Bộ đề thi thử THPTQG năm 2018 - Môn Tiếng Anh - 20 ĐỀ + ĐÁP ÁN - GV Kiều Thị Thắng - Tuyensinh247

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 01 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. tiny

B. island

C. river

D. wind

Question 2:

A. removed

B. washed

C. hoped

D. missed

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. escape

B. before

C. enough

D. welfare

Question 4:

A. determine

B. encounter

C. consonant

D. disaster

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: You mustn’t have seen Linda , for she has left for Australia for almost 2 months.

A. mustn’t have seen

B. for

C. for

D. almost

Question 6: It was the invention of the assembly line instead than the increase in the average pay of workers that allowed automobiles to be purchased by so many in the early years of the twentieth century.

A. instead

B. purchased

C. so

D. twentieth century

Question 7: For thousands of years, man has created sweet–smelling substances from wood, herbs, and flowers and using them for perfume or medicine.

A. man

B. sweet–smelling

C. using them

D. or

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: If you have an old blanket, ________ it along so that we have something to sit on at the beach.

A. bring

B. go

C. put

D. keep

Question 9: Measures must be taken to stop nuclear waste being ________ at sea.

A. dropped

B. left

C. dumped

D. stored

Question 10: The water park we went to yesterday was fantastic, but the entrance________ was a bit expensive.

A. fare

B. cost

C. expense

D. fee

Question 11: The couple were finally________ by the landlord after not paying rent for six months.

A. demolished

B. evicted

C. rejected

D. evacuated

Question 12: I couldn’t believe it when Marcy accused me of ________ in her relationship with Joe. A. intervening

B. interacting

C. interfering

D. intercepting

Question 13: Do you believe in that old ________ about not walking under a ledder?

A. curse

B. misfortune

C. uncertainty

D. superstition

Question 14: My brother together with my parents________ going to meet my relatives at the airport this afternoon.

A. are

B. were

C. is

D. was

Question 15: If I had attended the party last night, I________ able to go to work today.

A. won’t be

B. am not

C. wouldn’t have been D. wouldn’t be

Question 16: The food being cooked in the kitchen was giving________ a wonderful smell.

A. up

B. off

C. round

D. over

Question 17: Her parents insisted that she ________ until she ________ her degree.

A. stayed / finished

B. would stay / finished

C. stayed / had finished

D. stay / finished

Question 18: Computers make it________ for people to store information and perform their work.

A. easily

B. much easier

C. much more easily

D. at ease

Question 19: I'm going to an interview. I hope I’ll get the job. Please________ for me.

A. keep your fingers

B. hold your fingers crossed

C. hold your fingers

D. keep your fingers crossed

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Tom: “I won the gold medal in the race.” You: “________________” A. Cheers! All the best.

B. That’s all right. Don’t mention it.

C. Well done! I knew you could do it.

D. Good luck! Better luck next time.

Question 21: Tom: “________ the film we watched last night?” Mary: “It is very interesting.”

A. How do you think of

B. What is your opinion about

C. How about your thoughts on

D. What about your feelings with

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.

Question 22: Developments in micro–technology– computers and telecommunication are bound to have a huge influence on various aspects of our lives.

A. rarely

B. somehow

C. uncertain

D. likely

Question 23: The kidneys play a vital role in maintaining health by removing impurities from the bloodstream.

A. viable

B. vivid

C. trivial

D. essential

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Before the match, the team has been stretching to prevent injury.

A. Conversely

B. In advance

C. Beginning with

D. Prior to

Question 25: The newspaper reporters bear out what the Minister told yesterday.

A. define

B. confirm

C. support

D. complain

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: I will take up golf this year.

A. I will begin to play golf this year.

B. I will build a golf court this year.

C. I will enter a golf competition this year.

D. I will stop playing golf this year.

Question 27: I didn’t know that Joe had to get up early, so I didn’t wake him up.

A. If I had known that Joe had to get up early, I would have woken him up.

B. Provided that I had woken Joe up, I would know that he had to get up early C. Much as Joe had been woken up, he would have to get up early.

D. Unless I had known that Joe had to get up early, I would have woken him up.

Question 28: John speaks Chinese fluently because he used to live in China for ten years.

A. Suppose John has lived in China for ten years, he can speak Chinese fluently.

B. Provided that John lived in China for ten years, he could speak Chinese fluently.

C. Unless John had lived in China for ten years, he could not have spoken Chinese fluently.

D. John could not speak Chinese fluently if he had not lived in China for ten years.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: The jeans are over there. I told you about them last week.

A. The jeans about whom I told you about last week are over there.

B. The jeans which I told you about them last week are over there.

C. The jeans which I told you about last week are over there.

D. The jeans about that I told you about last week are over there.

Question 30: The government plans to help poorer countries. It plans to cancel all third world debt.

A. The government plans to help poorer countries so that it cancels all third world debt.

B. The government plans to help poorer countries by cancelling all third world debt.

C. The government plans to cancel all third world debt in case it helps poorer countries.

D. The government plans to help poorer countries with a view to cancelling all third world debt.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.

The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in being an employee? The schools teach a (31)__________ many things of value to the future accountant, doctor or electrician. Do they also teach anything of value to the future employee? Yes, they teach the one thing that it is perhaps most valuable for the future employee to know. But very few students bother to learn it. This basic is the skill ability to organize and express ideas in writing and in speaking. This means that your success as an employee will depend on your ability to communicate with people and to (32)__________ your own thoughts and ideas to them so they will both understand what you are driving at and be persuaded.

Of course, skill in expression is not enough by itself. You must have something to say in the first place. The effectiveness of your job depends (33)__________ your ability to make other people understand your work as they do on the quality of the work itself.

Expressing one’s thoughts is one skill that the school can really teach. The foundations for (34)__________ in expression have to be laid early: an interest in and an ear for language; experience in organizing ideas and data, in brushing aside the irrelevant, and above all the (35)__________ of verbal expression. If you do not lay these foundations during your school years, you may never have an opportunity again.

Question 31:

A. large

B. great

C. far

D. deal

Question 32:

A. interpret

B. give out

C. transfer

D. present

Question 33:

A. on most

B. most on

C. much on

D. on much

Question 34:

A. method

B. skill

C. way

D. pattern

Question 35:

A. habit

B. routine

C. trend

D. hobby

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each question.

Certainly no creature in the sea is odder than the common sea cucumber. All living creature, especially human beings, have their peculiarities, but everything about the little sea cucumber seems unusual. What else can be said about a bizarre animal that, among other eccentricities, eats mud, feeds almost continuously day and night but can live without eating for long periods, and can be poisonous but is considered supremely edible by gourmets?

For some fifty million years, despite all its eccentricities, the sea cucumber has subsisted on its diet of mud. It is adaptable enough to live attached to rocks by its tube feet, under rocks in shallow water, or on the surface of mud flats. Common in cool water on both Atlantic and Pacific shores, it has the ability to suck up mud or sand and digest whatever nutrients are present.

Sea cucumbers come in a variety of colors, ranging from black to reddish – brown to sand – color and nearly white. One form even has vivid purple tentacles. Usually the creatures are cucumber – shaped – hence their name – and because they are typically rock inhabitants, this shape, combined with flexibility, enables them to squeeze into crevices where they are safe from predators and ocean currents.

Although they have voracious appetites, eating day and night, sea cucumbers have the capacity to become quiescent and live at a low metabolic rate-feeding sparingly or not at all for long periods so that the marine organisms that provide their food have a chance to multiply. If it were not for this faculty, they would devour all the food available in a short time and would probably starve themselves out of existence.

But the most spectacular thing about the sea cucumber is the way it defends itself. It major enemies are fish and crabs, when attacked; it squirts all its internal organs into the water. It also casts off attached structures such as tentacles. The sea cucumber will eviscerate and regenerate itself if it is attacked or even touched; it will do the same if surrounding water temperature is too high or if the water becomes too polluted.

Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The reason for the sea cucumber’s name

B. What makes the sea cucumber unusual

C. How to identify the sea cucumber

D. Places where the sea cucumber can be

found Question 37: The word “bizarre” is closest meaning to….

A. odd

B. marine

C. simple

D. rare

Question 38: According to the passage, why is the shape of sea cucumbers important?

A. It helps them to digest their food.

B. It helps them to protect themselves from danger.

C. It makes it easier for them to move through the mud.

D. It makes them attractive to fish Question 39: The words “this faculty” refers to the sea cucumber’s ability to…

A. squeeze into crevices

B. devour all available food in a short time

C. suck up mud or sand

D. live at a low metabolic rate

Question 40: The fourth paragraph of the passage primarily discusses

A. the reproduction of sea cucumbers

B. the food sources of sea cucumbers

C. the eating habits of sea cucumbers

D. threats to sea cucumbers’ existence

Question 41: The phrase “casts off” is closest in meaning to…

A. grows again

B. grabs

C. gets rid of

D. uses as a weapon

Question 42: Which of the following would NOT cause a sea cucumber to release its internal organs into the water?

A. A touch

B. food

C. unusually warm water

D. pollution

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each question.

Human memory, formerly believed to be rather inefficient, is really more sophisticated than that of a computer. Researchers approaching the problem from a variety of points of view have all concluded that there is a great deal more stored in our minds than has been generally supposed. Dr. Wilder Penfield, a Canadian neurosurgeon, proved that by stimulating their brains electrically, he could elicit the total recall of specific events in his subjects’ lives. Even dreams and other minor events supposedly forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in detail.

The memory trace is the term for whatever is the internal representation of the specific information about the event stored in the memory. Assumed to have been made by structural changes in the brain, the memory trace is not subject to direct observation but is rather a theoretical construct that we use to speculate about how information presented at a particular time can cause performance at a later time. Most theories include the strength of the memory trace as a variable in the degree of learning, retention, and retrieval possible for a memory. One theory is that the fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is the result of an almost unlimited combination of interconnections between brain cells, stimulated by patterns of activity. Repeated references to the same information support recall. Or, to say that another way, improved performance is the result of strengthening the chemical bonds in the memory.

Question 43: Compared with a computer, human memory is...................

A. more complex

B. more limited

C. less dependable

D. less durable

Question 44: The word “that” refers to............................

A. the computer

B. the efficiency

C. the sophistication

D. the memory

Question 45: According the passage, researchers have concluded that......................

A. the mind has a much greater capacity for memory than was previously believed B. the physical basis for memory is clear C. different points of view are valuable D. human memory is inefficient

Question 46: How did Penfield stimulate dreams and other minor events from the past?

A. By surgery

B. By electric stimulation

C. By repetition

D. By chemical stimulation

Question 47: The word “elicit” is closest in meaning to...........................

A. prove

B. prevent

C. cause

D. reject

Question 48: According to the passage, the capacity for storage in the brain........................

A. can be understood by the examining the physiology B. is stimulated by patterns of activity C. has a limited combination of relationship D. is not influenced by repetition Question 49: The word “bonds” means….......................

A. promises

B. agreements

C. connections

D. responsibilities

Question 50: All of the following are true of a memory trace EXCEPT that............................

A. it is probably made by structural changes in the brain B. it is able to be observed C. it is a theoretical construct D. it is related to the degree of recall Đáp án 1-C

2-A

3-D

4-C

5-A

6-A

7-C

8-A

9-C

10-D

11-B

12-C

13-C

14-D

15-D

16-B

17-D

18-B

19-D

20-C

21-B

22-C

23-C

24-D

25-B

26-A

27-A

28-D

29-C

30-B

31-B

32-D

33-C

34-B

35-A

36-B

37-A

38-B

39-D

40-C

41-C

42-B

43-A

44-D

45-A

46-B

47-C

48-B

49-C

50-B

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 02 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

Question1:

A. follows

B. titles

C. writers

D. snacks

Question2:

A. terror

B. lecturer

C. occur

D. factor

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question3:

A. secure

B. prepare

C. equal

D. progress

Question4:

A. endangered

B. relevant

C. quantity

D. mineral

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question5: John used to working in Leeds, but his company had him transfer to a better position in London.

A. working

B. but

C. transfer

D. better

Question6: All almost the electricity for industrial use comes from large generators driven by steam turbines.

A. All almost

B. industrial use

C. from

D. driven

Question7: This recipe, is an old family secret, is an especially important part of our holiday celebrations.

A. is an

B. especially

C. part

D. celebrations

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question8: Managers claim we are in desperate_________of greater investment in our industries.

A. requirement

B. excess

C. need

D. lack

Question9: I’m not lazy but I think we have _________public holidays. We ought to have more.

A. too little

B. too few

C. rather a few

D. fairly little

Question10: Only after I explained it to him _________the problem.

A. he understood

B. he did understood

C. did he understand

D. did he understood

Question11: There were one or two _________voices, although the majority were in favor of the proposal.

A. acclaiming

B. clamoring

C. refuting

D. dissenting

Question12: It is a sad fact that in our country, along with most other countries in the world, the environment is still_________ A. under attack

B. under danger

C. being endangering D. facing extinction

Question13: The company managed to _________its best workers and kept its rival from stealing them.

A. promote

B. employ

C. retain

D. consider

Question14: It was a _________that the driver survived the crash. His car was completely damaged.

A. misted

B. miracle

C. secret

D. strange

Question15: I woke up late for my interview because I _________about it all night and didn’t get much sleep.

A. worried

B. had been worrying C. have been worrying D. had worried

Question16: This is _________less satisfactory than the previous offer.

A. fairly

B. far

C. absolutely

D. distant

Question17: I’m afraid my youngest son has never been particularly quick on the _________ A. upshot

B. upturn

C. upkeep

D. uptake

Question18: Many people think that the advantages of living in a city _________the disadvantages A. outweigh

B. outnumber

C. outgrow

D. outrun

Question19: I will always be _________to my tutor for his help.

A. invaluable

B. impoverished

C. indebted

D. priceless

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question20: Cynthia: "Hi, Victor. Do you think it's possible for us to have a talk sometime today?" Victor: "I'd love to, but_________" A. I've got a pretty tight schedule today.

B. I'm fine now

C. is tomorrow OK.

D. I'm pretty tight schedule today.

Question21: – Kate: “ How lovely your cats are!” – David: “__________________” A. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so.

B. Really? They are.

C. Can you say it again?

D. I love them, too.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.

Question22: I glanced at the article, but I haven't read it yet.

A. stared

B. had swift look

C. glimpsed

D. had furtive look

Question23: Mr, Mora told his son, “Stop fighting with your sister. If you don’t behave, you will have to go to bed right now.”

A. stop immediately

B. slow down

C. act incorrectly

D. act correctly

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.

Question24: It is such a prestigious university that only excellent students are entitled to a full scholarship each year.

A. have the right to refuse

B. are refused the right to

C. are given the right to

D. have the obligation to

Question25: She came to the meeting late on purpose so she would miss the introductory speech.

A. aiming at

B. intentionally

C. reasonably

D. with a goal

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question26: David was narrowly defeated and blew his own chance of becoming a champion.

A. But for his title as the former champion, David would not have defeated his rivals.

B. In spite of the narrow defeat, David won the championship.

C. As a result of his narrow defeat, David did not win the championship.

D. Losing the championship came as a terrible blow to David.

Question27: They don’t let anyone enter the area.

A. Nobody is let to enter the area.

B. Nobody is allowed to enter the area

C. Nobody is allowed entering the area.

D. The area is not allowed entering.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question28: The local residents have protested against the plan to build a textile factory in their neighborhood. However, the building work will go ahead.

A. The construction of the textile factory has been stopped by the protests from the local residents.

B. The textile factory will be built as planned despite the local residents' protests.

C. Protests from the local residents have prevented the construction of the textile factory.

D. Due to protests from the locals, the textile factory construction will not go ahead as planned.

Question29: "The blouse is too loose. You'd better ask your tailor to take it in."

A. Your tailor is asked to take your blouse in a little.

B. You'd better have the blouse taken in as it is too loose.

C. The blouse is lost as you didn't ask your tailor to take it in.

D. The blouse is little as you asked your tailor to take it in.

Question30: Jane is too short. She can’t apply for the job.

A. Jane is short of money, so she can’t apply for the job B. Jane could apply for the job if she were taller.

C. If Jane could apply for the job, she wouldn’t be short.

D. Jane would be taller if she could apply for the job Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the number blanks from 31 to 35 A recent (31)_______ of a language learning magazine has consulted a number of experts in the field of second language acquisition. Their advice may prove invaluable for those considering a language course. One suggestion is that you access whether you are likely to be successful (32)_______ learning a language. Did you enjoy studying language at school, for example? Do you have enough time to learn a language ? The major cost will be your own time and effort.

Therefore, you must make sure that course on offer leads to a recognized qualification. Also, be realistic in your (33)_______. If you don’t set achievable aims, you are more likely to give up.

Don’t be deceived into thinking that the most expensive courses are the best. Shop around to get the best possible value for money. You should also bear in your mind that the quicker you learn a language, the more quickly you forget it. Sandra Miller, a French teacher, tried to teach herself German by enrolling on a crash course. Already fluent in four languages and with a sound knowledge of teaching methodology her chances of (34)_______ progress were high. Three years on she remembers very little. She feels her biggest mistake was not to follow up her first experience. "I think the teacher’s role is important. It's so nice to have somebody give you a/an (35)_______”.

Question31:

A. volume

B. issue

C. printing

D. version

Question32:

A. in

B. on

C. at

D. of

Question33:

A. sights

B. object

C. recognized

D. goals

Question34:

A. making

B. achieving

C. gaining

D. doing

Question35:

A. hand

B. encouragement C. help

D. aid

Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each for the question.

Tides are the periodic rise and fall of the Earth’s waters that are caused by the Moon’s and Sun’s forces of gravity acting on the Earth .It is important to distinguish natural tidal phenomena

from huge tsunamis , with the latter being caused by earthquakes and undersea volcanic eruptions.

The Moon is a main factor controlling ordinary tides. At the location on the Earth closest to the Moon, it exerts a powerful gravitational pull on the water. The resulting rise in the water produces higher tides. The water on the side of the Earth farthest away from the Moon also gets pulled by this lunar gravity, but not as strongly. The Earth itself has its own gravitational force that is constantly pulling waters downward, which is why the oceans do not simply bulge out toward the Moon. Ordinary tides usually feature high and low waters alternating in relation to the Earth’s rotation. Most shores around the world have high waters and two low waters for each day, which last about 24 hours and 50 minutes. The difference in height between the high water and low water is called the range of tide, and it can be quite dramatic in narrower bays .Canada’s bays of Fundy , for example , commonly experiences the world’s most extreme tidal ranges , with daily differences of the 16 meters.

Two other types of tides are influenced by the Sun, which is much farther away from the Earth and exerts less than half of the Moon’s gravitational force. When the Sun, the Moon and the Earth are directly in line, the solar and lunar gravitational forces add up to produce higher spring tides. The range of spring tides is intensified, with higher water marks and lower low water marks. However, when the Moon is in the first or third quarter, it is at a 90–degree angle with the Sun in relation to the Earth .The opposing solar and lunar forces partially cancel each other out, and the result is a lower tide. This is called a neap tide, which comes twice a month and has lower high water marks and higher low water marks. The range of neap tides is minimum.

Some tides do not occur over water at all. The solid body of the Earth has slight elasticity, so lunar and solar gravity cause it to stretch very subtly. These changes in the Earth’s shape, although imperceptible to humans, are known as Earth tides. Another tidal phenomenon, atmospheric tides, is caused by the Sun’s heating of the Earth’s atmosphere. Like ordinary tides, they usually occur over 12–hour periods.

Question36: Why does the author mention tsunamis in the passage?

A. To explain that not all tides are caused by gravity.

B. To give an example of an extreme tidal phenomenon.

C. To show that they are not related to natural tides.

D. To suggest that more categories for tides area needed.

Question37: The word exerts in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. mixes with

B. bring into use

C. infers from

D. connects with

Question38: What can be inferred about Canada’s Bay of Fundy ?

A. It may experience tsunamis because of its extreme tides.

B. It may have a longer tide cycle because of its wide variations.

C. It may be very narrow because it has wide tidal variations.

D. It may be influenced more by gravity than other places.

Question39: The word imperceptible in the last paragraph could best be replace by A. not noticeable

B. difficult to explain C. not generally

D. not able to be said

Question40: What is true about the Moon’s gravitational force?

A. It pulls water on the far side of the Earth more strongly.

B. It is more than twice as powerful as that of the Sun. C. It has reduced gravity when it is lined up with the Sun and the Earth.

D. Its force is strongest when it is located at 90 degrees to the Earth.

Question41: Besides ordinary tides, how many other types of tide are mentioned in the passage ?

A. two

B. three

C. four

D. five

Question42: Which of the following does not relate to Ordinary Tides ?

A. Receiving greatest influence from the Moon B. Influenced by the Sun’s position relative to the Moon.

C. Taking turns the higher and lower water relating to the Earth’s rotation D. Having the striking range of tide in narrower bays Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each for the question from 43 to 50.

Charles Lindbergh was born in Detroit, Michigan, in 1902 but was raised on a farm in Minnesota, where his father was elected to the U.S. Congress in 1907. From then on, he spent his boyhood alternately in Washington, D.C. Detroit, and Little Falls, Minnesota. Because Lindbergh exhibited exceptional mechanical talent, in 1921 he was admitted to the University of Wisconsing to study engineering. However, the young man was seeking more challenging endeavors, and two years later he became a stunt pilot who performed feats at county fairs and public assemblies. This unusual and dangerous undertaking paid off handsomely in the sense that it allowed him to gain a diverse and well–rounded experience in aeronautics. He particularly delighted in what he called “wing–walking” and parachute jumping.

After a year of training as a military cadet, Lindbergh completed his program at the Brooks and Kelly airfields at the top of his class and earned the rank of captain. Robertson Aircraft Corporation of St. Louis, Missouri, offered him employment as a mail pilot to run the routes between St. Louis and Chicago, and Lindbergh retained his position with the company

until 1927. During this period, he set out to win the Raymond B. Orteig prize of $25,000 to be awarded to the first pilot to fly nonstop from New York to Paris. This ambition would irreversibly change his life and accord him a prominent place in the history of aviation.

Embarking on the greatest adventure of his time, Lindbergh left Roosevelt Field at 7:52 A.M. on May 20, 1927, and landed at Le Bourget Field at 5:24 P.M. the next day. Fearing that he would be unknown when he arrived, Lindbergh carried letters of introduction to dignitaries in Paris, but when his plane came to a stop, he was overwhelmed by tremendous welcoming crowds. He was decorated in France, Great Britain, and Belgium, and President Coolidge sent a specially designated cruiser, the Memphis, to bring him back, His accomplishments in aeronautics brought him more medals and awards than had ever been received by any other person in private life.

Question43: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?

A. A Benchmark Adventure in Aeronautics

B. The Early Life of Charles Lindbergh

C. Groundbreaking Events in Aviation

D. Charles Lindbergh’s Explorations

Question44: According to the passage, Lindbergh did not complete his degree because he A. opted for the life of an exhibition pilot

B. pursued training in the military

C. was seeking a sedentary life–style

D. set out to win recognition

Question45: The word “handsomely” is closest in meaning to A. honorably

B. handily

C. well

D. in time

Question46: The word “undertaking ” refers to…

A. studying at the university C. seeking challenging endeavors

B. exhibiting mechanical talents D. performing feats

Question47: The author of the passage implies that Lindbergh’s job with Robertson Aircraft Corporation.

A. required regular intercity flights

B. was not intended as long–term employment

C. required him to perform dangerous flights D. necessitated his running long distances Question48: According to the passage, how old was Lindbergh when he carried out his challenging flight?

A. Twenty–one

B. Twenty–three

C. Twenty–four

D. Twenty–five

Question49: The author of the passage implies that Lindbergh did not anticipate becoming a A. pilot

B. celebrity

C. mail carrier

D. army captain

Question50: A paragraph following the passage would most probably discuss A. the development of commercial and military aviation B. the reaction of the government to Lindbergh’s flight

C. the effect of instant celebrity on Lindbergh D. Lindbergh’s aircraft and engine modifications

Đáp án 1-D

2-C

3-C

4-A

5-A

6-A

7-A

8-C

9-B

10-C

11-D

12-A

13-C

14-B

15-B

16-B

17-D

18-A

19-C

20-A

21-A

22-A

23-D

24-C

25-C

26-C

27-B

28-B

29-B

30-B

31-B

32-C

33-D

34-A

35-A

36-C

37-B

38-C

39-A

40-B

41-C

42-B

43-B

44-A

45-C

46-D

47-A

48-D

49-B

50-C

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 03 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others.

Question 1:

A. nasty

B. hasty

C. tasty

D. wastage

Question 2:

A. prose

B. whose

C. disclose

D. chosen

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. attract

B. marry

C. demand

D. connect

Question 4:

A. independence

B. experiment

C. individual

D. reputation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Ernest Hemingway wrote The Old Man and the Sea, in addition to a number of the other work.

A. wrote

B. in addition

C. other

D. work

Question 6: Don’t get angry with me for your failure. You are yourself to blame by it and it is nobody else’s fault.

A. get angry

B. yourself

C. by

D. else's fault

Question 7: In my country we have to do nine core subjects and then we can choose several other.

A. to do

B. core

C. and then

D. other

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: We ________be going to France this summer, but we’re not sure yet.

A. can

B. must

C. would

D. might

Question 9: He packed ________his job and went traveling in Nepal.

A. off

B. away

C. out

D. in

Question 10: The jury________her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject.

A. paid

B. gave

C. made

D. said

Question 11: Be careful! Don’t ________your drink on the table.

A. spill

B. spread

C. flood

D. flow

Question 12: “The baby is crying! Will you ________while 1 prepare his milk?”

A. look him up

B. look after him

C. care about him

D. make him up

Question 13: The driver________control of the vehicle and crashed into a bus.

A. lost

B. missed

C. failed

D. dropped

Question 14: On the way the bus stopped to pick up a ________ A. customer

B. rider

C. pedestrian

D. passenger

Question 15: I am ________tired to think about that problem at the moment.

A. simply

B. nearly

C. far too

D. much more

Question 16: ________anything else, please ring the bell for the attendant.

A. Should you require B. You should require C. If you are requiring D. Were you to require Question 17: Monica is ________for her ambition and determination by all of her teachers.

A. praised

B. approved

C. congratulated

D. cheered

Question 18: They froze in ________when they saw the lion.

A. shock

B. horror

C. panic

D. fright

Question 19: I can’t find those new socks I bought. I ________them in the store.

A. should have left

B. must have left

C. have left

D. ought to have left

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Kelly: “I think that people are buying more than they actually need. What do you think?”Jack: ________, especially in this time of economic crises.”

A. I don’t think so.

B. I think the other way

C. I don’t, either.

D. I think opposite.

Question 21: Peter: "Is it important? " Tom: ________ A. not on your life

B. It's a matter of life and death

C. No worry, that's nothing

D. It's ridiculous

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.

Question 22: The principal objectives of ASEAN, outlined in the Bangkok Declaration (1976), were to accelerate economic growth and promote peace and stability.

A. maintain

B. predict

C. speed up

D. slow down

Question 23: They are going to demolish the old theater to make way for the new apartment complex.

A. pull down

B. throw away

C. rebuild

D. decorate

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: The difference between British and American English are comparatively small.

A. extremely

B. relatively

C. surprisingly

D. straightly

Question 25: The Present is taking deliberate steps to balance the federal budget A. thoroughly planned B. intentional

C. purposeful

D. accidental

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Tom would sooner do without a car than pay all that money for one.

A. Tom thinks the price is right, but he can’t afford it.

B. Tom thinks the price is too high, but he must have the car.

C. Tom is soon going to buy a car.

D. Tom would never buy a car costs so much.

Question 27: It’s no use trying to persuade Tom to change his mind A. There’s no point to try to persuade Tom to change his mind B. It’s worth trying to persuade Tom to change his mind C. It’s useful trying to persuade Tom change his mind D. It’s a waste of time trying to persuade Tom to change his mind Question 28: His story was so funny that it made us all laugh.

A. His story was too funny to laugh.

B. His story couldn’t make us laugh.

C. His story was very funny and we couldn’t help laughing.

D. We all laughed at him for his story.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Mike has expertise in gardening. Mike is an accomplished carpenter.

A. Beside gardening, Mike is an accomplished carpenter as well B. Despite his expertise in gardening, Mike is an accomplished carpenter.

C. Due to his expertise in gardening, Mike is an accomplished carpenter.

D. Besides his expertise in gardening, Mike is also an accomplished carpenter.

Question 30: My friends are good at drawing. I am good at drawing.

A. My friends are good at drawing, and I do, too.

B. Both my friends and I am good at drawing.

C. My friends are good at drawing and so I am.

D. Neither my friend nor I am good at drawing.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.

THE BENEFITS OF JOINING A SPORTS CLUB

Everyone, old or young, should think about joining a sports club. There are many benefits of being a (31)________of a club. First of all, you have the opportunity not just to play your favorite sport on a regular basis, but also to improve. Most clubs have training sessions or even professionals who (32)________lessons. Secondly, it’s a chance to meet people who enjoying doing the same things as you so you will probably get (33)________with them and end up with a good network of friends. Also these clubs usually have an excellent social life as they arrange parties and special occasions at the club where you can meet to talk and eat together and generally have a good time. Many people (34)________up sports in their early teens but it is good idea to continue as doing sport is a way of relieving stress and giving you more energy as well as being a good break from your studies. Best of all, a lot of clubs can arrange to get tickets for top sporting events that are hard to (35)________This means you can often get front row seats for matches and competitions in your favorite sport, or you may even be able to see your favorite team. Well worth joining!

Question 31:

A. fellow

B. member

C. representative

D. associate

Question 32:

A. offer

B. present

C. hand

D. propose

Question 33:

A. up

B. on

C. over

D. about

Question 34:

A. set

B. get

C. give

D. put

Question 35:

A. order

B. book

C. engage

D. register

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The ruined temples of Angkor are perhaps one of the most impressive Seven Wonders of the World. Located in modern day Cambodia near Lake Tonle Sap, the largest freshwater lake in Asia, Angkor was the seat of power for the Khmer Empire for the ninth to the fifteenth century. The ruins of Angkor are documented as some of the most impressive ones in the world, rivaling the pyramids of Giza in Egypt. Why this mighty civilization died out is a question that archeologists are now only beginning to ponder. The answer, it turns out, may be linked with the availability of fresh water.

One possible explanation for the downfall of the Khmer Empire has to do with the inhabitant’s irrigation system. The temples and palaces of Angkor were constructed around a series of artificial reservoirs and canals which were annually flooded to capacity by the Mekong River. Once filled, they were used to irrigate the surrounding paddies and farmland during the course of the year. Farmers were completely dependent on the water for water crucial rice crop. Without consistent irrigation, the farmers would have been unable to maintain functional crop production.

Scientists speculate that toward the end of the Khmer Empire the hydraulic system of the reservoirs and canals broke down. The construction of hundreds of sandstone temples and palaces required an enormous amount of physical labor. In addition, as the capital of Khmer Empire, Angkor contained upwards of one hundred thousand people who resided in and around Angkor. In order to feed so many people, the local farmers were driven to grow food more quickly and more efficiently. After centuries of continual use, the irrigation system was pushed beyond its capacity. Soil erosion, nutrient depletion, and loss of water led to decrease in the food supply. With the less food available, the people of Angkor slowly began to migrate to other parts of Cambodia, thus leaving the marvelous city of Angkor to be swallowed by the jungle. Therefore, it is speculated that the Khmer Empire may have fallen victim to its own decrepit infrastructure.

Question 36: The passage preceding most likely discusses ________.

A. architecture of ancient Asian civilization B. religious practices of the people of Angkor C. the form of government practiced by the Khmer Empire D. the other six wonders of the world Question 37: According to the passage, Lake Tonle Sap in Cambodia ________.

A. was unable to supply fish for the people of Angkor B. is one of the Seven Wonders of the World C. is an enormous body of fresh water in Asia D. became polluted due to a population explosion Question 38: The word “seat” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. battle

B. summit

C. location

D. chief

Question 39: The hydraulic system of reservoirs ________.

A. supplied irrigation from the Indian Ocean B. helped transport the sandstone for constructing temples C. were destroyed by nearby warrior’s tribes D. became non–functional due to overuse Question 40: The word “artificial” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. man–made

B. numerous

C. natural

Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ____.

D. insincere .

A. reservoirs and canals

B. temples and palaces

C. rice paddles

D. farmland

Question 42: All of the following are mentioned as events that can affect food supply EXCEPT ________.

A. reduction of nutrients

B. contamination of soil

C. loss of water supply

D. erosion of soil

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The quest for sustainable sources of energy study the energy has led humans to study the energy potential of the sun and the wind, as well as the immense power created by dammed rivers. The oceans, too, represent an impressive source of potential energy. For example, it has been estimated that the oceans could provide nearly 3,000 times the energy generated by hydroelectric dams such as the Hoover Dam. Yet, this source remains quite difficult to exploit.

But this challenge has not prevented scientists from trying. Within the last few decades, several technologies that can transform the ocean’s immense forces into usable electricity have been invented and introduced. Some focus on capturing the power of the changing tides, while others rely on thermal energy created by oceans in certain tropical regions. However, the most common and easiest-to-develop technologies are those designed to harness the power inherent in the ocean’s waves.

There are several methods by which ocean-wave energy can be collected. All of them work because the movement of the water that the waves induce creates storable energy by directly or indirectly driving a power generator. In one such technology, the changing water levels in the ocean that are produced by waves lift a long floating tube comprised of many sections connected by hinges. As the sections move up and down with the water, they pump a special fluid through the tube that can be used to drive a generator. Another technique works on a similar principle, only the floating object rocks back and forth with the motion of the water instead of up and down. A third method of collecting wave energy relies on the rising water from the waves to compress air in a partially submerged chamber. As the waves rush into the chamber, they push the air out through a narrow tunnel. Located inside this tunnel is a turbine connected to a power generator. The movement of the air turns the turbine, which feeds energy into the generator.

The drawback to each of these concepts is that the they make it necessary to have many pieces of machinery linked together. This presents a problem because the larger the device, the more vulnerable it is to damage from hazardous ocean environments, and the more likely it is to interfere with otherwise unspoiled coastal scenery. Also, these methods demand the

construction of site-specific machines that take into consideration average local wave heights and sea conditions. Such a requirement can be quite cost-prohibitive, because engineers must create unique power generation mechanism for each site. In other words, the ability to get power from waves differ from region to region.

Japan, Norway, and the UK have attempted to generate energy by capturing the power of ocean waves. In northern Scotland, the first power plan to use wave power, OSPREY ( Ocean Swell Powered Renewable Energy ), began operating in 1995. It followed the principle of the third method described above : waves entering a partially submerged chamber pushed air into turbines to generate electricity. The electricity was then transmitted to power collectors in the shore via underwater cables. Unfortunately, the OSPREY plant was destroyed in a large storm, highlighting an unavoidable difficulty associated with this kind of power generation.

The potential benefits of wave-based energy are hard to ignore. Once the proper machinery is produced and installed, the energy is free. Maintenance cost are small, and the equipment does not pose any threats of environmental pollution. And best of all, the amounts of energy produced are enormous.

However, these theoretical advantages have yet to be fully realized. In many cases, a lack of government funding has inhibited the technologies from advancing. For example, despite the relative abundance of proposed wave-power devices, many have not been adequately tested, and most have been evaluated only in artificial pools where they are not subjected to the harsh marine conditions that exist in actual oceans. Protecting the equipment from the sea’s destructive forces, as well as the fundamental task of determining feasible locations for collecting energy source are substantial and will require more time to overcome.

Question 43: The phrase this source in the passage refers to A. sun

B. wind

C. dammed rivers

D. oceans

Question 44: The word exploit in the passage is closest meaning to A. utilize

B. declare

C. contain

D. determine

Question 45: Why does the author mention the Hoover Dam in paragraph one ?

A. To give a current example of ocean–based energy technology B. To explain that dams are effective producers of sustainable energy C. To draw a comparison between two sources of renewable energy D. To show that alternative energy sources have not been successful Question 46: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is true about wave–power technologies?

A. Many of them use submerged objects to obtain the waves’ energy B. Compressed air must be present for them to work properly C. They undertake three steps in order to collect wave power D. They rely on the water’s motion to create electricity Question 47: According to paragraph 5, what part did the cables play in OSPREY’s design?

A. They attached the partially submerged chamber to the sea floor B. They generated the electricity which was then collected in turbines.

C. They conducted the electricity from the generator to the shore.

D. They provided stability during powerful ocean storms.

Question 48: The word inhibited in the passage is closest in meaning to A. delivered

B. prevented

C. protected

D. approved

Question 49: What can be inferred from paragraph 7 about governments?

A. They do not believe wave–energy devices can withstand ocean forces.

B. Their interests often conflict with those of the energy industries.

C. They demand much scientific research before they provide funding.

D. Their support is often essential to the success of new endeavors.

Question 50: All of these are problems associated with the collection of wave energy EXCEPT ?

A. the difficulty of finding feasible locations

B. the destructive power of the ocean

C. the size of the equipment involved

D. the constant changing of the tides

Đáp án 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A B B B D C D D D A

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

A B A D C A A B B A

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B D C B A D D C D C

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

B A B C B D C C D A

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

A B D A C D C B D D

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 04 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. shrug

B. once

C. console

D. result

Question 2:

A. thread

B. breath

C. break

D. tread

Mark the better A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word about differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. considerate

B. cooperate

C. knowledgeable

D. inhabitant

Question 4:

A. dedicate

B. cosmonaut

C. undertake

D. gravity

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: The two coaches collided, but luckily no one was wounded.

A. collided

B. but

C. luckily

D. wounded

Question 6: By itself, technology can be either good nor bad, depends on how people use it.

A. By

B. can be

C. nor

D. depends

Question 7: Having watered the flowers in the rooms, she went on watering those in the kitchen.

A. Having watered

B. in the

C. watering

D. those

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: We don’t want my father to know about the trip. Please, don’t give us________ A. off

B. in

C. on

D. away

Question 9: You should at least ________an effort to find the boy’s address if you don’t want to lose your last hope.

A. make

B. work

C. put

D. do

Question 10: If only I ________my temper at the party last night!

A. wouldn’t have lost B. wouldn’t lose

C. hadn’t lost

D. didn’t lose

Question 11: One of ________days I’m going to give him a piece of my mind.

A. our

B. those

C. these

D. the

Question 12: “Why did you ride your bike today?” “It’s more ________than driving my car” A. economical

B. economic

C. economy

D. economically

Question 13: - “ I understand you have been reading all the boys’ letters. Since when? “ - “ Since they________to me about their weekend plans.”

A. laid

B. have laid

C. have lied

D. lied

Question 14: What about ________for us? It might be quite interesting, I suppose.

A. to have some of them working

B. making some of them work

C. having some of them work

D. to make some of them work

Question 15: Scientists say that mass ________can cause fast environmental pollution.

A. production

B. productive

C. productively

D. product

Question 16: We are going to build a fence around the field with (a)n ________to breedingsheep and cattle.

A. goal

B. view

C. reason

D. outlook

Question 17: The ASEAN countries are going to________a resolution to establish a free trade zone.

A. take

B. pass

C. bring

D. order

Question 18: Mrs. Finkelstein demanded that the heater ________immediately. Her apartment was freezing.

A. be repaired

B. repaired

C. should be repair

D. would be repaired

Question 19: I can’t give you the answer on the ________; I’ll have to think about it for a few days.

A. place

B. minute

C. scene

D. spot

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Hoang: “Let’s go to my place for a coffee." Nam: “________” A. Done!

B. It’s fine.

C. Can’t be better.

D. Sounds great.

Question 21: Jack: “I think the food in the restaurant is really delicious.” Janny: “________” A. Neither do I

B. You can say that again

C. You’re welcome.

D. That's why I am here

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.

Question 22: The sophisticated design of the vase made it a valuable piece or her collection A. functional

B. simple

C. accurate

D. complex

Question 23: Having spent all my money on tuition, I’m not affluent enough even to go to the cinema.

A. arrogant

B. wealthy

C. afraid

D. poor

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Students are expected to be quiet and compliant in the classroom.

A. recalcitrant

B. obedient

C. compatible

D. friendly

Question 25: After many years of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller finally achieved world fame in 1939 as a big band leader.

A. requesting

B. trying

C. offering

D. deciding

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: The newspaper reports that James was awarded the first prize.

A. It is reported that James wins the first prize.

B. It is reported that James to be awarded the first prize.

C. James is reported to have been awarded the first prize.

D. The first prize is reported to award to James.

Question 27: It is possible that we won’t have to take an entrance exam this year.

A. Perhaps we don’t have to take an entrance exam this year.

B. We mustn’t take an entrance exam this year.

C. We mightn’t take an entrance exam this year.

D. It is very likely that we will take an entrance exam this year.

Question 28: In spite of his tiredness, Joe managed to finish his work.

A. Although he is tired, Joe managed to finish his work.

B. Joe managed to finish his work but he was tired C. Despite he was tired, Joe managed to finish his work.

D. Tired as he seemed to be, Joe managed to finish his work.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: We breathe much polluted air. We get weaker A. Much polluted air is breathed as we get weaker B. The more polluted air we breathe, the weaker we get C. The weaker we get, the more polluted air we breathe D. Polluted air is responsible for out bad health.

Question 30: We missed class several times. This was the cause of our poor grades.

A. Having missed class several times, our poor grades were anticipated.

B. Having missed class several times, our poor grades were anticipated.

C. We received poor grades missing class several time.

D. Receiving poor grades, we missed class several times.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.

I live on the first floor of a house that has been (31) _______ into three flats. Five months ago, a couple moved into the flat above and since then my life has been a nightmare. They get up at 6 a.m and make a terrible noise. They listen to the radio at top (32) _______, talk loudly and stamp on the floor. In the evening they play the same record on their stereo over and over again. It’s beginning to (33) _______ me mad. I’ve tried turning my own stereo up to (34) _______ out the noise but I like peace and quiet and find loud music stressful. I tried to talking to them but it hasn’t done any good. I realize I should live and (35) _______ live , but I have begun to have quite irrational revenge fantasies about them – like switching off their electricity or deliberately making a lot of noise late at night when I know they are asleep. What on earth can I do?

Question 31:

A. changed

B. converted

C. adapted

D. remade

Question 32:

A. power

B. volume

C. pitch

D. intensity

Question 33:

A. drive

B. force

C. turn

D. put

Question 34:

A. wipe

B. sound

C. deafen

D. drown

Question 35:

A. let

B. make

C. have

D. be

Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each for the questions.

Telecommuting-substituting the computer for the trip to the job-has been hailed as a solution to all kinds of problems related to office work. For workers, it promises freedom from the office, less time wasted in traffic, and help with child-care conflicts. For management, telecommuting helps keep high performers on board, minimizes tardiness and absenteeism by eliminating commutes, allows periods of solitude for high-concentration tasks, and provides scheduling flexibility. In some areas, such as Southern California and Seattle, Washington, local governments are encouraging companies to start telecommuting programs in order to reduce rush-hour congestion and improve air quality, but these benefits do not come easily. Making a telecommuting program work requires careful planning and an understanding of the differences between telecommuting realities and popular images.

Many workers are seduced by rosy illusions of life as a telecommuter. A computer programmer from New York City moves to the tranquil Adirondack Mountains and stays in contact with her office via computer. A manager comes into his Office three days a week and works at home the other two. An accountant stays home to care for child; she hooks up her telephone modem connections and does office work between calls to the doctor.

These are powerful images, but they are a limited reflection of reality. Telecommuting workers soon learn that it is almost impossible to concentrate on work and care for a young child at the same time. Before a certain age, young children cannot recognize, much less respect, the necessary boundaries between work and family. Additional child support is necessary if the parent is to get any work done.

Management, too, must separate the myth from the reality. Although the media has paid a great deal of attention to telecommuting, in most cases it is the employee’s situation, not the availability of technology, that precipitates a telecommuting arrangement.

That is partly why, despite the widespread press coverage, the number of companies with workat-home programs or policy guidelines remains small.

Question 36: What is the main subject of the passage?

A. Business management policies B. Commuting to work C. Extending the workplace by means of telecommutingk D. Telecommuting for child-care purposes Question 37: According to the passage, what is the most important tool for a telecommuter to work at home?

A. telephone

B. a camera

C. a smart phone

D. a computer

Question 38: The word “hailed” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to A. welcomed

B. communicated

C. considered

D. arranged

Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem for office employees?

A. Being restricted to the office

B. Incurring expenses for lunches and clothing

C. Taking care of sick children

D. Driving in heavy traffic

Question 40: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem for employers that is potentially solved by telecommuting?

A. Employees’ lateness for work B. Employees’ absence from work C. Employees’ need for time to work intensively alone D. Employees’ conflicts with second jobs Question 41: Which of the following does the author mention as a possible disadvantage of telecommuting?

A. Small children cannot understand the boundaries of work and play.

B. Computer technology is not advanced enough to accommodate the needs of every situation.

C. Electrical malfunctions can destroy a project.

D. The worker often does not have all the needed resources at home.

Question 42: Which of the following is an example of telecommuting as described in the passage?

A. A scientist in a laboratory developing plans for a space station B. A technical writer sending via computer documents created at home C. A computer technician repairing an office computer network D. A teacher directing computer-assisted learning in a private school.

Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each for the questions.

Millions of people tune into the weather forecast each evening on televisions. Most of them imagine that the presenter does little more than arrive at the studio a few minutes before the broadcast, read the weather, and then go home.

In fact, this imagine is far from the truth. The two-minute bulletin which we all rely on when we need to know tomorrow’s weather is the result of a hard day’s work by the presenter, who is actually a highly-qualified meteorologist.

Every morning after arriving at the TV studios, the first task of the days is to collect the latest data from the national Meteorological Office. This office provides up-to-the-minute information about weather conditions throughout the day, both in Britain and around the world. The information is very detailed and includes predictions, satellite and radar pictures, as well as more technical data. After gathering all the relevant material from this office, the forecaster has to translate the scientific terminology and maps into images and word which viewers can easily understand.

The final broadcast is then carefully planned. It is prepared in the same way as other programmes. The presenter decides what to say and in what order to say it. Next, a “story board” is drawn up which lay out the script word for word. What make a weather forecast more complicated than other programmes are the maps and electronic images which are required. The computer has to be programmed so that the pictures appear in the correct order during the bulletin.

The time allocated for each broadcast can also alter. This is because the weather report is screened after the news, which can vary in length. The weather forecaster doesn’t always know how much time is available, which means that he/ she has to be thoroughly prepared so that the material can be adapted to the time available.

Another related complication is that the weather forecast has to be a live broadcast; it cannot be pre- recorded. Live shows are very nerve- racking for the presenter because almost anything can go wrong. Perhaps the most worrying aspect for every weather forecaster is getting the following day’s predictions wrong. Unfortunately for them this is not an unusual occurrence; the weather is not always possible to predict accurately.

The weather is a national obsession in Britain, Perhaps because it is so changeable. It’s the national talking point, and most people watch at least one daily bulletin. It can be mortifying for a weather man or woman who has predicted rain for the morning to wake up to brilliant sunshine. These days, a weather forecaster’s job is even more complicated because they are replied upon to predict other environmental conditions. For example, in the summer the weather forecast has to include the pollen count for hay fever sufferers. Some also include reports on ultraviolet radiation intensity to help people avoid sunburn.

The job of the weather forecaster is certainly far more complicated than just pointing at a map and describing weather conditions. It’s a job for professionals who can cope with stressful and demanding conditions.

Question 43: What perception do most people have a weather forecasters?

A. They have many qualifications.

B. They do a hard day’s work at the studio.

C. They always tell the truth.

D. They work very short hours.

Question 44: Meteorologists get their forecasting information from A. The TV studio

B. The country’ s main weather centre

C. Satellite and radar information

D. Their office

Question 45: The phrase up- to- the- minute in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to A. Very brief

B. Very short

C. ( the) most recent

D. Fashionable

Question 46: The computer has to be carefully programmed A. So that the visual are sequenced correctly B. So that the script is visible to the presenter C. Because the script has to be written on a story board D. Because electric maps are used Question 47: Weather forecasters have to know the material well because A. The length of the report may have to change B. The forecast may be incorporated into the news broadcast C. The content of the report may have to change D. The broadcast is pre-recorded Question 48: What does this in paragraph 6 refer to?

A. The weather forecaster’s worry

B. Reading the weather ‘live’

C. Giving a forecast that doesn’t come true

D. An accurate prediction

Question 49: The word mortifying in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A. embarrassing

B. enjoyable

C. deceitful

D. frightening

Question 50: Nowadays, weather forecasters have to A. do experiments to determine the pollen count.

B. simply point at maps and describe weather conditions.

C. cope with professionals.

D. be able to cope under pressure.

Đáp án 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

C C C C D C C D A C

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

C A D C A B B A D D

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B B D B B C C D B B

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

B B A D A C D A B D

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

A B D B C A A C A D

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 05 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others.

Question 1:

A. stopped

B. laughed

C. realized

D. produced

Question 2:

A. cool

B. food

C. boom

D. took

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. psychology

B. speculate

C. pedestrian

D. preservative

Question 4:

A. consistent

B. advocate

C. apparent

D. admission

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Several people have apparent tried to change the man’s mind, but he refuses to listen.

A. Several

B. apparent

C. man's mind

D. to listen

Question 6: Lara is a very bright student who learns quickly and do all her course work very well.

A. very bright

B. who learns

C. do all

D. work

Question 7: After being questioned for a few minutes, John finally admitted to steal his friend’s money.

A. being

B. admitted

C. steal

D. friend’s

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: He told his sister that he ________ to run away from home.

A. intends

B. is intending

C. has intended

D. intended

Question 9: She applied for training as a pilot, but they turned her ________ because of her poor eyesight.

A. up

B. back

C. over

D. down

Question 10: They live in a ________ of Oxford, and come into town by bus every day.

A. suburb

B. area

C. centre

D. countryside

Question 11: George didn’t attend school for six weeks as he had to stay in hospital where he was ________ for pneumonia.

A. fixed

B. treated

C. relieved

D. mended

Question 12: You look tired. Why don’t we ________ and have a good rest?

A. call its name

B. call on

C. call it a day

D. call off

Question 13: ________ of the students in our class could solve this math problem.

A. Not

B. Neither

C. Not much

D. None

Question 14: You mustn’t ________ these difficult exercises; do them all.

A. leave off

B. leave behind

C. leave for

D. leave out

Question 15: Water pollution is often caused by industrial ________ from factories.

A. fuels

B. waste

C. gases

D. rain

Question 16: ________ becoming more and more common in children.

A. The diabetes

B. The diabetes are

C. Diabetes is

D. Diabetes are

Question 17: The marathon was postponed ________ the heavy rain.

A. due to

B. because

C. despite

D. when

Question 18: She built a high wall round her garden ________ A. in order that her fruit not be stolen

B. to enable people not taking her fruit

C. so that her fruit would be stolen

D. to prevent her fruit from being stolen

Question 19: I enjoy swimming, but ________ I avoid crowded pools.

A. on the contrary

B. on the face of it

C. as a rule

D. in a nutshell

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Joanne: “You should have flown with the earlier flight!” Alex: “___________” A. Why not?

B. Yes. I did.

C. Oh, I’m sorry to hear that.

D. It was fully booked.

Question 21: Stephanie: “Huong, this is Nick.” Huong: “___________” A. Really?

B. Nice to meet you

C. An honour

D. My dear

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.

Question 22: The environment was nourishing to the young girl’s developing personality.

A. beneficial

B. harmful

C. cheap

D. good

Question 23: The birthday gift Bet’s grandmother gave her is irreplaceable.

A. Possible to replace

B. Unable to buy

C. Impossible to find another

D. Quite easily found

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: The governor issued a statement in an attempt to negate the accusations against him.

A. disapprove

B. admit

C. have no effect

D. deny

Question 25: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.

A. be related to

B. be interested in

C. pay all attention to D. express interest to

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: If only I had taken his advice A. I wish I followed his advice

B. I wish I have taken his advice

C. I regret not having taken his advice

D. I regret not to take his advice

Question 27: James blamed his younger brother for the damage.

A. James punished his younger brother for the damage.

B. James was responsible for his younger brother’s damge.

C. James said his younger brother had caused the damage.

D. James blamed the damage for his younger brother.

Question 28: If only you had told me the truth about the theft.

A. You should have told me the truth about the theft.

B. Only if you had told me the truth about the theft.

C. Had you told me the truth, there wouldn’t have been the theft.

D. You only told me the truth if there was a theft.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Alex bought the big house. He wanted to open a restaurant A. Alex bought the big house although he wanted to open a restaurant B. Alex bought the big house with a view to opening a restaurant C. Alex bought the big house in order to want to open a restaurant D. Alex bought the house as long as he wanted to open a restaurant Question 30: Chemical engineers earn a BC degree. Chemical engineers are almost guaranteed a job with a BC. A. Whether they earn a BC degree, chemical engineers are almost guaranteed a job.

B. If they earn a BC degree, chemical engineers are almost guaranteed a job C. To have a BC degree, chemical engineers are almost guaranteed a job D. Since earning a BC degree, chemical engineers are almost guaranteed a job.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.

Wind, water, air, ice and heat all work to cause erosion. As the wind blows over the land, it often (31)________ small grains of sand. When these grains of sand strike against solid rocks, the rocks are slowly worn away. In this way even very hard rocks are worn away by the wind. When particles of rocks or soil became loosened(tĆĄi ra) in any way, running water carries them down the (32)________ Some rocks and soil particles are carried into streams and then into the sea.

Land that is covered with trees, grass and other plants wears away very slowly, and so loses very (33)________ of its soil. The roots of plants help to (34)________ the rocks and soil in place.

Water that falls on grasslands runs away more slowly than water that falls on bare ground. Thus, forests and grasslands (35)________ to slow down erosion.

Question 31:

A. holds up

B. picks up

C. cleans out

D. carries out

Question 32:

A. hillsides

B. borders

C. topside

D. topsoil

Question 33:

A. few

B. much

C. little

D. large

Question 34:

A. stay

B. store

C. hold

D. back

Question 35:

A. help

B. assess

C. facilitate

D. aid

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct or near extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct.

What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals such as the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the world/s ecosystem. International laws protecting animals must be enacted to ensure their survival-and the survival of our planet.

Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols o protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself will not prevent animals from being hunted and killed.

Question 36: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The Bengal tiger

B. International boycotts.

C. Endangered species

D. Problems with industrialization

Question 37: Which of the following could best replace the word 'case' as used in paragraph 2?

A. Act

B. Situation

C. Contrast

D. Trade

Question 38: The word 'poachers' as used in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by which of the following?

A. Illegal hunters

B. Enterprising researchers

C. Concerned scientists

D. Trained hunters

Question 39: What does the word 'this' in paragraph 2 refer to in the passage?

A. Bengal tigers

B. Interest in material gain

C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction.

D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population

Question 40: Which of the following could best replace the word ‘allocated’ in paragraph 3?

A. Set aside

B. Combined

C. Organized

D. Taken off

Question 41: What does the term 'international boycott' in paragraph 3 refer to?

A. Buying and selling of animal products overseas.

B. A refusal to buy animal products worldwide C. A global increase in animal survival.

D. Defraying the cost of maintaining national parks.

Question 42: Which of the folᝉowing best describes the author's attitude?

A. Forgiving

B. Concerned

C. Vindictive

D. Surprised

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an astronomer, he was a scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also deeply interested exploring the unknown depths of the oceans. One of his lesser-known accomplishments that was quite remarkable was his design for a diving bell that facilitated exploration of the watery depths.

The diving bell that Halley designed had a major advantage over the diving bells that were in use prior to his. Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so divers had to surface when the air inside the bell ran low. Halley's bell was an improvement in that its design allowed for an additional supply of fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to remain underwater for several hours.

The diving contraption that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell that measured three feet across the top and five feet across the bottom and could hold several divers comfortably; it was open at the bottom so that divers could swim in and out at will. The bell was built of wood,

which was first heavily tarred to make it water repellent and was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make the bell heavy enough to sink in water. The bell shape held air inside for the divers to breathe as the bell sank to the bottom.

The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this improvement that made Halley's bell superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in the bell, air was also supplied to the divers from a lead barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor close to the bell itself. Air flowed through a leather pipe from the lead barrel on the ocean floor to the bell. The diver could breath the air from a position inside the bell, or he could move around outside the bell wearing a diving suit that consisted of a lead bell-shaped helmet with a glass viewing window and a leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying fresh air from the diving bell to the helmet.

Question 43: The subject of the preceding passage was most likely Halley's A. childhood

B. work as an astronomer

C. many different interests

D. invention of the diving bell

Question 44: Which of the following best expresses the subject of this passage?

A. Halley's work as an astronomer B. Haley's many different interests C. Halley's invention of a contraption for diving D. Halley's experiences as a diver Question 45: Halley's bell was better than its predecessors because it A. was bigger

B. provided more air

C. weighed less

D. could rise more quickly

Question 46: The expression ran low in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. moved slowly

B. had been replenished

C. sank to the bottom

D. was almost exhausted

Question 47: How long could divers stay underwater in Halley's bell?

A. Just a few seconds B. Only a few minutes C. For hours at a time D. For days on end Question 48: It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley's bell A. was wider at the bottom than at the top

B. was made of tarred wood

C. was completely enclosed

D. could hold more than one diver

Question 49: The word its in paragraph 4 refers to A. improvement

B. Halley's bell

C. source of air

D. a lead barrel

Question 50: This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on A. astronomy

B. recreation

C. oceanography

D. physiology

ฤ รกp รกn 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

C D B B B C C D D A

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

B C D D B C A D C D

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B B A D C C C A B B

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

B A C C A C B A C A

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

B B B C B D C C B C

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 06 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others.

Question 1:

A. pleasure

B. treasure

C. leap

D. head

Question 2:

A. children

B. schedule

C. watch

D. match

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. hopeful

B. compose

C. eject

D. admire

Question 4:

A. community

B. characterize

C. negotiate

D. identity

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: TheQuestion master tells you three things, and you have to say which are the odd one out.

A. tells

B. and you

C. are

D. out

Question 6: Have I to tell them that you have come?

A. Have I to

B. them

C. that

D. have come

Question 7: Physical therapists help patients relearn how to use their bodies after disease or injure.

A. relearn

B. to use

C. bodies

D. injure

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Nobody took any________of the warning and they went swimming in the contaminated water.

A. information

B. attention

C. sight

D. notice

Question 9: Tom was very emharrassed – it was ________mistake !

A. a so stupid

B. so stupid

C. a such stupid

D. such a stupid

Question 10: She had ________free time after she retired than previously.

A. much

B. more

C. most

D. many

Question 11: Thieves broke ________their house while they were on holiday.

A. down Question

B. into 12:

Because

Mark

C. off needed

to

pass

D. up the

exam,

he

made

priority________watching his favorite television show.

A. with

B. over

C. about

D. above

studying

a

Question 13: The new building will be________than our present premises.

A. by far the most spacious

B. far more spacious

C. much more spaciously

D. not so much spacious

Question 14: Many of the children in the area were clearly________and suffering from various diseases.

A. undernourished

B. underprivileged

C. overrated

D. overestimated

Question 15: Mr. Smith is a ________person; he never spares a penny.

A. arrogant

B. vain

C. mean

D. impulsive

Question 16: Success factors include being prepare to________sacrifices and knowing what your strengths are.

A. do

B. make

C. create

D. have

Question 17: It has never ________my mind that Jane might be a notorious liar.

A. passed

B. entered

C. crossed

D. reached

Question 18: Theoretical knowledge is no substitution ________experience.

A. for

B. to

C. in

D. with

Question 19: Most young children people in the Western would have ________to a decent education.

A. entrance

B. reach

C. access

D. opportunity

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Nicole: “It was wonderful evening. Thank you so much for your meal.” Pitt: “_____________” A. Yes, it’s really good

B. All right

C. I’m glad you enjoyed it

D. No, it’s very kind of you

Question 21: Hue: “Sorry to keep you waiting.” John: “_____________” A. No problem.

B. Don’t mention it.

C. You’re welcome

D. I’m glad you apologized

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.

Question 22: Fallout from nuclear power station damaged in the tsunami may endanger the vegetation .

A. stimulate

B. harm

C. inhibit

D. benefit

Question 23: The Egyptians used a primitive form of distillation to extract the essential oils from plants

A. fill

B. remove

C. insert

D. express

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: The vaccine provides longer immunity against flu.

A. protection

B. safety

C. effect

D. fighting

Question 25: Intermarriages between the noble families were very popular in the part.

A. honorable

B. hatred

C. acquainted

D. familiar

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: He put on a mask to avoid being recognized by his friends.

A. He put on a mask to prevent his friends recognise him B. He put on a mask for fear that his friends might recognise him . C. He put on a mask so that his friends would recognize him D. He put on a mask because he doesn’t want his friends to recognize him Question 27: It rained heavily, so the football match was cancelled A. The match was cancelled because of the heavy rain.

B. If it didn’t rain, the match wouldn’t be cancelled.

C. Despite the heavy rain the match was cancelled D. If it hadn’t been for the heavy rain, the match wouldn’t be cancelled.

Question 28: Monica won’t tell lie for any reason A. There’s no reason for Monica to tell lies

B. On no account will Monica tell lies

C. Monica rarely tells lies for any reason

D. Never has Monica told lies for any reason

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: The Chinese bicycle is $100. The Japanese one is $250.

A. The Chinese bicycle is more expensive than the Japanese one.

B. The Japanese bicycle is more expensive than the Chinese one.

C. The Japanese bicycle costs less than the Chinese one.

D. The Chinese bicycle has the same price as the Japanese one.

Question 30: Tom wore so many warm clothes. This was not necessary.

A. Tom did not need to wear so many warm clothes.

B. Tom needn’t wear so many warm clothes.

C. Tom needn’t have worn so many warm clothes.

D. Tom wore so many warm clothes which was not necessary.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.

WHAT’S IN IT FOR ME Students and jobseekers are keen to get onto the course or into the workplace of their choice hope that voluntary work will help them stand out from the crowd. This chance to (31)________experience-personally and professionally-is high on the wish list of young people.

A survey carried out last year revealed that young and old alike said volunteering had improved their lives, particularly those (32)________in conservation or heritage work. Businesses recognize its importance and get to raise their profile in the community, while staff get a break from their daily routine to develop “soft skill”, (33)________initiative and decision-making. One volunteering organization is conduct another survey to find out if volunteering does make a difference in the workplace, or if it is something businesses do simply to improve their (34)________Not only are business-sponsored placements becoming more common, the government is also investing money and aiming to (35)________volunteers. The push is clear to make volunteering as attractive as possible to everyone. And the more people who participate, the more act fulfils its direction of making the world a better place.

Question 31:

A. gain

B. achieve

C. collect

D. win

Question 32:

A. committed

B. associated

C. connected

D. involved

Question 33:

A. such

B. such and such

C. such like

D. such as

Question 34:

A. representation

B. image

C. look

D. figure

Question 35:

A. recruit

B. claim

C. bring

D. enter

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Every year about two million people visit Mount Rushmore, were the faces of four U.S presidents were carved in granite by sculptor Gutzon Borglum and his son, the late Lincoln Borglum. The creation of the Mount Rushmore monument Line took 14 years – from 1927 to 1941 – and nearly a million dollars. There were times when money was difficult to come by and many people were jobless. To move more than 400,000 tons of rock, Borglum hired laid-off workers from the closed-down mines in the Black Hills area. He taught these men to dynamite, drill, carve, and finish the granite as they were hanging in midair in his specially devised chairs, which had many safety features. Borglum was proud of the fact that no workers were killed or severely injured during the years of blasting and carving.

During the carving, many changes in original design had to be made to keep the carved heads free of large fissures that were uncovered. However, not all the cracks could be avoided, so Borglum concocted a mixture of granite dust, white lead, and linseed oil to fill them.

Every winter, water from melting snows gets into the fissures and expands as it freezes, making the fissures bigger. Consequently, every autumn maintenance work is done to refill the cracks. The repairers swing out in space over a 500-foot drop and fix the monument with the same mixture that Borglum used to preserve this national monument for future generations.

Question 36: This passage is mainly about _________ A. the visitors to the Mount Rushmore monument B. the faces at the Mount Rushmore monument C. the sculptor of the Mount Rushmore monument D. the creation of the Mount Rushmore monument Question 37: According to the passage, Borglum’s son _________ A. is dead

B. was a president

C. did maintenance work

D. spent a million dollars.

Question 38: The word ‘which’ is paragraph 1 refers to _________ A. granite

B. these man

C. chairs

D. features

Question 39: The men who Borglum hired were _________ A. trained sculptors

B. laid-off stone masons

C. Black Hills volunteers

D. unemployed miners

Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that _________ A. the heads are not as originally planned

B. the workers made mistakes when blasting

C. the cracks caused serious injuries

D. the designs had large fissures in them

Question 41: Borglum’s mixture for filling cracks was _________ A. very expensive

B. bought at the Black Hills mines

C. invented

D. uncovered during carving

Question 42: Today, Mount Rushmore needs to be _________ A. protected from air pollution

B. polished for tourists

C. restored during the winter

D. repaired periodically

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In the late 1960’s, many people in North America turned their attention to environmental problems and new steel-and-glass skyscrapers were widely criticized.

Ecologists pointed out that a cluster of tall buildings in a city often overburdens public transportation and parking lot capacities.

Skyscrapers are also lavish consumers, and waster, of electric power. In one recent year, the addition of 17 million square feet of skyscraper office space in New York City raised the peak daily demand for electricity by 120,-000 kilowatts-enough to supply the entire city of Albany, New York, for a day.

Glass-walled skyscrapers can be especially wasteful. The heat loss (or gain) through a wall of half-inch plate glass is more than ten times that through a typical masonry wall filled with insulation board. To lessen the strain on heating and air-conditioning equipment, builders of skyscrapers have begun to use double glazed panels of glass, and reflective glasses coated with silver or gold mirror films that reduce glare as well as heat gain.

However, mirror-walled skyscrapers raise the temperature of the surrounding air and affect neighboring buildings.

Skyscrapers put a severe strain on a city’s sanitation facilities, too. If fully occupied, the two World Trade Center towers in New York City would alone generate 2.25 million gallons of raw sewage each year-as much as a city the size of Stamford, Connecticut, which has a population of more than 109,000.

Skyscrapers also interfere with television reception, block bird flyways, and obstruct air traffic. In Boston, in the late 1960’s some people even feared that shadows from skyscrapers would kill the grass on Boston Common.

Still, people continue to build skyscrapers for all the reasons that they have always built them – personal ambition, civic pride, and the desire of owners to have the largest possible amount of rentable space.

Question 43: The main purpose of the passage is to _________ A. compare skyscrapers with other modern structures.

B. describe skyscrapers and their effects on the environment.

C. advocate the use of masonry in the construction of skyscrapers.

D. illustrate some architectural designs of skyscrapers.

Question 44: According to the passage, the attitude of many people in North America towards skyscrapers could be best described as _________ A. unemotional

B. skeptical

C. critical

D. bitter

Question 45: The word “overburden” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________ A. overwhelm

B. overload

C. overachieve

D. overcome

Question 46: According to the passage, what is one disadvantage of skyscrapers that have mirrored walls?

A. The exterior surrounding air is heated.

B. The windows must be cleaned daily.

C. Construction time is increased.

D. Extra air-conditioning equipment is needed.

Question 47: According to the passage, in the late 1960’s some residents of Boston were concerned with which aspect of skyscrapers?

A. The noise from their construction

B. The removal of trees from building sites

C. The harmful effects on the city’s grass

D. The high cost of rentable office space

Question 48: The author raises issues that would most concern which of the following groups?

A. Electricians

B. Environmentalists

C. Aviators

D. Teachers

Question 49: In which paragraph does the author compare the energy consumption of skyscrapers with that of a city?

A. paragraph 2

B. paragraph 3

C. paragraph 4

D. paragraph 5

Question 50: According to the passage, all of the following are mentioned as reasons for building skyscrapers EXCEPT A. people’s strong desire to build high.

B. people’s pride for their towns or cities C. the greed of the owners to have more place for lease D. the need to accommodate more people. Đáp án 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

C B A B C A D D D B

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

B B B A C C C A C C

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

A D C A A B A B B C

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

A D D B A D A C D A

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

C D B C B A C B A D

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 07 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others.

Question1:

A. stretch

B. natural

C. ancient

D. question

Question2:

A. decent

B. recent

C. celebrate

D. even

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question3:

A. marvelous

B. courageous

C. delicious

D. religious

Question4:

A. milkmaid

B. rival

C. title

D. defend

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question5: Many of the population in the rural areas is composed of manual labors.

A. Many

B. rural areas

C. composed of

D. labors

Question6: During the school year, I am not allowed to watch television when I have finished my homewok.

A. During

B. to watch

C. when

D. homework

Question7: We have postponed to tell anyone the news until after Christmas.

A. have

B. to tell

C. the

D. until after

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question8: The maid ________the beds every morning.

A. has

B. does

C. takes

D. makes

Question9: Turn on the radio. I want to listen to the news________ A. report

B. crash

C. board

D. turning

Question10: I have returned ________books I borrowed to the library.

A. all of

B. most of

C. all the

D. all most

Question11: The plumber couldn’t remember where he’d left the box ________he kept his tools.

A. for whom

B. in what

C. in which

D. of which

Question12: The discovery was a major ________for researchers in the field of space exploration.

A. breakdown

B. breakthrough

C. break-in

Question13: Jane’s very modest, always ________her success.

D. outbreak

A. pushing back

B. playing down

C. keeping down

D. turning around

Question14: The sales assistant talked me ________buying a bottle of perfume for my wife.

A. to

B. into

C. onto

D. over to

Question15: We don’t have to pay for the food. Everything is on the ________today.

A. house

B. place

C. home

D. business

Question16: ________the heavy rain, the ship couldn’t reach its destination on time.

A. Because of

B. In spite of

C. In case of

D. But for

Question17: The stones have ________buried in the sand for a thousand years.

A. lied

B. lying

C. laid

D. lain

Question18: James should have stayed out of the sun as his skin is so ________.

A. sensible

B. insensible

C. sensitive

D. senseless

Question19: The students were made ________their essays.

A. rewriting

B. to rewriting

C. rewrite

D. to rewrite

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question20: “ Would you like ti have noodles, spaghetti, or something different?” “____________” A. I’m afraid not.

B. Yes, please.

C. Never mind.

D. Anything will do.

Question21: A: “How many people do you want to invite to your graduation party?” B: “____________” A. The most, the best.

B. The more, the merrier.

C. The many, the merrier.

D. The more, the more happily.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.

Question22: I used to meet him regularly on Fifth Avenue.

A. one time

B. in one occasion

C. once in a blue moon

D. normally

Question23: According to a local newspaper, within a year the party had drastically overhauled its structure.

A. devalued

B. established

C. appreciated

D. improved

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question24: The father has lost his job, so we'll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.

A. earn money

B. save money

C. sit still

D. economize

Question25: I couldn’t help laughing when he fell in the pool with all his clothes on; it was so funny!

A. couldn't assist

B. couldn't resist

C. couldn't face

D. couldn’t stand

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question26: They haven’t finished the final test yet A. The final test hasn’t been finished yet.

B. They are not doing the final test

C. The final test will never be finished

D. The final test has just been started

Question27: I advise you to send her a postcard A. Her postcard should be sent to you.

B. You’d rather I sent her a postcard

C. You’d better send her a postcard

D. I am advised to send you her postcard.

Question28: If I lived in the city, I would go to the cinema every Saturday.

A. I live in the city, but I don’t go to the cinema every Saturday.

B. I don’t live in the city, but I go to the cinema every Saturday.

C. I live in the city, so I go to the cinema every Saturday.

D. I don’t live in the city; that’s why I can’t go to the cinema every Saturday.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question29: Every day the diversity of life on Earth gets poorer. We are overusing resources and disregarding the riches of nature.

A. The diversity of life on Earth gets poorer every day because of our overuse of resources and disregard for the riches of nature B. Every day the diversity of life on Earth gets poorer, leading to overusing resources and disregarding the riches of nature.

C. Every day the diversity of life on Earth gets poorer, in return for overusing resources and disregarding the riches of nature.

D. Although we are overusing resources and disregarding the riches of nature, the diversity of life on Earth gets poorer every day.

Question30: Many people criticized me yesterday. I objected to this.

A. I objected to many people criticized me yesterday.

B. I objected to many people being criticized yesterday.

C. I did not approve of many people criticized yesterday.

D. I objected to being criticized by many people yesterday.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.

It is a well-known fact that Japanese people have a longer life expectancy than the population of most other countries. A (31)________report shows that the Japanese also expect to remain healthier for longer. Scientists are trying to work out what keeps elderly Japanese people so healthy, and whether there is a lesson to be learnt from their lifestyles. Should we (32)________any changes to our eating habits, for instance, or go jogging each day before breakfast? Is there some secret(33)________in the Japanese diet that is particularly beneficial for the human body? Although the prospect of a longer , healthier life is a good thing for the individual, it can actually create a social problem. The number of people over the age of 65 in the population has doubled in the last 50 years and that has increased pension and medical costs.

Japan could soon be (34)________an economic problem: there are more elderly people who need to be looked after. And relatively fewer younger people working and paying taxes to support them. One solution could be to (35)________retirement age from 65 to 70 . After all, the elderly have a great deal to contribute. If they continue to be active in society, younger generations will have the chance to learns more from their wisdom and experience.

Question31:

A. late

B. recent

C. morden

D. contemporary

Question32:

A. do

B. make

C. set

D. give

Question33:

A. ingredient

B. component

C. portion

D. helping

Question34:

A. facing

B. meeting

C. adopting

D. encountering

Question35:

A. put

B. move

C. rise

D. raise

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Edward Patrick Francis “Eddie� Eagan (April 26, 1897-June 14, 1967), was an amateur boxing star of the early 1920s. He was born into a poor family in Denver, Colorado.

His father died in a railroad accident when Eagan was only a year old. He and his four brothers were raised by his mother, who earned a small income from teaching foreign languages.

Inspired by Frank Merriwell, the hero of a series of popular novels for boys, Eagan pursued an education for himself as well as an interest in boxing. He attended the University of Denver for a year before serving in the U.S. Army as an artillery lieutenant during World War I. After the war, he entered Yale University and, while studying there, won the U.S. national amateur heavyweight boxing title. He graduated from Yale in 1921, attended

Harvard Law School, and received a Rhodes scholarship to the University of Oxford where he received his Master’s Degree in 1928.

While studying at Oxford, Eagan became the first American to win the British amateur boxing championship. Eagan won his first Olympic gold medal as a light heavyweight boxer at the 1920 Olympic Games in Antwerp, Belgium. Eagan also fought at the 1924 Olympics in Paris as a heavyweight but failed to get a medal. Though he had taken up the sport just three weeks before the competition, he managed to win a second gold medal as a member of the four-man bobsled team at the 1932 Olympics in Lake Placid, New York. Thus he became the only athlete to win gold medals at both the Summer and Winter Olympics.

Eagan was a member of the first group of athletes inducted into the U.S. Olympic Hall of Fame in 1983. Eagan became a respected attorney, serving as an assistant district attorney for southern New York and as chairman of the New York State Athletic Commission (194551). He married soap heiress. Margaret Colgate and attained the rank of lieutenant colonel during World War II. He died at the age of 70, in Rye, New York.

Question36: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Eagan’s life shows how a wealthy student can achieve as much as a poor one.

B. Eagan’s life shows that military experience makes athletes great.

C. Eagan’s life shows that a man can be an athlete and a well-educated person.

D. Eagan’s life shows how easy it is to win two gold medals in different Olympic sports.

Question37: According to the passage, how did Eagan’s mother earn a living?

A. Renting rooms to immigrants

B. Teaching foreign languages

C. Doing laundry and cleaning

D. Writing fiction for women’s magazines

Question38: According to the passage, who was Frank Merriwell?

A. A teacher at Yale

B. A fictional character

C. A student at Oxford

D. A bobsledder at the Olympics

Question39: The word “artillery” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. large weapons such as cannons

B. small weapons such as pistols

C. shoulder weapons such as rifles

D. tension weapons such as crossbows

Question40: According to the passage, Eagan won all of the following EXCEPT A. Light heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal B. U.S. national amateur heavyweight boxing title.

C. British amateur boxing championship D. Heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal Question41: According to the passage, where were the 1920 Olympic Games held?

A. In Antwerp, Belgium

B. In Paris, France

C. In London, England

D. In Lake Placid, New York

Question42: According to the passage, what special honor did Eagan receive in 1983?

A. He was inducted into U.S. Olympic Hall of Fame.

B. He was promoted to lieutenant colonel in the U.S. Army.

C. He received a gold medal in four-man bobsledding D. He was appointed assistant district attorney for Southern New York.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

What makes it rain? Rain falls from clouds for the same reason anything falls to Earth.

The Earth’s gravity pulls it. But every cloud is made of water droplets or ice crystals. Why doesn’t rain or snow fall constantly from all clouds? The droplets or ice crystals in clouds are exceedingly small. The effect of gravity on them is minute. Air currents move and lift droplets so that the net downward displacement is zero, even though the droplets are in constant motion.

Droplets and ice crystals behave somewhat like dust in the air made visible in a shaft of sunlight. To the casual observer, dust seems to act in a totally random fashion moving about chaotically without fixed direction. But in fact dust particles are much larger than water droplets and they finally fall. The cloud droplet of average size is only 1/2500 inch in diameter. It is so small that it would take sixteen hours to fall half a mile in perfectly still air, and it does not fall out of moving air at all. Only when the droplet grows to a diameter of 1/125 inch or larger can it fall from the cloud. The average raindrop contains a million times as much water as a tiny cloud droplet. The growth of a cloud droplet to a size large enough to fall out is the cause of rain and other forms of precipitation. This important growth process is called “coalescence”.

Question43: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The mechanics of rain.

B. The climate of North America.

C. How gravity affects agriculture.

D. Types of clouds.

Question44: Which of the following best replaces the word “minute” in paragraph 1?

A. second

B. tiny

C. slow

D. predictable

Question45: What does “in constant motion” in paragraph 1 mean?

A. moving all the time

B. always having feeling

C. never changing

D. falling down easily

Question46: Why don’t all ice crystals in clouds immediately fall to the Earth?

A. They are balanced by the pressure of rain droplets.

B. The effect of gravity at high altitude is random.

C. They are kept aloft by air currents.

D. The heat from the Sun’s rays melts them.

Question47: What are water droplets?

A. They are ice crystals.

B. They are small drops of dew.

C. They are watery fruits.

D. They are animals living on ice.

Question48: What can be inferred about drops of water larger than 1/125 inch in diameter?

A. They never occur.

B. They are not affected by the force of gravity.

C. In still air they would fall to the ground.

D. In moving air they fall at a speed of thirty-two miles per hour.

Question49: What is the diameter of the average cloud droplet?

A. 1/16 inch

B. 1/125 inch

C. 1/2500 inch

D. one millionth of an inch

Question50: What is an example of precipitation?

A. rain

B. lightening

C. wind

D. thunder

Đáp án 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

C C A D A C B D A C

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

C B B B A A D C D D

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B C A D B A C D A D

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

B B A A D C B B A D

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

A A A B A C A C C A

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 08 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others.

Question 1:

A. treasure

B. jealous

C. clean

D. cleanse

Question 2:

A. launch

B. fortnight

C. haughty

D. draughty

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. tomorrow

B. spectator

C. accomplish

D. overwhelm

Question 4:

A. mausoleum

B. coincide

C. petroleum

D. employee

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: It is generally believed that high level of carbon emissions lead to climate change.

A. generally believed B. high level

C. emissions

D. to

Question 6: I was in disguise when I met them ; as the result, of course they didn’t recognise me.

A. in disguise

B. as the result

C. of course

D. recognise

Question 7: I was discouraged to swim when I put my feet in the ice-cold water.

A. to swim

B. put

C. in

D. ice-cold

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: You’d better go to bed early, ________?

A. hadn’t you

B. wouldn’t you

C. didn’t you

D. don’t you

Question 9: ________by his parents at an early age, Paul took to stealing.

A. Be abandoned

B. Abandoned

C. Having abandoned D. Abandoning

Question 10: I wonder if I ________some question for our survey A. might ask you

B. would ask you

C. am able to ask

D. shall ask you

Question 11: “I’ve been working with this puzzle for two hours.” “It must be a hard one _____.”

A. solve

B. solved

C. to solve

D. solving

Question 12: Don’t worry –it’s________natural to lose your temper sometimes.

A. bitterly

B. downright

C. perfectly

D. highly

Question 13: When he came ________all that money, he thought he would lose his mind.

A. into

B. up

C. round

Question 14: ________you need is a good holiday.

D. down

A. What

B. Why

C. Which

D. How

Question 15: Burglars tend to________away from buildings which are securely locked.

A. go

B. shy

C. move

D. walk

Question 16: Contrary to expectations, South Korea________to the semi-finals of the 2002 Word Cup. A. protected

B. provided

C. proclaimed

D. progressed

Question 17: Jeff, the security guard at the factory, ________this robbery ________on his shift last night.

A. was wishing-hasn’t been occurring

B. had wished-shoudn’t occur

C. wishes-hadn’t occurred

D. wished-occurred

Question 18: ________lectures at your university?

A. haven’t students got to have attended

B. needn’t students have attended

C. mustn’t students attended

D. don’t students have to attend

Question 19: We went into town ________some new clothes.

A. with buying

B. to have bought

C. for buying

D. to buy

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Nam: “How about meeting for a coffee next week?” Hai: “____________” A. Good idea. Let’s do that

B. No, thanks.

C. Thank you. D

D. Well-done

Question 21: Laurence : “I don’t think Tim should go” Alex: ““____________” A. Why not? He’s old enough

B. Areyou ? Well, I’m not

C. Should he then?

D. No, he wouldn’t

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.

Question 22: Water supply to the city and several adjacent areas remains affected by the earthquake.

A. remote

B. surrounding

C. suburban

D. neighboring

Question 23: Computers in classrooms can have a positive impact on a child’s educational experience A. considerable

B. beneficial

C. major

D. harmful

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Though they were almost identical, a slight difference was noticeable.

A. similarity

B. variety

C. distinction

D. diversity

Question 25: Reading a daily newspaper will make you aware of what is going on in the world.

A. knowledgeable about

B. ignorant about

C. dependent on

D. blind to

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: My father hasn’t smoked for two years.

A. My father started smoking two years ago.

B. It’s two years since my father started smoking C. My father gave up smoking two years ago.

D. The first time my father smoked was two years ago.

Question 27: The weather is not nice today, so we will not go to the park.

A. If the weather were nice today, we’d go to the park.

B. We wouldn’t go to the park if the weather were so nice today C. We would go to the park even if the weather were not nice today D. The weather is bad today, but we will still go to the park Question 28: Workers are not allowed to use the office phone for personal calls.

A. They don’t let workers use the office phone.

B. Workers are not permitted to use the office phone for personal purpose.

C. The office phone is supposed to be used by workers only.

D. They don’t allow workers to make phone calls personally.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: My parents like eating at home. They like eating out even more.

A. My parents prefer eating out to eating at home.

B. My parents prefer to eat at home to eating out.

C. My parents would rather eating at home than eating out.

D. My parents would rather eat at home than eat out.

Question 30: Laura didn’t come to the class yesterday. This made me surprised A. Laura didn’t come to the class yesterday, that made me surprised.

B. Laura didn’t come to the class yesterday, which made me surprised.

C. Laura didn’t come to the class yesterday which made me surprised.

D. Laura didn’t come to the class yesterday when made me surprised.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.

GREENFORCE If you’re interested in having the trip of a lifetime, but also doing something useful at the same time, then why not try joining a Greenforce expedition as a volunteer. Greenforce, which was (31)________in 1997, is an international research agency that gathers information about the wildlife and natural habitats in various parts of the world. There is a qualified biologist in (32)________of each team of volunteers and these carry out surveys all year round in some of the world’s remotest and most beautiful places. Volunteers come from all walks of life. The minimum age is 18 years, but there is no upper age limit. No previous experience is necessary as Greenforce provides location training in animal identification and survey methods. You’ll need to be somebody who enjoys the outdoor life, however, as working in remote (33)________can be challenging. You’ll also need to be passionate about wildlife and prepared to learn a lot about the place you visit. Each expedition lasts for ten weeks, and training begins in the UK with a residential weekend where you can get a (34)________of expedition life and meet up with some of your team mates, as well as learning about first-aid and basic survival skills. Each volunteer (35) )________£2,550 towards the cost of the expedition, but past volunteers say it is worth every penny.

Question 31:

A. brought about

B. put on

C. set up

D. got off

Question 32:

A. head

B. guide

C. lead

D. charge

Question 33:

A. residences

B. positions

C. resorts

D. locations

Question 34:

A. touch

B. drop

C. trial

D. taste

Question 35:

A. contributes

B. affords

C. agrees

D. combines

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Vitamins, taken in tiny doses, are a major group of organic compounds that regulate the mechanisms by which the body converts food into energy. They should not be confused with minerals, which are inorganic in their makeup. Although in general the naming of vitamins followed the alphabetical order of their identification, the nomenclature of individual substances may appear to be somewhat random and disorganized. Among the 13 vitamins known today, five are produced in the body. Because the body produces sufficient quantities of some but not all vitamins, they must be supplemented in the daily diet. Although each vitamin has its specific designation and cannot be replaced by another compound, a lack of

one vitamin can interfere with the processing of another. When a lack of even one vitamin in a diet is continual, a vitamin deficiency may result.

The best way for an individual to ensure a necessary supply of vitamins is to maintain a balanced diet that includes a variety of foods and provides adequate quantities of all the compounds. Some people take vitamin supplements, predominantly in the form of tablets.

The vitamins in such supplements are equivalent to those in food, but an adult who maintains a balanced diet does not need a daily supplement. The ingestion of supplements is recommended only to correct an existing deficiency due to unbalanced diet, to provide vitamins known to be lacking in a restricted diet, or to act as a therapeutic measure in medical treatment. Specifically, caution must be exercised with fat-soluble substances, such as vitamins A and D, because, taken in gigantic doses, they may present a serious health hazard over a period of time.

Question 36: According to the passage, vitamins are A. food particles

B. essential nutrients

C. miscellaneous substances

D. major food groups

Question 37: How many vitamins must be derived from nourishment?

A. 5

B. 7

C. 8

D. 13

Question 38: The author implies that foods A. supply some but not all necessary vitamins B. should be fortified with all vitamins C. are equivalent in vitamin content D. supplement some but not all necessary vitamins Question 39: The phrase “daily diet” is closest in meaning to A. weight loss or gain B. sufficient quantities C. nourishment intake D. vitamin tablets Question 40: A continual lack of one vitamin in a person’s diet is A. contagious

B. desirable

C. preposterous

D. dangerous

Question 41: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?

A. A varied diet needs to be supplemented with vitamins.

B. An inclusive diet can provide all necessary vitamins.

C. Vitamins cannot be consistently obtained from food.

D. Vitamins should come from capsules in purified form.

Question 42: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Adopting vitamins to control weight B. The individual’s diet for optimum health

C. Vitamin categorization and medical application D. The place of vitamins in nutrition Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Geothermal energy is natural heat from the interior of the Earth that is converted to heat buildings and generate electricity. The idea of harnessing Earth’s internal heat is not new. As early as 1904 , geothermal power was used in Italy . Today, Earth’s natural internal heat is being used to generate electricity in 21 countries , including Russia, Japan, New Zealand, Iceland, Mexico, Ethiopia, Guatemala, EI Salvador, the Philippines, and the United States .Total worldwide production is approaching 9,000 MW (equivalent to nine large modern coal-burning or nuclear power plants)-double the amount in 1980 .Some 40 million people today receive their electricity from geothermal energy at a cost competitive with that of other energy sources. In EI Salvador , geothermal energy is supplying 30% of the total electric energy used. However, at the global level, geothermal energy supplies less than 0,15%of the total energy supply.

Geothermal energy may be considered a nonrenewable energy source when rates of extraction are greater than rates of natural replenishment. However, geothermal energy has its origin in the natural heat production within Earth , and only a small fraction of the vast total resource base is being utilized today. Although most geothermal energy production involves the tapping of high heat sources, people are also using the low-temperature geothermal energy of groundwater in some applications.

Geothermal Systems The average heat flow from the interior of the Earth is very low, about 0,06% W/m2.This amount is trivial compared with the 177 W/m2from solar heat at the surface in the United States.

However, in some areas, heat flow is sufficiently high to be useful for producing energy . For the most part, areas of high heat flow are associated with plate tectonic boundaries. Oceanic ridge systems (divergent plate boundaries) and areas where mountains are being uplifted and volcanic island arcs are forming (convergent plate boundaries) are areas where this natural heat flow is anomalously high. One such region is located in the western, United States, where recent tectonic and volcanic activity has occurred.

On the basis of geological criteria, several types of hot geothermal systems (with temperatures greater than about 800C , or 1760F)have been defined, and the resource base is larger than that of fossil fuels and nuclear energy combined. A common system for energy development is hydrothermal convection, characterized by the circulation of steam and / or hot water that transfers heat from depths to the surface.

Geothermal Energy and the Environment The environmental impact of geothermal energy may not be as extensive as that of other sources of energy , but it can be considerable. When geothermal energy is developed at a particular site, environmental problems include on-site noise, emissions of gas, and disturbance of the land at drilling sites, disposal sites, roads and pipelines, and power plants. Development of geothermal energy does not require large-scale transportation of raw materials or refining of chemicals, as development of fossil fuels does. Furthermore, geothermal energy does not produce the atmospheric pollutants associated with burning fossil fuels or the radioactive waste associated with nuclear energy. However, geothermal development often does produce considerable thermal pollution from hot waste-waters, which may be saline or highly corrosive, producing disposal and treatment problem.

Geothermal power is not very popular in some locations among some people. For instance, geothermal energy has been produced for years on the island of Hawaii, where active volcanic processes provide abundant near surface heat. There is controversy, however, over further exploration and development .Native Hawaiians and others have argued that the exploration and development of geothermal energy degrade the tropical forest as developers construct roads, build facilities , and drill wells.

In addition, religious and cultural issues in Hawaii relate to the use of geothermal energy.

For example, some people are offended by using the “breath and water of Pele� ( the volcano goddess) to make electricity. This issue points out the importance of being sensitive to the values and cultures of the people where development is planned.

Future of Geothermal energy At present, geothermal energy supplies only a small fraction of the electrical energy produced in the United States. However, if developed, known geothermal resources in the United States could produce about 20,000 MW which is about 10% of the electricity needed for the western states. Geohydrothermal resources not yet discovered could conservatively provide four times that amounts (approximately 10% of total U.S electric capacity). About equivalent to the electricity produced from water power today.

Question 43: What is true about geothermal energy production worldwide?

A. Because it is a new idea, very few countries are geothermal energy sources B. Only countries in the Southern Hemisphere are using geothermal energy on a large scale C. Until the cost of geothermal energy becomes competitive, it will not be used globally D. Geothermal energy is already being used in a number of nations, but it is not yet a major source of power

Question 44: The word "approaching" in the passage is closest in meaning to A. hardly

B. mostly

C. nearly

D. briefly

Question 45: The word "that" in the passage refers to A. electricity

B. cost

C. energy

D. people

Question 46: In paragraph 2, the author states that geothermal energy is considered a nonrenewable resource because A. The production of geothermal energy is a natural process B. Geothermal energy comes from the Earth C. We are not using very much geothermal energy now D. We could use more geothermal energy than is naturally replaced Question 47: According to paragraph 3, the heat flow necessary for the production of geothermal energy A. Is like solar heat on the Earth’s surface

B. Happens near tectonic plate boundaries

C. Must always be artificially increased

D. May be impractical because of its location

Question 48: The word considerable in the passage is closest in meaning to A. large

B. dangerous

C. steady

D. unexpected

Question 49: In paragraph 5, the author mentions the atmospheric pollution and waste products for fossil fuel and nuclear power A. To introduce the discussion of pollution caused by geothermal energy development and production B. To contrast pollution caused by fossil fuels and nuclear power with pollution caused by geothermal production C. To argue that geothermal production does not cause pollution like other sources of energy do D. To discourage the use of raw materials and chemicals in the production of energy because of pollution Question 50: According to paragraph 6, the production of geothermal energy in Hawaii is controversial for all of the following reason EXCEPT A. The volcanoes in Hawaii could be disrupted by the rapid release of geothermal energy B. The rainforest might be damaged during the construction of the geothermal energy plant C. The native people are concerned that geothermal energy is disrespectful to their cultural traditions D. Some Hawaiians oppose using geothermal energy because of their religious beliefs.

ฤ รกp รกn 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

C D D C B B A A B A

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

C C A A B D C D D A

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

A D D C A C A B A B

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

C D D D A D C A C D

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

B D D C B D B A B A

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 09 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others.

Question 1:

A. barred

B. car

C. charter

D. back

Question 2:

A. disastrous

B. association

C. devastate

D. cause

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. justice

B. diverse

C. women

D. public

Question 4:

A. establish

B. domestic

C. activity

D. education

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Killer whales tend to wander in family clusters that hunt,play and resting together.

A. Killer whales

B. to wander

C. clusters

D. resting

Question 6: Prior to an extermination programe early in the last century, alive wolves roamed across nearly all of North America.

A. Prior to

B. early

C. alive

D. nearly

Question 7: The remains of Homo erectus, an extinct species of early man, was first discovered on the island of Java by Dutch physician Eugene Debois.

A. an

B. early man

C. species

D. was

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Can you _________ me to your parents when you next see him.

A. excuse

B. remind

C. remember

D. forget

Question 9: Some people believe that books are _________ species, fighting for survival in competition with TV, film, the Internet and CD. A. danger

B. dangerous

C. endangered

D. dangerously

Question 10: Take _________ of the chance to do some sightseeing while you are here.

A. exploit

B. advantage

C. benefit

D. profit

Question 11: Mary was surprised when her guests_________ late for the party.

A. came up

B. turned up

C. looked up

D. put up

Question 12: Liam was born in Ireland, but his brother _________ A. was

B. didn’t either

C. wasn’t

D. was neither

Question 13: The body of a fish is quite different from _________ a land animal.

A. body

B. one of

C. that of

D. those of

Question 14: A man whom people cannot trust will have _________ friends.

A. little

B. few

C. a few

D. a lot

Question 15: She asked for _________ these apples.

A. some more

B. any more

C. any more of

D. some more of

Question 16: They went from one shop to _________ to buy gifts for their mother.

A. each other

B. other

C. the rest

D. another

Question 17: A: “How _________ is your house from here?” B: “It’s about two hours by taxi.”

A. far

B. long

C. much

D. many

Question 18: _________ rapid population increases and industrial growth, some groups of people have been able to live in harmony with the planet.

A. although

B. In spite

C. Despite

D. While

Question 19: Neither Canada nor Mexico requires that citizens of the United States _________ passports.

A. has

B. have

C. having

D. will have

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: A: “I have passed my driving test.” B: “_____________” A. No worries

B. Good luck

C. Bad luck

D. Congratulations

Question 21: A: Anything else? B: __________________ A. Right now.

B. Not today, thanks. C. No, it isn’t.

D. Not at all.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.

Question 22: The change in population distribution was barely noticeable to the demographers conducting the study.

A. often

B. hardly

C. never

D. softly

Question 23: The cake was heavenly so I asked for more.

A. terrible

B. edible

C. in the sky

D. cheap

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: The same questions repeated over and over soon made them weary.

A. suspicious

B. tired

C. worried

D. annoyed

Question 25: Jim's decided to buy a phonograph even though they are now redundant.

A. old-fashioned

B. reproduced

C. unnecessary

D. expensive

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: The way he kept clicking his fingers was very irritating.

A. How he clicked his fingers made me irritated.

B. I found it irritating to keep on clicking his fingers.

C. I was very irritated by the way he kept clicking his fingers.

D. His clicking fingers made me irritated.

Question 27: You can try as hard as you like but you won’t succeed.

A. However hard you try, you won’t succeed.

B. You can hardly try as you like, but you won’t succeed C. You won’t succeed because you can’t try as hard.

D. Although you won’t succeed, you can try as hard as you like.

Question 28: If we had lost the map, we would never have found our way.

A. We will find our way unless we lose the map.

B. We didn’t lose our way because we didn’t lose the map.

C. We would have lost our way provided we had lost the map.

D. Supposing we lose the map, we would not find our way.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Our car broke down. We missed our plane because of this.

A. It was due to the car broke down that we missed our plane.

B. It was because the car broke down that we missed our plane.

C. It is the car broke down that we missed our plane.

D. It is due to the car that broke down that we missed our plane.

Question 30: I don’t know what to do about this problem. It is a pity!

A. I wish I know what to do about this problem.

B. I wish I can solve this problem.

C. I wish I could know what to do about this problem.

D. I wish I knew what to do about this problem.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.

Education was not formally integrated into the European Union policy portfolio until the 1993 Maastricht Treaty, although the first Community legislation with an impact on the education sector was adopted as long as the 1960s. These early (31)____________ dealt with

mutual recognition of qualifications. Achieving recognition by one member state of a qualification obtained in another was an important pre-condition for implementing the free movement of workers.

Citizens of EU (32)____________ who are students now enjoy the same rights to access to higher education in all member states as they do in their home country, provided that they have the relevant qualifications for entry. Growing numbers of student (33)____________ activities have been developed, of which the oldest and most famous is 1987 Erasmus program. By recognizing course credits, Erasmus (34)____________ university students to study for one year in a different member state. A separate program, Leonardo, gives young school leavers, students and graduates the chance to receive educational training.

Few EU initiatives enjoy (35)____________ wholehearted and widespread political support as these higher education programs. The key issue for future initiatives is to build on this success without being over- ambitious. Unfortunately, these programs are becoming very expensive, and this is now the primary areas of concern.

Question 31:

A. rules

B. directors

C. laws

D. policies

Question 32:

A. provinces

B. countries

C. organizations D. agencies

Question 33:

A. exchange

B. change

C. trade

D. replace

Question 34:

A. admits

B. submits

C. offers

D. allows

Question 35:

A. so a

B. such a

C. so

D. such

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Although management principles have been implemented since ancient times, most management scholars trace the beginning of modern management thought back to the early 1900s, beginning with the pioneering work of Frederick Taylor (1856-1915) Taylor was the first person to study work scientifically. He is most famous for introducing techniques of time and motion study, differential piece rate systems, and for systematically specializing the work of operating employees and managers. Along with other pioneers such as Frank and Lillian Gilbreth, Taylor set the stage, labeling his philosophy and methods “scientific management’. At that time, his philosophy, which was concerned with productivity, but which was often misinterpreted as promoting worker interests at the expense of management, was in marked contrast to the prevailing industrial norms of worker exploitation.

The time and motion study concepts were popularized by Frank and Lillian Gilbreth. The Gilbreths had 12 children. By analyzing his children’s dishwashing and bedmaking chores, this pioneer efficiency expert, Frank Gilbreth, hit on principles whereby workers could eliminate

waste motion. He was memorialized by two of his children in their 1949 book called “Cheaper by the Dozen”.

The Gilbreth methods included using stop watches to time worker movements and special tools (cameras and special clocks) to monitor and study worker performance, and also involved identification of “therbligs” (Gilbreth spelled backwards) – basic motions used in production jobs. Many of these motions and accompanying times have been used to determine how long it should take a skilled worker to perform a given job. In this way an industrial engineer can get a handle on the approximate time it should take to produce a product or provide a service.

However, use of work analysis in this way is unlikely to lead to useful results unless all five work dimensions are considered: physical, psychological, social, cultural, and power.

Question 36: The word “which” in the passage refers to A. scientific management

B. Philosophy

C. productivity

D. time and motion study

Question 37: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that A. workers welcomed the application of scientific management B. Talor’s philosophy is different from the industrial norms C. by the early 1900s science had reached a stage where it could be applied to the workplace D. workers were no longer exploited after the introduction of scientific management.

Question 38: According to the passage, Frank Gilbreth discovered how workers could eliminate waste motion by A. using special tools such as cameras and clocks B. using stop watches C. applying scientific management principles D. watching his children do their chores Question 39: The word “motions” is closest in meaning to A. stop watches

B. habits

C. actions

D. special tools

Question 40: Where in the passage does the author comment that the principles of scientific management were often misunderstood?

A. Lines 1-5

B. Lines 6-10

C. Lines 11-15

D. Lines 16-20

Question 41: The word “ dimensions” in line 24 is closest in meaning to A. sizes

B. extents

C. aspects

D. standards

Question 42: All of the following are true except A. scientific management was concerned with productivity.

B. the beginnings of modern management thought commenced in the 19th century.

C. Frank Gilbreth’s fame was enhanced by two of his children writing a book.

D. analyzing work to increase productivity is not likely to be useful unless all of the dimensions are considered.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Perhaps better known than the Cullinan Diamond is the Hope Diamond, a valuable and blue gem with a background of more than 300 years as a world traveler.The 112-carat blue stone later became the Hope Diamond was mined in India sometime before the middle of the seventeenth century and was first known to be owned by Shah Jahan, who built the Taj Mahal in memory of his beloved wife. From India, the celebrated blue stone has changed hands often, moving from location to location in distant corners of the world.

In the middle of the seventeenth century, a trader from France named Jean Baptiste Tavernier acquired the large blue diamond, which was rumored to have been illegally removed from a temple Tavemier returned to France with the big blue gem, where the stone was purchased by the Sun King Louis XIV. Louis XIV had it cut down from 112 to 67 carats to make its shape symmetrical and to maximize its sparkle. The newly cut diamond, still huge by any standards, was passed down through the royal family of France, until it arrived in the hands of Louis XVI and Marie Antoinette. During the French Revolution, Louis XVI and his wife met their fate on the guillotine in 1793, and the big blue diamond disappeared from public sight.

The diamond somehow managed to get from France to England, where banker Henry Hope purchased it from a gem dealer early in the nineteenth century. The huge blue stone was cut into a 45.5-carat oval, and at this point it took on the name by which it is known today. The diamond stayed in the Hope family for around a century, when deep indebtedness brought on by a serious gambling habit on the part of one of Henry Hope's heirs forced the sale of the diamond.

From England, the Hope Diamond may have made its way into the hands of the Sultan of Turkey; whatever route it took to get there, it eventually went on to the United States when American Evelyn Walsh McLean purchased it in 1911. Mrs. McLean certainly enjoyed showing the diamond off guests in her home were sometimes astounded to notice the huge stone embellishing the neck of Mrs. McLean’s Great Dane as the huge pet trotted around the grounds of her Washington, D.C. home. The Hope Diamond later became the property of jeweler Harry Winston, who presented the stunning 45.5- carat piece to the Smithsonian in 1958. The Hope Diamond is now taking a well-earned rest following its rigorous travel itinerary and is on display at the Smithsonian Institution in Washington, D.C., where it has been since 1958.

Question 43: The paragraph preceding the passage most likely discussed

A. why gems are considered valuable

B. how the Hope Diamond was mined

C. a diamond other than the Hope Diamond

D. methods for mining diamonds

Question 44: The main idea of this passage is that the Hope Diamond A. came from India

B. has moved around a lot

C. has been cut several times

D. now resides in the Smithsonian

Question 45: The pronoun "it" in the passage refers to A. its shape

B. the newly cut diamond

C. the royal family

D. the French Revolution

Question 46: It can be inferred from the passage that the author is not certain A. who bought the Hope Diamond in England B. who sold the Hope Diamond in England C. how the Hope Diamond went from France to England D. how big the Hope Diamond was in the nineteenth century Question 47: It can be determined from the passage that Henry Hope most likely had how many carats cut off the Hope Diamond?

A. 21.5

B. 45

C. 66.5

D. 67

Question 48: According to the passage, Mrs. McLean A. donated the Hope Diamond to the Smithsonian B. let her dog wear the Hope Diamond C. purchased the Hope Diamond from the French D. had the Hope Diamond cut to its present size of 45.5 carats Question 49: Which country is NOT mentioned in the passage as a place where the Hope Diamond spent some time?

A. India

B. France

C. England

D. Denmark

Question 50: Where in the passage does the author describe what happened to the royal French owners of the diamond?

A. Lines 7-8

B. Lines 10-11

C. Lines 12-14

D. Lines 15-16

ฤ รกp รกn 1 2 3 4 5 6

D D B D D C

11 12 13 14 15 16

B C C B D B

21 22 23 24 25 26

B A A B C C

31 32 33 34 35 36

C B A D D B

41 42 43 44 45 46

C B C B B C

7 8 9 10

D C C B

17 18 19 20

A C B D

27 28 29 30

A B B D

37 38 39 40

B D C B

47 48 49 50

B B D C

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 10 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. bury

B. fury

C. pure

D. secure

Question 2:

A. sodium

B. solid

C. solitude

D. solvent

Mark the better A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word about differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. submissive

B. deductive

C. attentive

D. relative

Question 4:

A. attract

B. marry

C. demand

D. connect

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: We should also take into account a fact that unemployment causes poverty.

A. also

B. a

C. that

D. causes

Question 6: Whoever said this he must have been a liar because it is something that even a child knows to be true.

A. he must

B. something

C. that

D. be true

Question 7: Your brother spoke in a more interesting way, even though he mentioned less details.

A. in a more

B. way

C. even

D. less

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: New tax cut is designed to make life easier for _________ A. all of poor

B. most the poor

C. the poor people

D. the poor

Question 9: I’m sure you'll have no _________the exam.

A. difficulty passing

B. difficulties to pass

C. difficulty to pass

D. difficulties of passing

Question 10: The safe _________of nuclear waste is a major international problem A. disposal

B. abandon

C. display

D. sale

Question 11: I’m afraid we can only afford to pay you a _________sum for your services.

A. nominal

B. titular

C. complete

D. calculated

Question 12: If you don’t decrease the speed soon, you may not be able to stop_________ A. shortly

B. at times

C. on time

Question 13: He hasn’t tried it himself . He would like to , _________

D. in time

A. although

B. though

C. even though

D. despite

Question 14: She said that she _________to have a baby.

A. was going

B. is going

C. has gone

D. will go

Question 15: Safety experts are trying to establish the _________of yesterday’s train crash.

A. creation

B. reason

C. grounds

D. cause

Question 16: At the moment we’re holding on to our shares but _________in value, we would probably sell them.

A. if they were rise

B. for them to rise

C. unless they rose

D. were they to rise

Question 17: No one should be exempt _________prosecution if they have committed a crime.

A. of

B. about

C. against

D. from

Question 18: The ………..of food during that long winter left many families in despair.

A. scarcity

B. availability

C. variety

D. abundance

Question 19: Peter: “Did you enjoy roller coaster ride?” Kate: “No! It was_________experience of life.”

A. The most terrifying

B. far more terrifying

C. the most terrified

D. A most terrified

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Teacher: “It’s so far away. How do you get to school?” Boy: “_________” A. I have no idea.

B. In my neighbour’s van.

C. Nothing special.

D. About 7 kilometers, I think

Question 21: Host: “I’m terribly sorry for this inconvenience.” Guest: “_________” A. It’s mine. I came late

B. It’s not your fault

C. I’ll do better next time

D. Fine, thanks

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following Question .

Question 22: As all of us cannot be available today , let’s put off the discussion till later.

A. absent for the event

B. scheduled for the event

C. arranged for the event

D. appointed for the event

Question 23: When the rent increased from 200to200to400 a month, they protested against such a tremendous increase.

A. slight

B. difficult

C. huge

D. numerous

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: If you build a structure next to this river, you must be sure it is safe against floods.

A. hut

B. sentence

C. pattern

D. building

Question 25: Within a week on display at the exhibition, the painting was hailed as a masterpiece.

A. an expensive work of art

B. a down-to-earth work of art

C. an excellent work of art

D. a large work of art

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: He didn’t hurry so he missed the plane.

A. If he hurried he wouldn’t miss the plane.

B. If he had hurried he might catch the plane.

C. If he had hurried he could have caught the plane.

D. He didn’t miss the plane because he hurried.

Question 27: They are building a new school in the village.

A. A new school has been built in the village.

B. The building of a new school in the village has just finished.

C. A new school is built in the village.

D. A new school is being built in the village.

Question 28: This conference wouldn’t have been possible without your organization A. If you didn’t organize, this conference wouldn’t have been possible.

B. If it had been for your organization, this conference wouldn’t have been possible.

C. Your organization made it possible for this conference to take place.

D. It’s possible that your organization made this conference impossible.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.

A. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.

B. Unless it was an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.

C. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.

D. So interesting was the novel that I stayed up all night to finish it.

Question 30: I understand why you detest her. I’ve finally met her.

A. I understand why you don’t like her due to I’ve lastly met her.

B. Now that I have finally met her, I understand why you hate her.

C. I met her and I know your feeling.

D. Since I finally met her, I understand why you like her.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.

THE TOURIST TRAP Tourism is the fastest-growing industry in the world. As well as bringing prosperity to an area, however, it can also destroy the qualities which (31)________visitors in the first place. If it is not carefully controlled, tourism can also create problems for local people, as is shown by various examples from around the world. When Phuket in Thailand first became a popular tourist (32)________, people there were unable to cope with the increase in rubbish that 2 million visitors a year produce and a huge incinerator had to be built in the countryside to deal with it.

New hotels at Goa in India caused a huge increase in water consumption, (33)________many local people to walk considerable distances to get clean water. And Egypt’s desert landscapes are being destroyed by the litter (34)________by tourists. Moving sands are difficult to clean, and the white desert to the west of the Nile Valley may be permanently affected. It’s encouraging, therefore, to read about the efforts of certain tour companies who are organising environmental holidays in some of the worst hit areas. Regular tours now go to places (35)________the Himalayas and Atlas mountains in North Africa with the aim of combining a bit of sightseeing with the chance to help clear up some of the mess left by previous visitors.

Question 31:

A. convinced

B. persuaded

C. attracted

D. appealed

Question 32:

A. position

B. destination

C. terminus

D. departure

Question 33:

A. encouraging

B. making

C. forcing

D. urging

Question 34:

A. dropped

B. sunk

C. lowered

D. fallen

Question 35:

A. as well as

B. as for

C. such as

D. so as to

Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each for the questions.

Children learn to construct language from those around them. Until about the age of three, children tend to learn to develop their language by modeling the speech of their parents, but from that time on, peers have a growing influence as models for language development in children. It is easy to observe that, when adults and older children interact with younger children, they tend to modify their language to improve children communication with younger children, and this modified language is called caretaker speech.

Caretaker speech is used often quite unconsciously; few people actually study how to modify language when speaking to young children but, instead, without thinking, find ways to

reduce the complexity of language in order to communicate effectively with young children. A caretaker will unconsciously speak in one way with adults and in a very different way with young children. Caretaker speech tends to be slower speech with short, simple words and sentences which are said in a higher-pitched voice with exaggerated inflections and many repetitions of essential information. It is not limited to what is commonly called baby talk, which generally refers to the use of simplified, repeated syllable expressions, such as ma-ma, boo-boo, bye-bye, wa-wa, but also includes the simplified sentence structures repeated in sing-song inflections. Examples of these are expressions such as “ say bye-bye” or “where’s da-da?”

Caretaker speech serves the very important function of allowing young children to acquire language more easily. The higher-pitched voice and the exaggerated inflections tend to focus the small child on what the caretaker is saying, the simplified words and sentences make it easier for the small child to begin to comprehended, and the repetitions reinforce the child’s developing understanding. Then, as a child’s speech develops, caretakers tend to adjust their language in the response to the improved language skills, again quite unconsciously. Parents and older children regularly adjust their speed to a level that is slightly above that of a younger child; without studied recognition of what they are doing, these caretakers will speak in one way to a one-yearago and in a progressively more complex way as the child reaches the age of two or three.

An important point to note is that the function covered by caretaker speech, that of assisting a child to acquire language in small and simple steps, is an unconsciously used but extremely important part of the process of language acquisition and as such is quite universal. It is not merely a device used by English-speaking parents. Studying cultures where children do not acquire language through caretaker speech is difficult because such cultures are not difficult to find. The question of why caretaker speech is universal is not clear understood; instead proponents on either side of the nature vs. nature debate argue over whether caretaker speech is a natural function or a learned one. Those who believe that caretaker speech is a natural and inherent function in humans believe that it is human nature for children to acquire language and for those around them to encourage their language acquisition naturally; the presence of a child is itself a natural stimulus that increases the rate of caretaker speech develops through nurturing rather than nature argue that a person who is attempting to communicate with a child will learn by trying out different ways of communicating to determine which is the most effective from the reactions to the communication attempts; apparent might, for example, learn to use speech with exaggerated inflections with a small child because the exaggerated inflections do a better job of attracting the child’s attention than do more subtle inflections. Whether caretaker speech results from nature or nurture, it does play an important and universal role in child language acquisition.

Question 36: According to paragraph 1, children over the age of three A. Learn little language from those around them B. Are no longer influenced by the language of their parents C. Are influenced more and more by those closer to their own age D. First begin to respond to caretaker speech Question 37: The word “modeling” in paragraph 1 could best replaced by A. demonstrating

B. mimicking

C. building

D. designing

Question 38: It can be inferred from part.2 that people generally seem A. To be able to adapt their language to the level of a child’s language without thinking consciously about it B. Quite aware of the use of caretaker speech C. To have difficulty using caretaker speech D. To use caretaker speech conscious by reducing the complexity of their language Question 39: All of the following are mentioned in par.3 as characteristics of caretaker speech EXCEPT A. Overemphasized inflections

B. The use of rhyming sounds

C. The tendency to repeat oneself

D. The use of easier words and structures

Question 40: It is indicated in paragraph 3 that parents tend to A. Speak in basically the same way to a one-year-old and a three-year-old B. Use language that is far above the language level of a child C. Speak in a progressively less complex way as a child matures D. Modify their speech according to the language development of a child Question 41: The word “reaches” in paragraph 3 could best replaced by A. holds on to

B. takes charge of

C. arrives at

D. extends out to

C. caretaker speech

D. a child

Question 42: The word “that” in par.4 refers to A. an important point B. the function

Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each for the questions.

Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of pollution, it is very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by different individuals is highly subjective and, therefore, variable. Exposure to lower levels of noise may be slightly irritating, whereas exposure to higher levels may actually cause hearing loss.

Particularly in congested urban areas, the noise produced as a by product of our advancing

technology causes physical and psychological harm, and detracts from the quality of life for those who are exposed to it.

Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the ear has no lid, and is, therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection.

Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes accustomed. Loud noises instinctively signal danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism, including human beings. In response, heartbeat and respiration accelerate, blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general increase in functioning brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in response to fear, and some of these responses persist even longer than the noise, occasionally as long as thirty minutes after the sound has ceased.

Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly responding in the same way that we would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have concluded that noise and our response may be much more than an annoyance. It may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health and well-being, causing damage not only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long known that hearing loss is America’s number one nonfatal health problem, but now we are learning that some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of noise as well. Fetuses exposed to noise tend to be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more sensitive to gastrointestinal problems after birth. In addition, the psychic effect of noise is very important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and anxiety increase, affecting the quality of rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during waking hours, as well as the way that we interact with each other.

Question 43: Which of the following is the author’s main point?

A. Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health.

B. Loud noises signal danger.

C. Hearing loss is America’s number one nonfatal health problem D. The ear is not like the eye.

Question 44: According to the passage, what is noise?

A. Unwanted sound

B. A by-product of technology

C. Physical and psychological harm

D. Congestion

Question 45: Why is noise difficult to measure?

A. It causes hearing loss.

B. All people do not respond to it in the same way.

C. It is unwanted

D. People become accustomed to it Question 46: The word "congested" in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by A. hazardous

B. polluted

C. crowded

D. rushed

Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that the eye A. responds to fear

B. enjoys greater protection than the ear

C. increases functions

D. is damaged by noise

Question 48: According to the passage, people respond to loud noises in the same way that they respond to A. annoyance

B. disease

C. damage

D. danger

Question 49: The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to A. the noise

B. the quality of life

C. advancing technology

D. a by-product

Question 50: With which of the following statements would the author most probably agree?

A. Noise is not a serious problem today B. Noise is America’s number one problem C. Noise is an unavoidable problem in an industrial society D. Noise is a complex problem

Đáp án 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A A D B B A D D A A

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

A D B A D D D A A B

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B A A D C C D C D B

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

C B C A C C B A B D

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

C B A A B C B D A C

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 11 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others.

Question 1:

A. sorry

B. correct

C. commit

D. corrupt

Question 2:

A. dessert

B. dissolve

C. possess

D. assist

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. physical

B. musical

C. possible

D. domestic

Question 4:

A. alive

B. ancient

C. central

D. vacant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: I’d like to see him in my office the moment he will arrive.

A. to see

B. in

C. office

D. will arrive

Question 6: She wishes we didn't send her the candy yesterday because she's on a diet A. didn't send

B. candy

C. because

D. on a

Question 7: You needn’t give me any more advices because, from now on, I can cope with it on my own.

A. needn't

B. advices

C. now on

D. with it

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: The press puts ________on the police forces who were unable to cope with the crowd of savage hooligans.

A. blame

B. charge

C. fault

D. guilt

Question 9: Can you hear the wind? It’s blowing a ________!

A. drizzle

B. gale

C. breeze

D. gust

Question 10: Our team was losing but we managed to ________ the score A. get

B. notice

C. even

D. have

Question 11: My mother told me to ________for an electrician when her fan was out of order.

A. send

B. write

C. rent

D. turn

Question 12: I ________this letter around for days without looking at it.

A. carry

B. must carry

C. have been carrying D. am carrying

Question 13: We bought our father a beautiful set of golf ________for his birthday.

A. racquets

B. bats

C. clubs

D. shoes

Question 14: My son dropped ________college and joined the army.

A. away from

B. out of

C. off

D. by

Question 15: We ________with a swim in the lake.

A. gave in

B. took up

C. got out

D. cooled off

Question 16: The summer course in English ________conversation, grammar and listening classes.

A. contains

B. concludes

C. consists

D. comprises

Question 17: According to a recent survey, most people are________their neighbors.

A. acquaintance with B. on good terms with C. on good relationships with

D. in relation

to Question 18: My________was right. The result of the game was exactly what I said it would be.

A. expectation

B. prediction

C. prospect

D. outlook

Question 19: Unemployment is on the rise again, which means that good jobs are ________ A. far and away

B. far from it

C. as far as they go

D. few and far between

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Mai: “We’re going to have a few friends over on Wednesday and I’d love you to come.”

A. Not Wednesday again.

B. Sorry. I’ve already made plans for Wednesday.

C. I’m busy on Wednesday.

D. Can I come another day?

Question 21: Alice: “Well, the chicken is delicious.” Nike: “________” A. I cooked it.

B. The chicken is mine.

C. Thank you. I’m glad you like it.

D. You’re go nice.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.

Question 22: Harry displays enthusiasm whenever he is posed with a problem.

A. eagerness

B. weakness

C. indifference

D. softness

Question 23: The Civil War created feverish manufacturing activity to supply crucial material, especially in the North.

A. extremely rapid

B. slow

C. very dangerous

D. understandable

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Earthquakes are regarded as one of most devastating forces known to man.

A. terrifying

B. mysterious

C. fascinating

D. destructive

Question 25: The recycling of aluminum converses ninety percent of the energy needed to make new metal.

A. cleaning

B. crushing

C. reselling

D. reprocessing

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: The concert wasn’t as good as we had expected.

A. The concert was as good as we had thought.

B. We expected the concert to be worse.

C. We thought the concert would be much better.

D. The concert was thought to be good.

Question 27: Please don’t ask her to the party.

A. I’d rather you didn’t invite her to the party. B. I’d rather not ask her to the party.

C. Please don’t ask her about the party.

D. You ask her to the party, don’t you?

Question 28: She broke down the moment she heard the news.

A. She was broken for a moment when she heard the news.

B. On hearing the news, she broke down.

C. She broke her leg when hearing the news.

D. When she heard the news, she was sick.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Sam was all ready to leave the office. The phone rang.

A. Sam was on the point of leaving the office when the phone rang.

B. Sam was bound to leave the office when the phone rang.

C. Sam was about to leave the office then the phone rang.

D. Sam was leaving the office as soon as the phone rang.

Question 30: She keeps disagreeing with her boss. She’s likely to lose her job.

A. When she keeps disagreeing with her boss, she may get sacked from her job.

B. Although she keeps disagreeing with her boss, she’s in danger of being fired from her job.

C. She may have lost her job if she keeps disagreeing with her boss.

D. If she keeps disagreeing with her boss, she’s in danger of getting dismissed from her job.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.

TRAVEL TIPS Travelling abroad is getting easier and easier for young people nowadays. If you take the time to talk to travel (31) ________and shop around, some really good deals can be found. Eurorail and Interail are two travel cards which allow people aged 20 or under, unlimited travel in Europe, mainly by train. It’s quite a good idea to plan your route before you set off. Most young travelers stay on campsites or in youth (32) ________, as they are quite cheap. Unbelievable bargains can be found by making last-minute bookings for charter flights. Remember to check in with your luggage two hours before (33) ________for international flights. But don’t take too much with you or you won’t be able to carry it to the bus or taxi that will take you to your hotel. It is advisable to carry traveler’s (34) ________rather than cash, and keep them in a money belt around your waist. Look after your passport and tickets carefully. If disaster strikes and all your valuables are stolen, contact your nearest (35) ________ there they’ll help you with all the paperwork and make sure you get home safely.

Question 31:

A. officers

B. agents

C. guides

D. representatives

Question 32:

A. hostels

B. villas

C. hotels

D. apartments

Question 33:

A. lift-out

B. lifting

C. take-off

D. departing

Question 34:

A. cheques

B. receipts

C. bills

D. notes

Question 35:

A. council

B. bureau

C. ambassador

D. embassy

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Martin Luther King, Jr., is well known for his work in civil rights and for his many famous speeches, among them is his moving “I Have A Dream” speech. But fewer people know much about King’s childhood. M.L., as he was called, was born in 1929 in Atlanta, Georgia, at the home of his maternal grandfather. M.L.’s grandfather, the Reverend A.D. Williams, purchased their home on Auburn Avenue in 1909, twenty years before M.L. was born. The Reverend Williams, an eloquent speaker, played an important role in the community since so many people’s lives centered around the church. He allowed his church and his home to be used as a meeting place for a number of organizations dedicated to the education and social advancement of blacks. M.L. grew up in this atmosphere, with his home being used as a community gathering place, and was no doubt influenced by it.

M.L.’s childhood was not especially eventful. His father was a minister and his mother was a musician. He was the second of three children, and he attended all-black schools in a black neighborhood. The neighborhood was not poor, however. Auburn Avenue was the main artery through a prosperous neighborhood that had come to symbolize achievement for Atlanta’s black

people. It was an area of banks, insurance companies, builders, jewelers, tailors, doctors, lawyers, and other black-owner, black-operated businesses, and services. Even in the face of Atlanta’s segregation, the district thrived. Dr. King never forgot the community spirit he had known as a child, nor did he forget the racial prejudice that was a seemingly insurmountable barrier that kept black Atlanta from mingling with whites.

Question 36: What is this passage mainly about?

A. the prejudice that existed in Atlanta

B. Martin Luther King’s childhood

C. Martin Luther King’s grandfather

D. the neighborhood King grew up in

Question 37: The word “gathering” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by A. picking

B. learning

C. exciting

D. meeting

Question 38: According to the author, King was influenced by A. community spirit.

B. black lawyers.

C. his mother

D. his speeches

Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to A. achievement

B. neighborhood

C. segregation

D. services

Question 40: According to the author, blacks in King’s neighborhood were involved in all the following businesses and services EXCEPT. A. dentistry

B. medicine

C. law

D. banking

Question 41: The word “tailors” in paragraph 2 describes people who are associated with which of the following trades?

A. flower arranging

B. shoe making

C. garment making

D. book binding

Question 42: According to the author, M.L. A. had a difficult childhood

B. was a good musician as a child.

C. loved to listen to his grandfather speak

D. grew up in a relatively rich area of Atlanta.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

CUTTING THE APRON STRINGS There is substantial evidence that students going off to college have changed over the years. For one thing, studies show that they are emotionally closer to their parents and their parents to them. One thing that means is that they depend on each other more for happiness. It puts a burden on children for parents to use their children as vehicles for their own happinessalthough today’s young people seem complicit in this arrangement, perhaps because they’ve known no other way-even if it creates anxiety in the children. That’s one reason parents like to be involved in their children’s college experiences, and colleges have had to devise novel ways of getting parents off campus when they transport their kids to school.

There’s also evidence that students today seem to be choosing schools with reference to proximity to home. The closer a student is to home, the easier it is to bring the laundry home and to land in your old bed with tea and sympathy when you have the sniffles. And the easier it is for parents to visit you at university whenever the mood strikes. The amount of visiting parents do is far more than in generations past.

But in a real sense, students don’t really leave their parents behind. Their parents go to college right along with them - in their front pockets. That is, the parents are a speed dial away by cell phone. This, of course, significantly reduces independence. A student doesn’t get the chance to solve minor problems on his own - he just calls Mom or Dad. A student has initial problems getting along with a roommate? A roommate doesn’t do laundry as often as the other roommate wishes? A student gets a C grade on her first paper? Instead of absorbing the negative information and figuring out how to resolve the problem or how to do better, the call gets made to home, where Mom or Dad solves the problem, often by calling the school administration. This kind of behavior is, sadly, commonplace today and is a mark of the lack of coping skills among students because all the lumps and bumps have been taken out of life for them until now.

In addition to being tethered to parents, incoming freshmen are now very heavily connected by cell phone to classmates from high school, who are presumably at other colleges.

So there isn’t the great impetus to mix and venture forth to meet new people, to get out of one’s comfort zone, to get drawn into new experiences, that has traditionally marked the beginning of freshman year. The laws of physics still apply, and it is difficult to be meeting new people and seeking novel experiences while you are talking to your old pals.

Question 43: The provision of mobile phones for children, according to the author, _________.

A. reduces children’s dependence on their parents B. increases positive control by parents C. decreases parental interference D. increases children’s dependence Question 44: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that children and their parents _________.

A. emotionally need each other B. only temporarily depend on each other C. emotionally and physically depend on each other D. eternally depend on each other Question 45: The author remarks that students nowadays tend to _________.

A. refuse to go to a college that is far from home B. go to college to satisfy their parents’ wish

C. choose an institution that is close to their home D. choose a foreign institution rather than a domestic one Question 46: Parents like to be involved in their children’s college experiences because A. they are worried about the school’s carelessness B. the school often neglects their children C. they are afraid of being deprived of happiness D. they find their children a source of happiness Question 47: The word “vehicles” in the first paragraph may be replaced by _________.

A. means

B. methods

C. ways

D. instruments

Question 48: Colleges have had to devise ways of getting parents off campus because _________.

A. children want complete freedom from their parents’ control B. the colleges want to keep parents in the dark about their activities C. parents tend to get more involved in their children’s schoolwork D. teachers themselves do not want to share information with the parents Question 49: By quoting the laws of physics, the author implies that _________.

A. one should study physics whenever possible B. one should never forget old relationships C. one should only care about new relationships D. one should build more relationships Question 50: “Cutting the Apron Strings”, the title of the passage, can be interpreted as _________.

A. parting with old relationships

B. being financially independent

C. standing on your own feet

D. looking for your own devices Đáp án

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A D D A D A B A B C

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

A C C B D D B B D B

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

C C B D D C A B D D

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

B A C A D B D A B A

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

C D D A C D A C D C

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 12 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. cholera

B. character

C. charcoal

D. mechanic

Question 2:

A. apple

B. any

C. applicant

D. absent

Mark the better A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word about differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. expression

B. vegetable

C. instruction

D. promotion

Question 4:

A. discard

B. suspect

C. accuse

D. sentence

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Had I been interested in that subject, I would try to learn more about it.

A. Had I

B. in

C. try to learn

D. about

Question 6: Tim is different from John in that the first is smart and the latter rather unintelligent.

A. from

B. the first

C. and

D. latter rather

Question 7: Because the high risk of the fire during the drought, the officials ordered that no outside fire of any sort could be set.

A. Because

B. during

C. ordered

D. be set

Mark the better A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word from the four words or phrases (A, B, C or D) choose the one that best completes the sentence.

Question 8: A pet could_________a very special purpose in our life, as a companion.

A. build

B. define

C. serve

D. form

Question 9: What _________at 10 o’clock last night?

A. have you done

B. were you doing

C. have you been doing D. had you done

Question 10: Their army invaded the neighbouring country’s _________ A. territory

B. region

C. site

D. district

Question 11: Greg has, to all intents and _________, finished his degree course, with the exception of his final dissertation.

A. reasons

B. purposes

C. aims

D. proposals

Question 12: At _________time did I ever promise you a pay rise.

A. some

B. all

C. any

D. no

Question 13: The young man objects _________to do all the work himself.

A. to being asked

B. to asking

C. being asked

D. on being asked

Question 14: A young tourist has been declared _________after he got lost in the mountains last Monday A. absent

B. deserter

C. vanished

D. missing

Question 15: She got the highest marks in all the tests, which was not surprising because she was always the most _________student.

A. industrial

B. industry

C. industrialized

D. industrious

Question 16: Tristan felt _________to help Louise, because he had received so much assistance from her in the past.

A. necessary

B. impressed

C. voluntary

D. obliged

Question 17: Young children need nutritious food if they are to grow up _________.

A. strong and healthy

B. strongly and healthily

C. strongly and health

D. strong and healthily

Question 18: The woman looked _________the photos carefully to identify the pickpocket, but there were so many that it was soon hard to distinguish one_________another.

A. at-of

B. in-onto

C. for-with

D. over-from

Question 19: Derek was wearing _________at the party.

A. the most ridiculous wide, yellow, silk tie

B. very ridiculous wide, yellow, silk tie

C. a tie, yellow, wide and ridiculous

D. a yellow, silk ridiculous tie

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Mike : “I still can’t get used to it” Jane: “_________” A. You’re hopeless.

B. You’re welcome.

C. It was nice of you.

D. Sounds easy enough.

Question 21: Jack accidentally spilt coffee over Jenny’s dress in a buffet.Jack: “Forgive me. I’m terribly sorry about the dress.”Janny: “_________” A. I see what you mean.

B. That’s quite all right.

C. You’re welcome.

D. Don’t mention it.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.

Question 22: In about one-third of all cases of hepatitis B, it is unknown how the patient contracted the virus A. .became smaller with

B. Spread

C. got rid of

D. became infected with

Question 23: If we met a man in a courthouse who was wearing exotic clothes, speaking a language other than ours, and carrying food that looked strange, we would not assume that we understood his thoughts.

A. improper

B. familiar

C. outdoor

D. formal

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: It has rained so much, the ground is now saturated with water.

A. drained

B. soaked

C. empty of

D. absorbed

Question 25: The two scientists are contemporaries. Both of them are in their late 40s.

A. familiar with each other

B. equally capable

C. defeated to each other

D. living in the same time period

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: That smoking has a bad effect on our health has been proved.

A. That smoking, which has bad effect on our health, has been proved.

B. It has been proved that smoking is harmful for our health.

C. Smoking badly affects our health is true.

D. That bad effect of smoking on our health has been proved.

Question 27: It’s the first time I’ve been to a flower show.

A. I haven’t been to a flower show for years.

B. It’s the first time I’ve seen so many flowers.

C. I haven’t been to a flower show before.

D. This is the first flower show I know.

Question 28: His comment bears little relation to the topic A. His comment is close to the topic B. His comment is directly to the point.

C. His comment and the topic are not the same.

D. What he said is irrelevant to the topic.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Alex bought the big house. He wanted to open a restaurant A. Alex bought the big house although he wanted to open a restaurant.

B. Alex bought the big house with a view to opening a restaurant.

C. Alex bought the big house in order to want to open a restaurant.

D. Alex bought the house as long as he wanted to open a restaurant.

Question 30: The artist attempted to vivify the painting. The artist added people dressed in bright colors in the foreground.

A. Vivifying the painting, the artist added people dressed in bright colors in the foreground.

B. The artist attempted to vivify the painting because he added people dressed in bright colors in the foreground.

C. The artist attempted to vivify the painting by adding people dressed in bright colors in the foreground.

D. Whereas the artist attempted to vivify the painting, he added people dressed in bright colors in the foreground.

Read the passages and the questions or unfinished sentences. Then choose the answer (A, B, C or D) that you think fits best.

THE VIDEO LOGGERS One rather unlike word that has recently entered the language is “blog”, a shortened form of “web log”. A blog is a diary on the Internet by the person writing it – the “blogger” – who presumably expect other people to read it. Modern technology is being used to (31)________new life into such an old-fashioned form as the personal journal. And now, as the technology behind video camera is making them easier to use, we have the video log, or “vlog”.

Vlogging does not require (32)________sophisticated equipment: a digital video camera, a highspeed Internet connection and a host are all that is needed. Vloggers can put anything that takes their fancy onto their personal web site. Some vloggers have no ambition (33)________than to show films they have shot while on holiday in exotic places. However, vlogs can also serve more ambitious purposes. For instance, amateur film-makers who want to make a (34)________for themselves might publish their work on the Internet, eager to receive advice or criticism. And increasingly, vlogs are being used to publicize political and social issues that are not noteworthy enough to earn coverage by the mass media. It is still too early to predict whether vlogging will ever (35)________off in a major way or if it is just a passing fad, but its potential is only now becoming apparent.

Question 31:

A. add

B. inhale

C. insert

D. breathe

Question 32:

A. absolutely

B. highly

C. utterly

D. largely

Question 33:

A. except

B. other

C. rather

D. apart

Question 34:

A. name

B. fame

C. publicity

D. promotion

Question 35:

A. fly

B. take

C. show

D. make

Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each for the questions.

Researchers in the field of psychology have found that one of the best ways to make an important decision, such as choosing a university to attend or a business to invest in, involves the utilization of a decision worksheet. Psychologists who study optimization compare the actual decisions made by people to theoretical ideal decisions to see how similar they are. Proponents of the worksheet procedure believe that it will yield optimal, that is, the best decisions. Although there are several variations on the exact format that worksheets can take, they are all similar in their essential aspects.

Worksheets require defining the problem in a clear and concise way and then listing all possible solutions to the problem. Next, the pertinent considerations that will be affected by each decision are listed, and the relative importance of each consideration or consequence is determined. Each consideration is assigned a numerical value to reflect its relative importance. A decision is mathematically calculated by adding these values together. The alternative with the highest number of points emerges as the best decision.

Since most important problems are multifaceted, there are several alternatives to choose from, each with unique advantages and disadvantages. One of the benefits of a pencil and paper decision-making procedure is that it permits people to deal with more variables than their minds can generally comprehend and remember. On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in their minds at once. A worksheet can be especially useful when the decision involves a large number of variables with complex relationships. A realistic example for many college students is the question “What will I do after graduation?” A graduate might seek a position that offers specialized training, pursue an advanced degree, or travel abroad for a year.

A decision-making worksheet begins with a succinct statement of the problem that will also help to narrow it. It is important to be clear about the distinction between long-range and immediate goals because long-range goals often involve a different decision from short-range ones. Focusing on long-range goals, a graduating student might revise the question above to “What will I do after graduation that will lead to a successful career?”

Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. A tool to assist in making complex decisions.

B. A comparison of actual decisions and ideal decisions.

C. Research on how people make decisions.

D. Differences between long-range and short-range decision making.

Question 37: The word “essential” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. introductory

B. changeable

C. beneficial

D. fundamental

Question 38: Of the following steps, which occurs before the others in making a decision worksheet?

A. Listing the consequences of each solution B. Calculating a numerical summary of each solution.

C. Deciding which consequences are most important.

D. Writing down all possible solutions.

Question 39: According to decision-worksheet theory, an optimal decision is defined as one that.

A. has the fewest variables to consider B. uses the most decision worksheets C. has the most points assigned to it D. is agreed to by the greatest number of people Question 40: The author states in paragraph 3 that “On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in their minds at once” to explain that A. most decisions involve seven steps B. human mental capacity has limitations C. some people have difficulty making minor as well as major decisions D. people can learn to keep more than seven ideas in their minds with practice.

Question 41: Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?

A. Proponents (para.1)

B. Optimal (para.1)

C. Variables (para.3)

D. Long-range goals (para.4)

Question 42: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to A. worksheet

B. problem

C. distinction

D. decision

Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each for the questions.

The National Automobile Show in New York has been one of the top auto shows in the United States since 1900. On November 3 of that year, about 8,000 people looked over the “ horseless carriages”. It was opening day and the first opportunity for the automobile industry to show off its wares to large crowd; however, the black-tie audience treated the occasion more as a social affair than as sales extravaganza. It was also on the first day of this show that William Mckinley became the first U.S Present to ride in a car.

The automobile was not invented in the United States. That distinction belongs to Germany. Nikolaus Otto built the first practical internal-combustion engine there in 1876.

Then, German engineer Karl Benz built what are regarded as the first modern automobiles in

the mid-1880s. But the United States pioneered the merchandising of the automobile. The auto show proved to be an effective means of getting the public excited about automotive products.

By happenstance, the number of people at the first New York show equaled the entire car population of the United States at that time. In 1900, 10 million bicycles and an unknown number of horse-drawn carriages provided the prime means of personal transportation. Only about 4,000 cars were assembled in the United States in 1900, and only a quarter of those were gasoline powered. The rest ran on steam or electricity.

After viewing the cars made by forty car makers, the show’s audience favored electric cars because they were quiet. The risk of a boiler explosion turned people away from streamers, and the gasoline-powered cars produced smelly fumes. The Duryea Motor Wagon Company, which launched the American auto industry in 1895, offered a fragrant additive designed to mask the smells of the naphtha that is burned. Many of the 1900 models were cumbersome – the Gas mobile, the Franklin, and the Orient, for example, steered with a tiller like a boat instead of with a steering wheel. None of them was equipped with an automatic starter.

These early model cars were practically handmade and were not very dependable. They were basically toys of the well-to-do. In fact, Woodrow Wilson, then a professor at Princeton University and later President of the United States, predicted that automobiles would cause conflict between the wealthy and the poor. However, among the exhibitors at the 1900 show was a young engineer named Henry Ford. The cars he exhibited at the 1900 show apparently attracted no special notice. But before the end of the decade, he would revolutionize the automobile industry with his Model T Ford. The Model T, first produced in 1909, featured a standardized design and a steamlined method of production – the assembly line. Its lower costs made it available to the mass market.

Cars at the 1900 show ranged in price from 1,000 dollars to 1,500 dollars, or roughly 14,000 dollars to 21,000 in today’s prices. By 1913, the Model T was selling for less than 300 dollars , and soon the price would drop even further. “I will build cars for the multiudes,” Ford said, and he kept his promise.

Question 43: The passage implies that the audience viewed the 1900 National Automobile Show primarily as a(n) A. formal social occasion B. chance to buy automobiles at low prices.

C. opportunity to learn how to drive.

D. chance to invest in one of thirty-two automobile manufacturers.

Question 44: According to the passage, who developed the first modern car ?

A. Karl Benz

B. Nikolaus Otto

C. William McKinley D. Henry Ford

Question 45: Approximately how many cars were there in the United States in 1900 ?

A. 4,000

B. 8,000

C. 10 million

D. An unknown number

Question 46: Approximately how many of the cars assembled in the year 1900 were gasoline powered?

A. 32

B. 1,000

C. 2,000

D. 4,000

Question 47: According to the passage, people at the 1900 National Automobile Show favored cars powered by A. electricity

B. naphtha

C. gasoline

D. steam

Question 48: The purpose of the additive mentioned in paragraph 4 was to A. increase the speed of cars

B. make engines run more efficiently

C. hide strong smells

D. make cars look better

Question 49: The word well-to-do in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to A. good condition

B. rich

C. obedient children

D. good-natured people

Question 50: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as steering with a tiller rather than with a steering wheel ?

A. a Franklin

B. a Duryea

C. an Orient

D. a Gasmobile

ฤ รกp รกn 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

C B B D C B A C B A

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

B D A D D D A D A A

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B C B B D B C D B C

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

D B B A B A D D C B

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

B B A A B B A C B B

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 13 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. flown

B. brown

C. crown

D. frown

Question 2:

A. swear

B. spear

C. hare

D. bear

Mark the better A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word about differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. machine

B. memory

C. ceiling

D. cottage

Question 4:

A. attack

B. forever

C. supply

D. military

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: A schedule of the day’s events can obtain at the front desk.

A. A schedule

B. day’s

C. obtain

D. the front desk

Question 6: Medical research indicates that large amount of histamine can be responsible for colds, hay fever, and other respiratory reactions.

A. amount

B. can

C. colds

D. respiratory

Question 7: A lot of ancient paintings and sculptures can be found in this museum but there are a few works of Hugo because he is relatively unknown in this country.

A. ancient

B. sculptures

C. a few

D. he is

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Almost one hundred people have died as a direct result of food _______ in the capital.

A. lacking

B. shortage

C. desire

D. famine

Question 9: By _______ the housework done, my mother has more time to pursue her career.

A. ordering

B. taking

C. having

D. making

Question 10: Although this is far from certain, the _______ age of the universe is about 4.6 billion years.

A. approximate

B. general

C. near

D. rough

C. bakery

D. drugstore

Question 11: I got some bread at a _______.

A. jewelry

B. boutique

Question 12: The salary they offered me exceeded my wildlest _______!

A. expecting

B. expectations

C. expect

D. expectant

Question 13: Michael was a terrible _______ , he was even afraid to stay at home alone.

A. culprit

B. boaster

C. fiance'

D. coward

Question 14: Because she is so voluble, she has no trouble meeting new people or talking ________ a crowd A. on behalf of

B. in favour of

C. in front of

D. in aid of

Question 15: _______ , it would have been a super weekend.

A. If it were nice weather

B. But for the weather

C. If the weather hadn’t been nice

D. Had it been the weather

Question 16: We have invested _______ sums of money in improving our equipment.

A. expanding

B. even more greater

C. ever- increasing

D. large amounts of

Question 17: It took my sister some time to get used to living on an island, but _______ she began to like it.

A. initially

B. instantly

C. eventually

D. constantly

Question 18: I _______ the result tomorrow. As soon as I hear, I_______ you.

A. am going to know/will tell

B. will know/tell

C. will know/tell

D. am going to know/tell

Question 19: My parents don’t like politics, and ______ A. I don’t neither

B. neither do I

C. so do I

D. I don’t, too

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: "Good bye, Susie!" “___________” A. So so

B. The same

C. Yeah

D. So long

Question 21: Jack: “I think listening to music while learning is good.” Janny: “_______” A. Sorry, but I am not in agreement with you B. I'm sorry I couldn't agree more.

C. Me neither

D. I don't agree. You can say that again.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.

Question 22: Physical and mental strength must be the decisive factors in the success of any sportsmen.

A. main

B. unimportant

C. initiative

D. last

Question 23: Ten prisoners were released last week after their 5-year imprisonment.

A. killed

B. arrested

C. freed

D. jailed

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Every time he opens his mouth, he immedieately regrets what he said. He's always putting his foot in his mouth.

A. speaking indirectly

B. making a mistake

C. doing things in the wrong order

D. saying embarrassing things

Question 25: Petra had to abandon the idea of completing her university degree in two years instead of four.

A. return to often

B. give up

C. approve of

D. transform quickly

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: We don’t care whether Nick leaves or stays A. We don’t want Nick to leave or stay B. Whether Nick leaves or stays is important to us C. We don’t know whether Nick wants to leave or stay D. It makes no difference to us whether Nick leaves or stays Question 27: Tim never considered the possibility of studying abroad A. Tim never thought he couldn’t study abroad B. It occurred to Tim that he would think of studying abroad C. It never crossed Tim’s mind that he could study abroad D. There was no possibility of Tim studying abroad Question 28: Please don’t say things like that.

A. Stop saying things like that.

B. I wish you wouldn’t say things like that.

C. I would rather not say things like that.

D. You mightn’t say things like that.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: We never eat candy or ice cream. We do drink soda A. Although we never eat candy or ice cream, we do drink soda B. Because we never eat candy or ice cream, we drink soda C. We never eat candy or ice cream if we do drink soda D. We never eat candy or ice cream and drink soda Question 30: She didn’t want to leave the room. She was afraid that she would miss the beginning of the film.

A. She didn’t want to leave the room because she missed the beginning of the film.

B. She didn’t want to leave the room for fear that missing the beginning of the film C. She didn’t want to leave the room for fear of missing the beginning of the film

D. She didn’t want to leave the room so that she would miss the beginning of the film Read the passages and the questions or unfinished sentences. Then choose the answer (A, B, C or D) that you think fits best.

CRITICISM It can take a long time to become successful in your chosen field, however talented you are. One thing you have to be (31) _______ of is that you will face criticism along the way. The world is full of people who would rather say something negative than positive. If you’ve made up your (32) _______ to achieve a certain goal, such as writing a novel, don’t let the negative criticism of others prevent you from reaching your target and let constructive criticism have a positive (33) _______ on your work. If someone says you’re totally lacking in talent, ignore them. That’s negative criticism. If, however, someone advises you to revise your work and gives you good reasons for doing so, you should (34) _______ their suggestions carefully. There are many film stars who were once out of work. There are many famous novelists who made a complete mess of their first novel - or who didn’t, but had to keep on approaching hundreds of publishers before they could get it published. Being successful does depend on luck, to a certain extent. But things are more likely to (35) _______ well if you persevere(in/ at/ with: kiên nhẫn) and stay positive.

Question 31:

A. clever

B. aware

C. kept in mind

D. intelligent

Question 32:

A. thought

B. decision

C. idea

D. mind

Question 33:

A. effect

B. change

C. affect

D. result

Question 34:

A. reckon

B. consider

C. cautious

D. remember

Question 35:

A. get out

B. carry out

C. turn out

D. bring out

Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each for the questions.

The pain of a migraine headache can virtually disable a person who suffers from it.

Millions and millions of people suffer from migraines, although many of them do not even recognize that a migraine is different from a regular headache. A migraine is not at all the same as a normal headache, and it seems to have a very physical cause.

One symptom of a migraine is a precursor, which is a visual aura before an attack. Yet only about a third of patients actually experience that, and it is therefore not a requirement in the diagnosis. Other symptoms include increased pain when a person moves, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound. Scientists now believe that migraines are caused, not by abnormal blood vessels as previously believed, but instead by a unique electrical disorder of brain cells.

Physicians used to treat migraines with medicine to constrict blood vessels because of the belief that dilated blood vessels were the cause.

The new research has been enhanced by imaging devices that allow scientists to watch patients' brains during an attack. The results show that sufferers have abnormally excitable neurons, or brain nerve cells. Prior to the attack, the neurons suddenly fire off electrical pulses at the back of the brain, which ripple like waves on a lake after a stone hits the water. They ripple across the top and then the back of the brain, ultimately affecting the brain stem where the pain centers are located. The pain then generates possibly from the brain stem itself or from blood vessels inflamed by the rapidly changing blood flow, or perhaps from both.

Scientists have experimented by applying a powerful magnet to stimulate the neurons and discovered that some people's brains react differently than others'. When stimulation was applied to the brains of people who had suffered migraines, they saw the initial aura, and some actually suffered migraines. When the same stimulation was applied to the brains of people who had never suffered migraines, they realized no effect and the neurons showed no change.

Scientists and doctors continue to work on the research in an attempt to find the perfect treatment. It is considered important to treat migraines because it is believed that prolonged untreated attacks could cause physical changes in the brain leading to chronic pain.

Question 36: The author implies that a migraine A. is just a strong headache.

B. can be treated with regular aspirin.

C. is caused by the same things that cause a headache D. has a specific scientific cause, unlike a headache.

Question 37: The word “it “ in paragraph 1 refers to A. pain

B. migraine

C. person

D. suffering

Question 38: The prior treatment for migraines included medicine that A. eliminated any pain.

B. tightened blood vessels

C. eliminated the aura.

D. eliminated stress.

Question 39: The word enhanced in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to A. hindered

B. augmented

C. described

D. studied

Question 40: The new research indicates that the neurons in the brain of migraine sufferers A. have more electrical charge than those of people who do not suffer migraines.

B. tend to fire in an unusual pattern when a migraine begins.

C. do not react.

D. have no effect on migraines Question 41: According to the passage, now that scientists know that unusual neurons in certain people are the cause of migraines, they

A. know all they need to know about the cause of migraines.

B. have developed medicine to permanently reverse the neurons' charge.

C. still do not know exactly what causes the pain.

D. know that the defective neurons reside in the brain stem.

Question 42: The best title for this passage would be what?

A. Imaging As a Means of Studying Migraines B. How Migraines and Headaches are Different C. New Evidence of How Migraines Are Formed D. New Treatments for Migraines Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each for the questions.

Line Europeans who arrived in the Americas, the first American Indians were immigrants.

Because Indians were nomadic hunters and gatherers, they probably arrived in search of new hunting grounds from Asia when they crossed the ice-covered Bering Strait to Alaska.

Anthropologists estimate that the entire Indian population north of Mexico was slightly greater than 1,020,000 when the first settlers arrived from Europe. Although Native Americans belonged to one geographic race, their cultures and languages were only marginally similar, and by and large, they had different ways of life. Nomadic migrations required Indians to construct shelters that did not need to be transported, but could be easily erected from the materials found in their new location.

Eastern Woodland Indian tribes lived in bark-covered wigwams that were shaped like cones or domes. The frame for the hut was made of young trees firmly driven into the ground, and then bent overhead to tie together with bark fibers or strings of animal hides. Sheets and slabs of bark were attached to the frame to construct the roof and walls, leaving an opening to serve as a door and to allow smoke to escape. The Iroquois in north eastern regions built longhouses that were more spacious than wigwams because five to a dozen families lived under one roof. During the winter, they plastered clay to the poles of the frame to protect the inhabitants from wind and rain.

Pueblo Indians who lived in the southwest portion of the United States in northern Arizona and New Mexico constructed elaborate housing with several stories and many rooms. Each family unit had only one room, and their ancestors dug shelters in the walls of cliffs and canyons.

The ground story of a Pueblo dwelling had no doors or windows in order to prevent enemies from entering. The next level was set back the width of one room, and the row of rooms above it was set back once again, giving their houses the appearance of a terrace Pueblos used ladders to climb to the upper levels and pulled them in when all family members returned for the night.

Indians living in deserts used sandstone and clay as construction materials. Those who lived in the valleys of rivers even made bricks of clay with wood chips to add strength and to prevent the clay from cracking. To make roofs, Pueblos tied logs together to make rafters and laid them across the two outside walls. On top of the rafters, layers of tree branches, sticks, grass, and brush created a solid roof to preclude the water from leaking inside. Pueblo dwellings were dark because windows were often not large enough to allow much light.

Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Different Indian tribes

B. Types of households among Indians

C. Types of shelters built by Indians

D. Different Indian cultures

Question 44: The word “marginally” is closest in meaning to A. markedly

B. minimally

C. temporarily

D. tentatively

Question 45: The phrase “by and large” is closest in meaning to A. mostly

B. conversely

C. occasionally

D. notably

Question 46: The author of the passage implies that Indians A. carried their construction materials to new locations B. lived in settlements, similar to the Europeans C. liked the climate in the Southwest D. constructed shelters every time a tribe moved Question 47: The author of the passage implies that Eastern Indians A. constructed huts without roofs B. planted trees to harvest crops C. made fires inside their huts D. used sheets and blankets as bedding Question 48: The phrase “under one roof” is closest in meaning to A. in separate sections B. in several shelters

C. comfortably

D. together

Question 49: What was the main difference between the dwelling of Pueblo and Woodland Indians?

A. The Pueblos lived in permanent structures, but the Woodland Indians lived in transient shelters.

B. The Pueblos used wood in their constructions, but the Woodland Indians relied mostly on animal hides.

C. The Woodland Indians lived on flat ground, but the Pueblos lived in canyons.

D. The Woodland Indians built small shelters, but the Pueblo rooms were large.

Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that Pueblo dwellings were designed to protect inhabitants from A. attacks by enemies and cold winters B. attacks by enemies and against rain water C. wind storms and water from rain D. wild animals, cold winters, and desert sands. Ä?ĂĄp ĂĄn 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A B A D C A C B C A

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

C B D C B C C A B D

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

A B D D B D C B A C

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

B D A B C D B B B B

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

C C C B A D C D A B

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 14 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others.

Question 1:

A. what

B. where

C. why

D. who

Question 2:

A. laughter

B. bought

C. brought

D. fought

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. artificial

B. inhabitant

C. mausoleum

D. integration

Question 4:

A. energy

B. applicable

C. household

D. appliance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Most of the guests turned up two hours early, that took us by surprise.

A. of the

B. up

C. that

D. by

Question 6: When I got to the cinema Jack had been waiting for me.

A. to

B. the

C. had been

D. for

Question 7: All applications ask for your address, telephone number and the title of the job for whom you are applying.

A. ask for

B. and

C. the title

D. for whom

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Lan: “I can’t understand how you missed the exit.” Mai: “Well, it was so dark that ___________” A. we could see hardly the road signs

B. we could see the road signs hardly

C. hardly could we see the road signs

D. we could hardly see the road signs

Question 9: As we waited on the pavement, a black Mercedes _________beside us.

A. pulled up

B. pulled down

C. pulled off

D. pulled through

Question 10: Ann had to use my ruler because she had left _________at home.

A. her

B. she

C. herself

D. hers

Question 11: We took the children to the _________park last weekend. They really enjoyed going on all the rides.

A. wildlife

B. amusement

C. national

D. entertainment

Question 12: _________did Janet accept the job.

A. Only because it was interested work

B. The work was interesting

C. Only because it was interesting work

D. Because it was interesting work

Question 13: As the sea level is getting _________many areas of land will no longer exist.

A. high

B. the higher

C. higher and higher

D. the highest

Question 14: I’ll lend you some money _________I get paid.

A. until

B. as soon as

C. whenever

D. while

Question 15: “Did Susan have a chance to _________you?” “Oh, yes, she called me up last night” A. call contacts with

B. keep in touch for

C. get in touch with

D. find contacts for

Question 16: Not only _________, it also performs an essential function in the reproduction of the plant.

A. the flower is looking beautiful

B. does the flower look beautiful

C. the beautiful flower

D. the flower looks beautiful

Question 17: When I rang the bell, her husband ____ the door.

A. received

B. responded

C. replied

D. answered

Question 18: _________without animals and plants?

A. What would life on earth be like

B. How would life on earth be for

C. What will life on earth be like

D. How will life on earth be like

Question 19: He wanted to get to the town centre but he got _________the wrong bus and ended up at the station.

A. in

B. out of

C. off

D. on

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Ann: “How well you are playing!” Peter: “_________” A. Say it again. I like to hear your words.

B. I think so. I’m proud of myself.

C. Thank you so much. I’m always the best.

D. Many thanks. That’s a nice compliment.

Question 21: A: “Thanks for helping me out.” B: “_________” A. It’s kind of you to say so.

B. That’s right.

C. You bet.

D. Don’t mention it.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.

Question 22: The famous racehorse Secretariat had to be destroyed because of a painful, incurable hoof disease.

A. disabling

B. vexatious

C. dangerous

D. reparable

Question 23: Charles W. Eliot, the president of Harvard in 1869, initiated a system under which most required courses were dropped in favor of elective courses.

A. initial

B. compulsory

C. optional

D. necessary

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.

A. complain

B. exchange

C. explain

D. arrange

Question 25: American children customarily go trick-or-treating on Halloween.

A. inevitably

B. readily

C. happily

D. traditionally

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: If Janet had checked her purse, she wouldn’t have forgotten her license at home.

A. Janet forgot her purse and her license.

B. Janet forgot her license but not her purse.

C. Janet forgot her purse but not her license.

D. Janet forgot neither her license nor her purse.

Question 27: She reminded her daughters of theirs table manners.

A. She wanted her daughters to be more polite while eating.

B. She wanted her daughters to leave the dinner table.

C. She wanted her daughters to eat a little more slowly.

D. She wanted her daughters to remember all meal time.

Question 28: We hoped Rick would tell us what his new house was like.

A. We wanted to know the directions to Rick’s new house.

B. We wanted Rick to describe his new house for us.

C. We wanted Rick to tell us if he liked his new house.

D. We wanted Rick to tell us the price of his new house.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.

A. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me.

B. He cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it.

C. As long as he cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me.

D. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.

Question 30: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.

A. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.

B. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.

C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.

D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.

How men first learnt to invent words is unknown; in other words, the origin of language is a (31) _______. All we really know is that men, unlike animals, somehow invented certain sounds to express thoughts and feelings, actions and things so that they could communicate with each other; and that later they agreed (32) _______ certain signs, called letters, which could be combined to represent those sounds, and which could be written down. These sounds, (33) _______ spoken or written in letters, are called words. Great writers are those who not only have great thoughts but also express these thoughts in words that appeal powerfully to our minds and emotions. This charming and telling use of words is what we call literary (34) _______. Above all, the real poet is a master of words. He can convey his meaning in words which sing like music, and which by their position and association can (35) _______ men to tears. We should, therefore, learn to choose our words carefully, or they will make our speech silly and vulgar.

Question 31:

A. story

B. secret

C. mystery

D. legend

Question 32:

A. at

B. upon

C. with

D. about

Question 33:

A. if

B. however

C. whether

D. though

Question 34:

A. prose

B. work

C. form

D. style

Question 35:

A. take

B. send

C. break

D. move

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The problem of cardiac arrest has become a major problem these days. A lot of patients have acute pain after suffering from a stroke. There are plenty of medicines, surgical methods developed in the field of medicine to treat such cardiac problems. These solutions are time consuming and costly. In the process of rehabilitation, the medicines also have a lot of side effects on the human body and take time to give relief. Therefore, a lot of people go for alternative therapies that help in rehabilitation of patients who suffer from cardiac stroke. The alternative therapies help in relieving pain, stress and make the body healthy and fit through exercise, yoga as well as meditation.

Those who have the cardiac complaint have to take a good care of their diet. Also, they must look after their regular exercise in order to stay fit and make sure that they do not take

undue stress. These are some of the precautions that you need to take while you are in the process of rehabilitation. The cardiac rehabilitation can be carried out at the rehabilitation centers as well as at the residence of the patients. Once the patient learns all the exercise and techniques of meditation and understands what diet he or she should include in their meals as the instructions of the doctor’s and dieticians, then it is possible to accomplish the rehabilitation process at home with little guidance and monitoring. But the best results are seen at the center, where the program is given to a group of patients together.

The alternative therapies used for cardiac rehabilitation are stress management, physical exercises and diet. Stress management is very much essential in the rehabilitation process because it has a lot of effects on the patient’s body. A lot of relaxation techniques are taught to the patients that helps them in stress management, among them meditation is one of the main focuses.

The various rehabilitation programs also give you information on how to have a stress free lifestyle. The patients are supported and encouraged to discuss their problems with the counselor or fellow patients. This helps them to vent their feelings and feel comforted. Breathing exercises are also of great help for the patients who are undergoing cardiac rehabilitation.

In addition to stress management, physical exercises are also given a lot of importance in the rehabilitation program. The patients are asked to perform various forms of physical exercise which are suitable to them depending on their age and the severity of their problems. These activities include activities like walking, jogging, cycling, and some other sports like badminton, tennis etc., to maintain their health and keep their muscles, bones, and body tissues in a good state. Cardio exercise in a gymnasium is also encouraged. This helps in strengthening the muscles and managing weight.

The diet of these patients also needs to be looked upon very carefully. Such people should stay away from alcohol and tobacco consumption in order to improve their health. Make sure that their meals include plenty of organic foodstuffs as well as fruits and juices. Do not include junk and oily foodstuffs in your diet because they are very difficult to digest. The intake of calories should also be done at required level. It is a significant fact that the patients have to understand and work accordingly.

Question 36: What does the passage primarily discuss?

A. Medical treatment of cardiac arrest B. Alternative therapies in the treatment of cardiac arrest C. The rehabilitation process of cardiac arrest D. Alcohol and tobacco consumption in cardiac patients’ diet

Question 37: All of the following are mentioned as the negative aspects of medical treatment EXCEPT A. causing acute pains

B. costing a lot of money

C. having side effects on people’s body

D. prolonging over a long period of time

Question 38: The word “undue” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. regular

B. daily

C. excessive

D. severe

Question 39: Which is one of the main areas focused in the stress management program?

A. Relaxation

B. Breathing

C. Meditation

D. Weight management

Question 40: According to the passage, what do people with cardiac arrest need to do to have a stress-free life?

A. They need to meditate on their problems B. They need to talk to others about their problems.

C. They need to stop worrying about their problems.

D. They need to deal with their problems.

Question 41: The author mentions gymnasium in the passage to imply that A. gymnasium is an ideal place for doing cardio exercise.

B. gymnasium is also a good place for doing cardio exercise C. gymnasium is the place for doing cardio exercise when it rains.

D. gymnasium is the only place for doing cardio exercise.

Question 42: Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?

A. It is of vital important that patients of cardiac arrest understand and follow the instructions from doctors and dieticians B. Managing stress is considered the most important therapy in rehabilitation programs.

C. The cardiac rehabilitation carried out at home of the patients is less effective than in the rehabilitation center.

D. Patients of cardiac arrest perform different forms of physical exercise based on their age and their health condition.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

ACADEMICS AREN’T THE PROBLEM Studies about how students use their time might shed light on whether they face increased academic and financial pressures compared with earlier eras.

Based on data about how students are spending time, academic or financial pressures don’t seem to be greater now than a generation ago. The data show that full-time students in all types of colleges study much less now than they did a generation ago - a full 10 hours a week less.

Students are also receiving significantly higher grades. So it appears that academic pressures are, in fact, considerably lower than they used to be.

The time-use data don’t suggest that students feel greater financial pressures, either. When the time savings and lower opportunity costs are factored in, college appears less expensive for most students than it was in the 1960s. And though there are now full-time students working to pay while in college, they study less even when paid work choices are held constantly.

In other words, full-time students do not appear to be studying less in order to work more.

They appear to be studying less and spending the extra time on leisure activities or fun. It seems hard to imagine that students feeling increased financial pressures would respond by taking more leisure.

Based on how students are spending their time, then, it doesn’t look as though academic or financial pressures are greater now than a generation ago. The time- use data don't speak directly to social pressures, and it may well be that these have become more intense lately.

In one recent set of data, students reported spending more than 23 hours per week either socializing with friends or playing on the Computer for fun. Social activities, in person or on Computer, would seem to have become the major focus of campus life. It is hard to tell what kinds of pressures would be associated with this change.

Question 43: Research studies have shown that pressures put on students nowadays are ______.

A. much greater than the past

B. not greater than the past

C. getting ever greater D. more diversified Question 44: The study’s conclusion that students’ workload now is not greater than before is based on ______.

A. how students spend their time

B. what students achieve with greater load

C. how students work through college

D. what college demands from students

Question 45: Students get higher grades as ______.

A. students study much harder

B. academic workload appears less demanding

C. academic workload appears more attractive D. college’s facilities are much better Question 46: All factors considered, college now seems ______.

A. ever more expensive

B. more costly

C. much more expensive

D. less expensive

Question 47: The word “focus” in the last paragraph can be replaced with ______.

A. headline

B. biggest importance C. primary theme

D. central activity

Question 48: According to the author, the fact that more full-time students are working for pay ______.

A. shows that students are financially pressured B. is not an indication of pressures C. does not change students’ campus life D. indicates that students are academically pressured Question 49: Ạccording to the author, the fact that students have more time for leisure is a proof that ______.

A. financial pressure on students is not a problem B. they cannot find extra jobs C. academic work disinterests them D. they are active with extra-curricular activities Question 50: The word “Academics” in the title mostly means ______.

A. college students and tutors

B. professors and research students

C. students’ workload in college

D. graduate students’ workload Đáp án

1-D

2-A

3-B

4-D

5-C

6-C

7-D

8-D

9-A

10-D

11-B

12-C

13-C

14-B

15-C

16-B

17-D

18-A

19-D

20-D

21-D

22-D

23-C

24-C

25-D

26-B

27-A

28-B

29-B

30-B

31-C

32-B

33-C

34-D

35-D

36-B

37-A

38-C

39-C

40-B

41-B

42-B

43-B

44-A

45-B

46-D

47-D

48-B

49-A

50-C

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 15 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. attach

B. alternative

C. attendance

D. again

Question 2:

A. illegal

B. islander

C. inflation

D. intervention

Mark the better A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word about differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. scientific

B. biology

C. geography

D. activity

Question 4:

A. passionate

B. magnetic

C. luxurious

D. majority

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Hardly had we arrived at the hotel, that there was a power cut.

A. had we

B. at

C. that

D. a

Question 6: Not until the office phoned me had I found out about the meeting.

A. Not

B. phoned

C. had I found

D. about

Question 7: I tried to convince him several times but I failed because he was unwilling to consider what I have said.

A. him

B. failed

C. to consider

D. have said

From the four words or phrases (A, B, C or D) choose the one that best completes the sentence.

Question 8: The new director of the company seems to be an intelligent and ______ man.

A. well-educated

B. well-educate

C. well-educational

D. well- education

Question 9: My brother has been getting so ______ with me recently - I've no idea what's the matter with him.

A. nervous

B. irritable

C. envious

D. unkind

Question 10: If you have a ______ to make about the food, I am willing to listen.

A. dislike

B. complaint

C. trouble

D. discontent

Question 11: They say that a friend in ______ is a friend indeed.

A. need

B. lack

C. wish

D. miss

Question 12: Michael was ______ with anger when he saw his car had been scratched.

A. filled

B. fixed

C. loaded

D. stored

Question 13: Never before ______ in an earnest attempt to resolve their differences.

A. have the leaders of those two countries met B. the leaders of these two countries have met

C. have the leaders the two countries meet

D. met the leaders of the two countries

Question 14: I’m sure you’ll find someone to ______ friends with at the summer camp.

A. create

B. set

C. join

D. make

Question 15: Looking after a pet can take ______ quite a lot of time.

A. on

B. over

C. in

D. up

Question 16: One of the men was lying on the ground after ______ down by a piece of rock.

A. knocking

B. being knocked

C. knocking him

D. was knocked

Question 17: Solar energy is considered as one kind of ______ fuels.

A. various

B. alternative

C. replacing

D. changing

Question 18: I had no problems on the test, except for question 36, which I found really______ A. rough

B. upset

C. tough

D. strict

Question 19: ______ entering the hall, he found everyone waiting for him.

A. With

B. In

C. At

D. On

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Lan: "That millions of people attended General Vo Nguyen Giap's funeral made a special impression on almost every foreigner."Nga: “__________” A. My pleasure

B. Me neither

C. I'm afraid I can't

D. I'll say

Question 21: "Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti, or something different!" “________” A. I'm afraid not

B. Yes, please

C. Never mind

D. Anything will do

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.

Question 22: The coach takes every opportunity to censure his players, yet he ignores every opportunity to praise them.

A. criticise

B. praise

C. approve of

D. choose

Question 23: Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year’s harvest.

A. hungry

B. rich

C. poor

D. full

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Workers tried to extinguished the flames. Their efforts proved futile, as piles of fabric ignited all over the eighth floor.

A. became wet

B. caught fire

C. exploded

D. spread

Question 25: In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew two years ago.

A. new counselors

B. first-year students

C. new students

D. young professors

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: He would never agree to sell his business, even if he received a very tempting offer.

A. He wanted to sell his business although the offer was tempting.

B. He would never agree to sell his business unless the offer was tempting.

C. However tempting the offer, he would never agree to sell his business.

D. Although he’d never agree to sell his business, the offer was very tempting.

Question 27: I was shocked that John stole the car.

A. John’s stolen car was very shocking.

B. John was shocked that he could not take the car.

C. My car was stolen, and John was shocked.

D. That John stole the car shocked me.

Question 28: Scarcely had he got out of the house when it started raining.

A. He was getting out of the house when it started raining.

B. He had no sooner got out of the house when it started raining.

C. He got out of the house after it started raining.

D. It started raining right after he got out of the house.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Jim is my best friend. I borrowed his car yesterday.

A. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend.

B. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday is my best friend.

C. Jim, who is my best friend, borrowed my car yesterday.

D. Jim, whose car I lent yesterday, is my best friend.

Question 30: Joe does a lot of exercise. He’s still very fat.

A. Despite the fact that doing a lot of exercise, Joe’s still very fat.

B. Joe does a lot of exercise, so he’s very fat.

C. Even though Joe does a lot of exercise, he’s very fat.

D. Joe’s very fat, but he does a lot of exercise.

Read the passages and the questions or unfinished sentences. Then choose the answer (A, B, C or D) that you think fits best.

Around the age of sixteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life. “Do I stay on at school and hopefully go on to university (31) _______? Do I leave and start work or begin a

training course. The decision is yours, but it may be (32) _______ remembering two things: there is more unemployment among those who haven’t been to university, and people who have the right skills will have a big advantage in the competition for jobs. If you decide to go (33) _______ into a job, there are many opportunities for training. Getting qualifications will help you to get on more quickly in many careers, and evening classes allow you to learn (34) _______ you earn. Starting work and taking a break to study when you are older is another possibility. In this way, you can save up money for your student days, as well as (35) _______ practical work experience.

Question 31:

A. former

B. past

C. later

D. after

Question 32:

A. necessary

B. important

C. useful

D. worth

Question 33:

A. instant

B. just

C. straight

D. direct

Question 34:

A. while

B. what

C. where

D. which

Question 35:

A. doing

B. getting

C. making

D. taking

Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each for the questions.

The official residence of the president of the United States is the White House, located at 1600 Pennsylvania Avenue, in Washington, D.C. The Commissioners of the District of Columbia held a meeting in 1792 and decided to hold a contest for the best design for the Presidential House. James Hoban, an architect born in Ireland, was the winner. His bid for the construction of the mansion asked for $200,000, but the final cost of the building came to twice that amount. The work on the project began during the same year, and the grounds of approximately one and a half miles west of the Capitol Hill were chosen by Major Pierre-Charles L’Enfant, who was in charge of city planning. However, the construction continued for several more years, and George Washington had stepped down as president before the building was habitable. When John Adams, the second president of the United States and his wife Abigail moved in 1800, only six rooms had been completed.

The grey sandstone walls of the house were painted white during construction, and the color of the paint gave the building its name. The building was burned on August 24, 1814, and James Hoban reconstructed the house for President James Monroe and his family, who moved there in 1817. The north portico was added to the building in 1829, water pipes were installed in 1833, gas lighting in 1848, and electricity in 1891. In 1948, inspectors announced that the building was so dilapidated that it was beyond repair and suggested that it was cheaper to construct a new one than repair the existing dwelling. However, the national sentiment was to keep the original form intact, and Congress appropriated $5million dollars for repairs. In 1961,

Jacqueline Kennedy launched a pro.4 gram to redecorate the rooms and appointed a Fine Arts Committee to make choices of furnishing and colors.

The house of the president accords its residents a great deal of space. The living quarters contain 107 rooms, 40 corridors, and 19 baths. The White House contains a doctor’s suite, a dentist’s office, a large solarium, a broadcasting room, and a two-floor basement for storage and service rooms. The office in which the president works is not located in the White House, but in a separate building called the West Wing. The White House stands on 16 acres of park like land and overlooks a broad lawn, flower gardens, and wood groves.

Question 36: The word “contest” is closest in meaning to A. hearing

B. concourse

C. competition

D. computation

Question 37: What does the passage imply about the cost of the White House construction?

A. It was proposed at the meeting of the commissioners.

B. It did not adhere to the original estimate.

C. It was not included in the architectural design.

D. It was considered excessive for the presidential home.

Question 38: The word “grounds” is closest in meaning to A. high ground

B. several lots

C. site

D. hills

Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that A. George Washington often used the White House steps B. George Washington contributed to the White House design C. George Washington never lived in the White House D. The White House was excluded from the city planning Question 40: The author of the passage implies that the construction of the main White House building continued A. up to 1800

B. after 1800

C. until 1814

D. until 1792

Question 41: What can be inferred about the White House from the information in the second paragraph?

A. Few changes occurred in the structure in the first half of the 20th century.

B. The building was modernized extensively during one decade.

C. Running water was installed in the second half of the 19th century.

D. Each president added new features to the building’s conveniences.

Question 42: The passage mentions all of the following White House premises EXCEPT A. hallways

B. kitchen

C. medical offices

D. storage rooms

Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each for the questions.

In the course of history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average amount of energy available for use per person. Primitive people in cold regions burned wood and animal dung to heat their caves, cook food, and drive off animals by fire. The first step toward the developing of more efficient fuels was taken when people discovered that they could use vegetable oils and animal fats in lieu of gathered or cut wood. Charcoal gave off a more intensive heat than wood and was more easily obtainable than organic fats. The Greeks first began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4th century, but it did not come into extensive use until the Industrial Revolution.

In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United States and other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and renewable sources, such as wood, water streams, domesticated animal labor, and wind. These were predominantly locally available supplies. By mid-1800s, 91 percent of all commercial energy consumed in the United States and European countries was obtained from wood. However, at the beginning of the 20th century, coal became a major energy source and replaced wood in industrializing countries. Although in most regions and climate zones wood was more readily accessible than coal, the latter represents a more concentrated source of energy. In 1910, natural gas and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of fuel because they are lighter and, therefore, cheaper to transport. They burned more cleanly than coal and polluted less. Unlike coal, oil could be refined to manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles, a very important consideration in the early 1900s, when the automobile arrived on the scene.

By 1984, nonrenewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over 82 percent of the commercial and industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of energy were derived from nuclear fission, and the remaining 16 percent came from burning direct perpetual and renewable fuels, such as biomass. Between 1700 and 1986, a large number of countries shifted from the use of energy from local sources to a centralized generation of hydropower and solar energy converted to electricity. The energy derived from nonrenewable fossil fuels has been increasingly produced in one location and transported to another, as is the case with most automobile fuels. In countries with private, rather than public transportation, the age of nonrenewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite resource that will have to be replaced.

Question 43: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Applications of various fuels

B. Natural resources and fossil fuels

C. A history of energy use

D. A historical overview of energy rates

Question 44: The phrase “per person” is closest in meaning to A. per capita

B. per year

C. per family

D. per day

Question 45: The phrase “in lieu” is closest in meaning to A. in spite

B. in place

C. in every way

D. in charge

Question 46: The author of the passage implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy were A. used for commercial purposes

B. used in various combinations

C. not derived from mineral deposits

D. not always easy to locate

Question 47: The phrase “the latter” refers to A. wood

B. coal

C. most regions

D. climate zones

Question 48: The word “They” refers to A. coal and wood

B. main sources of fuel

C. natural gas and oil

D. industrializing countries

Question 49: According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel?

A. It was a concentrated source of energy.

B. It was lighter and cheaper than coal.

C. It replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution.

D. It could be converted to automobile fuel.

Question 50: According to the passage, the sources of fossil fuels will have to be replaced because A. they need to be transported

B. they are not efficient

C. their use is centralized

D. their supply is limited Đáp án

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

B B A A C C D A B B

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

A A A D D B B C D D

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

D B D B B C D D A C

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

C D C A B C B C C B

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

A B C A B C B C D D

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 16 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. favour

B. harbor

C. flour

D. vapor

Question 2:

A. bull

B. dull

C. full

D. put

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. harbor

B. mature

C. enable

D. container

Question 4:

A. domestic

B. applicant

C. wilderness

D. heritage

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following question.

Question 5: From the monitoring of earthquake waves it is evidence that the Earth’s outer core is liquid, whereas the inner core is solid.

A. From

B. earthquake

C. evidence

D. whereas

Question 6: In nowadays, commercial breakeries use complex, automated machines, but the basic principles of baking have changed little for thousands of years.

A. In nowadays

B. of baking

C. little

D. for thousands

Question 7: Philosopher Theodore A. Langerman was interested in the fields of literary and music.

A. Philosopher

B. interested

C. literary

D. music

From the four words or phrases (A, B, C or D), choose the one that best completes the sentence.

Question 8: It seems our application has been refused _______ A. point blank

B. bull ‘s eye

C. carte blanche

D. about- face

Question 9: A product, _______, will be highly desired by many, as customers are misguided to ignore the products’ downsides.

A. when is promoted well

B. when promoted well

C. if it promoted well

D. if promoting well

Question 10: I don’t think it's fair to _______a comparison between the two sisters.

A. do

B. strike

C. draw

D. take

Question 11: _______I love you, I can’t let you do whatever you like.

A. Much as

B. Whatever

C. Whether

Question 12: I think you need a holiday to_______your batteries.

D. Despite

A. get back

B. recharge

C. take up

D. change

Question 13: When the Titanic started sinking, the passengers were ______.

A. weather- beaten

B. horrifying

C. apprehensive

D. panic- stricken

Question 14: Making mistakes is all _______of growing up.

A. chalk and cheese

B. from top to bottom C. part and parcel

D. odds and ends

Question 15: I've asked Mike_______not to leave his car in front of my gates, but he always forgets.

A. time and again

B. at times

C. in the nick of time D. on time

Question 16: There was a sudden _______and we ran for cover.

A. downpour

B. fallout

C. outburst

D. outbreak

Question 17: What would be the _______qualification in your own country ?

A. equivalent

B. same

C. similar

D. corresponded

Question 18: The children can get to school ten minutes earlier if they take a short_______ through the park.

A. link

B. cut

C. pass

D. path

Question 19: The offer of a place at university is not to be _______ at.

A. sneezed

B. shrugged

C. winked

D. coughed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Annie: ‘Do you prefer traveling by plane or by train? Peter: '_______' A. I don't really use either.

B. No, not at all.

C. Sometimes.

D. It terrifies me.

Question 21: Tom: "What would you like to do at the weekend?" Lisa: “_______” A. I like to do a lot

B. I'd like to see a football match.

C. I can't stand it

D. I don't like to see a football match.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Teachers must enforce certain rules in the classroom to ensure the safety and fairtreatment of all students.

A. impose

B. obtain

C. overlook

D. derive

Question 23: Proximity to the court house makes an office building more valuable.

A. interest in

B. nearness to

C. similarity to

D. usefulness for

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Video cameras attached to sea turtles and sharks reveal an underwater world hidden to humans.

A. exposed

B. unrelated

C. invisible

D. phenomenal

Question 25: We managed to get to school in time despite the heavy rain.

A. earlier than a particular moment

B. later than expected

C. early enough to do something

D. as long as expected

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence in each of the following questions.

Question 26: Only their own mother can tell Simon and Mike apart.

A. It’s very difficult to distinguish Simon and Mike.

B. Except for their own mother, no one can talk to Simon and Mike.

C. No one other than their mother can separate Simon and Mike.

D. Simon and Mike bear some resemblance to each other.

Question 27: You can cancel your ticket with a full refund only if you do so one week before your scheduled departure.

A. In order to get all the money you’ve paid for the ticket back , the cancellation has to be done seven days prior to your plane’s scheduled take-off.

B. When you purchase a ticket for a flight , it’s impossible to get a refund on it in advance of the date that your flight will be leaving.

C. You can apply for a full refund for your ticket within a week if you’ve had a change of plans and can’t make the flight.

D. When a flight has been cancelled by the airlines, you must asks for a full refund within one week of the date of departure.

Question 28: This medicine will relieve the pain, but it will not cure everything.

A. Although this medicine will relieve the pain, but it cannot cure everything.

B. Only if this medicine works as a painkiller, it will cure everything.

C. While relieve the pain, this medicine will not cure everything.

D. Although this medicine will bring some pain relief, it will not work miracles.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Mt. Everest is the highest mountain in the world. It's in the Himalayas.

A. Mt. Everest, the highest mountain in the world, is in the Himalayas.

B. Mt. Everest is the highest mountain in the world, it's in the Himalayas.

C. Mt. Everest is the highest mountain in the world, is in the Himalayas.

D. Mt. Everest is the highest mountain in the world, in the Himalayas.

Question 30: He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work.

A. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.

B. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.

C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.

D. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.

Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.

The quality of life these days is something most of us take for (31) _______It takes some radically different experience to bring this fact home to people. In my case, it was spending three weeks aboard a yacht with twelve other people, competing in a major sailing race. (32) _______I was officially a guest, it was made clear to me from the start that there was to be no room for passengers, and that I’d have to (33) _______my weight.

For the first few nights, none of us was able to sleep for more than a couple of hours at a time before being rudely awoken by an aggressive command. Then we’d do physically exhausting work in total darkness. Every few minutes we’d be completely soaked to the (34) _______by a large wave we couldn’t see coming. I shared sleeping quarters with six other women, with barely enough room to stretch my legs. Soon I found myself (35) _______for my comfortable sheets back home, a hot chocolate and a warm bath.

Question 31:

A. given

B. accepted

C. granted

D. read

Question 32:

A. Although

B. However

C. But

D. Therefore

Question 33:

A. offer

B. move

C. use

D. pull

Question 34:

A. flesh

B. skin

C. bones

D. tones

Question 35:

A. desiring

B. yearning

C. dreaming

D. craving

Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each for the questions.

Puerto Rico, a Caribbean island rich in history and remarkable natural beauty, has a cuisine all its own. Immigration to the island has helped to shape its cuisine, with people from all over the world making various contributions to it. However, before the arrival of these immigrants, the island of Puerto Rico was already known as Borikén and was inhabited by the Taíno people. Taíno cuisine included such foods as rodents with sweet chili peppers, fresh shellfish, yams, and fish fried in corn oil.

(1) Many aspects of Taíno cuisine continue today in Puerto Rican cooking, but it has been heavily influenced by the Spanish, who invaded Puerto Rico in 1508, and Africans, who were initially brought to Puerto Rico to work as slaves. (2)Taíno cooking styles were mixed with ideas

brought by the Spanish and Africans to create new dishes. (3) Africans also added to the island’s food culture by introducing powerful, contrasting tastes in dishes like piñon–plantains layered in ground beef. In fact, much of the food Puerto Rico is now famous for—plantains, coffee, sugarcane, coconuts, and oranges—was actually imported by foreigners to the island. (4) A common assumption many people make about Puerto Rican food is that it is very spicy.

It’s true that chili peppers are popular; ajícaballero in particular is a very hot chili pepper that Puerto Ricans enjoy. However, milder tastes are popular too, such as sofrito. The 25 base of many Puerto Rican dishes, sofrito is a sauce made from chopped onions, garlic, green bell peppers, sweet chili peppers, oregano, cilantro, and a handful of other spices. It is fried in oil and then added to other dishes.

(Adapted from: Reaing Explorer 2, by Paul MacIntyre, 2009, Heinle, Cengage Learning) Question 36: Who lived in Puerto Rico first?

A. the Taíno people

B. the Africans

C. the Spanish

D. the Americans

Question 37: What is the main idea of the second paragraph?

A. Taíno dishes are important in Puerto Rican cooking.

B. Puerto Rican cooking has had many influences.

C. Food that has been imported by foreigners isn’t really Puerto Rican.

D. American foods have probably had the most influence.

Question 38: The word it in paragraph 1 refers to _______ A. immigration

B. Puerto Rican cuisine

C. Caribbean history

D. the island’s natural beauty

Question 39: Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Many people think Puerto Rican food is spicy.

B. Puerto Rican cuisine uses a lot of chili peppers.

C. Sofrito is an extremely spicy type of food.

D. Ají caballero is a type of chili pepper.

Question 40: How is sofrito used?

A. It is eaten before meals.

B. It is added to other dishes.

C. It is used when foods are too spicy.

D. It is eaten as a main dish.

Question 41: Look at the four numbers (1), (2), (3), and (4) in paragraph 2 that indicate where this sentence can be added to the passage. Where would the sentence fit best? The Spanish extended food choices by bringing cattle, pigs, 15 goats, and sheep to the island.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Question 42: The word "cuisine" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________

A. kind of cake

B. kind of food

C. style of cooking

D. way of living

Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each for the question Where one stage of child development has been left out, or not sufficiently experienced, the child may have to go back and capture the experience of it. A good home makes this possible for example, by providing the opportunity for the child to play with a clockwork car or toy railway train up to any age if he still needs to do so. This principle, in fact, underlies all psychological treatment of children in difficulties with their development, and is the basic of work in child clinics.

The beginnings of discipline are in the nursery. Even the youngest baby is taught by gradual stages to wait for food, to sleep and wake at regular intervals and so on. If the child feels the world around him is a warm and friendly one, he slowly accepts its rhythm and accustoms himself to conforming to its demands. Learning to wait for things, particularly for food, is a very important element in upbringing, and is achieved successfully only if too great demands are not made before the child can understand them. Every parent watches eagerly the child's acquisition of each new skill: the first spoken words, the first independent steps, or the beginning of reading and writing. It is often tempting to hurry the child beyond his natural learning rate, but this can set up dangerous feelings of failure and states of anxiety in the child. This might happen at any stage. A baby might be forced to use a toilet too early, a young child might be encouraged to learn to read before he knows the meaning of the words he reads. On the other hand, though, if a child is left alone too much, or without any learning opportunities, he loses his natural zest for life and his desire to find out new things for himself.

Learning together is a fruitful source of relationship between children and parents. By playing together, parents learn more about their children and children learn more from their parents.

Toys and games which both parents and children can share are an important means of achieving this co-operation. Building-block toys, jigsaw puzzles and crosswords are good examples.

Parents vary greatly in their degree of strictness or indulgence towards their children. Some may be especially strict in money matters; others are severe over times of coming home at night, punctuality for meals or personal cleanliness. In general, the controls imposed represent the needs of the parents and the values of the community as much as the child's own happiness and well-being.

With regard to the development of moral standards in the growing child, consistency is very important in parental teaching. To forbid a thing one day and excuse it the next is no foundation for morality. Also, parents should realize that "Example is better than precept". If they are

hypocritical and do not practice what they preach, their children may grow confused and emotionally insecure when they grow old enough to think for themselves, and realize they have been, to some extent, deceived. A sudden awareness of a marked difference between their parents' ethics and their morals can be a dangerous disillusion.

Question 43: The principle underlying all treatment of developmental difficulties in children _________ A. is in the provision of clockwork toys and trains B. is to send them to clinics C. is to capture them before they are sufficiently experienced D. offers recapture of earlier experiences Question 44: Learning to wait for things is successfully taught_________ A. in spite of excessive demands being made B. only if excessive demands are avoided C. because excessive demands are not advisable D. is achieved successfully by all children Question 45: The encouragement of children to achieve new skills_________ A. should be focused on only at school

B. can never be taken too far

C. will always assist their development

D. should be balanced and moderate

Question 46: Parental controls and discipline _________ A. serve a dual purpose B. are designed to promote the child's happiness C. reflect only the values of the community D. should be avoided as far as possible Question 47: The practice of the rule "Example is better than precept" _________ A. only works when the children grow old enough to think for themselves B. would help avoid the necessity for ethics and morals C. will free a child from disillusion when he grows up D. is too difficult for all parents to exercise Question 48: In the 1st paragraph, the author lays some emphasis on the role of the_________in helping the child in trouble.

A. psychiatrists

B. community

C. family

D. nursery

Question 49: The phrase 'conforming to' in the 2nd paragraph means _________ A. adapting to

B. accepting

C. agreeing with

Question 50: Hypocrisy on the part of the parents may _________

D. following

A. result in their children's wrong behaviour

B. make their children lose faith in them

C. disqualify their teachings altogether

D. impair their children's mind Ä?ĂĄp ĂĄn

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

C B A A C A C A B C

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

A D D C A A A B A A

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B A B A B A A D A B

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

C A D B B A B B C B

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

C C D B D A C C A B

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 17 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. decent

B. recent

C. celebrate

D. even

Question 2:

A. begged

B. canned

C. booked

D. buttoned

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. possible

B. excellent

C. industrial

D. attitude

Question 4:

A. prohibit

B. discover

C. determine

D. interrupt

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Trung wishes that he can have a chance to visit Singapore.

A. that

B. can

C. a chance

D. visit

Question 6: The manager told me you could give me an information about the new toys you will be selling in the new year.

A. The manager

B. an information

C. new toys

D. in the new year

Question 7: Chocolate is prepared by a complexity process of cleaning, blending, and roasting cocoa beans, which must be ground and mixed with sugar.

A. a complexity

B. blending

C. which

D. mixed with

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: It is imperative _______ towards a solution to global warming before the climate patterns of the world are disrupted irreparably.

A. that the world worked

B. that the world work

C. the world to work

D. the word would work

Question 9: I’d rather you _______ to the English-speaking club with me this Sunday.

A. will come

B. came

C. come

D. to come

Question 10: I _______ to have to inform you that your ticket is not valid.

A. regret

B. sorry

C. apologize

D. resent

Question 11: _______ few species that live on the ground, most monkeys live in trees.

A. There are

B. A

C. All but

D. Except for

Question 12: The effects of the anesthetic _______ after a couple of hours.

A. wiped out

B. finished off

C. dried up

D. wore off

Question 13: These girls are heading for a _______ They get to work late and spend hours talking on the phone.

A. drop

B. fall

C. trip

D. decrease

Question 14: I think everyone should be _______ with the way office machinery works.

A. conversant

B. mindful

C. answerable

D. attuned

Question 15: We can’t possibly make any _______ for her, however sweetly she asks.

A. allowances

B. license

C. permissions

D. liberties

Question 16: It’s time you _______ up your mind about what you are going to do with your life.

A. have made

B. made

C. make

D. had made

Question 17: He was the greatest _______ of the time.

A. science

B. scientist

C. scientific

D. scientifically

Question 18: It seems that the world record for this event is almost impossible to _______ A. take

B. achieve

C. break

D. get

Question 19: It is difficult to assess grass _______ opinion on the subject of the President ‘s actions.

A. leaves

B. cutting

C. stems

D. roots

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Henry : “ do you think they will lose ? ” Kathy : “Oh ! _______.”

A. It’s hopeless

B. I don’t hope so

C. I don’t hope

D. I hope not

Question 21: –“If only I hadn’t lent him all my money!” –“_______” A. Well, it’s no use crying over spilt milk.

B. All right. You’ll be OK soon.

C. Sorry, I can’t help.

D. I’m afraid. That’s what you did.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 22: As children we were very close, but as we grew up we just drifted apart.

A. Not as friendly as before

B. Not as serious as before

C. Not as sympathetic as before

D. Not as childlike as before

Question 23: The newly-weds agreed to be very frugal in their shopping because they wanted to save enough money to buy a house.

A. interested

B. economical

C. wasteful

D. careless

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 24: As a newspaper reporter she always wanted to get information at first hand.

A. indirectly

B. directly

C. easily

D. slowly

Question 25: Swallows are among the most agile passerine birds.

A. idle

B. swift

C. fragile

D. slow

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.

Question 26: As I didn’t want to disappoint my parents, I agreed to go to medical school.

A. Not wanting to let down my parents, I agreed to go to medical school.

B. To my disappointment, my parents made me go to medical school.

C. My parents are no longer disappointed in me now that I have agreed to go to medical school.

D. If I didn’t agree to go to medical school, my parents would be disappointed.

Question 27: Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.

A. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.

B. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.

C. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.

D. We chose to find a place for the night once the bad weather had really begun.

Question 28: She forgot about the money until she got home.

A. Not until she got home was the money forgotten.

B. Not until she got home did she forget about the money.

C. Not until she got home did she remember about the money.

D. Not until she forgot about the money did she get home.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the following pairs of sentences in each of the questions.

Question 29: Most scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard of him.

A. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public.

B. Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name.

C. Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public.

D. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.

Question 30: We stayed out all night. We wanted to watch a meteor storm.

A. We stayed out all night in order to watching a meteor storm.

B. We stayed out all night because we had been able to watch a meteor storm.

C. We stayed out all night in order for watching a meteor storm.

D. We stayed out all night so that we could watch a meteor storm.

Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space.

LIVING A HEALTHIER LIFE Keeping fit and healthy may seem difficult, but there are a few easy-to-follow guidelines. Firstly, a balanced diet is absolutely essential. This (31)_______selecting food that is low in salt and sugar. Experts recommend reducing the amount of fat in your diet, as too much can lead to heart problems. They also suggest increasing the (32)_______of high fiber food we eat. This comes in the form of fresh fruit, vegetables, whole meal bread and pasta. As well as being packed with vitamins and minerals, they are delicious too. Secondly, it’s important to fit exercise into your daily (33)_______This can be done by simply walking as much as possible and climbing stairs instead of taking the lift. Exercise is necessary to maintain a healthy body, as well as increasing energy levels and (34)_______you feel generally fitter and happier. Finally, staying relaxed is important for good health. Too much stress can lead to a variety of illnesses, from headaches to high blood pressure. (35)_______possible, do things you enjoy and treat yourself occasionally.

So the message is simple- enjoy yourself but learn to respect your body too. It’s all a question of getting the balance right.

Question 31:

A. contains

B. means

C. points

D. suggests

Question 32:

A. amount

B. bulk

C. number

D. mass

Question 33:

A. time

B. custom

C. routine

D. practice

Question 34:

A. providing

B. doing

C. making

D. assisting

Question 35:

A. Whenever

B. Whichever

C. However

D. How

Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each for the question from 36 to 42.

Sir Anthony Van Dyck, one of the world’s greatest masters of portraiture, was born in Antwerp and was the seventh of twelve children. His affluent father apprenticed him to a painter when he was just a little over ten. Having become a member of the Antwerp Guild of painters before he was nineteen, he worked in the studio of Peter Paul Rubens for several years. In Italy, Van Dyck studied the great Venetian masters and painted flattering portraits of gorgeous ladies and haughty nobles in gilded velvet robes with lace and pearls. While he was sought after by the aristocracy for his acclaimed loose brushwork, his engravings and etchings also evinced his outstanding talent. Upon his return to Antwerp in 1628, he was influenced by Rubens’s interpretation of the artistic form and produced numerous religious paintings while holding an appointment as the court painter. During his tenure, he proved that his use of color, his sensitive elegance, and his remarkable insight were unexcelled.

His fame preceded him to England, where he was invited by King Charles I. After years of faithful service, he was knighted in recognition of his achievements in painting countless portraits of the king, the queen, the royal children, and the titled nobility of England.

However, Van Dyck’s greatest piece is one of his religious works, a true masterpiece displayed in the Antwerp gallery. This group scene exhibits his artful polish in painting the folds of fabric, the delicacy of human skin, landscape, and other externals, and puts him above other accomplished contemporary masters. Although Charles paid Van Dyck a salary and granted him a pension, the painter’s extravagant life-style and penchant for luxuries led him into debt, and he died without means.

Question 36: It can be inferred from the passage that Van Dyck was raised A. in a large and wealthy family

B. in a stable and loving household

C. by his father alone

D. without good work habits

Question 37: The author of the passage implies that Van Dyck A. had produced great paintings before he turned nineteen B. had a great artistic talent even when he was young C. joined other painters when he had little to occupy him D. worked very hard in his youth to make a living Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that after Van Dyck left Rubens A. he accrued considerable wealth

B. he became a militant aristocrat

C. he refined his artistic tastes and skills

D. he incorporated southern styles in his art

Question 39: The author of the passage implies that Van Dyck’s fame had largely to do with his A. artful portraits

B. wealthy family

C. elegance in clothing D. religious beliefs

Question 40: The word “acclaimed” is closest in meaning to A. reclaimed

B. recognized

C. recommended

D. rectified

Question 41: How did Charles I honor Van Dyck?

A. Van Dyck painted members of the royal court.

B. Van Dyck received a noble title.

C. Van Dyck was allowed to travel widely.

D. Van Dyck displayed his work in the royal palace.

Question 42: What are the reasons given for Van Dyck’s financial decline?

A. His employer’s lack of generosity

B. His ill health and lack of revenue.

C. His lavish spending

D. His miserly attitudes

Read the following passage and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each for the question from 43 to 50.

ACID DUST “ Calcite- containing dust particles blow into the air and combine with nitric acid in polluted air from factories to form an entirely new particle – calcium nitrate , ” said Alexander Laskin, a senior research scientist at the Department of Energy’s Pacific Northwest National Laboratory in Richland, Washington .These nitrates have optical and chemical properties that are completely different from those of the originally dry dust particles . Due to this, climate models need to be updated to reflect this chemistry. Calcite dust is common in arid areas such as Israel, where scientists collected particles for analysis.

Working from a mountaintop, the team collected dust that had blown in from the northern shores of Egypt, Sinai,and southern Israel. The particles had combined with air containing pollutants that came from Cairo.They analyzed nearly 2,00 individual particles and observed the physical and chemical changes at the W.R Wiley Environmental Sciences Laboratory.

A key change in the properties of the newly formed nitrate particles is that they begin to absorb water and retain the moisture .These wet particles can scatter and absorb sunlightpresenting climate modelers, who need to know where the energy is going , a new wild card to deal with . Companion studies of dust samples from the Sahara and the Saudi coast and loess from China show that the higher the calcium in the mineral , the more reactive they are in with nitric acid .And once the particle is changed , it stays that way.

“When dust storms kick up these particles and they enter polluted areas , the particles change ,” Laskin said . “To what extent this is happening globally, as more of the world becomes industrialized , we don’t know . But now we have the laboratory and field evidence that shows it is definitely happening . The story is much more complicated than anybody thought .”

Question 43: What is the main idea of the passage ?

A. There is a new particle called calcium nitrate B. Factories are polluting the environment C. Climate models have to be updated because of the new particle calcium nitrate.

D. Calcium nitrate has chemical properties different from other dust particles.

Question 44: Why do climate models need to be updated to reflect the chemistry of calcium nitrate ?

A. The new particles can absorb water and retain moisture.

B. The new particles can scatter and absorb sunlight.

C. To stop acid dust.

D. Both A and B. Question 45: Do the particles react with nitric acid ?

A. No , but they continue to absorb the sun’s energy.

B. No , and the particles do not change.

C. Yes, but the changes are temporary.

D. Yes, and the changes are permanent .

Question 46: Which of the following may be true ?

A. The change of an ice age is increased.

B. We may see more rainbows.

C. The greenhouse effects are increased

D. Calcite dust is common in arid areas.

Question 47: Why does the passage begin with a description of the properties of calcium nitrate?

A. To give background information so the reader can understand the topic better.

B. Because calcium nitrate is the main idea.

C. They show how elements combine to create calcium nitrate .

D. To prove the existence of calcium nitrate Question 48: The word “those ” in paragraph 1 refers to _____.

A. Nitrates

B. Properties

C. Particles

D. Models

Question 49: It can be inferred that the word “retain ” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.

A. hold

B. lose

C. increase

D. need

Question 50: In the third paragraph , what does the term “ wild card ” mean ?

A. An unknown card in a card game.

B. An unknown item in the scientists’ calculations C. A large amount of acid dust.

D. A,B and C are incorrect . Đáp án 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

C C C D B B A B B A

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

D D B A A B B C D D

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

A A B A D A D C C D

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

B A C C A A B C A B

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

B C C D D D A B A B

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 18 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. teenager

B. genius

C. cacti

D. technique

Question 2:

A. assume

B. bullet

C. dubious

D. huge

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. commentary

B. voluntary

C. compensate

D. preparatory

Question 4:

A. realize

B. reside

C. argue

D. access

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: The destructive force of running water depends entirely almost on the velocity of its flow.

A. destructive force

B. running

C. entirely almost

D. of its flow

Question 6: It was suggested that he thought twice before giving up the previous job.

A. thought

B. before

C. giving up

D. previous

Question 7: Asparagus grows well in soil that is too much salty for most crops to grow.

A. grows well

B. in

C. too much

D. most crops

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: _________, often of a religious character, were developed from fundamental African forms.

A. Ancient dancing of Egyptians

B. Ancient Egyptian dancing

C. Ancient Egyptian dance

D. Ancient Egyptian dances

Question 9: It suddenly dawned _________ me where I had seen her before.

A. in

B. over

C. to

D. on

Question 10: Her excellent _________ in the exams helped her find a job.

A. notes

B. reports

C. marks

D. degrees

Question 11: _________ stay the night if it’s too difficult to get home.

A. At all costs

B. By all means

C. In all

D. On the whole

Question 12: She _________ a bad cold just before Christmas.

A. went down with

B. got up with

C. went through with D. got down with

Question 13: What _________ milk shake do you want strawberry, chocolate or orange”

A. taste

B. kind

C. flavor

D. sort

Question 14: He was wearing a heavy overcoat to_________ himself against the cold.

A. conceal

B. cover

C. protect

D. shelter

Question 15: Tony was clearly nervous; he was sitting right on the_________ of his chair.

A. outside

B. edge

C. tip

D. border

Question 16: These buses are _________ to run every 15 minutes, but I’ve been waiting here for 25 minutes already.

A. assumed

B. promised

C. presumed

D. supposed

Question 17: It was ten years ago _________ I last saw her.

A. when

B. that

C. since

D. when that

Question 18: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different as_________ A. cats and dogs

B. chalk and cheese

C. salt and pepper

D. here and there

Question 19: I think I’ll_________ a chance and leave my flight booking till the last minute. I may get a cheaper ticket.

A. take

B. make

C. do

D. bring

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: - “ Would you mind if I borrowed your dictionary?” – “_________” A. I’m sorry

B. Not at all

C. Yes, I would

D. Yes, ok

Question 21: - “ I’ve never seen eyeglass frames like that. Where did you find them?” ____________ A. There’s a new optical store at the mall.

B. While I was on vacation.

C. It’s so nice that you noticed. I bought them at the mall.

D. Thanks. I got it at the mall.

Choose the word which has CLOSEST meaning to the underlined word Question 22: He insisted on listening to the entire story.

A. part

B. funny

C. whole

D. interesting

Question 23: Tryouts for community orchestras are frequently judged by committees.

A. Advertisements

B. Performances

C. Auditions

D. Novelties

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.

Question 24: You should put yourself on the back for having achieved such a high score in the graduation exam.

A. criticize yourself

B. wear a backpack

C. praise yourself

D. check up your back

Question 25: Alaska boasts of several climates due to its lofty mountains, warm ocean currents, and frozen seas.

A. towering

B. rocky

C. ageless

D. low

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: They didn’t discover that the picture had been stolen until they came back home.

A. Until they came back home that they discovered that the picture had been stolen.

B. It is not until they came back home that they discovered that the picture had been stolen.

C. Not until they came back home had the picture been stolen.

D. Only after they came back home did they discover that the picture had been stolen.

Question 27: “Why don’t you participate in the volunteer work in summer?" said Sophie.

A. Sophie suggested me to participate in the volunteer work in summer.

B. Sophie asked me why not participate in the volunteer work in summer.

C. Sophie suggested my participating in the volunteer work in summer.

D. Sophie made me participate in the volunteer work in summer.

Question 28: The manager contributes generously, so I can continue my plan.

A. Had it not been for the manager’s generous contribution, I couldn’t continue my plan.

B. The manager’s generous contribution gets my plan continue.

C. But for the manager’s generous contribution, I couldn’t continue my plan.

D. Should the manager contribute generously, I could continue my plan.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combine this pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: “I spoke slowly. The foreigner could understand me.”

A. I spoke slowly so that the foreigner could understand me.

B. I spoke slowly in order to the foreigner could understand me.

C. I spoke slowly that the foreigner could understand me.

D. I spoke slowly to make the foreigner could understand me.

Question 30: I had never seen her before. However, I recognized her from a photograph.

A. Although I had never seen her before, I recognized her from a photograph.

B. I recognized her from a photograph before I had never seen her.

C. Although I had never seen her before but I recognized her from a photograph.

D. After I had seen her, I recognized her from a photograph.

Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.

Choosing clothes can be difficult. Some people want to be fashionable, but they don’t want to look exactly like everybody else. Not all clothes are (31)_________ for work or school, perhaps because they are not formal enough, or simply not comfortable. It is easy to buy the (32)_________ size, and find that your trousers are too tight, especially if you are a little bit overweight. Very (33)_________ clothes make you feel slim, but when they have shrunk in the washing machine, then you have the same problem! If you buy light cotton clothes, then they might not be (34)_________ enough for winter. If your shoes are not waterproof and if you aren’t (35)_________ for the cold, you might look good, but feel terrible!

Question 31:

A. fitted

B. suitable

C. comfort

D. equal

Question 32:

A. false

B. mistake

C. wrong

D. error

Question 33:

A. loose

B. lose

C. loosened

D. lost

Question 34:

A. warm

B. cold

C. hot

D. cool

Question 35:

A. worn

B. clothed

C. dressed

D. fitted

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each question.

What geologists call the Basin and Range Province in the United States roughly coincides in its northern portions with the geographic province known as the Great Basin. The Great Basin is hemmed in west by the Sierra Nevada and on the east Line by the Rocky Mountains; it has no outlet to the sea. The prevailing winds in the Great Basin are from the west. Warm, moist air from the Pacific Ocean is forced upward as it crosses the Sierra Nevada. At the higher altitudes it cools and the moisture it carries is precipitated as rain or snow on the western slopes of the mountains. That which reaches the Basin is air wrung dry of moisture. What little water falls there as rain or snow, mostly in the winter months, evaporates on the broad, flat desert floors. It is, therefore, an environment in which organisms battle for survival. Along the rare watercourses, cottonwoods and willows eke out a sparse existence. In the upland ranges, pinion pines and junipers struggle to hold their own.

But the Great Basin has not always been so arid. Many of its dry, closed depressions were once filled with water. Owens Valley, Panamint Valley, and Death Valley were once a string of interconnected lakes .The two largest of the ancient lakes of the Great Basin were Lake Lahontan and Lake Bonneville. The Great Salt Lake is all that remains of the latter, and Pyramid Lake is one of the last briny remnants of the former. There seem to have been several periods within the last tens of thousands of years when water accumulated in these basins. The rise and fall of the

lakes were undoubtedly linked to the advances and retreats of the great ice sheets that covered much of the northern part of the North American continent during those times. Climatic changes during the Ice Ages sometimes brought cooler, wetter weather to mid latitude deserts worldwide, including those of the Great Basin. The broken valleys of the Great Basin provided ready receptacles for this moisture.

Question 36: What is the geographical relationship between the Basin and Range Province and the Great Basin?

A. The Great Basin is west of the Basin and Range Province.

B. The Great Basin is larger than the Basin and Range Province C. The Great Basin is in the northern part of the Basin and Range Province.

D. The Great Basin is mountainous; the Basin and Range Province is flat desert.

Question 37: According to the passage, what does the Great Basin lack?

A. Snow

B. Dry air

C. Winds from the west

D. Access to the ocean

Question 38: The word "prevailing" is closest in meaning to A. most frequent

B. occasional

C. gentle

D. most dangerous

C. west

D. the Great Basin

Question 39: The word "it" refers to A. Pacific Ocean

B. air

Question 40: Why does the author mention cottonwoods and willows?

A. To demonstrate that certain trees require a little of water B. To give examples of trees that are able to survive in a difficult environment C. To show the beauty of the landscape of the Great Basin D. To assert that there are more living organisms in the Great Basin than there used to be Question 41: The words "the former" refer to A. Lake Bonneville

B. Lake Lahontan

C. the Great Salt Lake D. Pyramid Lake

Question 42: According to the passage, the Ice Ages often brought about A. desert formation

B. warmer climates

C. broken valleys

D. wetter weather

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each question.

Coincident with concerns about the accelerating loss of species and habitats has been a growing appreciation of the importance of biological diversity, the number of species in a particular ecosystem, to the health of the Earth and human well-being. Much has been written about the diversity of terrestrial organisms, particularly the exceptionally rich life associated with

tropical rain-forest habitats. Relatively little has been said, however, about diversity of life in the sea even though coral reef systems are comparable to rain forests in terms of richness of life.

An alien exploring Earth would probably give priority to the planet's dominant, mostdistinctive feature ― the ocean. Humans have a bias toward land that sometimes gets in the way of truly examining global issues. Seen from far away, it is easy to realize that landmasses occupy only one-third of the Earth's surface. Given that two- thirds of the Earth's surface is water and that marine life lives at all levels of the ocean, the total three-dimensional living space of the ocean is perhaps 100 times greater than that of land and contains more than 90 percent of all life on Earth even though the ocean has fewer distinct species.

The fact that half of the known species are thought to inhabit the world's rain forests does not seem uprising, considering the huge numbers of insects that comprise the bulk of the species.

One scientist found many different species of ants in just one tree from a rain forest. While every species is different from every other species, their genetic makeup constrains them to be insects and to share similar characteristics with 750,000 species of insects. If basic, broad categories such as phyla and classes are given more emphasis than differentiating between species, then the greatest diversity of life is unquestionably the sea. Nearly every major type of plant and animal has some representation there.

To appreciate fully the diversity and abundance of life in the sea, it helps to think small.

Every spoonful of ocean water contains life, on the order of 100 to 100,000 bacterial cells plus assorted microscopic plants and animals, including larvae of organisms ranging from sponges and corals to starfish and clams and much more.

Question 43: Why does the author compare rain forests and coral reefs in the first paragraph?

A. They are approximately the same size.

B. They share many similar species.

C. Most of their inhabitants require water.

D. Both have many different forms of life.

Question 44: The word "bias" is closest in meaning to A. concern

B. disadvantage

C. attitude

D. prejudice

Question 45: The passage suggests that most rain forest species are A. insects

B. bacteria

C. mammals

D. birds

C. a tree

D. the Earth's surface

Question 46: The word "there" refers to A. the sea

B. the rain forests

Question 47: The author argues that there is more diversity of life in the sea than in the rain forests because A. more phyla and classes of life are represented in the sea B. there are too many insects to make meaningful distinctions

C. many insect species are too small to divide into categories D. marine life-forms reproduce at a faster rate Question 48: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an example of microscopic sea life?

A. Sponges

B. Coral

C. Starfish

D. Shrimp

Question 49: Which of the following conclusions is supported by the passage?

A. Ocean life is highly adaptive.

B. More attention needs to be paid to preserving ocean species and habitats.

C. Ocean life is primarily composed of plants.

D. The sea is highly resistant to the damage done by pollutants.

Question 50: The word "dominant" is closest in meaning to A. imperious

B. chief

C. impotent

D. strange

ฤ รกp รกn 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

C B D B C A C D D C

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

B A C C B D B B A B

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

C C C A D D C C A A

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

B C A A C C D A B B

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

B D D D A A A D B B

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 19 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Question 1:

A. invited

B. attended

C. celebrated

D. displayed

Question 2:

A. war

B. water

C. warm

D. bank

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. forest

B. argue

C. unless

D. index

Question 4:

A. deposit

B. aquatic

C. abolish

D. souvenir

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: A beaver uses its strong front teeth to cut down trees and peel off its bark.

A. its

B. front teeth

C. peel off

D. its

Question 6: The clerks who are happy to wait for their customers will get promoted soon.

A. clerks

B. wait for

C. customers

D. get promoted

Question 7: Although lacking in calcium and vitamin A, grains have most carbohydrates than any other food.

A. Although

B. in

C. grains

D. most

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: These shoes won’t __________your trousers.

A. suit

B. fit

C. match

D. consistent

Question 9: I can’t wear this coat to work because there are two buttons __________ A. missing

B. loosing

C. falling

D. tearing

Question 10: The movie is__________Shakespeare’s Hamlet in a number of ways.

A. like to

B. alike with

C. similar to

D. same as

Question 11: I__________all members by tomorrow night.

A. will contact

B. will have contacted with

C. will contact with

D. will have contacted Question 12: The Internet has enabled people to __________with each other more quickly.

A. interact

B. interlink

C. intervene

D. interconnect

Question 13: Houses in big cities are expensive because land is in__________supply.

A. brief

B. slight

C. little

D. short

Question 14: Solar heat penetrates more deeply into water than__________ A. it is penetration into the soil

B. it does into soil

C. does it into soil

D. that it does into soil

Question 15: She’s got 100 percent on the exam and the other students were below 70 percent.

She’s__________above the rest.

A. head and neck

B. shoulders and arms C. head and shoulders D. neck and ears

Question 16: __________orangutans live alone.

A. Near all

B. Almost all

C. The all

D. The most

Question 17: The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil fuel will have__________by 2015.

A. used over

B. used off

C. run out

D. run out of

Question 18: The poor child was in __________because his bike had been stolen.

A. floods of crying

B. floods of tears

C. mood of weeping

D. mood of tears

Question 19: As soon as she __________home, she took off her shoes and __________her slippers.

A. had arrived/ put in

B. arrived/ put over

C. arrived/ put on

D. had arrived/ put over

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Mr Black: “ I’d like to try on these shoes, please.” Salesgirl: “__________” A. That’s right, sir.

B. Why not?

C. Me too.

D. By all means, sir.

Question 21: Susan: “I had a really good weekend at my uncle’s.” Peter: “__________” A. Oh, that’s very nice of you.

B. Congratulations.

C. It’s pleasure.

D. Oh, I’m glad to hear that.

Choose the word which has CLOSEST meaning to the underlined word Question 22: Drivers who break traffic rules will be photographed.

A. destroy

B. hit

C. violate

D. assault

Question 23: The students came up with some novel ideas for fund-raising.

A. unique

B. bookish

C. educational

D. radical

Choose the word which has OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined word Question 24: A tangerine, which is flatter than an orange, peels and separates more readily.

A. daintly

B. tastefully

C. easily

D. difficultly

Question 25: Catherine made a negligible effort to extend the freedoms of most Russians.

A. marginal

B. ignorant

C. significant

D. accidental

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: You are obliged to stop when the lights turn red.

A. You must stop when the lights turn red.

B. You have to stop when the lights turn red.

C. You should stop when the lights turn red.

D. You are allowed to stop when the lights turn red.

Question 27: If he had known the road was icy, he wouldn’t have been driving very fast.

A. He was driving very fast because he didn’t know the road was icy.

B. He has been driving very fast because he doesn’t know the road was icy.

C. If only he knew the road was icy, he wouldn’t be driving very fast.

D. He had been driving very fast because he didn’t know the road was icy.

Question 28: In the end, I felt I had been right to leave the club.

A. I had no regrets about leaving the club in the end.

B. I regretted to leave the club in the end.

C. It’s a pity that I had left the club in the end.

D. I don’t regret to leave the club in the end.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the following pairs of sentences in each of the questions.

Question 29: She doesn’t have a car. She doesn’t go out in the evening.

A. If she had a car, she would go out in the evening.

B. If she had a car, she will go out in the evening.

C. If she has a car, she would go out in the evening.

D. If she had had a car, she would go out in the evening.

Question 30: What was the name of the man? You met and talked to him this morning.

A. What was the name of the man who you met and talked to him this morning?

B. What was the name of the man you met and talked to this morning?

C. What was the name of the man you met and talked to whom this morning?

D. What was the name of the man whose you met and talked to this morning?

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.

The future of the African elephant depends on man. No (31)_________ can human beings and wild animals live in harmony throughout vast area of the continent as was possible in days gone by, for man’s needs have increased as well as his numbers. There are regions, such as the Congo forests and the equatorial Sudan, (32)_________ the old relationship may remain for a few more years or even generations, but in general it has gone. Conservation, if it is to be effective, should

be a positive, constructive policy, and it is wishful thinking to imagine otherwise, (33)_________ in the case of the elephant. And this is not yet true of the whole of Africa, it soon will be, for the increase in the human population is almost universal. Where human beings and wild animals find themselves in competition with each other, the animals will (34)_________ Even if there appears to be enough room for both, man will not tolerate long a situation in which elephants and other (35)_________ make even occasional raids on his fields of food or economic crops. For many years this has been a major cause of conflicting interests and one of the reasons why so many elephants have been shot to control their numbers.

Question 31:

A. more

B. condition

C. circumstance

D. longer

Question 32:

A. where

B. when

C. how

D. why

Question 33:

A. certainly

B. particularly

C. only

D. entirely

Question 34:

A. win

B. lose

C. disappear

D. fight

Question 35:

A. people

B. plants

C. descendants

D. creatures

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each question.

Fifty-five delegates representing all thirteen states except Rhode Island attended the Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia from May to September 1787. The delegates had been instructed by the Continental Congress to revise the old Articles of Confederation, but most believed that a stronger central government was needed. There were differences, however, about what structure the government should take and how much influence large states should have.

Virginia was by far the most populous state, with twice as many as people as New York, four times as many as New Jersey, and ten times as many as Delaware. The leader of the Virginia delegation, James Madison, had already drawn up a plan for government, which became known as the Large State Plan. Its essence was that congressional representation would be based on population. It provided for two or more national executives. The smaller states feared that under this plan, a few large states would lord over the rest. New Jersey countered with the Small State Plan. It provided for equal representation for all states in a national legislature and for a single national executive. Angry debate, heightened by a stifling heat wave, led to deadlock.

A cooling of tempers seemed to come with lower temperatures. The delegates hammered out an agreement known as the Great Compromise- actually a bundle of shrewd compromises.

They decided that Congress would consist of two houses. The larger states were granted representation based on population in the lower house, the House of Representatives. The smaller states were given equal representation in the upper house, the Senate, in which each state would have two senators regardless of population. It was also agreed that there would be a single

executive, the president. This critical compromise broke the logjam, and from then on, success seemed within reach.

Question 36: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. James Madison’s plan to create a stable structure for the government of the United States B. A disagreement at the Constitutional Convention and a subsequent compromise C. The differences in population and relative power between the original states D. The most important points of the Small State Plan Question 37: According to the passage, how many states were represented at the Constitutional Convention?

A. 12

B. 13

C. 14

D. 15

Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that the Articles of Confederation A. were supported by a majority of the delegates at the Convention B. were revised and presented as the Large State Plan C. allowed small states to dominate large ones D. provided for only a weak central government Question 39: According to the passage, in 1787 which of the following states had FEWEST people?

A. Virginia

B. Delaware

C. New York

D. New Jersey

Question 40: The phrase “this plan” refers to A. the Small State Plan

B. a plan suggested by the national legislature

C. the Large State Plan

D. a compromise plan

Question 41: The word “shrewd” is closest in meaning to A. practical

B. unfair

C. important

D. clever

Question 42: Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as one of the provisions of the Great Compromise?

A. There would be only one national executive.

B. The President would be elected by popular vote.

C. Each state would have two senators.

D. Congress would be divided into two bodies.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each question.

The biologist's role in society as well as his moral and ethical responsibility in the discovery and development of new ideas has led to a reassessment of his social and scientific value systems. A scientist can no longer ignore the consequences of his discoveries; he is as

concerned with the possible misuses of his findings as he is with the basic research in which he is involved. This emerging social and political role of the biologist and all other scientists requires a weighing of values that cannot be done with the accuracy or the objectivity of a laboratory balance. As a member of society, it is necessary for a biologist now to redefine his social obligations and his functions, particularly in the realm of making judgments about such ethical problems as man's control of his environment or his manipulation of genes to direct further evolutionary development.

As a result of recent discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms, genetic engineering, by which human traits are made to order, may soon be a reality. As desirable as it may seem to be, such an accomplishment would entail many value judgments. Who would decide, for example, which traits should be selected for change? In cases of genetic deficiencies and disease, the desirability of the change is obvious, but the possibilities for social misuse are so numerous that they may far outweigh the benefits.

Probably the greatest biological problem of the future, as it is of the present, will be to find ways to curb environmental pollution without interfering with man's constant effort to improve the quality of his life. Many scientists believe that underlying the spectra of pollution is the problem of surplus human population. A rise in population necessitates an increase in the operations of modern industry, the waste products of which increase the pollution of air, water, and soil. The question of how many people the resources of the Earth can support is one of critical importance.

Although the solutions to these and many other problems are yet to be found, they do indicate the need for biologists to work with social scientists and other members of society in order to determine the requirements necessary for maintaining a healthy and productive planet.

For although many of man's present and future problems may seem to be essentially social, political, or economic in nature, they have biological ramifications that could affect the very existence of life itself.

Question 43: According to the passage, a modern scientist should be more concerned about__________.

A. the consequences of his discoveries

B. his basic research

C. his manipulation of genes

D. the development of new ideas

Question 44: The pronoun "it" in paragraph 2 refers to__________.

A. genetic engineering B. an accomplishment C. hereditary mechanism Question 45: It is implied in the passage that genetic engineering__________.

A. will change all human traits

B. is no longer desirable

D. a reality

C. is the most desirable for life

D. may do us more harm than good

Question 46: The pronoun "they" in paragraph 2 refers to__________.

A. possibilities for genetic deficiencies B. cases of genetic deficiencies C. discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms D. effects of genetic engineering misuse Question 47: The word "which" in paragraph 3 refers to __________.

A. the waste products dumped into our environment B. serious environmental pollution C. activities of surplus human population D. activities of an overpopulated society's industry Question 48: According to the passage, to save our planet, biologists should work A. with other social scientists

B. accurately and objectively

C. on social and political purposes

D. harder and harder

Question 49: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "ramifications" in paragraph 4?

A. effective techniques

B. latest developments

C. harmful consequences

D. useful experiments

Question 50: What is the author's purpose in this passage?

A. To urge biologists to solve the problem of surplus human population B. To conduct a survey of the biologist's role in society C. To advise biologists to carry out extensive research into genetic engineering D. To emphasize the biologist's role in solving the world's problems ฤ รกp รกn 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

D D C D D B D C A C

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

D A D B C B C B C D

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

D C A D C A A A A B

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

D A B B D B A D B C

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

D B A A D D D A C D

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 20 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others.

Question 1:

A. stretch

B. natural

C. ancient

D. question

Question 2:

A. land

B. stable

C. stab

D. exam

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. justice

B. workforce

C. compete

D. capture

Question 4:

A. hopeful

B. compose

C. eject

D. admire

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: I have never dived in a twenty-metre-deep lake before, so I’m a bit afraid of doing it.

A. in

B. before

C. a bit

D. of doing

Question 6: You have little to boast about, haven’t you?

A. have

B. little

C. about

D. haven't you

Question 7: Not surprisingly, poverty is a problem worth of concern in every country.

A. surprisingly

B. poverty

C. worth

D. every country

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: This story has been passed down by ________of mouth.

A. word

B. phrase

C. memory

D. speaking

Question 9: This is ________less satisfactory than the previous offer.

A. fairly

B. far

C. absolutely

D. distant

Question 10: It ‘s ________knowledge that the Chancellor has not been entirely discreet in his private life.

A. universal

B. general

C. common

D. full

Question 11: The professor wasn’t ________with the current political affairs in his country after his long stay abroad.

A. present

B. familiar

C. knowledgeable

D. actual

Question 12: You will not be successful in business if you don’t ________risks.

A. put

B. get

C. try

Question 13: I personally don’t believe you can ________of his support.

D. take

A. count

B. depend

C. rely

D. be sure

Question 14: You must know how to ________between what is good for you and what is not.

A. differ

B. vary

C. solve

D. distinguish

Question 15: Paul asked Maria to ________him to the dentist’s because he didn’t want to go by himself.

A. unify

B. join

C. interfere

D. accompany

Question 16: People are becoming ________aware of healthy eating, exercise, and relaxation, and want to incorporate them into their daily lives.

A. hardly ever

B. rather than

C. more and more

D. much as

Question 17: As a small boy he was used to ________in the house for an hour or two.

A. being left alone

B. eaving alone

C. leave alone

D. be left alone

Question 18: One of the areas of multimedia that is growing quickly ________is sound.

A. yet is easily overlooked

B. is easily overlooked

C. it is easily overlooked

D. that is easily overlooked

Question 19: She’s so depressed. All these problem are really ________.

A. getting her down

B. getting round her

C. talking her on

D. toning her down

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: A: Shouldn't we pay before we leave? B: “________________” A. No, I don't like to pray.

B. I'm not sure.

C. No, they'll bill us later.

D. Yes, we should have paid.

Question 21: Bill: "I like your bike, Helen." Helen: “________________” A. Just kidding

B. I wish I could afford it.

C. Thanks, but it isn't new

D. I don't wear it very often

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 22: When she fell ill, her daughter took over the business.

A. took a chance

B. took control of

C. took a loss

D. lost control of

Question 23: Biogas can be utilized for electricity production, cooking, space heating, water heating and process heating.

A. sparing

B. generation

C. increase

D. reformation

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question.

Question 24: In the first two decades of its existence, the cinema developed rapidly.

A. shortly

B. sluggishly

C. leisurely

D. weakly

Question 25: I find it hard to work at home because there are too many distractions.

A. attentions

B. unawareness

C. unconcern

D. carelessness

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following sentences.

Question 26: It’s your duty to finish your homework before you go to school.

A. You were supposed to finish your homework before you go to school.

B. Your homework is supposed to be finished before going to school.

C. That your homework is finished before you go to school is your duty.

D. Your duty finishing your homework before you go to school is necessary.

Question 27: The Prime Minister is unlikely to call an early general election.

A. The likelihood is that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.

B. The likelihood is great that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.

C. It’s likely that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.

D. There is little likelihood of the Prime Minister calling an early general election.

Question 28: What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.

A. The politician fell deaf when he was speaking last night.

B. What the politician was saying deafened the listeners last night.

C. No one took notice of what the politician was saying last night.

D. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night because they had deaf ears.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Joan broke her right leg in the accident last week. Her parents worried a lot.

A. If Joan didn’t broke her leg last week, her parents wouldn’t worry a lot.

B. If Joan doesn’t broke her leg last week, her parents will not worry a lot.

C. Joan’s parents worried because of her broken leg.

D. The fact that Joan broke her leg made her parents worry.

Question 30: The box was too heavy. John could not move it.

A. The box was too heavy that John could not move it.

B. The box was such heavy that John could not move it.

C. The box was so heavy that John could not move it.

D. The box was heavy that John could not move it.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter (A, B, C or D) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.

Many people love boats. Going out on the water on a warm summer day is a lot of (31) _______.

(32) _______ , different people like different kinds of boats. Two of the most popular kinds of boat are sailboats and speedboats. Sailboats use the (33) _______to give them power. They only have small engines. In contrast, speedboats have large engines and go very fast. Furthermore, speedboats are usually not as (34) _______ as sailboats. Speedboats are small so that they can go fast. Sailboats, on the other hand, are big so that they are more comfortable. ( 35) _______, sailboats can travel into the ocean, but this would be very dangerous in a speedboat. You can only use speedboats on rivers or lakes.

Question 31:

A. funny

B. fun

C. funs

D. funnies

Question 32:

A. However

B. Although

C. Because

D. Unless

Question 33:

A. water

B. speed

C. weather

D. wind

Question 34:

A. small

B. fast

C. warm

D. big

Question 35:

A. Unfortunately

B. At first

C. In addition

D. Except for

Read the following passage and circle A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the question from 36 to 42 George Washington Carver showed that plant life was more than just food for animals and humans. Carver’s first step was to analyze plant parts to find out what they were made of. He then combined these simpler isolated substances with other substances to create new products.

The branch of chemistry that studies and finds ways to use raw materials from farm products to make industrial products is called chemurgy. Carver was one of the first and greatest chemurgists of all time. Today the science of chemurgy is better known as the science of synthetics. Each day people depend on and use synthetic materials made from raw materials. All his life Carver battled against the disposal of waste materials and warned of the growing need to develop substitutes for the natural substances being used up by humans.

Carver never cared about getting credit for the new products he created. He never tried to patent his discoveries or get wealthy from them. He turned down many offers to leave Tuskegee Institute to become a rich scientist in private industry. Thomas Edison, inventor of the electric light, offered him a laboratory in Detroit to carry out food research. When the United States government made him a collaborator in the Mycology and Plant Disease Survey of the Department of Agriculture, he accepted the position with the understanding that he wouldn’t have to leave Tuskegee. As an authority on plant diseases – especially of the fungus variety – Carver sent hundreds of specimens to the United States Department of Agriculture. At the peak of his career, Carver’s fame and influence were known on every continent.

Question 36: With what topic is the passage mainly concerned?

A. The work and career of George Washington Carver.

B. The research conducted at Tuskegee Institute C. The progress of the science of synthetics.

D. The use of plants as a source of nutrition

Question 37: The word “step” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced with A. footprint

B. action

C. scale

D. stair

Question 38: According to the passage, chemurgical can be defined as the A. combination of chemistry and metallurgy B. research on chemistry of the soil C. study of the relationship between sunlight and energy D. development of industrial products from farm products Question 39: The phrase “getting credit” in paragraph 3 can be best replaced with A. taking responsibility

B. earning money

C. winning praise

D. advertising

Question 40: Why does the author mention Thomas Edison’s offer to Carver?

A. To illustrate one of Carver’s many opportunities B. To portray the wealth of one of Carver’s competitors C. To contrast Edison’s contribution with that of Carver D. To describe Carver’s dependence on industrial support Question 41: Which of the following is NOT discussed in the passage as work done by Carver?

A. Research on electricity

B. Analysis of plant parts

C. Invention of new products

D. Research on plant diseases

Question 42: One of Carver’s main concerns is most similar to which of the following presentday causes?

A. Preventive medicine

B. Recycling of used materials

C. Preservation of old buildings

D. Prevention of cruelty of animals.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Atomic were once thought to be fundamental pieces of matter, but they are in turn made of smaller subatomic particles. There are three major subatomic particles neutrons, protons, and electronic. Protons and neutrons can be broken into even smaller units, but these smaller units do not occur naturally in nature and are thought to only be produced in manmade particle accelerators and perhaps in extreme stellar events like supernovas. The structure of an atom can best be described as a small solar system, with the neutrons at the center and the electrons circling them in various orbits, just as the planets circle the sun .In reality, the structure of an

atom is far more complex, because the laws of physics are fundamentally different at the atomic level than of the level of the observable word. The true nature of atomic structure can only be expressed accurately through complex mathematical formulas .This explanation, however, is of little use to most average people.

Protons and neutrons have nearly equal mass and size, but protons carry a positive electrical charge, while neutrons carry no charge at all. Protons and neutrons are bound together by the strong nuclear force, one of the four basic forces in the universe. Protons and neutrons give atoms some of their most basic properties. Elements are defined by two numbers; their atomic number , which is equal to the number of protons they have, and their atomic weight , which is equal to total number of their neutrons and protons. In most lighter atoms , the number of neutrons and protons is equal , and the element is stable. In heavier atoms, however, there are more neutrons than protons , and the element is unstable, eventually losing neutrons through radioactive decay until a neutral state is reached.

Electrons are negatively charged particles. They are bound to their atoms through electromagnetic attraction. Opposite electrical charges attract one another, so the positive charge of the proton helps keep the negatively charged electron in orbit around the nucleus of the atom. Electrons are different from neutrons in that they cannot be broken down into smaller particles. They are also far smaller and lighter than neutrons and protons. An electron is about one thousandth of the diameter of a proton and an even smaller fraction of its mass. Electrons circle the protons and neutrons at the center of the atom in orbit. These orbits are often called electron shells. The closer the orbit is to the center of the atom, the lower its energy is. There are seven electron shells, and each higher level can hold more electron than the previous shell.

Electrons naturally seek to occupy the lowest shell possible .So if there is space in a lower shell, an electron will drop down to occupy that space. At temperatures higher than a few hundred degrees, electrons will gain energy and move to a higher shell, but only momentarily. When the electrons drop back down to their natural shell, they emit light .This is why fires and other very hot objects seem to glow.

Electrons are also primarily responsible for many of the chemical properties of atoms.

Since electrons seek to occupy the lowest electron shell possible, they will move from one atom to another if there is a space available in a lower electron shell. For example, if there is an atom with an open space in its third shell, and it comes into contact with an atom with electrons in its fourth shell, the first atom will take one of these electrons to complete its third shell. When this happens, the two atoms will be chemically bonded to form a molecule. Furthermore, atoms sometimes lose electrons in collisions with other atoms. When it happens, the radio of protons

and electrons in the atom changes, and therefore, the overall electrical charge of the atom changes as well. These atoms are called isotopes, and they have significantly different chemical properties from their parent atoms.

Question 43: In paragraph 1, why does the author compare the structure of an atom to a solar system?

A. To provide an explanation of atomic structure that will be easily understood.

B. To show that the complex mathematical formulas used to explain atomic structure are inaccurate.

C. To show the influence of atomic structure on the world at the observable level.

D. To contrast the size of atoms with the size of objects at the observable level.

Question 44: According to paragraph 2, an atom’s atomic number is determined by A. The sum of its protons and electrons.

B. The different in the mass of its neutrons and protons.

C. The strength of the bond between its protons and neutrons D. The total number of protons it has.

Question 45: The word stable in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to A. Neutral

B. Unchanging

C. Heavy

D. Equal

Question 46: According to the information in paragraph 2, what will happen if an atom has more neutrons than protons?

A. It will not have enough of a positive electrical charge to keep its electrons in orbit.

B. Its nucleus will explode in a supernova.

C. It will slowly give off neutrons until the atom becomes stable.

D. Its extra neutrons will be converted into light energy.

Question 47: The phrase one another in paragraph 3 refers to A. Particles

B. Electrical charges

C. Electrons

D. Atoms

Question 48: According to paragraph 3, when does an atom produce light?

A. When it has more electrons than its electron shells can hold B. When an electron drops back to its original electron shell C. When an electron is transferred from one atom to another D. When energy is added to the outermost electron shell Question 49: According to the passage, all of the following are true of electrons EXCEPT A. Their energy levels are fixed and unchanging.

B. They are kept in orbit by electromagnetic attraction C. They are elementary particles and cannot be broken down

D. They are considerably smaller than neutrons or protons Question 50: According to paragraph 4, which property of electrons is responsible for chemical bonding?

A. Their ability to break free of their atom during a collision B. Their electromagnetic attraction to protons C. The fact that they cannot be broken into smaller particles D. Their tendency to occupy the lowest possible electron shell ฤ รกp รกn 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

C B C A D D C A B C

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

B D D D D C A A A C

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

C B B B A C D C D C

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

B A D D C A B D C A

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

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