reduce traffic in the city.

5. When the USA put the first human on the moon, Russia had already sent the first human into space.

Question 7: Rewrite the following sentences with suggested words (1,25pts).

1. Many tourists visit Ha Noi, which is the capital of Viet Nam. 2. New York is a famous city where everybody wants to live.

3. Women will be freed from most housework by high technology.

4. Some women who get a university degree can get a well-paid job.

5. Gagarin had flown into space eight years before Armstrong walked on the moon.

THE END./

MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ LẦN 4 TIẾNG ANH 9 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 2 – NĂM HỌC 2018-2019 Tên Chủ đề

Nhận biết TL

Part 1: Listening Listen and complete.

Listen and choose the correct answer A, B, C.

Part 2: Use of English Choose the correct answer A, B, C, D.

Part 3: Reading comprehension Choose the correct answer for each question.

Choose the correct answer for each blank.

Số câu: 2 Số điểm: 0,5

TN

Thông hiểu TL

Số câu: 2 Số câu: 3 Số điểm: 0,5 Số điểm: 0,75

TN

-Word forms -Vocabulary -Compound nouns

-Conversational exchanges -Vocabulary

Số câu: 4 Số điểm: 1,0

Số câu: 2 Số điểm: 0,5

Số câu: 4 Số điểm: 1,0

Số câu: 6 Số điểm: 1,5

Số câu: 10 Số điểm: 2,5 Tỉ lệ: 25%

Số câu: 10 Số điểm: 2,5 Tỉ lệ: 25% -Future passive -Articles -Relative clauses Số câu: 5 Số điểm: 1,25

Số câu: 16 Số điểm: 4,0 40%

Tổng

Số câu: 10 Số điểm: 2,5 Tỉ lệ: 25%

-Preposition -Relative Pro. -If sentences -Articles -Quantifiers Số câu: 4 Số điểm: 1,0

Số câu: 12 Số điểm: 3,0 30%

Vận dụng (Cấp độ cao) TL TN

Số câu: 3 Số điểm: 0,75

Part 4: Writing Rewrite as suggested.

Make complete sentences.

Tổng số câu: Tổng số điểm: Tỉ lệ:

Vận dụng (Cấp độ thấp) TL TN

Số câu: 7 Số điểm: 1,75 17,5%

-Future passive -Articles -Relative clauses Số câu: 5 Số điểm: 1,25 Số câu: 5 Số điểm: 1,25 12,5%

Số câu: 10 Số điểm: 2,5 Tỉ lệ: 25% Số câu: 40 Số điểm: 10,0 Tỉ lệ: 100%