Bộ đề thi thử THPTQG năm 2018 - Môn Tiếng Anh - 20 ĐỀ (KHÔNG ĐÁP ÁN) - GV Bùi Văn Vinh

ĐỀ 1 Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions Question 1: A. documentary B. occurrence C. competition D. individual Question 2: A. relationship B. arrangement C. challenging D. eliminate Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 3: A. machine B. suggestion C. shouting D. emotion Question 4:A. broadened B. used to C. cried D. smiled Mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction Question 5: It would be both noticed and appreciating if you could finish the work before you leave A. both B. the work C. leave D. appreciating Question 6: A calorie is the quantity of heat required to rise on gallon of water on degree centigrade at one atmospheric pressure A. to rise B. A calorie C. quantity D. required Question 7: Harry, alike his colleagues, is trying hard to finish hart work early A. alike B. hard C. is trying D. early Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 8: Coffee is the second most valuable _____ after oil A. ware B. production C. producing D. commodity Question 9: We _____ on the beach now if we hadn’t missed the plane A. might have lain B. would lie C. could be lying D. would have lain Question 10: The noise from the nearby factory kept me _____ A. awake B. awakened C. waking D. woken Question 11: Make sure you ____ us a visit when you are in town again A. pay B. have C. give D. do Question 12: I used to run a mile before breakfast but now I am ____ A. not used to it B. no longer practice it C. out of practice D. out of the habit Question 13: The government is determined to ____ terrorism A. put the stop to B. put stop to C. put stops to D. put a stop to Question 14: Out ___ for a walk after she finished doing her homework A. did Mary go B. Mary went C. Mary did go D. went Mary Question 15: Lucia was surprised when her guests ____ late for the party A. came up B. turned up C. looked up D. put up Question 16: Liquid milk is usually pasteurized in order to kill bacteria for a longer ____ A. expectancy B. production C. living D. shelf life

Question 17: The majority of people accept that modern drugs are the most effective way to cure a(n) ______ A. sicken B. illness C. symptom D. treatment Question 18: ____ the price is high, we can’t afford to buy a new car A. Now that B. Although C. Whereas D. As long as Question 19: You have gone to the doctor’s to have a check-u. You ____. You just had your check-up last week A. didn’t need to go B. needn’t have gone C. needn’t go D. don’t need to go Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following questions.

Question 20: “Your dress is lovely. I like it” “______” A. Oh, it’s just an old dress B. Thanks anyway. I think it makes me look older C. You must be kidding. I think it’s terrible D. Thank you. That’s a nice compliment Question 21: “Happy Christmas” “______” A. The same to you! B. Happy Christmas! C. You are the same! D. Same for you!

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part Question 22: The sailor is suffering from a deficiency of Vitamin C A. lack B. short C. shortage D. lacking Question 23: The nurse told her that she would have to wait for a few days for the outcome of the medical check-up A. putting B. payment C. result D. coming Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part Question 24: The policemen broke up the fight between the two teenagers A. started B. stopped off C. called off D. canceled Question 25: He has a good memory to retain facts easily A. remember B. forget C. understand D. know Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions In the explosion of the linguistic life cycle, it is apparent that it is much more difficult to learn a second language in adulthood than a first language in childhood. Most adults never completely master a foreign language, especially in Phonology – hence the ubiquitous foreign accent. Their development often “fossilizes” into permanent error patterns that no teaching or correction can undo. Of course,

there are great individual differences, which depend on effort, attitudes, amount of exposure, quality of teaching and plain talent, but there seems to be a cap for the best adults in the best circumstances Many explanations have been advanced for children’s superiority; they exploit Motherese (the simplified, repetitive conversation between parents and children), make errors unself-consciously, are more motivated to communicate, like to conform, are not set in their ways, and have not first language to interfere. But some of these accounts are unlikely, based on what is known about how language acquisition works. Recent evidence is calling these social and motivation explanations into doubt.

Holding every other factor constant, a key factor stands out: sheer age Systematic evidence comes from the psychologist Elissa Newport and her colleagues. They tested Korean and Chinese – born students at the University of Illinois who had spent a least ten years in the United States. The immigrants were give a list of 276 simple English sentences, half of them containing some grammatical error. The immigrants who came to the United States between the age of 3 and 7 performed identically to American – born students. Those who arrived between ages 8 and 15 did worse the latter they arrived, and those who arrived between 17 and 39 did the worst of all, and showed huge variability unrelated to their age of arrival Question 26: The passage mainly discussed A. adult differences in learning a foreign language B. children’s ability to learn a language C. the age factor in learning languages fast D. research into language acquisition Question 27: From the passage, it can be inferred that “Phonology” is the study of ____ A. he grammar of language B. the rules of a language C the vocabulary of a language D. the sound system of a language Question 28: The word “cap” in paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to _____ A. prize B. limit C. covering D. level Question 29: According to the passage, young children learn languages quickly for all of the following reasons EXCEPT __________ A. they make many mistakes B. they want to talk C. their approach is flexible D. they frequently repeat words Question 30: The word “unrelated” in paragraph 3 is closet in meaning to ___ A. unconnected B. unfamiliar C. unclassified D. unidentified Question 31: In the experiment in the passage, the Psychologists discovered _____ A. most students had lived in the U.S for more that 10 years B. older students were unable to learn English C. young students learned English best D. students who arrived late were worst of all Question 32: The word “who” in paragraph 3 refers to _____ A. Elissa Newport B. Koreans C. students D. colleagues

Question 33: According to the passage, what was the purpose of examining a sample number of immigrants?

A. To compare different age groups B. To detect differences in nationalities C. To confirm different language characteristics D. To measure the use of grammar Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions The time when human crossed the Arctic land bridge from Siberia to Alaska seems remote to us today, but actually represents a late stage in the prehistory of humans, an era when polished stone implements and bows and arrows were already being used and dogs had already been domesticated When these early migrants arrived in North America, they found the woods and plains dominated by three types of American mammoths. These elephants were distinguished from today’s elephants mainly by their thick, shaggy coats and their huge, upward-curving tusks. They had arrived on the continent hundreds of thousands of years before their followers. The woody mammoth in the North, the Columbian mammoth in middle North America, and the imperial mammoth of the South, together with their distant cousins the mastodons, dominated the land. Here, as in the Old World, there is evidence that humans hunted these elephants, as shown by numerous spear points found with mammoth remains Then, at the end of the Ice Age, when the last glaciers had retreated, there was a relatively sudden and widespread extinction of elephants. In the New World, both mammoths and mastodons disappeared. In the Old World, only Indian and African elephants survived.

Why did the huge, seemingly successful mammoths disappear? Were humans connected with their extinction? Perhaps, but at that time, although they were cunning hunters, humans were still widely settled and not very numerous. It is difficult to see how they could have prevailed over the mammoth to such an extent Question 34: With which of the following is the passage primarily concerned?

A. Migration from Siberia to Alaska B. Techniques used to hunt mammoths C. The prehistory of humans D. The relationship between man and mammoth in the New World Question 35: The word “implements” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____ A. tools B. ornaments C. houses D. carvings Question 36: The phrase “these early migrants” in paragraph 2 refers to ____ A. mammoths B. humans C. dogs D. mastodons Question 37: Where were the imperial mammoths the dominant type of mammoth?

A. Alaska B. the central portion of North America C. the southern part of North America

D. South America Question 38: It can be inferred that when humans crossed into the New World, they ____ A. had previously hunted mammoths in Siberia B. had never seen mammoth before C. brought mammoths with them from the Old World D. soon learned to use dogs to hunt mammoths Question 39: Which of the following could be best substitute for the word “remains” in paragraph 2?

A. bones B. drawings C. footprints D. spear points Question 40: The passage supports which of the following conclusions about mammoth A. Humans hunted them to extinction B. The freezing temperatures of the Ice Age destroyed their food supply C. The cause of their extinction is not definitely known D. Competition with mastodons caused them to become extinct Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word (s) for each of the blanks INTELLIGENCE TEST Schools exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of tests we take. They find out how much knowledge we have (41) ____. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all, isn’t it a fact that some people who are very successful academically don’t have any (42)____ sense? Intelligence is the speed at which we can understand and (43)____ to new situations and it is usually tested by logic puzzles. Although scientists are now preparing advanced computer technology that will be able to “read” our brains, for the present tests are still the most popular ways of measuring intelligence. A person’s IQ is their intelligence as it is measured by a special test. The most common IQ tests are run by Mensa, an organization that was founded in England in 1946. By 1976 it had 1300 members in Britain.

Today there are 44000 in Britain and 100000 worldwide, largely in the US. People taking the tests are judged in relation to an average score of 100, and those score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This (44)___ at 2% of the population. Anyone from the age of six can take the tests. All the questions are straightforward and most people can answer them if (45)____ enough time. But that’s the problems – the whole point of the tests is that they’re against the clock Question 41:A. fetched Question 42: A. natural Question 43: A. accord Question 44:A. adds up Question 45: A. allowed

B. gained B. bright B. react B. turns to B. spared

C. attached C. sharp C. answer C. comes up C. let

D. caught D. common D. alter D. works out D. provided

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: She gets up early to prepare breakfast so that her children can come to school on time.

A. Despite her getting up early to prepare breakfast, her children cannot come to school on time.

B. Because she wanted her children to come to school on time, she gets up early to prepare breakfast.

C. If she does not get up early to prepare breakfast, her children will not come to school on time.

D. Unless she gets up early to prepare breakfast, her children will not come to school on.

Question 47: The last time I went to the museum was a year ago.

A. I have not been to the museum for a year.

B. A year ago, I often went to the museum.

C. My going to the museum lasted a year.

D. At last I went to the museum after a year.

Question 48: I think you should stop smoking.

A. If I am you, I will stop smoking.

B. If I had been you, I would stop smoking.

C. If I were you, I would stop smoking.

D. If I were you, I will stop smoking.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill.

A. John needn't be here yesterday because he was ill.

B. Because of his illness, John should have been here yesterday.

C. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.

D. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.

Question 50: It doesn’t make any difference if it rain. They will still go.

A. The difference is their going in the rain.

B. Whether it rains or not, they will still go.

C. But for the rain, they would have gone.

D. But for the rain, we would not have gone.

ĐỀ 2 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. easy B. sea C. learn D. eat Question 2. A. park B. yard C. card D. carry Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. community B. particular C. mathematics D. authority Question 4. A. explanation B. experiment C. accomplishment D. discovery Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. If you want to borrow my car, promise to drive careful.

A B C D Question 6. It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to A B assure a successful cure.

C D Question 7. Paris has been well-known about its famous monuments, beautiful music, and A B C wonderful restaurants for over 100 years.

D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8. I don’t agree with ____________ very young and pretty criminals A. committing B. enforcing C. imprisoning D. offending Question 9. What beautiful eyes____________!

A. does she have B. she has C. has she D. she doesn't have Question 10. ____________long, I'm sure you will be speaking English ____________ a native speaker.

A. After/ like B. Before/ like C. After/ for D. Before/ for Question 11. He's left his book at home; he's always so____________.

A. forgetful B. forgettable C. forgotten D. forgetting Question 12. We are going to build a fence around the field with____________to breeding sheep and cattle A. a goal B. an outlook C. a reason D. a view Question 13. The meeting didn’t____________ until late.

A. end up B. break up C. come about D. fall through Question 14. Fiona is very angry ____________ her boss’s decision to sack several members of staff.

A. against B. by C. for D. about Question 15. Media reports on the outcome of military intervention often _______the true facts.

A. divert B. detract C. depose D. distort Question 16. He hurried____________ he wouldn't be late for class.

A. since B. as if C. unless D. so that Question 17. When his parents are away, his oldest brother ____________.

A. knocks it off B. calls the shots C. draws the line D. is in the same boat Question 18. If he had been more careful, he _______________.

A. won’t fall B. wouldn’t fall C. wouldn’t have fallen D. would haven’t fallen Question 19. We should participate in the movements______________ the natural environment.

A. organizing to conserve C. which organize to conserve

B. organized conserving D. organized to conserve

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20. Jenny: “Thank you very much for your donation, Mr. Robinson.”

- Mr. Robinson: “________________________” A. You can say that again.

B. I see.

C. You are right.

D. Delighted I was able to help.

Question 21. John: “Well it was nice talking to you, but I have to dash.”

- Jane: “____________” A. Well, another time.

B. Yes, I enjoyed talking to you, too.

C. OK, see you.

D. That's nice.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. I am glad I was able to be there for my friend when her mom died..

A. to offer support in time of need for B. to cry with C. to travel with D. to visit Question 23. The sign indicates the correct direction to the store.

A. looks B. shows C. says D. needs Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24. It is relatively easy to identify the symptoms of the peculiar disease.

A. evidently B. absolutely C. comparatively D. obviously Question 25. When you consider all the advantages you've gained I think you'll admit you had a good run for your money.

A. a lot of loss from your money B. a lot of benefits from your money C. a lot of advantages from your money D. a lot of failures in making your money Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. I whispered as I didn’t want anybody to hear our conversation.

A. So as not to hear our conversation I whispered.

B. Since nobody wanted to hear our conversation I whispered.

C. Because I whispered, nobody heard our conversation.

D. I lowered my voice in order that our conversation couldn’t be heard.

Question 27. Though he tried hard, he didn’t succeed.

A. However he tried hard, he didn’t succeed.

B. However hard he tried, he didn’t succeed.

C. However he didn’t succeed hard, he tried hard.

D. However he tried hard, but he didn’t succeed.

Question 28. “If you keep eating so much fat, you’ll gain weight.” said his mother.

A. His mother suggested him gaining weight if he kept eating so much fat.

B. His mother warned him that he would gain weight if he kept eating so much fat.

C. His mother threatened him to gain weight if he kept eating so much fat D. His mother complained about his gaining weight if he kept eating so much fat.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.

A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.

B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

C. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

D. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

Question 30. Crazianna is a big country. Unfortunately, it has never received respect from its neighbours.

A. Though Crazianna is a big country, it has never received respect from its neighbours.

B. Crazianna has never received respect from its neighbours because it is a big country.

C. It is Crazianna, a big country, that has never received respect from its neighbours.

D. Crazianna is such a big country that it has never received respect from its neighbours.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

How men first learnt to (31) __________words is unknown; in other words, the origin of language is a mystery. All we really know is that men, unlike animals, (32) __________invented certain sounds to express thoughts and feelings, actions and things so that they could communicate with each other; and that later they agreed (33) __________certain signs, called letters, which could be combined to represent those sounds, and which could be written down. These sounds, whetherspoken or written in letters, are called words.

Great writers are those who not only have great thoughts but also express these thoughts in words that (34) __________ powerfully to our minds and emotions. This charming and telling use of words is what we call literary style. Above all, the real poet is a master of words. He can convey his meaning in words which sing like music, and which by their position and association can (35) __________ men to tears. We should, therefore, learn to choose our words carefully, or they will make our speech silly and vulgar.

Question 31. A. invent Question 32. A. whatever Question 33. A. at Question 34. A. interest Question 35. A. take

B. create B. however B. upon B. appeal B. send

C. make C. somewhat C. for C. attract C. break

D. discover D. somehow D. in D. lure D. move

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

THE DIGITAL DIVIDE Information technology is influencing the way many of us live and work today. We use the Internet to look and apply for jobs, shop, conduct research, make airline reservations, and explore areas of interest. We use e-mail and the Internet to communicate instantaneously with friends and business associates around the world. Computers are commonplace in homes and the workplace.

Although the number of Internet users is growing exponentially each year, most of the world’s population does not have access to computers or the Internet. Only 6 percent of the population in developing countries are connected to telephones. Although more than 94 percent of U.S. households have a telephone, only 42 percent have personal computers at home and 26 percent have Internet access. The lack of what most of us would consider a basic communications necessity –the telephone –does not occur just in developing nations. On some Native American reservations only 60 percent of the residents have a telephone. The move to wireless connections may eliminate the need for telephone lines, but it does not remove the barrier to equipment costs.

Who has Internet access? Fifty percent of the children in urban households with an income over $75,000 have Internet access, compared with 2 percent of the children in low-income, rural households. Nearly half of college-educated people have Internet access, compared to 6 percent of

those with only some high school education. Forty percent of households with two parents have access; 15 percent of female, single-parent households do. Thirty percent of white households, 11 percent of black households, and 13 percent of Hispanic households have access. Teens and children are the two fastest-growing segments of Internet users. The digital divide between the populations who have access to the Internet and information technology tools is based on income, race, education, household type, and geographic location. Only 16 percent of the rural poor, rural and central city minorities, young householders, and single parent female households are connected..

Another problem that exacerbates these disparities is that African-Americans, Hispanics, and Native Americans hold few of the jobs in information technology. Women hold about 20 percent of these jobs and are receiving fewer than 30 percent of the computer science degrees. The result is that women and members of the most oppressed ethnic groups are not eligible for the jobs with the highest salaries at graduation. Baccalaureate candidates with degrees in computer science were offered the highest salaries of all new college graduates in 1998 at $44,949.

Do similar disparities exist in schools? More than 90 percent of all schools in the country are wired with at least one Internet connection. The number of classrooms with Internet connections differs by the income level of students. Using the percentage of students who are eligible for free lunches at a school to determine income level, we see that nearly twice as many of the schools with more affluent students have wired classrooms as those with high concentrations of low-income students.

Access to computers and the Internet will be important in reducing disparities between groups. It will require greater equality across diverse groups whose members develop knowledge and skills in computer and information technologies. If computers and the Internet are to be used to promote equality, they will have to become accessible to populations that cannot currently afford the equipment which needs to be updated every three years or so. However, access alone is not enough. Students will have to be interacting with the technology in authentic settings. As technology becomes a tool for learning in almost all courses taken by students, it will be seen as a means to an end rather than an end in itself. If it is used in culturally relevant ways, all students can benefit from its power.

Question 36. Why does the author mention the telephone in paragraph 2?

A. To contrast the absence of telephone usage with that of Internet usage B. To describe the development of communications from telephone to Internet C. To demonstrate that even technology like the telephone is not available to all D. To argue that basic telephone service is a first step to using the Internet Question 37. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the statement “Although the number ............. or the Internet.� in the paragraph 2?

A. The number of computers that can make the Internet available to most of the people in the world is not increasing fast enough.

B. The Internet is available to most of the people in the world, even though they don't have their own computer terminals.

C. Most of the people in the world use the Internet now because the number of computers has been increasing every year.

D. The number of people who use computers and the Internet is increasing every year, but most people in the world still do not have connections.

Question 38. Based on information in paragraph 3, which of the following best explains the term "digital divide?"

A. The disparity in the opportunity to use the Internet B. Differences in socioeconomic levels among Internet users C. The number of Internet users in developing nations D. Segments of the population with Internet access Question 39. Why does the author give details about the percentages of Internet users in paragraph 3?

A. To argue for more Internet connections at all levels of society B. To suggest that improvements in Internet access are beginning to take place C. To prove that there are differences in opportunities among social groups D. To explain why many people have Internet connections now Question 40. According to paragraph 4, why are fewer women and minorities employed in the field of computer technology?

A. They do not have an interest in technology.

B. They prefer training for jobs with higher salaries.

C. They are not admitted to the degree programs.

D. They do not possess the educational qualifications.

Question 41. The word “concentrations” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. confidence B. protections C. numbers D. support Question 42. What can be inferred from paragraph 6 about Internet access?

A. The cost of replacing equipment is a problem.

B. Technology will be more helpful in three years.

C. Better computers need to be designed.

D. Schools should provide newer computers for students.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Cooperation is the common endeavor of two or more people to perform a task or reach a jointly cherished goal. Like competition and conflict, there are different forms of cooperation, based on group organization and attitudes.

In the first form, known as primary cooperation, group and individual fuse. The group contains nearly all of each individual’s life. The rewards of the group’s work are shared with each member. There is an interlocking identity of individual, group and task performed. Means and goals become one, for cooperation itself is valued.

While primary cooperation is most often characteristic of preliterature societies, secondary cooperation is characteristic of many modern societies. In secondary cooperation, individuals devote only part of their lives to the group. Cooperation itself is not a value. Most members of the group feel loyalty, but the welfare of the group is not the first consideration. Members perform tasks so that they can separately enjoy the fruits of their cooperation in the form of salary, prestige, or power. Business offices and professional athletic teams are examples of secondary cooperation.

In the third type, called tertiary cooperation or accommodation, latent conflict underlies the shared work. The attitudes of the cooperating parties are purely opportunistic: the organization is loose and fragile. Accommodation involves common means to achieve antagonistic goals: it breaks down when the common means cease to aid each party in reaching its goals. This is not, strictly speaking, cooperation at all, and hence the somewhat contradictory term antagonistic cooperation is sometimes used for this relationship.

Question 43. What is the author’s main purpose in the first paragraph of the passage?

A. To offer a brief definition of cooperation B. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict C. To urge readers to cooperate more often D. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes Question 44. The word cherished in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______ A. agreed on B. prized C. defined D. set up Question 45. Which of the following statements about primary cooperation is supported by information in the passage?

A. It is an ideal that can never be achieved B. It was confined to prehistoric times C. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to cooperate

D. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and writing skills Question 46. According to the passage, why do people join groups that practice secondary cooperation?

A. To get rewards for themselves B. To defeat a common enemy C. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation D. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds Question 47. Which of the following is an example of the third form of cooperation as it is defined in the fourth paragraph?

A. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow B. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party C. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades D. A new business attempts to take customers away from an established company Question 48. Which of the following is NOT given as a name for the third type of cooperation?

A. Accommodation B. Latent conflict C. Tertiary cooperation D. Antagonistic cooperation Question 49. The word fragile in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to A. poorly planned B. involuntary C. inefficient D. easily broken Question 50. Which of the following best describes the overall organization of the passage?

A. The author presents the points of view of three experts on the same topic B. The author compares and contrasts two types of human relations C. The author describes a concept by analyzing its three forms D. The author provides a number of concrete examples and then draws a conclusion

THE END

ĐỀ 3 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. applicant B. vacant C. apply D. passion Question 2. A life B. tight C. child D. children Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. discover B. difficult C. invention D. important Question 4. A. acceptance B. explorer C. possibly D. refusal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. The rings of Saturn are so distant to be seen from the Earth without a telescope.

A B C D Question 6. Stand up straight, breathe deeply, hold your head up, and no look down!

A B C D Question 7. Everybody in class has to choose a topic of your own to write an essay of 500 words.

A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8. On entering the nursery I stumbled on the wooden blocks ____________ all over the carpet.

A. plunged B. scattered C. settled D. tossed Question 9. I don’t think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is ____________ A. as dry as rice B. as dry as a tile C. as dry as a bone D. as dry as wood Question 10. ____________ pollution control measures are expensive, many industries hesitate to adopt them.

A. Although B. However C. Because D. On account of Question 11. The company has just got a big order and the workers are working round the ____________ A. day B. clock C. hour D. night Question 12. When she died, she gave _________ all her money to a charity for cats.

A. away B. out C. on D. off Question 13. Neither Peter nor his parents ____________ going to spend the summer abroad.

A. is B. are C. was D. has been Question 14. The terrorists were asked whether they____________ guilty to the wrongdoing.

A. pleaded B. confirmed C. stated D. admitted Question 15. I am sending you my curriculum vitae _______you will have a chance to study it before our interview.

A. so that B. because C. for D. since Question 16. The university is proud of their students, ________ earn national recognition.

A. many of who B. many of whom C. that D. whom Question 17. Not until late 1960s ___________ on the moon A. that Americans walked B. did Americans walk C. when did Americans walk D. when Americans walked Question 18. I ___________ a better job, and I am going to accept it.

A. was offering B. have been offered C. was going to be offered D. am offering

Question 19. We are considering having___________ for the coming New Year.

A. redecorated our flat B. to redecorate our flat C. our flat to be redecorated D. our flat redecorated Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20. ‘Single or double?’ ‘_______’.

A. Yes, it’s single.

B. No, it’s not single.

C. No, it’s double.

D. Single, please.

Question 21. ‘When will they get here?’ ‘_______’.

A. By bus.

B. They got here yesterday.

C. Over there.

D. I expect them before lunch.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. There was always sufficient money to go out for dinner.

A. not enough B. too much C. enough D. none Question 23. Parents usually want their children to go to prestigious colleges.

A, low-level B. cheap C. new D. highly respected Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24. I have a vague recollection of meeting him when I was a child. I can‟t recall much about that.

A. indistinct B. not clear C. imprecise D. apparent Question 25. I told her I understood exactly what she was feeling as we were both after all in the same boat.

A. in a harder situation B. in the same situations C. in different situations D. in an easier situation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. Payment must be made at the time of booking.

A. You must pay before you book B. You are not allowed to pay when you book.

C. You must pay when you book.

D. Payment in advance is acceptable if you want to book.

Question 27. The team is being sponsored by a local sport wares company.

A. The team is part of the company.

B. The team is a local one.

C. The company is giving money to support the team’s activities.

D. The company used to sponsor the team.

Question 28. She would eat nothing but small pieces of bread and butter.

This sentence means that she A. ate small pieces of bread and butter but didn’t like them.

B. ate only some small pieces of bread and butter.

C. didn’t eat anything, not even the bread and butter.

D. wouldn’t touch the bread and butter, but she ate other things.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.

A. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.

B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.

C. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot.

D. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot.

Question 30. Transportation has been made much easier thanks to the invention of cars. However, cars are the greatest contributor of air pollution.

A. The invention of cars has made transportation much easier, but cars are among the greatest contributors of air pollution.

B. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, people use cars to contribute to the pollution of air.

C. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, cars are the greatest contributor of air pollution.

D. However easier the invention of cars has made transportation, it is cars that are among the greatest contributors of air pollution.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Health is something we tend to (31) _______ when we have it. When our body is doing well, we are hardly aware of it. But illness can come, even (32) _______ we are young. In fact, childhood has been a very susceptible time. Many diseases attack children in particular, and people know very little how to cure them once they struck. The result was that many children died. About a century ago,(33) _________, scientists found out about germs, and then everything changed. The cause of many diseases was found, and cures were developed. As this medical discovery spread, the world became____ (34) _____ safer for children. The result is that whereas a hundred years ago, the average man lived for 35 years, nowadays, in many areas of the world, people can expect to live for 75 years. And what do we expect by the year 2020? Undoubtedly, medical science will continue to (35) ________. Some people will be able to avoid medical problems that are unavoidable today.

Question 31. A. forget Question 32. A. if Question 33. A. therefore Question 34. A. more Question 35. A. speed up

B. ignore B. so B. however B. much B. run

C. give up C. when C. although C. very C. accelerate

D. throw away D. while D. moreover D. quite D. advance

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43.

Reading to oneself is a modern activity which was almost unknown to the scholars of the classical and medieval worlds, while during the fifteenth century the term “reading� undoubtedly meant reading aloud. Only during the nineteenth century did silent reading become commonplace.

One should be wary, however, of assuming that silent reading came about simply because reading aloud was a distraction to others. Examinations of factors related to the historical development of silent reading have revealed that it became the usual mode of reading for most adults mainly because the tasks themselves changed in character.

The last century saw a steady gradual increase in literacy and thus in the number of readers.

As the number of readers increases, the number of potential listeners decline and thus there was some reduction in the need to read aloud. As reading for the benefit of listeners grew less common, so came the flourishing of reading as a private activity in such public places as libraries, railway carriages and offices, where reading aloud would cause distraction to other readers.

Towards the end of the century, there was still considerable argument over whether books should be used for information or treated respectfully and over whether the reading of materials such as newspapers was in some mentally weakening. Indeed, this argument remains with us still

in education. However, whatever its virtues, the old shared literacy culture had gone and was replaced by the printed mass media on the one hand and by books and periodicals for a specialized readership on the other.

By the end of the twentieth century, students were being recommended to adopt attitudes to books and to use reading skills which were inappropriate, if not impossible, for the oral reader.

The social, cultural and technological changes in the century had greatly altered what the term “reading” implied.

Question 36. Reading aloud was more common in the medieval world because______ A. few people could read to themselves.

B. people relied on reading for entertainment.

C. there were few places available for private reading D. silent reading had not been discovered Question 37. The word “commonplace” in the first paragraph mostly means “______ .”

A. attracting attention B. for everybody’s use C. most preferable.

D. widely used Question 38. The development of silent reading during the last century indicated______ A. an increase in the number of books.

B. an increase in the average age of readers.

C. a change in the nature of reading D. a change in the status of literate people.

Question 39. Silent reading, especially in public places, flourished mainly because of______ A. the increase in literacy B. the decreasing number of listeners C. the decreasing need to read aloud D. the development of libraries Question 40. The phrase “a specialized readership” in paragraph 4 mostly means “______ ” A. a reading volume for particular professionals.

B. a status for reader specialized in mass media.

C. a requirement for readers in a particular area of knowledge D. a limited number of readers in a particular area of knowledge Question 41. All of the following might be the factors that effected the continuation of the old shard literacy culture EXCEPT ____ A. the specialized readership B. the inappropriate reading skills C. the diversity of reading materials.

D. the print mass media Question 42. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage?

A. The decline of reading aloud was wholly due to its distracting effect B. Reading aloud was more common in the past than it is today C. Not all printed mass media was appropriate for reading aloud D. The change in reading habits was partly due to the social, cultural and technological changes.

Question 43. The writer of this passage is attempting to______ A. show how reading methods have improved B. encourage the growth of reading C. explain how reading habits have developed D. change people’s attitudes to reading Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.

For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits.

One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other

green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect.

Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment.

However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work.

Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.

Question 44. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following word groups?

A. allay, alleviate, reduce B. absorb, intake, consume C. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify D. obliterate, destroy, annihilate Question 45. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that ______________ A. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens B. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city C. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens D. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens Question 46. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference between parks and rooftop gardens?

A. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.

B. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.

C. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.

D. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.

Question 47. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens EXCEPT ______________ A. savings on heating and cooling costs B. better food for city dwellers C. improved air quality D. increased space for private relaxation Question 48. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they ______________ A. do not require the use of valuable urban land B. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect C. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces Question 49. The author’s tone in the passage is best described as______________ A. informative B. argumentative C. descriptive D. passionate Question 50. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

A. A thesis is presented and then supported.

B. A hypothesis is stated and then analyzed.

C. A proposal is evaluated and alternatives are explored.

D. A viewpoint is established and then defended.

THE END

ĐỀ 4 Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions Question 1: A. deception B. recipient C. receding D. recipe Question 2: A. arrival B. technical C. proposal D. approval Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 3: A. failure B. pleasure C. leisure D. measure Question 4: A. increase B. meant C. flea D. lease Mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to show the underlined part that need correction Question 5: Psychological experiment indicate that people remember more math problems that they can’t solve than those they are able to solve A. those B. solve C. to solve D. experiment Question 6: Salmon lay their eggs, and die in freshwater although they live in salt water when most of their adults lives A. although B. lay C. adult lives D. when Question 7: In order to survive, trees rely to the amount of annual rainfall they receive as well as the seasonal distribution of the rain A. of B. rely to C. as well D. seasonal Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 8: Anne was not ___ to think that the test was too difficult A. who B. the one who C. the only one D. among the people Question 9: Over 20 years ___ but I never forgot the time we first met each other A. have gone down B. have gone up C. has gone by D. has gone out Question 10: The surgeon tried to save the man but unluckily the ___ was not successful A. salvation B. operation C. generation D. solution Question 11: The teacher at this school ____ with flu one after the other A. went down B. went off C. went out D. went under Question 12: ___ are unpleasant, but it will be nice when we get in to the new house A. Movements B. Removals C. Removements D. Moves Question 13: Please cut my hair ____ the style in this magazine A. the same long as B. the same long like C. the same length like D. the same length as Question 14: The house is too dark. You’d better need ___ a bright color A. to be painted B. painting it C. to have it painted D. to have it paint Question 15: It’s time the authorities ___ people ____ safety helmets A. have/ wear B. had/ wear C. had/ to wear D. have/ worn

Question 16: My music teacher suggested ___ for an hour before breakfast A. practising B. to practise C. having practised D. to practising Question 17: The new manager explained to the staff that she hoped to ___ new procedures to save time and money A. manufacture B. establish C. control D. restore Question 18: Can I ___ our brain for a moment? I can’t do this crossword by myself A. use B. have C. mind D. pick Question 19: I can’t quite _____ out what the sign says A. make B. get C. read D. carry Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following questions.

Question 20: “Would you like to meet Mrs. Bruce?” “Yes, ____” A. I can make an appointment with her B. I’d love to C. I find it very interesting D. I don’t know where she living Question 21: “Would you like a Coke?” “_____” A. Yes, I’d like B. Yes, please C. Yes, I do D. Yes, I like Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part Question 22: He was sacked from his job after the manager discovered that he had stolen some money from his colleagues A. dismissed B. dropped C. ejected D. evicted Question 23: The detective was asked to probe into the mysterious disappearance of the painting A. investigate B. procure C. recover D. relinquish Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part Question 24: The piece of work is urgent and must be done without delay A. gradually B. immediately C. efficiency D. previously Question 25: These machines are older models and have to be operated by hand A. mechanically B. manually C. automatically D. spiritually Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Not so long ago almost any students who successfully completed a university degree or diploma course could find a good career quite easily. Companies toured the academic institutions, competing with each other to recruit graduates. However, those days are gone, even in Hong Kong, and nowadays graduates often face strong competition in the search for jobs.

Most careers organization highlight three stages for graduates to follow in the process of securing a suitable career: recognizing abilities, matching these to available vacancies and presenting them well to prospective employers Job seekers have to make a careful assessment of their own abilities. One area of assessment should be of their academic qualifications, which would include special skills within their subject area.

Graduates should also consider their own personal values and attitudes, or the relative importance to themselves of such matters as money, security, leadership and caring or others. An honest assessment of personal interests and abilities such as creative or scientific skills acquired from work experience should also be give careful thought The second stage is to study the opportunities available for employment and to think about how the general employment situation is likely to develop in the future. To do this, graduates can study job vacancies and information in newspapers or the can visit a career office, write to possible employers for information or contact friends or relatives who may already be involved in a particular profession. After studying all various options, they should be in a position to make informed comparisons between various careers Good personal presentation is essential in the search for a good career. Job application forms and letters should, of course, be filled in carefully and correctly, without grammar or spelling errors.

Where additional information is asked for, job seekers should describe their abilities and work experience in more depth, with example if possible. They should try to balance their own abilities with the employer’s needs, explain why they are interested in a career with the particular company and try to show that they already know something about the company and its activities When graduates are asked to attend for the interview, they should prepare properly by finding out all they can about the prospective employer. Dressing suitably and arriving for the interview on time are also obviously important. Interviewees should try to give positive and helpful answers and should not be afraid to ask questions about anything they are unsure about. This is much better than pretending to understand a question and giving an unsuitable answer There will always be good career opportunities for people with ability, skills, and determination; the secret to securing a good job is to be one of them Question 26: In paragraph 1, “those days are gone, even in Hong Kong”. Suggests that ____ A. in the past, finding a good career was easier in Hong Kong than elsewhere B. nowadays, everyone in Hong Kong has an equal chance of finding a good job C. it used to be harder to find a good job in Hong Kong than in other countries D. even in Hong Kong companies tour the universities trying to recruit graduates Question 27: The word “prospective” in paragraph 2 is closed in meaning to ____ A. generous B. reasonable C. future D. ambitious Question 28: According to paragraph 3, job seekers should: A. aim to give a balanced account of what the employer needs B. divide the time equally between listening to the interviewer and speaking C. discuss their own abilities in relation to what the employer is looking for D. attempt to show the employer is looking for

Question 29: According to paragraph 3, graduates should ____ A. only consider careers which are suited to them as people B. include information about personal attitudes and values in their job application C. consider how lucky they are to be able to find careers that provide such things D. consider the values of their parents and families as well their own wishes Question 30: The advice given in the first sentences of paragraph 4 is to___ A. find out what jobs are available and the opportunities for future promotion B. examine the careers available and how these will be affected in the future C. look at the information on, and probably future location of, various careers D. study the opportunities and the kinds of training that will be available Question 31: According to paragraph 4, graduates should ____ A. find a good position and then compare it with other careers B. ask friends or relatives to secure them a good job C. get information about a number of careers before making comparisons D. find out as much as possible and inform employers of the complaints they want Question 32: Which of the following does “this” in paragraph 6 refers to?

A. Not being afraid to be unsure B. Giving positive and helpful answers to the questions C. Being prepared to ask questions about things they don’t understand D. Being unsure about the questions Question 33: In paragraph 6, the writer seems to suggest that ____ A. interviewees should ask question if they can’t think of an answer B. pretending to understand a question is better than giving a suitable answer C. it is better for interviewees to be honest than to pretend to understand D. it is not a good idea for interviewees to be completely honest in their answers Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Social parasitism involves one species relying on another to raise its young. Among vertebrates, the best known social parasites are such birds as cuckoos and cowbirds; the female lays egg in a nest belonging to another species and leaves it for the host to rear The dulotic species of ants, however, are the supreme social parasites. Consider, for example, the unusual behavior of ants belonging to the genus Polyergus. All species of this ant have lost the ability to care for themselves. The workers do not forage for food, feed their brood or queen, or even clean their own nest. To compensate for these deficits, Polyergus has become specialized at obtaining workers from the related genus Formica to do these chores In a raid, several thousand Polyergus workers will travel up to 500 feet in search of a Formica nest, penetrate it, drive off the queen and her workers, capture the pupal brood, and transport it back to their nest. The captured brood is then reared by the resident Formica workers until the developing pupae emerge to add to the Formica population, which maintains the mixed-species nest. The Formica workers forage for food and give it to colony members of both species. They also remove wastes and excavate new chambers as the population increases

The true extent of the Polyergus and dependence on the Formica becomes apparent when the worker population grows too large for existing nest. Formica scouts locate a new nesting site, return to the mixed-species colony, and recruit additional Formica nest mates. During a period that may last seven days, the Formica workers carry to the new nest all the Polyergus eggs, larvae, and pupae, every Polyergus adult, and even the Polyergus queen Of the approximately 8000 species of ants in the world, all 5 species of Polyergus and some 200 species in other genera have evolved some degree of parasitic relationship with other ants Question 34: Which of the following statements best represents the main idea of the passage?

A. Ants belonging to the genus Formica are incapable of performing certain tasks B. The genus Polyergus is quite similar to the genus Formica C. Ants belonging to the genus Polyergus have an unusual relationship with ants belonging to the genus Formica D. Polyergus ants frequently leave their nests to build new colonies Question 35: The word “raise” is closest in meaning to _____ A. rear B. lift C. collect D. increase Question 36: The author mentions cuckoos and cowbirds because they _____ A. share their nests with each other B. are closely related species C. raise the young of their birds D. are social parasites Question 37: The word “it” refers to ______ A. species B. nest C. egg D. female Question 38: What does the author mean by stating that “The dulotic species of ants, however, are the supreme social parasites” A. The Polyergus are more highly developed than the Formica B. The Formica have developed specialized roles C. The Polyergus are heavily dependent on the Formica D. The Formica do not reproduce rapidly enough to care for themselves Question 39: The word “excavate” is closest in meaning to _____ A. find B. clean C. repair D. dig Question 40: According to the information in the passage, all of the following terms refer to ants beginning to the genus Formica EXCEPT ______ A. dulotic B. captured brood C. developing pupae D. worker population Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to indicate the correct word (s) for each of the blanks One of the most beautiful parts of Britain is the Lake District. The Lake District is situated in the north-west of England and consists of high hills, mountains and, of course, lakes. In all, there are 16 lakes, of (41)_____ the largest is Lake Windermere. Over the years many writers have been (42)_____ with this region but there can be no (43)_____ that the most famous of all was William Wordsworth (17701850), who was born and lived almost the whole of his life there. He had close connections with the

village of Grasmere, where he lived for some thirteen years. He loved this particular part of England and many of his poems of the joy he felt when surrounded by beautiful countryside Every year more than 14 million people from Britain and abroad visit the Lake District to enjoy the fresh air and the scenery. Some go to walk in the mountains while others sail boats on the lakes or simply sit admiring the (44)_____ views. Unfortunately, the region is becoming a victim of its own success in attracting visitors. (45)____ come to the Lake District that they threaten to destroy the peace and quite which many are searching for there Question 41: A. all B. them Question 42:A. associated B. connected Question 43:A. thought B. evidence Question 44: A. principal B. magnificent Question 45: A. Such many people C. So many people

C. which C. bound C. supposition C. effective B. So few people D. Such people

D. those D. linked D. doubt D. significant

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: “I have found a new flat,” said Ann. A. Ann told that she had found a new flat.

B. Ann said to me that she had found a new flat.

C. Ann said that she has found a new flat.

D. Ann said me that she had found a new flat Question 47: I have never played golf before.

A. This is the first time I have played golf.

B. I used to play golf but I gave it up already C. It’s the last time I played golf.

D. It is the first time I had played golf.

Question 48: They cancelled all flights because of fog.

A. All flights were cancelled by them of fog.

B. All flights were because of fog were cancelled.

C. All flights were because of fog cancelled.

D. All flights were cancelled because of fog.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: We arrived at the conference. We realized our reports were still at home.

A. We arrived at the conference and realized that our reports are still at home.

B. It was until we arrived at the conference that we realize our reports were still at home.

C. Not until we arrived at the conference, did we realize that our reports were still at home D. Not until had we arrived at the conference, we realized our reports were still at home.

Question 50: I should have studied last night. However, I was too tired.

A. I couldn't study last night because I was very tired.

B. I studied last night because I was bored.

C. I studied last night because I had to.

D. I tried to study last night, but the homework was too hard.

ĐỀ 5 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. uniform B. situation C. unemployment D. amusing Question 2. A. benefit B. every C. bed D. enjoy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. suspicion B. telephone C. relation D. direction Question 4. A. reduction B. popular C. financial D. romantic Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. Dictionaries frequently explain the origin of the defined word, state its part of speech and A B C indication its correct use.

D Question 6. Tom said that if he had to do another homework tonight, he would not be able to A B C attend the concert.

D Question 7. The children forgot picking up the note from the office and now they are worried.

A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8. Several deserts are a quite vast and uninhabited ________.

A. plain B. territory C. corridor D. shrub Question 9. His health would be improved________.

A. if he continued to smoke heavily B. unless he stopped smoking heavily C. if he gave up smoking D. if only he doesn't smoke any more.

Question 10. Many tall and wide mountain ranges do not let much rain get ________ the desert.

A. into B. away C. out D. from Question 11. I wanted to go a more ________ route across Montana.

A. north B. northerly C. northerner D. northernmost Question 12. Toxic chemicals from factories are one of the serious factors that leads wildlife to the _______ of extinction.

A. wall B. fence C. verge D. bridge Question 13. ________ she could not say anything.

A. So upset was she that B. So upset was she C. However upset was she that D. Therefore upset was she that Question 14. Migrant workers are________ to exploitation.

A. eager B. vulnerable C. available D. considerate Question 15. Internationally, 189 countries have signed _______ accord agreeing to create Biodiversity Action Plans to protect endangered and other threatened species.

A. a B. an C. the D. Ø Question 16. Carl ________ studied harder; he failed the test again.

A. must have B. should have C. could have D. needn't have

Question 17. ________ to the skin, they eventually got to the station.

A. Soaked B. Soaking C. To soak D. Having soaked Question 18. It's no good________ to him; he never answers letters.

A. write B. to write C. writing D. for writing Question 19. When old Mr. Barnaby died, several people________ their claim to the substantial legacy that he left.

A. placed B. drew C. assumed D. laid Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20. Would you mind closing the window please?

A. Yes of course. Are you cold?

B. No, not at all. I will close it now.

C. Yes I do. You can close it.

D. Yes of course you can do it.

Question 21. Do you have the time please?

A. I am very sorry. I am already late.

B. I am busy right now. I am afraid.

C. I am sorry I don’t have a watch here. D. Yes I have some time for you.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. The people of the province wanted to become a sovereign state.

A. rich B. self-ruling C. new D. colonized Question 23. The prince was next in the order of succession.

A. death B. eating C. height D. replacement Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24. Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.

A. failed to pay B. paid in full C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money Question 25. His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning .

A. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. Slippery as the roads were, they managed to complete the race.

A. The roads were so slippery that they could hardly complete the race.

B. The roads were slippery but they managed to complete the race.

C. The roads were slippery so they could hardly complete the race.

D. The roads were so slippery; therefore, they could hardly complete the race.

Question 27. They decided to go for a picnic though it was very cold.

A. Because it was very cold, they decided to go for a picnic.

B. However cold it was, they decided to go for a picnic.

C. If it had been cold, they would not have gone for a picnic.

D. It was very cold so they decided to go for a picnic.

Question 28. Both Peter and Mary enjoy scientific expedition.

A. It is not Peter, but Mary, that enjoys scientific expedition.

B. Peter enjoys scientific expedition. Therefore, does Mary.

C. However Peter enjoys scientific expedition and Mary does.

D. Peter enjoys scientific expedition, and so does Mary.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. Henry should have done his homework last night, but he watched TV instead.

A. Henry did not do his homework last night because he was busy with the television set.

B. Henry watched TV last night instead of doing his homework.

C. Henry did not watch TV last night because he had to do his homework.

D. Henry did his homework while watching TV. Question 30. Seeing that he was angry, she left the office.

A. She didn't want to make him angry, so she left.

B. He wouldn't have been so angry if she hadn't been there.

C. He grew very angry when he saw her leaving the office.

D. She left the office when she saw how angry he was.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

English has without a (31) ____ become the second language of Europe and the world.

European countries which have most (32) ____ assimilated English into daily life are England's neighbors in Northern Europe: Ireland, the Netherlands, Sweden, Norway, and the rest of Scandinavia.

The situation is so (33) ____ that any visitor to the Netherlands will soon be aware of the pressure of English on daily life: television, radio and print bring it into every home and the schoolyard conversation of children; advertisers use it to (34) ____ up their message, journalists take refuge in it when their home-bred skills fail them. Increasingly one hears the (35) ____ that Dutch will give way to English as the national tongue within two or three generations.

Question 31.

A.

Question 32.

A.

Question 33.

question

B.

doubt

C.

problem

D.

thought

successfully

B.

victorious

C.

successful

D.

lucrative

A.

plain

B.

open

C.

blatant

D.

marked

Question 34.

A.

life

B.

energy

C.

pep

D.

enthusiasm

Question 35

A.

feeling

B.

posture

C.

judgment

D.

view

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

ARE HUMAN BEINGS GETTING SMARTER? Do you think you're smarter than your parents and grandparents? According to James Flynn, a professor at a New Zealand university, you are! Over the course of the last century, people who have taken IQ tests have gotten increasingly better scores-on average, three points better for every decade that has passed. This improvement is known as "the Flynn effect," and scientists want to know what is behind it.

IQ tests and other similar tests are designed to measure general intelligence rather than knowledge. Flynn knew that intelligence is partly inherited from our parents and partly the result of our environment and experiences, but the improvement in test scores was happening too quickly to be explained by heredity. So what was happening in the 20th century that was helping people achieve higher scores on intelligence tests?

Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect. Some suggest that the improved test scores simply reflect an increased exposure to tests in general. Because we take so many tests, we learn test-taking techniques that help us perform better on any test. Others have pointed to better nutrition since it results in babies being born larger, healthier, and with more brain development than in the past. Another possible explanation is a change in educational styles, with teachers encouraging children to learn by discovering things for themselves rather than just memorizing information. This could prepare people to do the kind of problem solving that intelligence tests require.

Flynn limited the possible explanations when he looked carefully at the test data and

discovered that the improvement in scores was only on certain parts of the IQ test. Test takers didn't do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test; they did better on sections that required a special kind of reasoning and problem solving. For example, one part of the test shows a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for patterns and connections between them and decide which shape should be added to the set.

According to Flynn, this visual intelligence improves as the amount of technology in our lives increases. Every time you play a computer game or figure out how to program a new cell phone, you are exercising exactly the kind of thinking and problem solving that helps you do well on one kind of intelligence test. So are you really smarter than your parents? In one very specific way, you may be.

Question 36. The Flynn effect is____________.

A. used to measure intelligent B. an increase in IQ test scores over time C. unknown in some parts of the world D. not connected to our experiences Question 37. The Flynn effect must be the result of____________.

A. heredity B. our environment and experiences C. taking fewer tests D. memorizing information Question 38. IQ tests evaluate____________.

A. our knowledge B. our environment C. our intelligence D. our memories Question 39. Which sentence from the article gives a main idea?

A. Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect.

B. Because we take so many tests in our lives, we learn test-taking techniques that help us perform better on any test.

C. Test-takers didn’t do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test.

D. For example, one part of the test shows a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for pattern and connections between them and decide which shape should be added to the set.

Question 40. According to the article, newer education techniques include____________.

A. exposure to many tests B. children finding things out themselves C. memorizing information D. improved test scores Question 41. Why does the author mention computer games?

A. to give an example of technology that improve our visual intelligence.

B. to explain why young people have poor vocabularies.

C. to encourage the reader to exercise.

D. to show that young people are not getting more intelligent.

Question 42. Which statement would Professor Flynn agree with?

A. People today are more intelligent than in the past in every way.

B. People today have fewer problems to solve.

C. People today are taking easier tests.

D. People today have more visual intelligence.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Learning means acquiring knowledge or developing the ability to perform new behaviors. It

is common to think of learning as something that takes place in school, but much of human learning occurs outside the classroom, and people continue to learn throughout their lives.

Even before they enter school, young children learn to walk, to talk, and to use their hands to manipulate toys, food, and other objects. They use all of their senses to learn about the sights, sounds, tastes, and smells in their environments. They learn how to interact with their parents, siblings, friends, and other people important to their world. When they enter school, children learn basic academic subjects such as reading, writing, and mathematics. They also continue to learn a great deal outside the classroom. They learn which behaviors are likely to be rewarded and which are likely to be punished. They learn social skills for interacting with other children. After they finish school, people must learn to adapt to the many major changes that affect their lives, such as getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job.

Because learning continues throughout our lives and affects almost everything we do, the study of learning is important in many different fields. Teachers need to understand the best ways to educate children. Psychologists, social workers, criminologists, and other human-service workers need to understand how certain experiences change people’s behaviors. Employers, politicians, and advertisers make use of the principles of learning to influence the behavior of workers, voters, and consumers.

Learning is closely related to memory, which is the storage of information in the brain.

Psychologists who study memory are interested in how the brain stores knowledge, where this storage takes place, and how the brain later retrieves knowledge when we need it. In contrast, psychologists who study learning are more interested in behavior and how behavior changes as a result of a person’s experiences.

There are many forms of learning, ranging from simple to complex. Simple forms of learning involve a single stimulus. A stimulus is anything perceptible to the senses, such as a sight, sound, smell, touch, or taste. In a form of learning known as classical conditioning, people learn to associate two stimuli that occur in sequence, such as lightning followed by thunder. In operant conditioning, people learn by forming an association between a behavior and its consequences (reward or punishment). People and animals can also learn by observation – that is, by watching others perform behaviors. More complex forms of learning in clued learning languages, concepts, and motor skills.

Question 43. According to the passage, which of the following is learning in broad view comprised of?

A. Acquisition of academic knowledge B. Acquisition of social and behavioral skills C. Knowledge acquisition and ability development D. Knowledge acquisition outside the classroom Question 44. According to the passage, what are children NOT usually taught outside the classroom?

A. Literacy and calculation B. Interpersonal communication C. Life skills D. Right from wrong Question 45. Getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job are mentioned in paragraph 2 as examples of ________.

A. the situations in which people cannot teach themselves B. the changes to which people have to orient themselves C. the areas of learning which affect people’s lives D. the ways people’s lives are influenced by education Question 46. Which of the following can be inferred about the learning process from the passage?

A. It is more interesting and effective in school than that in life.

B. It becomes less challenging and complicated when people grow older.

C. It plays a crucial part in improving the learner’s motivation in school.

D. It takes place more frequently in real life than in academic institutions.

Question 47. It can be inferred from the passage that social workers, employers, and politicians

concern themselves with the study of learning because they need to ______.

A. understand how a stimulus relates to the senses of the objects of their interest B. change the behaviors of the objects of their interest towards learning C. thoroughly understand the behaviors of the objects of their interest D. make the objects of their interest more aware of the importance of learning Question 48. The word “retrieves� in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. recovers B. generates C. creates D. gains Question 49. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Psychologists studying learning are interested in human behaviors.

B. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with how the stored knowledge is used.

C. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with the brain’s storage of knowledge.

D. Psychologists are all interested in memory as much as behaviors.

Question 50. The passage mainly discusses ______.

A. simple forms of learning B. practical examples of learning inside the classroom C. general principles of learning D. application of learning principles to formal education THE END

ĐỀ 6 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. situation B. story C. sugar D. station Question 2. A. hate B. hat C. bad D. dad Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. report B. master C. foreign D. private Question 4. A. automatic B. conversation C. disadvantage D. reasonable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. Children subjected to violence, exploitation, abuse and neglect are in risk of death, A B C poor physical and mental health, HIV/AIDS infection, and educational problems.

D Question 6. It spent a long time to travel to the skiing resort but in the end, we got there.

A B C D Question 7. Helen has never met such good person who is ready to help others.

A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8. Ever since we quarreled in the office, Janice and I have been ____________ enemies.

A. assured B. sworn C. defined D. guaranteed Question 9. ____________ Tom nor his brothers help in the housework.

A. Not B. Both C. Either D. Neither Question 10. Good restaurants serving traditional English food are very hard to ____________ A. come into B. come by C. come to D. come at Question 11. Steel_______ with chromium to produce a noncorrosive substance known as stainless steel.

A. is combined B. that is combined C. combining D. when combined Question 12. Ann’s encouraging words gave me ____ to undertake the demanding task once again.

A. a point B. an incentive C. a resolution D. a target Question 13. Having made his first film earlier this year, he is____________ starring in a new musical.

A. actually B. currently C. lately D. recently Question 14. It's no____________ asking him for anything seeing that he's not very responsive to our requests.

A. well B. fine C. need D. good Question 15. They are happily married although, of course, they argue____________ A. most times B. from day to day C. every now and then D. on the occasion Question 16. People who reverse the letters of words _______ to read suffer from dyslexia.

A. if they tried B. when trying C. when tried D. if he tries Question 17. Mary was the last applicant____________ A. to be interviewed B. to be interviewing C. to interview D. to have interviewed Question 18. My cat would not have bitten the toy fish____________ it was made of rubber.

A. if she has known B. if she should known

C. had she known D. if she knew Question 19. You ____________ thirsty after such a long walk on a hot day like this.

A. should have been B. must be C. must have been D. should be Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20. Tom: “I thought your performance last Sunday was wonderful.”

Laura: “________________________” A. Don’t tell a lie. I thought it was terrible.

B. You must be kidding. It was not as good as I had expected.

C. I completely agree with you. It was terrific.

D. No doubt!

Question 21. Boy: “What is your greatest phobia?”

Girl: “________________________” A. I'm afraid not.

B. Worms, definitely!

C. Probably people who smoke.

D. I haven't made up my mind.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. The government initiative to clean up the beaches was a success.

A. higher taxes B. organized effort C. introduction D. time period Question 23. His new degree opened up many avenues of opportunity for him.

A. channels B. streets C. names D. problems Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24. I’ve become a bit of a couch potato since I stopped playing football.

A. a kind person B. a lazy person C. a nice person D. a live wire Question 25. That last comment of yours won the day because nobody could possibly argue with you after that.

A. was a success B. was a big hit C. was a break-through D. was a failure Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. Seeing that he was so angry, she left the office A. She left the office when she saw how angry he was B. She didn’t want to make him angry, so she left the office C. He grew very angry when he saw her leaving the office D. He wouldn’t have been so angry if she hadn’t left Question 27. When I was younger I used to go climbing more than I do now A. Now I don’t go climbing anymore B. I used to go climbing when I was younger C. I don’t like going climbing anymore D. Now I don’t go climbing as much as I did Question 28. The more money Dane makes, the more his wife spends.

A. Dane spends more money than his wife.

B. Dane's wife keeps spending more money.

C. Dane spends the money his wife makes D. Dane and his wife both make money.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window.

A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window.

B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.

C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.

D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.

Question 30. The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.

A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.

B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.

C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.

D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Here is a wonderful opportunity at a small cost to visit the truly remarkable island of Cuba.

We have (31) ________ rooms at some of the finest hotels for periods of 7 and 14 nights. You may divide your time between relaxing and exploring this beautiful country by taking advantage of our extensive excursion programme.

The diversity of such a small country is amazing and, as it is set in the warm waters of Caribbean, it is (32) ________ to have one of the most pleasant climates in the world. Cuba, being so small, is not only an ideal country to tour, but it's also a place where visitors can relax and (33) ________ in exotic surroundings. Not only has nature (34) ________ Cuba with magnificent coast and some fine sandy beaches, but there are also extensive facilities near them. Most beaches are close to important sites such as international parks with their abundant wildlife, flora and fauna.

Because the south of the island is blessed with being the driest region in the country most hotels are situated here. Rain is however (35) ________ in the north from December to July.

Question 31. A. reserved Question 32. A. suggested Question 33. A. unwind Question 34. A. enhanced Question 35. A. unusual

B. registered B. hoped B. uncoil B. endowed B. interminable

C. required C. reputed C. unburden C. endured C. inevitable

D. retained D. credited D. unroll D. enlightened D. unfortunate

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

BRINGING UP CHILDREN Where one stage of child development has been left out, or not sufficiently experienced, the child may have to go back and capture the experience of it. A good home makes this possible for example, by providing the opportunity for the child to play with a clockwork car or toy railway train up to any age if he still needs to do so. This principle, in fact, underlies all psychological treatment of children in difficulties with their development, and is the basic of work in child clinics.

The beginnings of discipline are in the nursery. Even the youngest baby is taught by gradual stages to wait for food, to sleep and wake at regular intervals and so on. If the child feels the world around him is a warm and friendly one, he slowly accepts its rhythm and accustoms himself to conforming to its demands. Learning to wait for things, particularly for food, is a very important element in upbringing, and is achieved successfully only if too great demands are not made before the child can understand them. Every parent watches eagerly the child's acquisition of each new skill: the first spoken words, the first independent steps, or the beginning of reading and writing. It is often tempting to hurry the child beyond his natural learning rate, but this can set up dangerous feelings of failure and states of anxiety in the child. This might happen at any stage. A baby might be forced to use a toilet too early, a young child might be encouraged to learn to read before he knows the meaning of the words he reads. On the other hand, though, if a child is left alone too much, or without any learning opportunities, he loses his natural zest for life and his desire to find out new things for himself.

Learning together is a fruitful source of relationship between children and parents. By playing together, parents learn more about their children and children learn more from their parents. Toys and games which both parents and children can share are an important means of achieving this co-operation. Building-block toys, jigsaw puzzles and crosswords are good examples.

Parents vary greatly in their degree of strictness or indulgence towards their children.

Some may be especially strict in money matters; others are severe over times of coming home at night, punctuality for meals or personal cleanliness. In general, the controls imposed represent the needs of the parents and the values of the community as much as the child's own happiness and well-being.

With regard to the development of moral standards in the growing child, consistency is very important in parental teaching. To forbid a thing one day and excuse it the next is no foundation for morality. Also, parents should realize that“Example is better than precept”. If they are hypocritical and do not practice what they preach, their children may grow confused and emotionally insecure when they grow old enough to think for themselves, and realize they have been, to some extent, deceived. A sudden awareness of a marked difference between their parents' ethics and their morals can be a dangerous disillusion.

Question 36. The principle underlying all treatment of developmental difficulties in children .

A. is in the provision of clockwork toys and trains B. is to send them to clinics C. is to capture them before they are sufficiently experienced D. offers recapture of earlier experiences Question 37. Learning to wait for things is successfully taught .

A. in spite of excessive demands being made B. only if excessive demands are avoided C. because excessive demands are not advisable D. is achieved successfully by all children Question 38. The encouragement of children to achieve new skills .

A. should be focused on only at school B. can never be taken too far C. will always assist their development D. should be balanced and moderate Question 39. Parental controls and discipline .

A. serve a dual purpose B. are designed to promote the child's happiness C. reflect only the values of the community D. should be avoided as far as possible Question 40. The practice of the rule “Example is better than precept” .

A. only works when the children grow old enough to think for themselves B. would help avoid the necessity for ethics and morals C. will free a child from disillusion when he grows up D. is too difficult for all parents to exercise Question 41. In the 1st paragraph, the author lays some emphasis on the role of ____ helping the child in trouble.

A. Psychiatrists B.community C. family D.nursery Question 42. Hypocrisy on the part of the Parents may__________.

A. result in their children's wrong behaviors.

B. make their children lose faith in them C. disqualify their teachings altogether D. impair their children's mind Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate

the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen to safety instructions before take-off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how to release mechanism of your belt operates. During take-offs and landings, you are advised to keep your feet flat on the floor. Before take-off you should locate the nearest exit and an alternative exit and count the rows of seats between you and the exits to so that you can find them in the dark if necessary.

In the event that you are forewarned of a possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down until the plane comes to a complete stop. If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkins, towels, or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly as possible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape slides before they are inflated, and when you jump, do so with your arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away from them as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage.

Question 43. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival.

B. Airline industry accident statistics.

C. Procedures for evacuating aircraft.

D. Safety instructions in air travel.

Question 44. Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions A. if smoke is in the cabin B. before take off C. in an emergency D. before locating the exits Question 45. According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before takeoff.

A. The ones with counted rows of seats between them.

B. The ones that can be found in the dark.

C. The two closest to the passenger's seat.

D. The nearest one.

Question 46. It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely to survive fires in aircrafts if they____________.

A. wear a safety belt B. don't smoke in or near a plane C. read airline safety statistics D. keep their heads low Question 47. Airline passengers are advised to do all of the following EXCEPT A. locate the nearest exit B. ask questions about safety C. fasten their seat belts before takeoff D. carry personal belongings in an emergency Question 48. The word "inflated" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to A. extended B. assembled C. lifted D. expanded Question 49. The word "wreckage" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to A. material B. damage C. prosperity D. wreck Question 50. What does the paragraph following the passage most probably discuss!

A. How to recover your luggage B. Where to go to continue your trip C. When to return to the aircraft D. How to proceed once you are away from the aircraft

___THE END___

ĐỀ 7 Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions Question 1: A. important B. informal C. intention D. impolite Question 2:A. demand B. desert C. decide D. defend Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs in the pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 3: A. seizure B. measure C. confusion D. tension Question 4: A. whole B. whoop C. whose D. white Mark the letter A, B, C, D to show the underlined part that needs correction Question 5: Mrs. Steven, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the festivities A. with B. her cousins from C. are D. to attend Question 6: The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power, and it is very cruel A. The B. long C. a D. it is very cruel Question 7: The function of pain is to warn the individual of danger so he can take action to avoid more serious damage A. to warn B. so C. he D. serious Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 8: Peter was born and brought up in Cornwall and he knows the place like the ____ A. nose on his face B. back of his hand C. hairs on his head D. tip of his tongue Question 9: I am _____ of the two children in our family A. the tallest B. the taller C. tall D. taller Question 10: I want to ____ this old car for a Ferrari but I don’t have enough money now A. change B. exchange C. sell D. replace Question 11: I had to look up the number in the telephone ____ A. directors B. directly C. direction D. directory Question 12: It’s hard to _____ on less than a million a month A. make ends meet B. make a fuss C. make up your mind D. make a mess Question 13: Only if I had known the difference ____ the more expensive car A. would I bought B. would I have bought C. would I buy D. I would have bought Question 14: He impressed ____ his mind the words his father said to him that day A. in B. on C. at D. of Question 15: I have bad toothache today. I ____ to the dentist yesterday when it started hurting A. should go B. should be C. should have gone D. should have been Question 16: The house still remains in ___ after the hurricane A. a good condition B. good condition C. good conditions D. the good condition

Question 17: Sales ___ are paid a salary but they may also get commissions on sales A. representations B. presenters C. presentations D. representatives Question 18: They intended to ____ with the old computers as soon as they could afford some new ones A. do away B. do up C. do over D. do down Question 19: We regret to tell you that materials you order are out of _____ A. work B. stock C. reach D. practice Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following questions.

Question 20: “Didn’t you go to the cinema last night?” “____” A. Yes, I lost the ticket B. No. It was too cold to go out C. Ok. That was a good idea D. Yes, I stayed at home Question 21: “Today is my 18th birthday” “______” A. Many happy returns!

B. I don’t understand C. Take care D. Have a good time Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part Question 22 : Although the prank was meant in fun, the man became very angry A. remark B. praise C. trick D. game Question 23: It was impossible to know how precarious the situation was A. hazardous B. ludicrous C. facetious D. marvelous Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part Question 24: He was not a good father. He neglected his children A. blamed B. took care of C. disregarded D. punished Question 25: Mr. Armstrong is said to be a fairly well-to-do man A. big B. important C. wealthy D. poor Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions According to airline industry statistics, almost 90% of airline accidents are survivable or partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen to safety instructions before take-off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how the release mechanism of your belt operates.

During take-offs and landings, you are advised to keep your feed flat on the floor. Before take-off you should locate the nearest exit and an alternative exit and count the rows of seats between you and the exits so that you can find them in the dark if necessary In the event that you are forewarned of a possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down until the plane comes to a complete stop. If smoke is present

in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkin, towels or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly as possible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape slides before they’re fully inflated, and when you jump, do so with your arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away from the plane as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage Question 26: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Airline industry accident statistics B. Procedures for evacuating aircraft C. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival D. Safety instruction in air travel Question 27: Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions _____ A. in an emergency B. before locating the exits C. if smoke is in the cabin D. before take-off Question 28: According to the passage, when should you keep your feet flat on the floor?

A. throughout the flight B. during take-offs and landings C. especially during landings D. only if an accident is possible Question 29: According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before takeoff” A. The ones that can be found in the dark B. The two closest to the passenger’s seat C. The nearest one D. The ones with counted rows of seats between them Question 30: The word “them” in the last line of the first paragraph refers to ___ A. rows B. feet C. seats D. exits Question 31: It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely to survive fires in aircraft if they ____ A. keep their heads low B. war a safety belt C. don’t smoke in or near a plane D. read airline safety statistics Question 32: Airline passengers are advised to do all of the following EXCEPT ____ A. locate the nearest exits B. ask questions about safety C. fasten their seat belts before take-off D. carry personal belongings in an emergency Question 33: The word “evacuate” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____ A. evade B. vacate C. escape D. maintain Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Franklin D. Roosevelt, the 32nd President of the United States, was from a wealthy well-known family. As a child, he attended private school, had private tutors, and traveled with his parents to Europe. He attended Harvard University, and afterward studied law. At age 39, Roosevelt suddenly developed polio, a disease that left him without the full use of his legs for the rest of his life. Even

though the worst of his illness, however, he continued his life in politics. In 1942 he appeared at the Democratic National Convention to nominate Al Smith for president, and eight years after that he himself was nominated for the same office. Roosevelt was elected to the presidency during the Great Depression of the 1930s, at a time when more than 5,000 banks had failed and thousands of people were out of work. Roosevelt took action. First he declared a bank holiday that closed all the banks so no more could fail; then he reopened the banks little by little with government support. Roosevelt believed in using the full power of government to help what he called the “forgotten people”. And it was these workers, the wage earners, who felt the strongest affection toward Roosevelt. There were others, however, who felt that Roosevelt’s policies were destroying the American system of government, and they opposed him in the same intense way that others admired him In 1940 the Democrats nominated Roosevelt for an unprecedented third term. No president in American history had ever served three terms, but Roosevelt felt an obligation not to quit while the United States’ entry into World War II was looming in the future. He accepted the nomination and went on to an easy victory Question 34: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. political aspects of Roosevelt’s life B. problems during the Great Depression C. Roosevelt’s upbringing D. criticisms of Roosevelt’s action Question 35: Which on of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Roosevelt was elected during the Great Depression B. Roosevelt voted for Al Smith C. Roosevelt had difficulty walking during his presidency D. Roosevelt supported strong government powers Question 36: The phrase “took action” in the first paragraph is used to illustrate the idea that Roosevelt _______ A. performed admirably B. exerted himself physically C. responded immediately D. got assistance Question 37: As used in the passage, the phrase “little by little” means that Roosevelt ____ A. opened the smaller banks first B. opened the banks for minimal services C. opened the banks a few at a time D. opened the bank for a short time Question 38: The word “full” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of the following?

A. packed B. loaded C. overflowing D. complete Question 39: The word “affection” could be best replaced by which of the following?

A. fascination B. fondness C. lure D. appeal Question 40: In the second paragraph, the author uses the word “looming” to indicate a feeling of _____ A. reservation B. determination C. regret D. threat Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word (s) for each of the blanks

All men should study, we have to study to (41) _____ our knowledge and develop our intelligence. An uneducated man can only utilize his body strength to work and live. An educated man, without this strength, still has the faculty of his intelligent brain and good inflection. This intelligence and thought enable him to help his physical strength to act more quickly (42)_____ cleverly In a same profession or work, the educated man differs from the uneducated considerably.

Therefore, intellectual workers have to study, this is a matter of course but (43)____ workers must also (44)_____ an education In civilized countries compulsory education has been applied. Man must spend seven or eight years studying. From ploughmen to laborers in these nations, no one is (45)____ to read a book or a paper fluently Question 41:A. wide B. widely C. widen D. broad Question 42:A. and B. but C. yet D. or Question 43: A. simple B. easy C. hard D. manual Question 44:A. learn B. study C. acquire D. know Question 45:A. able B. unable C. not D. never Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: They say that the doctor has made a serious mistake.

A. The doctor is said that he has made a serious mistake.

B. It is said that the doctor has been made a serious mistake.

C. The doctor is said to have made a serious mistake.

D. The doctor is said to make a serious mistake.

Question 47: My shoes need cleaning.

A. I need to clean my shoes.

B. I have to clean my shoes.

C. Cleaning is needed for my shoes.

D. I need to have my shoes cleaned.

Question 48: She is the most intelligent woman I have ever met.

A. I have never met a more intelligent woman than her.

B. She is not as intelligent as the women I have ever met.

C. I have ever met such an intelligent woman.

D. She is more intelligent than I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: As the luggage was so heavy, we had to take a taxi.

A. We had to take a taxi because of the heavy luggage.

B. We had to take a taxi so that we can have heavy luggage.

C. Although the luggage was heavy, we took a taxi.

D. We had to take a taxi, so we had heavy luggage.

Question 50: I was offered to work for IBM, but I rejected.

A. I turned down the offer to work for IBM. B. I rejected to offer to work for IBM.

C. IBM refused my offer to work.

D. I was refused by IBM at work

ĐỀ 8 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. contain

B. purchase

C. reflect

D. suggest

Question 2. A. facilitate

B. dimensional

C. historical

D. instrumental

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. change

B. generous

C. gear

D. jealous

Question 4. A. lost

B. post

C. loan

D. pole

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. The small, ______ farms of New England were not appropriate for the Midwest.

A. self-supporting

B. self-supported

C. supporting themselves

D. they supported themselves

Question 6. The access __________ education and the change __________ economic status have given women more freedom.

A. in / in B. at / from C. to / in D. in / to Question 7. He really deserved the award because he performed _________ what was expected of him.

A. much better than

B. much better which

C. the most that

D. much more as

Question 8. _______the phone rang later that night did Anna remember the appointment.

A. No sooner

B. Just before

C. Not until

D. Only

Question 9. Everything is __________ you. I cannot make __________ my mind yet.

A.out off / on B. up to /up C. away from / for D. on for / off Question 10. ______ his brother, Mike is active and friendly.

A. Alike

B. Unlike

C. Dislike

D. Liking

Question 11. It was announced that neither the passengers nor the driver _________in the crash.

A. are injured B. was injured C. were injured D. have been injured Question 12. I phoned the company, who ______ me that my goods had been dispatched.

A. guaranteed

B. assured

C. reassured

D. confirmed

Question 13. When the car was invented, I don’t think anyone could have predicted______it would change the world.

A. how

B. when

C. why

D. what

Question 14. Dry salt lakes _________ 70 kilometers long and 15 kilometers wide lie _________ long dunes __________ crests 20 meters high.

A. up to / between / with B. up with / for / to C. to up / from / for

D.up to/ at/to

Question 15. He acted in an extremely__________ manner, which made him very unpopular.

A. dictatorial B. dictate C. dictation D. dictatorship Question 16. Have they __________ the "No Smoking" sign?

A. caught sight of B. taken care of C. put an end to D. made fun of Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 17. Daisy: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” - Mary: “_______” A. Thank you very much! I am afraid.

B. You are telling a lie.

C. Thank you for your compliment!

D. I don't like your sayings.

Question 18. Dick: “Sorry, Brian is not here.” - Peter: “_________” A. Would you like to leave a message?

B. Can I take a message then?

C. Can I speak to Brian, please?

D. Can I leave a message then?

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheets to indicate the word (s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. By the end of the storm, the hikers had depleted even their emergency stores.

A. greatly dropped

B. lost

C. destroyed

D. used almost all of

Question 20. Originally the builders have me a price of $5,000, but now they say they underestimated it, and now it’s going to be at least $8,000.

A. misjudged

B. underrated

C. undervalued

D. outnumbered

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks.

School exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of test we take. They find out how much knowledge we have gained. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all, isn’t it a fact that some people who are very academically successful don’t have any common sense.

Intelligence is the speed ___(21)_____ which we can understand and react to new situations and it is usually tested by logic puzzles. Although scientist are now preparing

___(22)_____ computer technology that will be able to “read” our brains, for the present tests are still the most popular ways of measuring intelligence.

A person’s IQ is their intelligence as it is measured by a special test. The most common IT tests are ___(23)_____ by Mensa, an organization that was found in England in 1946. By 1976, it had 1,300 members in Britain. Today there are 44,000 in Britain and 100,000 worldwide largely in the US. People taking the tests are judged in ___(24)_____ to an average score of 100, and those who score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This works out at 2 percent of the population. Anyone from the age of six can take tests. All the questions are straightforward and most people can answer them if allowed enough time. But that’s the problem; the whole ___(25)_____ of the test is that they’re against the clock.

Question 21. A. to

B. on

C. at

D. in

Question 22. A. ahead

B. upper

C. forward

D. advanced

Question 23. A. steered

B. commanded

C. run

D. appointed

Question 24. A. relation

B. regard

C. association

D. concern

Question 25. A. reason

B. question

C. matter

D. point

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions At 7 pm on a dark, cold November evening, thousands of people are making their way across a vast car park. They're not here to see a film, or the ballet, or even the circus. They are all here for what is, bizarrely, a global phenomenon: they are here to see Holiday on Ice. Given that most people don’t seem to be acquainted with anyone who's ever been, the show's statistics are extraordinary: nearly 300 million people have seen Holiday on Ice since it began in 1943; it is the most popular live entertainment in the world.

But what does the production involve? And why are so many people prepared to spend their lives travelling round Europe in caravans in order to appear in it? It can't be glamorous, and it's undoubtedly hard work. The backstage atmosphere is an odd mix of gym class and workplace. A curtained-off section at the back of the arena is laughably referred to as the girls' dressing room, but is more accurately described as a corridor, with beige, cracked walls and cheap temporary tables set up along the length of it. Each girl has a small area littered with pots of orange make-up, tubes of mascara and long false eyelashes.

As a place to work, it must rank pretty low down the scale: the area round the ice-rink is grey and mucky with rows of dirty blue and brown plastic seating and red carpet tiles. It's an unimpressive picture, but the show itself is an unquestionably vast, polished global enterprise: the lights come from a firm in Texas, the people who make the audio system are in California, but Montreal supplies the smoke effects; former British Olympic skater Robin Cousins is now creative director for the company and conducts a vast master class to make sure they're ready for the show's next performance.

The next day, as the music blares out from the sound system, the case start to go through their routines under Cousins' direction. Cousins says, 'The aim is to make sure they're all still getting to exactly the right place on the ice at the right time - largely because the banks of lights in the ceiling are set to those places, and if the skaters are all half a metre out they'll be illuminating empty ice. Our challenge, ' he continues, 'is to produce something they can sell in a number of countries at the same time. My theory is that you take those things that people want to see and you give it to them, but not in the way they expect to see it. You try to twist it. And you have to find music that is challenging to the skaters, because they have to do it every night.'

It may be a job which he took to pay the rent, but you can’t doubt his enthusiasm. 'They only place you'll see certain skating moves is an ice show,' he says, 'because you're not allowed to do them in competition. It's not in the rules. So the ice show word has things to offer which the competitive world just doesn't. Cousins knows what he's talking about because he skated for the show himself when he stopped competing - he was financially unable to retire. He learnt the hard way that you can't put on an Olympic performance every night. I'd be thinking, these people have paid their money, now do your stuff, and I suddenly thought, "I really can't cope.

I'm not enjoying it".' The solution, he realized, was to give 75 per cent every night, rather than striving for the sort of twice-a-year excellence which won him medals.

To be honest, for those of us whose only experience of ice-skating is watching top-class Olympic skaters, some of the movements can look a bit amateurish, but then, who are we to judge? Equally, it's impossible not to be swept up in the whole thing; well, you'd have to try pretty hard not to enjoy it.

Question 26. The writer describes the backstage area in order to show A.

how much fun the cast have during their work

B.

how much preparation is needed for a performance

C.

the type of skater that the show attracts

D.

the conditions that the skaters put up with

Question 27. The word blares out in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to A. seeps out

B. sounds beautifully C. resounds loudly

D. rings

Question 28. What does the writer highlight about the show in the third paragraph?

A.

the difficulty of finding suitable equipment

B.

the need for a higher level of professional support

C.

the range of companies involved in the production

D.

the variety of places in which the show has been staged

Question 29. The word them in paragraph 5 refers to A. skating moves

B. skating competitions

C. things that people want to see

D. the skaters

Question 30. For Robin Cousins, the key point when rehearsing skating routines is A. keeping in time with the music

B. the skaters' positions on the ice

C. the movement of the lights

D. filling all available space on the ice

Question 31. Cousins believes that he can meet the challenge of producing shows for different audiences A.

by adapting movements to suit local tastes

B.

by presenting familiar material in an unexpected way

C.

by selecting music that local audiences will respond to

D.

by varying the routines each night

Question 32. What is meant by 'the hard way'?

A.

through making a lot of errors

B.

through difficult personal experience

C.

by misunderstanding the expectations of others

D.

by over-estimating the ability of others

Question 33. What conclusion does the writer draw about Holiday on Ice? A.It is hard to know who really enjoys it B.

It requires as much skill as Olympic ice-skating

C.

It is more enjoyable to watch than formal ice-skating

D.

It is difficult to dislike it

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Before the 1500’s, the western plains of North America were dominated by farmers. One group, the Mandans, lived in the upper Missouri River country, primarily in present – day North Dakota. They had large villages of houses built close together. The tight arrangement enabled the Mandans to protect themselves more easily from the attacks of others who might seek to obtain some of the food these highly capable farmers stored from one year to the next.

The women had primary responsibility for the fields. They had to exercise considerable skill to produce the desired results, for their northern location meant fleeting growing seasons.

Winter often lingered; autumn could be ushered in by severe frost. For good measure, during the spring and summer, drought, heat, hail, grasshoppers, and other frustrations might await the wary grower.

Under such conditions, Mandan women had to grow maize capable of weathering adversity. They began as early as it appeared feasible to do so in the spring, clearing the land, using fire to clear stubble from the fields and then planting. From this point until the first green corn could be harvested, the crop required labor and vigilance.

Harvesting proceeded in two stages. In August the Mandans picked a smaller amount of the crop before it had matured fully. This green corn was boiled, dried and shelled, with some of the maize slated for immediate consumption and the rest stored in animal – skin bags. Later in the fall, the people picked the rest of the corn. They saved the best of the harvest for seeds or for trade, with the remainder eaten right away or stored for alter use in underground reserves. With appropriate banking of the extra food, the Mandans protected themselves against the disaster of crop failure and accompany hunger.

The woman planted another staple, squash, about the first of June, and harvested it near the time of the green corn harvest. After they picked it, they sliced it, dried it, and strung the slices before they stored them. Once again, they saved the seeds from the best of the year’s crop. The Mandans also grew sunflowers and tobacco; the latter was the particular task of the older men.

Question 34. What is the main topic of the passage ?

A. The agricultural activities of a North American Society B. Various ways corn can be used.

C. The problems encountered by farmers specializing in growing once crop D. Weather conditions on the western plains.

Question 35. The Mandans built their houses close together in order to ____________.

A. share farming implements B. guard their supplies of food C. protect themselves against the weather D. allow more room for growing corn Question 36. Why does the author believe that the Mandans were skilled farmers?

A. They developed new varieties of corn.

B. They could grow crops despite adverse weather.

C. They developed effective fertilizers.

D. They could grow crops in most types of soil.

Question 37. Which of the following processes does the author imply was done by both men and women?

A. clearing fields

B. Harvesting corn

C. Harvesting squash D. Planting corn

Question 38. The word “disaster” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.

A. catastrophe

B. history.

C. control

D. avoidance

Question 39. The word “them” in the last paragraph refers to _________.

A. women

B. seeds

C. slices

D. the Mandans

Question 40. Throughout the passage, the author implies that the Mandans _________.

A. valued individuality

B. were very adventurous

C. were open to strangers D. planned for the future Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 41. Economists have tried to discourage the use of the phrase “underdeveloped nation and encouraging the more accurate phase “developing nation” in order to suggest an ongoing process.

A B C D Question 42. Being the biggest expanse of brackish water in the world, the Baltic Sea is of special interesting to scientists.

A B C D Question 43. It is time the government helped the unemployment to find some jobs.

A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 44. Why are you being so arrogant?

A. humble B. cunning C. naive D. snooty Question 45. Strongly advocating health foods, Jane doesn’t eat any chocolate.

A. denying B. impugning C. supporting D. advising Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 46Nobody is helping me, so I can’t finish my science project on time.

A. I could finish my science project on time if I were being helped by someone.

B. I needed help with my science project, but everyone just ignored me.

C. My science project will be difficult to do alone, so I should ask someone for help.

D. No one had time to help me, so I couldn’t finish my science project on time.

Question 47. Although they taste nearly the same, both Sprite and Mountain Dew are two separate citrus – flavoured soft drinks made by different companies.

A. Although Sprite has a stronger citrus taste than Mountain Dew, basically they are the same soft drink, though made by different companies.

B. Sprite and Mountain Dew are both manufactured by the same company, though they are similarly tasting citrus – flavoured soft drinks.

C. Produced by two different companies, Sprite and Mountain Dew, which are both citrus – flavoured soft drinks, taste practically no different.

D. Not made by the same company, Sprite and Mountain Dew are different from one another in the amount of their citrus flavouring.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions Question 48. I had no idea Clark spoke French until we went to Bordeaux.

A. I first realized that Clark knew French when we were in Bordeaux.

B. Before we went to Bordeaux, Clark had never tried to speak French.

C. While we were traveling to Bordeaux, Clark suddenly started to speak French.

D. It was difficult to understand the French that Clark was speaking in Bordeaux.

Question 49. One of the things I hate is noisy children.

A. I hate being in a place where there are noisy kids.

B. Children who make a lot of noise are terrible.

C. Among other things, I can’t stand children who make noise.

D. I hate both children and the noise they make.

Question 50. People who are unhappy sometimes try to compensate by eating too much.

A. Unhappy people are usually overweight because they tend to eat too much.

B. Eating too much occasionally makes people unhappy and depressed.

C. For some people, eating too much is a reason to be miserable.

D. When depressed, people occasionally attempt to offset their misery by overeating.

ĐỀ 9 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. hidden B. minor C. written D. kitten Question 2. A. studio

B study

C. stupid

D. student

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. attractive B. sociable C. dynamic D. conservative Question 4. A. entertain

B. enjoyable

C. anniversary

D. introduce

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. Adult humans have more than a trillion cells in his bodies.

A B C D Question 6. Rumors began circulating that the Prime Minister was seriously illness.

A B C D Question 7. A ten-thousand-dollars reward was offered for the capture of the escaped prisoner.

A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8. The popular press often contains a lot more____________ than hard facts.

A. speculation B. realism C. influence D. tolerance Question 9. Only in the Civil War____________ killed or wounded.

A. soldiers in America B. were so many American soldiers C. many in America D. so many American soldiers were Question 10. Susan was sad because she wasn’t invited to any social events. She felt ____________ A. left out B. turned out C. omitted outD. gone out Question 11. The equipment in our office needs____________ A. moderner B. modernizing C. modernized D. modernization Question 12. I’ve been working ____________ quite a lot of pressure lately.

A. in B. with C. on D. under Question 13. Joe seemed to be in a good mood, ________ he snapped at me angrily when I asked him to join us.

A. yet B. so C. for D. and Question 14. He gave me his personal____________ that his draft would be ready by Friday.

A. endurance B. insurance C. assurance D. ensurance Question 15. Several of my friends are ____________ reporters.

A. newspaper

B. newspapers

C. newspaper’s

D. newspapers’

Question 16. We have had the roof of our house _________.

A. to replace B. replace C. replaced D. been replaced Question 17. He gave her a mischievous ____________ as she handed him his order.

A. peer

B. peep

C. wink

D. blink

Question 18. No one died in the accident, ___________?

A. didn’t they B. did he C. didn’t he D. did they Question 19. Because of cutbacks in council spending, plans for the new swimming pool had to be

___________.

A. stockpiled

B. overthrown

C. shelved

D. disrupted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20. ‘Can I give you a little more coffee?’ ‘_______’.

A. No, you’re welcome.

B. Yes, you’re right.

C. No, thank you.

D. Yes, I’m Ok. Question 21. This suitcase s really heavy, and my back is killing me!’ ‘_______’.

A. I sometimes have a backache.

B. Oh, thanks for your help.

C. It’s very good of you to do that.

D. Shall I carry it?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. The computer was experiencing an internal problem.

A. international B. inner C. outside D. lasting forever Question 23. His job was to splice electrical wires inside houses.

A. destroy B. remove C. connect D. buy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24. It was a very wonderful opportunity for us to catch, so we should take advantage of it.

A. destroy B. break C. hold D. miss Question 25. I need everybody's help. The wedding is tomorrow and we haven't even started with the decorations yet. We have no time to lose.

A. a long time B. almost no time C. very little time D. a lot of time to spare Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. Be he rich or poor, she will marry him.

A. She doesn’t want to marry him because he is poor.

B. She wants to marry him if he is rich.

C. She will marry him whether he is rich or poor.

D. She will marry him however poor he may be.

Question 27. When I met my long-lost brother, I was at a loss for words.

A. When the speaker met his brother, he was puzzled about what to say.

B. When the speaker met his brother, he had much to say.

C. When the speaker met his brother, he refused to say anything.

D. When the speaker met his brother, he had nothing pleasant to say.

Question 28. Donald could not help weeping when he heard the bad news.

A. Donald could not stop himself from weeping at the bad news.

B. Donald could not allow himself to weep at the bad news.

C. Donald could not help himself and so he wept.

D. Donald could not help himself because he was weeping.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.

A. As long as he cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me.

B. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me.

C. He cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it.

D. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.

Question 30. His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious institution.

A. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that prestigious institution.

B. His academic record at high school was poor because he didn’t apply to that prestigious institution.

C. Failing to apply to that prestigious institution, his academic record at high school was poor.

D. His academic record at high school was poor; as a result, he failed to apply to that prestigious institution.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

The elementary means of communicating with other people is (31) ____ messages by voice.

This fact is widely acknowledged and we recognize the voice as a feature characterizing the identity of a person. The array of voices is immeasurable as no two are exactly similar. They can be nasal, resonant or shrill produced in accordance with the individual physical (32) _____ of the throat One possible implementation of the art of voice recognition is voice profiling used by police analysts as a method of (33) ____ court evidence in trials. Every year thousands of audiotapes with recorded interviews or casual utterances are put to the purpose to help identity the probable culprit. Specialists dealing with the voice investigation claim that people can give themselves away by their accents, infections or other voice attributes like pitch, intensity and loudness. A recorded sample is usually (34) _____ into electric impulses and later transformed into a pictorial recording which is processed by a computer program. Very frequently voice analysts have a stab at deciphering the relevant information which may be mingled with background noise or other interfering sounds until they attain the desired results.

Thankfully, these efforts help the police detect individuals who threaten their victim by phone or inform about bomb planting or those who make offensive calls (35) _____ the peace of decent citizens.

Question 31. A. commuting Question 32. A. tendencies Question 33. A. substantiating Question 34. A. reformed Question 35. A. distracting

D. conveying B. credentials B. facilitating B. exchanged B. dismantling

C. discharging C. assets C. pledging C. adjusted C. disturbing

D. informing D. properties D. withstanding D. converted D. dispersing

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Even with his diverse experience as an elected official at the state level, Andrew Johnson was the first president of the United States ever to be impeached, primarily because of his violent temper and unyielding stubbornness. His career started in 1828 with his collection to the city council of Greenville, Tennessee, and after two years as an alderman, he took office as mayor. His advancements followed in rapid succession when he was elected to the Tennessee state senate, then as the state governor, and later to the U.S. House of Representatives for five consecutive terms.

In 1864, Johnson ran for the office of vice-president on the Lincoln- Johnson ticket and was inaugurated in 1865. After Lincoln’s assassination six weeks into his term, Johnson found himself president at a time when southern leaders were concerned about their forced alliance with the

northern states and feared retaliation for their support of the secession. Instead, however, with the diplomatic skill he had learned from Lincoln, Johnson offered full pardon to almost all Confederates on the condition that they take an oath of allegiance. He further reorganized the former Confederate states and set up legislative elections.

Congressional opposition to his peace- making policies resulted in gridlock between the House and Johnson, and the stalemate grew into an open conflict on the issue of the emancipation of slaves. While Johnson held the view that newly freed slaves lacked understanding and knowledge of civil liberties to vote intelligently, Congress overrode Johnson’s veto of the Civil Rights Bill, which awarded them citizenship and ratified the Fourteenth Amendment. In the years that followed, Congress passed bills depriving the president of the power to pardon political criminals, stripping away his status of commander-in-chief, and taking away Johnson’s right to dismiss civil and executive officers from their duties. Johnson vetoed each bill, and each veto was overridden. When Johnson dismissedvthe secretary of war, Edwin Stanton, Stanton refused to step down and was supported by the House of Representatives, which voted to impeach Johnson. At the trial, the Senate came one vote short of the two-thirds majority necessary to remove him from office. After Johnson’s term expired, he returned to his home state, but in 1875 he was elected senator and went back to Washington to take his seat.

Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Andrew Johnson’s career as a politician B. Congressional decisions in the late 1800s C. Andrew Johnson’s personal characteristics D. Congressional decisions and procedures in the late 1800s Question 37. What can be inferred from the first paragraph about Andrew Johnson’s work in Tennessee?

A. He was represented to the posts five times.

B. His personality precluded him from important positions.

C. His work became known to the governor.

D. He was elected to several important posts.

Question 38. According to the passage, what led to Johnson’s downfall?

A. His personal characteristics B. His waffling and hesitation C. The state of the nation’s economy D. His liberal position on slavery Question 39. The author of the passage implies that when Johnson became president he A. had already experienced political turmoil B. was a dedicated supporter of civil rights C. was a soft-spoken and careful diplomat D. had an extensive background in politics Question 40. According to the passage, Congress’s disapproval of Andrew Johnson’s policies was A. directed at his civic duties B. short-lived and groundless C. detrimental to his presidency D. stopped as soon as it emerged Question 41. In line 21, the word “pardon” is closest in meaning to A. exonerate B. parade C. patronize D. extricate Question 42. According to the passage, the attempt to impeach Andrew Johnson A. overwhelmed his supporters in Tennessee B. succeeded as expected by the House C. failed by a minimal margin D. put an end to his political career Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the

correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Even before the turn of the century, movies began to develop in two major directions: the realistic and the formalistic. Realism and formalism are merely general, rather than absolute, terms. When used to suggest a tendency toward either polarity, such labels can be helpful, but in the end they are just labels. Few films are exclusively formalist in style, and fewer yet are completely realist. There is also an important difference between realism and reality, although this distinction is often forgotten. Realism is a particular type, whereas physical reality is the source of all the raw materials of film, both realistic and formalistic. Virtually, all movie directors go to the photographable world for their subject matter, but what they do with this material- how they shape and manipulate it- determines their stylistic emphasis.

Generally speaking, realistic films attempt to reproduce the surface of concrete reality with a minimum of distortion. In photographing objects and events, the Filmmaker tries to suggest the copiousness of life itself. Both realist and formalist film directors must select (and hence emphasize) certain details from the chaotic sprawl of reality. But the element of selectivity in realistic films is less obvious. Realists, in short, to preserve the illusion that their film world is unmanipulated, an objective mirror the actual world. Formalists, on the other hand, make no such pretense. They deliberately stylize and distort their raw materials so that only the very naive would mistake a manipulated image of an object or event for the real thing. We rarely notice the style in a realistic movie; the artist tends to be self-effacing. The filmmakers are more concerned with what is being shown than how it is manipulated. The camera is used conservatively. It is essentially a recording mechanism that produces the surface of tangible objects with as little commentary as possible. A high premium is placed on simplicity, spontaneity, and directness. It is not to suggest that these movies lack artistry, however, for at its best the realistic cinema specializes in art that conceals art.

Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Styles of filmmaking B. Filmmaking 100 years ago C. Acting styles D. Film plots Question 44. With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?

A. Most films are neither exclusively realistic nor formalistic.

B. Realistic films are more popular than formalistic ones.

C. Realism and formalism are outdated terms.

D. Formalistic films are less artistic than realistic ones.

Question 45. The phrase "this distinction" in the first paragraph refers to the difference between A. general and absolute B. physical reality and raw materials C. formalists and realists D. realism and reality Question 46. Whom does the author say is primarily responsible for a style of film?

A. The producer B. The camera operator C. The director D. The actors Question 47. The word "Copiousness" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to A. abundance B. greatness C. fullness D. variety Question 48. How can one recognize the formalist style?

A. it mirrors the actual world.

B. it obviously manipulated images.

C. it uses familiar images.

D. it is very impersonal.

Question 49. The word "tangible" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A. various B. comprehensible C. concrete D. complex Question 50. Which of the following films would most likely use a realist style?

A. A musical drama B. An animated cartoon C. A science fiction film D. A travel documentary

THEEND

ĐỀ 10 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. vertical Question 2: A. succeed

B. water B. accept

C. vulnerable C. account

D. wilderness D. accident

Mark the letter to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress Question 3: A. information B. decoration C. considerate D. confidential Question 4:A. ensure B. result C. museum D. follow Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction Question 5: A paragraph is a portion of text consists of some sentences related to the same idea A. A paragraph B. a portion C. consists of D. related to Question 6: The measurement unit known as a “foot” has originally based on the size of the human foot A. measurement B. has C. size D. foot Question 7: Many animals have become extinction due to the interference of human beings A. have B. extinction C. due to D. human beings Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 8: This is ___ the most challenging task I have ever done A. by far B. by all means C. by the way D. by rights Question 9: Not only ____ in the field of psychology but animal behavior is examined as well A. is studied human behavior B. human behavior C. is human behavior studied D. human behavior studied Question 10: The capacity for growth is inherent ____ all people A. from B. in C. at D. on Question 11: Jane installed security software on her new computer to ________ it against viruses.

A. protect B. protector C. protection D. protective Question 12: I used my calculator; otherwise it _____ longer A. will take B. would take C. took D. would have taken Question 13: ________ say that property taxes have increased faster than homeowner’s incomes.

A. Analyze B. Analysts C. Analysis D. Analyzable Question 14: These days almost everybody _____ the dangers of smoking A. is aware about B. know of C. is aware of D. are aware of Question 15: Many difficulties have ___ as a result of the changeover to a new type of fuel A. raised B. been raised C. risen D. arisen Question 16: His aunt bought him some books on astronomy and football, ____ he had interest in A. neither of whom B. neither of which C. neither of what D. neither of them Question 17: There are a few things I didn’t like about Professor Chung’s math class, but ____ I enjoyed it A. large and by B. by and large C. big and large D. far and large Question 18: What he says makes no _______ to me

A. reason B. truth C. sense D. matter Question 19: You ____ to our conversation. It was private A. haven’t been listening B. shouldn’t have been listening C. couldn’t have been listening D. hadn’t been listening Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following questions.

Question 20: “_______” “Oh, but it’s boring” A. Would you prefer news to films?

C. Don’t you like the news Question 21: “Thanks a lot for you help” “______” A. Don’t mention it C. Oh, I’m sorry to hear that

B. I often watch the news at night D. I think you should watch the news B. Oh, that’s too bad D. Of course

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSET in meaning to the underlined part Question 22: This is a difficult topic. Please explain it in plain language A. easy B. new C. different D. detailed Question 23: He claimed that the car belonged to him A. knew B. thought C. suspected D. declared Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.

A. absolutely B. relevantly C. virtually D. comparatively Question 25: A deficiency of vitamin D can lead to permanent bone deformities.

A. irreparable B. infinite C. temporary D. occasional Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Because geologists have long indicated that fossil fuels will not last indefinitely, the U.S government finally acknowledged that sooner or later other energy sources would be needed and, as a result, turned its attention to nuclear power. It was anticipated that nuclear power plants could supply electricity in such large amounts and so inexpensively that they would be integrated into an economy in which electricity would take over virtually all fuel-generating functions at nominal cost. Thus, the government subsidized the promotion of commercial nuclear power plants and authorized their construction by utility companies. In the 1960s and early 1970s, the public accepted the notion of electricity being generated by nuclear power plants in or near residential areas. By 1975, 54 plants were fully operational, supplying 11 percent of the nation’s electricity, and another 167 plants were at various stages of planning and construction. Officials estimated that by 1990 hundreds of plants would be on line, and by the turn of the century as many as 1000 plants would be in working order.

Since 1975, this outlook and this estimation have changed drastically, and many utilizes have cancelled existing orders. In some cases, construction was terminated even after billions of dollars had already been invested. After being completed and licensed at a cost of almost $6 billion, the Shoreham Power Plant on Long Island was turned over to the state of New York to be dismantled without ever having generated electric power. The reason was that residents and state authorities deemed that there was no possibility of evacuating residents from the area should an accident occur.

Just 68 of those plants under way in 1975 have been completed, and another 3 are still under construction. Therefore, it appears that in the mid1990s 124 nuclear power plants in the nation will be in operation, generating about 18 percent of the nation’s electricity, a figure that will undoubtedly decline as relatively outdated plants are shut down Question 26: What was initially planned for the nation’s fuel supply in the 1950s and in the early 1960s?

A. Expansion and renovation of existing fuel-generating plants B. Creation of additional storage capacities for fossil fuels C. Conversion of the industry and the economy to nuclear power D. Development of an array of alternative fuel and power sources Question 27: How does the author describe the attitude of the population in regard to nuclear power as fuel in the early to the mid 1970s?

A. Apprehensive B. Ambivalent C. Receptive D. Resentful Question 28: In line 5, the word “nominal” is closet in meaning to _____ A. so-called B. minimal C. exorbitant D. inflated Question 29: In line 7, the word “notion” is closet in meaning to _____ A. nonsense B. notice C. idea D. consequence Question 30: In line 13, the phrase “this outlook” refers to _____ A. the number of operating nuclear plants B. the expectation for increase in the number of nuclear plants C. the possibility of generating electricity at nuclear installations D. the forecast for the capacity of the nuclear plants Question 31: It can be inferred from the passage that government officials made a critical error in judgment by ____ A. disregarding the low utility of nuclear power plants B. relying on inferior materials and faulty plant design C. overlooking the possibility of a meltdown, however remote D. locating installation in densely wooded areas Question 32: In line 14, the word “terminated” is closet in meaning to ______ A. delayed B. stopped C. kept going D. conserved Question 33: The author of the passage implies that the construction of new nuclear power plants____ A. is continuing on a smaller scale

B. is being geared for greater safety C. has been completely halted for fear of disaster D. has been decelerated but not terminated Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions According to some accounts, the first optical telescope was accidentally invented in the 1600s by children who put two glass lenses together while playing with them in a Dutch optical shop. The owner of the shop, Hans Lippershey, looked through the lenses and was amazed by the way they made the nearby church look so much larger. Soon after that, he invented a device that he called a “looker”, a long thin tube where light passed in a straight line from the front lens to the viewing lens at the other end of the tube. In 1608 he tried to sell his invention unsuccessfully. In the same year, someone described the “looker” to the Italian scientists Galileo, who made his own version of the device. In 1610 Galileo used his version to make observations of the Moon, the planet Jupiter, and the Milky Way. In April of 1611, Galileo showed his device to guests at a banquet in his honor. One of guests suggested a name for the device: telescope When Isaac Newton began using Galileo’s telescope more than a century later, he noticed a problem. The type of telescope that Galileo designed is called a refractor because the front lens bends, or refracts, the light. However, the curved front lens also caused the light to the separated into colors. This meant that when Newton looked through the refracting telescope, the images of bright objects appeared with a ring of colors around them. This sometimes interfered with viewing. He solved this problem by designing a new type of telescope that used a curved mirror. This mirror concentrated the light and reflected a beam of light to the eyepiece at the other end of the telescope. Because Newton used a mirror, his telescope was called a reflector Very much larger optical telescopes can now be found in many parts of the world, built on hills and mountains far from city lights. The world’s largest refracting telescope is located at the Yerkes Observatory in Williams Bay, Wisconsin. Another telescope stands on Mount Palomar in California. This huge reflecting telescope was for many years the largest reflecting telescope in the world until an even larger reflecting telescope was built in the Caucasus Mountains. A fourth famous reflector telescope, the Keck Telescope situated on a mountain in Hawaii, does not use a single large mirror to collect the light.

Instead, the Keck uses the combined light that falls on thirty-six mirrors Radio telescopes, like optical telescopes allow astronomers to collect data from outer space, but they are different in important ways. First of all, they look very different because instead of light waves, they collect radio waves. Thus, in the place of lenses or mirror, radio telescopes employ bowl-shaped disks that resemble huge TV satellite dished. Also, apart from their distinctive appearance, radio telescope and optical telescopes use different methods to record the information they collect. Optical telescopes use cameras to take photographs of visible objects, while radio telescopes use radio receivers to record radio waves from distant object in space Question 34: What can be inferred about the first optical telescope?

A. It was bought by children B. It was invented in America C. It was sold by a shop owner D. It was invented by accident

Question 35: Which of the following is NOT true about Hans Lippershey?

A. He owned a shop B. He was a Dutch C. He sold his invention in 1608 D. He got his idea of a telescope from the kids in his shop Question 36: When was Galileo’s invention called “telescope”?

A. in 1611 B. in 1610 C. in 1608 D. in 1600 Question 37: What did Newton notice about Galileo’s telescope when he used it?

A. It had many problems B. It refracted the light C. It was called a refractor D. It had a curved mirror Question 38: What did Newton do with Galileo’s telescope?

A. He called it reflector B. He sent it back to Galileo C. He improved it D. He stopped using it after his notice Question 39: When did Newton start to use Galileo’s telescope?

A. in the 17th century B. in the 18th century C. in the 16th century D. in the 15th century Question 40: Where does the largest reflecting telescope stand?

A. in Wisconsin B. in California C. in Hawaii D. in Caucasus Mountains Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to indicate the correct word (s) for each of the blanks Reading is Fun More and more people are discovering that sharing and talking about their favorite books with others can be as rewarding as the act of reading itself. For people who feel that they are too busy to sit down with a book, a book club helps them schedule time to read, others have gained self-confidence by (41)____ in or leading a discussion. And most people enjoy the chance to (42)_____ new friends A successful book club should have a group that is small enough so even the quiet people can be heard but also big enough for many different opinions. The best arrangement is a (43)____ of ages, sexes, and backgrounds for more reading variety and livelier discussions The book club could (44)_____ in one subject or type of book, like mysteries, science fiction, or biographies. Or the members could read books of all types, as long as the book is highly recommended by someone who thinks it would be (45)____ discussing Some book clubs meet in places like bookstores, public libraries, or restaurants, but most have their meetings in members’ homes. The approach simply offers more privacy and time for longer meetings. To make the meeting go smoothly, a leader should be appointed. The leader will usually start the discussion by asking what the author’s main idea was. Book club members should never be afraid to offer their opinions, even if they don’t like a book. They just need to be prepared to explain why.

Question 41: A. sitting Question 42:A. do Question 43:A. mixture

B. talking B. form B. lot

C. participating C. gather C. range

D. taking D. make D. number

Question 44:A. talk Question 45: A. worth

B. focus B. useful

C. concentrate C. valuable

D. specialize D. busy

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: We could not handle the situation without you.

A. You didn't help us handle the situation.

B. If you had not helped us, we could not have handled the situation.

C. If you did not help us, we could not handle the situation.

D. We will handle the situation if you help.

Question 47: Apples are usually cheaper than oranges.

A. Oranges are usually the most expensive.

B. Oranges are usually more expensive as apples.

C. Apples are not usually as expensive as oranges.

D. Apples are usually less cheap than oranges.

Question 48: We do not need much furniture because the room is small.

A. The smaller the room is, the less furniture we need.

B. The smaller the room, the fewer furniture we need.

C. The small room makes the furniture less and less.

D. Much furniture is needed for a small room.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: I am not sure, but perhaps he went to London.

A. He might go to London.

B. He must have gone to London.

C. He might have gone to London.

D. He could go to London.

Question 50: He is a reliable person, which is different from what people think.

A. People think differently about the reliable person.

B. Contrary to what people think, he is reliable.

C. Contrary to what people think, he is unreliable.

D. He, who is reliable, is not what people think.

ĐỀ 11 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. raised B. talked C. watched D. laughed Question 2. A. women B. bench C. lend D. spend Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. memorable Question 4. A. intelligent

B. experience B. comfortable

C. selfish C. necessary

D. confidence D. secretary

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. A prism is used to refract light so as it spreads out in a continuous spectrum of colors.

A B C D Question 6. There are more potatoes cultivated than any the other vegetable crop worldwide.

A B C D Question 7. Not one in a hundred seeds develop into a healthy plant, even under laboratory conditions.

A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8. She loves London, ____________ in the spring.

A. mostly B. especially C. most D. specially Question 9. Make sure you end each sentence with a ____________ A. dot B. point C. comma D. full stop Question 10. They travelled to the capital city of Scotland by the most ____________ route.

A. easy B. direct C. straight D. unique Question 11. Hillary Clinton failed in the election just because he ____________ his opponent.

A. overestimated B. underestimated C. understated D. undercharged Question 12. What a ____!

A. new small nice car B. nice small new car C. new nice car, that is small D. car new nice and small Question 13. His parents’ hostile attitude ___ him to leave home .

A. drove B. urged C. made D. suggested Question 14. I recommend that the student ____ his composition as soon as possible.

A. finishes writing B. should finish the writing C. finish writing D. finished writing Question 15. Up ____, and the people cheered.

A. went the balloon B. does the balloon go C. did the balloon go D. goes the balloon Question 16. Do you need to give your speech another____________ or do you already know it by heart?

A. break-down B. check-up C. run-through D. mix-up Question 17. It may be wonderful to own a big, old house, but think of the ___.

A. upkeep B. keep-up C. keep-on D. keep-out

Question 18. _____ begin their existence as ice crystals over most of the earth seems likely.

A. Raindrops B. If raindrops C. That raindrops D. What if raindrops Question 19. Everyone in our family says best wishes to ____________ in the early morning of the first day of the New Year.

A. ourselves B. themselves C. one another D. the others Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20. - Can I get you another drink?  “___________”.

A. Forget it B. No, it isn’t C. No, I’ll think it over D. Not just now Question 21.  “___________”.

- Never mind!

A. Thank you for being honest to me B. Would you mind going out for dinner next Saturday?

C. Congratulations! How wonderful!

D. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. The impact of the tidal wave on the coastal people was terrible.

A. time B. cost C. effect D. use Question 23. If you look at the watch, you can tell it is exotic.

A. sharp B. normal C. original D. unusual Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24. The government is not prepared to tolerate this situation any longer.

A. look down on B. put up with C. take away from D. give on to Question 25. I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.

A. unplanned B. deliberate C. accidental D. unintentional Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. He makes a better husband than father.

A. Fathers are usually good husbands.

B. He is more successful as a husband than as a father.

C. His father is better than her husband.

D. He tries to be a good husband and father.

Question27. “If I were you, I’d rather go by train than by bus.’’

A. She said that if she had been me, she would have gone by train than by bus.

B. She advised me to go by train rather than by bus.

C. She meant going by train was more interesting than going by bus.

D. Wherever she went, she always travelled by train.

Question 28. The more money Dane makes, the more his wife spends.

A. Dane spends more money than his wife.

B. Dane and his wife both make money.

C. Dane spends the money his wife makes.

D. Dane's wife keeps spending more money.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.

A. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.

B. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.

C. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.

D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour.

Question 30. Smoking is an extremely harmful habit. You should give it up immediately.

A. When you give up smoking immediately, you will affect your health with this harmful habit.

B. Stop your smoking immediately so it will become one of your extremely harmful habits.

C. You should give up smoking immediately and you will fall into an extremely harmful habit.

D. As smoking is an extremely harmful habit, you should give it up immediately.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Everyone has got two personalities - the one that is shown to the world and the other that is secret and real. You don’t show your secret personality when you are (31) _____ because you can control yourself. But when you are asleep, your feeling position shows the real you. In a normal (32) _____, of course, people often change their positions. The important position is the one you go to sleep in.

If you go to sleep on your back, you are a very open person. You usually believe people and you accept new things or new ideas easily. You don’t like to make people sad, so you never express your (33) _____ feeling. You are quite shy.

If you sleep on your stomach, you are a rather secretive person. You worry a lot and you always easily become sad. You usually live for today not tomorrow. This means that you (34) _____having a good time.

If you sleep curled up, you are probably a very nervous person. You have a low opinion of yourself. You are shy and don’t like meeting people. You (35) _____to be on your own. You are easily hurt.

Question 31.

Question 32.

Question 33.

Question 34.

Question 35.

A. A. A. A. A.

awake room real regret pretend

B. B. B. B. B.

active bed lonely enjoy oppose

C. C. C. C. C.

happy night cheerful mind refuse

D. D. D. D. D.

honest body gentle deny prefer

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 44.

The modem comic strip started out as ammunition in a newspaper was between giants of the American press in the late nineteenth century. The first full-color comic strip appeared in January 1894 in the New York World, owned by Joseph Pulitzer. The first regular weekly

full-color comic supplement, similar to today's Sunday funnies, appeared two years later, in William Randolph Hearst's rival New York paper, the Morning Journal.

Both were immensely popular, and publishers realized that supplementing the news with comic relief boosted the sale of papers. The Morning Journal started another feature in 1896, the "Yellow Kid," the first continuous comic character in the United States, whose creator, Richard Outcault, had been lured away from the World by the ambitious Hearst. The "Yellow Kid" was in many ways a pioneer. Its comic dialogue was the strictly urban farce that came to characterize later strips, and it introduced the speech balloon inside the strip, usually placed above the characters' heads.

The first strip to incorporate all the elements of later comics was Rudolph Dirks's "Katzenjammer Kids", based on Wilhelm Busch's Max and Moritz, a European satire of the nineteenth century. The "Kids" strip, first published in 1897, served as the prototype for future American strips. It contained not only speech balloons, but a continuous cast of characters, and was divided into small regular panels that did away with the larger panoramic scenes of the earliest comics.

Newspaper syndication played a major role in spreading the popularity of comic strips throughout the country. Though weekly colored comics came first, daily black-and-white strips were not far behind. They first appeared in the Chicago American in 1904. It was followed by many imitators, and by 1915 black-and-white comic strips had become a staple of daily newspaper; around the country.

Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. A comparison of two popular comic strips B. The differences between early and modern comic strips C. The effects of newspapers on comic strip stories D. Features of early comic strips in the United States Question 37. Why does the author mention Joseph Pulitzer and William Randolph Hearst?

A. They established New York's first newspaper.

B. They published comic strips about the newspaper war.

C. Their comic strips are still published today.

D. They owned major competitive newspapers.

Question 38. The passage suggests that comic strips were popular for which of the following reasons?

A. They provided a break from serious news stories.

B. Readers enjoyed the unusual drawings.

C. Readers could identify with the characters.

D. They were about real-life situations.

Question 39. To say that Richard Outcault had been "lured away from the World” by Hearst (line 7) means which of the following?

A. Hearst convinced Outcault to leave the World.

B. Hearst fired Outcault from the World.

C. Hearst warned Outcault to leave the World.

D. Hearst wanted Outcault to work for the World.

Question 40. The word “it” in line 9 refers to .

A. The “YellowKid” B. dialogue C. farce D. balloon Question 41. According to the passage, the “Yellow Kid” was the first ___ comic strip to do all of the following EXCEPT .

A. feature the same character in each episode B. include dialogue inside a balloon C. appear in a Chicago newspaper D. characterize city life in a humorous way

Question 42. The word "incorporate" in line 11 is closest in meaning to .

A. affect B. create C. combine D. mention Question 43. The word "prototype" in line 13 is closest in meaning to .

A. story B. humor C. drawing D. model Question 44. In what order does the author discuss various comic strips in the passage?

A. In alphabetical order by title B. In the order in which they were created C. According to the newspaper in which they appeared D. From most popular to least popular Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 50.

The Atmosphere of Venus Venus, also called the Morning Star and Evening Star, is the second-closest planet to the sun and the brightest object in the night sky. The planet orbits the sun every two hundred and twenty four Earth-days and is sometimes referred to as Earth’s sister planet because the two share both a similar size and bulk. What is not similar, however, is Venus’s atmosphere in comparison to Earth’s atmosphere.

The atmosphere on Venus is much heavier and has a higher density than that of Earth.

Venus’s atmosphere also expands significantly higher than Earth’s atmosphere although a thick cloud cover makes the surface of Venus nearly impossible to see unless observed through radar mapping.

While the pressure and temperature of Venus’s upper atmosphere are comparable to those of Earth, the heat and pressure of the lower atmosphere are not unlike a furnace. Venus’s atmosphere is very thick due to a composition consisting mainly of carbon dioxide, and a small amount of nitrogen. If man could survive the extreme heat of Venus’s surface (400 degrees Celsius), then he would have to contend with a surface pressure that is more than 90 times that of Earth. Venus’s extremely high temperature is thanks to the greenhouse effect caused by such a large amount of carbon dioxide. The greenhouse effect is a process by which the sun’s infrared radiation is more readily absorbed by the atmosphere. Just like in a real greenhouse used to grow plants years round, the proliferation of carbon dioxide traps radiation and warms Venus’s atmosphere. Due to this phenomenon, Venus boasts a higher atmospheric temperature than Mercury, even though Venus is twice the distance from the sun.

However, scientists postulate that Venus’s atmosphere was not always so hot. Studies show that large bodies of water were once on Venus’s surface but that eventually evaporation of all the water caused the runaway greenhouse effect which regulates the planet today.Thus Venus has become a critical study for today’s scientists, as human being are only beginning to struggle with the early stages of the greenhouse effect. Our problems do not stem from evaporated water supplies but from a propagation of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases due to industrial and automobile emissions.

Another interesting characteristic to note regarding Venus’s atmosphere is that its daytime temperatures and nighttime temperatures are not that far removed from each other.

This is due to the thermal inertia, the ability of a substance to store heat despite changing temperatures and the transfer of heat by Venus’s strong winds. Although winds on the surface of Venus move slowly in comparison with Earth’s winds, Venus’s air is so dense that a slow-

moving there can move large obstructions and even skip stones along the planet’s surface.

In 1966, humankind made its first attempt at sending a recording instrument into Venus’s atmosphere. The Venera 3 probe did collide with Venus surface; however, the abrupt impact caused its communication system to fail, and it was unable to send and feedback. In 1967, Venera 4 successfully enter Venus’s atmosphere and was able to take many readings, one of which recorded that Venus’s atmosphere was between ninety and ninety-five percent carbon dioxide. Subsequent Venera probes were sent into Venus’s atmosphere, but most of them succumbed to the crushing air pressure.

Question 45. According to paragraph 1, Venus is named the Morning Star and Evening Star because A. it is very bright B. it is close to the sun C. it can be seen from evening till morning D. it is used to find the direction by sailors Question 46. The word that in paragraph 2 refers to A. size B. bulk C. atmosphere D. density Question 47. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in paragraph 3? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.

A. Earth experiences greater surface pressure than Venus.

B. If a man could survive its surface pressure.

C. The surface pressure and heat of Venus are much greater than those on Earth.

D. Venus’s surface temperature and pressure make it uninhabitable by humans.

Question 48. According to paragraph 3, the greenhouse effect on Venus is owed to A. the small amounts of nitrogen B. the rapid increasing amounts of carbon dioxide C. growing plants D. the high atmospheric temperatures Question 49. In paragraph 4, the author of the passage implies that Earth A. might suffer the same greenhouse effect as Venus B. once had an atmosphere similar to Venus’s C. has bodies of water similar to those on Venus today D. is experiencing a reduction of carbon dioxide emissions Question 50. The word propagation in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to A. generation B. elimination C. evaporation D. desecration THE END

ĐỀ 12 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. money B. story C. morning D. sorry Question 2. A. situation B. story C. sugar D. sand Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. expression B. decisive C. dependent D. independent Question 4. A. decision B. reference C. refusal D. important Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. Had the committee members considered the alternatives more carefully, they A B would have realized that the second was better as the first.

C D Question 6. It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order A B C to assure a successful cure.

D Question 7. The old and the new in transportation also contrast sharply in Middle East.

A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8. The schoolboy’s excuse wasn’t ____________ at all. Nobody in the classroom believed in the far-fetched story he told.

A. credential B. credible C. creditable D. credulous.

Question 9. The bad weather and a lack of food simply ____________ our problem A. compounded B. enhanced C. salvaged D. transformed Question 10. In most____________ developed countries, up to 50% of ____________ population enters higher education at some time in their lives.

A. Ø / Ø B. the / Ø C. Ø / the D. the / a Question 11. I wish you____________ me a new one instead of having it____________ as you did.

A. would give / to repair B. gave / to repair C. had given / to be repaired D. had given / repaired Question 12. I must congratulate you. You’ve ____________ a very good job.

A. done B. made C. finished D. worked Question 13. For ____________ reason is this meeting being held?

A. what B. why C. how D. who Question 14. ____________ the invention of the steam engine, most forms of transport were horse-drawn.

A. With reference B. Akin C. Prior to D. In addition to Question 15. No sooner ____________ to marry Jack ____________ to have serious doubts.

A. had Carol agreed / than she began

B. Carol has agreed / than she began C. had Carol agreed / than she begins D. had Carol agreed / than she had begun Question 16. The doctor _____ all night with the patients in the hospital.

A. sat out B. sat up C. sat in D. sat on Question 17. You'd better not place a bet on Stallion. In my opinion, the horse doesn't _____ a chance of winning the race.

A. win B. stand C. rise D. play Question 18. Having been served dinner, ____________ A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee.

B. the committee members discussed the problem.

C. it was discussed by the committee members the problem.

D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee.

Question 19. The marathon runner ____________ for nearly one hour and a half when she____________ to the pavement.

A. has been running / collapses B. were running / collapsed C. had been running / collapsed D. ran / had been collapsing Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20. ‘‘I’m not sure what to do this evening. Any ideas?’’ ‘‘_______________________’’.

A. Why don’t we go to the cinema?

B. You will go to the cinema, perhaps?

C. Do you go to the cinema?

D. Why shouldn’t we go to the cinema?

Question 21. ‘‘Do you know how to start this computer?’’ ‘‘_______________________’’.

A. Just press the green button.

B. These computers are good.

C. Sure, go ahead.

D. You know, yeah.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. The decline of the African elephant can be linked to poaching.

A. decrease B. change C. growth D. limitation Question 23. Because of his hard work, he was able to recover his losses from the accident.

A. find B. sell C. take back D. escape Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24. I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry.

A. hopeless B. hopeful C. successful D. unsuccessful Question 25. A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work.

A. uncomfortable B. responsive C. calm D. miserable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. Some people will go any length to lose weight.

A. Some people will do anything to lose weight.

B. Some people haven’t lost any weight for a long time.

C. Losing weight is a long way for some people.

D. Some people find it hard to lose weight.

Question 27. Much as I admire her achievements, I don’t really like her.

A. I don’t really like her even though I admire her achievements.

B. I don’t really like her because I don’t admire her achievements.

C. Whatever her achievements, I don’t really like her.

D. I like her achievements, so I admire her.

Question 28. He can hardly understand this matter because he is too young.

A. This matter is too hard to understand.

B. Hardly can he understand this matter because he is too young.

C. The matter is difficult but he can understand it.

D. He is young but he can understand this matter.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. We’d better leave them a note. It’s possible they’ll arrive later.

A. If they arrive late, we’d better leave them a note.

B. We’d better leave them a note as they arrive late.

C. They’ll probably arrive later so that we’d better leave them a note.

D. We’d better leave them a note in case they arrive later.

Question 30. Father has been working all day. He must be tired now.

A. Father must work all day and is tired now.

B. Father thinks he is tired now because he has been working all day.

C. I’m sure that father is tired after working all day.

D. I think father was tired after all day working.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

If you ask anyone who invented television, they will tell you that it was John Logie Baird.

While Baird was, of course, extremely important in the history of television, it would be more accurate to see his role as part of a (31) _____ of events which finally led to television as we know it today.

The history of television really begins in 1817 with the discovery by Berzelius, a Swedish chemist, of the chemical selenium. It was found that the amount of electric current that selenium could carry depended on how much light struck it.

This discovery directly led to G. R. Carey, an American inventor, (32) _____ up with the first real television system in 1875. His system used selenium to transmit a picture along wires to a row of light bulbs. This picture was not very clear, however.

Over the next few years, a number of scientists and inventors simplified and improved on Carey's system. It was not until1923 that Baird made the first practical transmission. Once again, the picture was (33) _____ through wires, but it was much clearer than Carey's had been almost fifty years before.

The Second World War (34) _____the development of television. After the war, television sets began to flood the market, with the first mass TV audience watching the baseball World Series in the USA in 1947. Within a few years, television had captured the (35) _____ of the whole world.

Question 31. A. connection Question 32. A. coming

B. cycle B. making

C. link C. going

D. chain D. doing

Question 33. A. pushed Question 34. A. abandoned Question 35. A. observation

B. sent B. cancelled B. awareness

C. transported C. delayed C. notice

D. transferred D. waited D. attention

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Researchers in the field of psychology have found that one of the best ways to make an important decision, such as choosing a university to attend or a business to invest in, involves the utilization of a decision worksheet. Psychologists who study optimization compare the actual decisions made by people to theoretical ideal decisions to see how similar they are.

Proponents of the worksheet procedure believe that it will yield optimal, that is, the nest decisions. Although there are several variations on the exact format that worksheets can take, they are all similar in their essential aspects.

Worksheets require defining the problem in a clear and concise way and then listing all possible solutions to the problem. Next, the pertinent considerations that will be affected by each decision are listed, and the relative importance of each consideration or consequence is determined. Each consideration is assigned a numerical value to reflect its relative importance.

A decision is mathematically calculated by adding these valued together. The alternative with the highest number of points emerges as the best decision.

Since most important problems are multi-faceted, there are several alternatives to choose from, each with unique advantages and disadvantages. One of the benefits of a pencil and paper decision-making procedure is that it permits people to deal with more variables than their minds can generally comprehend and remember. On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in their mind at once. A worksheet can be especially useful when the decision involves a large number of variables with complex relationships. A. realistic example for many college students in the question "What will I do after graduation?. A graduate might seek a position that offers specialized training, purse an advanced degree, or travel abroad for a year.

A decision-making worksheet begins with a succinct statement of the problem that will also help to narrow it. It is important to be clear about the distinction between long-range and immediate goals because long-range goals often involve a different decision than short-range ones. Focusing on long-range goals, a graduating student might revise the question above to "What will I do after graduation that will lead to a successful career?"

Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. A comparison of actual decisions and ideal ones B. A tool to assist in making complex decisions C. Research on how people make decisions D. Differences between long-range and short-range decision making Question 37. The word "essential" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. introductory B. changeable C. beneficial D. fundamental Question 38. According to decision-worksheet theory, an optimal decision is defined as one that A. is agreed to by the greatest number of people B. uses the most decision worksheet C. has the most points assigned to it D. is agreed to by the greatest number of worksheet Question 39. The author organizes paragraph 2 by A. describing a process C. providing historical background

B. classifying types of worksheets D. explaining a theory Question 40. The word "succinct" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to A. creative B. satisfactory C. personal D. concise Question41.The author states that"On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in their mind at once"(paragraph 3) to explain that A. most decisions involve seven steps B. human mental capacity has limitations C. some people have difficulty making minor as well as major decisions D. people can learn to keep more than seven ideas in their minds with practice Question 42. The word "revise" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to A. ask B. explain C. change D. predict Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Orchids are unique in having the most highly developed of all blossoms, in which the usual male and female reproductive organs are fused in a single structure called the column.

The column is designed so that a single pollination will fertilize hundreds or thousands, and in some cases millions, of seeds, so microscopic and light they are easily carried by the breeze.

Surrounding the column are three sepals and three petals, sometimes easily recognizable as such, often distorted into gorgeous, weird, but always functional shapes. The most noticeable of the petals is called the labellum, or lip. It is often dramatically marked as an unmistakable landing strip to attract the specific insect the orchid has chosen as its pollinator.

To lure their pollinators from afar, orchids use appropriately intriguing shapes, colors, and scents. At least 50 different aromatic compounds have been analyzed in the orchid family, each blended to attract one, or at most a few, species of insects or birds. Some orchids even change their scents to interest different insects at different times.

Once the right insect has been attracted, some orchids present all sorts of one-way obstacle courses to make sure it does not leave until pollen has been accurately placed or removed. By such ingenious adaptations to specific pollinators, orchids have avoided the hazards of rampant crossbreeding in the wild, assuring the survival of species as discrete identities. At the same time they have made themselves irresistible to collectors.

Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Birds B. Insects C. Flowers D. Perfume Question 44. The orchid is unique because of_________.

A. the habitat in which it lives B. the structure of its blossom C. the variety of products that can bemade from it D. the length of its life Question 45. The word "fused" in line 2 is closest in meaning to.

A. combined B. hidden C. fertilized D. produced Question 46. How many orchid seeds are typically pollinated at one time?

A. 200 B. 2,000 C. 20,000 D. 200,000 Question 47. Which of the following is a kind of petal?

A. The column B. The sepal C. The stem D. The labellum Question 48. The labellum (line 6) is most comparable to.

A. a microscope B. an obstacle course C. an airport runway D. a racetrack

Question 49. The word "their" in line 10 refers to.

A. orchids B. birds C. insects D. species Question 50. The word "discrete" in line 13 is closest in meaning to.

A. complicated B. separate C. inoffensive D. functional THE END

ĐỂ 13 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. examine

B. determine

C. airline

D. vitamin

Question 2. A. chief

B. moustache

C. machine

D. chef

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to, indicate the word whose stress pattern differs from that of the others.

Question 3. A. ostentatious B. controversial

C. uncontrollable

Question 4. A. delicacy

C. testimony

B. predominate

D. competitively D. eloquence

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. A lot of people stop smoking because they are afraid their health will be affected and early death.

A

B

C

D

Question 6. A novel is a story long enough to fill a complete book, in that the characters and events are usually imaginary.

A

B

C

D

Question 7. Globally and internationally, the 1990's stood out as the warmest decade in the A

B

C

history of weather records.

D Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to indicate the right answer to each of the following sentences.

Question 8. I am sorry I have no time at present to ……detail of our plan.

A. bring in

B. take into

C. come in

D. go into

Question 9. Nowadays, with the help of the computer, teachers have developed a ______ approach to teaching.

A.

A. multilingual

B. multilateral

C.

multiple-choice

D. multimedia Question 10. ________ I might, I couldn’t open the door.

A. However hard

B. As try

C. Try as

D. No matter

Question 11. Anna is holding her shopping bag with one hand and turning the door handle with ______.

A. other

B. another

C. the other

D. others

Question 12. She passed the National High School Graduation Exam with ______ colours.

A. bright

B. flying

C. red

D. true

Question 13. That cannot be a true story. He ______ it up.

A. must have made

B. should have made

C. would have made

D. can have made

Question 14. My mother had to work 12 hours a day in a factory just to______.

A. make ends meet

B. call it a day

C. tighten the belt

D. break the ice

Question 15. The language centre offers courses of various levels, such as elementary, intermediate and ______.

A. advance

B. advancement

C. advanced

D. advancing

Question 16. Geometry is a branch of mathematics ______ the properties of lines, curves, shapes, and surfaces.

A. that concerning with

B. that concerned with

C. that it is concerned with

D. concerned with

Question 17. Our industrial output________ from $2 million in 2002 to $4 million this year.

A. rises

B. has risen

C. was rising

D. rose

Question 18. Education in many countries is compulsory ……. the age of 16.

A. for

B. when

C. until

D. forwards

Question 19. We must push the piano to the comer of the hall to …….our party tonight.

A. make place for

C. make room for

B. take up room to

D. give place to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each sentence.

Question 20. A good dictionary is indispensable for learning a foreign language.

A. essential

B. understandable

C. remarkable

D. unnecessary

Question 21. Within hours of the tragedy happening, an emergency rescue team had been assembled.

A. dismissed

B. gathered

C. restored

D. congregated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each sentence Question 22. Stay away from someone who always feels superior to you!

A. friendly with

B. better than

C. worse than

D. pity on

Question 23. The neighbors' constant wrangles with each other shattered our tranquility.

A. wrecks

B. wraths

C. quarrels

D. conversations

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Sarah: “Oh my God, I’ve missed my bus.”

Christ: “_____. Another will come here in ten minutes.”

A. Thank you

B. Don’t mention it

Question 25. Jack : “What’s wrong with you?”

C. I hope so

D. Don’t worry

Jill: “______.”

A. I’m having a slight headache

B. No, I don’t care

C. Yes, I was tired yesterday

D. Thank you very much

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.

Wind, water, air, ice and heat all work to cause erosion. As the wind blows over the land, it often (26) _______ small grains of sand. When these grains of sand strike against solid rocks, the rocks are slowly worn away. In this way, even very hard rocks are worn away by the wind.

When particles of rocks or soil became loosened in any way, running water carries them down the hillsides. Some rocks and soil particles are carried into streams and then into the sea.

Land that is covered with trees, grass and other plants wears away very slowly, and so loses very (27) _______ of its soil. The roots of plants help to (28) _______ the rocks and soil in place. Water that falls on grasslands runs away more slowly than water that falls on bare ground. Thus, forests and grasslands help to slow down erosion.

Even where the land is (29) _______ covered with plants, some erosion goes on. In the spring, the (30) _______ snow turns into a large quantity of water that then runs downhill in streams. As a stream carries away some of the soil, the stream bed gets deeper and deeper.

After thousands of years of such erosion, wide valleys are often formed.

Question 26. A. holds up

B. cleans out

C. carries out

D. picks up

Question 27. A. large

B. little

C. few

D. much

Question 28. A. store

B. back

C. stay

D. hold

Question 29. A. thinly

B. strongly

C. thickly

D. scarcely

Question 30. A. melted

B. building

C. melting

D. formed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the question.

One of the factors contributing to the intense nature of twenty-first-century stress is our continual exposure to media – particularly to an overabundance of news. If you feel stressed out by the news, you are far from alone. Yet somehow many of us seem unable to prevent ourselves from tuning in to an extreme degree.

The further back we go in human history, the longer news took to travel from place to place, and the less news we had of distant people and lands altogether. The printing press obviously changed all that, as did every subsequent development in transportation and telecommunication.

When television came along, it proliferated like a poplulation of rabbits. In 1950, there were 100,000 television sets in North American homes; one year later there were more then a million. Today, it’s not unusual for a home to have three or more television sets, each with cable access to perhaps over a hundred channels. News is the subject of many of those channels, and on several of them it runs 24 hours a day.

What’s more, after the traumatic events of Sptember 11, 2001, live newcasts were paired with perennial text crawls across the bottom of the screen – so that viewers could stay abreast of every story all the time.

Needless to say, the news that is reported to us is not good news, but rather disturbing images and sound bytes alluding to diasater (natural and man-made), upheaval, crime, scandal, war, and the like. Compounding the proplem is that when actual breaking news is scarce, most broadcasts fill in with waistline, hairline, or very existence in the future. This variety of story tends to treat with equal alarm a potentially lethal flu outbreak and the bogus claims of a wrinkle cream that overpromises smooth skin.

Are humans meant to be able to process so much trauma – not to mention so much overblown anticipation of potetial trauma – at once? The human brain, remember, is programmed to slip into alarm mode when danger looms. Danger looms for someone, somewhere at every moment. Exposing ourslves to such input without respite and without perspective cannot be anything other than a source of chronic stress.

(Extracted from The Complete Idiot’s Guide to Beating Stress by Arlene Matthew Uhl – Penguin Group 2006) Question 31. According to the passage, which of the following has contributed to the intense nature of twenty-first-century stress?

A. An overabundance of special news B. The degree to which stress affects our life C. Our inability to control ourselves D. Our continual exposure to the media Question 32. In the past, we had less news of distant people and lands because ______.

A. means of communication and transprotation were not yet invented.

B. the printing press changed the situation to slowly C. printing, transportation, and telecommunications were not developed D. most people lived in distant towns and villages Question 33. The word “traumatic” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. boring

B. fascinating

C. upsetting

D. exciting

Question 34. According to the passage, when there is not enough actual breaking news, broadcasts _________.

A. are full of dangerous diseases such as flu.

B. send out live newscasts paired with text across the screen C. send out frightening stories about potential dangers D. are forced to publicise an alarming increase in crime Question 35. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?

A. The news that is reported to us is not good news.

B. Many people are under stress caused by the media.

C. Many TV channels supply the public with breaking news.

D. The only source of stress in our modern life is the media.

Question 36. The word “slip” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. release

B. bring

C. fail

D. fall

Question 37. According to the passage, our continual exposure to bad news without perspective is obviously ________.

A. the result of human brain’s switch to alarm mode.

B. a source of chronic stress.

C. the result of an overabundance of good news.

D. a source of defects in human brain.

Question 38. What is probably the best title for this passage?

A. Effective Ways to Beat Stress B. More Modern Life - More Stress C. The Media - A Major Cause of Stress D. Developments in Telecommunications Read-the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

THE SAVANNAH The tourist looking at the African savannah on a summer afternoon might be excused for thinking that the wide yellow grass plain was completely deserted of life, almost a desert. With only a few small thorn trees sticking out through the veldt, there seems to be almost no place for a living creature to hide.

However, under those trees you might find small steenbok, sleeping in the shade, and waiting for the night to fall. There may even be a small group of lions somewhere, their bodies exactly the same shade as the tall grass around them. In the holes in the ground a host of tiny creatures, from rabbits and badgers to rats and' snakes are waiting for the heat to finish.

The tall grass also hides the fact that there may be a small stream running across the middle of the plain. One clue that there may be water here is the sight of a majestic Marshall eagle circling slowly over the grassland. When he drops, he may come up with a small fish, or maybe a grass snake that has been waiting at the edge of a pool in the hope of catching a frog.

The best time to see the animals then, is in the evening, just as the sun is setting. The best time of the year to come is in late September, or early August, just before the rains. Then the animals must come to the waterholes, as there is no other place for them to drink. And they like to come while it is still light; so they can see if any dangers are creeping up on them.

So it is at sunset, and after the night falls, that the creatures of the African veld rise and go about their business.

Question 39. The savannah appears to be empty because: A. The animals are sleeping B. The animals have gone about their business C. They have been frightened by an eagle

D. The temperature prevents much activity Question 40. By "go about their business" the writer means: A. Tourism in Africa is big business B. The animals go to the river to drink C. The animals go on with their normal activity D. The animals are observed by naturalists Question 41. What kind of book does the text seem to be from?

A. A book for experts on wildlife

B. A fictional story

C. A history of Africa

D. General non-fiction

Question 42. The phrase "be excused for" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. easily make a mistake of

B. feel sorry for

C. be regretting for

D. be actually forgiven for

Question 43. The phrase "a host of" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. a large number of B. only a few

C. a group of

D. a gang of

Question 44. Why do animals come to the waterholes while it is still light?

A. To see their ways .better B. To be alert to the possibility of danger C. To drink enough water before hunting D. To avoid people watching them Question 45. The word "he" in paragraph 3 refers to A. a person

B. the writer

C. a Marshall eagle

D. a small fish

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 46. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about sleep.

A. We know relatively little about sleep; as a result, we spend about one-third of our lives sleeping.

B. We shall know more about sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping.

C. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about sleep.

D. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about sleep.

Question 47. Overeating is a cause of several deadly diseases. Physical inactivity is another cause of several deadly diseases.

A. Not only overeating but also physical inactivity may lead to several deadly diseases.

B. Apart from physical activities, eating too much also contributes to several deadly diseases.

C. Both overeating and physical inactivity result from several deadly diseases.

D. Overeating and physical inactivity are caused by several deadly diseases.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 48. "Why don't we wear sunglasses?" our grandpa would say when we went out on bright sunny days.

A. Our grandpa used to suggest wearing sunglasses when we went out on bright sunny days.

B. Our grandpa would warn us against wearing sunglasses on bright sunny days.

C. Our grandpa asked us why we did not wear sunglasses when going out on bright sunny days.

D. Our grandpa reminded us of going out with sunglasses on bright sunny days.

Question 49. I am sure he did not know that his brother graduated with flying colors.

A. He should not have been envious of his brother's achievement.

B. He cannot have known that his brother graduated with very high marks.

C. That his brother graduated with flying colors must have been appreciated by him.

D. He may not know that his brother is flying gradually up in a colorful balloon.

Question 50. People say that Mr. Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

A. Mr. Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

B. Mr. Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.

C. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.

D. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.

ĐỀ 14 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. column Question 2. A. like

B. stupid B. find

C. situation C. mind

D. studio D. film

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. generation B. American C. preparation D. independent Question 4. A. recently B. conduct C. attitude D. marriage Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. The more I got to know them, the fewer I liked them.

A B C D Question 6. The rings of Saturn are so distant to be seen from Earth without a telescope.

A B C D Question 7. Do you know how much Vitamin C does an onion have? As much as two apples do.

A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8. The train whistle warned us of its ____________ departure.

A. previous B. imminent C. subsequent D. former Question 9. Time and neglect had ____________ the property A. deteriorated B. enhanced C. flourished D. acclimatized Question 10. An artist ____________ will do his best to express innocence and inexperience in the child’s face.

A. portraying a child B. who portray a child C. he portrays a child D. portrayed a child Question 11. Which ____________ agency do you work for?

A. ads B. advertised C. advertising D. advertisement Question 12. His face looks ____________, but I can’t remember his name.

A. similar B. alike C. memorable D. familiar Question 13. There is a ____________ of skilled craftsmen in the industry.

A. warn B. fault C. lack D. short Question 14. I know you’re annoyed, but you must try to control your ____________.

A. blood B. storm C. explosion D. temper Question 15. You will have to go for an interview tomorrow, but don't worry. It's just a ____________ A. form B. format C. formation D. formality Question 16. Mr. Jones knew who had won the contest, but he kept it under his ____________ until it was announced publicly.

A. cap B. tongue C. hat D. umbrella Question 17. A fire must have a readily available supply of oxygen. ________, it will stop burning.

A. Consequently B. Furthermore C. Otherwise D. However

Question 18. He is the manager of the factory. He’s ________it.

A. charged with B. charged C. in charge D. in charge of Question 19. ________becoming extinct is of great concern to zoologists.

A. That giant pandas are B. Giant pandas are C. Are giant pandas D. Giant panda is Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20. Son: “What is the process of ________________, Dad?” Father: “Well, it involves the heating of liquid such as milk in order to kill harmful bacteria.”

A. industrialization B. pasteurization C. commercialization D. globalization Question 21. ‘‘Well it was nice talking to you, but I have to dash.’’ ‘‘_______________________’’.

A. Ok, see you.

B. Yes, I enjoyed talking to you, too.

C. Well, another time.

D. That’s nice.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. This dinosaur was known to be carnivorous.

A. vegetative B. nocturnal C. tardy D. flesh-eating Question 23. His approach was so stealthy that no one noticed him coming.

A. fast B. secretive C. expected D. noisy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24. The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.

A. soak B. permanent C. complicated D. guess Question 25. The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.

A. expensive B. complicated C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. It was his lack of confidence that surprised me.

A. He surprised me by his lack of confidence.

B. That his lack of confidence surprised me.

C. That he lacked of confidence surprised me.

D. What surprised me was his lack of confidence.

Question 27. I read two books, but I didn’t find them interesting.

A. None of the two books I read was interesting.

B. Either of the books I read weren’t interesting.

C. Neither of the books I read was interesting.

D. The two books I read wasn’t interesting.

Question 28. “I didn’t break the window,” Jim said.

A. Jim refused to break the window.

B. Jim denied breaking the window.

C. Jim admitted breaking the window.

D. Jim told he didn’t break the window.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. Calling Jim is pointless. His phone is out of order.

A. It is useless calling Jim because his phone is out of order.

B. It’s no use to call Jim because his phone is out of order.

C. There’s no point in calling Jim because his phone is out of order.

D. It’s worth calling Jim because his phone is out of order.

Question 30. His wife helped him. He was able to finish his book.

A. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.

B. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.

C. But for his wife’s help, he couldn’t finish his book.

D. Hadn’t it been for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

It stands to reason that a city like Los Angeles, which is home to the rich and famous, is also where you find the Association of Celebrity Personal Assistants.

Celebrity Personal Assistants is a unique group among Hollywood professionals.

(31)_______ the lawyers and agents who rub shoulders with the stars and make millions, personal assistants (PAs) are not paid well. They typically earn about $56,000 a year which, (32)_______ their round-the-clock obligations, isn’t much by Hollywood standards. As for the job description, it’s also far from glamorous.

Responsibilities include doing laundry, fetching groceries and paying bills. So what's the attraction? One celebrity PA says, ‘I don’t (33)_______ myself a vain or superficial person, but it would be wrong to say that we all don't like being close to someone's that's powerful.’ But not everyone is qualified for the job.

Rita Tateel teaches would-be assistants to the stars and begins her lessons with some (34)_______ truths: 'You must be in good health at all times, because you are running a celebrity's life. If you get sick their life can't just stop. And you need to be flexible and able to (35)_______ in all kinds of hours. You have to be a can-do person. If there’s one word that celebrities don't want to hear, that word is “no”.’

Question 31. A. However Question 32. A. given Question 33. A. describe Question 34. A. such Question 35. A. take

B. Unlike B. received B. know B. hard B. adapt

C. Despite C. spend C. consider C. heavy C. get

D. Similarly D. being D. think D. advice D. put

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The ability of falling cats to right themselves in midair and land on their feet has been a source of wonder for ages. Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection, but for physicists it bordered on the miraculous.

Newton's laws of motion assume that the total amount of spin of a body cannot change

unless an external torque speeds it up or slows it down. If a cat has no spin when it isreleased and experiences no external torque, it ought not to be able to twist around as it falls.

In the speed of its execution, the righting of a tumbling cat resembles a magician's trick.

The gyrations of the cat in midair are too fast for the human eye to follow, so the process is obscured. Either the eye must be speeded up, or the cat's fall slowed down for the phenomenon to be observed. A century ago the former was accomplished by means of high-speed photography using equipment now available in any pharmacy. But in the nineteenth century the capture on film of a falling cat constituted a scientific experiment.

The experiment was described in a paper presented to the Paris Academy in 1894. Two sequences of twenty photographs each, one from the side and one from behind, show a white cat in the act of righting itself. Grainy and quaint though they are, the photos show that the cat was dropped upside down, with no initial spin, and still landed on its feet. Careful analysis of the photos reveals the secret; as the cat rotates the front of its body clockwise, the rear and tail twist counterclockwise, so that the total spin remains zero, in perfect accord with Newton's laws. Halfway down, the cat pulls in its legs before reversing its twist and then extends them again, with the desired end result. The explanation was that while nobody can acquire spin without torque, a flexible one can readily change its orientation, or phase. Cats know this instinctively, but scientists could not be sure how it happened until they increased the speed of their perceptions a thousandfold.

Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The explanation of an interesting phenomenon B. Miracles in modern science C. Procedures in scientific investigation D. The differences between biology and physics Question 37. The word “process” in line 10 refers to A. the righting of a tumbling cat B. the cat's fall slowed down C. high-speed photography D. a scientific experiment Question 38. Why are the photographs mentioned in line 16 referred to as an “experiment”?

A. The photographs were not very clear.

B. The purpose of the photographs was to explain the process.

C. The photographer used inferior equipment.

D. The photographer thought the cat might be injured.

Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred about high-speed photography in the late 1800's?

A. It was a relatively new technology.

B. The necessary equipment was easy to obtain.

C. The resulting photographs are difficult to interpret.

D. It was not fast enough to provide new information.

Question 40. The word “rotates” in line 19 is closest in meaning to A. drops B. turns C. controls D. touches Question 41. According to the passage, a cat is able to right itself in midair because it is A. frightened B. small C. intelligent

D.flexible Question 42. How did scientists increase “the speed of their perceptions a thousandfold” (lines 25-26)?

A. By analyzing photographs B. By observing a white cat in a dark room C. By dropping a cat from a greater height D. By studying Newton's laws of motion Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

With Robert Laurent and William Zorach, direct carving enters into the story of modern sculpture in the United States. Direct carving - in which the sculptors themselves carve stone or wood with mallet and chisel - must be recognized as something more than just a technique.

Implicit in it is an aesthetic principle as well: that the medium has certain qualities of beauty and expressiveness with which sculptors must bring their own aesthetic sensibilities into harmony. For example, sometimes the shape or veining in a piece of stone or wood suggests, perhaps even dictates, not only the ultimate form, but even the subject matter.

The technique of direct carving was a break with the nineteenth-century tradition in which the making of a clay model was considered the creative act and the work was then turned over to studio assistants to be cast in plaster or bronze or carved in marble.

Neoclassical sculptors seldom held a mallet or chisel in their own hands, readily conceding that the assistants they employed were far better than they were at carving the finished marble. With the turn-of-the-century Crafts movement and the discovery of nontraditional sources of inspiration, such as wooden African figures and masks, there arose a new urge for hands-on, personal execution of art and an interaction with the medium. Even as early as the 1880's and 1890's, nonconformist European artists were attempting direct carving.

By the second decade of the twentieth century, Americans — Laurent and Zorach most notably — had adopted it as their primary means of working.

Born in France, Robert Laurent(1890-1970)was a prodigy who received his education in the United States. In 1905 he was sent to Paris as an apprentice to an art dealer, and in the years that followed he witnessed the birth of Cubism, discovered primitive art, and learned the techniques of woodcarving from a frame maker.

Back in New York City by 1910, Laurent began carving pieces such as The Priestess, which reveals his fascination with African, pre-Columbian, and South Pacific art. Taking a walnut plank, the sculptor carved the expressive, stylized design. It is one of the earliest examples of direct carving in American sculpture. The plank's form dictated the rigidly frontal view and the low relief. Even its irregular shape must have appealed to Laurent as a break with a long-standing tradition that required a sculptor to work within a perfect rectangle or square.

Question 43. The word “medium” in line 5 could be used to refer to A. stone or wood B. mallet and chisel C. technique D. principle Question 44. What is one of the fundamental principles of direct carving?

A. A sculptor must work with talented assistants.

B. The subject of a sculpture should be derived from classical stories.

C. The material is an important element in a sculpture.

D. Designing a sculpture is a more creative activity than carving it.

Question 45. The word “dictates” in line 8 is closest in meaning to A. reads aloud B. determines C. includes D. records Question 46. How does direct carving differ from the nineteenth-century tradition of sculpture?

A. Sculptors are personally involved in the carving of a piece.

B. Sculptors find their inspiration in neoclassical sources.

C. Sculptors have replaced the mallet and chisel with other tools.

D. Sculptors receive more formal training.

Question 47. The word “witnessed” in line 23 is closest in meaning to A. influenced B. studied C. validated D. observed Question 48. Where did Robert Laurent learn to carve?

A. New York B. Africa C. The South Pacific D. Paris Question 49. The phrase “a break with” in line 30 is closest in meaning to A. a destruction of B. a departure from C. a collapse of D. a solution to Question 50. The piece titled The Priestess has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT A. The design is stylized.

B. It is made of marble.

C. The carving is not deep.

D. It depicts the front of a person.

THE END

ĐỀ 15 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. benefit B. sentence C. get D. bed Question 2. A. fat B. date C. dad D. flat Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. contractual B. significant C. Asian D. demanding Question 4. A. majority B. minority C. partnership D. enjoyable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. My father has a mechanic to repair his motorbike monthly.

A B C D Question 6. Weather and geography conditions may determine the type of transportation A B C used in a region.

D Question 7. There always is one wise woman who is both feared and respected by her A B C people.

D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8. Get going! All the students were ____________ around, waiting until the last minute to go into the building A. dwelling B. lingering C. staggering D. running Question 9. 'I'm very ______ to you for putting in so much hard work,' the boss said.

A. thanking B. grateful C. considerate D. careful Question 10. He sat in a soft armchair and watched the world _____.

A. go by B. pass on C. walk along D. fly past Question 11. If it hadn’t been for the hint that the professor ___, nobody would have found out the correct answer.

A. dropped B. cast C. threw D. flung Question 12. The international conference of the Craniological Association has been ____ in Cairo to discuss the revolutionary discovery of Doctor Gonzales from Mexico.

A. deployed B. collected C. mobilized D. summoned Question 13. His parents have always wanted Philip to set a good ____ to his younger brothers both at school and at home.

A. form B. model C. pattern D. guidance Question 14. The professor’s ____________ theory is that singing preceded speech.

A. fancied B. fond C. pet D. preferable Question 15. Social work suits her____________ to the ground.

A. for B. down C. out D. round Question 16. He spent his entire life____________ round the world, never settling down anywhere.

A. roaming B. scattering C. scrambling D. transporting

Question 17. You are under no obligation to help as assistance is purely ____________ A. voluntary B. free C. charitable D. donated Question 18. I’m afraid you may find the truth somewhat ____________ A. inedible B. unpalatable C. indigestible D. unmanageable Question 19. She’s very____________ She can be relied on to do her job properly.

A. efficient B. cautious C. serious D. conservative Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20. ‘Where can I get a cup of coffee?’ ‘_______’.

A. No sugar, please.

B. I’d like coffee.

C. There’s a cafeteria downstairs.

D. I’m thirsty.

Question 21. ‘Could you tell me how to get to the post office?’ ‘_______’.

A. Excuse me. Is it easy to get there?

B. Yes, I could.

C. It’s at the end of this street, opposite the church. D. Sorry, it’s not very far Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Many people enrich themselves by taking educational classes.

A. damage B. improve C. help D. research Question 23. His business specialized in manufacturing vacuum cleaners.

A. selling B. buying C. making D. fixing Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24. She had a cozy little apartment in Boston.

A. uncomfortable B. warm C. lazy D. dirty Question 25. He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.

A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. “That’s a lovely new dress, Jane,” said her mother.

A. Jane’s mother said that she liked her lovely dress.

B. Jane’s mother wanted to buy a lovely new dress.

C. Jane’s mother complimented her on the lovely new dress.

D. Jane’s mother told her to buy that lovely new dress.

Question 27. We have run out of the items you want.

A. We have to run out to buy the items you want.

B. The items you want are out of our shop.

C. For the items you want, we must run out.

D. The items you want have been out of stock.

Question 28. Be sure to get me some newspapers.

A. I’m not sure about some newspapers.

B. I certainly will get you some newspapers.

C. Surely I’m going to get some newspapers.

D. Remember to get me some newspapers.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best

combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. You should listen to the radio. You can be kept informed about current affairs.

A. Only by listening to the radio you can keep yourself informed current affairs.

B. Listening to the radio and you will be kept informed about current affairs.

C. A good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs is listen to the radio.

D. Listening to the radio is a good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs.

Question 30. You didn’t listen to me in the first place. You are in trouble right now.

A. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t have been in trouble right now.

B. Had you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in trouble right now.

C. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in trouble right now.

D. Were you to listen to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in trouble right now.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

If you are an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl.

It has become a symbol of our wasteful, throw-away society. But there seems little doubt it is here to stay, and the truth is, of course, that plastic has brought enormous (31) __________ even environmental ones. It's not really the plastic themselves that are the environmental evil - it's the way society chooses to use and abuse them.

Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coalnon-renewable natural (32) __________ We import well over three millions tones of the stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high (33) __________of our annual consumption is in the form of packaging, and this constitutes about 7% by weight of our domestic refuse. Almost all of it could be recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling (34) __________ is growing fast.

The plastics themselves are extremely energy-rich - they have a higher calorific value than coal and one (35) __________ of "recovery" strongly favoured by the plastic manufacturers is the conversion of waste plastic into a fuel.

Question 31. A. savings Question 32. A. processes Question 33. A. amount Question 34. A. industry Question 35. A. medium

B. pleasures B. resources B. proportion B. manufacture B. method

C. benefits C. products C. portion C. plant C. measure

D. profits D. fuels D. rate D. factory D. mechanism

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43.

The hard, rigid plates that form the outermost portion of the Earth are about 100 kilometers thick. These plates include both the Earth's crust and the upper mantle. The rocks of the crust are composed mostly of minerals with light elements, like aluminum and sodium, while the mantle contains some heavier elements, like iron and magnesium. Together, the crust and upper mantle that form the surface plates are called the lithosphere. This rigid layer floats on the denser material of the lower mantle the way a wooden raft floats on a pond. The plates are supported by a weak, plastic layer of the lower mantle called the asthenosphere.

Also like a raft on a pond, the lithospheric plates are carried along by slow currents in this more fluid layer beneath them.

With an understanding of plate tectonics, geologists have put together a new history for the Earth's surface. About 200 million years ago, the plates at the Earth's surface formed a

“supercontinent” called Pangaea. When this supercontinent started to tear apart because of plate movement, Pangaea first broke into two large continental masses with a newly formed sea that grew between the land areas as the depression filled with water. The southern one — which included the modern continents of South America, Africa, Australia, and Antarctica — is called Gondwanaland. The northern one — with North America, Europe, and Asia — is called Laurasia. North America tore away from Europe about 180 million years ago, forming the northern Atlantic Ocean. Some of the lithospheric plates carry ocean floor and others carry land masses or a combination of the two types. The movement of the lithospheric plates is responsible for earthquakes, volcanoes, and the Earth's largest mountain ranges. Current understanding of the interaction between different plates explains why these occur where they do. For example, the edge of the Pacific Ocean has been called the “Ring of Fire” because so many volcanic eruptions and earthquakes happen there. Before the 1960's, geologists could not explain why active volcanoes and strong earthquakes were concentrated in that region.

The theory of plate tectonics gave them an answer.

Question 36. With which of the following topics is the passage mainly concerned?

A. The contributions of the theory of plate tectonics to geological knowledge B. The mineral composition of the Earth's crust C. The location of the Earth's major plates D. The methods used by scientists to measure plate movement Question 37. According to the passage, the lithospheric plates are given support by the A. upper mantle B. ocean floor C. crust D. asthenosphere Question 38. The author compares the relationship between the lithosphere and the asthenosphere to which of the following?

A. Lava flowing from a volcano B. A boat floating on the water C. A fish swimming in a pond D. The erosion of rocks by running water Question 39. The word “one” in line 14 refers to A. movements B. masses C. sea D. depression Question 40. According to the passage, the northern Atlantic Ocean was formed when A. Pangaea was created B. plate movement ceased C. Gondwanaland collided with Pangaea D. parts of Laurasia separated from each other Question 41. Which of the following can be inferred about the theory of plate tectonics?

A. It is no longer of great interest to geologists.

B. It was first proposed in the 1960's.

C. It fails to explain why earthquakes occur.

D. It refutes the theory of the existence of a supercontinent.

Question 42. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses A. why certain geological events happen where they do B. how geological occurrences have changed over the years

C. the most unusual geological developments in the Earth's history D. the latest innovations in geological measurement Question 43. In line 27, the word “concentrated” is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. Allowed B. Clustered C. Exploded D. Strengthened Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.

The changing profile of a city in the United States is apparent in the shifting definitions used by the United States Bureau of the Census. In 1870 the census officially distinguished the nation's “urban” from its “rural” population for the first time. “Urban population” was defined as persons living in towns of 8,000 inhabitants or more. But after 1900 it meant persons living in incorporated places having 2,500 or more inhabitants. Then, in 1950 the Census Bureau radically changed its definition of “urban” to take account of the new vagueness of city boundaries. In addition to persons living in incorporated units of 2,500 or more, the census now included those who lived in unincorporated units of that size, and also all persons living in the densely settled urban fringe, including both incorporated and unincorporated areas located around cities of 50,000 inhabitants or more. Each such unit, conceived as an integrated economic and social unit with a large population nucleus, was named a Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area (SMSA).

Each SMSA would contain at least (a) one central city with 50,000 inhabitants or more or (b) two cities having shared boundaries and constituting, for general economic and social purposes, a single community with a combined population of at least 50,000, the smaller of which must have a population of at least 15,000. Such an area included the county in which the central city is located, and adjacent counties that are found to be metropolitan in character and economically and socially integrated with the county of the central city. By 1970, about twothirds of the population of the United States was living in these urbanized areas, and of that figure more than half were living outside the central cities.

While the Census Bureau and the United States government used the term SMSA (by 1969 there were 233 of them), social scientists were also using new terms to describe the elusive, vaguely defined areas reaching out from what used to be simple “towns” and “cities”. A host of terms came into use: “metropolitan regions,” “polynucleated population groups”, “conurbations,” “metropolitan clusters,” “megalopolises,” and so on.

Question 44. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. How cities in the United States began and developed B. Solutions to overcrowding in cities C. The changing definition of an urban area D. How the United States Census Bureau conducts a census Question 45. According to the passage, the population of the United States was first classified as rural or urban in A. 1870 A. 1900 B. 1950 A. 1970 Question 46. According to the passage, why did the Census Bureau revise the definition of

urban in 1950?

A. City borders had become less distinct.

B. Cities had undergone radical social change.

C. Elected officials could not agree on an acceptable definition.

D. New businesses had relocated to larger cities.

Question 47. Which of the following is NOT true of an SMSA? A. It has a population of at least 50,000 B. It can include a city's outlying regions.

C. It can include unincorporated regions.

D. It consists of at least two cities.

Question 48. By 1970, what proportion of the population in the United States did NOT live in an SMSA? A. 3/4 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3 Question 49. The Census Bureau first used the term “SMSA� in A. 1900 B. 1950 C. 1969 D. 1970 Question 50. Prior to 1900, how many inhabitants would a town have to have before being defined as urban?

A. 2,500 B. 8,000 C. 15,000 D. 50,000 THE END

ĐỀ 16 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. Chemical

B. Approach

C. Achieve

D. Challenge

Question 2. A. linked

B. declared

C. finished

D. developed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. Company

B. Atmosphere

C. Customer

D. Employment

Question 4. A. Institution

B. University

C. Preferential

D. Indicative

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. The governor, with his wife and children, are at home watching the election returns on TV. A

B

C

D

Question 6. She was used to do shopping on Sunday but now she doesn’t have time.

A B C D Question 7. A cure for the common cold, causing by a virus, has not been found.

A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8. Many species of wild life are of extinction.

A. at risk B. on the verge C. on the side D. in dangers Question 9. I like this essay because it is very _________.

A. imaginable B. imaginary C. imagination D. imaginative Question 10. ____ your help, I wouldn’t have got the scholarship.

A. If I had had B. Had not it been for C. But for D. Unless I had Question 11. I was enjoying my book, but I stopped a programme on TV. A. to read to watch B. reading to watch C. to read for watching D. reading for to watch Question 12. My father always the crossword in the newspaper before breakfast.

A. writes B. works C. does D. makes Question 13. We suggested that she the 10:30 train immediately.

A. take B. has to take C. might take D. may take Question 14. This is the most difficult job I've ever had to do.

A. by heart B. by chance C. by far D. by myself Question 15. She is a friendly person. She gets all her neighbours.

A. up well with B. down well with C. on well with D. get off with Question 16. We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are A. out of stock B. out of work C. out of reach D. out of practice Question 17. In the kitchen, there is a table.

A. beautiful large round wooden B. large beautiful wooden round C. wooden round large beautiful D. round large wooden beautiful Question 18. The handwriting is completely _____________. This note must have been written a long time ago.

A. indelible B. unfeasible C. inedible D. Illegible Question 19. He travelled ________ for twenty years and then he decided to return home.

A. far from it B. farthest of all C. far and wide D. farther away Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20. John: “Could you tell me how to get to the nearest post office?”

Peter: “________” A. Sorry for this inconvenience B. I have no clue C. Not at all D. Sorry, I’m a new comer here Question 21. Janet: "My parents got divorced when I was 5." _ Jean: " " A. They shouldn't do that.

B. How did it happen?

C. You must have been shocked D. Oh, I'm sorry to hear that Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 22. The new cow boy-film catches the fancy of the children.

A. attracts

B. Satisfies

C. surprises

Question 23. The dog saw his reflection in the pool of water.

A. imagination B. bone C. leash

D. amuses D. image

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 24. I have a vague recollection of meeting him when I was a child.

A. clear B. indistinct C. imprecise D. ill-defined Question 25. The clubs meet on the last Thursday of every month in a dilapidated palace.

A. neglected B. regenerated C. furnished D. renovated Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space.

INFLUENCES OF TELEVISION

Television has changed the lifestyle of people in every industrialized country in the world. In the United States, where sociologists have studied the effects, some interesting observations have been made.

Television, although not essential, has become a(n) (26) _____ part of most people’s lives. It has become a baby-sitter, an initiator of conversations, a major transmitter of culture, and a keeper of traditions. Yet when what can be seen on TV in one day is critically analyzed, it becomes evident that television is not a teacher but a sustainer. The poor quality of programs does not elevate people into greater (27) ______.

The primary reason for the lack of quality in American television is related to both the history of TV development and the economics of TV. Television in America began with the radio. Radio companies and their sponsors first experimented with television. Therefore, the close relationship, which the advertisers had with radio programs, became the system for American TV. Sponsors not only paid money for time within programs, but many actually produced the programs. Thus, coming from the capitalistic, profit-oriented sector of American society, television is primarily (28) _______ with reflecting and attracting society rather than innovating and experimenting with new ideas. Advertisers want to attract the largest viewing audience possible; to do so requires that the programs be entertaining rather than challenging.

Television in America today remains, to a large (29) _______, with the same organization and standards as it had thirty years ago. The hope for some evolution and true achievement toward improving society will require a change in the (30) _______ system.

Question 26. A. integral

B. mixed

Question 27. A. preconception C. understanding

C. fractional

D. superior

B. knowledge D. feeling

Question 28. A. concerned

B. interested

C. worried

D. connected

Question 29. A. extent

B. degree

C. size

D. amount

Question 30. A. total

B. full

C. entire

D. complete

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In the American colonies there was little money. England did not supply the colonies with coins and did not allow the colonies to make their own coins, except for the Massachusetts Bay Colony, which received permission for a short period in 1652 to make several kinds of silver coins. England wanted to keep money out of America as a means of controlling trade: America was forced to trade only with England if it did not have the money to buy products from other countries. The result during this pre-revolutionary period was that the colonists used various goods in place of money: beaver pelts, Indian wampum, and tobacco leaves were all commonly used substitutes for money. The colonists also made use of

any foreign coins they could obtain. Dutch, Spanish, French, and English coins were all in use in the American colonies.

During the Revolutionary War, funds were needed to finance the world, so each of the individual states and the Continental Congress issued paper money. So much of this paper money was printed that by the end of the war, almost no one would accept it. As a result, trade in goods and the use of foreign coins still flourished during this period.

By the time the Revolutionary War had been won by the American colonists, the monetary system was in a state of total disarray. To remedy this situation, the new Constitution of the United States, approved in 1789, allowed Congress to issue money. The individual states could no longer have their own money supply. A few years later, the Coinage Act of 1792 made the dollar the official currency of the United States and put the country on a bimetallic standard. In this bimetallic system, both gold and silver were legal money, and the rate of exchange of silver to gold was fixed by the government at sixteen to one.

Question 31. The passage mainly discusses A. American money from past to present.

B. the English monetary policies in colonial America.

C. the effect of the Revolution on American money.

D. the American monetary system of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries.

Question 32. The passage indicates that during the colonial period, money was A. supplied by England.

B. coined by colonists.

C. scarce.

D. used extensively for trade.

Question 33. The Massachusetts Bay Colony was allowed to make coins A. continuously from the inception of the colonies.

B. throughout the seventeenth century.

C. from 1652 until the Revolutionary War. D. for a short time during one year.

Question 34. The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to which of the following A. the Continental Congress

B. Paper money

C. the War

D. Trade in goods

Question 35. The word “remedy” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to A. resolve

B. Understand

C. renew

D. medicate

Question 36. How was the monetary system arranged in the Constitution?

A. Only the US Congress could issue money.

B. The US officially went on a bimetallic monetary system.

C. Various state governments, including Massachusetts, could issue money.

D. The dollar was made official currency of the US. Question 37. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the bimetallic monetary system?

A. Either gold or silver could be used as official money.

B. Gold could be exchanged for silver at the rate of sixteen to one.

C. The monetary system was based on two matters.

D. It was established in 1792 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, that provides information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the bestknown surveys are the Gallup and the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during presidential campaigns knows, these polls have become an important part of political life in the United States.

North American are familiar with many “person on the street� interviews on local television news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not necessarily an accurate indication of public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only those people who appear at a certain location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor of commuters, middle-class shoppers, or factory workers, depending on which area the news people select. Second, television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are willing to appear on the air, while they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by a camera. A survey must be based on a precise, representative sampling if it is to genuinely reflect a broad range of the population.

In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording of questions. An effect survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to understand it. I must also be specific enough so that there are no problems in interpreting the results. Even questions that are less structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit the type of information desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but only if the sampling is done properly and the questions are worded accurately.

There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these forms of survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate because people find it more difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than to throw away a written questionnaire. In addition, an interview can go beyond written questions and probe for a subject’s underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionnaires have the advantage of being cheaper and more consistent.

Question 38. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The history of surveys in North America B. The principles of conducting surveys

C. Problems associated with interpreting surveys D. The importance of polls in American political life Question 39. The word “they” in line 7 refers to A. North Americans B. news shows C. interviews D. opinions Question 40. According to the passage, the main disadvantage of the person-on-the-street interviews is that they A. are not based on a representative sampling B. are used only on television C. are not carefully worked D. reflect political opinions Question 41. The word “precise” in line 10 is closest in meaning to A. planned B. rational C. required D. accurate Question 42. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective survey?

A. a high number of respondents B. Carefully worded questions C. An interviewer’s ability to measure respondents’ feelings D. A sociologist who is able to interpret the results Question 43. The word “exercise” in line 13 is closest in meaning to A. utilize B. consider C. design D. defend Question 44. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may become frustrated with questionnaire is that A. respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires B. questionnaires are often difficult to read C. questionnaires are expensive and difficult to distribute D. respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions Question 45. According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires is that live interviews A. cost less B. can produce more information C. are easier to interpret D. minimize the influence of the researcher Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 46. On account of Stella’s excellent work at the main branch of the bank, she is going to take over the branch in Leeds.

A. At the main branch of the bank, Stella has done a fantastic job; moreover, she will continue to do so as manager of the Leeds branch.

B. In order that she will be transferred to head the bank’s branch in Leeds, Stella has been doing amazing work at the main branch.

C. Stella is going to be moved to the bank’s branch in Leeds, even though her duties at the main branch have been performed extremely well.

D. Stella is going to become manager of the bank’s Leeds branch because she has worked so well at the main branch.

Question 47. Ever since he moved there at nineteen, Daniel Tsui has lived in the US.

A. Daniel Tsui went to live in US at the age of nineteen, and he is still there.

B. Daniel Tsui has stayed in the US ever since he went there nineteen years ago.

C. Daniel Tsui was about nineteen years old when he first went to the US. D. Daniel Tsui settled in the US when he was nineteen years old.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 48. Would you mind if I went to the florist’s now?

A. I would rather you went to the florist’s now.

B. Why won’t you allow me to go to the florist’s now?

C. Would you mind getting off to the florist’s now?

D. I’ll go to the florist’s now, if it is all right with you.

Question 49. No sooner had gold been discovered in California than thousands of people set out for the west coast of North America.

A. Thousands of people had already begun their journey to the west coast of North America by the time gold was found in California.

B. Thousands of people were heading for California on the west coast of North America when the news of discovery of gold there reached them.

C. The west coast of North America became the destination of thousands of people the moment that gold was found in California.

D. It was not soon after the time that gold had been uncovered in California that thousands of people departed for North America’s west coast.

Question 50. The rain was too heavy for the umbrella we opened to have much effect.

A. As soon as we opened our umbrella, we realized that the rain was too heavy for it.

B. We needn’t have opened our umbrella, since it was raining too heavily for it anyway.

C. In heavy rains, the umbrella we used to own didn’t actually protect us at all.

D. We opened the umbrella, but the rain wasn’t light enough for it to protect us much.

ĐỀ 17 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. study B. success C. surprise D. sugar Question 2. A. yacht B. watch C. wash D. wall Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. preserve B. addition C. routine D. business Question 4. A. scientist B. engineer C. confidence D. serious Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. They are very pleasant to travel by steamer down the Thames from Westminster to Tower Bridge.

A B C D Question 6. Studying the science of logic is one way to cultivate one’s reason skills.

A B C D Question 7. One day a fame singer was invited by a rich lady to her house.

A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8. We have to __the hard times hoping that things will change for the better in the future.

A. maintain B. endure C. persist D. outlive Question 9. Alex was ____ enough on becoming a professional sportsman and he didn’t want to listen to anyone else’s advice.

A. intent B. eager C. definite D. certain Question 10. What is the verdict of the report? Has the cause of the catastrophe been _____ yet?

A. specified B. informed C. accounted D. judged Question 11. Our classroom is supplied with ____________ A. an heavy equipment B. a heavy equipment C. heavy equipments D. heavy equipment Question 12. There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one, television is ____________ A. other B. the other C. another D. others Question 13. Despite their initial objections, we soon ____________ them all playing football together.

A. made B. had C. organized D. persuaded Question 14. We may win, we may lose – it’s just the ____________ of the draw!

A. strike B. odds C. chance D. luck Question 15. Due to the computer malfunction all our data was lost. So unhappily, we had to begin all the calculations from ____________.

A. onset B. source C. original D. scratch Question 16. The ____________ of the project has been suspended because of the inadequate financing.

A. implementation B. establishment C. installation D. exploration

Question 17. He clearly had no __________of doing any work, although it was only a week till the exam.

A. desire B. ambition C. willingness D. intention Question 18. An application to join this scheme places you under no obligation________ A. indeed B. eventually C. apart D. whatsoever Question 19. The jury _____ her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject.

A. paid

B. gave

C. made

D. said

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20. ‘Didn’t you watch Frankenstein last night?’ ‘_______, I hate horror films’.

A. Yes B. No C. Of course D. Sure Question 21. ‘_______’. ‘This one, please.’

A. Do you like these magazines?

B. Are these magazines interesting?

C. Which of these magazines, don’t you?

D. You like these magazines, don’t you?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. The filmmaker tried to depict the lives of the early colonists in his movie.

A. laugh at B. destroy C. name D. show Question 23. He spent many months working on his car to modify its fuel injection system.

A. change B. remove C. transfer D. resell Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24. In remote communities, it's important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in.

A. remake B. empty C. refill D. repeat Question 25. There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were banned.

A. clear B. obvious C. thin D. insignificant Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. The children pestered us for sweets.

A. The children kept asking us for sweets.

B. The children gave us all their sweets.

C. The children confided in us for giving them the sweets.

D. The children disturbed us by asking for sweets.

Question 27. They will soon find out what she’s been doing.

A. It won’t be long since they find out what she has been doing.

B. It won’t take them a long time to find what she’s done.

C. It won’t be long before they find out what she’s been doing.

D. It’s won’t be long before they find out what’s she’s been doing.

Question 28. You should wash your shirt right now before that stain dries.

A. You should wash your shirt in order for the stain to dry right now.

B. B. Before that stain dry, don’t wash your shirt right now.

C. No sooner does the stain dry so you should wash the shirt before it dry.

D. Your shirt needs washing right now before that stain dries.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. Your handwriting is legible. The test scorer will accept your answer.

A. Providing with your legible handwriting, the test scorer will accept your answer.

B. Providing your handwriting is legible, the test scorer won’t accept your answer.

C. Provided that your handwriting is legible, the test scorer will accept your answer.

D. Provided for your legible handwriting, the test scorer won’t accept your answer.

Question 30. The unemployment rate is high. The crime rate is usually also high.

A. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.

B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is.

C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher.

D. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

In 1830, there were under 100 miles of public railway in Britain. Yet within 20 years, this figure had grown to more than 5000 miles. By the end of the century, almost enough rail track to encircle the world covered this small island, (31) __________ the nature of travel forever and contributing to the industrial revolution that changed the course of history in many parts of the world.

Wherever railways were introduced, economic and social progress quickly (32) __________ In a single day, rail passengers could travel hundreds of miles, cutting previous journey times by huge margins and bringing rapid travel within the (33) __________ of ordinary people. Previously, many people had never ventured beyond the outskirts of their town and villages. The railway brought them greater freedom and enlightenment.

In the 19th century, the railway in Britain represented something more than just the business of carrying goods and passengers. Trains were associated with romance, adventure and, frequently, (34) __________ luxury. But the railways did more than revolutionize travel; they also left a distinctive and permanent mark on the British landscape. Whole towns and industrial centers (35) __________ up around major rail junctions, monumental bridges and viaducts crossed rivers and valleys and the railway stations themselves became desirable places to spend time between journeys.

Question 31. A. altering Question 32. A. pursued Question 33. A. reach Question 34. A. considerable Question 35. A. jumped

B. amending B. followed B. capacity B. generous B. stood

C. adapting C. succeeded C. facility C. plentiful C. burst

D. adjusting D. chased D. hold D. sizeable D. sprang

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

In the United States in the early 1800's, individual state governments had more effect on the economy than did the federal government. States chartered manufacturing, banking, mining, and transportation firms and participated in the construction of various internal improvements such as canals, turnpikes, and railroads. The states encouraged internal

improvements in two distinct ways; first, by actually establishing state companies to build such improvement; second, by providing part of the capital for mixed public-private companies setting out to make a profit.

In the early nineteenth century, state governments also engaged in a surprisingly large amount of direct regulatory activity, including extensive licensing and inspection programs.

Licensing targets reflected both similarities in and differences between the economy of the nineteenth century and that of today: in the nineteenth century, state regulation through licensing fell especially on peddlers, innkeepers, and retail merchants of various kinds. The perishable commodities of trade generally came under state inspection, and such important frontier staples as lumber and gunpowder were also subject to state control. Finally, state governments experimented with direct labor and business regulation designed to help the individual laborer or consumer, including setting maximum limits on hours of work and restrictions on price-fixing by businesses.

Although the states dominated economic activity during this period, the federal government was not inactive. Its goals were the facilitation of western settlement and the development of native industries. Toward these ends the federal government pursued several courses of action. It established a national bank to stabilize banking activities in the country and, in part, to provide a supply of relatively easy money to the frontier, where it was greatly needed for settlement. It permitted access to public western lands on increasingly easy terms, culminating in the Homestead Act of 1862, by which title to land could be claimed on the basis of residence alone. Finally, it set up a system of tariffs that was basically protectionist in effect, although maneuvering for position by various regional interests produced frequent changes in tariff rates throughout the nineteenth century.

Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. States's rights versus federal rights B. The participation of state governments in railroad, canal, and turnpike construction C. The roles of state and federal governments in the economy of the nineteenth century.

D. Regulatory activity by state governments Question 37. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as areas that involved state governments in the nineteenth century EXCEPT A. mining B. banking C. manufacturing D. higher education Question 38. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that in the nineteenth century canals and railroads were A. built with money that came from the federal government B. much more expensive to build than they had been previously C. built predominantly in the western part of the country D. sometimes built in part by state companies Question 39. The regulatory activities of state governments included all of the following EXCEPT A. licensing of retail merchants B. inspecting materials used in turnpike maintenance C. imposing limits on price-fixing D. control of lumber Question 40. The word “ends� in line 20 is closest in meaning to A. benefits B. decisions C. services

D. goals Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the Homestead Act of 1862?

A. It made it increasingly possible for settlers to obtain land in the West.

B. It was a law first passed by state governments in the West.

C. It increased the money supply in the West.

D. It established tariffs in a number of regions.

Question 42. Which of the following activities was the responsibility of the federal government in the nineteenth century?

A. Control of the manufacture of gunpowder B. Determining the conditions under which individuals worked C. Regulation of the supply of money D. Inspection of new homes built on western lands Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

What we today call American folk art was, indeed, art of, by, and for ordinary, everyday “folks” who, with increasing prosperity and leisure, created a market for art of all kinds, and especially for portraits. Citizens of prosperous, essentially middle-class republics — whether ancient Romans, seventeenth-century Dutch burghers, or nineteenth-century Americans — have always shown a marked taste for portraiture. Starting in the late eighteenth century, the United States contained increasing numbers of such people, and of the artists who could meet their demands. The earliest American folk art portraits come, not surprisingly, from New England — especially Connecticut and Massachusetts — for this was a wealthy and populous region and the center of a strong craft tradition. Within a few decades after the signing of the Declaration of Independence in 1776, the population was pushing westward, and portrait painters could be found at work in western New York, Ohio, Kentucky, Illinois, and Missouri. Midway through its first century as a nation, the United States' population had increased roughly five times, and eleven new states had been added to the original thirteen. During these years the demand for portraits grew and grew eventually to be satisfied by the camera. In 1839 the daguerreotype was introduced to America, ushering in the age of photography, and within a generation the new invention put an end to the popularity of painted portraits. Once again an original portrait became a luxury, commissioned by the wealthy and executed by the professional.

But in the heyday of portrait painting — from the late eighteenth century until the 1850's — anyone with a modicum of artistic ability could become a limner, as such a portraitist was called. Local craftspeople — sign, coach, and house painters — began to paint portraits as a profitable sideline; sometimes a talented man or woman who began by sketching family members gained a local reputation and was besieged with requests for portraits; artists found it worth their while to pack their paints, canvases, and brushes and to travel the countryside, often combining house decorating with portrait painting.

Question 43. In lines 4-5 the author mentions seventeenth-century Dutch burghers as an example of a group that A. consisted mainly of self-taught artists B. appreciated portraits C. influenced American folk art D. had little time for the arts Question 44. According to the passage, where were many of the first American

folk art portraits painted?

A. In western New York B. In Illinois and Missouri C. In Connecticut and Massachusetts D. In Ohio Question 45. How much did the population of the United States increase in the first fifty years following independence?

A. It became three times larger.

B. It became five times larger.

C. It became eleven times larger.

D. It became thirteen times larger.

Question 46. The phrase “ushering in” in line 17 is closest in meaning to A. beginning B. demanding C. publishing D. increasing Question 47. The relationship between the daguerreotype (line 16) and the painted portrait is similar to the relationship between the automobile and the A. highway B. driver C. engine D. horse-drawn carriage Question 48. According to the passage, which of the following contributed to a decline in the demand for painted portrait?

A. The lack of a strong craft tradition B. The westward migration of many painters C. The growing preference for landscape paintings D. The invention of the camera Question 49. The author implies that most limners (line 22) A. received instruction from traveling teachers B. were women C. were from wealthy families D. had no formal art training Question 50. The phrase “worth their while” in line 26 is closest in meaning to A. essential B. educational C. profitable D. pleasurable THE END

ĐỀ 18 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. weather B. hearty C. meadow D. breath Question 2. A. ruin B. fruit C. cruise D. juice Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. equipment B. retirement C. technical D. attention Question 4. A. support B. satisfied C. concern D. religious Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. Doing too much too quickly can damage muscles that aren't used to work.

A B C D Question 6. The root of the trees allow the water to go into the soil, that gradually releases it A B C to flow down rivers.

D Question 7. If you have any doubts about taking up cycling for health reasons, talk to your A B C doctor and ask his or her advice.

D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8. If he tries to____________ ignorance as his excuse, just tell him we’ve got a copy of the authorization with his signature on it.

A. defend B. plead C. pretend D. protest Question 9. We were working overtime to cope with a sudden____________ in demand.

A. boost B. impetus C. surge D. thrust Question 10. Only because she had to support her family _______ to leave school.

A. that Alice decides B. did Alice decide C. does Alice decide D. Alice decided Question 11. The confidence trickster____________ the old lady out of her life savings.

A. deceived B. misled C. robbed D. swindled Question 12. Her guest apologized for causing her so much ____________ A. problem B. complication C. trouble D. damage Question 13. This cloth ____________very thin.

A. feels B. touches C. holds D. handles Question 14. Bread and butter ____________ his favorite breakfast.

A. is B. are C. make D. making Question 15. As Roger had resigned, the company decided to take no further ____________against him.

A. action B. demand C. activity D. conduct Question 16. I cannot help ____________ anxious about the exam results.

A. to feel B. felt C. feeling D. feel Question 17. The construction of the new road is ____________ winning the support of local

residents.

A. thanks to B. reliant on C. dependent on D. responsible to Question 18. He was very upset when the boss passed him____________ and promoted a newcomer to the assistant’s job.

A. by B. up C. over D. aside Question 19. The government’s new safety pamphlet____________ against smoking in bed.

A. advises B. declares C. emphasizes D. stresses Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20. ‘I feel a bit cold, actually.’ ‘_______’.

A. Neither do I. B. So do I. C. I don’t, either.

D. I feel so.

Question 21. ‘I can’t thank you enough for your help.’ ‘_______’.

A. I’d rather not.

B. My pleasure.

C. I don’t mind.

D. My goodness.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. The group had an ideology that many other people found offensive.

A. vehicle B. smell C. haircut D. way of thinking Question 23. The citizens protested until the unfair law was repeated.

A. canceled B. noticed C. joined D. doubled Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24. There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.

A. ease B. attraction C. consideration D. speculation Question 25. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.

A. large quantity B. small quantity C. excess D. sufficiency Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. No sooner had she put the telephone down than her boss rang back.

A. As soon as her boss rang back, she put down the telephone.

B. Scarely had she put the telephone down when her boss rang back.

C. Hardly she had hung up, she rang her boss immediately.

D. She had hardly put the telephone down without her boss rang back.

Question 27. More petrol is consumed nowadays than ten years ago.

A. Not so much petrol was consumed ten years ago as nowadays.

B. Petrol consumption is going down nowadays.

C. We had more petrol ten years ago than we do nowadays.

D. We should consume as much petrol as possible.

Question 28. He delayed writing the book until he had done a lot of research.

A. Only after he had done a lot of research did he begin to write the book.

B. He did a lot of research after he finished writing the book.

C. He delayed writing the book as he had already done any research.

D. It was only when he had written the book that he did a lot of research.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. People make wine to enjoy themselves. It is wine that has bad effects on their mental and physical health.

A. Despite making wine to enjoy themselves, it is wine that has bad effects on their mental and physical health.

B. Despite having bad effects on their mental and physical health, people make wine to enjoy themselves.

C. Although people make wine to enjoy themselves but it is wine that has bad effects on their mental and physical health.

D. Although people make wine to enjoy themselves, it is wine that has bad effects on their mental and physical health.

Question 30. They were buying a cup of coffee. They public address system called out Nigel’s name.

A. Just as they were buying a cup of coffee when the public address system called out Nigel’s name.

B. As they were buying a cup of coffee then the public address system called out Nigel’s name.

C. They were buying a cup of coffee when the public address called out Nigel’s name.

D. Just as the public address system called out Nigel’s name, they were buying a cup of coffee.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Over the next 20 to 50 years, it will become harder to tell the (31) _____ between the human and the machine. All, body parts will be replaceable. Computers will function like the human brain with the ability to recognize feelings and respond in a feeling way. They will then produce fake people. We will then be able to create a machine duplicate of ourselves so we will appear to be alive long after we are dead. Maybe a few decades later, a way will be found to transfer our spirit, including our (32) _____ and thoughts, to the new body. Then we can choose to live for as long as we want. It might be expensive. When it becomes possible to do a spirit transfer, they will figure out (33) _____ to do them automatically. So we will be able to reside within whichever duplicate we want, whenever we want.

Miniature robots will be built to travel through your blood stream and repair damage.

Also, larger robots will be used when you are sick. When you have an upset stomach, you will (34) _____ a very small cherry tasting robot which will travel through your stomach taking video of the mess. It will be set up like a video game, so you can control the exploring and the selection of images. Then you can replay the video to help a doctor (35) _____ your illness, or to prove to your employer that you really, were sick.

Question 31. A. variety Question 32. A. experience Question 33. A. what Question 34. A. swallow Question 35. A. notice

B. change B. memories B. when B. chew B. diagnose

C. difference C. actions C. why C. vomit C. watch

D. appearance D. health D. how D. drink D. observe

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43.

It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get an

education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.

Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal learning. The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people debating politics on the radio, from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People are engaged in education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be an integral part of one's entire life.

Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of government, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subject being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.

Question 36. What does the author probably mean by using the expression “children interrupt their education to go to school” (lines 2-3)?

A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial.

B. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year.

C. Summer school makes the school year too long.

D. All of life is an education.

Question 37. The word “bounds” in line 6 is closest in meaning to A. rules B. experience C. limits D. exceptions Question 38. The word “integral” in line 15 is closest in meaning to A. equitable B. profitable C. pleasant D. essential Question 39. The word “they” in line 20 refers to A. slices of reality B. similar textbooks C. boundaries D. seats Question 40. The phrase “For example,” line 22, introduces a sentence that gives examples of A. similar textbooks

B. the results of schooling C. the workings of a government D. the boundaries of classroom subjects Question 41. The passage supports which of the following conclusions?

A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant.

B. Education systems need to be radically reformed.

C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.

D. Education involves many years of professional training.

Question 42. The passage is organized by A. listing and discussing several educational problems B. contrasting the meanings of two related words C. narrating a story about excellent teachers D. giving examples of different kinds of schools Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.

Life originated in the early seas less than a billion years after Earth was formed. Yet another three billion years were to pass before the first plants and animals appeared on the continents. Life's transition from the sea to the land was perhaps as much of an evolutionary challenge as was the genesis of life.

What forms of life were able to make such a drastic change in lifestyle? The traditional view of the first terrestrial organisms is based on mega fossils — relatively large specimens of essentially whole plants and animals. Vascular plants, related to modern seed plants and ferns, left the first comprehensive mega fossil record. Because of this, it has been commonly assumed that the sequence of terrestrialization reflected the evolution of modern terrestrial ecosystems.

In this view, primitive vascular plants first colonized the margins of continental waters, followed by animals that fed on the plants, and lastly by animals that preyed on the planteaters. Moreover, the mega fossils suggest that terrestrial life appeared and diversified explosively near the boundary between the Silurian and the Devonian periods, a little more than 400 million years ago. Recently, however, paleontologists have been taking a closer look at the sediments below this Silurian-Devonian geological boundary. It turns out that some fossils can be extracted from these sediments by putting the rocks in an acid bath. The technique has uncovered new evidence from sediments that were deposited near the shores of the ancient oceans — plant microfossils and microscopic pieces of small animals. In many instances the specimens are less than one-tenth of a millimeter in diameter. Although they were entombed in the rocks for hundreds of millions of years, many of the fossils consist of the organic remains of the organism.

These newly discovered fossils have not only revealed the existence of previously unknown organisms, but have also pushed back these dates for the invasion of land by multicellular organisms. Our views about the nature of the early plant and animal communities are now being revised. And with those revisions come new speculations about the first terrestrial life-forms.

Question 43. The word “drastic” in line 5 is closest in meaning to A. widespread B. radical C. progressive

D. risky Question 44. According to the theory that the author calls “the traditional view,” what was the first form of life to appear on land?

A. Bacteria B. Meat-eating animals C. Plant-eating animals D. Vascular plants Question 45. According to the passage, what happened about 400 million years ago?

A. Many terrestrial life-forms died out.

B. New life-forms on land developed at a rapid rate.

C. The mega fossils were destroyed by floods.

D. Life began to develop in the ancient seas.

Question 46. What can be inferred from the passage about the fossils mentioned in lines 1720?

A. They have not been helpful in understanding the evolution of terrestrial life.

B. They were found in approximately the same numbers as vascular plant fossils.

C. They are older than the mega fossils.

D. They consist of modern life-forms.

Question 47. The word “they” in line 22 refers to A. rocks B. shores C. oceans D. specimens Question 48. The word “entombed” in lime 22 is closest in meaning to A. crushed B. trapped C. produced D. excavated Question 49. Which of the following resulted from the discovery of microscopic fossils?

A. The time estimate for the first appearance of terrestrial life-forms was revised.

B. Old techniques for analyzing fossils were found to have new uses.

C. The origins of primitive sea life were explained.

D. Assumptions about the locations of ancient seas were changed.

Question 50. With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree?

A. The evolution of terrestrial life was as complicated as the origin of life itself.

B. The discovery of microfossils supports the traditional view of how terrestrial life evolved.

C. New species have appeared at the same rate over the course of the last 400 million years.

D. The technology used by paleontologists is too primitive to make accurate determinations about ages of fossils.

THE END

Ä?ᝀ 19 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. butter

B. gum

C. butcher

D. summer

Question 2. A. hall

B. salt

C. drawn

D. roll

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. decimal

B. emperor

C. memorise

D. intervene

Question 4. A. specific

B. admirable

C. animate

D. realize

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. Not until he got home he realised he had forgotten to give her the present.

A

B

C

D

Question 6. He has hardly never given a more impressive performance than this.

A

B

C

D

Question 7. The student must have her assessment form fill in by the examiner during the oral exam.

A

B

C

D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 8. ___________________with my previous job, I would have won a higher promotion and I

in this unfortunate position now.

A. Unless I had stayed I am not

B. If I stayed / would not be

C. If had I stayed I will not be

D. Had I stayed / would not be

Question 9. Quite soon, the world is going to A. get into

B. run out of

____________energy resources.

C. keep up with

D. come up against

Question 10. I know you are upset about breaking up with Tom, but there are plenty more A. horses in the stable

B. cows in the shed

C. tigers in the jungle

D. fish in the sea

Question 11. It's no good pretending; you've got to A. get down to

B. bargain for

reality.

C. come up against D. face up to

Question 12. Not only A. she refused

to speak to him, but she also vowed never to see him again.

B. did she refuse

C. she did refuse

Question 13. It was so foggy that the driver couldn't A. break out

B. keep out

the traffic signs.

C. make out

Question 14. I'll have to go to the funeral of Ms. Jane, a A. heart to heart

B. body and soul

D. take out of mine.

C. flesh and blood

Question 15. Wood that has been specially treated is

D. when she refused

D. skin and bones

regular wood.

A. as water resistant much more than

B. water resistant much more than

C. more than water resistant

D. much more water resistant than

Question 16. Matthew's hands were covered in oil because he A. had been mending B. has mended

C. has been mending D. had mended

Question 17. We found some real A. prizes Question 18. The A. congregation

his bike. at the market.

B. goods

C. bargains

D. items

at the football match cheered their team on.

B. onlookers

C. audience

D. spectators

Question 19. I'm sorry you've decided not to go with us on the river trip, but

you

change your mind, there will still be enough room on the boat for you A. even

B. nevertheless

C. in the event that D. provided that

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges Question 20. Peter: "I've been awarded a scholarship to study in America." ~ Kate: "Uh, really? " A. Take care of yourself

B. Congratulations

C. You are always lucky

D. Lucky as you are

Question 21. - John: "I can't see the stage very well from here." - Jack: " A. Neither can't I.

B. So do I

C. Neither I can

" D. I can't, either

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks Sugar was for a long time a luxury and in the opinion of the medical profession it still should be. During the nineteenth century, however, manufactures discovered (22) ______ of producing it in vast quantities and it has since become one of the staple articles of diet, particularly for the lower social classes. It has the advantages of being comparatively cheap,

easily digested, rich in energy and useful for flavoring. Its major drawbacks are that it lacks every nourishing quality except that of giving energy, and because of its attractive flavor it (23)______ to displace other much more valuable foods from the diet. Most serious of all is its adverse (24) _____ on health, since excessive consumption can cause heart trouble, obesity and dental decay. The latter is widespread among the inhabitants of western countries. From the very young to the very old, (25) ______ anyone escapes. Yet if parents would drastically reduce the (26) ______ of confectionery they allow their children to eat, the extend of dental decay would soon be made Question 22: A. recipes B. means Question 23: A. approaches B. comes Question 24: A. influence B. affect Question 25: A. difficulty B. hardly Question 26: A. value B. quality

C. uses C. include C. focus C. harshly C. number

D. methods D. tends D. effect D. severely D. amount

Mark the letter A, B, C; or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 27. The newscaster gave a concise account of the tragedy.

A. long and detailed

B. complicated and intricate

C. sad and depressing

D. short and clear

Question 28. There were so many members of the political party who had gone against the leader that he resigned.

A. apposed

B. insisted

C. invited

D. opposed

Mark the letter A, B, G or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 29. It gives out light, but not heat and so is safe to use near inflammable liquids.

A. difficult to burn

B. easy to burn

C. sunburnt

D. semi-burnt

Question 30. Experts hope that the vaccine will be mass-produced soon.

A. produced in great numbers

B. produced in small numbers

C. produced cheaply

D. produced with high cost

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Archimedes’s Principle is a law of physics that states that when an object is totally or

partially immersed in a fluid, it experiences an upthrust equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. The principle is most frequently applied to the behaviour of objects in water, and helps to explain floating and sinking, and why objects seem lighter in water. It also applies to balloons.

The key word in the principle is “upthrust”, which refers to the force acting upward to reduce the apparent weight of the object when it is under water. If, for example, a metal block with a volume of 100 cm3 is dipped in water, it displaces an equal volume of water, which has a weight of approximately 1 N (3.5 oz). The block therefore seems to weigh about 1 N less.

An object will float if its average density is less than that of water. If it is totally submerged, the weight of the water it displaces (and hence the upthrust on it) is greater than its own weight, and it is forced upward and out of water, until the weight if water displaced by submerged part is exactly equal to the weight of the floating object. Thus a block of wood with a density six tenths that of water will float with six tenths of its volume under water, since at that point the weight of fluid displaced is the same as the blocks’s own weight. If a dense material is made into a suitable shape, it will float because of Archimedes’s principle. A ship floats, whereas a block of iron of the same mass sinks.

It is also because of Archimedes’s principle that ships float lower in the water when they are heavily loaded (more water must be displaced to give the necessary upthrust). In addition, they cannot be so heavily loaded if they are to sail in fresh water as they can if they are to sail in the sea, since fresh water is less dense than sea water, and so more water must be displaced to give the necessary upthrust. This means the ship is lower in the water, which can be dangerous in rough weather.

From “Archimedes’s Principle”, Microsoft Student 2008[DVD]. Microsoft Corporation, 2007.

Question 31. What happens when something is immersed in a fluid?

A.

It will be pushed further down with a force, equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.

B.

It receives an upward force, equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.

C.

It receives a download force, equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.

D.

The fluid will expand the object and overflow to the floor.

Question 32. The word “volume” in the passage refers to ______.

A. loudness

B. quantity

C. frequency

D. lenght

Question 33. The word “displaces” in the passage almost means “_____”.

A. takes the place of

B. takes place

C. replaces with a new one

D. puts in position

Question 34. A block of wood with a density seven tenths that of water will _____.

A .go up and down the sink A.

float with a half of its volume under water

B.

float with an equal volume of its volume under water

C.

sink immediately when submerged

Question 35. A ship floats, whereas a block of iron of the same mass sinks because the ship _____.

A. is made of wood

B. is lighter

C. has buoys

D. has a special shape

Question 36. The word “upthrust” in the passage refers to the _____.

A. upward push

B. upper side of an object

C. upturned force

D. upside-down turn

Question 37. Ships cannot be so heavily loaded if they want to sail in fresh water as they sail in the sea, because _____.

A. fresh water is ‘lighter’ than sea water B. there’s too much salt in sea water C. sea water is ‘saltier’ than fresh water D. fresh water is more polluted Question 38. Archimedes’ Principle explains why _____.

A. all objects will float C. objects seem lighter in water

B. Archimedes became famous D. humans can swim

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 40.

In the West, cartoons are used chiefly to make people laugh. The important feature of all these cartoons is the joke and the element of surprise which is contained. Even though it is very funny, a good cartoon is always based on close observation of a particular feature of life and usually has a serious purpose.

Cartoons in the West have been associated with political and social matters for many years. In wartime, for example, they proved to be an excellent way of spreading propaganda.

Nowadays cartoons are often used to make short, sharp comments on politics and governments as well as on a variety of social matters. In this way, the modern cartoon has become a very powerful force in influencing people in Europe and the United States.

Unlike most American and European cartoons, however, many Chinese cartoon drawings in the past have also attempted to educate people, especially those who could not read and write. Such cartoons about the lives and sayings of great men in China have proved extremely useful in bringing education to illiterate and semi-literate people throughout China.

Confucius, Mencius and Laozi have all appeared in very interesting stories presented in the form of cartoons. The cartoons themselves have thus served to illustrate the teachings of the Chinese sages in a very attractive way.

In this sense, many Chinese cartoons are different from Western cartoons in so far as they do not depend chiefly on telling jokes. Often, there is nothing to laugh at when you see Chines cartoons. This is not their primary aim. In addition to commenting on serious political and social matters, Chinese cartoons have aimed at spreading the traditional Chinese thoughts and culture as widely as possible among the people.

Today, howerver, Chinese cartoons have an added part to play in spreading knowledge.

They offer a very attractive and useful way of reaching people throughout the world, regardless of the particular country in which they live. Thus, through cartoons, the thoughts and teachings of the old Chinese philosophers and sages can now reach people who live in such countries as Britain, France, America, Japan, Malaysia or Australia and who are unfamiliar with the Chinese culture.

Until recently, the transfer of knowledge and culture has been overwhelmingly from the West to the East and not vice versa. By means of cartoons, however, publishing companies in Taiwan, Hong Kong and Singapore are now having success in correcting this imbalance between the East and the West.

Cartoons can overcome language barriers in all foreign countries. The vast increase in the popularity of these cartoons serves to illustrate the truth of Confucius’s famous saying “One picture is worth a thousand words.”

Question 39. Which of the following clearly characterizes Western cartoons?

A. Originality, freshness, and astonishment.

B. Humour, unexpectedness, and criticism.

C. Enjoyment, liveliness, and carefulness.

D. Seriousness, propagande, and attractiveness.

Question 40. Chinese cartoons have been useful as an important means of________.

A. educating ordinary people

B. spreading Western ideas

C. political propaganda in wartime

D. amusing people all the time

Question 41. The major differences between Chinese cartoons and Western cartoons come from their________.

A. purposes

B. nationalities

C. values

D. styles

Question 42. The passage is intended to present________.

A. a contrast between Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons B. an opinion about how cartoons entertain people C. a description of cartoons of all kinds the world over D. an outline of Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons Question 43. Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?

A. A Very Powerful Force in Influencing People B. Cartoons as a Way of Educating People C. Chinese Cartoons and Western Cartoons D. An Excellent Way of Spreading Propaganda Question 44. In general, Chinese cartoons are now aiming at________.

A. illustrating the truth of Chinese great men’s famous sayings B. bringing education to illiterate and semi-literate people in the world C. spreading the Chinese ideas and cultural values throughout the world D. disseminating traditional practices in China and throughout the world Question 45. The word “imbalance” in paragraph 6 refers to________.

A. The mismatch between the East cartoons and the West cartoons B. the influence of the East cartoons over the West cartoons C. the dominant cultural influence of the West over the East D. the discrimination between the West culture and the East culture Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 46. He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was not talented.

A. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals.

B. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursuing his goals.

C. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful and talented.

Question 47. I did not arrive in time. I was not able to see her off.

A. She had left because I was not on time.

B. I did not go there, so I could not see her off.

C. I was not early enough to see her off.

D. I arrived very late to say goodbye to her.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 48. David was narrowly defeated and blew his own chance of becoming a champion.

A. Losing the championship came as a terrible blow to David.

B. In spite of the narrow defeat, David won the championship.

C. As a result of his narrow defeat, David did not win the championship.

D. But for his title as the former champion, David would not have defeated his rivals.

Question 49. If you had stuck to what we originally agreed on, everything would have been fine.

A. If you had not kept to what was originally agreed on, ever/thing would have been fine.

B. Things went wrong because you violated our original agreement.

C. If you had changed our original agreement, everything would have been fine.

D. As you fulfilled the original contract, things went wrong.

Question 50. "I would be grateful if you could send me further details of the job," he said to me.

A. He flattered me because I sent him further details of the job.

B. He felt great because further details of the job had been sent to him.

C. He thanked me for sending him further details of the job.

D. He politely asked me to send him further details of the job.

Ä?ᝀ 20 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. aspect B. apple C. basic D. imagine Question 2. A. mile B. militant C. smile D. kind Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. chemical B. comfortable C. resistant D. champion Question 4. A. effective B. impressive C. luxury D. foundation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5. In Canada much people speak English because they also came from A B C England many years ago.

D Question 6. When men lived in caves and hunt animals for food, strength of body was A B C the most important thing.

D Question 7. Holiday towns and fishing villages in the South - West are prepared to A B fight the oil pollution which is threatening local beaches.

C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8. Volcanoes are divided into three main groups, based on their shape and the type of material they have .

A. make up forB. are made of C. make from D. are made out of Question 9. Sydney now is the land of mixed population people from all over the world.

A. of B. with C. by D. for Question 10. The food was so delicious that I had a second .

A. plate B. serving C. helping D. time Question 11. you read the instructions carefully, you will understand what to do.

A as well as B. as far as C. as soon as D. provided Question 12. We all working with you. You are so dynamic.

A. believe B. judge C. think D. appreciate Question 13. Research in the work place reveals that people work for many reasons ________.

A. beside money B. money beside C. money besides D. besides money Question 14. It is believed ___causes weight loss.

A. much stress that B. that much stress C. much stress D. it is much stress Question 15. ________ have made communication faster and easier through the use of email

and Internet is widely recognized.

A. That it is computers B. That computers C. Computers that D. It is that computers Question 16. He his wife for forgetting their wedding anniversary.

A. approached B. reproached C. reproduced D. renounced Question 17. _______ students in our class is 45.

A. A large amount of B. A lot of C. A number of D. The number of Question 18. ____________ no proof, the judge refused to sentence him to death.

A. It having B. There being C. Being D. There having Question 19. My father is getting old and forgetful. _______, he is experienced and helpful.

A. Be that as it may B. Regardless C. Lest D. Consequently Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20. ‘Do you think you’d enjoy spending a month in the rainforest?’ ‘_______’.

A. I’m not sure.

B. Oh, thank you.

C. Really? That’s great!

D. Sometimes it bothers me.

Question 21. ‘Could I have a table for two, please?’ ‘_______’.

A. No, thank you.

B. Sorry, we’ve fully booked.

C. The one over there.

D. This table, please.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. The actress fell into disfavor when she changed her style.

A. fame B. unpopularity C. wealth D. debt Question 23. The park was unveiled to commemorate the veterans of World War I. A. remember B. scold C. thank D. show Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24. During the five- decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.

A. holding at B. holding back C. holding to D. holding by Question 25. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.

A. explicit B. implicit C. obscure D. odd Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. Had the advertisement for our product been better, more people would have bought it.

A. Not many people bought our product because it was so bad.

B. Our product was of better quality so that more people would buy it.

C. Fewer people bought our product due to its bad quality.

D. Since our advertisement for our product was so bad, fewer people bought it.

Question 27. Bill was on the verge of speeding when he saw the patrolman.

A. Bill was given a speeding ticket by the patrolman.

B. Bill was speeding when he saw the patrolman.

C. Bill was about to speed when he saw the patrolman.

D. Bill told the patrolman that he had not been speeding.

Question 28. Lan didn't apply for the job in the library and regrets it now.

A. Lan wishes she had applied for the job in the library.

B. Lan wishes she hadn’t applied for the job in the library.

C. Lan wishes she would apply for the job in the library.

D. Lan wishes she applies for the job in the library.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29. Very few students understand his lecture. The subject of his lecture is very confusing.

A. Very few students understand his lecture, the subject of which is very confusing.

B. Very few students understand his lecture, of which subject is very confusing.

C. The subject of his lecture, which very few students understand, is very confusing.

D. The subject of his lecture, which is very confusing, very few students understand.

Question 30. I didn’t know that you were at home. I didn’t visit you.

A. If I knew that you were at home, I would visit you.

B. If I had known that you were at home, I would have visited you.

C. If I knew that you had been at home, I would have visited you.

D. If I would know that you were at home, I visited you.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Rowing is a sport in which athletes race against each other on rivers, lakes or on the ocean, (31) _____ on the type of race and the discipline. The boats are propelled by the reaction forces on the oar blades as they are pushed against the water. The sport can be both recreational, focusing (32) _____ learning the techniques required, and competitive where overall fitness plays a large role. It is also one of the oldest Olympic sports. In the United States, Australia and Canada, high school and collegial rowing is sometimes referred to as crew.

(33) _____ rowing, the athlete sits in the boat facing backwards, towards the stern, and uses the oars which are held in place by the oarlocks to propel the boat forward, towards the bow. It is a demanding sport requiring strong core balance as well as physical (34) _____ and cardiovascular endurance.

Since the action of rowing has become fairly popular throughout the world, there are many different types of (35) _____. These include endurance races, time trials, stake racing, bumps racing, and the side-by-side format used in the Olympic Games. The many different formats are a result of the long history of the sport, its development in. different regions of the world, and specific local requirements and restrictions.

Question 31. A. depending Question 32. A. of Question 33. A. Over Question 34. A. strong

B. creating B. on B. Of B. strongly

C. interesting C. with C. During C. strength

D. carrying D. about D. While D. strengthen

Question 35. A. competition

B. examination

C. test

D. round

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43.

Around the year 1500, hunting people occupied the entire northern third of North America. They lived well from the animals with which they shared these lands. Hunters of sea mammals had colonized the Arctic coasts of Canada and Greenland between four and five thousand years before. Land-hunting people had lived throughout much of the northern interior for at least 12,000 years.

Northern North America is part of a larger circumpolar ecological domain that continues across the narrow Bering Strait into Siberia and northern Europe. The overall circumpolar environment in the 1500's was not very different from the environment of the present. This vast landmass had a continental climate and was dominated by cold arctic air throughout a long winter and spring season. Summer temperature ranged from near freezing to the mid-20's Celsius, while winter temperature were often as low as 40 degrees below zero Celsius.

Geographers divide the overall circumpolar domain into two zones, the Arctic and, below it, the Subarctic. They refer to the landforms of these areas as tundra and taiga, respectively.

Temperatures in the northern lands were below freezing for eight or nine months of the year. Subsurface soil in the Arctic's tundra remained permanently frozen. Even when summer temperatures were above freezing and the top inches of earth became saturated with water, the soil below remained frozen into a permafrost, as hard as rock. When water flowed upon the surface of permanently frozen tundra, it made overland travel extremely difficult. Summer travel in the boggy lands, or muskeg country, of the Sub Arctic’s taiga was also slow and arduous. Tracking animals was more difficult than it was during the winter when the swampy ground was frozen solid and covered with snow. In both tundra and taiga, hordes of mosquitoes and biting flies bred in the standing pools of water. Clothing lost its thermal efficiency when it became damp. Northern people looked forward to the turn of the season to bring the easier traveling conditions associated with cold weather. In the Arctic, they could haul food and supplies by dogsled while in the Subarctic; people could travel quickly and efficiently by snowshoes and toboggan.

Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The hunting people of North America B. The circumpolar environment of the sixteenth century C. Animals that inhabit the Arctic coast D. The geography of Canada and Greenland Question 37. The word “domain” in line 6 is closest in meaning to A. temperature B. period C. region D. process Question 38. Which of the following terms is used to describe the landforms of the Arctic region?

A. Subarctic B. Taiga C. Tundra D. Muskeg Question 39. For how many months of the year were temperatures below freezing in the circumpolar region?

A. 4-5 months B. 6 months C. 8-9 months D. 12 months Question 40. The word “standing” in line 25 is closest in meaning to

A. not flowing B. very deep C. numerous D. contaminated Question 41. All of the following are mentioned as having made travel in the summer difficult EXCEPT A. insects B. wet clothing C. swampy lands D. lack of supplies Question 42. The subsurface soil in the Arctic's tundra is most comparable to which of the following?

A. Cement B. A bog C. A pond D. Sand Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.

Social parasitism involves one species relying on another to raise its young. Among vertebrates, the best known social parasites are such birds as cuckoos and cowbirds; the female lays egg in a nest belonging to another species and leaves it for the host to rear.

The dulotic species of ants, however, are the supreme social parasites. Consider, for example, the unusual behavior of ants belonging to the genus Polyergus. All species of this ant have lost the ability to care for themselves. The workers do not forage for food, feed their brood or queen, or even clean their own nest. To compensate for these deficits, Polyergus has become specialized at obtaining workers from the related genus Formica to do these chores.

In a raid, several thousand Polyergus workers will travel up to 500 feet in search of a Formica nest, penetrate it, drive off the queen and her workers, capture the pupal brood, and transport it back to their nest. The captured brood is then reared by the resident Formica workers until the developing pupae emerge to add to the Formica population, which maintains the mixed-species nest. The Formica workers forage for food and give it to colony members of both species. They also remove wastes and excavate new chambers as the population increases.

The true extent of the Polyergus ants' dependence on the Formica becomes apparent when the worker population grows too large for existing nest. Formica scouts locate a new nesting site, return to the mixed-species colony, and recruit additional Formica nest mates. During a period that may last seven days, the Formica workers carry to the new nest all the Polyergus eggs, larvae, and pupae, every Polyergus adult, and even the Polyergus queen.

Of the approximately 8,000 species of ants in the world, all 5 species of Polyergus and some 200 species in other genera have evolved some degree of parasitic relationship with other ants.

Question 43. Which of the following statements best represents the main idea of the passage?

A. Ants belonging to the genus Formica are incapable of performing certain tasks.

B. The genus Polyergus is quite similar to the genus Formica.

C. Ants belonging to the genus Polyergus have an unusual relationship with ants belonging to the genus Formica.

D. Poltergus ants frequently leave their nests to build new colonies.

Question 44. The word “raise� in line 1 is closest in meaning to A. rear B. lift C. collect D. increase Question 45. The author mentions cuckoos and cowbirds in line 2 because they A. share their nests with each other

B. are closely related species C. raise the young of their birds D. are social parasites Question 46. What does the author mean by stating that “The dulotic species of ants...are the supreme social parasites” (line5) ?

A. The Polyergus are more highly developed than the Formica.

B. The Formica have developed specialized roles.

C. The Polyergus are heavily dependent on the Formica.

D. The Formica do not reproduce rapidly enough to care for themselves.

Question 47. Which of the following is a task that an ant of the genus Polyergus might do?

A. Look for food.

B. Raid another nest.

C. Care for the young.

D. Clean its own nest.

Question 48. The word “recruit” in line 20 is closest in meaning to A. create B. enlist C. endure D. capture Question 49. What happens when a mixed colony of Polyergus and Formica ants becomes too large?

A. The Polyergus workers enlarge the existing nest.

B. The captured Formica workers return to their original nest.

C. The Polyergus and the Formica build separate nests.

D. The Polyergus and the Formica move to a new nest.

Question 50. According to the information in the passage, all of the following terms refer to ants belonging to the genus Formica EXCEPT the A. dulotic species of ants (line 5) B. captured brood (line 13) C. developing pupae (line 14) D. worker population (line 19) THE END