ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ TIẾNG ANH 8 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 1 - NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 CÓ FILE NGHE VÀ ĐÁP ÁN

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ TIẾNG ANH 8 THÍ ĐIỂM

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ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ TIẾNG ANH 8 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 1 - NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 CÓ FILE NGHE VÀ ĐÁP ÁN BY TUAN NGUYEN WORD VERSION | 2021 EDITION ORDER NOW / CHUYỂN GIAO QUA EMAIL TAILIEUCHUANTHAMKHAO@GMAIL.COM

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Tan Hung Town Junior High School

45-MINUTE TEST No 1 SUBJECT: ENGLISH 8 (NEW)

Full name: ………………………………

Class: 8A5 Points

Comment

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen and complete the text about a kind of food. There is one example (1,25pts) Five-coloured sticky rice is an important traditional dish of many ethnic minorities in the (0) …northern………….. mountainous regions. It has five colours: People use natural roots and leaves to create the colours but not (1)…………………………………… The five colours represent (2)……………………………………… elements: yellow is earth, red is fire, (3)………………………….………..

is

plants,

white

is

metal,

and

purple

or

(4)………………………….……is water. People believe that these five elements create the harmony between heaven and earth. People can make and enjoy five-coloured sticky rice at Tet, in (5)………………………………… and ceremonies, on special occasions, and whenever the family has guests.

Question 2: Listen and tick the box. There is one example (1,25pts)

Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Complete the sentences with suitable comparative forms of adjectives or adverbs (1,25pts) 1. It is ………………………..……….to get access to the internet in a city than in a village. (easy) 2. I think life in the countryside is ……………………………………than that in the city. (exciting) 3. My father has to get up…………..………………………than us to herd the buffaloes. (early) 4. People in the countryside live…………………………………..than those in the city. (happily).

5. Portugal played ………………………………….than France to claim the Europe 2016 tittle. (well) Question 4: Circle A, B, C or D to choose the correct answer (1,25pts) 1. ….………………Odu have the smallest number of people.

A. a

B. an

C. the

D. Ø

2. Vietnam is ……………………..multicutural country with 54 ethnic groups.

A. a

B. an

C. the

D. Ø

3. …………………..rice do you eat everyday? Just a bowl of it.

A. How much

B. How many

C. How

D. How often

C. collect

D. to collect

4. We prefer ………………………outdooors.

A. play

B. playing

5. Ngoc hates……………………….in front of the computer for too long.

A. watch

B. watching

C. sit

D. sitting

Part 3: READING Question 5: Complete the passage with the words given. There is one extra word (1,25pts) like

water

plant

beautiful

space

feel

My village is about 50 kilometers from the city center. It is a very (1)……………………….place where people (2)…………………………..flowers and vegetables only. It is famous for its pretty roses and picturesque scenes. The air is quite fresh; however, the smell of roses make people (3)…………………………..cool. In spring, my village looks (4)……………………………….a carpet with plenty of colours. Tourists come to visit it very often. Nowadays, with electricity, it doesn’t take the villagers much time to (5)……………..……..the roses.

Question 6: Read and complete each sentence below with no more than 4 words (1,25pts)

Duong Lam Village - a unique village that is a typical village of the midlands in the North of Viet Nam.

Duong Lam: An ancient Vietnamese village Duong Lam village is located in Duong Lam commune at a about 45 km distance from Hanoi. It is the birthplace of two kings in the history of Vietnam, Phung Hung (or Bo Cai Dai Vuong) and Ngo Quyen, who opened up the long-term self-control and independence period of Viet Nam after Bach Dang victory in year 938.

All houses, gates, village gates and wells are built of laterite (đá ong) creating an architectural complex, a unique village that is typical for villages in the midlands in the North of Vietnam.

At present, there are still nearly 200 ancient houses and many other historical monuments such as Phung Hung Temple, Ngo Quyen Royal Tomb, Mong Phu Communal House, and Ho Gam Hill at which Phung Hung killed tiger to rescue villagers. *Complete the sentences:

1. Duong Lam Village is ………………………………………………………….far from Ha Noi. 2. The two kings, Ngo Quyen and ……….…………………..….……………….. was born in Duong Lam. 3. ………………………..…………….…………..is used to build all houses, gates, village gates in Duong Lam 4. Duong Lam is typical for ………………………………..…..………………..in the North of Vietnam.

5. Visitors can visit historical monunents and nearly 200 ……………………..….………………….in Duong Lam.

Part 4: WRITING Question 7: Make complete sentences using the words and phrases given (1,25pts) 1. Which /ethnic group/ largest/ population? ...................................................................................................................................................

2. Who/ does/ shopping/ your family? .................................................................................................................................................

3. How many/ ethnic groups/ there/ Vietnam? ...................................................................................................................................................

4. He/ like/ learn English/ the new teacher. ...................................................................................................................................................

5. Linh/ enjoy/ make crafts/ her free time. ...................................................................................................................................................

Question 8: Write a paragraph (about 50 words) about what you like about your hometown (1,25pts) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

The end. / Good luck!

MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ LẦN 1 TIẾNG ANH 8 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 1 – NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 Skills and Language

Listening

CHỦ ĐỀ (THEMES) Bài nghe 1 về: Me and the World Around Số câu hỏi: Số điểm: Bài nghe 2 về: Me and My Family Số câu hỏi: Số điểm: Bài kĩ năng ngôn ngữ 1 về: Comparative forms

Use of English

Reading

Writing

Số câu hỏi: Số điểm: Bài kĩ năng ngôn ngữ 2 về: Wh-questions, a, an, the, Verbs of liking Số câu hỏi: Số điểm: Bài đọc hiểu số 1 về: Me and My Friends Số câu hỏi: Số điểm: Bài đọc hiểu số 2 về: Me and the World Around Số câu hỏi: Số điểm:

CẤP ĐỘ (LEVEL OF DIFFICULTIES) Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụng

CỘNG

Listen and write

5 0,25đ

5 1,25 đ (12,5%)

Listen and tick

5 0,25đ

5 1,25 đ (12,5%)

Completing the sentences

5 0,25đ

5 1,25 đ (12,5%) Choosing the correct answers

5 0,25đ Completing the passage 5 0,25đ

5 1,25 đ (12,5%)

5 1,25 đ (12,5%)

Completing the sentences

5 0,25đ

5 1,25 đ (12,5%)

Bài viết số 1 về: Wh-questions Verbs of liking

Reordering sentences

Số câu hỏi: Số điểm: Bài viết số 2 về: Me and My Family Số câu hỏi: Số điểm: Tổng số câu Tổng số điểm Tỷ lệ %

5 0,25đ Answering questions 5 0,25đ 10 câu 2,5 điểm 25 %

15 câu 3,75 điểm 37,5 %

15câu 3,75 điểm 37,5 %

5 1,25 đ (12,5%)

5 1,25 đ (12,5%) 40 câu 10 điểm 100%

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ LẦN 1 TIẾNG ANH 8 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 1 – NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 - 0,25 point for one correct answer.

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen and complete the text about a kind of food. There is one example (1,25pts) 1. colour(s) 3. green 5. festivals 2. five (5) 4. black Question 2: Listen and tick the box. (1,25pts) 1. A 3. B 5. A 2. C 4. B Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Complete the sentences with suitable comparative forms of adjectives or adverbs (1,25pts) 1. easier 3. earlier 5. better 2. more/ less exciting 4. more/less happily Question 4: Circle A, B, C or D to choose the correct answer (1,25pts) 1. C 3. A 5. D 2. A 4. B Part 3: READING Question 5: Complete the passage with the words given. There is one extra word (1,25pts) 1. beautiful 3. feel 5. water 2. plant 4. like Question 6: Read and complete each sentence below with no more than 4 words (1,25pts) 1. about 45 km

3. laterite

2. Phung Hung (or Bo Cai Dai Vuong)

4. villages in the midlands

5. ancient houses

Part 4: WRITING Question 7: Make complete sentences using the words and phrases given (1,25pts) 1. Which ethnic group has the largest population?

2. Who does the shopping in your family?

3. People in the past dressed more traditionally than we do today.

4. He likes to learn English with the new teacher.

5. Linh enjoys making crafts in her free time.

Question 8: Write answers to the questions about yourself (1,25pts) (1,25pts) Ss’ answers.

Tan Hung Town Junior High School Full name: ………………………………

Class: 8A..

45-MINUTE TEST No 2 SUBJECT: ENGLISH 8 (NEW)

Points

Comment

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen to the Zapp family talking about their experiences on the road. Choose the correct answer (1,25pts) 1. Have the Zapps ever had problems on their journey?

A. Yes, they have.

B. No, they haven’t.

2. Has the car ever stopped working?

A. Yes, it has.

B. No, it hasn’t.

3. Has the car ever travelled faster than 55 kilometers per hour?

A. Yes, it has.

B. No, it hasn’t.

4. Have the children seen any wild animals?

A. Yes, they have.

B. No, they haven’t.

5. Have they ever been to Vietnam?

A. Yes, they have.

B. No, they haven’t.

Question 2: Listen and complete. There is one example (1,25pts)

FARM VISIT

Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Complete the sentences with the words given in the box (1,25pts) while

because

otherwise

however

so

although

but

therefore

1. Every elephant rider is proud to be the race winner……………………….the prize is small.

2. The Khmer believe they have to float lanterns; ……………………….., they may get bad luck.

3. I like spring, ………………………….I don’t like spring rain.

4. ……………………….Quan Ho is the traditional folk song, only this kind of singing is allowed at the Lim Festival.

5. People can enjoy the beautiful scenery.……………………… they are travelling on Yen Stream.

Question 4: Circle A, B, C or D to choose the correct answer (1,25pts) 1. Which word has different stressed syllable?

A. musician

B. preservation

C. librarian

D. procession

2. The Giong Festival is held every year to …………………..Saint Giong, our traditional hero.

A. commemorate

B. commemoration

C. perform

D. performance

3. Thanks to technology, we can now…………………….our culture for future generations.

A. preserving

B. preservative

C. preserve

D. preservation

4. Young children ………………….take things from adults with both hands.

A. should

B. don’t have to

C. mustn’t

D. shouldn’t

5. The teacher is very strict. You ……………………make noise in class.

A. have to

B. don’t have to

C. must

D. mustn’t

Part 3: READING Question 5: Complete the passage with the words given. There is one extra word (1,25pts) table manners feel

customs

When

to

traveling

surprised

another

country,

stick out you

should

greeting learn

a

bit

introduced about

its

(1)

….….……………….……..before you go there. This includes getting to know the proper form of (2) ..……………….…………..people, which can differ a lot. If you go to European country, don’t be (3)…………….……………. if someone kisses on the cheek. In China, for example, people might applaud when a visitor is (4)…………………...…… Finally, in Tibet, people may (5)…………………….………their tongue to greet you! Indeed, there is a wide range of greetings around the world.

Question 6: Read and answer the questions (1,25pts)

Mid-Autumn Festival Mid-Autumn Festival is held on 15th day of the eighth lunar month to celebrate biggest full moon in the year. In Viet Nam, this festival is for children; therefore, children are center of all activities on that day. While the festival is coming, adults and parents prepare many different kinds of foods – moon cakes, candies, biscuits, jellies, and fruit. Moreover, the children are given many nice lanterns and diverse funny masks, and they can light the lanterns during the Mid-Autumn night.

Because the autumn is the time of the beginning of the new school year, adults and parents give gifts to the children. The festival takes place after people have had good crops. Therefore, it is also the congratulation for the full harvest.

Nowadays, although some of the traditional toys have been replaced by modern toys, the meaning of the festival has been kept and developed. It is certain that Mid-Autumn Festival is considered as a good example of the traditional culture of the Vietnamese. *Answer: 1. When do people celebrate Mid-Autumn Festival?

It is held on……………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. What kinds of food do people prapare at Mid-Autumn Festival?

The foods are…………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. What are children given besides some kinds of foods?

They are also given …………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Why is Mid-Autumn Festival also considered the congratulation for the full harvest?

Because …………………………………………..……………………………………………………………

5. What is Mid-Autumn Festival considered?

It is considered………………………………………………………………………………………………..

Part 4: WRITING Question 7: Reorder the words and phrases given to make complete sentences (1,25pts) 1. It’s /that we spend/ Sunday evening/ together. / my family / a custom in/ ...................................................................................................................................................

2. They/ not eating/ broke with/ moon cakes/ at the moon festival. / tradition by/ .................................................................................................................................................

3. Even though/ never been/ Giong Festival, / I enjoy / I have/ there. / ...................................................................................................................................................

4. The kids/ sing and / for the moon/ dance while/ they are waiting/ to rise./ ...................................................................................................................................................

5. Tet is the /most Vietnamese/ most important festival/ ; therefore, / return / home for Tet./ ...................................................................................................................................................

Question 8: Write a paragraph (about 50 words) about a festival you like (but not the MidAutumn Festival). The following questions may help you. (1,25pts) • What is the name of the festival?

• What can visitors enjoy at the festivals?

• When and where is it held?

• What do you think about the festival?

• Why do people celebrate the festival? ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

The end. / Good luck!

MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ LẦN 2 TIẾNG ANH 8 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 1 – NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 Skills and Language

CHỦ ĐỀ (THEMES)

Bài nghe 1 về: Me and The World Around

CẤP ĐỘ (LEVEL OF DIFFICULTIES) Nhận biết

Thông hiểu

CỘNG

Vận dụng

Listen and choose the correct answer

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Listening Bài nghe 2 về: Me and The World Around

Listen and complete

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Bài kĩ năng ngôn ngữ 1 về:

Completing the sentences

Connectives

Use of English

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Bài kĩ năng ngôn ngữ 2 về: Modals; Word form

Choosing the correct answers

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Bài đọc hiểu số 1 về: Me and The World Around

Completing the passage

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Reading Bài đọc hiểu số 2 về:

Completing the sentences

Me and the World Around Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Bài viết số 1 về:

Making complete sentences

Connectives Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Writing Bài viết số 2 về: Me and The World Around

Writing a short paragraph

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Tổng số câu

15 câu

15câu

10 câu

40 câu

Tổng số điểm

3,75 điểm

3,75 điểm

2,5 điểm

10 điểm

Tỷ lệ %

37,5 %

37,5 %

25 %

100%

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ LẦN 2 TIẾNG ANH 8 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 1 – NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 - 0,25 point for one correct answer from Question 1 – 7.

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen to the Zapp family talking about their experiences on the road. Choose the correct answer (1,25pts) 1. A 3. B 5. B 2. A 4. A Question 2: Listen and complete. There is one example (1,25pts) 1. animal(s) 3. Rainbow 5. 559829 2. chicken(s) 4. 4.00 Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Complete the sentences with the words given in the box (1,25pts) 1. although 3. but 5. while 2. otherwise 4. because Question 4: Circle A, B, C or D to choose the correct answer (1,25pts) 1. B 3. C 5. D 2. A 4. A Part 3: READING Question 5: Complete the passage with the words given. There is one extra word (1,25pts) 1. customs 3. surprised 5. stick out 2. greeting 4. introduced Question 6: Read and answer the questions (1,25pts) 1. 15th day of the eighth lunar month 2. moon cakes, candies, biscuits, jellies, and fruit 3. many nice lanterns and diverse funny masks 4. the festival takes place after people have had good crops 5. as a good example of the traditional culture of the Vietnamese.

Part 4: WRITING Question 7: Reorder the words and phrases given to make complete sentences (1,25pts) 1. It’s a custom in my family that we spend Sunday evening together.

2. They broke withtradition by not eating moon cakes at the moon festival.

3. Even though I enjoy Giong Festival, I have never been there.

4. The kids sing and dance while they are waiting for the moonto rise.

5. Tet is the most important festival; therefore, most Vietnamese return home for Tet. Question 8: Write a paragraph (about 50 words) about a festival you like (but not the MidAutumn Festival). The following questions may help you. (1,25pts) Ss’ answers.

Content: 0,75 pt.

Grammar: 0,25pt.

Word use: 0,25pt.

Tan Hung Town Junior High School

45-MINUTE TEST No 3 SUBJECT: ENGLISH 8 (NEW)

Full name: ………………………………

Class: 8A….

Points

Comment

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen and match (1,25pts).

Listen to Dan talking about his round-the-world trip with a friend. What was the weather like in each place? Match the places (1-5) with the weather (A-H). You will listen twice.

Your answer

0. London D 1. Paris 2. Cairo 3. Sydney 4. Tokyo 5. San Francisco

A. cloudy B. fog gy C. windy D. rainy E. sunny F. stormy

1. …..

2. …..

3. …..

4. …..

5. …..

Question 2: Listen and complete. There is one example (1,25pts).

You will hear a man asking for information about the Westwood English School. Listen and complete questions. You will hear the conversation twice.

WESTWOOD ENGLISH SCHOOL Evening classes:

On Thursday

Next courses start on: (1) …22…………………….……….…..

Speaking class with:

(2) …Miss……………………..…………

Cost for 12 classes:

(3)…£………………………..…….…….

Address:

(4)………..……..………Fitzroy Square.

School is next the:

(5)…………………………….………….

Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Choose the word among A, B, C, or D that has different stressed syllable (1,25pts).

1.

A. historic

2.

B. heroic

C. botanical

D. scientific

A. Vietnamese B. Japanese

C. employee

D. biology

3.

A. technology

B. natural

C. photography

D. historian

4.

A. interviewee

B. contamination

C. economica l

D. organization

5.

A. Canadian

B. physical

C. disaster

D. pollution

Question 4: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets (1,25pts).

1. If people travel to work by bus, there (be)…………………………………fewer car fumes.

2. If people (not/ throw)……………………………. rubbish in the street, it would look attractive.

3. The train to Ha Noi (leave)………………….………at 7.30 am from platform four.

4. He got lost because he (not/ take)………………………………..the map with him.

5. If I were you, I (study)…………………….……...harder for the coming exam.

Part 3: READING Question 5: Choose the word among A, B, C or D that best fits the blanks (1,25pts).

London's Tower Bridge is one of the most famous bridges in the world. It was (1)……………….so that it would be in harmony with the nearby Tower of London. The bridge was completed in 1894. 11,000 tons of steel were used to build the framework. Over time the bridge became one of London's most famous (2)…………………

Taking photographs of Tower Bridge is a (3)……………… London tourist activity, but you can also go inside the bridge, where you'll have a magnificent view over London from the walkway (4)………………… the two bridge towers. Inside the bridge you can also visit the Tower Bridge Exhibition. It is particularly to see the bridge (5)……………..and close below your feet.

1. A. designed

B. bought

C. gone

D. visited

2. A. views

B. traffic

C. landscapes

D. tourist

3. A. official

B. favorite

C. historical

D. native

4. A. between

B. in

C. below

D. above

5. A. fly

B. open

C. run

D. follow

Question 6: Read the passage and choose the correct answers among A, B, C or D (1,25pts).

How can scientist predict earthquakes? Earthquakes are not scattered anywhere but happen in certain areas. They happen in places of the earth’s surface meet. This pattern causes them to shake the same places many times. For example, earthquakes often occur on the west - coast of North and South America, around the Mediterranean Sea, and along the Pacific coast of Asia.

Another way to predict earthquakes is to look for changes in the earth’s surface like a sudden drop of water level in the ground. Some people say animals can predict earthquakes. Before earthquakes people have seen chickens sitting in trees, fish jumping out of water, snakes leaving their holes and other animals acting strangely.

After an earthquake happens, people can die from lack of food, water and medical supplies. The amount of destruction caused by an earthquake depends on where it happens, and how strong it is.

It also depends on types of buildings, soil conditions and population. Of the 6000 earthquakes in the earth each year, only about fifteen cause great damage and many deaths.

1. Earthquakes happen in certain areas where _____.

A. the population is large B. pieces of the earth’s surface meet C. the soil condition are stable D. many buildings are built 2. Earthquakes often occur on the west - coast of _____.

A. North and South America B. North and South Australia C. North and South Asia D. the Mediterranean Sea 3. Another way to predict earthquakes is to look for_______ A. changes in the earth’s surface B. people C. drops of water D. water currents 4. After an earthquake, people can die from_________ A. lack of knowledge B. lack of friendship C. lack of food D. lack of information 5. The passage is mainly about ______.

A. soil conditions B. earthquakes in America C. strange animal behaviors D. how to predict earthquakes Part 4: WRITING Question 7: Reorder the words and phrases to make complete sentences (1,25pts).

1. The fish/ dead/ are/ because/ polluted water./ of the/ ...................................................................................................................................................

2. If you/ the president,/ were / you do/ what would/ to help the environment?/ ....................................................................................................................................................

3. Residents of flooded areas/ to a safe place/ were taken/ yesterday./ ...................................................................................................................................................

4. I/ my homework/ had done / went to bed/ before I/ last night./ ...................................................................................................................................................

5. We/ will save/ if we do not/ thousands of trees/ waste paper./ ...................................................................................................................................................

Question 8: Use your own ideas to answer the following questions. (1,25pts).

1. What will happen if people continue throwing trash onto the water? ........................................................................................................................................................ ………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. What had you done before you started primary school? ....................................................................................................................................................... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………....

3. What would you do if you were an environmentalist? ....................................................................................................................................................... …………………………………………………………………………………………………....…

4. What should you do to prepare for floods in your area? ....................................................................................................................................................... …………………………………………………………………………………………………....…

5. In which English speaking country would you like to go to study? Why? ....................................................................................................................................................... ………………………………………………………………………………………………....……

The end. / Good luck!

Tan Hung Town Junior High School

45-MINUTE TEST No 3 SUBJECT: ENGLISH 8 (NEW)

Full name: ………………………………

Class: 8A….

Points

Comment

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen and match (1,25pts).

Listen to Dan talking about his round-the-world trip with a friend. What was the weather like in each place? Match the places (1-5) with the weather (A-H). You will listen twice.

Your answer

0. London D 1. Paris 2. Cairo 3. Sydney 4. Tokyo 5. San Francisco

A. cloudy B. fog gy C. windy D. rainy E. sunny F. stormy

1. …..

2. …..

3. …..

4. …..

5. …..

Question 2: Listen and complete. There is one example (1,25pts).

You will hear a man asking for information about the Westwood English School. Listen and complete questions. You will hear the conversation twice.

WESTWOOD ENGLISH SCHOOL Evening classes:

On Thursday

Next courses start on: (1) …22…………………….……….…..

Speaking class with:

(2) …Miss……………………..…………

Cost for 12 classes:

(3)…£………………………..…….…….

Address:

(4)………..……..………Fitzroy Square.

School is next the:

(5)…………………………….………….

Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Choose the word among A, B, C, or D that has different stressed syllable (1,25pts).

1.

A. historic

2.

B. heroic

C. botanical

D. scientific

A. Vietnamese B. Japanese

C. employee

D. biology

3.

A. technology

B. natural

C. photography

D. historian

4.

A. interviewee

B. contamination

C. economica l

D. organization

5.

A. Canadian

B. physical

C. disaster

D. pollution

Question 4: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets (1,25pts).

1. If people travel to work by bus, there (be)…………………………………fewer car fumes.

2. If people (not/ throw)……………………………. rubbish in the street, it would look attractive.

3. The train to Ha Noi (leave)………………….………at 7.30 am from platform four.

4. He got lost because he (not/ take)………………………………..the map with him.

5. If I were you, I (study)…………………….……...harder for the coming exam.

Part 3: READING Question 5: Choose the word among A, B, C or D that best fits the blanks (1,25pts).

London's Tower Bridge is one of the most famous bridges in the world. It was (1)……………….so that it would be in harmony with the nearby Tower of London. The bridge was completed in 1894. 11,000 tons of steel were used to build the framework. Over time the bridge became one of London's most famous (2)…………………

Taking photographs of Tower Bridge is a (3)……………… London tourist activity, but you can also go inside the bridge, where you'll have a magnificent view over London from the walkway (4)………………… the two bridge towers. Inside the bridge you can also visit the Tower Bridge Exhibition. It is particularly to see the bridge (5)……………..and close below your feet.

1. A. designed

B. bought

C. gone

D. visited

2. A. views

B. traffic

C. landscapes

D. tourist

3. A. official

B. favorite

C. historical

D. native

4. A. between

B. in

C. below

D. above

5. A. fly

B. open

C. run

D. follow

Question 6: Read the passage and choose the correct answers among A, B, C or D (1,25pts).

How can scientist predict earthquakes? Earthquakes are not scattered anywhere but happen in certain areas. They happen in places of the earth’s surface meet. This pattern causes them to shake the same places many times. For example, earthquakes often occur on the west - coast of North and South America, around the Mediterranean Sea, and along the Pacific coast of Asia.

Another way to predict earthquakes is to look for changes in the earth’s surface like a sudden drop of water level in the ground. Some people say animals can predict earthquakes. Before earthquakes people have seen chickens sitting in trees, fish jumping out of water, snakes leaving their holes and other animals acting strangely.

After an earthquake happens, people can die from lack of food, water and medical supplies. The amount of destruction caused by an earthquake depends on where it happens, and how strong it is.

It also depends on types of buildings, soil conditions and population. Of the 6000 earthquakes in the earth each year, only about fifteen cause great damage and many deaths.

1. Earthquakes happen in certain areas where _____.

A. the population is large B. pieces of the earth’s surface meet C. the soil condition are stable D. many buildings are built 2. Earthquakes often occur on the west - coast of _____.

A. North and South America B. North and South Australia C. North and South Asia D. the Mediterranean Sea 3. Another way to predict earthquakes is to look for_______ A. changes in the earth’s surface B. people C. drops of water D. water currents 4. After an earthquake, people can die from_________ A. lack of knowledge B. lack of friendship C. lack of food D. lack of information 5. The passage is mainly about ______.

A. soil conditions B. earthquakes in America C. strange animal behaviors D. how to predict earthquakes Part 4: WRITING Question 7: Reorder the words and phrases to make complete sentences (1,25pts).

1. The fish/ dead/ are/ because/ polluted water./ of the/ ...................................................................................................................................................

2. If you/ the president,/ were / you do/ what would/ to help the environment?/ ....................................................................................................................................................

3. Residents of flooded areas/ to a safe place/ were taken/ yesterday./ ...................................................................................................................................................

4. I/ my homework/ had done / went to bed/ before I/ last night./ ...................................................................................................................................................

5. We/ will save/ if we do not/ thousands of trees/ waste paper./ ...................................................................................................................................................

Question 8: Use your own ideas to answer the following questions. (1,25pts).

1. What will happen if people continue throwing trash onto the water? ........................................................................................................................................................ ………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. What had you done before you started primary school? ....................................................................................................................................................... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………....

3. What would you do if you were an environmentalist? ....................................................................................................................................................... …………………………………………………………………………………………………....…

4. What should you do to prepare for floods in your area? ....................................................................................................................................................... …………………………………………………………………………………………………....…

5. In which English speaking country would you like to go to study? Why? ....................................................................................................................................................... ………………………………………………………………………………………………....……

The end. / Good luck!

MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ LẦN 3 TIẾNG ANH 8 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 2 – NĂM HỌC 2019-2020 Nhận biết

Tên Chủ đề TL Part 1: Listening Listen and complete.

Listen and choose the correct answer Part 2: Use of English Pronunciation: Stress Verb form/ tense

Số câu: 2 Số điểm: 0,5

Số câu: 3 Số điểm: 0,75

TN

TL

TN

Số câu: 2 Số điểm: 0,5

Số câu: 3 Số điểm: 0,75

Số câu: 3 Số điểm: 0,75

Số câu: 5 Số điểm: 1,25

Part 3: Reading comprehension Choose the correct Số câu: 2 answer for each Số điểm: 1,0 question.

Choose the correct answer to complete Part 4: Writing Reorder the words and phrases to make complete sentences Answer the questions.

Tổng số câu: Tổng số điểm: Tỉ lệ:

Thông hiểu

Số câu: 14 Số điểm: 3,5 35%

Vận dụng TL

Vận dụng (Cấp độ cao) TL

Số câu: 10 Số điểm: 2,5 Tỉ lệ: 25% Số câu: 10 Số điểm: 2,5 Tỉ lệ: 25%

Số câu: 2 Số điểm: 0,5

Số câu: 6 Số điểm: 1,0

Số câu: 10 Số điểm: 2,5 Tỉ lệ: 25%

Số câu: 2 Số điểm: 0,5

Số câu: 5 Số điểm: 1,25 Số câu: 14 Số điểm: 3,5 35%

Tổng

Số câu: 7 Số điểm: 1,75 17,5%

Số câu: 5 Số điểm: 1,25 Số câu: 5 Số điểm: 1,25 12,5%

Số câu: 10 Số điểm: 2,5 Tỉ lệ: 25% Số câu: 40 Số điểm: 10,0 Tỉ lệ: 100%

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ LẦN 3 TIẾNG ANH 8 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 2 – NĂM HỌC 2019-2020

0,25 point for one correct answer.

Question 1: Listen and match (1,25pts).

1. A 3. F 5. B 2. C 4. E Question 2: Listen and complete. There is one example (1,25pts).

1. September

4. 223

2. Javis

5. bookshop

3. 78 Question 3: Choose the word among A, B, C, or D that has different stressed syllable (1,25pts).

1. D

3. B

2. D

4. C

5. B

Question 4: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets (1,25pts).

1. will be 4. hadn’t taken 2. didn’t throw 5. would study 3. leaves Question 5: Choose the word among A, B, C or D that best fits the blanks (1,25pts).

1. A 3. B 5. B 2. C 4. A Question 6: Read the passage and choose the correct answers among A, B, C or D (1,25pts).

1. B 3. A 5. D 2. A 4. C Question 7: Make complete sentences with the words and phrases given (1,25pts) 1. The fish are dead because of the polluted water.

2. If you were the president, what would you do to help the environment?

3. Residents of flooded areas were taken to a safe place yesterday.

4. I had done my homework before I went to bed last night.

5. We will save thousands of trees if we do not waste paper.

Question 8: Use your own ideas to answer the following questions. (1,25pts) Ss’ answers.

Tan Hung Town Junior High School

45-MINUTE TEST No 3 – CODE A SUBJECT: ENGLISH 8 (NEW)

Full name: ………………………………

Class: 8A5 Points

Comment

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen and match (1,25pts).

Listen to Dan talking about his round-the-world trip with a friend. What was the weather like in each place? Match the places (1-5) with the weather (A-H). You will listen twice.

Your answer

0. London D 1. Paris 2. Cairo 3. Sydney 4. Tokyo 5. San Francisco

A. cloud B. fog C. ice D. rain E. snow F. storms G. sun H. wind

1. …..

2. …..

3. …..

4. …..

5. …..

Question 2: Listen and complete. There is one example (1,25pts).

You will hear a man asking for information about the Westwood English School. Listen and complete questions. You will hear the conversation twice.

WESTWOOD ENGLISH SCHOOL Evening classes:

On Thursday

Next courses start on: (1) …22…………………….……….…..

Speaking class with:

(2) …Miss……………………..…………

Cost for 12 classes:

(3)…£………………………..…….…….

Address:

(4)………..……..………Fitzroy Square.

School is next the:

(5)…………………………….………….

Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Choose the word among A, B, C, or D that has different stressed syllable (1,25pts).

1.

A. historic

2.

B. heroic

C. botanical

D. scientific

A. Vietnamese B. Japanese

C. employee

D. biology

3.

A. technology

B. natural

C. photography

D. historian

4.

A. interviewee

B. contamination

C. economica l

D. organization

5.

A. Canadian

B. physical

C. disaster

D. pollution

Question 4: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets (1,25pts).

1. If people travel to work by bus, there (be)…………………………………fewer car fumes.

2. If people (not/ throw)……………………………. rubbish in the street, it would look attractive.

3. The train to Ha Noi (leave)………………….………at 7.30 am from platform four.

4. He got lost because he (not/ take)………………………………..the map with him.

5. In the future, natural disasters (predict)………………………………accurately with the help of technology.

Part 3: READING Question 5: Choose the word among A, B, C or D that best fits the blanks (1,25pts).

London's Tower Bridge is one of the most famous bridges in the world. It was (1)……………….so that it would be in harmony with the nearby Tower of London. The bridge was completed in 1894. 11,000 tons of steel were used to build the framework. Over time the bridge became one of London's most famous (2)…………………

Taking photographs of Tower Bridge is a (3)……………… London tourist activity, but you can also go inside the bridge, where you'll have a magnificent view over London from the walkway (4)………………… the two bridge towers. Inside the bridge you can also visit the Tower Bridge Exhibition. It is particularly to see the bridge (5)……………..and close below your feet.

1. A. designed

B. bought

C. taken

D. delivered

2. A. views

B. traffic

C. landscapes

D. tourist

3. A. official

B. favorite

C. historical

D. native

4. A. between

B. in

C. below

D. above

5. A. fly

B. open

C. pass

D. follow

Question 6: Read the passage and choose the correct answers among A, B, C or D (1,25pts).

How can scientist predict earthquakes? Earthquakes are not scattered anywhere but happen in certain areas. They happen in places of the earth’s surface meet. This pattern causes them to shake the same places many times. For example, earthquakes often occur on the west - coast of North and South America, around the Mediterranean Sea, and along the Pacific coast of Asia.

Another way to predict earthquakes is to look for changes in the earth’s surface like a sudden drop of water level in the ground. Some people say animals can predict earthquakes. Before earthquakes people have seen chickens sitting in trees, fish jumping out of water, snakes leaving their holes and other animals acting strangely.

After an earthquake happens, people can die from lack of food, water and medical supplies. The amount of destruction caused by an earthquake depends on where it happens, and how strong it is.

It also depends on types of buildings, soil conditions and population. Of the 6000 earthquakes in the earth each year, only about fifteen cause great damage and many deaths.

1. Earthquakes happen in certain areas where _____.

A. the population is large B. pieces of the earth’s surface meet C. the soil condition are stable D. many buildings are built 2. Earthquakes often happen along _____.

A. the east - coast of North America B. the east - coast of South America C. the Pacific coast of Asia D. the coast of Australia 3. Looking for _____ can help predict earthquakes.

A. changes in the earth’s surface B. water beneath the earth’s surface C. drops of water D. water currents 4. After an earthquake, as a result of _____ people can die.

A. lack of knowledge B. lack of friendship C. lack of information D. lack of food 5. The passage mainly discuss ______.

A. the damage caused by earthquakes B. how strong earthquakes are C. strange animal behaviors D. how to predict earthquakes Part 4: WRITING Question 7: Make complete sentences with the words and phrases given (1,25pts).

1. The fish/ dead/ because/ polluted water/ ...................................................................................................................................................

2. If/ you/ be/ the president,/ what/ you/ do/ to help the environment?/ ....................................................................................................................................................

3. Residents of flooded areas / taken/ to a safe place/ yesterday/ ...................................................................................................................................................

4. I /done/ my homework/ before I/ go to bed/ last night/ ...................................................................................................................................................

5. We / save/ thousands of trees/ if / not waste/ paper/ ...................................................................................................................................................

Question 8: Use your own ideas to answer the following questions. (1,25pts).

1. What will happen if people continue throwing trash onto the water? ........................................................................................................................................................ ………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. What had you done before you started primary school? ....................................................................................................................................................... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………....

3. What would you do if you were an environmentalist? ....................................................................................................................................................... …………………………………………………………………………………………………....…

4. What should you do to prepare for floods in your area? ....................................................................................................................................................... …………………………………………………………………………………………………....…

5. In which English speaking country would you like to go to study? Why? ....................................................................................................................................................... ………………………………………………………………………………………………....……

Tan Hung Town Junior High School

45-MINUTE TEST No 3 – CODE A SUBJECT: ENGLISH 8 (NEW)

Full name: ………………………………

Class: 8A5 Points

Comment

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen and match (1,25pts).

Listen to Dan talking about his round-the-world trip with a friend. What was the weather like in each place? Match the places (1-5) with the weather (A-H). You will listen twice.

Your answer

0. London D 1. Paris 2. Cairo 3. Sydney 4. Tokyo 5. San Francisco

A. cloud B. fog C. ice D. rain E. snow F. storms G. sun H. wind

1. …..

2. …..

3. …..

4. …..

5. …..

Question 2: Listen and complete. There is one example (1,25pts).

You will hear a man asking for information about the Westwood English School. Listen and complete questions. You will hear the conversation twice.

WESTWOOD ENGLISH SCHOOL Evening classes:

On Thursday

Next courses start on: (1) …22…………………….……….…..

Speaking class with:

(2) …Miss……………………..…………

Cost for 12 classes:

(3)…£………………………..…….…….

Address:

(4)………..……..………Fitzroy Square.

School is next the:

(5)…………………………….………….

Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Choose the word among A, B, C, or D that has different stressed syllable (1,25pts).

1.

A. historic

2.

B. heroic

C. botanical

D. scientific

A. Vietnamese B. Japanese

C. employee

D. biology

3.

A. technology

B. natural

C. photography

D. historian

4.

A. interviewee

B. contamination

C. economica l

D. organization

5.

A. Canadian

B. physical

C. disaster

D. pollution

Question 4: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets (1,25pts).

1. If people travel to work by bus, there (be)…………………………………fewer car fumes.

2. If people (not/ throw)……………………………. rubbish in the street, it would look attractive.

3. The train to Ha Noi (leave)………………….………at 7.30 am from platform four.

4. He got lost because he (not/ take)………………………………..the map with him.

5. In the future, natural disasters (predict)………………………………accurately with the help of technology.

Part 3: READING Question 5: Choose the word among A, B, C or D that best fits the blanks (1,25pts).

London's Tower Bridge is one of the most famous bridges in the world. It was (1)……………….so that it would be in harmony with the nearby Tower of London. The bridge was completed in 1894. 11,000 tons of steel were used to build the framework. Over time the bridge became one of London's most famous (2)…………………

Taking photographs of Tower Bridge is a (3)……………… London tourist activity, but you can also go inside the bridge, where you'll have a magnificent view over London from the walkway (4)………………… the two bridge towers. Inside the bridge you can also visit the Tower Bridge Exhibition. It is particularly to see the bridge (5)……………..and close below your feet.

1. A. designed

B. bought

C. taken

D. delivered

2. A. views

B. traffic

C. landscapes

D. tourist

3. A. official

B. favorite

C. historical

D. native

4. A. between

B. in

C. below

D. above

5. A. fly

B. open

C. pass

D. follow

Question 6: Read the passage and choose the correct answers among A, B, C or D (1,25pts).

How can scientist predict earthquakes? Earthquakes are not scattered anywhere but happen in certain areas. They happen in places of the earth’s surface meet. This pattern causes them to shake the same places many times. For example, earthquakes often occur on the west - coast of North and South America, around the Mediterranean Sea, and along the Pacific coast of Asia.

Another way to predict earthquakes is to look for changes in the earth’s surface like a sudden drop of water level in the ground. Some people say animals can predict earthquakes. Before earthquakes people have seen chickens sitting in trees, fish jumping out of water, snakes leaving their holes and other animals acting strangely.

After an earthquake happens, people can die from lack of food, water and medical supplies. The amount of destruction caused by an earthquake depends on where it happens, and how strong it is.

It also depends on types of buildings, soil conditions and population. Of the 6000 earthquakes in the earth each year, only about fifteen cause great damage and many deaths.

1. Earthquakes happen in certain areas where _____.

A. the population is large B. pieces of the earth’s surface meet C. the soil condition are stable D. many buildings are built 2. Earthquakes often happen along _____.

A. the east - coast of North America B. the east - coast of South America C. the Pacific coast of Asia D. the coast of Australia 3. Looking for _____ can help predict earthquakes.

A. changes in the earth’s surface B. water beneath the earth’s surface C. drops of water D. water currents 4. After an earthquake, as a result of _____ people can die.

A. lack of knowledge B. lack of friendship C. lack of information D. lack of food 5. The passage mainly discuss ______.

A. the damage caused by earthquakes B. how strong earthquakes are C. strange animal behaviors D. how to predict earthquakes Part 4: WRITING Question 7: Make complete sentences with the words and phrases given (1,25pts).

1. The fish/ dead/ because/ polluted water/ ...................................................................................................................................................

2. If/ you/ be/ the president,/ what/ you/ do/ to help the environment?/ ....................................................................................................................................................

3. Residents of flooded areas / taken/ to a safe place/ yesterday/ ...................................................................................................................................................

4. I /done/ my homework/ before I/ go to bed/ last night/ ...................................................................................................................................................

5. We / save/ thousands of trees/ if / not waste/ paper/ ...................................................................................................................................................

Question 8: Use your own ideas to answer the following questions. (1,25pts).

1. What will happen if people continue throwing trash onto the water? ........................................................................................................................................................ ………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. What had you done before you started primary school? ....................................................................................................................................................... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………....

3. What would you do if you were an environmentalist? ....................................................................................................................................................... …………………………………………………………………………………………………....…

4. What should you do to prepare for floods in your area? ....................................................................................................................................................... …………………………………………………………………………………………………....…

5. In which English speaking country would you like to go to study? Why? ....................................................................................................................................................... ………………………………………………………………………………………………....……

The end. / Good luck!

MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ LẦN 3 TIẾNG ANH 8 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 2 – NĂM HỌC 2016-2017 Skills and Language

CHỦ ĐỀ (THEMES)

Bài nghe 1 về: Me and My Friends

CẤP ĐỘ (LEVEL OF DIFFICULTIES) Nhận biết

Thông hiểu

CỘNG

Vận dụng

Listen and match

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Listening Bài nghe 2 về:

Listen and write

Me and My Friends Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Bài kĩ năng ngôn ngữ 1 về: Stress

Use of English

Choosing the correct answers

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Bài kĩ năng ngôn ngữ 2 về: Verb forms

Write the correct verb forms

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Bài đọc hiểu số 1 về:

Choosing the correct answers

Me and The World Around Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Reading Bài đọc hiểu số 2 về:

Choosing the correct answers

Me and the World Around Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Bài viết số 1 về: Me and The World Around

Making complete sentences

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Writing Bài viết số 2 về: Me and The World Around

Writing answers

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Tổng số câu

15 câu

15 câu

10 câu

40 câu

Tổng số điểm

3,75 điểm

3,75 điểm

2,5 điểm

10 điểm

Tỷ lệ %

37,5 %

37,5 %

25 %

100%

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ LẦN 3 TIẾNG ANH 8 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 2 – NĂM HỌC 2016-2017 – ĐỀ A

0,25 point for one correct answer.

Question 1: Listen and match (1,25pts).

1. A 3. F 5. B 2. H 4. G Question 2: Listen and complete. There is one example (1,25pts).

1. September

4. 223

2. Javis

5. bookshop

3. 78 Question 3: Choose the word among A, B, C, or D that has different stressed syllable (1,25pts).

1. D

3. B

2. D

4. C

5. B

Question 4: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets (1,25pts).

1. will be 4. hadn’t taken 2. didn’t throw 5. will/can be predicted 3. leaves Question 5: Choose the word among A, B, C or D that best fits the blanks (1,25pts).

1. A 3. B 5. B 2. C 4. A Question 6: Read the passage and choose the correct answers among A, B, C or D (1,25pts).

1. B 3. A 5. D 2. C 4. D Question 7: Make complete sentences with the words and phrases given (1,25pts) 1. The fish are dead because of the polluted water.

2. If you were the president, what would you do to help the environment?

3. Residents of flooded areas were taken to a safe place yesterday.

4. I had done my homework before I went to bed last night.

5. We will save thousands of trees if we do not waste paper.

Question 8: Use your own ideas to answer the following questions. (1,25pts) Ss’ answers.

Tan Hung Town Junior High School Full name: ………………………………

Class: 8A5 Points

45-MINUTE TEST No 4 – CODE A SUBJECT: ENGLISH 8 (NEW) Comments

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen and match (1,25pts).

Listen to telling a friend how he was communicated some good news. Which way of communicating has he used for each person? For questions 1-5, write a letter A-H. You will listen twice.

Your answer

0. Ruth B 1. Mario 2. Anna 3. Jack 4. Tessa 5. Paul’s professor

A. email 1. …..

B. Facebook 2. …..

C. letter 3. …..

D. mobile phone call 4. …..

E. note 5. …..

F. phone message G. postcard H. text message Question 2: Listen and choose the correct answers (1,25pts).

Listen to Vanessa telling her friend Edward about a visit to see a special gadget (a device) show in London.

0. Vanessa’s ticket cost

A. £ 5.95

B. £ 9.50

C. £ 15.00

1. Vanessa went to the show

A. on foot

B. on the underground

C. on the bus

2. Vanessa really liked seeing the A. Games Hall B. Test Space B. 10.00 a.m

C. 3D Theatre

3. The show opens at

A. 9.00 a.m

4. For lunch, Vanessa decided to

A. take a picnic B. have a hot meal

C. get a snack

5. The show will finish on

A. 23rd April

C. 27th April

B. 24th April

C. 11.30 a.m

Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Choose the word among A, B, C, or D that has different stressed syllable (1,25pts).

1.

A. communication

B. technology

C. telepathy

D. community

2.

A. infinitive

B. competitive

C. repetitive

D. negative

3.

A. verbal

B. science

C. computer

D. barrier

4.

A. impossible

B. unfriendly

C. unhealthy

D. impolite

5.

A. development

B. scientific

C. invention

D. discovery

Question 4: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets (1,25pts).

1. At this time tomorrow, I (do)……….….…………………..a project on the use of social media.

2. I tried (call)…………………..………….you many times but couldn’t get through.

3. You (not/pass)…………………..……….your exams if you don’t start working harder.

4. I can’t come to your party next Friday because I (work)………..……………..………on that day.

5. Nick said that he (come)………….……………from a small village in England.

Part 3: READING Question 5: Choose the word among A, B, C or D that best fits the blanks (1,25pts).

Is computer shopping the way of the future? About 37% of American households now have (1)…………..computers. And shopping (2)………….computer (or “shopping on-line”) is interesting to more people every day. Already, shoppers can use their computers to (3)…………….. many different products, such as computer products, flowers, food, T-shirts, and posters. And new online shopping (4)……………appear every day. Soon people may be able to shop for anything, anytime, (5)…………in the world.

1. A. personal

B. national

C. international

D. digital

2. A. at

B. in

C. by

D. from

3. A. call

B. order

C. wait

D. deliver

4. A. games

B. services

C. communication D. science

5. A. somewhere

B. someone

C. anywhere

D. anyone

Question 6: Read the passage and choose the correct answers among A, B, C or D (1,25pts).

Not so long ago, people only used the phone to make phone calls. Now, thanks to computers, people use their phones to do much more. They can bank by phone, rent videos by phone, and event shop by phone. It is also possible to send letters and reports by faxing them over telephone lines. People can even use phone lines to send messages from one computer to another computer by electric mail, or e-mail.

But you don't need to be at home or at the office to use the phone anymore. You can carry a cellular phone in your pocket or keep one in your car. With a cellular phone, anyone who can talk and walk can also phone and walk. You don't have to look for a pay phone to make a call anymore. Now you can take your calls with you everywhere.

1. The main topic of the passage is____________ A. current use of telephones C. the convenience of a cellular phone 2. People didn't use to_______.

A. make phone calls only at home C. make only phone calls with the telephone 3. What are advantages of having a cell phone?

A. You can carry it in your pocket C. With it, you can phone and walk 4. With a cellular phone you can____ A. only carry it in your pocket C. make a phone call everywhere you want

B. the use of a cellular phone D. the use of a telephone in the past B. make phone calls only in the ofice D. shop by phone B. You can keep it in your car D. All A, B and C are correct B. only keep it in your car D. only take photos

5. The word "pay phone" means___ A. the phone pays you C. you pay for the call

B. you can phone free of charge D. you don't pay for the call

Part 4: WRITING Question 7: Rewrite the following sentences as suggested (1,25pts).

1.

Nga: “I will visit Lang Sen tomorrow.”

Nga said that..............................................................................................................................

2.

Bao: “I want to become a robot designer.”

Bao said that...............................................................................................................................

3.

“You have to study harder.”

The teacher told me that….........................................................................................................

4.

Nick said that he could run very fast.

Nick: “.......................................................................................................................................”

5.

Tom is going to go camping tomorrow.

Tom plans...................................................................................................................................

Question 8: Write a short paragraph ( about 40 words) on the following topic. (1,25pts).

Do you agree or disagree with the following idea?

With the help of technology, students will benefit greatly from studying by themselves at home. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

The end. / Good luck!

Tan Hung Town Junior High School Full name: ………………………………

Class: 8A5 Points

45-MINUTE TEST No 4 – CODE A SUBJECT: ENGLISH 8 (NEW) Comment

Part 1: LISTENING Question 1: Listen and match (1,25pts).

Listen to telling a friend how he was communicated some good news. Which way of communicating has he used for each person? For questions 1-5, write a letter A-H. You will listen twice.

Your answer

0. Ruth B 1. Mario 2. Anna 3. Jack 4. Tessa 5. Paul’s professor

A. email 1. …..

B. Facebook 2. …..

C. letter 3. …..

D. mobile phone call 4. …..

E. note 5. …..

F. phone message G. postcard H. text message Question 2: Listen and choose the correct answers (1,25pts).

Listen to Vanessa telling her friend Edward about a visit to see a special gadget (a device) show in London.

0. Vanessa’s ticket cost A. £ 5.95 B. £ 9.50 C. £ 15.00 1. Vanessa went to the show A. on foot B. on the underground C. on the bus 2. Vanessa really liked seeing the A. Games Hall B. Test Space C. 3D Theatre 3. The show opens at A. 9.00 a.m B. 10.00 a.m C. 11.30 a.m 4. For lunch, Vanessa decided to A. take a picnic B. have a hot meal C. get a snack rd th 5. The show will finish on A. 23 April B. 24 April C. 27th April Part 2: USE OF ENGLISH Question 3: Choose the word among A, B, C, or D that has different stressed syllable (1,25pts).

1.

A. communication

B. technology

C. telepathy

D. community

2.

A. infinitive

B. competitive

C. repetitive

D. negative

3.

A. verbal

B. science

C. computer

D. barrier

4.

A. impossible

B. unfriendly

C. unhealthy

D. impolite

5.

A. development

B. scientific

C. invention

D. discovery

Question 4: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets (1,25pts).

1. At this time tomorrow, I (do)……….….…………………..a project on the use of social media.

2. I tried (call)…………………..………….you many times but couldn’t get through.

3. You (not/pass)…………………..……….your exams if you don’t start working harder.

4. I can’t come to your party next Friday because I (work)………..……………..………on that day.

5. Nick said that he (come)………….……………from a small village in England.

Part 3: READING Question 5: Choose the word among A, B, C or D that best fits the blanks (1,25pts).

Is computer shopping the way of the future? About 37% of American households now have (1)………………..computers. And shopping (2)…..………….computer (or “shopping on-line”) is interesting to more people every day. Already, shoppers can use their computers to (3)…………….. many different products, such as computer products, flowers, food, T-shirts, and posters. And new online shopping (4)………….……appear every day. Soon people may be able to shop for anything, anytime, (5)………………in the world.

1. A. personal

B. national

C. international

D. digital

2. A. at

B. in

C. by

D. from

3. A. call

B. order

C. wait

D. deliver

4. A. games

B. services

C. communication D. science

5. A. somewhere

B. someone

C. anywhere

D. anyone

Question 6: Read the passage and choose the correct answers among A, B, C or D (1,25pts).

Not so long ago, people only used the phone to make phone calls. Now, thanks to computers, people use their phones to do much more. They can bank by phone, rent videos by phone, and event shop by phone. It is also possible to send letters and reports by faxing them over telephone lines. People can even use phone lines to send messages from one computer to another computer by electric mail, or e-mail.

But you don't need to be at home or at the office to use the phone anymore. You can carry a cellular phone in your pocket or keep one in your car. With a cellular phone, anyone who can talk and walk can also phone and walk. You don't have to look for a pay phone to make a call anymore. Now you can take your calls with you everywhere.

1. The main topic of the passage is____________ A. current use of telephones C. the convenience of a cellular phone 2. People didn't use to_______.

A. make phone calls only at home C. make only phone calls with the telephone 3. What are advantages of having a cell phone?

A. You can carry it in your pocket C. With it, you can phone and walk

B. the use of a cellular phone D. the use of a telephone in the past B. make phone calls only in the ofice D. shop by phone B. You can keep it in your car D. All A, B and C are correct

4. With a cellular phone you can____ A. only carry it in your pocket C. make a phone call everywhere you want 5. The word "pay phone" means___ A. the phone pays you C. you pay for the call

B. only keep it in your car D. only take photos B. you can phone free of charge D. you don't pay for the call

Part 4: WRITING Question 7: Rewrite the following sentences as suggested (1,25pts).

1. Nga: “I will visit Lang Sen tomorrow.”

Nga said that..............................................................................................................................

2. Bao: “I want to become a robot designer.”

Bao said that...............................................................................................................................

3. “You have to study harder.”

The teacher told me that….........................................................................................................

4. Nick said that he could run very fast.

Nick: “.......................................................................................................................................”

5. Tom is going to go camping tomorrow.

Tom plans...................................................................................................................................

Question 8: Write a short paragraph ( about 40 words) on the following topic. (1,25pts).

Do you agree or disagree with the following idea?

With the help of technology, students will benefit greatly from studying by themselves at home. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

The end. / Good luck!

MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ LẦN 4 TIẾNG ANH 8 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 2 – NĂM HỌC 2016-2017 Skills and Language

CHỦ ĐỀ (THEMES)

Bài nghe 1 về: Me and My Friends

CẤP ĐỘ (LEVEL OF DIFFICULTIES) Nhận biết

Thông hiểu

CỘNG

Vận dụng

Listen and match

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Listening Bài nghe 2 về:

Listen and write

Me and My Friends Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Bài kĩ năng ngôn ngữ 1 về: Stress

Use of English

Choosing the correct answers

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Bài kĩ năng ngôn ngữ 2 về: Verb forms

Write the correct verb forms

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Bài đọc hiểu số 1 về:

Choosing the correct answers

Me and The World Around Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Reading Bài đọc hiểu số 2 về:

Choosing the correct answers

Me and the World Around Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Bài viết số 1 về: Me and The World Around

Making complete sentences

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Writing Bài viết số 2 về: Me and The World Around

Writing answers

Số câu hỏi:

5

5

Số điểm:

5 câu x 0,25 đ = 1,25đ

1,25 đ (12,5%)

Tổng số câu

15 câu

15 câu

10 câu

40 câu

Tổng số điểm

3,75 điểm

3,75 điểm

2,5 điểm

10 điểm

Tỷ lệ %

37,5 %

37,5 %

25 %

100%

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA 45’ LẦN 4 TIẾNG ANH 8 THÍ ĐIỂM HỌC KÌ 2 – NĂM HỌC 2016-2017 – ĐỀ A

0,25 point for one correct answer.

Question 1: Listen and match (1,25pts).

1. D 3. A 2. F 4. E Question 2: Listen and choose the correct answers (1,25pts).

1. C

4. C

2. A

5. C

5. G

3. B Question 3: Choose the word among A, B, C, or D that has different stressed syllable (1,25pts).

1. A

3. C

2. D

4. D

5. B

Question 4: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets (1,25pts).

1. will be doing 4. will be working 2. to call 5. came 3. won’t pass Question 5: Choose the word among A, B, C or D that best fits the blanks (1,25pts).

1. A 3. B 5. C 2. C 4. B Question 6: Read the passage and choose the correct answers among A, B, C or D (1,25pts).

1. A 3. D 5. C 2. D 4. C Question 7: Rewrite the following sentences as suggested (1,25pts).

1. Nga said that she would visit Lang Sen tomorrow.

2. Bao said that he wanted to become a robot designer.

3. The teacher told me that I had to study harder.

4. Nick: “I can/ could run very fast.”

5. Tom plans to go camping tomorrow.

Question 8: Write a short paragraph ( about 40 words) on the following topic. (1,25pts).

Ss’ answers.