Bộ đề thi thử THPTQG năm 2018 - Môn Tiếng Anh - Megabook - 14 ĐỀ + ĐÁP ÁN (Without explanation)

ĐỀ SỐ 1

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh  Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. verbal

B. signal

C. common

D. attract

Question 2:

A. academic

B. inorganic

C.understanding

D. uncertainty

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. busy

B. answer

C. person

D. basic

Question 4:

A. laughed

B. sacrificed

C. cooked

D. explained

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5: : - David: “Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?”

- Lisa: “ ___________ ” A. I’m sorry. I don’t know that.

B. Not at all. Go ahead.

C. Not so bad. And you?

D. That would be nice.

Question 6: - John : “What kind of job would you like?

- Tim : “___________”.

A. No, thanks

B. I heard it was very good

C. Anything to do with computers

D. Anytime after next week

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: It was necessary to divide the movie “Roots” into five parts in order to show it on television.

A. adapt

B. merge

C. segment

D. transact

Question 8: With the final examinations coming very soon his anxiety was rising to almost unbearable limits.

A. joy

B. confidence

C. boredom

D. apprehension

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9: It was relatively easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player.

A. approximately

B. comparatively

C. nearly

D. essentially

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Question 10: You have to be on your toes if you want to beat her.

A. pay all your attention to what you are doing B. upset her in what she is doing C. get involved in what she is doing D. make her comply with your order Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: Since he failed his exam, he had to A. pass

B. make

____for it again C. take

D. sit

C. something

D. one thing

Question 12: Is there _____at all I can help?

A. everything

B. anything

Question 13: Don’t worry. He’ll do the job as A. economizing

B. economic

Question 14: They tell me about the film

__as possible C. economical

D. economically

____on TV last week

A. when they watched

B. which they watched it

C. which they watched

D. whom they watched

Question 15: It’s important to know about how developed countries have solved the urbanization problems and A. think

____some solutions to those in Viet Nam.

B. advise

Question 16: Tim’s encouraging words gave me A. a point

B. an incentive

C. expect

D. propose

____to undertake the task once again.

C. a resolution

D. a target

Question 17: 1 don’t suppose there is anyone there, ________?

A. do I

B. isn’t there

C. is there

D. don’t I

Question 18: He wanted to know whose car I had borrowed _________ A. the last evening

B. last night

C. yesterday evening D. the previous night

Question 19: Are you taking _______ this semester?

A. house economics

B. home economic

C. house economic

Question 20: We should participate in the movements

D. home economics

____the natural environment.

A. organizing to conserve

B. organized to conserve

C. organized conserving

D. which organize to conserve

Question 21: He does not

____his fellow-workers and there are often disagreements

between them.

A. get on with

B. put up with

C. go on with

D. take to

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Question 22: Many applicants find a job interview _______ if they are not well-prepared for it.

A. impressive

B. stressful

C. threatening

D. time-consuming

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27 The warming ot the Earth is caused by exhaust gas from automobile engines, factories and power (23) ________. Carbon dioxide goes up into the atmosphere, and it form a kind of screen that keeps or allows the sunshine in but stop the Earth heat (24) _______ getting out. It works like a greenhouse, that’s why we call (25) ________ the Green House effect.

Because ot this effect, the Earth is getting warmer alt the time. This (26) ________ in temperature will cause big changes to the world’s climate. The sea level will increase as the ice (27) _______ the poles will melt.

Question 23: A. companies B. factories

C. sites

D. stations

Question 24: A. from

B. up

C. against

D. away

Question 25: A. is

B. be

C. it

D. them

Question 26: A. raise

B. rise

C. drop

D. fall

Question 27: A. covering

B. covers

C. covered

D. cover

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34 The Hindu culture celebrates marriage as a pure and pristine rite enabling two individuals start their journey of life together. It puts emphasis on the values of happiness, harmony and growth and could be traced back from the Vedic times.

Months before the wedding ceremony, an engagement is held which is called “magni”.

The couple is blessed here with gifts, jewelry and clothes. Another important ritual is the “mehendi” which is a paste made from the leaves of henna plant. It is the traditional art of adorning the hands and the feet of the bride with mehendi and the name of the groom is also hidden in the design.

On the day of marriage, the couple exchanges garlands as a gesture of acceptance of one another and a pledge to respect one another as partners which is known as «jaimala». This is followed by «jaimala», where the father of the bride places her hand in the groom’s hand requesting him to accept her as an equal partner.

Another ritual is the «havan» in which the couple invokes Agni, the god of Fire, to witness their commitment to each other. Crushed sandalwood, herbs, sugar rice and oil are Trang 3 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

offered to the ceremonial fire. The “gath bandhan” takes place where scarves of the bride and groom are tied together symbolizing their eternal bond. This signifies their pledge before God to love each other and remain loyal. The couple then takes four “mangal pheras” or walk around the ceremonial fire, representing four goals in life: “Dharma”, religious and moral duties; “Artha”, prosperity; “Kama” earthly pleasures; “Moksha”, spiritual salvation.

The couple also takes seven steps together to begin their journey, called the “saptapardi”.

Then the ritual of “sindoor” takes place where the groom applies a small dot of vermilion, a red powder to the bride’s forehead and welcomes her as his partner for life. This signifies the completion of the marriage. The parents of the bride and the groom then give their blessings, “ashirwad” to the newly wed couple as they touch the feet of their parents.

Question 28: What might be the most suitable title for this reading passage?

A. The Hindu culture

B. The Hindu religion

C. The Hindu wedding

D. The Hindu tradition

Question 29: What does the word “magni” stand for?

A. the wedding B. the paste made from the leave of one another C. the engagement D. the gesture of acceptance oi one another Question 30: What do the Hindu people think about marriage?

A. It is entirely a spiritual traditional ritual allowing two individuals to live together B. It is a belief in the growth of a family newly formed by two individuals C. It is a wish of happiness and harmony to come to two individuals D. It is just a living-together announcement of two individuals Question 31: What can the word adorning be best replaced by?

A. decorating

B. painting

C. repairing

D. dying

Question 32: What can the word invokes be best replaced by?

A. tells

B. says

C. prays

D. talks

Question 33: Why does the couple exchange garlands?

A. to do a ritual B. to show both their acceptance of and the swear to respect the partner C. to express their acceptance of one another and a wish of happiness D. to express their vow to respect each other for the whole life Question 34: When is the wedding ceremony completed?

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A. When the parents ot the bride and the groom give their blessings to the couple B. When the couple touches their parents’ feet C. When the couple makes seven steps together D. When the groom applies a small dot of vermillion of the brides forehead Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42 It is hard to think of a world without gas or electricity. Both are commonly used for lighting and heating today. We now can instantly flick a lighter or strike a match to make a flame. But it was not long ago that there were no such things as matches or lighters. To make fire, it was necessary to strike a piece of iron on flint for sparks to ignite some tinder. If the tinder was damp, or the flint old, you had to borrow some fire from a neighbor.

We do not know exactly when or how people first used fire. Perhaps, many ages ago, they found that sticks would burn if they were dropped into some hole where melted lava from a volcano lay boiling. They brought the lighted sticks back to make their fire in a cave. Or, they may have seen trees catch fire through being struck by lightning, and used the trees to start their own fires.

Gradually people learned they could start a fire without traveling far to find flames. They rubbed two pieces ot wood together. This method was used for thousands of years.

When people became used to making fires with which to cook food and stay warm at night, they found that certain resins or gums from trees burnt longer and brighter. They melted resins and dipped branches in the liquid to make torches that lit their homes at night.

Iron stands in which torches used to be fixed can still be seen in old buildings of Europe.

There was no lighting in city streets until gas lamps, and then electric lamps were installed. Boys ran about London at night carrying torches of burning material. They were called torch boys, or link boys, and earned a living by guiding visitors to friends’ houses at night.

For centuries homes were lit by candles until oil was found. Even then, oil lamps were no more effective than a cluster of candles. We read about the splendors and marvels of ancient palaces and castles, but we forget that they must have been gloomy and murky places at night.

Question 35: What does “they” refer to?

A. people

B. ages

C. sticks

D. trees

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Question 36: According to the passage the first fire used by people was probably obtained _______.

A. from the suns heat through glass

B. by rubbing wood together

C. from heat or fire caused by nature

D. by striking iron against flint

Question 37: It is stated in the passage that torches for lighting were made from ______.

A. the wood of gum trees

B. iron bars dipped in melted resins

C. wooden poles dipped in oil

D. tree branches dipped in melted resins

Question 38: It is mentioned in the passage that before the electric lamp was invented, ________.

A. oil lamps and then candles were used B. candles and oil lamps appeared about the same time C. candles and then oil lamps were used D. people did not use any form of lighting in their houses Question 39: The word “splendors” in the passage could be best replaced by which of the following?

A. expensive object

B. places of scenic beauty

C. achievements

D. the beautiful and impressive features

Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following sentence is NOT true?

A. We know exactly when and how people first used fire B. Before gas lamps and electric lamps appeared, streets were lit by torches C. We can make a fire by striking a piece of iron on flint to ignite some tinder D. Matches and lighters were invented not long ago Question 41: The word “gloomy” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.

A. nearly dark

B. badly decorated

C. containing a lot of white

D. mysterious

Question 42: What form of street lighting was used in London when link boys used to work there?

A. Gas lighting

B. No lighting at all

C. Electric lighting

D. Oil lighting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: It is possible that the fire in the ship was started by a bomb.

A. They say that a bomb started the fire in the ship B. The fire in the ship might have been started by a bomb Trang 6 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

C. It shall be said the fire in the ship had been started by a bomb D. The fire in the ship is known to have been started by a bomb Question 44: Nick always forgets his wife’s birthday.

A. At no time Nick remembers his wife's birthday.

B. Nick never remembers his wife’s birthday.

C. Nick sometimes remembers his wife's birthday.

D. Nick remembers his wife’s birthday all the time.

Question 45: If you practise harder, you will have better results.

A. The harder you practise, the best results vou will have.

B. The more hardly you practise, the better results you will have.

C. The hardest you practise, the most results vou will have.

D. The harder you practise, the better results vou will have.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: (A) The shopkeeper warned the boys (B) don’t lean (C) their bicycles (D) against his windows.

A. The

B. don’t

C. their

D. against

Question 47: (A) The people who (B) they hadn't seen the weather forecast (C) were caught (D) unaware by the hurricane A. The

B. they

C. were

D. unaware

Question 48: No longer (A) satisfied with the (B) emphasis ot the Denishawn school, Martha (C) has moved to (D) the staff of the Eastman school in 1925 A. satisfied

B. emphasis

C. has

D. the staff of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: Linda lives in a house. The house is opposite my house.

A. Linda lives in a house where is opposite my house.

B. Linda lives in a house which is opposite my house.

C. Linda lives in a house who is opposite my house.

D. Linda lives in a house and which is opposite my house.

Question 50: He turned the radio on at 7.30. He was still listening to it when his mother came home at 9.00 A. He has been listening to the radio at 7.30.

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B. He had been listening to the radio since 7.30.

C. He has been listening to the radio after 7.30.

D. He had been listening to the radio by 7.30. Đáp án 1-D

2-D

3-A

4-D

5-D

6-C

7-B

8-B

9-B

10-A

11-D

12-B

13-D

14-C

15-D

16-B

17-C

18-D

19-D

20-B

21-A

22-B

23-D

24-A

25-C

26-B

27-A

28-C

29-C

30-A

31-A

32-C

33-B

34-D

35-C

36-C

37-D

38-C

39-D

40-A

41-A

42-B

43-B

44-B

45-D

46-B

47-B

48-C

49-B

50-B

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ĐỀ SỐ 2

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh  Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. partnership

B. romantic

C. actually

D. attitude

Question 2:

A. obedient

B.

C.

D. biologist

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs front the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. thanked

B. belonged

C. cooked

D. laughed

Question 4:

A. sour

B. hour

C. pour

D. flour

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5: David: “________” Mike: “I won’t say no!”

A. How are things with you, Mike?

B. What about playing badminton this afternoon?

C. Mike, do you know where the scissors are?

D. What’s your favourite drink, tea or coffee?

Question 6: John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the way to the post-office. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.

- John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?”

- Passer-by: “_______” A. No way! I hate him.

B. Just round the corner over there.

C. Look it up in a dictionary!

D. There’s no traffic near here

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: In most countries, mandatory military service does not apply to women A. optional

B. compulsory

C. beneficial

D. constructive

Question 8: I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.

A. Being courteous

B. Being cheerful

C. Being efficient

D. Being late

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 9: School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools Trang 1 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

A. depended

B. paid

C. required

D. divided

Question 10: It was obvious to everyone that the child had been badly treated A. significant

B. unclear

C. evident

D. frank

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: We should make full use _________ the Internet as it is an endless source of information A. of

B. in

C. with

D. from

Question 12: He didn’t know _______ or stay until the end of the festival.

A. whether to go

B. if that he should go C. to go

D. if to go

Question 13: If ______, that tree would look more impressive A. it is done carefully B. being done careful C. it were careful done D. it were Question 14: Not only ______ the exam but she also got a scholarship A. dis she pass

B. she passed

C. she has passed

D. has she passed

Question 15: He was the first person __________.the room A. entering

B. to enter

C. to be enter

D. having entered

Question 16: Unfortunately, the company closed down because it couldn’t keep ________ with rapidly changing technology.

A. speed

B. time

C. fast

D. pace

Question 17: The climate of China is similar in many ways to ………………

A. that of the United States

B. which of the United States

C. the United States

D. this of the United States

Question 18: Western women are more _________ than Asian women.

A. depend

B. independent

C. independently

D. dependence

Question 19: He is exhausted because he_______ around the whole afternoon trying to clean the house.

A. has been running

B. runs

C. is running

D. was running

Question 20: Donald Trump is ________ president of __________United States.

A. the/ the

B. a / ∅

C. the / ∅

D. the/ an

Question 21: John would like to specialize ___________ computer science.

A. of

B. to

C. in

D. at

Question 22: _______ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came A. Hardly had

B. No sooner had

C. No longer has

D. Not until had

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27 Keeping your distance Personal space is a term that refers (23) ………….. the distance we like to keep between ourselves and other people. When (24) …………….we do not know well gets too close we usually begin to feel uncomfortable. If a business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most common response is to move (25) …………….. Some interesting (26) ….……… have been done in libraries. If strangers come too close, many people get up and leave the building; others use different methods such as turning their back on the intruder. Living in cities has made people develop new skills for dealing with situations where they are very close to strangers. Most people on crowded trains try not to look at strangers; they avoid skin contact, and apologize if hands touch by mistake. People use newspapers (27) ………….. a barrier between themselves and other people, and if they do not have one, they stare into the distance, making sure they are not looking into anyone’s eyes.

Question 23: A. from

B. about

C. to

D. for

Question 24: A. people

B. anyone

C. someone

D. nobody

Question 25: A. up

B. away

C. on

D. in

Question 26: A. survey

B. questionnaires

C. research

D. studies

Question 27: A. like

B. alike

C. as

D. such as

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34 The rules of etiquette in American restaurants depend upon a number of factors the physical location of the restaurant, e.g., rural or urban; the type of restaurant, e.g., informal or formal; and certain standards that are more universal. In other words, some standards of etiquette vary significantly while other standards apply almost anywhere. Learning the proper etiquette in a particular type of restaurant in a particular area may sometimes require instruction, but more commonly it simply requires sensitivity and experience. For example, while it is acceptable to read a magazine in a coffee shop, it is inappropriate to do the same in a more luxurious setting. And, if you are eating in a very rustic setting, it may be fine to tuck your napkin into your shirt, but if you are in a sophisticated urban restaurant this behavior would demonstrate a lack of manners. It is safe to say, however, that in virtually every restaurant it is unacceptable to indiscriminately throw your food on the floor. The

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conclusion we can most likely draw from the above is that while the types and locations of restaurants determine etiquette appropriate to them, some rules apply to all restaurants Question 28: What topic is this passage primarily concerned?

A. Instruction in proper etiquette B. Rules of etiquette C. Variable and universal standards of etiquette D. The importance of good manners Question 29: According to the passage, which of the following is a universal rule of etiquette?

A. reading a magazine at a coffee shop

B. not throwing food on the floor

C. eating in rustic settings

D. eating in rustic settings

Question 30: What does the word “it” refer to?

A. learning the proper etiquette

B. clear instruction

C. knowing the type of restaurant

D. sensitivity

Question 31: Which of the following words is most similar to the meaning of “rustic”?

A. urban

B. unsophisticated

C. agricultural

D. ancient

Question 32: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “tuck”?

A. set

B. put

C. fold

D. hold

Question 33: The word “indiscriminately” could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. random

B. angrily

C. noisily

D. destructively

Question 34: The author uses the word “draw” in line 16 to mean A. pick out

B. drag away

C. evoke

D. infer

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42 Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as more real than speech. A little thought, however, will show why speech is primary and writing secondary to language. Human beings have been writing (as far as we can tell from surviving evidence) for at least 5000 years; but they have been talking for much longer, doubtless ever since there have been human beings.

When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although imperfectly.

Even today there are spoken languages that have no written form. Furthermore, we all learn to talk well before we learn to write; any human child who is not severely handicapped physically Trang 4 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

or mentally will learn to talk: a normal human being cannot be prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort to learn to write. In the past many intelligent and useful members of society did not acquire the skill, and even today many who speak languages with writing systems never learn to read or write, while some who learn the rudiments of those skills do so only imperfectly.

To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the latter. One advantage writing has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes possible the records that any civilization must have. Thus, if speaking makes us human, writing makes us civilized Question 35: We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech because __________.

A. writing is secondary to language B. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years C. it has become very important in our culture D. people have been writing since there have been human beings Question 36: The author of the passage argues that ________.

A. speech is more basic to language than writing B. writing has become too important in today’s society C. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write D. all languages should have a written form Question 37: According to the passage, writing ________.

A. is represented perfectly by speech

B. represents-speech, but not perfectly

C. developed from imperfect speech

D. is imperfect, but less so than speech

Question 38: Normal human beings A. learn to talk after learning to write

B. learn to write before learning to talk

C. learn to write and to talk at the same time

D. learn to talk before learning to write

Question 39: Learning to write is __________.

A. easy

B. quick

C. not easy

D. very easy

Question 40: In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example of __________.

A. people who learn the rudiments of speech B. severely handicapped children C. intelligent people who couldn’t write D. people who speak many languages Question 41: In the author’s judgment __________.

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A. writing has more advantages than speech B. writing is more real than speech C. speech conveys ideas less accurately than writing does D. speech is essential but writing has important benefits Question 42: The word “advantage” in the last paragraph most closely means A. “rudiments”

B. “skill”

C. “domination”

D. “benefit”

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 43: No one has seen Linda since the day of the party A. Linda has not been seen since the day of the part B. Linda is nowhere to be seen at the party C. The party is going on without Linda D. No one has seen Linda for ages Question 44: He talked about nothing except the weather A. He talked about everything including weather B. His sole topic of conversation was the weather C. He had nothing to say about the weather D. He said he had no interest in the weather Question 45: He doesn’t study hard, so he can fail the exam A. If he studies hard, he won’t fail the exam B. If he didn’t study hard, he wouldn’t fail the exam C. It he studied hard, he wouldn’t fail the exam D. If he hadn’t studied hard, he wouldn’t have failed the exam Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 46: My mother (A) told me to (B) watch the milk and (C) don’t let it boil (D) over.

A. told

B. watch

C. don’t

D. over

Question 47: Fertilizer, (A) which is added to the soil to replace or (B) increase plant nutrients, (C) include animal and green manure, fish and bone meal and (D) compost.

A. which is

B. increase

C. include

D. compost

Question 48: Foreign students who (A) are doing a decision (B) about which school (C) to attend may not know exactly where (D) the choices are located A. are doing

B. about which

C. to attend

D. the choices

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 49: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window.

A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window.

B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.

C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.

D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.

Question 50: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.

A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.

C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.

D. The plan is impractical as it is ingenious. Đáp án 1-B

2-C

3-B

4-C

5-B

6-B

7-A

8-D

9-C

10-C

11-A

12-A

13-D

14-A

15-B

16-D

17-A

18-B

19-A

20-A

21-C

22-A

23-C

24-C

25-B

26-D

27-C

28-C

29-B

30-A

31-B

32-B

33-A

34-D

35-C

36-A

37-B

38-D

39-C

40-C

41-D

42-D

43-A

44-B

45-A

46-C

47-C

48-A

49-B

50-A

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ĐỀ SỐ 3

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh  Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions Question 1:

A. economy

B. certificate

C. graduate

D. semester

Question 2:

A. enthusiastic

B. durability

C. civilization

D. humanitarian

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 3:

A. takes

B. develops

C. burns

D. laughs

Question 4:

A. century

B. culture

C. secure

D. applicant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges Question 5: Sarah has just bought a new skirt that she likes very much.

- Jane: “You look great in that red skirt, Sarah!”

- Sarah: “_______” A. No, I don’t think so,

B. Oh, you don’t like it, do you?

C. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s.

D. I like it.

Question 6: Ken and Laura are saying goodbye to each other after going to LOTTE Center.

And they are going to have a date with each other later.

- Laura: “Well, it’s getting late. Maybe we could get together sometime.”

- Ken: “ ............................ “ A. Nice to see back you

B. Take it easy

C. Sounds good. I’ll give you a call

D. Yes, I’ve enjoyed it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: We should keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being A. revealed

B. frequent

C. lively

D. accessible

Question 8: 1 didn’t think his comments were very appropriate at that time A. unsuitable

B. right

C. exact

D. correct

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 9: The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.

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A. absolutely

B. relevantly

C. comparatively

D. almost

Question 10: From an airplane, the grasslands of the western prairie appear almost as uniform as a placid sea.

A. hilly

B. calm

C. seedy

D. fake

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: Many young people in rural areas don’t want to spend their lives on the farm like their _________ parents. Therefore, they decide to leave their home villages to find wellpaid jobs in the fast-growing industrial zones.

A. long-term

B. up-to-date

C. weather-beaten

D. wide-ranging

Question 12: If she had known how awful this job was going to be, she_________it.

A. would accept

B. wouldn’t accept

C. wouldn’t have accepted

D. would have accepted

Question 13: Tim asked me_______that film the night before.

A. that I saw

B. had I seen

C. if I had seen

D. if had I seen

Question 14: The twins look so much alike that no one can ______ them _________ A. take/ apart

B. tell/ away

C. tell/ apart

D. take/ on

Question 15: The teacher _______ that he make an outline before writing a complete essay.

A. reports

B. recommends

C. tells

D. says

Question 16: 1 have no patience with gossips. What I told Tom was a secret. He________it to you.

A. mustn’t read

B. shouldn’t have repeated

C. mustn’t have repeated

D. shouldn’t read

Question 17: _________-he was kidnapped by the kidnapper yesterday has been confirmed.

A. That

B. What

C. If

D. Unless

Question 18: Air pollution poses a_______to both human health and our environment A. jeopardy

B. difficulty

C. problem

D. threat

Question 19: The people who__________the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents A. gave

B. proceed

C. set

D. conducted

Question 20: My younger brother had his hair_______yesterday A. be cut

B. to be cut

C. cut

D. being cut

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Question 21: Remember that things such as language, food and clothing are simply expressions of our cultural _________.

A. solidarity

B. identity

C. assimilation

D. celebration

Question 22: Waste paper can be used again a tier being _________.

A. produced

B. recycled

C. wasted

D. preserved

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, R, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27 HERE ARE TIPS THAT HELP SUCCEED IN YOUR JOB INTERVIEW Always arrive early. If you do not know (23) ___________ the organization is located, call for exact directions (24) _________ advance. Leave some extra time for any traffic, packing, or unexpected events. If you are running late, call right away and let someone know. The best time to arrive is approximately 5 – 10 minutes early. Give yourself the time to read your resume one more time, to catch your breath, and to be ready for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone you encounter with repect. Be (25) _________ to everyone as soon as you walk in the door.

Wear a professional business suit. This point should be emphasized enough. First (26) __________ are extremely important in the interview process. Women should (27) ________ wearing too much jewelry or make up. Men should avoid flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. It is also important that you feel comfortable. While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you think it is an informal environment, call before and ask.

Regardless, you can never be overdressed it you are wearing a tailored suit.

Question 23: A. when

B. why

C. where

D. that

Question 24: A. with

B. in

C. on

D. for

Question 25: A. happy

B. pleasant

C. disappointed

D. excited

Question 26: A. attendances B. attentions C. impressions

D. pressures

Question 27: A. avoid

D. mind

B. suggest

C. enjoy

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34 FAMILY LIFE IN THE UNITED STATES Family life in the United States is changing. Fifty or sixty years ago, the wife was called a “housewife”. She cleaned, cooked, and cared for the children. The husband earned the money for the family. He was usually out working all day. He came home tired in the evening, so he did not do much housework. And he did not see the children very much, except on weekends.

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These days, however, more and more women work outside the home. They cannot stay with the children all day. They, too, come home tired in the evening. They do not want to spend the evening cooking dinner and cleaning up. They do not have time to clean the house and do the laundry. So who is going to do the housework now? Who is going to take care of the children?

Many families solve the problem of housework by sharing it. In these families, the husband and wife agree to do different jobs around the house, or they take turns doing each job. For example, the husband always cooks dinner and the wife always does the laundry. Or the wife cooks dinner on some nights and the husband cooks dinner on other nights.

Then there is the question of the children. In the past, many families got help with child care from grandparents. Now families usually do not live near their relatives. The grandparents are often too far away to help in a regular way. More often, parents have to pay for child care help. Ihe help may be a babysitter or a day-care center. The problem with this kind of help is the high cost. It is possible only for couples with jobs that pay well.

Parents may get another kind of help form the companies they work for. Many companies now let people with children work part-time. That way, parents can spend more time with their children. Some husbands may even stop working for a while to stay with the children.

For these men there is a new word: they are called “househusbands”. In the USA more and more men are becoming househusbands every year.

These changes in the home mean changes in the family. Fathers can learn to understand their children better, and the children can get to know their fathers better. Husbands and wives may also find changes in their marriage. They, too, may have a better understanding of each other.

Question 28: Sixty years ago, most women________.

A. went out to work

B. had no children

C. did not do much housework

D. were housewives

Question 29: Nowadays, there are __________.

A. more women going out to work than before.

B. more and more women staying with the children all day.

C. more work outside the home than before.

D. more housewives than before.

Question 30: The word “laundry” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____________ A. tidying up

B. cooking and washing the dishes

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C. washing and ironing

D. shopping

Question 31: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that__________.

A. couples with low-paid jobs can’t afford the cost of a babysitter or a day-care center.

B. grandparents can help care the children in a regular way.

C. all couples with jobs can pay for help from a babysitter or a day-care center.

D. in the past, grandparents did not help the couples with child care.

Question 32: The word “they" in paragraph 5 refers to_________.

A. husbands who stop working to stay with the children B. fathers who spend more time with their children C. parents who work part-time D. children who spend more time with fathers than mothers Question 33: The changes in the American home mentioned in this passage may __________.

A. help families

B. not happen

C. cause problems for a marriage

D. not change the children at all

Question 34: This article is about__________.

A. American men as househusbands B. housewives in America C. how more American women are working D. how family life in America is changing Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42 One of the most interesting authors of the twentieth century, J.R.R Tolkien, achieved fame through his highly inventive trilogy, The Lord of the Rings. Born in 1892, Tolkien received his education from Oxford and then served in World War I. After the war, he became a professor of Anglo -Saxon and English language and literature at Oxford University.

Although published in 1965, the three books that comprise the Lord of the Rings were written in intervals from 1936 to 1949. This was mainly due to Tolkien’s responsibilities as a professor and the outbreak of World War II. By the late 1960s, this fascinating trilogy had become a sociological phenomenon as young people intently studied the mythology and legends created by Tolkien.

The trilogy is remarkable not only for its highly developed account of historical fiction but also its success as a modern heroic epic. The main plot describes the struggle between good and Trang 5 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

evil kingdom as they try to acquire a magic ring that has the power to rule the world. The novels, which are set in a time called Middle Earth, describe a detailed fantasy world. Established before humans populated the Earth, Middle Earth was inhabited by good and evil creatures such as hobbits, elves, monsters, wizards, and some humans. The characters and the setting of Middle Earth were modeled after mythological stories from Greece and Northern Europe.

Although readers have scrutinized the texts for inner meaning and have tried to connect the trilogy with Tolkien’s real life experiences in England during World War II, he denied the connection. He claims that the story began in his years as an undergraduate student and grew out of his desire to create mythology and legends about elves and their language.

Tolkien was a masterful fantasy novelist who used his extensive knowledge of folklore to create a body of work that is still read and enjoyed throughout the world today Question 35: What can we assume is NOT true about Middle Earth?

A. Middle Earth was based on European folktales B. Middle Earth was a fictional world C. The good and evil kingdom fought for the power D. People dominated Middle Earth Question 36: The word “scrutinized” in the fourth paragraph could be replaced by A. examined

B. denied

C. enjoyed

D. criticized

Question 37: What does this passage mainly discuss?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question 38: According to the passage, when did “the Lord of the Rings” trilogy become popular with young people?

A. In the late 1960s

B. After World War II

C. In 1892

D. Between 1936 and 1946

Question 39: When did Tolkien begin to create this trilogy?

A. When he was a student

B. During World War I

C. When he was a professor

D. During World War II

Question 40: What does the word “trilogy” in the first paragraph mean?

A. A specific type of fantasy novel

B. A long novel

C. A group of three literary books

D. An unrelated group of books

Question 41: What is the setting of Tolkien’s trilogy?

A. Modern - day Greece

B. England in the 1800’s

C. Oxford University

D. Middle Earth

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Question 42: The word “fascinating” in the second paragraph could be replaced by A. thrilling

B. extremely interesting

C. boring

D. terrifying

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: However old and worn his clothes were, they looked clean and of good quality.

A. His clothes looked clean and of good quality because they were old and worn.

B. His clothes, though old and worn, looked clean and of good quality.

C. He was fond of wearing such old and worn clothes because they were of good quality.

D. No matter what good quality his clothes had, they looked old and worn.

Question 44: She usually spends one hour driving to work every day.

A. She usually works one hour every day.

B. It usually takes her one hour to drive to work every day.

C. She usually goes to work by car once a day.

D. It usually takes her one hour to work on her car every day.

Question 45: I thought I shouldn’t have stayed at home yesterday.

A. I regretted staying at home yesterday.

B. I regretted for staying at home yesterday.

C. 1 regret for staying at home yesterday.

D. I regret to stay at home yesterday.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: (A) Body language is quiet and (B) secret, but (C) most powerful language (D) of all.

A. Body language

B. secret

C. most

D. of all

Question 47: (A) Stayed (B) strong, family members (C) have to (D) be engaged in each other’s lives.

A. Stayed

B. strong

C. have

D. be engaged

Question 48: (A) Once you can (B) overcome your difficulty, the problem (C) may well become a source of (P) strengthen to your marriage and your faith.

A. Once

B. overcome

C. may well become

D. strengthen

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees in the park.

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A. People should either throw rubbish in the park or cut down the trees in the park.

B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.

C. People should either throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.

D. People should neither throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park Question 50: Most of the classmates couldn’t come. He invited them to the birthday party.

A. Most of the classmates he invited to the birthday party couldn’t come.

B. Most of the classmates he was invited to the birthday party couldn’t come.

C. Most of the classmates that he invited them to the birthday party couldn’t come.

D. Most of the classmates which he invited to the birthday party couldn’t come. Đáp án 1-C

2-B

3-C

4-A

5-C

6-C

7-A

8-A

9-C

10-B

11-C

12-C

13-C

14-C

15-B

16-B

17-A

18-D

19-D

20-C

21-B

22-B

23-C

24-B

25-B

26-C

27-A

28-D

29-A

30-C

31-A

32-A

33-A

34-D

35-B

36-A

37-C

38-A

39-A

40-C

41-D

42-B

43-B

44-B

45-A

46-C

47-A

48-D

49-B

50-A

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ĐỀ SỐ 4

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh  Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions Question 1:

A. engineering

B. economics

C. recommend

D. curriculum

Question 2:

A. perseverance

B. application

C. agriculture

D. dedication

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 3:

A. element

B. dedicate

C. event

D. devote

Question 4:

A. chemical

B. approach

C. achieve

D. challenge

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges Question 5: Mrs. Smith: “__________”. - Mr. Brown: “Thank you. We are proud of him.”

A. Youi kid is naughty

B. Can we ask your child to take a photo?

C. Your child is just adorable

D. I can give your kid a lift to school

Question 6: -“-“We’ll have to hurry if we want to finish this project on time.” – “________” A. OK. But I’ll call you later

B. I’ll say we will

C. I’m tired. I’ll go home early

D. What a wonderful idea!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans A. divorced

B. separated

C. single

D. married

Question 8: In Western culture, it is polite to maintain eye contact during conversation A. irresponsible

B. discourteous

C. insecure

D. informal

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 9: Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and find solutions quickly.

A. arrive

B. encounter

C. happen

D. dean

Question 10: I just want to stay at home to watch TV and take it easy.

A. sleep

B. sit down

C. eat

D. relax

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

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Question 11: The government is aiming _________50 % reduction ________unemployment.

A. to/in

B. at/in

C. at/of

D. for/of

Question 12: No one enjoys __________ in public.

A. being made fun of

B. to be made fun of

C. making fun of

D. to make fun of

Question 13: I believe that he was concerned ___________ all those matters which his wife metioned.

A. upon

B. over

C. above

D. with

Question 14: I ________ very well with my roommate now. We never have arguments.

A. carry on

B. go on

C. put on

D. get on

Question 15: Can you tell me who is responsible ____________ checking passports?

A. to

B. in

C. for

D. about

Question 16: When may father was young, he ________ get up early to do the gardening.

A. used to

B. was used to

C. got used to

D. use to

Question 17: The preparation __________ by the time the guest ___________ A. have finished- arrived

B. had been finished- arrived

C. had finished-were arriving

D. have been finished- were arrived

Question 18: If he had known her address, he _________ her to his birthday party last week.

A. would have invited

B. would have invite

C. will invite

D. would invite

Question 19: Bill asked his sister __________.

A. where would she go the following day

B. where you will go tomorrow

C. where you would go tomorrow

D. where she would go the following day

Question 20: My boss asked his son ___________ impolitely.

A. didn’t behave

B. to behave

C. not behave

D. not to behave

Question 21: Clark has a wide ___________ about cultures of many countries in the world A. known

B. knowing

C. knowledge

D. know

Question 22: Be careful with your gun! You __________ wound somebody.

A. must

B. need to

C. ought to

D. may

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, R, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27 Without transportation, our modern society could not (23) ___________. We would have no metal, no coal and no oil nor would we have any (24) ___________ made from these Trang 2 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

materials. (25) ___________, we would have to spend most of our time raising food and food would be limited to the kinds that could grow in the climate and soil of our neighborhood.

Transportation also affects our lives in other ways. Transportation can speed a doctor to the side of a sick person, even if the patients’ lives on an isolated farm. It can take police to the scene of a crime within a moment of being noticed. Transportation (26) ________ teams of athletes to compete in national and international sports contests. In time of (27) __________ transportation can rush aid to persons in areas stricken by floods, families and earthquakes.

Question 23: A. establish

B. exist

C. take place D. happen

Question 24: A. producers

B. production C. products

D. productivity

Question 25: A. Even

B. Besides

C. Although

D. However

Question 26: A. brings

B. fetches

C. enables

D. gets

Question 27: A. disasters

B. accidents

C. problems

D. wars

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34 Telecommuting is a form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more popular?

Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager’s responsibilities.

It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office.

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Question 28: With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?

A. An overview of telecommuting.

B. The failure of telecommuting.

C. The advantages of telecommuting.

D. A definition of telecommuting.

Question 29: How many Americans are involved in telecommuting?

A. More than predicted in Business Week.

B. More than 8 million.

C. Fewer than last year.

D. Fewer than last year.

Question 30: The phrase “of no consequence” means A. of no use

B. irrelevant

C. of no good

D. unimportant

Question 31: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT ___________.

A. the opportunities for advancement.

B. the different system of supervision.

C. the lack of interaction.

D. the work place is in the home.

Question 32: The word “them” in the second paragraph refers to A. telecommuters

B. systems

C. executives

D. responsibilities

Question 33: The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees ____________ A. need regular interaction with their families.

B. arc worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.

C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.

D. are ignorant of telecommuting.

Question 34: The word “reluctant” in the third paragraph can best be replaced by A. opposite

B. willing

C. hesitant

D. typical

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42 It is said that George Washington was one of the first to realize how important tire building of canals would be to the nation’s development. In fact, before he became the President, he headed the first company in the United States to build a canal, which was to connect the Ohio and Potomac rivers. It was never completed, but it showed the nation the feasibility of canals. As the country expanded westward, settlers in western New York, Pennsylvania, and Ohio needed a means to ship goods. Canals linking natural waterways seemed to supply an effective method.

In 1791, engineers commissioned by the state of New York investigated the possibility of a canal

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between Albany on the Hudson River and Buffalo on Lake Eric to link the Great Lakes area with the Atlantic seacoast. It would avoid the mountains that served as a barrier to canals from the Delaware and Potomac rivers.

The first attempt to dig the canal, to be called the Eric Canal, was made by private companies but only a comparatively small portion was built before the project was halted for lack of funds. The cost of the prospect was estimated $5 million, an enormous amount for those days. There was some on-again-off-again federal funding, but this time the War of 1812 put an end to construction. In 1817, DeWitt Clinton was elected Governor of New York and persuaded the state to finance and build the canal. It was completed in 1825, costing S2 million more than expected.

The canal rapidly lived up to its sponsors’ faith, quickly paying for itself through tolls. It was far more economical than any other form of transportation at the time. It permitted trade between the Great Lake region and the East coast, robbing the Mississippi River of much of its traffic. It allowed New York to supplant Boston, Philadelphia, and other eastern cities as the chief center of both domestic and foreign commerce. Cities sprang up along the canal. It also contributed in a number of ways to the Norths victory over the South in the Civil War. An expansion of the canal was planned in 1849. Increased traffic would undoubtedly have warranted its construction had it not been for the railroads.

Question 35: The word “feasibility” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________ A. possibility

B. capability

C. difficulty

D. profitability

Question 36: According to the passage, the Eric Canal connected the _________ A. Delaware and Potomac Rivers

B. Hudson River and Lake Eric

C. Atlantic Ocean and the Hudson River

D. Potomac and Ohio Rivers

Question 37: The completion of the Eric Canal was financed by _________ A. private company

B. B. DeWitt Clinton

C. the federal government

D. New York

Question 38: The actual cost of building the Eric Canal was __________ A. $5 million

B. less than had been expected

C. $7 million

D. more than could be repaid

Question 39: The word “tolls” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. Grants

B. Fees

C. Links

D. Jobs

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Question 40: Which of the following is NOT given as an effect of the building of the Eric Canal in paragraph 4?

A. It took water traffic away from the Mississippi River.

B. It established Boston and Philadelphia as the most important centers of trade.

C. It helped determine the outcome of the Civil War. D. It allowed the East coast to trade with the Great Lake Sea. Question 41: What can be inferred about railroads in 1849 from the information in the last paragraph?

A. They were being planned but had not been built.

B. They were seriously underdeveloped.

C. They had begun to compete with the Eric Canal for traffic.

D. They were weakened by the expansion of the canal.

Question 42: The word “warranted” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to A. hastened

B. guaranteed

C. justified

D. prevented

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: They believe a single gunman carried out the attack.

A. The attack’s is believed to have carried out a single gunman B. A single gunman is believed to have carried out the attack C. It is believed to be carried out the attack by a single gunman.

D. it is believed that the attack has been carried out by a single gunman.

Question 44: “I’m sorry. I didn’t do the homework.” said the boy.

A. The boy admitted not doing the homework.

B. The boy said that he was sorry and he wouldn’t do the homework.

C. The boy denied not doing the homework.

D. The boy refused to do the homework.

Question 45: You can stay in the flat for free as long as you pay the bills.

A. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is tree.

B. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free tlat.

C. Unless the Hat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it.

D. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the tlat for free.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

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Question 46: It is (A) recommended that (B) people (C) to take regular (D) exercise.

A. recommended

B. people

C. to take

D. exercise

Question 47: (A) More than ten students (B) have tailed the exam,(C) that surprised (D) the class teacher.

A. More than

B. have tailed

C. that

D. the

Question 48: The world is becoming more (A) industrialized and the number of animal (B) species that have become (C) extinct (D) have increased.

A. industrialized

B. species

C. extinct

D. have

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: I strongly disapproved of your behavior. However, I will help you this time.

A. Despite of my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.

B. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.

C. Because of your behavior, I will help you this time.

D. Although I strongly disapproved of your behavior, but I will help you this time.

Question 50: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.

A. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

B. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

D. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time. Đáp án 1-D

2-C

3-D

4-A

5-C

6-B

7-D

8-B

9-C

10-D

11-B

12-A

13-D

14-D

15-C

16-A

17-B

18-A

19-D

20-C

21-C

22-D

23-B

24-C

25-B

26-C

27-A

28-A

29-B

30-D

31-B

32-A

33-B

34-C

35-A

36-B

37-D

38-C

39-B

40-B

41-C

42-C

43-B

44-A

45-D

46-C

47-C

48-D

49-B

50-B

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ĐỀ SỐ 5

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh  Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions Question 1:

A. marriage

B. response

C. maintain

D. believe

Question 2:

A. certain

B. equal

C. decide

D. couple

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 3:

A. expand

B. vacancy

C. applicant

D. category

Question 4:

A. carpet

B. school

C. facial

D. contact

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges Question 5: Kate: “Thank you for the lovely present”. - Peter: “____________” A. I’m pleased you like it

B. No, thanks

C. Go ahead

D. Come on

Question 6: Sarah: “Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary!” - Mary: - “_____________” A. Never mention it.

B. Thanks, Sarah. I had it done yesterday

C. Thanks, but I’m afrai

D. Yes, all right.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.

A. gently

B. cleverly

C. reasonably

D. brutally

Question 8: The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied.

A. busy

B. comfortable

C. free

D. relaxed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 9: I’m becoming increasingly absent-minded. Last week, I locked myself out of my house twice.

A. being considerate of things

B. remembering to do right things

C. forgetful of one’s past

D. often forgetting things

Question 10: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society.

A. Informative

B. delighted

C. exciting

D. essential

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: The marathon, first staged on 1896, _______ the legendary feat of a Greek soldier who carried news of victory from the battle at Marathon to Athens.

A. commemorates

B. commemorated

C. was commemorated

D. commemorating

Question 12: Football is thought ________ in the world.

A. to have played the most popular sport

B. to be the most popular sport

C. to play the most popular sport

D. to have been the most popular sport

Question 13: The number of unemployed people ________ recently.

A. is increasing

B. has increased

C. have increased

D. increase

Question 14: Many people will be out of ________ if the factory is closed.

A. career

B. job

C. profession

D. work

Question 15: Neither Bill nor his brothers _______ willing to help their mother with the housework A. is

B. was

C. are

D. has

Question 16: Do you know the person _________ next to you in the evening class?

A. whose sitting

B. whom sits

C. sitting

D. who sit

Question 17: I can’t ________ of a word he is saying A. make sense

B. grasp

C. comprehend

D. understand

Question 18: Tony Blair is believed ________ for Liverpool last week A. having left

B. to have left

C. to leave

D. leaving

Question 19:________ is increasing, which results from economic crisis.

A. Employment

B. Unemployed

C. Unemployment

D. Employ

Question 20: In the US, the first stage of compulsory education __________as elementary education.

A. to be generally known

B. is generally known

C. generally known

D. is generally knowing

Question 21: It is vital to create a good impression ________ your interviewer.

A. on

B. with

C. at

D. for

Question 22: Geometry is the branch of mathematics _________ the properties of time, curves, shapes, and surfaces.

A. it is concerned with

B. that concerned with

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C. concerned with

D. its concerned are

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27 In Germany, it’s important to be serious in a work situation. They don’t mix work and play so you shouldn’t make jokes (23) __________ you do in the UK and USA when you first meet people. They work in a very organized way and prefer to do one thing at a time. They don’t likeinterruptions or (24) __________ changes of schedule. Punctuality is very important so you should arrive on time for appointments. At meeting, it’s important to follow the agenda and not interrupt (25) _________ speaker. If you give a presentation, you should focus (26) ________ facts and technical information and the quality of your company’s products. You should also prepare well, as they may ask a lot of questions. Colleagues normally use the family names, and title - for example ‘Doctor’ or “Professor”, so you shouldn’t use first names (27) _________ a person asks you to.

Question 23: A. while

B. as if

C. such as

D. as

Question 24: A. suddsen

B. suddenly

C. abruptly

D. promptly

Question 25: A. other

B. others

C. another

D. the other

Question 26: A. on

B. to

C. at

D. in

Question 27: A. if only

B. as

C. unless

D. since

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34 In early civilization, citizens were educated informally, usually within the family unit.

Education meant simply learning to live. As civilization became more complex, however, education became more formal, structured, and comprehensive. Initial efforts of the ancient Chinese and Greek societies concentrated solely on the education of males. The post-Babylonian Jews and Plato were exceptions to this pattern. Plato was apparently the first significant advocate of the equality of the sexes. Women, in his ideal state, would have the same rights and duties and the same educational opportunities as men. This aspect of Platonic philosophy, however, had little or no effect on education for many centuries, and the concept of a liberal education for men only, which had been espoused by Aristotle, prevailed.

In ancient Rome, the availability of an education was gradually extended to women, but they were taught separately from men. The early Christians and medieval Europeans continued this trend, and single-sex schools for the privileged through classes prevailed through the Reformation period. Gradually, however, education for women, in a separate but equal basis to Trang 3 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

that provided for men, was becoming a clear responsibility of society. Martin Luther appealed for civil support of schools for all children. Al the Council of Trent in the 16th century, the Roman Catholic Church encouraged the establishment of free primary schools for children of all classes. The concept of universal primary education, regardless of sex, had been born, but it was still in the realm of the single-sex school.

In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, co-education became a more widely applied principle of educational philosophy. In Britain, Germany, and the Soviet Union the education of boys and girls in the same classes became an accepted practice. Since World War II, Japan and the Scandinavian countries have also adopted relatively universal co-educational systems. The greatest negative reaction to co-education has been felt in the teaching systems of the Latin countries, where the sexes have usually been separated at both primary and secondary levels, according to local conditions. ’ A number of studies have indicated that girls seem to perform better overall and in science in particular. In single-sex classes, during the adolescent years, pressure to conform to stereotypical female gender roles may disadvantage girls in traditionally male subjects, making them reluctant to volunteer for experimental work while taking part in lessons. In Britain, academic league tables point to high standards achieved in girls’ schools. Some educationalists, therefore, suggest segregation of the sexes as a good thing, particularly in certain areas, and a number of schools are experimenting with the idea.

Question 28: Ancient education generally focused its efforts on _________.

A. young people only

B. on male learners

C. both sexes

D. female learners

Question 29: Education in early times was mostly aimed at ___________.

A. teaching skills

B. learning new lifestyles

C. learning to live

D. imparting survival skills

Question 30: The first to support the equality of the sexes was _____________.

A. the Chinese

B. the Jews

C. Plato

D. the Greek

Question 31: The word “informally” in this context mostly refers to an education occurring ___________.

A. in a department

B. in classrooms

C. ability

D. outside the school

Question 32: When education first reached women, they were _________.

A. separated from men

B. locked up in a place with men

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C. deprived of opportunities

D. isolated from a normal life

Question 33: When the concept of universal primary education was introduced, education ___________.

A. focused on imparting skills

B. locked up in a place with men

C. was given free to all

D. focused on imparting skills

Question 34: Co-education was negatively responded to in ___________.

A. conservative countries

B. Japan

C. South American countries

D. the Scandinavian countries

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42 The three phases of human memory are the sensory memory, the short-term memory, and the long- term memory. This division of the memory into phases is based on the length of time of the memory.

Sensory memory is instantaneous memory. It is an image or memory that enters your mind only for a short period of time; it comes and goes in under a second. The memory will not last longer than that unless the information enters the short-term memory.

Information can be held in the short-term memory for about twenty seconds or as long as you are actively using it. If you repeat a fact to yourself, that fact will stay in your short-term memory as long as you keep repeating it. Once you stop repeating it, either it is forgotten or it moves into long term memory.

Long-term memory is the huge memory tank that can hold ideas and images for years and years. Information can be added to your long-term memory when you actively try to put it there through memorization or when an idea or image enters your mind on its own.

Question 35: The best title for this passage would be __________.

A. The difference between sensory and short-term memory B. How long it takes to memorize C. The stages of human memory D. Human phases Question 36: The three phases of memory discussed in the passage are differentiated according to ____________.

A. The location in the brain B. The period of time it takes to remember something C. How the senses are involved in the memory.

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D. How long the memory lasts.

Question 37: The expression “is based on” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by __________.

A. Is on the top of

B. is at the foot of

C. depends on

D. is below

Question 38: According to the passage, which type of memory is the shortest?

A. Sensory memory

B. Active memory

C. Short-term memory

D. Long-term memory

Question 39: According to the passage, when will information stay in your short-term memory?

A. For as long as twenty minutes B. As long as it is being used.

C. After you have repeated it many times.

D. When it has moved into long-term memory.

Question 40: All of the following are TRUE about long - term memory EXCEPT that __________ A. it has a very large capacity.

B. it can hold information.

C. it is possible to put information into it through memorization.

D. memorization is the only way that information can get there.

Question 41: The expression “on its own” in the last sentence can be best replaced by A. by itself

B. in its own time

C. with its

D. in only one way

Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that if a person remembers a piece of « information for two days, this is probably _________.

A. three phases of memory

B. the sensory memory

C. the short- term memory

D. the long- term memory

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 43: The review overvalued his latest film.

A. The review overvalued his latest film.

B. The review turned down his latest film.

C. The review rejected his latest film.

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D. The review gave his latest film a moderate appreciation.

Question 44: Lisa always reminds me of my youngest sister.

A. My youngest sister’s name is Lisa.

B. I always think of Lisa, my youngest sister.

C. Whenever I see Lisa, I think of my youngest sister.

D. It is Lisa who is my youngest sister.

Question 45: They had such a fierce dog that nobody would visit them.

A. So fierce was their dog that nobody would visit them.

B. Their dog was fierce enough for anybody to visit them.

C. If their dog weren’t fierce, somebody would visit them.

D. So fierce a dog did they had that nobody would visit them.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: The (A) basic elements of public-opinion research (B) are interviewers, questionnaires, (C) tabulating equipment, and (D) to sample population.

A. basic elements

B. are

C. tabulating

D. to sample

Question 47: She asked (A) why (B) did Mark look (C) so embarrassed when he (D) saw Carole.

A. why

B. did Mark look

C. did Mark look

D. saw

Question 48: Higher education is very (A) importance to national (B) economies and it is also a source of trained and (C) educated personnel for (D) the whole country.

A. importance

B. economies

C. educated

D. the whole country

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: The old man is working in this factory. I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.

A. The old man is working in this factory which I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.

B. The old man whom I borrowed his bicycle yesterday is working in this factory.

C. The old man whose bicycle I borrowed yesterday is working in this factory.

D. The old man whom is working in this factory I borrowed his bicycle yesterday.

Question 50: Mary doesn’t like sports. Her brother doesn’t, either.

A. Neither Mary or her brother likes sports.

B. Either Mary or her brother likes sports.

C. Neither Mary nor her brother likes sports.

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D. Both Mary and her brother like sports. Đáp án 1-A

2-C

3-B

4-C

5-A

6-B

7-A

8-C

9-D

10-D

11-A

12-B

13-B

14-D

15-C

16-C

17-A

18-B

19-C

20-B

21-A

22-C

23-D

24-A

25-D

26-A

27-C

28-B

29-C

30-C

31-D

32-A

33-A

34-C

35-C

36-D

37-C

38-A

39-B

40-D

41-A

42-D

43-A

44-C

45-A

46-D

47-B

48-A

49-C

50-C

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ĐỀ SỐ 6

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh  Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. magnificent

B. appliances

C. potentially

D. preservation

Question 2:

A. architect

B. electric

C. mineral

D. luxury

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. contain

B. feature

C. picture

D. culture

Question 4:

A. fare

B. black

C. match

D. calcium

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges Question 5: “Has an annoucement been made about the nine o’clock flight to Paris” -“______________”.

A. Not yet

B. Yes, it is nine o’clock

C. I don’t think so

D. Sorry, I don’t

Question 6: “I can speak English well enough to apply for that post.”

-“______________”.

A. Me neither

B. Me too

C. Me either

D. Me also

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community.

A. cooperate

B. put together

C. separate

D. connect

Question 8: There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and farmers are having trouble.

A. adequate

B. unsatisfactory

C. abundant

D. dominant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 9: The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the examination.

A. effects

B. symptoms

C. hints

D. demonstrations

Question 10: Today’s scientists have overcome many of the challenges of the depth by using more sophisticated tools.

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A. complicated

B. worldly

C. experienced

D. aware

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 11: Ben went __________ the competition and won the first prize.

A. on

B. in for

C. away

D. through

Question 12: While everybody else in our class prefers working in groups, Ann likes working _________ A. on herself

B. on her own

C. of her own

D. in herself

Question 13: __________, the young mother appeared visibly very happy after the birth of her child.

A. Tired as she was

B. She was tired

C. As tired

D. Despite tired

Question 14: Widespread forest destruction __________ in this particular area.

A. must have seen

B. ought to see

C. could have seen

D. can be seen

Question 15: The greater the demand, __________ the price.

A. the highest

B. the high

C. higher

D. the higher

Question 16: After twenty years collecting stamps, Tim _________ interested in them.

A. is not longer

B. no longer

C. no longer is

D. is no longer

Question 17: You should concentrate on _________ the teacher is saying.

A. what

B. which

C. that

D. whom

Question 18: Her family has gone to Edinburgh to pay their last _________ to uncle Bin who died last week.

A. sympathy

B. love

C. respects

D. honors

Question 19: My sister and her husband ________ over to my house for dinner tomorrow evening.

A. came

B. come

C. going to come

D. are coming

Question 20: Japanese, Korean, Russian, Chinese, French and German will be taught at general schools in Hanoi and HCM City before being ________on a large scale throughout the country.

A. applied

B. provided

C. assessed

D. investigated

Question 21: Remember to take ________ your shoes when you go into the temple.

A. up

B. in

C. with

D. off

Question 22: _________ you study harder, you won’t pass the examination A. Although

B. Despite

C. Unless

D. If

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27 In a small village in North Yorkshire, there is a big old farmhouse _______ (23) three families live together. Alice and George and their three children, Joe and Pam and their two children, and Sue and her baby daughter. The adults divide up the work between them. George does the cooking, Joe and Sue do almost the housework. Pam looks after the shopping and ________ (24) the repairs, and Alice takes care of the garden.

Alice, George and Sue go out to work. Joe works at home _________ (25) computer systems, and Pam, who is a painter, looks after the baby during the day. Two of the children go to school in the village, but the three oldest ones go by bus to the secondary school in the nearest town, ten miles away.

The three families get_______ (26) well, and enjoy their way of life. There are few difficulties of course. Their biggest worry at the moment is money- one of the cars needs replacing, and the roof needs some expensive repairs. But this isn’t too serious- the bank has agreed to a loan, which they expect to be able to pay back in three years. And they all say they would much rather go on living in their old farmhouse _______ (27) move to a luxury flat in a big city.

Question 23: A. that

B. where

C. in where

D. which

Question 24: A. does

B. has

C. prepares

D. fulfils

Question 25: A. designs

B. and design C. designing D. who designs

Question 26: A. on

B. off

C. with

D. in

Question 27: A. then

B. than

C. to

D. therefore

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34 Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not expanded even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two century, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English, speakers became established and grew in various parts

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of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.

Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airport, and air traffic controllers.

Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world.

Question 28: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The number of non-native users of English.

B. The French influence on the English language.

C. The expansion of English as an international language.

D. The use of English for science and technology.

Question 29: In the first paragraph, the word “emerged” is closest in meaning to A. appeared

B. hailed

C. frequented

D. engaged

Question 30: In the first paragraph, the word “elements” is closest in meaning to A. declaration

B. features

C. frequented

D. engaged

Question 31: Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England? ________.

A. In 1066

B. around 1350

C. before 1600

D. after 1600

Question 32: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world EXCEPT__________.

A. the slave trade

B. the Norman invasion

C. missionaries

D. colonization

Question 33: In the second paragraph, the word “stored” is closest in meaning to ________.

A. bought

B. saved

C. spent

D. valued

Question 34: According to the passage, approximately how many non-native users of English are there in the world today? _________.

A. a quarter million

B. half a million

C. 350 million

D. 700 million

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42 Any list of the greatest thinkers in history contains the name of the brilliant physicist Albert Einstein. His theories of relativity led to entirely new ways of thinking about time, space, matter, energy, and gravity. Einsteins work led to such scientific advances as the Trang 4 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

control of atomic energy, even television as a practical application of Einsteins work. In 1902 Einstein became an examiner in the Swiss patent office at Bern. In 1905, at age 26, he published the first of five major research papers. The first one provided a theory explaining Brownian movement, the zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension. The second paper laid the foundation for the photon, or quantum, theory of light. In it he proposed that light is composed of separate packets of energy, called quanta or photons, that have some of the properties of particles and some of the properties of waves. A third paper contained the “special theory of relativity” which showed that time and motion are relative to the observer, if the speed of light is constant and the natural laws are the same everywhere in the universe.

The fourth paper was a mathematical addition to the special theory of relativity. Here Einstein presented his famous formula, E = mc2 , known as the energy mass equivalence. In 1916, Einstein published his general theory of relativity. In it he proposed that gravity is not a force, but a curve in the space-time continuum, created by the presence of mass. Einstein spoke out frequently against nationalism, the exalting of one nation above all others. He opposed war and violence and supported Zionism, the movement to establish a Jewish homeland in Palestine, When the Nazis came to power in 1933, they denounced his ideas. He then moved to the United States. In 1939 Einstein learned that two German chemists had split the uranium atom. Einstein wrote to President Franklin D. Roosevelt warning him that this scientific knowledge could lead to Germany developing an atomic bomb. He suggested the United States begin its own atomic bomb research.

Question 35: Einstein’s primary work was in the area of ________.

A. chemistry

B. biology

C. physics

D. engineering

Question 36: Which of the following inventions is mentioned in the passage as a practical application of Einsteins discoveries?

A. Radio

B. Automobiles

C. Computers

D. Television

Question 37: According to the passage, Einstein supported all of the following EXCEPT A. the establishment ot a Jewish homeland in Palestine B. nationalism C. atomic bomb research in the United States.

D. the defeat of the Nazis.

Question 38: What is “Brownian movement”?

A. The zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension B. The emission of electrons from solids when struck by light Trang 5 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

C. The motion of photons in light D. The basis of the theory of relativity Question 39: Einstein was a citizen of all of the following countries EXCEPT A. Belgium

B. Germany

C. United State

D. Switzerland

Question 40: It is clear from the tone of the passage that the author feels A. Einsteins work in physics was somewhat tarnished by his conservative political views.

B. Albert Einstein was one of the most brilliant thinkers in history.

C. Einsteins work in physics, though theoretically impressive, led to few practical applications.

D. Einsteins theories have been consistently proven incorrect.

Question 41: According to Einstein’s special theory of relativity, A. all properties of matter and energy can be explained in a single mathematical formula.

B. light is composed of separate packets of energy.

C. time and motion are relative to the observer.

D. some solids emit electrons when struck by light.

Question 42: The word “exalting” in the passage most nearly means A. elevation

B. criticism

C. support

D. elimination

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.

A. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.

B. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.

C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.

D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.

Question 44: “It can’t be Mike who leaked the document; it might be Tom.”, said our manager.

A. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike.

B. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document: Mike or Tom. C. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike.

D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike.

Question 45: He took the food eagerly because he had eaten nothing since dawn.

A. He had eaten nothing since dawn although he took the food eagerly.

B. The food was taken at dawn and he had nothing to eat then.

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C. He had eaten something before but he took the food eagerly.

D. Having eaten nothing since dawn, he took the food eagerly.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: Buying clothes (A) are often (B) a very time-consuming practice (C) because those clothes that a person likes (D) are rarely the ones that fit him or her.

A. are

B. a very time-consuming

C. because those

D. are rarely the ones

Question 47: The British (A) national anthem. (B) calling “ God Save the Queen”, (C) was a (D) traditional song in the 18th century.

A. national anthem

B. calling

C. was

D. traditional song

Question 48: Maryland, (A) leven though a southern state, (B) remained (C) loyalty to The Union (D) during the Civil War. A. leven though

B. remained

C. loyalty

D. during

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: The soccer teant knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.

A. Not only did the soccer team lose the match but they blamed each other as well B. No sooner had the soccer team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.

C. As soon as they blamed each other, the soccer team knew they lost the match.

D. Hardly had the soccer team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.

Question 50: She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.

A. It she hadnt been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.

B. It she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.

C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.

D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured. Đáp án 1-D

2-B

3-A

4-A

5-A

6-B

7-C

8-A

9-C

10-A

11-B

12-B

13-A

14-D

15-D

16-D

17-A

18-C

19-D

20-A

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21-D

22-C

23-B

24-A

25-C

26-A

27-B

28-C

29-A

30-B

31-D

32-B

33-B

34-C

35-C

36-D

37-B

38-A

39-A

40-B

41-C

42-A

43-A

44-C

45-D

46-A

47-B

48-C

49-D

50-D

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ĐỀ SỐ 7

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh  Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. generation

B. situation

C. education

D. examination

Question 2:

A. photography

B. minority

C. heroic

D. amateur

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. future

B. refuse

C. abuse

D. fuss

Question 4:

A. smoothly

B. southern

C. breath

D. airworthy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5: John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”

Linda: “___________” A. Of course not. You bet

B. There is no doubt about it

C. Well, that’s very surprising

D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea

Question 6: Alice: “How about having a drive to the countryside this weekend?”

Mary: “___________” A. That’s a good idea

B. Not at all

C. No, thanks

D. Never mind

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: “Please speak up a bit more, Jack. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the teacher said.

A. visible

B. edible

C. eligible

D. inaudible

Question 8: The funny story told by the man amused all the children.

A. pleased

B. entertained

C. saddened

D. frightened

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9: He sounded panic-stricken on the phone.

A. terrified

B. troubled

C. happy

D. disappointed

Question 10: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate.

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A. taking off

B. setting up

C. growing well

D. closing down

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: Housework is less tiring and boring thanks to the invention of _______devices.

A. environment-friendly

B. time-consuming

C. labor-saving

D. pollution-free

Question 12: By the end of the 21st century, scientists ______ a cure for the common cold.

A. will find

B. will have found

C. will be finding

D. will have been found

Question 13: Last Sunday was _________ that we took a drive in the country.

A. so beautiful day

B. such a beautiful day

C. so a beautiful day

D. such beautiful day

Question 14: Most ________ understand that disciplinary actions do not always work with students.

A. educate

B. educating

C. education

D. educators

Question 15: She _______ me a very charming compliment on my painting.

A. showed

B. paid

C. made

D. took

Question 16: ________ the rise in unemployment, people still seem to be spending more.

A. Despite

B. Although

C. Because

D. Because of

Question 17: He did not share his secrets with other people but he __________ in her.

A. confessed

B. concealed

C. confided

D. consented

Question 18: Only when you grow up,__________ the truth.

A. you will know

B. you know

C. do you know

D. will you know

Question 19: My brother left his job last week because he did not have any __________to travel.

A. position

B. chance

C. ability

D. location

Question 20: John paid $2 for his meal, _________ he had thought it would cost.

A. not as much

B. not so much as

C. less as

D. not so many as

Question 21: He was given a medal in ________of his service to the country.

A. gratitude

B. knowledge

C. recognition

D. response

Question 22: She ________ till the early hours listening to pop music.

A. took me up

B. kept me up

C. caught me up

D. held me up

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27 Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday to Friday. The (23) _________ class size is twelve and the average is ten. We use modern methods (24) _________teaching and learning, and the school has a language laboratory, a video camera and recorders. You will only be successful in improving your English; however, if you work hard and practise speaking English as much as you can. You will take a short (25)_________ in English as soon as you arrive. In this way, we can put you in a (26) ___________ at the most suitable level.

The emphasis is on oral communication practice in a wide (27) __________ of situations at the advanced knowledge. You will learn how to use language correctly and appropriately when you talk to native speakers. In addition, you will develop such study skills as reading efficiently, writing articles and reports, and note-taking from books and lectures.

Question 23: A. maximum

B. minimum C. small

D. large

Question 24: A. in

B. of

C. on

D. to

Question 25: A. test

B. exam

C. course

D. lesson

Question 26: A. form

B. class

C. grade

D. course

Question 27: A. variety

B. amount

C. number

D. lot

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34 (Line 1) Horace Pippin, as an African-American soldier during World War I, was wounded in his right arm. He discovered, however, that by keeping his right wrist steady with his left hand, he could paint and draw. Pippin was not trained, but his artistic sensitivity and intuitive feel for two-dimensional design and the arrangement of colour and patterns made him one of the finest Primitive artists America has produced.

(Line 6) Pippin did a series of paintings on the abolitionist John Brown and one on his war experiences, but he shied away from social issues for the most part and achieved his greatest success with scenes of the people and places of his hometown of West Chester, Pennsylvania.

His Domino Players, featuring four women gathered around a wooden table in a simple kitchen setting, is an excellent example of his rural domestic scenes.

Question 28: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about primitive art?

A. It’s two-dimensional Trang 3 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

B. Colours and patterns are important C. Artists do not have to be trained for it D. It is used mainly for painting portraits Question 29: Horace Pippin discovered he could paint and draw _________.

A. during Word War I B. when he completed his training C. when someone reminded him of his artistic sensitivity D. by holding his right wrist steady with his left hand Question 30: Where in the passage is the name of Pippin’s hometown mentioned?

A. Line 1-2

B. Line 3-4

C. Line 6-7

D. Line 8-9

Question 31: It may be inferred from the passage that Pippin A. had a simple upbringing B. was obsessed with the subject of abolition C. was destroyed by his war experiences D. wanted nothing to do with his past following?

Question 32: The word “arrangement” in the passage could best be replaced by _________.

A. purpose

B. feature

C. mixture

D. production

Question 33: With which of the following statements would the author agree?

A. Horace Pippin was a poorly trained ordinary artist.

B. Primitive art is an excuse for lack of training and talent.

C. Horace Pippin made an important contribution to American art.

D. Horace Pippin placed too much emphasis on social issues in his work..

Question 34: The passage would most likely be required reading in which course?

A. Biology

B. Drama

C. Literature

D. Art History

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42 A Japanese construction company plans to create a huge independent city-state, akin to the legendary Atlantis, in the middle of the Pacific Ocean. The city, dubbed “Marinnation”, would have about one million inhabitants, two airports, and possibly even a space port. Marinnation, if built, would be a separate country but could serve as a home for international organisations such as the United Nations and the World Bank.

Aside from the many political and social problems that would have to be solved, the engineering task envisaged is monumental. The initial stage requires the building of a circular Trang 4 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

dam eighteen miles in diameter attached to the sea bed in a relatively shallow place in international waters. Then, several hundred powerful pumps, operating for more than a year, would suck out the sea water trom within the dam. When empty and dry, the area would have a city constructed on it. The actual land would be about 300 feet below the sea level. According to designers, the hardest task trom an engineering point of view would be to ensure that the dam is leak proof and earthquake proof.

It all goes well, it is hoped that Marinnation could be ready for habitation at the end of the second decade of the twenty-first century. Whether anyone would want to live in such an isolated and artificial community, however, will remain an open question until that time.

Question 35: According to the text, Marrination, when built, will be a(an) ________city.

A. underwater

B. underground

C. marine

D. legendary

Question 36: The word akin’ in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ________.

A. likely

B. close

C. next

D. similar

Question 37: Which of the following would NOT be a problem for the construction plan?

A. social

B. political

C. engineering

D. financial

Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true according to the text?

A. Marinnation would have about one million inhabitants.

B. Marinnation will be built in a deep place in the Pacific Ocean.

C. Marinnation will be located in the middle of the Pacific Ocean.

D. Marinnation could be served as home for international organisations.

Question 39: What is going to be built first?

A. a city

B. a dam

C. a monument

D. a sea bed

Question 40: The most difficult task is to protect the dam against ________ and earthquake.

A. fire

B. water

C. sunlight

D. weather

Question 41: According to the text, people could come to live in the future city in the year __________ A. 2002

B. 2012

C. 2010

D. 2020

Question 42: What does the author imply in the last sentence of the passage?

A. People will ask an open question about living in Marinnation.

B. The construction of Marinnation could never be completed in time.

C. People might not want to live in an isolated and artificial community.

D. People will ask how they can live in such an isolated and artificial city.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: I got the impression that the boys were not enjoying themselves.

A. The boys impressed me that they were not enjoying themselves.

B. The boys didn't seem to be enjoying themselves.

C. The boys seemed not to enjoying themselves.

D. It seemed to me the boys were enjoying themselves.

Question 44: The children ran to the yard to see the dragon, but it was no longer there.

A. The dragon had gone by the time the children ran to the yard.

B. The dragon went by the time the children ran to the yard.

C. When the children ran to the yard, the dragon was going.

D. The dragon had gone alter the children ran to the yard.

Question 45: The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.

A. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.

B. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.

C. The noise next door stopped at midnight D. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: The exam to (A) become a lawyer is (B) on far the (C) most difficult he (D) has taken.

A. become

B. on

C. most

D. has

Question 47: No one in our office (A) wants to drive to work (B) because of there (C) are always traffic jams (D) at rush hour.

A. wants

B. because of

C. are

D. at rush hour

Question 48: Mrs. Steven, (A) along with her cousins (B) from New Mexico, (C) are planning (D) to attend the festivities.

A. along with

B. from

C. are

D. to attend

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: You’d better take the keys. Its possible I’ll come home late.

A. You’d better take the keys as I must come home late.

B. I’ll probably come home late so that you’d better take the keys.

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C. If I come home late, you’d better take the keys.

D. You’d better take the keys in case I come home late.

Question 50: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.

A. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot C. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot D. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot Đáp án 1-D

2-D

3-D

4-C

5-B

6-A

7-D

8-C

9-A

10-C

11-C

12-B

13-D

14-D

15-B

16-A

17-C

18-D

19-B

20-B

21-C

22-B

23-A

24-B

25-A

26-B

27-A

28-D

29-D

30-D

31-A

32-C

33-C

34-C

35-C

36-D

37-D

38-B

39-B

40-B

41-D

42-C

43-B

44-A

45-A

46-B

47-B

48-C

49-D

50-A

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ĐỀ SỐ 8

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề



Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. approach

B. leftover

C. supportive

D. biologist

Question 2:

A. associate

B. dioxide

C. dedicate

D. Cosmetic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. accurate

B. account

C. accept

D. accuse

Question 4:

A. predator

B. restore

C. recollect

D. preface

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5: - Mark: “What a lovely house you have!”

- Phil: “ ___________________ A. No problem.

B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.

C. I think so.

D. Of course not, it’s not costly.

Question 6: - Mike: “My first English test was not as good as I expected.”

- Thomas: “ ____________ A. Good Heavens !

B. That’s brilliant enough !

C. It’s okay, don’t worry.

D. Never mind, better job next time !

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: During the five – decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.

A. holding at

B. holding back

C. holding to

D. holding by

Question 8: Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial flight A. real

B. natural

C. genuine

D. true

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9: In 1985, the Coca-Cola Company altered the secret formula of the drink’s ingredients.

A. modified

B. proposed

C. enriched

D. restored

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Question 10: Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always putting his foot in his mouth.

A. saying embarrassing things

B. making a mistake

C. doing things in the wrong order

D. speaking indirectly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: He managed to win the race ____________ hurting his foot before the race.

A. in spite of

B. despite of

C. although

D. because of

Question 12: I gave the waiter a $50 notes and waited for my ____________ A. change

B. supple

C. cash

D. cost

Question 13: ____________ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.

A. Had you arrived

B. If you arrived

C. Were you arrived

D. If you hadn’t arrived

Question 14: There is ____________ in my bedroom.

A. a square wooden old table

B. an old square wooden table

C. a wooden old square table

D. an old wooden square table

Question 15: Sarah and I ____________ reserved the rooms in the same hotel. She was really surprised to see me there.

A. intentionally

B. practically

C. coincidentally

D. deliberately

Question 16: My sister ____________ the responsibility for doing the housework.

A. bears

B. runs

C. holds

D. takes

Question 17: It is not until December 25 ____________ the exam results will be announced.

A. which

B. what

C. that

D. when

Question 18: Susan wasn’t in when I arrived. I suppose she ____________ I was coming.

A. must have forgotten

B. must forget

C. may forget

D. can’t have forgotten

Question 19: The new manager laid down very strict rules as soon as he had ____________ the postion A. taken over

B. come over

C. taken up

D. taken off

Question 20: Vietnam’s rice export this year will decrease ____________ about 10%, compared with that of last year.

A. with

B. at

C. by

D. on

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Question 21: It is very important for a company to keep ____________ the changes in the market.

A. pace of

B. track about

C. touch with

D. up with

Question 22: I’m sure you’ll have no ____________ the exam.

A. difficulty passing

B. difficulties to pass

C. difficulty to pass

D. difficulties of passing

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27 No one can say when sports began. Since it is impossible to (23) _____ a time when children did not spontaneously run races or wrestle, it is clear that children have always included sports in their play, but one can only speculate about the (24) _____ of sports as autotelic physical contests for adults. Hunters are depicted in prehistoric art, but it cannot be known (25) _____ the hunters pursued their prey in a mood of grim necessity or with the joyful abandon of sportsmen. It is certain, (26) ______, from the rich literary and iconographic evidence of all ancient civilizations that hunting soon became an end in itself at least for royalty and nobility.

Archaeological evidence also indicates that ball games were common among ancient peoples as (27) _____as the Chinese and the Aztecs. (https://www.britannicA.com/topic/sports) Question 23:

A. think

B. see

C. have

D. imagine

Question 24:

A. emergence

B. emerge

C. emergency

D. immersion

Question 25:

A. when

B. whether

C. how

D. why

Question 26:

A. therefore

B. so

C. consequently

D. however

Question 27:

A. different

B. far

C. similar

D. old

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it’s hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up Trang 3 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates trom their diets.

Question 28: The topic of this passage is ____________.

A. reactions to foods

B. food and nutrition

C. infants and allergies

D. a good diet

Question 29: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to ____________ A. the vast number of different foods we eat B. lack of a proper treatment plan C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies Question 30: The word “symptoms” is closest in meaning to ____________.

A. indications

B. diet

C. diagnosis

D. prescriptions

Question 31: The phrase “set off” is closest in meaning to ____________.

A. relieved

B. identified

C. avoided

D. triggered

Question 32: What can be inferred about babies from this passage?

A. They can eat almost anything.

B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.

C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.

D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.

Question 33: The word “hyperactive” is closest in meaning to ____________.

A. overly active

B. unusually low activity

C. excited

D. inquisitive

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Question 34: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with the infant’s ____________.

A. lack of teeth

B. poor metabolism

C. underdeveloped intestinal tract

D. inability to swallow solid foods.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year. In January and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant hoot. The female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a body length of twenty-two to twenty-four inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange courtship dance. He bobs. He bows. He rutiles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from limb to limb and makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They share the repast, after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to the beat of an inner drum. Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground, even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow.

These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically setdes herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious charges from snow and cold. It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell. As the young birds feather out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. They clamor for food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season baby crows are taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game bird? all fall prey to the hungry family. It is nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food. The parent birds weary of family life by November and drive the young owls away to establish hunting ranges of their own Question 35: What is the topic of this passage?

A. Mating rituals of great horned owls B. Raising a family of great horned owls C. Habits of young great horned owls Trang 5 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

D. Nest building of great horned owls Question 36: The phrase “a resonant hoot” is closest in meaning to A. a sound

B. an offering of food

C. an instrument

D. a movement

Question 37: It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls _________.

A. happens in the fall

B. takes place on the ground

C. involves the male alone

D. in an active process

Question 38: According to the passage, great horned owls _____________.

A. may inhabit a previously used nest B. are discriminate nest builders C. need big nests for their numerous eggs D. build nests on tree limbs Question 39: According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl’s job?

A. To build the nest

B. To initiate the courtship ritual

C. To sit on the nest

D. To feed the young

Question 40: The phrase “precious charges” refers to _________ A. the hawks and crows

B. other nesting owls

C. the nest

D. the eggs

Question 41: According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT _________.

A. insects

B. other small birds

C. small mammals

D. nuts and seeds

C. the prey

D. the young birds

Question 42: The word “they” refers to A. the adult birds

B. the wise old men

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: The gate was closed to stop the children running into the road.

A. The gate was closed so the children can’t run into the road.

B. The gate is closed so that the children don’t run into the road.

C. The gate was closed so that the children couldn’t run into the road.

D. The gate is closed so that the children couldn’t to run into the road.

Question 44: If it hadn’t been for the wind, the fire would never have spread so fast A. Even without the wind, the fire would have spread just as fast.

B. It was the wind that caused the fire to spread at such a speed.

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C. Had there been a wind, the fire to spread even faster.

D. The force of the wind affected the way the fire spread.

Question 45: “Don’t forget to hand in the report, Peter !” said Kate A. Kate reminded Peter of handing in the report.

B. Kate said that Peter had forgotten to hand in the report.

C. Kate forgot to hand in the report to Peter.

D. Kate reminded Peter to hand in the report.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: Because the highway system was built 40 years ago, most of the roads now need to repair.

A. Because

B. was built

C. most of

D. to repair

Question 47: Pointing in someone is usually considered impolite but it is acceptable when a teacher wants to get someone’s attention in class.

A. Pointing in

B. impolite

C. when

D. to get

Question 48: If a student takes a course on Computer Science, it will take him four years doing the course.

A. If

B. takes a course

C. take

D. doing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: Ann jogs every morning. It is very good for her health.

A. Ann jogs every morning and is very good for her health.

B. Ann jogs every morning, which is very good for her health.

C. Ann jogs every morning and then it is very good for her health.

D. Ann jogs every morning that it is very good for her health.

Question 50: The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems.

A. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problem.

B. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problem.

C. He was so bright a student that he could solve all the math problem.

D. Such bright was the student that he could solve all the math problem. Đáp án 1-B

2-C

3-A

4-B

5-B

6-D

7-B

8-B

9-A

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10-A

11-A

12-A

13-A

14-B

15-C

16-D

17-C

18-A

19-A

20-C

21-D

22-A

23-D

24-A

25-B

26-D

27-A

28-A

29-C

30-A

31-D

32-B

33-A

34-C

35-B

36-A

37-D

38-A

39-C

40-D

41-D

42-D

43-C

44-B

45-D

46-D

47-A

48-D

49-B

50-C

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ĐỀ SỐ 9

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề



Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. politician

B. genetics

C. artificial

D. controversial

Question 2:

A. delegate

B. fabulous

C. external

D. slippery

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. chamber

B. ancient

C. danger

D. ancestor

Question 4:

A. choice

B. chaos

C. charge

D. chase

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5: John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” - Anna: “__________!”

A. Better luck next time

B. So poor

C. Congratulations

D. That was nice of them

Question 6: Mary: “It’s a nice day today. Let’s play a game of tennis.”

Linda: “________________” A. Will we not play?

B. Why not do we play?

C. Why not?

D. Shall not we play?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: The relationship between structure, process and outcome is very unclear.

A. disappear

B. external

C. apparent

D. uncertain

Question 8: The situation in the country has remained relatively stable for a few months now.

A. constant

B. changable

C. objective

D. ignorant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9: The conference is governed by its newly elected board.

A. watched

B. chosen

C. ruled

D. advised

Question 10: After a long lunch hour, business resumes as usual.

A. continues

B. resurfaces

C. delays

D. responds

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: Could you please tell me _________?

A. where does my uncle’s room

B. where is my uncle’s room

C. where my uncle’s room is

D. where my uncle’s room

Question 12: Gordon wants to look his best at the wedding so he’s _________ A. make a suit

B. having a suit made

C. to get made a suit

D. having made a suit

Question 13: This book provides students _________ useful tips that help them to pass the coming exam.

A. at

B. about

C. for

D. with

Question 14: I won’t change my mind _________what you say.

A. whether

B. no matter

C. because

D. although

Question 15: My car isn’t _________. It’s always letting me down.

A. believable

B. reliable

C. colorable

D. conceivable

Question 16: Each of the guests _________ a bunch of flowers.

A. are given

B. is given

C. were given

D. give

Question 17: Let’s go to the beach this weeken, _________?

A. do we

B. shall we

C. will we

D. don’t we

Question 18: Peter _________ a book when I saw him.

A. is reading

B. reading

C. read

D. was reading

Question 19: It is recommended that he _________ this course.

A. took

B. takes

C. take

D. taking

Question 20: We need _________ information before we can decide.

A. further

B. farther

C. far

D. furthest

Question 21: I was doing my homework _________ the light went out.

A. after

B. before

C. since

D. when

Question 22: It gets _________ to understand what the professor has explained.

A. the more difficult

B. difficult more and more

C. more difficult than

D. more and more difficult

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27

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The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather pattern (23)________ strongly affect the world. When the water is warm, the amount of rainfall in Indonesia and surrounding regions decreases. Australia could (24) ________ experience a drought in many parts. On the other hand, Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for severe rainstorms. In Pakistan and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker and makes the area much drier.

This happening is called El Nino and is used (25) ________ weather forecasters to make long-range weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will bring unusually rain to the southwestern part of the United States and make the central part of the country drier at the same time.

According to research, weather forecasters (26) ________ know about the coming weather with certainty. Now everything has become completely different.

El Nino itself used to be predictable. It would occur every two to seven years. But now this weather pattern is becoming more frequent. We cannot say when and how often tornadoes or cyclones occur. Scientists are unsure of the reason for this (27) ________ on the global scale either.

Question 23:

A. what

B. when

C. that

D. whether

Question 24:

A. even

B. ever

C. nevertheless

D. however

Question 25:

A. on

B. by

C. to

D. at

Question 26:

A. used to

B. get used to

C. are used to

D. used to be

Question 27:

A. change

B. transfer

C. transformation D. shift

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

The election of Andrew Jackson to the presidency in 1928 marked the political ascendancy of the “common man” in American politics. His name became a household word during the war of 1812, when, as a U.S Army major general, he led troops against the Creek Indians in the Mississippi Territory and later defeated the British at New Orleans.

After his presidential inauguration, Jackson rode on horseback to the White House to attend a private party. Crowds of well-wishers suddenly appeared at the reception and nearly destroyed the White House as they tried to glimpse the new president. The common man had made a dramatic entrance onto the national political scene.

Jackson’s two terms moved American society toward truer democracy. Many states abandoned property requirements for voting. Elected officials began to act more truly as Trang 3 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

representatives of the people than as their leaders. As president of the common man, Jackson waged a war against the Bank of the United States, vetoing the bill that re-chartered the institution, declaring it a dangerous monopoly that profited the wealthy few.

Although he had built his reputation as an Indian tighter during the War ol 1812, Jackson was not an Indian hater. He adopted what was at the time considered an enlightened solution to the Indian problem-removal. Many tribes submitted peacelully to being moved to the West. Others were marched by force to the Indian Territory, under brutal conditions, along what the Cherokees called the Trail of Tears.

One of Andrew Jackson’s most enduring legacies was the Democratic Party, which under him became a highly organized political party. In opposition to the Democrats were the Whigs, a party that attracted supporters of the Bank of the United States and opposed the tyranny of the man called “King Andrew”. A less specific but more basic legacy is the populist philosophy oi politics that still bears the name “Jacksonian Democracy.”

Question 28: The phrase “became the household word” in paragraph I means that _______.

A. a house style was called Jackson.

B. Jackson acquired fame.

C. people criticized Jackson.

D. Jackson was a popular boy’s name.

Question 29: The author suggests that Jackson’s election and inauguration _______.

A. destroyed the White House.

B. brought a new style to the presidency.

C. made a lot of common people angry.

D. put a military man in the White House for the first time.

Question 30: According to the passage, why did Jackson oppose the Bank of the United States?

A. He thought it benefited only rich people.

B. It started a war.

C. It opposed electing him “King Andrew”.

D. It opposed giving common people the right to vote.

Question 31: According to the passage, Jackson’s policy toward American Indians was ___________.

A. developed during the War of 1812.

B. forceful and cruel

C. considered his greatest achievement.

D. considered progressive at the time.

Question 32: The word “brutal” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. tearful

B. abrupt

C. humane

D. harsh

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Question 33: Which of the following is NOT attributed to Andrew Jackson?

A. The Whig Party.

B. Jacksonian Democracy.

C. The rise of the common man.

D. The Democratic Party.

Question 34: Which of the following could NOT be inferred about Andrew Jackson?

A. He served his country throughout his life.

B. He supposed democratic reforms.

C. He inspired populist politics.

D. He was the president during a violent war.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the US Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.

Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her non-technical readers.

In 1962, Carson published Silence Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds, and contaminate human food. At that time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee.

(Source: TOEFL Reading) Question 35: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work _____________.

A. at college

B. at the US Fish and Wildlife Service

C. as a researcher

D. as a writer

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Question 36: According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University?

A. Oceanography

B. Zoology

C. Literature

D. History

Question 37: When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of ________.

A. 26

B. 29

C. 34

D. 45

Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind A. was outdated B. became more popular than her other books C. was praised by critics D. sold many copies Question 39: Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around Us A. Printed matter

B. Talks with experts

C. A research expedition

D. Letters from scientists

Question 40: The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to ____________.

A. unnecessary

B. limited

C. continuous

D. irresponsible

Question 41: The word “flawed” is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. faulty

B. deceptive

C. logical

D. offensive

Question 42: Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee?

A. To provide an example of government propaganda.

B. To support Carson’s ideas.

C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment.

D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: The situation was so embarrassing that she did not know what to do.

A. So embarrassing was the situation that she did not know what to do.

B. It was such an embarrassing situation; however, she did not know what to do.

C. So embarrassing the situation was that she did not know what to do.

D. She did not know what to do, though it was not an embarrassing situation.

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Question 44: It is expected that tax increases will be announced in tomorrow’s budget statement.

A. Tax increases are expected to be announced in tomorrow’s budget statement.

B. It is expected that people will announce in tomorrow budget tax increases.

C. In tomorrow’s budget statement tax increases are expected to announce.

D. Hope that they will announce tax increases in tomorrow’s budget statement.

Question 45: Fiona has been typing the report for an hour.

A. It took Fiona an hour to type the report.

B. It is an hour since Fiona started typing the report.

C. Fiona finished the report an hour ago.

D. Fiona will finish typing the report in an hour.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: The museum contains sixth century sculptures, eighteenth century swords and the dress worn by nineteenth century royal family.

A. contains

B. eighteenth

C. the dress worn by nineteenth century

D. royal

Question 47: When the children realized that they were by themselves in the dark, they became really frightening.

A. by themselves

B. the dark

C. became

D. frightening

Question 48: The foreign student advisor recommended that she studied more English before enrolling at the university.

A. foreign

B. studied

C. enrolling

D. the

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: My motorbike cannot start in the mornings. I think I will get the garage to repair it.

A. My motorbike cannot start in the mornings. I think I will get the garage to repair it.

B. My motorbike which I will have it repaired cannot start in the mornings.

C. My motorbike which I will get it repaired cannot start in the mornings.

D. My motorbike I will get it repaired which cannot start in the mornings.

Question 50: Phillip snored all night. I didn’t sleep a wink.

A. I didn't sleep a wink , which made Phillip snore all night.

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B. Phillip snored all night as a result of a my sleeplessness.

C. What with Phillip snoring all night , I didn't sleep a wink.

D. What made Phillip snore all night was my sleeplessness. Đáp án 1-B

2-C

3-D

4-B

5-A

6-C

7-C

8-B

9-C

10-A

11-C

12-B

13-D

14-B

15-B

16-B

17-B

18-D

19-C

20-A

21-D

22-D

23-C

24-A

25-B

26-A

27-A

28-B

29-B

30-A

31-D

32-D

33-A

34-D

35-D

36-B

37-C

38-D

39-C

40-D

41-A

42-B

43-A

44-A

45-B

46-C

47-D

48-B

49-A

50-C

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ĐỀ SỐ 10 

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. maximum

B. vacancy

C. terrorist

D. investment

Question 2:

A. vertical

B. contractual

C. domestic

D. outstanding

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. sugar

B. season

C. serious

D. secret

Question 4:

A. amuse

B. purse

C. blouse

D. please

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5: - Tom: “Would you mind holding the door open for me, please?”

- Mary: “_________.”

A. Oh, with pleasure

B. Ready

C. You’re welcome

D. I can do

Question 6: Mary is talking to her professor in his office.

- Mary: “Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, professor?”

- Professor: “___________” A. I like it that you understand.

B. Try your best, Mary.

C. You can borrow books from the library.

D. You mean the podcasts from other students?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: People in Vietnam nod their head to show thatt they agree with something.

A. blink

B. shake

C. wave

D. slump

Question 8: It’s difficult to tell him to give in because he is so big-headed.

A. wise

B. modest

C. arrogant

D. generous

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9: The weather is horrible at the moment, isn’t it? I hope it clears up later.

A. becomes brighter

B. shines

C. is not cloudy

D. clean

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Question 10: There used to be a shop at the end of the street but it went out of business a year ago.

A. closed up

B. closed

C. closed down

D. closed into

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: He was offered the job thanks to his _________ performance during his job interview.

A. impressive

B. impressively

C. impression

D. impress

Question 12: Someone who is _______is hopeful about the future or the success of something in particular.

A. pessimist

B. optimistic

C. optimist

D. pessimistic

Question 13: Ben went _______the competition and won the first prize.

A. on

B. in for

C. away

D. through

Question 14: As an _______, Mr.Pike is very worried about the increasing of teenager crimes.

A. educational

B. education

C. educator

D. educate

Question 15: I ________hurry. It’s nearly 8.00, and my first class starts at 8.15.

A. would prefer

B. can’t help

C. can’t

D. had better

Question 16: He managed to keep his job ________ the manager had threatened to sack him.

A. although

B. despite

C. unless

D. therefore

Question 17: Don’t touch that wire or you’ll get an electric __________.

A. shock

B. fire

C. charge

D. current

Question 18: The car had a(n) _________tire, so we had to change the wheel.

A. bent

B. flat

C. cracked

D. injured

Question 19: The children have every reason to be proud _________ their efforts.

A. at

B. to

C. in

D. of

Question 20: As a famous person _______ many children admire, it is important for her to act responsibly.

A. whose

B. which

C. when

D. whom

Question 21: A number of students _______ for a rise since last year.

A. ask

B. have asked

C. has asked

D. asked

Question 22: Our flight was delayed, but the plane finally _______shortly after midnight.

A. took on

B. put off

C. took up

D. took off

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27 Perry had a rough childhood. He was physically and sexually abused growing up, gotkicked out of high school, and tried to commit suicide ___(23)___—once as a preteen andagain at 22. At 23 he move to Atlanta and took ___(24)___ odd jobs as he started working onhis stage career.

In 1992 he wrote, produced, and starred in his first theater ___(25)___, I Know I’ve BeenChanged, somewhat informed by his difficult upbringing. Perry put all his savings into theshow and it failed miserably; the run lasted just one weekend and only 30 people came towatch. He kept up with the production, working more odd jobs and often slept in his car toget by. Six years later, Perry finally ___(26)___ through when, on its seventh run, the showbecame a success. He‘s since gone on to have an extremely successful career ___(27)___ adirector, writer, and actor. In fact, Perry was named Forbes’ highest paid man in the field..

Question 23:

A. twice

B. two

C. second

D. double

Question 24:

A. up

B. off

C. in

D. to

Question 25:

A. producer

B. productivity

C. production

D. productive

Question 26:

A. went

B. broke

C. got

D. put

Question 27:

A. same

B. as

C. like

D. as soon as

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

One of the highest honors for formalists, writers, and musical composers is the PulitzerPrize. First awarded in 1927, the Pulitzer Prize has been won by Ernest Hemingway, Harper Lee,John F. Kennedy, and Rodgers and Hammerstein, among others. As with many famous awards,this prize was named after its founder, Joseph Pulitzer.

Joseph Pulitzer’s story, like that of many immigrants to the United States, is one ofhardship, hard work and triumph. Born in Hungary, Joseph Pulitzer moved to United States in1864. He wanted to be a reporter, but he started his American life by fighting in the AmericanCivil War. After the war, Pulitzer worked for the German - language newspaper, the WestlichePost. His skills as a reporter were wonderful, and he soon became a partial owner of the paper.

In 1978, Pulitzer was able to start a newspaper of his own. Right from the first edition,the newspaper took a controversial approach to new. Pulitzer wanted to appeal to the averagereader, Trang 3 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

so

he

produced

exciting

stories

of

scandal

and

intrigue.

Such

an

approach

iscommonplace today, but in Pulitzer’s time it was new and different. The approach led to thediscovery of many instances of corruption by influential people. Pulitzer ‘paper became veryfamous and is still produced today.

The success of Joseph Pulitzer’s newspaper made him a very wealthy man, so he wantedto give something back to his profession. Throughout his later years, he worked to establishuniversity programs for the teaching of journalism, and he funded numerous scholarships toassist journalism students. Finally, he wanted to leave a legacy that would encourage writers toremember the importance of quality. On his death, he gave two million dollars to ColumbiaUniversity so they could award prizes to great writers The Pulitzer Prize recipients are a very select group. For most, winning a Pulitzer Prize isthe highlight of their career. If an author, journalist, or composer you know has won a PulitzerPrize, you can be sure they are at the top of their profession.

Question 28: Why does the writer mention “John F. Kennedy” in line 3?

A. He was one of the inventors of the famous awards.

B. He was one of the winners of the Pulitzer Prize.

C. He was one of the people who selected the Pulitzer winners.

D. He was in one of the scandals reported on by Joseph Pulitzer.

Question 29: According to the reading passage, why did Joseph Pulitzer invent the Pulitzer Prize?

A. to encourage people to remember his name and success.

B. encourage writers to remember the importance of quality.

C. to encourage journalism students to achieve their goals.

D. to encourage people to appreciate the work of the Pulitzer winners.

Question 30: The word “partial" in the passage is closest in meaning to......

A. in part only

B. brand new

C. one and only

D. very important

Question 31: According the passage, who receives the Pulitzer Prize?

A. Columbia University graduates

B. journalism students

C. noted writers and composers

D. most newspaper reporters

Question 32: According to the reading passage, how did Joseph Pulitzer appeal to the average reader?

A. He wrote about famous writers of journalism and literature.

B. He wrote stories about the war.

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C. He produced his own experience.

D. He produced exciting stories of scandal and inreigue.

Question 33: Which sentece about Joseoph Pulitzer is true according to the reading passage?

A. He received a scholarship when he was a university studont.

B. He was rich even when he was young.

C. He was a reported during the American Civil War. D. He immigated to the United States from Hungary.

Question 34: Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is NOT true according to the reading passage?

A. Joseph Pulitzer was the first time writer to the win the prize in 1917.

B. The prize is aimed at encouraging a writer’s career.

C. Joseph Pulitzer left money to award the prizewinners.

D. Receiving the prize on the highest honors for writers.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Being aware of one's own emotions - recognizing and acknowledging feelings as they happen - is at the very heart of Emotional Intelligence. And this awareness encompasses not only moods but also thoughts about those moods. People who are able to monitor their feelings as they arise are less likely to be ruled by them and are thus better able to manage their emotions.

Managing emotions does not mean suppressing them; nor does it mean giving free rein to every feeling. Psychologist Daniel Goleman, one of several authors who have popularized the notion of Emotional Intelligence, insisted that the goal is balance and that every feeling has value and significance. As Goleman said, "A life without passion would be a dull wasteland of neutrality, cut off and isolated from the richness of life itself." Thus, we manage our emotions by expressing them in an appropriate manner. Emotions can also be managed by engaging in activities that cheer us up, soothe our hurts, or reassure us when we feel anxious.

Clearly, awareness and management of emotions are not independent. For instance, you might think that individuals who seem to experience their feelings more intensely than others would be less able to manage them. However, a critical component of awareness of emotions is the ability to assign meaning to them - to know why we are experiencing a particular feeling or mood. Psychologists have found that, among individuals who experience intense emotions, individual differences in the ability to assign meaning to those feelings predict differences in the

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ability to manage them. In other words, if two individuals are intensely angry, the one who is better able to understand why he or she is angry will also be better able to manage the anger.

Self-motivation refers to strong emotional self-control, which enables a person to get moving and pursue worthy goals, persist at tasks even when frustrated, and resist the temptation to act on impulse. Resisting impulsive behavior is, according to Goleman, "the root of all emotional self-control."

Of all the attributes of Emotional Intelligence, the ability to postpone immediate gratification and to persist in working toward some greater future gain is most closely related to success - whether one is trying to build a business, get a college degree, or even stay on a diet.

One researcher examined whether this trait can predict a child's success in school. The study showed that 4-year-old children who can delay instant gratification in order to advance toward some future goal will be “far superior as students” when they graduate from high school than will 4-year-olds who are not able to resist the impulse to satisfy their immediate wishes.

Question 35: Which of the following can we infer from paragraph 1?

A. If people pay attention to their feelings, they will not be also able to manage them.

B. If people pay attention to their feelings, they can control their emotions better.

C. People who can manage their emotions will be controlled by them.

D. Some people can understand their feelings better than others.

Question 36: According to paragraphs 1 to 3, people should be aware of their emotions so that they can ________.

A. stop feeling angry

B. manage their emotions appropriately

C. experience feelings more intensively

D. explain their emotions to others

Question 37: All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about our emotions EXCEPT _________.

A. we can manage our emotions

B. we should ignore some feelings

C. every feeling is important

D. emotions are part of a satisfying life

Question 38: The word “critical” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. indecisive

B. inessential

C. dynamic

D. important

Question 39: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to_______.

A. intense emotions

B. psychologists

C. individuals

D. individual differences

Question 40: In paragraph 3, the author explains the concept of awareness and management of emotions by ________.

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A. giving an example of why people get angry B. describing how people learn to control their emotions C. comparing how two people might respond to an intense emotion D. explaining why some people are aware of their emotions Question 41: The word “pursue” in paragraph 4 mostly means __________.

A. be involved in something

B. improve or develop something

C. try to achieve something

D. find out about something

Question 42: According to paragraph 5, children might be more successful in school if they can resist impulses because they can _________.

A. have more friends at school B. easily understand new information C. focus on their work and not get distracted D. be more popular with their teachers Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: I would rather you wore something more formal to work.

A. I’d prefer you wearing something more formal to work.

B. I’d prefer you to wear something more formal to work.

C. I’d prefer you will wear something more formal to work.

D. I’d prefer you wear something more formal to work.

Question 44: Had we left any later, we would have missed the train.

A. We didn't miss the train because it left late.

B. We left too late to catch the train.

C. Because the train was late, we missed it.

D. We almost missed the train.

Question 45: “Why can’t you do your work more carefully?” said Henry’s boss.

A. Henry's boss criticized him for doing his job carelessly.

B. Henry's boss asked him not to do his job with care.

C. Henry's boss suggested doing the job more carefully.

D. Henry's boss warned him to to the job carefully.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

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Question 46: Helen Killer, who was both blind and deafness, overcame her inabilitites with the help of her teacher, Ann Sulivan A. who

B. blind

C. deafness

D. inabilities

Question 47: Education, whether it happens at school or anywhere else, is a important part in our life.

A. Education

B. whether

C. or

D. a important part

Question 48: I can’t go out tonight because I have too many work to do.

A. can’t

B. because

C. too many

D. to do

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: Computer is a miraculous device. It is capable of doing almost anything you ask it to.

A. Computer can’t do anything you ask it to because it is a miraculous device.

B. Computer is unable to do almost anything you ask it to so it is a miraculous device.

C. Computer is a miraculous device since it is possible for doing anything you ask it to.

D. Computer is a miraculous device because it is impossible for doing almost anything you ask it to.

Question 50: The house is very beautiful. Its gate was painted blue.

A. The house, which is very beautiful, was painted blue.

B. The house, the gate of whom was painted blue, is very beautiful.

C. The house, the gate of which was painted blue, is very beautiful.

D. The house, the gate of that was painted blue, is very beautiful. Đáp án 1-D

2-A

3-A

4-B

5-A

6-C

7-B

8-B

9-C

10-C

11-A

12-B

13-B

14-C

15-D

16-A

17-A

18-B

19-D

20-D

21-B

22-D

23-A

24-A

25-C

26-B

27-B

28-B

29-B

30-A

31-C

32-D

33-D

34-A

35-B

36-B

37-B

38-D

39-A

40-C

41-C

42-C

43-B

44-D

45-A

46-C

47-D

48-C

49-C

50-C

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ĐỀ SỐ 11

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề



Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. punctuality

B. technological

C. characteristic

D. representative

Question 2:

A. injection

B. diminish

C. successful

D. benefit

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. cat

B. flat

C. mate

D. spat

Question 4:

A. scissors

B. sugar

C. sense

D. soft

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5: Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams.

Diana: “Our midterm exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?”

Anne: “____________” A. I’m half ready.

B. God save you.

C. Thank you so much.

D. Don’t mention it!

Question 6: - “You look beautiful with your new hairstyle!”

- “___________”.

A. Not at all

B. It’s kind of you to say so.

C. Very kind of your part

D. Willingly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community.

A. cooperate

B. put together

C. separate

D. connect

Question 8: This new washing machine is not a patch on our old one. These clothes are still dirty.

A. to be expensive

B. to be strange

C. to be broken

D. to be better

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9: He makes money by raising poultry and cattle.

A. spends

B. produces

C. earns

D. creates

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Question 10: She was born and grown up in a picturesque fishing village in Ha Long Bay. A. dangerous

B. pretty

C. wealthy

D. poor

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: _____________ giraffe is the tallest of all _____________ animals.

A. A/the

B. The/ 

C. A/ 

D.  / the

Question 12: You’d better get someone ___________ your living room.

A. redecorated

B. to redecorate

C. redecorating

D. redecorate

Question 13: Can you take _________ of the shop while Mr. Green is away?

A. operation

B. charge

C. management

D. running

Question 14: They held a party to congratulate their son _______ his success.

A. in

B. with

C. on

D. for

Question 15: They always kept on good ______ with their next-door neighbors for the children’s sake.

A. terms

B. relations

C. will

D. relationship

Question 16: He said he hadn’t finished his letter yet _________.

A. by now

B. until then

C. until now

D. so far

Question 17: The judge gave __________.

A. him the special prize with good comments B. him to the special prize with good comments C. the special prize with good comments him D. him for the special prize with good comments Question 18: Her mother’s dream __________ a family doctor will be fulfilled in six years.

A. by

B. with

C. of

D. at

Question 19: They _________ their service up to now.

A. didn’t do

B. haven’t done

C. don’t do

D. aren’t doing

Question 20: You should make a(n) ___________ to overcome this problem.

A. trial

B. impression

C. effort

D. apology

Question 21: My responsibility is to wash dishes and _________ the garbage.

A. take care of

B. take out

C. take off

D. take over

Question 22: It was only ___________ he told me his surname that I realized that we had been to the same school.

A. then

B. until

C. as soon as

D. when

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27 The latest addiction to trap thousands of people is the Internet, which has been (23)____ for broken relationships, job losses, financial ruin and even one suicide. Psychologists now recognize Internet Addiction Syndrom (IAS) as a new illness that could (24)_____ serious problems and ruin many lives. Special help groups have been set up to (25) ______ suffers help and support.

IAS is similar to (26)_____ problems like gambling, smoking and drinking: addicts have dreams about the Internet, they need to use it first thing in the morning; they (27) ______ to their partner about how much time they spend online; they wish they could cut down, but are unable to do so.

Question 23:

A. accused

B. mistaken

C. blamed

D. faulted

Question 24:

A. take

B. cause

C. affect

D. lead

Question 25:

A. recommend

B. offer

C. suggest

D. advise

Question 26:

A. others

B. another

C. the other

D. other

Question 27:

A. lie

B. cheat

C. deceive

D. betray

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

Most Americans look forward to their vacation. Most American employees receive an annual vacation with pay, and it is traditional to use this time off for travel.

Travelling within the United States is very popular because foreign travel generally takes more time and money. Every year about thirteen million people travel abroad. The most popular periods are during the summer and the two-week school break on Christmas and New Year holidays. These periods are also the most crowded and the most expensive time to travel, so people who can adjust their schedules sometimes choose to travel in the autumn.

American tourists often travel by car. Most families own a car, and those who do not have a car can rent one. Cars are usually the most economical way to travel, especially for families. It is also fairly fast and convenient. Exellent highway with motels and restaurants nearby connect the nation’s major cities. They enable tourists to travel at a speed of 55 to 66 miles an hour.

Tourists that want to travel faster often fly to their destination and then rent a car when they get there.

Question 28: According to the writer __________.

A. Americans have no vacations Trang 3 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

B. Americans do not like travel C. it is imposible to have a day-off in the USA D. most Americans are fond of travelling Question 29: How many people travel abroad every year?

A. 13 million people

B. 66 million people

C. 30 million people

D. 55 million people

Question 30: Which of the following NOT mentioned in the text?

A. Travelling on Christmas and New Year holidays take much money.

B. Most American employees use their vacation to travel every year.

C. Most families use cars as an economical way to travel.

D. American people always choose to travel in autumn.

Question 31: There are many people travelling ________.

A. in the winter

B. on Women’s day

C. on Christmas and New Year

D. on Thanksgiving

Question 32: _______ are the most popular means of transport in the USA. A. Buses

B. Cars

C. Ships

D. Planes

Question 33: The word “It” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.

A. destination

B. restaurant

C. vacation

D. car

Question 34: In the USA, _________.

A. the highways are not in good condition.

B. tourists cannot rent a car C. there are not any highways D. along the highways there are motels and restaurants available for tourists.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

For the last few years, my children have been going to a summer camp in northern Greece called Skouras Camp. They always seem to have a good time, so if you’ re wondering what to do with the kids for three weeks this summer, you could do worse than send them to this beautiful camp on the shores of the Aegean Sea. If your children, like mine, are keen on adventure, sports and good company, the Skouras Camp will keep them busy all day doing the things they most enjoy.

Skouras is an international camp with children from all over the world. My children have made friends with children of their own age from Poland, China, Demark and the United States.

Naturally, they get lots of opportunities to practise their English as this is the only language Trang 4 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

spoken. The camp is located in one of the most beautiful parts of Chalkidiki. It is huge (120.000 square meters) and is just a stone’s throw away from clear, blue Aegean Sea. It takes the children just five minutes to walk to the golden sandy beach on foot. The programme is packed with exciting activities such as horse riding and table tennis. Other sports in clude baseball, volleyball and athletics. The Camp ends with a sports contest in the last week which all parents are invited to attend.

Question 35: All the children come to the Camp have to __________.

A. be only keen on adventure

B. be at the same age.

C. speak English

D. practise basketball

Question 36: How many kinds of sports can be played in the Camp?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Question 37: All the statements are true EXCEPT _________.

A. The parents can attend their children’sports contest.

B. The children will be busy taking part in the Camp’s programmed activities.

C. The camp is far from the Aegean Sea. D. The children will take more chances of English practise.

Question 38: The tone of the passage could best be described as __________.

A. supportive

B. negative

C. disbelieving

D. humorous

Question 39: What should be the best title for the passage?

A. Chalkidiki’s landscape – The Aegean Sea. B. An international summer camp.

C. Children’s summer activities.

D. Advice on children caring in summer.

Question 40: How long does it take the children to walk to the golden sandy beach on foot?

A. 20 minutes

B. an hour

C. 5 minutes

D. a day

Question 41: Where is the camp located?

A. in Porland

B. in Greece

C. in the United States D. Denmark

Question 42: The word contest in the last sentence could be replaced by ___________.

A. competition

B. runner

C. competitor

D. athlete

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: “ The purpose of any invention is to make our lives better, so good or bad, it depends on the way by which we use these inventions.

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A. Whether an invention is good or bad depends on the way by which we use it because the purpose of any invention is to make our lives better.

B. We can use either good or bad inventions to make our lives better.

C. The purpose of any invention, whether good or bad, is to make our lives better. This depends on the way by which we use these inventions.

D. Good or bad as they are, all inventions have the same purpose to make our lives better.

Question 44: California attracted people from many countries when gold was discovered in 1848.

A. Discovered in 1848, gold was attractive to people in California.

B. Discovered in California in 1848, gold attracted people from many countries there.

C. Gold in California was discovered in 1848 after many people came here.

D. When people are attracted to California, they discovered gold in 1848.

Question 45: I travel by bus only when I have no alternative.

A. I travel by bus only as a last resort.

B. It’s my only alternative to travel by bus.

C. I resort to travel by bus only when I have no alternative.

D. Travelling by bus is my only alternative.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of the rain.

A. wooden

B. surrounded

C. is beginning

D. because of

Question 47: The amounts of oxygen and nitrogen in the air almost always remain stable, but the amount of water vapor vary considerably.

A. The amount of

B. almost always

C. stable

D. vary

Question 48: Quinine, cinnamon, and other useful substances are all derived of the bark of trees.

A. other useful substances

B. are

C. derived of

D. bark of trees

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: He has been studying for many years. He should have realized sooner that his grammar was incorrect.

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A. He has been studying for many years to have soon realized that his grammar was incorrect.

B. He has been studying for many years that he should have realized sooner that his grammar was incorrect.

C. No sooner has he been studying for many years than he should have realized that his grammar was incorrect.

D. Though he has been studying for many years, he did not realize sooner that his grammar was incorrect.

Question 50: Colour is an important facet of nature. It influences the life of almost every creature.

A. Influencing the life of almost every creature in nature, colour is important.

B. Colour influencing the life of almost every creature being an important facet of nature.

C. Colour, which is an important facet of nature, influencing the life of almost every creature.

D. Colour, which is an important facet of nature, influences the life of almost every creature. Đáp án 1-C

2-D

3-C

4-B

5-A

6-B

7-C

8-D

9-C

10-B

11-B

12-B

13-B

14-C

15-A

16-B

17-A

18-C

19-B

20-C

21-B

22-D

23-C

24-B

25-B

26-D

27-A

28-D

29-A

30-D

31-C

32-B

33-D

34-D

35-C

36-D

37-C

38-A

39-B

40-C

41-B

42-A

43-A

44-B

45-A

46-B

47-D

48-C

49-D

50-D

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ĐỀ SỐ 12

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề



Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. imagine

B. horizon

C. property

D. computer

Question 2:

A. equip

B. vacant

C. secure

D. oblige

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. entrance

B. paddy

C. bamboo

D. banyan

Question 4:

A. shortage

B. storage

C. garage

D. encourage

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5: Mr John: “What do you do for a living?” Mr Mike: “___________”.

A. I work in a bank

B. I want to be a doctor, I guess

C. It’s hard work, you know

D. I get a high salary, you know

Question 6: - “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house.”

- “_______.”

A. Nothing more to say

B. You can say that again

C. Yes, I hope so

D. No, dogs are very good, too

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: She lived with a rich family in London during her childhood.

A. selfish

B. well-off

C. famous

D. penniless

Question 8: There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were banned.

A. clear

B. obvious

C. thin

D. insignificant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9: My wife was so keen on the picture that she paid through her nose for it.

A. paid nothing

B. turned a deaf car

C. was offered

D. paid much more than usual

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Question 10: My hard-working students expected a good fortune to come in addition to their intelligence.

A. thoughtful

B. dilligent

C. courteous

D. bright

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: Does television adequately reflect the ethnic and cultural ____________ of the country.

A. custom

B. diversity

C. alternation

D. minority

Question 12: She _________ him for her father’s death.

A. accused

B. charged

C. complained

D. blamed

Question 13: John proposed __________Mary on a fine day at the crowded beach in their hometown.

A. to

B. of

C. on

D. with

Question 14: “Have you __________ this contract yet?” – “Not yet. I’ll try to read it this weekend.”

A. looked over

B. looked out

C. looked up

D. looked into

Question 15: He left the country ________ arrest if he returned.

A. in fear of

B. under threat of

C. with fear of

D. with threat of

Question 16: She brought three children up __________.

A. single-handed

B. single-mindedly

C. single-handedly

D. single-minded

Question 17: He was a natural singer with a voice that was as clear as __________.

A. a bell

B. a mirror

C. a waterfall

D. a lake

Question 18: He may be shy now, but he will soon come out of his __________when he meets the right girl.

A. shoe

B. hole

C. shed

D. shell

Question 19: The city has _________ of young consumers who are sensitive to trends, and can, therefore, help industries predict the potential risks and success of products.

A. a high proportion

B. a great level

C. a high rate

D. a high tendency

Question 20: It’s not easy to make Lisa furious. The girl is very gentle by _________.

A. herself

B. nature

C. personality

D. reaction

Question 21: ________ eighty percent of the students in our school are eager to work with foreign teachers, aren’t they?

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A. Most

B. Most of

C. Almost

D. Mostly

Question 22: _______ we work with her, we get confused because of her fast speaking pace.

A. So that

B. Although

C. Whenever

D. Lest

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27 Tim Samaras is a storm chaser. His job is to find tornadoes and follow them. When he gets close to a tornado, he puts a special tool (23) ______ a turtle probe on the ground. This tool measures things like a twister’s temperature. Humidity, and wind speed. With this information, Samaras can learn what causes tornadoes to develop. If meteorilogists understand this, they can warn people (24) _____ twisters sooner and save lives.

How does Samaras hunt tornadoes? It’s not easy. First, he has to find one. Tornadoes are too small to see using weather satellites. So Samaras can’t rely on these tools to find a twister.

(25) ______, he waits for tornadoes to develop.

Once Samaras sees a tornado, the chase begins. But a tornado is hard to follow. Some tornadoes change (26) _____ several times – for example, moving east and then west and then east again.

When Samaras finally gets near a tornado, her puts the turtle probe on the ground. Being this close to a twister is (27) ______. He must get away quickly.

Question 23:

A. called

B. known

C. made

D. meant

Question 24:

A. with

B. about

C. at

D. for

Question 25:

A. Rather

B. Still

C. Instead

D. Yet

Question 26:

A. progression

B. movement

C. dimension

D. direction

Question 27:

A. terrifly

B. terrifying

C. terrified

D. terrifies

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

The human criterionfor perfect vision is 20/20 for reading the standard lines on a Snellen eye chart without a hitch. The score is determined by how well you read lines of letters of different sizes from 20 feet away. But being able to read the bottom line on the eye chart does not approximate perfection as far as other species are concerned. Most birds would consider us very visually handicapped. The hawk, for instance, has such sharp eyes that can spot a dime on the sidewalk while perched on top of the Empire State Building. It can make fine visual distinctions because it is blessed with one million cones per square millimetre in its retina. And in water, humans are farsighted, while the kingfisher, swooping down to spear fish, can see well both in the air and water because it is endowed with two foveae – areas of the eyes, consisting Trang 3 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

mostly of cones that provide visual distinctions. One foveae permits the bird, while in the air, to scan the water below with one eye at a time. This is called monocular vision. Once it hits the water, the other foveae joins in, allowing the kingfisher to focus both eyes, like binoculars, on its prey at the same time. A frog’s vision is distinguished by its ability to perceive things as a constant moving picture. Known as “bug detectors”, a highly developed set of cells in a frog’s eyes responds mainly to moving objects. So, it is said that a frog sitting in a field of dead bugs wouldn’t see them as food and would starve.

The bee has a “compound” eye, which is used for navigation. It has 15,000 facets that divide what it sees into a pattern of dots, or mosaic. With this kind of vision, the bee sees the sun only as a single dot, a constant point of reference. Thus, the eye is a superb navigational instrument that constantly measures the angle of its line of flight in relation to the sun. A bee’s eye also gauges flight speed. And if that is not enough to leave our 20/20 “perfect vision” paling into insignificance, the bee is capable of seeing something we can’t – ultraviolet light. Thus, what humans consider to be “perfect vision” is in fact rather limited when we look at other species. However, there is still much to be said for the human eye. Of all mammals, only humans and some primates can enjoy pleasures of colour vision.

Question 28: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. limits of the human eye B. perfect vision C. different eyes for different uses D. eye variation among different species Question 29: The phrase “without a hitch” is closet in meaning to __________.

A. unaided

B. without glasses

C. with little hesitation

D. easily

Question 30: According to the passage, why might birds and animals consider humans very visually handicapped?

A. humans can’t see very well in either air or water B. humans eyes are not as well suited to our needs C. the main outstanding feature of human eyes is color vision D. human eyes can’t do what their eyes can do Question 31: The word “that” in line 9 refers to _________.

A. foveae

B. areas of the eye

C. cones

D. visual distinctions

Question 32: According to the passage, “bug detectors” are useful for _______.

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A. navigation B. seeing moving objects C. avoiding bugs when getting food D. avoiding starvation Question 33: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?

A. kingfishers have monocular vision B. bees see patterns of dots C. hawks eyes consist mostly of cones that can allow it to scan with one eye at a time D. humans are farsighted in water Question 34: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. eyes have developed differently in each species B. bees have the most complex eye C. humans should not envy what they don’t need D. perfect vision is not perfect Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

It’s often said that we learn things at the wrong time. University students frequently do the minimum of work because they’re crazy about a good social life instead. Children often scream before their piano practice because it’s so boring. They have to be given gold stars and medals to be persuaded to swim, or have to be bribed to take exams. But the story is different when you’re older.

Over the years, I’ve done my share of adult learning. At 30, I went to a college and did courses in History and English. It was an amazing experience. For starters, I was paying, so there was no reason to be late – I was the one frowning and drumming my fingers if the tutor was late, not the other way round. Indeed, if I could persuade him to linger for an extra five minutes, it was a bonus, not a nuisance. I wasn’t frightened to ask questions, and homework was a pleasure not a pain. When I passed an exam, I had passed it for me and me alone, not for my parents or my teachers. The satisfaction I got was entirely personal.

Some people fear going back to school because they worry that their brains have got rusty. But the joy is that, although some parts have rusted up, your brain has learnt all kinds of other things since you were young. It has learnt to think independently and flexibly and is much better at relating one thing to another. What you lose in the rust department, you gain in the maturity department.

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In some ways, age is a positive plus. For instance, when you’re older, you get less frustrated. Experience has told you that, if you’re calm and simply do something carefully again and again, eventually you’ll get the hang of it. The confidence you have in other areas – from being able to drive a car, perhaps – means that if you can’t, say, build a chair instantly, you don’t, like a child, want to destroy your first pathetic attempts. Maturity tells you that you will, with application, eventually get there.

Question 35: It is implied in paragraph 1 that ______.

A. young learners often lack a good motivation for learning B. young learners are usually lazy in their class C. teachers should give young learners less homework D. parents should encourage young learners to study more Question 36: The writer’s main point in paragraph 2 is to show that as people grow up, ______.

A. they tend to learn less as they are discouraged B. they cannot learn as well as younger learners C. they get more impatient with their teachers D. they have a more positive attitude towards learning Question 37: The phrase “For starters” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by “______”.

A. For beginners

B. At the starting point

C. At the beginning

D. First and foremost

Question 38: While doing some adult learning courses at a college, the writer was surprised ______.

A. to have more time to learn

B. to be able to learn more quickly

C. to feel learning more enjoyable

D. to get on better with the tutor

Question 39: In paragraph 3, the word “rusty” means ______.

A. not as good as it used to be through lack of practice B. impatient because of having nothing to do C. staying alive and becoming more active D. covered with rust and not as good as it used to be Question 40: All of the following are true about adult learning EXCEPT ______.

A. young people usually feel less patient than adults B. experience in doing other things can help one’s learning C. adult learners have fewer advantages than young learners Trang 6 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

D. adults think more independently and flexibly than young people Question 41: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that maturity is a positive plus in the learning process because adult learners ______.

A. pay more attention to detail than younger learners B. are able to organize themselves better than younger learners C. are less worried about learning than younger learners D. have become more patient than younger learners Question 42: What is the writer’s main purpose in the passage?

A. To encourage adult learning.

B. To show how fast adult learning is.

C. To explain reasons for learning.

D. To describe adult learning methods.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: It is not until the sun is shining brightly that the little girl woke up.

A. No sooner is the sun shining brightly than the little girl woke up.

B. Not until the little girl woke up is the sun shining brightly.

C. Not until the sun is shining brightly did the little girl wake up.

D. As soon as the little girl woke up, the sun hasn’t shone brightly yet.

Question 44: “What language do you find the most difficult to learn of all?”, Mary asked Tim. A. Mary asked Tim what language Tim found the most difficult to learn of all.

B. Mary wanted to know what language they founded the most difficult to learn of all.

C. Mary asked Tim what language did you find the most difficult to learn of all.

D. Mary asked Tim what language you found the most difficult to learn of all.

Question 45: Calling Jim is pointless because his phone is out of order.

A. It's worth not calling Jim because his phone is out of order.

B. It's no use to call Jim because his phone is out of order.

C. It's useless calling Jim because his phone is out of order.

D. There's no point calling Jim because his phone is out of order.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: United Nations is aimed at develop friendly relations among nations based on respect for the principle of equal rights and self-determination of peoples.

A. develop

B. based

C. principle

D. self-determination

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Question 47: All members shall give the United Nations every assistance in any action it does in accordance with the present Charter.

A. shall

B. every

C. it does

D. the

Question 48: Cutural diversity is important because out country, workplaces, and schools increasingly consist of various culture, racial and ethnic groups.

A. is

B. increasingly consist C. culture

D. groups

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: The teacher has done his best to help all students. However, none of them made any effort on their part.

A. The teacher has done his best to help all student, or none of them made any effort on their part.

B. Although the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any effort on their part.

C. Because the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any effort on their part.

D. When the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any effort on their part.

Question 50: Finish your work. And then you can go home.

A. You can’t go home until you finish your work.

B. You finish your work to go home as early as you can.

C. When you go home, finish your work then.

D. Because you have finished your work, you can go home. Đáp án 1-C

2-B

3-A

4-C

5-A

6-B

7-D

8-D

9-D

10-B

11-B

12-D

13-A

14-A

15-B

16-C

17-A

18-D

19-A

20-B

21-C

22-C

23-A

24-B

25-C

26-D

27-B

28-D

29-D

30-D

31-A

32-B

33-C

34-A

35-A

36-D

37-D

38-C

39-A

40-C

41-D

42-A

43-C

44-A

45-C

46-A

47-C

48-C

49-B

50-A

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ĐỀ SỐ 13

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề



Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. luxurious

B. conservative

C. necessary

D. dependant

Question 2:

A. primitive

B. particular

C. continuous

D. connected

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. fame

B. baby

C. plane

D. many

Question 4:

A. mother

B. thunder

C. within

D. wither

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5: Hung: “ Thank you very much for a lovely party.”

Hoa : “__________” A. Have a good day.

B. Thanks.

C. You are welcome. D. Cheers!

Question 6: Mike: “A motorbike knocked Tim down” - Mary: “______________” A. How terrific!

B. Poor him!

C. Why do you say so?

D. What a cheap motorbike!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year’s harvest.

A. hungry

B. poor

C. rich

D. full

Question 8: Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.

A. amicable

B. inapplicable

C. hostile

D. futile

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9: The Civil War in 1863 cut the United States into two nations - a southern Confederacy and a northern Union.

A. acknowledged

B. alienated

C. severed

D. integrated

Question 10: Unselfishness is the very essence of friendship A. important part

B. difficult part

C. romantic part

D. interesting part

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: The atmosphere at the meeting was very

__________and everyone was on

the first name terms.

A. formal

B. informal

C. formality

D. informality

Question 12: Mark enjoys having fun by causing trouble. He’s a very_________boy.

A. strong willed

B. mischievous

C. obedient

D. well behaved

Question 13: He________ a football game to go out with a girl.

A. satisfied

B. sacrificed

C. preferred

D. confided

Question 14: This device helps you to __________ with other computers and with people around the world.

A. demonstrate

B. interact

C. content

D. transmit

Question 15: I remembe _________ the letter a few days before going on holiday.

A. received

B. to have received

C. to receive

D. receiving

Question 16: Nam and his family had ________ to their home village.

A. a two-day trip

B. a two-days trip

C. a two-day trips

D. two-day trips

Question 17: The film__________by the time we________to the cinema.

A. had already started/got

B. already started/ had gotten

C. had already started/had gotten

D. has already started/ got

Question 18: The teacher____________ her to improve her listening skills.

A. persisted

B. insisted

C. encouraged

D. made

Question 19: I have been fascinated by__________ since I was at secondary school.

A. photographer

B. photography

C. photograph

D. photographic

Question 20: My parents________tommorrow to stay with me for a few days.

A. came

B. have come

C. come

D. are coming

Question 21: The police have just found the man and his car___________were swept away during the heavy storm last week.

A. that

B. which

C. whose

D. when

Question 22: _________, the more terrible the terrorism will become.

A. The more weapons are powerful

B. The more powerful weapons are

C. The weapons more powerful

D. Weapons are the more powerful

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

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Every child in Great Britain between the age of five and fifteen must (23)_________school.

There (24)_________ three main types of educational institutions: primary (elementary) schools, secondary schools and universities.

State schools are free, and attendance is compulsory. Morning school begins at nine o’clock and lasts until half past four. School is open five days a week.

(25)_________ Saturdays and Sundays there are no lessons. There are holidays at Christmas, Easter and in summer. In London as in all cities there are two grades of state schools for those (26)_________will go to work at fifteen: primary schools for boys and girls between the ages of five and eleven, and secondary schools for children from eleven to fifteen years.

The lessons are reading, writing, the English language, English literature, English history, geography, (27)________, nature study, drawing, painting, singing, woodwork and drill.

Question 23:

A. attend

B. come

C. arrive

D. go

Question 24:

A. have

B. has

C. are

D. is

Question 25:

A. On

B. At

C. For

D. In

Question 26:

A. when

B. where

C. which

D. who

Question 27:

A. scientist

B. scientifically

C. science

D. scientific

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past two decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in these environments is jolting, but it is important to recognize the significance of biological diversity in all ecosystems. As the human population continues to expand, it will negatively affect one after another of Earth's ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems and in fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction. In most situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems through other types of activities, such as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by significantly reducing the variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected the course of evolution.

Certainly, there have been periods in Earth's history when mass extinctions have occurred. The extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic Trang 3 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

or cosmic. There have also been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an extreme conclusion. Only 0.01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it was largely chance that determined which species survived and which died out.

However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is altering the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide agreement that it is the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes selves, that will lead to biological devastation. Life on Earth has continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical changes have occurred on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation within existing species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may be able to survive in new environments.

Question 28: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The variety of species found in tropical rain forests B. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs C. The time required for species to adapt to new environments D. The impact of human activities on Earth's ecosystems Question 29: The word “critical” is closest in meaning to__________.

A. essential

B. negative

C. complicated

D. interesting

Question 30: The author mentions the reduction of the variety of species on Earth in line 7-8 to suggest that ___________.

A. humans are often made ill by polluted water B. new habitats can be created for species C. some species have been made extinct by human activity D. understanding evolution can prevent certain species from disappearing Question 31: The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of humans on the world’s ecosystems EXCEPT_________.

A. damage to marine ecosystems B. habitat destruction in wetlands C. the introduction of new varieties of plant species D. destruction of the tropical rain forests Question 32: The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in the 2nd paragraph to emphasize that ____________.

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A. not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity B. actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species’ extinction C. Earth’s climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs’ extinction D. the cause of the dinosaurs’ extinction is unknown Question 33: The word “magnitude” is closest in meaning to_________.

A. carelessness

B. extent

C. determination

D. concern

Question 34: According to the passage, natural evolutionary change is different from changes caused by humans in that changes caused by humans___________.

A. affect fewer ecosystems

B. are occurring at a much faster rate

C. are reversible

D. are less devastating to most species

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Clara Barton became known as “The Angel of the Battlefield” during the American Civial War. Born in Oxford, Massachusetts in 1821, Clara Barton’s interest in helping soldiers on the battlefield began when she was told army stories from her father. Another event that influenced her decision to help soldiers was an accident her brother had. His injuries were cared for by Barton for 2 years. At the time, she was only 11 years old. Barton began teaching school at the age of 15. She taught for 18 years before she moved to Washington, D.C. in 1854.

The civil war broke out 6 years later. Immediately, Barton started was service by helping the soldiers with their needs. At the battle of Bull Run, Clara Barton received permission from the government to take care of the sick and hurt. Barton did this with great empathy and kindness. She acknowledged each soldier as a person. Her endurance and courage on the battlefield were admired by many. When the war ended in 1865, she used 4 years of her life to assist the government in searching for soldiers who were missing during the war.

The search for missing soldiers and years of hard work made her feeble physically. In 1869, her doctors recommended a trip to Europe for a rest. While she was on vacation, she became involved with the International Red Cross, an organization set up by the Geneva Convention in 1864. Clara Barton realized that the red Cross would be a big help to the United States. After she returned to the United States, she worked very hard to create an American red Cross. She talked to government leaders and let American people know about

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the Red Cross. In 1881, the Notional Society of the Red Cross was finally established with its headquarters in Washington, D.C. Clara Barton managed its activities for 23 years.

Barton never let her age stop her from helping people. At the age of 79, she helped flood victims in Galveston, Texas. Barton finally resigned from the Red Cross in 1904. She was 92 years old and had truly earned her titled “The Angel of the Battlefield”.

Question 40: According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of the young Clara Barton?

A. She helped her father when he was a soldier.

B. She suffered from an accident when she was 11.

C. She helped her brother who hurt in an accident.

D. She made a decision to live with her brother for 2 years.

Question 36: The phrase “broke out” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. extended

B. broke down

C. closed

D. began

Question 37: The word “this” in paragraph 2 refers to A. recognized each soldier as a person

B. cooked for soldiers

C. took care of the sick and hurt

D. received permission

Question 38: The word “acknowledged” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by A. nursed

B. recognized

C. pleaded

D. believed

Question 39: What can be inferred about the government?

A. It did not always agree with Clara Barton.

B. It did not have the money to hep Clara Barton.

C. It showed Clara Barton great empathy and kindness.

D. It had respect for Clara Barton.

Question 40: What does the author mention about the American Red Cross?

A. It was disapproved again and again by the Geneva Convention.

B. Barton tried to have it set up in America.

C. The American people were not interested in the Red Cross.

D. It was first established in the United States.

Question 41: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Clara Barton helped wounded soldiers and she was the founder of the Red Cross.

B. Clara Barton was a kind and strong woman who helped people in need.

C. Clara Barton became a nurse during the American Civil War. D. Clara Barton worked for disaster victims until she was old.

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Question 42: What can be the best title of the reading passage?

A. The angel of the Battlefield

B. The American Red Cross

C. The American Civil War

D. The International Red Cros

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: Jane finds it difficult to drive on the left.

A. Jane is used to drive on the left.

B. Jane is not used to drive on the left.

C. Jane is not used to driving on the left.

D. It’s difficult for Jane to driving on the left.

Question 44: “No, I didn’t come to see her that night!”

A. He denied having come to see her that night.

B. He denied to have come to see her that night.

C. He denied not having come to see her that night.

D. He refused to have come to see her that night.

Question 45: Sarah goes to the theater once in a blue moon.

A. Sarah goes to the theater when the moon is full.

B. Sarah rarely goes to the theater.

C. Sarah goes to the theater when the blue moon is on.

D. Sarah goes to the theater only once a month.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: An increased number of city dwellers has made the obsolete infrastructure worse and required a lot of repairs in these days.

A. has made

B. obsolete infrastructure

C. required

D. repairs

Question 47: The elderly are concerning about the city’s hygienic conditions, natural resource, and elite class.

A. about

B. hygienic conditions C. natural resource

D. elite

Question 48: In conclusion, plenty of money should, to sum up, be invested to repair the kilometer-long tube in near future.

A. plenty of

B. to sum up

C. kilometer

D. near future

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: They were rich; they didn’t have a happy family, though.

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A. Although they were rich, but they didn’t have a happy family.

B. Rich though they were, they didn’t have a happy family.

C. They were rich although they didn’t have a happy family.

D. However they were rich, they didn’t have a happy family.

Question 50: You don’t try to work hard. You will fail in the exam.

A. Unless you don’t try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.

B. Unless you try to work hard, you won’t fail in the exam.

C. Unless you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.

D. Unless do you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam. Đáp án 1-C

2-A

3-D

4-B

5-C

6-B

7-D

8-C

9-C

10-A

11-B

12-B

13-B

14-B

15-D

16-A

17-A

18-C

19-B

20-D

21-A

22-B

23-A

24-C

25-A

26-D

27-C

28-D

29-A

30-D

31-C

32-A

33-B

34-B

35-C

36-D

37-C

38-B

39-D

40-B

41-B

42-A

43-C

44-A

45-B

46-A

47-C

48-B

49-B

50-C

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ĐỀ SỐ 14

BỘ ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA CHUẨN CẤU TRÚC BỘ GIÁO DỤC Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề



Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. convenience

B. mechanic

C. preference

D. official

Question 2:

A. recently

B. attitude

C. octopus

D. proposal

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. confine

B. conceal

C. convention

D. concentrate

Question 4:

A. question

B. presentation

C. industrialization D. modernization

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5: “Can I get you something to drink?”

A. I’d like some Coke, thanks.

B. Thank you. You’re welcome.

C. Yes, why not?

D. Yes, you can, of course.

Question 6:

Mike: “I apologize to you for not keeping my promise” Mary: “______________”

A. Well, that’s out of question.

B. Your apology is accepted.

C. I am grateful to that.

D. That was very sweet of you.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: Names of people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity.

A. reveal

B. conserve

C. cover

D. presume

Question 8: In remote communities, it’s important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in.

A. empty

B. refill

C. repeat

D. remake

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9: It was boiling yesterday. We have a very humid and dry summer this year.

A. very hot

B. cooking

C. dry

D. cooked

Question 10: It was inevitable that the smaller company should merge with the larger one.

A. vital

B. unnecessary

C. urgent

D. unavoidable

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: Dr. Evans has___________a valuable contribution to the life of the school.

A. done

B. created

C. caused

D. made

Question 12: It was difficult to guess what her __________ to the news would be.

A. feelings

B. reaction

C. capital

D. opinion

Question 13: Sportsmen_________their political differences on the sports field.

A. take part

B. put aside

C. take place

D. keep apart

Question 14: It is a biological fact that children __________ their parents.

A. take after

B. take to

C. look up

D. care for

Question 15: I can’t__________who it is. He is too far away.

A. take in

B. stand for

C. make out

D. look for

Question 16: Looking down at the coral reef, we saw _________ of tiny, multi-coloured fish.

A. teams

B. flocks

C. shoals

D. swarms

Question 17: A bridge must be strong enough to support its own weight_______the weight of the people and vehicles that use it.

A. as far as

B. as long as

C. so well as

D. as well as

Question 18: I must take this watch to be repaired as it _________ over 20 minutes a day.

A. accelerates

B. increases

C. progresses

D. gains

Question 19: The hall was very crowded with over a hundred people _______ into it.

A. stuck

B. packed

C. pushed

D. stuffed

Question 20: Vietnamese parents normally do not let their children make a decision ________ their own future career.

A. in

B. of

C. on

D. for

Question 21: The move to a different environment brought about a significant ________in my cousin’s state of mind.

A. change

B. impact

C. effect

D. influence

Question 22: When finding a new house, parents should _________all the conditions for their children's education and entertainment.

A. take into account

B. take actions

C. put pressure

D. put up with

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27

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Face-to-face conversation is a two-way process: You speak to me, I reply to you and so on. Two-way (23)________ depends on having a coding system that is understood by both sender and (24)________, and an agreed convention about signaling the beginning and end of the message. In speech, the coding system is the language like English or Spanish; the convention that one person speaks at a time may seem too obvious to mention. In fact, the signals (25)______in conversation and meetings are often (26)______. For example, lowering the pitch of the voice may mean the end of a sentence, a sharp intake of breath may signal the desire to interrupt, catching the chairmans eye may indicate the desire to speak in a formal setting like a debate, a clenched fist may indicate anger. When (27)______ visual signals are not possible, more formal signals may be needed.

Question 23:

A. exchange

B. interchange

C. communication

D. correspondence

Question 24:

A. announcer

B. receiver

C. messenger

D. transmitter

Question 25:

A. that people use

B. are used

C. using

D. being used

Question 26:

A. informal

B. non-verbal

C. verbal

D. formal

Question 27:

A. their

B. these

C. this

D. that

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

Who talks more - men or women? Most people believe that women talk more.

However, linguist Deborah Tannen, who has the studied the communication style of men and women, says that this is a stereotype. According to Tannen, women are more verbal - talk more - in private situations, where they use conversation as the “glue’ to hold relationships together. But, she says, men talk more in public situations, where they use conversation to exchange information and gain status. Tannen points out that we can see these difference even in children. Little girls often play with one ‘best friend’ and their play includes a lot of conversation. Little boys often play games in groups, their play usually involves more doing than talking. In school, girls are often better at verbal skills, while boys are often better at mathematics.

A recent study at Emory University helps to shed light on the roots of this difference.

Researchers studied conversation between children aged 3-6 and their parents. They found evidence that parents talk very differently to their sons than they do to their daughters. The startling conclusion was that parents use more language with their girls. Specifically, when

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parents talk with their daughters, they use more descriptive language and more details. There is also far more talk about emotions, especially with daughters than with sons.

Question 28: Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the first paragraph?

A. Women talk more than men on the whole B. Women’s talking is a stereotype C. Women talk more in private, and men talk more in public D. Little boys and little girls have different ways of playing Question 29: Which word is similar in meaning to the word “glue” ?

A. games

B. sticky substance

C. rope

D. means

Question 30: Which of the following phrases best explains the meaning of the word “verbal”?

A. Deriving from verbs

B. Connected with use of spoken language

C. Using very loud noise

D. Being very talkative

Question 31: The word “they” refers to___________.

A. Situations

B. Men

C. Men and women

D. Women

Question 32: Which sentence best expresses the main idea of the second paragraph?

A. Researchers have studied the conversations of children and their parents.

B. Parents do not talk much about sadness with their sons.

C. Study at Emory University can help to explain the differences between communication styles of boys and girls.

D. An Emory University study found than parents talk more with their daughters than with their sons.

Question 33: Which can be used as a synonym of the word “feelings” ?

A. anger

B. emotions

C. thinking

D. worries

Question 34: Which of the following statement is TRUE about the passage?

A. Parents give more love to their daughters than to their sons.

B. Boys don’t like to be with their parents as much as girls do.

C. Parents use more language to talk with their daughters.

D. Boys don’t like showing emotions.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker. The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language, communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication Trang 4 http://dethithpt.com – Website chuyên đề thi thử file word có lời giải

through performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may believe them. Here, the participant's tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are usually discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performers skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.

Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits.

Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front.

How a speaker perceives the listener’s receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the depressed.

Question 35: The word “Here” in the passage refers to__________.

A. interpersonal interaction

B. the tone

C. ideas and feelings

D. words chosen

Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The production of speech.

B. The function of the voice in performance.

C. Communication styles.

D. The connection between voice and personality.

Question 37: The word “evidenced” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.

A. questioned

B. repeated

C. indicated

D. exaggerated

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Question 38: Why does the author mention “artistic, political, or pedagogic communication” in the passage?

A. To introduce the idea of self-image B. As examples of public performance C. As examples of basic styles of communication D. To contrast them to singing Question 39: The word “derived” in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.

A. prepared

B. registered

C. discussed

D. obtained

Question 40: According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide __________.

A. hostility

B. shyness

C. friendliness

D. strength

Question 41: According to the passage, what does a constricted and harsh voice indicate?

A. Lethargy

B. Depression

C. Boredom

D. Anger

Question 42: According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person’s ____________.

A. general physical health

B. personality

C. ability to communicate

D. vocal quality

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: “Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!”, shouted the lady to the man.

A. The lady said she will call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.

B. The lady told the man that she would call the police he didn’t leave her house.

C. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.

D. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.

Question 44: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.

A. He had tested his eyes ten months before.

B. He didn’t have any test on his eyes ten months before.

C. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.

D. He hasn’t had his eyes tested for ten months.

Question 45: He survived the operation thanks to the skillful surgeon.

A. He survived because he was a skillful surgeon.

B. He wouldn’t have survived the operation without the skillful surgeon.

C. There was no skillful surgeon, so he died.

D. Though the surgeon was skillful, he couldn’t survive the operation.

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: If you take the train, it would be much more convenient.

A. If

B. the train

C. would be

D. much

Question 47: Some of his favourite subjects at school are Maths, English and Geographical.

A. Some

B. subjects

C. are

D. Geographical

Question 48: Could you tell me how can I get to the city library, please?

A. Could

B. me

C. how can I get

D. the

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: John is studying hard. He doesn’t want to fail the next exam.

A. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam B. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam C. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam D. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam Question 50: Joe does a lot of exercise. He’s still very fat.

A. Despite the tact that doing a lot of exercise, Joe’s still very fat.

B. Joe does a lot of exercise, so he’s very fat.

C. Even though Joe does a lot of exercise, he’s very fat.

D. Joes very fat, but he does a lot of exercise. Đáp án 1-C

2-D

3-D

4-A

5-A

6-B

7-A

8-A

9-A

10-D

11-D

12-B

13-B

14-A

15-C

16-C

17-D

18-D

19-B

20-C

21-A

22-A

23-C

24-B

25-A

26-B

27-B

28-C

29-B

30-B

31-B

32-D

33-B

34-C

35-A

36-D

37-C

38-C

39-D

40-B

41-D

42-B

43-D

44-D

45-B

46-C

47-D

48-C

49-B

50-C

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