Bộ đề thi thử THPTQG năm 2018 - Môn Tiếng Anh - 20 ĐỀ + ĐÁP ÁN - GV Hoàng Xuân - Tuyensinh247

ĐỀ SỐ 01 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. serves

B. hopes

C. likes

D. writes

Question 2:

A. substantial

B. initiate

C. particular

D. attention

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the

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other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions Question 3:

A. express

B. effort

C. employ

D. reduce

Question 4:

A. preference

B. attraction

C. advantage

D. infinitive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: The passengers, tired after a very long trip, was relaxing in every available seat in the airport lobby.

A. the

B. very

C. was relaxing

D. available

Question 6: If we had more time last week, we would certainly have finished the project on time.

A. had B. certainly C. the D. on time Question 7: Sleeping, resting, and to drink fruit juice are the best ways to care for a cold.

A. sleeping

B. to drink

C. juice

D. best ways

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: I’d like to see that football match because I________once this year.

A. haven’t seen

B. don’t see

C. weren’t seeing

D. didn’t see

Question 9: They always kept on good________with their next-door neighbors for the children’s sake.

A. will

B. friendship

C. terms

D. relations

Question 10: Some candidates failed the oral examination because they didn’t have enough ________.

A. confide B. confident C. confidential D. confidence Question 11: Our new coach is popular________the whole team.

A. for

B. to

C. by

D. with

Question 12: Don’t go too fast! I can’t________up with you.

A. keep

B. go

C. walk

D. run

Question 13: I have no idea where ________.

A. has she got that information

B. she got that information

C. did she get that information

D. that information has she got

Question 14: That’s ________ story I have ever heard.

A. a ridiculous

B. the ridiculous

C. the more ridiculous

D. the most ridiculous

Question 15: We bought some ________.

A. German lovely old glasses

B. German old lovely glasses

C. lovely old German glasses

D. old lovely German glasses

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Question 16: ________non-verbal language is ________ important aspect of interpersonal communication.

B. ø – an

A. The - a

C. A – the

D. The - ø

Question 17: Their apartment looks nice. In fact, it’s ________.

A. extremely comfortable

B. extreme comfortably

C. extreme comfortable

D. extremely comfortably

Question 18: My teacher is one of the people ________.

A. I look up to them

B. whom look up to

C. I look up to

D. to who I look up to

Question 19: In my company, the director deputy usually________the responsibility for organizing meetings and conferences.

A. makes

B. gets

C. becomes

D. takes

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “Would you mind turning down the TV? I’m working!” “__________________________.”

A. Yes, I’m working, too.

B. Not at all. I’ll do it now.

C. Thank you. I’m pleased.

D. No, I wouldn’t be working.

Question 21: “Please, lock the door carefully before you leave the room.” “__________________________.”

A. I won’t tell you when I do it.

B. I’m thinking of selling the house.

C. That’s for sure.

D. I’m sorry. I did it last night.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s )in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Mr. Gerstein was particularly taken aback to hear that sleeping problems are often linked to physical problems.

A. surprised

B. intended

C. determined

D. relieved

Question 23: I shouldn’t go outside without a raincoat because it’s raining cats and dogs.

A. it’s just started to rain

B. it’s raining very heavily

C. it’s going to rain

D. it’s drizzling

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: I could only propose a partial solution to the crisis in the company.

A. half

B. halfway

C. effective

D. complete

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Question 25: Inadequate supply of oxygen to the blood can cause death within minutes.

A. Sufficient

B. Nonexistent

C. Rich

D. Useful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: You ought to make up your mind now.

A. It is high time you made up your mind.

B. Making up your mind is necessary.

C. It is possible to make up your mind.

D. You should have made up your mind.

Question 27: “No, no, you really must stay a bit longer!” said the boys.

A. The boys denied my staying a bit longer.

B. The boys refused to let me stay a bit longer.

C. The boys didn’t agree to let stay a bit longer.

D. The boys insisted on my staying a bit longer.

Question 28: My uncle didn’t recognize me until I spoke.

A. My uncle recognized me not until I spoke

B. Only when my uncle recognized me did I speak C. Not until I spoke did my uncle recognize me

D. When I spoke, my uncle didn’t recognize me

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: I picked up my book. I found that the cover had been torn A. When picking up my book, the cover had been torn B. On picking up my book, I saw that the cover had been torn C. The cover had been torn when my book picked up D. Picked up, the book was torn

Question 30: Home schooling is apparently very successful. Many people still believe in the benefits of traditional schooling

A. Because home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in the benefits of traditional schooling B. As long as home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in the benefits of traditional schooling C. Even though home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in the benefits of traditional schooling D. In spite of home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in

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the benefits of traditional schooling

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

ENGLISH AROUND THE WORLD

Teaching English as a foreign language can be a great way to travel around the world

and earn money at the same time. However, some graduates actually like the idea of (31)________a career in teaching English, and there are numerous courses at various (32)________, from the basic certificates to the diploma or even the master’s.

To find the right course, a good place to start is TEFL.com – an Internet site with lots

of relevant information and helpful (33)________including a full list of places in the UL offering courses. The site also offers assistance to qualified graduates (34)_______finding work.

When deciding on a course, the best thing to do is to look at what your needs are. If

you want a career in teaching English, then definitely find one designed for that (35)_______, such as an MA or diploma; but if you want to travel around the world, then do a shorter course that will supply you with teaching skills.

Question 31:

A. tracking

B. chasing

C. hunting

D. following

Question 32:

A. levels

B. categories

C. groups

D. classes

Question 33:

A. opinion

B. suggestion

C. advice

D. idea

Question 34:

A. to

B. for

C. at

D. in

Question 35:

A. function

B. use

C. aim

D. purpose

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Most people think that lions only come from Africa. This is understandable because in fact most lions do come from there but this has not always been the case. If we went back ten thousand years. we would find that there were lions roaming vast sections of the globe.

However no, unfortunately only a very small section of the lion’s former habitat remains.

Asiatic lions are sub-species of African lions. It is almost a hundred thousand years since the Asiatic lions split off and developed as a sub-species. At one time the Asiatic lion was living as far west as Greece and they were found from there, but in a band that spreads east through various countries of the Middle East, all the way to India. In museums now, you can see Greek coins that have clear images of the Asiatic lion on them. Most of them are dated at around 500 B.C. However, Europe saw its last Asiatic lions roaming free to thousand years ago. Over the next nineteen hundred years the numbers of Asiatic lions in the other

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areas declined steadily, but it was only in the nineteenth century that they disappeared from everywhere but in India.

The Gir Wildlife Sanctuary in India was established especially to protect the Asiatic

lion. There are now around three hundred Asiatic lions in India and almost all of them are in this sanctuary. However, despite living in a sanctuary, which makes them safe from hunters, they still face a number of problems that threaten their survival. One of these is the everpresent danger of disease. This is what killed more than a third of Africa’s Serengeti lions in 1994, and people are fearful that something similar could happen in the Gir Sanctuary and kill off many of the Asiatic lions there.

India’s lions are particular vulnerable because they have a limited gene pool. The

reason for this is interesting – it is because all of them are descended from a few dozen lions that were saved by a prince who took a particular interest in them. He was very healthy, and he managed to protect them otherwise they would probably have died out completely.

When you see the Asiatic lion in India, what you sense is enormous vitality. They are very impressive animals and you would never guess that they this vulnerability when you look at them.

Question 36: According to the passage, ten thousand years ago,________.

A. lions did not live in small forests B. lions came mainly from Afric

C. lions roamed much more than nowadays

D. there were much more lion habitats than nowadays Question 37: The phrase “split off” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to________.

A. spotted animals

B. divided

C. developed into different species

D. changed the original species

Question 38: The word “vulnerable” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to________.

A. weak

B. careless

C. cautious

D. easily protected

Question 39: The Asiatic lion________.

A. was looking for food mainly in the Middle East B. was searching for food in a wide range of countries C. was searching for food mainly in India and Africa D was looking for food mainly in India.

Question 40: According to the author, the Gir Wildlife Sanctuary________ A. protects the Asiatic lion from hunters and diseases

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B. cannot reduce the Asiatic lion’s risk of catching diseases C. can make the Asiatic lion become weak

D. is among many places where the Asiatic lion is well protected

Question 41: The author refers to all of the following as characteristics of the Asiatic lion EXCEPT that________.

A. strong

B. vulnerable

C. vital

D. impressive

Question 42: The passage is written to________.

A. persuade readers to protect the Asiatic lions

B. explain why the Gir Sanctuary is the best habitat for the Asiatic lions C. describe the developmental history of the Gir Sanctuary

D. provide an overview of the existence of the Asiatic lions

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

If you enjoy water sports, Hawaii is the place for you. You can go swimming all year

round in the warm water. You can go sport fishing from the shore or from a boat. If you like boats, you can go sailing, canoeing, or windsurfing. Or, you can also try some other water sports that are especially popular in Hawaii: surfing, snorkeling and scuba diving.

Surfing is a sport which started in Hawaii many years ago. The Hawaiians called it

“he’e nalu”, which means “to slide on a wave”. If you want to try surfing, you need, first of all, to be a good swimmer. You also have to have an excellent sense of balance. You must swim out from the beach with your surfboard under your arm. When you get to where the waves begin to break, you wait for a calm moment. Then you try to stand up on the board.

The wave will begin to rise under you. You must try to steer the board with your feet so you stay on top of the wave. The important thing is to keep your balance and not fall down. If you can manage this, you will have an exciting ride all the way in to the shore.

Scuba diving and snorkeling are two ways to get a close look at the beauty lying below the surface of the ocean. The waters off the Hawaiian Islands are clean, clear and

warm. They contain hundreds of kinds of colorful fish. The undersea world is made even more colorful by the coral reefs of red, gold, white and light purple. Among these reefs there may be larger fish or sea turtles.

Scuba diving allows you to see the most interesting undersea sights. “Scuba” means “Self- contained Underwater Breathing Apparatus”, that is, equipment for breathing and swimming around far under water. In Hawaii, you can take special courses to learn how to scuba dive. After the courses, you can get a certificate that will allow you to dive alone.

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Since it can be dangerous, proper instruction and great care are always necessary when you are scuba diving.

If you are adventurous, you might try snorkeling instead of scuba diving. Less

equipment is needed, just a face mask, a breathing tube (snorkel) and flippers for your feet. It only takes a few minutes to learn how to snorkel. Although you cannot dive deep into the water, you can swim with your face below the surface. Breathing through the tube, you float on the surface, and keep yourself moving with your flippers. Even from the surface like this, there will be plenty of color and beauty to see.

Question 43: The passage is about ________.

A. water sports around the world

B. surfing

C. tourist activities in Hawaii

D. water sports in Hawaii

Question 44: You can infer from the passage that________.

A. water sports are all expensive

B. you need to take a course for all water sports.

C. everyone can find a way to enjoy sports in the water D. swimming in Hawaii can be dangerous

Question 45: According to the passage, surfing________.

A. began as a sport in 1943

B. was invented by the native Hawaiians

C. requires expensive equipment

D. is very dangerous

Question 46: The water around the Hawaiian Islands is________ A. often quite cold

B. full of colorful things to see

C. usually very dark

D. full of dangerous fish

Question 47: The word “this” in the second paragraph refers to________ A. standing on the board B. keeping balanced and not falling down C. an exciting ride D. staying on top of the wave

Question 48: According to the passage, scuba diving________ A. is an ancient Hawaiian water sport B. requires special equipment and training C. is the only way to see the fish underwater D. requires good balance Question 49: The word “proper” in paragraph 4 refers to________ A. enthusiastic

B. informative

C. appropriate

D. short and clear

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Question 50: Which statement is supported by the information in the passage?

A. Snorkeling involves breathing through the tube, floating on the surface and moving

with flippers

B. Snorkeling requires more expensive equipment than scuba diving C. Snorkeling is for adventurous people

D. Snorkeling was invented in ancient times

Đáp án 2-C

3-B

4-A

5-C

6-A

7-B

8-A

9-C

10-D

11-D

12-A

13-B

14-D

15-C

16-B

17-A

18-C

19-D

20-B

21-C

22-A

23-B

24-D

25-A

26-A

27-D

28-C

29-B

30-C

31-B

32-A

33-B

34-D

35-D

36-D

37-C

38-A

39-B

40-B

41-A

42-D

43-D

44-C

45-B

46-B

47-B

48-B

49-C

50-A

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1-A

ĐỀ SỐ 02 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. wanted

B. developed

C. needed

D. included

Question 2:

A. fare

B. black

C. match

D. calcium

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. parallel

B. society

C. enormous

D. Australia

Question 4:

A. weather

B. flower

C. human

D. canteen

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Despite the time of the year, yesterday’s temperature was enough hot to turn on the air conditioning A. despite

B. yesterday’s

C. enough hot

D. to turn on

Question 6: This concert is more worse than I expected it to be A. this

B. is

C. more worse

D. to be

Question 7: As I was driving south I could see that the old road was rebuilding A. driving

B. see

C. that

D. was rebuilding

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: When she returned home from work, she________a bath A. takes

B. took

C. has taken

D. was taking

Question 9: It is important to have someone you can________in.

A. talk

B. speak

C. know

D. confide

Question 10: He was lucky to escape from the accident with only________injuries.

A. minor

B. serious

C. important

D. major

Question 11: You________clean the windows. The window-cleaner is coming tomorrow.

A. don’t have

B. must

C. mustn’t

D. needn’t

Question 12: Would you rather live in________town or in________country?

A. a – a

B. a – the

C. the – a

D. the – the

Question 13: Our teacher would like________ A. that we practicing our pronunciation

B. we to practice our pronunciation

C. us to practice our pronunciation

D. us practicing our pronunciation

Question 14: Jane often remembered________to her mother before she died A. to talk

B. talk

C. talked

D. talking

Question 15: They will be able to walk across the river________ A. if the ice will be thick enough

B. unless the ice is thick enough

C. if the ice is thick enough

D. when the ice will be thick enough

Question 16: I don’t care________money. Money can’t buy happiness A. about

B. with

C. in

D. at

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Question 17: The Giant Panda has been on thev________of extinction for many years A. border

B. verge

C. margin

D. rim

Question 18: What I like best of him is his________ A. dependence

B. dependable

C. independence

D. dependency

Question 19: He leaves work early to________his daughter up from school A. pick

B. put

C. take

D. collect

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “Hello, I’d like to speak to Mr. Green, please.” “________________________________.”

A. I’m afraid I don’t know

B. I’m sorry. I’ll call again later

C. Sorry. Can you take a message?

D. Sure, I’ll put you through

Question 21: “It’s going to rain.”

“________________.”

A. I hope not so

B. I don’t hope either C. I don’t hope so

D. I hope not

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years

A. absolutely

B. relevantly

C. comparatively

D. almost

Question 23: The US Congress office is adjacent to the Capitol building A. far from

B. behind

C. next to

D. within

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: “I’m sorry, madam. This is the fixed price and there is no discount.”

A. negotiable

B. discounted

C. unchanged

D. discussed

Question 25: In common with many mothers, she feels torn between her family and her work.

A. In association with B. In imitation of

C. Ignoring

D. Unlike

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: He knew little about the world nature A. He had a little knowledge about the world nature

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B. He had little knowledge of the world nature

C. He knew little knowledge according to the world nature D. He rarely knew of the little world nature

Question 27: I can’t agree with you more A. I absolutely agree with you

B. I absolutely can’t agree with you C. I partly agree with you

D. We have completely different ideas.

Question 28: We prefer going by train because we can enjoy the sight.

A. We would like to go by train, or we will enjoy the sight.

B. We enjoy the sight although we go by train

C. We prefer going by train to enjoying the sight

D. We would like to go by train so that we can enjoy the sight.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot

A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter

Question 30: A thermometer is an instrument. We use it to measure the temperature A. We use it to measure the temperature which is a thermometer.

B. A thermometer is an instrument which is used to measure the temperature C. We use thermometer which measure the temperature D. A thermometer is an instrument which we use it to measure the temperature

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

British parents are always complaining that their children spend too much time glued to the TV and do not have enough time on other activities (31) ________sports and reading.

A survey recently (32) ________on people’s viewing habits does not approve this. It shows that young people in Britain spend on average 23 hours a week in front of the television,

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(33) ________works out at over three hours a day.

(34) ________is surprising, however, is the fact that the average adult watches even

more: an incredible 28 hours a week. We (35) ________to have become a nation of addicts.

Just about every household in the country has a television set and over half have two or more. According to the survey, people nowadays don’t just watch television sitting in their living-rooms, they watch it in the kitchen and in bed as well Question 31:

A. such

B. like

C. as

D. alike

Question 32:

A. investigated

B. researched

C. carried out

D. carried

Question 33:

A. that

B. which

C. this

D. it

Question 34:

A. What

B. It

C. The thing

D. This

Question 35:

A. seem

B. ought

C. used

D. would like

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Most people go to a doctor in their own town or suburbs. But people in the Australian

outback can’t get to a doctor quickly. The nearest doctor is sometimes hundreds of kilometers away so they have to call him on a two-way radio. This special doctor is called the “flying doctor”. He visits sick people by plane.

When someone is sick, the doctor has to fly to the person’s home. His plane lands on

a flat piece of ground near the person’s house. Sometimes the doctor has to take the patient to hospital. Flying doctors take about 8,600 people to hospital each year.

However, most of the time the person isn’t very sick, and the doctor doesn’t have to

visit. He can give advice on the radio from the office at the flying doctor center. He can tell the patient to use some medicine from a special medicine chest. There is one of these chests in every home in the outback. Each bottle, tube and packet in the chest has a number. The doctor often says something like this, “Take two tablets from bottle number 5 every four hours.”

A man called John Flynn started the Royal Flying Doctor service in 1927. He had only one plane. Today there are 14 flying-doctor centers, 29 planes, 14 full-time doctors and several part- time doctors, nurses and dentists.

Question 36: The flying doctors mentioned in this article treat their patients A. in clinics

B. by old methods

C. over great distances D. by telepathy

Question 37: Which happens first?

A. The doctor flies to the sick person’s home

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B. The sick person or his family calls the doctor on a two-way radio C. The plane lands near the patient’s house

D. The doctor treats the sick person on a two-way radio

Question 38: The word “outback” mostly means________ A. a large field of the Aborigines B. an isolated island

C. a vast and remote area D. a far-off forest

Question 39: The word “chest” in this context probably means________ A. a body part

B. a machine

C. a remote control

D. a small box

Question 40: When a patient needs a special examination, the doctor has to________ A. take him/her to a special holy place B. fly him/her to a military clinic

C. give him/her all kinds of medicine D. fly to the patient’s place

Question 41: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT________ A. None of the doctor at the center work full-time B. Every home in the outback has a chest

C. Sometimes the doctor has to take the patient to hospital

D. The doctor gives prescription using specific numbers for each kind of medicine

Question 42: The writer of this passage shows a/an________attitude to the flying- doctor service.

A. critical

B. supportive

C. curious

D. indifferent

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science has made enormous steps in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made many foods unfit to eat. Some research has shown that perhaps 80% of all human illnesses are related to diet and 40% of cancer is related to the diet as well, especially cancer of the colon.

People of different cultures are more prone to contract certain illnesses because of the

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characteristic foods they consume.

That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government

researchers realized that nitrates and nitrites (commonly used to preserve color in meats) as well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet, these carcinogenic additives remain on our food, and it becomes more difficult all the time to know which ingredients on the packaging labels of processed food are healthful or harmful.

The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle

and poultry, and because of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows.

Sometimes similar drugs are administered to animals not for medicinal purposes, but for financial reasons. The farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to obtain a higher price on the market. Although the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has tried repeatedly to control these producers, the practices continue.

A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental

substances we ingest. Sometimes well-meaning farmers or others who do not realize the consequences add these substances to food without their knowledge Question 43: How has science done a disservice to people?

A. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually eradicated B. It has caused a lack of information concerning the value of food

C. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been added

to our food

D. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables Question 44: According to the passage, what are nitrates used for?

A. They preserve flavor in package foods B. They are the objects of research C. They preserve the color of meats D. They cause the animals to become fatter

Question 45: The word “fit” is closest in meaning to A. athletic

B. suitable

C. tasty

D. adaptable

Question 46: The word “these” in paragraph 2 refers to A. meats

B. colors

C. researchers

D. nitrates and nitrites

Question 47: The word “carcinogenic” is closest in meaning to A. trouble-making

B. color-retaining

C. money-making

D. cancer-causing

Question 48: All the following statements are true EXCEPT

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. Drugs are always given to animals for medical reasons

B. Some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the

living animals

C. Researchers have known about the potential hazards of food additives for more than 45

years

D. Food may cause 40% of the cancer in the world

Question 49: The word “additives” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to A. added substances

B. dangerous substances

C. natural substances

D. toxic substances

Question 50: What is the best title for this passage?

A. Harmful and harmless substances in food B. The food you eat can affect your health

C. Improving health through a natural diet D. Avoiding injurious substances in food

THE END

Đáp án 2-A

3-A

4-D

5-C

6-C

7-D

8-B

9-D

10-A

11-D

12-D

13-C

14-D

15-C

16-A

17-B

18-C

19-A

20-D

21-D

22-C

23-A

24-A

25-D

26-B

27-A

28-D

29-A

30-B

31-B

32-C

33-B

34-A

35-A

36-C

37-B

38-C

39-D

40-D

41-A

42-B

43-C

44-C

45-B

46-D

47-D

48-A

49-A

50-C

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

1- B

ĐỀ SỐ 03 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. chorus

B. children

C. changeable

D. chore

Question 2:

A. entrance

B. circus

C. official

D. certain

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

A. technique

B. advance

C. challenge

D. attempt

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Question 3: Question 4:

A. interview

B. essential

C. comfortable

D. industry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: By measuring the color of a star, astronomers can tell how hot is it.

A. measuring

B. the

C. how

D. is it

Question 6: The next host for the SEA Games is Laos. It is Laos’ the first time as the host for the biannual- games A. the next

B. it is

C. the first

D. the host

Question 7: After teaching English in Vietnam for ten years, Nicolas decided to buy a house and spending the rest of his life there A. teaching

B. to buy

C. spending

D. rest of his

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Jack________chess before, so I showed him what to do A. didn’t play

B. hadn’t played

C. hadn’t been played D. wasn’t playing

Question 9: When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for________15 minutes A. another

B. others

C. the others

D. other

Question 10: Please________your cigarette. I am going to get choked A. cut down

B. blow out

C. put aside

D. put out

Question 11: Factories are not allowed to pump their industrial________into the sea A. garbage

B. litter

C. waste

D. rubbish

Question 12: I must go to the dentist and________ A. get my teeth to take care of

B. take care of my teeth

C. my teeth be taken care of

D. get my teeth taken care of

Question 13: “What would you do in my place?” “ Were________treated like that, I would complain to the manager.”

A. I to had been

B. I to be

C. I have been

D. to I be

Question 14: Hair colour is________characteristics to use in identifying people A. one of the most obvious that art

B. obviously one of the most

C. one of the most obvious

D. most obvious one of

Question 15: Not until a monkey is several years old________to exhibit signs of independence from his mother A. does it begin

B. beginning

C. and begin

D. it begins

Question 16: As a child, I had an________friend called Polly A. image

B. imagine

C. imaginative

D. imaginary

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Question 17: Dick________moustache, but he doesn’t any more. He shaved it off because his wife didn’t like it

A. got used to have

B. is used to have

C. used to have

D. used to having

Question 18: Neither the students nor their lecturer________English in the classroom A. use

B. uses

C. are using

D. have used

Question 19: Jenny is an early riser and she doesn’t object________the trip before 7 a.m A. to starting

B. against starting

C. to have to start

D. to start

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “Can I have a look at that pullover, please?” “________________________.”

A. Sorry, it is out of stock

B. Which one? This one?

C. It’s much cheaper

D. Can I help you?

Question 21: “Thanks for helping me with my homework, John.” “________________________.”

A. Don’t mention it

B. Please, don’t blame yourself D. I don’t mean so.

. C. No harm done

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women A. mandatory

B. beneficial

C. constructive

D. superior

Question 23: : Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always putting his foot in his mouth A. speaking indirectly

B. saying something upsetting

C. doing things in the wrong order

D. talking too much

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to theunderlinedword(s)ineachofthefollowingquestions.

Question 24: Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court A. was paid much money

B. paid in full

C. had a bad personality

D. failed to pay

Question 25: The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East A. expensive

B. complicated

C. difficult to operate

D. simple and easy to use

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: “Why I haven’t thought of this before?” Tony said to himself.

A. Tony advised himself not to have thought of that before B. Tony suggested himself not thinking of that before

C. Tony said that why he hasn’t thought of that before

D. Tony wondered why he hadn’t thought of that before.

Question 27: She is the most intelligent woman I have ever met A. I have never met a more intelligent woman than her

B. She is not as intelligent as the women I have ever met C. I have ever met such an intelligent woman D. She is more intelligent than I am

Question 28: She broke down the moment she heard the news A. She was broken for a moment when she heard the news B. She broke her leg when hearing the news C. On hearing the news, she broke down

D. When she heard the news, she was sick.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions

Question 29: The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.

A. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.

B. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match C. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match D. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.

Question 30: We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.

A. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.

B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we'd do at night Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

NOISE POLLUTION Noise is more than a mere nuisance. At certain levels and durations of exposure, it can cause physical damage to the eardrum, and (31) ________in temporary or permanent hearing loss.

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In addition to causing hearing loss, (32) ________noise exposure can also (33) ________blood pressure and pulse rate, cause irritability, anxiety, and mental fatigue, and interfere with sleep, recreation, and personal communication. Noise pollution is, therefore, (34________importance in the workplace and in the community.

Noise effects can be (35) ________by a number of techniques, for example, increasing the

distance or blocking the path between the noise source and the recipient, reducing noise level at the source, and protecting recipients with earplugs or earmuffs Question 31:

A. bring

B. result

C. create

D. affect

Question 32:

A. exceedingly

B. excess

C. excessively

D. excessive

Question 33:

A. enlarge

B. maximize

C. raise

D. rise

Question 34:

A. for

B. of

C. at

D. within

Question 35:

A. minimized

B. created

C. brought

D. done

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

As heart disease continues to be the number-one killer in the United States, researchers

have become increasingly interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks. High-fat diets and “life in the fast lane” have long been known to contribute to 5 the high incidence of heart failure. But according to new studies, the list of risk factors may be significantly longer and quite surprising.

Heart failure, for example, appears to have seasonal and temporal 10 patterns. A

higher percentage of heart attacks occur in cold weather, and more people experience heart failure on Monday than on any other day of the week. In addition, people are more susceptible to heart attacks in the first few hours after waking. Cardiologists first observed this morning phenomenon in the mid-1980, and have since 15 discovered a number of possible causes. An early-morning rise in blood pressure, heart rate, and concentration of heart stimulating hormones, plus a reduction of blood flow to the heart, may all contribute to the higher incidence of heart attacks between the hours of 8:00 A.M. and 10:00 A.M.

In other studies, both birthdays and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors.

Statistics reveal that heart attack rates increase significantly for both females and males in the few days immediately preceding and following their birthdays. And unmarried men are more 25 at risk for heart attacks than their married counterparts. Though stress is thought to be linked in some way to all of the aforementioned risk factors, intense research continues in the hope of further comprehending why and how heart failure is triggered Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. risk factors in heart attacks

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

B. seasonal and temporal patterns of heart attacks C. cardiology in the 1980s

D. diet and stress as factors in heart attacks

Question 37: In paragraph 1, the word “potential” could best be re-placed by which of the following?

A. harmful

B. primary

C. unknown

D. possible

Question 38: The word “trigger” as used in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. involve

B. affect

C. cause

D. encounter

Question 39: The phrase “susceptible to” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ________.

A. aware of

B. affected by

C. accustomed

D. prone to

Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a possible cause of many heart attacks?

A. decreased blood flow to the heart

B. increased blood presure

C. lower heart rate

D. increase in hormones

Question 41: Which of the following is NOT cited as a possible risk factor?

A. Having a birthday

B. Getting married

C. Rating fatty foods

D. Being under stress

Question 42: Which of the following does the passage infer?

A. We now fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks

B. We recently began to study how risk factors trigger heart attacks C. We have not identified many risk factors associated with heart attacks D. We do not fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Aging is the process of growing old. It occurs eventually in every living thing provided, of course, that an illness or accident does not kill it prematurely. The most familiar outward signs of

aging may be seen in old people, such as the graying of the hair and the wrinkling of the skin. Signs of aging in a pet dog or cat include loss of playfulness and energy, a decline in hearing and eyesight, or even a slight graying of the coat. Plants age too, but the signs are much harder to detect.

Most body parts grow bigger and stronger, and function more efficiently during childhood. They reach their peak at the time of maturity, or early adulthood. After that, they begin to decline. Bones, for example, gradually become lighter and more brittle. In the aged, the joints between the bones also become rigid and more inflexible. This can make moving very painful.

All the major organs of the body show signs of aging. The brain, for example, works less

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

efficiently, and even gets smaller in size. Thinking processes of all sorts are slowed down. Old people often have trouble in remembering recent events.

One of the most serious changes of old age occurs in the arteries, the blood vessels that lead from the heart. They become thickened and constricted, allowing less blood to flow to the rest of body.

This condition accounts, directly or indirectly, for many of the diseases of the aged. It may, forexample, result in heart attack.

Aging is not a uniform process. Different parts of the body wear out at different rates. There

are great differences among people in their rate of aging. Even the cells of the body differ in the way they age. The majority of cells are capable of reproducing themselves many times during the course of a lifetime. Nerve cells and muscle fibers can never be replaced once they wear out.

Gerontologists - scientists who study the process of aging-believe this wearing out of the

body is controlled by a built-in biological time-clock. They are trying to discover how this clock works so that they can slow down the process. This could give man a longer life and a great number of productive years.

Question 43: What is the main idea of the first paragraph?

A. Signs of aging are easier to detect in animals than in plants

B. Aging occurs in every living thing after it has reached maturity C. Not all signs of aging are visible

D. The outward signs of aging may be seen in old people

Question 44: What does the word “it” in paragraph 1 refer to?

A. aging

B. a living thing

C. an illness

D. an accident

Question 45: When does the human body begin to lose vigor and the ability to function efficiently?

A. Soon after reaching adulthood

B. During childhood

C. Early adulthood

D. In old age

Question 46: What happens to memorization when the brain begins to age?

A. It works less

B. It becomes forgetful

C. It declines

D. It slows down

Question 47: The word “brittle” in paragraph 2 means________ A. soft and easily bent

B. hard and endurable

C. hard but easily broken

D. rigid and inflexible

Question 48: According to the passage, what condition is responsible for many of the diseases of the old?

A. The arteries have become thickened and constricted B. The blood vessels lead from the heart C. The brain gets smaller in size

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

D. Bones become lighter and brittle

Question 49: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?

A. All living things grow old

B. Aging is unavoidable in any living things

C. Plants show less signs of aging than any other living things D. Most body parts wear out during the course of a lifetime

Question 50: What is the main idea of the last paragraph?

A. Gerontologists have controlled the process of aging

B. Gerontologists are working hard to help people live longer and more healthily C. Gerontologists are trying to give people an eternal life

D. Gerontologists are now able to slow down the process of aging

.................THE END.................

Đáp án 2-C

3-C

4-B

5-D

6-C

7-C

8-B

9-A

10-D

11-C

12-D

13-B

14-C

15-A

16-D

17-C

18-B

19-A

20-B

21-A

22-A

23-B

24-B

25-D

26-D

27-A

28-C

29-A

30-C

31-B

32-D

33-C

34-B

35-A

36-A

37-D

38-C

39-D

40-C

41-B

42-D

43-B

44-B

45-A

46-C

47-C

48-A

49-C

50-B

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

1-A

ĐỀ SỐ 04 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. kidney

B. knowledge

C. killer

D. kite

Question 2:

A. ought

B. brought

C. fought

D. drought

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. problem

B. village

C. police

D. worker

Question 4:

A. effectiveness

B. satisfaction

C. curriculum

D. appropriate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Although it was the first time Vietnam hosted so a big sports event, the Games were a great success.

A. although

B. the first time

C. so

D. were

Question 6: Do not start a book unless you can see from the first few pages that it is one you can easy read and understand.

A. unless

B. from

C. it is one

D. easy

Question 7: One of the most important measures to be taken to promote the develop of a country is to constantly carry out economic reforms.

A. measures

B. develop

C. constantly

D. carry out

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: One of the men was lying on the ground after________ down by a piece of rock A. knocking

B. being knocked

C. knocking him

D. was knocked

Question 9: The number of working women in China ________from 49% in 1980 to nearly 65% today

A. has been increasing

B. has increased

C. is increasing

D. have increased

Question 10: My uncle took________photography when he retired from work A. after

B. over

C. up

D. on

Question 11: Helen is traveling to Germany tomorrow on her first working trip and she is very excited________it A. for

B. against

C. about

D. with

Question 12: These people________for the most successful company in the town A. are seeming to work

B. seem working

C. seem to be working

D. are seem to be working

Question 13: This job________working very long hours A. includes

B. consists

C. involves

D. contains

Question 14: When he was 20, he developed ________ for the personal computer A. the world first computer’s language

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B. the computer language for the first world C. the world’s first computer language

D. the first world’s computer language

Question 15: When I came, the salesperson was ________ to the customers how to use a new kind of washing machines.

A. demonstrating

B. proving

C. exposing

D. teaching

Question 16: ________ my parents gave me the fish tank A. It was on my birthday when

B. It was my birthday on that

C. It was my birthday that

D. It was on my birthday that

Question 17: This is________the most difficult job I’ve ever had to do A. by heart

B. by chance

C. by far

D. by myself

Question 18: It is great to watch sportsmen in their national costumes________into the stadium

A. marching

B. marched

C. having marched

D. to march

Question 19: Don’t worry. He’ll do the job as________as possible A. economizing

B. economic

C. uneconomically

D. economically

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “How would you like your tea?”

“___________________________.”

A. Yes, please. Thanks

B. With milk, please

C. Thank you very much

D. It’s fantastic. Thank you

Question 21: “Don’t forget to drop me a line when you settle down.”

“Trust me, ____________________.”

A. I will. I’ll keep you in touch

B. I won’t. I’ll keep you posted

C. I don’t. I’ll keep you in touch

D. I drop you a line when I settle dow

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Setting off on an expedition without thorough preparation and with inadequate equipment is tempting fate A. taking a risk

B. going round in circles

C. losing heart

D. having panic

Question 23: Peter didn’t mean to be disrespectful to his teacher. He just couldn’t control his

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

temper.

‘ A. showing lack of trust

C. showing impolite behaviour

B. showing nervousness

D. showing lack of attention

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Nancy concurred with her boss about the new direction the company was taking

A. disagreed

B. agreed

C. surrendered

D. confessed

Question 25: “We strongly believe that he’s innocent of the crime. We do not think that he did it.”

A. clean

B. guilty

C. faultless

D. crimeless

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: He cannot practice scuba diving because he has a weak heart

A. The fact that he has a weak heart cannot stop him practicing scuba diving.

B. Scuba diving makes him suffer from having a weak heart

C. The reason why he cannot practice scuba diving is that he has a weak heart D. He has a weak heart but he continues to practice scuba diving

Question 27: People believe that neither side wanted war A. Neither side is believed to have wanted war

B. Neither side is responsible for the outbreak of war C. War is believed to be wanted by either side D. It is believed that war broke out from both sides Question 28: Although she is intelligent, she doesn’t do well at school A. In spite of intelligent, she doesn’t do well at school B. Despite being intelligent, she doesn’t do well at school C. Even though her intelligence, she doesn’t do well at school

D. In spite the fact that she is intelligent, she doesn’t do well at school Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot A. The students next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.

B. The students next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.

C. The students next to me kept chewing gum, bothering me a lot.

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

D. The students next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot

Question 30: I write to my friends overseas regularly. I don’t want to lose touch with them A. It is important for me to send letters to my friends abroad to keep them up to date on

events in my life

B. I keep in touch with my friends in foreign countries by writing to them from time to

time

C. My friends try not to lose contact with me by writing very often

D. In order to not lose touch with my friends abroad, I write to them on a regular basis

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

ORESUND BRIDGE

Imagine driving along a bridge that is so long that you can't even see the other end.

The Oresund Bridge, one of the longest bridges in the world, (31)________so far ahead into the distance that you can't even tell where the blue of the water (32) ________ the blue of the sky.

The Oresund Bridge is an amazing example of modern engineering design that links

the Scandinavian countries of Denmark and Sweden. It is 8 kilometers long and was (33) ________in July 2000. It crosses the Flinte Channel, the chilly waterway (34) ________the two countries.

At one stage the bridge turns into a tunnel under the sea. This tunnel is also a record

breaker in its own right as it is the longest road and rail tunnel in the world. The engineers built an artificial island near the Danish coast that (35) ________support part of the bridge structure, as well as being the point at which the road disappears underground, before coming out in Copenhagen, the capital of Denmark.

Question 31:

A. travels

B. leans

C. stretches

D. pulls

Question 32:

A. comes

B. meets

C. lines

D. starts

Question 33:

A. done

B. ended

C. brought

D. completed

Question 34:

A. splitting

B. cutting

C. breaking

D. separating

Question 35:

A. helps

B. aids

C. attempts

D. tries

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Mickey Mantle was one of the greatest baseball players of all time. He played for the New York Yankees in their years of glory. From the time Mantle began to play professionally

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

in 1951 to his last year in 1968, baseball was the most popular game in the United States. For many people, Mantle symbolized the hope, prosperity, and confidence of America at that time.

Mantle was a fast and powerful player, a “switch-hitter” who could bat both right-

handed and left-handed. He won game after game, one World Series championship after another, for his team. He was a wonderful athlete, but this alone cannot explain America’s fascination with him.

Perhaps it was because he was a handsome, red-haired country boy, the son of a poor

miner from Oklahoma. His career, from the lead mines of the West to the heights of success and fame, was a fairy-tale version of the American dream. Or perhaps it was because America always loves a “natural”: a person who wins without seeming to try, whose talent appears to come from an inner grace. That was Mickey Mantle.

But like many celebrities, Mickey Mantle had a private life that was full of problems.

He played without complaint despite constant pain from injuries. He lived to fulfill his father’s dreams and drank to forget his father’s early death.

It was a terrible addiction that finally destroyed his body. It gave him cirrhosis of the

liver and accelerated the advance of liver cancer. Even when Mickey Mantle had turned away from his old life and warned young people not to follow his example, the destructive process could not be stopped. Despite a liver transplant operation that had all those who loved and admired him hoping for a recovery, Mickey Mantle died of cancer at the age of 63 Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Mickey Mantle as the greatest baseball player of all time B. Mickey Mantle’s success and private life full of problems C. Mickey Mantle and his career as a baseball player D. Mickey Mantle and the history of baseball Question 37: According to the passage, Mantle could________ A. hit the ball to score from a long distance

B. bat better with his left hand than with his right hand C. hit with the bat on either side of his body D. give the most powerful hit in his team Question 38: The word “this” as used in paragraph 2 refers to________ A. Mantle’s being a fast and powerful player B. Mantle’s being a wonderful athlete C. Mantle’s being fascinated by many people

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D. Mantle’s being a “switch-hitter”

Question 39: The author uses the word “But” in paragraph 4 to________ A. change the topic of the passage

B. give an argument in favor of Mantle’s success and fame C. explain how Mantle got into trouble

D. give an example of the trouble in Mantle’s private life

Question 40: The word “accelerated” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to________ A. worsened

B. bettered

C. delayed

D. quickened

Question 41: We can see from paragraph 5 that after his father’s death, Mantle________ A. played even better

B. forgot his father’s dream C. . led a happier life

D. suffered a lot of pain

Question 42: Which of the following is mentioned as the main cause of the destruction of Mantle’s body?

A. His loneliness

B. His way of life

C. His liver transplant operation

D. His own dream

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Humans have struggled against weeds since the beginnings of agriculture. Marring our

gardens is one of the milder effects of weeds - any plants that thrive where they are unwanted. They clog waterways, destroy wildlife habitats, and impede farming. Their spread eliminates grazing areas and accounts for one-third of all crop loss. They compete for sunlight, nutrients, and water with useful plants.

The global need for weed control had been answered mainly by the chemical industry. Its herbicides are effective and sometimes necessary, but some pose serious problems, particularly if misused. Toxic compounds threaten animal and public health when they

accumulate in food plants, groundwater, and drinking water. They also harm workers who apply them.

In recent years, the chemical industry has introduced several herbicides that are more ecologically sound. Yet new chemicals alone cannot solve the world's weed problems.

Hence, scientists are exploring the innate weed-killing powers of living organisms, primarily insects and microorganisms.

The biological agents now in use are environmentally benign and are harmless to humans.

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They can be chosen for their ability to attack selected targets and leave crops and other plants untouched. In contrast, some of the most effective chemicals kill virtually all the plants they come in contact with, sparing only those that are naturally resistant or have been genetically modified for resistance. Furthermore, a number of biological agents can be administered only once, after which no added applications are needed. Chemicals typically must be used several times per growing season.

Question 43: With what topic does this passage primarily deal?

A. The importance of the chemical industry B. The dangers of toxic chemicals

C. A proposal to ban the use of all herbicides

D. Advantages of biological agents over chemical ones

Question 44: The word "Marring" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to________ A. spoiling

B. planting

C. dividing

D. replacing

Question 45: Which of the following terms does the author define in the first paragraph?

A. weeds

B. nutrients

C. wildlife habitats

D. grazing area

Question 46: Which of the following statements about the use of chemical agents as herbicides would the author most likely agree?

A. It is safe but inefficient

B. It is occasionally required C. It should be increased

D. It has become more dangerous recently Question 47: Which of the following is NOT given as an advantage of using biological agents over chemical herbicides?

A. They are safer for workers B. They are less likely to destroy desirable plants C. They are more easily available D. They do not have to be used as often

Question 48: The word "innate" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to________ A. effective

B. organic

C. natural

D. active

Question 49: According to the passage, biological agents mainly consist of________ A. herbicides

B. useful plants

C. weeds

D. insects and microorganisms

Question 50: Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

A. A general idea is introduced and several specific examples are given

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

B. Two possible causes of a phenomenon are compared

C. A problem is described and possible solutions are discussed D. A recommendation is analyzed and rejected

…….THE END……..

Đáp án 2-D

3-C

4-B

5-C

6-D

7-B

8-B

9-B

10-C

11-C

12-C

13-C

14-C

15-A

16-D

17-C

18-A

19-D

20-B

21-A

22-A

23-C

24-A

25-B

26-C

27-A

28-B

29-B

30-B

31-C

32-B

33-D

34-D

35-A

36-B

37-C

38-B

39-D

40-D

41-D

42-B

43-D

44-A

45-A

46-B

47-C

48-C

49-A

50-A

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1-B

ĐỀ SỐ 05 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. complete

B. command

C. common

D. community

Question 2:

A. smooth

B. path

C. month

D. depth

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. enter

B. enlarge

C. enhance

D. ensure

Question 4:

A. bachelor

B. chemistry

C. compliment

D. refugee

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: For most of their history, especially since the 1860’s New York City has been undergoing major population changes A. their

B. especially

C. the 1860’s

D. has been undergoing

Question 6: If the maid comes today, please have her washed all of my shirts A. if

B. comes

C. washed

D. all of

Question 7: Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the urbanareas where many jobs are found.

A. lack

B. financial

C. urbanareas

D. are found

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: I found the lecture about environment very ________ A. informing

B. informative

C. informational

D. informant

Question 9: All the boys are good at cooking, but ________is as good as the girls A. either

B. neither

C. every

D. none

Question 10: You should concentrate ________what the interviewer is saying and make a real effort to answer all the questions A. to

B. at

C. on

D. in

Question 11: They ________at each other for more than one minute without blinking.

A. stared

B. winked

C. watched

D. glanced

Question 12: It is essential that he ________. His illness seems worse A. needed operating

B. need to operate

C. need an operation

D. needs an operate

Question 13: “Don’t stay up late any longer, ________?”

B. won’t you

A. do you

C. will you

D. should you

Question 14: Jane wasn’t in when I arrived. I supposed she ________I was coming A. must have forgotten C. may forget

B. must forget D. can’t have forgotten

Question 15: I ________on this project for many consecutive days without success A. had been working

B. had worked

C. have been working D. have been worked

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Question 16: ________appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an illusion.

A. The Moon which

B. The Moon

C. When the Moon

D. That the Moon

Question 17: All the ideas were good, but Michael ________the best plan of all A. came up

B. came up with

C. got on with

D. put on

Question 18: she could not say anything A. Therefore upset was she that

B. However upset was she that

C. So upset was she that

D. So upset was that

Question 19: Tony and Toby have a lot in ________with each other A. common

B. competition

C. regard

D. similar

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “Is it alright if I use your bike?” “________________.”

A. Please accept it with my best wishes

B. Sorry, no, I won’t do it

C. I don’t want to use your bike

D. Sure, go ahead

Question 21: “I think listening to music while learning is good.” “________________________.”

A. Sorry, but I’m not in agreement with you

B. I’m sorry I couldn’t agree more

C. Me neither

D. I don’t agree. You can say that again

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Some people think their abilities have limitations, but with encouragement they can perform much better than expected.

A. possibilities

B. certainties

C. boundaries

D. promises

Question 23: It is vital to recognize that emotions trigger physiological reactions – and vice versa A. activate

B. blunt

C. mask

D. encounter

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Mr. Jones is a man of affability A. caution

B. passion

C. warmth

D. hostility

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Question 25: This is a difficult topic. Please, explain it in plain language A. easy

B. complicated

C. different

D. detailed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: You are in this mess right now because you didn’t listen to my advice in the first place

A. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t have been in this mess

right now

B. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now C. If you listen to my advice in the first place, you will not be in this mess right now D. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right

now

Question 27: “I was not there at the time”, he said A. He denied to have been there at the time B. He denied to be there at the time

C. He denied having been there at the time

D. He denied that he hadn’t been there at the time

Question 28: It’s no use asking her for help

A. There’s no point in asking her for help B. It’s not worth asking her for help C. It’s no good to ask her for help

D. We have no trouble asking her for help Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: No member in the team came to his birthday party. But Julia did come A. Every member in the team came to his birthday party B. Not only did Julia come to his birthday party but also other members did

C. Julia was the only member in the team to come to his birthday party D. Julia was one of the members who came to his birthday party Question 30: I had never seen her before. However, I recognized her from a photograph A. Although I had never seen her before, I recognized her from a photograph B. I recognized her from a photograph before I had never seen her C. Although I had never seen her before but I recognized her from a photograph D. After I had seen her, I recognized her from a photograph

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

The United States has many different types of families. While most American

families are traditional, (31) ________a father, a mother and one or more children, 22 percent of all American families in 1998 were headed by one parent, usually a woman. In a few families in the United States, there are no children. These (32) ________couples may believe that they would not make good parents; they may want freedom from responsibilities of childbearing; or, perhaps they (33) ________ physically able to have children. Other families in the United States have one adult who is a stepparent. A stepmother or stepfather is a person who joins a family by marrying a father or a mother.

Americans (34) ________and accept these different types of families. In the United

States people have right to privacy and Americans do not believe in telling other Americans what type of family group they must belong to. They respect each other’s choices regarding family groups. Families are very important (35) ________ Americans.

Question 31:

A. making of

B. consisting of

C. including of

D. containing

Question 32:

A. childish

B. childlike

C. childless

D. childhood

Question 33:

A. are not

B. can not

C. could not

D. were not

Question 34:

A. tolerate

B. refuse

C. remember

D. remind

Question 35:

A. for

B. with

C. on

D. to

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Perhaps it was his own lack of adequate schooling that inspired Horace Mann to work so hard for the important reforms in education that he accomplished. While he was still a boy, his father and older brother died, and he became responsible for supporting his family. Like most of the children in his town, he attended school only two or three months a year. Later, with the help of several teachers, he was able to study law and became a member of the Massachusetts bar, but he never forgot those early struggles.

While serving in Massachusetts legislature, he signed a historic education bill that set up a state board of education. Without regret, he gave up his successful legal practice and political career to become the frst secretary of the board. There he exercised an enormous influence during the critical period of reconstruction that brought into existence the American graded elementary school as substitute for the older distinct school system. Under his leadership, the curriculum was restructured, the school year was increased to a minimum of six months, and mandatory schooling was extended to age sixteen. Other important reforms

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included the establishment of state normal schools for teacher training, institutes for inservice teacher education, and lyceums for adult education. He was also instrument in improving salaries for eachers and creating school libraries.

Mann’s ideas about school reform were developed and distributed in twelve annual

reports to the state of Massachusetts that he wrote during his tenure as secretary of education.

Considered quite radical at the time, the Massachusetts reforms later served as a model for the nation. Mann was recognized as the father of public education

Question 36: Which of the following titles would best express the main topic of the passage?

A. The Father of American Public Education B. Philosophy of Education

C. The Massachusetts State Board of Education.

D. Politics of Educational Institutions

Question 37: Which of the following describes Horace Mann’s early life ?

A. He attended school six months a year B. He had to study alone, without help

C. He supported his family after his father died D. He was an only child

Question 38: The word “struggles” in line 5 could best be replaced by A. valuable experiences

B. happy situations

C. influential people

D. difficult times

Question 39: The word “regret” in line 7 could best be replaced by A. consideration

B. feeling sorry

C. limitation

D. acceptance

Question 40: What did Horace Mann advocate ?

A. The state board school system

B. The district school system

C. The substitute school system

D. The graded school system

Question 41: The word “mandatory” in line 10 is closest in meaning to A. required

B. equal

C. excellent

D. basic

Question 42: How were Mann’s educational reforms distributed ?

A. In twelve annual reports to the state of Massachusetts B. In reports that he wrote for national distribution C. In speeches that he made throughout the country D. In books that could be found in school libraries Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

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Psychologist have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it

the ability to do outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say that it is simply something a person is born with. Others, however , argue that the potential for great achievement can be develop. The truth lies somewhere between these two extremes. It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will increase a child’s ability to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the right upbringing and opportunities. As one psychologist says, “ To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.’’ Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of identical twins that were separated shortly birth and brought up by different parents. They found that achievement was based on intelligence, and later influenced by the child’s environment. One case involving very intelligent twins was quoted. One of the twins received a normal upbringing, and performed well. The other twin, however, was brought up by extremely supportive parents and given every possible opportunity to develop its abilities. That twin, thought starting out with the same degree of intelligence as the other, performed even better. This case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the environment, the more a child’s intelligence and ability are developed.

However, there is no link between intelligence and socioeconomic level of a child’s

family. In other words, it does not matter how poor or how rich a family is , as this does not affect the intelligence. Gifted people can not be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them. One professor of music said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years earlier than ordinary performers, often because their parents had recognized their ability. These musicians then needed at least ten years’ hard work and training in order to reach the level they were capable of attaining. People who want to have very gifted children are given the following advice: - Marry an intelligent person.

- Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.

- Start a child’s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.

- Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instrument is essential for a child who wants to become an outstanding musician.

Question 43: The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires ________.

A. an expensive education

B. good musical instruments

C. parental support and encouragement

D. wealthy and loving parents

Question 44: The word “others” used in the first paragraph refers to ________ B. other scientists

C. other children

D. other geniuses

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A. other people

Question 45: When scientists studied intelligence and ability in twins, they found that ________

A. ability depends mainly on intelligence and chievement B. intelligence and development are irrelevant to ability

C. ability depends both on intelligence and environment

D. different twins generally have different levels of ability

Question 46: Scientists chose twins for their study because A. each twin has the same environment as his/her twin

B. they are born into the same family, hence the same upbringing

C. they have the same economic background and hence the same opportunities D. they have the same genetic background, usually with similar intelligence

Question 47: How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their development?

A. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nurtured B. They practice playing their instruments for many years

C. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of the other areas D. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic

Question 48: The writer advises that gifted children should be allowed to follow ________ A. Their own interests

B. Their parents’ interests C. Only their interests in musical instruments D. Only their interests in computer games Question 49: When encourage their gifted children, parents should avoid ________ A. Pushing their children too hard B. letting them play their own way C. Permitting them to follow their own interests

D. Starting their education at an early age Question 50: The remark: “ to have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel’’ in the passage means that in order to become a genius, ________ A. You need to have good heath and good nourishment B. You need intelligence and you need to develop it C. You should try to move quickly and efficiently

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D. You must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard

Đáp án 2-A

3-A

4-D

5-A

6-C

7-B

8-B

9-D

10-C

11-A

12-C

13-C

14-A

15-C

16-D

17-B

18-C

19-A

20-D

21-A

22-C

23-A

24-D

25-B

26-D

27-C

28-A

29-C

30-A

31-B

32-C

33-A

34-A

35-A

36-A

37-C

38-D

39-B

40-D

41-A

42-A

43-C

44-B

45-C

46-D

47-A

48-A

49-A

50-B

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

1-C

ĐỀ SỐ 05 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. frustrate

B. furious

C. punctual

D. rubbish

Question 2:

A. leisure

B. pressure

C. treasure

D. pleasure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. response

B. relate

C. rescue

D. rehearse

Question 4:

A. national

B. beautiful

C. chemical

D. disaster

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: I like lying on the beach, so I always spend my holiday to sunbathe A. lyinh

B. on the beach

C. always

D. to sunbathe

Question 6: We do not know of how the general employment situation is likely to develop in the future.

A. do not

B. of how

C. employment situation

D. likely to develop

Question 7: A lot of discoveries have made in the fields of chemistry and physics.

A. a lot of

B. have made

C. in

D. fields of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: The building work is still on schedule a problem in digging the foundation A. due to

B. despite

C. so as

D. only if

Question 9: It is very difficult to________the exact meaning of an idiom in a foreign language

A. convert

B. convey

C. exchange

D. transfer

Question 10: By the time I return to my country, I________away from home for more than three years A. will have been

B. will be

C. have been

D. was

Question 11: The water is________. You can’t drink it A. pollution

B. pollutant

C. polluted

D. polluting

Question 12: My boss is going on vacation next month, ________ she’ll be away from the office for about four weeks

A. in other words

B. for instance

C. on the other hand

D. such as

Question 13: Have you got a light? My cigarette’s gone________ A. by

B. away

C. off

D. out

Question 14: When he returned home, I found the door________ A. unlocking

B. unlocked

C. to be unlocked

D. have unlocked

Question 15: I had no sooner lit the barbecue________ B. as it started to rained

C. while it started raining

D. that it started raining

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A. than it started to rain

Question 16: Several of my friends are________reporters A. newspaper’s

B. newspapers’

C. newspapers

D. newspaper

Question 17: Are you satisfied________your record?

A. at

B. from

C. with

D. for

Question 18: Do you know________?

A. what wrong was it with

B. what’s wrong with it

C. what wrong is it with

D. what wrong was with it

Question 19: Zika________poses an international emergency, according to the World Health Organization.

A. not any longer

B. any more

C. no longer

D. not any more

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “You’re late again, Michael.” “________________.”

A. Never mind. I stayed up too late last night B. I’m sorry. The traffic was terrible C. It’s OK. Thanks for telling me

D. That’s alright. It’s my fault anyway

Question 21: “Do you want to join us for a cup of coffee after work?” “________________.”

A. Sounds good, but I can do it myself

B. Sorry, but I have to finish my presentation for tomorrow C. No problem. What’s wrong with the coffee?

D. Thanks. You can make it Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to theunderlinedword(s)ineachofthefollowingquestions.

Question 22: The ostrich egg is the largest egg of any non-extinct bird, while the smallest egg is the egg of the hummingbird.

A. living

B. dead

C. flying

D. vanished

Question 23: The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer's behavior A. disgusted

B. upset

C. angry

D. puzzled

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to theunderlinedword(s)ineachofthefollowingquestions Question 24: I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer A. deliberate

B. unplanned

C. accidental

D. unintentional

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Question 25: We offer a speedy and secure service of transfering money in less than 24 hours

A. uninterested

B. unsure

C. slow

D. open

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Large cars use more gas than smaller ones A. If you own a small car, it uses more gas.

B. The smaller the car, the more gas it uses C. The larger the car, the more gas it uses

D. Large cars don’t use as much gas as smaller ones

Question 27: Mary is crazy about her new puppy A. Mary’s new puppy drives her crazy

B. Marry really likes her new puppy

C. Mary’s new puppy is crazy

D. Mary has a crazy dog

Question 28: Did you happen to run into George last week?

A. Was it a week ago that you last saw George?

B. Where do you think George was all last week?

C. Have you got any idea what happened to George last week?

D. Did you, by any chance, see George last week?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Nam defeated the former champion in three sets. He finally won the interschool table tennis championship A. Having defeated the former champion in the inter-school table tennis, Nam did not hold the title of champion B. Although Nam defeated the former champion in three sets, he did not win the title of inter-school table tennis champion

C. Having defeated the former champion in three sets, Nam won the inter-school table tennis championship D. Being defeated by the former champion, Nam lost the chance to play the final game of inter-school table tennis champion Question 30: She wrote the text. She selected the illustration as well A. She not only wrote the text but also selected the illustration.

B. The text she wrote was not as good as the illustration she selected

D áş Y da K yk ĂˆM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ć N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

C. In order to select the illustration, she had to write the text

D. If she had written the text, she would have selected the illustration

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35

Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (31) ________.

Many species of animals are threatened, and could easily become (32) ________ if we do not make an effort to protect them. There are many reasons for this. In some cases animals are hunted for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught (33) ________, and sold as pets. For many animals and birds, the problem is that their habitatsthe place where they live-is disappearing. More land is used for farm, for houses and industry, and there are fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them grow better crops, but these chemicals pollute the environment and (34) ________ wildlife. The most successful animals on Earth, human beings, will soon be the only ones (35) ________ unless we can solve this problem.

Question 31:

A. threat

B. problem

C. danger

D. vanishing

Question 32:

A. disappeared

B. vanished

C. extinct

D. empty

Question 33:

A. for life

B. alive

C. lively

D. for living

Question 34:

A. spoil

B. wound

C. wrong

D. harm

Question 35:

A. left

B. over

C. staying

D. survived

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in every known culture. The basic function of signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, as, for example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit.

Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication is very great. Less adaptable to the

codification of words, signs also contain meaning in and of themselves. A stop sign or a barber pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently.

Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with the receiver’s cultural perceptions. In some cultures, applauding in a theater provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also communicate certain cultural messages.

Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major

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disadvantage in communication. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. Without an exchange of ideas, interaction comes to a halt. As a result, means of communication intended to be used for long distances and extended periods must be based upon speech. To radio, television, and the telephone, one must add fax, paging systems, electronic mail, and the Internet, and no one doubts but that there are more means of communication on the horizon.

Question 36: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?

A. Gestures

B. Signs and signals

C. Speech

D. Communication

Question 37: According to this passage, what is a signal?

A. A form of communication that interrupts the environment B. The most difficult form of communication to describe

C. A form of communication which may be used across long distances D. The form of communication most related to cultural perception

Question 38: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to________ A. way

B. environment

C. function

D. signal

Question 39: The word “intricate” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by________ A. inefficient

B. complicated

C. historical

D. uncertain

Question 40: Applauding was cited as an example of________ A. a signal

B. a sign

C. a gesture

D. a symbol

Question 41: Why were the telephone, radio, and television invented?

A. Because people were unable to understand signs, signals, and symbols B. Because people believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete C. Because people wanted to communicate across long distances D. Because people wanted new forms of communication Question 42: It may be concluded from this passage that

.

A. Only some cultures have signs, signals, and symbols B. Signs, signals, symbols, and gestures are forms of communication

C. Symbols are very easy to define and interrupt D. Waving and handshaking are not related to culture Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Smallpox was the first widespread disease to be eliminated by human intervention.

Known as a highly contagious viral disease, it broke out in Europe, causing the deaths of millions of people until the vaccination was invented by Edward Jenner around 1800. In

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many nations, it was a terror, a fatal disease until very recently. Its victims suffer high fever, vomiting and painful, itchy, pustules that left scars. In villages and cities all over the world, people were worried about suffering smallpox.

In May, 1966, the World Health Organization (WHO), an agency of the United

Nations was authorized to initiate a global campaign to eradicate smallpox. The goal was to eliminate the disease in one decade. At the time, the disease posed a serious threat to people in more than thirty nations. Because similar projects for malaria and yellow fever had failed, few believed that smallpox could actually be eradicated but eleven years after the initial organization of the campaign, no cases were reported in the field.

The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations but also to isolate patients

with active smallpox in order to contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of human transmission. Rewards for reporting smallpox assisted in motivating the public to aid health workers. One by one, each small-pox victim was sought out, removed from contact with others and treated. At the same time, the entire village where the victim had lived was vaccinated.

By April of 1978 WHO officials announced that they had isolated the last known case

of the disease but health workers continued to search for new cases for additional years to be completely sure. In May, 1980, a formal statement was made to the global community.

Today smallpox is no longer a threat to humanity. Routine vaccinations have been stopped worldwide

Question 43: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?

A. The eradication of smallpox

B. The World Health Organization

C. Infectious disease

D. Smallpox vaccinations

Question 44: The word “contagious” is closest in meaning to________.

A. courteous

B. arresting

C. numerous

D. catching

Question 45: The global community considered the smallpox________ A. a minor illness

B. a deadly illness

C. a mental illness

D. a rare illness

Question 46: The word “threat” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by________ A. risk

B. debate

C. announce

D. bother

Question 47: According to the passage, what way was used to eliminate the spread of smallpox?

A. Vaccination of entire villages

B. Treatment of individual victims

C. Isolation of victims and mass vaccinations D. Extensive reporting of outbreaks Question 48: How was the public motivated to help the health workers?

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A. By educating them

B. By rewarding them for reporting smallpox cases C. By isolating them from others D. By giving them vaccinations

Question 49: Which one of the statements doesn’t refer to smallpox?

A. Previous project had failed

B. People are no longer vaccinated for it

C. The WHO set up a worldwide campaign to eradicate the disease D. It was a fatal threat

Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that________ A. yellow fever have been reported this year

B. no new cases of smallpox have been reported this year

C. smallpox victims no longer die when they contact the disease D. smallpox is not transmitted from one person to another

Đáp án 2-B

3-C

4-D

5-D

6-B

7-B

8-B

9-B

10-A

11-C

12-A

13-D

14-B

15-A

16-B

17-C

18-D

19-C

20-B

21-B

22-A

23-D

24-A

25-B

26-C

27-B

28-D

29-C

30-A

31-C

32-C

33-B

34-D

35-A

36-D

37-A

38-D

39-B

40-D

41-C

42-B

43-A

44-D

45-B

46-A

47-C

48-B

49-A

50-B

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1-B

ĐỀ SỐ 07 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. species

B. specify

C. spectrum

D. special

Question 2:

A. wrong

B. wrist

C. windy

D. two

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. religious

B. librarian

C. commercial

D. Japanese

Question 4:

A. technology

B. activity

C. experience

D. presentation

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: It would be much better if everyone were charge for the amount of rubbish one produced.

A. much better

B. were

C. amount

D. one

Question 6: Finished her household chores, Mary decided to do some shopping A. finished

B. household chores

C. to do

D. shopping

Question 7: Not long after Galileo’s time, Sir Isaac Newton invented another kind of telescope which he used mirrors instead of lenses.

A. not long after

B. another kind of

C. which he used

D. intead

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: This surface________rough but it________smooth A. feels/touches

B. appears/tastes

C. sees/smells

D. looks/feels

Question 9: ________with the size of the whole Earth, the highest mountains do not seem high at all

A. Compare them

B. If you compare

C. When compared

D. A comparison

Question 10: I’m sure that you can recognize her at the station; she________a red raincoat A. will be wearing

B. will have been wearing

C. is going to wear

D. will have worn

Question 11: This________dictionary includes a few animations A. electricity

B. electric

C. electronic

D. electrical

Question 12: When exactly did the war________between two countries?

A. go off

B. set in

C. call off

D. break out

Question 13: Maria Sharapova became the first Russian________a Wimbledon single title.

A. to win

B. that was winning

C. who wins

D. which won

Question 14: His________of safety regulations really can’t be ignored any longer A. inattention

B. disregard

C. carelessness

D. unfamiliarity

Question 15: ________the first time I met Tom was at college A. As much as I remember

B. As far as I remember

C. As well as I remember

D. As soon as I remember

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Question 16: Very________people went to the show but it still started on time A. much

B. a few

C. little

D. few

Question 17: “I would rather you________me the truth right now.”

A. told

B. tell

C. said

D. say

Question 18: Do you know that wine is made________grapes?

A. out of

B. of

C. from

D. with

Question 19: Heavy snowfalls made________planes to land or take off A. it impossible

B. impossible for

C. impossible

D. it impossible for

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “Make yourself at home.”

“________________________”

A. Not at all. Don’t mention it.

B. Yes. Can I help you?

C. That’s very kind. Thank you

D. Thanks! Same to you

Question 21: “I got 8.0/9.0 for the IELTS test!” “

.”

A. Good for you. Thank you

B. It’s OK. I’m proud of you

C. You can do it

D. Well done, son! I’m very proud of you

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to theunderlinedword(s)ineachofthefollowingquestions.

Question 22: I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry A. hopeless

B. hopeful

C. unsuccessful

D. successful

Question 23: Tourists today flock to see the two falls that actually constitute Niagara falls A. come without knowing what they will see B. come in large numbers C. come out of boredom

D. come by plane

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Her father likes the cabbage rare A. over-boiled

B. precious

C. scarce

D. scare

Question 25: My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance A. be optimistic

B. be pessimistic

C. be confident

D. be smart

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest

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in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: My cousin was named after his grandfather.

A. They named his grandfather before they named him B. My cousin’s grandfather gave him a name.

C. My cousin has the same name as his grandfather’s

D. My cousin was renamed as requested by his grandfather

Question 27: To some people, the sinking of the Titanic was the captain's fault A. To some people, the captain was to blame for the sinking of the Titanic B. Some people were blamed for the sinking of the Titanic C. The Titanic sank due to the captain’s fault

D. Some people put the blame to the captain about the sinking of the Titanic

Question 28: It’s likely that John will be late for the meeting.

A. John likes the meeting although he can be late B. John is probably late for the meeting

C. The meeting is likely to be late because of John

D. John is often late for the meeting, so we don’t like it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions

Question 29: Most scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard of him.

A. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public B. Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name C. Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public D. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do Question 30: I think my hair looks fine. My mother believes it needs a little more brushing A. Not only do I think my hair looks fine, but my mother also believes it needs a little more brushing

B. I think my hair looks so fine that my mother believes it needs a little more brushing C. I think my hair looks fine, but my mother believes it needs a little more brushing D. Either my mother believes it needs a little more brushing or I think my hair looks fine Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that will help you in being an employee? The schools teach a (31) __________ many things of value to the future

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accountant, doctor or electrician. Do they also teach anything of value to the future employee? The answer is: “Yes - they teach the one thing that it is perhaps most valuable for the future employee to know. But very few students bother (32)___________ it. This one basic skill is the ability to organize and express ideas in writing and in speaking. This means that your success as an employee will depend on your ability to communicate with people and to (33)___________ your own thoughts and ideas to them so they will (34)___________ understand what you are driving at and be persuaded.

Of course, skill in expression is not enough (35)___________ itself. You must have

something to say in the first place. The effectiveness of your job depends as much on your ability to make other people understand your work as it does on the quality of the work itself.

Question 31:

A. large

B. great

C. far

D. lots

Question 32:

A. to learning

B. with learning

C. to learn

D. learn

Question 33:

A. interpret

B. give out

C. transfer

D. present

Question 34:

A. both

B. not

C. as well

D. either

Question 35:

A. on

B. for

C. by

D. in

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

The Census Counts!

Every ten years there is a national census to count the number of people. The census

counts the number of people in each area, the number of men and women, their ages, their profession, their family size and status. The census is the only way to count everyone. Its results are used by a great many people and are available to everyone. The census is useful; it helps to work out present and future needs for housing by seeing how many people are housed now, or the sizes and ages of their families. In addition, the size of annual grants made by the Government to public services depends largely on the numbers and needs of people in the area provided by the census. Furthermore, the census shows how many people

have moved from one area to another and how the number of the local work force is changing.

The census is taken in order to provide the figures about the nation as a whole. It does not give information about any named person, family or household. Therefore, names and addresses are needed on the forms but they are not fed into the computer. After the census, the forms with the names on are locked away and will not be released to anyone outside the Census Office for 100 years. The answers people give on their census forms will be treated in

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strict confidence. Everyone working on the census is sworn to secrecy and can be sued if he or she improperly reveals information

Question 36: Which of the following does the census not take interest in?

A. How many houses you have

B. How old you are

C. What your job is

D. How big your family is

Question 37: Census results________ A. are not used for anyone

B. are kept in secret forever

C. can be used for everyone

D. are used by no one

Question 38: How the size of grants to local services is based on information from the census?

A. completely

B. very much

C. a little

D. not at all

Question 39: Which of the following statement is NOT true?

A. There are names and age on the census forms

B. The census reveals everyone’s personal information C. People must supply personal information

D. The census information is stored in a computer

Question 40: Which of the following is true about the information of names and addresses in the census?

A. It is stored in the computer for 100 years.

B. It is not usually correct

C. It will not be seen by anyone.

D. It will be made public after 100 years Question 41: The word “sued” in the last sentence is closest in meaning to________ A. legally sewn

B. legally sound

C. legally punished

D. legally fine

Question 42: The word “counts” in the title means________ A. is important

B. the counting

C. accounting

D. to count people

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name from the Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity.

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Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater

earthquake or volcano for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.

Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic

activity. Two areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often come with little warning and can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their imminent arrival.

Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced

a calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel Question 43: The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses?

A. underwater earthquakes

B. storm surges

C. tides

D. tidal waves

Question 44: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that________ A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides

B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community C. they are the same as tsunamis D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves Question 45: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis________ A. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean

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D. are often identified by ships on the ocean

Question 46: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more likely to________

A. come from greater distances

B. originate in Alaska

C. be less of a problem

D. arrive without warning

Question 47: The possessive “their” in paragraph 3 refers to________ A. the Hawaiian Islands

B. thousands of miles

C. these tsunamis

D. the inhabitants of Hawaii

Question 48: A “calamitous” tsunami, in paragraph 4, is one that is________ A. at fault

B. disastrous

C. extremely calm

D. expected

Question 49: From the expression “on record” in the last paragraph, it can be inferred that the tsunami that accompanied the Krakatoa volcano________ A. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon B. might not be the greatest tsunami ever C. was filmed as it was happening

D. occurred before efficient records were kept

Question 50: The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano A. was far more destructive close to the source than far away B. resulted in little damage

C. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands

D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel

Đáp án 2-C

3-D

4-D

5-D

6-A

7-C

8-D

9-C

10-A

11-C

12-D

13-A

14-B

15-B

16-D

17-A

18-C

19-D

20-C

21-D

22-D

23-B

24-A

25-B

26-C

27-A

28-B

29-C

30-C

31-B

32-C

33-D

34-A

35-C

36-A

37-C

38-B

39-B

40-D

41-C

42-A

43-B

44-A

45-C

46-D

47-C

48-B

49-B

50-Á

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1-A

Đề số 08 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. interview

B. minute

C. question

D. suitable

Question 2:

A. garbage

B. subtle

C. climbing

D. debtor

173576 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

A. unselfish

B. sympathy

C. quality

D. principle

Question 4:

A. introduce

B. entertain

C. successfu

D. millionaire

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Question 3:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: What I love most about the book that was the close-knit friendship of the three friends.

A. What

B. about

C. that was

D.close-knit friendship

Question 6: However well my sister made at school, she never seems to be satisfied with the results.

A. However

B. made

C. to be satisfied

D. the results

Question 7: Some studies show that young babies prefer the smell of milk to those of other liquids.

A. young babies

B. smell

C. smell

D. other liquids

Question 8: Tom was accused ____________ some top secret document.

A. to steal

B. of having stolen

C. for stealing

D. to have stolen

Question 9: Sometimes ___________ wears people out and is worse than the lack of sleep itself

A. to sleep the desire

B. the desire to sleep

C. to desire to sleep is D. The desire to sleep

wh

Question 10: We were late because we had some car problems. By the time we ___________ to the station, Susan ____________ for us for more than two hours. A A. are getting/had waited

B. got/waited

C. had got/had waited

D. got/ had been waiting

Question 11: Preparing for a job interview can be very _______________.

A. stress

B. stressful

C. stressed

Question 12: ______________ but for his help yesterday?

D. stressing

A. What did you do

B. How would you do C. What would you have done D. How had

you done Question 13: Don’t worry, we will have to wait a little longer because I’m sure he will ___________ soon.

A. turn up

B. turn in

C. turn into

D. turn down

Question 14: I tried every key in turn but not __________ fitted.

A. none

B. each

C. any

D. one

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Question 15: She complains noisily about everything she doesn’t like. She is the type of person who is always _____________.

A. making a fuss

B. doing a fuss

C. creating a fuss

D. giving a fuss

Question 16: That cannot be a true story. He ____________ it up.

A. can have made

B. must have made

Question 17: They asked me ______

C. would have made

D. should have made

in London then.

A. is my brother working

B. was my brother working

C. if my brother was working

D. if my brother is working

Question 18: She blamed ___________ me ___________ not explaining the lesson __________ her carefully.

A. on – for – to

B. for – on – for

C. ø – about – for

D. ø – for – to

Question 19: It _____________me more than an hour to download your photos you uploaded to your Facebook sites.

A. took

B. gave

C. sent

D. forwarded

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “___________________________.” “ I have a terrible headache.”

A. What’s the problem to you?

B. What’s the matter with you?

C. What happens with you?

D. What causes you?

Question 21: Teacher: “ John, you’ve written a much better essay this time.”

John: “_______________________.”

A. Writing? Why?

B. You’re welcome.

C. Thank you. It’s really encouraging.

D. What did you say? I’m so shy.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: It is common practice to look at the person you are talking to.

A. exercise

B. policy

C. skill

D. habit

Question 23: Our new teacher has a good sense of humor.

A. ability to amuse people

B. ability to frighten people

C. responsibility

D. commitment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

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Question 24: Strongly advocating health foods, Jane doesn’t eat any chocolate.

A. supporting

B. impugning

C. advising

D. denying

Question 25: I’m sorry I can’t come out this weekend – I’m up to my ears in work.

A. very busy

B. very bored

C. very scared

D. very idle

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Scarcely had he got out of the house when it started raining.

A. He got out of the house after it started raining.

B. He had no sooner got out of the house when it started raining.

C. He was getting out of the house when it started raining.

D. It started raining right after he got out of the house.

Question 27: Most students are aware of the importance of English.

A. Not every student is aware of the importance of English.

B. Not a single student is unaware of the importance of English.

C. All students are aware of the importance of English.

D. Almost all students are aware of the importance of English.

Question 28: The airport taxes are included in the ticket price.

A. You need to pay for ticket and airport taxes.

B. The ticket is included in the airport taxes.

C. The ticket price covers the airport taxes.

D. The airport taxes and ticket price should be paid separately.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: We didn’t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.

A. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.

B. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.

C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.

D. We didn’t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.

Question 30: Everyone expected Clement‟s party to be a disaster. It was exactly the opposite.

A. Clement didn’t expect his party to go badly, but everybody else did.

B. Completely contrary to everyone’s expectations, Clement’s party was really good.

C. The expectation was that Clement‟s party wouldn’t be successful, and it wasn’t.

D. Just as everyone had predicted, Clement’s party was not a disaster.

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Public awareness of the value of recycling materials such (31)___________ plastic,

paper, and glass is increasing daily in all corners of the globe. In some countries these efforts are being (32)___________ by the local governments and in others, by individuals.

Participation in these programs is at an all-time high. In the small town of Truro in eastern Massachusetts, for example, space in the local landfill has run out; therefore, residents have had to think of new ways to (33)___________ of their trash. With no room for items such as newspaper, bottles, and old lumber at the land fill, local residents have come up with many (34)___________ programs to recycle and/ or reuse what was once thought of as only trash.

For instance, yard waste such as leaves and grass which used to be thrown in the landfill is now broken down and made into compost used by local people as fertilizer in their gardens.

In addition, (35)___________ plastics, newspapers, bottles and cans are sold to a recycling company, thereby bringing in revenue for the town.

Question 31:

A. like

B. with

C. alike

D. as

Question 32:

A. initiated

B. introduced

C. participated

D. brought

Question 33:

A. disapprove

B. dispose

C. discard

D. throw

Question 34:

A. improved

B. reforming

C. innovative

D. progressive

Question 35:

A. reproductive

B. circulating

C. recyclable

D. wasted

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Homing pigeons are placed in a training program from about the time they are twentyeight days of age. They are taught to enter the loft through a trap and to exercise above and around the loft, and gradually they are taken away for short distances in wicker baskets and released. They are then expected to find their way home in the shortest possible time.

In their training flights or in actual races, the birds are taken to prearranged distant points and released to find their way back to their own lofts. Once the birds are liberated, their owners, who are standing by at the home lofts, anxiously watch the sky for the return of their entries. Since time is of the essence, the speed with which the birds can be induced to enter the loft trap may make the difference between gaining a win or a second place.

The head of a homing pigeon is comparatively small, but its brain is one quarter larger than that of the ordinary pigeon. The homing pigeon is very intelligent and will persevere to

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the point of stubbornness; some have been known to fly a hundred miles off course to avoid a storm.

Some homing pigeon experts claim that this bird is gifted with a form of built-in radar

that helps it find its own loft after hours of flight, for hidden under the head feathers are two very sensitive ears, while the sharp, prominent eyes can see great distances in daytime.

Why do homing pigeons fly home? They are not unique in this inherent skill: it is

found in most migratory birds, in bees, ants, toads, and even turtles, which have been known to travel hundreds of miles to return to their homes. But in the animal world, the homing pigeon alone can be trusted with its freedom and trained to carry out the missions that people demand.

Question 36: What is the purpose of the passage?

A. To convince the reader to buy a homing pigeon.

B. To inform the reader about homing pigeons and their training.

C. To protect homing pigeons against the threat of extinction.

D. To encourage the owners of homing pigeons to set the birds free.

Question 37: According to the passage, what happens to homing pigeons when they are about a month old?

A. They are kept in a trap.

B. They enter their first race.

C. They begin a training program.

D. They get their wings clipped and marked.

Question 38: In paragraph 2, when the author states that the owners "anxiously watch the sky" there is the implication that the owners _______________________.

A. want their pigeon to win the race

B. are sending radar signals to their pigeons

C.do not know whether the race began on time D. do not trust the rules set down by the judges Question 39: According to the passage, what is the difference between a homing pigeon and an ordinary one?

A. The span of the wings

B. The shape of the eyes

C. The texture of the feathers

D. The size of the brain

Question 40: The author mentions all of the following at tributes that enable a homing pigeon to return home EXCEPT ____________________.

A. instinct

B. air sacs

C. sensitive ears

D. good eyes

Question 41: In the fourth paragraph, the pronoun "it" refers to which of the following?

A. Radar

B. Bird

C. Loft

D. Form

Question 42: Why does the author mention bees, ants, toads, and turtles in the last paragraph?

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A. To describe some unusual kinds of pets.

B. To measure distances traveled by various animals.

C. To compare their home-finding abilities with those of homing pigeons.

D. To interest the reader in learning about other animals.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

ACADEMICS AREN’T THE PROBLEM

Studies about how students use their time might shed light on whether they face

increased academic and financial pressures compared with earlier eras.

The data show that full-time students in all types of colleges study much less now than

they did a generation ago - a full 10 hours a week less. Students are also receiving significantly higher grades. So it appears that academic pressures are, in fact, considerably lower than they used to be. The time-use data don‟t suggest that students feel greater financial pressures, either.

When the time savings and lower opportunity costs are factored in, college appears less expensive for most students than it was in the 1960s. And though there are now more full-time students working for pay while in college, they study less even when paid work choices are held constant.

In other words, full-time students do not appear to be studying less in order to work

more. They appear to be studying less and spending the extra time on leisure activities or fun. It seems hard to imagine that students feeling increased financial pressures would respond by taking more leisure.

Based on how students are spending their time then, it doesn‟t look as though academic or financial pressures are greater now than a generation ago. The time-use data don‟t speak directly to social pressures, and it may well be that these have become more intense lately.

In one recent set of data, students reported spending more than 23 hours per week either socializing with friends or playing on the computer for fun. Social activities, in person or on

computer, would seem to have become the major focus of campus life. It is hard to tell what kinds of pressures would be associated with this change.

Question 43: Research studies have shown that pressures put on students nowadays are __________.

A. much greater than the past

B. not greater than the past

C. getting ever greater

D. more diversified

Question 44: Which of the following is used by the author as the proof of academic pressures

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being lower than before?

A. More students work while in college

B. Students get higher grades

C. Students study less

D. Both B & C

Question 45: All factors considered, college now seems___________ .

A. even more expensive

B. more costly

C. less expensive

D. much more expensive

Question 46: According to the author, the fact that more full-time students are working for pay________.

A. is not an indication of pressures

B. shows that students are financially pressured C. does not change students‟ campus life

D. indicates that students are academically pressured

Question 47: The author finds it hard to point out___________.

A. the cause to students‟ financial pressure

B. what is associated with the change in students‟ campus life

C. how students‟ campus life becomes subject to academic pressure D. how the background of students‟ campus life is built

Question 48: The word “focus” in the last paragraph can be replaced with__________.

A. headline

B. biggest importance C. primary theme

D. central activity

Question 49: According to the author, the fact that students have more time for leisure is a proof that ______.

A. financial pressure on students is not a problem B. they are active with extra-curricular activities C. academic work disinterests them D. they cannot find extra jobs Question 50: The word “Academics” in the title mostly means___________ A. college students and tutors

B. professors and research students

C. students‟ workload in college

D. graduate students‟ workload Đáp án

2-A

3-A

4-C

5-C

6-B

7-C

8-B

9-B

10-D

11-B

12-C

13-A

14-D

15-A

16-B

17-C

18-D

19-A

20-B

21-C

22-D

23-A

24-B

25-D

26-D

27-A

28-C

29-B

30-B

31-D

32-A

33-B

34-C

35-C

36-B

37-C

38-A

39-B

40-B

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1-C

41-B

42-C

43-B

44-D

45-C

46-A

47-B

48-D

49-A

50-C

ĐỀ 09 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. exhibition

B. childhood

C. holiday

D. hilarious

Question 2:

A. tough

B. rough

C. enough

D. through

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

A. gorilla

B. panda

C. parrot

D. leopard

Question 4:

A. considerate

B. photographer

C. community

D. residental

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Question 3:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: The Earth is the only planet with a large number of oxygen in its atmosphere.

A. the

B. a large number

C. oxygen

D. its

Question 6: Robert Frost was not well known as a poet until he reached the forties.

A. as

B. a poet

C. reached

D. the

Question 7: A five-thousand-dollars reward was offered for the capture of the escaped criminals.

A. a

B. dollars

C. offered

D. for the cature of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: We cleaned up the room as soon as the guests ____________.

A. had left

B. have left

C. left

D. were leaving

C. slightly tall

D. slight taller

Question 9: “How tall is Ralph?”

“He’s __________ than you are.”

A. slightly taller

B. slight tall

Question 10: Nowadays, most developed countries have brought malaria ___________ control.

A. in

B. below

C. to

D. under

Question 11: Due to _______ fuel prices, the company has decided to add a surcharge to all deliveries.

A. rise

B. arisen

C. rose

D. rising

Question 12: Let me please _______ my memory before I get down to answering the questions.

A. resume

B. ease

C. awake

D. refresh

Question 13: Our teacher told us that if we don’t ___________ the environment, our grandchildren may not even be able to carry on living.

A. look into

B. look out for

C. look after

D. look for

Question 14: Have you seen today’s paper? It _______ they’ve caught those million-pound bank robbers.

A. writes

B. says

C. tells

D. talks about

Question 15: If a person wants to get a tube of toothpaste, he will probably go to

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_____________.

A. the greengrocer’s

B. the barber’s

C. the dentist’s

D. the chemist’s

Question 16: Mr. Hamilton recently found a sister who was thought ____________ thirty years ago.

A. to have been killed B. to have killing

Question 17: It was ______

C. to have killed

D. to have been killing

we met Mr. Brown in Tokyo.

A. before many years ago

B. since many years ago when

C. many years ago that

D. for many years since

Question 18: Mary wondered ___________ her father looked like now, after so many years away.

A. whose

B. how

C. that

D. what

Question 19: The town _____________ we are living is noisy and crowde d.

A. in where

B. which

C. at which

D. where

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “The test result will be released at 9 a.m tomorrow.”

“Will it? ________________.”

A. Can I wait for it?

B. Could it wait?

C. Yes, please.

D. I can’t wait!

Question 21: “ I don’t think I can do this.”

“_______________________.”

A. Oh, come on. Give it a try.

B. Yeah, it’s not easy.

C. No, I hope not.

D. Sure, no way!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: For a decade, that scientist has studied centenarians, looking for genes that contribute to longevity.

A. people who live to be 100 or older

B. people who are vegetarians

C. people who want to be fruitarians

D. people who are extraordinary

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 23: We went away on holiday last week but it rained day in, day out.

A. every other day

B. every single day

C. every second day

D. every two days

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in

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meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Because she usually behaves in a very weird way, people think that she’s rather strange.

A. usual

B. average

C. conventional

D. standard

Question 25: I’m really feeling under the weather today; I have a terrible cold.

A. diseased

B. indisposed

C. ailing

D. well

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: “You have just got a promotion, haven’t you? Congratulations!” Peter said to his friend.

A. Peter dream of getting promotion.

B. Peter told his friend if his friend getting a promotion.

C. Peter asked his friend on getting a promotion.

D. Peter congratulated his friend on getting a promotion.

Question 27: He couldn’t retake the exam because he missed too many lessons.

A. He would retake the exam if he didn’t miss too many lessons.

B. He could have retaken the exam if he hadn’t missed too many lessons.

C. If he missed too many lessons, he wouldn’t retake the exam.

D. If he had missed too many lessons, he wouldn’t have retaken the exam.

Question 28: Start at once or you will be late.

A. Unless you start immediately, you won’t be late.

B. You would be late if you didn’t start at once.

C. If you don’t start immediately, you will be late.

D. If you started at once, you wouldn’t be late.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: James did not come. He did not call either.

A. James did not come, so he did not call.

B. James did not come and he did not call, too.

C. James did not came but he called afterwards.

D. James neither came nor called.

Question 30: They couldn’t think of anything better to do. They decided to baby-sit for the family.

A. As long as they couldn’t think of anything better to do, they decided to baby-sit for the family.

B. They couldn’t think of anything better to do, yet they decided to baby-sit for the family.

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C. Since they couldn’t think of anything better to do, they decided to baby-sit for the family.

D. As soon as they couldn’t think of anything better to do, they decided to baby-sit for the

family.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Just as more English is being taught in primary schools worldwide, so there are a

growing number of language schools in English-speaking countries that are (31)___________ courses for younger learners. In Britain most young learners' courses are (32)___________ to 11-year-olds and upwards, with a few that cater for children as young as seven. But what is a sensible age to start sending children abroad to study? (33)___________, even adult learners find the experience of travelling to a strange country and encountering people who speak an incomprehensible language challenging?

A great deal depends on how a child has been (34)___________ up. For example, if

they have been exposed to new things and have already started to learn independence, then they are likely to prosper. Further on, children who have previously travelled abroad with their parents are usually more prepared for a study (35)___________ in an English-speaking country on their own than those who have not.

Question 31:

A. granting

B. setting

C. offering

D. studying

Question 32:

A. open

B. fit

C. suit

D. access

Question 33:

A. At last

B. At the end

C. After all

D. Finally

Question 34:

A. turned

B. bought

C. put

D. grown

Question 35:

A. travel

B. journey

C. voyage

D. trip

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Thanksgiving is celebrated in the US on the fourth Thursday in November. For many Americans it is the most important holiday apart from Christmas. Schools, offices and most businesses close for Thanksgiving, and many people make the whole weekend a vacation.

Thanksgiving is associated with the time when Europeans first came to North America. In 1620 the ship the Mayflowers arrived, bringing about 150 people who today are usually called Pilgrims. They arrived at the beginning of a very hard winter and could not find enough to eat, so many of them died. But in the following summer Native Americans

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showed them what foods were safe to eat, so that they could save food for the next winter.

They held a big celebration to thank God and the Native Americans for the fact that they had survived.

Today people celebrate Thanksgiving to remember these early days. The most

important part of the celebration is a traditional dinner with foods that come from North America. The meal includes turkey, sweet potatoes (also called yams) and cranberries, which are made into a kind of sauce or jelly. The turkey is filled with stuffing or dressing, and many families have their own special recipe. Dessert is pumpkin made into a pie.

On Thanksgiving there are special television programs and sports events. In New

York there is the Macy's Thanksgiving Day Parade, when a long line of people wearing fancy costumes march through the streets with large balloons in the shape of imaginary characters.

Thanksgiving is considered the beginning of the Christmas period, and the next day many people go out to shop for Christmas presents.

Question 36: What is the purpose of the passage?

A. To compare how Thanksgiving was celebrated in the past and today.

B. To give an overview of a popular celebration in the US. C. To explain the existence of a celebration in the US. D. To introduce a Native American culture.

Question 37: In the United States, Thanksgiving is ______.

A. a religious celebration held by Christians only.

B. celebrated as a public holiday.

C. more important than Christmas.

D. apart from Christmas.

Question 38: According to the passage, Pilgrims are ______.

A. people who traveled to America by ships B. trips that religious people make to a holy place C. people who left their home and went to live in North America in 1620s

D. Native Americans who live in North America Question 39: All of the following statements are mentioned EXCEPT ______.

A. People celebrate Thanksgiving to thank God. B. People usually have traditional dinners on Thanksgiving.

C. There are lots of entertainments on Thanksgiving.

D. People go to churches for religious services on Thanksgiving.

Question 40: Which of the following statements is not TRUE about Thanksgiving ______?

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A. turkey, yams and pumpkin pies are served.

B. people join in the Macy's Thanksgiving Day Parade.

C. people wear colored costumes marching through the streets.

D. people go out to shop for Christmas presents.

Question 41: In the second paragraph, the pronoun "them" refers to which of the following?

A. Pilgrims

B. the Mayflowers

C. Native Americans D. Schools

Question 42: Which of the following is NOT true?

A. In the US, Thanksgiving is not a national holiday; it's a religious holiday.

B. Christmas comes less than a month after Thanksgiving.

C. Thanksgiving was originally celebrated by the first Europeans in North America to thank

God for their survival.

D. The Macy's Thanksgiving Day Parade is colorful and exciting.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

A rather surprising geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater lake, one

of the world’s largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as Lake Vostok, this huge body of water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica.

The lake is able to exist in its unfrozen state beneath this block of ice because its waters are warmed by geothermal heat from the earth’s core. The thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually insulates it from the frigid temperatures on the surface.

The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an aerial survey of the area. Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of water of indeterminate size. It was not until much more recently that data collected by satellite made scientists aware of the tremendous size of the lake; the satellite-borne radar detected an extremely flat region where the ice remains level because it is floating on the water of the lake.

The discovery of such a huge freshwater lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to the scientific community because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived for thousands of years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated ultraviolet light that have affected organisms in more exposed areas. The downside of the discovery, however, lies in the difficulty of conducting research on the lake in such a harsh climate and in the problems associated with obtaining uncontaminated samples from the lake without actually exposing the lake to contamination. Scientists are looking for possible ways to

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accomplish this.

Question 43: The word “hidden” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. undrinkable

B. untouched

C. unexploitable

D. undiscovered

Question 44: What is true of Lake Vostok?

A. It is completely frozen.

B. It is saltwater lake.

C. It is beneath a thick slab of ice.

D. It is heated by the sun.

Question 45: Which of the following is closest in meaning to “frigid” in paragraph 1?

A. extremely cold

B. easily broken

C. quite harsh

D. lukewarm

Question 46: All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT that it______.

A. was conducted by air

B. made use of radio waves

C. could not determine the lake’s exact size

D. was controlled by a satellite

Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that the ice would not be flat if______.

A. there were no lake underneath

B. the lake were not so big

C. Antarctica were not so cold

D. radio waves were not used

Question 48: The word “microbes” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by which of the following?

A. Pieces of dust

B. Tiny bubbles

C. Tiny organisms

D. Rays of light

Question 49: Lake Vostok is potentially important to scientists because it______.

A. can be studied using radio waves

B. may contain uncontaminated microbes

C. may have elevated levels of ultraviolet light D. has already been contaminated Question 50: The purpose of the passage is to _____.

A. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered B. provide satellite data concerning Antarctica C. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok D. present an unexpected aspect of Antarctica’s geography

Đáp án 2-D

3-A

4-D

5-B

6-D

7-B

8-C

9-A

10-D

11-D

12-D

13-C

14-B

15-D

16-A

17-C

18-D

19-D

20-D

21-A

22-A

23-B

24-C

25-D

26-D

27-B

28-C

29-D

30-C

31-C

32-A

33-C

34-B

35-D

36-B

37-B

38-C

39-D

40-D

41-A

42-A

43-B

44-C

45-A

46-D

47-A

48-C

49-B

50-D

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

1-A

ĐỀ 10 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. superstar

B. harvest

C. particular

D. part

Question 2:

A. sword

B. swim

C. swallow

D. sweet

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

A. compulsory

B. biography

C. curriculum

D. admirable

Question 4:

A. difficult

B. simplicity

C. discovery

D. commodity

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Question 3:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: She is among the few who wants to quit smoking instead of cutting down.

A. among

B. wants

C. smoking

D. cutting down

Question 6: We felt asleep at the meeting because the speaker had such a monotonous voice.

A. felt

B. asleep

C. because

D.such a monotonous

Question 7: The development of transistors made possible it to reduce the size of many electronic devices.

A. development of

B. possible it

C. of many

D. electronic devices

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: How long ago ____________ the Civil War? A. was

B. happened

C. occurred

D. took place

Question 9: I‟m afraid very few people know about the concert and almost no one will come. If only the posters _____________ on time.

A. were hanging

B. were hung

C. were hanged

D. had been hung

Question 10: Jimmy sent his mother a ___________ of flowers for her birthday.

A. bar

B. bunch

C. pack

D. packet

Question 11: The boy with his two friends _____________ the cherry tree now.

A. has been splitting

B. have split

C.

is

splitting

D. are splitting Question 12: Susan cannot stand looking at the rat, __________ touching it.

A. even so

B. as far as

C. what it

D. let alone

Question 13: I‟d rather ___________ in the field than ____________ at home.

A. to work/to stay

B. working/staying

C. work/stay

D. worked/stayed

Question 14: My plans to travel around the world have _________ through because I couldn‟t save enough money.

A. fallen

B. dropped

C. given

D. put

Question 15: “I thought you bought a new fountain pen last week?” “Yes, I did but I left it at home. Can I borrow _____________ for a moment?”

A. the one of you

B. one of yours

C. one pen of you

D. the one of your pen

Question 16: There are only a few minutes left, and the students is writing

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

________________.

A. with a pressure

B. under the pressure C. to pressure

D. under pressure

Question 17: A little farther down the street _______________.

A. is the inn I used to stay at

B. there is an inn where I used to stay in

C. the inn is the place where I used to stay

D. is there an inn in which I used to stay

Question 18: Remember to appreciate what your friends do for you. You shouldn‟t take them ________.

A. as a rule

B. as usual

C. out of habit

D. for granted

Question 19: No one saw Jim came in. He came in without _____________.

A. anybody saw him

B. anybody sees him

C. being seen

D. been seen

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “I wonder if you could help me?” “______________”

A. No, what is it?

B. Really? How nice. C. Don‟t mention it.

D. I‟ll do my best.

What‟s the problem?

Question 21: “ Don‟t stay anywhere near the railway station at night. It‟s dangerous.” “_______________________.”

A. Ok. That will do.

B. They won‟t like it, I bet.

C. I definitely won‟t. Thank you.

D. Where on Earth have you been?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The activists were accused of contaminating the minds of our young people.

A. providing healthy ideas

B. nurturing

C. harming

D. keeping in the dark

Question 23: As a newspaper reporter she always wants to get information at first hand.

A. quickly

B. slowly

C. easily

D. directly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: There are several different kinds of faults in reading which are usually more exaggerated with foreign learners.

A. overestimated

B. understated

C. overemphasized

D. undertaken

Question 25: We left New York when I was six, so my recollections of it are rather faint.

A. explicable

B. unintelligible

C. clear

D. ambiguous

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: What he did came as no surprise to me.

A. He told me that he was not surprised.

B. His behaviour surprised me.

C. I was not surprised by his actions.

D. He was surprised when I came.

Question 27: You are all welcome to take any food you like.

A. Any food welcome to take if you like.

B. Please help yourself to any food that you like.

C.You don‟t have to pay for any food that you like.

D. It‟s my pleasure to take any food you like.

Question 28: The firemen were in time to save the people but not the house.

A. The house was saved but the people were lost.

B.The people were saved and so was the house.

C. Both the people and the house were lost in the fire.

D.The people were saved but the house was lost.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: They are my two sisters. They aren‟t teachers like me.

A. They are my two sisters, both of those are teachers like me.

B. They are my two sisters, neither of whom are teachers like me.

C. Unlike me, neither of my two sisters aren‟t teachers.

D. They are my two sisters who neither are teachers like me.

Question 30: The human brain is ten times the size of a baboon‟s. It weighs about 1,400 grams.

A. The size of human brain is ten times that of a baboon‟s which is about 1,400 grams weigh.

B. The size of a baboon‟s brain is 1,400 grams, ten times that of the human one.

C. The human brain, which weighs about 1,400 grams, is ten times the size of a baboon’s.

D. The weight of a baboon‟s brain is 1,400 grams, ten-fold than that of the human one.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Last year thieves broke into a Scottish stately home and stole only one thing: a rhino horn trophy, which at 1.5 meters was the longest in the world. Meanwhile, in China, pharmaceutical factories have been building up (31)___________ of antiques made from rhino horn, for the sole

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purpose of smashing them to powder to make the (32)___________ ingredient of many of their medicines. And in Zimbabwe, 34 poachers died in 1990 in the search for the black rhino.

Recently, conservationists met to (33)___________a campaign to persuade countries

where rhino horn is still part of the traditional medicine to switch to substitutes. The biggest threat to the survival of the rhinoceros is the refusal of certain countries to enforce a ban on domestic trading in rhino horn.

The rhino horn is included in many doses for disorders raging from fevers to nosebleeds.

Horn, like fingernails, is made of keratin and has no proven medicinal (34)___________.

Traditional substitutes, such as horn from buffalo or antelope, are regarded as second best.

The battle is thought to be winnable. But it may be harder than the battle against the trade

in ivory, for there is a (35)___________between the two commodities. Ivory is a luxury; rhino horn, people believe, could save the life of their child.

Question 31:

A. bundles

B. collections

C. amounts

D. groups

Question 32:

A. real

B. actual

C. essential

D. true

Question 33:

A. design

B. plan

C. programme

D. form

Question 34:

A. capacity

B. property

C. control

D. powers

Question 35:

A. variation

B. comparison

C. variety

D. difference

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Beads were probably the first durable ornaments humans possessed, and the intimate

relationship they had with their owners is reflected in the fact that beads are among the most common items found in ancient archaeological sites. In the past, as today, men, women, and children adorned themselves with beads. In some cultures still, certain beads are often worn from birth until death, and then are buried with their owners for the afterlife. Abrasion due to daily wear alters the surface features of beads, and if they are buried for long, the effects of corrosion can further change their appearance. Thus, interest is imparted to the bead both by use and the effects of time.

Besides their wearability, either as jewelry or incorporated into articles of attire, beads possess the desirable characteristics of every collectible, they are durable, portable, available in infinite variety, and often valuable in their original cultural context as well as in today's market. Pleasing to look at and touch, beads come in shapes, colors, and materials that almost compel one to handle them and to sort them.

Beads are miniature bundles of secrets waiting to be revealed: their history, manufacture, cultural context, economic role, and ornamental use are all points of

D áş Y da K yk ĂˆM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ć N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

information one hopes to unravel. Even the most mundane beads may have traveled great distances and been exposed to many human experiences. The bead researcher must gather information from many diverse fields. In addition to having to be a generalist while specializing in what may seem to be a narrow field, the researcher is faced with the problem of primary materials that have little or no documentation. Many ancient beads that are of ethnographic interest have often been separated from their original cultural context.

The special attractions of beads contribute to the uniqueness of bead research. While

often regarded as the "small change of civilizations", beads are a part of every culture, and they can often be used to date archaeological sites and to designate the degree of mercantile, technological, and cultural sophistication.

Question 36: What is the main subject of the passage?

A. Materials used in making beads

B. How beads are made

C. The reasons for studying beads

D. Different types of beads

Question 37: The word "adorned" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to____________.

A. protected

B. decorated

C. purchased

D. enjoyed

Question 38: All of the following are given as characteristics of collectible objects EXCEPT ___________ .

A. durability

B. portability

C. value

D. scarcity

Question 39: According to the passage, all of the following are factors that make people want to touch beads EXCEPT the ________.

A. shape

B. color

C. material

D. odor

Question 40: The word "mundane" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. carved

B. ordinary

C. beautiful

D. heavy

Question 41: It is difficult to trace the history of certain ancient beads because they __________.

A. are small in size B. have been buried underground

C. have been moved from their original locations D. are frequently lost Question 42: Knowledge of the history of some beads may be useful in the studies done by which of the following _________.

A. Anthropologists

B. Agricultural experts C. Medical researchers D. Economists

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Milpa Alta is a region of twelve villages and towns to the south of Mexico City. In Milpa

Alta, traditions are still very important and one of the most famous traditional events is a community meal. It takes place every Christmas and is called La Rejunta. More than a meal, it’s a feast, where about sixty thousand tamales and fifteen thousand litres of hot chocolate are made and consumed. Tamales are made from corn. They are typical of the region: the name Milpa Alta means “High cornfield”. The feast is offered to the people who go on the long walk to El Señor de Chalma about 80 kilometers away. It’s an important event on the religious calendar for local people and as many as 20,000 people take part.

The planning and organisation of La Rejunta takes the whole year. Every year, different

people are given the job of majordomo, which means they’re responsible for organising the meal. There’s a waiting list for the opportunity to do this and currently the next available year is 2046. This year’s majordomos are Virginia Meza Torres and her husband Fermín Lara Jiménez, who put their names on the list 14 years ago.

One year before the meal, men go to the forest and collect wood that they store near the

home of the majordomo. It has to be dry when it’s used to make the cooking fires. Local farmers grow most of the corn, meat and vegetables that are needed as ingredients. In the week before the feast, hundreds of volunteers arrive to help with the preparation and the cooking. No instant or ready-made foods are allowed. Amazingly, everyone seems to know what they have to do. On the day of the feast, the majordomos and others have stayed up all night cooking. Fermin is in charge of the numbers – making sure there are enough tamales for everyone.

For the people of Milpa Alta, eating together is one of their most important traditions.

One woman, Josefina García Jiménez, explains that sitting together at the table is like a glue that keeps people together. It feels like I am passing down a tradition, and when they are adults, they will remember what I have done. Here we have time to cook, time to think about the ingredients, time to show our kids through cooking that we love them. ‟ The time that everybody stays at the table after the meal has finished is just as important as the food. They talk, tell stories and laugh together. At Christmas, La Rejunta is a giant version of a family meal.

Question 43: What is the article about?

A. daily life in Mexico

B. farming in Milpa Alta

C. Mexican cuisine

D. traditions in Mexico

Question 44: In Milpa Alta, eating with other people is ____________.

A. difficult

B. important

C. unusual

D. abstained

Question 45: What’s unusual about La Rejunta?

B. The event lasts for many days.

C. The ingredients are very unusual.

D. The preparation only takes a few days.

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. A huge amount of food is made.

Question 46: What do the majordomos do?

A. cook the food for La Rejunta

B. grow food for La Rejunta

C. organise La Rejunta

D. collect wood for La Rejunta

Question 47: According to the article, which statement is true?

A. Not many people want to be majordomos.

B. People wait a long time to be majordomos.

C. Virginia Meza Torres has been a majordomo for 14 years.

D. A majordomo has the right to spend the night sleeping on the day of the feast.

Question 48: According to the third paragraph, which sentence is true?

A. After the meal, people do the dishes together.

B. It takes a week to organise La Rejunta.

C. The majordomos do everything themselves.

D. All the food for the meal is from the local area.

Question 49: Fermin _________.

A. cooks the tamales.

B. counts the amount of food.

C. tells the volunteers what to do.

D. makes plan for the next La Rejunta.

Question 50: According to the last paragraph, the important thing about family meals is _____________.

A. being together

B. the cook

C. the food

D. the ingredients

Đáp án 1-C

2-A

3-D

4-A

5-B

6-A

7-B

8-A

9-D

10-B

11-C

12-D

13-C

14-A

15-B

16-D

17-A

18-D

19-C

20-D

21-C

22-C

23-D

24-B

25-C

26-B

27-B

28-D

29-B

30-C

31-B

32-C

33-B

34-D

35-D

36-C

37-B

38-D

39-D

40-B

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T 41-C 42-A 43-D 44-B 45-A 46-C 47-B 48-D 49-B 50-A

ĐỀ 11 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. yield

B. community

C. misty

D. nursery

Question 2:

A. milk

B. yolk

C. walk

D. folk

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions A. genuine

B. kangaroo

C. generous

D. fortunate

Question 4:

A. technique

B. regional

C. satellite

D. interesting

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Question 3:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Slightly over half of the population of El Paso, Texas, says both English and Spanish.

A. Slightly

B. half

C. polulation

D. says

Question 6: During the Middle Ages, handwriting notices kept groups of nobles informed of important events.

A. During

B. handwriting

C. kept

D. informed of

Question 7: Those who had already purchased tickets were instructed to go to gate first immediately.

A. Those

B.had already purchasedC. first

D. immediately

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: I feel terrible, I didn’t sleep _______________ last night.

A. a jot

B. a wink

C. an inch

D. an eye

Question 9: I’m going to market all efforts to win a gold medal in ___________ for your help and concern.

A. return

B. mind

C. allowances

D. memory

Question 10: The manager charged her ___________ irresponsibility and dishonesty.

A. for

B. on

C. about

D. with

Question 11: I _____________ the newspaper now. You can take it.

A. have been reading B. will read

C. am reading

D. have read

Question 12: ___________ stay the night if it’s too difficult to get home.

A. By all means

B. In all

C. At all costs

D. On the whole

Question 13: The ___________ you gain from taking part in our club is the ease of mind.

A. profit

B. improvement

C. benefit

D. advantage

Question 14: The growth of two-income families in the United States _______ of people moving to a new social class.

A. has resulted in millions

B. resulting in millions

C. results of millions

D. million of results

Question 15: The woman ___________ when the police told her that her son had died.

A. got over

B. fell apart

C. looked up

D. broke down

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Question 16: He couldn’t move the table. He had to get someone __________ him.

A. helping

B. help

C. to help

D. helped

Question 17: On being told about her sack, _______________.

A. her boss felt sorry for Mary

B. Mary was shocked

C. Mary’s face turned pale

D. All are correct

Question 18: Now, don’t tell anyone else what I have just told you. Remember it is ___________.

A. confidential

B. confident

C. confidence

D. confidant

Question 19: He bought three shirts; one for him and ____________ for his children.

A. others

B. the other

C. another

D. the others

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “I’m so upset. Everyone seems to betray me.” “ ________________________”

A. Relax. It’s not that bad

B. Yeah. I think you can do it.

C. Oh, I’m sorry

D. Don’t apologize them.

Question 21: “Let me pay for the meal. It’s my turn to shout” “ _________________________”

A. You’d better shout louder in case that they can’t hear you B. Don’t turn back like that. They may see you.

C. Certainly not! I will pay.

D. How often do you eat out?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Thanks to the invention of microscope, biologists can now gain insights into the nature of the human cell.

A. deep understanding

B. in-depth studies

C. spectacular sightings

D. far-sighted views

Question 23: To get the best deal on a new car, you need to know what a car is really worth.

A. get the highest quality

B. pay the lowest price

C. save the most amount of petrol

D. reach the fastest agreement

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: My friend and his soccer coach are incompatible. They are always arguing.

B. almost exactly the same type

C. really disliking each other

D. getting on very well

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. too different to work together

Question 25: People sometimes choose partners who compensate for their own shortcomings.

A. disadvantages

B. benefits

C. flaws

D. strengths

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: There is nothing new in the use of herbs and spices.

A. Herbs and spices have been used for a long time.

B. The use of herbs and spices is no longer difficult.

C.People used to use herbs and spices as a source of medicine.

D.People are no longer interested in using herbs and spices.

Question 27: It’s undeniable that the Internet plays a vital role in our life nowadays.

A. Nowadays our life without the Internet is deniable.

B. The Internet’s vital role is denied in our modern life

C.That the Internet is important to modern life is obvious.

D.The Internet is hardly undeniable in our life nowadays.

Question 28: If they eat fast food too frequently, they will soon have their waistline increased.

A. When eating fast food, people would loosen their waistline.

B. Fast food eaters will soon have their waistline fastened.

C.Eating fast food makes people get fat quickly.

D.People should loosen their belt when they eat fast.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: He wore glasses and a false beard. He wanted nobody to recognize him.

A. He wore glasses and a false beard lest anybody could recognize him.

B. He wore glasses and a false beard, and so nobody could recognize him.

C. So as not to meet anyone who recognize him, he wore glasses and a false beard.

D. He could avoid being recognized because he wore glasses and a false beard.

Question 30: He has retired. He watches football every afternoon on cable TV. A. Although he’s retired, he watches football every afternoon on cable B. Now that he’s retired, he watches football every afternoon on cable TV C. When he’s retired, he watches football every afternoon on cable TV

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D. He’s retired, so that he watches football every afternoon on cable TV.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

The Indonesian capital, with a population of over 10 million, has been named the

most packed city on the planet. Its greater metropolitan area, (31)___________ as Jabodetabek, is the second largest in the world.

From 21 to 25 November, the Guardian Cities team will be in Jakarta for a live week

of (32)___________ reporting and special events all about the issues shaping the city. As a key part of this week, we’d love to hear from local residents about local life and how it’s changing – for better (33)___________ worse – as well as aspiration for Jakarta’s future From huge street protests earlier this month against Jakarta’s Christian governor

Ahok’s alleged blashpheny in his comments about the Qur’an, to the president’s spokenperson saying there is “no room” for LBGT people in Indonesia and plans to ban gay networking apps like Grindr, have you witnessed social division in the city, or experienced discrimination yourself?

Is the city rapid development – including the proliferation of shopping malls and a

huge land reclamation project to help (34)___________ a growing population a positive or negative thing in your view?

If you live or work in Jakarta, we’d love to hear from you. From traffic and urban

development to community and culture, what are the best and worst things about life in the city? What would make Jakarta better, and what changes are most (35)___________ needed?

Question 31:

A. admiited

B. known

C. revealed

D. published

Question 32:

A. in-depth

B. deep

C. depth

D. in-deep

Question 33:

A. and

B. to

C. then

D. or

Question 34:

A. house

B. protect

C. store

D. contain

Question 35:

A. urgent

B. urgency

C. urgently

D. in urgent

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Certain birds are, more often than not, considered bad luck, or even a sign of impending death. For example, all over the world, both crows and ravens have some connection to war, and death. In early times, crows and ravens were thought to accompany the gods of war, or be signs of the god’s approaching arrival. This idea later changed. Crows

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in particular were thought to be harbingers of ill fortune or, in some cases, guides to the afterlife. Woe be it to the person who saw a single crow or raven flying overhead, for this was most certainly a portent of death in the near future.

Interestingly, though potentially bad luck for people individually, the raven is

considered to be good luck for the crown of England. So much so, in fact, that a “raven master” is, even today, an actual government position in London. He takes care of the ravens there and also clips their wings, ensuring that these birds can never fly far from the seat of the British government. This way, the kingdom will never fall to ill fortune.

Another bird that is thought to play a part in forecasting the fortunes of people is the

swallow. Depending on how and when it is seen, the swallow can be a harbinger of either good or ill fortune. Perhaps inspired the swallow’s red-brown breast, Christian people initially related the swallow to the death of Jesus Christ. Thus, people who saw a swallow fly through their house considered it a portent of death. Later, however, farmers began to consider swallows signs of good fortune. Any barn that has swallows living in it is sure to be blessed in the following year. Farmers also have to beware of killing a swallow; that would be certain to end any good luck they might have had.

Though many people think these superstitions are old wives’ tales, there is actually

some evidence to support them. For example, crows and ravens, being scavengers, appear at the aftermath of battles. Thus, large numbers of crows and ravens could be good indications of war in an area. As well, swallows feed on insects that can cause infections in cattle. Thus, a farmer who has many swallows in his barn may actually have healthier animals on his farm.

Therefore, the next time you feel inclined to laugh at an old wives’ tale, maybe you had better find out if there is any truth to it first!.

Question 36: What is the main idea of this reading?

A. Birds bring bad luck.

B. Don’t look a crow in the eye C. There are many superstitions surrounding birds.

D. Birds are important to English people.

Question 37: Which birds are considered harbingers of bad luck?

A. Crows

B. Swallows

C. Ravens

D. All of the above

Question 38: The word "portent" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. sign

B. coming

C. symbol

D. destruction

Question 39: Which is NOT true, according to the reading?

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. Some superstitions are based on reality.

B. Seeing a swallow is a sign of war and death in the future.

C. Ravens bring good luck for the country of England.

D. Crows eat dead animals.

Question 40: The word "old wives’ tales" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. stories told by housewives in the past

B. old beliefs which have been proved to be scientifically true

C. folk beliefs passed down from generation to generation without any reason of science D. folk tales about wives that were passed on to people in a spoken form

Question 41: How might a farmer attempt to prevent bad luck?

A. Catch a raven

B. Keep his windows open

C. Follow a crow

D. Avoid harming a swallow

Question 42: Swallows help keep cattle in barns healthier by ___________.

A. eating infected skin

B. consuming insects

C. singing

D. making cows happier

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

A newborn baby can see, hear and feel. By the age of five, a child can talk, ride a bike

and invent imaginary friends. How does this development happen? We don’t understand the way language, thinking and planning develop very well. Now scientists are using new technology to ‘see’ into children’s brains. And they are discovering new information about the way a baby’s brain develops.

A study in 2010 showed that the experiences a child has in their first few years affect the development of the brain. It showed that children who received more attention often had higher IQs. The brain of a newborn baby has nearly a hundred billion neurons. This is the same number as an adult‟s brain. As they grow, a baby receives information through the senses of sight,

hearing, smell, taste and touch. This information creates connections between different parts of the brain. At the age of three, there are a hundred trillion connections.

One experiment looked at images of babies’ brains while they were listening to different sounds. The sounds were in different sequences. For example, one sequence was mu-ba-ba. This is the pattern ‘A- B-B’. Another sequence was mu-ba-ge. This is the pattern ‘A-B-C’. The images showed that the part of the brain responsible for speech was more active during ‘A-B-B’ patterns. This shows that babies can tell the difference between different patterns. This

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experiment is interesting because sequences of words are important to grammar and meaning.

Compare two sentences with the same words in a different order: “John killed the bear” is very different from ‘The bear killed John’. So babies are starting to learn grammatical rules from the beginning of life.

Researchers also know that babies need to hear a lot of language in order to understand

grammar rules. But there is a big difference between listening to television, audio books or the internet, and interacting with people. One study compared two groups of nine-month-old American babies. One group watched videos of Mandarin Chinese sounds. In the other group, people spoke the same sounds to the babies. The test results showed that the second group could recognise different sounds, however the first group learned nothing.

The scientist, Patricia Kuhl, said this result was very surprising. It suggests that social

experience is essential to successful brain development in babies.

Question 43: The purpose of the article is to ____________.

A. explain new studies into the development of babies‟ brains.

B. describe how a new-born baby‟s brain works.

C. compare the brains of adults and children.

D. prove that nowadays babies are more intelligent than in the past.

Question 44: According to the first paragraph ____________.

A. most aspects of child development are understood quite well.

B. some five-year-olds have imaginary friends.

C. children use technology more these days.

D. technology has been used in children‟s brain surgery.

Question 45: Which statement is supported by the second paragraph?

A. Adult brains have more neurons than new-n ai ain B. Babies and three-year-olds have the same number of neurons.

C. Early experiences have an effect on brain development.

D. The connections between parts of the brain stay the same as a child grows up.

Question 46: According to the second paragraph, which of the following can affect IQ? A. being with adults a lot

B. connecting with other babies

C. paying attention to a baby

D. having access to information as early as

possible Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that ______________.

A. A pattern like ‘A-B-C’ is easier to understand B. Babies’ brains cannot recognise different sound patterns

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

C. It’s not known which area of a baby’s brain processes speech.

D. Children can actually learn grammatical rules in their very early age.

Question 48: According to the article, which statement is true?

A. Experiments focusing on language have given researchers new information.

B. Children who hear different languages develop differently.

C. The development of language is the easiest thing to study in babies.

D. Babies are able to understand grammar rules of a language only in specific period.

Question 49: What did the study described in the last paragraph do?

A. compare the effects of different languages

B. divide babies into two groups with different treatment C. investigate if babies can learn Chinese

D. teach babies foreign languages through listening to videos.

Question 50: What is the main conclusion from the study described in the last paragraph?

A. Babies can understand television at the age of nine months.

B. Social interaction has a big influence on the brain.

C. Watching videos is a good way to develop a child’s brain

D. Mandarin Chinese is not too hard to be learned for American babies. Đáp án

1-A

2-A

3-B

4-A

5-D

6-B

7-C

8-B

9-A

10-D

11-D

12-A

13-C

14-A

15-D

16-C

17-B

18-A

19-D

20-A

21-C

22-A

23-B

24-D

25-D

26-A

27-C

28-C

29-A

30-B

31-B

32-A

33-D

34-A

35-C

36-C

37-D

38-A

39-B

40-C

41-D

42-B

43-A

44-B

45-C

46-C

47-D

48-A

49-B

50-B

ĐỀ 12 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. chopstick

B. pork

C. moderate

D. common

Question 2:

A. sign

B. resign

C. foreign

D. signature

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

A. company

B. employment

C. atmosphere

D. miracle

Question 4:

A. attitude

B. infamous

C. envelop

D. regularly

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Question 3:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop star.

A. of whom the

B. parked

C. in front of the bank D. famous pop star

Question 6: Being that he was a good swimmer, John managed to rescue the child.

A. that he was

B. swimmer

C. rescue

D. child

Question 7: Each of the beautiful cars in the shop was quickly sold to their owner.

A. Each of

B. cars

C. quickly

D. their

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Three pounds of butter ____________ in this recipe.

A. needs

B. is needed

C. need

D. are needed

Question 9: The new law threatened to _____________ many people of the most elementary freedom.

A. deprive

B. deceive

C. snatch

D. depress

Question 10: She will be ill _____________________.

A. If she not take a few days rest

B. provided she takes a few days rest

C. unless she takes a few days rest

D. in case she takes a few days rest

Question 11: It’s _____________ that Mary couldn’t finish it alone.

A. so difficult a work

B. such difficult a work

C. so difficult a job

D. such difficult a job

Question 12: ___________________? Your eyes are red.

A. Did you cry

B. Have you been cried

C. Were you crying

D. Have you been crying

Question 13: When Tet holiday comes, Vietnamese people often feel inclined to ___________ their houses.

A. do up

B. do in

C. do over

D. do through

Question 14: These plants are popular and you can see them _________ anywhere.

A. hardly

B. nearly

C. at most

D. almost

Question 15: She demanded that she _____________ allowed to meet her son in prison.

A. was

B. were

C. be

D. would be

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Question 16: To protect ____________ hackers, security experts advise longer passwords ____________ combinations of upper and lowercase, as well as numbers.

A. on – between

B. against – with

C. from – to

D. about – inside

Question 17: She built a high wall around her garden _______________.

A. to enable people not taking her fruit

B. so that her fruit would be stolen

C. to prevent her fruit from being stolen

D. in order that her fruit not be stolen

Question 18: “She was great, wasn’t she?” “Absolutely, I can recall the last time I heard her ______________ such an inspiring speech.

A. has been delivering

B. to deliver

C. to be delivering

D. deliver

Question 19: I promise not to disturb you. I’ll just sit here and I’ll be as quiet as ________________.

A. sheep

B. fish

C. mouse

D. dog

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “Do you mind if I watch TV late tonight?” “______________”

A. I’d rather not. I have to get up early tomorrow.

B. Please, don’t. I can’t sleep with a TV on.

C. Yes. You can watch it as long as you want.

D. Yes, you mind. I also want to watch the football match tonight.

Question 21: “ How about coming to my English class tonight?” “_______________________.”

A. Sounds like fun! What time?

B. English is my favourite subject.

C. Don’t worry. Thanks.

D. Thanks. But what’s the problem?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Linda is very amiable and gregarious. She makes friends with whoever she meets.

A. introvert

B. optimistic

C. irritated

D. sociable

Question 23: Jane is very upset. I’d like you to try and smooth things over if you can.

A. tidy the place up for her

B. calm her down

C. tell her to go

D. hide the truth from her

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: 3 year-olds enjoy some make-believe games and are able to play out little stories such as bath the doll, then feed it and put it to bed.

A. imagining that something is real

B. forming a religious belief

C. role-playing

D. relating to something real

Question 25: I think it’s time we did away with the obsolete policies.

A. maintained

B. wiped out

C. abolished

D. looked out

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Astronomy greatly interests him.

A. He takes a keen interest in astronomy.

B.He finds astronomy very interested.

C.He is very interesting in astronomy.

D.Astronomy is the subject he enjoys the most.

Question 27: It was such a touching book that almost half of the readers cried.

A. Half of the readers almost cried for the touching book.

B.Almost half of the readers touched the book and cried.

C.Nearly half of the readers found the book touching.

D.Nearly half of the readers cried because of the moving book.

Question 28: The doctor was supposed to tell the patient about the operation procedures.

A. The procedures of the operation were told to the patient by the doctor as supposed.

B.Although the doctor should inform the patient of the procedures of the operation, he didn’t.

C.The doctor is going to advise the patient of the operation.

D.The patient supposes that the doctor will tell him about the procedures of the operation.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Who served the royalty in the palaces? People often say the Hakka did.

A. People often say the Hakka were those who served the royalty in the palaces.

B.It is often said who served the royalty were the Hakka in the palaces.

C.People often say that the Hakka knew who served the royalty in the palaces.

D.The Hakka often said to those who served the royalty in the palaces.

Question 30: My father complained frequently. He seldom blamed anything on his children.

A. My father complained as frequently as he blame things on his children.

B.My father complained more frequently than did he blame anything on his children.

C.My father complained frequently but seldom blamed anything on his children.

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D.My father never ever complained or blamed anything on his children.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Television has changed the lifestyle of people in every industrialized country in the

world. In the United States, where sociologists have studied the effects, some interesting observations have been made. TV, although not essential, has become a(n) (31) ______ part of most people’s lives. It has become a baby- sitter, an initiator of conversations, a major transmitter of culture, and a keeper of traditions. Yet when what can be seen on TV in one day is critically analyzed, it becomes evident that TV is not a teacher but a sustainer. The poor quality of programs does not elevate people into greater (32) ______, but rather maintains and encourages the status quo. The (33) ______reason for the lack of quality in American TV is related to both the history of TV development and the economics of TV. TV in American began with the radio. Radio companies and their sponsors first experimented with TV. Therefore, the close relationship, which the advertisers had with radio programs, become the system for American TV. Sponsors not only pay money for time within programs, but many actually produced the programs. Thus, (34) ______ from the capitalistic, profit- oriented sector of American society, TV is primarily concerned with reflecting and attracting society (35) _______ than innovating and experimenting with new ideas.

Advertisers want to attract the largest viewing audience possible; to do so requires that the programs be entertaining rather than challenging. TV in America today remains, to a large extent, with the same organization and standards as it had thirty years ago. The hope for some evolution and true achievement toward improving society will require a change in the entire system.

Question 31:

A. integral

B. mixed

C. fractional

D. superior

Question 32:

A.preconception

B. knowledge

C.understanding

D. feeling

Question 33:

A. adequate

B. unknown

C. inexplicable

D. primary

Question 34:

A. going

B. leaving

C. coming

D. getting

Question 35:

A. more

B. rather

C. less

D. better

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Are organically grown foods the best food choices? The advantages claimed for such foods over conventionally grown and marketed food products are now being debated.

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Advocates of organic foods – a term whose meaning varies greatly – frequently proclaim that such products are safer and more nutritious than others.

The growing interest of consumers in the safety and nutritional quality of the typical

North American diet is a welcome development. However, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping claims that the food supply is unsafe or inadequate in meeting nutritional needs. Although most of these claims are not supported by scientific evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it difficult for the general public to separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating a diet consisting entirely of organically grown foods prevents or cures disease or provides other benefits to health have become widely publicized and form the basis for folklore.

Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for "no-aging" diets, new vitamins, and

other wonder foods. There are numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs are nutritionally superior to unfertilized eggs, that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains, and the like.

One thing that most organically grown food products seem to have in common is that

they cost more than conventionally grown foods. But in many cases consumers are misled if they believe organic foods can maintain health and provide better nutritional quality than conventionally grown foods. So there is real cause for concern if consumers, particularly those with limited incomes, distrust the regular food supply and buy only expensive organic foods instead.

Question 36: The word "others" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to____________.

A. advantages

B. advocates

C. organic foods

D. products

Question 37: The "welcome development" mentioned in paragraph 2 is an increase in___________.

A. interest in food safety and nutrition among North Americans B. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet C. the amount of healthy food grown in North America

D. the number of consumers in North America Question 38: According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the term "organic foods"?

A. It is accepted by most nutritionists.

B. It has been used only in recent years.

C. It has no fixed meaning.

D. It is seldom used by consumers.

Question 39: The word "unsubstantiated" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______________.

B. uncontested

C. upopular

D. unverified

D áş Y da K yk ĂˆM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ć N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. unbelievable

Question 40: The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited incomes

buy

organic

foods

instead

of

conventionally

grown

foods

because

___________________.

A. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown foods B. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown

foods

C. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods

D. too many farmers will stop using conventional methods to grow food crops

Question 41: According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than conventionally grown foods are often ______________.

A. careless

B. mistaken

C. thrifty

D. wealthy

Question 42: What is the author's attitude toward the claims made by advocates of health foods?

A. Very enthusiastic

B. Somewhat favorable

C. Neutral

D. Skeptical

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Sometimes the road to the future leads through the past. Such was the case for Americans

Scott and Brennan Olson, who used an old idea to launch a hot new trend in sports: inline roller skating.

In 1979, these siblings found a pair of antique roller skates while checking out bargains at a used sporting-goods store. The skates they found had four wheels in a single row instead of the traditional parallel pairs of wheels in front and back. This single row of wheels intrigued the Olsons. They were avid hockey players, and they immediately noticed the similarity between the inline wheels and the long, single blade found on the bottom of ice skates. Could these unusual skates somehow be used to practice hockey off the ice?

The Olsons set about trying to modify the design of the antique skates that they had found. First they tested out the antique skates to see how well they worked. From those tests, they tried to come up with ways to improve the old design. One improvement involved using special materials to make the skates stronger and easier to steer. The Olsons also added reliable brakes to their inline skates. In 1980, the Olsons founded a company called Rollerblade to make and sell their “new” invention. Sales skyrocketed, and soon millions of people worldwide were “rollerblading,” as inline skating was mistakenly called.

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At first, inline skating was recreational. People enjoyed skating in parks and on streets,

and some even danced on skates at giant roller discos. Today, inline “group skates” are popular all over the world. In cities such as San Francisco, Paris, and Berlin, as many as 20,000 skaters might meet on a free day and skate together through the streets. Many people see inline skating as a great way to exercise and socialize.

By the mid-1990s, inline skating had become more than just a recreational sport. It had

developed into several competitive sports. One of the most popular, even today, is aggressive skating. This involves performing tricks and jumping over objects such as boxes, ramps, and rails. Other kinds of competitive skating include speed skating, artistic skating, downhill racing, and skating marathons.

So, what about hockey? Well, the Olsons achieved their goal. Inline hockey leagues

sprang up almost immediately. Then in 1999, inline hockey joined the lineup at the PanAmerican Games. There are rumors that inline skating may even become part of the Summer Olympics someday.

Question 43: What is the main idea of this reading?

A. Why inline skating is popular

B. The history of inline skating competitions

C. How inline skating developed

D. The story of Scott and Brennan Olson

Question 44: According to the reading, what is true about the Olsons’?

A. They wanted to make a new invention.

B. They did not succeed with their original goal.

C. They were motivated because they loved a sport.

D. They were not very good businessmen.

Question 45: The word "intrigued" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to____________.

A. acknowledged

B. piqued curiosity

C. took aback

D. crashed

Question 46: What was a problem with the early inline skates?

A. They were too heavy.

B. They were uncomfortable.

C. They were not easy to stop.

D. They were made of expensive metal

Question 47: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a benefit of inline skating?

A. socializing

B. entertaining

C. exercising

D. self-motivating

Question 48: The word "sprang up" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to____________.

A. developed

B. was invented

C. constrained

D. introduced

Question 49: What is NOT true, according to the passage?

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. At first, only hockey players were interested in the Olsons’ skates.

B. The Olsons started a new company.

C. In the 1980s, most people called inline skates rollerblades.

D. Rollerblades became very popular almost from the beginning.

Question 50: What can be inferred about the antique inline skates found by the Olsons?

A. They were not widely sold.

B. They were used mainly by Europeans.

C. They were more popular than bicycles.

D. They were used by hockey players in the summer.

Đáp án

1-B

2-D

3-B

4-C

5-A

6-A

7-D

8-B

9-A

10-C

11-C

12-D

13-A

14-D

15-C

16-B

17-C

18-D

19-C

20-B

21-A

22-D

23-B

24-D

25-A

26-A

27-D

28-B

29-A

30-C

31-A

32-C

33-D

34-C

35-B

36-D

37-A

38-C

39-D

40-B

41-B

42-D

43-C

44-C

45-B

46-C

47-D

48-A

49-A

50-A

ĐỀ 13 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. low

B. comb

C. tomb

D. row

Question 2:

A. choir

B. chocolate

C. choleta

D. stomach

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

A. manner

B. surface

C. mailbox

D. mature

Question 4:

A. fascimile

B. punctuality

C. recipent

D. appreciate

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Question 3:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: In my judgement, I think Hem is the best physicist among the scientists of the SEA region.

A. I think

B. the best

C. among

D. the SEA region

Question 6: Many people have found the monotonous buzzing of the vuvuzela in the 2010World-Cup matches so annoyed.

A. Many

B. monotonous

C. 2010-World-Cup

D. so annoyed

Question 7: Life insurance, before available only to young, healthy persons, can now be obtained for old people and even for pets.

A. before

B. only to

C. be

D. even

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Can you make yourself ____________ in French?

A. understand

B. understood

C. understanding

D. to understand

Question 9: Although _____________, he has been to more than 30 countries in the world and gained a lot of experience.

A. his young age

B. young

C. been young

D. he was young

Question 10: Are you sure Britain is a wheat- ___________ country?

A. produced

B. product

C. producing

D. production

Question 11: I can’t walk in these high-heeled boots. I keep _____________.

A. falling off

B. falling back

C. falling over

D. falling out

Question 12: In my family, my sister and I take turn _____________.

A. doing the washing B. to do the washing

C. doing the washer

D. both A & B are correct

Question 13: A: “Do you have a copy of The Last Leaf?”

B: “You are ____________ luck. I have just one copy left.”

A. of

B. with

C. in

D. at

Question 14: A: “When will we meet: at 7:30 or 8:00?”

B: “I don’t mind. ___ A. Either time

___ is convenient for me.”

B. Neither of them

C. Both time

D. Neither time

Question 15: Like everyone else, Sue has her _____________ of course but on the whole ,

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she’s quite satisfied with life.

A. odds and ends

B. safe and sound

C. ins and outs

D. ups and downs

Question 16: In water polo, a player is ejected after committing five personal _____________.

A. mistakes

B. faults

C. fouls

D. errors

Question 17: Recent evidence makes it possible for the investigatiors to conclude that ______.

A. some paintings by Rembrandt to be faked B. some paintings by Rembrandt were faked

C. some paintings by Rembrandt must be faked D. Rembrandt was attributed to some paintings

Question 18: You need to walk gently after the doctor removes the cast off because it ______________ for your broken leg to learn how to walk again.

A. takes time

B. costs time

C. time-consuming

D. saves time

Question 19: Our project was successful ________________its practicality.

A. on behalf of

B. with a view to

C. regardless of

D. in terms of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “My mother is very good at cooking.” “______________”

A. She must be very proud of it.

B. Do you enjoy it?

C. How long has she been cooking?

D. You must have good taste!

Question 21: “How do you do?” “_______________________.”

A. How are you?

B. How do you do?

C. I’m doing well.

D. I’m a teacher.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Some studies have shown a strong association between pesticide and certain diseases.

A. cooperation

B. collaboration

C. consequence

D. connection

Question 23: Although they hold similar political views, their religious beliefs present a striking contrast.

A. minor comparison

B. interesting resemblance

C. significant discrepancy

D. complete coincidence

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: The research, contrary to common belief, revealed some rather unexpected results.

A. impressive

B. predictable

C. surprising

D. positive

Question 25: I tried to patch things up after the argument, but they wouldn't speak to me.

A. fall out with

B. make up with

C. spice up

D. straighten out

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Peter had very little money but managed to make ends meet.

A. Peter could hardly live on little money.

B. Having little money, Peter couldn’t make ends meet.

C. Peter found it hard to live on very little money.

D. Peter got by on very little money.

Question 27: “You’d better apologize for being late,” said my mother.

A. My mother advised me to apologize for being late.

B. My mother suggested me to apologize for being late.

C. My mother suggested apologizing for being late.

D. My mother warned me to apologize for being late.

Question 28: The friends promised to stand by each other through thick and thin.

A. The friends promised to stand together all their life.

B. The friends promised to work together in spite of all difficulties.

C. The friends promised to be faithful to each other whatever happened.

D. The friends promised to hold on together if at all feasible.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: He felt too ill. He was unable to get up.

A. He was such that ill that he was unable to get up.

B. He felt too ill because he was unable to get up.

C. He was ill, as the matter of fact, he was unable to get up.

D. He was so ill that he was unable to get up.

Question 30: Priya seems to be a workaholic. She spent the holiday in her office finishing the report.

A. Since Priya looks like a workaholic, she spent the holiday in her office finishing the

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report.

B. Priya seems to be a workaholic; nevertheless, she spent the holiday in her office

finishing the report.

C. Priya seems to be a workaholic; in fact, she spent the holiday in her office finishing the

report.

D. Being a workaholic, Priya spent the holiday in her office finishing the report.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

The 15th Asian Games took place from December 1 through December 15, 2006, in

Doha, Capital of Qatar. More than 10,000 athletes, who (31)___________ 45 countries and regions, took part in 39 sports and 424 events of the Games, the most important event in Asia.

Some new events such as chess and triathlon were also included in the Games.

The 15th Asian Games was organized at 34 sporting (32)___________, including

Khalifa Stadium, which hosted the opening and closing ceremonies. The Opening Ceremony of the 15th Asian Games, Doha 2006, at Khalifa Stadium, was the most (33)___________ opening of any Games with 50,000 people to get into Khalifa Stadium and more than one billion television viewers. The Doha Asian Games Organizing Committee (DAGOC) wanted to ensure that everybody who saw the ceremony would have a memory for life as suggested in the (34)___________"The Games of Your Life." The 15th Asian Games was a successful sporting event that all (35)___________ would never forget.

Question 31:

A. symbolized

B. represented

C. expressed

D. typified

Question 32:

A. events

B. facilities

C. venues

D. teams

Question 33:

A. spectacular

B. formal

C. colorful

D. elaborate

Question 34:

A. portrait

B. banner

C. streamer

D. slogan

Question 35:

A. attendances

B. attendees

C. attendants

D. attenders

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Imagine the busy streets of New York City, an enormous place with millions of people. Every day, the streets are congested with people going about their daily lives. Now imagine a small robot in the middle of all of those people rolling down a busy sidewalk. Most people would not even notice the teninch smiling robot, called a Tweenbot, rolling along the street. This strange machine may interest some people, while others would ignore it

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completely. A researcher interested in studying how helpful people really are uses such robots in her experiments that take place on the streets of New York.

The Tweenbots experiment is the idea and creation of Kacie Kinzer. Kinzer’s idea

was to make a robot that could navigate the city and reach its destination only if it was aided by pedestrians. Tweenbots rely on the kindness of warm-hearted strangers. Made simply of cardboard, wheels, and a device to turn the wheels, the Tweenbots face many dangers on the city streets. They could be run over by cars or smashed by careless kids. Kinzer thought her little robots might even be seen as some kind of terrorist device. The only real protection a Tweenbot has is its friendly smile. In addition to that, each of Kinzer’s robots is fitted with a flag that displays instructions for the robot’s destination. The only way these robots will reach their final point is if someone lends them a hand. Tweenbots are essentially a social experiment aimed at providing people a chance to show how caring they are.

On a daily basis, people in New York City are often in a hurry to get around.

However, the Tweenbots, through their inability to look after themselves, took people out of their normal routines. The people who noticed the helpless little robots were actually interested in helping the Tweenbots find their way home. Tweenbots move at a constant speed and can only go in a straight line. If one was to get stuck, or was going in the wrong direction, it would be up to strangers to free it or turn it in the right direction. Surprisingly, no Tweenbot was lost or damaged, and each one arrived at its target in good condition. In fact, most people treated the robot in a gentle manner, and some even treated it as though it were a small living being.

Even if you were in a rush to go somewhere, would you stop and help a Tweenbot successfully reach its destination?

Question 36: What is this reading about?

A. A place to buy robots

B. A new kind of toy

C. An experiment

D. An interesting idea for the future

Question 37: What is a Tweenbot?

A. A person from New York City

B. A ten-inch smiling robot

C. A pedestrian

D. A terrorist device

Question 38: The word "congested" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________________.

A. flocked

B. secluded

C. stuffed

D. crowded

Question 39: How did a Tweenbot get to its final destination?

A. With the help of other Tweenbots

B. With the help of kind pedestrians on the

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street

C. With the help of Kacie Kinzer

D. With the help of other robots in New York City

Question 40: The word "is fitted with" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________________.

A. is armed with

B. is embedded with

C. is supplied with

D. is assembled with

Question 41: Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A. Most Tweenbots arrived at their destination damaged or broken.

B. Most people treated the Tweenbots in a gentle manner.

C. Tweenbots could not navigate the city on their own.

D. Tweenbots move at a constant speed and can only go in a straight line.

Question 42: What can be inferred about the Tweenbot?

A. They were useful for research.

B. They were ignored by most people.

C. They were helpful for pedestrians.

D. They did not work as planned.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

By the mid-nineteenth century, the term "icebox" had entered the American language,

but ice was still only beginning to affect the diet of ordinary citizens in the United States. The ice trade grew with the growth of cities. Ice was used in hotels, taverns, and hospitals, and by some forward-looking city dealers in fresh meat, fresh fish, and butter. After the Civil War (1860-1865), as ice was used to refrigerate freight cars, it also came into household use. Even before 1880, half the ice sold in New York, Philadelphia, and Baltimore, and one-third of that sold in Boston and Chicago, went to families for their own use. This had become possible because a new household convenience, the icebox, a precursor of the modern refrigerator, had been invented.

Making an efficient icebox was not as easy as we might now suppose. In the early nineteenth century, the knowledge of the physics of heat, which was essential to a science of refrigeration, was rudimentary. The common-sense notion that the best icebox was one that prevented the ice from melting was of course mistaken, for it was the melting of the ice that performed the cooling. Nevertheless, early efforts to economize ice included wrapping the ice in blankets, which kept the ice from doing its job. Not until near the end of the nineteenth century did inventors achieve the nice balance of insulation and circulation needed for an

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efficient icebox.

But as early as 1803, an ingenious Maryland farmer, Thomas Moore, had been on the

right track. He owned a farm about twenty miles outside the city of Washington, for which the village of Georgetown was the market center. When he used an icebox of his own design to transport his butter to market, he found that customers would pass up the rapidly melting stuff in the tubs of his competitors to pay a premium price for his butter, still fresh and hard in neat, one-pound bricks. One advantage of his icebox, Moore explained, was that farmers would no longer have to travel to market at night in order to keep their produce cool.

Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The influence of ice on the diet

B. The development of refrigeration

C. The transportation of goods to market

D. Sources of ice in the nineteenth century

Question 44: According to the passage, when did the word "icebox" become part of the language of the United States?

A. In 1803

B. Sometime before 1850

C. During the Civil War

D. 1950s

Question

45:

The

author

mentions

“fish”

in

the

first

paragraph

because

__________________.

A. many fish dealers also sold ice.

B. fish was shipped in refrigerated freight cars.

C. fish dealers were among the early commercial users of ice.

D. fish was not part of the ordinary person's diet before the invention of the icebox.

Question 46: According to the passage, which of the following was an obstacle to the development of the icebox?

A. Competition among the owners of refrigerated freight cars B. The lack of a network for the distribution of ice C. The use of insufficient insulation D. Inadequate understanding of physics

Question 47: The word "rudimentary" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______________.

A. undeveloped

B. growing

C. necessary

D. uninteresting

Question 48: The author describes Thomas Moore as having been "on the right track" to indicate that ______________.

A. the road to the market passed close to Moore's farm B. Moore was an honest merchant

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

C. Moore was a prosperous farmer

D. Moore's design was fairly successful

Question 49: According to the passage, Moore's icebox allowed him to _______________.

A. charge more for his butter

B. travel to market at night

C. manufacture butter more quickly

D. produce ice all year round

Question

50:

The

"produce"

mentioned

in

the

last

paragraph

could

include

________________.

A. iceboxes

B. butter

C. ice

D. markets

Đáp án

1-C

2-B

3-D

4-B

5-A

6-D

7-A

8-B

9-B

10-C

11-C

12-B

13-C

14-A

15-D

16-C

17-B

18-A

19-D

20-A

21-B

22-D

23-C

24-B

25-A

26-D

27-A

28-C

29-D

30-C

31-B

32-C

33-A

34-D

35-B

36-C

37-B

38-D

39-B

40-D

41-A

42-A

43-B

44-B

45-C

46-D

47-A

48-D

49-A

50-B

ĐỀ SỐ 14 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. suitable

B. biscuit

C. guilty

D. building

Question 2:

A. chooses

B. houses

C. rises

D. horses

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answersheet to indicate the word that differsfrom the other threeinthepositionofprimarystressineachofthefollowingquestions.

A. fertilizer

B. intensify

C. ambiguous

D. courageous

Question 4:

A. interrupt

B. mausoleum

C. herbicide

D. submarine

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Question 3:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Even though the extremely bad weather in the mountains, the climbers decided not to cancel their climb .

A. Even though

B. extremely

C. not to cancel

D. climb

Question 6: Bill was about average in performance in comparison with other students in his class.

A. about average

B. in

C. with other students D. his

Question 7: When I got home, Irene was lying in bed thinking about what a wonderful time she’s had.

A. got

B. was lying

C. thinking

D. she’s had

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: He’d hardly finished doing his homework when you arrived, ____________?

A. didn’t he

B. had he

C. would he

D. hadn’t he

Question 9: The time has now come when it will be necessary to ____________ making a plan.

A. see through

B. see over

C. see about

D. see into

Question 10: A: “Why don’t we go to the cinema?” B: ―It’s too late. The film ______ by now.

A. will be started

B. will be starting

C. will have started

D. has started

Question 11: : Don’t put David in charge of arranging the theater trip; he’s too _____________.

A. organized

B. disorganized

C. organizing

Question 12: The play was not ____________ what we had expected.

D. well organized

A. just

B. absolutely

C. at all

D. very

Question 13: She listened so attentively that not a word ____________.

A. she had missed

B. she missed

C. she didn’t miss

D. did she miss

Question 14: A: ―Did you have to do a lot of preparation for the meeting?

B: ―________________ with the board, I reviewed all the proposals again.

A. Until I was meeting

B. Prior to meeting

C. By the time I met

D.Subsequently meeting

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Question 15: The matter was so delicate that none of the ministers knew how to __________ it

A. manipulate

B. deal

C. affect

D. handle

Question 16: _____________ that Emily Dickinson wrote, two were given titles and seven were published during her lifetime.

A. Of the 1800 poems

B. There were 1800 poems

C. Because the 1800 poems

D. The 1800 poems

Question 17: Would you be ____________ my letters while I am away?

A. too good as to forward

B. so good as to forward

C. as good as to forward

D. so good as forwarding

Question 18: I must have a word ____________ Jack about timekeeping; this is the third time this week he’s been late.

A. with

B. for

C. from

D. toward

Question 19: Don’t worry! Our new product will keep your bathroom clean and ______.

A. odourless

B. odour

C. odourful

D. odourlessly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: “More peas?”

“______ ________”

A. Help yourself to them.

B. My honor.

C. No, that’ll do. Thank you.

D. No more available.

Question 21: “Thank you for driving me home tonight.” “__________________” A. Forget about it. I didn’t mean so.

B. I highly appreciate what you did

C. It doesn’t matter anyway

D. It’s nothing.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answersheet to indicate the word(s)CLOSEST in meaning to theunderlinedword(s)ineachofthefollowingquestions.

Question 22: He is an honest man. You can rely on him to do a good job.

A. count on

B. take in

C. base on

D. put up with

Question 23: The school orchestra played so many wrong notes that I had trouble keeping a straight face.

A. try not to show that you are unhappy

B. protect yourself from being embarrassed

C. do your best not to smile or laugh

D. show dislike or disgust

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in

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meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the followingquestions

Question 24: Moving all the heavy cinder blocks by hand from the driveway to the backyard seemed like an onerous task.

A. easy

B. tedious

C. interesting

D. demanding

Question 25: I can’t understand why she did that. It really doesn’t add up.

A. makes the wrong addition

B. doesn’t make sense

C. seem reasonable

D. is not mathematics

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: In order to stay open, the charity shop needs at least four helpers.

A. Four helpers are needed because the charity shop stays open.

B. No fewer than four helpers can enable the charity shop to stay open.

C. Staying open means that the charity shop has the maximum of four helpers.

D. The charity shop needs more than four helpers to stay open.

Question 27: There is no doubt that the tickets will be more expensive next month.

A. Next month the tickets will undoubtedly be not as cheap as they are now.

B. It is doubtful about the tickets’ price next month.

C. The tickets are not bound to be more expensive next month.

D. Next month maybe they will increase the price of the tickets.

Question 28: James could have been a classical musician if he’d continued his cello lessons.

A. It was only because James stopped taking lessons on the cello that he was unable to become a classical musician.

B. Originally, James had wanted to become a classical musician, and so he took cello lessons for a time.

C. It was the cello lessons that he took for a long time that enabled James to become a classical musician.

D. James never became a classical musician, but he did continue taking cello lessons nonetheless.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

A. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

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B. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

C. As a result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

D. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

Question 30: Access to the library computer facilities is open to all students A. Computers in the library are not used for students.

B. Students can freely assess the library computer service.

C. Students are not allowed to use library computers.

D. The library computer facilities are accessible to students

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correctword or phrase that bestfits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to35.

It isn’t difficult to imagine how increases in international commerce and in the

movement of people—two defining features of globalization—might influence health. More goods go more places today than at any (31)___________ in history. More people travel farther, more frequently, and come in contact with more people and goods, than at any point in history.

This increased movement of both goods and people increases opportunities for the

spread of disease around the world. And it’s not just goods and services that can travel across oceans and state borders—so can diseases like AIDS, malaria, or tuberculosis. The (32)___________ of BSE, or ―mad cow disease,‖ in several European countries is only one example of (33)___________trade can promote the spread of dangerous diseases. Mosquitoes that carry malaria have been found aboard planes thousands of miles from their primary habitats, and (34)___________ seafood carrying cholera bacteria have been shipped from Latin America to the United States and Europe.

But just as globalization increases the frequency and ease (35)___________ which diseases can move around the world, it also can improve access to the medicines, medical information, and training that can help treat or cure these diseases.

Question 31:

A. spot

B. end

C. point

D. position

Question 32:

A. outbreak

B. disruption

C. corruption

D. suspension

Question 33:

A. what

B. how

C. which

D. when

Question 34:

A. diseased

B. treated

C. infectious

D. infected

Question 35:

A. with

B. for

C. from

D. by

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Leisure activity isn’t just for fun, says a University of Florida psychologist who has

developed a scale that classifies hobbies and avocations based on needs they satisfy in people. The scale can help people find more personal fulfillment by giving them insight into what they really like and by helping them to find substitutes when they can’t pursue their favorite activities.

“The surprising thing is that activities you might think are very different have similar

effects on people” said Howard E.A. Tinsley, a UF psychology professor who developed the measurement. ―Probably no one would consider acting to have the same characteristics as roller-skating or playing baseball, but men and women who act as a hobby report feeling an intense sense of belonging to a group, much the same way others do in playing sports.

And activities providing the strongest sense of competition are not sports, but card,

arcade and computer games, he found.

Tinsley, whose research on leisure has been published in several journals, is

scheduled this spring to present some of the findings in Milwaukee at a conference of the Society for Vocational Psychology.

Based on surveys with more than 3,000 people about the satisfactions they get from

various hobbies, Tinsley obtained numerical scores for values such as “challenge” and “hedonism”, and grouped some 82 leisure activities into 11 categories. For example, dining out and watching movies fall into the “sensual enjoyment” category, playing soccer and attending sports clubs meetings satisfy participants’ desires for a sense of “belongingness” and coin collecting and baking fulfill their need for “creativity”.

“With so many people in jobs they don’t care for, leisure is a prized aspect of people’s lives,” Tinsley said. “Yet it’s not something psychologists really study. Economists tell us how much money people spend skiing, but nobody explains what it is about skiing that is really appealing to people or how one activity relates to another, perhaps in unexpected ways.”

“Fishing, generally considered more of an outdoor or recreational activity, for example, is a form of self-expression like quilting or stamp collecting, because it gives people the opportunity to express themselves by doing something completely different from their daily routine,”he said.

Question 36: The word "substitutes" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________________.

A. delight

B. revenge

C. replacement

D. attraction

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Question 37: Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Both acting and roller-skating give people a feeling of being a part of a team.

B. Collecting things satisfied people’s desire for making things.

C. Fishing allows you to show the type of person you are.

D. Researchers already know why a hobby attracts a person.

Question 38: Which of the following is not mentioned as a category in Tinsley’s scale?

A. hedonism

B. belongingness

C. initiative

D. sensual enjoyment

Question 39: Taking part in sports gives you _________________.

A. the strongest desire to win

B. a need for creativity

C. the chance to express your feelings

D. a sense of being part of a team

Question 40: The word "it" in the last paragraph refers to ________________.

A. fishing

B. activity

C. self-expression

D. stamp collecting

Question 41: Which sentence best summarizes the passage?

A. Leisure activity and sport are totally different.

B. A person’s personality is expressed via his hobbies.

C. Leisure activities satisfy people’s particular desires.

D. Sports affect a person’s personality.

Question 42: The findings in the passage by Howard E.A.Tinsley are somewhat __________ A. funny

B. surprising

C. predictable

D. useless

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50 Archaeological records - paintings, drawings and carvings of humans engaged in activities involving the use of hands - indicate that humans have been predominantly righthanded for more than 5,000 years. In ancient Egyptian artwork, for example, the right hand is depicted as the dominant one in about 90 percent of the examples. Fracture or wear patterns on tools also indicate that a majority of ancient people were right-handed. Cro-Magnon cave paintings some 27,000 years old commonly show outlines of human hands made by placing one

hand against the cave wall and applying paint with the other. Children today make similar outlines of their hands with crayons on paper. With few exceptions, left hands of CroMagnons are displayed on cave walls, indicating that the paintings were usually done by right-handers.

Anthropological evidence pushes the record of handedness in early human ancestors back to at least 1.4 million years ago. One important line of evidence comes from flaking patterns of stone cores used in tool making: implements flaked with a clockwise motion (indicating a righthanded toolmaker) can be distinguished from those flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation

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(indicating a left-handed toolmaker).

Even scratches found on fossil human teeth offer clues. Ancient humans are thought to

have cut meat into strips by holding it between their teeth and slicing it with stone knives, as do the present-day Inuit. Occasionally the knives slip and leave scratches on the users' teeth.

Scratches made with a left-to-right stroke direction (by right-handers) are more common than scratches in the opposite direction (made by lefthanders).

Still other evidence comes from cranial morphology: scientists think that physical

differences between the right and left sides of the interior of the skull indicate subtle physical differences between the two sides of the brain. The variation between the hemispheres corresponds to which side of the body is used to perform specific activities. Such studies, as well as studies of tool use, indicate that right- or leftsided dominance is not exclusive to modern Homo sapiens. Population of Neanderthals, such as Homo erectus and Homo Habilis, seem to have been predominantly right-handed, as we are.

Question 43: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Human ancestors became predominantly right-handed when they began to use tools.

B. It is difficult to interpret the significance of anthropological evidence concerning tool use.

C. Humans and their ancestors have been predominantly right-handed for over a million

years.

D. Human ancestors were more skilled at using both hands than modern humans.

Question 44: The word "other" in the first paragraph refers to ______________.

A. outline

B. hand

C. wall

D. paint

Question 45: What does the author say about Cro-Magnon paintings of hands?

A. Some are not very old.

B. It is unusual to see such paintings.

C. Many were made by children.

D. The artists were mostly right-handed

Question 46: When compared with implements "flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation”, it can be inferred that "implements flaked with a clock-wise motion" are ______________.

A. more common

B. larger

C. more sophisticated D. older

Question 47: The fact that the Inuit cut meat by holding it between their teeth is significant because _____________.

A. . the relationship between handedness and scratches on fossil human teeth can be verified B. it emphasizes the differences between contemporary humans and their ancestors C. the scratch patterns produced by stone knives vary significantly from patterns produced by modern knives D. it demonstrates that ancient humans were not skilled at using tools

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Question 48: Why does the author mention Homo erectus and Home Habilis in the last paragraph?

A. To contrast them with modern humans

B. To explain when human ancestors began to make tools

C. To show that early humans were also predominantly right handed D. To prove that the population of Neanderthals was very large

Question 49: All of the follows are mentioned as types of evidence concerning handedness EXCEPT ____________.

A. ancient artwork

B. asymmetrical skulls

C. studies of tool use

D. fossilized hand bones

Question 50: Which of the following conclusions is suggested by the evidence from cranial morphology?

A. Differences in the hemispheres of the brain probably came about relatively recently.

B. There may be a link between handedness and differences in the brain's hemispheres C. Left-handedness was somewhat more common among Neanderthals

D.Variation between the brain hemispheres was not evident in the skulls of Home Erectus and

Home Habilis.

Đáp án

1-A

2-D

3-A

4-C

5-A

6-C

7-D

8-B

9-C

10-C

11-B

12-C

13-D

14-B

15-D

16-A

17-B

18-A

19-A

20-C

21-D

22-A

23-C

24-A

25-C

26-B

27-A

28-A

29-D

30-D

31-C

32-A

33-B

34-D

35-A

36-C

37-D

38-C

39-D

40-A

41-C

42-B

43-C

44-B

45-D

46-A

47-A

48-C

49-D

50-B

ĐỀ SỐ 15 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. aboard

B. keyboard

C. cupboard

D. overboard

Question 2:

A. coached

B. needed

C. wanted

D. beloved

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress sine achofthefollowingquestions.

A. struggle

B. enlarge

C. occur

D. survive

Question 4:

A. predominance

B. environment

C. technology

D. superstition

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Question 3:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that superstition needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: I like the fresh air and green trees of the village which I spent my vacation last year.

A. the fresh

B. green trees

C. which

D. vacation

Question 6: In the early 1900's, Pennsylvania's industries grew rapidly, a growth sometimes accompanied by disputes labor .

A. industries

B. growth sometimes C. accompanied

Question 7: Some people often say

D. disputes labor

that using cars is not as convenient than using

motorbikes.

A. often say

B. using cars

C. than

D. using motorbikes

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: “It’s about time you ______ your homework, Mary.”

A. must do

B. do

C. did

D. will do

Question 9: In our team, no person ______ John could finish this tough task in such a short time.

A. outside

B. other than

C. including

D. rather than

Question 10: ______ he got top marks at high school, he never went to university.

A. Although

B. Despite

C. Meanwhile

D. Nevertheless

Question 11: Connecticut was the fifth of the original thirteen states ______ the Constitution of the United States.

A. to ratify

B. ratify

C. ratified

D. have ratified

Question 12: His honesty is ______; nobody can doubt it.

A. in question

B. beside the question C. without question

D. out of the question

Question 13: The Moon is much closer to Earth ______, and thus it had greater influence on the tides.

A. but the Sun is

B. where the Sun is

C. than is the Sun

D. unlike the Sun

Question 14: The government was finally ______ by a minor scandal.

A. put back

B. brought down

C. pulled down

D. taken down

Question 15: Having traveled to different parts of our country, ______.

A. we have learned a lot about interesting lifestyles and customs

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B. we are seeing a lot of interesting lifestyles and customs

C. many interesting lifestyles and customs have been learned by us D. much has been learned about interesting lifestyles and customs

Question 16: We expressed ______ the missing child would be found alive.

A. the hope for

B. the hope which

C. as we hoped

D. the hope that

Question 17: I ______ with my aunt when I am on holiday in Ho Chi Minh City next month.

A. will have been staying

B. will have stayed

C. stay

D. will be staying

Question 18: Nowadays, with the help of the computer, teachers have developed a ______ approach to teaching.

A. multilingual

B. multilateral

C. multiple-choice

D. multimedia

Question 19: He died ______ lung cancer last month, leaving his wife in great shock.

A. for

B. by

C. of

D. in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Ann: “Do you need any help?”

Kate: “______.”

A. That’s fine by me

B. No, thanks. I can manage

C. I haven’t got a clue

D. That’s all for now

Question 21: Tom: “Can I have another cup of tea?”

Christy: “______.”

A. Be yourself.

B. Do it yourself.

C. Allow yourself.

D. Help yourself.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answersheet to indicate the word(s)CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the followingquestions.

Question 22: Just like hearing infants who start first with simple syllable babbling, then put more syllables together to sound like real sentences and questions, deaf babies follow the same pattern.

A. able to hear

B. obedient to parents

C. physically abnormal

D. hard of hearing

Question 23: Dozens of applicants showed up for the vacant position, but only a handful of them were shortlisted for the interview A. small number

B. hand

C. class

D. small amount

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

B. an inactive society C. a physical society

D. a working society

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A. an active society

Question 25: She is a very generous old woman. She has given most of her wealth to a charity organization.

A. mean

B. amicable

C. kind

D. hospitable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: There is no question of changing my mind about resigning.

A. Nobody knows about my decision on resigning.

B. They asked me no question about resigning.

C. I should have changed my mind about resigning.

D. I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning.

Question 27: I forgot to lock the door before leaving.

A. I remembered that I left the door locked before going out.

B. I didn’t remember whether I locked the door before leaving.

C. I left without remembering to lock the door.

D. I locked the door before leaving, but I forgot about it.

Question 28: When there is so much traffic on the roads, it is sometimes quicker to walk than to go by car.

A.During rush hours, walking gives me much more pleasure than driving in the heavy traffic.

B. It is faster to walk than to drive in the heavy traffic at certain time of the day.

C. The traffic is always so heavy that you’d better walk to work; it’s quicker.

D. There is so much traffic these days that it is more pleasant to walk than to drive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees in the park.

A. People should both cut down the trees and throw rubbish in the park.

B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park.

C. People should throw rubbish and cut down the trees in the park.

D. People should either throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park.

Question 30: The team reached the top of the mountain. The team spent a night there.

A. The team had not only reached the top of the mountain, but they spend a night there as well.

B. Not only did the team reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there.

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C. only did the team reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there as well.

D. The team both reach the top of the mountain but they also spent a night there.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answersheet to indicate the correctword orphrase that bestfits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

In a world where 2 billion people live in homes that don't have light bulbs, technology

holds the key (31)______ banishing poverty. Even the simplest technologies can transform lives and save money. Vaccines, crops, computers and sources of solar energy can all reduce poverty in developing countries. For example, cheap oral-rehydration therapy developed in Bangladesh has dramatically cut the death (32)______ from childhood diarrhoea.

But even when such technologies exist, the depressing fact is that we can’t make them

cheap enough for those who most need them. Solar panels, batteries and light bulbs are still beyond the purse of many, but where they have been installed they change lives. A decent light in the evening gives children more time for homework and extends the productive day for adults.

Kenya has a thriving solar industry and six years ago Kenyan pioneers also started

connecting schools to the Internet via radio links. These people were fortunate in being able to afford solar panels, radios and old computers. How much bigger would the impact be if these things (33)______ and priced specifically for poor people?

Multinationals must become part of the solution, because (34)______ they own around 60

per cent of the world's technology, they seldom make products for poor customers. Of 1,223 new drugs marketed worldwide from 1975 to 1996, for example, just 13 were for tropical diseases.

People think those enterprises should do more to provide vital products such as medicines at different prices around the world to suit (35)______ people can afford. Alternatively, they could pay a percentage of their profit towards research and development for the poor.

(Adapted from “The Price is Wrong” in “Focus on IELTS Foundations” by Sue O’Connell, Pearson Longman, 2006) Question 31:

A. to

B. at

C. with

D. for

Question 32:

A. amount

B. penalty

C. toll

D. number

Question 33:

A. have been made

B. were made

C. are made

D. made

Question 34:

A. unless

B. however

C. when

D. while

Question 35:

A. which

B. what

C. where

D. that

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42 In 1826, a Frenchman named Niépce needed pictures for his business. He was not a

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good artist, so he invented a very simple camera. He put it in a window of his house and took a picture of his yard. That was the first photograph.

The next important date in the history of photography was 1837. That year, Daguerre,

another Frenchman, took a picture of his studio. He used a new kind of camera and a different process. In his pictures, you could see everything clearly, even the smallest details.

This kind of photograph was called a daguerreotype.

Soon, other people began to use Daguerre's process. Travelers brought back

daguerreotypes from all around the world. People photographed famous buildings, cities, and mountains.

In about 1840, the process was improved. Then photographers could take pictures of

people and moving things. The process was not simple and photographers had to carry lots of film and processing equipment. However, this did not stop photographers, especially in the United States. After 1840, daguerreotype artists were popular in most cities.

Matthew Brady was one well-known American photographer. He took many portraits

of famous people. The portraits were unusual because they were lifelike and full of personality. Brady was also the first person to take pictures of a war. His 1862 Civil War pictures showed dead soldiers and ruined cities. They made the war seem more real and more terrible.

In the 1880s, new inventions began to change photography. Photographers could buy

film readymade in rolls, instead of having to make the film themselves. Also, they did not have to process the film immediately. They could bring it back to their studios and develop it later. They did not have to carry lots of equipment. And finally, the invention of the small handheld camera made photography less expensive.

With a small camera, anyone could be a photographer. People began to use cameras just for fun. They took pictures of their families, friends, and favorite places. They called these pictures "snapshots".

Documentary photographs became popular in newspapers in the 1890s. Soon magazines and books also used them. These pictures showed true events and people. They were much more real than drawings.

Some people began to think of photography as a form of art. They thought that photography could do more than show the real world. It could also show ideas and feelings, like other art forms. From “Reading Power” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries Question 36: Daguerre took a picture of his studio with ______.

B. a very simple camera

C. special equipment

D. an electronic camera

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A. a new kind of camera

Question 37: The word “this” in the passage refers to ______.

A. carrying of lots of film and processing equipment B. stopping of photographers from taking photos

C. fact that daguerreotype artists were popular in most cities D. taking of pictures of people and moving things

Question 38: The word “ruined” in the passage is closest in meaning to “______”.

A. poorly-painted

B. heavily-polluted

C. terribly spoiled

D. badly damaged

Question 39: The latest invention mentioned in the passage is the invention of ______.

A. . handheld cameras

B. processing equipment

C. daguerreotypes

D. rolls of film

Question 40: The word “handheld” in the passage is closest in meaning to “______”.

A. handling manually

B. held by hand

C. controlling hands

D. operated by hand

Question 41: As mentioned in the passage, photography can ______.

A. print old pictures

B. convey ideas and feelings

C. show the underworld

D. replace drawings

Question 42: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?

A. Different Steps in Film Processing

B. Story of Photography

C. Photography and Painting

D. Story of Famous Photographers

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Architecture is the practice of building design and its resulting products; customary usage refers only to those designs and structures that are culturally significant. Architecture is to building as literature is to the printed word. Vitruvius, a 1st-century BC Roman, wrote encyclopedically about architecture, and the English poet Sir Henry Wotton was quoting him in

his charmingly phrased dictum: “Well building hath three conditions: Commoditie, Firmenes, and Delight.” More prosaically, one would say today that architecture must satisfy its intended uses, must be technically sound, and must convey aesthetic meaning. But the best buildings are often so well constructed that they outlast their original use. They then survive not only as beautiful objects, but as documents of the history of cultures, achievements in architecture that testify to the nature of the society that produced them. These achievements are never wholly the work of individuals. Architecture is a social art.

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Architectural form is inevitably influenced by the technologies applied, but building

technology is conservative and knowledge about it is cumulative. Precast concrete, for instance, has not rendered brick obsolete. Although design and construction have become highly sophisticated and are often computer directed, this complex apparatus rests on preindustrial traditions inherited from millennia during which most structures were lived in by the people who erected them. The technical demands on building remain the elemental ones – to exclude enemies, to circumvent gravity, and to avoid discomforts caused by an excess of heat or cold or by the intrusion of rain, wind, or vermin. This is no trivial assignment even with the best modern technology.

The availability of suitable materials fostered the crafts to exploit them and influenced the

shapes of buildings. Large areas of the world were once forested, and their inhabitants developed carpentry. Although it has become relatively scarce, timber remains an important building material.

Many kinds of stone lend themselves to building. Stone and marble were chosen for

important monuments because they are incombustible and can be expected to endure. Stone is also a sculptural material; stone architecture was often integral with stone sculpture. The use of stone has declined, however, because a number of other materials are more amenable to industrial use and assembly.

Some regions lack both timber and stone; their peoples used the earth itself, tamping

certain mixtures into walls or forming them into bricks to be dried in the sun. Later they baked these substances in kilns, producing a range of bricks and tiles with greater durability.

(Extracted from Microsoft® Encarta® 2009 Encyclopedia – DVD Version) Question 43: According to the passage, the term “architecture” is normally used to refer to the designs and structures that have ______.

A. religious significance

B. social importance

C. technical importance

D. cultural significance

Question 44: Which of the following is NOT considered an essential characteristic of architecture according to the passage?

A. Strength

B. Utility

C. Economy

D. Beauty

Question 45: When well-constructed buildings exist longer than their original use, they serve as ______.

A. monuments to ancient time heroes

B. museums and exhibition galleries

C. witnesses to major ancient wars

D. witnesses to their historical times

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Question 46: The author uses the phrase “social art” in the first paragraph to emphasise that architecture is an ______.

A. art that belongs to a society

B. art that is very much socialised

C. achievement of many people

D. achievement of many sociologists

Question 47: According to the passage, knowledge about building technology ______.

A. is always influenced by a wide range of technological applications B. has experienced complete changes for generations

C. is based on modern technologies rather than traditions

D. includes the experience gained from generation to generation.

Question 48: The word “obsolete” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.

A. out of date

B. out of place

C. out of order

D. out of hand

Question 49: According to the passage, stone and marble were used for buildings of historical importance because they ______.

A. make structures look more attractive

B. are inflammable and endurable

C. give warmth and comfort to their owners

D. are non-flammable and last long

Question 50: According to the passage, today stone has been used less as a building material because ______.

A. there have been other more suitable materials for industrial use

B. stone architecture is essential to the number of stone sculptures C. it has less influence on the shapes of buildings and sculptures D. it has become relatively scarce and more difficult to exploit

Đáp án 2-A

3-A

4-D

5-C

6-D

7-C

8-C

9-B

10-A

11-A

12-C

13-C

14-B

15-A

16-D

17-D

18-D

19-C

20-B

21-D

22-A

23-A

24-B

25-A

26-D

27-C

28-B

29-B

30-B

31-A

32-C

33-B

34-D

35-B

36-A

37-A

38-D

39-A

40-B

41-B

42-B

43-D

44-C

45-D

46-C

47-D

48-A

49-D

50-A

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1-C

ĐỀ SỐ 14 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. work

B. pork

C. force

D. form

Question 2:

A. breathe

B. bathe

C. theater

D. clothes

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

A. release

B. offer

C. amaze

D. believe

Question 4:

A. tradition

B. memory

C. socialise

D. animal

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Question 3:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: These exercises look easy, but they are very relatively difficult for us.

A. These exercises

B. easy

C. very relatively

D. for

Question 6: It was not until the end of prehistoric times that the first wheeled vehicles appearing .

A. until the end

B. prehistoric

C. the first

D. appearing

Question 7: As the old one, this new copier can perform its functions in half the time.

A. As

B. can perform

C. its functions

D. in half the time

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Communities in remote areas are extremely _____ to famine if crops fail.

A. helpless

B. disappointed

C. vulnerable

D. defenseless

Question 9: I could hear voices but I couldn’t ______ what they were saying.

A. bring about

B. make out

C. try out

D. turn up

Question 10: Do you remember ______ to help us when we were in difficulty?

A. to offer

B. once offering

C. you offer

D. being offered

Question 11: You can use my car ______ you drive carefully.

A. though

B. as though

C. as long as

D. lest

Question 12: A large number of workmen ______ because of the economic recession.

A. have laid down

B. has laid aside

C. have been laid off D. has been laid out

Question 13: “What ______ if the earth stopped moving?”

A. happened

B. would happen

C. happens

D. will happen

Question 14: He wasn't attending the lecture properly and missed most of ______.

A. things said by the teacher

B. that the teacher said

C. which the teacher said

D. what the teacher said

Question 15: He's sometimes bad-tempered but he's a good fellow ______.

A. at heart

B. by heart

C. with heart

D. in heart

Question 16: : I'll give this dictionary to ______ wants to have it.

A. anyone

B. whatever

C. everyone

D. whoever

Question 17: Due to ever more spreading poaching, there ______ a dramatic decline in the number of elephants over the last decade B. is

C. was

D. had been

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A. has been

Question 18: People don’t like the way he shows off, ______?

A. don’t they

B. do they

C. does he

D. doesn’t he

Question 19: The language centre offers courses of various levels, such as elementary, intermediate and ______.

A. advance

B. advancement

C. advanced

D. advancing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Thanh: “Lan’s the best singer in our school.” Nadia: “______” A. Yes, tell me about it!

B. . I can’t agree with you more!

C. That’s OK!

D. Yes, please.

Question 21: : Mai: “Do you want another serving of chicken soup?”

Scott: “______.”

A. No way

B. No comment

C. No thanks

D. No longer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Within a week on display at the exhibition, the painting was hailed as a masterpiece.

A. a large work of art

B. an expensive work of art

C. an excellent work of art

D. a down-to-earth work of art

Question 23: These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.

A. publicly said

B. publicly supported

C. strongly condemned

D. openly criticized

Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Vietnam’s admission to the World Trade Organisation (WTO) has promoted its trade relations with other countries.

A. balanced

B. restricted

C. expanded

D. boosted

Question 25: The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary measures.

A. physical

B. severe

C. beneficial

D. damaging

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Thanks to the efforts of environmentalists, people are becoming better aware of

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

the problems of endangered species.

A. Environmentalists are expressing their gratitude towards people who are better aware of

the problems of endangered species.

B. People owe their growing awareness of the problems of endangered species to the efforts

of environmentalists.

C. People have no idea about the problems of endangered species in spite of the efforts of

environmentalists.

D. Environmentalists are doing their best to make people aware of the problems of

endangered species.

Question 27: Peter’s main subject at university is electronics.

A. The university lets Peter major in electronics.

B. Electronics is among the subjects that Peter likes.

C. Peter thinks electronics is a special subject.

D. Peter majors in electronics at university.

Question 28: I could not get the job because I did not speak English well.

A. I would have spoken English well if I could get that job.

B. I wish I had got the job so that I could speak English well.

C. Despite my poor English, I was successful in the job.

D. I failed to get the job because of my poor English.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: The demand was so great. They had to reprint the book immediately.

A. They demanded that the book be reprinted immediately.

B. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately.

C. The book would be reprinted immediately since the demand was great.

D. They demanded to reprint the book immediately.

Question 30: He did not work hard. He failed the exam.

A. Even though he failed the exam, he didn’t work hard.

B. Unless he had worked hard, he would have failed the exam.

C. If he had worked hard, he would have passed the exam.

D. However hard he worked, he failed the exam.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that bestfits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to35.

In addition to the challenge to be excellent, American schools have been facing novel

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problems. They must (31)______ with an influx of immigrant children, many of whom speak little or no English. They must respond to demands that the curriculum reflect the various cultures of all children. Schools must make sure that students develop basic skills for the job market, and they must consider the needs of nontraditional students, such as teenage mothers.

Schools are (32)______ these problems in ways that reflect the diversity of the US

educational system. They are hiring or training large numbers of teachers of English as a second language and, in some communities, setting up bilingual schools. They are opening up the traditional European-centered curriculum to embrace material from African, Asian, and other cultures.

Schools are also teaching cognitive skills to the (33)______ 40 percent of American

students who do not go on to higher education. In the (34)______ of a recent report by the Commission on Achieving Necessary Skills, “A strong back, the willingness to work, and a high school diploma were once all that was necessary to (35)______ a start in America. They are no longer. A well- developed mind, a continued willingness to learn and the ability to put knowledge to work are the new keys to the future of our young people, the success of our business, and the economic well-being of the nation.”

(Extracted from InfoUSA – CD Version)

Question 31:

A. do

B. stay

C. fight

D. cope

Question 32:

A. addressing

B. delivering

C. distributing

D. discharging

Question 33:

A. slightly

B. mostly

C. fairly

D. nearly

Question 34:

A. minds

B. directions

C. words

D. ways

Question 35:

A. make

B. take

C. get

D. bring

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42 The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid materials such as silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures.

Also, some substances such as salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when molten or when

dissolved in water. The ability of metals to conduct electricity is due to how their atoms bond together. In order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least one of their outermost electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now strictly ions.

The lost electrons are free to move in what is known as a sea of electrons. Since the electrons are negatively charged they attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure together.

An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are free to move they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

such as a battery is connected to the metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing through the wire, and this is what makes metals such good conductors of electricity. The only other common solid conducting material that pencil users are likely to encounter is graphite (what the „lead’ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and again the carbon atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an electric current. Likewise, if we have an ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions flow to create a current but only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or dissolved in water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions cannot flow.

Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because

they contain no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily. Water itself is a poor conductor of electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully charged particles (the ends of a water molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is neutral). However, most water we encounter does contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be more conductive than pure water. Many of the problems that occur when touching electrical devices with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that is left on our skin through perspiration and it dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.

By Helena Gillespie and Rob Gillespie. Science for Primary School Teachers. OUP

Question 36: According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to ______.

A. the way its atoms bond together

B. the absence of free electrons

C. its atoms with a positive charge

D. the loss of one electron in the core of its

atoms Question 37: The word “outermost” in paragraph 1 mostly means ______.

A. the heaviest

B. furthest from the inside

C. nearest to the inside

D. the lightest

Question 38: Salt in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because ______.

A. . its charged ions can flow easily

B. it cannot create any charged ions

C. it has free electrons

D. its charged ions are not free to move

Question 39: Water is a poor conductor because it contains ______.

A. only a positive electric charge

B. only a small amount of fully charged particles

C. only a negative electric charge

D. no positive or negative electric charge

Question 40: We can have problems when touching electrical devices with wet hands because ______.

A. the water itself is a good conductor of electricity

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B. the water contains too many neutral molecules

C. the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive

D. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive

Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity.

B. Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved.

C. Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day.

D. Some materials are more conductive than others.

Question 42: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?

A. Electrical Insulators

B. Electrical Energy

C. Electrical Conductivity

D. Electrical Devices

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Most journeys in Britain and the US are made by road. Some of these are made on public

transport but most are by private car.

In Britain many people rely on their cars for daily local activities, e.g. getting to work,

doing the shopping, and visiting friends. People living in urban areas may use buses, trains or, in London, the Underground, to get to city centres, mainly because traffic is often heavy and it is difficult to find anywhere to park a car. Some places in the country may have a bus only two or three times a week so people living there have no choice but to rely on their cars.

In the US large cities have good public transportation systems. The El railroad in Chicago and the underground systems of New York, Boston, San Francisco and Washington, DC are heavily used. Elsewhere, most Americans prefer to use their cars. Families often have two cars and, outside major cities, have to drive fairly long distances to schools, offices, shops, banks, etc.

Many college and even high-school students have their own cars.

Long-distance travel in Britain is also mainly by road, though railways link most towns and cities. Most places are linked by motorways or other fast roads and many people prefer to

drive at their own convenience rather than use a train, even though they may get stuck in a traffic jam. Long-distance coach/bus services are usually a cheaper alternative to trains, but they take longer and may be less comfortable. Some long-distance travel, especially that undertaken for business reasons, may be by air. There are regular flights between regional airports, as well as to and from London. A lot of freight is also distributed by road, though heavier items and raw materials often go by rail.

In the US much long-distance travel is by air. America has two main long-distance bus

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companies, Greyhound and Trailways. Amtrak, the national network, provides rail services for passengers. Private railway companies such as Union Pacific now carry only freight, though in fact over 70% of freight goes by road.

The main problems associated with road transport in both Britain and the US are traffic

congestion and pollution. It is predicted that the number of cars on British roads will increase by a third within a few years, making both these problems worse. The British government would like more people to use public transport, but so far they have had little success in persuading people to give up their cars or to share rides with neighbours. Most people say that public transport is simply not good enough. Americans too have resisted government requests to share cars because it is less convenient and restricts their freedom. Petrol/gasoline is relatively cheap in the US and outside the major cities public transport is bad, so they see no reason to use their cars less.

(Extracted from Oxford Guide to British and American Culture, Oxford University Press, 2000)

Question 43: According to the passage, people in London may prefer the Underground to their own cars due to ______.

A. heavy traffic

B. cheap tickets

C. long distances

D. air pollution

Question 44: It is mentioned in paragraph 3 that the public transportation systems in the US are good in ______.

A. large cities

B. large states

C. some states

D. all cities

Question 45: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Few college students in the US have their own cars.

B. The underground systems are popular in some major US cities.

C. Most Americans prefer to drive their cars outside large cities.

D. Families in the US often have more than one car.

Question 46: The phrase “at their own convenience” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. at an early time and nearby place

B. at the fastest time and nearest place

C. at the latest time and nearest place

D. at an appropriate time and place

Question 47: Which of the following is true about transport in Britain?

A. Trains are usually cheaper than long-distance coach services.

B. There are no regular flights between regional airports.

C. Heavier items and raw materials are often transported by train.

D. Long-distance travel in Britain is only by road.

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Question 48: It is stated in the passage that the major problems of road transport in Britain and the US are ______.

A. speeding and bad roads

B. drink-driving and traffic jams

C. traffic jams and pollution

D. accidents and pollution

Question 49: According to the passage, people in Britain refuse public transport because ______.

A. they think it is not good enough

B. they see no reason to use their cars less

C. petrol is relatively cheap in Britain

D. they like to share rides with neighbours

Question 50: The word “they” in the last sentence of the passage can best be replaced by ______.

A. major cities

B. Americans

C. the government

D. neighbours

Đáp án 2-C

3-B

4-A

5-C

6-D

7-A

8-C

9-B

10-B

11-C

12-C

13-B

14-D

15-A

16-D

17-A

18-B

19-C

20-B

21-C

22-C

23-B

24-B

25-C

26-B

27-D

28-D

29-B

30-C

31-D

32-A

33-D

34-C

35-A

36-A

37-B

38-D

39-B

40-D

41-C

42-C

43-A

44-A

45-A

46-D

47-C

48-C

49-A

50-B

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

1-A

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH – SỐ 17 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. visible

B. decision

C. disease

D. design

Question 2:

A. chin

B. chaos

C. child

D. charge

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other threein theposition ofprimarystressin each ofthefollowingquestions.

Question 3:

A. rubbish

B. career

C. actor

D. cocktail

Question 4:

A. biology

B. inaccurate

C. ability

D. interactive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Our astronauts chosen for fly spacecraft were selected from military test pilots.

A. chosen for fly

B. spacecraft

C. were

D. pilots

Question 6: Looking from afar, the village resembles a small green spot dotted with tiny fireballs.

A. Looking

B. resembles

C. green spot

D. with

Question 7: There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in Italy.

A. There was

B. a

C. on

D. about

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: They live on a busy road. ______ a lot of noise from traffic.

A. There must have

B. It must have been

C. There must be

D. It must be

Question 9: They have demanded that all copies of the book _________.

A. being destroyed

B. be destroyed

C. to be destroyed

D. would be destroyed

Question 10: ______ make a good impression on her.

A. Only by doing so can I

B. Only so doing can I

C. Only by so doing I can

D. Only by doing so I can

Question 11: No matter how angry he was, he would never ______ to violence.

A. refuse

B. resort

C. resist

D. resolve

Question 12: He came ______ a lot of criticism for the remarks he made in a television interview.

A. in for

B. over

C. out of

D. off

Question 13: The water supply of our home city has failed to ______ average purity requirements.

A. see

B. meet

C. own

D. hold

Question 14: I would join that running competition ______.

A. when I was 5 years older

B. if I were 5 years younger

C. if it would happen 5 years ago

D. unless I were 5 years younger

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Question 15: ______ my personal qualities, I have experience of working in a multi-national company for three years.

A. Beside

B. In addition

C. Instead of

D. Apart from

Question 16: It is ______ work of art that everyone wants to have a look at it.

A. such an unusual

B. such unusual a

C. a so unusual

D. so an unusual

Question 17: During our stay in Venice, we bought a ________ bottle.

A. glass lovely perfume

B. lovely glass perfume

C. lovely perfume glass

D. glass perfume lovely

Question 18: Don’t worry! He’ll do the job as _________ as possible.

A. economical

B. economically

C. uneconomically

D. beautifully

Question 19: Books and magazines ______ around made his room very untidy.

A. that lie

B. laying

C. which lied

D. lying

190014 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Lora: “Do you mind if I turn on the fan?”

Maria: “______”

A. Not for me

B. Not at all

C. Never mind

D. Not enough

Question 21: Lucy: “You look really nice in that red sweater!”

Sue: “______.”

A. I’m afraid so.

B. How dare you?

C. Don’t mention it.

D. Thank you.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSESTin meaning to theunderlinedword(s) in each ofthefollowingquestions.

Question 22: Sand is found in abundance on the seashore and is often blown inland to form sand hills and dunes.

A. at random

B. at high tide

C. in dry mounds

D. in great quantities

Question 23: The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.

A. very rapidly

B. time after time

C. from time to time

D. again and again

Mark the letterA, B, C, orD on youranswersheetto indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaningto theunderlinedword(s) in each ofthefollowingquestions.

Question 24: Her thoughtless comments made him very angry.

A. honest

B. kind

C. pleasant

D. thoughtful

Question 25: A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work.

A. uncomfortable

B. responsive

C. calm

D. miserable

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Soil erosion is a result of forests being cut down carelessly.

A. That forests are being cut down carelessly results from soil erosion.

B. Soil erosion contributes to forests being cut down carelessly.

C. Soil erosion results in forests being cut down carelessly.

D. That forests are being cut down carelessly leads to soil erosion.

Question 27: “I will not leave until I see the manager,” said the customer.

A. The customer was persuaded to see the manager before leaving.

B. The customer said he would leave before he saw the manager.

C. The customer refused to leave until he saw the manager.

D. The customer decided to leave because he did not see the manager.

Question 28: She prefers going to the library to staying at home.

A. She would rather go to the library than stay at home.

B. She likes nothing better than going to the library.

C. She does not like either going to the library or staying at home.

D. She stays at home instead of going to the library.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Laura didn’t come to the conference. This made me annoyed.

A. Laura didn’t come to the conference, that made me annoyed.

B. That Laura didn’t come to the conference made me annoyed.

C. Laura didn’t come to the conference which made me annoyed.

D. Laura didn’t come to the conference when this made me annoyed.

Question 30: His speech was boring. Everyone got up and left.

A. He got up and left because everyone was talking.

B. No one stayed to listen to him because his speech was so boring.

C. Every one stood up so that they could hear his speech.

D. His speech was interesting enough for everyone to listen.

Read the following passage andmark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correctwordorphrase thatbestfits each ofthenumberedblanks from 31 to 35.

A trend that has emerged recently is the sharing of childcare (31) __________ between husband and wife. Young couples will try to arrange their work schedules so that they work opposite hours or shifts in order that one parent is always home with the children.

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Since childcare is expensive, this saves money for the young couple trying to establish themselves and provide a secure environment for the family. Husband and wife may also share household chores. Some fathers are just as capable as mothers at cooking dinner, changing and bathing the baby, and doing the laundry.

In some cases, the woman’s salary is for family (32) __________ and the father

becomes the “househusband." These cases are still fairly rare. One positive trend, however, is that fathers seem to be spending more time with their children. In a recent survey, 41% of the children sampled said they spend equal time with their mothers and fathers. “This is one of our most significant cultural changes,” says Dr. Leon Hoffman, who co-directs the Parent Child Center at the New York Psychoanalytic Society. In practice, for over 30 years, Hoffman has found "a very dramatic difference in the involvement of the father in everything from care-taking to general decision (33) __________ around kids' lives.”

Another factor has recently been added to the childcare formula. The number of

people who work from home nearly full-time rose 23% from the last decade. The (34) _________ of technology - computers, faxes, teleconferencing - has made it easier for athome workers to be constantly in touch.

Question 31:

A. abilities

B. possibilities

C. techniques

D. esponsibilities

Question 32:

A. payment

B. expenses

C. fares

D. fees

Question 33:

A. making

B. creating

C. holding

D. giving

Question 34:

A. accessible

B. accessibly

C. access

D. accessibility

Question 35:

A. well-being

B. security

C. comfort

D. interests

Read the following passage andmark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correctanswerto each ofthe questions from 36 to 42.

If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster. According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which ambitious parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what

his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic parental expectations can cause great damage to children.

However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well — especially if the parents are very supportive of their child. Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice a week for violin

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lessons. Michael's mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling.

Winston Smith, Michael's friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians, and they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so they enter him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.

Question 36: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to __________.

A. push their child into trying too much

B. help their child to become a genius

C. make their child become a musician

D. neglect their child's education

Question 37: Parents' ambition for their children is not wrong if they ___________.

A. force their children into achieving success B. themselves have been very successful C. understand and help their children sensibly D. arrange private lessons for their children

Question 38: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?

A. Successful musicians.

B. Unrealistic parents.

C. Their children.

D. Educational psychologists

Question 39: Michael Collins is fortunate in that ______.

A. his father is a musician

B. his parents are quite rich

C. his mother knows little about music

D. his parents help him in a sensible way

Question 40: The phrase "crazy about" in the passage mostly means ________.

A. "surprised at"

B. "extremely interested in"

C. "completely unaware of"

D. "confused about"

Question 41: The word "They" in the passage refers to ________.

A. concerts

B. violin lessons

C. parents in general

D. Winston’s parents

Question 42: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that _______.

A. Successful parents always have intelligent children.

B. Successful parents often have unsuccessful children.

C. Parents should let the child develop in the way he wants.

D. Parents should spend more money on the child’s education.

190053 Read the following passage andmark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correctanswerto each ofthe questions from 43 to 50.

In addition to their military role, the forts of the nineteenth century provided numerous other benefits for the American West. The establishment of these posts opened new roads and

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

provided for the protection of daring adventurers and expeditions as well as established settlers. Forts also served as bases where enterprising entrepreneurs could bring commerce to the West, providing supplies and refreshments to soldiers as well as to pioneers. Posts like Fort Laramie provided supplies for wagon trains traveling the natural highways toward new frontiers. Some posts became stations for the pony express; still others, such as Fort Davis, were stagecoach stops for weary travelers. All of these functions, of course, suggest that the contributions of the forts to the civilization and development of the West extended beyond patrol duty.

Through the establishment of military posts, yet other contributions were made to the development of western culture. Many posts maintained libraries or reading rooms, and some – for example, Fort Davis had schools. Post chapels provided a setting for religious services and weddings. Throughout the wilderness, post bands provided entertainment and boosted morale. During the last part of the nineteenth century, to reduce expenses, gardening was encouraged at the forts, thus making experimental agriculture another activity of the military.

The military stationed at the various forts also played a role in civilian life by assisting in maintaining order, and civilian officials often called on the army for protection.

Certainly, among other significant contributions the army made to the improvement of the conditions of life was the investigation of the relationships among health, climate, and architecture. From the earliest colonial times throughout the nineteenth century, disease ranked as the foremost problem in defense. It slowed construction of forts and inhibited their military functions. Official documents from many regions contained innumerable reports of sickness that virtually incapacitated entire garrisons. In response to the problems, detailed observations of architecture and climate and their relationships to the frequency of the occurrence of various diseases were recorded at various posts across the nation by military surgeons.

Question 43: Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?

A. By the nineteenth century, forts were no longer used by the military.

B. Surgeons at forts could not prevent outbreaks of disease.

C. Forts were important to the development of the American West.

D. Life in nineteenth-century forts was very rough.

Question 44: Which of the following would a traveler be LEAST likely to obtain at Fort Laramie?

A. Fresh water

B. Food

C. Formal clothing

D. Lodging

Question 45: The word “boosted” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.

B. established

C. raised

D. maintained

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. influenced

Question 46: Which of the following is the most likely inference about the decision to promote gardening at forts?

A. It was expensive to import produce from far away.

B. Food brought in from outside was often spoiled

C. Gardening was a way to occupy otherwise idle soldiers.

D. The soil near the forts was very fertile.

Question 47: According to the passage, which of the following posed the biggest obstacle to the development of military forts?

A. Insufficient shelter

B. Shortage of materials

C. Attacks by wild animals

D. Illness

Question 48: The word “inhibited” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. involved

B. exploited

C. united

D. hindered

Question 49: How did the military assist in the investigation of health problems?

A. By registering annual birth and death rates

B. By experiments with different building materials

C. By maintaining records of diseases and potential causes D. By monitoring the soldiers’ diets

Question 50: The author organizes the discussion of forts by ________.

A. describing their locations

B. comparing their sizes

C. explaining their damage to the environment D. listing their contributions to western life THE END

ĐÁP ÁN 2- B

3- B

4- D

5- A

6- A

7- B

8- C

9- B

10- A

11- B

12- A

13- B

14- B

15- D

16- A

17- B

18- B

19- D

20- B

21- D

22- D

23- A

24- D

25- C

26- D

27- C

28- A

29- B

30- B

31- D

32- B

33- A

34- D

35- A

36- A

37- C

38- D

39- D

40- B

41- D

42- C

43- C

44- C

45- C

46- A

47- D

48- D

49- C

50- D

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1- B

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 18 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

A. believes

B. parents

C. things

D. girls

Question 2:

A. education

B. repetition

C. pronunciation D. question

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Question 1:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other threeinthepositionofprimarystressineachofthefollowingquestions.

Question 3:

A. future

B. prospect

C. guidance

D. involve

Question 4:

A. mechanism

B. minority

C. eradicate

D. alternative

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: In spite of the heavy rain, all we enjoyed the excursion.

A. In spite of

B. heavy

C. all we

D. excursion

Question 6: A dolphin can communicate with other by making distinctive sounds.

A. communicate

B. other

C. making

D. sounds

Question 7: Opened the letter from her boyfriend, she felt extremely excited.

A. Opened

B. from

C. felt

D. excited

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: She was ______ angry that she could not say a word.

A. so

B. too much

C. so many

D. such

Question 9: Susan, remember to apply this sun cream ______ two hours.

A. some

B. several

C. every

D. each

Question 10: Neither Tom nor his brothers ______ willing to help their mother with the housework.

A. are

B. was

C. has been

D. is

Question 11: Spain has won the championship, ______ is not surprising.

A. that

B. how

C. which

D. what

Question 12: I’d rather you ______ to the English-speaking club with me this Sunday.

A. will come

B. came

C. come

D. to come

Question 13: Instead of staying around the house all day, you should be out there looking ______ a job.

A. for

B. after

C. into

D. at

Question 14: How long ago ______ to learn French?

A. have you started

B. were you starting

C. would you start

D. did you start

Question 15: No sooner ______ my car than the alarm went off.

B. had the thief touched

C. touched the thief

D. the thief touched

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. the thief had touched

Question 16: She passed the National High School Graduation Exam with ______ colours.

A. bright

B. flying

C. red

D. true

Question 17: This carpet really needs ______. Can you do it for me, son?

A. being cleaned

B. cleaned

C. clean

D. cleaning

Question 18: I hope you will ______ notice of what I am going to tell you.

A. gain

B. keep

C. get

D. take

Question 19: He gave ______ his job in order to go back to university.

A. up

B. in

C. away

D. out

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Jack: “What’s wrong with you?”

Jill: “______.”

A. Thank you very much

B. I’m having a slight headache

C. No, I don’t care

D. Yes, I was tired yesterday

Question 21: Sarah: “Oh my God, I’ve missed my bus.”

Christ: “______. Another will come here in ten minutes.”

A. I hope so

B. Don’t mention it

C. Don’t worry

D. Thank you

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSESTin meaning to theunderlinedword(s) in each ofthefollowingquestions.

Question 22: A special exhibition of Indian art will be opened at the National Museum next month.

A. painting

B. programme

C. music

D. show

Question 23: Traffic began to flow normally again after the accident.

A. with the same speed

B. in the usual or ordinary way

C. strangely and irregularly

D. repeatedly in different modes

Mark the letter A, B, C, orD on youranswersheetto indicate the word(s) OPPOSITEin meaningto theunderlinedword(s) in each ofthefollowingquestions.

Question 24: That afternoon at the railway station I was surprised and made happy by the unexpected arrival of Miss Margaret and her mother, from Oakland.

A. presumed

B. supposed

C. informed

D. anticipated

Question 25: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region.

B. stay unchanged

C. remain unstable

D. fluctuate

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. restrain

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: “May I see your passport, Mrs Scott?” said the customs officer.

A. The customs officer asked to see Mrs Scott’s passport.

B. The customs officer suggested seeing Mrs Scott’s passport.

C. The customs officer asked Mrs Scott to see his passport.

D. The customs officer promised to show Mrs Scott his passport.

Question 27: My friend finds driving on the left difficult.

A. My friend didn’t use to drive on the left.

B. My friend used to drive on the left.

C. My friend isn’t used to driving on the left.

D. My friend didn’t get used to driving on the left.

Question 28: I think it is more enjoyable to play a sport than to watch it on TV. A. In my view, playing a sport is as enjoyable as watching it on TV.

B. As far as I know, more people watch a sport on TV than they play it.

C. In my opinion, to play a sport is more enjoyable than to watch it on TV. D. I think watching a sport on TV is more enjoyable than playing it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: We can get a wonderful meal at a restaurant. I know it.

A. We can get a wonderful meal which I know at a restaurant.

B. I know a restaurant at where we can get a wonderful meal.

C. The restaurant which I know is where we get a wonderful meal.

D. I know a restaurant where we can get a wonderful meal.

Question 30: He had just entered the house. The police arrested him at once.

A. Hardly that he had entered the house when the police arrested him.

B. No sooner had he entered the house than the police arrested him.

C. Immediately had he entered the house when the police arrested him.

D. The police immediately arrested him as soon as he’s just entered the house.e Read the following passage andmark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correctwordorphrase thatbestfits each ofthenumberedblanks from 31 to 35.

Rural America is diverse in many ways. As we have seen, no one industry dominates the rural economy, no single pattern of population decline or (31)________ exists for all rural

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areas, and no statement about improvements and gaps in well-being holds true for all rural people.

Many of these differences are regional in nature. That is, rural areas within a

particular geographic region of the country often tend to be similar (32)_______ each other and different from areas in another region. Some industries, for example, are (33)_______ with different regions – logging and sawmills in the Pacific Northwest and New England, manufacturing in the Southeast and Midwest, and farming in the Great Plains. Persistent poverty also has a regional pattern, concentrated primarily in the Southeast. Other differences follow no regional pattern. Areas that rely heavily on the services industry are located throughout rural America, as are rural areas that have little access to advanced telecommunications services. Many of these differences, regional and non-regional, are the result of a (34)______ of factors including the availability of natural resources; distance from and access to major metropolitan areas and the information and services found there; transportation and shipping facilities; political history and structure; and the racial, ethnic, and (35)______ makeup of the population.

Adapted from “Understanding Rural America”, InfoUSA

Question 31:

A. grow

B. growth

C. growing

D. grown

Question 32:

A. of

B. with

C. to

D. from

Question 33:

A. added

B. associated

C. compared

D. related

Question 34:

A. cooperation

B. connection

C. link

D. combination

Question 35:

A. cultured

B. culturally

C. cultural

D. culture

Read the following passage andmark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correctanswerto each ofthe questions from 36to 42.

In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew when I started as a counselor and professor 25 years ago. College has always been demanding both academically and socially. But students now are less mature and often not ready for the responsibility of being in college.

It is really too easy to point the finger at parents who protect their children from life’s obstacles. Parents, who handle every difficulty and every other responsibility for their children from writing admission essays to picking college courses, certainly may contribute to their children’s lack of coping strategies. But we can look even more broadly to the social trends of today.

How many people do you know who are on medication to prevent anxiety or depression? The number of students who arrive at college already medicated for unwanted

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

emotions has increased dramatically in the past 10 years. We, as a society, don’t want to “feel” anything unpleasant and we certainly don’t want our children to “suffer”.

The resulting problem is that by not experiencing negative emotions, one does not

learn the necessary skills to tolerate and negotiate adversity. As a psychologist, I am well aware of the fact that some individuals suffer from depression and anxiety and can benefit from treatment, but I question the growing number of medicated adolescents today.

Our world is more stressful in general because of the current economic and political

realities, but I don’t believe that the college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years. What I do think is that many students are often not prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life. What does this mean for college faculty and staff?

We are required to assist in the basic parenting of these students - the student who complains that her professor didn’t remind her of the due date for an assignment that was clearly listed on the syllabus and the student who cheats on an assignment in spite of careful instructions about plagiarism.

As college professors, we have to explain what it means to be an independent college

student before we can even begin to teach. As parents and teachers we should expect young people to meet challenges. To encourage them in this direction, we have to step back and let them fail and pick themselves up and move forward. This approach needs to begin at an early age so that college can actually be a passage to independent adulthood.

(Adapted from “Students are different now” by Linda Bips. New York Times, October

11, 2010 Question 36: According to the writer, students’ difficulties to cope with college life are partly due to ____.

A. the lack of financial support

B. the over-parenting from parents

C. the absence of parents' protection

D. the lack of parental support

Question 37: The phrase "on medication" in paragraph 3 is similar in meaning to A. receiving medical treatment

B. suffering anxiety or depression

C. doing medical research

D. studying medicine at college

Question 38: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?

A. The college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years.

B. Our world is more stressful because of the current economic and political situation.

C. College faculty and staff are required to help in the parenting of problematic students.

D. Our society certainly doesn't want our children to experience unpleasant things.

Question 39: The word "them" in the last paragraph refers to __________.

C. teachers

D. parents

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. college professors B. young people

Question 40: Students who are not well-prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life will need ________.

A. to be assigned more housework from adults B. to be given more social responsibilities C. to be encouraged to meet challenges D. daily coaching from their teachers

Question 41: According to the writer, failure in life and less support from parents will ________.

A. defeat students from the very beginning

B. help students to learn to stand on their own feet C. discourage students and let them down forever

D. allow students to learn the first lesson in their lives

Question 42: What is probably the writer's attitude in the passage?

A. Indifferent

B. Praising

C. Critical

D. Humorous

Read the following passage andmark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correctanswerto each ofthe questions from 43 to 50.

Most of us know a little about how babies learn to talk. From the time infants are

born, they hear language because their parents talk to them all the time. Between the ages of seven and ten months, most infants begin to make sounds. They repeat the same sounds over and over again. This is called babbling. When babies babble, they are practicing their language.

What happens, though, to children who cannot hear? How do deaf children learn to communicate? Recently, doctors have learned that deaf babies babble with their hands. Laura Ann Petitto, a psychologist, observed three hearing infants with English-speaking parents and two deaf infants with deaf parents using American Sign Language (ASL) to communicate.

Dr. Petitto studied the babies three times: at 10, 12, and 14 months. During this time, children really begin to develop their language skills.

After watching and videotaping the children for several hundred hours, the psychologist and her assistants made many important observations. For example, they saw that the hearing children made varied motions with their hands. However, there appeared to be no pattern to these motions. The deaf babies also made different movements with their hands, but these movements were more consistent and deliberate. The deaf babies seemed to

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

make the same hand movements over and over again. During the four-month period, the deaf babies' hand motions started to resemble some basic hand-shapes used in ASL. The children also seemed to prefer certain hand-shapes.

Hearing infants start first with simple syllable babbling, then put more syllables

together to sound like real sentences and questions. Apparently, deaf babies follow this same pattern, too. First, they repeat simple hand- shapes. Next, they form some simple hand signs and use these movements together to resemble ASL sentences.

Linguists believe that our ability for language is innate. In other words, humans are

born with the capacity for language: It does not matter if we are physically able to speak or not. Language can be expressed in different ways - for instance, by speech or by sign. Dr. Petitto believes this theory and wants to prove it. She plans to study hearing children who have one deaf parent and one hearing parent. She wants to see what happens when babies have the opportunity to learn both sign language and speech. Does the human brain prefer speech? Some of these studies of hearing babies who have one deaf parent and one hearing parent show that the babies babble equally with their hands and their voices. They also produce their first words, both spoken and signed, at about the same time. More studies in the future may prove that the sign system of the deaf is the physical equivalent of speech.

Adapted from “Issues for Today” by Lorraine C. Smith and Nancy Nici Mare

Question 43: According to paragraph 1, babies begin to babble ___________.

A. at their first moment after birth

B. at their first experience of language C. when they are more than 6 months old D. when they first hear their parents talk to them Question 44: The phrase “the babies” in paragraph 2 refers to _________ in the study.

A. the hearing infants

B. the deaf infants

C. the hearing and deaf infants

D. the disabled infants

Question 45: The writer mentions “American Sign Language (ASL)” in paragraph 2 as a language A. used by the deaf to communicate

B. especially formed by infants

C. used among psychologists

D. widely used by American children

Question 46: The word “resemble” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.

A. making initial movements

B. studying funny movements

C. creating strange movements

D. producing similar movements

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Question 47: It is stated in paragraph 3 that both the deaf and the hearing children made movements with their hands, but _________.

A. only the hearing children made different movements

B. the deaf children made less consistent hand movements

C. the hearing children only repeated the same hand motions D. only the deaf children repeated the same hand motions

Question 48: According to paragraph 4, hearing infants learn to talk first by ___________.

A. hand-shapes

B. babbling

C. hand motions

D. eye movements

Question 49: It is mentioned in the last paragraph that Dr. Petitto plans to study __________.

A. what happens when babies have the opportunity to learn both speech and sign language B. whether all children speak and make motions with their hands at the same time C. the assumption that the human brain prefers sign language to speech

D. whether the sign system of the deaf is the physical equivalent of speech

Question 50: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?

A. Education for Deaf Children

B. How do Children Master Language?

C. Language: Is It Always Spoken?

D. American Sign Language

THE END

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33-B

34-D

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47-A

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D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

1-B

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - SỐ 19 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. established

B. reserved

C. designed

D. organized

Question 2:

A. danger

B. educate

C. strange

D. applicant

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other threein theposition ofprimarystressin each ofthefollowingquestions.

Question 3:

A. moment

B. event

C. cancer

D. offer

Question 4:

A. participate

B. psychology

C. ability

D. temporary

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: The office furniture that was ordered last month have just arrived, but we‟re not sure whether the manager will like it.

A. was ordered

B. have just arrived

C. whether

D. will like

Question 6: The first national known male singers of popular music appeared during the 1920s.

A. The

B. national

C. of

D. appeared

Question 7: Dreaming, like all other mental processes, it is a product of the brain and its activity.

A. like all

B. it is

C. of the brain

D. its activity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: My supervisor is angry with me. I didn't do all the work I ______ last week.

A. should have done

B. may have done

C. need to have done D. must have done

Question 9: She is very absent-minded: she ______ her cellphone three times!

A. has lost

B. loses

C. was losing

D. had lost

Question 10: Whenever he had an important decision to make, he ______ a cigar to calm his nerves.

A. would light

B. would be lighting

C. would have lit

D. had lit

Question 11: He always ______ the crossword in the newspaper before breakfast.

A. writes

B. makes

C. works

D. does

Question 12: Not until the end of the 19th century ______ become a scientific discipline.

A. plant breeding has

B. did plant breeding

C. plant breeding had

D. has plant breeding

Question 13: "How can you live in this messy room? Go and ______ it up at once."

A. dust

B. sweep

C. tidy

D. do

Question 14: This factory produced ______ motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.

A. twice as many

B. as twice as many

C. as twice many

D. as many as twice

Question 15: Preparing for a job interview can be very ______.

B. stressful

C. stressed

D. stressing

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. stress

Question 16: In many big cities, people have to ______ up with noise, overcrowding and bad air.

A. keep

B. catch

C. face

D. put

Question 17: Had she worked harder last summer, she ______.

A. wouldn't have been sacked

B. wouldn't have sacked

C. wouldn't sack

D. wouldn't be sacked

Question 18: Nobody‟s got to stay late this evening, _______?

A. is it

B. have they

C. isn’t it

D. don’t they

Question 19: With hard work and study, you can ______ the goals you set for yourself.

A. establish

B. succeed

C. achieve

D. increase

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: - "Our team has just won the last football match."

- "______"

A. Good idea. Thanks for the news.

B. Yes. I guess it's very good.

C. Well, that's very surprising!

D. Yes, it's our pleasure.

Question 21: - "I can't speak English well enough to apply for that post."

- "______."

A. Me neither

B. Me too

C. Me either

D. Me also

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSESTin meaning to theunderlinedword(s) in each ofthefollowingquestions.

Question 22: Other experiments were undertaken in Europe and America, but the arc light eventually proved impractical because it burned out too quickly.

A. funded

B. discovered

C. failed

D. carried out

Question 23: He surprised me in a later conversation by mentioning he was taking steps to remedy the problem.

A. understand

B. improve

C. face

D. encounter

Mark the letter A, B, C, orD on youranswersheetto indicate the word(s) OPPOSITEin meaningto theunderlinedword(s) in each ofthefollowingquestions.

Question 24: I take my hat off to all those people who worked hard to get the contract.

A. admire

B. congratulate

C. treasure

D. disregard

Question 25: This flat is a far cry from the house they had before.

B. be exactly the same

C. be better than

D. be worse than

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. be completely different

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: “It’s not true! I have never been arrested.”

A. Harry denied ever having been arrested.

B. Harry denied not having been arrested.

C. Harry said that it was not true to have been arrested.

D. Harry refused having been arrested.

Question 27: There’s no point in phoning Caroline – she’s away.

A. Don’t waste your time if you phone Caroline.

B. It would be a waste of time phoning Caroline.

C. Don’t save your time to phone Caroline because she’s away.

D. It isn’t a waste of time to phone Caroline.

Question 28: Under no circumstances should you press both buttons at once.

A. Neither of the buttons shouldn’t be pressed at once under any circumstances.

B. Both buttons should’t be pressed at once under no circumstances.

C. You should not press both buttons at once under any circumstances.

D. Pressing both buttons at once should be performed under any circumstances.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: We couldn’t squeeze through the door. It was very narrow.

A. We couldn’t squeeze through the door, which it was very narrow.

B. Since the door was very narrow, that we couldn’t squeeze through it.

C. The door was so narrow for us to squeeze through.

D. So narrow was the door that we couldn’t squeeze through.

Question 30: You must read the instructions. You won’t know how to use this machine without reading them.

A. Reading the instructions, so you will know how to use this machine.

B. Without reading the instructions, the use of this machine won’t be known.

C. Unless you read the instructions, you won’t know how to use this machine.

D. You will know how to use this machine unless you read the instructions Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

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In the United States and Canada, it is very important to (31) ______ a person directly in the eyes when you are having a conversation with him or her. If you look down or to the side when the (32) ______ person is talking, that person will think that you are not interested in what he or she is saying. This, of course, is not polite. If you look down or to the side when you are talking, it might (33) ______ that you are not honest. However, people who are speaking will sometimes look away for (34) ______ seconds when they are thinking or trying to find the right word. But they always turn immediately back to look the listener directly in the eyes. These social "rules" are (35) ______ for two men, two women, a man and a woman, or an adult and a child.

Question 31:

A. talk

B. notice

C. get

D. look

Question 32:

A. others

B. another

C. one

D. other

Question 33:

A. seem

B. become

C. turn

D. come

Question 34:

A. a little

B. a few

C. little

D. few

Question 35:

A. like

B. the same

C. likely

D. such as

Read the following passage andmark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correctanswerto each ofthe questions from 36to 41.

The Ring of Fire is an enormous chain of volcanoes all around the Pacific Ocean. The ring goes from New Zealand up to Asia and across the ocean to Alaska. From Alaska, the ring continues southward along the coast of both North and South America. More than seventyfive percent of the world's volcanoes are located in this ring. Scientists are interested in studying the Ring of Fire because they can observe plate tectonics at work there. In 1912, a German scientist, Alfred Wegener, came up with the first theory of land movement. Wegener said continents are made up of lighter rocks resting on heavier material. Similar to the way large things move while floating on water, Wegener suggested that the positions of the continents were not fixed, but that they moved slightly. Later, scientists discovered most of Wegener's ideas were right on the mark. They then developed the theory called plate tectonics. According to plate tectonics, the surface of the Earth consists of a number of

enormous plates or sections of rock, each about eighty kilometers thick. The plates float and slowly move at speeds between one to ten centimeters every year. That is about the rate your fingernails grow! Within the Ring of Fire, new material for the Earth's plates is constantly being created as hot liquid rock called magma flows from the center of the Earth up to the ocean floor. All the existing plates on the Earth's surface have to move slightly to make room for the new material. As plates move both away from and toward each other, they run into each other. When they hit each other, one plate might move under another. This process is

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

called subduction. Subduction frequently causes earthquakes. It may also result in the bottom plate melting due to the extreme temperatures under the top plate. The magma created in this process can rise to the Earth's surface and come out through volcanoes, as can be seen along the Ring of Fire.

Question 36: What is the main focus of this reading?

A. The most active volcanoes found in the Ring of Fire B. The location of the Ring of Fire

C. How the plates on the Earth‟s surface move in different ways D. How plate tectonics, volcanoes, and earthquakes are related

Question 37: The word “fixed” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______________.

A. not changing

B. unstable

C. moving

D. floating

Question 38: According to the reading, which is true about the Ring of Fire?

A. All of the volcanoes along the ring are active.

B. Most of the volcanoes on Earth are part of the ring.

C. The ring gets bigger each year.

D. The ring was discovered in the 20th century.

Question 39: What does “subduction” mean in this reading?

A. Rocks moving under volcanoes

B. Erupting liquid rock

C. The theory of moving plates

D. Movement of a plate under another

Question 40: What is NOT a result of shifting tectonic plates?

A. Earthquakes

B. Extreme temperatures inside the Earth

C. Volcanoes

D. Subduction

Question 41: Which question is NOT answered in the reading?

A. How fast do tectonic plates move?

B. How thick are the plates in tectonic theory?

C. What is the most active volcano today?

D. Where is the Ring of Fire?

Read the following passage andmark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correctanswerto each ofthe questions from 42 to 50.

On a winter night last June, José Antonio Tuki, a 30-year-old artist on Easter Island, sat on Anakena beach and stared at the enormous human statues there – the moai. The statues are from four feet tall to 33 feet tall. Some weigh more than 80 tons. They were carved a long time ago, with stone tools, and then they were moved up to 11 miles to the beach. Tuki stares at their faces and he feels a connection. ‘This is something that was produced by my ancestors’, he says. ‘How did they do it?’

The first Polynesians arrived at Rapa Nui (Easter Island), probably by canoe, hundreds of

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

years ago. The island is 2,150 miles west of South America and 1,300 miles east of its nearest inhabited neighbour, Pitcairn. Nowadays 12 flights arrive every week from Chile, Peru and Tahiti.

In

2011,

50,000

tourists

–

ten

times

the

island’s population – flew to Easter Island. Almost all of the jobs on Easter Island depend on tourism. And the tourists go there for only one thing: the moai. People around the world became curious about the statues after the Norwegian adventurer Thor Heyerdahl made Easter Island famous, and there are different theories about how the statues were moved to the beach. Many researchers think the statues were pulled along the ground using ropes and wood. Pulitzer Prize winner Jared Diamond has suggested that many people were needed to build

and

move

the

moai. As a result, the island’s trees were cut down for wood and to create farming land. This open

land

was

fragile and it was soon eroded by the strong winds, so it was very difficult to grow food. The situation was an early example of an ecological disaster, according to Diamond. On the other hand, archaeologists Terry Hunt of the University of Hawaii and Carl Lipo of California State University Long Beach have a more positive view of the island’s history. They suggest that the inhabitants actually pioneered a type of sustainable farming – they built thousands of circular stone walls, called manavai, and grew food inside them. And their theory about how the moai were moved is that they were ‘walked’ along using a system of only ropes and a few people.

As José Tuki contemplates these enormous statues, he doesn’t mind that there are no definite answers about the history of his island. ‘I want to know the truth,’ he says, ‘but maybe knowing everything would take its power away’.

Question 42: The Easter Island statues __________.

A. are new constructions to attract tourists.

B. aren’t completely understood by archaeologists C. were destroyed by the islanders.

D. were made by José Antonio Tuki.

Question 43: On Easter Island today, the statues _________.

A. are very important for the island’s economy.

B. have lost their significance.

C. are abandoned.

D. are regarded as a problem.

Question 44: The people of Easter Island today _________.

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. are isolated from the modern world.

B. are often unemployed.

C. are very rich.

D. depend on foreign visitors.

Question 45: Studying the moai __________.

A. can tell us about the people who lived on the island.

B. is important to the farmers on Easter Island.

C. helps us to understand the art of José Tuki.

D. is not important to the people on Easter Island.

Question 46: The moai __________.

A. are statues of animals.

B. are all the same size.

C. were made by José Tuki‟s ancestors.

D. are small human statues.

Question 47: Jared Diamond thinks that _________.

A. the forest resources on Easter Island were poor.

B. there were never any forests on Easter Island.

C. the people on Easter Island used to be very poor.

D. it became difficult to grow food after the forests were cut down.

Question 48: Hunt and Lipo‟s theory about the movement of the statues involves using ________.

A. wood and stone.

B. ropes and people.

C. wood and ropes.

D. ropes and stone.

Question 49: The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. easily broken

B. firm

C. hard

D. dry

Question 50: The story of the moai can teach us lessons about _________.

A. our interaction with the environment.

B. the role of art in society.

C. island communities.

D. ecological disasters

Đáp án 2- D

3- B

4- D

5- B

6- B

7- B

8- A

9- A

10- A

11- D

12- B

13- C

14- A

15- B

16- D

17- A

18- B

19- C

20- C

21- A

22- D

23- B

24- D

25- B

26- A

27- B

28- C

29- D

30- C

31- D

32- D

33- A

34- B

35- B

36- D

37- A

38- B

39- D

40- B

41- C

42- B

43- A

44- D

45- A

46- C

47- D

48- B

49- A

50- A

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

1- A

ĐỀ LUYỆN THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH - ĐỀ SỐ 20 KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút ( không kể thời gian phát đề) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. gesture

B. surgery

C. engine

D. regard

Question 2:

A. flour

B. pour

C. hour

D. sour

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other threein theposition ofprimarystressin each ofthefollowingquestions.

Question 3:

A. possession

B. politics

C. refusal

D. decision

Question 4:

A. development

B. preservative

C. congratulate

D. preferential

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: My mother doesn’t care how much does the washing machine cost because she is going to buy it anyway.

A. doesn’t care

B. does the washing machine cost

C. because

D. to buy

Question 6: Nora hardly never misses an opportunity to play in the tennis tournaments.

A. hardly never

B. an

C. to play

D. in

Question 7: Both Mr. and Mrs. Smith are explaining children the rules of the game.

A. Both

B. Mr. and Mrs. Smith

C. are

D. children the rules of the game

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: I ______ this letter around for days without looking at it.

A. am carrying

B. will be carrying

C. carry

D. have been carrying

Question 9: It was not until she had arrived home ______ remembered her appointment with the doctor.

A. that she

B. and she

C. she

D. when she had

Question 10: I accidentally ______ Mike when I was crossing a street downtown yesterday.

A. kept an eye on

B. caught sight of

C. lost touch with

D. paid attention to

Question 11: ______ entering the hall, he found everyone waiting for him.

A. With

B. On

C. At

Question 12: I would really ______ your help with this assignment.

D. During

A. respect

B. take

C. appreciate

D. than

Question 13: The price of fruit has increased recently, ______ the price of vegetables has gone down.

A. otherwise

B. whether

C. whereas

D. when

Question 14: I am considering ______ my job. Can you recommend a good company?

A. to move

B. changing

C. to change

D. moving

Question 15: Can you keep calm for a moment? You ______ noise in class!

B. always make

C. have always made D. are always making

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

A. are always made

Question 16: These measures have been taken with a _______ to increasing the company's profits.

A. goal

B. view

C. reason

D. reason

Question 17: Anyone _______ scholastic record is above average can apply for the scholarship.

A. who has

B. whose

C. with

D. has

Question 18: You feel so _______ because there's nothing you can do to make the child better.

A. unhelpful

B. helpless

C. thoughtful

D. helpful

Question 19: The manager had his secretary ______ the report for him.

A. to have typed

B. typed

C. type

D. to type

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response or question to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Janet: "Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?"

Susan: "______."

A. I don't agree, I'm afraid.

B. You‟re welcome.

C. I feel very bored.

D. That would be great.

Question 21: A: “________ detective stories?”

B: “In my opinion, they are very good for teenagers.”

A. What do you think about

B. Are you fond of

C. How about

D. What do people feel about

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: We now can instantly flick a lighter or strike a match to make a flame. But it was not long ago that there were no such things as matches or lighters.

A. a device that uses electricity, oil or gas to produce light

B. a small device that produces a flame for lighting cigarettes, etc.

C. the energy from the sun, a lamp, etc. that makes it possible to see things D. a hot bright stream of burning gas that comes from something that is on fire Question 23: The downside of this approach is that it is difficult to measure its efficacy.

A. negative aspect

B. positive aspect

C. advantage

D. strength

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Question 24: Don‟t take it as a piece of cake, hiking is very tiring task.

A. something that is easy to do

B. something that is very challenging to do

C. something that is rewarding to do

D. something that is dangerous to do

Question 25: Her husband, who had died three years previously, had left her well-off.

A. wealthy

B. miserable

C. better off

D. penniless

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: We were all surprised when she suddenly came back.

A. All of us found it surprising that she suddenly came back.

B. The fact that we were surprised made her come back.

C. All of us were amazing to see her come back.

D. She was surprised, coming back suddenly.

Question 27: Because she was irritated by her husband’s lack of punctuality, she left him.

A. Irritating with her husband’s lack of punctuality, she left him.

B. Being irritating by her husband’s lack of punctuality, she left him.

C. She left her husband because of her irritation with his lack of punctuality.

D. Irritated by her husband, she punctually left him.

Question 28: I can’t help feeling worried about Tom. A. I find it impossible not to worry about Tom. B. I don‟t worry about Tom.

C. I can do nothing to help Tom. D. I cannot help Tom stop worrying.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: Put your coat on. You will get cold.

A. You will not get cold unless you put your coat on.

B. Put your coat on, otherwise you will get cold.

C. It is not until you put your coat on that you will get cold.

D. You not only put your coat on but also get cold.

Question 30: Flora was alone again in her tiny room. She couldn’t help crying a little.

A. Flora couldn’t help crying a little as to be alone again in her tiny room.

B. Flora couldn’t help crying a little during being alone in her tiny room.

C. Alone again in her tiny room, Flora couldn’t help crying a little.

D. Being alone again in her tiny room, and then Flora couldn’t help crying a little.

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution problem is (31)______ complicated as it is serious. It is complicated because much pollution is caused by things that benefit people.(32)______, exhaust from automobiles causes a large percentage of air pollution. But the automobile provides transportation for millions of people.

Factories discharge much (33)______ the material that pollutes the air and water, but factories give employment to a large number of people.

Thus, to end or greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to stop using many things that benefit them. Most of the people do not want to do that, of course. But pollution can be (34)______ reduced in several ways.

Scientists and engineers can work to find ways to lessen the amount of pollution that such things as automobiles and factories cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws that (35)______ businesses and traffic to stop, or to cut down on certain polluting activities.

Question 31:

A. as

B. more

C. less

D. like

Question 32:

A. specific

B. for example

C. such as

D. like

Question 33:

A. about

B. for

C. of

D. with

Question 34:

A. carefully

B. unexpectedly

C. gradually

D. little

Question 35:

A. forbid

B. prevent

C. request

D. require

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Sylvia Earle is one of the world's most famous marine scientists and a National Geographic Explorer-inResidence. She loves to go diving in the ocean. She has spent a lot of her life both in and under the waves. Earle has led more than a hundred expeditions and she set a record for solo diving in 1,000-metre deep water. In total, she has spent more than 7,000 hours underwater.

Earle describes the first time she went to the ocean: ‘I was three years old and I got knocked over by a wave. The ocean certainly got my attention! It wasn’t frightening, it was thrilling.

And since then I have been fascinated by life in the ocean.’

In the past, Earle was the chief scientist of the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration in the USA. Now one of her jobs is with Google Earth’s Ocean. Earle’s special focus is on developing a global network of areas on the land and in the ocean. This network will protect and support the living systems that are important to the planet. She

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

explains why this is important: ‘When I first went to the Gulf of Mexico in the 1950s, the sea looked like a blue infinity. It seemed to be too large and too wild to be damaged by the action of people. Then, in a few decades, not thousands of years, the blue wilderness of my childhood disappeared. By the end of the 20th century, about 90 percent of the sharks, tuna, turtles, whales and many other large creatures had disappeared from the Gulf. They had been there for millions of years.’

Some people don’t understand why the ocean is so important to life on Earth. Earle explains that ‘the ocean is the foundation of our life support system. The ocean is alive. The living things in the ocean generate oxygen and take up carbon. If we don‟t have the ocean, we don’t have a planet that works.’

The Gulf of Mexico has had many problems, especially after the Deepwater Horizon Oil disaster of 2010, but Earle says, ‘In 2003 I found positive signs in clear, deep water far from the mouth of the Mississippi River. It was full of life. Large areas of the Gulf are not damaged. Protecting the most important places will be good for the future of the Gulf and for all of us’

Question 36: Sylvia Earle is a scientist who _______.

A. has done some unconventional things in her professional life.

B. has followed the traditional path of women in science.

C. has identified many new species of marine plants and animals.

D. currently works with the American government.

Question 37: Which of the statements about Sylvia Earle is NOT true?

A. She’s an experienced expedition leader.

B. She holds a record for the longest time under water.

C. She does one of her favorite activities in her work.

D. The work that she is currently doing is based all over the world.

Question 38: What started Earle’s interest in the ocean?

A. a National Geographic explorer

B. a childhood experience

C. her love of diving

D. her fear of the waves

Question 39: The word “thrilling” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. exciting and enjoyable

B. tiring

C. horrible

D. scary

Question 40: What percentage of animal life had disappeared from the Gulf of Mexico by the year 2000?

A. 20 percent

B. 50 percent

C. 90 percent

D. 70 percent

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

Question 41: How does the article illustrate specific problems in the marine environment?

A. by describing the situation in the Gulf of Mexico

B. through a history of Earle’s work in different organisations C. by giving details of what Earle plans to do

D. by giving examples of the problem in various pla

Question 42: Which of these statements describes one of the main points of the article?

A. The marine environment is a key part of all life on Earth.

B. The oceans provide us with unlimited resources.

C. The sea is one of the most exciting places for science at the moment.

D. It is impossible to protect marine areas.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct questions from 43 to 50.

The city of Detroit, in the USA, was once compared to Paris. It had a broad river, smart streets and historically important architecture. Then, in the 20th century, it became ‘Motor City’. For a time, most of the world’s cars were made here. There was regular work and a good salary in the motor industry. A worker at one of the car factories could own a home, plus a boat, maybe even a holiday cottage. Some say America’s middle class was born in Detroit – new highways certainly made it easy for workers to move from the city centre to the suburbs in the 1950s. But in the early years of the 21st century, Detroit became America’s poorest big city.

In less than five decades the once lively Motor City lost more than half its population. It became known as a city that was failing, full of ruined buildings, extensive poverty and crime. Newspapers and magazines told stories of derelict homes and empty streets.

Photographers went to Detroit to record the strange beauty of buildings and city blocks where nature was taking over again. What went wrong in Detroit?

The city is now 69th among US cities for the number of people per square mile. The population fell for several reasons. Partly, it was because people moved to the suburbs in the

1950s. Then there were the shocking riots in 1967, which scared more people away from the city. Then there was the dramatic fall in car manufacture as companies like General Motors and Chrysler faced huge difficulties. And finally, in 2008, came the global financial crisis.

Many of Detroit’s people are poor – half of the city’s families live on less than 25,000 dollars a year.

In 2013, the city did something unusual: it declared itself bankrupt. It was the largest city bankruptcy in US history, at approximately 18-20 billion dollars. Now that the city is free of

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

debt, it has money to do some of what needs to be done. It has replaced about 40,000

streetlights so that places feel safer. The police arrive in answer to calls in less than 20

minutes now, instead of the hour it used to take. And about a hundred empty houses are demolished each week to make space for new buildings. With the nation’s biggest city

bankruptcy behind it, Detroit is also attracting investors and young adventurers. The New Economy Initiative gave grants of 10,000 dollars to each of 30 new small businesses. It seems that every week a new business opens in Detroit – grocery stores, juice bars, coffee shops, even bicycle makers. Finally, the city is working again.

Question 43: The city of Detroit _______.

A. has experienced many changes.

B. is like European city in many ways.

C. it’s one of the richest places in the USA.

D. is not able to recover from its past problems.

Question 44: What was Detroit known as at the start of the 21st century?

A. the Paris of America

B. Motor City

C. the poorest city in America

D. the richest city in the world

Question 45: According to the second paragraph, what interested journalists in Detroit?

A. the empty places

B. the number of poor people

C. problems of old people

D. small buildings

Question 46: The word “ruined” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. be in bad condition

B. be in good condition

C. be in dry condition

D. be in humid condition

Question 47: How many reasons are given for people leaving Detroit?

A. three

B. four

C. five

D. six

Question 48: Bankruptcy meant that _______.

A. $20 billion was given back to Detroit.

B. Detroit could start again.

C. Everything was free in Detroit.

D. Detroit was heavily in debt.

Question 49: Which statement is true?

A. 30 businesses received money to help them develop.

B. About 30 businesses open every week now in Detroit.

C. There have been 30 new business ideas in Detroit.

D. $30 thousand was given to each of the new small business.

Question 50: Detroit _______.

A. is having more problems than ever before.

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

B. seems to have a better future ahead.

C. will have to suffer more before things improve.

D. can never be better.

Đáp án 2- B

3- B

4- D

5- B

6- A

7- D

8- D

9- A

10- B

11- B

12- C

13- C

14- B

15- D

16- B

17- B

18- B

19- C

20- D

21- A

22- B

23- A

24- B

25- D

26- A

27- C

28- A

29- B

30- C

31- A

32- B

33- C

34- C

35- D

36- A

37- B

38- B

39- A

40- C

41- A

42- A

43- A

44- C

45- A

46- A

47- B

48- B

49- A

50- B

D ẠY da K yk ÈM em Q qu UY yn N ho H nb Ơ N us O in F es F s@ ICI gm AL ai ST l.c &G om T

1- D